10 PM Current Affairs

Quiz
Weekly Compilation

For UPSC CSE Prelims

February, 2025 1st Week

Week
 10 PM MCQs Compilation [First Week] February 2025

INDEX
Art & Culture ............................................................................................................................................................... 2
Modern Indian History ............................................................................................................................................. 2
Geography .................................................................................................................................................................... 2
Polity ............................................................................................................................................................................. 4
Acts & Policies ............................................................................................................................................................. 5
International Relations/Organizations ............................................................................................................... 7
Economy ....................................................................................................................................................................... 9
Environment............................................................................................................................................................. 11
Science & Technology ............................................................................................................................................ 13
Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................... 15
Answers & Explanations ....................................................................................................................................... 15

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 10 PM MCQs Compilation [First Week] February 2025

Art & Culture

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

1. Sarna religion does not have a holy scripture or centralized religious text.
2. The demand for a separate Sarna code aims to create a new state for tribal populations.
3. Believers of the Sarna faith practice idol worship.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Modern Indian History

Q.2) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Fort William?
1. It was constructed by the British East India Company after the Battle of Buxar.
2. Black Hole of Calcutta incident is associated with the fort.
3. After India’s independence, Fort William became the headquarters of the Indian Army's Eastern
Command.
4. It has been renamed as Shivaji Fort to honour India's military heritage.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Geography

Q.3) Consider the following statements:

1. La Nina is defined by sustained cooling of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern
equatorial Pacific.
2. La Nina shifts the jet stream southward, leading to wet conditions in the southern U.S.
3. La Nina enhances monsoon rainfall in India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

1. Bihar is the only state in India where Makhana is produced.
2. The Makhana Board aims to improve the production, processing, value addition, and marketing of
Makhana.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 10 PM MCQs Compilation [First Week] February 2025

Q.5) Consider the following statements:

1. India shares its longest border with Bangladesh.
2. The India-Bangladesh border passes through six Indian states.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.6) ‘Sandbars’ and ‘chars’ are landforms created by the:

a) Erosion of coastal cliffs by wave action
b) Deposition of sediment by water currents
c) Volcanic activity leading to lava flows
d) Tectonic movements causing land uplift

Q.7) Which one of the following is least likely to be a direct consequence of glacier retreat?
a) Loss of freshwater sources for millions of people
b) Increase in land area due to glacier shrinkage
c) More frequent landslides and avalanches in mountainous regions
d) Disruption of river flow patterns affecting agriculture

Q.8) Which one of the following correctly differentiates La Nina with El Nino?
a) La Nina leads to the warming of the central and eastern Pacific Ocean, while El Nino causes cooling in
these regions.
b) La Nina weakens trade winds, whereas El Nino strengthens them.
c) La Nina is associated with drier conditions in India, while El Nino brings excessive rainfall.
d) La Nina strengthens trade winds and cools the eastern Pacific, while El Nino weakens trade winds and
warms the eastern Pacific.

Q.9) Consider the following statements:

1. Zemu Glacier is the primary source of the Teesta River.
2. The Teesta River originates from Western Himalayas.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

1. Ghana shares land border with Nigeria.
2. Nigeria is rich in lithium reserves.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 10 PM MCQs Compilation [First Week] February 2025

Q.11) Consider the following statements:

1. Western Disturbances are tropical cyclones originating in the Arabian Sea.
2. Northern and northwestern parts of India are most affected by Western Disturbances during winter.
3. Western Disturbances are associated with high temperatures during winters in India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 3 only

Q.12) With reference to the Panama Canal, consider the following statements:
1. It connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Mediterranean Sea.
2. Lake Balboa is an artificial lake that forms a significant portion of the Panama Canal.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Polity
Q.13) Which of the following countries follow ‘Jus Sanguinis’ (Right of Blood) principle of guaranteeing
citizenship?
1. India
2. Germany
3. Canada
4. United States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only

Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding the Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI):
1. It is the central governing body for kabaddi in India.
2. It regulates all forms of kabaddi.
3. Its headquarters is located in New Delhi.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Q.15) With reference to the State Emblem of India, which of the following statements are correct?
1. The State Emblem of India is adapted from the Gateway of India.
2. It was officially adopted on 26th January 1950.
3. The motto Satyameva Jayate is inscribed below the abacus in Devanagari script.
4. Only authorized government entities can use the emblem.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
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 10 PM MCQs Compilation [First Week] February 2025

Q.16) Consider the following statements:

1. The Motion of Thanks is a formal parliamentary procedure in India that follows the President's
Address to a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If the Motion of Thanks is not passed by the Lok Sabha, the government must resign.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.17) With reference to the ad-hoc judges in the High Court, consider the following statements:
1. As per the Indian Constitution, ad-hoc judges can only hear criminal appeals.
2. Approval of the President of India is required for the appointment of ad-hoc judges.
3. Ad-hoc judges can be appointed only when vacancies in a High Court exceed 20% of its sanctioned
strength.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Acts & Policies

Q.18) Consider the following statements regarding the Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance
Amendment Rules, 2025:
1. It restricts the Aadhaar authentication to government entities and select sectors like banking and
telecom.
2. Aadhaar authentication remains voluntary for individuals, ensuring compliance with the Supreme
Court’s privacy directives.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.19) With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyaan (PM-JANMAN), consider
the following statements:
1. It aims to improve the socio-economic conditions of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
2. The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is the nodal ministry for implementing PM-JANMAN.
3. Smart City Mission is a key component of PM-JANMAN's housing initiative.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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 10 PM MCQs Compilation [First Week] February 2025

Q.20) With reference to the Gyan Bharatam Mission, consider the following statements:
1. It seeks to boost tourism through the conservation and promotion of culturally significant heritage
sites.
2. National Digital Repository of Indian Knowledge Systems was announced alongside the Gyan Bharatam
Mission.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.21) Which one of the following is the primary objective of the Jan Vishwas Bill 2.0?
a) Increase criminal penalties for business violations
b) Introduce new regulations for startups
c) Centralize all business registrations
d) Decriminalize minor offenses and promote ease of doing business

Q.22) Consider the following statements regarding the Mission for Cotton Productivity, recently announced
in the Union Budget 2025-26:
1. The mission aims to boost cotton production by introducing new technologies to counter declining
yields and climate challenges.
2. The mission focuses on promoting short staple cotton varieties to enhance quality and reduce imports.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding the Samudrayaan Mission:

1. It is India's first manned deep ocean mission aimed at exploring the deep sea and its resources.
2. The Mission is being developed by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
3. The deep-sea vehicle being developed for the Mission is named Samudrayan-40.
4. It will establish India's presence in deep-sea mineral exploration.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only

Q.24) With reference to the National Policy on Disaster Management (NPDM), consider the following
statements:
1. Under the NPDM, disaster management is primarily the responsibility of State governments.
2. As per the NPDM, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is chaired by the Prime
Minister of India.
3. The National Disaster Management Plan is aligned with Geneva Convention.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only

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Q.25) Consider the following statements regarding the NIPUN Bharat Mission (National Initiative for
Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy):
1. It aims to promote digital education across schools in India.
2. It is implemented under the centrally sponsored Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan scheme.
3. It is part of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Q.26) Consider the following:

1. Waste segregation
2. Air quality
3. Food systems
4. Carbon footprint
5. Soil erosion
How many of the above are the focus areas under environmental audits of Green Schools Programme (GSP)?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five

Q.27) With reference to the National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Heritage
Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD), consider the following statements:
1. The scheme aims to organize a series of cultural festivals across India, highlighting the nation's rich
diversity and heritage.
2. It is a Centrally sponsored scheme with 100% funding from the Government of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

International Relations/Organizations
Q.28) With reference to the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC), how many of the
following statements are correct?
1. Eastern and Northern corridors form the backbone of IMEC.
2. Mundra port is directly linked to IMEC's Eastern Corridor.
3. Oil pipeline is a major component of the IMEC.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Q.29) The OECD Global Tax Deal primarily aims to address which one of the following challenges in
international taxation?
a) Ensuring all countries adopt the same tax rate
b) Preventing the use of transfer pricing and digital taxes
c) Combating profit shifting and tax base erosion by multinational enterprises (MNEs)
d) Increasing tax rates for all businesses worldwide
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 10 PM MCQs Compilation [First Week] February 2025

Q.30) With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO), consider the following statements:
1. It is a Eurasian intergovernmental organization.
2. India and Pakistan are members of the SCO.
3. English and French are the official languages of the SCO.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.31) Consider the following statements regarding the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor
(IMEC):
1. It is designed to develop a free trade agreement between India and the European Union.
2. It combines sea and rail transport to reduce transit time and costs.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.32) Which one of the following initiatives, supported by the United States Agency for International
Development (USAID), aims to promote global agricultural development and combat hunger?
a) Feed the Future
b) Global Health Initiative
c) Green Energy Initiative
d) Global Trade Promotion Program

Q.33) Consider the following statements regarding the Chabahar Port:

1. It is located on the Gulf of Oman.
2. It is closer to Indian territory than Gwadar Port.
3. It serves as a military base for Indian troops in Afghanistan.
4. It is part of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Q.34) Which one of the following is NOT a function of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)?
a) Appointing the Secretary-General
b) Electing members of the Security Council
c) Vetoing resolutions of the Security Council
d) Considering reports from other UN organs

Q.35) Two-state solution’, often seen in the news, aims to:

a) Resolve the conflict between North Korea and South Korea
b) Establish separate nations for the Kurds and Yazidis
c) Create independent states of Israel and Palestine
d) Establish two separate governments within Israel

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Q.36) Consider the following statements regarding the International Criminal Court (ICC):
1. The ICC is a judicial organ of the United Nations.
2. Only countries that are parties to the Rome Statute fall under its jurisdiction.
3. The ICC is required to consult the International Court of Justice before proceeding with a case.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Q.37) Which one of the following is a key objective of the AI Action Summit 2025?
a) Banning open-source AI development globally
b) Promoting equitable access to safe and sustainable AI
c) Establishing a global regulatory authority for AI
d) Prioritizing military applications of AI

Economy
Q.38) With reference to the Economic Survey 2024-25, consider the following statements:
1. It encourages the rapid shutdown of coal-fired plants to reach net zero emissions by the year 2070.
2. Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) are the top drivers of job creation in India.
3. There has been an increase in the Female Labor Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) due to the increasing
participation of women in rural India's workforce.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Q.39) With reference to the Economic Survey 2024-25, consider the following statements:
1. It highlights the need for corporate profit growth to align with wage growth to sustain economic
demand and stability.
2. It stresses the need for indigenisation of technology and raw materials to facilitate India’s transition to
electric mobility and reduce reliance on imports.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.40) With reference to the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), consider the following statements:
1. It specifically aims to enhance public-private partnerships (PPP) in digital infrastructure.
2. The India Investment Grid (IIG) platform is used for monitoring and tracking NIP projects.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q.41) Consider the following statements regarding the Economic Survey of India:
1. It is prepared by the Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) and presented by the Ministry of Finance.
2. The document provides a comprehensive review of the Indian economy's performance during the
preceding financial year.
3. Its recommendations are mandatory for the government to implement.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 2 only

Q.42) Consider the following statements:

1. U.S. Dollar Index (DXY) measures the value of the U.S. dollar relative to a basket of foreign currencies.
2. British Pound has the highest weight in the U.S. Dollar Index (DXY).
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.43) Which one of the following statements correctly defines the term ‘Gender Budgeting’?
a) It refers to the process of allocating funds exclusively for women’s empowerment programs.
b) It involves analyzing the impact of government budgets on gender equality and ensuring that resources
are allocated to address gender disparities.
c) It is the practice of setting aside a fixed percentage of the total budget for gender-specific health
services.
d) It is the process of adjusting taxes based on the gender of the taxpayer.

Q.44) Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It was constituted the recommendations of the Raghuram Rajan Committee.
3. Its main objective is to set the repo rate to achieve the inflation target set by the government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.45) With reference to the Primary Agriculture Credit Societies (PACS), consider the following statements:
1. PACS are grassroots-level cooperative institutions that primarily provide short-term agricultural credit
to farmers in rural areas.
2. PACS come under the purview of the Ministry of Cooperation.
3. All members of the PACS have equal voting rights regardless of their shareholding.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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Q.46) With reference to the Comprehensive Port Connectivity Plan (CPCP), consider the following
statements:
1. It aims to enhance connectivity between Indian ports and domestic production and consumption
centers.
2. It is a part of ‘Make in India’ initiative.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.47) Consider the following statements:

1. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
2. The PLFS provides quarterly estimates for urban areas and annual estimates for both rural and urban
areas.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.48) Consider the following statements:

1. In a repo transaction, gold reserves serve as collateral for the short-term loans.
2. A reduction in the repo rate by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) would lower borrowing costs for banks.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.49) Which one of the following is correct regarding the Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR)?
a) It requires banks to hold sufficient high-quality liquid assets to cover short-term liquidity needs during
stress scenarios.
b) It mandates banks to maintain a fixed percentage of their total deposits as cash reserves at all times.
c) It is a measure of a bank’s profitability and return on assets over a financial year.
d) It determines the proportion of a bank’s loans that must be backed by physical collateral.

Environment
Q.50) Consider the following statements:
1. The Ramsar Convention focuses only on conservation of migratory bird species across international
borders.
2. In India, Kerala has the highest number of wetlands.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q.51) Gambusia affinis (Mosquitofish) and Poecilia reticulata (Guppy) are fish species recently seen in the
news due to:
a) Their role in increasing fish biodiversity in Indian rivers.
b) Their declining populations in their native habitats.
c) Their use as biological agents for mosquito control.
d) Their discovery as new species in Indian water bodies.

Q.52) With reference to the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA), consider the following statements:
1. It aims to promote the conservation of seven major big cat species and their habitats.
2. Five big cat species listed under the IBCA are native to India.
3. IBCA’s permanent secretariat is located Nairobi, Kenya.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Q.53) Consider the following statements:

1. Forest in India includes all green areas, regardless of their classification, ownership, or whether they
are officially recorded as forests.
2. Forest land in India cannot be reduced unless an equal amount of land is provided for compensatory
afforestation.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.54) Consider the following:

1. Poultry feed
2. Livestock feed
3. Starch production
4. Human consumption
5. Ethanol production
How many of the above are the uses of maize?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five

Q.55) Consider the following statements:

1. Sacred groves are small forested areas that are protected and conserved by local communities due to
their religious and cultural significance.
2. All sacred groves are protected under the Wildlife Protection Act (WLPA) 1972.
3. India has the highest number of sacred groves in the world.
4. Sacred groves serve as biodiversity hotspots.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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Q.56) Consider the following statements:

1. Community Reserves are a type of Protected Areas introduced under the Wildlife Protection Act
(WLPA), 2002.
2. Conservation reserves are located on government-owned land adjacent to protected areas, while
community reserves are established on private lands.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.57) With reference to Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements:
1. The reserve is situated at the tri-junction where the states of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and
Karnataka meet.
2. The Moyar River and its tributaries drain the reserve.
3. Fairy Blue bird can be found in the reserve.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.58) Consider the following statements:

1. Olive Ridley sea turtle is listed in Schedule I of India’s Wildlife Protection Act (1972).
2. Gulf of Kutch Marine National Park in Gujarat is a key protected area for Olive Ridley turtles.
3. Olive Ridley sea turtles use the Earth's magnetic field to navigate across vast ocean distances.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Science & Technology

Q.59) Carbon monoxide dehydrogenase (CODH) enzyme helps in:
a) Increasing carbon monoxide levels in the atmosphere.
b) Breaking down carbon dioxide into carbon monoxide.
c) Converting carbon monoxide into oxygen.
d) Extracting energy by converting carbon monoxide into carbon dioxide.

Q.60) Consider the following statements:

1. Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) produce zero carbon emissions during operation.
2. The Nuclear Energy Mission aims to promote research and development (R&D) of Small Modular
Reactors (SMRs).
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q.61) Consider the following statements regarding the Exercise Ekuverin:

1. It is a bilateral military exercise conducted annually between India and Indonesia.
2. The exercise aims to enhance interoperability in counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism
operations.
3. The 2025 edition of the exercise is being held in Chaubatia, Uttarakhand, India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Q.62) Vibrio natriegens’ and ‘Microbe X-32’ bacteria were in news recently for:
a) Their ability to degrade plastics.
b) Their use in enhancing agricultural crop yields.
c) Their role in producing biofuels from algae.
d) Their discovery as pathogens causing waterborne diseases.

Q.63) Black holes do not produce light on their own, but they can still be seen because:
a) Black holes reflect light from nearby stars like a mirror.
b) A black hole’s magnetic field creates direct light emissions visible to the naked eye.
c) Matter entering a black hole undergoes compression and heating, which causes it to emit X-rays.
d) Black holes emit gravitational waves that are visible to telescopes.

Q.64) India is planning to procure Strykers infantry combat vehicles (ICVs) from the US. The Stryker ICV is
classified as which one of the following types of military vehicle?
a) Main Battle Tank
b) Infantry Fighting Vehicle
c) Armoured Personnel Carrier
d) Wheeled Armoured Vehicle

Q.65) Consider the following statements:

1. Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) affects Central nervous system (CNS).
2. Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) can be caused by the contaminated water.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.66) With reference to the Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL), consider the following
statements:
1. It is designed for area suppression, neutralizing large areas with its high volume of fire.
2. It is a surface-to-air missile system developed indigenously by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q.67) Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) technology was seen in the news recently, in relation with:
a) Reducing carbon dioxide emissions from vehicles
b) Removing sulphur dioxide from thermal power plant emissions
c) Capturing methane from agricultural waste
d) Filtering particulate matter from industrial chimneys

Q.68) Consider the following statements regarding the Theatre Level Operational Exercise (TROPEX-25):
1. It focuses on synchronizing responses to conventional, asymmetric, and hybrid threats through inter-
service coordination.
2. It involves all operational units of the Indian Navy.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.69) Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Biomanufacturing’?
a) It refers to producing biofuels exclusively from genetically modified crops.
b) It is the use of biological systems to make medicines, materials, and chemicals.
c) It involves synthesizing organic compounds using inorganic catalysts.
d) It is the process of manufacturing electronic components using biological organisms.

Answer Key

1 – (a) 2 – (c) 3 – (d) 4 – (b) 5 – (a) 6 – (b) 7 – (b) 8 – (d) 9 – (d) 10 – (b)
11 – (c) 12 – (d) 13 – (b) 14 – (b) 15 – (c) 16 – (c) 17 – (a) 18 – (b) 19 – (a) 20 – (b)
21 – (d) 22 – (a) 23 – (d) 24 – (c) 25 – (a) 26 – (b) 27 – (b) 28 – (b) 29 – (c) 30 – (a)
31 – (b) 32 – (a) 33 – (b) 34 – (c) 35 – (c) 36 – (d) 37 – (b) 38 – (a) 39 – (c) 40 – (b)
41 – (a) 42 – (a) 43 – (b) 44 – (c) 45 – (b) 46 – (a) 47 – (c) 48 – (b) 49 – (a) 50 – (d)
51 – (c) 52 – (b) 53 – (c) 54 – (d) 55 – (c) 56 – (c) 57 – (b) 58 – (b) 59 – (d) 60 – (c)
61 – (a) 62 – (a) 63 – (c) 64 – (d) 65 – (b) 66 – (a) 67 – (b) 68 – (c) 69 – (b)

Answers & Explanations

Art & Culture

1. Correct Answer is (A)
• Statement 1 is correct. The Sarna religion relies on oral traditions and rituals tied to nature, without
any holy scripture or centralized religious text.
• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. The demand for a Sarna code is about recognizing Sarna as a
distinct religion in the census, not about creating a new state. It is aimed at preserving the cultural
and religious identity of tribal communities. Followers of the Sarna faith worship nature, including
trees, rivers, hills, and forests, and do not practice idol worship.
Source: The Hindu

Modern Indian History

2. Correct Answer is (C)
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• Statements 1 and 4 are incorrect. The original Fort William was constructed by the British East
India Company between 1696 and 1706, long before the Battle of Buxar (1764). It was later rebuilt
after being damaged during Siraj-ud-Daulah's attack in 1756. Fort William has been renamed Vijay
Durg, as part of India's efforts to shed colonial legacies and embrace indigenous heritage. The new
name draws inspiration from the historic Maratha naval fort Vijay Durg in Maharashtra,
symbolizing India's rich cultural heritage.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Black Hole of Calcutta incident occurred in 1756 when Siraj-
ud-Daulah captured Fort William, and many British prisoners were confined in a small dungeon,
leading to several deaths. Following India's independence in 1947, Fort William was repurposed
as the headquarters for the Indian Army's Eastern Command.
Source: The Hindu

Geography
3. Correct Answer is (D)
• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. La Nina is characterized by a sustained cooling of sea surface
temperatures (SSTs) in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific, typically 0.5°C or more below
normal for several months. La Nina strengthens the Indian monsoon, leading to above-normal
rainfall due to stronger Walker Circulation and increased moisture transport from the Indian
Ocean.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. La Nina shifts the jet stream northward, not southward. This causes drier
conditions in the southern U.S. and wetter conditions in the northern U.S.
Source: The Hindu

4. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. While Bihar is the leading producer of Makhana, accounting for about 85-
90% of India's production, it is not the only state where Makhana is cultivated. Other states like
West Bengal, Assam, Manipur, Tripura, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan also produce
Makhana, although at a much smaller scale.
• Statement 2 is correct. The Makhana Board, announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, has been
established to enhance the production, processing infrastructure, value addition, and marketing of
Makhana. It also aims to provide training and support to farmers while ensuring they benefit from
relevant government schemes.
Source: PIB

5. Correct Answer is (A)

• Statement 1 is correct. India shares a 4,096 km long border with Bangladesh, which is the longest
land border India shares with any country.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The India-Bangladesh border passes through five Indian states: West
Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Source: The Hindu

6. Correct Answer is (B)

• Sandbars and chars are formed when water currents slow down, causing sediment to settle and
accumulate. Sandbars form in rivers, seas, or oceans, while chars are created in river basins,
particularly in regions like the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.
Source: The Hindu

7. Correct Answer is (B)

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• While glacier retreat exposes new land, this does not significantly contribute to an increase in
usable land area. The exposed terrain is often rocky, unstable, and unsuitable for habitation or
agriculture.
Source: The Hindu

8. Correct Answer is (D)

• La Nina is characterized by the strengthening of trade winds, which leads to cooler-than-average
sea surface temperatures in the eastern Pacific. This cooling enhances upwelling, bringing
nutrient-rich waters to the surface and often resulting in wetter conditions in regions like India
due to stronger monsoons. In contrast, El Nino weakens trade winds, causing warmer-than-
average sea surface temperatures in the eastern Pacific. This warming disrupts normal weather
patterns, often leading to drier conditions in India and reduced marine productivity due to weaker
upwelling.
Source: DD News

9. Correct Answer is (D)

• Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. The Teesta River originates from the Tso Lhamo Lake in North
Sikkim, which is fed by glaciers such as the Pauhunri Glacier, Khangse Glacier, and Chho Lhamo
Lake. While Zemu Glacier contributes water to the region, it is not the primary source of the Teesta
River. The Teesta River originates from the Eastern Himalayas in Sikkim.
Source: The Hindu

10. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Ghana does not share a land border with Nigeria. The two countries are
separated by Togo and Benin.
• Statement 2 is correct. Nigeria has significant lithium deposits in states like Nasarawa, Kogi, Kwara,
Ekiti, and Cross River. These reserves are gaining attention due to the rising global demand for
lithium-ion batteries for electric vehicles and renewable energy systems.
Source: The Hindu

11. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect. Western Disturbances are extratropical cyclones. They originate
in the Mediterranean region and move eastward, affecting India. Western Disturbances often lead
to cloudy conditions, rainfall, and a drop in temperature during winter, rather than increasing
temperatures.
• Statement 2 is correct. Western Disturbances bring rainfall, snowfall, and temperature fluctuations
primarily to northern and northwestern India during winter. States like Punjab, Haryana,
Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Jammu & Kashmir are significantly impacted.
Source: DD News

12. Correct Answer is (D)

• Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. The Panama Canal connects the Atlantic Ocean (via the Caribbean
Sea) with the Pacific Ocean. The artificial lake that forms a significant portion of the Panama Canal
is Gatun Lake.
Source: The Hindu

Polity
13. Correct Answer is (B)
• India - India primarily follows the Jus Sanguinis principle, where citizenship is determined by the
citizenship of parents, especially after amendments to the Citizenship Act, 1955.

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• Germany - Germany also follows the Jus Sanguinis principle, where citizenship is based on descent
from German parents rather than place of birth.
• Canada - Canada follows the Jus Soli (Right of Soil) principle, granting citizenship to anyone born
on Canadian soil, regardless of their parents' citizenship.
• United States - The United States primarily follows the Jus Soli principle, granting citizenship to
anyone born within its territory as per the 14th Amendment to its Constitution.
Source: The Hindu

14. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. AKFI is the central governing body responsible for regulating and
promoting kabaddi in India. AKFI oversees and regulates various forms of kabaddi in India,
including national and international tournaments.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The headquarters of AKFI is located in Jaipur.
Source: The Hindu

15. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The State Emblem of India is adapted from the Lion Capital of Ashoka,
located at Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh. In the adopted version of the emblem, the bell-shaped lotus
beneath the abacus has been omitted.
• Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct. The State Emblem of India was officially adopted on 26th January
1950, the day India became a republic. The motto "Satyameva Jayate" (Truth Alone Triumphs) is
inscribed in Devanagari script below the abacus of the Lion Capital. The use of the State Emblem is
restricted to authorized government entities, as per the State Emblem of India (Prohibition of
Improper Use) Act, 2005.
Source: The Hindu

16. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Motion of Thanks is a parliamentary procedure where
members express gratitude for the President's Address, which outlines the government's policies
and agenda. It is discussed and voted upon in both Houses of Parliament after the President's
Address, as mandated under Article 87 of the Constitution. If the Motion of Thanks is defeated in
the Lok Sabha, it amounts to a defeat of the government, as it reflects a lack of confidence in the
ruling party. This could lead to the resignation of the government or a requirement to prove its
majority through a confidence vote.
Source: AIR

17. Correct Answer is (A)

• Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect. Ad-hoc judges are not restricted to hearing only criminal appeals.
While the recent Supreme Court decision allowed retired judges to hear criminal appeals as part
of a Bench led by a sitting judge, Article 224-A of the Constitution does not limit their jurisdiction
to criminal cases. They can exercise the same jurisdiction and powers as regular High Court judges.
The Supreme Court has relaxed this condition, allowing the appointment of ad-hoc judges even if
vacancies do not exceed 20% of the sanctioned strength.
• Statement 2 is correct. Article 224-A specifies that the appointment of ad-hoc judges requires the
consent of the retired judge and approval from the President of India. Till now, only three ad-hoc
appointments have been made.
Source: The Hindu

Acts & Policies

18. Correct Answer is (B)

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• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Aadhaar Authentication for Good Governance Amendment Rules,
2025 expands the scope of Aadhaar authentication beyond government entities and select sectors.
The new rules allow private entities to use Aadhaar authentication for service delivery, provided
they follow a specific approval process. This is a significant change from the previous restrictions.
• Statement 2 is correct. The amendment maintains the voluntary nature of Aadhaar authentication
for individuals. This aspect aligns with the Supreme Court's directives on privacy and ensures that
individuals have the choice to use Aadhaar for authentication or not.
Source: The Hindu

19. Correct Answer is (A)

• Statement 1 is correct. PM-JANMAN specifically targets 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(PVTGs) to achieve 100% saturation of basic amenities (housing, water, roads, healthcare,
education) in their habitations by 2026.
• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency for PM-JANMAN.
PM-JANMAN’s housing component is linked to PMAY-Gramin (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana), not
the Smart City Mission.
Source: The Hindu

20. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Gyan Bharatam Mission focuses on the survey, documentation, and
conservation of India's manuscript heritage, not on boosting tourism or promoting heritage sites.
The mission is seen as a revitalization of the existing National Manuscripts Mission (NMM), which
was established in 2003 but had not achieved its full potential.
• Statement 2 is correct. A key component of the Gyan Bharatam Mission is the establishment of
a National Digital Repository of Indian Knowledge Systems, which will digitize and centralize
traditional knowledge, making it accessible to researchers, students, and institutions worldwide.
The mission supports the government’s efforts under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
Source: The Hindu

21. Correct Answer is (D)

• The primary objective of the Jan Vishwas Bill 2.0 is to decriminalize outdated and minor offenses,
replacing them with civil penalties or administrative actions, and to simplify India's legal
framework to enhance the ease of doing business.
Source: The Hindu

22. Correct Answer is (A)

• Statement 1 is correct. The Mission for Cotton Productivity, as announced in the Union Budget
2025-26, focuses on improving cotton productivity through advanced technologies and scientific
support. It specifically addresses challenges like declining yields, stagnant production, and climate-
related issues.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The mission primarily promotes extra-long staple (ELS) cotton varieties,
which are used for high-end textiles and have significant export potential. This focus aims to reduce
India's dependence on ELS cotton imports while enhancing the overall quality of cotton production.
Source: AIR

23. Correct Answer is (D)

• Statements 1 and 4 are correct. The Samudrayaan Mission is India’s first manned deep-sea
exploration initiative, aiming to explore the ocean floor at depths of up to 6,000 meters for
resources like polymetallic nodules and biodiversity. One of the key objectives of the mission is to

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explore and harness deep-sea resources, such as polymetallic nodules, which contain valuable
metals like manganese, nickel, cobalt, and copper.
• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. The mission is being spearheaded by the National Institute of
Ocean Technology (NIOT) under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). The submersible being
developed for the mission is called Matsya 6000.
Source: AIR

24. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The NPDM specifies that disaster management is primarily the
responsibility of State governments, which undertake relief and response measures using the State
Disaster Response Fund (SDRF). The central government supplements these efforts through
financial and logistical support and provides additional assistance from the National Disaster
Response Fund (NDRF) in severe cases. The NDMA, established under the Disaster Management
Act of 2005, is the apex body for disaster management in India, and it is chaired by the Prime
Minister of India.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Disaster Management Plan (NDMP) is aligned with
the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (SFDRR) 2015–2030.
Source: The Hindu

25. Correct Answer is (A)

• Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. The primary goal of the NIPUN Bharat Mission is to
ensure foundational literacy and numeracy (FLN) for children up to Grade 3 by 2026-27. The
NIPUN Bharat Mission is implemented under the Samagra Shiksha Scheme.
• Statement 3 is correct. The NIPUN Bharat Mission is a component of the National Education Policy
(NEP) 2020, which prioritizes achieving foundational literacy and numeracy for all children.
Source: The Hindu

26. Correct Answer is (B)

• The Green Schools Programme (GSP), launched by the Centre for Science and Environment
(CSE) in 2005, is an environmental education initiative aimed at sensitizing students to
environmental issues through hands-on activities and practical solutions. Schools conduct self-
audits of their resource management practices with CSE's guidance. The audits focus on six key
areas: water management, energy efficiency, waste segregation, air quality, biodiversity, and food
systems. Schools that excel in implementing sustainable practices are awarded Green School
Ratings annually. Recently, PM Shri Government Senior Secondary School Namchi, Sikkim, is the
only educational institution to receive a Green School Rating from the entire Northeastern states.
Source: AIR

27. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Heritage
Augmentation Drive (PRASHAD) focuses on the holistic development of identified pilgrimage
destinations across India, aiming to enhance the religious tourism experience.
• Statement 2 is correct. PRASHAD is a Centrally sponsored scheme with 100% funding from the
Government of India. The central government provides financial assistance to state governments
and other implementing agencies for developing and improving infrastructure and facilities at
pilgrimage sites.
Source: The Hindu

International Relations/Organizations
28. Correct Answer is (B)

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• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The IMEC comprises two distinct corridors: Eastern Corridor:
Links India to the Arabian Gulf via ports like Mundra (Gujarat) and maritime routes and Northern
Corridor: Connects the Arabian Gulf to Europe through rail networks and Mediterranean ports like
Haifa (Israel) and Piraeus (Greece). Mundra Port (Gujarat) is a critical node in the Eastern Corridor.
It serves as a primary Indian port for shipping goods to UAE ports like Jebel Ali and Fujairah,
initiating the maritime-leg of the corridor.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. IMEC’s infrastructure includes hydrogen pipelines, electricity grids,
and high-speed data cables, but no oil pipelines. The focus is on clean energy (green hydrogen) and
digital connectivity, not oil transport.
Source: The Hindu

29. Correct Answer is (C)

• The OECD Global Tax Deal primarily aims to address the challenges of profit shifting and tax base
erosion caused by multinational enterprises (MNEs). These practices involve MNEs exploiting gaps
in tax rules to shift profits to low-tax jurisdictions, even when the income is generated elsewhere.
The deal introduces measures to ensure that profits are taxed fairly where economic activities take
place and value is created.
Source: The Hindu

30. Correct Answer is (A)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is a Eurasian
intergovernmental organization focusing on political, economic, and security cooperation. India
and Pakistan became full members of the SCO in 2017.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The official languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese.
Source: AIR

31. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is a connectivity
project aimed at linking India, the Middle East, and Europe through a combination of maritime and
rail routes.
• Statement 2 is correct. IMEC involves a combination of sea and rail transport to create an efficient
trade route between India, the Gulf countries, and Europe. This multimodal transport system is
intended to reduce transit time and costs while enhancing connectivity and trade.
Source: The Hindu

32. Correct Answer is (A)

• The Feed the Future initiative, led by the United States Agency for International Development
(USAID), focuses on promoting global agricultural development and combating hunger. The United
States Agency for International Development (USAID) is an independent U.S. government agency
established in 1961 by President John F. Kennedy to administer foreign aid and development
assistance globally. Its primary mission is to promote socioeconomic development, alleviate
poverty, provide humanitarian aid, and advance democratic values while supporting U.S. national
security and economic interests.
Source: AIR

33. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statements 1 and 4 are correct. Chabahar Port is situated in southeastern Iran, along the Gulf of
Oman. Chabahar Port is a key component of the INSTC, which aims to connect India with Central
Asia, Russia, and Europe through Iran. India has committed significant resources to develop the
Shahid Beheshti Terminal at Chabahar.
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• Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Gwadar Port, located in Pakistan, is geographically closer to India
than Chabahar Port in Iran. Chabahar Port is a commercial port and is not used as a military base
by India or for stationing troops in Afghanistan. Chabahar provides a faster and more cost-effective
trade route for Indian goods to reach landlocked countries like Afghanistan, Uzbekistan, and
Kazakhstan.
Source: The Hindu

34. Correct Answer is (C)

• The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) does not have the power to veto resolutions of the
Security Council. The veto power is exclusive to the five permanent members of the Security
Council (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States).
Source: AIR

35. Correct Answer is (C)

• The Two-State Solution refers to a proposed framework to resolve the Israeli-Palestinian conflict
by establishing two independent states: one for Israelis and one for Palestinians. This solution
envisions peaceful coexistence between the two states, with agreed-upon borders and mutual
recognition.
Source: The Hindu

36. Correct Answer is (D)

• Statements 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect. The ICC is not a judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It is
an independent international court established by the Rome Statute (1998). However, the UN
Security Council can refer cases to the ICC. The ICC primarily has jurisdiction over member states
of the Rome Statute, but it can also prosecute crimes in non-member states if the UN Security
Council refers the case. The ICC does not need approval or consultation from the International
Court of Justice (ICJ) before proceeding with a case. The ICJ settles disputes between states, while
the ICC prosecutes individuals for crimes like genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
Source: Dd News

37. Correct Answer is (B)

• The AI Action Summit 2025 focuses on ensuring that artificial intelligence (AI) benefits society
while addressing associated risks. One of its key objectives is promoting equitable access to safe
and sustainable AI. This aligns with its broader themes of public interest AI, global governance, and
fostering innovation while maintaining ethical standards.
Source: AIR

Economy
38. Correct Answer is (A)
• Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. The Economic Survey 2024-25 opposes rapid shutdowns of coal-
fired plants, citing India's reliance on coal for energy security and development. It emphasizes that
coal remains critical due to newer infrastructure (most coal plants built in the 2010s) and the
absence of reliable alternatives. The focus is on gradual transition through renewable energy
expansion, grid upgrades, and advanced coal technologies, not abrupt shutdowns. While MSMEs
employ 23.24 crore people (second only to agriculture), the Survey clarifies that agriculture
remains the largest employer, particularly in rural areas.
• Statement 3 is correct. The FLFPR surged from 23.3% (2017-18) to 41.7% (2023-24), driven
predominantly by rural women. The rural FLFPR nearly doubled from 24.6% to 47.6%, attributed
to government initiatives like skill development, entrepreneurship programs, and grassroots
economic empowerment.

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Source: The Hindu

39. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Economic Survey 2024-25 discusses the disproportionate
growth between corporate profits and wages. It notes that while corporate profits surged to a 15-
year high (4.8% of GDP in FY24), wage growth stagnated, particularly in entry-level IT jobs. This
disparity risks curbing demand, exacerbating income inequality, and slowing economic
momentum. The Survey raises concerns about India’s heavy reliance on China for critical EV
components (75% of lithium-ion batteries imported) and minerals (e.g., China processes 60-90%
of global nickel, cobalt, and lithium). It calls for urgent indigenization of EV technology and raw
materials, advocating for R&D in advanced battery technologies (sodium-ion, solid-state) and
investments in recycling infrastructure. The Survey also recommends policy shifts to prioritize
public transportation over private EVs, given India’s limited land and import vulnerabilities.
Source: The Hindu

40. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. NIP does not specifically focus on enhancing PPPs exclusively in digital
infrastructure. Instead, NIP covers a wide range of infrastructure projects, including energy, roads,
railways, urban infrastructure, and more.
• Statement 2 is correct. The India Investment Grid (IIG) serves as an interactive and dynamic
platform for tracking and monitoring projects under the NIP. It provides real-time updates on
project progress and showcases investment opportunities for both domestic and international
investors.
Source: DD News

41. Correct Answer is (A)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Economic Survey is prepared under the guidance of the Chief
Economic Adviser (CEA) and presented by the Ministry of Finance. The Economic Division of the
Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, is responsible for preparing the survey under
the supervision of the CEA. The Economic Survey provides a comprehensive review of the Indian
economy's performance over the past financial year. It analyzes various economic indicators,
identifies challenges, and offers insights into the state of the economy.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The recommendations made in the Economic Survey are not mandatory
for the government to implement. The survey serves as an important policy document that
provides context and analysis for the upcoming budget, but its recommendations are not binding
on the government.
Source: DD News

42. Correct Answer is (A)

• Statement 1 is correct. The U.S. Dollar Index (DXY) measures the value of the U.S. dollar against a
basket of six major foreign currencies: the Euro, Japanese Yen, British Pound, Canadian Dollar,
Swedish Krona, and Swiss Franc.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Euro has the highest weight in the U.S. Dollar Index. A rising USDX
can lead to higher borrowing costs for emerging markets that rely on dollar-denominated debt.
Source: The Hindu

43. Correct Answer is (B)

• Gender budgeting refers to the practice of analyzing, planning, and restructuring government
budgets to promote gender equality. It involves assessing how public resources are allocated and

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spent, ensuring that fiscal policies address the different needs of men and women and aim to
reduce gender disparities.
Source: The Hindu

44. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory body
established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (amended in 2016). The primary objective
of the MPC is to determine the repo rate to achieve the inflation target set by the Government of
India in consultation with the RBI. The inflation target is currently set at 4% ± 2% (i.e., 2% to 6%)
under the flexible inflation targeting (FIT) framework.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The MPC was constituted based on the recommendations of the Urjit Patel
Committee (2014).
Source: AIR

45. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. PACS are the lowest tier of the cooperative credit structure and
focus on providing short-term and medium-term credit to farmers for agricultural purposes. PACS
are overseen by the Ministry of Cooperation, which was established to strengthen the cooperative
sector in India, including PACS.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. While PACS generally follow the "one member, one vote" principle,
exceptions exist. For instance, nominal or associate members often do not have voting rights.
Source: AIR

46. Correct Answer is (A)

• Statement 1 is correct. The Comprehensive Port Connectivity Plan (CPCP) is designed to improve
connectivity between Indian ports and domestic production and consumption centers. It focuses
on addressing road and rail infrastructure gaps, enhancing last-mile connectivity, and boosting
logistics efficiency to support trade and economic growth.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The CPCP is aligned with the National Logistics Policy (NLP) and
Sagarmala Programme, which aim to improve port infrastructure, connectivity, and logistics
efficiency.
Source: DD News

47. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is conducted by
the National Statistical Office (NSO), which operates under the Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation (MoSPI). The PLFS provides: Quarterly estimates for urban areas
using the Current Weekly Status (CWS) approach and Annual estimates for both rural and urban
areas using both the Usual Status (ps+ss) and Current Weekly Status (CWS) approaches.
Source: The Hindu

48. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. In a repo (repurchase) transaction, government securities, are typically
used as collateral. Banks borrow funds from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) by pledging these
government securities and agreeing to repurchase them later.
• Statement 2 is correct. The repo rate is the interest rate at which the RBI lends money to
commercial banks. A reduction in the repo rate lowers borrowing costs for banks, enabling them
to access cheaper funds, which can also lead to lower interest rates for consumers and businesses.
Source: AIR

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49. Correct Answer is (A)

• The Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) is a regulatory requirement that ensures banks maintain an
adequate level of high-quality liquid assets (HQLAs) to meet their short-term obligations during
periods of financial stress, typically over a 30-day period. It is designed to improve the resilience
of banks to liquidity shocks.
Source: DD News

Environment
50. Correct Answer is (D)
• Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. The Ramsar Convention is not limited to migratory birds; it
focuses on the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands globally. While wetlands support
migratory birds, the treaty applies to a wide range of wetland ecosystems (marshes, lakes, rivers,
peatlands, mangroves, coral reefs, etc.). Tamil Nadu leads India with 20 Ramsar sites, followed by
Uttar Pradesh (10 sites). Recently, Sakkarakottai and Therthangal bird sanctuaries in Tamil Nadu’s
Ramanathapuram district were designated as Ramsar sites.
Source: The Hindu

51. Correct Answer is (C)

• Gambusia affinis (Mosquitofish) and Poecilia reticulata (Guppy) are introduced in water bodies to
control mosquito populations by feeding on mosquito larvae.
Source: AIR

52. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) focuses on the
conservation of seven big cat species: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, and
Puma, along with their habitats. India is home to five of the seven big cats: Tiger, Lion, Leopard,
Snow Leopard, and Cheetah. The other two species, Jaguar and Puma, are not found in India.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The IBCA's headquarters and permanent secretariat are located in New
Delhi, India.
Source: AIR

53. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. According to the Supreme Court's 1996 judgment in the T.N.
Godavarman Thirumulpad case, the term forest has a broad and inclusive definition. It includes not
only officially recorded forests but also any area that fits the dictionary meaning of a forest,
irrespective of its ownership or classification. The Supreme Court has ruled that no forest land can
be reduced or diverted for non-forest purposes unless compensatory land is provided for
afforestation to offset the loss.
Source: The Hindu

54. Correct Answer is (D)

• Maize is a versatile crop with multiple uses:
• Poultry feed: Maize is a primary ingredient in poultry feed due to its high energy content.
• Livestock feed: It is also widely used as fodder for livestock.
• Starch production: Maize is processed to produce starch, which is used in various industries like
food, textiles, and paper.
• Human consumption: Around 10% of maize in India is used directly for human consumption in
the form of cornmeal, flour, or snacks.
• Ethanol production: Maize is increasingly being used as a raw material for ethanol production,
especially with the government’s push for ethanol blending in petrol.
Source: The Hindu
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 10 PM MCQs Compilation [First Week] February 2025

55. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Sacred groves are small forested areas conserved by local
communities for their religious and cultural importance. India is estimated to have 1-10 lakh
sacred groves, making it the country with the highest number globally. Sacred groves are
recognized as biodiversity hotspots, supporting native flora and fauna.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Not all sacred groves are protected under the WLPA. Only those notified
as community reserves or other protected categories under the Act receive legal protection. Most
sacred groves are conserved through customary laws and community efforts.
Source: The Hindu

56. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Community Reserves were introduced as a category of Protected
Areas under the Wildlife Protection Act (WLPA), 2002, to involve local communities and private
landowners in biodiversity conservation. Conservation Reserves are typically located
on government-owned land that lies adjacent to existing protected areas such as national parks or
wildlife sanctuaries, serving as buffer zones. In contrast, Community Reserves are established
on community-owned or privately-owned land, where locals voluntarily participate in
conservation efforts.
Source: The Hindu

57. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is situated at the tri-junction of Tamil Nadu,
Karnataka, and Kerala. It forms part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The Moyar River and its tributaries drain the reserve. The Fairy
Blue Bird is among the bird species found in Mudumalai Tiger Reserve.
Source: The Hindu

58. Correct Answer is (B)

• Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Olive Ridley turtles are legally protected under Schedule I of the
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, which grants them the highest level of protection in India. Olive
Ridley turtles, like other sea turtles, use the Earth's magnetic field as a navigational tool to migrate
across oceans and return to their natal beaches for nesting.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. While Olive Ridley turtles are occasionally found in the Gulf of Kutch, it is
not a key protected area or significant nesting site for them. The most critical nesting sites for Olive
Ridleys in India are along the Odisha coast (Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary).
Source: The Hindu

Science & Technology

59. Correct Answer is (D)
• The carbon monoxide dehydrogenase (CODH) enzyme helps microbes convert toxic carbon
monoxide (CO) into carbon dioxide (CO₂), allowing them to extract energy for survival.
Source: The Hindu

60. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Like traditional nuclear reactors, SMRs generate electricity through
nuclear fission, which does not produce carbon emissions during operation. The Nuclear Energy
Mission, announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, focuses on advancing R&D for SMRs and aims to
operationalize five indigenous SMR units by 2033. SMR can be machined separately, then
assembled in a factory and transported to the site rather than having to be built on site. Scientists
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 10 PM MCQs Compilation [First Week] February 2025

are also exploring even smaller reactors called microreactors, which can generate 1-20 MW of
power.
Source: The Hindu

61. Correct Answer is (A)

• Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect. Exercise Ekuverin is conducted annually between India and the
Maldives. The most recent 13th edition/2025 Exercise Ekuverin is being held at the Maafilafushi
Training Centre in the Maldives.
• Statement 2 is correct. One of the primary objectives of Exercise Ekuverin is to improve
interoperability between the armed forces of India and the Maldives in counter-insurgency
(CI) and counter-terrorism (CT) operations.
Source: AIR

62. Correct Answer is (A)

• Vibrio natriegens: This fast-growing bacterium has been engineered to degrade plastics like PET
by attaching PET-degrading enzymes to its surface. Microbe X-32: This bacterium can degrade
multiple types of plastics, including PET, polyolefins, and polyamides like nylon.
Source: The Hindu

63. Correct Answer is (C)

• Black holes trap everything, including light, beyond the event horizon. However, as matter spirals
in, it forms a hot accretion disk that emits X-rays, which telescopes detect to identify black holes
indirectly.
Source: The Hindu

64. Correct Answer is (D)

• The Stryker Infantry Carrier Vehicle (ICV) is an eight-wheeled armoured vehicle designed for
mobility and protection, capable of transporting infantry squads into combat zones efficiently. It is
part of the Stryker family of wheeled armoured vehicles.
Source: The Hindu
65. Correct Answer is (B)
• Statement 1 is incorrect. Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) primarily affects the Peripheral Nervous
System (PNS). It involves damage to the peripheral nerves, which connect the brain and spinal cord
to the rest of the body.
• Statement 2 is correct. GBS can be triggered by infections caused by bacteria such
as Campylobacter jejuni, which can be transmitted through contaminated water. In recent
outbreaks, including in Pune, contaminated water was identified as a source of Campylobacter
jejuni infections that led to GBS cases.
Source: The Hindu

66. Correct Answer is (A)

• Statement 1 is correct. The Pinaka MBRL's primary role is area suppression through rapid
saturation of large zones.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Pinaka is a surface-to-surface rocket artillery system. It was
developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and its
laboratory ARDE.
Source: The Hindu

67. Correct Answer is (B)

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 10 PM MCQs Compilation [First Week] February 2025

• Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) technology is used to reduce sulphur dioxide (SO₂) emissions
from the exhaust gases of thermal power plants. It is a pollution control technology that helps in
meeting environmental regulations and improving air quality. SO₂ is a major contributor to acid
rain and respiratory problems, and FGD systems are essential for compliance with emission norms.
Source: The Hindu

68. Correct Answer is (C)

• Statements 1 and 2 are correct. TROPEX-25 focuses on synchronizing responses to conventional,
asymmetric, and hybrid threats. It aims to validate the Indian Navy's core warfighting skills and
ensure an integrated, coordinated response involving multiple services (Indian Navy, Army, Air
Force, and Coast Guard). The exercise involves all operational units of the Indian Navy, including
ships, submarines, and aircraft, as well as substantial participation from other services.
Source: The Hindu

69. Correct Answer is (B)

• Biomanufacturing refers to the industrial production of a variety of products using biological
systems, such as cells or enzymes. These products include medicines (e.g., biotherapeutics),
materials (e.g., biopolymers), and chemicals (e.g., bio-based chemicals). Biotechnology
manufacturing is being promoted under the Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and
Employment (BioE3) policy.
Source: The Hindu

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