06/06/2021 A

CODE

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES CoE-XI Time : 3:00 Hrs

Test - 03

Topics covered in various subjects:

Physics : Motion in a Plane: Introduction, Scalars & Vectors, Multiplication of vectors by real numbers,
Addition & subtraction of vectors–graphical method., Resolution of vectors, Vector addition–
analytical method., Motion in a plane, Motion in a plane with constant acceleration, Relative
velocity in two dimensions ,Motion in a Straight Line, Physical World, Units & Measurements
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity
in Properties
Botany : Biological Classification(up to protozoans), The Living World, Cell the Unit of Life , Cell Cycle &
Cell Division.
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals–Animal Tissues, Biomolecules, Digestion & Absorption

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii)Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
1. A particle is projected in x-y plane with initial velocity that the velocity of bike w.r.t. car is south-east. The
(3iˆ  2 ˆj ) m/s , then velocity of particle after 2 s, if it direction of velocity of bike w.r.t. ground is

moves under the acceleration of (iˆ  ˆj ) m/s2 is (1) East (2) North-east

(1) 5iˆ m/s (2) (5iˆ  ˆj )m/s (3) West (4) North-west

(3) 2iˆ m/s (4) (5iˆ  ˆj )m/s 4. If the particle is starting from rest and origin moving
2. A man is moving on a straight horizontal road with with acceleration of (iˆ  2 ˆj )m/s2 and attains a
velocity 5 km/h. Rain is falling vertically with velocity velocity (2iˆ  4 ˆj )m/s . The magnitude of
5 km/h. The relative velocity of rain w.r.t. man is
displacement covered by the particle during this
(1) 10 km/h (2) 5 2 km/h interval is

(3) 5 5 km/h (4) Zero (1) 2 3 m (2) 2 2m

3. A car is moving with velocity 10 km/h in north

direction. A bike is moving with same speed such (3) 2 5 m (4) 2 7 m

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE _XI

5. A particle is moving along x-axis. Referring to v2 - x (1) 1.35 cm (2) 1.25 cm

graph of motion of a particle, the acceleration of (3) 1.025 cm (4) 1.42 cm
particle is (where symbol have their usual 11. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time t
meanings)
are x = at – bt2 and y = ct respectively, (where a, b
and c are positive constant). The magnitude of
acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is

(1) 4b2  c 2 (2) b

(3) 2b (4) b2  c 2
12. Two cars A and B are moving with uniform velocity
(1) Uniform as shown in figure. The shortest distance between
(2) Directly proportional to x the two cars will be
(3) Directly proportional to t
(4) Inversely proportional to t
6. A boat moves along the flow of river between two
fixed points P and Q. It takes 40 minute when going
downstream and takes 120 minute when going
upstream between these two points. What time it will
take in still water to cover the distance equal to PQ?
(1) 50 minute (2) 100 minute
(3) 60 minute (4) 90 minute (1) 2 m (2) 2 5 m
7. A man standing on a horizontal road holds an
umbrella at 30° with the vertical to keep himself dry. (3) 4 5 m (4) 5 5 m
He then runs at a speed of 10 m/s, and find the rain 13. A particle is moving such that its position
drops to be hitting vertically. The velocity of rain 
co-ordinates are governed by r  (6tiˆ  t jˆ) m ,
2
w.r.t. man is 
(1) 20 m/s (2) 30 m/s where r = position vector which depends on
time(t). Acceleration of particle at t = 1 s from start,
(3) 10 m/s (4) 10 3 m/s is
8. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius 1 m (1) 2 ms–2 along x-axis
with a constant speed of 2 m/s. ¨ The average (2) 2 ms–2 along y-axis
velocity of particle from A to B is (3) 2 2 ms–2 along x-axis
B
(4) 2 2 ms–2 along y-axis
14. A particle is moving in x-y plane, Its x and y co-
90°
0 A ordinate varies with time as x = (4t2 + 1) m, y = (8t +
2) m. The initial velocity of particle will be
1
(1) 8 m s–1 (2) 8 2m s
(1) 2 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) 4 m s–1 (4) 4 2m s
1

(3) 2 m/s (4) 2 m/s

15. A particle has an initial velocity of (6iˆ  10 ˆj ) m s
1

9. A particle moves in the x-y plane from origin having

and acceleration of (2iˆ  3 ˆj ) m s . Its speed at 2 s
2

instantaneous velocity v  2iˆ  4xjˆ. The equation of
is
path is -1 -1
(1) 10 2 m s (2) 20 2 m s
x2
(1) y  (2) y = 2x2
2 (3) 116 m s-1 (4) 104m s1
(3) y = 4x2 (4) y = x2 16. A pigeon is flying towards north with speed 2 m s–1
10. A student measures the diameter of a small steel and trying to cross the train moving towards south
ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. of length 100 m, if speed of train is 23 m s–1, then
The main scale reading is 10 mm and with 25th pigeon will cross the length of train in
divisions coincides with reference line. The correct (1) 3 s (2) 2 s
diameter of the ball is (Number of circular scale
(3) 4 s (4) 6 s
division is 50)

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE_XI
 
17. A vector lying in xy-plane has magnitude 5 units and 23. Two vectors A  $i  2 $j  k$ and B  4$i  $j  2k$ are
makes an angle 30° with the y-axis. Then  
component of vector along x-axis will be given. The unit vector along the vector ( A – B ) is
(1) 2 units (2) 2.5 units –3$i  $j – k$ 3$i – $j – k$
(1) (2)
(3) 3.5 units (4) 4 units 11 11
18. A scooterist is moving with uniform velocity 15 ms–1
–3$i  $j – k$ 3$i – $j – k$
on a straight road. He notices that a bus is 50 m (3) (4)
ahead of him starting from rest with acceleration 3 3
2 ms–2. The time after which bus will overtake the 24. An insect starts moving from rest on a horizontal
scooterist is (neglect length of bus) surface, such that the position vector of insect with

(1) 5 s (2) 10 s respect to origin at time t is given as r  at 2 $i  bt $j
(3) 5 2 s (4) 5 3 s (where a and b are constants and t is time). The
slope of the tangent at a point on the trajectory at t
19. A particle starts from origin at time t = 0 with velocity = 1 s is
8 $i ms–1 and moves in x–y plane with constant b b
(1) (2)
acceleration of  –2 $i  4 $j  ms–2. The position a 2a
2b a
coordinates of particle at which velocity of particle (3) (4)
becomes parallel to y-axis is a b
(1) (16 m, 16 m) (2) (32 m, 16 m) 25. The co-ordinates of a particle restricted to move in
(3) (16 m, 32 m) (4) (32 m, 32 m) a plane is given by
20. Rain is falling vertically downward with a speed of x = 6 cos t,
3 ms–1. A student rides a bicycle with a speed of y = 1 – 4 cos 2 t
3 ms–1 in west to east direction. The direction in The magnitude of acceleration of particle at t = 1.5
s is (where x and y are in meter and t is in seconds)
which he should hold his umbrella to save himself
from the rain is (1) Zero (2) 62 m/s2
(1) 30° with vertical towards east (3) 162 m/s2 (4) 82 m/s2
(2) 30° with vertical towards west 26. Two stones are thrown simultaneously from the
(3) 60° with vertical towards east same point with equal speed v0 at an angle 30° and
(4) 60° with vertical towards west 60° respectively with the positive x-axis. The
magnitude of relative velocity with which stones
21. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius 1 m move relative to each other in air is
with uniform speed 5 5 ms 1 as shown in figure. (1) 2v0 cos 15° (2) 2v0 sin 15°
The magnitude of change in velocity between points
(3) 2v0 tan 15° (4) 2v0 cot 15°
A and B is
B 27. A river is flowing with a speed of 8 km/h. A swimmer
wants to reach point R from P. He swims with a
127° speed of 8 km/h at an angle   90° with respect to
river flow. If PQ = QR = 800 m then value of  is
A
O 1m Q R

(1) Zero (2) 20 ms–1

–1 –1

(3) 10 5 ms (4) 3 5 ms P
22. A man standing on a horizontal road has to hold his (1) 90° (2) 60°
umbrella at 53° with vertical to keep away the rain. (3) 45° (4) 30°
He throws the umbrella and starts running at 28. If the magnitude of difference of two vectors
18 km/h. He finds that rain drops are hitting him  
A and B of equal magnitude is equal to magnitude
vertically. The speed of rain drops with respect to
ground is of either of the given vectors. The angle between the
 
25 vectors A and B will be
(1) ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1
4 (1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 4 ms–1 (4) 10 ms–1 (3) 120° (4) 90°

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE _XI

29. A car starts from rest with acceleration bt2

(where b 35. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of
is dimensional constant and t is in second). If total 20 m/s from the top of a multistorey building. The
travelled distance is 108 m after 6 s, then magnitude height of the point from where ball is thrown is 25 m
of b is from the ground. How long will it take before the ball
3 hits the ground? (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) ms 4 (2) 1 ms–4
(1) 4 s (2) 5 s
2
(3) 3 ms–4 (4) 6 ms–4 (3) 6 s (4) 2 s
 36. A body starts from origin and moves along x-axis
30. There are two vectors P  4$i  8 $j  6k$ and
   such that the velocity at any instant is given by v =
Q  –2$i – 4 $j – 3k$ . If P  aQ then the value of a is 4t3 – 2t. Where t is in second and velocity in m/s.
The acceleration of particle when it is at a distance
1 of 2 m from origin is
(1) – (2) –2
2 (1) 28 m/s2 (2) 26 m/s2
1 (3) 22 m/s 2 (4) 10 m/s2
(3) 4 (4) –
4 37. The (acceleration – time) graph of a particle moving
31. The density of a solid ball is to be determined in an in straight line is as shown in figure. If velocity of
experiment. The diameter of the ball is measured particle at t = 0 is 2 m/s. The velocity at t = 4s is
with a screw gauge whose pitch is 0.5 mm and these
are 50 divisions on the circular scale. The reading
of main scale is 2.5 mm and that on the circular
scale is 20 division. If the measured mass of the ball
has percentage error of 2%. The percentage error
in density is
(1) 2.4% (2) 3.1%
(3) 4.2% (4) 5.2%
32. If unit of time is 10 s, unit of mass is 5 kg and unit of
length is 20 m. Then the new unit of energy will be
(1) 10 m/s (2) 8 m/s
1 (3) 16 m/s (4) 2 m/s
(1) 20 J (2) J
20 38. A balloon is going vertically upwards with a velocity
(3) 16 J (4) 40 J of 12 m/s. It releases a packet when it is at height of
33. A bubble under water oscillates with period T, which 65 m from the ground. The time taken by packet to
is proportional to P–5/6 d1/2. EY, where P is pressure, reach ground is
d is density and E is energy. The value of Y is (1) 5 s (2) 6 s
1 1 (3) 7 s (4) 8 s
(1) (2)
7 6 39. A bus starts moving with acceleration 2 m/s2. A
cyclist 96 m behind the bus starts simultaneously
1 1
(3) (4) towards the bus at 20 m/s. After what time cyclist
5 3 will be able to overtake the bus?
34. A rod of length l slides down along the inclined wall (1) 4 s (2) 8 s
as shown in figure. At the instant shown in figure (3) 12 s (4) 16 s
speed of end P is v, then the speed of end Q will be
40. A ball is thrown upwards from the ground with an
initial speed u. The ball is at a height of 80 m at two
instant of times. If the time interval between two
crossings is 6 s, then value of u is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 100 m/s (2) 80 m/s
(3) 50 m/s (4) 30 m/s
41. Car A is just behind Car B. each car is 5 m long. The
velocity of car A is 54 km/h and of car B is 36 km/h.
v cos  v cos 
(1) (2) The road distance covered by car A to cross car B
cos  cos  is
v sin  v sin  (1) 15 m (2) 30 m
(3) (4) (3) 35 m (4) 40 m
sin  sin 

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42. A body sliding down on a smooth inclined plane 3.8  2.590

th
44. The value to with regard to significant
1 2.79
slides down distance in 2 s. It will slide the figure is
4
complete plane in (1) 3.528 (2) 3.5
(1) 4 s (2) 6 s (3) 3.52 (4) 3.52759
(3) 5 s (4) 3 s 45. The scientific principle involved in LASER is
43. The resultant of two forces acting at an angle 150° is (1) Newton’s laws of motion
10 N and is perpendicular to one of the force. The
other force is (2) Farday’s laws of Induction

(1) 20 3 N (2) 10 3 N (3) Amplification by population inversion

(4) Coulomb’s law
(3) 20 N (4) 20 5 N
CHEMISTRY
46. Sulphur exists in three different allotropic forms like (1) N3– > O2– > Na+ > Mg2+
S2, S6 and S8 etc. If equal weight of three are taken (2) Mg2+ > Na+ > O2– > N3–
in separate container, then the ratio of number of
(3) O2– > N3– > Mg2+ > Na+
atoms is
(4) Na+ > Mg2+ > N3– > O2–
(1) 1 : 3 : 4 (2) 2 : 4 : 3
54. Out of the following transition processes, which
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 4
process requires absorption of energy?
47. For the given reaction,
(1) Cl  Cl– (2) O  O–
P4 + 3O2  P4O6
If 62 g of P4 is reacted with excess of oxygen, the (3) O–  O2– (4) I  I–
percentage yield is 80%, then the amount of 55. The Halogen having the highest value of electron
product formed is affinity is
(1) 42.6 g (2) 110 g (1) Chlorine (2) fluorine
(3) 88 g (4) 28.4 g (3) Bromine (4) Iodine
48. If equivalent weight of a metal oxide is 24 then, the 56. The energy of an electron in the first stationary state
equivalent weight of its chloride will be of Li2+is –4.41 × 10–17 J atom–1. The ionisation
(1) 15.5 (2) 51.5 energy of He+would be
(3) 35.5 (4) 71 (1) 2.94 × 10–17 J atom–1
49. The volume of O2(g) at STP required for the (2) +19.6 × 10–18 J atom–1
complete combustion of 7 g C2H4(g) is (3) –19.6 × 10–18 J atom–1
(1) 16.8 litres (2) 28 litres (4) –2.94 × 10–19 J atom–1
(3) 22.4 litres (4) 5.6 litres 57. Maximum number of electrons in an atom having
50. The number of oxygen atoms present in 90 g of 1
water is quantum numbers n = 3, s   is
2
(1) NA (2) 5NA (1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 2.5NA (4) 10NA (3) 3 (4) 9
51. 27 g of N2Ox occupies 5.6 litres at STP. Assuming 58. Which one of the following set of quantum number
ideal gas nature, the value of x is represents the lowest energy of an electron in a
(1) 1 (2) 3 multi electron atom?
(3) 5 (4) 4 1
(1) n = 4; l = 0; m = + 0; s = 
52. Which of the following is/are true statement(s)? 2
(1) Electron gain enthalpy is the heat release when 1
an isolated gaseous atom gains an electron (2) n = 3; l = 1; m = + 1; s = 
2
(2) Electron gain process may be exothermic or
endothermic 1
(3) n = 4; l = 2; m = 0; s = 
(3) Ionization energy is always endothermic 2
(4) All of these 1
(4) n = 3; l = 2; m = –1; s = 
53. Order of ionic size for the ions, N3–, O2–, Na+ and 2
Mg2+ is

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59. If the longest wavelength in Balmer series of Heis 1

(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = 
9x 2
then the shortest wavelength of H-atom in
5 1
Lyman series is (3) n = 3, l = 3, m = 0, s = 
2
x x 1
(1) (2) (4) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = 
4 2 2
5x 67. Which among the following is an amphoteric oxide?
(3) (4) x
3 (1) MgO (2) Cl2O7
60. Total number of nodes (angular and radial) present (3) CO2 (4) Al2O3
in 4p orbital is
68. Element with atomic number 47 belongs to
(1) 2 (2) 6
(1) s-block (2) p-block
(3) 4 (4) 3
(3) d-block (4) f-block
61. Which of the following orbital diagram violates
Pauli’s exclusion principle? 69. s-block elements together with p-block elements
are called
2s 2p
(1) Transition elements
(1) (2)
(2) Inner transition elements
2s 2p 2s 2p
(3) Representative elements
(3) (4) (4) Transuranium elements
62. If in a sample of hydrogen atoms, electron jump 70. Because of high reactivity these elements are never
from 4th excited state to ground state, then the found pure in nature these are
number of lines obtained in UV region will be (1) s-block elements (2) p-block elements
(1) 10 (2) 6 (3) d-block elements (4) f-block elements
(3) 4 (4) 3 71. Which of the following is not a d-block element?
63. The work function of a metal is 10.0 eV. The longest (1) [Kr]4d1 5s2 (2) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2
wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron (3) [Xe]4f1 5d16s2 (4) [Xe] 4f14 5d4 6s2
emission from this metal is approximately
72. The element which has the highest positive electron
(1) 248 nm (2) 124 nm gain enthalpy is
(3) 400 nm (4) 110 nm (1) Kr (2) Ar
64. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (3) Ne (4) He
(1) Supports the circular path of electron in an 73. Highest oxidation state is shown by
atom (1) Mn (2) Pt
(2) Can be significantly applied to macroscopic (3) Os (4) Cr
bodies 74. The element with outermost electronic
h configuration 4s2, 3d5 belongs to
(3) Is given as  x. p 
4 (1) 3rd period, 5th group
(4) Confirms the particle nature of an electron (2) 3rd period, 7th group
65. For same shell, orbital of maximum penetration (3) 4th period, 5th group
power is (4) 4th period, 7th group
(1) p (2) d 75. Most electropositive element among the following is
(3) s (4) f (1) Be (2) Mg
66. Out of the following set of quantum numbers, (3) Na (4) Li
choose the one which does not exist 76. Which of the following is the correct order of
1 negative electron gain enthalpy?
(1) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, s = 
2 (1) S > Se > Te > O (2) O > S > Se > Te
(3) Te > Se > S > O (4) Se > S > Te > O

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77. The correct order of IE is 83. Eka silicon and Eka aluminium respectively are
(1) F > N > O > C > B > Be > Li (1) Ge, Al (2) Ga, Ge
(2) F > N > O > C > Be > B > Li (3) Ge, Ga (4) Sn, In
(3) F > O > N > C > Be > B > Li 84. Which pair show diagonal relationship with each
(4) N > F > O > C > Be > Li > B other?
78. Electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is –348.5 kJ mol–1. (1) Na and Be (2) Be and Al
The energy (in kJ) released when 3.55 g of chlorine (3) Mg and B (4) Al and C
is completely converted to Cl– ion in the gaseous
state is 85. IUPAC official name of element with atomic number
101 is
(1) 34.85 kJ (2) 17.425 kJ
(3) 69.7 kJ (4) 348.5 kJ (1) Dubnium (2) Bohrium
79. Mg and Li are similar in their properties due to (3) Mendelevium (4) Lawrencium
(1) same charge/radius ratio 86. Maximum charge/mass ratio is of
(2) same electron affinity (1) neutron (2) electron
(3) same group (3) proton (4) -particle
(4) same ionisation potential 87. Order of ionisation of electrons of various orbitals is
80. The values of electronegativities of N and F are 3.0 (Assuming for same shell)
and 4.0 respectively. The % ionic character of (1) s > p > d > f (2) d > f > s > p
N – F bond is
(3) f > d > s > p (4) p > d > f > s
(1) 25% (2) 15%
88. General electronic configuration of d-block
(3) 30.4% (4) 19.5% elements is
81. Basis of periodic table in Mendeleev’s periodic table
(1) (n – 1)d1–10 ns1–2 (2) nd1–10 ns1–2
and modern periodic table respectively are
(3) (n–1)d1–10 ns0–2 (4) nd1–10 ns2
(1) Atomic weight, atomic volume
(2) Atomic weight, atomic number 89. d-block element (s) which do/does not show most
of the properties of transition elements is/are
(3) Atomic number, atomic weight
(1) Zn (2) Cd
(4) Atomic number, atomic volume
82. AI3+ has lower ionic radius than Mg2+ ion because (3) Cu (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Mg atom has less neutrons than Al 90. The elements of which group are known as
chalcogens?
(2) Al3+ has higher effective nuclear charge than
Mg2+ (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Their electronegativities are similar (3) 15 (4) 16
(4) Al has lower ionisation potential than Mg atom

BOTANY
91. Which of the following can be regarded as defining
93. ‘All organisms are heterotrophic’. This statement
features of all life forms?
will be applicable for how many kingdoms of five
(1) Metabolism and Intrinsic growth kingdom classification given by Whittaker?
(2) Growth and cellular organisation
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Self consciousness and reproduction
(3) Three (4) Four
(4) Consciousness and reproduction
92. The number of species that are known and 94. Members of which of the following kingdom shows
described range between most extensive metabolic diversity?
(1) 1.7 – 1.8 billion (2) 1.7 – 1.8 million (1) Plantae (2) Protista
(3) 7 – 8 million (4) 17 – 18 billion
(3) Monera (4) Fungi

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95. Cell organelles such as 80 S ribosomes as well as (1) Family - Anacardiaceae

mitochondria are absent in (2) Order - Sapindales
(1) Chlamydomonas, protozoans and fungi
(3) Class - Poales
(2) Bacteria and Archaebacteria
(4) Division - Angiospermae
(3) Mycoplasma, Anabaena and dicots
103. Select the incorrect statement
(4) Mosses, ferns and flowering plants
96. Carl Woese found that the six kingdoms naturally (1) Species serve as the basic and the lowest
cluster into three domains on the basis of taxonomic category
(1) Cell membrane composition (2) Order Carnivora of cats and dogs is placed in
class “Mammalia”
(2) Ribosomal RNA genes sequence
(3) Cell wall composition (3) Families are characterised on the basis of both
vegetative and reproductive features of plant
(4) DNA sequence in mitochondria
species.
97. Modern taxonomic studies includes all of the
following, except (4) The word systematics is derived from Greek
word “Systema” which means systematic
(1) Cell structure arrangement of organisms
(2) External structure
104. Read the following statements and select the
(3) Development process correct option w.r.t. characters present in all
(4) Phylogeny monerans.
98. How many of the given bacteria lack a. Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
photosynthetic pigments?
b. Ribosomes are of 70S type
Nitrosomonas, Rhizobium, Azotobacter, c. Respiratory enzymes are found associated
Nitrococcus, Anabaena, Nostoc with plasma membrane
d. Nucleoid is composed of naked DNA, RNA
(1) Three (2) Four and histone proteins
(3) Five (4) Six
(1) a, b & c (2) b & c only
99. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in having
(3) a, b, c & d (4) b, c & d
(1) Different cell wall composition
105. Which of the following eubacteria often form
(2) Different cell organelles
blooms in polluted water bodies?
(3) 70S ribosomes
(1) Bacillus subtilis (2) Pseudomonas
(4) ds circular DNA
100. Find the incorrect match (3) Chlorobium (4) Cyanobacteria
(1) Vibrio : Influenza 106. Which of the following serves as quick referral
system in taxonomical studies?
(2) Salmonella : Typhoid
(3) Clostridium : Tetanus (1) Key (2) Monograph
(4) Xanthomonas : Citrus canker (3) Herbaria (4) Zoological parks
101. Statement-A : Metabolic reactions can be 107. Bacteria reproduce mainly by:
demonstrated outside the body in (1) Spores
cell-free systems.
(2) Gamete formation
Statement-B : Properties of cellular organelles
arise as a result of interactions (3) Binary Fission
among the molecular components (4) Mitosis
comprising the organelle.
108. Select the odd statement w.r.t. Mycoplasma?
(1) Only Statement-A is correct
(1) Smallest known living cells
(2) Only Statement-B is correct
(2) Cannot survive without oxygen
(3) Both Statement A & B are correct
(4) Both Statement A & B are incorrect (3) Completely lack a cell wall

102. Select the mismatched pair (4) Pathogenic in animals and plants

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE_XI

109. Which of the following type of microbe are present 117. The organisms which can survive in extreme salty
in the gut of several ruminant animals and produce areas due to a different cell wall structure are
biogas which is also a potent green house gas called:
from the dung of these animals?
(1) Halophiles
(1) Eubacteria (2) Methanogens
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Halophiles (2) Thermoacidophiles
110. Consider the following (3) Methanogens
(4) Cyanobacteria
How many organism(s) given in the box, lack cell 118. Boundaries of kingdom are not well defined. This
wall? statement is applicable to the kingdom
(1) One (2) Two (1) Monera (2) Protista
(3) Three (4) Four
(3) Fungi (4) Animalia
111. Select the odd match w.r.t. kingdom Monera
(1) Photosynthetic autoprophs: Blue green alge 119. Which of the following statements is not
concerned with protists?
(2) Chemosynthetic autoprophs: Recycling of
nutrients (1) Eukaryotes
(3) Comma shaped bacterium: Vibrio (2) Reproduction occur by asexual and sexual
(4) Heterotrophic bacteria: Use inorganic method
substance to produce ATP. (3) Unicellular
112. Read the below given statements and choose
correct option (4) ‘9 + 0’ organisation of microtubules in cilia and
flagella
Statement-A : Members of protista are mostly
aquatic.
Statement-B : All members of euglenoids show
holozoic mode of nutrition only. 120.
(1) Only statement (A) is correct
(2) Only statement (B) is correct Choose the correct option w.r.t. the given
(3) Both statements (A) & (B) are correct organism.
(4) Both statements (A) & (B) are incorrect (1) Presence of thousands of cilia
113. Thick and silica deposited cell wall is seen in
organisms that (2) Possess definite region of ingestion
(1) Are chief producer of oceans (3) Is autotrophic
(2) Lack chlorophyll (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Have two flagella 121. Cyanobacteria are similar to higher plants as they
(4) Are prokaryotes have---------similar to higher plants. Fill the above
114. Euglenoids are similar to higher plants in having blank by choosing correct option.
identical (1) Chloroplast
(1) Pigments (2) Reserve food
(2) Cell wall composition
(3) Cell wall composition (4) Body organisation
115. Red tides are caused by (3) Chlorophyll a
(1) Red algae (4) Cell type
(2) BGA 122. Under unfavourable conditions bacteria
(3) Green algae
(1) Undergo fission
(4) Dinoflagellates
(2) Undergo true sexual reproduction
116. “Sleeping sickness” is caused by
(1) Entamoeba (2) Plasmodium (3) Form zoospores
(3) Trypanosoma (4) Gonyaulax (4) Produce spores

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE _XI

123. Consider the following statements (A-C). Choose (4) Living organisms can be kept in preservative
the correct option to fill the blanks. solutions
A. (i)_ is the causative organism of dysentery. 131. In passive transport through plasma membrane
B. Spores of slime moulds are dispersed by _(ii)_. (1) Neutral solutes move across the plasma
C. Chrysophytes includes _(iii)_ & _(iv)_. membrane by the process of simple diffusion
(1) (i) Paramoecium (ii) Water (2) Solute molecules move against their
(2) (iii) Euglenoids (iv) Golden algae concentration gradient
(3) (ii) Air (iii) Diatoms (3) An uphill movement of materials across the
(4) (i) Entamoeba (iv) Pyrrophyta membrane occurs
124. Match the columns and select the correct option (4) Energy is required which is obtained from ATP
Column-I Column-II
132. All of the following are the functions of cell wall,
a. Sporozoans (i) Planktons except
b. Euglenoids (ii) Marshy areas (1) Maintains the shape of the cells
c. Methanogens (iii) Plasmodium
(2) Protects the cells from mechanical injury
d. Diatoms (iv) Pellicle
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (3) Outermost living rigid structure
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) Provides barrier to undesirable
macromolecules
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 133. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding
125. Members of which of the following kingdoms are ribosomes?
heterotrophic eukaryotes and have a cell wall?
(1) Composed of rRNA and proteins
(1) Plantae
(2) Animalia (2) Involved in protein synthesis
(3) Monera
(3) Not surrounded by any membrane
(4) Fungi
126. Who suggested a new kingdom for multicellular (4) Eukaryotes have 80S ribosomes only
organisms with loose tissue organization?
134. a. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
(1) Copeland (2) Aristotle
(3) Whittaker (4) Linnaeus b. Exchange of genetic material between non-
127. Growth differs in plants from animals as in plants sister chromatids of homologous
it is chromosomes.
(1) Intrinsic (2) Extrinsic
c. Condensation and coiling of chromatin fibres.
(3) Indeterminate (4) Reversible
128. Fragmentation is a mode of reproduction in all, d. Alignment of bivalent chromosome on the
except equatorial plate.
(1) Filamentous algae (2) Protonema of mosses
e. Terminalisation of chiasmata.
(3) Filamentous fungus (4) Amoeba
129. Animals, mammals and dogs, represent Select the correct sequence of events during
(1) Same taxa at different level meiosis-I :
(2) Different taxa at different level (1) d  c  a  b  e
(3) Same taxa at same level
(4) Different taxa at same level (2) b  c  a  e  d
130. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Museums
(3) c  b  a  e  d
(1) Generally set up in educational institutes
(2) Have living plants and animal specimens (4) c  d  b  e  a
(3) Have collections of skeleton of animals only

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE_XI

135. If the amount of DNA and number of (1) 60 pg ; 48 chromosomes

chromosomes in an angiospermic male gamete (2) 80 pg ; 32 chromosomes
are 20 pg and 16 respectively, then what will be
the amount of DNA and number of chromosomes (3) 120 pg ; 48 chromosomes
in megaspore mother cell of the same plant at G2 (4) 40 pg ; 32 chromosomes
phase?

ZOOLOGY
136. The structural and functional unit of liver, (2) Saliva, Gastric juice, Intestinal juice,
containing hepatic cells arranged in the form of Pancreatic juice
cords is called (3) Pancreatic juice, Intestinal juice, Saliva,
(1) Hepatocyte Gastric juice,
(2) Glisson’s capsule (4) Gastric juice, Saliva, Pancreatic juice,
(3) Hepatic lobule Intestinal juice
(4) Hepatic portal system 144. Read the following statements with respect to
137. Gastric juice of an infant contains enzymes like digestive system.
(1) Pepsin, Trypsin, Lipase a. In humans three pairs of salivary glands are
(2) Pepsin, Enterokinase, Rennin situated just outside the buccal cavity and
secrete saliva into the buccal cavity.
(3) Pepsin, Lipase, Rennin
b. The bile duct and pancreatic duct open
(4) Pepsin, Trypsin, Rennin
together into jejunum
138. Secretion of which of the following digestive
glands is considered complete digestive juice? c. The stomach is lined by brush border
epithelium
(1) Liver (2) Gall bladder
d. Renin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric
(3) Salivary gland (4) Pancreatic acini
juice of infants which helps in digestion of
139. Which of the following parts of human brain milk protein.
controls the reflex action which leads to the
How many statements from the above is/are
ejection of stomach contents through mouth?
correct?
(1) Spinal cord (2) Pons
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Medulla oblongata (4) Cerebral cortex
(3) Two (4) One
140. The secretion of pancreatic enzymes and
bicarbonate ions into pancreatic juice is 145. Match the following and select the correct option.
stimulated by Column I Column II
(1) Gastrin and insulin a. Bilirubin and biliverdin (i) Amylases
(2) Angiotensin and epinephrine b. Hydrolysis of starch (ii) Steapsin
(3) Cholecystokinin and secretin c. Digestion of fat (iii) Stomach
(4) Insulin and glucagon d. Absorption of simple (iv) Bile
141. Pancreatomised individuals are most likely to sugars and alcohol
suffer from (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(1) Jaundice (2) Steatorrhea (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) Rickets (4) Anaemia 146. Sphincter of Oddi
142. The layer that insulates the dentinal tubules from
(1) Guards the opening of common bile duct into
painful temperatures & chemicals is
pancreatic duct
(1) Dentine (2) Bone
(2) Present at the junction of midgut and hindgut
(3) Ligament (4) Enamel
(3) Present between the pyloric part of stomach
143. Which of the following is the correct option which and duodenum
indicates increasing order of pH of digestive
juices? (4) Guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct
into duodenum
(1) Gastric juice, Saliva, Intestinal juice,
Pancreatic juice

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE _XI

147. Which of the following teeth of humans usually 156. Triglycerides are broken down to release MAG,
have three roots? DAG and glycerol by enzyme chiefly secreted
(1) Upper premolar (2) Lower molars from
(3) Lower premolar (4) Upper molars (1) Gastric glands
148. The only submucosal gland is and is present in (2) Pancreas
Choose the correct option for ‘A’ and ‘B’. (3) Brush border intestinal glands
(1) A – Crypts of Lieberkuhn B – Duodenum (4) Liver
(2) A – Brunner’s gland B – Oesophagus 157. Which of the following is an inactive enzyme of
pancreatic juice?
(3) A – Gastric gland B – Stomach
(1) Pepsinogen (2) Chymotrypsinogen
(4) A – Brunner’s gland B – Duodenum (3) Prorennin (4) Steapsin
149. Destruction of which of the following cells of 158. Choose the incorrect statement.
gastric mucosal glands may lead to anemia? (1) All papillae of the tongue do not bear taste
buds
(1) Parietal cells (2) Peptic cells
(2) Salivary glands lie outside the buccal cavity
(3) Chief cells (4) Zymogen cells (3) Gastrin inhibits the release of pancreatic juice
150. Neck cells in the stomach secrete from the pancreas
(4) The vermiform appendix which is a vestigeal
(1) Pepsinogen (2) HCl organ arises from the caecum
(3) Mucus (4) Lipase 159. The amount of starch present in food that is
hydrolysed in mouth is
151. Which amongst the following is the direct action (1) 10% (2) 30%
of enterokinase?
(3) 50% (4) 60%
(1) It breaks down dipeptides into amino acids 160. Select the incorrect statement.
(2) It is an exopeptidase (1) Trypsin works at basic pH
(2) Stomach stores food for 4-5 hours
(3) It activates trypsinogen into trypsin (3) CCK–PZ stimulates the Brunner’s glands to
(4) It neutralises gastric juice release mucus
(4) Bile salts are amphipathic
152. Digestion of food in humans is initiated in
161. Succus entericus contains a variety of enzymes
(1) Buccal cavity (2) Oesophagus except
(1) Maltase (2) Sucrase
(3) Stomach (4) Intestine
(3) Nucleases (4) Dipeptidase
153. When deciduous teeth are replaced by a set of 162. Which of the following reactions will not occur
permanent teeth, the dentition is called due to pancreatic juice ?
(1) Acrodont (2) Diphyodont Proteins
(1) Peptones – Dipeptides
(3) Thecodont (4) Heterodont
Proteoses
154. A cartilaginous flap which prevents the entry of (2) Polysaccharides – Disaccharides
food into the openings of the wind pipe is called (3) Fats – Diglycerides or
(1) Glottis (2) Gullet Monoglycerides
(4) Lactose – Glucose + Galactose
(3) Epiglottis (4) Pyloric sphincter
163. The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and
155. Which is not an agonist of secretion of parietal increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is
cells? known as
(1) Diarrhoea (2) Vomiting
(1) Gastrin (2) Histamine
(3) Constipation (4) Jaundice
(3) Secretin (4) Acetylcholine

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE_XI

164. Which of the following is not a component of bile 171. Enzymes which catalyse joining of biomolecules
juice? by expenditure of energy currency are
categorised under
(1) Sodium glycocholate (2) Lipase
(1) Ligases (2) Isomerases
(3) Cholesterol (4) Biliverdin
(3) Lyases (4) Transferases
165. Which vitamin deficiency disease is commonly
seen is vegans? 172. Some compounds which cause vasodilation and
are inflammatory mediators are derivatives of
(1) Night blindness
(1) Palmitic acid (2) Stearic acid
(2) Rickets
(3) Oleic acid (4) Arachidonic acid
(3) Beriberi
173. Which of the following is the most effective
(4) Megaloblastic anaemia parameter for evaluating catalytic efficiency of
166. Which of the following options is correct? enzymes?
(1) Optimum temperature
a. If a bone is kept in HCl for sometime, its
inorganic part is dissolved and organic part is (2) Molecular size
left behind (3) Km value
b. If a bone is heat dried, its inorganic matter is (4) Optimum pH
destroyed and organic part is left behind 174. Enzymes catalysing removal of groups from
(1) a is correct, b is incorrect substrates by mechanism other than hydrolysis
leaving double bonds are categorised in which
(2) b is correct, a is incorrect class as per IUB?
(3) Both a & b are correct (1) Class II (2) Class III
(4) Both a & b are incorrect (3) Class IV (4) Class VI
175. All the given statements about enzymes in
167. Mesodermal cells involved in phagocytosis in humans are correct except
nervous tissue are
(1) All enzymes require same optimum pH for
(1) Macroglial cell (2) Oligodendrocytes maximal activity
(3) Microglial cells (4) Ependymal cells (2) Enzymes are inactivated at low temperatures
(3) Enzymes are highly specific
168. Mast cells of areolar connective tissue secrete all
of the following, except (4) Generally enzymes are proteinaceous in
nature
(1) Melatonin (2) Serotonin
176. Observe the graph given below w.r.t. enzymes.
(3) Histamine (4) Heparin Y
169. Dense irregular connective tissue has fibroblasts
and many fibres that are oriented differently and
is present in/beneath
(1) Ligament
(2) Tendon
(3) Dentine X
(4) Dermis of skin What do the two axis (X and Y) represent?
Choose from the options given below
170. Osteoclasts are involved in
X axis Y axis
(1) Deposition of cartilage (1) Enzyme activity Temperature
(2) Deposition of bone (2) Enzyme activity pH
(3) Resorption of cartilage (3) pH Enzyme activity
(4) Substrate Enzyme activity
(4) Resorption of bone
concentration

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE _XI

177. Coenzymes are cofactors and refer to a part of (3) Monomer of DNA (4) NADP
holoenzyme that is 179. A vitamin whose deficiency causes Pellagra is
(1) Loosely attached organic part required for the formation of which coenzyme
(1) ATP (2) FMN
(2) Transiently attached inorganic part
(3) NAD (4) Coenzyme A
(3) Firmly attached non-protein part 180. The bond between adenine and ribose is
(4) Protein part of enzyme (1) Ester bond (2) Glycosidic bond
178. Uracil occurs in (3) Peptide bond (4) Disulphide bond
(1) RNA (2) DNA




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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE_XI

06/06/2021 A
CODE

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 3:00 Hrs

Test-03
1. (1) 46. (3) 91. (1) 136. (3)
2. (2) 47. (3) 92. (2) 137. (3)
3. (1) 48. (2) 93. (2) 138. (4)
4. (3) 49. (1) 94. (3) 139. (3)
5. (1) 50. (2) 95. (2) 140. (3)
6. (3) 51. (3) 96. (2) 141. (2)
7. (4) 52. (4) 97. (4) 142. (4)
8. (2) 53. (1) 98. (2) 143. (1)
9. (4) 54. (3) 99. (1) 144. (4)
10. (3) 55. (1) 100. (1) 145. (4)
11. (3) 56. (2) 101. (3) 146. (4)
12. (3) 57. (4) 102. (3) 147. (4)
13. (2) 58. (2) 103. (4) 148. (4)
14. (1) 59. (4) 104. (2) 149. (1)
15. (3) 60. (4) 105. (4) 150. (3)
16. (3) 61. (1) 106. (3) 151. (3)
17. (2) 62. (3) 107. (3) 152. (1)
18. (2) 63. (2) 108. (2) 153. (2)
19. (3) 64. (3) 109. (2) 154. (3)
20. (1) 65. (3) 110. (2) 155. (3)
21. (2) 66. (3) 111. (4) 156. (2)
22. (1) 67. (4) 112. (1) 157. (2)
23. (1) 68. (3) 113. (1) 158. (3)
24. (2) 69. (3) 114. (1) 159. (2)
25. (3) 70. (1) 115. (4) 160. (3)
26. (2) 71. (3) 116. (3) 161. (3)
27. (1) 72. (3) 117. (1) 162. (4)
28. (2) 73. (3) 118. (2) 163. (1)
29. (2) 74. (4) 119. (4) 164. (2)
30. (2) 75. (3) 120. (4) 165. (4)
31. (2) 76. (1) 121. (3) 166. (1)
32. (1) 77. (2) 122. (4) 167. (3)
33. (4) 78. (1) 123. (3) 168. (1)
34. (2) 79. (1) 124. (1) 169. (4)
35. (2) 80. (4) 125. (4) 170. (4)
36. (3) 81. (2) 126. (3) 171. (1)
37. (1) 82. (2) 127. (3) 172. (4)
38. (1) 83. (3) 128. (4) 173. (3)
39. (2) 84. (2) 129. (2) 174. (3)
40. (3) 85. (3) 130. (1) 175. (1)
41. (3) 86. (2) 131. (1) 176. (4)
42. (1) 87. (1) 132. (3) 177. (1)
43. (3) 88. (3) 133. (4) 178. (1)
44. (2) 89. (4) 134. (3) 179. (3)
45. (3) 90. (4) 135. (2) 180. (2)

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE _XI

06/06/2021 A
CODE

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 3:00 Hrs

SOLUTIONS
1. Answer (1)   
VB  VBC  VC
U  3iˆ  2 ˆj
V  u  at  (3iˆ  2 ˆj )  (iˆ – jˆ)   2 The resultant can be along iˆ (east) from
parallelogram law of vectors
 3 i  2 ˆj  2 iˆ – 2 j  5 iˆ m/s
4. Answer (3)
2. Answer (2)
V  u  at

(2iˆ  4 jˆ ) = 0  ( iˆ  2 ˆj ) t

 t = 2 sec
1
 

r  0  iˆ  2 ˆj  2   2  iˆ  2 jˆ 
2

   2
VRM  VR – VM
 = 2iˆ  4 jˆ
VR  –5 ˆj

VM  5 iˆ | r |  (2)2   4  =
2
20 = 2 5

VRM  –5 ˆj – (5 iˆ )  – 5 iˆ – 5 jˆ
5. Answer (1)
 –5    –5   5 2 kmh–1
2 2
| VRM | 
v2 = kx
3. Answer (1)
dv
2v k
dx
k
 a  (uniform) 
2
6. Answer (3)
d = (vb – vR)tu ...(i)
d = (vb + vR)td ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
tu(vb – vR) = td(vb + vR)
120 (vb – vR) = 40 (vb + vR)
or, 3vb – 3vR = vb + vR
or, vb = 2 vR
Now,
d 3 v R td
t3  
vb 2 vR

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE_XI

7. Answer (4) 
v  2iˆ  4xjˆ
Let us assume that if rain is falling at 30° it
would have horizontal component as vx and
vertical component vy.

8 t2
y
2
y = 4 t = (2t)2
2

Now man starts running with 10 m/s  y  x2

vRm  vertical
So, 10. Answer (3)
x = M.S.R + n × L.C
= 1 cm + 25 × 0.001 cm
= 1 cm + 0.025
=1.025 cm
11. Answer (3)
x = at – bt2 y = ct
Also
vx = a – 2bt vy = c
ax = – 2b ay = 0
vx 10  |a| = 2b
 tan30   tan30 v y  10 3 12. Answer (3)
vy vy
 When man starts running he will see only
vertical component.


vRm  10 3 m/s

8. Answer (2)

 The particle will be passing from below B

r  2 r sin  
2  1
tan1  
 2r sin[45]  2 r  2  1  2  2
m 1
tan  
  2
r
 1 1
t2   s sin  
1
V 2 2 2 2
 5
2
 Vav   4 m/s d = 20 sin
 1 
  1 20 5
2 2  20  
5 5 4 5m
9. Answer (4)

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE _XI

13. Answer (2) For scooterist


r  6 iˆ  t 2 ˆj d + x = v 0t ...(i)
 dr 1 2
x  0  at ...(ii)
V   6 iˆ  2t ˆj 2
dt
 1
 dv 50   2t 2  15t
a  0  2 jˆ  2 jˆ 2
dt
|a| = 2 m/s2 along Y-axis t2 – 15t + 50 = 0
14. Answer (1) t2 – 10t – 5t + 50 = 0
x  4t 2  1 y = 8t + 2 t=5s
t = 10 s
dx dy
Vx   8t Vy  8 First scooter will overtake then bus will
dt dt overtake.
initial velocity t = 0
19. Answer (3)
Vx  8  0 =0 Vy  8
Vx = 0 = 8 – 2 t
 v  v x2  Vy2  0  (8)2 =8 m/s
t=4s
15. Answer (3) 1
u  6 iˆ  10 ˆj x  ux t  ax t 2
2

a  2 iˆ – 3 ˆj 1
 2  4   16 m
2
x  8 4–
   
V  u  at  16iˆ  10 jˆ  2iˆ – 3 jˆ  2 2

 6 iˆ  10 jˆ  4 iˆ – 6 jˆ 1
 4  4   32 m
2
y 
2
 10 iˆ  4 ˆj
20. Answer (1)
V  102   4   116 ms–1
2
  
16. Answer (3)
V RS  VRG  –V SG  
Vrel  2  23  25 m/s Vertical
l rel  100m
Irel 100

W E
t   4s
Vrel 25
VRS 
17. Answer (2) VRG
–VSG

V SG
tan   
V RG

1
tan  
3
Ax  A sin 30  5 sin30  = 30°
1  = 30° with vertical to east.
5   2.5 unit
2
21. Answer (2)
18. Answer (2)

v  v12  v 22 – 2v1v 2 cos 
u=0
a = 125  125 – 2  125cos127
v0
3
= 250  2  125  = 20 ms–1
d x 5

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE_XI

22. Answer (1)

VMG = VRG sin53°
     
| v |   2v 0 sin  ( | v1 |  | v 2 |  v 0 )
VRG  2 
VRM 53°
=2v0sin(15°)
27. Answer (1)
VMG
4
5 = VRG 
5
25
 VRG = m/s
4
23. Answer (1)
  tan = 1   = 45°
   
 
A – B  i  2 $j  k$ – 4i  $j  2k$  = 45° +  = 90°
28. Answer (2)
  
A – B  –3i  $j – k$ R  A2  B2 – 2AB cos 
  A 2  A 2  A 2 – 2 A 2 cos 
A–B   –3 2  12   –12 11
= –1 = –2 cos 
 
A–B  1
$
n    –3i  $j – k$  cos =
2
A–B
= 11 = 60°
24. Answer (2)
  29. Answer (2)
r  at 2 i  bt $j
u = 0, a = bt2
x= at2; y = bt
s = 108 m, t = 6 sec
vx = 2at
vy = b acceleration is variable
dy v y b dv
    bt 2 dv = bt2dt
dx v x 2at dt
at t = 1 s v t

 dv   bt dt
2
dy b
 0 0
dx 2a
25. Answer (3) bt 3
V  …(i)
d2x 3
2
ax   –6 cos t
dt 2 ...(i) ds
v 
bt 3
 y  1 – 4 cos 2t dt 3
s b
ay  4  2   cos 2  t
2 bt 3
...(ii)  ds  
0 0
3
dt
At t = 1.5 s ax = 0
6
ay = 16 2cos3 b t4 
s 0   
= –16 2 m/s2 3  4 0
anet = 16 2 m/s2
b
26. Answer (2) 108   6 4 – 0 4 
12 
108  12
b  1ms – 4
36  36

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE _XI

1
Y 
30. Answer (2) 3
  34. Answer (2)
P  aQ Along the rod velocity will remain constant
because rod is rigid. At top along the rod
 
 
4i  8 $j  6k$  a –2i – 4 $j – 3k$ velocity = VQ.cos 

a = –2
31. Answer (2)
L.C of screw gauge
Pitch
=
No. of division on circular scale
V cos   VQ .cos 
0.5
  0.01 mm V cos
50  or VQ 
cos 
Diameter of ball = MSR + CSR × L.C. 35. Answer (2)
= 2.5 + 20 × .01 = 2.7 mm Taking ground as origin
1 2
  M D  y  y o  Vo t  at
 3 2
  100
  M D y o  25, y  0, a  – 10ms –2
t=?
 0.01
 100  2%  3   100 1
 2.7 0 = 25 +20 t + (–10)t 2
2
= 3.11% 5 t 2 – 20 t – 25  0
 t2 – 4t – 5 = 0
32. Answer (1)
t = 5 sec
U  ML2 T –2  [5 kg][20 m]2  10 s  36. Answer (3)
–2

V = 4t3 – 2t
5  400 dv
k g m  [ s ] – 2
2
U= a=  12t 2 – 2 ...(i)
100 dt
U = 20 J
dx
33. Answer (4) Now  v  4 t 3 – 2t
dt

5 1 dx = (4t3 – 2t)dt
T  kP 6 d 2 E Y t t
x t
t 4  t2 
By dimension homogeneity law 0 dx  0 
4 t 3
– 2t dt  4 
  – 2  
 4 0  2 0
–5/6
1
Y x = t4 – t 2
MoLo T  ML–1T –2  ML–3  2 ML2 T –2  When x = 2
1 5 3 10
2 = t4 – t2 Let y = t2
M L T  M L  T 
o o –5/6  Y –  2Y –2Y
2 6 2 6 y2 – y – 2 = 0
1 – 4  1  –2 
2
Compare for T: 1 1 3
y =
2 2
10
1  – 2Y y=2
6
t2  2 or t= 2
10 5 2
2Y  –1 –1  a = 12(2) – 2 = 22 ms–2
6 3 3
37. Answer (1)

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE_XI

Area of a–t graph is change in velocity

1
 V   (4)  4  8 m/s
2
V  Vf – Vi
Vf  Vi  V  2  8 = 10 m/s
38. Answer (1)

We can calculate velocity V because after 6

sec ball is back at same point
v v
tm  3 
g g
V = 30 m/s
By equation of motion
V2 = u2 + 2as
 30 
2
 u 2  2 (–10)  80

The speed of packet with respect to ground at 900  u 2 – 1600

release in 12 m/s upwards.  u 2  2500
Taking ground as origin and upward direction u= 2500 = 50 m/s
as + ve Y-axis
1 41. Answer (3)
y  y 0  V0 t  ay t 2
2
1
O = 65 + 12t + (–10)t 2
2
O = 65 + 12t – 5t2
5
5t 2 – 12t – 65  0 VAB   54 – 36    5 m/s
18
12 
2
12   4  5  65 12  38 If d is distance between cars
t =
25 10 relative distance = 5 + 5 = 10 m
 t  5 sec relative distance 10
time to cross = = =2s
39. Answer (2) relative speed 5
Total road distance covered by car A
dA = car length + VAt = 5 + 15 × 2 = 35 m
42. Answer (1)
On smooth inclined plane acceleration is
Sc  96  SB constant. Let it be a
S 1
1  0  (a ) 2
2
20t  96   2 t 2 4 2
2
20t = 96 + t2 S = 8a ...(i)
 t 2 – 20t  96  0 In second case for complete sliding motion
t 2 – 12t – 8t  96  0
 t – 12  t – 8   0 1
S 0 (a )T 2
 t  8, 12sec 2
first time at t = 8 sec 1
8a   a T 2
40. Answer (3) 2
T 2  16  T = 4 second

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE _XI

43. Answer (3) 90

nH2 O  5
18
No. of atoms of Oxygen = 5 × NA

51. Answer (3)

1
  5.6 L = mole = 27 g
 = 150°, A and B are vectors 4
R = 10 and  = 90°  Molar mass = 108 g
By  law of vectors  x = 5 (N2O5)
From geometry of diagram 52. Answer (4)
To calculate B (other force) Electron gain enthalpy may be exothermic or
R endothermic.
  sin 30  10 = B sin 30° 53. Answer (1)
B
For isoelectronic species, as the atomic
B = 10 × 2 = 20 (N)
number increases, ionic radii decreases.
44. Answer (2)
54. Answer (3)
3.8  2.590
= =3.527 = 3.5 Second electron gain enthalpy is always
2.79 positive.
By rule of multiply in significant digits only two 55. Answer (1)
significant figures Order of electron affinity is
45. Answer (3) Cl > F > Br > I
LASER is light amplification by stimulated 56. Answer (2)
emission of radiations.
ELi2+ 9
This is done by population inversion rule 
46. Answer (3) EHe 4
1
No. of atoms of S in 1g of S2 =  NA  2 EHe+  19.6  10 18
64
1
 I.E. = +19.6 × 10–18
=  NA 57. Answer (4)
32
For, n = 3 and s = + ½, the total number of
1 electrons = n2 = 9
No. of atoms of S in 1g of S6 =  NA × 6
192 58. Answer (2)
1 3p < 4s < 3d < 4d
=  NA
32 59. Answer (4)
1 For He+, n1 = 2 and n2 = 3
No. of atoms of S in 1g S8 =  N A ×8
256 1  1 1 
1  RH Z2  2  2 
=  NA   n1 n2 
32
1 21 1
47. Answer (3)  RH  2   – 
P4 + 3O2  P4O6  4 9
124 g 220 g 9 9
62 g 110 g x
5 5RH
amount of P4O6 = 110 × .8
1
= 88 g  RH 
48. Answer (2) x
Emetal = 24 – 8 = 16 Now, for H atom, n1 = 1 and n2 = 
 Emetal chloride = 16 +35.5 = 51.5 1  1 1 
 RHZ2  2 – 2 
49. Answer (1)  n
 1 n 2 
C2H4 + 3O2  2CO2 + 2H2O
1  1 1
28 g 67.2 L   1  2 – 
2

7g 16.8 L x  1 
 
50. Answer (2)
=x

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE_XI

60. Answer (4) 71. Answer (3)

for 4p orbitals, total nodes = n –1 = 3 Ce(58)....4f1 5d1 6s2 is a f-block element
61. Answer (1) 72. Answer (3)
Pauli’s exclusion principle states that no two Element iH (kJ/mol)
electrons in an atom can have same set of He + 48
four quantum numbers. Ne + 116
62. Answer (3) Ar + 96
Kr + 96
73. Answer (3)
Os can show + 8 oxidation state
74. Answer (4)
4s2 3d5 is Mn
75. Answer (3)
In the modern periodic table
On moving top to bottom, Electropositive
character increases.
On moving left to right, electropositive
character decreases.
63. Answer (2) 76. Answer (1)
w0 = 10.0 eV
Element eg H (kJ/mol)
c O – 141
w0= h0 = h
o S – 200
hc 6.626  10 –34  3  108 Se – 195
o   Te – 190
w0 10  1.6  10 –19
77. Answer (2)
= 1.24 × 10–7 m The IE Be > B (Be has fully filled 2s subshell)
= 124 nm and IE of N > O (N is exactly half filled p-
64. Answer (3) subshell)
Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle states that 78. Answer (1)
it is impossible to determine simultaneously, When 35.5 g of Cl converts into Cl–, the
the exact position and exact momentum (or energy released is 348.5 kJ
velocity) of an electron. When 3.55 g of Cl converts into Cl–, the
energy released is 34.85 kJ
65. Answer (3)
79. Answer (1)
Order of penetration power is Li shows diagonal relationship with Mg.
s>p>d>f 80. Answer (4)
66. Answer (3) % Ionic character = 16 (EN) + 3.5 (EN)2
For n = 3, l can be 2, 1, 0 = 16 × 1 + 3.5 (1)2
67. Answer (4) = 19.5 %
81. Answer (2)
MgO is a basic oxide
Mendeleev’s Periodic Law
Cl2O7 and CO2 are acidic oxides The properties of elements are a period
Al2O3 is an amphoteric oxide function of their atomic weights.
68. Answer (3) Modern Period Law
Ag(47) ..... is a d-block element The properties of elements are periodic
function of their atomic number
69. Answer (3) 82. Answer (2)
s block elements together with p block The effective nuclear charge of Al3+ is greater
elements are called as representative than that of Mg2+ and because of this reason
elements. the ionic size of Al3+ < Mg2+.
70. Answer (1) 83. Answer (3)
The s block element are not found pure in Eka - aluminium is Gallium
nature because of their high reactivity. Eka - silicon is Germanium

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE _XI

84. Answer (2) Both of the given statements are correct.

Diagonal Relationship 102. Answer (3)
Poales is order
103. Answer (4)
85. Answer (3)
‘Systema’ is a latin word.
Atomic No. 101
104. Answer (2)
IUPAC official name Mendelevium
86. Answer (2) Archaebacteria have different cell wall
structure. Histone proteins are absent in
The mass of electrons is least
most.
ch arg e
 is maximum
ratio 105. Answer (4)
87. Answer (1) Cyanobacteria often from blooms in polluted
For same shell, the order of ionization of
water bodies.
electrons belonging to different orbitals is
s>p>d>f 106. Answer (3)
88. Answer (3) Herbaria serve as quick referral system in
The general electronic configuration of d-
taxonomical studies
block element is (n – 1)1 – 10 ns0 – 2
89. Answer (4) 107. Answer (3)
Zn, Cd, Hg are not typical transition elements
Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission.
90. Answer (4)
Sometimes under unfavorable conditions,
group 16 elements are called as chalcogens
they produce spores.
91. Answer (1)
Intrinsic growth and Metabolism are defining 108. Answer (2)
features of life forms
Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen
92. Answer (2)
About 1.7 – 1.8 million species are known and 109. Answer (2)
described Methanogens produce methane (biogas)
93. Answer (2) which is also green house gas.
Kingdom fungi and animalia exhibit only
110. Answer (2)
heterotrophic mode of nutrition
94. Answer (3) Mycoplasma & Euglena lack cell wall.
Bacteria as a group show most extensive 111. Answer (4)
metabolic diversity
95. Answer (2) Chemosynthetic autotrophs use inorganic
Prokaryotes lack these cell organelles. substance for energy production
96. Answer (2) 112. Answer (1)
Carl Woese grouped all the organisms in Euglenoids can be photosynthetic in the
three domains on the basis of 16s rRNA
presence of sunlight
genes.
97. Answer (4) 113. Answer (1)
Systematics includes phylogeny. Diatoms have silica deposited cell wall and
98. Answer (2) they have chlorophyll.
Anabaena and Nostoc are photosynthetic.
114. Answer (1)
99. Answer (1)
Archaebacteria differ, from other bacteria in Pigments of euglenoids are identical to those
having different cell wall composition present in higher plants.
100. Answer (1) 115. Answer (4)
Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae Red dinoflagellates undergo rapid
101. Answer (3) multiplication and make the sea appear red.

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE_XI

116. Answer (3) 134. Answer (3)

Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness (1) Condensation & coiling of chromatin
fibres- Leptotene
117. Answer (1)
(2) Exchange of genetic material–pachytene
Halophiles can survive in extreme salty area (3) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex-
118. Answer (2) Diplotene
Boundaries of Kingdom Protista are not well (4) Terminalisation of chiasmata-Diakinesis
defined (5) Alignment of bivalent on equatorial plate-
119. Answer (4) Metaphase I
‘9+2’ organisation of cilia/flagella is seen in 135. Answer (2)
eukaryotes. Pollen grain is haploid. The megaspore
120. Answer (4) mother cell (2n) will have 32 chromosome at
G2 phase and amount of DNA would be 4
Paramecium is a heterotroph
times of pollen grain, i.e., 4(20 pg)  80 pg.
121. Answer (3)
136. Answer (3)
Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a similar to Hepatocytes are hepatic cells.
green plants
137. Answer (3)
122. Answer (4) Gastric juice of infant contains pepsin, rennin
Bacteria produce spores under unfavourable and small amounts of gastric lipase.
conditions 138. Answer (4)
123. Answer (3) The exocrine part of pancreas is called
Entamoeba causes dysentery, spores of pancreatic acini
slime moulds are dispersed by air currents, 139. Answer (3)
chrysophytes include diatoms and desmids Vomiting centre is present in medulla.
124. Answer (1) 140. Answer (3)
Methanogens are found is marshy areas. CCK-PZ stimulates pancreas to secrete
Diatoms are planktons pancreatic enzymes while secretin stimulate
pancreas to secrete bicarbonate ions into
125. Answer (4)
pancreatic juice.
Fungi are eukaryotes have cell wall and are 141. Answer (2)
heterotrophs Removal of pancreas leads to impaired
126. Answer (3) digestion of fats, thus they have fatty stools
Whittaker proposed kingdom fungi 142. Answer (4)
127. Answer (3) Tooth sensitivity is caused by worn tooth
In plants growth in indeterminate enamel
128. Answer (4) 143. Answer (1)
Minimum pH is of gastric juice and maximum
Amoeba shows binary fission.
pH is of pancreatic juice.
129. Answer (2) pH of
Animals, mammals and dogs represent (i) Gastric juice – 1.8
different taxa at different levels (ii) Saliva – 6.8
130. Answer (1) (iii) Intestinal juice – 7.6
Museums are generally set up in educational (iv) Pancreatic juice – 8.4
institutes. 144. Answer (4)
131. Answer (1) Opening of hepato pancreatic duct is guarded
Neutral solutes may move, across plasma by Sphincter of Oddi and it opens into the
membrane by simple diffusion, along the duodenum
concentration gradient Stomach is lined by simple columnar
132. Answer (3) epithelium
Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme which digests
Cell wall is non-living
milk protein in infants but Renin is a hormone
133. Answer (4) released by JGA of kidney to regulate kidney
Eukaryotes have both 70S and 80S functions. It converts Angiotensinogen
ribosomes Angiotensin.

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE _XI

145. Answer (4) 160. Answer (3)

Bilirubin and biliverdin are components of bile. CCK-PZ stimulates pancreas to release
Steapsin is fat digesting enzyme present in enzymes in the pancreatic juice
pancreatic juice 161. Answer (3)
146. Answer (4) Nucleases are part of pancreatic juice
Sphincter of boyden guards the opening of 162. Answer (4)
common bile duct. Lactase is the enzyme of succus entricus
147. Answer (4) (intestinal juice)
Each lower molar has two roots 163. Answer (1)
148. Answer (4) During indigestion , the food is not properly
Mucosa also forms glands in the stomach digested leading to a feeling of fullness.
called gastric glands and crypts in between 164. Answer (2)
the bases of villi in the intestine called crypts Bile juice has no digestive enymes
of Lieberkuhn 165. Answer (4)
149. Answer (1) There are very few common vegetable
Parietal or oxyntic cells secrete HCl and sources of the vitamin B12. Therefore, vegans
intrinsic factor which is essential for must use a supplement of B12.
absorption of Vitamin B12
166. Answer (1)
150. Answer (3)
If a bone is heat dried, its organic matter is
Peptic or chief cells secrete the proenzyme destroyed and inorganic part is left behind
pepsinogen
167. Answer (3)
151. Answer (3)
Oligodendrocytes are ectodermal in origin
Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme,
168. Answer (1)
enterokinase secreted by the intestinal
mucosa, into trypsin which in turn activates Melatonin is secreted by pars intermedia of
the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice pituitary gland
152. Answer (1) 169. Answer (4)
Salivary amylase hydrolyses about 30% of Ligaments and tendons are the example of
starch into a disaccharide-maltose in buccal dense regular connective tissue
cavity 170. Answer (4)
153. Answer (2) Chondroclast is responsible decaying of
A heterodont is an animal whioch posseses cartilage
more than a single tooth morphology. 171. Answer (1)
154. Answer (3) DNA ligase join two DNA fragments by
Gullet is opening of digestive tract while glottis forming phosphodiester bond between them
opening of is respiratory tract 172. Answer (4)
155. Answer (3) Prostaglandins are inflammatory mediators
Secretin stimulates alkaline secretion and are derivatives of arachidonic acid
156.Answer (2) 173. Answer (3)
Pancreatic lipase (steapsin) hydrolizes fat into The concentration of the substrate at which
glycerol and fatty acids. half the maximum velocity of enzyme reaction
is attained, is the Km value.
MAG – Monoacylglycerols
174. Answer (3)
DAG – Diacylglycerols
Hydrolases belong to class III
157. Answer (2)
175. Answer (1)
The pancreatic juice contains-trypsinogen
chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, Enzymes require different optimum pH for
amylase lipase and nuclease. maximal activity
158. Answer (3) 176. Answer (4)
Pancreatic polypeptide (PP) inhibits the Initially, with increase in substrate
release of pancreatic juice from the pancreas. concentration rate of reaction increases, but
when all enzymes get saturated with
159. Answer (2)
substrate molecules rate of reaction becomes
30% starch is hydrolysed in buccal cavity by constant
the action of salivary amylase (ptyalin)

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FT-03 (Code-A) CoE_XI

177. Answer (1) 179. Answer (3)

Coenzymes are organic and loosely bound to Pellagra is caused by lack of vitamin B3
apo-enzyme for a transient period i.e., during (Niacin)
catalysis. 180. Answer (2)
178. Answer (1) Peptide bond is present between amino acids
Uracil is one of the four nitrogenous bases in in proteins
RNA.



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