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CSS-07
PHYSICS

Q. 9 (CST-13) (Young’s Double Slit Experiment) 3. A body of mass m = 3.513 kg is moving along
1. If a violet light is replaced by a red light in a the x-axis with a speed of 5.00 m s–1. The
YDSE, then the fringe width will magnitude of its momentum is
(1) Increase (1) 17.6 kg m s–1 (2) 17.565 kg m s–1
(2) Decrease (3) 17.56 kg m s–1 (4) 17.57 kg m s–1
(3) Remains same Q. 6 (CST-13) (Surface Tension)
(4) May be increase or decrease 1. An annular disc of inner radius r1 and outer
2. In YDSE, if monochromatic light is replaced by radius r2 is floating on liquid of surface tension
white light, then T. What will be force on disc due to surface
(1) All bright fringes become white tension?
(2) All bright fringes have colours either violet (1) 2T(r1 + r2)
or red (2) T(r1 + r2)
(3) Only the central fringe is white and all other (3) 2 Tr2
fringes are coloured (4) 2 Tr1
(4) No fringes are observed 2. A thin metal ring of radius r floats on water
3. In a YDSE, the fringe width is to be 2 mm, surface and bends the surface downwards
when light of wavelength 2000 Å is used. Find along the perimeter making an angle  with
the change in fringe width if the whole setup is vertical edge of the ring. If the ring displaces
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 4. weight of water w and surface tension of water
(1) 1.5 mm (2) 1 mm is T, the weight of metal ring is
(3) 0.5 mm (4) 2 mm (1) 2rTcos + w (2) 2rTcos – w
Q. 21 (CST-13) (Significant Figures)
(3) 2rTcos + 2w (4) 4rTcos + w
1. The number of significant figures in all the
3. A rigid ring A and thin rigid disc B both are
given number 25.38, 202.3, 2.564, is
made of same material, when gently place on
(1) 1 (2) 2
water just manage to float on water surface
(3) 3 (4) 4 due to surface tension, both the ring and disc
3.60 have same radius, Then
2. The value of , upto correct significant
1.2
(1) Mass of ring > mass of disc
figure is
(2) Mass of ring < mass of disc
(1) 3 (2) 3.0
(3) Mass of ring = mass of disc
(3) 3.00 (4) 3.000
(4) More information required

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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Physics

Q. 7 (CST-13) (Acceleration Graph)

1. A particle is moving on a straight line. Its
(1) (2)
velocity displacement graph is given below.
Which of following graph best represent
acceleration displacement graph?

(3) (4)

Q. 10 (CST-13) (Stress-strain Curve)

1. The stress-strain graph for material is given
below. Then choose correct option. Where A
(1) (2)
and B are two points on curve.

(3) (4)

2. A particle is moving on a straight line along x-

 Stress   Stress 
(1)    
axis its V2 – x graph is given below. Then  Strain  A  Strain B
which of following graph represents
 Stress   Stress 
acceleration displacement graph? (2)    
 Strain  A  Strain B

 Stress   Stress 
(3)    
 Strain  A  Strain B

(4) Information insufficient

2. The stress-strain curve for the elastic tissue of
aorta is given in the figure, two points A and B

(1) (2) Stress

are chooses on curve then ratio of at
Strain

(3) (4)

3. A particle moving on straight line along +x-axis (1) A is greater than B

its acceleration-displacement graph is given
(2) A is less than B
below. Then which one of the following graph
represents it velocity-displacement graph (3) A is equal to B
(given at t = 0, particle at x = 0 and initial (4) Graph is incorrect, it should be straight live
velocity = 0)
3. The stress-strain curve for two material A and
B are shown in figure. Young’s modulus of
material A and B are YA and YB respectively,
then

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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Physics

(1) 2P (2) P
P
(3) 4P (4)
2
(1) YA > YB (2) YA < YB 5. If a double convex lens is cut into two equal
(3) YA = YB (4) YA  YB parts then bending ability of any one part of the
Q. 28 (CST-13) (Power of Lens) lens will
1. A thin double convex lens of power P is cut (1) Decrease
into two equal part as shown the power of any (2) Increase
one part (3) Remains same
(4) May decrease or remains same
Q. 17 (CST-13) (Diode)
1. An ideal diode is connected with a DC source
and a resistance R, as shown below, then VR
and V0 respectively will be

(1) Will be equal as original lens

(2) Will be half of the original lens
(3) Will be double of the original lens (1) V, 0 (2) 0, V

(4) Data insufficient (3) 0, 0 (4) V, V

2. A double convex lens has radius of curvature 2. An ideal diode is connected with a resistance

R on both side and refractive index of it’s and a DC source as shown below, then VR and

material  then the power of the lens will be V0 respectively in the given circuit will be

(give that R is in c.m.)

 200  2
(1) ( – 1)   (2) ( – 1)  
 R  R 

 400  4
(3) ( – 1)   (4) ( – 1)  
 R  R  (1) 0, V (2) V, 0
3. A plano convex lens has radius of curvature R (3) 0, 0 (4) V, V
and refractive index of the material  then the 3. If in a ideal P-n junction diode a input signal is
power of lens will be (given R is in cm) applied as shown in figure, then output signal

100   200  across the diode will be

(1) P  ( – 1)   (2) P  ( – 1)  
 R   R 

 400  2
(3) P  ( – 1)   (4) P  ( – 1)  
 R  R 
4. A thin symmetric double convex lens of power (1) (2)
P is cut into two equal part and both the parts (3) (4)
are placed in contact side by side, as shown 4. If in a ideal p-n junction diode a input signal is
below, then the power of new combination will applied as shown in figure, then output signal
be across the diode will be

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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Physics

3. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance (C) is

connected to a battery of e.m.f V. If a plate of
dielectric constant K is inserted into it, then the
charge on the capacitor will become
(1) (2) (1) KCV (2) CV
(3) (4) CV
(3) (4) 2K2CV
5. If in a ideal p-n junction diode, a sinusoidal K

input signal is applied as shown in the figure Q. 19 (CST-14) (Mayer’s Relation)

then the output signal across the resistance 1. For hydrogen gas CP – CV = a and for oxygen
will be gas CP – CV = b, then the relation between a
and b is (where CP and CV are gram specific
heats).
(1) a = 16 b (2) b = 16 a
(3) a = b (4) 1a = b

R 
(1) (2) 2. If for a gas   = 0.67, then the molecules of
 CV 
(3) (4)
gas are (here symbols have their usual
Q. 14 (CST-14) (Significant Figures)
meaning)
1. The number of significant figures in the result
(1) Diatomic (2) Monoatomic
of calculation (100 + 50.6 + 0.0002) will be
(3) Triatomic (4) Polyatomic
(1) 1 (2) 2
3. The following sets of values for CV and CP of a
(3) 3 (4) 4
monoatomic gas have been reported by
2. Round off the value 5.625 to three significant
different students. The units are in cal mol–1K–1.
figures
Which among the following set is most
(1) 5.62 (2) 5.63
reliable?
(3) 5.60 (4) 5.61
(1) CV = 3, CP = 5
3. The area of a square having side 1.2 m is
(2) CV = 4, CP = 6
appropriately expressed as
(3) CV = 3, CP = 2
(1) 1.44 m2 (2) 1.4 m2
(4) CV = 3, CP = 4.2
(3) 1 m2 (4) 0.0144 × 102 m2
Q. 25 (CST-13) (Motion in Plane)
Q. 33 (CST-14) (Parallel Plate Capacitor)
1. The position of a particle is given by
1. If dielectric is inserted in an isolated charged r
r  (3tiˆ – 2t 2 ˆj  4kˆ ) m where t is in seconds
parallel plate capacitor, then quantity that
remains constant is and the coefficient have proper units for r to be

(1) Capacitance (2) Potential in meters, then, the direction of velocity of

particle at t = 2s
(3) Energy stored (4) Charge
3
2. If the plates of an isolated charged parallel (1)   tan–1   , with x-axis
8
plate capacitor are pulled apart, then
8
(1) The capacitance increases (2)   tan–1   , with x-axis
3
(2) The potential difference increases
4
(3) The total charge increases (3)   tan–1   , with x-axis
3
(4) The charge and potential difference remain
the same  4
(4)   tan–1  –  , with x-axis
 5

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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Physics

2. The position of a particle is given by  u sin  – gt 

(1)   tan–1  
   u cos  
r
r  t 2iˆ  4tjˆ . Time when particle is moving at
 u sin   gt 
an angle of 45° with y-axis will be (2)   cot –1  2 
 u cos  
(1) t = 2 s (2) t  2 3 s
 u cos  
(3)   tan–1  
(3) t  3 s (4) t  1s  u sin  – gt 
3. A body is projected from ground at an angle   u sin  
(4)   tan–1  
from horizontal with speed u. After time t the  u cos  – gt 
angle () made by velocity vector from
horizontal is correctly represented as


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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Physics

Based on
CST (13 & 14)

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-07 (Physics)
Answer Key

Q. 9 (CST-13) (Young’s Double Slit Experiment) 4. (1)

1. (1) 5. (4)
2. (3) Q. 17 (CST-13) (Diode)
3. (1) 1. (1)
Q. 21 (CST-13) (Significant Figures) 2. (1)
1. (4) 3. (2)
2. (2) 4. (1)
3. (1) 5. (2)
Q. 6 (CST-13) (Surface Tension) Q. 14 (CST-14) (Significant Figures)
1. (1) 1. (3)
2. (4) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (2)
Q. 7 (CST-13) (Acceleration Graph) Q. 33 (CST-14) (Parallel Plate Capacitor)
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (2) 2. (2)
3. (1) 3. (1)
Q. 10 (CST-13) (Stress–Strain curve) Q. 19 (CST-14) (Mayer’s Relation)
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (2) 2. (2)
3. (2) 3. (1)
Q. 28 (CST-13) (Power of Lens) Q. 25 (CST-13) (Motion in Plane)
1. (2) 1. (2)
2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (1)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-07
CHEMISTRY
Q.56. (CST-13) (Nucleophilic Substitution Reaction) Q.87. (CST-13) (Properties of Colloidal Solution)
1. Which of the following is most reactive towards 1. Which among the following has the highest
SN1 reaction? flocculating power for a positively charged sol?
(1) [Fe(CN)6]4– (2) PO3–
4
(1) (2)
(3) SO2–
4 (4) Cl–
(3) CH2=CH–Cl (4) CH2=CH–CH2–Cl 2. In the coagulation of a negative sol, the correct
2. Which among the following reacts fastest by order of the flocculating power is
SN2 mechanism? (1) Na+ > Ba2+ > Al3+ (2) Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+
(1) (2) (3) Ba2+ > Na+ > Al3+ (4) Na+ > Al3+ > Ba2+
3. Which of the following ions has the highest
(3) (4) coagulating value for a negatively charged sol?
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) Al3+
3. Which among the following compounds reacts
fastest with aqueous KOH? (3) Mg2+ (4) Na+
4. The coagulating value is measured in
(1) moles per litre (2) gram per litre
(1) (2)
(3) millimoles per litre (4) gram per millilitre
Q.71. (CST-13) (Isomerism)
1. C2H5OC3H7 and CH3–O–C4H9 are
(1) Chain isomers
(3) (4)
(2) Metamers
4. Consider the following statements. (3) Position isomers
Statement (I): SN2 reaction follows second (4) Functional group isomers
order kinetics. 2. Consider the following species
Statement (II): In SN1 reaction, the
intermediate species formed is a carbocation.
In the light of above statements, identify the
correct option.
The species which will show keto-enol
(1) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
tautomerism is/are
correct
(1) (i) and (iii) only (2) (ii) only
(2) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
(3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
incorrect
3. The species which does not show geometrical
(3) Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II)
isomerism is
is correct
(1) CH3CH=CHCH3 (2) (CH3)2C=CHCH3
(4) Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is
incorrect (3) BrFC=CClF (4) Ph–CH=CHBr

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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Chemistry

4. Total number of structural isomers possible for 2. Which among the following will have most
C7H16 is negative hydration energy?
(1) 6 (2) 7 – –
(1) F (aq.) (2) Cl (aq.)
(3) 8 (4) 9 – –
(3) Br (aq.) (4) I (aq.)
Q.54. (CST-13) (Balancing Redox Reactions)
3. Which among the following will have most
1. Mole(s) of thiosulphate ions required to react negative hydration energy?
completely with one mole of permanganate ion
(1) Na+(aq.) (2) Mg2+ (aq.)
in faintly alkaline medium is
(3) Al3+ (aq.) (4) K+ (aq.)
1 5
(1) (2) Q.63. (CST-14) (Thermodynamical Principles of Metallurgy)
2 2
1. rG° vs temperature slope is negative for the
3 8
(3) (4) reaction
8 3
(1) 4Cu(s) + O2(g)  2Cu2O(s)
2. The coefficients a, b and c for the balanced
(2) C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g)
redox reaction respectively are
 dMn2  e H2O + f O2
a MnO4–  b H+  c H2O2 
(3) 2C(s) + O2(g)  2CO(g)

(1) 2, 5, 3 (2) 1, 7, 5 (4) 2Fe(s) + O2(g)  2FeO(s)

(3) 2, 6, 5 (4) 4, 7, 2 2. rG° vs temperature slope is zero for the

reaction
3. In the balanced reaction, coefficients a and b
respectively are (1) 2CO(g) + O2(g)  2CO2(g)
4 2
a FeS2 + b O2  c Fe2O3 + d SO2 (2) Al (s) + O2(g)  Al2O3  s 
3 3
(1) 2 and 5 (2) 4 and 8
(3) 4 and 11 (4) 1 and 8 (3) 2Zn(s) + O2(g)  2ZnO(s)
Q.51. (CST-14) (Equation of State for Real Gases van der (4) C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g)
Waal's Gas Equation) 3. Chief reducing agent if the reduction of iron
1. Unit of van der Waals constant a is oxide is carried out below 710°C is
(1) atm (2) atm L–2 (1) CO (2) C
(3) atm L mol–1 (4) atm L2mol–2 (3) Cu (4) CO2
2. Unit of van der Waals constant b is 4. In Ellingham diagram, the slope of the curve of
(1) L (2) L mol–1 the formation of metal oxide is
(3) L mol–2 (4) L–1 mol (1) S (2) – S
3. Which among the following gases will have 1 1
(3) (4) –
maximum value of van der Waal constant a? S S
(1) NH3 (2) CO2 Q.64. (CST-14) (Alkenes, Properties)
(3) O2 (4) H2 1. Statement (I): Ethene on reaction with Baeyer's
Q.74. (CST-14) (Hydration Energy) reagent gives glycol.
Statement (II): 2-Methylpropene on oxidation
1. Statement I: Hydration enthalpy decreases
with increase in size of cation. with acidic potassium permanganate gives
acetone.
Statement II: Hydration enthalpy increases
with increase in size of anion. In the light of above statements, choose the
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
most appropriate answer from options given (1) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
below correct
(1) Both statements (I) and statement (II) are
(2) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
true
incorrect
(2) Both statements (I) and statement (II) are
(3) Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is
false
incorrect
(3) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is
false (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but statement II is
(4) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is correct
true
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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Chemistry

Statement (II): Decolorisation of KMnO4

2.
solution is used as a test for unsaturation.
Major product (A) of the given reaction in In the light of above statements, choose the
correct option.
(1) (2) (1) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
correct
(2) Both statement (I) and statement (II) are
(3) (4)
incorrect
(3) Statement (I) is incorrect but statement (II)
3. Statement (I): Propene on reaction with
is correct
Baeyer's reagent gives ethanoic acid.
(4) Statement (I) is correct but statement (II) is
incorrect




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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Chemistry

Based on
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Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-07
CHEMISTRY
Answer Key
Q.56. (CST-13) (Nucleophilic Substitution Reaction) Q.51. (CST-14) (Equation of State for Real Gases van der
1. (2) Waal's Gas Equation)
2. (1) 1. (4)
3. (3) 2. (2)
4. (1) 3. (1)
Q.87. (CST-13) (Properties of Colloidal Solution) Q.74. (CST-14) (Hydration Energy)
1. (1) 1. (3)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (4) 3. (3)
4. (3) Q.63. (CST-14) (Thermodynamical Principles of
Q.71. (CST-13) (Isomerism)
Metallurgy)
1. (2)
1. (3)
2. (3)
2. (4)
3. (2)
3. (1)
4. (4)
4. (2)
Q.54. (CST-13) (Balancing Redox Reactions)
Q.64. (CST-14) (Alkenes, Properties)
1. (3)
1. (1)
2. (3)
2. (2)
3. (3)
3. (3)


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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-07
BOTANY
Q.112.(CST-13) (Environmental Issues, Air Q.109. (CST-13) (Molecular Basis of Inheritance: Translation)
Pollution and Its Control) 1. Which of the following event is required prior to
1. Level of sulphur that had to be maintained in the initiation of translation?
diesel according to Euro III norms is (1) Formation of peptide bond between the
amino acids
(1) 50 ppm (2) 150 ppm
(2) Interaction of small subunit of ribosome with
(3) 350 ppm (4) 250 ppm
tRNA
2. Auto fuel policy was enacted by Government of
(3) Aminoacylation of tRNA
India to reduce
(4) Interaction of release factors with stop
(1) Industrial pollution
codon
(2) Water pollution
2. Okazaki fragments are synthesized against
(3) Vehicular pollution (1) Leading daughter strand with a polarity
(4) Biomagnification 5 3
3. Level of sulphur in petrol and diesel according (2) Lagging daughter strand with a polarity
to the overall goal of Auto fuel policy is 3 5
(1) 50 ppm (2) 130 ppm (3) Template strand with a polarity 5 3
(3) 350 ppm (4) 450 ppm (4) Template strand with a polarity 3 5
Q.125.(CST-13) (Ecosystem: Ecosystem Function) 3. Aminoacylation of tRNA signifies
1. All of the following are climatic factors affecting (1) Activation of amino acid and its linkage to
decomposition, except their cognate tRNA
(1) Oxygen (2) Interaction of tRNA with small subunit of
(2) Temperature ribosome

(3) Soil moisture (3) Interaction of tRNA with large subunit of

ribosome
(4) Chemical nature of detritus
(4) Interaction of tRNA with mRNA
2. The most important climatic factors that
regulate decomposition through their effects on Q. 110. (CST-13) (Molecular Basis of Inheritance: Translation)
1. Direction of reading of mRNA during translation
(1) The chemical composition of detritus
is
(2) The activities of soil microbes
(1) 3  5 (2) 2  5
(3) The chemical composition of soil
(3) 5  3 (4) 5  2
(4) The overall productivity
2. During translation, first end of the polypeptide to
3. Select incorrect option w.r.t decomposition. be synthesized is
(1) Warm environment favours decomposition (1) N-terminal (2) C-terminal

(2) Low temperature inhibits decomposition (3) COOH terminal (4) OH terminal
3. At 5 end of mRNA there is start codon and at 3
(3) Anaerobiosis inhibits decomposition
end there is stop codon. These are respectively
(4) Moist environment results in build up of (1) UAA and AUG (2) AUG and UAA
organic materials
(3) AUG and UUU (4) UAA and UUU
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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Botany

Q.122. (CST-13) (Respiration in Plants: Fermentation) (1) Metacentric (2) Telocentric

1. In which among the following processes carbon (3) Sub-metacentric (4) Acrocentric
dioxide is not released?
2. Which of the following chromosomes has
(a) Lactic acid fermentation centromere at the terminal position?
(b) Alcoholic fermentation (1) Metacentric (2) Telocentric
(c) Aerobic respiration
(3) Sub-metacentric (4) Acrocentric
(1) Only (c)
3. One extremely short and one very long arm of
(2) Both (b) and (c) chromosome are seen in which type of
(3) Only (a) chromosomes?
(4) Both (a) and (b) (1) Metacentric (2) Sub-metacentric
2. How much energy in the glucose is released (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Acrocentric
during lactic acid or alcoholic fermentation?
Q.127. (CST-14)(Biodiversity and Conservation:
(1) About 70 percent
Biodiversity)
(2) 99.9 percent
1. All of the following are reasons supporting why
(3) About 90 percent tropics are rich in biodiversity, except
(4) Less than 7 percent (1) Tropical environments, are less seasonal,
3. Select the incorrect statement for relatively more constant and predictable
fermentation. promoting niche specialisation
(1) Net gain is two molecules of ATP from each (2) There is more solar energy available in the
glucose molecule tropics, which contributes to higher
(2) Only alcoholic fermentation produces productivity
hazardous substance (3) Tropical latitudes have remained relatively
(3) NADH + H+ is reoxidised to NAD+ undisturbed for millions of years
(4) It is incomplete oxidation of glucose (4) Tropics have both species diversity and
genetic diversity
Q.123. (CST-14) (Photosynthesis in Higher Plants:
2. Species diversity is
The C4 Pathway (Hatch and Slack Pathway)
(1) The diversity at the species level
1. C4 plants show double carboxylation. First and
second carboxylation occur respectively in the (2) The genetic variation shown by single
cells of species
(1) Bundle sheath and mesophyll (3) The diversity at the ecosystem level
(2) Mesophyll and bundle sheath (4) The diversity found in tropics only
(3) Epidermis and mesophyll 3. India has 1,000 varieties of mango. It
exemplifies
(4) Bundle sheath and pericycle
(1) Species diversity
2. In C4 plants, oxaloacetic acid is formed during
carboxylation in (2) Genetic diversity
(1) Bundle sheath cell (3) Ecological diversity
(2) Epidermal cell (4) Tropical diversity
(3) Cortical cell Q.108. (CST-14) (Cell Cycle and Cell Division: Mitosis)
(4) Mesophyll cell 1. Which phase is suitable to study the
morphology of the chromosomes?
3. Which of the following reactions depicts the
carboxylation in bundle sheath cell of a C4 (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
plant? (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(1) CO2 + Phosphoenol pyruvate → Oxaloacetic 2. Anaphase is the best stage to study
acid (1) Shape of chromosome
(2) CO2 + Ribulose bisphosphate → 3- (2) Size of cell
phosphoglycerate + 2- phosphoglycerate (3) Size of nucleus
(3) CO2 + Ribulosebisphosphate → 3-
(4) Shape of kinetochore
phosphoglycerate
3. In prophase, the chromosomes appear like
(4) CO2 + Phosphoenol pyruvate → 3-
phosphoglycerate (1) A ball of wool
Q.135. (CST-14) (Cell: The Unit of Life: Eukaryotic Cells) (2) Thickest and shortest
1. In which of the following types of chromosomes (3) V shaped
both arms are of equal length? (4) I shaped

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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Botany

4. Chromosomes lose their identity as discrete 2. Which among the following protists show
element in heterotrophic mode of nutrition only?
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) Diatoms
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (2) Dinoflagellates
Q.119. (CST-14) (Biological Classification: (3) Desmids
Kingdom- Protista)
(4) Slime moulds
1. Identify the organism and choose the correct
option 3. Slime moulds belong to the group which
includes
(1) Heterotrophic prokaryotes
(2) Single-celled eukaryotes
(3) Autotrophic prokaryotes
(4) Multicellular eukaryotes
4. In which among the following protists, cell wall
is observed in the spores produced in their life
(1) Dinoflagellate (2) Paramoecium cycle?
(3) Slime mould (4) Euglena (1) Paramoecium (2) Plasmodium
(3) Slime moulds (4) Euglena
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Botany
Answer Key

Q.112. (CST-13) (Environmental Issues: Air 2. (4)

Pollution and Its Control) 3. (3)
1. (3) Q.135. (CST-14) (Cell: The Unit of Life: Eukaryotic Cells)
2. (3) 1. (1)
3. (1) 2. (2)
Q.125.(CST-13) (Ecosystem: Ecosystem Function) 3. (4)
1. (4) Q.127. (CST-14)(Biodiversity and Conservation;
2. (2) Topic- Biodiversity)
3. (4) 1. (4)
Q.109. (CST-13) (Molecular Basis of Inheritance: Translation) 2. (1)
1. (3) 3. (2)
2. (3)
Q.108. (CST-14) (Cell Cycle and Cell Division,
3. (1)
Q. 110. (CST-13) (Molecular Basis of Inheritance: Translation) Topic: Mitosis)
1. (3) 1. (2)
2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (2)
3. (1)
Q.122. (CST-13) (Respiration in Plants: Fermentation)
4. (4)
1. (3)
Q.119. (CST-14) (Biological Classification:
2. (4)
Kingdom- Protista)
3. (2)
1. (3)
Q.123. (CST-14) (Photosynthesis in Higher Plants:
2. (4)
The C4 Pathway (Hatch and Slack Pathway)
3. (2)
1. (2)
4. (3)
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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Zoology

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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ZOOLOGY

CST-13: Q.No.160 (Digestion and Absorption: 3. Choose the correct option to complete the analogy
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM) w.r.t. disease and its symptoms.
1. The enzyme present in the saliva that is secreted AIDS : Diarrhoea and weight loss : : _____ :
into the oral cavity is Internal bleeding and anemia
(1) Nuclease (2) Salivary amylase (1) Ascariasis (2) Filariasis
(3) Nucleotidase (4) Sucrase (3) Ringworm (4) Common cold
2. The anti-bacterial enzyme present in the saliva is 4. Match column-I with column-II and select the
(1) Nucleotidase (2) Amylase correct option.
(3) Lipase (4) Lysozyme
Column-I Column-II
3. All of the following are present in the saliva, except
(1) Na+ (2) K+ a. AIDS (i) Inflammation in
lower limbs
(3) Cl– (4) HCl
4. Choose the incorrect statement. b. Ringworm (ii) Bouts of fever,
(1) The saliva secreted into the oral cavity weight loss
–
contains HCO3 . c. Filariasis (iii) Abdominal pain
(2) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed in the and cramps
mouth.
d. Amoebiasis (iv) Appearance of dry,
(3) The optimum pH is 6.8 in the buccal cavity for scaly lesions
the catalytic activity of carbohydrate splitting
enzyme. (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) IgA is present in saliva. (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
CST-13: Q.No.185 (Human Health and Disease: CST-13: Q.No.154 (Excretory Products and their
Common Diseases in Humans) Elimination: Urine Formation)
1. How many symptoms given in the box below are 1. Which of the following constituents of blood
symptoms of ascariasis? plasma cannot pass onto the lumen of Bowman’s
Blockage of intestinal passage, Muscular pain, capsule in normal physiological condition?
Fever, Anemia, Internal bleeding (1) Water (2) Ions
(1) Five (2) Four (3) Proteins (4) Sugars
(3) Three (4) Two 2. The epithelial cells of __________ are arranged in
an intricate manner so as to leave filtration slits.
2. Choose the incorrect match from the following.
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(1) Ringworm - Appearance of dry, (1) Bowman’s capsule (2) Glomerulus
scaly lesions
(3) Efferent arteriole (4) Afferent arteriole
(2) Filariasis - Inflammation in the
3. All of the following cannot be filtered in the
lower limbs
Bowman’s capsule of a normal healthy human,
(3) Amoebiasis - Abdominal pain and except
cramps (1) Albumin (2) Globulin
(4) Ascariasis - Inflammation in the (3) Collagen (4) Glucose
genital organs

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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Zoology

CST-13: Q.No.171 (Human Health and Disease: CST-14: Q.No.173 (Body Fluids and Circulation
Immunity) Blood)
1. Select the primary lymphoid organ among the 1. Which of the following is found in blood as well as
following serum?
(1) Spleen (2) Thymus (1) Erythrocytes (2) Thrombin
(3) Lymph nodes (4) Thyroid (3) Immunoglobulins (4) Platelets
2. Which of the following provides site for maturation 2. All of the following are present in blood but absent
of T-lymphocytes? in serum, except
(1) White blood cells (2) Clotting factors
(1) MALT (2) Spleen
(3) Antibodies (4) Red blood cells
(3) Thymus (4) Thyroid
3. Select the correct option w.r.t. serum.
3. All of the following hold true for thyroid, except
(1) Blood plasma plus clotting factors
(1) Present on either side of trachea
(2) Blood minus plasma
(2) Its secretion maintains BMR
(3) Blood plasma minus clotting factors
(3) Hyposecretion of thyroid hormone causes (4) Blood plasma minus antibodies
cretinism
CST-14: Q.No.175 (Structural Organisation in
(4) It is site for maturation of T-lymphocytes Animals (Contd....) (Animal Morphology)
4. The organs where immature lymphocytes COCKROACH)
differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes are 1. Brood or genital pouch in female cockroach is
called made by ________.
(1) Primary lymphoid organs Choose the option to fill in the blank correctly.
(2) Secondary lymphoid organs (1) 7th, 8th and 9th sterna
(3) MALT (2) 8th, 9th and 10th terga
(4) Lymph nodes (3) 7th sternum, 8th and 9th terga
CST-13: Q.No.193 (Biotechnology and its (4) 7th, 8th, 9th terga
applications: Transgenic Animals) 2. A pair of spermatheca is present in the _____
1. Transgenic animals are used in toxicity abdominal segment of the female cockroach
testing/safety testing of a drug. The transformed Choose the option to fill in the blank correctly.
foreign gene makes them (1) 8th (2) 6th
(1) Highly resistant than non-transgenic animals. (3) 4th (4) 2nd
(2) Less sensitive to toxic substance than non- 3. Collaterial glands of female cockroach help in
transgenic animals. (1) Copulation
(3) More sensitive to toxic substance than non- (2) Formation of ootheca/egg case
transgenic animals.
(3) Movement
(4) More toxic than non-transgenic animals. (4) Sperm production
2. Select the name of the biological product which is 4. Which of the following structures does not open
produced by a transgenic sheep. into the genital chamber of a female cockroach?
(1) -1-antitrypsin (2) Histamine (1) Spermatheca
(3) Serotonin (4) Heparin (2) A pair of collaterial gland
3. Read the statements carefully and select the (3) A single median oviduct
correct option. (4) A pair of anal cerci
Statement-A: Many transgenic animals are CST-14: Q.No.169 (Biotechnology and its
designed to increase our understanding of how applications: Introduction)
gene contribute to the development of a disease. 1. Tailor-made plants are grown for all the following
Statement-B: Transgenic animals are specially purposes, except
made to serve as models for human diseases.
(1) High yield
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Disease resistance
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) High nutritive value
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect (4) Less tolerant to abiotic stresses
4. Which of the following transgenic animals is used 2. Starch is a
as model to test the safety of polio vaccine for (1) Homopolymer of glucose
humans? (2) Heteropolymer of glucose
(1) Donkey (2) Rabbit (3) Homopolymer of fructose
(3) Mouse (4) Pig (4) Heteropolymer of fructose

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CSS-07 (CST-13 & 14) Zoology

3. Any kind of drug used for medicinal purpose is 3. The method which is best breeding method for
called animals that are below average in productivity in
(1) Fuel (2) Pharmaceutical milk production
(3) Ceramics (4) Nutrient (1) Is known as out-crossing
CST-14: Q.No.157 (Strategies for Enhancement in (2) Is used to produce Hisardale
Food Production - Animal Husbandry: (3) Was used by Mendel to produce homozygous
Animal Breeding) purelines
1. The Breeding methods that allows the desirable (4) Helps in accumulation of superior genes and
qualities of two different breeds to be combined is elimination of less desirable genes
(1) Out-crossing CST-14: Q.No.159 (Locomotion and Movement:
(2) Cross-breeding Mechanism of Muscle Contraction)
(3) Interspecific hybridization 1. Select an immovable joint from the options given
below.
(4) Inbreeding
(1) Suture (2) Pivot joint
2. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. out-crossing.
(3) Knee joint (4) Saddle joint
(1) It is the best breeding method for animals that
are below average in growth rate in beef cattle. 2. Hard matrix of bones is mainly due to the presence
of
(2) A single outcross helps to overcome
inbreeding depression. (1) Calcium salts (2) Chondroitin salts
(3) In this method, male and female animals of two (3) Elastin fibres (4) Chondrocytes
different related species are mated. 3. The central part of thick filaments, not overlapped
(4) Included under the umbrella of out-breeding. by thin filaments is called
(1) I-band (2) A-band
(3) H-zone (4) Sarcomere
4. A neural signal reaching the neuromuscular
junction releases acetylcholine which generates
an action potential in the
(1) Motor neuron (2) Sensory neuron
(3) Interneuron (4) Sarcolemma

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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ZOOLOGY
Answer Key

CST-13: Q.No.160 (Digestion and Absorption: CST-14: Q.No.173 (Body Fluids and Circulation
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM) Blood)
1. (2) 1. (3)
2. (4) 2. (3)
3. (4) 3. (3)
4. (2) CST-14: Q.No.175 (Structural Organisation in
CST-13: Q.No.185 (Human Health and Disease: Animals (Contd....) (Animal Morphology)
Common Diseases in Humans) COCKROACH)
1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (4) 2. (2)
3. (1) 3. (2)
4. (1) 4. (4)
CST-13: Q.No.154 (Excretory Products and their CST-14: Q.No.169 (Biotechnology and its
Elimination: Urine Formation) applications: Introduction)
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (4) 3. (2)
CST-13: Q.No.171 (Human Health and Disease: CST-14: Q.No.157 (Strategies for Enhancement in
Immunity) Food Production - Animal Husbandry:
Animal Breeding)
1. (2)
1. (2)
2. (3)
2. (3)
3. (4)
3. (1)
4. (1)
CST-14: Q.No.159 (Locomotion and Movement:
CST-13: Q.No.193 (Biotechnology and its Mechanism of Muscle Contraction)
applications: Transgenic Animals)
1. (1)
1. (3)
2. (1)
2. (1)
3. (3)
3. (3)
4. (4)
4. (3)

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