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AITS JEE Advanced Test-14_Paper-1 (12th)_Question

The document outlines the structure and instructions for the 12th JEE Advanced Test, including sections for Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with a total of 54 questions and a maximum score of 180 marks. It details the marking schemes for different types of questions, including numerical value, multiple choice, and matching questions, as well as OMR sheet instructions. Additionally, it provides important constants and values relevant to the exam.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
39 views12 pages

AITS JEE Advanced Test-14_Paper-1 (12th)_Question

The document outlines the structure and instructions for the 12th JEE Advanced Test, including sections for Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with a total of 54 questions and a maximum score of 180 marks. It details the marking schemes for different types of questions, including numerical value, multiple choice, and matching questions, as well as OMR sheet instructions. Additionally, it provides important constants and values relevant to the exam.

Uploaded by

a96554132
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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12th JEE Advanced

AJLA15.1/14 Test- 14
DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 20/04/2025 M.MARKS : 180

Topics covered
Physics: Full Syllabus
Chemistry: Full Syllabus
Mathematics: Full Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 180.
SECTION-1 (Maximum Marks: 24)
This section contains EIGHT (08) questions.
• The answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen virtual
numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value of TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

SECTION-2 (Maximum marks: 24)


• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s)
is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.

SECTION-3 (Maximum marks: 12)


• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II has Five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T).
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these
four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
[1]
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[2]
IMPORTANT CONSTANTS

Speed of light in free space, : 3.00 × 108 ms–1


Permeability of free space, : 4 × 10–7 Hm–1
Permittivity of free space, : 8.85 × 10–12 Fm–1
The Planck constant, : 6.63 × 10–34 Js
Rest mass of electron, : 9.1 × 10–31 kg
Rest mass of proton, : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Molar gas constant, : 8.31 JK–1 mol–1
The Avogadro constant, : 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
The Boltzmann constant, : 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1
Gravitational constant, : 6.67 × 10–11 N m2kg–2
Acceleration of free fall : 9.8 ms–2
Rydberg Constant : 1.097 × 107 m–1
Atomic mass unit : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Charge on proton : 1.6 × 10–19 C

IMPORTANT VALUES

= 1.414 ln 10 = 2.303
3 = 1.732 log102 = 0.3010
5 = 2.236 log103= 0.4770
 = 3.142 log107 = 0.845
e (Euler’s constant) = 2.718

* Use above values unless otherwise specified in a question.


❑❑❑
PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-1
Numerical Value Type Questions:
1. A 60 kg block rest on a massless very long belt
which passes over a fixed pulley and is attached to
a 40 kg block. If coefficient of friction between
the belt and the table as well as between the belt
and the block B is µ = 0.5 and the system is
released from rest from the position shown, the
speed with which the block B falls off the belt is 5. A cylindrical uniform rod of mass 0.72 kg and
____ m/s. (Assume pulley size negligible) radius 6 cm rest on two parallel rails, that are
d = 50 cm apart. The rod carries a current i = 48 A
(in the direction shown) and rolls along the rails
without slipping. If it start from rest, uniform
magnetic field of magnitude 0.25 T is directed
perpendicular to the rod and the rail, then find the
friction force (in N) between rod and rails.

2. At a point on the screen in YDSE, 3rd maxima is


observed at t = 0. Now screen is slowly moved
with constant speed away from the slits in such a
way that the centre of slits and centre of screen lie
on same line always and at t = 1 s, the intensity at
th 6. A body of mass m is projected horizontally just
3
that point is observed to be   of maximum above the earth surface with velocity v0 = ngR ,
4
intensity in between 2nd and 3rd maxima for where R is the radius of earth. If maximum height
5 attained by the body from the surface of earth is
second time. The speed of screen will be m/s. 2R, find the value of n.
x
Find the value of x. (Distance between slits and
the screen at t = 0 is 1 m)

3. Radiation from hydrogen gas in the first excited


state is used for illumination certain photoelectric
plate. When the radiation from some unknown
hydrogen like gas excited to the same level used 7. A parallel beam is incident on a highly conducting
to expose the same plate, it is found that the de-
sphere of unknown emissivity. The intensity of
Broglie wavelength of the fastest photoelectron
has decreased 2.3 times. It is given that the energy incident radiation on sphere is 912 W/m2. Take
corresponding to the longest wavelength of the Stefans Boltzmann constant σ = 5.7 × 10−8 W m−2
Lyman series of the unknown gas is 3 times the K−4 and surrounding temperature is 300 K.
ionization energy of hydrogen gas (13.6 eV). Find Assume that the energy exchange with
the work function of photoelectric plate in eV. surrounding is only through radiation. Find the
(Take (2.3)2 = 5.25). final steady state temperature of the sphere (in

4. A hemispherical earth plate is buried into the earth


(
°C). Take 11 = 3.32 and 7 = 2.65 )
in level with its surface (Fig.). Find the voltage
difference (step voltage) (in V) which may be
applied to a girl approaching this earth plate so
that girl does not experience any current through
her. The current passing through the earth plate is
equal to I, the length of a step is l, and the distance 8. A parallel plate capacitor of plate separation 2 mm
between the plate and the foot closer to it is r0 is connected in an electric circuit having source
(given that electrical conductivity of earth voltage 600 V. If plate area is 60 cm2 then
material is σ = 10–3 S/m and I = 0.3π A, r0 = 2 m assuming that capacitor is fully charged in time
and l = 1 m). 10−6 sec, the average value of displacement
current is x0  109 A. The value of x is

[4]
SECTION-2  sin i1 
One or More Than One Correct Type Questions: (C) The value of r1 is sin −1  
 1 
9. Five identical capacitors (capacity C each) are
 R 
connected to form a network as shown: (D) The value of r2 is sin −1  1 sin i1 
 2 R2 

11. There exists a smooth semicircular groove in a


rigid, light inclined wedge of inclination α = 60°.
Some points have been marked on the network as The groove has a radius R and the wedge is
1, 2, 3 & 4. Across any pair out of these four attached fixed to a heavy scale at bottom which
points, we can connect an ideal battery and can measure the contact force between itself and
measure some parameters. Then, consider the the wedge. Now, a small smooth ball of mass m
following statements and choose the correct is dropped into the groove as shown:
option(s).
(A) If a DC battery is connected across points 1
and 2, then minimum charge on a capacitor
is zero
(B) If a DC battery (voltage V) is connected
across points 1 and 4, then minimum charge
on a capacitor is CV Consider the collision of the ball (having mass m
8
and released from rest) just as it enters in the
(C) Equivalent capacitance across points 2 and 3
groove to be completely inelastic. Then, choose
is 3C the correct option(s) regarding the above
2
(D) Equivalent capacitance across points 3 and 4 situation.
(A) Speed of ball just after collision is gR
is 5C
3 (B) The ball exits the groove with a speed

10. There is a spherical glass ball of refractive index (2 )


3 − 1 gR

µ1 and another glass ball of refractive index µ2 (C) Maximum reading of the scale (excluding
inside it concentrically as shown in figure kept in
air. The radius of the outer balls is R1 and that of
(
the collision) is 4 + 3 mg)
(D) Minimum reading of the scale (as long as the
inner ball is R2. A ray is incident on the outer
ball is in the groove) happens just after the
surface of the ball at an angle i1 at A. Mark the
collision.
correct options.
(r1 and r2 are angles of refractions at A and B
12. A cylindrical log of wood is floating in a large
respectively)
pool of water with its length normal to water’s
surface. The log has a radius r, mass m, length l
and has density σ. If the log is depressed below
its equilibrium depth d (but not beneath the
surface of water) and then released, it executes
harmonic oscillations with time period T.
(Assume density of water to be ρ)
m 2 m
−1  sin i1 
(A) T = 2 (B) T =
(A) The value of r1 is sin   2rlg r g
 2 
m m
 R  (C) d = (D) d =
(B) The value of r2 is sin −1  2 sin i1  2 gl r 2
 2 R1 

[5]
13. Consider a situation shown in the figure. Source force with horizontal so that cube topples without
and observer both are moving towards the wall sliding, then match the value of Fmin and θ in list-
with velocities vs and v0 respectively. The wall is II with values of coefficient of friction, μ
moving away with velocity u. The wind is
blowing with a velocity ω towards the wall. The between cube and surface in list-I.
frequency of the sound emitted by the source is n0
and the velocity of sound with respect to air is v.
For the frequency (n) and wavelength (λ) of the
reflected waves received by the observer choose
correct options. List-I List-II
I 1 P F min = 5 ( mg / 2 )
=
3
II 1 Q θ = 45°
=
4
III 3 R Fmin = mg / 2
=
( v −  + u ) ( v +  + vs ) 4
(A)  = IV S θ = 0°
n0 (v +  + u ) =
2
3
 v +  + u   v −  + v0 
(B) n = n0    T Fmin = mg / 2
 v +  + vs   v −  + u 
( v −  + u ) ( v +  − vs ) I II III IV
(C)  = (A) Q, T P R, S R, S
n0 (v +  − u )
(B) P, Q P S, T P, Q
 v + −u   v −  + v0 
(D) n = n0    (C) Q, T R S, T S, T
 v +  − vs  v −  + u  (D) P, Q S, T P Q, R
14. A ring of radius r is moving without slipping on a
circular track of radius R. Angular speed of the 16. Match the phenomenon and equations in list-I
ring about its axis is  . Ignoring the fact that the with their respective match in list-II. (T is surface
ring axis is inclined. tension)
List-I List-II
I Excess pressure inside P Decreases
a drop of radius R with
2 r increase in
(A) The angular acceleration of the ring is temperature
R
(B) The angular acceleration of the ring is II Excess pressure inside Q 2T
( R − r ) 2 a soap bubble of radius R
R R
(C) The angular velocity of centre of the ring III Excess pressure inside R 4T
about vertical axis passing through the
r
a long cylindrical air R
centre of track is cavity of radius R
R
(D) The angular velocity of centre of the ring IV Surface tension S Decreases
about vertical axis passing through the with
centre of track is
(R − r)  . increase in
R radius
T T
SECTION-3
Matrix Match Type Questions: R
15. Match the Following: I II III IV
A cube of side a and mass m lies on a horizontal (A) P,Q,S P,R,S P,Q,S P
surface. Cube is pulled by force F acting at an (B) P,R,S P P,Q,S P,Q,S
angle θ as shown in figure. If Fmin is the minimum (C) P,Q,S P,R,S P,T,S P
force and θ is the corresponding angle made by (D) P,Q,S P,T,S P,R,S P

[6]
17. In List I some AC circuits with meter readings I II III IV
are given and in List II some circuit quantities are (A) P,Q P,Q,R,S R,S R
given. Match the entries of List I with the entries (B) P,Q,R P,R P,Q,R,S R,S
of List II (Assume all the voltmeter are ideal) (C) P,Q,R,S P,R,T P,Q,R,S R,T
List-I List-II (D) P,Q,R,S Q,S R,S R
I P VR = 150
volt 18. In Bohr’s atomic model for hydrogen atom, match
the contents of list-I with contents of list-II.
List-I List-II
I If electron P Speed of
jumps from n = electron will
V1 = 25000 V; 2 to n = 1 become 2
V2 = 200V times
II Q VL = 50 II If electron Q Kinetic
volt jumps from n = energy of
1 to n = 5 electron will
become 4
times
III If electron R Angular
jumps from n = momentum of
XC 4
= 3 to n = 1 electron will
R 3 increases by
V1 = 150volt 4 times
III R VC = 250 IV If electron S Angular
volt jumps from n = velocity of
6 to n = 3 electron
becomes 27
times
T Current due
V1 = 25000 V; to electron
V2 = 85000 V becomes 8
V3 = 150V times
IV S Power I II III IV
factor of (A) R T S P,Q,T
the circuit (B) S R P,Q,T T
(C) T S R P,Q,T
is 3 (D) P,Q,T R S P,Q,T
5

XC 4
= V1 = 0
R 3
T Power
factor of
the circuit
is 4
5

PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-1 20. In the following reaction
Numerical Value Type Questions:
19. For a saturated solution of AgCl at 25°C, specific
conductance is 3.32 × 10–6 ohm–1 cm–1 and that of
water used for preparing the solution was 1.5 × 10–6
The percentage yield of the product (P) is 100%.
ohm–1 cm–1. If the solubility product of AgCl is x ×
The weight in grams of the product (P) formed
10–10 mol2L–2, then the value of x is …..
by completely reacting 21.25 grams of reactant
[Given   –1 2 –1
eqv (AgCl) = 138.3 ohm cm eqv ] (R) is
(Give answer upto two decimal places). (Given, molar mass of N–14, C–12, H–1 g/mol)

[7]
21. Calculate f H (magnitude only) for chloride The specific rotations of A, B and C are + 40°,
+10° and –30° per mole, respectively. If initially
ion (aq.) from the following data : (in kJ)
A and C were present in 4 : 3 mole ratio, the time
(in hours), after which the sample becomes
1 1
H 2 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g ) → HCl ( g ) ;  f H = −92.4kJ optically inactive, is____________. (Give
2 2 answer upto two decimal places)
(ln 2 = 0.7, ln 5 = 1.6, ln 7 = 2.0, ln 13 = 2.5)
HCl ( g ) + H2O ( ) → H3O+ ( aq ) + Cl− ( aq ); SECTION-2
H = −74.8kJ One or More Than One Correct Type Questions:
27. Select the correct statement with respect to
f H of H + ( aq ) = 0.0kJ Na2O2
(A) It decolourises acidified KMnO4
22. Find the number of carbonyl compounds (B) It is obtained along with Na metal when
Na2O is heated to a temperature more than
produced in below reaction which can respond to
400°C
both haloform and Tollen’s test. (C) On heating with oxygen at 450°C and 300
atm it becomes paramagnetic
(D) It gives both H2O2 and O2 with water as well
as with sulphuric acid.

28. There are three elements A, B, and C. Their


atomic number are Z1, Z2 and Z3 respectively. If
23. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of 0.1 molal Z + Z2
Z1– Z2 = 2 and 1 = Z3 − 2 , the electronic
aqueous solution of urea is 0.03 mm less than 2
that of water and the vapour pressure of 0.1 configuration of element A is [Ar]3d64s2, then
correct order(s) of spin only magnetic moment
molal aqueous solution of KCl is 0.0594 mm less is/are:
than that of water. The apparent percentage (A) B+ > A2+ > C2+ (B) A3+ > B2+ > C
dissociation of KCl in water at the given (C) B > A > C2+ (D) B = A3+ > C3+
temperature is (Neglect the moles of solute
particles in comparison to the moles of water in 29. Which is/are true for the Brownian motion of
colloids?
both solutions) (Nearest integer)
(A) It occurs in lyophilic as well as lyophobic
colloids.
24. What is the pH of solution after addition of 20 ml (B) It depends upon size of the particle and
of 0.1 M NaOH in the 50 ml of 0.1 M acetic acid viscosity.
solution. (pKa of CH3COOH = 4.76). (C) It is responsible for the stability of sol.
(D) Smaller is the size faster is the movement of
(Given, log2 = 0.30, log 3 = 0.48)
colloidal particle.

25. Hydrogen like species is in some excited state ‘P’ 30. Which of the following order for basic strength
and on absorbing photon of energy ‘a’ eV is/are correct?
reached to a new state ‘Q’ from where, on de-
excitation back to the ground state a total of 10 (A)
photons of different wave lengths were emitted in
which seven have energy greater than ‘a’ eV. The
ionization energy in the ground state will be “xa”
(B)
eV. Find the value of x.
(Give answer upto two decimal places).
(C)
26. An optically active substance, A, decomposes
into optically active substances ‘B’ and ‘C’ as:
K =0.001min −1
A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ 2B + C (D)

[8]
31. Select the correct statement(s) from the following III Calgon’s R OH– exchanges with
(A) A square planar complex is always optically method Cl– present in water
active in nature. IV Synthetic S Method to remove
(B) The correct IUPAC name of H2[PtCl6] is resin’s permanent hardness
Dihydrogen hexachloridoplatinate (IV). method of water
(C) The oxidation state of Co in T CO2 is produced as
[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 is +3. one of the product
(D) The correct electronic distribution in d5
system in octahedral field is (t2g)3(eg)2, (if Correctly match List-I with List-II and choose
pairing energy >Δ0). the correct option.
I II III IV
32. Which of the following are correct regarding Si (A) S P, S S P, R, S
compounds? (B) Q, S P S P, T
(A) Cross linked silicones are obtained by (C) P, Q P, S S R, S
hydrolysis of RSiCl3 (D) P, S R P P, S
(B) Linear silicone are obtained by hydrolysis of
R2SiCl2 35. List-I contains reactions and List-II contains
(C) Sc2(Si2O7) is a example of pyrosilicate products formed and the information about the
(D) In three dimensional (3–D) silicates (SiO2), reaction. Match List-I with List-II
three oxygen atom of SiO−44 is shared with List-I List-II
I P Elimination is
adjacent SiO−44 unit
preferred over
substitution
SECTION-3
II Q Substitution is
Matrix Match Type Questions:
preferred over
33. Match the List-I with List-II:
elimination
List-I (Reaction) List-II (Products)
III R Acid-base
I Cu + dil HNO3 P NO
reaction occurs
II Cu + conc Q NO2
but elimination
HNO3
does not takes
III Zn + dil HNO3 R N2O
place
IV Zn + conc HNO3 S Cu(NO3)2
IV S Intramolecular
T Zn(NO3)2 nucleophilic
I II III IV substitution
(A) P, S R, S Q, T P, T reaction takes
(B) P, S Q, S R, T Q, T place
(C) Q, S P, S S, T Q, T T Possible
(D) Q, S R, S P, T R, T product is
(majorly)
34. List-I contains few methods to remove hardness
of water and List-II contains their characteristics.
List-I List-II
I Clark's P Form insoluble I II III IV
method carbonates (A) Q, R, S P Q Q, R, T
II Treatment Q Calculated amount (B) Q, S, T P, R S, T P, Q, R, T
with washing of lime is added to (C) P, Q, R Q, R, S, T Q, R P, Q, R, T
soda hard water (D) Q, R, T P, Q, R, S Q, R P, S, T

[9]
36. Given : Kb (CH3COO–) = 10–9 III Addition of 50 R Emf of cell =
K h (NH+4 ) = 10−9 , Kw = 10–14 , log2 = 0.30 ml 0.1 M NaOH 0.36 V
2.303RT in cathode
= 0.06
F compartment

IV Addition of 100 S Emf of cell =


ml 0.1 M NaOH 0.129 V
in cathode
compartment

T Eocell = 0

I II III IV
(A) P,R,T S, T R, T Q,S, T
(B) S R, T Q, S P, R, T
List-I List-II
(C) R, T Q, S P, R, T S
I Addition of 50 P pOH of (D) Q, S, T R, T S, T P, R, T
ml 0.1 M HCl in anode
anode compartment
compartment is 5

II Addition of 100 Q pH of
ml 0.1 M HCl in cathode of
anode compartment
compartment is 8.85

PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-1 41. Consider all 5 digit numbers, from these numbers
Numerical Value Type Questions: 'a' numbers have the property that product of
1 their digits is 25 and 'b' numbers have the
n
 ( 5n + nx ) dx
a
37. The value of lim is equal to property that product of their digits is 15, then
n→ b
0
is
1 −1 1 
38. If A =  0 2 −3 and B = (adj A), then the 42. The first of the two samples in a group has 100
 
 2 1 0  items with mean 15 and standard deviation 3. If
the whole group has 250 items with mean 15.6
value of |(ATA)–1 adj (BA)| is
and standard deviation 13.44, then the standard
39. If f (x) is a differentiable function in interval deviation of the second sample is:
(–, ) such that f (x) = f (16 – x), then the value
8  43. Let f: R → R and g: R → R be two bijective
  f ' ( 8 + x ) x 2e x dx  is equal of (where [.]
2
function such that they are mirror image of each
 −8 
other about the line 4y – 17 = 0. If h(x) = f (x) +
denotes greatest integer function)
g(x), then h(0) is equal to
x2 y 2
40. The ellipse E : + = 1 is inscribed in a 3x 2 + 1
25 16 44. If  f ( x) , where f (x) is a constant
rectangle R whose sides are parallel to the x4 + x2
coordinate axes. A hyperbola (with same centre
and transverse axis is along the major axis of function in 0  x  2 , then maximum value of
ellipse) intersects the ellipse orthogonally and 2
passes through the vertices of the rectangle. Then  f ( x ) dx is _____
square of eccentricity of hyperbola is 0

[10]
SECTION-2 List-I List-II
One or More Than One Correct Type Questions: I Area of a triangle with adjacent sides P 6
45. Let ,  be the roots of x2 – 4x + A = 0 and ,  be parallel to vectors a and b is 1.
   Then the area of the triangle with
the roots of x2 – 36x + B = 0. If = = = r ( 1)
   adjacent sides determined by
, then (3a + 4b ) and (a − 3b ) is
(A) B = 81A (B) B – A2 = 234 II Volume of parallelopiped with sides Q 9
(C) B – A = 240 (D) A + B = 251
1
parallel to vectors a , b , c is . Then
 dx 4
46. The value of  0 1 + x4 is the volume of the parallelopiped
determined by vectors

(A) Same as that of


 ( x2
0
+ 1) dx
( )( )
3 a + b , b + c , 4 ( c + a ) is
1+ x 4
III Area of a parallelogram with adjacent R 13

(B) sides parallel to vector a and b is 8.
2 2
Then the area of the triangle with
 x 2 dx adjacent sides determined by vectors
(C) Same as that of  0 1 + x4 and 2(a − b ) and b is
 IV Volume of tetrahedron with sides S 8
(D)
2 1
parallel to vectors a , b and c is .
2
47. Tangents are drawn from (–2, 0) to y2 = 8x, Then the volume of the parallelepiped
radius of circle(s) that would touch these tangents determined by vectors
and the corresponding chord of contact, can be
equal to, ( a  b ) , (b  c ) and (c  a )
(A) 4 ( 2 +1) (B) 4 ( )
2 −1
I II III IV
T 4

(C) 8 2 (D) 4 2 (A) Q S P R


(B) R P S Q
48. Let a, b, c complex number and w1, w2 be roots (C) Q P T S
of ( a + c ) z 2 + ( b + b ) z + ( a + c ) = 0 . If (D) R Q S P

1 1
a + c  0, w2  , w1  , then 52. Match following lists and choose the correct
w1 w2 option:
(A) w1  1 (B) w1 = 1 List -I List -II
3 3
I If x sin a + y cos a = sin a cos a P 1
(C) w2  1 (D) w2 = 1 −
and x sin a = y cos a, then x2 + y2 3
is equal to
49. Which of the following is/are correct? II If x sin θ = Q 1
(A) 101 − 99  100
50 50 50
 
y sin   +   
2 4
 = z sin   + 
(B) (1.01)50 − 1  ( 0.99 )50  3   3 
then 4 + xy is equal to
(C) (1000)1000  (1001)999 III Let A = sin8θ + cos14θ, then R 1
(D) (1001)999  (1000 )1000 maximum value of A is 3
IV If sin x + sin y = 3 (cos y – cos S 4
50. Let g (x) > 0 and f  (x) < 0,  x  R, then: x), then the value of
(A) f (f (x + 1)) < f (f (x – 1))  x− y
(B) f (g (x – 1)) > f (g (x + 1))
tan   where ( x + y  2n )
 2 
(C) g (f (x + 1)) < g (f (x – 1)) will be
(D) g (g (x + 1)) < g (g (x – 1)) T 0
I II III IV
SECTION-3 (A) P Q R P
Matrix Match Type Questions:
(B) Q R P P
51. Given three non-coplanar and non-collinear
(C) Q T P R
vectors a , b , c . Now match the lists below and (D) Q S Q R
choose the correct option

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53. If A and B are two independent events, such that 54. Match the statements of List I with values of List
1 1 II. And choose the correct option
P ( A ) = and P ( B ) = . Match the lists and
3 4 List -I List -II
choose the correct option: I If the line P 6
sin −1
List -I List -II x −1 y +1 z +1 25
= = lies
1 −2 
If P   = 1 , then 12λ1
I A P a prime
B number in the plane 3x – 2y + 5z
= 0, then λ is equal to
is
II If (3, λ, μ) is a point on Q 7

If P 
II A  Q a composite the line 2x + y + z – 3 =
 =  2 , then 5
 A B  number 0 = x – 2y + z – 1, then λ
9λ2 is + μ is equal to
III If R a natural III The angle between the R –3
line x = y = z and the
P ( A  B )  ( A  B )  = 3 , number
plane 4x – 3y + 5z = 2 is
then 12λ3 is IV The angle between the S 8
cos −1
P ( A  B ) =  4 , then S
IV an even planes x + y + z = 0 and 75
If
3x – 4y + 5z = 0
number
12λ4 is T 6
cos −1
T an odd 25
number I II III IV
I II III IV (A) R Q P S
(B) R Q S P
(A) R, Q, T Q, R, T P, R S, T
(C) Q R P S
(B) Q, R, S Q, R, S P, R, T Q, R, T (D) Q R T P
(C) P, R, S P, Q, S P, T, S S, R, Q
(D) Q, R Q, S, T Q, R R, S


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