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You are on page 1/ 38

THIRD

EDITION

ASNT

Q&A
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
BOOK

L IQUID
PENE T R A N T
T EST ING
ME T HOD
Levels I, II, and III Review Questions
Book D

ASNT grants non-exclusive, non-transferable license of this material to Bassam AbdElFattah AbdelAzeem.
All rights reserved. © ASNT 2024. To report unauthorized use, contact: customersupport@asnt.org
ASNT

Q&A
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

THIRD EDITION
BOOK

LIQUID PENETRANT
TESTING METHOD
Levels I, II, and III Review Questions – Book D

The American Society for Nondestructive Testing Inc.

ASNT grants non-exclusive, non-transferable license of this material to Bassam AbdElFattah AbdelAzeem.
All rights reserved. © ASNT 2024. To report unauthorized use, contact: customersupport@asnt.org
ACKNOWLEDGMENTS
ASNT wishes to thank Peter E. Pelayo and all those who assisted with the update of this edition of the Supplement to
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (Q&A Book): Liquid Penetrant Testing Method. As with other books in the ASNT
Questions & Answers series, this book is intended to provide candidates studying for qualifying examinations with sample
Level I, II, and III questions.The following contributors assisted with the review of this book including updating old questions,
writing new questions, and updating references:

Technical Reviewers Douglas G. Krauss – NDT Consultants LLC


Peter E. Pelayo, Technical Editor – Met-L-Chek James A. Kretzler – KTA Tator Inc.
Michael J. Bolton Joseph L. Mackin – International Pipe Inspectors
Nicole Y. Carlisle – Naval Air Systems Command Association
Gina R. Caudill – Naval Air Warfare Center Ciji L. Nelson – Sandia National Laboratories
Charles W. Eick – Royal Blue NDT Services Michael J. Ruddy – NOV Tuboscope
Nat Y. Faransso – Faransso NDT Services Juan Carlos Ruiz-Rico – MISTRAS Group, Inc.
Jason C. Good – NVI Nondestructive & Visual Inspection Cheri A. Stockhausen – Magnaflux
Eric Henry – Applied Technical Services Thomas C. Veselka – Derco, A Lockheed Martin Co.
Shawn Kilty – Magnaflux Ram Mohan Dayaram Yadav – Macvin Pte. Ltd.

Copyright © 2020 by The American Society for Nondestructive Testing.

The American Society for Nondestructive Testing Inc. (ASNT) is not responsible for the authenticity or accuracy of information herein. Published
opinions and statements do not necessarily reflect the opinion of ASNT. Products or services that are advertised or mentioned do not carry the
endorsement or recommendation of ASNT.

No part of this publication may be reproduced or transmitted in any form, by means electronic or mechanical including photocopying, recording,
or otherwise, without the expressed prior written permission of The American Society for Nondestructive Testing Inc.

IRRSP, NDT Handbook, The NDT Technician, and asnt.org are trademarks of the American Society for Nondestructive Testing Inc. ACCP, ASNT, ASNT
Daily, Chat NDT with ASNT, Level III Study Guide, Materials Evaluation, Nondestructive Testing Handbook, Research in Nondestructive Evaluation,
and RNDE are registered trademarks of the American Society for Nondestructive Testing Inc.

Third edition
First printing 12/20
ebook 12/20

Errata, if available for this printing, may be obtained from ASNT’s website, asnt.org. Ebooks contain all corrections and updates, including the latest
errata.

ISBN: 978-1-57117-491-8 (print)


ISBN: 978-1-57117-492-5 (ebook)

Printed in the United States of America

Published by:
The American Society for Nondestructive Testing Inc.
1711 Arlingate Lane
Columbus, OH 43228-0518
asnt.org

Publications Team:
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Editorial:
Haley Cowans, Educational Materials Editor
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Production:
Joy Grimm, Production Manager
Synthia Jester, Graphic Designer and Illustrator

ASNT Mission Statement:


ASNT exists to create a safer world by advancing scientific, engineering, and technical knowledge in the field of nondestructive testing.

ASNT Code of Ethics:


The ASNT Code of Ethics was developed to provide members of the Society with broad ethical statements to guide their professional lives. In spirit
and in word, each ASNT member is responsible for knowing and adhering to the values and standards set forth in the Society’s Code. More
information, as well as the complete version of the Code of Ethics, can be found on ASNT’s website, asnt.org.

ii

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Contents
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .v
Recommended References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .v
Reference Codes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .v
Reference Usage . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .v
Level I – Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .1
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .11
Level II – Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .13
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .21
Level III – Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .23
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .30

iii

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All rights reserved. © ASNT 2024. To report unauthorized use, contact: customersupport@asnt.org
References

Recommended References Reference Codes


Each question found in this book is followed by letter(s)
The following references were used in formulating the and page number(s) indicating the specific recommended
questions in this book. reference where the answer may be found. For example:
Reference A
ASNT, 2016, Nondestructive Testing Handbook, Vol. 1: 18. The term used to define the period of time in
Liquid Penetrant Testing, fourth edition, American Society which the test part is covered with penetrant is:
for Nondestructive Testing, Columbus, OH.*
a. waiting time.
Reference B b. soak time (drain time).
ASNT, 2019, Liquid Penetrant Testing Classroom Training c. penetration time (dwell time).
Book, American Society for Nondestructive Testing, d. bleed-in time.
Columbus, OH.* A.47

Reference C
ASNT, 2019, ASNT Level II Study Guide: Liquid Penetrant In this example, the letter “A” refers to Reference A in the
Testing Method, American Society for Nondestructive list (left) and “47” is the specific page in Reference A
Testing, Columbus, OH.* where the answer to the question is located.

Reference D Reference Usage


ASNT, 2003, ASNT Level III Study Guide: Liquid Penetrant
Reference A Total = 183
Testing Method, American Society for Nondestructive
Testing, Columbus, OH.* Level I 79
Level II 52
Reference E Level III 52
ASNT, 2020, Principles and Applications of Liquid Penetrant
Testing: A Classroom Training Text, American Society for Reference B Total = 40
Nondestructive Testing, Columbus, OH.* Level I 23
Level II 14
Level III 3
Reference C Total = 12
Level I 0
Level II 12
Level III 0
Reference D Total = 14
Level I 3
Level II 2
Level III 9
Reference E Total = 14
Level I 4
Level II 7
* Available from The American Society for Nondestructive Testing Inc. Level III 3

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All rights reserved. © ASNT 2024. To report unauthorized use, contact: customersupport@asnt.org
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All rights reserved. © ASNT 2024. To report unauthorized use, contact: customersupport@asnt.org
Level I
Review Questions

1. Which one of the following conditions will affect the 5. Which of the following discontinuities can be found
rate a liquid penetrant will enter cracks, fissures, and by PT?
other small openings?
a. A surface crack.
a. The hardness of the specimen being tested. b. A subsurface crack.
b. The viscosity of the penetrant. c. An internal inclusion.
c. The color of the penetrant. d. A delamination.
d. The conductivity of the specimen being tested. A.48
A.100
6. Which of the following is generally the more
2. Which of the following is a commonly used acceptable technique for cleaning parts prior to
classification for penetrant? penetrant testing?

a. Postemulsifiable penetrant. a. Sandblasting.


b. Nonferrous penetrant. b. Wire brushing.
c. Chemical etch penetrant. c. Grinding.
d. Nonaqueous penetrant. d. Solvent cleaning.
A.50 A.187, 191

3. A generally accepted technique for removing excess 7. Which of the following techniques and materials are
solvent-removable penetrant is: used to clean parts prior to penetrant testing?

a. repeatedly dipping the test specimen in a cleaner. a. Nonhalogenated solvents, aqueous alkaline
b. soaking the test specimen in hot detergent water. washers, and vapor degreasing.
c. blowing the excess penetrant off the surface of b. Detergents, wire brushing, and ultrasonic
the part with compressed air. immersion.
d. wiping with clean dry cloth, then a clean cloth c. Vapor degreasing, halogenated solvents, and
lightly dampened with cleaner remover. soaps.
A.50; B.16–17 d. Light glass beading, passivation, and etching.
A.191, 194
4. Which of the following can be tested by the liquid
penetrant testing (PT) method? 8. Cutting oils may be effectively removed from parts
before penetrant testing by:
a. Iron castings, aluminum forgings, and a part
made from a nonporous material. a. preheating.
b. Unglazed ceramics, iron castings, and aluminum b. alkaline cleaner.
forgings. c. washing with water.
c. Iron castings, aluminum forgings, and oxidized d. wire brushing.
fiberglass. A.200
d. Concrete and clay structures.
A.11, 49

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l Level i

9. Which of these is likely the most common cause of 14. When using a Method B, postemulsifiable penetrant,
contamination in water-washable penetrant testing? it is necessary to apply the emulsifier:

a. Metal filings. a. before applying the penetrant.


b. Oil. b. after the water-wash operation.
c. Detergents (from cleaning). c. after the dwell time has elapsed.
d. Presence of moisture. d. after the development time has elapsed.
A.120 A.50, 57

10. Without a properly functioning filter in place on an 15. When conducting water-washable PT, the wet
ultraviolet lamp, ultraviolet light used for fluorescent developer is applied:
penetrant inspection can cause permanent damage
to: a. immediately after the penetrant has been applied.
b. immediately before the penetrant is applied.
a. human tissues. c. after removal of the penetrant.
b. human eyes. d. after removal of the emulsifier.
c. human blood cells. A.56
d. human reproductive organs.
A.21, 268, 280 16. The term used to describe the action of a particular
developer in soaking up the penetrant in a
11. Which of the following basic inspection principles discontinuity, so as to cause the maximum bleedout
applies to the visible penetrant techniques? of the liquid penetrant for increased contrast and
sensitivity, is known as:
a. It is not necessary for the penetrant to enter the
discontinuity in order to form an indication. a. blotting.
b. Indications glow when illuminated with visible b. capillary action.
light. c. concentration.
c. A sufficient penetrant dwell time is important to d. attraction.
enter and fill discontinuities. A.51
d. The excess penetrant removal process is not that
critical. 17. Using an ultraviolet lamp with a cracked filter or
A.47–49 without the filter in place can cause damage to
human eyes because the lamp emits:
12. Subsurface discontinuities can be best detected by:
a. blue light radiation.
a. postemulsification penetrant. b. UA-A radiation.
b. visible dye penetrant. c. UV-B radiation.
c. fluorescent, water-washable penetrant. d. infrared radiation.
d. another NDT method. A.22, 283
A.11
18. The term used to define the period of time in which
13. The first step in conducting a liquid penetrant test the test part is covered with penetrant is:
on a surface that has been painted is to:
a. waiting time.
a. carefully apply the penetrant over the surface. b. soak time (drain time).
b. completely remove the paint. c. penetration time (dwell time).
c. thoroughly wash the surface with a detergent. d. bleed-in time.
d. wire brush the surface to roughen the smooth A.47
surface coating of paint.
A.49, 187

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Review Questions

19. Usually, the most desirable technique of removing 24. PT is capable of detecting:
excess water-washable penetrant after the dwell time
is by using: a. subsurface intergranular stress-corrosion
cracking discontinuities.
a. a low-pressure coarse water spray. b. discontinuities open to the surface.
b. water and brush. c. subsurface discontinuities.
c. a solid stream of water. d. porosity.
d. water and clean rags. A.11, 48
A.56, 65
25. Ultraviolet equipment is required when performing
20. In order to prevent streaking of indications when PT using:
conducting PT using a postemulsifiable penetrant,
wet developers should be applied: a. fluorescent penetrants.
b. visible dye penetrants.
a. by manually brushing. c. nonfluorescent penetrants.
b. in high concentrations for maximum resolution. d. pressure leak testing.
c. by dipping, flowing, or spraying to form a A.49, 75
smooth, even coating.
d. in low concentrations to prevent pooling. 26. The term used to define the tendency of certain
A.72, B.18 liquids to penetrate into small openings such as
cracks or fissures is:
21. PT is limited in which of the following capabilities?
a. saturation.
a. Accurately measuring the depth of a crack or b. capillary action.
discontinuity. c. blotting.
b. Usability for on-site testing of large parts. d. wetting agent.
c. Finding shallow surface discontinuities. A.11, 59, 98–99, 492
d. Increasing or decreasing sensitivity by using
different penetrant materials. 27. Excess penetrant (all penetrant except that which is
B.24 in discontinuities) is removed from the specimen:

22. Which of the following discontinuities is most likely a. after the required penetrant dwell time has
to be missed due to improper rinse techniques? elapsed.
b. before the application of an emulsifier if a
a. A forging lap. postemulsifiable penetrant is used.
b. Deep pitting. c. by means of a steam cleaner.
c. Shallow and broad discontinuities. d. only when water-washable penetrants are used.
d. The rinse technique will not affect the detection A.50, 56
of discontinuities.
A.66 28. When using a postemulsifiable penetrant, the
emulsification time should be:
23. In PT, which surface condition can create the most
detrimental effect? a. as long as the penetrant dwell time.
b. half the penetrant dwell time.
a. Pressure-washed. c. the same as the developer time.
b. Ultrasonic immersion. d. controlled to prevent the emulsification of the
c. Abrasive-blasted. penetrant in the discontinuity.
d. Etched aluminum. A.51, 58
A.186, 194, 209; B.14

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l Level i

29. When inspectors are working in a darkened area, 34. Which of the statements below best states the danger
they should become adjusted to the dark before of sandblasting (without subsequent chemical
inspecting parts. What is the generally accepted etching) for cleaning surfaces to be tested using PT?
minimum time period for becoming accustomed to
the dark? a. The discontinuities may be peened over and
closed.
a. 5 min. b. Oil contaminants might be sealed in the
b. 5 to 10 min. discontinuities.
c. 10 to 15 min. c. The sand used in the sandblasting operation may
d. No waiting period is necessary. be forced into the discontinuity.
A.23, 267 d. The sandblasting operation may introduce
discontinuities.
30. PT cannot find: A.194

a. surface porosity. 35. The penetrant applied to the surface of a test


b. surface cracks. specimen:
c. an internal cavity.
d. a surface forging lap. a. seeps into discontinuities.
B.4 b. is absorbed by discontinuities.
c. is drawn into discontinuities by capillary action.
31. Which of the following material surface conditions d. is drawn into discontinuities by gravity.
will create excessive background in the formation of A.11, 59, 98
penetrant indications?
36. Which of the following statements concerning PT is
a. Porous ceramic. correct?
b. Titanium.
c. High alloy steel. a. Fluorescent penetrants will produce red against
d. Cast iron. white discontinuity indications.
A.48–49 b. Nonfluorescent penetrants require the use of
ultraviolet radiation.
32. Which of the following are acceptable ways of c. Fluorescent indications will be seen when
applying penetrant to the inspection area? exposed to ultraviolet radiation.
d. Nonfluorescent discontinuities glow in the dark
a. Dipping, flowing, spraying, brushing. for easy viewing and interpretation.
b. Ultrasonic immersion, spraying, brushing. A.49
c. Vacuum, dipping, spraying.
d. Electrostatic spray, dipping, cloth application. 37. When removing excess penetrant from the surface of
B.15 a test specimen:

33. Solvents used for cleaning the surface of a test a. the penetrant removal operation must remove the
specimen must: penetrant from discontinuities.
b. sufficient excess penetrant must be removed to
a. have the ability to dissolve oils and greases eliminate an interfering background.
commonly found on the surface. c. the surface must be immersed in water, allowing
b. not be flammable. the penetrant to dilute from the surface.
c. contain no halogens or sulfur. d. excess penetrant is not a problem.
d. remain in minimal amounts on the surface after A.171
cleaning.
A.195–199

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Review Questions

38. The final inspection of a test specimen for 43. The inspection is a Type I, Method A, Level 3,
discontinuities should take place: Form d penetrant process. Which of these would be
the proper personal protective equipment for
a. immediately after the developer has been applied. inspectors?
b. any time after the developer has been applied.
c. after the developer has been on the test specimen a. UV-blocking glasses, rubber gloves,
for the proper development time. and respirator filter.
d. immediately after the rinse operation. b. UV-blocking glasses, rubber gloves, and
B.20 dosimeter.
c. UV-blocking glasses, rubber gloves,
39. Which of the following is an advantage of visible dye and hard hat.
penetrants over fluorescent penetrants? d. UV-blocking glasses, rubber gloves,
flame-resistant clothing.
a. Visible dye penetrants do not require ultraviolet B.6, 8–9
light.
b. Visible dye penetrants are more sensitive than 44. Which of the following surface contaminants can be
fluorescent penetrants. removed by cleaning parts in an alkaline parts
c. Visible dye penetrants are superior in penetrating washer?
characteristics.
d. Visible dye penetrants are not toxic while a. Plating.
fluorescent penetrants are toxic. b. Heavy oils.
A.83 c. Rust.
d. Paint.
40. The terms dry, aqueous wet, and nonaqueous wet are A.187, 195
used to describe three different types of:
45. Which of the following does an NDT inspector need
a. emulsifiers. to be aware of for precleaning of parts?
b. cleaners.
c. developers. a. Contaminants do not cause adverse issues with
d. penetrants. penetrant inspections.
A.51–52 b. The potential consequences of the precleaning
technique on penetrant inspections.
41. Which of the following is the most commonly used c. The inspector does not need to know anything
technique for removing non-water-washable visible about the precleaning process.
dye penetrant from the surface of a test specimen? d. The inspector shall always be the person cleaning
the part.
a. Dipping in a solvent. A.185
b. Spraying.
c. Hand wiping. 46. Which of the following is the most likely result of an
d. Blowing. excessive emulsification time when performing PT
B.16 with postemulsifiable penetrants?

42. Which of the following is an acceptable technique for a. A large number of nonrelevant indications could
applying wet developers? appear on the part.
b. Shallow discontinuity indications could be lost.
a. Application with a soft brush. c. Excess penetrant could remain after the wash
b. Application with a hand powder bulb. operation.
c. Rubbing with a saturated cloth. d. The emulsifier could harden, preventing the
d. Spraying or dipping. developer from blotting the penetrant in
B.18 discontinuities.
A.63–64, 67

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l Level i

47. In PT, which of the following functions should 52. When performing PT, the temperature of the parts
developers be able to perform? should be near room temperature. If the part is at a
low temperature when tested, the:
a. Adsorb and absorb penetrant from
discontinuities. a. penetrant may become viscous.
b. Add fluorescence to penetrants. b. penetrant may evaporate very rapidly.
c. Reduce penetrant bleedout from a discontinuity c. color intensity of the penetrant will decrease.
entrapment. d. penetrant will tend to adhere to the surface of the
d. Develop indications in heavy, thick applications. part.
A.70–71 A.158

48. Which of the following is the primary limitation of 53. Penetrants may be classified or subdivided by the
PT? method used to remove excess penetrant. Which of
the following is a proper classification in accordance
a. PT cannot locate subsurface discontinuities. with this statement?
b. PT cannot locate shallow surface discontinuities.
c. PT cannot be used on nonmetallic surfaces. a. Non-solvent-removable.
d. PT cannot be used on ferromagnetic material. b. Vapor degreased.
A.11 c. Water-washable.
d. Brush-removable.
49. In PT, the time period from developer application to A.50
inspection is often referred to as the:
54. What problem will arise if a test specimen that has
a. emulsification time. been previously tested using visible dye liquid
b. developer dwell time. penetrant is retested with fluorescent penetrants?
c. dwell time.
d. penetrant time. a. the penetrant may form beads on the surface.
A.235, B.15 b. the penetrant left in discontinuities may be
misleading when the specimen is retested.
50. When conducting a fluorescent penetrant test, UV-A c. the penetrant will lose a great deal of its color
equipment is required to: brilliance.
d. residue can diminish or quench fluorescent
a. cause the penetrant to fluoresce. indication brightness.
b. aid the normal capillary action characteristics of a A.189
penetrant.
c. neutralize excess penetrant on the surface. 55. Which of the following statements apply to
d. decrease the surface tension of the part. developers used during PT?
A.60
a. Developers are normally highly fluorescent.
51. Which of the following is a type of developer used in b. Developers often blend into the background
penetrant inspection? during inspection.
c. Developers absorb or adsorb the penetrant that
a. Self-developing. remains in discontinuities after the rinse
b. Insoluble. operation has been completed.
c. Nonaqueous. d. Developers must be dry.
d. Oil-soluble. A.50, 70
B.17

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Review Questions

56. Which of the following statements about PT 60. Which one of the following statements is a correct
processes is true? use of reference blocks?

a. Sandblasting is a recommended technique for a. To establish a standard size of crack that can be
cleaning any surface material that is to be reproduced as needed.
penetrant tested. b. To determine the penetrant system performance.
b. Parts should be heated prior to the application of c. To determine if a penetrant has increased
a penetrant. brilliance on fluorescent penetrants because of a
c. If the dryer is too hot, the heat may degrade the UV-A intensity increase.
fluorescence of the penetrants. d. To determine the degree or technique of cleaning
d. Development time should be at least twice the necessary to remove penetrant on the surface
penetration time. without removing it from the cracks.
A.57 B.73–74

57. When using a wet developer: 61. Which of the following is generally accepted as the
most important precaution when using
a. a thick layer of developer is better than a thin water-washable penetrants?
layer for showing very fine cracks.
b. compressed air should be used to remove excess a. Be sure that the part is washed thoroughly during
developer. the rinse operation.
c. a black developer will show better contrast than a b. Be sure that the recommended dwell time is not
white developer. exceeded.
d. a thin layer of developer is better than a thick c. Avoid overrinsing the part.
layer for showing very fine cracks. d. Avoid overapplication of emulsifier.
A.72 B.16

58. A red discontinuity indication against a white 62. Which of the following is generally accepted as the
background is found in which penetrant method most important precaution when performing a
classification? Method C removal?

a. Type II, Method A, Form a. a. Do not apply an excessive amount of emulsifier.


b. Type I, Method C, Form d. b. Do not apply an excessive amount of solvent.
c. Type III, Method A, Form b. c. Do not use an insufficient rinse pressure.
d. Type II, Method B or D, Form c. d. Be sure to use a UV-A lamp to determine if the
A.49, B.6 excess penetrant has been rinsed away.
B.17
59. The purpose for using a developer on a test specimen
is to: 63. Underrinsing of fluorescent penetrants will result in:

a. promote penetration of the penetrant. a. subsequent corrosion of the surface.


b. absorb emulsifier residues. b. difficulty in the application of developer.
c. provide an absorbing action to draw penetrant c. excessive bleedout.
from discontinuities and to provide a contrasting d. excessive background fluorescence.
background. D.11
d. help to dry the surface for better observation.
A.51, 70

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l Level i

64. Which of the following safety precautions apply 69. The contamination of a water-washable penetrant
when handling penetrant materials? tank with an excessive amount of water will:

a. Prolonged contact of penetrant with skin should a. enhance the penetrating quality of the penetrant.
be avoided because the oil or solvent base may b. adversely affect the washability of the penetrant.
cause skin irritation. c. aid in the washability of the penetrant.
b. Developer powders should not touch skin. d. not have an effect on the penetrant.
c. Airline respirators and complete protective A.120
clothing must be worn at all times.
d. Because the solvents used with the visible 70. Which of the following PT techniques is generally
penetrant process are nonflammable, storage of used for portable field inspections?
these materials is not a concern.
A.89–90 a. Water-washable fluorescent penetrant.
b. Lipophilic postemulsifiable fluorescent penetrant.
65. A serious loss of water in a wet developer mix or an c. Solvent-removable visible penetrant.
excessive overconcentration of developer powder can d. Solvent-removable fluorescent penetrant.
cause: A.83

a. a loss of fluorescence during the inspection 71. When using a fluorescent penetrant, the actual
operation. inspection must be performed:
b. nonrelevant indications.
c. cracking of the developer coating during the a. in a brightly lighted room.
drying operation. b. with the part at a temperature between 50 and
d. no effect on the inspection. 175 °F (10 and 79 °C).
A.134 c. immediately after the developer has been applied.
d. in a darkened area under a UV-A lamp.
66. When using dry developer, the drying operation is B.15
performed:
72. Which of the following penetrants can be used when
a. immediately after removal of excess penetrant. inspection must take place under ordinary lighting
b. after the inspection step. conditions?
c. by applying a dry cloth.
d. after the dwell time. a. Visible dye penetrant.
D.29 b. Water-washable fluorescent penetrant.
c. Postemulsification fluorescent penetrant.
67. The failure to completely remove surface d. Ultraviolet penetrant.
contaminations from a part before fluorescent A.107
penetrant is applied will result in:
73. Which of the following is an advantage of using the
a. interference with the penetrant action. PT method?
b. a need to double the penetrating time.
c. a permanent stain on the part. a. PT is adaptable to production inspection of small
d. a need to double the emulsifier time. parts.
A.185–190 b. PT can locate tight fatigue cracks below the
surface.
68. When drying parts during a penetrant test, the parts: c. PT does not pose a risk to the environment.
d. PT does not require any special procedures to be
a. are normally dried at room temperature. used on porous materials.
b. are normally dried by a circulating warm-air A.48
dryer.
c. should be dried in an oven set at a temperature of
130 °F (54 °C).
d. should be dried by cool forced air.
A.237

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Review Questions

74. Exposure of penetrant to high temperatures and a 79. Cleaning of the part prior to penetrant inspection is:
large exposure area:
a. not required.
a. decreases the viscosity. b. important because if the part is not clean, the
b. will cause fading of the penetrant dyes. developer cannot be properly applied.
c. increases surface tension. c. essential because surface conditions may interfere
d. increases dwell time requirements. with the application and entry of penetrants into
A.122 discontinuities.
d. required to eliminate possibility of showing
75. A good penetrant must: nonrelevant indications.
A.185
a. be able to readily penetrate very fine openings.
b. evaporate very rapidly. 80. When using fluorescent penetrants, adequate rinsing
c. be able to find its way into openings that have of the part is ensured by:
been shot-peened shut.
d. remain on the surface after testing as a protective a. rinsing under visible light.
coating. b. scrubbing of part surface.
A.53–54; B.90 c. rinsing under ultraviolet light.
d. using high-pressure air with water.
76. Which of the following is a requirement of a dry A.66
developer used in PT?
81. A good commercial penetrant should have what type
a. It must have a low contrast with the background. of flash point?
b. It must form a thick coating over the surface.
c. It must be fluorescent if used with fluorescent a. Low.
penetrants. b. High.
d. It must have the ability to stick to penetrant c. Medium.
seepage and build an indication. d. Flash point is not a factor to be considered.
A.109 A.90

77. Developer coatings of excessive thickness: 82. A material that is applied over the film of the
penetrant on the surface of a part that diffuses with
a. may obscure indications. the penetrant and enables it to be washed off the
b. may be beneficial while observing small surface with water is called:
indications for fluorescent penetrants.
c. may be beneficial while observing small a. an emulsifier.
indications for visible penetrants. b. a penetrant.
d. do not affect the inspection. c. a developer.
A.71 d. an isomer.
A.50
78. Which of the following is the most widely used color
for dyes in visible penetrants? 83. The time allowed for the penetrant to enter
discontinuities that may be present is the:
a. Yellow.
b. Red. a. emulsification time.
c. Black. b. application time.
d. Brown. c. dwell time.
A.49 d. drain time.
A.56, 497

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l Level i

84. Which of the following penetrant systems is 90. Which of the following would be the most desirable
generally considered to be the most sensitive? center wavelength for the output of the ultraviolet
light source used in fluorescent penetrant dye
a. Water-washable – visible dye. processes?
b. Solvent-removable – visible dye.
c. Water-washable – fluorescent dye. a. 320 nm
d. Postemulsifiable – fluorescent dye. b. 365 nm
A.50–51 c. 520 nm
d. 565 nm
85. The purpose of an emulsifier is to: A.276, 279, 283

a. combine with the penetrant to make the resultant 91. Bleedout of penetrant from a cold shut is an example
mixture removable by a water rinse. of:
b. assist the blotting action of the developer.
c. increase the penetration of the penetrant into fine a. a relevant indication.
discontinuities. b. a nonrelevant indication.
d. eliminate false indications. c. a false indication.
A.50, 497 d. a false negative.
B.23, 66
86. Developer assists in the detection of visible liquid
penetrant indications by: 92. The viscosity of liquid penetrants increases at which
temperatures?
a. providing a clean surface.
b. providing a contrasting background. a. Above 100 °F (38 °C).
c. providing a dry surface. b. Between 50 and 100 °F (10 and 38 °C).
d. emulsifying the penetrant bleedout. c. Below 50 °F (10 °C).
A.70 d. Temperature does not affect viscosity.
A.158; B.60
87. Liquid penetrant examination can detect which of
the following types of discontinuities? 93. Why is it possible to flush a surface with a coarse
water spray to which a water-washable penetrant was
a. Inclusion. applied, remove the excessive penetrant, and not
b. Slag. remove the penetrant that is in the discontinuities?
c. A crack open to the surface.
d. Subsurface porosity. a. The liquid will not wash the penetrant from the
A.48–49 discontinuities because the penetrant has to be
drawn out by the developer.
88. Which of the following processes would be most b. The nature of a water-washable penetrant is that
sensitive to detecting very fine discontinuities? water will not dissolve the penetrant; it has to
push the penetrant off the surface, which is why a
a. Oil-and-whiting process. spray is used.
b. Water-washable process. c. The water droplets are relatively large and will
c. Postemulsification process. not enter most discontinuities’ openings.
d. Water-emulsifiable visible dye penetrant process. d. A water spray should not be used; the penetrant
A.50 should be removed by a cloth dampened with
water.
89. Emulsifiers may be applied by: A.56, 65

a. dipping, spraying, or brushing.


b. dipping, pouring, or brushing.
c. spraying, pouring, or brushing.
d. dipping, spraying, or pouring.
B.50, D.28

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Review Questions

94. Which of the items listed below is an advantage of 98. If a penetrant inspector accidentally looks into the
using the PT method? UV-A lamp for a few seconds, what will be the effect
on the human eye?
a. It is the most sensitive NDT method for detecting
surface discontinuities. a. It will cause blindness.
b. There is no risk that penetrants, emulsifiers, and b. The fluid in the eye will fluoresce.
solvents will irritate human skin. c. The iris of the human eye will be damaged.
c. Operations such as peening or brushing will not d. There will be absolutely no effect on the human
interfere with penetrant performance. eye.
d. Its ability to enter porous nonmetallic objects. E.74–75
A.48
99. The girt-blasted side of the PSM panel is used to:
95. The prime purpose of an ultraviolet lamp for
fluorescent penetrant inspection is to: a. Monitor the sensitivity of the penetrant material.
b. Monitor the sensitivity of the penetrant system.
a. magnify indications. c. Evaluate the effectiveness of the penetrant
b. make the indications visible. removal process.
c. develop indications. d. Evaluate the wetting ability and effectiveness of
d. speed up inspection. the wet developer.
A.60, 276 E.99–100

96. UV-A LED lamps are used with: 100. What is the principal bandwidth measurement of a
UV-A lamp used in fluorescent penetrant testing?
a. visible penetrants.
b. sensitive penetrants. a. 280 to 320 nm
c. fluorescent penetrants. b. 320 to 400 nm
d. postemulsifiable penetrants. c. 450 to 500 nm
B.41 d. 510 to 560 nm
E.66–67
97. What ultraviolet light band is used for a Type I
penetrant inspection? 101. Availability of darkness and UV-A light are essential
factors in performing which of the following
a. UV-A. penetrant techniques?
b. UV-B.
c. UV-C. a. Red visible dye penetrant.
d. UV-D. b. Postemulsifiable hydrophilic penetrant.
E.66–67 c. Postemulsifiable lipophilic penetrant.
d. Fluorescent penetrant.
B.50

Answers
1b 2a 3d 4a 5a 6d 7a 8b 9d 10b 11c 12d 13b
14c 15c 16a 17b 18c 19a 20c 21a 22c 23c 24b 25a 26b
27a 28d 29a 30c 31a 32a 33a 34a 35c 36c 37b 38c 39a
40c 41c 42d 43a 44b 45b 46b 47a 48a 49b 50a 51c 52a
53c 54d 55c 56c 57d 58b 59c 60b 61c 62b 63d 64a 65c
66a 67a 68b 69b 70c 71d 72a 73a 74b 75a 76d 77a 78b
79c 80c 81b 82a 83c 84d 85a 86b 87c 88c 89d 90b 91a
92c 93c 94a 95b 96c 97a 98b 99c 100b 101d

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LEVEL II
Review Questions

1. Which of the following physical properties, more 5. Which of the following types of discontinuities could
than any other, determines what makes a material a be classified as a primary processing discontinuity
good penetrant? often found in cast material?

a. Viscosity. a. Fatigue crack.


b. Surface tension. b. Stress-corrosion crack.
c. Wetting ability. c. Porosity.
d. No one single property determines whether a d. Lack of penetration.
material will be a good penetrant. A.147, 496
A.54
6. Which of the following discontinuities could be
2. The speed with which a penetrant penetrates a classified as a secondary processing discontinuity?
surface discontinuity is influenced to the greatest
extent by which of the following properties? a. Fatigue crack.
b. Stress-corrosion crack.
a. Capillary action. c. Lamination.
b. Surface tension and wettability. d. Heat-treat crack.
c. Viscosity. A.162–166, 497
d. Density.
A.59, 100 7. Which of the following discontinuities could be
classified as a service-induced discontinuity?
3. Which of the statements below applies to the PT
method? a. Fatigue crack.
b. Porosity.
a. PT is less flexible than eddy current testing. c. Machining tear.
b. PT is less reliable than the magnetic particle d. Lap.
method for finding surface discontinuities in A.146, 164–165, 498; B.58; C.25,29
ferromagnetic materials.
c. PT will not detect fatigue cracks. 8. Animal and vegetable oils that saponify at a slow
d. PT is more reliable than radiographic testing rate and are insoluble in water can be removed by
when attempting to detect minute surface soaking or spraying at a high temperature
discontinuities. (180 °F/80 °C) with:
A.11–17
a. vapor degreasing solution.
4. Which of the following types of discontinuities b. alkaline solution.
cannot be detected by PT? c. solvent-type material.
d. hot water rinsing.
a. Surface laminations. A.194
b. Internal forging bursts.
c. Surface cracks.
d. Surface laps.
A.48, 149

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l level ii

9. The penetrant indication for a cold shut on the 14. Developer assists in the detection of penetrants
surface of a casting will be a: retained in discontinuities by aiding the:

a. dotted or smooth continuous line. a. postcleaning process.


b. cluster of small indications. b. emulsification process.
c. rough deep indication. c. bleedout process.
d. large bulbous indication. d. drying process.
B.23 A.70–71, 75

10. The penetrant indication of a forging lap will 15. When using postemulsification penetrants,
normally be a: difficulties incurred during the washing operation
can be overcome by:
a. round or nearly round indication.
b. cluster of indications. a. reapplying a coating of emulsifier.
c. continuous line. b. increasing the water pressure used during the
d. dotted line. washing operation.
B.23 c. completely reprocessing the part from surface
preparation on and by adjusting the
11. When conducting PT, spherical indications on the emulsification time.
surface of a part could be indicative of: d. dipping the part in boiling water.
A.69
a. fatigue cracks.
b. porosity. 16. Which of the following techniques for applying
c. weld laps. nonaqueous developer is normally considered the
d. hot tears. most effective?
B.23
a. Spraying.
12. Which is the penetrant developer form designed to b. Swabbing.
dissolve in water? c. Brushing.
d. Dipping.
a. Form a. A.74
b. Form b.
c. Form c. 17. Emulsification time:
d. Form d.
B.53 a. is important but not normally critical.
b. is the time needed to rinse the emulsifier and
13. Which of the following is a possible cause for false excess penetrant from the surface.
penetrant indications? c. is extremely important and will greatly affect test
results.
a. UV-A light intensity at 1000 μW/cm2. d. should be as long as economically practical.
b. Allowing eyes to adapt to the dark room for A.67
5 min.
c. The liquid penetrant is 110 °F (43.33 °C).
d. Penetrant spots on the testing table.
B.21

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Review Questions

18. When performing PT using solvent-removable 22. Which of the following surface conditions is most
visible dye penetrant, which of the techniques listed likely to cause a false indication?
below is generally regarded as most suitable way to
remove excess penetrant from the surface of the part a. Excessively rough weld.
for giving accurate test results? b. Machine polished surface.
c. A light coating of developer.
a. Squirting solvent over the surface with no more d. A crater crack.
than 40 psi (276 kpa) pressure. A.158
b. Wiping with a soaking wet cloth, then wiping
with a dry cloth. 23. When using a fluorescent, postemulsifiable
c. Wiping with a solvent-dampened cloth, then penetrant, the length of time the emulsifier is allowed
wiping with dry cloths. to remain on the part is critical when detecting
d. Wiping with dry paper wipes, then wiping with a shallow scratch-like discontinuities. The actual
solvent-dampened cloth, and finally wiping with length of time should be:
dry cloth.
A.59 a. 10 s
b. 5s
19. Prior to performing PT on a previously machined c. 2 to 3 s
soft metal part, which of the cleaning techniques d. determined by experimentation
listed below would best remove any smeared metal B.28, 30–31; C.7–8
that could mask discontinuities?
24. Water-washable liquid penetrants differ from
a. Etching. postemulsification penetrants in that water-washable
b. Shot peening. penetrants:
c. Alkaline cleaning.
d. Water cleaning with detergents. a. can only be used on aluminum test specimens.
A.49, 187–188 b. do not need to be removed from surfaces prior to
development.
20. Why is the drying process used in PT? c. have a soapy base.
d. do not need the application of an emulsifier
a. The drying process is used to ensure that all before rinsing.
excess penetrant will evaporate. A.65
b. The drying process ensures the uniform drying of
dry developer applied over a wet emulsifier. 25. Contaminating materials left on the surface of a test
c. The drying process reduces penetration time. specimen must be removed because:
d. After the application of a wet aqueous developer,
the drying process aids in securing a uniform a. the contaminant may be of a composition that
developer coating. attacks the penetrant and increases the
A.73 fluorescence or color of the penetrant.
b. the contaminant may improve capillary action by
21. Which of the following reasons best describes why the penetrant.
excessive drying of a part should be avoided? c. the contaminant may retain the penetrant and
thus increase the sensitivity of the inspection.
a. The extra time required is wasted. d. the contaminant may prevent the adhesion of the
b. The dry developer may lose its blotting ability. penetrant to the surface or completely fill the
c. A reduction in fluorescent brilliance may result. crack and thus prevent the entry of penetrant.
d. The excess developer may be difficult to remove. A.158
A.72

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l level ii

26. When performing PT for shallow discontinuities 31. Which of the following is a discontinuity that might
using a postemulsification penetrant, the be found in sand castings?
emulsification time should be long enough to:
a. Incomplete penetration.
a. diffuse with the surface penetrant only. b. Undercut.
b. mix the emulsifier with all the penetrant on the c. Pipe.
surface and in discontinuities. d. Shrinkage.
c. mix the emulsifier with penetrant in the A.147–148; B.63
discontinuities.
d. allow the emulsifier to dry out to a white powder. 32. Which of the following is a common technique that
A.67–68 can help an inspector identify and determine a
nonrelevant indication?
27. A commonly used technique of checking on the
overall performance of a PT system is by: a. Reprocess the part through all steps and
reinspect.
a. determining the viscosity of the penetrant. b. Wipe off the indication with a solvent-damp
b. measuring the wettability of the penetrant. lint-free swab or cloth and reapply developer; the
c. comparing sections of artificially cracked original dwell time must be repeated.
specimens. c. Flush the indication with solvent, let it air dry,
d. measuring penetrant brightness with a apply developer, and inspect immediately.
fluorometer. d. Wipe off the indication with a solvent-damp
A.315 lint-free swab or cloth and reapply developer;
reduce developer dwell time by half the time.
28. An important difference between A.173
non-water-washable penetrants and water-washable
penetrants is that: 33. What instrument or method is used to test the water
concentration of aqueous wet developer baths?
a. water-washable penetrants contain emulsifiers
while non-water-washable penetrants do not. a. Hydrometer.
b. the viscosity of the two penetrants is different. b. Refractometer.
c. the color of the two penetrants is different. c. Photometer.
d. non-water-washable penetrants are more easily d. Fluorometer.
removed than water-washable penetrants. A.134
A.50
34. Which of the following is a discontinuity that might
29. Which of the following is a discontinuity that might be found in a forging?
be found in rolled bar stock?
a. Shrinkage cracks.
a. Shrinkage. b. Laps.
b. Bleedout. c. Cold shuts.
c. Laps. d. Insufficient penetration.
d. Undercut. A.149
A.149
35. Which of the following is a discontinuity that might
30. Which types of elements in cleaning materials should be found in rolled plate stock?
be avoided in the PT system when testing titanium
alloys? a. Inclusions.
b. Laminations.
a. Carbon or oil. c. Forging laps.
b. Halogenated solvents. d. Blowholes.
c. Emulsifier or oil. A.149
d. Fluorescent agents.
A.195

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Review Questions

36. Which of the following is an advantage of fluorescent 40. Why is it advisable to have an ultraviolet lamp
penetrants over visible dye penetrants? installed at the wash station?

a. The inspection can be carried out in a well-lit a. To check the effectiveness of the wash cycle.
area. b. To speed the bleeding of penetrant out of
b. Small indications are more easily seen. discontinuities.
c. They can be used where contact with water is c. So that inspection can be performed without
objectionable. drying parts.
d. They are less sensitive to contamination of d. To determine if parts have been covered with
discontinuities. penetrant.
A.60 A.65–66

37. Which of the following is an advantage of visible dye 41. Developer powder should always be:
penetrants over fluorescent penetrants?
a. highly fluorescent.
a. Small indications are more easily seen. b. applied wet.
b. They can be used on anodized and chromate c. colorless.
surfaces. d. evenly applied.
c. They make less background on rough surfaces. A.71
d. No special lighting is required.
A.60, 83, 107; B.50 42. When viewing parts, fluorescent background may
indicate:
38. Which of the following is an advantage of solvent
wipe methods over water-washing? a. inadequate washing.
b. overwashing.
a. No special lighting is necessary during inspection. c. low UV-A intensity.
b. They provide a quicker penetration of small d. overemulsification.
openings. A.63–64
c. Small indications are more easily seen.
d. They can easily be carried out in the field and 43. A written acceptance criterion should be based on:
remote areas.
A.83 a. the inspector’s education.
b. only the blueprint.
39. A hydrophilic emulsifier is: c. a number of factors.
d. the sensitivity of the penetrant.
a. used at a concentration of 10% to shorten the A.176
emulsification time.
b. brushed on to aid in the diffusion and solubility 44. When improper processing causes inspection
into the penetrant. difficulties, what should the inspector do?
c. designed to displace penetrant from the surface
and prevent redeposition. a. Swab parts with a solvent.
d. needed to preclean parts before applying b. Use a correct bleedback procedure.
penetrant. c. Erase nonrelevant fluorescence.
A.50 d. Reprocess the part.
A.69, 171

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l level ii

45. Which of the following is most likely to render the 50. The part is an aluminum casting with a very complex
postemulsification test ineffective? design. In one section, there is a flat area having a
thickness of 1.3 in. (32 mm). In the center of this
a. The penetrant time is too long. area is a round section, 2 in. (51 mm) thick and 1 in.
b. The developing time is too long. (25 mm) in diameter. There are linear indications
c. The emulsifying time is too long. approximately one-half the distance around the base
d. The dwell time is too long. where it joins into the thin section. What is the
A.67 indication called?

46. Dry developer should be applied: a. Dross.


b. Hot tear.
a. excessively for porous materials. c. Microshrinkage.
b. so that a thin uniform developer coating is d. Porosity.
applied. A.147–148, 500; B.66
c. in a dust cloud chamber.
d. by dipping and dragging. 51. Shrinkage cracks are usually found in what areas of a
A.71, 234 casting?

47. Which factor would apply in determining the dwell a. Thin sections only.
time required for the penetrant to be effective? b. Heavy sections only.
c. At abrupt changes in thickness.
a. Temperature. d. At gradual changes in thickness.
b. Shape of part. A.162
c. Size of part.
d. Surface roughness. 52. The term nonrelevant indication is used to describe
B.59 certain types of PT indications. Which of the
following would be a typical nonrelevant indication?
48. An indication on an aluminum forging part is sharp,
half-moon shaped, and not deep. What is it called? a. Indications due to part geometry or part design
configurations.
a. A lap. b. Indications not due to part geometry or part
b. Center line porosity. design configurations.
c. A heat-treat crack. c. Penetrant bleedout.
d. A false indication. d. Bleeding of penetrant from discontinuity
A.167 entrapments.
A.71, B.22
49. An indication that appears as a straight line is found
on a part that is a 0.5 in. (13 mm) thick aluminum 53. Which of the statements below best states the danger
plate with a V fusion weld. What is it called? of using sandblasting for cleaning surfaces to be
tested using PT?
a. Shrinkage.
b. Nonrelevant. a. The discontinuities may be closed.
c. A quench crack. b. Oil contaminants might be sealed in the
d. Lack of fusion. discontinuities.
A.405 c. No risk exists if the surface area is etched after
peening.
d. The sandblasting operation may introduce
discontinuities in the part.
A.48–49, B.14

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Review Questions

54. A continuous linear indication can be caused by 60. Which of the following is an advantage of
which of the following discontinuities? nonaqueous developers?

a. Porosity. a. The trace seepage of penetrants allows them to


b. Slag inclusions. pull up entrapped penetrant.
c. Pitting. b. They dissolve readily into water and give a coarse
d. Cold shut. grained film with light scattering.
A.154, B.22 c. They speedily diffuse into penetrant entrapments
and dissolve them.
55. The concentration of hydrophilic emulsifier is d. They are easy to apply in high volume testing and
measured by what instrument? emit no hazards.
A.109–110, C.16
a. Refractometer
b. Photometer 61. Cold shuts, which may be produced in castings, often
c. Fluorometer take on which of the following appearances?
d. Hydrometer
A.132 a. Round, porous.
b. Starburst.
56. Which of the following discontinuities would be c. Half-moon to linear.
impossible to detect using PT? d. Round, randomly dispersed.
C.25
a. A forging lap.
b. A crater crack. 62. One technique that may be used to distinguish
c. Grinding cracks. nonrelevant indications from relevant indications
d. Nonmetallic internal inclusions. entails:
A.153, 162–163, 167
a. wiping the indication with a solvent-dampened
57. The time required for dark adaptation of the eyes for swab and redeveloping.
fluorescent testing is normally at least: b. grinding the area producing the indication and
examining visually.
a. 5 min. c. applying emulsifier to the area in question.
b. 60 min. d. proceeding with an additional application of
c. 1 min. developer and twice the normal developing time.
d. 25 min. C.36
A.267
63. During PT process control checks, refractometers are
58. Postcleaning following a liquid penetrant test is used for:
especially critical for:
a. measuring the specific gravity of water-based
a. rough forgings. developers.
b. liquid oxygen systems. b. determining the concentration of hydrophilic
c. machined castings. emulsifier solutions.
d. extrusions. c. contamination checks.
C.10 d. determining the concentration of lipophilic
emulsifier solutions.
59. The attraction of like molecules is known as: C.17

a. cohesion.
b. adhesion.
c. tension.
d. wetting ability.
C.13

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l level ii

64. The attraction of dissimilar molecules is known as: 69. The human eye has the highest response to
wavelengths in which range?
a. cohesion.
b. adhesion. a. 365 nm.
c. tension. b. 400 nm.
d. wetting ability. c. 550 nm.
C.13 d. 750 nm.
E.66–67
65. The ratio of a liquid’s density to that of distilled
water is determined by measuring the liquid’s: 70. The color of liquid penetrant indications is
dependent on:
a. refractometer value.
b. cohesion forces. a. the size and shape of the piece under
c. contact angle. examination.
d. specific gravity. b. the type of penetrant system processing.
C.14 c. the length of the examination time.
d. the type of developer.
66. One disadvantage of a water-soluble developer is: E.77

a. it requires constant agitation. 71. The wavelength color used in fluorescent penetrant
b. it may not be used with Type II penetrants. testing is yellow-green in color. This color is in what
c. the surface being tested must be dry prior to wavelength band?
application.
d. susceptibility to evaporation losses. a. 280 to 320 nm
C.16 b. 320 to 400 nm
c. 450 to 500 nm
67. A process often employed after a machining d. 510 to 560 nm
operation and immediately before penetrant E.66–67
inspection to remove smeared metal from
discontinuity opening is: 72. Ultraviolet light is measured in which units?

a. emulsification. a. Units of energy per area.


b. casting. b. Units of distance per time.
c. forging. c. Units of megapascal per time.
d. etching. d. Units of meters per time.
C.39 E.72–73

68. Which ultraviolet light band has the smallest 73. What effect will white light have on the UV-A device
bandwidth? when measuring the ultraviolet intensity?

a. UV-A. a. The measurement will increase.


b. UV-B. b. The measurement will decrease.
c. UV-C. c. The measurement will not be affected.
d. UV-D. d. The measurement will be unstable and
E.66–67 inconsistent.
E.73

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Review Questions

74. Using a mercury arc UV-A device, how would the 76. The excess penetrant removal process is classified by
UV-A intensity vary with line voltage variations? method. What is Method A?

a. Inversely with line voltage. a. Water-washable.


b. Linearly with line voltage. b. Postemulsifiable, lipophilic.
c. Proportional to line voltage. c. Solvent-removable.
d. There is no variation in line voltage to intensity. d. Postemulsifiable, hydrophilic.
E.73–74 D.3

75. When performing PT using a postemulsification 77. A fluorescent penetrant, solvent-removable process
penetrant, which of the following is the most critical using a nonaqueous developer is classified as:
with respect to proper timing?
a. Type II, Method C, Form d.
a. Dwell time. b. Type I, Method A, Form a.
b. Developing time. c. Type I, Method C, Form d.
c. Emulsification time. d. Type II, Method D, Form b.
d. Drying time. D.3
A.63–64

Answers
1d 2c 3d 4b 5c 6d 7a 8b 9a 10c 11b 12b 13d
14c 15c 16a 17c 18d 19a 20d 21c 22a 23d 24d 25d 26a
27c 28a 29c 30b 31d 32b 33a 34b 35b 36b 37d 38d 39c
40a 41d 42a 43c 44d 45c 46b 47a 48a 49d 50b 51c 52a
53a 54d 55a 56d 57a 58b 59a 60c 61c 62a 63b 64b 65d
66d 67d 68c 69c 70b 71d 72a 73c 74b 75c 76a 77c

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LEVEL III
Review Questions

1. Chemical cleaners are often used for very dirty, 5. In theory, the most desirable objectives governing the
greasy parts. If used, the surface should be cleaning operations when removing surface
subsequently cleaned with: penetrant before inspection are to remove:

a. acid type removal. a. little penetrant from discontinuities and leave a


b. hot water. minimal of residual penetrant remaining on the
c. solvent type paint remover. surface.
d. hot tank alkaline cleaning. b. little penetrant from a discontinuity and leave no
A.185–190 residual penetrant remaining on the surface.
c. no penetrant from discontinuities and leave a
2. Generally, vapor degreasing is considered to be one minimal of residual penetrant on the part surface.
of the best techniques for preparing a part for PT d. no penetrant from discontinuities and leave no
because it is suitable for: residual penetrant on the part surface.
A.63
a. removal of organic contaminants.
b. removal of scale, rust, oxides, and corrosion. 6. The best technique for removing excess
c. use on chloride sensitive metals. water-washable penetrant is to:
d. removal of inorganic soils.
A.187, 195–196 a. immediately immerse the part in the water rinse
tank.
3. When penetrant is applied to parts by dipping, the b. use water running directly from a tap.
parts should be: c. boil in hot water or steam spray.
d. use a hose and nozzle with a coarse spray.
a. left in the tank during the entire dwell time. A.56
b. set aside until the dwell time is up.
c. placed on a rack designed to return any excess 7. When removing excess postemulsifiable penetrant in
drainage to the dipping station. a production situation involving relatively large
d. placed in the alkaline solvent rinse tank irregularly shaped parts, you may use a:
immediately.
A.234 a. coarse spray.
b. strong water blast.
4. With all other factors the same, when removing c. commercial solvent.
penetrant from the surface by spray water wash, d. hot water immersion.
penetrant in a crack would be harder to remove if it A.57–58
has which viscosity?

a. Low viscosity.
b. High viscosity.
c. Medium viscosity.
d. Viscosity is not important.
A.100

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l level iii

8. The sensitivity of wet developers can be seriously 12. Postcleaning is particularly important where residual
impaired: penetrant or developer materials may combine with
other materials in service to produce:
a. when the developer temperature is greater than
the ambient temperature. a. false penetrant indications.
b. when the thickness of the coating becomes too b. a contrasting background.
heavy. c. a corrosive action.
c. if the corrosion inhibitors are added to the d. proper surface tension.
developer. A.204
d. if the surface of the part is polished.
A.71–73 13. Postcleaning should be performed:

9. What type of developer is generally preferred for a. as soon as possible if the material is susceptible to
polished or smooth surfaces with very fine, shallow corrosion.
discontinuities? b. after several hours because the drier the materials
are, the easier they can be wiped off.
a. Form a. c. with the part warm to enhance the solubility of
b. Form b. penetrant material.
c. Form c. d. with the part chilled to cause the materials to lose
d. Form d. their cohesion.
A.62, 110 A.205

10. The best technique for drying after the application of 14. Ocular fluorescence should be considered when
a wet developer is normally: arranging ultraviolet lights for testing, because direct
or reflected UV-A light shining into the inspector’s
a. blotting the surface gently with absorbent paper eyes:
toweling.
b. allowing the part to dry slowly at or slightly a. will cause immediate blindness.
below the ambient temperature. b. is harmless and of no consequence.
c. rapid drying with a normal room temperature air c. can become extremely annoying and may impair
blast. inspector effectiveness.
d. drying with circulating air at a maximum of d. can become annoying, even though it will not
71 °C (160 °F). impair inspector effectiveness.
A.440, 446 A.77, 266

11. Removal of residual penetrant or developer materials 15. Residual acids and chromates are detrimental to the
by a suitable postcleaning technique is advantageous fluorescent processes because:
in which of the following cases?
a. they can impair wetting ability or fluorescent
a. Where it could interfere with subsequent brightness.
processes or with service. b. it will make excess removal of surface penetrant
b. Where it could provide a contrasting difficult.
background. c. they absorb UV-A light radiation and increase
c. Where it could assist in the emulsification of the fluorescent brightness of indications.
penetrant bleedout. d. they are insoluble with penetrants.
d. Where it could assist in the lattice structure A.121
breakdown.
A.204–206

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Review Questions

16. Due to the nature of penetrant material, which of the 20. In a modular equipment system using a
following adverse effects on operator health may water-washable fluorescent penetrant and dry
occur? developer dust cloud chamber, an ultraviolet lamp
should be available:
a. Penetrants are a hazard due to their inorganic
base. a. at the clean station.
b. Penetrant methods include materials which can b. at the wash station.
cause dermatitis if proper precautions are not c. at the developer station.
observed. d. after the oven cycle.
c. Penetrant materials contain evaporating solvents A.233–234
that can cause dizziness.
d. Modern penetrants have been improved to be 21. Filters on mercury arc ultraviolet lamps effectively
virtually hazard-free. remove:
A.89
a. natural white light.
17. Which of the following is an advantage of b. radiation of a wavelength above 300 nm.
postemulsifiable methods over water-washable c. visible light.
methods? d. fluorescence from the penetrant.
A.287
a. The excess penetrant removal is accomplished by
water spray. 22. The use of 100 W spot bulbs with a plain filter for
b. They usually exhibit higher sensitivity to tight color contrast penetrants:
cracks.
c. The overall test time is shortened. a. produces a high intensity narrow beam.
d. They are less likely to be removed from the b. produces a large amount of light over a large
discontinuity. area.
A.50 c. does not have a high maximum intensity in any
one area.
18. The type of penetrant to be used on an investment d. is ideal for inspecting large parts.
casting should be: A.289

a. water-washable visible dye for maximum 23. A good penetrant must:


sensitivity and water-washability.
b. solvent removable because of size and shape. a. be able to enter extremely fine surface openings.
c. postemulsifiable fluorescent for maximum b. perform dependent on the application for which
sensitivity and water-washability. it is intended.
d. solvent removable for greater visibility. c. be easily removed.
A.383–384 d. be an inorganic base liquid.
A.53
19. If modular equipment has been obtained for a PT
system using fluorescent postemulsifiable penetrant 24. Wetting ability is measured by the:
and wet developer, the dryer should be placed:
a. specific gravity.
a. after the developer tank. b. density.
b. before the emulsifier tank. c. contact angle.
c. before the developer tank. d. surface tension.
d. before the wash unit. A.97
A.234–235

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l level iii

25. Which of the following functions does a dry 30. Porosity indications in ceramics would appear:
developer perform?
a. more intense than porosity indications in metals.
a. Blots the penetrant by drawing it out of b. essentially the same as porosity indications in
discontinuities. metals.
b. Masks out nonrelevant indications. c. less intense than porosity indications in metals.
c. Dries out the surface of the part. d. as minute cracks.
d. Provides a noncontrasting background. A.170
A.51, 158–159; B.59; D.14
31. When inspecting a hard-fired ceramic that is very
26. When performing PT using fluorescent penetrants, porous, the best inspection technique would be the:
an indication will appear as a:
a. filtered particle test.
a. soft white glow against a gray background. b. electrified particle test.
b. brilliant yellow-green glow against a white c. brittle enamel.
background. d. emulsifiable color contrast.
c. bright yellow-green glow against a black A.485–488
background.
d. brilliant yellow-green glow against a deep 32. A partially welded forging lap would probably:
violet-blue background.
A.153 a. give no indication.
b. appear as a very thin, continuous line.
27. A Type II indication will usually appear as a: c. appear as a broad, continuous line.
d. appear as an intermittent line.
a. bright red glow against a white background. A.154
b. red color against a gray background.
c. red color against a white background. 33. A ragged line of variable width and numerous
d. red color against a glowing white background. branches on castings caused by a difference in
A.153 cooling rates between thick and thinner sections
would most likely be an indication of:
28. If an indication reappears after the original developer
has been removed and another coat is applied, the a. lack of fusion.
discontinuity: b. cold shut.
c. hot tear.
a. contains a reservoir of penetrant. d. lap.
b. is probably shrinkage. B.66
c. is most likely porosity.
d. is most likely a crack. 34. A deep crater crack will frequently appear as a:
A.155
a. small tight crack.
29. If, upon proper reprocessing, a faint indication fails b. rounded indication.
to reappear, what could be the cause? c. fine linear indication.
d. faint intermittent line.
a. It may be a false or nonrelevant indication. A.162
b. The area has been overcleaned.
c. Too light of a developer coating was applied. 35. The forces generated by capillary attraction cause a
d. Reprocessing has resealed the opening. liquid to rise spontaneously in a capillary tube. These
A.173 forces are also involved in the:

a. entry of a liquid into a crack.


b. solubility of a liquid.
c. flash point of a liquid.
d. chemical inertness of a liquid.
A.99

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Review Questions

36. Viscosity has a considerable effect on some of the 41. Developer particles used as a concentrate that do not
practical aspects of the use of a penetrant. It is an dissolve in water are commonly referred to as:
important factor in the:
a. dry powder developers.
a. solubility of contaminants. b. water-soluble developers.
b. washability of a penetrant. c. water-suspendable developers.
c. degree of fluorescence emitted. d. nonaqueous developers.
d. rate with which a penetrant will drain off a A.72
smooth surface.
A.100 42. The test used to measure contamination based on the
amount of water is the:
37. Wetting ability is:
a. water drop through test.
a. measured by contact angle and related to surface b. hydrometer test.
tension. c. photofluorometer test.
b. a function of viscosity and increases as surface d. water tolerance test.
tension decreases. A.127
c. measured by contact angle and decreases as
surface tension increases. 43. A technique for evaluating quantitative values for the
d. a function of capillary pressure and increases as emitted light of fluorescent materials is the use of a:
contact angle decreases.
A.97–98 a. fluorometer.
b. filtermeter.
38. A penetrant that will spread over the surface of the c. refractometer.
test area in a smooth, even film despite a small d. spectrometer.
amount of surface contamination is said to have: A.129–130

a. low viscosity. 44. When performing an evaluation of the fluorescent


b. high viscosity. ability of a penetrant, the value that is normally
c. wetting ability. sought is the:
d. low evaporation.
A.54 a. amount of actual light emitted by indications.
b. amount of UV-A light necessary to cause the
39. The comparative performance of two penetrants for material to fluoresce.
crack detection is best evaluated by: c. comparative amount of light emitted by the
fluorescent material compared to other
a. using a hydrometer to measure specific gravity. penetrants.
b. using cracked aluminum blocks. d. relative amount of light emitted by the
c. measuring the contact angles in a wetting test. fluorescent material compared to the light
d. the meniscus test. emitted by the background.
A.304 A.129–130

40. For postemulsifiable penetrants, a good technique for


establishing emulsifying time is by:

a. experimentation.
b. the water drop through test.
c. the water tolerance test.
d. using published book values.
A.66–67; B.30–31

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l level iii

45. The ability of an indication to be seen can be 49. What are two very important properties that
assigned a value called the contrast ratio. This ratio is determine whether a liquid will have high
based on the amount of: penetrating ability?

a. white light present as opposed to the amount of a. Surface tension and the contact angle.
light absorbed by the dye. b. Viscosity and contact angle.
b. light reflected by the background as opposed to c. Contact angle and density.
the amount of light absorbed by the dye. d. Surface tension and viscosity.
c. light absorbed by the background as opposed to A.97–98, 100
the amount of light reflected by the dye.
d. light reflected by the background as opposed to 50. Where precleaning is necessary and a residue-free
the amount of light reflected by the dye. solvent is used, which of the following is observed?
A.76, 272, 494
a. The solvents are not suitable for removing grease.
46. The test object and standard penetrant materials b. The solvents are not suitable for removing oil.
should be within a particular temperature range. One c. The solvents should never be used for removing
of the reasons an excessively cold penetrant is grease and oils.
undesirable is that as the temperature becomes lower: d. The solvents are suitable for removing grease and
oils but are generally not adequate if solids are
a. the viscosity increases. embedded in void areas.
b. the viscosity decreases. A.193–195
c. fewer volatile materials will be lost.
d. the dyes degrade. 51. When utilizing the fluorescent postemulsifiable
A.158 penetrant technique and performing the rinse cycle,
which of the following will prevent overrinsing?
47. If the surface temperature of the test part is
excessively hot, the: a. Rinse before the penetrant is completely
emulsified.
a. viscosity of the penetrant may be too high. b. Rinse after the penetrant is completely
b. surface tension of the penetrant increases. emulsified.
c. penetrant may lose fluorescent brightness as the c. Discontinue the rinse as soon as the surface
dyes can degrade. penetrant is removed from the part.
d. contact angle increases. d. Rinse only with water hotter than 43 °C (110 °F).
A.122 A.65–66

48. Which of the following is a criterion for a good 52. A colored substance added to the penetrant solution
dryer? to aide in providing a contrast between a penetrant
indication and the examination surface background
a. It has the ability to dry the surface slowly. is:
b. It has the ability to heat the part to an optimum
temperature in a minimum of time so that the a. emulsifier.
part is both dry and warm as promptly as b. water.
possible. c. dye.
c. It has the electrical heating elements that d. high viscosity powder.
guarantee that no contaminants can be D.7
introduced into the testing process.
d. It is a warm air blast system.
A.203, 234

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Review Questions

53. The viscosity of a liquid penetrant may vary with an 57. Which of the following spray angles is the most
increase or decrease in: effective for the washing or rinsing operation?

a. capillary action. a. 10° to 20°


b. contact angle. b. 45° to 75°
c. penetrating ability. c. 75° to 90°
d. temperature. d. 80° to 90°
D.8 D.27

54. Fluorescent penetrant testing is to be conducted 58. Penetrant bleedout from an area where two
within a predetermined temperature range. The individual part configurations are press fit together
effect which temperature has on a penetrant’s would be classified as:
fluorescent intensity is known as:
a. nonrelevant indication.
a. flash point. b. false indication.
b. temperature stability. c. relevant indication.
c. emulsification. d. true indication.
d. thermal stability. D.35
D.9
59. The process by which a penetrant indication is
55. The term lipophilic refers to a type of emulsifier that determined to be false, relevant, or nonrelevant is
is: called:

a. oil-based and works through a process known as a. determination.


diffusion. b. investigation.
b. water-based and works through a process known c. interpretation.
as extraction. d. observation.
c. oil-based and works through a process known as D.35
surfacing.
d. dye-based and works through a process known as 60. Why is it necessary for the inspection area used
diffusion. during a Type I penetrant test to be darkened?
D.19
a. To prevent interference from other inspectors
56. An emulsifier which is supplied as a concentrate and during the testing.
mixed with water for a desired concentration prior to b. Because the darkened area will increase the
use is: output of the fluorescent indications.
c. Because white light can quench the fluorescent
a. nonaqueous. intensity of indications.
b. hydrophilic. d. Because in darkened conditions the human eye
c. water-suspendable. can see indications better in the 500 to 600 nm
d. lipophilic. light bandwidth.
D.19 A.279–280

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Liquid Penetrant Testing Method l level iii

61. During a field fluorescent penetrant test, the 63. The wavelength of visible light put off by fluorescent
inspector uses a canvas hood to darken the area. The penetrants is at a specific wavelength, as the human
wind in the field conditions causes the hood device eye is especially responsive to this color. When
to occasionally allow white light to flood the area. viewed in a darkened lighting condition of less than
Would this be an issue for the validity of the 21.5 lx (2 fc) versus a well-lighted condition of
inspection? 1076.4 lx (100 fc), approximately how much more
is the human eye sensitive to this specific wavelength
a. No, since between times the white light enters the of fluorescent penetrant?
area, the inspector could complete the inspection
as soon as the area darkens. a. 10×
b. No, since the human eye is so sensitive to b. 20×
fluorescent emissions the occasional white light c. 30×
will not interfere with the inspector’s dark eye d. 40×
adaptation. E.66–67
c. Yes, since even a short bright light exposure
cancels the slowly acquired dark adaptation. 64. During the inspection of an investment casting using
d. Yes, since the human eye is not sensitive to the a Type I, Method D penetrant system, the inspector
fluorescent emissions from indications where notes that the casting surface has a slight amount of
penetrant bleedout has occurred. fluorescent background. What action should the
E.75 inspector take?

62. While inspecting a welded joint, the inspector found


a smooth linear indication that followed the edge of a. The fluorescent background indicates the casting
the material that had overlapped. What would be the has not been properly cleaned and it should be
most likely finding of this indication? reprocessed.
b. The fluorescent background indicates that the
a. A crack in the base metal. emulsifier dwell time is too long and the casting
b. A lack of penetration. should be reprocessed with a shorter dwell time.
c. A linear progression of porosity. c. The limited fluorescent background is acceptable
d. A false indication. and the casting should be processed through the
A.150 penetrant system.
d. The fluorescent background indicates that the
water pressure and temperature were too high
and the casting should be reprocessed with the
correct pressure and temperature.
E.39–40

Answers
1d 2a 3c 4b 5d 6d 7a 8b 9d 10d 11a 12c 13a
14c 15a 16b 17d 18c 19a 20b 21c 22a 23b 24c 25a 26d
27c 28a 29a 30b 31a 32d 33c 34b 35a 36d 37a 38c 39b
40a 41c 42d 43a 44c 45d 46a 47c 48b 49a 50d 51c 52c
53d 54d 55a 56b 57b 58a 59c 60c 61c 62b 63c 64c

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The American Society for Catalog Number: 10116
Nondestructive Testing Inc. ISBN: 978-1-57117-491-8
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