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8. Quantization of charge
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Electrostatics
Exercise - 2:
2
Solve all types of
1. The rate constant for a first
order reaction is 4.606 ×
10–3s–1. The time required to
reduce 2.0g of the reactant to
0.2g is:
exercise questions (JEE 2020)
based on the latest JEE
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(c) 100s (d) 200s
Answer Key
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
MODERN PHYSICS
Theory ................................................................................................................................................ 08
Solved examples ............................................................................................................................... 23
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions............................................................................................ 44
Exercise - 2 : Previous Year JEE MAIN Questions ........................................................................... 51
Exercise - 3 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................. 63
Exercise - 4 : Previous Year JEE Advanced Questions ..................................................................... 75
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................ 150
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM
Theory ................................................................................................................................................ 88
Solved examples ............................................................................................................................... 112
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions............................................................................................ 118
Exercise - 2 : Previous Year JEE MAIN Questions ........................................................................... 128
Exercise - 3 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................. 140
Exercise - 4 : Previous Year JEE Advanced Questions ..................................................................... 147
Answer Key ........................................................................................................................................ 153
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10
MODERN PHYSICS
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Chapter 10 9
MODERN PHYSICS
1. PHOTONS A photon can collide with material particles like electron.
During these collisions, the total energy and total momentum
A photon is a packet of energy. It possesses energy remain constant.
given by, Energy of light passing through per unit area per unit time is
E = h known as intensity of light.
Where h = 6.62 × 1034 Js is Planck’s constant and is E P
Intensity of light I ...(i)
frequency of the photon. If is wavelength of the photon, At A
then, Here P = power of source,
c = A = Area, t = time taken
8 1
Here, c = 3 × 10 ms is velocity of light. Therefore, E = energy incident in t time = Nh
E = h = hc/ N = number of photon incident in t time
Energy of a photon is usually expressed in electron volt N(h ) n (h )
(eV). 1eV = 1.6 × 1019 J Intensity I= = ...(ii)
At A
The bigger units are keV and MeV.
N
1keV = 1.6 × 1016 and 1 MeV = 1.6 × 1013 J n= = no. of photons per sec.
t
1.1 Properties of Photon
A photon is a particle of light moving with speed 299792458 P n (h )
m/s in vacuum. From equation (i) and (ii), =
A A
The speed of a photon is independent of frame of reference.
This is the basic postulate of theory of relativity. P P
n = = = 5 × 1024 J–1 m–1 × P ×
The rest mass of a photon is zero. i.e. photons do not exist at h hc
rest. 1.2 Radiation Pressure
E hc h 1 When photons fall on a surface, they exert a force and
Effective mass of photon m = 2
= 2 = i.e. m pressure on the surface. This pressure is called radiation
c c c
pressure.
So mass of violet light photon is greater than the mass of red
Force exerted on perfectly reflecting surface
light photon. (R > V)
Let 'N' photons are there in time t,
According to Planck the energy of a photon is directly
proportional to the frequency of the radiation. Nh
Momentum before striking the surface (p1)=
E or E = h
hc hc 1 24 0 0
E Joule ( c = ) or E= = eV
e
Here E = energy of photon, c = speed of light,
h = Planck's constant, e = charge of electron
h = 6.62 × 10–34 J–s, = frequency of photon,
= wavelength of photon
E h h Fig 10.1
Linear momentum of photon p =
c c Nh
Momentum after striking the surface (p2)=
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2 Nh
Change in momentum of photons = p2 – p1 = F 2I cos
Pressure =
A c
2 Nh
But change in momentum of surface = p =
; So that 2. MATTER WAVES
2 Nh 2 h 2.1 De-Broglie Hypothesis
P
force on surface F = n but n =
t hc Loius-Broglie put forward a bold hypothesis that matter
should also possess dual nature.
2 h P 2 P The following observations led him to the duality hypothesis
F= and
hc c for matter.
1. The whole energy in this universe is in the form of
F 2P 2I P matter and electromagnetic radiation.
Pressure =
A cA c I A
2. The nature loves symmetry. As the radiation has got
dual nature, matter should also possess dual nature.
Force exerted on perfectly absorbing surface
Thus, according to De-Broglie, a wave is associated with
every moving particle. These waves are called De-Broglie
waves or matter waves.
We know that momentum of a photon is given by
h
p
Fig. 10.2 Therefore, the wavelength of the photon is given by
Nh h
0 h P
p1 p2 Nh
F= = =n ; F= p
t t t c
Hence, De-Broglie wavelength is given by
P
n h
hc
m
F P I This is called De-Broglie relation.
Pressure =
A cA c 2.2 Conclusion
When a beam of light is incident at angle on perfectly 1. Lighter the particle, greater is its De-Broglie
reflector surface wavelength.
2. The faster the particle moves, smaller is its De-Broglie
wavelength.
3. The De-Broglie wavelength of –particle is
independent of the charge or nature of the particle.
4. The matter waves are not electromagnetic in nature. If
the velocity of the particle is comparable to the velocity
of light, then mass of the particle is given by
Fig. 10.3 m0
m=
2P 1 v2 / c2
2 h 2 IA cos
F= cos = n cos
c c
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2.3 De-Broglie Wavelength of Electron oscillate about their equilibrium position and result in the
emission of radiation of definite frequencies in the form of
Consider that an electron of mass m and charge e is
infra-red, visible or ultra-violet light.
accelerated through a potential difference V. If E is the
energy acquired by the particle, then Failure of Thomson’s Atom Model
E = eV …(i) It had to be discarded, because of the following reasons:
If v is the velocity of electron, then 1. It could not explain the origin of the spectral lines in
the form of series as in case of hydrogen atom.
1 2E 2. It could not account for the scattering of -particles
E= mv2 or v = …(ii)
2 m through large angles as in case of Rutherford’s
-scattering experiment.
Now, De-Broglie wavelength of electron is given by
3.2 Rutherford’s Alpha Scattering Experiment
h h Observations
= mv =
m 2E / m 1. Most of -particles were found to pass through the
gold foil without any appreciable deflection.
h 2. The different -particles in passing through the gold
Or = …(iii)
2mE foil undergo different amounts of deflections. A large
number of -particles suffer fairly large deflections.
substituting the value of E, we get
3. A very small number of -particles (about 1 in 8000)
h practically retracted their paths or suffered deflection
= …(iv) of nearly 180º.
2meV
4. The graph between the total number of –particles
Setting m = 9.1 × 1031 kg; e = 1.6 × 1019 C and h = 6.62 ×
N() scattered through angle and the scattering angle
1034 Js, we get
was found to be as shown in fig.
12.27
= ×1010 m
V
12.27
Or = A …(v)
V
For example, the de-Broglie wavelength of electrons, when Fig. 10.4
accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volt, will The experimental observations led Rutherford to the
be following conclusions:-
1. Since most of the -particles passed undeviated, the
12.27 atom has a lot of empty space in it.
= 1.227 A
100
2. Since fast and the heavy -particles could be deflected
Thus, the wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with even through 180º, the whole of the positive charge
100 eV electrons is of the order of the wavelength of X-rays. and practically the entire mass of the atom was
confined to an extremely small central core. It was called
3. ATOMIC STRUCTURE AND ITS HISTORY
nucleus. Since 1 in about 8000 -particles is deflected
3.1 Thomson Atomic Model through 180º, the size of the nucleus is about 1/10000th
The positive charge is uniformly distributed over the entire of the size of the atom.
sphere and the electrons are embedded in the sphere of 3.3 Rutherford’s Atom Model
positive charges just like seeds in a watermelon or plums in
On the basis of the results of -scattering experiment,
the pudding. For this reason, Thomson’s atom model is
Rutherford suggested the following picture of the atom:
also known as plum-pudding model. The total positive
charge inside the atom is equal to the total negative charge 1. Atom may be regarded as a sphere of diameter 10–10 m
carried by electrons, so that every atom is electrically neutral. but whole of the positive charge and almost the entire
If the atom gets slightly perturbed, the electrons in the atoms
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mass of the atom is concentrated in a small central (ii) A stable orbit is that in which the angular momentum of
core called nucleus having diameter of about 10–14 m. the electron about nucleus is an integral (n) multiple of
2. The nucleus is surrounded by electrons. In other
h h
words, the electrons are spread over the remaining part . i.e. mvr = n ; n = 1 , 2 , 3 , .......(n 0).
of the atom leaving plenty of empty space in the atom. 2 2
3.4 Drawbacks of Rutherford’s Atom Model (iii) The electron can absorb or radiate energy only if the
1. When the electrons revolve round the nucleus, they electron jumps from a lower to a higher orbit or falls
are continuously accelerated towards the centre of the from a higher to a lower orbit.
nucleus. According to Lorentz, an accelerated charged (iv) The energy emitted or absorbed is a light photon of
particle should radiate energy continuously. Therefore, frequency and of energy E = h
in the atom, a revolving electron should continuously
4.1 For hydrogen atom : (Z = atomic number = 1)
emit energy and hence the radius of its path should go
on decreasing and ultimately it should fall into the h
nucleus. However, electrons revolve round the (i) Ln = angular momentum in the nth orbit = n .
2
nucleus without falling into it. Therefore, Rutherford’s
atom model cannot explain the stability of the atom. (ii) rn = radius of nth circular orbit = (0.529 Aº) n2 ;
2. If the Rutherford’s atom model is true, the electron can (1Aº = 10-10 m) ; rn n2.
revolve in orbits of all possible radii and hence it should
emit continuous energy spectrum. However, the atoms 13.6 eV
(iii) En Energy of the electron in the nth orbit =
like hydrogen possess line spectrum. n2
3.5 Distance of Closest Approach Total energy of electron in nth orbit :
Consider an -particle of mass m possesses initial velocity
1 Ze 2
u, when it is at a large distance from the nucleus of an atom KE mv 2 and
having atomic number Z. At the distance of closest 2 8 0 r
approach, the kinetic energy of -particle is completely
converted into potential energy. Mathematically. 1 Ze e
PE 2K.E.
4 0 r
2
1 2e Ze r 1 . 2 Ze
1/2 mu =2
. 0
4 0 1/ 2 mu 2 |PE| = 2 KE
4 0 r0
Total energy of the system E = KE + PE = –2KE + KE =
Ze 2
– KE =
8 0 r
By putting the value of r, we get
Z2 me 4 Z2
E 8 2 h 2 n 2 E0
Fig. 10.5 n2 0
4. BOHR ATOMIC MODEL where
Bohr adopted Rutherford model of the atom & added some - 9.11×10-3 1.6×10 -19
4
arbitrary conditions. These conditions are known as his E0 = 2 2 eV
postulates : 8× 8.85×10-12 × 6.625×10-34
(i) The electron in a stable orbit does not radiate energy .
Note:-
2 2
mv k ze Total energy of the electron in an atom is negative, indicating
i.e. 2
r r that it is bound.
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(iv) Bracket Series : (Landing orbit n = 4)
13.6 V
Binding Energy (BE)n = – En = .
n2 1 1
In the mid infrared region R 2 2 ; n2 > 4
(iv) En2 En1 = Energy emitted when an electron jumps 4 n2
from n2th orbit to n1th orbit (n2 > n1) . (v) Pfund Series : (Landing orbit n = 5)
1 1 1 1
E = (13.6 ev) 2 2 . In far infrared region R 2 2 ; n2 > 5
n
1 n 2 5 n2
E = h ; = frequency of spectral line emitted . In all these series n2 = n1 + 1 is the line
= n1 + 2 is the line
1
v wave no. [ no. of waves in unit length (1m)] = n1 + 3 is the line .... etc.
where n1 = Landing orbit
1 1 1
=R 2 2 .
n1 n 2
Where R = Rydberg's constant for hydrogen = 1.097 ×
107 m-1 .
(v) For hydrogen like atom/species of atomic number Z:
Bohr radius 2 n2
rnz = n 0.529 A ;
Z Z
Z2
Enz = (– 13.6) ev Fig. 10.6
n2
Rz = RZ2 – Rydberg's constant for element of atomic no. Z. 5. FREE ELECTRONS IN METALS
Note:- Electron is a fundamental constituent of the atom. A metal
If motion of the nucleus is also considered, then m is replaced contains free electrons, which move about freely through
by . the atomic spaces in a random fashion. But as soon as an
Where = reduced mass of electron – nucleus system = electron leaves the metal, immediately an equal positive
mM/(m+M) . charge is produced on the surface of the metal. As a result,
the electron is pulled back into the metal and hence remains
Z2 confined to it. The pull on the electrons at the surface is
In this case En = (–13.6 ev) . , me - mass of electron
n 2 me found to depend on the nature of metal surface and is
4.2 Spectral Series described by a characteristic of the metal, called work
(i) Lyman Series : (Landing orbit n = 1) . function.
Work Function
1 1
Ultraviolet region R 2 2 ; n2 > 1 The minimum energy, which must be supplied to the electron
1 n 2
so that it can just come out of the metal surface is called the
(ii) Balmer Series : (Landing orbit n = 2) work function of the metal.
This process is called electron emission and may be achieved
in the following ways
Visible region R 1 1 ; n2 > 2
2 2
2 n2 (i) Thermoionic emission. In this process of electron
emission, the additional energy is supplied in the form
(iii) Paschan Series : (Landing orbit n = 3) of heat. The emitted electrons are known as thermo
electrons.
1 1
In the near infrared region R 2 2 ; n2 > 3
3 n2
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(ii) Photoelectric emission. In this process, as already 2. The emission of photoelectrons starts as soon as light
discussed, the additional energy is supplied by means falls on metal surface.
of electromagnetic radiation. The emitted electrons are
known as photoelectrons. 3. The maximum kinetic energy with which an electron is
emitted from a metal surface is independent of the
(iii) Secondary emission, in this process, the fast moving intensity of the light and depends only upon its
electrons on collision with the metal surface knock out frequency.
electrons, called the secondary electrons.
4. The number of photoelectrons emitted i.e.
(iv) Field emission. In this process, the electron are forced photoelectric current is independent of the frequency
out of metal surface by strong electric field of the incident light and depends only upon its
6. PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT intensity.
6.2 Einstein's Photoelectric Equation
The phenomenon of ejection from a metal surface, when light Einstein’s photo electric equation
of sufficiently high frequency falls upon it is known as the
photoelectric effect. The electrons so emitted are called h KEmax
photoelectrons. light of frequency , when it interacts with matter, behaves
Experimental Study of Photoelectric Effect : The apparatus as discrete packet of energy known as photon.
consists of an evacuated glass tube fitted with two Energy of a photon E = hv, h is Planck’s constant.
electrodes. The electrode E is called emitting electrode and
the other electrode C is called collecting electrode. The minimum energy required to remove an electron from
the metal surface is known is photo electric work function of
When a suitable radiation is incident on the electrode E, the metal
electrons are ejected from it. The electrons, which have
sufficient kinetic energy, reach the electrode C despite its = hv0, where v0 = threshold frequencey.
negative polarity. The potential difference between the two If a photon of energy hv falls on the surface of a metal and
electrodes acts as the retarding potential. As the collecting hv0 is the work function of the metal, then
electrode is made more and more negative, fewer and fewer hv = hv0 + 1/2 mv 2max .
electrons will reach the cathode and the photo-electric
current recorded by the ammeter with fall. In case, the This is Einstein’s photo electric equation.
retarding potential equals V0, called the stopping potential, (i) Variation of photoelectric current with potential
no electron will reach the cathode and the current will difference : With the help of the above experimental setup,
become zero. In such a case, the work done by stopping a graph is obtained between current and potential difference.
potential is equal to the maximum kinetic energy of the The potential difference is varied with the help of a potential
electrons i.e. divider. The graph obtained is shown below.
eV0 = 1/2 m v2max
Fig. 10.8
The main points of observation are :
Fig. 10.7 (a) At zero anode potential, a current exists. It means that
6.1 Laws of Photoelectric Emission electrons are emitted from cathode with some kinetic
energy.
1. The emission of photoelectrons takes place only, when
the frequency of the incident radiation is above a (b) As anode potential is increased, current increases. This
certain critical value, characteristic of that metal. The implies that different electrons are emitted with different
critical value of frequency is known as the threshold kinetic energies.
frequency for the metal of the emitting electrode.
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(c) After a certain anode potential, current acquires
V0 (stopping potential)
aconstant value called saturation current. Current
acquires a saturation value because the number of
electrons emitted 7 per second from the cathode are
fixed.
(d) At a certain negative potential, the photoelectric current
0 (frequency)
becomes zero. This is called stopping potential (V0).
Stopping potential is a measure of maximum kinetic
Fig. 10.11
energy of the emitted electrons. Let KE max be the
maximum kinetic energy of an emitted electron, then
KEmax = eV0. 7. X–RAYS
(ii) Variation of current with intensity V
glass
The photoelectric current is found to be directly proportional chamber anode
to intensity of incident radiation. C
water
–
T
–
F
W
filament
target
window X-rays
Fig. 10.12
Fig. 10.9 X-rays are emitted when fast moving electrons are stopped
(iii) Effect of intensity on saturation current and stopping by a metal target of high atomic number.
potential X-ray spectrum
(a) Saturation current increases with increase in intensity.
(b) Stopping potential (and therefore maximum kinetic
energy) is independent of intensity.
30 40 50 50 70 80 90
Wavelength (pm)
Fig. 10.13
7.1 Continuous spectrum of X–ray
Fig. 10.10
When high speed electron collides with the atom of target or
(iv) Effect of frequency
passes close to the nucleus, there is Coulomb attractive force
(a) Stopping potential is found to vary with frequency of on the electron. Due to this force, electron is decelerated i.e.
incident light linearly. Greater the frequency of incident kinetic energy decreases. The loss of energy during
light, greater the stopping potential. deceleration is emitted in the form of X–rays. X–ray produced
(b) There exists a certain minimum frequency 0 below in this way are called Braking or Bremstralung radiation and
which no stopping potential is required as no emission form continuous spectrum. In continuous spectrum of
of electrons takes place. This frequency is called X–rays, all the wavelengths of X–ray are present but below
threshold frequency. For photoelectric emission to take a minimum value of wavelength there is no X–ray. It is called
place, > 0. cut off or threshold or minimum wavelength of X–ray. The
minimum wavelength depends on applied potential.
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Loss in Kinetic Energy
1 1
mv12 – mv22 = h+ heat energy
2 2
if v2 = 0 , v1 = v (In first collision, heat = 0)
1
mv2 = hmax ...(i)
2
1
mv2 = eV ...(ii) [here V is applied potential]
2
hc
from (i) and (ii) hmax = eV = eV
min
Fig. 10.16
1 24 0 0 1 24 0 0 7.3 Moseley’s Law
min = × volt = × 10–10 m × volt
V V Moseley studied the characteristic spectrum of number of
Continuous X–rays also known as white X–ray. Minimum many elements and observed that the square root of the
wavelength of these spectrum only depends on applied frequency of a K– line is closely proportional to atomic
potential and doesn' t depend on atomic number. number of the element. This is called Moseley's law.
2 2
(Z – b) (Z – b) = a (Z – b) ...(i)
Z = atomic number of target
= frequency of characteristic spectrum
b = screening constant (for K– series b=1, L series b=7.4)
a = proportionality constant
Wavelength of characteristic spectrum
Fig. 10.14
hc
7.2 Characteristic Spectrum of X–ray for K
EK EL
When the target of X–ray tube collides with an energetic
electron, it emits two types of X–ray radiation. One of them hc hc
for K , for L ,
has a continuous spectrum whose wavelength depends on EK EM EL EM
applied potential while other consists of spectral lines whose
wavelength depends on nature of target. The radiation forming
the line spectrum is called characteristic X–rays. When highly
accelerated electron strikes with the atom of target then it
knocks out the electron of an orbit, due to this a vacancy is
created. To fill this vacancy another electron jumps from higher
energy level and electromagnetic radiation is emitted which
forms characteristic spectrum of X–ray, whose wavelength
depends on nature of target and not on applied potential.
Fig. 10.17
8. NUCLEUS
8.1 Isotopes
The atoms of an element, which have the same atomic
number but different mass numbers, are called isotopes.
Fig. 10.15
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(i) 8O16, 8O17, 8O18 (ii) 17cl35, 17Cl37 4
R3 A
(iii) 82Pb206, 82Pb207, 82Pb208. 3
8.2 Isotones Or R A1/3 Or R = R0 A1/3 R0 = 1.2 × 10–15m
The atoms whose nuclei have same number of neutrons are 8.7 Nuclear density
called isotones. 6C14, 7N15 Mass of the nucleus of the atom of mass number A = A a.m.u
8.3 Isobars = A × 1.660565 × 10–27 kg. If R is radius of the nucleus, then
The atoms, which have same mass number but different 4 4 4
atomic numbers, are called isobars. Volume of nucleus = R3 = (R0A1/3)3 = R 30 A
3 3 3
(i) 1H3 and 1He3 (ii) 2Li7 and 4Be7
Taking R0 = 1.2 × 10–15m, we have
(iii) 28Ar40 and 29Ca40 (iv) 32Ge76 and 34Se76
8.4 Atomic mass unit mass of nucleus
Density of the nucleus, =
The atomic mass unit (a.m.u) is a very small unit of mass volume of nucleus
and it is found to be very convenient in nuclear physics.
A 1.66065 10 27
Atomic mass unit is defined as 1/12th of the mass of one 6C12 3
atom.
4 / 3 1.2 10 15 A
According to Avogadro’s hypothesis, number of atoms in
= 2.26 × 1017 kgm–3 (independent of A)
12 g of 6C12 is equal to Avogadro number i.e. 6.023 × 1023.
Discussion :
12 The density of the nuclei of all the atoms is same as it
Therefore, the mass of one carbon atom (6C12) is
6.023 10 23 is independent of mass number.
i.e. 1.992678 × 10–26 kg. The high density of the nucleus ( 1017 kg m–3) suggests
the compactness of the nucleus. Such examples of high
1
Therefore, 1 a.m.u. 1.992678 10 26 kg densities are met in the form of neutron stars.
12
8.8 Mass defect
or 1 a.m.u. = 1.660565 × 10–27 kg
The difference between the sum of the masses of the nucleons
8.5 Energy equivalent of atomic mass unit constituting a nucleus and the rest mass of the nucleus is
According to Einstein’s mass-energy equivalence relation, known as mass defect. It is denoted by m.
the energy equivalent of mass m is given by E = mc2 Let us calculate the mass defect in case of the nucleus of an
Where c is speed of light. atom zXA. The nucleus of the atom contains Z protons and
Suppose that m = 1 a.m.u = 1.660565 × 10–27 kg (AZ) neutrons. Therefore, if mN (zXA) is mass of the nucleus
of the atom ZXA, then the mass defect is given by
Since, c = 2.998 × 108 ms1, the energy equivalent of 1 a.m.u
is given by 1 a.m.u = (1.660565 × 10–27 kg) × (2.998 × 108 ms1)2 m = [Zmp + (AZ)mnmN(ZXA)]
= 1.4925 × 10–10 J Since, 1 The binding energy of a nucleus may be defined as the energy
equivalent to the mass defect of the nucleus. It may be
1.4925 10 10 measured as the work required to be done to separate the
MeV = 1.602 × 10–13 J, we have eV
1.602 10 13 nucleon an infinite distance apart, so that they no longer
Or 1 a.m.u = 931.5 MeV intract with each other.
8.6 Nuclear size If m is mass defect of a nucleus, then according to
Einstein’s mass-energy relation, binding energy of the
The volume of the nucleus is directly proportional to the
nucleus = m c2 (in joule).
number of nucleons (mass number) constituting the nucleus.
If R is the radius of the nucleus having mass number A, Here, mass defect m has to be measured in kilogram. In
then case, mass defect is measured in a.m.u., then
Binding energy of the nucleus = m × 931.5 (in MeV)
Binding energy = [Zmp + (AZ)mn mN (ZXA)] × 931.5 MeV
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The reaction energy Q associated with a nuclear reaction is
8.9 Binding Energy defined as the total energy released as a result of the reaction.
The rest mass of the nucleus is smaller than the sum of the Thus,
rest masses of nucleons constituting it. This is due to the fact
that when nucleons combine to form a nucleus, some energy Q (M a M X M Y M b )c 2
(binding energy) is liberated. The binding energy is equal to A reaction for which Q is positive is called exothermic. A
the work that must be done to split the nucleus into the reaction for which Q is negative is called endothermic.
particles constituting it.
8.10 Binding Energy Per Nucleon
The difference between the total mass of the nucleons and
The binding energy per nucleon is the average energy
mass of the nucleus is called the mass defect of the nucleus
required to extract one nucleon from the nucleus.
represented by m = [Zmp + (A–Z)mn] – mnuc
Multiplying the mass defect by the square of the velocity of binding energy
Thus, binding energy per nucleon
light, we can find the binding energy of the nucleus. A
BE = mc2 = [(Zmp + (A–Z)mn)–mnuc]c2
If the masses are taken in atomic mass unit, the binding
energy is given by
BE = [(Zmp + (A–Z)mn)–mnuc] 931.5 MeV
Let us take example of oxygen nucleus. It contains 8 protons
and 8 neutrons. We can discuss concept of binding energy
by following diagram.
Fig. 10.19
The greater the binding energy per nucleon the more
stable is the nucleus. The curve reaches a maximum of
56
about 8.75 MeV in the vicinity of 26 Fe and then
Fig. 10.18
238
8mp + 8mn > mass of nucleus of oxygen gradually falls to 7.6 MeV for 92 U.
For nucleus we apply mass energy conservation, 8mp + 8mn In a nuclear reaction energy is released if total binding
B.E. enegy is increasing. Let us make an example.
= mass of nucleus +
c2 Suppose a nucleus X, which has total binding energy
of 100 MeV converts into some other nucleus Y which
For general nucleus ZA X , mass defect = difference between has total binding enegy 120 MeV. Then, in this process
total mass of nucleons and mass of the nucleus 20 MeV energy will be released. This is because
100 MeV energy has already been released during the
m = [Zmp + (A–Z)mn]–M
formation of X while in case of Y it is 120 MeV. So, the
B.E. = mc2 (joules) = (m)in amu × 931.5 MeV remaining 20 MeV will be released now.
8.9.1 Q-value of a nuclear reaction
Energy is released if E b is increasing.
Consider a nuclear reaction in which a target nucleus X is
bombarded by a particle ‘a’ resulting in a daughter nucleus E b in a nuclear process is increased if binding
Y and a particle b. energy per nucleon of the daughter products gets
a X Yb increased. Let us take an example. Consider a
nucleus X(A X = 100) breaks into ligher nuclei
Sometimes this reaction is written as X (a, b) Y
Y (AY = 60) and Z(AZ = 40).
X Y Z
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Binding energy per nucleon of these three are say, For better understanding we discuss N/Z graph. There are
7 MeV, 7.5 MeV and 8.0 MeV. Then, total binding two type of unstable nuclides
energy of X is 100 × 7 = 700 Me and that of Y + Z is
(60 × 7.5) + (40 × 8.0) = 770 MeV. So, in this process
70 MeV energy will be released.
Binding energy per nucleon is increased if two or more
lighter nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus. This
process is called nuclear fusion.
Fig. 10.23
Fig. 10.20 -
• type
In nuclear fission a heavy nucleus splits into two or
more ligher nuclei of almost equal mass. For A type nuclides (N/Z)A > (N/Z) stable
To achieve stability, it increases Z by conversion of neutron
into proton
n1 1p1 + e–1 + , ZXA YA + e 1
0 Z+1 particle
This decay is called –1 decay. ( is anti-neutrino, its rest
mass and charge is zero)
Kinetic energy available for e–1 and is, Q K K
Fig. 10.21
In both the process Eb/A is increasing. Thus, energy K.E. of satisfies the condition 0 < K< Q
will be released.
8.11 Radioactive Decays
Generally, there are three types of radioactive decays
(i) decay (ii) and decay (iii) decay
• decay
In decay, the unstable nucleus emits an particle. By
emitting particle, the nucleus decreases it's mass energy Fig. 10.24
number and move towards stability. Nucleus having A>210 +
• type
shows decay.By releasing particle, it can attain higher
stability and Q value is positive. For B type nuclides (N/Z)B (N/Z) stable
To achieve stability it decreases Z by the conversion of a
proton into
neutron. That is,
p n e , Z X A Z 1 Y A e
positron neutrino particle
( is neutrino, its rest mass and charge is zero)
Fig. 10.22
• decay
In beta decay (N/Z) ratio of nucleus is changed. This decay
is shown by unstable nuclei. In beta decay, either a neutron
is converted into proton or proton is converted into neutron.
Fig. 10.25
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• decay : when an or decay takes place, the daughter disintegration constant or transformation constant. Its value
nucleus is usually in higher energy state, such a nucleus depends upon the nature of the radioactive sample. Further,
comes to ground state by emitting a photon or photons. the negative sign indicates that the number of the atoms of
the sample decreases with the passage of time.
dN
From equation, we have dt.
N
N t
dN
Fig. 10.26
Inhigrating N N 0 –λdt
0
Order of energy of photon is 100 KeV e.g.
67
27 Co 67
28 Ni * , Or log N =t
higher energy state e
N0
67 67
28 Ni* 28 Ni photon
N
Or N0
= et
8.12 Packing Fraction
Packing fraction = (mass defect)/A. Or N = N0et
9.3 Radioactive Decay Constant
9. RADIOACTIVITY
According to radioactive decay law, Integrating, we have
9.1 Natural Radioactivity dN
N
The spontaneous transformation of an element into another dt
with the emission of some particle (or particles) or
electromagnetic radiation is called natural radioactivity.
dN / dt
9.2 Laws of Radioactivity Decay Or
N
Rutherford and Soddy studied the phenomenon of
radioactivity in details and formulated the following laws, Hence, radioactive decay constant of a substance (radioactive)
known as the laws of radioactive decay: may be defined as the ratio of its instantaneous rate of
disintegration to the number of atoms present at that time.
1. Radioactivity is a spontaneous phenomenon and one
cannot predict, when a particular atom in a given Again, N = N0 e t
radioactive sample will undergo distintegration. If t = 1/
2. When a radioactive atom disintegrates, either an then, N = N0 e 1/ = 1/e N0 = N0/(2.718) = 0.368 N0
-particle (nucleus of helium) or a -particle (electron)
Hence, radioactive decay constant of a substance may also
is emitted.
be defined as the reciprocal of the time, after which the number
3. The number of atoms disintegrating per second of a of atoms of a radioactive substance decreases to 0.368 (or
radioactive sample at any time is directly proportional 36.8%) of their number present initially.
to the number of atoms present at that time. The rate of
9.4 Half Life
disintegration of the sample cannot be altered by
changing the external factors, such as pressure, Consider that a radioactive sample contains N 0 atoms at
temperature etc. It is known as radioactive decay law. time t = 0. Then, the number of atoms left behind after time
t is given by N = N0 e t
According to radioactive decay law, the rate of disintegration
at any time t is directly proportional to the number of atoms From the definition of half life, it follows that when t = t1/2, N =
N0/2.
dN dN
present at time t i.e. N or N. Setting the above condition in equation, we have
dt dt
N0 / 2 N 0 e t1/2
Where the constant of proportionally is called decay
constant of the radioactive sample. It is also known as
Or e t 1/ 2
1/ 2 Or e t 1/ 2
2
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Or T = loge 2 = 2.303 log10 2 = 2.303 × 0.3010 = 0.693 There is also another unit of radioactivity, called Rutherford
(rd).
0.693 The activity of a radioactive sample is called one Rutherford,
Or t1/ 2
if it undergoes 106 disintegration per second.
Thus, half life of a radioactive substance is inversely 1 Rutherford (rd) = 106 disintegration s1
proportional to its decay constant and is a characteristic 9.8 Nuclear fission and Nuclear fusion
property of its nucleus. It cannot be altered by any known Nuclear fission :
method.
The process of splitting of a heavy nucleus into two nuclei
9.5 Mean life or average life of nearly comparable masses with liberation of energy is
The average life of a radioactive substance is defined as the called nuclear fission.
average time for which the nuclei of the atoms of the U235 + 0n1 [92U236] 56Ba141+ 36Kr92 + 30n1 + Q
92
radioactive substance exist. It is defined by tavg.
Nuclear fusion :
Average Life :
It is the phenomenon of fusing two or more lighter nuclei to
form a single heavy nucleus.
t
sum of ages of all the nuclei N e
0
0 dt.t
1 A + B C + Q (Energy)
t avg
N0 N0 The product (C) is more stable then reactants (A and B) &
mC < (ma + mb) and mass defect
9.6 Activity of radioactive substance
m = [(ma + mb)– mc] amu
The activity of a radioactive substance may be defined as
Energy released is E = m 931 MeV
the rate at which the nuclei of its atoms in the sample
disintegrate. The total binding energy and binding energy per nucleon C
both are more than of A and B.
If a radioactive sample contains N atoms at any time t, then
E = Ec – (Ea + Eb)
dN
its activity at time t is defined as A = Fusion of four hydrogen nuclei into helium nucleus :
dt
4(1H1) 2He4 + 2 + 0 + 2 + 26 MeV
The negative sign shows that with the passage of time, the
Energy released per fission >> Energy released per fusion.
activity of the radioactive substance decreases.
200
dN Energy per nucleon in fission 0.85MeV <<
Since according to the radioactive decay, law N 235
dt
the equation may be expressed as A = N. Since, N =N0 et, 24
energy per nucleon in fusion 6MeV
we have 4
9.9 Nuclear Reactor
A N 0 e t
Or Main parts and their functions :-
A A 0 e t
1. Fuel : It is a fissionable material mostly U235.
Here, N0 = A0 is activity of the radioactive sample at time t 2. Moderator: It is used to slow down the neutrons released
= 0. during the fission. The most common moderators are water,
heavy water and graphite.
9.7 Units of activity
3. Control Rods: these rods are cadmium or boron, which
The activity of a radioactive sample may be expressed as
control the chain reaction by absorbing neutrons.
disintegration per second. The practical unit of activity of a
4. Coolant and Heat Exchanger: The coolant takes away heat
radioactive sample is curie (ci).
from the reactor core and in turn heats the water in the heat
The activity of a radioactive sample is called one curie, if it exchanger to produce steam. The commonly used coolants
undergoes 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second. Thus, are liquid sodium and heavy water.
1 curie (ci) = 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations s1
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5. Radiation Shielding: These are thick concrete walls, 9.11 Safety Measures from Radiation Hazards
which stop the radiations from going out. Following precautions are observed by the workers
9.10 Radiation Hazards engaged in this field:
1. The exposure to radioation induces delecterious 1. The radioisotopes are transferred in thick walled lead
genetic effects. containers and are kept in rooms with thick walls of
leads.
2. The strong -ray exposure can cause lung cancer.
2. The radioisotopes are handled with the help of remote
3. The exposure to fast and slow neutrons can cause
control devices.
blindness.
3. The workers are asked to wear lead aprons.
4. The exposure to neutrons, protons and -particles can
cause damage to red blood cells. 4. The radioactive contamination of the work area is
avoided at all costs.
5. The exposure to -particles can cause disastrous
effects.
6. The strong exposures to protons and neutrons can
cause serious damage to productive organs.
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SOLVED EXAMPLES
Example - 1
h W
For photoelectric effect in sodium, the figure shows the VS 2 v 2
plot of cut-off voltage versus frequency of incident e e
radiation. Calculate (i) threshold frequency (ii) work
Subtracting VS VS h (v2 v1)
function for sodium. 2 1 e
Sol. 6.4 1034 15 15
= (8 × 10 – 4 × 10 )
1.6 1019
= 16 volt.
Example - 3
o
Ultraviolet light of wavelength 2271 A from a 100 W
mercury source irradiates a photocell made of molybdenum
metal. If the stopping potential is –1.3 V, estimate the work
function of the metal. How would the photocell respond
5 –2
to a high intensity (~ 10 Wm ) red light of wavelength
o
6328 A produced by a He-Ne laser ?
(i) The threshold frequency is the frequency of incident light –34 8
at which kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron is zero. (h = 6.63 × 10 Js, c = 3 × 10 m/s)
From fig. threshold frequency
14
Sol. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is
v0 = 4.5 × 10 Hz
(ii) Work function, W = hv0 hc c
Ek = hv – W E k W sin ce v
–34 14
= 6.6 × 10 × 4.5 × 10 joule
Kinetic energy Ek = eV0,
6.6 10 34 4.5 1014
= eV hc
1.6 10 19 Work function W = eV0 ...(1)
= 1.85 eV o
–10
Given = 2271 A = 2271 × 10 m, V0 = 1.3 V
Example - 2
6.63 10 34 3 108 –19
By how much would the stopping potential for a Work function W = – 1.6 × 10 × 1.3
227110 10
given photosensitive surface go up if the frequency
–19 –19 –19
of the incident radiations were to be increased from = 8.76 × 10 – 2.08 × 10 = 6.68 × 10 J
15 15
4 × 10 Hz to 8 × 10 Hz ?
6.68 1019
= = 4.2 eV
1.6 1019
Sol. Stopping potential VS is given by
h W hc
eVS = hv – W VS = v Threshold wavelength 0 is given by W =
e e 0
15
when v1 = 4 × 10 Hz, Vs = VS (say)
1
hc 6.63 10 34 3 108 –7 o
0 19 m = 2.977 × 10 m = 2977 A
15
when v2 = 8 × 10 Hz, Vs = VS (say) W 6.68 10
2
As given wavelength 6328 Å is greater than threshold
h W
VS1 v1 wavelength 0 = 2977 Å, the photocell will not respond to
e e
red light produced by He-Ne laser, however intense it may be.
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Example - 4
6.63 10 34
Define the term work function of a metal. The threshold =
2 9.110 31 1.6 10 19 100
frequency of a metal is f0. When the light of frequency 2f0
is incident on the metal plate, the maximum velocity of –10
= 1.227 × 10 m = 1.227 Å
electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident
radiation is increased to 5 f0, the maximum velocity of This wavelength belongs to X-ray spectrum.
electrons emitted is v2. Find the ratio of v1 to v2.
Example - 7
A particle is moving three times as fast as an electron. The
Sol. Work function : The work function of a metal is defined as
ratio of the de Broglie wavelength of the particle to that of
the minimum energy required to free an electron from its –4
an electron is 1.813 × 10 . Calculate the particle’s mass and
surface binding. –31
identify the particles. Mass of electron = 9.11 × 10 kg.
1 2
Einstein’s photoelectric equation is hv = hv0 + 2 mv
h
Sol. The de Broglie wavelength
In first case v = 2f0, v0 = f0, v = v1 mv
1 2 1 2
h2f0 = hf0 + 2 mv1 2 mv1 If e and p are wavelengths of electron and particle
= hf0 ...(1) respectively, then
In second case, v = 5f0, v0 = f0, v = v2 h h
e and p
1 1 m e ve m p vp
h(5f0) = hf0 + 2 mv22 2 mv22
= 4hf0 ...(2) p me v e
2 e mp v p
v 1 v 1
Dividing v1 4 v1 2 .
2 2 Given vp = 3ve
Example - 5 p –4
= 1.813 × 10
Calculate the de Broglie wavelength of a neutron of kinetic e
–27
energy 150 eV. mass of neutron = 1.67 × 10 kg
m e V3
1.813 × 10 = m 3V
–4
h p 3
Sol. de Broglie wavelength
2mE–19
K –17
Here EK = 150 eV = 150 × 1.6 × 10 J = 2.4 × 10 J mp 1
6.63 10 34 me 3 1.813 10 4
–12
27 17
m = 2.335 × 10 m
3
[2 1.67 10 2.4 10 ] = 1.838 × 10
3
= 0.02335 Å. mp = 1.838 × 10 me
3 –31
= 1.838 × 10 × 9.11 × 10
Example - 6
–27
= 1.674 × 10 kg
An electron is accelerated through a potential difference
of 100 V. What is the de-Broglie wavelength assciated Which is mass of neutron. Thus the given particle is neutron.
with it ? To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum The de Broglie wavelength associated with electron is of
does this value of wavelength correspond ? the same order as the size of electron ; but de Broglie
wavelength associated with ball of size 5 mm is too much
h h
Sol. de-Broglie wavelength, small than the size of the ball. Hence wave nature of matter
p 2meV is significant in atomic level and insignificant at macroscopic
level.
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Example - 8 Example - 10
An electron and an alpha particle have the same de Broglie Find the (a) maximum frequency and (b) minimum
wavelength associated with them. How are their kinetic wavelength of X-rays produced by 30 kv electrons.
energies related to each other ?
3
Sol. Given electron = Sol. Given V = 30 kV = 30 × 10 volt
–19 3 –15
de Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass m Energy, E = eV = 1.6 × 10 × 30 × 10 = 4.8 × 10 joule
and energy E is (a) Maximum Frequency vmax is given by, E = hvmax
h
E 4.8 1015
2mE vmax =
h 6.6310 34
h h 18
= 7.24 × 10 Hz
2me Ee 2m E
c 3 108
That is kinetic energy of electron and -particle are in inverse (b) Minimum wavelength, min =
v max 7.24 1018
ratio of these masses.
–11
= 4.1 × 10 m = 0.041 nm
Example - 9
15
Radiations of frequency 10 Hz are incident on two Example - 11
photosensitive surfaces P and Q. The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of earth is
3 2
Following observations are made 1.388 × 10 W/m . How many photons (nearly) per square
(i) for surface P, photoemission occurs but metre are incident on the earth per second ? Assume that
photoelectrons have zero kinetic energy. the photons in the sunlight have an average wavelength
of 550 nm.
(ii) for surface Q, photoemission occurs and the
photoelectrons have some kinetic energy.
Which of these has a higher work function ? hc
Sol. Energy of each photon E =
If the incident frequency is slightly reduced, what will
happen to the photoelectron emission in the two cases ?
6.63 10 34 3 108 –19
= = 3.62 × 10 J
550 10 9
Sol. (i) For surface P, Ek = 0, so energy of photon = work function
–34 15
Number of photons incident on earth’s surface per second
i.e., hv = W = hv0 = 6.6 × 10 × 10 per square metre
–19
= 6.6 × 10 joule
Total energy per square metre per sec ond
(ii) For surface Q, the photoelectrons have the same kinetic =
Energy of one photon
energy, so Einstein’s equation
hv = W + Ek, 1.388 103
=
3.62 10 19
work function of Q is less than that of P 21
–19
= 3.8 × 10 .
W < 6.6 × 10 joule
Example - 12
i.e., surface P has higher work function than surface Q (i) As
The work function of caesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light
frequency of incident radiation is reduced slightly, energy 14
of frequency 6 × 10 Hz is incident on the metal surface,
of photon will become less than work function of P, but will photoemission of electrons occurs. What is the
be more than the work function Q, hence surface P will show
(a) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons ?
no photoelectric emission, while surface Q will show
(b) stopping potential and
photoelectric emission ; but the kinetic energy of
photoelectrons from surface Q will be lower than initial value. (c) maximum speed of emitted electrons ?
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14
Sol. Given 0 = 2.14 eV, v = 6 × 10 Hz
hc
(a) Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron e × 0.54 = 0 ...(2)
640.2 109
–34 14 –19
Ek = hv – 0 = 6.63 × 10 × 6 × 10 –2.14 × 1.6 × 10
In second case when iron source is the source of radiation,
–9
–19 0.54 10 19 i.e., ’ = 427.2 nm = 427.2 × 10 m, let V0’ be the new stopping
= 0.54 × 10 J = eV = 0.34 eV potential, then equation (1) gives
1.6 10 19
(b) Stopping potential v0 is given by hc
eV0’ = 0 ...(3)
427.2 109
E k 0.34 eV
Ek = eV0 V0 = = 0.34 V
e e Subtracting (2) from (3), we get
(c) The maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons is v. 1 1
Hence, the relation for kinetic energy can be written as, e(V0’ – 0.54) = hc 9
9
427.2 10 640.2 10
1 2
K mv
2 hc 1 1 9
m = 9.1 ×10–31 Kg is the mass of electron. V0’ – 0.54 = 10
e 427.2 640.2
v2 2K / m
v 3.323 105 m/s 332.3Km /s 6.63 10 34 3 108 640.2 427.2 9
= × 10
Example - 13 1.6 1019 427.2 640.2
In an experiment of photoelectric effect, the slope of cut-
off voltage versus frequency of incident light is found to 12.43 10 7 (213) 109
–15 = = 0.96 V
be 4.12 × 10 Vs. Calculate the value of Planck’s constant. 427.2 640.2
Sol. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is Ek = hv – 0 V0’ = 0.96 + 0.54 = 1.5 V
or eV0 = hv – 0 Example - 15
The work function of the following metals is given :
h
or V0 = v 0 Na = 2.75 eV ; K = 2.30 eV, Mo = 4.17 eV, Ni = 5.15 eV.
e e
Which of these metals will not give a photoelectric emission
h 0
Clearly, slope of V0 – v curve is . for a radiation of wavelength 3300 A from a He-Cd laser
e
placed 1 m away from the photocell ? What happens if the
laser is brought nearer and placed 50 cm away ?
h –15 –15
Give = 4.12 × 10 V – s h = 4.12 × 10 e joule second
e
hc
–15 –19 –34 Sol. Energy of incident photon, E =
= 4.12 × 10 × 1.6 × 10 = 6.59 × 10 Js
Example - 14 0 –10 –7
Here = 3300 A = 3300 × 10 m = 3.3 × 10 m
Monochromatic radiation of wavelength 640.2 nm from a
neon lamp irradiates a photosensitive material made of
6.63 10 34 3 108
caesium on tungsten. The stopping voltage is measured E= joule
3.3 10 7
to be 0.54 V. The source is replaced by an iron source and
its 427.2 nm line irradiates the same photocell. Predict the
new stopping voltage. 6.63 1034 3 108
= eV = 3.76 eV
3.3 107 1.6 1019
Sol. In first case when source of radiation is neon lamp.
–9
= 640.2 nm = 640.2 × 10 m, V0 = 0.54 V Photoelectric emission is only possible if energy of incident
photon is equal to or greater than the work function. For Na
From Einstein’s photoelectric equation
and K this condition is satisfied, hence photoelectric
hc emission is possible; but in the case of Mo and Ni, the
eV0 = –0 ...(1)
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MODERN PHYSICS 27
energy of incident photon is less than the work function ; –24 –1
hence photoelectric emission is not possible.
= 2 9.11031 1.6 1019 56 = 4.04 × 10 kg ms
If source is brought nearer, then the intensity of incident h 6.63 10 34
radiation increases but frequency of a photon remains the (b) de Broglie wavelength = =
p 4.04 1024
same ; therefore Mo and Ni will still not show photoelectric
effect ; however in the case of Na and K the current will –10
= 1.64 × 10 m = 0.164 nm
increase in same proportion as the increase in intensity takes
place. Example - 18
Example - 16 The wavelength of light from the spectral emission line of
–5 –2
Light of intensity 10 Wm falls on a sodium photocell of sodium is 589 nm. Find the kinetic energy at which (a) an
2
surface area 2 cm . Assuming that the top 5 layers of electron and (b) a neutron, would have the
sodium absorb the incident energy, estimate the time –7
Sol. Given = 589 nm = 5.89 × 10 m
required for photoelectric emission in the wave picture of
radiation. The work function for the metal is given to be h h
The de Broglie wavelength =
about 2 eV. What is the implication of your answer ? p 2mE k
Sol. Surface area of 5 sodium layers h2
–4 2 –3 2
2
At = 5 × 2 × 10 m = 10 m 2mE k
–20 2
Effective area of atom = 10 m h2
Number of sodium atoms in 5 layers, Kinetic Energy Ek =
2m 2
At 10 3 h2
= 20 = 1017 (a) For electron Ek =
A atom 10 2m 2
17
Number of free electrons in 5 layers = 10
(6.63 10 34 ) 2 –25
–5 –4 –9
Incident power P = IA = 10 × 2 × 10 = 2 × 10 W Ek = = 6.96 × 10 J
2 9.110 31 (5.89 107 ) 2
Energy absorved per second per electron, (b) For neutron m = 1.67 × 10 kg
–27
P 2 109
–26 (6.63 1034 ) 2
= 2 × 10 J/s Ek =
–28
= 3.79 × 10 J
N 1017 2 1.67 10 31 (5.89 10 7 ) 2
Time required Example - 19
Work function (a) For what kinetic energy of a neutron will the associated
t= –10
de Broglie wavelength be 1.40 × 10 m.
Energy absorbed per sec ond per electron
(b) Also find the de Broglie wavelength of a neutron, in
thermal equilibrium with matter, having an average kinetic
2 1.6 10 19 7
= = 1.6 × 10 s
2 10 26 3 –27
energy kT at 300 K. [Mass of neutron = 1.67 × 10 kg]
2
Experimentally no time lag is observed between incidence
Sol. (a) The wavelength associated with neutron,
of light and emission of photoelectrons.
Example - 17 1.4 10 –10 m
Mass of neutron, m = 1.66 × 10–27 Kg
Calculate the (a) momentum and (b) de Broglie wavelength 1
of the electrons accelerated through a potential difference K.E mv2
2
of 56 V.
h
For de broglie wavelength and velocity,
Sol. For electron, mass m = 9.1 × 10 kg
–31 mv
h2
(a) Momentum p = 2mE k 2meV So, K 2
6.75 1021 J 4.129 102 eV
2 m
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MODERN PHYSICS 28
h h h h h h
(b) = de Broglie wavelength,
2mE k 3 3mkT mv rms 3kT 3mkT
2m kT m.
2 m
6.63 1034 6.63 1034
= =
3 1.67 10 27 1.38 10 23 300 3 28.0152 1.66 10 27 1.38 10 23 300
6.63 10 34 –10
6.63 10 34 –11
= = 1.46 × 10 m = 0.146 nm = = 2.76 × 10 m = 0.276 Å
4.55 10 24 2.40 1023
Example - 20 Example - 22
An electron and a photon, each has a wavelength of 1.00 nm. Green light ejects photoelectrons from a given
Find photosensitive surface whereas yellow light does not.
What will happen in the case of violet and red light ? Give
(a) their momenta
reason for your answer.
(b) the energy of the photon and
(c) the kinetic energy of electron. Sol. Photoemission is possible only when energy of incident
photon is more than work function of metal. The given
–9
Sol. Given = 1.00 nm = 1.00 × 10 m surface will emit electrons with violet light but not with red
(a) Momenta of electron and photon are equal ; given by light. The reason is energy of photon of violet light is more
than work function, while red light photon has energy less
h 6.63 10 34 than work function.
p= –25
= 6.63 × 10 kg ms
–1
1.00 10 9 Example - 23
The given graphs show the variation of photoelectric
c h
(b) Energy of photon, E = hv = h. c current (I) with the applied voltage (V) for two different
materials and for two different intensities of the incident
–25 8 –17
= pc = 6.63 × 10 × 3 × 10 J = 19.89 × 10 J radiations. Identify the pairs of curves that correspond to
different materials but same intensity of incident radiations.
19.89 10 17 3
= eV = 1.24 × 10 eV = 1.24 keV
1.6 1019
1 2
p2
(c) Kinetic energy of electron Ek = mev =
2 2m e
(6.63 1025 ) 2
= J
2 9.110 31
2.42 1019
–19
= 2.42 × 10 J = eV = 1.51 eV Sol. The curves 1 and 3 correspond to the same intensity but
1.6 10 19
different materials.
Example - 21 The curves 2 and 4 correspond to same intensity but
What is the de Broglie wavelength of a nitrogen molecule different materials.
in air at 300 K ? Assume that the molecule is moving with Example - 24
the root mean square speed of molecule at this temperature.
Are matter waves electromagnetic ?
Atomic mass of nitrogen = 14.0076 u.
Sol. Matter waves are not electromagnetic. The reason is that
3kT electromagnetic waves are produced by accelerated charges
Sol. Root mean square speed, vrms = while matter waves or de Broglie waves are associated with
m
neutral particles. In fact de Broglie waves are the probability
Mass of nitrogen molecule, m = 2 × 14.0076 = 28.152 u = waves ; they tell the probability of location of particle in a
–27
28.0152 × 1.66 × 10 kg certain region of space.
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MODERN PHYSICS 29
Example - 25 From graph
If the frequency of light falling on a metal is doubled, what For M1, hv3 = hv01 + eV1 ...(2)
will be the effect on photocurrent and the maximum kinetic For M2, hv3 = hv02 + eV2 ...(3)
energy of emitted photoelectrons ?
Subtracting (2) from (3), we get
Sol. The photocurrent does not depend on the frequency of h(v02 – v01) + e (V2 – V1) = 0
incident radiation, hence the photocurrent remains or h(v02 – v01) = e(V1 – V2)
unchanged. The maximum kinetic energy increases with
increase of frequency , given by h V1 V2
Slope of lines,
EK = hv – W e v02 v01
If frequency is doubled, EK’ = 2 hv – W Example - 27
E K ' 2hv W Two lines A and B shown in the graph represent the de
EK hv W 1
Broglie wavelength () as a function of (V is the
V
2hv 2W W W
= = 2 2 acceleration potential) for two particles having the same
hv W hv W charge. Which of the two represents the particle of smaller
i.e., maximum kinetic energy will increase to slightly more mass ?
than double value.
B
Example - 26
The given graphs show the variation of the stopping A
potential VS with the frequency (v) of the incident radiations
for two different photosensitive materials M1 and M2.
1/ V
(i) What are the values of work functions for M1 and M2 ?
(ii) The values of the stopping potential for M1 and M2 for
a frequency v3 (>v02) of the incident radiations are V1 h h 1
Sol. de Broglie wavelength or .
and V2 respectively. Show that the slope of the lines 2mqV 2mq V
equals V1 V2 . 1
v02 v01 The graph of versus is a straight line of slope
V
M1 M2
h 1
. The slope of line B is large, so particle B
2mq m
has smaller mass.
Example - 28
An electron and photon have same energy 100 eV. Which
v01 v02 has greater associated wavelength ?
Sol. de Broglie wavelength associated with electron
Sol. (i) Work function of M1, W1 = hv01
Work function for M2, W2 = hv02 h h2
e Ee ...(1)
(ii) From Einstein’s potoelectric equation hv = W + eVs 2mEe 2me 2
h W Also wavelength of photon of energy Eph is
VS = v ...(1)
e e
hc 2 h 2 c2
h Eph = E ph 2
This is equation of a straight line of slope . ph ph
e
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MODERN PHYSICS 30
Given Ee = Eph = E(say) = 100 eV Sol. From Einstein’s photoelectric equation
Dividing (2) by (1) and using (3), we get Ek = hv – W
eV0 = hv – W
h 2 c 2 / 2 ph 2mc 2 2e
E= or E =
h 2 / 2m 2e 2ph h W
V0 = v
e e
e E Comparing with y = mx + c
ph 2mc 2
W
2 The intercept will help to obtain the work function of
As E = 100 eV 2mc 1 MeV e
2
E < < 2mc the substance.
e < ph (i) Photoelectric Current : As the distance of the light source
That is, wavelength associated with photon is greater as from the cathode is reduced, the intensity of light is
compared to electron of same energy. increased. Thus, photoelectric current is increased because
more photo electrons will get emitted.
Example - 29
(ii) Stopping Potential : The stopping potential remains
Light from a source is incident on a metallic surface. The
unaffected by reducing the distance of the light source from
maximum kinetic energy is E and current is I. If the distance
the cathode, as frequency is not changed on reducing the
of source from metal is doubled, what will be the values of
distance between source of light and cathode.
kinetic energy and current.
Example - 31
1 What is the longest wavelength photon that can ionize a
Sol. Intensity from a point source I . By doubling distance
r2 hydrogen atom in its ground state ? Specify the type of
r, the intensity is reduced to one-fourth. radiation.
Therefore, photo current will become I/4 while kinetic energy hc
E will remain unchanged. Sol. Hence, the energy of the incident photon = hv = = 13.6eV
Example - 30
6.6 10 34 3 108
Sketch a graph between frequency of incident radiations
13.6 1.6 10 19
and stopping potential for a given photosensitive material.
What information can be obtained from the value of the = 0.910 × 10 m
–10
intercept on the potential axis ?
This radiation is in ultraviolet region.
A source of light of frequency greater than the threshold
frequency is at a distance of 1 m from the cathode of a Example - 32
photocell. The stopping potential is found to be V. If the In Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, calculate the energy of
distance of the light source from the cathode is reduced, the photon emitted during a transition of the electron from
explain giving reasons, what change will you observe in the the first excited state to the ground state. Write in which
(i) photoelectric current region of the electromagnetic spectrum this transition lies.
(ii) stopping potential.
Sol. The energy levels of hydrogen atom are given by
B
Rhc 13.6
E n 2 2 eV
n n
For ground state n = 1
A E1 = –13.6 eV
O v0 Frequency (v)
For first excited state (n = 2)
D 13.6
E2 = = –3.4 eV
4
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MODERN PHYSICS 31
Energy of photon emitted
6.6 1034 3 108
hv = E2 – E1 = –3.4 – (–13.6) eV = 10.2 eV = eV
102.7 109 1.6 10 19
As transition from higher state to n = 1 correspond to Lyman
series so the corresponding transition belongs to Lyman 66 3000
series. = = 12.04 eV
1027 16
Example - 33
Now, E = | – 13.6 – (– 1.50)|
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV
= 12.1 eV
(i) What is the kinetic energy of an electron in the second
excited state ? Hence, transition shown by arrow D corresponds to
emission of = 102.7 nm.
(ii) If the electron jumps to the ground state from the second
excited state, calculate the wavelength of the spectral Example - 35
line emitted. The graph shows how the activity of a simple of radon–220
changes with time. Use the graph to determine its half-life.
Sol. The energy levels of H-atom are given by Calculate the value of decay constant of radon–220.
Rhc 13.6
En = 2
2 eV
n n
(i) For second excited state n = 3 2
13.6 13.6
E3 = 2
eV eV = –1.51 eV
(3) 9
th
Kinetic energy of electron in n state is Sol. From graph the half-life of simple is 16 days
K3 = – E3 = + 1.51 eV 0 .6 9 3 0 .6 9 3
–1 –1
Decay constant = T1 T1 day = 0.043 day .
(ii) The wavelength of emitted radiation from second excited 2 2
state (n = 3) to ground state (n = 1) is given by Example - 36
hc A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 5 years. After how
= E3 – E1 = – 1.51 eV + 13.6 eV = 12.09 eV much time is its activity reduced to 3.125% of its original
activity ?
hc 6.626 10 34 3 108 n
= m R 1
12.09 eV 12.09 1.6 1019 Sol. We know
R0 2
–7
= 1.027 × 10 m = 102.7 nm
R 3.125
Example - 34 Given R 3.125% 100
0
The energy level diagram of an element is given alongside.
Identify, by doing necessary calculations, which transition n n 5 n
3.125 1 1 1 1 1
corresponds to the emission of a spectral line of wavelength or or
102.7 nm. 100 2 32 2 2 2
n=5
Given T = 5 years
t
As n=
T
t
=5
34
hc 6.6 10 3 10 8 T
Sol. E = J
102.7 10 9 or t = 5 × 5 = 25 years
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MODERN PHYSICS 32
Example - 37 Example - 39
11
A radioactive sample contains 2.2 mg of pure 6
C which 1
A radioactive material is reduced to of its original
has half-life period of 1224 seconds. Calculate 16
(i) the number of atoms present initially amount in 4 days. How much material should one begin
–3
(ii) the activity when 5 g of the sample will be left. with so that 4 × 10 kg of the material is left after 6 days.
n
N 1
Sol. (i) By definition 11 g of carbon C contains N
11
6 A
= 6.023 × Sol.
23 N0 2
10 atoms
–3
Number of atoms in 2.2 mg = 2.2 × 10 g of 116 C will be t
where n = is number of half lives.
T
2.2 10 3 23 19
= × 6.023 × 10 atoms = 12.046 × 10 atoms N 1 1
4
11 Given
(ii) Activity A = N N 0 16 2
4 n
log e 2 loge 2 1 1
Half-life Y2 = T or n = 4
1/ 2 2 2
log e 2 t
Activity A = N Given t = 4 days =4
T1/ 2 T
–6
where N = Number of atoms in 5 g (= 5 × 10 g) which is t 4
Half life, T = = 1 day
equal to T 4
n
5 10 6 m 1
6.023 10 23 disintegration per second If m0 is initial mass of radioactive material, then .
11 m0 2
t 6 6
log e 2 0.6931 5 106
= 6, m = 4 × 10–3 kg m 1 1
A= T N 6.0231023 Here n =
1/ 2 1224 11 T 1 m0 2 64
14 –3
= 1.55 × 10 becquerel. or m0 = 64 m = 64 × 4 × 10 kg = 0.256 kg
Example - 38 Example - 40
40
The half-life of 238
U against -decay is 4.5 × 10 years.
9 Calculate the binding energy per nucleon 20
Ca nucleus.
92
238
Calculate the activity of 1 g sample of 92
U. [Given : m ( 40
20
Ca) ] = 39.962589 u
9 9 7 mn (mass of a neutron) = 1.008665 u
Sol. T1/2 = 4.5 × 10 years = 4.5 × 10 × 3.15 × 10 seconds
mp (mass of a proton) = 1.007825 u
238 23
Number of atoms in 1 g sample of U is N = 6.023 × 10 × 2
92 1 u = 931 MeV/c ]
1 40
. Sol. Total Binding energy of 20 Ca nucleus
238
= 20mp + 20 mn – M ( 4020 Ca)
log e 2
Activity of sample A = N = ×N = 20 × 1.007825 + 20 × 1.008665 – 39.962589
T1/ 2
= 0.367211 u = 0.367211 × 931 MeV = 341.87 Mev
0.6931 1
= 4.5 109 3.15 107 × 6.023 × 1023 × Binding energy per nucleus =
341.87
MeV/nucleon
238 40
4
= 1.237 × 10 bacquerel. = 8.55 MeV/nucleon
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MODERN PHYSICS 33
Example - 41 Sol. 56
Fe nucleus is most stable ; therefore, energy will be needed
26
Calculate the energy released if U
238
–nucleus emits an for the reaction to occur.
–particle. The reaction is
Calculate the energy released in MeV in the following m (56 +Q 2 28
26 Fe) (13 Al)
nuclear reaction
Difference of mass
238
U 90234 Th 24 He Q
92
= 2 × (27.98191) u – 55.93494 u
238
Given Atomic mass of U = 238.05079 u = 0.02888 u
234
Atomic mass of Th = 234.04363 u Energy needed, Q = 0.02888 × 931 MeV
Atomic mass of alpha particle = 4.00260 u = 26.88728 MeV
Is the decay spontaneous, give reason. Example - 44
Would the energy be released or needed for the following
Sol. The process is D-T reaction :
238 234 4
92 U 90 Th 2 He Q 2
( particle) 1
H 13 H 42 He 10 n
The energy released to occur ?
2
Q = (MU – MTH — MHe) c Given m( 12 H) = 2.014102 u
2
= (238.05079 – 234.04363 – 4.00260)u × c
2 m ( 13 H) = 3.016049 u
= (0.00456 u) × c
931.5MeV 2
m( 42 He) = 4.002603 u
= 0.00456 ×
c2
.c = 4.25 MeV
2
m( 10 n) = 1.008665 u and 1 u = 931 MeV/c
Yes, the decay is spontaneous (since Q is positive)
Calculate the energy in MeV.
Example - 42
A heavy nucleus X of mass number 240 and binding energy Sol. The given reaction is nuclear fusion reaction ; so energy
per nucleon 7.6 MeV is split into two fragments Y and Z of will be released in the reaction.
mass numbers 110 and 130. The binding energy per nucleon 2 3 4 1
1 H 1 H 2 He 0 n Q
in Y and Z is 8.5 MeV per nucleon. Calculate the energy Q
Mas of nuclei before fusion
released per fission in MeV.
2 2 Mi = m (12 H) m(13 H)
Sol. Energy released Q = (MY + MZ)C – MX C
= 8.5 (110 + 130) MeV – 7.6 × 240 MeV = 2.014102 + 3.016049
= (8.5 – 7.6) × 240 MeV = 5.030151 u
= 0.9 × 240 MeV = 2.16 MeV Mass of nuclei after fusion
Example - 43 Mf = m(42 He) m(10 n)
If a nucleus 56
26
Fe splits into two nuclei of 28
13
Al, would the = 4.002603 + 1.008665
energy be released or needed for this purpose to occur ? = 5.011268 u
Mass defect (m) = mi – mf
Given m ( 5626 Fe) = 55.934944
= 5.030151 – 5.011268
28
m ( Al) = 27.98191 u
13 = 0.018863 u
2
1 u = 931 MeV/c Energy released, Q = 0.018863 × 931 MeV
Calculate the energy in MeV. = 17.56 MeV
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MODERN PHYSICS 34
Example - 45 1 –27 2 –13
× 6.68 × 10 v = 5.18 × 1.6 × 10 J
A nucleus 23
10
Ne undergoes -decay and becomes 23
11
Na . 2
Calculate the maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted
assuming that the daughter nucleus and antineutrino carry 2
2 5.18 1.6 10 13
v =
negligible kinetic energy. 6.68 10 27
23
mass of 10
Ne = 22.994466 u
2 5.18 1.6 1013
or v= 2.48 × 107 ms–1 = 1.57 × 107 ms–1.
mass of 23
11
Na = 22.989770 u 6.681027
2
1 u = 931.5 MeV/c Example - 47
23
Calculate the ratio of energies of photons produced due to
Sol. The equation of -decay of Ne is
10 transition of electron of hydrogen atom from its
23 23
Ne 11 Na e v (i) second permitted energy level to the first level, and
10
(ii) highest permitted energy level to the second permitted
23 23
Mass difference, m = m N (10 Ne) mN (11 Na) me level.
Changing nuclear masses into atomic masses Sol. Energy of electron in permitted level
m = m(10
23
Ne) 10m e m(11
23
Na) 11m e m e Rhc
En
n2
23 23
= m (10 Ne) – m (11 Na)
(i) When an electron jumps from the second to the first
= 22.994466 – 22.989770 = 0.004696 u permitted energy level,
Maximum K.E., Q = 0.004696 u × 931.5 MeV/u
1 1 3
= 4.37 MeV Energy of photon = E2–1 = Rhc 2 2 Rhc
1 2 4
Example - 46 (ii) When an electron jumps from the highest permitted level
The nucleus of an atom of 235
92
Y, initially at rest, decays by (n = ) to the second permitted level (n = 2).
emitting an -particle as per the equation
1 1 Rhc
E–2 = Rhc 2
235
92 Y 231
90
4
X He + Energy
2
2 4
It is given that the binding energies per nucleon of the E 2 1 3Rhc / 4 3
parent and the daughter nuclei are 7.8 MeV and 7.835 MeV Ratio ; Ratio = 3 : 1
E 2 Rhc / 4 1
respectively and that of -particle is 7.07 MeV/nucleon.
Assuming the daughter nucleus to be formed in the Example - 48
unexcited state and neglecting its share in the energy of The spectrum of a star in the visible and the ultraviolet
the reaction, calculate the speed of the emitted -particle. region was observed and the wavelength of some of the
–27
Take mass of -particle to be 6.68 × 10 kg. lines that could be identified were found to be :
Sol. Energy released, Q = [M (
231 4
X) + M ( He) – M(
235
Y)]c
2
824 Å, 970 Å, 1120 Å, 2504 Å, 5173 Å, 6100 Å
= [(7.835 × 231) + (7.07 × 4) – (7.8 × 235)]MeV which of these lines cannot belong to hydrogen atom
7 –1
spectrum ? (Give Rydberg constant R = 1.03 × 10 m and
= [1809.9 + 28.28 – 1833] MeV
= 5.18 MeV 1
= 970 Å. Support your answer with suitable
–13 R
= 5.18 × 1.6 × 10 J
calculations.
This entire kinetic energy is taken by -particle as given.
Sol. For hydrogen atom, the wave number (i.e. reciprocal of
1 2 –13
i.e., mv = 5.18 × 1.6 × 10 J wavelength) of the emitted radiation is given by
2
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MODERN PHYSICS 35
1 1 1 Example - 50
v R 2 2
n 2 n1 The half-life of 146 C is 5700 years. What does it mean ? Two
radioactive nuclei X and Y initially contain an equal number
1 of atoms. Their half lives are 1 hour and 2 hour respectively.
R 970 Å Calculate the ratio of their rates of disintegration after two
1 1 1 1 hours.
2 2 2 2
n 2 n1 n 2 n1
14
Sol. The half-life of 6 C is 5700 years. It means that one half of
For Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum, we take n2 = 1.
Hence the permitted values of can be given as : the present number of radioactive nuclei of 146 C will remain
undecayed after 5700 years.
970Å 970Å 970Å 970Å
, , ........... 1 N
3 / 4 8 / 9 15 /16 1 Number of nuclei X after 2 hours, NX = N0 0
(taking n1 = 2, 3, 4, ..........) 2 4
= 1293.3 Å, 1091 Å, 1034.6 Å, .................... 970 Å 1 N
2
Number of nuclei Y after 2 hours, NY = N0 2 0
For Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum, we take n2 = 2. 2 2
Hence the possible values of can be given as :
R X N0 / 4 1
970Å 970Å 970Å 970Å Ratio of rates of disintegration .
, , ........... R Y N0 / 2 2
5 / 36 3 /16 21/100 1/ 4
Example - 51
(taking n1 = 3, 4, 5, ..........)
Draw the graph showing the variation of binding energy per
= 698 Å, 5173.3 Å, 4619 Å, ...................... 3880 Å
nucleon with the mass number for a large number of nuclei
Hence = 824 Å, 1120 Å, 2504Å, 6100Å, of the given lines, 2 < A < 240 .. What are the main inferences from the graph ?
cannot belong to the hydrogen atom spectrum. How do you explain the constancy of binding energy in the
Example - 49 range 30 < A < 170 using the property that the nuclear force
is short-ranged. Explain with the help of this plot the release
The trajectories, traced by different -particles, in Geiger-
of energy in the process of nuclear fission and fusion.
Marsden experiment were observed as shown in the figure.
(a) What names are given to the symbols ‘b’ and ‘’ shown Sol. The variation of binding energy per nucleon versus mass
here. number is shown in figure.
o
(b) What can we say about the values of b for (i) = 0 (ii)
9.0
= radians. 16
O Fe56
8.0 C12
4 F
18
U 238
Hc N14
7.0
6.0
7
5.0 Li
4.0
3.0
2.0
O H
2
Target nucleus 1.0
0.0
Sol. (a) The symbol ‘b’ represents impact parametter and ‘’ 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180 200 220 240
represents the scattering angle. Mass Number
o
(b) (i) When = 0 , the impart parameter will be maximum and Inferences from graph
represent the atomic size.
1. The nuclei having mass number below 20 and above 180
(ii) When = radians, the impact parameter ‘b’ will be have relatively small binding energy and hence they are
minimum and represent the nuclear size. unstable.
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MODERN PHYSICS 36
2. The nuclei having mass number 56 and about 56 have Sol. is the mean life time of radio nuclide T is the half-life period
maximum binding energy – 5.8 MeV and so they are most of radio nuclide, the relation is
stable.
4 12 16
= 1.44 T
3. Some nuclei have peaks, e.g., 2He , 6C , 8O ; this indicates
i.e., Mean life period = 1.44 × Half life period
that these nuclei are relatively more stable than their
neighbours.
Example - 54
Explanation of constancy of binding energy : Nuclear force
is short-ranged, so every nucleon interacts with their With the help of an example, explain how the neutron to
neighbours only, therefore binding energy per nucleon proton ratio changes during -decay of a nucleus.
remains constant.
238
Sol. Let us take the example of a-decay of U. The decay
Explanation of Nuclear Fission : When a heavy nucleus 92
(A 235 say) breaks into two lighter nuclei (nuclear fission), scheme is
the binding energy per nucleon increases i.e., nucleons get
238 234
more tightly bound. This implies that energy would be 92 U
90 Th 42 (or 42 He)
released in nuclear fission.
Explanation of Nuclear Fusion : When two very light nuclei 238 92 146
Neutron to proton ratio before -decay =
(A 10) join to form a heavy nucleus, the binding is energy 92 92
per nucleon of fused heavier nucleus more than the binding =1.59
energy per nucleon of lighter nuclei, so again energy would
be released in nuclear fusion. 234 90 144
Neutron to proton ratio after -decay = = 1.60
Example - 52 90 90
How does the size of a nucleus depend on its mass number?
Hence explain why the density of nuclear matter is 146 144
independent of the size of nucleus. 92 90
Sol. The radius (size) R of nucleus is related to its mass number This shows that the neutron to proton ratio increases during
(A) as -decay of a nucleus.
1/3 –15
R = R0A where R0 = 1.1 × 10 m Example - 55
If m is the average mass of a nucleon, then mass of nucleus
In a radioactive decay as follows
= mA, where A is mass number
e0
1
4 3 4 1/ 3 3 4 3
A A1 A2
Volume of nucleus = R (R 0 A ) R 0 A
3 3 3
The mass number and atomic number of A2 are 176 and 71
Density of nucleus, respectively, what are the mass numbers and atomic
numbers of A1 and A. Which of these elements are isobars.
mass mA m 3m
N =
volume 4 R 3 A 4 R 3 4R 30 Sol. The reaction may be expressed as
0 0
3 3
A
A4
Clearly nuclear density N is independent of mass number A. Z X
Z 1 Y A e0 v
Z 3 Y1 2 He 4
1
Example - 53 (A) (A1) (A2)
A radio nuclide sample has N0 nuclei at t = 0. Its number of Given Z – 3 = 71 Z = 74 and Z – 1 = 73
N0 Also A – 4 = 176 A = 180
undecayed nuclei get reduced to at t = . What does
e
Thus mass numbers of A1 and A are 180 each
the term stand for ? Write in terms of , the time interval
The atomic numbers of A1 and A are 73 and 74 respectively.
‘T’ in which half of the original number of nuclei of this
radio nuclide would have got decayed. The elements A and A1 are isobars.
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MODERN PHYSICS 37
Example - 56 Example - 59
Explain why is the energy distribution of –rays Why is the mass of a nucleus always less than the sum of
continuous. the masses of constituents, neutrons and protons ?
If the total number of neutrons and protons in a nuclear
Sol. During -decay, a neutron is converted into a proton with reaction is conserved how then is the energy absorbed or
the emission of a -particle with an antineutrino evolved in the reaction ? Explain.
1
0 n
1p1 1 0 v Sol. 2 nd Part :
The energy produced in this decay is shared by -particle In fact the number of protons and number of neutrons are
and antineutrino ; therefore -particle may have varying the same before and after a nuclear reaction, but the binding
amount of energy starting from zero to a certain maximum energies of nuclei present before and after a nuclear reaction
value. are different. This difference is called the mass defect (M).
Example - 57 M = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn] – M
2
Einstein’s mass energy relation, E = mc
Why is the heavy water used as a moderator in a nuclear
reactor ? can express this mass difference in terms of energy as
2
Eb = Mc .
Sol. The basic principle of machanics is that momentum transfer This shows that if a certain number of neutrons and protons
is maximum when the mass of colliding particle and target are brought together to form a nucleus of a certain charge
particle are equal. Heavy water has negligible absorption and mass, an energy Eb will released in the process. The
cross-section for neutrons and its mass is small ; so heavy energy Eb is called the binding energy of the nucleus. If
water molecules do not absorb fast neutrons ; but simply we separate a nucleus into its nucleons we would have to
slow them. transfer a total energy equal to Eb, to the particles.
Example - 58
Example - 60
Draw a graph showing the variation of potential energy 8
betwen a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation. The temperature of a star is 3 × 10 K. Can nuclear fusion
Indicate the regions in which the nucleus force is occur at that star ? If yes which cycle is more probable :
(i) attractive, (ii) repulsive. Write two important conclusions carbon-nitrogen cycle or proton-proton cycle ?
which you can draw regarding the nature of the nuclear
Sol. Nuclear fusion is possible at the star, because it can take
forces. 7 7
place at or above temperature 2 × 10 K. Above 2 × 10 K
carbon-nitrogen cycle is more probable, therefore at the star
Sol. the probability of carbon-nitrogen cycle is greater.
Example - 61
In an oil drop experiment the following data were recorded :
A
plate separation 15 mm, distance of fall 10 mm, potential
–5 –2
difference 3.2 kV, viscosity of air 1.82 × 10 Nsm , radius
+100 Repulsive of drop 2.76 m, successive times of rise of the drop 42 s
B and 78 s. Calculate the change in charge on the drop
MeV between the two sets of observations. To how many
0
D electrons does this correspond ?
Attractive
-100 Sol. Under the influence of an electric field E, if the drop carrying
C 1 2 3 4
r (fm) a charge n1e moves upwards with velocity v1,
Part AB represents repulsive force and Part BCD represents En1e – mg = 6av1 ...(1)
attractive force. Similarly, if the drop carrying a charge n2e moves upwards
Conclusions : with velocity v2, then
(1) Nuclear forces are attractive and stronger, then electrostatic En2e – mg = 6av2 ...(2)
force. 6 a
From Eqs. (1) and (2), (n2 – n1)e = (v 2 v1 )
(2) Nuclear forces are charge-independent. E
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MODERN PHYSICS 38
–5 –2
Here, = 1.82 × 10 Nsm ;
1 1 1 3R 4 4
–6
a = 2.76 × 10 m ; R 2 2 or 2 = 1215 Å
2 1 2 4 3R 31.097 107
V 3.2 103 2 belongs to the Lyman series and lies in the ultraviolet
E=
5 –1
= 2.133 × 10 Vm ;
d 15 10 3 region.
(c) For the direct jump n = 3 to n = 1 :
1 1 –3
1 1
v2 – v1 = s t t = 10 × 10 1 1 1 8R
1 2 42 78 R 2 2
3 1 3 9
–4 –1
= 1.1 × 10 ms
9 9
6 (1.82 105 )(2.76 106 ) or 3 = 1026 Å
(n2 – n1)e = 1.110 4 8R 8 1.097 107
2.133 105
= 4.883 × 10 C
–19 which also belongs to the Lyman series and lies in the
ultraviolet region.
Hence the change in charge on the drop between the two
–19
sets of observations is 4.883 × 10 C. This corresponds to Example - 63
–19
3 electronic charges ( e = 1.6 × 10 C). A particle of charge equal to that of an electron, –e and
mass 208 times the mass of electron (called - meson)
Example - 62
moves in a circular orbit around a nucleus of charge +3e.
Electrons of energy 12.09 eV can excite hydrogen atoms. (Take the mass of the nucleus to be infinite). Assuming
To which orbit is the electron in the hydrogen atom raised that Bohr model of the atom is applicable to this system :
and what are the wavelengths of the radiations emitted as th
(i) derive an expression for the radius of the n Bohr orbit.
it drops back to the ground state ?
(ii) find the value of n for which the radius of the orbit is
Sol. The energies of the electron in different states are : approximately the same as that of the first Bohr orbit
E1 = – 13.6 eV for n = 1 for the hydrogen atom.
E2 = – 3.4 eV for n = 2 (iii) find the wavelength of the radiation emitted when the
-meson jumps from the third orbit to the first orbit.
and E3 = – 1.51 eV for n = 3 7 –1
(Rydberg’s constant = 1.097 × 10 m )
Evidently, the energy needed by an electron to go to the E3
level (n = 3 or M-level) is 13.6 – 1.51 = 12.09 eV. Thus the th
Sol. (i) We have the radius of the n orbit given by
electron is raised to the third orbit of principal quantum
number n = 3. 1
Substituting k = 4 , Z = 3 and m = 208 me, we get
Now an electron in the n = 3 level can return to the ground 0
state by making the following possible jumps :
(i) n = 3 to n = 2 and then from n = 2 to n = 1. n 2 h 2 40 0 n 2 h 2
rn
(ii) n = 3 to n = 1 (208 me )3e 2 156m e e 2
Thus the corresponding wavelengths emitted are :
h
(a) For n = 3 to n = 2 : Further writing for h, we obtain
2
1 1 1 5R 36
R 2 2 or 1 0 n 2 h 2
1 2 3 36 5R rn
624 m e e 2
36
= = 6563 Å (ii) The radius of first Bohr orbit for hydrogen is :
5 1.097 107
h2 0 h 2
This wavelength belongs to the Balmer series and lies in the r1 (n = 1) or r1
visible region. km e e 2 m e e 2
(b) For n = 2 to n = 1 : For rn (-mesonic atom) = r1 (hydrogen atom), we have
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MODERN PHYSICS 39
From conservation of energy,
0 n 2 h 2 0 h 2
E = hv + Er ...(2)
624 m e e 2 me e 2
where Er is kinetic energy of recoiling atom and hv is energy
2
or n = 624 or n 25 of photon.
th
(iii) The energy for the n orbit is given by Eq. From conservation of momentum,
mk 2 Z2 e4 pph = –pHe ...(3)
En = –
2n 2 h 2 Here negative sign indicates that He ion recoiles after
emission of photon. Since energy of photon is hv, its
1 h
Substituting m = 208 me, Z = 3, k = 4 and h = , we get hv
0 2 momentum can be expressed as .
c
234 me e4
En = p2 h 2v2
20 n 2 h 2 +
Kinetic energy of recoiling of He ion = , where
2m ' 2m 'c 2
+
m e e 4 hc 1872 Rhc m’ is mass of He ion. From Eq. (2)
= 1872 2 3 2 =
8
0 h c n n2
h 2 v2
E = hv +
me e4 2m 'c2
where R = is the Rydberg constant. 2 2 2 2
8 20 h 3 c or h v + (2m’c )hv – 2m’c E = 0
when the -meson jumps from the third orbit to the first On solving above quadratic equation for hv, we get
orbit, the difference in energy is radiated as a photon of
frequency v given by 2m 'c 2 (2m 'c 2 ) 2 4 2m 'c 2 E
hv =
hv = E3 – E1 2
c 2 2 2 E
As v = , we have = –m’c + m’c 1
m 'c 2
hc 1 1 Neglecting negative root, we have
= E3 – E1 = 1872 Rhc 2 2
1 3 2 E
2E 1 1
hv = m’c 1 m 'c2 1 = m’c
2 2 m 'c 2
1 1
or 1872R 1 2E
9 1 1
m 'c 2
9 9
or = 1872 8 R 2 E
1872 8 (1.097 107 ) hv = ...(4)
2 E
–10 1 1
= 0.5478 × 10 m = 0.5478 Å. m 'c 2
Example - 64 Since energy of transition E is less than 13.6 × 4 (= 54.2 eV)
+
A stationary He ion emitted a photon corresponding to
the first line of the Lyman series. That photon liberated a 2 E
and rest energy of helium ion is 4 GeV, we can neglect
photoelectron from a stationary hydrogen atom in the m 'c 2
ground state. Find the velocity of the photoelectron. in denominator
Hence, hv E ...(5)
Sol. Energy of a photon emitted for transition n2 to n1 is given by
or 2hv E (where, h = h/2)
1 1 For first line of Lyman series n2 = 2 and n1 = 1.
E = RchZ 2 2
2
...(1)
n1 n 2
2
1 1
This energy is shared between recoiling helium ion and E = RchZ 2 2 = 3Rch ...(6)
1 2
photon.
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MODERN PHYSICS 40
when photons of energy given by eq. (5) are incident on Example - 66
hydrogen atom, its electron may be liberated if the energy Find the ratio of de Broglie wavelength of molecules of
absorbed is equal to or more than ionisation energy. If the hydrogen and helium which are at temperatures 27°C and
energy of photon is more than ionisation energy, electrons 127°C respectively.
are liberated with certain kinetic energy.
h
1 1 Sol. de Broglie wavelength is given by =
Ionisation energy of hydrogen atom E’ = Rch 2 2 mv
1
Root-mean-square velocity of a gas particle at the given
= Rch temperature (T) is given as,
Since this is less than energy of incident photons, the excess
1 3
energy is transformed to kinetic energy of liberated electron, mv 2 kT
2 2
1 2
E – E’ = mv
2 3kT
v=
m
1 2 Rch
or mv = 2Rch or v = 2 where k = Boltzmann’s constant and m = mass of the gas
2 m particle and T = temperature of the gas in K.
On substituting numerical values, we get
mv = 3mkT
6
v = 3.1 × 10 m/s
h h
Example - 65 =
mv 3mkT
An -particle and a proton are fired through the same
magnetic fields which is perpendicular to their velocity
vectors. The -particle and the proton move such that H m He THe (4)(273 127) 8
radius of curvature of their path is same. Find the ratio of He m H TH = (2)(273 27)
=
3
their de Broglie wavelengths.
Example - 67
Sol. Magnetic force experienced by a charged particle in a 20
Calculate the binding energy per nucleon for 10 Ne, 56
26 Fe
magnetic field is given by,
and 238
92 U.
FB = qv B = qv B sin
In our case FB = qvB [as = 90°] Sol. Binding energy of nuclides is given by the equation
1 2
mv 2 B ( AZ X) = [Nmn + ZM( H) – M ( AZ X) ]c
Hence, Bqv = or mv = qBr
r On dividing binding energy by the mass number, we obtain
the binding energy per nucleon,
h h
The de Broglie wavelength = mv qBr B ( 20
1
= [10mn + 10M( H) – M ( 20 ]c
2
10 Ne) 10 Ne)
= [10 × 1.008665 + 10 × 1.007825 – 19.992440 ] × 931.5
particle q p rp
= 160.6 MeV
proton q r
B( 20
10 Ne)
Hence binding energy per nucleon =
r q 20
Since = 1 and = 2,
rp qp = 8.03 MeV/nucleon
1 Similarly for (56
26 Fe)
,
p 2 1 2
B (56
26 Fe)
= [30 mn + 26M( H) – M (56
26 Fe)
]c
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MODERN PHYSICS 41
= [30 × 1.008665 + 26 × 1.007825 – 55.93492] × 931.5 Example - 69
= 492 MeV In the chain analysis of a rock, the mass ratio of two
radioactive isotopes is found to be 100 : 1. The mean lives
B(56
26 Fe) 9 9
Hence binding energy per nucleon = of the two isotopes are 4 × 10 year and 2 × 10 year
56
respectively. If it is assumed that at the time of formation
= 8.79 MeV/nucleon of the rock, both isotopes were in equal proportion,
238 1 calculate the age of the rock. Ratio of atomic weights of
binding energy for (92 U) = [146 m n + 92 M( H) –
the two isotopes is 1.02 : 1. (log10 1.02 = 0.0086)
238 2
M (92 U) ]c Sol. At the time of formation of the rock, both isotopes have the
= [146 × 1.008665 + 92 × 1.007825 – 238.050783] × 931.5 same number of nuclei N0. Net 1 and 2 be the decay
= 1802 MeV constants of the two isotopes. If N1 and N2 are the numbers
of their nuclei after a time t, we have
238
(92 U)
Hence binding energy per nucleon = = 7.57 MeV/ N1 = N 0 e1t and N2 = N 0 e2 t
238
nucleon. All three nuclides have a binding energy per
56 N1
nucleon nearly 8 MeV, with Fe having the largest binding e ( 1 2 )t ...(1)
N2
energy per nucleon
. Example - 68 Let the masses of the two isotopes at time t be m1 and m2
(a) Find the energy needed to remove a neutron from the and let their respective atomic weights be M1 and M2. We
42
have
nucleus of the calcium isotope 20 Ca .
m1 = N1M1 and m2 = N2M2
(b) Find the energy needed to remove a proton from this
nucleus. (c) Why are these energies different ? Mass of N1 m1 M 2
. ...(2)
41
N 2 m 2 M1
20 Ca = 40.962278 u, mass of neutron = 1.008665 u, mass
Substituting the values given in the problem, we get
of 42
20 Ca
= 40.974599 u, mass of proton = 1.007825 u.
N1 100 1 100
.
Sol. (a) 41
Ca nucleus is formed after removing a neutron from N2 1 1.02 1.02
20
42
20 Ca . Let 1 and 2 be the mean lives of the two isotopes.
The mass of 41 1 1
20 Ca plus the mass of a free neutron = Then 1 and 2
1 2
40.962278 u + 1.008665 u = 41.970943 u
Difference between 41
Ca plus the mass of a free neutron 2 1 2 109 4 109
20
which gives 1 – 2 =
12 (2 109 ) (4 109 )
42
and the mass of 20 Ca is 0.012321 u ; so the binding energy –9
–0.25 × 10
of the missing neutron
Setting this value in Eq. (1), we get
= (0.012321 u)(931.49 MeV/u) = 11.5 MeV
42 N1 1 100
(b) When a proton is removed from Ca the resulting nucleus = (0.25109 )t or t = loge
20
N2 e
0.25 109 1.02
41
is the potassium isotope 19 K . On a similar pattern as above
Example - 70
the binding energy for the missing proton can be calculated;
result is 10.27 MeV. Calculate the nearest distance of approach of an -particle
of energy 2.5 MeV being scattered by a gold nucleus
(c) Neutron and proton have different energies because only
(Z = 79).
attractive nuclear forces act on the neutron whereas the
proton was also acted upon by repulsive electric forces that Sol. The electrostatic potential at a distance x due to nucleus is
decrease its binding energy. given by Ze/40x, where Ze is the charge on the nucleus.
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MODERN PHYSICS 42
The P.E. of an -particle when it is at a distance x from the Example - 72
nucleus is given by
A doubly ionised lithium atom is hydrogen-like with atomic
Ze 2Ze 2 number Z = 3. Find the wavelength of the radiation required
2e 2+
to excite the electron in Li from the first to the third Bohr
4 0 x (40 x)
orbit. Given the ionisation energy of hydrogen atom as
2e being the charge on -particle. 13.6 eV.
Since the -particle momentarily stops when its initial K.E. Sol. The energy of nth orbit of a hydrogen-like atom is given as,
is completely changed into P.E. here, hence
13.6 Z2
1 2Ze 2 En =
mv2 n2
2 40 x 2+
Thus for Li atom, as Z = 3, the electron energies for the
first and third Bohr orbits are :
2Ze2 1
or x=
4 0 mv 2 / 2 13.6 (3) 2
For n = 1, E1 = eV = – 122.4 eV
12
1
Now energy of -particle = mv 2 = 2.5 MeV 13.6 (3) 2
2
For n = 3, E3 = eV = –13.6 eV
6 –19 (3)2
= 2.5 × 10 × 1.6 × 10 J
= 2.5 × 1.6 × 10 J
–13 Thus the energy required to transfer an electron from E1
level to E3 level is,
Substituting the values, we get
E = E3 – E1 = –13.6 – (–122.4) = 108.8 eV
38 9
2 79 2.56 10 9 10 –14 Therefore, the radiation needed to cause this transition
x= = 9.101 × 10 m.
2.5 1.6 10 13 should have photons of this energy.
Example - 71 hv = 108.8 eV
The wavelength of this radiation is,
Find the ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength of
radiation emitted by electron in ground state of Bohr’s
hc
hydrogen atom. = 108.8 eV
Sol. Energy of radiation corresponding to transition between
hc (6.63 10 34 ) (3 108 )
two energy levels n 1 and n 2 is given by E = or = m = 114.25 Å.
108.8 eV 108.8 1.6 10 19
1 1
13.6 n 2 n 2 eV. E is minimum when n1 = 1 and n2 = 2. Example - 73
1 2
th
Consider a hydrogen-like atom whose energy in n excited
state is given by
1 1 3
Hence Emin = 13.6 eV = 13.6 × eV
1 4 4 13.6 Z2
En =
E is maximum when n 1 = 1 and n2 = (when the atom is n2
ionised). when this excited atom makes a transition from excited
state to ground state most energetic photons have energy
1 Emax = 52.224 eV and least energetic photons have energy
Hence, Emax = 13.6 1 = 13.6 eV
Emin = 1.224 eV. Find the atomic number of atom and the
state of excitation.
E min 3
So, Sol. Maximum energy is liberated for transition En 1 and
E max 4
minimum energy for En En–1
hc / max 3 min 3
or or E1
hc / min 4 max 4 Hence, E1 = 52.224 eV ...(1)
n2
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MODERN PHYSICS 43
E1 E1 2.303 1.6565 1015
and = 1.224 eV ...(2) = log
n (n 1)2
2
4.986 1011
10
1.298 1015
Solving above equations simultaneously, we get
2.303 1.6565 2.303
E1 = – 54.4 eV and n = 5 = 11
log10 = log10 1.2762
4.986 10 1.298 4.986 1011
13.6 Z2 9
= 4.89 × 10 s = 155.06 year.
Now E1 = = – 54.4 eV
12
Example - 75
Hence, Z = 2 248 13
The element curium 96 Cm has a mean life of 10 second.
i.e., gas is helium originally excited to n = 5 energy state.
Its primary decay modes are spontaneous fission and
Example - 74 -decay, the former with a probability of 8% and the latter
In nature, a decay chain series starts with 232 with a probability of 92%. Each fission releases 200 MeV
90 Th and finally
of energy. The masses involved in decay are as follows :
208
terminates at 82 Pb . A thorium ore sample was found to 248
–5 –7 232 96 Cm = 248.072220 u, 42 He = 4.002603 u and
contain 8 × 10 mL of helium at STP and 5 × 10 g of Th.
Find the age of the ore sample assuming the source of 244
Pu = 244.064100 u.
232 94
helium to be only to the decay of Th. Also assume
20
complete retention of helium within the ore (Half life of Calculate the power output from a sample of 10 cm atoms.
10 2
232Th = 1.39 × 10 year ) Given : 1u = 931 MeV/c .
–5 13 20
Sol. No. of helium atom in 8 × 10 mL, Sol. As the mean life of the sample is 10 sec., all the 10 atoms
13
have a probability of decay with 10 second.
8 105 6.0231023 15 We first calculate the energy released in -decay. The
= 2.15 × 10 atoms
22400 corresponding reaction is :
232 208
Now, Th decays to Pb and in the process given six 248 244
96 Cm
94 Pu 24 He
helium atoms.
232 = 208 + 6 × 4 The mass defect is,
232 –5 248 244
No. of Th atoms used up to give 8 × 10 mL helium m = m( Cm) – [m( Pu) + m (42 He) ]
2.15 1015 14
= 248.0722204 – [244.064100 + 4.002603] = 0.005517 u
= = 3.585 × 10 atoms of Th
6 Equivalent energy is,
232
Also, No. of Th atoms left undecayed, E = 0.005517 × 931= 5.136 MeV
Energy released in the decay of one atom is,
5107 6.0231023 15
N= = 1.298 × 10 atoms E = Efission + E-decay
232
= 0.08 × 200 + 0.92 × 5.136
232
No. of Th atoms at start of decay,
= 20.725 MeV
14 15
N0 = 3.585 × 10 + 1.298 × 10 atoms 20
Total energy released from the decay of all 10 atoms,
15
= 1.6565 × 10 atoms 20
= 20.725 × 10 MeV
20 –13 8
0.693 0.693 = 20.725 × 10 × (1.6 × 10 ) = 3.316 × 10 J
Now, = T
1/ 2 1.39 1010
Total energy released
–11 Power output =
= 4.986 × 10 per year Mean life
2.303 N
Age of the ore, t = log10 0 3.316 108 1
N = Js = 3.3 × 10–5 watt.
1013
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MODERN PHYSICS 44
EXERCISE - 1 : BASIC OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
Photons
h h
1. Photon of frequency v has a momentum associated with it. (c) (d)
If c is the velocity of light, the momentum is 2mE 2mE
v 8. After Absorbing a slowly moving neutron of mass mN
(a) (b) hvc (momentum ~ 0) a nucleus of mass M beaks into two nuclei
c
of masses m1 and 5m1 (6m1 = M + mN), respectively. If the
hv hv
(c) (d) de–Broglie wavelength of the nucleus with mass m1 is , then
c2 c
de–Broglie wavelength of the other nucleus will be
2. If filament is heated, then it emits :
(a) proton (b) photon (a) 25 (b) 5
(c) electron (d) particle (c) /5 (d)
3. A 200 W sodium street lamp emitsyellow light of wavelength 9. For which of the following particles will it be most difficult
0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting to experimentally verify the de-Broglie relationship?
electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow (a) an electron (b) a proton
light it emits per second is
19 20
(c) an -particle (d) a dust particle
(a) 3 × 10 (b) 1.5 × 10
18 20 10. If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were not
(c) 6 × 10 (d) 62 × 10 allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would
4. What will be the relation between wavelength of photon be :
and electron of same energy? (a) 60 (b) 32
(a) ph e (b) ph e (c) 4 (d) 64
Bohr’s Atomic Model and Atomic Collisions
(c) ph e (d) none of these.
11. The wavelengths involved in the spectrum of deuterium
5. The relationship between energy of a photon and its
wavelength D are slightly different from that of hydrogen spectrum,
2
1
(a) Energy is directly proprotional to wavelength because
(b) Energy is inversely proprotional to wavelength (a) sizes of the two nuclei are different
(c) Energy is independent of wavelength (b) nuclear forces are different in the two cases
(d) None of the above. (c) masses of the two nuclei are different
Matter Waves
(d) attraction between the electron and the nucleus is
6. The de-Broglie wavelength of a molecule of thermal energy different in the two cases.
kBT (kB = Boltzmann constant and T = absolute temperature), 12. Formation of covalent bonds in compounds exibits
is
(a) wave nature of electron
h h (b) particle nature of electron
(a) (b) 2mk B T
2mk B T (c) both wave and particle nature of electron
h (d) none of the above
(c) h 2mk B T (d)
4m k 2B T 2
2
13. The surface a metal is illuminated with the light of 400 nm.
The kientic energy of the ejected photoelectrons was found
7. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass m moving
to be 1.68 eV. The work function of the metal is (hc = 1240
with a kinetic energy E is
eV–nm)
h h (a) 3.09 eV (b) 1.42 eV
(a) (b)
2mE 2mE (c) 1.51 eV (d) 1.68 eV
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MODERN PHYSICS 45
14. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom,
then the energy required to remove an electron from n = 2 is h h
(a) 7 (b) 42
2 2
(a) 10.2 eV (b) zero
(c) 3.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV h h
(c) 7 (d) 56
15. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 2 2
13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the electron from the
2+ 21. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in the first to
first excited state of Li is
(a) 30.6 eV (b) 13.6 eV the second excited state
(c) 3.4 eV (d) 122.4 eV (a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
16. Suppose an electron is attracted towards the origin by a (c) 4 : 9 (d) 9 : 4
force k/r, where k is a constant and r is the distance of the 22. In Bohr’s Model of hydrogen atom. The ratio between the
electron from the origin. By applying Bohr model to this period of revolution of an electron in orbit of n = 1 to the
th
system, the radius of the n orbital of the electron is found period of revolution of the electron in the orbit n = 2
to be rn and the kinetic energy of the electron to be Tn. Then (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
which of the following is true. (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 8
1 23. The ratio of areas between the electron orbits for the first
(a) Tn , rn n 2 excited state to the ground state for the hydrogen atom is
n2
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
(b) Tn is independent of n, rn n (c) 8 : 1 (d) 16 : 1
1 24. The kinetic energy of an electron in the first orbit of H atom
(c) Tn , rn n is 13.6 eV. The total energy of an electron in the second orbit
n +
of He is
1 (a) 13.6 eV (b) 3.4 eV
(d) Tn , rn n 2
n (c) –13.6 eV (d) –3.4 eV
2+
17. Energy required for the electron excitation in Li from the 25. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom correspond to
first to the third Bohr orbit is increasing values of energy i.e., EA < EB < EC. If 1,2,3, are
the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the
(a) 36.3 eV (b) 108.8 eV
transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of
(c) 122.4 eV (d) 12.1 eV the following statements is correct ?
18. An electron makes transition inside a hydrogen atom. The C
orbital angular momentum of the electron may change by B
h
(a) h (b) A
6
1 2
h h (a) 3 = 1 + 2 (b) 3 =
(c) (d) 1 2
2 4
2 2 2
(c) 1 + 2 + 3= 0 (d) 3 = 1 + 2
19. An electron in the ground state of hydrogen has an angular
momentum L1, and an electron in the first excited state of 26. The ratio of the wavelength of the first line of Lyman series
lithium has an angular momentum L2. to the first line of Balmer series is
(a) L1 = L2 (b) L1 = 4L2 (a) 1 : 4 (b) 5 : 27
(c) L2 = 2L1 (d) L1 = 2L2 (c) 27 : 20 (d) 20 : 27
27. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series of hydrogen
20. If an electron has, orbital angular momentum quantum
is 1216 Å. The wavelength of the second line of the same
number l = 7, then it will have an orbital angular momentum series will be
equal to
(a) 912 Å (b) 1026 Å
(c) 3648 Å (d) 6566 Å
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MODERN PHYSICS 46
28. Electrons accelerated by potential V are diffracted from a 34. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV
crystal. If d = 1 Å and i = 30°, V should be about
–34 –31 –19
respectively. Then the ratio of the wavelengths is nearest to
(h = 6.6 × 10 J.s, me = 9.1 × 10 kg, e = 1.6 × 10 C)
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1
(a) 2000 V (b) 50 V
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
(c) 500 V (d) 1000 V
35. Two identical, photocathodes receive light of frequencies f1
1 2 and f2. If the velocities of the photoelectrons (of mass m)
29. An alpha nucleus of energy mv bombards a heavy
2 coming out are respectively v1 and v2, then
nuclear target of change Ze. Then the distance of closest
1/ 2
approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to 2h 2h
2
2 2
(a) v1 v 2 f1 f 2 (b) v1 v 2 m f1 f 2
(a) v (b) 1/m m
1/ 2
1 1 2h 2h
(c)
v4
(d)
Ze
2 2
(c) v1 v 2 f1 f 2 (d) v1 v2 m f1 f 2
m
Photoelectric Effect
36. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest
30. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission
energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV successively illuminate a metal of from this substance is approximately
work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of
(a) 540 nm (b) 400 nm
the emitted electrons will be
(a) 1 : 5 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 310 nm (d) 220 nm
37. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1
to an energy of 6.2 eV and the stopping potential for a
31. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The wavelength radiation incident on this surface is 5 V. The incident radiation
of the light falling on the cathode is gradually changed. The
lies in
plate current I of photocell varies as follows
(a) ultra-violet region (b) infra-red region
(c) visible region (d) X-rays region
38. Which one of the following graphs represents correctly the
(a) (b) variation of photoelectric current (i) with intensity (I) of
incident radiations
Current (i)
Current (i)
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
Intensity (I) Intensity (I)
32. The work function of a metal in 4 eV. For the emission of
photoelectrons of zero velocity from the metal surface, the
wavelength of the incident radiation should be
Current (i)
Current (i)
(a) 1700 Å (b) 2700 Å
(c) 3100 Å (d) 5900 Å (c) (d)
33. Photons of frequency v fall on a metal surface for which the
Intensity (I) Intensity (I)
threshold frequency is v0. Then,
(a) All ejected electrons have the same kinetic energy h(v – v0)
(b) the ejected electrons have a distribution of kinetic energy
from zero to h(v – v0)
(c) the most energetic electrons have kinetic energy hv
(d) the average kinetic energy of ejected electrons is hv0.
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MODERN PHYSICS 47
39. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The 45. In a hydrogen like atom electron makes transition from an
wavelength of the light falling on the cathode is gradually energy level with quantum number n to another with quantum
number (n – 1). If n >> 1, the frequency of radiation emitted
changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as
is proportional to :
follows
1 1
(a) (b)
n n2
(a) (b) 1 1
(c) (d)
n4 n3
46. Hydrogen (1H1), Deuterium (1H2), singly ionised Helium
(2He4)+ and doubly ionised lithium (3Li6)+ + all have one
electron around the nucleus. Consider an electron
(c) (d) transition from n = 2 to n = 1. If the wave lengths of emitted
radiation are 1 , , 3 and 4 respecti vely then
X-Rays approximately which one of the following is correct ?
40. The production of characteristic X–rays is due to–
(a) transfer of momentum in collision of electrons with the
(a) 1 22 23 4 (b) 1 2 4 3 9 4
target atom
(b) transfer of energy in collision of electrons with the (c) 1 22 33 44 (d) 41 22 23 4
target atom
47. The absorption transition between the first and the fourth
(c) the transition of electrons in heavy target atoms from
high to low energy level energy states of hydrogen atom are 3. The emission
transitions between these states will be
(d) none of these
(a) 3 (b) 4
41. The KX–ray emission line of tungsten occurs at = 0.021
nm. The energy difference between K and L levels in this (c) 5 (d) 6
atoms is about : 48. Which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom
(a) 0.51 MeV (b) 1.2 MeV emit the photon of highest frequency ?
(c) 59 keV (d) 13.6 eV (a) n = 2 to n = 6 (b) n = 6 to n = 2
42. The wavelength of K line for an element of atomic number (c) n = 1 to n = 2 (d) n = 2 to n = 1
43 is . Then the wavelength of K line for an element of
atomic number 29 is :– 49. The ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength in Balmer
series is
(a) (43/29) (b) (42/28)
(a) 5 : 9 (b) 5 : 36
(c) (9/4) (d) (4/9)
(a) 1 : 4 (d) 3 : 4
43. The wavelengths of K X–rays of two metals 'A' and 'B' are
50. The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like
4 1
and respectively, where 'R' is Rydbergg atom results in ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will
1 8 75 R 67 5 R
be obtained in the transition
constant. The number of elements lying between 'A' and 'B'
according to their atomic numbers is : (a) 2 1 (b) 3 2
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 4 2 (d) 5 4
(c) 5 (d) 4 51. Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionization
44. On operating an X–ray tube at 1 kV. X–rays of minimum potential ?
wavelength 6.22 Å are produced. If the tube is operated at
10 kV, then the minimum wavelength of X–rays produced (a) 147 N (b) 133
55 Cs
will be
40 16
(a) 0.622 Å (b) 6.22 Å (c) 18 Ar (d) 8 O
(c) 3.11 Å (d) 62.2 Å
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MODERN PHYSICS 48
52. A hydrogen atom emits a photon corresponding to an 60. The binding energy per nucleon for the parent nucleus is E1
electron transition from n = 5 to n = 1. The recoil speed of and that for the daughter nuclei is E2. Then
hydrogen atom is almost (a) E2 = 2E1 (b) E1 > E2
–4 –1 –2 –1
(a) 10 ms (b) 2 × 10 ms (c) E2 > E1 (d) E1 = 2E2
–1 2 –1
(c) 4 ms (d) 8 × 10 ms 61. Li nucleus has three protons and four neutrons. Mass of Li
53. Let v1 be the frequency of the series limit of the Lyman nucleus is 7.016005 amu. Mass of proton is 1.007277 amu.
series, v2 be the frequency of the first line of the Lyman and mass of neutron is 1.008665 amu. Mass defect of lithium
series, and v3 be the frequency of the series limit of the nucleus is amu is
Balmer series. (a) 0.04048 amu (b) 0.4050 amu
(a) v1 – v2 = v3 (b) v2 – v1 = v3 (c) 0.04052 amu (d) 0.04055 amu
17
1 62. If M0 is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8O , Mp and and Mn
(c) v3 = (v1 + v2) (d) v1 + v2 = v3
2 are the masses of a proton and a neutron, respectively, the
Atomic Nuclei and its properties nuclear binding energy of the isotope is
2 2
54. In 88Ra226 nucleus, there are (a) (Mo – 8Mp)c (b) (Mo – 8Mp – 9Mn)c
2 2
(a) 138 protons and 88 neutrons (c) Mo c (d) (Mo – 17 Mn)c
(b) 138 neutrons and 88 protons 63. The function of a moderator in a nuclear reactor is
(c) 226 protons and 88 electrons (a) absorb the dangerous gamma radiation
(d) 226 neutrons and 138 electrons (b) react with the nuclear fuel to release energy
55. 1 a.m.u. equals (c) provide neutrons to the fission process
–27 –27
(a) 1.67 × 10 g (b) 1.67 × 10 kg (d) slow down fast neutrons so as to have greater probability
–29 27
(c) 1.67 × 10 g (d) 1.67 × 10 g for nuclear fission to occur
56. Density D of nuclear matter varies with nucleon number A as 64. The below is a plot of binding energy per nucleon Eb, against
3 2
(a) D A (b) D A the nuclear mass M; A, B, C, D, E, F correspond to different
0
(c) D A (d) D A nuclei. Consider four reactions :
57. The net force between two nucleons 1 fm apart is F1 if both (i) A + B C + (ii) C A + B +
are protons, F2 if both are neutrons, and F3 if one is a neutron (iii) D + E F + and (iv) F D + E +
and the other is a proton.
(a) F1 < F2 < F3 (b) F2 < F1 < F3
(c) F1 < F2 = F3 (d) F1 = F2 < F3
27
58. If radius of the 13 Al nucleus is estimated to be 3.6 fermi,
125
then the radius of 52 Te nucleus be nearly
(a) 6 fermi (b) 8 fermi where is the energy released ? In which reactions is
positive ?
(c) 4 fermi (d) 5 fermi
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
59. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron H
2
1 and
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
helium nucleus 4
2
He is 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV respectively.. 65. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn denotes the mass
If two deuteron nuclei react to form a single helium, nucleus of a neutron. A given nucleus of B.E. B contains Z protons
then the energy released is and N neutrons. The mass M (N, Z) of the nucleus is given
by (c is velocity of light)
(a) 13.9 MeV (b) 26.9 MeV
(a) M (N, Z) = N Mn + ZMp – B/c2
(c) 23.6 MeV (d) 19.2 MeV
(b) M (N, Z) = N Mn + ZMp + B/c2
(c) M (N, Z) = N Mn + ZMp – Bc2
(d) M (N, Z) = N Mn + ZMp + Bc2
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MODERN PHYSICS 49
66. The binding energy per nucleon for the parent nucleus is E1 74. A nuclear transformation is denoted by X n, 37 Li .
and that for the daughter nuclei is E2. Then
Which of the following is the nucleus of element X ?
(a) E1 > E2 (b) E2 > E1
(c) E1 > 2 E2 (b) E2 = 2 E1 (a) 126 C (b) 10
5 B
67. If a star can convert all the He nuclei completely into oxygen 11
(c) 95 B (d) Be
nuclei, the energy released per oxygen nucleus is [Mass of 4
He nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of Oxygen nucleus is
15.9994 amu] 75. When 37 Li nuclei are bombarded by proton, and the resultant
(a) 7.6 MeV (b) 56.12 MeV nuclei are 84 Be , the emitted particle will be
(c) 10.24 MeV (d) 23.9 MeV
(a) alpha particles (b) beta particles
68. The binding energy of deutron is 2.2 MeV and that of 2He4
is 28 MeV. If two deutrons are fused to form one 2He4, then (c) gamma photons (d) neutrons
the energy released is 76. Consider particles, particles and -rays, each having an
(a) 19.2 MeV (b) 23.6 MeV energy of 0.5 MeV. In increasing order of penetrating powers,
(c) 25.8 MeV (d) 30.2 MeV the radiations are
69. An atom bomb weighing 1 kg explodes releasing 9 × 1013 (a) , , (b) , ,
joule of energy. What percentage of mass is converted into (c) , , (d) , ,
energy ?
77. The graph between the instantaneous concentration (N) of
(a) 1% (b) 2% a radioactive element and time (t) is
(c) 0.1% (d) 10%
70. Consider the following reaction
N N
1 H 2 1 H 2
2 He4 Q (a) (b)
2 4
If m (1H ) = 2.0141 u ; m (2He ) = 4.0024 u. The energy Q t t
released (in MeV) in this fusion reaction is
(a) 12 (b) 6
N N
(c) 24 (d) 48
(c) (d)
236
71. Consider the fission reaction 92 X117 Y117 n n
U t t
i.e. two nuclei of same mass number 117 are found plus two 78. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as 9750
–1 –1
neutrons. The binding energy per nucleon of X and Y is 8.5 counts (minute) at t = 0 and 975 counts (minute) at t = 5
236
MeV whereas of U is 7.6 MeV. The total energy liberated minute. The decay constant is nearly
is (a) 0.922 min
–1
(b) 0.691 min
–1
–1 –1
(a) 2000 MeV (b) 200 MeV (c) 0.461 min (d) 0.230 min
(c) 20 MeV (d) 2 MeV 79. The half life of radon is 3.8 days. After how many days will
Radioactivity 1
72. A nucleus nXm emits one alpha and two beta particles. The th of the radon sample remain behind
10
resulting nucleus is
(a) 1.262 days (b) 12.62 days
(a) n – 1Xm – 4 (b) n – 2Xm – 4
(c) 126.2 days (d) 1262 days
(c) n – 4Xm – 4 (d) n Xm – 4
80. A fraction f1 of a radioactive sample decays in one half life,
73. C12 absorbs an energetic neutron and emits a particle.
6 and a fraction f2 decays in one mean life
The resulting nucleus is
(a) f1 > f2
(a) 7N14 (b) 7N13
(b) f1 < f2
(c) 7B13 (d) 6C13
(c) f1 = f2
(d) Data insufficient to arrive at a conclusion
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MODERN PHYSICS 50
81. A radioactive isotope has a half life T years. How long will it 66
89. Starting with a sample of pure Cu, 7/8 of it decays into Zn
take the activity to reduce to 1% of its original value ? in 15 min. The corresponding half-life is
(a) 3.2 T years (b) 4.6 T years (a) 10 min (b) 15 min
(c) 6.6 T years (d) 9.2 T years
1
82. Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and B are (c) 5 min (d) 7 min
2
respectively 20 minutes and 40 minutes. Initially the samples
of A and B have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, 90. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 min. The
approximate time interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2 when
the ratio of remaining numbers of A and B nuclei is
2/3 of it has decayed and time t1 when 1/3 of it had decayed
(a) 1 : 16 (b) 4 : 1 is
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1 (a) 14 min (b) 20 min
83. The half-life period of a radioactive substance is 5 min. The (c) 28 min (d) 7 min
amount of substance decayed in 20 min. will be 91. Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive
(a) 93.75% (b) 75% substances during their decay ?
(a) Protons (b) Neutrinos
(c) 25% (d) 6.25%
(c) Helium nuclei (d) Electrons
84. Rn decays into Po by emitting an –particle with half life of
92. The half-life period of a radioactive element X is same as the
4 days. A sample contains 6.4 × 1010 atoms of Rn. After 12
mean life time of another radioactive element Y. Initially they
days, the number of atoms of Rn left in the sample will be
have the same number of atoms. Then
(a) 3.2 × 1010 (b) 0.53 × 1010
(a) X will decay faster than Y
(c) 2.1 × 1010 (d) 0.8 × 1010
(b) Y will decay faster than X
85. The half life of radium is about 1600 years. Of 100 g of radium
existing now, 25 g will remain unchanged after (c) Y and X have same decay rate initially
(a) 2400 yrs (b) 3200 yrs (d) X and Y decay at same rate always.
(c) 4800 yrs (d) 6400 yrs 93. Radioactive element decays to form a stable nuclide, then
86. C14 has half life 5700 years. At the end of 11400 years, the dN
the rate of decay of reactant will vary with time (t)
actual amount left is dt
(a) 0.5 of original amount as shown in figure
(b) 0.25 of original amount dN dN
dt dt
(c) 0.125 of original amount
(a) (b)
(d) none of the above
215 t t
87. The half life of At is 100 s. The time taken for the
dN dN
1 dt dt
215
radioactivity of a sample of At to decay to th of its
16 (c) (d)
initial value is t t
(a) 400 s (b) 6.3 s 94. If Nt = Noe – t then number of disintegrated atoms between
t1 to t2 ( t2 > t1) will be :–
(c) 40 s (d) 300 s
t2
88. In N0 is the original mass of the substance of half-life period (a) No [e e t1 ] (b) No [–e t2 e – t1 ]
t1/2 = 5yr, then the amount of substance left after 15 yr, is t1
(c) No [e e – t 2 ] (d) None of these
N0 N0
(a) (b) 95. The half life of a radioactive element is 30 days, in 90 days
8 16
the percentage of disintegrated part is :–
N0 N0 (a) 13.5 % (b) 46.5 %
(c) (d)
2 4 (c) 87.5% (d) 90.15%
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MODERN PHYSICS 51
EXERCISE - 2 : PREVIOUS YEARS JEE MAIN QUESTIONS
1. As an electron makes a transition from an exited state to
hc 1 1 3
the ground state of a hydrogen – like atom/ion: (c) e 2 2
3 2 1
(2015)
(a) Kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increase hc 1 1 1
(d) e 2
but total energy remains same 3 2 1
(b) Kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential 6. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by
energy increases
(c) Its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and monochromatic light of wavelengths and . If the
2
total energy decrease maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in
(d) Kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work
decrease function of the surface is : (2016)
2. Let N be the number of particles emitted by 1 gram of hc hc
24
(a) (b)
Na radioactive nuclei (half life = 15 hrs) in 7.5 hours, N 3 2
is close to (Avogadro number = 6.023 × 1023/g. mole) :
(2015) hc 3 hc
(c) (d)
(a) 6.2 × 1021 (b) 7.5 × 1021
(c) 1.25 × 1022 (d) 1.75 × 1022 7. Radiation of wavelength , is incident on a photocell. The
fastest emitted electron has speed V. If the wavelength is
3. Half-lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20
minutes and 40 minutes, respectively. Initially, the samples 3
changed to , the speed of the fastest emitted electron
have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, the ratio of 4
decayed numbers of A and B nuclei will be : (2016) will be : (2016)
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 1 1
4 2 4 2
(c) 5 : 4 (d) 1 : 16 (a) V (b) V
3 3
4. A neutron moving with a speed ‘v’ makes a head on
1 1
collision with s stationary hydrogen atom in ground state. 3 2 4 2
The minimum kinetic energy of the neutron for which (c) V (d) V
4 3
inelastic collision will take place is :
8. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per
(2016) quantum in the order of increasing energy : (2016)
(a) 10.2 eV (b) 16.8 eV A : Blue light B : Yellow light
(c) 12.1 eV (d) 20.4 eV C : X-ray D : Radiowave
5. When photons of wavelength λ1 are incident on an isolated (a) A, B, D, C (b) C, A, B, D
sphere, the corresponding stopping potential is found to
(c) B, A, D, C (d) D, B, A, C
be V. When photons of wavelength λ 2 are used, the
corresponding stopping potential was thrice that of the 9. A hydrogen atom makes a transition from n= 2 to n = 1
above value. If light of wavelength λ3 is used then find the and emits a photon. This photon strikes a doubly ionized
stopping potential for this case : (2016) lithium atom (z = 3) in excited state and completely removes
the orbiting electron. The least quantum number for the
hc 1 1 1 excited state of the ion for the process is :
(a) e
3 2 1 (2016 Online Set-1)
hc 1 1 1 (a) 2 (b) 3.5
(b) e
3 2 1 (c) 3 (d) 5
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MODERN PHYSICS 52
10. A Laser light of wavelength 660 nm is used to weld Retina (b)
detachment. If a Laser pulse of width 60 ms and power 0.5
kW is used the approximate number of photons in the
pulse are :
[Take Planck’s constant h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js]
(2017)
(a) 1020
(b) 10 18 (c)
(c) 1022 (d) 1019
11. Two deuterons undergo nuclear fusion to form a Helium
nucleus. Energy released in this process is : (given binding
energy per nucleon for deuteron = 1.1 MeV and for helium
= 7.0 MeV) (2017)
(d)
(a) 30.2 MeV (b) 32.4 MeV
(c) 23.6 MeV (d) 25.8 MeV
12. Imagine that a reactor converts all given mass into energy
and that it operates at a power level of 109 watt. The mass
of the fuel consumed per hour in the reactor will be :
(velocity of light, c is 3 × 108 m/s) (2017)
(a) 0.96 gm (b) 0.8 gm 15. The acceleration of an electron in the first orbit of the
hydrogen atom (n = 1) is : (2017)
(c) 4 × 10–2 gm (d) 6.6 × 10–5 gm
13. A particle A of mass m and initial velocity v collides with h2 h2
(a) 2 2 3 (b)
m m r 8 m 2 r 3
2
a particle B of mass which is at rest. The collision is
2
head on, and elastic. The ratio of the de-Broglie h2 h2
(c) (d)
42 m 2 r 3 4 m 2 r 3
wavelengths A to B after the collision is : (2017)
16. The maximum velocity of the photoelectrons emitted from
A 1 A the surface is v when light of frequency n falls on a metal
(a) 3 (b) 2 surface. If the incident frequency is increased to 3n, the
B B
maximum velocity of the ejected photoelectrons will be :
A 2 A 1 (2017)
(c) 3 (d) 2
B B (a) less than 3v (b) v
14. An electron beam is accelerated by a potential difference (c) more than 3v (d) equal to 3v
V to hit a metallic target to produce X-rays. It produces
17. A radioactive nucleus A with a half life T, decays into a
continuous as well as characteristic X-rays. If min is the nucleus B. At t = 0, there is no nucleus B. At sometime t,
smallest possible wavelength of x-ray in the spectrum, the the ratio of the number of B to that of A is 0.3. Then, t is
given by : (2017)
variation of log min with log V is correctly represented
in: (2017) T log 2 log1.3
(a) t 2 log1.3 (b) t T log 2
(a)
T
(c) t T log 1.3 (d) t log 1.3
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MODERN PHYSICS 53
18. According to Bohr’s theory, the time averaged magnetic
(c) 25VL (d) 16VL
field at the centre (i.e. nucleus) of a hydrogen atom due to
the motion of electrons in the nth orbit is proportional to : 23. An electron from various excited states of hydrogen atom
(n = principal quantum number) (2017) emit radiation to come to the ground state. Let n ,g be
(a) n–4 (b) n–5 the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in the n th state
(c) n–3 (d) n–2
and the ground state respectively. Let n be the
19. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown in the figure.
wavelength of the emitted photon in transition from the
The ratio of the r 1 / 2 , is given by: (2017) nth state to the ground state. For large n, (A, B are
constants) : (2018)
(a) 2n A +B 2n (b) 2n
B
(c) n A + (d) n A +B n
2n
24. An unstable heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two nuclei
which move away with velocities in the ratio of 8 : 27. The
ratio of the radii of the nuclei (assumed to be spherical) is:
(2018)
(a) 8 : 27 (b) 4 : 9
4 2
(a) r (b) r (c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 3
3 3
25. At some instant, a radioactive sample S1 having an activity
3 1 5 Ci has twice the number of nuclei as another sample S2
(c) r (d) r
4 3 which has an activity of 10 Ci. The half lives of S1 and S2
are : (2018)
20. The energy required to remove the electron from a singly
ionized Helium atom is 2.2 times the energy required to (a) 20 years and 5 years, respectively
remove an electron from Helium atom. The total energy (b) 20 years and 10 years, respectively
required to ionize the Helium atom completely is :
(c) 5 years and 20 years, respectively
(2018)
(d) 10 years and 20 years, respectively
(a) 20 eV (b) 34 eV
60
(c) 79 eV (d) 109 eV 26. A solution containing active cobalt 27 Co having activity
21. Both the nucleus and the atom of some element are in of 0.8 Ci and decay constant is injected in an animal’ss
their respective first excited states. They get de-excited body. If 1 cm3 of blood is drawn from the animal’s body
by emitting photons of wavelengths N , A respectively.. after 10 hrs of injection, the activity found was 300 decays
per minute. What is the volume of blood that is flowing in
N
The ratio is closest to : (2018) the body? ( 1 Ci = 3.7 ×1010 decays per second and
A
at t = 10 hrs e-t = 0.84 ) (2018)
(a) 10-6 (b) 10
(a) 6 liters (b) 7 liters
(c) 10-10 (d) 10-1
22. If the series limit frequency of the Lyman series is VL, then (c) 4 liters (d) 5 liters
the series limit frequency of the P fund series is : 27. If the de Broglie wavelengths associated with a proton and
(2018) an -particle are equal, then the ratio of velocities of the
proton and the -particle will be : (2018)
VL VL (a) 4 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
(a) (b)
16 25
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
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MODERN PHYSICS 54
28. The de-Broglie wavelength B associated with the 33. The ratio of the mass densities of nuclei of 40Ca and 16O is
electron orbiting in the second excited state of hydrogen close to : (2019)
(a) 1 (b) 0.1
atom is related to that in the ground state G by :
(c) 5 (d) 2
(2018)
34. A nucleus A, with a finite de-broglie wavelength A,
(a) B = 2G (b) B = 3 G undergoes spontaneous fission into two nuclei B and C
ofequal mass. B flies in the same direction as that of A,
(c) B = G/2 (d) B = G/3 whileC flies in the opposite direction with a velocity equal
29. Two electrons are moving with non-relativistic speeds tohalf of that of B. The de-Broglie wavelengths B and C of
perpendicular to each other. If corresponding de Broglie B and C are respectively:
wavelengths are 1 and 2 , their de Broglie wavelength (2019)
in the frame of reference attached to their centre of mass
(a) A , 2A (b) 2A , A
is: (2018)
21 2
A A
(a) CM = 1 = 2 (b) CM = (c) A , (d) , A
2 2
12 + 22
35. The electric field of light wave is given as
1
=
1
+
1 + 2 2 x N
(c) 1 2 (d) CM = 1 E 10 –3 cos 7
2 6 1014 t xˆ
CM 2 5 10 C
30. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along This light falls on a metal plate of work function 2eV. The
the x-direction. The electric field component of the wave at stopping potential of the photo - electrons is:
a particular point of space and time is E = 6 Vm–1 along
y-direction. Its corresponding magnetic field component, B 12375
would be: (2019) Given, E in eV o (2019)
in A
(a) 2 × 10–8 T along z-direction
(b) 6 × 10–8 T along x-direction (a) 2.0 V (b) 0.72 V
(c) 6 × 10–8 T along z-direction (c) 0.48 V (d) 2.48 V
(d) 2 × 10–8 T along y-direction 36. Taking the wavelength of first Balmer line in hydrogen
31. Two particles move at right angle to each other. Their de spectrum (n = 3 to n = 2) as 660 nm, the wavelength of the
Broglie wavelengths are 1 and 2 respectively. The particles 2ndBalmer line (n = 4 to n = 2) will be (in nm, as nearest
suffer perfectly inelastic collision. The de Broglie wavelength integer);
, of the final particle, is given by: (2019)
37. A He ion is in first excited state. Its ionization energy is:
1 1 1
(a) 2 2 2 (b) 12 (2019)
1 2
(a) 48.36 eV (b) 54.40 eV
2 2 2 1 1
(c) (d) (c) 13.60 eV (d) 6.04 eV
2 1 2
32. Radiation coming from transitions n = 2 to n = l of hydrogen 38. 50W / m 2 energy density of sunlight is normally incident
atoms fall on He+ ions in n = l and n = 2 states. The possible on the surface of a solar panel. Some part of incident energy
transition of helium ions as they absorb energy from the (25%) is reflected from the surface and the rest is absorbed.
radiation is : The force exerted on 1m 2 surface area will be close to
(2019)
( c 3 108 m / s ) (2019)
(a) n = 2 n = 3 (b) n = 1 n = 4
(a) 15 10 8 N (b) 20 10 8 N
(c) n = 2 n = 5 (d) n = 2 n = 4
(c) 10 10 8 N (d) 35 10 8 N
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MODERN PHYSICS 55
39. A particle ‘P’ is formed due to a completely inelastic collision 44. The stopping potential V0 (in volt) as a function of frequency
of particles ‘x’ and ‘y’ having de-Broglie wavelengths ( ) for a sodium emitter, is shown in the figure. The work
' x ' and ' y ' respectively. If x and y were moving in opposite function of sodium, from the data plotted in the figure, will
be : (Given : Planck’s constant (h) = 6.63 × 10-34 Js, electron
directions, then the de-Broglie wavelength of ‘P’ is:
charge, e = 1.6 × 10-19 C) (2019)
(2019)
x y x y
(a) (b)
x y x y
(c) x y (d) x y
40. Light is incident normally on a completely absorbing surface
with an energy flux of 25 Wcm 2 . If the surface has an area
of 25 cm 2 , the momentum transferred to the surface in 40min (a) 1.82 eV (b) 1.66 eV
time duration will be (2019) (c) 1.95 eV (d) 2.12 eV
(a) 6.3 104 Ns (b) 1.4 106 Ns 45. An excited He+ ion emits two photons in succession. With
wavelengths 108.5 nm and 30.4 nm, in making a transition to
(c) 5.0 103 Ns (d) 3.5 106 Ns ground state. The quantum number n, corresponding to its
initial excited state is (for photon of wavelength , energy E
41. A 2 mW laser operates at a wavelength of 500 nm. The
number of photons that will be emitted per second is: 1240eV
= in nm ) (2019)
[Given Plank’s constant h 6.6 1034 Js , speed of light
c 3.0 108 m / s ] (2019) (a) n = 4 (b) n = 5
(c) n = 7 (d) n = 6
(a) 5 1015 (b) 1.5 1016
46. The electron in a hydrogen atom first jumps from the third
(c) 2 1016 (d) 1 1016 excited state to the second excited state and subsequently
42. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants to the first excited state. The ratio of the respective
5 and respectively. At t 0, a sample has the same 1
number of the two nuclei. The time taken for the ratio of the wavelengths, , of the photons emitted in this process is:
2
2
1
number of nuclei to become will be: (2019) (2019)
e
20 27
1 1 (a) (b)
(a) (b) 7 5
2 4
1 2 7 9
(c) (d) (c) (d)
5 7
43. In Li ,electron in first Bohr orbit is excited to a level by a 47. Consider an electron in a hydrogen atom, revolving in its
second excited state (having radius 4.65Å). The de-
radiation of wavelength . When the ion gets deexcited to
Brogliewavelength of this electron is : (2019)
the ground state in all possible ways (including intermediate
(a) 3.5 Å (b) 6.6 Å
emissions), a total of six spectral lines are observed. What
is the value of ? (2019) (c) 12.9 Å (d) 9.7 Å
(Given: h 6.63 10 34 Js; c 3 108 ms 1 )
(a) 11.4 nm (b) 9.4 nm
(c) 12.3 nm (d) 10.8 nm
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MODERN PHYSICS 56
48. Half lives of two radioactive nuclei A and Bare 10 minutes
53. Consider the nuclear fission Ne20 2He4 C12
and 20 minutes, respectively. If, initially a sample has equal
number of nuclei, then after 60 minutes, the ratio of decayed Given that the binding energy/nucleon of Ne20, He4 and C12
numbers of nuclei A to that of B will be: (2019) are, respectively, 8.03 MeV 7.07 MeV and 7.86 MeV, identify
(a) 3 : 8 (b) 1 : 8 the correct statement: (2019)
(c) 8 : 1 (d) 9 : 8 (a) energy of 12.4 MeV will be supplied
49. A sample of radioactive material A, that has an activity of 10
(b) 8.3 MeV energy will be released
mCi (1 Ci = 3.7 × 1010 decays/s), has twice the number of
nuclei as another sample of a different radioactive material (c) energy of 3.6 MeV will be released
B which has an activity of 20 mCi. The correct choices for
(d) energy of 9.72 MeV has to be supplied
half-lives of A and B would then be respectively:
(2019) 54. A metal plate of area 1104 m2 is illuminated by a radiation
(a) 5 days and 10 days (b) 10 days and 40 days of intensity 16mW/m2. The work function of the metal is 5
(c) 20 days and 5 days (d) 20 days and 10 days eV. The energy of the incident photons is 10eV and only
50. Surface of certain metal is first illuminated with light of 10% of it produces photo electrons. The number of emitted
wavelength 1 = 350 nm and then, by light of wavelength photo electrons per second and their maximum energy,
2 = 540 nm. It is found that the maximum speed of he
respectively, will be: 1 eV 1.6 10 9 J (2019)
photo electrons in the two cases differ by a factor of (2).
The work function of the metal (in eV) is close to: (a) 1014 and 10 eV (b) 1012 and 5 eV
1240 (c) 1011 and 5 eV (d) 1010 and 5 eV
(Energy of photon = in nm eV ) (2019)
55. A hydrogen atom, initially in the ground state is excited by
absorbing a photon of wavelength 980 Å. The radius of the
(a) 1.8 (b) 2.5 atom in the excited state, in terms of Bohr radius a0, will be:
(c) 5.6 (d) 1.4 (hc = 12500 eV–Å) (2019)
51. At a given instant, say t = 0, two radioactive substances A (a) 25a0 (b) 9a0
RB (c) 16a0 (d) 4a0
and B have equal activities. The ratio R of their activities
A 56. If the deBroglie wavelength of an electron is equal to 10–3
after time t itself decays with time t as e–3t. If the half-life of times the wavelength of a photon of frequency 6 × 1014 then
the speed of electron is equal to :
A is ln 2 , the half-life of B is: (2019)
(Speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s)
4 ln 2 Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10–34 J.s
(a) 4 ln 2 (b)
2 Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg) (2019)
6 6
ln 2 (a) 1.1 × 10 m/s (b) 1.7 × 10 m/s
(c) (d) 2 ln 2 6
4 (c) l.8 × 10 m/s (d) l.45 × 106 m/s
52. The magnetic field associated with a light wave is given at 57. In a hydrogen like atom, when an electron jumps from theM-
the origin by B = B0 [sin(3.14 × 107)ct + sin(6.28 × 107)ct]. If shell to the L-shell, the wavelength of emitted radiationis .
this light falls on a silver plate having a work function of 4.7 If an electron jumps from N-shell to the L-shell, the
eV, what will be the maximum kinetic energy of the wavelength of emitted radiation will be: (2019)
photoelectrons?
27 16
(c = 3 × 108 ms-1, h = 6.6 × 10-34J-s) (a) (b)
20 25
(2019)
(a) 6.82 eV (b) 12.5 eV 25 20
(c) (d)
16 27
(c) 8.52 eV (d) 7.72 eV
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MODERN PHYSICS 57
235
58. In a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength of the light 64. In a reactor, 2 kg of 92 U fuel is fully used up in 30 days.
incident on a metal is changed from 300 nm to 400 nm. The
decrease in the stopping potential is close The energy released per fission is 200 MeV. Given that the
hc Avogadro number, N = 6.023 × 1026 per kilo mole and 1 eV =
to: 1240nm V (2019) 1.6 × 10–19 J. The power output of the reactor is close to
e
(a) 0.5 V (b) 1.5 V (2020)
(c) 1.0 V (d) 2.0 V (a) 60 MW (b) 54 MW
59. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central (c) 125 MW (d) 35 MW
potential field. If Bohr’s quantization conditions are applied, 65. When radiation of wavelength is used to illuminate a
radii of possible orbits and energy levels vary with quantum metallic surface, the stopping potential is V. When the same
number n as (2019) surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 3, the
1 V
(a) rn n , E n n (b) rn n , E n stopping potential is . If the threshold wavelength for
n 4
the metallic surface is n then value of n will be ……….. .
2 1
(c) rn n, E n n (d) rn n , E n 2 (2020)
n
66. A particle is moving 5 times as fast as an electron. The ratio
60. A particle A of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ is accelerated by a
of the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle to that of the
potential difference of 50 V. Another particle B of mas ‘4m’
electron is 1.878 × 10–4. The mass of the particle is close to :
and charge ‘q’ is accelerated by a potential difference of
(2020)
A
2500V. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength is (2019) (a) 4.8 1027 kg (b) 9.11031 kg
B
(a) 10.00 (b) 0.07 (c) 9.7 1028 kg (d) 1.2 1028 kg
(c) 14.14 (d) 4.47
67. In a hydrogen atom the electron makes a transition from
61. When a certain photo-sensistive surface is illuminated with (n + 1)th level to the nth level. If n >> 1, the frequency of
monochromatic light of frequency v, the stopping potential radiation emitted is proportional to : (2020)
for the photo current is –V 0/2 . When the surface is
illuminated by monochromatic light of frequency v/2, the 1 1
stopping potential is –V0. The threshold frequency for (a) 2 (b)
n n
photoelectric emission is : (2019)
5v 4 1 1
(a) (b) v (c) 3 (d)
3 3 n n4
3v 68. When the wavelength of radiation falling on a metal is
(c) 2v (d)
2 changed from 500 nm to 200 nm, the maximum kinetic energy
232 of the photoelectrons becomes three times larger. The work
62. In a radioactive decay chain, the initial nucleus is 90 Th . At
function of the metal is close to : (2020)
the end, there are 6 and 4 -particles which are emitted. (a) 1.02 eV (b) 0.61 eV
A
If the end nucleus is Z X , A and Z are given by (2019) (c) 0.52 eV (d) 0.81 eV
(a) A = 208 ; Z = 80 (b) A = 202 ; Z = 80 69. In a radioactive material, fraction of active material remaining
after time t is 9/16. The fraction that was remaining after t/2
(c) A = 208 ; Z = 82 (d) A = 200 ; Z = 81
is : (2020)
63. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in nth Bohr orbit
in a hydrogenic atom is equal to 1.5 a0 (a0 is Bohr radius), 3 7
(a) (b)
4 8
then the value of n/z is (2019)
(a) 0.40 (b) 1.50 4 3
(c) (d)
(c) 1.0 (d) 0.75 5 5
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MODERN PHYSICS 58
70. Two sources of light emit X-rays of wavelength 1 nm and 120
75. Find the Binding energy per neucleon for 50 Sn . Mass of
visible light of wavelength 500 nm, respectively. Both the
sources emit light of the same power 200 W. The ratio of the proton mp = 1.00783 U, mass ofneutron mn = 1.00867 U and
number density of photons of X-rays to the number density mass of tin nucleus mSn = 119.902199 U. (take 1U = 931MeV)
of photons of the visible light of the given wavelengths is :
(2020) (2020)
1 1 (a) 8.0 MeV (b) 9.0 MeV
(a) (b)
500 250
(c) 7.5 MeV (d) 8.5 MeV
(c) 500 (d) 250
71. If a semiconductor photodiode can detect a photon with a 76. In a photoelectric effect experiment, the graph of stopping
maximum wavelength of 400 nm, then its band gap energy potential V versus reciprocal of wavelength obtained is
is:
shown in the figure. As the intensity of incident radiation is
Planck’s constant h = 6.63 × 10–34J.s. Speed of light c = 3 ×
108 m/s (2020) increased : (2020)
(a) 1.5 eV (b) 2.0 eV
(c) 3.1 eV (d) 1.1 eV
72. The radius R of a nucleus of mass number A can be estimated
by the formula R = (1.3 1015 ) A1/3 m. It follows that the
mass density of a nucleus is of the order of :
(M prot. M neut 1.67 1027 kg) (2020)
(a) Straight line shifts to right
(a) 1017 kg m 3 (b) 1010 kg m 3
(b) Straight line shifts to left
(c) 1024 kg m 3 (d) 103 kg m 3
(c) Slope of the straight line get more steep
m
73. Particle A of mass m A = moving along the x-axis with (d) Graph does not change
2
velocity V0 collides elastically with another particle B at rest 77. Activities of three radioactive substances A, B and C are
represented by the curves A, B and C, in the figure. Then
m
having mass m B = . If both particles move along the x- their half-lives T1 (A) : T1 (B) : T1 (C) are in the ratio :
3
2 2 2
axis after the collision, the change in de-Broglie
(2020)
wavelength of particle A, in terms of its de-Broglie
wavelength (0 ) before collision is: (2020)
5
(a) = 0 (b) = 2 0
2
3
(c) =4 0 (d) = 0
2
74. In the line spectra of hydrogen atoms, difference between
the largest and the shortest wavelengths of the Lyman series (a) 3 : 2 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 : 1
0 (c) 4 : 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 : 3
is 304 A . The corresponding difference for the Paschenseries
0
in is A :_______. (2020)
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MODERN PHYSICS 59
78. A beam of electrons of energy E scatters from a target having 5
atomic spacing of 1Å. The first maximum intensity occurs at (a) 6.82 105 (b) 4.5 10
60º Then E (in eV) is ………….. . (c) 8 106 (d) 1.33 106
(Planck constant h = 6.64 × 10–34Js, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J, 84. Assuming the nitrogen molecule is moving with r.m.s.
electron mas m = 9.1 × 10–31 kg) velocity at 400 K, the de-Broglie wavelength of nitrogen
(2020) molecule is close to : (Given : nitrogen molecule weight :
4.64 × 10-26 kg, Boltzman constant : 1.38 × 10-23 J/K, Planck
79. The correct match between the entries in column I and
constant : 6.63 × 10-34 J.s) (2020)
column II are :
(a) 0.44 Å (b) 0.34Å
I Radiation II Wavelength
(c) 0.20Å (d) 0.24Å
(A) Microwave (i) 100 m
85. Gi ven t h e m a sses of va r i ous a t om i c p a r t i c l es
(B) Gamma rays (ii) 10–15 m
m p = 1.0072 u, m n = 1.0087 u, m e = 0.000548 u,
(C) A.M. radio waves (iii) 10–10 m
mv 0, md 2.0141u, where p proton, n neutron, e
(D) X-rays (iv) 10–3 m
electron, v antineutrino and d deuteron. Which of the
(2020)
following process is allowed by momentum and energy
(a) (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (iii) conservation? (2020)
(b) (A) – (iii), (B) – (ii), (C) – (i), (D) – (iv) (a) n + n deuterium atom (electron bound to the nucleus)
(c) (A) – (iv), (B) – (ii), (C) – (i), (D) – (iii)
(b) e e
(d) (A) – (i), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (ii)
80. A radioactive nucleus decays by two different processes. (c) p n e v
The half life for the first process is 10 s and that for the
second is 100 s. The effective half life of the nucleus is (d) n p d
close to : (2020)
86. The time period of revolution of electron in its ground state
(a) 55 sec. (b) 6 sec. orbit in a hydrogen atom is 1.6 1016 s . The frequency of
(c) 12 sec. (d) 9 sec
revolution of the electron in its first excited state in s 1 is:
81. The surface of a metal is illuminated alternately with photons
of energies E1 4 eV and E 2 2.5 eV respectively. The (2020)
ratio of maximum speeds of the photoelectrons emitted in (a) 6.2 1015 (b) 1.6 1014
the two cases is 2. The work function of the metal in (eV) is
……………. (2020) (c) 7.8 1014 (d) 5.6 1012
82. An electron, a doubly ionized helium ion (He++) and a proton 87. A beam of electromagnetic radiation of intensity
are having the same kinetic energy. The relation between
6.4 105 W / cm2 is comprised of wavelength,
their respective de-Broglie wavelengths
310nm . It falls normally on a metal (work
e , and P is: (2020)
He function 2 eV )of surface area 1cm 2 . If one in
(a) e P He (b) e He P 103 photons ejects an electron, total number of electrons
ejected in ls is 102 (hc = 1240eV – nm, 1eV = 1.6 × 10–19J)then
(c) e P He (d) e He P x is
7 (2020)
83. You are given that Mass of 3 Li 7.0160u, Mass of
88. The activity of a radioactive substance falls from 700 s-1 to
4
2 He 4.0026u and Mass of 11 H 1.0079u. When 20g of 500 s-1 in 30 minutes. Its half-life is close to
7
3 Li is converted into 42 He by proton capture, the energy (2020)
liberated, (in kWh), is: [Mass of nucleon = 1 GeV/c2] (a) 66 min (b) 62 min
(2020) (c) 52 min (d) 72 min
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MODERN PHYSICS 60
89. An electron (of mass m) and a photon have the same energy (c)
E in the range of few eV. The ratio of the de Broglie
wavelength associated with the electron and the wavelength
of the photon is. (c = speed of light in vacuum)
(2020)
1 1
E 2 1 2E 2
(a) (b)
2m c m
1
1 1 E 2
(c) c 2mE 2 (d) (d)
c 2m
90. When photons of energy 4 eV strikes the surface of a metal
A, the ejected photoelectrons have maximum kinetic
energyTA eV and de-Broglie wavelength A . The maximum
kinetic energy of photoelectrons liberated from another metal
B by photon of energy 4.50 eV is TB TA 1.5 eV. If the
de-Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons B 2A
then the work function of metal B is (2020) 92. An electron (mass m) with initial velocity v v0 iˆ v0 ˆj
(a) 3 eV (b) 1.5 eV
is in an electric field E E0 kˆ . If 0 is initial de-Broglie
(c) 2 eV (d) 4 eV
wavelength of electron, its de-Broglie wavelength at time t
91. The graph which depicts the result of Rutherford gold foil is given by (2020)
experiement with particle is: : Scattering angle N : 0 0
Number of scattered particles is detected (Plots are 2 2 2
(a) e E t (b) e 2 E02 t 2
schematic and not to scale) (2020) 1 0
2 2
1
mv 0 m 2 v02
(a)
0 0
2 2 2
(c) e E t (d) e 2 E 2t 2
1 2
2m 2 v02 m2 v02
93. The first member of Balmer series of hydrogen atom has a
wavelength of 6561 Å. The wavelength of the second
member of the Balmer series (in nm) is (2020)
94. Radiation with wavelength 6561 A falls on a metal surface to
(b) produce photoelectrons.The electrons are made to enter a
uniform magnetic field of 3×10"4 T. If the radius oflargest
circular path followed by electron is 10 mm, the work function
of metal is close to (2020)
(a) 1.8 eV (b) 0.8 eV
(c) 1.1 eV (d) 1.6 eV
95. Kinetic energy of the particle is E and it’s de–Broglie
wavelength is On increasing its K.E by ΔE, it’s new de–
Broglie wavelength becomes . Then E is (2020)
2
(a) 3E (b) E
(c) 2E (d) 4E
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MODERN PHYSICS 61
96. The energy required to ionise a hydrogen like ion in its 102. The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of
ground state is 9 Rydbergs. What is the wavelength of the various series. Which series of hydrogen atomic spectra
radiation emitted when the electron in this ion jumps from is lying in the visible region? (2021)
the second excited state to the ground stare ? (2020)
(a) Brackett series (b) Paschen series
(a) 8.6 (b) 11.4
(c) Lyman series (d) Balmer series
(c) 24.2 (d) 35.8
103. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central
97. An electron of mass m and magnitude of charge |e| initially potential field U(r) = U0r4. If Bohr’s quantization
at rest gets accelerated by a constant electric field E. The of conditions are applied, radii of possible orbitals rn vary
charge of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time
with n1/ , where is ______ (2021)
tignoring relativistic effects is (2020)
104. An oil drop of radius 2 mm with a density 3 g cm-3 is held
e Et h
(a) (b) e E t stationary under a constant electric field 3.55 × 105 V m-1
h in the Millikan’s oil drop experiment. What is the number
h 2ht 2 of excess electrons that the oil drop will possess?
(c) e Et 2
(d) e E (consider g = 9.81 m/s2) (2021)
(a) 48.8 × 1011 (2) 1.73 × 1010
98. Statement-I : Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo
fission or light nuclei undergo fusion. (c) 17.3 × 1010 (d) 1.73 × 1012
Statement-II : For heavy unclei, binding energy per nucleon 105. Imagine that the electron in a hydrogen atom is replaced
increases with increasing Z while for light nuclei it decreases by a muon (µ). The mass of muon particle is 207 times
with increasing Z. that of an electron and charge is equal to the charge of
an electron. The ionization potential of this hydrogen
(a) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true; Statement-II is
atom will be :- (2021)
not a correct explanation for Statement-I.
(a) 13.6 eV (b) 2815.2 eV
(b) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false.
(c) 331.2 eV (d) 27.2 eV
(c) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true.
106. A proton and an particle, having kinetic energies Kp
(d) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true; Statement-II is a
correct explanation for Statement-I. and K , respectively, enter into a magnetic field at right
99. The first three spectral lines of H-atom in the Balmer series angles. The ratio of the radii of trajectory of proton to
are given 1 , 2 , 3 considering the Bohr atomic model, the that of particle is 2 : 1. The ratio of Kp : K is :
(2021)
1
wave lengths of first and third spectral lines are related (a) 1 : 8 (b) 8 : 1
3
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
by afactor of approximately ‘x’ × 10-1. The value of x, to the
107. The stopping potential in the context of photoelectric effect
nearest integer, is ____ (2021)
depends on the following property of incident
100. If an electron is moving in the nth orbit of the hydrogen electromagnetic radiation : (2021)
atom, then its velocity (vn) for the nth orbit is given as :
(a) Phase (b) Intensity
(2021)
(c) Amplitude (d) Frequency
1 108. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron
(a) v n n (b) v n
n and a proton were calculated by accelerating them
through same potential of 100 V. What should nearly be
1 the ratio of their wavelengths?
(c) v n n 2 (d) v n
n2 ( mP = 1.00727u, me = 0.00055u) (2021)
101. Which level of the single ionized carbon has the same energy (a) 1860 : 1 (b) (1860)2 : 1
as the ground state energy of hydrogen atom? (2021)
(c) 41.4 : 1 (d) 43 : 1
(a) 1 (b) 6
(c) 4 (d) 8
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MODERN PHYSICS 62
109. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. 113. Calculate the time interval between 33% decay and 67%
The ratio of wavelength of electron to that of photon is: decay if half-life of a substance is 20 minutes.
(c being the velocity of light) (2021)
(2021)
1/ 2 1/ 2
1 2m 1 E (a) 60 minutes (b) 20 minutes
(a) (b)
c E c 2m (c) 40 minutes (d) 13 minutes
114. A radioactive sample disintegrates via two independent
1/ 2
E (1)
(c) (d) c(2mE)1/2 decay processes having half lives T1/2 and T1/(2)2
2m
respectively. The effective half-life T1/2 of the nuclei is :
110. Two identical photocathodes receive the light of (2021)
frequencies f1 and f2 respectively. If the velocities of the
(1)
photo-electrons coming out are v1 and v2 respectively, then (a) None of the above (b) T1/ 2 T1/2 T1/(2)2
(2021)
T1/(1)2 T1/(2)2 T1/( t)2 T1/(2)2
2h (c) T1/ 2 (d) T1/ 2
2 2
(a) v1 v2 [f1 f 2 ] T1/(1)2 T1/(2)2 (1)
T1/2 T1/(2)2
m
115. The decay of a proton to neutron is :
2 2 2h (a) not possible as proton mass is less than the neutron
(b) v1 v 2 [f1 f 2 ]
m mass
1 (b) possible only inside the nucleus
2h 2
(c) not possible but neutron to proton conversion is
(c) v1 v2 (f1 f 2 )
m possible
1/ 2 (d) always possible as it is associated only with
2h
(d) v1 v 2 (f1 f 2 ) decay (2021)
m
111. A particle is travelling 4 times as fast as an electron.
Assuming the ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of a particle
to that of electron is 2 : 1, the mass of the particle is :-
(2021)
1
(a) times the mass of e -
16
(b) 8 times the mass of e -
(c) 16 times the mass of e -
1
(d) times the mass of e-
8
112. The half-life of Au198 is 2.7 days. The activity of 1.50 mg
of Au198 if its atomic weightis 198 g mol-1 is, (NA = 6 ×
1023/mol) (2021)
(a) 240 Ci (b) 357 Ci
(c) 535 Ci (d) 252 Ci
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MODERN PHYSICS 63
EXERCISE - 3: ADVANCED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
Single Answer Type Questions
6. In the nuclear fusion reaction 12 H 13 H 42 He n, given
1. In Bohr’s model, the atomic radius of the first orbit is r0 ,
that the repulsive potential energy between the two nuclei
then the radius of the third orbit is is –7.7 × 10–14 J, the temperature at which the gases must
(a) r0/9 (b) r0 be heated to initiate the reaction is nearly
(c) 9r0 (d) 3r0 [Boltzmann’s constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 J/K]
(a) 109 K (b) 107 K
2. Find the ratio of ionisation energy of Bohr’s hydrogen atom 5
(c) 10 K (d) 103 K
and hydrogen-like lithium atom. 7. An electron has a mass of 9.1 × 10–31 kg. It revolves round
(a) 1/9 (b) 7/9 the nucleus in a circular orbit of radius 0.529 × 10–10 metre
(c) 1/3 (d) none of the above at a speed of 2.2 × 106 m/s. The magnitude of its linear
momentum in this motion is
3. The ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 volt.
The energy required to remove an electron in the n = 2 (a) 1.1 × 10–34 kg–m/s (b) 2.0 × 10–24 kg–m/s
state of the hydrogen atom is (c) 4.0 × 10–24 kg–m/s (d) 4.0 × 10–31 kg–m/s
(a) 27.2 eV (b) 13.6 eV 8. The kinetic energy of the electron in an orbit of radius r in
(c) 6.8 eV (d) 3.4 eV hydrogen atom is
4. If m is mass of electron, v its velocity, r the radius of (e = electronic charge)
stationary circular orbit around a nucleus with charge Ze,
e2 e2
then from Bohr’s first postulate, the kinetic energy (a) 2 (b)
r 2r
1
K mv 2 of the electron in C.G.S. system is equal to e2 e2
2 (c) (d)
r 2r2
1 Ze 2 1 Ze 2 9. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 V. Hydrogen
(a) (b) atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic
2 r 2 r2
radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. The spectral lines
Ze 2 Ze emitted by hydrogen atoms according to Bohr’s theory
(c) (d) will be
r r2
(a) One (b) Two
5. If in hydrogen atom, radius of nth Bohr orbit is rn, frequency
of revolution of electron in nth orbit is fn choose the correct (c) Three (d) Four
option 10. An energy of 24.6 eV is required to remove one of the electrons
from a neutral helium atom. The energy (in eV) required to
rn remove both the electrons from a neutral helium atom is
rn
log –– (a) 79.0 (b) 51.8
r1
(c) 49.2 (d) 38.2
(a) (b)
11. When an electron jumps from its ground state to the first
o o log n
n excited state, the average value of its potential energy ?
(a) rises
fn (b) stays the same
log ––
f1 (c) falls
(c) (d) Both (a) and (b) (d) we cannot determine the answer without more
information
o log n
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MODERN PHYSICS 64
12. A ground-state electron (in a hydrogen atom) absorb a 17. An X-ray tube is operated at 50 kV. The minimum
photon of energy 3E0. How much kinetic energy does the wavelength produced is
electron now have ? (a) 0.5 Å (b) 0.75 Å
(a) E0 (b) 2E0 (c) 0.25 Å (d) 1 Å
18. As the electron in Bohr orbit of Hydrogen atom passes
(c) 3E0 (d) 4 E0
from state n = 2 to n = 1, the kinetic energy K and potential
13. Which of the following transitions in a hydrogen atom energy U change as
emits photon of the highest frequency
(a) K two-fold, U four-fold
(a) n = 1 to n = 2 (b) n = 2 to n = 1
(b) K four-fold, U two-fold
(c) n = 2 to n = 6 (d) n = 6 to n = 2
(c) K four-fold, U also four-fold
14. If max is 6563 Å, then wave length of second line for (d) K two-fold, U also two-fold
Balmer series will be 19. An electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit of
hydrogen atom. Given the Rydberg’s constant R = 105
16 36 cm–1. The frequency in Hz of the emitted radiation will be
(a) (b)
3R 5R
3 3
4 (a) 10 5 (b) 1015
(c) (d) None of the above 16 16
3R
9 3
15. Which one of the series of hydrogen spectrum is in the (c) 1015 (d) 1015
16 4
visible region
20. If the wavelength of the first line of the Balmer series of
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series hydrogen is 6561 Å, the wavelength of the second line of
(c) Paschen series (d) Bracket series the series should be
(a) 13122 Å (b) 3280 Å
16. The energy levels of the hydrogen spectrum is shown in
figure. There are some transitions A, B, C, D and E. (c) 4860 Å (d) 2187 Å
Transition A, B and C respectively represent 21. Ratio of the wavelengths of first line of Lyman series and
first line of Balmer series is
–0.00 eV
(a) 1: 3 (b) 27 : 5
n=6 –0.36 eV
n=5 –0.54 eV (c) 5 : 27 (d) 4 : 9
n=4 –0.85 eV 22. The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. The
C
n=3 –1.51 eV radius of sulphur nucleus is larger than that of helium, by times
B D
n=2 –3.39 eV
(a) 8 (b) 4
A E (c) 2 (d) 8
n=1 23. One requires energy En to remove a nucleon from a nucleus
–13.5 eV
and an energy ‘Ee’ to remove an electron from the orbit of
(a) First member of Lyman series, third spectral line of an atom. Then
Balmer series and the second spectral line of Paschen (a) En = Ee (b) En < Ee
series (c) En > Ee (d) En > Ee
24. The Rutherford -particle experiment shows that most of
(b) Ionization potential of hydrogen, second spectral line
the -particles pass through almost unscattered while
of Balmer series and third spectral line of Paschen
some are scattered through large angles. What information
series does it give about the structure of the atom
(c) Series limit of Lyman series, third spectral line of Balmer (a) Atom is hollow
series and second spectral line of Paschen series
(b) The whole mass of the atom is concentrated in a small
(d) Series limit of Lyman series, second spectral line of
centre called nucleus
Balmer series and third spectral line of Paschen series
(c) Nucleus is positively charged
(d) All the above
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MODERN PHYSICS 65
25. Binding energy of a nucleus is 32. A metal block is exposed to beams of X-ray of different
(a) Energy given to its nucleus during its formation wavelength. X-rays of which wavelength penetrate most
(b) Total mass of nucleus converted to energy units (a) 2 Å (b) 4 Å
(c) Loss of energy from the nucleus during its formation (c) 6 Å (d) 8 Å
(d) Total K.E. and P.E. of the nucleons in the nucleus 33. During a negative beta decay
A
26. If m, mn and mp are the masses of ZX nucleus, neutron and (a) An atomic electron is ejected
proton respectively
(b) An electron which is already present within the
(a) m < (A – Z) mn + Zmp (b) m = (A – Z) mn + Zmp nucleus is ejected
(c) m = (A – Z) mp + Zmn (d) m > (A – Z) mn + Zmp (c) A neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an electron
27. The masses of neutron and proton are 1.0087 a.m.u. and
1.0073 a.m.u. respectively. If the neutrons and protons (d) A part of the binding energy is converted into electron
combine to form a helium nucleus (alpha particles) of mass 235
34. What is the power output of 92U reactor if it takes 30 days
4.0015 a.m.u. The binding energy of the helium nucleus
to use up 2kg of fuel and if each fission gives 185 MeV. of
will be (1 a.m.u.= 931 MeV) 26
usable energy ? Avogadro’s number = 6.02 × 10 per kilomole.
(a) 28.4 MeV (b) 20.8 MeV
(a) 45 megawatt (b) 58.46 megawatt
(c) 27.3 MeV (d) 14.2 MeV
(c) 72 megawatt (d) 92 megawatt
28. The binding energy of deuteron 12 H is 1.112 MeV per
35. If the decay or disintegration constant of a radioactive
4
nucleon and an –particle He has a binding energy of
2 substance is , then its half life and mean life are
7.047 MeV per nucleon. Then in the fusion reaction respectively
2
1 H 12 H 42 He Q, the energy Q released is
1 log e 2 log e 2 1
(a) and (b) and
(a) 1 MeV (b) 11.9 MeV
(c) 23.8 MeV (d) 931 MeV
29. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an 1 1
particle are x1 and x2 respectively. What will be the (c) log e 2 and (d) log 2 and
e
energy Q released in the reaction 1 H 2 1 H 2 2 He 4 Q 36. A radioactive sample consists of two distinct species
(a) 4 (x1 + x2) (b) 4 (x2 – x1) having equal number of atoms initially. The mean life time
of one species is and that of the other is 5. The decay
(c) 2 (x1 + x2) (d) 2 (x2 – x1)
30. If the binding energy per nucleon in Li7 and He4 nuclei are products in both cases are stable. A plot is made of the
respectively 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, then energy of total number of radioactive nuclei as a function of time.
reaction Li7 + p 2 2He4 is Which of the following figures best represents the form
of this plot
(a) 19.6 MeV (b) 2.4 MeV
(c) 8.4 MeV (d) 17.3 MeV N N
31. Binding energy per nucleon plot against the mass number
for stable nuclei is shown in the figure. Which curve is correct
(a) (b)
D
Binding energy
B t t
per nucleon
C N N
A
Mass number
(a) A (b) B (c) (d)
(c) C (d) D t t
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MODERN PHYSICS 66
37. Radioactive element decays to form a stable nuclide, then 42. The half-life of Bi 210 is 5 days. What time is taken by
dN
the rate of decay of reactant will vary with time (t) th
dt 7
part of the sample to decay
as shown in figure 8
(a) 3.4 days (b) 10 days
dN dN
dt dt (c) 15 days (d) 20 days
(a) (b) 43. The half life of the isotope 11 Na 24 is 15 hrs. How much
t t
7
time does it take for th of a sample of this isotope to decay
dN dN 8
dt dt
(a) 75 hrs (b) 65 hrs
(c) (d)
(c) 55 hrs (d) 45 hrs
t t 44. The half life of radioactive Radon is 3.8 days. The time at
38. The plot of the number (N) of decayed atoms versus activity the end of which 1/20th of the Radon sample will remain
(A) of a radioactive substance is undecayed is (Given log10e = 0.4343)
N N (a) 3.8 days (b) 16.5 days
(c) 33 days (d) 76 days
45. A radioactive isotope X with a half–life of 1.37 × 109 years
(a) (b) decays to Y which is stable. A sample of rock from the
A A
A B moon was found to contain both the elements X and Y
which were in the ratio of 1 : 7. The age of the rock is
N N
(a) 1.96 × 108 years (b) 3.85 × 109 years
(c) 4.11 × 109 years (d) 9.59 × 109 years
(c) (d) 46. The mean lives of a radio-active substances are 1620 years
A A and 405 years for –emission and –emission respectively.
C D Find Out the time during which three-fourth of a sample will
39. In a radioactive substance at t = 0, the number of atoms is decay if it is decaying both by –emission and –emission
8 × 104. Its half life period is 3 years. The number of atoms simultaneously.
(a) 324 years (b) 449 years
1 10 4 will remain after interval
(a) 9 years (b) 8 years (c) 480 years (d) 425 years
(c) 6 years (d) 24 years
47. Assuming that all laws of thermodynamics can be applied to
40. The half life period of radium is 1600 years. The fraction of
a nucleus, the –decay of a nucleus may be regarded as an
a sample of radium that would remain after 6400 years is
(a) Isothermal process (b) Isobarric process
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2
(c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (c) Adiabatic process (d) Isochoric process
41. What percentage of original radioactive atoms is left after 48. In the given reaction z X A z 1 Y A z 1 K A 4 z 1 K A 4 .
five half lives Radioactive radiations are emitted in the sequence
(a) 0.3% (b) 1%
(a) , , (b) , ,
(c) 31% (d) 3.125%
(c) , , (d) , ,
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MODERN PHYSICS 67
49. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decay 55. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by electrons
according to the scheme accelerated by a potential difference of volts is equal to
A A1 A 2 A 3 A4 eV eh
(a) (b)
If the mass number and atomic number of A are 180 and 72 hc cV
respectively, then what are these number for A4
hc cV
(a) 172 and 69 (b) 174 and 70 (c) (d)
eV eh
(c) 176 and 69 (d) 176 and 70
56. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is
50. Mosley’s law relates the frequencies of line X-rays with
the following characteristics of the target element increased. As a result, in the emitted radiation
(a) Its density (a) The intensity increases
(b) Its atomic weight (b) The minimum wavelength increases
(c) Its atomic number (c) The intensity decreases
(d) Interplaner spacing of the atomic planes
(d) The minimum wavelength decreases
51. The wavelength of the K line of characteristic X-ray
57. For harder X-rays
spectra varies with atomic number approximately
(a) The wavelength is higher
(a) Z (b) Z (b) The intensity is higher
1 1 (c) The frequency is higher
(c) (d)
Z2 Z (d) The photon energy is lower
52. Mosley measured the frequency (f) of the characteristic 58. For production of characteristic K X-rays, the electron
X-rays from many metals of different atomic number (Z) transition is
and represented his results by a relation known as
(a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 2
Mosley’s law. This law is (a, b are constants)
(c) n = 3 to n = 1 (d) n = 4 to n = 2
(a) f = a (Z – b)2 (b) Z = a (f – b)2
(c) f2 = a (Z – b) (d) f = a (Z – b)1/2 59. The wavelength of K line for an element of atomic number
43 is . Then the wavelength of K line for an element of
53. The intensity of X-rays from a Coolidge tube is plotted atomic number 29 is
against wavelength as shown in the figure. The minimum
wavelength found is c and the wavelength of the Kline 43 42
is k. As the accelerating voltage is increased (a) (b)
29 28
I 9 4
(c) (d)
4 9
60. The K X-ray emission line of tungsten occurs at = 0.021 nm.
The energy difference between K and L levels in this atom
(a) (K – C) increases (b) (K – C) decreases is about
(a) 0.51MeV (b) 1.2 MeV
(c) K increases (d) K decreases
54. The characteristic X-ray radiation is emitted, when (c) 59 KeV (d) 13.6 eV
(a) The electrons are accelerated to a fixed energy 61. When a beam of accelerated electrons hits a target, a
(b) The source of electrons emits a monoenergetic beam continuous X-ray spectrum is emitted from the target.
Which of the following wavelength is absent in the X-ray
(c) The bombarding electrons knock out electrons from
spectrum, if the X-ray tube is operating at 40,000 volts
the inner shell of the target atoms and one of the outer
electrons falls into this vacancy (a) 0.25 Å (b) 0.5 Å
(d) The valence electrons in the target atoms are removed (c) 1.5 Å (d) 1.0 Å
as a result of the collision
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MODERN PHYSICS 68
62. The minimum frequency of continuous X-rays is related 67. If an X–ray tube operates at the voltage of 10kV, find the
to the applied potential difference V as ratio of the de–Brogle wavelength of the incident electrons
to the shortest wavelength of X–rays produce(d) The
(a) V (b) V 11
specific charge of electron is 1.8 × 10 C/kg.
(a) 1 (b) 0.1
(c) V 3 / 2 (d) V 2
(c) 1.8 (d) 1.2
63. The figure shows the variation of photocurrent with anode
68. The momentum of a photon is 3.3 ×10–29 kg–m/sec. Its
potential for a photo-sensitive surface for three different
frequency will be
radiations. Let I a, Ib and Ic be the intensities and fa, fb and fc
be the frequencies for the curves a, b and c respectively (a) 3 × 103 Hz (b) 6 × 103 Hz
(c) 7.5 × 1012 Hz (d) 1.5 × 1013 Hz
Photo current 69. The approximate wavelength of a photon of energy 2.48
c eV is
b
(a) 500 Å (b) 5000 Å
a
(c) 2000 Å (d) 1000 Å
O Anode potential
70. There are n1 photons of frequency 1 in a beam of light. In
(a) fa = fb and la lb (b) fa = fc and la = lc an equally energetic beam, there are n 2 photons of
frequency 2. Then the correct relation is
(c) fa = fb and la = lb (d) fa fb and la = lb
n1 n1 1
64. The value of stopping potential in the following diagram (a) 1 (b) n
n2 2 2
i (photoelectric
current) n1 2 n 1 12
(c) n (d)
2 1 n 2 22
71. The work function of a metal is 4.2 eV, its threshold
–4V –3V –2V –1V 0 V wavelength will be
(a) – 4V (b) – 3 V (a) 4000 Å (b) 3500 Å
(c) – 2V (d) – 1 V (c) 2955 Å (d) 2500 Å
65. X-rays and gamma rays are both electromagnetic waves. 72. Ultraviolet radiations of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium
Which of the following statements is true surface (work function 4.2 eV). The kinetic energy in joules
(a) In general X-rays have larger wavelength than of of the fastest electron emitted is approximately
gamma rays (a) 3.2 × 10–21 (b) 3.2 × 10–19
(b) X-rays have smaller wavelength than that of gamma rays (c) 3.2 × 10–17 (d) 3.2 × 10–15
(c) Gamma rays have smaller frequency than that of X-rays 73. A photon of energy 3.4 eV is incident on a metal having
(d) Wavelength and frequency of X-rays are both larger work function 2 eV. The maximum K.E. of photo-electrons
than that of gamma rays is equal to
66. Molybdenum is used as a target element for production (a) 1.4 eV (b) 1.7 eV
of X–rays because it is (c) 5.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV
(a) A heavy element and can easily absorb high velocity 74. Work function of lithium and copper are respectively
electrons 2.3 eV and 4.0 eV. Which one of the metal will be useful for
(b) A heavy element with a high melting point the photoelectric cell working with visible light ?
(c) An element having high thermal conductivity
(h = 6.6 10–34 J-s, c = 3 108 m/s)
(d) Heavy and can easily deflect electrons
(a) Lithium (b) Copper
(c) Both (d) None of these
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MODERN PHYSICS 69
75. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the graph 79. Light of wavelength strikes a photo-sensitive surface
between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and and electrons are ejected with kinetic energy E. If the
the frequency of incident radiation is kinetic energy is to be increased to 2E, the wavelength
must be changed to ' where
Kinetic energy
Kinetic energy
a) (b) ’ = 2
2
(a) (b)
Frequency Frequency (c) (d) ’ >
2
80. A metal surface of work function 1.07 eV is irradiated with
light of wavelength 332 nm. The retarding potential
required to stop the escape of photo-electrons is
Kinetic energy
Kinetic energy
(a) 4.81 eV (b) 3.74 eV
(c) (d) (c) 2.66 eV (d) 1.07 eV
81. Photoelectric emission is observed from a metallic surface
Frequency Frequency
for frequencies 1 and 2 of the incident light rays (1 >2).
If the maximum values of kinetic energy of the
76. The stopping potential V for photoelectric emission from photoelectrons emitted in the two cases are in the ratio of
a metal surface is plotted along Y-axis and frequency of 1 : k, then the threshold frequency of the metallic surface
incident light along X-axis. A straight line is obtained as is
shown. Planck’s constant is given by
1 2 k 1 2
(a) (b)
k 1 k 1
V Y
k 2 1 2 1
0 X (c) (d)
v k 1 k
82. Which one of the following is true in photoelectric emission
(a) Slope of the line (a) Photoelectric current is directly proportional to the
amplitude of light of a given frequency
(b) Product of slope on the line and charge on the electron
(c) Product of intercept along Y-axis and mass of the (b) Photoelectric current is directly proportional to the
electron intensity of light of a given frequency at moderate
(d) Product of Slope and mass of electron intensities
77. When a metal surface is illuminated by light of wavelengths (c) Above the threshold frequency, the maximum K.E. of
400 nm and 250 nm, the maximum velocities of the photoelectrons is inversely proportional to the
photoelectrons ejected are and 2 respectively. The frequency of incident light
work function of the metal is (h = Planck’s constant, c = (d) The threshold frequency depends upon the
velocity of light in air) wavelength of incident light
(a) 2 hc × 106 J (b) 1.5 hc × 106 J 83. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed such that
(c) hc × 106 J (d) 0.5 hc × 106 J the work function changes from W1 to W2 (W2>W1). If the
current before and after change are I1 and I2, all other
78. The work function of metal is 1 eV. Light of wavelength conditions remaining unchanged, then
3000 Å is incident on this metal surface. The velocity of
(assuming h > W2)
emitted photo-electrons will be
(a) I1= I2 (b) I1 < I2
(a) 10 m/sec (b) 1 × 103 m/sec
(c) I1 > I2 (d) I1 < I2 < 2I1
(c) 1×104 m/sec (d) 1 × 106 m/sec
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MODERN PHYSICS 70
84. If intensity of incident light is increased in PE then which 90. When radiation is incident on a photoelectron emitter, the
of the following is true stopping potential is found to be 9 volts. If e/m for the
electron is 1.8 × 1011 Ckg–1 the maximum velocity of the
(a) Maximum K.E. of ejected electron will increase
ejected electrons is
(b) Work function will remain unchanged (a) 6 × 105 ms–1 (b) 8 × 105 ms–1
(c) Stopping potential will decrease (c) 1.8 × 106 ms–1 (d) 1.8 × 105 ms–1
(d) Maximum K.E. of ejected electron will decrease
91. When a point source of monochromatic light is at a
85. Threshold frequency for a metal is 10 15 Hz.Light of distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the cut-off
= 4000 Å falls on its surface. Which of the following voltage and the saturation current are 0.6 volt and 18 mA
statements is correct
respectively. If the same source is placed 0.6 m away from
(a) No photoelectric emission takes place the photoelectric cell, then
(b) Photo-electrons come out with zero speed (a) The stopping potential will be 0.2 V
(c) Photo-electrons come out with 103 m/sec speed
(b) The stopping potential will be 0.6 V
(d) Photo-electrons come out with 105 m/sec speed
(c) The saturation current will be 6 mA
86. If the work function of a metal is ‘’ and the frequency of
(d) The saturation current will be 18 mA
the incident light is ‘’, there is no emission of
photoelectron if 92. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) always less than its atomic number
(a) (b) (b) always more than its atomic number.
h h
(c) sometimes equal to its atomic number
(c) (d) (d) sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic
h h number.
87. For intensity I of a light of wavelength 5000Å the 93. In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom
photoelectron saturation current is 0.40 A and stopping 2
(a) the radius of the nth orbit is proportional to n
potential is 1.36 V, the work function of metal is
(b) the total energy of the electron in nth orbit in inversely
(a) 2.47 eV (b) 1.36 eV proportional to n
(c) 1.10 eV (d) 0.43 eV (c) the angular momentum of the electron in an orbit is an
88. Two identical photo-cathodes receive light of frequencies integral multiple of h/2
f1 and f2. If the velocities of the photo electrons (of mass m) (d) the magnitude of potential energy of the electron in any
coming out are respectively 1 and 2, then orbit is greater than its K.E.
1/ 2 94. Which of the following statement(s) is/(are) correct
2h
(a) 1 2 f1 f 2 (a) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is less than the sum
m
of the rest masses of its separated nucleons
2 2 2h
(b) 1 – 2 f1 f 2 (b) The rest mass of a stable nucleus is greater than the
m sum of the rest masses of its separated nucleons.
1/ 2
2h (c) In nuclear fusion, energy is released by fusing two
(c) 1 2 f1 f 2 nuclei of medium mass (approximately 100 a.m.u.)
m
(d) In nuclear fission, energy is released by fragmentation
2h of a very heavy nucleus
2
(d)
1
2
2 f1 f 2
m
95. From the following equations, pick out the possible nuclear
89. Stopping potential for photoelectrons reactions
(a) Does not depend on the frequency of the incident light
(b) Does not depend upon the nature of the cathode material (a) 6C13 + 1H1 6C14 + 4.3 MeV
(c) Depends on both the frequency of the incident light (b) 6C12 + 1H1 7N13 + 2 MeV
and nature of the cathode material (c) 7N14 + 1H1 8O15 + 7.3 MeV
(d) Depends upon the intensity of the incident light (d) U235 + 0n1 54X140 + 33Si94 + 20n1 + + 200 MeV
92
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MODERN PHYSICS 71
96. A radioactive sample has initial concentration N0 of nuclei. 100. When a monochromatic point source of light is at a distance
(a) The number of undecayed nuclei present in the sample of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the cut-off voltage and the
decays exponentially with time saturation current are respectively 0.6 V and 18.0 m (A). If
the same source is placed 0.6 m away from the photoelectric
(b) The activity (R) of the sample at any instant is directly
cell, then
proportional to the number of undecayed nuclei present
in the sample at that time (a) the stopping potential will be 0.2 V
(c) The number of decayed nuclei grows exponentially with (b) the stopping potential will be 0.6 V
time (c) the saturation current will be 6.0 mA
(d) The number of decayed nuclei grows linearly with time. (d) the saturation current will be 2.0 mA
Multiple Correct Options Numeric Value Type Questions
97. An X-ray tube is operating at 50 kV and 20 mA. The target 101. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is
material of the tube has a mass of 1.0 kg and specific heat given by where V0 and r0 are constants and r is the radius of
495 J kg-1 °C–1. One percent of the supplied electric power the electron orbit around the proton. Assuming Bohr’s model
x
is converted into X-rays and the entire remaining energy to be applicable, it is found that r is proportional to n , where
n is the principal quantum number. Find the value of x.
goes into heating the target. Then
102. A doubly ionized lithium atom is hydrogen like with atomic
(a) A suitable target material must have a high melting
number 3. Find the wavelength of the radiation required to
temperature ++
excite the electron in Li from the first to be third Bohr orbit.
(b) A suitable target material must have low thermal Find the ionization energy (in Å) of the hydrogen atom is
conductivity 13.6 eV.
(c) The average rate of rise of temperature of target would Assertion Reason
be 2 °C/s
Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct
(d) The minimum wavelength of the X-rays emitted is option out of the options given below :
about 0.25 × 10–10m (A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
98. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of metal
A, the ejected photoelectrons have maximum kinetic energy, (B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
TA eV and de Broglie wavelength A. The maximum kinetic correct explanation of the assertion.
energy of photoelectrons liberated from another metal B by (C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB = (TA – 1.50) eV. If the de (D) If the assertion and reason both are false.
Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is B = 2A, then (E) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(a) The work function of A is 2.25 eV 103. Assertion : Bohr had to postulate that the electrons in
(b) The work function of B is 4.20 eV stationary orbits around the nucleus do not radiate.
(c) TA = 2.00 eV Reason : According to classical physics all moving
(d) TB = 2.75 eV electrons radiate.
99. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission from (a) A (b) B
a material is 5200 Å. Photoelectrons will be emitted when
(c) C (d) D
this material is illuminated with monochromatic radiation
from a (e) E
(a) 50 watt infrared lamp
(b) 1–watt infra-red lamp
(c) 50 watt ultraviolet lamp
(d) 1–watt ultraviolet lamp
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MODERN PHYSICS 72
104. Assertion : Between any two given energy levels, the 109. Assertion : The ionising power of –particles is less
number of absorption transition is always less than number compared –particles but their penetrating power is more.
of emission transition.
Reason : The mass of –particles is less than the mass of
Reason : Absorption transitions start from the lowest energy –particle.
level only and may end at any higher energy level. But
(a) A (b) B (c) C
emission transitions may start from any higher energy level
and end at any energy level below it. (d) D (e) E
A
110. Assertion : ZX undergoes 2–decays. 2–decays and
(a) A (b) B
2–decays and the daughter product is Z–2YA–8.
(c) C (d) D
Reason : In –decay the mass number decreases by 4 and
(e) E atomic number decreases by 2. In –decay the mass
105. Assertion : Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron number remains unchanged, but atomic number increases
but its emission spectrum has many lines. by 1 only.
Reason : Only Lyman series is found in the absorption (a) A (b) B (c) C
spectrum of hydrogen atom whereas in the emission (d) D (e) E
spectrum, all the series are found. 111. Assertion : Intensity of X-rays can be controlled by
(a) A (b) B adjusting the filament current and voltage.
(c) C (d) D Reason : The intensity of X-rays does not depend on
(e) E number of X-ray photons emitted per second from the
target.
106. Assertion : According to classical theory, the proposed path
of an electron in Rutherford atom model will be parabolic. (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E
Reason : According to electromagnetic theory an
accelerated particle continuously emits radiation. 112. Assertion : The phenomenon of X-ray production is
basically inverse of photoelectric effect.
(a) A (b) B
Reason : X-rays are electromagnetic waves.
(c) C (d) D
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(e) E
(d) D (e) E
107. Assertion : Penetrating power of X-rays increases with
113. Assertion : Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave
the increasing the wavelength.
nature of light.
Reason : The penetrating power of X-rays increases with Reason : The number of photoelectrons is proportional
the frequency of X-rays. to the frequency of light.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E (d) D (e) E
114. Assertion : Kinetic energy of photo electrons emitted by
108. Assertion : Radioactivity of 108 undecayed radioactive
a photosensitive surface depends upon the intensity of
nuclei of half life of 50 days is equal to that of 1.2 × 108
incident photon.
number of undecayed nuclei of some other material with
Reason : The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is
half life of 60 days possible with frequency of incident photon below the
Reason : Radioactivity is proportional to half-life. threshold frequency.
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E
(d) D (e) E
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MODERN PHYSICS 73
–
115. Assertion : Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its work (C) If the process is decay (R) Z and A will remain
function is small. unchanged
Reason : Work function = hf0 where f0 is the threshold
(D) If the process is decay (S) Z will decrease but A
frequency.
will not change
(a) A (b) B (c) C
(d) D (e) E 120. When an electron moving at a high speed strikes a metal
surface, then match the columns :
Match the Column
(a) The entire energy of the electron may be converted into
116. In Bohr’s atomic model for hydrogen like atoms match the
following table : an X-ray photon
Column–I Column–II (b) Any fraction of the energy of the electron may be
(A) If electron jumps from (P) speed of electron will become converted into an X-ray photon.
n = 2 to n = 1 2 times (c) The entire energy of the electron may get converted to
(B) If electron jumps from (Q) kinetic energy of electron heat
n = 1to n = 4 will become 4 times
(d) The electron may undergo eleastic collision with the
(C) If electron jumps from (R) angular momentum of metal surface.
n = 4 to n = 1 electron will become 2 times
121. v versus z graph for characteristic X–rays is as shown in
(S) angular velocity of electron
figure. Match the following :
will become 4 times
(T) None v 1
117. Regarding transition of electrons match the following table: 2 3
Column–I Column–II 4
(A) n = 5 to n = 2 (P) Lymen series
(B) n = 8 to n = 4 (Q) Brackett series
z
(C) n = 3 to n = 1 (R) Paschen
(D) n = 4 to n = 3 (S) Balmer
Column–I Column–II
118. Match the following table :
(A) Line–1 (P) L
Column–I Column-II
(A) Sun (P) Nuclear fission (B) Line–2 (Q) L
(B) Nuclear reactors (Q) Nuclear fusion (C) Line–3 (R) K
(C) Total binding energy (R) Energy is released (D) Line–4 (S) K
in a process is increased 122. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface of a
(D) Total binding energy (S) Energy is absorbed metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have maximum kinetic
in a process is decreased energy TA eV and de Brogle wavelength A. The maximum
119. When a nucleus with atomic number Z and mass number A kinetic enegy of photoelectrons liberated from another metal
undergoes a radioactive decay process. B by photons of energy 4.70 eV is TB = (TA – 1.50) eV. If the
de Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons is B = 2A.
Column–I Column–II
Column–I Column–II
(A) If the process is decay (P) Z will increase but A will
not decrease (A) The work function of B (P) 2.25 eV
+
(B) If the process is decay (Q) Both Z and A will (B) The work function of A (Q) 2.00 eV
decrease (C) TA (R) 4.20 eV
(D) TB (S) 2.75 eV
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MODERN PHYSICS 74
Passage Type Questions Subjective Questions
Imagine another universe in which the value of planck’s 125. In Rutherford scattering experiment, the number of particles
constant is 0.0663 Js, but in which the physical laws and all observed at an angle of 10° is one million per minute. Find
other physical constants are the same as in our universe. In the difference in the number of particle (approximately) per
this universe, two physics students are playing catch. They minute that will be observed at angles of 90° and 180° ?
are 12 m apart, and one throws a 0.25 kg ball directly towards
126. The half life of radium is 1500 years. In how many years will
the other with a speed of 6.0 m/s
1 kg of pure radium lose 1 mg.
123. What is the uncertainty in the ball’s horizontal momentum,
127. An element of atomic number 9 emits K X-ray of wavelength
in a direction perpendicular to that in which it is being
. Find the atomic number of the element which emits K X-
thrown, if the student throwing the ball knows that it is
3 ray of wavelength 4.
located within a cube with volume 125 cm at the time she
throws it ? 128. The K X–rays emission line of tungsten occurs at = 0.021
nm. What is the energy difference between K and L levels in
(a) 2.1 kg m/s (b) 21.0 kg m/s
this atom (in KeV).
(c) 32 kg m/s (d) 0.21 kg m/s
129. An electron falls from rest through a potential difference of
124. By what horizontal distance could the ball miss the second 100 V. What is its de Broglie wavelength (in nm) ?
student ?
(a) 3 m (b) 30 m
(c) 17 m (d) 1.7 m
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MODERN PHYSICS 75
EXERCISE - 4 : PREVIOUS YEARS JEE ADVANCED QUESTIONS
1. Electrons with energy 80 KeV are incident on the tungsten target 5. A hydrogen like atom of atomic number Z is an excited state
of an X-ray tube. K shell electrons of tungsten have –72.5 keV of quantum number 2n. It can emit a maximum energy photon of
energy X-rays emitted by the tube contain (2000) 204 eV. If it makes a transition to quantum state n, a photon
(a) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a of energy 40.8 eV is emitted. Find, n, Z and the ground state energy
minimum wavelength of about 0.155 Å. (in eV) of this atom. Also calculate the minimum energy (in
(b) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with all eV) that can be emitted by this atom during de-excitation.
the wavelengths. Ground state energy of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. (2000)
2
(c) the characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten 6. When a beam of 10.6 eV photons of intensity 2.0 W/m
–4 2
falls on a platinum surface of area 1.0 × 10 m and work
(d) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a function 5.6 eV. 0.53% of the incident photons eject
minimum wavelength of about 0.155 Å and the photoelectrons. Find the number of photoelectrons emitted per
characteristics X-ray spectrum of tungsten. second and their minimum and maximum energies (in eV).
–19
2. Imagine an atom made up of a proton and a hypothetical particle Take 1 eV = 1.6 × 10 J. (2000)
of double the mass of the electron but having the same charge 7. The electron emitted in beta radiation originates from
as the electron. Apply the Bohr atom model and consider all (2001)
possible transitions of this hypothetical particle to the first
(a) inner orbits of atoms
excited level. The longest wavelength photon that will be
emitted has wavelength (given in terms of the Rydberg (b) free electrons existing in nuclei
constant R for the hydrogen atom equal to) (2000) (c) decay of a neutron in a nucleus
9 36 (d) photon escaping from the nucleus
(a) (b) 8. The transition from state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like
5R 5R
atom results in ultraviolet radiaiton. Infrared radiation will
18 4 be obtained in the transition (2001)
(c) (d)
5R R (a) 2 1 (b) 3 2
3. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants (c) 4 2 (d) 5 4
10 and respectively. If initially they have the same number 9. The intensity of X-rays from a coolidge tube is plotted
of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that against wavelength as shown in the figure. The minimum
of X2 will be 1/e after a time (2000) wavelength found is c and the wavelength of the K line is
k. As the accelerating voltage is increased (2001)
1 1
(a) (b)
10 11
11 1
(c) 10 (d) 9
4. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an
excited state to the ground state. Which of the following
statement is true ? (2000)
(a) Its kinetic energy increases and its potential and total
energy decreases
(a) k – c increases (b) k – c decreases
(b) Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases
(c) k increases (d) k decreases
and its total energy remains the same
(c) Its kinetic and total energy decreases and its potential
energy increases
(d) Its kinetic, potential and total energy decreases
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MODERN PHYSICS 76
10. A radioactive sample consists of two distinct species having 16. Which of the following processes represents a gamma-
equal number of atoms initially. The mean life of one species decay? (2002)
is and that of the other is 5. The decay products in both
A A A A 3
cases are stable. A plot is made of the total number of (a) Z
X + Z 1 X+a+b (b) Z
X + 10 n Z2 X +c
radioactive nuclei as a function of time. Which of the A A A A
(c) Z
X Z
X+ f (d) Z
X + – 1e Z 1 X+g
following figure best represents the form of this plot ?
17. A hydrogen-like atom (described by the Bohr model) is
(2001)
observed to emit six wavelengths, originating from all
possible transitions between a group of levels. These levels
have energies between –0.85 eV and –0.544 eV (including
both these values). (2002)
(a) (b) (a) Find the atomic number of the atom.
(b) Calculate the smallest wavelength emitted in these
transitions.
(Take hc = 1240 eV-nm, ground state energy of hydrogen
atom = –13.6 eV)
–4 2
18. Two metallic plates A and B each of area 5 × 10 m , are
(c) (d)
placed parallel to each other at separation of 1cm. Plate B
–12
carries a positive charge of 33.7 × 10 C. A monochromatic
235 beam of light, with photons of energy 5 eV each, starts
11. In nuclear reactor U undergoes fission liberating 200 MeV 16
of energy. The reactor has a 10% efficiency and produces falling on plate A at t = 0 so that 10 photons fall on it per
square metre per second. Assume that one photoelectron is
1000 MW power. If the reactor is to function for 10 years, 6
find the total mass of uranium required. (2001) emitted for every 10 incident photons. Also assume that all
the emitted photoelectrons are collected by plate B and the
12. A radioactive nucleus X decays to a nucleus Y with a decay work function of plate A remains constant at the value 2 eV.
–1
constant x = 0.1s , Y further decays to a stable nucleus Z
–1 Determine : (2002)
with a decay constant y = 1/30 s . Initially, there are only X
20
nuclei and their number is N 0 = 10 . Set-up the rate (a) the number of photoelectrons emitted upt to t = 10 s,
equations for the populations of X, Y and Z. The (b) the magnitude of the electric field between the plates A
population of Y nucleus as a functions of time is given by and B at t = 10s and
Ny(t) = {N0x/(x–y)} [exp (–yt) –expt (–xt)]. Find the time (c) The kinetic energy of the most energetic photoelectrons
at which NY is maximum and determine the populations X emitted at t = 10s when it reaches plate B.
and Y at that instant. (2001) Neglect the time taken by the photoelectron to reach plate
–12 2 2
13. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is 5 kV and B. (Take 0 = 8.85 × 10 C /N-m ).
the current through it is 3.2 mA. Then the number of 19. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is
electrons striking the target per second is (2002)
(a) 2 × 10
16
(b) 5 × 10
16 given by V V0 n r , where r0 is a constant. Assuming
r0
17 15
(c) 1 × 10 (d) 4 × 10
2+
Bohr’s model to be applicable, write variation of rn with n, n
14. A hydrogen atom and a Li ion are both in the second being the principal quantum number. (2003)
excited state. If lH and lLi are their respective electronic angular
1
momenta, and EH and ELi their respective energies, then (a) rn n (b) rn
n
(2002)
1
(a) lH > lLi and |EH| > |ELi| (b) lH = lLi and |EH| < |ELi| (c) rn n 2 (d) rn
n2
257
(c) lH = lLi and |EH| > |ELi| (d) lH < lLi and |EH| < |ELi| 20. If the atom 100Fm follows the Bohr’s model and the radius
215 257
15. The half-life of At is 100 s. The time taken for the of last orbit of 100Fm is n times the Bohr radius, then find
215
radioactivity of a sample of At to decay to 1/16th of its n
initial value is (2002) (a) 100 (b) 200 (2003)
(a) 400 s (b) 6.3 s (c) 4 (d) 1/4
(c) 40 s (d) 300 s
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MODERN PHYSICS 77
21. The mass m of a uranium nucleus varies with its volume V
as (2003)
1
(a) m V (b) m
V
(c) m V (d) m V 2
22. A nucleus of mass number 220, initially at rest, emits an -
particle. If the Q value of the reaction is 5.5 MeV, the energy
of the emitted -particle will be (2003) (a) fa = fb and Ia Ib (b) fa = fc and Ia = Ic
(a) 4.8 MeV (b) 5.4 MeV (c) fa = fb and Ia = Ib (d) fb = fc and Ib = Ic
(c) 6.0 MeV (d) 6.8 MeV 238 9 238
29. A rock containing U is 1.5 × 10 years old. U disintegrates
18 206 206
23. Characteristic X-rays of frequency 4.2 × 10 Hz are produced to form Pb Assuming that there was no Pb in the rock
when transitions from L-shell to K-shell take palce in a certain initially and it is the only stable product formed by the decay,
206 238
target material. Use Mosley’s law to determine the atomic calculate the ratio of number of nuclei of Pb to that of U
238 9
number of the target material. Given Rydberg’s constant in the rock at present. Half-life of U is 4.5 × 10 years
7 –1 1/3
R = 1.1 × 10 m . (2003) (Given : 2 = 1.259) (2004)
24. A radioactive element decays by -emission. A detector 30. Wavelengths of Balmer series lying in the range of 450 nm
records n beta particles in 2 s and in next 2 s it records 0.75 and 700 nm were used to eject photoelectrons from a metal
n beta particles. Find mean life correct to nearest whole surface of work function 2.2 eV. Determine the maximum
number. Given ln |2| = 0.6931, ln |3| = 1.0986. (2003) kinetic energy in eV of the emitted photoelectron. Take
25. In a photoelectric experiment set-up, photon energy 5 eV hc = 1242 eV nm. (2004)
falls on the cathode having work function 3 eV. (a) If the 31. A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen atom is ground
–5 2
saturation current is iA = 4 A for intensity 10 W/m , then state inelastically. Energy of the colliding photon is 10.2 eV.
plot a graph between anode potential and current. (b) Also After a time interval of the order of micro second another
–5 2
draw a graph for intensity of incident radiation 2 × 10 W/m . photon collide with same hydrogen atom inelastically with
(2003) an energy of 15 eV. What will be observed by the detector ?
26. After 280 days, the activity of a radioactive sample is 6000 (a) 2 photons of energy 10.2 eV (2005)
dps. The activity reduces to 3000 dps after another 140 days. (b) 2 photons of energy 1.4 eV
The initial activity of the sample in dps is : (2004)
(c) One photon of energy 10.2 eV and an electron of energy
(a) 6000 (b) 9000 1.4 eV
(c) 3000 (d) 24000 (d) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and another photon of
27. The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic energy of a energy 1.4 eV
proton. The energy of the photon is E. Let 1 be the de- 32. K wavelength emitted by an atom of atomic number Z = 11
Broglie wavelength of the proton and 2 be the wavelength is . Find the atomic number for an atom that emits K
1 radiation with wavelength 4 (2005)
of the photon. The ratio is proportional to (2004) (a) Z = 6 (b) Z = 4
2
0 1/2 (c) Z = 11 (d) Z = 44
(a) E (b) E
–1 –2 33. A beam of electron is used in an YDSE experiement. The slit
(c) E (d) E
width is d. When the velocity of electron is increased, then
28. The figure show the variation of photocurrent with anode
(a) no interference is observed (2005)
potential for a photosensitive surface for three different
radiations. Let Ia, Ib and Ic be the intensities and fa, fb and fc (b) fringe width increases
be the frequencies for the curves a, b and c respectively (c) fringe width decreases
(2004) (d) fringe width remains same.
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MODERN PHYSICS 78
34. If a star can convert all the He nuclei completely into oxygen Match the Column
nuclei. The energy released per oxygen nuclei is : 40. Some laws/process are given in Column I. Match these with
(Mass of the helium nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of the physical phenomena given in Column II. (2006)
oxygen nucleus is 15.9994 amu) (2005) Column I Column II
(a) 7.6 MeV (b) 56.12 MeV
(A) Nuclear fusion (P) Converts some matter into
(c) 10.24 MeV (d) 23.4 MeV energy
35. X-rays are incident on a target metal atom having 30 neutrons.
(B) Nuclear fission (Q) Generally possible for nuclei
1/3
The ratio of atomic radius of the target atom and 42 He is (14) .
with low atomic number
(a) Find the mass number of target atom. (2005) (C) -decay (R) Generally possible for nuclei
(b) Find the frequency of K line emitted by this metal.
7 –1 8
with higher atomic number
(R = 1.1 × 10 m , c =3 × 10 m/s)
th
(D) Exothermic nuclear (S) Essentially proceeds by weak
36. If the wavelength of the n line of Lyman series is equal to
reaction nuclear forces
the de-Broglie wavelength of electron in initial orbit of a
hydrogen like element (Z = 11). Find the value of n. 41. The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the
hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. The smallest wavelength in
(2005)
the infrared region of the hydrogen spectrum (to the nearest
37. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given by integer) is (2007)
(a) 802 nm (b) 823 nm
Vx = E 0forfor0xx11
0
(c) 1882 nm (d) 1648 nm
If the total energy of the particle is 3E0, determine the ratio 42. In the options given below, let E denote the rest mass
of de-Broglie wavelengths in the two ranges of x mentioned energy of a nucleus and n a neutron. The correct option is
above. (2005) (2007)
38. Half-life of a radioactive substance A is 4 days. The
probability that a nucleus will decay in two half-lives is :
(a) E 236
92
U >E 137
53
I +E 97
39
Y + 2E (n)
1 3 (b) E 236
92
U <E 137
53
I +E 97
39
Y + 2E (n)
(a) (b) (2006)
4 4
(c) E 236
92
U <E 140
56
Ba + E 94
36
Kr + 2E (n)
1
(c) (d) 1
2 (d) E 236
92
U =E 140
56
Ba + E 94
36
Kr + 2E (n)
39. The graph between 1/ and stopping potential (V) of three 43. Electrons with de-Broglie wavelength fall on the target in
metals having work functions 1, 2 and 3 in an experiment an X-ray tube. The cut-off wavelength of the emitted X-ray
of photoelectric effect is plotted as shown in the figure. is (2007)
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? (Here
is the wavelength of the incident ray). (2006) 2mc 2 2h
(a) 0 (b) 0
h mc
2m 2 c 2 2
(c) 0 (d) 0 =
h2
ASSERTION REASON
(a) Ratio of work functions 1 : 2 : 3 = 1 : 2 : 4 (A) If Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true; Statement-II is
(b) Ratio of work functions 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 : 2 : 1 the correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) tan is directly proportional to hc/e, where h is Plank’s (B) If Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true; Statement-II is
constant and c is the speed of light. not a correct explanation for Statement-I.
(d) The violet colour light can eject photoelectrons from (C) If Statement I is true; Statement-II is false.
metals 2 and 3. (D) If Statement-I is false; Statement-II is true.
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MODERN PHYSICS 79
44. Statement-1 : If the accelerating potential in an X-ray tube (c) If the intensity of light falling on slit 1 is reduced so that
is increased, the wavelengths of the characteristic X-ray do it becomes equal to that of slit 2, the intensities of the
not change. observed dark and bright fringes will increase.
Statement-2 : When an electron beam strikes the target in (d) If the intensity of light falling on slit 2 is increased so
an X-ray tube, part of the kinetic energy is converted into that it becomes equal to that of slit 1, the intensities of
X-ray energy. (2007) the observed dark and bright fringes will increase.
(a) A (b) B 49. Assume that the nuclear binding energy per nucleon (B/A)
(c) C (d) D versus mass number is as shown in the figure. Use this plot
45. Some laws/processes are given in Column I. Match these to choose the correct choice (s) given below. (2008)
with the physical phenomena given in Column II (2007) B/A
Column I Column II 8
(A) Transition between (P) Characteristic X-rays 6
4
two atomic energy levels
2
(B) Electron emission from (Q) Photoelectric effect 0 A
a material 100 200
(a) Fusion of two nuclei with mass numbers lying in the
(C) Mosley’s law (R) Hydrogen spectrum
range of 1 < A < 50 will release energy
(D) Change of photon (S) -decay
(b) Fusion of two nuclei with mass numbers lying in the
energy into kinetic energy range of 51 < A < 100 will release energy
of electrons (c) Fission of a nucleus lying in the mass number range of
46. Which one of the following statements is Wrong in the 100 < A < 200 will release energy when broken into equal
context of X-rays generated from a X-ray tube ? (2008) fragments
(a) Wavelength of characteristic X-ray decreases when the (d) Fission of a nucleus lying in the mass number range of
atomic number of the target increases. 200 < A < 260 will release energy when broken into equal
(b) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends fragments.
on the atomic number of the target Passage Type Questions
(c) Intensity of the characteristic X-rays depends on the Using the following, solve Q.50 to Q. 52
electric power given to the X-rays tube + +
In a mixture of H – He gas (He is singly ionized He atom),
+
(d) Cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-rays depends H atoms and He ions are excited to their respective first
on the energy of the electrons in the X-ray tube. excited states. Subsequently, H atoms transfer their total
+
47. A radioactive sample S1 having an activity of 5 Ci has twice excitation energy to He ions (by collisions). Assume that
the number of nuclei as another sample S2 which has an the Bohr model of atom is exactly valid.
+
activity 10 Ci. The half lives of S1 and S2 can be (2008) 50. The quantum number n of the state finally populated in He
(a) 20 years and 5 years, respectively ions is (2008)
(b) 20 years and 10 years, respectively (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 10 years each (c) 4 (d) 5
+
(d) 5 years each 51. The wavelength of light emitted in the visible region by He
ions after collisions with H atoms is (2008)
48. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between –7 –7
the two slits is d and the wavelenght of the light . The (a) 6.5 × 10 m (b) 5.6 × 10 m
–7 –7
intensity of light falling on slit 1 is four times the intensity of (c) 4.8 × 10 m (d) 4.0 × 10 m
light falling on slit 2. Choose the correct choice(s). (2008) 52. The ratio of the kinetic energy of the n = 2 electron for the H
+
(a) If d = , the screen will contain only one maximum atom to that of He ion is : (2008)
(b) If < d < 2, at least one more maximum (besides the (a) 1/4 (b) 1/2
central maximum) will be observed on the screen (c) 1 (d) 2
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MODERN PHYSICS 80
53. Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using three 56. The speed of the particle, that can take discrete values is
different metal plates p, q, and r having work function p = proportional to
2.0 eV. q = 2.5 eV and r = 3.0 eV, respectively. A light beam (a) n
–3/2
(b) n
–1
containing wavelengths of 550 nm, 450 nm and 350 nm with 1/2
equal intensities illuminates each of the plates. The correct (c) n (d) n
I-V graph for the experiment is (2009) Passage Type Questions
Using the following, solve Q.57 to Q. 59
Scientists are working hard to develop nuclear fusion reactor.
2
Nuclei of heavy hydrogen, 1H, known as deuteron and
(a) (b) denoted by D, can be thought of as a candidate for fusion
reactor. The D-D reaction is 12 H 12 H 32 He n energy..
In the core of fusion reactor, a gas of heavy hydrogen is
fully ionized into deuteron nuclei and electrons. This
collection of 12 H nuclei and electrons is known as plasma.
(c) (d) The nuclei move randomly in the reactor core and
occasionally come close enough for nuclear fusion to take
place. Usually, the temperatures in the reactor core are too
Passage Type Questions high and no material wall can be used to confine the plasma.
Using the following, solve Q.54 to Q. 56 Special techniques are used to confine the plasma for a time
When a particle is restricted to move along x-axis between t0 before the particles fly away from the core. If n is the density
x = 0 and x = a, where a is of nanometre dimension, its energy (number/volume) of deuterons, the product nt0 is called
can take only certain specific values. The allowed energies Lawson number. In one of the criteria, a reactor is termed
14 3
of the particle moving in such a restricted region, correspond successful if Lawson number is greater than 5 × 10 s/cm .
to the formation of standing waves with nodes at its ends It may be helpful to use the following : Boltzmann constant
x = 0 and x = a. The wavelength of this standing wave is
e2
related to the linear momentum p of the particle according to –5
k = 8.6 × 10 eV/k ;
–9
= 1.44 × 10 eVm. (2009)
the de Broglie relation. The energy of the particle of mass m 40
p2 57. In the core of nuclear fusion reactor, the gas becomes plasma
is related to its linear momentum as E = . Thus, the because of
2m
energy of the particle can be denoted by a quantum number (a) strong nuclear force acting between the deuterons
‘n’ taking values 1, 2, 3, .... (n = 1, called the ground state) (b) Coulomb force acting between the deuterons
corresponding to the number of loops in the standing wave.
(c) Coulomb force acting between deuteron-electron pairs
Use the model described above to answer the following
(d) the high temperature maintained inside the reactor core.
three questions for a particle moving in the line x = 0 to x = a.
–34
Take h = 6.6 × 10 J s and e = 1.6 × 10 C.
–19
(2009) 58. Assume that two deuteron nuclei in the core of fusion reactor
at temperature T are moving towards each other, each with
54. The allowed energy for the particle for a particular value of
kinetic energy 1.5 kT, when the separation between them is
n is proportional to
large enough to neglect Coulomb potential energy. Also
–2 –3/2
(a) a (b) a neglect any interaction from other particles in the core. The
–1 2
(c) a (d) a minimum temperature T required for them to reach a
–15
–30 separation of 4 × 10 m is in the range
55. If the mass of the particle is m = 1.0 × 10 kg and a = 6.6 nm,
9 9
the energy of the particle in its ground state is closest to (a) 1.0 × 10 K < T < 2.0 × 10 K
9 9
(a) 0.8 meV (b) 8 meV (b) 2.0 × 10 K < T < 3.0 × 10 K
9 9
(c) 80 meV (d) 800 meV (c) 3.0 × 10 K < T < 4.0 × 10 K
9 9
(d) 4.0 × 10 K < T < 5.0 × 10 K
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MODERN PHYSICS 81
59. Results of calculations for four different designs of a fusion
reactor using D-D reaction are given below. Which of these h2 2 h
2
n
(c) 2 (d) n 2
is most promising based on Lawson criterion ? 8 I 8 I
12 –3
(a) deuteron density = 2.0 × 10 cm , confinement time
–3 63. It is found that the excitation frequency from ground to the
= 5.0 × 10 s
first excited state of rotation for the CO molecule is close to
14 –3
(b) deuteron density = 8.0 × 10 cm , confinement time
–1 4
= 9.0 × 10 s 11
× 10 Hz. Then the moment of inertia of CO molecule
23 –3
(c) deuteron density = 4.0 × 10 cm , confinement time = –34
–11
1.0 × 10 s about its centre of mass is close to (Take h = 2 × 10 Js)
–46 2 –46 2
24 –3
(d) deuteron density = 1.0 × 10 cm , confinement time (a) 2.76 × 10 kg m (b) 1.87 × 10 kg m
–12 –47 2 –47 2
=4.0 × 10 s (c) 4.67 × 10 kg m (d) 1.17 × 10 kg m
60. An -particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a 64. In a CO molecule, the distance between C (mass = 12 a.m.u)
potential difference of 100 V. After this, their de Broglie
5 –27
and O (mass = 16 a.m.u.), where 1 a.m.u. = × 10 kg, is
p 3
wavelengths are and p respectively. The ratio , to the
close to
–10 –10
nearest integer, is (2010) (a) 2.4 × 10 m (b) 1.9 × 10 m
–10 –11
61. To determine the half life of radioactive element, a student (c) 1.3 × 10 m (d) 4.4 × 10 m
10
dN (t) 65. The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive sample is 10
dN (t) –9
plots a graph of ln versus t. Here is the rate disintegrations per second, whose mean life is 10 s. The
dt dt –25
mass of an atom of this radioisotope is 10 kg. The mass
of radioactive decay at time t. If the number of radioactive (in mg) of the radioactive sample is (2011)
nuclei of this element decreases by a factor of p after 4.16
66. A silver sphere of radius 1 cm and work function 4.7 eV is
years, find the value of p. (2010)
supspended from an insulating thread in free space. It is
under continuous illumination of 200 nm wavelength light.
6 As photoelectrons are emitted, the sphere gets charged and
5
acquires a potential. The maximum number of photoelectrons
Z
emitted from the sphere is A × 10 (where 1 < A < 10). The
4
value of Z is (2011)
3
67. A proton is fired from very far away towards a nucleus with
2
charge Q = 120 e, where e is the electronic charge. It makes
1 a closest approach of 10 fm to the the nucleus. The de-
2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Years
Broglie wavelength (in units of fm) of the proton at its start
–27 –
is [Take the proton mass, mp = (5/3) × 10 kg; h/e = 4.2 × 10
Passage Type Questions 15
1 9 –15
J-s/C; 4 = 9 × 10 m/F; 1 fm = 10 m] (2012)
Using the following, solve Q.62 to Q. 64 0
The key feature of Bohr’s theory of spectrum of hydrogen Passage Type Questions
atom is the quantization of angular momentum when an Using the following, solve Q.68 to Q. 69
electron is revolving around a proton. We will extend this to
a general rotational motion to find quantized rotational The -decay process, discovered around 1900, is basically
energy of a diatomic molecule assuming it to be rigid. The the decay of a neutron (n). In the laboratory, a proton (p)
–
rule to be applied is Bohr’s quantization condition. (2010) and the electron (e ) are observed as the decay products of
the neutron. Therefore, considering the decay of a neutron
62. A diatomic molecule has moment of interia I. By Bohr’s
th as a two-body decay process, it was predicted theoretically
quantization condition its rotational energy in the n level
that the kinetic energy of the electron should be a constant.
(n = 0 is not allowed) is
But experimentally, it was observed that the electron kinetic
energy has a continuous spectrum. Considering a three
1 h2 1 h2
(a) 2 2 (b) n 2
n 8 I 8 I
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MODERN PHYSICS 82
–
decays process, i.e., n p + e + ve , around 1930, Pauli
9 9
explained the observed electron energy spectrum. Assuming (a) 32 R (b) 16 R
the anti-neutrino ( ve ) to be massless and possessing
negligible energy, and the neutron to be at rest, momentum 9 4
and energy conservation principles are applied. From this (c) 5R (d) 3R
calculation, the maximum kinetic energy of the electron is
6
0.8 × 10 eV. The kinetic energy carried by the proton is only 72. A freshly prepared sample of a radioisotope of half-life 1386
3
the recoil energy. (2012) s has activity 10 disintegrations per second. Given that ln
68. If the anti-neutrion had a mass of 3 eV/c (where c is the
2 2 = 0.693, the fraction of the initial number of nuclei
speed of light) instead of zero mass, what should be the (expressed in nearest integrer percentage) that will decay in
range of the kinetic energy K, of the electron ? the first 80 s after preparation of the sample is (2013)
6
(a) 0 < K < 0.8 × 10 eV Passage Type Questions
6
(b) 3.0 eV < K < 0.8 × 10 eV Using the following, solve Q.73 to Q. 74
6
(c) 3.0 eV < K < 0.8 × 10 eV The mass of a nucleus A
is less that the sum of the masses
ZX
6
(d) 0 < K < 0.8 × 10 eV of (A – Z) number of neutrons and Z number of protons in
69. What is the maximum energy of the anti-neutrino ? the nucleus. The energy equivalent to the corresponding
(a) Zero (b) Much less than 0.8 × 10 eV
6 mass difference is know as the binding energy of the nucleus.
6 A heavy nucleus of mass M can break into two light nuclei
(c) Nearly 0.8 × 10 eV (d) Much larger than 0.8×106 eV
of masses m1 and m2 only if (m1 + m2) < M. Also two light
70. Match List I of the nuclear process with List II containing nuclei of mass m3 and m4 can undergo complete fusion and
parent nucleus and one of the end products of each process form a heavy nucleus of mass M’ only if (m3 + m4) > M’. The
and then select the correct answer using the codes given masses of some neutral atoms are given in the table below :
below the lists. (2013)
1 2
1H 1.007825 u 1H 2.014102 u
List I List II
15 6 7
P. Alpha decay 1. 8 O 17
7 N ... 3 Li 6.01513 u 3 Li 7.016004 u
152 206
+ 238
234 64 Gd 151.919803 u 82 Pb 205.974455 u
Q. decay 2. 92 U 90 Th ...
3 4
185 1H 3.016050 u 2 He 4.002603 u
R. Fission 3. 83 Bi 184
82 Pb ...
70 82
239 30 Zn 69.925325 u 34 Se 81.916709 u
S. Proton emission 4. 94 Pu 140
57 La ...
209 210
Code : 83 Bi 208.980388 u 84 Po 209.982876 u
P Q R S 73. The correct statement is : (2013)
(a) 4 2 1 3
(a) the nucleus 63 Li can emit and alpha particle
(b) 1 3 2 4
210
(c) 2 1 4 3 (b) The nucleus 84 Po can emit a proton
(d) 4 3 2 1 (c) Deuteron and alpha particle can undergo complete fusion
71. The radius of the orbit of an electon in a Hydrogen-like 70 82
atom is 4.5 a0 where a0 is the Bohr radius. Its orbital angular (d) The nuclei 30 Zn and 34 Se can undergo complete fusion
3h 74. The kinetic energy (in KeV) of the alpha particle, when the
momentum is . It is given that h is Planck constant and 210
2 nucleus 84 Po at rest undergoes alpha decay, is (2013)
R is Rydberg constant. The possible wavelength(s), when
(a) 5319 (b) 5422
the atom de-excites, is (are) (2013)
(c) 5707 (d) 5818
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MODERN PHYSICS 83
75. If Cu is the wavelength of K X-ray line of copper (atomic
number 29) and Mo is the wavelength of the
K X-ray line of molybdenum (atomic number 42), then the
ratio Cu/Mo is close to (2014) (c) (d)
(a) 1.99 (b) 2.14
(c) 0.50 (d) 0.48 80. A nuclear power plant supplying electrical power to a village
76. A metal surface is illuminated by light of two different uses a radioactive material of half life T years as the fuel.
wavelengths 248 nm and 310 nm. The maximum speeds of The amount of fuel at the beginning is such that the total
the photoelectrons corresponding to these wavelengths power requirement of the village is 12.5% of the electrical
are u1 and u2 respectively. If the ratio u1:u2 =2:1 and hc = power available from the plant at the time. If the plant is
1240 eV nm, the work function of the metal is nearly (2014) able to meet the total power needs of the village for a
maximum period of nT years, then the value of n is (2015)
(a) 3.7 eV (b) 3.2 eV
81. Consider a hydrogen atom with its electron in the nth orbital.
(c) 2.8 eV (d) 2.5 eV
An electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 90 nm is used
77. A fission reaction is given by to ionize the atom. If the kinetic energy of the ejected
236 140 94 electron is 10.4 eV, then the value of n is (hc = 1242 eV nm)
92 U 54 Xe 38Sr x y, where x and y are two
(2015)
236 82. For a radioactive material, its activity A and rate of change
particles. Considering 92 U to be at rest, the kinetic
energies of the products are denoted by KXe, KSr, Kx (2 dN dA
of its activity R are defined as A and R ,
MeV) and Ky (2 MeV), respectively. Let the binding dt dt
236 140 94 where N(t) is the number of nuclei at time t. Two radioactive
energies per nucleon of 92 U, 54 Xe and 38 Sr be 7.5
sources P(mean life ) and Q(means life 2) have the same
MeV, 8.5 MeV and 8.5 MeV, respectively. Considering activity att = 0. Their rates of change of activities at t = 2
different conservation laws, the correct option(s) is(are)
RP n
(2015) are RP and RQ, respectively. If R e , then the value of
Q
(a) x = n, y = n, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV
n is (2015)
(b) x = p, y = e, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV
83. Match the nuclear process given in column I with the
(c) x = p, y = n, KSr = 129 MeV, KXe = 86 MeV
appropriate option(s) in column II. (2015)
(d) x = n, y = n, KSr = 86 MeV, KXe = 129 MeV
Column–I Column–II
78. Planck’s constant h, speed of light c and gravitational
(A) Nuclear fusion (P) Absorption of thermal
constant G are used to form a unit of length L and a unit of
mass M. Then the correct option(s) is (are) (2015) 235
neutrons by 92 U
(a) M c (b) M G
60
(B) Fission in a nuclear (Q) 27 Co nucleus
(c) L h (d) L G
reactor
79. For photo-electric effect with incident photon wavelength (C) decay (R) Energy production in
, the stopping potential is V 0. Identify the correct stars via hydrogen
variation(s) of V0 with and 1/. (2015)
conversion to helium
(D) ray emission (S) Heavy Water
(T) Neutrino emission
(a) (b)
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MODERN PHYSICS 84
84. An accident in a nuclear laboratory resulted in deposition (a) e increases at the same rate as ph for ph < hc/
of a certain amount of radioactive material of half-life 18
(b) For large potential difference (V >> /e), e is
days inside the laboratory. Tests revealed that the
approximately halved if V is made four times
radiation was 64 times more than the permissible level
required for safe operation of the laboratory. What is the (c) e is approximately halved, if d is doubled
minimum number of days after which the laboratory can (d) e decreases with increase in and ph
be considered safe for use? (2016) 87. In a historical experiment to determine Planck’s constant,
(a) 64 (b) 90 a metal surface was irradiated with light of different
(c) 108 (d) 120 wavelengths. The emitted photoelectron energies were
measured by applying a stopping potential. The relevant
85. The electrostatic energy of Z protons uniformly
data for the wavelength () of incident light and the
distributed throughout a spherical nucleus of radius R is
corresponding stopping potential (V0) are given below :
given by
(µm) V0 (Volt)
2
3Z(Z 1)e 0.3 2.0
E
5 4 0 R 0.4 1.0
15
0.5 0.4
The measured masses of the neutron, 11 H , 15
7
N and 8
O
Given that c = 3 × 10 m s and e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, Planck’s
8 –1
are 1.008665 u, 1.007825 u, 15.000109 u and 15.003065 u, constant (in units of J s) found from such an experiment
15 is (2016)
respectively. Given that the radii of both the 7
N and
(a) 6.0 × 10–34 (b) 6.4 × 10–34
15
8
O nuclei are same, 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c (c is the speed of
2
(c) 6.6 × 10–34 (d) 6.8 × 10–34
2
light) and e /(4 0) = 1.44 MeV fm. Assuming that the 88. Highly excited states for hydrogen-like atoms (also called
15 15
difference between the binding energies of N and O Rydberg states) with nuclear charge Ze are defined by their
7 8
principal quantum number n, where n>>1. Which of the
is purely due to the electrostatic energy. The radius of
following statement(s) is (are) true? (2016)
either of the nuclei is
(a) Relative change in the radii of two consecutive orbitals
(1 fm = 10–15m) (2016)
does not depend on Z
(a) 2.85 fm (b) 3.03 fm
(b) Relative change in the radii of two consecutive orbitals
(c) 3.42 fm (d) 3.80 fm varies as 1/n
86. Light of wavelength ph falls on a cathode plate inside a (c) Relative change in the energy of two consecutive
vacuum tube as shown in the figure. The work function orbitals varies as 1/n3
of the cathode surface is and the anode is a wire mesh of
(d) Relative change in the angular momenta of two
conducting material kept at a distance d from the cathode.
consecutive orbitals varies as 1/n
A potential difference V is maintained between the
electrodes. If the minimum de Broglie wavelength of the 89. The isotope 12
having a mass 12.014 u undergoes -
5 B
electrons passing through the anode is e, which of the
12 12
following statement(s) is(are) true? (2016) decay to 6 C. 6 C has an excited state of the nucleus
( 12 * 12
6 C ) at 4.041 MeV above its ground state. If 5 B decays
12 *
to 6 C , the maximum kinetic energy of the -particle in
units of MeV is (1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2, where c is the speed of
light in vacuum). (2016)
90. A hydrogen atom in its ground state is irradiated by light
of wavelength 970 Å. Taking hc/e = 1.237 × 10–6 eV m and
the ground state energy of hydrogen atom as –13.6 eV,
The number of lines present in the emission spectrum is
(2016)
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MODERN PHYSICS 85
91. A photoelectric material having work-function 0 is 95. In a photoelectric experiment a parallel beam of
monochromatic light with power of 200 W is incident on a
hc perfectly absorbing cathode of work function 6.25 eV. The
illuminated with lightof wavelength . The
0 frequency of light is just above the threshold frequency so
that the photoelectrons are emitted with negligible kinetic
fastest photoelectron has a de Broglie wavelength d . A energy. Assume that the photoelectron emission efficiency
change in wavelength of the incident light by results in is 100%. A potential difference of 500 V is applied between
the cathode and the anode. All the emitted electrons are
d incident normally on the anode and are absorbed. The anode
a change d. Then the ratio is proportional to :
experiences a force F = n × 10–4 N due to the impact of the
(2017) electrons. The value of n is ............ (2018)
96. Consider a hydrogen-like ionized atom with atomic number
3d 3d Z with a single electron. In the emission spectrum of this
(a) (b)
2 atom, the photon emitted in the n = 2 to n = 1 transition has
energy 74. eV higher than the photon emitted in the n = 3 to
2d d n = 2 transition. The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom
(c) 2
(d) is 13.6 eV. The value of Z is ........... (2018)
40
92. An electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition 97. In a radioactive sample, 19 K nuclei either decay into stable
40
from an orbit with quantum number ni to another with 20 Ca nuclei with decay constant 4.5 × 10-10 per year or into
40
quantum number n f · Vi and V f are respectively the stable 18 Ar nuclei with decay constant 0.5 × 10-10 per year..
40 40
initial and final potential energies of the electron. If Given that in this sample all the stable 20 Ca and 18 Ar nuclei
40
Vi are produced by the 19 K nuclei only. In time t × 109 years, if
6.25 , then the smallest possible n is (2017)
Vf f
the ratio of the sum of stable 40
Ca and 40
nuclei to the
20 18 Ar
131
93. I is an isotope of Iodine that decays to an isotope of radioactive 40
nuclei is 99, the value of t will be. [Given ln
19 K
Xenon with a half-life of 8 days. A small amount of a serum
10 = 2.3] (2019)
labelled with 131I is injected into the blood of a person. The
activity of the amount of I injected was 2.4 105
131 (a) 9.2 (b) 1.15
Becquerel (Bq). It is known that the injected serum will get (c) 4.6 (d) 2.3
distributed uniformly in the blood stream in less than half 98. A free hydrogen atom after absorbing a photon of
an hour. After 11.5 hours, 2.5 ml of blood is drawn from the
person’s body, and gives an activity of 115 Bq. The total wavelength λa gets excited from the state n = 1 to the state
volume of blood in the person’s body, in liters is n = 4. Immediately after that the electron jumps to n = m
approximately (you may use e x 1 x for x 1 and state by emitting a photon of wavelength λ e . Let the change
in momentum of atom due to the absorption and the emission
2 0.7 ). (2017)
λa
are Δpa and Δpe respectively. If =1/5, which of the
232 λe
94. In a radioactive decay chain 90 Th nucleus decays to
option(s) is/are correct?
212
82 Pb nucleus. Let N and N be the number of and – [Use hc=1242 eV nm; 1nm=10-9 m, h and c are Planck’s
particles, respectively, emitted in this decay process. Which constant and speed of light respectively] (2019)
of the following statements is(are) true : (2018) (a) The ratio of kinetic energy of the electron in the state n
(a) N = 5 (b) N = 6 = m to the state n = 1 is 1/4
(b) m = 2
(c) N = 2 (d) N = 4 Δp a
(c) 1 2
Δp e
(d) λe 418nm
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99. A particle of mass m moves in circular orbits with potential (b) There is an overlap between the wavelength ranges
energy V (r) = Fr, where F is a positive constant and r is its of Balmer and Paschen series
distance from the origin. Its energies are calculated using (c) The wavelengths of Lyman series are given by
the Bohr model. If the radius of the particle’s orbit is denoted
by R and its speed and energy are denoted by v and E, 1
1 2 0 , where 0 is the shortest wavelength of
respectively, then for the n th orbit (here h is the Planck’s m
constant) - (2020) Lyman series and m is an integer
(a) R n 1/3 2/3 (d) The wavelength ranges of Lyman and Balmer series
and v n
do not overlap (2021)
(b) R n 2/3 and v n1/3
103. An particle (mass 4 amu) and a singly charged sulfur
1/3 ion (mass 32 amu) are initially at rest. They are accelerated
3 n 2 h 2 F2
(c) E through a potential V and then allowed to pass into a
2 42 m
region of uniform magnetic field which is normal to the
1/3 velocities of the particles. Within the region, the
n 2 h 2 F2
(d) E 2 particle and the sulfur ion move in circular orbits of
4 2 m
radii r and rS, respectively. The ratio (rS / r ) is ______.
100. In an X-ray tube, electrons emitted from a filament (cathode)
(2021)
carrying I current I hit a target (anode) at a distance d from
the cathode. The target is kept at a potential V higher than 104. A heavy nucleus N, at rest undergoes fission N P + Q,
the cathode resulting in emission of continuous and where P and Q are two ligher nuclei. Let
characteristic X-rays. If the filament current I is decreased to M N M P M Q , where MP, MQ and MN are the masses
1 of P Q and N, respectively. The speeds of P and Q are vP
, the potential difference V is increased to 2V and the and vQ, respectively. If c is the speed of light, which of the
2
following statement(s) is(are) correct? (2021)
d
separation distance , is reduced to then (2020) (a) EP E Q c2
2
(a) the cut-off wavelength will reduce to half, and the
MP 2
wavelengths of the characteristic X-rays will remain the (b) E P c
same M P MQ
(b) the cut-off wavelength as well as the wavelengths of the
characteristic X-rays will remain the same vP MQ
(c) v M
(c) the cut-off wavelength will reduce to half, and the Q P
intensities of all the X-rays will decrease
(d) The magnitude of momentum for P as well as Q is
(d) the cut-off wavelength will become two times larger, and
the intensity of all the X-rays will decrease M P MQ
c 2µ , where µ = (M M )
101. A heavy nucleus Q of half-life 20 minutes undergoes alpha- P Q
decay with probability of 60% and beta-decay with
probability of 40%. Initially, the number of Q nuclei is 105. In a photoemission experiment, the maximum kinetic
1000. The number of alpha-decays of Q in the first one energies of photoelectrons from metals P, Q and R are EP,
hour is (2021) EQ and ER, respectively, and they are related by EP = 2EQ
= 2ER. In this experiment, the same source of monochromatic
(a) 50 (b) 75 light is used for metals P and Q while a different source of
(c) 350 (d) 525 monochromatic light is used for the metal R. The work
102. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct functions for metals P, Q and R are 4.0 eV, 4.5eV and 5.5eV,
about the spectrum of hydrogen atom? respectively. The energy of the incident photon used for
metal R, in eV, is ________. (2021)
(a) The ratio of the longest wavelength to the shortest
wavelength in Balmer series is 9/5
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM
SEMICONDUCTORS
1. SEMICONDUCTORS 1.3 Band theory
In case of a single isolated atom, there are single energy
1.1 Introduction to Semiconductor Materials levels in case of solids, the atoms are arranged in a systematic
When the electrons are liberated on breaking the covalent space lattice and hence the atom are greatly influenced by
bonds, they move randomly through the crystal lattice. neighbouring atoms. The closeness of atoms results in the
When an electric field is applied, these free electrons have a intermixing of electrons of neighbouring atoms of course, for
steady drift opposite to the direction of applied field. This the valence electrons in the outermost shells which are not
constitute the electric current. When a covalent bond is strongly bounded by nucleus. Due to intermixing the number
broken, a hole is created. For one electron set free, one hole of permissible energy levels increases or there are significant
is created. Thus, thermal energy creates an electron-hole changes in the energy levels. Hence in case of a solid, instead
pairs. of single energy levels associated with the single atom, there
will be bands of energy levels.
Hence, there are as many holes as free electrons. These
holes move through the crystal lattice in a random fashion 1.4 Valence Band, Conduction Band & Forbidden Energy Gap
like liberated electrons. When an external electric field is The band formed by a series of energy levels containing the
applied, the holes drift in the direction of applied field. Thus valence electrons is known as valence band. The valence
they constitute electric current. band may be defined as a band which is occupied by the
There is a strong tendency of semiconductor crystal to form valence electrons or a band having highest occupied band
a covalent bonds. Therefore, a hole attracts an electron from energy.
the neighbouring atom. Now a valence electron from nearby The conduction band may also be defined as the lowest
covalent bond comes to fill in the hole at A. This results in a unfilled energy band. The separation between conduction
creation of hole at B. The hole has thus effectively shifted band and valence band is known as forbidden energy gap.
from A to B. This hole moves from B to C from C to D and so There is no allowed energy state in this gap and hence no
on. electron can stay in the forbidden energy gap.
This movement of the hole in the absence of an applied field 1.5 Insulators, Semiconductors and Conductors
is random. But when an electric field is applied, the hole On the basis of forbidden energy band, the insulators,
drifts along the applied field. semiconductors and conductors are described as follows:
1.2 Carrier Generation and Recombination 1.5.1 Insulators
The electrons and holes are generated in pairs. The free In case of insulators, the forbidden energy band is very wide,
electrons and holes move randomly within the crystal lattice. due to this electrons cannot jump from valence band to
In such a random motion, there is always a possibility that a conduction band. In insulators the valence electrons are
free electron may have an encounter with a hole. When a bounded very tightly to their parent atoms. So , if there is
free electron meets a hole, they recombine to re-establish the increase in temperature it enables some electrons to go into
covalent bond. In the process of recombination, both the the conduction band.
free electron and hole are destroyed and results in the release
As, energy required is very high, hence, electron jump is
of energy in the form of heat. The energy so released, may in
almost impossible.
turn be re-absorbed by another electron to break its covalent
bond. In this way a new electron hole pair is created.
Thus the process of breaking of covalent bonds and
recombination of electrons and holes take place
simultaneously. When the temperature is increased, the rate
of generation of electrons and holes. This is turn increases,
the densities of electrons and hole increases. As a result,
the conductivity of semiconductor increases or resistivity
decreases. This is the reason that semiconductors have
negative temperature coefficient of resistance. Fig. 11.1
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1.5.2 Semiconductors 1.6 Types of Semiconductors
In semiconductors, the forbidden band is very small.
Germanium and silicon are the examples of semiconductors.
A semiconductor material is one whose electrical properties
lies between insulators and good conductors. Even if small
amount of energy is supplied, the electrons can easily jump
from valence band to the conduction band. For example,
when the temperature is increased the forbidden band is
decreased so that some electrons are liberated into the
conduction band.
Hence, semiconducotrs behave as conductors at elevated
temperatures.
Fig. 11.4
1.6.1 Intrinsic semiconductor
A semiconductor which is pure and contains no impurity is
known as an intrinsic semiconductor. In an intrinsic
semiconductor, the number of free electrons and holes are
equal. Common examples of intrinsic semiconductors are pure
germanium and silicon.
1.6.2 Extrinsic Semiconductors
Fig. 11.2 Electrons and holes can be generated in a semiconductor
crystal with heat energy or light energy. But in these cases,
1.5.3 Conductors
the conductivity remains very low. The efficient and
In case of conductors, there is no forbidden energy gap convenient method of generating free electrons and holes is
also the valence energy gap and conduction band overlap to add a very small amount of selected impurity inside the
each other. Here plenty of free electrons are available for crystal. The impurity to be added is of the order of 100 ppm
electric conduction. A slight potential difference across the (parts per million). The process of addition of a very small
conductor can cause the free electrons to constitute electric amount of impurity into an intrinsic semiconductor is called
current. The most important point in conductors is that due doping. The impurity atoms are called dopants. The
to the absence of forbidden band, there is no structure to semiconductor containing impurity atoms is known as impure
establish holes. The total current in conductors is simply or doped or extrinsic semiconductor..
the flow of electrons.
The impurity atoms are added to the semiconductor in its
molten state.
The pure semiconductor is bombarded by ions of impurity
atoms. When the semiconductor crystal containing the
impurity atoms is heated, the impurity atoms diffuse into the
host crystal. Usually, the doping material is either pentavalent
atoms (bismuth, antimony, phosphorous, arsenic which has
five valence electrons). Trivalent atoms (aluminium, gallium,
indium, boron which have three valence electrons). The
pentavalent doping atom is known as donor atom since it
donates one electron to the conduction band of the pure
semiconductor. The trivalent atom is called an acceptor atom
Fig. 11.3 because it accepts one electron from the pure semiconductor
atom.
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N–Type Extrinsic Semiconductor
When a small amount of pentavalent impurity is added to a
pure semiconductor crystal during the crystal growth, the
resulting crystal is called as N-type extrinsic semiconductor.
In case of N-type semiconductor, the following points should
be remembered
(i) In N-type semiconductor, the electrons are the majority
charge carriers while positive holes are minority charge
carriers.
(ii) Although N-type semiconductor has excess of electrons Fig. 11.7
but it is electrically neutral. This is due to the fact that
electrons are created by the addition of neutral
pentavalent impurity atoms to the semiconductor i.e.,
there is no addition of either negative changes or positive
charges.
Fig. 11.8
1.6.3 Semiconductor Current
Current flow in a semiconductor arises from the motion of
charge carriers in both the conduction and valence bands.
The mobile charges in the conduction band are electrons
Fig. 11.5
and those in the valence band are holes. The current is in
general made up of two components, drift current and
diffusion current, although in certain instances one or other
of these two· components may predominate. Drift current
occurs in the presence of an electric field which, as a result of
the force it causes to act on each charge carrier, produces a
net motion of positively charged carriers in the same sense
as the field, and negatively charged carriers in the opposite
sense.
i ie ih n1e A vd 1 n 2 e Av d2
Fig. 11.6 1.6.4 Mobility
P–Type Extrinsic Semiconductor The term mobility in electronics refers to the ability to move.
When a small amount of trivalent impurity is added to a pure Mobility of electron In semiconductors gives the idea of the
crystal during the crystal growth, the resulting crystal is called movement of the electrons in the semiconductor materials. in
a P-type extrinsic semiconductor. this article, we are going to discuss the mobility of electro ns
and holes in the semiconductors and conductors.
In case of P-type semiconductor, the following points should
be remembered Formula of Mobility of charge carriers
(i) In P-type semiconductor materials, the majority carriers Let, after applying an external electric field E, the charge
are positive holes while minority carriers are the electrons. carriers get the drift velocity V. Then the formula for the
mobility of the charge carriers is mu = V/E
(ii) The P–type semiconductor remains electrically neutral
This is the formula of mobility of charges like free electrons,
as the number of mobile holes under all conditions
holes, ions, etc.
remains equal to the number of acceptors.
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Unit of Mobility ni = pi
The SI unit of drift velocity is m/s and the SI unit of the Simply,
electric field is V/m. ni : intrinsic carrier concentration, which refers to either the
Mobility of Electron in Semiconductor and Conductor intrinsic electron or hole concentration
Free electrons move in the conduction band. The mobility of Commonly accepted values of ni at T = 300°K
the electron is the drift velocity of the electron in presence of
10 –3
a unit amount of electric field. We can get the mobility of Silicon 1.5×10 cm
electrons both in conductors and semiconductors. The value 6 –3
Gallium arsenide 1.8×10 cm
of Electron mobility is different in different materials. 13 –3
Germanium 2.4×10 cm
2
Material Mobility of electron in cm /V.s b) Extrinsic Semiconductor
Metals (Al, Cu, Au, Ag) Oct-50
The doing process can greatly alter the electrical
Crystalline Sillicon 1400
characteristics of the semiconductor.
Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) 35000000
This doped semiconductor is called an extrinsic material.
Mobility of Holes in Semiconductor
n-Type Semiconductor (negatively charged electron by
As we all know , there is no hole in a conductor. So, hole adding donor)
mobility is applicable only for semiconductor. Mobility of
p-Type Semiconductor (positively charged hole by adding
holes is the ability of movement of holes in the semiconductor
acceptor)
in presence of an external electric field. The value of the
mobility of holes in crystalline silicon is 450 cm2/V.s c) Mass-Action Law
Mobility of free Electron greater than the Mobility of Hole n0 : thermal-equilibrium concentration of electron in extrensic
semiconductor
Holes are not physical objects. They are the absence of
electrons. So, the movement of holes is nothing but the p0 : thermal-equilibrium concentration of holes in extrensic
movement of electrons in the opposite direction. semiconductor
Now, free electrons move in the conduction band and the ni : concentration of charges in intrensic semiconductor
holes move in the valance band. The binding force of the n0p0 = n12 = f(T)
nucleus on free electrons is smaller than that on the holes (or
(function of temperature)
valence electrons) in the valence band as the valence band
as the valence band is closer to the nucleus. Hence, the free The product of n0 and p0 is always a constant for a given
electrons in the conduction band require a smaller electric semiconductor material at a given temperature.
field to move compared to the holes at the valence band.
Therefore, the mobility of free electrons in conduction band
is greater than that of holes at valence band. 2. P-N JUNCTION DIODE
1.6.5 Carrier Concentration 2.1 P-N Junction and Types of Junction Diodes
a) Intrinsic Semiconductors 2.1.1 P–N Junction Diode
-pure single-crystal material When a P-type material is intimately joined to N-type, a P-N
junction is formed. In fact, merely-joining the two pieces a P-
For an intrinsic semiconductor, the concentration of electrons N junction cannot be formed because the surface films and
in the conduction band is equal to the concentration of holes other irregularities produce major discontinuity in the crystal
in the valence band.
structure. Therefore a P-N junction is formed from a piece of
We may denote, semiconductor (say germanium) by diffusing P-type material
ni : intrinsic electron concentration to one half side and N-type material to other half side.When
P-type crystal is placed in contact with N-type crystal so as
pi : intrinsic hole concentration to form one piece, the assembly so obtained is called P-N
However, junction diode.
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Fig. 11.9
2.1.2 Types of Junction Diodes
Fig. 11.11
P-N Junction diode under forward Bias This condition represents the low resistance path through
the PN junction allowing very large currents to flow through
When a diode is connected in a forward bias condition, a
the diode with only a small increase in bias voltage. The
negative voltage is applied to the N-type material and a
actual potential difference across the junction or diode is
positive voltage is applied to the P-type material. If this
kept constant by the action of the depletion layer at approxi-
external voltage becomes greater than the value of the mately 0.3v for germanium and approximately 0.7v for silicon
potential barrier, approx. 0.7 volts for silicon and 0.3 volts for junction diodes.
germanium, the potential barriers opposition will be overcome
and current will start to flow. Since the diode can conduct “infinite” current above this
knee point as it effectively becomes a short circuit, therefore
This is because the negative voltage pushes or repels resistors are used in series with the diode to limit its current
electrons towards the junction giving them the energy to flow. Exceeding its maximum forward current specification
cross over and combine with the holes being pushed in the causes the device to dissipate more power in the form of heat
opposite direction towards the junction by the positive than it was designed for resulting in a very quick failure of
voltage. This results in a characteristics curve of zero current the device.
flowing up to this voltage point, called the “knee” on the Forward Characteristics Curve for a Junction Diode
static curves and then a high current flow through the diode
with little increase in the external voltage as shown below.
Reduction in the Depletion Layer due to Forward Bias
Fig. 11.12
The application of a forward biasing voltage on the junction
diode results in the depletion layer becoming very thin and
narrow which represents a low impedance path through the
junction thereby allowing high currents to flow. The point at
which this sudden increase in current takes place is
represented on the static I-V characteristics curve above as
Fig. 11.10 the “knee” point.
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P-N Junction diode under reverse Bias One final point, if the reverse bias voltage Vr applied to the
When a diode is connected in a Reverse Bias condition, a diode is increased to a sufficiently high enough value, it will
positive voltage is applied to the N-type material and a cause the diode’s PN junction to overheat and fail due to the
negative voltage is applied to the P-type material. avalanche effect around the junction. This may cause the
The positive voltage applied to the N-type material attracts diode to become shorted and will result in the flow of maximum
electrons towards the positive electrode and away from the circuit current, and this shown as a step downward slope in
junction, while the holes in the P-type end are also attracted the reverse static characteristics curve below.
away from the junction towards the negative electrode. Reverse Characteristics Curve for a Junction Diode
The net result is that the depletion layer grows wider due to
a lack of electrons and holes and presents a high impedance
path, almost an insulator and a high potential barrier is created
across the junction thus preventing current from flowing
through the semiconductor material.
Increase in the Depletion Layer due to Reverse Bias
Fig. 11.15
Sometimes this avalanche effect has practical applications in
voltage stabilising circuits where a series limiting resistor is
used with the diode to limit this reverse breakdown current
to a preset maximum value thereby producing a fixed voltage
output across the diode. These types of diodes are commonly
known as Zener Diodes.
Fig. 11.13 I-V Characterstic
Fig. 11.14
This condition represents a high resistance value to the PN
junction and practically zero current flows through the
junction diode with an increase in bias voltage. However, a
very small reverse leakage current does flow through the
junction which can normally be measured in micro-amperes,
( µA ). Fig. 11.16
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2.2 Diodes as Rectifiers Note:
An electronic device which converts a.c. power into d.c. Here Frequency of Output signal is equal to frequency of
power is called a rectifier. input signal
2.2.1 Half Wave Rectifier 2.2.2 Full Wave Rectifier
Principle A rectifier which rectifies both halves of a.c. input is called
full wave rectifier.
Junction diode offers low resistive path when forward biased
and high resistive path when reverse biased. Principle
Arrangement Junction Diode offers low resistive path when forward biased
and high resistive path when reverse biased.
The a.c. supply is fed across the primary coil (P) of step
down transformer. The secondary coil ‘S’ of transformer is Arrangement
connected to the junction diode and load resistance RL. The The a.c. supply is fed across the primary coil (P) of step
output d.c. voltage is obtained across RL. down transformer. The two ends of S–coil (secondary) of
Theory transformer are connected to P-section of junction diodes D1
and D2. A load resistance RL is connected across the n–
Suppose that during first half of a.c. input cycle the junction sections of two diodes and central tapping of secondary
diode get forward biased. The conventional current will flow coil. The d.c. output is obtained across secondary.
in the direction of arrow heads.
Theory
P N
Suppose that during first half of input cycle upper end of s-
coil is at +ve potential. The junction diode D1 gets forward
biased, while D2 gets reverse biased. The conventional
current due to D1 will flow along path of full arrows.
~
When second half of input cycle comes, the condition will
be exactly reversed. Now the junction diode D2 will conduct
and the conventional current will flow along path of dotted
arrows. Since current during both the half cycles flows from
right to left through load resistance RL, the output during
Fig. 11.17
both the half cycles will be of same nature.
The upper end of RL will be at +ve potential w.r.t. the lower
The right end of RL is at +ve potential w.r.t. left end. Thus in
end. The magnitude of output across RL during first half at
full wave rectifier, the output is continuous.
any instant will be proportional to magnitude of current
through RL, which in turn is proportional to magnitude of
forward bias and which ultimately depends upon the value
of a.c. input at that time.
A.C.
input
D.C.
input
Fig. 11.18
Thus output across RL will vary in accordance with a.c. input.
During second half, junction diode get reverse biased and
hence no output will be obtained. Thus a discontinuous
supply is obtained. Fig. 11.19
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Note: When no biasing is applied across the Zener diode, the
electrons accumulate in the valence band of the p-type
Here Frequency of Output signal is double to frequency
semiconductor material and no current flow occurs through
of input signal
the diode. The band in which the valence electrons are present
2.3 Special Purpose p-n Junction Diodes is called the valence band electron. When external energy is
applied across the valence band, the electrons get easily
In the section, we shall discuss some devices which are ba-
moved from one band to another.
sically junction diodes but are developed for different appli-
cations. When the reverse bias is applied across the diode and when
the Zener voltage is equal to that of the supplied voltage, the
2.3.1 Zener diode
diode starts conducting in the direction of reverse bias. The
A Zener diode is a semiconductor device which makes the Zener diode voltage is the particular voltage at which the
current flow in the forward or in the backward direction. The depletion region vanishes completely.
diode usually consists of a p-n junction which is heavily
The intensity of the electric field increases across the
doped. The diode is designed to conduct the flow of current
depletion region when the reverse bias is applied across the
in the reverse direction after reaching a specified voltage.
diode. Hence, the electrons are free to move from the valence
The Zener diode has a reverse-breakdown voltage at which band of the P-type semiconductor material to the conduction
the diode starts conductivity electric current, and remains band of the N-type semiconductor material. This movement
continuous in the reverse-bias mode. The voltage drop across of electrons decreases the barrier between p type and n type
the diode always remains constant irrespective of the applied materials. Once the depletion region vanishes completely,
voltage, and this feature of the Zener diode makes it suitable the diode starts conducting current in the reverse bias
for voltage regulation. direction.
Zener Diode Circuit Diagram VI Characteristics of Zener Diode
The VI characteristics of the Zener diode is described through
the graph, mentioned in the figure below. This shows that
the Zener diode behaves like an ordinary diode when it is
connected in forward bias. But when the reverse voltage is
applied across the Zener diode, such that the reverse voltage
rises beyond the predetermined rating, breakdown occurs
on the Zener diode.
The electric current starts to flow in the reverse direction at
the breakdown voltage of the Zener diode. The graph
represents that the Zener diode has resistance. Further, it is
shown that the graph of Zener breakdown is not exactly
vertical. The voltage across the Zener diode is represented
by the equation given by.
Fig. 11.20
The above figure is the circuit diagram of Zener diode. The V = VZ + IZRZ
Zener diode has its application in reverse biasing. In reverse
biasing the P-type material of the diode is connected with
the negative terminal of the supply, and the n-type material is
connected with the positive terminal of the supply. The diode
consists of a very thin depletion region as it is made up of
heavily doped semiconductor material.
Zener Diode Working
In a Zener diode, high-level impurities are added to the
semiconductor material to make it more conductive. Due to
the presence of these impurities, the depletion region of the
diode becomes very thin. The intensity of the electric field is
increased across the depletion region, due to heavy doping
even if a small voltage is applied. Fig. 11.21
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Applications of Zener Diode Photodiode
The major use of Zener diode is in industrial and commercial A Photodiode is again a special purpose p-n junction diode
applications. These are some of the important applications fabricated with a transparent window to allow light to fall on
of the Zener diode. the diode. It is operated under reverse bias. When the
photodiode is illuminated with light (photons) with energy
As Voltage Stabilizer – The Zener diode is used for voltage (hv) greater than the enrgy gap (Eg) of the semiconductor,
regulation. It converts the fluctuating voltage of the source
then electron-hole pairs are generated due to the absorption
to a constant voltage and supplies it to the load. The Zener
of photons. The diode is fabricated such that the generation
diode is always connected in parallel with the load, and it
maintains a constant voltage VZ, thus stabilizing the voltage. of e-h pairs takes place in or near the depletion region of the
diode. Due to electric field of the junction, electrons and
For Meter Protection – In multimeters, the Zener diode is holes are separated before they recombine. The direction of
used to control the movement of the meter against any the electric field is such that electrons reach n-side and holes
accidental overloads. The multimeter is connected in parallel reach p-side. Electrons are collected on n-side and holes are
with the Zener diode. When the overload occurs across the collected on p-side giving rise to an emf. When an external
diode, the major amount of current passes through the diode, load is connected, current flows. The magnitude of the
and in this way, the diode protects the meter from damage. photocurrent depends on the intensity of incident light
(photocurrent is proportional to incident light intensity).
For Wave Shaping – A sine wave is converted into a square
wave by using the Zener diode. This is done by connecting It is easter to observe the change in the current with change
two Zener Diodes in series with the resistance of the circuit. in the light intensity, if a reverse bias is applied. Thus photo-
It should be noted that the diode must be connected back to diode can be used as a photodetector to detect optical sig-
back and in the opposite direction to each other. nals. The circuit diagram used for the measurement of I-V
characteristics of a photodiode is shown in Fig. 11.22 and
Zener Breakdown typical I-V characteristics in Fig. 11.23
The Zener breakdown occurs either due to the Zener
breakdown effect which occurs when the voltage is below
5.5 V or due to the impact of ionization which occurs above
5.5 V. Both of these mechanisms occur in the same circuit.
However, they have different temperature coefficients.
The impact effect has a positive temperature coefficient, while
the Zener effect has a negative temperature coefficient. The
two temperature effects occur at an equal voltage of around
5.5V and cancel out each other, thus making the zener diode
operate at 5.5V.
2.4 Optoelectronic Junction Devices
Optoelectronic junction devices are p-n junction devices in Fig. 11.22
which, carriers are generated by photons. Photodiodes, light
emitting diodes (LEDs) and solar cells are examples of
optoelectronic devices.
(i) Photodiodes used for detecting optical signal
(photodetectors).
(ii) Light emitting diodes (LED) which convert electrical
energy into light.
(iii) Photovoltaic devices which convert optical radiation into
electricity (solar cells).
Fig. 11.23
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LED
A light-emitting diode (LED) is a semiconductor light source
that emits light when current flows through it. Electrons in
the semiconductor recombine with electron holes, releasing
energy in the form of photons. The color of the light
(corresponding to the energy of the photons) is determined
by the energy required for electrons to cross the band gap of
the semiconductor. White light is obtained by using multiple
semiconductors or a layer of light-emitting phosphor on the
semiconductor device.
Fig. 11.25
3. TRANSISTORS
3.1 Introduction to Transistors
It is three sectioned semiconductor, in which three sections
are combined so that the two at extreme ends have the same
type of majority carriers, while the section that separates
Fig. 11.24 them has the majority carriers in opposite nature. The three
LEDs have the following advantages over conventional sections of transistor are called emitter (E), Base (B), collector
incandescent low power lamps: (C).
(i) Low operational voltage and less power. Symbol :
(ii) Fast action and no warm-up time required. E n–p–n C E p–n–p C
(iii) The bandwidth of emitted light is 100 Å to 500 Å or in
other words it is nearly (but not exactly) monochromatic.
(iv) Long life and ruggedness.
–
(v) Fast on-off switching capability. B B
Solar Cell Fig. 11.26
A solar cell, or photovoltaic cell, is an electrical device that 3.2 Working of Transistors
converts the energy of light directly into electricity by the
photovoltaic effect, which is a physical and chemical Action of n-p-n Transistor
phenomenon. It is a form of photoelectric cell, defined as a
device whose electrical characteristics, such as current, n–p–n
voltage, or resistance, vary when exposed to light. Individual Ie E C Ic
solar cell devices are often the electrical building blocks of
photovoltaic modules, known colloquially as solar panels.
The common single junction silicon solar cell can produce a
maximum open-circuit voltage of approximately 0.5 volts to
0.6 volts. V EB VCB
B Ib
Solar cells are described as being photovoltaic, irrespective – + – +
of whether the source is sunlight or an artificial light. In addition forward bias reverse bias
to producing energy, they can be used as a photodetector
(for example infrared detectors), detecting light or other Fig. 11.27
electromagnetic radiation near the visible range, or measuring
Fig. shows that, the n-type emitter is forward biased by
light intensity.
connecting it to -ve pole of VEB (emmitter-base battery) and n-
The operation of a photovoltaic (PV) cell requires type collector is reverse biased by connected it to +ve pole
of VCB (collector-base battery).
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The majority carriers (e–) in emitter are repelled towards base Low input voltage is applied across emitter-base circuit. and
due to forward biase. The base contains holes as majority amplified signal is obtained across collector-base circuit. If
carriers but their number density is small as it is doped very Ie, Ib, Ic be the emitter, base and collector-current respectively
lightly (5%) as compared to emitter and collector. Due to this then,
the probability of e– and hole combination in base is small.
Most of e– (95%) cross into collector region where they are Ie I b Ic …(i)
swept away by +ve terminal of battery VCB.
When current Ic flows in collector circuit, a potential drop
Corresponding to each electron that is swept by collector, an IcRc occurs across the resistance connected in collector -
electron enters the emitter from -ve pole of collector – base base circuit and base collector voltage will be
battery.
If Ie, Ib, Ic be emitter, base and collector current respectively Vcb Vcc Ic R c …(ii)
then using Kirchoff first law
(b) Amplifier circuit using p–n–p Transistor
I e I b Ic
Action p–n–p Transistor
The p–type emitter is forward biased by connecting it to +ve
pole of emitter-base battery and p–type collector is reverse
biased by connected it to –ve pole of collector-base battery.
In this case, majority carriers in emitter i.e. holes are repelled
towards base due to forward biased. As base is lightly doped,
it has low number density of e–. When hole enters base
region, then only 5% of e– and hole combination take place. Fig. 11.30
Most of the holes reach the collector and are swept away by 1. When the positive half cycle of input a.c. signal voltage
–ve pole of VCB battery. comes, it supports the forward biasing of the emitter–base
circuit. Due to this, the emitter current increases and
consequently the collector current increases.
2. As Ic increases, the collector voltage Vc decreases.
3. Since the collector is connected to the negative terminal
of VCC battery of voltage VCB, therefore, the decrease in
collector voltage means the collector will become less
negative. This indicates that during positive half cycle of
Fig. 11.28 input a.c. signal voltage, the output signal voltage at the
3.3 Transistors as Amplifiers collector also varies through the positive half cycle.
3.3.1 Common base Amplifier 4. During negative half cycle of input a.c. signal voltage, the
In this base of the transistor is common to both emitter and output signal voltage at the collector also varies through
collector. the negative half cycle. Thus in common base transitor
(a) Amplifier circuit using n-p-n transistor : The emitter amplifier circuit the input signal voltage and the output
is forward biased using emitter base battery (VEB) & due to collector voltage are in the same phase.
this, resistance of output circuit is large.
3.3.2 Common Emitter Amplifier
n-p-n Amplifier circuit using n–p-n transitor
Input Ie E C Ic Output
voltage IR
cc voltage 1. The input (emitter base) circuit is forward biased with
Rc
~ Vcb battery VBB of voltage VEB, and the output (collector-
+ emitter) circuit is reversed biased with battery VCC of
VEB Vcc
B Ib – voltage VCE. Due to this, the resistance of input circuit is
– + low and that of output circuit is high. Rc is a load resistance
Fig. 11.29 connected in collector circuit.
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2. When no a.c. signal voltage is applied to the input circuit Power gain : It is defined as the ratio of change in output
but emitter base circuit is closed let us consider, that Ie, Ib power to the change in input power. Therefore,
and Ic be the emitter current, base current and collector
current respectively. Then according to Kirchhoff’s first change in output power
I c R out
a.c. power gain =
law Ie = Ib + Ic change in input power I e R in
I c2 Rout
I 2e Rin
Or a.c. power gain = α2ac × resistance gain.
3.3.4 Current and Voltage Gain in Common Ammeter
Amplifier
Fig. 11.31 a.c. current gain : It is defined as the ratio of the change in
3. When the positive half cycle of input a.c. signal voltage collector to the change in base current. It is denoted by ac.
comes, it supports the forward biasing of the emitter-base
circuit. Due to this, the emitter current increases and Ic
Therefore, ac = I [Vce = const.]
consequently the collector current increases. As a result b v
of which, the collector voltage Vc decreases.
Its value is quite large as compared to 1 and lies between 15
4. Since the collector is connected to the positive terminal of to 50.
VCE battery, therefore decreases in collector voltage means
the collector will become less positive, which means Voltage gain : It is the ratio of the change in output voltage to
negative with respect to initial value. This indicates that the change in input voltage. It is denoted by A.
during positive half cycle of input a.c. signal voltage, the
output signal voltage at the collector varies through a
I c R out
I c R out
Av =
negative half cycle. I b R in I b R in
5. When negative half cycle of input a.c. signal voltage Or Av = ac × resistance gain.
comes, it opposes the forward biasing of emitter-base
circuit, due to this the emitter current decreases and hence a.c. power gain : It is the ratio of the change in output power
collector current decreases; consequently the collector to the change in input power.
voltage Vc increases i.e., the collector becomes more
change in output power I c R out
2
positive. This indicate that during the negative half cycle a.c. power gain = =
of input a.c. signal voltage, the output signal voltage varies change in input power I b 2 R in
through positive half cycle.
Or a.c. power pain = 2ac × resistance gain.
3.3.3 Current and Voltage Gain in Common Base amplifier
3.3.5 Relation between and
A.C. Current Gain : It is defined as the ratio of change in
collector current and the change in emitter current at constant For both the types of amplifier, we have
base to collect voltage. It is denoted by ac
ie = ib + ic
I Dividing both sides of the above equation by Ic, we get
ac c [V = const.]
CB
I e
ie i b
Voltage gain : It is defined as the ratio of change in output 1
ic i c
voltage to the change in input voltage. It is denoted by Av.
I c R out I c R out 1/ = (1/) + 1 or 1/ = (1/) 1 = (1)/
Av =
I e R in I e R in or = / (1)
Or Av = AC × resistance gain,
Rearranging also gives another relation i.e.
where Rout/Rin is called resistance gain. 1
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4. LOGIC GATES OR Gate
4.1 Types of Signal OR gate is an electronic device that combines A and B to
give Y as output. In this figure two inputs are A and B and
Analog Signals output is Y. In Boolean algebra OR is represented by +.
Signals which varies continuously with time is called analog
signal. A typical analog signal is shown in figure. Circuit
used for generating analog signal is called analog electronic A
Y=A+ B
circuit. B
V
Fig. 11.34
0 t
Truth Table: A truth table may be defined as the table which
gives the output state for all possible input combinations.
V
Logic operations of OR gate are given in its truth table for all
0 t possible input combinations.
Fig. 11.32 Input Output
A B Y
Digital Signals
0 0 0
Signals having either of the two levels, 0 or 1, are called 0 1 1
digital signals. 1 0 1
V 1 1 1
5V
1 AND Gate
0V
0 t
In an AND gate there are two or more inputs and one output.
In Boolean algebra AND is represented by a dot (.).
V
0 t A
0V Y=A. B
B
1 (–5V)
Fig. 11.33 Fig. 11.35
4.2 Logic Gates Truth Table
A digital circuit which either stops a signal or allows it to
pass through it is called a gate. A logic gate is an electronic
circuit which makes logical decisions. Logic gate has one or In put Output
more inputs but one output. Logic gates are the basic building A B Y
blocks for most of the digital systems. Variables used at the 0 0 0
input and output are 1’s and 0’s. These are three basic logic 0 1 0
gates:
1 0 0
(i) OR gate (ii) AND gate 1 1 1
(iii) NOT gate.
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NOT Gate Truth Table :
NOT gate is an electronic circuit which has one input and
In put Output
one output. This circuit is so called because output is NOT
A B Y
the same as input.
0 0 1
0 1 0
–
A Y=A 1 0 0
1 1 0
Fig. 11.36 NAND Gate
Boolean expression for NOT gate is Y = A . A NAND gate has two or more inputs and one output.
Actually a NAND gate is a NOT–AND gate. If a NOT gate is
Truth Table:
connected at the output of an AND gate, we get NAND gate
as shown in figure and its truth table is given in table.
In put Output
A Y
A Y' = A . B Y
0 1
1 0 B Y = A+B
NOR Gate Fig. 11.39
A NOR gate has two or more inputs and one output. Actually
A B Y Y
NOR gate is a NOT-OR gate. If a NOT gate is connected at
the output of an OR gate, we get NOR gate as shown in 0 0 0 1
figure and its truth table is shown as under in the table. 0 1 0 1
1 0 0 1
Y 1 1 1 0
A Y' = A+B
B Y = A+B XOR Gate
XOR gate (sometimes EOR, or EXOR and pronounced as
Fig. 11.37 Exclusive OR) is a digital logic gate that gives a true (1 or
Truth Table : HIGH) output when the number of true inputs is odd. An
XOR gate implements an exclusive or from mathematical logic;
A B Y Y
that is, a true output results if one, and only one, of the
inputs to the gate is true. If both inputs are false (0/LOW) or
0 0 0 1
both are true, a false output results. XOR represents the
0 1 1 0 inequality function, i.e., the output
1 0 1 0
1 1 1 0
Boolean expression for NOT gate is Y = A B and it is read Fig. 11.40
as Y equals A OR B negated. A NOR function is the reverse
of OR function. Input Outpout
A B A XOR B
A 0 0 0
Y = A+B 0 1 1
B
1 0 1
1 1 0
Fig. 11.38
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COMMUNICATION Elements of a Communication System :
Every communication system has three essential elements-
SYSTEM (i) transmitter (ii) medium/channel (iii) receiver
1. INTRODUCTION TO COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
Transmitted
Information Message Transmitter Channel
Received
Receiver
Message User of
source signal signal signal signal information
Communication means transmission of information. Everyone
experiences the need to impart or recieve information Noise
continuously in the surrounding and for this , we speak,
listen,send message by a messenger, use coded signalling Transmitter converts the message signal into an electric
methods through smoke or flags or beating of drum etc. and signal and transmits through channel. The receiver receives
these days we are using telephones, TV, radio, satellite the transmitted signal and reconstructs the original message
communication etc. The aim of this chapter is to introduce signal to the end user. There are two basic modes of
the concepts of communication namely the mode of communication: (i) point-to-point and (ii) broadcast.
communication, the need of modulation, production and In point-to-point communication mode, communication takes
detection of amplitude modulation. place over a link between a single transmitter and a receiver
as in telephony. In the broadcase mode, there are a large
number of receivers corresponding to a single transmitter.
Radio and television are most common examples of
braoadcast mode of communication. However the
communication system can be classified as follows :
Types of Communication Systems
On the basis of nature of On the basis of signal On the basis of On the basis of type
Information transmitted transmission Channel of modulation
(1) Speech Transmission (1) Analog (1) Line communication (1) Continuous wave
(Radio) (2) Digital (a) Two wire Transmission modulation
(2) Picture Transmission line (a) Amplitude
(TV) (b) Coaxial cable (b) Frequency
(3) Fascimile Transmission (c) Optical fibre (c) phase
(FAX) (2) Space communication (2) Pulse Modulation
(4) Data Transmission (a) PAM PPM
(Internet)
(b) PTM
PWM
(c) PCM
1.1 Basic terminology Used in Electronic It is defined as a single–valued function of time which has
Communication systems : a unique value at every instant of time.
(i) Transducer. Transducer is the device that converts one Analog Signal :– A continuously varying signal (Voltage or
form of energy into another. Microphone, photo detectors Current) is called an analog signal. A decimal number with
and piezoelectric sensors are types of transducer. They system base 10 is used to deal with analog signal.
convert information into electrical signal.
Digital Signal :–
(ii) Signal Signal is the information converted in electrical
form. Signals can be analog or digital. Sound and picture A signal that can have only discrete stepwise values is called
signals inTV are analog. a digital signal. A binary number system with base 2 is used
to deal with digital signals.
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(xi) Demodulation : The process of retrieval of original
information from the carrier wave at the receiver end
is termed as demodulation. This process is the reverse
of modulation.
(xii) Repeater : A repeater acts as a receiver and a trans-
mitter. A repeater picks up the signal which is comming
from the transmitter, amplifies and retransmits it with a
change in carrier frequency. Repeaters are necessary to
Fig. 11.41 extend the range of a communication system as shown
in figure A communication satellite is basically a repeater
station in space.
M ounta
in
Fig. 11.42
(iii) Noise : There are unwanted signals that tend to disturb
the transmission and processing of message signals. Fig. 11.43
The source of noise can be inside or outside the
system. Use of repeater station to increase the range of
communication
(iv) Transmitter : A transmitter processes the incoming
message signal to make it suitable for trans-mission 1.2 Types of Communication Systems
through a channel and subsequent reception.
Based on physical infrastructure:
(v) Receiver : A receiver extracts the desired message
signals from the received signals at the channel output. Based on physical infrastructure there are two types of
communication system:
(vi) Attenuation : It is the loss of strength of a signals while
propagating through a medium. It is like damping of • Line communication system: Uses the existing
oscillations. infrastructure of power lines to transfer data from one
point to another point.
(vii) Amplification : It is the process of increasing the
amplitude (and therefore the strength) of a signal using • Radio Communication system: uses the infrastructure of
an electronic circuit called the amplifier. Amplification radio waves to transfer the information from one point to
is absolutely necessary to compensate for the another point.
attenuation of the signal in communication systems.
There is a physical link, called a hardwire channel between
(viii) Range : It is the largest distance between the source the transmitter and the receiver inline communication
and the destination upto which the signal gets received systems.
with sufficient strength.
Based on Signal specifications:
(ix) Bandwidth : It is the frequency range over which an
equipment operates or the portion of the spectrum oc- Signal specifications that are used to decide the type of
cupied by the signal. communication system are:
(x) Modulation : The original low frequency message/ • Nature of the baseband or information signal: Baseband
information signal connot be transmitted to long dis- signals is a technology which can access the signals with
tances. So, at the transmitter end, information contained very low frequency and also near zero frequency and
in the low frequency message signal is superimposed based on the nature of the transmitted signal, the
on a high frequency wave, which acts as a carrier of baseband signal can either be transmitted as it is without
the information. This process is known as modulation. modulation or through a carrier signal with modulation.
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Further, communication systems are divided into: (i) Bandwidth for analog signals
• Analog communication systems: The Analog system Bandwdith for some analog sinals are listed below :
conveys the information from the audio, video and
Signal Frequency range Bandwidth
pictures between two points using the analogue signals. required
A sinusoidal signal is an example of an analogue
communication system. Speech 300 – 3100 Hz 3100 – 300
= 2800 Hz
• Digital communication systems: Digital communication Music High frequencies produced 20 kHz
has become very important in the age of the internet. It is by musical instrument
a physical exchange of information between two point Audible range
discreetly. The information exchange happens through = 20 Hz – 20 kHz
4.2 MHz
digital signals. Picture - 6 MHz
• Baseband communication system: Baseband TV Contains both
voice and picture
communication is the transfer of signals that are not
amplified to higher frequencies. They help is transferring (ii) Bandwidth for digital signal
signals with near-frequency. Basically digital signals are rectanglar waves and these
• Carrier communication system: Carrier communication can be splitted into a superposition of sinusoidal waves
systems transfer the information especially voice
of frequencies n0, 20, 30, 40, n0, where n is an in-
messages and calls by improving the frequency much
teger extending to infinity. This implies that the infinite
higher than the actual rate.
band width is required to reproduce the rectangular
Out of four, a minimum of two types is needed to specify and
waves. However, for practical purposes, higher harmon-
communication system. Thus, two groups are formed
ics are neglected for limiting the bandwidth.
consisting of each of the two types such that at least one of
he types from each group is necessarily required to specify a Band width of Transmission Medium
communication system. These groups can be formed as: Different types of transmission media offer different band
• Analog/digital communication system width in which some of are listed below
• Baseband/carrier communication system
Frequency Bands
To completely define any communication system, four out of
Service Frequency range Remarks
the eight types are required. If any type is missing, then the
description of the communication system will be incomplete. Wire Normally
750 MHz
1 (most common : operated below
Wireless and Wired communication system (Bandwidth)
Coaxial Cable) 18 GHz
Wireless communication system use radio waves,
electromagnetic waves and infrared waves to communicate Free space Few hundred kHz to
2
(radio waves) GHz
from one point to another point and the wire communication
system used wire, optical fibre which works on the (i) Standard AM
540kHz -1600 kHz
phenomenon of total internal reflection to communicate from broadcast
one point to another point. (ii) FM 88-108 MHz
Wireless communication is further divided into satellite
54-72 MHz VHF (Very) high
communication, ground wave communication, skywave and
76-88 MHz frequencies) TV
space wave communication. The satellite communication (iii) Television
174-216 MHz UHF (Ultra hight
receives the signals from the earth and resends them bach to 420-890 MHz frequency) TV
another point on the earth with the help of a transponder. Mobile to base
Wired communication is further divided into parallel wire, (iv) Cellular
896-901 MHz Station
mobile
twisted wire, optical fibre and coaxial wired communication. radio
840-935 MHz Base station to
1.3 Bandwidth of Signals mobile
Different signals used in a comminication system such as (v) Satellite 5.925-6.425 GHz Uplinking
Communication 3.7 - 4.2 GHz Downlinking
voice, music, picture, computer data etc. all have different
ranges of frequency. The difference of maximum and minimum One single
frequency in the range of each signal is called bandwidth Optical 1THz-1000 THz optical fibre
3 communication (microwaves- offers
of that signal.
using fibres ultra violet) bandwidth > 100
Bandwidth can be of message signal as well as of transmis- GHz
sion medium.
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2. PROPAGATION OF EM WAVES
In case of radio waves communication, an antenna at the
transmitter radiates the electromagnetic waves
(em waves). The em waves travel through the space and
reach the receiving antenna at the other end. As the em wave
travels away from the transmitter, their strength keeps on
decreasing. Many factors influence the propagation of em
waves including the path they follow. The composition of
the earth's atmosphere also plays a vital role in the
propagation of em waves, as summarised below.
Layers of atmosphere and their interaction with the propagating em waves
Atmospheric Height over earth's Exists during Frequencies most
stratum (layer) surface (approx) likely affected
1. Troposphere 10 km Day and night VHF (upto several GHz)
2. Ionosphere
(i) D (part of 65-75 km Day only Reflects LF, absorbs MF &
stratosphere) HF to some degree
(ii) E (part of 100 km Day only Helps surface waves,
stratosphere) reflects HF
(iii) F1 (Part of 170-190 km Daytime, merges Partially absorbs HF waves
Mesosphere) with F2 at night yet allowing them to reach F2
(iv) F2 300 km at night, Day and night Efficiently reflects HF waves
(Thermosphere) 250-400 km particularly at night
during daytime
2.1 Ground Wave Propagation : 2.2 Sky Wave Propagation :
(a) The radio waves which travel through atmosphere fol- (a) The sky waves are the radio waves of frequency be-
lowing the surface of earth are known as ground waves tween 2 MHz to 30 MHz.
or surface waves and their propagation is called ground (b) The ionoopheric layer acts as a reflector for a certain
wave propagation or surface wave propagation. range of frequencies (3 to 30 MHz). Electromagnetic
waves of frequencies higher than 30 MHz penetrate the
(b) The ground wave transmission becomes weaker with ionosphere and escape.
increase in frequency because more absorption of (c) The highest frequency of radiowaves which when sent
ground waves takes place at higher frequency during straight (i.e. normally) towards the layer of ionosphere
propagation through atmosphere. gets refelcted from ionosphere and returns to the earth
is called critical frequency. If is given by
(c) The ground wave propagation is suitabel for low and
fc = 9 (Nmax)1/2, where N is the number density of
medium frequency i.e. upto 2 or 3 MHz only. electron/m3.
(d) The ground wave propagation is generally used for local 2.3 Space wave propagation :
band broadcasting and is commonly called medium wave. (a) The space waves are the radiowaves of very high
frequency (i.e. between 30 MHz. to 300 MHz or more).
(e) The maximum range of ground or surface wave propa-
(b) the space waves can travel through atmosphere from
gation depends on two factors : transmitter antenna to receiver antenna either derectly
(i) The frequency of the radio waves and or after reflection from ground in the earth's troposphere
region. That is why the space wave propagation is also
(ii) Power of the transmitter called as tropospherical propagation or line of sight
propagation.
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(c) The range of communication of space wave propagation (iii) Effective Power Radiated by an Antenna :
can be increased by increasing the heights of A theoretical study of radiation from a linear antenna
transmitting and receiving antenna. (length l) shows that the power radiated is proportional
2
(d) If the transmitting antenna is at a height h T, then you to (frequency)2 i.e. / . For a good transmission,
can show that the distance to the horizontal dT is given we need high powers and hence this also points out
to the need of using high frequency transmission.
as d T 2Rh T , where R is the radius of the earth
The above discussion suggests that there is a need for
(approximately 6400 km). dT is also called the radio translating the original low frequency baseband mes-
maximum line-of sight distance dm between the two sage signal into high frequency wave before
antennas having heights h T and hR above the earth is transmission. In doing so, we take the help of a high
given by : frequency signal, which we already know now, is known
as the carrier wave, and a process known as modulation
d M 2Rh T 2Rh R which attaches information to it. The carrier wave may
be continuous (sinusoidal) or in the form of pulses, as
where hR is the height of receiving antenna. shown in figure.
Time period T 2
=
T
Amplitude
3. MODULATION OF SIGNALS
Time
3.1 Modulation
(a)
It is a process by which any electrical signal called input
baseband or modulating signal, is mounted onto another Fig. 11.44
signal of high frequency which is known as carrier signal.
Pulse
It is defined as the process by which some characteristic duration
(called parameter) of carrier signal is varied in
accordance with the instantaneous value of the Pulse
Pulse
Pulse fall
baseband signal. amplitude
rise
The signal which results from this process is known as
(b)
modulated signal.
3.2 Need for Modulation : Fig. 11.45
(i) To aviod interference : 3.3 Carrier wave : Sinusoidal
If many modulating signals travel directly through the A sinusoidal carrier wave can be represented as c(t) = ACsin
same transmission channel, they will interfere with each (ct + )
other and result in distortion.
where c(t) is the signal strength (voltage or current), AC is
(ii) To design antennas of practicable size : the amplitude, c (= 2fc) is the angular frequency and is
The minimum height of antenna (not of antenna tower) the initial phase of the carrier wave. Thus, modulation can
should be l/4 where l is wavelength of modulating sig- be affected by varying, any of three parameters, viz Ac, c
nal. This minimum size becomes impracticable because and , of the carrier wave can as per the parameter of the
the frequency of the modulating signal can be upto 5 message or information signal. This results in three types
kHz which corresponds to a wavelength of 3 × 108/5 of modulation : (i) Amplitude modulation (AM) (ii) Frequency
× 103 = 60 km. This will require an antenna of the modulation (FM) and (iii) Phase modulation (PM), as shown
minimum height of /4 = 15 km. This size of an antenna in figure.
is not practical.
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 108
1 Using the trignomatric relation sinA sinB
0 (a)
-1 = (cos (A – B) – cos (A + B), we can write cm (t) of eq. (15.4)
0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3
1 as cm(t)
m(t) 0 (b)
-1
0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3
2 µA c µA c
cm(t)for AM 0 (c) = Ac sinct + cos(c – m) t – cos(c + m) t...(3)
-2
2 2
10 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3
Here c – m and c + m are respectively called the called
cm(t)for FM 0 (d)
-1 the lower side and upper side frequencies. The modulated
0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3
1
signal now consists of the carrier wave of frequency c plus
cm(t)for PM 0 (e) two sinusoidal waves each with a frequency slightly
-1 different from, know as side bands. The frequency spectrum
0 0.5 2 2.5 3
Time of the amplitude modulated signal is shown in figure :
Fig. 11.46 Ac
Modulation of a carrier wave : µA c
Amplitude 2
(a) a sinusoidal carrier wave
(b) a modulating signal :
(c) amplitude modulatin :
(d) Frequency modulation : and (e-m) e (e+ m) in radians
(e) Phase modulation
Fig. 11.47
3.4 Carrier Wave Pulses :
As long as the broadcast frequencies (carrier waves) are
Similarly, the significant characteristics of a pulse are : Pulse sufficiently spaced out so that sidebands do not overlap,
Amplitude, Pulse duration or pulse Width, and pulse Position different stations can operate without interfering with each
(denoting the time of rise or fall of the pulse amplitude) other.
Hence, different types of pulse modulation are (a) pulse
Producation of Amplitude modulated Wave :
amplitude modulation (PAM), (b) Pulse duration modulation
(PDM) or pulse width modulation (PWM), and (c) Pulse Ampitude modulation can be produced by a veriety of
position modulation (PPM). methods. A conceptually simple method is shown in the block
diagram of figure.
3.4.1 Amplitude Modulation:
In amplitude modulation the amplitude of the carrier is varied BANDPASS
m(t) x(t) y(t) FILTER AM Wave
in accordance with the information signals. Let + SQUARE
LAW DEVICE
A m sin mt CENTRED
c(t) = Ac sinc t represent carrier wave and m(t) = Am sin (Modulating Singna) AT c
c (t) Bx(t) + Cx(t)2
m t represent the message or the modulating signal where A c sinct
m = 2fm is the angular frequency of the message signal. (carrier)
The modulated signal c m(t) can be written as
cm(t) = (Ac + Am sin mt) sin ct Fig. 11.48
Here the modulating signal Am sin mt is added to the carrier
A signal Ac sin c t to produce the signal x (t). This signal x
A c 1 m sin m t sin c t ...(1)
Ac (t) = Am sin m t + Ac sinct is passed through a square
law device which is a non-linear device which produces an
Note that the modulated signal now contains the message output
signal & it can be written as : y(t) = B x (t) + Cx2 (t) ...(4)
cm(t) = Ac sinct + µAc sinmt sinct ......(2) where B and C are constants.
Here µ = Am/Ac is the modulation index Thus, y(t) = BAm sinm t + BAc sin ct + C [Am2 sin2 m
In paractice, µ is kept < 1 to avoid distortion. t + Ac2 sin2 ct + 2Am Ac sinmt sinct] ...(5)
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 109
CA 2m CA 2m changed to a lower frequency by what is called an
= BA m sinm t + BA c sin c t A 2c intermediate frequency (IF) stage preceding the detection.
2 2
The detected signal may not be strong enough to be made
CA c2 use of and hence in required to be amplified. A block diagram
cos 2m t cos 2c t + CAm Ac cos (c – m) t – CAmAc cos
2 of a typical receiver is shown in figure.
(c + m) t ....(6)
where the trigonometric relations sin2A = (1 – cos2A)/2 and
the relation for sinA sinB mentioned earlier are used. RECEIVING
ANTENNA
In equation (6), there is a dc term C/2 (A 2m A 2c ) and
AMPLIFIER IF STAGE DETECTOR AMPLIFIER OUTPUT
sinusoids of frequencies m, 2m, c – m and c + m. The
output of the band pass filter therefore is of the same form Fig. 11.50
as equation (3) and is therefore an AM wave.
Detection is the process of recovering the modulating signal
It is to be mentioned that the modulated signal connot be from the modulated carrier wave. We just saw that the
transmitted as such. The modulator is to be followed by a modulated carrier wave contains the frequencies c and c
power amplifier which provides the necesary power and then ± m. In order to obtain the original message signal m(t) of
the modulated signal is fed to an antenna of appropriate size angular frequency m, a simple method is shown in the from
for radiation as shown in figure. of a block diagram in figure.
AM Wave ENVELOPE m(t)
RECTIFIER OUTPUT
DETECTOR (c)
TRANSMITTING (a) (b)
ANTENNA
m(t) AMPLITUDE POWER
Message signal MODULATOR AMPLIIFIER
time time time
Carrier AM input wave Rectified wave Output (without RF component)
Fig. 11.49 Fig. 11.51
Detection of Amplitude Modulated Wave : The modulated signal of the form given in (a) of above figure
The transmitted message gets attenuated in propagating is passed through a rectifier to produce the output shown
through the channel. The receiving antenna is therefore to in (b). This envelope of signal (b) is the message signal In
be followed by an amplifier and a detector. In addition, to order to retrieve m(t), the signal is passed through an
facilitate further processing, the carrier frequency is usually envelope detector (which may consist of a simple RC circuit).
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 110
SUMMARY
1. SEMICONDUCTORS diffusion current, although in certain instances one or other
of these two· components may predominate. Drift current
Introduction to Semiconductor Materials
occurs in the presence of an electric field which, as a result of
When the electrons are liberated on breaking the covalent the force it causes to act on each charge carrier, produces a
bonds, they move randomly through the crystal lattice. net motion of positively charged carriers in the same sense
When an electric field is applied, these free electrons have a as the field, and negatively charged carriers in the opposite
steady drift opposite to the direction of applied field. This sense.
constitute the electric current. When a covalent bond is
Mobility
broken, a hole is created. For one electron set free, one hole
is created. Thus, thermal energy creates an electron-hole The term mobility in electronics refers to the ability to move.
pairs. Mobility of electron In semiconductors gives the idea of the
Band theory movement of the electrons in the semiconductor materials. in
In case of a single isolated atom, there are single energy this article, we are going to discuss the mobility of electro ns
levels in case of solids, the atoms are arranged in a systematic and holes in the semiconductors and conductors.
space lattice and hence the atom are greatly influenced by Carrier Concentration
neighbouring atoms. The closeness of atoms results in the c) Mass-Action Law
intermixing of electrons of neighbouring atoms of course, n0 : thermal-equilibrium concentration of electron
for the valence electrons in the outermost shells which are p0 : thermal-equilibrium concentration of holes
not strongly bounded by nucleus. Due to intermixing the n0p0 = n12 = f(T)
number of permissible energy levels increases or there are
(function of temperature)
significant changes in the energy levels. Hence in case of a
The product of n0 and p0 is always a constant for a given
solid, instead of single energy levels associated with the single
semiconductor material at a given temperature.
atom, there will be bands of energy levels.
Types of Semiconductors
2. P-N JUNCTION DIODE
When a P-type material is intimately joined to N-type, a P-N
junction is formed. In fact, merely-joining the two pieces a P-
N junction cannot be formed because the surface films and
other irregularities produce major discontinuity in the crystal
structure. Therefore a P-N junction is formed from a piece of
semiconductor (say germanium) by diffusing P-type material
to one half side and N-type material to other half side.When
P-type crystal is placed in contact with N-type crystal so as
to form one piece, the assembly so obtained is called P-N
junction diode.
Diodes as Rectifiers
Semiconductor Current
An electronic device which converts a.c. power into d.c.
Current flow in a semiconductor arises from the motion of
power is called a rectifier.
charge carriers in both the conduction and valence bands.
The mobile charges in the conduction band are electrons Rectifiers can be of two types.
and those in the valence band are holes. The current is in 1. Half Wave Rectifiers
general made up of two components, drift current and 2. Full Wave Rectifiers
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 111
COMMUNICATION
Special Purpose p-n Junction Diodes
Zener diode
A Zener diode is a semiconductor device which makes the SYSTEM
current flow in the forward or in the backward direction. The
diode usually consists of a p-n junction which is heavily
doped. The diode is designed to conduct the flow of current
1. INTRODUCTION TO COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
in the reverse direction after reaching a specified voltage.
Optoelectronic Junction Devices Communication means transmission of information. Every-
one experiences the need to impart or recieve information
Optoelectronic junction devices are p-n junction devices in
continuously in the surrounding and for this , we speak,
which, carriers are generated by photons. Photodiodes, light
listen,send message by a messenger, use coded signalling
emitting diodes (LEDs) and solar cells are examples of
methods through smoke or flags or beating of drum etc. and
optoelectronic devices.
these days we are using telephones, TV, radio, satellite com-
(i) Photodiodes used for detecting optical signal munication etc. The aim of this chapter is to introduce the
(photodetectors). concepts of communication namely the mode of
(ii) Light emitting diodes (LED) which convert electrical energy communication, the need of modulation, production and
into light. detection of amplitude modulation.
(iii) Photovoltaic devices which convert optical radiation into
electricity (solar cells).
2. PROPAGATION OF EM WAVES
3. TRANSISTORS In case of radio waves communication, an antenna at the
transmitter radiates the electromagnetic waves
Introduction to Transistors (em waves). The em waves travel through the space and
It is three sectioned semiconductor, in which three sections reach the receiving antenna at the other end. As the em wave
are combined so that the two at extreme ends have the same travels away from the transmitter, their strength keeps on
type of majority carriers, while the section that separates decreasing. Many factors influence the propagation of em
them has the majority carriers in opposite nature. The three waves including the path they follow.
sections of transistor are called emitter (E), Base (B), collector There can three types of Propagation
(C).
1. Ground Wave Propagation
Symbol :
2. Sky Wave Propagation
E n–p–n C E p–n–p C 3. Space wave propagation
3. MODULATION OF SIGNALS
–
B B
3.1 Modulation
It is a process by which any electrical signal called input
baseband or modulating signal, is mounted onto another
4. LOGIC GATES
signal of high frequency which is known as carrier signal.
A digital circuit which either stops a signal or allows it to
It is defined as the process by which some characteristic
pass through it is called a gate. A logic gate is an electronic
(called parameter) of carrier signal is varied in
circuit which makes logical decisions. Logic gate has one or
accordance with the instantaneous value of the
more inputs but one output. Logic gates are the basic building
baseband signal.
blocks for most of the digital systems. Variables used at the
input and output are 1’s and 0’s. These are three basic logic The signal which results from this process is known as
gates: modulated signal.
(i) OR gate (ii) AND gate (iii) NOT gate.
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 112
SOLVED EXAMPLES
Example - 1
Find current passing through 2 and 4 resistance in the Output voltage,V0 = IR
circuit shown in figure. = (2.26 × 10–3 ) × (5 × 103) = 11.3 V
Example - 3
The current gain of a transistor in a common base
arrangement in 0.98. Find the change in collector current
corresponding to a change of 5.0 mA in emitter current.
What would be the change in base current ?
Sol. In the given circuit diode D1 is forward biased and D2 reverse
biased. Hence, D1 will conduct but D2 won’t. Therefore, Sol. Given, = 0.98 and ie = 5.0 mA
current through 4 resistance will be zero while through 2 i c
From the definition of ,
10 i e
resistance current will be 5 A. Change in collector current,
2
Example - 2 ic = () (ie) = (0.98) (5.0) mA = 4.9 mA
(a) Calculate the value of V0 and i if the silicon and Futher, change in base current, ib = ie – ic = 0.1 mA
germanium diode start conducting at 0.7 V and 0.3 V Example - 4
respectively.
A transistor is connected in common emitter configuration.
The collector supply is 8 V and the voltage drop across a
resistor of 800 in the collector circuit is 0.5 V. If the
current gain factor () is 0.96, find the base current.
0.96
Sol. 24
1 1 0.96
The collector current is,
Voltage drop across collector resistor
ic
(b) If the Ge diode connection is now reversed, what will resistance
be the new values of v0 and i ?
0.5
0.625 10 3 A
Sol. As in the given circuit, 800
Voltage, V = 12V
ic
Resistance,R = 5 k From the definition of = i
b
12 – 0.3 11.7V
Current, I = 2.34 mA 0.625 103
5k 5 103 26 10 –3 A
24
Output voltage V0 = RI = (5 × 103) × (2.34 × 10–3) = 11.7 V
Example - 5
When the connections of Ge diode are reversed, then
current will blow through silicon. In a common emitter amplifier, the load resistance of the
output circuit is 500 times the resistance of the input circuit.
12 – 0.7 If = 0.98, then find the voltage gain and power gain.
In this case, current, I = 2.26 mA
5 10 –3
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 113
Example - 8
R
Sol. Given = 0.98 and out 500
R in How many AM broadcast stations can be accomodated in
a 100 kHz bandwidth if the highest frequency modultating
0.98 a carriage is 5 kHz ?
49
1 1 0.98
Sol. Any station being modulated by a 5 kHz signal will produce
R out and upper side frequency 5 kHz above its carrier and a
(i) Voltage gain = () R = (49) (500) = 24500 lower side frequency 5 kHz below its carrier, thereby
in
requiring a bandwidth of 10 kHz. Thus,
2 R out
Number of stations accomodated
(ii) Power gain = R = (49) (500) = 1200500
2
in Total bandwidth 100
= 10
Bandwidth per station 10
Example - 6
Example - 9
Write the truth table for the logical function D = (A OR B)
How many 500 kHz waves can be on a 10 km transmission
AND B.
line simultaneously ?
Sol. Let be the wavelength of 500 kHz signal. Then,
Sol. A OR B is a logical function, say it is equal to X, i.e.,
c 3.0 108
m 600 m
X = A OR B f 5.0 106
Now D = X AND B The number of cycle on the line can be found from,
The corresponding truth table is as under.
d 10 103
A B X= A OR B D = (A ORB) AND B
n 16.67
y 600
1 0 1 0
Example - 10
0 1 1 1
A two wire transmission line has a capcitance of 20 pF/m
0 0 0 0 and a characteristic impedance of 50.
1 1 1 1 (a) What is the inductance per metre of this cable ?
(b) Determine the impedence of an infinitely long section
Example - 7
of such cable.
Convert the decimal number 10.625 into its binary
equivalent. Sol. (a) The characteristic impedance,
Sol. Integral part is 10. It can be converted into its binary part by Z L/C
using divide by 2 rule.
2
L = (Z ) (C)
(10)10 – (1010)2 2 –12
= (50) (20 × 10 ) H
Also, 0.625 × 2 = 1.250
= 0.05 H
0.250 × 2 = 0.5
0.5 × 2 = 1 (b) The characteristic impedence of a transmission line is
the impedence that an infinite length of line would present
(0.625)10 = (10)2
to a power supply at the input end of the line. Thus,
So, (10.625)10 = (1010.101)2
Z Z0 50
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 114
Example - 11 Example - 13
T.V. transmission tower at a paticular station has a height Which one of the following is the weakest kind of bonding
of 160 m. in solids
(a) What is the coverage range ? (a) Ionic (b) Metallic
(b) How much population is covered by transmission, if
(c) Vander Waals (d) Covalent
the average population density around the tower is 1200
2
per km ? Ans. (c)
(c) By how much the height of tower be increased to double Sol. Vander Waals forces between the solid is weakest.
its coverage range. Given, radius, radius of earth
= 6400 km ? Example - 14
Sol. (a) Coverage range d = 2 Rh A piece of copper and the other of germanium are cooled
from the room temperature to 80 K, then which of the
2 6400 103 160 m following would be a correct statement
= 42.254 km (a) Resistance of each increases
(b) Population covered = (population density) × (area (b) Resistance of each decreases
covered) (c) Resistance of copper increases while that of germanium
2
= (1200) × (d ) decreases
= 2400 × 3.14 × 6.4 × 10 × 0.16
3 (d) Resistance of copper decreases while that of germanium
increases
= 77.17 lac
Ans. (d)
(c) Coverage range h
Sol. With decrease in temperature resistance of copper
Therefore coverage range can be doubled by making decreases because metal has positive temperature
height of the tower four times of 640 m. So, height of the coefficient of resistance and resistance of semi conductor
tower should be increased by 480 m. increases because temperature coefficient for semi
Example - 12 conductor is negative.
The core of an optical fibre is made of glass with refractive Example - 15
index equal to 1.55 and clad has refractive index 1.51. A potential difference of 2V is applied between the opposite
Calculate : faces of a Ge crystal plate of area 1 cm2 and thickness 0.5 mm.
If the concentration of electrons in Ge is 2 1019/m3 and
(a) the critical angle for total internal reflection. m2
mobilities of electrons and holes are 0.36 and
(b) maximum acceptance angle at the air-core interface. volt sec
n m2
Sol. (a) c sin 1 2 0.14 respectively, then the current flowing
n1 volt sec
Here, n1 = refractive index of core = 1.55 through the plate will be
and n2 = refractive index of clad = 1.51 (a) 0.25 A (b) 0.45 A
1.51 (c) 0.56 A (d) 0.64 A
c sin 1 55.8
1.55 Ans. (d)
(b) Maximum acceptance angle at the air-core interface Sol. ne (e h )
= sin
1
n12 n 22 2 1019 1.6 1019 (0.36 0.14)
1.6 ( m)1
1 1.55 2 1.51 2
sin
l
R
= 20.4° A
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 115
0.5 103 25 Ans. (a)
R
1.6 104 8 Sol. In reverse biasing current is order of micro ampere which
V 2 16 is generally very small.
i 0.64 A
R 25 25
Example - 18
8
In the case of forward biasing of PN-junction, which one
Example - 16 of the following figures correctly depicts the direction of
Which of the following energy band diagram shows the N- flow of carriers
type semiconductor
– + N – + N
Conduction Conduction P –
– + P –
– +
(a) (b) –
– + –
– +
band (CB) band (CB) –
– + –
– +
– + – +
(a) (b)
Impurity
Eg 1eV 1eV level Vp Vp
Valance Valance
band (VB) band (VB)
– + N – + N
P –
– + P –
– +
–
– + –
– +
(c) Valance (d) Valance –
– + –
– +
band (VB) band (VB) – + – +
(c) (d)
1eV Impurity
1eV Vp Vp
level
Conduction Conduction Ans. (c)
band (CB) band (CB)
Sol. In forward biasing both positive and negative carriers move
Ans. (b)
towards the junction.
Sol. Example - 19
A 2V battery is connected across the points A and B as
shown in the figure given below. Assuming that the
resistance of each diode is zero in forward bias and infinity
in reverse bias, the current supplied by the battery when
its positive terminal is connected to A is
Example - 17
In a PN-junction diode
(a) The current in the reverse biased condition is generally
very small
(b) The current in the reverse biased condition is small but
the forward biased current is independent of the bias (a) 0.2 A (b) 0.4 A
voltage
(c) Zero (d) 0.1 A
(c) The reverse biased current is strongly dependent on
Ans. (a)
the applied bias voltage
(d) The forward biased current is very small in comparison
to reverse biased current
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 116
Sol. Example - 21
In the given figures, which of the diodes are forward biased?
+5V
+10V
R
1. 2.
+5V
D1 is in forward biasing so offers zero resistance and D2 is –12V
in reverse biasing so offers infinite resistance. –10V
3. 4. R
V 2 –5V
i 0.2 A
R 10
Example - 20
The circuit shown in following figure contains two diode 5. R
D1 and D2 each with a forward resistance of 50 ohms and –10V
with infinite backward resistance. If the battery voltage is
6 V, the current through the 100 ohm resistance (in amperes) is (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 4, 5
(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 2, 3, 4
Ans. (b)
D1
Sol.
D2
6V
(a) Zero (b) 0.02 If p-type is connected to high voltage and n is connected
(c) 0.03 (d) 0.036 to low voltage then diode is in forward biased.
Ans. (b) Example - 22
The output current versus time curve of a rectifier is shown
in the figure. The average value of the output current in
this case is
Sol.
Current
Req = 150 + 100 Is
Time
Req = 250
V 6 (a) 0 (b) i0/
i 0.024 A
R eq 250 (c) 2i0/ (d) i0
Ans. (c)
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 117
T Example - 24
2
If l1, l2, l3 are the lengths of the emitter, base and collector
i dt
Iavg 0 of a transistor then
T
Sol. 2 (a) l1 = l2 = l3 (b) l3< l2> l1
dt (c) l3< l1< l2 (d) l3> l1> l2
0
Ans. (d)
T
2 Sol. As collector is meant for collecting all the moving charge
I0 sin ( t) dt carriers, the collection process involves dissipation of heat
0
Iavg from the charge carriers. In order to dissipate the heat,
T
Collector is made with LARGE SURFACE AREA , which
2
makes collector the larger than base and emitter. Base is
T
2I cos t 2 meant for passing the charge carrier from emitter to collector
0 involving no special activities , hence its the smallest
T 0
region
T
cos
2I0 2 cos 0º Example - 25
T In the CB mode of a transistor, when the collector voltage
is changed by 0.5 volt. The collector current changes by
0.05 mA. The output resistance will be
2I0
[ cos cos 0º ] (a) 10 k (b) 20 k
T
2I0 2I (c) 5 k (d) 2.5 k
[1 1] 0
2 Ans. (a)
Example - 23 Sol. Vc 0.5 V
In a common emitter transistor, the current gain is 80. What
is the change in collector current, when the change in base i c 0.05 mA
current is 250 A
(a) 80 250 A (b) (250 – 80) A Vc
R
ic
(c) (250 + 80) A (d) 250/80 A
Ans. (a)
0.5
R
i 0.05 10–3
Sol. c
i b
R 10 k
i b 250 A
i c i b
i c 80 250 A
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 118
EXERCISE - 1 : BASIC OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
Semiconductor Electronic Device 8. In pure form, Ge or Si, a semiconductor is called:
Semiconductor (a) intrinsic semiconductor, ne = nh = ni
1. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled (b) extrinsic semiconductor, ne = nh = ni
from room temperature to 77K, the resistance of (c) doped semiconductor
(a) copper increases and germanium decreases (d) p-type if ne < nh and n-type if ne > nh
(b) each of them decreases 9. If I is total current through an intrinsic semiconductor and
Ie is electron current and Ih is hole current, then :
(c) each of them increases
(d) copper decreases and germanium increases Ih Ie
(a) Ie (b) I
2. One serious drawback of semiconductor devices is, that : I Ih
(a) they are costly (c) Ie – Ih = I (d) Ie + Ih = I
(b) they pollute the environment 10. In equilibrium condition, the rate of generation of electron-
(c) they do not last for long time hole pairs:
(d) they cannot be used to withstand high voltage. (a) is more than rate of recombination of electron and hole
3. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a pairs
conductor and a semiconductor (b) is less than rate of recombination of electron and hole
(a) increases for both (b) decreases for both pairs
(c) increases, decreases (d) decreases, increases (c) equals to rate of recombination of electron and hole
pairs
4. At absolute zero, Si acts as :
(a) non-metal (b) metal (d) is always zero
(c) insulator (d) None of these 11. A pure semicondutor behaves as a good conductor at :
5. A pure semiconductor at room temperature has (a) room remperature (b) low temperature
3
(a) more electrons/m in its conduction band than holes/ (c) high temperature (d) Both (b) and (c)
3
m in its valence band. 12. The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction
3
(b) more electrons/m in its conduction band than a typical band of an intrinsic semicondutor at a finite temperature:
metal. (a) decreases exponentially with increasing band gap.
3
(c) more electrons/m in its valence band than at T = 0 K. (b) increases exponentially with increasing band gap.
(d) None of the above. (c) decreases with increasing temperature.
6. An n-type and p-type silicon semiconductor can be (d) is independent of the temperature and the band gap.
obtained by doping pure silicon with :
13. The gap between the valence and conduction bands of a
(a) sodium and magnesium, respectively certain semiconductor is 0.85 eV. When this semiconductor
(b) phosphorus and boron, respectively is used to form a light emitting diode, the wavelength of
(c) boron and phosphorus, respectively the light emitted.
–6
(d) indium and sodium, respectively (a) is in a range above 1.5×10 m
–6
7. At elevated temperature, few of covalent bonds of Si or (b) is in a range below 1.5×10 m
Ge are broken and a vacancy in the bond is created. (c) is always 1.5×10 m
–6
Effective charge of vacancy or hole is : –6
(d) is in a range centered on 1.5×10 m.
(a) positive
14. Carbon is more resistive than germanium and silicon. Then,
(b) negative
order of energy gap is :
(c) neutral
(a) C > Ge > Si (b) C > Si > Ge
(d) sometimes positive and sometimes negative
(c) Si > Ge > C (d) C = Si = Ge
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 119
15. If ne is number density of electrons in conduction band 21. In the reverse-biased p-n junction, the current is of the
and nh is number density of holes in valence band, then for order of :
an extrinsic semiconductor at room temperature, (n i = (a) ampere (b) milliampere
number density of intrinsic pairs) (c) microampere (d) nanoampere
ne nh 22. The depletion layer in the p-n junction region is
(a) n i2 (b) n i2
nh ne caused by:
(a) drift of holes
(c) n e n h n i2 (d) n e n h n i2
(b) diffusion of charge carriers
16. The forbidden energy gap in the energy bands of (c) migration of impurity ions
germanium at room temperature is about :
(d) drift of electrons
(a) 1.1 eV (b) 0.1 eV
23. Due to diffusion of electrons from n to p-side,
(c) 0.72 eV (d) 6.7 eV
I. electron-hole combination across p-n junction occurs.
17. When germanium is doped with phosphorus, the doped
II. an ionised acceptor is left in the p-region.
material has :
III. an ionised donor is left in the n-region.
(a) excess positive charge
IV. electrons of n-side comes to p-side and electron-hole
(b) excess negative charge combination takes palce in p-side
(c) more negative current carriers Correct options are :
(d) more positive current carriers (a) I and II (b) II and III
18. In a p-type semiconductor, the majority and minority (c) II and IV (d) II, III and IV
charge carriers are respectively,
24. Which of these are correct ?
(a) protons and electrons
I. In forward biasing, holes from p-side crosses junction
(b) electrons and protons and reach n-side.
(c) electrons and holes II. In forward biasing, electrons from n-side crosses
(d) holes and electrons junction and reach p-side.
19. Which statement is correct ? III. In n-side, holes are minority charge carriers.
(a) n-type germanium is negatively charged and p-type IV. In p-side, electrons are minority charge carriers.
germanium is positively charged (a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV
(b) both n-type and p-type germanium are neutral. (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
(c) n-type germanium is positively charged and p-type 25. Which of the given statements are correct regarding
germanium is negatively charged unbiased p-n junction ?
(d) both n-type and p-type germanium are negatively I. Drift and diffusion currents occur p to n-side.
charged II. Initially, diffusion current is large and drift current is
20. The forward characteristic of p-n junction is shown in the small.
figure. What is the dynamical resistance of p-n junction at III. Finally, diffusion and drift current grow to be equal in
0.9 V ? magnitude
IV. Under equilibrium there is no net current across p-n
junction plane.
(a) I and IV (b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV (d) All of these
26. A silicon specimen is made into a p-type semiconductor
7
by doping, on an average, one Indium atom per 5×10
silicon atoms. If the number density of atoms in the silicon
28 3
specimen is 5×10 atoms/m , then the number of acceptor
atoms in silicon per cubic centimeter is :
30 3 13 3
(a) 2.5×10 atoms/cm (b) 1.0×10 atoms/cm
(a) 130 (b) 100 15 3 36 3
(c) 1.0×10 atoms/cm (d) 2.5×10 atoms/cm
(c) 50 (d) 30
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 120
27. Acceptor atoms introduced into a pure semiconductor at 32. Symbol of a p-n junction diode is an arrow, its direction
room temperature : indicates :
(a) increase the number of electrons in the conduction band
(b) increase the number of holes in the valence band
(c) lower the Fermi level.
(a) nothing its just a symbol
(d) increase the electrical resistivity.
(b) direction of flow of electrons
28. An n-type and p-type silicon can be obtained by doping
pure silicon with : (c) direction of conventional current when it is forward
biased
(a) arsenic and phosphorous, respectively
(d) direction of electric field
(b) indium and aluminium, respectively
33. In forward bias, forward current obtained from the p-n
(c) phosphorous and indium, respectively
junction diode is :
(d) aluminium and boron, respectively
(a) due to injection of electrons in p-side
P-N Junction Diodes
(b) due to injection of holes in n-side
29. Find VAB for the following circuit (consider ideal diode):
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) due to flow of electrons from negative terminal of
supply to its positive terminal
34. For the given circuit of p-n junction diode, which of the
following statement is correct ?
(a) 10 V (b) 20 V
(c) 30 V (d) None of these
30. Two ideal p-n junction diodes are connected in an electrical
circuit with resistances to a battery of 12V as shown in the
figure. What will be the current flowing in the circuit?
(a) in forward biasing, the voltagte across R is V
(b) In forward biasing, the voltatge across R is 2V
(c) In reverse biasing, the voltage across R is V
(d) In reverse biasing, the voltage across R is 2V
35. Which of the following is NOT true when a reverse bias is
applied to a p-n junction ?
(a) Electrons flow from the p to the n side.
(a) 0.2A (b) 1.7A
(b) Holes flow from the p to the n side.
(c) 2A (d) 2.4A
(c) the electric field in the depletion zone increases
31. In forward biasing of the p-n junction,
(d) The potential difference across the depletion zone
(a) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to
increases
p-side and the depletion region becomes thin.
36. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode
(b) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to
p -side and the depletion region becomes thick. (a) raises the potential barrier
(c) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to (b) increases the minority carriers of current
n-side and the depletion region becomes thin. (c) increases the majority carriers of current
(d) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to (d) lowers the potential barrier
n-side and the depletion region becomes thick.
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 121
37. Zener diode is used for : 42. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 200 V is connected to
(a) rectification (b) amplification a diode and resistor R in the cirucuit shown so that half-
wave rectification occurs. If the forward resistance of the
(c) stabilization (d) modulation
diode is negligible compared to R, the rms voltage (in volt)
38. A Zener diode is connected to a battery and a load as shown across R is approximately :
below:
The currents I, IZ and IL are respectively
(a) 200 (b) 100
(c) 200 / 2 (d) 280
(a) 12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA 43. A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with
a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a signal of wavelength:
(b) 15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA
(a) 4000 nm (b) 6000 nm
(c) 12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA
(c) 4000 Å (d) 6000 Å
(d) 15 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA
44. When the forward bias voltage of a diode is changed from
39. A zener diode differs from a p-n junction that 0.6 V to 0.7 V the current changes from 5 mA to 15 mA.
(a) zener diode is made from very lightly doped p-n Then its forward bias resistance is :
junction (a) 0.01 (b) 0.1
(b) zener diode is made from a heavily doped p-n junction (c) 10 (d) 100
(c) zener diode is made from a metal piece 45. In the given circuit, if the forward voltage drop for the
diode is 0.5 V, the current is
(d) zener diode is made from a heavily doped p-type
semiconductor
40. Dynamic resistance of a diode is given by :
V
(a) rd
I
V
(b) rd (a) 3.4 mA (b) 2 mA
I
(c) 2.5 mA (b) 3 mA
Threshold voltage 46. Current in the circuit shown here is
(c) rd
Current (assume diodes are ideal):
Breakdown voltage
(d) rd
Current
41. The electrical circuit used to get smooth DC output from a
rectifier circuit is called :
(a) oscillator (b) filter
(c) amplifier (d) logic gates (a) (5/40) A (b) (5/50)A
(c) (5/10) A (d) (5/20) A
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 122
47. The reverse breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 5.6 51. A transistor connected in common emitter configuration
V in the given circuit. has input resistance RCE = 2 and load resistance of 5
k. If = 60 and an input signal 12 mV is applied,
calculate the voltage gain, the power gain and the value
of output voltage.
The current I Z through the Zener (in mA) is:
48. The reading of the ammeter (in mA) (correct to one decimal
place after decimal) for a silicon diode (barrier potential
diff = 0.7) in the given circuit is
(a) AV = 150, Vout = 1.8 V, and power gain = 9000
(b) AV = 20, Vout = 1 V, and power gain = 2000
(c) AV = 150, Vout = 1.5 V, and power gain = 8500
(d) AV = 20, Vout = 1.5 V, and power gain = 2000
52. An n-p-n transistor circuit is arranged as shown in figure.
It is :
Transistors
49. The emitter of transistor is doped the heaviest because it:
(I) acts as a supplier of charges carriers.
(II) dissipates maximum powder.
(a) a common-base amplifier circuit
(III) has a large resistance. (b) a common-emitter amplifier circuit
(IV) has small resistance. (c) a common-collector amplifier circuit
Which of the above statements are correct ? (d) none of the above
53. A transistor is used in common-emitter mode as an
(a) I and IV (b) I, II and III
amplifer. Then :
(c) I and III (d) None of these (a) the base-collector junction is forward biased
50. When a transistor is biased as follows: (b) the base-emitter junction is reverse biased
(c) the input signal is connected in series with the voltage
applied to the base-emitter junction
(d) the input signal is connected in series with the voltage
applied to the base-collector junction
54. A n-p-n transistor power amplifier in CE configuration
gives
Then, it is said to be in : (a) voltage amplification only
(a) solid state (b) active state (b) currents amplification only
(c) both current and voltage amplification
(c) inactive state (d) passive state
(d) only
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 123
55. A transistor having a equal to 80 has a change in base 63. The current gain of the common base n-p-n transistor is
current of 250 amp, then the change in collector current 0.96. What is the curent gain if it is used as common-emitter
is : amplifier ?
(a) (280/80) amp (b) (250 + 80) amp (a) 16 (b) 24
(c) (250 – 80) amp (d) 250 × 80 amp (c) 20 (d) 32
56. In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is 9 mA. 64. The current gain for a transistor working as common base
If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector, then amplifier is 0.96. If the emitter current is 7.2 mA, then the
the emitter current is : base current is :
(a) 10 mA (b) 9 mA (a) 0.29 mA (b) 0.35 mA
(c) 0.39 mA (d) 0.43 mA
(c) 8 mA (d) 8.1 mA
65. When the emitter current of a transistor is changed by 1
57. In the case of constant and of transistor : mA, its collector current changes by 0.990 mA. The
(a) (b) common base short current gain for the transistor is:
(c) (d) (a) 0.099 (b) 1.01
58. In an n-p-n circuit transistor, the collector current is 10 (c) 1.001 (d) 0.990
mA. If 80% electrons emitted reach the collector, then : 66. A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration
(a) the emitter current will be 7.5 mA at constant collector voltage Vc = 1.5 V, such that a change
in the base current from 100 A to 150 A produces a
(b) the base current will be 2.5 mA change in the collector current from 5 mA to 10 mA. The
(c) the base current will be 3.5 mA current gain is :
(d) the emitter current will be 15 mA (a) 50 (b) 67
59. In a common base amplifier, the phase difference between (c) 75 (d) 100
the input signal voltage and output voltage is 67. In common emitter amplifier, the current gain is 62. The
collector resistance and input resistance are 5 k and 500
(a) (b)
respectively. If the input voltage is 0.01 V, the output
(c) (d) 0 voltage.
60. The current gain of a transistor in common base mode is (a) 0.62 V (b) 6.2 V
0.995. It gain in the common emitter mode is (c) 62 V (d) 620 V
(a) 200 (b) 99 68. When npn transistor is used as an amplifier.
(c) 0.995 (d) None of these (a) electrons move from collector to base
61. For a transistor, in a common-emitter arrangement, the AC (b) holes move from emitter to base
current gain is given by : (c) electrons move from the base to collector
(a) Ic / IB vc constant (d) holes move from base to emitter
69. The minimum potential difference between the base and
(b) IB / Ic vc constant emitter required to switch a silicon transistor ‘ON’ is
approximately
(c) Ic / Ie vc constant (a) 1 V (b) 3 V
(c) 5 V (d) 4.2 V
(d) Ie / Ic vc constant
70. Consider a p-n junction as a capacitor formed with p and
62. The correct relationship between the two current gains n materials acting as thin metal electrons and depletion
and in a transistor is : layer width acting as separation between them. Basing, on
this assume that n-p-n transistor is working as an amplifier
(a) (b) in CE configuration. If C1 and C2 are the base emitter and
collector emitter junction capacitance, then
(a) C1 > C2 (b) C1 < C2
(c) (d)
(c) C1 = C2 (d) C1 = C2 = 0
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 124
71. In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 76. In the given circuit, the output Y becomes zero for the
mA. If 80% of hte electrons emitted reach the collector, inputs :
then the emitter current (in mA) is:
72. An n-p-n transistor operates as a common amplifier with a
power gain of 60dB. The input circuit resistance is 100
and the output load resistance is 10 k . The common
(a) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0 (b) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1
emitter current gain is: (c) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0 (d) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
73. A student performs an experiment to draw characteristic 77. Output Y is given by :
of a transistor in common emitter mode. He obtains output
characteristic as given below
(a) (X + Y) Z (b) (X – Y) Z
(c) X . Y Z (d) X Y . Z
78. Identify the gate and match A, B, Y in bracket to check.
Find the current gain of the transistor:
(a) AND (A = 1, B = 1, Y = 1)
(b) OR (A = 1, B = 1, Y = 0)
Logic Gates (c) NOT (A = 1, B = 1, Y = 1)
74. The correct option for getting X = 1 from the given circuit (d) XOR (A = 0, B = 0, Y = 0)
is
79. The following configuration of gate is equivalent to :
(a) NAND (b) XOR
(a) A = B = C = 1 (b) A = B = 1 and C = 0 (c) OR (d) None of these
(c) A = C = 1 and B = 0 (d) A = 0 and B = C = 1 80. In a negative logic, voltage representation the following
75. To get an output 1 from the circuit shown in the figure, the waveform corresponds to :
input must be
(a) A = 0, B = 1, C = 0 (b) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(a) 0000000000 (b) 0101101000
(c) A = 1, B = 0, C = 1 (d) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
(c) 1111111111 (d) 1010010111
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 125
81. The following circuit represents : 87. Audio frequency range is from :
(a) 20 Hz to 20 kHz (b) 200 Hz to 2000 Hz
(c) 2k Hz to 20 kHz (d) 20 kHz to 200 kHz
88. Basic components of a transmitter are :
(a) message signal generator and antenna
(b) modulator and antenna
(a) OR gate (b) XOR gate (c) signal generator and modulator
(c) AND gate (d) NAND gate (d) message signal generator, modulator and antenna
82. The circuit in the below figure represents which of the 89. Range of frequencies allotted for commerical FM radio
logic operations? broadcast is :
(a) 88 to 108 MHz (b) 88 to 108 kHz
(c) 8 to 88 MHz (d) 8 to 88 kHz
(a) OR (b) AND 90. The most commonly used two wire lines are :
(c) NOT (d) NOR (a) parallel wire lines (b) twisted pair wire lines
83. The output of NAND gate is 0, (c) co-axial wire lines (d) all of these
(a) if both inputs are 0 91. A digital signal possesses :
(b) if one input is 0 and the other input is 1 (a) continously varying values
(c) if both inputs are 1 (b) only two discrete values
(d) either if both inputs are 1 or if one of the inputs is 1
(c) only four discrete values
and other 0.
84. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C (d) none of the above
represents the output. 92. Modern communication systems are :
(a) analog circuits
(b) digital circuits
(c) combination of analog and digital
(d) none of the above
93. The principle used for the transmission of light signals
through the optical fibreis :
(a) reflection (b) refraction
The circuit represents (c) interference (d)total internal relfection
(a) NOR gate (b) AND gate 94. What happens inside optical fibres ?
(c) NAND gate (d) OR gate (a) Diffraction
(b) Polarization
Communication System (c) Interference
Introduction to Communication Systems (d)Total internal reflection
85. Major parts of a communication system are : 95. Which of the following device is full duplex ?
(a) transmitter and receiver
(a) Mobile phone (b) Walky-talky
(b) receiver and communication channel
(c) Loud speaker (d) Radio
(c) transmitter and communication channel
(d) transmitter, receiver and communication channel 96. A telephonic communication service is working at a carrier
frequency of 10 GHz. Only 10% of it is utilized for
86. Communication channel consists of :
transmission. The number of telephonic channels that can
(a) transmission line (b) optical fibre be transmitted simultaneously if each channel requires a
(c) free space (d) all of these 5
bandwidth of 5 kHz is k × 10 , where k is:
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 126
Propagation of EM waves 105. In satellite communication, the communication satellite :
97. Electromagnetic waves with frequencies greater than the (a) acts as a reflector for a beam of modulated microwave
critical frequency of ionosphere cannot be used for from transmitter sent directly towards it
communication using sky wave propagation, because : (b) acts as a reflector for signal reaching there, without
(a) the refractive index of the ionosphere becomes very any change in frequency
high for f > fc (c) receives the coming modulated microwave signal,
(b) the refractive index of the ionosphere becomes very amplifies it and returns it to earth at a different
low for f > fc frequency
(c) the refractive index of the ionosphere becomes very (d) none of these
high for f < fc 106. The maximum distance upto which TV transmission from
(d) None of the above a TV tower of height h can be received is proportional to:
98. To cover a population of 20 lakh, a transmission tower (a) h1/2 (b) h
should have a height : (radius of the earth = 6400 km, 3/2
(c) h (d) h2
population per square km = 1000)
107. A 80MHz carrier is modulated by a 400 Hz sine wave.
(a) 25 m (b) 50 m
The carrier voltage is 5V and the frequency deviation is
(c) 75 m (d) 100 m 20 kHz. Find the modulation indes.
99. The area of region covered by the TV broadcast by a TV Modulation of Signals
tower of 100m height is :
108. In frequency modulation :
(radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106 m)
(a) the amplitude of modulated wave varies as frequency
(a) 12.8 × 108 km2 (b) 1.28 × 103 km2
of carrier wave
(c) 0.64 × 103 km2 (d) 12.8 × 103 km2
(b) the frequency of modulated wave varies as amplitude
100. The sky wave propagation is suitable for radio-wave of of modulating wave
frequency :
(c) the amplitude of modulated wave varies as amplitude
(a) upto 2 MHz of carrier wave
(b) from 2 MHz to 20 MHz (d) the frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency
(c) from 2 MHz to 30 MHz of modulating wave
(d) from 2 MHz to 80 MHz 109. Modulation is the process of superposing :
101. An antenna is of height 500 m. What will be its range (a) low frequency audio signal on high frequency waves
(Radius of earth is 6400 km) ?
(b) low frequency radio signal on low frequency audio
(a) 800 km (b) 100 km waves
(c) 50 km (d) 80 km (c) high frequency radio signal on low frequency audio
102. Refractive index of ionosphere is : signal.
(a) zero (b) more than one (d) high frequency audio signal on low frequency radio
(c) less than one (d) one waves
103. The optical fibres have in an inner core of refractive index 110. In frequency modulated wave
n1 and a cladding of refractive index n2 ,such that : (a) frequency varies with time
(a) n1 = n2 (b) n1 < n2 (b) amplitude varies with time
(c) n1 < n2 (d) n1 > n2 (c) both frequency and amplitude varies with time.
104. The ground wave propagation is suitable for radio waves (d) both frequency and amlitude are time.
of frequency : 111. An oscillator is producing FM waves of frequency 2 kHz
(a) upto 2 MHz with a variation of 10 kHz. What is the modulating
(b) from2MHz to 20MHz index ?
(c) from 2 MHz to 30 Hz (a) 0.02 (b) 5.0
(d) none of these (c) 0.67 (d) 1.5
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 127
112. For effective modulation and transmission of message 118. If the maximum and minimum voltage of an AM wave
signal, which one of the following condition is true ? are Vmax and Vmin respectively then modulation factor :
(a) Frequency of message signal < frequency of carrier Vmax Vmin
wave (a) m V V (b) m V V
max min max min
(b) Frequency of message signal > frequency of carrier
wave Vmax Vmin Vmax Vmin
(c) m V V (d) m V V
(c) Amplitude of message signal > amplitude of carrier max min max min
wave 119. In frequency modulation :
(d) Amplitude of message signal < amplitude of carrier (a) phase angle of the carrier wave is varied
wave (b) amplitude of the carrier wave is kept constant
113. The time variations of signals are given as in A, B and C. (c) amplitude of carrier wave may also be varied
Point out the true statement from the following. (d) phase angle of carrier wave is kept constant.
120. Demodulation is the :
(a) process of decoupling of modulating wave from the
carrier wave
(b) process of coupling modulated wave with modulating
(c) process of separating carrier wave from the modulated
wave
(d) process of combining the message signal with the
carrier wave
121. For transmitting audio signal properly :
(a) A, B and C are analogue signals (a) it is first superimposed on high frequency carrier wave
(b) A and B are analogue, but C is digital signal. (b) it is first superimposed on low frequency carrier wave
(c) A and C are digital but B is analogue signal. (c) it is sent directly without superimposing on any wave
(d) A and C are analogue but B is digital signal. (d) none of the above
114. Modulation is the phenomenon of : 122. In frequency modulation the amount of frequency
(a) superimposing the audio frequency signal over a carrier deviation depends on the :
wave (a) frequency of audio signal
(b) separating the audio frequency signal from the carrier (b) amplitude of audio signal
wave (c) both the frequency and amplitude of audio signal
(c) separating carrier wave from the modulated wave (d) none of the above
(d) any of (a), (b), or (c) 123. For a carrier frequency of 100 kHz and a modulating
115. The modulating frequency is 5 kHz and the carrier frequency of 5 kHz, what is the band width of AM
frequency is 100 kHz. What is the band width of AM transmission ?
transmission ? (a) 5 kHz (b) 10 kHz
(a) 105 kHz (b) 95 kHz (c) 20 kHz (d) 200 kHz
(c) 2.5 kHz (d) 10 kHz 124. A signal 3A cos t is transmitted using u 0 sin 0 t signal
116. Why is it difficult to transmit audio signals directly ? as carrier wave. Its modulated signal is given as
(a) A very high antenna is needed for their propagation
nA
(b) Audio signals have a very high frequency u 0 sin 0 t sin 0 – t sin 0 t . Find the
2
(c) Audio signals can’t propagate independently
value of n.
(d) Audio signals can’t propagate through air
125. A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has height 32
117. Degree of modulation :
m and the height of the receiving antenna is 50 m. The
(a) can take any value
maximum distance (in km) between them for satisfactory
(b) should be less than 100%
communication is LOS mode is a 10km . Find the value
(c) should exceed 100%
(d) none of the above of : (Given radius of earth 6400 km).
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 128
EXERCISE - 2 : PREVIOUS YEARS JEE MAIN QUESTIONS
4. An experiment is performed to determine the I–V
Semiconductor
characteristics of a Zener diode, which has a protective
1. A 2V battery is connected across AB as shown in the figure. resistance of R=100 , and a maximum power of
The value of the current supplied by the battery when in dissipation rating of 1 W. The minimum voltage range of
one case battery’s positive terminal is connected to A and the DC source in the circuit is : (2016)
in other case when positive terminal of battery is connected
(a) 0 – 5 V (b) 0 – 8 V
to B will respectively be : (2015)
(c) 0 – 12 V (d) 0 – 24 V
5. To get an output of 1 from the circuit shown in figure the
input must be : (2016)
(a) 0.4 A and 0.2 A (b) 0.2 A and 0.4 A (a) a = 0, b = 0, c = 1 (b) a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
(c) 0.1 A and 0.2 A (d) 0.2 A and 0.1 A (c) a = 1, b = 0, c = 1 (d) a = 0, b = 1, c = 1
2. The value of the resistor, Rs, needed in the dc voltage 6. An unknown transistor needs to be identified as a npn or
regulator circuit shown here, equals : (2015) pnp type. A multimeter, with +ve and –ve terminals, is
used to measure resistance between different terminals of
transistor. If terminal 2 is the base of the transistor then
which of the following is correct for a pnp transistor?
(2016)
(a) +ve terminal 1, –ve terminal 2, resistance high
(b) +ve terminal 2, –ve terminal 1,resistance high
(c) +ve terminal 3, –ve terminal 2, resistance high
Vi VL Vi VL (d) +ve terminal 2, –ve terminal 3, resistance low
(a) n 1 I (b)
L n 1 IL 7. In a common emitter amplifier circuit using an n-p-n
transistor, the phase difference between the input and the
Vi VL Vi VL output voltages will be : (2017)
(c) (d) (a) 45° (b) 90°
nIL nIL
(c) 135° (d) 180°
3. The truth table given in figure represents :
8. What is the conductivity of a semiconductor sample having
A B Y electron concentration of 5 × 1018 m–3, hole concentration
0 0 0 of 5 × 1019 m–3, electron mobility of 2.0 m2 V–1 s–1 and hole
mobility of 0.01 m2 V–1 s–1 ?
0 1 1
(Take charge of electron as 1.6 × 10–19 C) (2017)
1 0 1 –1 –1
(a) 1.68 (-m) (b) 1.83 (-m)
1 1 1 (c) 0.59 (-m) –1
(d) 1.20 (-m)–1
(2016) 9. The current gain of a common emitter amplifier is 69. If
(a) AND – Gate (b) OR – Gate the emitter current is 7.0 mA, collector current is :(2017)
(a) 9.6 mA (b) 6.9 mA
(c) NAND – Gate (d) NOR – Gate
(c) 0.69 mA (d) 69 mA
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 129
10. The reading of the ammeter for a silicon diode in the given 13. In the given circuit, the current through zener diode is :
circuit is : (2018)
(2018)
(a) 5.5 mA (b) 6.7 mA
(c) 2.5 mA (d) 3.3 mA
(a) 11.5 mA (b) 13.5 mA 14. The reverse breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is 5.6
(c) 0 (d) 15 mA V in the given circuit.
11. In a common emitter configuration with suitable bias, it is
given that RL is the load resistance and RBE is small signal
dynamic resistance (input side). Then, voltage gain, current
gain and power gain are given, respectively, by :
is current gain, IB, IC and IE are respectively base,
collector and emitter currents. (2018) The current Iz through the Zener (in mA) is :
(2019-04-08/Shift -1)
R L I C 2 R L R L I E 2 R L
(a) ,
R BE I B
,
R BE (b) R , I , R 15. A common emitter amplifier circuit, built using an npn
BE B BE
transistor, is shown in the figure. Its CE current gain is
2 R L IC 2 RL 2 R L I C RL 250,RC = 1 k and VCC = 10 V. What is the minimum base
(c) R , I , R (d) R , I , R
BE E BE BE B BE
current for VCE to reach saturation?
12. Truth table for the following digital circuit will be : (2019-04-08/Shift -2)
(2018)
(a) 40 µA (b) 100 µA
(c) 7 µA (d) 10 µA
16. An NPN tr ansist or is used in common em itt er
(a) (b) configuration as an amplifier with 1k load resistance.
Signal voltage of 10 mV is applied across the base-
emitter. This produces a 3mA change in the collector
current and 15 A change in the base current of the
amplifier. The input resistance and voltage gain are:
(2019-04-09/Shift -1)
(c) (d) (a) 0.67 k , 200 (b) 0.67 k , 300
(c) 0.33 k ,1.5 (d) 0.33k , 300
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 130
17. The logic gate equivalent to the given logic circuit is: 20. Figure shows a DC voltage regulator circuit, with a Zener
diode of breakdown voltage = 6V. If the unregulated input
voltage varies between 10 V and 16 V, then what is the
maximum Zener current? (2019-04-12/Shift -2)
(2019-04-09/Shift -2)
(a) NAND (b) OR
(c) NOR (d) AND
18. The figure represents a voltage regulator circuit using a
Zener diode. The breakdown voltage of the Zener diode is
6 V and the load resistance is RL 4 k . The series
resistance of the circuit is Ri 1k . If the battery voltage
(a) 2.5 mA (b) 1.5 mA
VBvaries from 8 V to 16 V, what are the minimum and
(c) 7.5 mA (d) 3.5 mA
maximum values of the current through Zener diode?
(2019-04-10/Shift -2) 21. Ge and Si diodes start conducting at 0.3 V and 0. 7 V
respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode
connections are reversed, the value of V0 changes by : (
assume that the Ge diode has large breakdown voltage)
(2019-04-09/Shift -2)
(a) 0.5 mA; 6 mA (b) 1 mA; 8.5 mA
(c) 0.5 mA; 8.5 mA (d) 1.5 mA; 8.5 mA
19. The truth table for the circuit given in the figure is:
(2019-04-12/Shift -1) (a) 0.8 V (b) 0.6 V
(c) 0.2 V (d) 0.4 V
A B Y A B Y 22. To get output ‘1’ at R, for the given logic gate circuit the
0 0 1 0 0 1
input values must be: (2019-04-10/Shift -1)
0 1 1 0 1 0
(a) (b)
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 0
A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 0
(c) (d) (a) X = 0, Y = 1 (b) X = 1, Y = 1
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1 (c) X = 1, Y = 0 (d) X = 0, Y = 0
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 131
23. For the circuit shown below, the current through the Zener 27.
diode is: (2019-04-10/Shift -2)
(a) 9 mA (b) 5 mA In the figure, given that VBB supply can vary from 0 to 5.0 V,
(c) Zero (d) 14 mA
VCC 5V, dc 200 , RB 100k , RC 1 K and VBE 1.0V .
24. In the given circuit the current (in mA) through Zener The minimum base current and the input voltage at which
Diode is close to : (2019-04-11/Shift -1)
the transistor will go to saturation, will be, respectively:
(2019-01-12/Shift -2)
(a) 25 A and 3.5 V
(b) 20 and 3.5 V
(c) 25 and 2.8 V
25. The circuit shown below contains two ideal diodes, each
(d) 20 and 2.8 V
with a forward resistance of 50 . If the battery voltage is
6V,the current through the 100 resistance (in amperes) 28. In the following digital circuit, what will be the output
is: (2019-04-11/Shift -2) at ‘Z’, when the input (A, B) are (1, 0), (0, 0), (1, 1), (0,1) :
(2020-09-02/Shift -2)
(a) 0.036 (b) 0.020 (a) 0, 1, 0, 0 (b) 1, 1, 0, 1
(c) 0.027 (d) 0.030 (c) 0, 0, 1, 0 (d) 1, 0, 1, 1
26. The output of the given logic circuit is ______.
29. When a diode is forward biased, it has a voltage drop of
0.5 V. The safe limit of current through the diode is 10
mA. If a battery of emf 1.5 V is used in the circuit, the
value of minimum resistance to be connected in series with
the diode so that the current does not exceed the safe
limit is : (2020-09-03/Shift -1)
(2019-01-12/Shift -1) (a) 300 (b) 200
(a) AB AB (b) AB AB
(c) 50 (d) 100
(c) AB (d) AB
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 132
30. Take the breakdown voltage of the zener diode used in the 32. Two zener diodes (A and B) having breakdown voltages
given circuit as 6V. For the input voltage shown in figure of 6 V and 4 V respectively, are connected as shown in the
below, the time variation of the output voltage is: (Graphs circuit below. The output voltage V0 variation with input
drawn are schematic and not to scale) voltage linearly increasing with time, is given by (Vinput =
0 V at t = 0)
(2020-09-04/Shift -1)
(figures are qualitative) (2020-09-05/Shift -2)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
31. With increasing biasing voltage of a photodiode, the
photocurrent magnitude : (2020-09-05/Shift -1)
(a) increases initially and saturates finally
(d)
(b) remains constant
(c) increase linearly
(d) increases initially and after attaining certain value, it
decreases
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 133
33. For the given input voltage waveform Vin(t), the output 34. The output characteristics of a transistor is shown in the
voltage waveform V0(t), across the capacitor is correctly figure. When VCE is 10V and IC 4.0mA , then value of
depicted by : (2020-09-06/Shift -1)
ac is __________.
(2020-09-06/Shift -2)
35. Which of the following gives reversible operation?
(2020-01-07/Shift -1)
36. In the figure, potential difference between a and b is
(2020-01-07/Shift -2)
(a) 0V (b) 15V
(c) 10V (d) 5V
37. Choose the correct Boolean expression for the given circuit
diagram:
(2020-01-08/Shift -1)
(a) A.B (b) A B
(c) A + B (d) A.B
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 134
38. In the given circuit, value of Y is 41. The current (i) in the network is
(2020-01-08/Shift -2)
(a) 1
(2020-01-09/Shift -2)
(b) 0
(a) 0A (b) 0.3A
(c) Will not execute
(c) 0.2A (d) 0.6A
(d) Toggles between 0 and 1
42. The circuit shown below is working as a 8V dc regulated
39. In the given circuit both diodes are ideal having zero
voltage source. When 12V is used as input, the power
forward resistance and built-in potential of 0.7 V. Find the
dissipated (in mW ) in each diode is; (considering both
potential of point E in volts
zener diode are identical).
(2020-01-09/Shift -1)
40. Two identical capacitors A and B charged to the same
potential 5V are connected in two different circuit as shown
below at time t = 0. If the charges on capacitors A and B at
timeis t = CR is QA and QB respectively, then (Here is the
base of natural logarithm) (2020-01-09/Shift -2)
43. Given below are two statements
Statement I: PN junction diodes can be used to function
as transistors, simply by connecting two diodes, back to
back, which act as the base terminal.
Statement II: In the study of transistor the amplification
factor indicates ratio of the collector current to the base
current.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(2020-01-09/Shift -2) answer from the options given below. (2021)
CV CV CV (a) Statement I is false but Statement II are true
(a) CV , (b) ,
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
e e 2e
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
CV VC CV (d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(c) , (d) , CV
e 2 e
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 135
44. The logic circuit shown is equivalent to (2021) 47. For extrinsic semiconductors; when doping level is
increased;
(a) Fermi-level of p and n-type semiconductors will not be
affected.
(b) Fermi-level of p-type semiconductors will go downward
and Fermi-level of n-type semiconductor will go upward
(c) Fermi-level of p-type semiconductor will go upward
and Fermi-level of n-type semiconductor will go
downward.
(d) Fermi-level of both p-type semiconductors will go
upward T TF K and downward for T TF K, where
TF is Fermi temperature.
48. Match List with List II. (2021)
List I List II
(a) Rectifier (i) used for stepping up or
stepping down the a.c.
voltage
(b) Stabilizer (ii) Used to convert a.c. voltage
into d.c. voltage
(c) Transformer (iii) Used to remove any ripple
45. Zener breakdown occurs in a p-n junction having p and n
both: (2021) in the rectified output
(a) lightly doped and have wide depletion layer. voltage
(b) heavily doped and have wide depletion layer. (d) Filter (iv) Used for constant output
(c) lightly doped and have narrow depletion layer.
voltage even when the input
(d) heavily doped and have narrow depletion layer.
46. A 5V battery is connected across the points X and Y. Assume voltage or load current
D1 and D2 to be normal silicon diodes. Find the current change
supplied by the battery if the +ve terminal of the battery is Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
connected to point X.
(a) (a-ii), (b-iv), (c-i), (d-iii)
(b) (a-iii), (b-iv), (c-i), (d-ii)
(c) (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iv), (d-iii)
(d) (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iii), (d-iv)
49. LED is constructed from Ga-As-P semiconductor material.
The energy gap of this LED is 1.9eV. Calculate the
wavelength of light emitted and its colour. (2021)
(a) 654 nm and red colour
(b) 1046 nm and blue colour
(a) ~ 0.43A (b) ~ 0.5A
(c) 1046 nm and red colour
(c) ~ 1.5A (d) ~ 0.86A
(d) 654nm and orange colour
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 136
50. Draw the output signal Y in the given combination of gates. 52. Which one of the following will be the output of the given
circuit? (2021)
(2021)
(a) NOR Gate (b) NAND Gate
(c) AND Gate (d) XOR Gate
53. The correct relation between (ratio of collector current
to emitter current) and (ratio of collector current to base
current) of a transistor is: (2021)
1
(a) (b)
1 1
(c) (d)
1 1
54. In connection with the circuit drawn below, the value of
current flowing through 2k resistor is _____ 104 A.
(2021)
55. The circuit contains two diodes each with a forward
resistance of 50 and with infinite reverse resistance. If
the battery voltage is 6V, the current through the 120
51. The output of the given combination gates represents:
resistance ____mA. (2021)
(2021)
(a) XOR Gate (b) NAND Gate
(c) AND Gate (d) NOR Gate
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 137
56. In the logic circuit shown in the figure, if input A and B are Communication System
0 and 1 respectively, the output at Y would be ‘x’. The Objective Question
value of x is _____. (2021)
60. A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated on a
carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz. The frequencies of the
resultant signal is/are : (2015)
(a) 2 MHz only
(b) 2005 kHz, and 1995 kHz
(c) 2005 kHz, 200 kHz and 1995 kHz
(d) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
57. The value of power dissipated across the zener diode
61. Choose the correct statement : (2016)
Vz 15V connected in the circuit as shown in the figure
(a) In amplitude modulation the amplitude of the high
is x 101 watt. (2021) frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion
to the amplitude of the audio signal.
(b)In amplitude modulation the frequency of the high
frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion
to the amplitude of the audio signal.
(c) In frequency modulation the amplitude of the high
frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion
to the amplitude of the audio signal.
(d)In frequency modulation the amplitude of the high
frequency carrier wave is made to vary in proportion
The valeu of x, to the nearest integer, is _____. to the frequency of the audio signal.
58. An npn transistor operates as a common emitter amplifier 62. An audio signal consists of two distinct sounds : one is a
with a power gain of 106 . The input circuit resistance is human speech signal in the frequency band of 200 Hz to
2700 Hz, while the other is high frequency music signal in
100 and the output load resistance is 10k . The
the frequency band of 10200 Hz to 15200 Hz. The ratio of
common emitter current gain ' ' will be ..... (Round off to the AM signal bandwidth required to send both the signals
the Nearest integer) (2021) together to the AM signal bandwidth required to send just
59. The typical output characteristics curve for a transistor the human speech is (2016)
working in the common emitter configuration is shown in (a) 3 (b) 5
figure. (2021) (c) 6 (d) 7
63. A modulated signal Cm (t) has the form
Cm (t) 30sin 300t 10 cos 200t cos 400t . T he
carrier frequency f c , the modulating frequency(message
frequency) f W and the modulation index are respectively
given by : (2016)
1
(a) f c 200Hz;f w 50Hz;
2
2
(b) f c 150Hz;f w 50Hz;
3
1
(c) f c 150Hz;f w 30Hz;
3
The estimated current gain from the figure is ...
1
(d) f c 200Hz;f w 30Hz;
2
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 138
64. In amplitude modulation, sinusoidal carrier frequency used 69. An amplitude modulated signal is plotted below :
is denoted by c and the signal frequency is denoted by
m . The bandwidth m of the signal is such that
m c . Which of the following frequencies is not
contained in the modulated wave ? (2017)
(a) m (b) c
(c) m c (d) c m
65. A signal of frequency 20 kHz and peak voltage of 5 Volt is Which one of the following best describes the above
used to modulate a carrier wave of frequency 1.2 MHz signal ? (2019)
and peak voltage 25 Volts. Choose the correct statement.
(2017)
5
(a) 9 sin 2.5 10 t sin 2 10 t V
4
(b) 1 9 sin 2 10 t sin 2.5 10 t V
4 5
(a) Modulation index = 5, side frequency bands are at 1400
kHz and 1000 kHz
(c) 9 sin 2 10 t sin 2.5 10 t V
4 5
(b)Modulation index = 5, side frequency bands are at 21.2
kHz and 18.8 kHz
(d) 9 sin 4 10 t sin 5 10 t V
4 5
(c) Modulation index = 0.8, side frequency bands are at
1180 kHz and 1220 kHz 70. A signal A cos t is transmitting using 0 sin 0 t modu-
(d)Modulation index = 0.2, side frequency bands are at lated (AM) signal is: (2019)
1220 kHz and 1180 kHz
A A
66. A signal is to be transmitted through a wave of wavelength (a) 0 sin 0 t sin 0 t sin 0 t
2 2
, using a linear antenna. The length 1 of the antenna and
(b) 0 sin 0 1 0.01A sin t t
effective power radiated Peff will be given respectively as
(c) 0 sin 0 t A cos t
: (K is constant of proportionality) (2017)
2
(d) 0 A cos t sin 0 t
1 1
(a) , Peff K (b) , Peff K 71. The physical sizes of the transmitter and receiver antenna
8 in a communication system are : (2019)
1
3 (a) Independent of both carrier and modulation frequency
1 1 2
(c) , Peff K (d) , Peff K (b) Inversely proportional to carrier frequency
16 5
(c) Inversely proportional to modulation frequency
67. An amplitude modulated wave is represented by the ex- Proportional to carrier frequency
pression Vm 5 1 0.6 cos 6280t sin 211 10 4 t volts. (d) None of these
72. In an amplitude modulator circuit the carrier wave is given
The minimum and maximum amplitudes of the amplitude
modulated wave are, repectively (2020) by, C(t) 4sin 20000t while modulating signal is
3 given by m(t) 2sin 2000t . The value of modulation
(a) V, 5V (b) 5V,8V
2
index and lower side band frequency are: (2019)
(c) 3V,5V (d) 2V,8V (a) 0.5 and 10 kHz (b) 0.4 and 10 kHz
68. In a communication system operation at wavelength 800 (c) 0.3 and 9 kHz (d) 0.5 and 9 kHz
nm, only one percent of source frequency is available as 73. An amplitude modulated signal is given by
signal bandwidth. The number of channels accommodated
for transmitting TV signals of band width 6 MHz are (Take V(t) 10 1 0.3cos 2.2 10 4 t sin 5.5 105 t Here t
velocity of light c 3 108 m / s, h 6.6 10 34 J s) is in seconds. The sideband frequencies (in kHz).
(2019) Given 22 / 7 (2019)
(a) 3.75 10 6 (b) 3.86 10 6
(a) 1785 and 1715 (b) 1715 and 1785
(c) 6.25 10 5 (d) 4.87 10 5 (c) 89.25 and 85.75 (d) 892.5 and 857.5
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 139
74. Given below in the left column are different modes of 80. Given below are two statements: (2021)
communication using the kinds of waves given in the right Statement I: A speech signal of 2 kHz is used to modulate
column. a carrier signal of 1MHz. The bandwidth requirement for
From the options given below, find the most appropriate the signal is 4kHz.
match between entries in the left and right column. Statement II: The side band frequencies are 1002kHz and
998kHz. In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2019)
correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
A. Optical communication P. Ultrasound (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement 1 is false but Statement II is true
B. Radar Q. Infrared Light
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C. Sonar R. Microwaves
81. If a message signal of frequency 'f m ' is amplitude
D. Mobile Phones S. Radio Waves
modulated with a carrier signal of frequency 'f c ' and
(a) A-S, B-Q, C-R, D-P (b) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R radiated through an antenna, the wavelength of the
(c) A-R, B-P, C-S,D-Q (d)A-Q, B-S, C-R, D-P corresponding signal in air is : (2021)
75. A message signal of frequency 100 MHz peak voltage 100 c c
(a) f (b) f
V is used to execute amplitude modulation on a carrier c m
wave of frequency 300 GHz and peak voltage 400 V. The c c
modulation index and the difference between the two (c) f f (d) f f
c m c m
sideband frequencies respectively are: (2019) 82. A 25m long antenna is mounted on an antenna tower. The
(a) 4 & 2 108 Hz (b) 4 &1 108 Hz height of the antenna tower is 75m. The wavelength (in
meter) of the signal transmitted by this antenna would be
(c) 0.25 &1 108 Hz (d) 0.25 & 2 108 Hz (2021)
(a) 300 (b) 200
76. An audio signal v m 20sin 2 1500t amplitude (c) 100 (d) 400
83. Two identical antennas mounted on identical towers are
modulates a carrier v c 80sin 2 100, 000t . separated from each other by a distance of 45km. What
The value of percent modulation is ____. (2021) should nearly be the minimum height of receiving antenna
to receive the signals in line of sight ? (Assume radius of
77. The maximum and minimum amplitude of an amplitude
earth is 6400km) (2021)
modulated wave is 16V and 8V respectively. The
(a) 39.55m (b) 158.2m
modulation index for this amplitude modulated wave is
(c) 79.1m (d) 19.77m
x 102. The value of x is _____. (2021)
A carrier signal C t 25sin 2.512 10 t is amplitude
10
84.
78. For VHF signal broadcasting. ____ km of maximum
2
modulated by a message signal m t 5sin 1.57 10 t
8
service area will be covered by an antena tower of height
30m, if the receiving antenna is placed at ground. Let radius and transmitted through an antenna. What will be the
bandwidth of the modulated signal? (2021)
of the earth be 6400km. (Round off to the Nearest integer)
(a) 8GHz (b) 2.01 GHz
(Take as 3.14) (2021)
(c) 1987.5MHz (d) 50MHz
79. A TV transmission tower antenna is at a height of 20m. 85. Match List I with List II (2021)
Suppose that the receiving antenna is at. (2021) List I List II
(i) ground level (a) 10km height over earth’ surface (i) Thermosphere
(ii) a height of 5m. (b) 70km height over earth’s surface (ii) Mesosphere
The increase in antenna range in case (ii) relative to case (c) 180km height over earth’s surface (iii) Stratosphere
(i) is n%. The value of n, to the nearest integer, is .......... (d) 270km height over earth’s surface (iv) Troposphere
(a) (A-ii), (B-i), (C-iv), (D-iii)
(b) (A-i), (B-iv), (C-iii), (D-ii)
(c) (A-iii), (B-ii), (C-i), (D-iv)
(d) (A-iv), (B-iii), (C-ii), (D-i)
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 140
EXERCISE - 3: ADVANCED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
Single Choice Questions 10. Carbon, silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence
1. The nature of binding for a crystal with alternate and evenly electrons each. Their valence and conduction band are
spaced positive and negative ions is separated by energy band gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si
(a) Covalent (b) Metallic and (E g)Ge respectively. Which one of the following
relationship is true in their case
(c) Dipolar (d) Ionic
2. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a conductor is (a) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si (b) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si
(a) Positive always (b) Negative always (c) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge (d) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si
(c) Zero (d) Infinite 11. The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction
3. To obtain P–type Si semiconductor, we need to dope pure band of an intrinsic semiconductor at a finite temperature
Si with (a) Decreases exponentially with increasing band gap
(a) Aluminium (b) Phosphorous (b) Increases exponentially with increasing band gap
(c) Oxygen (d) Germanium (c) Decreases with increasing temperature
4. Let np and ne be the number of holes and conduction
(d) Is independent of the temperature and the band gap
electrons respectively in a semiconductor. Then
12. When Ge crystals are doped with phosphorus atom, then it
(a) np > ne in an intrinsic semiconductor
becomes
(b) np = ne in an extrinsic semiconductor
(a) Insulator (b) P-type
(c) np = ne in an intrinsic semiconductor
(d) ne > np in an intrinsic semiconductor (c) N-type (d) Superconductor
5. When the temperature of silicon sample is increased from 13. Which impurity is doped in Si to form N-type semi-
27°C to 100°C, the conductivity of silicon will be conductor?
(a) Increased (b) Decreased (a) Al (b) B
(c) Remain same (d) Zero (c) As (d) None of these
6. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration of 14. A semiconductor doped with a donor impurity is
acceptor atoms is ~1021 atoms/m3. Given that the intrinsic
(a) P–type (b) N–type
concentration of electron hole pairs is ~ 10 19 / m 3 , the
(c) NPN type (d) PNP type
concentration of electrons in the specimen is
15. Which of the following statements is not true
(a) 1017/m3 (b) 1015/m3
(c) 104/m3 (d) 102/m3 (a) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductors decrease with
increase of temperature
7. Bonding in a germanium crystal (semi- conductor) is
(a) Metallic (b) Ionic (b) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities give P–type
semiconductors
(c) Vander Waal’s type (d) Covalent
8. In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the (c) The majority carriers in N–type semiconductors are holes
valence band and conduction band is of the order of (d) A PN–junction can act as a semiconductor diode
(a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 MeV 16. In semiconductor the concentrations of electrons and holes
(c) 1eV (d) 5eV are 8 1018/m3 and 5 1018/m3 respectively. If the mobilities
9. In extrinsic semiconductors of electrons and hole are 2.3 m2/volt-sec and 0.01 m2/volt-
(a) The conduction band and valence band overlap sec respectively, then semiconductor is
(b) The gap between conduction band and valence band is (a) N-type and its resistivity is 0.34 ohm-metre
more than 16 eV (b) P-type and its resistivity is 0.034 ohm-metre
(c) The gap between conduction band and valence band is (c) N-type and its resistivity is 0.034 ohm-metre
near about 1 eV
(d) P-type and its resistivity is 3.40 ohm-metre
(d) The gap between conduction band and valence band
will be 100 eV and more
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 141
17. The majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor are 24. Current in the circuit will be
(a) Electrons (b) Protons
(c) Holes (d) Neutrons
18. In P–type semiconductor, there is
(a) An excess of one electron
i
(b) Absence of one electron
(c) A missing atom 5V
(d) A donor level 5 5
(a) A (b) A
19. In a P-type semiconductor 40 50
(a) Current is mainly carried by holes
5 5
(b) Current is mainly carried by electrons (c) A (d) A
10 20
(c) The material is always positively charged
25. Find VAB
(d) Doping is done by pentavalent material
20. A silicon specimen is made into a P-type semi-conductor
by doping, on an average, one Indium atom per 5 × 107 30V
silicon atoms. If the number density of atoms in the silicon
VAB
specimen is 5 × 1028 atoms /m3 then the number of acceptor
atoms in silicon per cubic centimetre will be
(a) 2.5 × 1030 atoms /cm3 (b) 1.0 × 1013 atoms /cm3 (a) 10 V (b) 20 V
(c) 1.0 × 1015 atoms /cm3 (d) 2.5 × 1036 atoms /cm3 (c) 30 V (d) None of these
21. In forward bias, the width of potential barrier in a P-N 26. If the following input signal is sent through a PN-junction
junction diode diode, then the output signal across RL will be
(a) Increases
10V
(b) Decreases P N
0V
(c) Remains constant RL
(d) First increases then decreases
22. In the circuit given below, the value of the current is –10V
+ 4V PN 300 + 1V 20V
(a) (b)
–10V
(a) 0 amp (b) 10–2 amp
(c) 102 amp (d) 10–3 amp
10V
23. In the circuit, if the forward voltage drop for the diode is (c) (d)
0.5V, the current will be –20V
0.5V
27. Which one is reverse-biased
10V
8V –5V
(a) 15V (b)
–10V
(a) 3.4 mA (b) 2 mA –5V
–10V
(c) 2.5 mA (d) 3 mA (c) (d)
10V
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 142
28. In the circuit given below, V(t) is the sinusoidal voltage 31. The transfer ratio of a transistor is 50. The input resistance
source, voltage drop VAB(t) across the resistance R is of the transistor when used in the common-emitter
configuration is 1 K. The peak value for an A.C input
D1 D2 voltage of 0.01 V peak is
(a) 100 A (b) 0.01 mA
R VAB (c) 0.25 mA (d) 500 A
32. An NPN-transistor circuit is arranged as shown in figure.
~ V(t) It is
(a) Is half wave rectified (b) Is full wave rectified N
(c) Has the same peak value in the positive and negative P RL
half cycles N V out
V in
(d) Has different peak values during positive and negative
half cycle
29. Different voltages are applied across a P-N junction and
the currents are measured for each value. Which of the
following graphs is obtained between voltage and current (a) A common base amplifier circuit
(b) A common emitter amplifier circuit
I I
(c) A common collector amplifier circuit
(d) Neither of the above
(a) (b)
33. Consider an NPN transistor amplifier in common-emitter
–V +V –V +V configuration. The current gain of the transistor is 100. If the
collector current changes by 1 mA, what will be the change
I in emitter current
I
(a) 1.1 mA (b) 1.01 mA
(c) (d) (c) 0.01 mA (d) 10 mA
–V +V 34. In the following common emitter configuration an NPN
–V +V
transistor with current gain = 100 is used. The output
30. The resistance of a germanium junction diode whose V– I voltage of the amplifier will be
is shown in figure is (Vk = 0.3V)
I
10mA Vout
1mV ~
(a) 10 mV (b) 0.1 V
V (c) 1.0 V (d) 10 V
Vk 2.3V
35. In an NPN transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 mA.
(a) 5 k (b) 0.2 k If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector, the
emitter current (iE) and base current (iB) are given by
10 (a) iE = – 1 mA, iB = 9 mA (b) iE = 9 mA, iB = – 1 mA
(c) 2.3 k (d) k
2.3
(c) iE = 1 mA, iB = 11 mA (d) iE = 11 mA, iB = 1 mA
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 143
36. In NPN transistor the collector current is 10 mA. If 90% of 43. A common emitter amplifier is designed with NPN
electrons emitted reach the collector, then transistor ( = 0.99). The input impedance is 1 K and
(a) Emitter current will be 9 mA load is 10 K. The voltage gain will be
(b) Emitter current will be 11.1 mA (a) 9.9 (b) 99
(c) Base current will be 0.1 mA (c) 990 (d) 9900
(d) Base current will be 0.01 mA
44. The logic behind ‘NOR’ gate is that it gives
37. For the transistor circuit shown below, if = 100, voltage
(a) High output when both the inputs are low
drop between emitter and base is 0.7 V then value of VCE will
be (b) Low output when both the inputs are low
(c) High output when both the inputs are high
(d) None of these
C
45. Which of the following logic gate is an universal gate
18V
VCE
B (a) OR (b) NOT
E
(c) AND (d) NOR
5V 46. The given truth table is of
(a) 10 V (b) 5 V
(c) 13 V (d) 0 V A X
38. When NPN transistor is used as an amplifier 0 1
(a) Electrons move from base to collector
1 0
(b) Holes move from emitter to base
(c) Electrons move from collector to base
(d) Holes move from base to emitter (a) OR gate (b) AND gate
39. If = 0.98 and current through emitter ie = 20 mA, the (c) NOT gate (d) None of above
value of is 47. This symbol represents
(a) 4.9 (b) 49
(c) 96 (d) 9.6 A
40. For a common base configuration of PNP transistor Y
B
Ic
0.96 then maximum current gain in common emitter
Ie (a) NOT gate (b) OR gate
configuration will be (c) AND gate (d) NOR gate
(a) 12 (b) 24 48. The combination of the gates shown in the figure below
(c) 6 (d) 5 produces
41. For a transistor the parameter = 99. The value of the
parameter is A
(a) 0.9 (b) 0.99 A
(c) 1 (d) 9 Y
42. For a transistor, in a common emitter arrangement, the
alternating current gain is given by B
B
I I B
(a) C (b)
I B VC I C VC (a) NOR gate (b) OR gate
(c) AND gate (d) XOR gate
I I
(c) C (d) E
I E VC I C VC
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 144
49. Given below are four logic gate symbol (figure). Those for 54. The output of a NAND gate is 0
OR, NOR and NAND are respectively (a) If both inputs are 0
A y y (b) If one input is 0 and the other input is 1
A
B B (c) If both inputs are 1
(1) (2) (d) Either if both inputs are 1 or if one of the inputs is 1 and
A y A y the other 0
B B 55. Which gates is represented by this figure
(3) (4)
A
(a) 1, 4, 3 (b) 4, 1, 2 y
(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 4, 2, 1 B
50. Sum of the two binary numbers (100010)2 and (11011)2 (a) NAND gate (b) AND gate
is
(c) NOT gate (d) OR gate
(a) (111101)2 (b) (111111)2
56. The truth-table given below is for which gate
(c) (101111)2 (d) (111001)2
A 0 0 1 1
51. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the study of
truth table it can be found that to produce a high output (1) B 0 1 0 1
at R, we must have C 1 1 1 0
(a) XOR (b) OR
X (c) AND (d) NAND
P
Y R 57. A truth table is given below. Which of the following has
this type of truth table
O A 0 1 0 1
B 0 0 1 1
(a) X = 0, Y = 1 (b) X = 1, Y = 1 y 1 0 0 0
(c) X = 1, Y = 0 (d) X = 0, Y = 0 (a) XOR gate (b) NOR gate
52. A gate has the following truth table (c) AND gate (d) OR gate
P 1 1 0 0
Q 1 0 1 0
Assertion & Reason
R 1 0 0 0
(A) Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the
The gate is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(a) NOR (b) OR (B) Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not a
(c) NAND (d) AND correct explanation of the Assertion.
53. Which logic gate is represented by the following (C) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
combination of logic gates
(D) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
58. Assertion : If the temperature of a semiconductor is
A
increased then it’s resistance decreases.
Y
Reason : The energy gap between conduction band & valence
B
band is very small
(a) A (b) B
(a) OR (b) NAND (c) C (d) D
(c) AND (d) NOR
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 145
59. Assetion : The electrical conductivity of n-type 63. Assertion : Zener diode works on a principle of breakdown
semiconductor is higher than that of p-type semiconductor voltage.
at a given temperature and voltage applied. Reason :Current increases suddenly after breakdown
Reason : The mobility of electron is higher than that of voltage.
hole. (a) A (b) B
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
(c) C (d) D 64. Assertion : The color of light emitted by a LED depends
on its forward biasing.
60. Assertion : The number of electrons in a P-type silicon
semiconductor is less than the number of electrons in a Reason : The reverse biasing of p-n junction will increase
pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature. the width of depletion layer.
Reason : It is due to law of mass action. (a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
(a) A (b) B
Multiple Choice Questions
(c) C (d) D
65. Which of the following statements concerning the depletion
61. Assertion : When PN–junction is forward biased then zone of an unbiased PN junction is (are) true
motion of charge carriers at junction is due to diffusion. In
reverse biasing the cause of motion of charge is drifting. (a) The width of the zone is independent of the densities
of the dopants (impurities)
Reason : In the following circuit emitter is reverse biased
(b) The width of the zone is dependent on the densities of
and collector is forward biased.
the dopants
(c) The electric field in the zone is produced by the ionized
dopant atoms
(d) The electric field in the zone is provided by the electrons
in the conduction band and the holes in the valence band
66. Holes are charge carriers in
(a) Intrinsic semiconductors (b) Ionic solids
(c) P-type semiconductors (d) Metals
67. Which of the following statements concerning the
depletion zone of an unbiased PN junction is (are) true
(a) A (b) B (a) The width of the zone is independent of the densities
of the dopants (impurities)
(c) C (d) D
(b) The width of the zone is dependent on the densities of
62. Assertion : In the following circuit the potential drop across the dopants
the resistance is zero.
(c) the electric field in the zone is produced by the ionized
– 2V dopant atoms
(d) the electric field in the zone is provided by the electrons
in the conductor band and the holes in the valence band
68. When a potential difference is applied across, the current
– 5V passing through
Reason :The given resistance has low value. (a) an insulator at 0 K is zero
(a) A (b) B (b) a semiconductor at 0 K is zero
(c) C (d) D (c) a metal at 0 K is finite
(d) a p-n diode at 300 K is finite, if it is reverse biased
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 146
69. The following logic circuit represents 73. The output characteristics of a transistor is shown in the
figure. When VCE is 10V and IC 4.0mA, then value of
ac _______.
(a) NAND gate with ouput O X Y
(b) NOR gate with output O X Y
(c) NAND gate with outpur O XY
(d) NOR gate with output O X.Y
70. The breakdown in a reverse biased p-n junction diode is
more likely to occur due to
(a) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the
74. In the following arrangement, if A = 1, B = 0 and C = 1,
doping concentration is small
then output Y is
(b) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the
doping concentration is large
(c) strong electric field in a depletion region if the doping
concentration is small
(d) strong electric field in the depletion region if the doping
75. In a semiconductor, the number density of intrinsic charge
concentration is large.
carriers at 27° C is 1.5 1016 / m3 . If the semiconductor is
71. In the depletion region of a diode.
doped with impurity atom, the hole density increases to
(a) there are no mobile charges
4.5 1022 / m3 . The electron density in the doped
(b) equal number of holes and electrons exist, making the semiconductor is _______ 109 / m3 .
region neutral
(c) recombination of holes and electrons has taken place
(d) in mobile charged ions exist.
Numeric Value Type Questions
72. The circuit shown below is working as a 9V dc regulated
voltage source. When 12V is used as input, the power
dissipated (in mW) in each diode is; (considering both
zener diode are identical).
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 147
EXERCISE - 4 : PREVIOUS YEARS JEE ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Objective Questions True/False
3
1. The plate resistance of a triode is 3 × 10 and its mutual 4. For a diode the variation of its anode current Ia with the
–3
conductance is 1.5 × 10 A/V. The amplification factor of anode voltage Va at two different cathode temperature T1
the triode is : (1981) and T2 is shown in the figure. The temperature T2 is greater
–5
than T1. (1986)
(a) 5 × 10 (b) 4.5
5
(c) 45 (d) 2 × 10
2. Two identical p-n junctions may be connected in series with
a battery in three ways, as shown in figure. The potential
drops across the two p-n junctions are equal in
(1982)
Subjective Question
5. A triode has plate characteristics in the form of parallel
lines in the region of our interest. At a grid voltage of –1 V
the anode current I (in mA) is given in terms of plate voltage
V by the algebraic relation :
I = 0.125 V – 7.5
For grid voltage of –3 V, the current at anode voltage of
300 V is 5 mA. Determine the plate resistance (r p)
transconductance (gm) and the amplification factor () for
(a) circuit 1 and circuit 2
the triode. (1987)
(b) circuit 2 and circuit 3
6. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon should be
(c) circuit 3 and circuit 1 doped to make a p-type semiconductor are those of(1988)
(d) circuit 1 only (a) phosphorus
3. For a given plate voltage, the plate current in a triode valve (b) boron
is maximum when the potential of : (1985)
(c) antimony
(a) the grid is positive and plate is negative
(d) aluminium
(b) the grid is zero and plate is positive
(c) the grid is negative and plate is positive
(d) the grid is positive and plate is positive
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 148
Fill in the Blanks 12. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases
7. For the given circuit shown in figure to act as full wave when em radiation of wavelength shorter than 2480 nm is
rectifier, the a.c. input should be connected across ......... incident on it. The band gap (in eV) for the semiconductor
and ......... the d.c. output would appear across ......... and is (1997)
........ (1991) (a) 0.9 (b) 0.7
(c) 0.5 (d) 1.1
13. A full - wave rectifier the circuit shown in the figure contains
two diodes each with a forward resistance of 50 ohms and
with infinite backward resistance. If the battery voltage is
6V, the current through the 100 ohm resistance (in amperes)
is (1997)
8. In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 mA.
If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector (1992)
(a) the emitter current will be 9 mA
(b) the base current will be 1 mA
(c) the emitter current will be 11 mA
(d) the base current will be –1 mA
9. In a ............. biased p-n junction, the net flow of holes is
from the n region to the p region. (1993)
10. The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction
band of an intrinsic semiconductor at a finite temperature. (a) zero (b) 0.02
(1995)
(c) 0.03 (d) 0.036
(a) increases exponentially with increasing band gap
14. In a p-n junction diode not connected to any circuit,
(b) decreases exponentially with increasing band gap
(c) decreases with increasing temperature (1998)
(d) is independent of the temperature and the band gap (a) the potential is the same everywhere
11. A full-wave rectifier circuit along with the out-put is shown (b)the p-type side is at a higher potential than the n-type
in figure. The contribution(s) from the diode 1 is (are) side
(1996)
(c) there is an electric field at the junction directed from
the n-type side to the p-type side.
(d)there is an electric field at the junction directed from
the p-type side to the n-type side.
15. A transistor is used in common emitter mode as an amplifier
then (1998)
(a) the base emitter junction is forward biased
(b)the base emitter junction is reverse biased
(c) the input signal is connected in series with the voltage
aplied to bias the base emitter junction
(d)the input signal is connected in series with the voltage
applied to bias the base collector junction
(a) C (b) A,C
(c) B, D (d) A, B, C, D
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 149
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND
COMMUNICATION SYSTEM
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150
Answer Key
CHAPTER -10 MODERN PHYSICS
EXERCISE - 1 : EXERCISE - 2 :
BASIC OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS PREVIOUS YEAR JEE MAIN QUESTIONS
DIRECTION TO USE - DIRECTION TO USE -
Scan the QR code and check detailed solutions. Scan the QR code and check detailed solutions.
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a)
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d)
5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (d)
9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c)
17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23.(d) 24. (c) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23.(c) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b)
29. (b) 30. (c) 31. (d) 32. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (d)
33. (b) 34. (c) 35.(a) 36. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35.(c) 36. (489.00)
37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b)
45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (d) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (d)
49. (a) 50. (d) 51. (b) 52. (c) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (d)
53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (d) 53. (d) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d)
57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (c) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (a) 61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (a)
65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 65. (09.0) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (b)
69. (c) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (d) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. (c) 72. (a)
73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (a) 73. (c) 74. (10553) 75. (d) 76. (d)
77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (b) 80. (b) 77. (d) 78. (050.00) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (d) 81. (002.00) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (d)
85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (a) 88. (a) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (11.00) 88. (b)
89. (c) 90. (b) 91. (a) 92. (a) 89. (d) 90. (d) 91. (b) 92. (a)
93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (c) 93. (486.00) 94. (c) 95. (a) 96.(b)
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ANSWER KEY 151
CHAPTER -10 MODERN PHYSICS
97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (15) 100. (b)
101. (b) 102. (4) 103. (3) 104. (b)
105. (b) 106. (d) 107. (d) 108. (d)
109. (b) 110. (a) 111. (d) 112. (b)
113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (b)
EXERCISE - 3 :
ADVANCED OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
DIRECTION TO USE -
Scan the QR code and check detailed solutions.
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (b)
5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (b)
9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (b) 89. (c) 90. (c) 91. (b) 92. (c)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (c) 93. (a,c,d) 94. (a,d) 95. (a,d) 96. (a,b,c)
97. (a,c,d) 98. (a,b,c) 99. (c,d) 100. (b,d)
17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)
101. (1) 102. (114.2Å) 103. (b) 104. (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23.(c) 24. (d)
105. (b) 106. (e) 107. (e) 108. (c)
25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c)
109. (b) 110. (a) 111. (c) 112. (b)
29. (b) 30. (d) 31. (c) 32. (a)
113. (d) 114. (d) 115. (b)
33. (c) 34. (b) 35.(b) 36. (d)
37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (d) 116. (A - P, Q; B - T, C - T)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (b) 117. (A - S; B - Q; C - P; D - R)
45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b) 118. (A - Q, R; B - P, R; C - R; D - S)
49. (a) 50. (c) 51. (c) 52. (a)
119. (A - Q; B - S ; C - P; D - R)
53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (d)
57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c) 120. (a, b, c)
61. (a) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (a) 121. (A - S; B - R; C - Q; D - P)
65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 122. (A - R; B - P; C - Q)
69. (b) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (b)
123. (d) 124. (d)
73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (d) 76. (b)
125. (173) 126. (29909 yrs.)
77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (c)
127. (5) 128. (59 KeV)
129. (122 nm)
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ANSWER KEY
152
CHAPTER -10 MODERN PHYSICS
DIRECTION TO USE -
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EXERCISE - 4: PREVIOUSYEARJEEADVANCED QUESTIONS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (a) 74. (a) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (d)
5. (n = 2, Z = 4, –217.6 eV, 10.58 eV) 78. (a, c, d) 79. (a,c) 80. (3) 81. (2)
6. (6.25 × 10 , zero, 5.0 eV)
11
82. (2) 83. (A–R,T; B–P,S; C–P,Q,R,T; D–P,Q,R,T)
7. (Decay of a neutron in a nucleus) 84. (c) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (b)
8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (d) 88. (a,b,d) 89. (9) 90. (6) 91. (a)
92. (5) 93. (5) 94. (a,c) 95. (24)
11. (3.845 × 10 kg) 12. (a)
4
96. (3.00) 97. (a) 98. (a,b) 99. (b,c)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (c)
100. (a,c) 101. (d) 102. (a,d) 103. (4.00)
17. (a) Z = 3; (b) 4052.3 nm
104. (a,c,d) 105. (6)
18. (a) 5 × 10 ; (b) 2 × 10 N/C; (c) 23 eV
7 3
19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (b)
23.(Z = 42) 24. (7) 25. (*) 26. (a)
27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (0.259) 30. (0.55)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c)
1/2
3
35.(a) 36. ( n = 24) 37. 38. (b)
2
39. (a, c) 40. (A - p, q; B - p, r; C - p, s; D - p, q, r)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (a)
45. (A–P,R; B–Q,S; C–P; D–Q)
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a,b) 49. (b,d)
50. (c) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a)
54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (d)
58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (3) 61. (8)
62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (1)
66. (7) 67. (7) 68. (d) 69. (c)
70. (c) 71. (a,c) 72. (4) 73. (c)
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 153
Answer Key
CHAPTER -11 SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM
EXERCISE - 1 :
BASIC OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
DIRECTION TO USE -
Scan the QR code and check detailed solutions.
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (d)
5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 69. (a) 70. (a) 71. (12.50)
9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (a) 72. (100.00) 73. (125.00)
74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (d)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c)
78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (d) 81. (b)
17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c)
82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (d) 85. (d)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (d)
86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c)
90. (d) 91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (d)
29. (a) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (c)
94. (d) 95. (a) 96. (2.00) 97. (a)
33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a)
98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (c) 101. (d)
37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
102. (c) 103. (d) 104. (a) 105. (c)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (c)
106. (a) 107. (50.00) 108. (b) 109. (a)
45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (10.00) 48. (11.50)
110. (a) 111. (b) 112. (a) 113. (d)
49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (b)
114. (a) 115. (d) 116. (a) 117. (b)
53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (a)
118. (d) 119. (a, b) 120. (a, c) 121. (a)
57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (a)
122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (3.00) 125. (14.4)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a)
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 154
EXERCISE - 2: EXERCISE - 3:
ADVANCED OBJECTIVE QUESTION ADVANCED OBJECTIVE QUESTION
DIRECTION TO USE - DIRECTION TO USE -
Scan the QR code and check detailed solutions. Scan the QR code and check detailed solutions.
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (d) 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c)
5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d)
5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a)
9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a)
13. (d) 14. (10.00) 15. (a) 16. (b)
17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (0.00)
25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (c)
29. (c) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (b)
29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (d)
33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b)
33. (b) 34. (150.00) 35. (c) 36. (c)
37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)
37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (12.00) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (a)
41. (b) 42. (40.00) 43. (a) 44. (a)
45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (b)
45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (a)
49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (d)
49. (a) 50. (b) 51. (b) 52. (d)
53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (d)
53. (c) 54. (25.00) 55. (20.00) 56. (0.00)
57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (a)
57. (5) 58. (100.00) 59. (200.00) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (d)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (a)
65. (b, c) 66. (a, c) 67. (b, c)
65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (c)
68. (a) (b) (d) 69. (b, d) 70. (a, d)
69. (c) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (d)
71. (a, b, c, d) 72. (40.00)
73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (25.00)
73. (150.00) 74. (1.00) 75. 5.00
77. (33.00) 78. (1206.00) 79. (50.00) 80. (d)
81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (a) 84. (d)
85. (d)
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SEMICONDUCTORS AND COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 155
EXERCISE - 4:
PREVIOUS YEARS JEE ADVANCED QUESTIONS
DIRECTION TO USE -
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1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. True
5. 8 k, 12.5 × 10 A/V, 100 6. (b,d)
–3
7. B and D, A and C
8. (b,c) 9. Reverse 10. (b) 11. (c)
12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a, c)
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