20-03-2022 ARM-G5

CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

TRIWEEKLY TEST 03
MM : 360 Time : 90 Min.

(KAMD 01, 02, 03 & KNAMD 01)

Topics covered :
Physics : Motion in a Plane
Chemistry : Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties.
Botany : Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
Zoology : Digestion & Absorption

Instructions :

(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions
from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :

SECTION - A 1
(3) m/s2 towards north west
1. The coordinates of a moving particle at any 2
time ‘t’ are given by x = βt3 and y = αt3. The (4) Zero
speed of the particle at time ‘t’ is given by 3. A particle is moving with a velocity
(1) 3t2[α2 + β2] (2) t 2 2
α +β 2 ( 6i + 8 j ) m/s . If initially particle is at origin then
magnitude of displacement of particle at t = 2 s
(3) 3t 2 α 2 + β2 (4) 9t 2 α 2 + β2
(1) 20 m (2) 7 2 m
2. A particle is moving towards east with a
velocity of 5 m/s. In 10 seconds the velocity (3) 10 m (4) 14 2 m
changes to 5 m/s towards north. Average 4. A particle moving with a velocity 0.4 m/s is
acceleration in this time is subjected to an acceleration of 0.15 m/s2 for
1 two seconds in the direction at right angle to
(1) m/s2 towards north west the initial direction of motion. The magnitude of
2
final velocity is
1
(2) m/s2 towards north east (1) 0.3 m/s (2) 0.4 m/s
2
(3) 0.5 m/s (4) 0.7 m/s

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Tri Weekly_Test-3 (RM G5_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2023

5. The position vector of the particle is given as 12. A particle is projected from origin, with an initial
 
= r (4t 2 iˆ + t 3 j ) m where t is in second. The velocity v (5i + 8 j ) m/s
= and uniform
magnitude of acceleration of the particle at 
t = 1 s will be acceleration a = −10 ˆj m/s2 . The Y component
(1) 6 m/s2 (2) 14 m/s2 of the displacement at t = 0.8 s is
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2 (1) 3.2 m (2) 6.2 m
 (3) 3.6 m (4) 1.8 m
6. v (2i + 3 j ) m/s is
A particle has intial velocity =
 13. A body is projected with initial velocity 10iˆ m/s
a (3i + j ) m/s 2 .
moving with an acceleration = 
The displacement vector of the particle at and uniform acceleration a = 10 jˆ m/s2. After
t = 2 s will be what time the velocity along x-axis and y-axis
(1) (5i + 4 j ) m (2) (3i + 4 j ) m are equal?
(1) t = 5 s (2) t = 3 s
(3) (8i + 5 j ) m (4) (10i + 8 j ) m

j
(3) t = 1 s (4) t = 2 s
7. A particle moves in space such that x = 2t3 + 14. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves
3t + 4 and y = t2 + 4t – 1. Find acceleration of

a
in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its
the particle at t = 3 s (Where x, y are in m and t
is in s) coordinates at a later time are ( 3, 3) . The

r
2 2 displacement vector of the particle makes with
(1) 2 7 m/s (2) 39 m/s
x-axis an angle of
(3) 26 m/s2 (4) 10 13 m/s2

h
(1) 30° (2) 45°
8. A particle moves in x-y plane such that its


tr
(3) 60° (4) 0°
position vector is given by=r sin ti + cos t j .
Find the component of its acceleration in the 15. A particle has initial velocity (2 j + 3k ) and

acceleration of (0.3 j + 0.2 k ). The magnitude of

direction of velocity at time t.
(1) cos 2t (2) 1
velocity after 10 s will be

ia
(3) 0 (4) sin2t
9. The velocities in x and y direction of a particle (1) 9 2 unit (2) 5 2 unit
moving in x-y plane is given by vx = a0t and (3) 5 unit (4) 9 unit
vy = λx when a0 and λ are constants. Then
trajectory of the particle will be, if (at t = 0 it was 16. The x and y coordinates of particle at any time t
at origin) are given by x = 7t + 4t2 and y = 5t (where

@
x and y are in meter). The acceleration of the
2λ 2 x 2 9λ 2 x 2 particle at t = 2 s will be
(1) y 3 = (2) y 3 =
9a0 2a0 (1) 8 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
9λ 2 x 2 2λ 2 x 3 (3) 16 m/s2 (4) Zero
(3) y 2 = (4) y 2 =
2a0 9a0 17. At t = 0 the velocity and acceleration of a particle
 
10. A particle moves in x-y plane such that its are v= (i + 2 j ) m/s and = a (2i + 4 j ) m/s2
 respectively. The position vector of the particle
a 2iˆ − t 2 ˆj . Initially
acceleration is given as =
at t = 2 s will be
particle is at origin and it is started from rest.
Find position vector of particle at t = 2 sec. (1) (3i + 6 j ) m (2) (6i + 12 j ) m
(1) iˆ − jˆ (2) 4iˆ − 3 jˆ (3) (8i + 10 j ) m (4) (2i + 6 j ) m
4ˆ 3ˆ ˆ 18. The velocity vector of a particle is given as
(3) 4iˆ − j (4) i−j 
3 4 v (3ti + 4 j ) m/s , the magnitude of average
=
11. A person moves with velocity 25 km/h towards acceleration of the particle between t = 0 and
east, then he moves towards the north with a t = 3 s will be
velocity 25 3 km/h. What will be the magnitude (1) 6 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
of the change in velocity? (3) 2 m/s2 (4) 3 m/s2
(1) 25 3 km/h (2) 25 km/h 19. A particle is moving such that its position
co-ordinates (x, y) are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0,
(3) 50 3 km/h (4) 50 km/h
(6 m, 7 m) at t = 2s and (13 m, 14 m) at time

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Regular Year Medical-2023 Tri Weekly_Test-3 (RM G5_Code-A1)

t = 5 s. Average velocity vector (Vavg ) from 27. A particle of mass m is projected from ground
with velocity v at an angle of 30° with the
t = 0 to t = 5 s is horizontal. When the particle reaches ground,
1 7   the magnitude of change in its velocity will be
(1) (13i + 14 j ) (2) (i + j ) m/s
5 3 v
(1) v (2)
2
(3) 2(i + j ) m/s
11  
(4) (i + j ) m/s
5 3
(3) v (4) 2v
20. A body is projected horizontally from the top of 2
a tower with velocity 9.8 m/s. After what time 28. For a particle moving in x-y plane, x and y
will the horizontal velocity and vertical velocity coordinates are varying as x = a sinωt and
be equal y = a(1 – cosωt) where a and ω are constant.
(1) t = 2 s (2) t = 3 s Then trajectory of particle is
(3) t = 1 s (4) Never (1) Elliptical (2) Parabolic
21. Two bullets are fired simultaneously, (3) Circular (4) Linear
horizontally but with different speed from the
29. A particle is projected at an angle α to
same place. Which bullet hit ground first? horizontal with velocity u. The time after which
(1) The faster one it would be moving parallel to the horizontal
(2) The slower one direction is
(3) Both will reach simultaneously u cosec α u sin α
(1) (2)
(4) Depends on the masses g g
22. A projectile is fired from ground at an angle 60° u cos α u cot α
(3) (4)
with the horizontal. The angle with the g g
horizontal at which does the projectile hit the 30. The trajectory of a projectile is given as y = 3x
ground at same level is – 4x2, the range of projectile is
(1) 30° (2) 60° (1) 4 m (2) 3 m
(3) 45° (4) 0° 1 3
(3) m (4) m
23. If maximum height reached by projectile is 4 m 2 4
and horizontal range is 12 m, then velocity of 31. The acceleration of a projectile w.r.t. another
projection is projectile is
g g (1) –g (2) g
(1) 5 (2) 4
2 2 (3) 2g (4) Zero
32. An aeroplane flying horizontally at an altitude of
1 g 1 g
(3) (4) 490 m with speed 180 km/h drops a bomb. The
4 2 5 2 horizontal distance at which it hits the ground
24. A body is projected at angle 30° to horizontal (1) 500 m (2) 1000 m
with velocity 50 m/s. Its time of flight is (g = 10
(3) 250 m (4) 50 m
m/s2)
33. A stone is thrown horizontally with velocity g
(1) 4 s (2) 5 s m/s from the top of a tower of height g meter.
(3) 6 s (4) 7 s The velocity (in m/s) with which it hits the
25. A projectile is projected with certain velocity u ground is (g is magnitude of acceleration due to
to have a range ‘R’. If t1 and t2 be times taken gravity)
to reach this point in two possible ways then (1) g (2) 2g
g (3) 3g (4) 4g
(1) t1 + t2 = 2R (2) t1t2 =
2R 34. A body is projected from height of 60 m with
R 2R velocity 10 m/s at an angle 30° to horizontal.
(3) t1 + t2 = (4) t1 × t2 =
2g g The time of flight of the body is
26. A ball is projected horizontally from a tower (1) 4 s (2) 2 s
with a velocity of 4 m/s. Its velocity magnitude (3) 1 s (4) 3 s
after 0.3 seconds is (g = 10 m/s2) 35. A ball is projected obliquely with velocity 49 m/s
(1) 8.06 m/s (2) 10.5 m/s strikes the ground at a distance of 245 m from
(3) 5 m/s (4) 6 m/s the point of projection. It remains in air for

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Tri Weekly_Test-3 (RM G5_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2023

(1) 10 s (2) 5 2 s (1) g (2) g

(3) 3 s (4) 2.5 s (3) 2g (4) 2g
SECTION - B
44. ( )
A body is thrown with velocity 4iˆ + 3 jˆ m/s. Its
36. A body is projected at an angle 30° to the
maximum height is (g = 10 m/s2)
horizontal with a speed of 30 m/s. The angle
made by the velocity vector with the horizontal (1) 2.5 m (2) 0.8 m
after 1.5 s is (g = 10 m/s2) (3) 0.9 m (4) 0.45 m
(1) Zero (2) 60° 45. In entire path of projectile, the quantity that
(3) 45° (4) 90° remains unchanged is
37. A body is projected with velocity 24 m/s making (1) Vertical component of velocity
an angle 30° with the horizontal. The vertical
component of velocity after 2 s is (g = 10 m/s2) (2) Horizontal component of velocity
(1) 8 m/s upward (2) 8 m/s downward (3) Linear momentum
(3) 32 m/s upward (4) 32 m/s downward (4) Kinetic energy
38. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is 46. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is
5 x
y = 10x – x2. If we assume g = 10 m/s2, then =y − 2 x 2 . Where x and y are in meter and
9 3
range of the projectile (in m) is
t is in second. The angle of projection of
(1) 36 (2) 24 projectile is
(3) 18 (4) 9 (1) 60° (2) 45°
39. For a projectile projected from ground the ratio
(3) 30° (4) 90°
of maximum height reached to the square of
flight time is (g = 10 m/s2) 47. A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 28 ms–1 in
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 5 : 2 a direction 30° above the horizontal. The
distance from the thrower to the point where
(3) 5 : 1 (4) 10 : 1
the ball return to the same level is
40. The maximum distance to which a man can approximately (g = 9.8 m/s2)
throw a ball by projecting it horizontally from
height h is h. The maximum distance to which (1) 10 m (2) 20 m
he can throw it vertically up is (3) 69 m (4) 82 m
(1) h (2) 2h 48. A ball thrown by one player reaches the other
h h player of same height in 2 s. The maximum
(3) (4) height attained by the ball above the point of
2 4
projection will be (g = 10 m/s2)
41. It is possible to project a particle with a given
speed in two possible ways, so that it has the (1) 10 m (2) 7.5 m
same horizontal range ‘R’. The product of time (3) 5 m (4) 25 m
taken by it in the two possible ways 49. A projectile is projected at angle of 15° to the
R 2R horizontal with some velocity v. If another
(1) (2) projectile is projected with the same speed then
g g
at what angle it must be projected with
3R 4R horizontal so as to have the same range?
(3) (4)
g g (1) 12.5° (2) 75°
42. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height (3) 65° (4) It is never possible
1
is time of its initial speed of an oblique 50. The height y and distance x along the
2
horizontal, for a body projected in the x - y
projectile. The angle of projection with the
plane are given by
vertical will be
y = 8t – t2 and x = 6t, the initial speed of
(1) 30° (2) 60° projection is (x, y are in meter and t in seconds)
(3) 45° (4) 37° (1) 8 m/s (2) 9 m/s
43. A person throws a bottle into a dustbin at the
(4)   m/s
10
same height as he is 2 m away at an angle of (3) 10 m/s
45°. The velocity of projection is  3 

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Regular Year Medical-2023 Tri Weekly_Test-3 (RM G5_Code-A1)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A (3) O– → O2– (4) H → H–
51. The atomic numbers of elements of 1st inner 61. In the following which configuration of element
transition elements lie in the range of has maximum electronegativity?
(1) 57 to 70 (2) 58 to 71 (1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5

(3) 59 to 72 (4) 60 to 73 (2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6

(3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p4
52. Which of the following elements has the
maximum metallic character? (4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5
(1) Li (2) Na 62. The number of paired electrons in oxygen atom
is
(3) K (4) Cs
(1) 6 (2) 4
53. An element belongs to 13th group and 3rd
period of periodic table. Which of the following (3) 2 (4) 8
properties will be shown by the element? 63. The incorrect statement among the following is
(1) Gaseous, non-metallic (1) The first ionisation potential of Al is less
than the first ionisation potential of Mg.
(2) Liquid, non-metallic
(2) The second ionisation potential of Mg is
(3) Solid, non-metallic
greater than the second ionisation potential
(4) Solid, metallic of Na.
54. Most acidic oxide among the following is (3) The first ionisation potential of Na is less
(1) Na2O (2) MgO than the first ionisation potential of Mg.
(4) The third ionisation potential of Mg is
(3) SiO2 (4) Cl2O7
greater than the third ionisation potential of
55. Lithium is diagonally related to Al.
(1) Si (2) Al 64. Transuranium element is:-
(3) Na (4) Mg (1) Th (2) U
56. The ionic size decreases in the order. (3) Np (4) Ac
(1) K+ > S2– > Sc3+ > V5+ > Mn7+ 65. The block in the modern periodic table which
contains metals, non-metals as well as
(2) S2– > K+ > Sc3+ > V5+ > Mn+7
metalloids is
(3) Mn7+ > V5+ > Sc3+ > K+ > S2–
(1) s-block (2) p-block
(4) Mn7+ > V5+ > Sc3+ > S2– > K+ (3) d-block (4) f-block
57. Which of the following order regarding first 66. Symbol for element having Z = 104 is
ionization energy is correct?
(1) Unq (2) Unt
(1) O > C > N (2) O > N > C
(3) Uut (4) Uuq
(3) N > O > C (4) N > C > O 67. Number of valence shell electrons for
58. Which of the following elements has the least Se(selenium) is
electron affinity? (1) 4 (2) 5
(1) F (2) Cl (3) 6 (4) 7
(3) Br (4) I 68. Element having highest positive electron gain
59. Choose the s-block element in the following: enthalpy is
(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5, 4s1 (1) He (2) Ne
(2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s1 (3) Ar (4) Kr
(3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1 69. Pair of metals which are liquid at 35°C.
(4) All of the above (1) Rb and Cs (2) Cs and Ga
60. The process which requires absorption of (3) Na and Ga (4) Hg and K
energy is 70. Which among the following has highest
(1) F → F– (2) Cl → Cl– electronegativity?

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Tri Weekly_Test-3 (RM G5_Code-A1) Regular Year Medical-2023

(1) C (2) Si 80. If the atomic number of an element is 60, it will

(3) N (4) P be placed in the periodic table in the
71. Pnictogens is the other name of (1) 4th group, 7th period (2) 4th group, 6th
(1) 15th Group (2) 16th Group period
(3) 17th Group (4) 18th Group
(3) 3rd group, 7th period (4) 3rd group, 6th
72. Fe2+ is isoelectronic with
period
(1) Cu2+ (2) Mn2+
81. Shape of ClF3 is
(3) Cr3+ (4) Co3+
73. Diagonal relationship is shown by (1) See-saw

(1) O, C (2) Trigonal planar

(2) Na, Ca (3) Pyramidal

(3) N, P (4) Bent T-shape
(4) Be, Al 82. Atomic number 116 is written in IUPAC as
74. Which of the following species will have the (1) Ununhexium (2) Ununoctium
smallest size? (3) Ununnillium (4) Ununquadium
(1) Mg (2) Mg 2+
83. Paramagnetic species among the following is
(3) Al (4) Al 3+
(1) C2 (2) H2
75. Which is not a representative element? (3) N2 (4) O2
(1) Na (2) Fe 84. Which of the following has the highest electron
(3) Ca (4) S affinity?

76. The noble gas having highest value of positive (1) F (2) Cl
electron gain enthalpy is (3) Br (4) I
(1) He (2) Ne 85. Which among the following is a representative
element?
(3) Ar (4) Kr (1) S (2) Cu
77. The correct increasing order of metallic (3) Ti (4) Ag
character is SECTION - B
(1) P < Si < Na < Mg 86. IUPAC nomenclature of the element having
atomic number 110 is
(2) Na < Mg < Si < P
(1) Unnilunium (2) Unununnium
(3) Mg < Na < Si < P (3) Unnilbium (4) Ununnillium
(4) P < Si < Mg < Na 87. Eka-Aluminium is
78. Out of Na+, O, Na and N, the species having (1) Germanium
maximum and minimum ionisation energies (2) Boron
respectively are (3) Carbon
(1) O, N (2) N, Na+ (4) Gallium
88. The pair of elements which does not show
(3) Na+, Na (4) N, Na diagonal relationship is
79. Which among the following element is of (1) B and Si (2) Be and Al
highest electronegativity? (3) Li and Mg (4) C and P
(1) F 89. Most electronegative element among the
following is
(2) Br
(1) B (2) Al
(3) I
(3) C (4) Si
(4) Cl 90. Which among the following is a neutral oxide?
(1) N2O (2) NO2

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Regular Year Medical-2023 Tri Weekly_Test-3 (RM G5_Code-A1)

(3) CO2 (4) Al2O3 (3) 33 (4) 34

91. IUPAC official name of element having atomic 96. Number of paired electrons in oxygen atom
number 104 is is
(1) Mendelevium (2) Nobelium (1) 6 (2) 16
(3) Lawrencium (4) Rutherfordium (3) 8 (4) 32
92. Correct order of negative electron gain 97. Decreasing size of K , Ca2+, Cl– and S2– follows
+

enthalpy of the given element is the order :

(1) S > O > Cl > F (1) K+ > Ca2+ > S2– > Cl–
(2) Cl > F > S > O (2) K+ > Ca2+ > Cl– > S2–
(3) Cl > F > O > S (3) Ca2+ > K+ > Cl– > S2–
(4) Cl > S > F > O (4) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
93. Number of valence electrons present in an 98. The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV.
element (X) having atomic number 34 is The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will
be
(1) 4 (2) 5
(1) –5.1 eV (2) –10.2 eV
(3) 7 (4) 6
(3) +2.55 eV (4) –2.55 eV
94. Correct order of atomic radius of the given
elements is 99. Which among the following belongs to
chalcogen family?
(1) Mg > Al > Si > Na
(1) S (2) P
(2) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(3) Cl (4) Al
(3) Si > Al > Mg > Na
100. Most electropositive element among the
(4) Mg > Na > Al > Si following is
95. The electronic configuration of an element is (1) Li
1s22s22p63s23p5. Atomic number of the element
present just below this element in the periodic (2) Cs
table is (3) Na
(1) 36 (2) 35 (4) K

BOTANY

SECTION - A 106. First action spectrum of photosynthesis was

described by
101. Law of limiting factors w.r.t. photosynthesis was
given by (1) T.W. Engelmann (2) Jan Ingenhousz
(1) Amon and Stout (2) Blackman (3) Julius von Sachs (4) C.V. Niel
(3) Jan Ingenhousz (4) T.W. Engelmann 107. During chromatographic separation of leaf
pigments, which of the given photosynthetic
102. Light between ___ wavelength constitute the pigments appear bright or blue-green in the
photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). chromatogram?
(1) 400-700 nm (2) 200-400 nm (1) Chlorophyll a
(3) 300-500 nm (4) 50-100 nm (2) Chlorophyll b
103. Which of the given is major limiting factor (3) Xanthophyll
influencing rate of photosynthesis?
(4) Carotenoids
(1) CO2 concentration (2) Light intensity
108. Which of the given is not associated with
(3) Water (4) Temperature photochemical phase of photosynthesis?
104. How many ATPs are required during (1) Assimilation of CO2 to carbohydrates
regeneration of PEP from C3 acid during hatch-
slack pathway? (2) Production of ATP and NADPH
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) Absorption of light energy
(3) 1 (4) 5 (4) Splitting of water
105. Double carboxylation is a characteristic of 109. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
which of the given plants? photosystem-I.
(1) Tomato (2) Wheat (1) It is associated with release of O2
(3) Maize (4) Rice (2) It participates in both cyclic as well as non-
cyclic flow of electrons

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Tri Weekly_Test-3 (RM G5_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2023

(3) It is found in both grana and stroma 118. The correct equation, that would represent the
lamellae overall process of photosynthesis is
(4) It lies on the outer surface of thylakoid
(1) C6H12O6 + 6O2 
Sunlight
chlorophyll
→ 6CO2 + 6H2O
110. Cyclic photophosphorylation
(1) Requires an external electron donor (2) 6CO2 + 6H2O 
Sunlight
Chlorophyll
→ C6H12O6 + 6O2
(2) Is performed by collaboration of both Ps-I
and II + Energy
(3) Synthesizes ATP only (3) CO2 + H2O 
Sunlight
Chlorophyll
→ CH2O + O2
(4) Fixes CO2 in green plants only
111. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. (4) 6CO2 + 12H2O 
Sunlight
Chlorophyll
→ C6H12O6 + 6O2
photosynthesis
+ 6H2O
(1) It is primary source of food on earth
(2) It is maximum in green light 119. Select the correct match w.r.t. photosynthesis
from the following.
(3) It is responsible for the release of oxygen
into atmosphere (1) Maximum absorption of – Blue region
(4) It is an endergonic process light
112. Which of the given is primary acceptor of CO2 (2) Least absorption of light – Red region
during C3 cycle?
(1) 2-Carbon compound (3) Maximum photosynthesis – Green region
(2) 5-carbon ketose sugar (4) Chief pigment – Chlorophyll b
(3) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(4) Oxaloacetic acid 120. Reaction centre of PS I is (i) and reaction
113. To fix each CO2 molecule entering Calvin cycle, centre of PS II is (ii) .
how many molecules of ATP and NADPH
respectively are required? Here (i) and (ii) respectively are
(1) 3 and 2 (1) P680 and P700 (2) P700 and P680
(2) 2 and 3 (3) P800 and P600 (4) P700 and P780
(3) 3 and 3 121. Photolysis of water results in the release of
(4) 2 and 2
(1) Electrons, protons and oxygen
114. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. C4
pathway (2) Protons and O2 only
(1) The primary CO2 acceptor is phosphoenol (3) Electrons and O2only
pyruvate (4) Electrons and protons only
(2) The first stable product is 3C-compound 122. Which among the following is not a step in
(3) It occurs in the mesophyll and bundle Calvin cycle?
sheath cells of leaves
(4) PEP is found in mesophyll cells (1) Carboxylation
115. Which of the given is not a C4 plant? (2) Reduction
(1) Sorghum (3) Photophosphorylation
(2) Maize (4) Regeneration of RUBP
(3) Amaranthus
123. Which of the following is wrong with respect to
(4) Tomato
C4 plants?
116. During photorespiration loss of CO2 occurs in
(1) These plants are adapted to dry tropical
(1) Chloroplast
regions
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Mitochondria (2) They can tolerate higher temperature
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Their leaves show Kranz anatomy and they
117. Who in 1770 revealed the essential role of air show photorespiration
in the growth of green plants through his (4) They show more efficient process of carbon
experiments? fixation
(1) Engelmann (2) Joseph Priestley
(3) Ingenhousz (4) Van Niel
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Two Year Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-5(TYMRG1_Code-A)

124. The process that makes important difference (1) Bundle sheath cell (2) Mesophyll cell
between C3 and C4 plants is
(3) Epidermal cell (4) Bulliform cells
(1) Glycolysis
130. Choose the oddone plant w.r.t. Kranz anatomy.
(2) Transpiration
(1) Sorghum (2) Maize
(3) Translocation of food
(3) Wheat (4) Amaranthus
(4) Photorespiration
131. Pigment chlorophyll a
125. Law of limiting factor was given by
(1) Hatch and Slack (2) Blackman (1) Consists of porphyrin tail and phytol head
(3) Melvin Calvin (4) P. Mitchell (2) Is the site of electrons re-arrangement
when they are excited
126. How many ATP and NADPH are required
respectively to form five molecules of glucose (3) Is a cyclic tetrapyrrolic structure with
in rice plant? manganese atom
(1) 90 NADPH2 and 60 ATP (4) Is a tadpole like structure with yellow
orange colour in the chromatogram
(2) 90 ATP and 90 NADPH2
(3) 60 NADPH2 and 90 ATP 132. Accessory pigments

(4) 150 ATP and 60 NADPH2 (1) Absorb light of different wavelengths and
prevent photo-oxidation of chlorophyll
127. Select the correct match.
(2) Include all pigments other than chlorophyll b
(1) Cyclic photophos- – Involvement of
(3) Are called antenna molecule which take
phorylation both PS I and
energy from chlorophyll molecule
PS II
(4) Can absorb only narrow range of
(2) Z-scheme – Non-cyclic wavelength of visible spectrum
photophos- 133. How many ATP molecules are required for
phorylation regeneration of 6 molecules of RuBP in C3
(3) Splitting of water – Association of cycle?
PS I (1) 18 (2) 3
(4) PS II – Reaction centre (3) 6 (4) 1
P700 134. C4 plants differ from C3 plants in
128. Read the following statements and select the (1) Consuming lesser ATP than C3 plants per
correct option. cycle
Statement A :There is a linear relationship (2) Lacking bundle sheath cells
between incident light and CO2 fixation rate at (3) Having PEPcase as primary carboxylating
high light intensity. enzyme
Statement B :At higher light intensities (4) Being monocot plants only
gradually the photosynthetic rate show further 135. Who proved that in the presence of sunlight, it
increase as other factors become limiting. is only the green parts of the plants that could
release oxygen?
(1) Both the statements are incorrect
(1) Julius von Sachs
(2) Both the statements are correct
(2) T.W. Engelmann
(3) Only statement A is correct
(3) Jan Ingenhousz
(4) Only statement B is correct
(4) Cornelius van Niel
129. In which of the following cells, malic acid is SECTION - B
synthesised during CO2 fixation in C4 plants?

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Tri Weekly_Test-3 (RM G5_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2023

136. In chromatogram, the chlorophyll ‘a’ appears (3) 1, 3 (4) 2, 3

______ in colour. 143. Kranz anatomy is found in the leaves of
(1) Yellow (2) Blue green (1) Tomato (2) Sugarcane
(3) Yellow orange (4) Yellow green (3) Rice (4) Wheat
137. PS II does not involve 144. Mark the following statements as true (T) or
(1) Splitting of water false (F) and select the correct option.
(2) ATP synthesis A. Regeneration of RuBP is crucial for Calvin
(3) Cyclic flow of electrons cycle to continue uninterrupted.
(4) NADP+ reduction B. Plants adapted to dry tropical regions are
mostly C3 plants.
138. Which among the given, transfers electrons
between PS II and cytochrome B6f complex? C. Calvin cycle is common to the C3 and C4
plants.
(1) Plastoquinone (2) Plastocyanin
A B C
(3) Feredoxin (4) PS I
(1) F T T
139. A. Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs when
only light of wavelength beyond (i) nm is (2) T T F
available. (3) F T F
B. Protons released from splitting of water (4) T F T
arereleased in (ii) . 145. The cold sensitive enzyme of C4 pathway
C. NADP reductase enzyme is located on (1) Is found in bundle sheath cells
(iii) side of thylakoid membrane.
(2) Convert 3C acid to PEP
(i) (ii) (iii) (3) Is found in C3 plants only
(1) 580 stroma lumen (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) 680 lumen of thylakoid stroma 146. Identify the incorrect match.
(3) 680 stroma lumen
(1) Maize – Double fixation of CO2
(4) 580 lumenof thylakoid stroma
140. The primary CO2 acceptor of C3 cycle is (2) Bundle – RuBisCO enzyme
sheath cells
(a) A 5-C compound
(b) A ketose sugar (3) Primary CO2 – RuBP in maize plant
(c) Substrate of RuBisCO acceptor

(d) Absent in C4 plants (4) Oxaloacetic – MesophyllcellsofC4 plants

acid
The correct ones are
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c) 147. Choose the odd one for the products of
only photorespiration.
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (d) only (1) CO2 (2) NH3
141. Stroma lamellae membrane have (3) NADPH (4) Phosphoglycolate
(1) PS I 148. Which among the given reactions does not
(2) PS II occur in Calvin cycle?

(3) Water splitting complex (1) Carboxylation

(4) LHC II (2) Photophosphorylation

142. For fixation of 1 CO2 molecule through Calvin (3) Regeneration
cycle, how many ATP and NADPH molecules (4) Reduction
respectively are required? 149. A Sorghum plant does not have/show
(1) 2, 2 (2) 3, 2 (1) Kranz anatomy
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Two Year Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-5(TYMRG1_Code-A)

(2) Mesophyll cells (1) 3 (2) 5

(3) C3 cycle (3) 2 (4) 4
(4) Photorespiration
150. A C4 plant consume how many extra ATPs than
C3 plant to fix one molecule of CO2?

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 156. In which of the following part of alimentary
canal digestion of food does not occurs with its
151. The enzyme which does not directly act on the
enzyme?
food substance in small intestine of man is
(1) Buccal cavity (2) Oesophagus
(1) Lipase
(3) Stomach (4) Duodenum
(2) Trypsin
157. All the following statements are correct, except
(3) Amylopsin
(1) Small amount of monosaccharides like
(4) Enterokinase glucose and amino acids are absorbed by
152. Identify X and Y in the given reaction and simple diffusion
select the correct option. (2) Absorption of water, simple sugars and
Starch 
Salivary amylase
→Y alcohol occurs in stomach
pH X
(3) Some amounts of glucose and amino acids
(1) X = 6.8, Y = Sucrose are absorbed with the help of carrier
(2) X = 8.0, Y = Maltose proteins
(3) X = 8.0, Y = Lactose (4) Large intestine is the principal organ for
(4) X = 6.8, Y = Maltose absorption of nutrients
153. Which of the following is located in the 158. Identify and select the incorrect reaction.
submucosa layer of alimentary canal?
(1) Trypsinogen 
→ Trypsin
Enterokinase

(1) Gastric glands

(2) Starch 
→ Maltose
Ptyalin
(2) Crypts of Lieberkuhn
(3) Rugae
(3) Maltose → Glucose + Galactose
Maltase
(4) Brunner’s glands
(4) Pepsinogen 
→ Pepsin
HCl
154. Read the following statements w.r.t. tongue.
a. It is freely movable voluntary muscular 159. The number of teeth which appears only once
organ.
in the life of human are ______ in number.
b. It is attached to the floor of buccal cavity. Choose the option which correctly fills the
c. Tongue and teeth with the help of saliva blank.
masticate and mix up the food thoroughly.
(1) 4 (2) 12
d. All papillae have taste buds.
(3) 20 (4) 28
Which of the above given statements are
correct? 160. The largest gland in the body of adult human
weighs about
(1) a, b and c are correct
(1) 2.2-2.5 kg (2) 10 kg
(2) a, b and d are correct
(3) 1.2-1.5 kg (4) 1-5 kg
(3) b, c and d are correct
(4) Only a and c are correct 161. The food undergoes changes in different parts
of the digestive tract. The sequential changes
155. Hepato-pancreatic duct is guarded by a
in pH of bolus when it passes through
sphincter called
alimentary canal is
(1) Sphincter of Boyden (2) Sphincter of Oddi
(1) Acidic → Alkaline → Slightly acidic
(3) Pyloric sphincter (4) Cardiac sphincter
(2) Slightly acidic → Acidic → Alkaline
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Tri Weekly_Test-3 (RM G5_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2023

(3) Alkaline → Acidic → Slightly acidic 167. Layer of alimentary canal lying closer to lumen
is
(4) Slightly acidic → Alkaline → Highly acidic
(1) Mucosa (2) Sub-mucosa
162. Find the energy produced in body in kcal when
a person consumes 10 g pulses, 1 litre water, (3) Muscularis (4) Serosa
10 g butter and 10 g potato? 168. Dental formula for monophyodont teeth in an
adult human is
(1) 1700
2102 0020
(2) 17 (1) (2)
2102 0020
(3) 170
0023 0021
(3) (4)
(4) 17000 0023 0021
163. If oxyntic cells of a person are non-functional, 169. Which enzyme is present in succus entericus
which of the following condition is likely to along with enterokinase?
occur? (1) Trypsin
(1) Absorption of vitamin B12 (2) Chymotrypsin
(2) Ulceration of stomach wall due to (3) Carboxypeptidase
excessive HCl
(4) Maltase
(3) Iron deficiency
170. Marasmus is due to the deficiency of
(4) Conversion of inactive form of enzymes
(1) Proteins only
into active form in stomach
(2) Proteins and water
164. If a sample is extracted from fluid carried by
hepato-pancreatic duct, it can yield all the (3) Carbohydrates and minerals
following, except (4) Proteins and calories
a. Pepsinogen 171. Structural and functional unit of mammalian
b. Chymotrypsinogen liver is
c. Lipase (1) Hepatocyte
d. Bilirubin (2) Hepatic cell
e. Sodium taurocholate (3) Hepatic lobule
f. Aminopeptidase (4) Gall bladder
(1) a only (2) a and f 172. Match the structures in column I with their
respective location in column II.
(3) f only (4) c and e
165. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. hormones Column-I Column-II
and their functions.
a. Glisson’s capsule (i) Pancreas
(1) Gastrin – Increases gastric juice
b. Brunner’s gland (ii) Liver
secretion and motility
(2) CCK-PZ – Contraction of gall bladder c. Islets of (iii) Duodenum
Langerhans
(3) Secretin – Stimulation of gastric motility
(4) GIP – Inhibition of gastric secretion d. Crypts of (iv) Small intestine
Lieberkuhn
and motility
166. How many of the enzymes are present in Choose the correct option.
pancreatic juice? (1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
Ptyalin, Trypsinogen, Nucleases, Sucrase,
Enterokinase, Steapsin, Amylopsin, Lactase, (3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)
Pepsin (4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
173. Select the part of alimentary canal where no
(1) Three (2) Four
digestive enzyme is secreted.
(3) Five (4) Six

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Tri Weekly_Test-3 (RM G5_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2023

(1) Mouth (2) Oesophagus (2) Pharynx into oesophagus

(3) Duodenum (4) Stomach (3) Oesophagus into stomach
174. The stomach generally stores food for (4) Stomach into duodenum
184. The function of ileo-caecal valve is to
(1) 2-3 hours (2) 7-8 hours
(1) Prevent the back flow of the faecal matter
(3) 5-6 hours (4) 4-5 hours in ileum
175. A person suffers from abnormal frequency of (2) Prevent entry of food from small intestine to
bowel movement and increased liquidity of the large intestine
faecal discharge. He may be suffering from (3) Prevent the back flow of food from ileum to
(1) Diarrhoea (2) Indigestion duodenum
(4) Regulate the opening of rectum to outside
(3) Constipation (4) Jaundice through anus
176. Maximum absorption of digested food occurs in 185. Which of the following enzyme is not a part of
(1) Mouth (2) Stomach pancreatic juice?
(3) Small intestine (4) Large intestine (1) Chymotrypsinogen
177. The condition that involves reflex action which (2) Procarboxypeptidase
is controlled by the centre in medulla is (3) Nucleotidase
(1) Vomiting (2) Constipation (4) Lipase

(3) Indigestion (4) Jaundice SECTION - B

178. Unlike marasmus, children suffering from 186. Select the correct pair regarding their gross
kwashiorkor show calorific values.

(1) Wasting of muscles (2) Thinning of (1) Carbohydrate – 4.2 kcal/g

muscles (2) Fats – 9.45 kcal/g
(3) Failure of growth (4) Extensive oedema (3) Proteins – 4.0 kcal/g
179. Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of
(4) Fats + – 9.0 kcal/g
(1) Hepatic duct carbohydrate
(2) Pancreatic duct 187. Glisson’s capsule is the characteristic feature of
(3) Bile duct mammalian
(4) Hepato-pancreatic duct (1) Pancreas (2) Liver
180. The structure in which ileum opens and also (3) Stomach (4) Tongue
hosts some symbiotic micro-organisms in 188. ‘Vomit centre’ is present in which part of the
humans is brain in humans?
(1) Colon (2) Caecum (1) Medulla oblongata
(3) Appendix (4) Rectum (2) Pons
(3) Hypothalamus
181. Milk protein curdling enzyme is secreted by
(4) Diencephalon
(1) Buccal cavity (2) Stomach
189. Substances like glucose and amino acids are
(3) Small intestine (4) Large intestine absorbed via
182. The sequential order of histological layers in (a) Simple diffusion
the alimentary canal from outside to inside is
(b) Facilitated transport
(1) Mucosa → Muscularis mucosa → Sub-
(c) Osmosis
mucosa → Serosa
(d) Active transport
(2) Serosa → Muscularis layer → Sub-
mucosa → Mucosa Select the option that includes the correct set.
(3) Serosa → Mucosa → Sub-mucosa → (1) Only (a) and (b)
Muscularis (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Mucosa → Sub-mucosa → Muscularis (3) Only (b)
layer → Serosa (4) Only (a), (b) and (d)
183. Gastro-oesophageal sphincter regulates the 190. The condition in which the food is not properly
opening of digested leading to a feeling of fullness is
(1) Gullet into pharynx (1) Jaundice

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Tri Weekly_Test-3 (RM G5_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2023

(2) Diarrhoea pancreatic enzyme that is autocatalytic among

(3) Indigestion them?
(4) Constipation (1) Chymotrypsin
191. Thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont teeth (2) Pepsin
are characteristic feature of (3) Carboxypeptidase
(1) Aves (4) Trypsin
(2) Mammals 197. Which content of food is mainly taken up by the
(3) Amphibians lacteals present in the mucosal layer of small
(4) Reptiles intestine?
192. Part of alimentary canal where no digestion of (1) Proteins
food occurs is (2) Carbohydrates
(1) Mouth (3) Fats
(2) Oesophagus
(4) Nucleic acids
(3) Duodenum
198. The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open
(4) Stomach together into the duodenum as the
193. The structure which hosts some symbiotic
(1) Common hepatic duct
micro-organisms is
(1) Duodenum (2) Common hepato-pancreatic duct
(2) Caecum (3) Ductus choledochus
(3) Appendix (4) Cystic duct
(4) Rectum 199. The endocrine portion of pancreas secretes
194. Alcohol is majorly absorbed in (1) Only glucagon
(1) Buccal cavity (2) Stomach (2) Only insulin
(3) Colon (4) Large intestine (3) Cholecystokinin and gastrin
195. Salivary amylase cannot work in the stomach (4) Insulin and glucagon
because it is inactivated by 200. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive
(1) Rennin juices is carried out by local hormones
(2) Pepsin produced by the
(3) HCl (1) Gastric and intestinal submucosa
(2) Gastric and intestinal muscularis
(4) Enterogastrone
(3) Gastric and intestinal serosa
196. Following are proteolytic enzymes that act on
chyme reaching small intestine. Identify the (4) Gastric and intestinal mucosa

  

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