1.

Introduction to Strategic Management

Q1. The word ‘strategy’ is derived from the Greek word ________.
(a) Stratum (b) Strate (c) Strategia (d) State
Q2. The role of stakeholders includes __________.
(a) Direct Management (b) Decision Making
(c) Investments (d) All of the above
Q3. Which term is used to describe the detailed, actionable steps a company takes to achieve its
goals?
(a) Vision (b) Mission (c) Strategy (d) Objective
Q4. When a strategy is flexible & adaptable, what advantage does it offer in a dynamic business
environment?
(a) Increased resistance to change (b) Greater risk of failure
(c) Improved response to unexpected challenges (d) Slower decision-making
Q5. What is a strategic tradeoff in business?
(a) The process of making choices to optimize resources
(b) Maximizing profits at all costs
(c) Pursuing multiple conflicting strategies simultaneously
(d) Ignoring competition and focusing on a single strategy
Q6. What is the primary goal of strategic management?
(a) Maximizing short-term profits
(b) Achieving sustainable competitive advantage
(c) Reducing operational costs
(d) Increasing employee satisfaction
Q7. Which type of corporate-level strategy involves owning or controlling multiple businesses in
different industries?
(a) Vertical integration
(b) Concentric diversification
(c) Conglomerate diversification
(d) Horizontal integration
Q8. What is the main goal of competitive advantage in strategic management?
(a) To have the lowest cost structure in the industry
(b) To outperform competitors and create superior value for customers
(c) To maintain a large workforce
(d) To maximize short-term profits
Q9. Which of the following is an example of a corporate-level strategy?
(a) Marketing strategy
(b) Human resource strategy
(c) Diversification strategy
(d) Sales strategy
Q10. McDonalds is deciding whether to expand into manufacturing kitchen equipment in China. At
what level is this decision likely to be made?
(a) Business (b) Corporate (c) Functional (d) International
Q11. A well-crafted vision statement is generally more focused on the present, while a mission
statement is future-oriented.
(a) True (b) False
Q12. Which of the following is not a stage in the strategic management process?
(a) Strategy implementation
(b) Strategy formulation
(c) Strategy execution
(d) Strategy termination
Q13. What is competitive advantage?
(a) The ability to undercut competitors on price
(b) The ability to offer unique value to customers that competitors cannot easily replicate
(c) The size of a company's market share
(d) The number of products a company offers
Q14. What is the primary focus of a "Red Ocean" strategy?
(a) Creating new market spaces
(b) Maximizing profits in existing market spaces
(c) Minimizing competition through collaboration
(d) Expanding into international markets
Q15. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with a "Blue Ocean" strategy?
(a) Innovation
(b) Cost-cutting
(c) High levels of competition
(d) Value creation
Q16. Which of the following best describes a "Blue Ocean" strategy?
(a) Competing in highly saturated and competitive markets
(b) Identifying and creating uncontested market spaces
(c) Reducing production costs to gain a price advantage
(d) Partnering with competitors to share resources
Q17. Which strategy is more likely to lead to sustainable competitive advantage?
(a) Red Ocean strategy
(b) Blue Ocean strategy
(c) Combination of both
(d) Neither
Q18. Which of the following best describes a vision statement?
(a) It details the day-to-day operations of an organization.
(b) It sets specific, measurable goals for the company.
(c) It outlines the organization's long-term aspirations and goals.
 (d) It focuses on the organization's financial performance.
Q19. What is the primary focus of "goals" in an organizational context?
(a) Providing a sense of purpose
(b) Setting the ultimate mission
(c) Defining the organization's values
(d) Establishing specific, measurable targets
Q20. What does the "Learning & Growth" perspective of the Balanced Scorecard mainly emphasize?
(a) Employee training and development
(b) Customer satisfaction
(c) Financial stability
(d) Market share
Q21. What is a balanced scorecard used for in strategic management?
(a) To measure financial performance only
(b) To evaluate employee performance
(c) To track and manage performance in multiple areas
(d) To assess competitors' strengths and weaknesses
Q22. What is the primary focus of an organization's goals and objectives?
(a) Communicating the company's values and beliefs.
(b) Defining the long-term purpose and aspirations.
(c) Providing specific targets and directions for the organization.
(d) Establishing a flexible and adaptable framework for the future.
Q23. Which of the following best describes the difference between a goal and an objective?
(a) Goals are long-term and broad, while objectives are specific, short-term targets.
(b) Goals are specific, short-term targets, while objectives are long-term and broad.
(c) Goals and objectives are synonymous and can be used interchangeably.
(d) Goals are the same as a vision, while objectives are related to the mission.
Q24. Mission statement’s primary purpose is?
(a) To outline long-term financial goals
(b) To provide a roadmap for achieving short-term objectives
(c) To communicate the organization's purpose and values
(d) To describe the products and services offered
Q25. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective mission statement?
(a) It is easy to understand.
(b) It is revised frequently to adapt to market changes.
(c) It reflects the organization's core values.
(d) It provides guidance for decision-making and strategy.
Q26. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a well-defined objective?
(a) Specific
(b) Measurable
(c) Ambiguous
 (d) Time-bound
Q27. What are the issue to be kept in mind while setting objectives?
(a) Specificity and Multiplicity
(b) Periodicity and verifiability
(c) Reality and Quality
(d) All of the above
Q28. Organisation culture is
(a) appreciation for the arts in the organisation.
(b) ability of the organization to act in a responsible manner to its employees.
(c) combination of (a) and (b) above
(d) basic ideology and beliefs that are shared by the members of the firm.
Q29. What is the main objective of strategic leadership?
(a) Maximizing short-term profits
(b) Implementing tactical plans
(c) Aligning the organization with its strategic goals
(d) Reducing employee turnover
Q30. How can organizational genomics benefit businesses?
(a) By providing insights into employee morale and motivation
(b) By predicting the financial performance of a company
(c) By helping organizations design more inclusive products
(d) By offering a tool for selecting the most genetically diverse workforce
Q31. In the context of communication, what does "downward communication" refer to?
(a) Communication between peers
(b) Communication from lower-level employees to top management
(c) Communication from top management to lower-level employees
(d) Communication between departments
Q32. What is the primary purpose of communication in an organization?
(a) To share personal opinions
(b) To facilitate understanding and achieve common goals
(c) To control and manipulate employees
(d) To create confusion
Q33. How can a supportive work environment contribute to employees' self-worth?
(a) By giving them more work
(b) By recognizing and valuing their contributions
(c) By enforcing strict rules and regulations
(d) By promoting competition among employees
Q34. Self-worth is solely determined by an employee's salary and job title.
(a) True (b) False
Q35. Incorrect self-estimation can result from underestimating people in?
(a) lower qualification
 (b) People hold high opinion on themselves which is not based on facts
(c) who feels inferior
(d) All of the above
Q36. Which of the following best describes a strategic leader?
(a) Someone who solely focuses on executing tactical plans
(b) A leader who adapts to changing circumstances without a long-term vision
(c) A leader who formulates a clear vision and strategy for an organization's future
(d) A leader who only manages the daily tasks of a team
Q37. What quality is necessary for a strategic leader in building and maintaining strong relationships
with stakeholders?
(a) Transparency (b) Secrecy
(c) Impersonal communication (d) Isolation
Q38. Which one of the following is NOT part of the McKinsey’s 7-5 framework?
(a) Skills
(b) Staff
(c) Systems
(d) Supervision
Q39. Which of the following is NOT one of the four core components of emotional intelligence, as
defined by Daniel Goleman?
(a) Self-awareness (b) Self-Regulation
(c) Self- Esteem (d) Empathy
Q40. Which component of emotional intelligence involves recognizing and understanding one's own
emotions and their impact on behavior?
(a) Self-awareness (b) Self-regulation (c) Motivation (d) Social skills
Q41. Empathy, compassion, and the ability to understand the emotions of others are associated with
which component of emotional intelligence?
(a) Self-awareness (b) Self-regulation
(c) Social awareness (d) Relationship management
Q42. What is the primary goal of organizational change management?
(a) To maintain the status quo
(b) To maximize short-term profits
(c) To facilitate successful transitions within the organization
(d) To increase employee turnover
Q43. Which phase in the ADKAR model for change management focuses on the importance of
reinforcing the new behaviors and sustaining the change?
(a) Awareness (b) Desire
(c) Knowledge (d) Reinforcement
Q44. Which of the following is an example of a SMART objective?
(a) "Increase revenue by any means necessary."
(b) "Improve customer satisfaction by 10% within the next year."
(c) "Become the market leader."
 (d) "Hire more employees."
Q45. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the FAST approach?
(a) Making objectives complicated and difficult to achieve
(b) Simplifying and clarifying objectives for better execution
(c) Increasing the number of objectives in a project
(d) Allowing for objectives to change frequently
Q46. What is the EVA formula commonly expressed as?
(a) EVA = NOPAT - (WACC x Invested Capital)
(b) EVA = Revenue - Expenses
(c) EVA = Net Income / Total Assets
(d) EVA = Earnings Before Interest and Taxes
Answers:

Q1. C Q2. D Q3. C Q4. C Q5. A Q6. B

Q7. C Q8. B Q9. C Q10. B Q11. B Q12. D
Q13. B Q14. B Q15. C Q16. B Q17. B Q18. C
Q19. D Q20. A Q21. C Q22. C Q23. A Q24. C
Q25. B Q26. C Q27. D Q28. D Q29. C Q30. A
Q31. C Q32. B Q33. B Q34. B Q35. B Q36. C
Q37. A Q38. D Q39. C Q40. A Q41. D
Q42. C Q43. D Q44. B Q45. B Q46. A
 2. Strategic Analysis & Strategic Planning
Q1. The analysis of a company's internal strengths & weaknesses is part of which strategic analysis
tool?
(a) PESTEL analysis (b) SWOT analysis
(c) Porter's Five Forces (d) Industry benchmarking
Q2. Which of the following is NOT a part of the macro-environment in a PESTEL analysis?
(a) Political factors (b) Economic factors
(c) Technological factors (d) Organizational culture
Q3. Which of the following is NOT a component of the internal business environment?
(a) Organizational culture (b) Competitors
(c) Suppliers (d) Economic conditions
Q4. Which of the following is a key element of the competitive forces analyzed in Porter's Five
Forces model?
(a)Supplier power (b) Technological advancements
(c) Government regulations (d) Economic growth
Q5. Which characteristic of the business environment refers to the continuous & rapid changes that
occur?
(a) Stability (b) Predictability (c) Dynamism (d) Isolation E) Reliability
Q6. PESTEL analysis is primarily used for:
(a) Internal assessment of an organization.
(b) Identifying micro-environmental factors.
(c) Analyzing the external macro-environmental factors.
(d) Financial forecasting.
Q7. In the context of PESTEL analysis, what does "legal" refer to?
(a) The organization's internal policies and procedures
(b) Government regulations and laws that can impact the organization
(c) The organization's financial statements
(d) Industry standards and best practices
Q8. Which of the following best defines an industry?
(a) A group of businesses that produce similar goods or services
(b) A specific company that operates in a particular market
(c) The financial market where stocks and bonds are traded
(d) The government agency responsible for regulating businesses
Q9. What is the primary difference between an industry and a sector?
(a) They are synonymous terms
(b) Sectors are broader categories, while industries are specific subsets within sectors
(c) Industries are broader categories, while sectors are specific subsets within industries
(d) There is no significant difference between them
Q10. Which of the following is NOT a primary activity in the value chain?
(a) Inbound logistics (b) Marketing and sales
(c) Procurement (d) Service
Q11. In the value chain, which of the following is considered a support activity?
(a) Inbound logistics (b) Operations
(c) Human resource management (d) Outbound logistics
Q12. High buyer power in an industry implies:
(a) Increased profitability for existing firms.
(b) Reduced competition.
(c) Lower prices and better terms for buyers.
(d) Greater ease of entering the market.
(e) More bargaining power for suppliers.
Q13. In Porter's Five Forces framework, "Threat of New Entrants" refers to:
(a) The power of suppliers to increase prices.
(b) The power of existing competitors in the industry.
(c) The likelihood of new competitors entering the market.
(d) The bargaining power of buyers.
(e) The impact of substitute products.
Q14. A resource that is both valuable and rare but lacks the capability to be organized and exploited
is classified as:
(a) Valuable (b)Rare (c) Inimitable (d) Non-substitutable
Q15. In the VRIO framework, the "V" stands for:
(a) Value (b) Vision (c) Vitality (d) Venture
Q16. Which part of SWOT analysis involves assessing external factors that may negatively impact the
organization?
(a) Strengths (b) Weaknesses (c) Opportunities (d) Threats
Q17. SWOT analysis is primarily used for:
(a) Identifying organizational goals
(b) Evaluating a company's internal and external environment
(c) Creating marketing strategies
(d) Financial forecasting
Q18. In the BCG Matrix, which axis represents the market growth rate?
(a) X-axis (b) Y-axis (c) Z-axis (d) None
Q19. Decentralized planning typically involves:
(a) Centralized decision-making
(b) Top-down control
(c) Local or regional decision-making
(d) No planning at all
Q20. Which of the following represents a "Question Mark" in the BCG Matrix?
(a) Low market share, high market growth
 (b) High market share, low market growth
(c) Low market share, low market growth
(d) High market share, high market growth
Q21. Which strategic approach is often recommended for "Stars" in the BCG Matrix?
(a) Divest
(b) Harvest
(c) Build and invest for future growth
(d) Maintain and protect market share
Q22. Which of the following is NOT a typical step in the strategic planning process?
(a) Environmental analysis
(b) Setting short-term goals
(c) SWOT analysis
(d) Strategy formulation
Q23. What is the first step in the strategic planning process?
(a) Implementation (b) Evaluation (c) Formulation (d) Monitoring
Q24. Which of the following best describes "strategic alternatives" in strategic planning?
(a) Different approaches or courses of action that can help achieve strategic goals
(b) A single, rigid plan that must be followed without deviation
(c) Unrelated ideas that should be ignored
(d) The current strategy only
Q25. What are Critical Success Factors (CSFs)?
(a) Key performance indicators
(b) Factors essential for achieving organizational goals
(c) Random variables affecting success
(d) Metrics used to evaluate employee performance
Q26. Which of the following is not a common factor to consider when identifying CSFs in a healthcare
organization?
(a) Patient satisfaction
(b) Regulatory compliance
(c) Employee cafeteria menu
(d) Quality of medical services
Q27. The BCG Matrix classifies products or business units into four categories: Stars, Question Marks,
Cash Cows, and ___________.
(a) Dogs (b) Turtles (c) Leopards (d) Pioneers
Q28. In the context of strategic analysis, what does the acronym VRIO stand for when assessing the
value of an organization's resources and capabilities?
(a) Valuable, Rare, Imitable, Organized
(b) Vision, Resources, Innovation, Objectives
(c) Vital, Robust, Influential, Opportunities
(d) Variable, Risky, Integrated, Outcomes
Q29. What does the BCG matrix help organizations assess?
 (a) Market segmentation (b) Product life cycle
(c) Competitive pricing (d) Marketing channels
Q30. Which step is typically the final stage in the strategic planning process?
(a) Formulating strategies
(b) Setting objectives
(c) Monitoring and adapting
(d) Environmental analysis
Q31. In Porter's Five Forces framework, a high level of rivalry among existing competitors is most
likely to occur when:
(a) There are few competitors in the industry
(b) The industry is experiencing rapid growth
(c) There are high barriers to entry
(d) Products are highly differentiated
(e) There is excess capacity in the industry
Q32. In the context of the Value Chain analysis, the "outbound logistics" function primarily deals
with:
(a) Sourcing and acquiring raw materials.
(b) Manufacturing and production processes.
(c) Delivering finished products to customers.
(d) Managing relationships with suppliers.
Q33. Which of the following is an example of a "Strength" in a SWOT analysis?
(a) A new competitor entering the market
(b) Skilled and experienced employees
(c) Economic downturn in the industry
(d) Government regulations
Q34. PESTEL Analysis: Which of the following is an example of a factor that falls under the "E"
(Economic) in PESTEL analysis?
(a) Changing consumer preferences
(b) Government regulations
(c) Inflation rates
(d) Demographic trends
Q35. Which of the following is false regarding why a SWOT Analysis is used?
(a) To build on the strengths of a business
(b) To minimize the weaknesses of a business
(c) To reduce opportunities available to a business
(d) To counteract threats to a business
Q36. Which of the following could be a threat?
(a) Changes in technology
(b) A market vacated by an ineffective competitor
(c) Location of your business
(d) Lack of marketing expertise
Q37. What is the primary goal of scenario planning?
(a) Predicting the future with certainty
(b) Preparing for a range of possible futures
(c) Controlling all external factors
(d) Ignoring potential risks
Q38. What is the primary goal of using decision matrices in the decision-making process?
(a) To eliminate the need for critical thinking
(b) To make decisions quickly without considering options
(c) To systematically evaluate and compare different alternatives
(d) To rely solely on intuition and gut feelings
Q39. In a SWOT analysis, strengths and weaknesses are external factors. True or false?
(a) True (b) False
Q40. Which of the following is NOT an example of a political risk?
(a) Government regulations (b) Cost of production
(c) War (d) Civil unrest
Q41. In a highly regulated industry, exit barriers can be increased by:
(a) Frequent product innovation
(b) Government permits and licenses
(c) Low customer switching costs
(d) Strong competitive rivalry
Q42. Which of the following is NOT considered a common exit barrier?
(a) Customer loyalty programs
(b) High debt levels
(c) Inflexible manufacturing processes
(d) Diversification of product lines
Q43. What is one of the main challenges when identifying strengths in a SWOT analysis?
(a) Limited access to relevant data
(b) Lack of external opportunities
(c) Difficulty in assessing weaknesses
(d) Overemphasis on past achievements
Q44. Can a product move from one BCG Matrix category to another over time?
(a) No, the categories are fixed.
(b) Yes, based on changes in market share and market growth.
(c) Yes, but only if the company invests heavily.
(d) No, products remain in the same category forever
Q45. Example: An old, outdated product in a declining market, such as a flip phone in the modern
smartphone era, would most likely be classified as a:
(a) Star (b) Cash Cow (c) Question Mark (d) Dog
Q46. Which of the following best describes "Cash Cows" in the BCG Matrix?
(a) Products with low market share in a highgrowth market
 (b) Products with high market share in a lowgrowth market
(c) Products with high market share in a highgrowth market
(d) Products with low market share in a lowgrowth market

Answers:
Q1. B Q2. D Q3. D Q4. A Q5. C Q6. C
Q7. B Q8. A Q9. B Q10. D Q11. C Q12. C
Q13. C Q14. C Q15. A Q16. D Q17. B Q18. A
Q19. C Q20. A Q21. C Q22. B Q23. C Q24. A
Q25. B Q26. C Q27. A Q28. A Q29. B Q30. C
Q31. E Q32. C Q33. B Q34. C Q35. C Q36. A
Q37. B Q38. C Q39. B Q40. B Q41. B
Q42. C Q43. A Q44. B Q45. D Q46. B
 3. Formulation & Implementation of Strategy
Q1. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of goal congruence?
a) Financial performance b) Employee satisfaction c) Customer loyalty d) Market share
Q2. What is the primary goal of production strategy?
a) Maximizing profits
b) Minimizing costs
c) Meeting customer demand efficiently
d) Expanding market share
Q3. Just-in-Time (JIT) manufacturing is a strategy aimed at:
a) Maximizing inventory levels
b) Reducing lead times and waste
c) Increasing batch production
d) Expanding production capacity
Q4. Which of the following is NOT a key consideration when formulating a supply chain strategy?
a) Supplier selection
b) Cost reduction
c) Risk management
d) Employee training
Q5. Which supply chain strategy aims to minimize inventory levels by producing goods just in time
for consumption?
a) Lean supply chain
b) Agile supply chain
c) Efficient supply chain
d) Sustainable supply chain
Q6. Which supply chain strategy focuses on minimizing inventory levels by ordering only when
demand is confirmed?
a) Push strategy
b) Pull strategy
c) Just-in-time strategy
d) Vendor-managed inventory
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a common reason for customers to defect to a competitor?
a) Better pricing
b) Improved product quality
c) Poor customer service
d) Frequent loyalty rewards
Q8. What does the term "defection rate" refer to in marketing strategy?
a) The number of new customers acquired in a given period
b) The rate at which customers switch to a competitor's products or services
c) The percentage of marketing budget allocated to customer retention
 d) The total revenue generated from a marketing campaign
Q9. Which organizational structure is characterized by a clear hierarchy and well-defined roles and
responsibilities?
a) Matrix structure
b) Flat structure
c) Functional structure
d) Network structure
Q10. What is the primary characteristic of a functional structure in an organization?
a) Decentralized decision-making
b) Project-based teams
c) Division of the organization by specialized functions
d) Matrix reporting relationships
Q11. What is a common drawback of a functional structure?
a) Lack of specialization
b) Slow decision-making due to bureaucracy
c) Difficulty in sharing resources and expertise
d) Overemphasis on customer-centric roles
Q12. Which of the following organizational structures is most likely to have separate, specialized
departments for functions such as marketing, finance, and production?
a) Functional structure
b) Matrix structure
c) Divisional structure
d) Team-based structure
Q13. Which of the following is a potential advantage of a functional structure?
a) Enhanced coordination and communication
b) Quick response to changes in the external environment
c) Strong focus on customer needs
d) High degree of flexibility
Q14. One of the disadvantages of a functional structure is:
a) Clear lines of authority and responsibility
b) Efficient allocation of resources
c) Limited specialization and expertise
d) Rapid decision-making
Q15. What is the primary purpose of implementing a multidivisional structure in an organization?
a) To centralize decision-making
b) To reduce operational costs
c) To improve coordination and control
d) To promote employee empowerment
Q16. In a multidivisional structure, divisions are often organized based on:
a) Geographic regions
b) Product lines or business units
 c) Employee seniority
d) Functional departments
Q17. The concept of "divisional autonomy" in a multidivisional structure means that:
a) Divisions have complete independence and do not report to the corporate headquarters
b) Divisions have limited authority and must always consult with the corporate headquarters
c) Divisions have a degree of independence but still report to the corporate headquarters
d) Divisions have no decision-making power and are purely administrative units
Q18. The top-level management in a multidivisional structure is responsible for:
a) Managing day-to-day operations of each division
b) Setting overall company strategy and policies
c) Supervising functional departments
d) Implementing division-specific strategies
Q19. Which type of organization is most likely to adopt a multidivisional structure?
a) Small startup companies
b) Government agencies
c) Large, diversified corporations
d) Non-profit organizations
Q20. What is the primary challenge associated with a multidivisional structure?
a) Limited accountability
b) Complex decision-making
c) Lack of specialization
d) Reduced flexibility
Q21. What is a matrix structure in organizational design?
a) A structure that divides the organization into multiple geographic regions
b) A structure where employees report to multiple managers simultaneously
c) A structure where all decisions are made by a central authority
d) A structure that eliminates hierarchy in the organization
Q22. Which of the following is an advantage of a matrix structure?
a) Clear and simple communication lines
b) Efficient decision-making due to reduced complexity
c) Enhanced specialization and functional expertise
d) Improved flexibility and adaptability
Q23. What is a major challenge associated with the matrix structure?
a) Lack of clarity in reporting relationships
b) Fast decision-making due to streamlined processes
c) Limited opportunities for collaboration and teamwork
d) Reduced workload for employees
Q24. In a strong matrix structure, which group typically has more authority and power?
a) Functional managers
b) Project managers
 c) Middle managers
d) Top-level executives
Q25. Which of the following is a characteristic of a transnational organization?
a) Centralized decision-making
b) Focused exclusively on local markets
c) Integration of operations across borders
d) Limited cultural diversity among employees

Q26. Which of the following is a key challenge in implementing a transnational structure?

a) Consistency in local market adaptation
b) Strong alignment with domestic regulations
c) Minimal need for cross-cultural training
d) Isolation of global and local operations
Q27. What is a primary reason for organizations to adopt a transnational structure?
a) Lowering operational costs
b) Maximizing local autonomy
c) Leveraging global synergies
d) Simplifying organizational structure
Q28. Which characteristic of a transnational structure helps it adapt to local market conditions while
maintaining global consistency?
a) Standardized products and services
b) Strict control from headquarters
c) Decentralized decision-making
d) Ignoring local market conditions
Q29. What is a project-based structure primarily characterized by?
a) Functional departments
b) Division by products
c) Temporary teams
d) Geographical locations
Q30. What type of organization structure is most likely to have a project manager for each project?
a) Matrix organization
b) Functional organization
c) Divisional organization
d) Network organization
Q31. What is the primary advantage of a project-based structure?
a) Efficient use of resources
b) Strong functional expertise
c) Adaptability to changing needs
d) Centralized decision-making
Q32. Which of the following is not a common organizational structure?
 a) Functional b) Matrix c) Hierarchical d) Chaotic
Q33. What is the key advantage of a decentralized organizational design?
a) Improved coordination b) Enhanced control
c) Faster decision-making d) Greater specialization
Q34. What is a Strategic Business Unit (SBU)?
a) A separate legal entity within a corporation
b) A functional department within a corporation
c) A profit center within a corporation
d) A marketing campaign within a corporation
Q35. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an SBU?
a) It has its own set of competitors
b) It operates independently of the parent company
c) It has its own strategic goals and objectives
d) It contributes to the overall performance of the corporation
Q36. Which strategic management framework involves analyzing the internal and external factors
that impact an SBU's performance and competitiveness?
a) SWOT analysis b) PESTEL analysis c) BCG Matrix d) Ansoff Matrix
Q37. Which of the following is a challenge in managing multiple SBUs within a corporation?
a) Lack of diversification
b) Difficulty in monitoring performance
c) Reduced competition among SBUs
d) Limited potential for synergy
Q38. SBUs are often used in:
a) Small startups
b) Multinational corporations
c) Government agencies
d) Non-profit organizations
Q39. Which of the following is NOT a common reason for a company to divest or exit an SBU?
a) Poor financial performance
b) Lack of strategic fit
c) High market share
d) Changes in market conditions
Q40. Which of the following is a key step in business process engineering?
a) Maintaining the status quo
b) Identifying bottlenecks and inefficiencies
c) Avoiding technology adoption
d) Ignoring customer feedback
Q41. In business process engineering, what does "BPR" stand for?
a) Business Process Reorganization
b) Business Process Review
 c) Business Process Redundancy
d) Business Process Reengineering
Q42. Which factor is often a concern in business process engineering?
a) Employee satisfaction
b) Stagnant technology
c) Resistance to change
d) Inflexible regulations
Q43. What is the primary focus of management control?
a) Day-to-day operations
b) Long-term strategic planning
c) Employee performance evaluation
d) Financial reporting and compliance
Q44. Operational control is mainly concerned with:
a) Setting organizational goals
b) Controlling routine processes and activities
c) Monitoring the external business environment
d) Analyzing financial statements
Q45. Task control is most closely associated with:
a) Top-level management
b) Middle-level management
c) Supervisors and front-line managers
d) External stakeholders
Q46. Which type of control involves setting performance standards and measuring actual
performance to ensure that tasks are completed as planned?
a) Management control
b) Operational control
c) Task control
d) Strategic control
Q47. In management control, the focus is on:
a) Monitoring employee performance
b) Achieving long-term strategic objectives
c) Daily decision-making by front-line employees
d) Adhering to ethical standards
Q48. Task control is crucial for ensuring:
a) Efficient allocation of resources
b) Strategic planning and goal setting
c) Compliance with industry regulations
d) Proper execution of specific activities and tasks
Q49. Which type of control is most concerned with the overall direction and success of the
organization?
a) Operational control
 b) Task control
c) Strategic control
d) Management control
Q50. What is the primary purpose of an open-loop control system?
a) To provide feedback for system adjustment
b) To maintain a desired output regardless of disturbances
c) To make real-time adjustments to maintain a desired output
d) To measure and compare the output to the desired value
Q51. Which of the following is not a component of strategic control?
a) Premise control
b) Implementation control
c) Financial control
d) Operational control
Q52. Strategic surveillance is primarily concerned with:
a) Monitoring the daily activities of employees
b) Keeping track of competitors and market trends
c) Budgeting and financial reporting
d) Measuring employee performance
Q53. In the context of operation control, what does "KPI" stand for?
a) Key Performance Indicator
b) Key Process Improvement
c) Key Personnel Investment
d) Key Project Implementation
Q54. What does KRA stand for?
a) Key Responsibility Area
b) Key Result Area
c) Key Performance Area
d) Key Achievement Responsibility
Q55. Which of the following best describes a KRA?
a) Specific and measurable goals that an employee must achieve.
b) A list of daily tasks and routines.
c) A general job description.
d) A list of company policies.
Q56. What is the primary purpose of identifying KRAs in an organization?
a) To increase employee workload.
b) To assign blame for underperformance.
c) To provide a clear direction for employees and set expectations.
d) To create unnecessary bureaucracy.
Q57. How do KPAs differ from KRAs?
a) KPAs are broader areas of responsibility, while KRAs are specific, measurable goals.
 b) KPAs are individual tasks, while KRAs are organizational objectives.
c) KPAs are always related to financial performance, while KRAs focus on customer satisfaction.
d) KPAs are synonymous with KRAs, and there is no difference.
Q58. What is the key benefit of using KPIs in business?
a) Identifying weaknesses and areas for improvement
b) Increasing competition among employees
c) Reducing the need for strategic planning
d) Enhancing workplace moral

Answers:
Q1. B Q2. C Q3. B Q4. D Q5. A Q6. B
Q7. B Q8. B Q9. C Q10. C Q11. B Q12. A
Q13. A Q14. C Q15. C Q16. B Q17. C Q18. B
Q19. C Q20. B Q21. B Q22. D Q23. A Q24. B
Q25. C Q26. A Q27. C Q28. C Q29. C Q30. A
Q31. C Q32. D Q33. C Q34. C Q35. B Q36. A
Q37. B Q38. B Q39. C Q40. B Q41. D Q42. C
Q43. A Q44. B Q45. C Q46. C Q47. B Q48. D
Q49. C Q50. B Q51. D Q52. B Q53. A Q54. B
Q55. A Q56. C Q57. A Q58. A
 4. Digital Strategy
Q1. What is digital transformation?
a) Converting analog data to digital data
b) Using digital tools and technologies to change business processes
c)Automating all business operations
d) Upgrading computer hardware
Q2. Which of the following is NOT a primary driver of digital transformation?
a) Improved customer experience
b) Cost reduction
c) Regulatory compliance
d) Increased paper usage
Q3. What is digital transformation?
a) The process of converting physical products into digital ones
b) The integration of digital technologies into various aspects of an organization
c) The replacement of humans with robots in the workplace
d) The transition from analog to digital communication
Q4. What is the primary goal of a digital strategy?
a) To completely replace traditional business operations with digital ones.
b) To generate as much revenue as possible.
c) To use digital technologies to achieve specific business objectives.
d) To create a separate digital business unit within the organization.
Q5. Which of the following is an example of a digital strategy component?
a) Company culture
b) Product pricing
c) Social media marketing
d) Traditional advertising
Q6. Why is digital transformation important for gaining a competitive advantage?
a) It reduces the need for skilled employees
b) It allows businesses to maintain the status quo
c) It improves efficiency, customer experience, and innovation
d) It doesn't have any impact on a company's competitive advantage
Q7. Which technology is a fundamental enabler of the Internet of Things (IoT) and digital
transformation?
a) 3D printing
b) Artificial intelligence
c) Blockchain
d) Virtual reality
Q8. What is the primary goal of artificial intelligence (AI)?
a) To mimic human intelligence
b) To perform tasks faster than humans
 c) To automate all human jobs
d) To create intelligent robots
Q9. What does the acronym "ML" stand for in the context of AI?
a) Machine Language
b) Memory Learning
c) Machine Learning
d) Mechanized Logic
Q10. What type of learning is characterized by a machine learning from its own experiences?
a) Supervised learning
b) Unsupervised learning
c) Reinforcement learning
d) Semi-supervised learning
Q11. What does the term "Deep Learning" refer to in AI?
a) AI algorithms that are difficult to implement
b) Machine learning models with a large number of layers
c) Learning AI in a deep, reflective way
d) AI for underwater exploration
Q12. What is a blockchain?
a) A digital currency
b) A decentralized ledger technology
c) A centralized database
d) A type of cryptographic algorithm
Q13. Which of the following is not a key characteristic of blockchain technology?
a) Decentralization b) Transparency c) Anonymity d) Immutability
Q14. What is the purpose of a "smart contract" in a blockchain?
a) To execute legal agreements b) To mine cryptocurrency
c) To record financial transactions d) To maintain network security
Q15. What does RPA stand for?
a) Robotic Personal Assistance b) Robotic Process Automation
c) Robotic Programming Algorithm d) Robotic System Analysis
Q16. What is a "bot" in the context of RPA?
a) A small robot used in manufacturing
b) A software application that automates tasks
c) A human employee working with robots
d) A type of data visualization tool
Q17. What is a key benefit of RPA in business processes?
a) Reduced human error b) Increased employee workload
c) Higher operational costs d) Slower task execution
Q18. What does IoT stand for?
a) Internet of Technology b) Internet of Things
 c) Internet of Thinking d) Internet of Telecommunication
Q19. Which of the following best describes the Internet of Things?
a) A network of physical devices connected to the internet
b) A virtual world created using the internet
c) A type of social media platform
d) A new programming language
Q20. IoT devices can include:
a) Only smartphones and tablets
b) Any device with internet access
c) Only laptops and desktop computers
d) Only servers and mainframes
Q21. What type of digital marketing strategy focuses on optimizing a website to improve its
visibility in search engine results?
a) Social Media Marketing
b) Content Marketing
c) Search Engine Optimization (SEO)
d) Email Marketing
Q22. Which digital marketing strategy involves creating and sharing valuable content to attract and
engage a target audience?
a) Affiliate Marketing
b) Pay-Per-Click (PPC) Advertising
c) Content Marketing
d) Influencer Marketing
Q23. In which digital marketing strategy do you pay for advertising space based on the number of
clicks your ad receives?
a) Affiliate Marketing
b) Content Marketing
c) Pay-Per-Click (PPC) Advertising
d) Email Marketing
Q24. Which digital marketing strategy leverages social media platforms to connect with an audience
and build brand awareness?
a) Content Marketing
b) Search Engine Optimization (SEO)
c) Social Media Marketing
d) Affiliate Marketing
Q25. Which digital marketing strategy relies on individuals or influencers to promote a product or
service to their followers?
a) Affiliate Marketing
b) Pay-Per-Click (PPC) Advertising
c) Content Marketing
d) Influencer Marketing
Q26. Which digital marketing strategy focuses on creating and distributing video content online to
reach and engage an audience?
a) Video Marketing
b) Content Marketing
c) Email Marketing
d) Affiliate Marketing
Q27. What is Big Data?
a) Data that is physically large in size
b) Data that cannot be processed by a single computer
c) Data that is unstructured and messy
d) Data that is stored in a single database
Q28. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 V's of Big Data?
a) Volume b) Velocity c) Viscosity d) Variety
Q29. What are the three primary characteristics of Big Data, often referred to as the 3 V's?
a) Volume, Velocity, and Validation
b) Variety, Velocity, and Volatility
c) Variety, Volume, and Velocity
d) Validity, Variety, and Volume
Q30. What is cloud computing?
a) A type of weather forecasting technology
b) A way to store data on local servers
c) A method of delivering computing services over the internet
d) A type of virtual reality technology
Q31. Which cloud computing deployment model offers the highest level of control and
customization?
a) Public Cloud b) Private Cloud c) Hybrid Cloud d) Community Cloud
Q32. What is the primary advantage of using a public cloud service?
a) Complete control over infrastructure b) Lower cost and scalability
c) High level of security and privacy d) Dedicated resources for a single organization
Q33. Which of the following is a key advantage of cloud computing?
a) Limited scalability b) High upfront infrastructure costs
c) Pay-as-you-go pricing d) Complex and time-consuming deployment
Q34. What is one of the benefits of cloud computing for businesses?
a) Reduced data security b) Decreased flexibility
c) Global accessibility d) Increased hardware maintenance
Q35. Which of the following is not a cloud service model?
a) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) b) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
c) Software as a Service (SaaS) d) Local Area Network (LAN)
Q36. Which cloud service model allows developers to build and deploy applications without
managing the underlying infrastructure?
 a) IaaS b) PaaS c) SaaS d) On-premises hosting
Q37. What is the primary characteristic of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?
a) On-demand access to software applications
b) On-demand access to virtualized hardware resources
c) On-demand access to pre-configured software services
d) On-demand access to network infrastructure
Q38. Which cloud service model provides a complete platform for developers to build, deploy, and
manage applications?
a) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
b) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
c) Software as a Service (SaaS)
d) Function as a Service (FaaS)
Q39. Which cloud service model offers end-users access to software applications via the internet?
a) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
b) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
c) Software as a Service (SaaS)
d) Function as a Service (FaaS)
Q40. What is a key advantage of cloud computing in terms of scalability?
a) It requires significant capital investment to scale up.
b) It can automatically adjust resources up or down as needed.
c) It is limited by the physical capacity of on-premises servers.
d) It requires manual intervention for any changes in resources.
Q41. What is a potential disadvantage of cloud computing?
a) Cost savings b) Security concerns
c) Increased performance d) Easier scalability

Answers:
Q1. B Q2. D Q3. B Q4. C Q5. C Q6. C
Q7. B Q8. A Q9. C Q10. C Q11. B Q12. B
Q13. C Q14. A Q15. B Q16. B Q17. A Q18. B
Q19. A Q20. B Q21. C Q22. C Q23. C Q24. C
Q25. D Q26. A Q27. C Q28. C Q29. C Q30. C
Q31. B Q32. B Q33. C Q34. C Q35. D Q36. B
Q37. B Q38. B Q39. C Q40. B Q41. B