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Solution 3

The document contains a series of physics problems and multiple-choice questions related to mechanics, energy, forces, and electric fields. Each question presents a scenario or concept, followed by four possible answers. The problems cover a range of topics including kinetic energy, work done, motion, and electric potential.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
13 views56 pages

Solution 3

The document contains a series of physics problems and multiple-choice questions related to mechanics, energy, forces, and electric fields. Each question presents a scenario or concept, followed by four possible answers. The problems cover a range of topics including kinetic energy, work done, motion, and electric potential.

Uploaded by

abhinav
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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08-12-2024

6001CKC20208724R003 KC

PHYSICS

1) A 1.5 kg block is initially at rest on a horizontal frictionless surface when a horizontal force in the
positive direction of x-axis is applied to the block. The force is given by : , where x is in
metre and the initial position of the block is x = 0. The maximum kinetic energy of the block between
x = 0 and x = 2.0 m is:-

(1) 2.33 J
(2) 8.67 J
(3) 5.33 J
(4) 6.67 J

2) A body of mass 3kg is under a force which causes a displacement in it, given by s = t2/3 (in m).
Find the work done by the force in 2 second.

(1) 2 J
(2) 3.8 J
(3) 5.2 J
(4) 2.6 J

3)

If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300% then percentage change in momentum will be:-

(1) 100%
(2) 150%
(3) 265%
(4) 73.2%

4) A position dependent force F = 7 – 2x + 3x2 N acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and displaces it
from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done in joule is :-

(1) 70
(2) 270
(3) 35
(4) 135

5) A motorcyclist is trying to jump across a path as shown by driving horizontally of a cliff A at a


speed of 5 ms–1. Ignore air resistance and take g = 10 ms–2. The speed with which he touches the
peak B is:-
(1) 2.0 ms–1
(2) 12 ms–1
(3) 25 ms–1
(4) 15 ms–1

6)

A body of mass 2kg initially at origin. State its motion along x-axis is such a way that its

displacement related with time as x = calculate in work done in first 2 second :-

(1) 98 J
(2) 49 J
(3) 24.5 J
(4) 48 J

7) A particle is released from rest at origin. It moves under influence of potential field U = x2 – 3x ,
kinetic energy at x = 2 is

(1) 2 J
(2) 1 J
(3) 1.5 J
(4) 0 J

8) The graph between and is


(EK = kinetic energy and p = momentum) -

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) A particle moves with a velocity of under the influence of a constant force

. The instantaneous power applied to the particle is:

(1) 200 J/s


(2) 40 J/s
(3) 140 J/s
(4) 170 J/s

10) What is the value of linear velocity, if and :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) A system consists of mass M and m (<M). The centre of mass of the system is:-

(1) At the middle


(2) At the position of larger mass
(3) Nearer to m
(4) Nearer to M

12) A 500 kg car takes a round turn of radius 50 m with a velocity of 36 km/hr. The centripetal force
is :-

(1) 250 N
(2) 1000N
(3) 750N
(4) 1200 N

13)

A car is negotiating a curved of radius R . The road is banked at an angle θ. the coefficient of friction
between the tyres of the car and the road is . The maximum safe velocity on this road is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

A particle is suspended from a string of length R. It is given a velocity at the bottom. Find
velocity at B:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15)

Two particles of equal masses are revolving in circular paths of radii r1 and r2 respectively with the
same speed. The ratio of their centripetal forces is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are moving with velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively
towards each other. What is the speed of their centre of mass ?
(1) 5 m s–1
(2) Zero
(3) 6 m s–1
(4) 8 m s–1

17)

A stationary particle explodes into two particles of masses m1 and m2 which move in opposite
directions with velocities v1 and v2. The ratio of their kinetic energies E1/E2 is :-

(1) m2/m1
(2) m1/m2
(3) 1
(4) m1v2/m2v1

18)

Position of the centre of mass is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A body can be negatively charged by :-

(1) Giving excess of electrons to it


(2) Removing some electrons from it
(3) Giving some protons to it
(4) Removing some neutrons from it

20) The ratio of the forces between two small spheres with constant charge (a) in air (b) in a medium
of dielectric constant K is
(1) 1 : K
(2) K : 1
(3) 1 : K2
(4) K2 : 1

21) The work done in carrying a charge q once around a circle of radius r with a charge Q placed at
the centre will be :

(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

22) There exists a uniform electric field in the space as shown. Four points A, B, C and D are marked
which are equidistant from the origin. If VA, VB, VC and VD are their potentials, respectively :-

(1) VB > VA > VC > VD


(2) VA > VB > VD > VC
(3) VA = VB > VC = VD
(4) VB > VC > VA > VD

23) The path of a charged particle entering perpendicularly in a uniform electric field will be :-

(1) Linear
(2) Parabolic
(3) Circular
(4) Elliptical

24) Electric potential at any point is, V=–5x+3y+ ; then the magnitude of electric field is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 7
25) Two identical conducting balls A and B have positive charges q1 and q2 respectively. But q1 ≠ q2.
The balls are brought together so that they touch each other and then kept in their original
positions. The magnitude of force between them is :-

(1) Less than that before the balls touched


(2) Greater than that before the balls touched
(3) Same as that before the balls touched
(4) Zero

26) Four equal charges q each are placed at four corners of a square of side a each. Work done in
carrying a charge –q from its centre to infinity is:-

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) For a dipole q = 2 × 10–6 C ; d = 0.01m; find the maximum torque on the dipole if E = 5 × 105
N/C :–

(1) 1 × 10–3 Nm–1


(2) 10 × 10–3 Nm–1
(3) 10 × 10–3 Nm
(4) 1 × 10–4 Nm

28) Two equal negative charges –q are fixed at the points (0, a) and (0, –a) on the y-axis. A positive
charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x-axis. The charge will :-

(1) Execute SHM about the orgin


(2) Move to the origin and remain at rest
(3) Move to infinity
(4) Execute oscillatory but not SHM

29) An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in
a uniform electric field E. If its dipole moment is along the direction of the field, the force on it and
its potential energy are respectively

(1) 2q.E and minimum


(2) q.E and p.E
(3) Zero and minimum
(4) Zero and maximum

30)
Vector sum of two forces of 10N and 6N cannot be :

(1) 4 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 12N
(4) 2N

31)

Find the angle made by vectors with x - axis

(1) 45°
(2) 30°
(3) 60°
(4) None

32)

Find dot product of and

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 0

33) Maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors of magnitude P and Q are in
the ratio 3 : 1 which of the following relation is true ?

(1) P = 2Q
(2) P = Q
(3) PQ = 1
(4) None of these

34) If and are non-collinear unit vectors and if , then the value of
is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) If . The angle between a and b and b and c are 150° and 120°, respectively. Then,
the magnitude of vectors a,b and c are in ratio of

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
1:2:
(2)

(3) :2:1
(4) 2 : :1

36) At what angle must the two forces (x + y) and (x –y) act so that the resultant may be ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The magnitudes of vectors and are 3, 4 and 5 units respectively. If , the angle
between and is.

(1)

(2) cos–1(0.6)

(3)

(4)

38) What is the angle between and ?

(1) 0
(2) π/2
(3) π/4
(4) π

39) A body is moving along a circular path with constant speed υ. What is the change in velocity,
when the angle described by the body at the centre of the circles is θ :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)
(4)

40) Three force are applied on a particle as shown in figure. If net force is zero then find out

magnitude of unknown forces-

(1) F1 = 12N, F2 = 16N


(2) F1 = 16N, F2 = 20N
(3) F1 = 20N, F2 = 16N
(4) F1 = 16N, F2 = 12N

41) A particle moving along a straight line travels half of the distance with uniform speed 30 ms–1
and the remaining half of the distance with speed 60 ms–1. The average speed of the particle is:-

(1) 45 ms–1
(2) 42 ms–1
(3) 40 ms–1
(4) 50 ms–1

42) The velocity-time relation of a particle starting from rest is given by v = kt where k = 2m/s2. The
distance travelled in 3 seconds is :

(1) 9 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 27 m
(4) 36 m

43) A body is thrown upwards with velocity 100 m/s and it travels 5 m in the last second of its
upward journey. If the same body is thrown upwards with velocity 200 m/s what distance it will
travel in last second of its journey :

(1) 5 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 25 m

44) A particle is projected with speed u at an angle θ from horizontal at t = 0. Its horizontal
component of velocity (vx) varies with time as following graph:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Figure shows four paths for a kicked football. Ignoring the effects of air on the flight, rank the

paths according to initial horizontal velocity component, highest first :

(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 2, 3, 4, 1
(3) 3, 4, 1, 2
(4) 4, 3, 2, 1

46) Particle is projected upward with velocity 100 m/s at an angle of 30° with horizontal. Find the
time when its velocity is perpendicular to the acceleration :-

(1) 10 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 20 s
(4) 15 s

47) The equation of projectile is given by y = 16x – . The horizontal range is :-

(1) 16 m
(2) 8 m
(3) 64 m
(4) 12.8 m

48) The speed of projectile at its maximum height is times of its initial speed 'u' of projection. Its
horizontal range is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

49) The displacement-time graph of a moving particle is as shown in the figure. The instantaneous
velocity of the particle is negative at the point :-

(1) C
(2) D
(3) E
(4) F

50) A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h metres. It takes T seconds to reach the
ground. What is the position of the ball in T/3 seconds?

(1) h/9 metre from the ground


(2) 7h/9 metre from the ground
(3) 8h/9 metre from the ground
(4) 17h/9 metre from the ground

51) An aeroplane is flying horizontally at a height of 490 m with a velocity of 360 km h–1. A bag
containing ration is to be dropped to the jawans on the ground. Calculate time taken by the bag to
reach the jawans on ground.

(1) 5 sec
(2) 10 sec
(3) 15 sec
(4) 20 sec

52) The coordinates of a moving particle at any time are given by x = at2 and y = bt2. The speed of
the particle at any moment is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

53) A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by s = t3 –
6t2 + 3t + 4 The velocity, when its acceleration is zero, is :

(1) 3 ms–1
(2) –12 ms–1
(3) 42 ms–1
(4) –9 ms–1

54)

Two bodies of masses 5 kg and 4 kg are arranged in two different ways as shown in fig. (A) and (B).
If the pulleys and the table are perfectly smooth, the acceleration of the 5 kg body in case (A) and
(B) are respectively :-

(1) g and (5/9) g


(2) (4/9)g and (1/9)g
(3) g/5 and g/5
(4) (5/9)g aned (1/9)g

55) If the given system accelerates with acceleration of 3 m/s2 then net force on 4kg block is :-

(1) 50 N
(2) 48 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 12 N

56) In the figure mA = 2kg and mB = 4 kg. For what minimum value of force F, A starts slipping over
B (g = 10ms–2)

(1) 24 N
(2) 36 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 20 N

57) The mass of a body measured by a physical balance in a lift at rest is found to be m. If the lift is
going up with an acceleration a, its mass will be measured as

(1)

(2)

(3) m
(4) Zero

58) In figure, tension in the string that connects the masses A and B is T1 and that in the string

connecting B and C is T2, then T1/T2 is :

(1) 2
(2) 0.5
(3) 4
(4) 0.25

59) The tension in the string connecting the two blocks is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 26 N
60) A block pressed against the vertical wall is in equilibrium. The minimum coefficient of friction is
:-

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.5
(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

1) Distillation involves all the following processes except

(1) Change of state


(2) Boiling
(3) Condensation
(4) Evaporation

2) Two substances when separated out on the basis of their extent of adsorption by one material, the
phenomenon is known as

(1) Chromatography
(2) Crystallization
(3) Sublimation
(4) Steam distillation

3) Absolute alcohol is prepared by

(1) Fractional distillation


(2) Kolbe's method
(3) Vacuum distillation
(4) Azeotropic distillation

4) Raw juice in sugar factories is generally concentrated by:

(1) vacuum distillation


(2) Steam distillation
(3) sublimation
(4) crystallization

5) A bottle containing two immiscible liquids is given to you. These may be separated by
(1) Steam distillation
(2) Fractional distillation
(3) Separating funnel
(4) Fractionating column

6) In Lassaigne's test for N,S and halogens, the organic compound is

(1) Fused with sodium


(2) Dissolved with sodamide
(3) Extracted with sodamide
(4) Fused with calcium

7) If on adding FeCl3 solution to acidifies Lassaigne's solution, a blood red coloration is produced, it
indicates the presence of

(1) S
(2) N
(3) N and S
(4) S and Cl

8) The sodium extract on acidification with acetric acid and then adding lead acetate solution gives a
black precipitate. The organic compound contains.

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Halogen
(3) Sulphur
(4) Phosphorous

9) Sodium nitroprusside when added to an alkaline solution of sulphide ions produces a

(1) Red colouration


(2) Blue colouration
(3) Violet colouration
(4) Brown colouration

10) During Lassaigne's test S and N present in an organic compound change into :

(1) NaCN and Na2S


(2) NaSCN
(3) Na2SO4 and NaCN
(4) Na2S and NaCNO

11) In Kjeldahl's method, ammonia from 5g of food neutralizes 30 cm3 of 0.1N acid. The percentage
of nitrogen in the food is:

(1) 0.84
(2) 8.4
(3) 16.8
(4) 1.68

12) The nitrogen content in the proteins can be quantitatively estimated by :

(1) Carius method


(2) Kjeldahl's method
(3) Victor Meyer's method
(4) Rast method

13) Halogens can be estimated by

(1) Duma's method


(2) Carius method
(3) Leibig's method
(4) Kjeldahl's method

14) If 0.32g of an organic compound containing sulphur produces 0.233g of BaSO4, then the
percentage of sulphur in the compound is

(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 25

15) In an organic compound phosphorus is estimated as

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) Which one of the following is a benzenoid aromatic compound ?

(1) Furan
(2) Thiophene
(3) Pyridine
(4) Aniline

17) Cycloheptatrienyl cation is :

(1) Non-benzenoid and non-aromatic


(2) Non-benzenoid and aromatic
(3) Benzenoid and non-aromatic
(4) Non-benzenoid and antiaromatic
18) The characteristic reactions shown by benzene is

(1) Electrophilic addition reaction


(2) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(3) Nucleophilic addition reaction
(4) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

19) Which among the following organic compounds do not have (4n+2) number of π electrons?
i) Naphthalene
ii) Cyclooctatetraene
iii) Cyclopentadiene
iv) Cyclopentadienyl anion

(1) (i) and (iv)


(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

20) From the following compounds choose the one which is not aromatic

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which one of the following is non aromatic?

(1) Cyclopentadienyl Cation


(2) Cycloheptatrienyl cation
(3) Cyclooctatetraene
(4) Thiophene

22) Which is a non-aromatic compound?


(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Which of the following species is aromatic?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) When sodium benzoate reacts with sodalime what is produced?

(1) Benzene
(2) Toluene
(3) Xylene
(4) None

25) When Friedel-Crafts alkylation of benzene is carried out with n -propyl bromide, the major
product is

(1) n -propyl benzene


(2) isopropyl benzene
(3) 2 -ethyl benzene
(4) None of the above

26) Benzene reacts with chlorine in sunlight to give a final product

(1) CCℓ4
(2) C6H6Cℓ6
(3) C6Cℓ6
(4) C6H5Cℓ

27) The compound that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is

(1) Toluene
(2) Benzene
(3) Benzoic acid
(4) Nitrobenzene

28) The following reaction is known as

(1) Wurtz-Fittig reaction


(2) Friedel-Crafts reaction
(3) Rosenmund reaction
(4) Sandmeyer reaction

29) , compound X is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

30) 1, 2-Benzpyrene is

(1) A polynuclear hydrocarbon


(2) Carcinogenic in nature
(3) An aromatic hydrocarbon
(4) All of these

31) Which of the following will exhibit maximum ionic conductivity?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) Correct formula of tetraamminechloronitroplatinum (IV) sulphate can be written as

(1) [Pt(NH3)4(ONO)Cl]SO4
(2) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2NO2]2SO4
(3) [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)Cl]SO4
(4) [PtCl(ONO)NH3(SO4)]

33) Fac-mer isomerism is possible in

+
(1) [Co(NH3)Cl2]

(2) [Fe(CN)4(NH3)2]
(3) [Co(NO2)3(NH3)3]
+
(4) [Co(en)2Cl2]
34) K3[CoF6] is high spin complex. What is the hybrid state of Co atom in the complex?

(1) d2sp3
(2) dsp2
(3) sp3d
(4) sp3d2

35) Which of the following shall form an octahedral complex ?

(1) d4 (Low spin)


(2) d8 (high spin)
(3) d6 (low spin)
(4) All of these

36) How many unpaired electrons does the manganese ion have in ?

(1) 1 unpaired electron


(2) 2 unpaired electrons
(3) 3 unpaired electrons
(4) 5 unpaired electrons

37) Due to interaction by the ligands, the d- orbitals of metal ion are split up as

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) The ion which has a high spin d6 configuration is

2+
(1) [Co(NH3)6]
4−
(2) [CoF6]
4−
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
3+
(4) [Co(H2O)6]

39) Which of the following species will be diamagnetic?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) CFSE value of Fe2+ when Δ0 < P is


(1) –0.4 Δ0
(2) –0.0 Δ0
(3) 0.2 Δ0
(4) –0.6 Δ0

41) Which of the following is the correct increasing order of strength in spectrochemical series of
ligands?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) Which of the following complexes will not show colour?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) Which of the following metal carbonyls exist?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these

44) Match the coordination compounds given in Column I with the central metal atoms given in
Column II and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
(Coordination (Central
compound) metal atom)

A Chlorophyll 1 Rhodium

B Haemoglobin 2 Cobalt

C Wilkinson catalyst 3 Calcium

D Vitamin B12 4 Iron

5 Magnesium
(1) A - 5, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
(2) A - 3, B - 4, C - 5, D - 1
(3) A - 5, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
(4) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
45) Match the column I and column II and select the correct option

Column II (Type
Column I (Ligand)
of ligand)

P Diethylenetriamine 1 Unidentate

Q Thiocyanate ion 2 Didentate

R Ethylenediamine 3 Tridentate

Ethylenediamine
S 4 Hexadentate
tetraacetate ion
(1) P - 4, Q - 3, R - 2, S - 1
(2) P - 1, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 3
(3) P - 3, Q - 1, R - 2, S - 4
(4) P - 2, Q - 3, R - 1, S - 4

46) Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?

(1) Glucose
(2) Fructose
(3) Cellulose
(4) Ribose

47) Which of the following cannot be hydrolysed into aldose and ketose?

(1) Disaccharide
(2) Monosaccharide
(3) Polysaccharide
(4) Oligosaccharide

48) Which of the following carbohydrates is a disaccharide?

(1) Ribose
(2) Fructose
(3) Maltose
(4) Glucose

49) Match the sugars in column I with their types given in column II and mark the appropriate
choice.

Column I Column II

A Glucose i Ketohexose

B Fructose ii Aldohexose

C Ribose iii Aldotetrose

D Erythrose iv Aldopentose
(1) (A)→(iv),(B)→(i),(C)→(iii),(D)→(ii)
(2) (A)→(iii),(B)→(iv),(C)→(i),(D)→(ii)
(3) (A)→(i),(B)→(ii),(C)→(iii),(D)→(iv)
(4) (A)→(ii),(B)→(i),(C)→(iv),(D)→(iii)

50) Glucose when reduced with HI and red Phosphorus gives

(1) n-hexane
(2) n-heptane
(3) n-pentane
(4) n-octane

51) The rapid interconversion of α−D -glucose and β−D - glucose in solution is known as

(1) Racemization
(2) Asymmetric induction
(3) Functional isomerism
(4) Mutarotation

52) The open chain glucose and fructose have ______ and _____ chiral centers respectively

(1) 4, 4
(2) 4, 3
(3) 3, 3
(4) 3, 4

53) Which one of the following has maximum laevorotatory nature?

(1) D-Glucose
(2) D-Fructose
(3) Sucrose
(4) Both 1 and 2

54) Which of the following is/are non-reducing sugar molecules?


i) fructose ii) maltose
iii) sucrose iv) lactose

(1) (i) and (iii)


(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (iii) only
(4) (i) and (ii)

55) What are the hydrolysis products of sucrose?

(1) Fructose + Fructose


(2) Glucose + Glucose
(3) Glucose + Galactose
(4) Glucose + Fructose

56) Essential amino acid is

(1) Valine
(2) Histidine
(3) Methionine
(4) All of these

57) Which of the following is basic amino acid ?

(1) Lysine
(2) Proline
(3) Alanine
(4) Aspartic acid

58) Amino acids are given in column I and their nature is given in column II. Match the following.

Column I Column II

1 Lysine A Acidic

2 Glycine B Basic

3 Arginine C Neutral

4 Alanine

5 Aspartic acid
(1) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - B, 4 - C, 5 - A
(2) 1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - C, 5 - A
(3) 1 - A, 2 - A, 3 - B, 4 - C, 5 - B
(4) 1 - C, 2 - B, 3 - A, 4 - B, 5 - C

59) In peptide formation, –NH2 group of one molecule condenses with

(1) −COOH group of same molecule


(2) −COOH group of another molecule
(3) −COCl group of another molecule
(4) −NH2 group of another molecule

60) Which among the following is the peptide linkage?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

MATHEMATICS

1) Write the first three terms of the sequence whose general term is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) If nth term of a sequence, then the corresponding series is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

3) Which term of the G.P. 2, 1, is

(1) 9th
(2) 8th
(3) 7th
(4) 5th

4) The third term of a G.P. is the square of the first term. If the second term is 8, then its sixth term
is
(1) 128
(2) 126
(3) 124
(4) 120

5) If A.M. between two positive number a and b is 15 and G.M. between a and b is 9, then the
numbers are

(1) 3, 27
(2) 2, 27
(3) 3, 26
(4) -3, -27

6) The arithmetic mean of two numbers x and y is 3 and geometric mean is 1. Then is equal
to

(1) 34
(2) 31
(3) 32
(4) 33

7) Two numbers a and b have arithmetic mean 9 and geometric mean 4. Then a and b are the roots
of

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) Sum of infinite number of terms in G.P. is 20 and sum of their squares is 100, then common ratio
of G.P is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Find the sum to infinity for

(1) 7.5
(2) 15
(3) 7
(4) 17

10) For the G.P., if then find a6.

(1) 7
(2) 49

(3)

(4)

11) The 4th term of a G.P. is square of its second term, and the first term is Determine its 7th
term.

(1)
(2) 729
(3) 2187
(4)

12) For what values of x, the numbers are in G.P.?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The sum of the 3rd and the 4th terms of a G.P. is 60 and the product of its first three terms is
1000. If the first term of this G.P. is positive, then its 7th term is

(1) 7290
(2) 320
(3) 640
(4) 2430

14) If for a G.P. then r =

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4)

15) Find the sum of G.P. 0.7, 0.07, 0.007,.... n terms.


(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

16) terms. Find the sum.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Find .

(1) 1023
(2) 6138
(3) 2046
(4) 3069

18) If is the G.M. between a and b, then the value of n is

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 1/2
(4) None of these

19) If x, y, z are the three geometric means between 6, 54 then z =

(1)
(2) 18
(3)
(4) 27

20) If we insert two numbers between 3 and 81 so that the resulting sequence is G.P. Then, the
number are

(1) 9, 27
(2) 8, 27
(3) 9, 25
(4) None of these

21) Find the sum of the following infinite G.P.

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

22) Find the sum of infinite G.P.

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) If the common ratio of a G.P. is and sum to infinity is 12, then find the first term.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3

24) If the 2nd and 5th terms of a G.P. are 24 and 3 respectively, then the sum of 1st six terms is _______

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) If a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an A.P. and x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a G.P.,
then the value of is

(1) 0
(2) xyz
(3)
(4) 1

26) The third term of a G.P is 9. The product of its first five terms is

(1) 35
(2) 310
(3) 39
(4) 312

27) If is a geometric progression and equals

(1)
(2) 53
(3) 54
(4)

28) If Sn stands for sum to n-terms of a G.P. with 'a' as the first term and 'r' as the common ratio
then is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) If A.M. and G.M. of roots of a quadratic equation are 5 and 4 respectively, then the quadratic
equation is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) If the first term of the G.P. is 6 and its sum of infinity is then find the common ratio.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
31) If then is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) If where then the value of x is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) If then find the value of

(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 19
(4) 18

34) Which of the following is not correct?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Which of the following is correct?

(1) sin1° > sin1


(2) sin1° < sin1
(3) sin1° = sin1

(4)

36) If the smallest positive value of B is


(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The value of is equal to

(1) 2
(2)
(3) 4
(4) 0

38) If then is equal to

(1) 1

(2)

(3)
(4) 2

39)

If where 0° < < 180°, then is equal to

(1) 45°
(2) 150°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

40) The value of 4 sin A cos3 A – 4 cos A sin3 A is equal to

(1) cos 2A
(2) sin 3A
(3) sin 2A
(4) sin 4A

41) The value of is

(1) 1
(2) 7
(3) 2
(4) 4
42) Find the length of an arc of a circle of radius 5 cm subtending a central angle measuring 15°.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

43) If two circular arcs the same length subtend angles of 60° and 80° at their respective centres,
then the ratio of their radii is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) If is equal to

(1) 110
(2) 191
(3) 80
(4) 194

45) If then cot x is equal to

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

46) If then is equal to

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) None of these

47) The value of is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) 1

48) The value of tan1° tan2° tan3° ... tan89° is

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 1/2
(4) Not defined

49) The value of is

(1) 1
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

50) The value of sin 70° cos 10° – cos 70° sin 10° is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

51) The value of cos 15° is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

52) The value of tan(1°) + tan(89°) is ______

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

53) The value of is equal to

(1) 1/2
(2)

(3)

(4)

54) The value of the sin 1° + sin 2° +.....+ sin 359° is equal to

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3)
(4) 180

55) The value of sin is

(1) 0
(2) 1/2
(3) 1
(4) 1/4

56) The value of


is

(1) 1/e
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 3

57) The complete set of values of k, for which the quadratic equation has equal
roots, consists of

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
58) If are roots of the equation then is equal to

(1) 7/3
(2)
(3) 3/7
(4)

59) If then find the value of k.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

60) If the product of the roots of the quadratic equation is 3, then the value
of m

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3)
(4) 3
ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 1 4 4 4 1 3 3 1 4 2 2 1 1 3 1 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 4 2 2 3 4 3 4 2 1 1 3 3 1 1 2 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 1 1 2 4 2 3 1 3 3 2 4 4 2 4 2 3 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 4 1 4 1 3 1 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 1 1 4 2 2 2 2
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 4 4 3 3 4 3 1 3 4 3 1
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 4 1 3 3 2 3 4 1 4 2 2 3 4 4 1 1 2 1

MATHEMATICS

Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A. 1 3 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 1 3 4 2 3 3 1
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A. 2 1 1 3 4 2 3 2 4 2 2 2 4 3 2 4 4 4 4 4
Q. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 2 4 1 3 3 2 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 3 2 4 2 3
SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

s= ⇒

i.e. v =
work done = ΔKE

WD =
at t = 0 vi = 0

at t = 2 sec vf = m/s

WD =

12) F = = = 1000 N

14)

Apply come from A to B

⇒ V2 = 7gR
V=

16)

so velocity of COM will be 6 m/s

17)

24)
= 7 N/C

25)

Theoretical

26)

Potential at the centre O of the square due to four equal charges q at four corners

w = ΔU

V= = (–q)Δv

27) P = qd = 2 × 10–8 (C–m)


for maximum θ = 90° ⇒ sinθ = 1
τ = PE = 10 × 10–3 N–m

33)
P + Q = 3P – 3Q
4Q = 2P
P = 2Q

34)

=
1 + 1 + 2 cosq = 3
2 cosθ = 1
θ = 60°
then



⇒1–

35) According to Lami's theorem,


or

44) Vx = Ucos θ = constant

45)

Hmax is same for all


Time of hight will be same
R = T × ux
R4 > R3 > R2 > R1

46) Velocity will be perpendicular to acceleration at highest point.

47)

49) The slope of the tangent at any point on the displacement-time graph gives instantaneous
velocity at that instant. In the given graph, the slope is negative at point E.

50) Second law of motion gives

s = ut + gt2
or h = 0 + gt2 (∵ u = 0)
∴ T=

At t = sec,

s=0+ ⇒ s=

⇒ s =

∴ s= m
Hence, the position of ball from the ground

=h–

51)

52) Velocity along X-axis

Velocity along Y-axis


Magnitude of velocity of the particle,

55) FNet = ma = 4 × 3 = 12 N

56)
For A, mAα = fl1
mAα = μ1mAg
α = μ1g
For B = F –(fL1 + fk2) = mBα
F = μ1mAg + μ2(mA + mB)g + μ1mBg
F = (μ1 + μ2)(mA + mB)g
F = (0.2 + 0.4)(2 + 4)10 = 36 N

57)

Mass measured by physical balance remains unaffected due to variation in acceleration due to
gravity.

60) Here net driving force

downward
Hence friction will act upward. If the block ‘m’ is stationary the friction between m and the
wall should be static.

CHEMISTRY

61) In case of distillation, the compound comes to vapour state at boiling point which is known
as boiling not evaporation

62) Principle of Chromatography is selective adsorption

63) Absolute alcohol is prepared by Azeotropic distillation

64) sugar juice is concentrated by vacuum distillation

65) Using separating funnel two immiscible liquids can be separated

66) In Lassaigne's test, organic compound is fused with sodium

67)
68) S2−ion in the extracts will give black colour due to formation of PbS

69) This test is used for the presence of sulphur in any compound. When sodium nitroprusside,
react with sulphide ion, (e.g. Na2S) the following reaction takes place

70)

71) Percentage of nitrogen

72) In proteins nitrogen can be estimated by Kjeldahl's method

73) Halogens are estimated by Carius method

74) Percentage of sulphur

75)

77) Cycloheptatrienyl cation is non-benzenoid (because it does not contain a benzene ring ) but
is aromatic.

79)

80) The following two points are must for a molecule to be aromatic
i) cyclic conjugation
ii) (4n+2)π electrons

82) Cyclooctatetraene has 8 π-electrons. It does not follow Huckel's rule and is also not planar
(has tub shaped structure ), therefore , it is non-aromatic.

83) To be aromatic , there are two conditions, which should be fulfilled


i) Molecule should be planar with conjugation
ii) Molecules should contain (4n+2)π electrons
only option 2 contains 6π electrons, so its is aromatic

84)

91) Among the given compounds, shows maximum ionic conductivity

92) tetraamminechloronitroplatinum (IV) sulphate can be written as [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)Cl]SO4

93)

95) In d6 (low spin) complex , two electrons get paired up to make two d orbitals empty. The
hybridisation is d2sp3 (octahedral and the complex is low spin complex in the absence of half
filled electrons.

103) All the given metal carbonyl exist

106) Cellulose is the polysaccharide

107) Monosaccharide cannot be hydrolysed into aldose and ketose

108) Example of disaccharide

110)

111) Spontaneous rapid interconversion of α−D glucose and β−D -glucose in solution is known
as mutarotation.

112) Chiral centers mean asymmetric carbon atoms

113) Naturally occurring Fructose is laevorotatory. its specific rotation is 92.4°

115)

119) α amino acids combines as

Hence −NH2 group of one molecule condenses with −COOH group of another molecules.

120) Peptide linkage is an amide formed between -COOH group of another molecule

MATHEMATICS

121) Substituting n = 1, 2, 3, wet get

Hence, the first three terms are

122) We have,

The corresponding series is

123) We have,

124) Let a, ar, ar2 are the three terms in G.P.

We have,
Also,

Now,

125) We have,

Now,

From (1) and (2), we get a = 27, b = 3

126) Given, arithmetic mean of x and y is 3

i.e.,
and geometric mean of x and y is 1
i.e.,
Squaring (i) on both sides, we get

(using (ii))

127) Given arithmetic mean of a and b is 9

Geometric mean of a and b is 4

Now, sum of roots (a + b) = 18


Product of roots (ab) = 16
Required quadratic equation is

128) We have,

Also,

129) Here,

130)
131) We have

132) We have, are in G.P.

133)

134)

Given,

135)

136) In the given G.P.


137)

Here, are the terms in G.P. with

138) We have,

If not possible.
Hence,

139) 6, x, y, z 54 are in G.P.


If r is the common ratio, then

140) Let the two numbers be a and b, then 3, a, b, 81 are in G.P.

141)

142)

Sum to infinity exists.

Sum to infinity
143) sum to infinity = 12 ...[Given]

Sum to infinity

144) Let 2nd term


...(i)
and ...(ii)
Here, were a and r are first term and common ratio of G.P.
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get

From (i)

145) Given,

Let r be the common ratio of the G.P.

[Using (ii)]

146) Let the first five terms of the G.P are


So, product of first five terms

147) Let r be the common ratio of the given G.P.

148) We have,
149) Let a and b are the roots of the quadratic equation.

...(i)
and ...(ii)
Required quadratic equation is,

150) a = 6, sum to infinity [Given]

Sum to infinity

151) Since, is negative, lies either in second quadrant of in fourth quadrant.

Thus if lies in the second quadrant or lies in the fourth quadrant.

152)

153) Given,

154)
(1), (2) and (4) options are correct.
Since the range of

155) If is increasing, then also increasing.


Hence, sin1° < sin1

156)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get

157)

158) We have,

=1

159) We have,

160)

161)

162) Let the length of arc of circle is cm.


We have r = 5 cm and = 15°

Now,
163) Let the radii arc r1 and r2 then,

(Since arc length is same in cither case)

164) Given, tan A + cot A = 4 ...(i)


Squaring (i) both sides, we get

Squaring (ii) both sides, we get

165) We have,

166) Given,
Squaring on both sides

167) We have, L.H.S.

168) Given expression


tan1° tan2° ...tan45°. tan(90° - 44°) tan(90° - 43°) ...tan(90° - 1°)
= tan1°.cot1°.tan2°.cot2°...tan44°.cot44°

169)

170) sin 70° cos 10° - cos 70° sin 10° = sin (70° - 10°)
171) We have, cos 15° = cos (45° - 30°)
= cos 45° cos 30° + sin 45° sin 30°

172) tan(1°) + tan(89°)


= tan(1°) + tan (90° - 1°) = tan(1°) + cot(1°)

173)

174) sin1° + sin2° + .....+ sin359°


= sin1° + sin2° +.....+ sin180° +.....+ sin(360° - 2°) + sin(360° - 1°)
= sin1° + sin2° +.....+sin180° +..... -sin2° - sin1° = 0

175) We have,

176)

179)

We have,
180)

Product of the roots

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