29-01-2025

6001CMD30327724006 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A liquid with coefficient of volume expansion γ is filled in a container of a material having

coefficient of linear expansion α. If the liquid overflows on heating, then :-

(1) γ = 3α
(2) γ > 3α
(3) γ < 3α
(4) γ = α3

2) Assertion : Reversible system are difficult to find in real world.

Reason : Most processes are dissipative in nature.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

3) Assertion : For an ideal gas, at constant temperature, the product of the pressure and volume is
constant.
Reason : The mean square velocity of gas molecules is inversely proportional to its mass.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

4) Ideal gas at pressure P undergoes free expansion from its initial volume of 1.01 Litre to 10.1 Litre.
The final pressure of the gas is ?

(1) P(10)g

(2)

(3) 10P

(4)

5) An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cycle ABCDA as shown in following P – V diagram.
The work done during the cycle is :

(1) PV
(2) 2 PV
(3) 4 PV
(4) zero

6) Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using codes given below the list

Column-I Column-II

A Boltzmann constant p ML2T–1

B Coefficient of viscosity q ML–1T–1

C Planck's constant r MLT–3K–1

D Thermal conductivity s ML2T–2K–1

(1) A–r, B–p, C–q, D–s
(2) A–r, B–q, C–p, D–s
(3) A–s, B–p, C–q, D–r
(4) A–s, B–q, C–p, D–r

7) Match the columns for thermodynamic process of an ideal gas and choose the correct, from the
given choice :

Column–I Column–II

Is a function of
(A) Work done (P) temperature
only

Depends upon
(B) Internal energy (Q)
the path

Is the sum of
Heat given or taken change in
(C) (R)
from the system internal energy
and work done
(1) A–P, B–R, C–Q
(2) A–Q, B–P, C–R, Q
(3) A–R, B–Q, C–R
(4) A–Q, B–R, C–P

8) A solid material is supplied with heat at a constant rate. The temperature of the material is

changing with heat input as shown. Select correct atternatives : (i) AB :

change of state from solid to liquid
CD : change of state from liquid to vapour
(ii) When CD = 2 AB, i.e., latent heat of vapourization is twice the latent heat of fusion of the
substance
(iii) The reciprocal of slope of DE represnts the heat capacity of vapour state of substance
(iv) If slope of OA > slope of BC, i.e. specific heat of liquid state is greater than specific heat that of
solid state

(1) (i), (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (iii), (iv)
(4) All

9) Surface temperature of the sun which has maximum energy emissions at 500 nm is 6000K. The
temperature of a star which has maximum energy emission at 400 nm will be :-

(1) 8500 K
(2) 4500 K
(3) 7500 K
(4) 6500 K

10) 50 g of ice at 0° C is mixed with 50 g of water at 100° C. The final temperature of mixture is :–

(1) 0° C
(2) Between 0°C to 20°C
(3) 20°C
(4) Above 20°C

11) The resulting temperature when 20 g of boiling water is poured into an ice-cold brass vessel of
mass 100 g, is : (specific heat = 0.1 cal/g°C)

(1) 66.66°C
(2) 6.66°C
(3) 0.66°C
(4) 50°C

12) An ideal gas expands isothermally along ab and does 600 J of work. During the process :-
(1) The heat rejected by the gas to the surroundings is 600 J
(2) The heat absorbed by the gas from the surroundings is 600 J
(3) No heat exchange between gas and its surroundings takes place
(4) The heat absorbed by the gas is less than 600 J

13) In the cyclic process shown on the P – V diagram, the magnitude of the work done is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are Lengths of brass and steel
rods are respectively. If is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the
following relations holds good ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) The amount of heat required to convert 1 g of ice at 0°C into steam at 100°C, is

(1) 716 cal.

(2) 500 cal.
(3) 180 cal.
(4) 100 cal.

16) The rate of emission of radiation of a black body at 273°C is E, then the rate of emission of
radiation of this body at 0°C will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

17) If the root mean square speed of hydrogen molecules is equal to root mean square speed of
oxygen molecules at 47°C, the temperature of hydrogen is -

(1) 20 K
(2) 47 K
(3) 50 K
(4) 94 K

18) An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cycle ABCDA as shown P-V diagram. The work-done

during the cycle is –

(1) PV
(2) 2PV
(3) PV/2
(4) zero

19) Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on a table. Box A contains one mole
of nitrogen at temperature T0, while Box B contains one mole of helium at temperature (7/3) T0. The
boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other, and heat flows between them until the
gases reach a common final temperature. (Ignore the heat capacity of boxes). Then, the final
temperature of the gases, Tf, in terms of T0 is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
20) Three rods of identical geometry but different materials are welded to form the English alphabet
Y as shown in figure. If their conductivity are K, 2K and 3K and end temperatures arc 20°C. 20°C

and 100°C respectively, then their junction temperature Tj is

(1) 70°C
(2) 60°C
(3) 50°C
(4) 40°C

21) Specific heat of gas :-

(1) Has only two value Cp & Cv

(2) Has a unique value
(3) Can have any value between 0 and ∞
(4) None of these

22) A cyclic process ABCA is shown in PT diagram. When presented on PV, it would

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) We consider a thermodynamic system. If ΔU represents the increase in its internal energy and
W is the work done by the system, Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) ΔU = –W, is an isothermal process

(2) ΔU = +W, is an isothermal process
(3) ΔU = –W, is an adiabatic process
(4) ΔU = +W, is an adiabatic process

24) P-V diagram of an ideal gas is as shown in figure. Work done by the gas in the process ABCD is

(1) 4P0V0
(2) 2P0V0
(3) 3P0V0
(4) P0V0

25) A gas is expended from volume V0 to 2V0 under three different processes. Process 1 is isobaric
process, process 2 is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let ΔU1, ΔU2 and ΔU3 be the change in

internal energy of the gas in these three processes. Then :-

(1) ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU3

(2) ΔU1 < ΔU2 < ΔU3
(3) ΔU2 < ΔU1 < ΔU3
(4) ΔU2 < ΔU3 < ΔU1

26) When a system is taken from state i to a state f along path iaf, Q = 50 J and W = 10 J. Along path
ibf, Q = 35 J. If W = –23 J for the curved return path fi, Q for this path is :-

(1) 33 J
(2) 17 J
(3) – 7 J
(4) – 63 J

27) Which of the following statements is correct for any thermodynamic system

(1) The internal energy changes in all processes

(2) Internal energy and entropy are state functions
(3) The change in entropy can never be zero
(4) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero

28) One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path AB as shown

in the figure, The change in internal energy of the gas during the
transition is :

(1) –20 kJ
(2) 20 J
(3) –12 kJ
(4) 20 kJ

29) When a copper ball is heated the largest percentage increase will occurs in its :

(1) Volume
(2) Area
(3) Diameter
(4) Density

30) Two thermometers X and Y have ice points marked at 15° and 25° and steam points marked as
75° and 125° respectively. When thermometer X measures the temperature of a bath as 60° on it,
what would thermometer Y read when it is used to measure the temperature of the same bath ?

(1) 60°
(2) 75°
(3) 100°
(4) 90°

31) A metre rod of silver at 0°C is heated to 100°C. It's length is increased by 0.19 cm. Coefficient of
volume expansion of the silver rod is :

(1) 5.7 × 10–5/°C

(2) 0.63 × 10–5/°C
(3) 1.9 × 10–5/°C
(4) 16.1 × 10–5/°C

32) Coefficient of volume expansion of mercury is 0.18 × 10–3/°C. If the density of mercury at 0°C is
13.6 g/cc, then its density at 200°C is :

(1) 13.11 g/cc

(2) 52.11 g/cc
(3) 16.11 g/cc
(4) 26.11 g/cc

33) Find the height over the earth's surface at which the weight of a body becomes half of its value
at the surface.

(1) time of radius of earth

(2) Equal to radius of earth
(3) times the radius of earth
(4) None of these

34) A body is projected up with th the escape velocity from earth's surface. The height reached by
the body is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A particle of mass m is dropped from a height R equal to the radius of the earth above the tunnel
dug through the earth as shown in the figure. Hence the correct statement is :-
(1) Particle will oscillate through the earth to a height h = R on both sides
(2) Motion of the particle is periodic
(3) Motion of the particle is simple harmonic
(4) Both (1) & (2)

SECTION-B

1) If Me is the mass of earth and Mm is the mass of moon (Me = 81 Mm). The potential energy of an
object of mass m situated at a distance R from the centre of earth and r from the centre of moon, will
be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field on a particle with
distance r due to a thin spherical shell of radius R? (r is measured from the centre of the spherical
shell)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
3) The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA,
KB and KC respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun

S as shown in the figure. Then

(1) KA < KB < KC

(2) KA > KB > KC
(3) KB < KA < KC
(4) KB > KA > KC

4) Assertion : A body falling freely under the force of gravity has constant acceleration (9.81
m/sec2).
Reason : Earth attracts every body towards its centre by the same force.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

5) If A is the areal velocity of a planet of mass M, its angular momentum is:-

(1) M/A
(2) 2MA
(3) A2M
(4) AM2

6) Ve and Vp denote the escape velocities from the earth and another planet having twice the radius
and the same mean density as that for the earth, then :-

(1) Ve = Vp
(2) Ve = 2Vp

(3)

(4)

7)

The diagram showing the variation of gravitational potential of earth with distance from the centre
of earth is take earth as a sphere.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

There is no atmosphere on moon because

(1) It is near the earth

(2) It is orbiting around the earth
(3) There was no gas at all
(4) The escape velocity of gas molecules is less than their root-mean square velocity

9) Let the acceleration due to gravity be g1 and a height h above the earth's surface and g2 at a depth
d below the earth's surface. If g1 = g2, h < < R and d < < R then :

(1) h = d
(2) h = 2d
(3) 2h = d
(4) it is not possible for g1 to be equal to g2

10) Weight of an object on earth's surface is 200 kg-wt. Then find out its weight on the surface of

planet having mass times of earth and radius half of the earth :

(1) 100 kg-wt

(2) 200 kg-wt
(3) 300 kg-wt
(4) 400 kg-wt
11) What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of a
planet of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) If radius of earth is increased by 1% and mass is increased by 4% then change in the value of
acceleration due to gravity is :

(1) 3%
(2) 1%
(3) 2%
(4) 6%

13) The acceleration due to gravity at a point P outside the earth is g. If the earth shrinks up to half
of the initial radius, then the acceleration due to gravity at the point P will become.

(1)

(2)

(3) 4g
(4) g

14) The eascape velocity from a planet is ve. A tunnel is dug along a diameter of the planet and a
small body is dropped into it. The speed of the body at the centre of the planet will be -

(1) ve
(2) ve/2
(3) 2ve
(4) ve/√2

15) For a satellite in elliptical orbit which of the following quantities does not remain constant :-

(1) Angular momentum

(2) Momentum
(3) Areal velocity
(4) Total energy

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
1) The order of reactivity for dehydration is :-

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > III > I
(3) I > III > II
(4) III > II > I

2) Incorrect statement about following reaction is:

(1) Carbon free radical is involved

(2) CO2 gas is release at cathode
(3) pH of solution is increases
(4) Butane is form as major product

3) Consider the reaction

product
The alkene formed in major amount :-

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(2)

(3) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2
(4) Both (1) and (3)

4) Baeyer's reagent is :-

(1) Acidified permanganate solution

(2) Alkaline permanganate solution
(3) Neutral permanganate solution
(4) Aqueous bromine solution

5) Which of the following metal carbide give alkane on hydrolysis:

(1) Al4C3
(2) CaC2
(3) Be2C
(4) Both (1) and (3)

6) CH3CH2OH + CH3MgI —→ ?
(1) CH3CH3
(2) CH4
(3) CH3CH2CH3
(4) CH3CH2CH2CH3

7)
C is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

The reagent needed to convert 2-butyne to cis-2-butene is :-

(1) H2/Pt
(2) H2/Lindlar's catalyst
(3) Li/NH3
(4) Na/NH3

9) Which of the following compounds has the highest melting point and boiling point respectively?
(i) o-dichlorobenzene
(ii) m-dichlorobenzene
(iii) p-dichlorobenzene

(1) (iii) and (i)

(2) (iii) and (ii)
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (i) and (iii)

10) Consider the following reaction sequence

Major product (C) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Which of the following is correct

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

12) (A) What will be major (A)?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)
What is relation between (A) and (B) ?

(1) Functional group isomer

(2) Geometrical isomer
(3) Position isomer
(4) Chain isomer

14) Electron density is increased in ring if G is :-

(1) –CCl3
(2) NH–CO–CH3
(3) –NO2
(4) –CHO

15) Which of the following will be most reactive towards Electrophilic substitution :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Assertion (A) :- cis-But-2-ene is more stable than its trans form.
Reason (R) :- Dipole moment of Trans form is greater than cis form

(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct

(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
(3) Assertion is not correct Reason is correct
(4) Assertion and Reason both are incorrect

17) In the given reaction

C6H5–O–CH2–CH3 [X] + [Y]
[X] and [Y] will respectively be

(1) C6H5I and CH3–CH2–I

(2) C6H5–OH and CH3–CH2–I
(3) C6H5I and CH3–CH2OH
(4) C6H5OH and CH2=CH2

18) Which of the following alcohol is unable to turn orange colour of dichromate in to green colour :-

(1) Primary alcohol

(2) Secondary alcohol
(3) Tertiary alcohol
(4) Allyl alcohol

19) Reaction of 23 gm of sodium with methyl alcohol gives :

(1) Half mole of H2

(2) One mole of H2
(3) One mole of O2
(4) None

20) In the Williamson synthesis of ethers given by the general equation :

R–X + R–ONa → R–O–R. The yield from R–X follows the sequence :-

(1) CH3 > 1° > 2° > 3°

(2) CH3 < 1° < 2° < 3°
(3) CH3 < 1° < 2° > 3°
(4) CH3 > 1° < 2° < 3°

21) What is the correct order of reactivity of the following alkyl halides towards
dehydrohalogenation (E1 mechanism) ?

(1) CH3CH2Cl > CH3CHClCH3 > (CH3)3CCl

(2) CH3CHClCH3 > (CH3)3CCl > CH3CH2Cl
(3) (CH3)3CCl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3CHClCH3
(4) (CH3)3CCl > CH3CHClCH3 > CH3CH2Cl

22) Which of the following have maximum dipole moment

(1) CH3F
(2) CH3Cl
(3) CH3Br
(4) CH3I

23) C2H5Cl + AgF C2H5F + AgCl

The above reaction is called

(1) Hunsdiecker reaction

(2) Swart's reaction
(3) Finkelstein reaction
(4) Wurtz reaction

24) Which will give white ppt. with AgNO3 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) & (3)

25) When ethyl iodide is heated with silver nitrite the product obtained is :-

(1) C2H5 -Ag

(2) Ag-O-NO2
(3) C2H5O–NO2
(4) C2H5–NO2

26) Incorrect match is–

(1) Iodoform – Antiseptic

(2) Pyrene – Fire extinguisher
(3) Freon 12 – aerosol propellants
(4) DDT – Fat insoluble

27) Trichloroacetaldehyde (CCl3CHO) reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and
produces :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Two teachers P & Q tried to prepare t-butyl methyl ether by different ways.
P :-

Q :-
Then choose the correct option(s) :-

(1) P's way is elimination reaction.

(2) Only Q will get the desired product.
(3) Both will get the desired product in good yield.
(4) Only P will get the desired product in good yield.

30) Major product is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

31) Assertion (A) :- Benzene reacts with excess of Cl2 in presence of sunlight to form BHC.
Reason (B) :- Reaction undergoes electrophilic substitution.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

32) Assertion :– t-butyl methyl ether is prepared by reaction of t-butyl bromide with methoxide ion.
Reason :– The above reaction follow SN2-mechanism.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

33) (A) and (B) are respectively

(1)
both

(2)
both

(3)
and

(4)
and

34) Which of the following halogen can reacts with alkane in dark ?

(1) F2
(2) Br2
(3) Cl2
(4) I2

35) In which of the following reaction, product is not alkane :-

CH3–CH2–I
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) In the following reaction, the product 'R' is :

(1) Benzene
(2) Toulene
(3) n-propyl benzene
(4) Ethyl benzene

2)

Best reagent for this conversion is :-

(1) O3,Zn+H2O

(2) NH2–NH2/ –Glycol

⊕
(3) KMnO4+H
(4) H2, Pd–BaSO4

3)

The reactivity of alkyl halides in E2 elimination reactions follows the order

(1) R – I < R – Br < R – Cl < R – F

(2) R – F < R – Cl < R – Br < R – I
(3) R – I > R – Cl > R – Br < R – F
(4) R – I < R – Br < R – F < R – Cl

4) Match the column I with column II.

Column-I Column-II
(Group attached with (Effect shown by
benzene ring) the group)

(A) —NO2 (P) – R effect

(B) —O– (Q) + R effect

(C) —O—CH3 (R) + I effect

(D) —C ≡ N (S) – I effect

(1) (A)–P,S ; (B)–Q,R ; (C)–Q,S ; (D)–P,S
(2) (A)–P,S ; (B)–Q,S ; (C)–P,R ; (D)–R,S
(3) (A)–P,S ; (B)–P,R ; (C)–R,S ; (D)–Q,S
(4) (A)–Q,S ; (B)–P,R ; (C)–Q,S ; (D)–P,S

5) The correct order of reactivity of the following compounds in SN1 reaction is-

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) I < III < IV < II
(3) I < IV < III < II
(4) IV < III < II < I

6) Rate of SN reaction will be maximum in which of the following solvents :

2

(1) H2O
(2) CH3OH

(3)

(4) DMF

7) Which of the following alcohol is most reactive towards dehydration :-

(1) CH3–CH2–OH

(2)

(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH

(4)

8) The order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards elimination reaction is :-

(1) 1° > 2° > 3°

(2) 2° > 1° > 3°
(3) 3° > 2° > 1°
(4) 3° > 1° > 2°

9) The unimolecular elimination involves formation of

(1) A free radical

(2) A carbanion
(3) A carbocation
(4) A biradical

10)
A and B are :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which of the following is most reactive towards Lucas reagent :-

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)

The reaction
 Proceed by the mechanism :
(1)
(2)
(3) SE
(4) SNi

14) In the given reaction A is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The correct order of reactivity towards the nucleophilic substitution for the following is

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) III > IV > II > I
(4) II > III > IV > I

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Select incorrect statements :

(i) Auxins are produced by growing apices of root and shoot
(ii) Natural auxins are 2, 4-D & NAA
(iii) Synthetic auxins are IAA & IBA
(iv) Auxin initiates rooting in stem cuttings
(v) Auxins helps in cell division

(1) i, ii, iii

(2) iv, v
(3) ii, iii
(4) iii, iv, v

2) See figure given below & select correct answer :

(1) Both leaves have same initial parameter/size

(2) Both leaves have same absolute growth rate
(3) Both leaves have different absolute growth rate
(4) Leaf-B have more relative growth rate than leaf-A

3) Match the column 'A', 'B' and C :

Column-A Column-B Column-C

Adenine
(A) Heterophylly (a) Rice seedlings (i)
derivative

(B) Auxin (b) Kinetin (ii) Plasticity

Foolish seedling
(C) (c) Cotton (iii) E. Kurosawa
disease

Apical
(D) Cytokinin (d) Indole compounds (iv)
dominance
(1) A-c-iii, B-a-i, C-d-iv, D-b-ii
(2) A-c-ii, B-d-iv, C-a-iii, D-b-i
(3) A-b-ii, B-c-iii, C-d-iv, D-a-i
(4) A-d-i, B-c-iii, C-a-ii, D-b-iv

4) Sugarcane yield can be improved by increase in stem length with the help of :

(1) Auxin
(2) GA
(3) ABA
(4) Ethylene

5) Plant growth is open & localized due to presence of :

(1) Meristems
(2) Differentiation
(3) Primary permanent tissue
(4) Nodes

6) Coleoptile of canary grass was used in accidental discovery of :

(1) ABA
(2) GA
(3) Auxins
(4) Ethylene

7) Fill in the blank :

_______ confirmed the release of volatile substance from ripened orange that hastened the ripening
of bananas :

(1) F.W. went

(2) Charles Darwin
(3) H.H. Cousins
(4) F.skoog & Miller

8) Generally growth inhibiting hormone is :

(1) Auxin
(2) Cytokinin
(3) GA
(4) ABA

9) Mathematically, arithmetic growth in plants is expressed as:

(1) Lt = L0 + rt
(2) Lt = L0× rt
(3) Lt = L0 / rt
(4) Lt = L0 – rt
10) One of the first gibberellins to be discovered and also the one that remains the most intensively
studied form is:

(1) GA1
(2) GA2
(3) GA3
(4) GA4

11) Natural cytokinin’s are synthesized in all the following regions in a plant except:

(1) Root apices

(2) Developing shoot buds
(3) Young fruits
(4) Senescent organs

12) Ethylene enhances the respiration rate during ripening of the fruits. This rise in rate of
respiration is called:

(1) Respiratory climactic.

(2) Utilisation coefficient.
(3) Respiratory hyperpnea.
(4) Oxygen debt.

13) Seed germination is inhibited by ABA in antagonism with:

(1) Auxins
(2) Ethylene
(3) Kinetins
(4) Cytokinin

14) Pruning (decapitation) of tea plants is done to discard the effects of

(1) GA3
(2) Auxin
(3) Cytokinin
(4) ABA

15) Trees showing seasonal activities represents what kind of growth curve ?

(1) Linear
(2) Sigmoid
(3) Double sigmoid
(4) J shaped

16) Plasticity in plant growth means that

(1) Plant roots are extensible
(2) Plant development is dependent on the environment
(3) Stems can extend
(4) None of the above

17) Match the following:

(A) IAA (i) Herring sperm DNA

(B) ABA (ii) Bolting

(C) Ethylene (iii) Stomatal closure

(D) GA (iv) Weed-fee lawns

(E) Cytokinins (v) Ripening of fruits

(1) A – iv, B – iii, C – v, D – ii, E – i
(2) A – v, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii, E – i
(3) A – iv, B – i, C – iv, D – iii, E – ii
(4) A – v, B – iii, C – ii, D – i, E – iv

18) Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:– In cotton, coriander and larkspur, difference in shapes of leaves produced in air and
those produced in water represent the heterophyllous development due to environment.
Statement II:– In buttercup, the leaves of the juvenile plant are different in shape from those in
mature plants.

(1) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

19) During mid-1960s, three independent researches reported the purification and chemical
characterization of three different kinds of inhibitors: inhibitor-B, abscission II and dormin. Later all
the three were provedto be chemically identical. It was named:

(1) Indole-3-acetic acid

(2) N6-furfurylamino purine
(3) Abscisic acid
(4) Gibberellic acid

20) Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the
following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce
female flowers in the plants:

(1) Gibberellin
(2) Ethylene
(3) Cytokinin
(4) ABA

21) Which is a correct mathematical expression of below graph ?

(1) L0 = Lt + rt
rt
(2) W1 = W0e
rt
(3) W0 = W1e
(4) Lt = L0 + rt

22) Which among the following is synthetic auxin ?

(1) IAA
(2) GA3
(3) Kinetin
(4) 2,4-D

23) Which of the following hormone is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry:-

(1) GA3
(2) ethylene
(3) cytokinin
(4) auxin

24) Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in :-

(1) Salvia
(2) Fig
(3) Viola
(4) Zostera

25) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct answer in a typical ovule :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Food storage tissue (i) Perisperm

Place where integument is

(B) (ii) Hilum
absent
 Remaining part of nucellus
(C) (iii) Nucellus
in seed

Junction between ovule and

(D) (iv) Micropyle
funicle
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

26) In above diagram which of the following is correct function of the corresponding
labelling :-

(1) C - Formation of primary endosperm.

(2) E - Entry of pollen tube in embryosac.
(3) A - Guide the entry of pollen tube.
(4) D - Formation of zygote after fusing with one of the male gamete.

27) If both male and female unisexual flowers are present on the same plant then :-

(1) It prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy

(2) It prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy
(3) This condition does not prevent autogamy
(4) It prevents cross pollination

28) In angiosperms following events occur during microgametogenesis :-

(a) Mitotic division in microspore.
(b) Meiotic division in miorospore mother cell.
(c) Formation of pollen grain.
(d) Formation of microspore.
(e) Formation of mature male gametophyte.
The correct sequence of event is :-

(1) b, a, d, e, c
(2) c, b, a, e, d
(3) b, d, a, c, e
(4) d, e, b, a, c

29) Flower with feathery stigma, numerous light pollen, colourless petals is characteristically:

(1) Bird pollinated flower

(2) Bat pollinated flower
(3) Wind pollinated flower
(4) Insect pollinated flower

30) Pollination by water is seen in :

(1) Vallisneria
(2) Commelina
(3) Yucca
(4) Castor

31) Filiform apparatus are seen in :-

(1) Egg cell

(2) Antipodals
(3) Synergids
(4) Endothecium

32) Both, autogamy and Geitonogamy are prevented in ?

(1) Papaya
(2) Maize
(3) Commelina
(4) Castor

33) How many pollen grain are formed from 100 microspore mother cells by meiosis ?

(1) 100
(2) 400
(3) 125
(4) 800

34)

The innermost layer of anther, that has polyploid and multi nucleate cells, is known as -

(1) epidermis
(2) endothecium
(3) middle layer
(4) tapetum

35) Which of the following pairs of plant parts are both haploid :

(1) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus

(2) Nucellus and antipodals
(3) Antipodals and Egg cell
(4) Megaspore mother cell and synergids

SECTION-B

1) In a transverse section, a typical microsporangium appears nearly _______ in outline.

(1) Tetragonal
(2) Circular
(3) Polygonal
(4) Tetrahedral

2) A mature anther has :-

(1) Tapetum, middle layer, two pollen sacs

(2) Epidermis, endothecium, four pollen sacs
(3) Tapetum, middle layer, four pollen sacs
(4) Epidermis, endothecium, two pollen sacs

3) Given below is the diagramatic sketch of T.S. of mature anther. Identify the labelled parts and
select the right option

Part A Part B Part C Part D

1 Endothecium Sporogenous Tissue Tapetum Connective

2 Tapetum Sporogenous Tissue Endothecium Connective

3 Endothecium Connective Tapetum Sporogenous Tissue

4 Tapetum Connective Endothecium Sporogenous Tissue

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Find the incorrect set :-

(1) Megasporangium – Micropyle – Basal region

(2) Egg apparatus – Synergids – Filiform apparatus
(3) Maize – Tassels – Styles and stigmas
(4) Vallisnaria – Hydrophily – On surface of water

5)

Read the following five statements (A–E) and answer as asked next to them -
(A) The anther is a tetralobed structure consisting of two pollen sacs.
(B) Each cell of sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a megaspore tetrad.
(C) Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
(D) Flower is modified stem
(E) The inner most layer of microsporangia is tapetum it nourishes the developing pollen grains.

How many of the above statements are correct:-

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

6) After entering ovule, the pollen tube releases two male gametes into the :-

(1) Cytoplasm of central cell

(2) Vacuole of female gamete
(3) Cytoplasm of antipodal cells
(4) Cytoplasm of degenerating synergid

7) Longest pollen grain is reported in :-

(1) Myosotis
(2) Zostera
(3) Zea mays
(4) Citrus

8) How many nucleus participate in double fertilization in angiosperm.

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Given below is the diagrammatic view of an embryo of grass. Identify the parts labelled (A),(B),
(C) and (D) and select the right option about them.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Coleoptile Scutellum Epiblast Coleorhiza
(2) Coleoptile Scutellum Coleorhiza Epiblast
(3) Scutellum Coleorhiza Epiblast Coleoptile
(4) Scutellum Coleoptile Epiblast Coleorhiza
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Epicotyl is :-

(1) Portion of embryonal axis below the level of cotyledons

(2) Portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons
(3) Part of radicle
(4) Part of embryosac

11) Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in :-

(1) Castor and coconut

(2) Wheat, rice and maize
(3) Barley and castor
(4) Pea, ground nut, gram and beans

12) To provide assured nutrition to developing embryo :-

(1) Angiospermic ovules are generally unitegmic.

(2) Angiospermic megasporangia has testa and integumentary tapetum.
(3) Nucellus is polyploid and shows amitosis
(4) Most zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm in formed.

13) Number of meiotic divisions required to produce 200 seeds of pea would be:
(1) 200
(2) 400
(3) 300
(4) 250

14) L.S. of a maize grain is given below. Identify labelled structures [A] & [B]:

[A] Embryo,
(1)
[B] Scutellum
[A] Scutellum,
(2)
[B] Embryo
[A] Endosperm,
(3)
[B] Scutellum
[A] Scutellum,
(4)
[B] Endosperm

15) In the following figures, (A) and (B) represent respectively

(1) Plumule and cotyledons

(2) Cotyledons and plumule
(3) Suspensor and cotyledons
(4) Cotyledons and suspensor

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is not a secondary sex organ of male ?

(1) Vas deferens
(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Testis
(4) Prostate gland

2) Which sequence is correct for male genital tract?

(1) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens → Urethra
(2) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Urethra
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Epididymis → Urethra
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Vasa efferentia → Seminal vesicle →
(4)
Urethra

3) Epididymis is :-

(1) Network of sinuses between seminiferous tubules and vasa efferentia

(2) Intermediate structure between rete testis and vasa efferentia
(3) A long coiled tube between vasa efferentia and vas deferens
(4) Connection between vas deferens and seminal vesicle

4)

How many of the following are secondary sex organs in males ?

Uterus, Epididymis, Vas deferens, Prostate, Fallopian tube, Seminal vesicles, Penis, Vagina, Testes,
Bulbourethral glands
(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Four

5) Which statement is correct ?

(1) Glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin called foreskin

The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicle, paired prostate and paired
(2)
bulbourethral gland
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Breast are secondary sex organ

6) Liberation of sperms from seminiferous tubules is called :-

(1) Semination
(2) Spermiation
(3) Ejaculation
(4) Insemination

7) Fill in the blanks in the following statements :-

The human male ejaculates about ........ million sperms during a coitus of which, for normal fertility,
at least ........... percent sperms must have normal shape and size and at least ........ percent of them
must show vigorous motility.

(1) 400 - 500, 60, 40

(2) 100 - 120, 40, 60
(3) 200 - 300, 60, 40
(4) 200 - 300, 40, 60

8) Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its function.

(1) Ovary → Synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones.

(2) Fimbriae → Collection of the ovum after ovulation
(3) Seminal vesicle → Produces a sugar containing fluid to nourish sperm.
(4) Bartholin glands → Secrete alkaline fluid to destroys the acidity of the urethra.

9) Hymen can be torn or broken by : (i) First coitus

(ii) Sudden fall or jolt
(iii) Horse riding
(iv) Cycling
(v) Insertion of a vaginal tampon

(1) i, ii and iv only

(2) iii, iv and v only
(3) i, iv and v only
(4) All of these

10) Which piece of a sperm is called power house ?

(1) Head piece

(2) Neck piece
(3) Middle piece
(4) Tail piece

11) Which of the following is correct for colostrum ?

(1) It contains severel antibodies.

(2) It is produced during the last few days of lactation.
(3) It is a pheromone.
(4) It can be white

12) The terminal structure of the mammary glands through which milk is sucked out is known as :

(1) Lumen of alveoli

(2) Mammary duct
(3) Lactiferous duct
(4) Mammary lobe

13)

Arrange following events of female reproductive cycle (human) in sequence :-

(I) Secretion of FSH
(II) Growth of corpus luteum
(III) Growth of follicles
(IV) Ovulation

(V) Sudden increase in level of LH

(1) III → I → IV → II → V
(2) I → III → V → IV → II
(3) I → IV → III → V → II
(4) II → I → III → IV → V

14)

Ist meiotic division in the process of oogenesis is completed:-

(1) Before birth

(2) Before puberty
(3) After puberty
(4) In intra uterine life

15) Assertion (A): Oogenesis is different from spermatogenesis.

Reason (R): Oogenesis is started at infant stage of life.

(1) A is true & R is correct explanation.

(2) A & R both true but not correct explanation.
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) A is true but R is false

16) Lack of mensturation may be caused due to :-

(1) Pregnancy
(2) Poor health
(3) Stress
(4) All

17) Which hormone attains two peaks during menstrual cycle ?

(1) Inhibin
(2) LH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Estrogen
18) Which of the following are natural contraceptive methods?
(A) Periodic abstinence
(B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhoea
(D) M.T.P.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, D

19) Which may be a complication problem of STD, when it is not timely detected–

(1) PID
(2) Still Birth
(3) Infertility
(4) All of these

20) Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by :-

(1) Killing the sperms in uterus

(2) Forming barriers between sperms and ova.
(3) Preventing ovulation
(4) Killing the ova

21) Which of the following event induce the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary
oocyte in Human ?

(1) The process of contact of sperm with Oogonia.

(2) The entry of the sperm into the cytoplasm of the ovum.
(3) The release of ovum from the ovary.
(4) Collection of ovum after ovulation by infundibulum.

22) At puberty the number of follicles in a healthy female are

(1) 60000 – 80000 per ovary

(2) 30000 – 40000 per ovary
(3) 200000 per ovary
(4) 120000 – 160000 per ovary

23) In human beings, embryo’s heart is formed

(1) After one month of pregnancy

(2) After two months of pregnancy
(3) After three months of pregnancy
(4) After fourth months of pregnancy
24) The most probable site of fertilization is

(1) Fundus of uterus

(2) Ampulla of fallopian tube
(3) Isthmas of fallopian tube
(4) Cervix of uterus

25) Which of the following is not a component of Fallopian tube?

(1) Uterine fundus

(2) Isthmus
(3) Infundibulum
(4) Ampulla

26) Second polar body is released during oogenesis :-

(1) After completion of meiosis-II

(2) After completion of first meiotic division
(3) Just before ovulation
(4) Just before the entry of sperm

27) Which statements are correct?

(a) A sperm head contains DNA and an acrosome.
(b) Mitochondria in the mid piece of a sperm produce ATP for sperm motility. (c) An acrosome is
specialized lysosome that contain enzyme that enable sperm to produce ATP needed to propel
themselves out of the male reproductive system.

(1) b, c
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, c

28) In a female undergoing tubectomy, which one of the following event will not occur?

(1) Menstruation cycle

(2) Ovulation
(3) Fusion of sperm and ovum
(4) Formation of graafian follicle

29) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its
implantation into a woman and select the correct option together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Copper–T Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Oviduct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) How many factors are related to infertility-

(A) Psychological
(B) Immunological
(C) Physical
(D) Congenital
(E) Drugs
(F) Diseases

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) All

31) Zona pellucida is formed around ................ :-

(1) Primary oocyte in secondary follicle

(2) Primary oocyte in primary follicle
(3) Secondary oocyte in mature graafian follicle
(4) Secondary oocyte in primary follicle

32) What is true for corpus luteum?

(1) It is formed before the ovulation
(2) It forms inside the ovum
(3) It is a temporary endocrine gland
(4) It secretes FSH and LH

33) The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during
which month of pregnancy ?

(1) Fifth month

(2) Fourth month
(3) Third month
(4) Sixth month

34) Identify A, B, C and D in given diagram

A B C D

(1) Vagina Cervix Fimbriae Ovary

(2) Ovary Fimbriae Cervix Vagina

(3) Ovary Cervix Vagina Fimbriae

(4) Ampulla Ovary Vagina Cervix

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into:-

(1) 15-20 mammary lobes

(2) 15-20 alveoli
(3) 15-20 tubules
(4) None of the above

SECTION-B

1) Saheli, a new contraceptive drug was developed at CDRI. This research institute is located in

(1) Andhra Pradesh

(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Lucknow
(4) Arunachal Pradesh

2) Choose the incorrect regarding the given diagram of a contraceptive method :-

(1) It is a surgical method, also called sterilisation

(2) It prevents gamete transport and thereby prevent conception
(3) In this, a small part of epididymis is removed or tied up through a small incision on the abdomen
In this, a small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the
(4)
scrotum

3) Which of the following method of contraception is used alongwith spermicidal creams, Jellies and
foams ?

(1) Pills
(2) Lippe's loop
(3) Vaults
(4) Coitus interruptus

4) Statement-I : Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its
misuse.
Statement-II : Such restrictions are all the more important to check indiscriminate and illegal
female foeticides which are reported to be high in India.

(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and II are correct

5)

Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within.

(1) 72 hrs of coitus

(2) 72 hrs of ovultion
(3) 72 hrs of mensturation
(4) 72 hrs of implantation

6) The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in Assisted Reproductive Technology is called
:

(1) GIFT
(2) ZIFT
(3) ICSI
(4) ET

7) According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), reproductive health encompasses which
aspects of reproduction?

(1) Only physical aspects

(2) Only emotional aspects
(3) Physical, emotional, behavioural, and social aspects
(4) Only behavioural and social aspects

8) Assertion (A): Day 10 to 17 of the cycle are called fertile period.

Reason (R): Chances of fertilisation during day 10 to 17 are very high.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is in correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

9) If a female can not produce labour pain during parturition, then what step should be taken by
doctor ?

(1) Wait and watch

(2) Oxytocin injections given
(3) Progesterone is given
(4) Cesarian done

10) Which hormones is essential for maintenance of the endometrium.

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Progesterone
(4) Testosterone

11) 100 primary spermatocyte will form how many sperm?

(1) 300
(2) 100
(3) 200
(4) 400

12) Identify the cells given in diagram and choose the correct option
 A-Interstitial cells, B-Spermatogonia,
(1)
C- Spermatozoa
(2) A-Spermatogonia, B-Spermatozoa, C-Leydig cells
A-Spermatozoa, B-Interstitial cells,
(3)
C-Spermatogonia
A-Leydig cells, B-Interstitial cells,
(4)
C-Spermatogonia

13) During copulation/coitus semen is released by the penis into the Vagina this is known as :

(1) Insemination
(2) Ejaculation
(3) Spermiation
(4) Semination

14) Which of the following structure is not included in external genitalia of female ?

(1) Mons pubis

(2) Labia majora
(3) Clitoris
(4) Cervix

15) Read the following statements :-

(a) Non-steroidal pill.
(b) Developed by CDRI
Above statements refers to :-

(1) Depo-provera
(2) LNG-20
(3) Mala-D
(4) Saheli
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 2 4 3 4 2 4 3 2 1 2 3 4 1 1 1 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 3 3 3 1 4 2 1 1 3 1 1 3 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 4 2 4 2 3 3 4 3 2 1 3 4 4 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 2 3 2 4 2 2 2 1 3 4 2 2 2 2 4 2 3 1 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 2 4 4 4 1 2 4 1 2 4 3 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 2 2 1 1 4 2 3 3 2 4 3 2 2 2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 4 1 3 4 1 2 2 2 2 1 3 3 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 1 3 3 3 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 4 1 4 4 2 2 4 2 4 4 4 3 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 3 2 1 2 3 4 4 3 1 3 2 3 4 4 4 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 3 3 4 3 3 1 2 1

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 3 3 4 1 3 3 1 2 3 4 1 1 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

4)

Free expansion, dW = 0 and dQ = 0,

⇒ Temperature = Constant
⇒ P1V1 = P2V2

6)

(A) Boltzmann constant (k)

(A) → s
(B) Coefficient of viscosity (η)

(B) → q
(C) Planck's constant (h)

= angular momentum
[h] = [mvr] = [MLT–1 L]
= [ML2 T–1]
(c) → p
(D) Thermal conductivity (λ)

Rate of heat flow =

(D) → r

7) Fact

9) Weins law : λmT = constant

400 × T = 500 × 6000 ⇒ T = 7500 K
10) Heat gain by ice = Heat loss by water
⇒ mL + ms (Tm – 0) = ms(100 – Tm)
⇒ 50 × 80 + 50 × 1 (Tm – 0) = 50 × 1(100 – Tm)
⇒ 4000 + 50Tm= 5000 – 50Tm r Tm=10 °C

12) In an isothermal process, temperature remains constant and since internal energy is a
function of temperature only, therefore there will be no change in the internal energy ΔU = 0.
Using the first law of thermodynamics,
ΔU = Q – W = 0
or Q = W = + 600 J
Thus, the gas absorbs 600 J of heat from the surroundings.

15) Q = mLf + ms Δθ + mLv

= (1 × 80) + (1 × 1 × 100) + (1 × 536) = 716 cal

16)

17) vrms = same ⇒ T ∝ Mw

20) For same geometry

Tj =

= = 60°C

34)

35) When the particle is outside the tunnel force acting on it is ∝ where, r is the distance
from the centre of the earth.
 When the particle is inside the tunnel force acting on it is ∝ where, r is the distance from the
centre of the earth.
In both cases, force is always directed towards the centre of the earth.
Thus motion is oscillatory and also periodic but not SHM.

36) =

37)

38)
As L = mvr = contant
and rC > rB > rA
so vA > vB > vC ⇒ KA > KB > KC

45)

CHEMISTRY

51)
Rate of E1 ∝ stability of Carbocation

53)

57)

58)

61) All of these

62)
63)
So, these are geometrical isomer.

65)

Reactivity µ +M group

66)
Dipole moment : cis > trans
Stability : trans > cis

72) NCERT XII / Part II / Pg.# 286

73) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page No: 166, Article No: 6.4.3, Edition 2023 - 24.

74) Releasing free ion gives white ppt of AgCl

75) NCERT XII/ Part-II/Page-292

81)

85)

86)
 87)

Wolf Kischner's reduction

89) –NO2 is –I, –R

–O– is +I, +R
–O–CH3 is –I, +R
–CN is –I, –R

96) does not form in dehydration of

BOTANY

101) NCERT-XI, Pg # 248, 15.4.3.1

102) NCERT-XI, Pg # 244, Fig.-15.7

103) NCERT-XI, Pg No. 173,175, 176

104) NCERT-XI, Pg # 176, 13.4.3.2

105) NCERT-XI, Pg # 240, 15.1.1

106) NCERT-XI, Pg # 247, 15.4.2

107) NCERT-XI, Pg # 247, 15.4.2

108) NCERT-XI, Pg # 247, 15.4.1

125) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 25

126) NCERT, Pg. # 17

127) NCERT Pg. # 31

129) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29

130) NCERT XII Pg. # 29(E), 31(H)

 131) NCERT, Pg. # 10, 11

132) NCERT, Page#31(E), 33(H)

133)

1 M.M.C = 4 Pollen Grain

100 M.M.C = 100 × 4 = 400 Pollen Grain

136) NCERT XII Pg # 21

138) NCERT XII pg.#22, figure 2.3(a) (E)

139)

NCERT XII pg.# 25,27,29,

para 2.2.2, 3

140) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 21

141) NCERT Page # 32

144) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 35 (Fig. 2.14-b)

145) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 35 , IV para

146) NCERT Page # 35

147) NCERT Page # 25, 35

149) NCERT XII Pg.# 21

150) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 18

ZOOLOGY

155)

NCERT XII - Page no 43 + 44 + 47

156) NCERT Pg. # 47

159)

NCERT Pg. 46, Para 2

162)

[NCERT, Pg. 47, Para 1]

165)

[NCERT PG. 48] (old NCERT)

167) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 50

168) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 60 (E) 66 (H)

175) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 29

177) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 48, Para-3.3

179) NCERT XII Pg. # 60 (E) 67 (H) Fig. 4.2

180) Pg. 63 - Last 2 lines

182) NCERT (XII) Pg#51 Para: 3.4

183) NCERT XIIth Pg # 54

187) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 45

188) NCERT-XII Pg#44

192) Reproductive health, as defined by the World Health Organisation (WHO), refers to a
total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, which includes physical, emotional, behavioural,
and social aspects. It is not limited to the healthy functioning of reproductive organs but also
encompasses the emotional and social aspects of reproduction.

193) NCERT Pg.# 59-60