Air Law

Lesson 1
04 November 2019 14:01
ICAO -> international civil aviation organization (States)

Conventions IATA -> international air transport association (Airlines)
1- Chicago
a. ICAO
2- Tokyo
a. Penal law (you can take any measures including
restraining to avoid jeopardy, may deliver such person to
the competent authorities, authorise the assistance of
crew to disembark the passenger, PIC may ask passengers
to help them)
3- Hague Air navigation
a. members to prosecute (Hijack) 1- General and application
4- Rome 2- Flight over contracting states
a. liabilities to third parties on GND 3- Aircraft nationality
5- Warsaw -> Liability of PAX/CARGO/BAGS 4- Means for the facilitation of air traffic
6- Montreal 5- Conditions and requirements for
a. criminal offences against aviation (everything against aircraft and crew
aviation except hijacking, however destruction of aircraft 6- International standards and
or air navigation system) and amended important recommended practices
provisions of the Warsaw convention regime concerning
compensation for the victims of air disasters
7- Geneva convention
a. Outlawed double registration
8- Agreement of Paris
a. It states that European aircraft don’t need permission to Definitions
fly over European countries 1- Sovereignty: The right of a country to
impose national law to users of the state's
territorial airspace
2- Suzerainty: the acceptance by a state of
Chicago convention rules agreed at international conventions,
1- Created ICAO even if there is no need for the state to
2- 52 states met in 1944 and created laws (SARPS) adopt these rules (for e.g. France controls
a. SA= standard is law (must do) the airspace of Monaco)
b. RPS= recommended practice (choice) 3- Territorial airspace: the airspace over a
3- 19 annex state's territory, over its territorial waters
4- Terms/Expressions for aviation and any off shore installation. Outside this
5- Other international agreements are the high seas. All states have the right to
i. Freedom of the air fly over the high seas.
6- Other international organisations 4- Scheduled air services: agreement between
states as to:
a. How many flights within a period
b. What aerodromes are to be used
Freedoms of the air
c. Times of day or night
1- Allow non-scheduled flights over the territory of another (1st freedom)
d. Any reciprocal agreements
2- To land at its airport - non traffic purposes (2nd freedom)
e. States not obliged to grant permission
3- Privilege of putting down passengers, mail and cargo taken on into the territory of the
5- Cabotage: is the transport of passengers
states whose nationality the aircraft possesses (3rd freedom) (TAKE)
mail or freight between 2 points in the same
4- Privilege of taking on passengers, mail and cargo destined from the territory of the
country by a vessel or aircraft registered in
states whose nationality the aircraft possess . (4th freedom) (BRING)
another country or state
5- Privilege of taking passengers, mail and cargo destined for the territory of any
a. Most countries refuse Cabotage
contracting state and the privilege of putting down passengers, mail and cargo coming
b. But, they cannot refuse Cabotage to
from any such country. (5th freedom)
an EEC state (EEC is a European state)
Annexes 6- All international flights must make the first
landing at a recognised international airport
which provides customs, health and
immigration facilities
a. But not applicable to a flight from one
EU state
7- Rules of the air: every state must ensure by
certain rules that every aircraft flying over
the territory or take-offs/lands there obeys
the relevant rules
a. If the rules are violated, the states has
to make sure that all
persons/companies are prosecuted
8- Searching of aircraft: contracting have the
right, without unreasonable delay, to search
the aircraft of another contracting state on
landing or departure
a. They have the right to inspect the
certificates and other documents
Topic 1 Page 1
right, without unreasonable delay, to search
the aircraft of another contracting state on
landing or departure
a. They have the right to inspect the
certificates and other documents
prescribed by the Chicago convention
The standards contained in the annexes to the Chicago convention are considered to be binding
for the states that have not notified ICAO
Annexes you want to know as a pilot

1- 1
2- 2
3- 6
4- 11
5- 14
6- 15
7- 17
Topic 1 Page 2
Lesson 2 and 3
05 November 2019 08:35
Document types:
1- Aircraft documents ICAO goals:
a. Certificate of registration ICAO establishes standards and recommended international
b. Certificate of airworthiness practices for contracting states
c. Noise certificate in the original or as copy One of the main objectives of ICAO is to develop principles
d. Radiotelephony certificate and technique for international aviation
e. Insurance documents original or as copy
2- Pilot documents
a. Valid license
b. Required ratings ICAO structure
3- Flight documents - The assembly:
a. Flight log ○ The sovereign body of ICAO
b. Technical log book
○ It meets every 3 years, reviewing and
c. ATS flight plan if applicable
setting policies for the upcoming
d. NOTAM and AIS documentation
years
e. Meteorological information
- The council
f. Mass and balance calculations
○ The governing body which is elected
g. Notification of special cargo or passengers
by the assembly for a 3 year term
h. Valid charts
○ The president of ICAO is elected for 3
i. Cargo and passenger list years
4- Cargo restrictions
- Air navigation commission
a. No munitions of war may be carried in or above the territory of state without the
○ Composed of 19 person
permission of state
○ Works on topics of SARPS
○ Finalises the standards and
recommended practises for
submission for adoption
○ The council nominates 19 members
and tasks them with drafting
ICAO Documents: standards and recommended
- DOC 4444 practices
○ rules of the air and ATM ○ When a state has a non-compliance
- DOC 7606 with international standard, the
○ MET state has to notify the council of
- DOC8168 ICAO immediately and publish such
○ Aircraft operations differences in the national AIP.
- OC 8400 ○ In case of amendments to
○ Abbreviations and codes international standards, 60 days'
- DOC 7910 notice period.
○ Location identifiers - HQ (Montreal)
○ Technical, economical and legal
aspects are done by ICAO
- ICAO regional structure
○ 7 regional offices
○ 9 regions
○ Regional offices are responsible for
keeping regional plans up to date
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Lesson 4
10 November 2019 15:14
Agreements Joint aviation authorities (JAA)

- Bilateral agreements - An association body of ECAC
- Traffic rights - Controlled by a committee which works under a board
- International private laws
Euro controlled
- Provides common ATC services in the airspace of member states and aims to
strengthen cooperation in matters of air navigation
- Air traffic flow management (ATFM) which controls air traffic flow all around Europe
European civil aviation conference (ECAC)

- Responsible for a common civil aviation policy across Europe
Definitions
- Airworthiness - Airworthiness
- Rendering valid ○ Aeroplanes over 5,700kg max certified T/O Mass intended for the carriage
- Type certificate of an airworthiness certificate
- Maintenance ○ Must have at least 2 engines
- Continuing airworthiness - Certificate of airworthiness (C of A)
- Airworthiness ○ Issued by the state of registration
○ ○ States must issue or maintain a C of A
○ Approved limitations
○ The state of design
○ State of registry considers whether the damaged sustained is of a nature
such that the aircraft is still airworthy
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Lesson 5
12 November 2019 15:10
Aircraft nationality and registration marks

- Found on
○ the fuselage of every plane (30 cms high)
○ Underside of the wings (minimum 50cms high)
- The registration and flag are always shown
○ Registration marks should either be letter number or a combination
○ Registration mark is given by state of registry
- Always nationality than registration for example A6-EEA
- Aircraft
○ Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air
- Heavier than air aircraft
○ Any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic forces
- State of registry
○ The state on whose register the aircraft is entered
- ITU (international telecommunication union)
○ They assign the nationality for e.g. A6
- Annex 7 (nationality and reg) contains a list of those contracting states which have
○ Notified ICAO of differences which exist between their national regulations and the ICAO
standards set down in annex 7
- Common mark
○ Where the aircraft is operated by an international agency
○ ICAO will inform the state of registry about the common mark
- Certain registration that can't be put on aircraft
 SOS (distress)
 PAN (urgency)
 XXX (urgency)
 TTT (security)
 Combinations including Q codes
 5 letter combination used in the international code of signals
- Certificate of registration (C of R)
○ Name and address of the owner
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Lesson 6 and 7
13 November 2019 14:00
ICAO
- Basis for all ICAO states Definitions we must know
EASA - Dual instruction time
- EASA for all EASA members - Flight time
- Area of validity is different to ICAO - Flight time SPIC
- EASA specific licenses, LAPL{light airplane pilot license) (not ICAO compliant - Instrument time
- Follows ICAO, but local differences must be reported by local authority - Cross country flight
Credit of flight time ○ Minimum 300nm and must
- When acting as a co-pilot of an aircraft in which a co-pilot is required the pilot, the pilot is land at 2 different
entitled to count 100% of the co-pilot time towards his flight time. However ICAO says your aerodromes
only allowed to count 50% of your total time - Category of aircraft
Requirements to for duties as flight crew - Instrument
- Level 4 language - Instrument ground time
- Continuous flight experience - MCC
○ Last 90 days - Multiple pilot aeroplanes
- Aircraft documents - Night
○ ICAO: during the period when
the centre
- Skill set
CPL
- Not less than 200 hours
- 150 hours if completed during
an approved course of which 5
hours may be instrument
ground time
- 20 hours x country
- 10 hours instruments
- Not less than 300nm
- Must land at 2 different a/d
ATPL
- 21 years
- Class 1 medical
GCAA license valid for 8 years - 100 hours of synthetic trainer
EASA valid for 5 years - Not more than 25 hours have
Multi engine ratings valid for 12 months been acquired in a flight
Single pilot single engine pilot valid for 2 years procedure trainer or a basic
PBC pilot proficiency check for emirates instrument trainer
Once you reach 60 you can't fly with someone 60 or over - 200 flight x country
And at 65 you can't fly commercially anymore - 100 hours pic or copilot acting
as pic under supervision
- 100 hours night flight as pic or
co
- 500 hours multi pilot operation
- 75 hr instrument instruction
time
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Lesson 8
20 November 2019 08:30
- Ratings require a valid license

- 2 types of ratings
○ Class rating
 Single engine piston (validity 2 years)
 Multi engine piston (1 year)
 Touring motor gliders
○ Type rating
 Boeing 737 (example)
□ Need a type rating for multi pilot aircraft
□ Authorities can require a type rating on any type of aircraft
- Validity of class and type ratings
○ They are valid from the date of issue
- Validity of medical
○ The day you get your medical checked, not the day you get your medical certificate
○ Medical certificate should be undertaken up tp 45 days prior to the expiry date of the
medical certificate
○ Class 1
 24 months if your under 40
○ Class 2
 60 months under 40
- Validity of type rating
○ Type rating expired for more than 3 years you have to restart training from the
beginning
- Examiner rating
○ 3 years
- Decrease in medical fitness
○ Suffers any illness involving incapacity to act as flight crew throughout a period of 21
days or more (notify after 21 days of consecutive illness)
○ Have been admitted to hospital or medical clinic
- Medical examination deferment
○ If you are in an area with no medical facilities
 you can delay your medical check for a period for 6 month for aircraft engaged in
non-commercial operations
 Or 2 consecutives periods of 3 months for aircrew engaged in commercial
operation
- Initial medical
○ Class 1
 Should be done by AeMC or AEM
- operational multi pilot limitation (OML)
○ The holder then shall only operate an aircraft in multi
- OSL
- OPL
○ Holder of OPL shall only operate an aircraft without passengers
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Lesson 9 and 10
24 November 2019 10:53
Rules of the air
Detentions
- Advisory airspace
- Advisory route
- Aerodrome
- Aerodrome control tower
- Aerodrome traffic Must know
- aeronautical information publications (AIP) Upwind
- Air traffic Downwind
- Air traffic advisory service Base
- Air traffic control service Final
- Airway Crosswind lac Get familiar with this picture
- ATS airspaces
- Alerting service
- Take-off alternate
- En-route alternate Precision approach
- Destination alternate - Decision altitude
- Apron Non precision approach
- Area control - Minimum descent altitude
- Area navigation (RNAV) (MDA)
- Control zone
- Danger area
- Current flight plan
- Estimated off block time (EOBT)
- Estimated time of arrival (ETA)
- Estimated time of approach (EAT)
○ Deal with holding and delays
- Flight information region
- Flight information surface
- Flight visibility
- Ground visibility VMC minima
- IMC - (Class A,B,C,D)
- Precision approach ○ Below 10000 feet
- Non precision approach  5km visibility
- Repetitive flight plan (RPL)  1000ft vertical distance from cloud
- Reporting point  1500m horizontal
- Special VFR (SVFR) ○ Above 10000 feet (Class A,B,C,D)
- Total estimate elapsed time  10 km visibility
- Manoeuvring area  1000ft vertical
- Movement area  1500m horizontal
- Class F and G
○ 3000ft must be able to see the ground and have no clouds
○ The rest are like above
PIC has final authority over the disposition

of the aircraft
General rules
- Collision avoidance
- Approximation
○ An aircraft cannot get closer than 500ft to another aircraft
○ An aircraft shall not be operated in such proximity that creates a hazard of collision
- Right of way
○ An aircraft that has right of way maintains heading and speed
- When 2 aircraft are head-on
○ they both should turn to the right
- Converging - same type

○ The aircraft that has the other on its right shall have right of way
Green serine
Red danger
- Converging - different type

○ Give way to gliders, balloons and gliders
○ Power driven heavier than air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders, and balloons
○ FAGB = airship gliders and balloons
- Overtaking
Topic 1 Page 8
- Overtaking
○ Overtake to the right side
○ Keep a visual of the aircraft you're over taking
○ The airplane that is being overtaken has the right of way
- Aircraft on approach
○ Aircraft on the ground or water shall give way to the aircraft landing or on final approach
- Landing
○ Aircraft at higher level will give way to aircraft at lower level
- Emergency
○ All aircraft should give way to aircraft with an emergency
- Surface movement of aircraft
○ Both stop or where practical alter course to the right
○ Aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area shall stop and hold short at all lighted stop bars
Topic 1 Page 9
Lesson 11 and 12
26 November 2019 10:51
The lights required on aircraft

- Aircraft lights have to be illuminated from sunset to sunrise or any other time specified by the
appropriate authority
- Moving on the movement of the area of an aerodrome shall display navigation lights and
- Anti-Collison lights to be on before engine start
- Types of light
○ Anti-collision
 Beacon and strobe
○ Navigation lights
 Red (left)(portside)
 Green (right) (starboard)
Marshalling signals
- Look at the document provided or open boeing courseware MUST KNOW!
VFR Flights
- If you want to fly over congested area or cities you have to fly 1000ft (300m) above the highest
obstacle and at a radius of 600m from the heights obstacle
- In all other areas you can fly at a height not less than 500ft (150 m)
IFR Flights
- Over highest terrain or mountainous areas, you have to fly at a level of at least 2000ft(600m)
above the highest obstacle located within 5NM (8Km)of the estimated position the aircraft
- In area other than above, at a level at least 1000ft (300m) and within a distance of 5NM(8km)
Signals and signs
Topic 1 Page 10
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- Training flights under simulated instruments condition

○ Dual controls are fitted
○ A qualified pilot occupies a control seat to act as a safety pilot (PNF)
○ Must have VMC
- Control of aerodrome traffic

○ Always enter traffic circuit at downwind
○ Circuits are always left turns unless stated
- Traffic circuit
- Flight plan
○ You don’t always have to file a flight plan but it is always recommended to file a flight
plan
You must file a flight plan when flying IFR or within advisory airspace
Topic 1 Page 12
○ You must file a flight plan when flying IFR or within advisory airspace
○ You don’t file a flight plan you don’t get ATS
○ Any flight across international borders require a flight plan
○ 2 types
 ATS
□ Also known as ICAO flight plan
 OFP
□ Operational flight plan
○ When to submit a flight plan
 60 minutes prior to departure
 ATFM (air traffic flow management) at least 3 hours before EOBT (estimated off
block time)
 Or when submitted in flight
□ At least 10 minutes before aircraft is estimated to reach: entry into CAS
(controlled airspace) or crossing an airway or an ADR (advisory route)
○ Delays
 In the event of a delay
□ 30 mins in excess of estimated off-blocks time (EOBT) for a controlled flight
□ In excess of 1 hour for uncontrolled flight
□ Or if you don’t know cancel the flight plan and file again
○ Changes in flight plan
 Are to be reported as soon as practicable to the appropriate ATSU
 Significant changes should be reported too
 Info regarding fuel endurance and POB are considered significant change
○ Flight plan adherence
 +/- 5 change of TAS% must be reported to ATC
 If you are going to be 3 minutes late to the nearest reporting point or destination
or boundary you must inform ATC
○ Flight plan adherence
 Unless in an emergency you must adhere the flight plan
○ Time
 Time is reported in UTC
 Time checks to pilot are passed by ATC to the nearest minute
 To make flight times accurate time checks are carried out before and sometime in
flight
 30 seconds are ATC internal
 What we deal with ATC is 1 minute
 And DATA link is 1 second
○ Repetitive flight plans
 The same day of the consecutive weeks and at least 10 occasions
 Everyday over a period of at least 10 consecutive days
○ Closing a flight plan
 On arrival the flight plan will be closed
 You close it by
□ Aircraft ident
□ Departure aerodrome
□ Destination aerodrome
□ Arrival aerodrome
□ Time of arrival (UTC)
 A flight plan can be closed personally via phone, radio or data-link with ATC as a
possible after landing
○ ATC clearance
 Clearance are issued solely for expediting and separating traffic
- A pilot in command may request an amended clearance if the issue clearance is
unsatisfactory and such amended clearance will be issued if practicable
- Clearances must be read back word for word to ATC
Topic 1 Page 13
Topic 1 Page 14
Lesson 13 and 14
27 November 2019 09:40
Weather deterioration below VMC

- Change IFR DME: distance measuring
○ Make sure you are IR rated equipment
○ Aircraft has to have the IFR equipment SSR: secondary surveillance
- Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome radar
- Take a different route VOR: VHF omnidirectional
- You must tell ATC what you're actions are range
- If the flight is being operated in a control zone we can request special VFR ATIS: Automated information
terminal system
Positions report IAF: Initial approach fix
- A controlled flight is to make positions reports at required/designated position ASAP after
reaching the reporting point (unless advised to cease position reporting)
- The report is to contain
○ Aircraft ID
○ Position
○ Time
○ Altitude or FL
○ Next position and ETA
○ Next ensuing significant point
○ And speed sometime
Communication failure action

- Comms failure depends on VMC or IMC conditions (not the rules)
- In VMC
○ Set transponder 7600
○ The aircraft is to continue to fly in VMC
○ Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
○ Report arrival to ATC regardless if its VFR or IFR
○ Follow ATC lights
- IMC
○ Squawk 7600 and mode C transponder
○ Return directly to re-join the flight planned route
○ Must return to flight planned route and level after 7 minutes (radar environment)
○ No later than the next significant point on the flight plan
○ If you are not in a radar environment
 Follow the last assigned speed and level for 20 minutes then go back to flight plan
○ Go to the navigation aid of the arrival airport
○ Complete a normal instrument approach
○ Land if possible within 30 minutes after ETA or last acknowledged EAT, whichever is later
○ Report ASAP after landing
- ATC will confirm by
○ Transmit a signal in order to indicate acknowledgment
○ Execute a specific manoeuvre which can be observed by radar
- If you have a comms failure and it's not an emergency keep switching the landing lights on and off
or any other light to indicate to ATC that it's not an emergency
Topic 1 Page 15
Lesson 15 and 16
27 November 2019 14:40
Unlawful interference (Hijack)

- Attempt to broadcast earnings on 121.500Hz and set 7500 CIV: 121.5 MHz
- If none then SAT&SAR: 406 MHZ
○ Fly at a level different from IFR levels if below FL290 change altitude by 500ft (usually Coast guard: 2182 KHZ
1000ft seperation) over FL290 change ALT by 500ft (usually 1000ft seperation) Military(MIL):243 MHZ
RVSM: reduced vertical
Classification of airspace seperation minima
- A-E FIR: Flight information
○ Controlled airspace (CAS) region
- F DA: Danger area (in UAE
○ Advisory airspace it can be shown as
○ All IFR fights are required to flight plan whether or not participating OMD)
○ No clearance given PA: prohibited airspace
RA: restricted airspace
FIS (flight information service) CTR: Control zone
- Available in classes C-G CTA: Control area
- Provides Collison alerts but leaves pilot to act FIS: Flight information
- ATC takes priority service
- Available on request useful for changes in serviceability of nav aids, PA, RA and DA etc.. CAS: controlled air
space
Restricted, prohibited or danger areas TMA: Terminal control
- Indicated by P,R or D area
- May be permanent or activated by NOTAM
- The designation number (eg D001) cannot be reused for 12 months after the closure of the area
Ground signals
- See book and learn them !
VFR
- With the exception of SVFR flight, VFR flight is only permitted in VMC
- If you are flying under VFR and IMC conditions are met
○ Land whilst able to maintained VMC
○ Change route or divert
- Take-off conditions
○ Ground visibility can't be less than 5km
○ Ceiling should be 450m (1500ft)
- Prohibited VFR flight
○ Can't do VFR above FL 200
○ At transonic or supersonic speeds
○ Above FL290 where RVSM is applied
○ Highest VFR FL in RVSM = FL285
- SVFR
○ Only applicable in a control zone (CTR)
○ Pilots must request a SVFR - may not necessarily receive it
○ Rules
 Ground vis of 1500m
 Cloud ceiling of 1000ft before a SFVR may T/O from an aerodrome
Topic 1 Page 16
Lesson 17
04 December 2019 10:50
Flight level rules

- Depends upon the aircrafts track HMU: height monitoring unit
- IFR levels IF: intermediate fix
○ When we go to the east (000 to 179) (RVSM)
 we use odd flight levels (FL310)
○ When we go to the west (180-359) (RVSM)
 We use even flight levels (for e.g. FL320)
- VFR
○ Same as above but you add 500
- IFR shall be flown at a level which is not below the minimum flight altitude established by the
state whose territory is being
IFR Equipment and pilot qualifications

- To act as PIC or co-pilot a current IR is required
- Equipment needed
○ Aircraft are to be equipped with suitable instruments and with navigation equipment
appropriate to the route to be flown
Changing from IFR to VFR

- ATS authority is to be notified that IFR flight is cancelled using the phase "CANCELLING MY IFR
FLIGHT"
IFR flights within CAS

- Modified table
RVSM (reduced vertical seperation minima)

- Operates between FL290 - FL410
- Outside these altitude we keep 2000ft seperation
IFR outside CAS

- IFR flights outside CAS are to be flown at a cruising level appropriate to the magnetic track of
the aircraft
- Shall establish communication and maintain a continuous listening to ATS service
- Position reports to be made every 30 minutes (in CAS every one hour)
Mode A: ID aircraft
Mode C: ID and altitude of aircraft
Distress signals
Mode S: ID + ALT + communicate
- If you are in distress you say MAYDAY repeated 3 times
A transponder code can only be from
- Visual signals
0-7 digits
○ A succession of red pyrotechnics
○ A red flare
- Urgency (XXX)
○ Aircraft has urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of the aircraft
○ Known as saying PANPAN 3 times
Non-emergency situation
- Switch landing lights on and off twice or navigation lights
Emergency frequencies
- VHF: 121.500 MHz (Civil aviation)
- SAR/SAT: 406 MHz (SAR beacon frequency)
- UHF: 243.000 MHz (military)
- HF: 2182 KHz (international maritime)
SSR codes
- Mode A 7700
○ Civil emergency
- Mode A 7600
○ Radio failure
- Mode A 7500
○ Unlawful interference
- Mode A code 7000
○ Aircraft operating in a radar service area but not getting radar service
- Mode A 2000
○ Aircraft entering an area where radar service is available and will be requesting that
service
Topic 1 Page 17
service
- Mode A code 0000
○ Aircraft transponder is unserviceable or inaccurate
Visual warning of incursion

- A series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing on
bursting red and green
Signal square area

- A lack of
Interception
- Each contracting state has the right to establish procedures for the interceptions and
identification of aircraft overflying the country
- Procedure
○ Follow instruction by the intercepting aircraft
○ Notify ATSU
○ Attempt to establish comms with intercepting aircraft using 121.5 or 243.00MHz
○ Always comply with the jet they have authority over ATC
○ A handbook for all international flight will be given (check boeing to see it must know)
Topic 1 Page 18
DA/DH: decision altitude (precision approach)
Lesson 18 MDA/MDH: minimum decision altitude (non-
04 December 2019 12:01 precision approach)
FAF: Final approach fix (you want to make
sure aircraft is configured and stable)
PAN OPS (procedures for air navigation service) FAT: Final approach track
FAP: final approach path
Reversal procedure PDG: Procedure design gradient
- Procedure turn (45/180) (reciprocal) DER: departure end of runway
OCA/OCH: obstacle clearance altitude
OIS: Obstacle identification service
NDB: non directional beacon
ADF: Automatic direction finder
○ Reciprocal:
- Go outbound than inbound
- Base turn (non-reciprocal)
PDG = 2.5% OIS + 0.8% buffer =

3.3% total
○
- Racetrack procedure
Turning point
- If a turning point is shown on the chart for a
Departure procedures
- 2 types turning and straight departure
○ Straight departure
 Initial departure track is within 15 degrees
 Track guidance of not more than after the
der 20 kms (10nm)
- Flying an instrument departure procedure pilots are
expected to correct the track for known wind to remain
within the protected airspace.
- The design of an instrument departure procedure is, in
general, dictated by the terrain surrounding the
aerodrome
- Where no suitable navigation aid is available to provide
specific track guidance, the criteria for Omni-directional
departure is applied
- Wherever possible a straight departure will be specified,
which is aligned with the runway. Where a departure
route requires a turn no more than 15 degrees to avoid
an obstacle
Topic 1 Page 19
Lesson 19
05 December 2019 08:28
MOC: Minimum obstacle
clearance
MSA: Minimum safe altitude
Turning departures MOCA: Minimum obstruction
- Requires a turn of more than 15 degrees clearance altitude
- The turn is commenced after reaching a required height ARP: Aerodrome reference
○ 120m / 294ft AGL above the DER point (usually centre of the
- Track guidance in a turning departure is 10km(5.4nm) not like a straight departure which is longest runway at an
20km (10.8nm) aerodrome)
MEA: Minimum En-route
Omni-directional departures altitude
- No track guidance (no nav-aids) RNP: required navigation
- Procedure performance
○ 120m/394ft before turn GNSS: Global navigation
satellite system
Published information RNP is the equipment RNAV is
- SID start at the DER and normally end at a point joining the ATS rote system the airspace
- Published in accordance with annex 11 and 4 MAPT: Missed approach point
- Departure routes are labelled as RNAV (area navigation based on VOR/DME or GPS) only when Vat: speed at the threshold
that is the primary means of navigation Vso: stall speed in landing
- For Omni-directional departures, the restrictions will be expressed as sectors to be avoided or config
sectors in which minimum gradients and minimum altitudes are specified to let the plane fly
safely
- Minimum sector altitudes (MSA) is also depicted on the plate and gives the lowest safe altitude
for a defined sector (based on a navigational facility) to a range of 25nm from the aerodrome
or facility
Area navigation departures (RNAV)

- RNAV and RNP departures based on
○ RNAV VOR/DME
○ RNAV DME/DME
○ Above basis is GNSS and RNP systems
Arrival procedure
- Arrival procedure lead from the last en-route point/fix to the IAF before commencement of
descent
- The design of the procedure is dictated by the
○ Terrain surrounding the aerodrome
○ Types of operations contemplated
 Precision or no precision
○ Aircraft
○ Type and siting of navigation aids
 Accuracy of Nav aids (VOR/NDB etc)
○ Descent gradients
○ Airspace restrictions
- Significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed
○ Headwind 10kts
○ Tailwind 2kts
○ Crosswind 5kts
Approach procedure segments

- Arrival
- Initial
- Intermediate
- Final
- Missed approach
Types of arrivals / approaches

- 2 types
○ Straight in approach
 Aligned with runway centreline (within 30 degrees)
○ Circling approach (more than 30 degrees)
 Consist of a type of traffic pattern overhead the aerodrome before aircraft is
aligned with the runway
- Aircraft categories
Topic 1 Page 20
Lesson 20 and 21
10 December 2019 08:26
Approach's RAD: a radial, is a signal beam that is

- 2 types given from a nav aid (e.g.VOR)
○ Precision procedure (horizontal and vertical guidance) RNP: Required navigation performance
 ILS VM© = visual manoeuvring circling
 MLS approach
 PAR PAR: Precision approach radar
 Systems SRA: Surveillance radar approach
□ ALS TAA: Terminal arrival altitude
□ LOC RA: Radio altimeter
□ GS CDI: course deviation indicator
□ Marker beacons TCH: Threshold crossing height
○ Non-precision procedures (only horizontal guidance) PA: precision approach
 VOR NPA: Non-precision approach
 NDB CDFA: Continuous descent final
 Circling approach - CM© approach
 Glideslope out TDZ: Touchdown zone
 SRA (surveillance radar approach) CL: Center line lights
- Straight in approach ALS: Approach lighting system
○ A straight in approach for a non-precision approach is where the FAT converges
with the runway heading of 30 degrees or less
Non-precision with no FAF (final approach fix) - Precision approach
- Aircraft can begin to let down to MDA/MDH once established on FAT (final approach ○ Uses DA/DH
track) - Non-precision
approach
○ Uses
MDA/MDH
- OCA = Highest obstacle + safety

margin
- DA = highest obstacle + margin
- MDA= highest obstacle + fixed
margin
- ○ With FAF the fixed margin is
+246ft
○ With no FAF the fixed
margin is +295ft
- DH/DA or MDH/MDA can never
be below the OCA/OCH
- Approach consideration
○ Wind impact
 Correct wind correction to maintain track
○ Speed
 Most influential factor
○ Obstacle clearance
 When landing you want to keep a 1000ft obstacle clearance over primary
area
 OCA/OCH, MDH/MDA, DA/DH
- Precision approach
○ Gives azimuth and height above threshold information
○ Pilots expected to fly half scale deflection of the course deviation indicator (CDI)
to keep within protected airspace
- ILS CAT
- Tolerance range for fixes

○ Since all navigation stations are subject to inaccuracies, those inaccuracies must
be accounted for
○ Hence if approach fixes are defined by radials or in other references to navigation
stations (e.g. VOR) there must be certain tolerances to account for inaccuracies
○ Errors for some instruments
 ILS
□ +/- 2.4 DEGREES
 VOR
□ +/- 5.2 DEGREES
 NDB
□ +/- 6.9 DEGREES
○ Radar facilities
 Enroute radar stations within a 40nm range is +/-3.1km
Optimum descent gradient

- Optimum on final approach
○ not to exceed (optimum) 5.2% (Around 3% GP)
- Where steeper gradient is necessary
○ Max permissible is 6.5%
Topic 1 Page 21
Lesson 22
11 December 2019 15:16
IAF: Initial approach fix

5 arrival segments (normally begin and end in fixes) IF: intermediate
- Arrival (STAR) approach fix
- Initial FAF: Final approach fix
- Intermediate MAPt: missed approach
- Final point
○ Optimum 5 nm DR: Dead reckoning
○ Max 10nm SOC: Start of climb
- Missed approach PAPI: precision
approach path indicator
CDFA: continuous
descent final approach
IAF to IF
- Precision approach
○ 90 degrees max intercept angle
- Non-precision approach
○ 120 degrees max intercept angle
- DR segment
○ If track guidance to the IF is not available, a DR (dead reckoning) segment may be
established
○ Max 45 degree turn
○ Maximum distance 10nm
Non precision with an FAF

- The distance of the FAF from threshold
○ Optimum - 5nm
○ Maximum - 10nm
- Aircraft will start descending down to the MDA having passed the FAF
- The final approach segments begins at the FAF and ends at the MAPt
Final approach segment

- In an instrument approach procedure, this is the segment in which alignment and descent for
landing are made
- Final descent should be initiated
- Could result in a direct approach or a circling approach
- Begins at FAF or FAP
○ In precision approach, the final approach segment begins at FAP
○ Non-precision approach segment begins at FAF
○ Can occur at heights between 300-900m
Missed approach
- Initial phase
○ No turns
- Intermediate phase
○ Turns up to 15 degrees
○ 2.5% gradient climb will ensure 30m obstacle clearance at all time
- Final phase
○ Turns over 15 degrees permitted
50m clearance must be maintained and then the aircraft initiates a new approach, hold
Topic 1 Page 22
○ 50m clearance must be maintained and then the aircraft initiates a new approach, hold
or returns to en-route
Visual manoeuvring circling - VM{C}

- It is a non-precision approach
- VM{C} is only permitted in the VM{C} area
- Prohibited sector
○ Should there be obstacles within the VM{C}A, the whole are may be precluded
○ In this case, the published information will specify the sector and the restriction
- For missed approach
○ Climb and turn to go over the aerodrome
○ Once over the aerodrome a pilot must follow the missed approach procedure
published
Minimum visibility for aircraft category
- Increases by 900m every cat increased

- Or by 0.5nm every cat increased
Topic 1 Page 23
Homework assignment
11 December 2019 17:30
1- 2.5% climb gradient during intermediate section of a missed approach

2- The optimum distance of FAF from threshold is 5nm RVR: runway visual range
3- Max intercept angle for non-precision approach is 120 degrees MOR: metrological observed
4- The MOC for a the intermediate phase of a missed approach is 30 meters range
5- The name of the phase where an aircraft is aligned to the runway during IAP is final approach
6- The intermediate phase of a MAP will end once an aircraft can maintain an MOC of 50m
7- yes it is remitted to fly at an altitude of MDA but not lower than MDA
8- Missed approach gradient is 2.5%
9- OCA/H is determined by the highest obstacle clearance + safety margin which is set by the
state
10- The Vat for CAT c aircraft is 121-140
11- Max track to be used with a DR is 10nm
12- Minimum ground visibility (MOR) for CAT I ILS is 800 meters
13- The initial approach segment begins after the arrival or STAR
14- An aircraft may go below MDA once he has visual contact with the runway
15- MOC of the initial segment of the approach is 300 meters (1000ft)
Topic 1 Page 24
Lesson 23 and 24
15 December 2019 13:59
EFC: expect further
clearance
EAT: Expected approach
Holding procedures time
LHA: Lowest holding area
- Vertical seperation is 1000ft MHA: Minimum holding
- Shuttled means to descent while in holding area
- Approach controller is responsible for holding patterns
- The standard to a holding pattern is a right turn
- Non-stander holding pattern at an aerodrome is left
- Holding level to be established at least 5nm prior to reaching holding fix Holding pattern standard right turns
- An en-route holding is described as "non-standard". However, you still Traffic pattern standard left turns
turn right during an en-route holding point
- Buffer zone of 5nm, which means that we have 5nm of clearance zone
outside of the holding pattern
- Shape of hold
○ Below 14,000ft a holding is supposed to take 4 minutes

○ Above 14,000ft a holding is supposed to take 5 mins (since d = 1.5
mins)
○ All turns to be made at an angle of 25 degrees or a rate 1 turn (3
degrees per second), whichever is less
- Pilots are supposed to make up for winds and other metrological

conditions
- Entry sector
○ Three sectors
 Parallel sector 1
□ 110 degree entry
 Direct entry sector 3
□ 180 degree
 Offset entry / tear drop sector 2
□ 70 degree
Topic 1 Page 25

○ Joining of the a holding pattern is based on the heading of the

aircraft
○ Between each sector there is a 5 degree flexibility area either side
within the pilot has the choice of either sector
Altimeter settings
- Transition altitude(TA) is specified for every aerodrome and set by the state
- Transition level (TL) set by ATC
- Above TA we set SPS and it changes to FL
- TL we change back to local QNH
- Transition layer
○ Layer between TL and TA
○ Not allowed to cruise
- QNH is passed to aircraft
○ In taxi clearance
○ When approaching an aerodrome to land and in the clearance to enter the traffic circuit
- Accuracy
○ Altimeters are accurate up to
 +/- 80 feet for test between 0-50,000 ft
 +/-60 feet for test between 0 - 30,000ft
- Approach plates
○ 2500 (1456)
○ AMSL figures in bold
○ AGL figure in brackets and non-bold
 2500
□ Altitude
□ AMSL
 (1456)
□ Height
□ AGL
Topic 1 Page 26
Lesson 24
18 December 2019 08:29
AWO: all weather operation

Simultaneous approach in parallel or almost parallel instrument runways NOZ: Normal operating
zone
- 2 basic of approaches (radar seperation) NTZ: No transgression zone
○ Independent parallel approach (mode 1)
 Basically no ATC watching you all the time during approach
 We have turn not less than 1nm prior to localizer intercept
 We have to fly 2nm straight and level flight before we capture the G/S
 Missed approach tracks to diverge by at least 30 degree
 Seperation of at least 1035m We use distance in radar
 MAX intercept angle 30 degree environment and time in
○ Dependent parallel approach (mode 2) non-radar environments
 There is ATC watching you all the time (there is radar)
 We can reduce the radar seperation from 5nm to 3 nm
 A seperation of at least 951 meters
 Minimum seperation of 2 aircraft of 2nm per aircraft
○ Independent Simultaneous instrument departures (mode 3)

 tracks must diverge by 15 degrees
 Wake turbulence seperation
 Aircraft must be identified by 2km (1nm) from DER
○ Segregated departures and arrivals (mode 4)

 Simultaneous ops require the MAPt and departure track to diverge by at least 30
degrees
 Can be semi mix

□ One departure one approach
 Mixed
□ Departure and approach on same runway
- All aircraft have to have full ILS/MLS

- Only straight In approaches
- Track reversals prohibited
- Dedicated frequencies are used
- Wake turbulence seperation must be applies
- Localizer intercept should not exceed 30 degrees
NOZ and NTZ

- NOZ
○ Extends from the runway threshold to the point where aircraft are established on the
localiser centreline
○ If you fly within 1/2 scale deflection you will stay within the NOZ
- NTZ
○ Extends from runway threshold closest to nearest descent point, to point where 1000ft
vertical seperation is lost
○ Must be at least 610 meters of width
○ Penetration by an a/c requires controller intervention
Wake turbulence seperation
Topic 1 Page 27
Wake turbulence seperation
Topic 1 Page 28
Lesson 25
18 December 2019 09:09
Operating procedure for secondary radar (transponder)

- SSR PSR: Primary radar system
○ Where a serviceability transponder is carried, its operation is mandatory SSR: secondary radar system
regardless of the provision of an ATC service TCAS: Traffic collision avoidance system
ACAS: Airborne collision avoidance
- When ATC give you a code you have to system
○ Read back both the mode and code TA: Traffic advisory
- Pilots are not to squawk ident except RA: resolution advisory
○ On instruction from the radar controller
Transponders
- Mode A: ID
- Mode C: ID + ALT (Pressure alt)
- Mode S: ID + ALT + SERVICE
- Emergency
○ Pilot is to stick to his squawk and not change to 7700/7500 (use as last resort)
○ Except for a comms failure
- Transponder failure
○ If transponder failure fails before departure
 Departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is
allowed
- ACAS
○ Traffic advisory (TA)
○ Resolution advisory (RA)
○ Notify ATC as soon as practicable of the deviation including its direction and when
the deviation has ended
○ ACAS always has priority over anything
○ Disregarding RA
 The pilot visually identifies the conflicting traffic and decides no deviation
from the current flight plan path is needed
Topic 1 Page 29
Lesson 26
06 January 2020 15:36
ATC consist of SAR: search and rescue

- TW/GND ATSU: Air traffic service unit
- APP/DEP Ramp control: they are for gate assignment
- ACC (area control centre)
- AIS
ATS compromises of 3 divisions

- Air traffic control service
- Flight information service
- Alerting service
- ATSU clocks must be accurate within 30 seconds

- Time is passed to the pilots to the nearest minute
Topic 1 Page 30
Lesson 27
08 January 2020 08:35
Airspace - FIR (normally the borders of the country) FIR: Flight information region
- This is the basic form of air traffic service is provided; a flight information service is CTA: control area
available. The alerting service is also available for FIR. TMA: Terminal area (affects
- There are different rule for FIR and UIR more than 1 airport)(London has
a TMA because there are 5
major airports)
CTR: control zone
UIR: Upper information region
Note ATZ: Air traffic zone
- CTR - minimum lateral limits DA: dangerous area
- A control zone extends at least 5nm from a reference point of the aerodrome or aerodrome RA: Restricted area
into the direction from which approaches may be made PA: Prohibited area
- In order to avoid confusion, the ID numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area ARO: Aerodrome reporting
and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of at least one year after cancellation of office (you submit flight plans)
the area to which they refer ACC: Area control center
- Air traffic advisory service
- Flight information service
○ Aerodrome information
○ Metrology information
○ Hazards
- Clearance to enter class E airspace not required
- Class A-E controlled airspace
- Class F advisory
○ No clearance only advice
○ Only participating aircraft are separated from each other
- Class F and G uncontrolled
- Operating in airspace E,F and G can be non-radio for VFR flights only
- Speed limits
○ Class A,B and C (IFR) have no speed limitation
○ Classes C (VFR) and all classes below C are limited to 250kts IAS below 10,000ft
- Control area (CTA)
○ Set up to contain airspace required to contain IFR flights for which ATC service is
required
○ Lower level
 Not less than 200m (700ft) above the ground or water
○ Upper level
 VFR flight level
- Control zone (CTR)

○ A controlled flight is one that requires clearance
○ Where the upper limit is a FL it must be a VFR FL
○ 5nm is the minimum lateral limits
Topic 1 Page 31
Lesson 28 and 29
12 January 2020 08:31
ATC clearance:
- Solely for expediting and separating traffic TMZ: Transponder
- The PIC may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance mandatory zone
- An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no RTR: Runway
clearance to land has been received a distance 2nm before touchdown terminal range
AWO: All weather
- 5 elements of a clearance operations
○ Call sign LVO: Low visibility
○ Clearance limit operations
○ The route SIGMET: HIGH AL
○ Flight levels AIRMET: LOW ALT
○ Further required instruction PANS: Procedure
 C: CALLSIGN and navigation
 R: ROUTE service
 A: ALT
 F: FREQ ILS FRQ: 109-112
 T: Tx (Transponder)
NAV FREQ:
Flight information service (FIS) 108-117.95
- Lower priority than ATC
- Provided to COM FREQ: 118-136
○ All aircraft receiving ATC
○ Known to the ATSU by filing a flight plan
- FIS shall be providing airspace C,D,E,F and G in order to avoid collision
- They can provide
○ MET
○ AERODROME
○ HAZARD
- They can't provide
○ ATC services
Automatic terminal service information (ATIS)

- Can be transmitted on a VOR frequency
- Shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
- Broadcast should not last more than 30 seconds
- The preparation and dissemination of ATIS message shall be the responsibility of the ATS
- Immediately when significant change occurs
Alerting service (link with SAR)

- The alerting service is provided by the ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment
- The alerting service and flight information service are often provided by the same ATS unit
- 3 phases
○ INCERFA (uncertainty phase)
 It is alarmed if the aircraft fails to arrive at the destination within 30 mins of ETA
○ ALERFA (Alert phase)
 When apprehension exist
 It is known that an a/c has been subject to unlawful interference
 The a/c fails to land within 5 minutes after issuing of a landing clearance
○ DETTRESFA (Distress phase)
 There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance
 The fuel on board is considered to be exhausted
- Required navigation performance (RNP)

○ Prescribed by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
○ Based on a containment value of 95%
○ e.g. RNP4 - 95% of the a/c down that route will be within 4nm of the centreline
Route designators
- Designators
○ A number (1-999) + RNP
- Prefix
○ U: Upper air route
K: Helicopter low level route
Topic 1 Page 32
○ K: Helicopter low level route
- Suffix
○ Y: RNP1 route at and above FL200 with a radius of 22.5nms
○ Z: RNP1 route and below FL190 with a radius of 15.0nms
- Speed instructions
○ Final and intermediate approach should be separated by 20kts IAS
 Not to be applied after passing 4nm from the threshold
Wake turbulence
- Heavy (H)
○ Aircraft 136 tons or more
- Medium (M)
○ Aircraft less than 136 tons but more than 7 tons
- Light (L)
○ Less than 7 tons
- Medium behind a heavy 2 minutes
- Light behind a medium or heavy 3 minutes
- If radar is applicable we use distance seperation
Topic 1 Page 33
Lesson 30 and 31
13 January 2020 09:58
AIREPs (air reports)

- 2 types
○ Routine
 Section 1 - position report (Mandatory)
 Section 2 - operational information (ETA and Endurance)
 Section 3 - Metrological information
○ Special
 When things become severe
□ Severe turbulence
□ Severe icing
□ Severe mountain waves
Methods and minima seperation

- Seperation can be
○ Vertical
○ Horizontal
 VOR: track divergence 15 degrees
 NDB: track divergence 30 degrees
○ Composite
- Applied between
○ All flight in class AB
○ IFR flights in class C,D,E
○ IFR flights and VFR flights in class C
○ IFR flights and SVFR
Topic 1 Page 34
Lesson 32
14 January 2020 09:47
Speed control - mach number

- Same mach number 10 minute seperation
- The rest should have a 11 seperation for example
○ 0.03 difference in mach is 8 minutes (3+8=11)
○ 0.06 is 5 minutes (6+5=11)
Speed control - RNAV seperation

- Seperation always 150kms (80nms)
Standard radar seperation

- Standard is 5nm
- Can be reduced to 3nm when radar permits
- When both on the same localiser and within 10NM of the threshold can be reduced to 2.5nm
- Mode 2 parallel runways ops can be reduced to 2nm
Essential traffic
- Essential traffic is controlled traffic not separate from another control traffic with the
prescribed seperation minima
- Essential local traffic is any aircraft, vehicle or personnel on or near the manoeuvring area, or
traffic operating in the vicinity of the aerodrome, which may constitute a hazard to the aircraft
concerned
Departing aircraft
- For IFR traffic, the standard seperation between departure is 5 minutes
- This may be reduced to 2 minutes between a/c following a flight plan exceeding 40kts or faster
- We can reduce to 1 minute if there is a 45 degree turn or more divergence of track after the
departure
Visual approach and seperation

- Requested by pilot - agrees by second captain
- Class D and E only
- VMC
- Day
- Below 10,000ft
- Alternative instructions given by ATC to cover loss of VMC (in which pilot must inform ATC)
Topic 1 Page 35
Lesson 33 and 34
15 January 2020 10:03
AIP: Aeronautical information publications

Strayed aircraft: AIC: Aeronautical information circular
- A strayed aircraft is one that has deviated significantly from its intended track or reports (once a year)
that it is lost AMDT: Amendments
SUP: Supplements
Fuel dumping SNOWTAM: Special NOTAM for snow
- Aircraft should not dump fuel below 6000 feet ASHTAM: Special NOTAM for volcanic
eruptions
AIRAC: aeronautical information regulation
Integrated aeronautical information package and control (28 day cycle)
- Consist of WGS: World geodetic system
○ AIP
○ SUP
○ NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletins (PIB)
○ Aeronautical information circulars (AIC)
○ Checklists and summaries
AIP
- Contains
○ Permanent information
○ Information concerning long duration temporary (3 months or more) changes
○ Information that is not included in instrument approach charts (IAC) in the AIP is any
addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as an alternate
○ Consist of
 Part 1 - general (GEN)
 Part 2 - En-route (ENR)
 Part 3 - Aerodrome data (AD)
AIP Supplements (AIPSUP)

- Temporary changes of long duration (3 months or more) and information of short duration
which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements
- Can be ID by yellow color
NOTAM
- Information of a temporary nature and short duration
- Operationally significant permanent changes at short notices
- Long texts and graphics can't be included in a NOTAM
Topic 1 Page 36
Lesson 35 and 36
19 January 2020 14:07
ARC: Aerodrome reference code
ARP: Aerodrome reference point
(usually centre of the longest
Aerodrome runway)
- All aerodromes include PCN: Pavement classification
○ Movement area number
○ Manoeuvring area ACN: Aircraft classification
○ Apron number
- If an aerodrome accepts non-Radio traffic there must be a signals area RESA: Runway end safety area
- Airside is not accessible without security control
Aerodrome reference code (ARC)

- Code element 1
○ Runway reference length
- Code element 2
○ Wingspan
- The code1 must be between 1-4, and code 2 from A-F
Pavements strengths
- Where pavements are used by aircraft with MTOM greater than 5,700kg
- PCN is equal or greater than ACN
Controlled aerodrome
- ATC is present and ATC clearance is required for any movement
Declared distances
- Take off runway available (TORA)
○ Take off distance available (TODA)
○ Area beyond the runway that can be used for takeoff
- Accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA)
○ TORA + stopway
- Landing distance available (LDA)
Topic 1 Page 37
- Runway contamination
○ Will be found in ATIS and SNOTAMS
- RESA should be twice the width of the runway or minimum 90 meter

- Stopways have to be the same width of the runway
- Radio altimeter area should extend at least 300m before the runway
threshold
Rapid exit taxiway

- Preferably 30 degrees
- Should not exceed 45 or less than 25 degrees
Road holding position

- A position at which vehicles may be requested to hold
Markings
- On a runway all markings are white
- On a taxiway all markings are yellow
- Approx 4 meters per stripe
- Holding point alpha is the closest holding point to the runway
- Runway strip minimum width 60 meters

- Clearway can be used to start the initial climb
- Clearway can't be more than half the runway length
- Stopway can be used for rejected takeoffs
Topic 1 Page 38
Lesson 37 and 38 LVP: Low visibility procedures
20 January 2020 14:09 LVTO: Low visibility take off
- A taxiway intersection marking consist of a single broken yellow line

- A road holding position is a position where vehicles must hold
- Runway vacated sign
○ The sign is positioned at the end of the ILS sensitive area on a taxiway where
green/yellow centreline lightening is not provided
- Lights can be turned off provided that they can be turned on 1 hour before ETA of aircraft
- If backup power is used the primary runway must be illuminated
Obligatory instructions
- Mandatory
○ White on red
- Information
○ Black on yellow
- Location
○ Yellow on black
Runway Lights
- Approach lighting system
- Runway edge lights
○ White lights at the beginning of the threshold and red at the end of the runway
- Runway threshold lights
○ Flashing white lights unidirectional in the direction of the approach to the runway
- Runway end lights
○ Fixed, unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway
- Runway centreline lights
○ Fixed, white lights variable intensity
○ For CAT II & III last 900m will e red and white and last 300m will be red
- Threshold and wingbar lights
○ To be fixed, unidirectional in the direction of the approach
- Stopway lights
○ Fixed, unidirectional in the direction of the runway
- Runway guard lights
○ Entrance to runway when RVR is less than 500m where a stop bar is not fitted
○ Flashing yellow showing in the direction of taxiing aircraft
- Runway lead in lights
○ They consist of groups of at least 3 flashing white lights and when able each group
should flashing in sequence towards the runway
- Circling lights
○ May be fixed or flashing white lights
Taxi lights
- Edge lights
○ Fixed, variable intensity omni-directional blue
- Centreline lighting
○ Fixed variable intensity green
- High speed exits / inside ILS sensitive areas
○ Green and yellow
- Stopbars
○ A row of red lights showing in the direction of the taxiing aircraft
- Taxiway intermediate holding position
○ 3 fixed unidirectional lights and are yellow
- Road holding position lights
○ Comprises of either
 A controllable red (stop) / green (go)
 A flashing red light
Aerodrome beacon
- Intended for use at night
- If land aerodrome
○ White and green
- If water aerodrome
○ White and yellow
Calvert system
- 5 crossbars, centre line with 3,2,1 lamp per light unit
Topic 1 Page 39
-
Barret
- 3 or more lights arranged as a bar
Single lighting system approach lights

- Single centreline of light out to 420m
- Single
Precision approach cat I lighting system approach lights

- Centreline out to 900m
○ 1st
 300m a single row of lights
○ 2nd
 300m two rows of lights
○ 3rd
 300m 3 rows of light
Precision approach CAT II and III

- 4 differences from cat I
- Supplementary approach lights for 1st 300m (white and red)
- No yellow caution area
- Touchzone lights
○ Fixed, unidirectional white lights
- Color coded centre
- ines at the end of the runway
Topic 1 Page 40
-
Precision approach path indicator (PAPI)

- A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced
Minimum eye height (MEHT)

- Eye to bottom of undercarriage
Visual approach slope indicator (VASIS)

- This consist of 2 sets of 3 lights positioned as wing bars
T-VASIS
- 4 lights make up the wing bar either side
Topic 1 Page 41
Lesson 39 and 40
21 January 2020 14:03
Markers
- To be used above the ground surface when lights are not applicable OIS: Obstacle identification service
ARP: Aerodrome reference point
Fixed distance markers
- Used on runways longer than 4000ft
- Left side of the runway
- Distance is measured in feet not meters
- How much runway is left
Aerodrome services and obstacle marking

- Aerodrome obstacles those that protrude through the OIS by 15km
Vehicles and mobile objects

- Red or yellowish green for emergency vehicles
- Yellow for service vehicles
- Objects with limited mobility (jet bridges) are to be lit with low intensity steady red
lights
- Emergency vehicles have priority over all movements
Light intensities (within 15km from ARP)
En-route obstacles
- Objects located beyond 15 k and If they exceed a height of 150m
Rescue and firefighting (RFF)

- Fire stations are normally located on the aerodrome, although an off aerodrome
location is not precluded provided the response time can be met
- Categories from 1-10
○ Categories are based on aircraft overall length
- Response time
○ Not to exceed 3 minutes
- Fuelling with passengers on board
○ A ready escape route from each of the exits to be used in an emergency
Topic 1 Page 42
Lesson 41
26 January 2020 12:04
Facilitation
- General declaration
○ Only total number of crew and the total number of passengers is recorded on the form
○ State may require crew to include crew names on the general declaration form
Crew member certificate (CMC)

- It is a mean of identification
○ Should be machine readable
- Can be used in line of visa and passport when on duty and requesting temporary entry
Documents
- If a state permits a traveller to entry that state without a visa the state of departure shall not
require him to obtain any other ID from their consulates or operators prior to initiate the flight
other than the passport
Passenger baggage and oral declaration

- An oral declaration is acceptable concerning the content of crew and passenger baggage
Unaccompanied baggage
- Accompanied or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally
applicable to other cargo
Custody and care of passengers and crew

- The operator is responsible from the moment such persons have been admitted into the state
- Inadmissible
○ The operator shall not be precluded from recovering from such person any
transportation cost arising from his inadmissibility
Airmail
- Under the acts in force by the universal postal union, contracting states shall carry out the
handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply with documentary procedures
as prescribed
Manifest
- Cargo manifest consist of
○ Airway bill number (AWB)
○ Number of packages
○ Nature of goods
- Aircraft operator or authorised agent is responsible for the presentation to the authorities of
the cargo manifest and waybill on arrival
Completion of documents
- Are accepted in hand written block letters in ink
Number of documents required

- Contracting states shall not require te operator to deliver more than 3 copies of
○ General declaration
○ Cargo manifest
○ Stores list
Advanced notification of arrival

- Flight plan must be received at least 2 hours before arrival
Topic 1 Page 43
- Flight plan must be received at least 2 hours before arrival
Transit passengers
- We may remain in a transit lounge for a maximum for 2 days
Freedom from duty

- An aircraft which is not engaged in international scheduled air services
- The state shall not charge the any duties
Topic 1 Page 44
Lesson 42
26 January 2020 12:34
Search and rescue (SAR)

- When should we contact RCC RCC: Rescue coordination centre
○ Immediately when an aircraft state tends to be in an emergency
- Search and rescue shall be provided on a 24 hours basis

- RCC shall be specifically responsible for search and rescue
- First aircraft on scene

○ If the first aircraft to reach the scene of an accident is not SAR
aircraft the PIC of that aircraft shall take charge of on-scene
activities until the first SAR arrives
○ If we cannot communicate we hand it over to another aircraft
that is able to communicate with the available ATC unit
- Acknowledgment of signals
○ During day
 Rock wings
○ At night
 Flashing of lights
- Dropping colors
○ Red
 First aid
○ Blue
 Food and water
○ Black
 Miscellaneous
Topic 1 Page 45
Lesson 43 and 44
28 January 2020 11:07
Security:
- A combination of measures and human and material resources intended to safeguard
international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference
- Each contracting state must have a security program for international airport
- Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be
responsible for the security administration
- Each contracting state shall ensure that the appropriate authority arranges for supporting
resources and facilitates required by aviation services to be available at each airport serving
international civil aviation
- Inform ICAO and send a copy of the security program to ICAO
- Preventive security measures
- The PIC and aircraft operator are to be informed when passengers are obliged to travel
because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that
appropriate security measures can be taken
Topic 1 Page 46
GCAA exam
18 February 2020 22:09
1. To compute local time in the UAE form UTC

a. UTC 3 hours
b. UTC 4 hours
c. UTC + 4 hours
[] Is the correct answer
2. Windshear warnings are only issued when:

a. The forecast indicates a possibility of cumulonimbus clouds
b. Windshear is reported by aircraft
c. Low level inversion is expected
3. VFR flights operating in Class E airspace are required:

a. to send position reports every half hour of flight
b. to stay below 10 000 feet AMSL at all times
c. to carry on SSR transponder Mode "C" [] is the correct answer
4. Class D airspace within UAE FIR:

a. Has a varying upper limit but always starts from the surface
b. Starts from the surface up to 1 500' AMSL
c. Has a varying lower limit above the ground but always ends at 5 500' AMSL
[] is the correct answer
5. The service provided for VFR flights in Class G airspace is:

a. Flight Information Service
b. ii)Traffic information as far as practicable
c. Both (a) and (b) are correct
6. Unless otherwise requested by ATC, position reports may be omitted:

a. When receiving radar service
b. When departing a controlled airport
c. When operating as a controlled flight within the UAE FIR [] is the correct answer
7. Whilst under radar control, aircraft experiencing a radio failure shall:

a. Select Mode A code 7600
b. Maintain last assigned heading and level for a period of five minutes
c. Squawk ident then select mode A code 7700 [] is the correct answer
AIR LAW NOTES Page | 11

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
8. For the entire UAE FIR, the transition altitude and level are fixed at:
a. FL 150 and 13000' respectively
b. 12500' and FL 180 respectively
c. 13 000' and FL 150 respectively
9. While the table of cruising levels applies to uncontrolled VFR flights,

a. VFR flights in controlled airspace may select any cruising level.
b. ATC will normally assign IFR cruising altitudes to controlled VFR flights
Topic 1 Page 47
b. ATC will normally assign IFR cruising altitudes to controlled VFR flights
c. Controlled VFR flights must follow the table of cruising levels any time they operate below
3 000 feet above the surface
10. In class E airspace, the pilot of a VFR flight planning to fly a track heading towards the
southwest should select an altitude of:
a. 4000 feet
b. 4500 feet
c. 5000 feet
11. In order to reduce the possibility of being intercepted by the UAE air defense fighters in the
absence of any ATC directions:
a. Squawk 7700
b. Squawk 1200
c. Squawk 2000
12. The lower and upper limits of the UAE upper information region are:
a. 12500 feet and FL 145 respectively
b. FL 145 and UNL respectively
c. Surface and UNL respectively
13. Class G airspace lower and upper limits are:

a. Surface and 4 500 feet respectively
b. Surface and FL 145 respectively
c. 4 500 and FL 145 respectively
] is the correct answer
14. Alternating flashing white and green lights within an airport area indicates.
a. That the airport is safe for landing
b. A civil airport
c. The location of the Helipad area on the airport [] is the correct answer

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
15. While enroute at night, you observed a single flashing white light on the ground. This could
indicate:
a. A hazard
b. A military airport
c. A sea port
16. On a sectional chart, the letters OMD1 indicate:

a. The first UAE aerodrome
b. A danger area
c. An Omni Directional Range Station [] is the correct answer
17. The symbol OMR60 on aeronautical chart indicates:

a. An area requiring an ATC clearance to penetrate
b. An Omni Directional Range station
c. A danger area which is restricted to military use [] is the correct answer
18. You can find information about an aerodrome such as type of fuel available, threshold elevation
Topic 1 Page 48
18. You can find information about an aerodrome such as type of fuel available, threshold elevation
and slopes, details of taxiways, ATC frequencies and administrative data:
a. In the aerodrome section in the AIP
b. Within the sectional and approach charts
c. In the airport facility directory of the UAE [] is the correct answer
19. In the event you experience an unlawful interference with your duties as a crew member of an
aeroplane and experience what you believe to be hijacking, you should adjust your transponder
code to:
OR
What is the squawk code to indicate hijack or unlawful interference? a. 7500
b. 7600
c. 7700
20. To indicate communication failure, which squawk code is used? a. 7500

b. 7600
c. 7700

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
21. What is the maximum permissible airspeed below 10 000 feet for a VFR flight in class C
airspace?
a. Not applicable
b. 250 mph
c. 250 kts.
[ is the correct answer
22. What is the maximum permissible airspeed below 10000 feet for a VFR flight in class B
airspace?
a. Not applicable
b. 250 mph
c. 250 kts.
23. Position reports in class E airspace to be made:

a. every half hour of flight
b. after the first 30 minutes then every hour
c. every hour at night only
24. 24. To calculate local time from UTC you should:

a. Subtract 3 hours
b. Subtract 4 hours
c. Add 4 hours
25. 25. Radio transponder code when entering UAE FIR without assigned code is: a. 7700
b. 1200
c. 2000
26. 26. If the local time in UAE is 10:00. What will it be in UTC? a. 14:00
b. 18:00
c. 06:00
Topic 1 Page 49
27. UAE Aeronautical information Publication (AIP) is:

a. Advisory in nature
b. Regulatory in nature
c. Mandatory in nature

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
28. For unrestricted operation in MNPS airspace an aeroplane must be equipped with:
a. 2 Flight Management System (FMS)
b. b. 2 Long Range Navigation System (LNRS)
c. 2 Global Positioning System (GPS) [] is the correct answer
29. For isolated aerodrome procedure, when no suitable alternate aerodrome is available, the amount
of fuel at departure should be for additional
a. 2 hours
b. 1 hour
c. 3 hours
30. An operator shall not assign a pilot to act as commander of an aeroplane unless he conducts:
a. 3 takeoffs and landings within previous 90 days in that category, class and type of aircraft
b. 3 takeoffs and landings
c. 3 takeoffs and landings between the hrs of sunset and sunrise d.3 takeoffs and landings
between the hours of sunrise and sunset
31. On over water flights, for multiengine aeroplane, liferafts and survival ELTs are required to be
carried on board, when the aeroplane operates greater than:
a. 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles to an aerodrome
b. 120 minutes at cruising speed or 100 nautical miles to an aerodrome
a. 30 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles to an aerodrome
b. 30 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles to an aerodrome [] is the correct answer
32. In the event of a critical power unit failure at any point during takeoff, the aeroplane shall be able
to
a. 50 feet
b. 35 feet
d. 60 feet
33. Choose the correct statement regarding landing, "In the event the commander decides to continue
below DA/H or MDA/H of the CAT I or CAT II approaches":
Answer: Visual can be maintained until landing

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
34. A letter of License Validation in the UAE is valid for:

a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
Topic 1 Page 50
35. Pilot shall not accept dangerous goods unless he received training in accordance to'
a. CAR PART VI
b. CAR PART III
c. CAR PART I
[] the correct answer
36. What IS the RVR limit for CAT I approach with full facilities and a DH of 200'
a. 75M
b. 550M
c. 125M
37. The mass of an aeroplane at the start of takeoff shall not exceed the maximum takeoff mass
mentioned in:
a. Aeroplane Flight Manual (AFM)
b. AFM for ambient temperature and pressure altitude at the takeoff aerodrome
c. Performance data in the AFM
38. Under what circumstances may a pilot carry out CAT II approach?
a. Company Authorization
b. GCAA Authorization
c. AOC Authorization
39. An operator shall not operate a non pressurized aeroplane at altitudes above 10000 ft. unless
supplemental oxygen equipment supply for:
a. All passengers for entire flight time at pressure altitude above 10000 ft.
b. All flight deck crew for entire flight time at pressure altitude above 13000 ft.
c. 10% of passengers for entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitude between 10000
ft and 13000 ft.

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
40. Documents which must be carries on board each flight are listed in.
a. CAR PART IV
b. CAR PART III
c. CAR PART II
41. An operator shall not operate an aeroplane other than in accordance with the:
a. Master MEL
b. Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
c. Manufacturer's MEL
[is the correct answer
42. Medical validity for a 36 year old ATP licensed pilot:

a. 12 months Class II
b. 6 months Class I
c. 12 months Class I
Topic 1 Page 51
43. A pilot who deviated from any rule laid in the CAR's shall submit a written report to the GCAA
a. immediately
b. within 24 hours
c. within 10 days
44. An altitude altering system is required for operation of what type of aircraft?
a. All aircraft
b. < 5700 kg aircraft
c. > 5700 kg aircraft
45. What is the published maximum indicated airspeed in class C airspace

a. 250 KTS.S below 10000 feet
b. 200 KTS.S below 10000 feet
c. 250 KTS.S above 10000 feet
46. An air operator shall not utilize a second in command of an aeroplane unless the pilot has:
a. a valid license and medical
b. a valid license for the type of aircraft
c. completed license requirements

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
47. In the event of interception of an aircraft during day light hours and no radio contacts are
available
a. Lowering and raising landing gear
b. Switching on and off all available lights
c. Rocking aircraft's wings
48. Pressurized aircraft on flights over 25000 feet MSL must carry:
a. Oxygen dispensing unit which shall exceed the number of seats by at least 10%
immediately available to each occupant and crew
b. Oxygen masks for flight crew members
c. Oxygen dispensing unit for flight and cabin crew members ] is the correct answer
49. In the case of a pilot engaged in commercial operations, how long may a medical assessment be
deferred?
a. 2 consecutive periods of 6 months each
b. 2 consecutive periods of 3 months each
c. Single period of 6 months
50. The rules which governs the licensing of all pilots and other flight crew are to be found in:
a. CAR PART IV
b. CAR PART II
c. CAR PART III
51. The minimum altitude at which an aeroplane may be operated over any congested area of a city in
UAE?
a. Minimum height to enable land clear if engines fail
Topic 1 Page 52
b. 500 ft over congested area
c. 1000 ft vertically and 2000 ft horizontally from any object [] is the correct answer
52. In UAE FIR, IFR rules are applied at all times to aeroplane operating at or above:
a. FL 120
b. FL 160
c. FL 145
d. FL 100

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
53. UAE Pilot license is valid for:

a. four years
b. Eight years
c. life long
d. two years
54. How many hand held fire extinguishers are required to be carried on an aircraft with 250
passengers?
a. four
b. one
c. five
d. two
55. How many cabin crew members must be carried on a commercial flight with 163 passengers?
a. one for every 25 passengers
b. one for every 50 passengers
c. three
d. one for every 100 passengers
56. What is the status of a license, if the holder has an incapacitating injury or illness for 20 days or
more?
a. License suspended
b. License revoked
d. License instatement after medical board [] is the correct answer
57. Which choice is most correct concerning mandatory drugs screening?

a. Drug screening is performed only for the initial assessments for all classes
b. Drug screening test is conducted by urine analysis
c. All of the above

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
1. Commercial pilot maximum flying time allowed
Topic 1 Page 53
1. Commercial pilot maximum flying time allowed
a. 100 hrs within 28 days
b. 30 hrs within one week
c. 90 hrs per month / 300 hrs in a 3 month period [] is the correct answer.
2. Commercial pilot maximum continuous duty time allowed in anyone period.

a. 12 hrs within 24 hrs
b. 14 hrs within 24 hrs
c. 12 hrs after 12 hrs of rest
d. 14 hrs after 12 hrs of rest
3. Intercepted aircraft should adjust the Radio transponder code to: a. 2000
b. 7600
c. 7700
d. 7500
4. Radio transponder code when entering UAE FIR without assigned code. a. 2000
b. 0000
c. 7700
d. 7500
5. Transponder code if radio fails a. 7600

b. 7700
c. 7500
d. 2000
6. Transponder code and flight action if radio fails

a. 7600 and continue same heading for 3 minutes
b. Continue with flight as planned
c. Advise ATC of radio failure and request course of action to be taken

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
7. Minimum safe altitudes

a. 1000 ft over congested area
b. Minimum height to enable land clear if engine fails
c. 2000 ft vertically and 1000 ft horizontally from an object ] is the correct answer
8. Minimum altitude anywhere

b. 500 ft over congested area
c. 2000 ft vertically and 1000 ft horizontally from an object [ is the correct answer
9. Position of intercepting aircraft when requesting to be followed

a. Ahead and to the left, waggling wings
b. Rapid departure to the left
c. Behind your aircraft
d. Below your aircraft
10. Validity of Commercial Pilot medical (25 years of age) which was issued on 12 April 1992.
a. 31SlApri11993
b. Midnight 11th April 1993
Topic 1 Page 54
b. Midnight 11th April 1993
c. 31s1 October 1992
d. One year from date of issue
11. IFR & VFR flights in Class G airspace services available

a. flight information services
b. None for IFR
c. Flight information service for VFR and advisory service for IFR
d. full advisory service for IFR and none for VFR [] is the correct answer
12. Oxygen requirements for nonpressurized aircraft.

a. 10000 ft for more than 30 minutes
b. Above 12000 ft
c. Above 8000 ft
d. Above 10000 ft

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
13. Where can one find information regarding flight crew licensing requirements?
a. CAR Part 2
b. AIP
c. Pilots operating handbook
d. NOTAM
14. Alcohol How much time should be elapsed since the last consumption of alcohol.
a. 4 hrs
b. 8 hrs
c. 12 hrs
d. 10 hrs
15. ATIS provides

a. Non control information in busy areas
b. Departure information
c. Flight information
d. Weather information for inbound traffic [] is the correct answer
16. Accident reports (written) required within how many days after the incident.
a. 10 days
b. 7 days
c. 3 days
d. 14 days
17. Type ratings applicable for which types

a. Jets
b. Those requiring two pilots
c. Those determined by the GCAA
d. All of the above
18. . Crediting of copilots time towards a higher grade of license.

a. 50% of the flight time towards a higher grade of license
b. 100% of the flight time
Topic 1 Page 55
b. 100% of the flight time
c. 25% of the flight time towards a higher grade of license
d. 25 % of the flight time

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
19. Position reporting in class E airspace Frequency.

a. Every 30 min
b. Every hour
c. Every 30 minutes then every hour
d. After the first hour then every 30 minutes ] is the correct answer
20. IFR fuel requirements for alternate aerodrome.

a. To complete an instrument approach and missed approach and fly for 45 minutes thereafter
b. No requirement
c. 45 minutes
21. Visibility requirements for SVFR

a. 1500 meters ground visibility
b. 1500 meters flight visibility
c. 1500 meters ground and flight visibility
d. 3000 meters visibility
22. Currency requirements for carrying passengers at night.

a. 3 takeoffs and landings within previous 90 days in that category, class and type of aircraft
b. 3 takeoffs and landings
c. 3 takeoffs and landings between the hrs of sunset and sunrise within the previous 90 days in
category I type I class
d. 3 takeoffs and landings between the hours of sunrise and sunset within the previous 90 days
[is the correct answer
23. Transition altitude

a. 12000 ft
b. 13000 ft
c. 10000 ft
d. 15000 ft
24. Transition level

a. 14000 ft
b. FL 130 c. 12000 ft
d. FL 150

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
25. NDB holds timing When to set time?

a. Over the NDB
b. Abeam the NDB on the outbound leg
c. Abeam the NDB on the inbound leg. [] is the correct answer
Topic 1 Page 56
26. Danger areas When can you fly in them?
a. Never
b. When the pilot has ensured the safety of the aircraft and has checked NOTAM etc.
c. .Always
d. With prior permission from ATC
27. Prohibited areas When can you fly in them?

a. Never
b. Always
c. No problem. go ahead d. After checking NOTAM
28. Restricted areas When can you fly in them?

a. Never
b. Anytime
c. Normally prohibited but sometimes permitted with ATC clearance
d. After checking NOTAMS
29. Accident reports (written) within?

a. 10 days
b. 10 working days
c. 7days
d. 24 hours
30. 30. Minimum equipment list for multiengine aircraft.

a. GCAA Minimum Equipment List
b. Master MEL
c. Manufacturer's MEL
31. Minimum Equipment for VFR
a. ELT
b. ELT and Radio
c. ELT, Radio, Navigation radio & transponder

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
d. Radio
32. Maximum VFR flight level

a. FL 120
b. FL 160
c. FL 145
d. FL 100
33. 33. Visibility minima at or above 10000 ft

a. 5k, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud
b. 8k, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud
c. 5km, clear of cloud
34. Visibility minima class G below 900 Meters
Topic 1 Page 57
34. Visibility minima class G below 900 Meters
a. 5km, clear of cloud
b. 5km, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud
c. 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud [] is the correct answer
35. Visibility minima below 10000 ft

a. 5km, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud
b. 8km, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud
c. 5km, 1000 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical from cloud [] is the correct answer
36. Check for IFR flights (pre flight check) use of radio navigation equipment.
a. Flight check against VOR to be within 4 deg
b. Ground check against VOR to be within 4 deg
c. Check against second radio navigation equipment to be within 6 deg
d. Checked within the proceeding 30 days [ is the correct answer
37. What does CAVOK mean?

a. 10000 ft horizontal and 10000 ft vertical
b. 10K horizontal and 10000 ft vertical
c. 5K horizontal and 5000 ft vertical
d. 10K horizontal and 5000 fl vertical [] is the correct answer

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
38. Validity of UAE license

a. Issued for life
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Eight years
39. Altimeter setting for takeoff and landing

a. QNE/QFE
b. QFE/QNE
c. QNH
d. d.QFE
40. Meaning of QNH.

a. Standard conditions
b. 29.92 inches
c. 1013.2 millibars
d. Pressure at mean sea level
41. We report _
above the transition and _
below.
a. Height and Altitude
b. Altitude & Flight level
a. Flight level & Altitude
b. Elevation & Altitude
42. For a type rated commercial pilot, OPC checks to be carried out
a. After 13 months
Topic 1 Page 58
a. After 13 months
b. After 14 months
c. By a GCAA approved examiner
d. By flight instructor
43. Medical validity for a commercial pilot over 40 whose Medical Certificate was issued on 25
April 06.
a. Midnight 24th April 07
b. 30th April 2007
c. 25lh October 2006
d. 6 months

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
44. How many hours should be added to convert UTC to UAE time?
a. Plus four
b. Minus four
c. Plus three
d. Plus five
45. Wake vortex What is the dangerous area for a light aircraft following a heavy aircraft?
a. Upwind
b. Downwind
c. Below and behind the heavy aircraft
d. Above
46. Operation of civil aeroplane within Danger Areas in UAE airspace is

a. Never
b. Anytime
47. Operation of civil aeroplane within Prohibited Areas in UAE airspace is

a. Never
b. Anytime
48. What is the cabin altitude above which all flight crewmembers are required to use supplemental
oxygen (02) continuously?
a. 12000 ft
b. 13000 ft
c. 10000 ft e. 15000ft
49. Airspace in which the flight of civil aircraft is not permitted at any time.
a. Danger Area
b. Restricted Airspace
c. Prohibited Airspace
d. Class G Airspace
Topic 1 Page 59
d. Class G Airspace

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
50. Requirement regarding commencement and continuation of precision instrument approaches if

the RVR are less than applicable minima:
Answer: Cannot continue beyond the outer marker.
51. An Operator when operating abroad shall follow:

a. UAE CAR and other state regulations
b. ICAO Regulations
c. JARs
52. With respect to minimum flight altitude for IFR operations, which statement is correct?
a. MOCA
b. MORA
c. KSS Formula
53. What will be the action required when the limit values of cosmic radiation dose rate are
exceeded?
a. Descend as soon as possible
b. Continue the flight
c. Inform ATC
54. The lowest class of airspace in the UAE requiring an ATC clearance to operate IFR flights·
a. Class G
b. Class E
c. Class C
55. Information concerning notification of accidents and incidents involving aeroplane is provided in:
a. CAR Part II
b. CAR Part III
c. CAR Part IV

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
56. The holder of pilot license, when acting as copilot of an aeroplane required to be operated with a
copilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not more than ___ flight time
a. CAR Part II
b. CAR Part III
c. CAR Part IV
57. The holder of pilot license, when acting as copilot of an aeroplane required to be operated with a
copilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not more than
Topic 1 Page 60
copilot, shall be entitled to be credited with not more than
_____flight time. a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 100%
EXPANSIONS:
ICAO International Civil Aviation Organization SARP Standards and Recommended
Practices MPL MultiCrew Pilot License
FSIX Flight Safety Information Exchange AFCAC African Civil Aviation Commission
ECAC European Civil Aviation Conference LACAC Latin American Civil Aviation
Commission

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
1. For which category is the license issued?

a. aeroplane & helicopters
b. aircraft
c. single and multi engine land aeroplane [] is the correct answer
2. Before you obtain your PPL of all the "Solo'" flight time how much is credited as your pilot in
command time?
a. 50% of your solo time
b. 100% of your solo time
c. none of your solo time
3. What is the squawk code to indicate hijack/unlawful interference? a. 7500

b. 7600
c. 7700
4. What is the squawk code to indicate emergency? a. 7500

b. 7600
c. 7700
5. Radio frequency in an emergency or distress

a. 121.5 MHz
b. 121.5 KHz
c. 21.3 KHz
6. If you have communication failure and you see a steady green light from the air it means?
a. continue approach and clear to land
b. give way to other traffic
c. Continue approach and look out for signal for landing clearance. ] is the correct answer
7. If on ground you see a steady white light it means?

a. Nothing
b. Clear the active area stop the engines
c. Clear the active area and return to bay [] is the correct answer

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
Topic 1 Page 61
PILOT LICENSE EXAM
8. Which aircraft has the right of way?

a. The aircraft on your right.
b. The aircraft behind you.
c. The aircraft above you
9. Which side of the navigation light colored red?

a. Port
b. Left
c. Both are correct
10. To indicate communication failure which squawk code is used?

a. a. 7500
b. 7600
c. 7700
11. Supplemental oxygen is required if the flight is conducted above 10,000 ft. cabin pressure for the
duration of flight in
a. Unpressurised aircrafts
b. pressurized aircrafts
c. both type of aircrafts
12. When on ground you see a flashing green, it indicates

a. clear to start engine
b. clear to takeoff
c. clear to taxi
13. As PPL Holder are you allowed to carry passengers for compensation / hire?
a. Yes
b. No
c. With special permission if the money goes to charity [ Is the correct answer
14. During night flight you see a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead. The other aircraft is
a. Crossing from right to left
b. Crossing form left to right
c. Approaching head on

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
15. During night flight you see a steady white light, a steady green light and a flashing red light. the
other aircraft is
a. Will pass from right to left
b. Flying away from you and will cross left to right
c. Approaching head on
16. UAE Aeronautical Information Publication is
Topic 1 Page 62
16. UAE Aeronautical Information Publication is
a. Advisory
b. Regulatory
c. Mandatory
17. Definition of night in the UAE

a. Hours of darkness
b. Hours between sunrise and sunset
c. Hours between sunset and sunrise as maybe prescribed by the appropriate authority
18. Definition of VFR

a. Visual Flight Conditions
b. Visual Flight Rules
c. Visual Meteorological conditions
19. Transition altitude in UAE FIR

a. 15,OOOfeet
b. 14,500 feet
c. 13,OOO feet
20. Call sign A6EFT, the correct abbreviation is

a. Alpha Foxtrot Tango
b. Echo Foxtrot Tango
c. Foxtrot Tango
21. Using readability scale, readability 2 means

a. 1 heard you twice
b. Readable now and then
c. Readable but with difficulty

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
22. The word "ROGER" means

a. With comply
b. Message received and understood
c. That is correct
23. Monitor means

a. Listen out on the frequency stated
b. Make a test transmission on the frequency stated
c. Change to the new frequency
24. A blind transmission is

a. Transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific
station
b. Transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where twoway
communications cannot be established but when it is believed that the called station is able
to receive the transmission.
Topic 1 Page 63
to receive the transmission.
c. An all station call
25. A pilot is required to read back

a. Altimeter setting, taxi instructions, traffic information
b. Altimeter setting, taxi instructions, takeoff clearance, weather information and any other
information given by ATC.
c. altimeter settings, weather information, information regarding the proximity of other
aircraft, taxi instructions
26. An altitude of 10 000 ft will be transmitted as

a. ten thousand feet
b. one zero thousand feet
c. ten zero zero feet
27. You are a private pilot with a UAE license. Your date of birth is 1 st April '52 and you took a class
2 medical on first day of April '92. When does your medical expire?
a. 1st April '93
b. 30'h April '94
c. 31st April '92

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
28. In the event of interception of an aircraft the intercepting aircraft will position itself.
a. To the right and in front of the aircraft being intercepted
b. To the left and in front of the aircraft being intercepted
c. immediately in front of the aircraft being intercepted [] is the correct answer
29. After landing at a tower controlled airport when should pilot contact ground control?
a. Prior to turning off the runway
b. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area
c. When advised by tower to do so
30. What line colors denote taxiways, maneuvering area and runways?
a. White centerlines
b. Yellow and white lines
c. Green centerline for taxiways and maneuvering area and white centerline for runways
31. What light colors denotes taxiway center lines and perimeters?
a. Green centerline lights and white perimeter lights
b. White centerline lights and green perimeter lights
c. Green centerline lights and blue perimeter lights [] is the correct answer
32. What are the fuel requirements for flight under VFR in an aeroplane in the UAE assuming normal
cruising speed?
a. Sufficient for an alternate aerodrome
b. During day and night to the destination and to fly after that for 30 minutes
c. During day to the destination and to fly after that for at least 30 minutes or at night to fly at
least 45 minutes.
Topic 1 Page 64
33. VFR ceiling and visibility requirement in class C,D, E airspace below 10,000 feet are
a. 8 km, visibility, 1500m horizontally and 300m vertically from cloud
b. 5km, visibility 1500m horizontally and 300m vertically from cloud
c. 5km, visibility 1000m horizontally and 300m vertically from cloud [b] is the correct answer

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
34. What rules may aircraft operate under in VFR flight between the hours of sunset and sunrise?
a. Night VFR
b. Special VFR
c. IFR
35. No person may act as a pilotin command of an aircraft unless in the preceding 12 months that
person has
a. Completed 9 takeoff and landings in the category and class (and type if applicable) aircraft
b. Accomplished a pilot proficiency check given to him by any licensed pilot who holds a
flight instructor rating
c. Accomplished a pilot proficiency check given to him/her by a licensed UAE pilot with a
flight instructor rating.
36. Unless otherwise notified when operating in the circuit pattern of an aerodrome the pilot shall
make all turns to the
a. Right
b. left
c. Right in helicopter, left in aeroplane [] is the correct answer
37. An aeroplane and a helicopter are converging while approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of
landing.
a. The aeroplane must yield the right of way regardless of his position
b. The helicopter must yield the right of way regardless of his position
c. Aircraft to the other's right has the right of way [] is the correct answer
38. What is the maximum permissible speed below 10,000 ft. in UAE FIR?
a. 270 kts.
b. 250 Mph
c. 250 kts.
39. What document(s) must be in your personal possession while operating as pilotin command of an
aircraft?
a. Certificate showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current PPL.
b. A pilot license with an endorsement showing accomplishment of PPL and a logbook
showing recency of experience
c. An appropriate pilot license and an appropriate current medical certificate

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
40. The final responsibility for compliance with the rules of the air is
a. The pilot manipulating the controls
b. The controlling authority of the airspace in use
Topic 1 Page 65
b. The controlling authority of the airspace in use
c. Pilotincommand
41. The validity period of the UAE license is

a. Two years
b. One year
c. Four Years
d. Eight years
42. No person may act as a pilotincommand of a UAE registered civil aircraft unless he has in his
personal possession
a. U.S License
b. U.A.E License
c. British License
43. A pilot who has reached 40 years age or over, shall not act as commercial pilot unless he has in
his personal possession a current
a. Class I medical certificate within the preceding 6 months
b. Class I medical certificate within the preceding 12 months
c. Class II medical certificate
44. You are a 25 year old commercial pilot and have taken your Class 1medical exam on the 30'h
April '89 when does your medical expire?
a. 31st April '91
b. 30th April '90
c. 31st August '89
45. No person shall act as pilotincommand of an aircraft carrying passengers at night unless within
preceding 90 days he has completed
a. 3 takeoffs and landing
b. 3 takeoffs and landings from sunset to sunrise in the same category, class and type if
applicable
c. 3 takeoffs and landings from sunrise to sunset in same category class and type if applicable

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
46. The privileges of a private pilot license aeroplane shall be to act as pilotincommand or copilot
carrying passengers
a. share the operating expenses of a flight with the passengers
b. engaged in revenue flight
c. not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of flight [] is the correct answer
47. Transition level in UAE FIR

a. FL 145
b. FL 130
c. FL150
48. Where can you find information regarding flight crew licensing requirement?
a. Aeronautical lnformation Publication (AIP)
Topic 1 Page 66
a. Aeronautical lnformation Publication (AIP)
b. Section II Civil Aviation Regulation
c. Pilot Operating Handbook
49. Position report in class E airspace

a. Half hour of all flight
b. First 30 minutes then every hour
c. Every hour at night only
50. Flight visibility for VFR in class E airspace at or above 10 000 ft.
a. 8km., 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical
b. 8 miles, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical
c. 5km., 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical [] is the correct answer
51. Entering UAE airspace without clearance, likely to be intercepted by fighter How would it
indicate that you are to follow:
a. Rapid departure to the left
b. Ahead and to the left, rocking wings
c. Below your aircraft
52. Flight visibility minimal in class G airspace VFR below 900 meters
a. 8km., 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical
b. 5 km., clear of clouds and in sight of ground or water
c. 5km., 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
53. To calculate local time from UTC

a. minus 3 hours
b. add 4 hours
c. add 3 hours
54. Radio transponder code for interception a. 1200

b. 2000
c. 7700
55. Radio transponder code when entering UAE FIR without assigned code a. 7600
b. 1200
c. 2000
56. What is the cloud coverage if meteorological conditions state scattered (SCT)?
a. 4/8 sky cover
b. 2/8 sky cover
c. 8/8 sky cover
57. Altimeter setting for takeoff and landing

a. QNH for takeoff and QFE for landing
b. QFE for takeoff and QNE for landing
c. QNH for takeoff and landing
Topic 1 Page 67
c. QNH for takeoff and landing
58. Meaning of QNH

a. Standard conditions
b. 29.92 inches/1013.2 millibars
c. pressure at mean sea level/mean sea level set in altimeter subscale [] is the correct answer
59. Checks for IFR flights (Preflight check) use of radio navigation equipment
a. f1ight check against VOR to be within 4 degrees
b. check against second radio equipment to be within 6 degrees
c. checked within preceding 30 days [] is the correct answer

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
60. No person may act as pilotincommand of a multiengine aircraft carrying passengers unless he has
experience of
a. 10 hours
b. 50 hours
c. completed a proficiency check with a rated pilot [] is the correct answer
61. IFR fuel requirements for alternate aerodrome

a. to complete an instrument approach and missed approach procedure and fly 45 minutes
there after
b. 45 minutes at normal cruising speed there after
c. no requirements
62. Pilotincommand cannot enter

a. danger area
b. prohibited area
c. restricted area
63. Maximum VFR flight level

a. f1ight level 150
b. flight level 145
c. flight level 180 d. 12500 ft
64. Minimum equipment required for operations under VFR

a. ELT
b. ELT and VHF communication (twoway)
c. ELT, radio communication and navigation and SSR transponder [] is the correct answer
65. Flight time as a member of a oneortwo pilot crew if that crew members total time in all
commercial flying should not exceed
a. 100 hours in any period of 28 consecutive days or 900 hours in any calendar years
b. 300 hours in any period of 90 consecutive days
c. all the above are correct

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
Topic 1 Page 68
66. Commercial pilot maximum flying time allowed in 24 consecutive hours
a. 8 hours for a flight crew consisting one pilot
b. 10 hours for a flight crew consisting two pilots
c. all the above are correct
67. No flight crew member may accept any assignment in excess of

a. 14 hours maximum duty time in any 24 consecutive hour period
b. 12 hours maximum duty time in any 48 consecutive hour period
c. 14 hours maximum duty time in any 48 hours consecutive hour period [] is the correct
answer
68. The rest requirements of any flight crew member engaged in commercial flying should be
a. 24 consecutive hour period of duty with in each 7 day period
b. 48 consecutive hour period of duty with in each 6 day period
c. none of the above
69. On multiengine aircraft with propellers both turning clockwise, one engine failing is more critical
than the other. Why?
a. Forces one wing leading to a higher stall speed for that wing
b. Corkscrew vortex
c. The thrust produced by the descending propeller on the right engine has an arm farther
away from centerline of fuselage (Pfactor)
70. Transponder code and flight action if radio fails.

a. 7600 and continue same heading for 3 minutes
b. 7600 and continue with flight as planned
c. Advise ATC of radio failure and request course of action to be taken. [] is the correct
answer
71. IFR and VFR flight in class G airspace, the service available is:
a. flight information services
b. flight information service for VFR advisory service for IFR
c. full advisory service for IFR and none for VFR [] is the correct answer

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
72. Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded
information concerning
a. weather information for inbound traffic
b. departure information
c. noncontrol information broadcast in heavy traffic area [] is the correct answer
73. If an aircraft is involved in an accident, which results in substantial damage to the aircraft
notification to GCAA should be done.
a. immediately
b. within 24 hours
c. within 10 days
74. Aircraft accident report (written) required within how n\many days after accident?
Topic 1 Page 69
74. Aircraft accident report (written) required within how n\many days after accident?
a. 10days
b. 7 days
c. 3 days
75. If an aircraft wreckage is to be moved prior to the time GCAA takes custody
a. not to be moved under any circumstances
b. Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage
c. Yes, but only if moved by GCM officials or local enforcement officer [] is the correct
answer
76. Type ratings are applicable for which types?

a. all type of helicopters
b. those requiring two pilots
c. both A and B are correct
77. Visibility requirements for SVFR

a. 1500m ground visibility
b. 3000m flight visibility
c. 1500m ground and flight visibility [] is the correct answer
78. Special flight authorization for foreign aircraft operating in the UAE
a. do not require any flight authorization
b. can operate a foreign aircraft if the pilot is appropriately rated
c. a specific flight authorization has to be issued for that operation by the GCAA to operate in
UAE FIR only

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
79. NDB holds timing when to set time?

a. over the NDB
b. a beam the NDB on the out bound leg
c. a beam the NDB on the inbound leg [] is the correct answer
80. Danger area when can you fly in them?

a. never
b. at pilot's discretion and safety of the aircraft is ensured
c. after checking NOTAMS
81. Restricted area when can you fly in them?

a. anytime
b. aircraft to operate in accordance with a clearance issued by ATC
c. never
82. A person may take off a multiengine civil aircraft with an operable instruments or equipment
installed only if
a. minimum equipment list not required if aircraft in airworthy condition
b. a GCAA approved minimum equipment list exists for that aircraft
c. if approved by aircraft mechanic to fly [] is the correct answer
83. What does CAVOK means?
Topic 1 Page 70
83. What does CAVOK means?
a. 10km. horizontal and 10,000 feet vertical
b. 5km. horizontal and 5,000 feet vertical
c. 10km visibility. horizontal 1500 meters and 1000 feet vertical
84. We report _
above the transition and
below.
a. altitude/flight level
b. flight level/altitude
c. elevation/altitude
85. For a type rated commercial pilot, PPC check to be carried out
a. after 13 months
b. by a flight instructor
c. by a GCAA inspector or designated check pilot with GCAA approval [] is the correct
answer

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
86. Wake Vortex what is the dangerous area for a light aircraft following a heavy?
a. upwind
b. down wind
c. below and behind heavy aircraft
87. Useful period on consciousness without oxygen following pressurization failure at 20,000, 25,000
and 30,000 feet
a. 5 minutes, 2 minutes and 45 seconds
b. 10 minutes, 3 minutes and 1 Y. minutes
c. 6 minutes, 4 minutes and 2 minutes [] is the correct answer
88. Minimum airfield lighting requirements for night operations?

a. runway edge light and displaced threshold lights or (REIL)
b. runway edge light and centerline lights
c. runway edge light and approach lights with VASI [] is the correct answer
89. VOR Holds timing when to set time?

a. over the VOR
b. a beam the VOR beacon on the out bound leg.
c. a beam the VOR beacon on the inbound leg. [] is the correct answer
90. Do you require an ATC clearance to enter danger area?

a. yes
b. a pilot can enter at his own discretion
c. yes, only when danger area is active. [] is the correct answer
91. Requirement for an Aural Speed warning Device

a. not required in any type of aircraft
b. required in transport category aeroplane
c. required in all aircrafts
92. Requirement of an Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT)

a. not required
Topic 1 Page 71
a. not required
b. required in all civil aircraft in the UAE
c. not required in training area

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
93. When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the
a. pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance when requested?
b. within 48 hours
c. immediately c within 7 days
94. Under what conditions, if any may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of
intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
a. under no condition
b. only if the person is a medical patient under proper care or an emergency
c. only if the person does not have access to the cockpit pilots compartment [] is the correct
answer
95. Preflight action, as required for all flight away from the vicinity of an airport shall include
a. the designation of an alternate airport
b. a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use
c. an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned
96. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure
airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
a. review traffic control light signal procedures
b. check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter
(ELT)
c. determine runway lengths at airports at intended use and the aircrafts take-off and landing
distance data
97. Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically
required to keep their seat belts and shoulder harness fastened?
a. seatbelts during takeoff and landing, shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing
b. seatbelts during takeoff and landing, shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and
while enroute.
c. seatbelts during takeoff and landing, and while enroute; shoulder harness during takeoff and
landing.

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
98. With respect to passenger, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the
use of seatbelts?
a. the pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep seatbelts fastened for the entire
flight.
b. the pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of seatbelts and notify them to
fasten the seatbelts during takeoff and landing.
c. the pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers use of seatbelts
Topic 1 Page 72
c. the pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers use of seatbelts
99. What action, if any is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an A TC Instruction during an
emergency and is given priority
a. take a special action since you are pilot in command
b. file a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, If required
c. file a report to the GCAA administrator as soon as possible [] is the correct answer
100. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
a. enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions
b. enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at
normal cruising speed
c. enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at
normal cruising speed.
101. No person may operate an aircraft In acrobatic flight when

a. flight visibility is less that 5 miles
b. over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement
c. less than 2,500 feet AGL
102. What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?

a. 1,000 feet AGL
b. 1,500 feet AGL
c. 2,000 feet AGL

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
103. No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than
a. 3 km
b. 8 km
c. 5 km
104. A chairtype parachute must have been packed by a certified and appropriately rated parachute
rigger within the preceding
a. 60 days
b. 90 days
c. 120 days
105. With certain exceptions, seatbelts are required to be secured about passengers during
a. takeoff and landing
b. all flight conditions
c. flight in turbulent air
106. With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute
a. when a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers
b. when intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 deg or more
c. when intentionally banking in excess of 30 deg [] is the correct answer
Topic 1 Page 73
107. The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is
primarily that of the
a. pilot in command
b. owner or operator
c. mechanic who performs the work
108. Which incident requires an immediate notification to the GCAA Flight Operations department?
a. a force landing due to engine failure
b. landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
c. flight control system malfunction or failure [] is the correct answer

PILOT LICENSE EXAM
109. Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the GCAA flight operations
department?
a. an inflight generator/alternator failure
b. an inflight fire.
c. an in flight loss of VOR receiver capability [] is the correct answer
110. Which incident requires an immediate notification to be made to GCAA?

a. an overdue aircraft that is involved in an accident
b. an inflight radio communications failure
c. an inflight generator or alternator failure [] is the correct answer
111. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file accident report
within how many days?
a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
112. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to
GCAA
a. within 7 days
b. within 24 days
c. when requested
113. Requirements for copilot under IFR

a. a copilot should have proper authorization from GCAA which comprises of an instrument
rating appropriate to the aircraft category on his license
b. does not require an instrument rating if pilot in command has instrument rating
c. copilot should have completed 6 hours of instrument flying and 6 approaches in last 6
months in category, class and type of aircraft.
[) is the correct answer
114. Which document a foreign pilot, who acts as a pilot of a UAE registered aircraft, required to have
in his possession?
a. Only Foreign License
b. UAE Pilot License
c. License Validation
Topic 1 Page 74
PILOT LICENSE EXAM
115. An active crew member found by the GCAA to be under the influence of psychoactive drugs or
alcohol shall undergo:
a. Medical check
b. Drug screening
c. Blood test
116. No person may act as a flight crew member of an aeroplane without:

a. Recency
b. License
c. Medical Certificate
d. All the above
is the correct answer
END
Topic 1 Page 75

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Lesson 1

04 November 2019 14:01

ICAO -> international civil aviation organization (States)

Annexes you want to know as a pilot

Agreements Joint aviation authorities (JAA)

European civil aviation conference (ECAC)

Aircraft nationality and registration marks

- Ratings require a valid license

Rules of the air

PIC has final authority over the disposition

- Converging - same type

- Converging - different type

The lights required on aircraft

Signals and signs

- Training flights under simulated instruments condition

- Control of aerodrome traffic

Weather deterioration below VMC

Communication failure action

Unlawful interference (Hijack)

Flight level rules

IFR Equipment and pilot qualifications

Changing from IFR to VFR

IFR flights within CAS

RVSM (reduced vertical seperation minima)

IFR outside CAS

Visual warning of incursion

Signal square area

- Base turn (non-reciprocal)

PDG = 2.5% OIS + 0.8% buffer =

Area navigation departures (RNAV)

Approach procedure segments

Types of arrivals / approaches

Approach's RAD: a radial, is a signal beam that is

- OCA = Highest obstacle + safety

- Tolerance range for fixes

Optimum descent gradient

IAF: Initial approach fix

Non precision with an FAF

Final approach segment

Visual manoeuvring circling - VM{C}

Minimum visibility for aircraft category

- Increases by 900m every cat increased

1- 2.5% climb gradient during intermediate section of a missed approach

○ Below 14,000ft a holding is supposed to take 4 minutes

- Pilots are supposed to make up for winds and other metrological

○ Joining of the a holding pattern is based on the heading of the

AWO: all weather operation

○ Independent Simultaneous instrument departures (mode 3)

○ Segregated departures and arrivals (mode 4)

 Can be semi mix

- All aircraft have to have full ILS/MLS

NOZ and NTZ

Wake turbulence seperation

Operating procedure for secondary radar (transponder)

ATC consist of SAR: search and rescue

ATS compromises of 3 divisions

- ATSU clocks must be accurate within 30 seconds

- Control zone (CTR)

Automatic terminal service information (ATIS)

Alerting service (link with SAR)