29-12-2024

9610ZMD801687240001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1)

Which pair of the following forces will never give resulant force of 2 N ?

(1) 2 N and 2 N
(2) 1 N and 1 N
(3) 1 N and 3 N
(4) 1 N and 4 N

2) If % error in a is 3% and % error in b is 16%, then % error in a2b1/2 will be :

(1) 13%
(2) 10%
(3) 17%
(4) 14%

3) Least count of main scale of screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 equal calibration on circular
scale, circular scale move 1 part main scale on 1 rotation of circular sacle, then what will be the
diameter of ball as shown in diagram (i) and (ii) ?

(1) 8.70 mm
(2) 6.70 mm
(3) 6.50 mm
(4) None

4) The numerical value of the ratio of magnitude of instantaneous velocity to instantaneous speed is :
-

(1) always less than one

(2) always equal to one
(3) always more than one
(4) equal to or less than one

5) A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6km with constant speed 2.5 kmh–1 and walks back with
a constant speed of 4 kmh–1. His average speed for round trip expressed in kmh–1, is :

(1) 24/13
(2) 40/13
(3) 3
(4) 1/2

6) A particle starts from rest and moves along a straight line for 10 seconds. Its acceleration a

versus time t is as shown in figure. The maximum speed of the particle is :

(1) 80 m/s
(2) 40 m/s
(3) 400 m/s
(4) 320 m/s

7) A boat moves with a speed of 5km/h relative to water in a river flowing with a speed of 3 km/h and
having a width of 1 km. The minimum time taken around a round trip is :

(1) 5 min
(2) 60 min
(3) 20 min
(4) 30 min

8) When a train stops suddenly, passengers in the running train feel an instant jerk in the forward
direction because :

(1) The back of seat suddenly pushes the passengers forward.

(2) Inertia of rest stops the train and takes the body forward.
Upper part of the body continues to be in the state of motion whereas the lower part of the body
(3)
in contact with seat remains at rest.
(4) Nothing can be said due to insufficient data.

9) Diwali rocket is ejecting 50 g of gases per sec. at a velocity of 400 ms–1. The accelerating force on
the rocket will be : -

(1) 22 dyne
(2) 20 N
(3) 20 dyne
(4) 100 N

10) A 5 kg block has a rope of mass 2 kg attached to its under side and a 3 kg block is suspended
from the other end of the rope. The whole system is accelerated upwards at 2m/s2 by an external
force F0. The tension at the middle point of the rope is :
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 24 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 40 N
(4) 48 N

11) A force acts on a particle and produces a displacement of if

the work done is zero, the value of x is :

(1) –2
(2) 1/2
(3) 6
(4) 2

12) A collides to a surface as shown in figure. If coefficient of restitution , then θ will be:-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 0°

13) Body A of mass 2 kg collides with the another body B at rest initially. The collision is perfectly
elastic. After collision body A continues to move in its original direction with the speed one-fourth of
its original speed. Calculate the mass of body B :-
(1) 2 kg
(2) 1.6 kg
(3) 1.2 kg
(4) 0.8 kg

14) Assertion (A) :- In case of bullet fired from gun, the ratio of kinetic energy of gun and bullet is
equal to ratio of mass of bullet and gun.
Reason (R) :- In firing, total momentum is conserved.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

15) If the angular velocity of a merry-go-round is 60 degree/sec and you are 3.5 m from the centre of
rotation, your linear velocity will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) π m/s

16) A particle of mass m describes a circle of radius r. The centripetal acceleration of the particle is
4/r2. What will be the momentum of the particle ?

(1) 2 m/r
(2)
(3)
(4) 4 m/r

17) A wheel of radius 1.5 m. is rotating at a constant angular acceleration of 10 rad/s2. Its initial

angular speed is rpm. What will be its angular speed at t = 2.0 sec ?

(1) 22 rad/sec
(2) 44 rad/sec
(3) 54 rad/sec
(4) None of these

18) A uniform circular disc A of radius r is made from a copper plate of thickness t and another
uniform circular disc B of radius 2r is made from a copper plate of thickness t/2. The relation
between the moments of inertia IA and IB about their own axis is

(1) IA > IB
(2) IA = IB
(3) IA < IB
(4) depends on the values of t and r.

19) A wheel is at rest. Its angular velocity increases uniformly and becomes 80 rad/sec after 5 sec.
The total angular displacement is :-

(1) 800 rad

(2) 400 rad
(3) 200 rad
(4) 100 rad

20) Five parallel infinite wires are placed at the vertices of a regular polygon. Four wires carry
current I0 each. While the fifth wire carries current 3I0 as shown. The resultant magnetic field at the

centre O is :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing in negative z direction.
Branch PQRS is a three quarter circle, while branch PS is straight. If force on branch PS is F, force

on branch PQR is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) Statement–1 : Work done in moving a charge with increasing velocity in a steady non–uniform
magnetic field may be zero.
and
Statement–2 : Magnetic force is always perpendicular to velocity of charged particle moving in a
magnetic field.

Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is True ; Statement–2 is a correct explanation for

(1)
Statement–1.
Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is True ; Statement–2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement–1.
(3) Statement–1 is True, Statement–2 is False.
(4) Statement–1 is False, Statement–2 is True.

23) A proton moves along vertical line and towards observer, the pattern of concentric circular field
lines of magnetic field which is produced due to its motion:

(1) ACW, In horizontal plane

(2) ACW, In vertical plane
(3) CW, In horizontal plane
(4) CW, In vertical plane

24) Two wires with currents 2 A & 1 A are enclosed in circular loop. Another wire with current 3 A is

situated outside the loop as shown. The around the loop is :-

(1) μ0
(2) 3μ0
(3) 6μ0
(4) 2μ0

25) A coil of area A = 0.5 m2 is situated in a uniform magnetic field B = 4.0 wb/m2 and area vector
makes an angle of 60o with respect to the magnetic field as shown in figure. The value of the

magnetic flux through the area A would be equal to

(1) 2 weber
(2) 1 weber
(3) 3 weber

(4)
weber

26) A current carrying solenoid is approaching a conducting loop as shown in the figure. The
direction of induced current as observed by an observer on the other side of the loop will be

(1) Clockwise
(2) Anticlockwise
(3) East
(4) West

27) Which is correct phenomenon of periodic electromagnetic induction -

(1) Phase difference between induced emf and induced current is π

(2) Phase difference between induced emf and linked flux is zero
(3) Phase difference between induced emf and linked flux is π/2
(4) Frequency of all induced parameters is double the rotational frequency of the coil

28) Find work done in decreasing the distance by 2m.

(1) 4.5 × 109 J

(2) –9 × 109 J
(3) 13.5 × 109 J
(4) –13.5 × 109 J

29) If V = x2y + y2xz + 5 then find at (1,1,0).

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) A conducting sphere of radius R has electric field E at distance 2R from centre. Find potential
difference between centre of the sphere & the point where electric field is E.
(1) 2ER
(2) 4ER
(3) 6ER
(4) ER

31) The work done against electric forces in increasing the potential difference of a condenser from
30 V to 40 V is W. The work done in increasing its potential difference from 40 V to 50 V will be : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A slab of material of dielectric constant εr = 4 has the same area as the plates of a parallel plate
capacitor but has a thickness (2d/3), where d is the separation of the plates. How is the capacitance
changed when the slab is inserted between the plates?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

33) In the given circuit find out charge on 6μF capacitor.

(1) 60μC
(2) 20μC
(3) 30μC
(4) 10μC

34) A coil boil some amount of H2O in 40 min. Now this coil is cut into two equal parts and these are
connected in parallel then find time taken by this combination to boil same amount of water.

(1) 5 min.
(2) 10 min.
(3) 20 min.
(4) 40 min.

35) Resistance of a galvanometer is 90Ω. If only 10% of the main current passes through the
galvanometer when it is connected to a shunt then find shunt resistance.

(1) 5Ω
(2) 10Ω
(3) 15Ω
(4) 20Ω

SECTION-B

1) A 2kg toy car can moves along an x-axis. Graph shown force Fx, acting on the car which begins at
rest at time t = 0. The velocity of the particle at t = 10 s is :

(1) – i m/s
(2) – 1.5 i m/s
(3) 6.5 i m/s
(4) 13 i m/s

2) A body of mass 0.2 kg is pressed against a wall with a horizontal force 5 N. If coeffcient of friction
is 0.8 then find force of friction.

(1) 2 N
(2) 0.2 N
(3) 5 N
(4) 4 N

3) Figure shows a smooth curved track terminating in a smooth horizontal part. A spring of spring
constant 400 N/m is attached at one end to a wedge fixed regidly with the horizontal part. A 40 g
mass is released from rest at a height of 4.9 m on the curved track. Find the maximum compression
of the spring.
(1) 4.9 cm
(2) 19.6 cm
(3) 9.8 cm
(4) None

4) A rope of mass M and length L is hanging on table with 1/4th length as shown, then work required
to pull it on table will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Three point masses, each of mass m, are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side L.
The moment of intertia of this system about an axis along one side of the triangle is

(1) mL2

(2)

(3) 3mL2

(4)

6) A pendulum bob has a speed of 3 m/s at its lowest position. The pendulum is 0.5 m long. The
speed of the bob when the length makes an angle of 60º to the vertical, will be : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 3 m/s

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 m/s

7) The radius of gyration of a rod of length L and mass M about an axis perpendicular to its length
and passing through a point at a distance L/3 from one of its ends is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A hollow cylindercal wire carries current I, having inner and outer radius R and 2R respectively.

Magnetic field at a point which is distance away from axis of the wire :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A proton of mass kg and charge C is projected with a speed of

m/s at an angle of 60° to the X-axis as shown. If a uniform magnetic field of 0.104 Tesla is applied

along Y-axis, the path of proton is

(1) A circle of radius 0.2 m and time period s

(2) A circle of radius 0.1 m and time period s
(3) A helix of radius 0.1 m and time period s
(4) A helix of radius 0.2 m and time period s

10) Find potential on the axis of a ring (Q, R) where its field is maximum? (approximately)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
11) The plate separation in a parallel plate condenser is d and plate area is A. If it is charged to V
volt & battery is disconnected then the work done in increasing the plate separation to 3d will be : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12) The distance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 'd'. Another thick metal plate of
thickness d/2 and area same as that of plates is so placed between the plates, that it does not touch
them. The capacity of the resulting capacitor :–

(1) remains the same

(2) becomes double
(3) becomes half
(4) becomes one fourth

13) When a resistance of 4Ω is connected to a cell then a current 2A flow through it. If the cell is
connected to a resistance of 9Ω then current is decreased by 50%. Find internal resistance of the
cell.

(1) 10Ω
(2) 20Ω
(3) 1Ω
(4) 2Ω

14) A voltmeter of 98 Ω is used to measure emf of a cell 2v, 2Ω. Find error in its reading in
percentage.

(1) 1%
(2) 2%
(3) 3%
(4) 4%

15) In meter bridge experiment, x Ω is connected in left side and 2 Ω (< x) is connected in right side.
Now position of these two resistances interchanged and balancing length is shifted by 20 cm. Find
value of balanced length in new case.

(1) 40 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 80 cm
(4) 50 cm
 CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) In the Haber's process of ammonia manufacture,

N2(g) +3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
the rate of appearance of NH3 is:

The rates of the reaction expressed in terms of N2 and H2 will be:

Rates in terms of H2 Rates in terms of N2

(mol L–1 sec–1) (mol L–1 sec–1)

(1) 3 × 10–4 2 × 10–4

(2) 3 × 10–4 1 × 10–4

(3) 1 × 10–4 3 × 10–4

(4) 2 × 10–4 2 × 10–4

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) The slope of Arrhenius plot of first order reaction is –5 × 103 K. The value of Ea of the
reaction is. Choose the correct option for your answer.
[Given R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1]

(1) 41.5 kJ mol–1

(2) 83.0 kJ mol–1
(3) 166 kJ mol–1
(4) –83 kJ mol–1

3) A solution containing 7 g of a solute (molar mass 210 g mol–1) in 350 g of acetone raised the
boiling point of acetone from 56°C to 56.3°C. The value of ebullioscopic constant of acetone in K kg
mol–1 is:

(1) 2.66
(2) 3.15
(3) 4.12
(4) 2.86

4) Which solution will exert the highest osmotic pressure?

(1) 1 M glucose solution
(2) 1 M urea solution
(3) 1 M alum solution
(4) 1 M NaCl solution

5) 2 moles each of liquids A and B are dissolved to form an ideal solution. What will be the mole
fraction of B in the vapour phase?

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 3/5
(4) 2/5

6) Copper sulphate solution is electrolysed between two platinum electrodes. A current is passed
until 1.6 g of oxygen is liberated at anode. The amount of copper deposited at the cathode during the
same period is : -

(1) 6.36 g
(2) 63.6 g
(3) 12.7 g
(4) 3.2 g

7) At 25°C, the molar conductance’s at infinite dilution for the strong electrolytes NaOH, NaCl and
BaCl2 are 248 × 10–4, l26 × 10–4 and 280 × 10–4 S m2 mo1–1 respectively.
Ba(OH)2 in S m2 mo1–1 is ?

(1) 52.4 × 10–4

(2) 524 × 10–4
(3) 402 × 10–4
(4) 262 × 10–4

8) Select the metal with maximum reducing power:

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

9) Which of the following is used as an indicator in the titration of a strong acid and a weak base?

(1) Methyl orange

(2) Phenolphthalein
(3) Thymal blue
(4) Fluorescein
10) The titration of KMnO4 against oxalic acid or FeSO4 is example of

(1) Iodimetric titration

(2) Precipitation titration
(3) Potentiometric titration
(4) Redox titration

11) The existence of two different coloured complexes of Co(NH3)4Cl2 is due to :

(1) optical isomerism

(2) linkage isomerism
(3) geometrical isomerism
(4) coordination isomerism

12) The IUPAC name of Na3[Fe(CN)5NO] is :

(1) sodium pentacyanonitrosyl iron(II)

(2) sodium pentacyanonitrosonium ferrate(II)
(3) sodium nitrosoniumpentacyano ferrate(I)
(4) sodium nitrosylpentacyano ferrate(II)

13) The complex with spin-only magnetic moment of ~ 4.9 B.M. is :

2+
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]
3–
(2) [Fe(CN)6]
4–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
3+
(4) [Fe(H2O)6]

14) Among the following, which is the strongest oxidizing agent ?

(1) Mn3+
(2) Fe3+
(3) Ti3+
(4) Cr3+

15) The statement that is INCORRECT about the interstitial compounds is :

(1) they are chemically reactive

(2) they are very hard
(3) they have metallic conductivity
(4) they have high melting points

16) Which of the following compounds is commonly used in the preparation of silicones?

(1) RSiCl3
(2) SiO2
(3) Na2SiO3
(4) SiC

17) Choose the correct statement :

(1) Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.

(2) Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.
(3) Diamond is sp3 hybridized and graphite is sp2 hybridized.
(4) Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.

18) Assertion (A) :- undergoes SN1 reaction at a faster rate than .

Reason (R) :- Intermediate is stabilised by two phenyl rings while is

stabilised by one phenyl ring.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

19) The reaction,

is known as

(1) Wurtz
(2) Sandmeyer
(3) Gattermann
(4) Friedel-Craft

20) What is the major product of the following reaction ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Consider the following compounds.

Basic nature of above compounds is in the order as

(1) I > II > III

(2) I > III > II
(3) II > III > I
(4) III > II > I

22) What is the end-product of the following reaction ?

(1) 1,3,5-tribromobenzene
(2) Bromobenzene
(3) Bromophosphobenzene
(4) Bromonitrobenzene

23) Glucose + Tollen’s reagent → Silver mirror the above test shows

(1) presence of —COOH group

(2) presence of keto group
(3) presence of —CHO group
(4) presence of —CONH2 group

24) In the reaction sequence,

The product (Y) is

(1) chlorobenzene
(2) benzaldehyde
(3) benzoic acid
(4) benzene

25) Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides together by phosphodiester linkage. Between
which carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are these linkages present?

(1) 5’ and 3’
(2) 1’ and 5’
(3) 5’ and 5’
(4) 3’ and 3’

26) DNA and RNA contain four bases each. Which of the following bases is not present in RNA ?

(1) Adenine
(2) Uracil
(3) Thymine
(4) Cytosine

27) When the compound is treated with concentrated aqueous KOH solution.
Which product is formed ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The final product ‘Y’ in the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction ?

Acetone Product

(1) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
(2) Pentan-2-ol
(3) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
(4) Pentan-3-ol

30) The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for halogens. By doing so it

(1) increase the concentration of ions

(2) decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed
(3) helps in the precipitation of AgCl
(4) increases the solubility product of AgCl

31) Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for the estimation of nitrogen in

(1) pyridine
(2) nitro compounds
(3) azo compounds
(4) All of the above

32) The principle involved in paper chromatography is

(1) adsorption
(2) partition
(3) solubility
(4) volatility

33) Which of the following in compound is not chiral ?

(1) 1-Chlorobutane
(2) 3-Chloro-2-methylpentane
(3) 1-Chloro-2-methylpentane
(4) 2-Chloropentane

34) Which of the following biphenyls is optically active ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Calculate total number of optical isomers in the following compound.

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 8
 SECTION-B

1) The reaction A → B follows first order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mol of A to produce 0.6 mol
of B is 1 hour. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9 mol of A to produce 0.675 mol of B?

(1) 0.25 hour

(2) 2 hours
(3) 1 hour
(4) 0.5 hour

2) The correct difference between first and second-order reactions is that :

the rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-
(1)
order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations
the rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a
(2)
second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations
(3) a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed
the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0 ; the half-life of a second-order
(4)
reaction does depend on [A]0

3) A certain substance 'A' tetramerises in water to the extent of 80 %. A solution of 2.5 g of A in 100
g of water lowers the freezing point by 0.3°C. The molar mass of A is

(1) 122
(2) 31
(3) 244
(4) 62

4) Given = –0.72V, = – 0.42V.

The potential for cell
Cr | Cr3+ (0.1M) || Fe2+ (0.01M) | Fe is : -

(1) – 0.26 V
(2) 0.26 V
(3) 0.33 V
(4) – 0.33 V

5) The weight of KMnO4 required to make 500 ml 0.1 N KMnO4, for titration in acidic medium is

(1) 6.15 g
(2) 1.58 g
(3) 2.65 g
(4) 4.12 g

6) The zero magnetic moment of octahedral K2NiF6 is due to

(1) low spin d6 Ni(IV) complex
(2) low spin d8 Ni(II) complex
(3) high spin d8 Ni(II) complex
(4) high spin d6 Ni(IV) complex

7) The compound that absorbs light of longest wavelength is :

3–
(1) [Cr(NO2)6]
3+
(2) [Cr(NH3)6]
3+
(3) [Cr(H2O)6]
3–
(4) [CrF6]

8) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
(Oxoacids of Sulphur) (Bonds)

A. Peroxodisulphuric acid I. Two S–OH, Four S = O, One S–O–S

B. Sulphuric acid II. Two S–OH, One S = O

C. Pyrosulphuric acid III. Two S–OH, Four S = O, One S–O–O–S

D. Sulphurous acid IV. Two S–OH, Two S=O

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

9) Select the correct statement(s) about following reaction,

(1) It is termed as β-elimination reaction

(2) is a Bronsted-base
(3) Products are 1-butene and but-2-ene
(4) All of the above are correct statements

10) In a reaction of aniline, a coloured product ‘C’ was obtained the structure of ‘C’ would be :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The major product of the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
12) Match the type of mixture of compounds in Column I with the technique of
separation/purification given in Column II.

Column-I Column-II
Two solids which have different solubilities in a
(A) solvent and which do not undergo reaction when (1) Fractional distillation
dissolved in it
(B) Liquid that decomposes at its boiling point (2) Simple distillation
Two liquids which have boiling points close to
(C) (3) Distillation under reduced pressure
each other
(D) Two liquids with large difference in boiling points. (4) Crystallisation
(1) A→4, B→3, C→1, D→2
(2) A→4, B→3, C→1, D→2
(3) A→3, B→1, C→4, D→2
(4) A→3, B→4, C→2, D→1

13) Which of the following structure has D-configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) In the reaction,

Which of the following compounds will be formed ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Total number of optically active compounds from the following is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 6

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1)

Select the incorrect statement among them :-

Joseph Priestley performed a series of experiments that revealed the essential role of air in the
(1)
growth of green plants.
(2) T.W Engelmann used Cladophora in his experiment.
(3) In green plants during photosynthesis hydrogen donor is HO2.
(4) All photosynthetic organism release oxygen gas during photosynthesis.

2) When photorespiration took place in plant at this time :-

(1) Plant respires in presence of sunlight.

(2) Two molecule of 3PGA is formed.
(3) One molecule of 3PGA is formed.
(4) One molecule of RuBp is formed.

3) Among them how many are part of Cyclic pathway of light reaction :-
FRS, NADH, CytochromeB6f, Fd, PQ, FNR enzyme

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All

4) Assertion : Oxidized ubiquinone called ubiquinol transfer electron to Cytochrome c via

cytochrome bc1.
Reason : Redox potential of cytochrome b is lower then the Ubiquinol.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Only Assertion is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

5) Select the incorrect statement among them :-

(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase converts pyruvic acid to Acetyl Co-A.

(2) Last step of glycolysis is irreversible.
(3) Naturally fermented beverages has alcohol concentration 50%.
(4) α-ketoglutaric acid has five carbon.

6)
In the above diagram find the A, B, C, D respectively and select the correct answer :-

A B C D

Phosphoenol
(1) Lactic Acid Ethanol + CO2 Pyruvic Acid
pyruvic acid

Phosphoenol
(2) Lactic Acid Ethanol + CO2 Pyruvic Acid
pyruvic acid

Phosphoenol
(3) Pyruvic Acid Lactic Acid Ethanol + CO2
pyruvic acid

Phosphoenol
(4) Ethanol + CO2 Lactic Acid Pyruvic Acid
pyruvic acid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Statement-I : Respiration is amphibolic pathway ,because it involved in both anabolism and

catabolism.
Statement-II : Carbohydrate directly enter into respiratory pathway without changing into simple
form.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

8)
This diagram support the which statement among them.

It is plasticity which represents the different response of plant regarding to environment or

(1)
phases of life.
(2) It shows the effect of auxin.
(3) It is an experiment of F. Skoog and his co-worker.
(4) It is due to change in respiration condition from aerobic to anaerobic condition.

9) Assertion : ABA is also known as Zeatin.

Reason : ABA stimulates the closure of stomata and increases the tolerance of plants to various
kinds of stresses.
 Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) is not correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is incorrect and Reason (R) is correct.
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect.

10) Statement-I : Calyx and corolla are accessory organs while androecium and gynoecium are
reproductive organs.
Statement-II : The flower is the reproductive unit in both gymnosperms and angiosperms.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

11) Statement I : Leaves are arranged in an acropetal order.

Statement II : In cymose type of inflorescence the main axis do not terminates in a flower.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct

12) Bud is present in axil of petiole in

(1) Compound leaf and leaflet

(2) Simple and compound leaf
(3) Simple leaf and leaflet
(4) Leaflet, simple and compound leaf

13) Stele excludes :-

(1) Pericycle
(2) Vascular bundle
(3) Pith
(4) Endodermis

14) Select the mismatched pair :

(1) Root hair – unicellular

(2) Stem hair – multicellular
(3) Trichomes – cause water loss
(4) Guard cells – Regulate opening and closing of stomata

15) Exarch and polyarch vascular bundle is characteristic feature of :-

(1) Dicot stem
(2) Dicot root
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Monocot root

16) Statement I : Simple lipids are also called fats or oils on the basis of their boiling point.
Statement II : Neural tissues have lipids with more complex structure like lecithin.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

17) Hydrolases catalyse all the given bonds except :-

(1) Ether
(2) Peptide
(3) C–C
(4) H-bond

18)
Which of the following statement regarding the structure is true ?
(a) A nucleic acid containing 'X' is called DNA.
(b) A nucleic acid containing 'X' is called RNA.
(c) 'X' is a five carbon sugar.
(d) 'X' is a heterocyclic compound in nucleic acid called as nitrogenous base.

(1) a and c
(2) b and c
(3) a and d
(4) b and d

19) Statement-1 : In meiosis, DNA replication occurs once whereas nuclear division occurs twice.
Statement-2 : Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
chromosomes.

(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are false.

(2) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true.
(3) Statement-1 is true but statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 and statement-2 both are true.

20) Consider the following statements (A to D) each with one or two blanks.
(A) ______ (I) ______ is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.
(B) In oocytes of some vertebrates, ______ (II) ______ can last for months or years.
(C) During anaphase, the ______ (III) ______ divide and the ______ (IV) ______ start moving towards the
two opposite poles.
(D) In animal cells, during the S-phase ______ (V) ______ replication begins in the nucleus and ______
(VI) ______ duplicates in the cytoplasm.
Which one of the following options gives the correct fill ups for the respective blank numbers from
(I) to (VI) in the statement?

(1) (I)–Prophase, (V)–Centriole, (VI)–DNA

(2) (I)–Telophase, (V)–Centriole, (VI)–DNA
(3) (II)–Diplotene, (IV)–Chromatids, (VI)–Centriole
(4) (I)–Prophase, (IV)–Chromosome, (V)–Centriole

21) Statement-I : The grana of the chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of
carbohydrates and proteins.
Statement-II : The ribosomes of the chloroplasts are larger than the cytoplasmic ribosomes.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement-I is correct
(4) Only Statement-II is correct

22)

Read the following statements :

(i) ER divides the intercellular space into two distinct compartments, i.e., luminal (inside ER) and
extraluminal (cytoplasm) compartments. (ii) SER is extensive and continuous with the outer
membrane of the nucleus.
(iii) Fixed number of cisternae are present in Golgi complex.
(iv) The cis and trans faces of Golgi are entirely different but interconnected. How many of the above
statements are incorrect ?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

23) Which of the following is not a function of mitochondria?

(1) Oxidative phosphorylation

(2) Light reaction
(3) Generation of ATP
(4) Produce cellular energy
24) Find the correct labelling ?

A B C D E F

Cell Golgi
(1) Lysosome SER Nucleus Cytoplasm
wall complex

(2) Lysosome RER Nucleus Cell wall Vacuole Cytoplasm

Cell
(3) Lysosome RER Vacuole Nucleus Cytoplasm
wall

Cell
(4) Mitochondria SER Nucleus Vacuole Peroxisome
wall
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Most of the bacteria are :-

(1) Autotrophs
(2) Chemoautotrophs
(3) Heterotroph
(4) Parasites

26) Which of the following are autotrophs?

(1) Photosynthetic bacteria

(2) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(3) Animals
(4) Both (1) and (2)

27) Protista includes :-

(1) Unicellular prokaryotes

(2) Unicellular eukaryotes
(3) Bacteriophages
(4) B.G.A.
28) Members of Protista are primarily :-

(1) Parasites
(2) Terrestrial
(3) Aquatic
(4) Photosynthetic

29) Chief producers in ocean are :-

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Diatoms
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Green algae

30) Many fungi are _________ associating with photosynthetic organisms to form mycorrhizae or
lichens :-

(1) Parasitic
(2) Symbiotic
(3) Photosynthetic
(4) Saprobic

31) Oogamy is seen in :-

(1) Volvox
(2) Fucus
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Spirogyra

32) Pyrenoids are present in _________ in most of the green algae :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) In cytosol
(4) In nucleus

33) Which is the prominent phase in the life cycle of bryophytes :-

(1) Gametophyte
(2) Sporophyte
(3) Seta
(4) Sporogonium

34) Which statement is incorrect in relation to Linnaeus?

(1) He regarded as father of taxonomy.

(2) He is also known as father of biology.
(3) His system of classification is called artificial system
(4) He wrote famous book Systema Naturae

35) The number of species that are known and described range between :-

(1) 2.7 to 2.8 Million

(2) 1.7 to 1.8 Million
(3) 2.7 to 2.8 Billion
(4) 1.7 to 1.8 Billion

SECTION-B

1)

Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column-I Column-II

(i) Internal Factor depends upon (a) 10% of full sunlight

(ii) Light saturation (b) CO2 Availability reduces

(iii) C4 plants show saturation at (c) Genetic predisposition

(iv) Water stress (d) 360 μlL–1

(e) 450 μlL–1

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
(2) i-c, ii-a, iii-e, iv-b
(3) i-c ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
(4) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

2) Statement-I : ATP is synthesised directly form from the light reaction during photosynthesis.
Statement-II : Accessory pigments protect the chlorophyll a from the photo oxidation.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

3) How many net gain of ATP from aerobic respiration of Acetyl CoA .

(1) 36
(2) 38
(3) 24
(4) 12
4) Among them which effects are due to auxin activity within plant.
(I) It helps to initiate rooting in stem cuttings.
(II) Promote flowering in pineapple.
(III) Auxins induce parthenocarpy.
(IV) Control Xylem differentiation.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) Identify "x" and "y" figures

(1) x-Hypogynous flower, y- Perigynous flower

(2) x- Epigynous flower, y- Hypogynous flower
(3) x-Epigynous flower, y- Perigynous flower
(4) x-Perigynous flower, y- Hypogynous flower

6) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- Endodermis of dicot stem also reffered to as the starch sheath.
Statement-II :- The cells of the endodermis of dicot stem are rich in starch grains.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

7) Given below is the diagram of the transverse section of leaf. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and
D and select the right option about them: -

(1) A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Spongy tissue, C – Palisade, D – Abaxial Epidermis

(2) A – Abaxial epidermis, B – Palisade tissue, C – Spongy tissue, D – Adaxial epidermis
(3) A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Palisade tissue, C – Spongy tissue, D – Abaxial epidermis
(4) A – Abaxial epidermis, B – Spongy tissue, C – Palisade tissue, D – Adaxial epidermis

8) Assertion : The reaction ultimately reaches a maximum velocity which is not exceeded by any
further rise in concentration of substrate.
Reason : Before saturation of the enzyme molecule, there are no free enzyme molecule to bind with
the additional substrate molecules.

(1) Both assertion and reason are false.

(2) Both assertion and reason are correct, reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Assertion is true but reason is false.

9) Given figure represents :-

(1) Metaphase of animal cell

(2) Metaphase of plant cell
(3) Telophase of animal cell
(4) Anaphase of animal cell

10) Study the section of cilia/flagella it shows the different parts :-

In which of the following options all the four blanks A, B, C and

D are correctly identified :-

(1) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Hub, D – Arm

(2) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Hub, D – Radial spoke
(3) A – Plasma membrane, B – Arm, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke
(4) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke

11) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : The prokaryotic bacteria also possess flagella but these are structurally different
from that of the eukaryotic flagella.
Statement II : Flagella is made up of nine evenly spaced peripheral triplet fibrils of tubulin protein.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

12) The major pigments in green algae are ______ and ______; and stored food is _______ :-

(1) Chl a, Chl d, Starch

(2) Chl a, Chl c, Floridean starch
(3) Chl a, Chl b, Starch
(4) Chl a, Chl c, mannitol

13) Sphagnum is also called peat moss because :-

(1) It grows in acidic marshes (bog) and helps in peat formation

(2) It is found in peat
(3) It decays to form peat
(4) It fossilized quickly

14) When we move from Triticum to plantae in taxonomic hierarchy the :-

(I) Specificity ___A___.
(II) Common characters ___B___.
(III) General characters ___C___.

(1) A-Decrease, B-Decrease, C-Increase

(2) A-Increase, B-Increase, C-Decrease
(3) A-Increase, B-Decrease, C-Decrease
(4) A-Decrease, B-Increase, C-Increase

15) Laminarin and Mannitol, reserve food in brown algae are :-

(1) Lipids
(2) Complex Carbohydrate
(3) Proteins
(4) Lipoprotein

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Statement-I : The dorsal, flat, triangular body of scapula has a slightly elevated ridge called the
spine which projects as a flat, expanded process called the acromion.
Statement-II : Force generated by the joints is used to carry out movement through muscles,
where muscles act as fulcrum.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

2)

Match the following column and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Saddle joint (i) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

(b) Pivot joint (ii) Between the carpals

(c) Gliding joint (iii) Between atlas and axis

(d) Hinge joint (iv) Knee joint

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)

3)

How many among the following are not the disorders of muscular system.
(i) Arthritis
(ii) Tetany
(iii) Myasthenia gravis
(iv) Gout
(v) Muscular dystrophy

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

4) Statement-I : The portion of the myofibril between two successive ‘Z’ lines is considered as
anatomical unit of muscle.
Statement-II : In the resting state a subunit of troponin masks the active binding sites for myosin
on the actin filaments.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

5) Thoracic chamber is formed :-

Ventrally by vertebral column, dorsally by sternum, laterally by ribs and diaphragm on lower
(1)
side.
Dorsally by vertebral column, ventrally by sternum, laterally by ribs and diaphragm on lower
(2)
side.
(3) Dorsally by vertebral column, ventrally by sternum, laterally by ribs and diaphragm.
Dorsally by vertebral column, laterally by sternum, ventrally by ribs and diaphragm on lower
(4)
side.

6)

Match the following column and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Tidal volume (i) 1000-1100ml

(b) Expiratory reserve volume (ii) 2500-3000ml

(c) Residual volume (iii) 500-550 ml

(d) Inspiratory reserve volume (iv) 1100-1200ml

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)

7)

Identify X, Y and Z in the given table :-

Respiratory Atmospheric Blood Blood

Alveoli Tissues
gas ​gas (Deoxygenated) (OXYGENATED)

O2 159 104 40 Y 40

CO2 X 40 45 40 Z
(1) X = 0.5, Y = 95, Z = 45
(2) X = 0.3, Y = 95, Z = 45
(3) X = 0.3, Y = 40, Z = 45
(4) X = 0.5, Y = 40, Z = 40

8)

Identify the disorder related to respiratory system on the basis of following :-

(I) Alveolar walls are damaged.
(II) Respiratory surface is decreased.
(III) It is chronic disorder.
(IV) Major cause is cigarette smoking.

(1) Asthma
(2) Bronchitis
(3) Emphysema
(4) Fibrosis

9)

Choose the correct option for X, Y and Z :-

Blood Antigen on Antibody in Donor’s

group RBCs plasma Group

A A Anti-B X

B B Anti-X B, O

AB Y NIL AB, A, B, O

O Z Anti-A, B O
(1) X–A, O; Y–A, B; Z–nil
(2) X–A,B; Y–nil; Z–nil
(3) X–B, O; Y–nil; Z–A, B
(4) X–A,B; Y–anti A; Z–A,B,AB

10)

Match the following column and select the most appropriate option :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Atrial systole (i) Bicuspid and tricuspid valve are open

(b) Joint diastole (ii) Coincide with ventricular systole

(c) Atrial diastole (iii) Blood flow in the ventricles increased by 30%

(d) Ventricular diastole (iv) Closure of semilunar valves

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)

11) Assertion : Sino-atrial node is called the pacemaker of heart.

Reason : S.A. node generates the maximum number of action potentials per minute and therefore, it
sets the pace of the activities of heart.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

12) Atria receives _________.

(1) Oxygenated blood

(2) Venous blood
(3) Arterial blood
(4) Deoxygenated blood

13) Assertion : Cerebrum is divided into two cerebral hemispheres.

Reason : Corpus callosum is tract of nerve fibres which connect different regions of brain.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Both assertion and reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but reason is false.

14) The new potential developed on post synaptic membrane is :-

(1) Excitatory
(2) Inhibitory
(3) Both excitatory and inhibitory
(4) May be either excitatory or inhibitory

15) Resting membrane of axon is :-

(1) Unpolarised
(2) polarized with more permeability to K+ ions.
(3) unpolarized with more permeability to K+ ions
(4) polarized with more permeable to Na+ ions.

16) Corpora quadrigemia are four round lobes on the ___________ portion of midbrain.

(1) Dorsal
(2) anterior
(3) ventral
(4) anterio-dorso

17) Assertion : Thyrocalcitonin and parathormone are antagonistic in nature. Reason :

Thyrocalcitonin increases Ca2+ and parathormone decreases calcium levels in blood.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
18)

Match the following column and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) MSH (i) Pineal gland

(b) Melatonin (ii) Adrenal medulla

(c) Insulin (iii) Pars intermedia

(d) Catecholamines (iv) Beta cells of islets of Langerhans

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(4) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)

19) Identify the following in given figure :-

(1) X - Thyroid and parathyroid, Y - Thymus, Z - Adrenal

(2) X - Thymus, Y - Thyroid, Z - Pancreas
(3) X - Thyroid and parathyroid, Y - Thymus, Z - Pancreas
(4) X - Pineal , Y - Thymus, Z - Adrenal

20) Read the following statements and answer the question.

(i) They are exclusively marine, radially symmetrical.
(ii) Bioluminescence is well marked.
(iii) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.
(iv) Reproduction takes place only by sexual means.
Which of the following option is being correctly described by above statements?

(1) Flatworms
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Mollusca
(4) Comb jellies

21) Match the phylum given in column-I with their example given in column-II and choose the
correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A Echinodermata I Ascidia, Doliolum

B Hemichordata II Antedon, Ophiura

C Urochordata III Amphioxus

D Cephalochordata IV Balanoglossus, Saccoglossus

(1) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(2) A – II; B – IV; C – I; D – III
(3) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
(4) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III

22) Identify the figures and select the correct option.

(1) A-Coelomate; B-Acoelomate; C-Eucoelomate

(2) A-Pseudocoelomate; B-Coelomate, C-Acoelomate
(3) A-Coelomate, B-Pseudocoelomate, C-Acoelomate
(4) A-Coelomate; B-Acoelomate; C–Pseudocoelomate

23) Which of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated
against them?

(1) Macropus and Ornithorhyncus - Viviparity

(2) Calotes and crocodile - Three chambered heart
(3) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation
(4) Pterophyllum and clarias - Cold blooded

24) Read the following statements.

(i) It is a contractile tissue present only in the heart.
(ii) Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of these cells and make them stick together.
(iii) Communication juntions at some fusion points allow the cells to contract as a unit.
Which of the following type of tissue is being described by the above statements?

(1) Skeletal muscle

(2) Cardiac muscle
(3) Smooth muscle
(4) Bone

25) A student was given a specimen to identify on the basis of the characteristics given below.
(i) Body is covered by skin.
(ii) it exhibit sexual dimorphism.
(iii) Vasa efferentia enter the kidneys on their side and open into Bidder’s canal.
Identify the specimen.

(1) Frog
(2) Both (a) and (c)
(3) Cockroach
(4) None of these

26) The given figure shows the digestive system of cockroach with few structures marked as A, B, C
and D.

Identify the structures with its incorrect function -

(1) D- Malpighian tubules help in removal of excretory products from haemolymph.

(2) A- crop used for storing of food.
(3) B-Gizzard helps in grinding the food particles.
(4) C-Hepatic or gastric caeca , which secrete pancreatic juice only

27) Which of the following statement is correct regarding vacuole?

(1) It is membrane-bound and contains storage of proteins and lipids.

(2) It is membrane-bound and contains water ,sap and excretory product.
(3) It lacks membrane and contains air.
(4) It lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances.

28) Which of the following is not the function of cell wall?

(i) Provides only shape to the cell.
(ii) Protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection.
(iii) Helps in cell to cell interaction.
(iv) Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules.

(1) Only (i)

(2) Only (iv)
(3) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) None of the above

29) Match column-I (scientists) with column-II (discovery) and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A Leeuwenhoek I First saw and described a living cell

B Robert Brown II Presence of cell wall is unique to plant cells

C Schleiden III Discovered the nucleus

D Schwann IV All plants are composed of different kind of cells

(1) A–I; B–III; C–IV; D–II
(2) A–I; B–III; C–II; D–IV
(3) A–III; B–I; C–IV; D–II
(4) A–I; B–IV; C–II; D–III

30) Which of the following option correctly match A, B, C, and D indicated in the given sectional
view of chloroplasts.

(1) A-Thylakoid, B-Stromal lamella, C-Stroma, D-Granum

(2) A-Granum, B-Thylakoid, C-Stromal lamella, D-Stroma
(3) A-Thylakoid, B-Granum, C-Stromal lamella, D-Stroma
(4) A-Granum, B-Thylakoid, C-Stroma, D-Stromal lamella

31) Which one is correct about crossing over/genetic recombination?

(i) It occurs in tetrad stage which occurs in pachytene of prophase I of meiosis I.
(ii) It occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
(iii) It is recombinase enzyme mediated process.
(iv) It is also the reciprocal transfer of genes between the non-homologous chromosomes.

(1) All of the above

(2) All except (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

32) Find the correctly matched pairs and choose the correct option.
A. Zygotene – Pairing of homologouschromosomes.
B. Pachytene – Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex takes place.
C. Diplotene – Bivalent chromosomes appear as tetrads.
D. Diakinesis – Terminalization of chiasmata takes place.

(1) A and C
(2) A and D
(3) A and B
(4) B and C

33) Which of the following is correctly matched with its function of a specific part of a human
nephron?

(1) Afferent arteriole – Carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein.
Basement membrane – Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the
(2)
Bowman’s capsule.
(3) Henle’s loop – Reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate.
(4) Distal convoluted tubule – Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries.

34) Which is the correct order for the path taken by urine after it leaves the kidney?

(1) I → II → III
(2) III → I → II
(3) II → III → I
(4) II → I → III

35) Match the disorders given in column-I with their feature given in column-II and choose the
correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(Disorders) (Feature)

A Uremia I Excess of protein in urine

B Hematuria II Presence of high ketone bodies in urine

C Ketonuria III Presence of blood cells in urine

D Glycosuria IV Presence of glucose in urine

E Proteinuria V Excess of urea in blood

(1) A-V; B-III; C-II; D-IV; E-I
(2) A-IV; B-V; C-III; D-II; E-I
(3) A-V; B-III; C-IV; D-II; E-I
(4) A-III; B-V; C-II; D-I; E-IV

SECTION-B

1) X bone is formed by the fusion of three bones and it constitutes the pelvic girdle. At the point of
fusion of above bones is Y cavity to which thigh bone articulates.

(1) Coxal bones and Acetabulum cavity respectively.

(2) Coxal bone and glenoid cavity respectively.
(3) Scapula and glenoid cavity respectively.
(4) Scapula and acetabulum cavity respectively.

2)

How many among the following statements are incorrect about skeletal system.
(i) The facial region is made up of 16 skeletal elements which form the front part of skull.
(ii) A single U shaped bone is present at the base of buccal cavity.
(iii) Sacral and coccygeal are the fused vertebrae.
(iv) False ribs are also called vertebrosternal ribs.
(v) Osteoporosis, gout and tetany are the disorders related to skeletal system.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

3)

Read the following statements with respect to given figure.

(A) X is muscle bundle held by a common collagenous tissue layer.
(B) X is muscle fibre which is a syncitium.
(C) Y is sarcolemma enclosing sarcoplasm.
(D) X is fascicles held by fascia.

(1) A, C and D are correct.

(2) A and C are only correct.
(3) C and D are only correct.
(4) B and C are only correct.

4)

Which of the following statement is incorrect.

(1) pO2 is the major factor which affects the binding of CO2 with haemoglobin.
(2) pCO2 is low and pO2 is high as in the tissues, more binding of CO2 with Hb occur.
RBC contains a very high conc. of carbonic anhydrase and minute quantities of the same in the
(3)
plasma.
(4) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

5) ___________ is the volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute.

(1) Stroke volume

(2) Cardiac output
(3) End diastolic volume
(4) End systolic volume

6) A disease which affects the vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle leads to narrower
lumens of arteries.

(1) Coronary artery disease

(2) Atherosclerosis
(3) Angina
(4) Both (1) and (2)

7) Read the following statements with respect to given figure.

(A) X is cerebellum and is major coordinating centre for sensory and motor impulses.
(B) Y is responsible for interconnecting different regions of brain.
(C) Z controls cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions.
(D) Dorsal portion of Y consists of four round swellings called corpora quadrigemina.

(1) A, C and D are correct

(2) A and C are correct
(3) C and D are correct
(4) B and C are correct

8) How many of the following hormones stimulates RBC production.

Erythropoietin, Cortisol, Thyroxine, Vasopressin, Collip’s hormone, Aldosterone

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

9) X is a disorder associated with loss of glucose through urine and formation of ketone bodies.
Y is a condition caused by reduced ability of kidney to conserve water from body as a result of
hyposecretion of ADH hormone.

(1) X - Diabetes insipidus, Y - Diabetes mellitus

(2) X - Diabetes mellitus, Y - Diabetes insipidus
(3) X - Addison’s disease, Y - Diabetes mellitus
(4) X - Diabetes insipidus, Y - Hypoglycemia

10) Refer the following statement and answer the question. 'Name of "X" is derived from stinging
capsules. It exhibits metagenesis containing two body forms in which sessile and cylindrical form is
called "Y" and umbrella shaped and free swimming is called "Z". Identify X, Y, and Z

Z Y X

(1) Medusa Polyp Cnidaria

(2) Polyp Medusa Coelenterate

(3) Hypostome Radula Ctenophora

 (4) Radula Osculum Porifera
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Match column-I (type of epithelium) with column-II(Description) and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(Type of epithelium) (Description)

A Squamous epithelium I It is composed of a single-layer of cube-like cells

B Cuboidal epithelium surface II Having cilia on their free

C Columnar III It is composed of a single epithelium layer of tall and slender cells

It is made up of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular

D Ciliated Epithelium IV
boundaries

(1) A–IV; B–I; C–III; D–II

(2) A–I; B–IV; C–III; D–II
(3) A–IV; B–I; C–II; D–III
(4) A–IV; B–III; C–I; D–II

12) Assertion : The system for control and coordination is highly evolved in the frog.
Reason : Nervous system is organised into central, peripheral and autonomic.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

13) Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) The endomembrane system includes plasma membrane, ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes and
vacuoles.
(ii) ER helps in the transport of substances, synthesis of proteins, lipoproteins and glycogen.
(iii) Ribosomes are involved in protein synthesis.
(iv) Mitochondria help in oxidative phosphorylation and generation of ATP.

(1) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

(2) (i) only
(3) (ii) only
(4) (iii) only

14) A stage of mitosis is shown in the given diagram. Identify stage with its characteristics?
(1) Late prophase – Chromosomes move to spindleequator.
Metaphase – Spindle fibres attached to kinetochores, centromeres split and chromatids
(2)
separate.
Metaphase – chromosomes are moved to spindle equator and get aligned along metaphase plate
(3)
through spindle fibres to both poles.
(4) Anaphase – centromeres split and chromatids separate and start moving away.

15) Select the correct match of the types of neuron present in column-I with its location given in
column-II.

Column-I Column-II

A Fall in GFR I Activate the JG cells to release renin

B Angiotensin II II Increases the glomerular blood pressure and thereby GFR

Carries out the conversion of angiotensinogen in the liver to

C Renin III
angiotensin I

Causes reabsorption of Na+ and water from the distal parts

D Aldosterone IV of the tubule. This also leads to an increase in blood
pressure and GFR.

Activate osmoreceptors which stimulate hypothalamus to

V
release ADH.
(1) A–I; B–II; C–III; D–V
(2) A–III; B–V; C–II; D–I
(3) A–III; B–I; C–IV; D–IV
(4) A–V; B–IV; C–III; D–II
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 3 2 2 2 4 3 2 4 4 2 3 4 3 2 1 3 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 4 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 4 3 1 2 2 3 2 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 1 2 3 4 1 2 1 1 4 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 2 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 3 3 1 3 2 2 3 2 4 2 1 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 4 4 2 2 1 4 1 4 2 4 1 2 1 2

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 3 4 3 1 3 1 3 2 2 2 4 3 4 3 4 2 3 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 2 2 3 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 4 4 3 4 3 4 1 4 2 3 1 1 2

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 3 1 2 4 4 2 1 4 2 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 3 4 2 1 4 2 3 1 2 2 2 1 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 2 2 1 1 2 1 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

If two vectros A and B are given then range of their resultant can be written as (A – B) ≤ R ≤
(A + B)
i.e. , Rmax = A + B and Rmin = A – B.

2) % error in a2b1/2

= 2(a%) + = 2(3%) + (16%) = 14%

3) From diagram (i) zero error

= +[2.00 mm + 20(0.01 mm)] = +2.20 mm
From diagram (ii)
Reading = 8.00 mm + 0.01(70) = 8.70 mm
But true reading of diameter of sphere is
= 8.70 mm – 2.20 mm
D = 6.50 mm

4) At any instant velocity and speed will be equal.

5) Average speed of a boy = =

= = km/h

6) Area under a-t graph = change in velocity

× 8 × 10 = – 0 or = 40 m/s

7) t = = = 0.5 hr = 30 min.

9) The accelerating force on the rocket

= upward thrust =

Given, = 50 × 10–3 kgs–1 , = 400 ms–1

So, accelerating force = 50 × 10–3 × 400 = 20 N
10)

11) W =
0= .
12 – 6 – 3x = 0
x=2

12)

vsin45° = V'sinθ .......... (1)

evcos45° = V'cosθ ............(2)
By (1) & (2)

13)

2u = ...(1)

e= ...(2)

v=

2u =
m = 1.2 kg

14)

mgvg = mbvb
15) ω = 60°/s = ν = rω = (3.5)

16) ⇒ ⇒

so P = mv

17)

ωf = ωi + αt

= + [10 × (2)]
= 2 + 20 = 22 rad/s

18) mA = (σ.πr2.t)
mB = σ.π (2r)2 (t/2) = (σ2πr2t)
m B > mA
RB > RA
so, IB > IA

19)

θ=ωt+
0

ω = ω0 + αt
80 = α × 5
α = 16 rad/s2

θ=
θ = 200 rad

20)

If current in all wire are same, then magnetic field at centre will be zero.

21) Length PS = {r = radius of circular part of loop}

FPS = iℓB =
length PQR = 2 r
 FPQR =

22)

Theoretical

23)

Theoretical

24)
= 2 – 1 = 1A

= μo

25)

Angle between normal to the plane of the coil and direction of magnetic field is θ = 60o

∴ Flux linked with coil ϕ = BA cosθ = 4.0 × 0.5 × cos 60o ⇒ ϕ = 1 weber

26) The direction of current in the solenoid is anti-clockwise as seen by observer. On

displacing it towards the loop a current in the loop will be induced in a direction so as to
oppose the approach of solenoid. Therefore the direction of induced current as observed by

the observer will be clockwise.

27) ϕ = ϕ0cosθ

28)

When distance decreases by 1m, separation between charges becomes 3m

Work done in this process

W = Uf – Ui = 27 × 109 – 13.5 × 109
⇒ W = 13.5 × 109 J
29) , ,
At (1,1,0) ⇒ Ex = ⇒

30)

31) V ⇒ 1 : 1 : 1......
W ⇒ 1 : 3 : 5......

32)

Capacitance of parallel plate capacitor

33)

It can be simplified as Ceq = = 2μF

Charge flow through the battery = 30 × 2μC
Q = 60μC
Now charge on 3μF = Charge on 6μF= 60μC

34)

As H and V are same

∴t∝R

⇒
35)

36) = p f – pi = = Area under the curve.

Pi = 0
Net area = 16 – 2 – 1 = 13 N-s

Vf = = 6.5 i m/s

37) Fapp < fL

∴ force of friction fr = mg = 0.2 × 10 = 2N

38) At the instant of maximum compression the speed of the 40 g mass reduces to zero. Taking
the gravitational potential energy to tbe zero at the horizontal part, the conservation of energy
shows.

mgh = kx2
where m = 0.04 kg, h = 4.9 m, k = 400 N/m
and x is the maximum compression.

Thus, x = = = 9.8 cm

39) Wext = ΔPE = =

40)

41)
Loss in K.E. = Gain in P.E.
q – V2 = 10 (0.5)
⇒ V = 2 m/s

42)

Moment of inertia of the rod about a perpendicular axis PQ passing through the centre of the
mass C,

Let N be the point which divides the length of the rod AB in ratio 1 : 3. This point will be at a

distance from C. Thus, the moment of inertia I' about an axis parallel to PQ and passing
through the point N.

If K be the radius of gyration, then

43)
By ampere's law

0
= µ Iin
where

0
So, B(2πr) = µ

⇒
⇒

44) By using

and it’s time period

45) As we know that field due to a charged ring is maximum at x = from the centre on its
axis, so potential at these points will be –

46) As battery is disconnected, charge remains constant in the work process.

Work done = final potential energy – initial potential energy

Where, Q = CV =

C=

Now, work done =

47) C =

48)

... (i)

... (ii)
By (i) / (ii)
 49) For ideal voltmeter :

When voltmeter of 98 Ω is used to measure emf:

Reading = E – ir ⇒ error = ir

Error =

⇒ % error =

50)

…(1)

On inter changing

⇒ …(2)

Using (1) and (2) we get

(given)

CHEMISTRY
51)

= 1 × 10–4 mol L–1 sec–1

52) According to Arrhenius equation.

when lnek is plotted against we get straight line of slope

Ea = 5 × 103 × 8.314
= 41570 J mol–1 = 41.5 kJ mol–1

53)

54) Alum [K2SO4.Al2(SO4).24H2O] will have highest osmotic pressure because, its van't Hoff
factor will be highest.

55) p = pA + pB

= 60 + 40 = 100 torr
yB = mole fraction of B in the vapour phase

yB

56)

w = 6.36 g

57)
= 280 × 10–4 + 2 × 248 × 10–4 – 2 × 126 × 10–4
= 524 × 10–4 S m2 mol–1

58) Greater is the negative value of standard reduction potential stronger is the reducing
power.

59) Methyl orange

Strong acid react with weak base resulting in acidic solution leading to a pH less than 7 and
working pH range of methyl orange is between 3.1–4.4

60) KMnO4 + FeSO4 + H2SO4

↓
K2SO4 + MnSO4 + Fe2(SO4)3 + H2O

61)

62)

According to IUPAC

63)

Spin-only magnetic moment.

64)

Strongest oxidizing agent have highest reduction potential value.

= 1.51 V (highest)

65) Interstitial compounds are inert, i.e., they are chemically non-reactive.

66)

RSiCl3
Explanation: Alkyl chlorosilane is hydrolyzed to form silicones.

67)
Diamond :- → sp3 hybridised carbon atom
→ Covalent solid
→ 3–D structure
→ Cannot be used as dry lubricant
Graphite : → sp2 hybridised carbon atom
→ Covalent solid
→ 3-D structure
→ Used as dry lubricant

71)

72)

73)
This reaction indicates the presence of —CHO group in glucose.

74)

75) 5’ and 3’

76) Thymine is not present in RNA.

77)

78)

79)

80) Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 to decompose Na2S and NaCN formed before
testing halogens. The ions would otherwise interfere with silver nitrate test for halogens.
81) Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for the estimation of nitro and azo compounds and other
compounds containing nitrogen in the ring (like pyridine) because these compounds cannot be
converted into (NH4)SO4 during reaction.

82) Partition chromatography is based on continuous differential partitioning of components of

a mixture between stationary and mobile phases. Paper chromatography is a type of partition
chromatography.

83)

84)

85)

Molecule is unsymmetrical
O.I. = 2n
= 23 = 8

86)

Time taken to reduce the concentration from 0.9 mol to 0.225 mol may be calculated as

87) where n = order of reaction

n = 1 first order : t1/2 = (constant)

(Independent of initial concentration of reactant)

n = 2 second order :
(Dependent on initial concentration of reactant)
88)

MB = 62

89) = –0.42 – (– 0.72) = +0.30 V

2Cr(s) + 3Fe2+ (0.01M) ⇌ 2Cr3+ (0.1M) + 3Fe(s)

Q= = 104
According to Nernst equation,

E = E° – log10 Q

= 0.30 – log104 (∵ n = 6)
= 0.261 V

90) In acidic medium

∴ nf = 5

∴ given weight = 0.1 × 0.5 × = 1.58 g

91)

Zero magnetic moment means zero number of unpaired e–.

Ni+4 : d6 → (low spin complex)

92)

Absorption of light depend on the strength of ligand.

Strength of ligand(↑), Ea(absorbed energy)↑, λa(↓)
93)

95)

96) Ether undergo cleavages on reaction with HBr and addition of HBr takes place on alkene
according to markownikoff’s rule.

98)

99)
 100)

BIOLOGY-I

101)

NCERT-XI, Page # 134,135

102) NCERT-XI, Page # 148

103) NCERT-XI, Page # 140,141

104)

NCERT-XI, Page # 160

105) NCERT-XI, Page # 156-158

106) NCERT-XI, Page # 157

107) NCERT-XI, Page # 138

108) NCERT-XI, Page # 173

109) NCERT-XI, Page # 177

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 72

114) NCERT XI, Pg # 88,89

115) NCERT XI Pg. # 91

116)

NCERT XI, Page # 106

117) NCERT XI, Page # 117

118) NCERT XI, Page # 111,107

119)

NCERT XI Page # 125,126

121) NCERT XI Pg # 98

122)

NCERT-XI, Page 95-96

123)

NCERT-XI, Page 97,102

124) NCERT XIth Page No. 92

136)

NCERT-XI, Page # 150,151

137)

NCERT-XI, Page # 138

138) NCERT-XI, Page # 161

139) NCERT-XI, Page # 175-176

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75

142) NCERT - Pg. # 94

143) NCERT XI, Page # 116

144)

NCERT Pg. # 165

 145)

Ncert Page 99.

146)

NCERT-XI, Page # 99

BIOLOGY-II

151)

NCERT-XI, Page # 226-227

152)

NCERT-XI, Page # 227

153)

NCERT-XI, Page # 227

154)

NCERT-XI, Page # 221

155) NCERT-XI, Page # 185

156)

NCERT-XI, Page # 186-187

157)

NCERT-XI, Page # 187

158)

NCERT-XI, Page # 190

159)

NCERT-XI, Page # 195

160)

NCERT-XI, Page # 199

161)

NCERT-XI, Page # 203

162) NCERT-XI, Page # 200

163)

NCERT-XI, Page # 236

164) NCERT-XI, Page # 235

165) NCERT-XI, Page # 232

166) NCERT-XI, Page # 236

167)

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168)

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169) NCERT-XI, Page # 240

170) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 51

171) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 54,55

172) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 48

173) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 57

174) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 105

175) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 116,119

176) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 113

178) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

179) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 87,88

180) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 98

181) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

182) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 126

183) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 208

184) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 206

185) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 213,214

186) NCERT-XI, Page # 226

187)

NCERT-XI, Page # 224, 225, 227

188)

NCERT-XI, Page # 219

189)

NCERT-XI, Page # 189,190

190) NCERT-XI, Page # 200

191) NCERT-XI, Page # 203

192) NCERT-XI, Page # 236

193) NCERT-XI, Page # 243, 245, 247

194)

NCERT-XI, Page # 242, 246

195) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 50

196) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101,102

197) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 118

198) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94

199) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

200) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 212