Test Bank Microbiology an Introduction 12th Edition (1)

Thanks for your Purchase, and
Welcome to our store:

Testsbanknursing.com
We’re happy that you choose us over all

the websites out there, We hope you’re
satisfied with your order,
I’m happy to inform you that you have
now a COUPON CODE of 20% for your
latest purchases from our store :
THANKS20AT
And If you have any questions, feel free to contact us at
support@testsbanknursing.com
Chapter 1 The Microbial World
and You
Microbiology: An Introduction, 12e, (Tortora)
Chapter 1 The Microbial World and You
1.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT
A) infection.
B) decomposition of organic material.
C) O2 production.
D) food production.
E) smog production.
Answer: E
Section: 1.1
Blooms Taxonomy: Knowledge
Learning Outcome: 1.1
Global Outcome: 5
2) Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT
A) yeast.
B) protozoan.
C) bacterium.
D) mushroom.
E) virus.
Answer: D
Section: 1.1
3) The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is
A) microbe.
B) bacterium.
C) virus.
D) pathogen.
E) infection.
Answer: D
Section: 1.1
4) Common commercial benefits of microorganisms include synthesis of
A) riboflavin.
B) acetone.
C) insulin.
D) aspirin.
E) riboflavin, acetone and insulin.
Answer: E
Section: 1.1
5) Commercial utilization of microbial products has become increasingly popular due to their
environmentally friendly nature. Production of these products which are readily degraded
and, thus, non-toxic typically utilizes
A) enzymes.
B) organic acids.
C) organic solvents.
D) soap.
E) alcohol.
Answer: A
Section: 1.4
Blooms Taxonomy: Application
6) The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by
A) Robert Koch.
B) Ignaz Semmelweis.
C) Aristotle.
D) Carolus Linnaeus.
E) Louis Pasteur.
Answer: D
Section: 1.2
7) In the name Staphylococcus aureus, aureus is the
A) genus.
B) domain name.
C) species.
D) kingdom.
E) family name.
Answer: C
Section: 1.2
Blooms Taxonomy: Comprehension
8) A prokaryotic cell may possess each of the following cellular components EXCEPT
A) flagella.
B) a nucleus.
C) ribosomes.
D) a cell wall.
E) a cell membrane.
Answer: B
Section: 1.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
9) Which of the following is NOT associated with viruses?
A) organelles
B) nucleic acid
C) envelope
D) chemical reactions
E) protein coat
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
10) Figure 1.1
The bacterial shape of the cells in the scanning electron micrograph shown in Figure 1.1
would best be described as
A) bacillus.
B) spiral.
C) coccus.
D) ovoid.
E) columnar.
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
11) Protozoan motility structures include
A) cilia.
B) flagella.
C) pseudopods.
D) cilia and pseudopods only.
E) cilia, flagella, and pseudopods.
Answer: E
Section: 1.2
12) Viruses are not considered living organisms because they
A) cannot reproduce by themselves.
B) are structurally very simple.
C) can only be visualized using an electron microscope.
D) are typically associated with disease.
E) are ubiquitous in nature.
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
13) The infectious agent that causes AIDS is a
A) virus.
B) bacterium.
C) yeast.
D) protozoan.
E) mold.
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
14) Which of the following is NOT a domain in the three-domain system?
A) animalia
B) archaea
C) bacteria
D) eukarya
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
15) Classification of organisms into three domains is based on
A) the presence of a cell wall.
B) the number of cells in the organism.
C) cellular organization.
D) nutritional requirements.
E) cellular proteins.
Answer: C
Section: 1.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
16) Archaea differ from bacteria in that archaea
A) have diverse cell wall compositions.
B) lack nuclei.
C) use organic compounds for food.
D) reproduce by binary fission.
E) are prokaryotic.
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
17) Who is credited with first observing cells?
A) Robert Hooke
B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
C) Robert Koch
D) Louis Pasteur
E) Carolus Linnaeus
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
18) Who is credited with first observing microorganisms?
A) Robert Hooke
B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
C) Robert Koch
D) Louis Pasteur
E) Carolus Linnaeus
Answer: B
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
19) Biogenesis refers to the
A) spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter.
B) development of life forms from preexisting life forms.
C) development of aseptic technique.
D) germ theory of disease.
Answer: B
Section: 1.3
20) If you were setting up an experiment to disprove spontaneous generation in a liquid

medium, which of the following would be essential to the experiment?
A) supplying the liquid with nutrients
B) starting with a liquid that contains microorganisms
C) adding antibiotics to the liquid
D) using a sterile liquid and eliminating exposure to microorganisms
E) adding carbon dioxide to the liquid
Answer: D
Section: 1.3
21) The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by
A) Louis Pasteur.
B) Francesco Redi.
C) Rudolf Virchow.
D) John Needham.
E) Lazzaro Spallanzani.
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
22) Regarding Louis Pasteurs experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following
statements is TRUE?
A) Air exchange was involved.
B) A food source was provided.
C) The possibility of contamination was removed.
D) All preexisting microorganisms were killed.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Answer: E
Section: 1.3
23) The microbial process of converting sugars to alcohol is known as
A) fermentation.
B) pasteurization.
C) tyndallization.
D) lyophilization.
E) alcoholism.
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
24) Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by
A) Pasteur.
B) Lister.
C) Koch.
D) Wasserman.
E) Semmelweis.
Answer: C
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
25) The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by
A) Lister.
B) Semmelweis.
C) Pasteur.
D) Holmes.
E) Koch.
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
26) Mycology is the study of
A) mycoplasma.
B) mushrooms.
C) protozoa.
D) molds.
E) molds, yeast, and mushrooms.
Answer: E
Section: 1.3
27) The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Kochs
postulates is to
A) culture the blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal using nutrient medium.
B) inject a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal into a healthy animal.
C) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal.
D) compare the blood of a sick animal to blood obtained from a healthy animal.
E) isolate microbes from the blood of healthy animals.
Answer: C
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
28) In which of the following situations would Kochs postulates be utilized?
A) determination of the cause of a new emerging disease by scientists studying disease

transmission
B) development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab
C) determination of the cause of cancer in a patient
D) formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab
E) whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 5
29) Robert Koch identified the cause of
A) smallpox.
B) anthrax.
C) diphtheria.
D) AIDS.
E) tuberculosis.
Answer: B
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 5
30) Which physician is first associated with vaccination?
A) Ehrlich
B) Jenner
C) Lister
D) Koch
E) Escherich
Answer: B
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
31) Which of the following findings was essential for Edward Jenners vaccination process?
A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity.
B) A weakened microorganism will not cause disease.
C) Someone who recovers from a disease will not acquire that disease again.
D) Disease is caused by viruses.
E) Pathogenic microorganisms infect all humans and animals in the same manner.
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
32) Penicillin was discovered by accident by
A) Alexander Fleming.
B) Paul Ehrich.
C) Edward Jenner.
D) Robert Koch.
E) Joseph Lister.
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
33) Who was the first scientist to pursue a magic bullet that could be used to treat
infectious disease?
A) Jenner
B) Pasteur
C) Ehrlich
D) Lister
E) Semmelweis
Answer: C
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
34) Fungal infections are studied by
A) virologists.
B) bacteriologists.
C) parasitologists.
D) mycologists.
E) herpetologists.
Answer: D
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
35) Which disease has been eliminated through the use of vaccines?
A) tuberculosis
B) measles
C) rubella
D) smallpox
E) influenza
Answer: D
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
36) Recombinant DNA refers to the
A) study of bacterial ribosomes.
B) study of the function of genes.
C) interaction between human and bacterial cells.
D) synthesis of proteins from genes.
E) DNA resulting when genes from one organism are inserted into another organism.
Answer: E
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
37) Molecular biology includes the study of
A) DNA synthesis.
B) RNA replication.
C) protein synthesis.
D) enzyme function.
E) how genetic information directs protein synthesis.
Answer: E
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.2
38) Microorganisms are essential to our life. Each of the following is an example of a
beneficial function of microorganisms EXCEPT
A) alternative fuel production.
B) bioremediation.
C) gene therapy.
D) agriculture.
E) increased number of illnesses.
Answer: E
Section: 1.4
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
39) The major food producers for other living organisms is/are
A) higher plants.
B) cyanobacteria.
C) algae.
D) higher plants and algae.
E) higher plants, cyanobacteria, and algae.
Answer: E
Section: 1.4
ASMcue Outcome: 6.1
40) Gene therapy is currently used to treat all of the following diseases EXCEPT
A) severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID).
B) Duchennes muscular dystrophy.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) LDL-receptor deficiency.
E) colon cancer.
Answer: E
Section: 1.4
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
41) Recombinant DNA technology has become an increasingly important part of our life. It
is used for all of the following EXCEPT
A) vaccine production.
B) enhancing food longevity.
C) synthesis of water.
D) drug production.
E) increasing the nutritional value of food.
Answer: C
Section: 1.4
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
42) Normal microbiota are typically found in and on all the following body locations EXCEPT
the
A) skin.
B) mouth.
C) colon.
D) blood.
E) upper respiratory system.
Answer: D
Section: 1.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
43) Which of the following statements about biofilms is FALSE?
A) Compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics.
B) Biofilms in pipes can block the flow of water.
C) Biofilms in your body protect mucous membranes from harmful microbes.
D) Biofilms on medical devices cause infections.
E) Biofilms on rocks provide food for animal life.
Answer: A
Section: 1.5
ASMcue Outcome: 6.1
44) Development of emerging infectious disease can be a result of all of the following
EXCEPT
A) microbial mutation.
B) modern transportation.
C) use of genetically modified foods.
D) changes in the environment.
E) overuse of antibiotics.
Answer: C
Section: 1.5
ASMcue Outcome: 1.3
1.2 True/False Questions
1) Infectious disease is almost totally eradicated in our world.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 1.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) A student has obtained a sample of pond water for study. Using the high-power lens, he
observes several cells with nuclei. He can conclude that the cells are NOT bacteria.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 1.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
3) The process of pasteurization to reduce food spoilage utilizes high heat to kill all bacteria
present.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
4) Anton van Leeuwenhoek was the first microbiologist to use a microscope to examine
environmental samples for the presence of microorganisms.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 1.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
5) Spontaneous generation refers to living cells arising only from other living cells.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 1.3
6) Microbes are associated with life-sustaining benefits as well as life-threatening diseases.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 1.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
7) All cells possess a cell wall.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 1.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
8) All pathogens known to infect humans have been identified at this point in time.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 1.5
ASMcue Outcome: 1.3
1.3 Essay Questions
1) What is an emerging disease, and what are some of the sources for these new infectious
diseases?
Section: 1.5
ASMcue Outcome: 1.3
Global Outcome: 8
2) Compare and contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Section: 1.2
Blooms Taxonomy: Analysis
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
Global Outcome: 8
3) What was the function and importance of S-necked flasks in Louis Pasteurs experiments
in disproving spontaneous generation?
Section: 1.3
Global Outcome: 5
4) Explain the germ theory of disease and discuss why this theory is essential to the
treatment of infectious disease.
Section: 1.3
Blooms Taxonomy: Synthesis
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 5
Chapter 2 Chemical Principles
Microbiology: An Introduction, 12e (Tortora)
Chapter 2 Chemical Principles
2.1 Multiple Choice Questions
1) Which of the following statements about the atom C is FALSE?
A) It has 6 protons in its nucleus.
B) It has 12 neutrons in its nucleus.
C) It has 6 electrons orbiting the nucleus.
D) Its atomic number is 6.
E) Its atomic weight is 12.
Answer: B
Section: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
2) Table 2.1
OCH
Using the information in Table 2.1, calculate the molecular weight of ethanol, C2H5OH.
A) 96
B) 46
C) 34
D) 33
E) The answer cannot be determined.
Answer: B
Section: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
3) Antacids neutralize acid by the following reaction. Identify the salt in the following
equation:
Mg(OH)2 + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2O

A) Mg(OH)2
B) HCl
C) MgCl2
D) H2O
E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: C
Section: 2.4
4) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Salts readily dissolve in water.
B) Water molecules are formed by hydrolysis.
C) Water freezes from the top down.
D) Water is formed as a part of a dehydration synthesis reaction.
E) Water is a polar molecule.
Answer: B
Section: 2.4
5) Which of the following is the type of bond holding K+ and I ions in KI?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
Answer: A
Section: 2.2
6) Which of the following is the type of bond between molecules of water in a beaker of
water?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
Answer: C
Section: 2.2
Global Outcome: 7
7) What is the type of bond holding hydrogen and oxygen atoms together in a single H2O
molecule?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
Answer: B
Section: 2.2
8) Identify the following reaction: Glucose + Fructose Sucrose + Water
A) dehydration synthesis reaction
B) hydrolysis reaction
C) exchange reaction
D) reversible reaction
E) ionic reaction
Answer: A
Section: 2.5
9) Identify the following reaction: Lactose + H2O Glucose + Galactose
E) ionic reaction
Answer: B
Section: 2.5
10) Identify the following reaction: HCl + NaHCO3 NaCl + H2CO3
E) ionic reaction
Answer: C
Section: 2.3
Global Outcome: 2
11) Identify the following reaction: NH4OH NH3 + H2O
E) ionic reaction
Answer: D
Section: 2.3
Global Outcome: 2
12) Which type of molecule contains the alcohol glycerol?
A) carbohydrate
B) phospholipids
C) DNA
D) protein
Answer: B
Section: 2.5
13) Which type of molecule is composed of (CH2O) units?
A) carbohydrate
B) lipid
C) nucleic acid
D) protein
Answer: A
Section: 2.5
14) Which type of molecule contains -NH2 (amino) groups?
A) carbohydrate
B) triglycerides
C) nucleic acid
D) protein
Answer: D
Section: 2.5
15) Which type of molecule NEVER contains a phosphate group?
A) triglycerides
B) phospholipid
C) nucleic acid
D) ATP
Answer: A
Section: 2.5
16) Based upon the valence numbers of the elements magnesium (2) and hydrogen (1),
predict how many covalent bonds would form between these atoms to achieve the full
complement of electrons in their outermost energy shells.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Answer: B
Section: 2.2
Global Outcome: 2
17) Table 2.1
OCH
Using the information in Table 2.1, calculate the number of moles in 92 grams of ethanol,
C2H5OH.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: B
Section: 2.2
Global Outcome: 4
18) Which of the following statements regarding protein structure is FALSE?
A) The primary structure is formed by covalent bonding between amino acid subunits.
B) Secondary structures are formed only from hydrogen bonds.
C) Tertiary structures are formed only from covalent bonds.
D) Quaternary structures involved multiple polypeptides.
Answer: C
Section: 2.5
19) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) NaOH Na+ + OH base

B) HF H+ + F acid
C) MgSO4 Mg2+ + SO42- salt
D) KH2PO4 K+ + H2PO4 acid
E) H2SO4 2H+ + SO42- acid
Answer: D
Section: 2.3
Global Outcome: 2
20) Table 2.2
NaOH Na+ + OH base

HF H+ + F acid
MgSO4 Mg2+ + SO42- salt
KH2PO4 K+ + H2PO4 acid
H2SO4 2H+ + SO42- salt
Which of the following statements about the reactions in Table 2.2 is FALSE?
A) They are exchange reactions.
B) They are ionization reactions.
C) They occur when the reactants are dissolved in water.
D) They are dissociation reactions.
E) They are reversible reactions.
Answer: A
Section: 2.3
Global Outcome: 2
21) What is the type of weak bond between the hydrogen of one molecule and the nitrogen
of another
molecule, where the two dont actively share an electron?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
D) disulfide bond
E) hydrophobic bond
Answer: C
Section: 2.3
Global Outcome: 7
22) What is the type of strong chemical bond between carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms
in a single organic molecule?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
Answer: B
Section: 2.3
Global Outcome: 7
23) What is the type of bond between ions in salt?
A) ionic bond
B) covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
Answer: A
Section: 2.3
Global Outcome: 7
24) A scientist wants to perform a test that will indicate whether a nucleic acid sample is
composed of RNA or DNA. Testing for the presence of which of the following is most
appropriate in this situation?
A) phosphate
B) nitrogen
C) guanine
D) uracil
E) thymine
Answer: D
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 2
25) Structurally, ATP is most like which type of molecule?
A) carbohydrate
B) lipid
C) protein
D) nucleic acid
Answer: D
Section: 2.5
26) What do genes consist of?
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) nucleic acids
Answer: D
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 7
27) Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids?
A) carbohydrate
B) lipid
C) protein
D) nucleic acid
Answer: C
Section: 2.5
28) Which are the primary molecules making up plasma membranes in cells?
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) nucleic acids
Answer: B
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 7
29) The antimicrobial drug imidazole inhibits sterol synthesis. This would most likely
interfere with
A) bacterial cell walls.
B) fungal cell walls.
C) eukaryotic plasma membranes.
D) prokaryotic plasma membranes.
E) genes.
Answer: C
Section: 2.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
Figure 2.1
30) In Figure 2.1, which is an alcohol?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: C
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 3
31) Which compound in Figure 2.1 is an ester?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: D
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 3
32) Which compound in Figure 2.1 is an organic acid?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: A
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 3
33) Most amino acids found in cells demonstrate what type of chirality?
A) L-isomers
B) D-isomers
C) C-isomers
D) B-isomers
E) A-isomers
Answer: A
Section: 2.5
34) Figure 2.3
What kind of bond is at the arrow in Figure 2.3?
A) disulfide bridge
B) double covalent bond
C) hydrogen bond
D) ionic bond
E) peptide bond
Answer: E
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 3
35) An E. coli culture that has been growing at 37C is moved to 25C. Which of the following
changes must be made in its plasma membrane to help it cope with the decrease in
temperature?
A) The number of phosphate groups must increase.
B) The viscosity must increase.
C) The number of saturated chains must increase.
D) The number of unsaturated chains must increase.
E) No changes are necessary.
Answer: D
Section: 2.5
36) Radioisotopes are frequently used to label molecules in a cell. The fate of atoms and
molecules in a cell can then be followed. Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a
nutrient medium containing the radioisotope 35S. After a 48-hour incubation, the 35S would
most likely be found in the S. cerevisiaes
A) carbohydrates.
B) nucleic acids.
C) water.
D) lipids.
E) proteins.
Answer: E
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 2
37) Radioisotopes are frequently used to label molecules in a cell. The fate of atoms and
molecules in a cell can then be followed. Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a
nutrient medium containing the radioisotope 32P. After a 48-hour incubation, the majority
of the 32P would be found in the S. cerevisiaes
A) plasma membrane.
B) cell wall.
C) water.
D) proteins.
E) carbohydrates.
Answer: A
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 2
38) Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of
A) amino acids.
B) glucose.
C) fatty acids.
D) nucleic acids.
E) acids.
Answer: B
Section: 2.5
39) Which of the following is a base?
A) C2H5OCOOH H+ + C2H5OCOO
B) C2H5OH
C) NaOH Na+ + OH
D) H2O H+ + OH
E) H2CO
Answer: C
Section: 2.4
Global Outcome: 2
40) Two glucose molecules are combined to make a maltose molecule. What is the chemical
formula for maltose?
A) C3H6O3
B) C6H12O6
C) C12H24O12
D) C12H22O11
E) C12H23O10
Answer: D
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 3
41) If an amino acid contained a hydrocarbon (a group of multiple carbons and hydrogens
linked together) as its side group, in which of the following categories could it be
appropriately designated?
A) hydrophilic
B) polar
C) nonpolar
D) basic
E) acidic
Answer: C
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 2
1) Elements only achieve the full complement of electrons in outermost energy cells by
donating away or sharing electrons.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 2.1
2) Covalent bonds are always shared equally.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 2.1
Global Outcome: 7
3) Individual covalent bonds are stronger than individual ionic bonds.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 2.1
4) All chemical reactions are, in theory, reversible.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 2.3
5) The formation of ADP from ATP can be defined as a hydrolytic reaction.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 2.3
6) The density of liquid water is greater than the density of ice.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 2.4
7) A basic solution is expected to contain more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 2.4
Global Outcome: 7
8) All forms of life function optimally at a pH of 7.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 2.4
9) There are some forms of life on Earth that can survive without water.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 2.4
Global Outcome: 2
10) Any compound that contains carbon is considered to be strictly organic.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 2.4
Global Outcome: 2
2.3 Essay Questions
1) Describe how the properties of phospholipids make these molecules well suited for
plasma membranes.
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 8
2) Figure 2.5
Use Figure 2.5 to answer the following. Starch, cellulose, dextran, and glycogen are
polysaccharides. How are they similar? To what are their different properties due? Why cant
an enzyme that hydrolyzes starch degrade cellulose?
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 8
3) Compare a molecule of a nucleotide to ATP. Could a cell simply insert ATP into DNA
without altering it? Explain.
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 8
4) A scientist claims that when a protein is denatured, it can be expected that its secondary
structure will more likely be retained when compared to all other levels of protein structure
structures. Do you agree? Explain.
Section: 2.5
Blooms Taxonomy: Evaluation
Global Outcome: 8
5) A bacterium that grows at a temperature of 37C transports both glucose and NaCl into its
cytoplasm. Which is most easily dissolved in the cytoplasm? Explain how the bonds of these
molecules impact disassociation rate.
Section: 2.5
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 3 Observing
Microorganisms Through a
Microscope
Chapter 3 Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
1) Which of the following is NOT equal to 1 mm?
A) 0.001 m
B) 106 nm
C) 0.1 cm
D) 100 m
E) 10-3 m
Answer: D
Section: 3.1
2) What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light
microscope?
A) ocular lens
B) objective lens
C) specimen
D) illuminator
Answer: C
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
A) nigrosin negative stain
B) methylene blue simple stain
C) acidic dye capsule stain
D) basic dye negative stain
E) crystal violet simple stain
Answer: D
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
4) Which of the following places the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order?
1-Alcohol-acetone
2-Crystal violet
3-Safranin
4-Iodine
A) 1-2-3-4
B) 2-1-4-3
C) 2-4-1-3
D) 4-3-2-1
E) 1-3-2-4
Answer: C
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
A) alcohol-acetone decolorizer
B) crystal violet basic dye
C) safranin acid dye
D) iodine mordant
E) carbolfuchsin basic dye
Answer: C
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
6) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the acid-fast stain?
A) It is used to identify members of the genus Mycobacterium.
B) Acid-fast cells retain the primary dye after treatment with acid-alcohol.
C) If cells are acid-fast, they are gram-negative.
D) Acid-fast cells appear red in a completed acid-fast stain.
E) Non-acid-fast microbes appear blue in a completed acid-fast stain.
Answer: C
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
7) The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to
A) remove the simple stain.
B) make the bacterial cells larger.
C) make the flagella visible.
D) prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.
E) make gram-negative cells visible.
Answer: D
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
8) Which of the following places the steps in the correct sequence?
1-Staining
2-Making a smear
3-Fixing
A) 1-2-3
B) 3-2-1
C) 2-3-1
D) 1-3-2
E) The order is unimportant.
Answer: C
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
9) The negative stain is used to
A) visualize endospores.
B) determine Gram reaction.
C) determine flagella arrangement.
D) visualize capsules.
E) determine cell size.
Answer: E
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
10) Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in which microscope?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) fluorescence microscope
E) electron microscope
Answer: A
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
11) Which microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state?
Answer: B
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
12) Which microscope uses visible light?
A) confocal microscope
B) differential interference contrast microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) scanning acoustic microscope
E) scanning electron microscope
Answer: B
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
13) Which microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution?
Answer: E
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
14) In using this microscope, the observer does NOT look directly at an image through a
lens.
Answer: E
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
15) This microscope produces an image of a light cell against a dark background; internal
structures are NOT visible.
Answer: C
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
16) A virus measures 100 nm in length. What is its length in m?
A) 10 m
B) 1 m
C) 0.1 m
D) 0.01 m
E) 0.001 m
Answer: C
Section: 3.1
17) Which of the following is never useful for observing living cells?
A) phase-contrast microscope
B) darkfield microscope
C) scanning acoustic microscope
D) scanning electron microscope
E) brightfield microscope
Answer: D
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
18) A microorganism measures 5 m in length. Its length in mm would be
A) 500 mm.
B) 50 mm.
C) 0.5 mm.
D) 0.05 mm.
E) 0.005 mm.
Answer: E
Section: 3.1
19) Which of the following correctly traces the path of light through the compound
microscope?
A) light source; condenser; specimen; objective lens; ocular lens
B) condenser; light source; specimen; ocular lens; objective lens
C) light source; specimen; condenser; objective lens; ocular lens
D) condenser; light source; specimen; objective lens; ocular lens
E) light source; condenser; objective lens; specimen; ocular lens
Answer: A
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
20) Figure 3.1
In Figure 3.1, line c points to the microscopes
A) illuminator.
B) condenser.
C) ocular lens.
D) objective lens.
Answer: B
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
21) Which microscope can be used to visualize DNA or botulinum toxin?
C) scanning tunneling microscope
D) confocal microscope
Answer: C
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
22) Which microscope is used to observe a specimen that emits light when illuminated with
an ultraviolet light?
Answer: D
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
23) Which microscope is most useful for visualizing a biofilm?
D) scanning acoustic microscope
E) transmission electron microscope
Answer: D
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
24) Which microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell
structures?
Answer: B
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
25) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the
addition of the first dye. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A) purple
B) red
C) colorless
D) brown
Answer: A
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
26) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-negative bacteria and you stop after the
addition of the mordant. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A) purple
B) red
C) colorless
D) brown
Answer: A
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
27) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-negative bacteria and you stop after the
decolorizer step. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A) purple
B) red
C) colorless
D) brown
Answer: C
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
28) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the
addition of the counterstain. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A) purple
B) red
C) colorless
D) brown
Answer: A
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
29) Which type of stain is most useful in helping clinicians to decide which antibiotic to
prescribe for a bacterial infection?
A) negative stain
B) simple stain
C) Gram stain
D) endospore stain
E) flagella stain
Answer: C
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
A) confocal microscope produces a three-dimensional image
B) darkfield microscope uses visible light
C) fluorescence microscope uses a fluorescent light
D) scanning electron microscope produces a three-dimensional image
E) scanning tunneling microscope allows visualization of atoms
Answer: C
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
31) What is the total magnification of a specimen viewed with a 10x ocular lens and a 45x
objective lens?
A) 4.5x
B) 10x
C) 45x
D) 100x
E) 450x
Answer: E
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
32) You are studying a cell structure that is approximately 100 nm in size. Which of the
following provides the greatest magnification you can use to see this structure?
A) brightfield microscope
C) transmission electron microscope
D) phase-contrast microscope
Answer: E
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
33) Which microscope uses two beams of light to produce a three-dimensional color image?
A) fluorescence microscope
D) DIC microscope
Answer: D
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
34) Which microscope is used to see intracellular detail in a living cell?
B) two-photon microscope
C) atomic force microscope
D) transmission electron microscope
E) brightfield microscope
Answer: B
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
35) Which microscope is used to observe viruses and the internal structure of thinly
sectioned cells?
A) transmission electron microscope
D) brightfield microscope
Answer: A
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
36) Which microscope is used to see detail of a 300-nm virus?
D) DIC microscope
Answer: E
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
37) Assume you stain Bacillus by applying malachite green with heat and then
counterstaining with safranin. Through the microscope, the green structures are
A) cell walls.
B) capsules.
C) endospores.
D) flagella.
Answer: C
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
38) Which step in the Gram stain is the critical step in differentiating gram-positive cells
from gram-negative cells?
A) safranin
B) alcohol-acetone
C) iodine
D) crystal violet
Answer: B
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
39) You find colorless areas in cells in a Gram-stained smear. What should you apply next?
A) an acid-fast stain
B) a flagella stain
C) a capsule stain
D) an endospore stain
E) a simple stain
Answer: D
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
40) Which microscope is best used for observing the surfaces of intact cells and viruses?
A) phase-contrast microscope
D) brightfield microscope
Answer: E
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
41) Bacterial smears are fixed before staining to
A) affix the cells to the slide.
B) make their walls permeable.
C) accept stain.
D) make the cells visible.
Answer: A
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
42) The resolution of a microscope can be improved by changing the
A) condenser.
B) fine adjustment.
C) wavelength of light.
D) diaphragm.
E) coarse adjustment.
Answer: C
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
43) A student is looking at a bacterial specimen using the oil immersion lens, but has
forgotten to put immersion oil on the slide. The specimen will appear
A) smaller than it would if immersion oil was used.
B) larger than it would if immersion oil was used.
C) somewhat fuzzy and have poor resolution.
D) the same as it would if the immersion oil was used.
E) to have no color.
Answer: C
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
44) The purpose of the ocular lens is to
A) improve resolution.
B) magnify the image from the objective lens.
C) decrease the refractive index.
D) increase the light.
E) decrease the light.
Answer: B
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
45) In microscopy, the term resolution
A) refers to the ability to distinguish fine structure and detail in a specimen.
B) is the same as the total magnification of a specimen.
C) is improved when longer wavelengths of light are employed.
D) is only observed in stained specimens.
E) refers to magnification when using the electron microscope.
Answer: A
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
1) The counterstain used in the Gram stain is a basic dye.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
2) In a completed Gram stain, gram-negative bacteria are colorless.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
3) In a completed Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria are purple.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
4) If acid-fast bacteria are stained with the Gram stain, they will stain gram-negative.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
5) The limit of resolution of the compound microscope illuminated with visible light is
approximately 0.2 m.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
6) Both phase-contrast microscopy and differential interference contrast microscopy are

used to
view the internal structures of cells without staining.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
7) Cells viewed in darkfield microscopy appear similar to those stained with the negative
stain.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
8) The capsules and flagella of bacteria can be observed in gram-stained smears.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
9) The greater resolution of the electron microscope compared to the compound microscope
is due to the longer wavelengths of the electrons used to examine specimens.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
10) Scanned probe microscopy is used to examine fine detail of molecular complexes, such
as blood clots, or molecules, such as DNA.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
3.3 Essay Questions
1) In 1877, Robert Koch thought preparing permanently stained slides would be valuable.
Why
was his assessment correct?
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
2) In 1884, Hans Christian Gram described a method of staining bacterial cells while not
staining surrounding animal tissues. However, he thought that the staining method he
developed was faulty because not all bacteria stained. In a letter to the editor of the journal
in which Gram published his findings, write your response to Grams concern.
Section: 3.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
3) You are working in a clinical laboratory and you need to examine an unstained urine
sample for the presence of bacteria. What type of light microscope should you use to
observe this specimen? Explain your answer.
Section: 3.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
Chapter 4 Functional Anatomy

of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
Cells
Chapter 4 Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
1) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?
A) Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.
B) They lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
C) They typically have a circular chromosome.
D) They reproduce by binary fission.
E) They lack a plasma membrane.
Answer: E
Section: 4.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
2) Each of the following statements concerning the gram-positive cell wall is true EXCEPT
A) it maintains the shape of the cell.
B) it is sensitive to lysozyme.
C) it protects the cell in a hypertonic environment.
D) it contains teichoic acids.
E) it is sensitive to penicillin.
Answer: C
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
Global Outcome: 2
3) Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is
placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl?
A) Sucrose will move into the cell from a higher to a lower concentration.
B) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.
C) Water will move out of the cell.
D) Water will move into the cell.
E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.
Answer: C
Section: 4.5
Global Outcome: 2
4) A gram-positive bacterium suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This

trait most likely occurred due to acquisition of new genetic information through
A) conjugation.
B) binary fission.
C) meisosis.
D) transformation.
E) transduction.
Answer: A
Section: 4.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.1
Global Outcome: 2
5) By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a
higher concentration?
A) simple diffusion
B) facilitated diffusion
C) active transport
D) extracellular enzymes
E) aquaporins
Answer: C
Section: 4.5
Global Outcome: 2
6) Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of most bacterial plasma
membranes?
A) site of energy production
B) composed of a phospholipid bilayer
C) contains proteins
D) contains cholesterol
E) is selectively permeable
Answer: D
Section: 4.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
Global Outcome: 2
7) Which one of the following organisms has a cell wall?
A) protoplasts
B) fungi
C) L forms
D) mycoplasmas
E) animal cells
Answer: B
Section: 4.7
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
Global Outcome: 7
8) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Endospores are for reproduction.
B) Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes by producing a dormant period

with no growth.
C) Endospores are easily stained in a Gram stain.
D) A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing.
E) A cell can produce many endospores.
Answer: B
Section: 4.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
A) endoplasmic reticulum internal transport
B) Golgi complex secretion
C) mitochondria ATP production
D) centrosome food storage
E) lysosome digestive enzymes
Answer: D
Section: 4.11
10) Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell?
A) nucleus
B) mitochondrion
C) Golgi complex
D) vacuole
E) cell wall
Answer: B
Section: 4.11
Global Outcome: 7
Figure 4.1
11) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is a tetrad?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: B
Section: 4.2
12) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 possesses an axial filament?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: A
Section: 4.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
13) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is streptococci?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: D
Section: 4.2
14) Antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis ultimately cause bacterial cell death as a result
of
A) osmotic lysis.
B) inhibition of molecular transport.
C) decreased synthesis of plasma membrane.
D) plasmolysis.
E) cell shrinkage.
Answer: A
Section: 4.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
15) Bacteria are a commonly used organism for studies of genetic material in the research
laboratory. The nucleic acids must first be isolated from the cells for these studies. Which of
the following would most likely be used to lyse gram-positive bacterial cells for nucleic acid
isolation?
A) lysozyme
B) polymixins
C) alcohol
D) water
E) mycolic acid
Answer: A
Section: 4.11
ASMcue Outcome: 8.5
16) Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is FALSE?
A) They protect the cell in a hypotonic environment.
B) They have an extra outer layer composed of lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and

phospholipids.
C) They are toxic to humans.
D) They are sensitive to penicillin.
E) Their Gram reaction is due to the outer membrane.
Answer: D
Section: 4.4
Global Outcome: 2
17) Which of the following structures is NOT found in some prokaryotic cells?
A) flagellum
B) axial filament
C) cilium
D) pilus
E) peritrichous flagella
Answer: C
Section: 4.6
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
Global Outcome: 2
18) Functions of the glycocalyx include all of the following EXCEPT
A) biofilm formation.
B) increased virulence.
C) source of nutrition.
D) protection against dehydration.
E) binary fission.
Answer: E
Section: 4.3
Global Outcome: 2
19) Which structure acts like an invisibility cloak and protects bacteria from being
phagocytized?
A) slime layer
B) fimbriae
C) capsule
D) cell membrane
E) cell wall
Answer: C
Section: 4.3
Global Outcome: 2
20) Which of the following is NOT part of the passive transport process?
A) plasma membrane
B) transporter proteins
C) ATP
D) concentration gradient
E) aquaporins
Answer: C
Section: 4.5
Global Outcome: 2
21) Figure 4.2
Which of the following terms best describes the cell in Figure 4.2?
A) peritrichous flagella
B) amphitrichous flagella
C) lophotrichous flagella
D) monotrichous flagellum
E) axial filament
Answer: C
Section: 4.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 3
22) In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in
A) chloroplasts.
B) cytoplasm.
C) chromatophores.
D) mesosomes.
E) ribosomes.
Answer: C
Section: 4.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 2
23) The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated
diffusion
A) moves materials from a higher to a lower concentration.
B) moves materials from a lower to a higher concentration.
C) requires ATP.
D) requires transporter proteins.
E) does not require ATP.
Answer: D
Section: 4.5
Global Outcome: 7
24) The terms run and tumble are generally associated with
A) cell wall fluidity.
B) taxic movements of the cell in response to attractants or repellents.
C) clustering properties of certain rod-shaped bacteria.
D) cell membrane synthesis.
Answer: B
Section: 4.3
Global Outcome: 2
25) You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can safely
assume that the cell
A) has 9 pairs + 2 flagella.
B) has a mitochondrion.
C) has a cell wall.
D) lives in an extreme environment.
E) has cilia.
Answer: C
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
Global Outcome: 2
26) Fimbriae and pili differ in that
A) there are only one or two pili per cell.
B) pili are used for motility.
C) pili are used to transfer DNA.
D) pili are used for transfer of DNA and motility.
E) pili are used for attachment to surfaces.
Answer: D
Section: 4.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 2
Figure 4.3
27) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a gram-negative cell wall?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Answer: B
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 3
28) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall possesses lipid A/endotoxin responsible for
symptoms associated with infection?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
Answer: B
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 3
29) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall has a structure that protects against osmotic
lysis?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
Answer: C
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 3
30) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is decolorized by alcohol?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
Answer: B
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
Global Outcome: 3
31) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is resistant to many antibiotics (e.g.,
penicillin)?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
Answer: B
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
Global Outcome: 3
32) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
Answer: A
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 3
33) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains porins?
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
Answer: A
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 3
34) Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell?
A) flagella
B) around organelles
C) the plasma membrane
D) ribosomes
E) the plasma membrane and around organelles
Answer: C
Section: 4.5
Global Outcome: 2
35) Where are phospholipids most likely found in a eukaryotic cell?
A) surrounding flagella
B) around organelles
C) the plasma membrane
D) ribosomes
E) the plasma membrane, around organelles, and surrounding flagella
Answer: E
Section: 4.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
Global Outcome: 2
36) Which of the following is NOT found or observed to occur in both mitochondria and
prokaryotes?
A) circular chromosome
B) 70S ribosomes
C) cell wall
D) binary fission
E) ATP-generating mechanism
Answer: C
Section: 4.11
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
Global Outcome: 7
37) Which of the following statements is correct about passive diffusion?
A) It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.
B) It is a process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region

of lower concentration (or down a concentration gradient).
C) It is a process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of

higher concentration (or up a concentration gradient).
D) It may require a transport protein.
E) It involves movement of molecules down a concentration gradient and may require a

transport protein.
Answer: E
Section: 4.5
Global Outcome: 7
38) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane
A) by osmosis.
B) through simple diffusion.
C) with the help of a nonspecific transporter.
D) through facilitated diffusion.
E) through porins.
Answer: B
Section: 4.5
Global Outcome: 2
39) In a hypertonic solution, a bacterial cell will typically
A) lyse.
B) burst.
C) stay the same.
D) plasmolyze.
E) osmolyze.
Answer: D
Section: 4.5
Global Outcome: 2
40) What will happen if a bacterial cell is pretreated with a lysozyme solution, then placed in
distilled water?
A) The cell will plasmolyze.
B) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.
C) Water will leave the cell.
D) Lysozyme will diffuse into the cell.
E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.
Answer: B
Section: 4.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 2
41) How do spirochetes and spirilla differ?
A) Spirochetes do not have a cell wall but spirilla do.
B) Spirilla are found in chains of cells whereas spirochetes exist as individual cells.
C) Spirilla have an external flagella but spirochetes have axial filaments.
D) Spirochetes have a rigid, corkscrew shape while spirilla are helical and more flexible.
E) Spirochetes and spirilla are basically the same organisms and the terms can be used
interchangeably.
Answer: C
Section: 4.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
42) Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) metachromatic granules phosphate storage
B) lipid inclusions energy reserve
C) ribosomes carbon storage
D) sulfur granules energy reserve
E) gas vacuoles flotation
Answer: C
Section: 4.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 7
43) Which of the following are NOT energy reserves?
A) carboxysomes
B) polysaccharide granules
C) lipid inclusions
D) ribosomes
E) metachromatic granules
Answer: A
Section: 4.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 7
44) Which of the following is NOT a functionally analogous pair?
A) nucleus -nucleiod region
B) mitochondria prokaryotic plasma membrane
C) chloroplasts thylakoids
D) cilia pili
E) 9+2 flagella bacterial flagella
Answer: D
Section: 4.6
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
Global Outcome: 2
45) The DNA found in most bacterial cells
A) is surrounded by a nuclear membrane.
B) utilizes histones for chromosomal packaging.
C) is circular in structure.
D) is linear in structure.
E) is found in multiple copies.
Answer: C
Section: 4.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
1) The cell walls of bacteria are responsible for the shape of the bacteria and the difference
in the Gram stain reaction.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
2) Antibiotics that target the cell wall are an effective treatment against many pathogenic
bacteria.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
Global Outcome: 7
3) Cells placed in a hypotonic solution tend to lose water due to osmotic pressure.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 4.5
Global Outcome: 2
4) Small, hydrophobic molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily by diffusion.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.5
Global Outcome: 2
5) Spheroplasts, protoplasts, and mycoplasms are bacterial cells without cell walls.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.4
6) Endospores are a reproductive structure.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 4.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 2
7) The internal structure of eukaryotic cilia and flagella are the same.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.6
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
Global Outcome: 7
8) Many enzymes in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are compartmentalized within
organelles.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 4.11
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
Global Outcome: 7
9) The number of organelles such as chloroplasts, mitochondria, and rough endoplasmic

reticulum is the same in all eukaryotic cells.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 2
10) If you observe rod-shaped red cells after the Gram stain, you can assume their cell
walls contain endotoxin.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 2
4.3 Essay Questions
1) Compare and contrast the characteristics of a typical prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
Section: 4.11
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
Global Outcome: 8
2) Provide evidence to substantiate the hypothesis that eukaryotic cells evolved from
prokaryotic cells.
Section: 4.11
ASMcue Outcome: 1.1
Global Outcome: 8
3) Compare and contrast gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls with regard to (a)
sensitivity to antimicrobial agents, (b) resistance to phagocytosis, (c) chemical composition,
and (d) decolorization by alcohol.
Section: 4.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
Global Outcome: 8
4) What is a biofilm and what role does biofilm play in disease?
Section: 4.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.2
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 5 Microbial Metabolism

Chapter 5 Microbial Metabolism
1) Which of the following compounds is NOT an enzyme?
A) dehydrogenase
B) cellulase
C) coenzyme A
D) -galactosidase
E) sucrase
Answer: C
Section: 5.2
2) Figure 5.1
Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1?
A) isocitric acid and -ketoglutaric acid
B) -ketoglutaric acid and NAD+

C) NAD+
D) NADH
E) NADH and isocitric acid
Answer: C
Section: 5.3
Global Outcome: 3
3) Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source?
A) photoheterotroph light
B) photoautotroph CO2
C) chemoautotroph Fe2+
D) chemoheterotroph glucose
E) chemoautotroph-NH3
Answer: B
Section: 5.9
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
4) Which of the following statements about anaerobic respiration is FALSE?
A) It yields lower amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration.
B) The complete Krebs cycle is utilized.
C) It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor.
D) It generates ATP.
E) It requires cytochromes.
Answer: C
Section: 5.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
5) Figure 5.2
What type of reaction is in Figure 5.2?
A) decarboxylation
B) transamination
C) dehydrogenation
D) oxidation
E) reduction
Answer: B
Section: 5.10
Global Outcome: 2
6) What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration?
A) It is reduced to lactic acid.
B) It reacts with oxaloacetate to form citrate.
C) It is oxidized in the electron transport chain.
D) It is catabolized in glycolysis.
E) It is converted into acetyl CoA.
Answer: E
Section: 5.4
7) Figure 5.3
How would a noncompetitive inhibitor interfere with a reaction involving the enzyme shown
in Figure 5.3?
A) It would bind to a.
B) It would bind to b.
C) It would bind to c.
D) It would bind to d.
Answer: B
Section: 5.2
8) Figure 5.4
How is ATP generated in the reaction shown in Figure 5.4?
A) glycolysis
B) fermentation
C) photophosphorylation
D) oxidative phosphorylation
E) substrate-level phosphorylation
Answer: E
Section: 5.3
Global Outcome: 2
9) Fatty acids are oxidized in
A) the Krebs cycle.
B) the electron transport chain.
C) glycolysis.
D) the pentose phosphate pathway.
E) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.
Answer: A
Section: 5.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1; 6.3
10) Figure 5.5
Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated
with substrate?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: C
Section: 5.2
ASMcue Outcome: 7.2
Global Outcome: 3
11) Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation?
A) Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to O2.
B) A proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through
transmembrane protein channels, releasing energy that is used to generate ATP.
C) ATP is directly transferred from a substrate to ADP.
D) Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to an organic compound.
Answer: B
Section: 5.3
12) Which of the following statements about substrate-level phosphorylation is FALSE?
A) It involves the direct transfer of a high-energy phosphate group from an intermediate

metabolic compound to ADP.
B) No final electron acceptor is required.
C) It occurs in glycolysis.
D) The oxidation of intermediate metabolic compounds releases energy that is used to
generate ATP.
E) It occurs to a lesser degree in the Krebs cycle than in glycolysis.
Answer: D
Section: 5.3
13) Which of the following statements about photophosphorylation is FALSE?
A) Light liberates an electron from chlorophyll.
B) The oxidation of carrier molecules releases energy.
C) Energy from oxidation reactions is used to generate ATP from ADP.
D) It requires CO2.
E) It occurs in photosynthesizing cells.
Answer: D
Section: 5.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
14) A strictly fermentative bacterium produces energy
A) by glycolysis only.
B) by aerobic respiration only.
C) by fermentation or aerobic respiration.
D) only in the absence of oxygen.
E) only in the presence of oxygen.
Answer: A
Section: 5.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
15) The advantage of the pentose phosphate pathway is that it produces all of the following
EXCEPT
A) precursors for nucleic acids.
B) precursors for the synthesis of glucose.
C) three ATPs.
D) NADPH.
E) precursors for the synthesis of amino acids.
Answer: C
Section: 5.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
16) Which biochemical process is NOT used during glycolysis?
A) substrate-level phosphorylation
B) oxidation-reduction
C) carbohydrate catabolism
D) beta oxidation
E) enzymatic reactions
Answer: D
Section: 5.5
Global Outcome: 7
17) In noncyclic photophosphorylation, O2 is released from
A) CO2.
B) H2O.
C) C6H12O6.
D) sunlight.
E) chlorophyll.
Answer: B
Section: 5.7
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
18) Which of the following is the best definition of fermentation?
A) the partial reduction of glucose to pyruvic acid
B) the partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors
C) the complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and H2O
D) the production of energy by oxidative-level phosphorylation
E) the production of energy by both substrate and oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: B
Section: 5.4
19) Which of the following is NOT necessary for respiration?
A) cytochromes
B) flavoproteins
C) a source of electrons
D) oxygen
E) quinones
Answer: D
Section: 5.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
20) Which one of the following would you predict is an allosteric inhibitor of the Krebs cycle
enzyme, -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?
A) citric acid
B) -ketoglutaric acid
C) NAD+
D) NADH
E) ADP
Answer: D
Section: 5.2
21) In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 can come from
A) CO2.
B) H2O.
C) C6H12O6.
D) H2S.
E) chlorophyll.
Answer: D
Section: 5.9
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
22) Assume you are growing bacteria on a lipid medium that started at pH 7. The action of
bacterial lipases should cause the pH of the medium to
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) stay the same.
Answer: B
Section: 5.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
23) Which of the following uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy?
A) chemoautotroph
B) chemoheterotroph
C) photoautotroph
D) photoheterotroph
Answer: A
Section: 5.9
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
24) Which of the following uses glucose for carbon and energy?
A) chemoautotroph
B) chemoheterotroph
C) photoautotroph
D) photoheterotroph
Answer: B
Section: 5.9
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
25) Which of the following has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon?
A) chemoautotroph
B) chemoheterotroph
C) photoautotroph
D) photoheterotroph
Answer: D
Section: 5.9
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
26) Cyanobacteria are a type of
A) chemoautotroph.
B) chemoheterotroph.
C) photoautotroph.
D) photoheterotroph.
Answer: C
Section: 5.9
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
27) Which of the following statements are TRUE?
1-Electron carriers are located at ribosomes.
2-ATP is a common intermediate between catabolic and anabolic pathways.
3-ATP is used for the long-term storage of energy and so is often found in storage granules.
4-Anaerobic organisms are capable of generating ATP via respiration.
5-ATP can be generated by the flow of protons across protein channels.
A) 2, 4, 5
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 1, 2, 3
E) All of the statements are true.
Answer: A
Section: 5.1
28) Microorganisms that catabolize sugars into ethanol and hydrogen gas would most likely
be categorized as
A) aerobic respirers.
B) anaerobic respirers.
C) heterolactic fermenters.
D) homolactic fermenters.
E) alcohol fermenters.
Answer: C
Section: 5.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
29) Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is FALSE?
A) Heat may be released in both anabolic and catabolic reactions.
B) ATP is formed in catabolic reactions.
C) ADP is formed in anabolic reactions.
D) Anabolic reactions are degradative.
Answer: D
Section: 5.1
30) Which of the following is TRUE about this reaction?
NO3+ 2H+ NO2 + H2O
Nitrate ion Nitrite ion
A) This process requires O2.
B) This process occurs anaerobically.
C) This process requires the entire electron transport system.
D) This process requires light.
E) This process requires O2 and the electron transport system.

Answer: B
Section: 5.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
31) Which of the following statements regarding the Entner-Doudoroff pathway is TRUE?
A) It involves glycolysis.
B) It involves the pentose phosphate pathway.
C) NADH is generated.
D) ATP is generated.
E) NADH and ATP are generated.
Answer: D
Section: 5.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
32) Assume you are working for a chemical company and are responsible for growing a
yeast culture that produces ethanol. The yeasts are growing well on the maltose medium
but are not producing alcohol. What is the most likely explanation?
A) The maltose is toxic.
B) O2 is in the medium.
C) Not enough protein is provided.
D) The temperature is too low.
E) The temperature is too high.
Answer: B
Section: 5.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
33) Figure 5.6
The rates of O2 and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in Figure 5.6.
Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O2. Then O2 was added
at the time marked X. The data indicate that
A) these bacteria dont use O2.
B) these bacteria get more energy anaerobically.
C) aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation.
D) these bacteria cannot grow anaerobically.
Answer: C
Section: 5.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
Global Outcome: 3
34) An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP. This is an example
of all of the following EXCEPT
A) allosteric inhibition.
B) competitive inhibition.
C) feedback inhibition.
D) noncompetitive inhibition.
Answer: B
Section: 5.2
35) If a cell is starved for ATP, which of the following pathways would most likely be shut
down?
A) Krebs cycle
B) glycolysis
C) pentose phosphate pathway
D) Krebs cycle and glycolysis
Answer: C
Section: 5.4
36) Which of the following statements regarding the glycolysis pathway is FALSE?
A) Two pyruvate molecules are generated.
B) Four ATP molecules are generated via substrate-level phosphorylation.
C) Two NADH molecules are generated.
D) One molecule of ATP is expended.
E) Two molecules of water are generated.
Answer: D
Section: 5.4
37) Figure 5.7
The graph at the left in Figure 5.7 shows the reaction rate for an enzyme at its optimum
temperature. Which graph shows enzyme activity at a higher temperature?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
Answer: B
Section: 5.2
ASMcue Outcome: 7.2a
Global Outcome: 3
38) A bacterial culture grown in a glucose-peptide medium causes the pH to increase. The
bacteria are most likely
A) fermenting the glucose.
B) oxidizing the glucose.
C) using the peptides.
D) not growing.
Answer: C
Section: 5.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
39) Gallionella bacteria can get energy from the reaction Fe2+ Fe3+. This reaction is an
example of
A) oxidation.
B) reduction.
C) fermentation.
D) photophosphorylation.
E) the Calvin-Benson cycle.
Answer: A
Section: 5.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Figure 5.8
40) In Figure 5.8, where is ATP produced?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: E
Section: 5.4
41) Refer to Figure 5.8. In aerobic respiration, where is water formed?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: D
Section: 5.4
42) In Figure 5.8, the structure labeled 1 is
A) NAD+.
B) ATP synthase.
C) a plasma membrane.
D) a cell wall.
E) cytoplasm.
Answer: C
Section: 5.4
43) In Figure 5.8, the path labeled 2 is the flow of
A) electrons.
B) protons.
C) energy.
D) water.
E) glucose.
Answer: B
Section: 5.4
44) What is the most acidic place in Figure 5.8?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: A
Section: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
45) A urease test is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis because
A) urease is a sign of tuberculosis.
B) M. tuberculosis produces urease.
C) urea accumulates during tuberculosis.
D) some bacteria reduce nitrate ion.
E) M. bovis can cause tuberculosis.

Answer: B
Section: 5.9
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
46) Researchers are developing a ribozyme that cleaves the HIV genome. This
pharmaceutical agent could be described as
A) an RNA molecule capable of catalysis.
B) a hydrolase.
C) a genetic transposable element.
D) a protease inhibitor.
E) a competitive inhibitor for reverse transcriptase.
Answer: A
Section: 5.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
47) Which statements correspond to amphibolic pathways?
1. anabolic and catabolic reactions are joined through common intermediate
2. shared metabolic pathways
3. Feedback inhibition can help regulate rates of reactions
4. both types of reactions are necessary but do not occur simultaneously
A) 1 only
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3, 4
D) 2, 4
E) 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
Section: 5.11
1) Catabolic reactions are generally degradative and hydrolytic.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 5.1
2) The pentose phosphate pathway can be characterized as an anabolic pathway.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 5.4
3) In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expended in anabolic pathways.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 5.1
4) An apoenzyme that loses its coenzyme subunit will be non-functional.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 5.2
5) The use of enzymes is necessary to increase the activation energy requirements of a

chemical reaction.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 5.2
6) Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 5.4
7) Carbon fixation occurs during the light-independent phase of photosynthesis.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 5.7
8) Both respiration and photosynthesis require the use of an electron transport chain.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 5.4; 5.7
9) Both respiration and photosynthesis use water molecules for the donation of hydrogen
ions.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 5.4; 5.7
10) Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site reverts back to
its original form.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 5.2
5.3 Essay Questions
1) Compare and contrast photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation.
Section: 5.4; 5.7

Global Outcome: 8
2) Rhodopseudomonas is an anaerobic photoautotroph that uses organic compounds as an
electron donor. It is also capable of chemoheterotrophic metabolism. Diagram the metabolic
pathways of this bacterium.
Section: 5.9
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
3) Differentiate the following two laboratory tests: starch hydrolysis and starch
fermentation.
Section: 5.6
ASMcue Outcome: 7.3a; 8.3
Global Outcome: 8
4) Streptococcus lacks an electron transport chain. How does this bacterium reoxidize NADH?
Where is the NADH formed?
Section: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
5) You look in the refrigerator and find some orange drink you had forgotten was there. The
drink now has an off taste and bubbles. What is the most likely explanation for the changes
in the drink?
Section: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
6) Explain the overall purpose of metabolic pathways.
Section: 5.3
Global Outcome: 8
7) Summarize energy production in cells in a single sentence.
Section: 5.8
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 6 Microbial Growth

Chapter 6 Microbial Growth
Figure 6.1
1) Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2?
A) a
B) b
C) c
Answer: B
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 3
2) In Figure 6.1,which line best depicts an obligate anaerobe in the presence of O2?
A) a
B) b
C) c
Answer: C
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 3
3) In Figure 6.1, which line shows the growth of an obligate aerobe incubated
anaerobically?
A) a
B) b
C) c
Answer: C
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 3
4) In Figure 6.1, which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated
aerobically?
A) a
B) b
C) c
Answer: A
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 3
5) In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a psychrotroph incubated at 0C?
A) a
B) b
C) c
Answer: B
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 3
6) If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen
(15N), most of the radioactivity will be found in the cells
A) DNA.
B) proteins.
C) phospholipids.
D) DNA and proteins.
E) DNA and phospholipids.
Answer: D
Section: 6.1
Global Outcome: 2
7) Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function?
A) nitrogen needed for amino acid synthesis
B) phosphorus incorporated into nucleic acids
C) sulfur used for synthesis of thiamin and biotin
D) magnesium and potassium required as cofactors for enzymes
E) phosphorus used for production of carbohydrates.
Answer: E
Section: 6.1
8) Pathogenic bacteria isolated from the respiratory or intestinal tracts of humans are
A) strict aerobes that grow best in candle jars.
B) capnophiles that grow best in carbon dioxide incubators.
C) facultative anaerobes that require reducing media for growth.
D) strict aerobes that grow best in reducing media.
E) capnophiles that prefer highly oxygenated growth conditions.
Answer: B
Section: 6.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 2
9) The biosafety level (BSL) for most introductory microbiology laboratories is
A) BSL-1.
B) BSL-2.
C) BSL-3.
D) BSL-4.
Answer: A
Section: 6.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.6
10) The biosafety level (BSL) for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially
airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis bacteria, is
A) BSL-1.
B) BSL-2.
C) BSL-3.
D) BSL-4.
Answer: C
Section: 6.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.6
Global Outcome: 2
11) A sample of milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one-milliliter
sample of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the third dilution tube
is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 54 colonies, indicating that the
original milk sample contained
A) 54 cells per milliliter.
B) 540 cells per milliliter.
C) 5,400 cells per milliliter.
D) 54,000 cells per milliliter.
E) 540,000 cells per milliliter.
Answer: D
Section: 6.6
ASMcue Outcome: 8.4
Global Outcome: 4
12) The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids?
A) buffers
B) sugars
C) pH
D) heat
E) carbon
Answer: A
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 8.5
13) Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a
A) depletion of nutrients.
B) hypotonic environment.
C) lower osmotic pressure.
D) hypertonic environment.
E) lower pH.
Answer: D
Section: 6.1
14) The term aerotolerant anaerobe refers to an organism that
A) does not use oxygen but tolerates it.
B) is killed by oxygen.
C) tolerates normal atmospheric nitrogen gas levels.
D) requires less oxygen than is present in air.
E) requires more oxygen than is present in air.
Answer: A
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
15) Which of the following is an advantage of the standard plate count?
A) can readily count cells that form aggregates
B) determines the number of viable cells
C) can be performed on very dilute samples, such as lake water
D) provides immediate results
E) can be used to count heat-sensitive bacteria
Answer: B
Section: 6.6
ASMcue Outcome: 8.4
16) Which of the following is an advantage of the direct microscopic count?
A) can readily count organisms that are motile
B) can easily distinguish live from dead cells
C) requires no incubation time
D) sample volume is unknown
E) requires a large number of cells
Answer: C
Section: 6.6
ASMcue Outcome: 8.4
Global Outcome: 2
17) Most bacteria reproduce by
A) aerial hyphae.
B) fragmentation.
C) mitosis.
D) binary fission.
E) budding.
Answer: D
Section: 6.6
18) Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard
plate count. How many cells were in the original sample?
A) 4 per milliliter
B) 9 per milliliter
C) 18 per milliliter
D) 36 per milliliter
E) 72 per milliliter
Answer: D
Section: 6.6
ASMcue Outcome: 8.4
Global Outcome: 4
Figure 6.2
19) Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of
the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which section
(or sections) shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying equals the number of
cells dividing?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) a and c
Answer: C
Section: 6.6
Global Outcome: 3
20) Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of
the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which
sections of the graph illustrate a logarithmic change in cell numbers?
A) a and c
B) b and d
C) a and b
D) c and d
E) a and d
Answer: B
Section: 6.6
Global Outcome: 3
21) Most bacteria grow best at pH
A) 1.
B) 5.
C) 7.
D) 9.
E) 14.
Answer: C
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
22) Most fungi grow best at pH
A) 1.
B) 5.
C) 7.
D) 9.
E) 14.
Answer: B
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
23) Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such
as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo
surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium,
decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type
of medium would be referred to as a(n)
A) selective medium.
B) differential medium.
C) enrichment culture.
D) selective and differential medium.
E) differential and enrichment culture.
Answer: D
Section: 6.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
24) A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart is a
A) chemically defined medium.
B) complex medium.
C) selective medium.
D) differential medium.
E) reducing medium.
Answer: B
Section: 6.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.2
25) Which of the following pairs of microbe classification terms and optimal growth
temperatures is mismatched?
A) psychrotroph growth at 0C
B) thermophile growth at 37C
C) mesophile growth at 25C
D) psychrophile growth at 15C
E) hyperthermophiles growth at 85C
Answer: B
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
26) During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) death phase
D) stationary phase
E) The culture is equally susceptible during all phases.
Answer: B
Section: 6.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
27) Which of the following is the best definition of generation time?
A) the length of time needed for lag phase
B) the length of time needed for a cell to divide
C) the minimum rate of doubling
D) the duration of log phase
E) the time needed for nuclear division
Answer: B
Section: 6.6
28) Which of the following is NOT a direct method to measure microbial growth?
A) direct microscopic count
B) standard plate count
C) filtration on a support membrane followed by incubation on medium
D) metabolic activity
E) most probable number (MPN)
Answer: D
Section: 6.6
ASMcue Outcome: 8.4
Global Outcome: 2
29) Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved with
salt?
A) psychrophiles
B) facultative halophiles
C) anaerobes
D) thermophiles
E) hyperthermophiles
Answer: B
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 2
30) Which of the following is an organic growth factor?
A) glucose
B) vitamin B1
C) peptone
D) Mg+2
E) H2O
Answer: B
Section: 6.1
Global Outcome: 2
31) Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to
measure microbial growth?
A) standard plate count
B) glucose consumption
C) direct microscopic count
D) turbidity
E) most probable number (MPN)
Answer: B
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 8.4
Global Outcome: 2
32) An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did
the
cells go through?
A) 64
B) 32
C) 6
D) 5
E) 4
Answer: D
Section: 6.6
ASMcue Outcome: 7.2
Global Outcome: 4
33) Three cells with generation times of 60 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium.
How many cells are there after 5 hours?
A) 900
B) 180
C) 96
D) 32
E) 15
Answer: C
Section: 6.6
ASMcue Outcome: 7.2
Global Outcome: 4
Figure 6.3
34) In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a microaerophile?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: E
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 3
35) In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a facultative
anaerobe?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: B
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 3
36) In one hospital, Pseudomonas aeruginosa serotype 10 infected the biliary tract of 10
percent of 1300 patients who underwent gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures. After each
use, endoscopes were washed with an automatic reprocessor that flushed detergent and
glutaraldehyde through the endoscopes, followed by a tap water rinse. P.
aeruginosa serotype 10 was not isolated from the detergent, glutaraldehyde, or tap water.
What was the source of the infections?
A) bacterial cell walls in the water
B) a biofilm in the reprocessor
C) contaminated disinfectant
D) fecal contamination of the bile ducts
Answer: B
Section: 6.2
Global Outcome: 2
Table 6.1
Three different culture media are shown below.
Medium A Medium B Medium C
Tide detergent Glucose

Na2HPO4
Peptone
KH2PO4 Na2HPO4
MgSO4 KH2PO4 (NH4)2SO4
CaCl2 MgSO4 KH2PO2
NaHCO3 (NH4)2SO4 Na2HPO4
37) For the three types of media in Table 6.1, which medium (or media) is/are chemically
defined?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) A and B
E) A and C
Answer: A
Section: 6.3
Global Outcome: 3
38) In Table, 6.1, in which medium (or media) would an autotroph grow?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) A and B
E) A and C
Answer: A
Section: 6.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 3
39) Assume you inoculated 100 cells, with a generation time of 20 minutes, into 100 ml of
nutrient broth. You then inoculated 100 cells of the same species into 200 ml of nutrient
broth. After incubation for 4 hours, you can reasonably expect to have
A) more cells in the 100 ml.
B) more cells in the 200 ml.
C) the same number of cells in both.
D) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Answer: C
Section: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
40) The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is
A) agar.
B) gelatin.
C) peptone and beef extract.
D) peptone and NaCl.
E) agar and NaCl.
Answer: C
Section: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
41) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: O2 + O2 + 2H+ H2O2 + O2?
A) catalase
B) oxidase
C) peroxidase
D) superoxide dismutase
Answer: D
Section: 6.1
42) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: 2H2O2 2H2O + O2?
A) catalase
B) oxidase
C) peroxidase
Answer: A
Section: 6.1
43) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: H2O2 + 2H+ 2H2O?
A) catalase
B) oxidase
C) peroxidase
Answer: C
Section: 6.1
44) Table 6.2
The following data show growth of two bacteria on different media.
The data in Table 6.2 indicate that S. aureus is a(n)
A) mesophile.
B) facultative anaerobe.
C) facultative halophile.
D) aerobe.
E) halophile.
Answer: C
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 3
45) Patients with indwelling catheters (long-term tubes inserted into body orifices for
drainage, such as through the urethra and into the urinary bladder) are susceptible to
infections because
A) injected solutions are contaminated.
B) their immune systems are weakened.
C) infections can be transmitted from other people.
D) biofilms develop on catheters.
E) bacteria cause infections.
Answer: D
Section: 6.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.2
Global Outcome: 2
1) An isolated colony on a streak plate contains millions (or even billions) of identical cells
all arising from one initial cell.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 6.4
ASMcue Outcome: 8.2
2) Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the numbers of cells in a bacterial culture.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 6.6
3) Pure cultures can easily be obtained on streak plates, even if the desired bacteria are
present in very low concentrations in the initial culture broth.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 6.4
ASMcue Outcome: 8.2
Global Outcome: 2
4) Agar is used as a solidifying agent in microbiological media since few bacteria can
degrade it.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 6.3
5) Laboratory cultivation of obligate anaerobes requires reducing media or special growth

chambers filled with inert gases.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 6.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
6) Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 2
7) In performing a ten-fold dilutions series from a sample containing 10,000 bacteria per
milliliter, the fourth tube in the dilution series will have 10 cells per milliliter.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 6.6
ASMcue Outcome: 7.2
Global Outcome: 4
8) Turbidity is an indirect measurement of bacterial growth that can be measured using a

spectrophotometer.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 6.6
ASMcue Outcome: 8.4
9) Filtration methods, followed by growth of the bacteria trapped on the filters in growth
media, are used to count bacteria present in very low concentrations, such as in lakes and
streams.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 6.6
ASMcue Outcome: 8.4
10) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, such as cyanobacteria, can use atmospheric nitrogen (N2) for
their nitrogen source.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 6.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
6.3 Essay Questions
1) A patient with a heart pacemaker received antibiotic therapy for streptococcal bacteremia
(bacteria in the blood). One month later, he was treated for recurrence of the bacteremia.
When he returned six weeks later, again with bacteremia, the physician recommended
replacing the pacemaker. Why did this cure his condition?
Section: 6.2
Global Outcome: 8
2) Table 6.3
Bacterial generation times for four different bacterial species were calculated in the media
listed in Table 6.3. All media were prepared with pure distilled water and incubated
aerobically in the light. Compare and contrast the growth requirements of the four bacteria
listed above. Which of the media, if any, are chemically defined?
Section: 6.3
Global Outcome: 3
Chapter 7 The Control of

Microbial Growth
Chapter 7 The Control of Microbial Growth
1) Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions?
A) dry heat
B) autoclave
C) membrane filtration
D) pasteurization
E) freezing
Answer: C
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
2) Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death?
A) The cells in a population die at a constant rate.
B) All the cells in a culture die at once.
C) Not all of the cells in a culture are killed.
D) The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent.
E) The pattern varies depending on the species.
Answer: A
Section: 7.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
3) Which of the following chemical agents is used for sterilization?
A) alcohol
B) phenolics
C) ethylene oxide
D) chlorine
E) soap
Answer: C
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
4) Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs?
A) phenol
B) chlorine bleach
C) chlorhexidine
D) soap
E) glutaraldehyde
Answer: C
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
5) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?
A) bacteriostatic kills vegetative bacterial cells
B) germicide kills microbes
C) virucide inactivates viruses
D) sterilant destroys all living microorganisms
E) fungicide kills yeasts and molds
Answer: A
Section: 7.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
6) The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to which of the following?
A) the formation of hypochlorous acid
B) the formation of hydrochloric acid
C) the formation of ozone
D) the formation of a hypochlorite ion
E) disruption of the plasma membrane
Answer: A
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
7) Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE?
A) Contaminating organic debris such as blood or sputum decrease effectiveness.
B) Some agents kill by denaturing microbial cell proteins.
C) Some agents affect microbial cell membranes by dissolving lipids.
D) Silver is used for treating antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
E) Alcohols effectively inactivate nonenveloped viruses by attacking lipids.
Answer: E
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
8) Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?
A) dry heat
B) pasteurization
C) autoclave
D) supercritical fluids
E) ethylene oxide
Answer: B
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
9) Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave?
A) It requires an excessively long time to achieve sterilization.
B) It cannot inactivate viruses.
C) It cannot kill endospores.
D) It cannot be used with heat-labile materials.
E) It cannot be used with glassware.
Answer: D
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
10) An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n)
A) disinfectant.
B) antiseptic.
C) aseptic.
D) fungicide.
E) virucide.
Answer: A
Section: 7.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
11) Application of heat to living cells can result in all of the following EXCEPT
A) breaking of hydrogen bonds.
B) alteration of membrane permeability.
C) denaturation of enzymes.
D) decreased thermal death time.
E) damage to nucleic acids.
Answer: D
Section: 7.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
12) Which of the following disinfectants acts by disrupting the plasma membrane?
A) soaps
B) aldehydes
C) bisphenols
D) halogens
E) heavy metals
Answer: C
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
13) Oxidizing agents include all of the following EXCEPT
A) chlorine.
B) glutaraldehyde.
C) hydrogen peroxide.
D) iodine.
E) ozone.
Answer: B
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
14) Disinfection of water is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT
A) ozone.
B) UV radiation.
C) chlorine.
D) copper sulfate.
E) peracetic acid.
Answer: E
Section: 7.4; 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
15) All of the following substances are effective against nonenveloped viruses EXCEPT
A) alcohol.
B) chlorine.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) ozone.
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are equally effective against nonenveloped viruses.
Answer: A
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
16) Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the metabolic processes of
foodborne microbes?
A) lyophilization
B) nonionizing radiation
C) freezing
D) ionizing radiation
E) pasteurization
Answer: C
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
17) Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide?
A) 100 percent
B) 70 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 40 percent
E) 30 percent
Answer: B
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
18) All of the following factors contribute to hospital-acquired infections EXCEPT
A) some bacteria metabolize disinfectants.
B) gram-negative bacteria are often resistant to disinfectants.
C) invasive procedures can provide a portal of entry for bacteria.
D) bacteria may be present in commercial products such as mouthwash.
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these factors may contribute to hospital-acquired infection.
Answer: E
Section: 7.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
19) Which of the following treatments is the most effective for controlling microbial growth?
A) 63C for 30 minutes
B) 72C for 15 seconds
C) 140C for 4 seconds
D) They are equivalent treatments.
Answer: D
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
20) Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper?
A) autoclave
B) gamma radiation
C) microwaves
D) sunlight
E) ultraviolet radiation
Answer: B
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
21) Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE?
A) Contaminating organic debris such as blood or sputum will decrease effectiveness.
B) Some agents kill by denaturing microbial cell proteins.
C) Some agents affect microbial cell membranes by dissolving lipids.
D) Some agents are utilized as both an antiseptic and a disinfectant.
E) A true antimicrobial control agent is equally effective against both bacteria and viruses.
Answer: E
Section: 7.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Figure 7.1
A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170C. Plate counts were
used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown.
22) In Figure 7.1, what is the thermal death time?
A) 150C
B) 60 minutes
C) 120 minutes
D) 100C
Answer: B
Section: 7.2
Global Outcome: 3
23) In Figure 7.1, the thermal death point for this culture is
A) 15 minutes.
B) 50C.
C) 30 minutes.
D) 170C.
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
Answer: E
Section: 7.2
Global Outcome: 3
24) In Figure 7.1, the decimal reduction time (D value) for the culture, which is defined as the time to
reduce a population by one log, is approximately
A) 0 minutes.
B) 10 minutes.
C) 30 minutes.
D) 40 minutes.
E) 60 minutes.
Answer: B
Section: 7.2
Global Outcome: 3
25) Which of the following results in lethal damage to nucleic acids?
A) heat
B) radiation
C) certain chemicals
D) heat and radiation
E) heat, radiation, and some chemicals
Answer: E
Section: 7.4; 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Learning Outcome: 7.6, 7.9
A) Ag wound dressings
B) alcohols open wounds
C) CuSO4 algicide
D) H2O2 open wounds
E) organic acids food preservation
Answer: B
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Figure 7.2
Assume 109 E. coli cells/ml are in a flask.
27) Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the culture in an autoclave for 15
minutes at time x?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: B
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4; 7.2a
Global Outcome: 3
28) Which graph in Figure 7.2 best depicts the effect of placing the culture at 7C at time x?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: D
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4, 7.2a
Global Outcome: 3
Table 7.1
A disk-diffusion test using Staphylococcus gave the following results:
Disinfectant Zone of inhibition (mm)
A0
B2.5
C10
D5
29) In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against Staphylococcus?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Answer: C
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 7.1b
Global Outcome: 3
30) In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against E. coli?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Answer: E
Section: 7.5
Global Outcome: 3
31) In Table 7.1, which compound was bactericidal?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Answer: E
Section: 7.5
Global Outcome: 3
32) Table 7.2
The fate of E. coli O157:H7 in apple cider held at 8C for 2 weeks,
with and without preservatives, is shown below:
Bacteria/ml
Cider only 2.2
Cider with potassium sorbate 2.0
Sodium benzoate 0
Potassium sorbate + sodium benzoate 0
In Table 7.2, which preservative is most effective?
A) potassium sorbate
B) sodium benzoate
C) potassium sorbate + sodium benzoate
D) no preservative
Answer: B
Section: 7.5
Global Outcome: 3
33) An iodophor is a(n)
A) phenol.
B) agent that reduces oxygen.
C) quaternary ammonium compound.
D) form of formaldehyde.
E) iodine mixed with a surfactant.
Answer: E
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
34) Ethylene oxide
A) is a good antiseptic.
B) is not sporicidal.
C) requires high heat to be effective.
D) is a sterilizing agent.
E) is the active chemical in household bleach.
Answer: D
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
35) All of the following substances are used to preserve foods EXCEPT
A) biguanides.
B) nisin.
C) potassium sorbate.
D) sodium nitrite.
E) calcium propionate.
Answer: A
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Table 7.3
The following data were obtained by incubating gram-positive bacteria in
nutrient medium + disinfectant for 24 hr, then transferring one loopful to
nutrient medium (subculturing). (+ = growth; = no growth)
36) In Table 7.3, which disinfectant is the most effective at stopping bacterial growth?
A) Doom
B) K.O.
C) Mortum
D) Sterl
Answer: A
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4; 7.1b
Global Outcome: 3
37) In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was bactericidal?
A) Doom
B) K.O.
C) Mortum
D) Sterl
Answer: C
Section: 7.5
Global Outcome: 3
38) In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was most effective against Salmonella?
A) Doom
B) K.O.
C) Mortum
D) Sterl
Answer: E
Section: 7.5
Global Outcome: 3
39) All of the following are effective for destroying prions EXCEPT
A) boiling.
B) incineration.
C) NaOH + autoclaving at 134C.
D) proteases.
E) None of the answers are correct; each of these will destroy prions.
Answer: A
Section: 7.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
A) ionizing radiation hydroxyl radicals
B) ozone takes electrons from substances
C) plasma sterilization free radicals
D) supercritical fluids CO2
E) ultraviolet radiation desiccation
Answer: E
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
41) All of the following are methods of food preservation EXCEPT
A) desiccation.
B) high pressure.
C) ionizing radiation.
D) microwaves.
E) osmotic pressure.
Answer: D
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
42) The preservation of beef jerky from microbial growth relies on which method of microbial
control?
A) filtration
B) lyophilization
C) desiccation
D) ionizing radiation
E) supercritical CO2
Answer: C
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
43) If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and did not have an autoclave, what could you use to
sterilize the nutrient agar?
A) bleach
B) boiling for one hour
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) oven at 121C for one hour
E) pressure cooker at 121C for 15 minutes
Answer: E
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
44) Bone and tendons for transplant are decontaminated by
A) ethylene oxide.
B) glutaraldehyde.
C) peroxygens.
D) plasma sterilization.
E) supercritical fluids.
Answer: E
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
45) Which one of the following is most resistant to chemical biocides?
A) gram-negative bacteria
B) gram-positive bacteria
C) mycobacteria
D) protozoan cysts
E) viruses with lipid envelopes
Answer: A
Section: 7.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
46) The following is true of quarternary ammonium compounds EXCEPT
A) they are non-toxic at lower concentrations.
B) they are tasteless.
C) they are effective when combined with soaps.
D) they are stable.
E) they may be an ingredient in mouthwash.
Answer: C
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
1) Any process that destroys the non-spore forming contaminants on inanimate objects is sterilization.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 7.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
2) Desiccation is a reliable form of sterilization.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
3) The thermal death time is the time needed to kill all the bacteria in a particular culture at a certain
temperature.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 7.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
4) Pseudomonas has been found growing in quaternary ammonium compounds (quats).
Answer: TRUE
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
5) Moist heat destroys organisms by denaturing proteins.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
6) Some antimicrobial chemicals are considered to be disinfectants and antiseptics.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
7) The pH of the medium has no effect on the activity of the disinfectant being applied.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
8) Ultraviolet light (UV) causes irreversible breaks in DNA strands.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
9) Autoclaving is the most effective method of moist heat sterilization.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
10) Microorganisms placed in high concentrations of salts and sugars undergo lysis.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
7.3 Essay Questions
1) Table 7.4
The results below were obtained from a use-dilution test of two disinfectants. Cultures were
inoculated into tubes with varying concentrations of disinfectants and incubated for 24 hr at 20C, then
subcultured in nutrient media without disinfectants.
(+ = growth; = no growth)
In Table 7.4, what is the minimal bacteriostatic concentration of each disinfectant? Which compound
is bactericidal? At what concentration?
Section: 7.5
Global Outcome: 3
2) Assume that you are responsible for decontaminating materials in a large hospital. How would you
sterilize each of the following? Briefly justify your answers.
a. a mattress used by a patient with bubonic plague
b. intravenous glucose-saline solutions
c. used disposable syringes
d. tissues taken from patients
Section: 7.4; 7.5

Global Outcome: 8
3) Table 7.5
The following results were obtained from a use-dilution test of two disinfectants. Cultures were
inoculated into tubes containing varying concentrations of the disinfectants, incubated for 10 min. at
20C, and then transferred to growth media without disinfectant.
(+ = growth; = no growth)
In Table 7.5, which disinfectant is most effective? Against which group of bacteria is Disinfectant A
most effective?
Section: 7.5
Global Outcome: 3
4) How is hydrogen peroxide antimicrobial?
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 8
5) Why must most milk sold in the U.S. be refrigerated at all times while evaporated canned milk and
milk in cardboard containers sold in Europe do not need to be refrigerated until they are opened?
Section: 7.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 8
6) What are the advantages of gluteraldehyde compared to formaldehyde?
Section: 7.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 8
7) List the microbial targets of disinfecting chemicals and provide one example of a chemical agent
that affects that structure.
Section: 7.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4; 7.3a
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 8 Microbial Genetics
Chapter 8 Microbial Genetics
1) A gene is best defined as
A) any random segment of DNA.
B) three nucleotides that code for an amino acid.
C) a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product.
D) a sequence of nucleotides in RNA that codes for a functional product.
E) the RNA product of a transcribed section of DNA.
Answer: C
Section: 8.1
A) DNA polymerase makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template
B) RNA polymerase makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template
C) DNA ligase joins segments of DNA
D) transposase insertion of DNA segments into DNA
E) DNA gyrase coils and twists DNA
Answer: B
Section: 8.1
A) DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction (5 to 3) only.
B) The leading strand of DNA is made continuously.
C) The lagging strand of DNA is started by an RNA primer.
D) DNA replication proceeds in only one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
E) Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial chromosome.
Answer: D
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 2
4) DNA is constructed of
A) a single strand of nucleotides with internal hydrogen bonding.
B) two complementary strands of nucleotides bonded AC and GT.
C) two strands of nucleotides running in an antiparallel configuration.
D) two strands of identical nucleotides in a parallel configuration with hydrogen bonds

between them.
Answer: C
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 2
5) Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription?
A) a new strand of DNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) mRNA
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are products of transcription.
Answer: A
Section: 8.1
6) Which of the following statements about bacteriocins is FALSE?
A) The genes coding for them are on plasmids.
B) They cause food-poisoning symptoms.
C) Nisin is a bacteriocin used as a food preservative.
D) They can be used to identify certain bacteria.
E) Bacteriocins kill bacteria.
Answer: B
Section: 8.4
Global Outcome: 7
7) Figure 8.1
In Figure 8.1, which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring?
A) 1, 2, 3, and 9
B) 3 and 9
C) 4, 6, and 8
D) 4 and 8
E) 5 and 6
Answer: D
Section: 8.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.1
Global Outcome: 2
Table 8.1
Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+

Culture 2: F, leucine, histidine
8) In Table 8.1, what will be the result of conjugation between cultures 1 and 2 (reminder:
F+ has a different meaning than Hfr)?
A) 1 will remain the same;
2 will become F+, leucine, histidine

B) 1 will become F, leu+, his+;
2 will become F+, leu, his
C) 1 will become F, leu, his;
2 will remain the same
D) 1 will remain the same;
2 will become F+, leu+, his+
E) 1 will remain the same;
2 will become F+ and recombination may occur

Answer: A
Section: 8.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.1
Global Outcome: 2
9) In Table 8.1, if culture 1 mutates to Hfr, what will be the result of conjugation between
the two cultures?
A) They will both remain the same.
B) 1 will become F+, leu+, his+;

2 will become F+, leu+, his+
C) 1 will remain the same;
recombination will occur in 2
D) 1 will become F, leu+, his+;

2 will become Hfr, leu+, his+
Answer: C
Section: 8.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.1
Global Outcome: 2
10) An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called a(n)
A) inducible enzyme.
B) repressible enzyme.
C) restriction enzyme.
D) operator.
E) promoter.
Answer: A
Section: 8.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.3
11) Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell
A) by a bacteriophage.
B) as naked DNA in solution.
C) by cell-to-cell contact.
D) by crossing over.
E) by sexual reproduction.
Answer: B
Section: 8.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.1
12) Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by
A) mutation.
B) conjugation.
C) transduction.
D) transformation.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Section: 8.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.1
13) Which of the following statements regarding a bacterium that is R+ is FALSE?
A) It possesses a plasmid.
B) R+ can be transferred to a cell of the same species.
C) It is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals.
D) It is F+.
E) R+ can be transferred to a different species.
Answer: D
Section: 8.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.1
14) The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes
A) DNA to break.
B) bonding between adjacent thymines.
C) base substitutions.
D) the formation of highly reactive ions.
E) the cells to get hot.
Answer: D
Section: 8.3
15) According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the
A) end-product must not be in excess.
B) substrate must bind to the enzyme.
C) substrate must bind to the repressor.
D) repressor must bind to the operator.
E) repressor must not be synthesized.
Answer: C
Section: 8.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.3
Global Outcome: 2
16) Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by the
A) allosteric transition.
B) substrate binding to the repressor.
C) corepressor binding to the operator.
D) corepressor-repressor complex binding to the operator.
E) end product binding to the promoter.
Answer: D
Section: 8.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.3
Global Outcome: 2
Figure 8.2
17) In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 4?
A) adenine
B) thymine
C) cytosine
D) guanine
E) uracil
Answer: A
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 2
18) In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 11 (remember the complimentary
configuration of bases in DNA)?
A) adenine
B) thymine
C) cytosine
D) guanine
E) uracil
Answer: B
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 2
19) In Figure 8.2, base 2 (and ONLY the base) is covalently bound/attached to
A) ribose.
B) phosphate.
C) deoxyribose.
D) thymine.
Answer: C
Section: 8.1
20) The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is
A) never repaired.
B) repaired during transcription.
C) repaired during translation.
D) cut out and replaced.
E) repaired by DNA replication.
Answer: D
Section: 8.3
Table 8.2
Codon on mRNA and corresponding amino acid
UUA leucine UAA nonsense
GCA alanine AAU asparagine
AAG lysine UGC cysteine
GUU valine UCG, UCU serine
21) Refer to Table 8.2. If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is
serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, what is the order of bases in the sense strand of DNA?
A) 3 UGUGCAAAGUUA
B) 3 AGACGTTTCAAT
C) 3 TCTCGTTTGTTA
D) 5 TGTGCTTTCTTA
E) 5 AGAGCTTTGAAT
Answer: B
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 2
22) Refer to Table 8.2. If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is
serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, the coding for the antisense strand of DNA is
A) 5 ACAGTTTCAAT.
B) 5 TCTGCAAAGTTA.
C) 3 UGUGCAAAGUUA.
D) 3 UCUCGAAAGUUA.
E) 3 TCACGUUUCAAU.
Answer: B
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 2
23) Refer to Table 8.2 The anticodon for valine is
A) GUU.
B) CUU.
C) CTT.
D) CAA.
E) GTA.
Answer: D
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 2
24) Refer to Table 8.2. What is the sequence of amino acids encoded by the following
sequence of bases in a strand of DNA (pay attention to the polarity of the DNA here)?
3 ATTACGCTTTGC
A) leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine
B) asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine
C) asparagine-cysteine-valine-serine
D) Translation would stop at the first codon.
Answer: D
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 2
25) Refer to Table 8.2. If an indeterminate frameshift mutation occurred in the sequence of
bases shown below, what would be the sequence of amino acids coded for?
3 ATTACGCTTTGC
A) leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine
B) asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine
C) asparagine-cysteine-valine-serine
D) Translation would stop at the first codon.
Answer: E
Section: 8.3
Global Outcome: 2
Figure 8.3 Metabolic Pathway
26) In Figure 8.3, if compound C reacts with the allosteric site of enzyme A, this would
exemplify
A) a mutation.
B) repression.
C) feedback inhibition.
D) competitive inhibition.
E) transcription.
Answer: C
Section: 8.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.3
Global Outcome: 2
27) In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is a repressible enzyme, compound C would
A) always be in excess.
B) bind to Enzyme A.
C) bind to the corepressor for Gene a.
D) bind to RNA polymerase.
E) bind directly to gene a.

Answer: C
Section: 8.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.3
Global Outcome: 2
28) In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is an inducible enzyme,
A) compound C would bind to the repressor for Gene a.
B) compound A would bind to the repressor for Gene a.
C) compound B would bind to enzyme A directly.
D) compound A would react with enzyme B directly.
E) compound C would react with gene a directly.

Answer: B
Section: 8.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.3
Global Outcome: 2
29) Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation
A) replicates DNA.
B) transfers DNA vertically, to new cells.
C) transfers DNA horizontally, to nearby cells without those cells undergoing replication.
D) transcribes DNA to RNA.
E) copies RNA to make DNA.
Answer: C
Section: 8.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.1
30) The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The
DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus, and the template is from a human cell. The DNA
synthesized would be most similar to
A) human DNA.
B) T. aquaticus DNA.
C) a mixture of human and T. aquaticus DNA.
D) human RNA.
E) T. aquaticus RNA.
Answer: A
Section: 8.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 7
31) Table 8.3
Amino Acids Encoded by the Human p53 Gene
Based on the information in Table 8.3, prostate cancer is probably the result of which kind
of mutation?
A) analog
B) frameshift
C) missense
D) nonsense
Answer: D
Section: 8.3
Global Outcome: 7
32) Figure 8.4
In Figure 8.4, the antibiotic chloramphenicol binds the 50S large subunit of a ribosome as
shown (the light gray area is the large subunit, while the black shape is the drug). From this
information you can conclude that chloramphenicol
A) prevents transcription in eukaryotes.
B) prevents translation in eukaryotes.
C) prevents transcription in prokaryotes.
D) prevents translation in prokaryotes.
E) prevents mRNA-ribosome binding.
Answer: D
Section: 8.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.2
Global Outcome: 7
33) The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the lac operon is
A) catabolite repression.
B) translation.
C) DNA polymerase.
D) repression.
E) induction.
Answer: A
Section: 8.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.3
34) If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could
you determine with the most accuracy?
A) the primary structure of the protein
B) the secondary structure of the protein
C) the tertiary structure of the protein
D) the quaternary structure of the protein
Answer: A
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 2
35) An enzyme that makes covalent bonds between the sugar of one nucleotide and the
phosphate groups in another nucleotide in DNA is
A) RNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA helicase.
D) transposase.
E) DNA polymerase.
Answer: B
Section: 8.1
36) An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is
A) RNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) DNA helicase.
D) transposase.
E) DNA polymerase.
Answer: A
Section: 8.1
37) An enzyme that catalyzes the cutting and resealing of DNA, and is translated from
insertion sequences, is
A) RNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) DNA helicase.
D) transposase.
E) DNA polymerase.
Answer: D
Section: 8.4
38) Repair of damaged DNA, in some instances and mechanisms, might be viewed as a race
between an endonuclease and
A) DNA ligase.
B) DNA polymerase.
C) helicase.
D) methylase.
E) primase.
Answer: D
Section: 8.3
Global Outcome: 2
39) The cancer gene ras produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number
of UAA codons. Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon. This mistake most likely is
due to a mistake by
A) a chemical mutagen.
B) DNA polymerase.
C) photolyases.
D) snRNPs.
E) UV radiation.
Answer: D
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 7
40) Figure 8.5
In Figure 8.5, which model of the lac operon correctly shows RNA polymerase, lactose, and
repressor protein when the structural genes are being transcribed?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: D
Section: 8.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.3
Global Outcome: 2
41) The miRNAs in a cell
A) are found in prokaryotic cells.
B) are a part of the prokaryotic ribosome.
C) are a part of the eukaryotic ribosome.
D) allow different cells to produce different proteins.
E) are responsible for inducing operons.
Answer: D
Section: 8.2
42) Assume the two E.coli strains shown below are allowed to conjugate.
Hfr: pro+, arg+, his+, lys+, met+, ampicillin-sensitive
F-: pro, arg, his, lys, met, ampicillin-resistant
What supplements would you add to glucose minimal salts agar to select for a recombinant
cell that is lys+, arg+, amp-resistant?
A) ampicillin, lysine, arginine
B) lysine, arginine
C) ampicillin, proline, histidine, methionine
D) proline, histidine, methionine
E) ampicillin, proline, histidine, lysine
Answer: C
Section: 8.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.1
Global Outcome: 2
43) Protein synthesis in eukaryotes is similar to the process in prokaryotes in that both
eukaryotes and prokaryotes
A) have exons.
B) have introns.
C) require snRNPS.
D) use methionine as the start amino acid.
E) use codons to determine polypeptide sequences.
Answer: E
Section: 8.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.2
Global Outcome: 7
1) Recombination will always alter a cells genotype.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 8.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
2) Open-reading frames are segments of DNA in which both start and stop codons are
found.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 8.1
3) Bacteria typically contain multiple chromosomes.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 8.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.2
Global Outcome: 7
4) Mutations that are harmful to cells occur more frequently than those that benefit cells.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 8.3
Global Outcome: 7
5) The miRNAs in a cell inhibit protein synthesis by forming complementary bonds with
rRNA.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 8.2
6) Some cells may contain multiple genomes.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 7
7) Both base substitution and frameshift mutations can result in the formation of premature
stop codons.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 8.3
8) In the Ames test, any colonies that form on the control should be the result of
spontaneous mutations.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 8.3
9) Transposition (insertion of a transposon into a DNA sequence) results in the formation of

base substitution mutations in a cells DNA.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 8.3
Global Outcome: 7
10) Cell-to-cell contact is required for transduction to occur.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 8.4
8.3 Essay Questions
1) What is the survival value of the semiconservative replication of DNA?
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 8
2) Scientists are concerned that bacteria will be resistant to all antibiotics within the next
decade. Using your knowledge of genetics, describe how bacterial populations can develop
drug resistance in such a short time frame.
Section: 8.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.1
Global Outcome: 8
3) Explain why the following statement is false: Sexual reproduction is the only mechanism
for genetic change.
Section: 8.4
Global Outcome: 8
4) Why must the cultures used in the Ames test be auxotrophic? Explain the necessity of
using a strain that is mutated in this experiment.
Section: 8.3
Global Outcome: 8
5) What is the survival value of the degeneracy of the genetic code?
Section: 8.1
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 9 Biotechnology and DNA

Technology
Chapter 9 Biotechnology and DNA Technology
1) The following are steps used to make DNA fingerprints. What is the third step?
A) Collect DNA.
B) Digest with a restriction enzyme.
C) Perform electrophoresis.
D) Lyse cells.
E) Add stain.
Answer: B
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Figure 9.1
2) How many pieces will EcoRI produce from the plasmid shown in Figure 9.1?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: B
Section: 9.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 2
3) In Figure 9.1, after digestion with the appropriate restriction enzyme, what is the smallest piece
containing the entire ampicillin-resistance (amp) gene?
A) 0.17 kbp
B) 0.25 kbp
C) 1.08 kbp
D) 1.50 kbp
E) 3.00 kbp
Answer: D
Section: 9.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 2
Figure 9.2
4) In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 1 is
A) DNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) RNA polymerase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
E) spliceosome.
Answer: C
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.2
5) In Figure 9.2, the enzyme in step 2 is
A) DNA polymerase.
B) DNA ligase.
C) RNA polymerase.
D) reverse transcriptase.
E) spliceosome.
Answer: A
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
6) The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is
A) DNA mRNA.
B) mRNA cDNA.
C) mRNA protein.
D) DNA DNA.
E) tRNA mRNA.
Answer: B
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
7) Which of the following is an advantage of using E. coli to make a human gene product?
A) Endotoxin may be in the product.
B) It does not secrete most proteins.
C) Its genes are well known.
D) It cannot process introns.
E) Endotoxin may be in the product and it does not secrete most proteins.
Answer: C
Section: 9.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 5
8) Which of the following is NOT an agricultural product made by DNA techniques?
A) frost retardant
B) Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide
C) nitrogenase (nitrogen fixation)
D) glyphosate-resistant crops
E) pectinase
Answer: E
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 5
9) If you have inserted a gene in the Ti plasmid, the next step in genetic engineering is
A) transformation of E. coli with Ti plasmid.
B) splicing T DNA into a plasmid.
C) transformation of an animal cell.
D) inserting the Ti plasmid into Agrobacterium.
E) inserting the Ti plasmid into a plant cell.
Answer: D
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
10) Biotechnology involves the
A) use of microorganisms to make desired products.
B) use of animal cells to make vaccines.
C) development of disease-resistant crop plants.
D) use of microorganisms to make desired products and the use of animal cells to make vaccines.
E) use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the
development of disease-resistant crop plants.
Answer: E
Section: 9.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 5
11) Figure 9.3
The figure at the left in Figure 9.3 shows a gene identified by Southern blotting. What will a Southern
blot of the same gene look like after PCR?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: D
Section: 9.4
Global Outcome: 3
12) Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning
procedures?
A) self-replication
B) large size
C) has a selectable marker
D) circular form of DNA or integrates into the host chromosome
E) may replicate in several species
Answer: B
Section: 9.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
13) Figure 9.4
In Figure 9.4, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and plated on media containing
ampicillin and X-gal will
A) form blue, ampicillin-resistant colonies.
B) form blue, ampicillin-sensitive colonies.
C) form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies.
D) form white, ampicillin-sensitive colonies.
E) not grow.
Answer: C
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
14) An advantage of synthetic DNA over genomic or cDNA is the ability to
A) insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence.
B) isolate unknown genes.
C) make DNA from cellular RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
D) obtain genes that lack introns.
E) obtain genes that lack exons.
Answer: A
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
15) An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it
A) lacks exons.
B) lacks introns.
C) contains selectable markers.
D) can form very large DNA segments.
E) is very easy to isolate.
Answer: B
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
16) The restriction enzyme EcoRI recognizes the sequence GAATTC. Which of the following is
TRUE of DNA after it is treated with EcoRI?
A) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in AA.
B) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in G.
C) Some of the DNA will have single-stranded regions ending in AA and others will end in G.
D) All of the DNA will have blunt ends.
E) All of the DNA will be circular.
Answer: A
Section: 9.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
17) Which enzyme would cut this strand of DNA?
GCATGGATCCCAATGC
A) Enzyme Recognition
BamHI GGATCC
CCCTAGG
B) Enzyme Recognition
EcoRI GAATTC
CTTAAG
C) Enzyme Recognition
HaeIII GGCC
CCGG
D) Enzyme Recognition
HindIII AAGCTT
TTCGAA
E) Enzyme Recognition
Pst ICTGCG
GACGTC
Answer: A
Section: 9.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 3
18) Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a
A) library.
B) clone.
C) vector.
D) Southern blot.
E) PCR.
Answer: A
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
19) A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a
A) library.
B) clone.
C) vector.
D) Southern blot.
E) PCR.
Answer: B
Section: 9.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
20) Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a
A) library.
B) clone.
C) vector.
D) Southern blot.
E) PCR.
Answer: C
Section: 9.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
21) The Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003, was focused on
A) identifying all of the genes in the human genome.
B) determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome.
C) determining all of the proteins encoded by the human genome.
D) finding a cure for all human genetic disorders.
E) cloning all of the genes of the human genome.
Answer: B
Section: 9.4
Global Outcome: 5
22) A colleague has used computer modeling to design an improved enzyme. To produce this
enzyme, the next step is to
A) look for a bacterium that makes the improved enzyme.
B) mutate bacteria until one makes the improved enzyme.
C) determine the nucleotide sequence for the improved enzyme.
D) synthesize the gene for the improved enzyme.
E) use siRNA to produce the enzyme.
Answer: C
Section: 9.4
Global Outcome: 2
23) You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. After 3 replication cycles, how many
double-stranded DNA molecules do you have?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) thousands
Answer: C
Section: 9.2
Global Outcome: 4
24) Which of the following places the steps in the PCR procedure in the correct order?
1) Incubate at 94C to denature DNA strands;
2) Incubate at 72C for DNA synthesis;
3) Incubate at 60C for primer hybridization.
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 3, 2, 1
C) 1, 3, 2
D) 2; 1; 3
E) 3; 1; 2
Answer: C
Section: 9.2
25) Which of the following are used to silence specific genes and hold promise for treating cancer or
viral diseases, such as hepatitis B?
A) RNA interference (RNAi)
B) complementary DNA (cDNA)
C) reverse transcriptase PCR (rtPCR)
D) tumor-inducing plasmids (Ti plasmids)
E) DNA fingerprinting
Answer: A
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.3
Global Outcome: 5
26) Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants?
A) gene guns
B) protoplast fusion
C) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium
D) microinjection
E) electroporation
Answer: D
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 5
Figure 9.5
27) In Figure 9.5, the marker genes used for selecting recombinant DNA are
A) HindIII, BamHI, and EcoRI.

B) ampR and lacZ.
C) ori.
D) ampR and ori.
E) lacZ and ori.
Answer: B
Section: 9.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
28) In Figure 9.5, the gene that allows the plasmid to be self-replicating is
A) HindIII.
B) ampR.
C) ori.
D) EcoRI.
E) lacZ.
Answer: C
Section: 9.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
29) Which of the following methods would be used to introduce the plasmid shown in Figure 9.5
into E. coli?
A) microinjection
B) transformation
C) gene guns
D) Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium

Answer: B
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
30) A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is
A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
B) Thermus aquaticus.
C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
D) Bacillus thuringiensis.
E) Pseudomonas.
Answer: B
Section: 9.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
31) The Pap test for cervical cancer involves microscopic examination of cervical cells for cancerous
cells. A new, rapid diagnostic test to detect human papilloma virus (HPV) DNA before cancer
develops is done without microscopic exam. The steps involved in this FastHPV test are listed below.
What is the second step?
A) Add an RNA probe for HPV DNA.
B) Lyse human cells.
C) Add enzyme-linked antibodies against DNA-RNA.
D) Add enzyme substrate.
E) The order is unimportant.
Answer: A
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 5
32) Gene silencing involves all of the following EXCEPT
A) small interfering RNAs.
B) production of double stranded RNAs.
C) small interfering RNA binding to a gene promoter.
D) Dicer.
E) RNA-induced silencing complex.
Answer: C
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.3
33) You want to determine whether a person has a certain mutant gene. The process involves using a
primer and a heat-stable DNA polymerase. This process is
A) translation.
B) restriction mapping.
C) transformation.
D) PCR.
E) site-directed mutagenesis.
Answer: D
Section: 9.2
Global Outcome: 5
34) Which of the following are used by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to track
outbreaks of foodborne disease?
A) DNA fingerprints
B) restriction fragment length polymorphisms
C) reverse-transcriptase PCR (rtPCR)
D) DNA fingerprints and restriction fragment length polymorphisms
E) DNA fingerprints, restriction fragment length polymorphisms, and reverse-transcriptase

PCR(rtPCR)
Answer: E
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 5
35) Assume you have discovered a cell that produces a lipase that works in cold water for a laundry
additive. You can increase the efficiency of this enzyme by changing one amino acid. This is done by
A) irradiating the cells.
B) site-directed mutagenesis.
C) enrichment.
D) selective breeding.
E) selection.
Answer: B
Section: 9.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 5
36) The use of an antibiotic-resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes
A) replica plating possible.
B) direct selection possible.
C) the recombinant cell dangerous.
D) the recombinant cell unable to survive.
Answer: B
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
37) The following steps must be performed to make a bacterium produce human protein X.
1-Translation
2-Restriction enzyme
3-Prokaryotic transcription
4-DNA ligase
5-Transformation
6-Eukaryotic transcription
7-Reverse transcription
Which of the following places the steps in the correct order?
A) 5, 2, 3, 4, 7, 6, 1
B) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4, 7, 6
C) 6, 7, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
D) 6, 7, 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
E) 6, 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 7
Answer: D
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 5
38) The use of suicide genes in genetically modified organisms is designed to
A) prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment.
B) kill the modified organisms before they are released in the environment.
C) delete genes necessary for modified organisms growth.
D) provide for resistance of the modified organisms to pesticides.
E) provide a means to eliminate non-modified organisms.
Answer: A
Section: 9.5
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 5
39) A restriction fragment is
A) a gene.
B) a segment of DNA.
C) a segment of mRNA.
D) a segment of tRNA.
E) cDNA.
Answer: B
Section: 9.2
40) In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT required?
A) transfer of DNA to nitrocellulose
B) addition of a labeled probe to identify the gene of interest
C) restriction enzyme digestion of DNA
D) electrophoresis to separate fragments
E) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA
Answer: E
Section: 9.4
41) Which of the following processes is NOT involved in making cDNA?
A) reverse transcription
B) RNA processing to remove introns
C) transcription
D) translation
Answer: D
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
42) PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because
A) the RNA primer is specific.
B) DNA polymerase will replicate DNA.
C) DNA can be electrophoresed.
D) all cells have DNA.
E) all cells have RNA.
Answer: A
Section: 9.2
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
43) The random shotgun method is used in
A) amplification of unknown DNA.
B) transforming plant cells with recombinant DNA.
C) genome sequencing.
D) RFLP analysis.
E) forensic microbiology.
Answer: C
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
44) Restriction enzymes are
A) bacterial enzymes that splice DNA.
B) bacterial enzymes that destroy phage DNA.
C) animal enzymes that splice RNA.
D) viral enzymes that destroy host DNA.
Answer: B
Section: 9.2
45) The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is
A) bioinformatics.
B) proteomics.
C) reverse genetics.
D) forensic microbiology.
E) metagenomics.
Answer: E
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
1) The term biotechnology refers exclusively to the use of genetically engineered organisms for the
production of desired products.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 9.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
2) In recombinant DNA technology, a vector is a self-replicating segment of DNA, such as a plasmid
or viral genome.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 9.1
3) The practice of breeding plants and animals for desirable traits, such as high crop yield, is called
natural selection.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 9.2
4) A shuttle vector is a plasmid that is used to move pieces of DNA among organisms, such as
bacterial, fungal, and plant cells.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 9.2
5) Nearly all cells, including E. coli and yeast, naturally take up DNA from their surroundings
without chemical treatment.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
6) The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that genomic libraries contain gene
introns.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.2
7) One of the first commercial successes of recombinant DNA technology was the production of
human insulin using genetically engineered E. coli.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 5
8) Bioinformatics is the use of computer technology to compare and analyze genome sequence.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 9.4
9) The Ti plasmid isolated from Agrobacterium can be used to insert DNA into any type of plant.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
10) The Bt toxin derived from Bacillus thuringiensis has been introduced into some crop plants to
make them resistant to insect destruction.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
9.3 Essay Questions
1) The local public health agency has received reports of an outbreak of Salmonella gastroenteritis
among attendees at a city-sponsored chili cook-off. What techniques from recombinant DNA
technology would the agency likely use to investigate this outbreak? Describe the expected results
from these techniques.
Section: 9.4
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 8
2) Pseudomonas syringae is found naturally in the soil. Sold as Snomax, it is used to make snow at
ski resorts. The same bacterium with a gene deletion (Ice-minus) is used to prevent ice formation on
plants. Should Snomax and Ice-minus be considered modified organisms and subject to precautions
of releasing genetically modified organisms? Explain why or why not.
Section: 9.4; 9.5
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 8
3) Your research group is investigating the possible use of genetically-engineered cells to produce a
vaccine for malaria. List the pros and cons of using E. coli, Saccharomyces, and animal cells to
produce the vaccine.
Section: 9.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 8
4) The development of DNA technology is bringing profound changes to science, agriculture and
healthcare. Provide one example of a DNA technology and provide at least one advantage and one
example of a concern or problem associated with its use.
Section: 9.5
ASMcue Outcome: 4.5
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 10 Classification of
Microorganisms
Chapter 10 Classification of Microorganisms
1) Which of the following statements about archaea is FALSE?
A) They are prokaryotes.
B) They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
C) Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles.
D) They evolved before bacteria.
E) Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
Answer: D
Section: 10.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 7
2) Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria?
A) prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids
B) eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
C) prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
D) complex cellular structures
E) multicellular
Answer: C
Section: 10.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
Global Outcome: 7
3) If two organisms have similar rRNA sequences, you can conclude that they
A) live in the same place.
B) evolved from a common ancestor.
C) will have different G-C ratios.
D) will both ferment lactose.
E) mated with each other.
Answer: B
Section: 10.1
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
Global Outcome: 7
4) What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi?
A) All members are photosynthetic.
B) Members absorb dissolved organic matter.
C) Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter.
D) All members are microscopic.
E) All members are macroscopic.
Answer: B
Section: 10.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
5) Which of the following statements about members of the Kingdom Plantae is FALSE?
A) They are multicellular.
B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells.
C) They undergo photosynthesis.
D) They use organic carbon sources.
E) They synthesize organic molecules.
Answer: D
Section: 10.2
6) Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Animalia is FALSE?
A) They are multicellular.
B) They are composed of eukaryotic cells.
C) They undergo photosynthesis.
D) They ingest nutrients through a mouth.
E) They are heterotrophs.
Answer: C
Section: 10.2
7) A genus can best be defined as
A) a taxon composed of families.
B) a taxon composed of one or more species and a classification level lying below family.
C) a taxon belonging to a species.
D) a taxon comprised of classes.
E) the most specific taxon.
Answer: B
Section: 10.2
8) A bacterial species differs from a species of eukaryotic organisms in that a bacterial

species
A) does not breed with other species.
B) has a limited geographical distribution.
C) can be distinguished from other bacterial species.
D) is a population of cells with similar characteristics.
E) breeds with its own species.
Answer: D
Section: 10.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.4
9) Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system?
A) Nucleotide sequences in ribosomal RNA vary between all three domains.
B) There are three distinctly different sets of metabolic reactions.
C) There are three distinctly different Gram reactions.
D) Some bacteria live in extreme environments.
E) There are three distinctly different types of nuclei.
Answer: A
Section: 10.1
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
Global Outcome: 7
10) A biochemical test, in the microbiology world, is used to determine
A) staining characteristics.
B) amino acid sequences of enzymes.
C) nucleic acid-base composition of DNA sequences.
D) capability of a microbe to perform a specific enzymatic activity.
Answer: D
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
11) Which of the following is NOT based on nucleic-acid hybridization?
A) DNA chip
B) FISH
C) PCR
D) Southern blotting
E) Western blotting
Answer: E
Section: 10.3
12) The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on
A) cell morphology.
B) Gram reaction.
C) rRNA sequences.
D) habitat.
E) diseases.
Answer: C
Section: 10.1
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
Global Outcome: 7
13) Which of the following statements is a reason for NOT classifying viruses in one of the
three
domains of life (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) rather than in a fourth separate domain?
A) Some viruses can incorporate their genome into a hosts genome.
B) Viruses direct anabolic pathways of host cells.
C) Viruses are obligate parasites.
D) Viruses are not composed of cells.
Answer: D
Section: 10.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
Global Outcome: 7
14) Which of the following provides taxonomic information that includes the information
obtained in the others listed?
A) nucleic acid hybridization
B) nucleic acid-base composition
C) amino acid sequencing
D) biochemical tests
E) cladogram
Answer: E
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
15) Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth
A) 350 years ago.
B) 3500 years ago.
C) 35000 years ago.
D) 3.5 billion years ago.
E) 3.5 1012 years ago.

Answer: D
Section: 10.1
Figure 10.1
16) In Figure 10.1, species c. is most closely related to which of the following?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: D
Section: 10.1
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
17) In Figure 10.1, the closest ancestor for both species a. and species b. would be which of
the following?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: E
Section: 10.1
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
18) Protists are a diverse group of organisms that are similar in
A) rRNA sequences.
B) metabolic type.
C) motility.
D) ecology.
Answer: A
Section: 10.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
19) In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the
A) specific epithet.
B) genus.
C) family.
D) order.
E) kingdom.
Answer: B
Section: 10.2
20) The arrangement of organisms into taxa
A) shows degrees of relatedness between organisms.
B) shows relationships to common ancestors.
C) was designed by Charles Darwin.
D) is arbitrary.
E) is based on evolution.
Answer: A
Section: 10.2
21) Bacteria and Archaea are similar in which of the following?
A) peptidoglycan cell walls
B) methionine as the start signal for protein synthesis
C) sensitivity to antibiotics
D) considered prokaryotic cells
E) plasma membrane ester linkage
Answer: D
Section: 10.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
22) Which of the following best defines a strain in microbiological terms?
A) a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species
B) a group of organisms with a limited geographical distribution
C) a mixed population of cells,genetically distinct, but with highly similar phenotypic

characteristics
D) groups of cells all derived from and identical to a single parent species
E) same as a species
Answer: A
Section: 10.2
23) Serological testing is based on the fact that
A) all bacteria have the same antigens.
B) antibodies react specifically with an antigen.
C) the human body makes antibodies against bacteria.
D) antibodies cause the formation of antigens.
E) bacteria clump together when mixed with any antibodies.
Answer: B
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
24) Phage typing is based on the fact that
A) bacteria are destroyed by viruses.
B) viruses cause disease.
C) bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species.
D) Staphylococcus causes infections.
E) phages and bacteria are related.
Answer: C
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
25) Organism A has 70 moles % G+C, and organism B has 40 moles % G+C. Which of the
following can be concluded from these data?
A) The two organisms are related.
B) The two organisms are unrelated.
C) The organisms make entirely different enzymes.
D) Their nucleic acids will completely hybridize.
Answer: B
Section: 10.3
Global Outcome: 2
26) Nucleic acid hybridization is based on the fact that
A) the strands of DNA can be separated.
B) a chromosome is composed of complementary strands.
C) pairing between complementary bases occurs.
D) DNA is composed of genes.
E) all cells have DNA.
Answer: C
Section: 10.3
27) One of the most popular taxonomic tools is DNA fingerprinting to develop profiles of
organisms. These profiles provide direct information about
A) enzymatic activities.
B) protein composition.
C) the presence of specific genes.
D) antigenic composition.
E) the similarities between nucleotide sequences.
Answer: E
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
28) All of the following statements are reasons why fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)
has become a valuable tool for environmental microbiologists EXCEPT
A) it allows for detection of uncultured microbes.
B) it demonstrates the diversity of microbes in an environment.
C) it allows observation of microbes in their natural environment in association with other

microbes.
D) it allows one to obtain pure cultures of microbes.
Answer: D
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
29) Which of the following criteria is most useful in determining whether two organisms are
related?
A) Both ferment lactose.
B) Both are gram-positive.
C) Both are motile.
D) Both are aerobic.
E) Each answer is equally important.
Answer: B
Section: 10.3
Global Outcome: 2
30) A clone is
A) genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.
B) a genetically engineered cell.
C) a taxon composed of species.
D) a mound of cells on an agar medium.
Answer: A
Section: 10.2
31) Figure 10.2
A nucleic acid hybridization experiment produced the following results.
In Figure 10.2, which figure shows the most closely related organisms?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: B
Section: 10.3
Global Outcome: 2
Table 10.1
1. 9+2 flagella
2. Nucleus
3. Plasma membrane
4. Peptidoglycan
5. Mitochondrion
6. Fimbriae
32) In Table 10.1, which features are found in nearly all eukarya?
A) 2, 3, 5
B) 1, 4, 6
C) 3, 5
D) 2, 3
E) 1, 2, 5
Answer: A
Section: 10.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
33) In Table 10.1, which feature(s) is (are) found only in prokaryotes?
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 4, 6
C) 2
D) 1
E) 2, 4, 5
Answer: B
Section: 10.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
34) Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls?
A) Animalia
B) Archaea
C) Bacteria
D) Fungi
E) Plantae
Answer: D
Section: 10.2
Global Outcome: 2
35) Figure 10.3
This figure shows the results of a gel electrophoresis separation of restriction fragments of
the DNA of different organisms.
In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related?
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 and 5
D) 2 and 5
E) 4 and 5
Answer: A
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 3
36) Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus?
A) Animalia
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Plantae
E) Protista
Answer: B
Section: 10.1
Global Outcome: 2
37) You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You
suspect the organism is in the group
A) Animalia.
B) Archaea.
C) Bacteria.
D) Fungi.
E) Plantae.
Answer: B
Section: 10.1
Global Outcome: 2
38) Into which group would you place a unicellular organism that has 70S ribosomes and a
peptidoglycan cell wall?
A) Animalia
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Plantae
E) Protist
Answer: B
Section: 10.1
Global Outcome: 2
Table 10.2
39) Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative cell that ferments
lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source.
A) Citrobacter
B) Escherichia
C) Lactobacillus
D) Pseudomonas
E) Staphylococcus
Answer: A
Section: 10.3
Global Outcome: 3
40) Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus.
A) Neisseria
B) Pseudomonas
C) Staphylococcus
D) Streptococcus
E) Micrococcus
Answer: A
Section: 10.3
41) Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives
inside the human liver?
A) Animalia
B) Fungi
C) Plantae
D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria)
E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)
Answer: A
Section: 10.2
Global Outcome: 2
42) Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and
has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?
A) Animalia
B) Fungi
C) Plantae
D) Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria)
E) Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)
Answer: E
Section: 10.1
Global Outcome: 2
43) Figure 10.4
In the cladogram shown in Figure 10.4, which two organisms are most closely related?
A) Streptomyces and Micrococcus

B) Micrococcus and Mycobacterium
C) Mycobacterium and Lactobacillus
D) Streptomyces and Lactobacillus
E) Streptomyces and Mycobacterium
Answer: B
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
Global Outcome: 3
44) Which of the following characteristics indicates that two organisms are closely related?
A) Both are cocci.
B) Both ferment lactose.
C) Their DNA can hybridize together.
D) Both normally live in clams.
E) Both are motile.
Answer: C
Section: 10.3
Global Outcome: 2
45) Data collected to date indicate that
A) humans and marine mammals cannot be infected by the same pathogens.
B) marine mammals do not get infectious diseases.
C) new species of bacteria will not be discovered in wild animals.
D) marine mammals dont have an immune system.
Answer: E
Section: 10.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) The cell membranes of all three domains are composed of straight carbon chains
attached to
glycerol by ester linkage.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 10.1
2) Chloroplasts possess circular DNA and reproduce by binary fission.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 10.2
3) As molecular techniques improve, scientists are finding it necessary to reclassify some

genera.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 10.3
4) The highest level in the current taxonomic hierarchy is Kingdom.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 10.1
5) Pure cultures of the same species are not always identical in all ways.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 10.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.4
Global Outcome: 2
6) At this point in time, scientists believe the vast majority of the domain Bacteria have
been discovered.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 10.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.4
7) Once a culture is purified, the next logical step in the process of identifying bacteria is
biochemical testing.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 10.3
8) Serological testing is used for screening bacterial isolates for similarities.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
9) Western blotting is an immunological test used to identify the antibodies in the serum of
an individual suspected of having Lyme disease.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
10) When building a cladogram, the length of the horizontal branch is based on the
calculated percent similarity between organisms.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
Global Outcome: 2
10.3 Essay Questions
1) Figure 10.5
Choose one of the phylogenetic schemes in Figure 10.5 and explain why you feel it is
preferable to the others.
Section: 10.1
Global Outcome: 8
2) Table 10.3
Use the information given in Table 10.3 to answer the following questions. Which organisms
are most closely related? On what did you base your answer? DNA from which organisms
will probably hybridize?
Section: 10.3
Global Outcome: 3
3) One of the advantages of some newly developed rapid identification tools is that pure
cultures are not needed. Why is a pure culture necessary for biochemical tests such as the
Enterotube, but not for DNA probes?
Section: 10.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 11 The Prokaryotes:

Domains Bacteria and Archaea
Chapter 11 The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
1) Which of the following are found primarily in the intestines of humans?
A) gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
B) aerobic, helical bacteria
C) facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
D) gram-positive cocci
E) endospore-forming rods
Answer: C
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) Figure 11.1
What is group c. in the key shown in Figure 11.1?
A) bacteroidetes
B) chlamydiae
C) fusobacteria
D) planctomycetes
E) spirochaetes
Answer: E
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
Global Outcome: 2
3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic inherent of the non-endospore-forming

gram-positive rods?
A) are aerotolerant
B) carry out fermentative metabolism
C) display a branched filamentous morphology
D) nonpathogenic
E) lack cell walls
Answer: D
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Neisseria?
A) requires X and V factors
B) cocci
C) gram-negative
D) oxidase-positive
E) Some species are human pathogens.
Answer: A
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
5) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can be easily differentiated in a laboratory by which one
of the following?
A) cell shape
B) Gram stain reaction
C) growth in high salt concentrations
D) ability to cause disease
E) glucose fermentation
Answer: C
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
6) Which of the following genera is an anaerobic gram-negative rod?
A) Escherichia
B) Staphylococcus
C) Bacteroides
D) Treponema
E) Neisseria
Answer: C
Section: 11.2
7) Which of the following do you expect to be MOST resistant to high temperatures?
A) Bacillus subtilis
B) Eschericia coli
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Staphylococcus aureus
E) Streptococcocus pyogenes
Answer: A
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 2
8) Which of the following is NOT an enteric?
A) Salmonella
B) Shigella
C) Escherichia
D) Enterobacter
E) Campylobacter
Answer: E
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of spirochetes?
A) possess an axial filament
B) gram-negative
C) helical shape
D) easily observed with brightfield microscopy
E) found in the human oral cavity
Answer: D
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
10) You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing an organic substrate
and nitrate in the absence of oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. You can be
sure that this bacterium is
A) gram-positive.
B) using anaerobic respiration.
C) a chemoautotroph.
D) a photoautotroph.
E) a photoheterotroph.
Answer: B
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
11) Which of the following lacks a cell wall?
A) Borrelia
B) Mycoplasma
C) Mycobacterium
D) Clostridium
E) Nocardia
Answer: B
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
12) Which of the following bacteria is gram-negative?
A) Treponema
B) Corynebacterium
C) Bacillus
D) Staphylococcus
E) Mycobacterium
Answer: A
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
13) Which of the following form conidiospores?
A) endospore-forming gram-positive rods and cocci
B) actinomycetes and related organisms
C) rickettsias
D) anaerobic gram-negative cocci
E) spiral and curved bacteria
Answer: B
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
A) dissimilatory sulfate-reducing bacteria produce H2S
B) archaea extremophiles
C) chemoautotrophic bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen
D) actinomycetes reproduce by fragmentation
E) Cytophaga a gliding, nonfruiting bacterium

Answer: C
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
Global Outcome: 2
15) Rickettsias differ from chlamydias in that rickettsias
A) are gram-negative.
B) are intracellular parasites.
C) require an arthropod for transmission.
D) form elementary bodies.
E) are enterics.
Answer: C
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
16) Requirements for X and V factors are used to identify
A) Staphylococcus.
B) Escherichia.
C) Neisseria.
D) Haemophilus.
E) Pseudomonas.
Answer: D
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
17) You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing only inorganic
nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized to a nitrate ion. This bacterium is
A) gram-negative.
B) using anaerobic respiration.
C) a chemoautotroph.
D) a photoautotroph.
E) a photoheterotroph.
Answer: C
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
18) Which of the following bacteria is gram-positive?
A) Pseudomonas
B) Salmonella
C) Streptococcus
D) Bacteroides
E) Rickettsia
Answer: C
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
19) Escherichia coli belongs to the
A) proteobacteria.
B) gram-positive bacteria.
C) green sulfur bacteria.
D) spirochetes.
E) actinomycetes.
Answer: A
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
20) Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others?
A) Bacillus
B) Escherichia
C) Lactobacillus
D) Staphylococcus
E) Streptococcus
Answer: B
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
Global Outcome: 2
21) Which of the following statements about the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted
fever is FALSE?
A) It is an intracellular parasite.
B) It is transmitted by ticks.
C) It is in the genus Rickettsia.
D) It is gram-negative.
E) It is found in soil and water.
Answer: E
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
22) A primary difference between cyanobacteria and purple and green phototrophic bacteria
is
A) energy source.
B) cell wall type.
C) electron donor for CO2 reduction.
D) cell type.
E) color.
Answer: C
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
23) Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others?
A) Bordetella
B) Burkholderia
C) Neisseria
D) Acidithiobacillus
E) Salmonella
Answer: E
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
Global Outcome: 2
24) Which of the following bacteria are responsible for more infections and more different
kinds of infections?
A) Streptococcus
B) Staphylococcus
C) Salmonella
D) Pseudomonas
E) Neisseria
Answer: A
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
25) Both Beggiatoa and the purple sulfur bacteria use H2S. These bacteria differ in
that Beggiatoa
A) uses H2S for an energy source.
B) uses H2S for a carbon source.
C) uses light energy.
D) belongs to the gammaproteobacteria.
E) is a heterotroph.
Answer: A
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
26) The nonsulfur photosynthetic bacteria use organic compounds as
A) carbon sources.
B) electron donors to reduce CO2.
C) energy sources.
D) electron acceptors.
E) oxygen sources.
Answer: B
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
27) Which of the following is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the Lactobacillales?
A) Gram reaction
B) morphology
C) fermentation of lactose
D) rRNA sequences
E) found in dairy products
Answer: D
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
28) Streptomyces differs from Actinomyces because Streptomyces
A) makes antibiotics.
B) produces conidia.
C) forms filaments.
D) is a strict aerobe.
E) is a bacterium.
Answer: D
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
29) All of the following bacteria are gram-positive. Which does NOT belong with the others?
A) Actinomyces
B) Gardnerella
C) Corynebacterium
D) Listeria
E) Mycobacterium
Answer: D
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 1.2
Global Outcome: 2
30) Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all
A) pathogens.
B) gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods.
C) gram-positive aerobic cocci.
D) fermentative.
E) endospore-forming bacteria.
Answer: B
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.2
31) You have isolated a gram-positive rod. What should you do next?
A) Gram stain
B) lactose fermentation
C) endospore stain
D) flagella stain
E) enterotube
Answer: C
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
32) Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because it
A) is aerobic.
B) possesses an axial filament.
C) is a rod.
D) is a pathogen.
E) is transmitted by ticks.
Answer: B
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
33) Thiobacillus oxidizes inorganic sulfur compounds and reduces CO2. This bacterium is a
A) chemoheterotroph.
B) chemoautotroph.
C) photoautotroph.
D) gammaproteobacteria.
E) photoheterotroph.
Answer: B
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
34) You have isolated a prokaryotic cell. The first step in identification is a(n)
A) Gram stain.
B) lactose fermentation test.
C) endospore stain.
D) flagella stain.
E) DNA fingerprint.
Answer: A
Section: 11.0
ASMcue Outcome: 8.1
35) Actinomycetes differ from fungi in that actinomycetes
A) are chemoheterotrophs.
B) lack a membrane-bounded nucleus.
C) require light.
D) are decomposers.
E) cause disease.
Answer: B
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
36) You have isolated an aerobic gram-positive, endospore-forming bacterium that grows
well on nutrient agar. To which of the following groups does it most likely belong?
A) phototrophic bacteria
B) gammaproteobacteria
C) deltaproteobacteria
D) bacillales
Answer: D
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
A) spirochete axial filament
B) aerobic, helical bacteria gram-negative
C) enterics gram-negative
D) mycobacteria acid-fast
E) Pseudomonas gram-positive
Answer: E
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
38) Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A) Coxiella
B) Ehrlichia
C) Rickettsia
D) Staphylococcus
E) Wolbachia
Answer: D
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
Global Outcome: 2
39) Caulobacter are different from most bacteria in that they
A) are gram-negative.
B) are gram-positive.
C) have stalks.
D) lack cell walls.
E) are motile.
Answer: C
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
40) All of the following bacteria are motile. Which does NOT have flagella?
A) Escherichia
B) helical bacteria
C) Pseudomonas
D) spirochetes
E) Salmonella
Answer: D
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
41) Which of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others?
A) Halobacterium
B) Halococcus
C) Methanobacterium
D) Staphylococcus
E) Sulfolobus
Answer: D
Section: 11.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
Learning Outcome: 11-11
Global Outcome: 2
42) Mycoplasmas differ from other bacteria in that they
A) grow inside host cells.
B) lack a cell wall.
C) are acid-fast.
D) are motile.
E) are gram-negative.
Answer: B
Section: 11.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
43) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
A) elementary body Escherichia

B) endospore Bacillus
C) endospore Clostridium
D) heterocyst cyanobacteria
E) myxospore gliding bacteria
Answer: A
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
44) Burkholderia was reclassified from the gammaproteobacteria to the betaproteobacteria
because
A) it grows in disinfectants.
B) it is a gram-negative rod.
C) it causes infections in cystic fibrosis patients.
D) it causes melioidosis.
E) its rRNA sequence is similar to that of Neisseria.

Answer: E
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
45) The crab industry needs female crabs for growing more crabs. What bacterium might be
used to ensure development of female crabs and shrimp?
A) Acinetobacter
B) Gemmata
C) Neisseria
D) Pelagibacter
E) Wolbachia
Answer: E
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) Bacterial predators such as Bdellovibrio are members of the betaproteobacteria.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) Two distinguishing factors of the epsilonproteobacteria that they are motile and
microaerophilic.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.2
3) Myxobacteria are classified as actinobacteria due to fungal-like lifestyle.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.2
4) The Gram stain is not suitable for identifying members of the Archaea.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 11.4
ASMcue Outcome: 1.2
5) The deinococci can be categorized as extremophiles.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
6) All gram-negative bacteria are classified as proteobacteria.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
7) The majority of bacterial species on Earth have not been successfully cultivated.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 11.5
ASMcue Outcome: 1.2
8) Photosynthetic organisms always produce oxygen gas as a metabolic byproduct.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
9) Currently, no members of Archaea have been linked to human disease.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 11.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
10) The human body is typically free of archaeal species.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 11.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) Explain the rationale for using molecular data for classification, in the place of
morphology.
Section: 11.0
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
Global Outcome: 8
2) The use of culture-independent techniques has increased our understanding of microbial

diversity without cultivation. Therefore, do microbiologists still need to attempt to grow new
microbial species? Explain.
Section: 11.5
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 8
3) Bacteroides and Escherichia are both gram-negative rods found in the large intestine. Why
are they in different phyla?
Section: 11.2
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
Global Outcome: 8
4) A colleague proposes that the Archaea may be the oldest life forms currently inhabiting
Earth. Do you agree? Explain.
Section: 11.4
ASMcue Outcome: 1.1
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 12 The Eukaryotes:

Fungi, Algae, Protozoa, and
Helminths
Chapter 12 The Eukaryotes: Fungi, Algae, Protozoa, and Helminths
1) Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE?
A) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.
B) Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs.
C) Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores.
D) Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition.
E) Fungi tolerate low moisture conditions.
Answer: A
Section: 12.1
2) Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE?
A) They are heterotrophic.
B) They are multicellular animals.
C) They have eukaryotic cells.
D) All are parasites.
E) Some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal.
Answer: D
Section: 12.6
3) Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE?
A) They form hyphae.
B) They produce zoospores in a sporangium.
C) They cause plant diseases.
D) They have chlorophyll.
E) They reproduce sexually.
Answer: D
Section: 12.3
4) Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all
seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover
wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites,
and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from
vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are
more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they
A) are aerobic.
B) can tolerate low-moisture conditions.
C) prefer a neutral environment (pH 7).
D) have a fermentative metabolism.
E) cannot tolerate high osmotic pressure.
Answer: B
Section: 12.1
Global Outcome: 2
5) Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?
A) Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.
B) Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga.
C) Lichens are often the first life form to colonize rock or soil.
D) The algal partner produces carbohydrates that are absorbed by the fungal partner.
E) The fungal partner provides a means of attachment and protects the algal partner from
desiccation.
Answer: A
Section: 12.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
Global Outcome: 2
A) Basidiomycota basidiospores
B) Ascomycota conidiospores
C) Zygomycota sporangiospores
D) microsporidia lack mitochondria
E) anamorphs lack spores
Answer: E
Section: 12.1
Table 12.1
1-Arthroconidium 5-Chlamydoconidium
2-Ascospore 6-Conidiospore
3-Basidiospore 7-Sporangiospore
4-Blastoconidium 8-Zygospore
7) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Penicillium?
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 2 and 6
D) 1 and 4
E) 4 and 6
Answer: C
Section: 12.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
8) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Rhizopus?
A) 1 and 2
B) 6 and 7
C) 2 and 8
D) 1 and 4
E) 7 and 8
Answer: E
Section: 12.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
9) In Table 12.1, which is a thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
Answer: C
Section: 12.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
10) In Table 12.1, which of these spores are asexual spores?
A) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7
B) 2, 3, 6, 8
C) 1, 3, 5, 8
D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 8
E) All of the spores are asexual.
Answer: A
Section: 12.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
A) teleomorph produces both sexual and asexual spores
B) dermatomycosis fungal infection of the skin
C) dimorphic fungus grows as a yeast or a mold
D) systemic mycosis fungal infection of body organs
E) coenocytic hyphae hyphae with cross-walls
Answer: E
Section: 12.1
12) Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE?
A) Protozoa are unicellular eukaryotes.
B) Nearly all protozoa cause disease.
C) Most protozoa reproduce asexually.
D) Protozoa are common in water and soil.
E) Some protozoan pathogens are transmitted by arthropod vectors.
Answer: B
Section: 12.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
13) In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on

prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was
placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred
to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35C on blood
agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large
(10 m) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on
February 1 and incubated at 25C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely
cause of the infection is a
A) gram-negative bacterium.
B) dimorphic fungus.
C) parasitic alga.
D) yeast.
E) protozoan.
Answer: B
Section: 12.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
14) Which of the following tends to be more complex in a parasitic helminth than in free-
living helminths?
A) digestive system
B) nervous system
C) reproductive system
D) digestive and nervous systems
E) digestive, reproductive, and nervous systems
Answer: C
Section: 12.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
A) Fungi produce sexual spores.
B) Fungi produce asexual spores.
C) Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi.
D) Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents.
E) Fungal spores are for asexual or sexual reproduction.
Answer: D
Section: 12.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
16) Which of the following pairs are mismatched?
1. arthroconidium formed by fragmentation
2. sporangiospore formed within hyphae
3. conidiospore formed in a chain
4. blastoconidium formed from a bud
5. chlamydoconidium formed in a sac
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 2 and 5
D) 3 and 4
E) 4 and 5
Answer: C
Section: 12.1
A) dinoflagellates paralytic shellfish poisoning
B) brown algae algin
C) red algae agar
D) diatoms petroleum
E) green algae prokaryotic
Answer: E
Section: 12.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
18) Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by
A) respiratory route.
B) genitourinary route.
C) gastrointestinal route.
D) vectors.
E) aerosols.
Answer: C
Section: 12.6
Global Outcome: 7
19) All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they
A) are hermaphroditic.
B) are dorsoventrally flattened.
C) have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.
D) can be divided into flukes and tapeworms.
E) are multicellular animals.
Answer: C
Section: 12.6
20) In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the ________ host, while mosquitoes are
the ________ host as well as the vector.
A) definitive; intermediate
B) intermediate; intermediate
C) temporary; final
D) vector; intermediate
E) intermediate; definitive
Answer: E
Section: 12.7
21) Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of
coughing, fever, and chest pain. During the rafting trip, the family had consumed crayfish
that they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients sputum revealed
helminth eggs, and serum samples were positive for antibodies to Paragonimus. All of the
family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel. In the Paragonimus life
cycle,
A) the crayfish are the definitive host and humans are the intermediate host.
B) humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host.
C) both humans and crayfish are intermediate hosts.
D) both humans and crayfish are definitive hosts.
E) the source of the infection was the river water.
Answer: B
Section: 12.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
22) The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a
A) redia.
B) cercaria.
C) cysticercus.
D) metacercaria.
E) proglottid.
Answer: C
Section: 12.6
23) Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a
human host?
A) lice
B) fleas
C) houseflies
D) mosquitoes
E) kissing bugs
Answer: C
Section: 12.7
24) Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?
A) They use light as their energy source.
B) They use CO2 as their carbon source.
C) They produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water.
D) All are unicellular.
E) Some are capable of sexual reproduction.
Answer: D
Section: 12.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.1
25) Below are paired items referring to the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs
is mismatched?
A) dog definitive host
B) dog sexual reproduction
C) mosquito vector
D) mosquito definitive host
E) None of the pairs is mismatched.
Answer: D
Section: 12.6
Global Outcome: 2
26) All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT which ONE of the following?
A) Most are photoautotrophs.
B) They are currently classified as plants.
C) They may be unicellular or multicellular.
D) Some produce harmful toxins.
E) They mostly live in aquatic habitats.
Answer: B
Section: 12.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.1
27) A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite?
A) miracidium
B) cyst
C) adult
D) larva
Answer: C
Section: 12.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
28) What do tapeworms eat?
A) intestinal bacteria
B) host tissues
C) red blood cells
D) intestinal contents
E) plant matter
Answer: D
Section: 12.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
29) Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they
A) are motile.
B) lack mitochondria.
C) lack nuclei.
D) do not produce cysts.
E) do produce cysts.
Answer: B
Section: 12.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.4
Global Outcome: 7
30) The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the
following is the most effective preventive measure?
A) salting fish before eating
B) refrigerating stored fish
C) cooking fish before eating
D) wearing gloves while handling fish
E) not swimming in fish-infested waters
Answer: C
Section: 12.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
Global Outcome: 2
31) Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?
A) vaccination
B) treating patients
C) eliminate Anopheles mosquitoes
D) eliminate the intermediate host
E) None of these is an effective control.
Answer: C
Section: 12.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
32) In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form
spores. This is a(n)
A) ascomycete.
B) cellular slime mold.
C) Euglenozoa.
D) tapeworm.
E) plasmodial slime mold.
Answer: E
Section: 12.5
Global Outcome: 2
33) You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and
produce spores. This is a(n)
A) ascomycete.
B) cellular slime mold.
C) Euglenozoa.
D) tapeworm.
E) plasmodial slime mold.
Answer: B
Section: 12.5
Global Outcome: 2
A) nematodes complete digestive tract
B) cestodes segmented body made of proglottids
C) trematodes flukes
D) nematodes many are free-living
E) cestodes all are free-living
Answer: E
Section: 12.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
35) Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the
incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores?
A) ascomycete
B) cellular slime mold
C) euglenozoa
D) tapeworm
E) plasmodial slime mold
Answer: A
Section: 12.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
36) Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan?
A) oomycote
B) cellular slime mold
C) Euglena
D) Phytophthora
E) plasmodial slime mold
Answer: C
Section: 12.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
A) tick Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B) tick Lyme disease
C) mosquito malaria
D) mosquito Pneumocystis
E) mosquito encephalitis
Answer: D
Section: 12.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
38) Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to
humans?
A) diatoms
B) dinoflagellates
C) green algae
D) red algae
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these groups of algae produce compounds toxic to
humans.
Answer: C
Section: 12.3
39) The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter
because
A) they have organelles.
B) they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming.
C) the large surface can absorb nutrients.
D) they form spores.
E) they have a mouth to ingest nutrients.
Answer: B
Section: 12.5
Global Outcome: 2
40) Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces
coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n)
A) ascomycete fungus.
B) green alga.
C) oomycote alga.
D) tapeworm.
E) zygomycete fungus.
Answer: C
Section: 12.3
Global Outcome: 2
41) If a larva of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the
A) definitive host.
B) infected host.
C) intermediate host.
D) reservoir.
Answer: C
Section: 12.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
42) Ringworm is caused by a(n)
A) fungus.
B) cestode.
C) nematode.
D) protozoan.
E) trematode.
Answer: A
Section: 12.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
43) Yeast infections are caused by
A) Aspergillus.
B) Candida albicans.
C) Histoplasma.
D) Penicillium.
E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
Answer: B
Section: 12.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
44) All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT
A) they are arranged in foliose, fruticose, or crustose morphologies.
B) they are a major food source for tundra herbivores.
C) they are used as indicators of air pollution.
D) they are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.
E) they serve as primary producers in rocky ecosystems.
Answer: D
Section: 12.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
Global Outcome: 2
45) You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the
MOST likely cause?
A) Cryptosporidium
B) diatoms
C) Entamoeba
D) Giardia
E) Taenia
Answer: A
Section: 12.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) Plasmogamy, karyogamy, and meiosis are stages of the fungal sexual life cycle.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 12.1
2) Arthropod vectors are blood-sucking animals such as ticks, lice, and fleas that transmit
microbial pathogens.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 12.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
3) Cercariae, metacercaria, redia, and sporocysts are all life cycle stages of trematodes.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 12.6
4) The Platyhelminthes group includes roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 12.6
5) Some species of dinoflagellates produce neurotoxins that cause fish kills and red tides.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 12.3
6) Both the cellular slime molds and the plasmodial slime molds are members of the phylum
Amoebozoa.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 12.5
7) In helminth life cycles, the organism that harbors the adult sexually reproductive phase
of the parasite is called the intermediate host.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 12.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
8) The sporozoite, merozoite, gametocyte, and ring stages are all part of the Plasmodium life
cycle.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 12.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) The insect vectors have six legs and include spiders, ticks, mosquitoes, and lice.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 12.7
10) Most cases of hookworm infection are acquired by ingestion of adult forms in
contaminated food or water.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 12.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) Provide an explanation for the complex life cycles exhibited by parasitic helminths. Cite
specific examples in your explanation.
Section: 12.6
Global Outcome: 8
2) Explain how the presence of algae can indicate either pollution or productivity of a body
of water.
Section: 12.3
Global Outcome: 8
3) Contrast the economic benefits and the harmful effects of fungi.
Section: 12.1
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 13 Viruses, Viroids, and
Prions
Chapter 13 Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
1) How do all viruses differ from bacteria?
A) Viruses are filterable.
B) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.
C) Viruses do not have any nucleic acid.
D) Viruses are not composed of cells.
E) Viruses do not reproduce.
Answer: D
Section: 13.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
2) Which of the following statements provides the most significant support for the idea that
viruses are nonliving chemicals?
A) They are not composed of cells.
B) They are filterable.
C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside a host.
D) They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals.
E) They are chemically simple.
Answer: C
Section: 13.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
Global Outcome: 2
3) Which of the following statements about viral spikes is FALSE?
A) They are composed of carbohydrate-protein complexes.
B) They are used for attachment.
C) They may cause hemagglutination.
D) They bind to receptors on the host cell surface.
E) They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
Answer: E
Section: 13.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
4) Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?
A) biochemical tests
B) morphology
C) nucleic acid
D) size
E) number of capsomeres
Answer: A
Section: 13.2
5) Which of the following is NOT utilized to culture viruses?
A) laboratory animals
B) culture media
C) embryonated eggs
D) animal cell cultures
E) bacterial cultures
Answer: B
Section: 13.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
6) Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the
following steps?
A) attachment
B) penetration
C) uncoating
D) biosynthesis
E) release
Answer: D
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
Global Outcome: 2
7) The definition of lysogeny is
A) phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.
B) lysis of the host cell due to a phage.
C) the period during replication when virions are not present.
D) when the burst time takes an unusually long time.
E) attachment of a phage to a cell.
Answer: A
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
8) A viroid is a(n)
A) complete, infectious virus particle.
B) infectious piece of RNA without a capsid.
C) capsid without nucleic acid.
D) provirus.
E) infectious protein.
Answer: B
Section: 13.10
Figure 13.1
9) In Figure 13.1, which structure is a complex virus?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) All of the structures are complex viruses.
Answer: B
Section: 13.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
10) The structures illustrated in Figure 13.1 are composed of
A) DNA.
B) RNA.
C) DNA or RNA.
D) Capsomeres.
E) viroids.
Answer: D
Section: 13.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
11) A clear area against a confluent lawn of bacteria is called a
A) phage.
B) pock.
C) cell lysis.
D) plaque.
E) rash.
Answer: D
Section: 13.4
12) Continuous cell lines differ from primary cell lines in that
A) viruses can be grown in continuous cell lines.
B) continuous cell lines always have to be re-isolated from animal tissues.
C) continuous cell lines are derived from primary cell lines.
D) continuous cell lines can be maintained through an indefinite number of generations.
E) continuous cell lines are from human embryos.
Answer: D
Section: 13.4
13) Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion?
A) DNA
B) DNA polymerase
C) lysozyme
D) PrPSc
E) RNA
Answer: D
Section: 13.9
14) A persistent infection is one in which
A) the virus remains in equilibrium with the host without causing a disease.
B) viral replication is unusually slow.
C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
D) host cells are gradually lysed.
E) host cells are transformed.
Answer: C
Section: 13.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
A) A prophage is phage DNA inserted into a bacterial chromosome.
B) A prophage can pop out of the chromosome.
C) Prophage genes are repressed by a repressor protein coded for by the prophage.
D) A prophage may result in new properties of the host cell.
E) The prophage makes the host cell immune to infection by other phages.
Answer: E
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
16) Lysogeny can result in all of the following EXCEPT
A) immunity to reinfection by the same phage.
B) acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell.
C) immunity to reinfection by any phage.
D) specialized transduction.
E) phage conversion.
Answer: C
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
17) Which of the following would be the first step in biosynthesis of a virus with a (minus)
strand of RNA?
A) synthesis of DNA from an RNA template
B) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from an RNA template
C) synthesis of double-stranded RNA from a DNA template
D) transcription of mRNA from DNA
E) synthesis of DNA from a DNA template
Answer: B
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
18) An infectious protein is a
A) bacteriophage.
B) prion.
C) retrovirus.
D) viroid.
E) papovavirus.
Answer: B
Section: 13.9
19) An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
A) penetration
B) adsorption
C) uncoating
D) biosynthesis
E) release
Answer: E
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
20) Which of the following statements is NOT true of lysogeny?
A) It can give infected pathogens the genetic information for toxin production.
B) Prophage is inserted into the host genome.
C) Lytic cycle may follow lysogeny.
D) It is a silent infection; the virus does not replicate.
E) It causes lysis of host cells.
Answer: E
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
21) An example of a latent viral infection is
A) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
B) cold sores.
C) influenza.
D) smallpox.
E) mumps.
Answer: B
Section: 13.7
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
22) A viruss ability to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the
A) host cells ability to phagocytize viral particles.
B) presence of receptor sites on the cell membrane.
C) type of viral nucleic acid.
D) enzymatic activity of a host cell.
E) presence of pili on the host cell wall.
Answer: B
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
23) Assume you have isolated an unknown virus. This virus has a single, positive sense
strand of RNA, and possesses an envelope. To which group does it most likely belong?
A) herpesvirus
B) picornavirus
C) retrovirus
D) togavirus
E) papovavirus
Answer: D
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
24) The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called
A) transduction.
B) budding.
C) abduction.
D) lysogeny.
E) penetration.
Answer: B
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
25) The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by
A) finding oncogenes in viruses.
B) the presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients.
C) cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates.
D) treating cancer with antibodies.
E) some liver cancer patients having had hepatitis.
Answer: C
Section: 13.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
26) Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT
A) lysozyme.
B) tRNA.
C) amino acids.
D) nucleotides.
E) ATP.
Answer: A
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
27) Bacteriophage replication differs from animal virus replication because only
bacteriophage replication involves
A) adsorption to specific receptors.
B) assembly of viral components.
C) replication of viral nucleic acid.
D) injection of naked nucleic acid into the host cell.
E) lysis of the host cell.
Answer: D
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
Global Outcome: 2
28) Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell
supplies all of the following EXCEPT
A) RNA polymerase.
B) nucleotides.
C) DNA polymerase.
D) tRNA.
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are supplied by the host animal cell.
Answer: C
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
29) Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication?
1. Maturation
2. DNA synthesis
3. Transcription
4. Translation
A) 1; 2; 3; 4
B) 2; 3; 4; 1
C) 3; 4; 1; 2
D) 4; 1; 2; 3
E) 4; 3; 2; 1
Answer: B
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
Global Outcome: 2
30) A viral species is a group of viruses that
A) has the same morphology and nucleic acid.
B) has the same genetic information and ecological niche.
C) infects the same cells and cause the same disease.
D) cannot be defined.
Answer: B
Section: 13.3
ASMcue Outcome: 1.5
31) Viruses that utilize reverse transcriptase belong to the virus families
A) Retroviridae and Picornaviridae.
B) Herpesviridae and Retroviridae.
C) Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae.
D) Herpesviridae and Poxviridae.
E) Rhabdoviridae and Herpesviridae.
Answer: C
Section: 13.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
32) DNA made from an RNA template will be incorporated into the virus capsid of
A) Retroviridae.
B) Herpesviridae.
C) Hepadnaviridae.
D) bacteriophage families.
E) influenzavirus.
Answer: C
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
33) Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE?
A) Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both.
B) Viruses contain a protein coat.
C) Viruses use the anabolic machinery of the cell.
D) Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
E) Viruses have genes.
Answer: D
Section: 13.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
34) A lytic virus has infected a patient. Which of the following would best describe what is
happening inside the patient?
A) The virus is causing the death of the infected cells in the patient.
B) The virus is not killing any cells in the host.
C) The virus is incorporating its nucleic acid with that of the patients cells.
D) The virus is slowly killing the patients cells.
E) The virus is infecting cells and then releasing only small amounts of virus.
Answer: A
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
35) Some viruses, such as human herpesvirus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms.
These are called
A) latent viruses.
B) lytic viruses.
C) phages.
D) slow viruses.
E) unconventional viruses.
Answer: A
Section: 13.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Figure 13.2
36) Assume a patient had chickenpox (human herpesvirus 3) as a child. Which line on the
graph in Figure 13.2 would show the number of viruses present in this person as a 60-year-
old with shingles (human herpesvirus 3)?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: E
Section: 13.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 3
37) Assume a patient has influenza. During which time on the graph in Figure 13.2 would
the patient show the symptoms of the illness?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: C
Section: 13.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
Global Outcome: 3
38) The following steps occur during multiplication of herpesviruses. Which is the third step?
A) attachment
B) biosynthesis
C) penetration
D) release
E) uncoating
Answer: E
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
Global Outcome: 2
39) The following steps occur during multiplication of retroviruses. Which is the fourth step?
A) synthesis of double-stranded DNA
B) synthesis of +RNA
C) attachment
D) penetration
E) uncoating
Answer: A
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
Global Outcome: 2
40) Oncogenic viruses
A) cause acute infections.
B) are genetically unstable.
C) cause tumors to develop.
D) are lytic viruses that kill the host cell.
E) have no effect on the host cell.
Answer: C
Section: 13.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
41) Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a
picornavirus?
A) synthesis of + strands of RNA
B) synthesis of strands of RNA
C) synthesis of viral proteins
D) synthesis of DNA
Answer: D
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
42) Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene?
A) capsid proteins
B) DNA polymerase
C) envelope proteins
D) spike proteins
E) lysozyme
Answer: B
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
43) Most RNA viruses carry which of the following enzymes?
A) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
B) lysozyme
C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D) reverse transcriptase
E) ATP synthase
Answer: C
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
44) The following steps occur during biosynthesis of a + strand RNA virus. What is the third
step?
A) attachment
B) penetration and uncoating
C) synthesis of strand RNA
D) synthesis of + strand RNA
E) synthesis of viral proteins
Answer: C
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
Global Outcome: 2
45) What contributes to antigenic shift in influenza viruses?
A) worldwide distribution of the virus
B) a segmented genome
C) attachment spikes
D) ease of virus transmission
E) different virus subtypes
Answer: B
Section: 13.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
46) ________ were first identified in cancer-causing viruses and can induce ________ in
infected cells.
A) Herpes viruses; lesions
B) Oncogenes; transformation
C) T antigens; lysis
D) Glycoprotein spikes; syncytia formation
E) Segmented genomes; reassortment
Answer: B
Section: 13.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
1) The basic mechanism of viral multiplication is similar for all viruses.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
Global Outcome: 2
2) A viroid is a completely developed infectious agent composed of nucleic acid and
surrounded by a capsid.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 13.10
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
3) Binomial nomenclature is used to name viruses.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 13.3
4) Glycoprotein spikes are found on the capsids of all viruses.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 13.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
5) Positive sense RNA strands of viruses are treated like mRNA inside the host cell.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
6) Dogs do not get measles because their cells lack the correct receptor sites for that virus.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 13.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
Global Outcome: 2
7) Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus envelope.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 13.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
8) Viruses are the only known infectious agents that are obligatory intracellular parasites.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 13.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) A segmented genome can result in antigenic shift.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 13.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
10) Most drugs that interfere with viral multiplication also interfere with host cell function.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 13.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
1) Bacteriophages are used as vectors in genetic engineering to insert new genes into
bacteria. Describe the process that makes this genetic recombination possible.
Section: 13.5
Global Outcome: 7
2) Compare and contrast the lytic cycle of infection of a DNA virus and an RNA virus.
Section: 13.5
Learning Outcome: 13.10a
Global Outcome: 8
3) Discuss why viruses are considered infectious particles on the borderline between living
and non-living.
Section: 13.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
Global Outcome: 7
4) Explain the steps involved in bacteriophage DNA entering a bacterial cell.
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
Global Outcome: 8
5) How is the replication of the viral genome of retroviruses unique among the viruses?
Section: 13.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.5
Global Outcome: 8
6) Researchers studying tissues of diseased marine mammals have identified what appear
to be viral particles by electron microscopy. Describe three methods you might use to
attempt to culture this virus for further study.
Section: 13.4
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 14 Principles of Disease

and Epidemiology
Chapter 14 Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
1) A commensal bacterium
A) does not receive any benefit from its host.
B) is beneficial to its host.
C) may also be an opportunistic pathogen.
D) isnt capable of causing disease in its host.
E) always causes disease in its host.
Answer: C
Section: 14.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
A) Both members are harmed in a symbiotic relationship.
B) Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
C) A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host.
D) Symbiosis always refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each
other.
E) At least one member must benefit in a symbiotic relationship.
Answer: E
Section: 14.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
3) A nosocomial infection is
A) always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization.
B) acquired during the course of hospitalization.
C) always caused by medical personnel.
D) only a result of surgery.
E) always caused by pathogenic bacteria.
Answer: B
Section: 14.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
4) The major significance of Robert Kochs work is that
A) microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.
B) diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another.
C) microorganisms can be cultured.
D) microorganisms cause disease.
E) microorganisms are the result of disease.
Answer: D
Section: 14.3
ASMcue Outcome: 7.4
Global Outcome: 5
5) Which of the following is NOT a verified exception in the use of Kochs postulates?
A) Some diseases have poorly defined etiologies.
B) Some pathogens can cause several disease conditions.
C) Some human diseases have no other known animal host.
D) Some diseases are not caused by microbes.
E) Some diseases are noncommunicable.
Answer: E
Section: 14.3
ASMcue Outcome: 7.4
Global Outcome: 5
6) Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet infection?
A) botulism
B) tuberculosis
C) measles
D) the common cold
E) diphtheria
Answer: A
Section: 14.6
7) Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological

transmission
A) occurs when a pathogen is carried on the feet of an insect.
B) involves fomites.
C) involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission.
D) requires direct contact.
E) works only with noncommunicable diseases.
Answer: C
Section: 14.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
8) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
A) endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population
B) epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world
C) pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time
D) sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally
E) incidence: number of new cases of a disease
Answer: B
Section: 14.4
9) Focal infections initially start out as
A) sepsis.
B) bacteremia.
C) local infections.
D) septicemia.
E) systemic infections.
Answer: C
Section: 14.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
10) The rise in herd immunity amongst a population can be directly attributed to
A) increased use of antibiotics.
B) improved handwashing.
C) vaccinations.
D) antibiotic-resistant microorganisms.
Answer: C
Section: 14.4
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
11) Koch observed Bacillus anthracis multiplying in the blood of cattle. What is this condition
called?
A) bacteremia
B) focal infection
C) local infection
D) septicemia
E) systemic infection
Answer: D
Section: 14.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
12) Which one of the following does NOT contribute to the incidence of nosocomial
infections?
A) antibiotic resistance
B) lapse in aseptic techniques
C) gram-negative cell walls
D) lack of handwashing
E) lack of insect control
Answer: C
Section: 14.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
13) Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota in that transient microbiota
A) cause diseases.
B) are found in a certain location on the host.
C) are always acquired by direct contact.
D) are present for a relatively short time.
E) never cause disease.
Answer: D
Section: 14.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
14) Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections is FALSE?
A) They occur in compromised patients.
B) They may be caused by opportunists.
C) They may be caused by drug-resistant bacteria.
D) They may be caused by normal microbiota.
E) The patient was infected before hospitalization.
Answer: E
Section: 14.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
15) One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal
microbiota. This can result in
A) body odor.
B) fewer diseases.
C) increased susceptibility to disease.
D) normal microbiota returning immediately.
E) no bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.
Answer: C
Section: 14.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
16) Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?
A) a sick person
B) a healthy person
C) a sick animal
D) a hospital
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these can be reservoirs of infection.
Answer: E
Section: 14.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
17) Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease?
A) malaria
B) AIDS
C) tuberculosis
D) tetanus
E) typhoid fever
Answer: D
Section: 14.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
18) Which of the following is a fomite?
A) water
B) droplets from a sneeze
C) pus
D) insects
E) a hypodermic needle
Answer: E
Section: 14.6
19) Which of the following statements about biological transmission is FALSE?
A) The pathogen reproduces in the vector.
B) The pathogen may enter the host in the vectors feces.
C) Houseflies are an important vector.
D) The pathogen may be injected by the bite of the vector.
E) The pathogen may require the vector as a host.
Answer: C
Section: 14.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
20) Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
A) acute: a short-lasting primary infection
B) inapparent: infection characteristic of a carrier state
C) chronic: a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months
D) primary infection: an initial illness
E) secondary infection: a long-lasting illness
Answer: E
Section: 14.4
21) Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
A) are changes felt by the patient.
B) are changes observed by the physician.
C) are specific for a particular disease.
D) always occur as part of a syndrome.
Answer: A
Section: 14.4
22) The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
A) ecology.
B) epidemiology.
C) communicable disease.
D) morbidity and mortality.
E) public health.
Answer: B
Section: 14.9
Global Outcome: 5
23) Figure 14.1
Figure 14.1 shows the incidence of influenza during a typical year. Which letter on the graph
indicates the endemic level?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
Answer: D
Section: 14.4
Global Outcome: 3
24) Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT
A) antibiotic resistance.
B) climatic changes.
C) new strains of previously known agents.
D) ease of travel.
E) The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.
Answer: E
Section: 14.8
Global Outcome: 7
A) malaria vector
B) salmonellosis vehicle transmission
C) syphilis direct contact
D) influenza droplet infection
Answer: E
Section: 14.6
26) Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?
A) using syringes more than once
B) normal microbiota on the operating room staff
C) errors in aseptic technique
D) antibiotic resistance
Answer: E
Section: 14.7
27) Figure 14.2
In Figure 14.2, when is the prevalence the highest?
A) July
B) January
C) February
D) March
Answer: C
Section: 14.4
Global Outcome: 3
28) A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of
A) direct contact.
B) droplet transmission.
C) fomite.
D) vector.
E) vehicle transmission.
Answer: E
Section: 14.6
29) A researcher has performed a prospective study on a disease. To which specific kind of
epidemiological study is this referring?
A) analytical
B) case control
C) descriptive
D) experimental
E) prodromal
Answer: C
Section: 14.9
Global Outcome: 1
30) The CDC is located in
A) Atlanta, GA.
B) Washington, DC.
C) New York City, NY.
D) Los Angeles, CA.
E) Chicago, IL.
Answer: A
Section: 14.9
31) A disease in which the causative agent remains inactive for a time before producing
symptoms is referred to as
A) subacute.
B) subclinical.
C) latent.
D) zoonotic.
E) acute.
Answer: C
Section: 14.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
32) A needlestick is an example of
A) direct contact.
B) droplet transmission.
C) indirect contact transmission by fomite.
D) direct biological transmission by vector.
E) vehicle transmission.
Answer: C
Section: 14.6
Global Outcome: 2
33) Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factor of disease?
A) lifestyle
B) genetic background
C) climate
D) occupation
E) All of these are predisposing factors of disease.
Answer: E
Section: 14.5
Global Outcome: 7
34) In which of the following diseases can gender be considered a viable predisposing
factor?
A) urinary tract infections
B) pneumonia
C) salmonellosis
D) tetanus
E) anthrax
Answer: A
Section: 14.5
Global Outcome: 7
35) In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or
symptoms?
A) prodromal
B) decline
C) convalescence
D) incubation
E) both incubation and convalescence
Answer: E
Section: 14.5
Global Outcome: 2
Situation 14.1
During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A
clinical case was defined as fever 39C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e.,
chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, fatigue, or feeling ill). A
laboratory-confirmed case was defined as a positive result for antibodies against Coxiella
burnetii. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept northwest of the town. Of the 20 sheep
tested from the flock, 15 were positive for C. burnetii antibodies. Wind blew from the
northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous
three years.
36) Situation 14.1 is an example of
A) human reservoirs.
B) a zoonosis.
C) a nonliving reservoir.
D) a vector.
E) a focal infection.
Answer: B
Section: 14.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
37) The etiologic agent of the disease in Situation 14.1 is
A) sheep.
B) soil.
C) Coxiella burnetii.
D) pneumonia.
E) wind.
Answer: C
Section: 14.1
Global Outcome: 2
38) The method of transmission of the disease in Situation 14.1 was
A) direct contact.
B) droplet.
C) indirect contact.
D) vector-borne.
E) vehicle.
Answer: E
Section: 14.6
Global Outcome: 2
39) Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial antagonism?
A) acid production by bacteria
B) bacteriocin production
C) bacteria occupying host receptors
D) bacteria causing disease
E) bacteria producing vitamin K
Answer: D
Section: 14.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
40) The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of
A) symbiotic bacteria.
B) antagonistic bacteria.
C) parasitic bacteria.
D) commensal bacteria.
E) other fungi.
Answer: B
Section: 14.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
41) If a prodromal period exists for a certain disease, it should occur prior to
A) incubation.
B) illness.
C) decline.
D) convalescence.
Answer: B
Section: 14.5
42) Which one of the following is NOT a zoonosis?
A) cat-scratch disease
B) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
C) rabies
D) tapeworm
E) All of these are zoonoses.
Answer: E
Section: 14.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
43) Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile duct of a patient following his liver transplant
surgery. This is an example of a
A) communicable disease.
B) latent infection.
C) nosocomial infection.
D) sporadic disease.
Answer: C
Section: 14.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
44) Figure 14.3
The graph in Figure 14.3 shows the incidence of polio in the United States. The period
between 1945 and 1955 indicates a(n)
A) endemic level.
B) epidemic level.
C) sporadic infection.
D) communicable disease.
E) pandemic.
Answer: B
Section: 14.4
Global Outcome: 3
A) Antimicrobial therapy for hemodialysis-associated infections increases antibiotic

resistance.
B) S. aureus is differentiated from other mannitol+ cocci by the coagulase test.
C) The M in MRSA stands for mannitol.
D) The USA100 strain accounts for most hospital-acquired MRSA.
E) The USA300 strain accounts for most community-acquired MRSA.
Answer: C
Section: 14.8
1) For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal
or greater than mortality rates.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 14.9
Global Outcome: 2
2) Testing the effectiveness of a new drug for anthrax would be best performed as an
experimental study.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 14.9
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 1
3) MMWR is a publication by the CDC that reports on only emerging diseases.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 14.9
Global Outcome: 5
4) A researcher only needs to select a cohort group when implementing an analytical

epidemiological study.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 14.8
ASMcue Outcome: 7.1
Global Outcome: 1
5) Diseases that are referred to as emerging infectious diseases have only been discovered
in the past fifty years.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 14.8
Global Outcome: 7
6) Compromised hosts are always suffering from suppressed immune systems.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 14.7
7) A host is not considered diseased until an infection changes ones state of health.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 14.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
8) Reservoirs of infections are always animate objects.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 14.6
9) Urinary tract infections are the most common forms of nosocomial infections.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 14.7
10) Both normal and transient flora can become opportunistic pathogens.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 14.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Situation 14.2
A 37-week-old infant was delivered by cesarean section and discharged from a Connecticut
hospital when he was ten days old. Two days later he was lethargic and had a fever. When
he was readmitted to the hospital, he had multiple brain abscesses caused by Citrobacter
diversus. After a prolonged illness, the baby died. A second infant with a normal pregnancy
and delivery died of C. diversus meningitis after a short illness. Nine infants in the hospital
nursery had umbilical cord colonization by C. diversus. Environmental cultures were negative
for hospital equipment.
1) Refer to Situation 14.2 What is the normal habitat of this gram-negative, facultatively
anaerobic, non-endospore-forming, lactose-positive rod? Provide a plan for identifying the
source of infection and preventing further infection.
Section: 14.7
Global Outcome: 8
2) Figure 14.4
Salmonella Heidelberg gastroenteritis occurred on three cruises aboard the T.S.S. Festivale.
Figure 14.4 shows on-board clinic visits for diarrheal illness between February 10 and March
3. Explain the incidence pattern shown on the graph. What are probable modes of
transmission? What changes would you recommend before the ship books more cruises
after March 3?
Section: 14.9
Global Outcome: 3
3) Dengue fever, a zoonotic disease, is endemic in northern Mexico, but not in the U.S.
Provide two plausible explanations for this dichotomy, and explain.
Section: 14.8
Global Outcome: 8
4) When studying the epidemiology of a particular disease, why are retrospective studies
commonly undertaken before prospective studies?
Section: 14.9
Global Outcome: 1
5) Would you expect all EIDs to be on the notifiable infectious disease list? Explain.
Section: 14.8
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 15 Microbial
Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
Chapter 15 Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
1) The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
A) mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
B) mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.
C) skin.
D) parenteral route.
E) All of these portals are used equally.
Answer: A
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface
molecules and evade destruction by the hosts antibodies is called
A) antigenic variation.
B) lysogenic conversion.
C) virulence.
D) cytopathic effect.
E) cytocidal effect.
Answer: A
Section: 15.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
3) Most pathogens that gain access through the skin
A) can penetrate intact skin.
B) just infect the skin itself.
C) enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.
D) must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate.
E) must be injected.
Answer: C
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
4) The ID50 is
A) a measure of pathogenicity.
B) the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population.
C) the dose that will kill some of the test population.
D) the dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population.
E) the dose that will kill 50 percent of the test population.
Answer: B
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
5) All of the following contribute to a pathogens invasiveness EXCEPT
A) toxins.
B) capsules.
C) cell wall components.
D) hyaluronidase.
E) coagulases.
Answer: A
Section: 15.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
A) Leukocidins destroy neutrophils.
B) Hemolysins lyse red blood cells.
C) Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells.
D) Kinase destroys fibrin clots.
E) Coagulase destroys blood clots.
Answer: E
Section: 15.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
7) Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally FALSE?
A) They are more potent than endotoxins.
B) They are composed of proteins.
C) They are resistant to heat.
D) They have specific methods of action.
E) They are produced by gram-positive bacteria.
Answer: C
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
8) Endotoxins are
A) associated with gram-positive bacteria.
B) molecules that bind nerve cells.
C) part of the gram-negative cell wall.
D) excreted from the cell.
E) A-B toxins.
Answer: C
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin?
A) A-B toxin
B) hemolysin
C) leukocidin
D) streptolysin O
E) streptolysin S
Answer: A
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
10) Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to
A) viral infections.
B) protozoan infections.
C) fungal infections.
D) bacterial infections.
E) helminthic infections.
Answer: A
Section: 15.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
11) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the symptoms of a fungal disease?
A) capsules
B) toxins
C) allergic response of the host
D) cell walls
E) metabolic products
Answer: D
Section: 15.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
12) All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies EXCEPT
A) antigenic changes.
B) IgA proteases.
C) invasins.
D) membrane-disrupting toxins.
E) inducing endocytosis.
Answer: D
Section: 15.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
13) Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the hosts
A) antibodies.
B) red blood cells.
C) iron-transport proteins.
D) white blood cells.
E) receptors.
Answer: C
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
14) The fimbriae of Neisseria gonorrhea and enteropathogenic E. coli are examples of
A) adhesins.
B) ligands.
C) receptors.
D) adhesins and ligands.
E) adhesins, ligands, and receptors.
Answer: D
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
15) All of the following are examples of entry via the parenteral route EXCEPT
A) injection.
B) bite.
C) surgery.
D) hair follicle.
E) skin cut.
Answer: D
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
16) Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to

produce
A) endotoxins.
B) exotoxins.
C) cytokines.
D) leukocidins.
E) interferons.
Answer: C
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
17) Botulism is caused by ingestion of a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore, it can easily be

prevented by
A) boiling food prior to consumption.
B) administering antibiotics to patients.
C) not eating canned food.
D) preventing fecal contamination of food.
E) filtering food.
Answer: A
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
18) All of the following organisms produce exotoxins EXCEPT
A) Salmonella typhi.
B) Clostridium botulinum.
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
D) Clostridium tetani.
E) Staphylococcus aureus.
Answer: A
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
19) Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal?
A) inclusion bodies
B) giant cells
C) antigenic changes
D) transformation
E) release of enzymes from lysosomes
Answer: E
Section: 15.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
20) All of the following are used by bacteria to attach to host cells EXCEPT
A) M protein.
B) ligands.
C) fimbriae.
D) capsules.
E) A-B toxins.
Answer: E
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
21) Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to
A) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues.
B) waste products excreted by the parasite.
C) products released from damaged tissues.
D) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues and waste products excreted
by the parasite.
E) tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues, waste products excreted by
the parasite, and products released from damaged tissues.
Answer: E
Section: 15.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
22) Which of the following statements about staphylococcal enterotoxin is FALSE?
A) It causes vomiting.
B) It causes diarrhea.
C) It is an exotoxin.
D) It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the hosts intestines.
E) It is a superantigen.
Answer: D
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
23) Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen?
A) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host
B) evasion of host defenses
C) toxin production
D) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host and evasion of host defenses
E) numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses, and
toxin production
Answer: E
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
24) Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages
A) give new gene sequences to the host bacteria.
B) produce toxins.
C) carry plasmids.
D) kill the bacteria, causing release of endotoxins.
E) kill human cells.
Answer: A
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
25) Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six
hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with
cream sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is
A) botulinum toxin.
B) aflatoxin.
C) staphylococcal enterotoxin.
D) erythrogenic toxin.
E) cholera toxin.
Answer: D
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
26) Which of the following statements about M protein is FALSE?
A) It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) It is found on fimbriae.
C) It is heat- and acid-resistant.
D) It is readily digested by phagocytes.
E) It is a protein.
Answer: D
Section: 15.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
27) Symptoms of intense inflammation and shock occur in some gram-positive bacterial
infections due to
A) A-B toxins.
B) lipid A.
C) membrane-disrupting toxins.
D) superantigens.
E) erythrogenic toxin.
Answer: D
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
28) Which of the following is an example of direct damage due to bacterial infection?
A) the uncontrolled muscle contractions in Clostridium tetani infection

B) the invasion and lysis of intestinal cells by E. coli
C) the hemolysis of red blood cells in a staphylococcal infection
D) the fever, nausea, and low blood pressure in a Salmonella infection

E) the excessive secretion of fluids in a Vibrio cholera infection
Answer: B
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
29) Polio is transmitted by ingestion of water contaminated with feces containing polio virus.
What portal of entry does polio virus use?
A) skin only
B) parenteral only
C) mucous membranes only
D) skin and parenteral
E) skin, parenteral, and mucous membranes
Answer: C
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
30) All of the following bacteria release endotoxin EXCEPT
A) Clostridium botulinum.
B) Salmonella typhi.
C) Neisseria meningitidis.
D) Proteus vulgaris.
E) Haemophilus influenzae.
Answer: A
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
31) Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on target cells. If the
gangliosides were removed,
A) polypeptide A would bind to target cells.
B) polypeptide A would enter the cells.
C) polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells.
D) Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin.

E) Vibrio would bind to target cells.
Answer: C
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
32) Bacteria such as E. coli and Salmonella produce invasins that bind host cells, thus
causing the cells to
A) release TNF.
B) produce iron-binding proteins.
C) engulf the bacteria.
D) destroy the bacteria.
E) release cytokines.
Answer: C
Section: 15.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
33) Which of the following mechanisms is used by gram-negative bacteria to cross the
blood-brain barrier?
A) producing fimbriae
B) inducing endocytosis
C) producing toxins
D) inducing TNF
E) antigenic variation
Answer: D
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
34) Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by
A) the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test.
B) counting the viable bacteria.
C) filtering out the cells.
D) looking for turbidity.
E) culturing bacteria.
Answer: A
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
35) Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs could cause
A) infection.
B) septic shock symptoms.
C) giant cell formation.
D) nerve damage.
E) no damage, because they are sterile.
Answer: B
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
36) Gram-negative septic shock results from the following events. What is the second step?
A) Body temperature is reset in the hypothalamus.
B) Fever occurs.
C) IL-1 is released.
D) LPS is released from gram-negative bacteria.
E) Phagocytes ingest gram-negative bacteria.
Answer: D
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
37) Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat
A) viral infections.
B) gram-negative bacterial infections.
C) gram-positive bacterial infections.
D) protozoan infections.
E) helminth infestations.
Answer: B
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
38) Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses?
A) cell death
B) host cells fusing to form multinucleated syncytia
C) inclusion bodies forming in the cytoplasm or nucleus
D) increased cell growth
E) toxin production
Answer: E
Section: 15.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
39) Table 15.1
Bacterium Portal of Entry ID5
Wound <10
Staphylococcus aureus
Wound + Ampicillin 300

Staphylococcus aureus
Table 15.1 shows the ID50 for Staphylococcus aureus in wounds with and without the
administration of ampicillin before surgery. Based on the data, the administration of
ampicillin before surgery
A) decreases the risk of staphylococcal infection.
B) increases the risk of staphylococcal infection.
C) has no effect on risk of infection.
D) replaces tetracycline.
Answer: A
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 3
Table 15.2
Bacterium ID50
20
E. coli O157:H7
1
Legionella pneumophila
10
Shigella
57
Treponema pallidum
40) Which organism in Table 15.2 most easily causes an infection?
A) E. coli O157:H7
B) Legionella pneumophila
C) Shigella
D) Treponema pallidum
Answer: B
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 3
41) Which organism in Table 15.2 causes the most severe disease?
A) E. coli O157:H7
B) Legionella pneumophila
C) Shigella
E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.
Answer: E
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 3
42) Bacteria that cause periodontal disease have adhesins for receptors on streptococci that
colonize on teeth. This indicates that
A) streptococci get bacterial infections.
B) streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease.
C) bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to gums and teeth.
D) bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to teeth.
E) streptococci cause periodontal disease.
Answer: B
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
43) Nonpathogenic Vibrio cholerae can acquire the cholera toxin gene by
A) phagocytosis.
B) transduction.
C) conjugation.
D) transformation.
E) infecting a pathogenic Vibrio cholerae.

Answer: B
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
44) In response to the presence of endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor.
This causes
A) the disease to subside.
B) a decrease in blood pressure.
C) a fever.
D) a gram-negative infection.
E) an increase in red blood cells.
Answer: B
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
45) Patients developed inflammation a few hours following eye surgery. Instruments and
solutions were sterile, and the Limulus assay was positive. The patients inflammation was
due to
A) bacterial infection.
B) viral infection.
C) endotoxin.
D) exotoxin.
Answer: C
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) In general, the LD50 for exotoxins is much greater than the LD50 for endotoxins.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) Biofilms provide pathogens with an adhesion mechanism and aid in resistance to
antimicrobial agents.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 15.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.2
3) The M protein enhances the virulence of Streptococcus by preventing phagocytosis.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 15.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
4) In A-B exotoxins, the A component binds to the host cell receptor so that the B
component can enter the cell.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
5) The Limulus amoebocyte assay is used to detect minute amounts of endotoxin in drugs
and medical devices.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
6) Cytopathic effects, such as inclusion bodies and syncytium formation, are the visible signs
of viral infections.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 15.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
7) Ergot and aflatoxin are toxins sometimes found in grains contaminated with fungi.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 15.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
8) Most symptoms of endotoxins can be treated with administration of anti-endotoxin

antibodies.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) Infections with some viruses may induce chromosomal changes that alter the growth
properties of host cells.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 15.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
10) Many pathogens use the same portal for entry and exit from the body.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 15.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) Antibiotics can kill gram-negative bacteria, but symptoms of fever and low blood pressure
can persist. Why?
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
2) Some pathogens evade phagocytosis, while other pathogens evade host defenses by
entering host cells. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of both of these evasion
strategies.
Section: 15.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
3) Compare and contrast endotoxins and exotoxins. Why are exotoxins more potent than
endotoxins?
Section: 15.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 16 Innate Immunity:

Nonspecific Defenses of the
Host
Chapter 16 Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
1) Innate immunity
A) is slower than adaptive immunity in responding to pathogens.
B) is nonspecific and present at birth.
C) involves a memory component.
D) involves T cells and B cells.
E) provides increased susceptibility to disease.
Answer: B
Section: 16.1
2) All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT
A) multiple layers of cells.
B) tears.
C) saliva.
D) HCl.
E) the ciliary escalator.
Answer: D
Section: 16.2
3) The function of the ciliary escalator is to
A) propel inhaled dust and microorganisms toward the mouth, away from the lower
respiratory tract.
B) remove microorganisms from the gastrointestinal tract.
C) remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract.
D) trap microorganisms in mucus in the upper respiratory tract.
E) trap inhaled dust and microorganisms in mucus and propel it away from the lower
respiratory tract.
Answer: E
Section: 16.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
4) Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
A) eosinophils
B) erythrocytes
C) macrophages
D) basophils
E) neutrophils
Answer: C
Section: 16.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
5) TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT
A) AMPs.
B) flagellin.
C) LPS.
D) PAMPs.
E) peptidoglycan.
Answer: A
Section: 16.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
6) A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT
A) the total number of white blood cells.
B) the numbers of each type of white blood cell.
C) the number of red blood cells.
D) leukocytosis.
E) leukopenia.
Answer: C
Section: 16.5
7) The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative
pathway, and lectin pathway after the point in the cascade where the activation of
________ takes place.
A) C1
B) C2
C) C3
D) C5
E) C6
Answer: C
Section: 16.10a
Global Outcome: 2
8) All of the following increase blood vessel permeability EXCEPT
A) kinins.
B) prostaglandins.
C) lysozymes.
D) histamine.
E) leukotrienes.
Answer: C
Section: 16.8
9) A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is
bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating
contaminating microbes?
A) mucociliary escalator
B) normal skin flora
C) phagocytosis in the inflammatory response
D) acidic skin secretions
E) lysozyme
Answer: C
Section: 16.8
Global Outcome: 2
10) Margination refers to
A) the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms.
B) the chemotactic response of phagocytes.
C) adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.
D) dilation of blood vessels.
E) the movement of phagocytes through walls of blood vessels.
Answer: C
Section: 16.8
A) All three types of interferons have the same effect on the body.
B) Alpha interferon promotes phagocytosis.
C) Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages.
D) Alpha interferon acts against specific viruses.
E) Beta interferon attacks invading viruses.
Answer: C
Section: 16.10a
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
12) Which of the following is found normally in serum?
A) complement
B) interferon
C) histamine
D) leukocytosis-promoting factor
E) TLRs
Answer: A
Section: 16.10a
13) Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT
A) interference with viral replication.
B) bacterial cell lysis.
C) opsonization.
D) increased phagocytic activity.
E) increased blood vessel permeability.
Answer: A
Section: 16.10a
14) Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?
A) increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
B) increased margination of phagocytes
C) increased diapedesis of phagocytes
D) inflammation
E) cytolysis
Answer: A
Section: 16.7
15) Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways
EXCEPT
A) they produce antibacterial chemicals.
B) they compete with pathogens for nutrients.
C) they make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria.
D) they produce lysozyme.
E) they change the pH of the environment.
Answer: D
Section: 16.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
16) Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT
A) M protein.
B) capsules.
C) formation of phagolysosomes.
D) leukocidins.
E) biofilms.
Answer: C
Section: 16.7
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
17) The antimicrobial effects of AMPs include all of the following EXCEPT
A) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.
B) lysis of bacterial cells.
C) destruction of nucleic acids.
D) pore formation in bacterial membranes.
E) inhibition of phagocytosis.
Answer: E
Section: 16.10a
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
18) The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid
A) returns to the blood.
B) goes into lymph capillaries.
C) is excreted in urine.
D) is lost as perspiration.
E) is transported into macrophages.
Answer: B
Section: 16.8
19) Which of the following statements about fixed macrophages is FALSE?
A) They are found in certain tissues and organs.
B) They develop from neutrophils.
C) They are cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system.
D) They are mature monocytes.
E) They gather at sites of infection.
Answer: B
Section: 16.5
20) Phagocytes utilize all of the following to optimize interaction with (getting to and getting
hold of) microorganisms EXCEPT
A) trapping a bacterium against a rough surface.
B) opsonization.
C) chemotaxis.
D) lysozyme.
E) complement.
Answer: D
Section: 16.7
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
21) All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT
A) vasodilation.
B) fever.
C) swelling.
D) redness.
E) pain.
Answer: B
Section: 16.8
22) All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT
A) destruction of an injurious agent.
B) removal of an injurious agent.
C) isolation of an injurious agent.
D) repair of damaged tissue.
E) production of antibodies.
Answer: E
Section: 16.8
23) A chill is a sign that
A) body temperature is falling.
B) body temperature is rising.
C) body temperature is not changing.
D) the metabolic rate is decreasing.
E) blood vessels are dilating.
Answer: B
Section: 16.9
A) There are at least thirty complement proteins.
B) All of the complement proteins are constantly active in serum.
C) Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis.
D) Complement activity is antigen-specific.
E) Complement increases after immunization.
Answer: A
Section: 16.10a
25) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) diapedesis movement of leukocytes between capillary walls cells out of blood and into
tissue
B) chemotaxis chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome
C) abcess a cavity created by tissue damage and filled with pus
D) pus tissue debris and dead phagocytes in a white or yellow fluid
E) scab dried blood clot over injured tissue
Answer: B
Section: 16.8
26) All of the following are part of the mechanism of action of alpha and beta interferons
EXCEPT
A) they bind to the surface of uninfected cells.
B) they are effective for long periods.
C) they initiate manufacture of antiviral proteins.
D) they disrupt stages of viral multiplication.
E) they initiate transcription.
Answer: B
Section: 16.10a
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
27) The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by
A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3.
B) C5-C9.
C) antigen-antibody reactions.
D) factors released from phagocytes.
E) factors released from damaged tissues.
Answer: A
Section: 16.10a
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
28) The classical pathway for complement activation is initiated by
A) lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3.
B) C5-C9.
C) antigen-antibody reactions.
D) factors released from phagocytes.
E) factors released from damaged tissues.
Answer: C
Section: 16.10a
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
29) Activation of C3a results in
A) acute inflammation.
B) increased blood vessel permeability.
C) opsonization.
D) attraction of phagocytes.
E) cell lysis.
Answer: A
Section: 16.10a
30) Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to
A) undergo chemotaxis.
B) migrate.
C) produce toxic oxygen products.
D) attach to microorganisms and other foreign material.
E) engulf microorganisms and other foreign material.
Answer: C
Section: 16.7
Global Outcome: 2
31) Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) phagocytosis.
B) inflammation.
C) production of antibody.
D) production of interferon.
E) activation of complement.
Answer: C
Section: 16.1
32) After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produce all of the following EXCEPT
A) complement.
B) O2-.
C) H2O2.
D) OH.
E) HOCl.
Answer: A
Section: 16.7
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
33) Activation of C5-C9 results in
A) activation of C3.
B) fixation of complement.
C) lysis of microbial cells.
D) phagocytosis.
E) inflammation.
Answer: C
Section: 16.10a
34) All of the following are true regarding NK cells EXCEPT
A) they are a type of lymphocyte.
B) they are found in tissues of the lymphatic system.
C) they have the ability to kill infected body cells and some tumor cells.
D) they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis.
E) they release toxic substances that cause cell lysis or apoptosis.
Answer: D
Section: 16.5
35) Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?
A) basophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes
E) neutrophils
Answer: B
Section: 16.5
36) Macrophages arise from which of the following?
A) basophils
B) eosinophils
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes
E) neutrophils
Answer: D
Section: 16.5
37) All of the following pertain to fever EXCEPT that it
A) accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract.
B) stimulates T lymphocyte activity.
C) is caused by interleukin-1 and TNF-alpha coming into contact with the hypothalamus.
D) intensifies the effect of antiviral interferons.
E) can be initiated by specific types of pathogens.
Answer: A
Section: 16.9
Global Outcome: 2
38) All of the following are iron-binding proteins found in humans EXCEPT
A) lactoferrin.
B) transferrin.
C) hemoglobin.
D) siderophorin.
E) ferritin.
Answer: D
Section: 16.10a
39) All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step?
A) diapedesis
B) margination
C) phagocyte migration
D) repair
E) vasodilation
Answer: E
Section: 16.8
40) The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by
A) mannose on host membranes.
B) mannose on the surface of microbes.
C) lectins of the microbe.
D) gram-negative cell walls.
E) gram-positive cell walls.
Answer: B
Section: 16.10a
41) All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT
A) dilation of blood vessels.
B) release of histamines and prostaglandins.
C) chemotaxis.
D) diapedesis.
E) antibody synthesis.
Answer: E
Section: 16.8
42) Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which of the
following would be the MOST severe?
A) deficiency of C3
B) deficiency of C5
C) deficiency of C6
D) deficiency of C7
E) deficiency of C8
Answer: A
Section: 16.10a
Global Outcome: 2
43) Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation
is FALSE?
A) C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway.
B) The C1 protein complex is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes.
C) C3 is not involved in the classical pathway.
D) Cleaved fragments of some of the proteins act to increase inflammation.
E) C3b causes opsonization.
Answer: C
Section: 16.10a
44) Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they
both cause damage to the bacterial
A) cell membrane.
B) capsule.
C) cell wall.
D) DNA.
E) ribosomes.
Answer: C
Section: 16.7
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
Global Outcome: 7
45) Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure
or body fluid?
A) lysozyme tears and saliva
B) mucociliary escalator intestines
C) very acidic pH stomach
D) keratin and tightly packed cells skin
E) cerumen and sebum ear
Answer: B
Section: 16.2
1) The dermis is composed of connective tissue and serves the primary purpose of providing
direct protection from the external environment.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 16.2
Global Outcome: 7
2) Microorganisms that are members of the normal microbiota are also known to cause
disease.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 16.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
3) Maturation of stem cells into mature blood cells occurs in the red bone marrow.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 16.5
4) The inflammatory response can only be triggered by an infection.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 16.8
Global Outcome: 2
5) Histamine and kinins cause increased blood flow and capillary permeability.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 16.8
6) Aspirin alleviates pain, inflammation, and fever by inhibiting prostaglandins.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 16.8
7) Complement proteins in their intact and unactivated form act as opsonins by binding to
microorganisms and promoting phagocytosis.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 16.10a
8) Digestion of microorganisms occurs in phagosomes.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 16.7
Global Outcome: 7
9) An example of a TLR would be peptidoglycan found in the cell wall of gram-positive

bacteria.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 16.1
10) Ingestion of certain lactic acid bacteria (LABs) has been shown to be beneficial for
function and health of the intestinal tract.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 16.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
1) Explain how each of the following avoids being killed by phagocytes.
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Shigella dysenteriae
Section: 16.7
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 8
2) The complement system is extremely important in the innate defense response. It can be
said that this system is a cascade system. Explain this statement.
Section: 16.10a
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 8
3) Describe the nonspecific antimicrobial effects of mucus, lysozyme, and low pH. For each
of these substances, list where they are found in the body and how they function in fighting
pathogens.
Section: 16.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 8
4) Describe and differentiate between the three pathways of activating complement.
Section: 16.10a
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 17 Adaptive Immunity:

Specific Defenses of the Host
Chapter 17 Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
1) What type of immunity results from vaccination?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) naturally acquired passive immunity
D) artificially acquired active immunity
E) artificially acquired passive immunity
Answer: D
Section: 17.11
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
Global Outcome: 5
2) What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a
susceptible individual by means of injection?
A) innate immunity
Answer: E
Section: 17.11
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
3) What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?
A) innate immunity
Answer: B
Section: 17.11
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
4) Which of the following is the best definition of epitope?
A) specific regions on antigens that interact with T-cell receptors
B) specific regions on antigens that interact with MHC class molecules
C) specific regions on antigens that interact with haptens
D) specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies
E) specific regions on antigens that interact with perforins
Answer: D
Section: 17.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
5) Newborns immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example
of
A) innate immunity.
B) naturally acquired active immunity.
C) naturally acquired passive immunity.
D) artificially acquired active immunity.
E) artificially acquired passive immunity.
Answer: C
Section: 17.11
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
6) Which of the following statements is NOT a possible outcome of antigen-antibody

reaction?
A) clonal deletion
B) activation of complement
C) opsonization
D) ADCC
E) agglutination
Answer: A
Section: 17.6
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
7) Which of the following cells is NOT an APC?
A) dentritic cells
B) macrophages
C) mature B cells
D) natural killer cells
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are APCs.
Answer: D
Section: 17.7
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
8) When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as
A) agglutination.
B) opsonization.
C) ADCC.
D) apoptosis.
E) neutralization.
Answer: E
Section: 17.6
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
9) CD4+ T cells are activated by
A) interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.
B) interaction between TCRs and MHC II.
C) cytokines released by dendritic cells.
D) cytokines released by B cells.
E) complement.
Answer: A
Section: 17.7
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
10) Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?
A) TC cell
B) B cell
C) TH cell
D) natural killer cell
E) basophil
Answer: C
Section: 17.7
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
11) The specificity of an antibody is due to
A) its valence.
B) the H chains.
C) the L chains.
D) the constant portions of the H and L chains.
E) the variable portions of the H and L chains.
Answer: E
Section: 17.4
12) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells?
A) They originate in bone marrow.
B) They have antibodies on their surfaces.
C) They are responsible for the memory response.
D) They are responsible for antibody formation.
E) They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.
Answer: E
Section: 17.5
13) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity?
A) The cells originate in bone marrow.
B) Cells are processed in the thymus gland.
C) It can inhibit the immune response.
D) B cells make antibodies.
E) T cells react with antigens.
Answer: D
Section: 17.7
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
14) Plasma cells are activated by a(n)
A) antigen.
B) T cell.
C) B cell.
D) memory cell.
E) APC.
Answer: A
Section: 17.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
15) The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
Answer: C
Section: 17.4
16) The antibodies found almost entirely and only on the surface of B cells (not secreted
from them), and which always exist as monomers, are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
Answer: D
Section: 17.4
17) The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
Answer: E
Section: 17.4
18) In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are
A) IgM.
B) IgA.
C) IgD.
D) IgE.
Answer: A
Section: 17.4
19) Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
Answer: B
Section: 17.4
20) The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
Answer: A
Section: 17.4
Figure 17.1
21) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the patients secondary response to a
repeated exposure with the identical antigen?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: C
Section: 17.10
Global Outcome: 3
22) In Figure 17.1, which letter on the graph indicates the highest antibody titer during the
patients response to a second and distinct/different antigen?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: E
Section: 17.10
Global Outcome: 3
23) In Figure 17.1, the arrow at time (c) indicates
A) the time of exposure to the same antigen as at time (a).
B) the secondary response.
C) the primary response.
D) exposure to a new antigen.
E) the T-cell response.
Answer: B
Section: 17.10
Global Outcome: 3
A) The variable region of a heavy chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen.
B) The variable region of a light chain is partially responsible for binding with antigen.
C) The Fc region attaches to a host cell.
D) The constant region of a heavy chain is the same for all antibodies.
Answer: D
Section: 17.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
25) Which of the following is the best definition of antigen?
A) something foreign in the body
B) a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies
C) a chemical that combines with antibodies
D) a pathogen
E) a protein that combines with antibodies
Answer: B
Section: 17.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
26) Which of the following WBCs are NOT lymphocytes?
A) cytotoxic T cells
B) helper T cells
C) NK cells
D) M cells
E) B cells
Answer: D
Section: 17.7
27) The following events elicit an antibody response. What is the third step?
A) Antigen-digest goes to surface of APC.
B) APC phagocytizes antigen.
C) B cell is activated.
D) TH cell recognizes antigen-digest and MHC II.

E) TH cell produces cytokines.
Answer: D
Section: 17.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
Figure 17.2
28) In Figure 17.2, which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies?
A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and c
D) c and d
E) b and d
Answer: D
Section: 17.4
29) In Figure 17.2, which areas are different for all IgM antibodies?
A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and c
D) c and d
Answer: A
Section: 17.4
30) In Figure 17.2, which areas represent antigen-binding sites?
A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and c
D) c and d
E) b and d
Answer: A
Section: 17.4
31) In Figure 17.2, what portion will typically attach to a host cell?
A) a and c
B) b
C) b and c
D) a and d
E) e
Answer: E
Section: 17.4
32) Which of the following bacterial components would most likely result in B cell
stimulation by T-independent antigens?
A) capsule
B) flagellum
C) pili
D) ribosome
E) plasmid
Answer: A
Section: 17.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
33) The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a
previous infection or vaccination?
A) IgA
B) IgG
C) IgM
D) IgD
E) IgE
Answer: C
Section: 17.4
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
34) Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells?
A) CTL
B) Treg
C) TH
D) dendritic cells
E) B cells
Answer: A
Section: 17.7
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
35) The following events occur in cellular immunity, leading to a response from TH cells.
What is the third step?
A) Antibodies are produced.
B) Dendritic cell takes up antigen.
C) Antigen enters M cell.
D) TH cell produces cytokines.

E) TH cells proliferate.
Answer: E
Section: 17.7
36) Cytokines released by TH1 cells
A) activate CD8+ cells to CTLs.
B) convert TH1 cells to TH2 cells.
C) convert TH2 cells to TH1 cells.
D) kill parasites.
E) convert B cells to T cells.
Answer: A
Section: 17.7
37) Which one of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells?
A) granzymes
B) hapten
C) IL-1
D) IL-2
E) perforin
Answer: E
Section: 17.7
38) At a minimum, the human immune system is capable of recognizing approximately how
many different antigens?
A) 105
B) 1010
C) 1015
D) 1020
E) 1025
Answer: C
Section: 17.5
39) Thymic selection
A) destroys T cells that do not recognize self-molecules of MHC.
B) destroys B cells that make antibodies against self.
C) destroys MHC molecules.
D) destroys CD4+ cells that attack self.
E) activates B cells.
Answer: A
Section: 17.7
40) Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?
A) They destroy virus-infected cells.
B) They destroy tumor cells.
C) They destroy cells lacking MHC I.
D) They are stimulated by an antigen.
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these statements are true.
Answer: D
Section: 17.7
41) An antibodys Fc region can be bound by
A) antibodies.
B) macrophages.
C) T helper cells.
D) B cells.
E) CTLs.
Answer: B
Section: 17.4
42) A Treg cell deficiency could result in
A) increased number of viral infections.
B) increased number of bacterial infections.
C) autoimmunity.
D) increased severity of bacterial infections.
E) transplant rejection.
Answer: C
Section: 17.7
43) ADCC is a process that is most effective in destroying
A) eukaryotic pathogens.
B) prions.
C) extracellular viruses.
D) bacterial pathogens.
E) bacterial toxins.
Answer: A
Section: 17.9
44) IL-2, produced by TH cells,
A) activates macrophages.
B) stimulates TH cell maturation.
C) causes phagocytosis.
D) activates antigen-presenting cells.
E) activates TC cells to CTLs.

Answer: B
Section: 17.7
45) Which of the following statements about IL-12 is FALSE?
A) It activates macrophages.
B) It inhibits some tumor cells.
C) It activates the TH1 pathway.
D) It causes autoimmune diseases.
E) It causes TH cells to respond to HIV.

Answer: D
Section: 17.3
1) Apoptosis results in significant leakage of cellular contents.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 17.7
2) Cytokines are protein-based chemical messengers that allow for communication between
cells of the immune system.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 17.3
3) Only dendritic cells produce interleukins.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 17.3
4) The production of interferons at an infection site is critical for chemotaxis.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 17.3
5) Cytokine storms negatively impact human health.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 17.3
6) The variable region of the antibody is solely responsible the significant diversity of
antigen targets.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 17.7
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
7) Plasma cells will eventually differentiate into memory cells.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 17.5
8) Memory cells do not require B cell receptors.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 17.5
9) The implementation of vaccinations occurred prior to experimental support for the germ
theory of disease.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 17.1
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
Global Outcome: 5
10) When haptens attach to carrier molecules, an epitope forms on hapten which then can
be bound to antibody.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 17.4
1) A person has antibodies against the measles virus. Identify three ways in which these
antibodies could be acquired.
Section: 17.11
Global Outcome: 8
2) Describe the production of antibodies using the clonal selection theory.
Section: 17.5
ASMcue Outcome: 2.2
Global Outcome: 8
3) A very ill 48 year old man comes to the Emergency Room and is diagnosed with
pneumonia and thrush. Suspicious, the attending physician orders an HIV antibody test
which comes back positive within a few hours. Why does a patient with acquired
immunodeficiency have antibodies to HIV?
Section: 17.3
Global Outcome: 8
4) Can natural killer cells successfully perform duties without antibodies? Explain.
Section: 17.8
Global Outcome: 8
5) What adaptive immune responses, if any, could one expect to function normally in a
human born without a thymus?
Section: 17.7
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 18 Practical
Applications of Immunology
Chapter 18 Practical Applications of Immunology
1) All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT
A) toxoids.
B) parts of bacterial cells.
C) live, attenuated viruses.
D) inactivated viruses.
E) antibodies.
Answer: E
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
2) Patients serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if
the patient has antibodies against influenza virus?
A) agglutination
B) hemagglutination
C) complement fixation
D) hemolysis
E) hemagglutination-inhibition
Answer: E
Section: 18.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
3) A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the
following statements is FALSE?
A) The patient may have the disease.
B) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.
C) The patient may have been vaccinated.
D) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.
E) The patient was near someone who had the disease.
Answer: E
Section: 18.1
Global Outcome: 2
4) In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up.
Tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing
agglutination, what is the antibody titer?
A) 6
B) 1:6
C) 64
D) 1:32
E) 32
Answer: C
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 4
5) An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means
that the test
A) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
B) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
C) detects 90 percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results.
D) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
E) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
Answer: A
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 2
6) Which of the following are sources of antibodies for serological testing?
A) vaccinated animals
B) cells producing monoclonal antibodies
C) viral cultures
D) vaccinated animals and cells producing monoclonal antibodies
E) vaccinated animals, cells producing monoclonal antibodies, and viral cultures
Answer: D
Section: 18.2
7) A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n)
A) agglutination reaction.
B) complement fixation.
C) immunofluorescence.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) precipitation reaction.
Answer: E
Section: 18.2
8) A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n)
Answer: A
Section: 18.2
9) A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an
antigenantibody reaction is called a(n)
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
10) A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle
cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n)
A) subunit vaccine.
B) conjugated vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
E) live whole-agent vaccine.
Answer: C
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
11) Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n)
A) TC cell response.
B) immune complex.
C) dendritic cell proliferation.
D) antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
E) antibody response against gram-positive bacteria.
Answer: D
Section: 18.1
12) The clumping of test red blood cells indicates a negative test result (no antibodies
against the virus in the patients serum) in the
A) direct agglutination test.
B) indirect agglutination test.
C) complement-fixation test.
D) precipitation test.
E) viral hemagglutination inhibition test.
Answer: E
Section: 18.2
13) What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?
A) conjugated vaccine
B) subunit vaccine
C) nucleic acid vaccine
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine
E) toxoid vaccine
Answer: C
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
14) Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n)
A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: B
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
15) What type of vaccine is the live, weakened measles virus?
A) conjugated vaccine
B) subunit vaccine
C) nucleic acid vaccine
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine
E) toxoid vaccine
Answer: D
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
16) A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patients serum is the
A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
C) direct agglutination test.
D) direct ELISA test.
E) hemagglutination-inhibition test.
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
17) A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patients throat swab is the
C) hemagglutination test.
D) hemagglutination-inhibition test.
E) indirect ELISA test.
Answer: A
Section: 18.2
18) A test used to detect anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patients serum is the
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 2
19) Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a
womans urine using anti-HCG and latex spheres?
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) indirect agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 2
20) Which of the following is a test to determine a patients blood type by mixing the
patients red blood cells with antisera?
B) passive agglutination reaction
Answer: A
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 2
21) Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a
patients saliva?
B) passive agglutination reaction
Answer: E
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 2
22) A patients serum, Mycobacterium, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and
anti-sheep red blood cell antibodies are mixed in a test tube. What happens if the patient
has antibodies to Mycobacterium?
A) Bacteria fluoresce.
B) Hemagglutination occurs.
C) Hemagglutination-inhibition occurs.
D) Hemolysis occurs.
E) No hemolysis occurs.
Answer: E
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 2
23) A vaccine against HIV proteins made by a genetically-engineered vaccinia virus that has
infected a eukaryotic cell line is a(n)
B) subunit vaccine.
D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: B
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
Global Outcome: 2
24) Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)
B) subunit vaccine.
D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: E
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
25) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(an)
A) B cell with a T cell.
B) B cell with a myeloma cell.
C) antigen with an antibody.
D) antigen with a B cell.
E) myeloma cell with a virus.
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
Table 18.1
Antibody Titer
Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Day 21
Patient A 0 0 256 512
Patient B 128 256 512 1024
Patient C 0 0 0 0
Patient D 128 128 128 128
26) In Table 18.1, who probably has the disease?
A) Patients A and B
B) Patients B and C
C) Patients A and C
D) Patients C and D
E) Patients A and D
Answer: A
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 3
27) In Table 18.1, who is most likely protected from the disease, as observed by the test
results over time?
A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D
Answer: D
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 3
28) In Table 18.1, who showed seroconversion during these observations?
A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D
Answer: A
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 3
Figure 18.1
29) Which component in Figure 18.1 came from the patient in this indirect ELISA test?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 3
30) Figure 18.1 is an illustration of a(an)
A) negative indirect ELISA test.
B) positive indirect ELISA test.
C) complement fixation test.
D) hemagglutination test.
E) precipitation test.
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
31) Monoclonal antibodies are used in diagnostic tests and disease treatments because they
A) are highly specific.
B) can be produced in large quantities.
C) contain a mixture of antibodies.
D) are highly specific and they can be produced in large quantities.
E) are highly specific, they can be produced in large quantities, and they contain a mixture
of antibodies.
Answer: D
Section: 18.2
32) The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth
step?
A) A B cell is activated to produce antibodies.
B) Culture the hybridoma in a selective medium.
C) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.
D) Isolate antibody-producing B cells.
E) Vaccinate a mouse.
Answer: C
Section: 18.2
33) Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. This antiviral drug is a(n)
A) toxoid.
B) monoclonal antibody.
C) vaccine.
D) immunosuppressive.
E) nucleoside analog.
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
34) Live weakened polio virus can be used directly in a(n)
A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: B
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
35) Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: C
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
36) Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: A
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
37) Isolated and purified hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n)
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.
Answer: D
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
38) In a direct ELISA test to screen for drugs in a patients urine, what is the third step in
the test process?
A) substrate for the enzyme is added
B) enzyme-labeled antibodies against the drug being tested is added
C) the patients urine sample is diluted
D) antibody against the drug being tested is added
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
39) Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?
A) substrate for the enzyme
B) antigen
C) antihuman immune serum
D) antibodies against the antigen
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
40) Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of AIDS
antibodies?
A) agglutination
B) complement fixation
C) neutralization
D) indirect ELISA
E) direct fluorescent-antibody
Answer: D
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 2
41) Which of the following uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies?
A) agglutination
B) complement fixation
C) precipitation
D) flow cytometry
E) neutralization
Answer: D
Section: 18.2
42) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?
A) They elicit lifelong immunity.
B) They stimulate by cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
C) They occasionally revert to virulent forms.
D) They require few or no booster immunizations.
E) The immune response generated by the vaccine closely mimics a real infection.
Answer: C
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
43) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose the fungal disease histoplasmosis, a patients
serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a precipitate forms as the
serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. In this test
process, what is the most likely identity of the material in the second well?
A) antibodies
B) a purified fungal antigen
C) entire fungal cells
D) a purified protozoan antigen
E) red blood cells
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
44) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patients serum is placed in a

well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a line forms as the serum diffuses from the well and
meets material diffusing from a second well. What type of test is this?
A) an agglutination reaction
B) a precipitation reaction
C) a complement-fixation test
D) an indirect ELISA test
E) a direct ELISA test
Answer: B
Section: 18.2
45) Which of the following statements about measles is FALSE?
A) It is a serious disease.
B) It is preventable by vaccination.
C) Annually, it kills thousands of children worldwide.
D) The disease has been eradicated in the United States.
E) Complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, and death.
Answer: D
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) Vaccines are preparations of organisms or fractions of organisms that are used to induce
protective immune responses.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
2) In a vaccine preparation, the term attenuated means that the agent does NOT replicate.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
3) An injection of naked DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the
proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
4) Adjuvants such as aluminum salts are used as additives in vaccines to enhance immune
responses.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
5) Blood typing tests are examples of hemagglutination reactions.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 5
6) A positive complement-fixation test is indicated by the lysis of the sheep red blood cells
added in the indicator phase of the test.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 2
7) The home pregnancy test kit is an example of a direct ELISA.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 5
8) Western blotting uses antibodies to detect specific proteins in a mixture of proteins.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 18.2
9) A highly specific diagnostic test will be unlikely to indicate a positive result if a specimen
being tested is a true negative.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 18.2
Global Outcome: 2
10) Agglutination tests use particulate antigens while precipitation tests use soluble
antigens.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 18.2
1) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of HIV antibodies in a patient.
Section: 18.2
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 8
2) Design a serological test to detect botulinum toxin in food.
Section: 18.2
ASMcue Outcome: 7.4
Global Outcome: 8
3) In your work in a county public health clinic, you encounter parents of a three-month-old
who are considering not vaccinating their child. What concerns might the parents raise
regarding vaccine safety? As a microbiology student and public health care worker, what do
you say to these parents regarding the risks of not vaccinating their child?
Section: 18.1
ASMcue Outcome: 7.4
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 19 Disorders
Associated with the Immune
System
Chapter 19 Disorders Associated with the Immune System
1) All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT
A) it occurs in the presence of an antigen.
B) it is synonymous with allergy.
C) it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time.
D) it is due to an altered immune response.
E) it requires previous exposure to an antigen.
Answer: C
Section: 19.1
2) The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are
A) found in basophils and mast cells.
B) antibodies.
C) antigens.
D) antigen-antibody complexes.
E) the proteins of the complement system.
Answer: A
Section: 19.1
3) Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?
A) hay fever
B) asthma
C) shock
D) hives
E) immunodeficiency
Answer: C
Section: 19.1
4) Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+?
A) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh
B) anti-A, anti-Rh
C) anti-A
D) anti-B, anti-Rh
E) anti-B
Answer: C
Section: 19.1
5) Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible?
A) autograft
B) allograft
C) isograft
D) xenotransplant
E) All of these types of transplant are equally compatible.
Answer: D
Section: 19.3
6) When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a person with O type blood
A) has O type antigens on their red blood cells.
B) will lack plasma antibodies to A and B type antigens.
C) will lack A and B red blood cell antigens.
D) lacks HLA and MHC antigens.
E) will have anti-O antibodies in their plasma.
Answer: C
Section: 19.1
ASMcue Outcome: 8.5
7) Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n)
A) skin graft.
B) bone marrow transplant.
C) blood transfusion.
D) Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus.
E) corneal transplant.
Answer: B
Section: 19.3
8) A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
A) delayed cell-mediated immunity.
B) autoimmunity.
C) acute contact dermatitis.
D) psoriasis.
E) innate immunity.
Answer: A
Section: 19.1
9) A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with
A) tumor-specific antigens.
B) CTLs.
C) CTLs and activated macrophages.
D) activated macrophages.
E) CD+ T cells.
Answer: C
Section: 19.4
10) The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to
A) destruction of the antigen.
B) complement activation.
C) phagocytosis.
D) antibodies against self.
E) cytokines.
Answer: B
Section: 19.1
11) Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of
A) IgG and IgA complexes in joints.
B) IgA antibodies in joints.
C) IgD and IgE complexes in joints.
D) complement in joints.
E) complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.
Answer: E
Section: 19.2
12) Allergic contact dermatitis is due to
A) sensitized T cells.
B) IgG antibodies.
C) IgE antibodies.
D) IgM antibodies.
E) activated macrophages.
Answer: A
Section: 19.1
13) Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on
A) gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor.
B) gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5.
C) gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor.

D) gp120 binding to the CD4+ plasma membrane.
E) CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor.
Answer: A
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
14) All of the following pertain to serological tests EXCEPT
A) they can detect antibodies but not antigens.
B) they can be used to diagnose various diseases.
C) reactions can be detected by uptake of trypan blue by damaged cells.
D) they are used to test for specific HLAs on lymphocytes.
E) they are used to detect compatible tissues for transplantation.
Answer: A
Section: 19.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 5
15) The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing
amounts of
A) IgE.
B) IgG.
C) antihistamine.
D) antigen.
E) RhoGAM.
Answer: D
Section: 19.1
Global Outcome: 5
16) Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE?
A) They involve helper T cells.
B) They involve IgE antibodies.
C) The symptoms are due to histamine.
D) Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils.
E) The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen.
Answer: A
Section: 19.1
17) Which of the following statements about type IV reactions is FALSE?
A) Reactions are primarily due to T cell proliferation.
B) Reactions are not apparent for a day or more.
C) Cytokines initiate tissue damage.
D) Allergic contact dermatitis is an example.
E) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example.
Answer: E
Section: 19.1
18) Table 19.1
Donor Recipient
1. AB, Rh AB, Rh+
2. A, Rh+ A, Rh
3. A, Rh+ O, Rh+
4. B, Rh B, Rh+
5. B, Rh+ A, Rh+
Which blood transfusions in Table 19.1 are incompatible?
A) 2 and 5
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 2, 3, and 5
D) 3 and 4
E) 1 and 2
Answer: C
Section: 19.1
Global Outcome: 2
19) Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an
A) Rh+ mother with an Rh fetus.

B) Rh mother with an Rh+ fetus.
C) AB mother with a B fetus.
D) AB mother with an O fetus.
E) Rh mother and an A fetus.

Answer: B
Section: 19.1
20) Which is true regarding Herceptin therapy?
A) It neutralizes the growth factor EGF.
B) It acts as an immunotoxin to target and kill cancer cells.
C) It is used to treat some breast cancer patients.
D) It is a vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.
E) It is an endotoxin that stimulates TNF by macrophages.
Answer: C
Section: 19.4
Global Outcome: 5
21) Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and
immunotoxin?
A) immunologic enhancement
B) immunologic surveillance
C) immunotherapy
D) immunosuppression
E) immune complex
Answer: C
Section: 19.4
Global Outcome: 5
22) All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccine has not been developed EXCEPT
A) there is no known animal model of natural immunity for HIV infection.
B) use of a weakened virus would potentially transmit the infection.
C) small, inexpensive animals which could be used for HIV vaccine research are not
available.
D) vaccines are not effective against viral infections.
E) HIV has a high mutation rate so one vaccination would not be effective to treat the
world-wide pandemic.
Answer: D
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
23) Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause
A) immunologic enhancement.
B) immunologic surveillance.
C) immunotherapy.
D) immunosuppression.
E) autoimmunity.
Answer: D
Section: 19.3
24) Which of the following statements about human embryonic stem cells is TRUE?
A) They are obtained in great numbers from umbilical cords of newborns.
B) They express no MHC II antigens.
C) They are pluripotent.
D) They are typically obtained from the zygote stage of embryonic development.
E) They are pluripotent and typically obtained from the blastocyst stage of embryonic
development.
Answer: E
Section: 19.3
Global Outcome: 5
Figure 19.1
25) In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the small, circular/spherical
structure labeled a?
A) antibody
B) antigen
C) complement
D) neutrophil
E) mast cell
Answer: B
Section: 19.1
26) In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the end result of the
reaction?
A) IgG is directed against cell membrane antigens.
B) Complement is activated.
C) Neutrophils are attracted and release enzymes.
D) Endothelial cells are damaged.
E) Antibodies destroy neutrophils.
Answer: D
Section: 19.1
27) Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is
A) heterosexual intercourse.
B) homosexual intercourse.
C) intravenous drug use.
D) blood transfusions.
E) nosocomial.
Answer: A
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
28) HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on
A) T helper cells.
B) macrophages.
C) dendritic cells.
D) T helper cells and macrophages.
E) T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.
Answer: E
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
29) Which of the following is the least likely vaccine against HIV?
A) attenuated virus
B) glycoprotein
C) protein core
D) subunit
E) All of these vaccines are equally likely.
Answer: A
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
30) Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection?
A) Virions may remain latent.
B) There may be persistent yeast infections.
C) Infection may initially be asymptomatic.
D) The disease does not progress to AIDS.
Answer: E
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
31) Which of the following regions has the greatest distribution of HIV infection and AIDS in
the world?
A) North America
B) Eastern Europe and Central Asia
C) South and Southeast Asia
D) sub-Saharan Africa
E) Latin America
Answer: D
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
32) Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following
mechanisms EXCEPT
A) termination of viral DNA.
B) inhibition of viral proteases.
C) blockage of viral attachment.
D) prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA.
E) destruction of viral ribosomes.
Answer: E
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
33) During the asymptomatic phase I of HIV disease, HIV infection is diagnosed by
A) detecting viral RNA.
B) detecting antibodies against HIV.
C) counting CD4+ T cells.

D) counting CD8+ T cells.
E) the Western blot test.
Answer: A
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 5
34) Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with
A) IgE antibodies.
B) macrophages.
C) IgG antibodies.
D) complement.
E) histamine.
Answer: A
Section: 19.1
35) All of the following regarding immune privileged sites are true EXCEPT
A) they include corneal and brain tissue.
B) they do not have lymphatic vessels.
C) they are rarely rejected.
D) they include any tissue transplanted from a pig.
E) they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting the fetus.
Answer: D
Section: 19.3
36) All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT
A) asthma.
B) dust allergies.
C) penicillin allergic reactions.
D) pollen allergies.
E) transplant rejections.
Answer: E
Section: 19.1
37) All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura. Which occurs first?
A) Antibodies and complement react with platelets.
B) Antibodies against haptens are formed.
C) Drug binds to platelets.
D) Platelets are destroyed.
E) Purpura occurs on the skin.
Answer: C
Section: 19.1
38) Immunodeficiencies are a result of all of the following EXCEPT
A) HIV infection.
B) cyclosporine.
C) DiGeorge syndrome.
D) Hodgkins disease.
E) autoimmune diseases.
Answer: E
Section: 19.5
39) Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction?
A) Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens.
B) Antibodies are not made.
C) Cells are killed.
D) Immune complexes form.
E) Mediate by T cells.
Answer: A
Section: 19.2
40) Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to
A) IgE antibodies.
B) neutrophils.
C) cytokines.
D) IgG antibodies.
E) antigens.
Answer: C
Section: 19.1
41) Desensitization involves injection of
A) antigens.
B) IgG antibodies.
C) IgE antibodies.
D) antihistamine.
E) histamine.
Answer: A
Section: 19.1
ASMcue Outcome: 8.5
Global Outcome: 5
42) In the serological method for tissue typing, if human cells expressing HLA-I are mixed
with anti-HLA-I, complement, and trypan blue, what would indicate the cells are HLA-I?
A) Enzyme is released from neutrophils.
B) Cells are damaged by complement.
C) Trypan blue enters the cells.
D) Anti-HLA antibodies bind to HLAs on lymphocytes.
E) None of the answers are correct; the T cells are missing.
Answer: C
Section: 19.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.5
Global Outcome: 5
43) In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example
of
A) cytotoxic autoimmunity.
B) immune complex autoimmunity.
C) cell-mediated autoimmunity.
D) immunosuppression.
E) acquired immunodeficiency.
Answer: B
Section: 19.2
44) The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV
infection?
A) phase 1
B) phase 2
C) phase 3
D) initial phase
E) asymptomatic phase
Answer: C
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
45) HIV can evade host antibodies by
A) remaining an inactive provirus.
B) causing cell-to-cell fusion.
C) remaining an inactive provirus, causing cell to cell fusion, and virions remaining latent in
vacuoles.
D) lowering the CD4+ cell count.
E) virions remaining latent in vacuoles.
Answer: C
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) Individuals who do not express CCR5 are highly resistant to infection by HIV.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) Vaccines against HIV have proven to be very effective in halting the spread of disease.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
3) All hypersensitivities involve antibody-antigen reactions.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 19.1
4) Skin tests are reliable indicators for the diagnosis of food-related allergies.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 19.1
5) HIV attack of CD4+ T cells causes suppression of both cell-mediated and humoral
immune responses.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
6) Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system is unable to discriminate self from
nonself.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 19.2
7) Xenotransplantation is an effective alternative to using isografts.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 19.2
Global Outcome: 5
8) All stem cells are derived from embryonic stem cells.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 19.3
Global Outcome: 5
9) Cancer is similar to an infectious disease in that it is due to a failure of the bodys

defenses.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 19.4
10) HIV is believed to have arisen by mutation of a virus endemic to wild animals in Africa.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 1.3
11) A hypersensitivity reaction refers to immune responses to antigens beyond what would
be normal.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 19.1
1) Differentiate type II from type III hypersensitivity reactions.
Section: 19.1
Global Outcome: 8
2) Even though AIDS is an infectious disease caused by a virus, why is it also considered an
immunodeficiency disease?
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
3) What is desensitization? Explain how this treatment can induce systemic anaphylaxis.
How is systemic anaphylaxis treated?
Section: 19.1
Global Outcome: 8
4) A health care worker had a needlestick injury while drawing blood from an AIDS patient.
Lab tests on the workers serum were negative. Explain why the worker can still be infected
even though her lab tests were negative. How should her health care be monitored?
Section: 19.6
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 8
5) Explain why a transplant tissue would be rejected if that tissue had different HLAs
compared to the HLAs of the recipient. How can this rejection be decreased?
Section: 19.3
Global Outcome: 8
6) Explain the relationship between thymic selection of maturing T cells and self tolerance.
Section: 19.2
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 20 Antimicrobial Drugs

Chapter 20 Antimicrobial Drugs
1) Penicillin was considered a miracle drug for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) it was the first antibiotic.
B) it does not affect eukaryotic cells.
C) it inhibits gram-positive cell wall synthesis.
D) it has selective toxicity.
E) it kills bacteria.
Answer: A
Section: 20.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
2) A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against
A) gram-positive bacteria.
B) gram-negative bacteria.
C) fungi.
D) wall-less bacteria.
E) mycobacteria.
Answer: C
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
3) Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against
A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) fungi.
D) protozoa.
Answer: B
Section: 20.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
4) Antimicrobial peptides (AMPs) frequently work by
A) inhibiting protein synthesis.
B) disrupting the plasma membrane.
C) complementary base pairing with DNA.
D) inhibiting cell-wall synthesis.
E) hydrolyzing peptidoglycan.
Answer: B
Section: 20.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
5) In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike?
A) Both are broad spectrum.
B) Both are resistant to penicillinase.
C) Both are resistant to stomach acids.
D) Both are bactericidal.
E) Both are based on -lactam.
Answer: E
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
6) Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal?
A) aminoglycosides
B) cephalosporins
C) polyenes
D) rifampins
E) penicillin
Answer: C
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
7) Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A) bacitracin
B) cephalosporin
C) monobactam
D) penicillin
E) streptomycin
Answer: E
Section: 20.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
8) Figure 20.1
The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, as shown by the dark
black bar on the right portion of the diagram in Figure 20.1. The effect is to
A) prevent attachment of DNA.
B) prevent peptide bond formation.
C) prevent transcription.
D) stop the ribosome from moving along the mRNA.
E) interfere with the attachment of the tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex.
Answer: E
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
9) Figure 20.2
The antibiotic chloramphenicol binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in Figure
20.2. The effect is to
A) prevent mRNA-ribosome binding in eukaryotes.
B) prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.
C) prevent polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes.
D) prevent transcription in prokaryotes.
E) prevent ribosome formation in bacteria.
Answer: B
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
10) Which of the following antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects?
A) streptomycin
B) tetracycline
C) penicillin
D) erythromycin
E) chloramphenicol
Answer: C
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
11) Which of the following drugs does NOT act by competitive inhibition?
A) ethambutol
B) isoniazid
C) streptomycin
D) sulfonamide
E) trimethoprim
Answer: C
Section: 20.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
12) Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic?
A) competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis
B) inhibition of protein synthesis
C) injury to plasma membrane
D) inhibition of cell wall synthesis
E) competitive inhibition with DNA gyrase
Answer: B
Section: 20.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
13) Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative
bacteria?
A) polyenes
B) bacitracin
C) cephalosporin
D) penicillin
E) polymyxin
Answer: E
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
14) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal
infections?
A) amphotericin B
B) bacitracin
C) cephalosporin
D) penicillin
E) polymyxin
Answer: A
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Table 20.1
The following data were obtained from a broth dilution test.
Concentration of Antibiotic X Growth Growth in Subculture
2 g/ml + +
10 g/ml +
15 g/ml
25 g/ml
15) 5) In Table 20.1, as illustrated by the data shown, the minimal bactericidal
concentration of antibiotic X is
A) 2 g/ml.
B) 10 g/ml.
C) 15 g/ml.
D) 25 g/ml.
Answer: C
Section: 20.5
Global Outcome: 3
16) In Table 20.1, the minimal inhibitory concentration of antibiotic X is
A) 2 g/ml.
B) 10 g/ml.
C) 15 g/ml.
D) 25 g/ml.
Answer: B
Section: 20.5
Global Outcome: 3
17) More than half of our antibiotics are
A) produced by fungi.
B) produced by bacteria.
C) synthesized in laboratories.
D) produced by Fleming.
E) produced by eukaryotic organisms.
Answer: B
Section: 20.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
18) To date, most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of
what genus?
A) Streptomyces
B) Bacillus
C) Penicillium
D) Paenibacillus
E) Cephalosporium
Answer: A
Section: 20.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
A) Ehrlich magic bullet theory
B) Fleming initial identification of penicillins effect on gram-positive microbial growth
C) Florey and Chain identification of Penicillium as the producer of penicillin
D) Kirby and Bauer disc-diffusion method
E) None of these is mismatched.
Answer: C
Section: 20.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
20) Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis?
A) uracil
B) thymine
C) flucytosine
D) guanine
E) penicillin
Answer: C
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
21) Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections?
1. aminoglycosides
2. cephalosporins
3. griseofulvin
4. polyenes
5. bacitracin
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 3 and 4
C) 3, 4, and 5
D) 4 and 5
E) All of these antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections.
Answer: B
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
22) Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis?
A) cephalosporins
B) macrolides
C) natural penicillins
D) semisynthetic penicillins
E) vancomycin
Answer: B
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
23) The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are
A) aminoglycosides.
B) chloramphenicol.
C) penicillin G.
D) macrolides.
E) tetracyclines.
Answer: E
Section: 20.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
A) Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis.
B) Acyclovir inhibits DNA synthesis.
C) Amantadine inhibits the release of viral nucleic acid.
D) Interferon inhibits glycolysis.
E) Azoles inhibit plasma membrane synthesis.
Answer: D
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
25) Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because
A) their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.
B) they replicate inside human cells.
C) they do not have ribosomes.
D) they do not reproduce.
E) they have more genes than bacteria.
Answer: A
Section: 20.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
26) Which of the following organisms would MOST likely be sensitive to natural penicillin?
A) helminths
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Penicillium
E) Mycoplasma
Answer: B
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
27) Which of the following statements about drug resistance is FALSE?
A) It may be carried on a plasmid.
B) It may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation.
C) It may be due to enzymes that degrade some antibiotics.
D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.
E) It may be due to increased uptake of a drug.
Answer: D
Section: 20.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 7
28) Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics
together?
A) It can prevent drug resistance.
B) It lessens the toxicity of individual drugs.
C) Two are always twice as effective as one.
D) It allows treatment to be provided prior to diagnosis.
E) All of these are advantages of using two antibiotics together.
Answer: C
Section: 20.8
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
29) Drug resistance occurs
A) because bacteria are normal microbiota.
B) when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.
C) against antibiotics and not against synthetic chemotherapeutic agents.
D) when antibiotics are taken after the symptoms disappear.
Answer: B
Section: 20.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 7
Table 20.2
The following results were obtained from a disk-diffusion test for microbial susceptibility to
antibiotics. Staphylococcus aureus was the test organism.
Antibiotic Zone of Inhibition
A 3 mm
B 7 mm
C 0 mm
D 10 mm
30) In Table 20.2, the most effective antibiotic tested was
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
Answer: D
Section: 20.5
Global Outcome: 3
31) In Table 20.2, the antibiotic that exhibited bactericidal action was
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
Answer: E
Section: 20.5
Global Outcome: 3
32) In Table 20.2, which antibiotic would be most useful for treating a Salmonella infection?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Answer: E
Section: 20.5
Global Outcome: 3
33) Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus?
A) bacitracin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
B) ethambutol inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
C) streptogramin inhibits protein synthesis
D) streptomycin inhibits protein synthesis
E) vancomycin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
Answer: B
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
34) In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because
A) it lacks a cell wall.
B) it plasmolyzes.
C) it undergoes lysis.
D) it lacks a cell membrane.
E) its contents leak out.
Answer: C
Section: 20.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
35) Lamisil is an allylamine used to treat dermatomycoses. Lamisils method of action is

similar to that of
A) polymyxin B.
B) azole antibiotics.
C) echinocandins.
D) griseofulvin.
E) bacitracin.
Answer: B
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
36) Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be
effective against
A) gram-negative bacteria.
B) gram-positive bacteria.
C) helminths.
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
E) viruses.
Answer: C
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
37) Table 20.3
The following data were obtained from a broth dilution test:
Concentration of Antibiotic X Growth
2.0 g/ml
1.0 g/ml
0.5 g/ml
0.25 g/ml +
0.125 g/ml +
0 +
Bacteria from the 0.25 g/ml tube were transferred to new growth media
containing antibiotic X with the following results:
Concentration of Antibiotic X Growth
2.0 g/ml
1.0 g/ml +
0.5 g/ml +
0.25g/ml +
The data in Table 20.3 show that these bacteria
A) are pathogenic.
B) developed resistance to antibiotics.
C) were killed by 0.125 g/ml of antibiotic X.
D) were killed by 0.5 g/ml of antibiotic X.
E) were resistant to 1.0 g/ml at the start of the experiment.
Answer: B
Section: 20.5
Global Outcome: 3
38) Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA
polymerase or RNA polymerase is FALSE?
A) They can potentially cause mutations.
B) They are used against viral infections.
C) They can affect host cell DNA synthesis.
D) They cause cellular plasmolysis.
E) They interfere with protein synthesis.
Answer: D
Section: 20.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
39) Figure 20.3
The substrate for transpeptidase used to synthesize peptidoglycan is shown in Figure 20.3.
Which of the drugs shown would inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: D
Section: 20.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
40) Figure 20.4
The structures of the influenza drug Tamiflu and sialic acid, the substrate for influenza
viruss neuramidase, are shown in Figure 20.4. What is the method of action of Tamiflu?
A) inhibits cell wall synthesis
B) inhibits plasma membrane synthesis
C) inhibits synthesis of neuramidase
D) competitive inhibition
E) prevents synthesis of virus spikes
Answer: D
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
41) Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells?
A) antiprotozoan drugs
B) antihelminthic drugs
C) antifungal drugs
D) nucleotide analogs
E) semisynthetic penicillins
Answer: E
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
42) Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with microtubule

formation; therefore, it would NOT affect
A) bacteria.
B) fungi.
C) helminths.
D) human cells.
E) protozoa.
Answer: A
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
43) Which of the following antibiotics causes misreading of mRNA?
A) aminoglycoside changes shape of 30S units
B) chloramphenicol inhibits peptide bonds at 50S subunit
C) oxazolidinone prevents formation of 70S ribosome
D) streptogamin prevents release of peptide from 70S ribosome
E) tetracyclines bind with 30S subunit
Answer: A
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
44) The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with
A) transcription.
B) translation.
C) cellular respiration.
D) plasma membrane function.
E) peptide bond formation.
Answer: A
Section: 20.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
45) Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because
A) bacteria from other animals replace those killed by the antibiotics.
B) the few surviving bacteria that are affected by the antibiotics develop immunity to the
antibiotics, which they pass on to their progeny.
C) the antibiotics cause new mutations to occur in the surviving bacteria, which results in
resistance to antibiotics.
D) the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and
reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.
E) the antibiotics persist in soil and water.
Answer: D
Section: 20.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 7
1) An antibiotic that attacks the LPS layer would be expected to have a narrow spectrum of
activity.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 20.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
2) PABA serves as the competitive inhibitor in the action of sulfanilamides.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 20.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
3) Undergrowth of fungi after antibiotic use is commonly referred to as a superinfection.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 20.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
4) Due to its target, rifamycins can be effective over a broad spectrum.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
5) Both trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole inhibit reactions along the same metabolic
pathway.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 20.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
6) Penicillin and streptomycin are commonly used in synergism because they display the
same mode of action.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 20.8
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
7) Only microbes produce antimicrobial peptides.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 20.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
8) Community-acquired MRSA is typically more virulent than health care-associated MRSA.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 20.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
10) Phage therapy has been used in the past as an antiviral treatment.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 20.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
1) Explain why penicillin was called the miracle drug when it was first used in the 1940s.
Section: 20.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
2) Penicillin does not directly kill bacteria. Why, then, is it considered to be bacteriocidal?
Section: 20.2
Global Outcome: 8
3) Explain the difficulties in developing antiviral drugs against DNA viruses, when compared
to RNA viruses.
Section: 20.2
Global Outcome: 7
4) Can you determine both MIC and MBC from an E-test? Explain.
Section: 20.5
Global Outcome: 8
5) An official from an international health agency predicts that if all countries enacted
legislation to only sell antibiotics with a prescription, then the rate of antibiotic resistant
would grind to a halt. Do you agree? Explain.
Section: 20.6
Global Outcome: 5
Chapter 21 Microbial Diseases

of the Skin and Eyes
Chapter 21 Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
1) All of the following are normal microbiota of the skin EXCEPT
A) Streptococcus.
B) Micrococcus.
C) Staphylococcus.
D) Propionibacterium.
E) Corynebacterium.
Answer: A
Section: 21.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) An eight-year-old girl has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three
weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother, who had shingles. What infection does the
eight-year-old have?
A) chickenpox
B) measles
C) fever blisters
D) scabies
E) rubella
Answer: A
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
3) Which of the following is NOT true of acne?
A) It can be treated by eliminating fatty foods from the diet.
B) It is often due to the action of Propionibacterium.
C) Drugs that inhibit sebum formation are useful in treating inflammatory acne.
D) Mild cases are treated with topical agents.
E) Antibiotics may be prescribed for moderate cases.
Answer: A
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
4) Warts are caused by
A) papillomavirus.
B) poxvirus.
C) herpesvirus.
D) parvovirus.
Answer: A
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
5) All of the following are characteristic of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT
A) gram-positive cell wall.
B) resistance to many types of disinfectants and antibiotics.
C) growth in moist environments.
D) production of pyocyanin.
E) rod-shaped.
Answer: A
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
6) Koplik spots are a diagnostic indicator of
A) chickenpox.
B) smallpox.
C) fifth disease.
D) rubella.
E) measles.
Answer: E
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
7) All of the following are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT
A) smallpox.
B) chickenpox.
C) rubella.
D) tinea.
E) measles.
Answer: D
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
8) All of the following are protective factors of the skin and its secretions EXCEPT
A) keratin.
B) tightly packed cells.
C) lysozyme production.
D) pyocyanin production.
E) salt.
Answer: D
Section: 21.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
9) Thrush and vaginitis are caused by
A) herpesvirus.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Candida albicans.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
Answer: C
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
10) The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is
A) neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia.
B) keratoconjunctivitis.
C) trachoma.
D) inclusion conjunctivitis.
E) pinkeye.
Answer: C
Section: 21.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
11) All of the following are characteristic of the Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci EXCEPT
A) methicillin resistance.
B) M proteins.
C) the ability to damage cell membranes.
D) the ability to dissolve blood clots.
E) hyaluronidase production.
Answer: A
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
12) Which of the following cause(s) ringworm?
A) Microsporum
B) Epidermophyton
C) Mycobacterium
D) Microsporum and Epidermophyton
E) Microsporum, Epidermophyton, and Mycobacterium
Answer: D
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
13) Newborns eyes are treated with an antibiotic
A) when Neisseria gonorrhoeae is isolated from the eyes.
B) when the mother is blind.
C) when the mother has genital herpes.
D) when the mother has gonorrhea.
E) as a routine precaution.
Answer: E
Section: 21.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
14) A possible complication of chickenpox is
A) encephalitis.
B) fever blisters.
C) subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
D) congenital rubella syndrome.
E) macular rash.
Answer: A
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
15) Which of the following is a subcutaneous mycosis?
A) tinea capitis.
B) sporotrichosis.
C) erysipelas.
D) athletes foot.
E) Buruli ulcer.
Answer: B
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
16) Which region of the skin supports the largest bacterial population?
A) armpits
B) scalp
C) forearms
D) feet
E) All of these support similarly sized bacterial populations.
Answer: A
Section: 21.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
17) Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT
A) pimples.
B) sties.
C) boils.
D) carbuncles.
E) acne.
Answer: E
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
18) Exfoliative toxin is responsible for
A) otitis externa.
B) impetigo.
C) fever blisters.
D) scalded skin syndrome.
E) thrush.
Answer: D
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
19) All of the following are causative agents of conjunctivitis EXCEPT
A) Chlamydia trachomatis.
B) herpes simplex.
C) adenovirus.
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
E) Haemophilus influenzae.
Answer: B
Section: 21.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
20) In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles (rubella)?
A) They have a similar type of rash.
B) They are caused by the same virus.
C) Encephalitis is a possible complication.
D) Congenital complications may occur.
E) They can be controlled by vaccination.
Answer: E
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
21) Why is vaccination for rubella recommended?
A) It has a high mortality rate in school-age children.
B) Death from secondary infections is common.
C) There is a high incidence of congenital infections and birth defects.
D) Health care workers have a high incidence of infection.
E) It is no longer recommended; rubella has been eradicated.
Answer: C
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
22) Which of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome is FALSE?
A) It is contracted during the first trimester of pregnancy.
B) It may be fatal to the unborn child.
C) It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation.
D) It does not occur with subclinical infections.
E) It can be prevented by vaccinating women prior to pregnancy.
Answer: D
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
23) Which of the following are incorrectly matched?
A) varicella-zoster chickenpox
B) parvovirus fifth disease
C) HHV-6 roseola
D) herpes zoster shingles
E) poxvirus fever blisters
Answer: E
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
24) Which of the following is NOT caused by HSV-1?
A) cold sores
B) canker sores
C) herpes gladiatorum
D) herpes whitlow
E) herpes encephalitis
Answer: B
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
25) Which of the following statements about Reye syndrome is FALSE?
A) It is associated with aspirin use.
B) It is a complication that may occur in chickenpox infection.
C) It mostly affects older adults.
D) Symptoms may include vomiting, drowsiness, or behavior changes.
E) Prolonged neurological problems may occur.
Answer: C
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
26) The eradication of smallpox was possible because
A) it was a relatively mild disease.
B) insect vectors were eliminated.
C) there are no animal reservoirs of the virus.
D) it can be prevented with the same vaccine used to prevent chickenpox.
E) it occurs only in the tropics.
Answer: C
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
27) Which of the following is used to treat herpetic keratitis?
A) penicillin
B) sulfonamide
C) trifluridine
D) fungicide
E) acyclovir
Answer: C
Section: 21.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
28) Which of the following is used to treat shingles?
A) penicillin
B) sulfonamide
C) trifluridine
D) fungicide
E) acyclovir
Answer: E
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
29) Which of the following is used to treat sporotrichosis?
A) penicillin
B) sulfonamide
C) trifluridine
D) oral potassium iodide
E) acyclovir
Answer: D
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
30) Which of the following is used to treat candidiasis of the skin or mucous membranes?
A) penicillin
B) sulfonamide
C) trifluridine
D) miconazole
E) acyclovir
Answer: D
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
31) Scabies is a skin disease caused by a
A) slow virus.
B) protozoan.
C) mite.
D) bacterium.
E) prion.
Answer: C
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
32) Scabies is transmitted by
A) fomites.
B) food.
C) water.
D) soil.
E) respiratory secretions.
Answer: A
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
33) A patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She
most likely has
A) measles.
B) mumps.
C) chickenpox.
D) rubella.
E) smallpox.
Answer: C
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
34) Which of the following leads to all the others?
A) toxemia
B) scalded skin syndrome
C) staphylococcal infection
D) TSST-1
E) sudden drop in blood pressure
Answer: C
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
35) Buruli ulcer is caused by
A) gram-positive bacteria.
B) acid-fast bacteria.
C) a fungus.
D) a virus.
E) a mite.
Answer: B
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
36) The patient has a papular rash. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small
eight-legged animals. The etiology is
A) Candida.
B) Microsporum.
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
E) Sarcoptes.
Answer: E
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
37) The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin
scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. The etiology is
A) Candida.
B) Microsporum.
E) Sarcoptes.
Answer: D
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
38) The patient has scaling skin on his fingers. Conidiospores are seen in microscopic
examination of skin scrapings. The etiology is
A) Candida.
B) Microsporum.
E) Mycobacterium ulcerans.
Answer: B
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
39) A 45-year-old man has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right
quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are
most likely due to
A) Candida albicans.
B) herpes simplex virus.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) varicella-zoster virus.
Answer: E
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
40) A 35-year-old woman has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram-stained
skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by
A) Candida albicans.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) varicella-zoster virus.
Answer: A
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
41) Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A) Haemophilus influenzae pinkeye

B) Chlamydia trachomatis trachoma
C) Neisseria gonorrhea opthalmia neonatorum
D) Acanthamoeba keratitis
E) Pseudomonas inclusion conjunctivitis
Answer: E
Section: 21.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
42) Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and uses the swab to inoculate
a nutrient agar plate. The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are
gram-positive cocci. You advise him that he should next look for
A) an acid-fast reaction.
B) a coagulase reaction.
C) conidiospores.
D) pseudohyphae.
E) pseudopods.
Answer: B
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
A) chickenpox poxvirus
B) conjunctivitis Chlamydia trachomatis

C) keratitis Acanthamoeba
D) otitis externa Pseudomonas
E) Buruli ulcer Mycobacterium
Answer: A
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
44) A 17-year-old boy has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic
examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is caused by
A) Acanthamoeba.
C) Propionibacterium acnes.
Answer: C
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
45) Which of the following is likely to spread MRSA among athletes?
A) physical contact
B) whirlpool baths
C) taping gels
D) shared equipment
Answer: E
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
46) Inflammation of the thin clear membrane lining the eyelid and eye is properly termed
A) keratititis
B) trachoma
C) ophthalmia neonatorum
D) conjunctivitis
E) whitlow
Answer: D
Section: 21.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) Pathogens of the skin often enter via hair follicles and ducts of the sweat glands.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 21.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) The majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
3) The abbreviation GAS refers to pathogenic strains of Staphylococcus.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
4) Haemophilus influenzae is the most common bacterial cause of pinkeye.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 21.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
5) Candidiasis often occurs following antibiotic therapy for bacterial infections.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
6) Infection with Pediculus humanus is called scabies.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
7) Blue-green pus is characteristic of Pseudomonas wound infections.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
8) The normal flora of the skin is predominantly gram-negative rods.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 21.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) Acanthamoeba infections are usually transmitted via insects.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 21.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
10) The varicella-zoster virus is the causative agent of chickenpox and shingles.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) Compare and contrast the virulence factors associated
with Staphylococcus and Streptococcus. Which of these agents is the most difficult to treat?
Explain your answer.
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 2.3
Global Outcome: 8
2) Currently, the only remaining stocks of smallpox are located in the United States and in
Russia. Several dates for the destruction of these stocks have been set, but then postponed.
Discuss the pros and cons of destroying these remaining smallpox stocks. Do you feel they
should be destroyed? Explain your answer.
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 7.4
Global Outcome: 8
3) List the disease symptoms and virulence factors associated with Pseudomonas infections.
Why can Pseudomonas be difficult to control in a hospital environment?
Section: 21.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8

of the Nervous System
Chapter 22 Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
1) All of the following are true regarding African trypanosomiasis EXCEPT
A) it is also known as sleeping sickness.
B) all subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei have multiple hosts.
C) it is transmitted by the tsetse fly.
D) death ultimately occurs without proper treatment.
E) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is the more common cause of disease.

Answer: B
Section: 22.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because
A) no medications exist for treatment of these infections.
B) antibiotics damage nervous tissue.
C) many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier.
D) the infections move along peripheral nerves.
E) it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe.
Answer: C
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
3) All of the following organisms cause meningitis EXCEPT
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) Haemophilus influenzae.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans.
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E) Mycobacterium leprae.
Answer: E
Section: 22.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
4) Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitis is FALSE?
A) A healthy carrier state can exist.
B) It is encapsulated.
C) It is typically transmitted by droplet aerosols or direct contact with secretions.
D) Its most distinguishing feature is a unique rash.
E) It is a gram-positive anaerobe.
Answer: E
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
A) Neisseria meningitidis produces deadly endotoxins

B) Haemophilus influenzae virulence due to capsule
C) Mycobacterium leprae cultured in armadillos
D) Cryptococcus neoformans acid-fast rod
E) Naegleria fowleri causes amoebic encephalitis
Answer: D
Section: 22.4
Global Outcome: 2
6) All of the following organisms are correctly matched to the recommended treatment
EXCEPT
A) Neisseria meningitidis cephalosporins.

B) Haemophilus influenzae cephalosporins.
C) Cryptococcus neoformans amphotericin B.
D) Mycobacterium leprae dapsone.
E) poliovirus amphotericin B.
Answer: E
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
7) Which of the following statements about leprosy is FALSE?
A) It is rarely fatal.
B) Patients with leprosy must be isolated.
C) It is transmitted by direct contact.
D) Diagnosis is based on skin biopsy.
E) The etiologic agent is acid-fast.
Answer: B
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
8) All of the following organisms are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT
B) Haemophilus influenzae.
C) Listeria monocytogenes.
D) Cryptococcus neoformans.
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these organisms are transmitted by the respiratory
route.
Answer: C
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE?
A) It is caused by Lyssavirus.
B) Hydrophobia is associated with the disease.
C) Most infections in the U.S. are the result of bites from infected dogs.
D) Diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques.
E) Average incubation period is 30 to 50 days after initial infection.
Answer: C
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
10) The symptoms of tetanus are due to
A) endospore formation.
B) systemic infection.
C) sustained relaxation of muscles.
D) tetanospasmin.
E) inflammation.
Answer: D
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
11) All of the following diseases are caused by arbovirus EXCEPT
A) St. Louis encephalitis.
B) eastern equine encephalitis.
C) West Nile encephalitis.
D) primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these diseases are caused by arbovirus.
Answer: D
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
12) A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On

examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff
neck. Any of the following organisms could be responsible for her symptoms EXCEPT
A) Clostridium botulinum.
B) Listeria monocytogenes.
C) Haemophilus influenza.
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E) Any of these organisms could be the causative agent.
Answer: A
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
13) The most effective control of mosquito-borne disease is
A) treatment of infected humans.
B) treatment of infected wild animals.
C) elimination of the mosquito population.
D) avoidance of endemic areas.
E) treatment of uninfected humans.
Answer: C
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
14) Initial treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person with a puncture wound is
A) tetanus toxoid.
B) tetanus immune globulin.
C) penicillin.
D) none; no action is necessary.
E) debridement.
Answer: B
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
15) Initial treatment for tetanus in a fully immunized person with a puncture wound is
A) tetanus toxoid.
B) tetanus immune globulin.
C) penicillin.
D) DTaP.
E) debridement.
Answer: A
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
16) The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through
A) the skin.
B) the circulatory system.
C) the gastrointestinal system.
D) the parenteral route.
E) direct penetration into nerves.
Answer: B
Section: 22.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
17) The prodromal (i.e. pre-acute disease stage) symptoms of bacterial meningitis is/are
A) mild cold symptoms.
B) fever and headache.
C) stiff neck and back pains.
D) convulsions.
E) fever, headache, and stiff neck.
Answer: A
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
18) All of the following are associated with botulism outbreaks EXCEPT
A) type A toxin is most virulent.
B) endospores of C. botulinum have been recovered from honey.
C) type E toxin is associated with seafood.
D) Alaskan natives have the lowest rate of botulism in the world.
E) antibodies are not an effective method of treatment.
Answer: D
Section: 22.2
Global Outcome: 7
19) A pathologist detects Negri bodies while examining a brain section taken at autopsy.
What was the cause of death?
A) rabies
B) meningococcal meningitis
C) eastern equine encephalitis
D) Hansens disease
E) poliomyelitis
Answer: A
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
20) Encephalitis is more common in the summer months because
A) pathogens are present in swimming pools and lakes.
B) ameba populations increase in swimming pools.
C) ticks are encountered while hiking in the woods.
D) mosquito populations increase.
E) people encounter more bats during warm summer evenings.
Answer: D
Section: 22.3
Global Outcome: 7
A) leprosy direct contact
B) poliomyelitis respiratory route
C) meningococcal meningitis respiratory route
D) rabies direct contact
E) listeriosis ingestion
Answer: B
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
22) A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On

examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff
neck. Which of the following is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her
symptoms?
A) Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Gram stain of throat culture
C) biopsy of brain tissue
D) check serum antibodies
E) None of these would provide rapid identification.
Answer: A
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 2
23) Each of the following is caused by prions EXCEPT
A) sheep scrapie.
B) kuru.
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
D) bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
E) rabies.
Answer: E
Section: 22.6
Global Outcome: 2
24) Which of the following vaccine characteristics is (are) mismatched with their respective
vaccine type?
A) 1, 3, and 5
B) 4, 5, and 6
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 only
E) None of the answers are correct; all these characteristics are correctly matched.
Answer: D
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
25) An eight-year-old girl in rural Wisconsin has chills, headache, and fever and reports
having been bitten by mosquitoes. How would you confirm your diagnosis of arboviral
encephalitis?
A) ELISA test for IgM antibodies
B) brain biopsy for Negri bodies
C) Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid
D) examination of local mosquitoes
E) complement fixation test for IgG antibodies
Answer: A
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 2
26) All of the following are true of chronic fatigue syndrome EXCEPT
A) it may have a genetic component.
B) it is also known as myalgic encephalomyelitis.
C) it is a psychological disorder.
D) it often begins with flu-like symptoms that do not go away.
E) it may be triggered by a viral infection.
Answer: C
Section: 22.7
27) A physician diagnoses a patient with lepromatous Hansens disease. All of the following
pertain to the patient EXCEPT
A) disfiguring nodules form all over the body.
B) the disease has progressed from the tuberculoid stage.
C) a skin biopsy will be taken to aid diagnosis.
D) treatment will include injections of penicillin.
E) infection probably occurred as a result of prolonged contact with another infected

individual.
Answer: D
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
28) Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________.
A) meningitis; bee stings
B) meningitis; mosquitoes
C) encephalitis; dog bites
D) encephalitis; mosquitoes
E) both meningitis and encephalitis; mosquitoes
Answer: D
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
29) Naegleria fowleri meningoencephalitis is commonly acquired by
A) exposure to bird droppings.
B) mosquito bites.
C) swimming in warm ponds or streams.
D) ingestion of water contaminated with fecal material.
E) exposure to body fluids of a contaminated individual.
Answer: C
Section: 22.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
30) Diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by
A) Gram stain.
B) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
C) patients symptoms.
D) passive agglutination.
E) patients death.
Answer: B
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
31) Which of the following is treated with antibiotics?
A) botulism
B) tetanus
C) streptococcal pneumonia
D) polio
E) All of these diseases can be successfully treated with antibiotics.
Answer: C
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
32) Which one of the following causes the most severe illness in humans, with a mortality
rate of 30 percent?
A) western equine encephalitis
B) eastern equine encephalitis
C) St. Louis encephalitis
D) California encephalitis
E) West Nile encephalitis
Answer: B
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
33) Which of the following is/are a free-living amoeba that can cause encephalitis?
A) Acanthamoeba
B) Naegleria
C) Entamoeba
D) Naegleria and Acanthamoeba
E) Entamoeba and Naegleria
Answer: D
Section: 22.5
34) Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the
organism?
A) Haemophilus
B) Listeria
C) Naegleria
D) Neisseria
E) Streptococcus
Answer: B
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
35) On June 30, a 47-year-old man was hospitalized with dizziness, blurred vision, slurred
speech, difficulty swallowing, and nausea. Examination revealed facial paralysis. He reported
eating home-canned green beans and stew containing roast beef and potatoes 24 hours
before onset of symptoms. The patient should be treated with
A) antibiotics.
B) toxin.
C) surgery.
D) vaccination.
E) supportive care, including respiratory assistance.
Answer: E
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
36) On October 5, a pet store sold a kitten that subsequently died. On October 22, rabies
was diagnosed in the kitten. Between September 19 and October 23, the pet store had sold
34 kittens. Approximately 1000 people responded to health care providers following local
media alerts. These people were given
A) antibiotics.
B) human diploid cell vaccine.
C) immune globulin injections.
D) antiviral medications.
E) postexposure prophylaxis.
Answer: E
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
37) Vaccination is available for all the following EXCEPT
A) Haemophilus meningitis.
B) Neisseria meningitis.
C) tetanus.
D) rabies.
E) botulism.
Answer: E
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
38) Patients with leprosy usually die from complications such as
A) brain damage.
B) loss of nerve function.
C) tuberculosis.
D) pneumonia.
E) cardiac arrest.
Answer: C
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
39) All of the following are acquired by ingestion EXCEPT
A) botulism.
B) cryptococcosis.
C) listeriosis.
D) poliomyelitis.
E) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
Answer: B
Section: 22.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
40) A one-year-old boy was listless, irritable, and sleepy. Capsulated Gram-negative rods
were cultured from his cerebrospinal fluid. His symptoms were caused by
B) rabies.
C) Clostridium tetani.
D) Haemophilus influenzae.
E) a prion.
Answer: D
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
A) tetanus releases potent neurotoxin
B) botulism stimulates transmission of nerve impulse
C) poliomyelitis multiplication of virus occurs in throat and small intestine
D) rabies virus destroys cells of the CNS
E) leprosy deformation of nose and hands can occur
Answer: B
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
42) All of the following microorganisms can directly cause meningitis EXCEPT
A) protozoa.
B) virus.
C) fungi.
D) bacteria.
E) mosquitoes.
Answer: E
Section: 22.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
43) Which of the following vaccines can cause the disease it is designed to prevent?
A) tetanus toxoid vaccine
B) oral polio vaccine
C) inactivated polio vaccine
D) Haemophilus influenzae capsule vaccine
E) meningococcal capsule vaccine
Answer: B
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 7
44) All of the following are true of M. leprae EXCEPT
A) it grows best at temperatures below 37 C.
B) it survives ingestion by macrophages.
C) it invades cells of the PNS.
D) it can be cultured in armadillos.
E) it has a very short generation time of approximately twelve hours.
Answer: E
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
45) All of the following are true of poliomyelitis EXCEPT
A) infection is due to ingestion of contaminated water.
B) initial sites of viral replication are the throat and small intestine.
C) most cases result in muscle paralysis.
D) the majority of cases are asymptomatic.
E) the oral polio vaccine contains attenuated strains of the virus.
Answer: C
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) CSF contains high levels of complement and circulating antibodies to prevent infection of
the brain and spinal cord.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 22.1
2) Viral meningitis is much more common than bacterial meningitis and tends to cause a
milder form of disease.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
3) Lifelong immunity is conferred once an individual has had botulism and recovered.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
4) Poliomyelitis is caused by a virus and usually leads to paralysis in those affected.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
5) If a normal protein typically found on the surface of nervous tissue cells comes into
contact with an abnormally folded protein, it can lead to prion-related disease.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 22.6
6) The most common host of the virus causing eastern equine encephalitis is horses.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 22.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
7) The number of leprosy cases in the United States is gradually increasing.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 22.3
Global Outcome: 7
8) Autopsy of a stillborn fetus reveals the cause of death to be meningitis. Cultures show
the presence of a gram-positive rod. The likely pathogen is Haemophilus influenza.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
9) Botulism and tetanus are caused by bacterial endospores commonly found in the soil.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 22.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
10) Cryptococcus neoformans is a gram-negative cocci with a thick capsule.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 22.4
Global Outcome: 2
1) There is an antitoxin for botulism. Why, then, is the outcome of botulism often fatal?
Section: 22.2
Global Outcome: 8
2) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
Section: 22.3
Global Outcome: 8
3) Explain the transmission and etiology of meningococcal meningitis.
Section: 22.2
Global Outcome: 8

of the Cardiovascular and
Lymphatic Systems
Chapter 23 Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
1) Which of the following statements about sepsis is FALSE?
A) Symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure.
B) Lymphangitis may occur.
C) It can be treated with antibiotics.
D) It usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria.
E) It may be aggravated by antibiotics.
Answer: D
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
A) subacute bacterial endocarditis alpha-hemolytic streptococci
B) acute bacterial endocarditis Staphylococcus aureus

C) pericarditis Streptococcus pyogenes
D) puerperal sepsis Staphylococcus aureus
E) Burkitts lymphoma Epstein-Barr virus
Answer: D
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
3) Which of the following is NOT a recognized form of anthrax?
A) cutaneous
B) inhalationial
C) septic
D) gastrointestinal
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are recognized forms of anthrax.
Answer: C
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
4) Which of the following is NOT typically treated with penicillin?
A) serious wounds at risk for gas gangrene
B) tularemia
C) patients at risk for rheumatic fever
D) puerperal sepsis
E) rat-bite fever
Answer: B
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
5) Which of the following statements about tularemia is FALSE?
A) It is caused by Francisella tularensis.
B) The most common reservoir is rabbits.
C) It may be transmitted by arthropods.
D) It may be transmitted by direct contact.
E) It occurs only in California.
Answer: E
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
6) Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis?
A) gastroenteritis
B) relapsing fever
C) undulant fever
D) pneumonia
E) jaundice
Answer: C
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
7) Which of the following is NOT transmitted in raw milk?
A) toxoplasmosis
B) anthrax
C) brucellosis
D) listeriosis
E) All of these can be transmitted in raw milk.
Answer: A
Section: 23.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
8) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?
A) is aerobic
B) is gram-positive
C) forms endospores
D) found in soil
E) produces endotoxins
Answer: E
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following EXCEPT
A) microbial fermentation.
B) necrotizing exotoxins.
C) proteolytic enzymes.
D) hyaluronidase.
E) endocarditis
Answer: E
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
10) Which of the following bacterial infections CANNOT be transmitted by dog or cat bites?
A) Pasteurella multocida
B) Streptobacillus
C) Bartonella henselae
D) Fusobacterium
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these bacterial infections can be transmitted by dog
or cat bites.
Answer: B
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
A) malaria Anopheles (mosquito)

B) dengue Aedes (mosquito)
C) epidemic typhus Pediculus (louse)
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever Dermacentor (tick)
E) encephalitis Ixodes (tick)
Answer: E
Section: 23.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
12) Unsanitary and crowded conditions increase the incidence of all of the following
diseases EXCEPT
A) plague.
B) epidemic typhus.
C) endemic murine typhus.
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
E) relapsing fever.
Answer: D
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 5
13) Which of the following statements about toxoplasmosis is FALSE?
A) It is caused by a protozoan.
B) The reservoir is cats.
C) It is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route.
D) It is a severe illness in adults.
E) It can be congenital.
Answer: D
Section: 23.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
14) Which of the following pairs does NOT apply to Chagas disease?
A) causative agent Trypanosoma cruzi
B) vector kissing bug
C) reservoir rodents
D) diagnosis of acute phase serological tests for antibodies
E) treatment nifurtimox
Answer: D
Section: 23.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
15) Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium?
A) epidemic typhus
B) tickborne typhus
C) malaria
D) plague
E) relapsing fever
Answer: C
Section: 23.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
16) A patient presents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and
subcutaneous nodules at joints. The recommended treatment is
A) supportive care.
B) streptomycin.
C) chloroquine.
D) hyperbaric chamber.
E) praziquantel.
Answer: A
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
17) Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is FALSE?
A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus.
B) It is caused by health care personnel.
C) It begins as a focal infection.
D) It is a complication of abortion or childbirth.
E) Its frequency of occurrence has decreased because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques.
Answer: A
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
18) Which of the following statements about schistosomiasis is FALSE?
A) The cercariae penetrate human skin.
B) They symptoms are caused by immune reactions to the eggs shed in the human host.
C) The intermediate host is an aquatic snail.
D) It is caused by a roundworm.
E) The female worm lives in a groove that runs down the body of the male.
Answer: D
Section: 23.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
19) Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is FALSE?
A) It is a complication of a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
B) It is an inflammation of the heart.
C) It is an inflammation of the joints.
D) It is rarely fatal, even when untreated.
E) The incidence has declined in the last ten years.
Answer: D
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
A) Rickettsia intracellular parasite

B) Brucella gram-negative aerobic rods
C) Francisella gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic bacillus
D) Bacillus gram-positive endospore-forming rods
Answer: C
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
21) Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across
the placenta?
A) Borrelia
B) cytomegalovirus
C) Spirillum
D) anthrax
E) Yersinia
Answer: B
Section: 23.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
A) Borrelia relapsing fever

B) Yersinia plague
C) Streptobacillus rat-bite fever
D) Pasteurella cat-scratch disease
E) Spirillum rat-bite fever
Answer: D
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
23) A patient returning from an extended trip into Mexico has the following symptoms: a
papule at the site of a previous bug bite and enlarged lymph nodes. Microscopic
examination of the papule reveals nucleated cells in white blood cells. The patient most
likely has
A) anthrax.
B) brucellosis.
C) leishmaniasis.
D) malaria.
E) schistosomiasis.
Answer: C
Section: 23.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
24) Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by
A) rat flea.
B) dog flea.
C) the respiratory route.
D) wounds.
E) unsanitary conditions.
Answer: C
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
25) A characteristic symptom of plague is
A) small red spots on the skin.
B) swollen lymph nodes.
C) rose-colored spots.
D) recurrent fever.
E) nausea and vomiting.
Answer: B
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
26) Which of the following pairs regarding the epidemiology of malaria is mismatched?
A) vector Ixodes
B) etiology Plasmodium
C) found in liver sporozoites
D) diagnosis presence of merozoites
E) treatment chloroquine when possible
Answer: A
Section: 23.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
27) A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is
A) gangrene.
B) burns.
C) debridement.
D) hyperbaric treatment.
E) an infected finger.
Answer: A
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
28) Which of the following is NOT a zoonosis?
A) puerperal sepsis
B) Hantavirus infection
C) anthrax
D) brucellosis
E) tularemia
Answer: A
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
29) Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for all of the following diseases EXCEPT
A) plague.
B) brucellosis.
C) epidemic typhus.
D) yellow fever.
E) malaria.
Answer: B
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
A) cat-scratch disease malignant pustule developing into septicemia
B) brucellosis a temperature of 40C each evening
C) tularemia a localized infection appearing as a small ulcer
D) Borrelia rash and flulike
E) toxoplasmosis congenital brain damage
Answer: A
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
31) Which of the following CANNOT be transmitted to humans from domestic cats?
A) toxoplasmosis
B) plague
C) Chagas disease
D) Bartonella
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these diseases can be transmitted to humans from
domestic cats.
Answer: C
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
32) Which of the following is the same for both relapsing fever and undulant fever?
A) rising and falling body temperature
B) mode of transmission
C) presence of rash
D) reservoir
E) etiology
Answer: A
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
33) Which of the following is NOT treated with antibiotics?
A) plague
B) tularemia
C) Lyme disease
D) Ebola
E) anthrax
Answer: D
Section: 23.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
34) Which of the following produces a permanent carrier state following infection?
A) Borrelia
B) cytomegalovirus
C) Spirillum
D) Toxoplasma
E) Yersinia
Answer: B
Section: 23.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
35) Epstein-Barr virus has been implicated in all of the following EXCEPT
A) endocarditis.
B) infectious mononucleosis.
C) Burkitts lymphoma.
D) nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
E) Hodgkins disease.
Answer: A
Section: 23.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
36) Which of the following leads to all the others?
A) subcutaneous hemorrhaging
B) presence of antirickettsial antibodies
C) blockage of capillaries
D) bacterial growth in endothelial cells
E) breakage of capillaries
Answer: D
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
37) A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain, and a rash. The patient
reports returning from a Caribbean vacation one week ago. Which of the following do you
suspect?
A) Lassa fever
B) dengue
C) Hantavirus hemorrhagic fever
D) typhus
E) yellow fever
Answer: B
Section: 23.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
38) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched for Gram reaction?
A) Lyme disease gram-negative
B) tularemia gram-negative
C) anthrax gram-positive
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever gram-negative
E) Ehrlichia gram-positive
Answer: E
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
39) Scrapings from a patients rash reveal cercariae. The disease is most likely
A) Lyme disease.
B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
C) relapsing fever.
D) swimmers itch.
E) Chagas disease.
Answer: D
Section: 23.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
40) You advise your pregnant friend to not adopt a new kitten from her neighbor because
she could contract
A) plague.
B) Brukitts Lymphoma.
C) toxoplasmosis.
D) listeriosis.
E) infectious mononucleosis.
Answer: C
Section: 23.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
41) Which of the following is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme,
Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection?
A) treatable with penicillin
B) not contagious
C) accompanied by a rash
D) affected mostly children
E) transmitted by ticks
Answer: A
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
42) Which of the following is NOT controlled by a mosquito eradication program?
A) chikungunya fever
B) yellow fever
C) dengue fever
D) schistosomiasis
E) malaria
Answer: D
Section: 23.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
43) A 62-year-old man was hospitalized with an eight-day history of fever, chills, sweats,
and vomiting. His temperature on admission was 40C (104F). A routine peripheral blood
smear revealed ring-shaped bodies in the RBCs. What treatment would you prescribe?
A) hyperbaric oxygen
B) mefloquine
C) no treatment
D) penicillin
E) streptomycin
Answer: B
Section: 23.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
44) Which of the following statements about group B streptococci is FALSE?
A) They are present in healthy carriers.
B) They cause gram-positive sepsis.
C) They cause strep throat.
D) They cause neonatal sepsis.
E) They are classified as Streptococcus agalactiae.

Answer: C
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
45) Brucella bacteria are considered a potential agent of bioterrorism because
A) they are not susceptible to antibiotics.
B) they easily become airborne.
C) infection causes a fever.
D) it is a endospore-forming organism.
E) it causes ulcerating lesions of the skin.
Answer: B
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
1) All lymph that returns to the heart must pass through at least one lymph node.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 23.1
2) Lymph contains red blood cells.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 23.1
3) Pathogens must be blood-borne in order to initiate sepsis.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
4) Neonatal sepsis is most commonly caused by group A streptococci.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
5) Subacute bacterial endocarditis is commonly the result of infections initially focused on

the oral cavity.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
6) All viral hemorrhagic fever outbreaks have been confined to the Eastern Hemisphere.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 23.3
7) Netting modified for sandflies should also be useful in preventing malaria.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 23.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
8) Tularemia is considered to be a potential bioterrorism agent due its high infective dose.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) All forms of typhus are associated with arthropod vectors.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
10) The most likely primary site of replication during mononucleosis is the B lymphocyte.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 23.3
ASMcue Outcome: 4.4
1) Humans are not the normal hosts for Ixodes and Xenopsylla. How, then, do humans
contract Lyme disease and plague?
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
2) On June 1, a 32-year-old hiker was bitten by a tick. After one week, he noticed an
erythrematous ring at the location of the bite. Four weeks later, a physician found a large,
macular, centrifugally spreading ring. During the next month, it expanded to 35 cm and
faded. Over the next 2.5 years, the man experienced recurrent inflammation of a knee.
Identify the periods of incubation, prodromal, illness, and decline. What is the etiology?
What caused the symptoms? What treatment should have been administered in July? What
treatment should be administered two years later?
Section: 23.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
3) Worldwide, which disease is the most serious public health threat: malaria, Chagas
disease, or brucellosis? Explain why, and provide a plan to reduce the incidence of the
disease.
Section: 23.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
4) Yellow fever and chikungunya fever are not currently endemic in the United States. Is it
possible that they could become established in the future? What factors would play a role?
Be sure to include a comparison of the causative agents and vectors in your answer.
Section: 23.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8

of the Respiratory System
Chapter 24 Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
1) The lower respiratory tract is protected by all of the following EXCEPT
A) competition with the normal flora of the lungs.
B) IgA antibodies.
C) mucous secretions.
D) the ciliary escalator.
E) alveolar macrophages.
Answer: A
Section: 24.1
A) pharyngitis sore throat
B) laryngitis voice loss
C) epiglottitis sore throat
D) sinusitis headache and nasal mucous
E) otitis media earache
Answer: C
Section: 24.3
3) Members of the group A streptococci (GAS) cause all of the following EXCEPT
A) strep throat.
B) scarlet fever.
C) rheumatic fever.
D) pharyngitis.
E) epiglottitis.
Answer: E
Section: 24.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
4) Which of the following statements about mycoplasmal pneumonia is TRUE?
A) The causative agent is a virus.
B) The symptoms resemble pneumococcal pneumonia.
C) The causative agent cannot be cultured.
D) Treatment is tetracyclines.
E) Annual vaccination can prevent infection.
Answer: D
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
5) Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of influenza?
A) fever
B) chills
C) headache
D) diarrhea
E) muscle aches
Answer: D
Section: 24.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
A) Corynebacterium gram-positive rod
B) Mycobacterium acid-fast rod
C) Mycoplasma gram-positive pleomorphic rod
D) Bordetella gram-negative pleomorphic rod
E) Haemophilus gram-negative rod
Answer: C
Section: 24.6
7) Which of the following microorganisms causes symptoms most like tuberculosis?
A) Histoplasma
B) Coccidioides
C) Legionella
D) Mycoplasma
E) Influenza virus
Answer: A
Section: 24.9
ASMcue Outcome: 5.3
Global Outcome: 2
8) All of the following can lead to a positive tuberculin skin test EXCEPT
A) vaccination.
B) current tuberculosis infection.
C) previous tuberculosis infection.
D) immunity to tuberculosis.
E) being near someone with tuberculosis.
Answer: E
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
9) Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its vaccine?
A) tuberculosis toxoid
B) whooping cough heat-killed bacteria
C) diphtheria toxoid
D) influenza viruses grown in embryonated eggs
E) pneumococcal pneumonia capsular polysaccharides
Answer: A
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 7
10) Which of the following diseases has a cutaneous form, especially in individuals over 30
years of age?
A) coccidioidomycosis
B) diphtheria
C) legionellosis
D) scarlet fever
E) psittacosis
Answer: B
Section: 24.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
11) Which of the following requires treatment with both antibiotics and antitoxins?
A) diphtheria
B) tuberculosis
C) whooping cough
D) scarlet fever
E) psittacosis
Answer: A
Section: 24.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
A) epiglottitis Haemophilus
B) Q fever Rickettsia
C) psittacosis Chlamydia
D) whooping cough Bordetella
E) melioidosis Burkholderia
Answer: B
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
13) Which of the following does NOT cause otitis media?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Moraxella catarrhalis
E) Coxiella burnetii
Answer: E
Section: 24.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
14) Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
A) Pneumocystis
B) Aspergillus
C) Rhizopus
D) Mucor
Answer: E
Section: 24.9
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
15) Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its reservoir?
A) tuberculosis cattle
B) histoplasmosis soil
C) psittacosis parakeets
D) coccidioidomycosis air
E) pneumocystis humans
Answer: D
Section: 24.9
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
16) All of the following are true of the common cold EXCEPT
A) it is caused by rhinoviruses and coronaviruses.
B) it is transmitted via aerosols and contact.
C) early treatment will drastically reduce the disease symptoms.
D) complications include laryngitis and otitis media.
E) the duration of symptoms is approximately one week.
Answer: C
Section: 24.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
17) Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal,
and convalescent stages?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) respiratory syncytial virus
Answer: A
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
18) Which one of the following is an irregular, gram-positive rod?
C) Burkholderia pseudomallei
E) Pneumocystis jirovecii
Answer: B
Section: 24.4
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
19) Infection by which of the following results in the formation of Ghon complexes?
E) Blastomyces dermatidis
Answer: C
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
20) Which one of the following produces the most potent exotoxin?
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer: B
Section: 24.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
21) The most effective means of preventing influenza is
A) annual vaccination.
B) isolation of carriers.
C) vector control.
D) pasteurization of milk.
E) administration of amantadine.
Answer: A
Section: 24.8
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
22) Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen?
A) Pneumocystis
B) Legionella
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycoplasma
E) rhinovirus
Answer: A
Section: 24.9
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 7
23) Which of the following etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Mycoplasma
C) Streptococcus
D) Blastomyces
E) Coccidioides
Answer: D
Section: 24.9
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
24) The primary victims of the influenza pandemic of 1918-1919 were
A) members of the military.
B) infants and the elderly.
C) residents of Spain; therefore, it was known as the Spanish Flu.
D) young adults.
E) residents of the U.S.
Answer: D
Section: 24.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
25) All of the following are used as first-line drugs for treating tuberculosis EXCEPT
A) ethambutol.
B) isoniazid.
C) fluoroquinolones.
D) rifampin.
E) pyrazinamide.
Answer: C
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
26) Infection by which of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Mycoplasma
D) Streptococcus
E) Mycobacterium
Answer: C
Section: 24.6
27) Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by a red rash?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Mycoplasma
D) Streptococcus
E) RSV
Answer: D
Section: 24.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
28) Inhalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by which of the following

organisms?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Mycoplasma
D) Streptococcus
E) Chlamydophila
Answer: B
Section: 24.9
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
29) Soil is a reservoir for all of the following EXCEPT
A) Q fever.
B) melioidosis.
C) blastomycosis.
D) histoplasmosis.
E) coccidioidomycosis.
Answer: A
Section: 24.9
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 2
30) A patient has pneumonia. Gram-negative rods are cultured on nutrient agar from a
sputum sample. The etiology is
A) Burkholderia pseudomallei.
B) Chlamydophila psittaci.
C) Haemophilus influenzae.
D) Legionella pneumophila.
Answer: A
Section: 24.7
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 2
31) The patient is suffocating because of an inflamed epiglottis. What is the etiology of the
symptoms?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Haemophilus
C) Bordetella
D) Mycobacterium
E) RSV
Answer: B
Section: 24.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
32) The patient has a sore throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Rhinovirus
C) Bordetella
D) Streptococcus
Answer: E
Section: 24.3
Global Outcome: 2
33) The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her
throat. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Haemophilus
C) Bordetella
D) Mycobacterium
Answer: A
Section: 24.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
A) Burkholderia melioidosis
B) Coxiella Q fever
C) Mycoplasma walking pneumonia
D) Chlamydophila psittacosis
E) Mycobacterium whooping cough
Answer: E
Section: 24.6
35) All of the following are classified as fungi EXCEPT
A) Blastomyces.
B) Coccidioides.
C) Histoplasma.
D) Mycobacterium.
E) Pneumocystis.
Answer: D
Section: 24.9
36) Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick-walled cysts. What is the etiology
of the symptoms?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycobacterium
E) Pneumocystis
Answer: E
Section: 24.9
ASMcue Outcome: 2.1
Global Outcome: 2
37) Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows spherules. What is the etiology of the
symptoms?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycobacterium
E) Pneumocystis
Answer: B
Section: 24.9
Global Outcome: 2
38) Which of the following statements regarding tuberculosis is FALSE?
A) Nearly 1/3 of the worlds population is infected with tuberculosis.
B) Nearly 1/3 of the worlds population shows symptoms of tuberculosis.
C) It is responsible for nearly 2 million deaths per year.
D) At least 1/3 of those who are TB-positive are also HIV-positive.
E) Treatment requires at least six months of antibiotic therapy.
Answer: B
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
39) A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the
symptoms?
A) Bordetella
B) Corynebacterium
C) Burkholderia
D) Mycobacterium
E) Mycoplasma
Answer: A
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
40) A patient who presents with red throat and tonsils can be diagnosed as having
A) streptococcal pharyngitis.
B) scarlet fever.
C) diphtheria.
D) the common cold.
Answer: E
Section: 24.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
41) A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive
tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most
likely has
A) tuberculosis.
B) influenza.
C) pneumococcal pneumonia.
D) mycoplasmal pneumonia.
E) the common cold.
Answer: C
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
42) Which of the following is responsible for epidemics of respiratory disease in infants?
A) rhinovirus
B) adenovirus
C) respiratory syncytial virus
D) influenza
E) Mycoplasma
Answer: C
Section: 24.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
43) Which of the following is NOT an intracellular parasite?
A) Chlamydophila
B) Coccidioides
C) Coxiella
D) Influenza virus
E) RSV
Answer: B
Section: 24.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
44) Which one of the following produces small fried-egg colonies on medium containing
horse serum and yeast extract?
A) Chlamydophila
B) Legionella
C) Mycobacterium
D) Mycoplasma
E) Streptococcus
Answer: D
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
45) Legionella is transmitted by
A) airborne transmission.
B) foodborne transmission.
C) person-to-person contact.
D) fomites.
E) vectors.
Answer: A
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) It is common for a normal, healthy individual to carry potentially pathogenic organisms in

their upper respiratory tract.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 24.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) Most cases of sinusitis and otitis media will not resolve unless they are treated with
antibiotics.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 24.3
3) The symptoms of diphtheria are due to an exotoxin that blocks proteins synthesis in host
cells.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 24.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
4) The most common causative agent of bacterial pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
5) A positive tuberculosis skin test indicates that the patient has active tuberculosis.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 24.6
6) Vaccination with the influenza vaccine confers lifelong immunity to influenza virus.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 24.8
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
7) Coccidioides immitis causes Valley fever, a disease that is endemic to the Mississippi
Valley.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 24.9
8) Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes atypical pneumonia, also known as walking pneumonia.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) Risks for Q fever include contact with infected cattle and drinking unpasteurized milk.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
10) Infections with Legionella pneumophila are usually transmitted via aerosols from
contaminated air conditioning systems, showers, and humidifiers.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 24.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) Compare and contrast antigenic shift and antigenic drift in influenza virus. How do
antigenic shifts and drifts contribute to the need for annual vaccinations to prevent
influenza?
Section: 24.8
Global Outcome: 8
2) Pneumonia is diagnosed by the presence of fluid (dark shadows in an X-ray image) in the
alveoli. Given that pneumonia usually is caused by a microorganism, what causes the fluid
accumulation? Name a bacterium, a virus, a fungus, a protozoan, and a helminth that can
cause pneumonia.
Section: 24.7
Global Outcome: 8
3) Using diphtheria and whooping cough as examples, discuss why it is necessary to

continue to vaccinate against diseases that are relatively rare in the U.S. today.
Section: 24.6
Global Outcome: 8
of the Digestive System
Chapter 25 Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
1) Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental caries?
A) sucrose
B) lysozyme
C) lactic acid
D) crevicular fluid
E) dentin
Answer: C
Section: 25.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.2
2) Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea is usually preceded by
A) eating contaminated food.
B) a blood transfusion.
C) extended use of antibiotics.
D) improper food storage.
E) travel to an underdeveloped country.
Answer: C
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
3) Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE?
A) It is a bacterial infection.
B) Severity of disease depends on number of organisms ingested.
C) A healthy carrier state exists.
D) The mortality rate is high.
E) It is often associated with poultry products.
Answer: D
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
4) Disease-causing exotoxins are produced by all of the following organisms EXCEPT
A) Clostridium perfringens.
B) Vibrio cholerae.
C) Shigella dysenteriae.
E) Clostridium botulinum.
Answer: C
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
5) Which one of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the
respiratory route?
A) staphylococcal enterotoxicosis
B) mumps
C) Vibrio gastroenteritis
D) bacillary dysentery
E) travelers diarrhea
Answer: B
Section: 25.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
6) The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures, beginning
with the mouth, is
A) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.
B) esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine.
C) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine.
D) esophagus, stomach, pharynx, small intestine, large intestine.
E) pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine.
Answer: A
Section: 25.1
7) Which of the following helminthic diseases is a common infestation found in the

southeastern United States?
A) Enterobius vermicularis
B) Ascaris lumbricoides
C) Taenia saginata
D) Trichuris trichiura
E) Echinococcus granulosus
Answer: B
Section: 25.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
8) Poultry products are a likely source of infection by
A) Helicobacter pylori.
B) Salmonella enterica.
C) Vibrio cholerae.
D) Shigella spp.
E) Clostridium perfringens.
Answer: B
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) All of the following infections can result from drinking contaminated water EXCEPT
A) Cyclospora infection.
B) giardiasis.
C) trichinellosis.
D) cholera.
E) cryptosporidiosis.
Answer: C
Section: 25.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
10) Which of the following organisms feeds on red blood cells?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Escherichia coli
C) Taenia spp.
D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
E) Entamoeba histolytica
Answer: E
Section: 25.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
11) In humans, beef tapeworm infestations are acquired by ingesting
A) the eggs of Taenia saginata.

B) segments of Taenia solium tapeworms.
C) water contaminated with Diphyllobothrium latum eggs.
D) cysticerci of Taenia saginata in undercooked meat.
E) cysticerci of Taenia solium in undercooked meat.
Answer: D
Section: 25.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
12) Which of the following statements about staphylococcal food poisoning is FALSE?
A) It is caused by ingesting an enterotoxin.
B) It can be prevented by adequate refrigeration of food.
C) It can be prevented by heating foods to 50C for 15 minutes.
D) It is treated by replacing water and electrolytes.
E) It is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms.
Answer: C
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
13) The most common cause of travelers diarrhea is
A) Shigella spp.
B) Salmonella enterica.
C) Giardia lamblia.
D) Escherichia coli.
E) Campylobacter jejuni.
Answer: D
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
14) Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days and
commonly affects children is probably caused by
A) Giardia.
B) rotavirus.
C) Salmonella.
E) Trichinella.
Answer: B
Section: 25.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
A) hydatid disease humans are the definitive host
B) Taenia infestation humans are the definitive host
C) trichinellosis humans eat larva of parasite
D) pinworm infestation humans ingest parasites eggs
E) hookworm infestation parasite bores through skin
Answer: A
Section: 25.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
16) Thorough cooking of food will prevent all of the following EXCEPT
A) trichinellosis.
B) beef tapeworm.
C) staphylococcal food poisoning.
D) salmonellosis.
E) shigellosis.
Answer: C
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
17) Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in the
A) mouth.
B) stomach.
C) stomach and small intestine.
D) small intestine and large intestine.
E) accessory structures.
Answer: D
Section: 25.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
18) Gums bleeding while brushing ones teeth is most commonly associated with
A) halitosis.
B) cavities.
C) gingivitis.
D) periodontitis.
E) trench mouth.
Answer: C
Section: 25.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
19) Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever
A) the microorganisms multiply within macrophages.
B) the incubation period is much longer.
C) the symptoms are due to infection of the gallbladder.
D) infection is spread only in the feces of domesticated animals.
E) infection occurs due to ingestion of endospores.
Answer: B
Section: 25.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
20) Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp?
A) Trichinella spiralis
B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C) Giardia lamblia
D) Clostridium perfringens
E) Staphylococcus aureus
Answer: B
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
21) Which of the following organisms is likely to be transmitted via undercooked pork and
horse?
A) Salmonella enterica
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Trichinella spiralis
D) Entamoeba histolytica
E) Shigella spp.
Answer: C
Section: 25.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
22) A vaccine to provide active immunity to HBV is prepared from
A) viruses grown in tissue culture.
B) genetically modified yeast.
C) pooled gamma globulin.
D) viruses grown in embryonated eggs.
E) viral particles in patients.
Answer: B
Section: 25.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
23) Aflatoxin is a(n) ________ associated with ingestion of contaminated ________.
A) mycotoxin; peanuts
B) mycotoxin; rye or other cereal grains
C) enterotoxin; peanuts
D) enterotoxin; rye or other cereal grains
E) endotoxin; peanuts
Answer: A
Section: 25.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
24) Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver?
A) Salmonella enterica
B) Shigella spp.
C) hepatitis A virus
D) Vibrio cholerae
E) Escherichia coli
Answer: C
Section: 25.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
25) Rice water stools are characteristic of
A) salmonellosis.
B) cholera.
C) bacillary dysentery.
D) amebic dysentery.
E) tapeworm infestation.
Answer: B
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
26) Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by
A) biological vectors.
B) contaminated food and water.
C) unpasteurized milk.
D) the respiratory route.
E) exposure to contaminated soil.
Answer: B
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
27) Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with
A) antitoxin.
B) penicillin.
C) water and electrolytes.
D) quinacrine.
E) thorough cooking.
Answer: C
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
28) Dental plaque is an example of
A) a pellicle.
B) a biofilm.
C) gingivitis.
D) dentin.
E) tooth enamel.
Answer: B
Section: 25.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.2
Global Outcome: 7
A) ergot gangrene
B) Salmonella endotoxin lyses red blood cells
C) Vibrio enterotoxin secretion of Cl, K+, and H2O
D) aflatoxin liver cancer
E) shiga toxin tissue destruction
Answer: B
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
30) Bacterial intoxications differ from bacterial infections of the digestive system in that
intoxications
A) are transmitted via contaminated water.
B) are more severe.
C) have shorter incubation times.
D) are treated with antibiotics.
E) are accompanied by high fever.
Answer: C
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
31) The most common mode of HAV transmission is
A) contamination of food during preparation.
B) contamination of food before it reaches a food service establishment.
C) blood transfusion.
D) contaminated hypodermic needles.
E) airborne.
Answer: A
Section: 25.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
32) Which of the following correctly lists the stages of tooth decay?
A) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel,

decay in dentin, decay in tooth pulp
B) decay in dentin, plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, advancement of decay

through enamel, decay in tooth pulp
C) plaque accumulation, destruction of enamel, decay in tooth pulp, advancement of decay

through enamel, decay in dentin
D) destruction of enamel, advancement of decay through enamel, plaque accumulation,

E) destruction of enamel, plaque accumulation, advancement of decay through enamel,

Answer: A
Section: 25.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.2
33) A 38-year-old man had onset of fever, chills, nausea, and myalgia while vacationing on
the Gulf of Mexico. On April 29, he had eaten raw oysters and gone wading in the warm
coastal waters. On May 2, he was admitted to a hospital because of a fever of 39C and two
circular necrotic lesions on the left leg. He had a history of alcoholic liver disease. He was
transferred to the ICU; therapy with antibiotics was initiated. On May 4, he died. Which of
the following is the most likely cause?
A) Bacillus cereus
B) Cyclospora cayetanensis
C) Salmonella typhi
D) Vibrio vulnificus
E) hepatitis C virus
Answer: D
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
34) Which of the following is included in GALT?
A) thymus
B) Peyers patches
C) tonsils
D) liver
E) salivary glands
Answer: B
Section: 25.1
35) Microscopic examination of a patients fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria
probably belong to the genus
A) Campylobacter jejuni.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Salmonella typhi.
D) Shigella spp.
E) Vibrio cholerae.
Answer: A
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
36) Which of the following pertains to typhoid fever?
A) It is acquired via ingestion of contaminated meat.
B) Enterotoxin spreads via the blood.
C) It is caused by several different species of Salmonella.
D) Causative microorganism multiplies in patient phagocytes.
E) It is also called bacillary dysentery.
Answer: D
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
37) All of the following are gram-negative rods that cause gastroenteritis EXCEPT
A) Clostridium perfringens.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Salmonella typhi.
D) Shigella spp.
E) Yersinia enterocolitica.
Answer: A
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
38) Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it
A) hides in macrophages.
B) makes a capsule.
C) possesses an enzyme that neutralizes HCl.
D) makes HCl.
E) invades epithelial cells.
Answer: C
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 2
39) All of the following are eukaryotic organisms that cause diarrheal disease EXCEPT
A) Cryptosporidium.
B) Cyclospora.
C) Entamoeba.
D) Giardia.
E) Campylobacter.
Answer: E
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
40) All of the following pertain to pinworm infections EXCEPT
A) transmission is typically by contact with fomites or inhalation of eggs.
B) diagnosis is by detecting eggs on transparent tape pressed to the perianal area.
C) all family members living with the patient must also be treated.
D) it is most commonly transmitted by cysts in water.
E) it is a helminth disease.
Answer: D
Section: 25.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
41) What is a Dane particle?
A) the chlorine-resistant virus that causes HAV
B) the infectious virion that causes HBV
C) the spherical particles found in serum of patients with HBV
D) the filamentous particles that cause HAV
E) another name for an HBV surface antigen
Answer: B
Section: 25.5
A) beef E. coli O157:H7

B) custard and cream pies Staphylococcus aureus
C) eggs Trichinella spiralis
D) chicken Campylobacter jejuni
E) oysters Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Answer: C
Section: 25.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
Situation 25.1
Following a county fair, 160 persons complained of gastrointestinal symptoms. Symptoms
included diarrhea (84 percent), abdominal cramps (96 percent), nausea (84 percent),
vomiting (82 percent), body aches (50 percent), fever (60 percent; median body
temperature = 38.3C); median duration of illness 6 days (range 10 hr to 13 days).
43) In Situation 25.1, fecal samples should be cultured for all of the following EXCEPT
A) Salmonella enterica.
B) Shigella spp.
C) Campylobacter jejuni.
D) enteropathogenic Escherichia coli.
E) Giardia lamblia.
Answer: E
Section: 25.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
44) In Situation 25.1, fecal samples were found to be negative when cultured. The next
step in diagnosing the cause of illness would be
A) to begin antibiotic therapy.
B) blood cultures.
C) microscopic examination of feces for oocysts.
D) microscopic examination of feces for viruses.
E) muscle biopsy.
Answer: C
Section: 25.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
45) Table 25.1
Food Relative Risk
Black beans 0.58
Corn soup 0.75
Jalapeo peppers 34.13
Roma tomatoes 5.40
The relative risks shown in Table 25.1 were calculated for foods suspected of transmitting
Salmonella. Which food is the most likely source of infection?
A) black beans
B) corn soup
C) jalapeo peppers
D) roma tomatoes
Answer: C
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 7.2
Global Outcome: 3
1) Campylobacter gastroenteritis is the leading cause of foodborne illness in the United

States.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) Dental caries can also be referred to as periodontal disease.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 25.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.2
3) Bacterial infections, but not intoxications, can cause diarrhea.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
4) An outbreak of viral gastroenteritis occurs in a pediatrics ward. Rotavirus is the most

likely causative agent.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 25.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
5) Aflatoxin poisoning is associated with liver cancer.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 25.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
6) Approximately 30 percent of the bodys immune system is located in the intestinal tract.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 25.1
7) Lactic acid, an end product of fructose fermentation, causes breakdown of tooth enamel
and, eventually, cavities.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 25.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 7
8) Gastroenteritis due to ingestion of food contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus is due to
intoxication by enterotoxins.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
9) EHEC is a major cause of diarrhea in developing countries and may result in the death of
small children.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
10) H. pylori is able to survive the acidic environment of the stomach as a result of
adaptations that allow it to increase the pH of the immediate environment.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 7
1) Mary made her familys favorite cream of broccoli soup for lunch. Lunch was forgotten
when her son suddenly remembered he had a soccer game at noon. The family finally
returned several hours later and sat down to eat. Although Mary reheated the soup (which
had been left out at room temperature while they were gone), why is this no guarantee that
Mary and her family will not become sick due to food poisoning?
Section: 25.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
2) Discuss why cholera epidemics are often associated with floods.
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
3) Compare the modes of transmission for hepatitis A, B, and C.
Section: 25.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
4) Describe the process of periodontal disease.
Section: 25.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
5) Multiple pathovars of E. coli are well characterized. Identify four different pathogenic
strains and discuss the mechanism of disease for each.
Section: 25.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8
6) Thinking of a mumps infection, how do the symptoms involve the GI tract, yet lead to
airborne transmission of the disease? Why isnt the disease transmitted by fecal-oral
contamination instead?
Section: 25.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 8

of the Urinary and Reproductive
Systems
Chapter 26 Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
1) Normal microbiota of the adult vagina consist primarily of
A) Lactobacillus.
B) Streptococcus.
C) Mycobacterium.
D) Neisseria.
E) Candida.
Answer: A
Section: 26.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
2) Cystitis is most often caused by
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Leptospira interrogans.
C) Candida albicans.
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Answer: A
Section: 26.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
3) Pyelonephritis may result from
A) urethritis.
B) cystitis.
C) ureteritis.
D) systemic infections.
Answer: E
Section: 26.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
4) All of the following result from N. gonorrhoeae infection. Which one leads to the others?
A) Antibody production is stopped.
B) CD4+ T lymphocytes do not activate.
C) There is an increased risk of other STIs.
D) Opa protein attaches to CD4+ T lymphocytes.

E) CD4+ T lymphocytes do not proliferate.
Answer: D
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
5) Pyelonephritis usually is caused by
A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B) Proteus spp.
C) Escherichia coli.
D) Enterobacter aerogenes.
Answer: C
Section: 26.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
6) The most common reservoir for leptospirosis within the United States is
A) humans.
B) water.
C) domestic dogs.
D) domestic cats.
E) rats.
Answer: C
Section: 26.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
7) Which of the following is NOT primarily a sexually transmitted infection (STI)?
A) lymphogranuloma venereum
B) genital herpes
C) gonorrhea
D) chancroid
E) trichomoniasis
Answer: E
Section: 26.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
8) Which of the following is treated with penicillin?
A) genital herpes
B) genital warts
C) candidiasis
D) syphilis
E) trichomoniasis
Answer: D
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
A) trichomoniasis fungus
B) gonorrhea gram-negative cocci
C) chancroid gram-negative rod
D) Gardnerella clue cells
E) syphilis gram-negative spirochete
Answer: A
Section: 26.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
10) One form of NGU is lymphogranuloma venereum caused by
A) Leptospira interrogans.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D) Treponema pallidum.
E) Candida albicans.
Answer: B
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
11) All of the following can cause congenital infection or infections of the newborn EXCEPT
A) syphilis.
B) gonorrhea.
C) nongonococcal urethritis.
D) genital herpes.
E) lymphogranuloma venereum.
Answer: E
Section: 26.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
12) Which of the following recurs at the initial site of infection?
A) gonorrhea
B) syphilis
C) genital herpes
D) chancroid
E) LGV
Answer: C
Section: 26.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
13) Which of the following is diagnosed by detection of antibodies against the causative
agent?
A) nongonococcal urethritis
B) gonorrhea
C) syphilis
D) lymphogranuloma venereum
E) candidiasis
Answer: C
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
14) Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT
A) Mycoplasma homini.
B) Candida albicans.
C) Trichomonas vaginalis.
D) streptococci.
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Answer: E
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
15) Which of the following is caused by an opportunistic pathogen?
A) trichomoniasis
B) genital herpes
C) candidiasis
D) gonorrhea
E) chancroid
Answer: C
Section: 26.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
16) The pH of the adult vagina is acidic due to the conversion of ________ to ________ by
bacteria.
A) glucose; ethanol
B) protein; acetic acid
C) glycogen; lactic acid
D) mucosal cells; lactic acid
E) urine; lactic acid
Answer: C
Section: 26.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 7
17) A urine sample collected directly from the urinary bladder
A) is sterile.
B) contains fewer than 100 pathogens/ml.
C) contains fewer than 10,000 pathogens/ml.
D) contains more than 100,000 pathogens/ml.
E) has leukocyte esterase.
Answer: A
Section: 26.3
18) Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Enterococcus.
C) Proteus.
D) Klebsiella.
E) Pseudomonas.
Answer: A
Section: 26.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
19) Which of the following is NOT an antimicrobial feature of the urinary system?
A) physiological valves found in the ureter
B) pH of the urine
C) flushing action of urine
D) the use of the urethra for seminal fluid in women
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are antimicrobial features of the urinary
system.
Answer: D
Section: 26.1
20) Which of the following is NOT a predisposing factors to cystitis in females?
A) the proximity of the anus to the urethra
B) the length of the urethra
C) sexual intercourse
D) poor personal hygiene
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are predisposing factors.
Answer: E
Section: 26.4
21) The most common reportable disease in the United States is
A) cystitis.
B) lymphogranuloma venereum.
C) gonorrhea.
D) syphilis.
E) candidiasis.
Answer: C
Section: 26.5
22) Which of the following is NOT a complication of gonorrhea?
A) arthritis
B) pelvic inflammatory disease
C) endocarditis
D) meningitis
E) None of the answers are correct; all of these are potential complications of gonorrhea.
Answer: E
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
23) Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents?
A) genital herpes
B) gonorrhea
C) syphilis
D) trichomoniasis
E) leptospirosis
Answer: A
Section: 26.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 7
24) Vaginal itching and cheesy discharge are symptoms of
A) Gardnerella vaginosis.
B) genital herpes.
C) candidiasis.
D) trichomoniasis.
Answer: C
Section: 26.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
25) Recurring vesicles on the surface of human skin are symptoms of
B) genital herpes.
C) candidiasis.
D) trichomoniasis.
Answer: B
Section: 26.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
26) Leukocytes at the infected site are a symptom of
B) genital herpes.
C) candidiasis.
D) trichomoniasis.
Answer: D
Section: 26.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
27) Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia?
A) Gardnerella vaginosis
B) genital herpes
C) candidiasis
D) trichomoniasis
E) lymphogranuloma venereum
Answer: E
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
28) A positive LE test and 10,000 CFU/ml in urine indicates
A) cystitis.
B) gonorrhea.
C) urethritis.
D) pyelonephritis.
E) genital herpes.
Answer: D
Section: 26.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
29) Which of the following diseases causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever?
A) gonorrhea
B) syphilis
C) NGU
D) trichomoniasis
E) genital herpes
Answer: B
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
30) Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes
A) cystitis.
B) pyelonephritis.
C) vaginitis.
D) gonorrhea.
E) syphilis.
Answer: A
Section: 26.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
31) Which one of the following statements about genital warts is FALSE?
A) It is transmitted by direct contact.
B) It is caused by papillomaviruses.
C) It is always precancerous.
D) It is treated by removing them.
E) It can lead to cervical cancer in women.
Answer: C
Section: 26.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
32) The most common NGU in the United States is treated with
A) penicillin.
B) cephalosporins.
C) acyclovir.
D) AZT.
E) doxycycline.
Answer: B
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
33) Which of the following statements about pelvic inflammatory disease is FALSE?
A) It can cause sterility and chronic pain.
B) It can be caused by N. gonorrhoeae.
C) It can be transmitted sexually.
D) It can be caused by C. trachomatis.

E) It can be caused by T. pallidum.
Answer: E
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
34) Which one of the following does NOT cause nongonococcal urethritis?
A) Chlamydia
B) Mycoplasma
C) Neisseria
D) Ureaplasma
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these cause NGU.
Answer: C
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
35) Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to
acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because
A) maternal antibodies offer protection.
B) the disease cannot be transmitted to newborns.
C) the disease is not communicable.
D) prophylactic antibiotics are administered to the newborn.
E) the virus is not growing.
Answer: A
Section: 26.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
36) Which of the following is greater?
A) the number of reported cases of gonorrhea last year
B) the number of reported cases of AIDS last year
C) The number of reported cases of gonorrhea and AIDS are likely equal.
Answer: A
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
37) A patient presents with fever and extensive lesions of the labia minora. Her VDRL test
was negative. What is the most likely treatment?
A) metronidazole
B) cephalosporins
C) acyclovir
D) miconazole
E) No treatment is available.
Answer: C
Section: 26.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
38) A patient is experiencing profuse greenish-yellow, foul-smelling discharge from her

vagina. She is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment?
A) metronidazole
B) cephalosporins
C) acyclovir
D) miconazole
E) No treatment is available.
Answer: A
Section: 26.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
39) A 25-year-old man presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and
feet. Which of the following causative agents is most likely to cause these symptoms?
A) Nesseria
B) HPV
C) HSV-2
D) Candida
E) Treponema
Answer: E
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
feet. Which of the following will be most useful for a rapid diagnosis?
A) bacterial culture
B) microscopic examination of blood
C) serological test for antibodies
D) serological test for antigen
E) viral culture
Answer: C
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 2
feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an
ulcer on his penis two months earlier. What stage of disease is the patient in?
A) NGU
B) primary
C) secondary
D) tertiary
Answer: C
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
42) A 25-year-old male presented with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and
feet. Diagnosis was based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an
ulcer on his penis two months earlier. This disease can be treated with
A) acyclovir.
B) metronidazole.
C) miconazole.
D) penicillin.
E) surgery.
Answer: D
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
43) A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on
her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative.
Which treatment is appropriate?
A) acyclovir
B) metronidazole
C) miconazole
D) penicillin
E) surgery
Answer: A
Section: 26.6
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
44) A pelvic examination of a 23-year-old woman showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on
her labia. Cultures were negative for Neisseria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative.
Which of the following is probable?
A) candidiasis
B) genital herpes
C) gonorrhea
D) NGU
E) syphilis
Answer: B
Section: 26.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
45) Which of the following is treated with cephalosporins because the organism is resistant
to penicillin and fluoroquinolones?
A) Mycoplasma hominis
B) Haemophilus ducreyi
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Gardnerella vaginalis
Answer: C
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
1) Anatomically, women have more portals of entry in the reproductive system compared to
men.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 26.2
2) Women and men typically have the same normal microbiota in their reproductive
systems.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 26.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
3) A microbe that enters the vagina would likely cause cystitis if left untreated.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 26.4
4) Candida is a normal flora found in the majority (greater than 50%) of women.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 26.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
5) The male urethra is typically sterile.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 26.3
6) Genital candidiasis is a disease that only affects women.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 26.7
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
7) Trichomoniasis is the only known STI caused by a protozoan.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 26.8
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
8) The TORCH panel of tests is used to screen for diseases like syphilis.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 26.5
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
9) Only HSV-2 can cause genital herpes.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 26.6
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
Global Outcome: 2
10) Most UTI infections in the population are a result of catheterization in a hospital setting.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 26.4
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
1) Why are the unreported cases of STIs an important public health concern?
Section: 26.5
Global Outcome: 7
2) Nearly 70 percent of the patients seen in STI clinics are men. Offer a reason men are
more likely to seek treatment than women. Why is it important that women seek treatment
for STIs?
Section: 26.4
ASMcue Outcome: 7.4
Global Outcome: 7
3) Would you expect reported cases of urethritis to be higher than pyleonephritis? Explain.
Section: 26.4
Global Outcome: 8
4) Would you expect the incidence of leptospirosis to be higher in urban or rural
communities? Explain.
Section: 26.4
ASMcue Outcome: 7.4
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 27 Environmental
Microbiology
Chapter 27 Environmental Microbiology
1) All of the following are habitats for extremophiles EXCEPT
A) an acid mine wash.
B) the topmost portions of the Atlantic Ocean.
C) inside rock.
D) a salt-evaporating pond.
E) 100C water.
Answer: B
Section: 27.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
2) Which of the following organisms is using sulfur as a source of energy?
A) Thiobacillus: H2S S0
B) Desulfovibrio: SO42- H2S
C) Proteus: Amino acids H2S
D) Redwood tree: SO42- Amino acids
E) Photosynthetic bacteria: H2S S0
Answer: A
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
3) Which of the following is NOT a symbiotic pair of organisms?
A) elk and rumen bacteria
B) orchid and mycorrhizae
C) onions and arbuscules
D) bean plant and Rhizobium

E) sulfur and Thiobacillus
Answer: E
Section: 27.1
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
Global Outcome: 2
4) All of the following are true of mycorrhizae EXCEPT
A) they are fungi that form beneficial relationships with plants.
B) an example is the food delicacy truffles.
C) the vesicular-arbuscular mycorrhizae are a type of ectomycorrhizae.
D) they enable plants to absorb soil nutrients.
E) ectomycorrhizae extend the surface area of roots for nutrient absorption.
Answer: C
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
5) The guano deposited by seabirds is used a source for which of the following fertilizer
components?
A) phosphate
B) nitrate
C) sulfate
D) carbonate
E) potassium
Answer: A
Section: 27.2
6) Adding untreated sewage to a freshwater lake would cause the biochemical oxygen
demand to
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) stay the same.
D) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Answer: A
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
Global Outcome: 2
7) In freshwater lakes and ponds, the majority of photosynthetic microbes are located in the
________ zone(s).
A) benthic
B) profundal
C) limnetic
D) littoral
E) benthic and profundal
Answer: C
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
8) All of the following are used in secondary sewage treatment EXCEPT
A) trickling filters.
B) sludge granules or floc formation.
C) aeration.
D) anaerobic digestion.
E) activated sludge.
Answer: D
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
9) 6H2S + 6CO2 6S0 + glucose
A) takes place under aerobic conditions.
B) takes place under anaerobic conditions.
C) The amount of oxygen does not make any difference.
Answer: B
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
10) Which of the following requires aerobic conditions?
A) nitrogen fixation
B) sludge digestion
C) primary sewage treatment
D) secondary sewage treatment
E) water treatment
Answer: D
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
11) All of the following organisms are involved in carbon fixation EXCEPT
A) green and purple sulfur bacteria.
B) cyanobacteria.
C) lichens.
D) algae.
E) mycorrhizae.
Answer: E
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.1
Global Outcome: 2
12) What stage of sewage treatment produces methane?
A) primary treatment
B) secondary treatment
C) tertiary treatment
D) sludge digestion
E) None of the stages of sewage treatment produce methane.
Answer: D
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
13) NH3 NO2
Answer: A
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
14) Bioremediation of petroleum
Answer: A
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
15) Biochemical oxygen demand is a measure of the
A) number of bacteria present in a water sample.
B) amount of oxygen present in a water sample.
C) amount of organic matter present in a water sample.
D) amount of undissolved solid matter present in a water sample.
E) amount of nitrogen in a water sample.
Answer: C
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
16) For the biogeochemical cycles of the following elements, which does NOT have an
atmospheric cycle?
A) carbon
B) phosphorus
C) sulfur
D) nitrogen
Answer: B
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.1
17) Which of the following is required for composting?
A) addition of non-biodegradable materials
B) addition of nitrogen and phosphorus sources
C) periodic turning or raking of the compost pile
D) addition of thermophilic microbes
E) constant anaerobic conditions
Answer: C
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Figure 27.1
18) Which step in Figure 27.1 represents anaerobic respiration?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
Answer: B
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
19) Which term in Figure 27.1 describes step V?
A) ammonification
B) denitrification
C) dissimilation
D) nitrification
E) nitrogen fixation
Answer: E
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
20) Which step in Figure 27.1 represents the following reaction: amino acid (-NH2) NH3?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
Answer: C
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.1
Global Outcome: 2
21) Nitrification is beneficial to farmers. It is represented by which step in Figure 27.1?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
Answer: A
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.1
Global Outcome: 2
22) Which of the following terms describes step III in Figure 27.1?
A) ammonification
B) denitrification
C) nitrification
D) nitrogen fixation
E) assimilation
Answer: A
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
23) Which of the following terms describes NO3 NO2 N2O N2?
A) ammonification
B) denitrification
C) nitrification
D) nitrogen fixation
E) anaerobic respiration
Answer: B
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
24) Which of the following is an assimilation process?
A) Thiobacillus: H2S S0
B) Desulfovibrio: SO42- H2S
C) Proteus: Sulfhydryl-containing amino acids H2S
D) Redwood tree: SO42- Sulfhydryl groups of amino acids
E) Photosynthetic bacteria: H2S S0
Answer: D
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
25) Which wastewater treatment process is responsible for removal of most of the BOD in
sewage?
A) anaerobic sludge digestion
B) primary sewage treatment
C) secondary sewage treatment
D) tertiary sewage treatment
E) water treatment
Answer: C
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
26) Which wastewater treatment process produces BOD-containing effluent used for
irrigation?
E) water treatment
Answer: C
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
27) Residual chlorine must be maintained in
A) anaerobic sludge digestion.
B) primary sewage treatment.
C) secondary sewage treatment.
D) tertiary sewage treatment.
E) water treatment.
Answer: E
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
28) Sedimentation of sludge occurs in
E) water treatment.
Answer: B
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
29) The product of which process contains the highest BOD?
E) water treatment
Answer: B
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
30) Zoogloea form flocculent masses in
C) activated sludge digestion.
E) water treatment.
Answer: C
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
31) Drinking water supplies are routinely tested for the presence of
A) Giardia.
B) Cryptosporidium.
C) fecal coliforms.
D) fecal viruses.
E) Vibrio.
Answer: C
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
32) Aerobic respiration occurs in
E) water treatment.
Answer: C
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
33) In the ONPG and MUG test for fecal coliforms, a sample that is positive for E. coli will be
A) positive for ONPG; fluorescent in UV light.
B) negative for ONPG; fluorescent in UV light.
C) positive for ONPG; non-fluorescent in UV light.
D) negative for ONPG; non-fluorescent in UV light.
Answer: A
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
34) Filtration to remove protozoa occurs in
E) water treatment.
Answer: E
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
35) Which of the following do NOT fix atmospheric nitrogen?
A) cyanobacteria
B) lichens
C) mycorrhizae
D) Rhizobium
E) Azotobacter
Answer: C
Section: 27.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
A) CO2 + 4H2 CH4 + 2H2O Methane-producing bacteria

B) 2 NO2 + O2 2 NO3 Nitrobacter
C) 6CO2 + 6H2O C6H12O6 + 6O2 Clostridium
D) N2 + 6H+ 2NH3 Beijerinckia
E) SO42- + 10H+ H2S + 4H2O Desulfovibrio
Answer: C
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
Global Outcome: 2
37) Bacteria can increase the Earths temperature by
A) generating a great deal of heat in metabolism.
B) producing CH4, which is a greenhouse gas.

C) using the greenhouse gas CO2.
D) providing nutrients for plant growth.
E) oxidizing CH4.
Answer: B
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
Global Outcome: 7
38) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of fecal coliforms?
A) gram-negative
B) non-spore forming
C) rod-shaped
D) lactose-fermenting
E) pathogenic
Answer: E
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.4
39) Which one of the following processes in sewage treatment requires bacterial
metabolism?
A) chlorination
B) primary treatment
C) removal of BOD
D) sedimentation
Answer: C
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
Figure 27.2
40) Where are photosynthetic bacteria most likely to be found in Figure 27.2?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) a and b
E) b and c
Answer: A
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.1
41) Where are the benthic microbes such as Desulfovibrio and Clostridium most likely to be
found in Figure 27.2?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) a and b
E) b and c
Answer: C
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 5.1
42) In the early 1900s, cities such as Philadelphia reduced the incidence of typhoid fever by
A) isolating human carriers.
B) using tertiary water treatment systems.
C) filtering municipal drinking water through sand-bed filters.
D) requiring residents to boil drinking water.
E) mass vaccination of residents.
Answer: C
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
43) The release of phosphate-containing detergents into a river would
A) kill algae.
B) increase algal growth.
C) kill bacteria.
D) improve the water quality.
Answer: B
Section: 27.3
44) Untreated sewage is released into a river. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The untreated sewage is a health hazard.
B) The untreated sewage increases the BOD.
C) The untreated sewage decreases the dissolved oxygen.
D) The untreated sewage kills bacteria.
E) All of the statements are true.
Answer: D
Section: 27.3
45) Bacteria that are used as biosensors
A) migrate to the hazardous chemical.
B) do not emit light in the presence of a hazardous chemical.
C) degrade hazardous chemicals.
D) have chlorophyll.
E) may use the lux operon.

Answer: E
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
1) In water treatment, the purpose of flocculation is to remove microbes, such
as Giardia and Cryptosporidium.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
2) Bioremediation involves the use of microbes to degrade or detoxify pollutants.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
3) The water from tertiary sewage treatment can be used as drinking water.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
4) The purpose of tertiary sewage treatment is to remove all of the phosphorus, nitrogen,
and BOD left from secondary treatment.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 27.3
Global Outcome: 5
5) The BOD is a measurement of the amount of bacteria present before and after the
sewage treatment process.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 27.3
6) The bacteriological safety of drinking water is determined by testing water samples for
the presence of human pathogens.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 8.3
Global Outcome: 5
7) The dense growth of algae in an algal bloom leads to increased oxygen levels in lakes
that enhance the habitat for fish.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
8) Microorganisms in deep-sea vents and caves serve as autotrophic primary producers in

the absence of sunlight.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
9) Nitrogen fixation by bacteria occurs only in the root nodules of leguminous plants.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 27.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
10) In small communities lacking municipal sewage systems, sewage is treated in septic
systems or oxidation ponds.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
1) What is the effect of discharging primary-treated sewage on the BOD and dissolved
O2 (DO) of the receiving body of water? What is the effect of secondary-treated sewage on
the BOD and DO?
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
Global Outcome: 8
2) A newspaper headline reported Algal Bloom Kills Fish. What actually caused fish death,
given that the algae were not toxic? What could have caused the algal bloom?
Section: 27.3
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
Global Outcome: 8
3) Based on your knowledge of extremophiles and endoliths, describe the characteristics

you would expect of microorganisms capable of living on Mars or other non-Earth
environments.
Section: 27.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
Global Outcome: 8
Chapter 28 Applied and

Industrial Microbiology
Chapter 28 Applied and Industrial Microbiology
1) A baker forgets to put yeast in his bread dough. Which of the following do you expect to
happen to the bread as a result?
A) It will take longer to bake.
B) Bacterial contaminants will now be able to grow.
C) The bread will not rise.
D) The bread will look normal but will be tough.
E) The bread will have a sour taste.
Answer: C
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
2) Spoilage of canned foods stored at high temperatures, accompanied by gas production, is
A) thermophilic anaerobic spoilage.
B) flat sour spoilage.
C) spoilage by mesophilic bacteria.
D) caused by acid-tolerant fungi.
E) putrefactive anaerobic spoilage.
Answer: A
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
3) Spoilage of canned foods due to inadequate processing, NOT accompanied by gas

production, is
A) thermophilic anaerobic spoilage.
B) flat sour spoilage.
C) spoilage by mesophilic bacteria.
D) caused by acid-tolerant fungi.
E) putrefactive anaerobic spoilage.
Answer: B
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
A) Propionibacterium Swiss cheese

B) Penicillium blue cheese
C) Lactobacillus yogurt
D) Acetobacter vinegar
E) Bacillus beer
Answer: E
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
5) Which of the following pertains to an improperly canned food product on a store shelf
that has a bad odor and putrefaction of the canned material?
A) mesophilic spoilage
B) flat sour spoilage
C) bacterial soft rot
D) thermophilic anaerobic spoilage
E) hydrogen sulfide spoilage
Answer: A
Section: 28.1
6) All of the following are fuels produced by microorganisms EXCEPT
A) cellulose.
B) ethanol.
C) hydrogen.
D) methane.
E) oil from algae.
Answer: A
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
7) Microorganisms play an active role in the formation of industrial products. Which of the
following is mismatched?
A) Penicillium treatment of disease

B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae for fermentation
C) Rhizobium increases nitrogen in the soil
D) Bacillus thuringiensis insecticide
E) algae citric acid
Answer: E
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.1
8) Which of the following is an undesirable contaminant in wine-making?
A) Acetobacter
B) lactic acid bacteria
C) Clostridium botulinum endospores

D) Saccharomyces
Answer: A
Section: 28.1
Global Outcome: 2
9) Commercial sterilization differs from complete sterilization in that commercial sterilization
A) kills all microorganisms.
B) kills only bacteria.
C) may result in the survival of thermophiles.
D) employs a higher temperature.
E) may result in the survival of fungal spores.
Answer: C
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
Figure 28.1
10) In Figure 28.1, assume the cells are your desired product and you want to maintain a
continuous culture. Remember, the top lines/markings indicate the different phases
observed in the curve below them. When would you harvest cells to maximize your yield?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
Answer: B
Section: 28.2
Global Outcome: 3
11) In Figure 28.1, assume that a secondary metabolite is your desired product. Remember,
the top lines/markings indicate the different phases observed in the curve below them.
When would you be able to obtain it?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
Answer: C
Section: 28.2
Global Outcome: 3
12) In Figure 28.1, assume the cells are producing penicillin which is collected during the
idiophase. Remember, the top lines/markings indicate the different phases observed in the
curve below them. When would you be able to collect the penicillin?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
Answer: C
Section: 28.2
Global Outcome: 3
13) Which of the following reactions is performed by yeast in wine-making?
A) sugar ethanol
B) ethanol acetic acid
C) malic acid lactic acid
D) carbon dioxide sucrose
E) sugar CO2 + H2O

Answer: A
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
14) Which of the following reactions makes wine less acidic, and is important for good flavor
when grapes with higher acidity are used?
A) sugar ethanol
B) ethanol acetic acid
C) malic acid lactic acid
D) carbon dioxide sucrose
E) sugar CO2 + H2O
Answer: C
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
15) Commercial sterilization of processed canned foods uses a 12D treatment which is
based upon a theoretical population of 1012 C. botulinum endospores in a can of food. After
treatment, there would theoretically be how many endospores left?
A) 120 endospores
B) 10 endospores
C) 100 endospores
D) 12 endospores
E) 1 endospore
Answer: E
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 4
16) All of the following are advantages of a bioreactor instead of a flask culture EXCEPT
A) larger culture volumes can be grown.
B) instrumentation for monitoring environmental conditions.
C) uniform aeration and mixing.
D) aseptic sampling.
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these are advantages of using a bioreactor instead
of a flask culture.
Answer: E
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 8.5
Global Outcome: 2
17) Microbial products can be improved by all of the following EXCEPT
A) isolating new strains.
B) mutating existing strains.
C) genetically modifying strains.
D) modifying culture conditions.
E) sterilization.
Answer: E
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 4.1
Global Outcome: 5
18) Which of the following microorganisms is usually used in the fermentation of alcoholic
beverages?
A) Propionobacterium
B) Lactobacillus
C) Rhizopus
D) Saccharomyces
E) Penicillium
Answer: D
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
19) All of the following are true of irradiation methods used for food preservation and
sterilization EXCEPT
A) they prolong shelf-life of fruits and vegetables.
B) residual radioactivity is left behind on many foods.
C) ionizing radiation such as X rays or gamma rays is used.
D) they are used for the sterilization of many spices.
E) they greatly reduce the number of pathogens present in meats and poultry.
Answer: B
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
20) All of the following are industrial products produced by microbes EXCEPT
A) amino acids in food supplements.
B) antibiotics.
C) industrial enzymes.
D) uranium.
E) vitamin B12 and riboflavin.
Answer: D
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
21) All of the following are industrial products produced using microbial fermentations
EXCEPT
A) aspartic acid.
B) citric acid.
C) glutamic acid.
D) riboflavin.
E) saccharin.
Answer: E
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
22) All of the following foods are produced using microbial fermentations EXCEPT
A) sauerkraut.
B) ketchup.
C) sour cream.
D) yogurt.
E) coffee.
Answer: B
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
23) Which of the following microbes produces a natural biopesticide?
A) Penicillium chryssogenum
B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C) Bacillus thuringiensis
D) Lactobacillus buggaricus
E) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
Answer: C
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
24) Biomass is a renewable energy source derived from the organic matter produced by
living organisms. All of the following are sources of biomass EXCEPT
A) oxidation of metals.
B) crops.
C) bacteria.
D) landfill sites.
E) algae.
Answer: A
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
25) All of the following are industrial enzymes made by microbial fermentations EXCEPT
A) glucose isomerase.
B) rennin.
C) proteases.
D) amylases.
E) vitamin C.
Answer: E
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
26) What process does yeast use to produce ethanol for automobile fuel from corn?
A) anaerobic respiration
B) fermentation
C) the Krebs cycle
D) oxidation
E) photosynthesis
Answer: B
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
27) The following steps are required for making cheese. What is the second step, which
helps to provide the characteristic flavors and aromas of the cheese?
A) enzymatic coagulation of milk
B) fermentation of curd
C) inoculation with lactic acid bacteria
D) inoculation with Penicillium
E) separation of curds and whey
Answer: C
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
28) As cheese ages, it gets
A) more acidic.
B) more whey.
C) more protein.
D) saltier.
E) more alcoholic.
Answer: A
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.2
29) Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans is used for the recovery of ________ from ore.
A) sulfur
B) copper
C) iron
D) sulfuric acid
E) gold
Answer: B
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
30) What role do lactic acid bacteria play in cheese production?
A) curd formation
B) production of holes in Swiss cheese
C) ripening the cheese
D) providing characteristic flavor and smell
E) Lactic acid bacteria carry out each of these roles in cheese production.
Answer: E
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
31) You are growing Bacillus subtilis, an aerobic bacterium that can also carry out
fermentation when required, in a bioreactor and notice that the growth rate has slowed and
the pH has decreased. You suspect the bacteria are
A) using the Krebs cycle.
B) fermenting.
C) photosynthesizing.
D) using proteins.
E) dead.
Answer: B
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
32) You are growing Bacillus subtilis, an aerobic bacterium that can also carry out
fermentation when required, in a bioreactor and notice that the growth rate has slowed and
the pH has decreased. What could you add?
A) glucose
B) lactose
C) peptides
D) oxygen
E) lactic acid
Answer: D
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
33) Aseptic packaging utilizes which of the following to sterilize laminated paper or plastic
prior to filling with food?
A) hot HCl solution
B) gamma radiation
C) hot hydrogen peroxide solution
D) X rays
E) autoclave
Answer: C
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
34) All of the following are uses for ionizing or ultraviolet radiation EXCEPT
A) heating cold food.
B) sterilizing spices.
C) inactivation of Trichinella larvae.
D) killing of insect eggs and larva.
E) prevention of sprouting.
Answer: A
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
35) Canning preserves food
A) through use of aseptic packaging.
B) by exposure to chemicals.
C) by exposure to high heat.
D) by exposure to radiation.
E) by exposure to high pH.
Answer: C
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
36) Microorganisms themselves are commercial products. Which of the following microbes is
available as a product sold in retail stores?
A) Bacillus thuringiensis
B) Lactobacillus
C) Rhizobium
D) Saccharomyces
E) All of these organisms can be found in various commercial products.
Answer: E
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
Figure 28.3
37) Figure 28.3 shows the growth curves of Acetobacter under different conditions. Which
culture would produce the highest amount of the primary metabolite acetic acid?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: A
Section: 28.2
Global Outcome: 3
38) Which of the growth curves in Figure 28.3 will give the highest yield of a secondary
metabolite?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e
Answer: C
Section: 28.2
Global Outcome: 3
39) Canning works to preserve foods through
A) creation of an anaerobic environment.
B) creation of an anaerobic environment and exposure to high heat.
C) exposure to high heat.
D) mutation of bacterial DNA.
E) increasing pH.
Answer: B
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
40) Aseptic packaging (where the packaging itself is rendered sterile) helps to preserve
foods through
A) creation of an anaerobic environment in the packaging.
B) creation of an anaerobic environment in the packaging and exposure of the packaging to

high heat.
C) exposure of the packaging to high heat.
D) mutation of bacterial DNA by exposure to the packaging material.
E) increasing pH in the food contained in the packaging.
Answer: C
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
41) Radiation works to preserve foods through
A) creation of an anaerobic environment.
B) creation of an anaerobic environment and high heat.
C) exposure to high heat.
D) lethal mutation of bacterial DNA.
E) increasing pH.
Answer: D
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
42) All of the following are reasons for utilizing algae for biofuel production EXCEPT
A) they do not take up land needed for food production.
B) they produce more energy per acre than corn.
C) their main requirement is abundant light.
D) they can utilize agriculturally poor land.
E) they produce a nondegradable waste product.
Answer: E
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
43) What will be produced if wine is aerated and inoculated with bacteria of the
genera Acetobacter and Gluconobacter?
A) ethanol + CO2
B) CO2 + H2O
C) CH4
D) acetic acid
Answer: D
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 2
44) Bioreactors are widely used for industrial fermentation. Which of the following
conditions must be closely monitored for optimal fermentation?
A) temperature
B) oxygen levels
C) pH
D) both temperature and pH
E) temperature, pH, and oxygen levels
Answer: E
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
Global Outcome: 2
45) Xanthan used in household products is produced by bacteria
A) that were genetically modified.
B) that were irradiated to mutate them.
C) selected for their ability to utilize lactose rather than glucose.
D) that are plant pathogens.
E) selected for their ability to utilize lactose rather than glucose and that are plant
pathogens.
Answer: E
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
1) The blue-green clumps observed in Roquefort cheese are a result of mold growth.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 28.1
2) The longer interior-ripened cheeses are permitted to ripen, the milder the taste of the
cheese.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
3) Mesophilic bacteria grow best at temperatures of 60C.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.3
4) High-pressure processing of foods such as deli meats and precooked chicken strips
targets pathogens such as Salmonella and Listeria.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 2
5) Rhizobium and Bradyrhizobium are mixed with peat moss to increase nitrogen fixation.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
6) The production of vinegar relies on the microbial oxidation of ethanol to acetic acid.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 28.1
7) Industrial canning, as opposed to home canning, is achieved using a pressure cooker

which operates in a manner similar to an autoclave.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 3.4
Global Outcome: 5
8) A large industry exists based on the synthesis of amino acids by microorganisms.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
9) If an industrial microbiologist works with Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans, he is likely to be
involved in copper mining.
Answer: TRUE
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
10) Vitamins A and E are commonly produced by microorganisms.
Answer: FALSE
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 6.3
Global Outcome: 5
1) Discuss the production of four different foods that require microbial fermentation in their
products. In your discussion, name the specific microorganisms used and describe the
fermentation by-product(s) needed for the production of each food item.
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 7.3
2) Discuss the production of three different non-food/beverage substances that utilize

microorganisms in their production. Your discussion should include the specific
microorganisms involved and their role in the production of each substance.
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 7.3
Global Outcome: 8
3) Explain how ionizing radiation can be used to preserve foods. Discuss its advantage over
canning as a method of preservation.
Section: 28.1
ASMcue Outcome: 7.3
Global Outcome: 8
4) Vessels used for industrial fermentation reactions are known as bioreactors. Explain the
difference between batch production and continuous flow production using a bioreactor.
Section: 28.2
ASMcue Outcome: 7.3
Global Outcome: 8

Test Bank Microbiology an Introduction 12th Edition (1)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Test Bank Microbiology an Introduction 12th Edition (1)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Test Bank Microbiology an Introduction 12th Edition (1)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Thanks for your Purchase, and

Welcome to our store:

We’re happy that you choose us over all

And If you have any questions, feel free to contact us at

1) Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT

B) decomposition of organic material.

2) Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT

3) The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is

4) Common commercial benefits of microorganisms include synthesis of

E) riboflavin, acetone and insulin.

9) Which of the following is NOT associated with viruses?

10) Figure 1.1

11) Protozoan motility structures include

D) cilia and pseudopods only.

E) cilia, flagella, and pseudopods.

12) Viruses are not considered living organisms because they

A) cannot reproduce by themselves.

B) are structurally very simple.

D) are typically associated with disease.

E) are ubiquitous in nature.

13) The infectious agent that causes AIDS is a

14) Which of the following is NOT a domain in the three-domain system?

15) Classification of organisms into three domains is based on

A) the presence of a cell wall.

B) the number of cells in the organism.

16) Archaea differ from bacteria in that archaea

A) have diverse cell wall compositions.

C) use organic compounds for food.

D) reproduce by binary fission.

17) Who is credited with first observing cells?

18) Who is credited with first observing microorganisms?

B) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

19) Biogenesis refers to the

A) spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter.

B) development of life forms from preexisting life forms.

C) development of aseptic technique.

D) germ theory of disease.

20) If you were setting up an experiment to disprove spontaneous generation in a liquid

A) supplying the liquid with nutrients

B) starting with a liquid that contains microorganisms

C) adding antibiotics to the liquid

D) using a sterile liquid and eliminating exposure to microorganisms

E) adding carbon dioxide to the liquid

21) The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by

A) Air exchange was involved.

B) A food source was provided.

C) The possibility of contamination was removed.

D) All preexisting microorganisms were killed.

E) All of the answer choices are correct.

23) The microbial process of converting sugars to alcohol is known as

24) Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by

26) Mycology is the study of

E) molds, yeast, and mushrooms.

C) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal.

E) isolate microbes from the blood of healthy animals.

28) In which of the following situations would Kochs postulates be utilized?

A) determination of the cause of a new emerging disease by scientists studying disease

B) development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab

C) determination of the cause of cancer in a patient

D) formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab