22-09-2024

7650CMD303001240022 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) Two bodies of mass 4kg and 9kg have equal K.E. then the ratio of their momentum is :-

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 4 : 9
(4) 16 : 8

2) A particle moves in a potential region given by U = 8x2 – 4x + 400 J. Its state of equilibrium will
be :–

(1) x = 25 m
(2) x = 0·25 m
(3) x = 0·025 m
(4) x = 2·5 m

3) A block of mass 10 kg travels down a smooth curved track AB joined to a rough horizontal surface
having friction coefficient 0.20 with the block. How far will block move on the rough surface ?

(1) 3 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 6 m

4) A uniform chain has mass M and length L respectively. It is lying on a smooth horizontal table
with half of its length hanging vertically down. The work done in pulling the chain up the table is

(1) MgL/2
(2) MgL/4
(3) MgL/8
(4) MgL/16

5) A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown in the figure :-

The work done by the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 8 m is :-

(1) zero J
(2) 80 J
(3) –40 J
(4) 40 J

6) The kinetic energy of a body of mass 2 kg and momentum of 2 Ns is

(1) 1 J
(2) 2J
(3) 3 J
(4) 4 J

7) The only force acting on a 1kg body as it moves along the x-axis varies as shown in figure. The
velocity o the body at x = 0 is 2 m/s. The kinetic energy of the body at x = 2.0 m is

(1) 1 J
(2) 2 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 3 J

8) If we increase kinetic energy of a particle by 200% then what is the percentage increase in
momentum

(1) 41.4%
(2) 50%
(3) 73.2%
(4) 100%
9) A ball of mass m is dropped from a cliff of height H. The ratio of its kinetic energy to the potential

energy when it is fallen through a distance is :-

(1) 3 : 4
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 2 : 3

10) Two bodies of masses 16 kg and 36 kg have same kinetic energy then ratio of their linear
momentum is :-

(1) 4 : 3
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 3 : 4

11) Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal KE. Their momenta is in the ratio

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) A mass M is lowered with the help of a string by a distance h at a constant acceleration g/2. The
work done by the string will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does -

(1) Negative work

(2) Positive but not maximum work
(3) No work at all
(4) Maximum work

14) A particle moves in a potential region given by U = (2x2 - 2x + 100) J. Its state of equilibrium will
be at :

(1) x = 25 m
(2) x = 0.25 m
(3) x = 0.05 m
(4) x = 0.5 m

15) The curved portions are smooth and horizontal surface is rough. The block is released from P. At

what distance from A it will stop ?

(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 4 m

16) A particle moves along a straight line such that its position at any time t is given by
S = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4
The velocity , when its acceleration is zero is -

(1) 3 ms–1
(2) –12 ms–1
(3) 42 ms–1
(4) –9 ms–1

17) A particle of mass 50 kg is at rest. The work done to accelerate it by 20 m/s in 10 s is :-

(1) 103 J
(2) 104 J
(3) 2 × 103 J
(4) 4 × 104 J

18) A body of mass 3 kg acted upon by a constant force is displaced by S meter, given by relation:

t2 where t is in second. Work done by the force in 2 seconds is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) 4 J of work is required to stretch a spring through 10 cm beyond its unstretched length. The
extra work required to stretch it through additional 10 cm shall be
(1) 4 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 12 J
(4) 16 J

20) The only force Fx acting on a 2.0 kg body as it moves along the x-axis varies as shown in the
figure. The velocity of the body along positive x-axis at x = 0 is 4 m/s. The kinetic energy of the body

at x = 3.0 m is :-

(1) 4 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 12 J
(4) 16 J

21) A position dependent force F = 7 – 2x + 3x2 newton acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and
displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done in joules is

(1) 70
(2) 270
(3) 35
(4) 135

22) If a spring extends by x on loading, then the energy stored by the spring is- (T is the tension in
the spring and K is force constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A particle moves in one dimension from rest under the influence of a force that varies with the
distance travelled by the particle as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the particle after it
has travelled 3m is:

(1) 6.5 J
(2) 2.5 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 5 J

24) Find work done by gravity for displacement of block from A to B :-

(1) mgh
(2) –mgh
(3) 4 mgh
(4) –4 mgh

25) The potential energy of a body is given by, U = A– Bx2 (Where x is the displacement). The
magnitude of force acting on the particle is :

(1) Constant
(2) Proportional to x
(3) Proportional to x2
(4) Inversely proportional to x

26)

A force of N acts on a particle for four seconds and displaced for m. The
power of the force is -

(1) 4.5 W
(2) 6.5 W
(3) 7.5 W
(4) 9.5 W

27) A rotating wheel has a speed of 1200 r.p.m. and then it is made to slow down at a constant rate
at 4 rad/sec2. The number of revolution it makes before coming to rest will be :-

(1) 272
(2) 722
(3) 143
(4) 314

28) If angular velocity of a particle depends on the angle rotated θ as ω = θ2 + 2θ, then its angular
acceleration α at θ = 1 rad is :

(1) 8 rad/s2
(2) 10 rad/s2
(3) 12 rad/s2
(4) None of these

29) Angular velocity of minute hand of a clock is :

(1)
rad/s
(2) π rad/s
(3) 2π rad/s

(4)
rad/s

30) The angular speed of the wheel of a vehicle is increased from 360 rpm to 1200 rpm in 14 second.
Its angular acceleration is

(1) 2π rad/s2
(2) 28π rad/s2
(3) 120π rad/s2
(4) 1 rad/s2

31) Find the maximum safe speed of a car on a horizontal circular track having radius = 4m and µ =
0.4.

(1) 16 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 8 m/s
(4) 2 m/s

32) A road is banked at angle θ. If coefficient of friction between the road and tyre of the car moving
on the road is μ, then maximum possible safe speed of car moving over the road on a circular track
of radius R will be [NCERT XI-(I)-105]

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A body moves along an uneven surface with constant speed at all points. The normal reaction of

the road on the body is :

(1) Maximum at A
(2) Maximum at B
(3) Maximum at C
(4) The same at A, B and C

34) A particle of mass m is attached to a light inextensible string of length R. Condition of oscillation
will be -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) If radius of circular path of two particles are in the ratio of 1 : 2, then in order to have same
centripetal acceleration, their speeds should be in the ratio of -

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3)
(4)

SECTION - B

1) If U = 4x2y + 2yz2 then force at (1, 0, 2) is equal to -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

2) On a particle placed at origin a variable force F = –ax (Where a is a positive constant) is applied.
If U(0) = 0, the graph between potential energy of particle U(x) and x is best represented by
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying on a smooth table and one third of its length is
hanging vertically down over the edge of the table. If g is acceleration due to gravity, work required
to pull the hanging on to the table is :-

(1) MgL

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two men with weights in the ratio 4 : 3 run up a staircase in time in the ratio 12 : 11. The ratio of
power of the first to that of second is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A car of mass 1000 kg accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity of 54 km/h in 5s. The average
power of the engine during this speed is (neglect friction) :

(1) 2000 W
(2) 45000 W
(3) 2250 W
(4) 22500 W

6) a body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed v0 in time t0 . The work done on the
body till any time t is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering a constant power. The distance,
moved by the body in time t, is proportional to :-

(1)
(2) t3/4
(3) t3/2
(4) t2

8) A car of mass m is moving with constant power P. If at any instant its velocity is v. Find distance
travelled by the car until its velocity becomes double :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) zero

9) A body of mass 2 kg is moving up an inclined plane rising 1 in 30 with velocity 60 m/sec. If

efficiency is 40%, then calculate power required.

(1) 60 W
(2) 40 W
(3) 100W
(4) 20W

10) A mass m is attached to the end of a rod of length ℓ. The mass goes around a verticle circular
path with the other end hinged at the centre. What should be the minimum velocity of mass at the
bottom of the circle so that the mass completes the circle?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) In figure, a bob attached with a light string of radius R is given an initial velocity at

the bottom point at what height string will slack ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The angular velocity of a body is and a torque acts on it. The
rotational power will be

(1) 20 watt
(2) 15 watt
(3) watt
(4) watt
13) A particle tied to a string describes a vertical circle of radius r. If it has a velocity at
the highest point, then ratio of maximum and minimum tension in string is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 8/3

14) A stone hanging from a massless string of length L m is projected horizontally with speed u m/s.
when string becomes horizontal the tension in the string equals to 3mg, then u is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) A simple pendulum is oscillating without damping. When the displacement of the bob is less than
maximum, its acceleration vector is correctly shown in.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) Which order are correct?

(I) Thermal stability :
BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4
(II) Basic nature : ZnO > BeO > MgO > CaO
(III) Solubility in water :
LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH > CsOH
(iv) Melting point :
NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl

(1) I and IV
(2) I, II and IV
(3) II, III
(4) II, IV

2) The correct order of increasing thermal stability of LiF, KF, NaF, RbF and CsF is :

(1) KF > LiF > CsF > RbF > NaF

(2) LiF > NaF > KF > RbF > CsF
(3) NaF > LiF > CsF > RbF > NaF
(4) CsF > RbF > KF > NaF > LiF

3) The lattice energies of KF, KCl , KBr and KI follow the order:

(1) KF > KCl > KBr > KI

(2) KI > KBr > KCl > KF
(3) KF > KCl > KI > KB
(4) KI > KBr > KF > KCl

4) Select the incorrect order of solubility

(1) CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3

(2) CaSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4
(3) Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2
(4) CaF2 < SrF2 < BaF2

5) Which specie would have maximum hydration ?

(1) Be+2
(2) Li+
(3) Mg+2
(4)

6) The hydrogen bond is strongest in :

(1) O−H−S
(2) S−H−O
(3) F−H−F
(4) O−H−O

7) The compound MX4 is tetrahedral. The number of identical XMX angles in the compound is :

(1) three
(2) four
(3) five
(4) six

8) Which compound of N is not possible ?

(1) NH3
(2) NCl3
(3) NH5
(4) NF3

9)

Solid exists as :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Which of the following compound does not exist?

(1) IF7
(2) SF6
(3) XeF2
(4) XeH2

11)

In which of the following species the bonds are non-directional ?

(1) NCl3
(2) RbCl
(3) BeCl2
(4) BCl3

12)

Which of the following has maximum cation to anion size ratio

(1) KCl
(2) KF
(3) LiCl
(4) LiF

13) Compound with maximum ionic character is formed from :

(1) Na and Cl
(2) Cs and F
(3) Cs and I
(4) Na and F

14) Ionic conductance of hydrated M+ ions are in the order :

+ + + + +
(1) Li (aq.) > Na (aq.) > K (aq.) > Rb (aq.) > Cs (aq.)
+ + + + +
(2) Li (aq.) > Na (aq.) < K (aq.) < Rb (aq.) < Cs (aq.)
+ + + + +
(3) Li (aq.) > Na (aq.) > K (aq.) > Rb (aq.) < Cs (aq.)
+ + + + +
(4) Li (aq.) < Na (aq.) < K (aq.) < Rb (aq.) < Cs (aq.)

15) Isomerism does not exist in ionic compound due to :

(1) Presence of opposite charge

(2) High melting point
(3) Non directional nature of bond
(4) Crystalline nature

16) Which compound is highest covalent

(1) LiF
(2) LiCl
(3) LiBr
(4) LiI

17) Among the following the compound having lowest melting point is:

(1) LiCl
(2) CsCl
(3) RbCl
(4) KCl

18) Born Haber cycle is mainly used to determine :

(1) Lattice energy

(2) Electron affinity
(3) Ionisation energy
(4) Electronegativity

19) Which of the following is the correct order of stability ?

+ +
(1) H2 > H2 > He2 > He2
+ +
(2) H2 > H2 > He2 > He2
+ +
(3) H2 > He2 > H2 > He2
+ +
(4) H2 > He2 > H2 > He2

20) Which of the following bond / force is weakest ?

(1) Covalent bond

(2) Ionic bond
(3) Hydrogen bond
(4) London force

21) On the basis of molecular orbital theory which molecules does not exist?

(1) H2
(2) He2
(3) HeH
(4) Li2

22) Which of the following is paramagnetic?

(1) B2
(2) O2
(3) S2
(4) All of these
23) If the z-axis is taken as the internuclear axis, then which of the following combinations of atomic
orbitals is a nonbonding combination ?

(1) s and py
(2) px and s
(3) px and py
(4) all of these

24) Match the column

Column I Column II
(Molecule) (Bond order)

(i) NO (a) 1.5

(ii) CO (b) 2.0

(iii) (c) 2.5

(iv) O2 (d) 3.0

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(4) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c

25) Structure of XeOF2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
26) The order of dipole moments of the following molecules is

(1) CHCl3 > CH2Cl2 > CH3Cl > CCl4

(2) CH2Cl2 > CH3Cl > CHCl3 > CCl4
(3) CH3Cl > CH2Cl2 > CHCl3 > CCl4
(4) CH2Cl2 > CHCl3 > CH3Cl > CCl4

27) In which molecule last electron is filled in

(1) C2
(2) N2
(3) B2
(4) O2

28) During change of C2 to C2+ the electron is removed from which of the molecular orbitals :

(1) Sigma orbital

(2) pi orbital
(3) pi star orbital
(4) Sigma star orbital

29) The dipole moment of NH3 is :

(1) Less than dipole moment of NCl3

(2) Higher than dipole moment of NCl3
(3) Equal to the dipole moment of NCl3
(4) Can't determined

30) The compound containing co-ordinate bond is

(1) H2SO4
(2) O3
(3) SO3
(4) All of these

31) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is not present in :-

(1) p-fluoro phenol

(2) Chloral hydrate
(3) o-nitro phenol
(4) o-fluoro phenol

32) The H-bonds in solid HF can be best represented as :

(1) H—F---H—F---H—F
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) KF combines with HF to form KHF2. The compound contains the species :-

(1) K+, F– and H+

(2) K+, F– and HF
+ –
(3) K and [HF2]
+
(4) [KHF] and F2

34) Which of the following is correct for bond energy :-

(1) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2

(2) C–C > O–O > N–N > F–F
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(4) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

35) Correct order of Bond angle is

+ –
(1) NO2 < NO2 < NO2
(2) BeCl2 > BF3 < CF4
+ –
(3) NH4 > NH3 > NH2
(4) OF2 > OCl2 > OBr2

SECTION - B

1) Which of following compound has smallest bond angle?

(1) H2O
(2) NH3
(3) CH4
(4) CO2

2) Which is not correctly matched?

(1) XeO3 – Trigonal bipyramidal

(2) ClF3 – bent T – shape
(3) XeOF4 – Square pyramidal
(4) XeF2 – Linear shape

3) The bond angles of NH3, NH4+ and NH2– are in the order:

– +
(1) NH2 > NH3 > NH4
+ –
(2) NH4 > NH3 > NH2
–
(3) NH3 > NH2 > NH4
+ -
(4) NH3 > NH4 > NH2

4) In which of the following pairs the two molecules have identical bond order

2+
(1) N2, O2
–
(2) N2, O2
–
(3) N2 , O2
+
(4) O2 , N2

5) Which is incorrect match ?

(1) H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3 : bond angle order
–
(2) XeF5 , XeF4, BF3 : Planar species
(3) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te: bond angle order
(4) CF4 < BF3 < CO2 : % s-character in hybrid orbital

6) The molecular which does not exhibit dipole moment is :

(1) NH3
(2) Cl2O
(3) H2O
(4) CCl4

7) The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3– and NH4+ respectively are

(1) sp, sp2 and sp3

(2) sp2, sp and sp3
(3) sp, sp3 and sp2
(4) sp2, sp3 and sp

8) H3C–C≡C–CH3 have total σ & π bonds respectively :-

(1) 3, 2
(2) 5, 2
(3) 10, 2
(4) 9, 2
9) The octet rule is not valid for the molecule :-

(1) CO2
(2) SF4
(3) O2
(4) N2

10) In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, the central atoms have sp2 hybridization ?

–
(1) BF3 and NH2
–
(2) NO2 and NH3
–
(3) BF3 and NO2
–
(4) NH2 and H2O

11) In which of the following ionization processes, the bond order has increased and the magnetic
behaviour has changed?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Which of the following does not contain isoelectronic species ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Which of the following is not linear?

(1)
(2) SF2
(3) CO2
(4) XeF2

14) Amongst the given options which of the following molecules/ion acts as a Lewis acid?

(1) H2O
(2) BF3
(3) OH–
(4) NH3

15) Which of the following combination form σ bond (INA → Y) ?

(1) Px + Px
(2) Py + Py
(3) Pz + Pz
(4) None of these

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) Only pigment system-I is concerned with

(1) Photolysis of H2O

(2) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(3) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation

2) The reaction
RUBP + O2 PGA + Phosphoglycolic acid
This reaction occurs in :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Cytoplasm

3) Photosystem-I and photosystem-II are named :-

(1) in the sequence of their discovery

(2) in the sequence in which they function during light reaction
(3) in the sequence of their positions
(4) in the sequence of electron transfer

4) Name the scientist who first pointed out that plants purify foul air/bad air.

(1) R. Hill
(2) Van Niel
(3) Joseph Priestley
(4) Jean Senebier

5) In cyclic photophosphorylation there is no need of external source of electrons because :

(1) The electrons removed by PS II is taken up by PS I

(2) Cytochromes involved in the process provide electrons to PS I
(3) The electrons are circulated within the photosystem
(4) NADPH acts as reducing agent

6) Assertion : Calvin pathway, is common to the C3 and C4 plants.

Reason : C3 pathway or the Calvin cycle is the main biosynthetic pathway.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is incorrect explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

7) Which of the option is correct ?

(1) A–(CF0), C–(PS–II), D–(PS–I)

(2) A–(CF1), C–(PS–I), D–(PS–II)
(3) A–(CF0), C–(PS–I), D–(PS–II)
(4) A–(CF0), C–(PS–I), D–(PS–I)

8) Which of the following is the correct sequence in E.T.S ?

(1) PSII → PQ → Cyto b6f → P.C → PSI → Fd → FNR

(2) PSI → FRS → Fd → FNR → PSII → Cyto b6f → FNR
(3) PSII → PQ → PQH2 → PC → Cyto b6f → FRS → PSI
(4) PSII → Fd → FRS → PC → PSI → PQ → FNR

9)
Identify the correct label :-

(1) x-chlorophyll-a, y-chlorophyll-b, z-carotenoids

(2) x-chlorophyll-b, y-chlorophyll-a, z-carotenoids
(3) x-carotenoids, y-chlorophyll-a, z-chlorophyll-b
(4) x-chlorophyll-a, y-carotenoids, z-chlorophyll-b

10) In calvin cycle, for synthesis of three molecule of sucrose, the requirement of ATP and NADPH is
:-

(1) 120 and 54

(2) 60 and 24
(3) 54 and 48
(4) 108 and 72

11) In the chromatogram prepared using paper chromatography, chlorophyll-b appears as

(1) Bright green

(2) Yellow-green
(3) Yellow
(4) Yellow-orange

12) As compared to a C3– plant, how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production
of one molecule of hexose sugar by C4– plants :-

(1) Zero
(2) Six
(3) Two
(4) Twelve

13) Transportation of H+ from lumen to stroma through cf0 cf1 particle of thylakoid is :-
–

(1) Simple diffusion

(2) Active transportation
(3) Facilitated diffusion
(4) Imbibition

14) Which statement is correct?

(1) The final acceptor of electrons during non cyclic flow of electron is NADP+
(2) A photosystem consists of pigments, a reaction centre and an electron acceptor
+
(3) H ions pass through CF1 toward perimito chondrial space
(4) All of these

15) Leaf pigments of any green plants can be separated by :-

(1) X-ray diffraction

(2) Sedimentation
(3) Paper chromatography
(4) Centrifugation

16) In C4 plants, Calvin cycle enzymes are present in :-

(1) Chloroplasts of mesophyll cells

(2) Chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells
(3) Cytoplasm of guard cells
(4) Cytoplasm of epidermal cells

17)

(1) A = Mesophyll, B = Mesophyll, C = Malic acid

(2) A = Mesophyll, B = Bundle sheath, C = OAA
(3) A = Bundle sheath, B = Bundle sheath, C = Aspartic acid
(4) A= Bundle sheath, B = Mesophyll, C = OAA

18) How many ATP molecules are required for the synthesis of one molecule of PGAL during C3-
cycle.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 12

19) Which one of the following conditions favour the oxygenase activity of RuBisCO enzyme ?

(1) Low O2 high CO2 concentration

(2) High O2 and Low CO2 Concentration
(3) Absence of PS-II
(4) Low light intensity

20) In C4 plants how many ATP and NADPH2 are respectively used for formation of one glucose
molecule in bundle sheath cells :-

(1) 18, 12
(2) 18, 10
(3) 30, 12
(4) 18, 18
21) (A) Photosystem-II (B) H2O
(C) NADP (D) Photosystem-I
Which of the following options denotes the correct sequence of electron transfer in noncyclic
photophosphorylation ?

(1) A→B → C → D
(2) D → C → A → B
(3) B → A → D → C
(4) C → D → A → B

22) Assertion (A) : Cyclic flow of electrons results only in the synthesis of ATP, but not of
NADPH+H+.
Reason (R) : The stroma lamellae membranes lack PSII as well as NADP reductase enzyme and the
excited electron does not pass on to NADP+ but is cycled back to the PSI.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

23) Assertion : C4 plant is more efficient than the C3 plant.

Reason : C4 plant lack a process called photo-respiration so have greater productivity of biomass.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) Assertion : Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is also called as Z scheme.

Reason : When all the carriers are placed in a sequence on a redox potential scale, it gives its
characteristic shape.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) Pteridophytes differ form bryophytes in having :-

(1) Independent gametophyte

(2) Independent sporophyte
(3) Dependent gametophyte
(4) Dependent sporophyte

26) Stored food of red algae and green algae are, respectively :-
(1) Starch and floridean starch
(2) Laminarin and starch
(3) Floridean starch and laminarin
(4) Floridean starch and starch

27) Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed
habit because :-

(1) Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte

(2) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds.
(3) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia
(4) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat.

28) Green, multicellular, asexual buds germinate to form new individuals in liverworts and are
called–

(1) Tuber
(2) Zoospores
(3) Gemmae
(4) Antipodals

29) Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in life cycle of bryophyte.
[A - Sporophyte, B - Zygote, C - Gametogenesis, D - Gametophyte, E - Meiosis, F - Syngamy, G -
Spore]

(1) A C E F B D G
(2) D C F B A E G
(3) D C F B E G A
(4) D C F E B A G

30) Which of the following group do not have any motile gamete :-

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Pheophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

31) Holdfast, stipe and frond consitute the plant body in case of

(1) Volvox
(2) Chara
(3) Laminaria
(4) Chlamydomonas

32)

(I) Fertilization
(II)Liberation of spores
(III) Prothallus formation
(IV) Embryo formation
Arrange the above events in a correct sequence in the life cycle of pteridophytes :-

(1) II, III, I, IV

(2) IV, III, II, I
(3) I, II, III, IV
(4) I, IV, III, II

33) Selaginella, Dryopteris, Equisetum, Adiantum, Lycopodium, Pteris belong to how many classes of
pteridophyte

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

34) In cycas, endosperm cell have 20 chromosomes then how many chromosomes are present in
nucellus.

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 60
(4) 10

35) Statement-I : In cycas specialised roots called coralloid roots are associated with N2 – Fixing
cyanobacteria.
Statement-II : Pinus and cedrus have unbranched stem.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

SECTION - B

1) Assertion :- There is linear relationship between incident light and CO2 fixation rates at low light
intensities.
Reason :- In this condition light become the limiting factor.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

2) What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo ?

(1) Presence of archegonia
(2) Well developed vascular tissues
(3) Independent gametophyte
(4) Independent sporophyte

3) Choose the correct option for A and C :-

(1) A – light is optimum

(2) C – Other factor is limiting
(3) C – Light is limiting
(4) A – Other factor is limiting

4) Identify A, B, C and D in the Calvin cycle given below :-

(1) A = regeneration of PEP, B = 3PGA, C = ADP, D = triosephosphate

(2) A = regeneration, B = 3PGA, C = ATP + NADPH+H+, D = 3PGAL
(3) A = OAA, B = PEP, C = ATP + NADPH+H+, D = Triose phosphate
(4) A = regeneration, B = ATP, C = NADP+, D = 3PGAL

5)

Identify the correct sequence of reactions given below which participate in C4 pathway ?
(A) Regeneration of RuBP
(B) Carboxylation by RuBisCO
(C) Reduction of oxaloacetate

The correct sequence is :-

(1) A → B → C
(2) C → B → A
(3) B → C → A
(4) A → C → B

6) How many ATP are require for fixation of 1 - CO2 molecule in regeneration of C - 3 cycle ?

(1) 18 ATP
(2) 12 ATP
(3) 6 ATP
(4) 1 ATP

7)
Which of the following is the location of process shown in the above diagram?

(1) Outer membrane of chloroplast

(2) The fluid part of chloroplast
(3) Lamellae which connect grana lamellae
(4) Lamellae which form stacks in the chloroplast

8) C3 plants have been used as green house crops for higher yields because :-

(1) These plants show CO2 saturation at about 360 μℓL

–1

(2) Current availability of CO2 levels is limiting to C3 plants

(3) These plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C4 plants
(4) C3 plants loses less water as compare to C4 plants

9) Represented below is the graph showing action spectrum of photosynthesis superimposed on

absorption spectrum of chlorophyll 'a'. Which one of the following is correct for this ?
(1) There is a complete one to one overlap between the absorption and action spectrum
(2) By this overlapping it can be concluded that chlorophyll 'a'is the chief pigment of photosynthesis
(3) This overlapping shows that only chlorophyll 'a' absorb the entire light energy
(4) These graphs show that photosynthesis occurs only in the wavelengths of blue and red light

10) In a Capsule number of chromosome is 6, what will be the number of chromosomes in its foot,
nurse cell, and protonema respectively :-

(1) 6, 6, 3
(2) 24, 12, 3
(3) 12, 12, 6
(4) 6, 6, 6

11) Assertion : Mosses reduce the impact of falling rain and prevent soil erosion.
Reason : Mosses form dense mats on the soil.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

12) Zoospores produced by brown algae are pear-shaped with :

(1) Two equal apically attached flagella

(2) Two unequal apically attached flagella
(3) Two equal laterally attached flagella
(4) Two unequal laterally attached flagella

13) Volvox, Ulothrix, spirogyra, Chara, Dictyota, Ectocarpus, Laminaria, Sargassum, Porphyra and
Polysiphonia, etc., are the examples of organism. Number of organism which having chlorophyll a
and chlorophyll c are

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Seven
(4) Five

14) In flowering plant, endosperm cells have 30 chromosomes then how many chromosomes are
present in fertilized egg?

(1) 60
(2) 90
(3) 20
(4) 10

15) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Horsetails are a group of angiosperms

(2) Selaginella is homosporous while Salvinia is heterosporous
(3) Ovules are enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms
(4) Stem is unbranched in Cycas but branched in Pinus

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Total number of ganglia present in nervous system of cockroach ?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 13

2) Which of the following statements is true for cockroach ?

(1) Ureotelic
(2) Anal style absent in female
(3) Larval stage called caterpillar
(4) Number of ovarioles in each ovary is ten

3) What external changes are visible after completion of moultings in nymphal stage of cockroach ?

(1) Anal cerci develop

(2) Mandibles develop
(3) Both forewing and hind wing develop
(4) Labium develop

4) The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in haemolymph mainly in the form
of :-

(1) Ammonia
(2) Potassium urate
(3) Uric acid
(4) Urea

5) Cockroach is.................:-

(1) Ureotelic
(2) Ammonotelic
(3) Proteinotelic
(4) Uricotelic

6) How many pairs of spiracles present in thorax in cockroach ?

(1) 10
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 6

7) On an average, female cockroach produce A oothecae with B mm; contain C eggs :-

A B C

(1) 9-10 3/8 14-16

(2) 9-10 8 14-16

(3) 13-14 6 5-6

(4) 14-16 3 9-10

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) A ring of A blind tubules called B is present at the junction of foregut and mid gut Which secrete
digestive juice. At junction of midgut and hind gut is present another ring of C filamentous D :-

A B C D

Malpighian Hepatic
1 6-8 100-150
tubules caecae

Malpighian Hepatic
2 100-150 6-8
tubules caecae

Malpighian
3 100-150 Hepatic caecae 6-8
tubules

Malpighian
4 6-8 Hepatic caecae 100-150
tubules
1
(1)
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Supra oesophageal ganglia in cockroach supply nerve to :-

(1) Labrum and labium

(2) Compound eye and Labium
(3) Compound eye and Antennae
(4) Labium and Antennae

10) In Cockroach the sclerites of exoskeleton joint by

(1) Sternum
(2) Tergum
(3) Articular or Arthrodial membrane
(4) Peritrophic membrane

11) The Forewings of Cockroach are also known as :

(1) Elytra
(2) Metathoracic wings
(3) Tegmina
(4) Both (1) and (3)

12) Identify the labelled structures A, B, C and D in the following diagram :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Seminal Phallic Ejaculatory

(1) Testis
vesicle gland duct

Phallic Seminal Ejaculatory

(2) Testis
gland vesicle duct

Ejaculatory Phallic Seminal

(3) Testis
duct gland vesicle

Phallic Seminal Ejaculatory

(4) Testis
gland vesicle duct
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
13) Recognise the figure and find out the corect matching :-

(1) b-vestibulum, a-genital chamber,c-spermathecae, d-gonapophyses

(2) a-vestibulum, b-genital chamber, d-spermathecae, c-gonapophyses
(3) d-vestibulum, c-genital chamber, a-spermathecae, b-gonapophyses
(4) c-vestibulum, d-genital chamber, b-spermathecae, a-gonapophyses

14) With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach can receive several images of an object. This
kind of vision is caled :-

(1) Nocturnal vision, with less sensitivity and less resolution

(2) Mosaic vision, with more sensitivity but less resolution
(3) Mosaic vision, with more resolution but less sensitivity
(4) Nocturnal vision, with more sensitivity and more resolution

15) Identify the correctly labelled part in alimentary canal of cockroach :-

(1) Salivary Reservoir

(2) Stomach
(3) Crop
(4) Hepatic Caeca

16) Which mouth part of cockroach acts as upper lip ?

(1) Labium
(2) Labrum
(3) First maxilla
(4) Hypopharynx

17) Position of head in relation to body axis of cockroach is known as :-

(1) Epignathous
(2) Hypognathous
(3) Prognathous
(4) None of these

18) Match the following regarding the morphology of Cockroach and choose the correct option :-

List-I List-II

(i) Tergites (A) Forewings

(ii) Tegmina (B) Upper lip

(iii) Hypopharynx (C) Dorsal Sclerite

(iv) Labium (D) Tongue

(v) Labrum (E) Lower lip

(1) (i)-D, (ii)-E, (iii)-C, (iv)-B, (v)-A
(2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-E, (iv)-D, (v)-A
(3) (i)-E, (ii)-A, (iii)-C, (iv)-D, (v)-B
(4) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-E, (v)-B

19) Consider the statements regarding the blood vascular system of Periplaneta and select the
correct statements :-
(A) Blood vascular system is open type
(B) Blood vessels are well developed
(C) Haemolymph is composed of coloured plasma and hematocytes
(D) Heart is 13-chambered

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

20) Match the following column-I with column-II regarding cockroach.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Alary muscles (1) For storing food

Accessory
Malpighian
(B) (2) reproductive
tubules
gland

Mushroom
(C) (3) Excretion
gland

(D) Crop (4) Blood circulation

A B C D
 (1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 4 2 1 3

(3) 3 2 1 4

(4) 4 3 2 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) The given figure is of reproductive system of female cockroach. Identify A to D in given diagram

: (1) (A) Ovary

(B) Vagina
(C) Collaterial gland
(D) Genital chamber

(2) (A) Ovary

(B) Vagina
(C) Genital chamber
(D) Collaterial gland

(3) (A) Oviduct

(B) Ovary
(C) Collaterial gland
(D) Spermatheca

(4) (A) Oviduct

(B) Ovary
(C) Genital chamber
(D) Collaterial gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Select the correct statement for the figure :

(1) A – It is a branched structure, originates from neck
(2) B – It helps in flying and protection
(3) C – It helps in protection only
(4) D – Present in Male and Female both

23) In which part of female cockroach sperms are stored after copulation ?

(1) Spermatophores
(2) Spermathecae
(3) Seminal vesicles
(4) Ootheca

24) The main function of Gizzard is, in case of cockroach?

(1) to store the food

(2) to convert the food into fine particles
(3) to secrete the carbohydrate diagesting enzyme
(4) to store the undigested food

25) Which of following is not a part of male cockroach?

(1) Titillator
(2) Utricular gland
(3) Collaterial glands
(4) Pseudopenis

26)

A mature female frog can lay :-

(1) 2500 to 3000 ova at a time

(2) 25 to 30 ova at a time
(3) 250 to 300 ova at a time
(4) 125 to 130 ova at a time

27) The fore limb of male frog is distinct from female frog due to presence of :-

(1) Fore arm

(2) Thumb
(3) Web
(4) Copulatory pad

28) Frog is not :-

(1) Cold blooded

(2) Poikilotherms
(3) Endothermal
(4) Ectothermal

29) During hibernation or aestivation, frog respires mainly by :-

(1) Lungs
(2) Skin
(3) Buccopharyngeal cavity
(4) Gills

30) Ureters acts as urinogenital duct in _____ :-

(1) Male frog

(2) Female frog
(3) Male Human
(4) Female Human

31) Skin of frog does not possess

(1) Scales
(2) Mucous glands
(3) Chromatophores
(4) Epidermis

32) Find out incorrect matching of animal with their excretory structures :-

(1) Earthworm – Nephridia

(2) Cockroach – Malpighian tubules
(3) Frog – Metanephric kidneys
(4) Tape worm – Flame cells

33) Truncus arteriosus is present on _____ side of heart of frog :-

(1) Dorsal
(2) Lateral
(3) Ventral
(4) Dorso-lateral

34) The frog's body is divisible into :-

(1) Head neck, abdomen
(2) Head, neck, Trunk
(3) Head, Trunk
(4) Head, neck, Trunk & Tail

35) The skin of frog is smooth & slippery due to the presence of ?

(1) Sebaceous gland

(2) Mucus gland
(3) Poisonous gland
(4) Mammary gland

SECTION - B

1) The most common species of frog found in India is :-

(1) Rana goliath

(2) Rana tigrina
(3) Rana silvatica
(4) Bufo malenostictus

2) Given below is a table for the respiratory organ in frog in different place. Find out correct one :-

(1) In water Skin and lungs

Skin, Buccal cavity and
(2) On land
lungs
(3) In tadpole Gills and skin
Hibernation &
(4) Skin and Buccal cavity
Aestivation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which one of the following is not a correct feature of frog?

(1) The skin is moist and slimy

(2) Each of the fore limbs and hind limbs end in five digits
(3) Hepatic portal and renal portal systems are present
(4) Skin, buccal cavity and lungs are the respiratory organs

4)

During summer frogs take shelter in deep burrows to protect them from extreme heat is called as

(1) Aestivation
(2) Hibernation
(3) Diapause
(4) Menopause

5)

______ and ________ are the important adaptations have evolved in frogs to avoid the predation by
enemies

(1) Camouflage
(2) Mimicry
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Spiniscence

6) Vocal sacs and copulatory pad are found in :-

(1) Male frog

(2) Female frog
(3) Both
(4) None

7) Which of the following character is incorrect for the labelling in given diagram:

(1) A → Store and concentrate the bile

(2) B → Small median chamber
(3) C → Opening of common bile duct present
(4) D → Responsible for respiration on land

8) Select the correct passage of sperm in male frog-

(1) Testis → Vas efferentia → Ureter → Rectum → Cloaca

(2) Testes → Vas efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct
(3) Testis → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Ureter → Cloaca
(4) Testes → Vas efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca

9) How many cranial nerves arising from the brain of frog ?

(1) Ten
(2) Twelve
(3) Twelve pairs
(4) Ten pairs

10)

Which of the following option is correct for Rana tigrina ?

(1) Uricotelic, unisexual and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.

(2) Ammonotelic, bisexual and 10 pairs of cranial nerves.
(3) Ureotelic, unisexual and 10 pairs of cranial nerves.
(4) Ureotelic, Hermaphrodite and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.

11) In frog, Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number that arise from testes. They enter the kidneys on
their side and open into :-

(1) Vas deferens

(2) Bidder’s canal
(3) Urethra
(4) Ureter

12) In frog right auricle received blood from ?

(1) Truncus arteriosus

(2) Conus arteriosus
(3) Post vena caval
(4) Sinous venosus

13)

Dorsal part of frog is ..... and ventral part is ....

(1) olivegreen, uniformly pale yellow

(2) olivegreen, uniformly dark yellow
(3) olivegreen, nonuniformly pale yellow
(4) olivegreen, nonuniformly dark yellow

14) Erythrocytes in frog are :-

(1) Nucleated and without haemoglobin.

(2) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin.
(3) Nucleated and with haemoglobin
(4) Without nucleus and without haemoglobin.

15) Given below is a diagrammatic representation of internal organ of frog labelled A, B, C and D
showing digestive system : Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) A— is liver which is trilobed

(2) B— is intestine and its length is reduced in frog due to its carnivorous nature
(3) C— is urinary bladder which opens in cloaca
(4) D— is kidney, which is metanephric
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 3 1 1 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 4 1 4 2 1 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 2 1 3 2 4 4 3 4 1 2 2 1 2 3

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 4 4 4 1 3 2 3 1 4 1 3 3 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 2 1 2 1 3 4 3 1 4 2 2 2 4 3 4 1 1 2 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 4 3 1 3 2 2 2 4 1 3 3 4 3

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 1 2 1 3 4 1 4 2 3 2 3 2 2 2

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 2 1 3 3 1 1 1 1 4 2 4 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 3 1 1 2 4 1 3 2 3 3 1 3 2 3

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 1 1 4 2 3 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 2 4 2 2 4 3 3 4 2 3 2 1 2 2 4 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 2 2 3 1 4 3 2 1 1 3 3 3 2

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 2 2 1 3 1 3 4 4 3 2 4 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

3)

By work-energy theorem :
Wg + Wf = ΔK
mgh – µmgx = 0

10)
∵ KE1 = KE2

15)

Speed acquired by the block when it reaches A

⇒ v2 = u2 + 2as

⇒ 20 = 4s
⇒ s =5m
The distance travelled by the block on the rough surface = 5m

The block stops at distance 1 m from A.

19)

Work done in stretching a spring

W = kx2
where k is the spring constant and x is the extension in the spring

∴ W1 = ....(i)

and W2 = ....(ii)
 Divide (ii) by (i), we get

=4
W2 = 4W1
Extra work done = W2 – W1 = 4W1 – W1
= 3 W1 = 3 × 4 J = 12 J
( W1 = 4J (Given))

20)

Till x = 2m, area under the curve F – x is zero so work done is zero therefore KE remains same at x
= 2m, v = 4 m/s
Force = –4 N, mass of body = 2 kg

∴ acceleration (a) = = –2 m/s2.

This reduces velocity.
Now v2 = u2 + 2as.
∴ v2 = (4)2 + 2 × (–2) = (16 – 4) = 12
at x = 3 m

∴ Kinetic energy = × 2 × 12 = 12 J

24)

wmg = mg(4h)
= 4 mgh

29) w = = rad/s

31)

32)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page No.

105

33) At A :- NA – mg =

NA = mg +

At C :- NC – mg =

NC = mg +
 Since,
∴ NA > NB

34)

By applying C.O.M.E.

35)

37)

Integrating both sides

38)

The weight of hanging part of chain is This weight acts at centre of gravity of the

hanging part, which is at a distance of from the table.

As work done = force × distance

39)

(W = weight)
(h is same in both cases)

40)

Av. Power

43)

P=

Px =

44) Pout = (mgsinθ)v

= 40 W

Pin = 100 W

46)

CHEMISTRY

59)

64)

69) B.O ∝ stability (H2+ is more stable than He2+ due to lesser ABMO e–)
 74)

Bond Order
NO → 15e¯ → 2.5
CO → 14e¯ → 3.0
→ 17e¯ → 1.5
O2 → 16e¯ → 2.0

95)

96) has total of 15 electrons, electron is removed from anti-bonding molecular orbital,
hence bond order is increased and magnetic moment changes from paramagnetic to
diamagnetic moment.

BOTANY

103)

NCERT - XI, Pg - 211

107)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 214

109)

NCERT Pg No. 210, Para-13.4

111)

NCERT Pg. # 210

119)

NCERT XI Pg. # 220

122)

NCERT, Page No. 213

123)

NCERT Pg. # 220

124)
NCERT XI, Pg. # 212

125)

NCERT Pg. # 34-38

127) NCERT XI Pg. # 38

133) NCERT XI, Pg # 38 ; Para : 2nd

135)

NCERT Pg. # 38

136) NCERT, Pg. # 149

138)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 222

142)

NCERT XI pg.# 212

143)

NCERT-XI, Eng. Page # 223 (3rd and 4th para)

NCERT-XI, िहदी पे ज # 223 (तीसरा एवं चौथा पे राग ाफ)

146)

NCERT Pg. # 35

ZOOLOGY

151)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

155)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

156)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 113

157)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114, 115

 158)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 113

159)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 114

160)

NCERT XI Pg. # 112, IInd para

161) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 112

162)

NCERT XI Pg. # 115, Figure 7.18(a).

163) NCERT Pg No. 115

164)

Old NCERT Pg. # 114 - Edition 2022-23

165) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 113

166) NCERT-XI, Pg. #112, Para No. 7.4.1

167) NCERT-XI, Pg. #112, Para No. 7.4.1

168)

NCERT XI Pg. # 111, 112 (E)

169)

NCERT Pg # 113 para 7.4.2

175)

NCERT (E) Pg. # 115

176)

NCERT (Eng) Pg. # 120

178)

Module Pg # 156

179)
NCERT (E) Pg. # 118

180)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 119

183)

NCERT Pg. # 118

184)

NCERT- Eng- Page # - 116

185)

NCERT Pg. # 116

186)

NCERT Pg No. #116

187)

Module Pg. # 158

192)

NCERT-XI, Pg#117, Figure-7.20

193)

Ref. NCERT # 11th , Page # 119 & Allen's module(P-157)

194)

NCERT Pg.# 119

196)

NCERT XI- Pg. No. # 119

197)

NCERT Pg. # 118

200)

NCERT Pg. # 117, Fig. 7.30