ANSWER AND RATIONALE e.

assumes 36º position when it alights

on wall
COMMUNICABLE DISEASE a. 4 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
NURSING
Level II-Comprehensive Review
November 2008

1. Nurse Linda is caring for a client with

diphtheria. She is aware that Swabbing of
nose and throat must be avoided to prevent
1. Ans. B
which of the following reasons?
a. coughing c. irritation
b. bleeding d. membrane scale off

2. Signs and symptoms of schistosomiasis are

the following except:
a. low grade fever
2. Ans. B
b. diarrhea and dark tarry stool
c. diarrhea and mucoid stool
d. fever and chills
e. enlarged abdomen with abdominal pain
a. 1, 2, & 3 c. 3, & 4
b. 1 & 3 d. 1, 2, & 5

3. A nurse is aware that the mode of

transmission of Gonorrhea are the following
except:
3. Ans. C
a. Transmitted by contact with exudates of
infected persons, such as a result of
sexual activity
b. Transmitted through direct contact with
contaminated vaginal secretions of the
mother as the baby comes out of the
birth canal
c. acquired through orogenital contact
d. acquired through anogenital contact
e. transmitted through fomites.
a. 1 only c. none of the
above
b. 5 only d. 2 & 3

4. Prevention and of Gonorrhea are which of

4. Ans. D – A nursing management not
the following except:
prevention
a. sex education
b. case finding
c. incidence to be reported to health
authorities
d. administer ophthalmic prophylaxis as
ordered

5. Which of the following is not a characteristic

5. Ans. B Rationale - It is bigger in size
of the female Anopheles mosquito?
a. breads in clear, flowing, and shaded
streams
b. smaller in size than the ordinary
mosquito
c. it is brown in color
d. it is a night biting mosquito

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6. Which of the following statements is not true
about Rubeola?
a. It is an acute, contagious and
exanthematous disease caused by
filterable virus
b. single attack conveys a lifelong immunity
c. the pathognomonic sign are Koplick’s
spots
d. preventive measure includes
immunization of anti measles at the age
of 8 months,as a single dose. 7. Ans. B Rationale: this is not included.
Complication of measles.
c. this may occur in females
7. Mumps is an acute viral disease manifested
by the swelling of one or both parotid glands.
Which of the following is not included as
complication of this disease?
a. nuchal rigidity c. oophoritis
b. otitis media d. orchitis 8. Ans. B Rationale: Transmitted by the
tiny snail but not by eating of the tiny
snail.
8. The mode of transmission of snail fever are
the following except:
a. ingestion of contaminated water
b. eating of the tiny snail, the intermediary
host.
c. the disease is transmitted through the
skin pores.
d. the disease is transmitted through an
intermediary host, called Oncomeania
quadrasi
9. Ans. C Rationale: These are preventive
measures except 4 & 5
9. A nurse is giving health education about
Schistosomiasis. Which of the following
measures should the nurse include in her
teaching about prevention and control of
schistosomiasis?
a. having a stool examination
b. constructing canals to dry land surface
where the snails thrive
c. proper waste disposal
d. knowledge how the disease is spread
e. not minding children from bathing in
infested streams.
f. not disturbing the living condition of the
snails
a. 1, 2, 3 c. 1, 2, 3, & 4
b. all of the above d. 1, 2, 4, & 5 10. Ans, C Rationale: There is no
meningitis; hepatomegally is a clinical
10. Which of the following is not a complication manifestation of abdominal discomfort.
of schistosomiasis?
a. liver cirrhosis, portal hypertension
b. cor pulmonale, pulomonary hypertension
c. meningitis & hepatomegally
d. ascitis, renal failure 11. Which of the following statements is not
true about ascariasis?
6. Ans. D Rationale: Immunization given at 9 a. It is an infection caused by a parasitic
months of age. round worm.

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 b. It is transmitted only through
contaminated finger put into the mouth
c. It occurs worldwide but it is most common
in tropical regions
d. Prevention includes improved sanitation
and hygienic practices. 12. Ans. B Rationale: Isolation is not
necessary
12. A nurse is giving health education to parents
about hookworm disease. A parent needs
further education when she states:
a. “Hookworm feeds on human blood.”
b. “I need to isolate my daughter if she got
hookworm.”
c. “I should not allow my child walk
barefooted.”
d. “ Children infected with worms are often
mentally and physically underdeveloped.”
13. Ans. A Rationale: Option A is not a
13. Prevention and control of typhoid fever are prevention but treatment
the following except:
a. administration of chloramphenicol, the
drug of choice.
b. sanitary and proper disposal of excreta
c. adequate protection or provision of safe
drinking water supply
d. Proper supervision of food handlers
14. Ans. c. Rationale: Mode of
14. Which of the following is/are not a source/s transmission is oral-fecal; body
of infection of typhoid fever? secretions are not sources of infection.
a. A person who was infected and
considered a potential carrier.
b. ingestion of shellfish taken from waters
contaminated by sewage disposal
c. stools of infected individual
d. vomitus of infected individual
e. body secretions of infected individual
a. 4 & 5 c. 5 only
b. 4 only d. NOTA
15. Ans. D Rationale: skin is cold not warm
15. A nurse is aware that the clinical
manifestations of Cholera are the following
except:
a. acute, profuse, watery diarrhea
b. “rice water” stool, slightly fishy in odor
c. vomiting that occurs after diarrhea
d. warm skin that is poor in turgur. 16. Ans. D

16. The period of communicability of amoebic

dysentery is which of the following?
a. 10 days
b. 2 weeks
c. one day after the administration of drugs 17. Included in the four C’s in the
d. for the entire duration of illness management of HIV or AIDS are the
11. Ans. B.. Rationale: Not only through following except:
contaminated fingers put into the mouth but a. compliance c. counseling
also through ingestion of foods and drinks b. contact tracing d. NOTA
contaminated with embryonated eggs.
18. Prevention of HIV/ are the following
except:

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 a. patients with AIDS should be isolated
b. Blood and other specimens should be
labeled “AIDS Precaution.” 18. Ans, A Rationale: Only those with
c. Needles should be disposed into a active AIDS should be isolated.
puncture resistant container
d. Blood spills should be cleaned with
chlorox.

19. A mother of a rabid patient asked the nurse

what causes rabies. The nurse is correct
when she states that it is mainly due to what 19. Ans. A Rationale: A rhabdovirus of the
type of virus? genus Lyssa virus
a. rhabdovirus c. retrovirus
b. paramyxovirus d. flavivirus

20. Which of the following manifestations will

alarm the nurse for possible rabies infection 20. Ans. A Rationale: Manifest during the
in an untreated dog bite victim? prodromal phase. Characterized by:
a. myalgia, fever c. nasal fever, anoresxia, malaise, sore throat,
congestion copious salivation, lacrimation, irritability,
b. jaundice d. profuse sweating perpiration (not profuse), hyperexitability,
restlessness, mental depression,
21. The nurse admitting a rabid client is aware melancholia, marked insomia.
that the type of isolation required for the 21. Ans. A Rationale: This is the isolation
patient is: required for the virulent infection.
a. strict isolation c. contact
isolation
b. respiratory isolation d. enteric isolation
22. Ans. C Rationale: It is a parasitic
22. The following statements are correct disease (caused by 4 species of
except? protozoa) not bacterial disease.
a. Bird’s flu is also known as avian
influenza.
b. Meningitis is the inflammation of the
meninges of the brain and spinal cord as
a result of viral and bacterial infection.
c. Malaria is a chronic and chronic bacterial
disease transmitted by the bite of
infected mosquitoes.
d. Herpes simplex is a viral disease
characterized by the appearance of 23. Ans. B
sores and blisters.

23. The mode of transmission of malaria are the

following except:
a. through the bite of an infected female
anopheles mosquito
b. transmitted trough blood transfusion
c. using eating utensils used by client with
malaria
d. transmitted through respiratory droplet
a. 1 & 2 c. 2 & 3
b. 3 & 4 d. NOTA
24. Tetanus n infectious disease caused by
clostridium tetani. Which of the following
is not true about the disease?
17. Ans. D Rationale: In addition to the 4C’s is a. It is fatal up to 60% of unimmunized
Condom individuals.

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 b. The organism could be found in animal
and human feces.
c. Normally, the mode of transmission is
through punctured wound that is
contaminated by dust, soil or animal
excreta containing the organism
d. Clinical manifestations in neonate include
“Risus sardonicus” as patognomonic to
the disease.
25. Ans. D
25. Complications resulting from laryngospasm
and involvement of respiratory muscle, client
with tenatus may have the following
complications except:
a. hypoxia
b. atelectasis
c. pneumothorax
d. none of the above
26. Ans. D
26. Preventive and control measures for Dengue
fever can be best achieve by:
a. early detection and treatment of cases
b. treat mosquito nets with insecticides
c. changing water of flower vases once a
week
d. keeping water containers covered
e. avoid too many hanging clothes inside
the house
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 c. 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 4, d. all of the 27. Ans. B
above

27. Which of the following clients should not

receive diptheria vaccine?
a. children with minor illness
b. Children with high fever
c. children undergoing immunosuppressive
therapies
d. children with family history of convulsion
e. children who have experienced an
immediate life-threatening allergic
reaction, after a dose of DPT.
a. all of the above c. 2 & 3
b. 2, 3, & 5 d. 3 & 5

28. Preventive and control measures for

Diptheria can be achieved by which of
the following?
24. Ans. D Rationale: Risus sardonicos a. Cases of diphtheria must be
manifests in older children and adult not in mandatorily reported
neonate b. Mandatory DPT immunization of
babies
c. children under 5 should be given
booster dose of DPT vaccine

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 d. small frequent feeding for patient is
recommended.
e. patient to avoid contact with children until
bacteriologic exam of culture is negative
f. Patient should be isolated for at least 14
days until 3 cultures are reported
negative
a. all of the above c. 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6
b. 2, 3, & 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 5 & 6
29. Ans. C Rationale: This is the mode of
29. Which of the following statements is not true transmission of Diptheria. Encephalitis is
about encephalitis? transmitted to human by the bite of an
a. Etiologic agent is caused by variety of infected mosquito.
pathologic agents including bacteria,
viruses, fungi, rickettsia, toxins, chemical
substances or trauma
b. Incubation period is 5 to 15 days, with a
range of 4 to 21 days.
c. It is transmitted through contact with
patients or articles soiled with discharges
of infected persons
d. Serologic test is the diagnostic exam and
it is 90% confirmatory done on the 7 th day
of illness.
30. Ans. C
30. Preventive measure for hepatitis B can be
best achieve by which of the following?
a. proper hygiene and sanitation
b. sterilization of needles
c. screening of blood donors
d. mass rally
31. Ans. C
31. Prevention and control of STD is made
difficult by which of the following?
a. No drug for specific treatment for STD
b. inefficient government program on STD
c. self medication of infected individuals
d. lack of better laboratory facilities
32. Ans. B Rationale: Common among
32. A mother of a client made the following children. Not common to adults.
statements about incidence of dengue
fever. Which of the following statements
would need reinforcement?
a. Dengue fever may occur at any age, but
it is common among children and adults.
b. Both sexes can be affected
c. It is more frequent during the rainy
season
d. It is more prevalent in urban
communities. 33. The sexually transmitted infectious
disease that can cause permanent injury
to the baby’s eyes at the time of delivery
28. Ans. D Rationale: this option is a nursing is which of the following?
management not a prevention measure. a. syphilis
b. gonorrhea
c. genital herpes(HSV-2)
d. Trichomonas vaginalis

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 34. Ans. C Rationale: There is no effective
treatment for genetalherpes.
34. Which of the following diseases can not A, B, & D. Can be treated
effectively be treated?
a. gonorrhea
b. syphilis
c. genital herpes (HSV-2)
d. Trichomonas Vaginalis
35. Ans. C Rationale: To try and stop the
spread of STD so that they can seek
35. Diagnosis of veneral diseases must be treatment.
reported to the health department. Which of A. This is not a method established to
the following is the main reason for this determine the prevalence of venereal
requirement? disease. When an individual is notified
a. It is the only way of keeping accurate that a person with whom he had sexual
statistics needed to determine the contact has the disease, there is no way
prevalence of venereal disease of knowing if that person has the
b. Required reporting helps the individuals disease.
involved to think about limiting their B. Not the individual to report that he
sexual contacts has venereal disease. It is the clinic or
c. Persons having sexual contacts with the hospital personnel to notify the health
infectious person may need treatment dept.
d. To treat a person with venereal disease D. Can be done/treated by a physician.
adequately, a number of services are No need for other health services.
provided by the health department.

36. A patient 16 years of age, is 22 gestational 36. Ans. D Rationale: Although it can be
age pregnant and confides to the nurse that contracted by the fetus through the
she has genital herpes. She asks if her baby placenta, it is most commonly contracted
will also have the virus. Which of the when the fetus passes through the
following is the nurse’s best response? infected vagina.
a. “This is one of the few vaginal diseases A. It affects the baby
that does not affect the baby, before, B, & C. There is no cure; therefore, there
during and after delivery.” is not treatment for a newborn with the
b. “If treatment is started during pregnancy, virus.
the baby will not be affected.”
c. “The baby will be treated with several
different medications immediately after
delivery, and this will protect it.”
d. “If you have an active infection at term,
cesarean section will be performed, and
the baby probably will not have the
virus.”

33. Ans. B Rationale: STD that can cause 37. Symptoms in women with gonorrhea may
permanent damage to the neonate’s eyes. include which of the following groups?
A. Congenital syphilis occurs when the a. vaginal discharge, red swollen cervix
spirochetes cross the placenta after or vulva, dysuria and urinary
gestational weeks 16 to 18. frequency
C. Fetus can be infected as it comes down b. fever, chills, muscle aches, dysuria,
the birth canal but not the major cause of mucopurulent vaginal discharge, and
eye disesa. chancre sores in the primary stage
D. Does not cause major eye injury to the c. Malaise, urethral discharge, fever,
fetus’s eye. dysuria, and painless chancre in
vaginal area

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 d. purulent discharge, dysuria, pelvic pain,
painful chancre in vaginal area and
vaginal bleeding

38. The most common complication of

gonorrhea is women is which of the
following?
a. genital herpes c. salpingitis
b. scabies d. patchy hair
loss 38. And. C Rationale: The most common
complication.
39. The most common complication of A. A recurrent systemic infection
gonorrhea in women can progress to which B. Caused by mites ; parasites
of the following D. May occur in 2nd stage of syphilis
a. vaginitis 39. Ans. C Rationale: Salpingitis may
b. dysuria progress to PID
c. pelvic inflammatory disease A. A recurrent systemic infection, the
d. generalized skin rash most common cause of genitalulceration
B. Scabies causes inflammation of the
40. Gonorrhea is treated aggressively by one vagina
large dose IM of _______ followed D. Generalized skin rash occur in the 2nd
by__________: stage.
a. Rocephin: Vibramycin or Tetracycline 40. Ans. A Rationale: Gonorrhea is treated
orally for 7 days aggressively by Rocephin IM followed by
b. Penicillin: Ampicillin or Ancef orally for 7 Vibra ot Tetra orally for 7 days.
days B, C, & D. Incorrect.
c. Penicillin: streptomycin orally for 10 days
d. Neomycin: Penicillin 1 dose IM then
orally for 7 days

41. The most commonly occurring STDs are

which of the following? 41. Ans. D Rationale: These are the most
a. syphilis, bacterial vaginosis, and common
chancroid A, B, C Incorrect
b. Herpes simplex -2, syphilis, and hepatitis
c. pubic lice, scabies and syphilis
d. Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis

42. Genital herpes is a (an): 42. Ans. A. Rationale: No known cure

a. chronic disease with no known cure B, C, & D. incorrect.
b. acute, curable disease
c. contagious but curable disease
d. chronic disease, if not cured in early
stage
43. Ans. D Rationale: These are the
43. Symptoms in the primary stage of sy[hilis symptoms in the primary stage,
are: A, B, & C. Occurs in the second stage.
a. general flulike symptoms and mucous
patches
b. generalized lymphadenopathy and
patchy hair loss
c. condylomata lata and generalized skin
rash 44. Which of the following are sexually
d. chancre, painless oval ulcer, and transmitted enteric infectious?
lymphadenopathy a. dysenteries and hepatitis
37. Ans. A Rationale: The disease maybe b. chancroid and pubic lice
asymptomatic in women but the first actual c. chlamydial infections and gonorrhea
symptoms arises from PID d. syphilis and genital herpes
B, C, & D. May occur in syphilis

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45. Herpes zoster is caused by the varicella 45. Ans. B Rationale: Herpes Zoster is
virus and causes which of the following? caused by varicella virus and causes
a. ringworm and smallpox shingles and chickenpox
b. shingles and chickenpox A. C, & D Incorrect
c. measles and mumps
d. impetigo and measles

46. Ringworm, which is commonly found in 46. Ans. C Rationale: It is caused by fungus
children is caused by which of the following? A, B, & D. Incorrect
a. bacterial infection c. fungus
b. virus d. allergic reaction

47. A nurse should explain that ringworm is: 47. Ans. C Rationale: A nurse should
a. non contagious explain that ringworm is spread by direct
b. expected to resolve spontaneously and indirect contact.
c. spread by direct and indirect contact A, B, ^ D. Incorrect.
d. a sign of uncleanliness

48. Therapeutic management of the child with 48. Ans. B Rationale: This is the therapeutic
ringworm infection would include which of management of ringworm infection.
the following? A, C, & D. Incorrect.
a. Applying betadine solution to affected
area
b. administering oral griseofulvin
c. administering topical or oral antibiotics
d. applying topical sulfonamides
49. Ans. A Rationale: Bacterial infection or
49. An important nursing intervention for the (pink eyes) should be applied with warm,
care of a child with acute bacterial moist compress to remove crust. It is self
conjunctivitis is which of the following? limiting and extremely contagious.
a. warm, moist compresses to remove crust B. Unnecessary and unrealistic; difficult
from the eyes to maintain continuous compress.
b. continuous warm compresses to relive C. Not used to minimize itching
the discomfort D. Contraindicated in the presence of
c. an oral antihistamine to minimize itching infectious conjunctivitis because they
d. application of optic corticosteroids to reduce ocular resistance to bacteria.
reduce inflammation
50. Ans. C Rationale: Variably sized cauliflower
50. The term condylomata acuminate refers to like warts occurring prcipally on the genitals
which of the following? or the anogenital skin or mucosa of both
a. scabies males and females transmitted by sexual
contact.
b. herpes Zoster
A. infestation of the skin by itch mite
c. venereal warts B. acute vesicular skin infection caused by
d. cancer of the epididymis varicella zoster virus
D. cancer of epididymis not caused by
51. The nurse understands that the organism condylomata acuminate
that causes trichomonal infection is which of 51. Ans. C Trichomona vaginalis are
the following? protozoan that favors an alkaline
a. yeast c. protozoan environment
b. fungus d. spirochete A.B, & D Does not cause trichomonal
44. Ans. A Rationale: They are acquired from infection
food or water contaminated with fecal 52. The drug that is most likely to be
matter. These pathogens can be transmitted prescribed for treatment of trichomonal
by oral and sexual contact. infection is which of the following?
a. penicillin c. Nystatin
b. gential violet d.
metronidazole

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 B. primary stage – 8 to 12 weeks
53. Syphilis is not considered contagious in the: individual is contagious
a. tertiary stage c. incubation stage C. lasts 2 to 6 weeks; spirochetes
b. primary stage d. secondary proliferates at entry site, and the
stage individual is contagious
D. variable, about 5 years. Skin and
mucosal lesions contain spirochete;
individual is highly contagious.
54. Pinworms cause a number of symptoms 54. Ans. C Rationale: The worm attaches
besides anal itching. A complication of itself to the bowel wall in the cecum and
pinworm infestation, although rare, that the appendix and can damage the mucosa,
nurse should observe for is: causing appendicitis
a. hepatitis c. appendicitis A. Does not migrate to the liver
b. stomatitis d. pneumonitis B. Not caused by pinworms
D. Does not migrate to the respiratory
system.
55. Ans. D Rationale; All household
55. Mebendazole is ordered for a child with members should be treated at the same
pinworms. It is advisable that this drug also time unless they are younger than 2 yrs
be administered to: or pregnant.
a. the child’s younger brother who is one yr A. Not recommended for children under
old 2 yrs.
b. all members of the child’s family who test B. Positive testing is not a criterion for
positive administration to family members
c. all people using the same toilet facilities C. Not a criterion for administration of
as the child medication because eggs are airborne.
d. the child’s mother, father and siblings
even if they are symptom free.
56. Ans. B Rationale: Toxiods are modified
toxins that stimulate the body to form
56. The nurse explains to a mother whose child antibodies that last up to 10 yrs against
has just received a tetanus toxoid injection the specific disease.
that the toxoid confers Which of the following A. Passive immunity, even the natural
immunity? type derived from the mother does not
a. lifelong passive immunity last longer than the first yr of life.
b. long-lasting active immunity C. Only having the disease can provide
c. lifelong active natural immunity lifelong immunity
d. temporary passive natural immunity D. This is provided by tetanus immune
globulin
57. Ans. C
57. Using live virus vaccines against measles is Rationale: Corticosteroid depresses the
contraindicated in children receiving immune response. Anti-neoplastic drugs
corticosteroids, antineoplastic or irradiation or high energy radiation preferentially
therapy because these children may: destroy tissues with igh mitotic rates.
a. have had the disease or have been A. Not true
immunized previously B. Not the reason to withhold
b. be unlikely to have this protection during D. measles vaccine does not contain
their shortened life span rabbit serum.
c. be susceptible to infection because of
their depressed immune system
d. have an allergy to rabbit serum, which is 58. When reviewing the immunization
used as a basis for these vaccines. schedule of an 11 month old, the nurse
52. Ans. D Rationale: Metronodazole is a would expect that the infant had been
potent amebicide, extremely effective in previously immunized against:
irradicating the protozoan. a. pertussis, tetanus, polio, and measles
b. polio, measles, tetanus and diphtheria
53. Ans. A Rationale: It is not contagious in the c. measles, mumps, rubella, and T.B.
tertiary stage because it contains only small d. measles, rubella, polio, TB. And
number of treponemes. pertussis

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59. A client with HIV is taking Zidovudine . 59. Ans. C Rationale: Interferes with
Which of the following is the action of this replication of HIV and thereby slows
drug? progression of HIV infection to AIDS.
a. destroy the virus A. No known cure yet; therefore it does
b. enhance the body’s antibody production not destroy the virus
c. slow replication of the virus B. Does not enhance body’s antibody
d. neutralize toxins produced by the virus production
D. Does not neutralize toxins
60. A nurse is aware that women who have 60. Ans. B Rationale: More likely to develop
herpes genitalis are at risk for development cancer of the cervix, now considered
of which of the following? STD
a. sterility A. C, & D. Herpes genitalis does not
b. cervical CA cause sterility, uterine fibroid tumor or
c. uterine fibroid tumor irregular menstruation
d. irregular menstruation

61. A nurse caring for a client with herpes 61. Ans. C Rationale; Pain is a common
genitalis is preparing a plan of care. The problem with herpes genitalis. It is an
priority nursing diagnosis included in her intense burning pain.
plan of care is which of the following? A, B, & D. Not frequently associated with
a. Disturbed Sleep Pattern herpes genitalis.
b. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body
Requirements
c. Pain
d. Ineffective Breathing Pattern

62. The typical chancre of syphilis appears as 62. Ans. C Rationale: It is characterized by
which of the following? painless, moist ulcer. The serous
a. a grouping of small, tender pimples discharge is very infectious. Because it
b. an elevated wart is painless And disappears, the client
c. a painless, moist ulcer may not be aware of it or client may not
d. an itching, crusted area seek care.

63. A public health nurse is interviewing a client

newly diagnosed syphilis. The nurse is 63. Ans. B Rationale: An important aspect
aware that the spread of the disease can be of controlling the spread of STD is
controlled by which of the following? obtaining a list of the sexual contacts of
a. motivating the client to undergo an infected client. These contacts should
treatment be encouraged to obtain immediate care.
b. obtaining a list of the client’s sexual
contacts
c. increasing the client’s knowledge of the
disease
d. reassuring the client that records are
confidential
64. The nurse assesses the mouth and oral
58. Ans. B The is the recommended cavity of a client with HIV because the
immunization schedule most common opportunistic infection
A. measles not usually administered until 12 initially present as:
months a. HSV lesion on the lips
C. measles, mumpsand rubella not given b. oral candidiasis
until 12 months; no TB vaccine c. cytomegalovirus infection
D. measles and rubella not given until 12 d. aphthae on the gingival
months; no vaccine for TB

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65. The nurse is aware that prophylaxis for 65. Ans. B Rationale: Contracting Hepa B
hepatitis B is which of the following? through blood transfusion can be
a. preventing constipation prevented by screening donors and
b. screening blood donors testing the blood.
c. avoiding shellfish in the diet
d. limiting hepatotoxic drugs

66. The nurse is instructing a group about food

preparation. They are told to avoid using 66. Ans. D. Rationale: This is the organism
products in damaged cans because they that causes botulism
might contain the anaerobic spore-forming
rod:
a. E. coli c. salmonella typhosa
b. C. tatani d. C. botulinum

67. The cooked food most likely to remain 67. Ans. A. Rationale: The temperature
contaminated by the virus that causes during steaming is never high enough to
Hepatitis A is which of the following? kill organism
a. canned tuna
b. broiled shrimp
c. fried tuna belly
d. steamed lobster

68. A diseased produced when a clostridium 68. Ans. D Rationale: Clostridium welchii
organism enters wounds and produces a (perfringens) is a spore forming
toxin causing crepitus is which of the bacterium that produces a toxin that
following? decays muscle, releasing a gas; the
a. anthrax c. botulism major causative agent for gas gangrene
b. tetanus d. gangrene
69. Ans. B Rationale: entamoeba histolyca,
69. The most important method of preventing the organism that causes amoebic
amoebic dysentery is which of the following? dysentery is transmitted through excreta.
a. tick control
b. sewage disposal
c. killing biting gnats
d. pasteurization of milk
70. Ans. A Rationale: Scabies is caused by
70. When caring for a client with scabies, the the itch mite, the female of which
nurse is aware that scabies is: burrows under the skin to deposit eggs.
a. highly contagious It is intensely pruritic and is transmitted
b. a chronic problem by direct contact or in a limited way, by
c. caused by fungus soiled sheets or undergarments.
d. associated with other allergies

71. A nurse is caring a client diagnosed with

64. Ans. B Rationale: The most common herpes genitalis. To prevent cross
opportunistic infection. contamination, the nurse should do
A, & D. Presents later in AIDS not initially which of the following actions
in HIV a. institute a droplet precaution
D. Aphthous stomatitis not an opportunistic b. isolate client to a private room
infection. c. wear gown and gloves when giving
direct care
d. close the door and wear mask when
in the room

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72. When developing a plan of care for a client 72. Ans. A Rationale: Bed rest is
with viral hepatitis, the nurse should include maintained during the acute phase to
nursing orders that reflect the primary reduce metabolic demand on the liver,
treatment. Emphasis will be on ensuring thus increasing its blood supply and
that the client receives which of the prompting liver cell regeneration.
following?
a. adequate bed rest
b. generous fluid intake
c. regular antibiotic therapy
d. daily intravenous electrolyte therapy
73. Ans. D Rationale: Not Administered IM
73. A clinic nurse is preparing MMR vaccine to a and at the outer aspect of upper arm not
5 yr old child. The nurse administers this at gluteal muscle.
vaccine:
a. IM in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh
b. IM in the deltoid muscle
c. SC in he gluteal muscle
d. SC in the outer aspect of upper arm 74. Ans. A Rationale: Malaria is caused by
protozoan carried by mosquitoes.
74. A nurse explains to a client diagnosed with
malaria that the best way to prevent malaria
is to avoid which of the following?
a. mosquito bites
b. untreated water
c. steamed foods
d. over populated area 75. Ans. C Rationale: Spleen enlarges from
the sloughing of RBCs. Parasites invade
75. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory result the RBC, subsequently dividing and
and physical examination of a client with causing the cell to burst.
malaria. She understands that an important
finding in malaria is which of the following?
a. leukocytosis c. splenomegally
b. erythrocytosis d. elevated ESR 76. Ans. D Rationale: Maintaining adequate
nutrition and fluid intake is essential to
76. When caring for a client with malaria, the life and must be provided between
nurse should know that: paroxysm to allow absorption to occur.
a. seizure precautions must be followed
b. peritoneal dialysis is usually indicated
c. isolation is necessary
d. nutrition should be provided between
paroxysm 77. A. The slightest stimulation sets off a
wave of every severe and very painful
77. Nursing care for an adolescent admitted with muscle spasms involving the whole body.
tetanus following a puncture wound should Nerve impulses cross the myoneural due
be primarily directed toward: to the presence of exotoxins produced by
a. Decreasing external stimuli Clostridium tetani
b. Maintaining body alignment
c. Encouraging high intake of fluid
d. Carefully monitoring urinary output 78. The nurse should maintain isolation of a
71. Ans. C Rationale: The exudates from child with a diagnosis of bacterial
herpes virus type 2 is highly contagious. meningitis:
Gloves and gown provide a barrier, a a. For 12 hours after admission
concept related to medical asepsis b. Until the cultures are negative
c. Until antibiotic therapy is completed
d. For 48 hours after antibiotic therapy
begins

79. Three days after admission, a 2-year-old

with the diagnosis of meningitis appears

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 clinically improved. A spinal tap is done to 79. A. Decreased protein in spinal fluid
assess the child’s response to therapy. The indicates lessening of infection;
nurse correctly interprets that the client’s meninges are becoming less inflamed
condition is improving when the report of the
spinal fluid indicates:
a. Decreased protein
b. Decreased glucose
c. Increased cell count
d. Increased specific gravity

80. When caring for a child with meninggococcal

meningitis, the nurse should observe for the:
a. Identifying purpuric skin rash 80. A. Meningoccocal meningtitis is identified
b. Low-grade nature of the fever by its epidemic nature and purpuric skin
c. Presence of severe glossitis rash
d. Continual tremors of the extremities

81. To identify possible increasing intracranial

pressure, the nurse should monitor a 2-year-
old with the diagnosis of meningitis for:
a. Restlessness, anorexia, rapid 81. B. Because cranial sutures are closed by
respirations this age, increased pressure could cause
b. Vomiting, seizures, complaints of head headache, irritation of cerebral tissue
pain would cause seizures and pressure on
c. Anorexia, irritability, subnormal vital centers would cause vomiting
temperature
d. Bulging fontanels, decreased blood
pressure, elevated temperature

82. The most serious complication of meningitis 82. C. Peripheral circulatory collapse
in young children is: (Waterhouse-riderichsen syndrome) is a
a. Epilepsy serious complication of meneingococcal
b. Blindness meningitis caused by bilateral adrenal
c. Peripheral circulatory collapse hemorrhage. The resultant acute
d. Communicating hydrocephalus adrenocortical insufficiency causes
profound shock, petechiae and
83. When teaching parents at the school about ecchymotic lesions, vomiting, prostration
communicable diseases are serious, and and hypotension
that encephalitis can be a complication of: 83. B. Chickenpox is caused by a virus and
a. Pertussis c. Poliomyelitis may be followed by encephalitis it is
b. Chickenpox d. Scarlet fever characterized y skin lesions
84. A mother asks the nurse how to tell the
difference between measles (rubeola) and
German measles ( rubella). The nurse tells 84. A. rubeola signs and symptoms include a
the mother that with rubeola the child has: high fever, photophobia. Koplik’s spots
a. A high fever and Koplik’s spots ( white patches on mucous membranes
b. A rash on the trunk with pruritus of the oral cavity) and a rash. Rubella
c. Nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps usually does not cause a high fever, runs
d. Symptoms similar to a cold, followed by a a 3 to 6 day course and never causes
rash Koplik’s spots
78. D. children are no longer contagious after 24
to 48 hours when receiving IV antibiotics
85. Chickenpox can sometimes be fatal to
children who are receiving:
a. Insulin c. Antibiotics
b. Steroids d.
Anticonvulsants

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86. A viral infection characterized by a red, about the second day by the nurse
blotchy rash and Koplik’s spots in the mouth prsence of Koplik’s spots on the oral
is: mucosa
a. Mumps c. Rubeola
b. Rubella d. Chickenpox 87. C. the worm attaches itself to the bowel
wall in the cecum and appendix and can
87. Pinworms cause a number of symptoms damage the mucosa, causing
besides anal itching. A complication of appendicitis
pinworm infestation, although rare, that the
nurse should observe for is:
a. Hepatitis c. Appendicitius
b. Stomatitis d. Pnenmonitis
88. B. This infection is transferred by the
88. A clinic nurse explains to the mother of a oral-anal route and effective
child with a pinworm infestation how handwashing is the best method to
pinworm are transmitted. The nurse can best prevent transmission
evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching
when the mother states:
a. “ I’ll have to be sure that the cat stays off
my children’s bed.”
b. “I’ll have to reinforce my child’s
handwashing techniques before eating or
handling food.”
c. “ I’ll be sure to distinct the toilet seat after
every bowel movement for the next
several days.”
d. “ My child contracted this infestation form
the dirty schools toilets, and I’ll report
that to the school nurse.”

89. A client is concerned about contracting 89. A. Malaria is caused by the protozoan
malaria while visiting relatives in Southeast Plasmodium falciparium which carried by
Asia. The nurse explains that the best way mosquitoes
to prevent malaria is to avoid:
a. Mosquito bites
b. Untreated water
c. Undercooked food
d. Overpopulated areas

90. The nurse is reviewing the physical 90. C. Parasites invade the erythrocytes,
examination and laboratory test of a client subsequently dividing and causing the
with malaria. The nurse understands that an cell to burst. The spleen enlarges form
important finding in malaria is: the sloughing of red blood cells
a. Leukocytosis
b. Erythrocytosis
c. Splenomegaly
d. Elevated sedimentation rate

85. B. Steroids have an inflammatory effect. It is 91. When caring a client with malaria, the
believed that resistance to certain viral nurse should know that:
disease, including chickenpox, is greatly a. Seizure precautions must be followed
decreased when the child is taking steroids b. Peritoneal dialysis is usually indicated
regularly c. Isolation is necessary to prevent
cross-infection
86. C. Rubeola or measles, is generally a viral- d. Nutrition should be provided between
induced childhood disease, diagnosed on or paroxysms

St. Louis Review Center, Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 or 222-8732 15
 92. C. Quinine sulfate is used in malaria
when the plasmodia are resistant to the
92. When teaching a client about drug therapy less toxic chloroquine. However, a new
against Plasmodium falciparum, the nurse strain Plasmodium resistant to quinine
should include the fact that: must be treated with a combination and
a. The infection is controlled sulfonamide ( slow acting)
b. Immunity will prevent reinfestations
c. The infection can generally be eliminated
d. Transmission by the Anopheles mosquito
can occur
93. B. Plasmodium falcipurum in person who
have chronic malaria can cause
hemoglubinuria, intravascular hemolysis,
93. Blackwater fever occurs in some clients with and renal failure as result of destruction
malaria; therefore the nurse should observe of red blood cells
a client with chronic malaria for:
a. Diarrhea
b. Dark red urine
c. Low-grade fever
d. Coffee ground emesis

94. C. The client has weakened immune

94. When caring for a client who is HIV positive, response; instructions regarding rest,
a primary responsibility of the nurse is to nutrition and avoiding unnecessary
explain how the client can prevent: exposure to people with infections help
a. AIDS c. Other infections reduce the risk of infection
b. Social Isolation d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
95. D. This is the organism that causes
botulism
95. The nurse is instructing a group about food
preparation. They are told to avoid using
products in damaged can because they
might contain the anaerobic spore-forming
rod:
a. Escherichia coli
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Salmonella typhosa
d. Clostridium botulinum
96. B. Entamoeba histolytica, the organism
that causes amebic dysentery is
96. The most important method of preventing transmitted o excreta
amebic dysentery is:
a. Tick control
b. Sewage disposal
c. Killing biting gnats
d. Pasteurization of milk 97. A client with hepatitis asks the nurse, “
Why don’t you give me some medication
91. D. Maintaining adequate nutritional and fluid to help me get rid of this problem?” The
balance is essential to life and must be nurse’s best response would be:
accomplished during periods when intestinal a. “ Sedatives can be given to help you
motility is not too excessive so that relax.”
absorption can occur b. “ We can give you immune serum
globulin.”
c. “ There are no specific drugs used to
treat hepatitis.”
d. “ Vitamin supplements are frequently
helpful and hasten recovery.”

St. Louis Review Center, Inc-Davao Tel. no. (082) 224-2515 or 222-8732 16
 98. C. The diet should be high in
98. The nurse has instructed a client with viral carbohydrates with moderate protein and
hepatitis about the type of diet should be fat content
eaten. The lunch selection that would
indicate the client’s understanding and
compliance with the dietary principles taught
is:
a. Turkey salad, French fries, sherbet
b. Cheeseburger, taco chips, chocolate
pudding
c. Salad, sliced chicken sandwich, gelatin
dessert
d. Cottage cheese, peanut butter sandwich,
milkshake
99. C. Wan the causative organism isolated,
it is tested for antimicrobial susceptibility
99. Selection of drugs of choice for the (sensitivity) to various antimicrobial
treatment of pneumonia depends primarily agents. When an organism is sensitive to
on: a medication, the medication is capable
a. Tolerance of the client of destroying the organism
b. Selectivity of the organism
c. Sensitivity of the organism
d. Preference of the physician
100. A. rest reduces the need for oxygen
and minimizes metabolic needs during
100. A 6-year-old child is admitted to the the acute, febrile stage of the disease
hospital with pneumonia. An immediate
priority in this child’s nursing care would be:
a. Rest c. Nutrition
b. Exercise d. Elimination

“Every King was once a crying baby and

every great building was once a
picture. It's not about where you are
today but it's about where you will
reach tomorrow."

97. C. Supportive drug therapy is used for

concomitant problems, not the hepatitis

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