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QUESTION PAPER

M.M:60 Time: 60 minutes

OFFLINE EXAMINATION (PHASE–II)

CLASS - IX

Name:________________________ Reg. No. _______________ Mobile No.________________________

General Instructions:
1. Duration of the examination is 60 minutes. Question Paper contains 60 questions with maximum 60
marks.
2. There will be negative marking in Phase – II, i.e. ¼ mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer.
3. Use of gadgets is not allowed.
4. Students must abide by the instructions issued during the examination by the invigilator or the
centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all pages & no question is missing.
6. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet and OMR with BLACK ballpoint
pen only. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
7. Fill and darken the bubbles completely. Do not put a tick or a cross.
8. Half –filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software & liable to be rejected.

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Choose the correct option:-

Q1. A person without kind feeling and sympathy _______________.
(a) Caricature (b) Cacophony (c) Cache (d) Callous
Q2. Which part of the sentence in the given options has an error? Choose option (d) if
you don9t find any error.
(a) Katherine is fine now. (b) She no longer has to worry
(c) and she need not to take this medicine. (d) No error
Q3. Julius Caesar but not his followers __________ assassinated.
(a) are (b) has been (c) have been (d) was been
Q4. By next Monday, he _____________ staying at my uncle9s house for three weeks.
(a) will have (b) will have been (c) shall have (d) shall have been
Q5. I swore allegiance to the crown. (Find the figure of speech).
(a) Simile (b) Metaphor (c) Paradox (d) Metonymy
Q6. Akash said to Jim, <You did not take my book, did you?=
(Choose the indirect speech).
(a) Akash asked Jim that he had not taken my book did he.
(b) Akash asked Jim if he had taken his book.
(c) Akash asked Jim if he had not taken his book.
(d) Akash asked Jim if he had taken his book, had he?
Q7. 8Fall in with9 means ______________.
(a) quarrel (b) agree (c) disagree (d) cheat
Q8. She came in ___________ an English song.
(a) sing (b) sang (c) singing (d) sings
Q9. He went to ________ campus which is ___________ USA based university.
(a) a, an (b) the, the (c) a, the (d) the, a

Q10. Had our flights been on time, we _____________ reached by now.

(a) could have (b) would have (c) might have (d) need to

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Q11. A field is in shape of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 50 m & 15 m. The
non-parallel sides are 20 m & 25 m. Find the area of trapezium.
ĀĂÿ:ą ĀĂÿÿ:ą ĀĂÿÿÿ ĀĂ
(a) �㔦ā (b) �㔦ā (c) :ą ÿā (d) :ą �㔦ā
Ć Ć Ć Ć
Q12. Three cubes of metal whose edges are 3 cm, 5 cm and 8 cm respectively are melted
& formed into a single cube. If there be no loss of metal in process then surface
area of new cube so formed is –
Ā ā ā ā
(a) ą(ąąă)Ă �㖄ÿā (b) ą(Ąăă)Ă �㖄ÿā (c) ą(ąąă)Ă �㖄ÿā (d) ą(ĆĆă)Ă �㖄ÿā
Q13. If area of base of a cone is 770 cm2 and curved surface area is 814 cm2, then its
volume is:–
ąĀą
(a) ąĀą:Ą �㖄ÿĂ (b) �㖄ÿĂ (c) ąĀą:Ă �㖄ÿĂ (d) ąĀą:ā �㖄ÿĂ
:Ą

Q14. The sum of all the relative frequencies in a sample is equal to:–
(a) the sample size (b) one (c) infinity (d) none of these
Q15. In the given figure, ABCD and EFGH are two congruent squares and
∠�㕫�㕷�㕭 = Ĉÿā . If BD = 20 cm, then find the perimeter of &�㕷�㕫�㕭.

(a) 100 + 30:2 (b) 50 + 30:2 (c) 50 + 50:2 (d) 100 + 50:2
Q16. In the given figure, G is a point on the circle is the centroid of ΔOAB. Find the

ratio of areas of circle to the area of equilateral ΔOAB.

(a) 44 ∶ 7:3 (b) 88 ∶ 7:3 (c) 88 ∶ 21:3 (d) 44 ∶ 21:3

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Q17. If P, Q, R are the mid points of sides AB, AC & BC of ΔABC respectively. U, V, W
are the mid points of sides PQ, PR and QR of ΔPQR respectively. X, Y, Z are the
mid points of sides UV, UW and VW of ΔUVW respectively, then:–

1 1
(a) ar Δ XYZ = ar (ΔABC) (b) ar (Δ XYZ) = ar (ΔABC)
16 64

1 1
(c) ar Δ XYZ = ar (ΔABC) (d) ar (Δ XYZ) = ar (ΔABC)
256 512

Ă
Q18. Each side of a rhombus is 20 cm and its shorter diagonal is longer diagonal. If the
ă
cost of colouring is ₹ 10.25/cm then find the total cost of colouring.
2

(a) ₹ 3936 (b) ₹ 4946 (c) ₹ 5956 (d) ₹ 6996

Q19. If ABCDEFGH ____________ is a regular polygon with interior angle
measurement 148° and CDZY is square, then ∠1 and ∠2 are ____________.

(a) 87°, 58° (b) 58°, 87°

(c) 78°, 85° (d) 85°, 78°

ý ý
þ ý ý þ 2Ā
Q20. If ý = þ , then the value of (þ) 2 (ýþ ) is:
ý
Ā
(a) 0 (b) 1 (d) ý þ (d) ý
ýþ
Q21. Find the square root of Āă 2 ą:Ą.
(a) 3 + :5 (b) 3 2 :5 (c) 6 + :5 (d) 6 2 :5
Q22. The four corners of a square of side (:ā + Ā) cm is cut off to form a regular
octagon. Find the perimeter of the octagon.
(a) 8(:2 2 1) (b) 8(:2 + 1) (c) 8 (d) 24

Q23. If the difference and the sum of two expressions are ýā + Ĉý 2 Āÿ and Ąýā 2 ý 2 ă
respectively, then what is their HCF?
(a) (�㕥 2 1) (b) (�㕥 2 1)(3�㕥 + 7) (c) (�㕥 2 1)(2�㕥 2 3) (d) 2�㕥 2 3

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þĄ +Āć
Q24. If þā + þ 2 Ā = ÿ, then the value of is:
þ+Ă

(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 11 (d) 13

Q25. Twice the measure of the supplement of an angle is added to three times the
measure of the complement of the same angle is equal to the measure of an interior
angle of a regular nine sided polygon. The measure of the supplement of the angle
is-
(a) 82° (b) 108° (c) 98° (d) 72°
Q26. KITE is a rectangle in which KI || TE and KE || IT. If W, X, Y and Z be
respectively the mid-points of IK, IE, TE and TK, then WXYZ is a___________.
(a) Parallelogram (b) Rectangle (c) Square (d) Rhombus
Q27. In the given figure, PQ is a diameter of the circle with centre O and RS || QP. If
∠RPQ = 30°, find the value of ∠SQR.

(a) 15° (b) 30°

(c) 60° (d) 45°

Q28. Find the angle between the lines ĀĂ + þ = ÿ and ĀĆ 2 ý = ÿ.

(a) 0° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 180°
Q29. Find the image of point (–2, 2) under the line ý 2 þ = ÿ.
(a) (–3, 3) (b) (3, –3) (c) (–2, 2) (d) (2, –2)
Q30. A square board of side length 5 cm, standing vertically is tilted to the left so that
the bottom–right corner is raised 3 cm from the ground. By what distance is the
top–left corner lowered from its original position?
(a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 3 cm (d) 2.5 cm

Q31. Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct about Liberals?
(i) Liberals also opposed the uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers.
(ii) They wanted a nation in which government was based on the majority of a
country9s population.
(iii) They wanted to safeguard the rights of individuals against government.
(iv) They supported women9s suffragette movement.
(a) Only (i) and (ii) (b) Only (i) and (iii)

(c) Only (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (ii) and (iv)
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Q32. Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:

Column I (Events) Column II (Dates)

An Assembly of the Estates General passed
(i) (A) 5 May, 1789
proposal for new taxes.
The third estate people assembled in the
(ii) hall of an indoor Tennis Court. (B) April, 1792

The National Assembly voted to declare war

(iii) against Prussia and Austria. (C) 20 June, 1789

The Assembly passed a decree abolished the

(iv) feudal system of obligations and taxes. (D) 4 August, 1789

(a) (i) – A, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – B (b) (i) – D, (ii) – C, (iii) – B, (iv) – A

(c) (i) – A, (ii) – C, (iii) – B, (iv) – D (d) (i) – C, (ii) – B, (iii) – D, (iv) – A

Q33. Match the Column I and Column II and choose the correct option.

Column I (River9s Name) Column II (River9s Length)

(i) Mahanadi River (A) 1400 km.

(ii) Krishana River (B) 860 km.
(iii) Kaveri River (C) 1500 km.
(iv) Godavari River (D) 760 km.
(a) (i) – A, (ii) – B, (iii) – C, (iv) – D (b) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – D, (iv) – C

(c) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – C, (iv) – D (d) (i) – A, (ii) – B, (iii) – D, (iv) – C

Q34. Some statements are given below:–

(i) Tropical Deciduous forests are the most widespread forests of India.
(ii) They are also called the monsoon forest.
(iii) This type of forests is found in the North-Western parts of the country.
(iv) In these forests, common animals are rats, mice, rabbits, fox, wolf, tiger,
lion, wild ass, horses and camels.
Which of the above statements are true about Tropical Deciduous forests?
(a) Only (i) and (ii) (b) Only (i) and (iii)

(c) Only (i) and (iv) (d) Only (iii) and (iv)

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Q35. Mango showers occur in which of the following states of India?

(a) Bihar and West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka and Kerala
Q36. Which one of the following cannot be regarded as building of human capital in a
country?
(a) Spending resources on education (b) Providing training of industrial workers
(c) Increase salary of workers (d) Providing health facilities
Q37. Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.

Column I (Name of Scheme) Column II (Year of Introduction)

(i) Revamped Public Distribution (A) 1997

System (RPDS)
(ii) Targeted Public Distribution (B) 1992
System (TPDS)
(iii) Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) (C) 2000

(iv) National Food Security Act (D) 2013

(NFSA)
(a) (i) – A, (ii) – B, (iii) – C, (iv) – D (b) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – C, (iv) – D
(c) (i) – B, (ii) – D, (iii) – C, (iv) – A (d) (i) – A, (ii) – D, (iii) – C, (iv) – B
Q38. If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decisions can
you take on your own?
(a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
(b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha.
(c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the houses.
(d) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers.
Q39. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar
are collectively called as –
(a) Himachal (b) Purvanchal (c) Uttarakhand (d) None of these
Q40. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

Column I Column II
Abdul Kalam Azad Education Minister in the First
(a)
Union Cabinet
(b) Rajendra Prasad First President of India
G. Durgabai Deshmukh Founder President of Adivasi
(c)
Maha Sabha
(d) Jaipal Singh Founder of Jharkhand Party

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Q41. A body starts from rest from a point distance R0 from the centre of the earth.
The velocity acquired by the body when it reaches the surface of the earth will be-
(R represents radius of the earth & M mass of the earth).
1 1 1 1
(a) 2 GM ( 2 ) (b) √2 GM ( 2 )
�㕅 �㕅0 �㕅0 �㕅

1 1 1 1
(c) GM ( 2 ) (d) 2GM√( 2 )
�㕅 �㕅0 �㕅0 �㕅

Q42. A tank is filled with water upto a height H = 20 m. Water is allowed to come
out a hole P in one of the walls at a height 15 m above the bottom of the tank
(see fig.). The horizontal distance X is-

(a) 15.34 m (b) 16.30 m

(c) 17.32 m (d) 18.28 m

Q43. The speed of sound in a medium depends on _________.

(a) the elastic property but not on the inertia property
(b) the inertia property but not on the elastic property
(c) the elastic property as well as the inertia property
(d) neither the elastic property nor the inertia property
Q44. Assuming potential energy 8U9 at ground level to be zero.

All objects are made up of same material.

UP = Potential energy of solid sphere
UQ = Potential energy of solid cube
UR = Potential energy of solid cone
US = Potential energy of solid cylinder
(a) US > UP (b) UQ < US (c) UP > UQ (d) UP > US
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Q45. When force �㕭 ⃗⃗⃗⃗Ā , �㕭

⃗⃗⃗⃗ā , �㕭
⃗⃗⃗⃗Ă …..�㕭
⃗⃗⃗⃗Ā act on a particle, the particle remains in equilibrium.
⃗⃗⃗⃗Ā is now removed then acceleration of the particle is:
If �㕭
(m – mass of an object)
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
�㕭Ā ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗Ā
�㕭 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗Ā +�㕭
�㕭 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗Ă + & ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗Ā
�㕭Ā 2�㕭 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
�㕭ā
(a) (b) 2 (c) 2 (d)
ÿ ÿ ÿ ÿ

Q46. Assume that a car is able to stop with a retardation of 8 ms–2 and that a driver
can react to an emergency in 0.5 sec. The overall stopping distance of the car
for a speed of 60 km–1 of the car is:
(a) 17.36 m (b) 25.69 m (c) 8.33 m (d) 30 m
Q47. The speed of sound will be maximum in _________.
(a) Humid air at 25°C (b) Dry air at 25°C
(c) Humid air at 5°C (d) Dry air at 5°C

Q48. Sucrose solution which is 40% by mass is heated till it becomes 50% by mass.
Water lost from 100 g of the solution is ____________.
(a) 10 g (b) 15 g (c) 20 g (d) 25 g
Q49. What is the mass of precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of silver
nitrate is mixed with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution?
(Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)
(a) 7 g (b) 14 g (c) 28 g (d) 3.5 g
Q50. How many subatomic particles are present in an α-particle used in Rutherford9s
scattering experiment?
No. of Protons No. of Neutrons No. of Electrons
(a) 4 0 0
(b) 2 2 2
(c) 2 2 0
(d) 2 2 1
Q51. At 283 K a saturated solution of solid X can be prepared by dissolving 21.0 g of it
in 100 g of water. The maximum amount of X which can be dissolved in 100 g of
water at 313 K is 62.0 g. An attempt is made to dissolve 50.0 g of X in 100 g of
water at 313 K. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) All the 50.0 g of X will dissolve at 313 K.
(B) At 313 K 29.0 g of X will remain undissolved.
(C) Solubility of X decrease with increase of temperature.
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(D) On cooling the solution of X from 313 K to 283 K more than 21.0 g of X will
crystallize out .
(a) A and B (b) A and D (c) B and C (d) A, C and D
Q52. If the nitride of a metal M has the formula MN, what is the formula of its sulphide,
carbonate and chloride?
(a) M2S3, M2(CO3)3, MCl (b) MS3, M2CO3, MCl3
(c) MS, M(CO3)3, MCl (d) M2S3, M2(CO3)3, MCl3
Q53. Elements X and Y have octet configuration in their L - shell after forming stable
dipositive and dinegative ions respectively. The respective electronic configuration
of the succeeding element of X and the preceding element of Y are
(a) 2 , 7 and 2, 5 (b) 2, 8, 3 and 2, 5 (c) 2, 5 and 2, 8, 3 (d) 2, 8, 1 and 2, 7
Q54. Two elements A and B contain 13 and 8 proton respectively. If the number
of neutrons in them happen to be 14 and 8 respectively, the formula unit mass
for the compound between A and B unit would be-
(a) 43 (b) 75 (c) 102 (d) 112

Q55. Cyperus rotundus take up nutrients, compete for space, food and light thus
reducing the growth of crop plants is locally known as ______________.
(a) Gajar Ghas (b) Motha (c) Gokhroo (d) Doob
Q56. Sun hemp or guar are mulched by ploughing them into soil and turn into green
manure, which enriches the soil in ___________ and ______________.
(a) Calcium, Phosphorus (b) Magnesium, Phosphorus
(c) Nitrogen, Phosphorus (d) Nitrogen, Calcium
Q57. Cardiac muscles show rhythmic contraction and relaxation throughout life. Which
one of the following is correct about heart muscles?
(a) cylindrical, branched and uninucleate
(b) cylindrical, unbranched and uninucleate
(c) cylindrical, branched and multinucleate
(d) cylindrical, unbranched and multinucleate

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Q58. The husk of a coconut is made up of _______________.

(a) parenchymatous tissue (b) sclerenchymatous tissue

(c) collenchymatous tissue (d) chlorenchymatous tissue

Q59. The internal organisation of the chloroplast consists of numerous membrane layers
embedded in material called stroma, these are similar to _____ in external
structure.

(a) nucleus (b) golgi body (c) vacuole (d) mitochondria

Q60. Camillo Golgi carried out a revolutionary method of staining individual nerve and
cell structures. This method is referred to as ______________.

(a) Black Reaction (b) Dark Reaction (c) Light Reaction (d) Hill’s Reaction

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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