PART-I: PHYSICS

1. The value of electric potential at any point 6. Two identical thin metal plates has charge 𝒒𝟏
due to any electric dipole is and 𝒒𝟐 respectively such that 𝒒𝟏 > 𝒒𝟐 . The
[New NCERT/XII/50, 51] plates were brought close to each other to
(1) 𝑘 ⋅
𝑝⃗×𝑟⃗
(2) 𝑘 ⋅
𝑝⃗×𝑟⃗ form a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance
𝑟2 𝑟3
𝑝⃗⋅𝑟⃗ 𝑝⃗⋅𝑟⃗
𝑪. The potential difference between them is :
(3) 𝑘 ⋅ (4) 𝑘 ⋅ [New NCERT/XII/72]
𝑟2 𝑟3
2. An electron of mass 𝒎 and charge e initially at (1)
(𝑞1 +𝑞2 )
(2)
(𝑞1 −𝑞2 )
𝐶 𝐶
rest gets accelerated by a constant electric (𝑞1 −𝑞2 ) 2(𝑞1 −𝑞2 )
field E . The rate of change of de-Broglie (3) (4)
2𝐶 𝐶
wavelength of this electron at time 𝒕 ignoring 7. When a potential difference 𝑽 is applied across
relativistic effects is [New NCERT/XII/285] a conductor at a temperature 𝑻, the drift
(1)
−h
(2)
− eht velocity of electrons is proportional to
eEt2 𝐸
−mh −ℎ [New NCERT/XII/86]
(3) (4)
eEt2 𝑒𝐸 (1) √𝑉 (2) V
3. The position of particle is given by 𝒓 ⃗⃗ = 𝟐𝒕𝟐 𝒊ˆ + (3) √𝑇 (4) T
𝟑𝒕𝒋ˆ + 𝟒𝒌ˆ, where 𝒕 is in second and the 8. In magnitude hydraulic stress is equal to
coefficients have proper units for 𝐫⃗ to be in [New NCERT/XI/169]
metre. The 𝐚 ⃗⃗(𝐭) of the particle at 𝒕 = 𝟏 𝐬 is (1) hydraulic force (2) hydraulic pressure
[New NCERT/XI/36] (3) restoring force (4) hydraulic strain
(1) 4 m s along y-direction
−2
9. A particle of mass 0.3 kg subject to a force 𝐅 =
(2) 3 m s −2 along 𝑥-direction −𝐤𝐱 with 𝐤 = 𝟏𝟓 𝐍/𝐦. What will be its initial
(3) 4 m s −2 along 𝑥-direction acceleration if it is released from a point 20
(4) 2 m s −2 along z -direction cm away from the origin? [New NCERT/XI/54]
4. A charge 𝑸 is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical (1) 15 m/s 2 (2) 3 m/s 2
surface of radius R . If the radius is doubled, (3) 10 m/s 2
(4) 5 m/s 2
then the outward electric flux will 10. Maximum speed of car for safe turning on
[New NCERT/XII/30] horizontal road is [New NCERT/XI/64]
(1) increase four times (1) √𝜇𝑅𝑔 (2) 2√𝜇𝑅𝑔
(2) be reduced to half
(3) √𝑅𝑔 (4) 4√𝑅𝑔
(3) remain the same
11. Assertion: Ampere's law used for the closed
(4) be doubled
loop shown in figure is written as ∮ ⃗𝑩 ⃗⃗ =
⃗⃗ ⋅ 𝒅𝓵
5. The number of significant figures in a number
" 1700.00200 " is [New NCERT/XI/4, 5] 𝝁𝟎 (𝒊𝟏 − 𝒊𝟐 ). Right side of it does not include 𝒊𝟑 ,
(1) 3 (2) 7 because it produces no magnetic field at the
(3) 9 (4) 10 loop.
Reason : The line integral of magnetic field
produced by 𝒊𝟑 over the close loop is zero.
 [New NCERT/XII/118] (1) Both statement I and II are correct.
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but statement 𝐼 is
In the light of the above statements-Assertion incorrect.
& Reason, choose the most appropriate 15. If a motorcyclist skids and stops after
answer from the options given below : covering a distance of 15 m . The stopping
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and force acting on the motorcycle by the road is
the Reason is a correct explanation of the 100 N , then the work done by the motorcycle
Assertion. on the road is [New NCERT/XI/74]
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but (1) 1500 J (2) -1500 J
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (3) 750 J (4) Zero
Assertion. 16. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with a
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is velocity of 𝟑𝟔 𝐤𝐦/𝐡 has a head on collision
incorrect. with a stationary ball of mass 3 kg . If after the
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is collision, the two balls move together, the loss
correct. in kinetic energy due to collision is
12. A bar magnet having centre 𝑶 has a length of [New NCERT/XI/84, 85]
4 cm. Point 𝑷𝟏 is in the broad side-on and 𝑷𝟐 (1) 140 J (2) 100 J
is in the end side-on position with 𝐎𝐏𝟏 = 𝐎𝐏𝟐 = (3) 60 J (4) 40 J
𝟏𝟎 metres. The ratio of magnetic intensities 𝑯 17. The coordinates of centre of mass of a uniform
at 𝑷𝟏 and 𝑷𝟐 is [New NCERT/XII/139] flag shaped lamina (thin flat plale) of mass 4
(1) H1 : H2 = 16: 100 (2) H1 : H2 = 1: 2 kg. (The coordinates of the same are shown in
(3) H1 : H2 = 2: 1 (4) H1 : H2 = 100: 16 figure) are: [New NCERT/XI/98]
13. Fig shown below represents an area 𝐀 = 𝟎. 𝟓 𝐦𝟐
situated in a uniform magnetic field 𝑩 = 𝟐. 𝟎
weber /𝐦𝟐 and making an angle of 𝟔𝟎∘ with
respect to magnetic field.
[New NCERT/XII/157]

(1) (1.25 m, 1.50 m) (2) (0.75 m, 1.75 m)

(3) (0.75 m, 0.75 m) (4) (1 m, 1.75 m)
18. When a ceiling fan is switched off, its angular
velocity falls to half while it makes 36
The value of the magnetic flux through the area
rotations. How many more rotations will it
would be equal to
make before coming to rest?
(1) 2.0 weber (2) √3 weber
[New NCERT/XI/117]
(3) √3/2 weber (4) 0.5 weber (1) 24 (2) 36
14. Given below are two statements: In the light (3) 18 (4) 12
of the given statements, choose the correct 19. Newton's universal law of gravitation applies
answer from the options given. to
Statement I : Mass is a measure of inertia of (1) small bodies only
the body. Statement II : Greater the mass, (2) planets only
greater is the force required to change its (3) both small and big bodies
state of rest or of uniform motion. (4) only valid for solar system
[New NCERT/XI/50, 51, 52]
20. An A.C. source is connected to a resistive (3) Stoke's law
circuit. Which of the following is true? (4) Pascal's law
[New NCERT/XII/181] 26. A beaker of radius 15 cm is filled with a liquid
(1) Current leads ahead of voltage in phase of surface tension 𝟎.
𝟎𝟕𝟓 𝐍
. Force across an
𝐦
(2) Current lags behind voltage in phase
imaginary diameter on the surface of the
(3) Current and voltage are in same phase
liquid is [New NCERT/XI/194]
(4) Any of the above may be true depending upon
(1) 0.075 N (2) 1.5 × 10−2 N
the value of resistance.
(3) 0.225 N (4) 2.25 × 10−2 N
21. In order to establish an instantaneous
27. An iron tyre is to be fitted on to a wooden
displacemet current of 5 mA in the space
wheel 1 m in diameter. The diameter of tyre is
between the plates of 𝟓𝝁 𝐅 parallel plate
6 mm smaller than that of wheel. The tyre
capacitor, the potential difference need to
should be heated so that its temperature
apply is [New NCERT/XII/203]
increases by a minimum of (the coefficient of
(1) 100Vs −1
(2) 200Vs −1
cubical expansion of iron is 𝟑. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟓 / ∘ 𝐂 )
(3) 300Vs −1
(4) 1000Vs −1
[New NCERT/XI/207]
22. A concave mirror is used for face viewing has
(1) 167∘ C (2) 334∘ C
focal length of 0.6 m . At whay distance you
(3) 500∘ C (4) 1000∘ C
should hold the mirror from your face to get
28. In 𝑷 − 𝑽 diagram shown in figure 𝑨𝑩𝑪 is a
an upright image with a magnification of 4 ?
semicircle. The work done in the process 𝑨𝑩𝑪
[New NCERT/XII/226]
is
(1) 0.20 m (2) 0.25 m
[New NCERT/XI/230]
(3) 0.40 m (4) 0.45 m −𝜋
(1) 4 J (2) J
23. Two satellites A and B of masses 200 kg and 2
𝜋
400 kg are revolving round the earth at height (3) J (4) zero
2
of 600 km and 1600 km respectively. 29. A and B are two metals with threshold
If 𝑻𝑨 and 𝑻𝑩 are the time periods of 𝑨 and 𝑩 frequencies 𝟏. 𝟖 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟒 𝐇𝐳 and 𝟐. 𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟒 𝐇𝐳.
respectively then the value of 𝑻𝑩 − 𝑻𝑨 : Two identical photons of energy 0.825 eV each
are incident on them. Then photoelectrons
are emitted in (Take 𝐡 = 𝟔. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑𝟒 𝐉𝐬 )
[New NCEETT/XII/281]
(1) B alone (2) A alone
(3) neither A nor B (4) both A and B
30. In a car race on straight road, car 𝑨 takes a
[Given: radius of earth = 𝟔𝟒𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐦, mass of time 𝒕 less than car 𝑩 at the finish and passes
earth = 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟒 𝐤𝐠 ] [New NCERT/XI/137] finishing point with a speed ' 𝒗 ' more than of
(1) 4.24 × 102 s (2) 1.33 × 103 s car B. Both the cars start from rest and travel
(3) 4.24 × 103 s (4) 3.33 × 102 s with constant acceleration 𝐚𝟏 and 𝐚𝟐
24. A body is moving with a constant speed 𝒗 in a respectively. Then ' 𝒗 ' is equal to:
circle of radius 𝒓. Its angular acceleration is [New NCERT/XI/18]
[New NCERT/XI/42] (1)
2𝑎1 𝑎2
𝑡 (2) √2𝑎1 𝑎2 𝑡
𝑎1 +𝑎2
(1) vr (2) v/r 𝑎 +𝑎
(3) zero (4) vr 2 (3) √𝑎1 𝑎2 𝑡 (4) 1 2 𝑡
2
25. Hydraulic lifts and hydraulic brakes are based 31. The significant result deduced from the
on [New NCERT/XI/185] Rutherford's scattering experiment is that
(1) Archimedes' principle [New NCERT/XII/293]
(2) Bernoulli's principle (1) whole of the positive charge is concentrated at
the centre of atom
(2) there are neutrons inside the nucleus
 (3) 𝛼-particles are helium nuclei 𝝎 along the 𝒙-axis. Their mean position is
(4) electrons are embedded in the atom separated by distance 𝑿𝟎 (𝑿𝟎 > 𝑨). If the
32. A nucleus splits into two nuclear parts which maximum separation between them is (𝐗 𝟎 +
have their velocity ratio equal to 𝟐: 𝟏. What 𝐀), the phase difference between their motion
will be the ratio of their nuclear radius? is [New NCERT/XI/264]
𝜋 𝜋
[New NCERT/XII/309] (1) (2)
1 1 3 4
𝜋 𝜋
(1) 23 : 1 (2) 1: 23 (3) (4)
1 1 6 2
(3) 3 : 1
2 (4) 1: 3
2 38. The bulk modulus of a liquid of density
33. An experment is performed to find the 𝟖𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠 𝐦−𝟑 is 𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎𝟗 𝐍 𝐦−𝟐 . The speed of
refractive index of glass using a travelling sound in that liquid is (in 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 )
microscope. In this experiment distances are [New NCERT/XI/287]
measured by [XII/Practical Skills] (1) 200 (2) 250
(1) a vernier scale provided on the microscope (3) 100 (4) 500
(2) a standard laboratory scale 39. Two balls of same mass and carrying equal
(3) a meter scale provided on the microscope harge are hung from a fixed support of length
(4) a screwgauge provided on the microscope 𝒍. At electrostatic equilibrium, assuming that
34. Which one is the correct option for the two angles made by each thread is small, the
different thermodynamic processes? separation, 𝒙 between the balls is proportional
[New NCERT/XI/235] to : [New NCERT/XII/7]
(1) 𝑙 (2) 𝑙 2
(3) 𝑙 2/3 (4) 𝑙1/3
40. The Kirchhoff's second law ( 𝚺𝐢𝐑 = 𝚺𝐄 ), where
the symbols have their usual meanings, is
(a) (b) based on [New NCERT/XII/97, 98]
(1) conservation of momentum
(2) conservation of charge
(3) conservation of potential
(4) conservation of energy
(c) (d) 41. Match Column I with Column II.
(1) (c) and (d) (2) (a) only Column I
(3) (c) and (a) (4) (b) and (c) (A) Biot-Savart's law
35. A gas in a container 𝑨 is in thermal (B) Torque on a current carrying coil placed in a
equilibrium with antoher gas of the same mass uniform magnetic field.
in container B. If we denote the corresponding (C) Force between two parallel current carrying
pressures and volumes by the suffixes A and conductors
𝑩, then which of the following statement is (D) Lorentz force
most likely to be true? [New NCERT/XI/247] Column II
(1) PA = PB , VA ≠ VB (2) PA ≠ PB , VA = VB ⃗⃗ = 𝜇0 𝑖 ∫ 𝑑𝑙sin2 𝜃 𝑛ˆ
(4) 𝐵
4𝜋 𝑟
(3) PA /VA = PB /VB (4) 𝑃𝐴 𝑉𝐴 = 𝑃𝐵 𝑉𝐵
[New NCERT/XII/109, 113, 123, 125, 126]
36. The number of collisions per second suffered
(1) (A) → (4); (B) → (3); (C) → (1); (D) → (2)
by a molecule in a sample of hydrogen at S.T.P
(2) (A) → (2); (B) → (2); (C) → (4); (D) → (3)
is: [Mean free path = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟖 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟓 𝐜𝐦 ]
(3) (A) → (4); (B) → (3); (C) → (2); (D) → (1)
[New NCERT/XI/255]
(4) (A) → (2); (B) → (1); (C) → (4); (D) → (3)
(1) 10 15
(2) 8.3 × 1012
42. Two conducting circular loops of radii 𝑹𝟏 and
(3) 1.1 × 10 6
(4) 1.23 × 1010
𝑹𝟐 are placed in the same plane with their
37. Two particles are executing simple harmonic
centres coinciding. If 𝑹𝟏 ≫ 𝑹𝟐 , the mutual
motion of the same amplitude 𝑨 and frequency
 inductance 𝑴 between them will be directly reflected ray is completely polarised. The
proportional to [New NCERT/XII/166] velocity of light in glass is
(1) R1 /R 2 (2) 𝑅2 /𝑅1 [New NCERT/XII/381]
(3) 𝑅12 /𝑅2 (4) 𝑅22 /𝑅1 (1) √2 × 108 ms −1 (2) √3 × 108 ms −1
43. A vernier calipers has 1 mm marks on the (3) 2 × 108 ms −1 (4) 3 × 108 ms −1
main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the 45. Identify the logic operation carried out.
Vernier scale which match with 16 main scale [New NCERT/XII/493]
divisions. For this Vernier calipers, the least
count is [XI/Practical Skills]
(1) 0.02 mm (2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.2 mm
44. When the angle of incidence is 𝟔𝟎∘ on the
surface of a glass slab, it is found that the (1) OR (2) AND
(3) NOR (4) NAND

PART-II: CHEMISTRY

46. Why the size of an anion is larger than the 48. At the state of dynamic equilibrium, for solute
parent atom? [New NCERT/XI/87] + solvent ⇋ solution. [New NCERT/XII/6]
(1) Due to increased repulsion among the (1) Rate of dissolution = Rate of unsaturation.
electrons. (2) Rate of dissolution = Rate of unsaturation.
(2) Due to decrease in effective nuclear charge. (3) Rate of dissolution = Rate of saturation
(3) Due to increased in effective nuclear charge. (4) Rate of crystallization = Rate of saturation.
(4) Both (1) and (2) 49. The formation of CO and 𝐂𝐎𝟐 illustrates the
47. Match Column-I with Column-II. law of [New NCERT/XI/15]
[New NCERT/XI/162] (1) reciprocal proportion
Column-I (2) conservation of mass
(A) Δ𝐻 = −ve; Δ𝑆 = −ve Δ𝐺 = −𝑣𝑒 (3) multiple proportion
(B) Δ𝐻 = −ve; Δ𝑆 = −ve Δ𝐺 = +ve (4) constant composition
(C) Δ𝐻 = +ve; Δ𝑆 = +ve Δ𝐺 = +ve 50. Assertion : The resistivity for a substance is
(D) ΔH = +ve; Δ𝑆 = +ve Δ𝐺 = −ve its resistance when it is one meter long and
Column-II its area of cross section is one square meter.
(p) Reaction will be non-spontaneous at high Reason : The SI units of resistivity is ohm
temperature metre (𝛀𝐦). [New NCERT/XII/41]
(q) Reaction will be non-spontaneous at low (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
temperature the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(r) Reaction will be spontaneous at low Assertion.
temperature (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(s) Reaction will be spontaneous at high Reason is not a correct explanation of the
temperature Assertion.
(1) A − (q), B − (r), C − (p), D − (s) (3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
(2) A − (r), B − (p), C − (q), D − (s) incorrect.
(3) A − (r), B − (q), C − (s), D − (p) (4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
(4) A − (q), B − (s), C − (p), D − (r) correct.
51. Statement 𝑰 : The geometry of amines is Reason: Rate of reaction remains constant
pyramidal. during the course of reaction.
Statement II : The angle 𝐂 − 𝐍 − 𝐂 or 𝐂 − 𝐍 − 𝐇 [New NCERT/XII/62]
is slightly more than 𝟏𝟎𝟗. 𝟓∘ . (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
[New NCERT/XII/259-260] the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) Both statement I and II are correct. Assertion.
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect. (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is Reason is not a correct explanation of the
incorrect. Assertion.
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is (3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
incorrect. incorrect.
52. Mark the oxide which is amphoteric in (4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
character [Old NCERT/XI/324] correct.
(1) CO2 (2) SiO2 58. Identify the correct IUPAC name of the
(3) SnO2 (4) CaO compound given below [New NCERT/XI/269]
53. The correct IUPAC name of [𝐏𝐭(𝐍𝐇𝟑 )𝟐 𝐂𝐥𝟐 ] is
[New NCERT/XII/123]
(1) Diamminedichloridoplatinum(II)
(2) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (IV)
(3) Diamminedichloridoplatinum (0)
(4) Dichloridodiammineplatinum (IV) (1) 4-benzyl-5-methyl hexanal
54. The equilibrium constant for the reversible (2) 2-methyl-3-phenyl hexanal
reaction (3) 5-isopropyl-5-phenyl butanal
𝐍𝟐 + 𝟑𝐇𝟐 ⇌ 𝟐𝐍𝐇𝟑 is 𝑲 and for reaction (4) 5-methyl-4-phenyl hexanal
𝟏 𝟑
𝐍𝟐 + 𝐇𝟐 ⇌ 𝐍𝐇𝟑 , the equilibrium constant is 59. Commercially carboxylic acids are reduced to
𝟐 𝟐
alcohols by converting them to the .
𝑲′
[New NCERT/XII/200]
The 𝑲 and 𝑲′ will be related as:
(1) esters (2) aldehydes
[New NCERT/XI/176]
(3) ketones (4) amines
(1) 𝐾 × 𝐾 = 1
′
(2) 𝐾 = 𝐾 ′
60. Which one of the following gives only one
(3) 𝐾 ′ = √𝐾 (4) 𝐾 = √𝐾 ′ monochloro derivative? [New NCERT/XI/303]
55. In qualitative analysis 𝐍𝐇𝟒 𝐂𝐥 is added before (1) n-Hexane
𝐍𝐇𝟒 𝐎𝐇 [Practical Chemistry] (2) 2-Methylpentane
(1) to decrease [OH ] conc.
−
(3) 2,3-Dimethylpentane
(2) to increase [OH − ]conc. (4) neo-Pentane
(3) for making HCl 61. The reagent which does not react with both,
(4) to increase [Cl− ]conc. acetone and benzaldehyde?
56. Which of the following is not permissible [New NCERT/XII/239]
arrangement of electrons in an atom? (1) Sodium hydrogen sulphite
[New NCERT/XI/56] (2) Phenyl hydrazine
(1) 𝑛 = 5, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = +1/2 (3) Fehling's solution
(2) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = −3, 𝑠 = −1/2 (4) Grignard reagent
(3) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = −1/2 62. The common oxidation states of Ti are
(4) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 0, 𝑚 = 0, 𝑠 = −1/2 [New NCERT/XII/96]
57. Assertion: The rate of the reaction is the rate (1) +2 and +3 (2) +3 and +4
of change of concentration of a reactant or a (3) - 3 and -4 (4) +2, +3 and +4
product. 63. Which of the following molecule exist?
[New NCERT/XI/129]
 (1) He2 (2) Be2 (ii) Iodine has same physical state but different
(3) Li2 (4) Both (1) and (2) colour as compare to other members of the group.
64. Statement I : Denaturation leads to the (iii) Fluorine shows no positive oxidation state.
conversion of globular protein into fibrous (iv) In X2 ( g) + H2 O(l) ⟶ HX(aq) + HOX(aq)
protein (where X 2 = Cl or Br )
Statement II : Denaturation affects primary (v) 𝐹2 is the strongest oxidising halogen.
structure which gets distorted (1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
[New NCERT/XII/294] (2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(1) Both statement I and II are correct. (3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect. (4) (iii) and (v)
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is 70. Pyruvic acid is obtained by
incorrect. [New NCERT/XII/237]
(4) Statement II is correct but statement 𝐼 is (1) oxidation of formaldehyde cyanohydrin
incorrect. (2) oxidation of acetaldehyde cyanohydrin
65. Two compounds benzyl alcohol and benzoic (3) oxidation of benzaldehyde cyanohydrin
acid are formed from a compound, when it is (4) oxidation of acetone cyanohydrin
heated in the presence of conc. NaOH, this 71. The IUPAC name of the compound having
compound is. [New NCERT/XII/242] formula, [New NCERT/XII/260-261]
(1) Benzaldehyde (2) Benzylalcohol
(3) Acetophenone (4) Benzophenone
66. What is the amount of heat (in Joules)
absorbed by 18 g of water initially at room is
temperature heated to 𝟏𝟎𝟎∘ 𝐂 ? If 10 g of Cu is (1) 3-amino-hydroxy propine acid
added to this water, than decrease in (2) 2-amino-propan-3-oic acid
temperature (in Kelvin) of water was found to (3) amino hydroxy propanoic acid
be? 𝑪(𝒑, 𝒎) for water 𝟕𝟓. 𝟑𝟐 𝐉/𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐊; 𝑪(𝒑, 𝒎) for (4) 2-amino-3-hydroxy propanoic acid
𝐂𝐮 = 𝟐𝟒. 𝟒𝟕 𝐉/𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐊. [New NCERT/XI/145] 72. Assertion : 1-Chlorobutane on heating with
(1) 5649,369 (2) 5544,324 alcoholic KOH undergoes
(3) 5278,342 (4) 3425,425 dehydrohalogenation to yield 1-butene as the
major product.
Reason : The reaction does not occur through
carbocation intermediate but instead occurs
by a concerted mechanism.
67. [New NCERT/XII/210]
[New NCERT/XII/179]
[A] will show
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(1) Br2 water test (2) Tollen's test
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(3) Victor maeyer test (4) Lucas test
Assertion.
68. The 𝒑𝑲𝒂 of a weak acid, 𝐇𝑨, is 4.80 . The 𝒑𝑲𝒃
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
of a weak base, 𝑩𝑶𝑯, is 4.78 . The pH of an
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
aqueous solution of the corresponding salt,
Assertion.
BA, will be [New NCERT/XI/ 202]
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
(1) 9.58 (2) 4.79
incorrect.
(3) 7.01 (4) 9.22
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
69. Which of the following statements regarding
correct.
properties of halogens are correct?
73. Bohr model can explain: [New NCERT/XI/46]
[Old NCERT/XII/198-199]
(1) the solar spectrum
(i) Due to small size electron gain enthalpy of
(2) the spectrum of hydrogen molecule
fluorine is less than that of chlorine.
(3) spectrum of any atom or ion containing one
 electron only the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(4) the spectrum of hydrogen atom only Assertion.
74. The correct structure of [𝐅𝐞(𝐂𝐎)𝟓 ] is (𝐙 = 𝟐𝟔 for (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Fe) [New NCERT/XII/128] Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) octahedral Assertion.
(2) tetrahedral (3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
(3) square pyramidal incorrect.
(4) trigonal bipyramidal (4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
75. If 𝑲𝒄 is in the range of …... appreciable correct.
concentrations of both reactants and products 81. The brown ring test for 𝐍𝐎− 𝟐 and 𝐍𝐎𝟑 is due to
−

are present. [New NCERT/XI/182] the formation of complex ion with formula
(1) 10−4 to 104 (2) 10−3 to 103 [Practical Chemistry]
(3) 103 to 106 (4) 10−5 to 103 (1) [Fe(H2 O)6 ]2+
76. Vapour pressure of benzene at 𝟑𝟎∘ 𝐂 is 121.8 (2) [Fe(NO)(CN)5 ]2−
mm Hg . When 15 g of a non volatile solute is (3) [Fe(H2 O)5 NO]2+
dissolved in 250 g of benzene its vapour (4) [Fe(H2 O)(NO)5 ]2+
pressure decreased to 120.2 mm Hg . The 82. The conversion 𝐏𝐡𝐂𝐍 → 𝐏𝐡𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟑 , can be
molecular weight of the solute (𝐌𝐨. 𝐰𝐭. of achieved most conveniently by reaction with
solvent = 𝟕𝟖) [New NCERT/XII/16] [New NCERT/XII/234]
(1) 356.2 (2) 456.8 (1) CH3 MgBr followed by hydrolysis
(3) 530.1 (4) 656.7 (2) I2 − NaOH, CH3 I
77. The long form of periodic table consists of (3) dil. H2 SO4 followed by reaction with CH2 N2
[New NCERT/XI/78] (4) LiAlH4 followed by reaction with CH3 I
(1) seven periods and eight groups 83. Choose the correct option for the following
(2) seven periods and eighteen groups reactions. [New NCERT/XI/311-312]
(3) eight periods and eighteen groups
(4) eighteen periods and eight groups
78. 'Oxidation number of H in 𝐍𝐚𝐇, 𝐂𝐚𝐇𝟐 and LiH ,
respectively is [New NCERT/XI/240]
(1) +1, +1, −1 (2) −1, +1, +1 (1) ' 𝐴 ' and ' 𝐵 ' are both Markovnikov addition
(3) +1, +1, +1 (4) −1, −1, −1 products.
79. The coordination number of a central metal (2) ' 𝐴 ' is Markovnikov product and ' 𝐵 ' is
atom in a complex is determined by antiMarkovnikov product.
[New NCERT/XII/121] (3) 'A' and 'B' are both anti-Markovnikov
(1) the number of ligands around a metal ion products.
bonded by sigma and pi-bonds both (4) ' B ' is Markovnikov and ' 𝐴 ' is anti-
(2) the number of ligands around a metal ion Markovnikov product.
bonded by pi-bonds 84.
(3) the number of ligands around a metal ion
bonded by sigma bonds
(4) the number of only anionic ligands bonded to
the metalion.
80. Assertion: Benzyl methyl ether on reaction
with dilute and cold HI produces methyl
iodide
Reason: This reaction occurs via 𝐒𝐍 𝟐 pathway Consider the given reaction, precentage yield
[New NCERT/XII/218] of : [New NCERT/XII/273]
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
 (1) C > B > A (2) C > A > B (2) A − (p), B − (q), C − (r), D − (s)
(3) B > C > A (4) A > C > B (3) A − (q), B − (r), C − (p), D − (s)
85. For the given reactions [New NCERT/XII/37] (4) A − ( q), B − (p), C − (s), D − (r)
𝐒𝐧𝟐+ + 𝟐𝐞− → 𝐒𝐧 88. 𝐊𝐌𝐧𝐎𝟒 reacts with oxalic acid as :
𝐒𝐧𝟒+ + 𝟐𝐞− → 𝐒𝐧 𝐌𝐧𝐎𝟒− + 𝐂𝟐 𝐎𝟐− +
𝟒 + 𝐇 ⟶ 𝐌𝐧
𝟐+
+ 𝐂𝐎𝟐 + 𝐇𝟐 𝐎
The electrode potentials are; 𝐄𝐒𝐧 𝟎
𝟐+ /𝐒𝐧 = Hence, 50 ml of 𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝐌𝐊𝐌𝐧𝐎𝟒 is acidic medium
∘
−𝟎. 𝟏𝟒𝟎 𝐕 and 𝐄𝐒𝐧 𝟒+ /𝐒𝐧 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟎 𝐕. The magnitude
is chemically equivalent to
[Practical Chemistry]
of standard electrode potential for 𝐒𝐧𝟒+ /𝐒𝐧𝟐+
(1) 100 ml of 0.1MH2 C2 O4
i.e. 𝐄𝐒𝐧𝟒+ /𝐒𝐧𝟐+ is × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐 𝐕.
(2) 50 ml of 0.2MH2 C2 O4
(1) -0.16 (2) +0.16 (3) 50 ml of 0.1MH2 C2 O4
(3) 16 (4) -16 (4) 25 ml of 0.1MH2 C2 O4
86. Arrange the following carbocations in 89. Which one of the following reactions does not
decreasing order of stability. represent correct combination of substrate
[New NCERT/XI/271] and product under the given conditions?
+ +
CH2 = CHCH2 CH2 = CH (CH3 )3 C + [New NCERT/XII/232]
I II III

(1)

(1) IV > III > I > V > II (2) IV > I > III > II > V
(3) V > IV > I > III > II (4) V > IV > III > I > II (2)
87. Match Column-I with Column-II.
[New NCERT/XII/105, 107]
Column-I (3)
(A) Compound formed when yellow CrO2− 4 is
acidified.
(B) reagent oxidises Fe2+ to Fe3+ (4)
(C) Compound produced when MnO2 is fused with 90. Which of the following statements regarding
KNO3 fuel cell is incorrect? [New NCERT/XII/56]
(D) Compound having dark (1) These cells are eco-friendly.
Column-II (2) These cells convert energy of combustion of
(p) acidified MnO4− fuels like H2 , CH4 , CH3 OH etc., directly into
(q) Cr2 O2−
7
electrical energy.
(r) K 2 MnO4 (3) H2 − O2 fuel cell is used in Apollo space
(s) KMnO4 purple crystals isostructural with KClO4 programme.
(1) A − (q), B − (p), C − (r), D − (s) (4) Fuel cells produce electricity with an efficiency
of about 100%.

PART-III: BIOLOGY

91. R.Q. is ratio of [New NCERT/XI/163] 92. Match the following and choose the correct
(1) CO2 produced to substrate consumed option. [New NCERT/XII/222-223]
(2) CO2 produced to O2 consumed Column-I Column-II
(3) oxygen consumed to water produced A. Over-exploitation by I.
(4) oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
 humans (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
B. Introduction of Nile II. Posing threat to the incorrect
Perch in Lake Victoria indigenous catfish (2) Statement 𝐼 is correct but Statement II is
C. Clarias gariepinus III. Extinction of incorrect
Passenger pigeon (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
D. Introduction of Water IV. Extinction of Cichlid correct
Hyacinth in India fish (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(1) A − II; B − I; C − IV; D − III 97. Read the following statements and choose the
(2) A − III; B − IV; C − II; D − I incorrect statements. [New NCERT/XII/80-83]
(3) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV (i) Nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar
(4) A − IV; B − I; C − II; D − III through a N -glycosidic linkage.
93. Statement I: Bryophytes are amphibians of (ii) Phosphate group is linked to 5′ − OH of a
plant kingdom. nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
Statement II: They live in soil but depend on (iii) Two nucleosides are linked through 3′ − 5′ N
water for sexual reproduction. glycosidic linkage.
[New NCERT/XI/29] (iv) Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are positively charged histone octamer to form
incorrect nucleosome.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (v) The distance between a bp in a helix is
incorrect approximately 0.34 nm .
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) (i) only (2) (iv) and (v)
correct (3) (iii) only (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 98. The microtubules of the mitotic spindle
94. The process involving the transfer of electrons attach to a specializes structure in the
in the light reactions of photosynthesis in centromere region of each chromosome called
plants is: [New NCERT/XI/139] the - [New NCERT/XI/123]
(1) cyclic photo-phosphorylation (1) Telomere (2) Centriole
(2) ATP synthesis in mitochondria (3) Chromatin (4) Kinetochore
(3) Z-Scheme 99. Match column-I containing types of
(4) non-cyclic chemo-phosphorylation aestivation with their examples given in
95. Assertion (A): Two kingdom classification was column-II and choose the correct option.
insufficient. [New NCERT/XI/64]
Reason (R): Majority of organisms did not fall Column-I Column-II
into either of categories in two kingdom (Type of aestivation) (Examples)
classification. [OId NCERT/XI/16] A. Valvate I. Cotton
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the B. Twisted II. Calotropis
correct explanation of (A) C. Imbricate III. Bean
(2) (A) is correct but ( R) is not correct D. Vexillary IV. Gulmohar
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (1) A − I; B − II; C − IV; D − III
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (2) A − II; B − I; C − IV; D − III
correct explanation of (A) (3) A − II; B-IV; C-I; D - III
96. Statement I: Genetic diversity comprises of (4) A - II; B - I; C - III; D – IV
different type of gene in different type species 100. Primary treatment of sewage is
as well as same species. [New NCERT/XII/154]
Statement II: Amphibian species diversity is (1) physical process
more in Eastern Ghats than the Western Ghat. (2) biological process
[New NCERT/XII/217] (3) chemical process
(4) biochemical process
101. Assertion (A): Double fertilisation is (3) A − I; B - III; C - II; D - IV
characteristic feature of angiosperms. (4) A − IV; B − III; C − I; D – II
Reason (R): Double fertilisation involves two 105. Hormone responsible for bolting is:
fusions. [New NCERT/XII/18] [New NCERT/XI/176]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) IAA (2) kinetin
correct explanation of (𝐴) (3) ABA (4) GA
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 106. Assertion (A): Lipids present in the outer and
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct inner side of the bilayer membrane are
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the commonly different.
correct explanation of (𝐴) Reason (R): Peripheral proteins are attached
102. What is another name of family compositae? to external surface as well as inner surface of
[In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XI] a biomembrane. [New NCERT/XI/93]
(1) Asteraceae (2) Brassicaleae (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(3) Leguminoseae (4) Graminae correct explanation of (𝐴)
103. Consider the following statements regarding (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
starch and sucrose synthesis during daytime (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
and select the correct ones. (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
[New NCERT/XI/156] correct explanation of (𝐴)
(i) Triose phosphate is confined to chloroplast and 107. Which one of the following is not a
is utilised for the synthesis of starch only. components of an ecosystem?
(ii) Triose phosphate is translocated to cytosol [New NCERT/XII/206]
from chloroplast. (1) Energy flow (2) Decomposition
(iii) Triose phosphate is utilised for the synthesis (3) Productivity (4) Stratification
of both starch and sucrose. 108. Which of the following pairs come under the
(iv) Triose phosphate is translocated from cytosol group chrysophytes? [New NCERT/XI/14]
to chloroplast. (1) Diatoms and Euglena
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (2) Euglena and Trypanosoma
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv) (3) Diatoms and Desmids
104. Match the description given in column-I with (4) Gonyaulax and Desmids
their steps given in column-II and identify the 109. Match the items given in column-I with those
correct answer. [New NCERT/XI/122, 123] given in column-II and choose the correct
Column-I Column-II option given below. [New NCERT/XII/5]
A. Initiation of the I. Anaphase Column-I Column-II
assembly of mitotic spindle A. Tapetum I. Oily and sticky layer,
B. Proteins are II. Prophase tissue help in
synthesized in preparation pollination
for mitosis while cell B. Exine II. Acts as nutritive layer
growth continues. C. Pollenkit III. Thick, rigid
C. Spindle fibres attach III. Interphase protective layer
to kinetochores of D. Vegetative cell IV. Involve in the
chromosomes. formation of
D. Movement of IV. Metaphase microspores
chromatids towards (1) A - II; B - III; C - I; D - IV
opposite poles (2) A - I; B - III; C - II; D - IV
The correct match is (3) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D - II
(1) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I (4) A − II; B − IV; C-III; D – I
(2) A − III; B − II; C − I; D − IV 110. Which of the following statements is
incorrect? [New NCERT/XI/30]
 (1) Pyrenoids contain protein besides starch. (i) High endemism.
(2) Sexual reproduction may be isogamous, (ii) High level of species richness.
oogamous and anisogamous in green and brown (iii) Total number is 34 in the world.
algae. (iv) Five of these occur in India.
(3) Some of the members of algae also occur in (v) High alien species invasion.
association with fungi (lichen) and animals (eg, (1) (i) and (ii)
on sloth bear). (2) (iv) and (v)
(4) The leaves in pteridophyta are small (3) (ii) and (v)
(macrophyll) and large (microphyll). (4) (iii), (iv) and (v)
111. Statement I: The outer covering of endosperm 116. The term 'glycocalyx' is used for
separates the embryo by a lipid bi-layer called [New NCERT/XI/90]
aleurone layer. (1) A layer surrounding the cell wall of bacteria
Statement II: The plumule and radical are (2) A layer present between cell wall and
enclosed in sheaths which are called membrane of bacteria
coleoptile and coleorhizae respectively. (3) Cell wall of bacteria
[New NCERT/XII/67] (4) Bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess N -
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are glycosylated proteins
incorrect 117. Which of the following is not an influence of
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is auxins? [New NCERT/XI/175-176]
incorrect (1) Apical dominance (2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (3) Phototropism (4) Fruit ripening
correct 118. Okra is a member of family .
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XI]
112. Where do the casparian strips occur? (1) Brassicaceae (2) Malvaceae
[New NCERT/XI/74] (3) Graminae (4) Leguminoseae
(1) Epidermis (2) Endodermis 119. Which of the following is not a function of
(3) Pericycle (4) Phloem cytokinin? [New NCERT/XI/177]
113. Match column-I with column-II and select the (1) Promotes apical dominance.
correct answer using the codes given below. (2) Promotes chloroplast development.
[New NCERT/XII/67, 70, 76] (3) Promotes movement of nutrients.
Column-I Column-II (4) Delay leaf senescence.
A. Turner syndrome 120. Assertion (A): 𝐂𝟒 pathway of 𝐂𝐎𝟐 fixation is
B. Linkage found in some tropical plants.
C. Y-chromosome Reason (R): In this pathway, 𝐂𝐎𝟐 is fixed by 3
D. Down's syndrome C compound. [New NCERT/XI/143]
(1) A-III; B-I; C - IV; D - II (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(2) A − II; B − I; C − IV; D − III correct explanation of (A)
(3) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) A − II; B − III; C − IV; D − I (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
114. During complete metabolism of glucose, the (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
number of ATP formed is correct explanation of (𝐴)
[New NCERT/XI/162-163] 121. How many meiotic divisions are required to
(1) 2 (2) 12 produce 100 pollen grains?
(3) 36 (4) 44 [New NCERT/XII/5]
115. Which of the following statements regarding (1) 25 (2) 50
biodiversity hotspots are incorrect? (3) 100 (4) 125
[New NCERT/XII/224] 122. ____ in birds is an interesting example of
parasitism in which the parasitic bird lays its
 eggs in the nest of its host and the host (1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
incubates them. [New NCERT/XII/200] (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
(1) Bird parasitism (2) Breed parasitism 128. Match column-I with column-II and select the
(3) Brood parasitism (4) Ectoparasites correct option from the codes given below.
123. Match column-I with column-II and select the [New NCERT/XI/74]
option. [New NCERT/XI/18] Column-I
Column-I Column-II A. Stele
(Fungi) (Common name) B. Endodermis
A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi C. Casparian strips
B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi D. Bark
C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti (1) A-IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
D. Deuteromycetes IV. Bracket fungi (2) A − III, B − II, C - I, D - IV
(1) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D - III (3) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(2) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III (4) A − IV, B − II, C − I, D − III
(3) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D - III 129. What is the function of molecular oxygen in
(4) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I cellular respiration? [New NCERT/XI/154]
124. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not (1) it causes the breakdown of citric acid.
correct? [Old NCERT/XI/4] (2) It combines with glucose to produce carbon
(i) Reproduction is the production of progeny dioxide.
possessing features dissimilar to their parents. (3) It combines with carbon from organic
(ii) The fungi, the filamentous algae, the molecules to produce carbon dioxide.
protonema of mosses, all multiply by budding. (4) It combines with hydrogen from organic
(iii) Many organisms like mules, sterile worker molecules to produce water.
bees do not reproduce. 130. Statement I: UAA, UAG and UGA are known as
(iv) Reproduction is not an all-inclusive defining stop codons.
characteristic of living organisms. Statement II: Stop codon terminates the
(v) Yeast and Hydra reproduce by budding. message of gene controlled protein synthesis.
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (i) and (ii) [New NCERT/XII/96]
(3) Both (ii) and (iv) (4) All of these (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
125. Assertion (A): Net primary productivity is incorrect
gross primary productivity minus respiration. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Reason (R): Secondary productivity is incorrect
produced by heterotrophs. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
[New NCERT/XII/207] correct
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
correct explanation of (𝐴) 131. The gene disorder phenylketonuria is an
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct example for [New NCERT/XII/69]
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (1) multipleallelism
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (2) polygenic inheritance
correct explanation of (A) (3) multiple factor
126. What sequence on the template strand of DNA (4) pleiotropy
corresponds to the first amino acid inserted 132. Which of the following criteria must a
into a protein? [New NCERT/XII/96] molecule fulfil to act as a genetic material?
(1) TAC (2) UAC [New NCERT/XII/87]
(3) UAG (4) AUG (i) It should not be able to generate its replica.
127. At which stage, the homologous chromosomes (ii) It should chemically and structurally be
separate due to repulsion, but are yet held by stable.
chiasmata? [New NCERT/XI/126] (iii) It should not allow slow mutation.
 (iv) It should be able to express itself in the form (1) A-IV; B - II; C - III; D - I
of Mendelian Characters. (2) A − IV; B − III; C − II; D − I
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) A − I; B − IV; C − III; D − II
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv) (4) A − I; B − III; C − II; D − IV
133. In meiosis, division is [New NCERT/XI/125] 138. The squamous epithelium is found in
(1) Ist reductional and IInd equational. [Old NCERT/XI/101]
(2) Ist equational and IInd reductional. (1) stomach (2) intestine
(3) both reductional. (3) trachea (4) air sacs of lungs
(4) both equational. 139. Column I contains the characteristics features
134. Match the column-I with column-II and and column II contains the function/ location.
choose the correct option. Select the correct match from the option
[New NCERT/XI/23-24] given below. [New NCERT/XI/40, 43-44]
Column-I Column-I
(System of classification) (Characteristic feature)
A. Artificial system of classification A. Water canal system
B. Natural system of classification B. Comb plates
C. Phylogenetic system of classification C. Nephridia
D. Numerical Taxonomy D. Jointed appendages
Column-II Column - II
(Characteristics) IV. A bodypart of arthropoda
I. Based on few morphological characters (1) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
(1) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV (2) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II
(2) A − I; B − III; C − II; D − IV (3) A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
(3) A − III; B − II; C − I; D − IV (4) A − III; B − II; C − IV; D − I
(4) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV 140. A cup shaped cavity for articulation of femur
135. The practical purpose of classification of head is [New NCERT/XI/226]
living organisms is to: [New NCERT/XI/5] (1) acetabulum
(1) explain the origin of living organsims. (2) glenoid cavity
(2) trace the evolution of living organsims. (3) sigmoid notch
(3) name the living organisms. (4) obturator foramen
(4) facilitate grouping of anything based on some 141. In adult man, normal blood pressure is
easily observable characteristics. [New NCERT/XI/202]
136. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary (1) 100/80 mmHg (2) 120/80 mmHg
is [New NCERT/XII/29] (3) 100/120 mmHg (4) 80/120 mmHg
(1) isthmus 142. The most important component of the oral
(2) infundibulum contraceptive pills is [New NCERT/XII/45]
(3) cervix (1) progesterone (2) growth hormone
(4) ampulla (3) thyroxine (4) luteinizing hormone
137. Match column I (category) with column II 143. Statement I: Clitoris lies at the upper junction
(secondary metabolites) and choose the of the two labia minora.
correct option. [New NCERT/XI/108] Statement II: The vagina includes mons pubis,
Column-I Column-II labia majora labia minora, clitoris and hymen.
(Category) (Secondary metabolites) [New NCERT/XII/30]
A. Pigments I. Concanavalin A (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
B. Terpenoides II. Monoterpenes, Diterpenes incorrect
C. Alkaloids III. Morphine, Codeine (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
D. Lectins IV. Carotenoids, Anthocyanin incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
 correct This step is known as elution.
(4) Statement II is correct but statement 𝐼 is (v) DNA fragments are negatively charged.
incorrect. (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
144. The cell mediated immunity inside the human (3) (ii) and (v) (4) (i) and (iv)
body is carried out by: [New NCERT/XII/135] 149. The ascending loop of Henle is permeable or
(1) B-lymphocytes (2) Thrombocytes [New NCERT/XI/209]
(3) Erythrocytes (4) T-lymphocytes (1) Ammonia (2) Glucose
145. All the diseases are spread by mosquito, (3) Sodium (4) Water
except: [In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XII] 150. Match the following and choose the correct
(1) Filariasis (2) Malaria option. [New NCERT/XII/142-143]
(3) Chikungunya (4) Dengue
146. Volume of urine is regulated by
[New NCERT/XI/212]
(1) aldosterone
(2) aldosterone and ADH
A.
(3) aldosterone, ADH and testosterone
(4) ADH alone
147. Assertion (A): Mammals are found in polar ice
caps, deserts, mountains, forests, grasslands
and dark caves.
Reason (R): The most unique mammalian B.
characteristic is the presence of milk
producing glands. [New NCERT/XI/50]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) C. II. Diacetyl morphine
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
148. Study the given figure carefully and select the D. III. Hallucination
incorrect statements regarding this. (1) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV
[New NCERT/XII/168] (2) A − II; B − I; C − III; D − IV
(3) A - III; B-II; C - I; D - IV
(4) A − I; B − III; C - II; D – IV
151. The total lung capacity is represented by
[New NCERT/XI/187]
(1) Tidal volume + Vital capacity
(2) Tidal volume + Residual volume
(3) Vital capacity + Residual volume
(i) It represents a typical agarose gel
(4) Inspiratory + Expiratory reserve volumes
electrophoresis in which lane 1 contains
152. Identify the main functions of the cerebrum of
undigested DNA.
human brain from the given statement.
(ii) The higher the concentration of agarose, the
[New NCERT/XI/236]
larger will be the pore size.
(i) Control the contraction of voluntary muscles
(iii) The separated DNA fragments can be
through the frontal lobe.
visualized after staining in the visible light.
(ii) Control the sensitivity, movement, memory,
(iv) The separated DNA bands are cut out from
vocabulary etc. through the frontal lobe.
the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
(iii) Control the temperature, taste, touch, pain
 etc. through the parietal lobe. reproductive system)
(iv) Control the hearing and sense of smell (1) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV
through the occipital and frontal lobes. (2) A − III; B − I; C − II; D − IV
(1) (i), (ii), (iv) (2) (i) (iii), (iv) (3) A − III; B − IV; C − I; D-II
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) A − II; B − IV; C − III; D − I
153. Which of the following is not required in the 158. Statement 𝑰 : Exonucleases are restriction
preparation of a recombinant DNA molecules? enzymes, which cut DNA internally.
[New NCERT/XII/171] Statement II: Endonucleases make cuts at
(1) Restriction endonucleases specific positions within the DNA.
(2) DNA ligase [New NCERT/XII/166]
(3) DNA fragments (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) E. coli incorrect
154. Statement I: Carbonic anhydrase is present in (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
the erythrocytes. incorrect
Statement II: In erythrocytes the carbon (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
dioxide combine with water and is correct
transported. [New NCERT/XI/190] (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are 159. Artery differs from vein in having
incorrect [New NCERT/XI/201]
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) Narrow wall (2) Thick walls
incorrect (3) Valves (4) None of these
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 160. Assertion (A): The imbalance in concentration
correct of 𝐍𝐚+ , 𝐊 + generates resting potential.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct Reason (R): To maintain the unequal
155. In which of the phylum, excretory organ like distribution of 𝐍𝐚+ & 𝐊 + , the neurons use
proboscis gland is present? electrical energy. [New NCERT/XI/232-233]
[New NCERT/XI/45] (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(1) Hemichordata (2) Chordata correct explanation of (A)
(3) Echinodermata (4) Annelida (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
156. Select the correct statement regarding (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Periplaneta americana [Old NCERT/XI/112] (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) There are 16 very long malpighian tubules correct explanation of (A)
present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut. 161. Gel electrophoresis is used for
(2) Grinding of food is carried out only by the [New NCERT/XII/168]
mouth parts. (1) construction or recombinant DNA by joining
(3) Nervous system is located ventrally and with cloning vectors
consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined (2) isolation of DNA molecules
by a pair of longitudinal connectives. (3) cutting DNA into fragments
(4) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal (4) separation of DNA fragments according to
styles. their size.
157. In the given columns, column-I contain 162. Which of the following is correctly stated as it
structures of female reproductive system and happens in the common cockroach?
column-II contain its feature. Select the [Old NCERT/XI/113]
correct match from the option given below. (1) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs
[New NCERT/XII/28-30] projecting out from the colon
Column-I (2) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in
(Structures of female (Features) blood
 (3) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea (1) inside nucleus (2) inside cytoplasm
(4) The food is ground by gizzard (3) on surface of ER (4) on cell surface
163. Statement I: In frogs vasa efferentia enter the 170. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
kidneys and open into Bidder's canal. [New NCERT/XII/171]
Statement II: Fertilisation of frog is external (1) DNA finger printing.
and takes place in water. (2) Disarming pathogen vectors.
[New NCERT/XI/83] (3) Transformation in plant cells.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) Constructing DNA molecules.
incorrect 171. Statement I: Thorns and tendrils of
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Bougainvillea and Cucurbita represent
incorrect homology.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Statement II: Homologous organs have similar
correct functions but are different in their structural
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct details and origin. [New NCERT/XII/115]
164. Chikungunya fever is caused by a (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
[In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XII] incorrect
(1) Bacteria (2) Plasmodium (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Virus (4) Fungi incorrect
165. Which of the following properties of cardiac (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
muscles are correct? [New NCERT/XI/219] correct
(i) These are the muscles of the heart. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(ii) These are non-striated. 172. The genetically-modified (GM) cotton in India
(iii) These are involuntary in their functions. has been developed for [New NCERT/XII/179]
(iv) These are controlled by nervous system (1) insect-resistance
directly. (2) enhancing shelf life
(v) Cardiac muscles not straited. (3) enhancing mineral content
Select the correct option. (4) drought-resistance
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iv) and (v) 173. Select the answer which correctly matches
(3) (i), (iv) and (v) (4) (ii) and (iii) the endocrine gland with the hormone it
166. The first restriction endonuclease reported secrets and its function/ deficiency symptom:
was [New NCERT/XII/165] [New NCERT/XI/241-242, 246]
(1) Hind II (2) EcoRI
(3) Hind III (4) BamHI
167. Signals for parturition originate from:
[New NCERT/XII/38]
(1) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(2) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(3) Placenta only
(4) Fully developed foetus only
168. 𝐂𝐎𝟐 combines with Hb to form :
[New NCERT/XI/190]
(1) Carbaminohaemoglobin
(2) Carboxy haemoglobin
(3) Oxyhaemoglobin
(4) Methaemoglobin
169. Receptors for protein hormones are found
[New NCERT/XI/247]
 (2) A − III; B − II; C − IV; D − I
(3) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
(4) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D – III
177. Which of the following statement is correct?
[New NCERT/XII/136]
(1) Injecting microbes during immunization
induces passive immunity.
(2) Cell-mediated immune response is
responsible for graft rejection.
(3) Colostrum during initial days of lactation
provides active immunity to infant.
(4) None of the above
178. Assertion (A): Copper-T is an effective
contraceptive device in human females.
Reason (R): Copper-T prevents passage of
sperms from vagina upwards into the fallopian
tubes. [New NCERT/XII/44]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
174. Identify the correct reasons of infertility. correct explanation of (A)
[New NCERT/XII/48] (2) (A) is correct but (𝑅) is not correct
(i) Drugs (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(iii) Congenital (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(ii) Diseases correct explanation of (A)
(iv) Use of Contraceptives 179. Which of the following statements does not
(v) Immunological or psychological hold true for the hormones?
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (iii) and (iv) [New NCERT/XI/239]
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (4) All of these (1) Theyact on target organs away from the source
175. Smoking nicotine is associated with which of glands
the following? [New NCERT/XII/144] (2) They are secreted directly into the blood
(1) Gastric ulcer (2) Emphysema (3) They are used again and again like catalysts
(3) Bronchitis (4) All of these (4) They are produced in very minute quantities
176. Match column I (containing list of scientists) and are biologically very active
with column II (their contributions) and 180. Which of the following statements are correct
choose the correct option. with respect to hormones secreted by
[New NCERT/XII/113, 118, 119] placenta? [New NCERT/XI/239]
Column-I Column-II (i) Placenta secretes relaxin during later stage of
(Name of the Scientist) (Contributions) pregnancy.
A. Charles Darwin I. Saltation (ii) Placenta secretes high amount of FSH during
B. Lamarck pregnancy.
C. Hugo de Vries III. Evolution was (iii) Placenta secretes relaxin during initial stage
gradual of pregnancy.
D. Ernst Heckel IV. Embryological (iv) Placenta secretes hCG and hPL during
support for evolution pregnancy.
(1) A - III; B - II; C - I; D - IV (1) (i) and (iv) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)