Test Booklet Code & Serial No.

A
COMMERCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.

JUN - 50220 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory. 2.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are 3.
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept (i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
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page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within
the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given. The same may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
(iii)
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (C) is the correct response.

A B D (C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR A B D
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 5.
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7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet. 6.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 7.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
8.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.
 JUN - 50220/II—A

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 JUN - 50220/II—A
Commerce
Paper II

II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.
(100) (2)

1. A systematic assessment of an 1.
activity on some meaningful,
definable domain of companies
activities that have social impact
is : (A)
(A) Environmental Audit
(B)
(B) Green Audit
(C)
(C) Social Audit
(D) Public Audit (D)

2. Which one of the following is not an 2.

argument in favour of free trade ?
(A) Economic utilization of world
productive resources (A)

(B) Division of labour on an

international scale
(B)
(C) Breaks the domestic monopolies
(C)
(D) Conservation of foreign
exchange of the country (D)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A

3. UNCTAD is established by the 3.

United Nations General Assembly
in ............ and it has its headquarters
at ............
(A) 1964—Geneva
(B) 1965—New York
(C) 1964—Paris
(D) 1965—Geneva
4. The International Monetary Fund 4. 2019
in its world economic outlook
published in Jan. 2019 has
projected world output to grow at
............. percent.
(A) 3.8 (A) 3.8
(B) 3.7 (B) 3.7
(C) 3.5 (C) 3.5
(D) 4.1 (D) 4.1
5. X : Mexico is a member of NAFTA. 5.
Y : NAFTA started functioning
from 1st Jan. 1994. : 1 1994
(A) Only X is true
(A)
(B) Only Y is true
(B)
(C) Both X and Y are true
(C)
(D) Both X and Y are false (D)
6. X : Balance of trade records export 6. :
and import of only visible goods.
Y : It comprises of balance of trade. :
(A) Only X is correct (A)
(B) Only Y is correct (B)
(C) Both X and Y are incorrect (C)
(D) Both X and Y are correct (D)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A

7. Which of these is not an objective 7.

of protectionist trade strategy ?
(A) Protection of domestic industries
(A)
(B) Promoting indigenous research
and development (B)
(C) Protecting rights of nationals
(C)
(D) Conservation of foreign
exchange reserves (D)

8. Match the columns : 8.

Group A (Institutions/Events)
(i) GATT (i)

(ii) Bretton Woods Conference (ii)

(iii) International Monetary Fund (iii)

(iv) European Community (iv)

Group B (Years)
(a) 1947 (a) 1947

(b) 1957 (b) 1957

(c) 1944 (c) 1944

(d) 1945 (d) 1945

(A) (i)—(a), (ii)—(c), (iii)—(d), (A) (i)—(a), (ii)—(c), (iii)—(d),

(iv)—(b) (iv)—(b)

(B) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(d), (B) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(d),

(iv)—(c) (iv)—(c)

(C) (i)—(a), (ii)—(c), (iii)—(b), (C) (i)—(a), (ii)—(c), (iii)—(b),

(iv)—(d) (iv)—(d)

(D) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(c), (D) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(c),

(iv)—(d) (iv)—(d)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A

9. Which of the following is not a 9.

method under foreign direct
investment ?
(A)
(A) Wholly owned subsidiary
(B)
(B) Joint venture
(C) Global depository receipts (C)

(D) Acquisition (D)

10. As per the recent FDI policy, 100 10.

per cent investment through 100
automatic route is not allowed
in ............ (A)
(A) Petroleum refining by the PSUs
(B) Oil and natural gas exploration (B)
(C) Mining and minerals (C)
(D) Plantation (D)
11. Omission of paise and showing the 11.
round figures in financial statements
is based on ...............
(A) Conservatism concept (A)
(B) Consistency concept (B)
(C) Materiality concept (C)
(D) Realization concept (D)
12. Which SA deals with audit 12. SA
sampling ?
(A) SA 530 (A) SA 530
(B) SA 400 (B) SA 400
(C) SA 610 (C) SA 610
(D) SA 500 (D) SA 500
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 JUN - 50220/II—A

13. Which of the following denotes a 13.

target cost ?
(A) Market price—Desired profit
margin (A) —
(B) Standard selling price—
(B)
Standard profit margin
(C) Standard selling price—Target (C)
profit margin
(D) —
(D) Market price—Return on
invesment
14. ABC Ltd. has a current ratio of 14.
1.5 : 1 and net current assets of 1.5 : 1
` 5,00,000. What are the current ` 5,00,000
assets ?
(A) ` 5,00,000 (A) ` 5,00,000
(B) ` 10,00,000 (B) ` 10,00,000
(C) ` 15,00,000 (C) ` 15,00,000
(D) ` 25,00,000 (D) ` 25,00,000
15. Which one of the following is not a 15.
contingent liability ?
(A) B/R discounted but not matured
(A)
(B) Underwriting commission
payable (B)

(C) Arrears of cumulative dividend (C)

on preference shares
(D) Uncalled capital on investments
(D)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A
16. An audit report of company says that 16.
‘‘Company has not provided ` 8,50,000
depreciation for the year amounting
to ` 8,50,000, subject to this
reservation, we report that balance
sheet says true and fair view. This
report is called as ..............
(A) Clean report (A)
(B) Qualified report (B)
(C) Adverse report (C)
(D) Disclaimer of opinion (D)
17. Activity-based costing ................. 17.
(A) may be used with job order but (A)
not process costing
(B) may be used with process but
(B)
not job order costing
(C) trends to increase the number (C)
of cost pools
(D) trends to decrease the number (D)
of cost pools
18. XYZ Ltd. has a debt-equity ratio of 18.
1.5 as compared to 1.3 Industry 1.5
average. It means that the firm
has :
(A) Higher liquidity (A)
(B) Higher financial risk (B)
(C) Higher profitability (C)
(D) Higher capital employed (D)
19. Which of the following is a result of 19.
separate entity concept ?
(A) Research and development (A)
(B) Buying and selling (B)
(C) Owners capital and drawings (C)
(D) Sale of scrap (D)
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 JUN - 50220/II—A

20. Varsha and Monica are partners 20. 3:2

sharing profit and losses in the ratio
of 3 : 2 having the capital of ` 80,000
` 80,000 ` 50,000
and ` 50,000 respectively. They are
9%
entitled to 9% p.a. interest on capital
before distributing the profit. During
the year firm earned ` 7,800 after ` 7,800
allowing interest on capital. Profit
apportioned among Varsha and
Monica is :
(A) ` 4,680 ` 3,120
(A) ` 4,680 and ` 3,120
(B) ` 5,000 ` 2,800
(B) ` 5,000 and ` 2,800
(C) ` 4,800 ` 3,000
(C) ` 4,800 and ` 3,000
(D) ` 4,680 and ` 2,800 (D) ` 4,680 ` 2,800

21. Usually, the demand for necessities 21.

is .....................
(A) Highly elastic (A)

(B) Infinitely elastic (B)

(C) Highly inealstic (C)

(D) Unitary elastic (D)

22. The price elasticity of demand for 22.

addictive products like cigarettes and
alcohol would be ...........
(A) Greater than 1 (A)

(B) Less than 1 (B)

(C) Infinity (C)

(D) One (D)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A

23. Which one of the following products 23.

has highly inelastic demand ?
(A) Jewellery (A)
(B) Television set (B)
(C) Salt (C)
(D) Sports car (D)
24. Which of the following is not a 24.
method of measuring price elasticity
of demand ?
(A)
(A) Ratio method
(B)
(B) Outlay method
(C)
(C) Psychological method
(D)
(D) Geometrical method
25.
25. Usually, isoquants are .............
(A)
(A) Concave to the origin
(B)
(B) Convex to the origin
(C) Parallel to the origin (C)

(D) Perpendicular to the origin (D)

26. Average cost and Marginal cost 26. U
curves are U shaped and ............
(A) Average cost curve cuts (A)
marginal cost curve from below
(B) Marginal cost curve cuts (B)
average cost curve from below
(C) Average cost and marginal cost (C)
curves are one and the same
(D) After intersection, average cost (D)
exceeds marginal cost

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 JUN - 50220/II—A
27. Which of the following is not 27.
true ?
(A)
(A) Opportunity cost is the cost of
alternative opportunity lost
(B)
(B) During short-run some factors
are fixed
(C) Variable cost is a prime cost (C)
(D) Total cost = Total fixed cost + (D) = +
Average variable cost
28. Additional cost incurred on
28.
producing one more unit is known
as ................
(A)
(A) Average cost
(B) Marginal cost (B)

(C) Implicit cost (C)

(D) Accounting cost (D)
29. The imposition of a lumpsum tax 29.
will result in .............. of both the
Average Fixed Cost (AFC) and the
Average Total Cost (ATC) curves.
(A)
(A) Upward shift
(B) Downward shift (B)

(C) Leftward shift (C)

(D) Rightward shift (D)
30. The demand curve for a perfectly 30.
competitive firm is ..............
(A)
(A) Horizontal straight line
(B) Vertical straight line (B)

(C) Upward sloping curve (C)

(D) Downward sloping curve (D)
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 JUN - 50220/II—A
31. Which of the following is not a 31.
function performed by a financial
system ?
(A)
(A) Savings functions
(B)
(B) Liquidity functions
(C)
(C) Risk functions
(D)
(D) Social functions
32. Which of the following statements 32.
is not the assumption of Modigliani-
Miller approach ?
(A) Corporate Income Tax is
(A)
assumed to be absent
(B) There does not exist any (B)
transaction cost
(C) The dividend payout ratio is 100 (C)
percent
(D) Personal leverage and corporate (D)
leverage are not perfect
substitues
33. The process of converting cash flow 33.
into present equitables is called :
(A) Discounting (A)
(B) Compounding (B)
(C) Rationing (C)
(D) Budgeting (D)
34. Which of the following factors does 34.
not affect on the capital structure of
the company ?
(A)
(A) Cost of capital
(B)
(B) Composition of current assets
(C) Expected nature of cash flow (C)

(D) Dilution of control (D)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A
35. Dr. Gupta purchased 400 shares of 35. 15 2014
Glaxo Ltd. @ ` 61 each on 15th 400 ` 61
October, 2014. He paid brokerage of ` 600
` 600. The company paid dividend
as follows :
, 2015 ` 800
June, 2015 ` 800
, 2016 ` 1,000
June, 2016 ` 1,000
, 2017 ` 1,200
June, 2017 ` 1,200
15 2017
He sold his holdings for ` 34,500 on
` 34,500
15th October, 2017. What is the
annual return ?
(A) 16.67% (A) 16.67%

(B) 18.23% (B) 18.23%

(C) 14.76% (C) 14.76%
(D) 13.47% (D) 13.47%
36. The method of raising equity capital 36.
from existing members by offering
securities on pro-rata basis is
referred to as ...........
(A)
(A) Public issue
(B)
(B) Right issue
(C) Bonus issue (C)
(D) Private placement (D)
37. Below .............. level of sales NPV is 37.
negative and above this level the
NPV is positive in multinational (–)
capital budgeting.
(+)
(A) Risk adjusted cash flow
(A)
(B) Sensitivity level analysis (B)
(C) Simulation (C)
(D) Break-even (D)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A

38. Nominal interest rate is the product

38.
of :
(A) Real interest rate and rate of (A)
inflation
(B) Real interest rate and exchange (B)
rate
(C)
(C) Exchange rate and market rate
(D) Real interest rate and market (D)
rate
39.
39. International capital budgeting
incorporates :
(A) Only financial factors (A)
(B) Financial and non-financial (B)
factors
(C)
(C) Only the non-financial factors
(D)
(D) Qualitative factors
40. Multilateral Investment Guarantee 40.
Agency (MIGA) :
(A) Is a sister institution of the
World Bank (A)

(B) Is an insurance agency of the (B)

US Govt.
(C) Is a part of Asian Development
Bank (C)
(D) Is a sister institution of
(D)
International Development
Agency

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 JUN - 50220/II—A

41. Arithmetic mean of salary of 100 41. 100

males in a company is ` 20,000 per
` 20,000 50
month and that of 50 females is
` 17,000
` 17,000 per month. The arithmetic
mean of salary of the combined
group of males and females in the
company is .............. per month.
(A) ` 20,000
(A) ` 20,000
(B) ` 19,000
(B) ` 19,000
(C) ` 18,000
(C) ` 18,000
(D) ` 17,000 (D) ` 17,000

42. Suppose 1 = standard deviation of 42. 1 = {1, 2, 3,

{1, 2, 3, 4, 5} 4, 5}
2 = standard deviation of {11, 12,
2= {11, 12, 13, 14, 15}
13, 14, 15}
...............
then ...............
(A) 1 > 2
(A) 1 > 2
(B) (B) 1 <
1 < 2 2

(C) 1 = 2
(C) 1 = 2
(D) 2 = 1 + 10 (D) 2 = 1 + 10
43. If A and B are mutually exclusive 43. A B
events, then P(A B) = ........... P(A B) =
(A) P(A) (A) P(A)
(B) P(B) (B) P(B)
(C) P(A ) + P(B) (C) P(A ) + P(B)
(D) P(A ) . P(B) (D) P(A ) . P(B)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A
44. Given that :
44.

Rank of X 1 2 3 4 5
Rank of Y 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5

The Spearman’s rank correlation 5 4 3 2 1

is ................
(A) 1
(A) 1
(B) 0
(B) 0

(C) –1 (C) –1

1 1
(D) (D)
2 2
45. Which of the following statements 45.
is always true for Poisson
distribution ?
(A) >
(A) mean > variance
(B) =
(B) mean = variance
(C) mean < variance (C) <

(D) mean = standard deviation (D) =

46. For testing equality of two 46.
population proportions we use
................. test.
(A) F (A) F

(B) Chi-square (B)

(C) t (C) t
(D) z
(D) z

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 JUN - 50220/II—A
47. In one-way analysis of variance 47. k
suppose there are k treatments and (treatments)
n is the total number of observations n
then the degree of freedom for error (error sum of squares)
sum of squares will be ............
(A) n – 1 (A) n – 1
(B) k – 1 (B) k – 1
(C) nk – 1 (C) nk – 1
(D) n – k (D) n – k
48. As sample size increases sampling 48.
errors ...............
(A) Increase (A)
(B) Decrease (B)
(C) Do not change (C)
(D) May increase or decrease (D)
49. ‘‘.................’’ means the practice of 49. ‘‘ ’’
taking someone else’s work or idea
and passing them as one’s own.
(A) Plagiarism
(A)
(B) Source (B)
(C) Script (C)
(D) Integrity (D)
50. The advantages of ............. is that it 50.
avoids reinventing the wheel of
research work.
(A)
(A) Sampling
(B)
(B) Review of literature
(C) Objectives of the study (C)

(D) Hypothesis of the study (D)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A
51. The book ‘Human Side of Enterprise’ 51.
is authored by :
(A) Rensis Likert (A)
(B) Peter Drucker (B)
(C) Douglas McGregor (C)
(D) Elton Mayo (D)
52. ...................... is not the example of 52.
inherited characteristics.
(A) Intelligence (A)
(B) Age (B)
(C) Religion (C)
(D) Perception (D) (Perception)
53. For performance appraisal ........... 53.
prefers to use the term staff
assessment.
(A) Megginson (A)
(B) Cumming (B)
(C) Levinson (C)
(D) Armstrong (D)
54. ................ is not the characteristic 54.
feature of informal organization.
(A)
(A) Informal relations are
unplanned, arise spontaneously
(B) Informal organisation reflects (B)
human relationships
(C) Formation of informal (C)
organisation is a natural
process
(D) Informal organisation is (D)
hierarchical, pyramid-shaped
and bureaucratic in structure
with well defined positions

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 JUN - 50220/II—A
55. .............. cannot be considered as the 55.
ethical principle.
(A) Sacredness of means and ends (A)
(B) Not to do any evil (B)

(C) Equivalent price (C)

(D)
(D) Indemnity
56. Which one of the following is not the 56.
factor that increases resistance to
change ?
(A)
(A) Lack of communication
(B)
(B) Rapidity and extent of change
(Major or rapid changes)
(C)
(C) Group resistance
(D) Participation and involvement (D)
of employees (Involvement)
57. Which one of the following is not 57.
true about the delegation of
authority ? Delegation of authority
may be ............ (A)
(A) Specific or general (B)
(B) Written or unwritten
(C)
(C) Precise or vague
(D) Upward or downward (D)

58. Zero based budgeting is the new 58.

approach to budgeting which was
introduced by :
(A) (Thiel)
(A) Peter Thiel
(B)
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) Peter Pal (C)
(D) Peter Phyrr (D) (Phyrr)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A

59. Which one of the following is not 59.

the external factor affecting
recruitment ?
(A)
(A) Economic
(B)
(B) Social
(C)
(C) Cultural
(D) Future expansion and reduction (D)
programmes
60. The word Organisational Develop- 60.
ment (OD) was coined in the mid 1950
1950 by ...............
(A)
(A) Wendell French
(B)
(B) Richard Bekhard
(C) Harold Rush (C)

(D) Warren Bennis (D)

61. The best procedure for opening an 61.
account in the name of a minor ‘X’
and the guardian ‘Y’ would be under
style :
(A)
(A) ‘X’ Account
(B) —
(B) ‘X’ Account—Minor
(C) ‘Y’ in trust for ‘X’ (C)

(D) ‘Y’ Account (D)

62. The ‘Bankers’ fair practice code was 62.
brought out in June 2004 by ....... 2004
(A) I.B.A. (Indian Bankers’
(A)
Association).
(B) R.B.I. (B)

(C) Govt. of India (C)

(D) Ministry of Finance (D)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A
63. Which of the following is not a
63.
quantitative measure of risk ?
(A) Risk measurement based on
sensitivity
(A)
(B) Risk measurement based on
volatility (B)
(C) Risk measurement based on
downside potential (C)
(D) Risk measurement based on
(D)
pricing
64. ................... is the credit limit for 64.
funded or non-funded business
allowed by bank or financial
institutions to other banks or
Government to other parties.
(A)
(A) Lines of credit
(B)
(B) Authorised credit
(C) Approved credit limit (C)
(D) Regulated credit limit (D)
65. ‘Not negotiable’ crossing is warning 65.
to the ............
(A) Paying banker (A)
(B) Collecting banker (B)
(C) Holder (C)
(D) (A) and (B) together (D) (A) (B)
66. ............... is a measure of sensitivity 66.
of future cash flows and profits of
a bank to unanticipated exchange
rate changes.
(A) Translation exposure (A)
(B) Transaction exposure (B)
(C) Operating exposure (C)
(D) Operational exposure (D)
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 JUN - 50220/II—A
67. AAA symbol used by CRISIL 67. AAA
describes ..................
(A) Highest Credit Quality (A)
(B) High Credit Quality (B)
(C) Adequate Credit Quality (C)
(D) Moderate Credit Quality (D)
68.
68. .................... have jointly promoted the
National Securities Depository
Limited (NSDL). (A)
(A) ICICI, GIC, SBI (B)

(B) SHCIL, NSCC, IFCI

(C)
(C) IDBI, UTI, NSEI (D)
(D) NSCC, IFCI, ICICI
69. ................ is an exchange of specific 69.
streams of payment over an agreed
period of time.
(A)
(A) Swap
(B)
(B) Premium
(C) Future (C)
(D) Option (D)
70. Operational risk arises from ........... 70.
(A) Default (A)
(B) External events (B)
(C) People and system (C)
(D) Inadequate internal process (D)
71. .................. divides buyers into groups 71.
based on their knowledge, attitudes,
uses or responses to a product.
(A) Geographic segmentation (A)
(B) Demographic segmentation (B)
(C) Psychographic segmentation (C)
(D) Behavioural segmentation (D)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A

72. .................. value is the perceived 72.

benefit received from a product as
an outcome of some particular
occasion or situation.
(A)
(A) Novelty
(B) Conditional (B)

(C) Emotional (C)

(D) Social (D)

73. People, planet and profit are another 73. People ( ), ) Profit
3 P’s associated with ............... ( ) (P)

(A) Virtual marketing

(A)
(B) Green marketing (B)
(C) International marketing (C)
(D) Rural marketing
74.
74. ................. consists of launching the
new product at a low price and
spending heavily on promotion. (A)
(A) Rapid-skimming strategy (B)
(B) Slow-skimming strategy (C)
(C) Rapid-penetration strategy
(D)
(D) Slow-penetration strategy
75. ................... is the positive differential 75.
effect that knowing the brand name
has on consumer response to the
product or service.
(A)
(A) Brand equity
(B)
(B) Brand loyalty
(C)
(C) Perceived quality
(D)
(D) Brand association
23 [P.T.O.
 JUN - 50220/II—A
76. A further 3 P’s are incorporated in 76. 3 P’s
marketing of services :
(A) Process, political power, people
(A)
(B) Process, physical evidence,
people (B)
(C) People opinion, process, power (C)
(D) Price, power, people (D)
77. ................ are special displays, racks, 77.
show cases, banners, exhibits,
signages etc. that are placed in the
retail store to support the sale of a
brand by the manufacturer or
marketers.
(A) Merchandise dealer (A)
(B) Point of purchase (B)
(C) Promotion (C)
(D) Brokers (D)
78. .............. involves consumer to 78.
consumer marketing, where
consumer directly sell products or
services to other consumers using
the internet. (A) B2C
(A) B2C
(B) B2B
(B) B2B
(C) B2A
(C) B2A
(D) C2C (D) C2C
79. From the point of view of consumer, 79.
promotion concept means ............
(A) Selling (A)
(B) Delivering goods and services (B)
(C) Communication (C)
(D) Solution to consumer problems (D)

24
 JUN - 50220/II—A

80. ............... means classification of 80.

standardized products into certain
well defined classes or groups.
(A)
(A) Standardization
(B)
(B) Gradation
(C) Simplification (C)

(D) Diversification (D)

81. The time for revocation of offer and 81. 1872
acceptance is defined u/s ............. of
the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
(A) 5
(A) 5
(B) 4
(B) 4
(C) 3 (C) 3
(D) 25 (D) 25
82. What does ‘I’ stands for in IGST ? 82.
(A) International
(A)
(B) Internal
(B)
(C) Integrated
(C)
(D) Intra (D)
83. What is the fee for getting 83. 2005
information under RTI Act 2005 ?
(A) ` 20 (A) ` 20
(B) ` 50 (B) ` 50
(C) ` 100 (C) ` 100
(D) ` 10 (D) ` 10

25 [P.T.O.
 JUN - 50220/II—A
84. As per Section ................ of the Patent 84.
Act, patent is not be granted in
respect of an invention relating to
atomic energy.
(A) 4
(A) 4
(B) 1
(B) 1
(C) 2 (C) 2
(D) 3 (D) 3
85. Which of the following forms are 85.
used for GST registration ?
(A) GSTR-1 (A) GSTR-1
(B) GSTAPL-01 (B) GSTAPL-01
(C) GST REG-01 (C) GST REG-01
(D) GST RED-01 (D) GST RED-01
86. Match the following groups : 86.
Group-I
(i) Lalman Shukla Vs. Gauri Datt
(i) (1913)
(1913)
(ii) (1842)
(ii) Thomas Vs. Thomas (1842)
(iii) Burnard Vs. Haggis (1863) (iii) (1863)
(iv) Peek Vs. Gurney (1873) (iv) (1873)
Group-II
(a) Acceptance (a)
(b) Consideration (b)
(c) Capacity to contract (c)
(d) Misrepresentation
(d)
Codes :
(A) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(c),
(A) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(c),
(iv)—(d)
(iv)—(d)
(B) (i)—(d), (ii)—(c), (iii)—(b),
(B) (i)—(d), (ii)—(c), (iii)—(b),
(iv)—(a)
(iv)—(a)
(C) (i)—(b), (ii)—(a), (iii)—(d),
(C) (i)—(b), (ii)—(a), (iii)—(d),
(iv)—(c)
(iv)—(c)
(D) (i)—(c), (ii)—(d), (iii)—(a),
(D) (i)—(c), (ii)—(d), (iii)—(a),
(iv)—(b)
(iv)—(b)
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 JUN - 50220/II—A
87. Match the following groups with 87. 2000
reference to Information Technology
Act 2000 : I
Group-I (i)
(i) Access (ii)
(ii) Computer
(iii)
(iii) Data
(iv)
(iv) Digital Signature
II
Group-II
(a) 2(1)(a)
(a) Sec. 2(1)(a)
(b) 2(1)(i)
(b) Sec. 2(1)(i)
(c) 2(1)(o)
(c) Sec. 2(1)(o)
(d) 2(1)(p)
(d) Sec. 2(1)(p)
Codes :
(A) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(c),
(A) (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(c),
(iv)—(d)
(iv)—(d)
(B) (i)—(b), (ii)—(c), (iii)—(d),
(B) (i)—(b), (ii)—(c), (iii)—(d),
(iv)—(a)
(iv)—(a)
(C) (i)—(b), (ii)—(a), (iii)—(d), (C) (i)—(b), (ii)—(a), (iii)—(d),
(iv)—(c) (iv)—(c)

(D) (i)—(b), (ii)—(d), (iii)—(c), (D) (i)—(b), (ii)—(d), (iii)—(c),

(iv)—(a) (iv)—(a)
88. .................. is defined in chapter XI 88. 2000
from section 65 to 78 of the XI 65 78
Information Technology Act 2000.
(A) Offences (A)
(B) Penalties (B)
(C) Cyber Appellate Tribunal (C)
(D) Electronic Governance (D)

27 [P.T.O.
 JUN - 50220/II—A

89. The Central Chief Information 89.

Commissioner (CIC) is appointed
by .................. (A)

(A) President (B)

(B) Vice-President
(C)
(C) Prime Minister

(D) Home Minister (D)

90. Every LLP has to file an annual 90.

return duly authenticated with the
Registrar within ............... days of
closure of its financial year.

(A) 45
(A) 45
(B) 120
(B) 120
(C) 60 (C) 60
(D) 90 (D) 90
91. Income which accrues in Singapore 91.
from business not controlled from
India is ..................

(A) Taxable only for a non-resident (A)

(B) Not taxable for non-resident (B)

(C) Taxable only for resident but
(C)
not ordinarily resident

(D) Not taxable in case of all types

of assessees (D)

28
 JUN - 50220/II—A
92. Gross total income has computed 92. 2018-2019
under Income Tax Act for A.Y. 2018- ` 3,30,000
2019 of Mr. Sarjerao is ` 3,30,000. He
deposits ` 12,000 in PPF and ` 12,000 ` 8,000
` 8,000 in National Savings
Certificate VIII series. His ` 3,50,000
agricultural income is ` 3,50,000,
then tax payable by him will be ...........
(A) ` 3,000 (A) ` 3,000
(B) NIL (B)
(C) ` 9,790 (C) ` 9,790
(D) ` 32,500 (D) ` 32,500
93. Miss Smita purchased residential 93. ` 50,00,000,
property at New Mumbai for a
consideration of ` 50,00,000, value
for stamp duty purpose of that ` 46,00,000
property was ` 46,00,000, then how
much tax she should deduct as tax
at source u/s 194 IA of Income Tax
Act from payment to be made to the
sellers ?
(A) NIL (A)
(B) ` 50,000 (B) ` 50,000
(C) ` 46,000 (C) ` 46,000
(D) ` 10,000 (D) ` 10,000
94. Mr. Bhushan owns a house property, 94. ` 1,20,000
its municipal value is ` 1,20,000
while fair rent is ` 1,80,000, ` 1,80,000
Municipal taxes are 25%. The house 25%
was let out for first 5 months of the 5 ` 14,000
previous year for ` 14,000 per
month. The house was self-occupied
for the remaining months.
Net annual value of the property
is ...........
(A) ` 1,40,000 (A) ` 1,40,000
(B) ` 30,000 (B) ` 30,000
(C) ` 1,50,000 (C) ` 1,50,000
(D) ` 80,000 (D) ` 80,000

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 JUN - 50220/II—A
95. Gratuity received by a Director who, 95.
under the relevant contract, is not
an employee or servant of a
company is assessable under the
head of income ................
(A) Salaries (A)
(B) Business (B)
(C) Profession (C)
(D) Other sources (D)
96. On 12th December, 2018 Sachin 96. 12 2018
(a minor child) received gift of ` 5,00,000
` 5,00,000 from other than his
relative persons. On the same day
the amount was deposited in bank
` 14,750 31
on which interest of ` 14,750 was
received for the previous year 2019
ending 31st March, 2019. Then his
income will be clubbed with ...........
(A) Father’s income ` 5,00,000 (A) ` 5,00,000
(B) Mother’s income ` 2,50,000 and (B) ` 2,50,000
father’s income ` 2,50,000
` 2,50,000
(C) Father’s income ` 5,13,250
(C) ` 5,13,250
(D) Father’s income ` 5,13,250 or
mother’s income ` 5,13,250, at (D)
the option of parents ` 5,13,250 ` 5,13,250
97. In case of non-corporate assessee 97.
expenditure which do not qualify for 35D(2)
deduction under section 35D(2) is :
(A) Preparation Feasibility Report (A)
(B) Preparation of Project Report
(B)
(C) Conducting Market Survey
(C)
(D) Expenditure on Acquisition of
Machinery (D)

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 JUN - 50220/II—A
98. Which of the following considerations 98.
is not taken into account in make
or buy decision in tax planning ?
(A) Utilisation of capacity (A)
(B) Inadequacy of funds (B)
(C) Latest technology (C)
(D) Market for the product (D)
99. As per section 44ADA, resident 99.
assessee engages in sepcified
profession has to pay income tax at
` 50,00,000
................. of Gross Receipts not
exceeding ` 50,00,000 in a previous
year.
(A) 30% (A) 30%

(B) 8% (B) 8%

(C) 50% (C) 50%

(D) 10% (D) 10%

100. Rebate for resident individual 100. 2019-20

having total income upto ` 3,50,000 1961 87-A
for AY 2019-20 under section 87-A ` 3,50,000
of Income Tax Act, 1961 is :
(A) 100% of Income Tax or ` 2,000 (A) 100%
which is lower ` 2,000
(B) 100% of Income Tax or ` 5,000 (B) 100%
whichever is lower ` 5,000
(C) 100% of Income Tax or ` 2,500 (C) 100%
whichever is lower ` 2,500
(D) 100% of Income Tax or ` 3,500 (D) 100%
whichever is lower ` 3,500

31 [P.T.O.
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ROUGH WORK

32