English (1001CMD303029240046) *1001CMD303029240046* Test Pattern

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Topic : SYLLABUS-3 f

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 4. A thermodynamic system is taken from an

original state (D) to an intermediate state (E) by
1. An ideal gas undergoes the process 1 → 2 as the linear process shown in figure:
shown in the figure, the heat supplied and work
done in the process is Δ Q and Δ W respectively.
The ratio Δ Q : Δ W is

(1) γ : γ – 1 (2) γ
(3) γ – 1 (4) γ – 1 : γ Its volume is then reduced to the original value
2. Assertion : When a bottle of cold carbonated drink from E to F by an isobaric process. Calculate the
is opened, a slight fog forms around the opening. total work done by the gas from D to E and E to F
Reason : Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes (1) 450 J (2) 1350 J
lowering of temperature which start condensation
of water vapours. (3) – 1350 J (4) 900 J
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason 5. Molar specific heat of water is ?
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (1) 2R (2) 3R (3) 9R (4) R
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and 6. A carnot's engine works between a source at a
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. temperature of 27°C, and a sink at – 123°C. Its
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. efficiency is :-
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true. (1) 0.5 (2) 0.25
3. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under three (3) 0.75 (4) 0.4
different processes. Process 1 is isobaric process, 7. Oxygen and hydrogen are at the same temperature T.
process 2 is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let The ratio of the mean kinetic energy of oxygen
Δ U1, Δ U2 and Δ U3 be the change in internal energy molecules to that of the hydrogen molecules will be:
of the gas is these three processes. Then :
(1) 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
8. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased
from 27°C to 927°C. The rms speed of its
molecules becomes:
(1) Δ U1> Δ U2 > Δ U3 (1) Twice
(2) Δ U1 < Δ U2 < Δ U3 (2) Half
(3) Δ U2 < Δ U1 < Δ U3 (3) Four times
(4) Δ U2 < Δ U3 < Δ U1 (4) One-fourth
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9. A gas at 300 K is enclosed in container. Now 14. During an adiabatic process the pressure of the
container is placed on fast moving train while gas is found to be proportional to the cube of the
train is in motion, the temperature of gas : absolute temperature. The ratio CP/CV = γ for
(1) rise above 300 K (2) fall below 300 K the gas is:
(3) remain unchanged (4) become unsteady (1) 3/2 (2) 2
10. If the pressure of an ideal gas contained in a (3) 4/3 (4) 5/3
closed vessel is increased by 0.5%, the increase 15. If a metallic sphere gets cooled from 62°C to
in temperature is 2 K. The initial temperature of 50°C in 10 minutes and in the next 10 minutes
the gas is : gets cooled to 42°C, then the temperature of the
(1) 27°C (2) 127°C surroundings is :

(3) 300°C (4) 400°C (1) 30°C (2) 36°C

11. The isothermal diagram of a gas at three (3) 26°C (4) 20°C
different temperature T1, T2 and T3 is shown in 16. A black body has maximum wavelength λ m at
the given figure, Then :- 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at 3000 K
will be:
16 81
(1) λm (2) λm
81 16
3 2
(3) λm (4) λm
2 3
17. A spring elongated by length ' ℓ ' when a mass 'M'
is suspended to it. Now a tiny mass 'm' is
(1) T1 < T2 < T3 (2) T1 < T2 > T3
attached and then released, its time period of
(3) T1 > T2 > T3 (4) T1 > T2 < T3 oscillation is:-
12. 2 mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at (M + m) ℓ
temperature T0 are mixed with 4 mole of another (1) 2 π √

Mg
ideal monoatomic gas at temperature 2 T0 , then mℓ
(2) 2 π √
the temperature of mixture is Mg
5 3 (3) 2 π ℓ /g
√
(1) T0 (2) T0
3 2
4 5 Mℓ
(3) T0 (4) T0 (4) 2 π √

3 4 (m + M)g
13. For O2 gas, Cp – Cv = a and for N2 gas; Cp – Cv = b, 18. The time period of a mass suspended from a
if Cp & Cv are gram specific heat then ratio of a to b spring is 5 sec. The spring is cut into four equal
(a : b) is - parts and the same mass is now suspended from
7 8 one of its parts. The period is now :-
(1) (2)
8 7
(1) 5 s (2) 2.5 s
1
(3) (4) None of these
1 (3) 1.25 s (4) (5/16) s
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19. A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic 23. When a wave travels in a medium, the particle
motion about x = 0 with an amplitude a and time displacement is given by the equation
period T. The speed of the pendulum at x = a y = a sin 2π(bt – cx) where a, b and c are
√ 2 constants. The maximum particle velocity will
will be :-
be twice the wave velocity if :-
3πa 4πa √ 2πa aT
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
T T T π2 (1) c = (2) c = π a
πa
20. The variation of potential energy of harmonic 1
oscillator is as shown in figure. The spring (3) b = ac (4) b =
ac
constant is 24. A string of length 3 m and linear mass density
0.0025 kg/m is fixed at both ends. One of its
resonance frequency is 252 Hz. The next higher
resonance frequency is 336 Hz. Then the
fundamental frequency will be -
(1) 84 Hz (2) 63 Hz
(1) 1 × 102 N/m (3) 126 Hz (4) 168 Hz
(2) 150 N/m 25. In a resonance tube experiment, the first
2 resonance is obtained for 10 cm of air column
(3) 0.667 × 10 N/m
and the second for 32 cm. The end correction for
(4) 3 × 102 N/m
this apparatus is –
21. Two waves are represented by : y1 = 4 sin 404 π t
(1) 0.5 cm (2) 1.0 cm
and y2 = 3 sin 400 π t. Then :
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 2 cm
(1) beat frequency is 4 Hz and the ratio of
maximum to minimum intensity if 49 : 1 26. A student is performing experiment with
resonance tube apparatus in Physics lab to find the
(2) beat frequency is 2 Hz and the ratio of
speed of sound at room temperature. He got first
maximum to minimum intensity is 49 : 1
two resonating lengths of air column as 17 cm and
(3) beat frequency is 2 Hz and the ratio of 51 cm, using tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz.
maximum to minimum intensity is 1 : 49 Find speed of sound at room temperature.
(4) beat frequency is 4 Hz and the ratio of (1) 348 m/s
maximum to minimum intensity is 1 : 49 (2) 358 m/s
22. A sonometer wire supports 4 kg load and (3) 332 m/s
vibrates in fundamental mode with tunning fork (4) 322 m/s
of frequency 416 Hz. The length of wire between
27. 100 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 100 g of water
the bridges is now doubled. In order to maintain
at 100°C. What will be the final temperature of
fundamental mode the load should be :- the mixture ?
(1) 1 kg (2) 2 kg (1) 10°C (2) 20°C
(3) 8 kg (4) 16 kg (3) 30°C (4) 40°C
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28. Steam at 100°C is added slowly to 1400 gm of 34. When a mass m is connected individually to two
water at 16°C until the temperature of water is springs S1 and S2, the oscillation frequencies are
raised to 80°C. The mass of steam required :- V1 and V2, if the same mass is attached to the
(1) 120 gm (2) 240 gm two springs in given figure, the oscillation
frequency would be :
(3) 160 gm (4) 320 gm
29. The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to
that in helium gas at 300 K is :
2 1
(1) V1 + V2
(1) √ (2) √

7 7 (2) √ V12 + V22

√ 3 √ 6
(3) (4) 1 1
−1
5 5 (3) ( + )
V1 V2
30. The period of a simple pendulum inside a
stationary lift is T. The lift accelerates upwards (4) √ V12 − V22
g
with an acceleration of .The time period of 35. Consider the process on a system shown in
3
pendulum will be :- figure below. During the process, the rate with
T √ 3 T which the work is being done by the system :
(1) √ 2T (2) (3) T (4)
√ 2 2 3
31. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice
those of earth. The period of oscillation of
second pendulum on this planet will be :
1 1
(1) s (2) 2√2s (3) 2s (4) s (1) Continuously increases
√ 2 2
32. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently (2) Continuously decreases
high building and is moving freely to and fro like a (3) First increases then decreases
simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the (4) First decreases then increases
bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m
from the mean position. The time period of SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )
oscillation is :-
36. The P-V diagram of a diatomic ideal gas system
(1) 2 π s (2) π s
going under cyclic process is as shown. The work
(3) 2 s (4) 1 s
done during an adiabatic process CD is ( γ = 1.4)
33. A particle executes simple harmonic motion
along a straight line with an amplitude A. The
potential energy is maximum when the
displacement is :
(1) ± A (2) Zero
(1) – 500 J (2) – 400 J
A A
(3) ± (4) ±
2 √ 2 (3) 400 J (4) 200 J
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37. A thermally insulated vessel contain an ideal gas 40. Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended together by a
of molar mass M and ratio of specific heats γ . It massless spring of constant k. When the masses are
is moving with speed v and is suddenly brought in equilibrium, m1 is removed without disturbing the
to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the system; the amplitude of vibration is:
surroundings. Its temperature increased by :-
γ −1 ( γ − 1)
(1) MV 2 (2) MV 2
2( γ − 1)R 2γ R
γ MV 2 ( γ − 1)
(3) (4) MV 2
2R 2R
38. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken through the
thermodynamic states A→B→C→D via the
paths shown in the figure. If UA,UB,UC and UD
represent the internal energy of the gas in state (1) m1g/k (2) m2g/k
A,B,C and D respectively, then which of the (m1 + m2 )g (m2 − m1 )g
following is not true? (3) (4)
k k
41. A solid cylinder of density ρ 0, cross-section area
A and length ℓ floats in a liquid ρ ( > ρ 0) with
its axis vertical, as shown. If it is slightly
displaced downward and released, the time
period will be :-

(1) UA = UD
(2) UB = UA
(3) UB = UC
(4) UC ≠ UD
39. A container of volume 1m3 is divided into two
ρ0 ℓ
equal compartments by a partition. One of these (1) 2 π ℓ √ (2) 2 π √

g ρg
compartments contains an ideal gas at 300 K.
ρℓ ℓ
The other compartment is vacuum. The whole (3) 2 π √ (4) 2 π √

ρ 0g 2g
system is thermally isolated from its
42. The amplitude of a particle executing SHM
surroundings. The partition is removed and the
is 4 cm. At the mean position the speed of the
gas expands to occupy the whole volume of the
particle is 16 cm/sec. The distance of the
container. Its temperature now would be :
particle from the mean position at which the
(1) 300 K speed of the particle becomes 8 3cm/s, will
√

(2) 239 K be :-
(3) 200 K (1) 2 3cm
√ (2) √ 3 cm
(4) 100 K (3) 1cm (4) 2cm
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43. A simple pendulum has a time period T in 47. An organ pipe filled with a gas at 27°C resonates
vacuum. Its time period when it is completely at 400 Hz in its fundamental mode. If it is filled
immersed in a liquid of density one-eight of the with the same gas at 90°C, the resonance
density of material of the bob is :- frequency at the same mode will be :-
7 5 (1) 420 Hz (2) 440 Hz
(1) √ T (2) √ T
8 8
(3) 484 Hz (4) 512 Hz
3 8
(3) √ T (4) √ T
48. A source of frequency 2400 Hz when vibrated
8 7
44. A uniform rope of mass m and length ℓ hangs over the mouth of a closed organ pipe is in
from a ceiling as shown in figure. Find out time unison at 300 K. The beats produced per second
taken by a transverse wave to travel the full when temperature rises by 1 K is :
length of rope.
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2
49. If two tuning forks A and B are sounded
together, they produce 4 beats per second. A is
then slightly loaded with wax, they produce
same beats when sounded again. The initial
frequency of A is 256 Hz. The frequency of B
will be :-
ℓ g (1) 250 Hz (2) 252 Hz
(1) t=√ (2) t=√
g ℓ
(3) 260 Hz (4) 262 Hz
ℓ 1√ℓ
50.
(3) t = 2√ (4) t= The x-t graph of a particle undergoing simple
g 2 g
harmonic motion is shown below. The acceleration
45. An open organ pipe of length ℓ is sounded together
of the particle at t = 4/3 s is
with another open organ pipe of length ℓ + x in
their fundamental tones. Speed of sound in air is v.
The beat frequency heard will be : (x << ℓ ) :-
vx vℓ2 vx vx2
(1) 4ℓ2
(2) (3) 2ℓ2
(4)
2x 2ℓ
46. Six identical conducting rods are joined as
shown in figure. Points A and D are maintained
at temperature 200°C and 20°C respectively. The
temperature of the junction B will be :- √3 2
(1) π cm/s2
32
−π 2
(2) cm/s2
32
π2
(3) cm/s2
(1) 120°C (2) 100°C 32
√3 2
(3) 140°C (4) 80°C (4) − π cm/s2
32
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Topic : SYLLABUS-3

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 55.

51. Which of the following homologous series has Which type of isomerism is observed between
incorrect general formula :- I & II :
(1) Alkyne CnH2n – 2 (1) Chain isomerism
(2) Alkanol CnH2n+2O (2) Position isomerism
(3) Alkanal CnH2n+1O (3) Functional isomerism
(4) Carboxylic acid CnH2nO2 (4) Metamerism
52. Minimum number of carbon atoms present in an 56. Which of the following is a pair of metamers.
ester are :-
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 3
(1) and
53. Structure of the compound
Ethyl 2-bromo-2-chloropropanoate is :-

(1)
(2)
and
(2)
(3) and
(3)
(4) and

(4) 57. Match the column :

Position
54. Mixture Purification technique (A) (P)
isomer
Chloroform and
(A) (P) Distillation
Aniline Functional
(B)
Glycerol and
(Q) Chromatography (B) (Q) group
spentlye isomer
(C) Aniline and water (R) Steam Distillation
Distillation under Reduced Chain
(D) Amino acid (S) (C) (R)
pressure isomer
Correct Match:- (D) (S) Conformer
(1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S (1) A-P,B-Q,C-R,D-S
(2) A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q (2) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
(3) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q (3) A-Q,B-P,C-S,D-R
(4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q (4) A-S,B-P,C-S,D-P
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58. In which of the following gauche form will be 62. Which of the following show incorrect relation?
not most stable form :-
(1)
(1) ⇒ Acidic strength order

(2)

(3) (2) ⇒ Acidic strength order

(4)
(3) ⇒ Acidic strength order

59. The full name of compound is :-

(4) ⇒ Acidic strength order
(1) (2R, 3R)- 3-chloro-2-pentanol
63. Which of the following has least heat of
(2) (2R, 3S)- 3-chloro-2-pentanol
hydrogenation ?
(3) (2S, 3R)- 3-chloro-2-pentanol
(1)
(4) (2S, 3S)- 3-chloro-2-pentanol
(2)
60. Which one of the following series contains
electrophiles only ?
(3)
(1) H2O, SO3, H3O+
(4)
(2) NH3, H2O, AlCl3
64. Correct decreasing order of basic strength for
(3) AlCl3, SO3,
following:-
(4) H2O, , NH3
61. Which of the following is the correct order for – I
effect ?

(1) – NO2 > – CN > – F > – C6H5

(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) – C6H5 > – F > – CN > – NO2 (2) II > III > I > IV
(3) – F > – CN > – C6H5 > – NO2 (3) II > IV > I > III
(4) II > III > IV > I
(4) – CN > C6H5 > – NO2 > – F
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65. 70.
(a) (b) (c)

Which is correct order for stability of above

carbocations :- The correct stability order of the given canonical
(1) c > a > b (2) b > a > c structure is :
(3) c > b > a (4) b > c > a (1) X > Y > Z
66. Hyperconjugation occurs in :- (2) Z > X > Y
(3) X > Z > Y
(4) Y > Z > X
71. Rank the following in decreasing order of heat of
(1) Only (i) (2) (i) & (ii) hydrogenation :-
(3) (i), (ii) & (iii) (4) only (iii) (i) (ii)
67. Which of the following is aromatic :-
(iii) (iv)

(1) iii > i > ii > iv

(1) a and b (2) b and c (2) i > iii > ii > iv
(3) c and d (4) a and d (3) iv > ii > iii > i
68. Number of aromatic compounds in given (4) iv > iii > ii > i
compounds :-
72. (I) (II) (III)

Correct statement about these three compounds :-

(1) Stability order : II > III > I
(2) Stability order : III > I > II
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) Heat of combustion : I > III > II
(3) 4 (4) 5 (4) Both (1) and (3) statements are correct
69. which of the following is maximum reactive 73. The correct order of boiling point of following
towards De-hydrohalogination compounds is :
A) n-pentane B) Isopentane C) Neopentane
(1) (2) (1) A > B > C
(2) B > A > C
(3) (4) (3) C > B > A
(4) A > C > B
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74. ? (Major product) 77.

(1)

(2)
Products P, Q and R are respectively –
(3)
(1)
(4) Both (1) & (2)
75. Decreasing order of rate of reaction of molecules
towards Electrophilic addition reaction is :-

(2)

(1) b > c > a > d

(2) a > b > c > d

(3) d > b > c > a

(4) b > d > c > a

(3)
( i ) O3
76. X −−−−−−−→ +
(ii)Zn/H2 O

Indentify X in above reaction .:-

(1)

(2) (4)

(3)

(4)

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78. Which of the following alcohol undergoes 81. How many of following groups are ortho-para
dehydration reaction most easily : directing?

(1)

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 3

(2)
82. Which reaction is incorrect ?
(1) + 3 Cl2 Benzene hexachloride
(3) (2) + 3 H2 Cyclohexane

(3) + NaOH + Na2CO3

(4)
(4) + 6Cl2 + 6HCl
79. Reactivity of halogen in halogenation:-
(1) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 (2) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 83.
Major product
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (4) Br2 > Cl2 > F2 > I2
80. Match the following columns - (1) (2)
Column-II
Column-I
(Name (3) (4)
(Reaction)
of reaction)
Clemmensen's 84. In which of the following compound, Kjeldahl
A. P
reduction method is applicable :
Correy House
B. Q (1) (2)
synthesis
Kolbe's
C. R
electrolysis (3) (4) Ph – N=N – Ph
Wurtz
D. S 85. Mixture of Anthracene and benzoic Acid can be
reaction
separated by
(1) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P (1) Fractional distillation
(2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q (2) Sublimation
(3) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S (3) Chromatography
(4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q (4) Filteration
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SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) 89. Statement-I : Molecules having chiral carbons
will always be optically active.
86. The IUPAC name of given compound is :- Statement-II : it is not necessary to have chiral
carbon to show chirality.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(1) 2 – Oxo – 4 – amino – 4 – ethyl pentanoic acid (3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(2) 2 – Amino – 4 – oxo – 2 – ethyl pentanoic acid
90. Consider following molecules :
(3) 3 – Amino – 3 – carboxy – 5 – hexanone

(4) 2 – Amino – 2 – ethyl – 4 – oxo pentanoic acid

87. Which of the following pairs of compounds are

not position isomer :-

(1)
Which can show tautomerism :
(2)
(1) A, B, C (2) B, C, E
(3) (3) A, B, D (4) B, C, E, F
91. How many no. of groups showing +M effect is :-
(4) (a) – OH (b) (c) – OCH3 (d) – F
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
88. Which of the following shows E-configuration ?
92. Match the List-I with List-II :-
(1) List - I List - II
(Compounds) (pKa- Value)
(a) o-Nitrophenol (i) 10
(2) (b) p-Nitrophenol (ii) 8.3
(c) m-Nitrophenol (iii) 7.2
(d) Phenol (iv) 7.1
(3)
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
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93. Arrange the following according to basicity :- 96. The correct statement regarding the basicity of
arylamines is :-
(1) Arylamines are generally less basic than
alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair
electrons are delocalized by interaction
with the aromatic ring π electron system.
(2) Arylamines are generally more basic than
alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair
electrons are not delocalized by interaction
(1) P > S > R > Q (2) S > R > P > Q with the aromatic ring π electron system.
(3) S > Q > R > P (4) S > R > Q > P (3) Arylamines are generally more basic than
alkylamines because of aryl group.
94. In which pair second ion is more stable than
(4) Arylamines are generally more basic than
first? alkylamines, because the nitrongen atom in
arylamines is sp-hybridized.
(i)
97. Carbocation rearrangement is not observed in
(1) (2)
(ii)
(3) (4)

(iii) 98. Which of the following alcohols on dehydration

with conc. H2SO4 at 440 K will give propylene ?
(i) n-propyl alcohol (ii) Isobutyl alcohol
(iv) (iii) Isopropyl alcohol (iv) n-butyl alcohol
(1) (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iii)
(1) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
99. Which is maximum reactive towards electrophilic
(3) (ii) and (iv) substitution reaction (ESR)
(4) (iii) and (iv)
(1) (2)
95. Which of following reaction is correct :

(1) (3) (4)

KMnO4 (O)
100. 0.5 gm of an organic compound gave 50 ml of
(2) (CH3)3CH −−−−−−−→ (1°Alc.) N2 collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm
Oxidation
pressure By DUMAS method. Calculate
KMnO4 /H ⊕
percentage of nitrogen in the compound
(3) −−−−−−−−→ O + CO2 + H2O (Aqueous Tension at 300 K = 15 m.m)
2+
(1) 17.465 (2) 15.899
(4) CH3–C≡CH −Hg /dil.H2 SO4
−−−−−−−−−→ CH3–CH2–CH=O
(3) 12.475 (4) 10.475
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Topic : SYLLABUS-3

SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 104.

101. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Splitting of water molecule take place on
the inner side of membrane of thylakoid.
(2) Primary electron acceptor (Pheophytin) is
located towards the outer side of thylakoid
membrane.
(3) ATP synthase enzyme consist of two part one What does the "B" label represent :
called CFo is embedded in the membrane and
form a transmembrane channel. (1) Light limiting factor
(4) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both (2) Saturation point of light
PSI and PSII. (3) Factor other than CO2 are limiting
102. Match the following: (4) Factor other than light are limiting
Column-I Column-II
105. Where exactly enzymes of dark reaction are
Primary acceptor of CO2 in C3 present within chloroplast ?
(a) (i) PEP
plant
Primary acceptor of CO2 in C4
(1) Thylakoid membrane
(b) (ii) PGA
plant (2) Grana
First CO2 fixation product in C3 (3) Stromal lamella
(c) (iii) OAA
plant
First CO2 fixation product in C4 (4) Stroma of chloroplast
(d) (iv) RUBP
plant 106. What is the main factor that limits the rate of
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) photosynthesis on a clear day ?
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (1) CO2 (2) Water
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (3) Light (4) Chlorophyll
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) 107. Which of the following organism was used in
experiment of T.W. Engelmann ?
103. Statement-I : C4 plants lack photorespiration.
(1) Cladophora (2) Mint
Statement-II : C4 plants have a mechanism that
increases the concentration of CO2 at the site of (3) Albugo (4) Chlorella
RuBisCO enzyme. 108. Kranz anatomy is found in -
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. (1) C3 plants
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) C4 plants
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. (3) CAM plants
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) All plants
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109. Calvin cycle occurs in - 114. Match the following.
(1) C3 plants only Column-I Column-II
(a) Complex-I (i) Succinate dehydrogenase
(2) C4 plants only
(b) Complex-II (ii) NADH dehydrogenase
(3) CAM plants only
(c) Complex-IV (iii) Cytochrome bc1
(4) In all plants (d) Complex-III (iv) Cytochrome C oxidase
110. Number of ATP and NADPH.H+ required
respectively in regeneration step for synthesizing (a) (b) (c) (d)
one molecule of sucrose. (1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iv iii
(1) 12 ATP, 6 NADPH.H+
(3) iii i ii iv
(2) 24 ATP, 12 NADPH.H+
(4) iv iii ii i
+
(3) 6 ATP, 0 NADPH.H 115. Which of the following complex contains
(4) 12 ATP, 0 NADPH.H+ cytochrome a, a3 and two copper centres ?

111. Which of the following is primary electron (1) Complex I

acceptor in cyclic photophosphorylation ? (2) Complex II

(1) Ferredoxin (3) Complex III

(2) Pheophytin (4) Complex IV

(3) Ferredoxin reducing substance 116. Assertion : Krebs cycle occurs in mitochondrial
matrix.
(4) Plastoquinone
Reason : All the enzyme of TCA cycle present in
112. RuBisCO show :- membrane of mitochondria.
(1) Only carboxylase activity (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(2) Only oxygenase activity is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Both (1) and (2) (2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Hydrolase activity (3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
113. Which of the following condition is favourable (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
for photorespiration ? Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) High light intensity 117. Which of the following is the site of link reaction ?
(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Low O2
(2) Mitochondria
(3) High CO2 (3) Chloroplast
(4) Low temperature (4) Both (1) & (2)
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118. Which one of the following is not the cofactor of 123. Which of the following statement is not correct
link reaction ? for plants.
(1) Mg2+ (2) CoA (1) There is very large transport of gases from
(3) NAD+ (4) Ca+2 one plant part to another.

119. While the oxygen concentration is low, the (2) Plants can get along without respiratory
product of glycolysis pyruvate is turned into organs.
_______. (3) Plants respire at rates for lower than animal do.
(1) Acetyl CoA (4) the distance that gases must diffuse even in
(2) Ethanol and CO2 large bulky plants is not great.

(3) Citric acid 124. Identify A, B and C :-

(4) Phosphoenol pyruvate

120. The continued oxidation of acetyl Co-A via the
TCA cycle requires the continued replenishment
of ______________ :
(1) Malic acid
(2) Succinic acid
(3) Oxaloacetic acid
(4) α -ketoglutaric acid
121. Fill in the blank space with the correct option.
_______can be used as respiratory substrates in
plants.
(1) Only carbohydrates.
(1) A → Lipid, B → Fatty acid, C → Link
(2) Only proteins and fats. reaction
(3) Only organic acids. (2) A → Fatty acids, B → Amino acids,
(4) Carbohydrates, proteins, fats and organic C → Kreb's cycle
acids. (3) A → Monosaccharide, B → Sugar, C →
122. The breaking of C-C bonds of complex Glycolysis
compounds leading to release of considerable (4) A → Fatty acid, B → Lipid, C → ETS
amount of energy is called :- 125. Respiration is a :
(1) Photosynthesis (1) Catabolic process.
(2) Respiration (2) Anabolic process.
(3) Translocation (3) Amphibolic process.
(4) Transpiration (4) Endergonic process.
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126. Assertion :- Plant growth is unique and localised. 128. Which of the following is correct regarding this
Reason :- Plants retain the capacity for diagram :-

unlimited growth throughout their life and that

growth occur at specific locations.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (1) Arithmetic growth
A = Lag phase, B= Exponential phase
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but C = Stationary phase
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (2) Geometric growth
Assertion. A=Exponential phase, B=Lag phase
C=Stationary phase
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Geometric growth
(4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True. A=lag phase, B=Exponential phase
127. Math the following :- C=Stationary phase
(4) Relative growth
Match - I Match - II A=lag phase, B=Exponential phase
C=Stationary phase
Abscisic
(i) Terpenes (a) 129. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
acid
(1) Cytokinin helps overcome the apical
(ii) Adenine derivatives (b) Gibberellin dominance.
(2) Auxin promotes flowering in pineapples
Derivatives of
(iii) (c) Ethylene (3) Ethylene also controls xylem differentiation
carotenoids and helps in cell division.
(iv) Gas (d) Cytokinine (4) Gibberellin is used to increase the length of
grapes stalk.
130. Which of the following hormones induce rooting
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) on stem cuttings ?
(1) a b c d (1) Auxin (2) Ethylene
(3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellins
(2) b a c d
131. Phytohormone that promotes bolting in many
(3) b d a c plants with rosette habit is-
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinins
(4) c d a b
(3) Gibberellins (4) Abscisic acid
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132. The discovery of gibberellins is associated with a 137. Assertion : Except sciophytes and plants of
disease of :- dense forest, light is rarely a limiting factor in
(1) Wheat (2) Rice nature.
Reason : Light saturation occurs at 10 percent of
(3) Maize (4) Barley full summer sun light.
133. Retention of chlorophyll and delayed senescence (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
of leaves is done by reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(1) Auxin (2) GA3 (2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason
(3) Cytokinins (4) Ethylene is not a correct explanation of the assertion
134. __A__Conferred in 1910, the release of a (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
volatile substance __B__ from ripened oranges
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
that hastened the ripening of stored unripened
bananas :- 138. What are the products of light reactions ?
Identify A and B. (1) ATP and NADPH (2) Sugar
(1) (A)-F. skoog, (B)-Auxin (3) CO2 (4) All of the above
(2) (A)-E. kurosawa, (B)-Gibberellic acid 139. Choose correct option for fill in the blanks-
(3) (A)-H. H. Cousins, (B)-Ethylene In half leaf experiment cotton was soaked with
(4) (A)-Miller et. al., (B)-Ethylene __'A'__ and set up was placed in __'B'__.
135. Plant hormone that plays an important role in (1) A – NaCl, B – Light
seed development, maturation and dormancy is- (2) A – KOH, B – Dark
(1) Auxin (2) Ethylene (3) A – NaOH, B – Dark
(3) Cytokinin (4) Abscissic acid (4) A – KOH, B – Light
SECTION-B ( BOTANY ) 140. Law of limiting factors was given by :-
136. Find correct statement - (1) Blackman (2) Hill
I. In green plants H2O is hydrogen donor and is (3) Calvin (4) Van Niel
oxidised to O2.
141. Fill in the blanks-
II. Jan Ingenhousz hypothesised that plants
restore to the air whatever animal and candle _____ also receives reducing equivalents via
remove. _____ that is generated during oxidation of
III. Engelmann provided evidence for production succinate.
of glucose when plants grow. Select the correct option-
(1) I & II (1) NADH2, Ubiquinone
(2) II & III (2) Ubiquinone, FADH2
(3) II only (3) Plastoquinone, FADH2
(4) I only (4) Ubiquinone, NADH2
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142. Enzyme of TCA cycle which is competitively 147. Choose the incorrect pair :-
inhibited by malonate. (1) Meristematic phase - Cells are rich in
(1) Malate dehydrogenase protoplasm posess large conspicuous
(2) Isocitrate dehydrogenase nuclei.
(3) Fumarase (2) Elongation phase - Increased vacuolation
(4) Succinate dehydrogenase (3) Maturation phase - Cell wall are thin and
143. Yeasts poison themselves to death when the cellulosic
concentration of alcohol reaches about ____ .
(4) Secondary growth - Lateral meristem.
(1) 13 %
148.
(2) 7 %
(3) 5 %
(4) 2 %
144. Process in respiration that occurs in anaerobic Above figure represents :-
organisms :
(1) Zygote division
(1) Kreb cycle (2) Arithmetic growth
(2) Link reaction (3) Geometric growth
(3) Glycolysis (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Electron transport system 149. Application of which hormone can delay
145. End products of glycolysis are :- abscission of fruits and leaves at early stage ?
(1) 2 ATP, 2 FADH2 & 2 Pyrvic acid
(1) Ethylene
(2) 2 ATP, 2 NADH & 2 Pyruvic acid
(2) ABA
(3) 2 ATP, 2 NADPH & Pyruvic acid
(3) Auxin
(4) 8 ATP, 2 NADH & 2 Pyruvic acid
(4) Cytokinin
146. Which of the following is an assumption of the
150. Search for natural substances with cytokinin like
respiratory balance sheet ?
activities led to the isolation of ______ from
(1) Respiration is a sequential, orderly corn-kernels and coconut milk.
pathway.
(1) Kinetin
(2) Only glucose is being respired.
(2) Zeatin
(3) Alternative substrates are entering in the
respiratory pathway. (3) Indol-3-acetic acid
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) Indole butyric acid
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Topic : SYLLABUS-3

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 158. The neural system provides an organized

network of __A__ connection for a __B__
151. Which structure is tracts of myelinated nerve coordination. Choose the correct option for A, B
fibres? to complete the given statement.
(1) A - point to point, B - slow
(1) Association areas (2) Hippocampus
(2) A - chemical, B - fast
(3) Corpus callosum (4) Amygdala
(3) A - point to point, B - fast
152. Respiratory centre is situated in
(4) A - Chemical, B - slow
(1) Cerebellum (2) Medulla oblongata
159. Assertion (A) : Impulse transmission across an
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Cerebrum
electrical synapse is always faster than that
153. Association area of brain is responsible for all of across a chemical synapse.
the following functions except Reason (R) : Transmission of an impulse across
(1) Intersensory association chemical synapses is very similar to impulse
conduction along a single axon.
(2) Memory
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason
(3) Communication is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Emotional and sexual behaviour (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason
154. The correct sequence of meninges of brain from is the correct explanation of Assertion.
inside to out side in human is: (3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(1) Duramater – Arachnoid – Piamatar
160. Five events in the transmission of nerve impulse
(2) Arachnoid – Piamatar – duramatar
across the synapse are given below
(3) Piamater – Arachnoid – Duramater A. Opening of specific ion channels allows the
(4) Piamater – Duramater – arachnoid entry of ions, a new action potential is generated
in the post-synaptic neuron.
155. Except one, all are parts of brain stem : B. Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on post
(1) Pons (2) Medulla synaptic membrane
C. Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre-synaptic
(3) Cerebellum (4) Mid brain membrane, neurotransmitter releases into
156. Amygdala and Hippocampus are the parts of – synaptic cleft.
D. Depolarization of pre-synaptic membrane
(1) Fore brain (2) Mid brain
E. Arrival of action potential at axon terminal.
(3) Hind brain (4) Brain stem In which sequence to the events occur ?
157. The major coordinating centre for sensory and (1) E → D → C → B → A
motor signaling is – (2) A → B → C → D → E
(1) Thalamus (2) Pons (3) A → B → D → C → E
(3) Medulla (4) Optic lobes (4) E → D → C → A → B
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161. 165. Adenohypophysis consists of :-
(1) Pars distalis
(2) Pars intermedia
(3) Pars nervosa
Choose the incorrect statement from the (4) (1) & (2) both
following
166. Deaf mutism & Irregular menstruation can be
(1) 'a' passes through mid brain caused due to :-
(2) 'c' contains a number of centres which (1) Hypersecretion of thyroxine
control body temperature
(2) Hyposecretion of thyroxine
(3) 'b' is a major coordinating centre.
(3) Hyposecretion of sex hormone
(4) 'a' is a part of the mid brain.
(4) Hypersecretion of sex hormone
162. Glucocorticoids stimulates :-
167. Chemical nature of hormones are :-
(A) Gluconeogenesis
(B) Lipolysis (1) Steroid
(C) Proteolysis (2) Amino acid
(1) A only (3) Proteins
(2) A, B and C (4) All of the above
(3) B and C only 168. Which one is not produced by anterior pituitary?
(1) GH
(4) B only
(2) PRL
163. Which of the following is not related to
hypersecretion of collip's hormone :- (3) ACTH

(1) Osteoporosis (4) Oxytocin

(2) Renal stone 169. ICSH is another name of –

(1) TSH
(3) Hypercalcaemia
(2) FSH
(4) Tetany
(3) MSH
164. Which of the following hormone helps in
(4) LH
maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake
cycle, body temperature ? 170. Which of the following hormone does not
require secondary messenger for their action?
(1) MSH (1) Gonadotropins
(2) Melatonin (2) Growth hormone
(3) Thyroxin (3) Epinephrine
(4) (1) & (2) both (4) Triiodothyronine
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171. Read the following statement and choose the 174. Observe the following flow chart and choose
correct statement ? right statement :-
(1) Hormone are nutrient chemical which act
as intercellular messenger.
(2) Each receptor is specific to one hormone
only.
(3) Steriod hormone mostly regulate gene
expression or chromosome function by the
interaction of hormone receptor complex
on the membrane.
(4) All hormone are insoluble in water. (1) cause release of and inhibits
172. Read the following column-I & II and identify secretion of (normally)
their correct match :- (2) causes release of and
Column-I Column-II concentrates inside the seminiferous
(A) Growth hormone (i) Pancreas tubule

(B) Somatostatin (ii) Adrenal medulla (3) is GnRH, is ICSH and is FSH
(C) Catecholemines (iii) Pineal gland (4) is GnRH, is LH and is FSH
(D) Melatonin (iv) Pituitary gland 175. Read the following statements :-
(a) Hormones are nutrient chemicals.
(v) Hypothalamus
(b) Pancreas is organized endocrine gland.
(vi) Adrenal cortex (c) Anterior pituitary is under direct neural
(1) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-iii regulation of hypothalamus.
(d) Growth hormone is secreted by anterior
(2) A-v, B-iv, C-vi, D-i pituitary.
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-vi (e) Deficiency of vasopressin cause acromegaly.
Choose the correct options :-
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(1) a,b, & c (2) b,c & d
173. Statement-I : Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a
(3) a,c & d (4) b & d
complex disorder diabetes mellitus.
176. Which of the following terms are "not" related
Statement-II : Glucagon is a hypoglycemic
with amoeboid movement ?
hormone while insulin is a hyperglycemic
(1) Pseudopodia (2) Macrophages
hormone.
(3) Flagella (4) Neutrophils
(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.
177. In the centre of I-Band is an elastic fiber present,
(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect. which bisect I-band, is called as :
(3) Statement-I is correct but II is incorrect. (1) 'H' -zone (2) 'M' -line
(4) Statement-II is correct but I is incorrect. (3) 'Z' line (4) 'A' -band
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178. In the resting state a subunit of troponin masks 184. Which of the following is a synovial joint :
the active binding sites for myosin on : (1) Ball and socket joint (2) Hinge joint
(1) Actin filaments (2) Meromyosin filament (3) Fibrous joint (4) Both 1 & 2
(3) M – line (4) H – zone 185. Which of the following not the constituent of
179. A sarcomere consists of axial skeleton :
(1) One A-band and two l-band (1) Skull (2) Patella
(2) Half A-band and two half l-band (3) Ribs (4) Sternum
(3) Half A-band and one l-band SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY )
(4) One A-band and two half l-band 186. Schwann cell are found in :-
180. Match the column I & II with correct option. (1) Myelinated nerve fibres of PNS
Column-I Column-II
(2) Unmyelinated nerve fibres of PNS
(A) Sarcomere (i) Red muscle fiber
(3) Both 1 and 2
(B) Actin filament (ii) White muscle fiber
(C) Slow muscle fiber (iii) Contractile unit (4) Myelinated nerve fibers of CNS
(D) Fast muscle fiber (iv) I-band 187. The components of the human brain responsible
for regulating sexual behaviour, excitement,
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
pleasure, rage, and fear are:
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (1) Pons & medulla oblongata
181. Select the correct option :- (2) Brain stem & Thalamus
(1) First vertebra is the axis and it articulates
(3) Corpus callosum & Motor area
with the occipital condyles.
(4) Limbic system & hypothalamus
(2) Sternum is a flat bone on the dorsal midline
of thorax. 188. Which of the following structure contains
centres, which control respiration, cardiovascular
(3) Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum reflexes and gastric secretions:-
together form the rib cage. (1) Mid brain (2) Cerebellum
(4) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are called (3) Pons (4) Medulla oblongata
vertebrochondral ribs.
189. Assertion : Cerebellum has also a very
182. At the base of skull, a large foramen is present convulated surface.
which allows brain to continue with the spinal Reason : Its more surface will accommodate
cord. That foramen is called : more neurons.
(1) Foramen ovale (2) Foramen magnum (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(3) Vertebral foramen (4) Obturator foramen Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

183. A single unpaired 'U' shaped bone present in the (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason
neck region : is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) Vomer (2) Hyoid (3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Mandible (4) Clavicle (4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
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190. Read column-I, II & III and identify their correct 194. The secretion of PTH is regulated by :-
match :- (1) Releasing hormone secreted by anterior pitutary
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(2) Vit-D3
Increases
Alpha blood (3) Circulating Ca++ ion level
(A) Aldosterone (P) (i)
cells glucose (4) All of the above
levels.
195. Which of the following hormones controls the
Decreases functioning of adrenal cortex?
Beta
(B) Epinephrine (Q) (ii) blood
cells (1) TSH (2) FSH
glucose level
Adrenal Reabsorption (3) ACTH (4) LH
(C) Insulin (R) (iii)
medulla of sodium 196. Select the correct statements :-
Adrenal Increases (A) Exopthalmic goitre is a form of
(D) Glucagon (S) (iv)
cortex heat beat hypothyroidism
(1) A-P-i, B-Q-ii, C-R-iii, D-S-iv (B) Hypothyroidism may cause menstrual cycle
(2) A-Q-i, B-P-ii, C-S-iii, D-R-iv to become irregular.
(C) MSH acts on the melanocytes and regulates
(3) A-Q-i, B-P-iv, C-S-iii, D-R-ii
pigmentation of the skin.
(4) A-S-iii, B-R-iv, C-Q-ii, D-P-i (D) Adenohypophysis consists of two portions,
191. Progesteron hormone is ? pairs distalis and pars nervosa.
(1) Stimulates testicular development (1) B, D (2) B, C
(2) Stimulates ovarian development (3) A, B (4) A, D
(3) Stimulates formation of milk alveoli 197. Which of the following disorder affects the
(4) Stimulates secondary sexual character neuromuscular junction (NMJ) leading to fatigue,
192. Nor epinephrine is secreted by :- weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle?
(1) Adrenal medulla and increases the heart rate (1) Myasthenia gravis
(2) Adrenal medulla and decreases the heart rate (2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Adrenal cortex and increases the heart rate (3) Osteoporosis
(4) Adrenal cortex and decreases the heart rate (4) Tetany
193. In our bodies, what steroid regulates water and 198. Which type of joints provide maximum
electrolytes? movement to fascilitate the locomotion :
(1) insulin (1) Cartilaginous joint
(2) melatonin (2) Fibrous joints
(3) testosterone (3) Sutures
(4) aldosterone (4) Synovial joints
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199. Match List-I with List-II :- 200. Match the List I to List II :
List-I List-II
List-I List-II
(A) Scapula (I) Acromian
(B) Floating ribs (II) 11th and 12th pairs
A Myosin i Globular protein
(C) Vertebro sternal ribs (III) 1 to 7th pairs B Actin ii Sarcomere
(D) Pectoral girdls (IV) Scapula, clavicle C Two adjacent iii Meromyosin
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :- D Smooth mussels iv Fallopian tube
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, B-I (1) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (3) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, B-IV (4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i

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