LMRP NEET MODULE EXAM 7

Important instructions :

1. The test is 2 hours in duration and the test booklet contains 120 multiple choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics (Electromagnetic Waves, Dual Nature of Ra-
diation & Matter), Chemistry (Purification, Nomenclature & Isomerism), Botany (Ecosystem) and
Zoology (Molecular Basis of Inheritance Part II). 30 questions in each subjects.
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.

Name of the candidate :

Roll Number :

PHYSICS
1. The rms value of conduction current in a paral- 3. Given below are two statements :
lel plate capacitor is 6.9µA. The capacity of this Statement I A time varying electric field is
capacitor, if it is connected to 230 V, AC supply a source of changing magnetic field and vice-
with an angular frequency of 600rad/s, will be versa. Thus, a disturbance in electric or mag-
(1) 5pF (2) 50pF netic field creates electromagnetic waves.
Statement II In a material medium, the EM
(3) 100pF (4) 200pF 1
wave travels with speed v = p .
µ0 ε0
In the light of the above statements, choose the
2. In an electromagnetic wave, at an instant and at correct answer from the options given below
a particular position, the electric field is along (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
the negative Z -axis and magnetic field is along
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
the positive X -axis. Then, the direction of prop-
agation of electromagnetic wave is (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(1) at 45◦ angle from positive Y -axis (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(2) positive Z -axis
4. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency
(3) negative Y -axis 20MHz propagates in free space along x-
(4) positive Y -axis direction. At a particular space and time, E =
 6.6ĵV/m. What is B at this point? 9. A small object at rest, absorbs a light pulse of
(1) −2.2 × 10−8 k̂T (2) −2.2 × 10−8 îT power 20 mW and duration 300 ns. Assuming
(3) 2.2 × 10 k̂T
−8
(4) 2.2 × 10−8 îT speed of light as 3 × 108 m/s, the momentum of
the object becomes equal to
5. Identify the correct statements from the follow- (1) 1 × 10−17 kg − m/s (2) 2 × 10−17 kg − m/s
ing descriptions of various properties of electro- (3) 0.5 × 10−17 kg − m/s (4) 3 × 10−17 kg − m/s
magnetic waves :
10. Light is incident normally on a completely
A. In a plane electromagnetic wave, electric absorbing surface with an energy flux of
field and magnetic field must be perpendic- 25 W cm−2 . If the surface has an area of 25 cm2 ,
ular to each other and direction of propaga- the momentum transferred to the surface in
tion of wave should be along electric field 40 min time duration will be
or magnetic field. (1) 3.5 × 10−6 Ns (2) 63 × 10−4 Ns
B. The energy in electromagnetic wave is di- (3) 1.4 × 10 Ns
−6
(4) 5.0 × 10−3 Ns
vided equally between electric and mag-
netic fields. 11. An electric bulb is rated as 200 W. What will
C. Both electric field and magnetic field are be the peak magnetic field at 4 m distance pro-
parallel to each other and perpendicular to duced by the radiations coming from this bulb?
the direction of propagation of wave. Consider this bulb as a point source with 3.5%
efficiency.
D. The electric field, magnetic field and direc-
(1) 1.19 × 10−8 T (2) 1.71 × 10−8 T
tion of propagation of wave must be per-
(3) 0.84 × 10−8 T (4) 3.36 × 10−8 T
pendicular to each other.
E. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to 12. Electromagnetic wave in the wavelength range
the amplitude of electric field is equal to (0.1m − 0.1mm) are produced by
speed of light. (1) Klystron valve (2) Vibration of atoms
(3) Radioactive decay (4) Antennas
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below.
13. Infra red radiation is not detected by the follow-
(1) (D) only
ing
(2) (B) and (D) only
(1) Thermopiles (2) Bolometer
(3) (B), (C) and (E) only
(3) photographic film (4) Point contact diode
(4) (A), (B) and (E) only
14. Radio waves are detected by
6. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is (1) Photocells (2) Photographic film
given by E = 56.5 sin ω( t − x/ c)NC−1 . Find the in- (3) Receiver’s aerials (4) Ionisation chamber
tensity of the wave, if it is propagating along
X -axis in the free space. (Given, ε0 = 8.85 × 15. A 1000 W transmitter works at a frequency of
10−12 C2 N−1 m−2 ) 880kHz. The number of photons emitted per sec-
(1) 5.65 Wm−2 (2) 4.24 Wm−2 ond is
(3) 1.9 × 10 Wm
−7 −2
(4) 56.5 Wm−2 (1) 1.7 × 1028 (2) 1.7 × 1030
(3) 1.7 × 10 23
(4) 1.7 × 1025
7. For the plane electromagnetic wave given by
E = E 0 sin(ω t − kx) and B = B0 sin(ω t − kx), the 16. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz
ratio of average electric energy density to aver- is produced by a laser. The power emitted is
age magnetic energy density is 2 × 10−3 W. The number of photons emitted, on
(1) 2 (2) 1/2 the average, by the source per second is
(3) 1 (4) 4 (1) 5 × 1015 (2) 5 × 1016
(3) 5 × 1017
(4) 5 × 1014
8. Intensity of sunlight is observed as 0.092Wm−2
at a point in free space. What will be the 17. A source S1 is producing 1015 photons/s of wave-
peak value of magnetic field at that point? length 5000 Å. Another source S2 is producing
( )
ε0 = 8.85 × 10−12 C2 N−1 m−2 1.02 × 1015 photons per second of wavelength
(1) 2.77 × 10−8 T (2) 1.96 × 10−8 T 5100 Å. Then (power of S 2 ) / (power of S 1 ) is
(3) 8.31 T (4) 5.88 T equal to

2
 (1) 1.00 (2) 1.02 24. When a metallic surface is illuminated with
(3) 1.04 (4) 0.98 monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the stop-
ping potential is 5V0 . When the same surface
18. A point source of 100 W emits light with 5% ef- is illuminated with the light of wavelength 3λ,
ficiency. At a distance of 5 m from the source, the stopping potential is V0 . Then, the work-
the intensity produced by the electric field com- function of the metallic surface is
ponent is (1) hc/6λ (2) hc/5λ
1 W 1 W (3) hc/4λ (4) 2hc/4λ
(1) (2)
10π m2 20π m2
25. In which of the following cases a heavier and
1 W 1 W
(3) (4) lighter particle can have the same de-Broglie
2π m2 40π m2 wavelength? The two particles
19. A photon of wavelength 6630Å is incident on a (1) move with the same speed
totally reflecting surface. The momentum deliv- (2) move with the same linear momentum
ered by the photon is equal to (3) move with the same kinetic energy
(1) 6.63 × 10−27 kg m/s (2) 2 × 10−27 kg m/s (4) have the same change of potential energy
(3) 10−27 kg m/s (4) None of these in a conservative field.

20. The work-function of a substance is 1.6 eV. The 26. An electron moving with speed v and a pho-
longest wavelength of light that can produce ton moving with speed c, have same de-Broglie
photoemission from the substance is wavelength. The ratio of kinetic energy of elec-
(1) 7750 Å (2) 3875 Å tron to that of photon is
(3) 5800 Å (4) 2900 Å 3c v
(1) (2)
v 3c
21. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, v 2c
the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted pho- (3) (4)
2c v
toelectrons from a metal Versus the frequency of
the incident radiation gives a straight line whose 27. The kinetic energy of electron and proton is
slope 10−32 J. Then the relation between their de-
Broglie wavelengths is
(1) depends on the nature of the metal used
(1) λ p < λ e (2) λ p > λ e
(2) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(3) λ2p = λ e (4) λ p = 2λ e
(3) depend both on the intensity of the radia-
tion and the metal used
28. A photon and an electron have equal energy E .
(4) is the same for all metals and independent λphoton /λelectron is proportional to
of the intensity of the radiation p
(1) p E
22. Work function of lithium and copper are re- (2) 1/ E
spectively 2.3 eV and 4.0 eV. Which one (3) 1/E
of the metal will be useful for the pho- (4) Does not depend upon E
toelectric cell working with visible light?
( ) 29. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths of molecules
h = 6.6 × 10−34 J − s, c = 3 × 108 m/s
(1) Lithium (2) Copper of hydrogen and helium which are at tempera-
(3) Both (4) None of these ture 27◦ C and 127◦ C respectively is
√
1 3
(1) (2)
23. Maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is E 2 8
√
when the wavelength of incident light is λ. If 8
energy becomes four times when wavelength is (3) (4) 1
3
reduced to one-third, then work-function of the
metal is 30. If the de-Broglie wavelength of a proton is
3 hc hc 10−13 m, the electric potential through which it
(1) (2) must have been accelerated is
λ 3λ
hc hc (1) 4.07 × 104 V (2) 8.15 × 104 V
(3) (4) (3) 8.15 × 103 V (4) 4.07 × 105 V
λ 2λ

3
 CHEMISTRY
31. Which of the following is correctly matched? 37. The IUPAC name of
(a) Synthesis of
(p) F. Wohler
acetic acid
(b) Synthesis of
(q) Berzilius
methane
(c) Synthesis of
urea from (1) 2-Oxobenzoic acid
(r) Kolbe
ammonium (2) 2-Ketocyclohexanoic acid
cyanate (3) 2-Carboxycyclohexanone
(d) Vital force (4) 2-Oxocyclohexanecarboxylic acid
(s) Berthelot
theory
(1) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q (2) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q 38. The IUPAC name of diethylisopropyl amine is
(1) N,N-Diethylpropan-1-amine
(3) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s (4) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r (2) N,N-Diethylpropan-2-amine
(3) N,N-Diethylisopropylamine
32. Which of the following compound is incorrectly (4) N,N-Diethylaminopropane
matched with the number of σ and π bonds?
(1) Ethane nitrile : 5σ and 2π 39. The IUPAC name of the compound
(2) Acrolein : 7σ and 2π
(3) Carbolic acid : 8σ and 3π
(4) Valeraldehyde : 15σ and 1π

33. What is the type of hybridisation of carbon num-

ber 1 to 4 in the compound CH3 CH = CHCN? (1) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-hydroxycyclohexane
(1) sp3 , sp2 , sp2 , sp (2) sp3 , sp2 , sp, sp3
(2) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-hydroxycyclohexane
(3) sp3 , sp2 , sp2 , sp (4) sp, sp2 , sp2 , sp3
(3) 3,3-Dimethylcyclohexan-1-ol
34. Which of the following is heterocyclic aromatic (4) 1,1-Dimethylcyclohexan-3-ol
compound or compounds?
(a) Tropone (b) Pyridine 40. The IUPAC name of the compound
(c) Thiophene (d) Furan
(1) All except a (2) All except d
(3) All (4) All except c

35. In IUPAC nomenclature the preferential order of

(1) 3-nitro-5-methyl benzoate
carboxylic acid and its derivative is
(2) Ethyl-3-nitro-5-methyl benzoate
(1) Carboxylic acid > esters > Acid anhydride
(3) Ethyl-5-methyl-3-nitrobenzoate
> acid chloride > acid amides
(4) Ethyl-3-methyl-5-nitrobenzoate
(2) Carboxylic acid > acid chlorides > Esters >
acid amides > acid anhydride 41. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
(3) Carboxylic acid > acid anhydrides > esters
> acid chloride > acid amides
(4) Carboxylic acid > Acid amides > esters >
acid anhydrides > acid chloride
(1) 1-Ethyl-3,3-dimethylcyclohexane
36. Number of isopropyl radicals in the molecule (2) 1-Ethyl-5,5-dimethylcyclohexane
5-(2,2-dimethyl propyl)-2,2,8-trimethylnonane
(3) 5-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
(1) 3 (2) 1
(4) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
(3) 2 (4) 0

4
42. Which of the following is incorrectly matched in 49. How many enantiomeric pairs are obtained by
the case of number of chain isomers? mono chlorination of 2,3-Dimethylbutane?
(1) C6 H14 : 5 (2) C5 H12 : 3 (1) Nil (2) Four
(3) C10 H22 : 75 (4) C7 H16 : 8 (3) One (4) Three

43. Which of the following is true? 50. Which of the following compounds are optically
active?
(1) Acetaldehyde and acetone are functional (i) 3-Hydroxypentane
isomers. (ii) 2-Aminopropanoic acid
(2) Ethanol and diethyl ether are functional (iii) 2-Chlorobutane
isomers. (iv) 2-Methylbutane Choose your answer from
(3) Catechol and resorcinol are position iso- the codes given below
mers. (1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) Ethane nitrile and Ethyl isocyanide are
(3) (i), (iv) (4) (ii),(iii)
functional isomers.
51. In Lassaigne’s test, the organic compound is
44. A compound which is not isomeric with diethyl
fused with a piece of sodium metal in order to
ether is:
(1) Methoxypropane (1) Increase the ionization of the compound
(2) 2-methylpropan-2-ol (2) Decrease the melting point of the com-
(3) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol pound
(4) Butan-1-ol (3) Increase the reactivity of the compound
(4) Convert the covalent compound into a mix-
45. The total number of structural isomers possible ture of ionic compounds
for an amine with molecular formula C4 H11 N is:
(1) 6 (2) 5 52. A violet colour with sodium nitroprusside in the
(3) 7 (4) 8 test of sulphur in an organic compound is due to
the formation of
46. Which of the following is not true?
(1) Na4 [Fe(CN)5 (NO)] (2) Na4 [Fe(CN)5 (NOS)]
(1) Anisole and cresol are functional isomers.
(3) Na3 [Fe(CN)5 (NS)] (4) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3
(2) Naphthalene and biphenyl are not isomers.
(3) Pentanoic acid exhibit three position iso- 53. Phosphorus in an organic compound is esti-
mers. mated as
I. (NH4 )3 PO4 .12MoO3
(4) Butyraldehyde does not exhibit position
II. Mg2 P2 O7
isomerism.
III. Mg (NH4 ) PO4
47. Geometrical isomerism is not shown by (1) I only (2) II only
(3) I and II (4) II and III
(1) 1,3-Dichloro-2-pentene
(2) 1, 2-Dichloro-1-pentene 54. Concentrated nitric acid is added to Lassaigne’s
extract in detection of halogens to
(3) 1,1-Dichloro-1-pentene
(1) increase the concentration of nitrate ions
(4) 1,4-Dichloro-2-pentene
(2) increase the solubility product of AgCl
48. Chirality means (3) help in the precipitation of AgCl
(4) decompose Na2 S and NaCN, if formed
(1) Phenomenon of exhibiting four valencies of
carbon by four different atoms or groups. 55. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for estimation
(2) Identical atoms or groups on opposite side of nitrogen in
of the double bond (I) C6 H5 CONH2
(3) Hindered rotation about a carbon - carbon
(II) Pyridine
double bond.
(4) Phenomenon of exhibiting non super- (III) C6 H5 − N = N − C6 H5
imposable mirror image. (IV) C6 H5 NHCOCH3

5
 (1) I, III Column I Column II
i. Distillation under
(2) II, III A. Chloroform + Aniline
reduced pressure
(3) III, IV B. Crude oil in
ii. Distillation
petroleum industry
(4) I, II
C. Glycerol from
iii. Fractional distillation
spent-lye
56. In carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.25 g D. Aniline + Water iv. Steam distillation
of an organic compound gave 0.235 g of AgBr.
Then the percentage of bromine is (1) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)
(1) 30 (2) 50 (2) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)
(3) 20 (4) 40 (3) (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iv), (D) → (iii)
(4) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv)
57. In Duma’s method for the estimation of Nitro-
gen, 0.3 g of an organic compound gave 50 mL 59. Those substances can be separated by steam dis-
of N2 gas at 300 K and 715 mm of Hg pressure tillation which are
(Aqueous tension at 300 K is 15 mm of Hg). The
percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound (1) Steam volatile and immiscible in water
is (2) Steam volatile and miscible in water
(1) 15.46% (3) Steam volatile and sparingly miscible in
water
(2) 17.46%
(4) In liquid form in steam and solid form in
(3) 28% water.
(4) 36%
60. The dihedral angle between the hydrogen of
58. Few mixtures and their methods of separation two methyl groups in staggered conformation of
are given in the columns I and II respectively. ethane is
Match the columns and mark the appropriate (1) 120◦ (2) 180◦
choice. (3) 90 ◦
(4) 60◦

BOTANY
61. Statement I : An ecosystem is a functional 63. The amount of biomass or organic matter
unit of nature, where living organisms interact produced per unit area over a time period by
among themselves and also with the plants during photosynthesis is
surrounding physical environment (1) Productivity
Statement II : An ecosystem consists of abiotic
factors only (2) Secondary production

(1) Statement I and Statement II are correct (3) Primary production

(2) Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (4) Energy flow
(3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
incorrect 64. Which of the following is wrong statement
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
(1) Primary productivity depends on the plant
correct
species inhabiting a particular area
62. Which of the following is not a function of (2) The annual net primary productivity of the
ecosystem whole biosphere is 55 billion tons
(1) Productivity (3) It depends on a variety of environmental
factors, availability of nutrients and
(2) Decomposition
photosynthetic capacity of plants
(3) Species composition (4) Primary productivity varies in different
(4) Energy flow types of ecosystems

6
65. The rate of productivity is expressed in terms of microbial action and undergoes decomposition
)
(1) gm−2 yr −1 or (Kcal m−2 yr −1 at an extremely slow rate
(2) gm−2 yr −1 or m−2 yr −1
(1) Both statement I and II are correct
(3) yr −1 gm or yr −1 m−1
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(4) kgm−2 yr −2 or km−2 yr −1
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is
66. Statement I: Decomposition is largely an incorrect
oxygen-requiring process (4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
Statement II: The rate of decomposition is correct
controlled by chemical composition of detritus
and climatic factors 71. Which of the following is incorrectly matched

(1) Both statements are correct (1) Earthworm-Detritivores

(2) Catabolism-saprophytes
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Mineralisation-Release of minerals
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is
(4) Leaching - Water soluble organic nutrients
incorrect
go down into the soil horizon.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
correct 72. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
67. Match the following Reason(R)
A B Assertion (A) : The conversion of detritus into
Conversion of small molecules by saprophytic bacteria and
larger fungi is catabolism
1 Detritus (a) molecules into Reason (R) : Bacterial and fungal enzymes
smaller degrade detritus into simple inorganic
molecules substances
Minerals
2 Leaching (b) unavailable to (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
plants correct explanation of ( A )
Undecomposed (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
3 Humus (c) the correct explanation of ( A )
dead materials
Dark amorphous (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4 Catabolism (d)
substance (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(1) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(2) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b 73. The major producers of an aquatic ecosystem are
(3) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
(1) Herbaceous and woody plants
(4) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
(2) Phytoplanktons and zooplanktons
68. What is the percentage of photosynthetically (3) Phytoplanktons, algae and higher plants
active radiation (PAR) in the incident solar (4) Phytoplanktons, algae and zooplanktons
radiation
(1) 100% (2) < 50% 74. Choose the incorrect statement from the
(3) 2 − 10% (4) 1 − 5% following
(1) The amount of energy decreases at
69. Total organic matter present in an ecosystem is
successive trophic levels
called
(1) Biome (2) When any organism dies it is converted to
(2) Biomass detritus or dead biomass that serves as an
(3) Litter energy source for decomposers
(4) Ecosystem (3) Organisms at each trophic level depend on
those at the higher trophic level for their
70. Statement I : Humification leads to energy demands
accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous (4) Each trophic level has a certain mass of
substances called humus living material at a particular time called as
Statement II: Humus is highly resistant to the standing crop

7
75. Which of the following terrestrial ecosystem has
highest rate of gross primary production
(1) Mangroves (2) Coral reefs
(3) Grassland (4) Tropical rainforest

76. Choose the correct food chain

(1) Upright pyramid of biomass
(1) Grasshopper → Grass → Snake → Frog → (2) Inverted pyramid of biomass
Eagle (3) Upright pyramid of number
(2) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake (4) Inverted pyramid of number
(3) Plants → Lion → Deer → Vulture
82. Which of the following is expected to have the
(4) Cow → Plants → Tiger ( )
highest value gm−2 yr −1
77. In a food chain, the largest population is that of (1) Gross primary production
(1) Producers (2) Gross secondary production
(2) Secondary consumers (3) Net primary production
(3) Primary consumer (4) Net secondary production
(4) Tertiary consumers
83. The correct sequence of food chain is
78. Assertion (A) : No energy that is trapped into
(1) Phytoplankton - Zooplankton - Small fish -
an organism remains in it for ever
Large fish
Reason (R) : The energy trapped by the
producer hence, is either passed on to a (2) Zooplankton - Small fish - Large fish -
consumer or the organism dies Phytoplankton
(3) Phytoplankton - Small fish - Large fish -
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Zooplankton
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Large fish - Small fish - Phytoplankton
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A) 84. Read the following statements and select the
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct correct option
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(a) A given species may occupy more than one
79. Read the following statements about food chain trophic level in the food chain
and select the wrong (b) Saprophytes play a vital role in the
ecosystem
(1) In terrestrial ecosystem a much larger
fraction of energy flows through the (c) Producers constitute the first trophic level
grazing food chain than through the of a detritus food chain
detritus food chain (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) and (c) only
(2) Detritus food chain may be connected with
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (b) and (c) only
the grazing food chain at some levels
(3) Some organisms like cockroaches,crows etc 85. In an inverted pyramid of number a large tree
are omnivores occupy which trophic level
(4) The natural interconnections of food chains (1) 4 (2) 3
make it a food web
(3) 2 (4) 1
80. The total biomass of living material present in
the ecosystem at a given time is called 86. If all saprophytic bacteria and fungi are removed
from an ecosystem, which process is absent in
(1) Standing state the ecosystem
(2) Standing quality
(3) Standing non-living matter (1) Photosynthesis
(4) Standing crop (2) Catabolism

81. Observe the given ecological pyramid and find (3) Fragmentation
the correct option (4) Leaching

8
87. Pyramid of energy in a desert ecosystem is (1) Gross primary productivity and Net
(1) Always inverted primary productivity
(2) Always upright (2) Secondary productivity and Gross primary
(3) Can be inverted and upright productivity
(4) None of these (3) Secondary productivity and primary
productivity
88. Which of the following is not a parameter of
(4) Net primary productivity and secondary
ecological pyramids
productivity
(1) Size of organisms
(2) Number of organisms
90. If 2 J of energy is present in the tertiary
(3) Biomass of organisms
consumer level, then how much energy will be
(4) Energy flow
available at primary consumer level in the
following food chain
89. The biomass available for consumption to
Producers → Primary consumer → Secondary
heterotrophs and the rate of formation of new
consumer → Tertiary consumer
organic matter by consumers are defined
(1) 20 J (2) 2000 J
respectively as
(3) 200 J (4) 2 J

ZOOLOGY
91. Find the mismatched pair regarding the (1) A-(1): B-(2), C-(3), D-(4)
contributions of various scientists
(2) A-(1): B-(2), C-(4), D-(3)
(1) Jacob and Monod - DNA fingerprinting (3) A-(2): B-(1), C-(3), D-(4)
(2) Marshall Nirenberg - Cell free system of
(4) A-(2): B-(3), C-(4), D-(1)
protein synthesis
(3) Severo Ochoa - Polynucleotide 94. Identify the incorrect statement regarding DNA
phosphorylase polymorphism
(4) George Gamow - Concept of triplet code
(1) Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the
92. Degeneracy of genetic code indicates that: basis for genetic mapping of human
genome as well as DNA fingerprinting
(1) One codon codes for more than one
(2) Germ cell mutations spread in the members
aminoacids
of a population, through sexual
(2) Three stop codons, do not code for any reproduction
aminoacids (3) DNA polymorphism in non -coding
(3) From bacteria to humans, AUG codes for sequences also play a very crucial role in
methionine evolution and speciation
(4) Some aminoacids are coded by more than (4) DNA polymorphism is the condition in
one codon which, more than one variant of an allele
occur in the population with a frequency
93. Match columns -I and II regarding ’Lac operon’ greater than 0.1

95. Identify the incorrect option regarding

’ribosomes’
(i) Cellular factory for protein synthesis
(ii) Consist of structural RNAs and about 80
different Proteins
(iii) Act as catalyst for protein synthesis
(iv) 23S rRNA in bacteria is a catalyst for the
formation of peptide bond
(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv)

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 (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) None of the above (c) The untranslated regions are present at
both 50 -end (after stop codon) and at 30 -end
96. Which of the following set of options is required (before start codon), in a translational unit.
for translation (1) Only statements a & c are correct.
(1) hnRNA, tRNA, rRNA (2) Only statement b is correct.
(2) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA (3) All statements are incorrect.
(3) mRNA, tRNA, hnRNA (4) All statements are correct.
(4) hnRNA, rRNA, tRNA
101. Statement I: Charging of tRNA is the same as
97. The process of translation of the mRNA to aminoacylation of tRNA
protein begins ........ Statement II: 23S rRNA is a ribozyme in
(1) When the large subunit of ribosome bacteria, which help in peptide bond formation,
encounters an mRNA during translation
(2) When the small subunit of ribosome (1) Only statement I is correct
encounter an mRNA
(2) Only statement II is correct.
(3) When small subunit attaches with large
subunit (3) Both statements are correct
(4) When large subunit attaches with small (4) Both statements are incorrect
subunit
102. Assertion : tRNA is known as an adapter
98. Identify ’A’, ’B’ and ’C’ shown in the diagram molecule
given below Reason : tRNA on one hand reads the code
and on other hand would bind to specific amino
acids.
(1) Assertion and Reason are True and Reason
is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are True but Reason
is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Only Assertion is True and Reason is false
(1) A - anticodon, B-codon, C-DNA (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

(2) B - codon, A-anticodon, C-hnRNA 103. Find the incorrect statement.

(3) A - anticodon, B-codon, C-mRNA
(1) The ribosome also acts as a catalyst for the
(4) A - anticodon, B- codon, C- hnRNA formation of peptide bond
(2) For initiation, the ribosome binds to the
99. tRNA has .....(A).... loop that has bases mRNA at the start codon (AUG) that is
complementary to the code, and it also has an recognised only by the initiator tRNA
..... (B).... end with which it binds to amino
(3) Anticodon of charged tRNA binds to
acids
appropriate codon in mRNA,through
(1) A-Anticodon, B - Aminoacyl acceptor peptide bond
(2) A-Anticodon, B-Aminoacid acceptor (4) In actual structure, the tRNA is a compact
molecule which looks like inverted ’L’
(3) A - ATP binding B - Anticodon.
(4) A-Amino acid acceptor, B-Anticodon 104. What is true about tRNA?
(1) It binds with an amino acid at its 30 end
100. (a) A DNA has some additional sequences that
are not translated and are referred to as (2) It is transcribed by RNA polymerase II
untranslated regions (UTR) (3) It has a codon loop which recognizes the
(b) An mRNA also has some additional anticodon on messenger RNA
sequences that are not translated and are (4) It looks like clover leaf in its tertiary
referred to as translated regions structure

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105. Match the following (iii) Has three structural genes (z, y and a)
(1) Only Statement I is true
(2) Statements I, II and III are true
(3) Only II and III are true
(4) Only statements I and III are true

110. Match the following

(1) A-r, B-p, C-s, D-q (2) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
(3) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p (4) A-q B-s, C-p, D-r

106. In Eukaryotes, the regulation of gene expression

could be exerted at
(1) Transcriptional and translational level
(2) Splicing level
(3) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the
cytoplasm
(4) All of the above
(1) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c (2) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b
107. Find out the incorrect statement from the (3) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a (4) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
following
111. Pick out the correct statements from the
(1) Metabolic, physiological and following.
environmental conditions can regulate
gene expression. (I) A very low level of expression of ’lac’
operon has to be present in the cell all the
(2) The development and differentiation of
time, otherwise lactose cannot enter the
embryo into an adult organism is the result
cell
of co-ordinated regulation of expression of
several sets of genes. (II) The ’repressor’ of the operon is synthesised
all the time, constitutively from the i gene
(3) When bacteria do not have lactose around
them, they no longer require the enzyme, (III) The repressor of the operon is synthesised
β-galactosidase at a relatively constant level regardless of
the cell environmental conditions.
(4) The ’Operator’ region in an operon is
located away from the promoter elements (IV) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
referred to as negative regulation
108. Statement I : In prokaryotes, control of the rate (1) I, II and III only are correct
of transcriptional initiation is the (2) IV is incorrect
predominant site for control of gene expression. (3) II, III and IV only are correct
Statement II : ’Lac’ operator is present only in (4) All statements are correct
the ’lac’ operon and it interacts specifically with
lac repressor 112. Assertion (A): Regulation of ’lac’ operon can be
(1) Statement I only correct visualized as regulation of enzyme synthesis by
(2) Statement II only correct its substrate
(3) Statements I & II are correct Reason (R) : In the presence of the substrate
(4) None are correct (lactose), the repressor protein is getting
inactivated so that, the RNA polymerase can
109. In ’Iac’ operon: transcribe the structural genes to produce the
(i) A polycistronic structural gene is regulated enzymes responsible for hydrolysis of lactose.
by a common promoter and regulatory (1) A & R are true, R is the correct
gene explanation of A
(ii) Consist of one regulatory gene, the (i) gene (2) A & R are true, R is not the correct
and an operator sequence (o) explanation of A

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 (3) A & R are false (4) Size of VNTR varies from 10 to 200 Kb
(4) A is true, R is false
117. During density gradient centrifugation, ....A....
113. In HGP, the commonly used hosts and vectors form major peak, and small peaks are called
were respectively. ...(B)...
(1) Bacteria and Drosophila , BAC & YAC Identify ’A’ and ’B’
(2) Bacteria & yeast , BAC & YAC (1) A - Satellite DNA, B - Bulk DNA
(3) Drosophila & bacteria , YAC & BAC (2) A - Satellite DNA, B - Repetitive DNA
(4) Coaenorhabditis & yeast , BAC & YAC (3) A - Bulk DNA, B - Satellite DNA
(4) A - Repetitive DNA, B - Bulk DNA
114. The technique of DNA fingerprinting developed
by Alec Jeffreys involved in the correct order : 118. Statement I: Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) is
a blind approach of simply sequencing the whole
(i) Transferring of separated DNA fragments to
set of genome that contained all the
synthetic membrane, such as nitro cellulose
coding and non -coding sequence and later
or nylon.
assigning different regions with functions
(ii) Detection of hybridized DNA fragments by
Statement II: Sequence annotation involves
autoradiography
identifying all genes that are expressed as RNA
(iii) Isolation of DNA (1) Both statements are true
(iv) Separation of DNA fragments by (2) Both statements are false
electrophoresis (3) Only statement I is True
(v) Hybridization using VNTR probe (4) Only statement II is True
(vi) Digestion of DNA by restriction
endonuclease 119. Find the mismatched pair:
(1) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi (2) iii, vi, iv, i, v, ii (1) Automated DNA sequencers - Based on
(3) ii, vi, iv, i, v, iii (4) iii, iv, vi, v, i, ii Sanger’s method of DNA sequencing

115. Assigning the genetic and physical maps on the (2) Chromosome number 1 - Sequencing
genome was generated ; completed in May, 2006
(3) Arabidopsis and Caenorhabditis - Plants
(I) Using the information on polymorphism of
whose DNA was sequenced
restriction enzymes
(II) Using the information on polymorphism of (4) U.S. Department of Energy and National
VNTR sequences Institute of Health - Initiated Human
(III) Using the information on polymorphism of Genome Project in 1990
restriction endonuclease recognition sites
120. Satellite DNA is classified as
(IV) Using the information on repetitive DNA
mini and microsatellites, based on:
sequences known as microsatellites.
(1) I, III are correct (2) II, III are correct (i) Base composition of repeating sequence
(3) I and II are correct (4) III, IV are correct (A:T rich or G:C rich )
(ii) Length of sequence that repeats
116. All of the given statements are true for VNTR
(iii) Number of repetitive units
except :
(iv) Polymorphism of restriction endonuclease
(1) A class of satellite DNA called called
recognition sites
mini-satellites
(2) A small DNA sequence arranged tandemly (1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
in many copy numbers (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(3) Number of repeats show high degree of (3) (iii) and (iv) only
polymorphism (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

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