om

l.c
ai
m
9g
56
55
ar
m
ku
an

GEOGRAPHY
am

THROUGH 300+ MCQS (THEMEWISE)

 Index
1) Geography: NCERT Class XI – Fundamentals of Physical Geography_________2
2) Geography: NCERT Class XI – India – Physical Environment _______________131
3) Geography: NCERT Class XII – Fundamentals of Human Geography _________195
4) Geography: NCERT Class XII – India – People and Economy________________252

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 1
 FUNDAMENTALS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
CHAPTER – 1 : Geography as a Discipline
Q.1 The earth’s surface is not uniform. It has variations in its physical features. Consider the
following statements
1. This variation provides a clue to the understanding of the relationship between the
physical environment and social/cultural features.
2. Cropping patterns differ from region to region but this variation in cropping pattern, as a
phenomenon, is related to variations in soils, climates, demands in the market, the
capacity of the farmer to invest and technological inputs available to her/him.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
The earth’s surface is not uniform. It has variations in its physical features. There are mountains,
hills, valleys, plains, plateaus, oceans, lakes, deserts and wilderness. There are variations in its
social and cultural features too. There are villages, cities, roads, railways, ports, markets and
many other elements created by human beings across the entire period of their cultural
development.
This variation provides a clue to the understanding of the relationship between the physical
environment and social/cultural features. The physical environment has provided the stage, on
which human societies enacted the drama of their creative skills with the tools and techniques
which they invented and evolved in the process of their cultural development.
Cropping patterns differ from region to region but this variation in cropping pattern, as a
phenomenon, is related to variations in soils, climates, demands in the market, the capacity of the
farmer to invest and technological inputs available to her/him.

Q.2 Consider the following statements with reference to major approaches to study geography
1. In a systematic approach, a phenomenon is studied world over as a whole, and then the
identification of typologies or spatial patterns is done.
2. In the regional approach, the world is divided into regions at different hierarchical levels
and then all the geographical phenomena in a particular region are studied.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 2
 (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
The major approaches to study geography have been (i) Systematic and (ii) Regional. The
systematic geography approach.
is the same as that of general geography. This approach was introduced by Alexander Von
Humboldt, a German geographer (1769-1859) while regional geography approach was
developed by another German geographer and a contemporary of Humboldt, Karl Ritter (1779-
1859).

om
In systematic approach, a phenomenon is studied world over as a whole, and then the
identification of typologies or spatial patterns is done. For example, if one is interested in
studying natural vegetation, the study will be done at the world level as a first step. The

l.c
typologies such as equatorial rain forests or softwood conical forests or monsoon forests, etc.
will be identified, discussed and delimited. In the regional approach, the world is divided into

ai
regions at different hierarchical levels and then all the geographical phenomena in a particular
m
region are studied. These regions may be natural, political or designated region. The phenomena
in a region are studied in a holistic manner searching for unity in diversity.
9g
56

Q.3 Consider the following statements with reference to branch of geography

55

1. Ecology comes under interface biogeography

2. Biogeography deals with the scientific study of the habitats characteristic of species is
ar

environment geography.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
m

(A) Only 1
ku

(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
an

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A
am

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 3
Biogeography
The interface between physical geography and human geography has lead to the development of
Biogeography which includes:
(i) Plant Geography which studies the spatial pattern of natural vegetation in their habitats.
(ii) Zoo Geography which studies the spatial patterns and geographic characteristics of
animals and their habitats.
(iii) Ecology /Ecosystem deals with the scientific study of the habitats characteristic of
species.
(iv) Environmental Geography concerns world over leading to the realisation of
environmental problems such as land gradation, pollution and concerns for conservation
has resulted in the introduction of this new branch in geography.

Q.4 Soils are formed through the process of pedogenesis. Which of the following main factors
lead to the formation of soil?
1. Parent rocks
2. Salinization
3. Climate
4. Biological activity
5. Time
6. River deposit
Which of the following consequence(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(B) 2, 4, 5 and 6
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 6
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: D

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 4
Physical geography includes the study of lithosphere (landforms, drainage, relief and
physiography), atmosphere (its composition, structure, elements and controls of weather and
climate; temperature, pressure, winds, precipitation, climatic types, etc.), hydrosphere (oceans,
seas, lakes and associated features with water realm) and biosphere ( life forms including human
being and macro-organism and their sustaining mechanism, viz. food chain, ecological
parameters and ecological balance). Soils are formed through the process of pedogenesis and
depend upon the parent rocks, climate, biological activity and time. Time provides maturity to
soils and helps in the development of soil profiles. Each element is important for human beings.
Landforms provide the base on which human activities are located. The plains are utilised for
agriculture.

CHAPTER – 2: The Origin and Evolution of the Earth

Q.5 Consider the following statements with reference to Chamberlain and Moulton’s
Planetesimal Hypothesis theory
1. As per this hypothesis, there was only a Sun before planet formations and Sun was cold
before planet formation.
2. This theory able to explain the different sizes of planets.
3. Theories regarding the existence of companion star of the Sun are called binary theories
and it is the part of this theory.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
In 1900, Chamberlain and Moulton gave the Planetesimal Hypothesis theory that explains the
origin of the earth or planet formation.
As per theory:
 As per this hypothesis, there was only a Sun before planet formations and Sun was cold
before planet formation.
 Another introducing Sun was passed near to our Sun, due to gravitation pull the cigar-
shaped extension or bulge of material from our Sun was created.
 This bulge material was separated from the solar surface and called planetesimals having
small sizes.
 Planetesimals' materials came together and formed larger bodies called planets.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 5
 Note: Sir James Jeans and later Sir Harold Jeffrey supported this argument. At a later date, the
arguments considered of a companion to the sun to have been coexisting. These arguments are
called binary theories.
Criticism of Planetesimal hypothesis:
 This theory was not able to explain why only nine planets formed.
 This theory was not able to explain the different sizes of planets
 Distance between these two suns was huge, gravitation pull was not that strong to pull
such large masses from Sun.

om
Q.6 Consider the following statements with reference to Nebular Hypothesis
1. The hypothesis considered that the planets were formed out of a cloud of material

l.c
associated with a youthful sun, which was slowly rotating.

ai
2. This happen due to accumulation of particles into a massive object by gravitationally
attracting more matter m
3. As per the nebula hypothesis, the nebula is the gaseous state so the planet should also be
9g
in gaseous form, but the same is not true for all planets.
4. All the planets and satellites should rotate in the same direction as nebula rotate but the
same is not true. The anti-clock wise rotation of Venus and Jupiter is an anti-thesis
56

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

55

(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
ar

(C) 2, 3 and 4
m

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: A
ku

Nebular Hypothesis
an

The hypothesis considered that the planets were formed out of a cloud of material associated
with a youthful sun, which was slowly rotating.
am

In 1950, Otto Schmidt in Russia and Carl Weizascar in Germany somewhat revised the ‘nebular
hypothesis’, though differing in details. They considered that the sun was surrounded by solar
nebula containing mostly the hydrogen and helium along with what may be termed as dust. The
friction and collision of particles led to formation of a disk-shaped cloud and the planets were
formed through the process of accretion.
Note: In astrophysics, accretion is the accumulation of particles into a massive object by
gravitationally attracting more matter, typically gaseous matter, in an accretion disk.
Criticism:
 Nebular hypothesis theory does not explain the sources of origin of the nebula.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 6
  It was not able to explain the sources of heat and motion of the nebula.
 As per the nebula hypothesis, the nebula is the gaseous state so the planet should also be
in gaseous form, but the same is not true planets are not in the gaseous state.
 The theory is not able to explain how gases nebula leads to the formation of solid planets.
 All the planets and satellites should rotate in the same direction as nebula rotate but the
same is not true. As we know that all planets in our solar system rotate anti-clockwise
except Venus and Uranus.

Q.7 If we take a balloon and mark some points on it to represent the galaxies. Now, if you start
inflating the balloon, the points marked on the balloon will appear to be moving away from each
other as the balloon expands. The experiment defines which of the following hypothesis?
(A) Nebular Hypothesis
(B) Planetesimal Hypothesis
(C) Binary Theory
(D) Big Bang Theory
Solution: D
The most popular argument regarding the origin of the universe is the Big Bang Theory. It is also
called expanding universe hypothesis. Edwin Hubble, in 1920, provided evidence that the
universe is expanding. As time passes, galaxies move further and further apart. You can
experiment and find what does the expanding universe mean. Take a balloon and mark some
points on it to represent the galaxies. Now, if you start inflating the balloon, the points marked on
the balloon will appear to be moving away from each other as the balloon expands. Similarly, the
distance between the galaxies is also found to be increasing and thereby, the universe is
considered to be expanding. However, you will find that besides the increase in the distances
between the points on the balloon, the points themselves are expanding. This is not in accordance
with the fact. Scientists believe that though the space between the galaxies is increasing,
observations do not support the expansion of galaxies. So, the balloon example is only partially
correct.

Q.8 Consider the following statements with reference to Big Bang Theory
1. In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed in a singular atom with an
unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature and infinite density
2. At the Big Bang the “tiny ball” exploded violently. As it grew, all energy was converted
into matter.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 7
 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
The Big Bang Theory considers the following stages in the development of the universe.
1. In the beginning, all matter forming the universe existed in one place in the form of a
“tiny ball” (singular atom) with an unimaginably small volume, infinite temperature and
infinite density.
2. At the Big Bang the “tiny ball” exploded violently. This led to a huge expansion. It is
now generally accepted that the event of big bang took place 13.7 billion years before the
present. The expansion continues even to the present day. As it grew, some energy was
converted into matter. There was particularly rapid expansion within fractions of a
second after the bang. Thereafter, the expansion has slowed down. Within first three
minutes from the Big Bang event, the first atom began to form.
3. Within 300,000 years from the Big Bang, temperature dropped to 4,500 K (Kelvin) and
gave rise to atomic matter. The universe became transparent.
Q.9 Which of the following statement defines the Hoyle’s concept of steady state?
(A) The universe is supposed to be expanding and contracting alternately
(B) The universe to be roughly the same at any point of time
(C) The matter being continuously created to form new stars and galaxies at the same rate
(D) The universe is supposed to be contracting at a steady rate and one day it will collapse
Solution: B
Hoyle’s concept of steady state
It considered the universe to be roughly the same at any point of time. However, with greater
evidence becoming available about the expanding universe, scientific community at present
favours argument of expanding universe.
More
Steady State Theory: Bondi, Gold and Fred Hoyle developed this theory. According to this
theory, the number of galaxies in the observable universe is constant and new galaxies are
continuously being created out of empty space, which fill up the gaps caused by those galaxies,
which have crossed the boundary of the observable universe. As a result of it, the overall size of
mass of the observable universe remains constant. Thus a steady state of the universe is not
disturbed at all.
Pulsating Theory: According to this theory, the universe is supposed to be expanding and
contracting alternately i.e. pulsating. At present, the universe is expanding. According to
pulsating theory, it is possible that at a certain time, the expansion of the universe may be
stopped by the gravitational pull and they may contract again. After it has been contracted to a
certain size, explosion again occurs and the universe will start expanding. The alternate
expansion and contraction of the universe give rise to pulsating universe.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 8
 Q.10 Which of the following statements correctly defines the term planetesimals?
(A) Huge rotating disc of gas and dust
(B) Localised lumps of gas within a nebula
(C) Large number of smaller bodies
(D) Accumulation of hydrogen gas in the form of a very large cloud
Solution: C
Formation of Planets

om
The following are considered to be the stages in the development of planets :
(i) The stars are localised lumps of gas within a nebula. The gravitational force within the

l.c
lumps leads to the formation of a core to the gas cloud and a huge rotating disc of gas and
dust develops around the gas core.

ai
(ii) In the next stage, the gas cloud starts getting condensed and the matter around the core
develops into small rounded objects. These small-rounded objects by the process of
m
cohesion develop into what is called planetesimals. Larger bodies start forming by
9g
collision, and gravitational attraction causes the material to stick together. Planetesimals
are a large number of smaller bodies.
56

(iii) In the final stage, these large number of small planetesimals accrete to form a fewer large
bodies in the form of planets.
55
ar

Q.11 Consider the following statements with reference to planets in our solar system
1. Inner planets lie between the sun and the belt of asteroids and Saturn is one among them
m

2. Terrestrial planets have thick atmosphere as compared to outer or Jovian planets with
ku

relatively higher density

Which of the following consequence(s) is/are incorrect?
an

(A) Only 1
am

(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Out of the eight planets, mercury, venus, earth and mars are called as the inner planets as they lie
between the sun and the belt of asteroids the other four planets are called the outer planets.
Alternatively, the first four are called Terrestrial, meaning earth-like as they are made up of rock
and metals, and have relatively high densities. The rest four are called Jovian or Gas Giant
planets. Jovian means jupiter-like. Most of them are much larger than the terrestrial planets and
have thick atmosphere, mostly of helium and hydrogen. All the planets were formed in the same
period sometime about 4.6 billion years ago.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 9
Q.12 Consider the following statements about the difference between terrestrial and Jovian
planets
1. Terrestrial planets have relatively lower densities whereas Jovian planets have relatively
higher densities.
2. The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star whereas Jovian
planets were formed at quite a distant location
3. Terrestrial planets are closed to the Sun, and due to intense solar wind, it blew off lots of
gas and dust
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
The difference between terrestrial and jovian planets can be attributed to the following
conditions:
(i) The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star where it was too
warm for gases to condense to solid particles. Jovian planets were formed at quite a distant
location.
(ii) The solar wind was most intense nearer the sun; so, it blew off lots of gas and dust from
the terrestrial planets. The solar winds were not all that intense to cause similar removal of
gases from the Jovian planets.
(iii) The terrestrial planets are smaller and their lower gravity could not hold the escaping
gases.
(iv) Terrestrial planets are made up of rock and metals, and have relatively high
densities.While Jovian means Jupiter-like. Most of them are much larger than the
terrestrial planets and have thick atmosphere, mostly of helium and hydrogen.

Q.13 “The big splat” word is related to which of the following process?
(A) Planet Formation
(B) Moon Formation
(C) Star Formation
(D) Nebula Formation
Solution: B
The Moon

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 10
  The moon is the only natural satellite of the earth. Like the origin of the earth, there have
been attempts to explain how the moon was formed. In 1838, Sir George Darwin
suggested that initially, the earth and the moon formed a single rapidly rotating body. The
whole mass became a dumb-bell-shaped body and eventually it broke. It was also
suggested that the material forming the moon was separated from what we have at
present the depression occupied by the Pacific Ocean.
 However, the present scientists do not accept either of the explanations. It is now
generally believed that the formation of moon, as a satellite of the earth, is an outcome of
‘giant impact’ or what is described as “the big splat”. A body of the size of one to three
times that of mars collided into the earth sometime shortly after the earth was formed. It
blasted a large part of the earth into space. This portion of blasted material then continued
to orbit the earth and eventually formed into the present moon about 4.44 billion years
ago.

Q.14 Consider the following statements

1. The earth has a layered structure. From the outermost end of the atmosphere to the centre
of the earth, the material that exists is not uniform.
2. From the crust to the core, the density of the material decreases.
3. It is through the process of solidification that the earth forming material got separated
into different layers.
4. Earth’s crust is made of lighter materials whereas the interior is made of heavy materials
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: B
Evolution of Lithosphere
The earth was mostly in a volatile state during its primordial stage. Due to gradual increase in
density the temperature inside has increased. As a result, the material inside started getting
separated depending on their densities. This allowed heavier materials (like iron) to sink towards
the centre of the earth and the lighter ones to move towards the surface. With passage of time it
cooled further and solidified and condensed into a smaller size. This later led to the development
of the outer surface in the form of a crust. During the formation of the moon, due to the giant
impact, the earth was further heated up. It is through the process of differentiation that the earth
forming material got separated into different layers. Starting from the surface to the central parts,
we have layers like the crust, mantle, outer core and inner core. From the crust to the core, the
density of the material increases.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 11
 Q.15 Consider the following statements with reference to evolution of atmosphere and
Hydrosphere
1. The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium, is supposed to have been stripped off
as a result of the solar winds. This happened not only in case of the earth, but also in all
the terrestrial planets
2. The present atmosphere is supposed to be generated from the interior of the earth
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2

om
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C

l.c
Evolution of Atmosphere and Hydrosphere

ai
The present composition of earth’s atmosphere is chiefly contributed by nitrogen and oxygen.
m
There are three stages in the evolution of the present atmosphere. The first stage is marked by the
loss of primordial atmosphere. In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the
9g
evolution of the atmosphere. Finally, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the
living world through the process of photosynthesis.
56

The early atmosphere, with hydrogen and helium, is supposed to have been stripped off as a
55

result of the solar winds. This happened not only in case of the earth, but also in all the terrestrial
planets, which were supposed to have lost their primordial atmosphere through the impact of
solar winds.
ar

During the cooling of the earth, gases and water vapour were released from the interior solid
m

earth. This started the evolution of the present atmosphere. The early atmosphere largely
ku

contained water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia and very little of free
oxygen. The process through which the gases were outpoured from the interior is called
an

degassing. Continuous volcanic eruptions contributed water vapour and gases to the atmosphere.
As the earth cooled, the water vapour released started getting condensed. The carbon dioxide in
am

the atmosphere got dissolved in rainwater and the temperature further decreased causing more
condensation and more rains. The rainwater falling onto the surface got collected in the
depressions to give rise to oceans. The earth’s oceans were formed within 500 million years from
the formation of the earth. This tells us that the oceans are as old as 4,000 million years.
Sometime around 3,800 million years ago, life began to evolve. However, around 2,500-3,000
million years before the present, the process of photosynthesis got evolved. Life was confined to
the oceans for a long time. Oceans began to have the contribution of oxygen through the process
of photosynthesis. Eventually, oceans were saturated with oxygen, and 2,000 million years ago,
oxygen began to flood the atmosphere.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 12
 CHAPTER – 3: Interior of the Earth
Q.16 Which of the following sources of information about the interior is come under direct
sources
1. Difference in gravitation force
2. Meteors
3. Volcanic eruption
4. Seismic waves
5. Mining
Choose the correct code form the list below
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 4 and 5
(C) 3, and 5
(D) 1 , 3, 4 and 5
Solution: D
Direct Sources
The most easily available solid earth material is surface rock or the rocks we get from mining
areas. Gold mines in South Africa are as deep as 3 - 4 km. Going beyond this depth is not
possible as it is very hot at this depth. Besides mining, scientists have taken up a number of
projects to penetrate deeper depths to explore the conditions in the crustal portions. Scientists
world over are working on two major projects such as “Deep Ocean Drilling Project” and
“Integrated Ocean Drilling Project”. The deepest drill at Kola, in Arctic Ocean, has so far
reached a depth of 12 km. This and many deep drilling projects have provided large volume of
information through the analysis of materials collected at different depths.
Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining direct information. As and when the molten
material (magma) is thrown onto the surface of the earth, during volcanic eruption it becomes
available for laboratory analysis. However, it is difficult to ascertain the depth of the source of
such magma.

Q.17 Consider the following statements

1. The gravitation force is not the same at different longitudes on the surface. It is greater
near the poles and less at the equator.
2. The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material. The uneven distribution
of mass of material within the earth influences this value.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 13
 (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
The other indirect sources include gravitation, magnetic field, and seismic activity. The
gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the
poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator being
greater than that at the poles. The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material.
The uneven distribution of mass of material within the earth influences this value. The reading of
the gravity at different places is influenced by many other factors. These readings differ from the
expected values. Such a difference is called gravity anomaly. Gravity anomalies give us
information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth.

Q.18 Consider the following statements about earthquake

1. The point on the surface, nearest to the focus, is called hypocentre.
2. The point where the energy is released is called the focus of an earthquake and the point
diametrically opposite to the point is called Anti-centre
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
The release of energy occurs along a fault. A fault is a sharp break in the crustal rocks. Rocks
along a fault tend to move in opposite directions. As the overlying rock strata press them, the
friction locks them together. However, their tendency to move apart at some point of time
overcomes the friction. As a result, the blocks get deformed and eventually, they slide past one
another abruptly. This causes a release of energy, and the energy waves travel in all directions.
The point where the energy is released is called the focus of an earthquake, alternatively, it is
called the hypocentre. The energy waves travelling in different directions reach the surface. The
point on the surface, nearest to the focus, is called epicentre. It is the first one to experience the
waves. It is a point directly above the focus.
More
1. Antipode refers to the point which is diametrically opposite to the given point on the
Earth Surface
2. Anti-centre is the antipode of the epicenter of an earthquake

Q.19 Consider the following statements

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 14
 1. All natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere.
2. Epicenter is the area of maximum damage
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Earthquake Waves

om
All natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere. You will learn about different layers of the
earth later in this chapter. It is sufficient to note here that the lithosphere refers to the portion of

l.c
depth up to 200 km from the surface of the earth. An instrument called ‘seismograph’ records the
waves reaching the surface.

ai
Note: In general, maximum damage because of an earthquake is not at the epicenter but around
m
it.
9g

Q.20 Consider the following statements with reference to earthquake waves

56

1. The difference in density inside the earth changes the velocity of these waves.
55

2. The denser the material, the lesser is the velocity.

3. Density also change the direction of these waves
ar

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

m

(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 3
ku

(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 2
an

Solution: A
am

Earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves. Body waves are
generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through
the body of the earth. Hence, the name body waves. The body waves interact with the surface
rocks and generate new set of waves called surface waves. These waves move along the surface.
The velocity of waves changes as they travel through materials with different densities. The
denser the material, the higher is the velocity. Their direction also changes as they reflect or
refract when coming across materials with different densities.

Q.21 Consider the following statements with reference to Body and Surface waves

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 15
 1. It is the body waves which interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of waves
called surface waves.
2. The Body waves are the last to report on seismograph.
3. Surface waves are considered to be the most damaging waves.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B

 Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all
directions travelling through the body of the earth. Hence, the name body waves. The
body waves interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of waves called surface
waves.
 The variations in the direction of waves are inferred with the help of their record on
seismograph. The surface waves are the last to report on seismograph. These waves are
more destructive. They cause displacement of rocks, and hence, the collapse of structures
occurs.
 Surface waves are considered to be the most damaging waves.

Q.22 Which of the following statement is incorrect about the difference between P-waves and S-
waves?
(A) The P-waves are similar to sound waves. While S-waves are similar to water waves
(B) P-waves travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials, while S waves travel only
through solid materials.
(C) P-waves arrives early while S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag
(D) None of the above
Solution: A
There are two types of body waves. They are called P and S-waves. P-waves move faster and are
the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’. The P-waves are similar
to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. S-waves arrive at the
surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves. An important fact about S-waves
is that they can travel only through solid materials. This characteristic of the S-waves is quite
important. It has helped scientists to understand the structure of the interior of the earth.
Reflection causes waves to rebound whereas refraction makes waves move in different
directions. The variations in the direction of waves are inferred with the help of their record on
seismograph. The surface waves are the last to report on seismograph. These waves are more
destructive. They cause displacement of rocks, and hence, the collapse of structures occurs.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 16
Q.23 Arrange the followings waves in sequence of arrival of these waves to seismograph from
last to first
1. Primary Waves
2. Love Waves
3. Rayleign Waves
4. Secondary Waves
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 1-4-2-3
(C) 3-2-1-4
(D) 3-2-4-1
Solution: D
The sequence of arrival of these waves to seismograph are in the order of P-S-L-R

Q.24 Consider the following statements

1. P-waves are shear waves and vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave
2. S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane
3. S-waves are push and pull waves and move the material forward and backward in the
same direction
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3
Solution: B
Propagation of Earthquake Waves
Different types of earthquake waves travel in different manners. As they move or propagate, they
cause vibration in the body of the rocks through which they pass. P-waves vibrate parallel to the
direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the material in the direction of the propagation. As
a result, it creates density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of the
material. Other three waves vibrate perpendicular to the direction of propagation. The direction
of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane. Hence, they
create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass.
P-waves are push and pull waves and move the material forward and backward in the same
direction
S-waves are shear waves and vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 17
 Q.25 Consider the following statements
1. From 105o to 145o is the common shadow zone of both S and P waves
2. The shadow zone of S-waves is about half of the earth surface.
3. Even after passing of P-waves from all forms of matter they have a shadow zone from
105o to 145o because of refection of waves from core and mantle
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only

om
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3

l.c
Solution: A
Emergence of Shadow Zone

ai
Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there exist
m
some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’.
9g
The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an altogether different
shadow zone. Figure 3.2 (a) and (b) show the shadow zones of P and S-waves. It was observed
56

that seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of
both P and S-waves. However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre, record the
55

arrival of P-waves, but not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre
was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves. The entire zone beyond 105° does
not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves. The
ar

shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band around the earth between 105° and 145° away from
m

the epicentre. P waves are refracted crossing the mantle-outer core boundary. The shadow zone
of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over 40 per cent of the earth surface.
ku

You can draw the shadow zone for any earthquake provided you know the location of the
epicentre.
an
am

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 18
Q.26 Consider the following statements about measurement of Earthquake
1. Mercalli scale is an intensity scale and it is an open-ended scale
2. Moment Magnitude Scale consider an area of a fault along the rupture occurred and the
amount of movement of rocks adjacent to the fault
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Measuring Earthquakes

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 19
The earthquake events are scaled either according to the magnitude or intensity of the shock. The
magnitude scale is known as the Richter scale. The magnitude relates to the energy released
during the quake. The magnitude is expressed in numbers, 0-10. The intensity scale is named
after Mercalli, an Italian seismologist. The intensity scale takes into account the visible damage
caused by the event. The range of intensity scale is from 1-12.
Moment Magnitude Scale consider an area of a fault along the rupture occurred and the amount
of movement of rocks adjacent to the fault

Q.27 Consider the following statements with reference to Crust

1. The crust is outermost solid part of the earth and it is brittle in nature.
2. Oceanic crust is thicker as compared to the continental crust.
3. SIMA term is used for continental crust
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
The Crust
 It is the outermost solid part of the earth. It is brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust
varies under the oceanic and continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to
the continental crust. The mean thickness of oceanic crust is 5 km whereas that of the
continental is around 30 km. The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major
mountain systems. It is as much as 70 km thick in the Himalayan region.
 It is made up of heavier rocks having density of 3 g/cm3. This type of rock found in the
oceanic crust is basalt. The mean density of material in oceanic crust is 2.7 g/cm3.
 The Continental Crust has two layer
 Upper layer - FELSIC - Feldspar + Silica
 Lower Layer - MAFIC - Magnesium + Ferrous
 Ocean Crust is basalic(SIMA/MAFIC)

Q.28 Consider the following statements with reference to Mantle

1. Mantle is rich in oxides and Silicates of Iron & magnesium represented by minerals like
Olivine & Pyroxin
2. It is the properties of asthenosphere which aid in plate tectonic movement and isostatic
adjustments

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 20
 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
The Mantle
The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from
Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called

om
asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending upto 400 km. It is
the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions. It has a
density higher than the crust’s (3.4 g/cm3). The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are

l.c
called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200 km. The lower mantle extends beyond the
asthenosphere. It is in solid state.
Asthenosphere
ai
m
 The upper portion of the mantle is called as asthenosphere (astheno means weak).
9g
 It lies just below the lithosphere extending up to 80-200 km.
 It is highly viscous, mechanically weak and ductile and its density is higher than that of
56

the crust.
 These properties of the asthenosphere aid in plate tectonic movement and isostatic
55

adjustments (the elevated part at one part of the crust area is counterbalanced by a
depressed part at another).
ar

 It is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions.
m
ku

Q.29 Match the following discontinuities with the transition zones.

an

1. Repiti Discontinuity A. Mantle and Core

2. Gutenberg Discontinuity B. Crust and Mantle
3. Mohorovicic Discontinuity C. Outer core and Inner core
am

4. Lehman Discontinuity D. Upper and Lower Crust

5. Conrad Discontinuity E. Outer mantle and Inner mantle
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1.A,2.E,3.C,4.D,5.B
(B) 1.A,2.E,3.C,4.B,5.D
(C) 1.B,2.E,3.D,4.A,5.C
(D) 1.E,2.A,3.B,4.C,5.D
Solution: D

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 21
Conrad Discontinuity: Transition zone between upper and lower Crust.
Mohorovicic Discontinuity: Transition zone between the Crust and Mantle.
Repiti Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer mantle and Inner mantle.
Gutenberg Discontinuity: Transition zone between Mantle and Core.
Lehman Discontinuity: Transition zone between Outer core and Inner core.

Q.30 Consider the following statements with reference to Core

1. The outer core is not under enough pressure to be solid, so it is liquid and it has a
composition different to the inner core.
2. Earth’s inner core rotates slightly faster relative to the rotation of the surface.
3. Dynamo theory suggests that convection in the outer core, combined with the Coriolis
effect, gives rise to Earth’s magnetic field.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
The Outer Core
 The outer core, surrounding the inner core, lies between 2900 km and 5100 km below the
earth’s surface.
 The outer core is composed of iron mixed with nickel (nife) and trace amounts of lighter
elements.
 The outer core is not under enough pressure to be solid, so it is liquid even though it has a
composition similar to the inner core.
 The density of the outer core ranges from 9.9 g/cm3 to 12.2 g/cm3.
 The temperature of the outer core ranges from 4400 °C in the outer regions to 6000 °C
near the inner core.
 Dynamo theory suggests that convection in the outer core, combined with the Coriolis
effect, gives rise to Earth’s magnetic field.
The Inner Core
 The inner core extends from the centre of the earth to 5100 km below the earth’s surface.
 The inner core is generally believed to be composed primarily of iron (80%) and some
nickel (nife).
 Since this layer can transmit shear waves (transverse seismic waves), it is solid. (When P-
waves strike the outer core – inner core boundary, they give rise to S-waves)

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 22
  Earth’s inner core rotates slightly faster relative to the rotation of the surface.
 The solid inner core is too hot to hold a permanent magnetic field.
 The density of the inner core ranges from 12.6 g/cm3 to 13 g/cm3.
 The core (inner core and the outer core) accounts for just about 16 per cent of the earth’s
volume but 33% of earth’s mass.
 Scientists have determined the temperature near the Earth’s centre to be 6000֯ C, 1000֯ C
hotter than previously thought.
 At 6000°C, this iron core is as hot as the Sun’s surface, but the crushing pressure caused
by gravity prevents it from becoming liquid.

Q.31 Find the volcano type with the given description

1. These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt.
2. The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples.
3. Type of lava that is very fluid when erupted
4. These are largest of all the volcanoes on the earth, which are not steep
Choose the correct option
(A) Composite Volcanoes
(B) Shield Volcanoes
(C) Caldera Volcanoes
(D) Mid-Ocean Ridge Volcanoes
Solution: B

Q.32 Which of the following intrusion are intrusive igneous formations?

1. Dyke
2. Lapolith
3. Scoria
4. Spine
5. Phacolith
Choose the correct option
(A) 1, 2, and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 5
(C) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: B
Intrusive Volcanic Landforms

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 23
 Batholiths
 These are large granitic rock bodies formed due to solidification of hot magma inside the
earth.
 They appear on the surface only after the denudation processes remove the overlying
materials.
 Batholiths form the core of huge mountains and may be exposed on the surface after
erosion.
Laccoliths
 These are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies connected by a pipe-like conduit from

om
below.
 These are intrusive counterparts of an exposed domelike batholith.

l.c
 The Karnataka plateau is spotted with dome hills of granite rocks. Most of these, now
exfoliated, are examples of laccoliths or batholiths.

ai
Lapolith m
 As and when the lava moves upwards, a portion of the same may tend to move in a
9g
horizontal direction wherever it finds a weak plane. It may get rested in different forms.
 In case it develops into a saucer shape, concave to the sky body, it is called Lapolith.
56

Phacolith
55

 A wavy mass of intrusive rocks, at times, is found at the base of synclines or the top of
the anticline in folded igneous strata.
ar

 Such wavy materials have a definite conduit to source beneath in the form of magma
chambers (subsequently developed as batholiths). These are called the Phacoliths.
m

Sills
ku

 The near horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks are called sill. The thinner ones
an

are called sheets.

Dykes
am

 When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the land, it
solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground.
 It gets cooled in the same position to develop a wall-like structure. Such structures are
called dykes.
 These are the most commonly found intrusive forms in the western Maharashtra area.
 These are considered the feeders for the eruptions that led to the development of the
Deccan traps.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 24
Q.33 Consider the following statements
1. Laccolith is concordant in nature
2. Pumice stone is light and can float on water
3. Pumice stone is an ideal example of Pyroclastic type of formation
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Vesicular forms contain gas bubbles or holes, or vesicles, trapped in the rock. This results in the
formation of pumice stone. Pumice is a kind of grey stone from a volcano and is very light in
weight
Laccoliths
 These are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies connected by a pipe-like conduit from below.
 These are intrusive counterparts of an exposed domelike batholith.
 It is concordant in nature
 The Karnataka plateau is spotted with dome hills of granite rocks. Most of these, now
exfoliated, are examples of laccoliths or batholiths.

CHAPTER – 4: Distribution of Oceans and Continents

Q.34 Consider the following statements with reference to tillite
1. It is the metamorphic rock formed out of deposits of glaciers.
2. The deposits found on continental shelves which are rich in minerals.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Tillite
It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondawana system of
sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the
Southern Hemisphere. At the base, the system has thick tillite indicating extensive and prolonged
glaciation. Counterparts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar,

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 25
Antarctica and Australia. Overall resemblance of the Gondawana-type sediments clearly
demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories. The glacial tillite provides
unambiguous evidence of palaeoclimates and also of drifting of continents.

Q.35 Consider the following statements with reference to Continental Drift Theory
1. Evidence in support shows that shorelines of Africa and America facing each other have
a remarkable and unmistakable match.
2. According to Wegener, the drift was in eastward directions due to tidal currents because
of the earth’s motion
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
According to Wegener, the drift was in two directions:
1. equator wards due to the interaction of forces of gravity, pole-fleeing force (due to
centrifugal force caused by earth’s rotation) and buoyancy (ship floats in water due to
buoyant force offered by water), and
2. westwards due to tidal currents because of the earth’s motion (earth rotates from west to
east, so tidal currents act from east to west, according to Wegener).
Evidence in Support of Continental Drift Theory:
 Matching of Continents: The shorelines of Africa and South America facing each other
have a remarkable and unmistakable match. A computer simulations also matched these
continents. The match was tried at 1,000 fathom line instead of present shoreline.
 Rocks of same Age Across the Oceans: The radiometric dating methods shows that the
belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from Brazil coast matches with those from
western Africa.
 Tillite: It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondwana
system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different
landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
 Placer Deposits: The occurrence rich placer deposits of gold in the Ghana coast but
absence of source rock, also gold bearing veins in Brazil suggest that gold deposits of the
Ghana are derived from the Brazil Plateau.
 Distribution of Fossils: The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar and
Africa led some to consider a contiguous landmass "Lemuria" linking these three
landmasses.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 26
 Q.36 Consider the following statements with reference to force for drifting
1. Centrifugal force increases as we move from equator towards the pole. This increase in
centrifugal force has led to pole fleeing, according to Wegener.
2. Tidal force is due to the attraction of the moon and the sun that develops tides in oceanic
waters
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2

om
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B

l.c
Force for Drifting
Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused

ai
by pole-fleeing force and tidal force. The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth.
m
You are aware of the fact that the earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a bulge at the equator. This
bulge is due to the rotation of the earth. The second force that was suggested by Wegener — the
9g
tidal force — is due to the attraction of the moon and the sun that develops tides in oceanic
waters. Wegener believed that these forces would become effective when applied over many
56

million years. However, most of scholars considered these forces to be totally inadequate.
55

Note: The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth. Earth is not a perfect sphere; it
has a bulge at the equator. This bulge is due to the rotation of the earth (greater centrifugal force
at the equator). Centrifugal force increases as we move from poles towards the equator. This
ar

increase in centrifugal force has led to pole fleeing, according to Wegener.

m
ku

Q.37 Consider the following statements with reference to Convectional Current Theory
an

1. It is given by James Hutton

2. Convectional currents operating in the entire mantle portion could be the driving force of
am

continents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the
mantle portion.
3. Mid-oceanic ridges were found to be most active in terms of volcanic eruptions
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Convectional Current Theory:

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 27
  Given by Arthur Holmes.
 He argued that there are convectional currents operating in the entire mantle portion
which could be the driving force of continents.
 These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in
the mantle portion.
Mapping of Ocean floor:
 Detailed research of the ocean configuration revealed that the ocean floor is not just a
vast plain but it is full of relief ( submerged mountain ranges as wells as deep trenches).
 Mid-oceanic ridges were found to be most active in terms of volcanic eruptions.
 Rocks on either side of the crest of oceanic ridges and having equidistant locations from
the crest were found to have remarkable similarities both in terms of constituents and
their age.

Q.38 Which of the following include Continental margins?

1. Continental Shelf
2. Continental Slope
3. Continental Rise
4. Abyssal Plains
5. Mid oceanic ridges
6. Deep-Oceanic Trenches
Choose the correct option
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 6
(C) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: B
Continental Margins
These form the transition between continental shores and deep-sea basins. They include
continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise and deep-oceanic trenches.

Q.39 Consider the following statements

1. The creation of the abyssal plain is the result of the spreading of the seafloor and the
melting of the lower oceanic crust.
2. Deep sea plain lying generally between the foot of a continental rise and a mid-ocean
ridge
3. Mid-Oceanic Ridges is an interconnected chain of mountain systems over the ocean.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 28
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Deep Sea Plain
Also known as Abyssal Plains, it is an underwater plain on the deep ocean floor, usually found at
depths between 3,000 metres and 6,000 metres. Lying generally between the foot of a continental
rise and a mid-ocean ridge, abyssal plains cover more than 50% of the Earth’s surface. They are
among the flattest, smoothest, and least explored regions on Earth. Abyssal plains are key
geologic elements of oceanic basins (the other elements being an elevated mid-ocean ridge and
flanking abyssal hills).
The creation of the abyssal plain is the result of the spreading of the seafloor (plate tectonics) and
the melting of the lower oceanic crust.

 Deep-sea plain is gently sloping areas

 These are the flattest and flattest areas
 These plains are completely covered with fine-grained deposits like silt and clay.
Mid-Oceanic Ridges
This forms an interconnected chain of mountain system within the ocean. It is the longest
mountain-chain on the surface of the earth though submerged under the oceanic waters. It is
characterised by a central rift system at the crest, a fractionated plateau and flank zone all along
its length. The rift system at the crest is the zone of intense volcanic activity. In the previous
chapter, you have been introduced to this type of volcanoes as mid-oceanic volcanoes.

Q.40 Which of the following minor oceanic reliefs are correctly defined?
1. Guyots is a deep gorge, especially one with a river flowing through it
2. Canyon are valleys that cut across midocean ridges
3. Gorge is a steep, narrow valley or ravine
4. Seamount is a flat-topped mountain
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Solution: C

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 29
  Seamount: It is a mountain with pointed summits, rising from the seafloor that does not
reach the surface of the ocean. Seamounts are volcanic in origin. These can be 3,000-
4,500 m tall.
 Guyots: The flat topped mountains (seamounts) are known as guyots.
 Canyon: is a deep gorge, especially one with a river flowing through it
 Fracture zones: are valleys that cut across midocean ridges, thus providing a passage for
flow of cold bottom water from one ocean basin to another.

Q.41 Consider the following statements about distribution of earthquake

om
1. The seismic activity is uniform throughout the Circum-Pacific belt, and there are many
branches at various points.
2. In general, the foci of the earthquake in the areas of mid-oceanic ridges are at shallow

l.c
depths whereas along the Alpine-Himalayan belt as well as the rim of the Pacific, the

ai
earthquakes are deep-seated ones.
m
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
9g
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
56

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B
55

Distribution of Earthquakes and Volcanoes

ar

Study the maps showing the distribution of seismic activity and volcanoes given in Figure 4.2.
m

You will notice a line of dots in the central parts of the Atlantic Ocean almost parallel to the
coastlines. It further extends into the Indian Ocean. It bifurcates a little south of the Indian
ku

subcontinent with one branch moving into East Africa and the other meeting a similar line from
Myanmar to New Guiana. You will notice that this line of dots coincides with the midoceanic
an

ridges. The shaded belt showing another area of concentration coincides with the Alpine-
Himalayan system and the rim of the Pacific Ocean. In general, the foci of the earthquake in the
am

areas of mid-oceanic ridges are at shallow depths whereas along the Alpine-Himalayan belt as
well as the rim of the Pacific, the earthquakes are deep-seated ones. The map of volcanoes also
shows a similar pattern. The rim of the Pacific is also called rim of fire due to the existence of
active volcanoes in this area.
Note: The most important earthquake belt is the Circum-Pacific Belt, which affects many
populated coastal regions around the Pacific Ocean—for example, those of New Zealand, New
Guinea, Japan, the Aleutian Islands, Alaska, and the western coasts of North and South America.
The seismic activity is by no means uniform throughout the belt, and there are many branches at
various points.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 30
Q.42 Consider the following statements with reference to evidences of Sea Floor Spreading
1. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity and are the youngest. The
age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest
2. The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks.
3. The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thick
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Concept of Sea Floor Spreading
As mentioned above, the post-drift studies provided considerable information that was not
available at the time Wegener put forth his concept of continental drift. Particularly, the mapping
of the ocean floor and palaeomagnetic studies of rocks from oceanic regions revealed the
following facts :

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 31
(i) It was realised that all along the midoceanic ridges, volcanic eruptions are common and
they bring huge amounts of lava to the surface in this area.
(ii) The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable
similarities in terms of period of formation, chemical compositions and magnetic
properties. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity and are the
youngest. The age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest.
(iii) The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks. The age of rocks in
the oceanic crust is nowhere more than 200 million years old. Some of the continental
rock formations are as old as 3,200 million years.
(iv) The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thin. Scientists were expecting, if
the ocean floors were as old as the continent, to have a complete sequence of sediments
for a period of much longer duration. However, nowhere was the sediment column found
to be older than 200 million years.
(v) The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake occurrences while in the midoceanic ridge
areas, the quake foci have shallow depths.

Q.44 Which of the following statement is correct about Paleomagnetism?

(A) Paleomagnetism is the study of the record of earth’s magnetic field with the help of
magnetic fields recorded in rocks only
(B) It tells about rocks formed from underwater volcanic activity are mainly basaltic that
makes up most of the ocean floor.
(C) Magnetic field records do not provide information on the past location of tectonic plates.
(D) Sedimentary rocks act as good tape recordings of past magnetism
Solution: B
Paleomagnetism
 Paleomagnetism is the study of the record of earth’s magnetic field with the help of
magnetic fields recorded in rocks, sediment, or archaeological materials.
 Igneous rocks act as good tape recordings of past magnetism
 The polarity of the Earth’s magnetic field and magnetic field reversals are thus detectable
by studying the rocks of different ages.
 Rocks formed from underwater volcanic activity are mainly basaltic (low silica, iron-
rich) that makes up most of the ocean floor.
 Basalt contains magnetic minerals, and as the rock is solidifying, these minerals align
themselves in the direction of the magnetic field.
 This locks in a record of which way the magnetic field was positioned at the time.
 Paleomagnetic studies of rocks have demonstrated that the orientation of the earth’s
magnetic field has frequently alternated (geomagnetic reversal) over geologic time.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 32
 Q.45 Consider the following pairs of Minor Plates
Plates Location between
1. South Sandwich plate: South American Plate and the Antarctic Plate
2. Fuji plate: South America and Pacific plate
3. Juan De Fuca plate: South-East of North American Plate
4. Caroline Plate : Philippine and Indian plate
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4

om
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

l.c
Solution: D

ai
Minor plates m
 Cocos plate: Between Central America and Pacific plate
9g
 Nazca plate: South America and Pacific plate
 Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
56

 Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate

 Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plate (North of New Guinea)
55

 Fuji plate: Between South America and Pacific plate

 Nubian Plate: North West region of the African continent and a large chunk of the
Atlantic Ocean
ar

 Juan De Fuca plate: South-East of North American Plate

m

 The Amurian plate (or Amur Plate) is located in northeastern Asian, covering Manchuria,
the Korean Peninsula, western Japan, and part of southeast Russia below Lake Baikal.
ku

 South Sandwich Plate: The South Sandwich Plate or Sandwich Plate is a minor tectonic
plate bounded by the subducting South American Plate to the east, the Antarctic Plate to
an

the south and the Scotia Plate to the west.

am

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 33
Q.46 Consider the following statements about plate boundaries
1. Mid-Atlantic Ridge is and example of oceanic-oceanic convergent boundaries
2. Divergent plate boundaries in general are constructive in nature
3. In transform boundaries interaction transform faults are the planes of separation generally
perpendicular to the mid-oceanic ridges.
4. Indian plate along the Himalayan mountains is the type of continent—continent
convergence plate boundary
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Solution: D
Divergent Boundaries
Where new crust is generated as the plates pull away from each other. The sites where the plates
move away from each other are called spreading sites. The best-known example of divergent
boundaries is the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. At this, the American Plate(s) is/are separated from the
Eurasian and African Plates.
Convergent Boundaries
Where the crust is destroyed as one plate dived under another. The location where sinking of a
plate occurs is called a subduction zone. There are three ways in which convergence can occur.
These are: (i) between an oceanic and continental plate; (ii) between two oceanic plates; and (iii)
between two continental plates.
Transform Boundaries
Where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other.
Transform faults are the planes of separation generally perpendicular to the midoceanic ridges.
As the eruptions do not take all along the entire crest at the same time, there is a differential
movement of a portion of the plate away from the axis of the earth. Also, the rotation of the earth
has its effect on the separated blocks of the plate portions.
Note: The Indian plate includes Peninsular India and the Australian continental portions. The
subduction zone along the Himalayas forms the northern plate boundary in the form of
continent— continent convergence.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 34
 CHAPTER – 5: Minerals and Rocks

Q.47 Arrange the following minerals in terms of their hardness

1. Apatite;
2. Quartz;
3. Corundum
4. Feldspar;
5. Calcite;
6. Topaz;
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1-2-3-4-5-6
(B) 5-4-2-1-6-3
(C) 5-1-4-2-6-3
(D) 1-2-4-6-5-3
Solution: C
Physical Characteristics of Minerals
(i) External crystal form — determined by internal arrangement of the molecules — cubes,
octahedrons, hexagonal prisms, etc.
(ii) Cleavage — tendency to break in given directions producing relatively plane surfaces —
result of internal arrangement of the molecules — may cleave in one or more directions and
at any angle to each other.
(iii) Fracture — internal molecular arrangement so complex there are no planes of molecules;
the crystal will break in an irregular manner, not along planes of cleavage.
(iv) Lustre — appearance of a material without regard to colour; each mineral has a distinctive
lustre like metallic, silky, glossy etc.
(v) Colour — some minerals have characteristic colour determined by their molecular structure
— malachite, azurite, chalcopyrite etc., and some minerals are coloured by impurities. For
example, because of impurities quartz may be white, green, red, yellow etc.
(vi) Streak — colour of the ground powder of any mineral. It may be of the same colour as the
mineral or may differ — malachite is green and gives green streak, fluorite is purple or
green but gives a white streak.
(vii) Transparency — transparent: light rays pass through so that objects can be seen plainly;
translucent — light rays pass through but will get diffused so that objects cannot be seen;
opaque — light will not pass at all.
(viii) Structure — particular arrangement of the individual crystals; fine, medium or coarse
grained; fibrous — separable, divergent, radiating.
(ix) Hardness — relative resistance being scratched; ten minerals are selected to measure the
degree of hardness from 1-10. They are: 1. talc; 2. gypsum; 3. calcite; 4. fluorite; 5. apatite;

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 35
 6. feldspar; 7. quartz; 8. topaz; 9. corundum; 10. diamond. Compared to this for example, a
fingernail is 2.5 and glass or knife blade is 5.5.
(x) Specific gravity — the ratio between the weight of a given object and the weight of an
equal volume of water; object weighed in air and then weighed in water and divide weight
in air by the difference of the two weights.

Q.48 Consider the following statements with reference to Major Minerals

1. Olivine is usually a greenish crystal, often found in granitic rocks
2. Half of the earth’s crust is composed of feldspar.

om
3. Quartz is white or colourless and used in radio and radar.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

l.c
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3

ai
(C) 2 and 3 m
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
9g

Some Major Minerals and Their Characteristics

56

 Feldspar: Silicon and oxygen are common elements in all types of feldspar and sodium,
potassium, calcium, aluminium etc. are found in specific feldspar variety. Half of the
55

earth’s crust is composed of feldspar. It has light cream to salmon pink colour. It is used
in ceramics and glass making.
ar

 Quartz: It is one of the most important components of sand and granite. It consists of
silica. It is a hard mineral virtually insoluble in water. It is white or colourless and used in
m

radio and radar. It is one of the most important components of granite.

ku

 Pyroxene: Pyroxene consists of calcium, aluminum, magnesium, iron and silica.

Pyroxene forms 10 per cent of the earth’s crust. It is commonly found in meteorites. It is
an

in green or black colour.

 Amphibole: Aluminium, calcium, silica, iron, magnesium are the major elements of
am

amphiboles. They form 7 per cent of the earth’s crust. It is in green or black colour and is
used in asbestos industry. Hornblende is another form of amphiboles.
 Mica: It comprises of potassium, aluminium, magnesium, iron, silica etc. It forms 4 per
cent of the earth’s crust. It is commonly found in igneous and metamorphic rocks. It is
used in electrical instruments.
 Olivine: Magnesium, iron and silica are major elements of olivine. It is used in jewellery.
It is usually a greenish crystal, often found in basaltic rocks. Besides these main minerals,
other minerals like chlorite, calcite, magnetite, haematite, bauxite and barite are also
present in some quantities in the rocks.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 36
Q.49 Consider the following statements about rocks mode of formation
1. Igneous Rocks: Solidified from magma and lava
2. Sedimentary Rocks: Formed out of existing rocks undergoing recrystallisation.
3. Metamorphic Rocks: The result of deposition of fragments of rocks by exogenous
processes
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
As there is a close relation between rocks and landforms, rocks and soils, a geographer requires
basic knowledge of rocks. There are many different kinds of rocks which are grouped under
three families on the basis of their mode of formation. They are:
(i) Igneous Rocks — solidified from magma and lava;
(ii) Sedimentary Rocks — the result of deposition of fragments of rocks by exogenous
processes;
(iii) Metamorphic Rocks — formed out of existing rocks undergoing recrystallisation.

Q.50 Consider the following statements with reference to Igneous rocks

1. If molten material is cooled slowly at great depths, mineral grains may be very small.
2. Sudden cooling at the surface results in large and smooth grains.
3. They are more widespread and constitute about 75% of the surface area of globe.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Igneous Rocks
As igneous rocks form out of magma and lava from the interior of the earth, they are known as
primary rocks. The igneous rocks (Ignis – in Latin means ‘Fire’) are formed when magma cools
and solidifies. You already know what magma is. When magma in its upward movement cools
and turns into solid form it is called igneous rock. The process of cooling and solidification can
happen in the earth’s crust or on the surface of the earth. Igneous rocks are classified based on
texture. Texture depends upon size and arrangement of grains or other physical conditions of the
materials. If molten material is cooled slowly at great depths, mineral grains may be very large.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 37
Sudden cooling (at the surface) results in small and smooth grains. Intermediate conditions of
cooling would result in intermediate sizes of grains making up igneous rocks. Granite, gabbro,
pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some of the examples of igneous rocks.

Q.51 Consider the following statements with reference to Sedimentary rock

1. Denuded rocks fragments deposits through compaction turn into rocks. This process is
called foliation.
2. They hold the most informative geological records due to the marks left behind by
various geophysical and biological activities
3. These rocks are generally porous and allow water to percolate through them and shale is
one among them
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 3
Solution: D
Sedimentary Rocks
The word ‘sedimentary’ is derived from the Latin word sedimentum, which means settling.
Rocks (igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic) of the earth’s surface are exposed to
denudational agents, and are broken up into various sizes of fragments. Such fragments are
transported by different exogenous agencies and deposited. These deposits through compaction
turn into rocks. This process is called lithification. In many sedimentary rocks, the layers of
deposits retain their characteristics even after lithification. Hence, we see a number of layers of
varying thickness in sedimentary rocks like sandstone, shale etc.
Chief Characteristics of Sedimentary Rocks
 They are stratified ― consist of many layers or strata.
 They hold the most informative geological records due to the marks left behind by
various geophysical (weather patterns, wind and water flow) and biological activities
(fossils).
 They are fossiliferous ― have fossils of plants and animals.
 These rocks are generally porous and allow water to percolate through them.

Q.52 Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

Mechanism/Process : Rock

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 38
 1. Mechanically formed sedimentary rock : Halite
2. Organically formed sedimentary rock : Geyserite
3. Chemically formed sedimentary rock : limestone
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 3
Solution: B

om
Depending upon the mode of formation, sedimentary rocks are classified into three major
groups:

l.c
(i) mechanically formed — sandstone, conglomerate, limestone, shale, loess etc. are
examples;

ai
(ii) organically formed— geyserite, chalk, limestone, coal etc. are some examples;
(iii) chemically formed — chert, limestone, halite, potash etc. are some examples.
m
9g

Q.53 Consider the following statements about Metamorphic rocks

56

1. The materials of rocks chemically alter and recrystallise due to dynamic metamorphism
2. Climate plays a major role in metamorphic rock formation
55

3. In contact metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding magma and lava
and the rock materials recrystallise under high temperatures.
ar

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

m

(A) 1 only
ku

(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 only
an

(D) 2 and 3
Solution: C
am

Metamorphic Rocks
The word metamorphic means ‘change of form’. These rocks form under the action of pressure,
volume and temperature (PVT) changes. Metamorphism occurs when rocks are forced down to
lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in
contact with the crustal rocks or the underlying rocks are subjected to great amounts of pressure
by overlying rocks. Metamorphism is a process by which already consolidated rocks undergo
recrystallisation and reorganisation of materials within original rocks.
Mechanical disruption and reorganisation of the original minerals within rocks due to breaking
and crushing without any appreciable chemical changes is called dynamic metamorphism. The
materials of rocks chemically alter and recrystallise due to thermal metamorphism. There are two

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 39
types of thermal metamorphism — contact metamorphism and regional metamorphism. In
contact metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding magma and lava and the
rock materials recrystallise under high temperatures. Quite often new materials form out of
magma or lava are added to the rocks.
In regional metamorphism, rocks undergo recrystallisation due to deformation caused by tectonic
shearing together with high temperature or pressure or both.

Q.54 Consider the following statements

1. In the process of metamorphism in some rocks grains or minerals get arranged in layers
or lines. Such an arrangement of minerals or grains in metamorphic rocks is called
foliation
2. Sometimes minerals or materials of different groups are arranged into alternating thin to
thick layers appearing in light and dark shades. Such a structure in metamorphic rocks is
called banding
3. Different colors and designs in granite is due to lineation and branding
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
In the process of metamorphism in some rocks grains or minerals get arranged in layers or lines.
Such an arrangement of minerals or grains in metamorphic rocks is called foliation or lineation.
Sometimes minerals or materials of different groups are arranged into alternating thin to thick
layers appearing in light and dark shades. Such a structure in metamorphic rocks is called
banding and rocks displaying banding are called banded rocks. Types of metamorphic rocks
depend upon original rocks that were subjected to metamorphism.
Metamorphic rocks are classified into two major groups — foliated rocks and non-foliated rocks.
Gneissoid, granite, syenite, slate, schist, marble, quartzite etc. are some examples of
metamorphic rocks.
Q.55 Match the following rocks with their type
1. Igneous A. Limestone
2. Metamorphic B. Gabbro
3. Sedimentary C. Syenite
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1.A,2.B,3.C
(B) 1.B,2.C,3.A

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 40
 (C) 1.B,2.A,3.C
(D) 1.C,2.A,3.B
Solution: B

 Granite, gabbro, basalt, are some of the examples of igneous rocks.

 Gneissoid, granite, syenite, slate, schist, marble, quartzite etc. are some examples of
metamorphic rocks.
 Sedimentary rocks example: sandstone, conglomerate, limestone, shale, loess, geyserite,
chalk, coal, halite, potash.
Q.56 Consider the following statements with reference to economic significance of rocks
1. The old rocks of the great Indian peninsula are rich in these crystallised minerals or
metals is an igneous type
2. Sedimentary rocks are oil bearing rocks their structure allows the holding of crude oil
3. Metamorphic rocks also yield some of the richest soils.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Economic Significance of Igneous Rocks
 Since magma is the chief source of metal ores, many of them are associated with igneous
rocks.
 The minerals of great economic value found in igneous rocks are magnetic iron, nickel,
copper, lead, zinc, chromite, manganese, gold, diamond and platinum.
 Amygdales are almond-shaped bubbles formed in basalt due to escape of gases and are
filled with minerals.
 The old rocks of the great Indian peninsula are rich in these crystallised minerals or
metals.
 Many igneous rocks like granite are used as building materials as they come in beautiful
shades.
Economic Significance of Sedimentary Rocks
 Sedimentary rocks are not as rich in minerals of economic value as the igneous rocks.
 But important minerals such as hematite iron ore, phosphates, building stones, coals,
petroleum and material used in the cement industry are found.
 The decay of tiny marine organisms yields petroleum. Petroleum occurs in suitable
structures only.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 41
  Important minerals like bauxite, manganese, tin, are derived from other rocks but are
found in gravels and sands carried by water.
 Sedimentary rocks also yield some of the richest soils.

CHAPTER – 6: Geomorphic Processes

Q.57 Consider the following statements
1. The phenomenon of wearing down of relief variations of the surface of the earth through
erosion is known as gradation.

om
2. In general terms, the exogenic processes are mainly land building forces and the
endogenic are mainly land wearing forces.
3. Sunlight is the main energy which induce external forces which earth is subjected to.

l.c
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

ai
(A) 1 and 2 m
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
9g
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
56

 The actions of exogenic forces result in wearing down (degradation) of relief/elevations

and filling up (aggradation) of basins/depressions, on the earth’s surface. The
55

phenomenon of wearing down of relief variations of the surface of the earth through
erosion is known as gradation.
ar

 The earth’s surface is being continuously subjected to external forces induced basically
m

by energy (sunlight).
 In general terms, the endogenic forces are mainly land building forces and the exogenic
ku

processes are mainly land wearing forces.

an

Q.58 Consider the following statements with reference to geomorphic process

am

1. Ocean currents and groundwater are geomorphic agents

2. Without gravity and gradients there would be no mobility and hence no erosion,
transportation and deposition are possible.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 42
Geomorphic Processes
You would like to know the meaning of geomorphic processes. The endogenic and exogenic
forces causing physical stresses and chemical actions on earth materials and bringing about
changes in the configuration of the surface of the earth are known as geomorphic processes.
Diastrophism and volcanism are endogenic geomorphic processes. These have already been
discussed in brief in the preceding unit. Weathering, mass wasting, erosion and deposition are
exogenic geomorphic processes. These exogenic processes are dealt with in detail in this chapter.
Any exogenic element of nature (like water, ice, wind, etc.,) capable of acquiring and
transporting earth materials can be called a geomorphic agent. When these elements of nature
become mobile due to gradients, they remove the materials and transport them over slopes and
deposit them at lower level. Geomorphic processes and geomorphic agents especially exogenic,
unless stated separately, are one and the same. A process is a force applied on earth materials
affecting the same. An agent is a mobile medium (like running water, moving ice masses, wind,
waves and currents etc.) which removes, transports and deposits earth materials. Running water,
groundwater, glaciers, wind, waves and currents, etc., can be called geomorphic agents.
Gravity besides being a directional force activating all downslope movements of matter also
causes stresses on the earth’s materials. Indirect gravitational stresses activate wave and tide
induced currents and winds. Without gravity and gradients there would be no mobility and hence
no erosion, transportation and deposition are possible. So, gravitational stresses are as important
as the other geomorphic processes. Gravity is the force that is keeping us in contact with the
surface and it is the force that switches on the movement of all surface material on earth. All the
movements either within the earth or on the surface of the earth occur due to gradients — from
higher levels to lower levels, from high pressure to low pressure areas etc.

Q.59 Consider the following statements

1. All the movements either within the earth or on the surface of the earth occur due to
gradients — from higher levels to lower levels, from low pressure to high pressure areas
2. The action of endogenic forces are uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original
crustal surface is even
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Gravity besides being a directional force activating all downslope movements of matter also
causes stresses on the earth’s materials. Indirect gravitational stresses activate wave and tide
induced currents and winds. Without gravity and gradients there would be no mobility and hence
no erosion, transportation and deposition are possible. So, gravitational stresses are as important

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 43
as the other geomorphic processes. Gravity is the force that is keeping us in contact with the
surface and it is the force that switches on the movement of all surface material on earth. All the
movements either within the earth or on the surface of the earth occur due to gradients — from
higher levels to lower levels, from high pressure to low pressure areas etc.
Endogenic Processes
The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic
processes. This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction and
primordial heat from the origin of the earth. This energy due to geothermal gradients and heat
flow from within induces diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere. Due to variations in
geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, crustal thickness and strength, the action of
endogenic forces are not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crustal surface is
uneven.

Q.60 There is a need of energy which induce the endogenic process. This energy generated
through which of the following process
1. Rotational force
2. Radioactivity
3. Magnetic field of earth
4. Tidal Friction
5. Primeval heat emanated from the origin of the earth
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: C
The endogenic process is an internal geomorphic process.
The main force behind this process is the energy emanating from inside the earth. This energy is
mainly generated through the 3 processes given below.
 Primordial heat which exists right from the time earth was created.
 Rotational and tidal friction
 Radioactivity.

Q.61 Which of the following statements about Diastrophism is not correct?

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 44
 (A) All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under
diastrophism.
(B) Earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements came under diastrophism
(C) All diastrophism processes cause pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes
which in turn induce metamorphism of rocks.
(D) epeirogenic processes involving horizontal movements of crustal plates
Solution: D
Diastrophism
All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under

om
diastrophism. They include:
(i) orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting

l.c
long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust;
(ii) epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust;

ai
(iii) earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements;
(iv) plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates.
m
In the process of orogeny, the crust is severely deformed into folds. Due to epeirogeny, there
9g
may be simple deformation. Orogeny is a mountain building process whereas epeirogeny is
continental building process. Through the processes of orogeny, epeirogeny, earthquakes and
56

plate tectonics, there can be faulting and fracturing of the crust. All these processes cause
pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes which in turn induce metamorphism of rocks.
55
ar

Q.62 Consider the following statements with reference to exogenic processes

m

1. Exogenic processes are a direct result of the sun’s heat and it induce other exogenic
geomorphic agents
ku

2. Earth materials become subjected to molecular stresses caused due to temperature

changes
an

3. The shear stresses result in linear displacement or slippage.

4. Besides the gravitational stress earth materials become subjected to molecular stresses
am

that may be caused by a number of factors amongst which temperature changes,

crystallisation and melting.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Solution: B
Exogenic Processes

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 45
The exogenic processes derive their energy from atmosphere determined by the ultimate energy
from the sun and also the gradients created by tectonic factors.
Gravitational force acts upon all earth materials having a sloping surface and tend to produce
movement of matter in down slope direction. Force applied per unit area is called stress. Stress is
produced in a solid by pushing or pulling. This induces deformation. Forces acting along the
faces of earth materials are shear stresses (separating forces). It is this stress that breaks rocks
and other earth materials. The shear stresses result in angular displacement or slippage. Besides
the gravitational stress earth materials become subjected to molecular stresses that may be
caused by a number of factors amongst which temperature changes, crystallisation and melting
are the most common. Chemical processes normally lead to loosening of bonds between grains,
dissolving of soluble minerals or cementing materials. Thus, the basic reason that leads to
weathering, mass movements, and erosion is development of stresses in the body of the earth
materials.

Q.63 All the exogenic processes are covered under a general term, denudation. The denudation
depends on
1. Orientation and inclination of beds
2. Folds
3. Permeability
4. Streak of mineral
5. Chemical susceptibility of mineral constituents
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 2, 3, and 5
(C) 2, 3 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: B
Denudation
 All the exogenic processes (weathering and erosion) are covered under a general term,
denudation.
 The word ‘denude’ means to strip off or to uncover.
 Denudation depends on physical (folds, faults, orientation and inclination of beds,
presence or absence of joints, bedding planes, hardness or softness of constituent
minerals, permeability) and chemical (chemical susceptibility of mineral constituents to
corrosion) properties of the rocks.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 46
Q.64 Consider the following statements with reference to Weathering
1. As very little or no motion of materials takes place in weathering, it is an in-situ or on-
site process
2. Weathering processes differ from climate to climate, but not the depth of weathering
mantle
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Weathering
Weathering is action of elements of weather and climate over earth materials. There are a
number of processes within weathering which act either individually or together to affect the
earth materials in order to reduce them to fragmental state. As very little or no motion of
materials takes place in weathering, it is an in-situ or on-site process.
Weathering processes are conditioned by many complex geological, climatic, topographic and
vegetative factors. Climate is of particular importance. Not only weathering processes differ
from climate to climate, but also the depth of the weathering mantle

Q.65 Consider the following statements with reference to Chemical Weathering

1. Acids produced by microbial and plant-root metabolism, water and air (oxygen and
carbon dioxide) along with humidity speed up all chemical reactions for chemical
weathering.
2. Global warming and GHG emission increase the chemical weathering process due to
carbonation

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 47
 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Chemical Weathering
 Chemical weathering involves chemical decomposition of rocks and soil.
 Chemical weathering processes include dissolution, solution, carbonation, hydration,

om
oxidation and reduction that act on the rocks to decompose, dissolve or reduce them to a
fine state.
 These weathering processes are interrelated and go hand in hand and hasten the

l.c
weathering process.
Acids produced by microbial and plant-root metabolism, water and air (oxygen and

ai

carbon dioxide) along with heat speed up all chemical reactions.
m
Natural dissolution
9g

 Dissolution: a process where a solute in gaseous, liquid, or solid phase dissolves in a

solvent to form a solution.
56

 Some minerals, due to their natural solubility (like nitrates, sulphates, and potassium),
oxidation potential (iron-rich minerals) will weather through dissolution naturally (rains).
55

 These minerals are easily leached out without leaving any residue and accumulate in dry
regions.
ar

Solution weathering
m

 Solution weathering occurs when the solvent is an acidic solution rather than simple
ku

water.
 A solution is a liquid mixture in which the minor component (the solute) is uniformly
an

distributed within the major component (the solvent).

 Acidic solutions are any solution that has a higher concentration of hydrogen ions than
am

water; solutions that have a lower concentration of hydrogen ions than water is called
basic or alkaline solutions.
Carbonation – Natural solution weathering
 Carbonation refers to reactions of carbon dioxide to give carbonates, bicarbonates, and
carbonic acid.
 Carbonation weathering is a process in which atmospheric carbon dioxide leads to
solution weathering.
 As rain falls, it dissolves small amounts of carbon dioxide from the air, forming a weak
acid that can dissolve some minerals like limestone (calcium carbonate) (solution
weathering).
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 48
  When carbonic acid reacts with limestone, it produces calcium bicarbonate, which is
partially soluble in water (dissolution weathering).
 Caves are formed when underground water containing carbonic acid travels through
blocks of limestone, dissolves out the limestone, and leaves empty pockets (caves) behind
(E.g. Karst topography).
 Carbonation process speeds up with a decrease in temperature because colder water holds
more dissolved carbon dioxide gas. Carbonation is, therefore, a large feature of glacial
weathering.

Q.66 Consider the following statements

1. Hydration is irreversible, and continued repetition of this process causes fatigue in the
rocks and may lead to their disintegration.
2. Vulcanism process has a direct impact on weathering process
3. Both chemical and physical weathering may result in exfoliation.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Anthropogenic solution weathering
 Rainfall is naturally acidic ― pH of ~5.6 (CO2 dissolves in the rainwater producing
weak carbonic acid).
 Acid rain occurs when gases such as sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are present in
the atmosphere.
 These oxides react in the rainwater to produce stronger acids and can lower the pH to less
than 4.
 These acids are capable of attacking certain kinds of rocks in much the way that carbonic
acid does.
 Sulphur dioxide, SO2, comes from volcanic eruptions or fossil fuels.
 The conversion of metallic ores to the pure metals often results in the formation of
sulphur dioxide.
Hydration
 Hydration is the chemical addition of water that involves the rigid attachment of H+ and
OH- ions to the atoms and molecules of a mineral.
 When rock minerals take up water, the increased volume creates physical stresses within
the rock. For example, iron oxides are converted to iron hydroxides which are larger in
volume.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 49
  Hydration is reversible, and continued repetition of this process causes fatigue in the
rocks and may lead to their disintegration.
 The volume changes in minerals due to hydration will also help in physical weathering
through exfoliation and granular disintegration.
Hydrolysis
 In biological hydrolysis, a water molecule is consumed to affect the separation of a larger
molecule into component parts.
 In biological hydrolysis pure water reacts with silicate or carbonate minerals resulting in
the complete dissolution of the original mineral (dissolution weathering).
 Biological hydrolysis is an important reaction in controlling the amount of CO2 in the
atmosphere and can affect climate.
Oxidation and Reduction
 In weathering, oxidation means a combination of a mineral with oxygen to form oxides
(rusting in case of iron) or hydroxides. Red soils appear red due to the presence of iron
oxides.
 Oxidation occurs where there is ready access to the atmosphere and water.
 The minerals most commonly involved in this process are iron, manganese, sulphur etc.
 When oxidised minerals are placed in an environment where oxygen is absent, reduction
takes place.
 Such conditions usually exist below the water table, in areas of stagnant water and
waterlogged ground.
 The red colour of iron upon reduction turns to greenish or bluish grey.

Q.67 Consider the following statements about Physical Weathering Processes

1. In physical weathering process crystallisation of salts, animal and plant activity do not
play significant role
2. Sheeting is done due to pressure difference on underneath igneous rocks as erosion of
upper rock change vertical pressure
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Physical Weathering Processes

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 50
  Physical weathering involves mechanical disintegration of rocks due to temperature
changes, freeze-thaw cycles, wet-dry cycles, crystallisation of salts, animal and plant
activity, etc.
 Various mechanisms of physical weathering are explained below.
Exfoliation due to pressure release or unloading
 Intrusive igneous rocks formed deep beneath the Earth’s surface are under tremendous
pressure due to overlying load.
 Removal of the overlying load because of continued erosion causes vertical pressure
release with the result that the upper layers of the rock expand and fracture parallel to the

om
surface.
 Over time, sheets of rock break away from the exposed rocks along the fractures, a
process known as exfoliation.

l.c
 Exfoliation due to pressure release is also known as “sheeting“.

ai
Q.68 Consider the following statements
m
9g
1. Exfoliation due to thermal stress is most effective in dry climates and high elevations
where diurnal temperature changes are drastic.
56

2. Severe frost can disintegrate rocks along weak zones to produce highly angular pieces
with sharp corners and edges through the process of frost wedging
55

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
ar

(B) Only 2
m

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2
ku

Solution: A
an

Exfoliation due to thermal stress weathering

 Thermal stress weathering results from the subsequent expansion and contraction of
am

rocks caused by diurnal and seasonal variations in the temperatures.

 The surface layers of the rocks tend to expand more than the rock at depth, and this leads
to peeling off of the surface layers (exfoliation).
 This process is most effective in dry climates and high elevations where diurnal
temperature changes are drastic.
 Although temperature changes are the principal driver, moisture can enhance thermal
expansion in rock.
Granular Disintegration
 Granular disintegration happens in rocks composed of different types of coarse-grained
minerals.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 51
  Dark-coloured minerals absorb more heat than the light-coloured minerals.
 This leads to differential expansion and contraction of mineral grains resulting in grain by
grain separation from the rock.
Frost weathering
 During the warm season, the water penetrates the pore spaces or fractures in rocks.
 During the cold season, the water freezes into ice, and its volume expands as a result.
 This exerts tremendous pressure on rock walls to tear apart even where the rocks are
massive.
 Frost weathering occurs due to the growth of ice within pores and cracks of rocks during
repeated cycles of freezing and melting.
 Frost weathering is the collective name for several processes where ice is present.
 These processes include frost shattering, frost-wedging and freeze-thaw weathering.
Frost wedging
 Freeze wedging is caused by the repeated freeze-thaw cycle.
 Cracks filled with water are forced further apart with subsequent freezing and thawing.
Shattering
 Severe frost can disintegrate rocks along weak zones to produce highly angular pieces
with sharp corners and edges through the process of shattering.
 Shattering piles up rock fragments called scree at the foot of mountain areas or along
slopes.
Block Separation (freeze-thaw weathering)
 Repeated freeze-thaw cycles weaken the rocks which, over time, break up along the
joints into angular pieces. The splitting of rocks along the joints into blocks is called
block disintegration.

Q.69 Consider the following statements about significance of weathering

1. Weathering processes contributes to the enrichment of minerals in rocks
2. Soil formation depends on weathering of rocks
3. Biomes and biodiversity is basically a result of forests (vegetation) and forests depend
upon the depth of weathering mantles.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 52
Solution: D
Significance of Weathering
Weathering processes are responsible for breaking down the rocks into smaller fragments and
preparing the way for formation of not only regolith and soils, but also erosion and mass
movements. Biomes and biodiversity is basically a result of forests (vegetation) and forests
depend upon the depth of weathering mantles. Erosion cannot be significant if the rocks are not
weathered. That means, weathering aids mass wasting, erosion and reduction of relief and
changes in landforms are a consequence of erosion. Weathering of rocks and deposits helps in
the enrichment and concentrations of certain valuable ores of iron, manganese, aluminium,
copper etc., which are of great importance for the national economy. Weathering is an important
process in the formation of soils.
Q.70 Consider the following statements with reference to mass movement
1. Air, water or ice do not carry debris with them from place to place but on the other hand
the debris may carry with its air, water or ice.
2. Mass movements are very slow over weathered slopes due to friction rather than over
unweathered materials.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Mass Movements
These movements transfer the mass of rock debris down the slopes under the direct influence of
gravity. That means, air, water or ice do not carry debris with them from place to place but on the
other hand the debris may carry with it air, water or ice. The movements of mass may range from
slow to rapid, affecting shallow to deep columns of materials and include creep, flow, slide and
fall. Gravity exerts its force on all matter, both bedrock and the products of weathering. So,
weathering is not a pre-requisite for mass movement though it aids mass movements. Mass
movements are very active over weathered slopes rather than over unweathered materials.

Q.71 Consider the following statements

1. Mass movements are aided by gravity and no geomorphic agent like running water,
glaciers, wind, waves and currents participate in the process of mass movements.
2. Mass movements come under erosion as there is a shift of materials from one place to
another.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 53
 (A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Mass movements are aided by gravity and no geomorphic agent like running water, glaciers,
wind, waves and currents participate in the process of mass movements. That means mass
movements do not come under erosion though there is a shift (aided by gravity) of materials
from one place to another. Materials over the slopes have their own resistance to disturbing
forces and will yield only when force is greater than the shearing resistance of the materials.

om
Q.72 Which of the following favors mass movement?

l.c
1. Thick bedded rock

ai
2. Steeply dipping beds
3. Torrential rains
m
4. Abundance of vegetation
9g
5. Vertical cliffs
Choose the correct code from the list below
56

(A) 1, 4, and 5
55

(B) 2, 3, and 5
(C) 1, 2, 3, and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4, and 5
ar

Solution: B
m

Weak unconsolidated materials, thinly bedded rocks, faults, steeply dipping beds, vertical cliffs
ku

or steep slopes, abundant precipitation and torrential rains and scarcity of vegetation etc., favour
mass movements.
an

Several activating causes precede mass movements. They are : (i) removal of support from
below to materials above through natural or artificial means; (ii) increase in gradient and height
am

of slopes; (iii) overloading through addition of materials naturally or by artificial filling; (iv)
overloading due to heavy rainfall, saturation and lubrication of slope materials; (v) removal of
material or load from over the original slope surfaces; (vi) occurrence of earthquakes, explosions
or machinery; (vii) excessive natural seepage; (viii) heavy drawdown of water from lakes,
reservoirs and rivers leading to slow outflow of water from under the slopes or river banks; (ix)
indiscriminate removal of natural vegetation.

Q.73 Match the following movement of material

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 54
 1. Solifluction A. Occur on moderately steep, soil covered slopes. Movement of
materials
is extremely slow and imperceptible except through extended
observation.
2. Creep B. Movement of water-saturated clayey or silty earth materials down
low-
angle terraces or hillsides
3. Earthflow C. Involves slow downslope flowing soil mass or fine-grained rock
debris saturated or lubricated with water
4. Mudflow D. thick layers of weathered materials get saturated with water and either
slowly or rapidly flow down along definite channels.
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1.C,2.B,3.D, 4.A
(B) 1.B,2.C,3.A, 4.D
(C) 1.B,2.A,3.C, 4.D
(D) 1.C,2.A,3.B, 4.D
Solution: D
Slow Movements
Creep is one type under this category which can occur on moderately steep, soil covered slopes.
Movement of materials is extremely slow and imperceptible except through extended
observation. Materials involved can be soil or rock debris. Have you ever seen fence posts,
telephone poles lean downslope from their vertical position and in their linear alignment? If you
have, that is due to the creep effect. Depending upon the type of material involved, several types
of creep viz., soil creep, talus creep, rock creep, rock-glacier creep etc., can be identified. Also
included in this group is solifluction which involves slow downslope flowing soil mass or fine
grained rock debris saturated or lubricated with water. This process is quite common in moist
temperate areas where surface melting of deeply frozen ground and long continued rain
respectively, occur frequently. When the upper portions get saturated and when the lower parts
are impervious to water percolation, flowing occurs in the upper parts.
Rapid Movements
These movements are mostly prevalent in humid climatic regions and occur over gentle to steep
slopes. Movement of water-saturated clayey or silty earth materials down low-angle terraces or
hillsides is known as earthflow. Quite often, the materials slump making steplike terraces and
leaving arcuate scarps at their heads and an accumulation bulge at the toe.
When slopes are steeper, even the bedrock especially of soft sedimentary rocks like shale or
deeply weathered igneous rock may slide downslope.
Another type in this category is mudflow. In the absence of vegetation cover and with heavy
rainfall, thick layers of weathered materials get saturated with water and either slowly or rapidly

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 55
flow down along definite channels. It looks like a stream of mud within a valley. When the
mudflows emerge out of channels onto the piedmont or plains, they can be very destructive
engulfing roads, bridges and houses. Mudflows occur frequently on the slopes of erupting or
recently erupted volcanoes. Volcanic ash, dust and other fragments turn into mud due to heavy
rains and flow down as tongues or streams of mud causing great destruction to human
habitations. A third type is the debris avalanche, which is more characteristic of humid regions
with or without vegetation cover and occurs in narrow tracks on steep slopes. This debris
avalanche can be much faster than the mudflow. Debris avalanche is similar to snow avalanche.

Q.74 Consider the following statements with reference to Erosion and Deposition
1. The erosion and transportation of earth materials is brought about by different factors
which represent all three states of matter solid, liquid and gas
2. The work of the two agents of erosion waves and ground water is not controlled by
climate.
3. If the rocks are impermeable and soluble and water is available only then karst
topography develops.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) None of the above
Solution: B
Erosion and Deposition
Erosion involves acquisition and transportation of rock debris. When massive rocks break into
smaller fragments through weathering and any other process, erosional geomorphic agents like
running water, groundwater, glaciers, wind and waves remove and transport it to other places
depending upon the dynamics of each of these agents. Abrasion by rock debris carried by these
geomorphic agents also aids greatly in erosion. By erosion, relief degrades, i.e., the landscape is
worn down. That means, though weathering aids erosion it is not a pre-condition for erosion to
take place. Weathering, mass-wasting and erosion are degradational processes. It is erosion that
is largely responsible for continuous changes that the earth’s surface is undergoing. As indicated
in Figure 6.1, denudational processes like erosion and transportation are controlled by kinetic
energy. The erosion and transportation of earth materials is brought about by wind, running
water, glaciers, waves and ground water. Of these the first three agents are controlled by climatic
conditions. They represent three states of matter —gaseous (wind), liquid (running water) and
solid (glacier) respectively.
The work of the other two agents of erosion waves and ground water is not controlled by climate.
In case of waves it is the location along the interface of litho and hydro sphere — coastal region
— that will determine the work of waves, whereas the work of ground water is determined more

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 56
 by the lithological character of the region. If the rocks are permeable and soluble and water is
available only then karst topography develops. In the next chapter we shall be dealing with the
landforms produced by each of these agents of erosion.

Q.75 Consider the following statements with reference to Soil Formation

1. Petrology is the science of soil formation
2. Biological activity is slowed or stopped if the soil becomes too cold or too dry.
3. Parent material is a passive control factor in soil formation and it is in-situ in nature
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

om
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3

l.c
(C) 2 only
(D) All of the above

ai
Solution: C m
Petrology is science of rocks. A petrologist studies rocks in all their aspects viz., mineral
9g
composition, texture, structure, origin, occurrence, alteration and relationship with other rocks.
Soil and Soil Contents
56

A pedologist who studies soils defines soil as a collection of natural bodies on the earth’s surface
55

containing living and/or dead matter and supporting or capable of supporting plants. Soil is a
dynamic medium in which many chemical, physical and biological activities go on constantly.
ar

Soil is a result of decay, it is also the medium for growth. It is a changing and developing body.
It has many characteristics that fluctuate with the seasons. It may be alternatively cold and warm
m

or dry and moist. Biological activity is slowed or stopped if the soil becomes too cold or too dry.
Organic matter increases when leaves fall or grasses die. The soil chemistry, the amount of
ku

organic matter, the soil flora and fauna, the temperature and the moisture, all change with the
seasons as well as with more extended periods of time. That means, soil becomes adjusted to
an

conditions of climate, landform and vegetation and will change internally when these controlling
conditions change.
am

Parent Material
Parent material is a passive control factor in soil formation. Parent materials can be any insitu or
on-site weathered rock debris (residual soils) or transported deposits (transported soils). Soil
formation depends upon the texture (sizes of debris) and structure (disposition of individual
grains/particles of debris) as well as the mineral and chemical composition of the rock
debris/deposits.

Q.76 Consider the following statements

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 57
 1. Deposition of soil material from upper layers of soil to lower levels is called eluviations.
2. Transport of soil material from upper layers of soil to lower levels by downward
precipitation of water is called illuviation.
3. In temperate climates and in areas with intermediate precipitation conditions, calcium
carbonate nodules (kanker) are formed.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) All of the above
Solution: D
Climate – Soil forming factor
Climate is an important active factor in soil formation. The climatic elements involved in soil
development are : (i) moisture in terms of its intensity, frequency and duration of precipitation -
evaporation and humidity; (ii) temperature in terms of seasonal and diurnal variations.
Precipitation gives soil its moisture content which makes the chemical and biological activities
possible. Excess of water helps in the downward transportation of soil components through the
soil (eluviation) and deposits the same down below (illuviation). In climates like wet equatorial
rainy areas with high rainfall, not only calcium, sodium, magnesium, potassium etc. but also a
major part of silica is removed from the soil. Removal of silica from the soil is known as
desilication. In dry climates, because of high temperature, evaporation exceeds precipitation and
hence ground water is brought up to the surface by capillary action and in the process the water
evaporates leaving behind salts in the soil. Such salts form into a crust in the soil known as
hardpans. In tropical climates and in areas with intermediate precipitation conditions, calcium
carbonate nodules (kanker) are formed.

Q.77 Consider the following statements

1. Tropical soils with higher temperatures show deeper profiles and in the frozen tundra
regions soils contain largely mechanically broken materials.
2. With undecomposed organic matter because of low bacterial activity, layers of peat
develop in Ladakh climates.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 58
Temperature acts in two ways — increasing or reducing chemical and biological activity.
Chemical activity is increased in higher temperatures, reduced in cooler temperatures (with an
exception of carbonation) and stops in freezing conditions. That is why, tropical soils with higher
temperatures show deeper profiles and in the frozen tundra regions soils contain largely
mechanically broken materials.
Biological Activity
The vegetative cover and organisms that occupy the parent materials from the beginning and also
at later stages help in adding organic matter, moisture retention, nitrogen etc. Dead plants
provide humus, the finely divided organic matter of the soil. Some organic acids which form
during humification aid in decomposing the minerals of the soil parent materials.
Intensity of bacterial activity shows up differences between soils of cold and warm climates.
Humus accumulates in cold climates as bacterial growth is slow. With undecomposed organic
matter because of low bacterial activity, layers of peat develop in sub-arctic and tundra
climates. In humid tropical and equatorial climates, bacterial growth and action is intense and
dead vegetation is rapidly oxidised leaving very low humus content in the soil. Further, bacteria
and other soil organisms take gaseous nitrogen from the air and convert it into a chemical form
that can be used by plants. This process is known as nitrogen fixation. Rhizobium, a type of
bacteria, lives in the root nodules of leguminous plants and fixes nitrogen beneficial to the host
plant. The influence of large animals like ants, termites, earthworms, rodents etc., is mechanical,
but, it is nevertheless important in soil formation as they rework the soil up and down. In case of
earthworms, as they feed on soil, the texture and chemistry of the soil that comes out of their
body changes.

CHAPTER – 7: Landforms and Their Evolution

Q.78 Consider the following statements with reference to running water
1. The gentler the river channels in gradient or slope, the lesser is the deposition.
2. When the stream beds turn gentler due to continued erosion, downward cutting becomes
less dominant and lateral erosion of banks increases and as a consequence the hills and
valleys are reduced to plains.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Running Water

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 59
 In humid regions, which receive heavy rainfall running water is considered the most important of
the geomorphic agents in bringing about the degradation of the land surface. There are two
components of running water. One is overland flow on general land surface as a sheet. Another
is linear flow as streams and rivers in valleys. Most of the erosional landforms made by running
water are associated with vigorous and youthful rivers flowing over steep gradients.
With time, stream channels over steep gradients turn gentler due to continued erosion, and as a
consequence, lose their velocity, facilitating active deposition. There may be depositional forms
associated with streams flowing over steep slopes. But these phenomena will be on a small scale
compared to those associated with rivers flowing over medium to gentle slopes. The gentler the
river channels in gradient or slope, the greater is the deposition. When the stream beds turn

om
gentler due to continued erosion, downward cutting becomes less dominant and lateral erosion of
banks increases and as a consequence the hills and valleys are reduced to plains.

l.c
Q.79 Which of the following statement correctly defines the “Monadnocks”?

ai
(A) Gentler stream bed due to continued erosion
m
(B) Low, linear and parallel ridges of coarse deposits
9g
(C) A lowland of faint relief with some low resistant remnants
(D) Concave side of meanders of large rivers
56

Solution: C
Overland flow causes sheet erosion. Depending upon irregularities of the land surface, the
55

overland flow may concentrate into narrow to wide paths. Because of the sheer friction of the
column of flowing water, minor or major quantities of materials from the surface of the land are
ar

removed in the direction of flow and gradually small and narrow rills will form. These rills will
gradually develop into long and wide gullies; the gullies will further deepen, widen, lengthen and
m

unite to give rise to a network of valleys. In the early stages, down-cutting dominates during
ku

which irregularities such as waterfalls and cascades will be removed. In the middle stages,
streams cut their beds slower, and lateral erosion of valley sides becomes severe. Gradually, the
an

valley sides are reduced to lower and lower slopes. The divides between drainage basins are
likewise lowered until they are almost completely flattened leaving finally, a lowland of faint
am

relief with some low resistant remnants called monadnocks standing out here and there. This
type of plain forming as a result of stream erosion is called a peneplain (an almost plain).

Q.80 Consider the following statements with reference to stages of landscape developing in
running water regime
1. Streams are few during this youth stage with poor integration and flow over original
slopes showing shallow V-shaped valleys with no floodplains
2. Under old stage Waterfalls and rapids disappear.
3. At mature stage streams meander freely over vast floodplains showing natural levees,
oxbow lakes, etc.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 60
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
Solution: A
Youth
Streams are few during this stage with poor integration and flow over original slopes showing
shallow V-shaped valleys with no floodplains or with very narrow floodplains along trunk
streams. Streams divides are broad and flat with marshes, swamp and lakes. Meanders if present
develop over these broad upland surfaces. These meanders may eventually entrench themselves
into the uplands. Waterfalls and rapids may exist where local hard rock bodies are exposed.
Mature
During this stage streams are plenty with good integration. The valleys are still V-shaped but
deep; trunk streams are broad enough to have wider floodplains within which streams may flow
in meanders confined within the valley. The flat and broad inter stream areas and swamps and
marshes of youth disappear and the stream divides turn sharp. Waterfalls and rapids disappear.
Old
Smaller tributaries during old age are few with gentle gradients. Streams meander freely over
vast floodplains showing natural levees, oxbow lakes, etc. Divides are broad and flat with lakes,
swamps and marshes. Most of the landscape is at or slightly above sea level.

Q.81 Consider the following statements with reference to erosional landforms

1. A canyon is a deep valley with very steep to straight sides and a gorge is characterised by
steep step-like side slopes
2. It is common to find meandering courses over floodplains and delta plains where stream
gradients are steep.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Erosional Landforms
Valleys

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 61
Valleys start as small and narrow rills; the rills will gradually develop into long and wide gullies;
the gullies will further deepen, widen and lengthen to give rise to valleys. Depending upon
dimensions and shape, many types of valleys like V-shaped valley, gorge, canyon, etc. can be
recognised. A gorge is a deep valley with very steep to straight sides and a canyon is
characterised by steep step-like side slopes and may be as deep as a gorge. A gorge is almost
equal in width at its top as well as its bottom. In contrast, a canyon is wider at its top than at its
bottom. In fact, a canyon is a variant of gorge. Valley types depend upon the type and structure
of rocks in which they form. For example, canyons commonly form in horizontal bedded
sedimentary rocks and gorges form in hard rocks.
Incised or Entrenched Meanders
In streams that flow rapidly over steep gradients, normally erosion is concentrated on the bottom
of the stream channel. Also, in the case of steep gradient streams, lateral erosion on the sides of
the valleys is not much when compared to the streams flowing on low and gentle slopes. Because
of active lateral erosion, streams flowing over gentle slopes, develop
sinuous or meandering courses. It is common to find meandering courses over floodplains and
delta plains where stream gradients are very gentle. But very deep and wide meanders can also
be found cut in hard rocks. Such meanders are called incised or entrenched meanders

Q.82 Consider the following statements with reference to river terraces

1. They are basically products of erosion as they result due to vertical erosion by the stream
into its own depositional floodplain.
2. The terraces may result due to change in hydrological regime due to climatic changes
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
River Terraces
River terraces are surfaces marking old valley floor or floodplain levels. They may be bedrock
surfaces without any alluvial cover or alluvial terraces consisting of stream deposits. River
terraces are basically products of erosion as they result due to vertical erosion by the stream into
its own depositional floodplain. There can be a number of such terraces at different heights
indicating former river bed levels. The river terraces may occur at the same elevation on either
side of the rivers in which case they are called paired terraces
When a terrace is present only on one side of the stream and with none on the other side or one at
quite a different elevation on the other side, the terraces are called unpaired terraces. Unpaired

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 62
 terraces are typical in areas of slow uplift of land or where the water column changes are not
uniform along both the banks. The terraces may result due to (i) receding water after a peak flow;
(ii) change in hydrological regime due to climatic changes; (iii) tectonic uplift of land; (iv) sea
level changes in case of rivers closer to the sea.

Q.83 Natural levees and Point bars are landforms of which type?
(A) Depositional Landform
(B) Erosional landforms
(C) Floodplains

om
(D) None of the above
Solution: A

l.c
Floodplains, Natural Levees and Point Bars
Deposition develops a floodplain just as erosion makes valleys. Floodplain is a major landform

ai
of river deposition. Large sized materials are deposited first when stream channel breaks into a
m
gentle slope. Thus, normally, fine sized materials like sand, silt and clay are carried by relatively
slow moving waters in gentler channels usually found in the plains and deposited over the bed
9g
and when the waters spill over the banks during flooding above the bed. A river bed made of
river deposits is the active floodplain. The floodplain above the bank is inactive floodplain.
56

Inactive floodplain above the banks basically contain two types of deposits — flood deposits and
channel deposits. In plains, channels shift laterally and change their courses occasionally leaving
55

cut-off courses which get filled up gradually. Such areas over flood plains built up by abandoned
or cut-off channels contain coarse deposits. The flood deposits of spilled waters carry relatively
ar

finer materials like silt and clay. The flood plains in a delta are called delta plains.
m

Natural levees and point bars are some of the important landforms found associated with
floodplains. Natural levees are found along the banks of large rivers. They are low, linear and
ku

parallel ridges of coarse deposits along the banks of rivers, quite often cut into individual
mounds. During flooding as the water spills over the bank, the velocity of the water comes down
an

and large sized and high specific gravity materials get dumped in the immediate vicinity of the
bank as ridges. They are high nearer the banks and slope gently away from the river. The levee
am

deposits are coarser than the deposits spread by flood waters away from the river. When rivers
shift laterally, a series of natural levees can form. Point bars are also known as meander bars.
They are found on the concave side of meanders of large rivers and are sediments deposited in a
linear fashion by flowing waters along the bank. They are almost uniform in profile and in width
and contain mixed sizes of sediments. If there is more than one ridge, narrow and elongated
depressions are found in between the point bars. Rivers build a series of them depending upon
the water flow and supply of sediment. As the rivers build the point bars on the concave side, the
bank on the convex side will erode actively.

Q.84 Consider the following statements

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 63
 1. Coriolis forces plays role in the formation of meanders
2. Deposition plays a major role in the formation of ox-bow lake out of meander
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Meanders
In large flood and delta plains, rivers rarely flow in straight courses. Loop-like channel patterns
called meanders develop over flood and delta plains.
Meander is not a landform but is only a type of channel pattern. This is because of (i) propensity
of water flowing over very gentle gradients to work laterally on the banks; (ii) unconsolidated
nature of alluvial deposits making up the banks with many irregularities which can be used by
water exerting pressure laterally; (iii) coriolis force acting on the fluid water deflecting it like it
deflects the wind. When the gradient of the channel becomes extremely low, water flows
leisurely and starts working laterally. Slight irregularities along the banks slowly get transformed
into a small curvature in the banks; the curvature deepens due to deposition on the inside of the
curve and erosion along the bank on the outside. If there is no deposition and no erosion or
undercutting, the tendency to meander is reduced. Normally, in meanders of large rivers, there is
active deposition along the concave bank and undercutting along the convex bank. The concave
bank is known as cut-off bank which shows up as a steep scarp and the convex bank presents a
long, gentle profile. As meanders grow into deep loops, the same may get cut-off due to erosion
at the inflection points and are left as ox-bow lakes.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 64
Q.85 The term “doline” has been seen in the context of landform. Which of the following option
correct defines it?
(A) Lateral erosion of gentle slope of valley by large pebbles
(B) Deposition of fine sand on sides of braided channel
(C) Collapse sinks form on limestone through solution
(D) Mount like formation of deposition with coarse grain
Solution: C
Pools, Sinkholes, Lapies and Limestone Pavements
Small to medium sized round to sub-rounded shallow depressions called swallow holes form on
the surface of limestones through solution. Sinkholes are very common in limestone/karst areas.
A sinkhole is an opening more or less circular at the top and funnel-shapped towards the bottom
with sizes varying in area from a few sq. m to a hectare and with depth from a less than half a
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 65
 metre to thirty metres or more. Some of these form solely through solution action (solution sinks)
and others might start as solution forms first and if the bottom of a sinkhole forms the roof of a
void or cave underground, it might collapse leaving a large hole opening into a cave or a void
below (collapse sinks). Quite often, sinkholes are covered up with soil mantle and appear as
shallow water pools. Anybody stepping over such pools would go down like it happens in
quicksands in deserts. The term doline is sometimes used to refer the collapse sinks. Solution
sinks are more common than collapse sinks. Quite often the surface run-off simply goes down
swallow and sink holes and flow as underground streams and re-emerge at a distance
downstream through a cave opening. When sink holes and dolines join together because of
slumping of materials along their margins or due to roof collapse of caves, long, narrow to wide
trenches called valley sinks or Uvalas form. Gradually, most of the surface of the limestone is

om
eaten away by these pits and trenches, leaving it extremely irregular with a maze of points,
grooves and ridges or lapies. Especially, these ridges or lapies form due to differential solution

l.c
activity along parallel to sub-parallel joints. The lapie field may eventually turn into somewhat
smooth limestone pavements.

ai
m
Q.86 Find the landform from the following description
9g
1. They quite often are found at the heads of glacial valleys.
2. They are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very steep concave to vertically
56

dropping high walls at its head as well as sides

3. A lake of water can be seen quite often within the landform after the glacier disappears.
55

Choose the correct option

ar

(A) Arete
(B) Cirque
m

(C) Col
ku

(D) Eskers
Solution: B
an

Cirque
am

Cirques are the most common of landforms in glaciated mountains. The cirques quite often are
found at the heads of glacial valleys. The accumulated ice cuts these cirques while moving down
the mountain tops. They are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very steep concave to
vertically dropping high walls at its head as well as sides. A lake of water can be seen quite often
within the cirques after the glacier disappears. Such lakes are called cirque or tarn lakes. There
can be two or more cirques one leading into another down below in a stepped sequence.
Horns and Serrated Ridges
Horns form through head ward erosion of the cirque walls. If three or more radiating glaciers cut
headward until their cirques meet, high, sharp pointed and steep sided peaks called horns form.
The divides between cirque side walls or head walls get narrow because of progressive erosion

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 66
and turn into serrated or saw-toothed ridges sometimes referred to as arêtes with very sharp crest
and a zig-zag outline.

Q.87 Consider the following statements with reference to fjords/fiords

1. It is a long, narrow and steep-sided inlet created by a glacier
2. They are formed where the lower end of a very deep glacial trough is filled with sea
water
3. They are associated with seawater activities.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Glacial Valleys/Troughs
Glaciated valleys are trough-like and U-shaped with broad floors and relatively smooth, and
steep sides. The valleys may contain littered debris or debris shaped as moraines with swampy
appearance. There may be lakes gouged out of rocky floor or formed by debris within the
valleys. There can be hanging valleys at an elevation on one or both sides of the main glacial
valley. The faces of divides or spurs of such hanging valleys opening into main glacial valleys
are quite often truncated to give them an appearance like triangular facets. Very deep glacial
troughs filled with sea water and making up shorelines (in high latitudes) are called
fjords/fiords.

Q.88 Match the following type of moraines with their description

1. Terminal moraines A. The moraine in the centre of the glacial valley flanked by lateral
moraines
2. Lateral moraines B. Long ridges of debris deposited at the end (toe) of the glacier

3. Medial moraine C. Form along the sides parallel to the glacial valleys
4. Ground moraine D. Consists of an irregular blanket of till deposited under a glacier
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1.C,2.B,3.D, 4.A
(B) 1.B,2.C,3.A, 4.D
(C) 1.B,2.A,3.C, 4.D
(D) 1.C,2.A,3.B, 4.D

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 67
Solution: B
Moraines
They are long ridges of deposits of glacial till. Terminal moraines are long ridges of debris
deposited at the end (toe) of the glaciers. Lateral moraines form along the sides parallel to the
glacial valleys. The lateral moraines may join a terminal moraine forming a horse-shoe shaped
ridge. There can be many lateral moraines on either side in a glacial valley. These moraines
partly or fully owe their origin to glaciofluvial waters pushing up materials to the sides of
glaciers. Many valley glaciers retreating rapidly leave an irregular sheet of till over their valley
floors. Such deposits varying greatly in thickness and in surface topography are called ground
moraines. The moraine in the centre of the glacial valley flanked by lateral moraines is called
medial moraine. They are imperfectly formed as compared to lateral moraines. Sometimes
medial moraines are indistinguishable from ground moraines.

Q.89 Consider the following statements

1. The west coast of our country is a high rocky retreating coast. Depositional forms
dominate in the west coast.
2. The east coast of India is a low sedimentary coast. Erosional forms dominate in the east
coast.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
The west coast of our country is a high rocky retreating coast. Erosional forms dominate in the
west coast. The east coast of India is a low sedimentary coast. Depositional forms dominate in
the east coast.
High Rocky Coasts
Along the high rocky coasts, the rivers appear to have been drowned with highly irregular
coastline. The coastline appears highly indented with extension of water into the land where
glacial valleys (fjords) are present. The hill sides drop off sharply into the water. Shores do not
show any depositional landforms initially. Erosion features dominate. Along high rocky coasts,
waves break with great force against the land shaping the hill sides into cliffs. With constant
pounding by waves, the cliffs recede leaving a wave-cut platform in front of the sea cliff. Waves
gradually minimise the irregularities along the shore.
The materials which fall off, and removed from the sea cliffs, gradually break into smaller
fragments and roll to roundness, will get deposited in the offshore. After a considerable period of

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 68
 cliff development and retreat when coastline turns somewhat smooth, with the addition of some
more material to this deposit in the offshore, a wave-built terrace would develop in front of
wave-cut terrace. As the erosion along the coast takes place a good supply material becomes
available to longshore currents and waves to deposit them as beaches along the shore and as bars
(long ridges of sand and/or shingle parallel to the coast) in the nearshore zone. Bars are
submerged features and when bars show up above water, they are called barrier bars. Barrier bar
which get keyed up to the headland of a bay is called a spit. When barrier bars and spits form at
the mouth of a bay and block it, a lagoon forms. The lagoons would gradually get filled up by
sediments from the land giving rise to a coastal plain.
Low Sedimentary Coasts

om
Along low sedimentary coasts the rivers appear to extend their length by building coastal plains
and deltas. The coastline appears smooth with occasional incursions of water in the form of

l.c
lagoons and tidal creeks. The land slopes gently into the water. Marshes and swamps may
abound along the coasts.

ai
Depositional features dominate. When waves break over a gently sloping sedimentary coast, the
m
bottom sediments get churned and move readily building bars, barrier bars, spits and lagoons.
Lagoons would eventually turn into a swamp which would subsequently turn into a coastal plain.
9g
The maintenance of these depositional features depends upon the steady supply of materials.
Storm and tsunami waves cause drastic changes irrespective of supply of sediments. Large rivers
56

which bring lots of sediments build deltas along low sedimentary coasts.
55

Q.90 Consider the following statements with reference to Beaches and dunes
ar

1. Most of the sediment making up the beaches comes from sea carried by the streams or
m

from wave erosion.

2. Sand dunes forming long ridges parallel to the coastline are very common along low
ku

sedimentary coasts.
an

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
am

(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
DEPOSITIONAL LANDFORMS
Beaches and Dunes
Beaches are characteristic of shorelines that are dominated by deposition, but may occur as
patches along even the rugged shores. Most of the sediment making up the beaches comes from
land carried by the streams and rivers or from wave erosion. Beaches are temporary features. The

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 69
sandy beach which appears so permanent may be reduced to a very narrow strip of coarse
pebbles in some other season. Most of the beaches are made up of sand sized materials. Beaches
called shingle beaches contain excessively small pebbles and even cobbles. Just behind the
beach, the sands lifted and winnowed from over the beach surfaces will be deposited as sand
dunes. Sand dunes forming long ridges parallel to the coastline are very common along low
sedimentary coasts.

Q.91 Consider the following statements

1. The barriers, bars and spits at the mouth of the bay gradually extend leaving only a small
opening of the bay into the sea and the bay will eventually develop into a lagoon.
2. The coastal off-shore bars offer the first buffer or defence against storm or tsunami by
absorbing most of their destructive force.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Bars, Barriers and Spits
A ridge of sand and shingle formed in the sea in the off-shore zone (from the position of low tide
waterline to seaward) lying approximately parallel to the coast is called an off-shore bar. An off-
shore bar which is exposed due to further addition of sand is termed a barrier bar. The off-shore
bars and barriers commonly form across the mouth of a river or at the entrance of a bay.
Sometimes such barrier bars get keyed up to one end of the bay when they are called spits. Spits
may also develop attached to headlands/hills. The barriers, bars and spits at the mouth of the bay
gradually extend leaving only a small opening of the bay into the sea and the bay will eventually
develop into a lagoon. The lagoons get filled up gradually by sediment coming from the land or
from the beach itself (aided by wind) and a broad and wide coastal plain may develop replacing a
lagoon. Do you know, the coastal off-shore bars offer the first buffer or defence against storm or
tsunami by absorbing most of their destructive force. Then come the barriers, beaches, beach
dunes and mangroves, if any, to absorb the destructive force of storm and tsunami waves. So, if
we do anything which disturbs the ‘sediment budget’ and the mangroves along the coast, these
coastal forms will get eroded away leaving human habitations to bear first strike of storm and
tsunami waves.

Q.92 Consider the following statements

1. Gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin
cover of debris, are called pediplains.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 70
 2. Inselberg are form due to the retreat of glacier on a weathered surface
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Pediments and Pediplains
Landscape evolution in deserts is primarily concerned with the formation and extension of
pediments. Gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin
cover of debris, are called pediments. Such rocky floors form through the erosion of mountain
front through a combination of lateral erosion by streams and sheet flooding. Erosion starts along
the steep margins of the landmass or the steep sides of the tectonically controlled steep incision
features over the landmass. Once, pediments are formed with a steep wash slope followed by
cliff or free face above it, the steep wash slope and free face retreat backwards. This method of
erosion is termed as parallel retreat of slopes through backwasting. So, through parallel retreat of
slopes, the pediments extend backwards at the expense of mountain front, and gradually, the
mountain gets reduced leaving an inselberg which is a remnant of the mountain. That’s how the
high relief in desert areas is reduced to low featureless plains called pediplains.

Q.93 Consider the following statements about sand dunes and barchans
1. Crescent shaped dunes called barchans with the points or wings directed away from wind
direction form where the wind direction is constant and moderate and where the original
surface over which sand is moving is almost uniform.
2. Longitudinal dunes form when supply of sand is high and wind direction is constant.
3. Transverse dunes are aligned parallel to wind direction.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Sand Dunes
Dry hot deserts are good places for sand dune formation. Obstacles to initiate dune formation are
equally important. There can be a great variety of dune forms.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 71
 om
l.c
ai
m
9g
56
55
ar

Crescent shaped dunes called barchans with the points or wings directed away from wind
m

direction i.e., downwind, form where the wind direction is constant and moderate and where the
ku

original surface over which sand is moving is almost uniform. Parabolic dunes form when sandy
surfaces are partially covered with vegetation. That means parabolic dunes are reversed barchans
an

with wind direction being the same. Seif is similar to barchan with a small difference. Seif has
only one wing or point. This happens when there is shift in wind conditions. The lone wings of
am

seifs can grow very long and high. Longitudinal dunes form when supply of sand is poor and
wind direction is constant. They appear as long ridges of considerable length but low in height.
Transverse dunes are aligned perpendicular to wind direction. These dunes form when the wind
direction is constant and the source of sand is an elongated feature at right angles to the wind
direction. They may be very long and low in height. When sand is plenty, quite often, the regular
shaped dunes coalesce and lose their individual characteristics. Most of the dunes in the deserts
shift and a few of them will get stabilised especially near human habitations.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 72
 CHAPTER – 8 : Composition and Structure of Atmosphere
Q.94 Consider the following statements
3. The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that
oxygen will be almost in negligible quantity at the height of 120 km.
4. Carbon dioxide is transparent to the incoming solar radiation but opaque to the outgoing
terrestrial radiation.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(E) Only 1
(F) Only 2
(G) Both 1 and 2
(H) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Composition of the Atmosphere
The atmosphere is composed of gases, water vapour and dust particles. The proportion of gases
changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that oxygen will be almost in
negligible quantity at the height of 120 km. Similarly, carbon dioxide and water vapour are
found only up to 90 km from the surface of the earth.
Gases
Carbon dioxide is meteorologically a very important gas as it is transparent to the incoming solar
radiation but opaque to the outgoing terrestrial radiation. It absorbs a part of terrestrial radiation
and reflects back some part of it towards the earth’s surface. It is largely responsible for the
green house effect. The volume of other gases is constant but the volume of carbon dioxide has
been rising in the past few decades mainly because of the burning of fossil fuels. This has also
increased the temperature of the air. Ozone is another important component of the atmosphere
found between 10 and 50 km above the earth’s surface and acts as a filter and absorbs the ultra-
violet rays radiating from the sun and prevents them from reaching the surface of the earth.

Q.95 Consider the following statements with reference to water vapours

1. Water vapour in atmosphere decreases from the poles towards the equator.
2. It acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither to become too cold nor too hot.
3. Water vapour is also a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(E) 1 and 2
(F) 1 and 3
(G) 2 and 3
(H) 1, 2 and 3

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 73
Solution: C
Water Vapour
Water vapour is also a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude. In the warm
and wet tropics, it may account for four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold
areas of desert and polar regions, it may be less than one per cent of the air. Water vapour also
decreases from the equator towards the poles. It also absorbs parts of the
insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat. It thus, acts like a blanket
allowing the earth neither to become too cold nor too hot. Water vapour also contributes to the
stability and instability in the air.

Q.96 Consider the following statements with reference to dust particles

1. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in tropical regions and help in the
formation of cloud and precipitation
2. Dust particles in upper atmosphere is found more in tropical areas due to more
convectional air currents
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Dust Particles
Atmosphere has a sufficient capacity to keep small solid particles, which may originate from
different sources and include sea salts, fine soil, smoke-soot, ash, pollen, dust and disintegrated
particles of meteors. Dust particles are generally concentrated in the lower layers of the
atmosphere; yet, convectional air currents may transport them to great heights. The higher
concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in
comparison to equatorial and polar regions. Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei
around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.

Q.96 Thickness of Troposphere is highest in which region

(A) Poles
(B) Temperate
(C) Tropical
(D) Equator
Solution: D

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 74
 The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and
extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of
the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong
convectional currents. This layer contains dust particles and water vapour.

Q.97 Consider the following statements with reference to Structure of the Atmosphere
1. Density is highest near the surface of the earth and decreases with increasing altitude.
2. All changes in climate and weather take place upto stratosphere.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

om
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2

l.c
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ai
Solution: A m
Structure of the Atmosphere
9g
 The atmosphere consists of different layers with varying density and temperature.
Density is highest near the surface of the earth and decreases with increasing altitude.
56

The column of atmosphere is divided into five different layers depending upon the
temperature condition. They are: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere
55

and exosphere.
 The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km
ar

and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator.
Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great
m

heights by strong convectional currents. This layer contains dust particles and water
ku

vapour. All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer. The temperature in
this layer decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165m of height. This is the most
an

important layer for all biological activity.

Q.98 Consider the following statements with reference to ionosphere
am

1. The charged particles are ionized by absorption of cosmic rays, gamma rays, X-rays and
shorter wavelengths of ultraviolet rays.
2. The ionosphere is significant because it aids long-distance communication by reflecting
radio waves back to Earth.
3. It is also known for its auroral displays, such as the “northern lights” that develop when
charged atomic particles from the Sun are trapped by the electric field of Earth near the
poles.
4. In the ionosphere, charged particles from Sun “excite” the nitrogen molecules and
oxygen atoms, causing them to emit light, not unlike a neon light bulb.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 75
 (A) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Solution: D
Ionosphere
 This is the zone containing charged particles called ions. It lies from the upper
mesosphere to the thermosphere.
 The charged particles are ionized by absorption of cosmic rays, gamma rays, X-rays and
shorter wavelengths of ultraviolet rays.
 It is in this layer that incoming space vehicles and meteorites begin to heat due to friction.
 Above this layer i.e. above 480km, atomic oxygen is prevalent and beyond that first
helium is more common and then hydrogen atoms predominate.
 The ionosphere is a deep layer of electrically charged molecules and atoms (which are
called ions) in the middle and upper mesosphere and the lower thermosphere, between
about 60 and 400 kilometers (40 and 250 miles). The ionosphere is significant because it
aids long-distance communication by reflecting radio waves back to Earth.
 It is also known for its auroral displays, such as the “northern lights” that develop when
charged atomic particles from the Sun are trapped by the magnetic field of Earth near the
poles. In the ionosphere, these particles “excite” the nitrogen molecules and oxygen
atoms, causing them to emit light, not unlike a neon light bulb.

Q.99 Consider the following statements with reference to isothermal zone

1. It lies just below exosphere in the atmosphere in which with the increase in height there is
almost a consistency of temperature.
2. These zones provide “ideal flying condition” for aircraft because of absence of strong
Convection currents
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
 An isothermal zone is a zone in the atmosphere in which with the increase in height there
is almost a consistency of temperature.
 The lower part of the stratosphere just above the tropopause, in general, has “isothermal
conditions”. In this zone, the temperature does not increase with height because there is

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 76
 not much Ozone here. In this zone, the temperature does not decrease with height because
there is not much Convection in the zone.
 These zones provide “ideal flying condition” for aircraft because of the following
reasons:
o Absence of Clouds in general.
o Absence of strong Convection currents
o Presence of isothermal conditions.

CHAPTER – 9 : Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature

Q.100 Consider the following statements
1. Due to rotation of the earth it is farthest from the Sun on 4th July. This position of the
earth is called aphelion.
2. The position when earth is nearest to the Sun is called perihelion and India faces the
warmest time of the year.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
The solar output received at the top of the atmosphere varies slightly in a year due to the
variations in the distance between the earth and the sun. During its revolution around the sun, the
earth is farthest from the sun (152 million km) on 4th July. This position of the earth is called
aphelion. On 3rd January, the earth is the nearest to the sun (147 million km). This position is
called perihelion. Therefore, the annual insolation received by the earth on 3rd January is slightly
more than the amount received on 4th July. However, the effect of this variation in the solar
output is masked by other factors like the distribution of land and sea and the atmospheric
circulation. Hence, this variation in the solar output does not have great effect on daily weather
changes on the surface of the earth.

Q.101 The amount and the intensity of insolation vary during a day, in a season and in a year.
Choose the correct factors which cause these variations in insolation
1. The rotation of earth on its axis
2. The angle of inclination of the sun’s rays
3. The length of the day
4. Vertical movement of air due to convection current
5. The transparency of the atmosphere
6. The configuration of land in terms of its aspect
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 77
 Choose the correct code from the list below
(E) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(F) 2, 4, 5 and 6
(G) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
(H) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Solution: C
Variability of Insolation at the Surface of the Earth
The amount and the intensity of insolation vary during a day, in a season and in a year. The
factors that cause these variations in insolation are : (i) the rotation of earth on its axis; (ii) the

om
angle of inclination of the sun’s rays; (iii) the length of the day; (iv) the transparency of the
atmosphere; (v) the configuration of land in terms of its aspect. The last two however, have less

l.c
influence.

Q.102 Consider the following statements

ai
m
1. The earth’s axis makes an angle of 63½ with the plane of its orbit round the sun has a
9g
greater influence on the amount of insolation received at different latitudes.
2. The higher the latitude the less is the angle they make with the surface of the earth
56

resulting in slant sun rays.

3. The area covered by vertical rays is always less than the slant rays.
55

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

ar

(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
m

(C) 2 and 3
ku

(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
an

The fact that the earth’s axis makes an angle of 66½ with the plane of its orbit round the sun has
a greater influence on the amount of insolation received at different latitudes.
am

The second factor that determines the amount of insolation received is the angle of inclination of
the rays. This depends on the latitude of a place. The higher the latitude the less is the angle they
make with the surface of the earth resulting in slant sun rays. The area covered by vertical rays is
always less than the slant rays. If more area is covered, the energy gets distributed and the net
energy received per unit area decreases. Moreover, the slant rays are required to pass through
greater depth of the atmosphere resulting in more absorption, scattering and diffusion.

Q.103 Consider the following statements with reference to spatial distribution of insolation

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 78
 1. Maximum insolation is received over the tropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the
least.
2. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics, while the annual
insolation is very high at the Equator.
3. At the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans
because more clouds over the oceans reflect sun rays back into space.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Spatial Distribution of Insolation at the Earth’s Surface
The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 Watt/m2 in the tropics to about 70
Watt/m2 in the poles. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the
cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. Generally,
at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. In winter, the
middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.
Annual insolation is very high at the Equator because the Sun passes directly overhead at noon
every day throughout the year.

Q.104 Most of the diurnal variation in weather is caused by "X" only in the middle latitudes.
During summer in tropical regions predominantly in Northern India, local winds called ‘loo’ is
the result of the "X" process. "X" processes are important heat equilibration mechanisms for both
the atmosphere and the oceans. Identify the “X” from the given options
(A) Conduction
(B) Advection
(C) Convection
(D) Radiation
Solution: B
Heating and Cooling of Atmosphere
 There are various ways of heating and cooling of the atmosphere.
 The earth after being warmed by insolation transfers the heat to the atmospheric layers in
the long waveform.
Conduction
 The air in interaction with the land gets heated gradually and the upper layers in touch
with the lower layers also get heated. This process is called conduction.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 79
  This process takes place when two bodies of uneven temperature are in contact with one
another, there is a flow of energy from the warmer to the cooler body.
 The heat transfer continues until both the bodies reach the same temperature or the
contact is interrupted.
 This process is significant in heating the lower layers of the atmosphere.
Convection
 The air in contact with the earth upsurges vertically on heating in the form of currents and
transfers the heat of the atmosphere.
 This vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as convection.
 The convective transfer of energy is limited only to the troposphere.
Advection
 The transfer of heat through the horizontal movement of air is called advection.
 The horizontal movement of the air is comparatively more significant than the vertical
movement.
 Most of the diurnal variation in weather is caused by advection only in the middle
latitudes.
 During summer in tropical regions predominantly in Northern India, local winds called
‘loo’ is the result of the advection process.

Q.105 Consider the following statements with reference to terrestrial radiation

1. The insolation received by the earth is in long waves forms and heats up its surface.
2. The earth after being heated itself becomes a radiating body and it radiates energy to the
atmosphere in short wave form.
3. It plays major role in the greenhouse effect
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Terrestrial Radiation
 The insolation received by the earth is in short waves forms and heats up its surface. The
earth after being heated itself becomes a radiating body and it radiates energy to the
atmosphere in long wave form. This energy heats up the atmosphere from below. This
process is known as terrestrial radiation.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 80
  The long wave radiation is absorbed by the atmospheric gases particularly by carbon
dioxide and the other greenhouse gases. Thus, the atmosphere is indirectly heated by the
earth’s radiation.
 The atmosphere in turn radiates and transmits heat to the space. Finally, the amount of
heat received from the sun is returned to space, thereby maintaining constant temperature
at the earth’s surface and in the atmosphere.

Q.106 Consider the following statements with reference to Earth’s Heat Budget
1. The surplus heat energy from the tropics is redistributed towards the pole and as a result

om
the tropics do not get progressively heated up and high latitudes get permanently frozen.
2. While receiving total insolation nearly 1/3 is reflected back into space and most of it is
done by ice and snow region of earth due to high albedo

l.c
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
ai
(B) Only 2
m
(C) Both 1 and 2
9g
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
56

Heat Budget of the Planet Earth

55

The earth as a whole does not accumulate or loose heat. It maintains its temperature. This can
happen only if the amount of heat received in the form of insolation equals the amount lost by
ar

the earth through terrestrial radiation. Consider that the insolation received at the top of the
atmosphere is 100 per cent. While passing through the atmosphere some amount of energy is
m

reflected, scattered and absorbed.

ku

Only the remaining part reaches the earth surface. Roughly 35 units are reflected back to space
even before reaching the earth’s surface. Of these, 27 units are reflected back from the top of the
an

clouds and 2 units from the snow and ice-covered areas of the earth. The reflected amount of
radiation is called the albedo of the earth.
am

The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s
surface. The earth radiates back 51 units in the form of terrestrial radiation. Of these, 17 units are
radiated to space directly and the remaining 34 units are absorbed by the atmosphere (6 units
absorbed directly by the atmosphere, 9 units through convection and turbulence and 19 units
through latent heat of condensation). 48 units absorbed by the atmosphere (14 units from
insolation +34 units from terrestrial radiation) are also radiated back into space. Thus, the total
radiation returning from the earth and the atmosphere respectively is 17+48=65 units which
balance the total of 65 units received from the sun. This is termed the heat budget or heat balance
of the earth.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 81
This explains, why the earth neither warms up nor cools down despite the huge transfer ofheat
that takes place.
Variation in the Net Heat Budget at the Earth’s Surface
As explained earlier, there are variations in the amount of radiation received at the earth’s
surface. Some part of the earth has surplus radiation balance while the other part has deficit.
Figure 9.3 depicts the latitudinal variation in the net radiation balance of the earth — the
atmosphere system. The figure shows that there is a surplus of net radiation balance between 40
degrees north and south and the regions near the poles have a deficit. The surplus heat energy
from the tropics is redistributed pole wards and as a result the tropics do not get progressively
heated up due to the accumulation of excess heat or the high latitudes get permanently frozen due
to excess deficit.

Q.107 Which of the following factors are majorly responsible for controlling temperature
distribution
1. The latitude of the place
2. Amount of precipitation
3. The altitude of the place
4. Upwelling of sea
5. Distance from the sea
6. The presence of warm and cold ocean currents
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 3, 5 and 6
(B) 2, 4, 5 and 6

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 82
 (C) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Solution: A
Factors Controlling Temperature Distribution
The temperature of air at any place is influenced by (i) the latitude of the place; (ii) the altitude
of the place; (iii) distance from the sea, the airmass circulation; (iv) the presence of warm and
cold ocean currents; (v) local aspects.

Q.108 Consider the following statements

1. The actual rate of decline of temperature with increase in height at a given place and a
given point of time is called Normal Lapse Rate
2. Compared to land, the sea gets heated slowly and loses heat slowly.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Environmental lapse rate: The actual rate of decline of temperature with increase in height at a
given place and a given point of time is called Environmental lapse rate. It has too much of
spatial and temporal variation.
Normal Lapse Rate: This is an average concept and is generally taken as a decline of 6.4 o C per
1 Km ascend in the atmosphere
Factors Controlling Temperature Distribution
 The latitude : The temperature of a place depends on the insolation received. It has been
explained earlier that the insolation varies according to the latitude hence the temperature
also varies accordingly.
 The altitude : The atmosphere is indirectly heated by terrestrial radiation from below.
Therefore, the places near the sea-level record higher temperature than the places situated
at higher elevations. In other words, the temperature generally decreases with increasing
height. The rate of decrease of temperature with height is termed as the normal lapse rate.
It is 6.5°C per 1,000 m.
 Distance from the sea : Another factor that influences the temperature is the location of
a place with respect to the sea. Compared to land, the sea gets heated slowly and loses
heat slowly. Land heats up and cools down quickly. Therefore, the variation in
temperature over the sea is less compared to land. The places situated near the sea come

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 83
 under the moderating influence of the sea and land breezes which moderate the
temperature.
 Air-mass and Ocean currents : Like the land and sea breezes, the passage of air masses
also affects the temperature. The places, which come under the influence of warm air-
masses experience higher temperature and the places that come under the influence of
cold airmasses experience low temperature. Similarly, the places located on the coast
where the warm ocean currents flow record higher temperature than the places located on
the coast where the cold currents flow.
Q.109 Consider the following statements with reference to Distribution of Temperature
1. The Isotherms are lines joining places having equal temperature. They are generally

om
parallel to the longitude.
2. In the northern hemisphere the land surface area is much larger than in the southern

l.c
hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land mass and the ocean currents are well pronounced
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
ai
m
(B) Only 2
9g
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
56

Solution: B
Global Distribution of Temperature
55

The global distribution of temperature can be effectively understood by considering the

ar

temperature distribution for January and July. The distribution of temperature is usually shown
on the map using the isotherms. The isotherms are line joining places of equal temperature.
m

Generally, the effects of latitude are well shown on the map as isotherms are generally parallel to
the latitudes. The deviation from this trend is more generally observed in January rather than in
ku

July, especially in the northern hemisphere. The land surface is much larger in the northern
hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land masses and ocean
an

currents are well observed.

am

Temperature Distribution - January

 In January, there is winter in the Northern hemisphere and summers in the southern
hemisphere.
 The western margins of continents in January are much higher than the Eastern
counterparts as the westerlies can carry high temperatures into the landmasses.
 The temperature gradient is much closer to the Eastern margins of continents. The
isotherms observe more steady behavior in the southern hemisphere.
Temperature Distribution - July
 During July, it is winter in the Southern hemisphere and summers in the Northern
hemisphere. The isotherm behavior is the opposite of what it was in January.
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 84
  The isotherms are generally parallel to the latitudes in July. The equatorial oceans record
warmer temperatures more than 27 degrees celsius. More than 30 degrees celsius is
noticed over the land in the subtropical continent region of Asia, along the 30 ° N
latitude.

Q.110 Consider the following statements with reference to inversion of temperature

1. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.
2. Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Smoke and
dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the
lower strata of the atmosphere.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Inversion of Temperature
Normally, temperature decreases with increase in elevation. It is called normal lapse rate. At
times, the situations is reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of
temperature. Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless. A long winter
night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated
off during the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above. Over
polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year.
Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Smoke and dust
particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata
of the atmosphere. Dense fogs in mornings are common occurrences especially during winter
season. This inversion commonly lasts for few hours until the sun comes up and beings to warm
the earth. The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage. Cold air at the
hills and mountains, produced during night, flows under the influence of gravity. Being heavy
and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in
pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called air drainage. It protects plants
from frost damages.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 85
 CHAPTER – 10 : Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems

Q.111 Consider the following statements with reference to atmospheric pressure

1. It is atmospheric pressure which determines when the air will rise or sink.
2. Due to gravity the air at the surface is denser and hence has higher pressure.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Atmospheric pressure also determines when the air will rise or sink. The wind redistributes the
heat and moisture across the planet, thereby, maintaining a constant temperature for the planet as
a whole. The vertical rising of moist air cools it down to form the clouds and bring precipitation.
Atmospheric Pressure
Do you realise that our body is subjected to a lot of air pressure. As one moves up the air gets
varified and one feels breathless. The weight of a column of air contained in a unit area from the
mean sea level to the top of the atmosphere is called the atmospheric pressure. The atmospheric
pressure is expressed in units of milibar. At sea level the average atmospheric pressure is 1,013.2
milibar. Due to gravity the air at the surface is denser and hence has higher pressure. Air pressure
is measured with the help of a mercury barometer or the aneroid barometer.

Q.112 Consider the following statements with reference to pressure gradient

1. The horizontal pressure gradient force is much larger than that of the vertical pressure
gradient.
2. Vertical pressure gradient is generally balanced by a nearly equal but opposite
gravitational force.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Vertical Variation of Pressure

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 86
 In the lower atmosphere the pressure decreases rapidly with height. The decrease amounts to
about 1 mb for each 10 m increase in elevation. It does not always decrease at the same rate.
Table 10.1 gives the average pressure and temperature at selected levels of elevation for a
standard atmosphere.

om
The vertical pressure gradient force is much larger than that of the horizontal pressure gradient.

l.c
But, it is generally balanced by a nearly equal but opposite gravitational force. Hence, we do not
experience strong upward winds.

ai
m
Q.113 Which of the following statement about pressure belts is incorrect?
9g

(A) Near the equator the sea level pressure is low and the area is known as equatorial low,
56

due to the fact that hot air ascends there with gradual decrease in temperature causing
thinness of air on the surface
55

(B) Sub-Tropical area has high pressure belt due to subsidence of air coming from the sub-
polar region which descends after becoming heavy.
ar

(C) Pressure belts are not permanent in nature. They oscillate with the apparent movement of
the sun.
m

(D) Because of low temperature, air compresses and its density increases. Hence, high
pressure is found in polar region.
ku

Solution: B
an

World Distribution of Sea Level Pressure

The world distribution of sea level pressure in January and July. Near the equator the sea level
am

pressure is low and the area is known as equatorial low. Along 30° N and 30o S are found the
high-pressure areas known as the subtropical highs. Further pole wards along 60o N and 60o S,
the low-pressure belts are termed as the sub polar lows. Near the poles the pressure is high and it
is known as the polar high. These pressure belts are not permanent in nature. They oscillate with
the apparent movement of the sun. In the northern hemisphere in winter they move southwards
and in the summer northwards.
Sub-Tropical High-Pressure Belt or Horse Latitudes
The sub-tropical highs extend from near the tropics to about 35°N and S.
Formation

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 87
  After saturation (complete loss of moisture) at the ITCZ, the air moving away from
equatorial low-pressure belt in the upper troposphere becomes dry and cold.
 This dry and cold wind subsides at 30°N and S.
 So the high pressure along this belt is due to subsidence of air coming from the equatorial
region which descends after becoming heavy.
 The high pressure is also due to the blocking effect of air at upper levels because of the
Coriolis force.

Q.114 Consider the following statements with reference to forces affecting the velocity and
direction of wind
1. The pressure gradient is strong where the isobars are close to each other and is weak
where the isobars are apart
2. Over the sea surface the friction is maximum due to drag of water
3. Coriolis force deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to
the left in the southern hemisphere.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Forces Affecting the Velocity and Direction of Wind
The air in motion is called wind. The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure. The wind
at the surface experiences friction. In addition, rotation of the earth also affects the wind
movement. The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force. Thus,
the horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the
pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force. In addition, the gravitational
force acts downward.
Pressure Gradient Force
 The differences in atmospheric pressure produces a force. The rate of change of pressure
with respect to distance is the pressure gradient. The pressure gradient is strong where the
isobars are close to each other and is weak where the isobars are apart.
Frictional Force
 It affects the speed of the wind. It is greatest at the surface and its influence generally
extends upto an elevation of 1 - 3 km. Over the sea surface the friction is minimal.
Coriolis Force

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 88
  The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is
called the Coriolis force after the French physicist who described it in 1844. It deflects
the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern
hemisphere.

Q.115 Consider the following statements with reference to Coriolis Force

1. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude.
2. The Coriolis force acts parallel to the pressure gradient force.
3. The higher the pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity of the wind and the larger
is the deflection in the direction of wind.
4. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars.
Due to which there is no cyclones at equator
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: A
Coriolis Force
The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the
Coriolis force after the French physicist who described it in 1844. It deflects the wind to the right
direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is
more when the wind velocity is high. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of
latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force. The pressure gradient force
is perpendicular to an isobar. The higher the pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity of
the wind and the larger is the deflection in the direction of wind. As a result of these two forces
operating perpendicular to each other, in the low-pressure areas the wind blows around it. At the
equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. The low
pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified. That is the reason why tropical cyclones are not
formed near the equator.

Q.116 Consider the following statements

1. When isobars are straight and when there is no friction, the pressure gradient force is
balanced by the Coriolis force and the resultant wind blows parallel to the isobar.
2. Wind circulation around a high pressure is called cyclonic circulation

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 89
 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Pressure and Wind
The velocity and direction of the wind are the net result of the wind generating forces. The winds
in the upper atmosphere, 2 - 3 km above the surface, are free from frictional effect of the surface

om
and are controlled mainly by the pressure gradient and the Coriolis force. When isobars are
straight and when there is no friction, the pressure gradient force is balanced by the Coriolis
force and the resultant wind blows parallel to the isobar. This wind is known as the geostrophic

l.c
wind

ai
The wind circulation around a low is called cyclonic circulation. Around a high it is called anti
cyclonic circulation. The direction of winds around such systems changes according to their
m
location in different hemispheres
9g
56

Q.117 The pattern of the movement of the planetary winds is called the general circulation of the
atmosphere. Which of the following factors affects the general circulation of the atmosphere
55

1. The migration of belts following the apparent path of the sun

2. The distribution of continents and oceans
ar

3. Vegetation cover
4. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating
m

Choose the correct option from the codes below

ku

(A) 1, 2 and 4
an

(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
am

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: A
The pattern of planetary winds largely depends on:
 Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating
 The emergence of pressure belts
 The migration of belts following the apparent path of the sun
 The distribution of continents and oceans
 The rotation of the earth

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 90
Q.118 Consider the following statements
1. The air at the ITCZ upsurges because of convection caused by high insolation and low
pressure is generated.
2. Ferrel Cell is thermally direct cell as it is driven directly by different effects of surface
heating
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
 The general circulation of the atmosphere also sets in motion the marine water circulation
which affects the climate of the Earth.
 The air at the ITCZ (Inter Tropical Convergence Zone) upsurges because of convection
caused by high insolation and low pressure is generated.
 The winds from the tropics join this low-pressure zone.
 The joined air upsurges along with the convective cell.
 It reaches the top of the troposphere up to an altitude of 14 km.
 It further moves toward the poles. This causes accumulation of air at about 30o North and
South.
 Another reason for sinking is the cooling of air when it reaches 30 degrees North and
South latitudes.
 Downward near the land surface, the air flows towards the equator as the easterlies.
 The easterlies from either side of the equator converge in the Inter-Tropical Convergence
Zone (ITCZ).
 Such circulations from the surface up and vice-versa are called cells.
 This type of cell in the tropics is called the Hadley Cell.
 In the mid-latitudes, the circulation is that of dipping cold air that comes from the poles
and the mounting warm air that blows from the subtropical high.
 At the surface, these winds are called westerlies and the cell is known as the Ferrel cell.
 At polar latitudes, the cold dense air subsides near the poles and blows towards middle
latitudes as the polar easterlies. This cell is called the polar cell.
 These Ferrel cells, Hadley Cell, and polar cell set the configuration for the general
circulation of the atmosphere.
Hadley Cell
 The air at the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) rises because of the convection
currents caused by low pressure. Low pressure in turn occurs due to high insolation. The
winds from the tropics converge at this low-pressure zone.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 91
  The converged air rises along with the convective cell. It reaches the top of the
troposphere up to an altitude of 14 km, and moves towards the poles. This causes
accumulation of air at about 30° N and S. Part of the accumulated air sinks to the ground
and forms a subtropical high. Another reason for sinking is the cooling of air when it
reaches 30° N and S latitudes.
 Down below near the land surface the air flows towards the equator as the easterlies. The
easterlies from either side of the equator converge in the Inter Tropical Convergence
Zone (ITCZ). Such circulations from the surface upwards and vice-versa are called cells.
Such a cell in the tropics is called Hadley Cell.
Ferrel Cell
 In the middle latitudes the circulation is that of sinking cold air that comes from the poles
and the rising warm air that blows from the subtropical high. At the surface these winds
are called westerlies and the cell is known as the Ferrel cell.
Polar Cell
 At polar latitudes the cold dense air subsides near the poles and blows towards middle
latitudes as the polar easterlies. This cell is called the polar cell.
 These three cells set the pattern for the general circulation of the atmosphere. The transfer
of heat energy from lower latitudes to higher latitudes maintains the general circulation.
 The general circulation of the atmosphere also affects the oceans. The large-scale winds
of the atmosphere initiate large and slow moving currents of the ocean. Oceans in turn
provide input of energy and water vapour into the air. These interactions take place rather
slowly over a large part of the ocean.

Q.119 Consider the following statements

1. Land breeze refers to the breeze or wind blowing from the sea towards the land
2. Land breeze occurs during the winter or autumn season.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Land and Sea Breezes
As explained earlier, the land and sea absorb and transfer heat differently. During the day the
land heats up faster and becomes warmer than the sea. Therefore, over the land the air rises
giving rise to a low pressure area, whereas the sea is relatively cool and the pressure over sea is
relatively high. Thus, pressure gradient from sea to land is created and the wind blows from the

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 92
 sea to the land as the sea breeze. In the night the reversal of condition takes place. The land loses
heat faster and is cooler than the sea. The pressure gradient is from the land to the sea and hence
land breeze results
Season
 Land Breeze: It occurs during the winter or autumn season.
 Sea Breeze: It occurs during the summer or spring season.

Q.120 Consider the following statements about mountain and valley winds

om
1. Valley Breeze is generally more intense and more persistent and on occasions, these
breezes reinforce the prevailing winds on the windward slope of the mountain and cause
heavy orographic rainfall.

l.c
2. Mountain breeze are also known as Anabatic wind, while valley breezes are known as

ai
Katabatic wind.
m
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
9g
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
56

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A
55

Mountain and Valley Breeze

ar

These winds develop over areas with large differences in relief and majorly caused by the
temperature gradient that exists between Mountain Slopes and valleys.
m

Valley Breeze
ku

 Due to the intense insolation during the daytime, the slopes of the mountain heat up
an

rapidly but the free atmosphere above the lowlands is not heated to some extent. As the
valleys receive comparatively lesser insolation so relatively high pressure sets up in the
am

valleys while along the mountain slopes due to more heating the warm air is uplifted, and
low pressure sets up. Thus, the air moves from the Valleys towards the slopes (High
pressure to the low pressure) and this upslope movement of air is known as valley breeze.
 Valley breezes are also known as Anabatic Wind.
 Valley Breeze is generally more intense and more persistent and on occasions, these
breezes reinforce the prevailing winds on the windward slope of the mountain and cause
heavy orographic rainfall.
Weather associated with the Valley Breeze
 This type of upslope winds in the Mountainous region may cause occasional and
afternoon thundershowers on warm and humid days.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 93
  Sometimes, the valley breezes are also accompanied by the formation of cumulus cloud
near mountain peaks or over slopes and escarpments.
Mountain Breeze
 On mountain-sides under the clear night sky, the higher land (upslope land) radiates heat
and is cooled and in turn cools the air in contact with it. The cool denser air flows down
the mountain slope due to the pressure difference since the valley is warmer and at
relatively lower pressure.
 This flow of the air is termed as Mountain Breeze and they are also known as Katabatic
wind.
Weather associated with the Mountain Breeze
 By the morning the mountain breeze produces temperature inversions and valley bottom
becomes colder than the Mountain Slopes. Thus, the valley floors are characterized by
frost during the night while the upper part/ hill-side is free from frost in cold areas.
Q.121 Which of the following statement is incorrect about air masses?
(A) It is defined as a large body of air having little horizontal variation in temperature and
moisture.
(B) There are no major source regions in the mid-latitudes as these regions are dominated by
cyclonic and other disturbances.
(C) Air masses form an integral part of the global planetary wind system. Therefore, they are
associated with one or other wind belt.
(D) They extend from surface to lower troposphere and are across thousands of kilometers.
Solution: D
Air Masses
 When the air remains over a homogenous area for a sufficiently longer time, it acquires
the characteristics of the area. The homogenous regions can be the vast ocean surface or
vast plains and plateaus.
 The air with distinctive characteristics in terms of temperature and humidity is called an
air mass. It is a large body of air having little horizontal variation in temperature and
moisture.
 Air masses form an integral part of the global planetary wind system. Therefore, they are
associated with one or other wind belt.
o Pressure Belts – Equatorial Low, Sub-Tropical High, Sub-Polar Low and Polar High
o Wind Movement – Factors Affecting Wind – Coriolis Force
o Winds – General Circulation – Permanent, Secondary, Local Winds
 They extend from surface to lower stratosphere and are across thousands of kilometers.
Source regions
 The homogenous surfaces, over which air masses form, are called the source regions.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 94
  The main source regions are the high pressure belts in the sub tropics (giving rise to
tropical air masses) and around the poles (the source for polar air masses).
 Source Region establishes heat and moisture equilibrium with the overlying air mass.
 When an air mass moves away from a source region, the upper level maintains the
physical characteristics for a longer period. This is possible because air masses are stable
with stagnant air which do not facilitate convection. Conduction and radiation in such
stagnant air is not effective.
Conditions for the formation of Air masses
 Source region should be extensive with gentle, divergent air circulation (slightly at high
pressure).
 Areas with high pressure but little pressure difference or pressure gradient are ideal
source regions.
 There are no major source regions in the mid-latitudes as these regions are dominated by
cyclonic and other disturbances.
The air masses are classified according to the source regions. There are five major source
regions. These are: (i) Warm tropical and subtropical oceans; (ii) The subtropical hot deserts;
(iii) The relatively cold high latitude oceans; (iv) The very cold snow covered continents in high
latitudes; (v) Permanently ice covered continents in the Arctic and Antarctica. Accordingly,
following types of airmasses are recognised: (i) Maritime tropical (mT); (ii) Continental tropical
(cT); (iii) Maritime polar (mP); (iv) Continental polar (cP); (v) Continental arctic (cA). Tropical
air masses are warm and polar air masses are cold.

Q.122 Match the following local winds with their description.

6. Sirocco A. It is an extremely cold north-easterly or easterly wind that blows in
central
Siberia and eastern Russia.
7. Simoom B. It is a north-westerly cold wind in the Pampas of South America and it is
similar to the Northers of North America and Siberia.
8. Bora C. These are cold and dry north-easterly winds that blow from the
mountains
towards the eastern shore of the Adriatic Sea
9. Pampero D. It is the warm, dry, dusty local wind that blows from the Sahara Desert
10. Buran E. It is the intensely hot, dry and dusty wind in the Arabian desert
Choose the correct code from the list below
(E) 1.D,2.E,3.C,4.A,5.B
(F) 1.D,2.E,3.C,4.B,5.A
(G) 1.A,2.E,3.D,4.B,5.C
(H) 1.E,2.A,3.B,4.C,5.D

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 95
 Solution: B
Hot Local Winds
Hot Local winds are produced generally by the mechanism of downslope compressional heating
also known as adiabatic heating. Examples of the Hot Local Winds include Chinook, Harmattan,
Foehn, Sirocco, Norwester, Brickfielder, Khamsin, Santa Ana, Loo, etc.
 Chinook: These are warm and dry winds blowing on the eastern slopes (leeward side) of
the Rocky Mountain.
 Foehn: Foehn is dry and warm wind resulting due to adiabatic heating on the leeward
side of the Mountain range. These winds are more common on the northern side of Alps

om
in Switzerland and with the arrival of these winds, there is a rapid rise in temperature.
 Santa Ana: Santa Ana is a dry and warm local wind that occurs in the Santa Ana Valley
of Southern California and it is almost similar to Chinook or Foehn with regard to

l.c
thermal and moisture characteristics.

ai
 Harmattan: These hot and dry wind originate from the Sahara Desert and blow towards
the Guinea coast of Africa. m
 Sirocco: Sirocco is the warm, dry, dusty local wind that blows from the Sahara Desert
9g
over the central Mediterranean, southern Italy and may even reach Spain, etc.
 Khamsin: These are warm, dry, dusty (containing sand particles) local winds that blow
in Northern Africa (Egypt) and Arabia.
56

 Simoom: Simoom is the intensely hot, dry and dusty wind in the Arabian desert and they
come into origin due to the warm Tropical Continental Airmasses.
55

 Dust Devils: Dust devil or the whirlwind form over the hot, dry land due to the intense
daytime convection and surface friction.
ar

 Loo: It originates from the Thar desert and has north-westerly to a westerly direction.
m

They dominate during early summer in the months of March to May and create heat
waves like conditions in Northern India and adjoining parts.
ku

Cold Local Winds

an

Cold local winds are dust-laden winds and as they have a temperature below freezing point, they
create Cold Wave condition. Examples of Cold Local winds include-Mistral, Bora, Northers,
am

Blizzard, Purga, Lavender, Pampero, Bise, etc.

 Mistral: It is a cold and dry wind that blows in Spain and France from North-west to
South-East direction, mostly occur during winter months.
 Bora: These are cold and dry north-easterly winds that blow from the mountains towards
the eastern shore of the Adriatic Sea.
 Blizzard: Blizzard is cold, violent, powdery polar winds (pick dry snow from the
ground). They are prevalent in the north and south polar regions, Canada, USA, Siberia,
etc. Due to the absence of any east-west Mountain barrier, these winds reach the southern
states of USA.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 96
  Levanter: These are strong easterly, moist and damp winds in the southern Spain and
Strait of Gibraltar. These winds are more frequent in early winter to late winter and cause
foggy weather.
 Pampero: It is a north-westerly cold wind in the Pampas of South America and it is
similar to the Northers of North America and Siberia. Pampero is more active during
winters and off the coast of Argentina, it blows from July to September.
 Buran: It is an extremely cold north-easterly or easterly wind that blows in central
Siberia and eastern Russia.

Q.123 Consider the following statements with reference to Extra Tropical Cyclones
1. If an air mass is fully lifted above the land surface, it is called the occluded front.
2. The cold front moves faster than the warm front ultimately overtaking the warm front.
3. The extra tropical cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in the tropical
cyclones.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Extra Tropical Cyclones
 The systems developing in the mid and high latitude, beyond the tropics are called the
middle latitude or extra tropical cyclones. The passage of front causes abrupt changes in
the weather conditions over the area in the middle and high latitudes.
 Extra tropical cyclones form along the polar front. Initially, the front is stationary. In the
northern hemisphere, warm air blows from the south and cold air from the north of the
front. When the pressure drops along the front, the warm air moves northwards and the
cold air move towards, south setting in motion an anticlockwise cyclonic circulation. The
cyclonic circulation leads to a well-developed extra tropical cyclone, with a warm front
and a cold front. The plan and cross section of a well-developed cyclone.
 There are pockets of warm air or warm sector wedged between the forward and the rear
cold air or cold sector. The warm air glides over the cold air and a sequence of clouds
appear over the sky ahead of the warm front and cause precipitation. The cold front
approaches the warm air from behind and pushes the warm air up. As a result, cumulus
clouds develop along the cold front. The cold front moves faster than the warm front
ultimately overtaking the warm front. The warm air is completely lifted up and the front
is occluded and the cyclone dissipates.
 The processes of wind circulation both at the surface and aloft are closely interlinked.
The extra tropical cyclone differs from the tropical cyclone in number of ways. The extra
tropical cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in the tropical cyclones.
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 97
Q.125 Consider the following statements about difference in tropical and extra tropical cyclones
1. The tropical cyclone affects a much larger area as compared to the extra tropical cyclone.
2. The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is much higher and it is more destructive.
3. The extra tropical cyclones move from east to west but tropical cyclones, move from
west to east.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
The extra tropical cyclone differs from the tropical cyclone in number of ways. The extra tropical
cyclones have a clear frontal system which is not present in the tropical cyclones. They cover a
larger area and can originate over the land and sea. Whereas the tropical cyclones originate only
over the seas and on reaching the land they dissipate. The extra tropical cyclone affects a much
larger area as compared to the tropical cyclone. The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is much
higher and it is more destructive. The extra tropical cyclones move from west to east but tropical
cyclones, move from east to west.

Q.126 Consider the following statements with reference to tropical cyclones

1. The conditions favourable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms is large
variations in the vertical wind speed
2. The energy that intensifies the storm, comes from the condensation process in the
towering cumulonimbus clouds, surrounding the centre of the storm.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Tropical Cyclones
Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over oceans in tropical areas and move over to
the coastal areas bringing about large scale destruction caused by violent winds, very heavy
rainfall and storm surges. This is one of the most devastating natural calamities. They are known
as Cyclones in the Indian Ocean, Hurricanes in the Atlantic, Typhoons in the Western Pacific
and South China Sea, and Willy-willies in the Western Australia.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 98
 Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans. The conditions favourable
for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are: (i) Large sea surface with
temperature higher than 27° C; (ii) Presence of the Coriolis force; (iii) Small variations in the
vertical wind speed; (iv) A pre-existing weaklow- pressure area or low-level-cyclonic
circulation; (v) Upper divergence above the sea level system.
The energy that intensifies the storm, comes from the condensation process in the towering
cumulonimbus clouds, surrounding the centre of the storm. With continuous supply of moisture
from the sea, the storm is further strengthened. On reaching the land the moisture supply is cut
off and the storm dissipates. The place where a tropical cyclone crosses the coast is called the
landfall of the cyclone. The cyclones, which cross 20o N latitude generally, recurve and they are

om
more destructive.

l.c
Q.127 Which of the following statement is incorrect about the process of formation of tropical
cyclone?

ai
(A) The eye is a region of calm with subsiding air
m
(B) Around the eye is the eye wall, where there is a strong spiralling ascent of air to greater
9g
height reaching the stratopause.
(C) From the eye wall rain bands may radiate and trains of cumulus and cumulonimbus
56

clouds may drift into the outer region.

(D) The cyclone creates storm surges and they inundate the coastal low lands. The storm
peters out on the land.
55

Solution: B
ar

The eye is a region of calm with subsiding air. Around the eye is the eye wall, where there is a
strong spiralling ascent of air to greater height reaching the tropopause. The wind reaches
m

maximum velocity in this region, reaching as high as 250 km per hour. Torrential rain occurs
ku

here. From the eye wall rain bands may radiate and trains of cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds
may drift into the outer region. The diameter of the storm over the Bay of Bengal, Arabian sea
an

and Indian ocean is between 600 - 1200 km. The system moves slowly about 300 - 500 km per
day. The cyclone creates storm surges and they inundate the coastal low lands. The storm peters
out on the land.
am

CHAPTER – 11 : Water in The Atmosphere

Q.128 Consider the following statements
1. The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its temperature.
2. The average amount of the water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as the
absolute humidity.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 99
 (A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
The moisture in the atmosphere is derived from water bodies through evaporation and from
plants through transpiration. Thus, there is a continuous exchange of water between the
atmosphere, the oceans and the continents through the processes of evaporation, transpiration,
condensation and precipitation.
Water vapour present in the air is known as humidity. It is expressed quantitatively in different
ways. The actual amount of the water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as the absolute
humidity. It is the weight of water vapour per unit volume of air and is expressed in terms of
grams per cubic metre. The ability of the air to hold water vapour depends entirely on its
temperature.
Q.129 Consider the following statements about relative humidity
1. The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a
given temperature is known as the relative humidity.
2. It is greater over the oceans and least over the continents.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
The percentage of moisture present in the atmosphere as compared to its full capacity at a given
temperature is known as the relative humidity. With the change of air temperature, the capacity
to retain moisture increases or decreases and the relative humidity is also affected. It is greater
over the oceans and least over the continents.

Q.130 Consider the following statements

1. The air containing moisture to its full capacity at a given temperature is said to be dew
point
2. The temperature at which saturation occurs in a given sample of air is known as
saturation point.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 100
 (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
The air containing moisture to its full capacity at a given temperature is said to be saturated. It
means that the air at the given temperature is incapable of holding any additional amount of
moisture at that stage. The temperature at which saturation occurs in a given sample of air is
known as dew point.

Q.131 Consider the following statements with reference to condensation

1. When moist air is cooled, it may reach a level when its capacity to hold water vapour
ceases. Then, the excess water vapour condenses into liquid form. This process is called
Condensation
2. Condensation also takes place when the moist air comes in contact with some colder
object and it may also take place when the temperature is close to the dew point.
3. Particles of dust, smoke and salt from the ocean are particularly good nuclei because they
absorb water.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Evaporation and Condensation
The amount of water vapour in the atmosphere is added or withdrawn due to evaporation and
condensation respectively. Evaporation is a process by which water is transformed from liquid to
gaseous state. Heat is the main cause for evaporation. The temperature at which the water starts
evaporating is referred to as the latent heat of vapourisation. Increase in temperature increases
water absorption and retention capacity of the given parcel of air. Similarly, if the moisture
content is low, air has a potentiality of absorbing and retaining moisture. Movement of air
replaces the saturated layer with the unsaturated layer. Hence, the greater the movement of air,
the greater is the evaporation.
The transformation of water vapour into water is called condensation. Condensation is caused by
the loss of heat. When moist air is cooled, it may reach a level when its capacity to hold water
vapour ceases. Then, the excess water vapour condenses into liquid form. If it directly condenses
into solid form, it is known as sublimation. In free air, condensation results from cooling around
very small particles termed as hygroscopic condensation nuclei. Particles of dust, smoke and salt
from the ocean are particularly good nuclei because they absorb water. Condensation also takes
place when the moist air comes in contact with some colder object and it may also take place

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 101
 when the temperature is close to the dew point. Condensation, therefore, depends upon the
amount of cooling and the relative humidity of the air. Condensation is influenced by the volume
of air, temperature, pressure and humidity. Condensation takes place: (i) when the temperature of
the air is reduced to dew point with its volume remaining constant; (ii) when both the volume
and the temperature are reduced; (iv) when moisture is added to the air through evaporation.
However, the most favourable condition for condensation is the decrease in air temperature.

Q.132 Consider the following statements about dew

1. The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air, low relative humidity, and

om
cold and long nights.
2. For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is below the freezing point.

l.c
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1

ai
(B) Only 2 m
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
9g
Solution: D
56

Dew
When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects
55

(rather than nuclei in air above the surface) such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is
known as dew. The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air, high relative
ar

humidity, and cold and long nights. For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is
above the freezing point.
m
ku

Q.133 Consider the following statements

an

1. The ideal conditions for the formation of white frost are the same as those for the
formation of dew, except that the air temperature must be at or above the freezing point.
am

2. The only difference between the mist and fog is that mist contains more moisture than the
fog.
3. Fogs are drier than mist and they are prevalent where warm currents of air come in
contact with warm currents.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 102
Frost
Frost forms on cold surfaces when condensation takes place below freezing point (00C), i.e. the
dew point is at or below the freezing point. The excess moisture is deposited in the form of
minute ice crystals instead of water droplets. The ideal conditions for the formation of white frost
are the same as those for the formation of dew, except that the air temperature must be at or
below the freezing point.
Fog and Mist
When the temperature of an air mass containing a large quantity of water vapour falls all of a
sudden, condensation takes place within itself on fine dust particles. So, the fog is a cloud with
its base at or very near to the ground. Because of the fog and mist, the visibility becomes poor to
zero. In urban and industrial centres smoke provides plenty of nuclei which
help the formation of fog and mist. Such a condition when fog is mixed with smoke, is described
as smog. The only difference between the mist and fog is that mist contains more moisture than
the fog. In mist each nuceli contains a thicker layer of moisture. Mists are frequent over
mountains as the rising warm air up the slopes meets a cold surface. Fogs are drier than mist and
they are prevalent where warm currents of air come in contact with cold currents. Fogs are mini
clouds in which condensation takes place around nuclei provided by the dust, smoke, and the salt
particles.

Q.134 These are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These clouds are generally
formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures. Find the
name of cloud with the help of given description
(A) Cirrus
(B) Cumulus
(C) Stratus
(D) Nimbus
Solution: C
Clouds
Cloud is a mass of minute water droplets or tiny crystals of ice formed by the condensation of the
water vapour in free air at considerable elevations. As the clouds are formed at some height over
the surface of the earth, they take various shapes. According to their height, expanse, density and
transparency or opaqueness clouds are grouped under four types : (i) cirrus; (ii) cumulus; (iii)
stratus; (iv) nimbus.
Cirrus
Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 - 12,000m). They are thin and detatched clouds
having a feathery appearance. They are always white in colour.
Cumulus

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 103
Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool. They are generally formed at a height of 4,000 - 7,000 m.
They exist in patches and can be seen scattered here and there. They have a flat base.
Stratus
As their name implies, these are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These clouds
are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different
temperatures.
Nimbus
Nimbus clouds are black or dark gray. They form at middle levels or very near to the surface of
the earth. These are extremely dense and opaque to the rays of the sun. Sometimes, the clouds
are so low that they seem to touch the ground. Nimbus clouds are shapeless masses of thick
vapour.

Q.135 Which of the following types of precipitation is/are correctly matched with their
description?
1. Virage: light rainfall; drop size less than 0.5 mm.
2. Drizzle: raindrops evaporate before reaching the earth.
3. Mist: evaporation occurs before reaching the ground leading to foggy weather.
4. Sleet: frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow; mixture of snow and rain or merely
partially melted snow.
Choose the correct code from the options below
(A) 1, 2, and 4
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Solution: C
Sleet is frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow-water. When a layer of air with the
temperature above freezing point overlies a subfreezing layer near the ground, precipitation takes
place in the form of sleet.
Raindrops, which leave the warmer air, encounter the colder air below. As a result, they solidify
and reach the ground as small pellets of ice not bigger than the raindrops from which they are
formed. Sometimes, drops of rain after being released by the clouds become solidified into small
rounded solid pieces of ice and which reach the surface of the earth are called hailstones. These
are formed by the rainwater passing through the colder layers. Hailstones have several concentric
layers of ice one over the other.
Rainfall: drop size more than 0.5 mm.
Virage: raindrops evaporate before reaching the earth.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 104
 Drizzle: light rainfall; drop size less than 0.5 mm.
Mist: evaporation occurs before reaching the ground leading to foggy weather.
Snowfall: fine flakes of snow fall when the temperature is less than 0°C.
Sleet: frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow; mixture of snow and rain or merely partially
melted snow.
Hail: precipitation in the form of hard rounded pellets is known as hail; 5 mm and 50 mm.

CHAPTER – 12 : World Climate and Climate Change

om
Q.136 Consider the following statements with reference to tropical wet climates

l.c
1. In tropical wet climate the temperature is uniformly high and the annual range of
temperature is negligible.

ai
2. Tropical deciduous forests with dense canopy cover and large biodiversity are found in
m
this climate.
9g
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
56

(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
55

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A
ar

Tropical Humid Climates

m

Tropical humid climates exist between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn. The sun being
ku

overhead throughout the year and the presence of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) make
the climate hot and humid. Annual range of temperature is very low and annual rainfall is high.
an

The tropical group is divided into three types, namely (i) Af- Tropical wet climate; (ii) Am -
Tropical monsoon climate; (iii) Aw- Tropical wet and dry climate.
am

Tropical Wet Climate (Af)

Tropical wet climate is found near the equator. The major areas are the Amazon Basin in South
America, western equatorial Africa and the islands of East Indies. Significant amount of rainfall
occurs in every month of the year as thunder showers in the afternoon. The temperature is
uniformly high and the annual range of temperature is negligible. The maximum temperature on
any day is around 30°C while the minimum temperature is around 20°C. Tropical evergreen
forests with dense canopy cover and large biodiversity are found in this climate.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 105
Q.137 Consider the following statements with reference to Subtropical Steppe (BSh) and
Subtropical Desert (BWh) Climates
1. The variability in the rainfall affects the life in the steppe much more than in the desert,
more often causing famine.
2. Mist is common in coastal deserts bordering cold currents.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Subtropical Steppe (BSh) and Subtropical Desert (BWh) Climates
Subtropical steppe (BSh) and subtropical desert (BWh) have common precipitation and
temperature characteristics. Located in the transition zone between humid and dry climates,
subtropical steppe receives slightly more rainfall than the desert, adequate enough for the growth
of sparse grasslands. The rainfall in both the climates is highly variable. The variability in the
rainfall affects the life in the steppe much more than in the desert, more often causing famine.
Rain occurs in short intense thundershowers in deserts and is ineffective in building soil
moisture. Fog is common in coastal deserts bordering cold currents. Maximum temperature
in the summer is very high. The highest shade temperature of 58° C was recorded at Al Aziziyah,
Libya on 13 September 1922. The annual and diurnal ranges of temperature are also high.

Q.138 Which of the following statement is incorrect about Humid Subtropical Climate?
(A) In this region the air masses are generally unstable and cause rainfall throughout the year.
(B) Thunderstorms in summer and frontal precipitation in winter are common.
(C) The annual averages of precipitation vary from 75-150 cm.
(D) The daily range of temperature is high.
Solution: D
Humid Subtropical (Cfa) Climate
Humid subtropical climate lies on the eastern parts of the continent in subtropical latitudes. In
this region the air masses are generally unstable and cause rainfall throughout the year. They
occur in eastern United States of America, southern and eastern China, southern Japan,
northeastern Argentina, coastal south Africa and eastern coast of Australia. The annual averages
of precipitation vary from 75-150 cm. Thunderstorms in summer and frontal precipitation in
winter are common. Mean monthly temperature in summer is around 27°C, and in winter it
varies from 5°-12° C. The daily range of temperature is small.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 106
Q.139 Consider the following statements about cause of climate change
1. Sunspots are dark and cooler patches on the sun which increase and decrease in a cyclical
manner. When the number of sunspots increase, cooler and wetter weather and greater
storminess occur
2. Volcanic eruption throws up lots of aerosols into the atmosphere. These aerosols remain
in the atmosphere for a considerable period of time reducing the sun’s radiation reaching
the Earth’s surface
Which of the following statement(s) is/are statistically proven?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Causes of Climate Change
 The causes for climate change are many. They can be grouped into astronomical and
terrestrial causes. The astronomical causes are the changes in solar output associated with
sunspot activities. Sunspots are dark and cooler patches on the sun which increase and
decrease in a cyclical manner. According to some meteorologists, when the number of
sunspots increase, cooler and wetter weather and greater storminess occur. A decrease in
sunspot numbers is associated with warm and drier conditions. Yet, these findings are not
statistically significant.
 An another astronomical theory is Millankovitch oscillations, which infer cycles in the
variations in the earth’s orbital characteristics around the sun, the wobbling of the earth
and the changes in the earth’s axial tilt. All these alter the amount of insolation received
from the sun, which in turn, might have a bearing on the climate.
 Volcanism is considered as another cause for climate change. Volcanic eruption throws
up lots of aerosols into the atmosphere. These aerosols remain in the atmosphere for a
considerable period of time reducing the sun’s radiation reaching the Earth’s surface.
After the recent Pinatoba and El Cion volcanic eruptions, the average temperature of the
earth fell to some extent for some years.
 The most important anthropogenic effect on the climate is the increasing trend in the
concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere which is likely to cause global
warming.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 107
 CHAPTER – 13 : Water (Oceans)

Q.140 Consider the following statements

1. Nearly 59 per cent of the water that falls on land returns to the atmosphere through
evaporation from over the oceans as well as from other places.
2. Second largest reserve of freshwater in the earth is river
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1

om
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

l.c
Solution: A

ai
About 71 per cent of the planetary water is found in the oceans. The remaining is held as
m
freshwater in glaciers and icecaps, groundwater sources, lakes, soil moisture, atmosphere,
streams and within life. Nearly 59 per cent of the water that falls on land returns to the
9g
atmosphere through evaporation from over the oceans as well as from other places. The
remainder runs-off on the surface, infiltrates into the ground or a part of it becomes glacier
56

Water distribution
55

The distribution of water on the Earth's surface is extremely uneven. Only 3% of water on the
surface is fresh; the remaining 97% resides in the ocean. Of freshwater, 69% resides in glaciers,
ar

30% underground, and less than 1% is located in lakes, rivers, and swamps.
m
ku

Q.141 Consider the following statements about continental shelf

1. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less.
an

2. The shelves are almost absent or very narrow along some of the margins like the coasts of
Chile, the west coast of Sumatra
am

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Continental Shelf
The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow
seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 108
less. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break. The width of the
continental shelves vary from one ocean to another. The average width of continental shelves is
about 80 km. The shelves are almost absent or very narrow along some of the margins like the
coasts of Chile, the west coast of Sumatra, etc. On the contrary, the Siberian shelf in the Arctic
Ocean, the largest in the world, stretches to 1,500 km in width. The depth of the shelves also
varies. It may be as shallow as 30 m in some areas while in some areas it is as deep as 600 m.
The continental shelves are covered with variable thicknesses of sediments brought down by
rivers, glaciers, wind, from the land and distributed by waves and currents. Massive sedimentary
deposits received over a long time by the continental shelves, become the source of fossil fuels.

Q.142 Consider the following statements

1. The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basin.
2. The slope boundary indicates the end of the continents.
3. Canyons and trenches are observed in deep sea plains
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Continental Slope
The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins. It begins where the
bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope. The gradient of the slope
region varies between 2-5°. The depth of the slope region varies between 200 and 3,000 m. The
slope boundary indicates the end of the continents. Canyons and trenches are observed in this
region.

Q.143 Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) Deep sea plain are the flattest and smoothest regions of the world.
(B) Oceanic Deeps occur at the bases of continental slopes and along island arcs and are
associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes.
(C) Out of total deeps explored, Atlantic Ocean has the largest number
(D) None of the above
Solution: C
Deep Sea Plain

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 109
Deep sea plains are gently sloping areas of the ocean basins. These are the flattest and smoothest
regions of the world. The depths vary between 3,000 and 6,000m. These plains are covered with
fine-grained sediments like clay and silt.
Oceanic Deeps or Trenches
These areas are the deepest parts of the oceans. The trenches are relatively steep sided, narrow
basins. They are some 3-5 km deeper than the surrounding ocean floor. They occur at the bases
of continental slopes and along island arcs and are associated with active volcanoes and strong
earthquakes. That is why they are very significant in the study of plate movements. As many as
57 deeps have been explored so far; of which 32 are in the Pacific Ocean; 19 in the Atlantic
Ocean and 6 in the Indian Ocean.

Q.144 The Emperor seamount, is an extension of which island in Pacific Ocean?

(A) Tahiti
(B) Jarvis Island
(C) Hawaiian Islands
(D) New Guinea
Solution: C
The Emperor seamount, an extension of the Hawaiian Islands in the Pacific Ocean, is a good
example.

Q.145 A warm current raises the temperature near the eastern coast of North America is an
extension of which major ocean current?
(A) Norwegian Current
(B) North Equatorial Current
(C) Equatorial Counter Current
(D) North Pacific Current
Solution: B

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 110
 om
l.c
Q.146 Consider the following statements

ai
1. The boundary region, from where there is a rapid decrease of temperature stops, is called
m
the thermocline.
9g
2. In the Arctic and Antartic circles, the surface water temperatures are close to 0° C and so
the temperature change with the depth is very slight.
56

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
55

(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
ar

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

m

Solution: B
ku

Horizontal and Vertical Distribution of Temperature

The temperature-depth profile for the ocean water shows how the temperature decreases with the
an

increasing depth. The profile shows a boundary region between the surface waters of the ocean
and the deeper layers. The boundary usually begins around 100 - 400 m below the sea surface
am

and extends several hundred of metres downward.

This boundary region, from where there is a rapid decrease of temperature, is called the
thermocline. About 90 per cent of the total volume of water is found below the thermocline in
the deep ocean. In this zone, temperatures approach 0° C.
The temperature structure of oceans over middle and low latitudes can be described as a three-
layer system from surface to the bottom.

 The first layer represents the top layer of warm oceanic water and it is about 500m thick
with temperatures ranging between 20° and 25° C. This layer, within the tropical region,
is present throughout the year but in mid latitudes it develops only during summer.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 111
  The second layer called the thermocline layer lies below the first layer and is
characterised by rapid decrease in temperature with increasing depth. The thermocline is
500 -1,000 m thick.
 The third layer is very cold and extends upto the deep ocean floor. In the Arctic and
Antartic circles, the surface water temperatures are close to 0° C and so the temperature
change with the depth is very slight. Here, only one layer of cold water exists, which
extends from surface to deep ocean floor.

Q.147 Consider the following statements with reference to salinity of Ocean water
1. Wind influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.
2. The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation,
precipitation and pressure over the surface.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Factors affecting ocean salinity are mentioned below:
(i) The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depend mainly on evaporation and
precipitation.
(ii) Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the fresh water flow from
rivers, and in polar regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice.
(iii) Wind, also influences salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.
(iv) The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and
density of water are interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature or density
influences the salinity of water in an area.

Q.148 Consider the following statements

1. The land locked sea usually has more salinity, one of the examples is Red Sea and it is
because of evaporation exceeds precipitation
2. The North Sea, in spite of its location in higher latitudes, records higher salinity due to
more saline water brought by the North Atlantic Drift.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 112
 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Horizontal Distribution of Salinity
The salinity for normal open ocean ranges between 33o/oo and 37 o/oo. In the land locked Red
Sea, it is as high as 41o/oo, while in the estuaries and the Arctic, the salinity fluctuates from 0 -
35 o/oo, seasonally. In hot and dry regions, where evaporation is high, the salinity sometimes
reaches to 70 o/oo. The salinity variation in the Pacific Ocean is mainly due to its shape and
larger areal extent. Salinity decreases from 35 o/oo - 31 o/oo on the western parts of the northern
hemisphere because of the influx of melted water from the Arctic region. In the same way, after
15° - 20° south, it decreases to 33 o/oo.
The average salinity of the Atlantic Ocean is around 36 o/oo. The highest salinity is recorded
between 15° and 20° latitudes. Maximum salinity (37 o/oo) is observed between 20° N and 30°
N and 20° W - 60° W. It gradually decreases towards the north. The North Sea, in spite of its
location in higher latitudes, records higher salinity due to more saline water brought by the North
Atlantic Drift. Baltic Sea records low salinity due to influx of river waters in large quantity.

Q.149 The Mediterranean Sea records higher salinity due to high evaporation. Salinity is,
however, very low in Black Sea due to which of the following reason?
(A) Precipitation exceeds evaporation
(B) High depth of sea
(C) Due to land locked nature of Sea
(D) Due to enormous fresh water influx by rivers
Solution: D
The Mediterranean Sea records higher salinity due to high evaporation. Salinity is, however, very
low in Black Sea due to enormous fresh water influx by rivers. See the atlas to find out the rivers
joining Black Sea.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 113
 om
l.c
ai
m
9g
56
55
ar
m

Q.150 Consider the following statements

ku

1. The average salinity of the Indian Ocean is more than Atlantic Ocean
an

2. The Arabian Sea shows higher salinity than Bay of Bengal due to primary reason of high
evaporation.
am

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
The average salinity of the Indian Ocean is 35 o/oo. The low salinity trend is observed in the Bay
of Bengal due to influx of river water. On the contrary, the Arabian Sea shows higher salinity
due to high evaporation and low influx of fresh water.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 114
The average salinity of the Atlantic Ocean is around 36 o/oo.

Q.151 Highest salinity is found in which of the following waterbodies?

(A) Lake Van
(B) Dead Sea
(C) Lake Baikal
(D) Great Salt Lake
Solution: A

Q.152 Consider the following statements with reference to vertical distribution of salinity
1. Salinity at depth is very much fixed, because there is no way that water is ‘lost’, or the
salt is ‘added.’
2. Salinity, generally, increases with depth and there is a distinct zone called the halocline,
where salinity increases sharply.
3. The lower salinity water rests above the higher salinity dense water.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 115
 (C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Vertical Distribution of Salinity
Salinity changes with depth, but the way it changes depends upon the location of the sea. Salinity
at the surface increases by the loss of Figure13.5 : Surface salinity of the World’s Oceans water
to ice or evaporation, or decreased by the input of fresh waters, such as from the rivers. Salinity
at depth is very much fixed, because there is no way that water is ‘lost’, or the salt is ‘added.’
There is a marked difference in the salinity between the surface zones and the deep zones of the
oceans. The lower salinity water rests above the higher salinity dense water. Salinity, generally,
increases with depth and there is a distinct zone called the halocline, where salinity increases
sharply. Other factors being constant, increasing salinity of seawater causes its density to
increase. High salinity seawater, generally, sinks below the lower salinity water. This leads to
stratification by salinity.

CHAPTER – 14 : Movements of Ocean Water

Q.153 Consider the following statements
1. Streams refers to a slow motion of surface water with no clear boundaries and the motion
is erratic in direction
2. The horizontal motion refers to the ocean currents and waves.
3. Drift refers to surface motion which is still more defined in terms of direction and
identity. Here the water moves with a good speed.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
 The horizontal motion refers to the ocean currents and waves. The vertical motion refers
to tides.
 Drift refers to a slow motion of surface water with no clear boundaries and the motion is
erratic in direction
 Stream refers to surface motion which is still more defined in terms of direction and
identity. Here the water moves with a good speed. It is like a big river on a continent

Q.154 Consider the following statements

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 116
 1. Assertion (A): Water moves ahead from one place to another through ocean currents
while the water in the waves does not move
2. Reason (R): Waves are actually the energy, not the water as such, which moves across
the ocean surface.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
(A) A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
(B) A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
(C) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(D) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

om
Solution: A
Water moves ahead from one place to another through ocean currents while the water in the

l.c
waves does not move, but the wave trains move ahead.
Waves are actually the energy, not the water as such, which moves across the ocean surface.

ai
Water particles only travel in a small circle as a wave passes.
m
9g
Q.155 Consider the following statement with reference to waves
56

1. Waves continue to grow larger as they move and absorb energy from the wind.
2. When the depth of water is less than 1/4 the wavelength of the wave, the wave breaks.
55

3. Slow and steady waves originate from faraway places, possibly from another hemisphere.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
ar

(A) 1 and 3
m

(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
ku

(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
an

Waves
am

Waves are actually the energy, not the water as such, which moves across the ocean surface.
Water particles only travel in a small circle as a wave passes. Wind provides energy to the
waves. Wind causes waves to travel in the ocean and the energy is released on shorelines. The
motion of the surface water seldom affects the stagnant deep bottom water of the oceans. As
a wave approaches the beach, it slows down. This is due to the friction occurring between the
dynamic water and the sea floor. And, when the depth of water is less than half the wavelength
of the wave, the wave breaks. The largest waves are found in the open oceans.
Waves continue to grow larger as they move and absorb energy from the wind. Most of the
waves are caused by the wind driving against water. When a breeze of two knots or less blows
over calm water, small ripples form and grow as the wind speed increases until white caps

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 117
appear in the breaking waves. Waves may travel thousands of km before rolling ashore, breaking
and dissolving as surf.
A wave’s size and shape reveal its origin. Steep waves are fairly young ones and are probably
formed by local wind. Slow and steady waves originate from far away places, possibly from
another hemisphere. The maximum wave height is determined by the strength of the wind, i.e.
how long it blows and the area over which it blows in a single direction.
Waves travel because wind pushes the water body in its course while gravity pulls the crests of
the waves downward. The falling water pushes the former troughs upward, and the wave moves
to a new position (Figure 14.1). The actual motion of the water beneath the waves is circular. It
indicates that things are carried up and forward as the wave approaches, and down and back as it
passes.

Q.156 Consider the following statements about characteristics of Waves

1. Wave amplitude is the horizontal distance between two successive crests.
2. Wave frequency is the number of waves passing a given point during a one second time
interval.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Characteristics of Waves
 Wave crest and trough : The highest and lowest points of a wave are called the crest
and trough respectively.
 Wave height : It is the vertical distance from the bottom of a trough to the top of a crest
of a wave.
 Wave amplitude : It is one-half of the wave height.
 Wave period : It is merely the time interval between two successive wave crests or
troughs as they pass a fixed point.
 Wavelength : It is the horizontal distance between two successive crests.
 Wave speed : It is the rate at which the wave moves through the water, and is measured
in knots.
 Wave frequency : It is the number of waves passing a given point during a onesecond
time interval.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 118
Q.157 Consider the following statements about tides
1. The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to the
attraction of the sun and the moon, is called a tide.
2. Movement of water caused by winds and atmospheric pressure changes are called surges
3. The moon’s gravitational pull to a lesser extent and to a greater extent the sun’s
gravitational pull, are the major causes for the occurrence of tides.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Tides
The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to the attraction of
the sun and the moon, is called a tide. Movement of water caused by meteorological effects
(winds and atmospheric pressure changes) are called surges. Surges are not regular like tides.
The study of tides is very complex, spatially and temporally, as it has great variations in
frequency, magnitude and height. The moon’s gravitational pull to a great extent and to a lesser
extent the sun’s gravitational pull, are the major causes for the occurrence of tides.

Q.158 Consider the following statements about the cause of occurrence of tide
1. The gravitational pull and the centripetal force are responsible for creating the two major
tidal bulges on the earth.
2. The gravitational force which is stated in the previous statement is of earth’s own
gravitation force
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Together, the gravitational pull and the centrifugal force are responsible for creating the two
major tidal bulges on the earth. On the side of the earth facing the moon, a tidal bulge occurs
while on the opposite side though the gravitational attraction of the moon is less as it is farther
away, the centrifugal force causes tidal bulge on the other side

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 119
 Q.159 Which of the following statement about the tide characteristics is incorrect?
(A) The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves, have lesser height.
(B) When tidal bulges hit the mid-oceanic islands, they become low.
(C) The shape of bays and estuaries along a coastline can also magnify the intensity of tides.
(D) Funnel-shaped bays greatly change tidal magnitudes.
Solution: A
The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves, have greater height. When tidal bulges hit the mid-
oceanic islands, they become low. The shape of bays and estuaries along a coastline can also

om
magnify the intensity of tides. Funnel-shaped bays greatly change tidal magnitudes. When the
tide is channelled between islands or into bays and estuaries they are called tidal currents.

l.c
Q.160 Consider the following statement about type of tides

ai
1. In Semi-diurnal tide the successive high and low tides are of the different height.
m
2. Mixed tides generally occur along the west coast of South-East Asia.
9g
3. In Diurnal tide, successive high and low tides are approximately of the same height.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
56

(A) 1 and 2
55

(B) 1 and 3
(C) 3 only
ar

(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
m

Types of Tides
ku

Tides vary in their frequency, direction and movement from place to place and also from time to
time. Tides may be grouped into various types based on their frequency of occurrence in one day
an

or 24 hours or based on their height.

am

Tides based on Frequency

 Semi-diurnal tide : The most common tidal pattern, featuring two high tides and two
low tides each day. The successive high or low tides are approximately of the same
height.
 Diurnal tide : There is only one high tide and one low tide during each day. The
successive high and low tides are approximately of the same height.
 Mixed tide : Tides having variations in height are known as mixed tides. These tides
generally occur along the west coast of North America and on many islands of the Pacific
Ocean.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 120
Q.161 Consider the following statements
1. When the sun, the moon and the earth are in a straight line, the height of the tide will be
higher, these are called spring tides
2. When the sun and moon are at right angles to each other and the forces of the sun and
moon tend to counteract one another, the forming tide will be neap tide.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Spring tides : The position of both the sun and the moon in relation to the earth has direct
bearing on tide height. When the sun, the moon and the earth are in a straight line, the height of
the tide will be higher. These are called spring tides and they occur twice a month, one on full
moon period and another during new moon period.
Neap tides : Normally, there is a seven day interval between the spring tides and neap tides. At
this time the sun and moon are at right angles to each other and the forces of the sun and moon
tend to counteract one another. The Moon’s attraction, though more than twice as strong as the
sun’s, is diminished by the counteracting force of the sun’s gravitational pull.

Q.162 Consider the following statements with reference to importance of tides

1. Tides are helpful in desilting the sediments and in removing polluted water from river
estuaries.
2. It is helpful for the tidal ports that have shallow water which is a constraint for the big
ships to enter.
3. Tides are very helpful for ecosystems such as the mangrove forests and coral reefs to
grow and sustain.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Importance of Tides
Since tides are caused by the earth-moon-sun positions which are known accurately, the tides can
be predicted well in advance. This helps the navigators and fishermen plan their activities. Tidal
flows are of great importance in navigation. Tidal heights are very important, especially harbours

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 121
near rivers and within estuaries having shallow ‘bars’ at the entrance, which prevent ships and
boats from entering into the harbour. Tides are also helpful in desilting the sediments and in
removing polluted water from river estuaries. Tides are used to generate electrical power (in
Canada, France, Russia, and China). A 3 MW tidal power project at Durgaduani in Sunderbans
of West Bengal is under way.

Q.163 Which of the following are the primary force of Ocean current?
1. Heating by solar energy
2. Wind
3. Salinity difference
4. Gravity
5. Coriolis force
6. Temperature difference
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6
(B) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 6
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Solution: D
Ocean Currents
Ocean currents are like river flow in oceans. They represent a regular volume of water in a
definite path and direction. Ocean currents are influenced by two types of forces namely : (i)
primary forces that initiate the movement of water; (ii) secondary forces that influence the
currents to flow.
The primary forces that influence the currents are: (i) heating by solar energy; (ii) wind; (iii)
gravity; (iv) coriolis force. Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand. That is why, near
the equator the ocean water is about 8 cm higher in level than in the middle latitudes. This causes
a very slight gradient and water tends to flow down the slope. Wind blowing on the surface of
the ocean pushes the water to move. Friction between the wind and the water surface affects the
movement of the water body in its course. Gravity tends to pull the water down the pile and
create gradient variation. The Coriolis force intervenes and causes the water to move to the right
in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. These large accumulations
of water and the flow around them are called Gyres. These produce large circular currents in all
the ocean basins.
Secondary Forces Responsible for Ocean Currents
Temperature difference and salinity difference are the secondary forces. Differences in water
density affect vertical mobility of ocean currents (vertical currents).

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 122
 Q.164 Consider the following statements
1. Equatorial counter-currents are unique because they circulate from equator to poles
uninterrupted
2. At higher latitudes, where the wind flow is mostly cyclonic, the oceanic circulation
follows this pattern.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2

om
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

l.c
Solution: A
Major Ocean Currents

ai
Major ocean currents are greatly influenced by the stresses exerted by the prevailing winds and
m
coriolis force. The oceanic circulation pattern roughly corresponds to the earth’s atmospheric
9g
circulation pattern. The air circulation over the oceans in the middle latitudes is mainly
anticyclonic (more pronounced in the southern hemisphere than in the northern hemisphere).
56

The oceanic circulation pattern also corresponds with the same. At higher latitudes where the
wind flow is mostly cyclonic, the oceanic circulation follows this pattern. In regions of
55

pronounced monsoonal flow, the monsoon winds influence the current movements. Due to the
coriolis force, the warm currents from low latitudes tend to move to the right in the northern
ar

hemisphere and to their left in the southern hemisphere.

m

The oceanic circulation transports heat from one latitude belt to another in a manner similar to
the heat transported by the general circulation of the atmosphere. The cold waters of the Arctic
ku

and Antarctic circles move towards warmer water in tropical and equatorial regions, while the
warm waters of the lower latitudes move polewards.
an

Equatorial counter-currents are unique because they flow in a direction opposite to that of the
am

surface winds
Q.165 Consider the following statements
1. Warm currents flow parallel to the east coasts of the continents in tropical and subtropical
latitudes.
2. West coasts of the continents in the middle and higher latitudes are bordered by warm
waters which cause a distinct marine climate.
3. West coasts of the continents in tropical and subtropical latitudes are bordered by cool
waters.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 123
 (A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Effects of Ocean Currents
Ocean currents have a number of direct and indirect influences on human activities. West coasts
of the continents in tropical and subtropical latitudes (except close to the equator) are bordered
by cool waters. Their average temperatures are relatively low with a narrow diurnal and annual
ranges. There is fog, but generally the areas are arid. West coasts of the continents in the middle
and higher latitudes are bordered by warm waters which cause a distinct marine climate. They
are characterised by cool summers and relatively mild winters with a narrow annual range of
temperatures. Warm currents flow parallel to the east coasts of the continents in tropical and
subtropical latitudes. This results in warm and rainy climates. These areas lie in the western
margins of the subtropical anti-cyclones. The mixing of warm and cold currents help to replenish
the oxygen and favour the growth of planktons, the primary food for fish population. The best
fishing grounds of the world exist mainly in these mixing zones.

CHAPTER – 15 : Life on The Earth

Q.166 Consider the following statements about biomes
1. Both terrestrial and aquatic ecosystem can be a part of biomes
2. The boundaries of different biomes on land are determined mainly by vegetation cover
and species
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Types of Ecosystems
Ecosystems are of two major types: terrestrial and aquatic. Terrestrial ecosystem can be further
be classified into ‘biomes’. A biome is a plant and animal community that covers a large
geographical area. The boundaries of different biomes on land are determined mainly by climate.
Therefore, a biome can be defined as the total assemblage of plant and animal species interacting
within specific conditions. These include rainfall, temperature, humidity and soil conditions.
Some of the major biomes of the world are: forest, grassland, desert and tundra biomes. Aquatic
ecosystems can be classed as marine and freshwater ecosystems. Marine ecosystem includes the

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 124
oceans, estuaries and coral reefs. Freshwater ecosystem includes lakes, ponds, streams, marshes
and bogs

Q.167 Consider the following statements

1. Transfer of energy that occurs during the process of a foodchain from one level to
another is known as flow of energy.
2. The total energy in food chain and food web remains conserve and flow in a
unidirectional manner
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Transfer of energy that occurs during the process of a foodchain from one level to another
is known as flow of energy. However, food-chains are not isolated from one another. For
example, a mouse feeding on grain may be eaten by different secondary consumers (carnivores)
and these carnivores may be eaten by other different tertiary consumers (top carnivores). In such
situations, each of the carnivores may consume more than one type of prey. As a result, the food-
chains get interlocked with one another. This interconnecting network of species is known as
food web. Generally, two types of food-chains are recognised: grazing food-chain and detritus
food-chain. In a grazing food-chain, the first level starts with plants as producers and ends with
carnivores as consumers at the last level, with the herbivores being at the intermediate level.
There is a loss of energy at each level which may be through respiration, excretion or
decomposition. The levels involved in a foodchain range between three to five and energy is
lost at each level. A detritus food-chain is based on autotrophs energy capture initiated by
grazing animals and involves the decomposition or breaking down of organic wastes and dead
matter derived from the grazing food-chain.

Q.168 Consider the following statements about carbon cycle

1. Carbon cycle starts from atmosphere with the fixation of carbon from it.
2. The last stage of cycle is completed by root respiration and decomposition
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 125
 Solution: C
The Carbon Cycle
Carbon is one of the basic elements of all living organisms. It forms the basic constituent of all
the organic compounds. The biosphere contains over half a million carbon compounds in them.
The carbon cycle is mainly the conversion of carbon dioxide. This conversion is initiated by the
fixation of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through photosynthesis. Such conversion results
in the production of carbohydrate, glucose that may be converted to other organic compounds
such as sucrose, starch, cellulose, etc. Here, some of the carbohydrates are utilised directly by the
plant itself. During this process, more carbon dioxide is generated and is released through its
leaves or roots during the day. The remaining carbohydrates not being utilised by the plant

om
become part of the plant tissue. Plant tissues are either being eaten by the herbivorous animals or
get decomposed by the microorganisms. The herbivores convert some of the consumed

l.c
carbohydrates into carbon dioxide for release into the air through respiration. The micro-
organisms decompose the remaining carbohydrates after the animal dies. The carbohydrates that

ai
are decomposed by the micro-organisms then get oxidised into carbon dioxide and are returned
to the atmosphere
m
9g
56
55
ar
m
ku
an

Q.168 Consider the following statements

am

1. Nitrogen cycle is a reversible cycle

2. Ninety per cent of fixed nitrogen is biological.
3. Nitrogen can also be fixed in the atmosphere by lightning and cosmic radiation.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
The Nitrogen Cycle
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 126
Nitrogen is a major constituent of the atmosphere comprising about seventy-eight per cent of the
atmospheric gases. It is also an essential constituent of different organic compounds such as the
amino acids, nucleic acids, proteins, vitamins and pigments. Only a few types of organisms like
certain species of soil bacteria and blue green algae are capable of utilising it directly in its
gaseous form. Generally, nitrogen is usable only after it is fixed. Ninety per cent of fixed
nitrogen is biological. The principal source of free nitrogen is the action of soil micro-organisms
and associated plant roots on atmospheric nitrogen found in pore spaces of the soil. Nitrogen can
also be fixed in the atmosphere by lightning and cosmic radiation. In the oceans, some marine
animals can fix it. After atmospheric nitrogen has been fixed into an available form, green plants
can assimilate it. Herbivorous animals feeding on plants, in turn, consume some of it. Dead
plants and animals, excretion of nitrogenous wastes are converted into nitrites by the action of
bacteria present in the soil. Some bacteria can even convert nitrites into nitrates that can be used
again by green plants. There are still other types of bacteria capable of converting nitrates into
free nitrogen, a process known as denitrification

CHAPTER – 16 : Biodiversity and Conservation

Q.169 Which of the following is/are correctly matched with the given description?
1. Genetic Diversity – It refers to the diversity between species.
2. Species Diversity – It refers to the diversity within species.
3. Ecosystem Diversity – It refers to the diversity within the ecosystem.
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Genetic Diversity
Genes are the basic building blocks of various life forms. Genetic biodiversity refers to the
variation of genes within species. Groups of individual organisms having certain similarities in
their physical characteristics are called species. Human beings genetically belong to the homo
sapiens group and also differ in their characteristics such as height, colour, physical appearance,
etc., considerably. This is due to genetic diversity. This genetic diversity is essential for a healthy
breeding of population of species.
Species Diversity

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 127
This refers to the variety of species. It relates to the number of species in a defined area. The
diversity of species can be measured through its richness, abundance and types. Some areas are
more rich in species than others. Areas rich in species diversity are called hotspots of diversity.
Ecosystem Diversity
The broad differences between ecosystem types and the diversity of habitats and ecological
processes occurring within each ecosystem type constitute the ecosystem diversity. The
‘boundaries’ of communities (associations of species) and ecosystems are not very rigidly
defined. Thus, the demarcation of ecosystem boundaries is difficult and complex

Q.170 Consider the following statement about modes of conservation of biodiversity.

1. Ex-situ is offsite conservation, where animals are reared but plants are not cultivated
while In-situ is onsite conservation.
2. Mobility of all species is maintained in Ex-situ while Mobility of species is restricted in
In- situ conservation.
3. Ex-situ conservation is more suited for species that are abundance while In-situ
conservation is more suited for species with dwindling numbers that are edging towards
extinction.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) None of the above
Solutions: D
Conserving biodiversity outside the areas where they naturally occur is known as ex situ
conservation.
Here, animals are reared or plants are cultivated like zoological parks or botanical gardens.
Conserving the animals and plants in their natural habitats is known as in-situ conservation. Like
National parks, Sanctuaries, Biosphere reserves, reserved forest and Protected forests. Mobility
of all species is maintained in In-situ while Mobility of species is restricted in Ex-situ
conservation. In-situ conservation is more suited for species that are abundance while Ex-situ
conservation is more suited for species with dwindling numbers that are edging towards
extinction.

Q.171 Which one of the following is not included under the list of In-situ conservation?
(A) Biosphere Reserve
(B) Wild Life Sanctuary

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 128
 (C) Botanical Gardens
(D) National Park
Solution: C
In situ conservation
 In-situ conservation is the on-site conservation of genetic resources in natural populations
of plant or animal species.
 In India, ecologically unique and biodiversity-rich regions are legally protected as
biosphere reserves, national parks, sanctuaries, reserved forests, protected forests and
nature reserves.

om
 India now has 18 biosphere reserves, 104 national parks and 500 wildlife sanctuaries.
 Plantation, cultivation, grazing, felling trees, hunting and poaching are prohibited in
biosphere reserves, national parks and sanctuaries.

l.c
Protected Area Network in India

ai
National Board for Wildlife (NBWL), chaired by the Prime Minister of India provides for
m
policy framework for wildlife conservation in the country.
9g
 The National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016) was adopted in 2002, emphasizing the
people’s participation and their support for wildlife conservation.
56
55

Q.172 Which of the following statement is/are listed as an importance factor of Biodiversity
conservation?
ar

1. The genetic diversity of plants and animals is preserved.

2. It ensures the sustainable utilisation of life support systems on earth.
m

3. It provides a vast knowledge of potential use to the scientific community.

ku

4. Biodiversity preservation helps to provide rare earth metals

5. Biological diversity provides immediate benefits to the society such as recreation and
an

tourism.
Choose the correct code from the list below
am

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: A
Objectives and advantages of biodiversity conservation
 Conservation of biological diversity leads to conservation of essential ecological diversity
to preserve the continuity of food chains.
 The genetic diversity of plants and animals is preserved.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 129
  It ensures the sustainable utilisation of life support systems on earth.
 It provides a vast knowledge of potential use to the scientific community.
 A reservoir of wild animals and plants is preserved, thus enabling them to be introduced,
if need be, in the surrounding areas.
 Biological diversity provides immediate benefits to the society such as recreation and
tourism.
 Biodiversity conservation serves as an insurance policy for the future.
Q.173 Biodiversity helps in pollination, nutrient cycling as well as recycling, greenhouse gas
reduction by sequestration. The given function are categories under which of the following
services?
(A) Ecosystem services
(B) Provisioning Services
(C) Regulating services
(D) Supporting services
Solution: D
Importance of Biodiversity
Biodiversity has contributed a lot to the development of human culture and, in turn, human
communities have played an important role in shaping the biodiversity at the genetic, species and
ecological levels.
Biodiversity is important in the following ways:
 Ecological role: Species of many kinds perform some of the other functions in an
ecosystem. Every organism, besides fulfilling its own needs, also contributes something
useful to different other organisms in the environment. Species capture, store and utilise
energy, produce and decompose organic materials, are part of cycles of water and
nutrients throughout the ecosystem, fix gases in the atmosphere and also help regulate the
climate. Thus, they help in soil formation, reducing pollution, protection of land, water
and air resources. These functions of biodiversity are important for ecosystem functions
and stability.
 Ecosystem services: Biodiversity underpins the basis of all the ecosystem services on the
planet.
 Provisioning Services: Various plants, animals and microorganisms which form the
biodiversity, provide us with foods such as cereals, fishes etc. , fibre for our clothes such
as cotton, wool etc., fuelwood for survival as well as pharmaceutical products such as
neem, tulsi etc.
 Regulating services: Biodiversity regulates the local as well as global climate, manages
the global levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide and other gases, maintains freshwater quality
by vegetation slowing runoff, absorbs carbon by acting as carbon sinks etc. Thus
biodiversity regulates the life and life processes on the planet.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 130
  Supporting services: Biodiversity helps in pollination, nutrient cycling as well as
recycling, greenhouse gas reduction by sequestration.
 Social and cultural services: Biodiversity provides us with aesthetic pleasure. It
provides recreational avenues and rich biological diversity encourages tourism in the
region. Many communities and cultures have co-evolved with the surroundings and the
resources provided by a biologically diverse environment. Hence, it performs an
important social role as well. Important services which are provided by biodiversity
are:Recreation and relaxationTourism especially ecotourismArt, Design and
inspirationSpiritual experiences and a sense of place
 Food web maintenance: Biodiversity helps in maintaining food webs as higher the
diversity of an ecosystem, more complex is going to be the food webs because there are
so many options to eat. Therefore, higher chances of survival of every species are there.
This results in more stable food chains and food webs.
 Scientific role: Biodiversity help in scientific research, education and monitoring. For
example, research about new genetic materials with the help of gene pools. Biodiversity,
thus, helps in understanding the functioning of life and the role that each species plays in
sustaining ecosystems of which we humans are also a part.

INDIA PHYSICAL ENVIRONMENT

CHAPTER – 1 : India — Location
Q.1 The latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India is almost the same degrees i.e. 30 degrees.
But the north south distance in Kilometers is 3214 and the east west distance is 2933 km.
Consider the following statements about the reasons
5. The distance between any 2 lines of longitude is maximum at the poles & it goes on
decreasing as 1 moves north or south of the equator
6. The distance between two latitudes is constant that is 111 km
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(I) Only 1
(J) Only 2
(K) Both 1 and 2
(L) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Why North-South extent longer than the East-West extent?
North-South extent longer than the East-West extent due to the following reasons:

 The distance between latitudes remain the same throughout but the distance between the
two longitudes reduces as moved towards poles

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 131
  The distance between two latitudes is constant that is 111 km but the distance between
two longitudes is 111 km at the equator and reduces to 0 at the poles.
 In other words, we can say that India’s north-south extent and distance remains unaltered
 The distance between the two longitudes decreases and the east-west extends has a U-
shaped bending which actually reduces the actual east-west distance.
 Hence, the lines of longitude come nearer and the East-West distance becomes less than
the North-South distance.

Q.2 Consider the following statements

om
1. The southern part of India lies within the tropics and the northern part lies in the warm
temperate zone.
2. The time difference between the westernmost part of India and the easternmost point is

l.c
approximately two hours, the effect of which is that the sun rises and sets much earlier in

ai
the west than it does in the rest of the country.
3. Assam follow ChaiBagaan time. Bagaan time or tea time is a reference to an informal
m
practice followed in tea gardens in Assam which is an hour ahead of IST
9g
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
56

(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
55

(D) 3 only
Solution: C
ar

From the values of latitude, it is understood that the southern part of the country lies within the
m

tropics and the northern part lies in the sub-tropical zone or the warm temperate zone. This
location is responsible for large variations in land forms, climate, soil types and natural
ku

vegetation in the country.

an

Now, let us observe the longitudinal extent and its implications on the Indian people. From the
values of longitude, it is quite discernible that there is a variation of nearly 30 degrees, which
am

causes a time difference of nearly two hours between the easternmost and the westernmost parts
of our country. You are familiar with the concept of Indian Standard Time (IST).
Demand of Time Zone
1. Northeastern states of India Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur,
Mizoram, Tripura – and Andaman and Nicobar Islands was demanding different time
zone as theses face difficulty in managing their routine work schedule.
2. In Northeastern states the sun rises and sets earlier than the official working hours.
3. This natural phenomenon gives birth to some practical problems like it affects the
productivity and makes electric consumption much higher.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 132
 4. Early sunrise leads to loss of daylight hours by the time offices or educational institutions
open. In winter, this problem gets even more severe as the sun sets much early and
therefore, more consumption of electricity is required.
5. To deal with this tea gardens of Assam have been following ‘Chaibagaan time’ which is
one hour ahead of India Standard Time (IST).

Q.3 Choose the cities and arrange the following cities capital in order of passing of tropic of
cancer through their respective states from West to East
1. Jaipur
2. Agartala
3. Raipur
4. Imphal
5. Aizawl
6. Shillong
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1-3-5-6
(B) 1-3-2-5
(C) 1-3-4-5
(D) 1-3-6-5
Solution: B
The tropic of Cancer passes through 8 states in the country-Gujarat (Gandhinagar),
Rajasthan(Jaipur), Madhya Pradesh(Bhopal), Chattisgarh(Raipur), Jharkhand(Ranchi), West
Bengal(Kolkata), Tripura(Agartala) and Mizoram(Aizawl).

Q.4 Consider the following statements

1. Bhutan and Bangladesh border has less distance between them through India than Nepal
and Bangladesh
2. Mizoram along with Assam share border with Bangladesh
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Geographically, Nepal and Bangladesh are separated by a mere 27 kilometers long stretch,
Siliguri Corridor or popularly known as Chicken's Neck, which belongs to West Bengal, India.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 133
Apparently a small and narrow stretch, its pivotal geopolitical significance is camouflaged by the
size.

CHAPTER – 2: Structure and Physiography

Q.5 There are sufficient evidences are available that Indian plate is moving northward. Consider
the important about its consequences
1. It helps in the creation of monsoon circulations that give heavy rainfall on the margins of
uplifted terrain.
2. It resulted in the creation of the Himalayas
3. It causes changes in the position of jet stream and westerly winds
4. Earthquake in Himalaya region
5. Increase in flow of Himalayan rivers
Which of the following consequence(s) is/are correct?
(I) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(J) 2, 4 and 5
(K) 1, 2, and 4
(L) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 134
 Solution: D
 It causes a sequence called "indentor tectonic sequence".
 It resulted in the creation of the Himalayas.
 It gives rise to earthquake because of a deadly effect known as “Domino effect”.
 It causes changes in the position of jet stream and westerly winds .
 It helps in the creation of monsoon circulations that give heavy rainfall on the margins of
uplifted terrain.

Q.6 Consider the following statements about the Peninsular Block

om
1. The northeastern parts are separated by the Malda fault in West Bengal from the
Chotanagpur plateau.

l.c
2. Since the Cambrian period, the Peninsula has been standing like a rigid block with the
exception of some of its western coast which is submerged beneath the sea

ai
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
m
(A) Only 1
9g
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
56

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C
55

 The northern boundary of the Peninsular Block may be taken as an irregular line running
from Kachchh along the western flank of the Aravali Range near Delhi and then roughly
ar

parallel to the Yamuna and the Ganga as far as the Rajmahal Hills and the Ganga delta.
m

Apart from these, the Karbi Anglong and the Meghalaya Plateau in the northeast and
Rajasthan in the west are also extensions of this block. The northeastern parts are
ku

separated by the Malda fault in West Bengal from the Chotanagpur plateau. In Rajasthan,
the desert and other desert–like features overlay this block.
an

 The Peninsula is formed essentially by a great complex of very ancient gneisses and
granites, which constitutes a major part of it. Since the Cambrian period, the Peninsula
am

has been standing like a rigid block with the exception of some of its western coast which
is submerged beneath the sea and some other parts changed due to tectonic activity
without affecting the original basement.

Q.7 Consider the following statements about the Peninsular Block

1. It has been subjected to various vertical movements and block faulting. The rift valleys of
the Narmada, the Tapi and the Mahanadi and the Aravalli block mountains are some
examples of it.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 135
 2. Nallamala hills, the Javadi hills, the Veliconda hills, the Palkonda range are residual
mountains in peninsular block
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
As a part of the Indo-Australian Plate, it has been subjected to various vertical movements and
block faulting. The rift valleys of the Narmada, the Tapi and the Mahanadi and the Satpura block
mountains are some examples of it. The Peninsula mostly consists of relict and residual
mountains like the Aravali hills, the Nallamala hills, the Javadi hills, the Veliconda hills, the
Palkonda range and the Mahendragiri hills, etc. The river valleys here are shallow with low
gradients.

Q.8 Consider the following statements

1. There is no formation of deltas by rivers of the Western Ghats
2. Rivers form deltas when the flow(speed) of the river water slows to the extent such that
the silt it carries gets heavier and the water cannot carry it forward to the sea.
3. If the land incline is too high, then the silt will be taken into the sea because it cannot
fight against the gravitational force.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) None of the above
Solution: D
Most of the east flowing rivers form deltas before entering into the Bay of Bengal. The deltas
formed by the Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Kaveri and the Godavari are important examples.
There is no formation of deltas by rivers of the Western Ghat.Why?
Rivers form deltas when the flow(speed) of the river water slows to the extent such that the silt it
carries gets heavier and the water cannot carry it forward to the sea. For this condition to be
satisfied we need the following
1. Is the river long enough?. The length (of the river) from the point of its origins to the sea
should be long enough.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 136
 2. How fast does the water drain into the sea?. If the water from the river drains too fast ,
then it probably takes the silt along with it into the sea.
3. How flat is the land?. If the land incline is too high, then the silt will be taken into the sea
because it cannot fight against the gravitational force. Water falling down an incline is
much faster than water flowing on plain ground.

Q.9 Consider the following statements about Himalayas and other Peninsular mountains
1. The Himalayas along with other Peninsular mountains are young, weak and flexible in
their geological structure unlike the rigid and stable Peninsular Block.
2. They are still subjected to interplay of endogenic forces only
3. These mountains are tectonic in origin
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 3
Solution: D
The Himalayas along with other Peninsular mountains are young, weak and flexible in their
geological structure unlike the rigid and stable Peninsular Block. Consequently, they are still
subjected to the interplay of exogenic and endogenic forces, resulting in the development of
faults, folds and thrust plains. These mountains are tectonic in origin, dissected by fast-flowing
rivers which are in their youthful stage.

Q.10 Consider the following statements with reference to Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain

1. Originally, it was a geo-synclinal depression which attained its maximum development
during the second phase of the Himalayan mountain formation
2. Since then, it has been gradually filled by the sediments brought by the Himalayan and
Peninsular rivers.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Indo-Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 137
 The third geological division of India comprises the plains formed by the river Indus, the Ganga
and the Brahmaputra. Originally, it was a geo-synclinal depression which attained its maximum
development during the third phase of the Himalayan mountain formation approximately about
64 million years ago. Since then, it has been gradually filled by the sediments brought by the
Himalayan and Peninsular rivers. Average depth of alluvial deposits in these plains ranges from
1,000-2,000 m.

Q.11 Consider the following statements about Physiography

1. The north has a vast expanse of rugged topography consisting of a series of mountain

om
ranges with varied peaks, valleys and deep gorges.
2. The south consists of stable table land with highly dissected plateaus, denuded rocks and
developed series of scarps

l.c
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

ai
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
m
(C) Both 1 and 2
9g
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
56

‘Physiography’ of an area is the outcome of structure, process and the stage of development. The
land of India is characterised by great diversity in its physical features. The north has a vast
55

expanse of rugged topography consisting of a series of mountain ranges with varied peaks,
beautiful valleys and deep gorges. The south consists of stable table land with highly dissected
ar

plateaus, denuded rocks and developed series of scarps. In between these two lies the vast north
Indian plain. Based on these macro variations, India can be divided into the following
m

physiographic divisions:
ku

(1) The Northern and North-eastern Mountains

an

(2) The Northern Plain

(3) The Peninsular Plateau
am

(4) The Indian Desert

(5) The Coastal Plains
(6) The Islands.

Q.12 Which of the following statement is correct about the North and Northeastern Mountains?
(A) Himalayas in the Darjiling and Sikkim regions lie in an east-west direction
(B) Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh are from southeast to the northwest direction.
(C) In Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram, they are in the north-south direction.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 138
 (D) None of the above
Solution: B
The North and Northeastern Mountains
 The North and Northeastern Mountains consist of the Himalayas and the Northeastern
hills. The Himalayas consist of a series of parallel mountain ranges.
 Some of the important ranges are the Greater Himalayan range, which includes the Great
Himalayas and the Shiwalik.
 The general orientation of these ranges is from northwest to the southeast direction in the
northwestern part of India.
 Himalayas in the Darjiling and Sikkim regions lie in an eastwest direction, while in
Arunachal Pradesh they are from southwest to the northwest direction.
 In Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram, they are in the northsouth direction.
 The approximate length of the Great Himalayan range, also known as the central axial
range, is 2,500 km from east to west, and their width varies between 160-400 km from
north to south.
 It is also evident from the map that the Himalayas stand almost like a strong and long
wall between the Indian subcontinent and the Central and East Asian countries.
Q.13 Consider the following statements with reference to Kashmir or Northwestern Himalayas
1. Between the Great Himalayas and the Karakoram range, lies the world-famous valley of
Kashmir
2. Karewas are lacustrine deposits in the Valley of Kashmir, which are useful for the
cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron.
3. Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with
moraines.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Kashmir or Northwestern Himalayas
It comprises a series of ranges such as the Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar and Pir Panjal. The
northeastern part of the Kashmir Himalayas is a cold desert, which lies between the Greater
Himalayas and the Karakoram ranges. Between the Great Himalayas and the Pir Panjal range,
lies the world-famous valley of Kashmir and the famous Dal Lake. Important glaciers of South
Asia such as the Baltoro and Siachen are also found in this region. The Kashmir Himalayas are

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 139
also famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety
of saffron.
Karewas are lacustrine deposits [deposits in lake] in the Valley of Kashmir and in Bhadarwah
Valley of the Jammu Division. These are the flat topped mounds that border the Kashmir Valley
on all sides. They are characterized with fossils of mammals and at places by peat.

Q.14 Match the following passes and mountain ranges.

11. Banihal A. Pir Panjal
12. Photu la B. Ladhakh
13. Zoji La C. Great Himalayas
14. Khardung la D. Zaskar
Choose the correct code from the list below
(I) 1.A,2.B,3.C,4.D
(J) 1.A,2.D,3.C,4.B
(K) 1.B,2.C,3.D,4.A
(L) 1.D,2.A,3.B,4.C
Solution: B
 Zoji La: Lies in Greater Himalaya. Provide link between Ladakh and Kashmir.
 Photu la: Zanskar Range. Provide link to high mountain passes between the regions of
Leh and Kargil.
 Banihal Pass: Pir Panjal Range. It forms the main gateway to the Vale of Kashmir from
the Indian plains.
 Khardung La: Ladakh. It is the gateway to the remote Nubra and Shyok valleys.

Q.15 Consider the following statements with reference to Indus river tributaries
1. Meanders are a typical feature associated with mature stage of a fluvial landform.
2. Jhelum in the valley of Kashmir is still in its youth stage and yet forms meanders
3. The meanders in the Jhelum River are caused by the local base level
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 140
  Srinagar, the capital city of the state of Jammu and Kashmir is located on the banks of the
Jhelum River. The Dal Lake in Srinagar presents an interesting physical feature.
 Jhelum, in the valley of Kashmir, is still in its youth stage and yet forms meanders – a
typical feature associated with the mature stage in the evolution of fluvial land form.
 In the Kashmir valley, the meanders in the Jhelum River are caused by the local base
level provided by the erstwhile larger lake of which the present Dal Lake is a small part.

Q.16 Consider the following statements

1. The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas lies approximately between the Ravi in the

om
west and the Son in the east.
2. The two distinguishing features of Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas region from the
point of view of physiography are the ‘Cirques’ and ‘Dun formations’.

l.c
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
ai
(B) Only 2
m
(C) Both 1 and 2
9g

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C
56

 The Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas This part lies approximately between the Ravi
55

in the west and the Kali (a tributary of Ghaghara) in the east. It is drained by two major
river systems of India, i.e. the Indus and the Ganga. Tributaries of the Indus include the
ar

river Ravi, the Beas and the Satluj, and the tributaries of Ganga flowing through this
region include the Yamuna and the Ghaghara.
m

 The northernmost part of the Himachal Himalayas is an extension of the Ladakh cold
desert, which lies in the Spiti subdivision of district Lahul and Spiti. All the three ranges
ku

of Himalayas are prominent in this section also.

an

 These are the Great Himalayan range, the Lesser Himalayas (which is locally known as
Dhaoladhar in Himachal Pradesh and Nagtibha in Uttarakhand) and the Shiwalik range
from the North to the South. In this section of Lesser Himalayas, the altitude between
am

1,000-2,000 m specially attracted to the British colonial administration, and subsequently,

some of the important hill stations such as Dharamshala, Mussoorie, Shimla, Kaosani and
the cantonment towns and health resorts such as Shimla, Mussoorie, Kasauli, Almora,
Lansdowne and Ranikhet, etc. were developed in this region.
 The two distinguishing features of this region from the point of view of physiography are
the ‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Dun formations’. Some important duns located in this region are the
Chandigarh-Kalka dun, Nalagarh dun, Dehra Dun, Harike dun and the Kota dun, etc.

Q.17 Which of the following option correctly defines the ‘Bugyals’?

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 141
 (A) Alpine pasture lands
(B) Tribe
(C) Tributary of Ghaghara river
(D) Winter grassland
Solution: A

 Bugyals are alpine pasture lands, or meadows, in higher elevation range between 3,300
metres (10,800 ft) and 4,000 metres (13,000 ft) of the Himalayas in the Indian state of
Uttarakhand, where they are called "nature's own gardens". The topography of the terrain
is either flat or sloped.
 In the Great Himalayan range, the valleys are mostly inhabited by the Bhotia’s. These are
nomadic groups who migrate to ‘Bugyals’ (the summer glasslands in the higher reaches)
during summer months and return to the valleys during winters. The famous ‘Valley of
flowers’ is also situated in this region.
Q.18 Arrange the following places from East to West in terms of their location
1. Gangotri
2. Badrinath
3. Hemkund Sahib
4. Yamunotri
5. Kedarnath
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1-2-3-4-5
(B) 4-1-5-2-3
(C) 4-1-3-2-5
(D) 1-2-5-4-3
Solution: B

Q.19 Consider the following statements about the Darjiling and Sikkim Himalayas

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 142
 1. Kubhakarna is the third highest peak in Darjiling Himalayas
2. Sikkim and Darjiling Himalayas are known for orchids cultivation
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
They are flanked by Nepal Himalayas in the west and Bhutan Himalayas in the east. It is
relatively small but is a most significant part of the Himalayas. Known for its fast-flowing rivers
such as Tista, it is a region of high mountain peaks like Kanchenjunga (Kanchengiri), and deep
valleys. The higher reaches of this region are inhabited by Lepcha tribes while the southern part,
particularly the Darjiling Himalayas, has a mixed population of Nepalis, Bengalis and tribals
from Central India. The British, taking advantage of the physical conditions such as moderate
slope, thick soil cover with high organic content, well distributed rainfall throughout the year and
mild winters, introduced tea plantations in this region. As compared to the other sections of the
Himalayas, these along with the Arunachal Himalayas are conspicuous by the absence of the
Shiwalik formations. In place of the Shiwaliks here, the ‘duar formations’ are important, which
have also been used for the development of tea gardens. Sikkim and Darjiling Himalayas are also
known for their scenic beauty and rich flora and fauna, particularly various types of orchids.
From Darjeeling, you are actually watching the Himalayan range from south to north, and
therefore several peaks along with Kanchenjunga are visible in a single stretch of snow.
Kanchenjunga (8,586m) is in the middle, Mt. Pandim (6,691m) to its right, and Mt. Kabru
(7,412m) followed by Kubhakarna (7,710m) to its left.
Q.20 Consider the following statements about the Arunachal Himalayas
1. The general direction of the mountain range is from southwest to northeast.
2. Due to rugged topography, the inter-valley transportation linkages are high.
3. Rivers in Arunachal Himalayas are perennial with the high rate of fall, thus, having the
highest hydro-electric power potential in the country.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 3 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
These extend from the east of the Bhutan Himalayas up to the Diphu pass in the east. The
general direction of the mountain range is from southwest to northeast. Some of the important

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 143
 mountain peaks of the region are Kangtu and Namcha Barwa. These ranges are dissected by fast-
flowing rivers from the north to the south, forming deep gorges.
Bhramaputra flows through a deep gorge after crossing Namcha Barwa. Some of the important
rivers are the Kameng, the Subansiri, the Dihang, the Dibang and the Lohit. These are perennial
with the high rate of fall, thus, having the highest hydro-electric power potential in the country.
An important aspect of the Arunachal Himalayas is the numerous ethnic tribal community
inhabiting in these areas. Some of the prominent ones from west to east are the Monpa, Abor,
Mishmi, Nyishi and the Nagas. Most of these communities practise Jhumming. It is also known
as shifting or slash and burn cultivation. This region is rich in biodiversity which has been
preserved by the indigenous communities. Due to rugged topography, the inter-valley

om
transportation linkages are nominal. Hence, most of the interactions are carried through the duar
region along the Arunachal-Assam border.

l.c
Q.21 Consider the following statements with reference to the Eastern Hills and Mountains

ai
1. The Barak is an important river in this section and is flow through Assam, Manipur and
m
Mizoram
9g
2. Mizoram which is also known as the ‘Molassis basin’ which is made up of soft
consolidated sediments of terrestrial or marine origin
56

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

55

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
ar

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2
m

Solution: B
ku

The Eastern Hills and Mountains

These are part of the Himalayan mountain system having their general alignment from the north
an

to the south direction. They are known by different local names. In the north, they are known as
Patkai Bum, Naga hills, the Manipur hills and in the south as Mizo or Lushai hills. These are low
am

hills, inhabited by numerous tribal groups practising Jhum cultivation.

Most of these ranges are separated from each other by numerous small rivers. The Barak is an
important river in Manipur and Mizoram. The physiography of Manipur is unique by the
presence of a large lake known as ‘Loktak’ lake at the centre, surrounded by mountains from all
sides. Mizoram which is also known as the ‘Molassis basin’ which is made up of soft
unconsolidated deposits. Most of the rivers in Nagaland form the tributary of the Brahmaputra.
While two rivers of Mizoram and Manipur are the tributaries of the Barak river, which in turn is
the tributary of Meghna; the rivers in the eastern part of Manipur are the tributaries of Chindwin,
which in turn is a tributary of the Irrawady of Myanmar.
Barak River

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 144
  Barak River is one of major rivers of South Assam.
 The 564 kilometres long river is part of Surma-Meghna River System.
 It rises in hill country of Manipur where it is biggest and most important of hill country
rivers.
 After Manipur it flows through Mizoram and Assam.
 It later enters Bangladesh where it forks into Surma and Kushiyara rivers.
 The sixth national waterway stretch is on this river.

Q.22 Consider the following statements with reference to the Bhabar plains
1. Bhabar plains lies along the foot of the Shiwalik from the Indus to the Tista.
2. Bhabar plains are consist of finer alluvium deposit
3. This region is not suitable for cultivation
Which of the following statement(s) is are incorrect?
(A) 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Bhabar Plains: Lies along the foot of the Shiwaliks from the Indus to the Tista. It is narrow belt
8 to 16 kms wide comprising of pebble-studded rocks in the shape of porous beds. These beds
are laid down by streams coming from the belts. The porosity of this zone is so high that all
streams disappear here. This region is not suitable for cultivation. The area is characterized by
big trees with large roots.
Q. 23 Consider the following statements about Northern plains
1. Terai is an area of excessive dampness, thick forest, rich wildlife and malaria climate.
2. The south of Terai is the delta plains which is good for the cultivation of paddy, tea and
jute.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 145
 1. The Terai: It is situated to the south of the Bhabar and runs parallel to it. It is marked by
the re-emergence of the underground streams of the Bhabar belt. The alluvium deposited
here is finer than that deposited in the Bhabar. It is an area of excessive dampness, thick
forest, rich wildlife and malaria climate. It is good for the cultivation of Wheat, rice,
maize, sugarcane etc.
2. Bhangar Plains: Further south of Terai in the alluvial plains. Formed by the deposition
of alluvium or silt by the rivers. The older alluvium located at relatively higher ground
away from the river course is called Bhangar Plains. It contains calcium carbonate
nodules called kankars
3. The Khadar: The flood plains which have newer alluvium is called Khadar. A new layer
of alluvium is deposited by river floods almost every year. The Khadar is often
characterized by fertile soil and intensive agriculture and is found adjacent to river banks.
The Khadar lands are devoted to the cultivation of sugarcane, rice, wheat, maize and
oilseeds.
4. Delta plains: Delta plain is an extension of the Khadar plain. It covers about 1.86 lakh
km2 of area in the lower reaches of the Ganga river. It mainly consists of old mud, new
mud and marsh. This area is good for the cultivation of paddy, tea and jute.

Q.24 Consider the following statements

1. Northern plains have characteristic features of mature stage of fluvial erosional and
depositional landforms such as sand bars, meanders, oxbow lakes and braided channels.
2. The states of Haryana and Delhi form a water divide between the Indus and the Ganga
river systems.
3. The Brahmaputra river flows from the northeast to the southwest direction before it takes
an almost 90° southward turn at Namcha Barwa before it enters into Bangladesh.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 2, and 3
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 146
  These plains have characteristic features of mature stage of fluvial erosional and
depositional landforms such as sand bars, meanders, oxbow lakes and braided channels.
The Brahmaputra plains are known for their riverine islands and sand bars. Most of these
areas are subjected to periodic floods and shifting river courses forming braided streams.
 The mouths of these mighty rivers also form some of the largest deltas of the world, for
example, the famous Sunderbans delta.
 Otherwise, this is a featureless plain with a general elevation of 50-150 m above the mean
sea level. The states of Haryana and Delhi form a water divide between the Indus and the
Ganga river systems. As opposed to this, the Brahmaputra river flows from the northeast
to the southwest direction before it takes an almost 90° southward turn at Dhubri before it
enters into Bangladesh. These river valley plains have a fertile alluvial soil cover which

om
supports a variety of crops like wheat, rice, sugarcane and jute, and hence, supports a
large population.

l.c
ai
Q.25 Consider the followings statements about the Peninsular plateau
m
1. Peninsular plateau is triangular in shape where Delhi ridge in the northwest, the Rajmahal
hills in the east, Gir range in the west and the Cardamom hills in the south
9g
2. The general elevation of the plateau is from the east to the west
56

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
55

(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
ar

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A
m

The Peninsular Plateau Rising from the height of 150 m above the river plains up to an elevation
ku

of 600-900 m is the irregular triangle known as the Peninsular plateau. Delhi ridge in the
northwest, (extension of Aravalis), the Rajmahal hills in the east, Gir range in the west and the
an

Cardamom hills in the south constitute the outer extent of the Peninsular plateau. However, an
extension of this is also seen in the northeast, in the form of Shillong and Karbi-Anglong plateau.
am

The Peninsular India is made up of a series of patland plateaus such as the Hazaribagh plateau,
the Palamu plateau, the Ranchi plateau, the Malwa plateau, the Coimbatore plateau and the
Karnataka plateau, etc. This is one of the oldest and the most stable landmass of India. The
general elevation of the plateau is from the west to the east, which is also proved by the pattern
of the flow of rivers.

Q.26 Consider the following statements

1. The Narmada - Godavari rift valley runs across the peninsular landmass cutting it into
two parts viz., the Central Highlands in the north, and the Deccan Plateau in the south.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 147
 2. This Peninsular plateau has undergone recurrent phases of upliftment and submergence
accompanied by crustal faulting and fractures.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
This Peninsular plateau has undergone recurrent phases of upliftment and submergence
accompanied by crustal faulting and fractures. (The Bhima fault needs special mention, because
of its recurrent seismic activities). These spatial variations have brought in elements of diversity
in the relief of the Peninsular plateau. The northwestern part of the plateau has a complex relief
of ravines and gorges. The ravines of Chambal, Bhind and Morena are some of the well-known
examples.
The Narmada - Son - Damodar rift valley runs across the peninsular landmass cutting it into two
parts viz., the Central Highlands in the north, and the Deccan Plateau in the south.

Q.27 Consider the following statements with reference to the Western Ghats
1. Western Ghats are comparatively lower in elevation and more continuous than the
Eastern Ghats.
2. WGs average elevation is about 1,500 m with the height increasing from north to south.
3. Dodabetta peak is located in the Anaimalai hills
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1, and 3
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
The Deccan Plateau
This is bordered by the Western Ghats in the west, Eastern Ghats in the east and the Satpura,
Maikal range and Mahadeo hills in the north. Western Ghats are locally known by different
names such as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and
Anaimalai hills and Cardamom hills in Kerala. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in
elevation and more continuous than the Eastern Ghats. Their average elevation is about 1,500 m
with the height increasing from north to south. ‘Anaimudi’ (2,695 m), the highest peak of
Peninsular plateau is located on the Anaimalai hills of the Western Ghats followed by Dodabetta
(2,637 m) on the Nilgiri hills.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 148
Q.28 Consider the following statements with reference to Eastern Ghats
1. Eastern Ghats comprising the discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded by the rivers
2. The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Cardamom hills
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Eastern Ghats comprising the discontinuous and low hills are highly eroded by the rivers such as
the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna, the Kaveri, etc. Some of the important ranges include
the Javadi hills, the Palconda range, the Nallamala hills, the Mahendragiri hills, etc. The Eastern
and the Western Ghats meet each other at the Nilgiri hills.

Q.29 Consider the following statements with reference to Central Highland

1. The Central Highlands are wider in the east but narrower in the west.
2. The Chotanagpur plateau marks the further eastward extension while the extension of the
Peninsular plateau can be seen as far as Jaisalmer in the West
3. This region has undergone metamorphic processes in its geological history
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 2, and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
The Central Highlands
 They are bounded to the west by the Aravali range.
 Central Highlands of India are a biogeographic region in India formed by the disjunct
ranges of the Satpura and Vindhya Hills
 The Satpura range is formed by a series of scarped plateaus on the south, This forms the
northernmost boundary of the Deccan plateau.
 It is a classic example of the relict mountains which are highly denuded and form
discontinuous ranges.
 The extension of the Peninsular plateau can be seen as far as Jaisalmer in the West, where
it has been covered by the longitudinal sand ridges and crescent- shaped sand dunes
called barchans.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 149
  This region has undergone metamorphic processes in its geological history, which can be
corroborated by the presence of metamorphic rocks such as marble, slate, gneiss, etc.
Features
 The Central Highlands are wider in the west but narrower in the east.
 The eastward extensions of this plateau are locally known as the Bundelkhand and
Baghelkhand.
 The Chotanagpur plateau marks the further eastward extension, drained by the Damodar
river.
 The northern central highlands of peninsular India include the Aravallis, the Malwa

om
Plateau, and some parts of Vindhyan Range.

l.c
Q.30 Consider the following statements with reference to the Northeastern Plateau

ai
1. Meghalaya plateau area receives maximum rainfall from the south west monsoon.
2. Cherrapunji displays a bare rocky surface devoid of any permanent vegetation cover
m
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
9g
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
56

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2
55

Solution: C
The Northeastern Plateau
ar

In fact, it is an extension of the main Peninsular plateau. It is believed that due to the force
m

exerted by the northeastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin, a
ku

huge fault was created between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau. Later, this
depression got filled up by the deposition activity of the numerous rivers. Today, the Meghalaya
an

and Karbi Anglong plateau stand detached from the main Peninsular Block. The Meghalaya
plateau is further sub-divided into three: (i) The Garo Hills; (ii) The Khasi Hills; (iii) The Jaintia
Hills, named after the tribal groups inhabiting this region. An extension of this is also seen in the
am

Karbi Anglong hills of Assam. Similar to the Chotanagpur plateau, the Meghalaya plateau is also
rich in mineral resources like coal, iron ore, sillimanite, limestone and uranium. This area
receives maximum rainfall from the south west monsoon. As a result, the Meghalaya plateau has
a highly eroded surface. Cherrapunji displays a bare rocky surface devoid of any permanent
vegetation cover.

Q.31 Consider the following statements with reference to the coastal plains
1. The Eastern coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and
south.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 150
 2. The western coastal plains are dotted with a large number of coves, creeks and a few
estuaries.
3. In eastern coast continental shelf extends up to 500 km into the sea, which makes it
difficult for the development of good ports and harbours.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2, and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Characteristic Features of coastal plains:
 The western coastal plains are narrow in the middle and get broader towards north and
south. Except for the Kachchh and Kathiawar coastal region, these are narrower than
their eastern counterpart.
 The coast is straight and affected by the South-West Monsoon winds over a period of six
months. The western coastal plains are thus wetter than their eastern counterpart.
 The western coast being more indented than the eastern coast provides natural conditions
for the development of ports and harbours. Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port Navha Sheva,
Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin, etc. are some of the important natural ports located along
the west coast.
 The western coastal plains are dotted with a large number of coves (a very small bay),
creeks (a narrow, sheltered waterway such as an inlet in a shoreline or channel in a
marsh) and a few estuaries. The estuaries, of the Narmada and the Tapi are the major
ones.
 The rivers flowing through this coastal plain do not form any delta. Many small rivers
descend from the Western Ghats making a chain of waterfalls.
 The Kayals – The Malabar coast has a distinguishing feature in the form of ‘Kayals’
(backwaters). These backwaters are the shallow lagoons or the inlets of the sea and lie
parallel to the coastline. These are used for fishing, inland navigation and are important
tourist spots. The largest of these lagoons is the Vembanad lake. Kochi is situated on its
opening into the sea.
As compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example
of an emergent coast. There are well developed deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing
eastward in to the Bay of Bengal. These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the
Krishna and the Kaveri. Because of its emergent nature, it has less number of ports and harbours.
The continental shelf extends up to 500 km into the sea, which makes it difficult for the
development of good ports and harbours. Name some ports on the eastern coast.

Q.32 Match the following channels which separate group of islands

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 151
 1. Ten Degree Channel A. It separates the island of Minicoy from the main
Lakshadweep
archipelago.
2. Nine Degree Channel B. It separates the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands
from
each other
3. Eight Degree Channel C. It separates the islands of Minicoy and Maldives.
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1-A,2-B,3-C
(B) 1-C,2-B,3-A
(C) 1-B,2-C,3-A
(D) 1-B,2-A,3-C
Solution: D
 Ten Degree Channel: It separates the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands from
each other in the Bay of Bengal and forms the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.
 Nine Degree Channel: It separates the island of Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep
archipelago.
 Eight Degree Channel: The maritime boundary between the Maldives and India runs
through the Eight Degree Channel. It separates the islands of Minicoy and Maldives.

CHAPTER – 3: Drainage System

Q.32 Match the following channels which separate group of islands

1. Catchment area A. Boundary line separating one drainage basin
2. Drainage basin B. Catchments of large rivers
3. Watershed C. An area drained by a river and its tributaries.
4. River basins D. A river drains the water collected from a specific area
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1-A,2-B,3-C,4-D
(B) 1-C,2-B,3-D,4-A
(C) 1-D,2-C,3-A,4-B
(D) 1-D,2-C,3-B,4-A
Solution: C
 A river drains the water collected from a specific area, which is called its ‘catchment
area’.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 152
  An area drained by a river and its tributaries is called a drainage basin.
 The boundary line separating one drainage basin from the other is known as the
watershed.
 The catchments of large rivers are called river basins while those of small rivulets and
rills are often referred to as watersheds.

Q.33 Consider the following statements with reference to Drainage Pattern

1. The drainage pattern resembling the branches of a tree is known as “dendritic”
2. When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is

om
known as ‘centripetal’.
3. When the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary
tributaries join them at right angles, the pattern is known as ‘trellis’.

l.c
4. When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions in a lake or depression, the
pattern is known as ‘radial’.

ai
m
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
9g
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
56

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
55

Solution: C
Drainage Patterns
ar

(i) The drainage pattern resembling the branches of a tree is known as “dendritic” the
m

examples of which are the rivers of northern plain.

ku

(ii) When the rivers originate from a hill and flow in all directions, the drainage pattern is
known as ‘radial’. The rivers originating from the Amarkantak range present a good
an

example of it.
(iii) When the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary
tributaries join them at right angles, the pattern is known as ‘trellis’.
am

(iv) When the rivers discharge their waters from all directions in a lake or depression, the
pattern is known as ‘centripetal’.

Q.34 Consider the following statements with reference to the Himalayan drainage
1. They form deep gorges, these rivers also form U-shaped valleys, rapids and waterfalls in
their mountainous course.
2. They have depositional features like flat valleys, ox-bow lakes, flood plains, braided
channels, and deltas at the origin of river.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 153
 (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
The Himalayan Drainage
 The Himalayan drainage system has evolved through a long geological history. It mainly
includes the Ganga, the Indus and the Brahmaputra river basins. Since these are fed both
by melting of snow and precipitation, rivers of this system are perennial.
 These rivers pass through the giant gorges carved out by the erosional activity carried on
simultaneously with the uplift of the Himalayas. Besides deep gorges, these rivers also
form V-shaped valleys, rapids and waterfalls in their mountainous course.
 While entering the plains, they form depositional features like flat valleys, ox-bow lakes,
flood plains, braided channels, and deltas near the river mouth.

Q.35 Consider the following statements

1. Malda fault in West Bengal separates the northeastern parts from the Chotanagpur
plateau.
2. Karbi Anglong and Meghalaya Plateau are the extension of Peninsular Plateau of India.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
It is opined that in due course of time Indo–Brahma river was dismembered into three main
drainage systems: (i) the Indus and its five tributaries in the western part; (ii) the Ganga and its
Himalayan tributaries in the central part; and (iii) the stretch of the Brahmaputra in Assam and its
Himalayan tributaries in the eastern part. The dismemberment was probably due to the
Pleistocene upheaval in the western Himalayas, including the uplift of the Potwar Plateau (Delhi
Ridge), which acted as the water divide between the Indus and Ganga drainage systems.
Likewise, the downthrusting of the Malda gap area between the Rajmahal hills and the
Meghalaya plateau during the mid-pleistocene period, diverted the Ganga and the Brahmaputra
systems to flow towards the Bay of Bengal.

Q.36 Choose the correct order of river from north to south?

(A) Indus, Chenab, Jhelum, Beas, Ravi
(B) Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas
(C) Indus, Chenab, Jhelum, Ravi, Beas
(D) Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Beas, Ravi

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 154
Solution: B

Q.37 Consider the following statements with reference to Indus

1. Shyok, Gilgit and Zaskar are the left bank Himalayan tributaries of Indus
2. Jhelum an important tributary of Indus and rises near Rakas tal near Mansarovar
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
The Indus receives a number of Himalayan tributaries such as the Shyok, the Gilgit, the Zaskar,
the Hunza, the Nubra, the Shigar, the Gasting and the Dras. It finally emerges out of the hills
near Attock where it receives the Kabul river on its right bank. The other important tributaries
joining the right bank of the Indus are the Khurram, the Tochi, the Gomal, the Viboa and the
Sangar. They all originate in the Sulaiman ranges. The river flows southward and receives
‘Panjnad’ a little above Mithankot. The Panjnad is the name given to the five rivers of Punjab,
namely the Satluj, the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the Jhelum.
The Jhelum, an important tributary of the Indus, rises from a spring at Verinag situated at the
foot of the Pir Panjal in the south-eastern part of the valley of Kashmir. It flows through Srinagar
and the Wular lake before entering Pakistan through a deep narrow gorge. It joins the Chenab
near Jhang in Pakistan.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 155
 om
l.c
ai
m
9g
Q.38 Consider the following statements
1. Satluj is a superimposed river
56

2. Bhakra Nangal is on Beas river

3. Ravi river passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and enters the Punjab
55

plains.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
ar

(A) 1, and 2
m

(B) 2 and 3
ku

(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
an

Solution: D
am

 The Satluj originates in the ‘Raksas tal’ near Mansarovar at an altitude of 4,555 m in
Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab. It flows almost parallel to the Indus for
about 400 km before entering India, and comes out of a gorge at Rupar. It passes through
the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and enters the Punjab plains. It is an antecedent
river. It is a very important tributary as it feeds the canal system of the Bhakra Nangal
project.
 The Chenab is the largest tributary of the Indus. It is formed by two streams, the Chandra
and the Bhaga, which join at Tandi near Keylong in Himachal Pradesh. Hence, it is also
known as Chandrabhaga. The river flows for 1,180 km before entering into Pakistan.
 The Ravi is another important tributary of the Indus. It rises west of the Rohtang pass in
the Kullu hills of Himachal Pradesh and flows through the Chamba valley of the state.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 156
 Before entering Pakistan and joining the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu, it drains the area lying
between the southeastern part of the Pir Panjal and the Dhauladhar ranges.
 The Beas is another important tributary of the Indus, originating from the Beas Kund near
the Rohtang Pass at an elevation of 4,000 m above the mean sea level. The river flows
through the Kullu valley and forms gorges at Kati and Largi in the Dhaoladhar range. It
enters the Punjab plains where it meets the Satluj near Harike.

Q.39 Consider the following statements with reference to Ganga

1. Tributaries of Alaknanda, Pindar joins it at Rudra Prayag while Mandakini or Kali Ganga
meets it at Karna Prayag.
2. One of the main pillars under Namami Gange Programme is Biodiversity
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
The Ganga System
The Ganga is the most important river of India both from the point of view of its basin and
cultural significance. It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in the Uttarkashi
district of Uttarakhand. Here, it is known as the Bhagirathi. It cuts through the Central and the
Lesser Himalayas in narrow gorges. At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda;
hereafter, it is known as the Ganga. The Alaknanda has its source in the Satopanth glacier above
Badrinath. The Alaknanda consists of the Dhauli and the Vishnu Ganga which meet at Joshimath
or Vishnu Prayag.The other tributaries of Alaknanda such as the Pindar joins it at Karna Prayag
while Mandakini or Kali Ganga meets it at Rudra Prayag.
Namami Gange Programme
‘Namami Gange Programme’, is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as “Flagship
Programme” by the Union Government in June 2014 with the twin objectives of effective
abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of the National River Ganga.
Main pillars of the Namami Gange Programme are:
• Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure
• River-Front Development
• River-Surface Cleaning
• Bio-Diversity
• Afforestation
• Public Awareness
• Industrial Effluent Monitoring
• Ganga Gram

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 157
Q.40 Consider the following statements with reference to Ganga river system
1. The Ganga river system is the largest in India having a number of perennial and non-
perennial rivers originating in the Himalayas in the north and the Peninsula in the south,
respectively.
2. The river finally discharges itself into the Bay of Bengal near the Sagar Island.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
The Ganga basin covers about 8.6 lakh sq. km area in India alone. The Ganga river system is the
largest in India having a number of perennial and non-perennial rivers originating in the
Himalayas in the north and the Peninsula in the south, respectively. The Son is its major right
bank tributary. The important left bank tributaries are the Ramganga, the Gomati, the Ghaghara,
the Gandak, the Kosi and the Mahananda. The river finally discharges itself into the Bay of
Bengal near the Sagar Island.

Q.41 Which of the following states are drained by river Yamuna?

1. Uttarakhand
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Haryana
4. Bihar
5. Rajasthan
6. Madhya Pradesh
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(B) 2, 4, 5 and 6
(C) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(D) 1, 3, 5 and 6
Solution: D
The catchment of Yamuna river system covers parts of Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Himachal
Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh & Delhi states.

Q.42 Consider the following statements with reference to Peninsular Drainage System
1. All Peninsular rivers are characterised by fixed course, absence of meanders and
nonperennial flow of water.
2. They have broad, largely-graded shallow valleys which shows their maturity stage

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 158
 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
The Peninsular Drainage System
The Peninsular drainage system is older than the Himalayan one. This is evident from the broad,
largely-graded shallow valleys, and the maturity of the rivers. The Western Ghats running close
to the western coast act as the water divide between the major Peninsular rivers, discharging their

om
water in the Bay of Bengal and as small rivulets joining the Arabian Sea. Most of the major
Peninsular rivers except Narmada and Tapi flow from west to east. The Chambal, the Sind, the
Betwa, the Ken, the Son, originating in the northern part of the Peninsula belong to the Ganga

l.c
river system. The other major river systems of the Peninsular drainage are – the Mahanadi the
Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri. Peninsular rivers are characterised by fixed course,

ai
absence of meanders and nonperennial flow of water. The Narmada and the Tapi which flow
m
through the rift valley are, however, exceptions.
9g
Q.43 Consider the following statements
1. Due to shallow & broad valley along with non-perennial flow all peninsular river do not
56

have navigation
2. Godavari tributaries run through the states of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh,
55

Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
ar

(A) 1 only
m

(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
ku

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B
an

River Systems of the Peninsular Drainage

am

There are a large number of river systems in the Peninsular drainage. A brief account of the
major Peninsular river systems is given below:
The Mahanadi rises near Sihawa in Raipur district of Chhattisgarh and runs through Odisha to
discharge its water into the Bay of Bengal. It is 851 km long and its catchment area spreads over
1.42 lakh sq. km. Some navigation is carried on in the lower course of this river. Fifty three per
cent of the drainage basin of this river lies in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, while 47 per
cent lies in Odisha.
The Godavari is the largest Peninsular river system. It is also called the Dakshin Ganga. It rises
in the Nasik district of Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal. Its
tributaries run through the states of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 159
Andhra Pradesh. It is 1,465 km long with a catchment area spreading over 3.13 lakh sq. km 49
per cent of this, lies in Maharashtra, 20 per cent in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, and the
rest in Andhra Pradesh. The Penganga, the Indravati, the Pranhita, and the Manjra are its
principal tributaries. The Godavari is subjected to heavy floods in its lower reaches to the south
of Polavaram, where it forms a picturesque gorge. It is navigable only in the deltaic stretch. The
river after Rajamundri splits into several branches forming a large delta.
Note: The Godavari basin extends over states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and
Odisha in addition to smaller parts in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Union territory of
Puducherry having a total area of 3,12,812 Sq.km with a maximum length and width of about
995 km and 583 km.

Q.44 Consider the following statements about Krishna river

1. It rises in Brahmagiri hills
2. Of the total catchment area of the Krishna, State of Andhra Pradesh combined with
Telangana is the highest
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
The Krishna is the second largest east flowing Peninsular river which rises near Mahabaleshwar
in Sahyadri. Its total length is 1,401 km. The Koyna, the Tungbhadra and the Bhima are its major
tributaries. Of the total catchment area of the Krishna, 27 per cent lies in Maharashtra, 44 per
cent in Karnataka and 29 per cent in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Q.45 The rivers flowing towards the Arabian sea have short courses. Consider the following
statements
1. The rivers flowing towards the Arabian Sea have short courses because their origins lie
closer to the sea, and the Western Ghats act as a water divide.
2. Due to short courses Peninsular rivers which fall into the Arabian Sea do not form deltas,
but only estuaries.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 160
Solution: C
Features of the west flowing rivers of India:
• The two major west-flowing rivers are the Narmada and the Tapi. This exceptional
behavior is because these rivers didn’t form valleys and instead they flow through faults
(linear rift, rift valley, trough) created due to the bending of the northern peninsula during
the formation process of Himalayas. These faults run parallel to the Vindhyas and the
Satpuras.
• The rivers flowing towards the Arabian Sea have short courses because their origins lie
closer to the sea, and the Western Ghats act as a water divide.
• It is interesting to note that the Peninsular rivers which fall into the Arabian Sea do not
form deltas, but only estuaries. {Fluvial Depositional Landforms}
• This is due to the fact that the west flowing rivers, especially the Narmada and the Tapi
flow through hard rocks and hence do not carry any good amount of silt.
• Moreover, the tributaries of these rivers are very small and hence they don’t contribute any
silt.
• Hence these rivers are not able to form distributaries or a delta before they enter the sea.
• They are also rain-fed and are seasonal rivers.

Q.46 Consider the following statements with reference to River Regimes

1. The regime of the rivers of South India is controlled by rainfall which also varies from
one part of the Peninsular plateau to the other.
2. The Ganga has its minimum flow during the January-June period. After September, there
is a steady fall in the flow.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
River Regimes
The pattern of flow of water in a river channel over a year is known as its regime. The north
Indian rivers originating from the Himalayas are perennial as they are fed by glaciers through
snow melt and also receive rainfall water during rainy season. The rivers of South India do not
originate from glaciers and their flow pattern witnesses fluctuations. The flow increases
considerably during monsoon rains. Thus, the regime of the rivers of South India is controlled by
rainfall which also varies from one part of the Peninsular plateau to the other.
The discharge is the volume of water flowing in a river measured over time. It is measured either
in cusecs (cubic feet per second) or cumecs (cubic metres per second). The Ganga has its

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 161
 minimum flow during the January-June period. The maximum flow is attained either in August
or in September. After September, there is a steady fall in the flow. The river, thus, has a
monsoon regime during the rainy season.
There are striking differences in the river regimes in the eastern and the western parts of the
Ganga Basin. The Ganga maintains a sizeable flow in the early part of summer due to snow melt
before the monsoon rains begin. The mean maximum discharge of the Ganga at Farakka is about
55,000 cusecs while the mean minimum is only 1,300 cusecs.

CHAPTER – 4: Climate

om
Q.47 Consider the following statements
1. Weather is the momentary state of the atmosphere while climate refers to the average of

l.c
the weather conditions
2. Andaman Islands, the difference between day and night temperatures may be 20-25o

ai
Celsius. But in the Thar desert difference is may be hardly seven or eight degree Celsius
m
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
9g
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
56

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C
55

Weather is the momentary state of the atmosphere while climate refers to the average of the
weather conditions over a longer period of time. Weather changes quickly, may be within a day
ar

or week but climate changes imperceptivity and may be noted after 50 years or even more.
m

Andaman Islands, the difference between day and night temperatures may be hardly seven or
eight degree Celsius. But in the Thar desert, if the day temperature is around 50°C, at night, it
ku

may drop down considerably upto 15°-20°C.

an

Q.48 Consider the following statements with reference to factors determining the climate related
am

to Location and Relief

1. The tropical zone being nearer to the equator, experiences high temperatures throughout
the year with high daily and annual range.
2. As compared to the landmass, water heats up or cools down slowly. This differential
heating of land and sea creates different air pressure zones in different seasons in and
around the Indian subcontinent.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 162
 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
• Latitude : You already know the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the land of India.
You also know that the Tropic of Cancer passes through the central part of India in east-
west direction. Thus, northern part of the India lies in sub-tropical and temperate zone and
the part lying south of the Tropic of Cancer falls in the tropical zone. The tropical zone
being nearer to the equator, experiences high temperatures throughout the year with small
daily and annual range. Area north of the Tropic of Cancer being away from the equator,
experiences extreme climate with high daily and annual range of temperature.
• The Himalayan Mountains : The lofty Himalayas in the north along with its extensions
act as an effective climatic divide. The towering mountain chain provides an invincible
shield to protect the subcontinent from the cold northern winds. These cold and chilly
winds originate near the Arctic circle and blow across central and eastern Asia. The
Himalayas also trap the monsoon winds, forcing them to shed their moisture within the
subcontinent.
• Distribution of Land and Water : India is flanked by the Indian Ocean on three sides in
the south and girdled by a high and continuous mountain-wall in the north. As compared to
the landmass, water heats up or cools down slowly. This differential heating of land and sea
creates different air pressure zones in different seasons in and around the Indian
subcontinent. Difference in air pressure causes reversal in the direction of monsoon winds.
• Distance from the Sea : With a long coastline, large coastal areas have an equable climate.
Areas in the interior of India are far away from the moderating influence of the sea. Such
areas have extremes of climate. That is why, the people of Mumbai and the Konkan coast
have hardly any idea of extremes of temperature and the seasonal rhythm of weather. On
the other hand, the seasonal contrasts in weather at places in the interior of the country such
as Delhi, Kanpur and Amritsar affect the entire sphere of life.
• Altitude : Temperature decreases with height. Due to thin air, places in the mountains are
cooler than places on the plains. For example, Agra and Darjiling are located on the same
latitude, but temperature of January in Agra is 16°C whereas it is only 4°C in Darjiling.
• Relief : The physiography or relief of India also affects the temperature, air pressure,
direction and speed of wind and the amount and distribution of rainfall. The windward
sides of Western Ghats and Assam receive high rainfall during June-September whereas
the southern plateau remains dry due to its leeward situation along the Western Ghats.

Q. 49 Consider the following statements with reference to Mechanism of Weather

1. A high pressure centre in the region lying to the north of the Himalayas develops during
winter. This centre of high pressure gives rise to the flow of air at the low level from the
north towards the Indian subcontinent, south of the mountain range.
2. The variations in the atmospheric pressure closer to the surface of the earth have no role
to play in the making of upper air circulation.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 163
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Mechanism of Weather in the Winter Season
Surface Pressure and Winds : In winter months, the weather conditions over India are
generally influenced by the distribution of pressure in Central and Western Asia. A high pressure
centre in the region lying to the north of the Himalayas develops during winter. This centre of
high pressure gives rise to the flow of air at the low level from the north towards the Indian
subcontinent, south of the mountain range. The surface winds blowing out of the high pressure
centre over Central Asia reach India in the form of a dry continental air mass. These continental
winds come in contact with trade winds over northwestern India. The position of this contact
zone is not, however, stable. Occasionally, it may shift its position as far east as the middle
Ganga valley with the result that the whole of the northwestern and northern India up to the
middle Ganga valley comes under the influence of dry northwestern winds.
Jet Stream and Upper Air Circulation : The pattern of air circulation discussed above is
witnessed only at the lower level of the atmosphere near the surface of the earth. Higher up in the
lower troposphere, about three km above the surface of the earth, a different pattern of air
circulation is observed. The variations in the atmospheric pressure closer to the surface of the
earth have no role to play in the making of upper air circulation. All of Western and Central Asia
remains under the influence of westerly winds along the altitude of 9-13 km from west to east.
These winds blow across the Asian continent at latitudes north of the Himalayas roughly parallel
to the Tibetan highlands. These are known as jet streams. Tibetan highlands act as a barrier in the
path of these jet streams. As a result, jet streams get bifurcated. One of its branches blows to the
north of the Tibetan highlands, while the southern branch blows in an eastward direction, south
of the Himalayas. It has its mean position at 25°N in February at 200-300 mb level. It is believed
that this southern branch of the jet stream exercises an important influence on the winter weather
in India.

Q.50 Consider the following statements about Western Disturbances

1. Western Disturbances develop in the north of the Tropic of Cancer
2. They are tropical storms that bring winter rain to the northwestern parts of the Indian
subcontinent.
3. Strong western disturbances can help residents, farmers and governments avoid many of
the problems associated with water scarcity.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1, and 2

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 164
 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: C
Western Disturbances
 Western Disturbances develop in the mid latitude region (north of the Tropic of Cancer),
not in the tropical region, therefore they are called as mid latitude storms or extra-tropical
storms.
 Extra-Tropical Cyclones are also called as winter storms and blizzards.

om
 Western Disturbances are low pressure systems, embedded in western winds (westerlies)
that flow from west to the east.
 It is a term coined by an Indian Meteorologist for the weather phenomenon which is

l.c
propagated from the West.

ai
 The phrase Western Disturbance was first used in a published literature in 1947.
However, its precursor Winter Disturbance was coined earlier in 1931.
m
Arrival in India
9g

 Western Disturbances begin is a low pressure system that originates in the Mid- latitude
56

region near the Atlantic ocean and Europe.

 The low pressure typically forms over the Mediterranean Sea and travels over Iran, Iraq,
55

Afghanistan and Pakistan before entering India loaded with moisture.

 These moisture laden western disturbances eventually come up against the himalayas and
get blocked, as a consequence, the moisture gets trapped and precipitation is shared in the
ar

form of snow and rain over Northwest India and sometimes, other parts of North India.
m

 An average of 4-5 western disturbances form during the winter season and the rainfall
distribution and amount varies with every western disturbance.
ku

 The word 'Western' refers to the direction from which they originate with regard to India.
 The word 'disturbance' is used because the air within the low pressure systems tends to be
an

unstable or disturbed.
 Sometimes, when western disturbances become more intense in the Indian Region, they
am

can extend even upto 15 degree north, resulting into rainfall upto north Maharashtra,
Gujarat and the entire Madhya Pradesh to the south.
Impact
 Western Disturbances are the cause of the most winter and pre-monsoon season rainfall
across North-West India. This phenomenon is usually associated with cloudy sky, higher
night temperatures and unusual rain. It is estimated that India gets close to 5-10% of its
total annual rainfall from western disturbances.
 In winter, western winds bring moderate to heavy rain in low lying areas and heavy snow
to mountainous areas of the Indian subcontinent.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 165
  India is a rain dependent country and while the south west monsoon covers most of India,
parts of North India don’t get much rain from it. These regions depend upon snow and
rain from western disturbance during winter season from November to March.
 Precipitation during the winter season has great importance in agriculture particularly for
rabi crops including wheat, which is one of the most important Indian crops.
 They start declining after winter. During the summer months of April and May, they
move across North India and at times help in the activation of monsoon in certain parts of
northwest India.
 During the monsoon season, western disturbances may occasionally cause dense clouding
and heavy precipitation.
 Weak western disturbances are associated with crop failure and water problems across
north India.
 Strong western disturbances can help residents, farmers and governments avoid many of
the problems associated with water scarcity.

Q.51 Consider the following statements with reference to Mechanism of Weather in the Summer
Season
1. By the middle of July, the low-pressure belt nearer the surface [termed as Inter Tropical
Convergence Zone (ITCZ)] shifts northwards, roughly parallel to the Himalayas between
20° N and 25° N.
2. With the northward shift of the equatorial trough (ITCZ) the westerly jet stream
withdrawal from over the North Indian Plain.
3. The ITCZ being a zone of low pressure, attracts inflow of winds from different
directions. This air system is called Northeast monsoon
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1, and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Solution: A
Surface Pressure and Winds : As the summer sets in and the sun shifts northwards, the wind
circulation over the subcontinent undergoes a complete reversal at both, the lower as well as the
upper levels. By the middle of July, the low-pressure belt nearer the surface [termed as Inter
Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)] shifts northwards, roughly parallel to the Himalayas
between 20° N and 25° N. By this time, the westerly jet stream withdraws from the Indian
region. In fact, meteorologists have found an interrelationship between the northward shift of the
equatorial trough (ITCZ) and the withdrawal of the westerly jet stream from over the North
Indian Plain. It is generally believed that there is a cause and effect relationship between the two.
The ITCZ being a zone of low pressure, attracts inflow of winds from different directions. The
maritime tropical airmass (mT) from the southern hemisphere, after crossing the equator, rushes
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 166
to the low-pressure area in the general southwesterly direction. It is this moist air current which
is popularly known as the southwest monsoon.

Q.52 The system involves oceanic and atmospheric phenomena with the appearance of warm
currents off the coast of Peru in the Eastern Pacific and affects weather in many places including
India. It is merely an extension of the warm equatorial current which gets replaced temporarily
by cold Peruvian current or Humbolt current. This current increases the temperature of water on
the Peruvian coast by 10°C. The above description, describe which phenomenon
(A) La-Nina
(B) El-Nino
(C) El-Nino Modoki
(D) ENSO
Solution: B
EI-Nino and the Indian Monsoon
EI-Nino is a complex weather system that appears once every three to seven years, bringing
drought, floods and other weather extremes to different parts of the world. The system involves
oceanic and atmospheric phenomena with the appearance of warm currents off the coast of Peru
in the Eastern Pacific and affects weather in many places including India. EI-Nino is merely an
extension of the warm equatorial current which gets replaced temporarily by cold Peruvian
current or Humbolt current (locate these currents in your atlas). This current increases the
temperature of water on the Peruvian coast by 10°C. This results in:
(i) the distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation;
(ii) irregularities in the evaporation of sea water;
(iii) reduction in the amount of planktons which further reduces the number of fish in the sea.
The word EI-Nino means ‘Child Christ’ because this current appears around Christmas in
December. December is a summer month in Peru (Southern Hemisphere). EI-Nino is used in
India for forecasting long range monsoon rainfall. In 1990-91, there was a wild EI-Nino event
and the onset of southwest monsoon was delayed over most parts of the country ranging from
five to twelve days.
Q.53 Consider the following statements
1. The rain which comes in spells, displays a declining trend from west to east over the west
coast, and from the southeast towards the northwest over the North Indian Plain and the
northern part of the Peninsula.
2. The break in the monsoon over the west coast are associated with days when winds blow
perpendicular to the coast.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 167
 (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Rain-bearing Systems and Rainfall Distribution
There seem to be two rain-bearing systems in India. First originate in the Bay of Bengal causing
rainfall over the plains of north India. Second is the Arabian Sea current of the southwest
monsoon which brings rain to the west coast of India. Much of the rainfall along the Western
Ghats is orographic as the moist air is obstructed and forced to rise along the Ghats.

om
The intensity of rainfall over the west coast of India is, however, related to two factors:
(i) The offshore meteorological conditions.

l.c
(ii) The position of the equatorial jet stream along the eastern coast of Africa.
The frequency of the tropical depressions originating from the Bay of Bengal varies from year to

ai
year. Their paths over India are mainly determined by the position of ITCZ which is generally
m
termed as the monsoon trough. As the axis of the monsoon trough oscillates, there are
fluctuations in the track and direction of these depressions, and the intensity and the amount of
9g
rainfall vary from year to year. The rain which comes in spells, displays a declining trend from
west to east over the west coast, and from the southeast towards the northwest over the North
56

Indian Plain and the northern part of the Peninsula.

55

Break in the Monsoon

During the south-west monsoon period after having rains for a few days, if rain fails to occur for
ar

one or more weeks, it is known as break in the monsoon. These dry spells are quite common
during the rainy season. These breaks in the different regions are due to different reasons:
m

(i) In northern India rains are likely to fail if the rain-bearing storms are not very frequent
ku

along the monsoon trough or the ITCZ over this region.

(ii) Over the west coast the dry spells are associated with days when winds blow parallel to
an

the coast.
am

Q.54 Which of the following statement is incorrect with reference to Indian Weather?
(A) The Peninsular region of India, does not have any well-defined cold weather season.
(B) In northwestern India, some weak tropical cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea cause
rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh.
(C) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in the northeastern parts of India have small amount of
rains during winter months.
(D) None of the above
Solution: B

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 168
Rainfall: Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall as they move from land to the sea. It is because
firstly, they have little humidity; and secondly, due to anti cyclonic circulation on land, the
possibility of rainfall from them reduces. So, most parts of India do not have rainfall in the
winter season. However, there are some exceptions to it:
(i) In northwestern India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean sea cause
rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh. Although the amount is
meagre, it is highly beneficial for rabi crops. The precipitation is in the form of snowfall in
the lower Himalayas. It is this snow that sustains the flow of water in the Himalayan rivers
during the summer months. The precipitation goes on decreasing from west to east in the
plains and from north to south in the mountains. The average winter rainfall in Delhi is
around 53 mm. In Punjab and Bihar, rainfall remains between 25 mm and 18 mm
respectively.
(ii) Central parts of India and northern parts of southern Peninsula also get winter rainfall
occasionally.
(iii) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in the northeastern parts of India also have rains between
25 mm and 50 mm during these winter months.
(iv) During October and November, northeast monsoon while crossing over the Bay of
Bengal, picks up moisture and causes torrential rainfall over the Tamil Nadu coast,
southern Andhra Pradesh, southeast Karnataka and southeast Kerala.
Note: The Peninsular region of India, however, does not have any well-defined cold weather
season. There is hardly any seasonal change in the distribution pattern of the temperature in
coastal areas because of moderating influence of the sea and the proximity to equator. For
example, the mean maximum temperature for January at Thiruvanantapuram is as high as 31°C,
and for June, it is 29.5°C. Temperatures at the hills of Western Ghats remain comparatively low

Q.55 Match the following passes and mountain ranges.

1. Mango Shower A. Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains
2. Nor Westers B. These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In
Assam, these storms are known as “Bardoli Chheerha”.
3. Blossom Shower C. This shower is beneficial for coffee flowers in Kerala and
nearby
areas.
4. Loo D. Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers
which is a common phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas
Karnataka.
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1.D,2.B,3.C,4.A
(B) 1.A,2.D,3.C,4.B
(C) 1.B,2.C,3.D,4.A

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 169
 (D) 1.D,2.C,3.B,4.A
Solution: A
Some Famous Local Storms of Hot Weather Season
(i) Mango Shower : Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are
a common phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are
known as mango showers since they help in the early ripening of mangoes.
(ii) Blossom Shower : With this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and nearby areas.
(iii) Nor Westers : These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Their
notorious nature can be understood from the local nomenclature of ‘Kalbaisakhi’, a
calamity of the month of Baisakh. These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice
cultivation. In Assam, these storms are known as “Bardoli Chheerha”.
(iv) Loo : Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar
with higher intensity between Delhi and Patna.

Q.56 Consider the following statements with reference to Monsoon Winds of the Bay of Bengal
1. The Arakan Hills along the coast of Myanmar deflect a big portion of BoB monsoon
winds branch towards the Indian subcontinent.
2. The Tamil Nadu coast remains dry as it is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of
southwest monsoon
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Monsoon Winds of the Bay of Bengal
The Bay of Bengal branch strikes the coast of Myanmar and part of southeast Bangladesh. But
the Arakan Hills along the coast of Myanmar deflect a big portion of this branch towards the
Indian subcontinent. The monsoon, therefore, enters West Bengal and Bangladesh from south
and southeast instead of from the south-westerly direction. From here, this branch splits into two
under the influence of the Himalayas and the thermal low is northwest India. Its one branch
moves westward along the Ganga plains reaching as far as the Punjab plains.
The other branch moves up the Brahmaputra valley in the north and the northeast, causing
widespread rains. Its sub-branch strikes the Garo and Khasi hills of Meghalaya. Mawsynram,
located on the crest of Khasi hills, receives the highest average annual rainfall in the world.
Here it is important to know why the Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during this season. There are
two factors responsible for it:

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 170
 (i) The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon.
(ii) It lies in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon.

Q.57 Consider the following statements with reference to characteristics of monsoonal rainfall
1. The monsoon rainfall has an increasing trend with increasing distance from the sea.
2. Kolkata receives highest rainfall during the Northeast monsoon
3. The heavy rainfall in the north-eastern states can be attributed to their hill ranges and the
Eastern Himalayas.

om
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1, and 2
(B) 2 and 3

l.c
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3

ai
Solution: B m
Characteristics of Monsoonal Rainfall
9g
(i) Rainfall received from the southwest monsoons is seasonal in character, which occurs
between June and September.
56

(ii) Monsoonal rainfall is largely governed by relief or topography. For instance the
windward side of the Western Ghats register a rainfall of over 250 cm. Again, the heavy
55

rainfall in the north-eastern states can be attributed to their hill ranges and the Eastern
Himalayas.
ar

(iii) The monsoon rainfall has a declining trend with increasing distance from the sea.
Kolkata receives 119 cm during the southwest monsoon period, Patna 105 cm,
m

Allahabad 76 cm and Delhi 56 cm.

ku

(iv) The monsoon rains occur in wet spells of few days duration at a time. The wet spells are
interspersed with rainless interval known as ‘breaks’. These breaks in rainfall are related
an

to the cyclonic depressions mainly formed at the head of the Bay of Bengal, and their
crossing into the mainland. Besides the frequency and intensity of these depressions, the
am

passage followed by them determines the spatial distribution of rainfall.

(v) The summer rainfall comes in a heavy downpour leading to considerable run off and soil
erosion.
(vi) Monsoons play a pivotal role in the agrarian economy of India because over three-
fourths of the total rain in the country is received during the southwest monsoon season.
(vii) Its spatial distribution is also uneven which ranges from 12 cm to more than 250 cm.
(viii) The beginning of the rains sometimes is considerably delayed over the whole or a part of
the country.
(ix) The rains sometimes end considerably earlier than usual, causing great damage to
standing crops and making the sowing of winter crops difficult.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 171
Q.58 Consider the following statements with reference to distribution of rainfall
1. The Southern part of Gujrat fall under the areas of low rainfall due to Kutch desert
2. Peninsular part of Karnataka falls under areas of medium rainfall due to the leeward side
of Western Ghats
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Distribution of Rainfall
The average annual rainfall in India is about 125 cm, but it has great spatial variations.
 Areas of High Rainfall: The highest rainfall occurs along the west coast, on the Western
Ghats, as well as in the sub-Himalayan areas is the northeast and the hills of Meghalaya.
Here the rainfall exceeds 200 cm. In some parts of Khasi and Jaintia hills, the rainfall
exceeds 1,000 cm. In the Brahmaputra valley and the adjoining hills, the rainfall is less
then 200 cm.
 Areas of Medium Rainfall: Rainfall between 100-200 cm is received in the southern
parts of Gujarat, east Tamil Nadu, northeastern Peninsula covering Odisha, Jharkhand,
Bihar, eastern Madhya Pradesh, northern Ganga plain along the sub-Himalayas and the
Cachar Valley and Manipur.
 Areas of Low Rainfall: Western Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, Jammu and
Kashmir, eastern Rajasthan, Gujarat and Deccan Plateau receive rainfall between 50-100
cm.
 Areas of Inadequate Rainfall: Parts of the Peninsula, especially in Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka and Maharashtra, Ladakh and most of western Rajasthan receive rainfall
below 50 cm.
 Snowfall is restricted to the Himalayan region.

Q.59 Koeppen used letter symbols to denote climatic types. Also, each type is further sub-
divided into sub-types on the basis of seasonal variations in the distributional pattern of rainfall
and temperature. Match the symbol with the climate type
1. f A. semi-arid
2. S B. less than four months with mean temperature over 10°C
3. c C. sufficient precipitation
4. W D. arid

Choose the correct code from the list below

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 172
 (A) 1.C,2.B,3.A,4.D
(B) 1.A,2.D,3.C,4.B
(C) 1.C,2.A,3.B,4.D
(D) 1.D,2.C,3.B,4.A
Solution: C
Koeppen used letter symbols to denote climatic types as given above. Each type is further sub-
divided into sub-types on the basis of seasonal variations in the distributional pattern of rainfall
and temperature. He used S for semi-arid and W for arid and the following small letters to define
sub-types: f (sufficient precipitation), m (rain forest despite a dry monsoon season), w (dry
season in winter), h (dry and hot), c (less than four months with mean temperature over 10°C),
and g (Gangetic plain). Accordingly, India can be divided into eight climatic regions

CHAPTER – 5: Natural Vegetation

Q.60 Consider the following statements
1. The Western Ghats and the Andaman Nicobar Islands have tropical rain forests
2. Depending upon the variations in the climate and the soil, the vegetation of India changes
from one region to another.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
India is a land of great variety of natural vegetation. Himalayan heights are marked with
temperate vegetation; the Western Ghats and the Andaman Nicobar Islands have tropical rain
forests, the deltaic regions have tropical forests and mangroves; the desert and semi desert areas
of Rajasthan are known for cactii, a wide variety of bushes and thorny vegetation.
Depending upon the variations in the climate and the soil, the vegetation of India changes from
one region to another.

Q.61 Consider the following statements with reference to Tropical Evergreen and Semi
Evergreen Forests
1. Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are
covered with shrubs and creepers

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 173
 2. These trees shed their leaves in the month of March and April and provide flowering and
fruition after in October after S-W monsoon
3. Recently, the oak forests in Garhwal and Kumaon were replaced by pine (chirs) which
was needed to lay railway lines.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

om
Solution: A
Tropical Evergreen and Semi Evergreen Forests

l.c
These forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the northeastern
region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas withan

ai
annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22oC. Tropical
m
evergreen forests are well stratified, with layers closer to the ground and are covered with shrubs
and creepers, with short structured trees followed by tall variety of trees. In these forests, trees
9g
reach great heights up to 60 m or above. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves,
flowering and fruition. As such these forests appear green all the year round. Species found in
56

these forests include rosewood, mahogony, aini, ebony, etc.

55

The British were aware of the economic value of the forests in India, hence, large scale
exploitation of these forests was started. The structure of forests was also changed. The oak
ar

forests in Garhwal and Kumaon were replaced by pine (chirs) which was needed to lay railway
lines. Forests were also cleared for introducing plantations of tea, rubber and coffee. The British
m

also used timber for construction activities as it acts as an insulator of heat. The protectional use
of forests was, thus, replaced by commercial use.
ku
an
am

Q.62 Consider the following statements with reference to Tropical Deciduous Forests
1. Dry deciduous forest covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 100-
150 cm
2. As the dry season begins, the trees shed their leaves completely and the forest appears
like a vast grassland with naked trees all around.
3. Forests are divided into moist and dry deciduous on the basis of the availability of water.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 174
 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Tropical Deciduous Forests
These are the most widespread forests in India. They are also called the monsoon forests. They
spread over regions which receive rainfall between 70-200 cm. On the basis of the availability of
water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous.
The Moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between
100-200 cm. These forests are found in the northeastern states along the foothills of Himalayas,
eastern slopes of the Western Ghats and Odisha. Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul,
kusum, and sandalwood etc. are the main species of these forests.
Dry deciduous forest covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm.
On the wetter margins, it has a transition to the moist deciduous, while on the drier margins to
thorn forests. These forests are found in rainier areas of the Peninsula and the plains of Uttar
Pradesh and Bihar. In the higher rainfall regions of the Peninsular plateau and the northern
Indian plain, these forests have a parkland landscape with open stretches in which teak and other
trees interspersed with patches of grass are common. As the dry season begins, the trees shed
their leaves completely and the forest appears like a vast grassland with naked trees all around.
Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the common trees of these forests.

Q.63 In the western and southern part of Rajasthan, vegetation cover is very scanty due
(A) Climate change
(B) Desertification
(C) Overgrazing
(D) Soil salinization
Solution: C
In the western and southern part of Rajasthan, vegetation cover is very scanty due to low rainfall
and overgrazing.

Q.64 Consider the following statements

1. In montane forests, plants remain leafless for most part of the year and give an expression
of scrub vegetation
2. With the change in altitude, Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the
tropical to the tundra
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 only

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 175
 (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Tropical Thorn Forests
Tropical thorn forests occur in the areas which receive rainfall less than 50 cm. These consist of
a variety of grasses and shrubs. It includes semi-arid areas of south west Punjab, Haryana,
Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. In these forests, plants remain leafless
for most part of the year and give an expression of scrub vegetation. Important species found are
babool, ber, and wild date palm, khair, neem, khejri, palas, etc. Tussocky grass grows upto a
height of 2 m as the under growth.
Montane Forests
In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to a
corresponding change in natural vegetation. Mountain forests can be classified into two types,
the northern mountain forests and the southern mountain forests. The Himalayan ranges show a
succession of vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, which change in with the altitude.
Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas. It is succeeded by the wet
temperate type of forests between an altitude of 1,000-2,000 m. In the higher hill ranges of
northeastern India, hilly areas of West Bengal and Uttaranchal, evergreen broad leaf trees such as
oak and chestnut are predominant.
Between 1,500-1,750 m, pine forests are also well-developed in this zone, with Chir Pine as a
very useful commercial tree. Deodar, a highly valued endemic species grows mainly in the
western part of the Himalayan range. Deodar is a durable wood mainly used in construction
activity.

Q.65 Consider the following statements

1. India has a rich variety of wetland habitats with highest area of land under paddy
cultivation
2. Tendu leaves are commonly found in moist deciduous forests
3. Tendu leaves are commonly used by tribal in bidi making
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 176
 Littoral and Swamp Forests
India has a rich variety of wetland habitats. About 70 per cent of this comprises areas under
paddy cultivation. The total area of wet land is 3.9 million hectares. Two sites — Chilika Lake
(Odisha) and Keoladeo National Park (Bharatpur) are protected as water-fowl habitats under the
Convention of Wetlands of International Importance (Ramsar Convention).
Dry deciduous forest: Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the common trees of
these forests.

Q.66 Consider the following statements with reference to Forest Cover in India

om
1. Lakshadweep has zero per cent forest area
2. Of the forest cover, India has the largest share of area under open forest

l.c
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

ai
(A) 1 only m
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
9g
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
56

Solution: A
Forest Cover in India
55

According to state records, the forest area covers 23.28 per cent of the total land area of the
ar

country. It is important to note that the forest area and the actual forest cover are not the same.
The forest area is the area notified and recorded as the forest land irrespective of the existence of
m

trees, while the actual forest cover is the area occupied by forests with canopy. The former is
based on the records of the State Revenue Department, while the latter is based on aerial
ku

photographs and satellite imageries. According to India State of Forest Report 2019, the actual
forest cover in India is only 21.67 per cent. Of the forest cover, the share of dense and open
an

forests are 12.41 and 9.26 per cent respectively.

am

Both forest area and forest cover vary from state to state. Lakshadweep has zero per cent forest
area; Andaman and Nicobar Islands have 86.93 per cent. Most of the states with less than 10 per
cent of the forest area lie in the north and northwestern part of the country. These are Rajasthan,
Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana and Delhi.

Q.67 Consider the following statements with reference to India State of Forest Report-2021
1. The Sunderbans Tiger reserves in West Bengal has the highest forest cover

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 177
 2. Among the forest cover Mangroves has shown a small percentage of decrease in total
area
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
New Features of ISFR 2021:
 It has for the first time assessed forest cover in tiger reserves, tiger corridors and the Gir
forest which houses the Asiatic lion.
 The forest cover in tiger corridors has increased by 37.15 sq km (0.32%) between 2011-
2021, but decreased by 22.6 sq km (0.04%) in tiger reserves.
 Forest cover has increased in 20 tiger reserves in these 10 years, and decreased in 32.
 Buxa (West Bengal), Anamalai (Tamil Nadu) and Indravati reserves (Chhattisgarh) have
shown an increase in forest cover while the highest losses have been found in Kawal
(Telangana), Bhadra (Karnataka) and the Sunderbans reserves (West Bengal).
 Pakke Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh has the highest forest cover, at nearly 97%.
Findings of the Report:
Increment in Area:
 The forest and tree cover in the country continues to increase with an additional cover of
1,540 square kilometres over the past two years.
 India’s forest cover is now 7,13,789 square kilometres, 21.71% of the country’s
geographical area, an increase from 21.67% in 2019.
 Tree cover has increased by 721 sq km.
 Tree cover is defined as all tree patches of size less than one hectare occurring outside the
recorded forest area. This covers trees in all formations including scattered trees.
Increase/Decrease in Forests:
 The states that have shown the highest increase in forest cover are Telangana (3.07%),
Andhra Pradesh (2.22%) and Odisha (1.04%).
 Five states in the Northeast – Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram and
Nagaland have all shown loss in forest cover.
States with Highest Forest Area/Cover:
 Area-wise: Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by
Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 178
  In terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are
Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur and Nagaland.
 The term 'forest area' denotes the legal status of the land as per the government records,
whereas the term 'forest cover' indicates presence of trees over any land.
Mangroves:
 Mangroves have shown an increase of 17 sq km. India’s total mangrove cover is now
4,992 sq km.

Q.68 Consider the following statements with reference to nation-wide forest conservation policy
1. Nation-wide forest conservation policy was first adopted by British government in India
which was later modified in 1988
2. One of the aims of policy is to checks soil erosion, extension of the desert lands and
reduction of floods and droughts
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Forest Conservation
Forests have an intricate interrelationship with life and environment. These provide numerous
direct and indirect advantages to our economy and society. Hence, conservation of forest is of
vital importance to the survival and prosperity of humankind. Accordingly, the Government of
India proposed to have a nation-wide forest conservation policy, and adopted a forest policy in
1952, which was further modified in 1988. According to the new forest policy, the Government
will emphasise sustainable forest management in order to conserve and expand forest reserve on
the one hand, and to meet the needs of local people on the other. The forest policy aimed at : (i)
bringing 33 per cent of the geographical areas under forest cover; (ii) maintaining environmental
stability and to restore forests where ecological balance was disturbed; (iii) conserving the
natural heritage of the country, its biological diversity and genetic pool; (iv) checks soil erosion,
extension of the desert lands and reduction of floods and droughts; (v) increasing the forest cover
through social forestry and afforestation on degraded land; (vi) increasing the productivity of
forests to make timber, fuel, fodder and food available to rural population dependant on forests,
and encourage the substitution of wood; (vii) creating of a massive peoples movement involving
women to encourage planting of trees, stop felling of trees and thus, reduce pressure on the
existing forest.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 179
 Q.69 It means management and protection of the forests as well as afforestation of barren lands
aimed at helping in environmental, social and rural development as against the traditional
objective of securing revenue. Which of the following forestry it is?
(A) Urban Forestry
(B) Revenue Forestry
(C) Tribal Forestry
(D) Social Forestry
Solution: D
Social Forestry

om
 It can be described as “Forestry of the people, by the people and for the people”.
 Social forestry means management and protection of the forests as well as afforestation

l.c
of barren lands aimed at helping in environmental, social and rural development as
against the traditional objective of securing revenue.

ai
 The term, social forestry, was first used in India in 1976 by The National Commission on
m
Agriculture.
 It was embarked with the objective of taking the pressure off the traditional forests by the
9g
plantation of fuelwood, fodder, timber and grasses on unused and fallow land to the rural
population.
56

 This commission divided Social Forestry into –

 Agroforestry, Expansion Forestry, Rehabilitation of degraded and low grade forests,
55

Recreation forestry
Objectives
ar

 To meet the need for fuel wood, small timber, bamboo, fodder and other minor forest
m

produce on sustainable basis

ku

 To release cow dung as manure for increasing agricultural production

 To provide gainful employment opportunities to rural peoplesTo develop cottage
an

industries
 To provide efficient soil and water conservation
am

 To improve aesthetic value of an area and to meet the recreational needs of the
population.

Q.70 Consider the following statements with reference to Forestry

1. Under Community forestry government has the responsibility of providing seedlings,
fertilizers but the community has to take responsibility for protecting the trees.
2. Farm forestry systems include both traditional and modern land-use systems where trees
are managed together with crops and or/ animal production systems in agricultural
settings.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 180
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Community forestry
 It is the raising of trees on community land and not on private land as in farm forestry.
All these programs aim to provide for the entire community and not for any individual.
 The government has the responsibility of providing seedlings, fertilizers but the
community has to take responsibility for protecting the trees. Some communities manage
the plantations sensibly and in a sustainable manner so that the village continues to
benefit.
 Some others take advantage and sell the timber for a short-term individual profit.
Common land being everyone’s land is very easy to exploit. Over the last 20 years, large-
scale planting of Eucalyptus, as a fast-growing exotic, has occurred in India, making it a
part of the drive to reforest the subcontinent, and create an adequate supply of timber for
rural communities under the augur of ‘social forestry’.
Agro forestry
 Agroforestry is defined as a land-use system that integrates trees and shrubs on farmlands
and rural landscapes to enhance productivity, profitability, diversity, and ecosystem
sustainability. It is a dynamic, ecologically-based natural resource management system
that through the integration of woody perennials on farms and in the agricultural
landscape diversifies and sustains production and builds social institutions. It combines
forestry with:
o Production of multiple outputs with the protection of the resource base.
o Places emphasis on the use of multiple indigenous trees and shrubs.
o Particularly suitable for low-input conditions and fragile environments.
o It involves the interplay of socio-cultural values more than in most other land-use
systems.
o It is structurally and functionally more complex than monoculture.
 Agroforestry systems include both traditional and modern land-use systems where trees
are managed together with crops and or/ animal production systems in agricultural
settings. Agroforestry is practiced in both irrigated and rain-fed conditions where it
produces food, fuel, fodder, timber, fertilizer, and fiber, contributes to food, nutritional
and ecological security, sustains livelihoods, alleviates poverty, and promotes productive
and resilient cropping and farming environments.
 Agroforestry also has the potential to enhance ecosystem services through carbon storage,
prevention of deforestation, biodiversity conservation, and soil and water conservation. In
addition, when strategically applied on a large scale, with the appropriate mix of species,
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 181
 agroforestry enables agricultural land to withstand extreme weather events, such as floods
and droughts, and climate change.

Q.71 Consider the following statements with reference to farm forestry

1. Farm forestry is a term applied to the process under which farmers grow trees for both
commercial and non-commercial purposes on their farm lands.
2. Benefits offered by farm forestry range from improving the environment, maintenance of
soil, water; additional earnings, providing shelter and pasture for animals.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Farm Forestry
 Farm forestry is a term applied to the process under which farmers grow trees for
commercial and non-commercial purposes on their farm lands.
 Forest departments of various states distribute seedlings of trees free of cost to small and
medium farmers. Several lands such as the margins of agricultural fields, grasslands and
pastures, land around homes and cow sheds may be used for raising trees under non-
commercial farm forestry
 Benefits offered by farm forestry range from improving the environment, maintenance of
soil, water; additional earnings, providing shelter and pasture for animals.

Q.72 Consider the following statements with reference to wildlife

1. It is estimated that about 7-8 per cent of all known plant and animal species on the earth
are found in India.
2. The 1991 amendment to the Wildlife Act has made the regulation more stringent while
relieve the Act from hard punishments
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Wildlife

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 182
  You would have visited a zoo and may have seen animals and birds in captivity. Wildlife
of India is a great natural heritage. It is estimated that about 4-5 per cent of all known
plant and animal species on the earth are found in India. The main reason for this
remarkable diversity of life forms is the great diversity of the ecosystem which this
country has preserved and supported through the ages. Over the years, their habitat has
been disturbed by human activities and as a result, their numbers have dwindled
significantly. There are certain species that are at the brink of extinction.
Wildlife Conservation in India
 The protection of wildlife has a long tradition in India. Many stories of Panchtantra and
Jungle Books, etc. have stood the test of time relating to the love for wildlife. These have

om
a profound impact on young minds.
 In 1972, a comprehensive Wildlife Act was enacted, which provides the main legal

l.c
framework for conservation and protection of wildlife in India. The two main objectives
of the Act are; to provide protection to the endangered species listed in the schedule of

ai
the Act and to provide legal support to the conservation areas of the country classified as
National parks, sanctuaries and closed areas. This Act has been comprehensively
m
amended in 1991, making punishments more stringent and has also made provisions for
9g
the protection of specified plant species and conservation of endangered species of wild
animals.
56
55

Q.73 Consider the following statements with reference to Project Tiger

1. Under Project Tiger reserves are created and functioned on a core/buffer strategy.
ar

2. The project is in the process of creating a national database of individual tigers with
photos so that seized body parts or dead tigers can be traced.
m

3. Centre maintain the Special Tiger Protection Force to protect tigers in the reserves.
ku

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

an

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
am

(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Project Tiger – Objectives & Working methodology
The chief objectives of the project are:
 Reduce factors that cause the diminishing of tiger habitats and manage them.
 Ensure a viable tiger population for scientific, ecological, economic, aesthetic and
cultural values.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 183
  The administrating body for the project is the National Tiger Conservation Authority
(NTCA). The NTCA was formed in 2005 as per the recommendations of the Tiger Task
Force. Under the organisation, there are eight Conservations Units each headed by a
director who is responsible for his/her reserve area.
1. The Conservation Units are:
2. Sundarbans Conservation Unit
3. Northeast Conservation Unit
4. Western Ghats Conservation Unit
5. Shivalik-Terai Conservation Unit
6. Eastern Ghats Conservation Unit
7. Sariska Conservation Unit
8. Central India Conservation Unit
9. Kaziranga Conservation Unit
 The reserves are created and functioned on a core/buffer strategy. That is, the core areas
have the legal status of a national park or sanctuary in India. The buffer areas form the
peripheral region and are a combination of forest and non-forest lands. The project
purposes of adopting an exclusive tiger agenda in the core areas and an inclusive people-
centric approach in the buffer regions.
 The project, apart from preserving the habitats of the tigers in their ecological purity, also
does the job of conducting tiger census in the country. It also combats poaching.
 During the 12th Plan, the budget had allocated Rs.1245 crore for Project Tiger. It is a
central government-sponsored scheme.
 Assistance is also given to the states to protect tigers in the respective states. In India,
tigers are present in 19 states.
 States maintain the Special Tiger Protection Force to protect tigers in the reserves.
 The project is in the process of creating a national database of individual tigers with
photos so that seized body parts or dead tigers can be traced.
 The Monitoring System for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status, or M-
STrIPES was launched in 2010 and is a software-based monitoring system for tigers.
 Information technology is used to keep a tab on the number of tigers. The e-Eye system
was launched in 2016 at Corbett, which uses thermal cameras for enhanced surveillance.
 The project is working towards eliminating all human activities from the core areas. In
the buffer areas, it is working towards minimising tiger-human conflicts.
 Wildlife research is also carried out under the project and this includes flora and fauna
assessment and monitoring of changes in them in the tiger habitats.
 The Forest Rights Act was passed in 2006, which recognised the rights of certain forest-
dwelling communities. This could be problematic for the population of tigers in that it
could increase tiger-human contact.
 Poaching is a big menace in India. Tigers are especially vulnerable because tiger skin is
in huge demand in the international black market. Tiger claws and other parts are also in
demand. Most of the remains end up in China.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 184
  The project has brought about significant changes in the tiger population in the country.
From 2010 to 2014, there has been a 30% rise in the number of tigers in India. At present,
there are 2226 tigers in India, which is the highest in the world (about 70% of the tigers
in the world are in India).

CHAPTER – 6: Soils

Q.74 Consider the following statements

1. Horizon B does not have organic matter in it, as the mineral matter is noticeably
weathered
2. Horizon C is the first stage in the soil formation process
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
If we dig a pit on land and look at the soil, we find that it consists of three layers which are called
horizons. ‘Horizon A’ is the topmost zone, where organic materials have got incorporated with
the mineral matter, nutrients and water, which are necessary for the growth of plants. ‘Horizon
B’ is a transition zone between the ‘horizon A’ and ‘horizon C’, and contains matter derived
from below as well as from above. It has some organic matter in it, although the mineral matter
is noticeably weathered. ‘Horizon C’ is composed of the loose parent material. This layer is the
first stage in the soil formation process and eventually forms the above two layers. This
arrangement of layers is known as the soil profile. Underneath these three horizons is the rock
which is also known as the parent rock or the bedrock. Soil, which is a complex and varied entity
has always drawn the attention of the scientists. In order to understand its importance, it is
essential to attempt a scientific study of the soil.

Q.75 Match the following USDA soil taxonomy with their description
1. Inceptisols A. highly weathered forest soil
2. Vertisols B. grassland soils
3. Mollisols C. expandable clay soils
4. Ultiosols D. weakly developed soils
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1.C,2.B,3.A,4.D

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 185
 (B) 1.A,2.D,3.C,4.B
(C) 1.C,2.A,3.B,4.D
(D) 1.D,2.C,3.B,4.A
Solution: D

 Oxisols (These soils develop in the hot and humid climates of the equatorial region. )
 Aridisols (desert soils)
 Mollisols (grassland soils)
 Alfisols (moderately weathered forest soils)
 Ultiosols ( highly weathered forest soil are found in the temperature climates.)

om
 Spodosols (coniferous forest soils)
 Entisols ( recent, underdeveloped soils)
 Inceptisols (weakly developed soils)

l.c
 Andisols ( volcanic parent materials)
 Vertisols (expandable clay soils)

ai
 Histosols (organic soils) m
9g
Q.76 Consider the following statements about Alluvial Soil
56

1. They are depositional soils, transported and deposited by rivers and streams. Through a
narrow corridor in Rajasthan, they extend into the plains of Gujarat.
55

2. They are generally rich in phosphorous but poor in potash.

3. The sand content decreases from the west to east
ar

4. These soils are more loamy and clayey in the lower and middle Ganga plain and the
Brahmaputra valley.
m

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

ku

(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 4
an

(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4
am

Solution: D
Alluvial Soils
Alluvial soils are widespread in the northern plains and the river valleys. These soils cover about
40 per cent of the total area of the country. They are depositional soils, transported and deposited
by rivers and streams. Through a narrow corridor in Rajasthan, they extend into the plains of
Gujarat. In the Peninsular region, they are found in deltas of the east coast and in the river
valleys.
The alluvial soils vary in nature from sandy loam to clay. They are generally rich in potash but
poor in phosphorous. In the Upper and Middle Ganga plain, two different types of alluvial soils
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 186
have developed, viz. Khadar and Bhangar. Khadar is the new alluvium and is deposited by floods
annually, which enriches the soil by depositing fine silts. Bhangar represents a system of older
alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains. Both the Khadar and Bhangar soils contain
calcareous concretions (Kankars). These soils are more loamy and clayey in the lower and
middle Ganga plain and the Brahamaputra valley. The sand content decreases from the west to
east.

Q.77 Consider the following statements about Black Soil

1. In the upper reaches of the Godavari and the Krishna, and the north western part of the
Deccan Plateau, the black soil is very deep.
2. This soil is known for self-ploughing when it gets dried
3. The black color in the soil is due to the higher presence of organic content
4. Chemically, the black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia, nitrogen and alumina.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1,2. and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Solution: A
Black Soil
Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau which includes parts of Maharashtra, Madhya
Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some parts of Tamil Nadu. In the upper reaches of the
Godavari and the Krishna, and the north western part of the Deccan Plateau, the black soil is
very deep. These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’. The black
soils are generally clayey, deep and impermeable. They swell and become sticky when wet and
shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soils develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs
a kind of ‘self ploughing’. Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the
black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially, the rain fed
ones, to sustain even during the dry season.
Chemically, the black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. They also contain
potash. But they lack in phosphorous, nitrogen and organic matter. The colour of the soil ranges
from deep black to grey.

Q.78 Consider the following statements about Red and Yellow Soil
1. Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of moderate rainfall which
provide weathering of rock

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 187
 2. Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha and Chhattisgarh and in the
southern parts of the middle Ganga plain.
3. The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and
metamorphic rocks.
4. The coarse-grained soils found in dry upland areas are poor in fertility.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2. and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Solution: B
Red and Yellow Soil
Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern
part of the Deccan Plateau. Along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghat, long stretch of area is
occupied by red loamy soil. Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha and
Chhattisgarh and in the southern parts of the middle Ganga plain. The soil develops a reddish
colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when
it occurs in a hydrated form. The fine-grained red and yellow soils are normally fertile, whereas
coarse-grained soils found in dry upland areas are poor in fertility. They are generally poor in
nitrogen, phosphorous and humus.

Q.79 Consider the following statements about Laterite Soil

1. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high
temperature.
2. These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate, calcium, and potash.
3. Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree
crops like cashewnut.
4. The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2. and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Solution: D
Laterite Soil

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 188
 Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which means brick. The laterite soils
develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of intense leaching
due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and
aluminium compound are left behind. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that
thrives well in high temperature. These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and
calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Hence, laterites are not suitable for
cultivation; however, application of manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils
fertile for cultivation.
Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree crops like
cashewnut.

om
Laterite soils are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction. These soils have mainly
developed in the higher areas of the Peninsular plateau. The laterite soils are commonly found in

l.c
Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Odisha and Assam.

ai
Q.80 Consider the following statements about Arid Soils
m
1. Lower horizons of the soil are occupied by ‘kankar’ layers because of the increasing
9g
calcium content downwards.
2. The ‘Kankar’ layer formation in the bottom horizons restricts the infiltration of water,
56

and as such when irrigation is made available, the soil moisture is readily available for a
sustainable plant growth.
55

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

ar

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
m

(C) Both 1 and 2

ku

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C
an

Arid Soils
am

Arid soils range from red to brown in colour. They are generally sandy in structure and saline in
nature. In some areas, the salt content is so high that common salt is obtained by evaporating the
saline water. Due to the dry climate, high temperature and accelerated evaporation, they lack
moisture and humus.
Nitrogen is insufficient and the phosphate content is normal. Lower horizons of the soil are
occupied by ‘kankar’ layers because of the increasing calcium content downwards. The ‘Kankar’
layer formation in the bottom horizons restricts the infiltration of water, and as such when
irrigation is made available, the soil moisture is readily available for a sustainable plant growth.
Arid soils are characteristically developed in western Rajasthan, which exhibit characteristic arid
topography. These soils are poor and contain little humus and organic matter.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 189
Q. 81 Consider the following statements with reference to Soil
1. Saline Soils are called Urvara contain a larger proportion of sodium, potassium and
magnesium, and thus, they are infertile, and do not support any vegetative growth.
2. Peaty Soils are found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, and have low
organic content
3. Forest Soils are loamy and silty on valley sides and coarse-grained in the upper slopes.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Saline Soils
They are also known as Usara soils. Saline soils contain a larger proportion of sodium, potassium
and magnesium, and thus, they are infertile, and do not support any vegetative growth. They
have more salts, largely because of dry climate and poor drainage. They occur in arid and semi-
arid regions, and in waterlogged and swampy areas. Their structure ranges from sandy to loamy.
They lack in nitrogen and calcium. Saline soils are more widespread in western Gujarat, deltas of
the eastern coast and in Sunderban areas of West Bengal. In the Rann of Kuchchh, the Southwest
Monsoon brings salt particles and deposits there as a crust. Seawater intrusions in the deltas
promote the occurrence of saline soils. In the areas of intensive cultivation with excessive use of
irrigation, especially in areas of green revolution, the fertile alluvial soils are becoming saline.
Excessive irrigation with dry climatic conditions promotes capillary action, which results in the
deposition of salt on the top layer of the soil. In such areas, especially in Punjab and Haryana,
farmers are advised to add gypsum to solve the problem of salinity in the soil.
Peaty Soils
They are found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, where there is a good growth of
vegetation. Thus, large quantity of dead organic matter accumulates in these areas, and this gives
a rich humus and organic content to the soil. Organic matter in these soils may go even up to 40-
50 per cent. These soils are normally heavy and black in colour. At many places, they are
alkaline also. It occurs widely in the northern part of Bihar, southern part of Uttarakhand and the
coastal areas of West Bengal, Odisha and Tamil Nadu.
Forest Soils
As the name suggests, forest soils are formed in the forest areas where sufficient rainfall is
available. The soils vary in structure and texture depending on the mountain environment where

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 190
they are formed. They are loamy and silty on valley sides and coarse-grained in the upper slopes.
In the snow-bound areas of the Himalayas, they experience denudation, and are acidic with low
humus content. The soils found in the lower valleys are fertile.

CHAPTER – 7: Natural Hazards and Disasters

Q.82 Consider the following statements
1. United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR) is the successor to the
secretariat of IDNDR and was created in 1999 to implement UN Disaster Risk Reduction
strategy.
2. The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction is a binding agreement
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Yokohama Strategy and International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction (IDNDR)
Yokohama Strategy and Plan of Action for a Safer World
All the member states of the United Nations and other states met at the World Conference on
Natural Disaster Reduction in the city of Yokohama from May 23rd-27th 1994. It acknowledged
that the impact of natural disasters in terms of human and economic losses has risen in recent
years, and society, in general, has become vulnerable to natural disasters. It also accepted that
these disasters affected the poor and disadvantageous groups the worst, particularly in the
developing countries, which are ill-equipped to cope with them. Hence, the conference adopted
the Yokohama strategy as a guide to rest of the decade and beyond, to mitigate the losses due to
these disasters.
The resolution of the World Conference on Natural Disasters Reduction is as mentioned below:
(i) It will note that each country has the sovereign responsibility to protect its citizens from
natural disasters;
(ii) It will give priority attention to the developing countries, particularly the least developed,
land-locked countries and small-island developing states;
(iii) It will develop and strengthen national capacities and capabilities and, where appropriate,
national legislation for natural and other disaster prevention, mitigation and preparedness,
including the mobilisation of non-governmental organisations and participation of local
communities;

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 191
 (iv) It will promote and strengthen sub-regional, regional and international cooperation in
activities to prevent, reduce and mitigate natural and other disasters, with particular
emphasis on:
(a) human and institutional capacity-building and strengthening;
(b) technology sharing: the collection, the dissemination and utilisation of information;
and
(c) mobilisation of resources.
It also declared the decade 1990-2000 as the International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction
(IDNDR).
United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR) is the successor to the secretariat

om
of IDNDR and was created in 1999 to implement UN Disaster Risk Reduction strategy.
The Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) is a 10-year plan (2005-2015) to make the world safer

l.c
from natural hazards. Priorities such as, Disaster risk reduction, identification, assessment
through legal and policy frameworks, disaster preparedness and use of innovation was adopted.

ai
The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030, is the successor instrument to
m
the Hyogo Framework.
9g
It is a non-binding agreement, which the signatory nations, including India, will attempt to
comply with on a voluntary basis.
56
55

Q.83 The impact of Tsunami is less over the ocean and more near the coast where they cause
large-scale devastation. Consider the following statements about its reasons
ar

1. The speed of wave in the ocean depends upon the depth of water
m

2. With the decrease in speed, the height of the tsunami wave grows.
3. Over deep water the Tsunami has very long wave-length and limited wave-height as
ku

compared to shallow water near the coast

an

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
am

(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Tsunami
Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions that cause the sea-floor to move abruptly resulting in sudden
displacement of ocean water in the form of high vertical waves are called tsunamis (harbour
waves) or seismic sea waves. Normally, the seismic waves cause only one instantaneous vertical
wave; but, after the initial disturbance, a series of afterwaves are created in the water that
oscillate between high crest and low trough in order to restore the water level.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 192
The speed of wave in the ocean depends upon the depth of water. It is more in the shallow water
than in the ocean deep. As a result of this, the impact of tsunami is less over the ocean and more
near the coast where they cause large-scale devastations. Therefore, a ship at sea is not much
affected by tsunami and it is difficult to detect a tsunami in the deeper parts of sea. It is so
because over deep water the tsunami has very long wave-length and limited wave-height. Thus, a
tsunami wave raises the ship only a metre or two and each rise and fall takes several minutes. As
opposed to this, when a tsunami enters shallow water, its wave-length gets reduced and the
period remains unchanged, which increases the waveheight. Sometimes, this height can be up to
15m or more, which causes large-scale destructions along the shores. Thus, these are also called
Shallow Water Waves. Tsunamis are frequently observed along the Pacific ring of fire,
particularly along the coast of Alaska, Japan, Philippines, and other islands of Southeast Asia,
Indonesia, Malaysia, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and India etc.
Q.84 Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure areas confined to the area lying between 300N
and 300S latitudes. Which of the following initial conditions are required for the emergence of
tropical cyclone?
1. Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent
heat
2. Presence of strong vertical wind
3. Presence of strong Coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centre
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Tropical Cyclone
Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure areas confined to the area lying between 30° N and
30° S latitudes, in the atmosphere around which high velocity winds blow. Horizontally, it
extends up to 500-1,000 km and vertically from surface to 12-14 km. A tropical cyclone or
hurricane is like a heat engine that is energised by the release of latent heat on account of the
condensation of moisture that the wind gathers after moving over the oceans and seas.
There are differences of opinion among scientists about the exact mechanism of a tropical
cyclone. However, some initial conditions for the emergence of a tropical cyclone are:
(i) Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat.
(ii) Strong Coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centre (absence of
Coriolis force near the equator prohibits the formation of tropical cyclone between 0°-5°
latitude).
(iii) Unstable condition through the troposphere that creates local disturbances around which a
cyclone develops.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 193
(iv) Finally, absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of
latent heat.

Q.85 Consider the following statements with reference to floods

1. Fluvial Floods occur in areas that lie on the coast of a sea, ocean, or a large open water
body. It occurs due to extreme tidal conditions caused by severe weather.
2. Rivers which show meandering tendencies are more prone to generate floods
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Floods
Inundation of land and human settlements by the rise of water in the channels and its spill-over
presents the condition of flooding. Unlike other natural disasters, the causes of floods are
wellestablished. Floods are relatively slow in occurrences and often, occur in well-identified
regions and within expected time in a year. Floods occur commonly when water in the form of
surface run-off exceeds the carrying capacity of the river channels and streams and flows into the
neighbouring low-lying flood plains. At times, this even goes beyond the capacity of lakes and
other inland water bodies in which they flow. Floods can also be caused due to a storm surge (in
the coastal areas), high intensity rainfall for a considerably longer time period, melting of ice and
snow, reduction in the infiltration rate and presence of eroded material in the water due to higher
rate of soil erosion. Though floods occur frequently over wide geographical area having
disasterous ramifications in many parts of the world, floods in the South, Southeast and East
Asian countries, particularly in China, India and Bangladesh, are frequent and equally disastrous.
Types of the flood
There are three main types of flood
1. Surge (Coastal) Flood: Floods occur in areas that lie on the coast of a sea, ocean, or a
large open water body. It occurs due to extreme tidal conditions caused by severe
weather. Very often it is produced by the hurricanes and other storm which pushes water
onshore.
2. River/Fluvial Floods: It occurs when a river exceeds its capacity due to excessive
rainfall over an extended period of time. Fluvial flooding is of following types
 Flash flooding: A flash flood is a sudden and rapid flooding of a low-lying area due
to torrential rain coming with thunderstorm, hurricane, tropical storm etc.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 194
  Overbank flooding: This is the most common type of flooding where the water
level rises and breaches the banks over time.
3. Pluvial (Surface Flood): When heavy rainfall creates a flood event independent of an
overflowing water body, it is called a surface or pluvial flood. It can happen in any urban
area and even in the areas of higher elevation lying above coastal and river floodplains.

FUNDAMENTAL OF HUMAN GEOGRAPHY

om
CHAPTER-1- HUMAN GEOGRAPHY NATURE AND SCOPE

l.c
Q.1 Consider the following statements

ai
1. Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society.
2. Better understanding of natural laws is a forerunner for human beings to develop
m
technology better.
9g
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
56

(E) Only 1
(F) Only 2
(G) Both 1 and 2
55

(H) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C
ar

Naturalisation of Humans and Humanisation of Nature

m

Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. It is not
ku

important what human beings produce and create but it is extremely important ‘with the help of
what tools and techniques do they produce and create’.
an

Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to
develop technology after they developed better understanding of natural laws. For example, the
am

understanding of concepts of friction and heat helped us discover fire. Similarly, understanding
of the secrets of DNA and genetics enabled us to conquer many diseases. We use the laws of
aerodynamics to develop faster planes. You can see that knowledge about Nature is extremely
important to develop technology and technology loosens the shackles of environment on human
beings. In the early stages of their interaction with their natural environment humans were
greatly influenced by it. They adapted to the dictates of Nature. This is so because the level of
technology was very low and the stage of human social development was also primitive.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 195
Q.2 In cities traffic is regulated by lights on the cross-roads. Red light means ‘stop’, amber light
provides a gap between red and green lights ‘to get set’ and green light means ‘go’. This incident
defines which of the following concept?
(A) Determinism
(B) Environmental determinism
(C) Possibilism
(D) Neo-determinism
Solution: D
Determinism
Philosophy of Determinism is based upon the interaction between primitive human society and
strong forces of nature. This is an older philosophy which persisted till World War II. It says that
the strong forces of environment control the course of human action. This implies that the
history, culture, mode of life, and the level of development of the societal groups and countries
are exclusively or largely controlled by the physical environment.
According to Determinism, man is a passive agent, and nature is active agent, which controls and
determines the action and decision-making processes of man.
As per determinism, the human actions can be explained as a response to the natural
environment.
Environmental determinism
This philosophy says that aspects of physical geography, particularly climate, influenced the
psychological mind-set of individuals, which in turn defined the behaviour and culture of the
society that those individuals formed. For example, tropical climates were said to cause laziness,
relaxed attitudes and promiscuity, while the frequent variability in the weather of the middle
latitudes led to more determined and driven work ethics.
The core philosophy is that the supreme achievements of civilisation in any region were always
bound up with a particular type of climate and variation in climate led to pulsations in the history
and culture of the people.
These geographers who propound this theory say that the civilisations of Egyptians,
Mesopotamians, Indus-valley, disappeared because of the climatic changes. The attacks of the
central Asian nomads in different directions in the 13th century were also attributed to the drying
up of their pastures directions of climatic change.
Possibilism
Possibilism is reaction to determinism and environmental determinism. It is based upon the
assumption that environment sets certain constraints or limitations, but culture is otherwise
determined by social conditions. This theory says that the true and only geographical problem is
that to utilisation of possibilities.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 196
Neo-determinism
Australian geographer Griffith Taylor, in 1920 argued that the limit of agricultural settlements in
Australia has been set by factors of the physical environment such a distribution of rainfall. He
further said that the best economic programme for a country to follow has in large part been
determined by nature ,and it is the geographer’s duty to interpret this programme. Man is able to
accelerate, slow, or stop the progress of a country’s regions development. But he should not, if
he is wise, depart from directions as indicated by natural environment. He is like the traffic
controller in a large city who alters the rate but not the direction of progress.
This theory is also called ‘’stop and go determinism’’.

Q.3 Consider the following statements with reference to different approaches in Human
Geography
1. Identifying the uniqueness of any region and understanding its distinctness is known as
areal differentiation
2. Understanding the parts in totality would lead to an understanding of the whole is a
concept of spatial organisation
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 197
 om
l.c
ai
m
9g
56
55
ar
m
ku

Q.4 ‘Geography of Leisure’ is the study the relationships between leisure and other social
an

practices and behaviours related to human movement. Is the subfield of which human
geography?
am

(A) Settlement Geography

(B) Social Geography
(C) Economic Geography
(D) Urban Geography
Solution: B

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 198
 CHAPTER-2- THE WORLD POPULATION - Distribution, Density and Growth

Q.5 The 10 most populous countries of the world contribute about 60 per cent of the world’s
population. Arrange the following countries in decreasing order of their population.
1. Pakistan
2. Indonesia
3. Bangladesh
4. Brazil
5. Nigeria
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1-2-3-4-5
(B) 2-1-4-5-3
(C) 2-1-4-3-5

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 199
 (D) 1-2-4-3-5
Solution: B

Q.6 Arrange the following continents in decreasing order of their density of population.
1. Africa
2. Europe
3. Northern America
4. Latin America and the Caribbean
5. Oceania
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1-2-3-4-5
(B) 2-1-4-5-3
(C) 2-1-4-3-5
(D) 1-2-4-3-5
Solution: D

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 200
 om
l.c
ai
Q.7 Consider the following statements m
1. Natural Growth of Population is the population increased by difference between births
9g
and deaths in a particular region between two points of time.
2. When the birth rate is more than the death rate between two points of time or when
56

people from other countries migrate permanently or temporarily to a region is called

Positive Growth of Population
55

Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?

ar

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
m

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2
ku

Solution: B
an

Some Basic Concepts of Population Geography

 Growth of Population : Change of population in particular area between two points of
am

time is known as growth of population. For example, if we deduct the population of India
2001 (102.70 crore) from population of 2011 (121.02 crore) then we shall get the growth
of population (18.15 crores) in actual numbers.
 Growth Rate of Population : This is the change of population expressed in percentage.
 Natural Growth of Population: This is the population increased by difference between
births and deaths in a particular region between two points of time.
o Natural Growth = Births – Deaths
 Actual Growth of Population : This is Births – Deaths + In Migration – Out Migration
 Positive Growth of Population: This happens when the birth rate is more than the death
rate between two points of time or when people from other countries migrate
permanently to a region.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 201
  Negative Growth of Population: If the population decreases between two points of time
it is known as negative growth of population. It occurs when the birth rate falls below the
death rate or people migrate to other countries.

Q.8 Consider the following statements

1. Spread of Covid in Mumbai has led to migration of people in nearby states of Madhya
Pradesh, Gujrat etc. is termed as pull factor of migration.
2. Haryana witnessed the highest unemployment rate of 23.4% in January 2022, while UP
has the unemployment rate of approximately 3% due to which there is greater inflow of
people. This situation of higher unemployment in Haryana is a push factor.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
The Push factors make the place of origin seem less attractive for reasons like unemployment,
poor living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, natural disasters, epidemics and
socio-economic backwardness.
The Pull factors make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of origin for
reasons like better job opportunities and living conditions, peace and stability, security of life
and property and pleasant climate.

Q.9 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) Human population increased more than ten times in the past 500 hundred years.
(B) In the twentieth century itself the population has increased four times.
(C) It took more than a million years for the human population to attain the one billion mark.
(D) It took 100 years for the population to rise from 5 billion to 6 billion.
Solution: D

 Human population increased more than ten times in the past 500 hundred years.
 In the twentieth century itself the population has increased four times.
Doubling Time of World Population
It took more than a million years for the human population to attain the one billion mark. But it
took only 12 years for it to rise from 5 billion to 6 billion.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 202
There is a great variation among regions in doubling their population. Developed countries take
more time to double their population as compared to developing countries. Most of the
population growth is taking place in the developing world, where population is exploding.

Q.10 Consider the following statements about Spatial Pattern of Population Change
1. There is positive correlation between economic development and population growth.
2. Growth rate of population between 2010-15, Oceania has greater growth rate than Asia
3. Growth rate of population between 2010-15, Asia has greater growth rate than the world
average
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 only
Solution: D
Spatial Pattern of Population Change
Population growth in different parts of the world can be compared. The growth of population is
low in developed countries as compared to developing countries. There is negative correlation
between economic development and population growth.
Although the annual rate of population change (1.4 per cent) seems to be low (Table 2.3), it is
actually not so. This is because:
• When a small annual rate is applied to a very large population, it will lead to a large
population change.
• Even if the growth rate continues to decline, the total population grows each year. The
infant mortality rate may have increased as has the death rate during childbirth.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 203
 Q.11 Consider the following statements regarding the different stages of Demographic Transition
Theory
1. The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to
compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply.
2. In Second stage the population becomes urbanised, literate and has high technical
knowhow and deliberately controls the family size.
3. Last stage of the population has been responsible for population explosion
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 and 2

om
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 only

l.c
Solution: B

ai
DEMOGRAPHIC TRANSITION
m
Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and predict the future population of any
area. The theory tells us that population of any region changes from high births and high deaths
9g
to low births and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban
industrial and literate society. These changes occur in stages which are collectively known as the
56

demographic cycle.
The three-staged model of Demographic Transition Theory:
55

1. The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to
ar

compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population
growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are
m

an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of
ku

technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in this stage.
2. Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is
an

accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions

lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high.
3. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either
am

stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanised, literate and has high technical
knowhow and deliberately controls the family size. This shows that human beings are
extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.
In the present day, different countries are at different stages of demographic transition.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 204
 CHAPTER-3- POPULATION COMPOSITION

Q.12 Consider the following statements with reference to sex composition

1. In regions where gender discrimination is rampant, the sex ratio is bound to be
unfavourable to women
2. The world pattern of sex ratio does not exhibit variations in the developed regions of the
world.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
SEX COMPOSITION
The number of women and men in a country is an important demographic characteristic. The
ratio between the number of women and men in the population is called the Sex Ratio. In some
countries it is calculated by using the formula:
(Male Population/Female Population) × 1000
or the number of males per thousand females.
In India, the sex ratio is worked out using the formula:
Female Population × 1000/ Male Population
or the number of females per thousand males.
The sex ratio is an important information about the status of women in a country.
In regions where gender discrimination is rampant, the sex ratio is bound to be unfavourable to
women. Such areas are those where the practice of female foeticide, female infanticide and
domestic violence against women are prevalent. One of the reasons could be lower socio-
economic status of women in these areas. You must remember that more women in the
population does not mean they have a better status. It could be that the men might have migrated
to other areas for employment.
On an average, the world population reflects a sex ratio of 102 males per 100 females.
The highest sex ratio in the world has been recorded in Latvia where there are 85 males per
100 females. In contrast, in Qatar there are 311 males per 100 females.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 205
The world pattern of sex ratio does not exhibit variations in the developed regions of the world.
The sex ratio is favourable for females in 139 countries of the world and unfavourable for them
in the remaining 72 countries listed by the United Nations.
In general, Asia has a low sex ratio. Countries like China, India, Saudi Arabia, Pakistan,
Afghanistan have a lower sex ratio. On the other extreme is greater part of Europe (including
Russia) where males are in minority. A deficit of males in the populations of many European
countries is attributed to better status of women, and an excessively male-dominated out-
migration to different parts of the world in the past.

Q.13 Consider the following statements about Age-Sex Pyramid

1. In a pyramid left side is used to denote the number of females in the age group
2. Triangular shaped pyramid resembles a less developed country
3. China’s pyramid is bottom heavy compared to India’s.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Age-Sex Pyramid
The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of females and males in different age
groups. A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the population.
The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The left side
shows the percentage of males while the right side shows the percentage of women in each age
group.
Expanding Populations
The age-sex pyramid of Nigeria as you can see is a triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base
and is typical of less developed countries. These have larger populations in lower age groups due
to high birth rates. If you construct the pyramids for Bangladesh and Mexico, it would look the
same.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 206
 om
Constant Population

l.c
Australia’s age-sex pyramid is bell shaped and tapered towards the top. This shows birth and
death rates are almost equal leading to a near constant population.

ai
m
9g
56
55
ar
m
ku
an

Declining Populations
am

The Japan pyramid has a narrow base and a tapered top showing low birth and death rates. The
population growth in developed countries is usually zero or negative.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 207
India vis-a-vis China

India’s pyramid is bottom heavy i.e. the Indian population has a larger proportion of children,
teenagers and young adults compared to China’s.

Q.14 Consider the following statements about the usefulness of Age-Sex pyramid
1. It is also used in ecology to determine the overall age distribution of a population
2. It is an indication of the reproductive capabilities and likelihood of the continuation of a
species
3. Its data can be used to observe birth rate and literacy rate.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
A population pyramid, also called an "age-gender-pyramid", is a graphical illustration that shows
the distribution of various age groups in a population (typically that of a country or region of the
world), which forms the shape of a pyramid when the population is growing. Males are

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 208
conventionally shown on the left and females on the right, and they may be measured by raw
number or as a percentage of the total population. This tool can be used to visualize the age ofa
particular population.
It is also used in ecology to determine the overall age distribution of a population; an indication
of the reproductive capabilities and likelihood of the continuation of a species. A population
pyramid is a way to visualize two variables: age and sex. They are used by demographers, who
study populations. A population pyramid is a graph that shows the distribution of ages across a
population divided down the center between male and female members of the population. The
graphic starts from youngest at the bottom to oldest at the top. It is called a population pyramid
because when a population is growing (there are more babies being born than there are people
dying), the graphic forms the shape of a triangle. A population pyramid can be used to compare
differences between male and female populations of an area. They also show the number of
dependents (children and, sometimes, elderly people) and general structure of the population at
any given moment.

Q.15 Consider the following statements

1. In Western countries, Females outnumber males in rural areas and males outnumber the
females in urban areas.
2. Shortage of housing, high cost of living, paucity of job opportunities and lack of security
in cities, discourage women to migrate from rural to urban areas.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
RURAL URBAN COMPOSITION
The division of population into rural and urban is based on the residence. This division is
necessary because rural and urban life styles differ from each other in terms of their livelihood
and social conditions. The age-sex-occupational structure, density of population and level of
development vary between rural and urban areas.
The criteria for differentiating rural and urban population varies from country to country. In
general terms rural areas are those where people are engaged in primary activities and urban
areas are those when majority of the working population is engaged in non-primary activities.
Rural urban sex composition of selected countries. The rural and urban differences in sex ratio in
Canada and West European countries like Finland are just the opposite of those in African and

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 209
 Asian countries like Zimbabwe and Nepal respectively. In Western countries, males outnumber
females in rural areas and females outnumber the males in urban areas. In countries like Nepal,
Pakistan and India the case is reverse. The excess of females in urban areas of U.S.A., Canada
and Europe is the result of influx of females from rural areas to avail of the vast job
opportunities. Farming in these developed countries is also highly mechanised and remains
largely a male occupation. By contrast the sex ratio in Asian urban areas remains male
dominated due to the predominance of male migration. It is also worth noting that in countries
like India, female participation in farming activity in rural area is fairly high. Shortage of
housing, high cost of living, paucity of job opportunities and lack of security in cities, discourage
women to migrate from rural to urban areas.

om
Q.16 Which of the following statement correctly define the criteria of judging a person is literate

l.c
or not in India?
(A) Person above 12 years of age, who is able to read and write

ai
(B) Person above 7 years of age, who is able to read, write and have the ability to do
m
arithmetic calculations with understanding.
(C) Person above 7 years of age, who is able to read, write, have the ability to do arithmetic
9g
calculations and have understanding of basic laws of science
(D) Person above 12 years of age, who is able to read, write and have the ability to do
56

arithmetic calculations with understanding.

Solution: B
55

Literacy
ar

Proportion of literate population of a country in an indicator of its socio-economic development

m

as it reveals the standard of living, social status of females, availability of educational facilities
and policies of government. Level of economic development is both a cause and consequence of
ku

literacy. In India – literacy rate denotes the percentage of population above 7 years of age, who is
able to read, write and have the ability to do arithmetic calculations with understanding.
an
am

CHAPTER-4- HUMAN DEVELOPMENT

Q.17 Consider the following statements about growth and development

1. Growth is quantitative and value neutral i.e. it may have a positive or a negative sign.
2. Growth cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing
conditions.
3. Development occurs when there is a positive change in quality.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 210
 (A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
Both growth and development refer to changes over a period of time. The difference is that
growth is quantitative and value neutral. It may have a positive or a negative sign. This means
that the change may be either positive (showing an increase) or negative (indicating a decrease).
Development means a qualitative change which is always value positive. This means that
development cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing conditions.
Development occurs when positive growth takes place. Yet, positive growth does not always
lead to development. Development occurs when there is a positive change in quality.
For example, if the population of a city grows from one lakh to two lakhs over a period of time,
we say the city has grown. However, if a facilities like housing, provision of basic services and
other characteristics remain the same, then this growth has not been accompanied by
development.

Q.18 Kerala has the highest rate of literacy in India according Census of 2011, while it has the
distinction of having India's highest graduate unemployment rate at over 30 per cent. This shows
which of the following nature of growth and development?
(A) High growth and low development
(B) Low growth and low development
(C) Low growth and high development
(D) High growth and high development
Solution: B
Development means a qualitative change which is always value positive. This means that
development cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing conditions.
Development occurs when positive growth takes place. Yet, positive growth does not always
lead to development. Development occurs when there is a positive change in quality.
Growth is low because there is no employment for people and without growth there is no
development even when there is more literacy.

Q.19 Consider the following statements

1. The concept of human development was introduced by Amartya Sen

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 211
 2. Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq saw an increase in freedom (or decrease in unfreedom) as the main
objective of development.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq and Prof Amartya Sen were close friends and have worked together under
the leadership of Dr Haq to bring out the initial Human Development Reports. Both these South
Asian economists have been able to provide an alternative view of development.
A man of vision and compassion, Pakistani economist Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq created the Human
Development Index in 1990. According to him, development is all about enlarging people’s
choices in order to lead long, healthy lives with dignity. The United Nations Development
Programme has used his concept of human development to publish the Human Development
Report annually since 1990.
Dr Haq’s flexibility of mind and ability to think out of the box can be illustrated from one of his
speeches where he quoted Shaw saying, “‘You see things that are, and ask why? I dream of
things that never were, and ask why not?’
Nobel Laureate Prof Amartya Sen saw an increase in freedom (or decrease in unfreedom) as the
main objective of development. Interestingly, increasing freedoms is also one of the most
effective ways of bringing about development. His work explores the role of social and political
institutions and processes in increasing freedom.
The works of these economists are path breaking and have succeeded in bringing people to the
centre of any discussion on development.
Q.20 If a community does not stress the importance of sending its girl children to school, many
opportunities will be lost to these young women when they grow up. Their career choices will be
severely curtailed and this would affect other aspects of their lives. This affect which of the
following pillar of human development?
(A) Equity
(B) Sustainability
(C) Productivity
(D) Empowerment
Solution: B
Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human
development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environmental, financial

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 212
 and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future. Misuse of any of these resources
will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.
A good example is about the importance of sending girls to school. If a community does not
stress the importance of sending its girl children to school, many opportunities will be lost to
these young women when they grow up. Their career choices will be severely curtailed and this
would affect other aspects of their lives. So each generation must ensure the availability of
choices and opportunities to its future generations.

Q.21 It is interesting to see which group the most of the school dropouts belong to. This should

om
then lead to an understanding of the reasons for such behaviour. In India, a large number of
women and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups drop out of school.
This scenario shows lack of which of the pillar of human development?

l.c
(A) Equity

ai
(B) Sustainability
(C) Productivity
m
(D) Empowerment
9g
Solution: A
56

Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody. The opportunities
available to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian
55

case, caste. Yet this is very often not the case and happens in almost every society.
For example, in any country, it is interesting to see which group the most of the school dropouts
ar

belong to. This should then lead to an understanding of the reasons for such behaviour. In India,
a large number of women and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups
m

drop out of school. This shows how the choices of these groups get limited by not having access
ku

to knowledge.
an

Q.22 Consider the following statements regarding the approaches of human development
am

1. Under income approach the idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom
an individual enjoys.
2. Welfare Approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation which
looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 213
Q.23 Consider the following statements regarding measuring of Human development
1. Human development index rankings are based on a score between 0 to 100 that a country
earns from its record in the key areas of human development.
2. Among the indicators of HDI, access to resources is measured in terms of purchasing
power in US dollar in PPP terms.
3. The closer a score is to the higher range value, the greater is the level of human
development.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
MEASURING HUMAN DEVELOPMENT
The human development index (HDI) ranks the countries based on their performance in the key
areas of health, education and access to resources. These rankings are based on a score between 0
to 1 that a country earns from its record in the key areas of human development.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 214
The indicator chosen to assess health is the life expectancy at birth. A higher life expectancy
means that people have a greater chance of living longer and healthier lives.
The adult literacy rate and the gross enrolment ratio represent access to knowledge. The number
of adults who are able to read and write and the number of children enrolled in schools show
how easy or difficult it is to access knowledge in a particular country.
Access to resources is measured in terms of purchasing power (in U.S. dollars).
Each of these dimensions is given a weightage of 1/3. The human development index is a sum
total of the weights assigned to all these dimensions.
The closer a score is to one, the greater is the level of human development. Therefore, a score of
0.983 would be considered very high while 0.268 would mean a very low level of human
development.
The human development index measures attainments in human development. It reflects what has
been achieved in the key areas of human development. Yet it is not the most reliable measure.
This is because it does not say anything about the distribution.
The human poverty index is related to the human development index. This index measures the
shortfall in human development.

Q.24 Consider the following statements

1. Per Capita Income does not reflect the level of development
2. Generally, the size of the territory has a inverse relationship with the level of
development
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
INTERNATIONAL COMPARISONS
International comparisons of human development are interesting. Size of the territory and per
capita income are not directly related to human development. Often smaller countries have done
better than larger ones in human development. Similarly, relatively poorer nations have been
ranked higher than richer neighbours in terms of human development.
For example, Sri Lanka, Trinidad and Tobago have a higher rank than India in the human
development index despite having smaller economies. Similarly, within India, Kerala performs
much better than Punjab and Gujarat in human development despite having lower per capita
income.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 215
 Q.25 Consider the following statements with reference to Human Development report 2020
1. The 2020 report has introduced the concept of environment in the form of planetary
pressure
2. It is measured in terms of carbon dioxide emissions and material footprint.
3. Both will be measured in terms per capita only
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3

om
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

l.c
Solution: D
Human Development Index: UNDP

ai
India ranked 131 among 189 countries on the Human Development Index (HDI) for 2019,
m
slipping two places from the previous year, according to the Human Development Report (HDR)
9g
2020 released by the United Nations Development Program (UNDP).
The 2020 Report has introduced planetary pressures-adjusted Human Development Index, which
56

adjusts the standard Human Development Index (HDI) by a country’s per capita carbon dioxide
emissions and material footprint.
55

The other indices that form the part of the Report are:
ar

1. Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI),

2. Gender Development Index (GDI),
m

3. Gender Inequality Index (GII) and

ku

4. Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).

CHAPTER-5- PRIMARY ACTIVITIES
an
am

Q.26 Consider the following statements

1. Higher the latitude there is more dependency on animal for food through hunting
2. Gathering is practised in regions with harsh climatic conditions.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 216
Primitive societies depended on wild animals. People located in very cold and extremely hot
climates survived on hunting. The people in the coastal areas still catch fish though fishing has
experienced modernisation due to technological progress. Many species, now have become
extinct or endangered due to illegal hunting (poaching). The early hunters used primitive tools
made of stones, twigs or arrows so the number of animals killed was limited. Why has hunting
been banned in India?
Gathering and hunting are the oldest economic activity known. These are carried out at different
levels with different orientations.
Gathering is practised in regions with harsh climatic conditions. It often involves primitive
societies, who extract, both plants and animals to satisfy their needs for food, shelter and
clothing. This type of activity requires a small amount of capital investment and operates at very
low level of technology. The yield per person is very low and little or no surplus is produced.

Q.27 Which of the following statement correctly defines the term ‘Transhumance’?
(A) The process of migration from plain areas to pastures on mountains during winter and
again from mountain pastures to plain areas during summer
(B) The process of migration from plain areas to pastures on mountains during summers and
again from mountain pastures to plain areas during winters
(C) Practice of growing crops on higher hill slopes in summer and foothills in winter
(D) The practice of sprit worship in tribes of middle India
Solution: B
Movement in search of pastures is undertaken either over vast horizontal distances or vertically
from one elevation to another in the mountainous regions. The process of migration from plain
areas to pastures on mountains during summers and again from mountain pastures to plain areas
during winters is known as transhumance. In mountain regions, such as Himalayas, Gujjars,
Bakarwals, Gaddis and Bhotiyas migrate from plains to the mountains in summers and to the
plains from the high altitude pastures in winters. Similarly, in the tundra regions, the nomadic
herders move from south to north in summers and from north to south in winters.

Q.28 Consider the following statements

1. Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western cultures and is
practised on permanent ranches.
2. This is a specialised activity in which multiple types of animal is reared.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 217
 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Commercial Livestock Rearing
Unlike nomadic herding, commercial livestock rearing is more organised and capital intensive.
Commercial livestock ranching is essentially associated with western cultures and is practised on
permanent ranches. These ranches cover large areas and are divided into a number of parcels,
which are fenced to regulate the grazing. When the grass of one parcel is grazed, animals are
moved to another parcel. The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying
capacity of the pasture.
This is a specialised activity in which only one type of animal is reared. Important animals
include sheep, cattle, goats and horses. Products such as meat, wool, hides and skin are processed
and packed scientifically and exported to different world markets.

Q.29 Consider the following statements about Primitive subsistence agriculture

1. It is called Jhum cultivation in India
2. It is widely practised by many tribes in the tropics, especially in Africa, south and central
America and south east Asia
3. In Slash and burn cultivation ash make the soil calcareous and decrease the fertility of
soil
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Primitive Subsistence Agriculture Primitive subsistence agriculture or shifting cultivation is
widely practised by many tribes in the tropics, especially in Africa, south and central America
and south east Asia
The vegetation is usually cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the soil. Shifting
cultivation is thus, also called slash and burn agriculture. The cultivated patches are very small
and cultivation is done with very primitive tools such as sticks and hoes. After sometime (3 to 5
years) the soil looses its fertility and the farmer shifts to another parts and clears other patch of
the forest for cultivation. The farmer may return to the earlier patch after sometime. One of the
major problems of shifting cultivation is that the cycle of jhum becomes less and less due to loss
of fertility in different parcels. It is prevalent in tropical region in different names, e.g. Jhuming

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 218
 in North eastern states of India, Milpa in central America and Mexico and Ladang in Indonesia
and Malaysia.

Q.30 Consider the following statements about Intensive subsistence agriculture

1. In paddy dominated area, the yield per unit area is high along with labour productivity.
2. Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by manual
labour.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

om
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2

l.c
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B

ai
(i) Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation: This type of
m
agriculture is characterised by dominance of the rice crop. Land holdings are very small due to
9g
the high density of population. Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive
use of land. Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by
56

manual labour. Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil. In this type of
agriculture, the yield per unit area is high but per labour productivity is low.
55

(ii) Intensive subsidence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy: Due to the
difference in relief, climate, soil and some of the other geographical factors, it is not practical to
ar

grow paddy in many parts of monsoon Asia. Wheat, soyabean, barley and sorghum are grown in
northern China, Manchuria, North Korea and North Japan. In India wheat is grown in western
m

parts of the Indo-Gangetic plains and millets are grown in dry parts of western and southern
ku

India. Most of the characteristics of this type of agriculture are similar to those dominated by wet
paddy except that irrigation is often used.
an
am

Q.31 Consider the following statements about plantation agriculture

1. In plantation agriculture, a single crop is grown for the entire year.
2. This type of agriculture requires less investment than other type of agriculture
3. Major plantations are found in the temperate regions of the world.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 219
Plantation Agriculture
Plantation agriculture is a type of commercial farming in which a single crop is grown for the
entire year. This type of farming requires large amount of labour and capital.
Plantation agriculture as mentioned above was introduced by the Europeans in colonies situated
in the tropics. Some of the important plantation crops are tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil
palm, sugarcane, bananas and pineapples.
The characteristic features of this type of farming are large estates or plantations, large capital
investment, managerial and technical support, scientific methods of cultivation, single crop
specialisation, cheap labour, and a good system of transportation which links the estates to the
factories and markets for the export of the products.
The French established cocoa and coffee plantations in west Africa. The British set up large tea
gardens in India and Sri Lanka, rubber plantations in Malaysia and sugarcane and banana
plantations in West Indies. Spanish and Americans invested heavily in coconut and sugarcane
plantations in the Philippines. The Dutch once had monopoly over sugarcane plantation in
Indonesia. Some coffee fazendas (large plantations) in Brazil are still managed by Europeans.
Today, ownership of the majority of plantations has passed into the hands of the government or
the nationals of the countries concerned.

Q.32 Consider the following statements about Dairy Farming

1. It is highly capital intensive but it requires small number of labour
2. There is no off season during the year as in the case of crop raising.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Dairy Farming
 Dairy is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals. It is highly
capital intensive. Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching
machines add to the cost of dairy farming. Special emphasis is laid on cattle breeding,
health care and veterinary services.
 It is highly labour intensive as it involves rigorous care in feeding and milching. There is
no off season during the year as in the case of crop raising.
 It is practised mainly near urban and industrial centres which provide neighbourhood
market for fresh milk and dairy products. The development of transportation,

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 220
 refrigeration, pasteurisation and other preservation processes have increased the duration
of storage of various dairy products.
 There are three main regions of commercial dairy farming. The largest is North Western
Europe the second is Canada and the third belt includes South Eastern Australia, New
Zealand and Tasmania

Q.33 Consider the following statements about Mediterranean Agriculture

1. Temperature of the Mediterranean region is such that only citrus fruits can be grown.
2. More valuable crops such as fruits and vegetables are grown in winters when there is
great demand in European and North American markets.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Mediterranean Agriculture
Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialised commercial agriculture. It is practised in the
countries on either side of the Mediterranean Sea in Europe and in north Africa from Tunisia to
Atlantic coast, southern California, central Chile, south western parts of South Africa and south
and south western parts of Australia. This region is an important supplier of citrus fruits.
Viticulture or grape cultivation is a speciality of the Mediterranean region. Best quality wines in
the world with distinctive flavours are produced from high quality grapes in various countries of
this region. The inferior grapes are dried into raisins and currants. This region also produces
olives and figs. The advantage of Mediterranean agriculture is that more valuable crops such as
fruits and vegetables are grown in winters when there is great demand in European and North
American markets.

Q.34 Consider the following statements with reference to truck farming

1. This region’s farmers are specialized in vegetable only
2. The distance of truck farms from the market is governed by the distance that a truck can
cover overnight, hence the name.
3. It requires usage of heavy machinery for ploughing and distribution of seeds.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 221
 (C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
 The regions where farmers specialise in vegetables only, the farming is know as truck
farming. The distance of truck farms from the market is governed by the distance that a
truck can cover overnight, hence the name truck farming.
 At first this type of farming depended entirely on local or regional markets.
 As the use of railroads and large-capacity trucks expanded and refrigerated carriers were
introduced, truck farms spread to the cheaper lands of the West and South, shipping
seasonal crops to relatively distant markets where their cultivation is limited by climate.

om
 Centers for specific crops vary with the season. Among the most important truck crops
are tomatoes, lettuce, melons, beets, broccoli, celery, radishes, onions, cabbage, and
strawberries.

l.c
ai
Q.35 Consider the following statements about cooperative farming
m
1. The main idea behind cooperative farming is based on social ownership of the means of
9g
production.
2. Cooperative farming provides greater bargaining power and better terms in the purchase
56

or leasing of land
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
55

(A) Only 1
ar

(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
m

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B
ku

Co-operative Farming
an

 A group of farmers form a co-operative society by pooling in their resources voluntarily

for more efficient and profitable farming. Individual farms remain intact and farming is a
am

matter of cooperative initiative.

 Co-operative societies help farmers, to procure all important inputs of farming, sell the
products at the most favourable terms and help in processing of quality products at
cheaper rates.
 Co-operative movement originated over a century ago and has been successful in many
western European countries like Denmark, Netherlands, Belgium, Sweden, Italy etc. In
Denmark, the movement has been so successful that practically every farmer is a member
of a co-operative.

Q.36 Consider the following statements

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 222
 1. Kolkhoz was a model of cooperative farming introduced in erstwhile Soviet Union.
2. Under collective farming the farmers used to pool in all their resources like land,
livestock and labour
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Collective Farming
The basic principle behind this type of farming is based on social ownership of the means of
production and collective labour. Collective farming or the model of Kolkhoz was introduced in
erstwhile Soviet Union to improve upon the inefficiency of the previous methods of agriculture
and to boost agricultural production for self-sufficiency.
The farmers used to pool in all their resources like land, livestock and labour. However, they
were allowed to retain very small plots to grow crops in order to meet their daily requirements.

Q.37 Consider the following statements with reference to mining

1. In shaft method of mining overhead costs such as safety precautions and equipment is
relatively low.
2. TAMRA portal is related to mining operations
3. Mining Surveillance System is a pan-India surveillance network to check illegal mining
using latest satellite technology. It is developed under the Digital India Programme
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
MINING
The discovery of minerals in the history of human development, is reflected in many stages in
terms of copper age, bronze age and iron age. The use of minerals in ancient times was largely
confined to the making of tools, utensils and weapons. The actual development of mining began
with the industrial revolution and its importance is continuously increasing.
Factors Affecting Mining Activity
The profitability of mining operations thus, depends on two main factors:

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 223
 (i) Physical factors include the size, grade and the mode of occurrence of the deposits.
(ii) Economic factors such as the demand for the mineral, technology available and used,
capital to develop infrastructure and the labour and transport costs.
Methods of Mining
Depending on the mode of occurrence and the nature of the ore, mining is of two types: surface
and underground mining. The surface mining also known as open-cast mining is the easiest and
the cheapest way of mining minerals that occur close to the surface. Overhead costs such as
safety precautions and equipment is relatively low in this method. The output is both large and
rapid.

Q.38 Consider the following statements

1. Shaft method requires specially designed lifts, drills, haulage vehicles, ventilation system
for safety and efficient movement of people and material.
2. Developed economies are retreating from mining, processing and refining stages of
production due to high labour costs
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
When the ore lies deep below the surface, underground mining method (shaft method) has to be
used. In this method, vertical shafts have to be sunk, from where underground galleries radiate to
reach the minerals.
Minerals are extracted and transported to the surface through these passages. It requires specially
designed lifts, drills, haulage vehicles, ventilation system for safety and efficient movement of
people and material. This method is risky. Poisonous gases, fires, floods and caving in lead to
fatal accidents. Have you ever read about mine fires and flooding of coal mines in India?
The developed economies are retreating from mining, processing and refining stages of
production due to high labour costs, while the developing countries with large labour force and
striving for higher standard of living are becoming more important. Several countries of Africa
and few of south America and Asia have over fifty per cent of the earnings from minerals alone.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 224
 CHAPTER-6- SECONDARY ACTIVITIES

Q.39 Consider the following statements with reference to Foot Loose Industries
1. These are less dependent on specific raw material, especially weight losing ones.
2. It does not need skilled workers as the industrial process is primitive
3. These are environment-friendly industries as the process involved in these industries have
a negligible carbon footprint.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

om
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3

l.c
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Footloose industry
ai
m
 Footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any
9g
location without effect from factors of production such as resources, land, labour, and
capital.
56

 These industries often have spatially fixed costs, which means that the costs of the
products do not change despite where the product is assembled. Diamonds, computer
55

chips, and mobile manufacturing are some examples of footloose industries. These are
generally non-polluting industries.
ar

 Non-footloose industries generally require raw material availability within a time limit to
make products. The sugar industry, jute industry, and tea industry are examples of non-
m

footloose industries.
ku

 Footloose industries can also refer to the processing of products that are neither weight-
gaining, nor weight-losing, and face significant transportation costs. An example of the
an

footloose processing industry is honey. The weight of the raw honey and wax is the same
as the finishing product. So, whether the honey is processed near the source of the raw
am

materials or at the location of the final product demand, the transportation costs are the
same.
The key characteristics of a footloose industry are:

 These industries require small plant size compared to heavy and small industries.
 These are less dependent on specific raw material, especially weight losing ones. Most of
the raw materials are small and light and can be transported easily.
 It needs skilled workers as the industrial process is advanced and major work needs high-
quality precision.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 225
  Like the inputs, the output is lightweight and can be easily transported to the markets.
Most of the footloose industries produce low volume and high-value outputs.
 These are environment-friendly industries as the process involved in these industries have
a negligible carbon footprint.
 It prefers location which is peaceful and cost friendly as to attract the human capital.
 Also, location with a good connectivity of roads, railways, telecommunication, airways
etc. are preferred to facilitate quick movement of skilled workers and high-value outputs.

Q.40 Consider the following statements about large scale industrial region
1. The Ruhr region is responsible for more than 3/4 of Germany’s total steel production.
2. These industries are now known as smokestack industries and leather industry is one
among them
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Traditional Large-Scale Industrial Regions
These are based on heavy industry, often located near coal-fields and engaged in metal smelting,
heavy engineering, chemical manufacture or textile production. These industries are now known
as smokestack industries. Traditional industrial regions can be recognised by:
 High proportion of employment in manufacturing industry. High-density housing, often of
inferior type, and poor services. Unattractive environment, for example, pollution, waste
heaps, and so on.
 Problems of unemployment, emigration and derelict land areas caused by closure of
factories because of a worldwide fall in demand.
The Ruhr Coal-field, Germany
This has been one of the major industrial regions of Europe for a long time. Coal and iron and
steel formed the basis of the economy, but as the demand for coal declined, the industry started
shrinking. Even after the iron ore was exhausted, the industry remained, using imported ore
brought by waterways to the Ruhr. The Ruhr region is responsible for 80 per cent of Germany’s
total steel production.
Changes in the industrial structure have led to the decay of some areas, and there are problems of
industrial waste and pollution. The future prosperity of the Ruhr is based less on the products of
coal and steel, for which it was initially famous, and more on the new industries like the huge

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 226
Opel car assembly plant, new chemical plants, universities. Out of-town shopping centres have
appeared resulting in a ‘New Ruhr’ landscape.

Q.41 Consider the following statements with reference to Iron and Steel Industry
1. India surpassed China as the second top steel producer in 2019.
2. It is basic industry because it provides raw material for other industries such as machine
tools used for further production
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Iron and Steel Industry
The iron and steel industry form the base of all other industries and, therefore, it is called a basic
industry. It is basic because it provides raw material for other industries such as machine tools
used for further production. It may also be called a heavy industry because it uses large
quantities of bulky raw materials and its products are also heavy.
Iron is extracted from iron ore by smelting in a blast furnace with carbon (coke) and limestone.
The molten iron is cooled and moulded to form pig iron which is used for converting into steel
by adding strengthening materials like manganese.
The large integrated steel industry is traditionally located close to the sources of raw materials –
iron ore, coal, manganese and limestone – or at places where these could be easily brought, e.g.
near ports. But in mini steel mills access to markets is more important than inputs. These are less
expensive to build and operate and can be located near markets because of the abundance of
scrap metal, which is the main input. Traditionally, most of the steel was produced at large
integrated plants, but mini mills are limited to just one-step process –steel making – and are
gaining ground.

Q.42 Which of the following statement is incorrect among the given options?
(A) Cheap water transport has facilitated the jute mill industry along the Hugli.
(B) The development of hydro-electricity and petroleum reduced, to a great extent, the
importance of coal energy as a locational factor for industry.
(C) Sugar, cotton textiles and vegetable oils are footloose industries.
(D) Port towns in India have attracted industries.
Solution: C

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 227
 Self-explanatory

CHAPTER-7- TERTIARY AND QUATERNARY ACTIVITIES

Q.42 Consider the following statements with reference to tertiary activities

1. It involves the commercial output of services rather than the production of tangible
goods.
2. They are not directly involved in the processing of physical raw materials.

om
3. It depends on skilled and semi-skilled workers
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

l.c
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3

ai
(C) 2 and 3 m
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
9g

Tertiary activities include both production and exchange. The production involves the
56

‘provision’ of services that are ‘consumed’. The output is indirectly measured in terms of wages
and salaries. Exchange, involves trade, transport and communication facilities that are used to
55

overcome distance. Tertiary activities, therefore, involve the commercial output of services
rather than the production of tangible goods. They are not directly involved in the processing of
physical raw materials. Common examples are the work of a plumber, electrician, technician,
ar

launderer, barber, shopkeeper, driver, cashier, teacher, doctor, lawyer and publisher etc. The
m

main difference between secondary activities and tertiary activities is that the expertise provided
by services relies more heavily on specialised skills, experience and knowledge of the workers
ku

rather than on the production techniques, machinery and factory processes.

an

Q.43 Consider the following statements with reference to marketing centers

am

1. In rural marketing centres personal and professional services are not well-developed.
2. Periodic markets in rural areas are held on specified dates and held at same place.
3. Urban marketing centres provide ordinary goods and services as well as many of the
specialised goods and services required by people
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 228
Solution: B
Trade and commerce
Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements. These are quasi-urban centres. They serve as
trading centres of the most rudimentary type. Here personal and professional services are not
well-developed. These form local collecting and distributing centres. Most of these have mandis
(wholesale markets) and also retailing areas. They are not urban centres per se but are significant
centres for making available goods and services which are most frequently demanded by rural
folk.
Periodic markets in rural areas are found where there are no regular markets and local periodic
markets are organised at different temporal intervals. These may be weekly, biweekly markets
from where people from the surrounding areas meet their temporally accumulated demand.
These markets are held on specified dates and move from one place to another. The shopkeepers
thus, remain busy on all the days while a large area is served by them.
Urban marketing centres have more widely specialised urban services. They provide ordinary
goods and services as well as many of the specialised goods and services required by people.
Urban centres, therefore, offer manufactured goods as well as many specialised markets develop,
e.g. markets for labour, housing, semi or finished products. Services of educational institutions
and professionals such as teachers, lawyers, consultants, physicians, dentists and veterinary
doctors are available.

Q.44 Which of the following statements defines the term isochrone line?
(A) A line representing points of equal mean winter temperature.
(B) A line joins places equal in terms of the time taken to reach them
(C) A line representing points of equal transport costs from the source of a raw material.
(D) A line representing points of equal transport costs for products from production to
markets.
Solution: B

 Isocheim: A line representing points of equal mean winter temperature.

 Isodapane: A line representing points of equal transport costs for products from
production to markets.
 Isotim: A line representing points of equal transport costs from the source of a raw
material.
 Isochrone: Lines are drawn on a map to join places equal in terms of the time taken to
reach them.

Q.45 Consider the following statements with reference to tourism

1. It has become the world’s single largest tertiary activity in total registered jobs
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 229
 2. It is an isolated industry and does not depends on complementary or supplementary
industry
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Tourism
Tourism is travel undertaken for purposes of recreation rather than business. It has become the
world’s single largest tertiary activity in total registered jobs (250 million) and total revenue (40
per cent of the total GDP). Besides, many local persons, are employed to provide services like
accommodation, meals, transport, entertainment and special shops serving the tourists. Tourism
fosters the growth of infrastructure industries, retail trading, and craft industries (souvenirs). In
some regions, tourism is seasonal because the vacation period is dependent on favourable
weather conditions, but many regions attract visitors all the year round.

Q.46 Consider the following factors plays role in tourist attractions

1. Climate
2. Landscape
3. History and Art
4. Disaster event
5. Culture
Choose the correct code from list below
(A) 1, 2, 4, and 5
(B) 1, 2, 3, and 5
(C) 2, 3 and 5
(D) 3 and 5
Solution: B
Tourist Attractions
 Climate: Most people from colder regions expect to have warm, sunny weather for beach
holidays. This is one of the main reasons for the importance of tourism in Southern
Europe and the Mediterranean lands. The Mediterranean climate offers almost
consistently higher temperatures, than in other parts of Europe, long hours of sunshine
and low rainfall throughout the peak holiday season. People taking winter holidays have
specific climatic requirements, either higher temperatures than their own homelands, or
snow cover suitable for skiing.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 230
  Landscape: Many people like to spend their holidays in an attractive environment, which
often means mountains, lakes, spectacular sea coasts and landscapes not completely
altered by man.
 History and Art: The history and art of an area have potential attractiveness. People visit
ancient or picturesque towns and archaeological sites, and enjoy exploring castles,
palaces and churches.
 Culture and Economy: These attract tourists with a penchant for experiencing ethnic
and local customs. Besides, if a region provides for the needs of tourists at a cheap cost, it
is likely to become very popular. Home-stay has emerged as a profitable business such as
heritage homes in Goa, Madikere and Coorg in Karnataka.

om
Q.47 Which of the following activity is Quaternary Activities among the following activity?

l.c
(A) Data analyst
(B) University teaching

ai
(C) Printing magazine m
(D) Senior civil servant
9g
Solution: B
QUATERNARY ACTIVITIES
56

What do a CEO of an MNC in Copenhagen, at New York and a medical transcriptionist at

55

Bangalore have in common? All these people work in a segment of the service sector that is
knowledge oriented. This sector can be divided into quaternary and quinary activities.
ar

Quaternary activities involve some of the following: the collection, production and dissemination
of information or even the production of information. Quaternary activities centre around
m

research, development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised
knowledge and technical skills.
ku

QUINARY ACTIVITIES
an

The highest level of decision makers or policy makers perform quinary activities. These are
subtly different from the knowledge based industries that the quinary sector in general deals
am

with.
Data analyst and Senior civil servant are quinary activities
Printing magazine is secondary activity

Q.48 Consider the following statements about Quaternary activities

1. Quaternary activities cannot be outsourced.
2. Quaternary activities are services that focus on the creation and interpretation of new and
existing ideas.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 231
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
 Like some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can also be outsourced
 Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation and interpretation of new and
existing ideas.
Outsourcing
Outsourcing or contracting out is giving work to an outside agency to improve efficiency and to
reduce costs. When outsourcing involves transferring work to overseas locations, it is described
by the term off - shoring, although both off - shoring and outsourcing are used together. Business
activities that are outsourced include information technology (IT), human resources, customer
support and call centre services and at times also manufacturing and engineering.
Data processing is an IT related service easily be carried out in Asian, East European and
African countries, In these countries IT skilled staff with good English language skills are
available at lower wages than those in the developed countries. Thus, a company in Hyderabad
or Manila does work on a project based on GIS techniques for a country like U.S.A or Japan.
Overhead costs are also much lower making it profitable to get job-work carried out overseas,
whether it is in India, China or even a less populous country like Botswana in Africa.

Q.49 Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) With the work available through outsourcing, the migration in outsourcing countries may
come down.
(B) Outsourcing countries are facing resistance from job-seeking youths in their respective
countries.
(C) Knowledge processing outsourcing is an alternative to outsourcing
(D) KPOs have better business opportunities as compared to BPOs.
Solution: C
Outsourcing has resulted in the opening up of a large number of call centres in India, China,
Eastern Europe, Israel, Philippines and Costa Rica. It has created new jobs in these countries.
Outsourcing is coming to those countries where cheap and skilled workers are available. These
are also out-migrating countries. With the work available though outsourcing, the migration in
these countries may come down. Outsourcing countries are facing resistance from job-seeking
youths in their respective countries. The comparative advantage is the main reason for continuing
outsourcing. New trends in quinary services include knowledge processing outsourcing (KPO)
and ‘home shoring’, the latter as an alternative to outsourcing. The KPO industry is distinct from

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 232
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) as it involves highly skilled workers. It is information
driven knowledge outsourcing. KPO enables companies to create additional business
opportunities. Examples of KPOs include research and development (R and D) activities, e-
learning, business research, intellectual property (IP) research, legal profession and the banking
sector.

CHAPTER-8- TRANSPORT AND COMMUNICATION

Q.50 Consider the following statements

1. Assured and speedy transportation, along with efficient communication, promote
cooperation and unity among scattered peoples.
2. Land, water, air and pipeline are used for inter-regional and intra-regional transport, and
each one carries both passengers and freight.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
TRANSPORT
Transport is a service or facility for the carriage of persons and goods from one place to the other
using humans, animals and different kinds of vehicles. Such movements take place over land,
water and air. Roads and railways form part of land transport; while shipping and waterways and
airways are the other two modes. Pipelines carry materials like petroleum, natural gas, and ores
in liquidified form.
Moreover, transportation is an organised service industry created to satisfy the basic needs of
society. It includes transport arteries, vehicles to carry people and goods, and the organisation to
maintain arteries, and to handle loading, unloading and delivery. Every nation has developed
various kinds of transportation for defence purposes. Assured and speedy transportation, along
with efficient communication, promote cooperation and unity among scattered peoples.
MODES OF TRANSPORTATION
The principal modes of world transportation, as already mentioned are land, water, air and
pipelines. These are used for inter-regional and intra-regional transport, and each one (except
pipelines) carries both passengers and freight. The significance of a mode depends on the type of
goods and services to be transported, costs of transport and the mode available. International
movement of goods is handled by ocean freighters. Road transport is cheaper and faster over
short distances and for door-todoor services. Railways are most suited for large volumes of bulky

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 233
 materials over long distances within a country. High-value, light and perishable goods are best
moved by airways. In a well-managed transport system, these various modes complement each
other.
Q.51 Consider the following statements about roads
1. The world’s total motorable road length is only about 15 million km, of which China
accounts for 33 per cent.
2. The highest road density and the highest number of vehicles are registered in North
America continent compared to Western Europe.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

om
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2

l.c
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

ai
Solution: B
Roads
m
9g
Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railways. Freight transport
by road is gaining importance because it offers door-to-door service. But unmetalled roads,
56

though simple in construction, are not effective and serviceable for all seasons. During the rainy
season these become unmotorable and even the metalled ones are seriously handicapped during
heavy rains and floods. In such conditions, the high embankment of rail-tracks and the efficient
55

maintenance of railway transport service, is an effective solution. But the rail kilometrage being
small cannot serve the needs of vast and developing countries at a low cost. Roads, therefore,
ar

play a vital role in a nation’s trade and commerce and for promoting tourism. The quality of the
m

roads varies greatly between developed and developing countries because road construction and
maintenance require heavy expenditure. In developed countries good quality roads are universal
ku

and provide long-distance links in the form of motorways, autobahns (Germany), and inter– state
highways for speedy movement. Lorries, of increasing size and power to carry heavy loads, are
an

common. But unfortunately, the world’s road system is not well developed.
am

The world’s total motorable road length is only about 15 million km, of which North America
accounts for 33 per cent. The highest road density and the highest number of vehicles are
registered in this continent compared to Western Europe.

Q.52 Consider the following statements with reference to Orient Express

1. This is a railway line which runs from Paris to Yerevan
2. There is a proposal to build a Trans–Asiatic Railway linking Istanbul with Bangkok via
Iran, Pakistan, India, Bangladesh and Myanmar.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 234
 (A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
The Orient Express
This line runs from Paris to Istanbul passing through Strasbourg, Munich, Vienna, Budapest and
Belgrade. The journey time from London to Istanbul by this Express is now reduced to 96 hours
as against 10 days by the sea-route. The chief exports on this rail-route are cheese, bacon, oats,
wine, fruits, and machinery.
There is a proposal to build a Trans–Asiatic Railway linking Istanbul with Bangkok via Iran,
Pakistan, India, Bangladesh and Myanmar.

Q.53 Consider the following statements

1. Sea route as compared to land and air, ocean transport is a cheaper means of haulage
2. Suez Canal had been constructed in Egypt between Port Said in the north and Port Suez
in the south linking the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Sea Routes
The oceans offer a smooth highway traversable in all directions with no maintenance costs. Its
transformation into a routeway by sea-going vessels is an important development in human
adaptation to the physical environment. Compared to land and air, ocean transport is a cheaper
means of haulage (carrying of load) of bulky material over long distances from one continent to
another.
Modern passenger liners (ships) and cargo ships are equipped with radar, wireless and other
navigation aids. The development of refrigerated chambers for perishable goods, tankers and
specialised ships has also improved cargo transport. The use of containers has made cargo
handling at the world’s major ports easier.
The Suez Canal
This canal had been constructed in 1869 in Egypt between Port Said in the north and Port Suez in
the south linking the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. It gives Europe a new gateway to the

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 235
Indian Ocean and reduces direct sea-route distance between Liverpool and Colombo compared to
the Cape of Good Hope route. It is a sea-level canal without locks which is about 160 km and 11
to 15 m deep. About 100 ships travel daily and each ship takes 10-12 hours to cross this canal.
The tolls are so heavy that some find it cheaper to go by the longer Cape Route whenever the
consequent delay is not important. A railway follows the canal to Suez, and from Ismailia there
is a branch line to Cairo. A navigable fresh-water canal from the Nile also joins the Suez Canal
in Ismailia to supply fresh-water to Port Said and Suez.

Q.54 Which of the following statement is correct about inland waterway?

(A) The development of inland waterways is dependent on the navigability width and depth
of the channel, and transport technology in use only.
(B) Making laws on shipping and navigation on inland waterways comes under State List.
(C) Inland waterways lost importance because of competition from railways, lack of water
due to diversion for irrigation, and their poor maintenance.
(D) Inland Water Transport (IWT) carries less than 1 per cent of India’s organized freight
traffic
Solution: C
Inland Waterways
Rivers, canals, lakes and coastal areas have been important waterways since time immemorial.
Boats and steamers are used as means of transport for cargo and passengers. The development of
inland waterways is dependent on the navigability width and depth of the channel, continuity in
the water flow, and transport technology in use. Rivers are the only means of transport in dense
forests. Very heavy cargo like coal, cement, timber and metallic ores can be transported through
inland waterways. In ancient times, riverways were the main highways of transportation as in the
case of India. But they lost importance because of competition from railways, lack of water due
to diversion for irrigation, and their poor maintenance.
The significance of rivers as inland waterways for domestic and international transport and trade
has been recognised throughout the developed world. Despite inherent limitations, many rivers
have been modified to enhance their navigability by dredging, stabilising river banks, and
building dams and barrages for regulating the flow of water. The following river waterways are
some of the world’s important highways of commerce.
Inland Water Transport (IWT) in India:
 It carries less than 2 per cent of India’s organized freight traffic and negligible passenger
traffic.
 The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is mandated to develop and maintain
infrastructure for fairway, navigational aids and terminals.
 The IWAI also provides an enabling environment for private investment in cargo vessels
and operational services.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 236
  The varying and limited depths due to the meandering and braiding of alluvial rivers and
the erosion of their banks causing excessive siltation, lack of cargo earmarked for IWT,
non-mechanized navigation lock systems and insuffi cient unloading facility at terminals
hinder the use of IWT by shippers.
 Under Entry 24 of the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, the central
government can make laws on shipping and navigation on inland waterways which are
classified as national waterways by Parliament by law.

Q.55 Consider the following statements with reference to Rhine waterway

om
1. The Rhine waterway flows through Germany and the Netherlands.
2. It connects the industrial areas of Ukraine, Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium, and
the Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea Route.

l.c
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

ai
(A) Only 1 m
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
9g
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
56

The Rhine Waterways

55

The Rhine flows through Germany and the Netherlands. It is navigable for 700 km from
Rotterdam, at its mouth in the Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland. Ocean-going vessels can
ar

reach up to Cologne. The Ruhr river joins the Rhine from the east. It flows through a rich
coalfield and the whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area. Dusseldorf is the
m

Rhine port for this region. Huge tonnage moves along the stretch south of the Ruhr. This
ku

waterway is the world’s most heavily used. Each year more than 20,000 ocean-going ships and
2,00,000 inland vessels exchange their cargoes. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland,
an

Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea Route.
am

Q.56 Consider the following statements with reference to Danube and Volga Waterway
1. The Danube is the second largest and the longest non-Russian river in Europe.
2. Danube provides a navigable waterway of 11,200 km and drains into the Caspian Sea.
3. The Volga-Moscow Canal connects it with the Moscow region and the Volga-Don Canal
with the Black Sea.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 237
 (D) 1 and 3
Solution: D
The Volga Waterway
Russia has a large number of developed waterways, of which the Volga is one of the most
important. It provides a navigable waterway of 11,200 km and drains into the Caspian Sea. The
Volga-Moscow Canal connects it with the Moscow region and the Volga-Don Canal with the
Black Sea.
The Danube Waterway
This important inland waterway serves Eastern Europe. The Danube river rises in the Black
Forest and flows eastwards through many countries. It is navigable up to Taurna Severin. The
chief export items are wheat, maize, timber, and machinery.
The Danube is the second largest and the longest non-Russian river in Europe.

Q.57 Consider the following statements about Air transport

1. U.S.A. alone accounts for 60 per cent of the airways of the world.
2. At present no place in the world is more than 35 hours away.
3. Poor visibility due to clouds, fog and mist hinders air transport and India is no exception
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
AIR TRANSPORT
Air transport is the fastest means of transportation, but it is very costly. Being fast, it is preferred
by passengers for long-distance travel. Valuable cargo can be moved rapidly on a world-wide
scale. It is often the only means to reach inaccessible areas. Air transport has
brought about a connectivity revolution in the world. The frictions created by mountainous snow
fields or inhospitable desert terrains have been overcome. The accessibility has increased. The
airplane brings varied articles to the Eskimos in Northern Canada unhindered by the frozen
ground. In the Himalayan region, the routes are often obstructed due to landslides, avalanches or
heavy snow fall. At such times, air travel is the only alternative to reach a place. Airways also
have great strategic importance. The air strikes by U.S. and British forces in Iraq bears testimony
to this fact. The airways network is expanding very fast.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 238
The manufacturing of aircrafts and their operations require elaborate infrastructure like hangars,
landing, fuelling, and maintenance facilities for the aircrafts. The construction of airports is also
very expensive and has developedmore in highly industrialised countries where there is a large
volume of traffic. At present no place in the world is more than 35 hours away. This startling fact
has been made possible due to people who build and fly airplanes. Travel by air can now be
measured by hours and minutes instead of years and months. Frequent air services are available
to many parts of the world. Although, U.K. pioneered the use of commercial jet transport, U.S.A.
developed largely post-War international civil aviation. Today, more than 250 commercial
airlines offer regular services to different parts of the world. Recent developments can change
the future course of air transport. Supersonic aircraft, cover the distance between London and
New York within three and a half hours.
Inter-Continental Air Routes
In the Northern Hemisphere, there is a distinct east-west belt of inter-continental air routes.
Dense network exists in Eastern U.S.A., Western Europe and Southeast Asia. U.S.A. alone
accounts for 60 per cent of the airways of the world. New York, London, Paris, Amsterdam,
Frankfurt Rome, Moscow, Karachi, New Delhi, Mumbai, Bangkok, Singapore, Tokyo, San
Francisco, Los Angeles and Chicago are the nodal points where air routes converge or radiate to
all continents.
Africa, Asiatic part of Russia and South America lack air services. There are limited air services
between 10-35 latitudes in the Southern hemisphere due to sparser population, limited landmass
and economic development.
Factors for development of air transport in India
 The weather conditions in India are also quite congenial to air transport. Poor visibility
due to clouds, fog and mist hinders air transport but India is lucky to have clear weather
for most part of the year except for a short duration in rainy season.
 The central location of India which has Europe West Asia on the western side and South
East Asia and East Asia on the Eastern side.
 India has extensive plains which provide suitable landing sites in India.
 The need of airways is high due to the larger size of India.

Q.58 Big Inch is one such famous pipeline, which carries petroleum from the oil wells is located
in which of the following area?
(A) Central Asia
(B) Arab Peninsula
(C) Europe
(D) America
Solution: D
PIPELINES

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 239
 Pipelines are used extensively to transport liquids and gases such as water, petroleum and natural
gas for an uninterrupted flow. Water supplied through pipelines is familiar to all. Cooking gas or
LPG is supplied through pipelines in many parts of the world. Pipelines can also be used to
transport liquidified coal. In New Zealand, milk is being supplied through pipelines from farms
to factories. In U.S.A. there is a dense network of oil pipelines from the producing areas to the
consuming areas. Big Inch is one such famous pipeline, which carries petroleum from the oil
wells of the Gulf of Mexico to the North-eastern States. About 17 per cent of all freight per
tonne-km. is carried through pipelines in U.S.A.

om
Q.59 Consider the following statement about satellite communication

l.c
1. Satellite communication have rendered the unit cost and time of communication invariant
in terms of distance

ai
2. INSAT system is one of the largest domestic communication satellite systems in Asia-
Pacific region
m
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
9g

(A) Only 1
56

(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
55

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: C
ar

Satellite Communication
m

Today Internet is the largest electronic network on the planet connecting about 1,000 million
people in more than 100 countries. Communication through satellites emerged as a new area in
ku

communication technology since the 1970s after U.S.A. and former U.S.S.R. pioneered space
research. Artificial satellites, now, are successfully deployed in the earth’s orbit to connect even
an

the remote corners of the globe with limited onsite verification. These have rendered the unit cost
and time of communication invariant in terms of distance. This means it costs the same to
am

communicate over 500 km as it does over 5,000 km via satellite.

India has also made great strides in satellite development. Aryabhatt was launched on 19 April
1979, Bhaskar-I in 1979 and Rohini in 1980. On 18 June 1981, APPLE (Arian Passenger
Payload Experiment) was launched through Arian rocket. Bhaskar, Challenger and INSAT I-B
have made long distance communication, television and radio very effective. Today weather
forecasting through television is a boon.
The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system is one of the largest domestic communication
satellite systems in Asia-Pacific region with nine operational communication satellites placed in
Geo-stationary orbit.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 240
Q.60 The Big Trunk Route, which covers one-fourth of the World's foreign trade runs through
(A) The South Pacific Ocean
(B) The North Atlantic Ocean
(C) The Indian Ocean
(D) The North Pacific Ocean
Solution: B
The Northern Atlantic Sea Route
This links North-eastern U.S.A. and Northwestern Europe, the two industrially developed
regions of the world. The foreign trade over this route is greater than that of the rest of the world
combined. One fourth of the world’s foreign trade moves on this route. It is, therefore, the
busiest in the world and otherwise, called the Big Trunk Route. Both the coasts have highly
advanced ports and harbour facilities.

Q.61 Trans-Continental Stuart Highway connects which of the following regions?

(A) Vancouver in British Columbia to St. John’s City in Newfoundland
(B) Edmonton (Canada) to Anchorage (Alaska)
(C) Moscow to Vladivostok
(D) Darwin and Melbourne
Solution: D
Highways
Highways are metalled roads connecting distant places. They are constructed in a manner for
unobstructed vehicular movement. As such these are 80 m wide, with separate traffic lanes,
bridges, flyovers and dual carriage ways to facilitate uninterrupted traffic flow. In developed
countries, every city and port town is linked through highways.
In North America, highway density is high, about 0.65 km per sq km. Every place is within 20
km distance from a highway. Cities located on the Pacific coast (west) are well-connected with
those of the Atlantic Coast (east). Likewise, the cities of Canada in the north are linked with
those of Mexico in the south. The Trans- 2021- Canadian Highway links Vancouver in British
Columbia(west coast) to St. John’s City in Newfoundland (east coast) and the Alaskan Highway
links Edmonton (Canada) to Anchorage (Alaska).
The Pan-American Highway, a large portion of which has been constructed, will connect the
countries of South America, Central America and U.S.A.-Canada. The Trans-Continental Stuart
Highway connects Darwin (north coast) and Melbourne via Tennant Creek and Alice Springs in
Australia.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 241
Europe has a large number of vehicles and a well-developed highway network. But highways
face a lot of competition from railways and waterways.
In Russia, a dense highway network is developed in the industrialised region west of the Urals
with Moscow as the hub. The important Moscow-Vladivostok Highway serves the region to the
east. Due to the vast geographical area, highways in Russia are not as important as railways.

CHAPTER-9- INTERNATIONAL TRADE

Q.62 Consider the following statements with reference to Silk Route
1. It connects Rome to India along the 6,000 km route.
2. The traders transported Chinese silk, Roman wool and precious metals and many other
high value commodities from intermediate points in China, Persia and Central Asia.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
The Silk Route is an early example of long distance trade connecting Rome to China – along the
6,000 km route. The traders transported Chinese silk, Roman wool and precious metals and
many other high value commodities from intermediate points in India, Persia and Central Asia.

Q.63 Consider the following statements

1. Sea route was discovered during the medieval period.
2. The European colonialism began ‘slave trade’ a new form of trade of human beings in
sixteenth century.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
 During the medieval period, the sea route was discovered.
 Fifteenth century onwards, the European colonialism began ‘slave trade’ a new form of
trade of human beings.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 242
  The slave trade was pretty popular and a lucrative business for more than two hundred
years; however, over a period of time, it was abolished - first in Denmark in 1792, and
then Great Britain in 1807, and the United States in 1808.
 During the World Wars I and II, countries practicing international trade imposed trade
taxes and quantitative restrictions.
 However, after the war period, organizations like General Agreement for Tariffs and
Trade i.e. GATT (which later became the World Trade Organization i.e. WTO), helped in
reducing these tariffs imposed on trade of goods and services.

Q.64 Which of the following factors contribute in increase of international trade?

om
1. The difference in national resources
2. Population aspects

l.c
3. Stage of economic development
4. The extent of foreign investment

ai
5. Cultural development m
Choose the correct code from the list below
9g
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(B) 2, 3 , 4 and5
56

(C) 1, 3, 4, and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
55

Solution: D
ar

Basis of International Trade

m

(i) Difference in national resources: The world’s national resources are unevenly distributed
because of differences in their physical make up i.e. geology, relief soil and climate.
ku

(a) Geological structure: It determines the mineral resource base and topographical
an

differences ensure diversity of crops and animals raised. Lowlands have greater
agricultural potential. Mountains attract tourists and promote tourism.
am

(b) Mineral resources: They are unevenly distributed the world over. The availability of
mineral resources provides the basis for industrial development.
(c) Climate: It influences the type of flora and fauna that can survive in a given region. It
also ensures diversity in the range of various products, e.g. wool production can take
place in cold regions, bananas, rubber and cocoa can grow in tropical regions.
(ii) Population factors: The size, distribution and diversity of people between countries affect
the type and volume of goods traded.
(a) Cultural factors: Distinctive forms of art and craft develop in certain cultures which are
valued the world over, e.g. China produces the finest porcelains and brocades. Carpets of

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 243
 Iran are famous while North African leather work and Indonesian batik cloth are prized
handicrafts.
(b) Size of population: Densely populated countries have large volume of internal trade but
little external trade because most of the agricultural and industrial production is
consumed in the local markets. Standard of living of the population determines the
demand for better quality imported products because with low standard of living only a
few people can afford to buy costly imported goods.
(iii) Stage of economic development: At different stages of economic development of countries,
the nature of items traded undergo changes. In agriculturally important countries, agro products
are exchanged for manufactured goods whereas industrialised nations export machinery and
finished products and import food grains and other raw materials.
(iv) Extent of foreign investment: Foreign investment can boost trade in developing countries
which lack in capital required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering,
lumbering and plantation agriculture. By developing such capital intensive industries in
developing countries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create
markets for their finished products. This entire cycle steps up the volume of trade between
nations.
(v) Transport: In olden times, lack of adequate and efficient means of transport restricted trade
to local areas. Only high value items, e.g. gems, silk and spices were traded over long distances.
With expansions of rail, ocean and air transport, better means of refrigeration and preservation,
trade has experienced spatial expansion.

Q.65 Consider the following statements

1. The total value of goods traded in a given period of time is known as the volume of trade.
2. If the value of imports is greater than the value of a country’s exports, the country has a
negative balance of trade.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
 The total value of goods and services traded in a given period of time is known as the
volume of trade.
 The balance of trade is calculated by taking the difference of the goods and services
imported and exported by a country to other countries in a given period of time
(normally, in one financial year).

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 244
  If the value of imports is greater than the value of a country’s exports, the country has a
negative or unfavorable balance of trade.
 On the other hand, if the value of exports is greater than the value of imports, then the
country has a positive or favorable balance of trade.

Q.66 Consider the following statements

1. The practice of selling a commodity in two or more countries at a price that differs for
reasons not related to costs is called dumping.
2. In the WTO, when countries agree to open their markets for goods or services, they
“bind” their commitments.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
 Bilateral and Multilateral are the two major types of international trade.
 Bilateral trade is practiced between two countries on their personal terms and conditions.
 Multilateral trade is practiced among many nations (one country can trade with many
countries); and, as per the WTO agreement, every WTO member country has to follow
the MFN Principle (Most Favored Nation).
 The MFN principle restrains the discrimination trade rules and promotes a uniform
trading rule with every member country.
 The act of opening up economies by removing trade barriers for trading purpose is known
as free trade or trade liberalization.
 The practice of selling a commodity in two or more countries at a price that differs for
reasons not related to costs is called dumping.
 Therefore, some countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; because along
with free trade, dumped goods (of cheaper prices) can harm the domestic producers.
 After World War II (1948), some of the developed countries founded an international
organization namely General Agreement for Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
 However, from January 1, 1995, GATT was transformed into the World Trade
Organization (WTO).
 WTO sets the rules for the global trading system and resolves disputes if any arises
between its member nations.
 Headquarters of WTO is located in Geneva, Switzerland.
 WTO sets the rules for the global trading system and resolves disputes if any arises
between its member nations. In the WTO, when countries agree to open their markets for
goods or services, they “bind” their commitments. For goods, these bindings amount to
ceilings on customs tariff rates.
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 245
 Q.67 The port, which is used as the collection center i.e. the goods are brought from different
centers (or countries) for export is called?
(A) Commercial port
(B) Out port
(C) Port of call
(D) Entrepot port
Solution: D

 The chief gateways of the world of international trade are the harbors and ports.

om
 The ports provide facilities of docking, loading, unloading, and the storage facilities for
cargo.

l.c
 The port specialized in bulk cargo-like grain, sugar, ore, oil, chemicals, and similar
materials is known as an industrial port.

ai
 The port that handles general cargo-packaged products and manufactured goods is known
as a commercial port.
m
 The port, which is located away from the sea coast is known as an inland port. For
9g
example, Manchester port, Kolkata port, Memphis port, etc.
 The port, which is located away from the actual ports into the deep water is known as an
56

out port. For example, for example, Athens and its out port Piraeus in Greece.
 The port which is originally developed as calling point on main sea routes where ships
55

used to anchor for refueling, watering, and taking food items is known as a port of call.
For example, Aden, Honolulu, and Singapore.
ar

 The port, which is used as the collection center i.e. the goods are brought from different
centers (or countries) for export is known as an entrepot port. For example, Rotterdam for
m

Europe, and Copenhagen for the Baltic region.

ku
an

Q.68 Consider the following statements with reference to Commonwealth of Independent States
am

1. India is a part of Commonwealth of Independent States

2. It’s headquarter is in Belarus
3. It's area of cooperation includes integration and cooperation on matters of economics,
defence and foreign policy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 246
Q.69 Consider the following statements with reference to Packet Station
1. These stations are exclusively concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail
across water bodies covering short distances.
2. These stations occur in pairs located in such a way that they face each other across the
water body
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Packet Station: These are also known as ferry ports. These packet stations are exclusively
concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short
distances. These stations occur in pairs located in such a way that they face each other across the
water body, e.g. Dover in England and Calais in France across the English Channel.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 247
 CHAPTER-10- HUMAN SETTLEMENTS

Q.70 1991 census of India defines urban settlements, which of the following conditions are laid
down are correct
1. Have a minimum population of 10,000 persons
2. At least 75 per cent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural activities
3. Density of population of at least 400 persons per square kilometers are urban
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
1991 census of India defines urban settlements as “All places which have municipality,
corporation, cantonment board or notified town area committee and have a minimum population
of 5000 persons, at least 75 per cent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits
and a density of population of at least 400 persons per square kilometers are urban.”

Q.71 The settlement in which houses are constructed along a road, railway line, river, canal edge
of a valley, or along a levee is known as
(A) Linear Pattern
(B) Rectangular Pattern
(C) Circular Pattern
(D) T-shaped Pattern
Solution: A
 The settlement in which houses are constructed along a road, railway line, river, canal
edge of a valley, or along a levee is known as Linear Pattern.
 The settlements in which houses are constructed in a rectangular shape is known as
Rectangular Pattern. Such kind of settlements is found in plain areas or/and in wide inter-
montane valley.
 The settlements in which houses are constructed in a circular shape is known as Circular
Pattern. Such kind of settlements is found around lakes, tanks, or a planned village.
 The settlements in which houses are constructed in a star shape is known as Star like
Pattern. Such kind of settlements is found around the points where several roads cross
each other (making star shape).
 The settlements in which houses are constructed at the tri-junctions of the roads is known
as T-shaped Pattern. Such kind of settlements is found along the road, which meets with

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 248
 another road at the dead end (the straight going road ends) and bifurcates left and right
(T-Shape).
 The settlement in which houses are constructed along the straight going road, which
further bifurcates into two roads (similar to Y shape) is known as Y-Shape pattern.

Q.72 Consider the following statements

1. Miami and Panaji are an example of administrative town
2. The name Addis Ababa, capital of Ethiopia was planned by an American landscape
architect, Walter Burley Griffin.

om
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1

l.c
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2

ai
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 m
Solution: D
9g
Classification of Urban Settlement
Depending upon the functionality of the urban settlement, towns are classified as −
56

 Administrative Towns,
55

 Commercial Towns,
 Cultural Towns,
ar

 Recreational Towns, and

 Industrial Towns.
m

 The settlements that established for the administrative purpose or having largely
administrative function are known as administrative towns. For example, such as
ku

Washington D.C., New Delhi, Canberra, Paris, Beijing, Addis Ababa, and London etc.
an

 The settlements that facilitate commercial opportunities are known as trading and
commercial towns. For example, Agra, Lahore, Baghdad as an important transport node;
Manchester and St Louis in land centers; Winnipeg and Kansas City as agricultural
am

market towns; Frankfurt and Amsterdam as banking and financial centers; etc.
 The settlements established because of religious adherence are known as cultural or
religious towns. For example, Jerusalem, Mecca, Jagannath Puri, Madurai, and Varanasi
etc.
 The settlements established for the recreational purpose are known as recreational towns.
For example, Miami, Panaji, etc.
 The settlements established because of industrial development are known as industrial
towns. For example, Pittsburgh, Jamshedpur, etc.
Other Facts

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 249
  The name Addis Ababa, capital of Ethiopia, indicates (as Addis means New and Ababa
means Flower) as a ‘new’ city, which was established in 1878.
 Canberra was planned as the capital of Australia in 1912 by an American landscape
architect, Walter Burley Griffin.

Q.73 Arrange the following types of urban settlement in order increasing number of population
1. Cities
2. Conurbation
3. Town
4. Megalopolis
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 3-1-2-4
(C) 3-1-4-2
(D) 1-2-4-3
Solution: B
 Depending on the size and the services available and functions rendered, urban centers
are categorized as town, city, million city, conurbation and megalopolis.
 Town is the smallest point in the hierarchy of urban settlements; its population is
comparatively greater than the village as well as its functionality is to serve as the market
and other professional services to the villagers.
 Cities are much larger than towns and have a greater number of economic functions.
 The cities tend to have transport terminals, major financial institutions, and regional
administrative offices.
 The cities with a population of more than one million are known as million cities.
 The term conurbation was coined by Patrick Geddes in 1915 for a large area of urban
development that resulted from the merging of two or more independent towns or cities.
For example, Greater London, Manchester, Chicago, and Tokyo.
 Used by Jean Gottman in 1957, Megalopolis is a Greek word meaning “great city.”
 Megalopolis signifies ‘super-metropolitan’ region extending, as union of conurbations.
For example, the urban landscape stretching from Boston in the north to south of
Washington DC.

Q.74 The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has outlined priorities as part of its
‘Urban Strategy’. Which of the following is/are correct?
1. Increasing Shelter for the urban poor.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 250
 2. Provision of basic urban services such as Education, Primary Health care, Clean Water
and Sanitation.
3. Improving women’s access to Basic Services and government facilities.
4. Upgrading ‘Energy’ use and alternative ‘Transport’ systems.
5. Complete phase out of Air Pollution.
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: C
Urban Strategy
The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has outlined these priorities as part of its
‘Urban Strategy’.
 Increasing ‘Shelter’ for the urban poor.
 Provision of basic urban services such as ‘Education’, ‘Primary Health care’, ‘Clean
Water and Sanitation’.
 Improving women’s access to ‘Basic Services’ and government facilities.
 Upgrading ‘Energy’ use and alternative ‘Transport’ systems.
 Reducing ‘Air Pollution’.

Q.75 Consider the following statements

1. A large area of urban development that resulted from the merging of two or more
independent towns or cities is called conurbation
2. Longevity dividend implies that the elderly continues to contribute significantly for an
unprecedented period of time.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
 When people live longer, it offers society a chance to reap a ‘longevity’ dividend. This
implies that the elderly continue to contribute significantly for an unprecedented period

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 251
 of time. However, in order to reap that benefit, it is necessary that the challenges of an
ageing population and understood and effective policy are made in time.
 The term conurbation was coined by Patrick Geddes in 1915 for a large area of urban
development that resulted from the merging of two or more independent towns or cities.
For example, Greater London, Manchester, Chicago, and Tokyo.

India – People and Economy

CHAPTER-1- POPULATION - Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition

om
Q.1 Consider the following statements with reference to spatial distribution of population

l.c
3. Climate along with terrain and availability of water largely determines the pattern of the
population distribution

ai
4. Area of Jharkhand has higher concentration of population as compare to North India
plains due to availability of minerals and energy resources
m
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
9g

(I) Only 1
56

(J) Only 2
(K) Both 1 and 2
55

(L) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A
ar

Uneven spatial distribution of population in India suggests a close relationship between

population and physical, socioeconomic and historical factors. As far as the physical factors are
m

concerned, it is clear that climate along with terrain and availability of water largely determines
ku

the pattern of the population distribution. Consequently, we observe that the North Indian Plains,
deltas and Coastal Plains have higher proportion of population than the interior districts of
an

southern and central Indian States, Himalayas, some of the north eastern and the western states.
However, development of irrigation (Rajasthan), availability of mineral and energy resources
am

(Jharkhand) and development of transport network (Peninsular States) have resulted in moderate
to high concentration of population in areas which were previously very thinly populated.

Q.2 Which of the following are socio-economic factors of population distribution?

1. Evolution of settled agriculture
2. Development of transport network
3. Industrialisation
4. Health facilities and education
Choose the correct code from the list below

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 252
 (A) 1, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: B

 Evolution of settled agriculture- Historical factor

 Development of transport network – Socio-economic factor
 Industrialisation- Socio-economic factor
 Health facilities and education- Socio-economic factor
Among the socio-economic and historical factors of distribution of population, important ones
are evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development; pattern of human settlement;
development of transport network, industrialisation and urbanisation. It is observed that the
regions falling in the river plains and coastal areas of India have remained the regions of larger
population concentration

Q.3 Consider the following statements

1. The density of population in India (as per census 2011) there has been a steady increase
of more than 200 persons per sq km over the last 50 years
2. Agricultural density is equals to total population / net cultivated area
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Density of Population
Density of population, is expressed as number of persons per unit area. It helps in getting a better
understanding of the spatial distribution of population in relation to land. The density of
population in India (2011) is 382 persons per sq km. There has been a steady increase of more
than 200 persons per sq km over the last 50 years as the density of population increased from 117
persons/ sq km in 1951 to 382 persons/sq km in 2011.

 Physiological density = total population / net cultivated area

 Agricultural density = total agricultural population / net cultivable area
 Agricultural population includes cultivators and agricultural labourers and their family
members.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 253
Q.4 India has an average of 382 persons per sq km of population density as per Census 2011,
which of the following state(s) has/have population density less than national average?
1. Maharashtra
2. Jharkhand
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Kerala
5. Odisha
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2, 4, and 5
(C) 1, 3 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Solution: C

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 254
 Q.5 Match the following population growth phase with their most reasonable description.
15. 1901-1921 A. Period of steady population growth
16. 1921-1951 B. Downward trend of crude birth rate due to increase in the mean
age at marriage, improved quality of life
17. 1951-1981 C. Both the birth rate and death rate were high
18. Post 1981 till present D. Period of population explosion
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1.A,2.B,3.C,4.D
(B) 1.C,2.D,3.C,4.B

om
(C) 1.A,2.D,3.D,4.C
(D) 1.C,2.A,3.D,4.B

l.c
Solution: D
Phase I : The period from 1901-1921 is referred to as a period of stagnant or stationary phase of

ai
growth of India’s population, since in this period growth rate was very low, even recording a
m
negative growth rate during 1911-1921. Both the birth rate and death rate were high keeping the
rate of increase low. Poor health and medical services, illiteracy of people at large and inefficient
9g
distribution system of food and other basic necessities were largely responsible for a high birth
and death rates in this period.
56

Phase II : The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as the period of steady population growth. An
55

overall improvement in health and sanitation throughout the country brought down the mortality
rate. At the same time better transport and communication system improved distribution system.
The crude birth rate remained high in this period leading to higher growth rate than the previous
ar

phase. This is impressive at the backdrop of Great Economic Depression, 1920s and World War
m

II.
ku

Phase III : The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India,
which was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the
an

country. The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 per cent. It is in this period, after the
Independence, that developmental activities were introduced through a centralised planning
am

process and economy started showing up ensuring the improvement of living condition of people
at large. Consequently, there was a high natural increase and higher growth rate. Besides,
increased international migration bringing in Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalies and even people
from Pakistan contributed to the high growth rate.
Phase IV : In the post 1981 till present, the growth rate of country’s population though remained
high, has started slowing down gradually. A downward trend of crude birth rate is held
responsible for such a population growth. This was, in turn, affected by an increase in the mean
age at marriage, improved quality of life particularly education of females in the country.

Q.6 Consider the following statement

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 255
 1. All Union Territories, have smaller proportion of rural population
2. The Christian population is distributed mostly in urban areas of the country.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
The Union Territories, on the other hand, have smaller proportion of rural population, except
Dadra and Nagar Haveli (53.38 per cent).
The Christian population is distributed mostly in rural areas of the country. The main
concentration is observed along the Western coast around Goa, Kerala and also in the hill states
of Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Chotanagpur area and Hills of Manipur.

Q.7 Consider the following statements about classification of Modern Indian Languages
1. Austro-Asiatic family speech area confined to Meghalaya and Nicobar Islands
2. Indo-Aryan people do not have any presence in south India
3. Tibeto – Myanmari a sub family of Sino-Tibetan is mostly confined to North-eastern
region
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(E) 1 and 2
(F) 2 and 3
(G) 1 and 3
(H) 2 only
Solution: A

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 256
Q.8 Which of the following is the correct sequence of religious communities in the order of their
decreasing population?
(A) Christians> Buddhists > Sikhs > Jains
(B) Christians> Sikhs> Buddhists> Jains
(C) Buddhists > Christians > Sikhs > Jains
(D) Christians > Sikhs > Jains > Buddhists
Solution: B

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 257
 om
l.c
ai
CHAPTER-2- MIGRATION - Types, Causes and Consequences
m
9g

Q.9 Consider the following statement with reference to steams of migration

56

1. Under intrastate migrants, the stream was dominated by male migrants.

2. Women predominate the rural to urban stream of inter-state migration due to marriage
55

customs
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
ar

(A) Only 1
m

(B) Only 2
ku

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2
an

Solution: C
In India, during 2001, out of 315 million migrants, enumerated on the basis of the last residence,
am

98 million had changed their place of residence in the last ten years. Out of these, 81 million
were intrastate migrants. The stream was dominated by female migrants. Most of these were
migrants related to marriage.
It is clearly evident that females predominate the streams of short distance rural to rural
migration in both types of migration. Contrary to this, men predominate the rural to urban stream
of inter-state migration due to economic reasons.

Q.10 Census 2001 has recorded that more than 5 million people have migrated to India from
other countries. Consider the following statement

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 258
 1. Largest number of people migrated from Bangladesh
2. The second largest immigration come from Nepal
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Census 2001 has recorded that more than 5 million person have migrated to India from other
countries. Out of these, 96 per cent came from the neighbouring countries: Bangladesh (3.0
million) followed by Pakistan (0.9 million) and Nepal (0.5 million). Included in this are 0.16
million refugees from Tibet, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Iran, and Myanmar.
As far as emigration from India is concerned it is estimated that there are around 20 million
people of Indian Diaspora, spread across 110 countries.
Q.11 Consider the following statement with reference to Spatial Variation in Migration
1. Bihar had the largest number of net out-migrants from the state.
2. In India, internal migration is far greater than an external migration.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Some states like Maharashtra, Delhi, Gujarat and Haryana attract migrants from other states such
as Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, etc. Maharashtra occupied first place in the list with 2.3 million net in-
migrants, followed by Delhi, Gujarat and Haryana. On the other hand, Uttar Pradesh (-2.6
million) and Bihar (-1.7 million) were the states, which had the largest number of net out-
migrants from the state. Among the urban agglomeration (UA), Greater Mumbai received the
higher number of in migrants. Intra-states migration constituted the largest share in it. These
differences are largely due to the size of the state in which these Urban Agglomeration are
located.
In India, internal migration (fueled by an increasing rate of urbanization and rural-urban wage
difference) is far greater than an external migration.

Q.12 Which of the following is/are among the Push factors for migration?
1. Unemployment
2. Shadow democracy

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 259
 3. Protection of minorities
4. High soil erosion
5. Demographic ageing
6. Lack of natural resources
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2, 4, and 6
(B) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
(C) 1, 4, 5 and 6
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Solution: A
Push-factors (Countries of origin)
1. Demographic factors and social infrastructure
 Population growth, young age structure
 Inadequate educational institutions, medicare and social security
2. Economic factors
 Unemployment, low wages
 Poverty, low consumption and living standard
3. Political factors
 Dictatorships, shadow democracy, bad governance, political upheaval
 Conflict, (civil) war, terrorism, human rights violation, oppression of minorities
4. Ecological factors
 Ecologic disaster, desertification, lack of natural resources, water shortage, soil erosion,
lack of environmental policy
5. Migrant flows and migrant stocks
 Decisions of the family or the clan
 Information flows, media

Q.13 Which of the following is/are among the Pull factors for migration?
1. Population decline
2. Pluralism
3. High living standard
4. Peace
5. Demographic ageing
6. Low information flows

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 260
 Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2, 4, and 6
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
(C) 1, 3 4, and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Solution: B
Pull-factors (Countries of destination)
1. Demographic factors and social infrastructure
 Stable population, population decline, demographic ageing

om
 Welfare state benefits, educational institutions, medicare, social security
2. Economic factors

l.c
 Labour demand, high wages

ai
 Welfare, high consumption and living standard
m
3. Political factors
9g
 Democracy, rule of law, pluralism, political stability
 Peace, security, protection of human and civil rights, protection of minorities
56

4. Ecological factors
55

 Better environment, environmental policy, protection of natural resources and

environmental protection
ar

5. Migrant flows and migrant stocks

m

 Diaspora, ethnic community

ku

 Information flows, media

an

Q.14 Consider the following statements

am

1. About 65 per cent of females move out from their parental houses following their
marriage. This is the most important cause in the rural areas of all over India.
2. Migration is a response to the uneven distribution of opportunities over space.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 261
Work and employment have remained the main cause for male migration (38 per cent) while it is
only three per cent for the females. Contrary to this, about 65 per cent of females move out from
their parental houses following their marriage. This is the most important cause in the rural areas
of India except in Meghalaya where reverse is the case.
Consequences of Migration
Migration is a response to the uneven distribution of opportunities over space. People tend to
move from place of low opportunity and low safety to the place of higher opportunity and better
safety. This, in turn, creates both benefits and problems for the areas, people migrate from and
migrate to. Consequences can be observed in economic, social, cultural, political and
demographic terms.

Q.15 Consider the following statements with reference to consequences of migration

1. Development of unhygienic slums in industrially
2. Leads to over-exploitation of natural resources
3. Make imbalance in the demographic structure along with sex and composition
4. Increase family unity and help in family planning
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Consequences of Migration:
Migration is a consequence of the uneven – distribution of opportunities over space. People tends
to move from a place of low opportunity and low safety to a place of higher opportunity and
better safety. Results can be observed in economic, social, cultural, political and, demographic
terms.
Economic Consequences
These consequences are positive as well as negative:

 Positive Remittances are important for the economy of a country. As migrants sent
remittances to their family members for food, repayment of loans/debts, treatment,
marriages, children’s education, agricultural inputs, construction of houses, etc.
 Green Revolution in the rural areas of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh was a
success because of the migrants from rural areas of ‘ Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 262
  Negative: Overcrowding due to unregulated migration. Development of unhygienic slums
in industrially developed states like Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and
Delhi.
Demographic consequences
These consequences can be both positive or negative:

 Positive Redistributing of the population within a country. The process of urbanization is

dependent on rural-urban migration.
 Negative Imbalance in demographic structure. Age and skill selective out-migration
created an imbalance in the demographic structure of rural areas. Age and sex
composition are seriously affected in the states of Uttarakhand, Rajasthan, Madhya
Pradesh, and Eastern Maharashtra due to migration. The same situation happens in the
recipient states.
Social consequences
These consequences are both positive as well as negative:
 Positive Migrants work as an agent of social change. They diffuse new ideas of science
and technology, family planning, girl’s education, etc from one place to another place.
People also bring different cultures with them which helps to break the narrow
considerations and broaden up the mental horizon of the people.
 Negative Anonymity increases and creates a social vacuum and a feeling of ejection. This
feeling ultimately results in anti-social activities such as crime, drug abuse, theft, etc.
Environmental consequences
 Negative Large-scale rural-urban migration leads to overcrowding in the cities and puts
tremendous pressure on the infrastructure.
 It also results in an unplanned and haphazard growth of cities in which slums and shanty
colonies are very common.
 Overcrowding is also related to over-exploitation of natural resources and cities are
facing serious problems of water shortage, air and water pollution, problem of sewage
disposal, and management of solid wastes.
Other consequences
 When male migrants leave their wives in rural areas, this puts extra physical and mental
pressure on women.
 Migration of women for education and employment gives them more freedom, on the
other hands it also adds to their vulnerability

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 263
 CHAPTER-3- Human Development
Q.16 Consider the following statements
1. Present nature of development has not been able to address the issues of social injustice,
regional imbalances and environmental degradation
2. The prevalent western view of development includes the human development
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2

om
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B

l.c
It can be said that the present development has not been able to address the issues of social
injustice, regional imbalances and environmental degradation. On the contrary, it is being widely

ai
considered as the prime cause of the social distributive injustices, deterioration in the quality of
m
life and human development, ecological crisis and social unrest. Does development create,
reinforce and perpetuate these crises? Thus, it was thought to take up human development as a
9g
separate issue against the prevalent western views of development which considers development
as the remedy to all the ills including human development, regional disparities and
56

environmental crisis.
55

Q.17 Consider the following statements about growth and development

ar

1. Growth is quantitative while development is qualitative concept

m

2. Under growth concept, economic growth and development are interdependent.

ku

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
an

(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
am

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: A
Growth
 Increase in market output leads to economic growth
 It is a quantitative concept
 Economic growth is one dimensional in nature
 This is one of the major concerns of developed countries
 Economic growth and development are not interdependent.
 Indicators of Economic growth- Real GDP, Real per capita income, National income etc.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 264
Development
 Economic development can be measured in terms of welfare values and market output
 It is a qualitative concept
 Economic development is multidimensional in nature
 This is a major concern of developing countries
 Economic development can only happen if economic growth takes place.
 Indicators of economic development – Human Development Index, Physical Quality of
Life Index, Net Economic Welfare (NEW)

Q.18 Human Development Report is published by which of the following organisation?

(A) IMF
(B) World Bank
(C) UNDP
(D) Asian Development Bank
Solution: C
Concerted efforts were made to look at development critically at various times in the past. But,
most systematic effort towards this was the publication of the First Human Development Report
by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 1990. Since then, this organisation has
been bringing out World Human Development Report every year. This report does not only
define human development, make amendments and changes its indicators but also ranks all the
countries of the world based on the calculated scores. According to the Human Development
Report 1993, “progressive democratisation and increasing empowerment of people are seen as
the minimum conditions for human development”. Moreover, it also mentions that “development
must be woven around people, not the people around development” as was the case previously.

Q.19 Which of the are following consider the pillars of Human Development?
1. Equity
2. Productivity
3. Inclusiveness
4. Sustainability
5. Empowerment
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 5

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 265
Solution: B
THE FOUR PILLARS OF HUMAN DEVELOPMENT
1. Equity
2. Productivity
3. Sustainability
4. Empowerment

Q.20 Consider the following statements

1. Gross National Product (GNP) and its per capita availability are taken as measures to
assess the resource base/ endowment of any country.
2. The GDP of a country does not fully reflect the quality of life of a country
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Rich resource base and access to these resources by all, particularly the poor, down trodden and
the marginalised is the key to productivity, well-being and human development. Gross National
Product (GNP) and its per capita availability are taken as measures to assess the resource base/
endowment of any country.
The GDP of a country does not fully reflect the quality of life of a country. There are other
factors like housing, access to public transport, air quality and access to drinking water which
also determines the standard of life.

Q.21 According to Census of 2011, India has a poverty rate of 21.9% for the country as a whole.
Which of the following states has/have poverty rate greater than the national average?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Gujarat
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Chhattisgarh
5. Meghalaya
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 266
 (D) 3, 4 and 5
Solution: B

om
l.c
ai
m
9g
56
55
ar
m
ku
an
am

Q.22 Consider the following statement about the objectives of Swachh Bharat Mission
1. Making India open defecation-free and achieving 100 per cent scientific management of
municipal solid waste
2. Promoting the use of non-convention energy resources, like wind and solar energy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 267
 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)
The release of toxic and non-biodegradable wastes from industries and urban sewerages, and
open defecation, etc., have created many health hazards. The Government of India has initiated
many steps to address these problems and the Swachh Bharat Mission is one of these. A healthy
mind lives in a healthy body and for a healthy body, clean environment, particularly, clean air,
water, noise-free ambience and hygienic surrounding are pre-requisites. Municipal waste,
industrial effluents and pollutants generated by transport, etc., are major sources of pollution in
urban India. Open defecation in rural areas and in urban slums are a major source of pollution.
The Government of India with its flagship programme Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) aims at a
pollution-free environment. Its objectives are :
 making India open defecation-free and achieving 100 per cent scientific management of
municipal solid waste, construction of individual household latrines (IHHL), community
toilet (CT) seats and public toilet (PT) seats;
 making provisions for the supply of clean energy fuel LPG to all households in rural
India to reduce domestic pollution;
 providing potable drinking water to every household to control the spread of water-borne
diseases; and
 promoting the use of non-convention energy resources, like wind and solar energy.

Q.23 The findings of 2011 Census of India are very disturbing particularly in case of child sex
ratio in the age group of 0-6 years. Consider the following statements
1. Sex-specific abortions
2. Social status of women
3. Lack of empowerment of women
4. Two child policy under
5. Poor reach of girl selective government policies
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: D
The major causes of the declining child sex ratio in India are

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 268
  Female Foeticide: The rapid spread and use of ultrasound as well as amniocentesis for
sex determination are playing vital role in female foetus-induced abortions which is
called as High-tech sexism by Amartya Sen.
 Female Infanticide: In India there is still preference for male child and in some areas of
the country the female infanticide is still common. At least 117 million girls around the
world demographically go “missing” due to sex-selective abortions according to United
Nations Populations fund.
 Education: Due to illiteracy, people are unaware about the power and role of women in
today's era. The role of education has a great influence on the sex ratio scenario of India.
Child marriages are a common part of the Indian society. Most of the girls are prone to
the issue of child marriage at a very early age. This makes them to stay away from the
education and are compelled to take the responsibilities of the household.
 Poverty: Poverty is one of the factors which is responsible for the declining sex ratio.
States like Tamil Nadu have a high sex ratio but the poverty rate is low. There are states
wherein due to poverty, a lot of girls are denied of nutritious food. This deprives the
women and girl child from a living a healthy life.
 Social status of women: In most parts of India, women are merely considered as an
object. People are worried about the dowry issue with the birth of a girl child. Due to
financial problem, most of the families in rural areas prefer male child over female.
 Lack of empowerment of women: There is a lack of empowerment of women especially
in the rural areas. Women do not enjoy opportunities as men do. Due to lack of
education, women are unable to establish their roles in many places. The state of Uttar
Pradesh has become like a grave for girls.
 Male domination: Majority of the places in India follow the patriarchal system. In India,
males are considered to be the only bread earners. The methods of sex determination and
female foeticide are adopted which is main reason of declining number of females
especially in North India.
 Infant and Maternal Mortality: Infant mortality rate is the number of death of babies
before the age of one. Due to female foeticide, the sex ratio declines terribly. Maternal
mortality also contributes to the declining sex ratio as most of the women die during the
childbirth due to improper care and less facilities.
 Impact of Population Policies: Under family planning policies, families want one or two
children and generally prefer male child over female child. It is also true in case of China
which had adopted one-child policy for long and has huge male population now.

Q.24 Population growth is potentially exponential while the growth of the food supply or other
resources is linear, which eventually reduces living standards to the point of triggering a
population die off. Which of the person had given this theory?
(A) Friedrich Engels
(B) Thomas Malthus
(C) Clyde E. Dankert

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 269
 (D) Beatrice Webbs
Solution: B
Thomas Malthus was an 18th-century British philosopher and economist noted for the
Malthusian growth model, an exponential formula used to project population growth. The theory
states that food production will not be able to keep up with growth in the human population,
resulting in disease, famine, war, and calamity.

Q.25 Consider the following statements with reference to approaches to Human Development

om
1. According to income approach, the level of income does not reflect the level of freedom
an individual has
2. Welfare approach looks people are not participants but only passive recipients

l.c
3. Under Basic Needs approach, the question of human choices is ignored

ai
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
m
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
9g
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
56

Solution: B
55

Income Approach
ar

 This approach is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human

development is seen as linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the
m

level of freedom an individual has.

ku

 Higher the level of income, the more is the level of human development.
Welfare Approach
an

 This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all developmental

am

activities.
 The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health and basic
amenities.
 People are not participants but only passive recipients.
 The government is solely responsible for increasing levels of human development by
maximizing expenditure on welfare.
Basic Needs Approach
 This approach was initially proposed by the International Labor Organization (ILO).
 Six basic needs i.e. health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were
identified.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 270
  The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic
needs of specific sections.
Capability Approach
 This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen.
 Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is
the key to increasing human development.

CHAPTER-4- Human Settlements

Q.26 Consider the following statements

1. In India compact or clustered village is a rather universal feature, particularly in the
northern plains.
2. Defence against thefts and robberies is one of the factors responsible for having different
types of rural settlements in India
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
In India compact or clustered village of a few hundred houses is a rather universal feature,
particularly in the northern plains. However, there are several areas, which have other forms of
rural settlements. There are various factors and conditions responsible for having different types
of rural settlements in India. These include: (i) physical features – nature of terrain, altitude,
climate and availability of water (ii) cultural and ethnic factors – social structure, caste and
religion (iii) security factors – defence against thefts and robberies. Rural settlements in India
can broadly be put into four types:
• Clustered, agglomerated or nucleated,
• Semi-clustered or fragmented,
• Hamleted, and
• Dispersed or isolated.

Q.27 Which of the following factors and conditions is/are responsible for having different types
of rural settlements in India?
1. Altitude of location

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 271
 2. Caste and religion
3. Availability of Kirana Shop
4. Availability of water
5. Forest for fuel woods
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 2, and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: B
There are various factors and conditions responsible for having different types of rural
settlements in India. These include: (i) physical features – nature of terrain, altitude, climate and
availability of water (ii) cultural and ethnic factors – social structure, caste and religion (iii)
security factors – defence against thefts and robberies.

Q.28 Consider the following statements given below and find the type of rural settlement
1. The closely built-up area and its intervening streets present some recognizable pattern or
geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc.
2. In this type of village, the general living area is distinct and separated from the
surrounding farms, barns and pastures.
3. In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has necessitated this type of settlement for maximum
utilization of available water resources.
Select the correct option from the list given below
(A) Clustered Settlements
(B) Semi-Clustered Settlements
(C) Hamleted Settlements
(D) Dispersed Settlements
Solution: A
Clustered Settlements
The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built up area of houses. In this type of
village the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and
pastures. The closely built-up area and its intervening streets present some recognisable pattern
or geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc. Such settlements are generally found
in fertile alluvial plains and in the northeastern states. Sometimes, people live in compact village
for security or defence reasons, such as in the Bundelkhand region of central India and in
Nagaland. In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has necessitated compact settlement for maximum
utilisation of available water resources.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 272
 Q.29 Consider the following statements
1. In hamleted settlements one or more sections of the village society choose or is forced to
live a little away from the main cluster or village.
2. Semi-clustered units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in various
parts of the country.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2

om
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

l.c
Solution: D
Semi-Clustered Settlements

ai
Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted
m
area of dispersed settlement. More often such a pattern may also result from segregation or
9g
fragmentation of a large compact village. In this case, one or more sections of the village society
choose or is forced to live a little away from the main cluster or village. In such cases, generally,
56

the land-owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village, whereas
people of lower strata of society and menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village.
55

Such settlements are widespread in the Gujarat plain and some parts of Rajasthan.
Hamleted Settlements
ar

Sometimes settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other
m

bearing a common name. These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in
various parts of the country. This segmentation of a large village is often motivated by social and
ku

ethnic factors. Such villages are more frequently found in the middle and lower Ganga plain,
Chhattisgarh and lower valleys of the Himalayas.
an
am

Q.30 Consider the following statements

1. Extreme dispersion of settlement is often caused by extremely fragmented nature of the
terrain and land resource base of habitable areas.
2. Hilly areas usually have Hamleted Settlements
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 273
Solution: A
Dispersed Settlements
Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets
of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills with farms or pasture on the slopes. Extreme
dispersion of settlement is often caused by extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land
resource base of habitable areas. Many areas of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and
Kerala have this type of settlement.

Q.31 Consider the following statements about classification of towns

1. Majority of Indian urbanization is under class I town and cities
2. Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are called
metropolitan cities
3. An Urban Agglomeration must consist of at least a statutory town and its total population
(i.e. all the constituents put together) should not be less than 10,000 as per the 2001
Census.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Classification of Towns on the basis of Population Size
Census of India classifies urban centres into six classes. Urban centre with population of more
than one lakh is called a city or class I town. Cities accommodating population size between one
to five million are called metropolitan cities and more than five million are mega cities. Majority
of metropolitan and mega cities are urban agglomerations. An urban agglomeration may consist
of any one of the following three combinations: (i) a town and its adjoining urban outgrowths,
(ii) two or more contiguous towns with or without their outgrowths, and (iii) a city and one or
more adjoining towns with their outgrowths together forming a contiguous spread
It is evident that more than 60 per cent of urban population in India lives in Class I towns. Out of
468 cities, 53 cities/ urban agglomerations are metropolitan cities. Six of them are mega cities
with population over five million each. More than one-fifth (21.0%) of urban population lives in
these mega cities.
Urban Agglomeration (UA): An urban agglomeration is a continuous urban spread constituting
a town and its adjoining outgrowths (OGs), or two or more physically contiguous towns together
with or without outgrowths of such towns. An Urban Agglomeration must consist of at least a

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 274
statutory town and its total population (i.e. all the constituents put together) should not be less
than 20,000 as per the 2001 Census.

Q.32 Agra is a city in Uttar Pradesh, as per functional classification of towns, it came under
which of the following type of towns?
(A) Garrisson Cantonment towns
(B) Industrial towns
(C) Transport Cities
(D) Commercial towns
Solution: C
Functional Classification of Towns
Apart from their role as central or nodal places, many towns and cities perform specialised
services. Some towns and cities specialise in certain functions and they are known for some
specific activities, products or services. However, each town performs a number of functions. On
the basis of dominant or specialised functions, Indian cities and towns can be broadly classified
as follows:
• Administrative towns and cities: Towns supporting administrative headquarters of
higher order are administrative towns, such as Chandigarh, New Delhi, Bhopal, Shillong,
Guwahati, Imphal, Srinagar, Gandhinagar, Jaipur, Chennai, etc.
• Industrial towns: Industries constitute prime motive force of these cities, such as
Mumbai, Salem, Coimbatore, Modinagar, Jamshedpur, Hugli, Bhilai, etc.
• Transport Cities: They may be ports primarily engaged in export and import activities
such as Kandla, Kochchi, Kozhikode, Vishakhapatnam, etc., or hubs of inland transport,
such as Agra, Dhulia, Mughalsarai, Itarsi, Katni, etc.
• Commercial towns: Towns and cities specialising in trade and commerce are kept in this
class. Kolkata, Saharanpur, Satna, etc., are some examples.
• Mining towns: These towns have developed in mineral rich areas such as Raniganj,
Jharia, Digboi, Ankaleshwar, Singrauli, etc.
• Garrisson Cantonment towns: These towns emerged as garrisson towns such as
Ambala, Jalandhar, Mhow, Babina, Udhampur, etc.

Q.33 Which of the following statement is incorrect about the definition and criteria for urban
area as per Census of 2011?
(A) A minimum population of 5,000
(B) At least 3/4 of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits
(C) Presence of municipality, corporation, etc.
(D) A density of population of should be at least more than national average

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 275
 Solution: D
For the Census of India 2011, the definition of urban area is as follows;
1. All places with a municipality, corporation, cantonment board or notified town area
committee, etc.
2. All other places which satisfied the following criteria:
i) A minimum population of 5,000;
ii) At least 75 per cent of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural
pursuits; and
iii) A density of population of at least 400 persons per sq. km.

om
CHAPTER-5- Land Resources and Agriculture

l.c
ai
Q.34 Consider the following statements m
1. The land use categories add up to reporting area, which is somewhat same as the
geographical area.
9g
2. Area under actual forest cover is different from area classified as forest.
56

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
55

(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
ar

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B
m

Land Use Categories

ku

• Land-use records are maintained by land revenue department. The land use categories
an

add up to reporting area, which is somewhat different from the geographical area. The
Survey of India is responsible for measuring geographical area of administrative units in
am

India.
The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows :
(i) Forests : It is important to note that area under actual forest cover is different from area
classified as forest. The latter is the area which the Government has identified and demarcated
for forest growth. The land revenue records are consistent with the latter definition. Thus, there
may be an increase in this category without any increase in the actual forest cover.

Q.35 Consider the following statements about land-use categories as maintained in Land
Revenue Records

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 276
 1. Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands owned by the village panchayat
comes under ‘Common Property Resources’
2. A land which is left without cultivation for 6 months is came under culturable wasteland
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows :
(i) Forests : It is important to note that area under actual forest cover is different from area
classified as forest. The latter is the area which the Government has identified and demarcated
for forest growth. The land revenue records are consistent with the latter definition. Thus, there
may be an increase in this category without any increase in the actual forest cover.
(ii) Barren and Wastelands : The land which may be classified as a wasteland such as barren
hilly terrains, desert lands, ravines, etc. normally cannot be brought under cultivation with the
available technology.
(iii) Land put to Non-agricultural Uses : Land under settlements (rural and urban), infrastructure
(roads, canals, etc.), industries, shops, etc., are included in this category. An expansion in the
secondary and tertiary activities would lead to an increase in this category of land-use.
(iv) Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands : Most of this type land is owned by the
village ‘Panchayat’ or the Government. Only a small proportion of this land is privately owned.
The land owned by the village panchayat comes under ‘Common Property Resources’.
(v) Area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and Groves (Not included in Net sown Area) : The
land under orchards and fruit trees are included in this category. Much of this land is privately
owned.
(vi) Culturable Wasteland : Any land which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years
is included in this category. It can be brought under cultivation after improving it through
reclamation practices.
(vii) Current Fallow : This is the land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one
agricultural year. Fallowing is a cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest. The land
recoups the lost fertility through natural processes.
(viii) Fallow other than Current Fallow: This is also a cultivable land which is left uncultivated
for more than a year but less than five years. If the land is left uncultivated for more than five
years, it would be categorised as culturable wasteland.
(ix) Net Area Sown: The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is
known as net sown area.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 277
Q.36 Consider the following statements
1. In developing countries, the share of population dependent on agriculture usually declines
much more slowly compared to the decline in the sector’s share in GDP.
2. Indian is an exception to this case as with the increase of contribution of service sector in
Indian GDP there has been an equal increase in the share of population dependent on it
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Land-use Changes in India
Land-use in a region, to a large extent, is influenced by the nature of economic activities carried
out in that region. However, while economic activities change over time, land, like many other
natural resources, is fixed in terms of its area. At this stage, one needs to appreciate three types
of changes that an economy undergoes, which affect land-use.
(i) The size of the economy (measured in terms of value for all the goods and services
produced in the economy) grows over time as a result of increasing population, change in
income levels, available technology and associated factors. As a result, the pressure on
land will increase with time and marginal lands would come under use.
(ii) Secondly, the composition of the economy would undergo a change over time. In other
words, the secondary and the tertiary sectors usually grow much faster than the primary
sector, specifically the agricultural sector. This type of change is common in developing
countries, like India. This process would result in a gradual shift of land from agricultural
uses to non-agricultural uses. You would observe that such changes are sharp around large
urban areas. The agricultural land is being used for building purposes.
(iii) Thirdly, though the contribution of the agricultural activities reduces over time, the
pressure on land for agricultural activities does not decline. The reasons for continued
pressure on agricultural land are:
(a) In developing countries, the share of population dependent on agriculture usually
declines much more slowly compared to the decline in the sector’s share in GDP.
(India is no exception to this)
(b) The number of people that the agricultural sector has to feed is increasing day by day.

Q.37 Consider the following statements about changes in shares of Land-use Categories in India
(from 1950–51 to 2014–15)

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 278
 1. The rate of increase is the highest in case of area under non-agricultural uses, this is due
to the changing structure of Indian economy.
2. The increase in the share under forest, can be accounted for by increase in the demarcated
area under forest rather than an actual increase in the forest cover in the country.
3. Over the years the net sown area has decreased due to shifting of land for use for other
purposes.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3

om
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D

l.c
ai
m
9g
56
55
ar
m
ku
an

Four categories have undergone increases, while four have registered declines. Share of area
am

under forest, area under non-agricultural uses, current fallow lands and net area sown have
shown an increase. The following observations can be made about these increases:
(i) The rate of increase is the highest in case of area under non-agricultural uses. This is
due to the changing structure of Indian economy, which is increasingly depending on
the contribution from industrial and services sectors and expansion of related
infrastructural facilities. Also, an expansion of area under both urban and rural
settlements has added to the increase. Thus, the area under non-agricultural uses is
increasing at the expense of wastelands and agricultural land.
(ii) The increase in the share under forest, as explained before, can be accounted for by
increase in the demarcated area under forest rather than an actual increase in the forest
cover in the country.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 279
 (iii) The increase in the current fallow cannot be explained from information pertaining to
only two points. The trend of current fallow fluctuates a great deal over years,
depending on the variability of rainfall and cropping cycles.
(iv) The increase in net area sown is a recent phenomenon due to use of culturable
waste land for agricultural pupose. Before which it was registering a slow
decrease. There are indications that most of the decline had occurred due to the
increases in area under nonagricultural use. (Note : the expansion of building
activity on agricultural land in your village and city).
Note: Don’t get confused in the 3rd statement, Net sown area was registering decline over the
years, the increase was very recent only due to change in land use, as culturable waste land is
not put under net sown area.

Q.38 Which of the following factors can be responsible for increasing Cropping Intensity
directly or indirectly?
1. High population density
2. Relief farming and Mixed farming
3. Commercialization, in trade, capitalistic farming
4. Use of modern inputs, and technology
5. Wet areas
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 2, and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: D
Methods to Increase Cropping Intensity
Following are the methods/inputs which are implemented for increasing the cropping intensity of
a region:

 Irrigation facilities.
 HYV of crops which have a short growth period.
 Cropping methods like relief farming, mixed farming, strip cropping
 Use of modern inputs like chemical fertilizers, pesticides, weedicide
 Farm Mechanisation
 Conservation method – soil/water conservation.
 Commercialization, in trade, capitalistic farming
 High population density regions have high Cropping Intensity. (Provide more labour)

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 280
Q.39 Consider the following statements
1. In productive irrigation higher water is used per unit areas as compared to protective
irrigation farming.
2. Undulating soil surface, practice of extensive agriculture is some of the characteristics of
dry land farming
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Types of Farming
On the basis of main source of moisture for crops, the farming can be classified as irrigated and
rainfed (barani). There is difference in the nature of irrigated farming, as well as based on the
objective of irrigation, i.e., protective or productive. The objective of protective irrigation is to
protect the crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency which often means that
irrigation acts as a supplementary source of water over and above the rainfall. The strategy of
this kind of irrigation is to provide soil moisture to maximum possible area. Productive irrigation
is meant to provide sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity.
In such irrigation the water input per unit area of cultivated land is higher than protective
irrigation. Rainfed farming is further classified on the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during
cropping season into dryland and wetland farming. In India, the dryland farming is largely
confined to the regions having annual rainfall less than 75 cm. These regions grow hardy and
drought resistant crops such as ragi, bajra, moong, gram and guar (fodder crops) and practise
various measures of soil moisture conservation and rain water harvesting. In wetland farming,
the rainfall is in excess of soil moisture requirement of plants during rainy season. Such regions
may face flood and soil erosion hazards. These areas grow various water intensive crops such as
rice, jute and sugarcane and practise aquaculture in the fresh water bodies.
Characteristics of the dry land farming:
 Uncertain, ill-.distributed and limited annual rainfall;
 Occurrence of extensive climatic hazards like drought, flood etc;
 Undulating soil surface;
 Occurrence of extensive and large holdings;
 Practice of extensive agriculture i.e. prevalence of mono cropping etc;
 Relatively large size of fields;
 Similarity in types of crops raised by almost all the farmers of a particular region;
 Very low crop yield;

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 281
 Q.40 Consider the following statements
1. Majority of cropped area in India has been occupied by cereals
2. Rice is considered as crop of tropical humid areas and it cannot be grown in dry region
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D

om
Cereals
The cereals occupy about 54 per cent of total cropped area in India. The country produces about

l.c
11 per cent cereals of the world and ranks third in production after China and U.S.A. India
produces a variety of cereals, which are classified as fine grains (rice, wheat) and coarse grains

ai
(jowar, bajra, maize, ragi), etc. Account of important cereals has been given in the following
m
paragraphs :
9g
Rice
Rice is a staple food for the overwhelming majority of population in India. Though, it is
56

considered to be a crop of tropical humid areas, it has about 3,000 varieties which are grown in
different agro-climatic regions. These are successfully grown from sea level to about 2,000 m
55

altitude and from humid areas in eastern India to dry but irrigated areas of Punjab, Haryana,
western U.P. and northern Rajasthan. In southern states and West Bengal the climatic conditions
ar

allow the cultivation of two or three crops of rice in an agricultural year.

m
ku

Q.41 In states like Assam, West Bengal and Odisha, three varieties of particular crop are grown
in a year, which are ‘Aus’, ‘aman’ and ‘boro‘. These are variety of which crop?
an

(A) Wheat
(B) Jute
am

(C) Tea
(D) Rice
Solution: D
In West Bengal farmers grow three crops of rice called ‘aus’, ‘aman’ and ‘boro’. But in
Himalayas and northwestern parts of the country, it is grown as a kharif crop during southwest
Monsoon season.

Q.42 Consider the following statements with reference to more yield in the area of green
revolution

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 282
 1. Green revolution introduced the genetically improved varieties of seed
2. The area under green revolution has lower levels of susceptibility of the crop to pests due
to dry climatic conditions
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Punjab and Haryana are not traditional rice growing areas. Rice cultivation in the irrigated areas
of Punjab and Haryana was introduced in 1970s following the Green Revolution. Genetically
improved varieties of seed, relatively high usage of fertilizers and pesticides and lower levels of
susceptibility of the crop to pests due to dry climatic conditions are responsible for higher yield
of rice in this region. The yield of this crop is very low in rainfed areas of Madhya Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh and Odisha.

Q.43 Identify the name of crop with the given description

1. It is primarily a crop of temperate zone.
2. Being a rabi crop, it is mostly grown under irrigated conditions.
3. About 85 per cent of total area under this crop is concentrated in north and central regions
of the country
4. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan are leading producing
states.
Choose the correct option from the list below
(A) Rice
(B) Pulses
(C) Wheat
(D) Oilseeds
Solution: C
Wheat
Wheat is the second most important cereal crop in India after rice. India produces about 12.8 per
cent of total wheat production of world (2017). It is primarily a crop of temperate zone. Hence,
its cultivation in India is done during winter i.e. rabi season. About 85 per cent of total area
under this crop is concentrated in north and central regions of the country i.e. Indo- Gangetic
Plain, Malwa Plateau and Himalayas up to 2,700 m altitude. Being a rabi crop, it is mostly grown
under irrigated conditions. But it is a rainfed crop in Himalayan highlands and parts of Malwa
plateau in Madhya Pradesh. About 14 per cent of the total cropped area in the country is under
wheat cultivation. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan are leading

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 283
wheat producing states. The yield level of wheat is very high (above 4,000 k.g. per ha) in Punjab
and Haryana whereas, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and Bihar have moderate yields. The states like
Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir growing wheat under rainfed
conditions have low yield.

Q.44 Consider the following statements

1. Area under the cultivation of coarse cereals is less than that of Pulses
2. MP alone produces more than 50% of the total Jowar production of the country
3. Jowar is sown in both kharif and rabi seasons in southern states.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Jowar
The coarse cereals together occupy about 16.50 per cent of total cropped area in the country.
Among these, jowar or sorghum alone accounts for about 5.3 per cent of total cropped area. It is
main food crop in semi-arid areas of central and southern India. Maharashtra alone produces
more than half of the total jowar production of the country. Other leading producer states of
jowar are Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. It is sown in both kharif
and rabi seasons in southern states. But it is a kharif crop in northern India where it is mostly
grown as a fodder crop. South of Vindhyachal it is a rainfed crop and its yield level is very low
in this region.
Note: Pulses occupy about 11 per cent of the total cropped area in the country.

Q.45 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) Bajra is a rainfed crop, the yield level of this crop is low in Rajasthan and fluctuates a lot
from year to year
(B) Area under Maize cultivation is less than area under Bajra cultivation
(C) Yield of Bajra crop has increased during recent years in Haryana and Gujarat due to
introduction of drought resistant varieties and expansion of irrigation under it.
(D) Yield level of maize is lower than other coarse cereals. It is high in northern states and
declines towards central parts.
Solution: D
Bajra
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 284
 Bajra is sown in hot and dry climatic conditions in northwestern and western parts of the
country. It is a hardy crop which resists frequent dry spells and drought in this region. It is
cultivated alone as well as part of mixed cropping. This coarse cereal occupies about 5.2 per cent
of total cropped area in the country. Leading producers of bajra are the states of Maharashtra,
Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and Haryana. Being a rainfed crop, the yield level of this crop
is low in Rajasthan and fluctuates a lot from year to year. Yield of this crop has increased during
recent years in Haryana and Gujarat due to introduction of drought resistant varieties and
expansion of irrigation under it.
Maize
Maize is a food as well as fodder crop grown under semi-arid climatic conditions and over

om
inferior soils. This crop occupies only about 3.6 per cent of total cropped area. Maize cultivation
is not concentrated in any specific region. It is sown all over India except Punjab and eastern and

l.c
north-eastern regions. The leading producers of maize are the states of Karnataka, Madhya
Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. Yield level of maize is

ai
higher than other coarse cereals. It is high in southern states and declines towards central parts.
m
9g
Q.46 Consider the following statements about pulses
1. Gram is a rabi crop. It is cultivated as pure or mixed with wheat, barley, linseed or
56

mustard.
2. Maharashtra is the largest producer of tur in India due to the distinction of having a
55

highest yield
ar

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Only 1
m

(B) Only 2
ku

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2
an

Solution: A
1. Gram
am

 Geographical Conditions of Growth

o Importance: Gram is the most important of all the pulses.
o Climate: It prefers mild cool (20 – 25 C) and comparatively dry climate (40-50
cm).
o Season: It is a rabi crop. It is cultivated as pure or mixed with wheat, barley, linseed
or mustard.
o Mixed cropping: Mixed cropping helps to check the gram blight disease to some
extent.
 Production and Distribution:

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 285
 o Areas: Most of the gram comes from Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Maharashtra.
Andhra Pradesh (Rayalseema region), UP, Karnataka, are other major producers.
o Largest producer: Madhya Pradesh is the largest producer (40%).
2. Tur or Arhar

 Geographical Conditions of Growth

o Importance: Tur is the second most important pulse. It is consumed on a very large
scale in South Asia and is a major source of protein for the population of the Indian
subcontinent.
o Season: It is chiefly grown as a kharif crop. In areas of mild winters, it is grown as
a rabi crop.
o Mixed crop: It is grown as a dry crop mixed with other kharif crops like jowar,
bajra, ragi, maize, cotton, groundnut, etc. and is seldom grown as a single crop.
 Production and Distribution:
o Main producers: Maharashtra is the largest producer of tur in India (29%).
Madhya Pradesh is the second largest producer.
o Highest yield: Bihar has the distinction of giving highest yield per hectare.

Q.47 Consider the following statements with reference to cotton

1. Cotton exhausts the fertility of soil rapidly
2. Narma is a short staple cotton which is also called Indian cotton
3. It grows mostly in the areas having at least 180 frost free days in a year.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A

Cotton Crop
1. Geographical Conditions of Growth
 Temperature: Cotton is the crop of tropical and sub-tropical areas and requires
uniformly high temperature varying between 21°C and 30°C.
 Climate: It grows mostly in the areas having at least 210 frost free days in a year.
 Rainfall: It requires modest amount of rainfall of 50 to 100cm. However, cotton is
successfully grown with the help of irrigation in the areas where rainfall is less than 50
cm. High amount of rainfall in the beginning and sunny and dry weather at the time of
ripening are very useful for a good crop.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 286
  Soil: Cotton cultivation is very closely related to Black soils of Deccan and Malwa
plateau. However, it also grows well in alluvial soils of the Satluj-Ganga plain and red
and laterite soils of the peninsular region.
 Four cultivated species of cotton: Gossypium arboreum, G.herbaceum, G.hirsutum and
G.barbadense.
o Gossypium arboreum and G.herbaceum are known as old-world cotton or
Asiatic cotton.
o G.hirsutum is also known as American cotton or upland cotton and G.barbadense
as Egyptian cotton. These are both new world cotton species.
 Labour: As picking of cotton has not been made mechanized till now, therefore a lot of
cheap and efficient labour is required at the time of picking.
 Effect on soil: Just like jute, cotton also exhausts the fertility of soil rapidly.
 Season: Kharif Crop which requires 6 to 8 months to mature.
 Varieties of Cotton
o Hybrid Cotton: Cotton made by crossing two parent strains that have different
genetic characters. Hybrids are often spontaneously and randomly created in nature
when open-pollinated plants naturally cross-pollinate with other related varieties.
o Bt Cotton: It is a genetically modified organism or genetically modified pest-
resistant variety of cotton.
Note: India grows both short staple (Indian) cotton as well as long staple (American) cotton
called ‘narma’ in north-western parts of the country.

Q.48 Consider the following statements about Jute

1. Jute is obtained from the plants are native to the Indian subcontinent
2. Lower temperature of water is ideal for the process of retting
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B

Jute Crop
1. Geographical Conditions of Growth
 Temperature: Temperatures ranging from 25-30 °C and relative humidity of 70%–90%
are favorable for successful cultivation.
 Climate: The suitable climate for growing jute is a warm and wet climate.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 287
  Rainfall: Minimum rainfall required for jute cultivation is 1000 mm. It requires 160-200
cm of rainfall weekly with extra needed during the sowing period.
 Soil: New grey alluvial soil of good depth receiving silt from annual floods is most
suitable for jute However, jute is grown widely in sandy looms and clay loams specially
river basins.
 Suitable land: Plain land or gentle slope or low land is ideal for jute cultivation.
o For Example: In India, Ganga delta region is excellent for jute cultivation as this
region has fertile alluvium soil and favorable temperature along with sufficient
rainfall.
 Effect on soil: Just like cotton, jute also exhausts the fertility of soil rapidly. It is
necessary that the soil is replenished annually by the silt-laden flood water of the rivers.

om
o PH range between 4.8-5.8 is best for its cultivation so Jute cultivation in red soils
may require high dose of manure.

l.c
 Season: Jute is normally cultivated as an inter-crop between the two main agricultural
seasons, kharif and rabi. Jute is generally sown in February and harvested in October

ai
(crop takes 8-10 months to mature).
m
2. Geographical Distribution
9g
 Distribution: The cultivation of jute in India is mainly confined to the eastern region of
the country .
56

o The jute crop is grown in seven states - West Bengal , Assam , Orissa , Bihar , Uttar
Pradesh , Tripura and Meghalaya .
55

o West Bengal alone accounts for over 50% of the total raw jute production.
3. Processing of Jute
ar

 Abundance of labour and water: Large supply of cheap labor and lot of water are
m

necessary for processing the jute fiber post-harvest.

ku

 Retting: The plants bundles (Sheaf) are immersed in stagnant water for about 3 weeks
for retting (soak in water to soften it). High temperature of water quickens the process of
an

retting.
 Peeling and Stripping: After retting is complete, the bark is peeled from the plant and
am

fiber is removed. Stripping, rinsing and cleaning of the fiber are done after that.
 Drying: Fiber is dried in the sun and pressed into bales (a large wrapped or bound
bundle).
Note: All the processes mentioned about are done by human hand. Therefore, jute is cultivated
only in areas of high population density.
Note: Jute is obtained from the plants Corchorus Olitorius and Corchorus Capsularis. These
plants are native to the Indian subcontinent and are grown throughout the year.

Q.49 Consider the following statements about Tea

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 288
 1. Tea is both tropical and sub-tropical plant and grows well in hot and humid climate.
2. Southern states do not produce tea crop due to unsuitable climatic conditions
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A

Tea Plantation
1. Geographical Conditions of Growth
 Temperature: The ideal temperature for the growth of tea bushes and leaf varies
between 20°C to 30°C.
 Climate: Tea is a tropical and sub-tropical plant and grows well in hot and humid
climate.
 Rainfall: tea requires a good amount of rainfall ranging between 150-300 cm and the
annual rainfall should be well distributed throughout the year.
 Soil: Tea bush grows well in well drained, deep, friable loamy soil. However, virgin
forest soils rich in humus and iron content are considered to be the best soils for the tea
plantation. Tea is a shade loving plant and grows better when planted along with shady
trees.
 Labour: Cheap and efficient labour is required for tea production.
 Land Type: Slopes of hills having humid climate and evenly distributed rainfall without
water logging which are optimal conditions for terrace farming of tea.
2. Geographical Distribution
 Distribution:
o Assam is the leading producer that accounts for more than 50% of tea production of
India. Tea producing areas of Assam are the hill slopes bordering the Brahmaputra
and Surma valleys.
o West Bengal is the second largest producer of tea where tea is mostly grown in the
districts of Darjeeling, Siliguri, Jalpaiguri and Cooch Bihar districts.
o Tamil Nadu is the third largest producer where tea growing areas are mostly
restricted to Nilgiri hills.

Q.50 Consider the following statements with reference to green revolution

1. Green Revolution has led to regional disparities in agricultural development in the
country

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 289
 2. High yielding varieties are less susceptible to pests and diseases, leads to better
productivity
3. Consumption of chemical fertilizers has increased by 15 times since mid-sixties, leads to
imbalance in soil profile.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
This strategy of agricultural development made the country self-reliant in foodgrain production.
But Green Revolution was initially confined to irrigated areas only. This led to regional
disparities in agricultural development in the country till 1970s, after which the technology
spread to the Eastern and Central parts of the country.
Growth of Agricultural Output and Technology
There has been a significant increase in agricultural output and improvement in technology
during the last 50 years.
• Production and yield of many crops such as rice and wheat has increased at an impressive
rate. Among the other crops, the production of sugarcane, oilseeds and cotton has also
increased appreciably.
• Expansion of irrigation has played a crucial role in enhancing agricultural output in the
country. It provided basis for introduction of modern agricultural technology, such as
high yielding varieties of seeds, chemical fertilisers, pesticides and farm machinery. The
net irrigated area in the country has also increased.
• Modern agricultural technology has diffused very fast in various areas of the country.
Consumption of chemical fertilizers has increased by 15 times since mid-sixties. Since
the high yielding varieties are highly susceptible to pests and diseases, the use of
pesticides has increased significantly since 1960s.

CHAPTER-6- WATER RESOURCES

Q.1 The mean annual flow in all the river basins in India is estimated to be 1,869 cubic km.
However, only about 690 cubic km (37 per cent) of the available surface water can be utilized.
Consider the following statements for its reason
5. Over 90% of annual flow of the Himalayan rivers occur over a four-month period.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 290
 6. Potential to capture such resources is complicated and limited by suitable storage
reservoir sites.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Surface Water Resources

om
There are four major sources of surface water. These are rivers, lakes, ponds and tanks. In the
country, there are about 10,360 rivers and their tributaries longer than 1.6 km each. The mean

l.c
annual flow in all the river basins in India is estimated to be 1,869 cubic km. However, due to
topographical, hydrological and other constraints, only about 690 cubic km (32 per cent) of the

ai
available surface water can be utilised. Water flow in a river depends on size of its catchment
area or river basin and rainfall within its catchment area. precipitation in India has very high
m
spatial variation, and it is mainly concentrated in Monsoon season. You also have studied in the
9g
textbook that some of the rivers in the country like the Ganga, the Brahmaputra, and the Indus
have huge catchment areas. Given that precipitation is relatively high in the catchment areas of
56

the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and the Barak rivers, these rivers, although account for only about
one-third of the total area in the country, have 60 per cent of the total surface water resources.
Much of the annual water flow in south Indian rivers like the Godavari, the Krishna, and the
55

Kaveri has been harnessed, but it is yet to be done in the Brahmaputra and the Ganga basins.
ar
m

Q.2 Consider the following statements with reference to ground water resources
ku

1. The level of groundwater utilization is relatively high in the river basins lying in north-
western region and parts of eastern India.
an

2. Almost 50% of irrigated area relies excessively on groundwater resources in India

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
am

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Ground Water Resources
 The total replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic km.
 Ganga and the Brahmaputra basins, have about 46 per cent of the total replenishable
groundwater resources.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 291
  India also relies excessively on groundwater resources, which accounts for over 50% of
irrigated area with 20 million tube wells installed.
 India has built nearly 5,000 major or medium dams, barrages, etc. to store the river
waters and enhance ground water recharging.

Q.3 Which of the following state(s) account for high utilization of ground water resources?
1. Haryana
2. Kerala
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Chhattisgarh
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Solution: C
 The level of groundwater utilization is relatively high in the river basins lying in north-
western region and parts of south India.
 The groundwater utilisation is very high in the states of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and
Tamil Nadu.
 However, there are States like Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Kerala, etc., which utilize only small
proportion of their groundwater potentials.

Q.4 Consider the following statements about Water Demand and Utilization
1. The share of domestic sector is higher in surface water utilization as compared to
groundwater.
2. The share of industrial sector is higher in surface water utilization as compared to
ground-water utilization.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Agriculture accounts for most of the surface and groundwater utilisation, it accounts for 89 per
cent of the surface water and 92 per cent of the groundwater utilisation. While the share of
industrial sector is limited to 2 per cent of the surface water utilisation and 5 per cent of the
ground-water, the share of domestic sector is higher (9 per cent) in surface water utilisation as

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 292
compared to groundwater. The share of agricultural sector in total water utilisation is much
higher than other sectors. However, in future, with development, the shares of industrial and
domestic sectors in the country are likely to increase.
Q.5 Consider the following statements
1. J&K and Uttarakhand is dominated by West flowing rivers
2. Arunachal Pradesh, Telangana and Tamil Nadu is dominated by East flowing rivers
3. Punjab has more East flowing rivers
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(I) 1 and 2
(J) 2 and 3
(K) 1 and 3
(L) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Carefully examine the map

Q.6 Consider the following statements

1. Over withdrawals in some states, like Rajasthan and Maharashtra, has increased arsenic
concentration in groundwater, and this practice has led to increase in concentration of
fluoride in parts of West Bengal and Bihar
2. The concentration of pollutants in rivers, especially remains very high during the winter
season when flow of water is low.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 293
 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
 Over withdrawals in some states, like Rajasthan and Maharashtra, has increased fluoride
concentration in groundwater, and this practice has led to increase in concentration of
arsenic in parts of West Bengal and Bihar
 The concentration of pollutants in rivers, especially remains very high during the summer

om
season when flow of water is low.

l.c
Q.7 Which of the following is/are point source of water pollution?

ai
1. Domestic wastewater
2. Agricultural runoff
m
3. Deposition of Air pollutants.
9g
4. Industrial wastewater
5. Storm water
56

6. Open defecation
Choose the correct code from the list below
55

(A) 1, 4, and 6
(B) 1 and 4
ar

(C) 1, 2, 5 and 6
m

(D) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
Solution: B
ku

Types of pollution sources

an

 Point source pollution

 Non-point source of Pollution
am

Point source pollution – Source can be identified:

1. Domestic wastewater
2. Industrial wastewater

Non-point source of Pollution – Sources cannot be identified:

1. Rural and slum pollution, open defecation, garbage etc
2. Agricultural runoff
3. Storm water

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 294
 4. Deposition of Air pollutants.
Some other pollutants:
1. Heavy metals
2. CoD & BoD
3. Flooding during monsoon

Q.8 Which of the following can be consider as causes for Water Stress in India?
1. Population growth
2. Rapid urbanization
3. Water pollution
4. Increasing poverty
5. Climate change
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Solution: C
Causes for Water Stress in India
 Population growth leads to high water demand both by households and agriculture.
 Large agricultural sector accounts for most of the water use in India leaving less
resources for industry and households.
 Rapid urbanization: High water demand by the dense population living in cities in India
is causing stress on groundwater and surface water resources.
 Climate change: Climate change will have significant impacts on water resources in
Himalayas and monsoonal rainfall.
 Rising temperatures will increase evaporation and lead to increases in precipitation,
though there will be more stark regional variations in rainfall.
 Both droughts and floods may become more frequent in different regions at different
times, and dramatic changes in snowfall and snow melt are expected in mountainous
areas.
 Depletion of aquifers: Due to the expanding human population, many of the world’s
major aquifers are becoming depleted. due both for direct human consumption as well as
agricultural irrigation by groundwater.
 Pollution and water protection: Many pollutants threaten water supplies, but the most
widespread, especially in developing countries, is the discharge of raw municipal sewage,
untreated industrial waste and agricultural runoff carrying pesticides, insecticides and
fertilizers into natural waters.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 295
  Although India has made improvements over the past decades to both the availability and
quality of municipal drinking water systems, its large population has stressed planned
water resources and rural areas are left out.

Q.9 Which of the following interlinking rivers is/are correctly matched with their states.
1. Ken – Betwa link project - UP and Chhattisgarh
2. Damanganga – Pinjal link project - Maharashtra and Gujarat
3. Godavari – Cauvery link project - Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
Choose the correct option from the list below
(E) 1 only
(F) 2 and 3
(G) 1 and 2
(H) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Interlinking of Rivers Project
The government has identified four priority links for the preparation of detailed project reports
(DPR) under the Peninsular Component:
1. Ken – Betwa link project (UP and M.P.),
2. Damanganga – Pinjal link project (Maharashtra and Gujarat),
3. the Par – Tapi – Narmada link project (Maharashtra and Gujarat)
4. the Godavari – Cauvery link project (Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu)

Q.10 Which of the following traditional water knowledge is/are correctly matched with their
description.
1. Rejwani system - System of deep aquifers that is determined by geological
formation.
2. Patali pani – Water percolates through sand, settles on the gypsum layer, and is
brought for use by a complex capillary system called Beri
3. Neerugantiin Karnataka – A person who controlled and managed distribution of water.
Choose the correct option from the list below
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 3 only
Solution: D

Traditional water knowledge

 Rain water harvestingsuch as building tanks.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 296
  Rejwanisystem where water percolates through sand, settles on the gypsum layer, and is
brought for use by a complex capillary system called Beri.
 Patali paniwhich are the deep aquifers that is determined by geological formation.
 Community ownership:Traditionally, the water management was a community
responsibility.
 Neerugantiin Karnataka was a person who controlled and managed distribution of water.
 System of water ownership is still prevalent in Spiti and Arunachaland few desert areas

Q.11 Match the following traditional water conservation systems with their practicing state.

om
1. Phad A. Himachal Pradesh
2. Kuhls B. Rajasthan
3. Ruza System C. Maharashtra

l.c
4. Khadin D. Nagaland

ai
Choose the correct code from the list below
m
(A) 1.A,2.B,3.C,4.D
(B) 1.C,2.D,3.A,4.B
9g
(C) 1.A,2.B,3.D,4.C
(D) 1.C,2.A,3.D,4.B
56

Solution: D
55

Traditional water conservation systems around India

ar

 Phad: It is a community-managed irrigation system in the Tapi river basin in

Maharashtra. It starts with check dam built across a river and canals to carry water to
m

agricultural blocks with outlets to ensure excess water is removed from the canals.
Zing: It is found in Ladakh, are small tanks that collect melting glacier water. A network
ku


of guiding channels brings water from the glacier to the tank.
an

 Kuhls: They are surface water channels found in the mountainous regions of Himachal
Pradesh. The channels carry glacial waters from rivers and streams into the fields.
 Zabo or Ruza System: It is practised in Nagaland. Rainwater that falls on forested hilltops
am

is collected by channels that deposit the run-off water in pond-like structures created on
the terraced hillsides.
 Jackwells: The Shompen tribe of the Great Nicobar Islands uses this system, in which
bamboos are placed under trees to collect runoff water from leaves and carries it to
Jackwells which are pits encircled by bunds made from logs of hard wood.
 Pat system: It is developed in Madhya Pradesh, in which the water is diverted from hill
streams into irrigation channels by diversion bunds. They are made across the stream by
piling up stones and teak leaves and mud.
 Eri: It is tank system, widely used in Tamil Nadu which acts as flood-control systems,
prevent soil erosion and wastage of runoff during periods of heavy rainfall, and also
recharge the groundwater.
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 297
  Johads: They are small earthern check dams used to conserve and recharge ground water,
mainly constructed in an area with naturally high elevation.
 Panam keni: The Kuruma tribe (a native tribe of Wayanad) uses wooden cylinders as a
special type of well, which are made by soaking the stems of toddy palms and immersed
in groundwater springs.
 Ahar Pynes: They are traditional floodwater harvesting systems indigenous to South
Bihar. Ahars are reservoirs with embankments on three sides and Pynes are artificial
rivulets led off from rivers to collect water in the ahars for irrigation in the dry months.
 Jhalara: Jhalaras are typically rectangular-shaped stepwells that have tiered steps on three
or four sides in the city of Jodhpur.
 Bawari: Bawaris are unique stepwells that were once a part of the ancient networks of
water storage in the cities of Rajasthan.
 Taanka: It is a cylindrical paved underground pit into which rainwater from rooftops,
courtyards or artificially prepared catchments flows. It is indigenous to the Thar Desert
region of Rajasthan.
 Khadin: Also called dhora, is a long earthen embankment that is built across the hill
slopes of gravelly uplands. It is indigenous to Jaisalmer region and similar to the
irrigation methods of Ur region (Present Iraq).
 Kund: It is a saucer-shaped catchment area that gently slopes towards the central circular
underground well. It is found in the sandier tracts of western Rajasthan and Gujarat.

CHAPTER-7- MINERAL AND ENERGY RESOURCES

Q.12 Consider the following statements, with reference to minerals

1. Non-metallic minerals are either organic or inorganic in origin
2. There is an inverse relationship between quantity and quality of minerals.
3. Mica is a non-metallic mineral which are organic in origin
4. With proper technology and process immediate replenishment of minerals is possible
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Solution: A
Non-metallic minerals are either organic in origin such as fossil fuels also known as mineral
fuels which are derived from the buried animal and plant life such as coal and petroleum. Other
type of non-metallic minerals are inorganic in origin such as mica, limestone and graphite, etc.
Minerals have certain characteristics. These are unevenly distributed over space. There is inverse

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 298
relationship in quality and quantity of minerals i.e. good quality minerals are less in quantity as
compared to low quality minerals. The third main characteristic is that all minerals are
exhaustible over time. These take long to develop geologically and they cannot be replenished
immediately at the time of need. Thus, they have to be conserved and not misused as they do not
have the second crop.

Q.13 Consider the following statements about distribution of minerals in India

1. Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old
crystalline rocks.
2. The vast alluvial plain tract of north India is rich in minerals of economic use.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A

 India is endowed with a rich variety of mineral resources due to its varied geological
structure. Bulk of the valuable minerals are products of pre-Palaeozoic age.
 They are mainly associated with metamorphic and igneous rocks of the peninsular India.
 The vast alluvial plain tract of north India is devoid of minerals of economic use.
 The mineral resources provide the country with the necessary base for industrial
development.
Distribution of Minerals in India
Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline
rocks. Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and
Godavari. Petroleum reserves are located in the sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat and
Mumbai High i.e. off-shore region in the Arabian Sea. New reserves have been located in the
Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basins. Most of the major mineral resources occur to the east of a
line linking Mangaluru and Kanpur.

Q.14 Consider the following statements about mineral belts

1. South-Western Plateau Region belt does not have as diversified mineral deposits as the
north-eastern belt.
2. North-Western Region belt contains Gujarat and Rajasthan both have rich sources of salt
which are formed by evaporation of lakes in desert areas.
3. Gold, platinum, chromite, diamonds and zircon are recovered from alluvial deposits by
placer mining methods.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 299
 (A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India. There may be some sporadic
occurrences here and there in isolated pockets. These belts are :
The North-Eastern Plateau Region
This belt covers Chhotanagpur (Jharkhand), Odisha Plateau, West Bengal and parts of
Chhattisgarh. Have you ever thought about the reason of major iron and steel industry being
located in this region? It has variety of minerals viz. iron ore coal, manganese, bauxite, mica.

om
The South-Western Plateau Region
This belt extends over Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala. This belt

l.c
is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite. It also contains high grade iron ore, manganese and
limestone. This belt lacks in coal deposits except Neyveli lignite. This belt does not have as

ai
diversified mineral deposits as the north-eastern belt. Kerala has deposits of monazite and
thorium, bauxite clay. Goa has iron ore deposits.
m
The North-Western Region
9g
This belt extends along Aravali in Rajasthan and part of Gujarat and minerals are associated with
Dharwar system of rocks. Copper, zinc have been major minerals. Rajasthan is rich in building
stones i.e. sandstone, granite, marble. Gypsum and Fuller’s earth deposits are also extensive.
56

Dolomite and limestone provide raw materials for cement industry. Gujarat is known for its
petroleum deposits. You may be knowing that Gujarat and Rajasthan both have rich sources of
55

salt.
 Minerals like gypsum, potash salts and common salt are formed by evaporation of lakes
ar

in desert areas.
m

 Minerals like gold, tin and platinum are highly resistant to weathering and may get
reduced to small particles carried off by running water. These are known as alluvial
ku

deposits. Gold, platinum, chromite, diamonds and zircon are recovered from alluvial
deposits by placer mining methods.
an
am

Q.14 Consider the following statements about iron ore

1. Haematite has a yellowish ore
2. Siderite contains many impurities and hence mining, in many places, is economically
unviable.
3. India is the 2nd largest producer of hematite after China
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 300
Solution: C

Iron Ore:
Based on the amount of ore and iron content, iron ore is classified into various types:
MAGNETITE ((FE3O4):
 It is a good quality ore and has very high iron content (about 70%).
 Black in colour and has magnetic properties.
HAEMATITE (FE2O3):
 Reddish ore with 60-70% iron.
LIMONITE:
 Yellowish ore with 40% to 60% iron.
SIDERITE
 Ore with less than 40% iron.
 It contains many impurities and hence mining, in many places, is economically unviable.
India’s iron ore mostly – Hematite
India –2nd largest producer of hematite after Russia
Magnetite – Russia largest producer
China – Hematite, Limonite

Q.15 Arrange the following states in order of State wise reserves of Manganese in decreasing
order.
1. Odisha
2. Karnataka
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Andhra Pradesh
5. Jharkhand
Choose the correct sequence from the list below
(A) 1-2-3-4-5
(B) 2-1-5-4-3
(C) 1-5-2-4-3
(D) 2-1-3-4-5
Solution: A
Manganese

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 301
Manganese is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore and also used for manufacturing
ferro alloys. Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is
mainly associated with Dharwar system. Odisha is the leading producer of Manganese. Major
mines in Odisha are located in the central part of the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai,
Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi and Bolangir.
Karnataka is another major producer and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Ballari,
Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru. Maharashtra
is also an important producer of manganese, which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri
districts. The disadvantage to these mines is that they are located far from steel plants. The
manganese belt of Madhya Pradesh extends in a belt in Balaghat-Chhindwara-Nimar-Mandla
and Jhabua districts. Telangana, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of manganese.
State wise reserves of Manganese:
1. Odisha (44%),
2. Karnataka (22%),
3. Madhya Pradesh (13%),
4. Maharashtra (8%),
5. Andhra Pradesh (4%)
6. Jharkhand and Goa (3% each),

Q.16 Consider the following statements with reference to Copper

1. It is found in metamorphic and igneous rocks in forms sulfides and oxides
2. Major Copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand, Chitradurg and
Hasan districts Karnataka, Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar
districts in Rajasthan.
3. Chile and Peru have more than one third of the world’s copper reserves.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Copper
 Copper is a non-ferrous metal which is in high demand by the industry worldwide.
 It is found in metamorphic and igneous rocks in forms sulfides and oxides.
 Copper is an indispensable metal in the electrical industry for making wires, electric
motors, transformers and generators. It is alloyable, malleable and ductile. It is also
mixed with gold to provide strength to jewellery.
 The Copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand, Balaghat district
in Madhya Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 302
  Minor producers of Copper are Agnigundala in Guntur District (Andhra Pradesh),
Chitradurg and Hasan districts (Karnataka) and South Arcot district (Tamil Nadu).
DISTRIBUTION OF COPPER
 Chile and Peru have more than one third of the world’s copper reserves.
 The copper mining areas in North America extend along the Western Cordilleras in
Mexico, USA and Canada.
 In Europe, Russia and Poland have resources. Armenia, Georgia, Uzbekistan and
Kazakhstan also have significant resources.

Q.17 Consider the following statements

om
1. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with metamorphic rocks
occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India

l.c
2. Bauxite occurs near the surface and is generally mined by highly mechanized open cast
methods.

ai
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
m
(B) Only 2
9g
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
56

Solution: B
Bauxite
55

 Bauxite is the ore of aluminium, which makes up 8 percent of the earth’s crust.
ar

 World’s greatest bauxite producers and exporters are in tropical and subtropical lands but
aluminium is manufactured is manufactured in developed countries.
m

 Bauxite occurs near the surface and is generally mined by highly mechanized open cast
methods.
ku

 Bauxite is the ore, which is used in manufacturing of aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly
in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on
an

the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.
 Odisha happens to be the largest producer of Bauxite. Kalahandi and Sambalpur are the
am

leading producers. The other two areas which have been increasing their production are
Bolangir and Koraput. The patlands of Lohardaga in Jharkhand have rich deposits.
 Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are other major producers.
Bhavanagar, and Jamnagar in Gujarat have the major deposits. Chhattisgarh has bauxite
deposits in Amarkantak plateau while Katni-Jabalpur area and Balaghat in M.P. have
important deposits of bauxite. Kolaba, Thane, Ratnagiri, Satara, Pune and Kolhapur in
Maharashtra are important producers. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Goa are minor
producers of bauxite.
Q.18 Consider the following statements and find the name of mineral

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 303
 1. It can be easily and accurately split into very thin sheets or films of any specified
thickness.
2. It has a unique combination of elasticity, toughness, flexibility and transparency.
3. It is a very good insulator that has a wide range of applications in electrical and
electronics industry.
4. India has enjoyed the monopoly in the production and export of its sheet in the world.
Select the correct option from the list below
(A) Bauxite
(B) Copper
(C) Chromite
(D) Mica
Solution: D
Mica:
 Mica is a naturally occurring non-metallic mineral that is based on a collection of
silicates.
 Mica can be easily and accurately split into very thin sheets or films of any specified
thickness.
 It has a unique combination of elasticity, toughness, flexibility and transparency.
 Mica is a very good insulator that has a wide range of applications in electrical and
electronics industry.
 India has enjoyed the monopoly in the production and export of sheet mica in the world.
 USA, Ukraine, Russia, Brazil, Tanzania are other major producers.
State -Mineral rich regions
1. Odisha - Kodarma (largest in the world)
2. Andhra Pradesh - Nellore
3. Bihar - Munger
4. Karnataka -Alleppey

Q.19 Consider the following statements about Coal

1. About 80 per cent of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous type and is of non-coking
grade.
2. Bituminous Coal has the highest percentage of carbon content
3. Anthracite is generally found in the Gondwana coal fields.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 304
Solution: A
Coal
Coal is a one of the important minerals which is mainly used in the generation of thermal power
and smelting of iron ore. Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages, namely
Gondwana and tertiary deposits. About 80 per cent of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous
type and is of non-coking grade. The most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located
in Damodar Valley. They lie in Jharkhand-Bengal coal belt and the important coal fields in this
region are Raniganj, Jharia, Bokaro, Giridih, Karanpura. Jharia is the largest coal field followed
by Raniganj. The other river valleys associated with coal are Godavari, Mahanadi and Sone. The
most important coal mining centres are Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh (part of Singrauli coal field
lies in Uttar Pradesh), Korba in Chhattisgarh, Talcher and Rampur in Odisha, Chanda–Wardha,
Kamptee and Bander in Maharashtra and Singareni in Telangana and Pandur in Andhra Pradesh.
Tertiary coals occur in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya and Nagaland. It is extracted from
Darangiri, Cherrapunji, Mewlong and Langrin (Meghalaya); Makum, Jaipur and Nazira in upper
Assam, Namchik – Namphuk (Arunachal Pradesh) and Kalakot (Jammu and Kashmir).
Besides, the brown coal or lignite occur in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, Gujarat
and Jammu and Kashmir.
Classification of Coal:
1. Peat
 First stage of transformation.
 Contains less than 40 to 55 per cent carbon à more impurities.
 Contains sufficient volatile matter and lot of moisture [more smoke and more pollution].
 Left to itself, it burns like wood, gives less heat, emits more smoke and leaves a lot of
ash.
2. Lignite
 Brown coal.
 Lower grade coal.
 40 to 55 per cent carbon.
 Dark to black brown.
 Moisture content is high (over 35 per cent).
 It undergoes Spontaneous Combustion [Bad. Creates fire accidents in mines]
3. Bituminous Coal
 Soft coal; most widely available and used coal.
 40 to 80 per cent carbon.
 Does not have traces of original vegetable material.
 Calorific value is very high due to high proportion of carbon and low moisture.
 Used in production of coke and gas.
4. Anthracite Coal
 Best quality; hard coal.
 80 to 95 per cent carbon.
 Negligibly small proportion of moisture.
 Ignites slowly à less loss of heat à highly efficient.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 305
  In India, it is found only in Jammu and Kashmir and that too in small quantity.
Q.20 Which of the following can be considered as problems of coal sector in Indian?
1. Good and low-grade coal found together
2. Tendency to expand opencast mining
3. No competitive coal markets
4. Poor connectivity from mines to consumer locations
5. Short life of metallurgical coal
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5

om
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Solution: D

l.c
Problems of Indian coal:

ai
 Not enough high-grade cocking coal – depend on import
 Good and low-grade coal found together – selective mining so wasteful
m
 Land for coal mining is becoming a major issue.
9g
 There is a tendency to expand opencast mining and discourage underground operation
even for better quality coal reserves. This aggravates the land availability problem.
56

 There is no competitive coal market

 Deep mining techniques primitive à high casualty
55

 Policy does not allow simultaneous exploration of coal and Coal Bed Methane
 Efficiency of Indian coal mining is very low – lack of tech + equipment
ar

 Poor connectivity from mines to consumer locations

 The distribution of coal is uneven.
m

 High ash content and low caloric value.

ku

 Pilferage at several stages also adds to losses – bad transportation infrastructure.

 Short life of metallurgical coal.
an

Q.21 Consider the following statements about petroleum

1. Most of the oil reserves in India are associated with anticlines and fault traps in the
am

sedimentary rock formations of tertiary times.

2. Wax, soap and cosmetics are some of the processed by-product of petrochemical industry
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Petroleum

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 306
Crude petroleum consists of hydrocarbons of liquid and gaseous states varying in chemical
composition, colour and specific gravity. It is an essential source of energy for all internal
combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircraft. Its numerous by-products are
processed
in petrochemical industries, such as fertiliser, synthetic rubber, synthetic fibre, medicines,
vaseline, lubricants, wax, soap and cosmetics.

Petroleum and Mineral Oil:

 Petroleum (Petra à rock; Oleum à oil) or mineral oil (commonly known as crude oil) is a
fossil fuel mined from sedimentary rocks of the earth.
 Petroleum fuels on burning gives little smoke and leaves no ash. So they are better than
coal.
 It is formed from the remains of ancient marine organisms that were buried in the ocean
floor.
 These remains get converted into hydrocarbons rich fuel by the action of pressure and
temperature.
 Composition à 90 to 95 per cent Hydrocarbons. 5 – 10% organic compounds containing
oxygen, nitrogen, sulphur and traces of organometallic compounds.
Distribution of Petroleum and Mineral Oil in India
 Most of the oil reserves in India are associated with anticlines and fault traps in the
sedimentary rock formations of tertiary times.
 Mumbai High, the Khambhat Gulf and the Assam are the most productive areas.
 Process began in tertiary period [3 million years ago].
 In tertiary period, aquatic life was abundant in various forms, especially the Page minor
microscopic forms of flora and fauna.
 Conditions for oil formation were favourable especially in the lower and middle Tertiary
period.
 Dense forests and sea organisms flourished in the gulfs, estuaries, deltas and the land
surrounding them during this period.

Q.22 Which of the following atomic minerals is/are found in India?

1. Uranium
2. Thorium
3. Beryllium
4. Zircon
5. Antimony
Select the correct option from the list below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Solution: D

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 307
Atomic minerals in India

 Uranium: It is found in Singhbhum and Hazaribagh districts of Jharkhand, and Gaya

District of Bihar, and in sedimentary rocks of Saharanpur District of Uttar Pradesh. The
largest source of uranium comprise the monazite sands, both beach and alluvial. Monazite
sand rich in uranium is found in Kerala. Some uranium is found in the copper and zinc
mines of Udaipur (Rajasthan). The total reserves of uranium as estimated by the
Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India, are about 31,000 tonnes.
 Thorium: It is derived from monazite. It is produced in Kerala, Jharkhand, Bihar, Tamil
Nadu, and Rajasthan. In addition to uranium and thorium, beryllium and lithium are also
the atomic minerals found mainly in Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
 Beryllium: Its reserves are in the states of Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and
Tamil Nadu.
 Zircon: It is found mainly in the coastal sand of Kerala.
 Antimony: It is found Himachal Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
 Graphite: Odisha is the largest producer of graphite. Its largest reserve is in
Ramanathpuram in Tamil Nadu. Its reserves are also in Jharkhand, Rajasthan and Andhra
Pradesh.

Q.23 Arrange the following nuclear power plant from North to South
1. Tarapur
2. Rawatbhata
3. Kalpakkam
4. Narora
5. Kakarapara
Select the correct option from the list below:
(A) 1-2-3-4-5
(B) 4-2-5-1-3
(C) 4-2-5-3-1
(D) 2-4-3-5-1
Solution: B
 The important nuclear power projects are Tarapur (Maharashtra), Rawatbhata near Kota
(Rajasthan), Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Narora (Uttar Pradesh), Kaiga (Karnataka) and
Kakarapara (Gujarat).

Q.24 Consider the following statements with reference to Solar energy

1. Solar energy is more effective than coal or oil-based plants then its effectiveness in
comparison to nuclear plants.
2. The western part of India has greater potential for the development of solar energy then
southern part
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 308
 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Solar Energy: Sun rays tapped in photovoltaic cells can be converted into energy, known as
solar energy. The two effective processes considered to be very effective to tap solar energy are
photovoltaic and solar thermal technology. Solar thermal technology has some relative
advantages over all other non-renewable energy sources. It is cost competitive, environment
friendly and easy to construct. Solar energy is 7 per cent more effective than coal or oil-based
plants and 10 per cent more effective than nuclear plants. It is generally used more in appliances

om
like heaters, crop dryers, cookers, etc. The western part of India has greater potential for the
development of solar energy in Gujarat and Rajasthan.

l.c
Q.25 The mechanism of energy conversion from blowing wind is simple which is responsible in
production of wind energy. Which energy of wind plays part in movement of turbines which is

ai
converted into electrical energy? m
(A) Mechanical energy
(B) Heat energy
9g
(C) Kinetic energy
(D) Electromagnetic Energy
56

Solution: C
Wind Energy: Wind energy is absolutely pollution free, inexhaustible source of energy. The
55

mechanism of energy conversion from blowing wind is simple. The kinetic energy of wind,
through turbines is converted into electrical energy. The permanent wind systems such the trade
ar

winds, westerly’s and seasonal wind like monsoon have been used as source of energy. Besides
m

these, local winds, land and sea breezes can also be used to produce electricity.
India, already has started generating wind energy. It has an ambitious programme to install 250
ku

wind-driven turbines with a total capacity of 45 megawatts, spread over.12 suitable locations,
specially in coastal areas. According to the estimation by Ministry of Power, India will be able to
an

produce 3,000 megawatts of electric from this source. The Ministry of non- conventional sources
of energy is developing wind energy in India to lessen the burden of oil import bill. The
am

country’s potential of wind power generation exceeds 50,000 megawatts; of which one fourth
can be easily harnessed. In Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Karnataka, favourable
conditions for wind energy exist. Wind power plant at Lamba in Gujarat in Kachchh is the
largest in Asia. Another, wind power plant is located at Tuticorin in Tamil Nadu.

Q.26 Match the following promising geothermal sites with their states.
1. Tattapani A. Himachal Pradesh
2. Cambay Graben B. Jharkhand
3. Manikaran C. Chhattisgarh
4. Surajkund D. Gujarat

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 309
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1.A,2.B,3.C,4.D
(B) 1.C,2.D,3.A,4.B
(C) 1.A,2.D,3.D,4.C
(D) 1.C,2.A,3.D,4.B
Solution: B
Geothermal energy
 Geothermal energy is thermal energy, which is generated through the natural hot springs.
 In India, by the time, geothermal energy installed capacity is experimental; however, the
potential capacity is more than 10,000 MW.
 Following are the six most promising geothermal energy sites in India −
1. Tattapani in Chhattisgarh
2. Puga in Jammu & Kashmir
3. Cambay Graben in Gujarat
4. Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh
5. Surajkund in Jharkhand
6. Chhumathang in Jammu & Kashmir

CHAPTER-8 - MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES

Q.27 Which of the following activity is correctly matched with collar of job?
1. Primary Activities - Gold-Collar jobs
2. Secondary Activities - White-Collar jobs.
3. Tertiary Activities - Blue-Collar jobs
4. Quinary Activities - Red-Collar jobs
Choose the correct option from the list below
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) None of the above
Solution: D
Primary Activities
 Directly dependent on environments such as land, water, vegetation, building materials,
and minerals.
 Examples are hunting and gathering, pastoral activities, fishing, forestry, agriculture, and
mining and quarrying.
 Red-Collar job

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 310
Secondary Activities
 Transforming raw materials into valuable/useful products.
 Examples- manufacturing, processing, and construction (infrastructure) industries.
 Blue-Collar job
Tertiary Activities
 It is the sector/activity that provides services to end consumers and to the primary and
secondary sectors and is considered the most important sector in the chain.
 Examples are- Transportation, health care, food service, retail sales, advertising,
entertainment, tourism, banking, law, etc. are all examples of tertiary-level sectors.
 White-collar jobs.
Quaternary Activities
 Although many economic models divide the economy into only three sectors, others
divide it into four or even five sectors. These final two sectors are closely linked with the
services of the tertiary sector. In these models, the quaternary sector of the economy
consists of intellectual activities often associated with technological innovation. It is
sometimes called the knowledge economy.
 Activities associated with this sector include government, culture, libraries, scientific
research, education, and information technology. These intellectual services and activities
are what drives technological advancement, which can have a huge impact on short- and
long-term economic growth.
Quinary Activities
 Some economists further subdivide the quaternary sector into the quinary sector, which
includes the highest levels of decision making in a society or economy.
 This sector includes top executives or officials in such fields as government, science,
universities, nonprofits, health care, culture, and the media. It may also include police and
fire departments, which are public services as opposed to for-profit enterprises.
 Economists sometimes also include domestic activities (duties performed in the home by
a family member or dependent) in the quinary sector.
 These activities, such as child care or housekeeping, are typically not measured by
monetary amounts but contribute to the economy by providing services for free that
would otherwise be paid for.
 Gold collar professions.

Q.28 Which of the following is/are considered as weight losing industry?

1. Iron and steel industries
2. Leather industry
3. Pulp industry
4. Copper smelting
5. Pig iron industries

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 311
 6. Heavy machinery industry
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1, 3, 4, and 5
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(D) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
Solution: A
Raw Materials (Industry locational factor)
Industries using weight-losing raw materials are located in the regions where raw materials are
located. Why are the sugar mills in India located in sugarcane growing areas? Similarly, the

om
locations of pulp industry, copper smelting and pig iron industries are located near their raw
materials. In iron and steel industries, iron ore and coal both are weight-losing raw materials.

l.c
Therefore, an optimum location for iron and steel industries should be near raw material sources.
This is why most of the iron and steel industries are located either near coalfields (Bokaro,

ai
Durgapur, etc.) or near sources of iron ore (Bhadravati, Bhilai, and Rourkela). Similarly,
industries based on perishable raw materials are also located close to raw material sources.
m
If there is no loss or gain in the net weight of raw material and product, then the industry can be
9g
placed anywhere between raw material and market. Other factors become more important. E.g.
Cotton, leather, etc.
56

If an industry is a weight-gaining industry, i.e. the net weight of the final product increases,
then the industry is located near the market. E.g. Automobile, heavy machinery, etc.
55
ar

Q.29 Consider the following statements

1. Industrial inertia refers when a firm remains in its original location even after the initial
m

advantage or alluring factors that led to them locating there has disappeared.
ku

2. Labour mobility has never been a problem in India due to large population and it does not
influence the location of industry
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
an

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
am

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Industrial Inertia:
 Industrial inertia is when a firm remains in its original location even after the initial
advantage or alluring factors that led to them locating there has disappeared.
 Industrial inertia is the predisposition of industries or companies to avoid relocating
facilities even in the face of changing economic circumstances that would otherwise
induce them to leave.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 312
  Often the costs associated with relocating fixed capital assets and labour far outweigh the
costs of adapting to the changing conditions of an existing location.
Labour:
 The availability of both unskilled and skilled, or technically qualified manpower, is an
important factor in the location of industries.
 One characteristic feature of the labour factor is its mobility.
 Some of the small-scale industries traditionally associated with labour are glass-work
(Ferozabad), brass-work (Moradabad), utensils (Yamunanagar in Haryana), silk sarees
(Varanasi), carpets (Mirzapur), etc.

Q.30 Find the name of Steel plant with the help of given descriptive statements?
1. This plant was established with the collaboration of Russia
2. Iron ore comes from Dalli-Rajhara mine and coal from Korba and Kargali coal fields
3. Water comes from the Tanduladam and the power from the Korba Themal Power Station
Choose the correct option from the list below
(A) Bhilai Steel Plant
(B) Bokaro Steel Plant
(C) Rourkela Steel Plant
(D) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant
Solution: A
Bhilai Steel Plant
The Bhilai Steel Plant was established with Russian collaboration in Durg district of
Chhattisgarh and started production in 1959. Iron ore comes from Dalli-Rajhara mine and coal
from Korba and Kargali coal fields. Water comes from the Tanduladam and the power from the
Korba Themal Power Station. This plant also lies on the Kolkata- Mumbai railway route. The
bulk of the steel produced goes to the Hindustan Shipyard at Vishakhapatnam.

Q.31 Consider the following statements

1. The Bhadravati river supplies water to the Rourkela Steel Plant
2. Bokaro Steel Plant was set up during the Second Five Year Plan
3. Durgapur Steel Plant in West Bengal was set up in collaboration with the government of
the United Kingdom
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Visvesvaraiya Iron and Steel Works Ltd. (VISL)
The third integrated steel plant, the Visvesvaraiya Iron and Steel Works, initially called the
Mysore Iron and Steel Works, is located close to an iron ore producing area of Kemangundi in
the Bababudan hills. Limestone and manganese are also locally available. But this region has no
coal. At the beginning, charcoal obtained by burning wood from nearby forests was used as fuel

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 313
till 1951. Afterwards, electric furnaces were installed which use hydroelectricity from the Jog
Falls hydel power project. The Bhadravati river supplies water to the plant. This plant produces
specialised steels and alloys.
Durgapur Steel Plant
Durgapur Steel Plant in West Bengal was set up in collaboration with the government of the
United Kingdom and started production in 1962. This plant lies in Raniganj and Jharia coal belt
and gets iron ore from Noamundi. Durgapur lies on the main Kolkata-Delhi railway route. Hydel
power and water is obtained from the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC).
Bokaro Steel Plant
This steel plant was set up in 1964 at Bokaro with Russian collaboration. This plant was set up
on the principle of transportation cost minimisation by creating Bokaro-Rourkela combine. It
receives iron ore from the Rourkela region and the wagons on return take coal to Rourkela. Other
raw materials come to Bokaro from within a radius of about 350 km. Water and hydel power is
supplied by the Damodar Valley Corporation.

Q.32 Consider the following statements

1. Localization of textile mills largely depends on raw material assemblage, uninterrupted
power supply and nearness to market.
2. Cotton textile is a weight losing industry due to which they are mostly concentrated in
western part of India
3. Uninterrupted supply of raw cotton from large cotton-growing areas of West India
benefited the industry in centres like Ahmedabad which is called Manchester of India
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C

Cotton textile industry in India

 Tropical climate and abundant yield of cotton crop are the main reasons for development
of cotton textile industry in India.
 India was famous worldwide for the production of muslin, a very fine variety of cotton
cloth, calicos, chintz and other different types of fine cotton cloth.
 With the beginning of the industrial revolution, Indian cotton textiles industry was
decimated due to competition from the mill industry of Britain.
 In 1854, the first modern cotton mill was established in Mumbai which eventually
developed into a hub for cotton textile industry.
 This industry around Mumbai grew tremendously in the 1870s due to a spurt in demand
in the wake of the American Civil War.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 314
  Indian industries made rapid strides during WW I due to a rise in demand for industrial
goods. The cotton textile industry was concentrated in the cotton belt of Rajasthan,
Maharashtra & Gujarat.
 Localization of textile mills largely depends on raw material assemblage, uninterrupted
power supply and nearness to market.
 This industry is located in almost every state in India, where one or more of the locational
factors have been favourable.
 Uninterrupted supply of raw cotton from large cotton-growing areas of West India
benefited the industry in centres like Ahmedabad (Manchester of India), Nagpur, Surat,
Indore and Coimbatore.
 At present, the industry is also getting diffused to regions nearer to the large urban

om
centres and ports to gain easy access to domestic and foreign markets.
 Cotton is a “pure” raw material which does not lose weight in the manufacturing process.

l.c
ai
Q.33 Consider the following statements with reference to challenges to Jute Textile Industry
m
1. After partition, most of the jute producing areas went to West Pakistan while most of the
jute mills remained in India
9g
2. The constant increase in rice cropped area in the delta region has decreased the
production of jute
56

3. Adoption of synthetic alternatives (polythene, nylon) has resulted in the decline of

demand for jute.
55

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

ar

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
m

(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
ku

Solution: B
Challenges for Jute Textile Industry
an

 After partition, most of the jute producing areas went to Bangladesh while most of the
am

jute mills remained in India.

 This problem was overcome to a large extent by extending the area in India under jute
and mesta.
 However, domestic production is simply not enough to satisfy the demand of Indian jute
mills.
 The constant increase in rice cropped area in the delta region further complicates the
situation.
 India imports significant quantities of jute fibre from Bangladesh to meet the shortfall.
 Antiquated technology and machinery, shortage of power and industrial sickness affect
production.
 Newly established factories in Bangladesh are posing a tough competition.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 315
  Adoption of synthetic alternatives (polythene, nylon) has resulted in the decline of
demand for jute.

Q.34 Which of the following is/are the reasons for shifting of sugar industry from Northern India
to Peninsular India?
1. Northern area has a greater number of mills as compare to south but due to low
sugarcane production they remain idle
2. High summer temperatures and Loo leads to low growth in northern India.
3. Shorter crushing season in peninsular region.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Sugar Industry – North Vs South
North India (Sutlej- Ganga plain from South India (Maharashtra, Karnataka,
Punjab to Bihar) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh)
 Low yield and productivity.  The tropical climate gives a higher yield
 High summer temperatures ranging from per unit area as compared to north India.
30° to 35°C and Loo (dry, scorching wind  No winds like ‘loo’ during summer.
in May and June with a desiccating effect)  Reasonably high temperature during
leads to low growth and fibrous crop. winter.
 In winter months (December and January)  Frost-free climate throughout the year.
the crop is likely to be damaged by severe  High maritime influence = moderate
cold and frost. climate = decreased crop duration and
 Hence it must be harvested before frost higher sucrose content.
season.  Non-perennial rivers.
 Perennial rivers and large-scale irrigation  Irrigational facilities have improved over
facilities. time.
 The crushing season ranges from 4 to 8  Yearlong crushing (factories keep running
months. throughout the year)
 Has more mills than the south but they are  Mills are comparatively large and modern.
of comparatively smaller size and use
antiquated technology.

Q.35 Consider the following statements

1. The software industry has surpassed electronic hardware production.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 316
 2. Zero Effect Zero Defect scheme is for hardware production industries for manufacturing
high quality products
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Knowledge Based Industries
 The advancement in information technology has had a profound influence on the
country’s economy.
 The Information Technology (IT) revolution opened up new possibilities of economic
and social transformation.
 The IT and IT enabled business process outsourcing (ITES-BPO) services continue to be
on a robust growth path.
 Indian software industry has emerged as one of the fastest growing sectors in the
economy. The software industry has surpassed electronic hardware production.
 The Indian government has created a number of software parks in the country.
 India’s software industry has achieved a remarkable distinction for providing quality
products. A large number of Indian software companies have acquired international
quality certification.
 A majority of the multinational companies (MNCs) operating in the area of information
technology have either software development centres or research development centres in
India.
 A major impact of this growth has been on employment creation, which is almost
doubled every year.
Zero Defect Zero Effect Scheme
 Launched in 2016 by the Ministry of MSME, the scheme is an integrated and
comprehensive certification system.
 The scheme accounts for productivity, quality, pollution mitigation, energy efficiency,
financial status, human resource and technological depth including design and IPR in
both products and processes.
 Its mission is to develop and implement the ‘ZED’ culture in India based on the
principles of Zero Defect & Zero Effect.

Q.36 Consider the following statements

1. The growth of Mumbai-Pune industrial region is fully connected with the growth of sugar
industry in peninsular India.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 317
 2. Bangalore-Tamil Nadu industrial region is away from the main coal-producing areas of
the country but cheap hydroelectric power provided a needed impetus.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Mumbai-Pune Industrial Region:

om
 This region extends from Thane to Pune and in adjoining districts of Nashik and Solapur.
In addition, industries have grown at a rapid pace in Kolaba, Ahmednagar, Satara, Sangli
and Jalgaon districts also. This region owes its origin to the British rule in India.

l.c
 The growth of this industrial region is fully connected with the growth of cotton textile
industry in India. As the coal was far from the region, hydel power was developed in

ai
Western Ghats. Cotton was cultivated in the black cotton soil area of the Narmada and
m
Tapi basins.
 Cheap labour-force came from the hinterland, the port facilities for export-import and
9g
communication links with the peninsular hinterland made Mumbai the ‘Cottonopolis of
India’. With the development of cotton textile industry, the chemical industry developed
56

too.
 Opening of the Mumbai High petroleum field and erection of nuclear energy plants added
55

additional magnetic force to this region. Now the industrial centres have developed, from
Mumbai to Kurla, Kolaba, Thane, Ghatkopar, Ville Parle, Jogeshwari, Andheri, Thane,
ar

Bhandup, Kalyan, Pimpri, Pune, Nashik, Manmad, Solapur, Ahmednagar, Satara and
Sangli.
m

 In addition to cotton textile and chemical industries, engineering goods, leather, oil
ku

refineries; petrochemicals, synthetic and plastic goods, chemicals, drugs, fertilizers,

electricals, electronics, software, ship-building, transport and food industries have also
an

developed here.
Bangalore-Tamil Nadu Industrial Region:
am

 Spread in two states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, this region experienced the fastest
industrial growth in the post-independence era.
 This region is a cotton-growing tract and is dominated by the cotton-textile industry. In
fact, cotton textile industry was the first to take roots in this region. But it has large
number of silk-manufacturing units, sugar mills, leather industry, chemicals, rail wagons,
diesel engines, radio, light engineering goods, rubber goods, medicines, aluminium,
cement, glass, paper, cigarette, match box and machine tools, etc.
 This region is away from the main coal-producing areas of the country but cheap
hydroelectric power is available from Mettur, Sivasamudram, Papanasam, Pykara and

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 318
 Sharavati dams. Cheap skilled labour and proximity to vast local market as well as good
climate have also favoured the concentration of industries in this region.
 Madurai is known for its cotton textiles. Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Works is located at
The other important centres of this region are Sivakasi, Tiruchirapalli, Madukottai,
Mettur, Mysore and Mandya. Petroleum refinery at Chennai and Narimanam and iron and
steel plant at Salem are recent developments.

CHAPTER-9 - PLANNING AND SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT IN INDIAN

CONTEXT

Q.37 Consider the following statements

1. In the 6th Five Year Plan special area programmes were designed to develop
infrastructure in hill areas, north-eastern states, tribal areas and backward areas.
2. Hill Area Development Programmes were initiated during the Fifth Five Year Plan
covering 15 districts
3. Hill Area Development programmes aimed at harnessing the indigenous resources of the
hill areas through development of horticulture, plantation, agriculture
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B

In the 8th Five Year Plan special area programmes were designed to develop infrastructure in hill
areas, north-eastern states, tribal areas and backward areas.
Hill Area Development Programme
Hill Area Development Programmes were initiated during the Fifth Five Year Plan covering 15
districts comprising all the hilly districts of Uttar Pradesh (present Uttarakhand), Mikir Hill and
North Cachar hills of Assam, Darjeeling district of West Bengal and Nilgiri district of Tamil
Nadu. The National Committee on the Development of Backward Area in 1981 recommended
that all the hill areas in the country having height above 600 m and not covered under tribal sub-
plan be treated as backward hill areas.
The detailed plans for the development of hill areas were drawn keeping in view their
topographical, ecological, social and economic conditions. These programmes aimed at
harnessing the indigenous resources of the hill areas through development of horticulture,
plantation, agriculture, animal husbandry, poultry, forestry and small-scale and village industry.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 319
Q.38 Consider the following statements with reference to Drought Prone Area Programme
1. This programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan with the objectives of
providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas
2. It emphasized on irrigation projects, land development programmes, afforestation,
grassland development and creation of basic rural infrastructure, such as electricity,
roads, market, credit and services.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Drought Prone Area Programme
This programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan with the objectives of providing
employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets. Initially, this
programme laid emphasis on the construction of labour-intensive civil works. But later on, it
emphasised on irrigation projects, land development programmes, afforestation, grassland
development and creation of basic rural infrastructure, such as electricity, roads, market, credit
and services.

Q.39 The UN established a World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED)

headed by the Gro Harlem Brundtland. The Commission gave its report (also known as
Brundtland Report) entitled ‘Our Common Future’ in 1987, which provided the concept of
sustainable development. Gro Harlem Brundtland was the prime minister of which country?
(A) Israel
(B) Norway
(C) Denmark
(D) Finland
Solution: B
The notion of sustainable development emerged in the wake of general rise in the awareness of
environmental issues in the late 1960s in Western World. It reflected the concern of people about
undesirable effects of industrial development on the environment. The publication of ‘The
Population Bomb’ by Ehrlich in 1968 and ‘The Limits to Growth’ by Meadows and others in
1972 further raised the level of fear among environmentalists in particular and people in general.
This sets the scenario for the emergence of new models of development under a broad phrase
‘sustainable development.’
Concerned with the growing opinion of world community on the environmental issues, the
United Nations established a World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED)
headed by the Norwegian Prime Minister Gro Harlem Brundtland. The Commission gave its
report (also known as Brundtland Report) entitled ‘Our Common Future’ in 1987. The report
Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 320
 defines sustainable development as a “development that meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.”

Q.40 Which of the following option correctly define the ‘Warabandi system’?
(A) Method of irrigation through which areas affected by water logging and soil salinity shall
be reclaimed
(B) Method of bundling for farming in hilly arears
(C) Method of drip irrigation where artificial water logging conditions are created around a
particular crop

om
(D) Rotational method for equitable distribution of the available water in an irrigation system
Solution: D

l.c
Measures for Promotion of Sustainable Development
The ecological sustainability of Indira Gandhi Canal Project has been questioned by various

ai
scholars. Their point of view has also largely been validated by the course of development this
m
region has taken during the last four decades, which has resulted in degradation of physical
environment. It is a hard fact that attaining sustainable development in the command area
9g
requires major thrust upon the measures to achieve ecological sustainability. Hence, five of the
seven measures proposed to promote sustainable development in the command area are meant to
56

restore ecological balance.

55

(i) The first requirement is strict implementation of water management policy. The canal
project envisages protective irrigation in Stage-I and extensive irrigation of crops and
pasture development in Stage-II.
ar

(ii) In general, the cropping pattern shall not include water intensive crops. It shall be adhered
m

to and people shall be encouraged to grow plantation crops such as citrus fruits.
(iii) The CAD programmes such as lining of water courses, land development and levelling and
ku

warabandi system (equal distribution of canal water in the command area of outlet)
shall be effectively implemented to reduce the conveyance loss of water.
an

(iv) The areas affected by water logging and soil salinity shall be reclaimed.
(v) The eco-development through afforestation, shelterbelt plantation and pasture development
am

is necessary particularly in the fragile environment of Stage-II.

(vi) The social sustainability in the region can be achieved only if the land allottees having poor
economic background are provided adequate financial and institutional support for
cultivation of land.
(vii) The economic sustainability in the region cannot be attained only through development of
agriculture and animal husbandry. The agricultural and allied activities have to develop
alongwith other sectors of economy. This shall lead to diversification of economic base and
establishment of functional linkages between basic villages, agro-service centres and
market centres.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 321
 CHAPTER-10 - TRANSPORT AND COMMUNICATION
Q.41 Consider the following statements about road transport
1. India has one of the second largest road networks in the world and first is China
2. Percentage of passengers going through road is more than percentage of freight going
through road every year
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Road Transport
India has one of the second largest road networks in the world with a total length of about 56
lakh km (morth.nic.in, Annual Report 2017-18). About 85 per cent of passenger and 70 per cent
of freight traffic are carried by roads every year. Road transport is relatively suitable for shorter
distance travel.
Road transport in modern sense was very limited in India before World War-II. The first serious
attempt was made in 1943 when ‘Nagpur Plan’ was drawn. This plan could not be implemented
due to lack of coordination among the princely states and British India. After Independence,
twenty-year road plan (1961) was introduced to improve the conditions of roads in India.
However, roads continue to concentrate in and around urban centres. Rural and remote areas had
the least connectivity by road. For the purpose of construction and maintenance, roads are
classified as National Highways (NH), State Highways(SH), Major District Roads and Rural
Roads.
Note: Country with largest road network is US

Q.42 Consider the following statements, with reference to National Highways

1. National Highways are constructed and maintained by the Central Government
2. The National Highways constitute smallest per cent of the total road length but carry
more than half of the road traffic.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
National Highways

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 322
The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the Central Government are known as
the National Highways. These roads are meant for inter-state transport and movement of defence
men and material in strategic areas. These also connect the state capitals, major cities, important
ports, railway junctions, etc. The length of the National Highways has increased from 19,700 km
in 1951 to 101011 km in 2016. The National Highways constitute only about 2 per cent of the
total road length but carry 40 per cent of the road traffic.
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was operationalised in 1995. It is an
autonomous body under the Ministry of Surface Transport. It is entrusted with the responsibility
of development, maintenance and operation of National Highways. This is also the apex body to
improve the quality of the roads designated as National Highways.

Q.43 Consider the following statements about Golden Quadrilateral (GQ)

1. The largest section of golden quadrilateral is a stretch from Delhi to Kolkata
2. Golden Quadrilateral is managed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
under the Ministry of Road, Transport and Highways.
3. Chennai to Mumbai stretch of GQ, comprise of 3 National Highways
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
NHAI has taken up some major projects in the country under different phases :
Golden Quadrilateral: It comprises construction of 5,846-km long 4/6 lane, high density traffic
corridor, to connect India’s four big metro cities of Delhi-Mumbai-Chennai-Kolkata. With the
construction of Golden Quadrilateral, the time, distance and cost of movement among the mega
cities of India will be considerably minimised.
 The Golden Quadrilateral has four sections. Section I is a 1,454km stretch of National
Highway 2 (NH2) from Delhi to Kolkata. It runs through Delhi, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh,
Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. It connects major cities in these states, such as Delhi,
Faridabad, Mathura, Agra, Firozabad, Kanpur, Allahabad and Varanasi.
 Section II is a 1,684km stretch from Kolkata to Chennai. It consists of NH6 (Kolkata to
Kharagpur), NH60 (Kharagpur to Balasore) and NH5 (Balasore to Chennai). It passes
through the states of West Bengal, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
 Section III is a 1,290km stretch from Chennai to Mumbai. It constitutes parts of NH4
(Mumbai to Bangalore), NH7 (Bangalore to Krishnagiri, Tamil Nadu) and NH46
(Krishnagiri to nearby Chennai). It passes through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra
Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 323
  Section IV is a 1,419km stretch between Mumbai and Chennai. It constitutes parts of NH
8 (Delhi to Kishangarh), NH 79A (Ajmer bypass), NH 79 (Nasirabad to Chittaurgarh)
and NH 76 (Chittaurgarh to Udaipur). It passes through the states of Maharashtra,
Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana and New Delhi. It connects major cities which include
Delhi, Gurgaon, Jaipur, Ajmer, Udaipur, Gandhinagar, Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Surat and
Mumbai.

Q.44 Consider the following statements about North-South and East-West Corridors
1. The North-South and East-West corridors of the National Highway Development Project

om
meet at Lucknow
2. East-West Corridor of project connect Arunachal Pradesh to Gujrat

l.c
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Only 1

ai
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
m
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
9g
Solution: C
North-South and East-West Corridors
56

North-South corridor aims at connecting Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir with Kanniyakumari in
Tamil Nadu (including Kochchi-Salem Spur) with 4,076-km long road. The East-West Corridor
55

has been planned to connect Silchar in Assam with the port town of Porbandar in Gujarat with
3,640-km of road length.
ar

 Jhansi is the junction of North-South and East-West Corridors and four stretches are
m

common between the Golden Quadrilateral the NS-EW Corridors.

ku

 The NS-EW Corridor passes from 17 states and from Delhi along with other states
capitals such as Srinagar, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Lucknow, and Dispur.
an

 The North-South and East-West Corridor is the largest ongoing highway project in India.
It is the second phase of the National Highways Development Project consists of building
am

four/six-lane expressways connecting Srinagar (North), Kanyakumari (South), Porbandar

(West), and Silchar (East).

Q.45 Consider the following statements about District Roads

1. District Roads joins the state capitals with district headquarters
2. District roads has a greater length of road then State highway.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 324
 (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
State Highways
These are constructed and maintained by state governments. They join the state capitals with
district headquarters and other important towns. These roads are connected to the National
Highways. These constitute 4 per cent of total road length in the country.
District Roads
These roads are the connecting link between District Headquarters and the other important nodes
in the district. They account for 14 per cent of the total road length of the country.
Rural Roads
These roads are vital for providing links in the rural areas. About 80 per cent of the total road
length in India are categorised as rural roads. There is regional variation in the density of rural
road because these are influenced by the nature of the terrain.

Q.46 Arrange the following states in descending order in terms of length of NH?
1. Maharashtra
2. Odisha
3. UP
4. Tamil Nadu
5. Gujrat
Choose the correct code from the list below
(A) 1-2-3-4-5
(B) 1-3-5-4-2
(C) 1-3-5-2-4
(D) 3-1-5-4-2
Solution: B

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 325
Q.47 Consider the following statements about Border Roads Organisation (BRO)
1. BRO is operational in all Indian states and 1 union territory
2. BRO is operational not only in India but also in other countries
3. BRO can present their expertise in any project of national or transnational development
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Border Roads Organisation
BRO is a modern and transnational construction organization that is committed to meeting the
strategic requirements of the Indian armed forces. The organization plays a vital role in upscaling
infrastructural development.
Given below are a few of the most important things about the Border Roads Organisation:
 Initially, BRO was functional under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. But
since 2015, it is being managed and is functional under the Ministry of Defence
 BRO is operational in 21 Indian states and 1 union territory. But also, functional in our
friendly countries like neighboring countries such as Afghanistan, Bhutan, Myanmar, and
Sri Lanka
 The Organisation was formed on May 7, 1960, to maintain and develop the Indian remote
areas of north and northeast situated near the borders
Mission of Border Roads Organisation
BRO works under set guidelines or as instructed by the Government of the country. Given below
is the mission of BRO:

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 326
  To ensure that cost-effective, sustainable, and strategic needs of the armed forces are met
without any inconvenience
 Achieving an international level of quality excellence and time consciousness
 Present their expertise in any project of national or transnational development
 Using information technology in the best possible manner and implementing it as an
advantage in the various infrastructure projects
 Highest level of proficiency must be shown with every construction
 To upgrade the quality of life and livelihood in border areas by helping them with the
means of easy transport, accessibility and connectivity

om
Q.48 Consider the following statements about Rail transport
1. Indian Railways, network is the longest in the world

l.c
2. It facilitates movement of police, troops, defence equipment etc., during times of

ai
emergency
m
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
9g
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
56

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: B
55

Rail Transport
ar

Indian Railways, network is one of the longest in the world. It facilitates the movement of both
freight and passengers and contributes to the growth of the economy. Mahatma Gandhi said, the
m

Indian railways “...brought people of diverse cultures together to contribute to India’s freedom
struggle”.
ku

Indian Railway was introduced in 1853, when a line was constructed from Bombay to Thane
an

covering a distance of 34 km.

Indian Railways is the largest government undertaking in the country. The length of Indian
am

Railways network was 66,030 km as on 31 March 2015. Its very large size puts a lot of pressure
on a centralised railway management system. Thus, in India, the railway system has been divided
into 16 zones.
Significance of the Indian Railways
 Railways provide the cheapest and most convenient mode of passenger transport both for
long distance and suburban traffic
 Railways have played a significant role in the development and growth of Industries.
Growth of textile Industry in Mumbai, Jute Industries around Kolkata are largely due to
development of railway network in these areas

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 327
  Agriculture also owes its growth to railways to a great extent. Now farmers can sell their
agricultural produce to distant places
 Railways have been helpful in removing isolation between cities and countryside; and
have played a significant role in dissemination innovations and new ideas
 Railways are particularly suited for long distance journey; and hence provide a strong
medium of national integration
 Railways carry relief and rescue teams to the affected areas, during times of natural
calamities. Hence, they play a part in mitigating the sufferings of the people
 Railways help in facing man-made calamities like social, political, religious disturbances,
insurgency, etc. It facilitates easy movement of police, troops, defence equipment etc,
during times of emergency

Q.49 Which of the following railway zone is/are correctly matched with it’s headquarter?
1. North Eastern - Silchar
2. East Central - Hajipur
3. West Central - Jhansi
4. East Coast - Bhubaneswar
Choose the correct option from the list below
(A) 2 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 328
Q.50 Consider the following statements
1. The total length of ‘Metre gauge’ is more than both Broad and Narrow gauge
2. Indian Railways has launched extensive programme to convert the metre and narrow
gauges to broad gauge.
3. The speed of a train is a function of the diameter of the wheel, which in turn is limited by
the gauge.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 329
 On the basis of the width of track of the Indian Railways, three categories have been made:
 Broad gauge: The distance between rails in broad gauge is 1.676 metre. The total length
of broad gauge lines was 60510 km in March 2016.
 Metre gauge: The distance between rails is one metre. Its total length was 3880 km in
March 2016.
 Narrow gauge: The distance between the rails in this case is 0.762 metre or 0.610 metre.
The total length of narrow guage was 2297 km in March 2016. It is generally confined to
hilly areas.
Indian Railways has launched extensive programme to convert the metre and narrow gauges to
broad gauge. Moreover, steam engines have been replaced by diesel and electric engines. This

om
step has increased the speed, as well as, the haulage capacity.
Factors affecting the Railway Gauge

l.c
 Traffic conditions: If the traffic intensity is likely to be high on the track, then the broad

ai
gauge will be appropriate instead of the standard gauge.
m
 Poor areas development: Narrow gauges have been installed in some parts of the world
to develop a poor area and thus helpful in linking the poor area with the outside world.
9g
 Cost of track: The cost of the railway track is directly proportional to the width of its
gauge. If available funds are not enough to make a standard gauge and there is no railway
56

line in the area, then the metre gauge or narrow gauge is preferred.
 Speed of the train:
55

o The speed of a train is a function of the diameter of the wheel, which in turn is
limited by the gauge.
ar

o The wheel's diameter is usually 0.75 times the width of the gauge and thus, the
speed of the train is almost proportional to the gauge.
m

o If higher speeds are to be achieved then the broad gauge track is given priority
instead of metre gauge or narrow gauge track.
ku
an

Q.51 Consider the following statements about Water Transport and inland waterways in India
am

1. Due to diversion of river water for irrigation purposes made inland waterways non-
navigable in large parts of their courses.
2. Waterways are a cheaper mode of transportation vis-à-vis the available alternatives,
significantly reducing the point-to-point cost of goods
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 330
Water Transport
Waterways is an important mode of transport for both passenger and cargo traffic in India. It is
the cheapest means of transport and is most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky material. It is a
fuel-efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport. The water transport is of two types– (a) inland
waterways, and (b) oceanic waterways.
Inland Waterways
It was the chief mode of transport before the advent of railways. It, however, faced tough
competition from road and railway transport. Moreover, diversion of river water for irrigation
purposes made them non-navigable in large parts of their courses. India has 14,500 km of
navigable waterways, contributing about 1% to the country’s transportation. It comprises rivers,
canals, backwaters, creeks, etc. At present, 5,685 km of major rivers are navigable by
mechanised flat bottom vessels.
For the development, maintenance and regulation of national waterways in the country, the
Inland Waterways Authority was set up in 1986. The following waterways have been declared as
the National Waterways by the Government
The Inland Waterways Authority has also identified 10 other inland waterways, which could be
upgraded. The backwaters (Kadal) of Kerala has special significance in Inland Waterway. Apart
from providing cheap means of transport, they are also attracting a large number of tourists in
Kerala. The famous Nehru Trophy Boat Race (VALLAMKALI) is also held in the backwaters.
Advantages of Inland Waterways
 A well-coordinated inland waterways network could bring a fundamental alteration in the
logistics scenario of the country
 Waterways can decongest roads, including highways by moving cargo away
 Waterways do not involve challenges associated with land acquisition, which has always
been a sensitive issue, causing time and cost overruns of numerous projects
 Waterways are a cheaper mode of transportation vis-à-vis the available alternatives,
significantly reducing the point-to-point cost of goods
 As per a study carried out by RITES in respect to the Integrated National Waterways
Transportation Grid, one litre of fuel will move 24 tons through one kilometre on road,
95 on rail and 215 kilometres on inland water transport
Challenges related to Inland Waterways
 The channel draft of the national waterways is not uniform at 2 meters throughout the
year, as is required. Some of these rivers are seasonal and do not offer navigability
through the year
 Further, all the identified waterways require intensive capital and maintenance dredging,
which could be resisted by the local community on environmental grounds, including
displacement fears, thereby posing implementation challenges

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 331
  The presence of waterfalls and sharp bends in the course of river hinders the development
of waterways
 Silting of river beds reduces the depth of water and creates problems for navigation. And
Desilting of river beds is a costly affair
 Diversion of water for irrigation purposes reduced the quantity of water in river channel,
and hence should be done carefully
 Also, the demand for sufficient waterways needs to grow, to make it an economically
viable mode of transportation

Q.52 Consider the following statements with reference to Air Transportation

1. Airport Authority of India controls and manages the entire Indian space even beyond the
territorial limits of the country, in accordance with the norms set by United Nation
2. 100% FDI has been allowed in aviation sector under automatic route for both Greenfield
as well as brownfield projects
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Air Transportation
 Air transport is the fastest means of movement from one place to the other. It has reduced
distances by minimising the travel time. It is essential for a vast country like India, where
distances are large and the terrain and climatic conditions are diverse.
 Air transport in India made a beginning in 1911 when airmail operation commenced over
a little distance of 10 km between Allahabad and Naini. But its real development took
place in post-Independent period. The Airport Authority of India is responsible for
providing safe, efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian
Air Space. The authority manages 125 airports.
 The air transport in India is managed by Air India. Now, many private companies have
also started passenger services. Air India provides International Air Services for both
passengers and cargo traffic. It connects all the continents of the world through its
services. Some private companies have also started operations to foreign countries.
 In 2010, domestic movement involved 520.21 lakh passengers and about 23 lakh metric
tonnes of cargo.
 Pawan Hans is the helicopter service operating in hilly areas and is widely used by
tourists in north-eastern sector.
 In addition, Pawan Hans Limited mainly provides helicopter services to petroleum sector
and for tourism.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 332
 AAI
 This authority is responsible for providing safe and efficient air traffic services, along
with aeronautical communication services for effective control of air traffic in the entire
Indian air space
 It controls and manages the entire Indian space even beyond the territorial limits of the
country, in accordance with the norms set by International Civil Aviation Organisation
 The International Airports division of AAI, operates and develops international Airports
 It has undertaken construction of terminal complexes at various international airports and
improvement/upgradation of runways and terminal buildings
 However, the improvement of infrastructure at the airports needs heavy capital

om
investment which the government cannot afford of its own
 Therefore, private domestic and foreign investors including NRIs have been encouraged
to participate in the process of improvement

l.c
Aviation sector under Make in India

ai
Aviation sector is one of the 25 sectors which has been identified under the Make in India
scheme
m
9g
 100% FDI has been allowed under automatic route for both Greenfield as well as
brownfield projects
Indian airports are emulating the Special Economic Zone (SEZ) Aerotropolis model to
56


enhance revenues. The model focuses on revenues from retail, advertising, vehicle
parking, security equipment, and services
55
ar

CHAPTER-11 - INTERNATIONAL TRADE

m
ku

Q.53 Consider the following statements

an

1. From 2012-13 to 2016-17, India’s import has always remained higher than its export
2. From 2009-10 to 2016-17, India’s export of crude and petroleum product has decreased
am

by almost 1/3
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 333
Q.54 Consider the following statements
1. Soon after independence, the balance of payment situation was adverse as imports were
more than export in spite of all the efforts of import substitution.
2. After 1970s, foodgrain import was discontinued but it was the energy crisis of 1973
which worsen the situation of BoP in India
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 334
Solution: C
Changing Patterns of the Composition of India’s Import
India faced serious food shortage during 1950s and 1960s. The major item of import at that time
was foodgrain, capital goods, machinery and equipment. The balance of payment was adverse as
imports were more than export in spite of all the efforts of import substitution. After 1970s,
foodgrain import was discontinued due to the success of Green revolution but the energy crisis of
1973 pushed the prices of petroleum, and import budget was also pushed up. Foodgrain import
was replaced by fertilisers and petroleum.
Machine and equipment, special steel, edible oil and chemicals largely make the import basket.
Examine the changing pattern of imports in Table 11.4 and try to comprehend the shifts.
Table 11.4 shows that there is a steep rise in the import of petroleum products. It is used not only
as a fuel but also as an industrial raw material. It indicates the tempo of rising industrialisation
and better standard of living. Sporadic price rise in the international market is another reason for
the same. Import of capital goods maintained a steady increase due to rising demand in the
export-oriented industrial and domestic sectors. Non-electrical machinery, transport equipment,
manufacturers of metals and machine tools were the main items of capital goods. Import of food
and allied products declined with a fall in imports of edible oils. Other major items of India’s
import include pearls and semi-precious stones, gold and silver, metalliferrous ores and metal
scrap, non-ferrous metals, electronic goods, etc. The details of Indian imports of some principal
commodities during 2016-17 have been given in Table 11.5.

Q.55 Consider the following statements about ports in India

1. India has more ports in east side than on west
2. Kandla Port was made to relieve the pressure at Jawaharlal Nehru Port
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 335
 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D

 An interesting fact about ports in India is that its west coast has more ports than its east
coast.
 Kandla Port situated at the head of Gulf of Kuchchh has been developed as a major port
to cater to the needs of western and north western parts of the country and also to reduce
the pressure at Mumbai port. The port is specially designed to receive large quantities of
petroleum and petroleum products and fertiliser. The offshore terminal at Vadinar has
been developed to reduce the pressure at Kandla port. Demarcation of the boundary of
the hinterland would be difficult as it is not fixed over space. In most of the cases,

om
hinterland of one port may overlap with that of the other.

l.c
Q.56 Consider the following statements and find the name of port

ai
1. It is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary
2. It gained significance after its remodeling in 1961 to handle iron-ore exports to Japan.
m
3. Karnataka, Goa, Southern Maharashtra constitute its hinterland
9g
Choose the correct option from the list below
56

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru Port

(B) Marmagao Port
55

(C) Kandla Port

(D) New Mangalore Port
ar

Solution: B
m

 Marmagao Port, situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary, is a natural harbour in
Goa. It gained significance after its remodeling in 1961 to handle iron-ore exports to
ku

Japan. Construction of Konkan railway has considerably extended the hinterland of this
port. Karnataka, Goa, Southern Maharashtra constitute its hinterland.
an

 Jawaharlal Nehru Port at Nhava Sheva was developed as a satellite port to relieve the
pressure at the Mumbai port. It is the largest container port in India.
am

 New Mangalore Port is located in the state of Karnataka and caters to the needs of the
export of iron-ore and iron-concentrates. It also handles fertilisers, petroleum products,
edible oils, coffee, tea, wood pulp, yarn, granite stone, molasses, etc. Karnataka is the
major hinterland for this port.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 336
 CHAPTER-12 - GEOGRAPHICAL PERSPECTIVE ON SELECTED ISSUES AND
PROBLEMS

Q.57 Consider the following statements regarding contaminants in water-

1. Mercury compounds in waste water are converted by bacterial action into non-
toxicmethyl mercury.
2. Lead in water causes itai-itai disease.
3. Cadmium contaminated water is carcinogenic for lungs and livers.
Which of the above given statement(s)is/are incorrect?
(A) 2 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 only
(D) None of these
Solution: B
 Mercury compounds in waste water are converted by bacterial action into extremely
toxic methyl mercury, which can cause numbness of limbs, lips and tongue, deafness,
blurring of vision and mental derangement.
 Water contaminated with cadmium can cause itai-itai disease also called ouch-ouch
disease (a painful disease of bones and joints) and cancer of lungs and liver.
 The compounds of lead cause anaemia, headache, loss of muscle power and bluish line
around the gum.
Q.58 Which of the following are matched correctly
1. Carbon monoxide - lowers the amount of oxygen that enters our blood
2. Lead - lowers our resistance to cold and pneumonia
3. Ground Ozone - can cause nervous system damage
4. Nitrogen oxide - can cause smog and acid rain
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: C
Carbon monoxide (CO)
 It is a colorless, odourless gas that is produced by the incomplete burning of carbon-
based fuels including petrol, diesel, and wood.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 337
  It is also produced from the combustion of natural and synthetic products such as
cigarettes.
 It lowers the amount of oxygen that enters our blood.
Lead
 It is present in petrol, diesel, lead batteries, paints, hair dye products, etc. Lead affects
children in particular.
 It can cause nervous system damage and digestive problems and, in some cases, cause
cancer.
Ground Ozone
 Vehicles and industries are the major source of ground level ozone emissions.
 Ozone makes our eyes itch, burn, and water. It lowers our resistance to cold and
pneumonia.
Nitrogen oxide (Nox)
 It causes smog and acid rain. It is produced from burning fuels including petrol, diesel,
and coal.
 Nitrogen oxide can make children susceptible to respiratory diseases in winters.

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 338
 om
l.c
ai
m
9g
56
55
ar
m
ku
an
am

Revise Prelims 2022 Through 3000+ MCQs| Geography| Sunya IAS Page 339