The SAT

Practice
Test 10
#
ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

These answer explanations are for students taking the

digital SAT in nondigital format.

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 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

Reading and Writing

Module 1
(33 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the role of the general store in US rural communities during the
1800s. In this context, “source” means a place where something originates or is
obtained. The text states that people would share news while socializing at the
general store. This context supports the idea that the store served as a source of
information in rural communities.

Choice B is incorrect because “rival” would mean competitor or opponent. The

text doesn’t indicate that the general store was a rival of anything. Instead, the
text describes the general store as a place that enabled the sharing of information
within rural communities. Choice C is incorrect because in this context,
“condition” would mean state, circumstance, or requirement. Although the text
implies that visiting the store was helpful for acquiring information since people
shared news there, it wouldn’t make sense to say that the general store was a
condition of information. Choice D is incorrect because “waste” would mean
something that is unused, discarded, or spent unnecessarily, which would not
make sense in context. The text describes the general store as an essential part
of daily life and a place for socializing and information sharing. The store was
therefore a source, not a waste, of information.

QUESTION 2
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Jacob Lawrence’s artistic process. In this context, “observant”
means watchful and perceptive. The text emphasizes that the “close attention”
Lawrence paid to “all the details” of his neighborhood allowed him to reflect subtle
elements of “the beauty and vitality of the Black experience” in his artwork. This
context indicates that being observant of his surroundings was an important part
of Lawrence’s work as an artist.

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Choice A is incorrect because the text gives no indication that Lawrence was
“skeptical,” or had an attitude of doubt in general or about particular things, let
alone that skepticism was important to him as an artist. Rather than indicating
that he was skeptical, the text focuses on how Lawrence paid careful attention to
everything around him and reflected his observations in his artwork. Choice C is
incorrect because the text gives no indication that Lawrence was “critical,” which
in this context would mean inclined to criticize harshly or unfairly. Rather than
indicating that Lawrence found fault in things, the text suggests that he paid
careful attention to everything around him and that his artwork reflects this
careful attention. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that
Lawrence was “confident,” or self-assured. Rather than addressing how Lawrence
felt about himself and how that feeling affected his artistic process, the text
emphasizes the careful attention Lawrence paid to everything around him—
attention that allowed him to capture subtle elements of a particular place and
time in his artwork.

QUESTION 3
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Ochoa’s prediction that humans will one day need to live in places
other than Earth. As used in this context, “speculates” would mean puts forward
an idea without firm evidence. The text states that Ochoa “doesn’t have a definite
idea” about when humans might need to live in other environments and
characterizes Ochoa’s prediction as a “conjecture,” or a conclusion presented
without convincing evidence. This context indicates that Ochoa speculates when
she makes this prediction.

Choice A is incorrect because saying that Ochoa “demands,” or insists or

requires, that humans will one day need to live in other environments than Earth’s
would not make sense in context. The text indicates that she’s unsure about the
timing but hypothesizes that it will someday happen. Choice C is incorrect
because saying that Ochoa “doubts,” or questions or disbelieves, that humans will
one day need to live in other environments than Earth’s would not make sense in
context. The text indicates that although Ochoa is unsure about the timing, she
hypothesizes that humans will need to live in places other than Earth and
encourages research into future travel to the moon. Choice D is incorrect because
saying that Ochoa “establishes,” or proves, that humans will one day need to live
in other environments than Earth’s would not make sense in context. Rather than
stating that Ochoa discusses her idea with certainty and supports it with
evidence, the text indicates that Ochoa is unsure about when humans might need
to live in other environments.

QUESTION 4
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of a relationship between the dodder plant and its host plant. As used
in this context, “synchronization” means the act of things happening at the same
time. The text indicates that the dodder and its host plant flower in unison and
that this synchronization occurs because the dodder makes use of a protein
produced by the host shortly before flowering.

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Choice B is incorrect because referring to “hibernation,” or the state of being

dormant or inactive, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on
something the dodder plant actively engages in—making use of a protein and
producing flowers. Choice C is incorrect because stating that the dodder plant
and its host engage together in “prediction,” or the act of declaring or indicating
something in advance, wouldn’t make sense in context. Rather than indicating that
the dodder plant and its host plant make a prediction about flowering activity, the
text suggests that the host produces a protein as part of its regular flowering
process and that the dodder then absorbs and uses that protein to flower at the
same time. Choice D is incorrect because referring to “moderation,” or the act of
causing something to become less intense or extreme, wouldn’t make sense in
context. Although the text states that the dodder plant absorbs and uses a
protein made by its host plant, it doesn’t suggest that the dodder lessens the host
plant’s flowering activity; the two plants simply flower in unison.

QUESTION 5
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of historical evidence about ancient Egypt under the reign of the
pharaoh Hatshepsut. In this context, “an exhaustive” account would be a thorough
one. The text states that much of the evidence from her reign was purposely
destroyed—in other words, there is a lack of surviving records. This context
conveys that unless there are major new archaeological discoveries, an
exhaustive account of Hatshepsut’s reign is unlikely.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, “an imaginative” account would be

an account based on imagination, or ideas and speculation, rather than facts. The
text indicates that much of the evidence of Hatshepsut’s reign was deliberately
destroyed, and a lack of evidence actually makes it more likely that accounts will
be imaginative to some degree and not strictly factual. Choice B is incorrect
because in this context, “a superficial” account would be one that is lacking in
depth or concerned only with what is obvious. The text indicates that most
evidence of Hatshepsut’s reign was purposely destroyed, which suggests that
accounts of that time are likely already somewhat superficial, since there is little
information available to support deeper knowledge. Further, it would be illogical to
suggest that discovering major new evidence would make it more likely that
accounts would be superficial. Choice D is incorrect because “a questionable”
account would be one likely to be challenged or doubted, and since the text
suggests that little evidence of Hatshepsut’s reign has survived, accounts of that
time probably involve some speculation and thus may already be open to doubt.
Further, it would be illogical to suggest that discovering major new evidence
would make it more likely that accounts would be questionable.

QUESTION 6
Choice B is the best answer because it best describes the main purpose of the
text. The text indicates where and when jazz tap first developed (in African
American communities in the 1920s) and what influenced it (the quick rhythms
and improvisations in jazz music) and then explains that it evolved alongside jazz
music in the 1930s and 1940s, resulting in a very different form of tap dance than
had existed before. Therefore, the main purpose of the text is to discuss jazz tap’s
development.

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Choice A is incorrect. Although the text indicates that jazz music became widely
popular in the US in the 1920s and describes some of jazz music’s qualities, the
text never explains why audiences prefer some kinds of music—jazz or
otherwise—over others. Choice C is incorrect because the text never mentions
any musical instruments and doesn’t describe how to play one. Choice D is
incorrect because the text discusses jazz tap generally and never identifies a
particular dancer, famous or otherwise.

QUESTION 7
Choice D is the best answer because it accurately describes the overall structure
of the text. The text begins by pointing out an obstacle to observing the
astronomical phenomenon of the NCP: the NCP is visible only at night. The text
then indicates that, inspired by the ability of some insects and birds to navigate
using visualizations of polarized sunlight, researchers devised a way to locate the
NCP during daylight. The text then indicates that the researchers mimicked the
insects’ and birds’ polarized-light visualization capabilities using a polarimetric
camera. Thus, the text notes an obstacle to observing an astronomical
phenomenon, mentions a navigational ability of certain animals that inspired a
solution to that obstacle, and then explains how researchers used an optical
device to mimic that ability.

Choice A is incorrect. Although it’s reasonable to conjecture that humans have

used the NCP for navigation, the text doesn’t indicate this is the case, let alone
that the NCP is relevant to a majority of navigational tools. Furthermore, the text
doesn’t state that researchers discovered that insects and birds navigate without
the NCP; rather, it indicates that it’s known that some animals navigate by using
skylight polarization to locate the NCP during the day and that this knowledge
inspired the method the researchers devised. Choice B is incorrect. Although it’s
reasonable to conjecture that humans have used the NCP for navigation, the text
doesn’t state that this is the case. Furthermore, the text discusses how some
animals’ use of navigational strategies based on the same celestial occurrence
served as the inspiration for the researchers’ polarized-light approach, not as the
basis for a comparison of the relative effectiveness of animal and human methods
of navigation. Choice C is incorrect. Although the text implies that humans have
typically been able to locate the NCP visually at night and indicates that some
animals use the NCP to navigate, the text doesn’t state that humans use the NCP
for navigation. The text therefore doesn’t emphasize a difference between how
humans and animals use the NCP for this purpose. Furthermore, the text doesn’t
suggest that existing navigational instruments will be augmented with
polarimetric technologies.

QUESTION 8
Choice D is the best answer because it accurately describes how the underlined
sentence functions in the text as a whole. The text establishes that John has a
strong imagination and then goes on to describe the St. John River near John’s
home in the Florida woods. The underlined sentence depicts John sending twigs
sailing down the river while he imagines them reaching “Jacksonville, the sea, the
wide world,” where he wishes he could follow. This suggests that John longs to
expand his life experiences beyond the Florida woods.

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Choice A is incorrect because the second and third sentences of the text provide
an extended description of the riverbank where John likes to go, whereas the
underlined sentence describes what John does at that location. Choice B is
incorrect because the first sentence of the text suggests that John’s behavior
“was puzzling” to others around him, whereas the underlined sentence concerns
the content of John’s imaginings. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined
sentence elaborates on John’s imagination but doesn’t mention any other
children to whom John could be compared.

QUESTION 9
Choice C is the best answer because it best describes how the second sentence
functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence establishes something
astronomers believe with some certainty: that Betelgeuse will explode in a
supernova. The second sentence then introduces a problem: astronomers aren’t
certain when Betelgeuse will explode because they don’t have enough
information about the star’s internal characteristics. Finally, the third sentence
indicates that researcher Sarafina El-Badry Nance and colleagues investigated a
possible method of obtaining the necessary information about Betelgeuse’s
internal characteristics, though they found that the method wouldn’t be sufficient.
Thus, the function of the second sentence is to identify the problem that Nance
and colleagues attempted to solve but didn’t.

Choice A is incorrect because the second sentence introduces the general

problem Nance and colleagues hoped to solve, not a serious limitation of how
Nance and colleagues tried to solve it. It is the third sentence that introduces
Nance and colleagues, but no serious limitation of their approach to studying a
method of determining internal stellar states is described. Choice B is incorrect
because the second sentence introduces the general problem Nance and
colleagues hoped to solve, not the central finding they ultimately reported. It is
the third sentence that presents Nance and colleagues’ conclusion that a
potential method for determining internal stellar states would be insufficient.
Choice D is incorrect because the second sentence doesn’t indicate how other
astronomers or astrophysicists responded to the work done by Nance and
colleagues; the text doesn’t address this information at all.

QUESTION 10
Choice C is the best answer because it reflects how Putirka and Xu (Text 2) would
likely characterize the conclusion presented in Text 1. Text 1 discusses a study by
Mark Holland and colleagues in which they detected traces of lithium and sodium
in the atmospheres of four white dwarf stars. The team claims that this supports
the idea that exoplanets with continental crusts like Earth’s once orbited these
stars. Text 2 introduces Putirka and Xu, who indicate that sodium and lithium are
present in several different minerals and that some of those minerals might exist
in types of rock that are not found on Earth. Therefore, Putirka and Xu would likely
describe the conclusion in Text 1 as questionable because it does not consider
that lithium and sodium are also found in rocks that are not like Earth’s continental
crust.

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Choice A is incorrect because the texts do not indicate how widely held any of the
viewpoints described are. Choice B is incorrect because neither text discusses
how new this area of study is. Choice D is incorrect because neither text
discusses how likely lithium and sodium are to be detected by analyzing
wavelengths of light.

QUESTION 11
Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately states how the narrator
feels about being at summer camp. In the text, the narrator states that after
arriving at the camp, he found it to be different than he’d expected and that as a
result, he felt “scared, but also excited.”

Choice A is incorrect. In the text, the narrator describes himself as “excited.”

Although excitement is a positive emotion, it isn’t as intensely positive as feeling
overjoyed is. Moreover, the narrator also notes that he felt “scared.” In other
words, his excitement (a positive emotion) is balanced with fear (a negative
emotion). Given this mixture of positive and negative emotions, it would be
inaccurate to characterize the narrator as overjoyed. Choice B is incorrect
because in the text, the narrator describes himself as having felt both fear and
excitement. Neither of these emotions can be thought of as peaceful and, in fact,
are almost the opposite of a sense of peace. Choice D is incorrect because in the
text, the narrator describes himself as both “scared” and “excited,” not angry and
jealous.

QUESTION 12
Choice B is the best answer because it presents a statement about Dorian that is
directly supported by the text. The narrator of the text says that when Dorian sees
his portrait, “his cheeks flushed for a moment with pleasure” and “a look of joy
came into his eyes.” The narrator goes on to say that Dorian looked at the portrait
“in wonder” and presents him as being so entranced by the portrait that he
doesn’t notice what Hallward is saying to him. All these details support the
description of Dorian as being delighted by what he sees in the portrait.

Choice A is incorrect because Dorian isn’t depicted as interested in Hallward’s

opinion of the portrait but rather as so enraptured by the painting that he’s hardly
even aware of Hallward. Choice C is incorrect because the portrait of Dorian is the
only painting that is mentioned in the text, so there’s no evidence that Dorian
prefers portraits to other types of paintings. Although Dorian is depicted as
delighted with this particular portrait, there’s no way of knowing from the text
whether he likes portraits better than other kinds of paintings. Choice D is
incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that Dorian is uncertain about
Hallward’s talent. Instead, the text is focused on Dorian’s delight with the portrait.

QUESTION 13
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes Gibson’s
approach to art. As the text explains, Gibson, who is Cherokee and Choctaw,
transforms punching bags into art pieces by applying (or attaching) to them

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beadwork and elements of Native dressmaking, including leather fringe and the
jingles of the jingle dress. The text goes on to say that in most Native
communities, the art forms of beadwork and dressmaking are traditionally
practiced by women. Therefore, Gibson’s approach to art consists of creating
original works by drawing from traditional Native art forms.

Choice B is incorrect. Because Gibson incorporates Native art forms into his own
original artwork, it can be inferred that he has been influenced by other Native
artists, but the text never suggests that non-Native artists have influenced him.
Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate that Gibson designs
dresses influenced by boxing but instead that he turns punching bags, which are
used in boxing, into works of art by applying elements of Native dressmaking to
them. Choice D is incorrect. Although Gibson does incorporate beadwork into his
art, the text never mentions the colors or patterns that he uses or suggests that
his art defies the expectations that people might have about color and pattern in
beadwork.

QUESTION 14
Choice A is the best answer because it presents the quotation that most directly
illustrates the claim that Cather portrays Alexandra as having a deep emotional
connection to her natural surroundings. This quotation states that the country
meant a great deal to Alexandra and then goes on to detail several ways in which
her natural surroundings affect her emotionally: the insects sound like “the
sweetest music,” she feels as though “her heart were hiding” in the grass “with the
quail and the plover,” and near the ridges she feels “the future stirring.”

Choice B is incorrect because the quotation doesn’t suggest that Alexandra had a
deep emotional connection to her natural surroundings but instead describes
how she interacts with the people around her to learn more about crops, poultry,
and experiments with clover hay. Choice C is incorrect because the quotation
doesn’t suggest that Alexandra has a deep emotional connection to her natural
surroundings but instead describes her nighttime departure in a wagon. The
quotation says nothing about Alexandra’s emotional state. Choice D is incorrect
because the quotation doesn’t convey Alexandra’s deep emotional connection to
her natural surroundings; instead, this quotation describes how well she
understands the markets and livestock.

QUESTION 15
Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would
support the scholar’s claim about Toni Morrison’s likely goal of strengthening the
presence of Black writers on Random House’s list of published authors. The text
explains that Morrison was the first Black woman to be an editor for Random
House and that she was an editor there from 1967 to 1983. If it were true that
Random House published a higher percentage of works by Black authors
throughout the 1970s—during most of Morrison’s time working there—than it had
previously published, that would suggest that Morrison may have made a
deliberate effort to strengthen the presence of Black authors on the list of
Random House’s published authors, thus supporting the scholar’s claim.

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Choice B is incorrect because the scholar’s claim is about Morrison’s work as an

editor at a publishing company and her likely effort to strengthen the presence of
Black writers on that company’s list of published authors. It might be true that
Black authors interviewed in the 1980s and 1990s often cited Morrison’s novels
as an influence on their work, but that finding would simply suggest something
about how those authors approached their work; it wouldn’t show that Morrison
intended to increase the number of Black writers among the published authors
specifically at Random House. Choice C is incorrect because the scholar’s claim
is about Morrison’s work as an editor at a publishing company, not about her work
as a novelist. Therefore, a finding that Morrison’s novels published after 1983 sold
more copies and were more widely acclaimed than her earlier novels would have
no bearing on the claim that as an editor Morrison made an effort to ensure that
more Black writers were present on Random House’s list of published authors.
Choice D is incorrect. Although the text discusses Morrison’s work as an editor at
Random House, the scholar’s claim focuses on Morrison’s likely effort in that role
to increase the number of Black writers present on Random House’s list of
published authors, not on the influence she may have had on the content of the
works she edited. Without knowing whether Morrison’s stylistic influence led to
more publications or if Morrison applied her influence specifically to works by
Black writers, the finding that works edited by Morrison could be identified by
stylistic characteristics would have no bearing on the claim that Morrison
intended to strengthen the presence of Black writers among the published
authors at Random House.

QUESTION 16
Choice A is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most
strongly support the team’s conclusion that cattle were likely raised closer to
human settlements than sheep and goats were. The text explains that Vaiglova,
Liu, and their colleagues analyzed the chemical composition of sheep, goat, and
cattle bones from the Bronze Age in China in order to investigate the animals’
domestication, or their adaptation from a wild state to a state in which they
existed in close connection with humans. According to the text, the team’s
analysis showed that sheep and goats of the era fed largely on wild plants,
whereas cattle fed on millet—importantly, a crop cultivated by humans. If analysis
of the animal bones shows that the cattle’s diet also consisted of wheat, another
crop cultivated by humans in China during the Bronze Age, the finding would
support the team’s conclusion by offering additional evidence that cattle during
this era fed on human-grown crops—and, by extension, that humans raised cattle
relatively close to the settlements where they grew these crops, leaving goats and
sheep to roam farther away in areas with wild vegetation, uncultivated by humans.

Choice B is incorrect because if it were true that sheep’s and goats’ diets
consisted of small portions of millet, which the text states was a crop cultivated
by humans, the finding would suggest that sheep and goats were raised relatively
close to human settlements, weakening the team’s conclusion that cattle were
likely raised closer to those settlements than sheep and goats were. Choice C is
incorrect because the finding that cattle generally require more food and
nutrients than do sheep and goats wouldn’t support the team’s conclusion that
cattle were likely raised closer to human settlements than sheep and goats were.

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Nothing in the text suggests that cattle were incapable of obtaining sufficient
food and nutrients without access to human-grown crops. Hence, even if cattle’s
diets are found to have different requirements than the diets of sheep and goats,
the cattle could have met those requirements from food located far from human
settlements. Choice D is incorrect because if it were true that the diets of sheep,
goats, and cattle varied based on what the farmers in each Bronze Age settlement
could grow, the finding would weaken the team’s conclusion that cattle were likely
raised closer to human settlements than sheep and goats were, suggesting
instead that all three types of animals were raised close enough to human
settlements to feed on those settlements’ crops.

QUESTION 17
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text based
on supporting data in the graph. The text indicates that in the fly D. melanogaster,
DptA and DptB are genes that encode peptides that both fight pathogens and
promote beneficial microbes. Researchers tested D. melanogaster’s resistance to
P. rettgeri and A. sicerae bacteria based on which variation of the peptide-
encoding gene the flies exhibit: DptA silenced (referred to as type A), DptB
silenced (type B), or both silenced (type AB). The text also indicates that
resistance to P. rettgeri correlates with DptA activity but not with DptB activity
(which would manifest as type B flies surviving at a higher rate than other fly types
when exposed to P. rettgeri). The graph shows the post–A. sicerae infection
results, which indicate that DptB activity was most strongly associated with
survival, whereas DptA activity was not (manifesting in the graph as the type A
flies having greater survival rates than the other fly types). In other words, when
DptA activity was silenced, the flies showed relatively high survival rates, but
when DptB activity was silenced, whether on its own or in conjunction with DptA
activity being silenced, survival rates were low, suggesting that DptB may have
developed as a specific defense against A. sicerae.

Choice A is incorrect. The graph suggests that DptA activity is associated with a
low rate of survival, not a high one. Furthermore, the graph shows results for flies
where DptA alone was silenced, DptB alone was silenced, and both were silenced
and thus does not show any flies with activity in both DptA and DptB, which would
be necessary to determine whether DptA conferred defense against A. sicerae in
the presence of DptB. Choice B is incorrect. Only two bacteria species were
considered in the text: P. rettgeri and A. sicerae. The text and graph taken
together suggest that activity in DptA is associated with resistance to P. rettgeri
while DptB activity is not, and that DptB activity is associated with resistance to
A. sicerae while DptA is not. There is no further information to suggest one
genetic type confers resistance to a greater number of pathogens than the other.
Choice D is incorrect. The graph does not address flies with activity in both DptA
and DptB. All flies represented in the graph had one or both of DptA and DptB
silenced, or inactive.

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QUESTION 18
Choice D is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most
logically follows from the text’s discussion of leafy spurge and engineered DNA.
The text establishes that using chemical herbicides to control leafy spurge in
North America can also harm other plants nearby. The text then indicates that it
might be possible to use engineered DNA to prevent plants from reproducing,
which would be useful for “exclusively targeting” leafy spurge. If it’s possible to
exclusively target leafy spurge with engineered DNA—meaning that only leafy
spurge is affected by the engineered DNA—and prevent the plant from
reproducing, then leafy spurge numbers could be reduced “without harming other
organisms.”

Choice A is incorrect because the text raises the possibility of using engineered
DNA to prevent leafy spurge from reproducing, not to make individual leafy
spurge plants more vulnerable to chemical herbicides that already exist. Choice B
is incorrect because the text doesn’t describe any ecological benefits of leafy
spurge in North America; instead, the text is focused on using engineered DNA to
prevent leafy spurge from reproducing and thereby reduce its numbers. The only
ecological effects of leafy spurge in North America that are described in the text
are harmful. Choice C is incorrect because the text describes the possibility of
using engineered DNA to prevent leafy spurge from reproducing; it doesn’t offer a
way to enable cattle to eat leafy spurge without becoming sick.

QUESTION 19
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of accelerated flowering in A. thaliana plants. The text indicates that
A. thaliana plants show accelerated flowering at high temperatures. To investigate
the mechanism for this accelerated flowering, biologists replaced the ELF3
protein in one group of A. thaliana plants with a similar protein found in another
plant species that doesn’t show accelerated flowering. The team then compared
these modified plants to A. thaliana plants that retained their original ELF3 protein.
The text states that the two samples of plants showed no difference in flowering
at 22° Celsius, but at 27° Celsius the unaltered plants with ELF3 showed
accelerated flowering while the plants without ELF3 didn’t. If accelerated flowering
at the higher temperature occurred in the A. thaliana plants with ELF3 but not in
the plants without the protein, then ELF3 likely enables A. thaliana to respond to
increased temperatures.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention whether any plants other
than A. thaliana and stiff brome show temperature-sensitive flowering, so there is
no support for the idea that this type of flowering is unique to A. thaliana. Choice B
is incorrect because the text discusses the effects of ELF3 and not the
production of it. There’s nothing in the text to suggest that the amount of ELF3 in
A. thaliana varies with temperature. Choice D is incorrect. While the text states
that there was no difference in the flowering of modified and unmodified
A. thaliana plants at 22° Celsius, there’s no suggestion that A. thaliana only begins
to flower at 22° Celsius; the text doesn’t mention a specific temperature threshold
required for A. thaliana flowering.

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QUESTION 20
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of
main clauses within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma and the
coordinating conjunction “but” to join the first main clause (“the Alvarez…out”) and
the second main clause (“it left…extinctions”).

Choice A is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such
as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main
clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice D is incorrect
because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction following it, a comma
can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

QUESTION 21
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the coordination of
independent clauses within a sentence. An independent clause is a phrase
containing a subject and a verb that can stand on its own as a sentence. This
choice uses a comma and the coordinating conjunction “but” to join the first
independent clause (“underlines…lower a book’s value”) and the second
independent clause (“such markings…can be a gold mine to scholars”) to create a
compound sentence.

Choice B is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two

independent clauses are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used
in this way to mark the boundary between two independent clauses. Choice D is
incorrect because a comma is needed to mark the boundary between two
coordinated independent clauses.

QUESTION 22
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and
nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite present participle “forcing” is
correctly used to form a participial phrase that supplements the main clause
“those...cover,” describing the effects on monkeys of the lack of food sources.

Choice A is incorrect because the finite present tense verb “forces” can’t be used
in this way to supplement the main clause (“those...cover”). Choice B is incorrect.
While the nonfinite to-infinitive “to force” could be used to form a subordinate
clause that supplements the main clause (“those...cover”), to-infinitives
conventionally express purpose, and nothing in the sentence suggests that the
food sources become unavailable for the purpose of forcing monkeys to hunt
marine animals. Choice D is incorrect because the finite past tense verb “forced”
can’t be used in this way to supplement the main clause (“those...cover”).

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QUESTION 23
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation between
a subordinate clause and a main clause. This choice correctly uses a comma to
mark the boundary between the subordinate clause (“While…lifelike”) and the
main clause (“others look to the past”).

Choice A is incorrect because it results in an incomplete sentence with no main

clause. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the
subordinate clause (“While…lifelike”) and the main clause (“others…past”).
Choice D is incorrect because it results in an incomplete sentence with no main
clause.

QUESTION 24
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to
express tense. In this choice, the present tense verb “experiences” is consistent
with the other present tense verbs (e.g., “connects” and “prepares”) used to
describe the events in Truong’s novels. Furthermore, it’s conventional to use the
present tense when discussing a literary work.

Choice A is incorrect because the past tense verb “experienced” isn’t consistent
with the other present tense verbs used to describe the events in Truong’s novels.
Choice B is incorrect because the past perfect tense verb “had experienced” isn’t
consistent with the other present tense verbs used to describe the events in
Truong’s novels. Choice D is incorrect because the future progressive tense verb
“will be experiencing” isn’t consistent with the other present tense verbs used to
describe the events in Truong’s novels.

QUESTION 25
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
punctuation in a sentence. In this choice, a colon is correctly used to mark the
boundary between one main clause (“Along with...photosynthesis”) and another
main clause (“as light...oxygen”) and to introduce the following explanation of how
light intensity affects photosynthesis.

Choice A is incorrect because when coordinating two longer main clauses such
as these, it’s conventional to use a comma before the coordinating conjunction
(“and”). Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a
coordinating conjunction following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join
two main clauses (“Along with...photosynthesis” and “as light...oxygen”). Choice D
is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses (“Along
with...photosynthesis” and “as light...oxygen”) are fused without punctuation
and/or a conjunction.

QUESTION 26
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
possessive determiners. The plural possessive determiner “their” agrees in
number with the plural noun “types” and thus indicates that the more personal
subject matter of Marisol’s 1968 sculpture takes the place of those types of pop
culture references that made Marisol a star.

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Choice A is incorrect because the singular possessive determiner “its” doesn’t

agree in number with the plural noun “types.” Choice B is incorrect because
“they’re” is the contraction for “they are,” not a possessive determiner. Choice D is
incorrect because “it’s” is the contraction for “it is” or “it has,” not a possessive
determiner.

QUESTION 27
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms
within a sentence. The singular verb “is” agrees in number with the singular
subject “each one of a ghazal’s couplets.” While the prepositional phrase “of a
ghazal’s couplets” within the subject contains a plural noun, the head of the
subject (“each one”) is singular, indicating that each individual couplet (not the
couplets as a group) is “thematically and logically autonomous,” or self-standing.

Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “were” doesn’t agree in number with
the singular subject “each one of a ghazal’s couplets.” Choice C is incorrect
because the plural verb “have been” doesn’t agree in number with the singular
subject “each one of a ghazal’s couplets.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural
verb “are” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “each one of a
ghazal’s couplets.”

QUESTION 28
Choice B is the best answer. “For example” logically signals that the information in
this sentence—that tadpole shrimp embryos can pause development during
extended periods of drought— exemplifies the previous sentence’s claim that
organisms have evolved surprising adaptations to survive in adverse conditions.

Choice A is incorrect because “in contrast” illogically signals that the information
in this sentence contrasts with the claim about organisms in the previous
sentence. Instead, it exemplifies this claim. Choice C is incorrect because
“meanwhile” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is separate
from (while occurring simultaneously with) the claim about organisms in the
previous sentence. Instead, it exemplifies this claim. Choice D is incorrect
because “consequently” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is
a consequence, or result, of the claim about organisms in the previous sentence.
Instead, it exemplifies this claim.

QUESTION 29
Choice B is the best answer. “Previously” logically signals that the event
described in this sentence—Bigelow being named best director—occurred
before Zhao’s win. The fact that only one other woman had won the award before
puts Zhao’s win in perspective.

Choice A is incorrect because “as a result” illogically signals that the event
described in this sentence occurred as a result or consequence of Zhao’s win.
Instead, it occurred before Zhao was named best director and puts Zhao’s win in
perspective. Choice C is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the
event described in this sentence occurred in spite of or in contrast to Zhao’s win.

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Instead, it occurred before Zhao was named best director and puts Zhao’s win in
perspective. Choice D is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals that this
sentence merely adds a second, similar piece of information to the information
about Zhao’s win. Instead, the fact that only one other woman had won the award
before puts Zhao’s win in perspective.

QUESTION 30
Choice B is the best answer. “Hence” correctly signals that the claim in this
sentence regarding extraterrestrial material follows logically from the information
in the previous sentences. The previous sentences establish that siderophile
elements in the mantle are more abundant than predicted in the core-
differentiation model. This sentence claims, logically, that these elements came
from extraterrestrial material that accreted to Earth after core differentiation.

Choice A is incorrect because “that said” illogically signals that the information in
this sentence regarding extraterrestrial material is an exception to the previous
information about siderophiles’ abundance in the mantle. Instead, it is a new claim
that follows logically from the previous information. Choice C is incorrect because
“for example” illogically signals that the information in this sentence regarding
extraterrestrial material exemplifies the previous information about siderophiles’
abundance in the mantle. Instead, it is a new claim that follows logically from the
previous information. Choice D is incorrect because “likewise” illogically signals
that the information in this sentence regarding extraterrestrial material is merely
similar to the previous information about siderophiles’ abundance in the mantle.
Instead, it is a new claim that follows logically from the previous information.

QUESTION 31
Choice B is the best answer. The sentence presents the study, describing it as a
2013 analysis of Quanhucun cat bone fragments, and its conclusions, indicating
what the analysis suggests about cat domestication in Quanhucun.

Choice A is incorrect because the sentence focuses on the study’s methodology;

it doesn’t present conclusions from the study. Choice C is incorrect. While the
sentence provides a general overview of the study, it doesn’t present conclusions
from the study. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes a finding from the
study; it doesn’t present conclusions from the study.

QUESTION 32
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a difference between the
portraits, noting that one is a painting and the other is a drawing.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the two

portraits rather than a difference. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence makes a
generalization about Enriquez’s portraits; it doesn’t emphasize a difference
between the portraits of Jimenez and Anaya. Choice D is incorrect. While the
sentence notes a difference between Jimenez and Anaya, it doesn’t emphasize a
difference between, or even mention, their portraits.

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QUESTION 33
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes both the duration (the
length of time) and the purpose of Cohen’s and Rodrigues’s work by noting that
the women have been working since 2003 to preserve Gullah culture.

Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes what visitors to Cohen’s

and Rodrigues’s museums can learn, it doesn’t mention the duration or purpose
of the women’s work. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes the
purpose of Cohen’s and Rodrigues’s work, it doesn’t mention the duration of that
work (the length of time the women have been working to preserve Gullah culture).
Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes where and when Gullah
culture developed, it doesn’t mention the duration or purpose of Cohen’s and
Rodrigues’s work.

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Reading and Writing

Module 2
(33 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the writing system created by Sequoyah. In this context,
“widespread” means widely accepted or practiced. The text indicates that
because Sequoyah’s script accurately represented the spoken sounds of the
Cherokee language and was easy to learn, nearly all Cherokee people were able to
read and write it soon after it was created. This context demonstrates that the
script was widely used by the Cherokee people.

Choice B is incorrect. In this context, “careful” would mean exercised with care
and attentive concern. Although the work of creating a writing system likely
involved great care, the text indicates that the system was “easy to learn,” which
conflicts with the idea that using this system requires a noteworthy amount of
care. Choice C is incorrect because in this context “unintended” means not
deliberate. The idea that using Sequoyah’s script was unintentional conflicts
directly with the claim that it was easy to learn and used by “over 90% of the
Cherokee people” by 1830. In fact, because one had to learn this system, it’s not
clear how one could use it unintentionally. Choice D is incorrect because in this
context “infrequent” means rare or not occurring often, which conflicts directly
with the claim that “over 90% of the Cherokee people” were using Sequoyah’s
script by 1830.

QUESTION 2
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of diaphragm contractions and hiccups. In this context, “involuntarily”
means done without any control, or by reflex. The text explains that when a
person’s diaphragm contracts and results in hiccups (which may be important for
infants), those muscle contractions are “uncontrollable.” This context indicates
that the diaphragm contractions occur without the person’s control.

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Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that researchers haven’t

determined exactly why people hiccup, suggesting that it isn’t known that the
uncontrollable muscle contractions generally occur “beneficially,” or with a good
or helpful effect—even if one neuroscientist has found that it’s possible hiccups
play an important positive role for a specific group of people (infants). Choice C is
incorrect because the text describes the diaphragm contractions that result in
hiccups as “uncontrollable,” or happening without the person’s control, so it
wouldn’t make sense to describe them as occurring “strenuously,” or in a way that
requires great effort or energy. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the text
indicates that the diaphragm contractions resulting in hiccups occur “smoothly,”
or evenly and continuously. The text doesn’t describe the quality of the muscle
contractions beyond stating that they are “uncontrollable.”

QUESTION 3
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the location of the province of Xoconochco within the Aztec Empire.
As used in this context, “peripheral” means situated toward the outer bounds
rather than the center. The text indicates that Xoconochco was located on a
coast, hundreds of kilometers away from the capital of the Aztec Empire. The text
also states that trade between the province and the capital required “a long
overland journey.” This context suggests that Xoconochco was situated toward
an edge of the empire’s territory rather than near its center.

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t make sense in context to refer to

Xoconochco’s location within the Aztec Empire as “unobtrusive,” or not blatant or
undesirably prominent; it’s not clear how a province’s physical location would or
wouldn’t be blatant. Instead of focusing on how noticeable Xoconochco’s location
was, the text emphasizes the province’s distance from the capital of the empire,
pointing out that because of this distance trade between the two required “a long
overland journey.” Choice B is incorrect because the text indicates that the
province of Xoconochco was located on a coast far from the capital of the Aztec
Empire, not that it was “concealed,” or kept out of sight or hidden from view.
Nothing in the text suggests that Xoconochco was actually hidden such that
people couldn’t see it, and being hidden wouldn’t necessarily result in trade
between the province and the capital requiring “a long overland journey.” Choice C
is incorrect because to say that Xoconochco’s location within the Aztec Empire
was “approximate” would mean that the location either wasn’t precisely correct or
was close to some other location. Neither of these meanings would make sense in
context because the text indicates that Xoconochco’s location is known and that
it was far from the empire’s capital, so there’s no reason to characterize the
location as either not precisely correct or close to another location.

QUESTION 4
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the consequences of raising the age at which retirees begin
receiving government funds. The text indicates that raising the age for these
funds is usually discussed in terms of effects on fund recipients but that Andria
Smythe is instead considering the effects on working family members who care

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for retirees. Smythe notes that raising the age for the funds would increase the
length of time retirees are dependent on financial assistance from working family
members. This is suggested to have an effect on wealth creation for those
workers, and most logically, that effect would be disadvantageous. Thus, “stymie,”
which means to prevent or greatly hinder, is the most logical choice in context.

Choice B is incorrect because in this context, “compound” would most nearly

mean multiply or greatly enhance. The text indicates that raising the age at which
retirees are eligible for government funds will increase the amount of time retirees
are dependent on working family members for financial support. This would likely
have a negative rather than a positive effect on wealth creation. Choice C is
incorrect because in this context, “disparage” would most nearly mean criticize or
defame. Nothing in the text suggests that raising the age at which retirees are
eligible for government funds would defame wealth creation among working
adults. Choice D is incorrect because in this context, “outstrip” would most nearly
mean to exceed, and nothing in the text indicates that the financial support
provided to retirees would exceed the amount of wealth these workers can create.
The text does suggest that workers providing funds to retirees works against
those workers’ wealth accumulation, but not that the support to retirees exceeds
the workers’ accumulated wealth.

QUESTION 5
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of political blogs. In this context, “sanguine” means optimistic. The text
begins by noting the rise of political blogs with readily identifiable ideological
alignments in the early 2000s. The text then indicates that some commentators
saw this as a positive development, citing a reason why (their difference from
traditional news). Finally, the text goes on to contrast those commentators with
others who have a negative opinion of the rise of political blogs (because they
increase political polarization among their readers). This context supports the
idea that the second group of commentators is less positive than the first: thus,
the second group of commentators is less optimistic, or sanguine.

Choice B is incorrect because it would not make sense in this context to describe
those commentators who have a negative opinion of political blogs as less
“recalcitrant,” or obstinately uncooperative, than those commentators who
supported political blogs. Choice C is incorrect because the text gives no
indication that those commentators who have a negative opinion of political blogs
are less “misanthropic,” or less contemptuous of humankind, than those
commentators who have a positive opinion of political blogs— there is no
indication in the text that those commentators who like political blogs would be
contemptuous of humankind at all. Choice D is incorrect because there is no
evidence that those commentators who have a negative opinion of political blogs
are less “earnest,” or sincere, than those who have a positive opinion of such
blogs—presumably, both groups of commentators hold their beliefs with equal
conviction.

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QUESTION 6
Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes the overall
purpose of the text. The text indicates that “for as long as he could remember,”
Max had “begged” his father to take him to La Reina. This point is later
emphasized in the text by indicating that “this summer” his father might “finally
take” Max to visit La Reina. Thus, the purpose of the text as a whole is to show
how much Max wants to visit La Reina.

Choice A is incorrect. The text does not discuss Papa’s feelings toward Max.
Rather, it mentions that Max has long wanted Papa to take him to La Reina and
that, unlike Max and some other children, Papa does not believe that La Reina is
haunted. Choice B is incorrect. The text mentions that Max is “almost twelve” at
the time, which suggests anticipation of growing up rather than refusal to.
Choice C is incorrect. The text indicates that Max hopes to visit La Reina during
the current summer, but nothing suggests that Max dislikes summer.

QUESTION 7
Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately states the main purpose
of the text, which is to show that Henry’s mother, Mrs. Higgins, wants Henry to
leave her house. In the text, Mrs. Higgins complains that Henry offends all her
friends and that they stop coming when he’s also visiting. She then tells him
directly, “you mustn’t stay.” The overall exchange conveys Mrs. Higgins’s intention
for Henry to leave so as not to drive away her friends with his behavior.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate what Henry’s mother does
when she’s out with her friends. Instead, it focuses on what goes on when Henry
and her friends visit her at the same time, indicating that since her friends find
Henry’s company disagreeable, she wishes him to leave before they arrive.
Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t contain an account of what
Henry’s home looks like. The setting is established as the house of Henry’s
mother, and the dialogue focuses solely on her wish that Henry should depart
before her friends arrive. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t mention
how often Henry visits his mother nor does it provide any explanation for why he
visits his mother. Instead, it indicates that she thinks her friends dislike Henry and
that she therefore wants him to depart before they arrive.

QUESTION 8
Choice B is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the
underlined portion functions in the text as a whole. The text presents the
speaker’s experience of viewing the sea. In the underlined portion, the speaker
focuses on the idea that the waves hitting rocks on the shore are a relentless and
enduring force: they are constantly pushed back (“ever repulsed”) but always
return (“ever rushing on”), as though they have an energy that can’t be overcome
(“a life that will not know defeat”).

Choice A is incorrect. Although the underlined portion characterizes the waves as

a relentless force (always “repulsed” but still “rushing on” and never being
defeated), the speaker doesn’t suggest that the surroundings are intimidating.

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Instead, the speaker presents the scene in a positive way, describing the “deep
delight” of the “gladsome,” or cheerful, waves and feeling “the heart / Leap joyous”
while viewing the sea. Choice C is incorrect because the underlined portion
doesn’t suggest that the speaker is ambivalent, or has mixed feelings about, the
natural world. Instead, it presents a single view of one part of the immediate
surroundings: the speaker characterizes the sea’s waves as an unstoppable force,
since they are constantly pushed back but always return (“ever repulsed, yet ever
rushing on”). Choice D is incorrect. Although the text later suggests the speaker’s
view of her own thoughts by referring to a “clouded brain” and a heart that leaps
joyously, this reference neither occurs within the underlined portion nor
establishes a clear contrast with the relentless determination of the waves. The
underlined portion addresses only the speaker’s view of the waves and doesn’t
suggest what her own thoughts might be.

QUESTION 9
Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of
the text. According to the text, conceptual artists Gins and Arakawa have
designed an apartment building that is disorienting because of several
unconventional elements, such as uneven kitchen counters and “a door to
nowhere.” The text goes on to suggest that there may be benefits to this kind of
design because filmmaker Yamaoka lived in the apartment building for four years
and reported health benefits. Thus, although the design is impractical, it may
improve the well-being of the apartment building’s residents.

Choice A is incorrect. Although the text mentions that Yamaoka lived in the
apartment for four years, it doesn’t address how long someone can beneficially
live in a home surrounded by fanciful features or whether doing so can be
sustained. Choice B is incorrect. Although the text mentions the potential benefits
of living in a home with disorienting design features, it doesn’t suggest that this is
the most effective method to create a physically stimulating environment.
Choice C is incorrect because the text refers to Yamaoka to support the claim that
Gins and Arakawa’s apartment building design may be beneficial, but the text
doesn’t indicate that Yamaoka supports the designs of other conceptual artists.

QUESTION 10
Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about how the Lord
Chancellor responds to the crowd that is supported by the text. The text indicates
that the people in the crowd are roaring and shouting “Bread!” or “Taxes!” and
presents them as not knowing what they really want. The Lord Chancellor’s
response is to ask what their shouting means but also to observe that they’re
shouting with “unanimity,” or total agreement. Clearly, this isn’t the case, which
supports the statement that the Lord Chancellor describes the crowd as being
united even though it’s not.

Choice A is incorrect because it isn’t supported by the text. Although the text
indicates that the Lord Chancellor asks about the meaning of the crowd’s
shouting, it doesn’t suggest that he knows what the crowd really wants. Choice B
is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the Lord Chancellor wants to

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speak to the crowd. Furthermore, the text doesn’t indicate that the crowd wants to
hear from the Sub-Warden. Although the crowd roars when asked “Who roar for
the Sub-Warden?” it’s unclear what the roaring means. Choice C is incorrect
because the text doesn’t suggest that the Lord Chancellor knows of or
sympathizes with the crowd’s demands. In addition, the text doesn’t indicate that
the crowd’s shouting annoys the Lord Chancellor, just that it causes him to keep
repeating “What can it all mean?”

QUESTION 11
Choice D is the best answer because it accurately identifies the species with the
highest global biomass, the white-tailed deer at approximately 2.7 million metric
tons. The graph shows the global biomass for four wild land mammal species with
the highest global biomass. The graph indicates that the African bush elephant’s
global biomass is about 1.3 million metric tons, the eastern gray kangaroo’s is
about 0.6 million metric tons, and the wild boar’s is about 1.9 million metric tons.
These values are all lower than the global biomass for the white-tailed deer’s
approximately 2.7 million metric tons. Thus, the white-tailed deer is the species
with the highest global biomass.

Choice A is incorrect because although the graph indicates that the wild boar has
a relatively high global biomass of about 1.9 million metric tons, it is not the
species with the highest value. The white-tailed deer is the species with the
highest global biomass at about 2.7 million metric tons. Choice B is incorrect
because the eastern gray kangaroo has the lowest global biomass value shown
on the graph at about 0.6 million metric tons, not the highest global biomass. The
white-tailed deer has the highest at about 2.7 million metric tons. Choice C is
incorrect because although the African bush elephant has a substantial global
biomass of about 1.3 million metric tons, it is not the species with the highest
value according to the graph. The white-tailed deer has the highest global
biomass at about 2.7 million metric tons.

QUESTION 12
Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table
to support the researchers’ conclusion about the harvesting of clamshells by
Neanderthals for use as tools. The text explains that Neanderthals used
clamshells to make tools and that the sturdiest, and therefore the most desirable,
shells for this purpose are found on the seafloor, not on the beach. However, the
researchers also concluded that the clamshell tools made from shells from the
seafloor are rarer than those made from shells from the beach. Meanwhile the
table shows that at each depth, the number of tools made from shells from the
beach exceeds the number made from the more desirable shells from the
seafloor. The fact that the more desirable shells are less common suggests that it
was significantly more difficult to harvest shells from the seafloor than from the
beach.

Choice B is incorrect because knowing which depth represents the period of time
with the highest Neanderthal population does not help answer the question of
why the Neanderthals consistently made more tools from the less desirable shells

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from the beach than they made from the more desirable shells from the seafloor.
Choice C is incorrect because it claims that the beach shells are more durable
than the seafloor shells, which contradicts the text’s description of shells from the
seafloor as smoother and sturdier than shells from the beach. Choice D is
incorrect because knowing which depth has the most artifacts or whether the
clam population fluctuated does not help explain why tools made from the less
desirable shells from the beach outnumber tools made from the more desirable
shells from the seafloor.

QUESTION 13
Choice B is the best answer because it describes data from the graph that
support Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion that spray coating holds promise for
improving the power conversion efficiency of ETLs in perovskite solar cells. The
text explains that perovskite solar cells’ efficiency at converting light into
electricity is diminished by their electron transport layer (ETL), which is applied
through spin coating, but that Taylor’s team devised a new spray coating method
for applying the ETL that improves its power conversion efficiency. The graph
displays data on the power conversion efficiency of solar cells in tests conducted
by Taylor’s team, with bars for both the highest- and lowest-performing ETLs in
two data categories: spray coating and spin coating. According to the graph, the
lowest-performing ETL applied through spray coating had a power conversion
efficiency of between 14% and 16%, while the highest-performing ETL applied
through spin coating had a power conversion efficiency of less than 14%. These
data confirm that ETLs applied through novel spray coating are more efficient
than those applied though traditional spin coating. Thus, the data support Taylor
and colleagues’ conclusion about spray coating’s potential value.

Choice A is incorrect. Although this claim correctly describes the data in the
graph by stating that both the lowest-performing ETL applied through spin
coating and the lowest- performing ETL applied through spray coating had a
power conversion efficiency greater than 10%, this relationship in the data
doesn’t support or relate to Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion that spray coating
promises greater efficiency for solar cells than traditional spin coating does.
Choice C is incorrect. This claim does address the greater power conversion
efficiency of the highest-performing ETL applied through spray coating,
compared with the highest-performing ETL applied through spin coating.
However, it also incorrectly cites the value for the efficiency of the highest-
performing ETL applied through spray coating as approximately 13%, instead of a
value between 14% and 16%, and the value for the efficiency of the highest-
performing ETL applied through spin coating as approximately 11%, instead of a
value between 12% and 14%, as shown in the graph. Choice D is incorrect
because Taylor and colleagues’ conclusion is based on the difference in the
power conversion efficiency of ETLs applied through spray coating and that of
ETLs applied through spin coating, not on the difference between the highest-
and lowest-performing ETLs applied through just spray coating.

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QUESTION 14
Choice A is the best answer because it presents data from the table that most
effectively complete the statement about the rates at which employment shifted
in France and the United States. The text states that over the last two hundred
years employment in the agricultural sector has declined while employment in the
service sector has risen in both France and the US, and the data from the table
reflect these trends. The text asserts, however, that the transition from agriculture
to services “happened at very different rates in the two countries.” This assertion
is best supported by a comparison of data from 1900 and 1950: the table shows
that in those years, employment in agriculture went from 43% to 32% in France (a
decline of 11 percentage points) and from 41% to 14% in the US (a decline of 27
percentage points), and that employment in services went from 28% to 35% in
France (an increase of 7 percentage points) and from 31% to 53% in the US (an
increase of 22 percentage points). In other words, the rate of change was greater
in the US than in France for both sectors.

Choice B is incorrect because comparing the data for 1800 and 2012 would
suggest a similar rate of change in the two countries, not very different rates:
employment in agriculture went from 64% in 1800 to 3% in 2012 in France, which
is close to the change from 68% in 1800 to 2% in 2012 in the US, while
employment in services went from 14% in 1800 to 76% in 2012 in France, which
is close to the change from 13% in 1800 to 80% in 2012 in the US. Choice C is
incorrect because comparing the data for 1900 and 2012 would suggest a similar
rate of change in the two countries rather than very different rates: employment in
agriculture went from 43% in 1900 to 3% in 2012 in France, which is close to the
change from 41% in 1900 to 2% in 2012 in the US, while employment in services
went from 28% in 1900 to 76% in 2012 in France, which is close to the change
from 31% in 1900 to 80% in 2012 in the US. Choice D is incorrect because
comparing the data for 1800 and 1900 would suggest a similar rate of change in
the two countries, not very different rates: employment in agriculture went from
64% in 1800 to 43% in 1900 in France, which is fairly close to the change from
68% in 1800 to 41% in 1900 in the US, while employment in services went from
14% in 1800 to 28% in 1900 in France, which is close to the change from 13% in
1800 to 31% in 1900 in the US.

QUESTION 15
Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would
support Shcherbakova and colleagues’ claim that the outcome of their study is
inconsistent with the linguistic niche hypothesis (LNH). The text explains that the
LNH holds that there is an inverse relationship between the prevalence of non-
native speakers of a language (exotericity) and the grammatical complexity of that
language—that is, that as the number of non-native speakers increases,
grammatical complexity decreases, and vice versa. According to the text,
Shcherbakova and colleagues focused on two positive indications of grammatical
complexity—fusion and informativity—and analyzed their occurrence in over
1,300 languages. If the researchers found a slightly positive correlation between
fusion and exotericity and between informativity and exotericity—meaning that to
some extent, grammatical complexity increases as the number of non-native

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speakers of a language increases—their outcome would not be consistent with

the assumption that exotericity and grammatical complexity are inversely related
(the LNH).

Choice A is incorrect because it wouldn’t be possible to say that a finding of a

slightly negative correlation between grammatical complexity and both fusion and
informativity is inconsistent or consistent with the LNH, since the finding would
address only grammatical complexity (given that fusion and informativity are
aspects of grammatical complexity) and wouldn’t move beyond that factor to
address its relationship to the prevalence of non-native speakers of a language
(exotericity), which is the relationship the LNH focuses on. Choice B is incorrect
because a finding of a slightly negative correlation between grammatical
complexity and the prevalence of non-native speakers of a language
(exotericity)—meaning that as the number of non-native speakers increases,
grammatical complexity somewhat decreases, and vice versa—would be
consistent, not inconsistent, with the LNH, since the text indicates that according
to the LNH, there is an inverse relationship between grammatical complexity and
exotericity; a negative correlation reflects an inverse relationship. Choice C is
incorrect because it wouldn’t be possible to say that a finding of a slightly positive
correlation between grammatical complexity and fusion is inconsistent or
consistent with the LNH, since the finding would address only grammatical
complexity (given that fusion is a positive indication of grammatical complexity)
and wouldn’t move beyond that factor to address its relationship to the
prevalence of non-native speakers of a language (exotericity), which is the
relationship the LNH focuses on.

QUESTION 16
Choice A is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the evidence found in Queen Merneith’s tomb. The text begins by
mentioning archaeologists’ efforts to excavate the tomb of Queen Merneith, the
wife of a pharaoh who some scholars think was actually the first female pharaoh.
The text states that a tablet discovered in her tomb suggests she “was in charge
of the country’s treasury and other central offices,” which supports the idea that
she had an important role in Egypt’s government.

Choice B is incorrect because since the text explicitly states that Merneith’s
husband was a First Dynasty pharaoh, it can be inferred that she lived during the
First Dynasty, not after it. Choice C is incorrect because the text does not provide
any evidence that Merneith traveled beyond Egypt’s borders often. The text is
focused on the archaeological discovery in her tomb and the implications about
her potential role as a ruler in Egypt but does not mention anything about her
traveling habits. Choice D is incorrect because the text does not mention anything
about Merneith creating a new form of writing in Egypt. The text discusses the
discovery of a tablet with writing suggesting her governmental role but does not
imply that this writing represented a new form created by Merneith.

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QUESTION 17
Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most
logically follows from the text’s discussion of the study of capuchin monkeys’
cognitive abilities. The text explains that the study failed to distinguish between
outcomes for the tasks performed by the capuchin monkeys, such that simpler
tasks requiring less dexterity, or skill, were judged by the same criteria as tasks
that demanded more dexterity. Because the study didn’t account for this
discrepancy, the researchers might have assumed that observed differences in
performance were due to the abilities of the monkeys rather than the complexity
of the tasks. In other words, the results may suggest cognitive differences among
the monkeys even though such differences may not really exist.

Choice B is incorrect because the text focuses on the fact that the tasks assigned
to the capuchin monkeys in the study varied in difficulty and that the variety
wasn’t taken into consideration. The text doesn’t suggest that the capuchin
monkeys couldn’t perform certain tasks, just that some tasks were more difficult
to do. Choice C is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that the study’s
results are indicative of the abilities of capuchin monkeys but not of other monkey
species; in fact, the text suggests that the results may not even be an accurate
reflection of capuchin monkeys’ abilities. Choice D is incorrect because the text
doesn’t indicate that the researchers compared results for artificial tasks with
those for tasks encountered in the wild, although the tasks described in the
text—sliding a panel and putting a straw in a bottle—are presumably artificial.

QUESTION 18
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun-antecedent
agreement. The plural pronoun “they” agrees in number with the plural antecedent
“customers.”

Choice B is incorrect because the singular pronoun “one” doesn’t agree in number
with the plural antecedent “customers.” Choice C is incorrect because the second
person pronoun “you” isn’t conventional as a substitute for “customers.” It
suggests that the audience (“you”) is the customer. Choice D is incorrect because
the singular pronoun “it” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent
“customers.”

QUESTION 19
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is end-of-sentence
punctuation. This choice correctly uses a question mark to punctuate the
interrogative clause “could the blueberries thrive,” which asks a direct question at
the end of the sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because a period can’t be used in this way to punctuate an

interrogative clause, such as “could the blueberries thrive,” at the end of a
sentence. Choice B is incorrect because the context requires an interrogative
clause. The declarative clause “the blueberries could thrive” incorrectly indicates
that it was known that the blueberries could thrive in alkaline soil, whereas Michel
had yet to find this out. Choice C is incorrect because a question mark can’t be
used in this way to punctuate a declarative clause, such as “the blueberries could
thrive,” at the end of a sentence.

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QUESTION 20
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to
express tense in a sentence. In this choice, the present tense verb “reach” is
consistent with the present tense verbs “travel” and “are diverted” used to
describe how atoms move through the synchrotron.

Choice A is incorrect because the future tense verb “will reach” is inconsistent
with the present tense verbs used to describe how atoms move through the
synchrotron. Though the atoms’ movement is a recurring action and “will reach”
can also be used to indicate a habitual or recurring action, it creates a logical
inconsistency in this sentence when paired with the present tense verbs “travel”
and “are diverted.” Choice C is incorrect because the past perfect tense verb “had
reached” is inconsistent with the present tense verbs used to describe how atoms
move through the synchrotron. Choice D is incorrect because the present
progressive tense verb “are reaching” is inconsistent with the present tense verbs
used to describe how atoms move through the synchrotron. While both verbs
occur in the present, the present progressive tense suggests that the action is
currently in progress. This creates a logical inconsistency when paired with the
present tense verbs “travel” and “are diverted,” which offer a general description
of the tendencies of the atoms’ movement, rather than a description of an action
that is currently in progress.

QUESTION 21
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verbs to
express tense. In this choice, the present tense verb “is,” used in conjunction with
the word “today,” correctly indicates that Paik is currently considered the first
video artist.

Choice A is incorrect because the future tense verb “will be” doesn’t indicate that
Paik is currently considered the first video artist. Choice B is incorrect because
the past perfect tense verb “had been” doesn’t indicate that Paik is currently
considered the first video artist. Choice C is incorrect because the past tense
verb “was” doesn’t indicate that Paik is currently considered the first video artist.

QUESTION 22
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb
agreement. The singular verb “outlines” agrees in number with the singular
subject “document.”

Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “have outlined” doesn’t agree in
number with the singular subject “document.” Choice B is incorrect because the
plural verb “were outlining” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject
“document.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “outline” doesn’t agree
in number with the singular subject “document.”

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QUESTION 23
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
punctuation within a sentence. In this choice, the colon correctly introduces the
series of goals held by the 1919 Inter-Allied Women’s Conference.

Choice B is incorrect because placing a period after “threefold” results in a

rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with “To.” Choice C is
incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The main clause (“The
conference’s goals were threefold”) and the series supplement (“to…rights”) are
fused without punctuation. Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be
used in this way to introduce a series. A semicolon is conventionally used to join
two main clauses, whereas a colon is conventionally used to introduce a series,
making the colon the better choice in this context.

QUESTION 24
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb
agreement. The singular verb “is credited” agrees in number with the singular
subject “mathematician Grigori Perelman.”

Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “are credited” doesn’t agree in
number with the singular subject “mathematician Grigori Perelman.” Choice B is
incorrect because the plural verb “have been credited” doesn’t agree in number
with the singular subject “mathematician Grigori Perelman.” Choice C is incorrect
because the plural verb “are being credited” doesn’t agree in number with the
singular subject “mathematician Grigori Perelman.”

QUESTION 25
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is colon use within a
sentence. A colon used in this way introduces information that illustrates or
explains information that has come before it. In this case, the colon introduces the
following explanation of why some roundworms in the Southern Hemisphere
move in the opposite direction of Earth’s magnetic field.

Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used

in this way to join two long independent clauses (“Researchers…food” and “in…
sources”) such as these. Choice C is incorrect because it results in a run-on
sentence. The two clauses (“Researchers…food” and “in…sources”) are fused
without punctuation. Furthermore, the conjunction “while” fails to indicate that
what follows is an explanation of why some roundworms in the Southern
Hemisphere move in the opposite direction of Earth’s magnetic field. Choice D is
incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two clauses (“Researchers…
food” and “in…sources”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.

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QUESTION 26
Choice A is the best answer. “For instance” logically signals that the information in
this sentence—that larch trees lose their needles every fall—is an example
supporting the claim in the previous sentence (that not all conifer species keep
their leaves or needles year-round).

Choice B is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the

information in this sentence is true in spite of the claim about conifer species in
the previous sentence. Instead, it’s an example supporting that claim. Choice C is
incorrect because “meanwhile” illogically signals that the information in this
sentence is separate from (while occurring simultaneously with) the claim about
conifer species in the previous sentence. Instead, it’s an example supporting that
claim. Choice D is incorrect because “in addition” illogically signals that the
information in this sentence is merely an additional fact related to the claim about
conifer species in the previous sentence. Instead, it’s an example supporting that
claim.

QUESTION 27
Choice B is the best answer. “Next” logically signals that the action described in
this sentence—Konkoly recording participants’ eye movements—is the next step
in Konkoly’s experiment.

Choice A is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that this sentence

specifies or elaborates on an aspect of the action described in the previous
sentence. Instead, it describes the next step in Konkoly’s experiment. Choice C is
incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the action described in this
sentence is an example of the action described in the previous sentence. Instead,
it is the next step in Konkoly’s experiment. Choice D is incorrect because “in sum”
illogically signals that this sentence summarizes or concludes the action
described in the previous sentence. Instead, it describes the next step in
Konkoly’s experiment.

QUESTION 28
Choice D is the best answer. “Specifically” logically signals that the information in
this sentence about Sauer’s argument—that, according to Sauer, cultures play a
role in their own development, as opposed to being shaped solely by natural
surroundings—provides specific, precise details elaborating on the more general
information in the previous sentence about how Sauer challenged prevailing
views about how natural landscapes influence human cultures.

Choice A is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the information in

this sentence about Sauer’s argument is similar to, but separate from, the more
general information in the previous sentence. Instead, it provides specific, precise
details elaborating on that information. Choice B is incorrect because “finally”
illogically signals that the information in this sentence about Sauer’s argument
indicates a last step in a process or a concluding summary. Instead, it provides
specific, precise details elaborating on the general information in the previous
sentence. Choice C is incorrect because “therefore” illogically signals that the

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information in this sentence about Sauer’s argument is a result of the more

general information in the previous sentence. Instead, it provides specific, precise
details elaborating on that information.

QUESTION 29
Choice A is the best answer. “Fittingly” logically signals that the naming of an
unprecedented radiocarbon surge for Fusa Miyake is appropriate to the situation,
since Miyake is the person who identified the surge (through her Yaku Island
tree-ring analysis).

Choice B is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the information in

this sentence is similar to the previous information about Miyake’s identification
of a massive radiation burst through tree-ring analysis. Instead, the naming of the
event for its discoverer is a fitting and appropriate outcome. Choice C is incorrect
because “however” illogically signals that the information in this sentence
contrasts with the previous information about Miyake’s identification of a massive
radiation burst through tree-ring analysis. Instead, the naming of the event for its
discoverer is a fitting and appropriate outcome. Choice D is incorrect because “in
other words” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a
paraphrase or restatement of the previous information about Miyake’s
identification of a massive radiation burst through tree-ring analysis. Instead, the
naming of the event for its discoverer is a fitting and appropriate outcome.

QUESTION 30
Choice D is the best answer. “Increasingly” logically signals that the claim in this
sentence— that mathematicians are collaborating with their peers—marks a
change relative to what was traditionally done. As the previous sentence explains,
while mathematicians may have traditionally worked alone, evidence points to a
shift in the opposite direction. The claim describes the shift: a rise in
collaboration.

Choice A is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the claim in this
sentence is similar to, but separate from, the previous claim about the shift away
from mathematicians working alone. Instead, the claim about the rise in
collaboration elaborates on the previous claim, describing the shift. Choice B is
incorrect because “for this reason” illogically signals that the claim in this
sentence is caused by the previous claim about the shift away from
mathematicians working alone. Instead, the claim about the rise in collaboration
elaborates on the previous claim, describing the shift. Choice C is incorrect
because “furthermore” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence is in
addition to the previous claim about the shift away from mathematicians working
alone. Instead, the claim about the rise in collaboration elaborates on the previous
claim, describing the shift.

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QUESTION 31
Choice D is the best answer. The sentence uses “both” to emphasize a thematic
similarity between Tan’s two books, noting that both Tales from Outer Suburbia
and Tales from the Inner City describe surreal events occurring in otherwise
ordinary places.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a difference (one contains fewer

stories than the other), not a similarity, between the two books. Choice B is
incorrect. The sentence indicates that Tan’s books were published ten years
apart; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between the two books. Choice C is
incorrect. The sentence uses “unlike” to emphasize a difference between Tales
from Outer Suburbia and Tales from the Inner City; it doesn’t emphasize a
similarity between the two books.

QUESTION 32
Choice A is the best answer. Noting that “guerdon” is of Anglo-French origin and
“Laodicean” is of ancient Greek origin, the sentence uses “while” to emphasize a
difference in the origins of the two words.

Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence emphasizes two words used in the
Scripps National Spelling Bee, it doesn’t emphasize (or mention) the words’
linguistic origins. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence specifies the linguistic
origin of one word used in the Scripps National Spelling Bee, it doesn’t mention
the other word or emphasize a difference in the two words’ origins. Choice D is
incorrect. While the sentence makes a generalization about words used in the
Scripps National Spelling Bee, it doesn’t emphasize a difference in the words’
origins.

QUESTION 33
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes a similarity between the
two paintings, noting that Leutze’s painting (which measures 149 × 255 inches)
and Monkman’s painting (which measures 132 × 264 inches) are both very large.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence mentions that Monkman’s painting was

completed in 2019 and Leutze’s was completed in 1851; it doesn’t emphasize a
similarity between the two paintings. Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence
acknowledges that one painting was inspired by the other, it emphasizes
differences between the two paintings; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between
them. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence mentions a difference between the two
paintings; it doesn’t emphasize a similarity between them.

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Math
Module 1
(27 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice C is correct. For the given line graph, the percent of cars for sale at a used
car lot on a given day is represented on the vertical axis. The percent of cars for
sale is the smallest when the height of the line graph is the lowest. The lowest
height of the line graph occurs for cars with a model year of 2014.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect
and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from
conceptual errors.

QUESTION 2
Choice A is correct. The solution to this system of linear equations is represented
by the point that lies on both lines shown, or the point of intersection of the two
lines. According to the graph, the point of intersection occurs when x = 4 and
y =-5, or at the point ^4, - 5h. Therefore, the solution ^x, y h to the system is
^4, - 5h.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 3
Choice D is correct. The cost of the rental fee depends on the number of hours
the surfboard is rented. Multiplying t hours by 10 dollars per hour yields a rental
fee of 10t dollars. The total cost of the rental consists of the rental fee plus the
25 dollar service fee, which yields a total cost of 25 + 10t dollars. Since the
person intends to spend a maximum of 75 dollars to rent the surfboard, the total
cost must be at most 75 dollars. Therefore, the inequality 25 + 10t # 75
represents this situation.

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Choice A is incorrect. This represents a situation where the rental fee, not the total
cost, is at most 75 dollars. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual
or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or
calculation errors.

QUESTION 4
Choice A is correct. When a graph is translated up 4 units, each point on the
resulting graph is 4 units above the point on the original graph. In other words, the
y-value of each point on the graph increases by 4. The graph shown passes
through the points ^1, - 1h, ^2, - 2h, and ^3, - 1h. It follows that when the graph
shown is translated up 4 units, the resulting graph will pass through the points
^1, - 1 + 4h, ^2, - 2 + 4h, and ^3, - 1 + 4h. These points are ^1, 3h, ^2, 2h, and ^3, 3h,
respectively. Of the given choices, only the graph in choice A passes through the
points ^1, 3h, ^2, 2h, and ^3, 3h.

Choice B is incorrect. This is the result of translating the graph down, rather than
up, 4 units. Choice C is incorrect. This is the result of translating the graph left,
rather than up, 4 units. Choice D is incorrect. This is the result of translating the
graph right, rather than up, 4 units.

QUESTION 5
Choice D is correct. In the given equation, s is the speed, in miles per hour, of a
certain car t seconds after it began to accelerate. Therefore, the speed of the car,
in miles per hour, 5 seconds after it began to accelerate can be found by
substituting 5 for t in the given equation, which yields s = 40 + 3 ^5h, or s = 55.
Thus, the speed of the car 5 seconds after it began to accelerate is 55 miles per
hour.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 6
The correct answer is 77. It’s given that the function f is defined by
f ^xh= x 2 + x + 71. Substituting 2 for x in function f yields f ^2h=^2h2 + 2 + 71,
which is equivalent to f ^2h= 4 + 2 + 71, or f ^2h= 77. Therefore, the value of
f ^2h is 77.

QUESTION 7
The correct answer is 25. The total cost of the party is found by adding the
onetime fee of the venue to the cost per attendee times the number of attendees.
Let x be the number of attendees. The expression 35 + 10.25x thus represents
the total cost of the party. It’s given that the budget is $300, so this situation can
be represented by the inequality 35 + 10.25x # 300. Subtracting 35 from both
sides of this inequality gives 10.25x # 265. Dividing both sides of this inequality
by 10.25 results in approximately x # 25.854. Since the question is stated in
terms of attendees, rounding 25.854 down to the greatest whole number gives
the greatest number of attendees possible, which is 25.

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QUESTION 8
Choice C is correct. If one of these students is selected at random, the probability
of selecting a student whose vote for the new mascot was for a lion is given by the
number of votes for a lion divided by the total number of votes. The given table
indicates that the number of votes for a lion is 20 votes, and the total number of
votes is 80 votes. The table gives the distribution of votes for 80 students, and
the table shows a total of 80 votes were counted. It follows that each of the
80 students voted exactly once. Thus, the probability of selecting a student
whose vote for the new mascot was for a lion is 2080
, or 14 .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or computational errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or computational errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or computational errors.

QUESTION 9
Choice B is correct. It’s given that triangle ABC is congruent to triangle DEF .
Corresponding angles of congruent triangles are congruent and, therefore, have
equal measure. It’s given that angle A corresponds to angle D, and that the
measure of angle A is 18°. It’s also given that the measures of angles B and E are
90°. Since these angles have equal measure, they are corresponding angles. It
follows that angle C corresponds to angle F . Let x° represent the measure of
angle C. Since the sum of the measures of the interior angles of a triangle is 180°,
it follows that 18° + 90° + x° = 180°, or 108° + x° = 180°. Subtracting 108° from
both sides of this equation yields x° = 72°. Therefore, the measure of angle C is
72°. Since angle C corresponds to angle F , it follows that the measure of angle F
is also 72°.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the measure of angle D, not the measure of angle F .
Choice C is incorrect. This is the measure of angle E, not the measure of angle F .
Choice D is incorrect. This is the sum of the measures of angles E and F , not the
measure of angle F .

QUESTION 10
Choice B is correct. Multiplying both sides of the given equation by 4 yields
^4h^4x + 2h=^4h^12h, or 16x + 8 = 48. Therefore, the value of 16x + 8 is 48.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 11
Choice B is correct. Applying the commutative property of multiplication, the
expression ^m 4 q 4 z -1h^mq 5 z 3h can be rewritten as ^m 4 mh^q 4 q 5h^z -1 z 3h. For
positive values of x, ^x ah^x bh= x a + b . Therefore, the expression ^m 4 mh^q 4 q 5h^z -1 z 3h
can be rewritten as ^m 4 + 1h^q 4 + 5h^z -1 + 3h, or m 5 q 9 z 2 .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from multiplying, not adding, the exponents.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

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QUESTION 12
Choice B is correct. It′s given that the airplane descends at a constant rate of
400 feet per minute. Since the altitude decreases by a constant amount during
each fixed time period, the relationship between the airplane′s altitude and time is
linear. Since the airplane descends from an altitude of 9,500 feet to 5,000 feet,
the airplane′s altitude is decreasing with time. Thus, the relationship is best
modeled by a decreasing linear function.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 13
The correct answer is 1. Subtracting the second equation from the first equation
in the given system of equations yields ^3x - 3xh + ^6 - 4h= 4y - 2y , which is
equivalent to 0 + 2 = 2y , or 2 = 2y . Dividing each side of this equation by 2 yields
1= y .

QUESTION 14
The correct answer is 76. It’s given that the graph of y = g ^xh is the result of
translating the graph of y = f ^xh up 4 units in the xy-plane. It follows that the
graph of y = g ^xh is the same as the graph of y = f ^xh + 4. Substituting g ^xh
for y in the equation y = f ^xh + 4 yields g ^xh= f ^xh + 4. It’s given that
f ^xh=^x - 6h^x - 2h^x + 6h. Substituting ^x - 6h^x - 2h^x + 6h for f ^xh in the
equation g ^xh= f ^xh + 4 yields g ^xh=^x - 6h^x - 2h^x + 6h + 4. Substituting 0 for
x in this equation yields g ^0h=^0 - 6h^0 - 2h^0 + 6h + 4, or g ^0h= 76. Thus, the
value of g ^0h is 76.

QUESTION 15
Choice A is correct. The function f gives the area of the rectangle, in ft 2 , if its
width is w ft. Since the value of f ^14h is the value of f ^w h if w = 14, it follows that
f ^14h= 1,176 means that f ^w h is 1,176 if w = 14. In the given context, this means
that if the width of the rectangle is 14 ft, then the area of the rectangle is 1,176 ft 2 .

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect
and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from
interpreting f ^w h as the width, in ft, of the rectangle if its area is w ft 2 , rather than
as the area, in ft 2 , of the rectangle if its width is w ft.

QUESTION 16
Choice D is correct. Since the number of bacteria doubles every day, the
relationship between t and y can be represented by an exponential equation of
the form y = a ^bht , where a is the number of bacteria at the start of the
observation and the number of bacteria increases by a factor of b every day. It’s
given that there are 44,000 bacteria at the start of the observation. Therefore,
a = 44,000. It’s also given that the number of bacteria doubles, or increases by a
factor of 2, every day. Therefore, b = 2. Substituting 44,000 for a and 2 for b in
the equation y = a ^bht yields y = 44,000 ^2ht .

35 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect. This equation represents a situation where the number of
bacteria is decreasing by half, not doubling, every day.

QUESTION 17
Choice D is correct. The table shows an increasing exponential relationship
between the number of years, x, since Hana started training in pole vault and the
estimated height h ^xh, in meters, of her best pole vault for that year. The
relationship can be written as h ^xh= Ca x , where C and a are positive constants.
It’s given that when x = 0, h ^xh= 1.23. Substituting 0 for x and 1.23 for h ^xh in
h ^xh= Ca x yields 1.23 = Ca 0 , or 1.23= C . Substituting 1.23 for C in h ^xh= Ca x
yields h ^xh= 1.23a x . It’s also given that when x = 2, h ^xh= 1.54. Substituting 2 for
x and 1.54 for h ^xh in h ^xh= 1.23a x yields 1.54 = 1.23a 2 . Dividing each side of
a2
this equation by 1.23 yields 1.54
1.23
= 11.23
.23
, or a 2 is approximately equal to 1.252.
Since a is positive, a is approximately equal to 1.252, or 1.12. Substituting 1.12
for a in h ^xh= 1.23a x yields h ^xh= 1.23 ^1.12hx .

Choice A is incorrect. When x = 0, the value of h ^xh in this function is equal to

1.12 rather than 1.23, and it is decreasing rather than increasing. Choice B is
incorrect. When x = 0, the value of h ^xh in this function is equal to 1.12 rather
than 1.23. Choice C is incorrect. This function is decreasing rather than
increasing.

QUESTION 18
Choice A is correct. The x-intercept of a graph in the xy-plane is the point on the
graph where y = 0. It’s given that function h is defined by h ^xh= 4x + 28.
Therefore, the equation representing the graph of y = h ^xh is y = 4x + 28.
Substituting 0 for y in the equation y = 4x + 28 yields 0 = 4x + 28. Subtracting
28 from both sides of this equation yields -28 = 4x . Dividing both sides of this
equation by 4 yields -7 = x . Therefore, the x-intercept of the graph of y = h ^xh in
the xy-plane is ^-7, 0h. It’s given that the x-intercept of the graph of y = h ^xh is
^a, 0h. Therefore, a =-7. The y-intercept of a graph in the xy-plane is the point on
the graph where x = 0. Substituting 0 for x in the equation y = 4x + 28 yields
y = 4 ^0h + 28, or y = 28. Therefore, the y-intercept of the graph of y = h ^xh in the
xy-plane is ^0, 28h. It’s given that the y-intercept of the graph of y = h ^xh is ^0, bh.
Therefore, b = 28. If a =-7 and b = 28, then the value of a + b is -7 + 28, or 21.

Choice B is incorrect. This is the value of b, not a + b. Choice C is incorrect and

may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect. This is the
value of -a + b, not a + b.

QUESTION 19
Choice A is correct. Substituting 3 for x in the given inequality yields y < 5 ^3h + 6,
or y < 21. Therefore, when x = 3, the corresponding value of y is less than 21.
Substituting 5 for x in the given inequality yields y < 5 ^5h + 6, or y < 31. Therefore,
when x = 5, the corresponding value of y is less than 31. Substituting 7 for x in

36 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

the given inequality yields y < 5 ^7h + 6, or y < 41. Therefore, when x = 7, the
corresponding value of y is less than 41. For the table in choice A, when x = 3,
the corresponding value of y is 17, which is less than 21; when x = 5, the
corresponding value of y is 27, which is less than 31; and when x = 7, the
corresponding value of y is 37, which is less than 41. Therefore, the table in
choice A gives values of x and their corresponding values of y that are all
solutions to the given inequality.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 20
The correct answer is 35. The first equation in the given system of equations
defines y as 4x + 1. Substituting 4x + 1 for y in the second equation in the given
system of equations yields 4 ^4x + 1h= 15x - 8. Applying the distributive property
on the left-hand side of this equation yields 16x + 4 = 15x - 8. Subtracting 15x
from each side of this equation yields x + 4 =-8. Subtracting 4 from each side of
this equation yields x =-12. Substituting -12 for x in the first equation of the
given system of equations yields y = 4 ^-12h + 1, or y =-47. Substituting -12
for x and -47 for y into the expression x - y yields -12 - ^-47h, or 35.

QUESTION 21
The correct answer is 113. It’s given that the legs of a right triangle have lengths
24 centimeters and 21 centimeters. In a right triangle, the square of the length of
the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the lengths of the two legs. It
follows that if h represents the length, in centimeters, of the hypotenuse of the
right triangle, h 2 = 24 2 + 21 2 . This equation is equivalent to h 2 = 1,017. Taking the
square root of each side of this equation yields h = 1,017 . This equation can be
rewritten as h = 9 $ 113 , or h = 9 $ 113 . This equation is equivalent to
h = 3 113 . It’s given that the length of the triangle’s hypotenuse, in centimeters,
can be written in the form 3 d . It follows that the value of d is 113.

QUESTION 22
Choice A is correct. It’s given that the length of each side of a scale model is
1
10
times the length of the corresponding side of the actual floor of a ballroom.
Therefore, the area of the scale model is b 10 l , or
2
1 1
100
, times the area of the actual
floor of the ballroom. It’s given that the area of the floor of the ballroom is
600 square meters. Therefore, the area, in square meters, of the scale model is
` 100 j^600h, or 6.
1

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

37 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

QUESTION 23
Choice C is correct. The graph of the equation ^x - hh2 + ^y - kh2 = r 2 in the
xy-plane is a circle with center ^h, kh and a radius of length r. The radius of a circle
is the distance from the center of the circle to any point on the circle. If a circle in
the xy-plane intersects the y-axis at exactly one point, then the perpendicular
distance from the center of the circle to this point on the y-axis must be equal to
the length of the circle’s radius. It follows that the x-coordinate of the circle’s
center must be equivalent to the length of the circle’s radius. In other words, if the
graph of ^x - hh2 + ^y - kh2 = r 2 is a circle that intersects the y-axis at exactly one
point, then r = h must be true. The equation in choice C is ^x - 4h2 + ^y - 9h2 = 16,
or ^x - 4h2 + ^y - 9h2 = 4 2 . This equation is in the form ^x - hh2 + ^y - kh2 = r 2 , where
h = 4, k = 9, and r = 4, and represents a circle in the xy-plane with center ^4, 9h
and radius of length 4. Substituting 4 for r and 4 for h in the equation r = h
yields 4 = 4 , or 4 = 4, which is true. Therefore, the equation in choice C
represents a circle in the xy-plane that intersects the y-axis at exactly one point.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the equation of a circle that does not intersect the
y-axis at any point. Choice B is incorrect. This is an equation of a circle that
intersects the x-axis, not the y-axis, at exactly one point. Choice D is incorrect.
This is the equation of a circle with the center located on the y-axis and thus
intersects the y-axis at exactly two points, not exactly one point.

QUESTION 24
Choice C is correct. Since angles B and E each have the same measure and
angles C and F each have the same measure, triangles ABC and DEF are similar,
where side BC corresponds to side EF . To determine whether two similar
triangles are congruent, it is sufficient to determine whether one pair of
corresponding sides are congruent. Therefore, to determine whether
triangles ABC and DEF are congruent, it is sufficient to determine whether
sides BC and EF have equal length. Thus, the lengths of BC and EF are sufficient
to determine whether triangle ABC is congruent to triangle DEF .

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect
and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect. The given
information is sufficient to determine that triangles ABC and DEF are similar, but
not whether they are congruent.

QUESTION 25
Choice D is correct. It’s given that the result of increasing the quantity x by
1,800% is 684. It follows that x + b 1100
,800
l x = 684, which is equivalent to
x + 18x = 684, or 19x = 684. Dividing each side of this equation by 19 yields
x = 36. Therefore, the value of x is 36.

Choice A is incorrect. The result of increasing the quantity 12,996 by 1,800% is

246,924, not 684. Choice B is incorrect. The result of increasing the quantity
12,312 by 1,800% is 233,928, not 684. Choice C is incorrect. The result of
increasing the quantity 38 by 1,800% is 722, not 684.

38 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

QUESTION 26
Choice A is correct. It’s given that the window repair specialist charges $220 for
the first two hours of repair plus an hourly fee for each additional hour. Let n
represent the hourly fee for each additional hour after the first two hours. Since
it’s given that x is the number of hours of repair, it follows that the charge
generated by the hourly fee after the first two hours can be represented by the
expression n ^x - 2h. Therefore, the total cost, in dollars, for x hours of repair is
f ^xh= 220 + n ^x - 2h. It’s given that the total cost for 5 hours of repair is $400.
Substituting 5 for x and 400 for f ^xh into the equation f ^xh= 220 + n ^x - 2h
yields 400 = 220 + n ^5 - 2h, or 400 = 220 + 3n. Subtracting 220 from both sides
of this equation yields 180 = 3n. Dividing both sides of this equation by 3 yields
n = 60. Substituting 60 for n in the equation f ^xh= 220 + n ^x - 2h yields
f ^xh= 220 + 60 ^x - 2h, which is equivalent to f ^xh= 220 + 60x - 120, or
f ^xh= 60x + 100. Therefore, the total cost, in dollars, for x hours of repair is
f ^xh= 60x + 100.

Choice B is incorrect. This function represents the total cost, in dollars, for
x hours of repair where the specialist charges $340, rather than $220, for the
first two hours of repair. Choice C is incorrect. This function represents the total
cost, in dollars, for x hours of repair where the specialist charges $160, rather
than $220, for the first two hours of repair, and an hourly fee of $80, rather than
$60, after the first two hours. Choice D is incorrect. This function represents the
total cost, in dollars, for x hours of repair where the specialist charges $380,
rather than $220, for the first two hours of repair, and an hourly fee of $80, rather
than $60, after the first two hours.

QUESTION 27
The correct answer is 29
3
. Applying the distributive property to the left-hand side
of the given equation, x ^x + 1h - 56, yields x 2 + x - 56. Applying the distributive
property to the right-hand side of the given equation, 4x ^x - 7h, yields 4x 2 - 28x .
Thus, the equation becomes x 2 + x - 56 = 4x 2 - 28x . Combining like terms on the
left- and right-hand sides of this equation yields 0 =^4x 2 - x 2h + ^-28x - xh + 56,
or 3x 2 - 29x + 56 = 0. For a quadratic equation in the form ax 2 + bx + c = 0, where
a, b, and c are constants, the quadratic formula gives the solutions to the
_-b ! b 2 - 4ac i
equation in the form x = 2a
. Substituting 3 for a, -29 for b, and 56 for
c from the equation 3x - 29x + 56 = 0 into the quadratic formula yields
2

_29 ! ^-29h2 - 4^3h^56hi

x= 2^3h
, or x = 29
6
! 13
6
. It follows that the solutions to the given

equation are 29
6
+ 13
6
and 29
6
- 13
6
. Adding these two solutions gives the sum of the

solutions: 29
6
+ 13
6
+ 29
6
- 13
6
, which is equivalent to 29
6
+ 29
6
, or 29
3
. Note that 29/3,
9.666, and 9.667 are examples of ways to enter a correct answer.

39 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Math
Module 2
(27 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice D is correct. Since 1 yard is equal to 3 feet, 64 yards is equal to
64 yards c 13 yard
feet
m, or 192 feet. It follows that 64 yards per second is equivalent to
192 feet per second. Therefore, the object’s speed is 192 feet per second.

Choice A is incorrect. A speed of 61 feet per second is equivalent to 61

3
, not 64,
yards per second. Choice B is incorrect. A speed of 67 feet per second is
equivalent to 67
3
, not 64, yards per second. Choice C is incorrect. A speed of
94 feet per second is equivalent to 94
3
, not 64, yards per second.

QUESTION 2
Choice A is correct. The line of best fit shown has a positive slope and intersects
the y-axis at a positive y-value. The graph of an equation of the form y = mx + b,
where m and b are constants, has a slope of m and intersects the y-axis at a
y-value of b. Of the given choices, only y = x + 3.4 represents a line that has a
positive slope, 1, and intersects the y-axis at a positive y-value, 3.4.

Choice B is incorrect. This equation represents a line that intersects the y-axis at
a negative y-value, not a positive y-value. Choice C is incorrect. This equation
represents a line that has a negative slope, not a positive slope. Choice D is
incorrect. This equation represents a line that has a negative slope, not a positive
slope, and intersects the y-axis at a negative y-value, not a positive y-value.

QUESTION 3
Choice D is correct. It’s given that the graph shows the linear relationship
between x and y. The given graph passes through the points ^0, - 5h, ^1, - 3h,
and ^2, - 1h. It follows that when x = 0, the corresponding value of y is -5, when
x = 1, the corresponding value of y is -3, and when x = 2, the corresponding
value of y is -1. Of the given choices, only the table in choice D gives these three
values of x and their corresponding values of y for the relationship shown in the
graph.

40 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect. This table represents a relationship between x and y such

that the graph passes through the points ^0, 0h, ^1, - 7h, and ^2, - 9h. Choice B is
incorrect. This table represents a relationship between x and y such that the
graph passes through the points ^0, 0h, ^1, - 3h, and ^2, - 1h. Choice C is
incorrect. This table represents a linear relationship between x and y such that
the graph passes through the points ^0, - 5h, ^1, - 7h, and ^2, - 9h.

QUESTION 4
Choice D is correct. The perimeter of a figure is equal to the sum of the
measurements of the sides of the figure. It’s given that the rectangle has a length
of 4 inches and a width of 9 inches. Since a rectangle has 4 sides, of which
opposite sides are parallel and equal, it follows that the rectangle has two sides
with a length of 4 inches and two sides with a width of 9 inches. Therefore, the
perimeter of this rectangle is 4 + 4 + 9 + 9, or 26 inches.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the sum, in inches, of the length and the width of the
rectangle. Choice B is incorrect. This is the sum, in inches, of the two lengths and
the width of the rectangle. Choice C is incorrect. This is the sum, in inches, of the
length and the two widths of the rectangle.

QUESTION 5
Choice A is correct. Dividing each side of the given equation by 7 yields
2^n + ph
m= 7
.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect. This equation is equivalent to 7 + m = 2 ^n + ph, not
7m = 2 ^n + ph. Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or
calculation errors.

QUESTION 6
The correct answer is 79. The median of a data set with an odd number of values
is the middle value of the set when the values are ordered from least to greatest.
Because the given data set consists of nine values that are ordered from least to
greatest, the median is the fifth value in the data set. Therefore, the median of the
data shown is 79.

QUESTION 7
The correct answer is 2. Substituting 8 for f ^xh in the given equation yields
8 = 4x . Dividing the left- and right-hand sides of this equation by 4 yields x = 2.
Therefore, the value of x is 2 when f ^xh= 8.

QUESTION 8
Choice D is correct. The proportion of the paper clips that are size large can be
written as 234,000
300,000
, or 0.78. Therefore, the percentage of the paper clips that are
size large is 0.78 ^100h, or 78%.

41 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect. This is the percentage of the paper clips that are not size
large. Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 9
Choice D is correct. It’s given that the function f ^xh= 8x + 4 gives the estimated
height, in feet, of a willow tree x years after its height was first measured. For a
function defined by an equation of the form f ^xh= mx + b, where m and b are
constants, b represents the value of f ^xh when x = 0. It follows that in the given
function, 4 represents the value of f ^xh when x = 0. Therefore, the best
interpretation of 4 in this context is that the estimated height of the tree was
4 feet when it was first measured.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect
and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from
conceptual errors.

QUESTION 10
Choice B is correct. Since the point ^x, y h is an intersection point of the graphs of
the given equations in the xy-plane, the pair ^x, y h should satisfy both equations,
and thus is a solution of the given system. According to the first equation, y = 76.
Substituting 76 in place of y in the second equation yields x 2 - 5 = 76. Adding 5
to both sides of this equation yields x 2 = 81. Taking the square root of both sides
of this equation yields two solutions: x = 9 and x =-9. Of these two solutions,
only -9 is given as a choice.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect. This is the value of coordinate y, rather than x, of the
intersection point ^x, y h.

QUESTION 11
Choice A is correct. It’s given that each side of equilateral triangle S is multiplied
by a scale factor of k to create equilateral triangle T. Since the length of each side
of triangle T is greater than the length of each side of triangle S, the scale factor
of k must be greater than 1. Of the given choices, only 29 28
is greater than 1.

Choice B is incorrect. If each side of equilateral triangle S is multiplied by a scale

factor of 1, the length of each side of triangle T would be equal to the length of
each side of triangle S. Choice C is incorrect. If each side of equilateral triangle S
is multiplied by a scale factor of 28
29
, the length of each side of triangle T would be
less than the length of each side of triangle S. Choice D is incorrect and may
result from conceptual or calculation errors.

42 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 12
Choice C is correct. If the two sides of a linear equation are equivalent, then the
equation is true for any value. If an equation is true for any value, it has infinitely
many solutions. Since the two sides of the given linear equation 66x = 66x are
equivalent, the given equation has infinitely many solutions.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 13
The correct answer is 41. The number of cupcakes Vivian bought can be found by
first finding the amount Vivian spent on cupcakes. The amount Vivian spent on
cupcakes can be found by subtracting the amount Vivian spent on party hats
from the total amount Vivian spent. The amount Vivian spent on party hats can be
found by multiplying the cost per package of party hats by the number of
packages of party hats, which yields $3 $ 10, or $30. Subtracting the amount
Vivian spent on party hats, $30, from the total amount Vivian spent, $71, yields
$71 - $30, or $41. Since the amount Vivian spent on cupcakes was $41 and each
cupcake cost $1, it follows that Vivian bought 41 cupcakes.

QUESTION 14
The correct answer is 11,875. It’s given that the exponential function g is defined
by g ^xh= 19 $ a x , where a is a positive constant, and g ^3h= 2,375. It follows that
when x = 3, g ^xh= 2,375. Substituting 3 for x and 2,375 for g ^xh in the given
equation yields 2,375 = 19 $ a 3 . Dividing each side of this equation by 19 yields
125 = a 3 . Taking the cube root of both sides of this equation gives a = 5.
Substituting 4 for x and 5 for a in the equation g ^xh= 19 $ a x yields g ^4h= 19 $ 5 4 ,
or g ^4h= 11,875. Therefore, the value of g ^4h is 11,875.

QUESTION 15
Choice B is correct. The sine of any acute angle is equal to the cosine of its
complement. It’s given that in right triangle RST , the sum of the measures of
angle R and angle S is 90 degrees. Therefore, angle R and angle S are
complementary, and the value of sin R is equal to the value of cos S. It’s given that
the value of sin R is 15
4
, so the value of cos S is also 15
4
.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of tan S. Choice C is incorrect. This is the
value of 1
cos S
. Choice D is incorrect. This is the value of tan1 S .

QUESTION 16
Choice B is correct. The graph shown is a line passing through the points ^0, 40h
and ^60, 0h. Since the relationship between x and y is linear, if two points on the
graph make a linear equation true, then the equation represents the
relationship. Substituting 0 for x and 40 for y in the equation in choice B,

43 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

8x + 12y = 480, yields 8 ^0h + 12 ^40h= 480, or 480 = 480, which is true.
Substituting 60 for x and 0 for y in the equation 8x + 12y = 480 yields
8 ^60h + 12 ^0h= 480, or 480 = 480, which is true. Therefore, the equation
8x + 12y = 480 represents the relationship between x and y.

Choice A is incorrect. The point ^0, 40h is not on the graph of this equation, since
40 = 8 ^0h + 12, or 40 = 12, is not true. Choice C is incorrect. The point ^0, 40h is
not on the graph of this equation, since 40 = 12 ^0h + 8, or 40 = 8, is not true.
Choice D is incorrect. The point ^0, 40h is not on the graph of this equation, since
12 ^0h + 8 ^40h= 480, or 320 = 480, is not true.

QUESTION 17
Choice B is correct. The given expression has a common factor of 2 in the
8x^x - 7h- 3^x - 7h
denominator, so the expression can be rewritten as 2^x - 7h
. The three
terms in this expression have a common factor of ^x - 7h. Since it’s given that
x > 7, x can’t be equal to 7, which means ^x - 7h can’t be equal to 0. Therefore,
8x^x - 7h- 3^x - 7h
each term in the expression, , can be divided by ^x - 7h, which
2^x - 7h
8x - 3
gives 2
.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 18
Choice A is correct. The y-intercept of the graph of y = f ^xh in the xy-plane
occurs at the point on the graph where x = 0. In other words, when x = 0, the
corresponding value of f ^xh is the y-coordinate of the y-intercept. Substituting 0
for x in the given equation yields f ^0h=^-8h^2h0 + 22, which is equivalent to
f ^0h=^-8h^1h + 22, or f ^0h= 14. Thus, when x = 0, the corresponding value of
f ^xh is 14. Therefore, the y-intercept of the graph of y = f ^xh in the xy-plane is
^0, 14h.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect. This could be the y-intercept for f ^xh=^-8h^2hx , not
f ^xh=^-8h^2hx + 22.

QUESTION 19
Choice C is correct. It’s given that the equation 3x + 5y = 32 represents the
situation where Keenan filled x small jars and y large jars with all the vegetable
broth he made, which was 32 cups. Therefore, 3x represents the total number of
cups of vegetable broth in the small jars and 5y represents the total number of
cups of vegetable broth in the large jars.

Choice A is incorrect. The number of large jars Keenan filled is represented by y,

not 5y . Choice B is incorrect. The number of small jars Keenan filled is
represented by x, not 5y . Choice D is incorrect. The total number of cups of
vegetable broth in the small jars is represented by 3x , not 5y .

44 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 20
The correct answer is 5. The standard form of an equation of a circle in the
xy-plane is ^x - hh2 + ^y - kh2 = r 2 , where h, k, and r are constants, the
coordinates of the center of the circle are ^h, kh, and the length of the radius of the
circle is r. It′s given that an equation of the circle is ^x - 2h2 + ^y - 9h2 = r 2 .
Therefore, the center of this circle is ^2, 9h. It’s given that the endpoints of a
diameter of the circle are ^2, 4h and ^2, 14h. The length of the radius is the
distance from the center of the circle to an endpoint of a diameter of the circle,
which can be found using the distance formula, ^x1 - x2h2 + ^y1 - y2h2 .
Substituting the center of the circle ^2, 9h and one endpoint of the diameter ^2, 4h
in this formula gives a distance of ^2 - 2h2 + ^9 - 4h2 , or 0 2 + 5 2 , which is
equivalent to 5. Since the distance from the center of the circle to an endpoint of
a diameter is 5, the value of r is 5.

QUESTION 21
The correct answer is 14 . For an equation in slope-intercept form y = mx + b, m
represents the slope of the line in the xy-plane defined by this equation. It’s given
that line , is defined by 3y + 12x = 5. Subtracting 12x from both sides of this
equation yields 3y =-12x + 5. Dividing both sides of this equation by 3 yields
y =- 12
3
x + 53 , or y =-4x + 53 . Thus, the slope of line , in the xy-plane is -4.
Since line n is perpendicular to line , in the xy-plane, the slope of line n is the
negative reciprocal of the slope of line ,. The negative reciprocal of -4 is
- ^-14h = 14 . Note that 1/4 and .25 are examples of ways to enter a correct answer.

QUESTION 22
Choice D is correct. By the definition of absolute value, if -5x + 13 = 73, then
-5x + 13 = 73 or -5x + 13 =-73. Subtracting 13 from both sides of the
equation -5x + 13 = 73 yields -5x = 60. Dividing both sides of this equation by
-5 yields x =-12. Subtracting 13 from both sides of the equation
-5x + 13 =-73 yields -5x =-86. Dividing both sides of this equation by -5
yields x = 86
5
. Therefore, the solutions to the given equation are -12 and 86
5
, and it
follows that the sum of the solutions to the given equation is -12 + 5 , or 5 .
86 26

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect. This is a solution, not the sum of the solutions, to the given
equation. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation
errors.

QUESTION 23
Choice C is correct. For the form of the function in choice C, f ^xh= 128 ^1.6hx - 1 ,
the value of f ^1h can be found as 128 ^1.6h1 - 1 , which is equivalent to 128 ^1.6h0 , or
128. Therefore, k = 128, which is shown in f ^xh= 128 ^1.6hx - 1 as the coefficient.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

45 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 24
Choice C is correct. It’s given that the equation -9x 2 + 30x + c = 0 has exactly
one solution. A quadratic equation of the form ax 2 + bx + c = 0 has exactly one
solution if and only if its discriminant, -4ac + b 2 , is equal to zero. It follows that for
the given equation, a =-9 and b = 30. Substituting -9 for a and 30 for b into
b 2 - 4ac yields 30 2 - 4 ^-9h^ch, or 900 + 36c. Since the discriminant must equal
zero, 900 + 36c = 0. Subtracting 36c from both sides of this equation yields
900 =-36c. Dividing each side of this equation by -36 yields -25 = c.
Therefore, the value of c is -25.

Choice A is incorrect. If the value of c is 3, this would yield a discriminant that is

greater than zero. Therefore, the given equation would have two solutions, rather
than exactly one solution. Choice B is incorrect. If the value of c is 0, this would
yield a discriminant that is greater than zero. Therefore, the given equation would
have two solutions, rather than exactly one solution. Choice D is incorrect. If the
value of c is -53, this would yield a discriminant that is less than zero. Therefore,
the given equation would have no real solutions, rather than exactly one solution.

QUESTION 25
Choice D is correct. Since each choice has a term of 3x 2 , which can be written as
^3xh^xh, and each choice has a term of 14b, which can be written as ^7h^2bh, the
expression that has a factor of x + 2b, where b is a positive integer constant, can
be represented as ^3x + 7h^x + 2bh. Using the distributive property of
multiplication, this expression is equivalent to 3x ^x + 2bh + 7 ^x + 2bh, or
3x 2 + 6xb + 7x + 14b. Combining the x-terms in this expression yields
3x 2 + ^7 + 6bh x + 14b. It follows that the coefficient of the x-term is equal to
7 + 6b. Thus, from the given choices, 7 + 6b must be equal to 7, 28, 42, or 49.
Therefore, 6b must be equal to 0, 21, 35, or 42, respectively, and b must be equal
to 06 , , 6 , or 42
21 35
6 6
, respectively. Of these four values of b, only 42
6
, or 7, is a
positive integer. It follows that 7 + 6b must be equal to 49 because this is the only
choice for which the value of b is a positive integer constant. Therefore, the
expression that has a factor of x + 2b is 3x 2 + 49x + 14b.

Choice A is incorrect. If this expression has a factor of x + 2b, then the value of b
is 0, which isn’t positive. Choice B is incorrect. If this expression has a factor of
x + 2b, then the value of b is 21
6
, which isn’t an integer. Choice C is incorrect. If
this expression has a factor of x + 2b, then the value of b is 356
, which isn’t an
integer.

QUESTION 26
Choice B is correct. The histograms shown have the same shape, but data set A
contains values between 20 and 60 and data set B contains values between 10
and 50. Thus, the mean of data set A is greater than the mean of data set B.
Therefore, the smallest possible difference between the mean of data set A and
the mean of data set B is the difference between the smallest possible mean of
data set A and the greatest possible mean of data set B. In data set A, since there

46 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

 SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

are 3 integers in the interval greater than or equal to 20 but less than 30,
4 integers greater than or equal to 30 but less than 40, 7 integers greater than or
equal to 40 but less than 50, and 9 integers greater than or equal to 50 but less
^3 $ 20h+^4 $ 30h+^7 $ 40h+^9 $ 50h
than 60, the smallest possible mean for data set A is 23
. In
data set B, since there are 3 integers greater than or equal to 10 but less than 20,
4 integers greater than or equal to 20 but less than 30, 7 integers greater than or
equal to 30 but less than 40, and 9 integers greater than or equal to 40 but less
^3 $ 19h+^4 $ 29h+^7 $ 39h+^9 $ 49h
than 50, the largest possible mean for data set B is 23
.
Therefore, the smallest possible difference between the mean of data set A and
^3 $ 20h+^4 $ 30h+^7 $ 40h+^9 $ 50h ^3 $ 19h+^4 $ 29h+^7 $ 39h+^9 $ 49h
the mean of data set B is 23
- 23
,
^3 $ 20h-^3 $ 19h+^4 $ 30h-^4 $ 29h+^7 $ 40h-^7 $ 39h+^9 $ 50h-^9 $ 49h
which is equivalent to 23
. This
3^20 - 19h+ 4^30 - 29h+ 7^40 - 39h+ 9^50 - 49h
expression can be rewritten as 23
, or 23 , which
23

is equal to 1. Therefore, the smallest possible difference between the mean of

data set A and the mean of data set B is 1.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the smallest possible difference between the ranges,
not the means, of the data sets. Choice C is incorrect. This is the difference
between the greatest possible mean, not the smallest possible mean, of data
set A and the greatest possible mean of data set B. Choice D is incorrect. This is
the smallest possible difference between the sum of the values in data set A and
the sum of the values in data set B, not the smallest possible difference between
the means.

QUESTION 27
The correct answer is 104. An equilateral triangle is a triangle in which all three
sides have the same length and all three angles have a measure of 60°. The height
of the triangle, k 3, is the length of the altitude from one vertex. The altitude
divides the equilateral triangle into two congruent 30-60-90 right triangles, where
the altitude is the side across from the 60° angle in each 30-60-90 right triangle.
Since the altitude has a length of k 3, it follows from the properties of
30-60-90 right triangles that the side across from each 30° angle has a length of
k and each hypotenuse has a length of 2k . In this case, the hypotenuse of
each 30-60-90 right triangle is a side of the equilateral triangle; therefore, each
side length of the equilateral triangle is 2k . The perimeter of a triangle is the sum
of the lengths of each side. It’s given that the perimeter of the equilateral triangle
is 624; therefore, 2k + 2k + 2k = 624, or 6k = 624. Dividing both sides of this
equation by 6 yields k = 104.

47 SAT PRACTICE TEST #10 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS