(Q.

1) Primary cell from which sperms are derived is:

(a) Spermatogonia
(b) Spermatid
(c) Primary spermatocytes
(d) Secondary spermatocytes

Answer: A

Exp: Spermatogonia
A spermatogonium (plural: spermatogonia) is an intermediary male gametogonium (a kind of
germ cell) in the production of spermatozoa. They are themselves derived from primordial
germ cells.
These germ cells can be divided into Type A, In (intermediate), and Type B Spermatogonia.
Included in the Type Aspermatogonia are a subset of cells from which all germ cells are
derived; the spermatogonial stem cells.
Spermatogonia are the primitive differentiated male germ cells which give rise to primary
spermatocytes, through the first meiotic division.
Primary spermatocytes are diploid cells which divide by meiosis to produce secondary
spermatocytes (haploid).
Secondary spermatocytes undergo a second round of meiosis to produce the haploid round
spermatids and finally mature sperms.

(Q.2) Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the process of

spermatogenesis:
(a) Primordial germ cells originate from embryonic mesoderm
(b) Primordial germ cells arrive in the future testes region at week 5 and remain dormant until
puberty
(c) 512 spermatids form from a single spermatogonium taking an average of 74 days in the
process
(d) Primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis to produce haploid secondary spermatocyte

Answer: A

Exp: Primordial germ cells originate from embryonic mesoderm

Primordial germ cells (PGCs) are derivatives of epiblast cells.

(Q.3) Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the process of

oogenesis:
(a) Primordial germ cells arise from epiblast during 2nd week
(b) Primordial germ cells arrive at the genital ridge at week 5 and remain dormant until
puberty
(c) Primary oocyte (2n) undergoes meiosis to produce haploid (n) secondary oocyte
(d) In a female child at birth oocyte is at prophase-I

Answer: B

Exp: Primordial germ cells arrive at the genital ridge at week 5 and remain dormant
until puberty
The statement applies to male PGCs& testes and not to ovary.
In males the PGCs arrive in the testes by the end of week 5 and remain dormant till puberty.
Only at puberty the actual process of spermatogenesis will be initiated.
In the ovary the PGCs initiate oogenesis even before birth. At birth there are no viable PGCs
in the ovary, they have already got converted into primary oocytes.

(Q.4) In a female child at birth oocyte progress to:

(a) Anaphase, 2nd meiotic
(b) Prophase, 1st meiotic
(c) Metaphase, 2nd meiotic
(d) Anaphase, 1st meiotic

Answer: B

Exp: Prophase, 1st meiotic

In females, meiosis starts in primary oocytes(2n) and quite early in intra-uterine life Primary
oocytes enter meiosis and are stopped at the diplotene stage of meiosis-1 to lay dormant till
puberty So, in a female child at birth oocyte is seen in prophase (diplotene) of meiosis-1

(Q.5) Following statements describe the various stages through which oocytes pass.
Choose the incorrect statement:
(a) Primary oocyte is arrested at prophase till puberty
(b) Primary oocyte is hormonally induced to resume the first meiotic division during onset of
puberty
(c) A midcycle surge of LH triggers the resumption of meiosis with subsequent discharge of
secondary oocyte
(d) Secondary oocyte enters the second meiotic division just after ovulation and arrests at
metaphase

Answer: D

Exp: Secondary oocyte enters the second meiotic division just after ovulation and
arrests at metaphase
Secondary oocyte enters second meiotic division and arrests at metaphase 3hours before
ovulation.

(Q.6) Untrue about events during menstrual cycle:

(a) Cell menstruated at day 26 is secondary oocyte arrested in metaphase
(b) First polar body extrusion occurs prior to ovulation
(c) Second polar body extrusion occurs only if fertilization occurs
(d) Ootid is produced prior to fertilization

Answer: D

Exp: Ootid is produced prior to fertilization

Ootid is the representative term for Ovum (ovum term is not mentioned in Gray’s Anatomy)
and is produced after fertilization

(Q.7) Derivative of endoderm is:

(a) Ureter
(b) Gallbladder
(c) Uterus
(d) Epididymis

Answer: B

Exp: Gallbladder
Gut tube is an endodermal derivative and so are the glands associated with it e.g., tonsil,
thyroid, parathyroid, thymus (all are pharyngeal pouch derivatives).
Liver & pancreas are also the gut tube derivatives and are endodermal.
Genito-urinary system is mainly mesodermal.

(Q.8) Which cell type is not ectodermal in origin:

(a) Neuron
(b) Microglia
(c) Astrocyte
(d) Oligodendroglia

Answer: B

Exp: Microglia
Microglia is a derivative of blood cells, hence mesodermal in origin
Rest all other cells in question are derived from neuroectoderm.

(Q.9) Metaplastic columnar epithelium is found in Barrett's Oesophagus. What type of

mucosa is normal for the distal esophagus:
(a) Keratinized, stratified, squamous epithelium
(b) Non-ciliated, columnar epithelium
(c) Non-keratinized, stratified, squamous epithelium
(d) Pseudostratified, columnar epithelium

Answer: C

Exp: Non-keratinized, stratified, squamous epithelium

1. Mucosa: non-keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium. At gastro-oesophageal junction,
merges with simple columnar epithelium of stomach
2. Submucosa has mucus glands tending to be concentrated at the superior and inferior ends
of the oesophagus
3. Muscle layer: In the upper third, skeletal muscle predominates. In the inferior two thirds,
smooth muscle is more common. There is a transition between the two sets of fibres

(Q.10) Foetal hemoglobin is synthesized at:

(a) 3 months
(b) 5 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 7 months

Answer: A

Exp: 3 months
After the first 10 to 12 weeks of development, the fetus' primary form of hemoglobin
switches from embryonic hemoglobin to fetal hemoglobin. At birth, fetal hemoglobin
comprises 50-95% of the child's hemoglobin.
These levels decline after six months as adult hemoglobin synthesis is activated while fetal
hemoglobin synthesis is deactivated. Soon after, adult hemoglobin (hemoglobina in
particular) takes over as the predominant form of hemoglobin in normal children.

(Q.11) All of these are derivatives of mesoderm except:

(a) Duramater
(b) Ciliary body of eye
(c) Microglia
(d) Dilator pupillae

Answer: D

Exp: Dilator pupillae

Intrinsic muscles of iris namely, Sphincter &Dilator pupillae, are derivatives of neural plate
ectoderm Cardio vascular system develops from mesoderm and microglia is a type of blood
cell.
Duramater is mesodermal in origin, whereas, pia & arachnoid are from neural crest cells.

(Q.12) All are derivatives of mesoderm except:

(a) Mandible bone
(b) Femur
(c) Trigone of bladder
(d) Upper 1/3 of vagina

Answer: A

Exp: Mandible bone

Neural crest cells contribute to the mesenchyme of head & neck region and almost all part of
skull is derivative of neural crest cells and so is Mandible.

(Q.13) Endoderm gives all except:

(a) Urethra
(b) Dorsal prostate
(c) Allantois
(d) Vagina

Answer: B

Exp: Dorsal prostate

Dorsal prostate is derived from the Wolffian duct (mesoderm) and so is the trigone of urinary
bladder.
Urogenital sinus is an endodermal derivative coming from the hind-gut. It gives the urinary
bladder, urethra and the lower two- third of vagina- all are endodermal.
Allantois is a diverticulum given by the yolk sac (yolk sac is first lined by the hypoblast and
later endoderm).

(Q.14) Neural crest derivatives are all except:

(a) Occipital bone
(b) Supra-renal medulla
(c) Auerbach’s ganglia
(d) Tunica media of aorta

Answer: A

Exp: Occipital bone

Almost the entire skull is from the ectoderm (neural crest derived mesenchyme) except few at
the base like occipital bone.
Occipital bone is mesodermal in origin and so are the other bones of the body like vertebrae.

(Q.15) At birth, the umbilical cord normally has:

(a) One umbilical vein, two umbilical arteries
(b) Two umbilical veins, two umbilical arteries
(c) One umbilical vein, one umbilical artery
(d) Two umbilical veins, one umbilical artery

Answer: A

Exp: One umbilical vein, two umbilical arteries

The umbilical cord is made of Wharton's jelly, and three blood vessels. Initially it has 2
umbilical arteries & 2 u. veins but later right vein regresses &only left vein is left. There are
no nerves, so cutting it is not painful

(Q.16) Feto- placental circulation established at day:

(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 22
(d) 28

Answer: C

Exp: 22
Uteroplacental circulation is established at day 12 (week 2)
Feto - placental circulation is established at day 22 (week 4).

(Q.17) Fetal side of placenta develops from:

(a) Chorionfrondosum
(b) Decidua basalis
(c) Chorionlaeve
(d) Amnion

Answer: A

Exp: Chorion frondosum

The greater part of the chorion is in contact with the decidua capsularis, and over this portion
the villi, with their contained vessels, undergo atrophy, so that by the fourth month scarcely a
trace of them is left, and hence this part of the chorion becomes smooth, and is named the
chorion laeve; as it takes no share in the formation of the placenta, it is also named the non-
placental partof the chorion.
On the other hand, the villi on that part of the chorion which is in contact with the decidua
placentalis increase greatly in size and complexity, and hence this part is named the chorion
frondosum.

(Q.18) Placenta is formed from:

(a) Decidua menstrualis
(b) Decidua basalis
(c) Decidua capsularis
(d) Decidua parietalis

Answer: B

Exp: Decidua basalis

Placenta has 2 components: fetal & maternal. Fetal component is contributed by trophoblast
cells of blastocyst & maternal component is by the deciduabasalis

(Q.19) Stereocilia are seen in:

(a) Epididymis
(b) Central canal of spinal cord
(c) Olfactory epithelium
(d) Trachea

Answer: A

Exp: Epididymis
1. Stereocilia are apical modifications of the cell, which are distinct from microvilli and cilia.
2. Though their name is more similar to cilia, they are actually more closely related to
microvilli, and some sources consider them to be a variant of microvilli rather than their own
distinct type of structure.
3. They are characterized by their greater length (distinguishing them from microvilli) and
their lack of motility (distinguishing them from cilia).
4. They are found in two regions of the body:
a. the epididymis
b. the inner ear (hair cells)

(Q.20) Polar bodies are formed during:

(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Oogenesis
(c) Organogenesis
(d) Morphogenesis

Answer: B

Exp: Oogenesis
Polar bodies are formed during the process of oogenesis.
Polar bodies are seen in females only and they degenerate ultimately.

(Q.21) All of the following cells are found in lung EXCEPT:

(a) Kulchitsky cells
(b) Clara cells
(c) Brush cells
(d) Langerhans cells

Answer: D

Exp: Langerhans cells

1. Langerhans cell (d) the immature dendritic cells present in the skin and lymph nodes,
reaching lungs only in abnormal conditions like Histiocytosis.
2. Kulchitsky cells (a) are the neuro-endocrine cells found in the lining epithelium of lung
and belong to the APUD system.
3. Clara cells (b) are the non-ciliated cuboidal/columnar cells in the wall of terminal
/respiratory bronchioles. They secrete the surfactant lipoproteins like the type-II
pneumocytes.
4. Brush cells (c) have microvilli at their surface and are innervated by nerve fibres, and
function as receptor cells.

(Q.22) Bronchial artery supplies up to:

(a) Tertiary bronchioles
(b) Respiratory bronchiole
(c) Alveolar ducts
(d) Terminal bronchiole

Answer: B

Exp: Respiratory bronchioles

1. Bronchial arteries are the branches from the descending thoracic aorta and supplies till the
level of respiratory bronchiole (b).
2. They perfuse the proximal air conducting pathways including tertiary (a)and terminal (d)
bronchioles and reach till the beginning of respiratory unit.
3. Pulmonary arteries alone have to vascularize the further distal pathways, including alveolar
ducts (c) and the alveoli.
4. There are pre-capillary anastomoses between bronchial & pulmonary arteries, at the level
of respiratory bronchioles, thus strengthening the dual vasculature of lungs.

(Q.23) Correct sequence of sperm movements:

(a) Rete testis - straight tubules - efferent ductules
(b) Straight tubules – efferent ductules – epididymis
(c) Efferent ductules - rete testis - straight tubules
(d) Straight tubules – rete testis – efferent ductules

Answer: D

Exp: Straight tubules - rete testis - efferent ductules

1. The sperms form in the seminiferous tubules and pass on to the straight tubules (tubuli
recti).
2. They further enter a network of tubules (rete testis) and then reach the efferent ductules.
3. Efferent ductules lead them to the epididymis where storage takes place before ejaculation.
(Q.24) Urothelium does not line:
(a) Collecting ducts
(b) Minor calyx
(c) Ureter
(d) Urinary bladder

Answer: A

Exp: Collecting ducts

1. Urothelium (or transitional) epithelium starts in the minor calyx region and lines major
calyx, pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder and the proximal 2 cm of prostatic urethra.
2. Collecting ducts are lined by columnar epithelium

(Q.25) Gall bladder epithelium is:

(a) Simple squamous
(b) Simple cuboidal with stereocilia
(c) Simple columnar
(d) Simple columnar with brush border

Answer: D

Exp: Simple columnar with brush border

1. Gall bladder is lined by columnar cells with irregular microvilli-brush border.
2. Small intestine is lined by microvilli arranged in regular fashion -striated border.
3. Brush border is also present in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of kidney.
4. Stereo-cilia are present in the hair cells of internal ear and epididymis.

(Q.26) Chief Cells are found in:

(a) Fundus
(b) Pit
(c) Neck
(d) Body

Answer: A

Exp: Fundus
1. Chief cells are usually basal (fundal-a) in position.
a. Chief (Peptic) cells are the source of digestive enzymes like pepsin and lipase.
b. These cells are cuboidal with round nucleus and contain lots of zymogen granules.
2. Parietal /Oxyntic cells produce hydrochloric acid and the intrinsic factor.
a. These cells are oval with centrally placed nucleus.
b. They are mainly located in the apical half of the body (d) of gland, reaching as far as the
neck (c).
3. The microstructure of the gastric mucosa in surface to depth sequence is:
a. Gastric pit (foveolus)
b. Isthmus (neck)
c. Body (gastric gland)
d. Base (fundus).
4. Surface mucus cells are distributed in the gastric pit - (b) region of the gastric mucosa.
5. Mucus neck cells are abundant in the neck region as the name is also suggesting.
6. Neuroendocrine cells are situated mainly in the deeper /basal parts of the glands, along
with the chief cells.

(Q.27) Metaplastic columnar epithelium is found in Barrett's Oesophagus. What type of

mucosa is normal for the distal esophagus:
(a) Keratinized, stratified, squamous epithelium
(b) Non-ciliated, columnar epithelium
(c) Non-keratinized, stratified, squamous epithelium
(d) Pseudostratified, columnar epithelium

Answer: C

Exp: Non-keratinized, stratified, squamous epithelium

1. Mucosa: non-keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium. At gastro-oesophageal junction,
merges with simple columnar epithelium of stomach
2. Submucosa has mucus glands tending to be concentrated at the superior and inferior ends
of the oesophagus
3. Muscle layer: In the upper third, skeletal muscle predominates. In the inferior two thirds,
smooth muscle is more common. There is a transition between the two sets of fibres

(Q.28) Simple squamous cells line:

(a) Cornea
(b) Tonsils
(c) Pleura
(d) Vagina

Answer: C

Exp: pleura
1. Pleura, peritoneum & pericardium come under the term mesothelium, the membrane which
lines the body cavities
2. Mesothelium is composed of squamous epithelium
3. The other sites mentioned are lined by stratified squamous non-keratinised epithelium
4. This special kind of epithelium is seen on any wet surface which is exposed to exterior
e.g., conjunctiva, oral cavity, lower anal canal, terminal urethra etc.

(Q.29) Which of the following about epithelium is true:

(a) Zona occludens is at basal portion
(b) Capillaries go through the gap junctions
(c) Basement membrane is formed by type 4 collagen
(d) In zona adherence actin filaments connect adjacent cells through microtubules

Answer: C

Exp: Basement membrane is formed by type 4 collagen

1. The dermo-epidermal junction is characterised on a light microscopic level by an uneven
interface. Fine connective tissue dermal papillae and coarser connective tissue dermal ridges
project upwards from the dermis.
2. The regular arrangement of the latter determines an individual's 'fingerprint'.
3. Stratum basale membrane consists of a lamina lucida superficial to a lamina densa of type
IV collagen. Various connective tissue fibres span the divide to the papillary dermis.
4. Antibodies to one element in the lamina lucid a which links basalkeratinocytes and lamina
densa collagen precipitates bullous pemphigoid
5. This autoimmune blistering disorder is characterized by large, tense, subepidermal blisters
on an erythematous base. It occurs due to damaged hemidesmosomal attachment to the basal
lamina.

(Q.30) In pemphigus vulgaris structure of desmosomes is damaged. The wrong

statement is:
(a) Autoantibodies disrupt macula adherens
(b) Cadherin disruption lead to severe blistering of skin
(c) Zona occludens & gap junctions are normal
(d) Epithelium separates from the basal lamina

Answer: D

Exp: Epithelium separates from the basal lamina

1. Epithelium separates from the basement membrane in Bullous pemphigoid.

(Q.31) In Acute inflammation, the mediator for migration and attachment of

neutrophils to the endothelium is:
(a) Adhesins
(b) Integrins
(c) Perforin
(d) Selectins

Answer: D

Exp: Selectins
1. Selectins are a family of cell-surface adhesion molecules of leukocytes and endothelial
cells.
2. During an inflammatory response stimuli such as histamine and thrombin cause endothelial
cells to mobilize P-selectin from stores inside the cell to the cell surface.
3. In addition, cytokines such as TNF-alpha stimulate the expression of E-selectin and
additional P-selectin a few hours later.
4. As the leukocyte rolls along the blood vessel wall, the distal lectin-like domain of the
selectin binds to carbohydrate groups presented on proteins (such as PSGL-1) on the
leukocyte, which slows the cell and allows it to leave the blood vessel and enter the site of
infection/inflammation.

(Q.32) Axillary skin glands producing viscous secretion are:

(a) Eccrine sweat glands
(b) Apocrine sweat glands
(c) Mucous gland
(d) Holocrine sebaceous glands

Answer: B

Exp: Apocrine sweat glands

1. Sweat glands are of 2 types : eccrine (most abundant) and apocrine (limited sites)
2. Eccrine glands produce watery secretions and are most common on the palm and sole.
Their ducts open directly on the surface of the skin.
3. Apocrine glands produce viscous secretions as they open in the duct of sebaceous glands
and very rarely on the surface directly.
4. Apocrine glands are found in the axilla (among eccrine variety), around nipple and genital
area, also in the vicinity of anal opening.
5. Ceruminous(wax ) glands of external ear are modified apocrine variety of sweat glands

(Q.33) Which of the following is least vascular structure in the Temporo-mandibular

joint:
(a) Articular cartilage
(b) Posterior part of Articular disc
(c) Middle part of articular disc
(d) Mandibular fossa

Answer: C

Exp: Middle part of the articular disc

1. Articular cartilage of atypical synovial joints like TM joint are not made up of hyaline but
of fibrocartilage variety.
2. Fibrocartilage is not entirely avascular and some capillary loops do enter it to make it
vascular.
3. Articular disc is also made up of fibrocartilage and is hence slightly vascular.
4. Middle of the articular disc is least vascular as blood vessels do not penetrate that deeply
and that is one of the reason it becomes perforated also.

(Q.34) Untrue about articular cartilage is:

(a) Covers the articular surfaces of all synovial joints
(b) Is of hyaline variety in all synovial joints
(c) No ossification with age
(d) Is devoid of nerves, vessels and perichondrium

Answer: B

Exp: Is of hyaline variety in all synovial joints

2. During an inflammatory response stimuli such as histamine and thrombin cause endothelial
cells to mobilize P-selectin from stores inside the cell to the cell surface.
3. In addition, cytokines such as TNF-alpha stimulate the expression of E-selectin and
additional P-selectin a few hours later.
4. As the leukocyte rolls along the blood vessel wall, the distal lectin-like domain of the
selectin binds to carbohydrate groups presented on proteins (such as PSGL-1) on the
leukocyte, which slows the cell and allows it to leave the blood vessel and enter the site of
infection/inflammation.

(Q.32) Axillary skin glands producing viscous secretion are:

(a) Eccrine sweat glands
(b) Apocrine sweat glands
(c) Mucous gland
(d) Holocrine sebaceous glands
Answer: B

Exp: Apocrine sweat glands

1. Sweat glands are of 2 types : eccrine (most abundant) and apocrine (limited sites)
2. Eccrine glands produce watery secretions and are most common on the palm and sole.
Their ducts open directly on the surface of the skin.
3. Apocrine glands produce viscous secretions as they open in the duct of sebaceous glands
and very rarely on the surface directly.
4. Apocrine glands are found in the axilla (among eccrine variety), around nipple and genital
area, also in the vicinity of anal opening.
5. Ceruminous(wax ) glands of external ear are modified apocrine variety of sweat glands

(Q.33) Which of the following is least vascular structure in the Temporo-mandibular

joint:
(a) Articular cartilage
(b) Posterior part of Articular disc
(c) Middle part of articular disc
(d) Mandibular fossa

Answer: C

Exp: Middle part of the articular disc

1. Articular cartilage of atypical synovial joints like TM joint are not made up of hyaline but
of fibrocartilage variety.
2. Fibrocartilage is not entirely avascular and some capillary loops do enter it to make it
vascular.
3. Articular disc is also made up of fibrocartilage and is hence slightly vascular.
4. Middle of the articular disc is least vascular as blood vessels do not penetrate that deeply
and that is one of the reason it becomes perforated also.

(Q.34) Untrue about articular cartilage is:

(a) Covers the articular surfaces of all synovial joints
(b) Is of hyaline variety in all synovial joints
(c) No ossification with age
(d) Is devoid of nerves, vessels and perichondrium

Answer: B

Exp: Is of hyaline variety in all synovial joints

1. In synovial joints (like temporomandibular and sterno-clavicular) the articular surfaces are
lined by fibro-cartilage instead of hyaline cartilage.
2. Hyaline cartilage loses the tendency to ossify with age as it takes the role of articular
cartilage
3. Hyaline cartilage also loses the perichondrium, as it becomes articular cartilage

(Q.35) True about hyaline cartilage:

(a) Hyaline cartilage covers the articular surface of Synovial joints
(b) Hyaline cartilage is present in all synovial joints
(c) Articular cartilage may undergo ossification with aging
(d) Articular cartilage limits the mobility of the joint

Answer: A

Exp: Hyaline cartilage covers the articular surface of Synovial joints

1. Some of the synovial joints are lined by fibrocartilage instead of hyaline e.g., TM joint
2. As such hyaline cartilage has high tendencies to ossify with age, but as it attains the
function of articular cartilage it loses this tendency.
3. Articular cartilage makes the articular surfaces very smooth, thus reducing the friction to
the minimum possible and improving the mobility manifold

(Q.36) Gastrointestinal tract is innervated with intrinsic innervation of Auerbach's and

Meissner's plexus of nerves. Their arrangement is as follows:
(a) Former as sub-serosal plexus and latter as myenteric plexus
(b) Former as myenteric plexus and latter as mucosal plexus
(c) Former as sub-mucosal plexus and latter as serosal plexus
(d) Former as myenteric plexus and latter as sub-mucosal plexus

Answer: D

Exp: Former as myenteric plexus and latter as sub-mucosal plexus

1. Part of the enteric nervous system, Auerbach's plexus (or myenteric plexus) exists between
the longitudinal and circular layers of muscularis externa in the gastrointestinal tract and
provides motor innervation to both layers and secretomotor innervation to the mucosa.
2. It arises from cells in the dorsal nucleus of vagus, the parasympathetic nucleus of origin for
the tenth cranial nerve (Vagus), located in the medullaoblongata. The fibers are carried by
both the anterior and posterior vagal nerves.
3. The nerves of the small intestines are derived from the plexuses of parasympathetic nerves
around the superior mesenteric artery.
4. From this source they run to the myenteric plexus (Auerbach's plexus) of nerves and
ganglia situated between the circular and longitudinal muscu larfibers from which the
nervous branches are distributed to the muscular coats of the intestine.
5. From this a secondary plexus, the plexus of the submucosa (Meissner's plexus, sub mucous
plexus) is derived, and is formed by branches which have perforated the circular muscular
fibers.
6. This plexus lies in the submucous coat of the intestine; it also contains ganglia from which
nerve fibers pass to the muscularis mucosae and to themucous membrane.
7. The nerve bundles of the submucous plexus are finer than those of the myenteric plexus.

(Q.37) Testosterone production is mainly contributed by:

(a) Leydig cells
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Seminiferous tubules
(d) Epididymis

Answer: A

Exp: Leydig cells

1. Between the seminiferous tubules are special cells called Leydig cells (or "interstitial
cells") where testosterone and other androgens are formed.
2. Testosterone is a steroid hormone from the androgen group.
3. Testosterone is primarily secreted in the testes of males and the ovaries of females
although small amounts are secreted by the adrenal glands.
4. It is the principal male sex hormone and an anabolic steroid.
5. In both males and females, it plays key roles in health and well-being. Examples include
enhanced libido, energy, immune function, and protection against osteoporosis.

(Q.38) Elastic cartilage is found in:

(a) Costal cartilage
(b) Nasal septum
(c) Intervertebral disc
(d) Auditory tube

Answer: D

Exp: Auditory tube

Elastic cartilage
1. Elastic cartilage (also called yellow cartilage) is present in the outer Ear(pinna), Eustachian
tube, and Epiglottis (E3) which contains fibers made of elastin.
2. It is also present at the tips of arytenoid cartilage, and corniculate, cuneiform cartilages in
larynx.
3. Elastic cartilage is present to keep the tubes permanently open. Elastic cartilage is similar
to hyaline cartilage but contains elastic bundles (elastin)scattered throughout the matrix

(Q.39) Which type of collagen is present in skin:

(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV

Answer: A

Exp: I
Adult dermal collagen is mainly of types I and III, in proportions of 80–85%and 15–20%
respectively. - - The coarser-fibred type I is predominant in the deeper, reticular dermis, and
the finer type III is found in the papillary dermis and around blood vessels.
- Type IV collagen is found in the basal lamina between epidermis and dermis, around
Schwann cells of peripheral nerves and endothelial cells of vessels.

(Q.40) Thyroid follicles are lined by:

(a) Simple squamous
(b) Simple cuboidal
(c) Simple columnar
(d) All of these

Answer: D

Exp: All of these

All three (simple cuboidal, simple squamous and simple columnar may normally be present
in thyroid depending on the state of activity )
Follicular cells are normally lined by cuboidal epithelium, but they become columnar when
stimulated and squamous when inactive.

(Q.41) Fertilized ovum reaches the uterus -

(a) 3-4 days
(b) 6-8 days
(c) 10-12 days
(d) 12-14 days

Answer: A

Exp: 3-4 days

Pre-Embryo Phase or Germinal Phase (First 3 Weeks)
This phase of development is divided into following stages:-
Ovulation
During each ovarian cycle a single mature ovum is released from the ovary. It usually occurs
14 days after the onset of menstruation.
Fertilization and implantation (0-7 days)
Fertilization refers to fusion of male and female gametes (i.e. spermatozoon and ovum). It
takes place in the middle segment (ampulla) of fallopian tube.
Before fertilization, the ovum and sperms reach the ampulla for fertilization. Fusion of
spermatocyte and ovum leads to formation of zygote. First week of development begins
immediately after fertilization and includes:-
Cleavage of zygote: Zygote (fertilized ovum) starts dividing immediately and large zygote is
subdivided into smaller daughter cells called blastomeres. Blastomeres are still surrounded by
Zonapellucida, Cleavage occurs infallopian tube (uterine tube).
Formation of morula: At about 16 cell stagetheblastomeres tightly align by the process of
compaction to form a compact ban of cells called morula(mulberry). This process of
compaction leads to segregation of cells into two groups (i) inner cells (inner cell mass), and
(ii) outer cells (outer cell mass).Morula enters uterine cavity 4 days after fertilization.
Formation of blastocyst: As the morula enters the uterine cavity, uterine fluid diffuse through
zona pellucida and fills small intercellular gaps between blastomeres, and morula is
converted to blastocyst Blastocyst consists of:-
Zonapellucida: Outer covering.
Embryoblast: A group of centrally located cells of inner cell mass and later give rise to
tissues of embryo proper.
Trophoblast: A thin outer layer of cells formed from outer cells mass and later give rise extra
embryonic tissues.
Blastocoel: Cavity of blastocyst:
The region of blastocyst containing embryoblast is known as embryonic pole and the
opposite pole, theabembryonic pole. The trophoblasts overlying the embryoblast at
embryonic pole is called polar trophoblast and that occupying the rest of wall called mural
trophoblast. Between 5-6 days after fertilization, blastocyst hatches from zonapellucida, and
this naked blastocyst is ready for implantation.
Implantation: About 6-7 days after fertilization the blastocyst attaches to the endometrium, a
process called as implantation or embedding. Normal site of implantation is posterior wall of
the body of uterus close to fundus (at junction of fundus with body).
(Q.42) Implantation occurs at the stage of -
(a) Zygote
(b) Morula
(c) Blastocyst
(d) Primary villi

Answer: C

Exp: Blastocyst
Pre-Embryo Phase or Germinal Phase (First 3 Weeks)
This phase of development is divided into following stages:-
1. Ovulation
During each ovarian cycle a single mature ovum is released from the ovary. It usually occurs
14 days after the onset of menstruation.
1. Fertilization and implantation (0-7 days)
Fertilization refers to fusion of male and female gametes (i.e. spermatozoon and ovum). It
takes place in the middle segment (ampulla) of fallopian tube.
Before fertilization, the ovum and sperms reach the ampulla for fertilization. Fusion of
spermatocyte and ovum leads to formation of zygote. First week of development begins
immediately after fertilization and includes:-
a. Cleavage of zygote: Zygote (fertilized ovum) starts dividing immediately and large zygote
is subdivided into smaller daughter cells called blastomeres. Blastomeres are still surrounded
by Zonapellucida, Cleavage occurs in fallopian tube (uterine tube).
b. Formation of morula: At about 16 cell stagetheblastomeres tightly align by the process of
compaction to form a compact ban of cells called morula(mulberry). This process of
compaction leads to segregation of cells into two groups (i) inner cells (inner cell mass), and
(ii) outer cells (outer cell mass).Morula enters uterine cavity 4 days after fertilization.
c. Formation of blastocyst: As the morula enters the uterine cavity, uterine fluid diffuse
through zona pellucida and fills s mall intercellular gaps between blastomeres, and morula is
converted to blastocyst Blastocyst consists of:-
i. Zonapellucida: Outer covering.
ii. Embryoblast: A group of centrally located cells of inner cell mass and later give rise to
tissues of embryo proper.
iii. Trophoblast: A thin outer layer of cells formed from outer cells mass and later give rise
extra embryonic tissues.
iv. Blastocoel : Cavity of blastocyst:
The region of blastocyst containing embryoblast is known as embryonic pole and the
opposite pole, the abembryonic pole. The trophoblasts overlying the embryoblast at
embryonic pole is called polar trophoblast and that occupying the rest of wall called mural
trophoblast. Between 5-6 days after fertilization, blastocyst hatches from zonapellucida, and
this naked blastocyst is ready for implantation.
d. Implantation: About 6-7 days after fertilization the blastocyst attaches to the endometrium,
a process called as implantation or embedding. Normal site of implantation is posterior wall
of the body of uterus close to fundus (at junction of fundus with body).
(Q.43) Which of the following is correct regarding fertilization and implantation -
(a) Fertilisation usually occurs in the uterus
(b) Implantation occurs 24 hours after fertilization
(c) The tubes are lined by ciliated epithelium
(d) The cilia beat towards fimbriae

Answer: C

Exp: The tubes are lined by ciliated epithelium

Fertilization and implantation (0-7 days)
Fertilization refers to fusion of male and female gametes (i.e. spermatozoon and ovum). It
takes place in the middle segment (ampulla) of fallopian tube.
Before fertilization, the ovum and sperms reach the ampulla for fertilization. Fusion of
spermatocyte and ovum leads to formation of zygote. First week of development begins
immediately after fertilization and includes:-
a. Cleavage of zygote: Zygote (fertilized ovum) starts dividing immediately and large zygote
is subdivided into smaller daughter cells called blastomeres.
Blastomeres are still surrounded by Zonapellucida, Cleavage occurs in fallopian tube (uterine
tube).
b. Formation of morula: At about 16 cell stagetheblastomeres tightly align by the process of
compaction to form a compact ban of cells called morula(mulberry). This process of
compaction leads to segregation of cells into two groups (i) inner cells (inner cell mass), and
(ii) outer cells (outer cell mass).Morula enters uterine cavity 4 days after fertilization.
c. Formation of blastocyst: As the morula enters the uterine cavity, uterine fluid diffuse
through zona pellucida and fills small intercellular gaps between blastomeres, and morula is
converted to blastocyst Blastocyst consists of :-
i. Zonapellucida: Outer covering.
ii. Embryoblast: A group of centrally located cells of inner cell mass and later give rise to
tissues of embryo proper.
iii. Trophoblast: A thin outer layer of cells formed from outer cells mass and later give rise
extra embryonic tissues.
iv. Blastocoel: Cavity of blastocyst:
The region of blastocyst containing embryoblast is known as embryonic pole and the
opposite pole, theabembryonic pole. The trophoblasts overlying the embryoblast at
embryonic pole is called polar trophoblast and that occupying the rest of wall called mural
trophoblast. Between 5-6 days after fertilization, blastocyst hatches from zona pellucida, and
this naked blastocyst is ready for implantation.
d. Implantation: About 6-7 days after fertilization the blastocyst attaches to the endometrium,
a process called as implantation or embedding. Normal site of implantation is posterior wall
of the body of uterus close to fundus (at junction of fundus with body).
(Q.44) Indicator of start of gastrulation is the formation of -
(a) Neural groove
(b) Neural pit
(c) Primitive streak
(d) Formation of notochord

Answer: C

Exp: Primitive streak

Stage of bilaminar germ disc (2nd week of development)
Gastrulation
• Gastrulation is the morphogenic process of formation of three germ layers, i.e. ectoderm,
mesoderm and endoderm. The embryo at this stage is call edgastrula.
• The process of gastrulation begins with formation of primitive streak. Primitive streak is
formed by proliferation of some of epiblast cellsnearthecaudal endofbilaminar germ disc
(embryonic disc).
• The epiblast through the process of gastrulation is the source of all three germ layers in
embryo:-
Some cells of epiblast after invagination displace the hypoblast and for membryonic
endoderm. Endoderm is the first germ layer to be formed.
Some epiblast cells after invagination come to lie between the epiblast and hypoblast, and
form mesoderm.
Cells remaining in the epiblast than form ectoderm.

(Q.45) Placenta develops from -

(a) Decidua capsularis and Chorion frondosum
(b) Decidua capsularis and Decidua basalis
(c) Decidua basalis and Chorion frondosum
(d) Decidua parietalis and Chorion frondosum

Answer: C

Exp: Decidua basalis and Chorion frondosum

Placenta
Placenta is a temporary organ formed during pregnancy. It forms an important circulatory
link between mother and fetus. The placenta consists of two major portions:-
Maternal part of placenta (derived from decidua).
Fetal part of placenta (derived from chorion).
Decidua refers to functional layer of endometrium after implantation of the blastocyst stage
of fertilized ovum (gravid endometrium). It is divisible into three parts:-
Decidua basalis (Decidual plate) is the part of endometrium related to embryonic pole of
conceptusandforms the maternal part of placenta.
Decidua capsularis is the superficial part of decidua covering abembryonicpole of conceptus.
Decidua parietalis is the part of decidua lining the rest of uterine cavity.
Chorion is the triple layered membrane made up of somatopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm,
cytotrophoblast andsyncytiotrophoblast. It is divisible into 2 parts:-
Chorionic frondosum developing at the embryonic pole contributing to placenta.
Chorionic laeve developing at abembryonic pole and related to deciduacapsularis.
Structure of placenta
Placental tissues are arranged as:-
Chorionic plate (on fetal side): It is covered by amnion and is made up of (i) Somatopleuric
layer of extraembryonic mesoderm, (ii) Cytotrophoblast and (iii) Syncytiotrophoblast.
Basal plate (on maternal side) : It is made up of following layers from fetal tomaternal aspect
(i) syncytiotrophoblast (forming outer layer of intervillous space), (ii) Rohr's fibrinoidstria,
(iii) cytotrophoblastic shell, (iv) Nitbuch'sfibrinoidstria, and (v) decidua basalis.
Chorionic villi: These are three types :-
Primary chorionic villi develop when a column of cytotrophoblast cells growth rough
syncytiotrophoblast from chorion towards decidua.
Secondary chorionic villi develop when extraembryonic mesoderm extends into the core of
primary villi. Tertiary chorionic villi develop when fetal blood vessels develop in the
extraembryonic mesodermal core.
Intervillous space: After development of chorionic villi, the lacunar spaces
ofsyncytiotrophoblast are transformed into inter villous spaces.
Placental membrane
Placental membrane is a composite structure separating maternal and fetal blood and permits
fetomaternal exchange.
Placental membrane is made up of following layers (from fetal to maternalside):-
Endothelium of fetal capillaries and its basement membrane.
Surrounding Mesenchymal tissue (connective tissue).
Cytotrophoblast (Langerhans slayer).
Syncytiotrophoblast
(Q.46) Amnion is present on -
(a) Decidua basalis
(b) Fetal surface
(c) Maternal surface
(d) All of the above

Answer: A

Exp: Decidua basalis

Fetal membranes
Amnion
Amnion is formed early in 2nd week by delamination from thecytotrophoblast and closes a
cavity called amniotic cavity. Amnion iscontinuous with epiblast layer of bilaminar germ
disc. After folding of theembryo the amniotic cavity enlarges and comes to surround the
embryo on allsides and the amnion also forms covering of umbilical cord. Amnion also
covers the fetal surface (chorionic plate) of placenta.
Chorion
Chorion is formed in the end of 2nd week by fusion of extraembryonic mesoderm
(somatopleuric layer) with overlying cytotrophoblast. It initiallyen closes the embryo proper
and all other extraembryonic membranes. Laterextraembryonic coelom expands and forms a
large cavity called chorioniccavity. Chorion forms the fetal surface of placenta.
Amniochorionic membrane
Amniochorionic membrane is formed by fusion of amnion with chorion in10th week of
gestation. At this stage fetus in the amniotic membrane is bounded by amnio chorionic
membrane bounded by decidua capsularis.
Amnio-chorio-decidual membrane
Further expansion of amniotic cavity leads to obliteration of uterine cavity by fusion of
decidua capsularis with decidua parietalis at 4th month of gestation.From this stage onwards
the fetus in amniotic cavity is bounded by Amnio-chorio-decidual membrane.

(Q.47) Jelly formed around the heart tube during early development, contributes to the
formation of:
(a) Pericardium
(b) Mesocardium
(c) Myocardium
(d) Endocardium

Answer: C

Exp: Myocardium
Development of Heart
Heart develops from splanchnic mesoderm forming the cardiogenic area. Primordial heart
develops as two endothelial heart tubes which fuse in cranio-caudal direction to form a single
tubular heart. Endothelial heart tube issurrounded by a layer of mesoderm known as my o-
epicardial mantle, which gives rise to myocardium and visceral pericardium (epicardium).
Myoepicardium then secretes a thick layer of extracellular matrix called cardiac jelly that
separates it from tubular heart. Thus developing heart consistsofthree layers:
i. endocardium,
ii. myocardium
iii. epicardium (serous pericardium).

(Q.48) Unequal division of the conus cordis resulting from anterior displacement of the
conotruncal septum gives rise to -
(a) Persistent truncus arteriosus
(b) Coarctation of aorta
(c) Tetralogy of Fallot
(d) Transposition of great vessels

Answer: C

Exp: Tetralogy of Fallot

Tubular heart has following components, cranio-caudally:
Bulbus cordis: It is the cranial most part and is subdivided into:-
Truncus arteriosus (distal part): It is the most cephalic part of endothelial heart tube (tubular
heart). It later forms ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk. Distal end of truncus arteriosus
dilates to form aortic sac which divides into right and left limbs. Each limb is connected with
the corresponding dorsal aorta through six aortic arches.
Conus cordis (mid portion): Later forms the outflow tract of both ventricles.
Proximal part: It forms the trabeculated part of right ventricle.
Primitive ventricle: Along with conus cordis it forms the right and left ventricles.
Primitive atrium: Primitive atrium will later form right and left atria. Primitiveatrium is
connected to primitive
Ventricle by atrioventricular canal
Sinus venosus: It is the caudal most part of tubular heart. At its lower end it presents right and
left horns. Each horn receives blood from following threeveins:
Vitelline vein from yolk sac. Right vitelline vein forms terminal part of interior vena cava.
b. Umbilical vein from placenta.
c. Common cardinal vein from body wall. Right common cardinal vein forms superior vena
cava.
Truncus arteriosus is the arterial end and sinus venosus is venous end of heart tube (tubular
heart).

(Q.49) Myelination is complete by which age -

(a) 1 year
(b) 6 months
(c) 2 years
(d) 3 months

Answer: C

Exp: 2 years
Nervous system develops from ectoderm (neuroectoderm). Nervous system develops from
neural tube which in turn develops by process of neurulation, i.e. formation of neural plate
and in folding into neural tube. Structures formed from neural tube are:-

From cranial part (enlarged cephalic part)

Gives rise to brain. Developmental parts are:
Forebrain (Prosencephalon)
Telencephalon: Cerebral hemisphere and lateral ventricle.
Diencephalon: Optic cup and stalk (gives rise to retina, pituitary, thalamus, hypothalamus,
Epithalamus, pineal gland, and third ventricle.
Midbrain (mesencephalon)
Cerebral aqueduct.
Hindbrain (Rhombencephalon)
Metencephalon: Cerebellum, pons
Myelencephalon: Medulla oblongata
From caudal part
Gives rise to spinal cord.
Layers in wall of neural tube
The wall of neural tube at first has a single layer of cells. The cells multiply and form three
layers: (i) ependymal, (ii) mantle and (iii) marginal. Neurons develop in mantle layer. The
mantle layer divides into ventral part (basallamina or basal plate) and dorsal part (alar lamina
or alar plate). This division of mental layer is of considerable functional importance. The
basal lamina (basal plate) develops into structures which are motor in function (e.g. motoror
efferent nuclei) and the alar lamina (alar plate) into those that are sensory(e.g. sensory or
afferent nuclei).

In spinal cord the alar lamina forms the posterior grey column, and the basal lamina forms the
ventral grey column. The marginal layer becomes white matter.
Cerebellum is derived from alar lamina of the metencephalon
(Q.50) GALT (Gut Associated Lymphoid tissue) is present in
(a) Submucosa
(b) Lamina propria
(c) Muscularis mucosa
(d) Adventitia/Serosa

Answer: B

Exp: Lamina propria

Gut Associated Lymphoid Tissue (GALT) is present in the Lamina propria (b)of Mucosa.
1. GALT serves as immunological barrier throughout the length of GI tract.
2. Peyer’s patches of ileum are under GALT and are mainly present in the lamina propria but
may also extend into the Submucosa (a).
3. GALT & BALT (Bronchus Associated Lymphoid Tissue) come under acommon term –
MALT (Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue).
4. -Lymphocytes are educated to recognize & destroy specific antigens in the MALT.
5. -MALT components are observed at other sites also like Mucosa of female reproductive
tract.
6. Gut tube has 4 layers:
a. Mucosa
b. Submucosa
c. Muscularis externa
d. Adventitia/Serosa
7. Lamina propria is a part of Mucosa and contains glands, blood vessels and components of
immune system-GALT.
8. Muscularis mucosa (c) is also a part of Mucosa and mainly composed of smooth muscles.
Its contraction moves the mucosa to facilitate secretion &absorption.
9. Submucosa (a) consists of mainly dense irregular connective tissue. It has neurovascular
branches and some lymphatics also.
10. -The Meissner’s plexus is mainly a collection of parasympathetic neurons observed in
submucosa only.
11. Adventitia/Serosa (d) are the outermost covering of GI tube. Adventitia is chiefly made
up of connective tissue, whereas, serosa has the serous membrane made up of squamous
epithelium.