Social Studies

210/2024-25
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions
in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions
and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from
History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
SECTION A
Q1. Which of the following aspects best signifies this image?

(a) Round table conference in London

(b) Constituent Assembly of India
(c) The Frankfurt Parliament in the church of St. Paul
(d) The Hall of Mirrors of Versailles
Q2. On which of the following issues did the Narmada Bachao Andolan first focus?
A. Benefits of irrigation to landless farmers
B. Environmental issues related to submergence of trees under the dam water
C. Rehabilitation of the people displaced due to construction of the dam
D. Economic issues of wastage of money for the construction of the dam
Q3. Average income is the total income of .
A. all the citizens
B. of all the citizens divided by the population
C. all the tertiary sector
D. None of the above
Q4. How are the sacred groves treated?
A. Only the villagers can use them
B. patches of forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and
any interference with them is banned
C. They are under government control
D. Local communities take care of them
Q5. In which of the two languages, 50 books were published in 1674.
(a) Konkani and Kanada
(b) Malayalam and Manipuri
(c) Telugu and Tamil
(d) Oriya and Bhojpuri
Q6. Assertion (A): Democracy is an accountable, responsive and legitimate government.
Reason (R): Democracies have regular, free and fair elections and decision-making is based
on norms and procedures.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Q7. Which of the following is NOT an element of the Belgian model of power-sharing?
(a) Some laws can only be passed with a majority from each linguistic group.
(b) The central government has an equal number of Dutch and French ministers.
(c) State governments of the two linguistic regions enjoy some powers of the central
government.
(d) Territories based on language were abolished and people were encouraged to live
amongst each other.
Q8. According to the data of 2018-19 which state has the highest per capita income?
A. Kerala
B. Haryana
C. Bihar
Q9. Division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government is
called___________.
a) Vertical Division of power
b) horizontal division of power
c) Balance of power
d) separation of power
Q10. Why did Governor General Warren Hastings persecute James Augustus Hickey?
(a) For poor editing of the Bengal Gazette
(b) For publishing a lot of gossip about the company’s Senior Official
(c) For publishing substandard material
(d) None of these
Q11. Level of income is the best and the only parameter to assess the development of any
nation.
A. Agree
B. Disagree
Q12. Learning from Belgium’s experience, which of the following steps could have most
likely avoided a civil war in Sri Lanka that ended in 2009?
(a)making reservations in jobs for the Tamil speaking minority community.
(b) dividing the entire country on the basis linguistic lines to appease the citizens
(c) devising laws to accommodate the ethnic differences of citizens to ensure peace
(d) conducting a thorough census to strictly segregate the Indian Tamils from the Sri Lankan
Tamils.
Q13. Assertion(A): From ancient times groups like travellers, traders, priests, and pilgrims
have travelled vast distances.
Reasons(R): These journeys were for knowledge, opportunity, spiritual fulfilment etc.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Q14. Underemployment occurs when ______
A. people do not want to work
B. Are working in a lazy manner
C. Are unable to get work as per their abilities.
D. Are not paid for their work
Q15. Assertion (A): Any democratic system must allow at least two parties to compete in
elections and provide a fair chance for the competing parties to come to power.
Reason (R): One-party system cannot be considered as a democratic option.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true
Q16. Foreign trade and foreign investment are the same.
A. True
B. False
Q17. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels known as
A. Tributaries
B. Ravines
C. Gullies
D. Drains
Q18. A decision taken through the correct procedure by involving the people is known
as________
(a) Transparency
(b) Economic growth
(c) Poverty reduction
(d) Equality
Q19. If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other
members are neglected, then what challenge is being faced by that party?
(a) lack of internal democracy
(b) dynastic succession
(c) growing role of money and muscle power in parties
(d) parties do not offer a meaningful choice to the voters.
Q20. Statement I- The disadvantaged and discriminated castes have gained in strength due
to democracy.
Statement II-Democracy have successfully eliminated conflicts among people.
(a)Statement i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect
(b) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

SECTION B
Q21. ‘Many times the introduction of new crops makes the difference between life and
death’. Explain the statement with the example of the introduction of potato crops in Europe.
Q22. Explain two ways in which irrigation schemes have changed the social landscape of the
region. (2M)
Q23. Explain how political alliance building is an example of power sharing.
Q24. What are the challenges faced in effective implementation of decentralization?
SECTION C
Q25. Explain the effects of the ‘worldwide economic depression’ on India, towards the late
1920s
Q26. Why aren't the prices of intermediate items counted separately? Explain.
Q27. What does it mean to invest abroad? What was the objective of Ford motors' investment
in India?
Q28. “The Government of India has introduced various institutional and technological
reforms to improve agriculture in the 1980s and 1990s”. Support this statement with
examples (3M)
Q29. Examine the language policy of India as an important aspect of our constitution.
SECTION D
Q30. In Britain, the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or
revolution. Validate the statement with relevant arguments.
OR
“Printing technology gave women a chance to share their feelings with the world outside.”
Support the statement with any five suitable examples.
Q31. Explain the importance of conservation of minerals. Highlight any three measures to
conserve them.
OR
Which is the second most important energy resource in India after coal? Mention its two uses
along with its deposits in India. (5M)
Q32. Yasmin is an uneducated poor living in a remote village of Rajasthan. How will she
collaborate to be eligible to get a bank loan without personal collateral? What are the four
benefits that she will receive due to this collaboration? (2+3)
Q33. Modern democracies cannot exist without political parties. Examine the statement.
SECTION E
Q34. Read the extract and answer the questions given below:
The Congress Working Committee, in its meeting in Wardha on 14 July 1942, passed the
historic Quit India resolution demanding that the British immediately transfer power to
Indians and leave India. On 8 August 1942 in Mumbai, the All India Congress Committee
endorsed the resolution which called for a non-violent mass struggle on the widest possible
scale throughout the country. On this occasion, Gandhiji delivered the famous ‘Do or Die’
speech. The call for ‘Quit India’ almost brought the state machinery to a standstill in large
parts of the country as people voluntarily threw themselves into the movement. People
observed hartals and national songs and slogans accompanied by demonstrations and
processions. The movement was truly a mass movement that brought thousands of ordinary
people into its ambit, namely students, workers and peasants. It also saw the active
participation of leaders, namely, Jayprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali and Ram Manohar
Lohia and many women leaders such as Matangini Hazra in Bengal, Kanaklata Barua in
Assam and Rama Devi in Odisha. The British responded with force, yet it took more than a
year to suppress the movement.
1. Where did Gandhiji give his famous do-or-die speech?
A. Wardha
B. Surat
C. Lahore
 D. Mumbai
2. Which of the following was a demand of the ‘Quit India’ resolution?
A. Separate nation for Hindus
B. Freedom of Speech
C. Freedom to observe hartals and demonstrations
D. Immediate transfer of power to Indians
3. Name the famous female leader from Odisha who participated in the Quit India Movement
A. Kanaklata Barua
B. Aruna Asaf Ali
C. Rama Devi
D. Matangini Hazra
4. How did people respond to the call of the Quit India movement?
Q35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: (4M)
In the early years, the cotton textile industry was concentrated in the cotton growing belt of
Maharashtra and Gujarat. Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible
port facilities, labour, moist climate, etc. contributed towards its localisation.
While spinning continues to be centralized in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu, weaving
is highly decentralised to provide scope for incorporating traditional skills and designs of
weaving in cotton, silk, zari, embroidery, etc. India has world class production in spinning,
but weaving supplies low quality of fabric as it cannot use much of the high-quality yarn
produced in the country. Weaving is done by handloom, powerloom and in mills. The
handspun khadi provides large scale employment to weavers in their homes as a cottage
industry.
1. In which state spinning continues to be centralized? Why? (1M)
2. Who all are provided employment opportunities by cotton textile industries. (1M)
3. Explain any four factors for the concentration of cotton textile industry in Maharashtra and
Gujarat in early years. (2M)
Q36. Answer the questions based on the attached image.
 A. Write any one reason for the rapid growth of call centres in India? (1)
B. What are the basic infrastructural requirements for smooth running of these
institutions? (2)
C. Name the sector in which you place the above type of occupation?(1)
SECTION F
37(A) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The location of the Indian National Congress Session of 1927.
B. A place where Gandhi ceremonially violated the Salt Law and manufactured salt by
boiling salt seawater.

37(B) On an outline map of India locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable
symbols. (3M)
a) Hirakud Dam
b) Gandhinagar software technology park
c) Meenam Bakkam International Airport
d) Kakrapara Nuclear Power Plant
e) A major producer of Ragi