Sample questions

1. What is the depth range of an oxidation pond?

A) 0.2 to 0.5 m
B) 0.5 to 1.5 m
C) 1.5 to 2.5 m
D) 2.0 to 3.0 m

Answer: B

2. Which bacteria are responsible for converting organic waste into simpler substances in sludge
treatment?

A) Methane-forming bacteria
B) Acid-forming bacteria
C) Nitrifying bacteria
D) Denitrifying bacteria

Answer: B

3. What is the primary nutrient responsible for eutrophication in water bodies?

A) Nitrogen
B) Phosphorus
C) Sulfur
D) Potassium

Answer: B

4. What gases are produced in the anaerobic zone of oxidation ponds?

A) CH₄, CO₂, NH₃, H₂S

B) CO, H₂, O₂
C) CO₂, NO₃
D) H₂O, O₂, NH₃
Answer: A

5. Which process in wastewater treatment uses activated charcoal?

A) Primary treatment
B) Secondary treatment
C) Tertiary treatment
D) Sludge digestion

Answer: C

6. What is the role of sunlight in oxidation ponds?

A) Aerates the water

B) Helps algae in photosynthesis
C) Oxidizes ammonia
D) Removes suspended solids

Answer: B

7. What does BOD stand for?

A) Biological Organic Demand

B) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
C) Biological Oxidation Demand
D) Basic Organic Digestion

Answer: B

8. In sludge treatment, what temperature is maintained during anaerobic digestion?

A) 25°C
B) 30°C
C) 35°C
D) 40°C

Answer: c

9. What is the primary objective of tertiary treatment?

A) Removal of organic matter

B) Removal of dissolved nutrients
C) Removal of solid particles
D) Reduction of pathogens

Answer: B

10. What compound is formed when phosphorus reacts with ferric chloride?

A) FeCl₃
B) FePO₄
C) AlPO₄
D) Ca₃(PO₄)₂

Answer: B
11. Wildlife Protection Act was introduced in the year
a) 1972
b) 1978
c) 1988
d) 1992
Ans: a

12. Forest Conservation Act was introduced in the year

a) 1986
b) 1980
c) 1982
d) 1989
Ans: b

13. The Indian Fishers Act was introduced in the year

a) 1985
b) 1986
c) 1987
d) 1988
Ans: c

14. The West Bengal Municipal Act was introduced in the year
a) 1990
b) 1992
c) 1993
d) 1994
Ans: c

15. Motor Vehicles Act was introduced in the year

a) 1986
b) 1988
c) 1989
d) 1985
Ans: b

16. The Atomic Energy Act was introduced in the year

a) 1962
b) 1956
c) 1959
d) 1965
Ans: a

17. Average pH value in acid rain is

 a) 9.5
b) 5.6
c) 8.5
d) 6.5
Ans: b

18. The average temperature of the earth is

a) 18°C
b) 15°C
c) 20°C
d) 12°C
Ans: c

19. Pollution can be checked through

a) Reducing discharge of waste
b) Increasing industrial development
c) Throwing waste in open space
d) All the above
Ans: a

20. Eutrophication causes reduction in

a) Dissolved hydrogen
b) Dissolved oxygen
c) Dissolved salt
d) All the above

Ans: b

21. What do aerobic bacteria convert NH₄⁺ into?

A) N₂
B) NO₂⁻
C) NO₃⁻
D) CO₂

Answer: C

22. What process is carried out in oxidation ponds under anaerobic conditions?

A) Nitrification
B) Denitrification
C) Methanogenesis
D) Photosynthesis

Answer: C

23. Which nutrient removal process requires coagulants like alum or lime?

A) Nitrification
B) Phosphorus precipitation
C) Denitrification
D) Methane digestion

Answer: B

24. What type of pond operates under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions?

A) Facultative pond
B) Anaerobic pond
C) Aerobic pond
D) Settling pond

Answer: A

25. What gases are produced during anaerobic sludge digestion?

A) Methane and carbon dioxide

B) Oxygen and nitrogen
C) Hydrogen and oxygen
D) Sulfur dioxide and ammonia

Answer: A

26. How much of the BOD can be removed in the aeration tank?

A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 95%

Answer: D
27. Which method is used to remove heavy metals in tertiary treatment?

A) Ion-exchange resin
B) Activated charcoal
C) Coagulation
D) Sludge digestion

Answer: A

28. What is the main purpose of the aeration tank?

A) Increase oxygen content for aerobic decomposition

B) Remove solid waste
C) Facilitate anaerobic digestion
D) Reduce light penetration

Answer: A

29. Which organisms are primarily responsible for photosynthesis in oxidation ponds

A) Algae
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Protozoa

Answer: A

30. What is the by-product of phosphorus precipitation using alum?

A) SO₄²⁻
B) PO₄³⁻
C) NH₄⁺
D) CO₂

Answer: A

31. Which type of bacteria converts nitrate (NO₃⁻) to nitrogen gas (N₂)?

A) Anaerobic bacteria
B) Aerobic bacteria
C) Methanogenic bacteria
D) Acid-forming bacteria

Answer: A
32. Which of these is NOT a step in the tertiary treatment process?

A) Phosphorus removal
B) Nitrogen removal
C) Sludge digestion
D) Disinfection

Answer: C

33. What happens to solid waste at the bottom of the oxidation pond?

A) It undergoes aerobic decomposition

B) It undergoes anaerobic decomposition
C) It is removed manually
D) It is dissolved into water

Answer: B

34. What material is often used to remove suspended solids in water treatment?

A) Lime
B) Activated charcoal
C) Sand filters
D) Ion-exchange resin

Answer: B

35. In anaerobic digestion, organic acids are converted into which products?

A) Methane and hydrogen

B) Methane and carbon dioxide
C) Ammonia and sulfur dioxide
D) Nitrates and nitrites

Answer: B

36. What happens to wastewater after aeration in secondary treatment?

A) It is discharged into water bodies

B) It flows into a secondary tank
C) It undergoes anaerobic digestion
D) It is dried in sludge beds

Answer: B

37. Why is anaerobic decomposition slower than aerobic decomposition?

A) Lack of oxygen limits bacterial metabolism

B) Higher temperatures are required
C) It requires higher nutrient concentration
D) It depends on light intensity

Answer: A
38. What coagulant forms calcium phosphate during tertiary treatment?

A) Lime
B) Ferric chloride
C) Alum
D) Ferric sulfate

Answer: A

39. What is the role of nitrifying bacteria in nitrogen removal?

A) Convert NH₄⁺ to NO₂⁻

B) Convert NO₂⁻ to NO₃⁻
C) Convert NO₃⁻ to N₂
D) Convert NH₄⁺ to N₂

Answer: B

40. Measurement of rate of oxygen utilisation by a unit volume of water over a period of time
is to measure
a) Fermentation
b) Biogas generation
c) Biosynthetic pathway
d) Biological Oxygen Demand
Ans: d

41. Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rate are due to
a) Acid rain
b) Ozone depletion
c) CO pollution
d) CO2 pollution
Ans: b

42. Sudden mass death of fish is more likely to occur in

a) Eutrophic lake
b) Mesotrophic lake
c) Oligotrophic lake
d) Oxalotrophic lake
Ans: a

43. Which pollution causes jaundice?

a) Water
b) Air
c) Land
d) Thermal
Ans: a
44. Radioactive Sr-90 can enter and accumulate in human body through
a) Breathing contaminated air
b) Drinking water
c) Soil
d) Food chain
Ans: d

45. Ozone day is

a) January, 30
b) September, 16
c) April, 21
d) December, 25
Ans: b

46. In coming years, skin related disorders will become more common due to
a) Excessive use of detergents
b) Water pollution
c) Air pollution
d) Depletion of ozone layer
Ans: d

47. Phosphate pollution is caused by

a) Weathering of phosphate rocks only
b) Agricultural fertilizers
c) Phosphate rocks and sewage
d) Sewage and agricultural fertilizers
Ans: d

48. Common indicator organism of water pollution is

a) Escherichia coli
b) Cholerea vibrio
c) Salmonella typhi
d) Entamoeba histolytica
Ans: a

49. Which pigment protects plants from UV damage?

a) Cholorophyll
b) Xanthophyll
c) Carotenoids
d) Phycocyanin
Ans: c

50. Component of smog is

 a) O3
b) PAN
c) PPN and PBN
d) Both a and b
Ans: d

51. Indiscriminate use of fertilisers causes

a) Air pollution
b) Water pollution
c) Land pollution
d) All the above
Ans: b

52. Most harmful type of environmental pollutants are

a) Human organic waste
b) Natural nutrients in excess
c) Waste animal feed
d) Non-biodegradable chemicals
Ans: d

53. Cadmium pollution is associated with disease

a) Anaemia
b) Itai-itai
c) Minamata
d) Pneumoconniosis
Ans: b

54. Which is not dangerous for life?

a) Nuclear blast
b) Deforestation
c) Ozone layer
d) Bio-pollutants
Ans: c

55. Spraying DDT on crops shall produce pollution of

a) Air and water
b) Air and soil
c) Crops and air
d) Soil and water
Ans: d

56. Sewage water is purified by

a) Micro-organisms
b) Light
 c) Fishes
d) Aquatic plants
Ans: a

57. SO2 pollution causes

a) Plasmolysis
b) Destruction of cell wall
c) Destruction of Golgi bodies
d) Destruction of chlorophyll
Ans: d

58. Sewage treatment in which a portion of decomposer bacteria present in waste is recycled
into the beginning of the process is known as
a) Cyclic treatment
b) Activated sludge treatment
c) Primary treatment
d) Tertiary treatment
Ans: b

59. Warm ocean surge or Peru current that recurs after 5-8 years in East Pacific along South
America is
a) El Nino
b) Aye Aye
c) Mangox
d) Gulf Stream
Ans: a
60. How is phosphorus removed during tertiary treatment?

A) Ion-exchange method
B) Precipitation with coagulants
C) Biological uptake
D) Activated sludge method

Answer: B

61. What is the final disposal method for digested sludge?

A) Used as soil conditioner

B) Pumped into oceans
C) Burned for fuel
D) Buried in cement tanks

Answer: A

62. What factors are critical for maintaining methane-forming bacteria?

A) Neutral pH and low oxygen

B) High light intensity and low nutrients
C) High CO₂ concentration and low temperature
D) Acidic pH and high oxygen

Answer: A

63. What is the first step in surface water treatment?

A) Coagulation
B) Screening
C) Filtration
D) Sedimentation

Answer: b) Screening

64. What material is used for screening in surface water treatment?

A) Parallel steel bars and wire mesh screens

B) Sand filters
C) Activated carbon
D) Membrane filters

Answer: a) Parallel steel bars and wire mesh screens

65. What type of materials are removed during screening?

A) Colloidal particles
B) Bacteria
C) Large floating and suspended materials
D) Dissolved minerals

Answer: c) Large floating and suspended materials

66. Coagulation is used to remove which type of particles?

A) Large particles
B) Dissolved salts
C) Suspended and colloidal particles
D) Heavy metals

Answer: c) Suspended and colloidal particles

67. Colloidal particles in water usually carry:

A) No charge
B) Similar charges
C) Opposite charges
D) Neutral charges

Answer: b) Similar charges

68. The primary purpose of coagulation is to:

A) Remove dissolved gases

B) Neutralize charges on particles
C) Filter particles
D) Add chemicals to water

Answer: b) Neutralize charges on particles

69. Which of the following is NOT a method for coagulation?

A) Adding electrolytes
B) Through boiling
C) Filtration through sand
D) Through electrophoresis

Answer: c) Filtration through sand

70. Coagulation helps in forming:

A) Large particles
B) Colloidal particles
C) Bigger aggregates

d) Chemical residues

Answer: c) Bigger aggregates

71. What happens to particles when their charges are neutralized?

A) They dissolve in water

B) They settle down as aggregates
C) They become more suspended
D) They repel each other

Answer: b) They settle down as aggregates

72. What is the intended action of coagulants?

A) To reduce water temperature

B) To neutralize charges on colloidal particles
C) To add hardness to water
D) To increase particle repulsion

Answer: b) To neutralize charges on colloidal particles

73. Coagulation is primarily used to:

A) Improve taste of water

B) Facilitate precipitation of particles
C) Add electrolytes to water
D) Reduce dissolved oxygen

Answer: b) Facilitate precipitation of particles

74. Particles in colloidal suspension are repelled due to:

A) Opposite charges
B) Similar charges
C) Magnetic attraction
D) Chemical dissolution

Answer: b) Similar charges

75. Which of the following is used as a coagulant?

A) Sand
B) Electrolytes
C) Activated carbon
D) Gravel

Answer: b) Electrolytes

76. What is the term for the action of coagulants in forming larger particles?

A) Flocculation
B) Sedimentation
C) Filtration
D) Screening

Answer: a) Flocculation

77. Coagulation removes:

A) Harmful bacteria
B) Dissolved salts
C) Turbidity
D) Heavy metals

Answer: c) Turbidity

78. In water treatment, the term flocculating agent refers to:

A) An agent that filters water

B) An agent that coagulates particles
C) An agent that disinfects water
D) An agent that aerates water

Answer: b) An agent that coagulates particles

79. The main process that follows coagulation in water treatment is:
A) Screening
B) Filtration
C) Precipitation
D) Aeration

Answer: c) Precipitation

80. The role of electrolytes in coagulation is to:

A) Kill harmful pathogens

B) Increase water hardness
C) Neutralize particle charges
D) Reduce water pH

Answer: c) Neutralize particle charges

81. Most important causative pollutant is

a) Plastic
b) Glass junk
c) Iron junk
d) Detergents
Ans: d

82. Among pollutants which has the most lasting effect

a) Carbon monoxide
b) Pesticides
c) Sulphur dioxide
d) Smoke from chimneys
Ans: b

83. Thermal pollution is more prevalent near

a) Hot water springs
b) Coal-based power plants
c) Temperate zones
d) Tropical zones
Ans: b

84. Pollution indicator plants

a) Are resistant to pollution
b) Can purify the atmosphere
c) Are very sensitive to pollutants
d) Can indicate onset of rains
Ans: c
85. Most hazardous metal pollutant in automobile exhaust is
a) Mercury
b) Lead
c) Cadmium
d) Copper
Ans: b

86. Photochemical smog always contains

a) Ozone
b) Methane
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Carbon dioxide
Ans: a

87. Depletion of ozone layer is due to

a) Oxides of nitrogen
b) Oxides of carbon
c) Oxides of sulphur
d) None of the above
Ans: a

88. Use of lichens in case of pollution is

a) Treatment of pollutant water
b) Bio-indicators of pollution
c) Promote pollution
d) Lichens have no relation with pollution
Ans: b

89. A secondary pollutant is

a) CO
b) CO2
c) PAN
d) Aerosol
Ans: c

90. DDT is
a) Bio-degradable pollutant
b) Non Bio-degradable pollutant
c) Not a pollutant
d) An antibiotic
Ans: b

91. Peeling of ozone umbrella is due to

 a) CFCs
b) PAN
c) CO2
d) Coal burning
Ans: a

92. Environmental pollution effects

a) Biotic components
b) Plants only
c) Man only
d) Biotic and abiotic components of environment
Ans: d

93. Green muffler is related to pollution of

a) Air
b) Soil
c) Noise
d) Water
Ans: c

94. Anxiety and stress are caused by

a) Air pollution
b) Noise pollution
c) Water pollution
d) Nuclear pollution
Ans: b

95. Water pollution is due to

a) Agricultural discharges
b) Sewage and other wastes
c) Industrial effluents
d) All the above
Ans: d

96. Pollutant released by jet planes is

a) Fog
b) Aerosol
c) Smog
d) Colloid
Ans: b

97. Carbon monoxide kills because it destroys

a) Haemoglobin
b) Phytochrome
 c) Cytochrome
d) Both a and b
Ans: a

98. Chlorofluorocarbons are air-polluting agents. They are produced by

a) Acid batteries
b) Diesel trucks
c) Aerosols
d) Jet planes
Ans: c

99. Water is often treated with chlorine to

a) Increase oxygen content
b) Kill germs
c) Remove hardness
d) Remove suspended particles
Ans: b

100. Colloidal particles are typically:

A) Large floating particles

B) Microscopic particles in suspension
C) Completely dissolved particles
D) Soluble salts

Answer: b) Microscopic particles in suspension

101. The phenomenon by which colloidal particles repel each other is due to:

A) Gravity
B) Electrical charges
C) Magnetic fields
D) Chemical bonding

Answer: b) Electrical charges

102. What is the main purpose of primary treatment in wastewater treatment?

A) A) To remove pathogens
B) B) To remove large floating and suspended solids
C) C) To remove dissolved nutrients
D) D) To reduce oxygen demand
Answer: B

103. What type of materials are removed using screening in primary treatment?

A) A) Pathogens and nutrients

B) B) Large floating rubbish like sticks and rags
C) C) Dissolved solids
D) D) Oil and grease

Answer: B

104. How are large solid materials further broken down after screening?

A) A) Using comminutors
B) B) By manual crushing
C) C) Through grit chambers
D) D) Using chemical processes

Answer: A

105. What is the primary function of a grit chamber?

A) A) Removing pathogens
B) B) Removing oil and grease
C) C) Allowing heavy materials like sand and grit to settle
D) D) Reducing biological oxygen demand (BOD)

Answer: C

106. What shape is typically associated with primary settling tanks?

A) Circular
B) Rectangular
C) Cylindrical
D) Square

Answer: A

107. How much suspended solid removal is typically achieved in primary treatment?

A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%

Answer: C

108. Which process helps in removing finely divided suspended solids?

A) Screening
B) Mechanical flocculation
C) Sedimentation
D) Filtration

Answer: B

109. Which of the following is used in the coagulation process?

A) Microorganisms
B) Electrolytes
C) Sand filters
D) Activated carbon

Answer: B

110. What is the efficiency of BOD removal in trickling filters?

A) 40-50%
B) 65-85%
C) 70-90%
D) 85-95%

Answer: B

111. Which of the following is a drawback of trickling filters?

A) Cost-effectiveness
B) High maintenance cost
C) Requires low energy input
D) Limited efficiency with high BOD effluents

Answer: D

112. What is the diameter of circular disks used in Rotating Biological Contractors (RBC)?

A) A) 2.5 m
B) B) 3.6 m
C) C) 4.2 m
D) D) 5.0 m

Answer: B

113. What percentage of each disk in an RBC is submerged in wastewater?

A) A) 20%
B) B) 30%
C) C) 40%
D) D) 50%

Answer: C

114. What type of microorganisms colonize RBC disks?

A) A) Algae and bacteria

B) B) Fungi and viruses
C) C) Protozoa and helminths
D) D) All of the above

Answer: D

115. What enhances oxygen availability in an RBC?

A) A) Continuous water agitation

B) B) Rotating disks exposing surfaces to air
C) C) Aeration pumps
D) D) Manual aeration

Answer: B

116. Which process in wastewater treatment uses an aeration tank?

A) A) Coagulation
B) B) Primary treatment
C) C) Activated sludge process
D) D) Screening

Answer: C
117. What is the role of activated sludge in the treatment process?

A) A) Removing large debris

B) B) Breaking down organic matter using microorganisms
C) C) Reducing pH
D) D) Filtering dissolved salts

Answer: B

118. What happens to digested sludge?

A) A) It is incinerated
B) B) It is used as soil conditioner
C) C) It is discarded as waste
D) D) Both A and B

Answer: D

119. What kind of particles are removed during coagulation?

A) Large floating particles

B) Dissolved organic matter
C) Colloidal particles
D) Heavy metals

Answer: C

120. What method can be employed to neutralize charges during coagulation?

A) Adding acids

B) Adding electrolytes

C) Heating
D) Adding bacteria

Answer: B

121. Which step usually precedes coagulation in surface water treatment?

A) Filtration
B) Sedimentation
C) Screening
D) Flocculation

Answer: C

122. How does boiling help in the coagulation process?

A) By reducing particle size

B) By removing charged sols
C) By killing pathogens
D) By neutralizing chemicals
Answer: B

123. What is the typical detention time for water in a primary clarifier?

A) 30 minutes
B) 1-2 hours
C) 2- hours
D) 5-6 hours

Answer: C
124. What kind of waste can result in reduced trickling filter efficiency?

A) High oil content

B) Low pH waste
C) High BOD waste
D) Solid waste

Answer: C

125. Which is a commonly used coagulant in water treatment?

A) Chlorine
B) Alum
C) Lime
D) Bleach

Answer: B

126. What are the two main stages of wastewater treatment?

A) Physical and Chemical

B) Mechanical and Biological
C) Primary and Secondary
D) Preliminary and Final

Answer: C

127. Which process involves scrapping suspended materials into hoppers?

A) Screening
B) Grit chamber
C) Primary clarification
D) Flocculation

Answer: C

128. What is the key purpose of surface water treatment?

A) Removal of dissolved oxygen

B) Removal of floating and suspended materials
C) Increase of nutrient levels
D) Elimination of odor

Answer: B

129. What is the main pollutant in industrial wastewater?

A) Heavy metals
B) Chemical pollutants
C) Pathogens
D) Nutrients

Answer: B

130. Which film covers the circular disks in RBC?

A) Algal film
B) Gelatinous film
C) Metal oxide layer
D) Sludge film

Answer: B

131. The causes of marine pollution are

a. Industrial wastes
b. Municipal wastes
c. Oil from the ships/trawlers
d. All

Ans: d
132. EPA stands for
a. Environmental Protection Agency
b. Environmental Protection Authority
c. Environmental Project Agency
d. None

Ans: a
133. Rainwater is
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. None
d. All
Ans: a
134. Offshore oil exploration is source of
a. Water pollution
b. Air pollution
c. Thermal pollution
d. Marine pollution

Ans: d
135. Heat from electric power plants is source of
a. Water pollution
b. Air pollution
c. Thermal pollution
d. Marine pollution

Ans: a
136. Acid rain has adverse impact on
a. Biodiversity
b. Molluscan community
c. Both a & b
d. None

Ans: b
137. What is called for the collection of rainwater for use?
a. Rain collection
b. Rainwater harvesting
c. Rain digging
d. Rain water pumping

Ans: b
138. What is called for the method of removing dust and other particles from water using
filters?
a. Filtration
b. Sublimation
c. Rainwater harvesting
d. Evaporation

Ans: a
139. What are the two main types of pollutants?
a. Biodegradable & Non-biodegradable
b. Non-biodegradable & slowly biodegradable
c. Biodegradable & slowly biodegradable
d. Biodegradable & rapidly biodegradable
 Ans: a
140. What are the effects of acid rain?
a. Lowers the pH levels in lakes and seas
b. Causes damage to aquatic life
c. Radioactive wastes
d. Lowers the pH levels in lakes, seas and Causes damage to aquatic life

Ans: d
141. Solar energy is
a. Renewable resource
b. Non-renewable resource
c. Both of Renewable resource and non-renewable energy
d. None

Ans: a
142. Which of the following statements about the acid rain is not correct?
a. Prevent floods and reduce soil erosion.
b. Improve quality of groundwater to avoid its contamination.
c. Reduce water loss
d. decrease ground water level

Ans: d
143. The causes of soil pollution are
a. Fertilizers
b. Pesticides
c. All
d. None

Ans: c
144. In trickling filter, removes ________% of B.O.D.
a. 10-20%
b. 50-60%
c. 70-80%
d. 85-90%

Ans: d
145. RBC stands for
a. Rotating biological contractor
b. Reinforced Brick Concrete
c. Royal Banking Operations
d. None

Ans: a
146. Primary and secondary treatment can remove _________of the BOD
a. 20%
b. 40%
c. 70%
d. 90%

Ans: d
147. _______ are found in agricultural wastes.
a. Pesticides
b. Phenols
c. Proteins
d. Grease

Ans: a
148. Harmful substance released by power plants and cars is
a. Hydrogen
b. Nitrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Carbon dioxide

Ans: d
149. What is first step of waste water treatment?
a. Coagulation
b. Filtration
c. Chlorination
d. Sedimentation

Ans: d
150. What is second step of waste water treatment?
a. Sedimentation
b. Coagulation
c. Filtration
d. Chlorination

Ans: b
151. What is final step of waste water treatment?
a. Sedimentation
b. Coagulation
c. Filtration
d. Chlorination

Ans: d
152. Deforestation causes
 a. Pollution
b. Soil erosion
c. All
d. None

Ans: b
153. Spraying DDT on crops shall produce pollution of
e) Air and water
f) Air and soil
g) Crops and air
h) Soil and water

Ans: d
154. Sewage water is purified by
e) Micro-organisms
f) Light
g) Fishes
h) Aquatic plants

Ans: a
155. Sewage treatment in which a portion of decomposer bacteria present in waste is
recycled into the beginning of the process is known as
e) Cyclic treatment
f) Activated sludge treatment
g) Primary treatment
h) Tertiary treatment

Ans: b
131. Halophytes growing on mud are called
a) Pelophilous
b) Heliophilous
c) Psammophilous
d) Lithophilous

Ans: a
132. What removes heavy materials like sand and grit in primary treatment?

A) Primary clarifier
B) Grit chamber
C) Trickling filter
D) Aeration tank

Answer: B

133. What is the primary purpose of wastewater treatment?

a) To generate energy
b) To protect the environment
c) To increase water supply
d) To improve industrial efficiency

Answer: b

134. Which process removes large floating debris from wastewater?

a) Sedimentation
b) Screening
c) Disinfection
d) Coagulation

Answer: b

135. What is the typical pH range of treated wastewater?

a) 4-5
b) 6-8
c) 8-10
d) 10-12

Answer: b

136. Which of the following is commonly used for coagulation in water treatment?

a) Chlorine
b) Alum
c) Sodium hydroxide
d) Calcium carbonate

Answer: b
137. Which of the following processes is considered a primary treatment method?

a) Filtration
b) Sedimentation
c) Disinfection
d) Biological treatment

Answer: b

138. What is the role of grit chambers in wastewater treatment?

a) Remove organic matter

b) Separate heavy inorganic particles
c) Disinfect the water
d) Neutralize pH

Answer: b

139. Which type of waste is targeted by secondary treatment?

a) Suspended solids
b) Dissolved organic matter
c) Heavy metals
d) Large debris

Answer: b

140. What is the primary function of a clarifier?

a) Aeration
b) Removal of solids through sedimentation
c) Chemical dosing
d) Disinfection

Answer: b

141. Which disinfectant forms trihalomethanes (THMs) as a byproduct?

a) Ozone
b) Chlorine
c) UV light
d) Hydrogen peroxide

Answer: b

142. In wastewater treatment, what is the function of a comminutor?

 a) Mix chemicals
b) Cut large solids into smaller pieces
c) Add air for aeration
d) Separate oil and grease

Answer: b

143. Which method uses ultraviolet light for disinfection?

a) Primary treatment
b) Secondary treatment
c) Tertiary treatment
d) Advanced oxidation

Answer: c

144. What does the term "BOD" stand for?

a) Basic Organic Demand

b) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
c) Biological Oxidation Data
d) Bacterial Oxidation Demand

Answer: b

145. What is the role of sedimentation tanks in primary treatment?

a) Kill pathogen

b) alow solid to settle

c) oxidize organic matter

d) adjust pH levels

Answer: b

146. Which process is often used after coagulation to improve particle settling?

a) Filtration
b) Flocculation
c) Sedimentation
d) Disinfection

Answer: b

147. Which chemical is commonly used for pH adjustment in wastewater treatment?

 a) Lime
b) Chlorine
c) Alum
d) Ozone

Answer: a

148. Which treatment step typically follows grit removal?

a) Coagulation
b) Sedimentation
c) Filtration
d) Screening

Answer: b

149. What is the main disadvantage of using chlorine for disinfection?

a) High cost
b) Formation of harmful byproducts
c) Requires advanced equipment
d) Ineffective against viruses

Answer: b

150. What is a major advantage of using ozone as a disinfectant?

a) Low cost
b) Leaves no residuals
c) Requires no special handling
d) Effective in low doses

Answer: b

151. Which process involves the addition of air to promote microbial activity?

a) Coagulation
b) Sedimentation
c) Aeration
d) Disinfection

Answer: c

152. Which alternative disinfectant works well against Cryptosporidium and Giardia?

a) Chlorine
b) Ozone
 c) UV light
d) Hydrogen peroxide

Answer: c

153. Which of the following processes targets the removal of nutrients like nitrogen and
phosphorus?

a) Primary treatment
b) Secondary treatment
c) Tertiary treatment
d) Preliminary treatment

Answer: c

154. Which sedimentation tank is designed for heavy, inorganic particles?

a) Secondary clarifier
b) Grit chamber
c) Primary clarifier
d) Disinfection tank

Answer: b

155. What is the detention time typically required in primary sedimentation?

a) 30 minutes
b) 1-3 hours
c) 6-8 hours
d) 10-12 hours

Answer: b

156. Why is chlorine dioxide preferred over chlorine in some cases?

a) It is less toxic
b) Does not form THMs
c) Cheaper than chlorine
d) Easier to handle

Answer: b

157. What is the primary goal of tertiary treatment?

a) Remove pathogens
b) Remove nutrients and micropollutants
c) Separate heavy particles
 d) Adjust pH

Answer: b

158. Which disinfectant is effective in cold water conditions?

a) Chlorine
b) Ozone
c) UV light
d) Sodium hypochlorite

Answer: b

159. What is the purpose of adding coagulants like alum?

a) To remove large debris

b) To neutralize colloidal charges
c) To disinfect water
d) To increase BOD

Answer: b

160. Which process uses biological filters for water treatment?

a) Preliminary treatment
b) Secondary treatment
c) Tertiary treatment
d) Primary treatment

Answer: b

161. Which factor can influence the settling velocity of particles?

a) Temperature
b) pH level
c) Water pressure
d) Chemical dosing

Answer: a

162. Which disinfectant leaves a long-lasting residual in water?

a) Ozone
b) Chlorine
c) UV light
d) Hydrogen peroxide
Answer: b

163. Which compound forms as a byproduct when chlorine reacts with organic matter?

a) Chloroform
b) Hypochlorous acid
c) Perchlorate
d) Ammonium chloride

Answer: a

164. Which advanced treatment method is used to remove micropollutants?

a) Ultrafiltration
b) Reverse osmosis
c) UV disinfection
d) Chemical precipitation

Answer: b

165. What is a significant limitation of using UV light for disinfection?

a) High cost
b) No residual disinfectant
c) Formation of byproducts
d) Requires chemical handling

Answer: b

166. Which chemical is used in advanced oxidation processes (AOPs)?

a) Ozone
b) Calcium hydroxide
c) Ferric chloride
d) Sodium bicarbonate

Answer: a

167. What is the primary goal of using flocculating agents in water treatment?

a) Increase particle size for better settling

b) Lower pH levels
c) Disinfect water
d) Add nutrients
Answer: a

168. Which parameter is critical for optimizing coagulation?

a) Mixing speed
b) Water temperature
c) Particle size distribution
d) Chemical dosage

Answer: d

169. Which wastewater treatment process uses trickling filters?

a) Secondary treatment
b) Primary treatment
c) Advanced oxidation
d) Disinfection

Answer: a

170. Why is residual chlorine maintained in distribution systems?

a) Prevent contamination during transit

b) Improve taste of water
c) Reduce BOD levels
d) Control pH balance

Answer: a

171. What is the advantage of membrane filtration in tertiary treatment?

a) High pathogen removal efficiency

b) Low cost
c) Produces no sludge
d) Reduces water hardness

Answer: a

172. The Montreal protocol is related to:

a) land pollution.
b) atmospheric pollution.
c) water pollution.
d) none of the above.
Answer:b
173. Solid waste management involve:
a) collection of solid waste.
b) storage of solid waste.
 c) disposal of solid waste.
d) all of the above.
Answer:d
174. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of:
a) CL-.
b) SO42-.
c) PO43-.
d) Cl- and SO42-.
Answer:d
175. The most unwanted MSW can be:
a) metal.
b) paper.
c) plastic.
d) glasses.

Answer :c

176. According to FAO, the percentage of tropical rainforest in the world is about:
a) 15%.
b) 35%.
c) 24%.
d) 13%.

Answer: a

177. BOD test is done in dark to:

a) prevent light to go inside the bottle.
b) prevent gasses to diffuse.
c) prevent light to go out.
d) none of these
Answer: a

178. BOD test is done in the laboratory for:

a) 5 days.
b) 2 days.
c) 6 days.
d) 10 days.
Answer: a

179. The maximum amount of salt is present in:

a) sea.
b) river.
c) pond.
d) lake.
Answer: a

180. The unit of BOD reaction rate constant is:

a) sec-1.
b) ml-1s-1.
 c) ml-1.
d) none of the above.
Answer: a

181. The antidote for MIC could be:

a) sodium sulphate.
b) sodium thiosulphate.
c) sodium chlorate.
d) sodium bromate.
Answer: b

182. Global warming leads sea water to:

a) increase of pH.
b) decrease of pH.
c) pH remains constant.
d) none of the above.
Answer: b
183. Paradichlorobenzene is an example of:
a) antibiotic.
b) fumigant.
c) fungicide.
d) modenticide.
Answer: b
184. In COD test, the oxidant used is:
a) very strong.
b) very big.
c) moderate.
d) none of the above.
Answer: a
185. BOD bottle is stoppered to:
a) remove oxygen.
b) prevent further amount of oxygen to go in.
c) allow growth of microorganism.
d) none of the above.
Answer: b
186. In BOD test, seeded water is used for dilution in order to:
a) have sufficient microorganism.
b) make DO (dissolved oxygen) concentration low.
c) to kill microorganism.
d) none of the above.
Answer: a
187. The gross ecological efficiency is about:
a) 10%.
b) 20%.
c) 40%.
d) 80%.
Answer: a
188. In carbonate, hardness cation are:
a) Ca2+.
 b) Mg2+.
c) Na+.
d) Ca2+ and Mg2+.

Answer: d

189. Nitrification means conversion of:

a) Nitrogen to NO3-.
b) NH4+ to N2.
c) NO2- to NO3-.
d) NH4+ to NO3-.
Answer: d
190. Nitrogen fixation means conversion of:
a) N2 to NH3.
b) N2 to NO3-.
c) N2- to NH4+.
d) NO3- to NH4+.
Answer: b
191. HCFCs are less stable compared to CFCs due to:
a) hydrogen bond.
b) electrovalent bond.
c) co-ordinate bond.
d) none of the above.
Answer: a
192. On earth autotrophic components can directly fix
a) Mechanical energy
b) Light energy
c) Chemical energy
Ans: b

193. Carrying capacity of the environment is concerned with the growth of

a) Species
b) Population
c) Community

Ans: b
194. Which one in the following is an example of symbiotic bacteria involved in fixation of
nitrogen from the atmosphere?
a) Rhizobium sp.
b) Clostridium sp.
c) Nitrobacter sp.

Ans: a
195. Which one is not a renewable energy source?
a. Geothermal energy
b. Solar energy
c. Fossil Fuel
d. All
Ans: c
196. Cauvery Water dispute is between
a. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
b. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
c. Kerala and Tamil Nadu
d. Andhra Pradesh and Kerala
Ans: b

197. Conference related to control of ozone depleting substances is

a. Montreal Protocol
b. Stockholm Conference
c. Toronto World Conference
d. All

Ans: a

198. The allowed thickness of plastic carry bags in the shops is

a. 20 microns
b. 30 microns
c. 40 microns
d. 10 microns
Ans: a
199. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are
a. Rhizobium
b. Bacillus
c. Heritiera
d. None
Ans: a
200. Neritic zone is
a) Shallow water zone
b) Brackish water zone
c) Marine water zone
d) All of the above
Ans: a

201. The dry deciduous forests in Tamilnadu are dominated by

a) Soymidafebrifuga
b) Terminalia spp
c) Tectona grandis
d) All of the above
Ans: d

202. Coastal marine producers are _________

a) Zostera sp
b)Porteresiacoarctata
c) Coscinodiscus spp
d) All of the above
 Ans: d

203. Triangular age pyramid indicates

a) Population growth is positive
b) Population growth is negative
c) Population growth is zero
d) None of the above
Ans: a

204. Vital index is equal to

a) Natality is divided by Mortality and multiplied by 100
b) Natality is multiplied by Mortality
c) Mortality is multiplied by Natality and divided by 100
d) Mortality is multiplied by 100 and divided by Natality
Ans: a

205. Log phase indicates

a) Population growth is increasing
b) Population growth is decreasing
c) Population growth is zero
d) All of the above
Ans: a

206. The main ingredients in the production of cement is

a) Calcium oxide
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Zinc oxide
d) Carbon dioxide
Ans: a

207. Conservation is
a) The proper management of a natural resource to prevent its exploitation
b) The proper management of a industrial resource to prevent its exploitation
c) The proper management of a domestic resource to prevent its exploitation
d) All of the above
Ans: a

208. Which one of the following is non-biodegradable

a) Vegetables
b) Fruits
c) Earthworm
d) Aluminum foil
Ans: d

209. In our country, the Van Mahotsava Day is observed on

 a) 2nd October
b) 1st December
c) 10th August
d) 1st July
Ans: d

210. Ozone layer is found in

a) Ionosphere
b) Troposphere
c) Stratosphere
d) All the above
Ans: c
211. The total air volume can be determined by

a) Annemometer
b) Spirometer
c) Vane anemometer
d) None of the above
Ans: b
212. The hydrological cycle encompasses
a) Evaporation, condensation and sublimation
b) Evaporation, condensation, precipitation and run-off to the aquatic ecosystem
c) Evaporation and precipitation
d) Evaporation and condensation
Ans: b

213. The bottom sediment in the aquatic ecosystem contains

a) Volatile substances
b) Insoluble carbonates
c) Coal
d) All the above
Ans: b

214. The lotic system encompasses

a) Running water bodies
b) Standing water bodies
c) Water bodies with low dissolved oxygen
d) None of the above
Ans: a

215. The lentic system includes

a) Rivers
b) Ocean
c) Estuaries
 d) Ponds
Ans: d

216. The zone of open water where light can penetrate is called
a) Profoundal zone
b) Limnetic zone
c) Thermocline zone
d) Hadal zone
Ans: b

217. The estuarine water is

a) Fresh
b) Highly saline
c) Brackish
d) None of the above
Ans: c

218. Mangroves are found in the

a) Estuarine region
b) Fresh water region
c) Desert region
d) None of the above
Ans: a
219. Phosphorus is a major constituent of __________
a) ATP
b) DNA
c) RNA
d) All of the above
Ans: d

220. Sulphuric acid is produced from

a) Dimethylsulphide
b) Acetylene
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrochloric acid
Ans: a