II PU BIOLOGY MATERIAL

CHAPTER-1
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

ONE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. What is life span?

Ans: Life span is the period from birth to natural death of an organism.

2. Define clone.
Ans: The individuals that are morphologically and genetically similar to the parent are
called clone.

3. Mention the different means/ methods of asexual reproduction with

example.
Ans: Cell division - Protista, Monera
Binary fission – Amoeba, Paramecium
Budding – Yeast
Zoospores (microscopic motile endogenous spores) – aquatic fungi,
chlamydomonas Conidia (microscopic immotile exogenous spores)- pencillium
External buds – hydra
Internal buds like gemmules – sponges (spongilla)

4. Unicellular organisms are immortal. Justify.

Ans: Single celled organisms like amoeba & bacteria reproduce by cell division and
there is no natural death for them. Hence they are considered as immortal.

5. How vegetative reproduction does take place in Bryophyllum?

Ans: The adventitious buds or epiphyllous buds arise from the notches present at the
margin of leaves grow into independent plants.

6. Name the mode of reproduction that ensures creation of new variants.

Ans: Sexual reproduction.

7. How does the progeny formed from asexual reproduction differ from those
formed by sexual reproduction?
Ans: The progeny formed from asexual reproduction are genetically similar the parents,
but offsprings formed bisexual reproduction show genetic variations due to genetic
recombination occurred during gamete formation and random fertilization.

8. Name the species of plant that flowers once in life time.

Ans: Bamboo species flowers only once in life time generally after 50 – 100 years.

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9. Between an annual and a perennial plant, which one has shorter juvenile
phase? Give reason.
Ans: An annual has a shorter juvenile phase as its entire life cycle has to be completed
in one growing season within a year
.
10. Name the plant that flowers once in 12 years.
Ans: Strobilanthus kunthiana (Neelakuranji). It flowered during September – October
2006 which made the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala & Tamil Nadu appear as
blue stretches.

11. In haploid organisms that undergo sexual reproduction, name the stage in
the lifecycle when meiosis occurs?
Ans: Meiosis occurs during its post zygotic stage. As the organism is haploid meiosis
cannot occur during gametogenesis.

12. A haploid organism produces gametes by mitosis. Does it mean that meiosis
never occurs in such organisms
Ans: In haploid organisms meiosis occurs during the germination of zygote because the
zygote is the only diploid cell in the life cycle of such organisms.

13. All papaya plants bear flowers but fruits are seen only in some. Why?
Ans: Papaya is a dioecious plant. Only female plants produce fruits.

14. Why is fertilization in bryophytes and pteridophytes considered as internal

fertilization?
Ans: The fertilization occurs inside the archegonium of these plants

15. Why are meiosis and gametogenesis always interlinked?

Ans: The diploid organisms have to produce haploid gametes by meiosis to maintain
diploid through generations. So they are always interlinked

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Is there a relationship between the size of an organism and its life span?
Justify your answer with two examples.
Ans: There is no relationship between the size and lifespan of an organism.
Eg: The size of crow and parrot is almost same but the life span is 15years and
150 years respectively.
The Mango tree has a shorter life span compare to a Peepal tree though both are of
the same size.

2. Define reproduction. What is its significance?

Ans: Reproduction is a biological process in which an organism gives rise to young ones
(off springs) of its own kind.
It enables the continuity of the species generation after generation. Thus ensures
the continuity of every organism.

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3. What is asexual reproduction? Mention its features.

Ans: It is a type of reproduction in which offspring are produced from a single parent
without the involvement of theformation and fusion gametes. The features are
1. Uniparental
2. Somatic cells are involved
3.It involves the production of asexual spores
4. Offsprings are genetically similar to parents
5. The rate of reproduction is faster

5. What is regeneration? Give example.

Ans: Regeneration is a process in which the animal regrows or repairs its lost or
damaged body parts.
Eg: Planaria, Star fish.

6. What is vegetative propagation? Why is it called asexual reproduction

Ans: Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual reproduction in plants in which the
somatic cells or vegetative parts give rise to new individuals. It is not biparental
and does not involve the formation of gametes. So it is also called asexual
reproduction.

8. Although potato tuber is an underground part. It is considered as a stem.

Give two reasons.
Ans: 1. Potato tuber has nodes & internodes
2. Leafy shoots appear from the nodes

9. Which is a better mode of reproduction, sexual or asexual? Why?

Ans: Sexual reproduction is the better mode of reproduction, because the better
offspring are produced with genetic variations. Such variations enable the
organisms to survive in unfavourable conditions or adapt to changing
environmental conditions.

10. Define the following with examples

Ans: a) Oestrus cycle : The cyclical changes in the activities of ovaries & accessory
ducts as well as hormone secretion during the reproductive phase of non-primate
mammals like cows, sheep, rats, deers, dogs, tigers etc.,is called Oestrus cycle.
Monoestrus animal: Single oestrus cycle in a year. Eg: Deer.
Dioestrus animal: Two oestrus cycle a year. Eg: Dog.
Polyoestrus animal: Many oestrus cycles in a year. Eg: Mouse.
b) Menstrual cycle: The cyclical changes in the activities of ovaries & accessory
ducts as well as hormones secretion during the reproductive phase of primate
mammals like monkeys, apes & humans is called Menstrual cycle.
c) Seasonal breeders: These are the organisms that reproduce only in some
favorable seasons.
Eg: Mammals living in natural & wild conditions.

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d) Continuous breeders: These are the organisms that are reproductively active
throughout their reproductive phase are called continuous breeders.
Eg: Human beings.

11. The cell division involved in gamete formation is not of the same type in
different organisms. Justify
Ans: In haploid organisms showing haplontic life cycle, gamete formation involves only
mitosis. In these diploid zygote undergoes meiosis to produce haploid organisms.
In diploid organisms showing diplontic or haplo-diplontic life cycle, gamete
formation involves meiosis. In these the zygote undergoes mitosis to produce
diploid organisms.

12. Fertilization is not an obligatory event for fruit production in certain plants.
Explain the statement.
Ans: Some fruits are developed from unfertilized ovary called parthenocarpic fruits.
These are seedless fruits.
Parthenocarpy can be induced by spraying growth hormones. So fertilization is not
an obligatory event for fruit production. Example: grapes, pomegranate etc.

13. Define the following with examples

Ans: a) Bisexual animals or Hermaphrodites: The animals which possess both male
and female reproductive organs in the same body. Eg: Tape worm, earth worm,
leech, sponges etc.,
b) Unisexual animals or homophrodites: The animals which possess male or
female reproductive organs.
Eg: Cockroach, round worm, human. These exhibit sexual dimorphism.
c) Homothallic plants or bisexual or monoecious: The plant body having both
male and female reproductive structures. Eg: Fungi, Hibiscus, cucurbita, coconut,
chara, sweet potato.
d)Heterothallic plants or unisexual or dioecious: The plant body having either
male or female reproductive
Eg: Papaya, Date palm, Marchantia
The flowers with only stamens are called male flowers or staminate flowers.
The flowers with only pistil are called female flowers or pistillate flowers.

14. The probability of fruit set in a self pollinated bisexual flower of a plant is far
greater than dioecious plant.Why?
Ans: In bisexual flowers, the anther and stigma lie close to each other andwhen the
anther dehisce the pollen grains fall on stigma and pollination is effected even in
the absence of pollinator. But in dioecious plants pollinator is necessary to bring
about effective pollination.

15. Which of the following are monoecious and dioecious?

Ans: Earthworm : monoecious/hermaphrodite
Chara : monoecious
Marchantia:dioecious

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Cockroach : dioecious/homophrodites

16. Both coconut and date palm produce staminate flowers. One is monoecious &
the other is dioecious. Write the difference.
Ans: Coconut palm is monoecious. It bears staminate and pistillate flowers in the same
plant.
Date palm is dioecious. It bears staminate flowers in one plant & pistillate flowers
in another.
What are the differences between Zoospore & Zygote?
1. It is a microscopic haploid spore produced insporangia.
It is a diploid cell formed by the fusion of male & female gametes.
2. It Is motile having flagella. It is non – motile, does not have flagella.
Eg: Phycomycetes, Green algae, Brown algae Eg: Sexually reproducing plants &
animals

18. Identify each part in a flowering plant & write whether it is haploid or diploid
or triploid.
Ans: a) Ovary – diploid
b) Anther – diploid
c) Egg cell – haploid
d) Pollen – haploid
e) Male gamete – haploid
f) Zygote – diploid
g)Endosperm - triploid
f) Embryo sac (female gametophyte) – haploid

19. What is parthenogenesis? Name an animal that shows parthenogenesis.

Ans: The process of development of unfertilized egg into an individual is called
parthenogenesis.
Eg: Formation of drones (male bees) in honey bee colony.

20. Suggest a possible explanation why the seeds in pea pod are arranged in a
row whereas those in tomato arein the juicy pulp.
Ans: The pea pod is derived from a monocarpellary unilocular ovary with marginal
placentation. So seeds are borne in rows along the junction of two margins of pod.
Tomato fruit is developed from bicarpellary ovary with axile placentation. So the
seeds are embedded in the juicy pulp

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THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. What is sexual reproduction? Mention its features.

Ans: Sexual reproduction is a type of reproduction in which the offspring develop from
the zygote which is formed by the fusion of male and female gametes of the same
individual (bisexual) or different individuals of the opposite sex (unisexual). The
features of sexual reproduction are
• Uniparental or biparental
• Formation and fusion of gametes takes place
• Off springs are not identical to parents
• Off springs show variations due to genetic recombination
• Offspring’s have better chance of survival
• Rate of reproduction is slow

2. Distinguish between asexual and sexual reproduction.

Ans:

3. Define the following. / Explain the different stages of life cycle of living
organisms.
Ans: a) Juvenile phase: It is a period of growth of organism before they can reproduce
sexually.It is followed by the reproductive phase. It is called vegetative phase in
plants.
b) Reproductive phase: It is a period of growth of an organisms after juvenile
phase, during which the organism undergoes morphological and physiological
changes to attain sexual maturity and capable of producing gametes.
In angiosperms, flowering marks the beginning of reproductive phase.

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c) Senescent phase or old age: It is the end of reproductive phase of an organism

characterized by slowed metabolism and ultimately leads to death.
The transition of these three phases is regulated by hormones and environmental
conditions.

4. Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its

complexity. Why?
Ans: Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction
• To ensure healthy progeny
• To produce genetically varied off springs that adapt to changes in environment &
survive in all climatic conditions. As it ensures the genetic recombination that
results in variation which are food for evolution.

5. What are the differences between menstrual cycle & oestrus cycle?
Ans:

6. Write the differences between Gametogenesis & Embryogenesis

Ans:

7. What are the differences between external fertilization & internal

fertilization?
Ans:

8. Write the differences between oviparous & viviparous animals.

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Ans:

10. What is a seed? Name the plants having the largest and smallest seed.
Ans: Seed is a matured, fertilized ovule that possesses embryonic axis, cotyledon, seed
coat & maybe endosperm.
Lodoicea (double coconut) is largest seed. Orchid seed is smallest seed.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Explain the process of asexual reproduction in amoeba and yeast cells with
the help of diagrams.
Ans: Asexual reproduction in amoeba takes place by binary fission. It is the division of
parental cell into two equal halves and each half grows into an adult.
In amoeba the nucleus of the cell elongates and divides into two. This is followed
by the division of cytoplasm resulting in two equal sized daughter cells.
In yeast, the cell division is unequal and small buds are formed. They remain
attached initially to the parental cell and eventually get separated and mature into
new yeast cells.

2. Explain the events of sexual reproduction.

Ans: The events of sexual reproduction are grouped under 3 distinct stages follows:
i) Pre-fertilization events: These are the events prior to the fusion of gametes.
They are gametogenesis & gamete transfer.
a) Gametogenesis: It is the process of formation of haploid male and female
gametes.
The shape and size of the gametes vary in different organisms.
• In algae like Chlamydomonos & Cladophore the male & female gametes are
similar in their shape & size called homogametes or isogametes.

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• The majority of sexually reproducing organisms produce two morphologically

dissimilar gametes calledheterogametes.
• Male gamete is called sperm or antherozoid & female gamete is called ovum or
egg.
The type of cell division differs during gamete formation.
• The haploid parents produce haploid gametes by mitosis.
Eg: Monera, algae, fungi & bryophytes.
• The diploid parents produce haploid gametes by meiosis.
Eg: Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms & human beings.
• The diploid organisms have specialized diploid gamete producing cells called
meiocytes or gamete mother cells which undergo meiosis to produce haploid
gametes.
b) Gamete transfer:
In most of the organisms male gamete is motile & female gamete is stationary.
But in some fungi & algae both are motile. In algae, bryophytes & Pteridophytes,
the gamete transfer takes place through water. · In seed producing plants pollen
grains carry male gametes & ovules carry egg cell. The pollen grains are
transferred to stigma called pollination. The dioecious animals have evolved some
mechanisms and structures to transfer gametes for successful sexual
reproduction.
ii) Fertilization events: Fertilization is a process of fusion haploid male gamete
with haploid female gamete to produce a diploid zygote. It is also called syngamy.
There are two types of fertilization based on fertilization medium. They are,
a) External fertilization: The syngamy occurs outside the body of the parents in
water medium.
Eg. Algae, fish, amphibians
b) Internal fertilization: The syngamy occurs inside the body of the female in
body fluid.
Eg. Fungi, bryophytes, Pteridophytes, gymnosperms, angiosperms, cartilaginous
fish, reptiles, birds and mammals
• In animals, the motile male gametes reach the egg in accessory reproductive
structures.
• In flowering plants, the non-motile male gametes are carried to egg cell by pollen
tube.
iii) Post fertilization events: The events in sexual reproduction after the formation
of zygote are called postfertilization events.
a) The growth of the zygote differs in different individuals as follows.
In algae and fungi, the zygote develops a thick wall which is resistant to
desiccation and damage. It undergoes a period of rest before germination
• In the organisms of haplontic life cycle, the diploid zygote divides meiotically to
produce haploid spores which grow into haploid individuals. Eg. Volvox, Spirogyra
• In the organisms of diplontic life cycle, the diploid zygote directly develops into a
diploid individual.
Eg. Gymnosperms, Angiosperms

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b) Embryogenesis: It is the development of the embryo from the zygote. During

this, zygote divides mitotically to produce a mass of cells which on differentiation
forms specialized tissues and organs to form an organism.
In flowering plants, the post fertilization events include the development of
• Zygote into embryo
• Primary endosperm cell into endosperm
• Ovules into seeds
• Ovary into fruit with a thick fruit wall called pericarp
• ·Sepals, petals and stamens fall off
• Antipodals and synergids disappear
• Seeds after dispersal germinate into new plants under favourable

3. Fertilization leads to the formation of embryos.

a) Give the technical term for the development of embryo.
Ans: Embryogenesis.
b) What are the events that occur during embryo development?
Ans: Cell division & cell differentiation.
c) The development of the zygote depends on two factors. What are they?
Ans: Type of life cycle & environment.
d) How will you categorize animals based on the development of zygote
outside or inside the female body?
Ans: Oviparous animals, Viviparous animals
e) How does zygote in fungi & algae overcome desiccation?
Ans: Zygote develops thick wall which is resistant to desiccation and damage. It
undergoes a period of rest before germination conditions

CHAPTER 2
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. What does the flower symbolize?

Ans: Flowers are the objects of aesthetic, ornamental, social, religious & cultural value.
They have always been used as symbols for conveying human feelings such as
love, affection, happiness, grief, mourning etc.

2. Name the tallest flower.

Ans: Amorphophallus (6ft height)

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3. An anther with malfunctioning Tapetum often fails to produce viable male

gametophytes. Why?
Ans: The malfunctioning Tapetum does not nourish the developing pollen grains. Thus
fails to produce viable malegametophytes.

4. Name the first cell of male gametophytic generation in flowering plants

Ans: Microspore or pollen grain is the first cell of gametophytic generation.

5. How are pollen grains preserved?

Ans: The pollen grains are preserved in liquid nitrogen at -1960C, which are used as
pollen banks in crop breedingprograms.

6. What is palynology?
Ans: It is the study of pollen grains.

7. Give an example for a plant that causes pollen allergy.

Ans: Parthenium.

8. Name the cells found at the chalazal end of embryo sac.

Ans: Antipodals.

9. What is meant by monosporic development of female gametophyte?

Ans: The method of embryo sac formation from a single haploid functional megaspore is
called monosporic development.

10. Name the component cells of the egg apparatus in embryo sac.
Ans: Egg apparatus has two synergids and an egg cell.

11. Name the diploid nucleus of the mature embryo sac.

Ans: Secondary nucleus of the central cell

12. The meiocyte of rice has 24 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are
present in its endosperm?
Ans: The endosperm will have 36 chromosomes.

13. Name the type of pollination in self-incompatible plants.

Ans: Cross pollination.

14. How does Yucca and Pronuba moth depend on each other?
Ans: The Pronuba moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary of Yucca and the
flower in turn get pollinated by the moth. The larvae of moth come out of the eggs
as the seed starts developing.

15. What are pollen robbers or nectar robbers?

Ans: The floral visitors or insects that consume pollen and nectar without bringing
about pollination are called pollen robbers.

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16. Why do corn cobs have long tassels?

Ans: The long tassels of corn cobs are the style and stigma which help to trap the pollen
grains carried by wind.

17. How do pollen grains of water pollinated plants like vallisneria protect
themselves?
Ans: In water pollinated species like vallisneria, pollen grains are protected from wetting
by a mucilaginous covering.

18. How does pollination occur in aquatic plants like water hyacinth & water
lily?
Ans: In water hyacinth and water lily, the flowers emerge above the level of water and
are pollinated by insects or wind as in most of the land plants.

19. How is it possible in oxalis and viola plant to produceassured seed sets even
in the absence of pollinators?
Ans: Oxalis and Viola plants produce cleistogamaous flowers in which anther and
stigma lie close to each other that favors self pollination and lead to assured seed
sets.

20. Name the part of gynoecium that determines the compatible nature of pollen
grain.
Ans: Stigma.

21. Which cell forms the kernel of coconut?

Ans: A triploid primary endospermcell of embryo sac.

22. How does the kernel and coconut water differ?

Ans: The kernel of coconut is cellular endosperm while coconut water is free nuclear
endosperm.

23. Name the common function that cotyledon and nucellus perform.
Ans: Nourishment.

24. What are the components of embryo of a seed?

Ans: Embryo of a seed has cotyledons and embryonic axis with plumule and radical.

25. Name the fruits containing thousands of tiny seeds.

Ans: Orchid fruits and the fruits of parasitic species such as orobanche and striga.

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

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1. Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which development of male and

female gametophyte takes place.
Ans: The development of male gametophyte takes place in the microsporangium of
anther.
The development of female gametophyte (embryo sac) takes place in the mega
sporangium(ovule) of ovary.

2. Explain the role of Endothecium.

Ans: Endothecium provides protection to pollen grains. These cells are hygroscopic.
When they lose water, they contract and cause dehiscence of anther for the release
of pollen grains.

3. Papavar and Michelia both have multicarpellary ovaries. How do they differ
from each other?
Ans: The papavar ovary is syncarpous, whereas Michelia ovary is apocarpous.

4. Name the cells that undergo meiosis in a bisexual flower

Ans: Microspore mother cell to produce haploid microspores (pollen grains)
Megaspore mother cell to produce haploid megaspore (embryo sac)

5. What is filiform apparatus? What is its significance?

Ans: The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropilar end called filiform
apparatus. It plays animportant role in guiding pollen tube into embryo sac
through synergid.

6. Name the male and female gametophytes of angiosperms.

Ans: Male gametophyte is microspore or pollen grain. Female gametophyte is embryo
sac.

7. Mention the advantage and disadvantage of cleistogamaous flowers.

Ans: Cleistogamous flowers undergo autogamy so there is an assured seed set but the
continued self pollination leads to inbreeding depression.

8. What is perisperm? Give examples.

Ans: The remnants of persistent nucellus in a seed are called perisperm.
Eg: Nymphaea, Black pepper and beetroot.

9. Why do you think the zygote is dormant for some time in a fertilized ovule?
Ans: The zygote remains dormant for some time in a fertilized ovule and divides only
after certain amount of endosperm is formed from PEN, because the zygote
requires reserve food materials of endosperm for the nutrition of the developing
embryo .

10. Why does the zygote begin to divide only after the division of primary
endosperm cell?

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Ans: The zygote needs nourishment during its development as the mature, fertilized
embryo sac offers little nourishment to the zygote. So, the primary endosperm cell
divides and generates the endosperm tissue which nourishes the zygote. Hence the
zygote always divides after the division primary endosperm cell.

11. What are false fruits? Give example.

Ans: The fruits developed from the floral parts other than the ovary are called false
fruits. Eg: Apple, Strawberry,cashew, etc. In these fruits, the thalamus forms into
the edible part.

12. What are parthenocarpic fruits? Give example.

Ans: The fruits developed from unfertilized ovary are called parthenocarpic . They are
seedless fruits. It can beinduced by the application of growth harmones. Eg:
Banana, grape, etc

13. If one can induce parthenocarpy through the application of growth

substances, which fruit would you select to use parthenocarpy and why?
Ans: Parthenocarpy can be induced in banana, grapes and guava to obtain seedless
fruits.

14. Are pollination and fertilization necessary in apomixes? Give reasons.

Ans :Pollination and fertilization are not necessary because in apomicts, the embryos
develop directly develop fromthe cells of nucellus, integument or megaspore
mother cell.

15. Embryo sacs of some apomictic species appear normal but contain diploid
cells. Why?
Ans: Is true that many apomicts possess normal looking embryo sacs. The only
possibility of the embryo sacpossessing diploid cells is due to failure of meiotic
division of megaspore mother cell. The MMC undergo mitosis instead of meiosis to
produce all diploid cells.

16. Can an unfertilized, apomictic embryo sac give rise to a diploid embryo? If
yes,how?
Ans: Yes. If the embryo develops from the cells of nucellus or integument as they are
diploid.

17. Name the mechanism responsible for the formation of seed without
fertilization in angiosperms. Give an example.
Ans: Apomixis Eg: grasses and members of asteraceae.

18. Are parthenocarpy and apomixis different phenomenon?

Ans: Parthenocarpy and apomixis are different phenomena. Parthenocarpy is the
formation of fruits without fertilization and hence the fruits are seedless. Where
as, apomixis is the phenomenon of formation of seeds without fertilization. These
embryos are genetically identical to the parental plant.

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THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Explain the role of Tapetum in the formation of pollen grain.

Ans: During microsporogenesis, the Tapetum performs the following functions:
• It transports nutrients to developing pollen grains.
• It secretes enzymes (callase) and hormones.
• It produces ubisch bodies which are coated with sporopollenin to cause
thickening of exine.
• Secretes oil coating over pollen grains called pollen kit. It protects the pollen from
UV radiations and attracts insects.
• Secretes special protein to recognize compatibility

2. What is the importance of pollen grains?

Ans:
• Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions
leading to chronic respiratory disorders like asthma, bronchitis etc.,
• They are rich in nutrients. So the pollen tablets and syrups are used as food
supplements.
• Consumption of pollen grains may increase the performance of athletes & race
horses.

3. Write a note on viability of pollen grains.

Ans:
• Viability of pollen grains depends on the prevailing temperature and humidity
• In some cereals like rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30minutes
of their release
• The pollen grains of some members of Rosaceae, Leguminaceae and Solanaceae
can be preserved in liquid nitrogen at -196 C, for many years and used as pollen
banks in crop breeding programs.
4. What are the differences between a matured unfertilized embryo sac and a
fertilized embryo sac?

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Ans:

5. What are chasmogamous flowers? Can cross pollination occur in

cleistogamous flowers? Give reasons.

Ans: Chasmagamous flowers open at maturity and expose their anthers and stigma.

Cross pollination does not occur in cleistogamous flowers as they do not bloom or
bloom after self pollination.

They are autogamous. Eg: Viola, Oxalis and Commelina

6. What are the characters of insect pollinated flowers (entamophilous

flowers)?

Ans: The insect pollinated flowers are

• Large
• Colourful
• Showy
• Fragrant
• Rich in nectar
• Provide reward in the form of nectar and pollen
• Safe place to lay eggs
• Some flowers produce foul odour to attract flies and beetles
• Pollen grains are sticky

7. What are the characters of wind pollinated flowers (anemophilous flowers)?

Give example.

Ans:

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• Pollen grains are light and non-sticky.

• Stigma is large & feathery to trap pollen grains.
• They have single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers packed into an
inflorescence.

Eg: corn cob & grasses

8. What are the characters of water pollinated (hydrophilous) flowers?Give

examples

Ans:

• Pollen grains are long and ribbon like

• Pollen grains are protected from wetting by mucilaginous covering

Eg: vallisneria, hydrilla, marine sea grasses like zostera

9. Explain the mechanism of pollination in water plants like vallisneria and sea
grass (Zostera).

Ans: In vallisneria, the female flowers reach the surface of water by the long stalk and
the male flowers are released onto the surface of water. They are carried by water
currents and some of them eventually contact with female flowers and its stigma
to bring about pollination.

In sea grass, female flowers remain submerged in water and the pollen grains
are released inside the water.

Pollen grains are long, ribbon like and they are carried passively inside the
water; some of them reach the stigma and achieve pollination.

10. Write a note on pollen – pistil interaction.

Ans: All the events from pollen deposition on the stigma until the entry of the pollen
tube into the ovule are together called pollen-pistil interaction. It is a dynamic
process involving pollen recognition by stigma/pistil for compatible pollen by
accepting them and if incompatible rejecting them.

• The pistil has the ability to recognize the compatible or incompatible pollen
• ·If the pollen is compatible, the pistil accepts the pollen and promotes post
pollination events that leads tofertilization
• This pollen – pistil interaction is governed by chemical components of pollen and
pistil

11. What is self-incompatibility? Does it impose any restrictions on autogamy?

Give reasons and suggest the method of pollination in such plants.

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Ans: In some plants, when mature pollen grain falls on the receptive stigma of the same
flower, it fails to bring about self-pollination. It is called self-incompatibility. Eg:
Potato, Tobacco, Petunia.It imposes restrictions on autogamy. These plants
undergo only cross pollination.

12. What is artificial hybridization? How is it achieved? What is its significance?

Ans: It is a process of transferring desired pollen grains onto the stigma by preventing
from unwanted pollen to obtain improved crop varieties.

It is achieved by:

• Emasculation: The technique of removal of anthers from a bisexual

floral bud before their dehiscence using a pair of forceps or scissors is
called emasculation.
• Bagging: The process of covering of emasculated flowers with a bag
made of butter paper to prevent the contamination of stigma from
unwanted pollen is called bagging.

Then the matured pollen grains collected from the anther are dusted onto stigma.
Then the flowers are rebagged and the fruits are allowed to develop. Plant breeders
employ this technique in artificial hybridization technique to perform crossing
experiments and also to produce commercially superior varieties of plants.

13. What is meant by emasculation? When and why does a plant breeder employ
this technique?

Ans: The technique of removal of anthers from the floral bud before their dehiscence a
pair of forceps or scissors is called emasculation.

Plant breeders employ this technique in artificial hybridization technique to

crossing experiments and also to produce commercially superior varieties of
plants.

14. What is bagging technique? How is it useful in a plant breeding

programme?

Ans: The process of covering of emasculated flowers with a bag made of butter paper to
prevent the contamination of stigma from unwanted pollen is called bagging.

• It is used to carry out cross breeding by desired pollen for crop improvement
programmes.
• It is used in the production of commercially superior hybrid varieties.

15. What is triple fusion? Where does it take place? Name the nuclei involved
in the triple fusion.

Ans: Fusion of one haploid male gamete with two haploid polar nuclei or one diploid
nucleus to produce a triploid endosperm nucleus in the embryo sac is called triple
fusion. It occurs in the central cell of embryo sac. The nuclei involved in triple
fusion are one nucleus from male gamete and two polar nuclei.

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FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Explain the T.S of mature dithecous anther lobe with a neat labelled diagram.
Ans: The androecium is a male reproductive whorl of flower composed of units called
stamens. The stamen has along narrow slender stalk called filament and a knob
like bilobed anther.
The bilobed anther (dithecous) is made up of two anther lobes connected by a
sterile connective. It has four microsporangia (pollen chambers). So it is called
tetrasporangiate anther lobe. Each microsporangium has a sporogenous tissue
surrounded by an anther wall made up of four wall layers. These wall layers are
produced from primary parietal cells derived from archesporial cells

The four layers of anther wall are:

a) Epidermis: It is outer single layer of flattened cells which provides

protection.

b) Endothecium: It is present below the epidermis. It is a single layer of

radially elongated cells with fibrous thickenings. These cells are hygroscopic.
When they lose water, they contract and cause dehiscence of anther for the
release of pollen grains.

c) Middle layer of cells: These are two to three layers of cells present between
Endothecium and Tapetum. They store food materials.

d) Tapetum: It is the innermost layer of anther wall containing the cells with
rich cytoplasm and nuclei. It

• Nourishes pollen grains

• Forms pollen wall
• Secretes callase enzyme

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Secretes oil coating over pollen grains called pollen kit. It protects the pollen
from UV radiations and attracts insects.

The Sporogenous cells produce diploid microspore mother cells. These

diploid mother cells undergo meiosis to produce microspore tetrad. Each cell
of tetrad separates to form microspore or pollen grain.

2. Explain the process of microsporogenesis (or) Explain the development of

male gametophyte (pollen grain) in flowering plants.

Ans: The process of formation of microspores or pollen grains or male gametophytes

from pollen mother cell through meiosis in the pollen chambers (micro sporangia)
of anther is called microsporogenesis. The primary hypodermal cells of young
anther called archesporial cells differentiate into primary parietal cells and
primary Sporogenous cells. The primary parietal cells produce 4 layers of anther
wall namely Epidermis,
Endothecium, middle layer of cells & Tapetum. Sporogenous cells develop into
microspore mother cells (MMC) or pollen mother cells (PMC). The diploid MMC
undergoes meiosis to produce a haploid microspore tetrad held together by callose.
Each haploid microspore separates from microspore tetrad by callase enzyme
secreted by tapetum layer.
Microspore or pollen grain is the first cell of gametophytic generation. As it
produces the male gametes, it is called male gametophyte. As the microspores
develop within the microsporangium, it is called precocious germination.

3. Explain the development and structure of male gametophyte or pollen grain

or microspore.
Ans: Development of male gametophyte: Microspore is the first cell of gametophytic
generation. The nucleus of the microspore migrates from center to periphery and
divides to produce a large vegetative cell (tube cell) and a small generative cell.
Temporary callose wall is laid between the two cells. It dissolves by callase enzyme
and the nucleus of generative cell floats in the cytoplasm of tube cell. This two
celled pollen grain is ready to liberate from pollen sac.

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Structure of pollen grain:

• It is spherical, oval, ellipsoidal & triangular in shape and 25-50 micrometer
in diameter
• It has two layered wall namely outer exine & inner intine.
• Exine is hard, made up of sporopollenin. Sporopollenin is the most resistant
organic material that canwithstand high temperature, strong acids, alkalis
& enzymes. It has prominent apertures called germpores where
sporopollenin is absent. Pollens can be well preserved as fossils because of
the presence
• The intine is thin continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin.
• It is two or three celled. One vegetative cell and one generative cell / two
gametic cells.
• The vegetative cell is large with abundant food reserve (starch &
unsaturated oils) and large irregularlyshaped nucleus.
• The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell. It
is spindle shaped with densecytoplasm and nucleus.
• Usually the pollen grain is shed at two cell stage in 60% of the angiosperms.
In the remaining species,the generative cell divides mitotically and a three
celled pollen grain is shed

4. Describe the structure of an anatropous ovule or megasporangium with a

neat labelled diagram.
Ans:

The ovule is a small structure attached to the placenta by

means of a stalk called funicle. The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the
region called hilum. The ovule has one or two protective envelopes called
Integuments.
These encircle the ovule except at the tip where a small opening called micropyle is
organized. The chalaza ispresent opposite to the micropylar end representing the
basal part of the ovule. The integuments enclose a mass of cells with reserved food
called nucellus. Nucellus encloses the embryo sac or female gametophyte

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5. Explain the process of megasporogenesis and megagametogenesis (the

development of female gametophyte)
Ans: Megasporogenesis: The process of formation of megaspore from megaspore mother
cell by the process ofmeiosis is called megasporogenesis.
The process of megasporogenesis occurs in megasporangia (ovules) present inside
the ovary. Each ovule hasouter integuments enclosing the nutritive tissue called
nucellus. Some cells of nucellus develop into diploid archesporial cells. The
archesporial cells undergo periclinal divisions to form outer parietal layer which
adds cells to sporogenous mass during division and inner sporogenous cell that
develop into megaspore mother cell(MMC).
The MMC divides by meiosis to produce a linear tetrad of haploid megaspores. Out
of 4 megaspores usually theupper three degenerate and the lowermost
towardsmicropylar region enlarges to become a functional megaspore called
embryosac. (This type of development is
called monosporic development)Mega gametogenesis: It is the process of formation
of egg cell from a functional megaspore (embryo sac)The nucleus of embryo sac
divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to opposite poles. Two more
successive mitotic divisions occur in each nucleus resulting in eight nucleate
stage.
• Three nuclei in chalazal end are surrounded by cell wall
and organized to form three antipodal cells.
• Two nuclei from each pole move to the centre to form polar nuclei present in
a large central cell
• Three nuclei in the micropylar end are surrounded by cell
wall and organize into three celled egg apparatus. It consists of two
synergids and an egg cell.
6. What is pollination? Explain the types and factors favouring self pollination.
Ans: Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to receptive of same or
another flower.
The types are
1. Autogamy: It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of the
flowers of the same plant.
a) Homogamy – It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of
the same flower
b) Geitonogamy: It is the transfer of pollen grain from anther of one flower to
the stigma of another flower of the same plant.
Autogamy is favored when
• Synchronisation in the release of pollen and stigma receptivity
• The flowers are bisexual
• Anther and stigma of a flower attain maturation at the same time
• Cleistogamy : The flowers do not bloom. Eg: Oxalis, Viola (common pansy)
commelina
• The anther and stigma lie close to one another
2. Allogamy or cross pollination: The transfer of pollen from anther of one flower
to stigma of another flower of another plant is called allogamy.

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Xenogamy: The transfer of pollen grains for anther of one flower to stigma of
another flower of a different plant. It results in genetic recombination.

7. What are outbreeding devices? Explain.

Ans: The outbreeding devices are the devices or mechanisms to prevent self pollination
and favor cross pollination to overcome the problem of inbreeding depression.
These are also called contrivances for cross pollination. The factors favoring cross
pollination are
• Unisexual flowers or dioecious plants or dicliny
• Male and female flowers are present in different plants which prevents
homogamy and geitonogamy
Eg: Papaya
• In monoecious plants like castor and maize homogamy is prevented but not
geitonogamy
• Chasmogamous flowers: the flowers with exposed anther and stigma to
facilitate pollination
Dichogamy: The bisexual flowers in which male and female reproductive parts
mature at different times, so prevents self pollination and favors cross pollination
a) Protandry: Flower in which anther mature earlier to stigma to prevent self
pollination.
Eg: sunflower, cotton
b)Protogyny : Flower in which stigma matures earlier to anther to prevent self
pollination
Eg: Mirabilis jalapa
• Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronized due to
dichogamy (protandry and protogyny)
• Herkogamy: It is flower in which there are physical barrier between anther
and stigma
Eg: calotropis
Heterostyles: The flower with different length of styles and stamens that prevents
self pollination
Eg: Prim rose, Oxalis
• Self sterility or self incompatibility: The pollen grains do not germinate on
stigma of same flower due to mutual inhibition. In this the genetic
mechanism prevents the pollen germination on stigma
Eg: Potato, Tobacco, Petunia.
• Suppression of one sex: In bisexual flower stamen or carpel is completely
suppressed and become sterile

8. Explain the post pollination events or double fertilization process in

angiosperms.
Ans: Double Fertilisation
● When the pollen grains fall on the stigma, the pollen tube enters one of the
synergids and releases two male gametes.
● One of the male gametes moves towards the egg cell and fuses with it to complete

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the syngamy to form the zygote.

● The other male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei and forms triploid primary
endosperm nucleus (PEN). This is termed as triple fusion.
● Since two kinds of fusion—syngamy and triple fusion—take place, the process is
known as double fertilisation, and is characteristic of flowering plants.
● After triple fusion, the central cell becomes the primary endosperm cell (PEC).
The primary endosperm nucleus gives rise to the endosperm, while the zygote
develops into the embryo

9. Describe the LS of a typical flower with a neat labelled diagram.

Ans:

Flower is a modified condensed shoot for sexual reproduction. The stalk of flower
is called pedicel. The upper swollen part of pedicel is called Thalamus. The
modified leaves as floral whorls are arranged on the thalamus
They are
• Calyx – units called sepals (for protection)
• Corolla – units called petals (to attract pollinators)
• Androecium – units called stamens (microsporophylls to produce
microspores in their microsporangia)
• Gynoecium/pistil – units called carpels (megasporophylls to produce
megaspores in their mega sporangia/ovules)

10. Write a note on Development of Embryo

Ans:
● The embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is
situated.

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● The zygote gives rise first to the pro-embryo, and then to the globular, heart-
shaped, mature embryo.
● A typical dicot embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons.
● The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is called epicotyl. It
contains the plumule (shoot tip). The portion below the axis is called hypocotyl. It
contains the radicle (root tip). The root tip is covered by the root cap.

11. Explain the development of endosperms in angiosperms.

Ans: The endosperm is developed from triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN). It
precedes embryo development from zygote. During this process the triploid PEN
divides mitotically to produce endosperm tissue filled withfood materials. It is used
for nourishing developing embryo.
There are two types of endosperm development
• Free nuclear endosperm development: The PEN undergoes successive
nuclear division to give rise to free nuclei. This does not involve the cell wall
formation. Eg: coconut water
• Cellular endosperm development: The PEN undergoes successive nuclear
division followed by the cell wall formation. Eg: White kernel of coconut
During the embryonic development, the embryo may completely consume the
endosperm before the seedmatures. This results in non endospermic seeds or
exalbuminous seeds. Eg: pea, ground nut, bean, etc.
The embryo may not utilize the endosperm completely and some amount of
endosperm persists in the matured seeds. This results in the formation of
endospermic seeds or albuminous seeds. Eg: castor, maize.

12. What is Apomixis (Agamospermy)? How do they develop? What is its

importance?
Ans: The development of seeds without involving meiosis and fertilization is called
apomixis. It is a kind of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
Apomictic embryos develop from:
• Haploid gametophytes (Apogamy)
• Diploid megaspores (Apospory)
• Diploid Nucellar cell and integument cells (Adventative embryony)

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The advantages of apomixis are:

• The segregation of characters does not take place in the seeds of apomictic
hybrids. This helps in conserving desired traits of hybrids. Hence extensively
used in agriculture and horticulture.
• Reduced cost of hybrid production.
• Accelerated breeding.
• Maintain hybrid vigour.
• Free from diseases.
• Nucellar seedlings of citrus provide better clones

CHAPTER -3
HUMAN REPRODUCTION

ONE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Define gametogenesis?
Ans: The process of formation of gametes.

2. What is insemination?
Ans: The transfer of sperms into the female genital tract.

3. What is fertilization?
Ans: Fusion of male and female gametes to form zygote.

4. What is implantation?
Ans: Attachment of blastocyst itself to the inner uterine wall
(endometrium).

5. What is gestation period?

Ans: The period of development between fertilization to parturition (child
birth)

6. What is parturition?
Ans: Birth of the infant called parturition.

7. Name the pouch in which testes are present.

Ans: Scrotum.

8. Mention the significance of scrotum.

Ans: The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes
(2-2.5 degree Celcious lower than the normal internal body
temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis.

9. What are seminiferous tubules?

Ans: Seminiferous tubules are highly coiled structures present in a
testicular lobule or structural and functional units of testis.

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10. What are spermatogonia?

Ans: Spermatogonia are the diploid male germ cells that give rise to
spermatozoons.

11. Name the cell that provides nutrition to the malegermcells.

Ans: Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the germ cells.

12. Name the cell that secretes androgen or testosterone.

Ans: Leydig cells or interstitial cells.

13. Name the duct through which seminal vesicle opens into the urethra.
Ans: Ejaculatory duct.

14. Name the finger shaped projections of fallopian tube near the
ovary.
Ans: Fimbriae.

15. Name the layer of uterus that undergoes cyclical changes or

shedding during menstrual cycle.
Ans: Endometrium.

16. Name the cluster of cells in mammary lobes.

Ans: Alveoli.

17. What is spermatogenesis?

Ans: The process of formation of functional haploid male gametes or
sperms in the testis of males.

18. What is spermiogenesis?

Ans: The process of conversion of haploid, non-motile and non-functional
spermatids into functional motile sperms.

19. What is spermiation?

Ans: The process of release of sperms from the seminiferous tubules.

20. Name the hormone that stimulates spermatogenesis.

Ans: LH –Luteinizing hormone.

21. Mention the function of LH?

Ans: LH acts on Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of
androgens.

22. What is semen?

Ans: The seminal plasma along with the sperms constitutes the semen.

23. What is acrosome?

Ans: The anterior portion of sperm is covered by a cap-like structure
acrosome.

24. Mention the function of acrosome?

Ans: The acrosome is filled with enzymes that help fertilization of the
ovum.

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25. Name the fluid filled cavity of Graafian follicle.

Ans: Antrum.

26. What is menarche?

Ans: Menarche is the first menstrual period of young woman.

27. What causes rupturing of Graafian follicle and release of ovum

Ans: Increased concentration of LH.

28. What is corpus luteum?

Ans: Yellow coloured body developed by the ruptured Graafian follicle.

29. What is the function of corpus luteum?

Ans: Secrete progesterone hormone.

30. Name the hormone that is essential for maintenance of the endometrium.
Ans: Progesterone.

31. What is menopause?

Ans: Menstrual cycles cease around 50 years of age.

32. In which part of the fallopian tube does fertilization occur?

Ans: Ampullary-isthmic junction .

33. What is monospermy?

Ans: Only one sperm can fertilize an ovum.

34. What is cleavage?

Ans: Repeated rapid mitotic cell division of diploid zygote.

35. What is morula?

Ans: The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres stage.

36. Name the outer layer of cells in blastocyst.

Ans: Trophoblast

37. Where does the implantation of blastocyst occur?

Ans: Endometrium of the uterus.

38. What is placenta?

Ans: Placenta is a connection between developing embryo and mother.

39. Name the structure that connects placenta to the embryo.

Ans: Umbilical cord.

40. What is the function of umbilical cord?

Ans: It helps in the transport of substances to and from the developing
embryo.

41. What are stem cells?

Ans: Stem cells which have the potency to give rise to all the tissues and
organs.

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42. Name the hormone produced from the ovary in later phase of
Ans: pregnancy.
Relaxin

43. What is foetal ejection reflex?

Ans: Mild uterine contractions from the placenta during parturition called
foetal ejection reflex.

44. What is colostrum?

Ans: The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called
Colostrum

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Name the two types of cells present on inner lining of seminiferous tubules.
Ans: Sertoli cells and gonial cells.

2. Mention two female sex hormones.

Ans: FSH AND LH

3. Write any four functions of placenta.

Ans: The functions of placenta are:
• Transport of oxygen and nutrients from mother’s blood to the
developing foetus.
• Transportation of carbon dioxide and nitrogenous wastes from the foetal
blood into the mother’s blood.
• The storage of food materials like glycogen, fat, iron etc., All these contents
are utilized by the foetus before the formation of functional liver.
• The transportation of antibodies from mother’s blood into the foetal blood.
• It acts as a barrier and prevents the entry of microorganisms and some
harmful materials like blood proteins and sex hormones from mother’s
blood into the foetal blood.
• It also acts as an endocrine gland and secretes several hormones like human
chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen(hPL), progesterone,
estrogen, and relaxin (secreted more at the later stages of pregnancy) & helps
to maintain pregnancy.

4. List the hormones that are secreted only during pregnancy in women.
Ans: Estrogen, progesterone, prolactin and thyroxin.

5. List any four reproductive events in humans.

Ans: Gametogenesis, Insemination, Fertilization, Implantation, Gestation
and Parturition

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

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1. List the different parts of the male reproductive system and mention their
specific function each.
Ans 1.Testes: Productions of sperms and male sex hormone
2.Epididymis: Storage and maturation of sperms
3.Vas deferens: Transportation of sperms
4.Ejaculatory duct:Conduction of sperms
5.Penis: Organ of copulation
6.Accessory glands: Seminal vesicle, Prostate gland, Bulbourethralgland/
Cowper’s glands - Fructose rich secretions
provides energy source Citric acid rich secretions and helps in
sperm motility Mucus rich secretions provide lubrication.

2. List the different parts of the female reproductive system and mention their
specific function.
Ans: Parts of female reproductive system:
1. Ovary: Production of ova and female sex hormones.
2. Oviduct: Transportation of ova from the ovary to uterus
3. Uterus: Site of menstruation, implantation of a fertilized ovum,
development of the foetus and labor.
4. Cervix: Secretes mucus that enhances sperm movement into
uterus and prevents the embryo from bacterial infection
5. Vagina: Organ of sexual intercourse and birth canal.
6. Lesser and greater vestibular glands: Secrete mucus that provides lubrication
during sexual intercourse.

3. List the major features of embryonic developments in various

months of pregnancy?
Ans: The major features of embryonic development at various months of
pregnancy are;
• The human pregnancy lasts 9 months
• In human beings, after one month of pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is
formed.
• By the end of the second month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs
and digits.
• By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester), most of the major organ systems
are formed, for example, the limbs and external genital organs are well-
developed.
• The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head
are usually observed during the fifth month.
By the end of 24 weeks (second trimester), the body is
covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate, and eyelashes are
formed.
• By the end of nine months of pregnancy, the foetus is fully developed
and is ready for delivery.

4. Mention the differences between Spermatogenesis and oogenesis

Spermatogenesis Oogenesis

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1 1. Production of sperms called 1 1.Production of ovum is called

Spermatogenesis.
2.Spermatogenesis occurs in testis 2.Oogenesis occurs in ovary.

3 3
3.Four functional sperms are 3 3. only one functional ovum is
produced produced

4 4.There is no formation of polar body 4. Three polar bodies are produced.

.
5 5.There is no vitellogenesis oogenesis. 5 5. There is vitellogenesis

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

5. Write diagrammatic view of male reproductive system.

Ans:

6. Draw a neat labeled diagrammatic sectional view of female reproductive

system.[5m]
Ans:

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7. Explain the process of oogenesis with the help of schematic

representation.
Ans: Oogenesis:
• The formation of functional haploid ovum in the ovary by meiosis is
called oogenesis.
• Phases of oogenesis: It occurs in three phases. 1. Multiplication phase. 2. Growth
phase 3. Maturation phase.
• Multiplication phase: The diploid oogonial cells of the ovarian follicles divides
repeatedly by mitosis produce more oogonium cells.
• Growth phase: During this phase the diploid oogonium synthesis (yolk reserve
food material) or vitelline in the cytoplasm, increases in its size and volume to form
primary oocyte. This process is called vitellogenesis.
• Maturation phase: This phase involves two successive division namely meiosis I
and meiosis II.
• The meiosis I is reductional and produce two unequal sized cells from each
primary oocyte. In which one cell is smaller in size is often called I polar body, and
the other one is larger in size called secondary oocyte.
• They undergo meiosis II, resulting in the formation of four haploid cells, in which
one is larger in size called ootid and other three are smaller in size called polar
bodies.
• Finally the ootid converted into functional ovum. So at the end of oogenesis one
functional ovum and 3 polar bodies are formed. These polar bodies will not survive
they undergo disintegration.

8. Explain the spermatogenesis with the help of schematic representation.

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Ans:

Phases of spermatogenesis: It occurs in four phases.

1. Multiplication phase
2. Growth phase
3. Maturation phase
4. Spermiogenesis or spermateliosis
1. Multiplication phase: The diploid spermatogonial cells of the seminiferous
tubules divide repeatedly by mitosis to form number of diploid spermatogonia.
Among them only few entered into growth phase and others are kept reserve.
2. Growth phase: The spermatogonium grows and increases the cell cytoplasm,
volume and becomes larger called primary spermatocytes
3. Maturation phase: This phase involves two successive divisions namely
meiosis I and meiosis II. The meiosis I is reductional by which primary
spermatocyte produce two haploid daughter cells called secondary spermocytes.
These secondary spermatocytes undergo meiosis II, which is equational. As a
result four equal sized haploid cells are produced called ‘spermatids’.
4. Spermeogenesis (spermateliosis): The differentiation of inactive, non-motile,
spherical Spermatids into active, motile and tadpole shaped sperms is called
spermeogenesis.
5.Spermiation: The discharge of spermatozoans from the seminiferous tubules
called spermiation.
Schematic representation of spermatogenesis

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9. Draw a neat labeled diagram of typical sperm

10. Describe the structure of human sperm.

Ans: Structure of a typical sperm:
1. Sperm is a male gamete produced in the testis by spermatogenesis.
2. The sperms are mature, haploid, microscopic, elongated and motile male
gametes.
3. A typical sperm shows four regions. They are head, neck, middle piece and tail.
4. Head: Head is the anterior segment of the sperm which is oval in shape. Head
includes a paternal haploid nucleus (n). Above the nucleus cap like structure
present called Acrosome, which consisting hydrolytic enzymes like acrosin,
hyalourinidase and proteinase. Acrosome helps in the penetration of sperm into
ovum. Acrosome is formed by Golgi apparatus.
5. Neck: It is an indistinct part connects the middle piece. It includes a proximal
centriole; it lies close to the sperm nucleus. It helps in the formation of spindle
fibers in diploid zygote.

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6. Middle piece: It contains distal centriole. It gives rise to a long slender axial
filament. Around the axial filament double row of mitochondrial sheath is present
called Neubenkern, which provides energy needed for the movement of the
sperm, hence middle piece may also be referred to as engine room of the sperm.
Axial filament is also called Axoneme and arises from the distal centriole which
forms the axis of tail.
7. Tail: It is divided into two parts namely, main piece covered by a cytoplasmic
sheath and end piece and it is naked forms terminal part of the tail.
8. Human male ejects about 200 to 300 million sperms during coitus. For normal
fertility at least 60% of sperms must have normal shape and size, about 40% of
them must shoe vigorous motility.
11. What is menstrual cycle? Explain the phases of menstrual cycle.
Ans: A series of rhythmical changes that take place in female reproductive
system from puberty (menarche) to menopause in woman is called
menstrual cycle
Menstrual phase: it involves shedding off uterine endometrium. Hence there will
be discharge of blood, tissue fluid, mucous and epithelial cells. This phenomenon
is also called menses. It lasts from about 1st to 5th day of the cycle.
Pre-Ovulatory phase or proliferative phase: During this phase regeneration and
thickening of endometrium of the uterus occurs. It lasts from about 6th to 13th
day of the cycle. During this phase, the secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH)
increases gradually during the follicular phase, and stimulates follicular
development as well as secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles.
Ovulatory phase: It involves the release of ovum from the Graafian follicle called
ovulation. It takes place on 14th day of menstrual cycle. During this phase, both
LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of cycle (about 14th day). Rapid
secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle called LH surge
(increased concentration of LH) induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby
the release of ovum (ovulation).
Post Ovulatory phase or secretary phase: During this phase Graafian follicle will
be converted into yellow coloured body corpus luteum. The corpus luteum secretes
large amounts of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the
endometrium. The endometrium is necessary for implantation of the fertilized
ovum and other events of pregnancy. In the absence of fertilization corpus luteum
degenerated into corpus albican and leading to menstrual phase. In human
beings, menstrual cycles cease around 50 years of age; that is termed as
menopause. Post Ovulatory phase lasts for about 15th to 28th day of the cycle
CHAPTER-4
RERPODUCTIVE HEALTH
ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. Define reproductive health.

Ans: Healthy reproductive organs with normal functions. OR “A total well-being in all
aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioral and social.

2. Expand the abbreviation WHO.

Ans: World health organization

3. Expand the abbreviation RCH.

Ans: Reproductive and Child Health Care programmes

4. What is amniocentesis?

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Ans: Amniocentesis is a foetal sex determination test based on the chromosomal

pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo.

5. Expand the abbreviation CDRI.

Ans: Central Drug Research Institute

6. Name the new oral contraceptive of female developed by CDRI.

Ans: Saheli

7. Expand the abbreviation MMR.

Ans: Maternal mortality rate

8. Expand the abbreviation IMR.

Ans: Infant mortality rate

9. What is family planning?

Ans: It is method to limit the number children's by using various contraceptives.

10. Mention the principle involved in natural method of contraception. ?

Ans: Avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting

11. What is the reason to avoid coitus from day of 14th to 17th of menstrual
cycle in natural method of contraception?
Ans: Because chances of fertilization are very high during this period

12. What is lactational amenorrhea?

Ans: Absence menstruation during the period of intense lactation following parturition
13. What are diaphragms/cervical caps/vaults?
Ans: They are female contraceptive barriears inserted into female reproductive tract to
cover the cervix during coitus.

14. Expand the abbreviation IUDs.

Ans: Intra uterine devices

15. Where are IUDs inserted in woman?

Ans: Uterus

16. Give an example for non-medicated IUDs.

Ans: Lippes loop

17. Give an example for copper releasing IUDs.

Ans: CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375.

18. Give an example for hormone releasing IUDs.

Ans: Progestasert, LNG-20 20.

19. How do copper releasing IUDs prevent conception?

Ans: Suppress the sperm motality and the fertilizing capacity of sperms.

20. How do hormone releasing IUDs prevent conception?

Ans: Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix hostile to the sperms.

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21. Name “once a week” new oral contraceptive pill.

Ans: Saheli, Mala - D

22. What is sterilization?

Ans: Terminal method to prevent pregnancies

23. What is vasectomy?

Ans: A surgical procedure designed to make a man sterile by cutting or blocking both
the right and left vas deferens, (the tubes through which sperm pass into the
ejaculate).

24. What is tubectomy?

Ans: Is a surgical procedure for sterilization in which a woman's fallopian tubes are
clamped and blocked, or sealed, either method of which prevents eggs from
reaching the uterus for fertilization.

25. Expand the abbreviation MTP.

Ans: Medical Termination of Pregnancy.

26. What is medical termination of pregnancy?

Ans: Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called medical
termination of pregnancy (MTP) or induced abortion.

27. Expand the abbreviation RTI.

Ans: Reproductive Tract Infections.

28. Expand the abbreviation VD.

Ans: Venereal Diseases

29. Expand the abbreviation PID.

Ans: Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases.

30. What is infertility?

Ans: Couples are unable to produce children inspite of unprotected sexual co-
habitation

31. Expand the abbreviation ART.

Ans: Assisted Reproductive Technologies.

32. Expand the abbreviation IVF-ET.

Ans: Invitrofertilization-Embryo Transfer

33. What is invitro fertilization?

Ans: Fertilization outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body.

34. Expand the abbreviation ZIFT.

Ans: Zygote intra fallopian transfer

35. Expand the abbreviation GIFT.

Ans: Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer

36. What is artificial insemination?

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Ans: Semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced
either into the vagina or into the uterus.
37. Expand the abbreviation AI.
Ans: Artificial insemination

38. Expand the abbreviation IUT.

Ans: Intra uterine transfer

39. Expand the abbreviation ICSI.

Ans: Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection

40. Expand the abbreviation IUI.

Ans: Intra Uterine Insemination

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Briefly describe the principle of working of IUDs.

Ans:
1. Increase phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus.
2. Cu ion released suppresses sperm motility and fertilizing .
3. Hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
and the cervix hostile to the sperm.

2. Mention the reasons for infertility.

Ans:
Reasons for infertility
• Physical reasons
• Congenital reasons
• Diseases
• Drugs
• Immunological
• Psychological

3. List special techniques to control infertility /Types of Assisted reproductive

technologies.
Ans: GIFT, ZIFT, IVF-ET, IUI,ICSI, IUT

4. List any four sexually transmitted diseases

Ans: 1)Gonorrhea 2)Syphilis, 3)Genital herpes 4)Chlamydiasis 5)Genital warts
6)Trichomoniasis 7) Hepatitis-B 8)HIV

5. Mention any two symptoms of STDs.

Ans:

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• Itching,
• Fluid discharge,
• Slight pain, swelling in the genital region.
• STDs remain asymptomatic in female and remain undetected for long. In
the later stage it may lead to Pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), abortion, still
births, ectopic pregnancy, infertility or even cancer in reproductive tract.

6. List any two preventive measures of STD.

Ans:
1. Avoid sex with unknown partners/ multiple partners.
2. Always use condoms during coitus.
3. In case of doubt, consult with a qualified doctor for early
detection.
4. Get complete treatment if diagnosed with disease

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. What are contraceptives? Mention any four characteristics of ideal
contraceptives.
Ans:
Contraceptives are the devices or methods or pills to prevent conception
Characteristics of ideal contraceptive:
1. User friendly.
2. Easily available.
3. Effective
4. Reversible with no or least side – effects.
5. No way interferes with sexual drive.

2. Mention the strategies of reproductive health.

Ans:
• Wide publicity to create awareness among people about
reproduction related aspects.
• Take help of audio-visual and print media
• Introduction of sex education in schools to give right
information about reproductive organs.
• Avoid misconceptions and myths regarding sex related aspects.
• Proper information regarding sex organs, adolescent stage and
hormonal changes in the body.
• Giving knowledge about safe and hygienic sexual practices
• Knowledge about unsafe sex and sexually transmitted diseases.

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3. How educating couples or those in marriageable age group to maintain the

healthy family of desired size?
Ans:
1. Available birth control options.
2. Care of pregnant woman.
3. Postnatal care of the mother and child.
4. Importance of breast feeding .
5. Equal opportunities for the female and male child.
6. Statutory ban on amniocentesis.
4. Write a note on intra uterine devices and mention the types.
Ans:
• The devices are only used by female.
• Inserted by doctor or by expert nurses in the uterus through
vagina.
• Non-medicated IUDs e.g. Lippies loop.
• Copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375).
• Hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG-20)

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Explain any five birth control/contraceptive methods.

Ans:
Natural methods:
• Periodic abstinence: avoid fertile period
• Withdrawal or coitus interruption
• Lactational amenorrhea Barrier methods: condoms-male and female
,Diaphragm-female
• Contraceptive: Cervical caps and vaults, Intra uterine devices Oral
contraceptives, Injections or implants Emergency contraceptives, Surgical
methods.
• Oral contraceptives: This method is used by female only. Used in the form
of tablets hence popularly called pills.
• Pills contain progestogens or progesteron-estrogen combination. Pills have
to be taken daily for a period of 21 days.Started within first five days of
menstruation.
• Pills are very effective with lesser side effect. Saheli- a non steroidal
preparation used as oral contraceptive pills.
• Principle of working of oral pills: Inhibit ovulation, Inhibit implantation,
Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard entry of sperms.
• Injections or implants: Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen
are used as injections or implants under the skin by female.
• Mode of action is similar as in pills. It is very effective for long periods.
Surgical methods: Tubectomy, Vasectomy, MTP

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2. Explain briefly any five assisted reproductive technologies to overcome from

infertility problems.
Ans:
• The most recent line of treatment for infertility involves the use of several
progressive techniques, which are collectively known as assisted conception or
assisted reproductive technologies (ART).
• The couples could be assisted to have children through some special
techniques like IVF and ET, GIFT, ZIFT, IUT, ICSI.
• IVF and ET – Invitro fertilization and Embryo transfer: Popularly called test
tube baby programme.
• Fertilization taken place outside the female body means in the lab i.e., in
the test tube called invitrofertilization.
• GIFT- Gamete intra-fallopian transfer technique: the healthy ova and potent
sperms are introduced into the upper part of the fallopian tube, where fertilization
takes place.
• ZIFT-Zygote intra-fallopian transfer technique: In this method, after invitro
fertilization, the zygotes are transferred into the fallopian tube.
• IUT( intra uterine transfer): Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into
the uterus, to complete its further development.
• ICSI (Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection): It is another specialized procedure
to form an embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into the
ovum.
• AI (Artificial insemination): Infertility cases either due to inability of the
male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm counts
(oligospermia) in the ejaculates, could be corrected by artificial insemination
technique.
IUI (Intra-uterine insemination): In this technique, the semen collected either from
the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina or
into the uterus of the female.

CHAPTER 5
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. What is genetics ?
Study of heredity and variation OR study of gene.
2. What is an allele ?
An alternate form of a gene for a character present on identical loci of two
homologous chromosomes.
3. What is phenotype ?
A physically expressed external character in an individual.
4. What is genotype ?

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Genetic make up of an individual for a phenotype.

5. What is dominance?
A gene or a character expressed in heterozygous condition of an organism.
6. What is recessiveness ?
A gene or a character which fails to express in heterozygous condition.
7. What is linkage ?
Genes present on a chromosome remain together and inherited in a group
II TWO MARK QUESTIONS
1. Differentiate homozygous individual from heterozygous individual.
Homozygous – Individual having similar genes in allelic pair.
Heterozygous- Individual having dissimilar genes in allelic pair.
2. What is test cross? Mention its significance

Cross between F1 hybrid and its recessive parent.

To know the genotype of F1.
3. What is pleotrophic gene? Give an example.
One gene influencing multiple characters in an individual.
Eg. In human an autosomal recessive gene for phenylketoneuria, influences the
characters like mental retardation, reduction in hair and skin colour.
4. Write any four abnormalities of Down syndrome
• Short stature with round head
• Furrowed tongue and partially open mouth
• Palm is broad with characteristic palm crease
• Physical, psychomotor and mental developments are retarded

5. Write the chromosomal complement and two abnormalities of Klinefelter’s

syndrome
• Chromosomal complement - 44AA+ XXY
Abnormalities -
• Gynoecomastia - Feminine characters like absence of facial hair and
presence of enlarged breast.
• Underdeveloped testis.
• Absence of spermatogenesis.
• Sterility.
6. Drosophila melanogaster is a model organism in genetic studies. Justify?
They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory
• They complete their life cycle in about two weeks
• Single mating could produce a large number of progeny flies
• There is clear differentiation of sexes
• Hereditary variations can be seen in low power microscopes
7. What is polygenic inheritance? Give an example
• An expression of a trait is controlled by three or more number of genes is
called polygenic inheritance.
• Eg: skin colour of humans

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III THREE MARK QUESTIONS

1. Explain the experiment carried out by Morgan in Drosophila to demonstrate
linkage. What is the observation made by him in that experiment?
Morgan hybridized yellow bodied, white eyed females to brown-bodied, red eyed
male and inter crossed their F1 progeny. He observed that the two genes did not
segregate independently of each other and the F2 ratio deviated very significantly
from 9:3:3:1.
Morgan found that even when genes were grouped on the same chromosome,
some genes were very tightly linked (showed very low recombination) while others
were loosely linked (showed higher recombination).
2. What is co dominance? Explain with reference to human blood group.
It is the phenomenon of inheritance where both the alleles of heterozygote express
themselves equally at a time.
Eg. In human the blood group AB having the alleles IA and IB express equally by
producing both the sugars antigen A and antigen B.
3. What is polygenic inheritance ? Explain with an example.
Two or more genes influence a single character in a cumulative manner.
Eg. Human skin colour is regulated by three pairs of cumulative genes A,B and C.
AABBCC – dark skin (negro)
aabbcc – light skin (caucasoid)
AaBbCc – intermediate (mulattos)

4. What is haemophilia ? Mention the types.

Inability of blood to clot or delay in clotting due to lack of clotting factors during
bleeding.
Types of haemophilia -
Haemophilia A – deficiency of factor VIII.
Haemophilia B – deficiency of factor IX.
Haemophilia C – deficiency of factor XI
5. Briefly explain sickle cell anaemia.
Sickle cell anaemia is a condition of anaemia by the production of sickle cell
RBCs.
• Valine instead of glutamic acid in 6th position by the gene HbS
• RBCs become sickle shape, do not carry sufficient O2 and become stiff,
crystalline and non-elastic.
• Damage the capillaries of vital organs, internal bleeding and even death in
severe condition.
6. Briefly explain phenylketouria
• Inborn error of phenyl alanine metabolism due to autosome linked recessive
gene on chromosome 12
• Recessive gene pp fails to produce an enzyme phenyl alanine hydroxylase
• No breakdown of phenyl alanine into tyrosine and its derivatives
accumulates in the blood and CSF.
• Mental retardation, light skin and hair and phenyalnine and its derivatives
excreted through urine.
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS
1. Write a note on incomplete dominance
Incomplete Dominance
● In incomplete dominance, F1 generation has a phenotype that does not

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resemble either of the two parents, but is a mixture of the two.

● Example − Flower colour in dog flower (snapdragon), where:
○ RR − Red flowers
○ rr − White flowers
○ Rr − Pink flowers
● Here, genotypic ratio remains same as in Mendelian crosses, but phenotypic
ratio changes since complete dominance is not shown by R (hence, incomplete
dominance).

● Phenotypic Ratio − 1:2:1 that denotes Red: Pink: White

● Genotypic Ratio − 1:2:1 that denotes RR: Rr: rr

2. Inheritance of Two Genes (Dihybrid Cross) and Law of Independent

Assortment
Inheritance of Two Genes (Dihybrid Cross)
● In dihybrid cross, we consider two characters. (e.g., seed colour and seed shape)
● Yellow colour and round shape is dominant over green colour and wrinkled shape.

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Phenotypic ratio − 9:3:3:1 Round yellow – 9, Round green – 3, Wrinkled yellow − 3

Wrinkled green −1

3. Write a note on Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance

Rediscovery of Mendel’s Work
● Mendel’s work remained unrecognised for several years because of the following
reasons.
Lack of communication and publicity
• His concept of factors (genes) as discrete units that did not
blend with each other was not accepted in the light of variations occurring
continuously in nature.
• Mendel’s approach to explain biological phenomenon with the help of mathematics
was also not accepted.
• In 1990, three scientists Hugo deVries, Correns and Von Tschermak
independently rediscovered Mendel’s work.
Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
● By 1900, due to the advancement in microscopy, chromosomes were also
discovered.
● Sutton and Bovery discovered that the behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to
the behaviour of genes.
● Chromosomes and genes both occur in pairs—two alleles of a gene pair are located
on homologous sites of homologous chromosomes.
● Sutton and Bovery further proposed that it is the pairing and separation of a pair
of chromosomes that ultimately leads to segregation of the pair of factors they
carry.
Union of knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles
constitutes chromosomal theory of inheritance.

CHAPTER-6
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. Name the nitrogen base present in DNA, but absent RNA.

Ans. Thymine

2. Define transcription
Ans: The process of synthesis of mRNA from DNA by enzymes

3. What are purines / pyrimidines?

Ans: Double ring nitrogen base called purines. Ex- A& G
Single ring nitrogen base called purines. Ex- C, T & U.

4. Name the bond linked between nitrogenous base & sugar.

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Ans: N – glycosidic linkage

5. What is polynucleotide chain?

Ans: More than 5 nucleotide are join end to end to form chain called polypeptidechain.

6. Who elucidate the structure of DNA?

Ans: Watson & crick

7. Define Erwin Chargaff rule.

Ans: Amount of purines are equal to Pyrimidines.

8. Define central dogma.

Ans: Flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to polypeptide or protein.

9. What is nucleosome?
Ans: The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histones
octomer to form a structure called nucleosome

10. What is replication?

Ans: DNA produce an exact copy of itself called replication.

11. What is RNA splicing?

Ans: The introns are removed & exons are joined in a definite order

12. How many sensible codons in genetic code dictionary?

Ans: 61

13. UAA, UAG & UGA are called Nonsense codon, why?
Ans: These codons do not code for any amino acids.

14. What is mutation?

Ans: The alteration of DNA sequences results in changes in the genotype `

andphenotype of an organism.

15. Define DNA finger printing.

Ans: An analytical technique, sequence of DNA repeats to Identify of individual at DNA
level is known as DNA finger printing

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Nucleosome composed off?
Ans: Histones octomer & DNA

2. Name the amino acids residue carry positive charge of histones.

Ans: Lysines & arginines

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3. Mention 4 properties of genetic material.

Ans:
• Undergo replication
• Chemically & structurally be stable
• Slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution.
• Able to express itself in the form of ‘ Mendelian Characters’

4. Differentiate template strand & coding strand.

Ans: One of the DNA strand act as template to produce mRNA called template strand.
The DNA strand which does not code for anything is referred as coding strand

5. Write the function of DNA- dependent RNA polymerase & RNA- dependent
DNA polymerase.
Ans: DNA- dependent RNA polymerase - synthesis of mRNA, dependent on DNA
strandRNA- dependent DNA polymerase - synthesis of DNA, dependent on genetic
RNA strand.

6. What are exons & introns?

Ans: The coding sequences or expressed sequence of mRNA called Exon
The non coding sequence of mRNA called introns.

7. What is capping & tailing?

Unusual nucleotide (methyl Guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5’ – end of
hnRNA called capping Adenylate residue (200-300) are added at 3’– end called
tailing

8. Mention the two essential role of ribosome during translation.

Ans:
• Synthesizing polypeptide chain or protein
• Act as catalyst for the formation of polypeptide bond.

9. Differentiate between Repetitive DNA & satellite DNA.

Ans: Unusual base pairs sequence (10-15) repeated many times in DNA called
Repetitive DNA. (It varies from person to person, but unique to a person) The small
peaks are separated from bulk DNA during DNA finger printing called satellite
DNA.

10. Mention the application of DNA finger printing.

Ans:
• Solving disputed parentage
• To identify criminals & rapists
• Reuniting the lost children
• Immigrant dispute
• To establish the identity of dead bodies.

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Name the three component of nucleotide.

Ans: Nitrogen bases. Pentose sugar & phosphate groups

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2. Draw a schematic structure of a transcription unit.

Ans:

3. Where do you find code, codon and anticodon?

Ans: Code - DNA
Codon - mRNA
Anticodon – Trna

4. Mention the function of RNA polymerase I, II & III.

Ans: RNA polymerase I - Transcribe rRNA
RNA polymerase II - Transcribe precursor of mRNA
RNA polymerase III - Transcription of tRNA, 5srRNA & snRNAs
5. What are the goals of HGP?
Ans: Mention a Identify genes in human DNA
Determine the sequence of human DNA
Store information in databases.
Improve data analysis

6. Mention any three level of regulation of gene expression.

Ans: Transcriptional level
Splicing level.
Translational level

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Explain the structure of Watson & Crick model structure of DNA

Ans: In 1953 James Watson and Francis Crick, based on the X-ray diffraction data
produced by Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin, proposed a very simple but
famous Double helix model for the structure of DNA.
• The backbone of DNA strand composed of repeated units of sugar and
phosphate molecules.
• The pairing of nitrogen bases are always between a specific purins and
specific pyrimidines that is between A and T, G and C and vice versa. This type of
base pairing is called complementary base pairing.
• Due to complementary base pairing the amount of purines and pyrimidines in
DNA are equal. The ratios between Adenine and Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine
are constant and equals to one (That is amount of A=T, and G=C) this is called
• Chargaff’s rule of base equivalence.

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• The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond (H – bonds) forming
base pairs (bp). There are two hydrogen bonds between A and T, three hydrogen
bonds between G and C.
• The two chains are coiled in a right –handed fashion.
• The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm or 34 Å & there are roughly 10 bp in each turn.
• Double stranded DNA molecule has a diameter of 20Å and distance between two
successive base pairs is 0.34nm (3.4 Å).
• The plane of one base pairs stacks over the other in double helix. This in addition
to H – bonds, confers stability of the helical structures.

2. Explain Griffith transforming principle to search for genetic material.

Ans: Frederick Griffith showed transformation in the bacterium Diplococcus
• pneumoniae which cause pneumonia disease in mammals.
• This bacterium (Diplococcus pneumonia) is found in two forms or strains as
• Smooth Strain (S) and Rough strain (R). The S strains are with mucous
(polysaccharide) coat and pathogenic hence called Virulent Strains. The R Strains
are without mucous coat and non-pathogenic called a virulent strains.
• Griffith showed that injections of S-strains into mice produce Pneumonia
disease.
• But an injection of R-strains does not produce the disease. The heat killed S-
strains does not produce the disease. But the mixture of live R-strains and heat
killed S-strains produce the disease in mice. Griffith recovered S-strains of
bacteria from the dead mice.
S strain ——-> Inject into mice ——> Mice die
R strain ——–> Inject into mice ——-> Mice live
Heat killed-S strain ——-> Inject into mice ——> Mice live
S strain (heat killed) + R strain (live) ——–>
Inject into mice ——-> Mice die
Griffith concluded that some transforming principle transferred from the heat
killed S-strains to produce mucous coat in R-strains and they become virulent.
The transforming principle is genetic material, But he fail to define biochemical
nature of it through his experiments.

3. With labeled diagram explain packaging of DNA helix.

Ans: The human DNA in a cell contains 6.6 × 109 base pairs and its length is about
2.2meters (6.6× 109x0.34x109m/bp). It is greater than the dimension of the
nucleus (106). The long polymer DNA is present in highly folded or packed form in
the nucleus. In prokaryotes the negatively charged DNA held with some positively
charged proteins

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in a region called nucleoid. Thus DNA forms large loops held by proteins
inprokaryotes.In eukaryotes
• A positively charged protein called histones held with DNA.
• Histones contain amino acids lysine and arginines residues that carry
positive charges in their side chains.
• Eight histones molecules are organized to form a structure called histone
octomer.
• The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged
histone octomer to form a complex called nucleosome.
• A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix.
• Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus
calledchromatin. The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen as ‘ beads –on –string’
The chromatin fibers are further coiled and condensed at metaphase stage of cell
division to form chromosomes.
• The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires additional set of
proteins called Non-histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins. In a typical nucleus,
some regions of chromatin are loosely packed and lightly stained called
euchromatin. The highly coiled and darkly stained regions of chromatin are called
heterochromatin. Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally active chromatin,
whereas heterochromatin is inactive.

4. Explain the process of transcription

Ans: Transcription
● Transcription is the process of formation of RNA molecules from the DNA.
● During transcription, only a segment of DNA from only one of the strands
participates.
• Both strands are not copied during transcription because:
• If both strands get transcribed at the same time since the sequences of
amino acid would be different in both (due to complementarity), then two RNA
molecules with different sequences will be formed, which in turn give rise to two
different proteins. Therefore, one DNA would end up giving rise to two different
proteins.
• Two RNA molecules so formed will be complementary to each other, hence would
end up forming a double-stranded RNA leaving the entire process of transcription
futile
Transcriptional Unit
● A transcriptional unit has primarily three regions:
• Promoter − Marks the beginning of transcription; RNA polymerase binds here
• Structural gene − Part of the DNA that is actually transcribed
• Terminator − Marks the end of transcription

Template Strand and Coding Strand

● Enzyme involved in transcription, RNA polymerase (DNA dependent RNA
polymerase), catalyses in only one direction i.e., 5′ to 3′.
● Therefore, the strand with polarity 3′ → 5′ acts as a template (Template
Strand).
● The strand with polarity 5′ → 3′ acts as coding strand (which is a misnomer
since it does not code for anything). Coding strand has sequence similar to RNA
formed after transcription except for the change that thymine is present instead of

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uracil.

5. Explain any 5 salient feature of genetic code.

Ans: Genetic code is triplet in nature: The sequence of three nucleotides or nitrogen
bases codes for one amino acid. Ex: AAA, UAC, AAU, etc.
• Genetic code is universal: A particular codon codes for the same amino
acid in all organisms from bacteria to higher plants and animals. Ex: AUG codes
for Methionine, UUU codes for phenylalanine. (some exceptions in
mitochondrial and protozoan codons)
• Genetic code is non-overlapping: The nitrogen bases are read
continuously in groups of three without sharing or overlapping.
• Genetic code is degenerate: Most of the amino acids are coded by more
than one codon, such codons are called degenerate or synonymous Codons and
the phenomenon is called degeneracy. Ex: Alanine is coded by GCA, GCC, GCU
and GCG.
• Genetic code is comma less: The codons are read continuously from one
end to other without any break or punctuation marks between the codons.
• Genetic code is non-ambiguous or specific: A particular codon always codes for
the same amino acid without any mistake this characteristic is called
nonambiguity.
• Genetic code has an initiator codon: The protein synthesis starts or initiates by
a particular codon called initiator codon. Ex: AUG present near the 5' end of the
m- RNA act as initiator codon in most of the organisms which codes for
methionine. Therefore methionine is the first amino acid in most of the proteins.
Rarely GUG act as initiator codon in some bacteria which codes for formyl-
methionine.
• Genetic code has non-sense or terminator codons: The codons which do not
code for any amino acid and signal the termination of protein synthesis are called
non-sense codons. Ex: UAA, UAG and UGA.
• Principle of co linearity: The linear order of the nitrogen bases in DNA
determines the linear order of m-RNA codons. This in turn determines the linear
order of amino acids in a polypeptide. This principle is called co linearity

6. Explain the process of translation

Ans: Translation refers to the process of polymerization of amino acids to form a
polypeptide.The order and sequence of aminoacids are defined by the sequence of
bases in the mRNA.
• The amino acids are joined by a bond which is known as a peptide bond.
Formation of a peptide bond requires energy.
Therefore, in the first phase itself amino acids are activated in the presence of
ATP and linked to their cognate tRNA–
• A process commonly called as charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of t-RNA
to be more specific. If two such charged tRNAs are brought close enough, the
formation of peptide bond.

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• The presence of a catalyst would enhance the rate of peptide bond

formation. The cellular factory responsible for synthesizing proteins is the
ribosome.
• The ribosome consists of structural RNAs and about 80 different proteins.
• Ribosome exists as two subunits; a large subunit and a small subunit.
• When the small subunit encounters an mRNA, the process of translation of
the mRNA to protein begins. For initiation, the ribosome binds to the mRNA at the
start codon (AUG) that is recognized only by the initiator tRNA.
• There are two sites in the large subunit, for subsequent amino acids to bind
to and thus, be close enough to each other for the formation of a peptide bond.
The ribosome also acts as a catalyst (23S rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme-
ribozyme) for the formation of peptide bond. The ribosome moves from codon to
codon along the mRNA. Amino acids are added one by one.
• At the end, a release factor binds to the stop codon, terminating translation
and releasing the complete polypeptide from the ribosome.
• An mRNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated and are
referred as untranslated regions (UTR). The UTRs are present at both 5' –end
(before start codon) and at 3'-end (after stop codon). They are required for efficient

7. Mention the salient feature of HGP.

Ans: It contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases
• The average gene consist of 3000 bases (largest human gene dystrophin contains
2.4 million bases)
• Human genome consists of about 30,000 genes. ( 99.9% of nucleotide bases are
same in all people)
• The function of over 50% discovered genes are unknown.
• Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins
• Large portion of human genome contains repetitive sequences.
• The repetitive DNA sequences are repeated hundred or thousand times not having
any coding function. They shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics and
evolution.

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• Chromosome -1 has most genes (2968) and Y has fewest genes (231)
• Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single base DNA
differences (SNP-single nucleotide polymorphism) occur in humans. (This helps to
find chromosomal locations for diseases and tracing human history).
Applications of HGP:
• Helps in identifying genes associated with various diseases.
• Helpful for modern medical practice (production of antiviral proteins and
pharmaceuticals)
• Knowledge can be used to study mechanism of drug action that leads to
faster clinical trials.
• This knowledge can be used for the development of gene therapies.

CHAPTER- 7
EVOLUTION

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. What is evolution
Ans: It is the origin of group of organisms from their ancestral form

2. What is panspermia
Ans: Spore like structure which might have migrated from other planet to planet earth

3. What is divergent evolution

Ans: Development of same structure along different directions due to adaptations to
different needs

4. What is convergent evolution?

Ans: Different structures evolving for the same function but different in internal
organization

5. What are homologous organs?

Ans: Homologous organs are those organs which are similar in basic structure and
embryonic development but perform different functions Eg- bones of forelimbs of
whales, bat birds and human beings

6. What are analogous organs?

Ans: The pair of organs is not anatomically similar but performs the same function .Eg
–the wings of butterflies and birds

7. What is adaptive radiation?

Ans: This process of evolution starting from a single point and radiating in different
directions is called adapative radiation

8. What is saltation ?
Ans: Single large mutation believed to be the major cause of evolution is called saltation

9. State Hardy Weinberg law?

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Ans: The frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene in a population remains constant

through generations unless disturbances such as mutations, non random mating
etc are introduced

10. What is genepool ?

Ans: Total genes and their alleles in a population is called gene pool

11. What is founder effect?

Ans: Due to genetic drift new species arise population which has undergone drift giving
rise to new population is called as founder effect.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Bring out the differences between Darwin’s theory and Hugo devries theory.

2.
Darwin’s theory of natural Hugo de Vries theory of mutation
selection
1. Evolution is a gradual process. 1.Evolution is due to large sudden
differences in genetical process
called mutation.
2. Darwanian variations are small 2. mutations are sudden and
and directional directionless.
Write a note on Java man
Ans:
• Homo erectus fossils of Java were called Java man.
• It was a connecting link between ape and man.
• They used their own made crude stone tools.
• The chin was absent, bony eyebrow ridge was present.
• They were about five feet and walked erect.
•
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Write a note on Big Bang theory.
Ans: The big bang theory attempts to explain to us the origin of universe. It explains
about a huge explosion unimaginable in physical terms. The universe expanded
and hence, the temperature came down. Hydrogen and Helium formed sometimes

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later, these gases condensed under gravitation and formed the galaxies of the
present day universe.
2. Write a note on Hugo de Vries theory of mutation as an example for
mechanism of evolution.
Ans: Hugo de Vries stated that a single large mutation is believed to be the major cause
of evolution is called saltation.
This is based on his work on evening primrose which brought forth the idea of
mutation.
Mutation caused large differences arising suddenly in a population.
According to him it is mutation which causes evolution and not the minor
variations.
Mutations are random and directionless.
Mutations may be beneficial or lethal. Mutations may be continuous or
discontinuous.
3. Explain Lamarck’s theory of evolution.
Ans: French Naturalist Lamarck proposed that evolution of life forms occurs due to use
and disuse of organs.
He explained this theory using giraffes as an example. He claimed that giraffes
formed long necks in an attempt to forage leaves on tall trees. Therefore, this
character was acquired based on a need to adapt and survive
This acquired character was passed to succeeding generations. Giraffes, therefore,
came to develop long necks slowly over the course of many years.
4. Explain the operation of natural selection on different trait
Ans:. Natural selection can lead to:
Stabilization: In which more individuals acquire mean character value.
Directional changes: Occurs when more individuals acquire value other than the
mean character value.
Disruption: more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends of
the distribution curve.

5. Explain evolution by Anthropogenic action.

Ans: Evolution by anthropogenic action:

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• Excess use of herbicides, pesticides etc., has resulted in selection of the

resistant varieties in a much lesser time scale.
• This has also been observed for microbes against which we use antibiotics
or drugs.
• Hence resistance in organisms/cells are now appearing in a time scale of
months or years and not in centuries.
• These are the examples of evolution by anthropogenic action.
• Evolution is a stochastic process. This is because it is based on random and
chance events in nature and chance mutation in the organisms.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

1. Write a note on millers experiment
Ans: Primitive atmosphere had high temperature, volcanic storms, and reducing
atmosphere, containing CH4, NH3, H2, etc.

Urey and Miller took the same compounds in a closed flask along with water
vapour at 800ºC and created an electric discharge.
Formation of biomolecules such as amino acids, simple sugars, fats, etc. was
observed in the flask.

2. Write a note on evidences of evolution

Ans:

● Fossils − They represent plants and animals that lived millions of years ago
and are now extinct. Different aged rock sediments contain fossils of different life-
forms, which probably died during the formation of the particular sediment.

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● Comparative anatomy and morphology − It shows evidences of the

similarities and differences between living forms of today and that of the
prehistoric times. Some of the examples of comparative anatomy and morphology
are:
● Homologous organs − All mammals share the same pattern of forelimbs.
Though they perform different functions, they are anatomically similar. This is
called divergent evolution and the structures are called homologous structures
(common ancestors).
● Analogous organs − The pair of organs is not anatomically similar, but
performs the same function (e.g., the wings of butterflies and birds). This is called
convergent evolution.
● Adaptive melanism − In England, it was noted that before industrial
revolution, the number of white-winged moths was more than that of dark
melanised moth. However, after industrialisation, there were more of dark
melanised moths. The explanation was that after industrialization, the tree trunks
became darker with deposits of soot and smoke and hence, the number of dark
moths increased in order to protect themselves from predators while the white-
winged ones were easily picked up by the predators.
● Similarly, the herbicide and pesticide resistant plants and animals and
antibiotic resistant bacteria are some of the evidences that point towards
evolution.
3. Write a note on adaptive radiation
Ans: Adaptive Radiation
During his exploration of the Galapagos Islands, Darwin noticed that there were
many varieties of finches in the same island.
They varied from normal seed eating varieties to those that ate insects.
This process of evolution starting from a single point and radiating in different
directions is called adaptive radiation.
The other example for this is the evolution of the Australian marsupials from a
single ancestor. Placental mammals also exhibit similarities to their corresponding
marsupial. Example: placental wolf and the Tasmanian wolf

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When more than one adaptive radiation occurs in an isolated geographical area,
the phenomenon is called convergent evolution

4. Write a note on biological evolution and mechanism of evolution

Ans:
● According to Darwin, evolution took place by natural selection.
● The number of life forms depends upon their ability to multiply and their life
span.
● Another aspect of natural selection is the survival of the fittest, where
nature selects the individuals, which are most fit, to adapt to their environment.
● Branching descent and natural selection are the two important concepts
of Darwin’s theory of evolution.
● The French naturalist Lamarck observed that evolution occurs due to the
use or disuse of particular organs or body parts. For example, giraffe have
developed long necks as a result of attempts to eat leaves high up on trees.
● Darwin also observed that variations are inheritable and the species fit to
survive the most, leaves more offsprings. Hence, the population’s characteristics
change, giving rise to the evolution of new life forms.

Mechanism of Evolution
● Darwin did not quite explain how evolution gave rise to different species of
the same organism.
● Mendel mentioned about inheritable factors, which influenced the
phenotype of an organism.
● Hugo de Vries based on his work on evening primrose suggested that
variations occurred due to mutations.

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● Mutations are random and directionless while the variations that Darwin
talked about were small and directional. Hugo de Vries gave the name saltation
(single step large mutation) to the mutations which brought about speciation.
5. Write a note on Hardy-Weinberg Principle
Ans:
● The frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene in a population remains
constant through generations unless disturbances such as mutations, non-
random mating, etc. are introduced.
● Genetic equilibrium (gene pool remains constant) is a state which provides a
baseline to measure genetic change.
● Sum total of all allelic frequencies is 1.
● Individual frequencies are represented as p and q such as in a diploid,
where p and q represent the frequency of allele A and a.

The frequency of AA is p2, that of aa is q2, and that of Aa is 2pq.

● Hence, p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, which is the expansion of (p + q)2.
● When the frequency measured is different from that expected, it is indicative
of evolutionary change.
● Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is affected by
● gene flow or gene migration
● genetic drift (changes occurring by chance)
● mutation
● genetic recombination
● natural selection
● Sometimes, the change sample of population that they become a different
species and the original drifted population becomes the founder. This effect is
called founder effect.
The advantageous mutations that help in natural selection over the generations
give rise to new phenotypes and result in speciation change in allele frequency
is so prominent in the new phenotypes and result in speciation
6. Write a note on origin and evolution of a man
Ans:
o About 15 mya primates such as Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus existed.
They appeared to be similar to gorillas and chimpanzees in t heir
appearance and walking.

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• Ramapithecus was more similar to man whereas Dryopithecus was more

similar to apes.
• Few fossils of bones that resemble human bones have been discovered in
Ethiopia and Tanzania.
• Two mya Australopithecines existed. They most likely lived in East African
islands
• They used stone weapons for hunting.
• Essentially had a fruit-based diet.
• The first human-like organism was the hominid and was called Homo
habilis.
• Brain capacity was 650 – 800 cc.
• They also survived on plant-based diet and did not eat meat.
• Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 seemed to be of the next stage i.e. Homo
erectus. They evolved about 1.5 mya.
• Had large brain with capacity around 900 cc.
• Probably ate meat.
Neanderthal man:
• Brain size was around 1400 cc.
• Lived in east and central Asia between 1, 00,000-40,000 years back.
• They developed use of animal hides to protect their body.
• Buried their dead.
Homo sapiens:
• Arose in Africa and migrated across continents and developed distinct
races.
• During ice age 75,000-10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose.
• Pre historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago.
• Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlement started.
7. Write a note on animal’s evolution
Ans:

• Animals evolved about 500 million years ago. The first of them to evolve were
invertebrates.
• Jawless fishes evolved around 350 million years ago.
• Some of the fishes could go on land, and then come back to water. These
were the first amphibians. In 1938, a fish Coelacanth, which was thought to

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be extinct, was caught in South Africa. This variety of fish, called lobefins, is
believed to have evolved into the first amphibians.
• Amphibians evolved into reptiles. In the next 200 million years, reptiles of
different sizes dominated the earth. However, about 65 million years ago,
some of them such as dinosaurs disappeared.
• The first among the mammals were small shrew-like mammals.
During continental drift when North America joined South America,
primitive mammals suffered, but pouched mammals of Australia survived
the same drift because of lack of competition from other mammals.

8. Write a note on evolution of Plants

Ans:
● Cellular life forms occurred on earth about 2000 million years ago.
● Some of these cells had the ability to produce oxygen through reactions
similar to photosynthesis.
● Slowly, single-celled organisms became multicellular.
● Seaweeds and some plants probably existed around 320 million years ago.

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CHAPTER-8
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASES
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Who disproved the ‘good humor’ hypothesis of health?
Ans: William Harvey
2. Define health.
Ans: A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being is called health.
3. What is a pathogen?
Ans: A disease causing organism is called pathogen.
4. Name the confirmation test for typhoid disease.
Ans: Widal test
5. Name the antibody secreted through colostrum.
Ans: IgA
6. What are genetic disorders?
Ans: Disorders due to defective genetic material transferred from parents to offsprings.
7. What is vaccine?
Ans: A suspension of killed or attenuated pathogen or an antigenic preparation of
pathogen that provide sartificial active immunity.
8. Define allergy.
Ans: The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called allergy.
.9. Name the type of antibody responsible for allergy.
IgE (Present only in Mammals)

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10. Name the diagnostic test widely used for the detection of AIDS.
Ans: ELISA (Enzyme linked immuno sorbent assay) – preliminary test. Western
Blotting – confirmatory test.
11. What is cancer?
Ans: condition with uncontrolled cell division resulting in abnormal growth or excess
tissue is called cancer.

12. What is metastasis?

Ans: Spreading of tumour cells to different parts of the body through circulatory system
or blood is called metastasis.
13. What is drug abuse?
Ans: Drugs are taken for other than medical use or in amounts or frequency that
impairs one’s physical,physiological or psychological function is called drug abuse.
14. Define alcoholism.
Ans: An addiction to excessive consumption of alcohol is called alcoholism.
15. What is adolescence?
Ans: A “period” and a “process” during which a child becomes mature in terms of his or
her attitudes and beliefs for effective participation in society is called adolescence.
16. Name the plant that gives cocaine.
Ans: Erythroxylum coca
17. What is addiction?
Ans: Psychological attachment to certain effects associated with drugs and alcohol is
called addiction
18. What is an interferon?
Ans: Antiviral protein produced from virus infected cells is called interferon.
19. What is contact inhibition?
Ans: Normal cells by contact with neighbouring cells inhibit or control their growth
process called contact inhibition.
TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:
1. Mention any four factors helpful to maintain good health.
Ans:
• Balanced diet.
• Personal hygiene and regular exercise
• Vaccination against infectious diseases
• Proper disposal of wastes.

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• Controlling vectors.
• Life style including food and water we take, rest and exercise we give to
our body, habits we have or lack, etc.

2. What is disease? Mention two broad groups of diseases.

Ans: The state where functioning of one or more organs or organ systems or the body is
adversely affected,characterised by various signs and symptoms is called disease.
Groups: 1. Infectious diseases 2. Non-infectious diseases

3. What is infectious disease? Give an example.

Ans: Diseases which are easily transmitted from one person to another are called
infectious diseases.
Ex: AIDS, Tuberculosis, influenza, etc.

4. What is non-infectious disease? Give an example.

Ans: Diseases which are confined to a person and do not spread to others are called
non infectious diseases. Ex: Cancer.

5. Define immunity. Mention two type of immunity.

Ans: The overall ability of the host to fight against disease causing organisms or agents
is called immunity.
Two types are
1. Innate immunity and
2. Acquired immunity.

6. Mention four types of innate immunity barriers with an example each.

Ans: 1. Physical barriers: Skin, Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the
respiratory, gastrointestinal and uro-genital tracts.
2. Physiological barriers: HCl in stomach, Saliva in mouth (Lysozyme), tears,
sweat , Oil (sebaceous glands), etc.
3. Cellular barriers: Leukocytes like Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-
Neutrophils),monocytes, natural killer cells (lymphocytes), etc.
4. Cytokine barriers: Interferon’s.

7. What are allergens? Give two examples.

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Ans: The substances that cause allergy are allergens. OR the substances to which
allergic immune responses are produced are called allergens. Ex: Pollen grains,
mites, dust, animal dander, etc.

8. Name any two drugs used to reduce symptoms of allergy.

Ans: Anti-histamines and steroids.

9. Name two allergic chemicals released from mast cells.

Ans: Histamine and serotonin.

10. What is auto immune disease? Give an example.

Ans: The misdirected immune response of the body against the healthy self cells is
called auto immune disease.Ex: Rheumatoid arthritis

11. What is cell mediated and antibody mediated immunity.

Ans: Cell mediated immunity Antibody mediated immunity (Humoral)
the immunity produced by T-lymphocytes iscalled cell mediated immunity
1. The immunity produced by antibodies in the body fluid or humor derived from
B-lymphocytesis called antibody mediated immunity.
. It reacts against transplants
2. It does not react against transplants

12. What is tumour? Mention two types of tumours.

Ans: The extra mass of tissues produced due to cancer is called tumour.
1. Benign tumours (remain at their original location and do not spread to other
parts of the body)
2. Malignant tumours (the tumour cells which damage, invade or migrate to
surrounding tissues)
13. Write a note on different approaches of cancer treatment.
Ans: Following are the common treatment approaches of cancer
1. Surgery
2. Radiation therapy (tumour cells are irradiated lethally by taking proper care of
surroundingnormal tissue).

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3. Immunotherapy (patients are given substances called biological response

modifiers such as-interferon which activates their immune system and helps in
destroying the tumour).
4. Chemotherapy (drugs used to kill certain tumour cells, mostly cause side
effects like anaemia, hair loss, etc.) Ex: Vincristin & Vinblastin from Vinca
rosea, Taxol, etc.
5. Gene therapy (transformation of certain cells to produce anti tumour
calledTumour necrosis factor-TNF)
Most cancers are treated by combination of surgery, radiotherapy and
chemotherapy.
14. What are opioids? Give an example.
Ans: Drugs bind to specific opioids receptors present in our nervous system and gastro-
intestinal tract,extracted from Papaver somniferum (Opium) plant are called
opioids.
Ex: Opium, Morphine, Heroine, etc
15. What are cannabinoids? Give an example.
Ans: The group of chemicals interacts with cannabinoid receptors in the brain,
extracted from Cannabissativa (Indian hemp) plant are called cannabinoids.
Ex: Marijuana, hashish, Charas, ganja, etc.
16. List the causes of drug abuse in adolescence.
Ans: a) Curiosity b) need for adventure and excitement
c) Experimentation d) Peer pressure from friends
e) Unstable or unsupportive family structures

17. Why sports persons often fall victims to drug addiction?

Ans: Sportspersons misuse narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics and certain
hormones. Drugsare used to increase muscle strength, to promote
aggressiveness and to increase overallathletic performance.
18. Mention the withdrawal symptoms of drug addicts.
Ans: If the regular dose of drugs or alcohol is suddenly discontinued, it leads some
withdrawal symptoms like anxiety,shakiness,nausea,sweating,muscle
cramps,abdominal pain,vomiting, etc.
19. Mention the measures practiced to prevent drug and alcohol by adolescent.
Ans:

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• Avoiding undue peer pressure in studies, sports and other activities.

• Educating and counselling the child to face problems, stress,
disappointments and failures asa part of life. Promoting healthy habits like
sports, reading, music, yoga, etc.· Seeking the help of parents, peers and
friends to solve their problems.
• Alert parents, teachers and friends should identify the danger signs of drug
abuse. This would help in initiating proper remedial steps or treatment.
• Seeking professional and medical help from qualified persons for de-
addiction and rehabilitation programmes.
20. Using tobacco in any form is injurious to health. Give reasons?
Ans: Tobacco is smoked, chewed or used as snuff. It contains large number of toxic
chemicals including nicotine. Use of tobacco causes following health problems:
Cancer of lung, urinary bladder and throat.
• Bronchitis
• Emphysema
• Heart diseases
• Gastric ulcer
• Increases BP and rate of heart beat.
• Carbon monoxide content in blood reduces the concentration of haem-bound
oxygen leads oxygen deficiency in the body.
21. From which plant opium is obtained? Name any two derivatives of opium
Ans: Opium is extracted from Papaver somniferum. The two derivatives of opium are
Morphine and Heroin.
22. Differentiate a cancer cell from a normal cell.
Ans: Cancer cell Normal cell
1. Exhibit immortality 1. Do not exhibit immortality
2. Undifferentiated cells 2. Cells undergo differentiation
3. Lead parasitic life on other
normal cells 3. They are not parasitic cells
4. Divide without control 4. Division is controlled phenomenon

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Write the pathogen/causative organism, mode of infection and symptoms of
typhoid/Pneumonia/ common cold / ascariasis / Filariasis / ringworms /
amoebiasis / malaria

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Ans: A) Typhoid (enteric fever):-

Causative organism/pathogen: Salmonella typhi (bacterium)
of infection: Enter the small intestine through contaminated food and water and
migrateto other organs through blood.
Symptoms:-
1. High fever (39° to 40°C or 104°F) 2. Weakness
3. Stomach pain 4. Constipation
5. Headache and 6. Loss of appetite
7. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases.
Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test. (Mary Mallon known as Typhoid
Mary, was a cook by profession and a typhoid carrier, who continued to spread
typhoid for several years through the food she prepared.)

Preventive measures:-
1. Providing proper community sanitation
2. Supplying screened pure drinking water
3. Providing hygienic food free from flies
4. Taking typhoid vaccine
5. Treating with antibiotics
B) Pneumonia:-
Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae, Diplococcus pneumoniae and
Haemophilus influenzaecause disease pneumonia in humans. [There are
different types of pneumonia according to causativeorganism such as bacterial
pneumonia, viral pneumonia (Adeno virus), amoebic pneumonia (Entamoeba
histolytica), etc.]
Mode of infection: occurs through sputum (Phlegm) of patient. Enter the lungs
by inhaling contaminated air or aerosols or droplets.
Symptoms:-
1. Alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in respiration.
2. Fever & chills
3. Cough and headache
4. In severe cases, the lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour.
C) Common cold:
The most common infectious human disease
organism/pathogen: Rhino viruses.

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of infection: cough or sneezes of infected persons through inhalation. It may be

also transmitted through contaminated objects like books, pens, cups,
doorknobs, computer mouse & keyboard, etc. (They infect the nose and
respiratory passage but not the lungs.)
Symptoms:
1. Nasal congestion and discharge
2. Sore throat, hoarseness & cough
3. Headache,
4. Tiredness, etc., which usually last for 3-7 days.
D) Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery):-
Causative organism: Entamoeba histolytica. (Protozoa) That inhabits in the
large intestine of human beings.
Mode of infection: The infection occurs by house flies through faecal
contaminated food and water.
Symptoms:-
1. Constipation
2. Abdominal pain and cramps
3. Stools with excess mucous and blood clots
It can be controlled by hygienic condition, preventing the contamination of water,
food, fruits,vegetables, etc.
E) Ascariasis:-
Causative pathogen: Ascaris lumbricoides. (Ascaris is an intestinal parasite)
Mode of infection: contaminated water, vegetables, fruits, etc.
Symptoms:
1.Internal bleeding
2.Muscular pain,
3.Fever,
4. Anaemia
5.Blockage of the intestinal passage.
The eggs (about 15000/day) of the parasite are excreted along with the faeces of
infected persons which contaminate soil, water, plants, etc.
F)Filariasis (Elephantiasis):-
Causative pathogen: Wuchereria bancrofti and W. malayi.
Mode of infection: The pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person through
the bite by the female mosquito vectors (Culex and Aedes species).

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Symptoms:
1. Head ache
2. Mental depression
3. Fever (in mild cases).
4. Inflammation of the organs in which they live for many years.
5. The blockage of lymphatic vessels resulting in gross enlargement of lower limbs
called elephantiasis or Filariasis.
6. The genital organs are also often affected leads to deformation.
G) Ring worm (Tinea):-
The ring shaped or circular scaly patches of the skin by the infection of some fungi
is called ringworm (tinea). It is one of the most common infectious diseases in
man.
Causative pathogen: The common fungal genera that produce ring worm are
Microsporum,Trichophyton and Epidermophyton.
Mode of infection: Ringworms are generally acquired from contact with soil or by
using towels,clothes or even the comb of infected individuals
Symptoms:-
1. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as face
and neck (tinea barbae/barber’s itch), foot (tinea pedis or athletes foot),
groin (tinea cruis) scalp (tinea capitis) and nails.
2. These lesions are accompanied by intense itching.
3. Heat and moisture helps to thrive in skin folds such as those in the groin or
between the toes.
H) Malaria:-
Causative pathogen: a protozoan parasite Plasmodium
are four species of plasmodium such as Plasmodium vivax, P. malaria, P.
falciparum and P.ovale are responsible for different types of malaria. Of these,
most serious and fatal malignant malariacaused by Plasmodium falciparum.
Mode of infection: bite of vector - Female Anopheles mosquitoes.
Symptoms: -
1. Loss of appetite and nausea
2. Head ache
3. Muscular pain and joint pain
4. Chill and high fever
5. Alternate high and low body temperature

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6. Weakness and anaemia

7. Enlargement of liver and spleen
2. What is acquired immunity? Differentiate primary and secondary immune
responses.
Ans:
• The ability of the body to resist any specific living or non-living agent that
can cause disease is calledspecific body defence. It is acquired by an
individual after the birth & it forms the third line of body defence.
• The response produced by the body when it encounters a pathogen for the
first time is called primaryresponse.
• The response of the body against the same pathogen during subsequent
encounter is called secondary or anamnestic response. The secondary
response is highly intensified and faster as our body has memory of the
first encounter.
3. Write a note on mode of infection and prevention of AIDS.
Mode of HIV infection:
Ans: (a) Sexual contact with infected person
(b) By transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products
(c) By sharing infected needles as in the case of intravenous drug abusers
(d) From infected mother to her child through placenta.
Prevention of AIDS:
• Making transfusing blood (from blood banks) safe from HIV
• ensuring the use of only disposable needles and syringes in public and private
hospitals and clinics
• Free distribution of condoms & advocating safe sex
• ·Controlling drug abuse, and promoting regular check-ups for HIV in susceptible
populations

4. Write a note on cancer detection and diagnosis.

Ans: The early detection of cancer by following diagnostic methods is essential for
successful treatment. biopsy and histo-pathological studies of tissues · Blood
and bone marrow test helpful to identify increased cell counts in case of
leukemia.

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• Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT (Computed tomography) and

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) scanning are used to detect cancers of
internal organs.
CT uses X-rays to generate a three dimensional image of the internal structure.
MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non–ionizing radiations to accurately detect
pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue.
• Antibodies against specific cancer antigens are also used for the detection of
certain cancers. Some techniques of molecular biology can be applied to detect
genes in individuals with inherited susceptibility to certain cancers. Ex: tobacco
smoke in case of lung cancer.
5. What are carcinogens? Mention any two types of carcinogens.
Ans: The agents causing cancer are called carcinogens. There are three groups of
carcinogens as physical, chemical and biological carcinogens.
• Physical carcinogens: - Ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays and non-
ionizing radiations like UV radiations.
• Chemical carcinogens: - Tobacco smoke, industrial chemicals like vinylc
chloride, arsenic, nickel compounds, Azo dyes, etc.
• Biological carcinogens:- The viruses causing cancer called oncogenic viruses
with oncogenes.
Ex:- Rous sarcoma viruses(RSV) cause fowl cance Human Papilloma virus(HPV)
cause cervical cancer, etc. Cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto oncogenes have
been identified in normal cells, activated under certain conditions leads to
oncogenic transformation of the cells.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. Describe the structure of antibody with neat labelled diagram.
Structure of antibody (Immunoglobulin or Ig):
Ans: Each antibody molecule is “Y” shaped with four peptide chains, two small chains
called light chains and two longer called heavy chains. Hence, antibody is
represented as H2L2.
The peptide chains are held together bydisulphide bonds. Each peptide chain
consists of one constant region (C) and one variable region(V). There are two
antigen binding sites or prongs in each antibody.

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There are five different types of antibodies as IgA, IgD, IgM, IgE and IgG (most
abundant antibody that can pass through placenta). These antibodies are
responsible for humoral immune response.

2. Describe replication of HIV or retrovirus with schematic/diagrammatic

representation. Multiplication or replication of retrovirus (HIV)
Ans: After entering into the body of the person, the virus enters into macrophages,
where RNA genome of the virus replicates to form viral DNA with the help of the
enzyme reverse transcriptase.This viral DNA gets incorporated into host cell’s
DNA and directs the infected cells to produce virus particles. The macrophages
continue to produce virus and in this way acts like a HIV factory.
Simultaneously, HIV enters into helper T-lymphocytes (TH), replicates and
produce progeny viruses. The progeny viruses released in the blood attack other
helper T-lymphocytes. Leading to a progressive decrease in the number of helper
T-lymphocytes in the body of the infected person.
• During this period, the person suffers from bouts of fever, diarrhea and weight
loss.The person starts suffering from infectious diseases by bacteria especially
Mycobacterium orviruses, fungi and even parasites likeToxoplasma.
• The patient becomes so immuno-deficient that he is unable to protect himself
against these infections.
• Widely used diagnostic tests for AIDS are enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay
(ELISA) orWestern Blotting. Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs is only

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partially effective. They can only prolong the life of the patient but cannot prevent
death, which is inevitable.

CHAPTER 9

STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD

PRODUCTION

ONE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is animal husbandry?

Ans: Animal husbandry is the agricultural practice of breeding and raising livestock
like cows, buffaloes, pigs, horses, sheep, camels, goats etc., that are useful to
mankind.

2. What is dairy farm management?

Ans: Dairying is the management of animals for milk and its products for human
consumption.

3. Name an improved breed of cow.

Ans: Jersy.

4. What is poultry?
Ans: Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl (birds) used for food and
eggs.

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5. Name an improved breed of poultry bird.

Ans: Leghorn

6. What is a breed?
Ans: Breed is group of animals related by descent and similar in most characters like
general appearance, features size, configuration, etc.

7. What is inbreeding?
Ans: It is a cross made between same breed.
OR
It is a mating between closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6
generations
.
8. What is out breeding?
Ans: It is the breeding of the unrelated animals which may be between individuals of
the same breed but having no common ancestors for 4-6 generations or between
different breeds or different species.

9. What is out-crossing?
Ans: Mating of animals within the same breed but having no common ancestor on
either side of their pedigree upto 4-6 generations.

10. What is cross-breeding?

Ans: Superior male of one breed is mated with superior female of another breed.

11. What is inbreeding depression?

Ans: Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and productivity is called inbreeding
depression.

12. Name a breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing

Bikaneri ewes and Marinorams.
Ans: Hisardale.

13. What is interspecific hybridisation?

Ans: It is the cross between two different species.

14. Name an animal which is the progeny of interspecific

hybridisation Between donkey and horse.
Ans: Mule.

15. What is artificial insemination?

Ans: reproductive tract of The semen collected from the selected male is
injected into the selected female.

16. What is plant breeding?

Ans: Plant breeding is the purposeful manipulation of plant species in order to create
desired plant types that are better suited for cultivation, give better yields and are
disease resistant.

17. How is a mule produced?

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Ans: The mule is produced by breeding between male donkey and female horse (mare).

18. Name a Nobel Laureate who developed semi dwarf variety of

wheat.
Ans: Norman E.Borlaug.

19. Name an organism that causes black rot of crucifer.

Ans: Bacteria.

20. Define Biofortification.

Ans: Breeding crops which produce higher levels of nutrients like vitamins, minerals,
protein and fats to improve public health.

21. Define single cell protein.

Ans: Production of protein biomass in large scale using micro organisms and growing
them in low cost raw material is called single cell proteins.

22. Name a micro-organism that can produce large amount of

single cell protein.
Ans: Methylophilus methylotophus

23. Give the meaning of the term Totipotency.

Ans: Ability of a plant cell, tissue or organ that can multiply and regenerated into a
new plant is called totipotency.

24. Give the meaning of the term Explant.

Ans: Explant is any parts of plant like cell, tissue or organ grown in a test tube
containing artificial nutrient medium, under sterile condition.

25. Give the meaning of the term Micropropagation.

Ans: The method of production of thousands of plants using explant through tissue
culture technique is called micropropagation.

26. Give the meaning of the term Somaclones.

Ans: Plants obtained by micropropagation using somatic cells and they are genetically
identical.

27. What is somatic hybridisation?

Ans: It is a technique of fusion of protoplasts isolated from two different plants which
have desirable characters to obtain a hybrid a protoplast.

28. Name the chemical used to fuse two protoplasts.

Ans: PEG or Polyethylene glycol.

29. Give an example for a plant which is an outcome of somatic

hybridisation.
Ans: Pomato.

30. What is the economic value of spirulina?

Ans: Spirulina can serve as food rich in proteins, minerals, vitamins, fats and
carbohydrates.

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31. Mention the strategy used to increase homozygosity in cattle

for desired character.
Ans: Inbreeding.

32. Name the Indian variety of rice patented by an American

company.
Ans: Basmati rice.

34. Why is the South Indian sugarcane preferred by

agriculturists?
Ans: South Indian sugarcane has thicker stem and higher sugar
content.

35. Sucrose is necessary in the plant tissue culture nutrient

medium.Give reason.
Ans: As a carbon source.

36. Name a technology that has successfully increased herd size

of cattle in a short time.
Ans: MOET (Multiple Ovulation and Embryo Transfer).

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Name any four poultry birds which are used for food and eggs. Ans: Chicken,
ducks, turkeys, geese

2. Write any four proper poultry farm management.

Ans: a. Selection of disease free and suitable breeds.
b. Proper and safe farm conditions.
c. Proper feed and water.
d. Hygiene and health care.

3. Name two major types of animal breeding experiments.

Ans: a. Inbreeding
b. Out breeding

4. Name the breeds used to develop a new breed of sheep

Hisardale in Punjab.
Ans: Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.

5. Name any two controlled breeding experiments in animals to

improve the quality of progeny.
Ans: a. Artificial insemination (AI)
b. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET)

6. What is blue revolution?

Ans: Increasing production of the fish is called Blue revolution.

7. Write two advantages of artificial insemination.

Ans: a. The semen collected may be used immediately or can be frozen for later use.
b. The semen can be transported in a frozen form to where the female is housed.

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8. Mule is a progeny obtained by interspecific hybridisation. Who Ans: are the

parents of mule?
Male donkey and female horse.

9. Write the four traits for which plant breeding is done.

Ans: a) Increased crop yield
b) Improve quality
c) Increased tolerance to environmental stresses (salinity, extreme
temperature, and drought).
d) Resistant to pathogens ( viruses, fungi, and bacteria)
e) Increase tolerance to insect pest.

10. What is inbreeding? What is the drawback of inbreeding?

Ans: a) Mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed
for 4-6 generations.
b) Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity
(inbreeding depression).

11. Write the reason for inbreeding depression. How, it can be

Ans: overcome?
a) Continuous inbreeding for several generations causes
depression.
b) It can be overcome by out crossing.

12. Name two high yielding wheat varieties introduced in India in

1963.
Ans: Sonalika and Kalyan Sona.

13. Which are the two rice varieties used to develop semi dwarf
rice variety in 1966 in India?
Ans: IR-8 and Taichung Native-1.

14. Name two semi dwarf rice varieties developed in India during
1966.
Ans: Jaya and Ratna

15. Name any two fungal diseases in plants.

Brown rust of wheat, Red rot of sugarcane, Late blight of potato etc.

16. Name any two viral diseases in plants.

Ans: Tobacco mosaic, Turnip mosaic etc.

17. Mention any four improving objectives of biofortification.

Ans: a) Protein content and quality
b) Oil content and quality
c) Vitamin content and
d) Micronutrient and mineral content

18. Name two plants used to obtain pomato.

Ans: Potato and Tomato.

19. Name any two enzymes required to isolate plant protoplasts.

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Ans: Cellulase and pectinase.

20. Mention any two advantages of inbreeding.

Ans: a. It exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
b. It helps in developing a pure line.

21. What is meant by germplasm collection? What are its benefits?

Ans: The collection of all the diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop
plant is called germplasm collection. The breeder selects the most
favourable characters of a particular gene and manipulates its
transfer to a desirable parent.

22. Name the improved characteristics of wheat that helped India

achieve green revolution.
Ans: a) Semi-dwarf nature
b) Quick yielding feature
c) High yielding feature
d) Disease resistance feature

23. Do you know of a man made cereal? Trace how it was developed.
Ans: Triticale is a man made cereal. It was developed by crossing wheat
(Triticum aestivum) and rye (Secale cereale).

24. How are biofortified maize and wheat considered nutritionally

improved?
Ans: Biofortified maize had twice the amount of amino acids, lysine and
tryptophan, compared to existing hybrids and the wheat variety
had increased protein content.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is inbreeding? Write any two advantages of inbreeding.

Ans: Mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6
generations.
Advantages:
a) Mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed
for 4-6 generations.
b) Inbreeding increases homozygosity.
c) Inbreeding is necessary to create pure line in any animal.
d) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive gene that are eliminated by
selection.
e) Helpful in accumulation of superior genes.

2. Give any three examples of plants whose productivity is

improved through biofortification.
Ans: a) Hybrid maize developed with twice the amount of amino
acids lysine and tryptophan, compared with existing maize.
b) Wheat variety Atlas 66, having high protein content has been
used as donor for improving cultivated wheat.
c) Iron fortified rice developed with five times more iron content
than existing variety.

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3. IARI, New Delhi has developed some biofortified plants which

are rich in some nutrients. Name the nutrients and the plant
in which they are derived.
Ans: a) Vitamin A enriched carrots, spinach pumpkin.
b) Vitamin C enriched bitter gourd, bathua mustard tomato.
c) Iron and Calcium enriched spinach and bathua.
d) Protein enriched beans- broad, lablab, French and garden peas.

4. Write three applications of plant tissue culture.

Ans: a) Production of large number of plant from small tissue or single
cell.
b) Production of genetically identical plants (somaclones).
c) Recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants by meristem
culture. Although the plant infected with virus, the meristem is
free of virus.

5. Write the components that are used in the tissue culture

nutrient medium.
Ans: a) Distilled water
b) Inorganic salts
c) Vitamins
d) Amino acids
e) Growth hormones
f) Sucrose
g) Agar

6. Explain the advantage of cross-breeding of the two species of

sugar cane in India.
Ans: Saccharum barberi, grown in north India, had poor sugar content
and yield, whereas Saccharum officinarum, grown in south India,
had thicker stem and higher sugar content.
The sugarcane species obtained after cross breeding between these
two species, had thick stems, high sugar content, high yield and
ability to grow in north India also.

7. Give one example of disease caused each by fungi, bacteria

and viruses in crop plants.
Ans: a) Fungal disease: Red rot of sugarcane, brown rust of wheat
b) Bacterial disease: Citrus canker, black rot of crucifers
c) Viral disease: Tobacco mosaic, Turnip mosaic

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. If your family owned a dairy farm, what measures would you

undertake to improve the quality and quantity of milk

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production?
Ans: a. Well housed.
b. Should have adequate water
c. Maintained disease free cattle and environment.
d. Feeding should be scientific manner with quantity and quality of
fodder.
e. Stringent cleanliness and hygiene.
f. Regular visit by a veterinary doctor would be mandatory.

2. Explain five advantages of inbreeding.

Ans: a. More milk per lactation is the criteria for superior female for cow
and buffalo.
b. Superior male which gives rise to superior progeny.
c. Inbreeding increases homozygosity.
d. Inbreeding is necessary to create pure line in any animal.
e. Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive gene that are eliminated by
selection.
f. Helpful in accumulation of superior genes.

3. Explain the steps involved in MOET.

Ans: a. Cow is administered hormones with FSH-like activity induce
follicular maturation and super ovulation
b. Production of 6-8 eggs instead of one egg per cycle.
c. The female is either mated with an elite bull or artificially
inseminated.
d. Non-surgical recovery of fertilized eggs at 8-32 cells stages. Each
one transferred to surrogate mother.
e. The genetic mother is available for another round of super
ovulation.

4. Explain the five steps involved in plant breeding techniques.

Ans: a) Collection of genetic variability
1. Genetic variability is the root of any breeding programme.
2. Pre-existing genetic variability is available from wild relatives of
crop.
3. Collection and preservation of all the different wild varieties,
species and relatives of the cultivated species.
4. Evaluation for their characteristics.
5. The entire collection (of plants /seeds) having all the diverse
alleles for all genes in a given crop is called germplasm collection.
b) Evaluation and selection of parents
1. The germplasm is evaluated so as to identify plants with desirable
combination of characters.
2. The selected plants are multiplied and used in hybridization.
3. Pure line is created wherever desirable and possible.
c) Cross hybridization among the selected parents
1. Cross hybridization of two selected parent by emasculation and
bagging, to produce hybrid of combined character of both parents.
2. For example high protein quality of one parent may need to be
combined with disease resistance from another patent.
3. Usually one in few hundred to a thousand crosses offsprings
shows desirable combinations.
d) Selection and testing of superior recombinants

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1. Selection is done from the progeny of hybrids produced by cross

hybridization.
2. It requires careful scientific observations and evaluation of
progeny.
3. Hybrid plants that are superior to both of the parents are
selected.
4. These hybrids are self-pollinated for several generations till they
reach a state of uniformity (homozygosity).

e) Testing, release and commercialization of new cultivars

1. Selected pure lines are evaluated for their yield and other quality,
agronomic traits of disease resistance etc.
2. This evaluation is done in the research fields and recording their
Performance under ideal fertilizer, irrigation
3. Testing is done in the farmers ‘fields’ at least for three generation.
4. The material is compared with best available local crop cultivar (a
reference cultivar).

CHAPTER 10
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. Name a bacterium that is involved in the conversion of milk
Into curd.
Ans: Lactic acid bacteria / Lactobacillus bacteria.

2. Give the scientific name of baker’s yeast.

Ans: Saccharomyces cervisiae.

3. Large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of large amount of CO2
by a bacterium. Name the bacterium cause for it.
Ans: Propionibacterium sharmanii.

4. Name the vessels in which microbes are grown in the large scale industrial
production.
Ans: Fermentors.

5. Name a fungus from which penicillin antibiotic is obtained.

Ans: Penicillium notatum.

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6. Name an organic acid produced by Aspegillus niger.

Ans: Citric acid.

7. Name a bacterium that produces acetic acid.

Ans: Acetobacter aceti.

8. Name a bacterium that produces butyric acid

Ans: Clostridium butylicum.

9. Name a chemical produced by Streptococcus bacterium used as a ‘clot

buster’, for removing clots from the blood vessels of patients who have
undergone myocardial infarction.
Ans: Streptokinase .

10. Name a fungus that produces Cyclosporin-

Ans: Trichoderma polysporum

11. Cyclosporin-A is produced by a fungus called Trichoderma polysporum. Write

its significance.
Ans: Cyclosporin-A is used as immunosuppressive agent during organ
transplantation.

12. Name a chemical produced by the yeast Monascus purpureus used as blood
cholesterol lowering agents.
Ans: Statins

13. Statins produced by Monascus purpureus used as blood cholesterol lowering

agents. How does it work?
Ans: It acts as competitive inhibitor for the enzyme responsible for the
synthesis of cholesterol.

14. What is sewage?

Ans: The waste water generated in cities and towns containing human excreta, organic
matter and microbes.

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TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Name any two free living bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen and increase
nitrogen content in the soil.
Ans: Azospirilium and Azotobacter

2. What is the key difference between primary and secondary sewage

treatment?
Ans: Primary treatment is the physical process where filtration and
sedimentation takes place while in secondary treatment, biological
process is involved.

3. Expand the abbreviations a) LAB b) BOD

Ans: a) LAB – Lactic Acid Bacteria
b) BOD – Biochemical Oxygen Demand.

4. Who discovered the first antibiotic? Name the organism from which it was
discovered.
Ans: Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin from an organism Penicillium
notatum.

5. Name a microbe used for statin production. How do Statin lower the blood
cholesterol?
Ans: Monascus purpureus is used to produce Statin. Statins lower the blood cholesterol
level by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of
cholesterol.

6. Name the source of streptokinase. How does this bioactive molecule function
in our body?
Ans: Source is Streptococcus. It removes the clot form the blood vessels of
patients who had a heart attack.

7. How does anabaena and mycorrhiza act as biofertilisers?

Ans: a) Anabaena fix atmospheric nitrogen
b) Mycorrhiza absorbs phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant.

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8. Why is Rhizobium called as ‘symbiotic bacterium’? How does it act as a

biofertiliser?
Ans: Rhizobium is present in the root nodules of leguminous plants. These
bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into nitrate.

9. Name any two distilled and undistilled alcoholic beverages.

Ans: a) Distilled alcoholic beverages: Whisky, Rum, Brandy.

7. How does anabaena and mycorrhiza act as biofertilisers?

Ans: a) Anabaena fix atmospheric nitrogen
b) Mycorrhiza absorbs phosphorus from soil and passes it to the
plant.

8. Why is Rhizobium called as ‘symbiotic bacterium’? How does it act as a

biofertiliser?
Ans: Rhizobium is present in the root nodules of leguminous plants. These
bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into nitrate.

9. Name any two distilled and undistilled alcoholic beverages.

Ans: a) Distilled alcoholic beverages: Whisky, Rum, Brandy
b) Undistilled alcoholic beverages: Beer and Wine.

10. Write any two advantages of biofertilisers.

Ans: a) Biofertiliser do not cause pollution
b) These are not expensive

THREE MARK QUESTIONS

1. Mycorrhiza, a fungus symbiotically associated with root of few plants. List
any three benefits for plants from Mycorrhiza.
Ans: 1. Mycorrhiza provides phosphorus to the plants from the soil.
2. Make the plant resistant to root-borne pathogen.
3. Increase tolerance to salinity and drought.

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2. Mention the three enzymes of industrial importance.

Ans: Proteases , Pectinases, Lipases, Cellulases.

3. Name the different categories of microbes naturally occurring in sewage

water. Explain their role in sewage water treatment.
Ans: a) Aerobic and anaerobic bacteria exist in sewage water.
b) After the primary treatment aerobic bacteria will reduces BOD in
aeration tanks by degrading organic matter.
c) Anaerobic bacteria are the sludge digesters, where these digest the
sludge and form biogas.

4. What is the chemical nature of biogas?

Ans: Biogas contains methane (CH4), carbon dioxide (CO2) and hydrogen
(H2) gases.

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Describe any five useful household products in which microbes
are involved.
Ans: Lactic acid Bacteria: Lactic acid Bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and
convert it to curd. LAB produces acids that coagulate and partially
digest milk proteins . A small amount of curd added to fresh milk as
inoculums or starter. LAB improves nutritional quality of milk by
increasing vitamin B12. LAB plays very important role in checking
disease causing microbes. Dough, used to make dosa and idli is also
fermented by bacteria. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to
the production of CO2.
1.Baker’s yeast (Saccharomyces cervisiae) is used to making bread.
2.‘Toddy’ a traditional drink is made by fermentation of sap from
palms.
3.Large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of large
amount of CO2 by a bacterium named Propionibacterium sharmanii.

4.The ‘Roquefort cheese’ is ripened by specific fungi, which gives

specific flavour.

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2. Describe the role of microbes in sewage treatment.

Ans: 1. The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks.
2. This allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs.
3. The growth of microbes consumes the major part of the
organic matter in the effluent. This significantly reduces the
BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) of the effluent .
4. BOD refers to the amount of oxygen required to oxidize total
organic matter by bacteria, present in one liter of water .
5. BOD is the measures of the organic matter present in the water.
6. Greater the BOD of the waste water more is its polluting potential.
7. Once the BOD of sewage reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed into
the settling tank where the bacterial ’flocs’ are allowed to sediment. This sediment
is called activated sludge. Small part of activated sludge is pumped back to aeration
tank to serve as the inoculums.
8. The remaining sludge is pumped into anaerobic sludge digester.
10.During this digestion bacteria produce biogas, (mixture of methane, hydrogen
sulphide and carbon dioxide)
11.The effluent from the secondary treatment plant is released into natural water
body like rivers and streams.

3. Describe process of primary treatment of sewage water

Ans: Involves the physical removal of particles – large and small from
sewage through filtration and sedimentation.
• Initially floating debris is removed by sequential filtration.
• The grit (soil and small pebbles) are removed by sedimentation.
• All solids that settle form the primary sludge, and the supernatant forms the
effluents.
• The effluents are from the primary settling tank taken for secondary treatment

4. Write the scientific name of a microbe from which following product is

obtained. Write one function each on the products.
a) Statins b) Penicillin c) Acetic acid d) Streptokinase
e) Cyclosporin –
Ans: a)Statins – Monascus purpureus Function: Used as blood cholesterol

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lowering agents. It acts as competitive inhibitor for the enzyme is

responsible for the synthesis of cholesterol.
b)Penicillin – Penicillium notatum Function: Used to cure many bacterial
diseases.
c)Acetic acid – Acetobacter aceti Function: Used as food preservative.
d)Streptokinase – Streptococcus Function: used as a ‘clot buster’, for removing
clots from the blood vessels of patients who have undergone myocardial infarction.
e) Cyclosporin – A – Trichoderma polysporum Function: used as
immunosuppressive agent during organ transplantation.

5. Describe the structure of biogas plant with a neat labelled diagram

● Microbes produce many gases during their metabolism.

● The type of gas produced depends upon the substrate they grow on and the type of
microbe.
● Anaerobic bacteria usually produce methane along with CO2 and H2. Such
bacteria are called methanogens.Example - Methanobacterium
● Methanogens are commonly found in anaerobic sludge (as in sewage treatment)
and in the rumen of cattle. In the rumen of cattle, these bacteria help in cellulose
digestion.
● Hence, excreta of cattle (gobar) are rich in methanogens. Biogas
is also called gobar gas .

● Concrete tank−
Here, slurry of dung is fed. It is a 10 − 15 feet
deep tank .
● Floating cover− Placed on slurry; rises as the gas is produced

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Outlet − It is connected to the pipe.

● Pipe − It supplies the biogas to nearby houses.
Outlet for spent slurry − Spent slurry can be used as a fertiliser

CHAPTER 11
BIOTECHNOLOGY : PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES.

ONE MARK QUESTION:

1. Define Biotechnology.
Ans: Bio technology deals with the techniques of using live organisms or enzymes
from organisms to produce products and processes useful to humans .
2. What are plasmids?
Ans: Autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA.
Or
Plasmid is a small, circular, extra chromosomal dsDNA occurring in some
bacteria which can undergo replication independently.
3. What are palindromic nucleotide sequences ?
Ans: Palindromic sequences are ‘invert repeats’ which have the
same nucleotide sequences when read in 5' 3' on both the
strands.
4. Mention the function of DNA ligase.
Ans: These are enzymes which can join fragments of DNA which have complementary
sticky ends or blunt ends
5. What do you mean by insertional inactivation ?
Ans : The inactivation of gene due to insertion of alien DNA is
called insertional inactivation.
6. Name the plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium
tumifaciens.
Ans : Ti plasmind or tumor inducing plasmid.
7. What is agarose ?
Ans : Agarose is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds.
8. Name the stain used in gel- electrophoresis.
Ans : Ethidium bromide.

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9. What is bioreactor ?
Ans : It is a vessel in which raw materials are biologically converted in to specific
products using microbial plants, animal or human cells.
10. What is down stream process ?
Ans : Separation, purification of the products obtained from recombinant DNA
technique is called downstream processing (DSP).
11. Name the enzyme used in linking the DNA segments
together.
Ans : DNA ligase.
12. Which technique is commonly used to isolate DNA fragments?
Ans : Gel- electrophoresis.
13. What do mean by Ori ?
Ans : Sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA when linked in this
sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells.
14. Name the enzyme which is also called “molecular scissors”.
Ans : restriction endonuclease.
15. What is transformation ?
Ans : A process by which a piece of DNA is introduced into a
host bacterium.
16. What is elution ?
Ans : In gel-electrophoresis, the separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose
gel and extracted from the gel piece. This step is called elution.
17. Who constructed the first artificial recombinant DNA
molecule?
Ans : Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer.
18. Name the scientists who constructed pBR 322.
Ans : Bolivar and Rodringuez.
19. What is signeficance of selectable marker in plasmids ?
Ans : selectable markers help in identifying and eliminating
non-transformants and selectively permitting the growth of
the transformants.

20. What is micro-injection ?

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Ans : Method of introducing recombinant DNA in to host cell using fine needle is
called microinjection Or
Recombinant DNA is directly injected in to the nucleus of animal cell.
21. What is biolastics or gene gun ?
Ans : Method of introducing recombinant DNA in to host cell by bombarding high
velocity microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.
22. What is competent host ?
Ans : The cell which is capable of taking up an alien DNA is called competent host.
23. What is recombinant protein ?
Ans : Protein encoding gene is expressed in heterologous host , it is called recombinant
protein.
24. Expand EFB.
Ans : European Federation Of Biotechnology.
25. Name the enzyme commonly used to dissolve bacterial cell wall.
Ans : Lysozymes.
26. Name the enzyme used as an alternate selectable marker.
Ans : ᵝ -Galactosidase.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Name the other processes included under biotechnology.
Ans : In vitro fertilization leading to test tube baby, synthesis of gene,
developing DNA Vaccine and correcting a defective gene.
2. Name the two types of restriction enzymes .
Ans : 1). Exonucleases. 2). Endonucleases .
3. Name two enzymes used in biotechnological processes.
Ans : Restiction enzymes (REN) , DNA ligase , lysozymes, cellulase, chitinase
,ribonuclease, proteases. ( any two ).
4. Name the tools of recombinant DNA technology.
Ans : Restriction enzymes, Polymerase enzymes , DNA ligases , vectors, host organism
and bioreactors. ( Any four)

5. Name the selectable markers of E, coli.

Ans : The genes encoding resistance to antibiotics like ampicillin, tetracycline,
chloramphenicol and kanamycin are selectable markers in E.coli.
6. What is a palindrome sequence of DNA ?

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Ans : Palindromic sequences are ‘invert repeats’ which have the same
nucleotide sequences when read in 5' 3' on both the strands.
7. Differentiate between exonuclease and endonuclease .
Ans : Exonucleases remove nucleotides from ends of the DNA. Endonucleases, make
cuts at specific positions within the DNA .
8. Mention the function of Ti plasmid. Name the source which it is isolated.
Ans : 1) Ti plasmid is used as a vector for delivering genes of our interest in to variety of
plants
2) Ti plasmid is obtained from bacteria Agrobacterium tumifaciens.
9. Mention the methods of making bacteria capable to take up recombinant
DNA .
Ans : 1. Calcium chloride heat treatment.
2. Micro- injection.
3. Gene- gun or biolastics. And
4. Disarmed pathogens .
10. Name any two important sites of a plasmid .
Ans : 1) Ori site. 2) selectable markers. 3) Cloning sites .
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Name the three basic steps involved in geneticall modifying an organism.
Ans : a. Identification of DNA with desirable genes.
b. Introduction of indentified DNA in to the host.
c. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of
DNA in to its progeny.

2. Give a brief account of vectors used for cloning genes in plants and animals.
Ans : 1. Tumour inducing Ti plasmid of `Agrobactrium tumifaciens , has now been
modified into a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to the plants but can
be used to deliver genes of our interest in to variety of plants.
2. Retroviruses. Have been disarmed and are used to deliver desirable genes into
animal cells.
3. Explain briefly the process of isolation of DNA.
Ans : In order to cut the DNA with restriction enzymes, It needs to be in pure form, free
from other macro-molecules like RNA, histones, chitin, cellulose, etc,. the contents

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of the cell treated with enzymes like chitinase, lysozymes, cellulose, ribonuclease
and proteases and ultimately chilled ethnol is added to get purified DNA.
4. Mention the steps involved in recombinant DNA echnology.
Ans : 1. Isolation of desired DNA .
2. Fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
3. Isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
4. Ligation of DNA fragment in to vector.
5.Transferring the recombinant DNA in to host.
6. culturing the host cell and extraction of desired product
5. How are restriction enzymes named ?
Ans : The naming of restriction enzyme is based on the name of bacterium from which
they have been isolated. The first letter of the name comes from the genus, and
second letter come from the species of the bacterium, the third letter indicate the
strain of the organism, Roman numbers following the name indicate the order in
which the enzymes were isolated from that strain of bacteria.
6. Explain the action of restriction endinuclease.
Ans : Restriction endonuclease enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA.It
recognizes a specific restriction site on DNA .(palimdromic nucleotide sequence).It
will bind to the DNA and cut each of the two strands of the double helix at specific
point in their sugar-phosphate backbones.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Name the tools of recombinant DNA technology. Write a note on restriction
enzymes.
Ans : The tools of recombinant DNA technology of Restriction enzymes, Polymerase
enzymes, DNA ligases , vectors, host organism and bioreactors.
Restriction enzymes:
i. These are enzymes naturally occurring in bacteria (for defence) which
recognize specific palindromic sequences in the DNA and cut it at those places.
ii. Palindromic sequences are ‘ invert repeats’ which have the same nucleotide
sequences when read in 5' or 3' ends on both the strands.
iii. Some RENs are Eco RI, Hind III, Sma I, Hae III, etc.,. These RENs are also
called ‘molecular knives’ or ‘molecular scissors’ or ‘natures’s scalpels’ as they
cut DNA.
iv. The fragments of DNA produced are called restriction fragments.
v. The fragments of DNA may have ‘blunt ends’ or ‘staggered

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ends’ (sticky ends).

vi. Endonuclease : They breaks DNA double helix at any point except the ends.
They produce internal cuts called nick's or cleavage.
vii.Exonucleases: They break or cut the 5' or 3' ends of DNA
molecule i.e. they remove Nucleotides from terminal ends of
DNA in one strand of double helix.
2. Explain the process of gel electrophoresis.
Ans : Gel Electrophoresis
i. The fragments obtained after cutting with restriction enzymes are separated by
using gel electrophoresis.
ii· Electric field is applied to the electrophoresis matrix(commonly agarose gel) and
negatively charged DNA fragments move towards the anode.
iii. Fragments separate according to their size by the sieving properties of agarose
gel. Smaller the fragment, farther it moves.
iv. Staining dyes such as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV
radiations are used to visualise the DNA fragments.
v. DNA fragments are visible as bright orange coloured bands in the agarose
matrix.
vi. These bands are cut from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece
(elution).
vii. DNA fragments are purified and these purified DNA fragments are used in
constructing recombinant DNAs.
3. Explain rDNA technology .
Ans : RECOMBINANT DNA (rDNA) TECHNOLOGY:
Recombinant DNA technology involves;
1. Isolation of DNA.
2. Fragmentation of DNA by restriction enzymes and Isolation
of desired gene by electrophoresis.
3. Ligation of desired gene in to plasmid. (creation of
recombinant plasmid)
4. Transferring of recombinant plasmid in to the host cell.
(transformation)
5. Culturing the transformed cells in a medium at large scale
and Extraction of desired product.

PROCEDURE

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➢ DNA is genetic material . It is present in nucleus of the cell. Cells also contain other
macromolicules like cellulose, chitin,proteins, carbhydrates, lipids, RNA, etc,. The
cellular contents is treated with various enzymes like cellulase, chitenase, proteases,
ribonucleases to hydrolyse these
macromolicules and we get pure DNA.
➢ Fragmentation of DNA by restriction enzymes and Isolation of desired gene by
electrophoresis.
➢ Restriction endonucleases are used to cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences to
isolate the desired gene. This DNA fragment which is to be inserted into plasmid for
cloning is called passenger DNA. And the desired gene is isolated by a process called gel-
electrophoresis.
➢ Ligation of desired gene in to plasmid. (creation of recombinant plasmid)
➢ A suitable plasmid is selected. It is treated with the same restriction enzyme to break
open the plasmid at specific sites with sticky ends.
➢ Now the desired gene and the plasmid are mixed and enzyme DNA Ligase is added . The
desired gene gets incorporated in to the plasmid .
➢ Transferring of recombinant plasmid in to the host cell. (transformation)
➢ The recombinant plasmid is introduced in to the host cell by cold calcium chloride
method or by using microinjection or by gene gun or using retrovirus.
➢ Culturing the transformed cells in a medium at large scale and Extraction of desired
product.
➢ The ultimate aim is to produce desirable protein.
➢ There is a need for the recombinant DNA to express . The foreign gets expressed under
appropriate conditions.
➢ The host cells are culrured in a vessel called Bioreactor.
➢ The desired protein is extracted and purified by Using different separation techniques
called DOWN STREAM PROCESSING.

4. Explain with the help of a neat labeled diagram structure

of pBR322 plasmid.
• The best known vector which is available commercially is
pBR322. (plasmid of Boliver and Rodringuez).
• It is modified from natural plasmid of Escherichia coli .
• It is about 4.3 Kb in size.

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• It has the following features:

1. Origin of replication site .(ori)
2. Selectable marker.
3. Cloning site or restriction site .
1. Origin of replication site .(ori): sequence from where replication starts and
any piece of DNA when linked in this sequence can be made to replicate within the
host cells. This sequence is also responsible for controlling the copy number of
linked DNA.
2. Selectable marker. It helps in identifying and eliminating
non-transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the
transformants. The genes encoding resistance to antibioticssuch as ampicillin,
chloramphenical , tetracyclin or canamycin are considered as useful selectable
markers for E.coli.
3. Cloning site or restriction site:The vector should have single or few
recognition site for the commonly used restriction enzymes in order to insert
foreign DNA. In pBR322 alien DNA is ligated in the area of Bam HI site of
tetracycline resistance gene. The recombinanat plasmide does not possess
tetracycline resistance but continues to have ampicilline resistance.
6. Write short notes on :
(a) Bio -reactor . (3 marks)
(b) Downstream processing.
(a) Bioreactor is a vessel in which raw materials are biologically
individual enzymes, etc. A bioreactor provides the optimal providing optimum
growth conditions .The most commonly used bioreactors are stirred tank reactor.
It is cylindrical with curved base to facilitate the mixing of the reactor
contents. The stirrer facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability. Air also can be
bubbled through the reactor. The reactor has an agitator system, an oxygen
delivery system and a foam control system, a temperature control system , pH
control system and sampling ports
(b) Downstream processing: Separation, purification of the products obtained from
recombinant DNA technique is called downstream processing (DSP). The product
has to be formulated with suitable preservatives . Thorough clinical trials and
strict quality control testing is also conducted before marketing of the product.

CHAPTER12:
BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS

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ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1) Which soil bacteria produces Bt-toxins?

Ans. Bacillus thuringiensis

2) Bt toxins produced in Bacillus thuringiensis is not toxic to it, why?

Ans. Bt toxins produced in Bacillus thuringiensis is not toxic to it because it is
produced in an inactivated form, it gets activated in the gut of larvae because of
alkaline secretion in gut of larvae

3) Name the American company , that prepared human insulin.

Ans. Eli Lilly.

4) What are genetically modified plants?

Ans. Genetically modified plants using r-DNA technology leading to alteration of
gene

5) Write any four pest resistant plants.

Ans. Bt -cotton, rice, Bt- Corn, potato and tomato

6) Name the food plant produced to enhance the nutritional value of the food
crop.
Ans. Golden rice ( Vitamin A enriched rice)

7) Name cry Genes Which control the cotton bollworms

Ans. CryIAc or CryII Ab

8) How does the Bt toxins kill the insects in bio-insecticide plants?

Ans. The activated toxins binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and
creates pores that cause cell swelling and eventually cause the death of the
insects.

9) Name the bonds Connecting A-chain and B-Chain of functional insulin.

Ans. Disulphide bonds or Disulphide bridges

10) Plasmids of which bacteria were used to produced the A-chain and B-chain
separately the bacteria's.
Ans. E.Coli or Escherichia coli

11) What is Gene Therapy?

Ans. Gene therapy is a collections of methods that allows correction of a gene
defect that has been diagnosed in a child or an embryo.

12) What are GMOs? Give two examples.

Ans. GMOs are the genetically modified organisms

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Eg., Bt -cotton, rice , Bt- Corn ,potato and tomato

13) Name the disease that can be cured through gene therapy.
Ans. SCID(Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency .Due to absence of ADA

14) Name the hormone produced by genetic engineering.

Ans. Human insulin.

15) Name the vector used to incorporate the cDNA of ADA into the lymphocytes
in gene therapy.
Ans. Retrovirus.

16) Define biopiracy.

Ans. The term is used to refer to the use of bioresearches by multinational
companies and other organizations without taking the consent by the people
concerned.

17) Mention the functions of GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee).

Ans. GEAC will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the
safety of introducing GM-Organisms for the public services.

18) Name the protein produced by Bacillus thuringiensis .

Ans. Toxin protein(Insecticidal protein) in the form of crystals.

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

1) Insulin extracted from the pancreas of slaughtered cow and pigs cannot be
used why?
Ans. Insulin extracted from the pancreas of slaughtered cow and pigs causes
allergy and other types of reactions.

2). Mention the four areas which have been responsible for the recent advances
in biotechnology
Ans. The areas in recent advances in biotechnology are (I) Agriculture (ii) Medicine
(iii) Food industry and (iv) Environmental engineering.

3) What are transgenic bacteria? Illustrate using any one example.

Ans. When a foreign gene or series of genes are introduced into the genome of a
bacteria , the bacteria becomes transgenic. For example, two DNA sequences (A

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and B chain of human insulin) introduced into the plasmids of bacteria E.coli. The
transgenic bacteria starts producing insulin chains.

4) How many recombinant therapeutics are been approved for the use of
humans?
Ans.At present, about 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved for
human use the of these are presently being marketed.

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

1) Write short on insulin.

Ans. Insulin is taken at regular intervals to manage diabetes. Insulin consists of
two short polypeptide chains A-chain and B-chain that are linked together by a
disulphide bridges. In humans ,insulin is synthesized as pro-hormone which
contains an extra stretch called Cpeptide. C-peptide is removed during
maturation.

2) Name three group of insects killed by insecticidal protein.

Ans. Lepidopteron, Coleopterans and Dipterans.

3) What are cry genes? Mention the types and the specific insects they kill.
Ans. The genes that produce the Bt toxin are called cry genes there are a number
of them, for example ,the protein encoded by the genes cryIAc and cryIIAb control
the cotton bollworm and the cry I Ab controls corn borer.

4) Write short notes on gene therapy.

Ans: Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene
defect that has been diagnosed in a child or embryo. Genes are inserted into
person’s cells and tissues to treat a disease. It involves the delivery of a normal
gene into the individual or embryo to take over the function of and compensate for
the non-functional gene.

5) Explain briefly process of synthesis of human insulin?

Ans. Two DNA sequences coding for A and B chains of human insulin and
introduced it into the plasmids of E.coli to produce the chain A and chain B
separately. The chains are extracted and combined by creating disulphide bonds
to form human insulin.

6) Write a note on ethical issues.

Ans. Genetical modification of organism can have unpredictable results such
organisms are introduced into the ecosystems. Hence the manipulation of living
organisms by human race cannot go on any further without regulation. Therefore
ethical standards are required to evaluate the mortality of all human activities that
might help or harm living organism.

7) What is gene therapy? Illustrate using an example.

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Ans : gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene

defect that has been diagnosed in a child or embryo.
e.g., ADA deficiency

8) Write a note on patenting with special reference to rice.

Ans. In 1997 an American company got patent rights on basmati rice through the
U.S. patent and trade mark office. This allowed the company to sell a new variety
of basmati in U.S. and abroad. This new variety of basmati had actually been
derived from Indian farmer’s variety .The farmers had produced this variety by
crossing semi-dwarf varieties .If we are not vigilant and if we do not immediately
counter these patent applications other countries /individuals may encash on our
rich legacy and we may not be able to do any thing about it.

9) Give a brief note on Indian Patent Bill.

Ans. The Indian parliament has recently cleared the second amendment of the
Indian Patent Bill in which patent terms, emergency provisions and research and
development initiatives are added.

10) Write short notes on Indian Basmati.

Ans. The diversity of rice in India is one of the richest in the world. Basmati rice
is distinct for its unique aroma and flavour and 27 documented varieties of
Basmati are grown in India. There is a century old reference to Basmati in ancient
texts, folklore and poetry.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Discuss the biotechnological applications in agriculture. With special

reference to Btcotton. Bt Cotton
Ans: Bacillus thuringiensis is a bacterium that produces proteins to kill certain insects
such as Lepidopterans (armyworm), coleopterans (beetles), and dipterans (flies/
mosquitoes). B.thuringiensis produces a protein crystal containing a toxic protein
(inactivated state).
Inactivated toxin Activated toxin (gut of insect)
Activated toxin binds to the epithelial cells in the midgut of insect and creates
pores that cause lyses and swelling and eventually death of insect. This toxin is
encoded by a gene called Cry in the bacterium. Genes encoded by CryIAc and Cry
II Ab control cotton bollworms and those encoded by Cry IAb control corn borer.
Cry genes are introduced into the cotton plants to produce Bt cotton, which is an
insect resistant variety of cotton.

2. What is gene therapy ? Explain the steps involved in the process.

Ans: Gene therapy is a collections of methods that allows correction of a gene defect
that has been diagnosed in a child or an embryo.

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The gene therapy is performed to cure ADA enzyme deficiency. This enzyme is
crucial for the immune system to function. This disorder is caused due to the
deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase.
As a first step towards gene therapy, Lymphocytes from blood of the patient are
cultured outside the body.
Second a functional ADA c DNA is introduced into these lymphocytes by using
retrovirus as a vector, which are subsequently returned to the patient.
The patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes.
However, if the genes isolated from bone marrow cells producing ADA is
introduced into cells at early embryonic stages,it could be a permanent cure.

3. Discuss briefly the process of production of Bt cotton .

Ans: Bt Cotton
• Bacillus thuringiensis is a bacterium that produces proteins to kill certain insects
such as lepidopterans (armyworm), coleopterans (beetles), and dipterans (flies/
mosquitoes). B.thuringiensis produces a protein crystal containing a toxic protein
(inactivated state).Inactivated toxin Activated toxin (gut of insect)
• Activated toxin binds to the epithelial cells in the midgut of insect and creates
pores that
cause lyses and swelling and eventually death of insect.
• This toxin is encoded by a gene called Cry in the bacterium. Genes encoded by Cry
IAc and Cry II Ab control cotton bollworms and those encoded by Cry IAb control
corn borer.Cry genes are introduced into the cotton plants to produce Bt cotton,
which is an insect resistant variety of cotton.
4. Write short notes on concept of ‘biopiracy’ Biopiracy
Ans: Use of bio-resources by MNCs and other organizations without proper
authorization from countries and people concerned without compensatory
payment
Industrialized and developed nations are economically rich, but poor in
biodiversity while opposite prevails for developing nations. Therefore, developed
countries exploit traditional knowledge and resources of poor countries for
commercialization.
This is a matter of injustice since inadequate compensation and benefit sharing is
given to poor countries in return. Therefore, steps should be taken by developing
countries to prevent this exploitation.
The Indian parliament has recently introduced second amendment of Indian
patents bill to deal with these issues.
5. Write short notes on Ethical issues.
Ans: Genetically modification of organism can have unpredictable results such
organisms are introduced into the ecosystems. Hence the manipulation of living
organisms by human race cannot go on any further without regulation. Therefore
ethical standards are required to evaluate the mortality of all human activities that
might help or harm living organism.
The genetic modifications of organisms can have unpredictable results when such
organisms are introduced into the ecosystems. Therefore Indian government has
setup an organization such as GEAC(Genetic Engineering Approval

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Committee).Which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and

safety of introducing GM organism for public service.

CHAPTER 13
ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Define the term, ‘Ecology’.
Ans: Ecology is defined as the branch of biology that deals with the study of interaction
among organisms and between the organism and its physical (abiotic)
environment.

2. What is the main reason for creation of seasons?

Ans: Rotation of sun and the tilt of its axis cause annual variations in the intensity and
duration of temperature, resulting distinct seasons.

3. Mention the factors that account for the formation of major biomes in the
earth.
Ans: `Annual variations in the intensity and duration of temperature along with annual
variations inprecipitation are responsible for the formation of major biomes.

4. Give an example for biome.

Ans: Desert biome/Tundra biome/Rainforest biome

5. Why light is considered as an important abiotic factor for animals?

Ans: Animals use diurnal and seasonal variations in light intensity and photoperiod as
cues for timing their foraging, reproductive and migration.

6. Define the term, Homeostasis.

Ans: Homeostasis is the process by which the organisms maintain a constant internal
environment in respect to changing external environment.

7. Define the term, Regulate.

Ans: Some organisms are able to maintain homeostasis by physiological (sometimes
behavioural also) means which ensures constant body temperature, constant
osmotic concentration. This is called Regulate

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.
8. What feature of a mammal is largely responsible for their "success" in either
the environmental conditions of Antarctica or Sahara desert?
Ans: Thermoregulation.

9. The smaller animals are rarely found in Polar Regions. Give reason.
Ans: Small animals have larger surface area relative to their volume, they tend to lose
body heat very fast when it is cold outside and hence they have to expend much
energy to generate body heat through metabolism.

10. What is migration?

Ans: The organism can move away temporarily from the stressful habitats to a more
hospitable area and return when stressful period is over. This is called migration.

11. The species that can tolerate narrow range of temperatures are called what?
Ans: Stenothermal

12. What is dormancy?

Ans: Dormancy is a stage during which the organisms reduce their metabolic activity
become inactive.
13. What is hibernation?
Ans: Hibernation is a process by which the animals like bear avoid the stress and
become inactive during winter.

14. What is aestivation?

Ans: Aestivation is a process by which the animals like snails and fishes avoid the
stress and summer related problems like heat and desiccation and become
inactive during summer.

15. What is diapause?

Ans: It is a stage of suspended development seen in many zooplanktons to avoid
unfavourable conditions.

16. Emigration.

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Ans: Emigration refers to the number of individuals of the population who left the
habitat and goneelsewhere during a given time period

17. What is adaptation?

Ans: Adaptation is any attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological, and
behavioral) that enables the organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat

18. Define the term, “population”.

Ans: Population can be defined as a group of individual living in a well defined
geographical area,share or compete for similar resources, potentially interbreed.

19. What is an age pyramid?

Ans: It is the graphical representation of population of an area at a given `time, in
which percentage of individuals of an age group is plotted for the population.
20. What does the age pyramid reflects?
Ans: It shows whether the population is growing or stable or decreasing

21. What is population density?

Ans: The size of the population in numbers of a given area.

22. What is Allen’s rule?

Ans: Allen’s rule states that those animals, e.g., mammals from colder climates
generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss.

23. Give an example for Allen’s rule.

Seals of polar aquatic seas have a thick layer of fat called blubber below their skin
that acts as insulator and reduces loss of body heat.

24. Why the seals of polar aquatic seas posses a thick layer of fat below the skin?
Ans: It is an adaptation to reduce loss of body and also acts as insulator.

25. Why body develops nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations when a person
move to high altitude (>3,500 meter)?

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Ans: This is due to low atmospheric pressure of high altitudes; the body does not get
enough oxygen.

26. Mention any one behavioral adaptation observed in animals.

Ans: Some species burrowing into the soil to hide and escape from the above-ground
heat.

27. Define population.

Ans: A group of individual living in a well defined geographical area, share or compete
for similar resources, potentially interbreed is called population.

28. What is an age pyramid?

Ans: The graphical representation derived when the age distribution is plotted for a
population the resulting structure is called age pyramid.

29. What is the letter used to designate population density?

Ans: N
30. List the methods used to estimate population size during tiger census
recently.
Ans: Pug marks and fecal pellets for tiger census.

31. Define Natality.

Ans: Natality refers to the number of birth in given period in the population.

32. Define Mortality

Ans: Mortality refers to the number of deaths in the population in a given period of
time.

33. Birth rate

Ans: The birth rate is the total number of births per 1000 of a population each year

34. Define death rate

Ans: Mortality rate is a measure of the number of deaths (in general, or due to a specific
cause in a population, scaled to the size of that population, per unit of time.

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35. Define Immigration

Ans: Immigration refers to the number of individuals of same species that have come
into the habitat from elsewhere during a given period of time.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Most living organisms cannot survive at temperatures above 45°c. How are
some microbes able to live in habitats with temperature beyond 100°c?
Ans: Microbes posses physiological and biochemical adaptations which allow them to
live in habitats temperature exceeding. 100°c. There are branched chain lipids in
the cell membrane andspecial resistant enzymes which deal with high
temperatures.

2. People living in higher altitudes have higher RBC count. Give reasons
Ans: Due to low atmospheric pressure at higher attitudes body compensates low oxygen
availability by increasing red blood cell production, decreasing the binding affinity
of hemoglobin and increasing breathing rate.

3. Write a note on temperature as abiotic factor.

Ans: Temperature is the most ecologically relevant ecological factor.
Temperature affects the kinetics of enzymes, BMR (Basic Metabolic Rate) and
other physiological actions in organisms.
Eurythermal: A few organisms which can tolerate wide range of temperatures.
They are called eurythermal organisms.
Stenothermal: Many organisms which can tolerate narrow range of temperatures
are called stenothermal organisms.

4. Write a note on water as abiotic factor.

Ans: Life is originated in water and it is unsustainable without water.
The productivity and distribution of plants is also heavily dependent on water. For
aquatic organisms, the quality (chemical composition, pH) is very important.

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Euryhaline: The organisms which can tolerate wide range of salinity are called
euryhaline organisms.
Stenohaline: The organisms which can tolerate narrow range of salinity
stenohaline organisms.
5. Explain the mechanism by which humans regulate their body temperature.
Ans: We maintain a constant body temperature of 37oC.
When outside temperature is high we sweat profusely and evaporative cooling take
place tobody temperature down.In winter due to low temperature outside our body
temperature falls below 37oC, we start to shiver, to generate heat to raise body
temperature.

6. Write a note on Conformers.

Ans: Majority (99%) of animals and plants cannot maintain a constant internal
environment andhence their body temperature varies according to ambient
temperature.
In aquatic animals the osmotic concentration of body fluid varies with ambient
water osmotic concentration. Such animals and plants are simply called as
conformers.

7. Write a note on migration.

Ans: The organism can move away temporarily from the stressful habitat to a more
hospitable area and return when stressful period is over. This is called migration.
Many animals, particularly birds, during winter undertake long-distance
migrations to morehospitable areas.Every winter the famous Keolado National
Park (Bharatpur) in Rajasthan host thousands of migratory birds coming from
Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions.

8. Write a note on suspend

Ans: In bacteria, fungi and lower plants, various kinds of thick walled spores are
formed which help them to survive unfavourable conditions – these germinate on
availability of suitable.
In higher plants, seeds and some other vegetative reproductive structures serve as
means to tide over periods of stress besides helping in dispersal.They germinate to
form new plants under favorable moisture and temperature conditions. They
do so by reducing their metabolic activity and going into a state of ‘dormancy’.

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9. How is kangaroo rat adapted for lack of external source of water?

Ans: Kangaroo rat meets their water requirement from oxidation of fat, in which water
is by product. They excrete very concentrate urine to conserve water.

10. List the adaptation seen in animals for cold climate.

Ans: Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimize
heat loss. This is called Allen’s Rule .Seals of polar aquatic seas have a thick layer
of fat called blubber below their skin that acts as insulator and reduces loss of
body heat

11. How the body of humans gets adapted for high altitudes?
Ans: The body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell
production.The body compensates decreasing binding capacity of hemoglobin with
oxygen by increasing rate of breathing.

12. “Desert lizards are conformer hence they cope with the stressful
environment by behavioural adaptations”. How?
Ans: They bask in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below
the comfort zone in winter. They move to shade when the ambient temperature
starts increasing

13. Mention any two attributes that as individual organism does not have but
shown by apopulation.
Ans: Birth rate, Death rate and sex ratio.

14. List the methods used to estimate population size.

Ans: Counting the number
Percent cover estimation.
Biomass estimation.
Counting Pug marks and faecal pellets for tiger census

15. Write a note on Allen’s rule.

Ans: Allen’s Rule states that animals i.e., mammals from colder climates generally have
shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss.
Seals of polar aquatic seas have a thick layer of fat called blubber below their skin
that acts as insulator and reduces loss of body heat.

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16. What are the symptoms of altitude sickness?

Ans: Symptoms developed are nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations.

17. How the body solves the problem of Altitude sickness?

Ans: The body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell
production. The body compensates decreasing binding capacity of haemoglobin
with oxygen by increasing rate of breathing.

18. How the desert lizards cope with the stressful environment
Ans: They bask in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below
the comfort zone in winter. They move to shade when the ambient temperature
starts increasing.

19. In a pond there are 20 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 8 new
plants are added, taking the current population to 28, calculate the birth
rate.
Ans: 8/20 = 0.4 offspring per lotus per year.

20. If 4 individuals in a laboratory population of 40 fruit flies died during a

specified time interval, say a week, calculate the death rate in the population
during that period.
Ans: 4/40 = 0.1 individuals per fruit fly per week.

21. Mention the characteristic features of age pyramid.

Ans: 1. The age pyramids generally show age distribution of males and females in a
combined diagram.
2. The shape of the pyramids reflects the growth status of the population - (a)
whether it is growing, (b) stable or (c) declining.

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Write a note on the importance of light as abiotic factor for plants.
Ans: Plants produce food by photosynthesis, which is possible only in the presence of
light. Hence it is very important for autotrophs.

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Plant species (herbs and shrubs) adapted for photosynthesize optimally under low
light conditions because they are constantly overshadowed by tall canopied trees.
Sunlight is required for photoperiodic response like flowering in plants.
2. Write a note on soil as abiotic factor.
Ans: Properties of soil vary according to the climate, the weathering process. Soil
composition, grain size and aggregation determine the percolation and water
holding capacity of the soil. These characteristic along with pH, mineral
composition and topography determine to a large extent the vegetation in any
area. This in turn dictates the type of animals that can be supported. The
sediment-characteristic often determine the type of benthic animal in aquatic
environment.

3. "The conformer had not evolved to become regulators". Justify the

statement.
Ans: Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for many animals.
Small animal like shrews and humming birds cannot afford so much energy for
thermoregulation. Heat loss or heat gain is a function of surface area. Small
animals have larger surface area relative to their volume. They tend to lose body
heat
very fast when it is cold outside. Then they have to expend much energy to
generate body heat through metabolism.

4. `Describe the adaptation of desert plants.

Ans:
• The presence of thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces.
• The presence of sunken stomata to reduce transpiration.
• They have special photosynthetic pathway (CAM), in which stomata closed
during day time and remained open during night.
• Desert plants like Opuntia have no leaves and they are reduced to spines.
• In such plants, photosynthesis takes place in flat green stems

5. How behavioural responses are achieved by animals during variation in the

environment?

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Ans: Desert lizards are conformer hence they cope with the stressful environment by
behavioural adaptations:
They bask in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below
the comfort zone in winter.
They move to shade when the ambient temperature starts increasing.
Some specie burrowing into the soil to hide and escape from the above-ground
heat.

6. What is the significant of age pyramids? List the different types of age
pyramids.
Ans: The shape of the pyramids reflects the growth status of the population
For example growing,stable or declining population.

7. Population size, more technically called population density (designated as N),

need not necessarily be measured in numbers only. Explain the reasons for
this with examples.
Ans: If the population is huge and counting is impossible or very time-consuming. If
you have a dense laboratory culture of bacteria in a Petri dish what is the best
measure to report its density for certain ecological investigations, there is no need
to know the absolute population densities; relative densities serve the purpose
equally well.
For example, the number of fish caught per trap is good enough measure of its
total population density in the lake.
For example, the tiger census in our national parks and tiger reserves is often
based on pug marks and faecal pellets.

8. Mention factors that keeps the population size changing in time.

Ans: Food availability,
Predation pressure and adverse weather.

9. In the equation, dN/dt = rN (K–N / N), r, K,N stand for what?

Ans: N = Population density at time t
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
K = Carrying capacity.

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10. Graphically represent the exponential growth curve with the equation
Ans:

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS

1. Explain Physiological adaptation to high altitude by humans. How the bodies
solve the problem? Adaptation in high altitude:
Ans: A person move to high altitude (>3,500 meter), develop altitude
sickness.Developed are nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations. This is due to low
atmospheric pressure of high altitudes; the body does not get enough oxygen. The
body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production.
The body compensates decreasing binding capacity of haemoglobin with oxygen by
increasing rate of breathing.
2. Explain Different strategies developed by animals to escape in time.
Ans: In animals, the organism, if unable to migrate, might avoid the stress by escaping
in time. The familiar case of bears going into hibernation during winter is an
example of escape in time. Some snails and fish go into aestivation to avoid
summer–related problems-heat and desiccation. Under unfavourable conditions
many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds are known to enter diapause, a
stage of suspended development
3. Explain different Adaptation of plants and animals for dry conditions.
Ans: Adaptation of animal in desert:
• Kangaroo rat meets their water requirement from oxidation of fat.
• Excrete very concentrate urine to conserve water.
Adaptation of plant in desert (xerophytes)
• Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces.

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• Sunken stomata, both to reduce transpiration.

• Have special photosynthetic pathway (CAM), stomata closed during day time
and remained open during night.
• Opuntia has no leaf- they are reduced to spines.
• Photosynthesis takes place in flat green stems.
4. Explain Exponential growth and its characteristics.
Ans:

Exponential growth:
The Exponential growth equation is Nt = N0ert
Nt = Population density after time t
N0 = Population density at time zero
r = intrinsic rate of natural increase
e = the base of natural logarithms (2.71828)
Exponential growth (‘J’ shape curve is obtained).
When resources are not limiting the growth.
species growth exponentially under unlimited resources conditions can reach
enormous population densities in a short time. Growth is not so realistic.

5. What is predation? Explain the characteristic of predation.

Ans: Organism of higher trophic level (predator) feeds on organism of lower trophic level
(prey) iscalled the predation.Even the herbivores are not very different from
predator.
Predator acts as a passage for transfer of energy across trophic level.Predators
keep prey populations under control. If exotic species have no natural predator
hence they grow very rapidly. (E.g.,Prickly pearcactus introduced in Australia
created problem)
Predators also help in maintaining species diversity in a community, by reducing
the intensity ofcompetition among competing prey species. (Pisaster starfish field
experiment)
6. Describe the adaptation of parasites.

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Ans:
• Loss of unnecessary sense organs.
• Presence of adhesive organs or suckers t cling on to the host.
• Loss of digestive system.
• High reproductive capacity
• Parasites having one or more intermediate host or vectors to facilitate
parasitisation of its primary host.
• Liver fluke has two intermediate hosts (snail and a fish) to complete its live
cycle.
• The malaria parasite needs a vector{mosquito} to complete its life cycle.
7. Explain the pollination in Mediterranean orchid Ophrys and its significance
in the process of co-evolution.
Ans: The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs ‘sexual deceit’ to get pollination done
by a species of bee. One petal of its flower bears an uncanny resemblance to the
female of the bee in size, colour and markings.
The male bee is attracted to what it perceives as a female, ‘pseudocopulates’ with
the flower,and during that process is When this same bee ‘pseudocopulates’ with
another flower, it transfers pollen to it and thus,pollinates the flower. This is an
example for how co-evolution operates. If the female bee’s colour patterns change
even slightly for any reason during evolution, pollination success will be reduced
unless the Orchid flower co-evolves to maintain the resemblance of its petal to the
female .dusted with pollen from the flower.
8. Species facing competition might evolve mechanism that promotes
coexistence rather than exclusion. Justify this statement in light of Gause’s
exclusion principle, citing suitable examples.
Ans: Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ states that two closely related species
competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the
competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. This may be true if
resources are limiting, but not otherwise. More recent studies do not support such
gross generalizations about competition. While they do not rule out the occurrence
of inter-specific competition in nature, they point out that species facing
competition might evolve mechanisms that promote co-existence rather than
exclusion. One such mechanism is ‘resource partitioning’. If two species compete
for the same resource, they could avoid competition by choosing, for instance,
different times for feeding or different foraging patterns. MacArthur showed that

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five closely related species of warblers living on the same tree were able to avoid
competition and co-exist due to behavioral differences in their foraging activities
9.. What is altitude sickness? What its causes and symptoms? How does human
body try to overcome altitude sickness? Breathlessness at high attitudes:
Ans: Cause : Low atmospheric pressure at high altitudes due to which body does not
get enough oxygen.
Symptoms: Nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations.
Body adapts by:
(a) Increasing red blood cell production
(b) Decreasing binding affinity of haemoglobin
(c) By increasing breathing rate.

10. Name the type of interactions seen in each of the following examples:
(a) Ascaris worms living in the intestine of Human
Ans: Parasitism
(b) Wasp pollinating fig inflorescence :
Ans: Mutualsim
(c) Clown fish living among the tentacles of Sea –anemone
Ans: Commensalism
(d) Mycorrhizae living on the roots of higher plants
Ans: Mutualsim
(e) Orchid growing on the branch of a Mango tree.
Ans: Commensalism
(f) Disappearance of smaller barnacles when Balanus dominated in the coast
of Scotland.
Ans: Competitive release
11. Name the interaction in each of the following:
a) Cuscuta growing on a shoe flower plant.
b) Mycorrhiza living on the roots of higher plants.
c) Clown fish living among the tentacles of sea anemone.
d) Koel laying her eggs in crow's nest.
e) Five closely related species of warblers living on the same tree

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Ans: a). Parasitism

b). Mutualism
c). Commensalism
d). Brood parasitism
e).Competition with resource partitioning.

CHAPTER -14

ECOSYSTEM

ONE MARK QUESTIONS

1. Define ecosystem.

Ans: An ecosystem can be visualized as a functional unit of nature, where living

organisms interact among themselves and also with the surrounding physical
environment.

2. Mention the two categories of ecosystem.

Ans: Terrestrial and the aquatic

3. Give an example for manmade ecosystem.

Ans: Crop fields and an aquarium is considered as man-made ecosystems.

4. Define primary production.

Ans: Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter

produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis.

5. What is the unit for measuring primary production?

Ans: It is expressed in terms of weight (g – 2) or energy (kcal m – 2)

6. Define the term "productivity".

Ans: The rate of biomass production is called productivity.

7. What is the unit of measurement for productivity?

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Ans: It is expressed in terms of g –2 yr –1 or (kcal m – 2) yr –1 to compare the

productivity of different ecosystems.

8. Define Gross Primary Productivity.

Ans: Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic

matter during photosynthesis.

9. Why GPP is not equal to NPP?

Ans: A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants in respiration.

10. Define Net primary productivity.

Ans: Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary
productivity (NPP)

11. What is secondary productivity?

Ans: Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by
consumers.

12. What is the annual net primary productivity of whole biosphere?

Ans: The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170
billion tons (dryweight) of organic matter.

13. What is the productivity of oceans?

Ans: The productivity of the oceans is only 55 billion tons. Rest of course, is on land.

14. What is decomposition?

Ans: The process by which decomposers break down complex organic matter into
inorganic substances like carbon dioxide, water and nutrients and the process is
called decomposition.

15. What is detritus?

Ans: Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers and dead remains of animals,
including faecal matter, constitute detritus,

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16. What is the raw material for decomposition?

Ans: Detritus is the raw material for decomposition.

17. What are producers in an ecosystem?

Ans: The green plant in the ecosystem-terminology are called producers

18. What are consumers in an ecosystem?

Ans: All animals depend on plants (directly or indirectly) for their food needs. They are
hence called consumers and also heterotrophs

19. With what the detritus food chain begins?

Ans: The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with dead organic matter.

20. What is standing crop?

Ans: Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called
as the standing crop

21. How the standing crop is is measured?

Ans: The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the
number in aunit area

22. What is 10% law?

Ans: The number of trophic levels in the grazing food chain is restricted as the transfer
of energy follows 10 per cent law – only 10 per cent of the energy is transferred to
each trophic level from the lower trophic level

23. Which pyramid is always upright?

Ans: Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy
flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level.

24. Why pyramid of energy cannot be inverted?

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Ans: Because,when the energy flows from a particular tropic level to the next tropic
level.

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Why the primary productivity differs in different ecosystems?

Ans: Primary productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area. It
also depends on a variety of environmental factors, availability of nutrients and
photosynthetic capacity of plants. Therefore, it varies in different types of
ecosystems.

2. Depict a simple grazing food chain.

Ans: A simple grazing food chain (GFC) is depicted below:

Grass→ Goat → Man

(Producer)→ (Primary Consumer) → (Secondary consumer)

3. Write a note on detritus food chain.

Ans: Detritus food chain: Begins with dead organic matter (detritus) and pass through
detritus feeding organism in soil to organisms feeding on detritus-feeders.

In aquatic ecosystem GFC is the major conduit for energy flow.

In terrestrial ecosystems a much larger fraction of energy flows through the

detritus food chain than through GFC.

4. Cite an example of an inverted ecological pyramid. What kind of pyramid of

energywould it have?

Ans: Pyramid of biomass of sea. Always upright.

5 List the two types of nutrient cycles.

Ans: Nutrient cycles are of two types: (a) gaseous and (b) sedimentary.

6. Explain the impact of human activity of carbon cycle.

Ans: Human activities have significantly influenced the carbon cycle.

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Rapid deforestation and massive burning of fossil fuel for energy and transport
have significantly increased the rate of release of carbon dioxide into the
atmosphere

7. What are decomposers? Write their function.

Ans: a) Saprotrophs feed on dead bodies of organisms,

b) Decomposition and mineralization.

8. What is the difference between gaseous and sedimentary cycle?

Ans: a) Gaseous-Reservoir in atmosphere, Carbon/Nitrogen cycle

b) Sedimentary-Soil, eg-phosphorus.

9. Why is the length of a food chain in an ecosystem generally limited to 3-4

trophic levels?

Ans: As 90% energy is lost in the form of heat from one trophic level to another,
residual energy decreases drastically within 2-3 trophic levels.

10. What are the differences between detritus and grazing food chains?

Ans: a) Begins with Detritus-dead and decaying organic matter.

b) Grazing-Begins withliving green plants.

11. What are the two basic catagories of ecosystem? Give example.

Ans: a) Terrestrial-Forest, grassland, desert.

b) Aquatic-Pond, lake, sea, ocean

12. Mention two factors by which productivity is limited in an aquatic

ecosystem.

Ans: a) Light-decreases with increasing water depth.

b) Nutrient –Limiting factor in deep Ocean.

13. What is food chain? Give an example.

Ans: a) Food and feeding relation among organisms makes a chain like structure

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b) Grass—Deer—Lion

14. "Flow of energy is unidirectional but nutrient flow is in a cycle" Give reason

Ans: Energy flow is always from the sun to 'producers' and to the different trophic
levels. so it is unidirectional. But the nutrients are moving from the living to non-
living and vice-versa.

15. "Decomposition is an oxygen requiring process" comment.

Ans: Detritus is rich in nitrogen and sugars. For oxidation of nitrogen and sugars
oxygen is required by a class of aerobic microbes.

16. Some organisms are called top carnivores. Why? Give some examples.

Ans: Top carnivores do not have direct predators. so they are referred to as top
carnivoreseg: Man, Lion, Tiger etc.

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. What are the limitations of ecological pyramids?
Ans:
• It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more
trophic levels.
• It assumes a simple food chain, it never exits in nature.
• It does not accommodate food web.
• Saprophytes are not given place in ecological pyramids
2. How does phosphorus cycle differs from carbon cycle?
Ans: There is no respiratory release of phosphorus into atmosphere. Atmospheric
inputs of phosphorus through rainfall are much smaller. Gaseous exchange of
phosphorus between organism and environment are negligible.
3. Explain how does a primary succession start on a bare rock and reach climax
community.
Ans: The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary
succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to
dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation. These later pave way to
some very small plants like bryophytes, which are able to take hold in the small
amount of soil. They are, with time, succeeded by bigger plants,and after several
more stages, ultimately a stable climax forest community is formed. The climax

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community remains stable as long as the environment remains unchanged. With

timethe xerophytic habitat gets converted into a mesophytic one.
4. Explain how does a primary succession start on a bare rock and reach climax
community.
Ans: The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary
succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to
dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation. These later pave way to
some very small plants like bryophytes, which are able to take hold in the small
amount of soil. They are, with time, succeeded by bigger plants,and after several
more stages, ultimately a stable climax forest community is formed. The climax
community remains stable as long as the environment remains unchanged. With
time xerophytic habitat gets converted into a mesophytic one.

5. Answer the following:

a) Explain primary productivity and the factors influence it.
b) Describe how oxygen and chemical composition of detritus control
decomposition do.
Ans: a) Primary productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular
area. It also depends on a variety of environmental factors, availability of nutrients
and photosynthetic capacity of plants. Therefore, it varies in different types of
ecosystems. The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is
approximately 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic
matter. Of this, despite occupying about 70 per cent of the surface, the
productivity of the oceans is only 55 billion tons. Rest of course, is on land.
b) Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring process. The rate of
decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus and climatic
factors. In a particular climatic condition, decomposition rate is slower if detritus
is rich in lignin and chitin, and quicker, if detritus is rich in nitrogen and water-
soluble substances like sugars. Temperature and soil moisture are the most
important climatic factors that regulate decomposition through their effects on the
activities of soil microbes. Warm and moist environment favour decomposition
whereas low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition resulting in
buildup of organic materials.

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6. Under what circumstances secondary succession does begins? Why does it

proceed faster than primary succession?
Ans: Secondary succession begins in areas where natural biotic communities have
destroyed such as in abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests, lands that
have been flooded. Since some soil or sediment is present, succession is faster
than primary succession

7. Explain why ecological succession will be faster in a forest devastated by fire

than on a bare rock? Also compare succession in case of an abandoned land
after floods with that on a bare rock?
Ans: Since some soil or sediment is present, succession is faster in a forest devastated
by fire than on a bare rock.In secondary succession in an abandoned land after
floods, the species that invade depend on
the condition of the soil, availability of water, the environment as also the seeds or
other prop gules present. Since soil is already there, the rate of succession is
much faster and hence, climax is also reached more quickly.
On a bare rock, the establishment of a new biotic community is generally slow.
Before a biotic community of diverse organisms can become established, there
must be soil. Depending mostly on the climate, it takes natural processes several
hundred to several thousand years to produce fertile soil on bare rock

8. How does primary succession start in water and lead to the climax
community?Explain.
Ans: In primary succession in water, the pioneers are the small phytoplanktons, they
are replaced with time by free-floating angiosperms, then by rooted hydrophytes,
sedges, grasses and finally the trees. The climax again would be a forest. With
time the water body is converted into land

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9. Schematically represent simplified model of carbon cycle

Ans:

10. Schematically represent simplified model of phosphorus cycle

Ans:.

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FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

1. Describe pond ecosystem.
Ans: The abiotic components include all dissolved inorganic and organic substances
and the rich soil deposit at the bottom of the pond.
The solar input, cycle of temperature, day length, regulates the rater of function of
the entire pond.
The producer (autotrophic) includes phytoplankton, some algae and the floating,
submerged and marginal plants found in edge of pond.
The consumers are represented by zooplankton, free swimming and bottom
dwelling animals
.
2. Describe the process of decomposition.
Ans: The decomposers are the fungi, bacteria especially abundant at the bottom of the
pond. Detritivores (e.g., earthworm) break down detritus into smaller particles.
This process is called fragmentation. By the process of leaching, water- soluble
inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon andget precipitated as
unavailable salts. Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into
simplerinorganic substances. This process is called as catabolism.It is important
to note that all the above steps in decomposition operate simultaneously on the
Humification and mineralization occur during decomposition in the soil.
Humification leads to accumulation of a dark colored amorphous substance called
humus that is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at
an extremely slow rate. Being colloidal in nature it serves as a reservoir of
nutrients. The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of
inorganic nutrients occurs by the process known as mineralization.

3. Explain the factors affecting the process of decomposition.

Ans:
• Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring process.
The rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus
and climatic factors.In a particular climatic condition, decomposition rate is
slower if detritus is rich in lignin andchitin, and quicker, if detritus is rich in
nitrogen and water-soluble substances like sugars.
• Temperature and soil moisture are the most important climatic factors that
regulate decomposition through their effects on the activities of soil
microbes.
• Warm and moist environment favour decomposition whereas low
temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition resulting in build up of
organic materials

4. Detrivores like earthworm are involved in the process of decomposition of

dead plants and animals. Describe the different steps involved in the process
of decomposition.
Ans: The dead remains of plants and animals called detritus undergo decomposition
and are converted into simpler substances. The steps of this process are:

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(i) Fragmentation : Breakdown of detritus into smaller pieces by detrivores like

earthworm.
(ii) Leaching : Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into soil horizon and get
precipitated unavailable salts.
(iii) Catabolism: Bacterial and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into simpler
inorganic substances.
(iv) Humification : It leads to accumulation of dark coloured amorphous
substance called humus which is highly resistant to microbial action so
decomposes at slow rate and is rich in nutrients.
(v) Mineralization : Humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of
inorganic

CHAPTER-15
BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
ONE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Define biodiversity.
Ans: The totality of all living organisms OR A collection of variety of all life forms.
2. When did the first life come into existence ?
Ans: Around 3.5 bya (billion years ago)
3. Who coined the term biodiversity ?
Ans: Walter Rosen.
4 Who developed the concept of biodiversity ?
Ans: Edward O. Wilson
5. Name the different levels of biodiversity.
Ans: Habitat diversity, species diversity and genetic diversity.
6. What is genetic diversity ?
Ans: It is the variation at the level of individual genes.
7. What is species diversity ?
Ans: Variety of different species in a given geographical area.
8. Define a species.
Ans: A group of closely related organisms which can interbreed to produce viable and
fertile offsprings.
9. Define habitat diversity.
Ans: It is the various habitats available for organisms in the ecosystem.
10. What is alpha diversity?

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Ans: Diversity of living organisms within the community or different communities

sharing the same habitat.
11. Define beta diversity .
Ans: Diversityof organisms between the communities in the given geographic area.
12. What is gamma diversity ?
Ans: It is the diversity of organisms / habitats over a large geographical area.
13. Expand SAR as in SAR curve
Ans: Species Area Relationship curve.
14. Which of the Indian region is considered as cradle of speciation ?
Ans: Eastern Himalayas
15. What are biodiversity hotspots ?
Ans: Habitats with rich endemism and the species are prone to endanger.
16. Name the biodiversity hotspots in India.
Ans: Western Ghats and Eastern Himalayas.
17. Expand UNEP.
Ans: United Nations Environment Programme, 1995.
18. What is latitudinal gradient ?
Ans: Diversity index used to show the distribution of flora and fauna from the poles to
the tropics.
19. Why does tropics contain rich species diversity than temperate region ?
Ans: Tropics are subjected to lesser temperature fluctuations and receive more solar
energy.
20. What is biodiversity depletion ?
Ans: Loss of life forms is biodiversity depletion.
21. What do you mean by co-extinction ?
Ans: Simultaneous extinction of multiple species where one is dependent on other
species.
22. Write an example for alien species.
Ans: Water hyacinth (Eichhornia sp), Lantana camara etc.
23. What are invasive species ?
Ans: A foreign species that grow and reproduce rapidly causing major disturbance in
the habitats.
24. What are key stone species ?
Ans: Organism that helps to maintain species diversity within an ecosystem by keeping
the number of other species in a ecosystem constant.

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25. Expand RDB.

Ans: Red Data Book.
26. Why should we conserve biodiversity?
Ans: Biodiversity provides economical, ecological and ethical benefits to the mankind.
27. What is mass extinction ?
Ans: Extinction of large scale species due to environmental catastrophe.
28. What are threatened species ?
Ans: The species which are either endangered or vulnerable
29. What are vulnerable species ?
Ans: Species which are likely to become endangered if environmental degradation
continue to persist.
30. What are rare species ?
Ans: A small population which are neither endangered nor vulnerable but are at the
risk.
31. What are endangered species ?
Ans: Species which are in the dangers of extinction due to the loss of natural habitats.
32. What are critically endangered species ?
Ans: Species which is at extremely high risk of extinction.
33. Expand IUCN.
Ans: International Union for Conservation of Nature and natural resources.

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. What is the importance of species diversity to the ecosystem ?
Ans: Any community with more species generally tends to be more stable than those
with less species. The stable community must be resilient to the occasional
disturbances. The stable community should not show any variation in less period
of time. Increased diversity contributes to higher productivity of any ecosystem.
2. Explain briefly the evil quartet of biodiversity losses.
Ans: The four major causes of biodiversity loss are;
• Habitat loss – degradation of natural habitats are threatening the species.
• Over-exploitation – Need turned greed have led to over exploitation of natural
resources.
• Alien species – Invasion of alien species in the natural habitats cause decline
in the native species.

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• Co-extinction – when one organism becomes extinct , the other associated

obligatory species also tend to extinct.
3. Differentiate in-situ and ex-situ conservation method of biodiversity
conservation.
Ans: In-situ conservation Ex-situ conservationConservation of species in the natural
habitat conservation out of the natural habitat.Most appropriate method
Alternative method.Speciesprotection/assemblage
protection/habitatpreservation/nationalparks/sanctuaries/reserves/sacredgroves
/sacred landscape etc.bank/cryopreservation etc.
4. What are sacred groves and sacred species ? Give one example each.
Ans: Sacred groves are traditionally conserved forest patches and are dedicated to the
local deity. Ex. Mausmai in Meghalaya, Western Ghat region of Karnataka.Sacred
species are traditionally conserved and protected plant or animal species which
are of cultural and religious importance. Ex. Tulsi, Neem, Cow etc.
5. Despite having the great biodiversity why is Amazon rain forest is under the
risk of desertification.
Ans: Naturally the soil is not fertile but the continuous falling of leaves from the
vegetation cover covers the soil. Deforestation reduces this enrichment. In the
deforested areas when the rain water falls directly on to the soil causes erosion.
Moreover deforestation does not allow recycling of essential nutrients for the
plants. Hence the rainforests and their neighbourhood areas are under the threat
of desertification.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS:

1. What is the importance of biodiversity? Explain the causes of loss of

biodiversity.
Ans: Biodiversity is important for maintaining the balance in the ecosystem. The
continuous flow of energy is maintained in the ecosystem.The loss of biodiversity
is the cause of great concern. It includes habitat loss, overexploitation, intensive
farming, mining, desertification, erosion, over grazing,deforestation, pollution,

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acidification of soil and water, urbanization etc. Have accelerated the process of
biodiversity depletion.Habitat loss is the destruction of ecosystem by unwanted
human activities such as urbanization, intensive farming, deforestation, mining
activities and so on. When the vegetation is cleared for human activities the
continuous habitats become fragmented. This is called habitat fragmentation.
When fragments are formed it restricts the movement of organism across the
fragments thereby reducing the gene flow and there will be decline the species
composition. Thick forests receive large amount of water thereby evaporation and
transpiration maintains water cycle. Disappearance of large habitats makes it
vulnerable to draught and desertification. Over exploitation is the harvesting of
renewable resources to the extent of diminishing return. Such act would lead to
complete destruction and extinction of the natural resources. Alien species
invasion into the natural grounds has resulted in thinning the indigenous species.
There will be no predation to such alien species and there number keeps
increasing causing a problem.Co extinction is the simultaneous extinction of
multiple species when one is directly associated with other. When hosts become
extinct the parasites also become extinct.
2. Explain the benefits of biodiversity.
Ans: Biodiversity is known for the multiple benefits such as economical (narrowly
utilitarian), ecological (Broadly utilitarian) and ethical benefits. Narrow utilitarian
includes economical benefits such as food, medicine, industrial and
bioprospecting. Foods include cereals, pulses, fruits, vegetables, wheat, rice,
millets, rice etc are obtained from plants. From over 10000 varieties of cereals
wheat, rice and corn fulfils one third of the total food demand. IARI identified
lesser known plants and animal having food value. Medicines such as morphine
form poppy seeds, taxol from bark of yew tree.Indian system of medicine uses over
25,000 different plant based formulations as drugs.Majority of cancerous drugs
are obtained from the plants itself.
Industrial products such as tannins, dyes, resins are also obtained from the
plants. Bioprospecting is the exploration of molecular, genetic and species
level diversity for the products of economic importance.Broadly utilitarian deals
with unlimited ecological services rendered by biodiversity tothe mankind. Viz.,
pollination, release of oxygen, esthetic value related to the integrity of ecosystems.
Pollination by insects, birds, bats and animals is the supreme ecological service
which is crucial to the plants. Plants by way of photo-ionization of water during

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photosynthesis produce elemental oxygen as one of the end products. This oxygen
gas is responsible for
keeping all the aerobic organisms alive. Modern man has been utilizing habitats
for recreational and aesthetic values. The economical upliftment and awareness
about the biodiversity conservation comes from activities like hiking, camping,
gardening, cliff hanging, mountaining, bird watching, sport fishing etc.

CHAPTER-16
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
ONE MARKS SOLUTION
1. Define pollution.
Ans: Undesirable change in the environment physically, chemically and biologically due
to the addition of pollutants.
2. What are biodegradable pollutants?
Ans: The pollutants which are degraded in the nature by the microbes over a period of
time.
3. What are the primary components of acid rain ?
Ans: Oxides of sulphur, Oxides of and water.
4. What is CNG?
Ans: CNG is Compressed Natural Gas which burns completely and is a good substitute
for diesel.
5. Define water pollution.
Ans: An undesirable change in the nature of water rendering unfit for human
consumption.
6. Which of the pollutant element caused minamata disease ?
Ans: Mercury.
7. What is the effect of asbestos on animal and human health ?
Ans: It causes gastric and intestinal cancer.
8. Define eutrophication.
Ans: It is a natural process of ageing of any water body due to the influx of rich
nutrients.
9. What is biomagnifications?
Ans: The process of accumulation of toxins in the cells and tissues with increased
concentrations along the food chain.
10. Expand DDT.
Ans: Dichloro-Diphenyl-Trichloroethane.
11. What are indicator species? OR What are bioindicators ?
Ans: Certain species whose presence or dominance foretell or predict the change in the
environment in the near future.
12. What is ecosan ?
Ans: Ecosan is ecological sanitation. This approach is useful in converting the solid
human excreta into manure.
13. What is a solid waste ?
Ans: Any garbage which is considered as useless.

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14. What is E-waste ?

Ans: It is the electronic waste which includes irreparable components of electronic
gadgets.
15. Name the green house gases.
Ans: Carbon dioxide, methane, Chloro-Fluoro-Carbon, ozone etc.
16. What is global warming?
Ans: The raised atmospheric temperature by the increase in the concentration of green
house gases.
17. Who coined the term Green House Effect ?
Ans: Arrhenius and J. Fourier in 1827.
18. What is ozone hole ?
Ans: Decrease in the thickness of ozone in the stratosphere due to CFC release.
19. What are freons ?
Ans: Chloro-Fluoro-Carbons are called freons.
20. Name any one people’s participation in the conservation of forests.
Ans: Chipko movement in Uttarakhand, Joint Forest Management (JFM).

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS.

1. Why is the load of biodegradable material dangerous to the water bodies?

Ans: When the large amount of sewage water enters into the ponds, rivers, lakes, seas
and oceans, it reduces the amount of free oxygen. This depletes the respiratory
oxygen levels and causes suffocation for aquatic fauna thereby killing aquatic life.
BOD is measured to assess the quality of water with respect to the amount of
organic load.

2. Explain the effects of air pollution.

Ans: Carbon monoxide pollutant - Inhalation of CO combines with haemoglobin of
blood to form carboxy haemoglobin which reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of
blood.
Sulphur dioxide gas - Causes chlorosis, defoliation in plants.
Irritation to throat & eyes, respiratory diseases in animals.

3. Briefly explain Biological Oxygen Demand in water.

Ans: When the water is eutrophic, BOD values cross 1.0 level. It is a test used to
determine the amount of oxygen needed by microbes to breakdown organic matter
completely into inorganic materials over a period of time. When the amount of
organic load is more in the water the BOD value also increases.

4. Why is waste considered as hazardous and the major environmental issue ?

Ans: The wastes have increased immensely in the present time due to anthropocentric
activities. As the industrialization produces maximum residues, the nature is not
able to degrade it completely in the given period of time. Hence they accumulate
and cause adverse effects to organisms including man. To overcome this havoc,
waste depositories could be used where the wastes are compressed and buried
Underground which may be hazardous in the future days. Alternative method
being incineration where wastes are burnt completely yet there is a risk of air
pollution.

5. What are the reasons for the degradation of natural resources by improper
resources utilization and maintenance?

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Ans: Soil erosion – removal of the fertile top soil by wind and water action, human
interventions like modern agricultural practices, deforestation etc.
Desertification – degradation of fertile and into sterile barren land. It results in the
destruction of natural vegetation cover making prone to erosion thereby losing the
nutrients. The main causes are climatic changes, over grazing, intensive
cultivation, deforestation, improper irrigation methods etc.
Water logging – irrigation without proper drainage makes water log. It brings
underground salts to the surface. It is called soil salinity. When this is absorbed
by the roots hinders the growth of the plants.

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS.

1. Discuss the causes and effects of global warming. What measures to be taken
to control global warming ?.
Ans: The largest ecological unit is the biosphere. Global warming & green house effect
are the two faces of a single coin. 'The raised atmospheric temperature by the
increase in concentration of green house gases is global warming.' CO2 & water
vapour absorb IR radiation & become hot. Pierre laplace observed the operation of
the atmosphere to a green house. The earth harbouring all forms of life is a green
house.It is covered by an atmospheric blanket having gases. These gases reflect
30% of sun’s heat & traps 70%. This is called green house effect. Water vapour,
CO2, N2O, , CH4, O3 gases are trapped by the atmosphere. These gases are called
green house gases (GHGs). Increased global warming causes problem to all
organisms.
Causes
It is caused mainly due to CO2, automobiles, burning coals by power plants, soil
erosion, desertification, increased CFC output into atmosphere etc.
Effects
The effects are extreme heat waves killing life. Arctic polar ice cap is declining at
the rate of 9% per decade, rise is the sea level to flood certain countries like
Bangladesh, Maldives etc. It causes food & water shortage. Destruction of
underwater cities (coral reefs) & meadows result in extinction. But only in the
colder climatic regions global warming brings comfort but in various other places
its effect is negative.
Control measures
• Constructing green houses in winter for plants. The green house allows only light
to enter into the house & the heat is kept inside the house. This provides warmth
to the plants.
• Reforestation replaces maximum carbon dioxide by oxygen.
• Reduction of fossil fuel burning can minimize global warming.
• Hybrid gas electric engines can cut global warming by one third.
• Recycling products can conserve energy as they are made from used ones.
Using natural resources like wind energy, solar energy and wave energy may help
to overcome global warming. Conservation of energy by using eco-friendly bulbs,
carpooling and adopting CFC free zone.

2. What is ozone layer? How will the enhanced ultraviolet radiation affect us ?
Ans: Ozone is a form of oxygen that is in the form of unstable O3 gas which lies as a
belt with pungent odour in the stratosphere of the earth’s atmosphere. This layer
absorbs ultraviolet radiation shorter than 290nμ wavelength & prevents UV
radiation from reaching the earth’s surface.
It is also contributed by oxides of Nitrogen & hydrocarbons. Burning of fossil fuels
contribute oxide of Nitrogen. Hydrocarbons & Nitrogen oxides react together in the

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presence of UV radiation resulting in Peroxy-Acetyl-Nitrate (PAN) & ozone, together

they form photochemical smog.
Suphate aerosol emitted through volcanic eruptions cause O3 depletion. Chloro-
Fluoro-Carbon from air conditioners, refrigerators, coolers, coolants cross the
ozone & react with UV rays & chlorine is separated from CFC. And the chlorine
atom attacks ozone and converts as many as 100,000 molecules of ozone into
oxygen and nascent oxygen. CFCs result in the formation of ozone holes through
which UV radiation reaches earth’s surface directly causing skin cancer,
blindness, cataract, herpes, reduces immune functioning etc. Plants show reduced
rate of photosynthesis, retarded growth. UV damages nucleic acids leading to more
number of mutations. Minimizing the burning of fossil fuels, replacing CFC with
substitutes & ban on CFC emitting materials, reducing rocket firing activities are
certain measures to control ozone
depletion.

3. Discuss briefly
i)Radio-active wastes.
ii) Defunct ships and e-wastes
iii) Municipal solidwastes.

Radioactive wastes are the products of nuclear power stations or weapons which
emit radioactive particles. Low level radiation wastes have low level radioactivity.
These are produced in the laboratory while using radioactive isotopes,
radiotherapy etc. High level radioactive wastes are destructive and are produced
from the atomic reactors. These pollutants are highly dangerous and the wastes
need to be buried deeper into the earth. Defunct ships are the worn out and
damaged, sunken ships or vessels that need to be dismantled as scrap. They are
also hazardous to the health as they contain asbestos, mercury, lead etc.

E-wastes are the electronic wastes that are not useful anymore to the computer
and need to be recycled as they contain copper, iron, silicon, gold, and cause
hazard to the health of organisms.

Municipal solid wastes are the debris generated from human habitation, offices,
schools, colleges, hospitals and other public utility buildings. The waste may
include unused food, spoilt food, medicines, waste clothes, garbage, garden waste,
dust, used furniture’s, old appliances, news papers, plastics, bottles, broken
objects, metallic goods, bandages, syringes, urine, stool, blood, worn and torn foot
wares etc.
all these wastes need to be segregated and disposed either by natural composting,
vermicomposting, dumping in the dumping yard or burning into ashes.

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