B∆«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄¬° “

5 RF(A)/100/3330

Question Paper Serial No.

Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 16 ]
Total No. of Printed Pages : 16 ]
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 38 ]
Total No. of Questions : 38 ]
CCE RF
UNREVISED
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 83-E

100
FULL SYLLABUS
Code No. : 83-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : …e¤k´⁄

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

Subject : SCIENCE
(»èñÜ ËþÝ®Ü, ÃÜÓÝ¿á®Ü ËþÝ®Ü ÊÜáñÜᤠiàÊÜ ËþÝ®Ü / Physics, Chemistry & Biology )

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl B∆« O⁄}⁄°¬“

( BMW«ŒÈ »⁄·¤®⁄¥¿»⁄fl / English Medium )
( À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Fresh )

¶´¤MO⁄ : 10. 04. 2023 ] [ Date : 10. 04. 2023

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 10-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-1-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ]
[ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-45 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions to the Candidate :
1. There are three parts in the question paper :
Part A : Physics, Part B : Chemistry, Part C : Biology.
2. This question paper consists of objective and subjective types of
38 questions.
3. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to
cut on the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement
of the examination. Check whether all the pages of the question
paper are intact.
4. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
5. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
6. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the
Tear here

question paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

[ Turn over
5 RF(A)/100/3330 2 CCE RF 83-E

PART – A

( PHYSICS )

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Choose the correct alternative and write

the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet. 4×1=4

1. The device used to measure the rate of current in a circuit is

(A) Ammeter (B) Voltmeter

(C) Galvanometer (D) Battery

2. Observe the given figure. Identify the eye defect indicated in this
figure.

(A) Presbyopia (B) Hypermetropia

(C) Myopia (D) Cataract

3. A light ray enters to rarer medium from a denser medium. Then

the speed of that light ray

(A) decreases and bends towards the normal

(B) increases and bends away from the normal

(C) decreases and bends away from the normal

(D) increases and bends towards the normal

5 RF(A)/100/3330 3 CCE RF 83-E

4. The inner wall of the solar cooker is painted black. Because

black colour

(A) reflects light

(B) converges solar rays

(C) prevents from rusting

(D) absorbs more heat

II. Answer the following questions : 2×1=2

5. Write the symbols of the following components used in an

electric circuit.

i) Rheostat

ii) Wires crossing without joining

6. What does the thumb indicate in the right hand thumb rule ?

III. Answer the following questions : 2×2=4

7. Light enters from air to benzene having refractive index 1·50.

Calculate the speed of light in benzene.

( Speed of light in air : 3 × 10 8 ms − 1 )

OR

A concave lens has focal length of 12 cm. At what distance

should the object from the lens be placed so that it forms an

image at 9 cm from the lens ?

[ Turn over
5 RF(A)/100/3330 4 CCE RF 83-E

8. Name the major constituent of biogas and write the properties of

biogas.

OR

List the hazards of nuclear power generation.

IV. Answer the following questions : 3×3=9

9. State Ohm’s law. On which factors does the resistance of a

conductor depend ? Mention the SI unit of electric power.

OR

State Joule’s law of heating. How is fuse connected in the

circuits ? Name the metal used in the filament and the gas filled

in electric bulb.

10. The resistors R 1 , R 2 and R 3 have the values 10 Ω, 20 Ω and

60 Ω respectively, which have been parallelly connected to a

battery of 24 V in an electric circuit. Then calculate the

following :

i) The current flowing through each resistor

ii) The total current in the circuit

iii) The total resistance of the circuit.

5 RF(A)/100/3330 5 CCE RF 83-E

11. Draw the ray diagram for the image formation in a convex lens

when the object is placed beyond 2 F 1 . Mention the position and

nature of the image formed.

[ F 1 : Principal focus of the lens ]

V. Answer the following question : 1×4=4

12. a) What is solenoid ? Write the properties of the magnetic

field lines formed around a current carrying solenoid.

b) What is alternating current ? Electric appliances having

metallic body are connected to earth wire, why ?

VI. Answer the following question : 1×5=5

13. a) How does rainbow form in the nature ? Explain. Mention

the colour of the light that bends the most and that bends

the least.

b) How does the eye lens accommodate to see the distant

objects and nearby objects ? Explain.

[ Turn over
5 RF(A)/100/3330 6 CCE RF 83-E

PART – B

( CHEMISTRY )

VII. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Choose the correct alternative and write

the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet. 2×1=2

14. The reactants that exchange ions by reacting with each other

and form a precipitate among the following are

(A) BaCl 2 and Na 2 SO 4

(B) Al 2 O 3 and HCl

(C) NaOH and H 2 SO 4

(D) Na 2 O and CO 2

15. Among 2
X 4 , 8Y 16 , 10 Z 20 the elements having zero valency

are

[ 2, 8, 10 are atomic numbers of elements ]

(A) 2
X 4 and 8Y 16

(B) 8
Y 16 and 10 Z 20

(C) 2
X 4 and 10 Z 20

(D) 2
X 4 , 8Y 16 and 10 Z 20
5 RF(A)/100/3330 7 CCE RF 83-E

VIII. Answer the following questions : 4×1=4

16. The general formula of cycloalkanes is Cn H2n and its first

member is cyclopropane ( C3H6 ). Write the molecular formula

and structural arrangement of the fourth member of this

homologous series.

17. Packets of chips are flushed with nitrogen gas. Why ?

18. An iron nail is dropped into a test tube having copper sulphate
solution. The iron nail gradually turns to brownish colour.
Why ?

19. What is hydrogenation ?

IX. Answer the following questions : 3×2=6

20. Draw the diagram of arrangement of apparatus to show that

acid solution in water conducts electricity and label dilute HCl

solution.

21. “Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide are produced on heating

calcium carbonate.” Write the balanced chemical equation for

this reaction. Mention the type of this chemical reaction.

22. Draw the diagram of arrangement of apparatus to show the

action of steam on a metal.

X. Answer the following questions : 3×3=9

23. a) Depict the formation of magnesium chloride with the help

of electron dot structure.

[ Turn over
5 RF(A)/100/3330 8 CCE RF 83-E

b) Hydrogen gas is not liberated when a metal like zinc reacts

with nitric acid. Why ?

OR

How are metals in the middle of the reactivity series extracted

from their ores ? Explain.

24. a) Observe the given part of the modern periodic table and

answer the following questions :

Groups →
1 2 13 17
Periods ↓

2 — Be — —

3 Na Mg Al Cl

4 — Ca — —

i) Which element is more electropositive ? Why ?

ii) Atoms of which element have minimum atomic

radius ? Why ?

b) Mention the period and group number of the element that

has atomic number 19.

5 RF(A)/100/3330 9 CCE RF 83-E

25. Name the salts used in the following situations and write their

molecular formula :

a) To remove permanent hardness of water.

b) To make drinking water free from germs.

c) To support fractured bones in their right position.

OR

a) The pH values of four solutions are given in the below

table. Classify these into acidic and basic solutions :

Solution pH Value

e 5

f 13

g 9

h 2

b) Name the antacid used to neutralise excess of acid in the

stomach.

XI. Answer the following question : 1×4=4

26. a) How will ethanol be oxidised ?

b) Explain the cleaning action of soaps.

[ Turn over
5 RF(A)/100/3330 10 CCE RF 83-E

PART – C

( BIOLOGY )

XII. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Choose the correct alternative and write

the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet. 2×1=2

27. “A person immediately starts running soon after observing a

snake.” The correct transmission path of reflex impulse in this

situation is

(A) Receptor → Sensory neuron → Brain → Relay neuron →

Motor neuron → Effector

(B) Receptor → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Relay

neuron → Motor neuron → Effector

(C) Effector → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Relay

neuron → Motor neuron → Receptor

(D) Effector → Motor neuron → Relay neuron → Brain →

Sensory neuron → Receptor

5 RF(A)/100/3330 11 CCE RF 83-E

28. In humans, the testes are located outside the lower abdomen in

the scrotum because

(A) to protect testes from mechanical shocks

(B) to increase the production of sperms

(C) to maintain the secretion of testosterone hormone

(D) to maintain the temperature required for sperm

production.

XIII. Answer the following questions : 2×1=2

29. What is the role of abscisic acid in plants ?

30. Write two examples for the organisms that reproduce by binary

fission.

[ Turn over
5 RF(A)/100/3330 12 CCE RF 83-E

XIV. Answer the following questions : 3×2=6

31. Mention the tools used for tracing the evolutionary relationships

between the organisms.

32. Observe the given below figures :

Fig. (i) Fig. (ii)

a) Which figure indicates the massive amount of exchange of

gases ? Why ?

b) Name the parts X and Y. What is the function of the

part X ?

33. Give an example for a food chain of grassland ecosystem. If there

is an increase in the number of organisms in the second trophic

level, how does this affect on that food chain ?

5 RF(A)/100/3330 13 CCE RF 83-E

XV. Answer the following questions : 3×3=9

34. What is pollination ? What are the changes that occur in the

flower after pollination ?

35. Coal and petroleum products should be used judiciously. Why ?

36. Tall pea plant producing red flowers ( TT RR ) is crossed with

short pea plant producing white flowers ( tt rr ).

i) Mention the type of plants produced from these plants in

the F 1 generation.

ii) Write the ratio of plants obtained in the F 2 generation by

crossing the plants of F 1 generation and name the

varieties of plants obtained.

OR

[ Turn over
5 RF(A)/100/3330 14 CCE RF 83-E

Analyse the situations given below. Answer the questions

given :

Situation 1 : The number of green grasshoppers in a green zone

has been increasing from one generation to another

generation.

Situation 2 : The number of brown grasshoppers in the same

green zone has been reducing.

Here,

a) Where could genetic drift be happened more ? Why ?

b) How can natural selection be considered as an important

factor in organic evolution ?

XVI. Answer the following questions : 2×4=8

37. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human brain. Label

the following parts :

i) Hypothalamus

ii) Pons.
5 RF(A)/100/3330 15 CCE RF 83-E

38. Explain the digestion of food materials in stomach and small

intestine.

OR

Explain the role of xylem and phloem tissues in the

transportation of materials in plants.

[ Turn over
5 RF(A)/100/3330 16 CCE RF 83-E
 B∆«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄¬° “
C

Question Paper Serial No.

Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 16 ]
Total No. of Printed Pages : 16 ]
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 48 ]
Total No. of Questions : 48 ]
CCE PF
CCE PR
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E NSR & NSPR

302
Code No. : 81-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

( BMW«ŒÈ »⁄·¤®⁄¥¿»⁄fl / English Medium )
(S¤—⁄W @∫⁄¥¿£% & Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ S¤—⁄W @∫⁄¥¿£% / G´È.G—È.A¡È. & G´È.G—È.Ø.A¡È.)

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl B∆« O⁄}⁄°¬“

(Private Fresh & Private Repeater / NSR & NSPR)
¶´¤MO⁄ : 04. 04. 2022 ] [ Date : 04. 04. 2022
—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 10-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-1-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-45 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 100 ] [ Max. Marks : 100

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This question paper consists of objective and subjective types of
48 questions.
2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut
on the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are
intact.
3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the
Tear here

question paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

302 PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Choose the correct alternative and write the

complete answer along with its letter of alphabet. 8×1=8

1. The graphical representation of pair of lines x + 2y – 4 = 0 and

2x + 4y – 12 = 0 are

(A) intersecting lines

(B) parallel lines

(C) coincident lines

(D) perpendicular lines.

2. The common difference of the Arithmetic progression 8, 5, 2, – 1, ...

is

(A) –3

(B) –2

(C) 3

(D) 8.

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014

CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR 3 81-E

3. The standard form of 2x 2 = x − 7 is

(A) 2x 2 − x = − 7

(B) 2x 2 + x − 7 = 0

(C) 2x 2 − x + 7 = 0

(D) 2x 2 + x + 7 = 0 .

4. The value of cos ( 90° – 30° ) is

1
(A) –1 (B)
2

(C) 0 (D) 1.

5. The distance of the point P ( x, y ) from the origin is

(A) x2 + y2 (B) x2 + y2

(C) x2 − y2 (D) x2 − y2 .

6. In a circle, the angle between the tangent and the radius at the point

of contact is

(A) 30° (B) 60°

(C) 90° (D) 180°.

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR

7. In the given figure, the volume of the frustum of a cone is

(A) π ( r1 + r 2 )l

(B) π ( r1 − r 2 )l

1
(C) π h ( r12 − r2 2 − r 1 r 2 )
3

1
(D) π h ( r12 + r2 2 + r 1 r 2 )
3

8. Surface area of a sphere of radius ‘r’ unit is

(A) π r 2 sq.units

(B) 2 π r 2 sq.units

(C) 3 π r 2 sq.units

(D) 4 π r 2 sq.units.

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014

CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR 5 81-E

II. Answer the following questions : 8×1=8

9. If the pair of linear equations in two variables are inconsistent, then

how many solutions do they have ?

10. In an Arithmetic progression if ‘a’ is the first term and ‘d’ is the

common difference, then write its n th term.

11. Write the standard form of quadratic equation.

sin 18 o
12. Write the value of .
cos 72o

13. Write the distance of the point ( 4, 3 ) from x-axis.

14. Find the median of the scores 6, 4, 2, 10 and 7.

15. Write the statement of “Basic Proportionality” theorem ( Thales

theorem ).

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR

16. In the given figure, write the formula used to find the curved surface

area of the cone.

III. Answer the following questions : 18 × 2 = 36

17. Solve the given pair of linear equations by Elimination method :

2x + y = 8

x – y = 1

18. Find the 30th term of the arithmetic progression 5, 8, 11, ..... by

using formula.

19. Find the sum of first 20 terms of the Arithmetic progression

10, 15, 20, .......... by using formula.

OR

Find the sum of first 20 positive integers using formula.

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014

CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR 7 81-E

20. Find the roots of x 2 + 5x + 2 = 0 by using quadratic formula.

21. Find the value of the discriminant and hence write the nature of

roots of the quadratic equation x 2 + 4x + 4 = 0.

22. Find the distance between the points A ( 2, 6 ) and B (5, 10 ) by

using distance formula.

OR

Find the coordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining the

points P ( 3, 4 ) and Q ( 5, 6 ) by using ‘mid-point’ formula.

23. Draw a line segment of length 10 cm and divide it in the ratio 2 : 3

by geometric construction.

24. In the given figure find the values of

i) sin θ

ii) tan α.

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR

25. In the given figure identify and name the following :

i) Chord

ii) Secant of the circle.

26. What is an Arithmetic progression ? Write its general form.

27. Construct a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 4 cm which are

inclined to each other at an angle of 60°.

28. Find the roots of the equation ( x + 3 ) ( x – 4 ) = 0.

29. If the point P ( 0, y ) is equidistant from the points A ( 3, 0 ) and

B ( 3, 2 ), then find the value of y.

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014

CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR 9 81-E

30. In ∆ ABC as shown in the figure, EF || BC. If AE = 1 cm,

BE = 2 cm and AF = 2 cm, then find FC.

31. ABC is an isosceles triangle right angled at C. Prove that

AB 2 = 2 AC 2 .

32. If tan A = cot B, then prove that A + B = 90°.

33. Two cubes each of side 4 cm are joined end to end. Find the volume

of the resulting cuboid.

34. Find the area of the quadrant of a circle of radius 7 cm.

22
[ Take π = ]
7
PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014 [ Turn over
81-E 10 CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR

IV. Answer the following questions : 9 × 3 = 27

35. The sum of first 9 terms of an Arithmetic progression is 144 and its

9th term is 28 then find the first term and common difference of the

Arithmetic progression.

36. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 60 m more than its shorter

side. If the longer side is 30 m more than the shorter side, then find

the sides of the field.

OR

In a right angled triangle, the length of the hypotenuse is 13 cm.

Among the remaining two sides, the length of one side is 7 cm more

than the other side. Find the sides of the triangle.

37. Prove that

( sin A + cosec A ) 2 + ( cos A + sec A ) 2 = 7 + tan 2 A + cot 2 A.

OR

Prove that : sec θ ( 1 – sin θ ) ( sec θ + tan θ ) = 1.

38. Find the coordinates of the point on the line segment joining the

points A ( – 1, 7 ) and B ( 4, – 3 ) which divides AB internally in the

ratio 2 : 3.

OR

Find the area of triangle PQR with vertices P ( 0, 4 ), Q ( 3, 0 )

and R ( 3, 5 ).

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014

CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR 11 81-E

39. Find the mean for the following grouped data by Direct method :

Class-interval Frequency

10 — 20 2

20 — 30 3

30 — 40 5

40 — 50 7

50 — 60 3

OR

Find the mode for the following grouped data :

Class-interval Frequency

5 — 15 3

15 — 25 4

25 — 35 8

35 — 45 7

45 — 55 3

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014 [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR

40. During a medical check-up of 50 students of a class, their heights

were recorded as follows :

Draw “less than type” ogive for the given data :

Height in cm Number of students

( Cumulative frequency )

Less than 140 5

Less than 145 10

Less than 150 15

Less than 155 25

Less than 160 40

Less than 165 50

41. Prove that “the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a

circle are equal”.

42. Construct two tangents to a circle of radius 3 cm from a point 8 cm

away from its centre.

43. The volume of a solid right circular cylinder is 2156 cm 3 . If the

height of the cylinder is 14 cm, then find its curved surface area.
22
[ Take π = ]
7

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014

CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR 13 81-E

V. Answer the following questions : 4 × 4 = 16

44. Find the solution of the given pair of linear equations by graphical

method :

x + 2y = 6

x+y= 5

45. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of a tower

is 30° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot

of the building is 60°. Both the tower and building are on the same

level ground. If the height of the tower is 50 m, then find the height

of the building.

OR
PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014 [ Turn over
81-E 14 CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR

As observed from the top of a 75 m high light house from the sea-

level, the angles of depression of two ships are 30° and 45°. If one

ship is exactly behind the other on the same side of the light house,

then find the distance between the two ships.

46. Construct a triangle with sides 4·5 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm. Then
3
construct another triangle whose sides are of the corresponding
4
sides of the first triangle.

47. In the figure AXB and CYD are the arcs of two concentric circles
with centre O. The length of the arc AXB is 11 cm. If OC = 7 cm and

∠ AOB = 30°, then find the area of the shaded region.

22
[ Take π = ]
7

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014

CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR 15 81-E

VI. Answer the following question : 1×5=5

48. Prove that “the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to

the square of the ratio of their corresponding sides”.

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014 [ Turn over

81-E 16 CCE PF & PR/NSR & NSPR

PF/PR/NSR & NSPR-(C)-(700)-21014

CCE RR
CCE
1
RR 81-E

—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E

Code No. : 81-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS
(BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )
( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

( Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Repeater )

General Instructions :
i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and
subjective types of questions having 40 questions.
ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer
along with its letter in the space provided.
iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.
iv) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
v) Candidates should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written
in pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )
vi) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.
vii) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
viii) Space for Rough Work has been printed and provided at the bottom of
each page.
ix) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

9417340 RR-0302 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 8×1=8

n
1. If n th term of a sequence is , then the 2nd term of the
n +1

sequence is
3 2
(A) (B)
2 3
1 1
(C) (D) .
3 2

2. Which one of the following is the Harmonic mean between ‘a’ and ‘b’ ?
a +b 2a + b
(A) (B)
2ab ab
2ab 2a + b
(C) (D) .
a +b a +b

3. Faces of a cubical die numbered from 1 to 6 is rolled once. The

probability of getting an odd number on the top face is

1 4
(A) (B)
6 6
2 3
(C) (D) .
6 6

4. If the mean ( x ) of some scores is 60, and the co-efficient of variation

of it is 5, then the standard deviation is

(A) 0·3 (B) 0·03

(C) 3 (D) 30.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

9417340 RR-0302
CCE RR 3 81-E

5. In the quadratic polynomial f ( x ) = x 2 – 9x + 20, the value of f ( 0 )

is

(A) 20 (B) 11

(C) – 20 (D) 29.

6. In the figure O is the centre of the circle, PA and PB are the tangents
to the circle. If ∠ APB = 40° then the measure of ∠ AOB is

(A) 90° (B) 50°

(C) 130° (D) 140°.

7. In the ABC, ∠ ABC = 90°. The correct statement among the

following is

(A) AB 2 = AC 2 + BC 2 (B) AC 2 = AB 2 + BC 2

(C) BC 2 = AB 2 + AC 2 (D) BC 2 = AB 2 – AC 2 .

8. The slope of the line joining the points ( – 4, 1 ) and ( 5, 2 ) is

1
(A) (B) 9
9
3
(C) (D) 1.
9

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

9417340 RR-0302 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RR

II. Answer the following : 6×1=6

9. If A = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 } and B = { 5, 6, 7 } then find ( A I B ).

10. Find the H.C.F. of 12 and 18.

11. Find the degree of the polynomial x 3 + 2x 2 – 5x – 6.

3
12. If sin x = , find the value of 3 cosec x.
5

13. Write the formula to find the curved surface area of a cone.

14. Find the y-intercept of the line 6x – y + 3 = 0.

III. 15. In a group of persons, 30 like tea, 25 like coffee and 16 like both tea
and coffee. How many like either tea or coffee ? 2

16. Find the 10th term of the Harmonic progression,

1 1 1
, , ....... . 2
2 4 6

17. Find the values of

nP n
0 + C0
(i)

nP n
1 + C1
(ii) . 2

18. When 53 is divided by ‘b’ the quotient and the remainder are 4 and 1
respectively. Find the value of ‘b’. 2

19. A number is selected at random from 10 to 18. Find the probability

that the number is a prime number. 2

20. Find the product of and . 2

21. Simplify by rationalising the denominator : 2

6+ 3
.
6− 3

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

9417340 RR-0302
CCE RR 5 81-E

22. Find the quotient and the remainder by using synthetic division
method : 2
( 3x 3 – 2x 2 + 7x – 5 ) ÷ ( x + 3 ).
OR
What must be added to the polynomial
P ( x ) = x 4 + 2x 3 – 2x 2 + x – 1
so that the resulting polynomial is exactly divisible by x 2 + 2x – 3 ?

23. Solve x 2 – 7x + 12 = 0 by formula method. 2

24. In a circle of radius 3 cm, draw a diameter of length 6 cm. Construct

a tangent at one end of the diameter. 2

25. In the parallelogram ABCD, E is any point on BC. The diagonal DB

and segment AE intersect at H. Prove that AH . HB = HD . EH. 2

26. Show that ( 1 – sin 2 A ) ( 1 + tan 2 A ) = 1, where A is an acute

angle. 2

27. Find the distance between the points ( 2, 3 ) and ( 6, 6 ). 2

28. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 7 cm is

88 sq.cm. Find the radius of the base of the cylinder. 2

29. The radius and height of a cone are 14 cm and 27 cm respectively.

Find its volume. 2

OR

Find the volume of the sphere, whose radius is 21 cm.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

9417340 RR-0302 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RR

30. Draw the plan of a level ground using the information given below : 2
[ Scale : 20 m = 1 cm ]
To D ( metre )
140
100 C to 40
E to 40 60
20 B to 30
From A

IV. 31. A committee of 5 is to be formed out of 6 men and 4 ladies. Calculate

in how many ways the committee can be formed when at least
3 ladies are included. 3
OR

Find out how many (i) lines and (ii) triangles can be drawn through
8 points which are on a circle.

32. Calculate the standard deviation for the following distribution : 3

Class-intervals ( C-I ) frequency ( f )

0—4 1

5—9 2

10 — 14 3

15 — 19 4

N = 10

33. The perimeter of a rectangle is 40 cm and its area is 96 sq.cm.

Calculate its length and breadth. 3

OR

If one root of the equation x 2 + bx + c = 0 is 4 times the other, then

prove that 4b 2 = 25c.
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

9417340 RR-0302
CCE RR 7 81-E

34. Prove that the tangents drawn to a circle from an external point are

equal. 3

35. In the rhombus ABCD, prove that AC 2 + BD 2 = 4AB 2 . 3

OR

In the ABC, ∠ ABC = 90°, D is the mid-point of BC, then prove

that

AC 2 = 4AD 2 – 3AB 2 .

36. If A = 60° and B = 30°, then verify that

cos ( A + B ) = cos A . cos B – sin A . sin B 3

OR

Prove that
sin θ 1 + cos θ
+ = 2 cosec θ.
1 + cos θ sin θ

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

9417340 RR-0302 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RR

V. 37. The sum of first three terms in an arithmetic progression is 24 and

the sum of their squares is 224. Find the first three terms of this
arithmetic progression. 4

OR

The sum of first three terms in a geometric progression is 14 and the

sum of the next three terms of it is 112. Find the geometric sequence.

38. Prove that “The areas of similar triangles are proportional to the
squares of the corresponding sides”. 4

39. Construct two direct common tangents to two circles of radii 4 cm

and 2 cm, whose centres are 9 cm apart. Measure and write the
length of direct common tangents. 4

40. Solve the quadratic equation x 2 – x – 6 = 0 graphically. 4

graph

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

9417340 RR-0302
1 RF(A)/100/3301

CÈÉí¨Ü PÜñܤÄÔ
Joár ÊÜáá©ÅñÜ ±ÜâoWÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ : 16 ]
A

Question Paper Serial No.

Total No. of Printed Pages : 16 ]
Joár ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ : 45 ]
Total No. of Questions : 45 ] CCE RF
ÓÜíPæàñÜ ÓÜíTæ : 01-K REVISED
01-K FULL SYLLABUS

100
Code No. :
ËÐÜ¿á : ±ÜÅ¥ÜÊÜá »ÝÐæ — PܮܰvÜ

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

Subject : First Language — KANNADA
(ÍÝÇÝ A»Ü¦ì / Regular Fresh)

±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿á®Üá° ñæÃæ¿áÆá CÈÉ PÜñܤÄÔ

©®ÝíPÜ : 31. 03. 2023 ] [ Date : 31. 03. 2023
ÓÜÊÜá¿á : ¸æÙÜWæY 10-30 Äí¨Ü ÊÜá«ÝÂÖÜ° 1-45 ÃÜÊÜÃæWæ ] [ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-45 P.M.
WÜÄÐÜu AíPÜWÜÙÜá : 100 ] [ Max. Marks : 100
±ÜÄàûݦìWÝX ÓÝÊÜޮܠÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá :
1. D ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿áá ÊÜÓÜ᤯ÐÜu ÊÜáñÜᤠËÐÜ¿á¯ÐÜu ÊÜÞ¨ÜÄ¿á Joár 45 ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá°
Öæãí©¨æ.
2. D ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿á®Üá° ×ÊÜáá¾S hÝPæp… ÊÜáãÆPÜ ÊæãÖÜÃÜá (ÔàÇ…) ÊÜÞvÜÇÝX¨æ. ±ÜÄàûæ
±ÝÅÃÜí»ÜÊÝWÜáÊÜ ÓÜÊÜá¿áPæR ¯ÊÜá¾ ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿á ŸÆŸ© ±ÝÍÜÌìÊÜ®Üá° PÜñܤÄÔ,
±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿áÈÉ GÇÝÉ ±ÜâoWÜÙÜá CÊæÁáà Gí¨Üá ±ÜÄàüÔPæãÚÛ.
3. ÊÜÓÜ᤯ÐÜu ÊÜáñÜᤠËÐÜ¿á¯ÐÜu ÊÜÞ¨ÜÄ¿á ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜ®Üá° ±ÝÈÔ.
4. ŸÆ »ÝWܨÜÈÉ PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ AíQWÜÙÜá ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚXÃÜáÊÜ ±Üä|ì AíPÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° ñæãàÄÓÜáñܤÊæ.
5. ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿á®Üá° K©PæãÙÜÛÆá 15 ¯ËáÐÜWÜÙÜ PÝÇÝÊÜPÝÍÜÊÜâ ÓæàĨÜíñæ, EñܤÄÓÜÆá
¯WÜ©±ÜwÓÜÇÝ¨Ü ÓÜÊÜá¿áÊÜ®Üá° ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿á ÊæáàÇݽWܨÜÈÉ ¯àvÜÇÝX¨æ.
Tear here

[ Turn over
1 RF(A)/100/3301 2 CCE RF 01-K

I. PæÙÜX®Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ A¥ÜÊÝ A±Üä|ì ÖæàÚPæWÜÚWæ ®ÝÆáR BÁáRWÜÙÜ®Üá° ¯àvÜÇÝX¨æ. AÊÜâWÜÙÜÈÉ

ÓÜãPܤÊÝ¨Ü EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá° BÄÔ, PÜÅÊÜÞûÜÃܨæãí©Wæ ŸÃæÀáÄ : 6 ×1=6

1. "©WÜíñÜ' ±Ü¨ÜÊÜâ D ÓÜí◊Wæ E¨ÝÖÜÃÜOæ¿ÞX¨æ

(G) WÜá| ÓÜí◊

(¹) gÍÜ¤Ì ÓÜí◊

(“) ÊÜê©œ ÓÜí◊

(w) ÍÜácñÜÌ ÓÜí◊

2. Jí¨Üá ±Ü¨ÜÊÜ®æã°à ÊÝPÜÂÊÜ®æã°à ÖæàÚ A¨ÜPæR ÓÜÊÜá®Ý¥ÜìPÜ ±Ü¨ÜÊÜ®æã°à ÊÝPÜÂÊÜ®æã°à

ÖæàÙÜáÊÝWÜ ŸÙÜÓÜáÊÜ ÇæàS®Ü bÖæ°

(G) E¨ÜœÃÜ| bÖæ°

(¹) ÊÝPÜÂÊæàÐÜu®Ü bÖæ°

(Ô) BÊÜÃÜ| bÖæ°

(w) ËÊÜÃÜOÝñܾPÜ bÖæ°

1 RF(A)/100/3301 3 CCE RF 01-K
3. "¸æor¨ÝÊÜÃæ' Æ⁄•⁄»⁄‚¥ C —⁄»⁄·¤—⁄OÊQ E¨ÝÖÜÃÜOæ¿ÞX¨æ

(G) }⁄}⁄fl∞¡⁄flŒ⁄ —⁄»⁄·¤—⁄

(¹) ¶ V⁄fl —⁄»⁄·¤—⁄

(Ô) @MÃ —⁄»⁄·¤—⁄

(w) QÅ¿Þ ÓÜÊÜÞÓÜ

4. "ÊÜÞvÜá' «ÝñÜáË®Ü Ë«ÜÂ¥ÜìPÜ ÃÜã±Ü

(G) ÊÜÞvæàÊÜâ

(¹) ÊÜÞw¿ÞÃÜá

(Ô) ÊÜÞvÜÃÜá

(w) ÊÜÞvÜÈ

[ Turn over
1 RF(A)/100/3301 4 CCE RF 01-K
5. "ÓÝË£ÅWæ' D ±Ü¨Ü¨ÜÈÉÃÜáÊÜ Ë»ÜQ¤

(G) ±ÜÅ¥ÜÊÜÞ

(¹) ©Ì£à¿Þ

(Ô) ñÜê£à¿Þ

(w) aÜñÜá¦àì

6. "«ÜWÜ«ÜWÜ' ±Ü¨ÜÊÜâ D AÊÜ¿áPæR ÓæàĨæ

(G) ÓÝÊÜÞ®ÝÂ¥ÜìPÝÊÜ¿á

(¹) A®ÜáPÜÃÜOÝÊÜ¿á

(Ô) »ÝÊÜÓÜãaÜPÝÊÜ¿á

(w) QÅ¿Þ¥ÜìPÝÊÜ¿á
1 RF(A)/100/3301 5 CCE RF 01-K
II. PæÙÜX®ÜÊÜâWÜÙÜÈÉ Êæã¨ÜÇæÃÜvÜá ±Ü¨ÜWÜÚXÃÜáÊÜ ÓÜíŸí«Ü¨Üíñæ ÊÜáãÃÜ®æ¿á ±Ü¨ÜPæR ÓÜÄ Öæãí¨ÜáÊÜ
ÓÜíŸí◊à ±Ü¨ÜÊÜ®Üá° ŸÃæÀáÄ : 4 ×1=4

7. ÊÜXàì¿á ÊÜÂíg®ÝûÜÃÜWÜÙÜá : 25 :: AÊÜXàì¿á ÊÜÂíg®ÝûÜÃÜWÜÙÜá : ............... .

8. ÖÝÇæjà®Üá : hæãàvÜá®Üáw :: ¸æàvܸæàvÜ : ......................... .

9. ±ÜÊÜìñÜ : ÃÜãyÜ®ÝÊÜá :: «ÜÊÜáìÃÝ¿á : ......................... .

10. ÊÜÞÂWÜ : ÊæáàÇæ :: ÓÜPÝRÄ : ................... .

III. PæÙÜX®Ü ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ Jí¨æãí¨Üá ÊÝPܨÜÈÉ EñܤÃÜ ŸÃæÀáÄ : 7 ×1=7

11. ÊÜáñÜíWÝÍÜÅÊÜá¨ÜÈÉ ÊÝÓÜ˨ܪ ñܱÜÔ̯ ¿ÞÃÜá ?

12. ×ñÜÊÜaÜ®ÜÊÜâ ÊÜá®ÜÔÕ®Ü PæãÙæ¿á®Üá° ÖæàWæ ñæãÙæ¿ááñܤ¨æ ?

[ Turn over
1 RF(A)/100/3301 6 CCE RF 01-K
13. «ÜÊÜáì¨Ü BaÜÃÜOæXÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜÅ«Ý®Ü ÊÜÞWÜì ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Üá ?

14. «ÜÊÜáìŸá©œ¿áá ñܮܰ ¸æÙÜX®Ü Öæãñܤ®Üá° ÖæàWæ PÜÙæ¨Ü®Üá ?

15. ÖÜQR¿á PÜ|á¡WÜÙÜá ¿ÞÊÜâÊÜâ ?

16. ¿áþÝÍÜÌÊÜ®Üá° PÜqr¨ÜÊÜÃÜá ¿ÞÃÜá ?

17. WæãàËí¨Ü ±æçWÜÙÜá ŸÃæ¨Ü Êæã¨ÜÆ ¿áûÜWÝ®Ü ±ÜÅÓÜíWÜ¨Ü ÖæÓÜÃæà®Üá ?

IV. PæÙÜX®Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ ÊÜáãÃÜá A¥ÜÊÝ ®ÝÆáR ÊÝPÜÂWÜÙÜÈÉ EñܤÃÜ ŸÃæÀáÄ : 10 × 2 = 20

18. WÜáÃÜã±Ü¨æàÍÜ¨Ü WÜá|WÜÙÜ®Üá° ±ÜqrÊÜÞw.

19. «ÜÌgÊÜ®æ°à ®ÜÊÜá¾ WÜáÃÜáÊæí¨Üá ÔÌàPÜÄÔ¨æªàÊæ Gí¨Üá ÇæàSPÜÃÜá ÖæàÙÜÆá PÝÃÜ|Êæà®Üá ?

1 RF(A)/100/3301 7 CCE RF 01-K
20. ÊÜÂQ¤WÜÙÜ®Üá° B¨ÜÍÜìÊÝX ÔÌàPÜÄÓÜÆá CÃÜáÊÜ ñæãvÜPÜáWÜÙÝÊÜâÊÜâ ?

21. ÊÜá®ÜáÐÜ®Üá ñܮܰ JÚñÜ®Üá° ÖæàWæ ÓÝ◊ÓÜŸÖÜá¨Üá ?

22. ñÝ®Üá ÖæãàÃÝvÜᣤÃÜáÊÜâ¨Üá ®æÆPÜRÆÉ dÜÆPæR GíŸá¨Ü®Üá° ¨ÜáÁãàì«Ü®Ü ÖæàWæ ËÊÜÄԨݪ®æ ?

23. ±Ý¥Üì&¼àÊÜáÃÜ ŸWæWæ ¨ÜáÁãàì«Ü®Ü®Ü A¼±ÝÅ¿áÊæà®Üá ?

24. ¸ÝÚ®ÜÈÉ ñÜ겤 ¨æãÃÜPܸæàPݨÜÃæ H®Üá ÊÜÞvܸæàPæíŸá¨Üá ËÊæàPÝ®Üí¨ÜÃÜ A¼±ÝÅ¿áÊÝX¨æ ?

25. »ÜWÜñ…ÔíW… ñܮܰ ÓÜÖÜaÜÃÜÃæãí©Wæ ËàÃÜÁãà«Ü®ÝX ÖæàWæ AÊÜáÃܮݨܮÜá ?

26. "ÊÜÓÜíñÜ ÊÜááS ñæãàÃÜÈÆÉ' PÜÊܮܨÜÈÉ ±ÜÅPÜꣿá ÓÜí»ÜÅÊÜá ÖæàWæ ÊÜÂPܤÊÝX¨æ ?

27. ÊÜáÇæ®Ýw®ÜÈÉ ©à±Ü¨Ü Ÿ£¤¿á ÓÜÊÜáÓæ¿á®Üá° ÖæàWæ ±ÜÄÖÜÄÔPæãÙÜÛÇÝÀáñÜá ?

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1 RF(A)/100/3301 8 CCE RF 01-K
V. PæÙÜX®Ü PÜËWÜÙÜ / ÓÝ×£WÜÙÜ g®Ü¾ÓܧÙÜ, PÝÆ, PÜê£ ÊÜáñÜᤠ¹ÃÜá¨Üá / ±ÜÅÍÜÔ¤WÜÙÜ®Üá° PÜáÄñÜá

ÊÝPÜÂÃÜã±Ü¨ÜÈÉ ŸÃæÀáÄ : 2 ×3=6

28. ¨æàÊÜ®ÜãÃÜ ÊÜáÖݨæàÊÜ

29. i.GÓ…. ÎÊÜÃÜá¨Üűܳ

VI. PæÙÜX®Ü ±Ü¨Ü»ÝWÜPæR ±ÜÅÓݤÃÜ ÖÝQ, WÜ| Ë»ÝWÜ ÊÜÞw, dÜí¨ÜÔÕ®Ü ÖæÓÜÃÜ®Üá° ŸÃæÀáÄ :

1 ×3=3

30. A£PÜáqÆÊÜá®Üí «Ü®ÜÆá

ŸœñæÀáí¨Üí ¨ÜáÐÜrŸá©œ ®Üáw¨Üí ±ÜâÔ¿áí

VII. PæÙÜX®Ü ÊÝPܨÜÈÉÃÜáÊÜ AÆíPÝÃÜÊÜ®Üá° ÖæÓÜÄÔ, ÆûÜ| ŸÃæ¨Üá, ÓÜÊÜá®ÜÌ¿áWæãÚÔ : 1 ×3=3

31. ""¸Ý¯®ÜÈÉ WÝÚ±ÜoWÜÙÜá ÖÜQRWÜÙÜíñæ ÖÝÃÝvÜᣤ¨ÜªÊÜâ''

1 RF(A)/100/3301 9 CCE RF 01-K
VIII. PæÙÜX®Ü WݨæWÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Ý¨ÜÃÜã Jí¨Ü®Üá° Wݨæ¿á ÊÜáÖÜñܤ̨æãí©Wæ ËÓܤÄÔ ŸÃæÀáÄ :

1 ×3=3

32. PÜoárÊÜâ¨Üá PÜt| ; PævÜÖÜáÊÜâ¨Üá ÓÜáÆ»Ü.

A¥ÜÊÝ

ÊÜÞw¨ÜáªOæã¡à ÊÜÞÃÝ¿á.

IX. PæÙÜX®Ü ÊÝPÜ A¥ÜÊÝ ÖæàÚPæWÜÚWæ ÓÜí¨Ü»Üì ÊÜáñÜᤠÓÝÌÃÜÓÜÂWÜÙÜ®Üá° ŸÃæÀáÄ : 6 × 3 = 18

33. ""ÃÝÊÜá®æà «æç¿áìWævæ Ó槄¿áìPævæ¿ÞÃÜá ?''

34. ""¯ÊÜá¾ ¨æàÍÜ¨Ü WèÃÜÊÜÊÜ®Üá° PÝÀáÄ! C¨Üá ¨æãvÜx¨Ý¨Ü ÃÝÐÜó''

35. ""±æä®Ü°®æÆÉÊÜáí ¯à®æ Pæãívæ''

36. ""ÊÜáíWÜÙÜ ÇæãàPÜ¨Ü AíWÜÙÜPæàÄ''

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1 RF(A)/100/3301 10 CCE RF 01-K
37. ""¸æ®Ü°¸æ®ÜØ£¤ £Ä£Ëì PÜw¨ÜÃæã H®Üá EÚ¿á¨ÜØíWÜ''

38. ""ñܮܰ ÊÜÞñæ¿áí ÓÜÊÜìg®ÜÊÜááí ŸíhæÁá®Ü°©¨Üì±Üâ¨æ''

X. PæÙÜX®Ü ±Ü¨Ü»ÝWÜÊÜ®Üá° ±Üä|ìWæãÚÔ ŸÃæÀáÄ : 1 ×4=4

39. ÖÜÓÜáÃÝWÜÓÜ ; ………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………. ¹ÔÆã!

A¥ÜÊÝ

ÖæãÓÜ ÖÜã訆 …………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………

……………………………………………….. ¿ááÔÃÜã!
1 RF(A)/100/3301 11 CCE RF 01-K
XI. PæÙÜX®Ü ±Ü¨Ü»ÝWÜÊÜ®Üá° K© A¥ÜìÊÜÞwPæãívÜá, AvÜPÜÊÝXÃÜáÊÜ ÊÜåèÆÂÊܮݰ«ÜÄÔ ÓÝÃÝíÍÜ
ŸÃæÀáÄ : 1×4=4

40. ÊÜáÃÜáÙÜá ÊÜÞ«ÜÊÜ ÊÜá׿á ÃÝg¨Ü

ÔÄWæ ÓæãàÆáÊÜ®ÜÆÉ Pèíñæà

¿áÃÜá ÓÜáÁãà«Ü®ÜÃæ®ÜWæ ¸æÓÜPæçÊÜÈÉ ÊÜá®ÜËÆÉ

ÖæãÃæ¨Ü ¨ÝñÝÃÜíWæ ÖÜWæÊÜÃÜ

ÎÃÜÊÜ®ÜĨæã²³ÓÜáÊæ®æí¹à

»ÜÃܨæãÚ¨æì®Üá PèÃÜÊæàí¨ÜÅ®Ü Pæãí¨æ ¯à®æí¨Ü

XII. PæÙÜX®Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ Gíoá A¥ÜÊÝ ÖÜñÜᤠÊÝPÜÂWÜÙÜÈÉ EñܤÃÜ ŸÃæÀáÄ : 2 ×4=8

41. ®ÝÆÌw PÜêÐÜ¡ÃÝg Jvæ¿áÃÜ PÝƨÜÈÉ PÝ¿áì ¯ÊÜì×ÓÜᣤ¨Üª "±ÜÅhݱÜÅ£¯◊ ÓÜ»æ'

ÖÝWÜã "®Ý¿á Ë«Ý¿áPÜ ÓÜ»æ'¿á®Üá° PÜáÄñÜá ŸÃæÀáÄ.

A¥ÜÊÝ

ÎûÜ| ûæàñÜÅPæR ËÍæÌàÍÜÌÃÜ¿á AÊÜÃÜá ÓÜÈÉst PæãvÜáWæ¿á®Üá° £ÚÔ.

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1 RF(A)/100/3301 12 CCE RF 01-K
42. ±ÜÃÜÍÜáÃÝÊÜá®Üá ÓÜÖÝ¿á AÃÜÔ Ÿí¨Ü ¨æãÅà|ÃÜ®Üá° ÓÜñÜRÄÔ ¹àÙæãRor ŸWæ¿á®Üá°

ËÊÜÄÔ.

A¥ÜÊÝ

¨æãÅà|®Üá ¨ÜáÅ±Ü¨Ü®Ü ËÃÜá¨Üœ ÍÜ±Ü¥Ü ÊÜÞvÜÆá PÝÃÜ|ÊÝ¨Ü AíÍÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° ËÊÜÄÔ.

XIII. PæÙÜX®Ü WܨÜ»ÝWÜÊÜ®Üá° ÊÜá®ÜÔÕ®ÜÈÉ K©PæãívÜá, PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ EñܤÃÜ ŸÃæÀáÄ :

1 ×4=4(2+2)

43. PæÆÊÜâ ©®ÜWÜÙÜ ñÜÃÜáÊÝ¿á ÃÜíWÜ|¡ ÓÜãRÆáWÜÙÜ »æàqWæí¨Üá ÖæãÃÜo. £±æ³à®ÜÖÜÚÛ¿á

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¿ÞÃÜá ÖÝWæ ¨ÝSÇæÀáÆÉ¨Ü ÊÜáPÜRÙÜ®Üá° ÓæàÄÔPæãíw¨ÝªÃæ? ®æãàvæãà| Gí¨Üá

BÇæãàbÓÜáñܤ £±æ³à®ÜÖÜÚÛWæ ÓÜáÊÜÞÃÜá JíŸñÜᤠWÜípæ Öæ㣤Wæ Öæãà¨Ü. ÃÜíWÜ|¡

1 RF(A)/100/3301 13 CCE RF 01-K
¸æçÓÜRÈÉí¨Ü CÚ¨Üá, A¨Ü®Üá° WæãàvæWæ JÃÜXԨܮÜá. ÊæáàÐÜáó ÊæíPÜ|¡ »Ü¿á©í¨Ü

®ÜvÜáWÜáñܤ ÖæãÃÜPæR Ÿí¨Üá ®ÜÊÜáÓÝRÃÜ ÊÜÞw¨Ü®Üá. ±ÝsÜÍÝÇæ¿á WæãàvæWæ ®æãàqàÓ…

¸æãàv…ì Jí¨Ü®Üá° ñÜWÜÆáÖÝQñÜá¤. ®æãàqàÓÜá ¸æãàwì®Ü ÊæáàÇæ (1) ÊÜáPÜRÙÜá

ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü Öæ㣤Wæ ŸÃܸæàPÜá. (2) ±ÝsÜPÝƨÜÈÉ WÝÅÊÜáÓܧÃÜá JÙÜPæR ŸÃÜPÜãvܨÜá.

(3) ¨ÝSÇæÀáÆÉ¨Ü ÊÜáPÜRÙÜ®Üá° JÙÜPæR ÓæàÄÓÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ. (4) ÓÜãR騆 J±Ý³ÃܨÜÈÉ

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ŸÃæ©ñÜá¤. ÃÜíWÜ|¡ AÊÜâWÜÙÜ®æ°ÇÝÉ ®æãàw ñÜ겤±ÜoárPæãívÜ®Üá. ""ÊæáàÐæóà! ×í¨æ

ÓÝÖæàŸÃÜá Ÿí¨ÝWÜ D ®æãàqàÓ… ¸æãàvÜì®Üá° CÈÉ ÖÝQÃÜÈÆÉÊæà?'' Gí¨Üá

PæàڨܮÜá.

""ÖÝQ¨æª ÓÝÌËá! GÆÉÊÜ®Üã° ÖÝQ¨æª! H®Üá ÖÝQ¨ÜªÃæ H®Üá? ®Ü®Ü° WÜÅÖÜaÝÃÜ! ñÜÊÜá¾

gáÇݾ®æ BvÜìÃÜá ¯®æ° ®Ü®Ü° PæçWæ ñÜÆá²ñÜá ÓÝÌËá! A¨Ü®Üá° ®æãàw G¨æÁãvæ¨Üá

[ Turn over
1 RF(A)/100/3301 14 CCE RF 01-K
ÖæãàÀáñÜá. A®Ü° ¯àÃÜá ÊÜááqr¨ÜªÃæ PæàÚ! B ÓÜã¿áì®ÝÃÝ¿á|®Ü BOæ!''

Gí¨Ü®Üá.

±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá :
A) £±æ³à®ÜÖÜÚÛ ±ÝsÜÍÝÇæ¿á ®æãàqàÓ… ¸æãàwì®Ü ÊæáàÇæ H®æí¨Üá ŸÃæ¿áÇÝXñÜᤠ?

Ÿ) ÃÜíWÜ|¡ £±æ³à®ÜÖÜÚÛ ÍÝÇæWæ »æàq ¯àvÜÆá PÝÃÜ|Êæà®Üá ?

XIV. PæÙÜX®Ü ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Ý¨ÜÃÜã Jí¨ÜPæR PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ ÊÜÞ×£¿á®Üá° B«ÜÄÔ ±ÜñÜÅ ŸÃæÀáÄ :

1 ×5=5

44. ¯ÊÜá¾®Üá° ÖÝÓÜ®Ü¨Ü Ëg¿á®ÜWÜÃÜ¨Ü ¯ÊÝÔ "ÊÜÓÜíñ…PÜáÊÜÞÃ…' Gí¨Üá »ÝËÔPæãívÜá,

¯ÊÜá¾ ±ÜŨæàÍܨÜÈÉ EípÝ¨Ü ±ÜÅÊÝÖÜ¨Ü ±ÜÄÔ§£¿á®Üá° ËÊÜÄÔ, ±ÜÄÖÝÃÜ PÝ¿áì
PæçWæãÙÜáÛÊÜíñæ PæãàÄ iÇÝÉ◊PÝÄWæãí¨Üá ÊÜá®ÜË ±ÜñÜÅÊÜ®Üá° ŸÃæÀáÄ.

A¥ÜÊÝ

¯ÊÜá¾®Üá° ¸æíWÜÙÜãÄ®Ü ÓÜPÝìÄ ±èÅyÜÍÝÇæ¿á "ÃÜüñÜ' Gí¨Üá »ÝËÔPæãívÜá,

ÍÝÇæ¿áÈÉ BaÜÄst "75®æà ÓÝÌñÜíñÜÅ嬆 AÊÜáêñÜ ÊÜáÖæãàñÜÕÊÜ' PÝ¿áìPÜÅÊÜáÊÜ®Üá°
PÜáÄñÜá ÊæáçÓÜãÄ®Ü ÓÜPÝìÄ ±èÅyÜÍÝÇæ¿áÈÉ ÊÝÂÓÜíWÜ ÊÜÞvÜᣤÃÜáÊÜ "ÖÜÑìñÜ'
GíŸ ÖæÓÜÄ®Ü WæÙÜ£Wæ ±ÜñÜÅÊÜ®Üá° ŸÃæÀáÄ.
1 RF(A)/100/3301 15 CCE RF 01-K
XV. PæÙÜX®Ü ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Ý¨ÜÃÜã Jí¨Üá ËÐÜ¿áPæR ÖÜ©®æç¨Üá ÊÝPÜÂWÜÚWæ PÜwÊæáÀáÆɨÜíñæ ±ÜÅŸí«Ü

ŸÃæÀáÄ : 1 ×5=5

45. ÃÝÑóà¿á »ÝÊæçPÜÂ

A¥ÜÊÝ

ÓÝÊÜÞiPÜ hÝÆñÝ|WÜÙÜ ÓܨܽÙÜPæ

[ Turn over
1 RF(A)/100/3301 16 CCE RF 01-K
 C SL. No. : E

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 50 ] [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12
Total No. of Questions : 50 ] CCE PR [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 12

—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E REVISED Code No. : 81-E

…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )
( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

( Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ S¤—⁄W @∫⁄¥¿£%/ Private Repeater )

¶´¤MO⁄ : 21. 06. 2019 ] [ Date : 21. 06. 2019

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-45 P.M.

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 100 ] [ Max. Marks : 100

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 50 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

7 (21)1202-PR(C) [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE PR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct
alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

8×1=8

1. If the n-th term of an arithmetic progression is 5n + 3, then 3rd term of

the arithmetic progression is

(A) 11 (B) 18

(C) 12 (D) 13

2. In the following figure, PA, PC and CD are tangents drawn to a circle of

centre O. If AP = 3 cm, CD = 5 cm, then the length of PC is

(A) 3 cm (B) 5 cm

(C) 8 cm (D) 2 cm
3. If the lines drawn to the linear equations of the type a 1x + b 1y + c 1 = 0
and a 2 x + b 2y + c 2 = 0 are coincident on each other, then the correct

relation among the following is

a1 b1 c1 a1 b1 c1
(A) = = (B) ≠ ≠
a2 b2 c2 a2 b2 c2

a1 b1 c1 a1 b1 c1
(C) = ≠ (D) ≠ =
a2 b2 c2 a2 b2 c2

4. The distance between the origin and co-ordinates of a point ( x, y ) is

(A) x 2 + y2 (B) x2 − y2

(C) x 2 − y2 (D) x2 + y2

7 (21)1202-PR(C)
CCE PR 3 81-E

5. If the HCF of 72 and 120 is 24, then their LCM is

(A) 36 (B) 720

(C) 360 (D) 72

6. The value of sin 30° + cos 60° is

1 3
(A) (B)
2 2
1
(C) (D) 1
4

7. In the given graph of y = P ( x ), the number of zeros is

(A) 4 (B) 3

(C) 2 (D) 7

8. Faces of a cubical die numbered from 1 to 6 is rolled once. The probability

of getting an odd number on the top face is
3 1
(A) (B)
6 6
2 4
(C) (D)
6 6

II. Answer the following : 6×1=6

9. Write the formula to find the sum of the first n terms of an Arithmetic
progression, whose first term is a and the last term is a n .

10. If a pair of linear equations represented by lines has no solutions

( inconsistent ) then write what kinds of lines are these ?

7 (21)1202-PR(C) [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE PR

11. Write the formula to find area of a sector of a circle, if angle at the centre

is θ degree.

12. Write 96 as the product of prime factors.

13. Find the degree of the polynomial P ( x ) = x 3 + 2x 2 − 5x − 6 .

14. In a Δ ABC, ABC = 90° and ACB = 30°, then find AB : AC.

III. Answer the following :

15. Find the solution for the pair of linear equations : 2

x + y = 14

x–y = 4

16. ABCD is a square of side 14 cm. Four congruent circles are drawn in the

square as shown in the figure. Calculate the area of the shaded region.

[ Circles touch each other externally and also sides of the square ] 2

7 (21)1202-PR(C)
CCE PR 5 81-E

17. Find the distance between the points ( 2, 3 ) and ( 4, 1 ). 2

18. Find the area of a triangle whose vertices are ( 1, – 1 ), ( – 4, 6 ) and

( – 3, – 5 ). 2

19. Prove that 5 + 3 is an irrational number. 2

20. Δ ABC ~ Δ DEF and their areas are 64 cm 2 and 100 cm 2 respectively. If

EF = 12 cm then find the measure of BC. 2

OR

A vertical pole of height 6 m casts a shadow 4 m long on the ground, and

at the same time a tower on the same ground casts a shadow 28 m long.

Find the height of the tower.

21. The diagonal BD of parallelogram ABCD intersects AE at F as shown in the

figure, E is any point on BC, then prove that DF × EF = FB × FA. 2

7 (21)1202-PR(C) [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE PR

22. Sum and product of the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial

1
P ( x ) = ax 2 + bx − 4 are and – 1 respectively. Then find the values of a
4

and b. 2

OR

Find the quotient and remainder when P ( x ) = 2x 2 + 3x + 1 is divided by

g ( x ) = x + 2.

23. Find the value of k, in which one of its zeros is – 4 of the polynomial

P ( x ) = x 2 – x – ( 2k + 2 ). 2

24. Solve the equation x 2 − 3x − 10 = 0 by using formula. 2

13
25. If cosec θ = , then find the value of cos θ. 2
12

26. Show that ( tan A × sin A ) + cos A = sec A. 2

27. Draw a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 3·5 cm which are inclined to

each other at an angle of 60°. 2

28. A box contains 90 discs, which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is

drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bears a perfect

square number. 2

29. A metallic sphere of radius 9 cm is melted and recast in to the shape of a

cylinder of radius 6 cm. Find the height of the cylinder. 2

30. The faces of two cubes of volume 64 cm 3 each are joined together to form

a cuboid. Find the total surface area of the cuboid. 2

31. Find the sum of series 3 + 7 + 11 + ..... up to 10 terms. 2

7 (21)1202-PR(C)
CCE PR 7 81-E

32. In the given figure, DE || AB, AD = 6 cm, CD = 4 cm and BC = 15 cm.

Then find BE. 2

33. In the figure, AP, AX and AY are the tangents drawn to the circles, show

that AY = AX. 2

34. The areas of two circles are 92 cm 2 and 62 cm 2 respectively. Find the

radius of the circle having its area equal to the sum of the areas of the two

circles. 2

35. Draw a circle of radius 4 cm and construct two tangents to it from an

external point 8 cm away from its centre. 2

36. Find the coordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining the

points ( 2, 3 ) and ( 4, 7 ). 2

7 (21)1202-PR(C) [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE PR

37. Find the roots of the equation x 2 + 7x + 12 = 0 by factorisation. 2

38. Find the nature of the roots of the equation 4x 2 − 4x + 1 = 0 . 2

tan 65 o sin 25 o
39. Evaluate : + . 2
cot 25 o cos 65 o

40. If two coins are tossed together simultaneously, find the probability of

getting at least one head. 2

IV. Answer the following :

41. Prove that “the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle

are equal”. 3

OR

Two concentric circles of radii 5 cm and 3 cm are drawn. Find the length of

the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle.

42. Construct a triangle with sides 5 cm, 6 cm and 7 cm and then construct
3
another triangle whose sides are of the corresponding sides of the given
5

triangle. 3

43. Find the mode for the following data in the frequency distribution table : 3

Family size 1-3 3-5 5-7 7-9 9 - 11

Number of families 7 8 2 2 1

OR

Find the median for the following data in the frequency distribution table :

Weight ( in kg ) 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40

Number of students 2 3 6 4 5

7 (21)1202-PR(C)
CCE PR 9 81-E

44. From the top of a vertical building of 50 3 m height on a level ground the

angle of depression of an object on the same ground is observed to be 60°.

Find the distance of the object from the foot of the building. 3

OR

Two wind mills of height 50 m and 40 3 m are on either side of the field.

A person observes the top of the wind mills from a point in between them.

The angle of elevation was found to be 45° and 30°. Find the distance

between the wind mills.

45. The following table gives production yield per hectare of wheat of 100 farms

of a village.

Production yield
50-55 55-60 60-65 65-70 70-75 75-80
in kg/hectare

Number of
2 8 12 24 38 16
farms

Change the distribution to a more than type distribution, and draw its

ogive. 3

7 (21)1202-PR(C) [ Turn over

81-E 10 CCE PR

46. A cone is having its base radius 12 cm and height 20 cm. If the top of this

cone is cut into form of a small cone of base radius 3 cm is removed, then

the remaining part of the solid cone become a frustum. Calculate the

volume of the frustum. 3

OR

A milk tank is in the shape of a cylinder with hemispheres of same radii

attached to both ends of it as shown in figure. If the total height of the tank

is 6 m and the radius is 1 m, calculate the maximum quantity of milk filled

22
in the tank in litres. ( π = )
7

7 (21)1202-PR(C)
CCE PR 11 81-E

V. Answer the following :

47. The sum of the fourth and eighth terms of an arithmetic progression is 24

and the sum of the sixth and tenth terms is 44. Find the first three terms

of the Arithmetic progression. 4

48. Prove that “in a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the

sum of the squares of the other two sides”. 4

49. Solve graphically : 4

2x + y = 8

x–y = 1

50. The ages of two students A and B are 19 years and 15 years respectively.

Find how many years it will take so that the products of their ages

becomes equal to 480. 4

OR

If the quadratic equation ( b – c ) x 2 + ( c – a ) x + ( a – b ) = 0 has equal

roots, then show that 2b = a + c.

7 (21)1202-PR(C) [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE PR

7 (21)1202-PR(C)
 B SL. No. : P

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 40 ] [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12
Total No. of Questions : 40 ] CCE RR [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 12

—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E UNREVISED Code No. : 81-E

…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )
( ‘⁄◊Ê⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / Old Syllabus )

( Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Repeater )

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

¶´¤MO⁄ : 25. 03. 2019 ] [ Date : 25. 03. 2019

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-30 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-30 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 40 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

RR(B)-5008 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct
alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

8×1=8

1. If A = { 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24 } and B = { 4, 20, 28 } then A I B is

(A) { 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28 }

(B) { 4, 20 }

(C) { 28 }

(D) { }

2. The sum to infinite terms of a Geometric progression whose first term is a

and common ratio r is given by the formula.

a
(A) S∞ =
1−r

1−r
(B) S∞ =
a
a
(C) S∞ =
1+r

(D) S∞ = a(1–r)

3. If H and L are the HCF and LCM of two numbers A and B respectively then

(A) A×H = L×B

(B) A×B = L×H

(C) A+B = L+H

(D) A+B = L–H

RR(B)-5008
CCE RR 3 81-E

4. The degree of the polynomial P ( x ) = 2x 3 + 3x 2 − 11x + 6 is

(A) 2 (B) 6

(C) 3 (D) 4

5. The standard form of a quadratic equation is

(A) ax 2 = 0

(B) ax 2 + bx = 0

(C) ax 2 + c = 0

(D) ax 2 + bx + c = 0

6. In the given figure, PA and PB are the tangents to the circle with

centre O. If AOB = 100°, then APO is

(A) 50°

(B) 80°

(C) 90°

(D) 40°

RR(B)-5008 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RR

7. The value of tan 2 60° + 2 tan 2 45° is

(A) 5

(B) 3 +1

(C) 4

(D) 3 +2

8. In ABC right angled at B, AB = 7 cm, BC = 24 cm. Then length of

AC is

(A) 30 cm

(B) 17 cm

(C) 25 cm

(D) 19 cm

II. Answer the following questions : 6×1=6

9. Find the arithmetic mean of 16 and 20.

10. Find the value of 5 P 3 .

RR(B)-5008
 CCE RR 5 81-E

11. The probability of winning a game is 0·8. What is the probability of losing

the same game ?

12. The Mean ( x ) of certain scores is 60 and the standard deviation ( σ ) of

the same scores is 3. Find the coefficient of variation of the scores.

13. Find the remainder obtained when P ( x ) = 4x 2 − 7x + 9 is divided by

( x – 2 ).

14. Write the discriminant of the quadratic equation ax 2 + c = 0 .

III. Answer the following questions :

15. In a group of 60 people, 40 people like to read newspapers, 35 people like

to read magazines and 26 people like to read both. Find the number of

people who read neither newspapers nor magazines. 2

1 1
16. Find the tenth term of the progression , , 1, – 1 , .... . 2
5 3

17. Prove that 3 + 5 is an irrational number. 2

18. a) State the fundamental principle of counting.

b) Write the value of 0 ! 2

RR(B)-5008 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RR

19. Using a suitable formula calculate the number of diagonals that can be

drawn in the given polygon. 2

20. In an experiment of tossing a fair coin twice, find the probability of

getting

a) two heads

b) exactly one tail. 2

21. Find the product of and 3 . 2

22. Rationalise the denominator and simplify : 2

3
3+ 2

23. Find the quotient and the remainder using synthetic division :

( x 3 + x 2 – 3x + 5 ) ÷ ( x – 1 ). 2

OR

If one of the zeros of the polynomial x 2 – x – ( 2k + 2 ) is – 4, find the

value of k.

RR(B)-5008
CCE RR 7 81-E

24. Draw a circle of radius 4 cm and construct a tangent at one end of its

diameter. 2

AY 1
25. In the following figure, AX = p – 3, BX = 2p – 2, = . Find p. 2
YC 4

OR

In the trapezium ABCD, AB || CD , AB = 2CD and area of Δ AOB is

84 cm 2 . Find the area of Δ COD .

3
26. Given tan A = , find sin A and cos A. 2
4

27. Find the equation of a line having angle of inclination 45° and y-intercept

is 2. 2

RR(B)-5008 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RR

28. Find the distance between the points A ( 6, 5 ) and B ( 4, 4 ). 2

29. The curved surface area of a right circular cone is 4070 cm 2 and its slant

height is 37 cm. Find the radius of the base of the cone. 2

30. Draw a plan of a level ground using the information given below : 2

( Scale 20 m = 1 cm )

Metre To C

220

To D 100 160

120 80 to B

To E 60 80

From A

IV. Answer the following questions :

31. Prove that the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle

a) are equal

b) subtend equal angles at the centre

c) are equally inclined to the line joining the centre and the external

point. 3

RR(B)-5008
CCE RR 9 81-E

32. The circumference of the circular base of a right cylindrical vessel is

132 cm and its height is 25 cm. Calculate the maximum quantity of water
22
it can hold. ( Use π = ). 3
7

OR

A solid metallic right circular cone is of height 20 cm and its base radius is

5 cm. This cone is melted and recast into a solid sphere. Find the radius of
22
the sphere. ( Use π = ).
7

33. Find the standard deviation for the following data : 3

Marks ( x ) Number of students ( f )

35 2

40 4

45 8

50 4

55 2

34. A building and a tower are on the same level ground. The angle of elevation

of the top of the building from the foot of the tower is 30°. The angle of

elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. If the

height of the tower is 50 m, then find the height of the building. 3

OR
1 + sin A
Prove that = sec A + tan A.
1 − sin A

RR(B)-5008 [ Turn over

81-E 10 CCE RR

35. Solve by using formula : 3

x 2 – 2x + 3 = 3x + 1.

OR

If m and n are the roots of the quadratic equation x 2 – 6x + 2 = 0, then

find the value of

1 1
a) +
m n

b) ( m + n ) ( mn ).

36. Prove that the area of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ units is

a2 3
square units. 3
4

OR

Δ ABC is right angled triangle right angled at C. D is a point on the side

AC and E is a point on the side BC . Show that

AB 2 + DE 2 = AE 2 + BD 2 .

V. Answer the following questions :

37. Construct direct common tangents to two circles of radii 4 cm and 2 cm

whose centres are 8 cm apart. 4

38. Find the sum of first ten terms of an Arithmetic progression whose fourth

term is 13 and eighth term is 29. 4

OR

Find the three consecutive terms of a Geometric progression whose sum is

14 and their product is 64.

RR(B)-5008
CCE RR 11 81-E

39. Prove that “if two triangles are equiangular, then their corresponding sides

are in proportion”. 4

40. Solve graphically : x 2 − x − 2 = 0 . 4

RR(B)-5008 [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE RR

RR(B)-5008
 SL. No. : G

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 40 ]
Total No. of Questions : 40 ]
CCE RF [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12
[ Total No. of Printed Pages : 12
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E
CCE RR Code No. : 81-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )
( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

( À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% & Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Fresh & Regular Repeater )

¶´¤MO⁄ : 26. 03. 2018 ] [ Date : 26. 03. 2018

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑ÊÿVÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-30 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-30 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 40 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

RF & RR-410 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RF & RR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete

statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct

alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

8×1=8

1. In the given Venn diagram n ( A ) is

(A) 3 (B) 1

(C) 5 (D) 2

2. Sum of all the first ‘n’ terms of even natural number is

(A) n(n+1) (B) n(n+2)

(C) n2 (D) 2n 2

3. A boy has 3 shirts and 2 coats. How many different pairs, a shirt and a

coat can he dress up with ?

(A) 3 (B) 18

(C) 6 (D) 5

RF & RR-410
CCE RF & RR 3 81-E

4. In a random experiment, if the occurrence of one event prevents the

occurrence of other event, it is

(A) a complementary event

(B) a certain event

(C) not mutually exclusive event

(D) mutually exclusive event

5. If the polynomial p ( x ) = x 2 – x + 1 is divided by ( x – 2 ) then the

remainder is

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 0 (D) 1

6. The distance between the co-ordinates of a point ( p, q ) from the origin is

(A) p2 − q 2

(B) p2 − q 2

(C) p2 + q 2

(D) q 2 − p2

RF & RR-410 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RF & RR

7. The equation of a line having slope 3 and y-intercept 5 is

(A) 3y = 5x + 3 (B) 5y = 3x + 5

(C) y = 3x – 5 (D) y = 3x + 5

8. The surface area of a sphere of radius 7 cm is

(A) 88 cm 2 (B) 616 cm 2

(C) 661 cm 2 (D) 308 cm 2

II. Answer the following : 6×1=6

9. Find the HCF of 14 and 21.

10. The average runs scored by a batsman in 15 cricket matches is 60 and

standard deviation of the runs is 15. Find the coefficient of variation of the

runs scored by him.

11. Write the degree of the polynomial f ( x ) = x 2 – 3 x 3 + 2.

12. What are congruent circles ?

RF & RR-410
CCE RF & RR 5 81-E

5
13. If sin θ = then write the value of cosec θ.
13

14. Write the formula used to find the total surface area of a right circular

cylinder.

III. 15. If U = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 } and A = { 1, 4 }, B = { 1, 3 } show that

( A U B )l = Al I B l . 2

16. Find the sum of the series 3 + 7 + 11 + .......... to 10 terms. 2

17. At constant pressure certain quantity of water at 24°C is heated. It was

observed that the rise of temperature was found to be 4°C per minute.

Calculate the time required to rise the temperature of water to 100°C at

sea level by using formula. 2

18. Prove that 2 + 5 is an irrational number. 2

19. If n P4 = 20 ( n P2 ) then find the value of n. 2

20. A dice numbered 1 to 6 on its faces is rolled once. Find the probability of

getting either an even number or multiple of ‘3’ on its top face. 2

RF & RR-410 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RF & RR

21. What are like surds and unlike surds ? 2

22. Rationalise the denominator and simplify : 2

5+ 3
.
5− 3

23. Find the quotient and the remainder when f ( x ) = 2x 3 − 3x 2 + 5x − 7

is divided by g ( x ) = ( x – 3 ) using synthetic division. 2

OR

Find the zeros of the polynomial p ( x ) = x 2 − 15x + 50 .

24. Solve the equation x 2 − 12x + 27 = 0 by using formula. 2

25. Draw a chord of length 6 cm in a circle of radius 5 cm. Measure and write

the distance of the chord from the centre of the circle. 2

26. In ABC, ABC = 90°, BD ⊥ AC. If BD = 8 cm, AD = 4 cm, find CD

and AB. 2

OR

RF & RR-410
CCE RF & RR 7 81-E

1
In Δ ABC, XY || BC and XY = BC . If the area of Δ AXY = 10 cm 2 , find
2

the area of trapezium XYCB.

27. Show that, cot θ . cos θ + sin θ = cosec θ. 2

28. A student while conducting an experiment on Ohm’s law, plotted the graph

according to the given data. Find the slope of the line obtained. 2

X-axis I 1 2 3 4

Y-axis V 2 4 6 8

RF & RR-410 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RF & RR

29. Draw the plan for the information given below : 2

( Scale 20 m = 1 cm )

Metre To C

140

To D 50 100

60 40 to B

To E 30 40

From A

30. Out of 8 different bicycle companies, a student likes to choose bicycle from

three companies. Find out in how many ways he can choose the companies

to buy bicycle. 2

IV. 31. In a Geometric progression the sum of first three terms is 14 and the sum

of next three terms of it is 112. Find the Geometric progression. 3

OR

If ‘a’ is the Arithmetic mean of b and c, ‘b’ is the Geometric mean of c and

a, then prove that ‘c’ is the Harmonic mean of a and b.

32. Marks scored by 30 students of 10th standard in a unit test of

mathematics is given below. Find the variance of the scores : 3

Marks ( x ) 4 8 10 12 16

No. of students ( f ) 13 6 4 3 4

RF & RR-410
CCE RF & RR 9 81-E

33. If p and q are the roots of the equation x 2 − 3x + 2 = 0 , find the value of
1 1
− . 3
p q

OR

A dealer sells an article for Rs. 16 and loses as much per cent as the cost

price of the article. Find the cost price of the article.

34. Prove that, “If two circles touch each other externally, their centres and the

point of contact are collinear”. 3

35. If 7 sin 2 θ + 3 cos 2 θ = 4 and ‘θ’ is acute then show that cot θ = 3. 3

OR

The angle of elevation of an aircraft from a point on horizontal ground is

found to be 30°. The angle of elevation of same aircraft after 24 seconds

which is moving horizontally to the ground is found to be 60°. If the height

of the aircraft from the ground is 3600 3 metre, find the velocity of the

aircraft.

RF & RR-410 [ Turn over

81-E 10 CCE RF & RR

36. A solid is in the form of a cone mounted on a right circular cylinder, both

having same radii as shown in the figure. The radius of the base and

height of the cone are 7 cm and 9 cm respectively. If the total height of the

solid is 30 cm, find the volume of the solid. 3

OR

The slant height of the frustum of a cone is 4 cm and the perimeter of its

circular bases are 18 cm and 6 cm respectively. Find the curved surface

area of the frustum.

V. 37. Solve the equation x 2 − x − 2 = 0 graphically. 4

38. Construct a direct common tangent to two circles of radii 4 cm and 2 cm

whose centres are 9 cm apart. Measure and write the length of the

tangent. 4

39. State and prove Basic Proportionality ( Thale’s ) theorem. 4

RF & RR-410
CCE RF & RR 11 81-E

40. A vertical tree is broken by the wind at a height of 6 metre from its foot and

its top touches the ground at a distance of 8 metre from the foot of the

tree. Calculate the distance between the top of the tree before breaking and

the point at which tip of the tree touches the ground, after it breaks. 4

OR

In Δ ABC, AD is drawn perpendicular to BC. If BD : CD = 3 : 1, then prove

that BC 2 = 2 ( AB 2 − AC 2 ) .

RF & RR-410 [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE RF & RR

RF & RR-410
1
A

Question Paper Serial No.

CÈÉí¨Ü PÜñܤÄÔ
Joár ÊÜáá©ÅñÜ ±ÜâoWÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ : 8 ]
Total No. of Printed Pages : 8 ]
Joár ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ : 45 ]
Total No. of Questions : 45 ]
CCE RR
ÓÜíPæàñÜ ÓÜíTæ : 01-K REVISED
FULL SYLLABUS

210
Code No. : 01-K
ËÐÜ¿á : ±ÜÅ¥ÜÊÜá »ÝÐæ — PܮܰvÜ

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

Subject : First Language — KANNADA
±Üâ®ÜÃÝÊÜ£ìñÜ ÍÝÇÝ A»Ü¦ì / Regular Repeater

±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ¿á®Üá° ñæÃæ¿áÆá CÈÉ PÜñܤÄÔ

©®ÝíPÜ 12. 06. 2023 ] [ Date : 12. 06. 2023

ÓÜÊÜá¿á ¸æÙÜWæY 10-30 Äí¨Ü ÊÜá«ÝÂÖÜ° 1-45 ÃÜÊÜÃæWæ ] [ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-45 P.M.
WÜÄÐÜu AíPÜWÜÙÜá 100 ] [ Max. Marks : 100

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RR-A(210)1001 [ Turn over

01-K 2 CCE RR

I. PæÙÜX®Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ A¥ÜÊÝ A±Üä|ì ÖæàÚPæWÜÚWæ ®ÝÆáR BÁáRWÜÙÜ®Üá° ¯àvÜÇÝX¨æ. AÊÜâWÜÙÜÈÉ

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RR-A(210)1001 1
 CCE RR 3 01-K

II. PæÙÜX®ÜÊÜâWÜÙÜÈÉ Êæã¨ÜÇæÃÜvÜá ±Ü¨ÜWÜÚXÃÜáÊÜ ÓÜíŸí«Ü¨Üíñæ ÊÜáãÃܬæ¿á ¯Ü¨ÜPæR ÓÜÄ Öæãí¨ÜáÊÜ

ÓÜíŸí˜à ¯Ü¨ÜÊܬÜá® ŸÃæÀáÄ 4×1=4

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10. ÊÜÞvæãà| Ë«ÜÂ¥ÜìPÜ ÊÜÞvÜÃÜá
III. PæÙÜX®Ü ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ Jí¨æãí¨Üá ÊÝPܨÜÈÉ EñܤÃÜ ŸÃæÀáÄ 7 ×1=7
11. BíWÜÉ ÓÝÊÜÞÅg嬆 Êæç»ÜÊÜ PÜívÜáŸÃÜáÊÜ K~ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Üá
12. ¨Ü»æì¿á bWÜáÃÜá ¿ÞÊÜ WÜá|ÊÜ®Üá° JÃæÔ ¹vÜáñܤ¨æ
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14. «ÜÊÜáì¨Ü BaÜÃÜOæXÃÜáÊÜ ±ÜÅ«Ý®Ü ÊÜÞWÜì ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Üá
15. PÜ|ì¯Wæ BËáÐÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° Jwx¨ÜÊÜÃÜá ¿ÞÃÜá
16. ¨æãÅà|ÃÜá ¯ÜÃÜÍÜáÃÝÊÜá¬Ü ŸÚWæ HPæ Ÿí¨ÜÃÜá
17. Jvæ¿á®Ü AíWÜÙܨÜÈÉ ÊÜÞ訆 ÊÜáÃÜWÜÙÜá ÖæàWæ ¸æÙæ¨Üá ¯í£Êæ
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RR-A(210)1001 1 [ Turn over

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29. Ãܮܰ
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30. ®ÜÃÜQ¿ÞÊÜ®Üá ÓÜág®ÜÃÜÈ ¸Ý
×ÃܮܨÝÊÜ®Üá ÇæãàPÜÊÜÄ¿áÆá
ÖÜÃÜ|ËÃæ Öæãí©¨Ü®Ü¨ÝÊÜ®Üá »ÜãËá±ÝÆÃÜÈ
VII. PæÙÜX¬Ü ÊÝPܨÜÈÉÃÜáÊÜ AÆíPÝÃÜÊܬÜá® ÖæÓÜÄÔ, ÆûÜ| ŸÃæ¨Üá, ÓÜÊÜá¬ÜÌ¿áWæãÚÔ 1 ×3=3
31. Ôàñæ¿á ÊÜááS PÜÊÜáƨÜíñæ AÃÜÚñÜá
VIII. PæÙÜX®Ü WݨæWÜÙÜÈÉ ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Ý¨ÜÃÜã Jí¨Ü®Üá° Wݨæ¿á ÊÜáÖÜñܤ̨æãí©Wæ ËÓܤÄÔ ŸÃæÀáÄ 1 × 3 =
3
32. ÖÜ|QRíñÜ WÜá| ÊæáàÆá.
A¥ÜÊÝ
PÜáí¸ÝÃܯWæ ÊÜÃÜáÐÜ ¨æãOæ¡Wæ ¯ËáÐÜ.
IX. PæÙÜX¬Ü ÊÝPÜ A¥ÜÊÝ ÖæàÚPæWÜÚWæ ÓÜí¨Ü»Üì ÊÜáñÜᤠÓÝÌÃÜÓÜÂWÜÙܬÜá® ŸÃæÀáÄ 6 × 3 = 18
33. ±ÜÅÊÝÓÜÊÜâ ÎûÜ|¨Ü Jí¨Üá »ÝWÜÊÝX¨æ.
34. ñÝÊÜâ PÜwÊæá ÊÜÞñÜ®Ýw©ªàÄ ÖæaÜác PæÆÓÜ ÊÜÞw©ªàÄ.
35. KÖæãà, ®Ü®ÜWæà WÜáwÊÜá®æ PÜpݤ C©ªàÃæãà
36. ñæàÈÔ ÊÜááÙÜáXÔ SívÜ&SívÜWÜÙÜ
37. ËÇÝ£Àáí¨Ü ÖÜáPÜáÊÜá PÜÚÔñÜá PÜáí±Ü~ ÓÜÃÜPÝÃÜ

RR-A(210)1001 1
 CCE RR 5 01-K

38. ¸æàÃæ Ÿ|¡Êܬæ PÝOæ

X. PæÙÜX®Ü ±Ü¨Ü»ÝWÜÊܬÜá® ¯Üä|ìWæãÚÔ ŸÃæÀáÄ 1 ×4=4
39. ÊÜÞÄWèñÜ|ÊÝ¿áᤠ®ÝÚ®Ü

……………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………

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ËàÃÜÃæçÊÜÃÜ ®æãàÀáÓæ®Üá ÃÝiàÊÜÓÜS®ÝOæ

A¥ÜÊÝ

PæãÃÜÙÜ ÓæÃæ ×XY¨ÜÊÜâ ¨ÜêWÜágÆ

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®ÜÃÜá× Pæãí¨Ü®Üá ÖÜÆÊÜâ ÊÜÞñæà®æí¨Üá bí£Ô¨Ü

XI. PæÙÜX®Ü ±Ü¨Ü»ÝWÜÊÜ®Üá° K© A¥ÜìÊÜÞwPæãívÜá, AvÜPÜÊÝXÃÜáÊÜ ÊÜåèÆÂÊܮݰ«ÜÄÔ ÓÝÃÝíÍÜ

ŸÃæÀáÄ
1 ×4=4
40. ñæWæ¨ÜáñܤÄà¿áÊÜáí ÊÜááĨÜá PÜá¨ÜáÃæ¿á WÜÙÜPæ >
¹X¨Üá PܨÜÚà¨ÜáÅÊÜáPæ PÜorÇæR ÊÜáá­ÓÜáñÜÃ… >
ËáWæ ¬ÜvÜáX ¸æàvܸæàvÜÃÜÓÜáWÜÙÜ ÊÝi¿áí ¹vÜá ŸwÊÜÃæÊÜᾬæ¬ÜÆá >>
®ÜWÜáñæ ±ÝÊÜìÃÜ ÊÜáPÜRÙÜíi¨æãvæ hÝ®ÜQ¿á >

RR-A(210)1001 1 [ Turn over

01-K 6 CCE RR
ÊÜáWܯ¨ÜPæ ¸æ¨ÜÃÜáÊÜ®æ ±æäàX ¯àÊæí¨Üá ÆÊÜ >
®ÜWÜvÜáñܮܩí¨æ ¹ÈªÃÜáÊÜ®æàÄÔ £àw hæàWæç¨Üá ¯í£¨Üì®Üá >>
XII. PæÙÜX®Ü ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ Gíoá A¥ÜÊÝ ÖÜñÜᤠÊÝPÜÂWÜÙÜÈÉ EñܤÃÜ ŸÃæÀáÄ 2 ×4=8

41. ¨ÜáÐÜrŸá©œ¿á ñÜíñÜÅ BñÜ­Wæ £ÃÜáWÜá¸Ý|ÊÝ¨Ü ŸWæ¿á¬Üá® PÜáÄñÜá ŸÃæÀáÄ.

A¥ÜÊÝ

¨ÜáÐÜrŸá©œ ÖÝWÜã «ÜÊÜáìŸá©œ «ÜÊÜÞì˜PÜÃÜ|ÃÜ ŸÚWæ ŸÃÜÆá PÝÃÜ|Êæà®Üá ËÊÜÄÔ.

42. ®ÝÊÜâ ¿ÞÊÜ ÓÜíPÜƳÊÜ®Üá° PæçWæãÙÜÛ¸æàPÜá GíŸá¨Üá PÜË i.GÓ…. ÎÊÜÃÜá¨Üůܳ¬ÜÊÜÃÜ BÍÜ¿áÊÝX¨æ £ÚÔ.

A¥ÜÊÝ

ÓÜíPÜƳ ÊÜáñÜᤠA®ÜáÐÝu®Ü PÜáÄñÜíñæ PÜË i.GÓ…. ÎÊÜÃÜá¨Üůܳ¬ÜÊÜÃÜ A¼±ÝÅ¿áÊæà®Üá ËÊÜÄÔ.

XIII. PæÙÜX®Ü WܨÜ»ÝWÜÊÜ®Üá° ÊÜá®ÜÔÕ®ÜÈÉ K©PæãívÜá, PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ ¯ÜÅÍæ®WÜÚWæ EñܤÃÜ ŸÃæÀáÄ
1 ×4=4(2+2)
43. gWÜñÜᤠ±ÜäiÓÜáÊÜâ¨Üá ÍÜQ¤¿á®Üá° ¨ÜáŸìÆñæ¿á¬Ü®ÆÉ GíŸá¨Ü¬Üá® ¿ááÊÜPÜÃÜá ÓÜÄ¿ÞX
£Ú©ÃܸæàPÜá. ÍÜPܤ¯Wæ GÆÉÃÜã B±Ü¤ÃÜá, AÍÜPܤ®Ü®Üá° GÆÉÃÜã £ÃÜÓÜRÄÓÜáÊÜÃÜá. ¨æàÖÜ, ÊÜá®ÜÓÜáÕ
ÓÜÄ¿ÞXÃÜáÊÜ ¬ÝÊÜâ ÔPÜR AÊÜPÝÍÜWÜÙܬÜá® ÓÜÄ¿ÞX ŸÙÜÔPæãívÜá ÍÜQ¤¿á¬Üá®
ÓÜÊÜìñæãàÊÜááSÊÝX ÖæbcÔPæãÙÜÛ¸æàPÜá. ¨æç×PÜ, ÊÜÞ¬ÜÔPÜ, ¸è©œPÜ , ¬æç£PÜ ŸÆWÜÙÜ hæãñæWæ
BñܾÍÜQ¤¿á®Üá° ¸æÙæÔPæãÙÜÛ¸æàPÜá. ÍÜQ¤ Óè»ÝWÜ bÃÜiàÊÜ®Ü¨Ü JÙÜWÜáoár . ¨ÜáŸìÆñæ GíŸá¨Üá
bíñæ ¨Üá@SWÜÙÜ ÊÜáãÆ Gí¨Ü ÓÝÌËá ËÊæàPÝ®Üí¨ÜÃÜá ŸÈÐÜuÃÝX, Pܹº|¨Ü ÊÜÞíÓÜSívÜ, EQR¬Ü
¬ÜÃÜÊÜáívÜÆ, ˨Üᣤ¬Ü CaÝfÍÜQ¤¿á ŸÆWÜÙܬÜá® ¸æÙæÔPæãívÜá ­ÊÜá¾ PÝÆ ÊæáàÇæ ­ÈÉ Gí¨Üá
£ÃÜá£ÃÜáX ÓÝĨÜÃÜá.

®ÜÊÜá¾®Üá° ¨ÜáŸìÆWæãÚÓÜáÊÜ ®ÜãÃÝÃÜá PÜñæ, Zo®æ, bñÜÅWÜÙÜá ¯ñÜÂÊÜä ±ÜÅÓÝÃÜÊÝWÜᣤÃÜ ŸÖÜá¨Üá.

CÊÜâ ¿ááÊÜPÜÃÜ ÊÜá¬ÜÓÜÕ¬Üá® ñÜÆÉ|WæãÚÓÜŸÖÜá¨Üá. B¨ÜÃæ C¨Ü¬Üá® ¨Ýq ÊæáàÇæàÃÜÆá ¸æàPÝ¨Ü ÍÜQ¤
RR-A(210)1001 1
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¬ÜÊÜá¾ÈÉÁáà C¨æ. ¯ÜÅ£Á㟺¬Ü ÊÜá¬ÜÔÕ¬Ü BÙܨÜÈÉ ¨æçËàÍÜQ¤ C¨æ. A¯ÝÃÜ ÍÜQ¤ C¨ÜªÃÜã ¬ÝÊÜâ
WÜáÇÝÊÜáÃÜíñæ ÊÜ£ìÓÜáñæ¤àÊæ. C¨ÜPæR PÝÃÜ| Jí¨Üá AþÝ®Ü, C®æã°í¨Üá ¸ÝÆ©í¨Ü ¸æÙæÔPæãívÜá
Ÿí¨Ü ­Ðæà«ÝñܾPÜ »ÝÊܬæ. ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ¯Ðæà«ÝñܾPÜ »ÝÊÜ®æ A¥ÜÊÝ ÁãàaÜ®æ JÙÜX®Ü B A±ÝÃÜ
ÍÜQ¤¿á¬Üá® ¯ÜÄËáñÜWæãÚÔ ¬ÜÊÜᾬÜá® ¨ÜáŸìÆÃܬݮX ÊÜÞvÜáñܤ¨æ. ¯ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá BñܾËÍÝÌÓܨÜ
»ÝÊÜ®æ ÊÜáñÜᤠÃÜaÜ®ÝñܾPÜ ÁãàaÜ®æ ®ÜÊÜá¾ A»Üá¨ܿáPæR ®æÃÜÊÝWÜ áñܤ¨æ.
±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜá
A A±ÝÃÜÍÜQ¤ C¨ÜªÃÜã WÜáÇÝÊÜáÃÜíñæ ÊÜ£ìÓÜÆá PÝÃÜ|Êæà®Üá
Ÿ ÓÝÌËá ËÊæàPÝ®Üí¨ÜÃÜá ¿ááÊÜPÜÄWæ ¯àw¨Ü ÓÜí¨æàÍÜÊæà®Üá £ÚÔ.

XIV. PæÙÜX®Ü ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Ý¨ÜÃÜã Jí¨ÜPæR PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ ÊÜÞ×£¿á®Üá° B«ÜÄÔ ±ÜñÜÅ ŸÃæÀáÄ 1 ×5=5

44. ¯ÊÜá¾®Üá° ¨æàÊÜ®ÜÖÜÚÛ¿á ÓÜPÝìÄ ±èÅyÜÍÝÇæ¿á A©Ìñ… Gí¨Üá »ÝËÔPæãívÜá, ¹à© ©à±Ü
ÓÜıÜwÔPæãvÜáÊÜíñæ PæãàÄ WÝÅÊÜá±ÜíaÝÀᣠA«ÜÂûÜÄWæãí¨Üá ÊÜá®ÜË ±ÜñÜÅÊܬÜá® ŸÃæÀáÄ.

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BaÜÄst ÓܨݽÊÜ®Ý ©®Ü ÊÜ®Üá° ËÊÜÄÔ ¸æíWÜÙÜãÄ®Ü ËÊæàPÝ®Üí¨Ü ®ÜWÜÃÜ¨Ü ¯ÊÝÔ¿ÞXÃÜáÊÜ
PÜÓÜã¤Ä GíŸ ÖæÓÜÄ¬Ü ñÝÀá¿áÊÜÄWæ ¯ÜñÜÅÊܬÜá® ŸÃæÀáÄ.
XV. PæÙÜX®Ü ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Ý¨ÜÃÜã Jí¨Üá ËÐÜ¿áPæR ÖÜ©¬æç¨Üá ÊÝPÜÂWÜÚWæ PÜwÊæáÀáÆɨÜíñæ ¯ÜÅŸí«Ü ŸÃæÀáÄ

1 ×5=5
45. »ÝÃÜñÜ ÓÝÌñÜíñÜÅ嬆 AÊÜáêñÜ ÊÜáÖæãàñÜÕÊÜ

A¥ÜÊÝ

WÜÅí¥ÝÆ¿áWÜÙÜ ÊÜáÖÜñܤÌ

RR-A(210)1001 1 [ Turn over

01-K 8 CCE RR

RR-A(210)1001 1
CCE RR CCE
1
RR 81-E

81-E
:
Code No. : 81-E

Subject : MATHEMATICS
( / English Version )
( / New Syllabus )
( / Regular Repeater )

General Instructions :
i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and
subjective types of questions having 40 questions.
ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer
along with its letter in the space provided.
iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.
iv) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
v) Candidates should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written
in pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )
vi) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.
vii) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
viii) Space for Rough Work has been printed and provided at the bottom of
each page.
ix) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

991408 RR-602 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 81=8

1. By applying Euclid‘s division lemma 72 and 28 can be expressed as

(A) 28 = ( 72 – 16 )  2 (B) 72 = ( 28  2 ) + 16

(C) 72 = ( 28  2 ) – 16 (D) 16 = 72 – ( 28 + 2 ).

2. A and B are two sets. If n ( A ) = 20, n ( B ) = 30 and n ( A  B ) = 40,

then n ( A  B ) is equal to

(A) 50 (B) 10

(C) 40 (D) 70.

b a
3. If a, b and c are in Arithmetic progression then is equal to
c b
b
(A) (B) 0
a

(C) 1 (D) 2a.

4. ―The occurrence of one event excludes the occurrence of other event.‖

In a random experiment of probability theory it is called

(A) Complementary event (B) Impossible event

(C) Mutually exclusive event (D) Certain event.

5. The standard deviation of a set of scores is 1·6. The variance of these

scores is

(A) 0·4 (B) 1·96

(C) 0·04 (D) 2·56.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

991408 RR-602
CCE RR 3 81-E
3 3
6. The product of 2 2 and 3 4 is

(A) 6 (B) 8

(C) 10 (D) 12.

7. In the following figure  ABC = 90° and BD  AC. If AD = 8 cm,

CD = 2 cm, then the length of BD is

(A) 4 cm (B) 8 cm

(C) 16 cm (D) 10 cm.

8. In the following figure AB  BC and  ACB = 30°, given

BC = 300 m. The length of AB is

(A) 10 m (B) 100 m

(C) 10 3 m (D) 100 3 m.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

991408 RR-602 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RR

II. Answer the following : 61=6

2
9. If Tn  2n  5 then find T 3 .

10. Write the degree of the polynomial 19x  3x 3  14 .

11. Rationalise the surd  

5  2 to get a rational number.

12. PQ and PR are tangents to given circle as shown in the figure. If

 RPQ = 90° and PQ = 8 cm, find the radius of the circle.

13. Write the ‗discriminant‘ of the equation ax 2  bx  c  0 .

14. Write the formula to find the total surface area of a right circular
cylinder.

III. Answer the following :

15. Show that 3 + 5 is an irrational number. 2

16. Draw Venn diagrams to illustrate the following sets :

(i) ( A  B )l (ii) A l  B. 2
1 1
17. In a Harmonic Progression T5  and T11  . Find T1 . 2
12 15
n
18. If P2  90 , then find the value of n. 2

19. An unbiased cubical die whose faces are numbered 1 to 6 is rolled

once. Find the probability of getting a square number on the top face.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

991408 RR-602
CCE RR 5 81-E

20. Rationalise the denominator and simplify : 2

1 1
4  48 .
3 2

21. Find the roots of the equation x 2  7x  12  0 by using the formula.

OR

Solve x 2  6x  7  0 by the method of completing the square.

22. The length of a rectangular playground is 2 m longer than its

breadth. If the area of the playground is 195 sq.m, find the length
and breadth of the field. 2
23. In the following figure, AC || BD and CE || DF. If OA = 12 cm,
AB = 9 cm, OC = 8 cm and EF = 4·5 cm, find OE.

OR
If the area of two similar triangles are equal, then they are congruent.
Prove. 2

24. If 24 tan  = 7, then find (i) sin , (ii) cos . 2

25. Find the equation of a straight line having angle of inclination 60°
and y-intercept 2. 2

26. The distance between the points ( 3, 1 ) and ( 0, x ) is 5 units. Find x.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

991408 RR-602 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RR

27. In the given figure, AB, BC and AC are tangents to the circle at P, Q
and R. If AB = AC, show that Q is the mid-point of BC. 2

28. The radii of two circular ends of a frustum of a cone shaped dust bin
are 15 cm and 8 cm. If its depth is 63 cm, find the volume of the
dust bin. 2

29. Draw a plan for the recordings from Surveyor‘s field work book given
below : 2

[ Scale : 20 m = 1 cm ]
To D ( m )
150
120 60 to C
To E 60 80
30 40 to B
From A

30. Verify Euler‘s formula for the given network : 2

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

991408 RR-602
CCE RR 7 81-E
n
Cr n
IV. 31. Prove that  where 1≤ r ≤ n.
(n  1) r
Cr  1

OR

A polygon has 44 diagonals. Find the number of sides of the polygon.

32. Calculate the standard deviation of the following data ( by Assumed

mean method ). 3

Assumed Mean = 25

C.I. 0 — 10 10 — 20 20 — 30 30 — 40 40 — 50

f 7 10 15 8 10

33. The polynomials P ( x ) = ax 3  3x 2  13 and g ( x ) = 2x 3  4x  a

are divided by ( x – 3 ). If the remainder in each case is the same, find
the value of a.

OR

If the quotient obtained on dividing x 4  10x 3  35x 2  50x  29 by

( x + 4 ) is x 3  ax 2  bx  6 then find a and b. Also find the
remainder.

( Hint : Apply Synthetic division ) 3

34. In an equilateral triangle ABC, AD  BC. Prove that

5
AB 2  CD 2  AC 2 .
4

OR

In  ABC, AD  BC and BD : CD = 3 : 1. Prove that

 
2 AB 2  AC 2  BC 2 . 3

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

991408 RR-602 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RR

35. Prove that

( sin  + cosec  ) 2 + ( cos  + sec  ) 2 = 7 + tan 2  + cot 2 .

OR
1  cos 
Prove that = cosec  + cot . 3
1  cos 

36. Prove that the tangents drawn to a circle from an external point are
equal. 3

V. 37. The product of three consecutive terms of a geometric progression is

216 and the sum of their products taken in pairs is 156. Find the
terms of the progression.

OR

Find three consecutive terms in an Arithmetic progression whose

sum is 18 and sum of their squares is 140. 4

38. Draw a transverse common tangent to two circles of radii 4 cm and

2 cm whose centres are 9 cm apart. Measure the length of the
tangent. 4

39. Prove that ―If two triangles are equiangular, then their corresponding
sides are proportional‖. 4

40. Solve the quadratic equation x 2  x  6  0 graphically. 4

graph

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

991408 RR-602
 CÈÉí¨Ü PÜñܤÄÔ
Question Booklet Serial No. : 18-

®æãàí¨Ü~ ÓÜíTæ :
Register Number :
±Ü£ÅPæ - 01 / Paper – 01
GÓ….GÓ….GÇ….Ô. ÊÜááS ±ÜÄàûæ – 2021
SSLC MAIN EXAMINATION – 2021
+ +
Subjects : MATHEMATICS + SCIENCE + SOCIAL SCIENCE
PܮܰvÜ ÊÜáñÜᤠCíXÉÐ… ÊÜÞ«ÜÂÊÜá / Kannada and English Medium
NSR / NSPR UNREVISED

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION BOOKLET

: 10-30 1-30 ] [ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-30 P.M.
: 40 + 40 + 40 = 120 ] [ Total No. of Questions : 40 + 40 + 40 = 120
: 40 + 40 + 40 = 120 ] [ Max. Marks : 40 + 40 + 40 = 120
81-K/E — /Mathematics
˨ݦìWÜÚWæ ÓÜãaÜ®æWÜÙÜá / Instructions to the Students :
1. ¯ÜÅÊæàÍÜ ¯ÜñÜŨÜÈÉ¬Ü Öܬæã®í¨Üá AíQWÜÙÜ ¬æãàí¨Ü~ ÓÜíTæ¿á¬Üá® ¯ÜÅÍ殯ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á ŸÆ¯ÝÍÜÌì¨Ü
ÊæáàÆᤩ¿áÈÉ ÓܱÐÜrÊÝX ŸÃæÀáÄ.
Write your eleven digit Register Number on the Question Booklet as
allotted in the admission ticket in the space provided at the top right
corner of this front page.
2. D ¯ÜÅÍ殯ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á¬Üá® ×ÊÜáá¾S hÝPæp… ÊÜáãÆPÜ ÊæãÖÜÃÜá ÔàÇ… ÊÜÞvÜÇÝX¨æ. ±ÜÄàûæ
¯ÝÅÃÜí»ÜÊÝWÜáÊÜ ÓÜÊÜá¿áPæR ­ÊÜá¾ ¯ÜÅÍ殯ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á ŸÆŸ© ¯ÝÍÜÌìÊܬÜá® PÜñܤÄÔ,
±ÜÅÍæ°±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ GÇÝÉ ±ÜâoWÜÙÜá CÊæÁáà Gí¨Üá ±ÜÄàüÔPæãÚÛ.
This Question Booklet has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut
on the right side to open the Question Booklet at the time of
commencement of the examination. Check whether all the pages of the
Question Booklet are intact.
3. ËÐÜ¿áÊÝÃÜá OMR ±ÜâoÊÜ®Üá° ±ÜÅñæÂàPÜÊÝX ¯àvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ¨Üá.
OMR Sheet will be provided subject-wise separately.
4. D ¯ÜÅÍ殯ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áá ÊÜáãÃÜá PæãàÃ… ËÐÜ¿áWÜÙܬÜá® Öæãí©¨Üáª, ¯ÜÅ£ ËÐÜ¿áÊÜä ¯ÜÅñæÂàPÜÊݨÜ
±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿á®Üá° Öæãí©¨æ.
This set of Question Booklets consists of three core subjects and each
Tear here

subject has separate Question Booklet.

1801 1 of 32
81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

5. ±ÜÅ£ ËÐÜ¿áPæR 40 ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚ¨Üáª, D ±ÜÅÍæ°±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áá Joár 120 ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° Öæãí©¨æ.

(i) WÜ~ñÜ & ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ 1 Äí¨Ü 40
(ii) ËþÝ®Ü & ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ 41 Äí¨Ü 80
(iii) ÓÜÊÜÞg ËþÝ®Ü & ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ ÓÜíTæ 81 Äí¨Ü 120
40 questions are provided against each subject. This set of Question
Booklets contains 120 questions in all.
(i) Mathematics – Question Numbers 1 to 40
(ii) Science – Question Numbers 41 to 80
(iii) Social Science – Question Numbers 81 to 120
6. ±ÜÅ£à ±ÜÅÍæ°Wæ Jí¨Üá AíPÜ˨Üáª, GÇÝÉ ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWÜã EñܤÄÓÜáÊÜâ¨Üá PÜvÝx¿á ÖÝWÜã ±ÜÅ£
ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜPæR Jí¨Üá AíPÜ˨Üáª, ñܱݳ¨Ü EñܤÃÜPæR ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà MáOÝñܾPÜ AíPÜWÜÙÜá
CÃÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ.
Each question carries one mark. Answering all the questions is
compulsory and each correct answer will be awarded one mark. There will
be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. ¯ÜÄàûÝ AÊܘ¿áÈÉ,
G ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÙÜ®Üá° hÝWÜÃÜãPÜñæÀáí¨Ü K©Ä.
¹ K.Gí.BÃ…. ( OMR ) ±Üâo¨ÜÈÉ ±ÜÅ£ ±ÜÅÍæ°ÓÜíTæÂWæ ÓÜÄ Öæãí¨ÜáÊÜ EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá°
WÜáÃÜá£ÓÜÆá ¯àvÜÇÝXÃÜáÊÜ ®ÝÆáR ÊÜêñܤWÜÙÜ ±æçQ ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜ¨Ü Jí¨Üá ÊÜêñܤÊÜ®Üá°
¯àÈ/PܯÜâ± ÍÝÀá¿á ¸ÝÇ… ¯ÝÀáíp… ¯æ¬… ÊÜÞñÜÅ E¯ÜÁãàXÔ ÓÜí¯Üä|ìÊÝX
Íæàv… ÊÜÞw. JÊæá¾ EñܤÃÜÊܬÜá® Íæàv… ÊÜÞw¨Ü ÊæáàÇæ Ÿ¨ÜÇÝÀáÓÜÆá AÊÜPÝÍÜËÆÉ
ÊÜáñÜᤠ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà A¬ÜWÜñÜ WÜáÃÜáñÜáWÜÙܬÜá® K.Gí.BÃ…. ( OMR ) ÊæáàÇæ ÊÜÞvܸÝÃܨÜá.
E¨ÝÖÜÃÜOæ ±ÜÅÍæ° ÓÜíTæ 20PæR EñܤÃÜ¨Ü BÁáR ÓÜíTæ C BX¨ÜªÈÉ K.Gí.BÃ….
( OMR ) ±Üâo¨ÜÈÉ BÁáR C ¿á®Üá° ¯àÈ/PܯÜâ± ÍÝÀá¿á ¸ÝÇ… ¯ÝÀáíp… ¯æ¬…
E¯ÜÁãàXÔ D PæÙÜWæ ñæãàÄÔ¨Üíñæ ÊÜêñܤÊܬÜá® ÓÜí¯Üä|ìÊÝX Íæàv… ÊÜÞvܸæàPÜá.
±ÜÅÍæ° ÓÜíTæ 20) A B C D (C¨Üá E¨ÝÖÜÃÜOæWæ ÊÜÞñÜÅ)

Ô K.Gí.BÃ…. ( OMR ) ÖÝÙæ¿á¬Üá® ÊÜávÜaÜáÊÜâ¨Üá, ÖÜÄ¿ááÊÜâ¨Üá A¥ÜÊÝ Óærà¯ÜÇ… °¬…

ÊÜÞvܸÝÃܨÜá.

1801 2 of 32
 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

During the examination,

a) Read the questions carefully.

b) Completely darken / shade the relevant circle against Question

Number in the OMR Sheet using blue / black ball point pen. Do not

try to alter the entry and not to do any stray marks on OMR Sheet.

Example : In the question booklet, if C is the correct answer for

Question No. 20, then in the OMR Sheet shade the option C using

blue / black ball point pen as follows.

Question No. 20) A B C D ( This is an example only )

c) Do not fold, tear, wrinkle or staple on the OMR Sheet.

8. Jí¨Üá ¯ÜÅÍæ®Wæ Jí¨ÜQRíñÜ ÖæaÜác ÊÜêñܤWÜÙܬÜá® Íæàv… ÊÜÞw¨ÜªÈÉ AíñÜÖÜ EñܤÃÜWÜÙܬÜá® ñܯæ±í¨Üá
±ÜÄWÜ~Ô AíPÜWÜÙÜ®Üá° ¯àvÜÇÝWÜáÊÜâ©ÆÉ.

If more than one circle is shaded for a given question, such answer is

treated as wrong and no marks will be given.

9. K.Gí.BÃ…. ( OMR ) ±Üâo¨ÜÈÉ ¯WÜ©ñÜ ÓܧÙܨÜÈÉ Ë¨Ý¦ì ÖÝWÜã PæãsÜw ÊæáàÈÌaÝÃÜPÜÃÜá

ñܱܳ¨æà ÓÜ× ÊÜÞvܸæàPÜá.

Student and Room Invigilator should sign in the OMR Sheet in the space

provided.

1801 3 of 32
81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

10. ¯ÜÄàûÝ AÊܘ ÊÜááX¨Ü ¬ÜíñÜÃÜ ËÐÜ¿áÊÝÃÜá EñܤÄst K.Gí.BÃ…. ( OMR )®Üá° PæãsÜw
ÊæáàÈÌaÝÃÜPÜÄWæ ñܱܳ¨æà J²³ÓܸæàPÜá.

Candidate should return the subject-wise answered OMR Sheet to the

Room Invigilator before leaving the examination hall.

11. PÜaÝc PÝ¿áìÊÜ®Üá° ±ÜÅÍæ°±ÜâÔ¤Pæ¿áÈÉ ¯àwÃÜáÊÜ PÜaÝc PÝ¿áì¨Ü ÖÝÙæ¿áÈÉÁáà ÊÜÞvÜáÊÜâ¨Üá.

Rough work can be done in the space provided at the end of the Question

Booklet.

12. ¯ÜÄàûÝ PæãsÜwÁãÙÜWæ PÝÂÆáRÇæàoÃ…, Êæã¸æçÇ… ¶æäଅ, Óݾp…ì ÊÝa… ÊÜáñÜᤠCñÜÃæ
¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà GÇæPÝó­P… E¯ÜPÜÃÜ|WÜÙܬÜá® ñÜÃÜáÊÜâ¨Ü¬Üá® ­Ðæà˜ÓÜÇÝX¨æ.

Calculators, Mobiles, Smart Watches and any other electronic equipment

are not allowed inside the examination hall.

1801 4 of 32
 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

Subject : MATHEMATICS
D ±ÜÅ£Áãí¨Üá ±ÜÅÍæ°WÜÚWæ A¥ÜÊÝ A±Üä|ì ÖæàÚPæWÜÚWæ ®ÝÆáR BÁáRWÜÙÜ®Üá° ¯àvÜÇÝX¨æ.
AÊÜâWÜÙÜÈÉ ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü EñܤÃÜÊÜ®Üá° BÄÔ ¯ÊÜáWæ ¯àvÜÇÝXÃÜáÊÜ K.Gí.BÃ…. ( OMR ) EñܤÃÜ
±Ü£ÅPæ¿áÈÉ ¯àÈ A¥ÜÊÝ PܱÜâ³ ÍÝÀá¿á ¸ÝÇ… ±ÝÀáíp… ±æ®…¯í¨Ü ÓÜÄ¿Þ¨Ü BÁáR¿á®Üá°
Íæàv… ÊÜÞw 40 × 1 = 40

Four choices are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Choose the correct answer among them and shade the correct
option in the OMR Answer Sheet given to you with a black / blue ball point
pen. 40 × 1 = 40
1. A = { 2, 3, 7, 8, 9 } ÊÜáñÜᤠB = { 1, 3, 5, 6, 7 } B¨ÜÃæ, A  B=

(A) { 2, 9 } (B) { 3, 7 }

(C) { 5, 6 } (D) { 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 }

If A = { 2, 3, 7, 8, 9 } and B = { 1, 3, 5, 6, 7 } then A  B =

(A) { 2, 9 } (B) { 3, 7 }

(C) { 5, 6 } (D) { 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 }
2. 50 g®ÜÃÜ WÜáí²®ÜÈÉ 30 g®ÜÃÜá qà¿á®Üá°, 25 g®ÜÃÜá Pݵ¿á®Üá° ÖÝWÜã 16 g®ÜÃÜá qà
ÊÜáñÜᤠPݵ GÃÜvÜ®Üã° CÐÜr±ÜvÜáñݤÃæ. Pݵ A¥ÜÊÝ qà ¿ÞÊÜâ¨Ý¨ÜÃæãí¨Ü®Üá° CÐÜr±ÜvÜáÊÜÊÜÃÜ
ÓÜíTæÂ
(A) 11 (B) 22

(C) 39 (D) 40

In a group of 50 persons 30 like tea, 25 like coffee and 16 like both tea and
coffee. The number of persons who like either coffee or tea is

(A) 11 (B) 22

(C) 39 (D) 40

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81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

3. 4, 8, 16, ..... D WÜáOæãàñܤÃÜ ÍæÅà{¿á ÓÝÊÜޮܠA®Üá±ÝñÜ

1
(A) 3 (B)
2

(C) 4 (D) 2

The common ratio of the Geometric Progression 4, 8, 16, ..... is

1
(A) 3 (B)
2

(C) 4 (D) 2

4. 1 ÊÜáñÜᤠ9 ÃÜ ®ÜvÜá訆 ÖÜÃÝñܾPÜ ÊÜÞ«ÜÂ

18
(A) 3 (B)
10
9
(C) 5 (D)
10

Harmonic Mean between 1 and 9 is

18
(A) 3 (B)
10
9
(C) 5 (D)
10

5. Jí¨Üá ÓÜÊÜÞíñÜÃÜ ÍæÅà{¿áÈÉ 14®æà ±Ü¨ÜÊÜ®Üá° 18®æà ±Ü¨Ü©í¨Ü PÜÙæ¨ÝWÜ, 32 ÔWÜáñܤ¨æ.

ÖÝWݨÜÃæ ÓÝÊÜޮܠÊÜÂñÝÂÓÜ

(A) –6 (B) –4

(C) 8 (D) 10

In an Arithmetic Progression if 14th term is subtracted from 18th term,

the result is 32. The common difference is

(A) –6 (B) –4

(C) 8 (D) 10

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 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

6. Jí¨Üá ÓÜÊÜÞíñÜÃÜ ÍæÅà{¿á Êæã¨ÜÆ "n' ±Ü¨ÜWÜÙÜ Êæãñܤ Sn  2n 2  5n B¨ÜÃæ, A¨ÜÃÜ

GÃÜvÜ®æà ±Ü¨Ü

(A) 11 (B) 12

(C) 14 (D) 15

If the sum of first n terms of an Arithmetic Progression is Sn  2n 2  5n ,

then its second term is

(A) 11 (B) 12

(C) 14 (D) 15

7. 18 ÊÜáñÜᤠ45 ÃÜ ÊÜá.ÓÝ.A.

(A) 3 (B) 9

(C) 18 (D) 90

The HCF of 18 and 45 is

(A) 3 (B) 9

(C) 18 (D) 90

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81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

8. (0!+1!) ®Ü ¸æÇæ

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D) 10

The value of ( 0 ! + 1 ! ) is

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D) 10

9. n
C 8  n C12 B¨ÝWÜ, ‘n’ ®Ü ¸æÇæ

(A) 14 (B) 15

(C) 16 (D) 20

n
If C 8  n C12 , then the value of ‘n’ is

(A) 14 (B) 15

(C) 16 (D) 20

10. ¿ÞÊÜâ¨æà AíQ¿á®Üá° ±Üâ®ÜÃÝÊÜ£ìÓܨæ 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 AíQWÜÚí¨Ü ÃÜbÓÜŸÖÜá¨Ý¨Ü

2000 QRíñÜ ¨æãvÜx¨Ý¨Ü ®ÝÆáR&AíQ ÓÜíTæÂWÜÙÜ Joár ÓÜíTæÂ

(A) 96 (B) 102

(C) 114 (D) 126

1801 8 of 32
 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

The number of four-digit numbers more than 2000 that can be formed

using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 without repeating any digit is

(A) 96 (B) 102

(C) 114 (D) 126

11. Jí¨Üá BoÊÜ®Üá° WæÆáÉÊÜ ÓÜí»ÜÊܯà¿áñæ¿áá 0.3 B¨ÜÃæ, A¨æà BoÊÜ®Üá° ÓæãàÆáÊÜ
ÓÜí»ÜÊܯà¿áñæ

(A) 0.3 (B) 0.7

(C) 0.5 (D) 1

If the probability of winning a game is 0.3, then the probability of losing

the same game is

(A) 0.3 (B) 0.7

(C) 0.5 (D) 1

12. ÓÜÃÝÓÜÄ x ÊÜáñÜᤠÊÜÞ®ÜPÜ ËaÜÆ®æ  B¨ÝWÜ ÊÜÞ²ì®Ü WÜáOÝíPÜÊÜ®Üá° PÜívÜá×w¿áÆá

ŸÙÜÓÜáÊÜ ÓÜãñÜÅ

 x
(A)  100 (B)  100
x 

 100
(C)  x (D)  
100 x

1801 9 of 32
81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

If Arithmetic Mean is x and Standard Deviation is  then coefficient of

variation is calculated by using the formula

 x
(A)  100 (B)  100
x 

 100
(C)  x (D)  
100 x

13. PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ BÊÜ꣤ ËñÜÃÜOÝ PæãàÐÜuPÜ¨Ü ÓÜÃÝÓÜÄ

x 3 8 13 18

f 1 2 3 4

(A) 10 (B) 11

(C) 12 (D) 13

The Arithmetic Mean for the given frequency distribution table is

x 3 8 13 18

f 1 2 3 4

(A) 10 (B) 11

(C) 12 (D) 13

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 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

14. 3 a  5 b ¿á ÓÜí¿ááX¾

(A)  3 a  5 b

(B) 5 a  3 b

(C) 3 a  5 b

(D)  3 a  5 b

Conjugate of 3 a  5 b is

(A)  3 a  5 b

(B) 5 a  3 b

(C) 3 a  5 b

(D)  3 a  5 b

15.  
3 5 2 C¨ÜÃÜ ¸æÇæ

(A) 8 + 2 15 (B) 18 + 2 15

(C) 20 + 2 15 (D) 34 + 2 15

The value of  
3  5 2 is

(A) 8 + 2 15 (B) 18 + 2 15

(C) 20 + 2 15 (D) 34 + 2 15

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81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

16. x 3
 a 2x  x  2  ÃÜ A±ÜÊÜñÜì®Ü ( x – a ) B¨ÝWÜ, ‘a’ ®Ü ¸æÇæ
(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) –1 (D) –2

If ( x – a ) is a factor of x 3

 a 2 x  x  2 , then the value of ‘a’ is

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) –1 (D) –2

17. 4x 3  5x 2  7 ŸÖÜá¯Ü¨æãàQ¤¿á ÊÜáÖÜñܤÊÜá [ÝñÜ (wXÅ)

(A) –7 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

The degree of the polynomial 4x 3  5x 2  7 is

(A) –7 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

18. (x–4)(x–3)=0 ÓÜËáàPÜÃÜ|¨Ü Jí¨Üá ÊÜáãÆ 4 B¨ÜÃæ, ÊÜáñæã¤í¨Üá ÊÜáãÆ

(A) –3 (B) 3

(C) –4 (D) 2

If one root of the equation ( x – 4 ) ( x – 3 ) = 0 is 4, then the other root is

(A) –3 (B) 3

(C) –4 (D) 2

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 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

1
19. k = mV 2 B¨ÜÃæ, V ¿áá
2
m 2m
(A)  (B) 
2k k

k 2k
(C)  (D) 
2m m
1
If k = mV 2 , then V is
2
m 2m
(A)  (B) 
2k k

k 2k
(C)  (D) 
2m m

20. x 2 – 2x + ( k + 3 ) = 0 ÊÜWÜìÓÜËáàPÜÃÜ|¨Ü Jí¨Üá ÊÜáãÆÊÜâ Óæã®æ°¿ÞWܸæàPݨÜÃæ, ‘k’ ®Ü

¸æÇæ

(A) –3 (B) –2

(C) +2 (D) +3

The value of ‘k’ for which the quadratic equation x 2 – 2x + ( k + 3 ) = 0

has one root equal to zero is

(A) –3 (B) –2

(C) +2 (D) +3

21. ax 2 + bx + c = 0 ÊÜWÜìÓÜËáàPÜÃÜ|¨Ü Íæãà«ÜPÜ

(A) a 2 + 4bc (B) b 2 + 4ac

(C) a 2 – 4bc (D) b 2 – 4ac

The discriminant of the quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 is

(A) a 2 + 4bc (B) b 2 + 4ac

(C) a 2 – 4bc (D) b 2 – 4ac

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81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

22. PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ ®Üûæ¿á ÊÜWÜìÓÜËáàPÜÃÜ|,

(A) x2+ x – 6 = 0 (B) x 2 – 2x + 3 = 0

(C) x2 – x – 6 = 0 (D) x 2 + 3x – 2 = 0

The quadratic equation for the given graph is

(A) x2+ x – 6 = 0 (B) x 2 – 2x + 3 = 0

(C) x2 – x – 6 = 0 (D) x 2 + 3x – 2 = 0

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 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

23. dæà©ÓÜ¨Ü ÖÝWÜã ÓܱÎìÓÜ¨Ü GÃÜvÜá ÊÜêñܤWÜÚWæ GÙæ¿áŸÖÜá¨Ý¨Ü ÊÜÂñÜÂÓܤ ÓÝÊÜެܠÓܱÍÜìPÜWÜÙÜ
ÓÜíTæÂ/WÜÙÜá

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D) 3

The number of transverse common tangents that can be drawn to two non-

intersecting and non-touching circles is

(A) 0 (B) 1

(C) 2 (D) 3

24. bñÜŨÜÈÉ ‘O’ Pæàí¨ÜÅÊÝXÃÜáÊÜ ÊÜêñܤÊÜâ  ABC ¿áÈÉ AíñÜÓܧÊÝX¨æ. AP = 4 cm,

CR = 3 cm ÊÜáñÜᤠBQ = 5 cm B¨ÜÃæ,  ABC ¿á ÓÜáñܤÙÜñæ

(A) 20 cm (B) 24 cm

(C) 26 cm (D) 28 cm

1801 15 of 32
81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

In the figure ‘O’ is the centre of the circle which is inscribed in  ABC. If

AP = 4 cm, CR = 3 cm and BQ = 5 cm, then the perimeter of  ABC is

(A) 20 cm (B) 24 cm

(C) 26 cm (D) 28 cm
25. bñÜŨÜÈÉ ‘O’ Pæàí¨ÜÅËÃÜáÊÜ GÃÜvÜá HPÜPæàí©Åà¿á ÊÜêñܤWÜÙÝ¨Ü C1 ÊÜáñÜᤠC 2 WÜÙÜ £ÅgÂWÜÙÜá
PÜÅÊÜáÊÝX 5 cm ÊÜáñÜᤠ13 cm BX¨æ. C1 ÊÜêñܤÊÜ®Üá° ÓܳÎìÓÜáÊÜ hÝ AB ¿á E¨Üª

(A) 12 cm (B) 16 cm

(C) 18 cm (D) 24 cm

1801 16 of 32
 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

In the given figure ‘O’ is the centre of two concentric circles C1 and C 2 of

radii 5 cm and 13 cm respectively. The length of the chord AB which

touches circle C1 is

(A) 12 cm (B) 16 cm

(C) 18 cm (D) 24 cm

26. 6 cm £ÅgÂËÃÜáÊÜ ÊÜêñܤPæR A¨ÜÃÜ Pæàí¨ÜÅ©í¨Ü 8 cm ¨ÜãÃܨÜÈÉÃÜáÊÜ Jí¨Üá ¹í¨Üá˯í¨Ü

GÙæ¨Ü ÓܳÍÜìPÜ¨Ü E¨Üª

(A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm

(C) 7 cm (D) 2 7 cm

The length of the tangent drawn from a point 8 cm away from the centre of

a circle of radius 6 cm is

(A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm

(C) 7 cm (D) 2 7 cm

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81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

27. bñÜŨÜÈÉ ‘O’ Pæàí¨ÜÅ©í¨Ü ÊÜêñܤPæR APB ÓܳÍÜìPÜÊÝX¨æ.  POQ = 100° B¨ÜÃæ,  BPQ ®Ü
AÙÜñæ

(A) 50° (B) 40°

(C) 30° (D) 20°

In the figure APB is the tangent to the circle with centre ‘O’. If

 POQ = 100°, then the measure of  BPQ is

(A) 50° (B) 40°

(C) 30° (D) 20°

1801 18 of 32
 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

BD
28. ABC ¿áÈÉ  A = 90°. AD  BC B¨ÜÃæ, =
DC

2
 AB  AB
(A)   (B)
 AC  AC

2
 AB  AB
(C)   (D)
 AD  AD

BD
In ABC,  A = 90°. If AD  BC then =
DC

2
 AB  AB
(A)   (B)
 AC  AC

2
 AB  AB
(C)   (D)
 AD  AD

29.  ABC ¿á ¸ÝÖÜáWÜÙÝ¨Ü BC, CA ÊÜáñÜᤠAB ¿á ÊÜá«Ü¹í¨ÜáWÜÙÜá PÜÅÊÜáÊÝX D, E ÊÜáñÜá¤

F B¨ÜÃæ,  DEF ËÔ¤à|ìPÜãR  ABC ¿á ËÔ¤à|ìPÜãR CÃÜáÊÜ A®Üá±ÝñÜ

(A) 1:2 (B) 1:4

(C) 2:3 (D) 4:5

If D, E and F are the mid-points of sides BC, CA and AB respectively of

 ABC, then the ratio of area of  DEF to area of  ABC is

(A) 1:2 (B) 1:4

(C) 2:3 (D) 4:5

1801 19 of 32
81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

30. PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ bñÜŨÜÈÉ®Ü  ABC ¿áÈÉ XY || BC BX¨æ. AX = m – 3, BX = 2m – 2

AY 1
ÊÜáñÜᤠ B¨ÜÃæ, ‘m’ ®Ü ¸æÇæ
CY 4

(A) 7 (B) 6

(C) 5 (D) 4

In the given figure in  ABC, XY || BC. If AX = m – 3, BX = 2m – 2 and

AY 1
 , then the value of ‘m’ is
CY 4

(A) 7 (B) 6

(C) 5 (D) 4

1801 20 of 32
 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

31. JŸº ÊÜÂQ¤¿áá ¯ÜÎcÊÜá¨Ü PÜvæWæ 24 m aÜÈÔ ®ÜíñÜÃÜ EñܤÃÜ¨Ü PÜvæWæ 7 m aÜÈÓÜáñݤ®æ. DWÜ
BÃÜí»Ü ¹í¨Üá˯í¨Ü ÊÜÂQ¤Wæ CÃÜáÊÜ ¨ÜãÃÜ

(A) 17 m (B) 25 m

(C) 26 m (D) 31 m

A person goes 24 m due West and then 7 m due North. Now the distance

of the person from the starting point is

(A) 17 m (B) 25 m

(C) 26 m (D) 31 m

32. ±æç¥ÝWæãÄà¿á £ÅÊÜÚWæ Jí¨Üá E¨ÝÖÜÃÜOæ

(A) 7, 9, 11 (B) 4, 5, 6

(C) 6, 8, 10 (D) 5, 8, 9

An example for Pythagorean triplet is

(A) 7, 9, 11 (B) 4, 5, 6

(C) 6, 8, 10 (D) 5, 8, 9

1801 21 of 32
81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

3
33. sin A = ÊÜáñÜᤠ"A' ÆZáPæãà®ÜÊݨÝWÜ, cosec A ¨Ü ¸æÇæ
5

5 2
(A) (B)
4 3

3 5
(C) (D)
5 3

3
If sin A = and A is acute angle then the value of cosec A is
5

5 2
(A) (B)
4 3

3 5
(C) (D)
5 3

34. bñÜŨÜÈÉ ABC ÆíŸPæãà¬Ü £Å»ÜágÊÝX¨Ü᪠ B = 90° B¨ÜÃæ, AB = x, BC = 3x

B¨ÜÃæ, "' ¨Ü AÙÜñæ

(A) 15° (B) 30°

(C) 45° (D) 60°

1801 22 of 32
 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

In the figure, ABC is a right angled triangle with  B = 90°. If AB = x,

BC = 3x , then measurement of  is

(A) 15° (B) 30°

(C) 45° (D) 60°

35. ( 3, – 2 ) ÊÜáñÜᤠ( 4, 5) ¹í¨ÜáWÜÙÜ®Üá° ÓæàÄÓÜáÊÜ ÃæàTæ¿á CÚhÝÃÜá

(A) 7 (B) 3

7
(C) 6 (D)
5

The slope of the line joining the points ( 3, – 2 ) and ( 4, 5 ) is

(A) 7 (B) 3

7
(C) 6 (D)
5

1801 23 of 32
81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

36. ÊÜáãÆ ¹í¨Üá˯í¨Ü A ( x, y) ¹í¨ÜáËWæ CÃÜáÊÜ ¨ÜãÃÜ

(A) x2  y2

(B) x2  y2

(C) x y

(D) x y

The distance of the point A ( x, y ) from the origin is

(A) x2  y2

(B) x2  y2

(C) x y

(D) x y

37. 5 cm £ÅgÂËÃÜáÊÜ Jí¨Üá A«ÜìWæãàÙÜ¨Ü ¯Üä|ì ÊæáàÇ澄 ËÔ¤à|ì

(A) 25  cm 2 (B) 50  cm 2

(C) 75  cm 2 (D) 100  cm 2

The total surface area of a hemisphere of radius 5 cm is

(A) 25  cm 2 (B) 50  cm 2

(C) 75  cm 2 (D) 100  cm 2

1801 24 of 32
 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

38. Jí¨Üá ÍÜíPÜá訆 ¼®Ü°PÜ¨Ü GÃÜvÜá ±Ý¨ÜWÜÙÜ £ÅgÂWÜÙÜá 32 cm ÊÜáñÜᤠ20 cm BX¨æ. A¨ÜÃÜ KÃæ

GñܤÃÜ 10 cm B¨ÜÃæ, A¨ÜÃÜ ¯ÝÍÜÌì ÊæáàÇ澄 ËÔ¤à|ì

(A) 240  cm 2

(B) 260  cm 2

(C) 410  cm 2

(D) 520  cm 2

The radii of two bases of a frustum of a cone are 32 cm and 20 cm. If its

slant height is 10 cm, then its lateral surface area is

(A) 240  cm 2

(B) 260  cm 2

(C) 410  cm 2

(D) 520  cm 2

1801 25 of 32
81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

39. D PæÙÜWæ PæãqrÃÜáÊÜ Z®ÜÊÜÓÜá¤Ë®Ü Z®Ü¶ÜÆÊÜâ

(A) 2  r 2h m3 (B)  r 2 ( h  H ) m3

1 1
(C)  r 2 ( h  H ) m3 (D) r 2 ( h  H ) m3
3 3

The volume of the solid given in the figure is

(A) 2  r 2h m3 (B)  r 2 ( h  H ) m3

1 1
(C)  r 2 ( h  H ) m3 (D) r 2 ( h  H ) m3
3 3

1801 26 of 32
 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

40. 3 cm £Å»ÜágËÃÜáÊÜ Jí¨Üá WæãàÙÜ¨Ü ZƶÜÆ

(A) 36  cm 3 (B) 18  cm 3

(C) 9  cm 3 (D) 72  cm 3

The volume of a sphere of radius 3 cm is

(A) 36  cm 3 (B) 18  cm 3

(C) 9  cm 3 (D) 72  cm 3

1801 27 of 32
81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

PÜaÝc PÝ¿áìPÝRX
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

1801 28 of 32
 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

PÜaÝc PÝ¿áìPÝRX
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

1801 29 of 32
81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

PÜaÝc PÝ¿áìPÝRX
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

1801 30 of 32
 81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

PÜaÝc PÝ¿áìPÝRX
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

1801 31 of 32
81-K/E (NSR / NSPR) (UNREVISED)

1801 32 of 32
81-E 2 CCE PF

: 81-E
Code No. : 81-E

Subject : MATHEMATICS
( / English Version )
( / New Syllabus )
( / Private Fresh )

General Instructions :
i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and
subjective types of questions having 50 questions.
ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer
along with its letter in the space provided.
iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.
iv) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
v) Candidates should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written
in pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )
vi) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.
vii) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
viii) Space for Rough Work has been printed and provided at the bottom of
each page.
ix) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022
 CCE PF 3 81-E

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 81=8

1. The harmonic mean between 2 and 4 is

8 3
(A) (B)
3 8
8 6
(C) (D) .
6 8
2. The value of n C n is

(A) n (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) n!
5
3. The probability of winning a game is . Then the probability of losing
6
it is
5 5
(A) – (B)
6 6
1 1
(C) – (D) .
6 6
4. The given pie-chart shows annual agricultural yield of certain place.
If the total production is 8100 tons, then the yield of Ragi in tons is

(A) 225 (B) 2250

(C) 225 (D) 2250.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE PF

5. Which of the following is the zeroes of the polynomial x 2 + 4x + 4 ?

(A) 2 (B) –2
(C) 4 (D) – 4.
6. The value of tan 2 60° is
(A) 3 (B) 2 3
1
(C) (D) 3.
3
7. The distance between the points ( 2, 3 ) and ( 6, 6 ) is
(A) 5 units (B) 7 units
(C) 3 units (D) 4 units.
8. The slope of the line joining the points ( 3, – 2 ) and ( 4, 5 ) is
1
(A) (B) 1
7
3
(C) 7 (D) .
7
II. Answer the following : 61=6
9. Express 210 as the product of prime factors.
10. If A = { 1, 2, 3, 4 } and B = { 1 }, find A \ B.
11. Mean and standard deviation of runs scored by a cricket player are
80 and 4 respectively. Find coefficient of variation.
12. If f ( x ) = x 2 – 4, find f ( 4 ).
AY 1
13. In  ABC, XY || BC,  and AX = 4. Find BX.
CY 2

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022
 CCE PF 5 81-E

14. In the figure, BC is the diameter. What is the measure of x ?

III. 15. Prove that 3 + 5 is an irrational number. 2

16. In a class of 100 students, 55 students have passed in Physics and

67 students have passed in Mathematics. Find the number of
students passed in Physics only.

OR
A and B are the two subsets of Universal Set  such that n (  ) = 700,
n ( A ) = 200, n ( B ) = 300 and n ( A  B ) = 100. Find n ( A l  B l ).

17. In how many ways 4-digit numbers can be formed using the
digits 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9 without repetitions ? How many of these are
even numbers ? 2

18. Find the number of sides of a polygon having 35 diagonals. 2

19. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting

(a) same number on both faces and

(b) both faces having multiples of five. 2

20. Calculate variance for the following data : 2

X = 2, 4, 6, 8, 10
( Scores )
3
21. Find the product of 2 and 5. 2

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE PF

22. Rationalise the denominator and simplify :

6 3
. 2
6 3
23. Find the value of a if ( x – 5 ) is a factor of  x 3  3x 2  ax  10 .
OR
What must be added to the polynomial
P ( x ) = x 4 + 2x 3 – 2x 2 + x – 1
so that the resulting polynomial is exactly divisible by x 2 + 2x – 3 ?
2
24. Solve the equation by using formula : x 2 – 4x + 2 = 0. 2
25. In  ABC, AD is the median and PQ || BC. Prove that PE = EQ. 2

26. In the given figure, find the values of cos  and tan . 2

27. Find the perimeter of a triangle whose vertices have the coordinates
( 3, 10 ), ( 5, 2 ) and ( 14, 12 ). 2

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022
CCE PF 7 81-E

28. Draw a circle of radius 3 cm and construct two tangents to it from an

external point 8 cm away from the centre. 2

29. Draw a plan of a level ground using the given information : 2

[ Scale : 20 m = 1 cm ]
Metre To D
150
100 80 to C
To E 60 80
40 40 to B
From A
30. Verify Euler’s formula for a Hexahedron. 2
31. If U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 }, A = { 1, 2, 3 } and
B = { 2, 3, 4, 5 } , verify ( A  B ) l = A l  B l . 2
32. Find the number of terms in the Arithmetic progression
100, 96, 92, ................ , 12. 2
n n
33. If P r = 840 and C r = 35, find n. 2

34. Simplify : 75  108  192 . 2

35. Find the remainder using remainder theorem when

P ( x ) = ( x 3 + 3x 2 – 5x + 8 ) is divided by g ( x ) = ( x – 3 ). 2
36. Find the sum and product of the roots of the quadratic equation
8m 2 – m – 2 = 0. 2
37. In the given figure ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles and
BD = DC. Find the ratio between the areas of  ABC and  BDE.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE PF

38. In a circle of radius 3 cm draw two radii such that the angle between
them is 70°. Construct tangents at the non-centre ends of the radii.
2
39. Draw a circle of radius 35 cm and construct a chord of length 6 cm
in it. Measure the perpendicular distance between the centre and the
chord. 2
40. Find the order and type of each node in the given network. 2

1 1
IV. 41. In a harmonic progression, T 3 = and T 7 = . Find T 15 . 3
7 5

42. Aniruddha bought some books for Rs. 60. Had he bought 5 more
books for the same amount, each book would have cost him 1 rupee
less. Find the number of books bought by Aniruddha.
OR
The ages of Kavya and Karthik are 11 years and 14 years
respectively. In how many years time will the product of their ages
will be 304 ? 3

43. In  ABC,  A = 90°, AD  BC and  B = 45°. If AB = x, find AD in

terms of x.
OR
ABC is a right angled triangle with  C = 90°, BC = a, AC = b,
CD  AB and CD = P. Show that
1 1 1
=  . 3
2
P 2
a b2
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022
CCE PF 9 81-E

44. Prove that

sec   tan 
= 1 – 2 sec  . tan  + 2 tan 2 .
sec   tan 
OR
Prove that
1  cos 
= cosec  + cot . 3
1  cos 
45. Prove that ‘the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are
equal’. 3
46. A solid cylinder has a total surface area of 462 cm 2 . Its curved
surface area is one-third of its total surface area. Find the radius of
the cylinder.
OR
From the top of a cone of base radius 12 cm and height 20 cm, a
small cone of base radius 3 cm is to be cut off. How far down the
vertex is the cuts should be made ? Find the volume of the frustum
so obtained. 3
V. 47. The sum of three consecutive terms in an arithmetic progression is 6
and their product is – 120. Find the three numbers.
OR
The product of three consecutive terms in a geometric progression is
216 and sum of their products in pairs is 156. Find the three terms.
4
48. ‘In a right angled triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to
the sum of the squares on the other two sides.’ Prove. 4
49. Construct direct common tangents to two circles of radii 4 cm and
2 cm whose centres are 9 cm apart from their centres. Measure their
length and write the length of direct common tangents. 4
50. Solve the equation graphically :
x 2 + x – 6 = 0. 4
graph

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022 [ Turn over

 B∆«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄¬° “
2
A
RF(A)/100/3311

Question Paper Serial No.

Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 16 ]
Total No. of Printed Pages : 16 ]
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 38 ]
Total No. of Questions : 38 ] CCE RF
UNREVISED

100
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E FULL SYLLABUS
Code No. : 81-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

Subject : MATHEMATICS

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl B∆« O⁄}⁄°¬“

( BMW«ŒÈ »⁄·¤®⁄¥¿»⁄fl / English Medium )
( À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Fresh )

¶´¤MO⁄ : 03. 04. 2023 ] [ Date : 03. 04. 2023

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 10-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-1-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ]
[ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-45 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions to the Candidate :
1. This question paper consists of objective and subjective types of
38 questions.
2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut
on the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are
intact.
3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the
Tear here

question paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

[ Turn over
2 RF(A)/100/3311 2 CCE RF 81-E

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Choose the correct alternative and write

the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet. 8×1=8

1. The number of zeroes of the polynomial y = p ( x ) in the given

graph is

(A) 3 (B) 2

(C) 1 (D) 4

2. For an event ‘E’, if P ( E ) = 0·75, then P ( E ) is

(A) 2·5 (B) 0·25

(C) 0·025 (D) 1·25

2 RF(A)/100/3311 3 CCE RF 81-E

3. The total surface area of a right circular cylinder having radius ‘r’

and height ‘h’ is

(A) πr(r+h) (B) 2π rh

(C) 2π r ( r – h ) (D) 2π r ( r + h )

4. The number that represents the remainder when 19 = 6 × 3 + 1

is compared with Euclid’s division lemma a = bq + r is

(A) 3 (B) 6

(C) 1 (D) 19

5. In the given figure, PB is a tangent drawn at the point A to the

circle with centre ‘O’. If AOP = 45°, then the measure of

OPA is

(A) 45° (B) 90°

(C) 35° (D) 65°

[ Turn over
2 RF(A)/100/3311 4 CCE RF 81-E

6. In the figure, if DE || BC, then the correct relation among the

following is

AD AE
(A) =
AB EC
AD EC
(B) =
DB AE
AD AE
(C) =
DB EC
DB AE
(D) =
AD EC

7. The lines represented by the equations 4x + 5y – 10 = 0 and

8x + 10y + 20 = 0 are

(A) intersecting lines

(B) perpendicular lines to each other

(C) coincident lines

(D) parallel lines

2 RF(A)/100/3311 5 CCE RF 81-E

8. The distance of the point ( – 8, 3 ) from the x-axis is

(A) – 8 units

(B) 3 units

(C) – 3 units

(D) 8 units

II. Answer the following questions : 8×1=8

7
9. Express the denominator of in the form of 2n × 5m .
80

10. If the pair of lines represented by the linear equations

x + 2y – 4 = 0 and ax + by – 12 = 0 are coincident lines, then find

the values of ‘a’ and ‘b’.

11. ∆ ABC ~ ∆ PQR. Area of the ∆ ABC is 64 cm 2 and the area of the

∆ PQR is 100 cm 2 . If AB = 8 cm, then find the length of PQ.

[ Turn over
2 RF(A)/100/3311 6 CCE RF 81-E

12. Express the equation x ( 2 + x ) = 3 in the standard form of a

quadratic equation.

13. Find the discriminant of the quadratic equation 2 x 2 – 4x + 3 = 0.

14. Find the coordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining

the points ( 6, 3 ) and ( 4, 7 ).

15. Write the degree of the polynomial

P ( x ) = 3 x 3 − x 4 + 2x 2 + 5x + 2.

16. Write the formula to find the volume of the frustum of a cone

given in the figure.

2 RF(A)/100/3311 7 CCE RF 81-E

III. Answer the following questions : 8 × 2 = 16

17. Show that 5 + 3 is an irrational number.

OR

Find the H.C.F. of 72 and 120 by using Euclid’s division

algorithm.

18. Solve the given pair of linear equations :

3x + y = 12

x+y = 6

19. Find the 20 th term of the Arithmetic progression 4, 7, 10, .....

by using formula.

20. Find the roots of the equation 2 x 2 – 5x + 3 = 0 by using

‘quadratic formula’.

OR

Find the roots of the equation 5 x 2 – 6x – 2 = 0 by the method of

completing the square.

[ Turn over
2 RF(A)/100/3311 8 CCE RF 81-E

21. In the given figure, if ABC = 90°, then find the values of sin θ

and cos α.

22. A box contains cards which are numbered from 9 to 19. If one

card is drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it

bears a prime number.

23. In the given figure, ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC, and

BC ⊥ DC. If AB = 6 cm, CD = 10 cm and AD = 5 cm, then find the

distance between the parallel lines.

24. Draw a circle of radius 4 cm and construct a pair of tangents to

the circle such that the angle between them is 60°.

2 RF(A)/100/3311 9 CCE RF 81-E

IV. Answer the following questions : 9 × 3 = 27

25. Divide p ( x ) = 3 x 3 + x 2 + 2x + 5 by g ( x ) = x 2 + 2x + 1 and

find the quotient [ q ( x ) ] and remainder [ r ( x ) ].

OR

Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p ( x ) = x 2 + 7x + 10,

and verify the relationship between zeroes and the coefficients.

26. Prove that

1 + cos A
= cosec A + cot A
1 − cos A

OR

Prove that
sin A 1 + cos A
+ = 2 cosec A.
1 + cos A sin A

27. Find the mean for the following data :

Class-interval Frequency

1–5 4

6 – 10 3

11 – 15 2

16 – 20 1

21 – 25 5

OR

[ Turn over
2 RF(A)/100/3311 10 CCE RF 81-E

Find the mode for the following data :

Class-interval Frequency

1–3 6

3–5 9

5–7 15

7–9 9

9 – 11 1

28. Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points

A ( – 6, 10 ) and B ( 3, – 8 ) is divided by the point ( – 4, 6 ).

OR

Find the area of a triangle whose vertices are A ( 1, – 1 ),

B ( – 4, 6 ) and C ( – 3, – 5 )

29. Prove that “The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point

to a circle are equal”.

2 RF(A)/100/3311 11 CCE RF 81-E

30. In the given figure, ‘O’ is the centre of a circle and OAB is an

equilateral triangle. P and Q are the mid-points of OA and OB

respectively. If the area of ∆ OAB is 36 3 cm 2 , then find the

area of the shaded region.

31. Construct a triangle with sides 5 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm and then

3
construct another triangle whose sides are of the
4

corresponding sides of the first triangle.

32. The distance between two cities ‘A’ and ‘B’ is 132 km. Flyovers

are built to avoid the traffic in the intermediate towns between

these cities. Because of this, the average speed of a car travelling

in this route through flyovers increases by 11 km/h and hence,

the car takes 1 hour less time to travel the same distance than

earlier. Find the current average speed of the car.

[ Turn over
2 RF(A)/100/3311 12 CCE RF 81-E

33. A life insurance agent found the following data for distribution of

ages of 100 policy holders. Draw a “Less than type ogive” for the

given data :

Age ( in years ) Number of policy holders

( cumulative frequency )

Below 20 2

Below 25 6

Below 30 24

Below 35 45

Below 40 78

Below 45 89

Below 50 100

V. Answer the following questions : 4 × 4 = 16

34. The sum of 2nd and 4th terms of an arithmetic progression is 54

and the sum of its first 11 terms is 693. Find the arithmetic

progression. Which term of this progression is 132 more than its

54th term ?

OR
2 RF(A)/100/3311 13 CCE RF 81-E

The first and the last terms of an arithmetic progression are 3

and 253 respectively. If the 20th term of the progression is 98,

then find the arithmetic progression. Also find the sum of the last

10 terms of this progression.

35. Find the solution of the given pair of linear equations by

graphical method :

2x + y = 8

x–y = 1

36. Prove that “If in two triangles, corresponding angles are equal,

then their corresponding sides are in the same ratio ( or

proportion ) and hence the two triangles are similar”.

[ Turn over
2 RF(A)/100/3311 14 CCE RF 81-E

37. In the given figure, a rope is tightly stretched and tied from the

top of a vertical pole to a peg on the same level ground such that

the length of the rope is 20 m and the angle made by it with the

ground is 30°. A circus artist climbs the rope, reaches the top of

the pole and from there he observes that the angle of elevation of

the top of another pole on the same ground is found to be 60°. If

the distance of the foot of the longer pole from the peg is 30 m,

then find the height of this pole. ( Take 3 = 1·73 )

2 RF(A)/100/3311 15 CCE RF 81-E

VI. Answer the following question : 1×5=5

38. A wooden solid toy is made by mounting a cone on the circular

base of a hemisphere as shown in the figure. If the area of base of

the cone is 38·5 cm 2 and the total height of the toy is 15·5 cm,

then find the total surface area and volume of the toy.

[ Turn over
2 RF(A)/100/3311 16 CCE RF 81-E
 A

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 8 ]

Question Paper Serial No.

Total No. of Printed Pages : 8 ]

Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 38 ] CCE RR

Total No. of Questions : 38 ] REVISED
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 85-E

30
Code No. : 85-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : —⁄»⁄·¤d …e¤k´⁄
Subject : SOCIAL SCIENCE
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

( Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Repeater )

¶´¤MO⁄ : 23. 09. 2020 ] [ Date : 23. 09. 2020

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 10-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-1-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-45 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 38 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
Tear here

paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

30 RR (A)-1106  [ Turn over

85-E 2 CCE RR
I. Four choices are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct
answer and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

8×1=8

1. The war that ended with the treaty of Salbai was

(A) Second Anglo-Maratha War

(B) Second Anglo-Sikh War

(C) First Anglo-Maratha War

(D) First Anglo-Mysore War.

2. In 1938, The President of Haripur Congress Session was

(A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D) Subhash Chandra Bose.

3. The main objective of the French Revolution of 1789 was the

(A) establishment of U.N.O

(B) protection of Human Rights

(C) prevention of Foreign Invasion

(D) establishment of League of Nations.

RR (A)-1106 
CCE RR 3 85-E

4. Narmada Bachao Andolan was led by

(A) Medha Patekar

(B) Dr. Shivaram Karanth

(C) Kusuma Soraba

(D) Sundarlal Bahuguna.

5. The telephone number of child helpline is

(A) 1098 (B) 1090

(C) 1089 (D) 1097.

6. The correct pair among the following is

(A) Andhis — West Bengal

(B) Kalbaisakhi — Punjab

(C) Mango shower — Tamil Nadu

(D) Coffee Blossom — Karnataka.

7. Human Development Index of India in 2014 was

(A) 0·586 (B) 0·344

(C) 0·562 (D) 0·856.

8. The Father of the White Revolution is

(A) Dr. Pratap Reddy

(B) Narayana Murthy

(C) Varghese Kurien

(D) Azim Premji.

RR (A)-1106  [ Turn over

85-E 4 CCE RR

II. Answer the following questions in a sentence each : 8×1=8

9. Hyderabad Province had to keep a British contingent in its province after

1798. Why ?

10. Why was Ramakrishna Mission ( Muth ) founded ?

11. What is the main objective of Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) ?

12. Why was a protest organised against Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant ?

13. How is Laterite soil formed ?

14. Define Density of Population.

15. How is per capita Income of a country calculated ?

16. Why is March 15th of every year observed as World Consumer Rights Day ?

III. Answer the following questions in four points each : 8 × 2 = 16

17. What factors made the Europeans to discover a new sea route to India ?

18. Refugees have become a huge problem since the partition of India.

Substantiate.

19. Many issues have influenced our changing foreign policy. How ?

OR

Why is Security Council considered as the Cabinet of UNO ?

RR (A)-1106 
CCE RR 5 85-E

20. Child trafficking affects the holistic development of children. How ?

OR

Division of Labour is more useful. How ?

21. How are the Eastern Coastal plains different from Western Coastal plains of

India ?

22. Classify the following under personal communication and Mass

Communication and then write them :

Post ( letter ), Television, Fax, Radio

23. The goals of Public Expenditure lead to an all-round development of the

country. Substantiate.

24. Name the different types of Bank Accounts.

IV. Answer the following questions in six sentences each : 9 × 3 = 27

25. British Revenue system affected Indian Agriculture. Substantiate.

26. Third and Fourth Anglo-Mysore wars reduced the strength of Tippu Sultan of

Mysore. Justify.

OR

The contribution of Annie Besant to Indian Culture and Politics is

unforgetable. Justify.

27. How did China develop during 20th Century ?

RR (A)-1106  [ Turn over

85-E 6 CCE RR

28. India and Russia have cordial relationship. Explain.

29. In recent days, the problem of untouchability is declining. Justify.

30. The areas under forest are declining in recent years. Why ?

31. Majority of Iron and Steel Industries are located in Odisha and West Bengal

regions. Why ?

OR

Human activities caused floods and landslides. Justify.

32. Mention the key features of Panchayati Raj system.

OR

Mention the different stages of evolution of money.

33. How does Globalization help in the development of a country ?

OR

How does an Entrepreneur help in economic development of a country ?

V. Answer the following questions in about eight sentences each : 4 × 4 = 16

34. Explain the main programmes of Non-Co-operation Movement.

35. Explain Political and Administrative reasons for 1857 revolt.

OR

Explain the age of Liberal Nationalism during Freedom movement.

RR (A)-1106 
CCE RR 7 85-E

36. In recent days, situations are supporting women to achieve betterment.

How ?

37. What are the requirements essential to cultivate wheat and sugarcane ?

VI. 38. Draw an outline map of India and mark the following : 1+4=5

o
a) 82 1 East Longitude
2

b) River Narmada

c) Bhakra Nangal Project

d) Mumbai High.

Alternative Question for Blind Candidates only : (In lieu of Q. No. 38)

How are the multipurpose river valley projects useful ? 5

RR (A)-1106  [ Turn over

85-E 8 CCE RR

RR (A)-1106 
 CCE RF
81-E
:
CCE RR
Code No. : 81-E

Subject : MATHEMATICS
( / English Version )
( / New Syllabus )
( + / Regular Fresh + Regular Repeater)

General Instructions :
i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and
subjective types of questions having 40 questions.
ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer
along with its letter in the space provided.
iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.
iv) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
v) Candidates should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written
in pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )
vi) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.
vii) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
viii) Space for Rough Work has been printed and provided at the bottom of
each page.
ix) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

279930 RF+RR-426 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RF+RR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 81=8

2
1. If Tn  n  3 then the value of T3 is

(A) 6 (B) 9
(C) 12 (D) 27.
2. Arithmetic mean of 2 and 8 is

(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 16 (D) 3·2.
3. If the probability of winning a game is 0·3, then what is the
probability of losing it ?
(A) 0·1 (B) 0·3
(C) 0·7 (D) 1·3.
4. The degree of the polynomial 2x 2 – 4x 3 + 3x + 5 is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3.
5. The distance between the origin and the point ( 4, – 3 ) is
(A) 1 unit (B) 5 units
(C) 7 units (D) – 12 units.

6. The slope of the straight line whose inclination is 60° is

1
(A) 0 (B)
3
(C) – 3 (D) 3.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

279930 RF+RR-426
 CCE RF+RR 3 81-E
3
7. If sin  = , then the value of cosec  is
5
4 5
(A) (B)
5 3
4 5
(C) (D) .
3 4

8. If the standard deviation of a set of scores is 1·2 and their mean is 10,

then the coefficient of variation of the scores is

(A) 12 (B) 0·12

(C) 20 (D) 120.

II. Answer the following : 61=6

9. If U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 } and A = { 2, 4, 5 } then find A l .

10. The H.C.F. of 12 and 18 is 6. Find their L.C.M.

11. If f ( x ) = 2x 2 + 3x + 2 then find the value of f ( 2 ).

12. Two circles of diameters 10 cm and 4 cm, touch each other

externally. Find the distance between their centres.

13. State Pythagoras theorem.

14. Write the formula to find the total surface area of a cylinder.

III. 15. Calculate the maximum number of diagonals that can be drawn in an
octagon using the suitable formula. 2
16. Prove that 2 + 5 is an irrational number. 2

17. There are 500 wrist watches in a box. Out of these 50 wrist watches
are found defective. One watch is drawn randomly from the box. Find
the probability that wrist watch chosen is a defective watch. 2
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

279930 RF+RR-426 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RF+RR
18. Find the product of 3 and . 2

19. Rationalise the denominator and simplify : 2

20. Find out the quotient and the remainder when

P ( x ) = x 3  4x 2  5x  6 is divided by g ( x ) = x + 1. 2

OR
Find the polynomial which is to be added to
P ( x )  x 4  2x 3  2x 2  x  1 so that the resulting polynomial is
exactly divisible by x 2  2x  3 .

21. In the following figure, DE || AB. If AD = 7 cm, CD = 5 cm and

BC = 18 cm, find CE. 2

22. Given tan  = 1 and  is an acute angle. Find the value of sin 3.
2
23. Find the coordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining the
points ( 2, 3 ) and ( 4, 7 ). 2
24. The radius of a cone is 7 cm and its slant height is 10 cm. Calculate
the curved surface area of the cone. 2
OR
Calculate the volume of a right circular cylinder whose radius is 7 cm
and height is 10 cm.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

279930 RF+RR-426
CCE RF+RR 5 81-E

25. Solve the quadratic equation x 2 – 4x + 2 = 0 by formula method. 2

26. Construct a tangent at any point P on a circle of radius 3 cm. 2

27. Draw a plan using the information given below : 2

[ Scale : 20 m = 1 cm ]
Metre To D
160
120 60 to C
40 to E 80
40 40 to B
From A

28. In a group of people, 12 people know music, 15 people know drawing

and 7 people know both music and drawing. If people know either
music or drawing then calculate the number of people in the group. 2

29. A solid hemisphere of wax of radius 12 cm is melted and made into a

cylinder of its base radius 6 cm. Calculate the height of the cylinder.

30. Find the sum of first 20 terms of the series 4 + 7 + 10 + ...... . 2

IV. 31. Prove that ―If two circles touch each other externally then their
centres and the point of contact are collinear‖. 3

32. Calculate the standard deviation for the following data : 3

Class-intervals frequency

1—5 4
6 — 10 3
11 — 15 2
16 — 20 1

N = 10

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

279930 RF+RR-426 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RF+RR

33. Find how many 4-digit numbers can be formed using the digits

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 without repetition of the digits. Find out how many of

these are less than 5000 ? 3

OR

If 16 . n P 3 = 13 . n  1 P 3 then find n.

34. Prove that

sin ( 90   ) cos 

 = 2 sec  . 3
1  sin  1  cos ( 90   )

OR

If A = 60°, B = 30° then verify that

cos ( A + B ) = cos A . cos B – sin A . sin B.

35. Pupils of Xth Standard of a school had arranged for a function at a

total cost of Rs. 1,000 which was to be shared equally among them.

Since 10 of them failed to join the function each of them had to pay

Rs. 5 more. Find the number of pupils in the class. 3

OR

If m and n are the roots of the equation x 2 – 5x + 3 = 0, find the

values of

i) ( m + n )2 + ( m – n )2

ii) ( m + n ) 3 + 4 mn.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

279930 RF+RR-426
CCE RF+RR 7 81-E

36. In the right angled triangle ABC, ABC = 90°. AM and CN are the

medians drawn from A and C respectively to BC and AB. Show that

4 ( AM 2 + CN 2 ) = 5 AC 2 . 3

OR

In the rhombus ABCD, show that 4 AB 2  AC 2  BD 2 .

V. 37. Prove that

―If two triangles are equiangular then their corresponding sides are in
proportion.‖ 4

38. Draw two direct common tangents to two circles of radii 4 cm and
2 cm whose centres are 8 cm apart. Measure the length of the
tangents. 4

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

279930 RF+RR-426 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RF+RR

39. In an arithmetic progression, the sum of first term, third term and
the fifth term is 39 and the sum of second term, fourth term and the
sixth term is 51. Find the tenth term of the sequence. 4

OR

In a geometric progression, the sum of the first 3 terms is 7 and the

sum of the next 3 terms is 56. Find the geometric progression.

40. Solve the equation graphically : 4

x 2 + x – 2 = 0.

graph

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

279930 RF+RR-426
 D SL. No. : VV

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 52 ] [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12
Total No. of Questions : 52 ] CCE PR [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 12

—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 83-E REVISED & UN-REVISED Code No. : 83-E

…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : …e¤k´⁄
Subject : SCIENCE
( ∫Ë}⁄À¤—⁄°, ¡⁄—¤æ⁄fl´⁄À¤—⁄° »⁄fl}⁄fl° ffi»⁄À¤—⁄° / Physics, Chemistry & Biology )
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )

( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

( Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ S¤—⁄W @∫⁄¥¿£% / Private Repeater )

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

¶´¤MO⁄ : 25. 06. 2018 ] [ Date : 25. 06. 2018

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑ÊÿVÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-45 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 100 ] [ Max. Marks : 100

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 52 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

PR (D)-60017 [ Turn over

83-E 2 CCE PR

Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete

statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct

alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

10 × 1 = 10

1. The sulphide ore among the following is

(A) Bauxite (B) Chalcopyrite

(C) Azurite (D) Malachite.

2. A source of sound moves towards a stationary observer and crosses the observer

and moves forward. The observer in this situation feels as if the pitch of the

sound is

(A) increasing

(B) decreasing

(C) initially decreasing and increasing later

(D) initially increasing and decreasing later.

3. The group that contains only non-biodegradable pollutants is,

(a) wood, paper, leather

(b) lead, bakelite, DDT

(c) plastic, detergents, grass

(d) polythene, bakelite, PVC.

(A) (b) only (B) (a) and (c)

(C) (d) only (D) (b) and (d).

PR (D)-60017
CCE PR 3 83-E

4. An application of Charles law in the following is

(A) feeling of pain in ears of passengers while aeroplane is ascending suddenly

(B) smell of hot food reaches us faster than cold food

(C) balloon pops out more frequently in summer than in winter

(D) balloon pops out when squeezed over the limit.

5. A person shows the symptoms such as ulcers on the nose and lower leg, gradual

blindness and dementia. The disease having these symptoms and the microbe

causing this disease is

(A) Syphilis — Treponema Pallidum

(B) Gonnorrhoea — Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

(C) Genital warts — Human Papilloma virus

(D) Genital herpes — Herpes Simplex virus.

6. In a transformer the product of current and voltage of primary coil is 440 W. If

the secondary voltage is 220 V, then the current in the secondary coil is

(A) 20 A (B) 2A

(C) 4A (D) 2·2 A.

7. The four steps of manufacturing common sugar are given in wrong order.

(a) Concentration and crystallization of juice.

(b) Purification of juice.

(c) Separation and drying of crystals.

(d) Extraction of juice from the source.

The correct arrangement of these steps is

(A) b, d, c, a (B) d, a, b, c

(C) a, c, d, b (D) d, b, a, c.

PR (D)-60017 [ Turn over

83-E 4 CCE PR

8. The correct statement with reference to wind energy and wave energy in the

following is

(A) Wind energy is more reliable than wave energy

(B) The cost per unit for the conversion of wind energy into electrical energy is

very high.

(C) Fluctuation in the energy availability is lesser in wave energy than in wind

energy

(D) Wind energy turbines use specialised instruments when compared to wave

energy converters.

9. In a copper voltameter, the mass of copper deposited at the cathode when 3 A of

current is passed for 20 minutes is [ ECE of copper is 0·0003 g/coulomb ]

(A) 18 g (B) 1·8 g

(C) 1·08 g (D) 10·8 g.

10. The features of oesophagus muscles are

(A) Striped, cylindrical shape, voluntary

(B) Unstriped, spindle shape, involuntary

(C) Striped, cylindrical shape, involuntary

(D) Unstriped, spindle shape, voluntary.

PR (D)-60017
CCE PR 5 83-E

11. The parts of a vehicle/engine are given in Column-A and their related aspects

are given in Column-B. Match them and write the answer along with its letters :

4×1=4

Column - A Column - B
(A) Carburettor (i) Remains closed in intake stroke and
remains open in exhaust stroke

(B) Crank shaft (ii) Petrol and air are mixed here

(C) Spark plug (iii) Mixture of petrol and air is

compressed here

(D) Outlet valve (iv) Injects controlled quantity of fuel in

the form of micelles into the engine

(v) Helps in igniting the petrol and air

mixture

(vi) Remains open in intake stroke and

remains closed in exhaust stroke

(vii) Converts linear motion into circular

motion.

Answer the following questions. 7×1=7

12. State Boyle’s law.

13. Mention any two characteristics of Jatropa plant whose seeds are used for

transesterification.

14. Write any two functions of feathers in birds.

15. Choose the elements in the following that belong to the same period in modern

periodic table :

Element Hydrogen Sodium Carbon Silicon

Atomic No. 1 11 6 14

PR (D)-60017 [ Turn over

83-E 6 CCE PR

16. Name the device for obtaining high DC voltage from a low DC voltage source.

17. State the Mendel’s law of segregation.

18. When a person is very angry, the rate of heart-beat and breathing increases.

Name the part of autonomic nervous system that brings these changes into

normal condition.

Answer the following questions. 26 × 2 = 52

19. Mention the four steps in the manufacture of paper.

OR

Mention the four steps in the manufacture of glass.

20. Draw the diagram showing the external features of a fish and label the following

parts.

(a) Operculum

(b) Scales.

21. What is atomic size ? How does atomic size vary from left to right along the

period and down the group in modern periodic table ?

22. Mention four physical features of Neanderthal man.

OR

Write any two physical features of Caucasoids and Congoids.

23. Write any two differences between transverse waves and longitudinal waves.

24. Draw the diagram of the instrument used in electrolysis and label the following

parts.

(a) Ammeter

(b) Anode.

PR (D)-60017
CCE PR 7 83-E

25. “The environmentalists oppose the overuse of the products containing aerosols.”

Give reasons.

26. Write the chemical equation indicating the preparation of carborundum using

silicon. Write any one use of carborundum.

27. The ultrasonic waves sent from submarines A and B take 4s and 6s respectively

to reach the iceberg C. If A, B and C are collinear and A and B are on the same

side of C, then find the distance between A and B.

[ The speed of ultrasonic waves in water is 1·5 km/s ]

28. “The Government should encourage urban people to take up the practice of roof

top gardening.” Why ? Give reasons.

OR

“Transgenic plants play a very important role in decreasing the food scarcity of

the country.” How ? Explain.

29. Draw the diagram of an AC dynamo and label the following parts.

(a) Slip rings

(b) Brushes.

30. (a) What is fermentation ? Name the gas usually produced during

fermentation.

(b) What is substrate ?

OR

(a) What is molasses ?

(b) Mention the two uses of Caramel.

PR (D)-60017 [ Turn over

83-E 8 CCE PR

31. A student observes the cross-section of a plant stem under the compound

microscope and draws the following diagram.

(a) Name the group of angiosperms to which this stem belongs.

(b) Write the features of that group with respect to root and flower.

32. Write the molecular formula and structural formula of marsh gas. Why is it

called marsh gas ?

OR

Why graphite and diamond are called allotropes of carbon ? Name the two

artificially synthesised allotropes of carbon.

33. A student adds nitric acid to a test tube having copper turnings and observes the

changes in the test tube. He correctly concludes that moderately concentrated

nitric acid was added to the test tube. Give scientific reasons for his conclusion.

Write the balanced chemical equation indicating this reaction.

34. A student has wrongly labelled the parts A, B, C and D in the following diagram.

Correct his mistakes and name the parts A, B, C and D of the diagram.

PR (D)-60017
CCE PR 9 83-E

35. What is a solar cell ? Name the principle of its working.

36. What is isomerism ? Write the structural formula of isobutane.

37. Draw the diagram of a dicot plant.

38. What is superconductivity ? Write the two uses of superconductors.

39. Write the two differences between rods and cones of the human eye.

40. Draw the diagram showing the expansion stroke of a steam engine and label the

following parts.

(a) Piston

(b) Boiler.

41. Write the balanced chemical equations of the reactions taking place in the

manufacture of ethyl alcohol from molasses.

42. Write any four economic importance of pteridophytes.

43. List any four physical properties of metals.

44. Mention any four functions of epithelial tissue.

Answer the following questions. 5 × 3 = 15

45. Draw the diagram of a nuclear power reactor and label the following parts.

(a) Heat Exchanger

(b) Reflector.

46. What is dihybrid cross ? Represent the result obtained in F2 generation of

dihybrid cross when a tall pea plant bearing yellow seeds ( TTYY ) is crossed

with a dwarf pea plant bearing green seeds ( ttyy ) with the help of checker

board.

OR

Explain the double helix structure of DNA molecule.

PR (D)-60017 [ Turn over

83-E 10 CCE PR

47. Observe the figure and answer the following questions :

(a) What type of bias is shown in the figure ?

(b) What type of impurity is added to the side of the semiconductor connected

to end A ?’

(c) What happens to the junction resistance, if the terminals of the battery are

reversed ?

OR

(a) What type of extrinsic semiconductor is obtained if an element with atomic

number 15 is doped with silicon ?

(b) What type of majority carriers are found in silicon if an element with

atomic number 13 is added to it as an impurity ?

(c) Why p-n junction is used in rectifying action ?

48. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in the extraction of aluminium from

alumina, and label the following parts.

(a) Electrode connected to graphite

(b) Molten aluminium.

49. Explain the structure and function of a nerve cell.

PR (D)-60017
CCE PR 11 83-E

Answer the following questions. 3 × 4 = 12

50. (a) Explain the formation of planetary nebula.

(b) Some artificial satellites appear to be in the fixed positions relative to earth.

Why ? What are these artificial satellites called ?

51. (a) Why are oils converted into solid fats ? What is the role of nickel in this

process ?

(b) Write the molecular formula and structural formula of fourth member of

alkenes and alkynes.

OR

(a) Write the structural formula of Glycerol and Salicylic acid.

(b) Explain the steps in the process of saponification.

52. Draw the vertical section of the human eye and label the following parts.

(a) The region where a distinct clear image is formed

(b) The sensory nerve which carries visual impulses to the cerebrum of brain.

PR (D)-60017 [ Turn over

83-E 12 CCE PR

PR (D)-60017
83-E 2 CCE PF

83-E
:
Code No. : 83-E

Subject : SCIENCE
( / Physics, Chemistry & Biology )
( / English Version )
( / New Syllabus )
( / Private Fresh )

General Instructions :
i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and
subjective types of questions having 52 questions.
ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer
along with its letter in the space provided.
iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.
iv) Candidate should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written
in pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )
v) Answer only one question each for the choice questions.
vi) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
vii) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.
viii) Space for Rough Work has been printed and provided at the bottom of
each page.
ix) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
x) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

226160 PF-3012
CCE PF 3 83-E

Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 10  1 = 10
1. The correct equation of nuclear fusion reaction is
1
(A) 1H  1H 1  H2 (B) 1H
2
 1H 1  2He 4  0n1
2
(C) 1H  1H 2  2He 4  Energy (D) 2H2  3H2  5H2 .

2. The major constituent of freshly obtained molasses is

(A) sucrose (B) fructose

(C) glucose (D) methanol.

3. The minimum distance between the source of sound and the reflecting
surface necessary to cause echo is

(A) 17 m (B) 17 m

(C) 7m (D) 70 m.

4. In a triad of A, B, C elements if the atomic masses of A and C respectively

are 100 and 200 then the atomic mass of B is

(A) 300 (B) 175

(C) 125 (D) 150.

5. If the fermentation of molasses during the manufacturing of ethyl alcohol

is delayed then the conclusion that can be drawn is

(A) molasses is diluted

(B) molasses is not diluted

(C) more yeast is added

(D) temperature is maintained around 410 K.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

226160 PF-3012 [ Turn over

83-E 4 CCE PF

6. The transformer among the following in which output voltage is more than

the input voltage is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

7. Which one of the following is biodegradable pollutants ?

(A) Cowdung (B) DDT

(C) Lead Vapour (D) Plastic.

8. In which one of the following water conservation is high, as rate of

transpiration is low ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

226160 PF-3012
CCE PF 5 83-E

9. The correct group among the following is

Diseases Pathogen Symptoms

(A) Hepatitis-B HCV Liver Cirrhosis

(B) Syphillis Neisseria Ulcers on nose

(C) Herpes HSV Blisters on and around genitals

(D) Gonorrhoea Treponema Vaginal discharge.

10. A tall plant with red flowers is crossed with a dwarf plant with white

flowers. Which one of the following represents dwarf plant with white

flowers ?

(A) TtRr (B) TTrr

(C) ttrr (D) ttRr.

11. Names of alloys are given in List-A. Match them with their constituents

given in List-B and uses given in the List-C : 41=4

List - A List - B List - C
(A) Stainless Steel (a) Iron + nickel + cobalt + (i) Electrical contact part
aluminium
(B) Alnico (b) Iron + carbon + chromium + (ii) Sports medal
nickel
(C) Invar Steel (c) Copper + zinc + tin (iii) Surgical instruments
(D) Brass (d) Iron + carbon + nickel (iv) Aeroplane body
( large quantity )
(e) Aluminium + copper + (v) Permanent magnets
magnesium + manganese
(f) Copper + zinc (vi) Precision measuring
instrument.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

226160 PF-3012 [ Turn over

83-E 6 CCE PF

Answer the following questions : 71=7

12. What is a Solar Cell ?
13. Name the process of converting crude oil obtained from seeds into
commercially useful fuel.
14. Name two monosaccharide constituents of sucrose.
15. How can ceramic articles be given a coloured tinge ?
16. ‘Soda glass must not be used in making laboratory heating apparatus.’
Justify.
17. How are feathers useful to birds ?
18. The normal thyroxine level in an adult is around 08 ng/dl to 18 ng/dl. In
a patient it was 06 ng/dl. After a prolonged hormonal treatment the
thyroxine level was about 34 ng/dl. Mention the present symptoms of the
patient.
Answer the following questions : 26 × 2 = 52
19. Write the function of the following parts of nuclear reactor along with the
material used in making it :
(a) Control rod (b) Moderator.
20. What are functional groups ? Name the class of compounds containing
— NH 2 as the functional group.

21. Give scientific reason :

(a) The atomic size increases down the group in the periodic table.
(b) 18th group of periodic table is also called zero group.
22. Explain the method of extraction of amorphous silicon with the help of
chemical equation.
OR
Write the balanced equations of chemical reactions taking place under the
following circumstances :
(a) Steam is passed over red hot silicon.
(b) Silicon is burnt in air.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

226160 PF-3012
CCE PF 7 83-E

23. Calculate the period of a wave, which is having the wavelength 17 m and
wave velocity 340 m/s.
24. Steam engines of Indian railways are replaced with diesel engines. Justify
this move with two scientific reasons.
25. Gas A is four times denser than gas B. Find the ratio between their rates of
diffusion.
26. Draw the diagram of a petrol engine.
27. Imagine that a listener who is at rest is listening to the sound of frequency
20 Hz produced by a stationary source. If the source starts moving away
from the listener, will the listener be able to hear the sound ? Justify your
answer.
28. Draw the diagram of blast furnace used in the extraction of iron.
29. Explain the process of industrial effluent treatment.
OR
Write the effects of acid rain on aquatic organisms and human beings.
30. Draw the diagram of a dicot plant.
31. Explain the structure of HIV.
32. ‘Roof top gardening may be a solution for both energy crisis and
management of kitchen wastes.’ Justify the statement.
33. Mention any four characteristic features that are shared by humans with
other primates.
OR
Mention any four features of Neanderthal Man.
34. ‘Mammals are more evolved than amphibians.’ Justify this statement with
respect to circulation of blood and reproduction.
35. State Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.
36. Name four strokes of a petrol engine.
37. Draw the diagram of a single stage rocket.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

226160 PF-3012 [ Turn over

83-E 8 CCE PF

38. State the following :

(a) Charles’ law (b) Boyle’s law.
39. Write two differences between alkanes and alkenes.
40. Draw the diagram of electrolytic cell showing the purification of copper.
41. Draw the diagram showing the external features of fish.
42. What is reflex action ? Give an example.
43. Distinguish between monocot plant and dicot plant with regard to roots
and leaves.
44. Name the components of blood.
Answer the following questions : 5  3 = 15
45. What are extrinsic semiconductors ? Write two differences between the two
types of extrinsic semiconductors.
OR
What is biasing a diode ? Write two differences between the two kinds of
biasing.
46. Draw the diagram of induction coil and label the following :
(a) Primary coil (b) Make and break arrangement.
47. Draw the diagram showing electroplating of a brass article with silver and
label the following :
(a) Anode (b) Electrolyte.
48. Explain the structure and function of a neuron.
49. What is a monohybrid cross ? What is the ratio of tall and dwarf plants
obtained in F 2 generation ? Represent the same with the help of a checker
board.
OR
What is Biotechnology ? Mention any two advantages of biotechnology.
Answer the following : 3  4 = 12

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

226160 PF-3012
CCE PF 9 83-E

50. What is Stellar evolution ? Explain the evolution of a star from its birth up
to the red giant stage.
OR
State the principle of rocket. With respect to the launching of rocket,
define orbital velocity and escape velocity. Write the relationship between
them.
51. Write the structural formulae of the following :
(a) Butene (b) Ethyne
(c) Benzene (d) Cyclohexane.
OR
What is Catenation ? Write the structural formulae of the following :
(a) Cyclopropane, (b) Ethane, (c) Isobutane.
52. Draw the diagram showing the internal structure of human ear and label
the following :
(a) Ear drum
(b) Cochlea.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

226160 PF-3012 [ Turn over

 B∆«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄¬° “
A

Question Paper Serial No.

Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 16 ]
Total No. of Printed Pages : 16 ]
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 38 ]
Total No. of Questions : 38 ]
CCE RR
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E

600
Code No. : 81-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

( BMW«ŒÈ »⁄·¤®⁄¥¿»⁄fl / English Medium )
( Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Repeater )

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl B∆« O⁄}⁄°¬“

¶´¤MO⁄ : 04. 07. 2022 ] [ Date : 04. 07. 2022
—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 10-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-1-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-45 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This question paper consists of objective and subjective types of
38 questions.
2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut
on the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are
intact.
3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the
question paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

600 RR (A)-(600)-13046 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Choose the correct alternative and write the

complete answer along with its letter of alphabet. 8×1=8

1. Lines represented by the pair of linear equations x – y = 8 and

3x – 3y = 16 are

(A) intersecting lines

(B) parallel lines

(C) perpendicular lines

(D) coincident lines.

2. In an arithmetic progression 5, 3, 1, – 1, .... the common

difference is

(A) –2

(B) 2

(C) –3

(D) 5.

RR (A)-(600)-13046
CCE RR 3 81-E

3. x ( x + 1 ) = 5 is a

(A) linear equation

(B) quadratic equation

(C) cubic equation

(D) quadratic polynomial.

4. 1 + tan 2 θ is equal to

(A) cosec 2 θ

1
(B)
cosec 2 θ

(C) sec 2 θ

(D) – sec 2 θ

5. Value of cot 90° is

1
(A) (B) 1
3

(C) 3 (D) 0.

RR (A)-(600)-13046 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RR

6. Distance of the point P ( a, b ) from the origin is

(A) a 2 + b2 units

(B) a 2 − b 2 units

(C) a + b units

(D) a − b units.

7. In the figure, secant is

(A) AB (B) PQ

(C) XY (D) MN.

RR (A)-(600)-13046
CCE RR 5 81-E

8. Volume of a sphere of radius ‘r’ unit is

2
(A) π r 2 cubic units
3

2
(B) π r 3 cubic units
3

4
(C) π r 3 cubic units
3

4
(D) π r 2 cubic units.
3

II. Answer the following questions : 8×1=8

9. How many solutions does the pair of linear equations

a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 and a 2 x + b2y + c 2 = 0 have if they are

inconsistent ?

10. What is an Arithmetic progression ?

11. Write the standard form of a quadratic equation.

RR (A)-(600)-13046 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RR

12. In the figure, ABC is a right angled triangle. If ∠ C = 30° and

AB = 12 cm then find the length of AC.

13. Write the coordinates of point P if it divides the line segment joining

the points A ( x1 , y1 ) and B ( x 2 , y 2 ) internally in the ratio

m1 : m 2 .

14. Find the mode of the following scores :

4, 5, 5, 6, 7, 7, 6, 7, 5, 5

15. State “Basic proportionality theorem” ( Thales theorem ).

16. Write the formula to find the volume ( V ) of the frustum of a cone of

height h and radii of two circular ends r 1 and r 2 .

RR (A)-(600)-13046
CCE RR 7 81-E

III. Answer the following questions : 8 × 2 = 16

17. Solve the given equations by elimination method :

2x + 3y = 7

2x + y = 5

18. Find the 12th term of the Arithmetic progression 2, 5, 8, ..... using

formula.

19. Find the sum of arithmetic progression 7, 11, 15, ...... to 16 terms

using formula.

OR

Find how many terms of the arithmetic progression 3, 6, 9, ....

must be added to get the sum 165.

20. Find the value of the discriminant of the equation 4 x 2 – 12x + 9 = 0

and hence write the nature of the roots.

21. Find the roots of the equation x 2 – 3x + 1 = 0 using quadratic

formula.

RR (A)-(600)-13046 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RR

22. In the figure ABC is a right angled triangle. If AB = 24 cm, BC = 7 cm

and AC = 25 cm, then write the value of sin α and cos α.

23. Find the distance between the points P ( 2, 3 ) and Q ( 4, 1 ) using

distance formula.

OR

Find in what ratio the point P ( – 4, 6 ) divides the line segment

joining the points A ( – 6, 10 ) and B ( 3, – 8 ).

24. Draw a line segment of length 8·4 cm and divide it in the ratio 1 : 3

by geometric construction.

RR (A)-(600)-13046
CCE RR 9 81-E

IV. Answer the following questions : 9 × 3 = 27

25. Find the arithmetic progression whose third term is 16 and its 7th

term exceeds the 5th term by 12.

26. The sum of the reciprocals of Rehman’s age ( in years ) 3 years ago

1
and his age 5 years from now is . Find his present age.
3

OR

A train travels 360 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been

5 km/h more, it would have taken 1 hour less for the same journey.

Find the speed of the train.

27. Evaluate :

2 cos ( 90 o − 30 o ) + tan 45 o − 3 . cosec 60 o

3 sec 30 o + 2 cos 60 o + cot 45 o

RR (A)-(600)-13046 [ Turn over

81-E 10 CCE RR

28. A tower and a building are standing vertically on the same level
ground. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of
the tower is 30° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower
from the foot of the building is 60°. If the tower is 50 m high, find the
height of the building.

OR
A cable tower and a building are standing vertically on the same level
ground. From the top of the building which is 7 m high, the angle of
elevation of the cable tower is 60° and the angle of depression of its
foot is 45°. Find the height of the tower. ( Use 3 = 1·73 )

RR (A)-(600)-13046
CCE RR 11 81-E

29. Find the value of ‘k’ if the points P ( 2, 3 ), Q ( 4, k ) and

R ( 6, – 3 ) are collinear.

OR

A circle whose centre is at P ( 2, 3 ) passes through the points

A ( 4, 3 ) and B ( x, 5 ). Then find the value of ‘x’.

30. Find the mean of the following scores by direct method :

Class-interval Frequency

5 — 15 1

15 — 25 3

25 — 35 5

35 — 45 4

45 — 55 2

OR

Find the median of the following scores :

Class-interval Frequency

0 — 20 6

20 — 40 9

40 — 60 10

60 — 80 8

80 — 100 7

RR (A)-(600)-13046 [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE RR

31. The following table gives the information of heights of 60 students of

class X of a school. Draw a ‘less than type’ ogive for the given data :

Height of students Number of students

( in cms ) ( Cumulative frequency )

Less than 130 04

Less than 140 12

Less than 150 30

Less than 160 45

Less than 170 56

Less than 180 60

32. Prove that “the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a

circle are equal”.

33. Draw a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 3 cm which are inclined

to each other at an angle of 60°.

V. Answer the following questions : 4 × 4 = 16

34. Find the solution of the pair of linear equations by graphical

method :

2x – y = 7

x–y= 2

RR (A)-(600)-13046
CCE RR 13 81-E

35. Construct a triangle ABC with sides BC = 6 cm, AB = 5 cm and

4
AC = 4·5 cm. Then construct a triangle whose sides are of the
3

corresponding sides of the triangle ABC.

36. ABCD is a square of side 14 cm. A circle is drawn inside it which

just touches the mid-points of sides of the square, as shown in the

figure. If P, Q, R and S are the mid-points of the sides of the square,

and PQ, QR, RS and SP are the arcs of the circle, then find the area

of the shaded region.

RR (A)-(600)-13046 [ Turn over

81-E 14 CCE RR

37. Sand is filled in a cylindrical vessel of height 32 cm and radius of its

base is 18 cm. This sand is completely poured on the level ground to

form a conical shaped heap of sand. If the height of the conical heap
is 24 cm. Find the base radius and slant height of the conical heap.

OR

A toy is in the form of a cone of radius 21 cm, mounted on a

hemisphere of same radius, as shown in the figure. The total height
of the toy is 49 cm. Find the surface area of the toy.

RR (A)-(600)-13046
CCE RR 15 81-E

VI. Answer the following question : 1×5=5

38. Prove that “if in two triangles, corresponding angles are equal, then

their corresponding sides are in the same ratio ( or proportion ) and

hence the two triangles are similar”.

RR (A)-(600)-13046 [ Turn over

81-E 16 CCE RR

RR (A)-(600)-13046
81-E 2 CCE PF

: 81-E
Code No. : 81-E

Subject : MATHEMATICS
( / English Version )
( / New Syllabus )
( / Private Fresh )

General Instructions :
i) The Question-cum-Answer Booklet consists of objective and
subjective types of questions having 50 questions.
ii) Space has been provided against each objective type question. You
have to choose the correct choice and write the complete answer
along with its letter in the space provided.
iii) For subjective type questions enough space for each question has
been provided. You have to answer the questions in the space.
iv) Follow the instructions given against both the objective and
subjective types of questions.
v) Candidates should not write the answer with pencil. Answers written
in pencil will not be evaluated. ( Except Graphs, Diagrams & Maps )
vi) In case of Multiple Choice, Fill in the blanks and Matching questions,
scratching / rewriting / marking is not permitted, thereby rendering
to disqualification for evaluation.
vii) Candidates have extra 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
viii) Space for Rough Work has been printed and provided at the bottom of
each page.
ix) Do not write anything in the space provided in the right side margin.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022
 CCE PF 3 81-E

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the
correct alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter in
the space provided against each question. 81=8

1. The harmonic mean between 2 and 4 is

8 3
(A) (B)
3 8
8 6
(C) (D) .
6 8
2. The value of n C n is

(A) n (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) n!
5
3. The probability of winning a game is . Then the probability of losing
6
it is
5 5
(A) – (B)
6 6
1 1
(C) – (D) .
6 6
4. The given pie-chart shows annual agricultural yield of certain place.
If the total production is 8100 tons, then the yield of Ragi in tons is

(A) 225 (B) 2250

(C) 225 (D) 2250.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE PF

5. Which of the following is the zeroes of the polynomial x 2 + 4x + 4 ?

(A) 2 (B) –2
(C) 4 (D) – 4.
6. The value of tan 2 60° is
(A) 3 (B) 2 3
1
(C) (D) 3.
3
7. The distance between the points ( 2, 3 ) and ( 6, 6 ) is
(A) 5 units (B) 7 units
(C) 3 units (D) 4 units.
8. The slope of the line joining the points ( 3, – 2 ) and ( 4, 5 ) is
1
(A) (B) 1
7
3
(C) 7 (D) .
7
II. Answer the following : 61=6
9. Express 210 as the product of prime factors.
10. If A = { 1, 2, 3, 4 } and B = { 1 }, find A \ B.
11. Mean and standard deviation of runs scored by a cricket player are
80 and 4 respectively. Find coefficient of variation.
12. If f ( x ) = x 2 – 4, find f ( 4 ).
AY 1
13. In  ABC, XY || BC,  and AX = 4. Find BX.
CY 2

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022
 CCE PF 5 81-E

14. In the figure, BC is the diameter. What is the measure of x ?

III. 15. Prove that 3 + 5 is an irrational number. 2

16. In a class of 100 students, 55 students have passed in Physics and

67 students have passed in Mathematics. Find the number of
students passed in Physics only.

OR
A and B are the two subsets of Universal Set  such that n (  ) = 700,
n ( A ) = 200, n ( B ) = 300 and n ( A  B ) = 100. Find n ( A l  B l ).

17. In how many ways 4-digit numbers can be formed using the
digits 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9 without repetitions ? How many of these are
even numbers ? 2

18. Find the number of sides of a polygon having 35 diagonals. 2

19. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting

(a) same number on both faces and

(b) both faces having multiples of five. 2

20. Calculate variance for the following data : 2

X = 2, 4, 6, 8, 10
( Scores )
3
21. Find the product of 2 and 5. 2

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE PF

22. Rationalise the denominator and simplify :

6 3
. 2
6 3
23. Find the value of a if ( x – 5 ) is a factor of  x 3  3x 2  ax  10 .
OR
What must be added to the polynomial
P ( x ) = x 4 + 2x 3 – 2x 2 + x – 1
so that the resulting polynomial is exactly divisible by x 2 + 2x – 3 ?
2
24. Solve the equation by using formula : x 2 – 4x + 2 = 0. 2
25. In  ABC, AD is the median and PQ || BC. Prove that PE = EQ. 2

26. In the given figure, find the values of cos  and tan . 2

27. Find the perimeter of a triangle whose vertices have the coordinates
( 3, 10 ), ( 5, 2 ) and ( 14, 12 ). 2

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022
CCE PF 7 81-E

28. Draw a circle of radius 3 cm and construct two tangents to it from an

external point 8 cm away from the centre. 2

29. Draw a plan of a level ground using the given information : 2

[ Scale : 20 m = 1 cm ]
Metre To D
150
100 80 to C
To E 60 80
40 40 to B
From A
30. Verify Euler’s formula for a Hexahedron. 2
31. If U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 }, A = { 1, 2, 3 } and
B = { 2, 3, 4, 5 } , verify ( A  B ) l = A l  B l . 2
32. Find the number of terms in the Arithmetic progression
100, 96, 92, ................ , 12. 2
n n
33. If P r = 840 and C r = 35, find n. 2

34. Simplify : 75  108  192 . 2

35. Find the remainder using remainder theorem when

P ( x ) = ( x 3 + 3x 2 – 5x + 8 ) is divided by g ( x ) = ( x – 3 ). 2
36. Find the sum and product of the roots of the quadratic equation
8m 2 – m – 2 = 0. 2
37. In the given figure ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles and
BD = DC. Find the ratio between the areas of  ABC and  BDE.

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE PF

38. In a circle of radius 3 cm draw two radii such that the angle between
them is 70°. Construct tangents at the non-centre ends of the radii.
2
39. Draw a circle of radius 35 cm and construct a chord of length 6 cm
in it. Measure the perpendicular distance between the centre and the
chord. 2
40. Find the order and type of each node in the given network. 2

1 1
IV. 41. In a harmonic progression, T 3 = and T 7 = . Find T 15 . 3
7 5

42. Aniruddha bought some books for Rs. 60. Had he bought 5 more
books for the same amount, each book would have cost him 1 rupee
less. Find the number of books bought by Aniruddha.
OR
The ages of Kavya and Karthik are 11 years and 14 years
respectively. In how many years time will the product of their ages
will be 304 ? 3

43. In  ABC,  A = 90°, AD  BC and  B = 45°. If AB = x, find AD in

terms of x.
OR
ABC is a right angled triangle with  C = 90°, BC = a, AC = b,
CD  AB and CD = P. Show that
1 1 1
=  . 3
2
P 2
a b2
( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022
CCE PF 9 81-E

44. Prove that

sec   tan 
= 1 – 2 sec  . tan  + 2 tan 2 .
sec   tan 
OR
Prove that
1  cos 
= cosec  + cot . 3
1  cos 
45. Prove that ‘the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are
equal’. 3
46. A solid cylinder has a total surface area of 462 cm 2 . Its curved
surface area is one-third of its total surface area. Find the radius of
the cylinder.
OR
From the top of a cone of base radius 12 cm and height 20 cm, a
small cone of base radius 3 cm is to be cut off. How far down the
vertex is the cuts should be made ? Find the volume of the frustum
so obtained. 3
V. 47. The sum of three consecutive terms in an arithmetic progression is 6
and their product is – 120. Find the three numbers.
OR
The product of three consecutive terms in a geometric progression is
216 and sum of their products in pairs is 156. Find the three terms.
4
48. ‘In a right angled triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to
the sum of the squares on the other two sides.’ Prove. 4
49. Construct direct common tangents to two circles of radii 4 cm and
2 cm whose centres are 9 cm apart from their centres. Measure their
length and write the length of direct common tangents. 4
50. Solve the equation graphically :
x 2 + x – 6 = 0. 4
graph

( SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK )

432105 PF-3022 [ Turn over

 D SL. No. : RR

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 50 ] [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12
Total No. of Questions : 50 ] CCE PR [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 12

—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E REVISED & UN-REVISED Code No. : 81-E

…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )
( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

( Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ S¤—⁄W @∫⁄¥¿£%/ Private Repeater )

¶´¤MO⁄ : 21. 06. 2018 ] [ Date : 21. 06. 2018

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑ÊÿVÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-45 P.M.

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 100 ] [ Max. Marks : 100

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 50 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

PR (D)-60008 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE PR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct
alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

8×1=8

1. A and B are two sets, such that n ( A ) = 37, n ( B ) = 26 and

n ( A U B ) = 51 ; then n ( A I B ) is

(A) 12 (B) 63

(C) 14 (D) 25
1 1
2. Geometric mean between and is
2 8
1
(A) 16 (B)
16
1
(C) (D) 4
4

3. HCF of any two prime numbers is

(A) a prime number (B) a composite number

(C) an odd number (D) an even number

4. If f ( x ) = 2x 3 + 3x 2 − 11x + 6 then the value of f ( – 1 ) is

(A) 0 (B) – 10

(C) – 18 (D) 18
5. In ABC, ABC = 90°, BD ⊥ AC if BD = 8 cm and AD = 4 cm then the

length of CD is

(A) 16 cm (B) 4 cm

(C) 64 cm (D) 12 cm

PR (D)-60008
CCE PR 3 81-E
sin ( 90° − θ )
6. where ‘θ’ is acute, is equal to
cos ( 90° − θ )

(A) sec θ (B) cot θ

(C) tan θ (D) cosec θ

7. The co-ordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining the points

( 2, 3 ) and ( 4, 7 ) are

(A) ( – 3, – 5 ) (B) ( 1, 2 )

(C) ( 3, 5 ) (D) ( 6, 10 )

8. Formula used to find the surface area of a sphere whose radius ‘r’ units is

(A) πr 2 (B) 2π r 2

(C) 3π r 2 (D) 4π r 2

II. Answer the following : 6×1=6

9. A boy has 2 pants and 4 shirts. How many different pairs of a pant and a

shirt can he dress up with ?

10. Write sample space for the random experiment ‘tossing two fair coins

simultaneously once’.

11. The given pie chart shows the annual agricultural yield of different crops in

a certain place. If the total production is 3600 tons, what is the yield of

Ragi in tons ?

PR (D)-60008 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE PR

12. If ( x + 3 ) is one of the factor of f ( x ) = x 2 + 5x + 6, find the other factor.

13. What are concentric circles ?

14. Two straight lines are perpendicular to each other. If the slope of one line
1
is , find the slope of the other line.
3

III. 15. If A = { 1, 2, 3 } and B = { 2, 3, 4, 5 } are the subsets of

U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 }, verify ( A I B ) l = A l U B l . 2

2 2
16. Find the sum of infinite terms of the geometric series 2 + + + ..... . 2
3 9

17. Prove that 2 + 3 is an irrational number. 2

18. Find the number of diagonals that can be drawn in an octagon. 2

19. Find the sum of all two digit natural numbers which are divisible by 5. 2

20. Find how many 4 digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 1, 2, 3,

4, 5 without repetition ? How many of these are less than 2000 ? 2

OR

If 2 ( n P 2 ) + 50 = 2n P 2 , find the value of n.

21. Two unbiased dice whose faces are numbered 1 to 6 are rolled once. Find

the probability of getting a sum equal to 7 on their top faces. 2

22. Rationalise the denominator and simplify : 2

3 2
.
5− 2

PR (D)-60008
CCE PR 5 81-E

23. Simplify ( 75 − 45 ) ( 20 + 12 ) . 2

24. Find the quotient and remainder by using synthetic division : 2

( 3x 3 − 2x 2 + 7x − 5 ) ÷ ( x − 3 )

OR

Verify whether ( x – 2 ) is a factor of f ( x ) = x 3 − 3x 2 + 6x − 20 by using

factor theorem.

25. In Δ ABC, DE || BC, if AD = 2 cm, DB = 5 cm and AE = 4 cm, find AC.

26. Draw a circle of radius 4·5 cm and a chord PQ of length 7 cm in it.

Construct a tangent at P. 2

27. Find the distance between the co-ordinates of the points ( 2, 4 ) and

( 8, 12 ) by using distance formula. 2

28. In a hockey match team ‘A’ scored one goal less than twice the number of

goals scored by team ‘B’. If the product of the number of goals scored by

both the teams is 15, find the number of goals scored by each team. 2

PR (D)-60008 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE PR

29. In the given ABC, ‘θ’ is acute. Write the values of the following

trigonometric ratios related to θ : 2

(a) sin θ (b) cos θ

(c) cosec θ (d) sec θ.

30. Draw a plan by using the information given below :

( Scale 20 metres = 1 cm )

Metre to C

140

80 to D 90

60 60 to B

30 to E 20

From A

31. If P = { 1, 2, 3, 4 }, Q = { 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 } are the subsets of

U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 }, then draw Venn diagram to

represent ( P U Q ) l . 2

PR (D)-60008
CCE PR 7 81-E

32. Write the formula used to find the following : 2

(a) Sum of first ‘n’ natural numbers

(b) Harmonic mean between a and b ( a > b ).

33. Write the values of the following : 2

(a) 100 P
0

(b) 10 C .
1

34. Draw a pie chart to represent the survey carried out in the class regarding

places of visit for excursion and the number of students who opted each

place. 2

Places Mysuru Vijayapura Gokorna Chitradurga

Number of students 14 6 2 18

35. Find the product of and . 2

36. Determine the nature of the roots of the equation 2x 2 − 5x − 1 = 0 . 2

37. In Rhombus ABCD, prove that 4AB 2 = AC 2 + BD 2 . 2

PR (D)-60008 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE PR

38. Find the remainder when P ( x ) = x 3 + 3x 2 − 5x + 8 is divided by ( x – 3 )

by remainder theorem. 2

39. Find the distance between origin and the point ( – 8, 15 ). 2

5 sin θ + cos θ
40. If cos θ = , find the value of . 2
13 sin θ − cos θ

1 1
IV. 41. In a harmonic progression 5th term is and 11th term is . Find its
12 15

25th term. 3

OR

If the third term of a geometric progression is 12 and its sixth term is 96,

find the sum of first 9 terms.

42. Calculate the variance of the following data : 3

Class-interval 0-4 5-9 10-14 15-19 20-24

Frequency ( f ) 1 2 5 4 3

43. Solve ( 2x + 3 ) ( 3x – 2 ) + 2 = 0 by using formula. 3

OR

If one root of the equation x 2 + px + q = 0 is four times the other, prove

that 4 p 2 − 25q = 0 .

44. Prove that “The tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are

equal”. 3

PR (D)-60008
CCE PR 9 81-E

45. In Δ ABC, AB = AC. P is a point on BC such that PN ⊥ AC and PM ⊥ AB as

shown in the figure. Prove that MB . CP = NC . BP . 3

OR

In Δ ABC, DE || BC. If 3DE = 2BC and the area of Δ ABC is 81 cm 2 , show

that the area of Δ ADE is 36 cm 2 .

46. Prove that ( 1 + cot A – cosec A ) ( 1 + tan A + sec A ) = 2. 3

OR

From the top of a building 20 m high, the angle of elevation of the top of a

vertical pole is 30° and the angle of depression of the foot of the same pole

is 60°. Find the height of the pole.

PR (D)-60008 [ Turn over

81-E 10 CCE PR

V. 47. Solve the equation x 2 + x − 6 = 0 graphically. 4

48. Construct a direct common tangent to two circles of radii 4 cm and 2 cm

whose centres are 9 cm apart. Measure and write the length of the direct

common tangent. 4

49. Prove that “In a right angled triangle, square on the hypotenuse is equal to

sum of the squares on the other two sides”. 4

50. A solid is in the shape of a cylinder with a cone attached at one end and a

hemisphere attached to the other end as shown in the figure. All of them

are of the same radius 7 cm. If the total length of the solid is 61 cm and

height of the cylinder is 30 cm, calculate the cost of painting the outer

surface of the solid at the rate of Rs. 10 per 100 cm 2 . 4

OR

PR (D)-60008
CCE PR 11 81-E

A solid metallic cylinder of diameter 12 cm and height 15 cm is melted and

recast into toys in the shape of right circular cone mounted on a

hemisphere as shown in the figure. If radii of the cone and hemisphere are

each equal to 3 cm and the height of the toy is 7 cm, calculate the number

of such toys that can be formed.

PR (D)-60008 [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE PR

PR (D)-60008
 B∆«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄¬° “
3
A
RF(A)/100/3320

Question Paper Serial No.

Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 16 ]
Total No. of Printed Pages : 16 ]
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 38 ]
Total No. of Questions : 38 ]
CCE RF
UNREVISED
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 31-E

100
FULL SYLLABUS
Code No. : 31-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : ¶ ~fiæ⁄fl ∫¤ŒÊ — BMW«ŒÈ

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

Subject : Second Language — ENGLISH
( À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Fresh )

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl B∆« O⁄}⁄°¬“

¶´¤MO⁄ : 06. 04. 2023 ] [ Date : 06. 04. 2023
—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 10-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-1-30 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ]
[ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-30 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions to the Candidate :
1. This question paper consists of objective and subjective types of
38 questions.
2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut
on the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are
intact.
3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the
Tear here

question paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

[ Turn over
3 RF(A)/100/3320 2 CCE RF 31-E

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Only one of them is correct or most

appropriate. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete

answer along with its letter of alphabet. 4×1=4

1. Choose the appropriate question tag for the statement :

Nirmala tries to get good marks in the exam, ..........

(A) does she ? (B) was she ?

(C) doesn’t she ? (D) didn’t she ?

2. Read the given conversation and choose the language function

for the underlined sentence :

Mahesh : Hi, good morning, how are you ?

Suresh : Hello, I’m not feeling well.

Mahesh : I’m sorry. Shall I drop you to the hospital ?

Suresh : No thanks. I will.

(A) Agreeing

(B) Offering help

(C) Requesting

(D) Seeking direction

3 RF(A)/100/3320 3 CCE RF 31-E

3. Read the given conversation and fill in the blank choosing the

most appropriate words :

Chandan : Hey Sneha, have you missed the bus ?

Sneha : Yes. I had gone to the bus station at 10:30 AM

but the bus had left at 10:15 AM.

Chandan : If you had gone to the bus station at 10:00 AM

you ................. missed the bus.

(A) will have (B) would have

(C) shall have (D) wouldn’t have

4. Read the following and choose the infinitive :

Mahesh was watching cricket match on TV. Suddenly he heard a

noise from outside. He went outside to see what had happened.

(A) was (B) went

(C) to see (D) heard

[ Turn over
3 RF(A)/100/3320 4 CCE RF 31-E

II. Do as directed : 12 × 1 = 12

5. Which one of the following words has two syllables ?

free, neat, politics, nature

6. Combine the word in Column-A with its collocative word in

Column-B :

‘A’ ‘B’

Book [ care, teacher, bank, pain ]

7. Fill in the blank using the correct article :

Rajesh is ....................... NCC student.

8. Fill in the blank using suitable linker :

Suresh comes to school early .......................... his friend

doesn’t.
3 RF(A)/100/3320 5 CCE RF 31-E

9. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition :

Sudha is working ......................... a company.

10. Fill in the blank with appropriate tense form of the verb given in

brackets :

Sneha ....................... ( write ) short stories to the periodicals

regularly.

11. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word :

The stories are told interestingly.

12. Write the correct form of the word given in brackets :

The physical education teacher stressed the ............ ( important )

of physical exercises.

[ Turn over
3 RF(A)/100/3320 6 CCE RF 31-E

13. Use the word ‘pay’ as verb in a sentence.

14. Change into comparative degree :

Chandan is the tallest boy in the class.

15. Change into passive voice :

They are purchasing a car.

16. Read the following conversation and change the underlined

sentence into reported speech :

Pavithra : Hello Kusuma, how are you ?

Kusuma : Hi, I am not feeling well.

Kusuma told Pavithra ............................... .

3 RF(A)/100/3320 7 CCE RF 31-E

III. The following paragraph has two errors. Edit the paragraph and

rewrite it in the answer book : 1×2=2

17. Narendra pass the entrance exam in the first division. He joined

Missionary College but sudden he changed the college.

a) Verbal mistake to be corrected

b) Adverbial mistake to be corrected.

IV. Answer the following questions in 2 – 3 sentences each :

7 × 2 = 14

18. Why did Anant and his parents come to Bombay ?

19. How does the writer say the scientists are the most practical

people in the world ?

20. How did Dr. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi try to wipe out

caste discrimination from India ?

[ Turn over
3 RF(A)/100/3320 8 CCE RF 31-E

21. Why did the old man Don Anselmo refuse to take extra money ?

22. Why does the poet say that he will be in a solitary confinement ?

23. Why had Patil the Sub-inspector come to Mohan’s house ?

OR

What were the hardships faced by Dicky Dolma in the early

days ?

24. How do you say that Hanif is an introvert ?

OR

How did Wangjia react to the first monster ?

V. Answer the following questions in 5 – 6 sentences each : 2 × 3 = 6

25. Physical disability is no barrier to success. How do you

substantiate this with Satish Gujral’s life ?

26. Describe the physical appearance of the Jazz player.

3 RF(A)/100/3320 9 CCE RF 31-E

VI. Read the following extracts and answer the questions that follow :

4 × 3 = 12

27. “I’ll make you the ‘laughing stock’ of your school.”

a) Who is the ‘I’ here ?

b) What does laughing stock mean ?

c) Why did he say so ?

28. “There are limits to patience. Sir.”

a) Who made this statement ?

b) Why did he say so ?

c) When was he said ?

29. “Please help me to take her to a hospital.”

a) Who does ‘me’ refer to ?

b) What had happened to her ?

c) What was the result of seeking help ?

[ Turn over
3 RF(A)/100/3320 10 CCE RF 31-E

30. “We were crowded in the cabin not a

Soul would dare to sleep.”

a) Who were crowded in the cabin ?

b) Why were they not ready to sleep ?

c) What had happened to them ?

VII. Given below is a profile. Write a paragraph using the clues given

below : 1×3=3

31. Mr. Anand

Place and date of birth : Kodagu, 26th November, 1993

Qualification : B.E., Mechanical

Profession : Manager at a private company

Family : Wife and a son

Hobbies : Writing short stories

Reasons for popularity : Friendly, helps the poor people.

3 RF(A)/100/3320 11 CCE RF 31-E

VIII. Develop the story using the clues given below : 1×3=3

32. An old lady becomes blind — calls a doctor — agrees to pay fees

if cured — doctor comes daily — starts stealing furniture daily —

at last cures her — demands his fees — lady refuses to pay —

cure is not complete — she can’t see her furniture — doctor feels

ashamed.

IX. Study the picture given below :

33. Write a description or an account of what the picture suggests to

you in a paragraph. 1×3=3

[ Turn over
3 RF(A)/100/3320 12 CCE RF 31-E

Alternative question for Visually impaired candidates only.

( In lieu of Q. No. 33 )

Use the following phrasal verbs in sentences of your own :

1×3=3

a) give up

b) keep on

c) take over.

X. Quote from memory : 1×4=4

34. It is enthroned ..............................................

.....................................................................

.............................. .......................................

............................................. seasons justice.

OR

Then let not ...................................................

......................................................................

.......................................................................

........................................................ blind boy.

3 RF(A)/100/3320 13 CCE RF 31-E

XI. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

1×4=4(2×2)

35. Narendranath was born in 1863. He was the son of Vishwanath

Datta, a well known lawyer of Calcutta and Bhuvaneshwari Devi.

Vishwanath was known for charity and was respected by

everyone. Bhuvaneshwari Devi was a pious lady and a good

storyteller too. Naren learned the Epics and Puranas from his

mother. He also inherited her memory among the other

qualities.

Narendranath was an all rounder. He could sing well. He was

good at sports and had a ready wit. He liked to meditate. He

would get lost in his thoughts about God and for a time he

would not see or feel anything around him.

a) What examples in the passage tell you that Narendranath

was an all rounder ?

b) What qualities did Narendranath inherit from his mother ?

[ Turn over
3 RF(A)/100/3320 14 CCE RF 31-E

XII. Answer the following question in about 8 – 10 sentences :

1×4=4

36. How do you say that the poet’s grandmother was genius ?

OR

How does the poet wish to praise the mother India ?

OR

How does the poet Marina de Bellagenta explain the patience

and self assertion of the land ?

XIII. Write an essay on any one of the following : 1×4=4

37. a) Water pollution

b) Importance of yoga

c) Internet and its uses.

3 RF(A)/100/3320 15 CCE RF 31-E

XIV. Write a letter using the information given below : 1×5=5

38. Imagine you are Suhas / Saritha studying in Government High

School, Narayanapura.

Write a letter to your father requesting him to send you

examination fees.

OR

Write a letter to the Municipal Officer to provide drinking water

facility in your area.

[ Turn over
3 RF(A)/100/3320 16 CCE RF 31-E
 B∆«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄¬° “
A

Question Paper Serial No.

Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12 ]
Total No. of Printed Pages : 12 ]
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 38 ]
CCE RR
Total No. of Questions : 38 ]

—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 31-E

600
Code No. : 31-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : ¶ ~fiæ⁄fl ∫¤ŒÊ — BMW«ŒÈ

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

Subject : Second Language — ENGLISH
Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Repeater )

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl B∆« O⁄}⁄°¬“

(

¶´¤MO⁄ : 29. 06. 2022 ] [ Date : 29. 06. 2022

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 10-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-1-30 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-30 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This question paper consists of objective and subjective types of
38 questions.
2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut
on the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are
intact.
3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the
question paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

600 RR (A)-(600)-13021 [ Turn over

31-E 2 CCE RR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Only one of them is correct or most

appropriate. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete

answer along with its letter of alphabet. 4×1=4

1. Choose the appropriate question tag and fill in the blank :

Meghana is looking smart and attractive today, ................. ?

(A) is she

(B) was she

(C) isn’t she

(D) wasn’t she.

2. Fill in the blank choosing the appropriate words of ‘if’ clause :

Shoukath : Hello Renuka ! Why are you running in a hurry ?

Renuka : I want to catch the bus.

Shoukath : The bus has already left the station. If you had

come early, you .............. caught the bus.

(A) will have

(B) should have

(C) would

(D) would have.

RR (A)-(600)-13021
CCE RR 3 31-E

3. Read the given conversation and choose the language function for

the underlined sentence :

Sujay : Good morning Vijay.

Vijay : Very good morning. You look very dull today. May

I know the reason ?

Sujay : I’m suffering from stomach ache since last week.

Vijay : Don’t worry. It’ll turn out all right. Why don’t you

consult an expert doctor ?

(A) Giving suggestion

(B) Offering help

(C) Seeking permission

(D) Expressing sympathy.

4. Read the given conversation and choose the correct infinitive used :

Book seller : Good afternoon gentleman. What can I do for

you ?

Shashidhar : Good afternoon. I’d like to buy some books on

national leaders.

(A) do (B) to buy

(C) can (D) like.

RR (A)-(600)-13021 [ Turn over

31-E 4 CCE RR

II. Do as directed : 12 × 1 = 12

5. Combine the word in Column-A with its collocative word in

Column-B :

‘A’ ‘B’

brisk [ jump, run, walk, talk ]

6. Which one of the following words has one syllable ?

dedication, demonstrate, direction, deep

7. Write the correct form of the word given in brackets :

Keep on trying. There is always a scope for ................ ( improve ).

8. Fill in the blank using the correct article :

Scientific research is ....................... exciting venture.

9. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word :

Nobody is satisfied with wealth, but everybody is satisfied with

wisdom.

10. Fill in the blank using suitable linker :

My ambition is to become a doctor because I want to serve the

poor .................. the needy.

11. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition.

The sun rises ...................... the east.

12. Fill in the blank with appropriate tense form of the verb given in
brackets :

Christopher Columbus first ................ ( see ) the light of the New

World on the night of 11th October, 1492.

RR (A)-(600)-13021
CCE RR 5 31-E

13. Use the word ‘watch’ as a verb in a sentence of your own.

14. Change into comparative degree :

The Ganga is the longest river in India.

15. Change into passive voice :

Kiran gave a strange look.

16. Read the following conversation and change the underlined sentence
into reported speech :

Jane : Good morning Ravi.

Ravi : Very good morning Jane.

Jane : Let’s not waste our time. Shall we begin ?

Ravi : Sure, I’m rather glad you raised the subject.

Jane and Ravi exchanged greetings. Jane was eager to get straight
into the business. She asked him if they should begin their talks.

Ravi accepted and told her that he was glad as ............................

........................................................................................ .

III. The following paragraph has two errors. Edit the paragraph and

rewrite it in the answer book : 2×1=2

17. We often coming to know from the newspaper accounts how our

young soldiers aspire to live and dye for our country. They are ready

to sacrifice everything.

a) Spelling mistake to be corrected.

b) Verbal mistake to be corrected.

RR (A)-(600)-13021 [ Turn over

31-E 6 CCE RR

IV. Answer the following questions in 2 - 3 sentences each : 7 × 2 = 14

18. Why do you think that Jazz player keeps his head down ?

19. What qualities do you appreciate in Dr. B. R. Ambedkar ?

20. Why did Nehru choose Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to be the first Law

Minister of independent India ?

21. With what hopes did Anant’s family come to Bombay ?

22. What makes you to feel that Pandit Ravishankar deserves the

appreciation of the readers ?

23. In Narayanpur how did the students march to protest against the

British ?

OR

According to Mohan what did the police expect from the protesters

and why ?

24. Taking up the challenge of the lofty mountains wasn’t a difficult

decision for Dicky Dolma. Why ?

OR

What did Haneef’s mother’s absence from home teach her children ?

V. Answer the following questions in 5 - 6 sentences each : 2×3=6

25. Narrate Swami’s dreadful experiences when he was lying under the

bench.

26. Sum up the conversation between the poet and the mother India in

sentences of your own.

RR (A)-(600)-13021
CCE RR 7 31-E

VI. Read the following extracts and answer the questions that follow :

4 × 3 = 12

27. “I think it’s astonishing that a stranger would jump off a train and
risk his life for me.”

a) Who does ‘I’ refer to ?

b) Who was a stranger to the speaker ?

c) How did the stranger help the speaker ?

28. “I have planted a tree for that child. The trees in that orchard are not
mine.”

a) Who is the speaker here ?

b) According to the speaker who do the trees belong to ?

c) The one word for ‘a piece of land in which fruit trees are grown’
in the extract is ......................... .

29. “Why do you take away his source of entertainment.”

a) Who said this ?

b) Who does ‘you’ refer to ?

c) What were ‘his’ source of entertainment ?

30. “You come with guns

a chainlink necklace

chokes me now.”

a) Who does ‘me’ refer to in this context ?

b) Who is the speaker addressing to ?

c) What makes the speaker breathless ?

RR (A)-(600)-13021 [ Turn over

31-E 8 CCE RR

VII. Given below is a profile. Write a paragraph using the clues given

below : 1×3=3

31. William Shakespeare

Date of birth and place : 23rd April, 1564, Stratford-on-Avon

Spouse : Anne Hathway

Regarded as : Foremost dramatist of his time

Sonnets ( 156 ) : 1-126 sonnets addressed to a beloved

friend, 127-156 sonnets addressed to a

dark lady

Dramas / plays : More than 30

Categories of dramas : Histories, comedies, tragedies and

romances

Best known dramas : Macbeth, Othello, Hamlet, King Lear,

Julius Caesar, Romeo and Juliet

His birthday : Celebrated as World Book Day

VIII. Develop the story using the clues given below : 1×3=3

32. A cap seller — selling caps — moved from one place to another — felt

tired — slept under a tree — monkeys took away all his caps — he

woke up — shocked — thought of a plan — took off his cap — threw

it away — monkeys also threw away the caps — he collected them —

felt happy — moral.

RR (A)-(600)-13021
CCE RR 9 31-E

IX. Study the picture given below : 1×3=3

33. Write a description or an account of what the picture suggests to you

in a paragraph.

Alternative question for Visually impaired candidates only. ( In

lieu of Q. No. 33 )

Use the following phrases in sentences of your own : 3×1=3

a) afraid of

b) good at

c) hang around.

X. Quote from memory : 4

34. The quality ................................................

........................................................heaven

Upon .........................................................

.......................................................... takes.

OR

RR (A)-(600)-13021 [ Turn over

31-E 10 CCE RR

O say .........................................................

............................................................ enjoy.

What ...................................... .......................

............................................................. boy !

XI. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

1×4=4(2×2)

35. Some people think that the aim of education is merely to give

knowledge. Those people want students to read books, and do

nothing else but add to their knowledge. Others believe that

knowledge alone is not enough ; only that which enables a person to

earn his / her living can be called education. Such people think that

bread is more important than anything else. Still others believe that

education should aim solely at making good citizens and good

patriots.

All these people see only one of the several purposes of

education. As a matter of fact, education should aim at all these

three things together. It should give persons knowledge, make them

self-reliant and able to serve others. Education should not produce

citizens who, while they love their own freedom, take away the

freedom of others. It should produce persons who love their own

country but also who do not want to harm other countries.

a) What kind of citizens should education produce ?

b) What do some people think to be the aim of education ?

RR (A)-(600)-13021
CCE RR 11 31-E

XII. Answer the following question in about 8 - 10 sentences : 1×4=4

36. The poet and his father were dutiful and considerate towards

grandma. Justify.

OR

‘Music is the voice of the soul.’ Justify this statement with reference

to the poem ‘Jazz Poem Two’.

XIII. Write an essay on any one of the following : 1×4=4

37. a) Covid-19

b) National Integration

c) Global warming.

XIV. Write a letter using the information given below : 1×5=5

38. Imagine you are Anupama / Abhi, styding 10th Standard in

Government High School, Honnali.

Write a letter to your friend inviting him / her to spend his / her

summer vacation with you.

OR

Write a letter to the headmaster / headmistress of your school to

issue marks card and transfer certificate.

RR (A)-(600)-13021 [ Turn over

31-E 12 CCE RR

RR (A)-(600)-13021
 B

Question Paper Serial No.

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12 ]
Total No. of Printed Pages : 12
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 40 ]
]
CCE RR
Total No. of Questions : 40 ]
UNREVISED

—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E

61
Code No. : 81-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

( ‘⁄◊Ê⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / Old Syllabus )

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

( Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Repeater )

¶´¤MO⁄ : 07. 04. 2020 ] [ Date : 07. 04. 2020

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-45 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 40 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
Tear here

paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

61 RR(B)-445 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct
alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

8×1=8

1. If A and B are the subsets of an Universal set then the De Morgan’s law

among the following is

(A) ( A U B )l = Al I B l

(B) ( A U B )l = Al U B l

(C) ( A I B )l = Al I B l

(D) ( A I B )l = A U B.

2. The formula used to find the Geometric Mean ( G ) of a and b is

a +b
(A) G =
2

(B) G = ab

a −b
(C) G =
2

(D) G = ab.

3. The LCM of 8 and 12 is 24, then their HCF is

(A) 4

(B) 24

(C) 8

(D) 12.

RR(B)-445
CCE RR 3 81-E

4. If P ( x ) = x 2 − 4 then the value of P ( 2 ) is

(A) 8

(B) 4

(C) 0

(D) 2.

5. The discriminant of the quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0 is

(A) b 2 + 4ac

(B) b 2 − 4ac

(C) b 2 − 4ac

(D) b 2 + 4ac .

6. In the adjoining figure, AB is a tangent to the circle. P is the point of

contact then OPA is

(A) 60°

(B) 0°

(C) 180°

(D) 90°.

RR(B)-445 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RR

7. The value of sin 30° is

(A) 1

(B) 3

1
(C)
2

(D) 2.

8. Which of the following measures represent the sides of a right angled

triangle ?

(A) 6, 8, 9

(B) 3, 4, 6

(C) 7, 8, 9

(D) 6, 8, 10.

II. Answer the following questions : 6×1=6

9. Find the 10th term of the sequence Tn = 2n − 5 .

10. Find the value of n P 0 + n C 0 .

11. Write the probability of an “impossible event”.

12. Write the formula used to find the coefficient of variation of certain scores.

13. Write the degree of the polynomial p ( x ) = 4x 3 + 5x 2 − 6x + 8 .

14. Find the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation x 2 − 6x + 5 = 0 .

RR(B)-445
CCE RR 5 81-E

III. Answer the following questions :

15. In a class, 50 students offered Mathematics subject, 42 offered Science

subject and 24 offered both the subjects. Every student of the class should

select at least one subject. Find the number of students of the class. 2

1 1 1
16. Find the 20th term of the progression , , , .... . 2
2 4 6

17. Prove that 2 + 3 is an irrational number. 2

18. Find the maximum number of diagonals that can be drawn in a decagon

using the formula. 2

19. If ( n + 3 ) ! = 20 ( n + 1 ) ! find the value of n. 2

20. A die whose faces are numbered from 1 to 6 is rolled once, find the

probability of getting

a) an even number

b) a square number. 2

21. Find the product of and . 2

1 1
22. Simplify : 3 + 18 . 2
2 3

RR(B)-445 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RR

23. Find the quotient and the remainder using synthetic division.

3x 3 − 2x 2 + 7x − 5 ÷ ( x − 3 ) . 2

OR

Find the zeroes of the polynomial p ( x ) = x 2 – 2x – 15.

24. Draw a circle of radius 4 cm and construct tangents to it from a point 8 cm

away from the centre. 2

25. The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point on the level

ground which is 50 m from the foot of the tower is 30°. Find the height of

the tower. 2

26. In XYZ, P is any point on XY and PQ ⊥ XZ. If XP = 4 cm, XY = 16 cm

and XZ = 24 cm, find XQ. 2

OR

RR(B)-445
CCE RR 7 81-E

In the trapezium ABCD, AB || CD and AB = 3 CD. Find the ratio of areas

of Δ AOB and Δ COD.

27. Find the coordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining the

points ( 2, 3 ) and ( 4, 7 ). 2

28. Find the values of y in which the distance between the points P ( 2, – 3 )

and Q ( 10, y ) is 10 units. 2

29. Find the total surface area of a right circular cylinder whose height and

radius of base are 20 cm and 7 cm respectively. 2

30. Draw a plan of a level ground using the information given below : 2

( Scale 20 m = 1 cm )

Metre to D

160

100 80 to C

To E 100 60

40 60 to B

From A

RR(B)-445 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RR

IV. Answer the following questions :

31. Calculate standard deviation for the following frequency distribution

table : 3

C.I. f

1—5 4

6 — 10 3

11 — 15 2

16 — 20 1

n = 10

32. Prove that if two circles touch each other externally, “their centres and the

point of contact are collinear”. 3

33. Solve by using formula : 3

x ( x + 1 ) = 6x + 24.

OR

If m and n are the roots of the equation x 2 − 7x + 12 = 0 , find the values of

a) ( m + n ) mn

1 1
b) + .
m n

RR(B)-445
CCE RR 9 81-E

34. In an equilateral triangle ABC, D is a point on side BC such that

1
BD = BC. Prove that 9AD 2 = 7AB 2 . 3
3

OR

In ABC, ABC = 90°, BD ⊥ AC. If AB = c units, BC = a units,

1 1 1
BD = p units, CA = b units. prove that + = .
a2 c2 p2

1 + cos A
35. Prove that = cosec A + cot A. 3
1 − cos A

OR

cos A 1 + sin A
Prove that + = 2 sec A.
1 + sin A cos A

36. The internal and external diameters of an empty hemispherical metallic

bowl are 6 cm and 10 cm respectively. It is melted and recast into a solid

cone of base diameter 14 cm. Find the height of the cone so formed. 3

OR

RR(B)-445 [ Turn over

81-E 10 CCE RR

A wooden toy is in the shape of a cylinder with a cone attached to one end

and a hemisphere attached to the other end as shown in the figure. All of

them are of the same radius of 1·5 cm. The total length of the toy is 7 cm

and height of cone is 2 cm. Calculate the volume of the toy.

V. Answer the following questions :

37. The sum of the 4th and 8th terms of an A.P. is 24 and the sum of the 6th

and 10th terms of it is 44. Find the first three terms of the A.P. 4

OR

The 4th term of a G.P. is 24 and its 8th term is 384, find the sum of the

first 10 terms.

RR(B)-445
CCE RR 11 81-E

38. Construct two direct common tangents to two circles of radii 4 cm and

2 cm whose centres are 9 cm apart. 4

39. Prove that, “if a straight line is drawn parallel to a side of a triangle, then it

divides the other two sides proportionally”. 4

40. Solve graphically : x 2 – x – 6 = 0. 4

RR(B)-445 [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE RR

RR(B)-445
 PÜ®ÝìoPÜ ÍÝÇÝ ±ÜÄàûæ ÊÜáñÜᤠÊÜåèƯ|ì¿á ÊÜáívÜÈ
ÊÜáÇæÉàÍÜÌÃÜí, ¸æíWÜÙÜãÃÜá & 560 003
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
Malleshwaram, Bengaluru – 560 003

2023-24 ÃÜ GÓ….GÓ….GÇ….Ô. ÊÜÞ¨ÜÄ ±ÜÅÍ氱ܣÅPæ

S.S.L.C. MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 2023-24

…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS
( AMV⁄« »⁄·¤®⁄¥¿»⁄fl / English Medium )

ÓÜÊÜá¿á : 3 WÜípæ 15 ¯ËáÐÜWÜÙÜá ] ËÐÜ¿á ÓÜíPæàñÜ : 81-E

WÜÄÐÜu AíPÜWÜÙÜá : 80 ] Subject Code : 81-E
CCE-RF : ÍÝÇÝ Ë¨Ý¦ìWÜÙÜá / Regular Fresh

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This question paper consists of 38 questions.
2. Question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are
intact.
3. Follow the instructions given against the questions.
4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the
question paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

[ Turn over
81-E 2 CCE RF

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Choose the correct alternative and write

the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet. 8×1=8

1. Every positive odd integer is of the form ( where q is a positive

integer )

(A) 2q + 1

(B) 2q + 2

(C) 2q + 4

(D) 2q

2. The lines represented by the pair of linear equations x + 2y = 8

and 2x + 4y = 10 are

(A) intersecting each other

(B) perpendicular to each other

(C) coincident

(D) parallel to each other

81-E 3 CCE RF

3. The n th term ( a n ) of the Arithmetic progression whose first

term is ‘a’ and common difference ‘d’ is

(A) an = a + ( n + 1 ) d

n
(B) an = [a + (n −1)d ]
2

(C) an = a + ( n – 1 ) d

(D) an = a ( n – 1 ) d

4. Sum of the zeroes of the polynomial p ( x ) = x 2 – 2x – 8 is

(A) –8 (B) 2

(C) –2 (D) 8

5. If tan θ = 1, then the value of sec θ is

1
(A) (B) 3
3

1
(C) 2 (D)
2

[ Turn over
81-E 4 CCE RF

6. The correct relation related to the ∆ PQR given in the figure is

(A) PQ 2 = PR 2 + QR 2 (B) PR 2 = PQ 2 + QR 2

(C) QR 2 = PR 2 + PQ 2 (D) PQ 2 = PR 2 − QR 2

7. The volume of a cone having radius ‘r’ and height ‘h’ is

(A) πr 2 h (B) 2 πrh

2 1
(C) πr 2 h (D) πr 2 h
3 3

8. In ∆ ABC, if AB = 3 units, BC = 1 unit, AC = 2 units and

ACB = θ , then the value of ‘θ’ is

(A) 0° (B) 60°

(C) 45° (D) 90°

 81-E 5 CCE RF

II. Answer the following questions : 8×1=8

9. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 4 and 60 respectively. If

one of the numbers is 12, then find the other number.

10. Write the degree of the polynomial

g ( p ) = 7 p 4 − 2p 3 + 3p 2 + p − 3

11. Find the 5 th term of the Arithmetic progression 3, 1, – 1, .... .

12. Express the quadratic equation 2x = 3 x 2 – 5 in the standard

form.

1 3
13. If sin A = , cos A = , then find the value of tan A.
2 2

14. A fair coin is tossed once. Find the probability of getting Head.

[ Turn over
 81-E 6 CCE RF

15. In the given figure, if AOB = 2 APB , then find the value of

APB .

16. Write the formula to find the curved surface area of the frustum

of a cone given in the figure.

III. Answer the following questions : 8 × 2 = 16

17. Prove that 2 + 3 is irrational.

OR

Find the HCF of 64 and 332 by using Euclid’s division algorithm.

81-E 7 CCE RF

18. Solve by elimination method :

2x + 3y = 14

2x + y = 10

19. Find the sum of first 30 terms of the Arithmetic progression

3, 7, 11, .... using formula.

20. Find the roots of the equation x 2 – 7x + 12 = 0 using quadratic

formula.

21. Prove that sin 30° + cos 60° + tan 45° = sec 60°.

OR

cos A 1 + sin A
Prove that + = 2 sec A .
1 + sin A cos A

22. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment

joining the points ( 2, 1 ) and ( 7, 6 ) in the ratio 3 : 2.

[ Turn over
81-E 8 CCE RF

23. A box contains tokens which are numbered from 1 to 15. A token

is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the

token does not bear a prime number.

24. Draw a pair of tangents to the circle of radius 4 cm which are

inclined to each other at an angle of 60°.

IV. Answer the following questions : 9 × 3 = 27

25. Divide p ( x ) = x 4 – 3 x 2 + 4x + 5 by g ( x ) = x 2 – 1 and find the

quotient [ q ( x ) ] and remainder [ r ( x ) ].

OR

On dividing x 3 − 3x 2 + x + 2 by a polynomial g ( x ) the quotient

and remainder are ( x – 2 ) and ( – 2x + 4 ) respectively. Find

g ( x ).

26. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 20 m more than the shorter

side of it. If the shorter side is 10 m less than the longer side,

then find the sides of the rectangular field.

81-E 9 CCE RF

27. Find the area of a triangle PQR whose vertices are P ( 1, 6 ),

Q ( 3, 2 ) and R ( 10, 8 ).

OR

ABC is a triangle whose vertices are A ( 1, 4 ), B ( – 2, – 2 ),

C ( 4, – 2 ). If AD is median to BC, then find the length of AD.

28. Find the mean for the distribution given below :

Class-interval Frequency

0 – 10 4

10 – 20 6

20 – 30 17

30 – 40 13

40 – 50 7

50 – 60 3

OR

[ Turn over
81-E 10 CCE RF

Find the mode for the following data :

Class-interval Frequency

1–5 1

5 – 10 2

10 – 15 13

15 – 20 15

20 – 25 7

25 – 30 2

29. The following table gives production yield per hectare of paddy of

100 farms of a village. Draw a ‘more than type ogive’ for the given

data :

Production yield Number of farms

( In kg/hectare ) ( cumulative frequency )

50 or more than 50 100

55 or more than 55 98

60 or more than 60 90

65 or more than 65 77

70 or more than 70 49

75 or more than 75 15
81-E 11 CCE RF

30. In the figure BAC = ADB , BC = 8 cm and AB = 6 cm.

Area of ∆ ABC 16
Prove that = .
Area of ∆ ABD 9

31. Prove that “The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point

to a circle are equal”.

32. Construct a triangle with sides 5 cm, 6 cm and 9 cm and then

2
construct another triangle whose sides are of the
3

corresponding sides of the first triangle.

[ Turn over
81-E 12 CCE RF

33. In the figure, ‘O’ is the centre of the circle of radius 5 cm and

APB is an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm. AP and BP are

tangents. Find the area of the shaded region.

OR

ABCD is a rectangle and APB is a semicircle as shown in the

figure. The length ( BC ) of the rectangle is 3 times the radius of

the semicircle and the total area of the figure APBCDA is

371 cm 2 , then find the length of the semicircular arc.

81-E 13 CCE RF

V. Answer the following questions : 4 × 4 = 16

34. Find the solutions of the given pair of linear equations by

graphical method :

x+y=4

2x + y = 7

35. There are 20 terms in an Arithmetic progression. The sum of the

first term and 6th term of the progression is zero. The 4 th and

5 th terms of the progression are 2 and 6 respectively. Find the

Arithmetic progression and also find which term of the

progression is 62.

36. A man standing at the point ‘A’ on the building (AD) observes a

car at point ‘C’ on a straight road from the foot of the building.

The car moves 500 m towards the building and reaches the point

‘B’, now he observes the car from point ‘A’. The angles of

[ Turn over
81-E 14 CCE RF

depression in these cases are complementary to each other. If the

car takes 9 minutes to reach from point ‘C’ to point ‘D’ at the

speed of 100 m/minute, then find the height of the building.

OR

In ∆ ABC, AD ⊥ BC. If ABC = 60°, ACB = 30° and

BC = 36 cm, then find measures of AB, AC and AD.

37. Prove “Basic proportionality theorem.” ( Thale's theorem ).

81-E 15 CCE RF

VI. Answer the following question : 1×5=5

38. A test tube is made up of a cylinder and a hemisphere as shown

in the figure. If the diameter of the hemisphere is 3·5 cm and the

total height of the test tube is 17·5 cm, then find the curved

surface area of the test tube and the quantity of the solution that

could be completely filled in the hemispherical part.

[ Turn over
81-E 16 CCE RF
 B

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Question Paper Serial No.
Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12 ]
Total No. of Printed Pages : 12 ]
CCE RR
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 40 ] UNREVISED
Total No. of Questions : 40 ]
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E

70
Code No. : 81-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

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¶´¤MO⁄ : 21. 09. 2020 ] [ Date : 21. 09. 2020

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 10-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-1-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-45 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 40 objective and subjective types of
questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
Tear here

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

70 RR (B)-1543  [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct
alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

8×1=8

1. If A = { a, b, c, d, e } and B = { a, m, n, d } then A I B is

(A) { a, d, e }

(B) { m, n }

(C) { a, d }

(D) { a, b, c, d, e, m, n }

2. If two lines are mutually perpendicular, then the product of their slopes is

(A) –1

(B) 0
1
(C)
2

(D) 1.

3. The sum of first 20 natural numbers is

(A) 142

(B) 210

(C) 254

(D) 310.

4. If n P2 = 90, then the value of n is

(A) 8 (B) 9

(C) 10 (D) 12.

RR (B)-1543 
CCE RR 3 81-E

5. A cubical die whose faces numbered from 1 to 6 is rolled once. The

probability of getting a perfect square number on its top face is

1
(A)
6
2
(B)
6
3
(C)
6

(D) 1.

6. If the mean of 5 scores is 6, then the sum of all the scores is

(A) 11

(B) 26

(C) 30

(D) 42.

7. If p ( x ) = 3x 2 − 2x + 5 , then the value of p ( – 1 ) is

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10.

RR (B)-1543  [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RR

8. The distance of the point P ( 3, 4 ) from y-axis is

(A) 3 units

(B) 4 units

(C) 5 units

(D) 7 units.

II. Answer the following questions : 6×1=6

9. Write the H.C.F. of any two prime numbers.

10. Write the degree of the polynomial g ( x ) = 4x 5 − 6x 3 + 2x 2 + 5 .

11. Define concentric circles.

24
12. If cos x = , then what is the value of sec x ?
25

13. In ABC, if AB 2 + BC 2 = AC 2 , then name the right angle.

14. The area of the base of a right circular cone is 100 cm 2 and height is

3 cm. Find its volume.

RR (B)-1543 
 CCE RR 5 81-E

III. Answer the following questions :

15. Classify the following situations as examples of Permutations and

Combinations : 2

i) Arranging 6 different books on a shelf

ii) Selecting 2 black balls from a bag containing 3 red and 4 black balls

iii) Forming a committee of 4 members from a group of 12 persons

iv) Forming 3-digit numbers using 1, 4, 5 and 7.

16. Find the sixth term of the Geometric Progression 2, 6, 18, .... by using a

suitable formula. 2

OR

1 1
Find the sum of the Geometric series 1 + + + .... up to ∞ .
2 4

17. If 8, x – 1, 16 are in Arithmetic Progression, then find the value of x. 2

18. Prove that ( 2 + 3 ) is an irrational number. 2

RR (B)-1543  [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RR

19. Three fair coins are tossed together. Find the probability of getting utmost

one head. 2

3
20. Find the product of 2 and 3 . 2

21. Rationalise the denominator and simplify : 2

6+ 5
6− 5

22. Find the remainder obtained when p ( x ) = 3 x 2 – 5x + 6 is divided by

g ( x ) = ( x – 2 ) using Remainder theorem. 2

OR

Find the quotient and remainder using synthetic division.

( 2x 3 + 3x 2 − x + 6 ) ÷ ( x − 2 ) .

23. In the given figure in Δ ABC, XY || BC. If BX = 7 cm, AX = 5 cm and

AC = 18 cm, then find CY. 2

RR (B)-1543 
CCE RR 7 81-E

24. Prove that : ( 1 − cos2 θ ) ( 1 + cot2 θ ) + tan2 θ = sec2 θ . 2

25. Find the distance of the point P ( 5, 12 ) from the origin. 2

26. In a class of 60 students, everyone should select to study either

Mathematics or Science or both subjects. If 75% of students select

Mathematics, 50% of students select Science, then find how many

students select both the subjects. 2

27. The maximum number of diagonals that can be drawn in a polygon is 9.

Find the number of sides. 2

28. The length of a rectangular field is three times its breadth. If the area of

the field is 192 m 2 , then find its breadth. 2

29. Draw a circle of radius 3 cm. Construct a pair of tangents to it such that

the angle between them is 60°. 2

RR (B)-1543  [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RR

30. Draw a plan for the plane ground using the information given below : 2

( Scale 20 m = 1 cm )

To C ( in metre )

200

To D 120 140

100 60 to B

To E 80 60

From A

IV. Answer the following questions :

1 1
31. In a Harmonic Progression, the third term is and fifth term is . Find
7 11

its tenth term. 3

OR

The fourth term of an Arithmetic Progression is 6 more than its second

term. If the eighth term is 26, then find the Arithmetic Progression.

32. The total runs scored by two cricket players A and B in 15 matches are

1050 and 900 with standard deviations 5·6 and 3·0 respectively.

i) Who is better run getter ?

ii) Find who is more consistent in performance. 3

RR (B)-1543 
CCE RR 9 81-E

33. If one root of the equation x 2 + px + q = 0 is 3 times the other, then prove

that 3 p 2 = 16 q. 3

OR

Solve by using formula : ( 2m + 3 ) ( 3m – 2 ) + 2 = 0.

34. Prove that “if two circles touch each other externally, then the centres and

the point of contact are collinear”. 3

35. In an equilateral triangle ABC, AN ⊥ BC. Prove that AN 2 = 3BN 2 . 3

OR

In Δ ABC, AB = AC and D is any point on BC as shown in the figure. Prove

that AB 2 − AD 2 = BD . DC.

36. The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical pole from a point on a

horizontal ground is 30°. On walking 5 m towards the pole the angle of

elevation is found to be 45°. Find the height of the pole. 3

OR

RR (B)-1543  [ Turn over

81-E 10 CCE RR

sin θ 1 + cos θ
Prove that + = 2 cosec θ.
1 + cos θ sin θ

V. Answer the following questions :

37. Prove that “the areas of two similar triangles are proportional to the

squares on the corresponding sides”. 4

38. A cylindrical vessel of base diameter 28 cm is filled with some quantity of

water. A metallic solid sphere of radius 7 cm is completely immersed in the

vessel so that no water expells from the vessel. Find the height of water

22
level raised in the vessel. [ Use π = ] 4
7

OR

The volume of a frustum of a cone shaped dustbin is 26,994 cm 3 . If the

radii of the two circular ends is 15 cm and 8 cm, then find the height of the

22
dustbin. [ Use π = ]
7

RR (B)-1543 
CCE RR 11 81-E

39. Solve graphically : x 2 − x − 6 = 0 . 4

40. Construct a direct common tangent to two circles of radii 4 cm and 2 cm

whose centres are 9 cm apart. 4

RR (B)-1543  [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE RR

RR (B)-1543 
 A SL. No. : E

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 40 ] [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12
Total No. of Questions : 40 ] CCE RR [ Total No. of Printed Pages : 12

—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E REVISED Code No. : 81-E

…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )
( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

( Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Repeater )

¶´¤MO⁄ : 21. 06. 2019 ] [ Date : 21. 06. 2019

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-30 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-30 P.M.

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 40 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.
Tear here

7 (21)502-RR(A) [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete

statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct

alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

8×1=8

1. If the n-th term of an arithmetic progression is 5n + 3, then 3rd term of

the arithmetic progression is

(A) 11 (B) 18

(C) 12 (D) 13

2. In the following figure, PA, PC and CD are tangents drawn to a circle of

centre O. If AP = 3 cm, CD = 5 cm, then the length of PC is

(A) 3 cm (B) 5 cm

(C) 8 cm (D) 2 cm
3. If the lines drawn to the linear equations of the type a 1x + b 1y + c 1 = 0

and a 2 x + b 2y + c 2 = 0 are coincident on each other, then the correct

relation among the following is

a1 b1 c1 a1 b1 c1
(A) = = (B) ≠ ≠
a2 b2 c2 a2 b2 c2

a1 b1 c1 a1 b1 c1
(C) = ≠ (D) ≠ =
a2 b2 c2 a2 b2 c2

7 (21)502-RR(A)
CCE RR 3 81-E

4. The distance between the origin and co-ordinates of a point ( x, y ) is

(A) x 2 + y2 (B) x2 − y2

(C) x 2 − y2 (D) x2 + y2

5. If the HCF of 72 and 120 is 24, then their LCM is

(A) 36 (B) 720

(C) 360 (D) 72

6. The value of sin 30° + cos 60° is

1 3
(A) (B)
2 2

1
(C) (D) 1
4

7. In the given graph of y = P ( x ), the number of zeros is

(A) 4 (B) 3

(C) 2 (D) 7

7 (21)502-RR(A) [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RR

8. Faces of a cubical die numbered from 1 to 6 is rolled once. The probability

of getting an odd number on the top face is

3 1
(A) (B)
6 6

2 4
(C) (D)
6 6

II. Answer the following : 6×1=6

9. Write the formula to find the sum of the first n terms of an Arithmetic

progression, whose first term is a and the last term is a n .

10. If a pair of linear equations represented by lines has no solutions

( inconsistent ) then write what kinds of lines are these.

11. Write the formula to find area of a sector of a circle, if angle at the centre

is ‘θ’ degrees.

12. Write 96 as the product of prime factors.

13. Find the degree of the polynomial P ( x ) = x 3 + 2x 2 − 5x − 6 .

14. In a Δ ABC, ABC = 90° and ACB = 30°, then find AB : AC.

7 (21)502-RR(A)
 CCE RR 5 81-E

III. Answer the following :

15. Find the solution for the pair of linear equations : 2

x + y = 14

x–y = 4

16. ABCD is a square of side 14 cm. Four congruent circles are drawn in the

square as shown in the figure. Calculate the area of the shaded region.

[ Circles touch each other externally and also sides of the square ] 2

17. Find the distance between the points ( 2, 3 ) and ( 4, 1 ). 2

18. Find the area of a triangle whose vertices are ( 1, – 1 ), ( – 4, 6 ) and

( – 3, – 5 ). 2

19. Prove that 5 + 3 is an irrational number. 2

20. Δ ABC ~ Δ DEF and their areas are 64 cm 2 and 100 cm 2 respectively. If

EF = 12 cm then find the measure of BC. 2

OR

A vertical pole of height 6 m casts a shadow 4 m long on the ground, and

at the same time a tower on the same ground casts a shadow 28 m long.

Find the height of the tower.

7 (21)502-RR(A) [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RR

21. The diagonal BD of parallelogram ABCD intersects AE at F as shown in the

figure. If E is any point on BC, then prove that DF × EF = FB × FA. 2

22. Sum and product of the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial

1
P ( x ) = ax 2 + bx − 4 are and – 1 respectively. Then find the values of a
4

and b. 2

OR

Find the quotient and remainder when P ( x ) = 2x 2 + 3x + 1 is divided by

g ( x ) = x + 2.

23. Find the value of k, in which one of its zeros is – 4 of the polynomial

P ( x ) = x 2 – x – ( 2k + 2 ). 2

24. Solve the equation x 2 − 3x − 10 = 0 by using formula. 2

13
25. If cosec θ = , then find the value of cos θ. 2
12

26. Show that ( tan A × sin A ) + cos A = sec A. 2

7 (21)502-RR(A)
CCE RR 7 81-E

27. Draw a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 3·5 cm which are inclined to

each other at an angle of 60°. 2

28. A box contains 90 discs, which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is

drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bears a perfect

square number. 2

29. A metallic sphere of radius 9 cm is melted and recast into the shape of a

cylinder of radius 6 cm. Find the height of the cylinder. 2

30. The faces of two cubes of volume 64 cm 3 each are joined together to form

a cuboid. Find the total surface area of the cuboid. 2

IV. Answer the following :

31. Prove that “the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle

are equal”. 3

OR

Two concentric circles of radii 5 cm and 3 cm are drawn. Find the length of

the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle.

32. Construct a triangle with sides 5 cm, 6 cm and 7 cm and then construct
3
another triangle whose sides are of the corresponding sides of the given
5

triangle. 3

7 (21)502-RR(A) [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RR

33. Find the mode for the following data in the frequency distribution table : 3

Family size 1-3 3-5 5-7 7-9 9 - 11

Number of families 7 8 2 2 1

OR

Find the median for the following data in the frequency distribution table :

Weight ( in kg ) 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40

Number of students 2 3 6 4 5

34. From the top of a vertical building of 50 3 m height on a level ground the

angle of depression of an object on the same ground is observed to be 60°.

Find the distance of the object from the foot of the building. 3

OR

Two windmills of height 50 m and 40 3 m are on either side of the field. A

person observes the top of the windmills from a point in between them. The

angle of elevation was found to be 45° and 30°. Find the distance between

the windmills.

7 (21)502-RR(A)
CCE RR 9 81-E

35. The following table gives production yield per hectare of wheat of 100 farms

of a village.

Production yield
50-55 55-60 60-65 65-70 70-75 75-80
in kg/hectare

Number of
2 8 12 24 38 16
farms

Change the distribution to a more than type distribution, and draw its

ogive. 3

36. A cone is having its base radius 12 cm and height 20 cm. If the top of this

cone is cut in to form of a small cone of base radius 3 cm is removed, then

the remaining part of the solid cone becomes a frustum. Calculate the

volume of the frustum. 3

OR

7 (21)502-RR(A) [ Turn over

81-E 10 CCE RR

A milk tank is in the shape of a cylinder with hemispheres of same radii

attached to both ends of it as shown in figure. If the total height of the tank

is 6 m and the radius is 1 m, calculate the maximum quantity of milk filled

22
in the tank in litres. ( π = )
7

V. Answer the following :

37. The sum of the fourth and eighth terms of an arithmetic progression is 24

and the sum of the sixth and tenth terms is 44. Find the first three terms

of the Arithmetic progression. 4

38. Prove that “In a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the

sum of the squares of the other two sides”. 4

39. Solve graphically : 4

2x + y = 8

x–y = 1

7 (21)502-RR(A)
CCE RR 11 81-E

40. The ages of two students A and B are 19 years and 15 years respectively.

Find how many years it will take so that the product of their ages becomes

equal to 480. 4

OR

If the quadratic equation ( b – c ) x 2 + ( c – a ) x + ( a – b ) = 0 has equal

roots, then show that 2b = a + c.

7 (21)502-RR(A) [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE RR

7 (21)502-RR(A)
 CCE RF
— 560 003

KARNATAKA SECONDARY EDUCATION EXAMINATION BOARD, MALLESWARAM,

BANGALORE – 560 003
— 2015
S. S. L. C. EXAMINATION, MARCH/APRIL, 2015

MODEL ANSWERS
: 06. 04. 2015 ] : 81-E
Date : 06. 04. 2015 ] CODE NO. : 81-E

Subject : MATHEMATICS
( / New Syllabus )
( / Regular Fresh )
( / English Version )

[ : 80

[ Max. Marks : 80

Qn. Ans. Marks

Value Points
Nos. Key allotted
8
I. 1. A
3 1

2. C 1 1
1
3. D
6 1

4. B 2250 1

5. B –2 1

6. D 3 1

7. A 5 units 1

8. C 7 1

 RF-126  [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RF

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted
II.
9. 210 = 2  3  5  7 2 210
3 105
5 35
7 ½+½ 1
10. A \ B = { 2, 3, 4 } 1
11.  
C : V =    100 ½
 x 
 
4
=  100
80
1
 CV = 5 ½
12. f ( x ) = x2  4
f ( 4 ) = 42  4 ½
= 16 – 4
 f ( 4 ) = 12 ½ 1
13. AX AY
 ½
BX CY
4 1

BX 2
 BX = 8 ½ 1
14. x = 90° 1
III. 15. If possible let us assume 3 + 5 is a rational number.
p
3+ 5 = where p, q  z, q  0 ½
q
p
3–   5
q
3q  p
  5 ½
q
  5 is a rational number.
3q  p
 is a rational number. ½
q
But, – 5 is not a rational number
 Our supposition 3 + 5 is a rational number is wrong. ½
 3+ 5 is an irrational number.
2

 RF-126 

CCE RF 3 81-E

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted

16. Number of students who have passed in Physics, n ( P ) = 55.

Number of students who have passed in Mathematics, n ( M ) = 67.
Number of students who have passed in both subjects, n ( P  M ) = ?
Number of students in the classroom, n ( P  M ) = 100 ½
n ( P ) + n ( M ) = n (P  M ) + n ( P  M ) ½
55 + 67 = 100 + n ( P  M )
n ( P  M ) = 122 – 100
n ( P  M ) = 22 ½
Number of students who have passed in Physics only
= n(P)–n(P  M)
= 55 – 22
= 33. ½ 2
OR
n (  ) = 700
n ( A ) = 200
n ( B ) = 300
n ( A  B ) = 100
n(A)+n(B) = n(A  B)+n(A  B) ½
200 + 300 = n (A  B ) + 100
500 – 100 = n (A  B )
n (A  B ) = 400 ½
n ( A  B ) l = n (A l  B l )
= n[  \A  B] ½
= n(  )\n(A  B)
= 700 – 400
n ( A  B ) l = 300 ½ 2
OR n (A l  B l ) = 300

17. Given digits : 1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9

a) 4-digit number can be formed in 6 P 4 ways ½
6
P4  6543
6
P 4 = 360. ½

 RF-126  [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RF

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted
b) Even numbers :
T H Ten U
3 4 5 2
P1 P1 P1 P1

Units place can be filled in 2 P 1 ways

Tens place can be filled in 5 P 1 ways

Hundreds place can be filled in 4 P 1 ways

Thousands place can be filled in 3 P 1 ways

Total number of ways = 2 P 1  5 P 1  4 P 1  3 P 1 ½

= 2543
= 120. ½ 2

18. D = 35, n = ?
D = nC 2  n
n ½
P2
35 = n
2!
n ( n 1)
35 = n
2
n2  n
35 = n
2 ½
n 2  3n
35 =
2
n 2 – 3n – 70 = 0 ½
n 2 – 10n + 7n – 70 = 0
n ( n – 10 ) + 7 ( n – 10 ) = 0
n = 10 OR n= –7 ½

Neglecting n = – 7
n = 10 2

 Number of sides = 10.

19. S = { ( 1, 1 ), ( 1, 2 ), ... ... ( 1, 6 )
( 6, 1 ), ( 6, 2 ), ... ... ( 6, 6 ) }
 n ( S ) = 36. ½

 RF-126 

CCE RF 5 81-E

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted

a) Same number on both faces :

Let A be the even.
A = { ( 1, 1 ), ( 2, 2 ), ( 3, 3 ), ( 4, 4 ), ( 5, 5 ), ( 6, 6 ) }
n(A)=6
n(A)
P(A) =
n (S )
6
P(A) = .
36 ½
b) Both faces having multiples of five :
Let B be the event.
B = { ( 5, 5 ) }
 n(B)=1 ½
n(B )
P(B) =
n (S )
1
 P(B) = . ½ 2
36

20. X = 2, 4, 6, 8, 10

X D=X x D2
2 4 16
4 –2 4
6 0 0
8 2 4
10 4 16

n=5  D 2 = 40 ½
X 30
x =   6  x =6 ½
n 5

2  D2
Variance =  = n ½
40
= 5
2
Variance =  = 8. ½ 2

 RF-126  [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RF

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted

21. L.C.M. of orders = 6

1 3
2  22  26  68 ½
1 2
½
3 5  5 3  5 6  6 25

 2  3 5  6 8  6 25
½

= 6 200 . ½ 2

22. 6 3 6 3
 ( Multiplying by RF ) ½
6 3 6 3
2
 6 3
 
 
=
63
6  3  2 18
=
3 ½
96 2
=
3

3  3  2 2 
  ½
=
3
= 3 + 2 2. ½ 2

23. Let P ( x ) = x 3  3x 2  ax  10 ½

By factor theorem,

( x – 5 ) is a factor of P ( x ) iff P ( 5 ) = 0

P ( 5 ) = ( 5 )3  3 ( 5 )2  a ( 5 )  10 ½

0 = 125 – 75 + 5a – 10

0 = 5a + 40 ½

5a = – 40

a = – 8. ½ 2

OR

 RF-126 

CCE RF 7 81-E

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted
By division algorithm for polynomials,
P(x) = [g(x).q(x)]+r(x)
P(x)–r(x) = g(x).q(x)
P(x)+{–r(x)}=g(x).q(x)
x2 1 ½
x 2  2x  3 x 4  2x 3  2x 2  x  1

x 4  2x 3  3x 2
– – + ½
x2  x 1
x 2  2x  3 ½
– – +
– x+2
 r(x) = –x+2  {–r(x)} = x–2 ½ 2
Hence, we should add ( x – 2 ) to P ( x ) so that the resulting polynomial
is exactly divisible by g ( x ).
24. x 2 – 4x + 2 = 0
a= 1
b= –4 ½
c= 2
 b  b 2  4ac
x =
2a
 (  4 )  16  4 ( 1 ) ( 2 )
= ½
2 (1 )
4  16  8
=
2
4 8
=
2
42 2 ½
=
2
2  2  2 
 
=
2
½ 2
x = 2 2.
 Roots are 2 + 2 OR 2 – 2.

 RF-126  [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RF

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted
25.

To prove : PE = EQ
Proof : In  ABD,
PE || BD  PQ || BC
AP AQ PE
   .... (i) ( Thale’s theorem ) ½
AB AC BD
Similarly In  ADC,
AE AQ EQ ½
  .... (ii)
AD AC DC
From (i) and (ii)
½
PE EQ

BD DC
But, BD = DC (  AD is the median ) ½ 2
 PE = EQ.
26.

In  ABC,
 B = 90°
 AC 2  AB 2  BC 2
132  5 2  BC 2 ( Pythagoras’ theorem ) ½
2
BC = 169 – 25 = 144
BC = 12
Adjacent side BC ½
cos  = 
Hypotenuse AC
12
 cos  = ½
13
Opposite side AB
tan  = 
Adjacent side BC
5 ½ 2
 tan  = .
12

 RF-126 

CCE RF 9 81-E

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted

27. Let
A = ( x1 , y1 ) = ( 3, 10 )
B = ( x 2 , y 2 ) = ( 5, 2 )
C = ( x 3 , y 3 ) = ( 14, 12 )

AB = ( x 2  x1 )2  ( y 2  y1 )2  ( 5  3 )2  ( 2  10 )2
½
AB = 4  64  68 units.

Similarly

BC = ( 14  5 )2  ( 12  2 )2  81  100  181 units

½
AC = ( 14  3 )2  ( 12  10 )2  121  4  125 units ½

Perimeter = AB + BC + AC
½ 2
P =  68  181  125  units.
 

28. r = 3 cm, d = 8 cm.

PA and PB are tangents.

Drawing circle of radius 3 cm ½
Bisecting OP ½
Drawing tangents PA, PB. 1 2

 RF-126  [ Turn over

81-E 10 CCE RF

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted
29. Scale : 20 m = 1 cm
40 m = 2 cm
60 m = 3 cm
80 m = 4 cm Calculation ½
100 m = 5 cm Field drawing 1½ 2
150 m = 7·5 cm

30. F=6
V=8
E = 12 ½
F+V = E+2 ½
6 + 8 = 12 + 2 ½
14 = 14. ½ 2

IV. 31. 1 1
T3  , T7 
7 5
 T 3 and T 7 of A.P. are 7, 5
T p  Tq
d =
p q
T7  T3 57 2 1
=    
73 4 4 2 1
1
 d = 
2
T3 = 7

a + 2d = 7

 RF-126 

CCE RF 11 81-E

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted
 1 1
a+2   = 7 a–1=7  a=8
 2
 
Tn = a + ( n – 1 ) d

 1 ½
T15 = 8 +  14   
 2 


= 8–7
T15 = 1

 15th term of HP = 1 ½ 3
Note : For alternate method full marks may be given.

32. Let the number of books be x

Total cost = Rs. 60
60 ½
 Cost of each book = Rs.
x

If the number of books = ( x + 5 )

60
Then cost of each book = Rs. ½
(x 5)
60 60
But,   1 ½
x (x 5)
60 ( x  5 )  60x
 1
x(x 5)
60x  300  60x
 1
x 2  5x
½
x 2 + 5x = 300
x 2 + 5x – 300 = 0
½
x 2 + 20x – 15x – 300 = 0

x ( x + 20 ) – 15 ( x + 20 ) = 0

x = – 20 OR 15
½ 3
Neglecting x = – 20  x = 15
 No. of books purchased by Aniruddha = 15

OR

 RF-126  [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE RF

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted

Let the number of years be x

 Kavya’s and Karthik’s ages are ( 11 + x ) and ( 14 + x ) ½
Product of their ages = 304
( 11 + x ) ( 14 + x ) = 304 ½
154 + 11x + 14x + x 2 – 304 = 0 ½
x 2 + 25x – 150 = 0
½
x 2 + 30x – 5x – 150 = 0
x ( x + 30 ) – 5 ( x + 30 ) = 0
½
x=5 OR – 30
Neglecting x = – 30
½ 3
x = 5.
i.e. After 5 years, product of their ages will be 304.
33.

In  ABC,
  
A = 90°, AB = x, B = 45°  C = 45°
 AB = AC = x ½
BC
BD = CD =
2
BC 2  AC 2  AB 2 ..... Pythagoras’ theorem
= x2  x2
BC 2  2x 2 ½
 BC = x 2

AD 2 = CD . BD
1 1
= BC . BC
2 2
2
 BC 
=  
 2 
 

 RF-126 

CCE RF 13 81-E

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted
2
 x 2 
  1
=  2 
 
 
x2 .2
=
4
x2
 AD 2 =
2
x
 AD = ½ 3
2
OR

1 1 1
To prove :  
P 2
a 2
b2 ½
Proof : In  ABC
CD 2 = AD . BD
P 2 = AD . BD .... (i) ½
2
CB = AB . AD
1 1 ½
a 2 = AB . AD   .... (ii)
a 2 AB . BD
AC 2 = AB . AD
1 1
b 2 = AB . AD   .... (iii)
b 2 AB . AD ½
Adding (ii) and (iii)
1 1 1 1
  
a 2
b 2 AB . BD AB . AD
1  1 1 
= 
AB  BD AD  1 3
1  AD  BD  1 AB
=  . [ from (i) ]
AB  BD . AD  AB P 2
 
1 1 1
  
2 2
a b P2

 RF-126  [ Turn over

81-E 14 CCE RF

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted
sec   tan 
34. To prove : = 1 – 2 sec  . tan  + 2 tan 2 
sec   tan 
sec   tan 
Proof : LHS =
sec   tan 
sec   tan  sec   tan 
=  ½
sec   tan  sec   tan 
( sec   tan  )2
= ½
sec2   tan 2 
sec2   tan 2   2 sec  . tan 
= (  sec2   tan 2   1 )
1 ½
2 2
= sec  + tan  – 2 sec  . tan  1
= 1 + tan 2  + tan 2  – 2 sec  . tan 
( sec2   1  tan 2  )

= 1 – 2 sec  . tan  + 2 tan 2  ½ 3

= RHS.
OR
1  cos 
LHS =
1  cos 

Multiplying by RF
1  cos  1  cos 
= 
1  cos  1  cos  ½

( 1  cos  )2
=
1  cos 2  ½

( 1  cos  )2
= ½
sin2 
1  cos 
= ½
sin 
1 cos 
= 
sin  sin  ½
½ 3
= cosec  + cot 

= RHS

 RF-126 

CCE RF 15 81-E

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted

35.

Data : O is the centre of the circle

½
B is the external point
BP and BQ are the tangents.
To prove : BP = BQ ½

Proof : In  BOP, B P O = 90°

Similarly in  BOQ, B Q O = 90°

(  radius, tangents at the point of contact are perpendicular )

In 2 right angled triangles BOP and BOQ
Hypotenuse BO = Hypotenuse BO .... Common side
OP = OQ ... radii
  BOP   BOQ
 BP = BQ. 1½ 3

36. 1 ½
CSA of cylinder = TSA of cylinder
3
1
2rh  3 . 2r ( r  h )
1
=  462
3

2rh = 154 ½
TSA of cylinder = 2r ( r + h ) ½
2
462 = 2r  2rh
462 = 2r 2  154

462 – 154 = 2r 2

2r 2 = 308 ½

 RF-126  [ Turn over

81-E 16 CCE RF

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted
308
r2 =
22
2
7
308  7 ½
=
44
r 2 = 49
½ 3
r = 7 cm.
OR
r1 = 12 cm, h1 = 20 cm, r2 = 3 cm, h 2 = ?

We know,
r1 h ½
 1
r2 h2
12 20

3 h2
12 h 2 = 60  h 2 = 5 cm 1
1
Volume of frustum = 3 h ( r12  r22  r1 r2 ) ½
1 22
=   15 ( 122  32  12  3 )
3 7
110
= ( 144 + 9 + 36 ) ½
7
110
=  189
7
Volume of frustum = 2970 cubic cm. ½ 3

V. 37. Let the three consecutive terms of the A.P. be ( a – d ), a, ( a + d ) ½

Sum = 6
a–d+a+a+d = 6
3a = 6
 a = 2 1
Product = – 120
( a – d ) . a ( a + d ) = – 120 ½
2 2
(a d ) a   120

( 22  d 2 ) 2 = – 120

4 – d 2 = – 60
½

– d 2 = – 64

 RF-126 

CCE RF 17 81-E

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted
d 2 = 64  d =  8 ½
If a = 2, d = 8 then the three numbers are – 6, 2, 10
If a = 2, d = – 8, then the three numbers are 10, 2, – 6 1 4

OR

a
Let the three consecutive terms be , a, ar
r
Product = 216
a
. a . ar = 216
r
a 3 = 216  a = 6 1

Sum of their products in pairs = 156

 a   
 .a   ( a . ar )   a . ar   156 ½
 r   r 
   

a2
 a 2r  a 2 = 156
r
36
+ 36r + 36 = 156
½
r

36
+ 36r = 120
r

36  36r 2
= 120
r
36r 2 – 120r + 36 = 0
3r 2 – 10r + 3 = 0
1
r = 3 or
3 ½+½

a) If a = 6, r = 3, the 3 consecutive numbers are 2, 6, 18 ½

1 ½ 4
b) If a = 6, r = , the 3 consecutive numbers are 18, 6, 2
3

 RF-126  [ Turn over

81-E 18 CCE RF

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted

38.

½

Data : In  ABC, B = 90° ½

To prove : AC 2  AB 2  BC 2 ½

Constn. : Draw BD  AC ½

Proof : In 2 triangles ABC, ADB

 
A B C = 90°, A D B = 90°

B AD ... common angle

  ABC ~  ADB
AB AC
 
AD AB

AB 2 = AC . AD. .... (i) ½

In 2 triangles ABC and BDC

 
A B C = B D C = 90°

A C B is common

  ABC ~  BDC
BC AC
   BC 2 = AC . DC .... (ii) ½
DC BC

Adding (i) and (ii)

AB 2  BC 2 = ( AC . AD ) + ( AC . DC )

= AC ( AD + DC )

AB 2  BC 2  AC 2 OR AC 2  AB 2  BC 2 1 4

 RF-126 

CCE RF 19 81-E

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted

39. d = 9 cm, R = 4 cm, r = 2 cm, R – r = 2cm.

Drawing AB and marking mid-point M 1

Drawing circles C1 , C 2 and C 3 1½

Joining BK, BL, PQ, RS 1

Measuring and writing the length of tangents = 8·7 cm ½ 4

Required tangents PQ = RS = 8·7 cm.

 RF-126  [ Turn over

81-E 20 CCE RF

Qn. Marks
Value Points
Nos. allotted

40. x2 + x – 6 = 0
Let y = x 2 + x – 6

x 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 –4

y –6 –4 –6 0 –4 6 0 6

Table 2
Drawing parabola 1
Identifying roots 1 4

Alternate Method :
Table 1+1
Parabola ½
Straight line ½
Drawing perpendiculars and identifying roots ½+½
4

 RF-126 

 A

B∆«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄¬° “
Question Paper Serial No.
Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 16 ]
Total No. of Printed Pages : 16 ]
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 38 ] CCE RF
Total No. of Questions : 38 ] CCE RR
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 83-E

101
Code No. : 83-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : …e¤k´⁄
Subject : SCIENCE
(»èñÜ ËþÝ®Ü, ÃÜÓÝ¿á®Ü ËþÝ®Ü ÊÜáñÜᤠiàÊÜ ËþÝ®Ü / Physics, Chemistry & Biology )

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

( BMW«ŒÈ »⁄·¤®⁄¥¿»⁄fl / English Medium )

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¶´¤MO⁄ : 11. 04. 2022 ] [ Date : 11. 04. 2022

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 10-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-1-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-45 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. There are three parts in the question paper :
Part A : Physics, Part B : Chemistry, Part C : Biology.
2. This question paper consists of objective and subjective types of
38 questions.
3. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut
on the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are
intact.
4. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.
5. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.
6. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the
Tear here

question paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

101 RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046 [ Turn over

83-E 2 CCE RF & RR

PART - A

( PHYSICS )

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Choose the correct alternative and write the

complete answer along with its letter of alphabet. 4×1=4

1. The device used to produce electricity is

(A) Galvanometer

(B) Electric generator

(C) Ammeter

(D) Electric motor.

2. The correct formula that shows the relationship between potential

difference, electric current and resistance in an electric circuit is

R
(A) I = (B) I = VR
V

I V
(C) V = (D) R = .
R I

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046
CCE RF & RR 3 83-E

3. In Fleming’s right hand rule, the middle finger indicates the direction

of

(A) induced electric current

(B) magnetic field

(C) motion of the conductor

(D) mechanical force.

4. To get diminished and real image of an object from a convex lens, the

object should be placed

(A) at principal focus F 1

(B) between principal focus F 1 and 2 F 1

(C) beyond 2 F 1

(D) between principal focus F 1 and optical centre O.

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046 [ Turn over

83-E 4 CCE RF & RR

II. Answer the following questions : 2×1=2

5. Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other. Why ?

6. Mention the SI unit of power of lens.

III. Answer the following questions : 2×2=4

7. Draw the schematic diagram of an electric circuit comprising of

electric cell, electric bulb, ammeter and plug key.

8. An object is placed at 25 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal

length 15 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be

placed in order to obtain a sharp image ?

OR

A concave lens has focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should

the object from the lens be placed so that it forms an image at 10 cm

from the lens ?

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046
CCE RF & RR 5 83-E

IV. Answer the following questions : 3×3=9

9. Which is the major component of biogas ? Write four characteristics

of a good source of energy.

OR

Which element is used in making solar cell ? Write any four

advantages of solar cells.

10. Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation by a convex lens,

when the object is kept at 2 F 1 of the lens. With the help of the ray

diagram mention the position and nature of the image formed.

[ F 1 : Principal focus of the lens ]

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046 [ Turn over

83-E 6 CCE RF & RR

11. What are the functions of an earth wire ? It is necessary to connect

the electric appliances having metallic body to the earth wire in

domestic electric circuit. Why ? Explain.

OR

Explain Faraday’s experiment related to electromagnetic induction.

Mention the difference between direct and alternate current.

V. Answer the following question : 1×4=4

12. a) What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in

parallel in an electric circuit instead of connecting them in

series ?

b) How are ammeter and voltmeter connected in an electric

circuit ? What are their function ?

VI. Answer the following question : 1×5=5

13. a) What is refraction of light ? State two laws of refraction of

light.

b) What is refractive index of light ? “The refractive index of

diamond is 2·42.” What is the meaning of this statement ?

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046
CCE RF & RR 7 83-E

PART - B

( CHEMISTRY )

VII. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Choose the correct alternative and write the

complete answer along with its letter of alphabet. 2×1=2

14. The gas liberated at the cathode in the electrolysis of water is

(A) Oxygen

(B) Hydrogen

(C) Chlorine

(D) Nitrogen.

15. Atomic number of chlorine is 17. The period number of this element

in modern periodic table is

(A) 2 (B) 7

(C) 4 (D) 3.

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046 [ Turn over

83-E 8 CCE RF & RR

VIII. Answer the following questions : 4×1=4

16. State modern periodic law.

17. Write any two uses of Plaster of Paris.

18. Write the structural formula of ethene molecule.

19. ZnO + C → Zn + CO

In this reaction name the reactant

i) that is oxidised and

ii) that is reduced.

IX. Answer the following questions : 3×2=6

20. The pH values of A, B and C solutions are 5, 6 and 7 respectively.

Which of these solutions is more acidic in nature ? Why ?

21. Draw the diagram to show the arrangement of the apparatus used

for testing the conductivity of salt solution and label ‘graphite rod’.

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046
CCE RF & RR 9 83-E

22. Give reason :

a) Metals are used in making cooking vessels.

b) Sodium metal is stored in kerosene.

OR

Give reason :

a) When a calcium metal reacts with water, the liberated

hydrogen gas does not catch fire.

b) Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points.

X. Answer the following questions : 3×3=9

23. What is atomic size ? In the modern periodic table the atomic size

decreases along a ‘period’ and increases down the ‘group’. Why ?

Explain.

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046 [ Turn over

83-E 10 CCE RF & RR

24. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the

reaction of zinc granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing

hydrogen gas by burning. Label the following parts :

i) Zinc granules

ii) Delivery tube.

25. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following chemical

reactions :

i) Heat
Calcium carbonate  → Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide

ii) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride

iii) Magnesium + Hydrochloric acid → Magnesium chloride +

Hydrogen.

OR

Which type of chemical reaction takes place when an iron nail is

dipped in copper sulphate solution ? Why ? Write a balanced

chemical equation for this chemical reaction.

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046
CCE RF & RR 11 83-E

XI. Answer the following question : 1×4=4

26. a) What are structural isomers ? Write the molecular and

structural formula of butane.

b) What is catenation ? Write general formula for alkenes.

PART - C

( BIOLOGY )

XII. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions /

incomplete statements. Choose the correct alternative and write the

complete answer along with its letter of alphabet. 2×1=2

27. Atmospheric layer that absorbs ultraviolet radiations coming from

the sunlight is made up of this molecule.

(A) N2 (B) H2

(C) O3 (D) O2 .

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046 [ Turn over

83-E 12 CCE RF & RR

28. In humans, sexually transmitted viral infection is

(A) AIDS

(B) Syphilis

(C) Tuberculosis

(D) Gonorrhoea.

XIII. Answer the following questions : 2×1=2

29. What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem ?

30. In males, testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum.

Why ?

XIV. Answer the following questions : 3×2=6

31. Mention the function of the following plant hormones :

i) Auxin

ii) Cytokinin.

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046
CCE RF & RR 13 83-E

32. Draw the diagram showing the longitudinal section of a flower and

label ‘ovary’.

33. Give reason :

a) ‘Ventricles of the human heart have thick wall.’

b) ‘It is necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

in mammals and birds.’

XV. Answer the following questions : 3×3=9

34. When a tall ( TT ) pea plant is crossed with a dwarf ( tt ) pea plant,

represent the result obtained in F 2 generation of monohybrid cross

with the help of checker board and mention the ratio of varieties of

plants.

35. What is trophic level ? Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always

unidirectional. Why ? Explain.

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046 [ Turn over

83-E 14 CCE RF & RR

36. a) Mention any four main factors that lead to the rise of new

species.

b) The experiences of an individual acquired during its lifetime

cannot be passed on to its progeny. Give reason.

OR

What are fossils ? Mention the methods of estimation of dating

fossils and explain briefly.

XVI. Answer the following questions : 2×4=8

37. Which molecule is formed during the first step of cellular respiration

by the breakdown of glucose molecule in cytoplasm ? Mention the

types of respiration and write any two differences between them.

OR

Which are the factors essential for photosynthesis ? Mention the

events that occur during this process and represent this process by

balanced chemical equation.

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046
CCE RF & RR 15 83-E

38. Draw the diagram showing the structure of the human brain and

label the following parts :

i) Cerebrum

ii) Cerebellum.

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046 [ Turn over

83-E 16 CCE RF & RR

RF/RR (A)-(200)-9046
 SL. No. : J

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 40 ]
Total No. of Questions : 40 ]
CCE RR [ Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 12
[ Total No. of Printed Pages : 12
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 81-E Code No. : 81-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : V⁄{}⁄
Subject : MATHEMATICS
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )
( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

( Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Repeater )

¶´¤MO⁄ : 16. 06. 2017 ] [ Date : 16. 06. 2017

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑ÊÿVÊX 9-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-12-30 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 9-30 A.M. to 12-30 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 40 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on

the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the

examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective

types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the

questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question

paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

Tear here

RR-XXII-8010 [ Turn over

81-E 2 CCE RR

I. Four alternatives are given for each of the following questions / incomplete

statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct

alternative and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

8×1=8

1. If U = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 }, A = { 1, 2, 3 } and B = { 2, 3, 4, 5 }

then ( A U B ) l is

(A) { 5, 6, 7 }

(B) { 6, 7, 8 }

(C) { 3, 4, 5 }

(D) { 1, 2, 3 }

2. LCM of 18 and 45 is

(A) 9

(B) 45

(C) 90

(D) 81

RR-XXII-8010
CCE RR 3 81-E

3. The mean ( X ) and the standard deviation ( σ ) of certain scores are 60

and 3 respectively. Then the co-efficient of variation is

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

4. Rationalising factor of x −y is

(A) x–y

(B) x

(C) x +y

(D) x −y

5. If f ( x ) = x 2 − 2x + 15 then f ( – 1 ) is

(A) 14

(B) 18

(C) 15

(D) 13

RR-XXII-8010 [ Turn over

81-E 4 CCE RR

6. In a circle, the angle subtended by a chord in the major segment is

(A) a straight angle

(B) a right angle

(C) an acute angle

(D) an obtuse angle.

7. The length of the diagonal of a square of side 12 cm is

(A) 5 2 cm

(B) 144 cm

(C) 24 cm

(D) 12 2 cm.

8. The distance between the origin and the point ( – 12, 5 ) is

(A) 13 units

(B) – 12 units

(C) 10 units

(D) 5 units.

RR-XXII-8010
CCE RR 5 81-E

II. Answer the following : 6×1=6

9. Write the value of 100 P 0 .

10. What is the probability of a certain event ?

11. Find the mid-point of the class-interval 5 – 15.

12. Find the value of cos 48° – sin 42°.

13. Write the slope and y-intercept of the line y = 3x.

14. Write the formula used to find the total surface area of a solid hemisphere.

III. 15. If A and B are the sets such that n ( A ) = 37, n ( B ) = 26 and

n ( A U B ) = 51, find n ( A I B ). 2

16. Write the formula used to find

a) arithmetic mean between a and b ( a > b )

b) harmonic mean between a and b ( a > b ). 2

2 2
17. Find the sum to infinity of the geometric series 2 + + + .... . 2
3 9

RR-XXII-8010 [ Turn over

81-E 6 CCE RR

18. Prove that 3 + 5 is an irrational number. 2

19. Find how many triangles can be drawn through 8 points on a circle. 2

1 1 x
20. If + = then find the value of x. 2
8! 9! 10 !

21. A box has 4 red and 3 black marbles. Four marbles are picked up

randomly. Find the probability that two marbles are red. 2

22. Calculate standard deviation for the following scores : 2

5, 6, 7, 8, 9.

23. Solve x 2 − 2x − 4 = 0 by using formula. 2

OR

Determine the nature of the roots of the equation x 2 − 2x − 3 = 0 .

24. In a circle of radius 3·5 cm draw two radii such that the angle between

them is 80°. Construct tangents to the circle at the non-centre ends of

the radii. 2

RR-XXII-8010
CCE RR 7 81-E

∧ ∧
25. In Δ ABC, D is a point on BC such that B A C = A D C . Prove that

AC 2 = BC × DC. 2

OR

∧
In ABC, A B C = 90° and BD ⊥ AC. Prove that

AB 2 AD
=
BC 2 CD

26. Find the value of sin 30° . cos 60° – tan 2 45°. 2

27. Find the radius of a circle whose centre is ( – 5, 4 ) and which passes

through the point ( – 7, 1 ). 2

RR-XXII-8010 [ Turn over

81-E 8 CCE RR

28. The radii of two right circular cylinders are in the ratio 2 : 3 and the ratio

of their curved surface areas is 5 : 6. Find the ratio of their heights. 2

29. The radius of a solid metallic sphere is 10 cm. It is melted and recast into

small cones of height 10 cm and base radii 5 cm. Find the number of small

cones formed. 2

30. Draw a plan by using the information given below :

[ Scale : 25 metres = 1 cm ]

Metre to D

200

125 75 to C

100 to E 75

50 25 to B

From A

IV. 31. Rationalise the denominator and simplify : 3

6 + 3
.
6 − 3

RR-XXII-8010
CCE RR 9 81-E

32. Find the quotient q ( x ) and remainder r ( x ) on dividing

p ( x ) = x 3 + 4x 2 − 5 x + 6 by g ( x ) = x + 1 and hence verify

p ( x ) = [ g ( x ) × q ( x ) ] + r ( x ). 3

OR

Find the quotient and remainder by using synthetic division :

( 4x 3 − 16 x 2 − 9x − 36 ) ÷ ( x + 2 ) .

33. Find three consecutive positive integers such that the sum of the square of

the first integer and the product of the other two is 92. 3

OR

Sum of the squares of any two numbers is 180. If square of the smaller

number is equal to 8 times the bigger number, find the two numbers.

34. Prove that “If two circles touch each other externally, the centres and the

point of contact are collinear”. 3

RR-XXII-8010 [ Turn over

81-E 10 CCE RR

35. In an equilateral triangle ABC, AN ⊥ BC, prove that 4 AN 2 = 3 AB 2 . 3

OR

In Δ ABC, AD ⊥ BC, prove that AB 2 + CD 2 = AC 2 + BD 2 .

36. Prove that tan2 A − sin2 A = tan2 A . sin2 A . 3

OR

From the top of a building 50 3 m high the angle of depression of an

object on the ground is observed to be 30°. Find the distance of the object

from the foot of the building.

V. 37. The sum of 3rd and 5th terms of an arithmetic progression is 30 and the

sum of 4th and 8th terms of it is 46. Find the arithmetic progression. 4

OR

If the fourth term of a geometric progression is 8 and its eighth term

is 128, find the sum of first ten terms of the progression.

RR-XXII-8010
CCE RR 11 81-E

38. Solve x 2 − 2x − 3 = 0 graphically. 4

39. Construct a pair of direct common tangents to two circles of radii 4 cm and

2 cm whose centres are 8 cm apart. Measure and write the length of the

direct common tangent. 4

40. Prove that “If two triangles are equiangular, then their corresponding sides

are in proportion”. 4

RR-XXII-8010 [ Turn over

81-E 12 CCE RR

RR-XXII-8010
 A

BΔ«M•⁄ O⁄}⁄°¬“
Jlflo »⁄flfl¶√}⁄ Æ⁄‚¥lV⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 8 ]

Question Paper Serial No.

Total No. of Printed Pages : 8 ]

Jlflo Æ⁄√ÀÊ-V⁄◊⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 38 ] CCE RR

Total No. of Questions : 38 ] REVISED
—⁄MOÊfi}⁄ —⁄MSÊ¿ : 85-E

30
Code No. : 85-E
…Œ⁄æ⁄fl : —⁄»⁄·¤d …e¤k´⁄
Subject : SOCIAL SCIENCE
( BMW«ŒÈ ∫¤Œ¤M}⁄¡⁄ / English Version )

TEAR HERE TO OPEN THE QUESTION PAPER

( ‘ʇ—⁄ Æ⁄p⁄¿O⁄√»⁄fl / New Syllabus )

Æ⁄√ÀÊ-Æ⁄~√OÊæ⁄fl´⁄fl-}Ê¡Êæ⁄flƒfl BΔ« O⁄}⁄°¬“

( Æ⁄‚¥´⁄¡¤»⁄~%}⁄ À¤≈¤ @∫⁄¥¿£% / Regular Repeater )

¶´¤MO⁄ : 23. 09. 2020 ] [ Date : 23. 09. 2020

—⁄»⁄flæ⁄fl : ∑Ê◊⁄VÊX 10-30 ¬M•⁄ »⁄fl®¤¿‘⁄-1-45 ¡⁄»⁄¡ÊVÊ ] [ Time : 10-30 A.M. to 1-45 P.M.
V⁄¬Œ⁄r @MO⁄V⁄◊⁄fl : 80 ] [ Max. Marks : 80

General Instructions to the Candidate :

1. This Question Paper consists of 38 objective and subjective types of

questions.

2. This question paper has been sealed by reverse jacket. You have to cut on
the right side to open the paper at the time of commencement of the
examination. Check whether all the pages of the question paper are intact.

3. Follow the instructions given against both the objective and subjective
types of questions.

4. Figures in the right hand margin indicate maximum marks for the
questions.

5. The maximum time to answer the paper is given at the top of the question
Tear here

paper. It includes 15 minutes for reading the question paper.

30 RR (A)-1106  [ Turn over

85-E 2 CCE RR
I. Four choices are given for each of the following questions / incomplete
statements. Only one of them is correct or most appropriate. Choose the correct
answer and write the complete answer along with its letter of alphabet.

8×1=8

1. The war that ended with the treaty of Salbai was

(A) Second Anglo-Maratha War

(B) Second Anglo-Sikh War

(C) First Anglo-Maratha War

(D) First Anglo-Mysore War.

2. In 1938, The President of Haripur Congress Session was

(A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(D) Subhash Chandra Bose.

3. The main objective of the French Revolution of 1789 was the

(A) establishment of U.N.O

(B) protection of Human Rights

(C) prevention of Foreign Invasion

(D) establishment of League of Nations.

RR (A)-1106 
CCE RR 3 85-E

4. Narmada Bachao Andolan was led by

(A) Medha Patekar

(B) Dr. Shivaram Karanth

(C) Kusuma Soraba

(D) Sundarlal Bahuguna.

5. The telephone number of child helpline is

(A) 1098 (B) 1090

(C) 1089 (D) 1097.

6. The correct pair among the following is

(A) Andhis — West Bengal

(B) Kalbaisakhi — Punjab

(C) Mango shower — Tamil Nadu

(D) Coffee Blossom — Karnataka.

7. Human Development Index of India in 2014 was

(A) 0·586 (B) 0·344

(C) 0·562 (D) 0·856.

8. The Father of the White Revolution is

(A) Dr. Pratap Reddy

(B) Narayana Murthy

(C) Varghese Kurien

(D) Azim Premji.

RR (A)-1106  [ Turn over

85-E 4 CCE RR

II. Answer the following questions in a sentence each : 8×1=8

9. Hyderabad Province had to keep a British contingent in its province after

1798. Why ?

10. Why was Ramakrishna Mission ( Muth ) founded ?

11. What is the main objective of Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) ?

12. Why was a protest organised against Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant ?

13. How is Laterite soil formed ?

14. Define Density of Population.

15. How is per capita Income of a country calculated ?

16. Why is March 15th of every year observed as World Consumer Rights Day ?

III. Answer the following questions in four points each : 8 × 2 = 16

17. What factors made the Europeans to discover a new sea route to India ?

18. Refugees have become a huge problem since the partition of India.

Substantiate.

19. Many issues have influenced our changing foreign policy. How ?

OR

Why is Security Council considered as the Cabinet of UNO ?

RR (A)-1106 
CCE RR 5 85-E

20. Child trafficking affects the holistic development of children. How ?

OR

Division of Labour is more useful. How ?

21. How are the Eastern Coastal plains different from Western Coastal plains of

India ?

22. Classify the following under personal communication and Mass

Communication and then write them :

Post ( letter ), Television, Fax, Radio

23. The goals of Public Expenditure lead to an all-round development of the

country. Substantiate.

24. Name the different types of Bank Accounts.

IV. Answer the following questions in six sentences each : 9 × 3 = 27

25. British Revenue system affected Indian Agriculture. Substantiate.

26. Third and Fourth Anglo-Mysore wars reduced the strength of Tippu Sultan of

Mysore. Justify.

OR

The contribution of Annie Besant to Indian Culture and Politics is

unforgetable. Justify.

27. How did China develop during 20th Century ?

RR (A)-1106  [ Turn over

85-E 6 CCE RR

28. India and Russia have cordial relationship. Explain.

29. In recent days, the problem of untouchability is declining. Justify.

30. The areas under forest are declining in recent years. Why ?

31. Majority of Iron and Steel Industries are located in Odisha and West Bengal

regions. Why ?

OR

Human activities caused floods and landslides. Justify.

32. Mention the key features of Panchayati Raj system.

OR

Mention the different stages of evolution of money.

33. How does Globalization help in the development of a country ?

OR

How does an Entrepreneur help in economic development of a country ?

V. Answer the following questions in about eight sentences each : 4 × 4 = 16

34. Explain the main programmes of Non-Co-operation Movement.

35. Explain Political and Administrative reasons for 1857 revolt.

OR

Explain the age of Liberal Nationalism during Freedom movement.

RR (A)-1106 
CCE RR 7 85-E

36. In recent days, situations are supporting women to achieve betterment.

How ?

37. What are the requirements essential to cultivate wheat and sugarcane ?

VI. 38. Draw an outline map of India and mark the following : 1+4=5

o
a) 82 1 East Longitude
2

b) River Narmada

c) Bhakra Nangal Project

d) Mumbai High.

Alternative Question for Blind Candidates only : (In lieu of Q. No. 38)

How are the multipurpose river valley projects useful ? 5

RR (A)-1106  [ Turn over

85-E 8 CCE RR

RR (A)-1106 