IM341 – Business Systems Analysis

Sample Test 1

Chapters 1, 2, 3, 4,

1. The process of developing and maintaining an information system best describes:

a. joint application design.
b. prototyping.
c. information systems analysis and design.
d. information technology infrastructure development.
e. systems implementation.

2. The organizational role most responsible for the analysis and design of information
systems best describes:
a. business manager.
b. systems analyst.
c. chief information officer.
d. database analyst.
e. network administrator.

3. Software designed to support the payroll function would best be classified as:

a. application software.
b. system software.
c. design software.
d. analysis software.
e. a decision support system.

4. An information system includes each of the following except:

a. application software.
b. culture.
c. documentation and training materials.
d. specific job roles associated with the overall system.
e. controls.
5. Your primary responsibility as a systems analyst concerns:

a. people.
b. hardware.
c. application software development.
d. controls.
e. documentation and training materials.

6. A sequence of step-by-step approaches that help develop the information system best
describes:

a. techniques.
b. tools.
c. methodologies.
d. data flows.
e. flow charts.

7. The particular processes that an analyst will follow to help ensure that his work is
complete, well-done, and understood by project team members best defines:

a. techniques.
b. tools.
c. methodologies.
d. data flows.
e. flow charts.

8. A group of interrelated procedures used for a business function, with an identifiable

boundary, working together for some purpose, best defines:

a. environment.
b. system component.
c. constraint.
d. interface.
e. system.
 9. Which of the following is not a system characteristic?

a. Interface
b. Boundary
c. Input
d. Scope
e. Output

10. Dependence of one part of the system on one or more other system parts best
describes:

a. interrelated components.
b. boundary.
c. component.
d. dependency.
e. cohesion.

11. The line that marks the inside and outside of the system that sets off the system from
its environment, best defines:

a. delineation mark.
b. boundary.
c. scope.
d. interface.
e. analysis area.

12. The overall goal or function of a system best defines:

a. purpose.
b. goal.
c. objective.
d. scope.
e. mission.
13. The environment of a state university would not include:

a. prospective students.
b. the legislature.
c. the president’s office.
d. the news media.
e. a foundation.

14. The point of contact where a system meets its environment or where subsystems meet
each other best describes:

a. boundary points.
b. interfaces.
c. contact points.
d. merge points.
e. forks.

15. The process of breaking the description of a system down into small components best
defines:

a. coupling.
b. cohesion.
c. decomposition.
d. modularity.
e. scaling.

16. Which of the following is not a function of decomposition?

a. Permit different parts of the system to be built at the same time by the same
person
b. Allow attention to be concentrated on the part of the system pertinent to a
particular audience, without confusing people with details irrelevant to their
interests
c. Facilitate the focusing of attention on one area (subsystem) at a time without
interference from other parts
d. Break a system into smaller, more manageable and understandable subsystems
e. Build different parts of the system at independent times and have the help of
different analysts
17. Which of the following is a direct result of decomposition?

a. Coupling
b. Open systems
c. Cohesion
d. Modularity
e. Interfaces

18. The extent to which subsystems depend on each other refers to:

a. modularity.
b. coupling.
c. decomposition.
d. dependence.
e. cohesion.

19. The extent to which a system or subsystem performs a single function defines:

a. modularity.
b. coupling.
c. decomposition.
d. dependence.
e. cohesion.

20. Today, systems development focuses on:

a. modularity.
b. coupling.
c. decomposition.
d. systems integration.
e. systems implementation.

21. Which of the following allows hardware and software from different vendors to work
together in an application?

a. Systems coupling
b. Systems integration
c. Systems decomposition
d. Participatory design
e. Joint application design
22. Large, complex systems that consist of a series of independent system modules best
describes:

a. intranets.
b. outernets.
c. enterprise-wide systems.
d. interorganizational systems.
e. intraorganizational systems.

23. Which of the following is a key system component?

a. Scope
b. Boundary
c. Interface
d. Processing logic
e. Environment

24. Raw facts that describe people, objects, and events in an organization best defines:

a. data.
b. data flows.
c. information.
d. processing logic.
e. processes.

25. Data that have been processed and presented in a form suitable for human
interpretation, often with the purpose of revealing trends or patterns, best defines:

a. data structure.
b. data.
c. information.
d. data flows.
e. processing logic.
26. The steps by which data are transformed or moved and a description of the events
that trigger these steps best defines:

a. processing logic.
b. data flow.
c. data logic.
d. flow conversion.
e. data steps.

27. A clerk pressing a key on a credit card scanner to compute a new credit balance is
best depicted as:

a. a data flow.
b. processing logic.
c. information.
d. subordinate data.
e. flow conversion.

28. A strategy of information systems development that focuses on the ideal organization
of data rather than on where and how they are used best defines the:

a. process-oriented approach.
b. data-organization approach.
c. client/server approach.
d. data-oriented approach.
e. information-oriented approach.

29. Which of the following is not a true statement concerning the differences between the
process-oriented and data-oriented approaches to systems development?

a. The process-oriented approach has limited design stability.

b. Much uncontrolled data duplication exists with the data-oriented approach.
c. The data-oriented approach designs data files for the enterprise.
d. The process-oriented approach designs data files for each individual application.
e. The data-oriented approach is more enduring because the data needs of an
organization do not change rapidly.
30. Which of the following describes the kinds of data needed in systems and the
business relationships among data?

a. Flowchart
b. Decision table
c. Decision tree
d. Data model
e. Process model

31. A shared collection of logically related data designed to meet the information needs
of multiple users in an organization best describes:

a. an application.
b. a database.
c. information.
d. a data group.
e. an object.

32. Designing databases around subjects results in:

a. coupling.
b. application independence.
c. a participatory design.
d. cohesion.
e. modularity.

33. When developing information systems, an organization could:

a. use an in-house staff to develop the system.

b. buy the system off-the-shelf.
c. implement an enterprise-wide system.
d. hire a consulting company.
e. do all of the above.
34. Non-information systems professionals in an organization are called:

a. end users.
b. skilled workers.
c. information workers.
d. systems analysts.
e. managers.

35. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a successful team?

a. Competitiveness among team members

b. Clear and complete communication
c. Tolerance of diversity, uncertainty, and ambiguity
d. Trust
e. A reward structure that promotes shared responsibility and accountability

36. Analytical skills:

a. help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
b. help you understand the potential and the limitations of information technology.
c. help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
d. enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify
opportunities and problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
e. promote an understanding of the different types of information systems.

37. Technical skills:

a. help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
b. help you understand the potential and the limitations of information technology.
c. help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
d. enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify
opportunities and problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
e. promote an understanding of the different types of information systems.
38. Management skills:

a. help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
b. help you understand the potential and the limitations of information technology.
c. help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
d. enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify
opportunities and problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
e. promote an understanding of the different types of information systems.

39. Interpersonal skills:

a. help you work with end users, as well as other analysts and programmers.
b. help you understand the potential and the limitations of information technology.
c. help you manage projects, resources, risk, and change.
d. enable you to understand the organization and its functions, to identify
opportunities and problems, and to analyze and solve problems.
e. promote an understanding of the different types of information systems.

40. Which of the following is not one of the four classes of information systems?

a. Transaction processing systems

b. Management information systems
c. Expert systems
d. Decision support systems
e. Production systems

41. Transaction processing systems:

a. automate the handling of data about business activities.

b. are designed to help organizational decision makers make decisions.
c. replicate the decision-making process rather than manipulate information.
d. take relatively raw data that have been previously captured and converts them
into a meaningful aggregated form that managers need to conduct their
responsibilities.
e. provide general recommendations on how to fix, enhance, or replace a current
system.
42. Management information systems:

a. automate the handling of data about business activities.

b. are designed to help organizational decision makers make decisions.
c. replicate the decision-making process rather than manipulate information.
d. take relatively raw data that have been previously captured and converts them
into a meaningful aggregated form that managers need to conduct their
responsibilities.
e. provide general recommendations on how to fix, enhance, or replace a current
system.

43. Decision support systems:

a. automate the handling of data about business activities.

b. are designed to help organizational decision makers make decisions.
c. replicate the decision-making process rather than manipulate information.
d. take relatively raw data that have been previously captured and converts them
into a meaningful aggregated form that managers need to conduct their
responsibilities.
e. provide general recommendations on how to fix, enhance, or replace a current
system.

44. The need for a new or enhanced system is identified during:

a. systems planning and selection.

b. systems coding.
c. systems analysis.
d. systems design.
e. systems implementation and operation.

45. In which SDLC phase will the analyst study the organization’s current procedures
and the information systems used to perform tasks?

a. Systems planning and selection

b. Systems observation
c. Systems analysis
d. Systems design
e. Systems implementation and operation
46. In which phase will the systems analyst convert the description of the recommended
alternative solution into logical and then physical system specifications?

a. systems planning and selection

b. systems conversion
c. systems analysis
d. systems design
e. systems implementation and operation

47. A description of the alternative solution recommended by the analysis team is

provided during the:

a. systems planning and selection phase.

b. systems analysis phase.
c. systems design phase.
d. systems alternative selection phase.
e. systems implementation and operation phase.

48. In which SDLC phase is the information system coded, tested, and installed in the
organization?

a. Systems planning and selection

b. Systems replacement
c. Systems analysis
d. Systems design
e. Systems implementation and operation

49. Priorities for systems and projects are deliverables for the:

a. systems planning and selection phase.

b. systems analysis phase.
c. systems design phase.
d. systems priority phase.
e. systems implementation and operation phase.
50. A systems development approach that originated in northern Europe, in which users
and the improvement in their work lives are the central focus, best defines:

a. Joint Application Design.

b. Participatory Design.
c. Rapid Application Development.
d. end user development.
e. prototyping.

51. A planned undertaking of related activities to reach an objective that has a beginning and an
end best defines:

a. task development.
b. activity plan.
c. project.
d. task schedule.
e. project mission.

52. An individual with a diverse set of skills--management, leadership, technical, conflict

management, and customer relationship--who is responsible for initiating, planning,
executing, and closing down a project best defines:

a. chief information officer.

b. consultant.
c. project scheduler.
d. project manager.
e. end user.

53. Arguably, the most instrumental person to the successful completion of any project is the:

a. project manager.
b. chief information officer.
c. department manager.
d. staff consultant.
e. end user.

54. Influencing the activities of others toward the attainment of a common goal through the use
of intelligence, personality, and abilities refers to which of the following project manager
activities?

a. Conflict management
b. Management
c. Leadership
d. Team management
e. Customer relations
55. Managing conflict within a project team to assure that conflict is not too high or too low best
defines which of the following project manager activities?

a. Conflict management
b. Leadership
c. Team management
d. Problem solving
e. Risk management

56. Identifying, assessing, and managing the risks and day-to-day changes that occur during a
project best defines which of the following project manager activities?

a. Conflict management
b. Risk and change management
c. Team management
d. Customer relations
e. Technical problem solving

57. Skills that include interpreting system requests and specifications, site preparation and user
training, and contact point for customers best represent:

a. customer relations.
b. conflict management.
c. leadership.
d. team management.
e. management.

58. Skills that include defining and sequencing activities, communicating expectations, assigning
resources to activities, and monitoring outcomes best represent:

a. technical problem solving.

b. management.
c. leadership.
d. team management.
e. customer relations.

59. Which of the following is not a project management phase?

a. Closing down the project

b. Planning the project
c. Executing the project
d. Initiating a project
e. Implementing the project
60. A controlled process of initiating, planning, executing, and closing down a project best
defines:

a. systems development.
b. project management.
c. project development.
d. systems management.
e. systems development technique.

61. The phase of the project management process in which activities are performed to assess
the size, scope, and complexity of the project and to establish procedures to support later
project activities best defines:

a. project initiation.
b. scope development.
c. project planning.
d. project assessment.
e. project design.

62. Which of the following project management activities is associated with project initiation?

a. Establishing a relationship with the customer

b. Describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility
c. Estimating resources and creating a detailed resource plan
d. Identifying and assessing risks
e. Closing down the project

63. Defining the necessary activities required to organize the initiation team while they are
working to define the scope of the project is the focus of which of the following activities?

a. Establishing the project initiation team

b. Establishing management procedures
c. Establishing the project initiation plan
d. Establishing the project management environment and project workbook
e. Dividing the project into manageable tasks

64. An online or hard-copy repository for all project correspondence, inputs, outputs,
deliverables, procedures, and standards that is used for performing project audits, orientation
of new team members, communicating with management and customers, identifying future
projects, and performing post project reviews is called:

a. a project workbook.
b. a schedule book.
c. a project planner.
d. project management software.
e. an electronic calendar.
65. Which of the following is not a true statement regarding project planning?

a. Project planning often requires that you make numerous assumptions about resource
availability and potential problems.
b. Project planning is the second phase of the project management process.
c. Project planning focuses on defining clear, discrete activities and the work needed to
complete each activity within a single project.
d. The repetitive nature of the project management process requires that plans be
constantly monitored throughout the project and periodically updated.
e. Monitoring project progress against the baseline project plan is the first project planning
activity.

66. Developing an understanding of the content and complexity of the project is the purpose of
the:

a. describing the project scope, alternatives, and feasibility activity of the project planning
phase.
b. determining project standards and procedures activity of the project planning phase.
c. developing a Statement of Work activity of the project planning phase.
d. setting a Baseline Project Plan activity of the project planning phase.
e. closing down the project activity of the project planning phase.

67. Which of the following is not a project planning activity?

a. Setting a Baseline Project Plan

b. Identifying and assessing risk
c. Determining project standards and procedures
d. Establishing management procedures
e. Developing a Statement of Work

68. The process of dividing the project into manageable tasks and logically ordering them to
ensure a smooth evolution between tasks defines:

a. task division.
b. work breakdown structure.
c. work structuring.
d. project division.
e. critical path scheduling.

69. Which of the following is not a task characteristic?

a. A task should have well-accepted predecessor and successor steps.

b. A task should have a single and identifiable deliverable.
c. A task should have a known method or technique.
d. A task should be completed by only one person.
e. A task is measurable so that percent completed can be determined.
70. Which of the following is a true statement regarding project time estimates?

a. Project time estimates for task completion and overall system quality are significantly
influenced by the assignment of people to tasks.
b. Resource estimates should not be revised based upon the skills of the actual person
assigned to a particular activity.
c. Staff learning can be enhanced by assigning individuals to tasks which are “over their
heads.”
d. Project time estimates are always on target.
e. Hardware and software are the most important, and expensive, part of project resource
planning.

71. During which of the following project planning activities do you use the information regarding
tasks and resource availability to assign time estimates to each activity in the work
breakdown structure?

a. Dividing the project into manageable tasks

b. Develop a preliminary schedule
c. Describing project scope, alternatives, and feasibility
d. Developing a statement of work
e. Establishing the project initiation team

72. Indicating when and how written and oral reports will be provided by the team, how team
members will coordinate work, what messages will be sent to announce the project to
interested parties, and what kinds of information will be shared with vendors and external
contractors involved with the project describes:

a. determining project standards and procedures.

b. developing a statement of work.
c. developing a communication plan.
d. setting a baseline project plan.
e. establishing the project initiation team.

73. Risks can arise from:

a. the use of new technology.

b. resistance to change.
c. availability of critical resources.
d. member inexperience with technology or the business area.
e. all of the above.

74. The third phase of the project management process in which the plans created in the prior
phases are put into action is:

a. project planning.
b. project execution.
c. project development.
d. project close down.
e. project initiation.
75. Which of the following occurs during project execution?

a. Monitoring project progress against the Baseline Project Plan

b. Conducting post project reviews
c. Establishing the project initiation plan
d. Establishing the project workbook
e. Establishing the communication plan

76. Changes to the Baseline Project Plan might be motivated by:

a. a slipped completion date of an activity.

b. a bungled activity that must be redone.
c. the identification of a new activity that becomes evident later in the project.
d. an unforeseen change in personnel due to sickness, resignation, or termination.
e. all of the above.

77. The responsibility for keeping all team members informed of the project status best
describes:

a. monitoring project progress against the Baseline Project Plan.

b. communicating the project status.
c. executing the baseline plan.
d. updating project status.
e. establishing the project initiation plan.

78. Which of the following states correctly the formality and use of a project workbook?

a. In terms of formality, the project workbook would be rated low to medium. In terms of
use, the project workbook would be used to inform and serve as a permanent record.
b. In terms of formality, the project workbook would be rated high. In terms of use, the
project workbook would be used to resolve issues.
c. In terms of formality, the project workbook would be rated high. In terms of use, the
project workbook would be used to inform and serve as a permanent record.
d. In terms of formality, the project workbook would be rated low. In terms of use, the
project workbook would be used to resolve issues.
e. In terms of formality, the project workbook would be rated medium to high. In terms of
use, the project workbook would be used to resolve issues.

79. Which of the following states correctly the formality and use of hallway discussions?

a. In terms of formality, hallway discussions would be rated medium. In terms of use,

hallway discussions would be used to inform.
b. In terms of formality, hallway discussions would be rated high. In terms of use, hallway
discussions would be used to inform.
c. In terms of formality, hallway discussions would be rated low. In terms of use, hallway
discussions would be used to inform and resolve issues.
d. In terms of formality, hallway discussions would be rated high. In terms of use, hallway
discussions would serve as a permanent record.
e. In terms of formality, hallway discussions would be rated medium to high. In terms of
use, hallway discussions would be used to resolve issues.
80. The final phase of the project management process that focuses on bringing a project to an
end is called:

a. project evaluation.
b. project closedown.
c. project initiation and planning.
d. project review.
e. project implementation.

81. Ensuring that all contractual terms of the project have been met is done during:

a. conducting post project reviews.

b. closing the customer contract.
c. setting a baseline project plan.
d. communicating the project status.
e. project implementation.

82. Determining the strengths and weaknesses of project deliverables, the processes used to
create them, and the project management process is done during:

a. conducting post project reviews.

b. closing the customer contract.
c. closing down the project.
d. communicating the project status.
e. establishing the communication plan.

83. Any person, group of people, piece of equipment, or material used in accomplishing an
activity is referred to as a(n):

a. entity.
b. resource.
c. identifier.
d. agent.
e. expense.

84. A scheduling technique where the order and duration of the sequence of activities directly
affect the completion date of a project refers to:

a. sequencing strategy.
b. Gantt scheduling.
c. critical path scheduling.
d. activity scheduling.
e. task management.
85. A critical path refers to:

a. a sequence of task activities whose order and durations indirectly affect the completion
date of a project.
b. a sequence of task activities whose order and durations directly affect the completion
date of a project.
c. a sequence of task activities whose order must be performed in parallel.
d. a sequence of task activities whose duration cannot last more than 40 percent of the time
allotted to the project.
e. None of the above.

86. A technique that uses optimistic, pessimistic, and realistic time to calculate the expected time
for a particular task best defines:

a. Gantt.
b. UML.
c. CASE.
d. flowcharting.
e. PERT.

87. Optimistic time refers to:

a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed.

b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed.
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for
completion.
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed.
e. the average period of time for an activity to be completed.

88. Pessimistic time refers to:

a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed.

b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed.
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for
completion.
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed.
e. the average period of time for an activity to be completed.

89. Realistic time refers to:

a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed.

b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed.
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for
completion.
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed.
e. the average period of time for an activity to be completed.
90. What would be the estimated time for completion if the time estimates for report design are
as follows: optimistic = 3 weeks; pessimistic = 9 weeks; realistic = 6 weeks?

a. 3 weeks
b. 6 weeks
c. 18 weeks
d. 5 weeks
e. 36 weeks

91. What would be the estimated time for completion if time estimates for programming are as
follows: optimistic = 4 weeks; pessimistic = 6 weeks; realistic = 5 weeks?

a. 5 weeks
b. 6 weeks
c. 15 weeks
d. 3 weeks
e. 30 weeks

92. What would be the estimated time for completion if time estimates for installation are as
follows: optimistic = 1 week; pessimistic = 1 week; realistic = 1 week?

a. 5 weeks
b. 6 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 1 week
e. 12 weeks

93. Which of the following is true regarding Gantt chart construction?

a. To construct the Gantt chart, a horizontal bar is drawn for each activity that reflects its
sequence and duration.
b. To show precedence relationships, arrows are used to connect the nodes.
c. Arrows are used to reflect the sequence of activities.
d. Squares are used to represent activities.
e. Ellipses are used to represent activities.

94. Which of the following is not a true statement regarding Network diagrams?

a. The critical path of a Network diagram is represented by the sequence of connected

activities that produce the longest overall time period.
b. All activities with a slack time equal to zero are on the critical path.
c. Nodes not on the critical path can be delayed (for some amount of time) without delaying
the final completion of the project.
d. The latest expected completion time refers to the time in which an activity can be
completed without delaying the project.
e. To construct a Network diagram, a horizontal bar is drawn for each activity that reflects
its sequence and duration.
 95. The amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the project refers to:

a. noncritical time.
b. slack time.
c. down time.
d. delay time.
e. stop time.

96. Slack time is equal to:

a. the difference between an activity’s latest and earliest expected completion time.
b. the latest expected completion time.
c. the difference between the start time and realistic time for each activity.
d. the sum of an activity’s latest and earliest expected completion time.
e. the difference between the optimistic time and pessimistic time for an activity.

97. Which of the following slack times indicates that an activity is on the critical path?

a. 1
b. 10
c. 0
d. 2
e. 5

98. Which of the following refers to the time in which an activity can be completed without
delaying the project?

a. Latest expected completion time

b. Earliest expected completion time
c. Delay time
d. End time
e. Critical time

99. Automated tools available to help you manage a development project are referred to as:

a. diagram generators.
b. project management software.
c. systems development software.
d. desktop publishing software.
e. utility software.

100. An example of a project management system is:

a. Word Perfect.
b. Microsoft Office.
c. Microsoft Project for Windows.
d. Lotus 1-2-3.
e. QuarkXpress.
101. The first phase of the systems development life cycle is:

a. systems planning and selection.

b. systems study.
c. systems analysis.
d. systems design.
e. systems implementation and operation.

102. Which of the following is one of the three primary activities associated with identifying and
selecting IS development projects?

a. Preliminary investigation of the system problem or opportunity

b. Identification of potential development projects
c. Requirements determination
d. Generate alternative initial designs
e. Requirements structuring

103. A department head deciding which project requests to submit is an example of:

a. a preliminary investigation of the system problem or opportunity.

b. identifying potential development projects.
c. requirements determination.
d. generating alternative initial designs.
e. requirements structuring.

104. Research has found that projects identified by top management more often:

a. have a narrow, tactical focus.

b. reflect diversity and have a cross-functional focus.
c. have a strategic, organizational focus.
d. will integrate easily with existing hardware and systems.
e. have a very low systems development priority.

105. Research has found that projects identified by individual departments or business units most
often:

a. have a narrow, tactical focus.

b. reflect diversity and have a cross-functional focus.
c. have a strategic, organizational focus.
d. will integrate easily with existing hardware and systems.
e. have a very high systems development priority.

106. Potential development projects can be identified by:

a. a steering committee.
b. top management.
c. a senior IS manager.
d. user departments.
e. all of the above.
107. Which of the following possible project sources most often reflects the broader needs of the
organization?

a. User department
b. Development group
c. IS manager
d. Top management
e. Production manager

108. Which of the following alternative methods for making information systems identification and
selection decisions has the highest associated cost?

a. Development group
b. User department
c. Steering committee
d. Top management
e. End user

109. Which of the following alternative methods for making information systems identification and
selection decisions has as its focus integration with existing systems?

a. Development group
b. User department
c. Steering committee
d. Top management
e. End user

110. The extent to which the project is viewed as improving profits, customer service, etc., and the
duration of these benefits best defines which of the following evaluation criteria?

a. Potential benefits
b. Resource availability
c. Technical difficulty or risks
d. Strategic alignment
e. Value chain analysis

111. The extent to which the project is viewed as helping the organization achieve its strategic
objectives and long-term goals describes:

a. potential benefits.
b. resource availability.
c. technical difficulty or risks.
d. strategic alignment.
e value chain analysis.
112. Analyzing an organization’s activities to determine where value is added to products and/or
services and the costs incurred best describes:

a. affinity clustering.
b. business process reengineering.
c. value chain analysis.
d. resource availability.
e. technical difficulty.

113. The primary deliverable from the project identification and selection phase is:

a. a context data flow diagram.

b. at least three substantively different system design strategies for building the
replacement information system.
c. the development of a new version of the software and new versions of all design
documents.
d. an entity relationship diagram.
e. a schedule of specific IS development projects.

114. If the project team and organizational officials reassess the project after each subsequent
SDLC phase to determine if the business conditions have changed or if a more detailed
understanding of a system’s costs, benefits, and risks suggest that the project is not as
worthy as previously thought, they are:

a. adhering to the incremental commitment principle.

b. overly cautious.
c. using a CASE methodology.
d. adhering to a bottom-up commitment principle.
e. using a staged approached to systems development.

115. As a rule of thumb estimate, what percentage of the entire development effort should be
devoted to the project initiation and planning process?

a. Between 10 and 20 percent

b. Less than 5 percent
c. Less than 10 percent
d. Between 20 and 30 percent
e. Over 50 percent

116. Activities designed to assist in organizing a team to conduct project planning is the focus of:

a. project development.
b. project identification and selection.
c. project initiation.
d. analysis.
e. implementation and operation.
117. Which of the following is not a project initiation activity?

a. Establishing management procedures

b. Dividing the project into manageable tasks
c. Establishing a relationship with the customer
d. Establishing the project initiation team
e. Establishing the project initiation plan

118. Which of the following is a project initiation activity?

a. Developing a preliminary schedule

b. Setting a baseline project plan
c. Determining project standards and procedures
d. Establishing a relationship with the customer
e. Developing a communication plan

119. The objective of the project planning process is the development of:

a. a Baseline Project Plan and Statement of Work.

b. a Systems Service Request.
c. entity relationship diagrams.
d. corporate strategic plan.
e. an information systems plan.

120. Which of the following is a project planning activity?

a. Establishing management procedures

b. Establishing a relationship with the customer
c. Estimating resources and creating a resource plan
d. Establishing the project management environment and project workbook
e. Establishing the project initiation plan

121. Which of the following is not a project planning activity?

a. Determining project standards and procedures

b. Establishing management procedures
c. Developing a Statement of Work
d. Dividing the project into manageable tasks
e. Developing a communication plan
122. The Baseline Project Plan:

a. contains all information collected and analyzed during project initiation and planning.
b. specifies detailed project activities for the next life cycle phase, analysis, and less detail
for subsequent project phases.
c. is used by the project selection committee to help decide if the project should be
accepted, redirected, or canceled.
d. reflects the best estimate of the project’s scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource
requirements given the current understanding of the project.
e. does all of the above.

123. A major outcome and deliverable from project initiation and planning that contains the best
estimate of a project’s scope, benefits, costs, risks, and resource requirements defines the:

a. Baseline Project Plan.

b. Information Systems Plan.
c. Mission Statement.
d. Resource Requirements Statement.
e. Systems Service Request.

124. The justification for an information system, presented in terms of the tangible and intangible
economic benefits and costs, and the technical and organizational feasibility of the proposed
system best defines:

a. Baseline Project Plan.

b. Information Systems Plan.
c. Business Case.
d. Statement of Work.
e. System Service Request.

125. The Statement of Work:

a. is a short document prepared for the customer that describes what the project will deliver
and outlines all work required to complete the project.
b. is useful for ensuring that both you and your customer gain a common understanding of
the project.
c. is an easy document to create because it typically consists of a high-level summary of
the BPP information.
d. can be used as the basis of a formal contractual agreement outlining firm deadlines,
costs, and specifications.
e. is all of the above.
126. A document prepared for the customer during project initiation and planning that describes
what the project will deliver and outlines generally at a high level all work required to
complete the project is the:

a. Information Systems Plan.

b. Statement of Work.
c. Mission Statement.
d. Baseline Project Plan.
e. Systems Service Request.

127. To identify the financial benefits and costs associated with the development project is the
purpose of:

a. financial feasibility.
b. technical feasibility.
c. operational feasibility.
d. economic feasibility.
e. schedule feasibility.

128. Tangible benefits would include:

a. improved organizational planning.

b. ability to investigate more alternatives.
c. improved asset control.
d. lower transaction costs.
e. first to market.

129. Cost reduction and avoidance, error reduction, and increased flexibility are examples of:

a. intangible benefits.
b. qualitative benefits.
c. tangible benefits.
d. legal and contractual benefits.
e. profitable benefits.

130. A savings of $5,000 resulting from data entry error reductions would most likely be classified
as a(n):

a. intangible benefit.
b. qualitative benefit.
c. tangible benefit.
d. operational benefit.
e. profitable benefit.
131. A benefit derived from the creation of an information system that can be measured in dollars
and with certainty is a(n):

a. intangible benefit.
b. qualitative benefit.
c. tangible benefit.
d. operational benefit.
e. profitable benefit.

132. The reduction of waste creation is an example of a(n):

a. intangible benefit.
b. qualitative benefit.
c. tangible benefit.
d. operational benefit.
e. profitable benefit.

133. A cost associated with an information system that can be measured in dollars and with
certainty best describes:

a. economic cost.
b. tangible cost.
c. intangible cost.
d. one-time cost.
e. measurable cost.

134. Which of the following would be classified as a tangible cost?

a. Loss of customer goodwill

b. Cost of hardware
c. Employee morale
d. Operational inefficiency
e. Not all customers use the Internet

135. Which of the following would be classified as an intangible cost?

a. Hardware costs
b. Labor costs
c. Employee morale
d. Operational costs
e. Internet service setup fee

136. A cost associated with project start-up and development or system start-up refers to a(n):

a. recurring cost.
b. one-time cost.
c. incremental cost.
d. infrequent cost.
e. consumable cost.
137. A cost associated with an information system that cannot be easily measured in terms of
dollars or with certainty refers to a(an):

a. economic cost.
b. tangible cost.
c. intangible cost.
d. one-time cost.
e. nonconsumable cost.

138. A cost resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system best defines a(an):

a. recurring cost.
b. one-time cost.
c. incremental cost.
d. frequent cost.
e. variable cost.

139. Application software maintenance, new software and hardware leases, and incremental
communications are examples of:

a. recurring costs.
b. one-time costs.
c. incremental costs.
d. frequent costs.
e. consumable costs.

140. The concept of comparing present cash outlays to future expected returns best defines:

a. cost/benefit analysis.
b. internal rate of return.
c. time value of money.
d investment return analysis.
e. monetary futures analysis.

141. The rate of return used to compute the present value of future cash flows refers to:

a. discount rate.
b. investment rate.
c. transfer rate.
d. future cash flow rate.
e. valuation rate.

142. The current value of a future cash flow is referred to as:

a. future value.
b. present value.
c. investment value.
d. discount rate.
e. cash flow rate.
143. The analysis technique that uses a discount rate determined from the company’s cost of
capital to establish the present value of a project is commonly called:

a. return on investment (ROI).

b. break-even analysis (BEA).
c. net present value (NPV).
d. future value (FV).
e. Currency Rate Analysis (CRA).

144. The ratio of the net cash receipts of the project divided by the cash outlays of the project,
enabling tradeoff analysis to be made between competing projects, is often referred to as:

a. return on investment (ROI).

b. break-even analysis (BEA).
c. net present value (NPV).
d. future value (FV).
e. Currency Rate Analysis (CRA).

145. The analysis technique that finds the amount of time required for the cumulative cash flow
from a project to equal its initial and ongoing investment is referred to as:

a. return on investment (ROI).

b. break-even analysis (BEA).
c. net present value (NPV).
d. future value (FV).
e. Currency Rate Analysis (CRA).

146. To gain an understanding of the organization’s ability to construct the proposed system is the
purpose of:

a. operational feasibility.
b. schedule feasibility.
c. technical feasibility.
d. political feasibility.
e. construction feasibility.

147. An assessment of the development group’s understanding of the possible target hardware,
software, and operating environments, system size, complexity, and the group’s experience
with similar systems should be included as part of:

a. technical feasibility.
b. political feasibility
c. operational feasibility.
d. schedule feasibility.
e. construction feasibility.
148. Which of the following is a section of the Baseline Project Plan?

a. Management Issues
b. System Description
c. Introduction
d. Feasibility Assessment
e. All of the above

149. The use of telecommunications technologies to transfer business documents directly

between organizations best defines:

a. electronic delivery.
b. computer conferencing.
c. extranet exchange.
d. electronic data interchange.
e. electronic commerce.

150. An Internet-based communication that supports business-to-business activities best

describes:

a. Internet.
b. electronic commerce.
c. electronic data interchange.
d. extranet.
e. intranet.

151. Which of the following is a sub-phase of analysis?

a. Project identification
b. Project planning
c. Requirements determination
d. Database design
e. Human interface design

152. Analysts gathering information from as many sources as possible about what the new system
should do is indicative of:

a. requirements determination.
b. requirements structuring.
c. alternative generation and selection.
d. project identification and selection.
e. project initiation and planning.
153. The impertinence characteristic of a good systems analyst is represented by which of the
following statements?

a. You must challenge yourself to look at the organization in new ways.

b. Every fact must fit with every other fact.
c. Assume anything is possible, and eliminate the infeasible.
d. You should question everything.
e. Your role is to find the best solution to a business problem.

154. The impartiality characteristic of a good systems analyst is represented by which of the
following statements?

a. You must challenge yourself to look at the organization in new ways.

b. Your role is to find the best solution to a business problem or opportunity.
c. Assume anything is possible, and eliminate the infeasible.
d. You should question everything.
e. Every fact must fit with every other fact.

155. The reframing characteristic of a good systems analyst is represented by which of the
following statements?

a. You must challenge yourself to look at the organization in new ways.

b. Every fact must fit with every other fact.
c. Assume anything is possible, and eliminate the infeasible.
d. You should question everything.
e. Your role is to find the best solution to a business problem.

156. The primary deliverables from requirements determination include:

a. observation notes.
b. interview transcripts.
c. analysis from documents.
d. analyzed responses from questionnaires.
e. all of the above.

157. The purpose of requirements structuring is to:

a. enable the analysts to gather information on what the system should do from as many
sources as possible.
b. enable the analysts to develop a baseline project plan quickly.
c. enable the large amount of information gathered during requirements determination to be
organized.
d. enable the analysts to rapidly develop a new system.
e. enable the analysts to identify several feasible alternatives.
158. The term that refers to systems development projects bogged down in an abundance of
analysis work is:

a. information overload.
b. analysis paralysis.
c. analysis overload.
d. information abundance.
e. disruptive analysis.

159. Techniques developed to keep the analysis effort minimal, yet still effective include:

a. JAD.
b. interviewing.
c. observations.
d. document analysis.
e. questionnaires.

160. Traditional methods of collecting systems requirements include each of the following except:

a. interviews.
b. questionnaires.
c. document analysis.
d. observations.
e. prototyping.

161. Which of the following is a traditional method of collecting systems requirements?

a. Business process reengineering

b. Interviews
c. Joint Application Design
d. Rapid Application Development
e. Prototyping

162. Questions in interviews and on questionnaires that have no pre-specified answers are:

a. nonspecific questions.
b. closed-ended questions.
c. open-ended questions.
d. investigative questions.
e. exploratory questions.

163. One advantage of open-ended questions in an interview is:

a. a significant amount of time can be devoted to each interviewee.

b. the interviewee is restricted to providing just a few answers.
c. previously unknown information can result.
d. they work well when the answers to the questions are well known.
e. they are not biased.
164. Which of the following can be considered an advantage of open-ended questions?

a. The interviewer can explore unexpected lines of inquiry.

b. Open-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.
c. The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.
d. Interviewees can respond in their own words using their own structure.
e. All of the above are correct.

165. Questions in interviews and on questionnaires asking those responding to choose from
among a set of specified responses are:

a. specific questions.
b. closed-ended questions.
c. open-ended questions.
d. structured questions.
e. stratified questions.

166. Which of the following can be considered an advantage of closed-ended questions?

a. The interviewer can explore unexpected lines of inquiry.

b. Closed-ended questions work well when the major answers to the questions are well
known.
c. The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.
d. Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.
e. Previously unknown information may surface.

167. Which of the following is an advantage of closed-ended questions?

a. Interviews based on closed-ended questions do not necessarily require a large time

commitment, so more topics can be covered.
b. Closed-ended questions enable the analysts to explore information that does not quite fit
defined answers.
c. The analyst can obtain previously unknown information.
d. Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.
e. The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.

168. Rating a response or idea on some scale, say from strongly agree to strongly disagree, would
be classified as a(n):

a. open-ended question.
b. stratified question.
c. closed-ended question.
d. contemporary question.
e. structured question.
169. Good interview guidelines consist of:

a. phrasing the question to illicit the correct response.

b. typing your notes within two weeks of the interview.
c. establishing expectation levels about the new system.
d. seeking a variety of perspectives from the interviews.
e. using as much time as you need.

170. A representative sample can be achieved by using:

a. a stratified sample.
b. a convenience sample.
c. a random sample.
d. a purposeful sample.
e. all of the above.

171. Having several categories of people to include in a sample and choosing a random set from
each category is an example of a:

a. stratified sample.
b. convenience sample.
c. purposeful sample.
d. random sample.
e. classified sample.

172. Selecting only people who satisfy a certain criteria, such as users of the system for more than
four years, is an example of a:

a. stratified sample.
b. convenient sample.
c. purposeful sample.
d. random sample.
e. classified sample.

173. Which of the following defines a systematic bias in the results because those who responded
are different from those who did not respond?

a. Statistical bias
b. Significant bias
c. Purposeful bias
d. Nonresponse bias
e. Deliberate bias
174. Compared to interviews, questionnaires:

a. take less time to complete.

b. provide you with the chance to judge the accuracy of the responses.
c. are richer in information content than interviews.
d. are administered to fewer people.
e. provide the ability to ask follow-up questions.

175. Compared to questionnaires, interviews:

a. take less time to complete.

b. are quite time-intensive and expensive.
c. are less rich in information content than questionnaires.
d. can be used to collect information from large numbers of people.
e. are less costly.

176. Comparing interviews to questionnaires, which of the following is correct?

a. Using a questionnaire enables the analyst to identify the respondent.

b. The involvement of the subject via the questionnaire is very active.
c. The potential audience of an interview can be quite large.
d. The time required to administer a questionnaire is low to moderate.
e. The questionnaire allows for follow-up and probing after the initial data collection.

177. If you know little about the system or the organization, a good strategy would be to:

a. identify key users and stakeholders and interview them, then use this information to create
a questionnaire that can be distributed to a large number of users.
b. interview only one or two key users or stakeholders.
c. administer a questionnaire to key stakeholders, and then interview all end users.
d. administer a questionnaire to all end users, and then select the end users with the best
responses to interview.
e. perform a document analysis, then observe several end users.

178. Which of the following is a reason for directly observing end users?

a. The analyst gets a snapshot image of the person or task being observed.
b. Observations are not very time consuming.
c. People often do not have a completely accurate appreciation of what they do or how they
do it.
d. Employees will alter their performance if they know that they are being observed.
e. Interviewing is less rich, passive, and often provides ambiguous data.
179. The analysis of documents can help you identify:

a. problems with existing systems.

b. special information processing circumstances that occur irregularly and may not be
identified by any other requirements determination technique.
c. the reason why current systems are designed the way they are.
d. the organizational direction that can influence information system requirements.
e. all of the above.

180. Which of the following documents are useful in understanding possible future system
requirements?

a. written work procedures

b. documents that describe the current information system
c. reports generated by current systems
d. forms
e. all of the above

181. A written work procedure:

a. indicates the job an analyst will need to perform on a given project.

b. describes how a particular job or task is performed, including data and information that are
used and created in the process of performing the job.
c. indicates what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to
function.
d. enables you to work backwards from the information on a report to the data that must
have been necessary to generate it.
e. determines if the information makes sense for the organization from an economic and
operational standpoint.

182. If your analysis of several written procedures reveals a duplication of effort in two jobs, you
should:

a. indicate that one job be deleted from the new system.

b. call the duplication to the attention of management as an issue to be resolved before
system design can proceed.
c. justify the duplication of effort.
d. restructure the tasks so that the duplication is removed.
e. not mention the duplication of effort to management.

183. The official way a system works as described in organizational documentation is referred to as
a(n):

a. formal system.
b. informal system.
c. official system.
d. desired system.
e. primary system.
184. The way a system actually works is referred to as a(n):

a. unofficial system.
b. informal system.
c. actual system.
d. formal system.
e. secondary system.

185. Forms are important for understanding a business because they:

a. indicate the correct sequencing of tasks.

b. describe how particular tasks are performed.
c. indicate what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to
function.
d. enable you to work backwards from the information on a report to the necessary data that
must have been necessary to generate them.
e. identify duplicate efforts within a system.

186. Forms are most useful:

a. when they do not contain any data.

b. during the initial planning stages.
c. when they contain actual organizational data.
d. during the design stage.
e. during the requirements structuring stage.

187. A report:

a. indicates the inputs required for the new system.

b. describes how a particular job or task is performed, including data and information that are
used and created in the process of performing the job.
c. indicates what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to
function.
d. enables you to work backward from the information on the document and identify the data
that must have been necessary to generate it.
e. does none of the above.

188. Which of the following is a modern method for collecting system requirements?

a. Interviewing
b. Observations
c. Document analysis
d. Joint Application Design
e. Questionnaires
189. Which of the following is a true statement regarding JAD?

a. The primary purpose of using JAD in the analysis phase is to collect systems
requirements simultaneously from the key people involved with the system.
b. A working system is the end result of a JAD.
c. JAD sessions are usually conducted in the organization’s conference room.
d. A JAD session is inexpensive to conduct.
e. JADs benefit greatly from computer support.

190. When comparing observations and document analysis:

a. the time required to conduct observations compared to document analysis is low.

b. the expense of the observation method is quite low.
c. the potential audience of the observation method is limited.
d. with document analysis, a clear commitment is discernible.
e. the chances of probing and clarification are good with document analysis.

191. The typical participants in a JAD include:

a. a session leader.
b. a scribe.
c. a sponsor.
d. systems analysts.
e. all of the above.

192. The trained individual who plans and leads Joint Application Design sessions is referred to as
the:

a. scribe.
b. session leader.
c. manager.
d. analyst.
e. sponsor.

193. The person who makes detailed notes of the happenings at a Joint Application Design
session is referred to as the:

a. JAD analyst.
b. scribe.
c. JAD manager.
d. JAD session leader.
e. JAD oracle.
194. Drawbacks to prototyping include:

a. a tendency to avoid creating formal documentation of systems requirements which can

then make the system more difficult to develop into a fully working system.
b. prototypes becoming very idiosyncratic to the initial user and difficult to diffuse or adapt to
other potential users.
c. prototypes are often built as stand-alone systems.
d. checks in the SDLC are bypassed so that some more subtle, but still important, system
requirements might be forgotten.
e. all of the above.

195. Prototyping is most useful for requirements determination when:

a. user requirements are well understood.

b. communication problems have existed in the past between users and analysts.
c. possible designs are simple and require an abstract form to fully evaluate.
d. multiple stakeholders are involved with the system.
e. data are not readily available.

196. The search for, and implementation of, radical change in business processes to achieve
breakthrough improvements in products and services best defines:

a. Joint Application Design.

b. Rapid Application Development.
c. structured programming.
d. business process reengineering.
e. disruptive design.

197. The structured, measured set of activities designed to produce a specific output for a
particular customer or market best defines:

a. formal systems.
b. key business processes.
c. secondary activities.
d. production systems.
e. primary processes.

198. Technologies that enable the breaking of long-held business rules that inhibit organizations
from making radical business changes best defines:

a. technology barrier breakers.

b. reengineered technologies.
c. disruptive technologies.
d. state-of-the-art technologies.
e. innovative technologies.
199. Which of the following technologies disrupted the business rule that information can appear
only in one place at a time?

a. High-performance computing
b. Distributed databases
c. Expert systems
d. Advanced telecommunications networks
e. Decision support tools

200. Which of the following technologies disrupted the business rule of you having to find out
where things are?

a. Distributed databases
b. Expert systems
c. Advanced telecommunications networks
d. Automatic identification and tracking technology
e. Interactive communications technologies