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Social Science_10_PB_QP_ Set B

The document outlines the structure and instructions for a Pre-Board Examination in Social Science for Class X, including six sections with a total of 37 compulsory questions. Each section varies in question type and marks, ranging from multiple-choice questions to long answer questions. The exam is designed to assess students' understanding of various social science concepts and their ability to articulate responses within specified word limits.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
21 views9 pages

Social Science_10_PB_QP_ Set B

The document outlines the structure and instructions for a Pre-Board Examination in Social Science for Class X, including six sections with a total of 37 compulsory questions. Each section varies in question type and marks, ranging from multiple-choice questions to long answer questions. The exam is designed to assess students' understanding of various social science concepts and their ability to articulate responses within specified word limits.

Uploaded by

attlasaryan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 9

PRE BOARD EXAMINATION

SOCIAL SCIENCE
CLASS – X (2023-24)
SET B
Time Allowed: 3 Hours M.M: 80 Marks
General Instructions:
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in
the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks
each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C – Question no. 25 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions
and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37(a) from
History (2 marks) and 37(b) from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been
provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever
necessary.

SECTION A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1X20=20)
1. ‘Reserved Constituencies’ in assemblies and in the Lok Sabha is an 1
example of which form of power sharing?
a) Power shared among different organs of the government.
b) Power shared among governments at different levels.
c) Power shared among different social groups.
d) Power shared among political parties and pressure groups.
2. Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the 1
events that shaped the development of Print Culture in India from the
options given below.

I. Editing of Bengal Gazette by James Augustus Hickey.


II. Publication of Caricatures and Cartoons in Journals and
Newspapers commenting on social and political issues.
III. Publication of Sambad Kaumudi by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

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IV. The establishment of Printing Press in Goa with the help of
Portuguese Missionaries.
Options:
a) IV, I, III, II c) III, II, IV, I
b) I, III, II, IV d) II, IV, I, III
3. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark 1
your answer as per the codes provided below:
Assertion (A): The Constitution of India prohibits discrimination on the
grounds of religion.
Reason (R): India is a Secular State.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
4. __________________ is an example of ‘Coming together federation’. 1
a) Belgium c) India
b) Spain d) Australia
5. Rural local government is popularly known by the name of ‘Panchayati 1
Raj’. Which of the following is NOT a feature of rural local government.

a) The gram panchayat works under the overall supervision of gram


sabha.
b) Few gram panchayats are grouped together to form a panchayat
samiti.
c) All the panchayat mandals in a district together constitute the
Zila parishad.
d) Municipalities are setup to supervise gram sabha and panchayats.
6. When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to _____________. 1
a) Biological difference between men and women.
b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women.
c) Unequal child birth ratio.
d) Absence of voting rights for women in democracies.
7. Which of the following statements is/are correct in context of 1
democracy and social diversity.
Statements:
I. Democracy is unable to handle social differences, divisions and
conflicts.
II. In a democracy setup majority and minority works together.
III. Democratic government make attempts to increase social
differences among citizens of the country.
Options:
a) I, II and III are correct. c) II and III are correct.
b) I and II are correct. d) Only II is correct.
8. Find the incorrect option: 1
a) Per capita income is useful for comparing the development of
countries.
b) Per capita income hides disparities in income.
c) The World Bank uses the per capita income criterion to compare
the countries.
d) Per capita income is the total income of the country.

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9. How do people hold money with banks? 1
a) As deposits c) As security
b) As collateral d) As Interest
10. Which of the following defines Sustainable development? 1
a) Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the need
of the future generations.
b) Present generation fulfils its needs while considering the needs of
the future generation as well.
c) It means utilization of natural resources by the past and present
generations.
d) To meet the need of the future generations even if the needs of
the present generation go unmet.
11. Identify the correct option that describes the Act given below. 1
I. This act resulted in the formation of United Kingdom of Great
Britain.
II. This act was signed between England and Scotland.
III. When this act came into effect England was able to impose its
influence on Scotland.
Options:
a) Vernacular Act 1800 c) Act of Union 1707
b) Treaty of Vienna 1815 d) Royal Verdict of 1609
12. Complete the following table with correct information: 1

Act A-?

Year B-?

Aim To protect the remaining endangered species and their


habitat

Passed by Indian Parliament

Options :
a) A - Wildlife Protection Act, B - 1972
b) A - Wildlife Security Act, B – 1952
c) A - Wildlife Save Act, B - 1962
d) A - Wildlife Security Act, B – 1982
13. A large MNC, producing batteries designs its product in research centers 1
in Germany. Its components are manufactured in S. Korea. These are
then shipped to Peru and Cambodia where they are assembled and the
finished products are sold throughout the world. The customer care
services are carried in India through call centres.
Analyze the information given above, considering one of the following
correct options:
a) Collaborations c) Globalization
b) Foreign Trade d) Liberalization
14. Which of the following element is not included in the Belgium model of 1
accommodation?
a) Dutch and French speaking ministers shall be equal in the
government.
b) Many powers of the central government have been given to state
government.

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c) Brussels has a separate government in which both communities
have equal representation.
d) There is a community government which has special powers of
administration.
15. Read the statements and choose the correct option. 1
Assertion (A): Kerala is the most developed state in India.
Reason (R): Despite low per capita income, it has low IMR, high literacy
rate and NAR.

a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of
(A).
c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
16. Find out the incorrect pair 1
Column A Column B
A) Cheque 1) Bank
B) Issuing Currency Authority 2) State Bank of India
C) Collateral 3) Asset
D) Debt trap 4) Non-repayment of loans.
Options:
a) A – 1 b) B -2 c) C -3 d) D -4
17. Read the following statements about the development of print culture 1
in China and identify the correct option.
I. Books were printed by rubbing paper against the inked surface of
the woodblocks in China.
II. Women began to read and write in 19th century China.
III. Shanghai became the hub of new print culture.
Options:
a) Statements I and II are correct.
b) Statements I and III are correct.
c) Statements II and III are correct.
d) Statements I, II and III are correct.
18. Identify the painter of the painting given below. 1

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a) Abanindranath Tagore
b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
NOTE: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only
in lieu of Q. No. 18
Q. Which of the following painters painted an ascetic figure of Bharat
Mata during Swadeshi movement?
a) Abanindranath Tagore
b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
19. Which place in India has an artificial lake to conserve water that dates 1
to 11th century?
a) Delhi c) Mumbai
b) Bhopal d) Kolhapur
20. Mohan gave his friend clues about a type of soil that suits for growing 1
sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulses. Which of the
following clues provided by Mohan would be most useful in identifying
the ideal type of soil?
Clues:
I. These soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric
acid and lime.
II. These soils in the drier areas are more alkaline and can be
productive after proper treatment and irrigation.
III. It is made up of lava flows.
IV. They are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture.
Options:
a) Clue I c) Clue I and II
b) Clue I and III d) Clue IV
SECTION B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (2X4=8)
21. Identify the political party from the given symbol. Briefly explain its 2
ideology.

For visually impaired students in lieu of the above question.


Q: Briefly discuss the ideology of CPI (M).
22. Mr Hari hails from the state of Uttar Pradesh, and he wishes to cultivate 2
either Tea or Sugarcane. Which one of the crop out of the two can he
cultivate in his state? Substantiate your answer with any two reasons.
23. Define HDI? Give its significance in relation to the development of an 2
economy.
OR

Page 5 of 9
Do you think “per capita income” is an important parameter to measure
development of an economy? Justify your answer.
24. A) “Food offers many examples of long distance cultural exchange”. 2
Support your answer with 2 examples.
OR
B) ‘The new crops could make the difference between life and death
for people’. Explain with an example from Ireland.
SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER – BASED QUESTIONS (3X5=15)
25. ‘Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided 3
between central authority and various constituent units of the country’.
In the light of above statement list any 3 features of Indian federalism.
26. ‘Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation’. 3
Examine the statement.
27. “The impact of Globalization has not been uniform”. Enumerate the 3
statement with two examples.
28. Agriculture and industry are not exclusive of each other. They move 3
hand in hand. Justify the statement with any three relevant points.
29. ‘The Print Culture created the conditions within which the French 3
Revolution occurred’. Give three arguments in favour of the statement.
SECTION D
LONG ANSWER - BASED QUESTIONS (5X4=20)
30. A) “Non-conventional resources are the best option to conserve the 5
natural resources” Substantiate this statement with Examples.
OR
B) Mining is often referred to as a ‘Killer Industry’. Justify the given
statement.
31. A) Define GDP. Who undertakes the task of measuring GDP in India? How 1+1+3
is this task done and give the importance of GDP for an economy?
OR
B) “Workers are exploited in unorganized sector”. Give any two 2+3
reasons. Suggest any three ways to protect such workers in India?
32. A) ‘Not all social groups were moved by the abstract concept of 5
Swaraj’. Support the statement in the light of Civil Disobedience
Movement.
OR
B) ‘The peasants of Awadh and Tribals of Andra Pradesh interpreted the
message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of Swaraj in their own
way’. Elucidate with examples.
33. A) ‘Political parties are necessary for the functioning of democracy’. 5
Analyse the statement.
OR
B) ‘Political Parties face many challenges in order to remain effective
instruments of democracy’. Explain the statement.
SECTION E
CASE- BASED QUESTIONS (4X3=12)
34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:

Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and


affluent discharged into rivers. The main culprits in this regard are
paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries,

Page 6 of 9
tanneries and electroplating industries that let out dyes, detergents,
acids, salts and heavy metals like lead and mercury pesticides,
fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics and rubber, etc.
into the water bodies. Fly ash, phospogypsum and iron and steel slags
are the major solid wastes in India.
Every litre of waste water discharged by our industry pollutes eight
times the quantity of freshwater. Some suggestions to reduce industrial
pollution of fresh water are- (i) minimising use water for processing by
reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages (ii) harvesting
of rainwater to meet water requirements (iii) treating hot water and
effluents before re-leasing them in rivers and ponds. Treatment of
industrial effluents can be done in three phases (a) Primary treatment
by mechanical means. This involves screening, grinding, flocculation
and sedimentation. (b) Secondary treatment by biological process (c)
Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes. This
involves recycling of wastewater. Overdrawing of ground water reserves
by industry where there is a threat to ground water resources also
needs to be regulated legally.

34.1. List the major industries causing water pollution. 1


34.2. Mention any one reason for the water crisis in our country. 1
34.3. Propose any two solutions to mitigate the water scarcity. 2
35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:

The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was
the area called the Balkans. A large part of the Balkans was under the
control of the Ottoman Empire. The spread of the ideas of romantic
nationalism in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the
Ottoman Empire made this region very explosive. All through the
nineteenth century the Ottoman Empire had sought to strengthen itself
through modernisation and internal reforms but with very little success.
One by one, its European subject nationalities broke away from its
control and declared independence. The Balkan peoples based their
claims for independence or political rights on nationality and used
history to prove that they had once been independent but had
subsequently been subjugated by foreign powers. Hence the rebellious
nationalities in the Balkans thought of their struggles as attempts to win
back their long-lost independence.

35.1. List the measures sought by Ottoman Empire to strengthen 1


itself.
35.2. Mention any one reason that makes the Balkan region explosive. 1
35.3. Balkans claim their independence from Ottoman Empire on 2
what grounds? State two reasons.
36. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Indian government has long prioritized the inclusion of the
unbanked population in the country’s financial services. As part of this
effort, a comprehensive system for delivering formal credit has been
established to meet the credit needs of rural communities. However,
the government-backed formal financial sector has faced criticism for
its limited success in providing resources to impoverished rural
households. Additionally, we find that even among borrowers in the

Page 7 of 9
higher quantiles of the conditional loan distribution, marginal farmers
receive significantly smaller loan amounts compared to medium and
large-scale farmers As an outcome of the exchange mechanism, a credit
transaction is governed not only by the demand for credit but also by
the lender’s willingness to extend credit. Furthermore, being an inter-
temporal transaction, credit exposes the lender to post-contractual
default risks. Therefore, the lender would take utmost care to ensure
timely repayment of his or her dues. Hence, it is likely that the formal
lender will consider a variety of factors before deciding to approve a
loan application.

36.1. What are the drawbacks of taking credit from an informal 1


organization?
36.2. How formal organization helps in credit lending facilities in 1
India?
36.3. What are the various steps taken by the government to 2
encourage people to use formal sector organization to take
credit?
SECTION F
MAP SKILL- BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)
37. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of
a) India. 2
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near
them.
i) Indian National congress session at this place in 1920.
ii) Place where Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place.

b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any 3 of the following 3
with suitable symbols.
I) A Coal mine in Tamil Nādu
II) A dam built on river Mahanadi in India.
III) A largest natural major seaport located at Andhra Pradesh
IV) Hyderabad Software Technology Park

NOTE: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only


in lieu of Q. No. 37 a) and b)
37 a) i) Name the place Where the Indian National Congress Session was
held in September 1920.
ii) Name the place where Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place.
37 b) Answer any 3 of the following:
I) Name the coal mine located at Tamil Nadu.
II) Name the dam built on the river Mahanadi.
III) Name the largest natural seaport located at Andhra Pradesh.
IV) Mention the state where Hyderabad Software Technology Park
is located.

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Map for Q. 37

B)

A)

Page 9 of 9

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