Unit 1: Emergency

A. Multiple-choice questions (15 questions)

1. What does "post-ictal" mean?
A. Before the attack B. After the attack
C. During the attack D. Without an attack
2. A synonym for "fit" is:
A. Tremor B. Seizure
C. Weakness D. Stiffness
3. What does "to be incontinent of stool" mean?
A. To soil myself B. To feel nauseous
C. To faint suddenly D. To twitch involuntarily
4. Syncope is another term for:
A. Fainting B. Twitching
C. Jerking D. Warning sign
5. What is a "prodrome"?
A. A fainting spell B. A warning sign
C. An attack D. An involuntary movement
6. To wet oneself is described as:
A. Being incontinent of stool B. Being incontinent of water
C. Syncope D. Twitching
7. What does "supine" mean?
A. Standing upright B. Lying flat
C. Sitting down D. Running fast
8. Which term describes going into spasm without jerking?
A. Fainting B. Twitching
C. Seizure D. Prodrome
9. To discriminate means:
A. To combine B. To tell the difference
C. To lose consciousness D. To twitch involuntarily
10. A person who experiences syncope typically:
A. Jerks uncontrollably B. Faints suddenly
C. Twitches lightly D. Lies supine
11. Post-ictal symptoms occur:
A. Before a seizure B. During a seizure
C. After a seizure D. Without a seizure
12. Incontinence of stool can result in:
A. Twitching movements B. Fainting spells
C. Soiling oneself D. Jerking spasms
13. The term "fit" is commonly used to describe:
A. A prodrome B. A seizure
C. Syncope D. A twitch
 14. Which of the following describes a person lying supine?
A. Standing upright B. Lying flat on their back
C. Sitting with their head down D. Crouching on the ground
15. Discriminating between similar symptoms means:
A. Recognizing subtle differences B. Twitching involuntarily
C. Losing bladder control D. Fainting suddenly

B. True/False questions (10 questions)

16. Post-ictal refers to the period before a seizure.
17. A fit is another term for a seizure.
18. Being incontinent of stool means soiling oneself.
19. Syncope refers to fainting.
20. A warning sign before an attack is called a prodrome.
21. Being incontinent of water means twitching involuntarily.
22. The supine position refers to lying flat on one's back.
23. Twitching involves going into spasm with violent jerking movements.
24. To discriminate means to faint suddenly.
25. A prodrome is the period after a seizure.

C. Fill-in-the-blank questions (5 questions)

26. Post-ictal symptoms occur ______ a seizure.
27. A fit is commonly referred to as a ______.
28. Being incontinent of stool means to ______ oneself.
29. Syncope is another word for ______.
30. A person lying ______ is lying flat on their back.

Answers
A. Multiple-choice B. True/False C. Fill-in-the-blank
questions questions questions
1. B 16. False 26. after
2. B 17. True 27. seizure
3. A 18. True 28. soil
4. A 19. True 29. fainting
5. B 20. True 30. Supine
6. B 21. False
7. B 22. True
8. B 23. False
9. B 24. False
10. B 25. False
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. B
 15. A

1. The fainting? It just happened ................The next thing I knew she was lying
completely flat on the pavement.
a. abruptly b. gradually c. slowly d. suddenly
2. The patient suddenly became pale and started to sweat, but not......................
a. profusely b. rapidly c. enormously d. obviously
3. After the attack, Mr. Johns came to ........................, which questions whether it was a
seizure.
a. rapidly b. slowly c. leisurely d. awkwardly
4. .............................., I soiled myself and wet myself. It wasn’t very pleasant.
a. embarrassingly b. gradually c. clearly d. suddenly
5. She was lying flat, but bystanders were trying to keep her upright, so she was twitching
.............................
a. slowly b. convulsively c. suddenly d. profusely
6. As he couldn’t see ....................., he got quite frightened.
a. good b. clearly c. visually d. properly
7. In a seizure, there is ............................no prodrome, but this is not always the case.
a. typically b. rarely c. seldom d. never
8. After collapsing, he didn’t get better ............................... The patient was a bit drowsy
for quite a while afterwards.
a. spontaneously b. slowly c. gradually d. naturally
9. He recovered ........................... from the accident. Now he’s perfectly OK.
a. completely b. partially c. poorly d. temporarily
10. Fainting and vomiting don’t ......................... discriminate seizure from faints.
a. reliably b. partially c. clearly d. consistently
11. The condition came on so .......................that nobody had time to react.
a. gradually b. rapidly c. suddenly d. smoothly
12. A prodrome is ......................... experienced before a faint.
a. frequently b. occasionally c. always d. seldom
13. Syncope can sometimes be mistaken .....................for a seizure.
a. wrongly b. mistakenly c. accurately d. clearly
14. After the post-ictal period, she regained consciousness ......................
a. fully b. partially c. poorly d. leisurely
15. His breathing became ...................... after the faint, but he still looked pale.
a. regular b. irregular c. labored d. calm
16. During a seizure, the patient may exhibit ..................... twitching.
a. mild b. convulsive c. weak d. slight
17. To differentiate between a faint and a seizure, the history is .................... important.
a. rarely b. extremely c. marginally d. somewhat
18. He remained supine ....................the whole episode.
a. throughout b. during c. before d. after
19. After fainting, he was .................... and didn’t respond to questions immediately.
a. alert b. drowsy c. conscious d. lively
20. The bystanders described her movements as ...................., suggesting it might have
been a seizure.
a. convulsive b. mild c. slow d. gentle
Answers
1a, 2a, 3a, 4a, 5b 6b, 7a, 8c, 9a, 10c,
11c, 12b, 13b, 14a, 15a 16b, 17b, 18a, 19b, 20a
1. The patient (has been complaining / complained / had complained) of severe
headaches for three days before he (was admitted / had admitted / admitted) to the
hospital.
A. has been complaining – admitted B. had complained - was admitted
C. has been complaining - was admitted D. complained - had admitted
2. While the surgeon (was operating / operated / had been operating) on the patient,
the lights (went out / were going out / had gone out).
A. was operating - went out B. operated - had gone out
C. had been operating - were going out D. was operating - had gone out

3. The nurse (had already prepared / already prepared / was already preparing) the
instruments when the surgeon (entered / had entered / was entering) the room.
A. had already prepared – entered B. was already preparing - had entered
C. already prepared - was entering D. had already prepared - was entering

4. Before the doctor (arrived / was arriving / had arrived), the patient (was stabilizing /
stabilized / had stabilized) on his own.
A. arrived - had stabilized B. had arrived - stabilized
C. was arriving - was stabilizing D. arrived - was stabilizing

5. I (have been feeling / had been feeling / was feeling) exhausted for days before I
(decided / decide / was deciding) to see a doctor.
A. was feeling – decided B. had been feeling - decided
C. have been feeling – decide D. was feeling - was deciding

6. She (stood / had stood / was standing) near the door when she (realized / was
realizing / had realized) she left her phone behind.
A. was standing – realized B. stood - was realizing
C. had stood - had realized D. was standing - had realized

7. The boy (was playing / had been playing / has played) in the garden when his mother
(called / was calling / had called) him inside.
A. was playing – called B. had been playing - was calling
C. has played - had called D. was playing - had called
8. By the time the ambulance (arrived / was arriving / had arrived), the man (has lost /
lost / had lost) a lot of blood.
A. arrived - has lost B. had arrived - lost
C. was arriving - had lost D. arrived - had lost

9. They (have been waiting / had been waiting / were waiting) for the test results when
the doctor (entered / was entering / had entered).
A. had been waiting – entered B. were waiting - was entering
C. have been waiting - had entered D. were waiting - entered

10. The patient (has recovered / was recovering / had recovered) well since the operation
and (hasn’t experienced / didn’t experience / wasn’t experiencing) any complications so
far.
A. has recovered - hasn’t experienced B. was recovering - didn’t experience
C. had recovered - wasn’t experiencing D. has recovered - wasn’t experiencing
Answers
1. C. has been complaining - was admitted
2. A. was operating - went out
3. A. had already prepared - entered
4. A. arrived - had stabilized
5. B. had been feeling - decided
6. D. was standing - had realized
7. A. was playing - called
8. D. arrived - had lost
9. A. had been waiting - entered
10. A. has recovered - hasn’t experienced

Hoàn thành các câu sau:

1. I (run) to catch the bus when suddenly I (feel) a sharp pain in my side.
2. She (have never) the pain before till now, but she (experience) some bleeding the first
time.
3. Sam (have) an attack last January, but before that she (not experience) anything.
4. I (not have) anything like this before it (happen) yesterday, but I (feel) all right since.
5. He (vow) repeatedly, then he just (faint).
6. After he (fall), he (start) twitching violently when we (try) to get him up.
7. When we (come) home, we (find) her lying. She (lie) there, motionless.
8. He (sweat) profusely for this past hour or so. I (not see) him like this before. Is he
seriously ill?
9. Sophia (attend) the clinic since last summer. He’s certainly been improving recently.
This time last year he (lie) in the intensive care unit very ill.
10. I (collapse) just outside the supermarket when he (come home from work. He (not
complain) of anything before this.
1. was running, felt
2. had never had, experienced
3. had, had not experienced
4. had never had, happened, have felt
5. vowed, fainted
6. fell, started, tried
7. came, found, was lying
8. has been sweating, have never seen
9. has been attending, was lying
10. collapsed, came, had not complained

Column A | Column B
1. undergone | E. experienced, gone through
2. drawn up | A. drafted, compiled, composed
3. amended | F. altered, changed, modified
4. instituted | B. set up, introduced, started
5. underlying | G. lying behind
6. relevant | D. pertinent, applicable

1. What does "undergone" mean?

A. Drafted, compiled, composed B. Experienced, gone through
C. Set up, introduced, started D. Lying behind
2. Which phrase corresponds to "drawn up"?
A. Experienced, gone through B. Altered, changed, modified
C. Drafted, compiled, composed D. Pertinent, applicable
3. What is the meaning of "amended"?
A. Drafted, compiled, composed B. Set up, introduced, started
C. Altered, changed, modified D. Requirement
4. Which phrase matches "instituted"?
A. Lying behind B. Set up, introduced, started
C. Pertinent, applicable D. Experienced, gone through
5. What does "underlying" mean?
A. Set up, introduced, started B. Lying behind
C. Altered, changed, modified D. Pertinent, applicable
6. Which of the following is the definition of "relevant"?
A. Pertinent, applicable B. Set up, introduced, started
C. Altered, changed, modified D. Drafted, compiled, composed
7. What does "need" refer to?
A. Requirement B. Altered, changed, modified
C. Lying behind D. Set up, introduced, started
8. "Amended" can best be described as:
A. Altered, changed, modified B. Drafted, compiled, composed
C. Set up, introduced, started D. Pertinent, applicable
9. "Drawn up" refers to:
A. Drafted, compiled, composed B. Set up, introduced, started
C. Altered, changed, modified D. Experienced, gone through
10. Which word means "set up, introduced, started"?
A. Amended B. Instituted C. Underlying D. Relevant
11. What does the term "underlying" mean in a medical context?
A. Pertinent, applicable B. Altered, changed, modified
C. Lying behind D. Set up, introduced, started
12. Which word is most closely related to "pertinent, applicable"?
A. Underlying B. Relevant C. Amended D. Need
13. "Need" in a business context can be described as:
A. Drafted, compiled, composed B. Altered, changed, modified
C. Requirement D. Lying behind
14. Which of the following means "to experience or go through something"?
A. Relevant B. Underlying C. Amended D. Undergone
15. If something has been "amended," it has been:
A. Set up, introduced, started B. Drafted, compiled, composed
C. Altered, changed, modified D. Experienced, gone through
16. Which term refers to the "need" for something?
A. Requirement B. Altered C. Lying behind D. Drafted
17. "Instituted" means:
A. Altered, changed, modified B. Pertinent, applicable
C. Set up, introduced, started D. Experienced, gone through
18. What is the meaning of "underlying" in a problem?
A. Lying behind B. Drafted, compiled, composed
C. Set up, introduced, started D. Pertinent, applicable
19. Which of the following corresponds to "drafted, compiled, composed"?
A. Amended B. Relevant C. Drawn up D. Instituted
20. If something is "relevant," it is:
A. Pertinent, applicable B. Set up, introduced, started
C. Altered, changed, modified D. Lying behind
21. What does the term "instituted" refer to in a policy?
A. Set up, introduced, started B. Drafted, compiled, composed
C. Altered, changed, modified D. Pertinent, applicable
22. The word "underlying" means:
A. Altered, changed, modified B. Lying behind
C. Pertinent, applicable D. Requirement
23. "Undergone" refers to:
A. Drafted, compiled, composed B. Set up, introduced, started
C. Experienced, gone through D. Pertinent, applicable
24. Which word means "requirement"?
A. Amended B. Need C. Instituted D. Relevant
25. "Drawn up" means:
A. Altered, changed, modified B. Drafted, compiled, composed
C. Set up, introduced, started D. Experienced, gone through
26. The word "need" can best be defined as:
A. Requirement B. Drafted, compiled, composed
C. Lying behind D. Set up, introduced, started
27. What does "amended" mean in the context of a document?
A. Set up, introduced, started B. Altered, changed, modified
C. Lying behind D. Pertinent, applicable
28. If something is "relevant," it is:
A. Pertinent, applicable B. Altered, changed, modified
C. Drafted, compiled, composed D. Set up, introduced, started
29. Which word describes something that is "lying behind"?
A. Amended B. Relevant C. Underlying D. Drawn up
30. What does "instituted" mean in a legal context?
A. Set up, introduced, started B. Drafted, compiled, composed
C. Pertinent, applicable D. Experienced, gone through
Select the best answer for the following questions.
1. A_______ is a symptom that indicates an approaching disease.
A. sign B. syndrome C. prodrome D. syncope
2. A group of symptoms that characterizes a disease is__________
A. seizure B. syndrome C. prodrome D. syncope
3. Which of the following is the medical term for headache?
A. malaise ( khó chịu) B. cephalalgia( đau đầu)
C. myoclonia( Giật cơ) D. dysphagia( khó nuốt)
4. The term that means lying flat on the back is lying_________
A. post ictal B. prone C. supine D. seizure
5. The medical term for a warning sign is a_________
A. sign B. prodrome C. syncope D. syndrome
6. There is the____ stage, which happens a few days before the onset of pain and can
include constipation, yawning, food cravings and neck stiffness.
A. prodrome B. attack C. syndrome D. postarome
1C 2B 3B 4D 5A 6B
6. Paralysis of four limbs: Quadriplegia
7. Lack of reflexes: Areflexia
8. Having low blood pressure: Hypotensive
9. Being red in color: Erythematous
10. Low blood pressure when the patient is upright: Orthostatic hypotension
Select the correct answer.
1. Ischemic stroke is generally caused by
A. hemorrhage C. thrombosis
B. hematoma D. hemangioma
2. Fibrinolytic therapy is directed toward
 A. stabilizing C. triggering blood clotting
B. destroying RBCs D. dissolving a blood clot
1C 2D

Write terms form the case with the following meanings.

3. Pertaining to a lack of blood supply:
Ischemic
4. Inflammation of the meninges:
Meningitis
5. Inflammation of the brain:
Encephalitis
6. Collection of blood below the dura mater:
Subdural hematoma
7. Inability to speak or understand speech:
Aphasia
8. Partial paralysis on one side:
Hemiplegia
Decide the following abbreviations.
9. GCS: Glasgow Coma Scale
10. ICU: Intensive Care Unit
11. TA: Transient Attack (or Transient Ischemic Attack)
12. CVA: Cerebrovascular Accident

1. The term for the time span between injury and admission to the emergency
department is:
A. preoperative B. prehospital
C. pretrauma D. intrainjury
2. A cephalocaudal assessment goes from:
A. front to back B. head to toe
C. side to side D. skin to bone
3. The victim's injured extremities were immobilized before transport. Immobilized
means:
A. abducted as far as possible B. internally rotated and flexed
C. adducted so that the limbs are crossed D. held in place to prevent movement
4. A cervical collar was placed on the victim to stabilize and immobilize the____
A. uterus B. shoulders C. neck D. pelvis
5. The singular form of acetabula is:
A. acetabulum B. acetabia C. acetab D. acetabulae

1B 2B 3D 4C 5A

Find words in the text which have the same meaning as these words.
1. A deficit of total body water: Dehydration
 2. Passing out: Syncope
3. Beginning: Onset
4. Attack: Episode
5. Voiding: Urination
6. Abnormal heart rhythm: Arrhythmia
Choose the correct answer for the following questions.
7. If a person is lying down then suddenly stands up and passes out, this is likely due to
hypotension.
A. blood vessel-related B. neurally mediated
D. orthostatic C. heart-related
8. Patients with syncopal episodes can get over the problem
B. automatically A. voluntarily
C. non-mechanically D. consciously
9. Which group of people most tend to have syncopal attacks?
A. older men B. older women
C. juvenile males D. juvenile females
10. Which of the following can cause reflex syncope?
A. hemorrhage B. irregular heart rhythm
C. blood exposure D. a blockage of an artery in the lungs
11. All of the following are considered prodromes of a syncope, ЕХСЕРТ:
A. sweating C. low blood pressure
B. blurred vision D. pallor

7D 8B 9B 10C 11C

UNIT 2: OBSTETRIC
1. A. hemorrhoids - “I think I’ve got piles.”
2. D. morning sickness - “I’ve been feeling sick in the morning. I keep throwing up,
especially in the morning, and it’s worrying me.”
3. E. constipation - “I haven’t been for two days and it’s the second time it’s happened.”
4. F. pruritus of pregnancy - “I’ve come out in this rash on my tummy and arms. My mum
says it will go when the baby’s born, but I don’t know.”
5. C. reflux esophagitis and heartburn - “I’ve been bringing up this horrible taste from my
stomach.”
6. G. urinary frequency - “I keep going to the toilet and passing water.”
7. J. lumbago - “My back’s killing me, especially at night.”
8. I. chloasma - “I don’t know what this brown patch is on my face.”
9. B. amenorrhea - “I haven’t had a period for three months now.”
10. H. paresthesia - “I’ve got this tingling in the thumb and these two fingers.”
1. What condition does the patient likely have if they say, “I think I’ve got piles”?
A. Hemorrhoids B. Constipation
C. Heartburn D. Paresthesia
2. A patient reports, “I’ve been feeling sick in the morning and throwing up
frequently.” What is the most likely condition?
A. Amenorrhea B. Urinary frequency
C. Reflux esophagitis D. Morning sickness
3. A patient complains, “I haven’t been for two days and it’s the second time it’s
happened.” What could this indicate?
A. Pruritus of pregnancy B. Hemorrhoids
C. Constipation D. Paresthesia
4. “I’ve come out in this rash on my tummy and arms. My mum says it will go when
the baby’s born.” What condition might this describe?
A. Chloasma B. Lumbago
C. Pruritus of pregnancy D. Morning sickness
5. What is the probable diagnosis when a patient says, “I’ve been bringing up this
horrible taste from my stomach”?
A. Constipation B. Hemorrhoids
C. Reflux esophagitis and heartburn D. Chloasma
6. “I keep going to the toilet and passing water” is most likely associated with:
A. Paresthesia B. Urinary frequency
C. Amenorrhea D. Heartburn
7. A patient says, “My back’s killing me, especially at night.” What condition does
this suggest?
A. Chloasma B. Hemorrhoids
C. Lumbago D. Morning sickness
8. What condition is indicated by the statement, “I don’t know what this brown patch
is on my face”?
A. Chloasma B. Pruritus of pregnancy
C. Morning sickness D. Paresthesia
9. A patient reports, “I haven’t had a period for three months now.” What could this
mean?
A. Hemorrhoids B. Amenorrhea
C. Urinary frequency D. Constipation
10. “I’ve got this tingling in the thumb and these two fingers.” What condition could
this describe?
A. Pruritus of pregnancy B. Morning sickness
C. Paresthesia D. Lumbago
11. A patient says, “I have difficulty swallowing due to stomach acid.” This could
indicate:
A. Reflux esophagitis and heartburn B. Lumbago
C. Paresthesia D. Amenorrhea
 12. “I’ve been waking up at night with an itchy rash on my arms.” This likely
corresponds to:
A. Hemorrhoids B. Pruritus of pregnancy
C. Urinary frequency D. Chloasma
13. A woman reports, “I’m urinating more often than usual, especially at night.” This
is a sign of:
A. Paresthesia B. Urinary frequency
C. Morning sickness D. Amenorrhea
14. The statement, “I haven’t been to the toilet properly for three days,” indicates:
A. Constipation B. Reflux esophagitis
C. Hemorrhoids D. Paresthesia
15. A patient reports, “I feel an annoying burning sensation after eating.” This is most
consistent with:
A. Heartburn B. Lumbago
C. Morning sickness D. Paresthesia
16. “I have a reddish-purple swelling near the rectal area.” This suggests:
A. Hemorrhoids B. Chloasma
C. Amenorrhea D. Reflux esophagitis
17. A woman says, “I feel very nauseous, especially in the mornings.” What condition
could this indicate?
A. Morning sickness B. Lumbago
C. Chloasma D. Paresthesia
18. A patient notices “dark spots on their skin during pregnancy.” This is likely:
A. Hemorrhoids B. Chloasma
C. Pruritus of pregnancy D. Constipation
19. A man reports, “My lower back hurts when I lie down at night.” This is a
symptom of:
A. Lumbago B. Paresthesia
C. Constipation D. Morning sickness
20. The complaint, “My stomach acid keeps coming back into my throat,” is likely a
symptom of:
A. Reflux esophagitis and heartburn B. Amenorrhea
C. Urinary frequency D. Pruritus of pregnancy
Answers
1A, 2D, 3C, 4C, 5C
6B, 7C, 8A, 9B, 10C
11A, 12B, 13B, 14A, 15A
16A, 17A, 18B, 19A, 20A

1. cervico- → neck
2. colpo- → vagina
3. metro- / utero- / hystero- → womb
4. oophoro- / ovario- → ovary
5. oo- / ovo / ovulo- → egg
6. meno- → menstruation
7. salpingo- → uterine tube / fallopian tube
8. cysto- → bladder
1. What does the prefix "cervico-" refer to?
A. Womb B. Bladder C. Neck D. Menstruation
2. The prefix "colpo-" relates to which part of the body?
A. Ovary B. Vagina C. Egg D. Uterine tube
3. Which prefixes are used to refer to the womb?
A. Cervico- / colpo- B. Oophoro- / salpingo-
C. Metro- / utero- / hystero- D. Cysto- / meno-
4. The prefix "oophoro-" specifically refers to:
A. Menstruation B. Ovary C. Neck D. Egg
5. Which prefix is used for an egg?
A. Salpingo- B. Oo- / ovo- / ovulo-
C. Colpo- D. Cysto-
6. The term "meno-" is associated with:
A. Uterine tube B. Menstruation C. Womb D. Vagina
7. The prefix "salpingo-" refers to which anatomical structure?
A. Ovary B. Fallopian tube C. Bladder D. Neck
8. The prefix "cysto-" is used to describe the:
A. Uterus B. Bladder C. Egg D. Ovary
9. "Hystero-" is another prefix for which organ?
A. Ovary B. Bladder C. Womb D. Uterine tube
10. What is another term for "utero-"?
A. Womb B. Neck C. Menstruation D. Vagina
11. "Ovario-" refers to which organ?
A. Ovary B. Fallopian tube C. Womb D. Menstruation
12. Which prefix relates to the fallopian tube?
A. Cervico- B. Salpingo- C. Cysto- D. Colpo-
13. What does "ovulo-" specifically relate to?
A. Egg B. Uterus C. Bladder D. Menstruation
14. The prefix "metro-" can also mean:
A. Menstruation B. Womb C. Neck D. Ovary
15. Which prefix is used to describe the vagina?
A. Colpo- B. Metro- C. Salpingo- D. Oo-
16. "Menstruation" is related to which prefix?
A. Cysto- B. Oo- C. Meno- D. Cervico-
17. What is the prefix "oophoro-" associated with?
A. Womb B. Egg C. Ovary D. Fallopian tube
18. Which prefixes refer to the bladder?
A. Oo- / ovo- B. Cysto- C. Utero- / hystero- D. Salpingo-
 19. The prefix "cervico-" refers to the:
A. Fallopian tube B. Bladder C. Neck D. Womb
20. "Salpingo-" refers to the:
A. Ovary B. Bladder C. Uterine tube D. Menstruation
21. "Utero-" is equivalent to which other prefix?
A. Cervico- B. Colpo- C. Hystero- D. Oo-
22. Which prefix is used for menstruation?
A. Meno- B. Salpingo- C. Cysto- D. Colpo-
23. The prefix "ovulo-" refers to:
A. Egg B. Fallopian tube C. Bladder D. Menstruation
24. What is the prefix for uterine tube?
A. Salpingo- B. Cervico- C. Oo- D. Oophoro-
25. The term "metro-" is another way of describing the:
A. Vagina B. Womb C. Menstruation D. Neck
26. "Cysto-" is used in medical terms to refer to the:
A. Ovary B. Womb C. Bladder D. Egg
27. Which prefix refers to the neck?
A. Cervico- B. Colpo- C. Oo- D. Salpingo-
28. The prefix "meno-" relates to which bodily function?
A. Ovulation B. Menstruation C. Urination D. Respiration
29. "Hystero-" is associated with which part of the body?
A. Ovary B. Fallopian tube C. Womb D. Neck
30. The prefix "oophoro-" means:
A. Ovary B. Menstruation C. Bladder D. Egg

Answers
1C, 2B, 3C, 4B, 5B
6B, 7B, 8B, 9C, 10A
11A, 12B, 13A, 14B, 15A
16C, 17C, 18B, 19C, 20C
21C, 22A, 23A, 24A, 25B
26C, 27A, 28B, 29C, 30A
1. Visual examination of the vagina and cervix: colposcopy
2. No menstrual discharge: amenorrhea
3. A chlamydial infection causing inflammation in the lower, neck-like portion of the
uterus: cervicitis
4. Suture of the vagina: colporrhaphy
5. Removal of both fallopian tubes and both ovaries: salpingo-oophorectomy
6. Inflammation of the ovaries: oophoritis
7. Surgical fixation of a displaced uterus: hysteropexy
8. Inflammation of the uterine tube: salpingitis
9. Removal of the womb: hysterectomy
10. Inflammation of the vagina and bladder: colpocystitis
1. What is the term for the visual examination of the vagina and cervix?
A. Hysterectomy B. Colposcopy C. Salpingitis D. Amenorrhea
2. What does amenorrhea mean?
A. Inflammation of the ovaries B. Absence of menstrual discharge
C. Surgical fixation of the uterus D. Inflammation of the uterine tube
3. Cervicitis is caused by a chlamydial infection that affects which part of the
uterus?
A. The ovaries B. The fallopian tube
C. The neck-like portion D. The bladder
4. What is the medical term for the suture of the vagina?
A. Colposcopy B. Hysteropexy
C. Colporrhaphy D. Salpingo-oophorectomy
5. Salpingo-oophorectomy refers to the removal of:
A. Both ovaries only B. Both fallopian tubes and both ovaries
C. The uterus D. The bladder and the ovaries
6. Oophoritis refers to the inflammation of:
A. The uterus B. The uterine tube
C. The ovaries D. The cervix
7. What is the term for the surgical fixation of a displaced uterus?
A. Hysterectomy B. Salpingitis
C. Hysteropexy D. Colporrhaphy
8. Salpingitis is the inflammation of which structure?
A. The cervix B. The uterine tube
C. The vagina D. The bladder
9. The removal of the womb is called:
A. Salpingitis B. Hysteropexy
C. Hysterectomy D. Oophoritis
10. Colpocystitis refers to the inflammation of:
A. The ovaries and the uterine tube B. The cervix and uterus
C. The vagina and bladder D. The womb and cervix
11. What is the term for the visual examination of the cervix?
A. Colposcopy B. Colpocystitis
C. Salpingitis D. Hysteropexy
12. The absence of menstrual discharge is referred to as:
A. Oophoritis B. Amenorrhea
C. Cervicitis D. Salpingitis
13. What does colporrhaphy involve?
A. Visual examination of the vagina B. Suture of the vagina
C. Inflammation of the cervix D. Removal of the fallopian tubes
14. A salpingo-oophorectomy involves the removal of:
A. The uterus B. The ovaries and fallopian tubes
C. The cervix and ovaries D. The vagina and bladder
15. The medical term oophoritis is defined as:
A. Inflammation of the uterine tube B. Inflammation of the ovaries
C. Surgical fixation of the uterus D. Removal of the womb
16. Which procedure involves the surgical fixation of a displaced uterus?
A. Colpocystitis B. Salpingitis
C. Hysteropexy D. Hysterectomy
17. Salpingitis specifically refers to inflammation of the:
A. Cervix B. Fallopian tube C. Ovaries D. Womb
18. What is the term for the removal of the uterus?
A. Salpingitis B. Oophoritis
C. Hysterectomy D. Colposcopy
19. Inflammation of the vagina and bladder is called:
A. Hysteropexy B. Colpocystitis
C. Oophoritis D. Cervicitis
20. Colposcopy involves the visual examination of the:
A. Womb and cervix B. Cervix and vagina
C. Fallopian tubes D. Ovaries
21. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of:
A. Ovarian function B. Menstrual discharge
C. Cervical inflammation D. Uterine tubes
22. Cervicitis is caused by:
A. Viral infections B. Chlamydial infections
C. Hormonal imbalance D. Cystic conditions
23. The procedure colporrhaphy involves:
A. Removal of the ovaries B. Suture of the vagina
C. Examination of the cervix D. Removal of the uterus
24. The removal of both fallopian tubes and both ovaries is called:
A. Oophoritis B. Salpingo-oophorectomy
C. Colpocystitis D. Hysterectomy
25. The term oophoritis means:
A. Inflammation of the uterine tube B. Inflammation of the ovaries
C. Surgical removal of the ovaries D. Fixation of the uterus
26. What does hysteropexy refer to?
A. Removal of the uterus B. Surgical fixation of the uterus
C. Inflammation of the vagina D. Removal of the ovaries
27. Salpingitis refers to inflammation of the:
A. Uterine tube B. Bladder C. Cervix D. Vagina
28. Hysterectomy is defined as the removal of:
A. The bladde B. The uterus
C. The ovaries D. The fallopian tubes
29. What does colpocystitis involve?
A. Inflammation of the cervix
B. Inflammation of the ovaries and fallopian tubes
 C. Inflammation of the vagina and bladder
D. Inflammation of the uterine tube
30. Colposcopy allows for the visual examination of the:
A. Ovaries B. Fallopian tubes
C. Cervix and vagina D. Bladder

Answers
1B, 2B, 3C, 4C, 5B
6C, 7C, 8B, 9C, 10C
11A, 12B, 13B, 14B, 15B
16C, 17B, 18C, 19B, 20B
21B, 22B, 23B, 24B, 25B
26B, 27A, 28B, 29C, 30C
1. What is the term for a woman who has had no pregnancies?
A. Primigravida B. Nulligravida
C. Nullipara D. Multipara
2. The discharge of milk is referred to as:
A. Oxytocia B. Galactorrhea
C. Metrorrhagia D. Dystocia
3. A woman who has had several pregnancies is known as:
A. Multigravida B. Nulligravida
C. Primipara D. Multipara
4. Excessive uterine bleeding is called:
A. Dystocia B. Oxytocia
C. Galactorrhea D. Metrorrhagia
5. A woman who has never borne a child is called:
A. Nulligravida B. Multipara
C. Nullipara D. Primipara
6. A woman who has borne more than one child is called:
A. Primipara B. Nulligravida
C. Multipara D. Multigravida
7. The term for slow or difficult labor is:
A. Metrorrhagia B. Dystocia
C. Oxytocia D. Galactorrhea
8. A woman who is pregnant for the first time is referred to as:
A. Nulligravida B. Primigravida
C. Multigravida D. Primipara
9. Quick childbirth is known as:
A. Galactorrhea B. Metrorrhagia
C. Oxytocia D. Dystocia
10. A woman who has borne only one child is called:
A. Primigravida B. Primipara
C. Multipara D. Nullipara
11. Nulligravida describes a woman who:
A. Has had no pregnancies B. Has had several pregnancies
C. Has borne more than one child D. Is pregnant for the first time
12. Galactorrhea is best defined as:
A. The discharge of milk B. Slow labor
C. Excess uterine bleeding D. Quick childbirth
13. A woman described as multigravida has:
A. Never been pregnant B. Had several pregnancies
C. Borne only one child D. Experienced difficult labor
14. Metrorrhagia refers to:
A. A woman who is pregnant for the first time B. Slow or difficult labor
C. Excess uterine bleeding D. Quick childbirth
15. The term nullipara applies to a woman who:
A. Has borne more than one child B. Has never borne a child
C. Is pregnant for the first time D. Has had no pregnancies
16. A woman described as multipara:
A. Is pregnant for the first time B. Has borne more than one child
C. Has had no pregnancies D. Has never borne a child
17. Dystocia refers to:
A. Quick childbirth B. The discharge of milk
C. Slow or difficult labor D. Excess uterine bleeding
18. A woman described as primigravida is:
A. Pregnant for the first time B. Experiencing quick labor
C. A woman with no pregnancies D. A woman who has borne one child
19. The term oxytocia is used to describe:
A. Difficult labor B. Quick childbirth
C. Excess uterine bleeding D. Slow labor
20. A woman described as primipara has:
A. Borne more than one child B. Borne only one child
C. Never borne a child D. Had several pregnancies
21. A woman with no history of pregnancy is called:
A. Nullipara B. Nulligravida C. Primigravida D. Multipara
22. Excessive uterine bleeding is also known as:
A. Galactorrhea B. Metrorrhagia C. Dystocia D. Oxytocia
23. The discharge of milk from the breast is called:
A. Nullipara B. Primipara C. Galactorrhea D. Oxytocia
24. A woman who has been pregnant several times is described as:
A. Nulligravida B. Multigravida C. Nullipara D. Primigravida
25. Dystocia indicates:
A. Quick childbirth B. Slow or difficult labor
C. A first pregnancy D. Excessive bleeding
26. A woman who has borne one child is referred to as:
A. Nulligravida B. Primipara C. Multipara D. Primigravida
 27. The medical term for quick childbirth is:
A. Oxytocia B. Metrorrhagia C. Dystocia D. Galactorrhea
28. A woman who has never borne a child is known as:
A. Primipara B. Nullipara C. Multipara D. Primigravida
29. Multigravida means:
A. A woman pregnant for the first time
B. A woman who has had several pregnancies
C. A woman who has borne more than one child
D. A woman who has never been pregnant
30. A woman who is pregnant for the first time is called:
A. Primipara B. Nullipara C. Primigravida D. Multigravida

Answers
1B, 2B, 3A, 4D, 5C
6C, 7B, 8B, 9C, 10B
11A, 12A, 13B, 14C, 15B
16B, 17C, 18A, 19B, 20B
21B, 22B, 23C, 24B, 25B
26B, 27A, 28B, 29B, 30C
1. The female gonad is the
A. uterus
B. cervix
C. ovary
D. vagina
2. During the first two months of growth, the developing offspring is called a/n
A. neonate
B. embryo
C. zygote
D. fetus
3. The structure that nourishes the developing fetus is the
A. uterine tube
B. cervix
C. placenta
D. follicle
4. Production of milk is technically called
A. ovulation
B. lactation
C. corpus luteum
D. dystocia
5. When she went into labor with her first child, Mrs. Moshi’s baby was in
A. breech delivery
B. cephalic presentation
C. breech presentation
D. cephalic delivery

Case 1: A.Y.’s Cesarean Section

1. A.Y. is a 29-year-old gravida 2, para 1. What does gravida 2, para 1 mean?

Gravida 2 means she is pregnant for the second time, and para 1 means she has
given birth once before.
2. Did she have normal labor for her first pregnancy?
No, her first pregnancy resulted in a cesarean section.
3. Did she experience symptoms of hypertension during her pregnancy?
No, she had no signs or symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension.
4. Why was an X-ray pelvimetry test ordered by the obstetrician?
The test was ordered to assess the size and shape of the pelvis and to check for
cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD).
5. Why was an emergency C-section performed on A.Y.?
The C-section was performed because A.Y. was in active labor but unable to
progress, and fetal distress was indicated by changes in the fetal heart rate.

Find words for the following:

1. Upper rounded portion of the uterus:

Fundus
2. Measurement of the pelvis:
Pelvimetry
3. Above the pubic bone:
Suprapubic
4. Test to measure the health of a newborn:
Apgar score
5. Newborn:
Neonate

Case 2: Total Abdominal Hysterectomy with Bilateral Salpingo-Oophorectomy

1. M.T. is gravida 2, para 2. This means:
She has had two pregnancies and two births.
2. An endocervical biopsy is:
A tissue sample from the inside of the neck (of the cervix).
3. A curettage is a/n:
B. Scraping
4. A colposcopy is an endoscopic examination of the:
A. Vagina
5. Another name for a leiomyoma is a/n:
B. Uterine fibroid
6. Pregnancy-induced hypertension is also called:
D. Preeclampsia

Write a term from the cases with each of the following meanings:

1. Displaced downward:
Prolapsed
2. Cell produced by fertilization:
Zygote
3. An immature egg cell:
Oocyte
4. Pertaining to the structure in which an egg ripens:
Ovarian

Define each of the following abbreviations:

1. D&C:
Dilation and Curettage
2. BSO:
Bilateral Salpingo-Oophorectomy
3. HRT:
Hormone Replacement Therapy
4. T.A.H.:
Total Abdominal Hysterectomy
5. IVF:
In Vitro Fertilization
6. GYN:
Gynecology
7. ZIFT:
Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer
8. GIFT:
Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer
 UNIT 3: HEMATOLOGY
Exercise 1: Matching Prefixes to Meanings

1. coagul/o - C. clotting
2. erythr/o - B. red
3. hemat/o; hem/o - J. blood
4. cyt/o - E. cell
5. leuk/o - D. white
6. myel/o - I. bone marrow
7. poikil/o - A. varied, irregular
8. sider/o - G. iron
9. spher/o - H. globe, round
10. thromb/o - F. clot
1. What does the combining form "coagul/o" mean?
A. Cell
B. White
C. Clotting
D. Blood
2. The combining form "erythr/o" refers to:
A. Bone marrow
B. Red
C. Iron
D. Globe
3. Which combining form means "blood"?
A. Leuk/o
B. Myel/o
C. Hemat/o; hem/o
D. Coagul/o
4. The combining form "cyt/o" is associated with:
A. Iron
B. Cell
C. Clot
D. Red
5. "Leuk/o" refers to:
A. Blood
B. White
C. Varied, irregular
D. Clotting
6. The combining form "myel/o" refers to:
A. Cell
B. Bone marrow
C. Globe
D. Iron
7. Which combining form means "varied, irregular"?
A. Poikil/o
B. Coagul/o
C. Sider/o
D. Spher/o
8. The combining form "sider/o" is used to describe:
A. Iron
B. Clot
C. White
D. Bone marrow
9. "Spher/o" refers to:
A. Blood
B. Globe, round
C. Red
D. Clotting
10. The combining form "thromb/o" means:
A. Iron
B. Clot
C. Cell
D. Bone marrow
11. "Erythr/o" is related to:
A. White
B. Red
C. Clotting
D. Cell
12. Which combining form describes iron?
A. Sider/o
B. Cyt/o
C. Myel/o
D. Poikil/o
13. "Poikil/o" refers to:
A. Varied, irregular
B. Blood
C. Globe, round
D. Bone marrow
14. The combining form "hemat/o" is used for:
A. Red
B. Clot
C. Blood
D. Iron
15. Which combining form means "cell"?
A. Thromb/o
B. Cyt/o
 C. Sider/o
D. Erythr/o
16. "Myel/o" is related to:
A. Iron
B. Bone marrow
C. Globe, round
D. Blood
17. Which combining form refers to a clot?
A. Coagul/o
B. Thromb/o
C. Poikil/o
D. Sider/o
18. "Leuk/o" refers to which color?
A. Red
B. White
C. Black
D. Globe
19. What does "spher/o" mean?
A. Cell
B. Globe, round
C. Varied, irregular
D. Bone marrow
20. "Coagul/o" refers to:
A. Iron
B. Blood
C. Clotting
D. Red
21. The combining form "sider/o" means:
A. Iron
B. Cell
C. Clot
D. Bone marrow
22. Which combining form means "white"?
A. Erythr/o
B. Leuk/o
C. Myel/o
D. Sider/o
23. "Poikil/o" refers to something that is:
A. Varied, irregular
B. Globe, round
C. Clotting
D. White
 24. The combining form "erythr/o" describes:
A. Red
B. Iron
C. Bone marrow
D. Blood
25. "Thromb/o" is associated with:
A. White
B. Clot
C. Cell
D. Varied
26. Which combining form means "blood"?
A. Coagul/o
B. Cyt/o
C. Hemat/o
D. Thromb/o
27. "Cyt/o" refers to:
A. Cell
B. Clotting
C. White
D. Blood
28. Which combining form describes bone marrow?
A. Sider/o
B. Myel/o
C. Poikil/o
D. Coagul/o
29. "Leuk/o" refers to which color?
A. Globe
B. White
C. Red
D. Varied
30. "Spher/o" is used to describe:
A. Globe, round
B. Iron
C. Blood
D. Clotting

Answers
1C, 2B, 3C, 4B, 5B
6B, 7A, 8A, 9B, 10B
11B, 12A, 13A, 14C, 15B
16B, 17B, 18B, 19B, 20C
21A, 22B, 23A, 24A, 25B
26C, 27A, 28B, 29B, 30A
Exercise 2: Matching Suffixes to Meanings

1. -apheresis - F. removal, a carrying away

2. -blast - J. immature cell, embryonic
3. -cytosis - G. abnormal condition of cells (increase in cells)
4. -emia - H. blood condition
5. -globin; -globulin - E. protein
6. -lytic - A. pertaining to destruction
7. -penia - I. deficiency
8. -phage - B. eat; swallow
9. -poiesis - C. formation
10. -stasis - D. stop; control
1. The suffix "-apheresis" refers to:
A. Blood condition
B. Deficiency
C. Removal, a carrying away
D. Formation
2. What does the suffix "-blast" mean?
A. Immature cell, embryonic
B. Protein
C. Pertaining to destruction
D. Stop; control
3. The suffix "-cytosis" relates to:
A. Eat; swallow
B. Abnormal condition of cells (increase in cells)
C. Deficiency
D. Removal, a carrying away
4. "-emia" is a suffix that refers to:
A. Blood condition
B. Formation
C. Immature cell
D. Stop; control
5. The suffixes "-globin" and "-globulin" indicate:
A. Blood condition
B. Protein
C. Deficiency
D. Eat; swallow
6. What is the meaning of "-lytic"?
A. Pertaining to destruction
B. Immature cell
C. Removal, a carrying away
D. Formation
7. The suffix "-penia" means:
A. Eat; swallow
B. Deficiency
C. Abnormal condition of cells
D. Stop; control
8. "-phage" is a suffix that means:
A. Formation
B. Eat; swallow
C. Blood condition
D. Deficiency
9. The suffix "-poiesis" refers to:
A. Protein
B. Stop; control
C. Formation
D. Pertaining to destruction
10. What does the suffix "-stasis" mean?
A. Stop; control
B. Deficiency
C. Eat; swallow
D. Immature cell
11. The term "apheresis" means:
A. Pertaining to destruction
B. Removal, a carrying away
C. Immature cell
D. Protein
12. The meaning of "-blast" is:
A. Stop; control
B. Formation
C. Immature cell, embryonic
D. Deficiency
13. "-cytosis" describes:
A. Abnormal condition of cells (increase in cells)
B. Blood condition
C. Protein
D. Pertaining to destruction
14. The suffix "-emia" relates to a:
A. Deficiency
B. Blood condition
C. Protein
D. Formation
15. The suffix "-globulin" refers to:
A. Deficiency
B. Formation
 C. Protein
D. Eat; swallow
16. The suffix "-lytic" means:
A. Pertaining to destruction
B. Eat; swallow
C. Immature cell
D. Abnormal condition of cells
17. "-penia" refers to a:
A. Protein
B. Deficiency
C. Stop; control
D. Blood condition
18. The suffix "-phage" means:
A. Eat; swallow
B. Blood condition
C. Deficiency
D. Stop; control
19. "-poiesis" describes the process of:
A. Protein
B. Formation
C. Pertaining to destruction
D. Removal
20. "-stasis" means:
A. Formation
B. Stop; control
C. Immature cell
D. Eat; swallow
21. "-apheresis" refers to:
A. Abnormal condition of cells
B. Deficiency
C. Removal, a carrying away
D. Protein
22. The suffix "-blast" is used for:
A. Immature cell, embryonic
B. Blood condition
C. Stop; control
D. Formation
23. "-cytosis" means:
A. Eat; swallow
B. Blood condition
C. Abnormal condition of cells (increase in cells)
D. Deficiency
 24. The meaning of "-emia" is:
A. Deficiency
B. Blood condition
C. Formation
D. Pertaining to destruction
25. The suffix "-globin" refers to:
A. Protein
B. Blood condition
C. Stop; control
D. Deficiency
26. What does "-lytic" refer to?
A. Stop; control
B. Pertaining to destruction
C. Blood condition
D. Protein
27. "-penia" indicates:
A. Deficiency
B. Eat; swallow
C. Formation
D. Removal
28. "-phage" is associated with:
A. Eat; swallow
B. Stop; control
C. Deficiency
D. Protein
29. "-poiesis" refers to the:
A. Formation
B. Deficiency
C. Immature cell
D. Blood condition
30. The meaning of "-stasis" is:
A. Stop; control
B. Formation
C. Eat; swallow
D. Deficiency

Answers
1C, 2A, 3B, 4A, 5B
6A, 7B, 8B, 9C, 10A
11B, 12C, 13A, 14B, 15C
16A, 17B, 18A, 19B, 20B
21C, 22A, 23C, 24B, 25A
26B, 27A, 28A, 29A, 30A
Exercise 3: Definitions

1. Hemolysis: Breakdown/destruction of red blood cells.

2. Erythropoiesis: Formation of red blood cells.
3. Spherocytosis: Presence of spherical-shaped red blood cells.
4. Anemia: Deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood.
5. Leukapheresis: Removal of white blood cells from the bloodstream.
6. Myeloblast: Immature bone marrow cell that gives rise to blood cells.
7. Hemostasis: The process of stopping bleeding or controlling blood flow.
8. Sideropenia: Deficiency of iron in the blood.
9. Macrophage: A large white blood cell that engulfs and digests pathogens and debris.
10. Hemoglobinopathy: A disease or disorder related to abnormalities in hemoglobin.
11. Coagulopathy: A disorder of blood clotting.
12. Poikilocytosis: Abnormal variation in the shape of red blood cells.
1. What is hemolysis?
A. Formation of red blood cells
B. Breakdown of red blood cells
C. Abnormal shape of red blood cells
D. Stopping blood flow
2. Erythropoiesis refers to:
A. Breakdown of red blood cells
B. Removal of white blood cells
C. Formation of red blood cells
D. Deficiency of hemoglobin
3. What does spherocytosis describe?
A. Formation of red blood cells
B. Spherical-shaped red blood cells
C. Abnormal variation in red blood cell shapes
D. Deficiency of iron in the blood
4. Anemia is best defined as:
A. Excess red blood cells in the blood
B. Deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin
C. Formation of immature blood cells
D. Deficiency of white blood cells
5. What is leukapheresis?
A. The removal of white blood cells
B. The formation of white blood cells
C. Abnormal blood clotting
D. Deficiency of hemoglobin
6. A myeloblast is:
A. A mature red blood cell
B. A large white blood cell
 C. An immature bone marrow cell
D. A clotting factor in the blood
7. Hemostasis is the process of:
A. Forming red blood cells
B. Stopping bleeding or controlling blood flow
C. Removing iron from the blood
D. Abnormal blood clotting
8. Sideropenia refers to:
A. Deficiency of red blood cells
B. Deficiency of iron in the blood
C. Abnormal red blood cell shapes
D. Excess white blood cells
9. What is a macrophage?
A. A disease affecting hemoglobin
B. A large white blood cell that digests pathogens
C. A spherical red blood cell
D. An immature bone marrow cell
10. Hemoglobinopathy is a:
A. Process of forming hemoglobin
B. Disorder related to hemoglobin abnormalities
C. Deficiency of iron in the blood
D. Breakdown of red blood cells
11. What is coagulopathy?
A. A disorder of blood clotting
B. Formation of red blood cells
C. Presence of spherical red blood cells
D. Removal of white blood cells
12. Poikilocytosis describes:
A. Variation in the shape of red blood cells
B. Deficiency of iron in the blood
C. Abnormal clotting
D. The process of stopping blood flow
13. What does erythropoiesis result in?
A. Iron deficiency
B. Formation of white blood cells
C. Formation of red blood cells
D. Abnormal hemoglobin
14. What is the primary function of a macrophage?
A. Transport oxygen
B. Breakdown hemoglobin
C. Digest pathogens and debris
D. Stop blood flow
15. Sideropenia leads to:
A. Excess iron in the blood
B. Deficiency of iron in the blood
C. Formation of abnormal blood cells
D. Disorder of blood clotting
16. What condition involves spherical red blood cells?
A. Anemia
B. Spherocytosis
C. Hemoglobinopathy
D. Leukapheresis
17. Which term describes abnormal red blood cell shapes?
A. Hemostasis
B. Poikilocytosis
C. Erythropoiesis
D. Sideropenia
18. A disease affecting hemoglobin is called:
A. Coagulopathy
B. Hemoglobinopathy
C. Spherocytosis
D. Leukapheresis
19. Hemostasis primarily prevents:
A. Anemia
B. Bleeding
C. Iron deficiency
D. Hemoglobin abnormalities
20. What is the role of a myeloblast?
A. To transport iron
B. To form mature blood cells
C. To digest debris
D. To stop blood flow
21. Anemia can be caused by:
A. Excess iron
B. Deficiency of red blood cells
C. Breakdown of white blood cells
D. Abnormal red blood cell shapes
22. Leukapheresis is used to:
A. Remove white blood cells
B. Stop blood flow
C. Form red blood cells
D. Treat iron deficiency
23. Hemolysis refers to:
A. Formation of blood cells
B. Breakdown of red blood cells
 C. Deficiency of hemoglobin
D. Stopping blood flow
24. What term refers to the removal of white blood cells?
A. Hemostasis
B. Leukapheresis
C. Erythropoiesis
D. Coagulopathy
25. Which condition is caused by a deficiency of iron?
A. Hemolysis
B. Anemia
C. Sideropenia
D. Hemoglobinopathy
26. What does coagulopathy affect?
A. Iron levels
B. Blood clotting
C. Red blood cell production
D. Pathogen digestion
27. A macrophage is responsible for:
A. Removing white blood cells
B. Engulfing pathogens
C. Stopping blood flow
D. Breaking down hemoglobin
28. Poikilocytosis refers to:
A. Deficiency of iron
B. Variation in red blood cell shapes
C. Formation of hemoglobin
D. Breakdown of red blood cells
29. What does sideropenia result in?
A. Formation of abnormal blood cells
B. Deficiency of iron in the blood
C. Excess iron in the blood
D. Abnormal clotting
30. Hemoglobinopathy involves:
A. Iron deficiency
B. Abnormalities in hemoglobin
C. Stopping blood flow
D. Variation in blood cell shapes

Answers
1B, 2C, 3B, 4B, 5A
6C, 7B, 8B, 9B, 10B
11A, 12A, 13C, 14C, 15B
16B, 17B, 18B, 19B, 20B
21B, 22A, 23B, 24B, 25C
26B, 27B, 28B, 29B, 30B
Exercise 4: Fill in the Sentences

1. Platelets, actually blood cell fragments, are formed in bone marrow from giant cells
with multilobed nuclei called megakaryocytes.
2. Pancytopenia occurs when stem cells fail to produce leukocytes, platelets, and
erythrocytes.
3. Pernicious anemia is the lack of mature erythrocytes caused by inability to absorb
vitamin B12 into the bloodstream.
4. During transfusion, if blood is not compatible, then hemolysis (breakdown of red
blood cells) occurs.
5. Blood clotting, or coagulation, is a complicated process involving many different
substances and chemical reactions. The final result (usually taking less than 15 minutes)
is the formation of a fibrin clot from the plasma protein fibrinogen.
6. A hematopoietic stem cell is the progenitor for all different types of blood cells.
7. Thalassemia is an inherited defect in ability to produce hemoglobin, leading to
hypochromia.
8. Bone marrow biopsy is a procedure of microscopic examination of a core of bone
marrow removed with a needle.
9. Hemophilia is a disorder in which there is excessive bleeding caused by hereditary
lack of blood clotting factors (factor VIII or IX) necessary for blood clotting.
10. Human blood falls into four main types: A, B, AB, and O. These types are based on
the antigens on red blood cells and antibodies found in each person’s serum.
1. What are platelets formed from?
A. Erythrocytes
B. Megakaryocytes
C. Hematopoietic stem cells
D. Leukocytes
2. What condition results from the failure of stem cells to produce leukocytes,
platelets, and erythrocytes?
A. Thalassemia
B. Pancytopenia
C. Hemophilia
D. Pernicious anemia
3. Pernicious anemia is caused by the inability to:
A. Absorb vitamin D
B. Produce hemoglobin
C. Absorb vitamin B12
D. Form fibrin clots
4. During a transfusion, what occurs if the blood is not compatible?
A. Coagulation
B. Hemolysis
 C. Hypochromia
D. Pancytopenia
5. The process of blood clotting involves the formation of a fibrin clot from:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Vitamin B12
C. Fibrinogen
D. Platelets
6. What is the progenitor for all blood cell types?
A. Megakaryocytes
B. Leukocytes
C. Hematopoietic stem cells
D. Platelets
7. Thalassemia is an inherited defect that affects the production of:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Vitamin B12
C. Platelets
D. Erythrocytes
8. What is examined during a bone marrow biopsy?
A. Red blood cells
B. A core of bone marrow
C. Hemoglobin levels
D. Blood clotting factors
9. Hemophilia is a disorder characterized by:
A. Excessive production of platelets
B. Lack of vitamin B12
C. Hereditary lack of clotting factors
D. Hypochromia
10. Blood types are determined by:
A. Clotting factors in plasma
B. Antigens on red blood cells
C. The level of fibrinogen
D. Bone marrow activity
11. Megakaryocytes are responsible for the production of:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Platelets
C. Fibrin clots
D. Leukocytes
12. What happens when stem cells fail to function?
A. Excessive bleeding
B. Pancytopenia
C. Hemolysis
D. Thalassemia
13. Lack of absorption of vitamin B12 primarily affects:
A. Platelet formation
B. Mature erythrocytes
C. Hemoglobin synthesis
D. Bone marrow function
14. Which condition involves a hereditary defect in hemoglobin production?
A. Pancytopenia
B. Thalassemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Hemophilia
15. What is formed during the process of blood clotting?
A. Fibrinogen
B. Fibrin clots
C. Platelets
D. Antigens
16. Which type of stem cell gives rise to all blood cell types?
A. Hematopoietic stem cell
B. Leukocyte progenitor
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Plasma cell
17. What disorder results in hypochromia due to reduced hemoglobin?
A. Pancytopenia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Thalassemia
D. Hemophilia
18. What is removed with a needle during a bone marrow biopsy?
A. Serum
B. Red blood cells
C. A core of bone marrow
D. Hemoglobin
19. Lack of clotting factors VIII or IX causes:
A. Thalassemia
B. Hemophilia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Pancytopenia
20. What determines an individual’s blood type?
A. The number of platelets
B. Bone marrow activity
C. Antigens on red blood cells
D. Hemoglobin levels
21. Pancytopenia affects which cells?
A. Only red blood cells
B. Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
 C. Platelets only
D. White blood cells only
22. What substance converts to fibrin during coagulation?
A. Fibrinogen
B. Platelets
C. Hemoglobin
D. Antigens
23. Hemolysis occurs when:
A. Blood types are compatible
B. Red blood cells break down
C. Hemoglobin levels increase
D. Vitamin B12 is absorbed
24. In thalassemia, the defect leads to:
A. Excessive clotting
B. Low hemoglobin production
C. Lack of vitamin absorption
D. Excessive erythrocyte production
25. What is the purpose of a bone marrow biopsy?
A. To examine red blood cell count
B. To study bone marrow tissue
C. To measure hemoglobin levels
D. To identify blood type
26. Which condition is caused by the hereditary lack of clotting factors?
A. Thalassemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Hemophilia
D. Pancytopenia
27. Blood group antigens are found on:
A. Platelets
B. Red blood cells
C. Plasma proteins
D. Bone marrow cells
28. Hematopoietic stem cells are found in:
A. Bone marrow
B. Red blood cells
C. Fibrinogen
D. Plasma
29. Hypochromia is a condition marked by:
A. Reduced hemoglobin content
B. Excessive erythrocyte production
C. Increased clotting time
D. Breakage of red blood cells
 30. Which cells are fragments of megakaryocytes?
A. Platelets
B. Red blood cells
C. Leukocytes
D. Erythrocytes

Answers
1B, 2B, 3C, 4B, 5C
6C, 7A, 8B, 9C, 10B
11B, 12B, 13B, 14B, 15B
16A, 17C, 18C, 19B, 20C
21B, 22A, 23B, 24B, 25B
26C, 27B, 28A, 29A, 30A
VOCABULARY REVIEW
Select the correct answer for the following questions.
1. Erythrocyte is the scientific name for a:
A. white blood cell
B. lymphocyte
C. red blood cell
D. muscle cell
2. Platelets, or thrombocytes, are involved in:
A. digestion
B. inflammation
C. blood clotting
D. immunity
3. The white blood cells active in immunity are the:
A. chondrocytes
B. lymphocytes
C. adipose cells
D. hematids
4. Substances produced by immune cells that counteract microorganisms and other
foreign materials are called:
A. antigens B. antibodies C. anticoagulants D. Rh factors
5. A deficiency of hemoglobin results in the disorder called:
A. hypertension B. chromatosis C. anemia D. hemophilia
6. A neoplastic overgrowth of white blood cells is called:
A. leukemia B. anemia C. fibrosis D. cystitis

1. The unit for hemoglobin measurement (g/dL) means:

A. grams in decimal point
B. grains in a deciliter
C. drops in 50 ml
D. grams in 100 ml
 2. Heparin, an anticoagulant, is a drug that:
A. increases the rate of blood clotting
B. takes the place of fibrin
C. makes blood thinner than water
D. interferes with blood clotting
3. The RBCs were washed with NS. This means the:
A. reticulocytes, heparin
B. red blood cells, nutritional solution
C. erythrocytes, normal saline
D. red blood cells, heparin
4. Autotransfusion of autologous blood is the patient’s own blood. Homologous blood is
taken from:
A. another human
B. synthetic chemicals
C. plasma with clotting factors
D. IV fluid with electrolytes
5. Patients who lose significant amounts of blood may lose clotting ability. Effective
therapy in such cases would be replacement of:
A. IV solution with electrolytes B. packed RBCs
C. platelets D. heparin
6. C.L.’s blood type is B-positive. The best blood for her to receive is:
A. A-negative B. AB-positive
C. B-negative D. B-positive
7. Myelofibrosis, like aplastic anemia, is a disease in which there is:
A. overgrowth of RBCs B. destruction of the bone marrow
C. dangerously high hemoglobin and hematocrit D. absence of bone marrow
8. Erythropoiesis is:
A. production of blood B. production of red cells
C. destruction of white cells D. destruction of platelets
9. The “ferrous” in ferrous sulfate represents:
A. electrolytes
C. iron
10. Hemoglobin and hematocrit values pertain to:
A. leukocytes
B. fibrinogen
C. granulocytes
D. red blood cells
11. Splenomegaly is:
A. prolapse of the spleen B. movement of the spleen
C. enlargement of the lymph glands D. enlargement of the spleen
12. The stem cells A.Y. received were expected to develop into new:
A. spleen cells B. bone marrow cells
C. hemoglobin D. cartilage
13. A.Y.’s health was compromised because the high-dose chemotherapy caused:
A. immunodeficiency B. electrolyte imbalance
C. anoxia D. autoimmunity

UNIT4: DERMATOLOGY
Matching Lesions to Their Features

1. Crust
• Dried exudate is a scab of blood/plasma
2. Purpura
• A rash caused by blood in the skin - often multiple petechiae
3. Wheal
• Dermal edema
4. Ecchymosis
• A “bruise”. Technically a form of purpura
5. Pustule
• Visible collection of pus in the subcutis
6. Scale
• A small thin piece of horny epithelium resembling that of a fish
7. Macule
• Flat, non-palpable change in skin-color <0.5 cm
8. Ulcer
• Full thickness skin loss
9. Patch
• Flat, non-palpable change in skin-color >0.5 cm
10. Vesicle
• Fluid below the epidermis
1. What is the feature of a crust?
A. Visible collection of pus in the subcutis
B. Dried exudate, such as a scab of blood/plasma
C. A rash caused by blood in the skin
D. Flat, non-palpable change in skin-color <0.5 cm
2. Purpura refers to:
A. Full thickness skin loss
B. Fluid below the epidermis
C. A rash caused by blood in the skin, often multiple petechiae
D. A small thin piece of horny epithelium resembling that of a fish
3. Wheal is characterized by:
A. Dermal edema
B. Flat, non-palpable change in skin-color >0.5 cm
C. A visible collection of pus
D. Full thickness skin loss
4. Ecchymosis is commonly known as:
A. A bruise, technically a form of purpura
B. A rash caused by blood in the skin
C. A small thin piece of horny epithelium resembling fish scales
D. Flat, non-palpable change in skin-color <0.5 cm
5. A pustule is defined as:
A. Fluid below the epidermis
B. A visible collection of pus in the subcutis
C. Full thickness skin loss
D. Dried exudate from blood/plasma
6. Scale refers to:
A. A flat, non-palpable change in skin-color
B. Full thickness skin loss
C. A small, thin piece of horny epithelium resembling that of a fish
D. Dermal edema
7. Macule is:
A. Full thickness skin loss
B. A flat, non-palpable change in skin-color <0.5 cm
C. A visible collection of pus in the subcutis
D. A rash caused by blood in the skin
8. An ulcer involves:
A. A rash caused by blood in the skin
B. Flat, non-palpable change in skin-color >0.5 cm
C. Full thickness skin loss
D. Fluid below the epidermis
9. A patch is described as:
A. A flat, non-palpable change in skin-color >0.5 cm
B. A bruise, technically a form of purpura
C. Dermal edema
D. A small thin piece of horny epithelium resembling fish scales
10. A vesicle contains:
A. A visible collection of pus
B. Fluid below the epidermis
C. Full thickness skin loss
D. Dried exudate from blood/plasma
11. What does crust primarily involve?
A. A rash caused by blood in the skin
B. A flat, non-palpable change in skin-color
C. Dried exudate, such as a scab of blood/plasma
D. Full thickness skin loss
12. The term purpura is linked to:
A. Fluid below the epidermis
B. A rash caused by blood in the skin, often multiple petechiae
 C. A visible collection of pus in the subcutis
D. A small, thin piece of horny epithelium resembling that of a fish
13. Wheal is best described as:
A. Flat, non-palpable change in skin-color >0.5 cm
B. Dermal edema
C. Full thickness skin loss
D. A visible collection of pus in the subcutis
14. Ecchymosis is a type of:
A. Rash caused by blood in the skin
B. Fluid below the epidermis
C. A bruise, technically a form of purpura
D. A small thin piece of horny epithelium resembling that of a fish
15. Pustule is defined as:
A. A rash caused by blood in the skin
B. Full thickness skin loss
C. A visible collection of pus in the subcutis
D. A small thin piece of horny epithelium resembling that of a fish
16. Scale refers to:
A. Full thickness skin loss
B. A small, thin piece of horny epithelium resembling that of a fish
C. A flat, non-palpable change in skin-color
D. Fluid below the epidermis
17. Macule is a:
A. A rash caused by blood in the skin
B. Flat, non-palpable change in skin-color <0.5 cm
C. Visible collection of pus in the subcutis
D. Full thickness skin loss
18. An ulcer is a form of:
A. A small thin piece of horny epithelium resembling that of a fish
B. Full thickness skin loss
C. A rash caused by blood in the skin
D. Fluid below the epidermis
19. A patch is defined as:
A. A flat, non-palpable change in skin-color >0.5 cm
B. Fluid below the epidermis
C. A visible collection of pus in the subcutis
D. Full thickness skin loss
20. A vesicle is characterized by:
A. Fluid below the epidermis
B. Full thickness skin loss
C. A small, thin piece of horny epithelium resembling that of a fish
D. A rash caused by blood in the skin
21. What type of lesion is a crust?
A. A rash caused by blood in the skin
B. Dried exudate, such as a scab of blood/plasma
C. Fluid below the epidermis
D. A visible collection of pus in the subcutis
22. Purpura appears as:
A. Full thickness skin loss
B. Multiple petechiae due to blood in the skin
C. Fluid below the epidermis
D. A small thin piece of horny epithelium resembling that of a fish
23. The wheal is characterized by:
A. A visible collection of pus
B. Dermal edema
C. Full thickness skin loss
D. Flat, non-palpable change in skin-color <0.5 cm
24. Ecchymosis is a:
A. Fluid below the epidermis
B. A rash caused by blood in the skin
C. A bruise, a form of purpura
D. A small thin piece of horny epithelium resembling fish scales
25. A pustule is best defined as:
A. A rash caused by blood in the skin
B. Full thickness skin loss
C. Visible collection of pus in the subcutis
D. A flat, non-palpable change in skin-color
26. Scale involves:
A. A small thin piece of horny epithelium resembling fish scales
B. Full thickness skin loss
C. Dermal edema
D. Fluid below the epidermis
27. A macule is:
A. A flat, non-palpable change in skin-color <0.5 cm
B. A visible collection of pus in the subcutis
C. Full thickness skin loss
D. A rash caused by blood in the skin
28. An ulcer is associated with:
A. A small thin piece of horny epithelium resembling fish scales
B. Full thickness skin loss
C. A visible collection of pus in the subcutis
D. Fluid below the epidermis
29. A patch is:
A. A rash caused by blood in the skin
B. A small, thin piece of horny epithelium resembling fish scales
 C. Full thickness skin loss
D. Flat, non-palpable change in skin-color >0.5 cm
30. Vesicle refers to:
A. Fluid below the epidermis
B. A visible collection of pus
C. Full thickness skin loss
D. A rash caused by blood in the skin

Answers
1B, 2C, 3B, 4A, 5B
6C, 7B, 8C, 9A, 10B
11B, 12B, 13B, 14C, 15C
16B, 17B, 18B, 19A, 20A
21B, 22B, 23B, 24C, 25C
26A, 27A, 28B, 29D, 30A
1. The uppermost portion of the skin is called the
C. epidermis
2. The glands that secrete an oily substance that lubricates the skin are the glands.
B. sebaceous
3. A pigmented skin tumor is a
B. melanoma
4. Onychomycosis is a fungal infection of a
C. nail
5. Flat, pinpoint, purplish-red spots that are caused by bleeding within the skin or
mucous membrane are
C. petechiae
6. ___ is a general term for skin inflammation with redness, lesions, and itching; atopic
dermatitis.
B. Eczema