NEET 2025 ABHAYAS BATCH

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SYLLABUS
Biology : Sexual Reproduction in flowering Plants,Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health
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ImportantQuestion QuestionAttempt

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(4) Both occur round the year.

Biology 10. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of:
(1) Suspensor (2) Egg
1. What would be the number of chromosomes in
3nprotein (3) Synergid (4) Zygote
the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant species
with 8 chromosomes in its synergids? n 11. Pollen grains are generally _________ in outline
(1) 16 (2) 24 measuring _________ micrometers in diameter.
(3) 32 (4) 8
nx3 (1) Spherical, 25-50
(2)Oblong, 25-50
2. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal (3) Oval, 10-25
embryosac in the dicot plants is:- (4) Spherical, 75-100
(1) 2 + 4 + 2
(3) 2 + 3 + 3
(2) 3 + 2 + 3
(4) 3 + 3 + 2
21pᵗ
EA 12. The coconut water and the edible part of
coconut are equivalent to :-
3. Two-celled stage of pollen grain Is the result of (1) Mesocarp (2) Embryo
(1) Meiosis Microspore (3) Endosperm (4) Endocarp
(2) Symmetric mitosis

In 9
(3) Asymmetric mitosis Mitosis stage 13. What is the function of germ pore?
(4) Amitosis (1) Initiation of pollen tube
(2) Release of male gametes
4. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the (3) Emergence of radicle
division of :- (4) Absorption of water for seed germination
(1) Microspore mother cell
14. Advantage of cleistogamy is :-
(2) Microspore
(3) Generative cell Mitosis 2male (1) Vivipary
gamite
(4) Vegetative cell (2) Higher genetic variability
(3) More vigorous offspring
5. What does the filiform apparatus do at the (4) No dependence on pollinators
entrance into ovule?
15. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in :-
(1) It brings about opening of the pollen tube
(1) Gram (2) Maize
(2) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg (3) Coconut (4) Groundnut
(3) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a
synergid 16. Pollen tablets are available in the market for:-
(4) It prevents entry of more than one pollen (1) In vitro fertilization
tube into the embryo sac (2) Breeding programmes
6. Cryopreservation means storing of products in (3) Supplementing food
(4) Ex situ conservation
(1) Liquid nitrogen (2) Liquid oxygen
(3) Liquid hydrogen (4) Liquid helium 196C 17. Function of filiform apparatus is to :-
7. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from :- (1) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
(2) Stimulate division of generative cell
(1) Diploid egg,
(3) Produce nectar
(2) Synergids nucellus (4) Guide the entry of pollen tube
(3) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
(4) Antipodal cells 20 18. Non-albuminous seed is produced in :-
8. Wind pollinated flowers are :- (1) Maize (2) Castor
(3) Wheat (4) Pea
(1) Small, producing nectar and dry pollen
(2) Small, brightly coloured, producing large 19. Which of the following best describes the
number of pollen grains
(3) Small, producing large number of dry pollen 20 sporogenous tissue in a young anther?
(1) Layer of cells with dense cytoplasm
grains (2) Group of compactly arranged homogenous
(4) Large, producing abundant nectar and cells
pollen (3) Bilobed structure
9. What is common between vegetative (4) Longitudinally grooved cells
reproduction and Apomixis? sexual
rip miniyasexual 20. The hilum is a scar on the :-
(1) Both produces progeny identical to the (1) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel
parent. Production
ofsadjthition
(2) Both are applicable to only dicot plants.
(2) Fruit, where style was present
(3) Seed, where micropyle was present
(3) Both bypass the flowering phase. (4) Seed, where funicle was attached

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21. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature (3) Water (4) Insects or wind
of: 31. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically
(1) Synergids (2) Generative cell equivalent to :-
(3) Nucellar embryo (4) Aleurone cell (1) Megaspore mother cell
22. Which one of the following fruits is (2) Megaspore
(3) Megasporangium
parthenocarpic?
(4) Megasporophyll
(1) Banana (2) Brinjal
(3) Apple (4) Jackfruit 32. Pericarp is dry in
(1) Guava, mango, mustard
23. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and
(2) Mango, groundnut, orange
megasporogenesis :- (3) Groundnut, mustard
(1) occur in ovule (4) Orange, guava, mango
(2) occur in anther
(3) form gametes without further divisions 33. Attractants and rewards are required for :-
(4) involve meiosis (1) Entomophily (2) Hydrophily
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Anemophily
24. The coconut water from tender coconut
represents:- 34. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both :-
(1) Endocarp (1) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(2) Fleshy mesocarp (2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
(3) Free nuclear proembryo (3) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
(4) Free nuclear endosperm (4) Autogamy and xenogamy

25. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is 35. Double fertilization is :-

attached to the:- (1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
(1) Anther FlowIspit tube with two different eggs x
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
(2) Connective
nuclei x
(3) Placenta
(4) Thalamus or petal
(3) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion
x
26. Which one of the following statements is not
36. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged
true? nutrition in the synergid?
(1) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
(1) One fuses with the egg, other(s)
(2) Exine of pollen grains is made up of
degenerate(s) in the synergid.
sporopollenin
(2) All fuse with the egg.
(3) Pollen grains of many species cause
(3) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s)
severe allergies
with synergid nucleus.
(4) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used
(4) One fuses with the egg and other fuses
in the crop breeding programmes
with central cell nuclei.
27. Cotyledon of maize grain is called :-
37. What type of pollination takes place in
(1) plumule (2) coleorhiza
Vallisneria?
(3) coleoptile (4) scutellum
(1) Pollination occurs in submerged condition
28. Feathery stigma and versatile anthers are by water
characteristic of (2) Flowers emerge above surface of water,
(1) Wind pollinated flowers and pollination occurs by insects.
(2) Insect pollinated flowers (3) Flowers emerge above water surface, and
(3) bird pollinated flowers pollen is carried by wind.
(4) water pollinated flower (4) Male flowers are carried by water currents
epihydrhilyto female flowers at surface of water
29. Which one of the following generates new
genetic combinations leading to variation? 38. In which one of the following, both autogamy
and geitonogamy are prevented?
(1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Nucellar polyembryony (1) Wheat (2) Papayaand datepalm
(3) Vegetative reproduction (3) Castor (4) Maize
(4) Parthenogenesis 39. The plant parts which consist of two generations
30. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is one within the other :-
brought about by the agency of :- (a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(1) Birds (2) Bats (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male

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gametes 45. In a pollen grain the small cell is spindle shaped

(c) Seed inside the fruit with dense cytoplasm is :-
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule (1) Vegetative cell (2) Generative cell
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) only (3) Tube cell (4) All
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
46. Two non motile male gametes in angiosperms
40. In some members of which of the following pairs
are produced by :-
of families, pollen grains retain their viability for
(1) Generative cell
months after release? (2) Microspore mother cell
(1) Poaceae ; Rosaceae (3) Vegetative cell
(2) Poaceae; Leguminosae (4) Tube cell
(3) Poaceae; Solanaceae
(4) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae 47. Which of the following haploid structure is
present in male plant of papaya?
41. Given below are two statements:-
(1) Antipodal cell
Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers are (2) Microspore mother cell
invariably autogamous (3) Generative cell
Statement II : Cleistogamy is disadvantageous (4) 1 & 3 both
as there is no chance for cross pollination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 48. Arising from placenta is megasporangium which
correct answer from the options given below: is commonly known as :-
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) Ovule (2) Ovary
incorrect (3) Ovarian cavity (4) Stamen
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect 49. In angiosperms functional megaspore is
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is generally situated at :-
correct impTtants(1) Micropylar end (2) Chalazal end
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) Both (4) None
correct
50. The type of cells under going meiosis in the
42. To ensure that only the desired pollens fall on flowers are:-
the stigma in artificial hybridization process:- (1) Microspore mother cells & megaspore
(a) the female flower buds of plant producing mother cell
unisexual flower need not be bagged. (2) Epidermal cells
(b) there is no need to emasculate unisexual (3) Tapetal cells
flowers of selected female parent (4) Placental cells
3m (c) emasculated flowers are to be bagged
51. Chasmocleistogamous flowers are present in:-
immediately after cross pollination
(d) emasculated flowers are to be bagged after (1) Viola (common pansy)
removal of anthers (2) Oxalis
(e) bisexual flowers, showing protogyny are (3) Commelina
never selected for cross (4) All of the above
Choose the correct answer from the options
52. Although in most of species fruits are result of
given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only fertilisation, there are a few species in which fruit
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only develops without fertilisation - process is known
(3) (b), (c) and (e) only as:-
(4) (a), (d) and (e) only (1) Parthenocarpy (2) Parthenogenesis
43. Each cell of sporogenous tissue is potential (3) Amphimixis (4) Apomixis
pollen or microspore mother cell; Division taking 53. One of the male gamete moves towards the egg
place in sporogenous cell is :- cell & fuses with it, the process is known as:
(1) Meiosis (2) Mitosis (1) Syngamy (2) Triple fusion
(3) Endomitosis (4) Amitosis (3) Double fertilization (4) Autogamy
44. Pollen grains of many species cause severe 54. Select incorrect statement (w.r.t. artificial
allergies & bronchial afflictions in some people hybridisation)
often leading to chronic respiratory disorder (1) Emasculation is removal of anther in their
such as :- mature condition from bisexual flower
(1) Asthma (2) Bronchitis (2) Emasculation is not required in male sterile
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Emphysema plants
(3) Unisexual female flower is bagged in bud
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condition to prevent contamination (1) Coleoptile (2) Hypocotyl

(4) Emasculated flowers are bagged in bud (3) Epicotyl (4) Coleorrhiza
condition
63. Double fertilization is essential for the formation
55. Refer to the given flow chart and identify P, Q of:-
and R. (1) Perisperm (2) Seed coat
(3) Endosperm (4) Nucellus
64. Persistent
Remnant of nucellus is known as :-
(1) Scutellum (2) Pericarp
(3) Tigellum (4) Perisperm
65. Perisperm is present in :- Blackpepper
(1) Beet (2) Black pepper
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) All angiosperms
66. Seeds are produced without fertilization in some
members of :-
(1) Grasses and pulses
(2) Asteraceae
P Q R (3) Fabaceae
(1) Strawberry Orange Cashew (4) Orchidaceae
(2) Banana Apple Mango
(3) Castor Coconut Pea 67. In a type of apomixis which is known as
(4) Mulberry Mustard Coriander adventive embryony, embryos develop directly
56. Hydrophily is limited to 30 genera which are from the :-
mostly (1) Nucellus or integuments
(2) Synergids or antipodals of an embryosac
(1) Gymnosperms
(3) Accessory embryosacs in the ovule
(2) Monocots
(4) Zygote
(3) Dicots
(4) More than one option is correct 68. What type of ovary is shown in diagram?
57. Single shield shaped cotyledon of grass is
known as:-
(1) Tigellum (2) Scutellum
(3) Coleoptile (4) Coleorrhiza
58. Epicotyl has a shoot apex and few leaf primordia
enclosed in a hollow foliar structure known as :-
(1) Coleoptile (2) Coleorrhiza Papaver
(3) Scutellum (4) Tigellum
59. Non albuminous seeds are present in :-
(1) Pisum (Pea) (1) Apocarpous ovary
(2) Arachis (Ground nut) (2) Syncarpous ovary
(3) Both (3) Unilocular ovary
(4) Maize (4) Multilocular ovary
60. The coconut water from tender coconut that you 69. Free nuclear division in an angiosperm takes
are familiar with is :- place during:-
(1) Nuclear endosperm (1) Pollen formation
(2) Cellular endosperm whitekernel (2) Endosperm formation
(3) Helobial endosperm (3) Embryo formation
(4) All of the above (4) Flower formation
61. Endosperm development precedes embryo 70. Assertion : Although geitonogamy is
development, the endosperm of angiospermic functionally crosspollination involving a
plant is: - pollinating agent, genetically it is similar to
(1) Triploid (2) Diploid autogamy.
(3) Haploid (4) Tetraploid Reason : In geitonogamy, pollen grains from the
62. The portion of embryonal axis below the level of anthers of one flower are transferred to the
stigma of another flower borne on the same
cotyledon is known as: -
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plant. (3) Wheat (4) Rice

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
79. Identify A, B, C and D.
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but Tripletasion
reason is not the correct explanation of Syngamy zygote
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. Embryo Endosperm
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true. (1) A -Syngamy, B - Embryo, C - Triple fusion,
71. In angiosperms Haploid, diploid and triploid D - Endosperm
conditions respectively can be traced in :- (2) A - Endosperm, B - Syngamy, C - Embryo,
an
n Nucellus, 3n D - Triple fusion
(1) Egg, Endosperm (3) A - Endosperm, B - Triple fusion, C -
(2) Antipodal, Egg, Endosperm
3hSynergids n Syngamy, D - Embryo
In
(3) Endosperm, Nucellus,
an & Integuments
(4) Antipodal, Synergids
(4) A - Endosperm, B - Triple fusion, C -
Embryo, D - Syngamy
n n an
72. If the leaf of Capsella has 46 number of 80. Assertion : Ex-albuminous seeds do not
chromosomes then how many chromosomes possess any residual endosperm, as it is
number will be there in endosperm :- completely consumed during embryo
(1) 46 (2) 23 233 3
(3) 69 (4) 138
3 development.
Reason : Wheat, castor, pea and groundnut all
73. In Angiosperm, if haploid number of are examples of ex-albuminous seeds.
chromosome is 12 then what will be the no. of (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
an
chromosomes in integuments n
and synergids:- reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(1) 12,12 (2) 24,12
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(3) 24,24 (4) 12,24
reason is not the correct explanation of
74. How many meiotic divisions are necessary for assertion.
the formation of 100 functional megaspores:- (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(1) 25 (2) 50 devilomont
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(3) 100 (4) 200 monosporic 81. Identify the structures marked A to F in the given
75. From the given statements - diagram.
(a) Pollination by abiotic agents is a chance
factor.
(b) Pollen is produced in enormous amount as
compared to number of ovules.
Choose the best answer.
(1) a and b are correct and b is the reason for
a
(2) a and b are correct and a is the reason for
b
(3) a is incorrect and b is correct
(4) b is incorrect and a is correct
76. When a diploid female plant is crossed with a (1) A-Asymmetric nucleus, B-Nucleus, C-

To
tetraploid male plant, the ploidy of endosperm Generative cell, D-Vegetative cell, E-Pollen,
cells in the resulting seed will be:- Female F-Pollen tetrad
(2) A- Pollen tetrad, B- Pollen, C-Generative
19 (1) Pentaploid
(3) Triploid
(2) Diploid
(4) Tetraploid
qq.IE112n
cell, D-Vegetative cell, E-Asymmetric
spindle, F-Nucleus
77. If diploid female plant is crossed with tetra ploid (3) A-Pollen tetrad, B-Vacuole, C-Nucleus, D-
Asymmetric spindle, E-Vegetative cell, F-
O male plant. What would be ploidy level of seed
coat: - integuments ovale
Generative cell
sta (4) A-Vacuole, B-Nucleus, C-Pollen tetrad, D-
(1) 3𝑛
(3) 2 n
(2) 𝑛
(4) 4𝑛 querying i Vegetative cell, E-Asymmetric spindle, F-
Generative cell
78. Perispermic and endospermic seeds are found 82. Pollen tube develops from :-
in :- (1) Generative cell
(1) Castor (2) Maize (2) Male gametes
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female
May
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(3) Vegetative cell In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) Vegetative nucleus most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
83. Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
temperature and dessication because their (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
exine is composed of :- incorrect.
(1) Cutin (2) Suberin (3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Callose correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
84. Go through the following statements:- incorrect.
I. Flowers are small. They are often packed in
inflorescence 90. Given below are two statements:-
II. Flowers are colourless, nectar less and Statement-I: Exine of pollen grain is made up of
odourless sporopollenin.
III. Well exposed stamens Statement-II : Intine helps in germination of
IV. Pollen grains are produced in large pollen grain.
numbers which are light and non-sticky In the light of the above statements, choose the
V. Flower often have a single ovule in each most appropriate answer from the options given
ovary. below:
VI. Stigma is large and often feathery. (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
The above contrivances favour correct.
(1) Cross pollination (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(2) Anemophily (pollination by wind) incorrect.
(3) Ornithophily (pollination by birds) (3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
(4) Entomophily (pollination by insects) correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
85. In Angiosperms pollen tube liberate their male
gametes into the :- 91. Given below are two statements:-
(1) Central cell (2) Antipodal cells Statement-I : To some extent viability of pollen
(3) Egg cell (4) Synergid grains depends upon prevailing temperature
and humidity.
86. Which of the following will lose its economic Statement-II : Viability is lost in few minutes
value if fruits are produced through only of the pollen grains of Solanaceae family.
parthenocarpy? In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) Citrus (2) Banana
below:
(3) Grapes (4) Pomegranate
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
87. The Condition observed in citrus and mango is (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(1) Apospory (2) Apogamy incorrect.
(3) Parthenogenesis (4) Apomixis (3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
correct.
88. Given below are two statements: - (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement-I : When pollen grains are released incorrect.
from pollen sac and they land on stigma of
pistil, it is called pollination. 92. Given below are two statements (for angiosperm
Statement-II : Pollen tube enters into embryo plants) :-
sac where two male gametes fuse with female Statement-I : A mature male gametophyte
gamete. restwillfusewithpolarnuclei possess two male gametes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Statement-II : A mature female gametophyte is
most appropriate answer from the options given 7 -celled and 8 nucleated in typical
below: angiosperms.
(1) Both Statement-I and II are correct. In the light of the above statements, choose the
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is most appropriate answer from the options given
incorrect. below:
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is (1) Both Statement-I and II are correct.
correct. (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
incorrect. (3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
correct.
89. Given below are two statements: -
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Statement-I : A typical anther is incorrect.
tetrasporangiate.
Statement-II : A typical anther is dithecous.
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93. Given below are two statements; one is labelled cellular endosperm.
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as In the light of the above statements, choose the
Reason(R) :- most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
Assertion (A) : Geitonogamy is genetically (1) If (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not
same as autogamy. the correct explanation of (𝐴).
Reason (R) : In Geitonogamy transfer of pollen (2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
grains occur from one plant to another plant. (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) If (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is the
most appropriate answer from the options given correct explanation of (A).
below :
(1) If (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not 97. Identify the correct set of statements :-
the correct explanation of (𝐴). (a) Wolfia is a microscopic plant belongs to
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. angiosperms.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (b) Double fertilization is an unique event seen
(4) If (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is the in gymnosperms.
correct explanation of (A). (c) Male sex organs in angiosperm are called
94. Given below are two statements; one is labelled stamens, present in flowers.
(d) Total three male gametes participate in
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as double fertilization. 2malegamte
Reason(R) :- X
Choose the correct answer from the given
Assertion (A) : Homogamy in receptivity by option below.
stigma and pollen release is essential for (1) all a, b, c, d are correct
autogamy. (2) b, c and d are correct
Reason (R) : Heterogamy increases the (3) a, c and d are correct
opportunities for successful allogamy. (4) only a and c are correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the
98. Identify the correct set of statements :-
most appropriate answer from the options given
below : (a) In gymnosperms seeds are not enclosed by
(1) If (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not fruits.
the correct explanation of (𝐴). (b) Angiosperm plant's possess diplontic life
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. cycle.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. (c) Flower is the structure in which sexual
(4) If (A) & (R) both are correct and (𝑅) is the reproductive organs of angiosperm are
present.
95. Refer to the given diagram and select the (d) Endosperm formation in angiosperm is not
incorrect option regarding X, Y and Z. a pre-fertilization event.
Choose the correct answer from the given
options below :
(1) only b, c & d are correct
(2) b and c are correct
(3) a, b, c and d all are correct
egg mangamite Madame Pohai (4) only a and c are correct
(1) X and Y are haploid cells whereas Z could
be a diploid cell. 99. Identify the correct set of statements with
(2) X is derived from meiotic cell division of respect to angiosperms:-
microspore
megaspory mother cell whereas Y is (a) A microsporophyll contains stigma, style
derived from meiotic cell division of and ovary
megaspore mother cell. X
(b) All megaspores produced from megaspore
x
(3) X is derived from embryo sac of an mother cell take part in embryo sac
angiospermous plant whereas Y is derived formation.
from pollen grain. (c) Hilum is theXplace where ovule joins with
(4) X and Y together give rise to a diploid funicle
structure whereas Y and Z together give (d) Basal part of an ovule is represented as
y
rise to a triploid structure. micropylar end chalazal
(e) Perisperm is present in black pepper.
96. Given below are two statements; one is labelled
Choose the correct answer from the options
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as given below
Reason(R) :- (1) only c and e are correct
Assertion (A) : In angiosperm plants, nuclear (2) a, b, c and e are correct
endosperm is most common. (3) c, d and e are correct
Reason (R) : When formation of endosperm (4) only c is correct
occur due to free nuclear division, is called
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100. Identify the correct set of statements for contraception. Select their correct matching
angiosperms:- from the four options that follow:
(a) Development of angiosperm seed occur Method Mode of Action
inside the ovary / fruit A. The pill (a) Prevents sperms
(b) Typical embryo sac in angiosperms is seven reaching cervix
celled and eight nucleated
(c) Free nuclear divisions occur during B. Condom (b) Prevents implantation
embryogenesis in angiosperms C. Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation
(d) Filliform apparatus present in ovule secrets D. Copper T (d) Semen contains no
chemicals, which attract pollen tube toward sperms
synergids Match the following:
(e) Development of female gametophyte in (1) A - (c), B - (d), C - (a), D - (b)
typical angiosperms is monosporic. (2) A − - (b), B − - (c), C - (a), D - (d)
Choose the correct answer from the given (3) A - (c), B- (a), C - (d), D - (b)
options below. (4) A - (d), B- (a), C - (b), D - (c)
(1) a, d and e (2) b, d and e
(3) a, b, d and e (4) b, c, d and e 108. Consider the statements given below regarding
contraception and answer as directed there
101. What is correct about test tube baby?
after:
(1) Fertilisation inside female genital tract and
growth in test tube (A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
(2) Rearing of prematurely born baby in during first trimester is generally safe
incubator (B) Generally, chances of conception are nil
initiation(3) Fertilisation outside and gestation inside until mother breast-feeds the infant upto
womb of mother two years 6months
(4) Both fertilisation and development outside (C) Intrauterine devices like copper T are
effective contraceptives
the female genital tract 72hr5
(D) Contraception pills may be taken up to one
102. Which one of the following is not legitimate for week after coitus to prevent conception
reducing birth rate? Which two of the above statements are
(1) Ban on marriages correct?
(2) Medical termination of pregnancy (1) A, C (2) A, B
(3) Use of contraceptives (3) B, C (4) C, D
(4) Late marriages 109. Which one of the following is the most widely
103. A contraceptive pill contains:- accepted method of contraception in India, as at
(1) progesterone and estrogen present?
(2) spermicidal agents (1) Cervical caps
(3) chemicals that cause abortion (2) Tubectomy
(4) chemicals that prevent fertilization of ovum (3) Diaphragms
104. Amniocentesis is used for determining :- (4) IUDs' (Intra uterine devices)
(1) heart disease 110. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is
(2) brain disease considered safe up to have many weeks of
(3) hereditary disease of embryo pregnancy?
(4) All of the above
(1) Eight weeks (2) Twelve weeks
105. The chances of fertilisation are very high (3) Eighteen weeks (4) Six weeks
during:- 111. The Test-tube Baby programme employs which
(1) first five days of menstrual cycle one of the following techniques?
(2) last seven days of menstrual cycle
(3) day 10 to day 17 of menstrual cycle (1) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)s
(4) Both (1) & (2) (2) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(3) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) invitro
106. What is the work of copper T? (4) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(1) to inhibit ovulation Spermmotility 112. Artificial insemination means:
95591ns (2) to prevent fertilisation (1) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor
implantation
(3) to inhibit implantation of blastocyst
(4) to inhibit gametogenesis Directly into the ovary
(2) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a
107. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their test tube containing ova
modes of action (a-d) in achieving (3) transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube
containing ova
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insemination
uterus intrauterine
(4) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy (4) Intrauterine transfer
donor into the vagina
120. The function of copper ions in copper releasing
113. One of the legal methods of birth control is: IUD's is:
(1) by a premature ejaculation during coitus (1) They inhibit gametogenesis
(2) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine (2) They make uterus unsuitable for
(3) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17
MTPO of menstrual cycle
implantation
(3) They inhibit ovulation
(4) by having coitus at the time of day break (4) The suppress sperm motility and fertilising
114. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which: capacity of sperms
(1) small part of the fallopian tube is removed 121. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine
or tied up Devices:
(2) ovaries are removed surgically (1) Vaults, LNG-20
(3) small part of vas deferens is removed or (2) Multiload 375, Progestasert
tied up (3) Progestasert, LNG-20
(4) uterus is removed surgically (4) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
115. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves 122. Which of the following contraceptive methods do
transfer of: involve a role of hormone? dueto hormone
(1) Ovum into the Fallopian tube GIFT
Yormone (1) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency
(2) Zygote into the fallopian tube contraceptives
(3) Zygote into the uterus (2) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea,

1 11
(4) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into Fallopian Pills
tube (3) Cut, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
116. A childless couple can be assisted to have a (4) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier
child through a technique called GIFT. The full methods
form of this technique is: 123. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer (1) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
(2) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer (2) IUDs are generally inserted by the user
(3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer herself
(4) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer (3) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in
the uterus
117. Which of the following approaches does not give
(4) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
the defined action of contraceptive?
124. Match List -I with List -II with respect to methods
(1) Barrier Prevent fertilization
of Contraception and their respective actions.
Methods
List-I List-II
(2) Intrauterine Increase phagocytosis of
(a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and
Devices sperm, Suppress sperm
mortality and fertilising
7 Implantation
(b) Contraceptive (ii) Increase
Capacity of sperms
Pills phagocytosis of
(3) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry of 7sperm within Uterus
contraceptives sperms, prevents
(c) Intra uterine (iii) Absence of
ovulation and
Devices Menstrual cycle and
Fertilization
ovulation following

e
(4) Vasectomy Prevents parturition
spermatogenesis (d) Lactational (iv) They cover the
118. Which of the following is hormone releasing Amenorrhea cervix blocking the
IUD? entry of sperms
nonmediated
(1) Lippes loop (2) Cu 7 i CUT Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) LNG-20 (4) Multiload 375 31425 given below:
Progestorat (1) (a)-(iv),(b)-(i),(c)-(ii),(d)-(iii)
119. In case of a couple where the male is having a (2) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iv),(c)-(i),(d)-(iii)
very low sperm count, which technique will be (3) (a)-(iii),(b)-(ii),(c)-(i),(d)-(iv)
suitable for fertilisation? (4) (a)-(iv),(b)-(i),(c)-(iii),(d)-(ii)
(1) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer 125. IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or
(2) Artificial Insemination copper that are inserted in the uterine cavity.
(3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection Which of the following statements are correct
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about IUDs ? (3) ICSI (4) IUT

(a) IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm
135. In which of the following methods, zygote upto
within the uterus.
(b) The released copper ions suppress the 32 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus?
sperm motility. (1) IUT (2) ZIFT
(c) IUDs do not make the cervix hostile to the (3) GIFT (4) ICSI
sperm.
136. A contraceptive pill developed by the scientists
(d) IUDs suppress the fertilization capacity of
sperm. of CDRI, Lucknow is?
(e) The IUDs require surgical intervention for (1) 'Mala-D' (2) 'Mala-N'
their insertion in the uterine cavity. (3) 'Saheli' (4) 'i-pill'
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 137. Which of the following techniques is banned in
options given below:
India?
(1) (a), (d) and (e) only
(2) (b) and (c) only (1) USG (2) Sterilisation
(3) (b) and (d) only (3) Amniocentesis (4) IVF
(4) (d) only 138. IVF technique includes?
126. Which of the following is a nonsteroidal pill? (1) GIFT (2) AI
(1) 'Mala-D' (2) 'Mala-N' (3) IUT (4) All of these
(3) 'Saheli' (4) None of these 139. Which contraceptive method provides protection
127. Which of the following contraceptive methods against HIV?
make uterus unsuitable for implantation? (1) IUD (2) Pills
(1) Diaphragm (2) Condom (3) Condom (4) Periodic abstinence
(3) IUD (4) Natural method 140. Progestasert makes the uterus unsuitable for
128. Which of the following is a natural method of implantation and cervix hostile to the sperms. It
contraception? is a :-
(1) Sterilisation (2) IUD (1) copper releasing IUD
(3) Diaphragm (4) Periodic abstinence (2) hormone releasing IUD
(3) non-medicated IUD
129. Which method of contraception has high failure
(4) Both (2) & (3)
rate?
(1) Barrier method (2) IUD 141. Identify the contraceptive device shown below
(3) Sterilization (4) Natural method as well as the related right site of its implantation
into a woman. Then, select the option with
130. Which of the following can be used as an
correct matching.
emergency contraceptive?
(1) 'Mala-D' (2) 'Saheli'
(3) 'i-pill' (4) Condom
131. MTP is relatively safe?
(1) upto 12 weeks
(2) upto 18 weeks
(3) during first trimester
(4) Both (1) & (3)
132. Which of the following methods of contraception
has least side effects? Contraceptive Site of implant
(1) IUD device
(2) Pills (1) LNG - 20 Fallopian tube
(3) Coitus interruptus
(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall
(4) Cervical cap
(3) Implant Subcutaneous
133. Which of the following methods of contraception tissue
prevents ovulation? Hormone
(1) Pills
inition
(2) 'Depo-provera'
(4) Multiload 375 Uterine wall

(3) 'Norplant' implant (4) All of these 142. Which of the following is a Cu releasing IUD and
its function?
134. Which of the following techniques is relative with
(1) Multiload 375 : It suppresses sperm motility
in-vivo fertilisation?
and fertilising capacity of sperms
(1) ZIFT (2) GIFT (2) Progestasert : It makes uterus unsuitable
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for implantation and cervix hostile to MorAPI

(1) Absence of formation of semen
sperms (2) Formed Sperms are dead or inactive
(3) Lippes loop : It increases phagocytosis of (3) Sperms immediately disappear in semen
sperms (4) Sperms gradually disappear in semen
(4) LNG-20 : It inhibits ovulation and
150. If the duration of menstrual cycle is of 35 days,
implantation as well as alter the quality of
cervical mucus to prevent/retard entry of then what is risk period (cycle start on day 1) for
sperms this menstrual cycle?
143. In the given diagram, the technique depicted (1) Day 9 to day 17 (2) Day 11 to day 18
(3) Day 16 to day 24 (4) Day 18 to day 35
and 'A' are respectively :-
151. A small part of the fallopian tube is removed or
tied up in :-
(1) tubectomy (2) hysterectomy
(3) castration (4) vasectomy
152. Vasa efferentia connect the :-
(1) testis with epididymis
(2) kidney with urinary bladder
(1) vasectomy, vas deferens (3) testis with scrotal wall
(2) tubectomy, fallopian tube (4) None of the above
(3) tubectomy, ovary
(4) vasectomy, epididymis 153. Common duct formed by union of vas deferens
and duct from seminal vesicle is :-
144. Use of which of the following has/have been
(1) urethra
found to be very effective as emergency (2) tunica vasculosa
contraceptive? (3) ejaculatory duct
(a) IUDs (4) spermatic duct
(b) Progestogen-estrogen combinations
154. Glans penis is covered by :-
(c) Cervical cap
(d) Tubectomy (1) areolar membrane
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (d) and (e) (2) prepuce
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (c), (d) and (e) (3) metrium
(4) None of these
145. If vasectomy is done, then which condition
155. In human, the testes occur in scrotal sacs,
would occur in a male? semenwithstrom
outside the viscera because of the :-
(1) Teratospermia (2) Asthenospermia
(3) Azospermia (4) Both (1) & (2) (1) presence of urinary bladder
(2) presence of rectum
146. Natural method of contraception includes:- (3) long vas-deferens
(1) coitus interruptus (4) requirement of low temperature for
(2) lactational amenorrhea spermatogenesis
(3) periodic abstinence
156. Read the following statements.
(4) All of the above dysfunction
Erectile (a) It is paired structure
147. If male is impotent and female is normal then (b) It is present on lateral side of male urethra
which of the following technique can be used to (c) It help in lubrication of penis
treat infertility? In above statements 'it' refers to :-
(1) seminal vesicle
(1) ICSI (2) ZIFT
(2) Bartholin's gland
(3) GIFT (4) Al
(3) bulbourethral gland
148. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by (4) prostate
the females. Choose the correct option from the 157. Fructose is present in the secretion of:-
statements given below. (1) seminal vesicle (2) perineal gland
(i) They are introduced into the uterus. (3) Cowper's gland (4) Bartholin's gland
on
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region.
(iii) They act as physical barriers to sperm 158. It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male
entry. reproductive system. Identify common duct
(iv)They act as spermicidal agents. which forms from the fusion of duct of seminal
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii) vesicle and vas deferens.
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (iii) and (iv)
149. What happens after vasectomy?
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168. Endometrium is lining of :-

(1) testis (2) urinary bladder
(3) uterus (4) ureter
169. Which of the following is not related to vulva?
(1) Mons veneris (2) Clitoris
(3) Labia majora (4) Epididymis
170. During differentiation, the spermatids remain
associated with :-
(1) A (2) B (1) Leydig's cells (2) Kupffer's cells
(3) D (4) C (3) Spermatogonia (4) Sertoli cell
159. Secretions from which one of the following 171. During spermatogenesis, how many
glands are rich in fructose, calcium and some spermatozoa are formed from a single primary
enzymes? spermatocyte ?
(1) Salivary glands (1) 1 (2) 2
(2) Female sex accessory glands (3) 4 (4) 8
(3) Male sex accessory glands
(4) Liver 172. Which part of sperm is called power house?
(1) Head Airosomenudus(2) Neck centriole
160. Which is an unpaired gland of male reproductive (3) Middle piece (4) Tail
system? female 173. The acrosome plays a role in :-
(1) Bartholin's gland (2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Prostate gland (4) Cowper's gland (1) fusion of nuclei of gametes
(2) motality of sperm
161. Circumcission is the procedure of :- (3) penetration of sperm into ovum
(1) cutting the glans penis (4) All of the above
(2) removal of whole skin of penis
174. A mature sperm has :-
(3) removal of movable skin (prepuce) of glans
penis (1) a pair of flagella
(4) reduction of the body part of penis (2) a nucleus, an acrosome and a centriole
(3) a nucleus, an acrosome and a pair of
162. Testes descend into scrotum in human for:- centrioles
(1) spermatogenesis (4) a nucleus, an acrosome and a pair of
(2) fertilization centrioles and a tail
(3) development of sex organs
175. Which part of the spermatid forms acrosome of
(4) development of visceral organs.
sperm?
163. Spermatozoa are nourished| during their (1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi body
development by :- (3) Nucleus (4) Lysosome
(1) Sertoli cells
176. Egg is librated from ovary in human at :-
(2) interstitial cells
(3) connective tissue cells (1) secondary oocyte stage
(4) None of the above (2) primary oocyte stage
(3) oogonial stage
164. A secondary sexual character of human female (4) mature ovum stage
is :-
177. Which of the following are haploid cells ?
(1) breasts (2) ovaries
(1) Primary spermatocytes and primary2n
(3) testes (4) thyroid gland n
oocytes
gland
165. Which is not aMammary
secondary isnot
sex aasexorgan
organ in human? n
(2) Secondary spermatocytes n
and secondary
(1) Vagina (2) Penis oocytes
(3) Prostate (4) Mammary gland an and oogonia
(3) Spermatogonia 2n
(4) Germinal cells. 2n
166. Lower narrow end of uterus is called as :-
(1) urethra (2) cervix 178. The primary egg membrane of human egg is:-
(3) clitoris (4) vulva (1) chorion
(2) corona radiata
167. Germinal epithelial cells are cuboidal and these (3) zona pellucida Acellular
are found in :- (4) None of the above
(1) testes (2) ovaries 179. Which of the following are diploid cells?
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4)
None of the above (1) Secondary spermatocytes
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(2) Spermatozoa and ova 190. Which of the following characteristics does not
(3) Spermatogonia, oogonia and primary belong to cleavage ?
spermatocytes (1) Decrease in size of blastomeres
(4) Secondary oocytes (2) Rapid mitotic cell division
180. Antrum is filled with fluid and is found in :- (3) Interphase of very short duration
(1) bone marrow of bone (4) Differention of blastomeres
(2) cavity of brain 191. Solid ball of cell produced by repeated cleavage
(3) Graffian follicle of ovary is called as :-
(4) pericardium of heart
(1) gastrula
181. Corpus luteum is a/an :- (2) blastocyst
(1) excretory structure (3) morula
(2) endocrine structure (4) None of the above
(3) digestive structure 192. In gastrula stage, which layer(s) is/are formed?
(4) respiratory structure
(1) ectoderm
182. Follicular phase of menstrual cycle is also (2) mesoderm
known as :- (3) endoderm
(1) proliferative phase (4) All of the above
(2) secretory phase 193. Morphogenetic movements of blastomeres
(3) luteal phase result in:-
(4) menstruation phase
(1) morula stage
183. The fall in progesterone level leads to :- (2) blastocyst stage
(1) gestation (3) gastrula stage
(2) menopause (4) zygote
(3) lactation 194. Gastrulation is a process :-
(4) mensturation
(1) which starts the formation of germ layers
184. Pregnancy is detected with the help of presence (2) that occurs just after morulation
of which hormones in urine of a pregnant (3) that occurs just after cleavage
female? (4) of rapid growth in blastomeres
(1) LH, (2) Progesterone 195. Sexually reproducing multicellular animals start
(3) FSH (4) hCG their embryonic development from :-
185. Site of fertilization in human is :- (1) gastrula stage
(1) ovary (2) uterus (2) morula stage
(3) vagina (4) fallopian tube Ampulla (3) unicellular zygote
(4) ovum
186. After cortical reaction, formation of fertilization cord
196. Placenta is a region where :- rumorial
membrane occurs :-
(1) foetus is attached to mother by spermatic
C
ij g
(1) outside of corona radiata
cord
(2) inside of corona radiata
(2) foetus is provided with mother's blood
(3) in perivitelline space
(3) foetus receives nourishment from mother's
(4) inside of membrane of oocyte
blood
187. Which of the following is responsible for division (4) foetus is covered by membranes
in fertilised egg? 197. Which of the following is not true about
(1) Centriole of ovum parturition process?
(2) Proximal centriole of sperm
(1) Secretion of oxytocin hormone by posterior
(3) Distal centriole of sperm
pituitary
(4) Mitochondria of sperm
(2) Narrowing of pelvic cavity by relaxin
188. Capacitation of sperm occurs in :- hormone
(1) urethra (3) Secretion of progesterone hormone is
(2) vas deferens stopped
(3) vagina (4) General position of foetus is
(4) seminal vesicle occipitoanterior

189. Cleavage starts in :- 198. In the female, which structure is homologous to

(1) fallopian tube (2) uterus penis of male?
(3) vagina (4) None of these (1) Cervix (2) Vagina
(3) Uterus (4) Clitoris
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199. Which is not correct about secondary sexual used for piercing and penetrating the egg,
resulting in fertilisation
Priority2
characters of female?
(1) Development of mammary glands (3) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve
(2) Presence of pubic hair the egg envelope facilitating fertilisation
(3) Voice of low pitch High (4) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure
pitch leading the sperm towards the ovum
(4) Menarche
200. Identical twins will be produced when :- 207. Which one of the following statements about
(1) one spermatozoon fertilises two ova morula in humans is correct?
(2) one ovum is fertilised by two spermatozoa (1) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than
(3) two eggs are fertilised an uncleaved zygote
(4) one fertilised egg divides into two (2) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as
blastomeres and they become separate an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(3) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less
201. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
is the immediate cause of menstruation? (4) It has more or less equal quantity of
(1) Estrogen (2) FSH cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(3) FSH-LH (4) Progesterone 208. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
202. Which one of the following statements is human reproductive system get blocked, the
incorrect about menstruation? gametes will not be transported from :-
(1) At menopause in the female, there is (1) Testes to epididymis
especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic (2) Epididymis to vas deferens
hormones (3) Ovary to uterus
(2) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation (4) Vagina to uterus
is called menarche
(3) During normal menstruation about 40 ml 209. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic
blood is lost sectional view of the female reproductive system
(4) The menstrual fluid can easily clot of humans. Which one set of three parts out of I-
203. Which extraembryonic membrane in humans VI have been correctly identified?
prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the
uterus:-
(1) Yolk sac (2) Amnion
(3) Chorion (4) Allantois ing
204. In human adult females oxytocin:-
Fimbrac
(1) Stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
(2) Causes strong uterine contractions during cervix
parturition
(3) Is secreted by anterior pituitary (1) (II)-Endometrium, (III)-Infundibulum, (IV)-
(4) stimulates growth of mammary glands Fimbriae
205. Which one of the following is the correct (2) (III)-Infundibulum, (IV)-Fimbriae, (V)-Cervix
matching of the events occurring during (3) (IV)-Oviducal funnel, (V)-Uterus, (VI)-Cervix
(4) (I)-Perimetrium, (II)-Myometrium, (III)-
menstrual cycle?
Fallopian tube
(1) Menstruation : Breakdown of myometrium
and ovum not fertilised 210. Which one of the following statements is false in
(2) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level respect of viability of mammalian sperm?
and sharp fall in the secretion of (1) Viability of sperm is determined by its
progesterone. motility shapeand
(3) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of
size
(2) Sperms must be concentrated in a thick
myometrium and maturation of Graafian suspension semen Fructose
follicle. (3) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours 4872hr5
(4) Development of corpus luteum : Secretory (4) Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the
phase and increased secretion of medium and is more active in alkaline
progesterone. medium
206. Which one of the following statements about 211. Which one of the following is not the function of
human sperm is correct? placenta? It :-
(1) Acrosome serves no particular function (1) secretes oxytocin during parturition
pit
Posterior

(2) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure (2) facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to
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16

embyro (3) Corpus allatum

(3) secretes estrogen (4) Pineal gland
(4) facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and
219. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
waste material from embryo
reproduction, acts on:-
212. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum (1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
is to produce : secretion of LH and FSH.
(1) estrogen only (2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
(2) progesterone placenta secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
(3) human chorionic gonadotropin (3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
(4) relaxin only secretion of LH and relaxin.
(4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
213. Select the correct option describing
secretion of LH and oxytocin.
gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant
female :- 220. Select the correct sequence of transport of
(1) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the sperm cells in male reproductive system :-
thickening of endometrium. ProgEstrogen (1) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia →
(2) High level of FSH and LH facilitate Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
implantation of the embryo. (2) Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa
(3) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens →
of estrogen and progesterone. Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral
(4) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening meatus
of endometrium. (3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia →
Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
214. In human females, meiosis-II is not completed (4) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia →
until?
Entry sperm in 2 oocyte
of Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal
(1) birth (2) puberty canal → Urethra → Urethral meatus
(3) fertilization (4) uterine implantation
221. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of
215. Select the incorrect statement :- the menstrual cycle because :
(1) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help (1) Follicles do not remain in the ovary after
in spermiogenesis ovulation
(2) LH triggers ovulation in ovary (2) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase
(3) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the (3) LH levels are high in the luteal phase
follicular phase (4) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the
(4) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the luteal phase
Leydig cells
222. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
216. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen,
release of ovum (ovulation) from the Graafian
progesterone are produced by :-
follicle? FSHiLHESt
(1) Fallopian tube (2) Pituitary
(1) Low concentration of FSH FSH
(3) Ovary (4) Placenta
(2) High concentration of Estrogen
217. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the (3) High concentration of Progesterone Prod
correct option using the codes given below:- (4) Low concentration of LH 149
Column-I Column-II 223. Match the following columns and select the
a. Mons pubis i. Embryo formation correct option :-
b. Antrum ii. Sperm Column-I Column-II
c. Trophectoderm iii. Female external (a) Placenta (i) Androgens
genitalia
(b) Zona (ii) Human Chorionic
d. Nebenkern iv. Graafian follicle
pellucida Gonadotropin (hCG)
Codes:
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (c) Bulbo- (iii) Layer of the ovum
(2) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii urethral
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i glands
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the
218. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body Penis
is:- (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(1) Corpus cardiacum (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) Corpus luteum (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
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(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
224. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are
the correct explanation of (A)
present on:- (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(1) Corona radiata (2) Vitelline membrane (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Perivitelline space(4) Zona pellucida
3Phoprotein 230. How many testicular lobules are present in each
225. Which of the following secretes the hormone, testis?
relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy? (1) About 100 (2) About 150
(1) Graafian follicle (2) Corpus luteum (3) About 250 (4) Infinite
(3) Foetus (4) Uterus plaini 231. Which of the following statements is wrong?
226. Which of the following statements are true for (1) Mammary lobes contain clusters called as
spermatogenesis but do not hold true for alveoli.

pmAdTTtozoa
Oogenesis? (2) Uterus is also called as womb.
(3) The last part of the oviduct is called as
_W
(a) It results in the formation of haploid
gametes ampulla.
(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the (4) Stroma of ovary is divided into two zones.
completion of meiosis 232. Antrum is :-
(c) Meiosis occurs continuously in mitotically (1) follicular cavity filled with fluid
dividing stem cell population (2) an inner theca layer
(d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (3) the mature follicle
(LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (4) follicular cavity with no fluid
(FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary
(e) It is initiated at puberty 233. For normal fertility, how much percentage of
Choose the most appropriate answer from the total sperms must have normal shape and size?
options given below: (1) 50% (2) 25%
(1) (b) and (c) only (3) 40% (4) 60% kigious
(2) (b), (d) and (e) only motility
(3) (b), (c) and (e) only 234. When do both LH & FSH attain a peak level in a
(4) (c) and (e) only menstrual cycle ?
227. Arrange the components of mammary gland. (1) In last week of the cycle
(2) In mid of the cycle 14th
(from proximal to distal)
1520Mammarylobe Day
(3) During Initial days of cycle
(a) Mammary duct th
(4) On 4 day of cycle
(b) Lactiferous duct Mahmmarytubule

(c) Alveoli 235. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(d) Mammary ampulla
Mahmmary
duct (1) In the absence of fertilization, the corpus
(e) Mammary tubules MantaryAmpulla lachtanut luteum is degenerated.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (2) During pregnancy, all events of menstrual
options given below : cycle are stopped.
(1) (c) → (a) → (d) → (e) → (b) (3) The secretion of LH and FSH decreases
(2) (b) → (c) → (e) → (d) → (a) gradually during the follicular phase.
(3) (c) → (e) → (a) → (d) → (b) (4) The menstrual flow results due to
(4) (e) → (c) → (d) → (b) → (a) breakdown of endometrial lining.
228. How many secondary spermatocytes are 236. In which phase of menstrual cycle Graafian
required to form 400 million spermatozoa? follicle is transformed into corpus luteum?
(1) 50 million (2) 100 million (1) Luteal phase (2) Proliferative phase
(3) 200 million (4) 400 million (3) Follicular phase (4) Growth phase
229. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 237. Which of the following is an indicator of normal
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as reproductive phase and extends between
Reason (R). menarche and menopause?
Assertion (A) : During pregnancy the level of (1) Menstrual cycle (2) Estrous cycle
thyroxine is increased in the maternal blood. (3) Ovulation (4) Implantation
Reason (R) : Pregnancy is characterised by
metabolic changes in the mother. 238. During fertilization, a sperm comes in contact
In the light of the above statements, choose the with which layer of the ovum?
most appropriate answer from the options given (1) Jelly coat
below : (2) Zona pellucida
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (3) Vitelline membrane
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(4) Perivitelline space Sperms

239. Stem cells are found in :- 248. Given below are two statements:
(1) inner cell mass (2) ectoderm Statement-I : The edge of the infundibulum
(3) endoderm (4) mesoderm posses finger like projections called fimbriae,
which helps in collection of ovum after
240. Which hormone acts on uterine myometrium
ovulation.
during parturition? Statement-II : Uterus is supported by Lament
tendons
(1) Oxytocin (2) LH attached to the pelvic wall.
(3) Estrogen (4) Relaxin In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
241. Which gland of female human undergoes
below:
differentiation during pregnancy? (1) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(1) Adrenal gland (2) Mammary gland (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(3) Pituitary gland (4) Thymus gland incorrect.
242. Which of the following is correct for colostrum? (3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
correct.
(1) It contains severel antibodies.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(2) It is produced during the last few days of
lactation. 249. How many sperms and ova are formed
(3) It is a pheromone. respectively from 50 secondary oocytes and 50
(4) It is white in colour. yellow secondary spermatocytes in human?
10Ispermato
243. If epididymis is removed, then what does (1) 50 ova and 200 sperm
happen in a man? (2) 50 ova and 100 sperm
(1) Sperms have shorter life span. (3) 100 ova and 200 sperm 500am
(2) Sperms travel the pathway in lesser time. (4) 100 ova and 400 sperm
(3) Functional maturation of sperms takes 250. Human egg has :-
lesser time. (1) one Y-chromosome
(4) Sperms are incapable for fertilization. (2) one X-chromosome
244. Which of the following is not correct about (3) two Y-chromosome
sustentacular cells? 22705051277yd
(4) one X-chromosome and one Y-
chromosome.
(1) These are present in between the germinal
epithelial cells. 251. Given below are two statements:
(2) These are related with the nutrition of Statement-I : LH act on leydig cells and
sperm. stimulates synthesis and secretion of
(3) These form blood testis barrier. androgens.
(4) These form testosterone from oestrogen. Statement-II : FSH acts on the sertoli cells and
245. If Cowper's gland is removed, then which of the stimulates secretion of some factors which help
in the process of spermiogenesis . In the light
following would be affected? of the above statements, choose the most
(1) Sexual attraction appropriate answer from the options given
(2) Capacitation of sperms Finale tract
(3) Hardness of penis
rep below:
(1) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(4) Copulation and fertilization (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
246. Which of the following releases inhibin to control incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
spermatogenesis?
correct.
(1) Rete testis (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(2) Follicular cells correct.
(3) Leydig's cells
(4) Sustentacular cells sestolialls 252. Oocyte is liberated from ovary under the
influence of LH, after completing :
247. Correct order of spermatogenesis is :-
(1) meiosis and before liberating polar bodies
(1) Spermatocytes, Spermatogonium,
(2) meiosis I and before liberating second polar
Spermatids, Sperms
body
(2) Spermatogonium, Spermatids,
(3) meiosis
Spermatocytes, Sperms
(4) meiosis II after release of first polar body
(3) Spermatids, Spermatogonium,
Spermatocytes, Sperms 253. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
(4) Spermatogonium, Primary, Spermatocytes, nucleus occurs :-
Secondary, Spermatocytes, Spermatids,
(1) after entry of sperm but before completion
spermatozoa
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of fertilization 260. What is true about cleavage in a fertilized egg of

(2) after completion of fertilization human?
(3) before entry of sperm (1) It is of meroblastic type.
(4) without any relation to sperm entry. (2) It starts when egg reaches in uterus.
254. In a 30 years old lady, eggs are released in the (3) It starts in fallopian tube.
form of :- (4) It is identical to normal mitosis.
(1) oogonia (2) primary oocyte 261. Which type of cell division occurs during
(3) secondary oocyte (4) atretic follicle cleavage?
255. In following structure, identify A & B and their (1) Amitosis (2) Mitosis
respective functions. (3) Closed mitosis (4) Meiosis
262. Correct sequence of embryonic development
Trophoblast is:-
(1) Fertilization ⟶ Zygote ⟶ Cleavage ⟶
Morula ⟶ Blastula ⟶ Gastrula
InnercellMass (2) Fertilization ⟶ Zygote ⟶ Blastula ⟶
Morula ⟶ Cleavage ⟶ Gastrula
(3) Fertilization ⟶ Cleavage ⟶ Morula ⟶
Zygote ⟶ Blastula ⟶ Gastrula
(4) Cleavage ⟶ Zygote ⟶ Fertilization ⟶
A B Function of Morula ⟶ Blastula ⟶ Gastrula
263. Given below are two statements:
A B
Statement-I : hCG, hPL and relaxin are
produced in women only during pregnancy.
(1) Trophob Inner cell Attachment with Differentiation
Statement-II : By end of about 12 weeks, the
last mass endometrium as embryo
body of foetus is covered with hairs, eye-lids
separate, and eye lashes are formed.
(2) Trophob Inner cell Differentiation Attachment with
In the light of the above statements, choose the
last mass as embryo endometrium
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(3) Mesode Inner cell Ifferentiation as Attachment with
(1) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
rm mass embryo endometrium
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(4) Ectoder Mesod Attachment with Differentiation
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
m erm endometrium as embryo
correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
256. In a menstrual cycle, hormones start increasing correct.
in which order from the beginning of 264. Which hormone is not involved in the process of
menstruation? parturition?
(1) FSH, progesterone, estrogen (1) Oxytocin (2) Prolactin
(2) Estrogen, FSH, progesterone (3) Estrogen (4) Cortisol
(3) FSH, estrogen, progesterone
(4) Esterogen, progesterone, FSH 265. The cellular layer that disintegrates and
regenerates again and again in human is :-
257. At the time of ovulation, the human egg is
(1) endometrium of uterus
covered by a membrane called as :-
(2) cornea of eye
(1) chorion (2) zona pellucida (3) dermis of skin
(3) corona radiata (4) Both (2) & (3) (4) endothelium of blood vessels
258. How many cleavage divisions are required for 266. The functional maturation of sperms takes place
the formation of 16 blastomeres ? in :-
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8
1 2 11 (1) oviduct
(3) vagina
(2) epididymis
(4) All of these
259. What is true about cleavage? 267. Supporting cells found in the germinal
(1) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains epithelium of testis are called as :-
unchanged.
(1) Interstitial cells of Leydig
(2) Size of an embryo does not increase.
(2) Sertoli cells
(3) There is less consumption of oxygen.
(3) granular cells
(4) The division is similar to meiosis.
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(4) phagocytes 279. Which contraceptive method inhibit ovulation

268. Atretic follicles are found in the :- and implantation as well as after the quality of
(1) fallopian tube (2) uterus cervical mucus to prevent/ retard entry of
(3) labia majora (4) ovary sperm?
(1) Copper T (2) Oral contraceptives
269. Which of the following hormones are produced
(3) Condoms (4) cervical cap
in women only during pregnancy?
(a) hPL (b) Relaxin 280. The given diagram shows the uterine tubes of
(c) Androgen (d) FSH four women (P, Q, R and S ).
(e) hCG (f) LH
(1) a,b,e (2) b & e
(3) c,d,e,f (4) a,b,c,d,e,f
270. Which of the following cells undergoes
spermiogenesis?
(1) Spematids Spermatozoa
(2) Spermatogonia
(3) Primary spermatocytes
(4) Secondary spermatocytes
271. Various changes in human sperm which prepare
it to fertilise the ovum are called collectively as :-
(1) capacitation (2) regeneration
(3) growth (4) None of these In which two women is fertilization impossible
at present?
272. In human foetus, the heart begins to beat at (1) P and Q (2) Q and R
developmental age of :- (3) R and S (4) S and P
(1) 4 weeks (2) 3 weeks 281. Consider the following statements :
(3) 6 weeks (4) 8 weeks (a) In India, family planning program was
273. Which of the following does not occur during initiated in 1982. 1951
natural menopause in a female? (b) Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH)
program is an improved version of family
(1) Progesterone level in blood is decreased.
FEW (2) FSH and LH levels in blood are decreased.
(3) Estrogen level in blood is decreased.
planning programs.
Select the correct option.
(1) (a) is true, (b) are false
(4) Uterine changes are stopped.
(2) Both (a) and (b) are false
274. In a sperm, the mitochondria are occured :- (3) (a) is false, (b) is true
(1) in tail (2) in acrosome (4) Both (a) and (b) are true
(3) in middle piece (4) in head 282. In what way awareness can be created among
275. Fixing up of the blastocyst in the wall of the people about reproduction related aspects?
uterus is known as :- (a) Through audio-visual and print media
(1) fertilization (2) implantation advertisements.
(3) impreganation (4) placentation (b) Creating fear among adolescents about
sexual practices.
276. Placenta in human beings is formed by :- (c) Introduction of sex education at school.
(1) amnion Select the most appropriate option:
(2) chorion (1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) allantois (2) (b) and (c) are correct
(4) chorion and uterine wall (3) (a) and (b) are correct
(4) (a) and (c) are correct
277. The phenomenon of nuclear fusion of sperm and
egg is known as :- 283. Assertion : Amniocentesis helps to detect foetal
(1) karyogamy (2) parthenogenesis disorders during early pregnancy.
(3) vitellogenesis (4) oogenesis Reason : Jaundice can be prevented in foetus
by amniocentesis.
278. Sertoli cells are involved in :-
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
(1) respiration reason is the correct explanation of
(2) nutrition of sperms assertion.
(3) excretion (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
(4) development of sex organs reason is not the correct explanation of

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 21

assertion. implantation to induce contraception.

(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (b) Menstrual flow does not occur in females
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. after taking oral contraceptives.
Select the correct option.
284. Under what circumstances, the growth of
(1) 𝑎 is true, 𝑏 is false
population declines? (2) 𝑎 is false, 𝑏 is true
(a) Increased number of people in reproducible (3) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are false
age. (4) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are true
(b) Decreased infant mortality rate.
(c) Increased maternal mortality rate. 289. Which of the following statement is incorrect
Select the most appropriate option. regarding implants?
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (1) They are used by both males and females.
(2) (b) and (b) are correct (2) These are placed under the skin.
(3) Only (c) is correct (3) They contain progestogens or combinations
(4) Only (b) is correct of pills.
(4) They are effective for longer period as
285. Consider the following statements.
compared to pills.
(a) 'One child norm' is a threat to population
growth rate of India. 290. Consider the following statements :
(b) Statutory raising of marriageable age of (a) Emergency contraceptives are taken within
males and females check the population 72 hours of coitus to avoid pregnancy.
growth rate. (b) Sterilisation is the terminal method to
Select the correct option. prevent any pregnancy as it is irreversible.
(1) a is true, 𝑏 is false Select the correct option.
(2) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are true (1) 𝑎 is true, 𝑏 is false
(3) 𝑎 is false, 𝑏 is true (2) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are true
(4) Both a and b are false (3) 𝑎 is false, 𝑏 is true
286. Consider the following statements : (4) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are false
(a) Natural method of contraception is a 291. Consider the following statements :
traditional method to prevent pregnancy. (a) AIDS and Hepatitis B are STIs which are
(b) The basic principle of natural method of caused by virus.
contraception is to avoid the contact (b) Gonorrhoea and syphilis are caused by
between ovum and sperms. bacteria.
Select the correct option. Select the correct option.
(1) 𝑎 is true, 𝑏 is false (1) a is true, 𝑏 is false
(2) 𝑎 is false, 𝑏 is true (2) a is false, 𝑏 is true
(3) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are true (3) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are false
(4) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are false (4) Both a and b are true
287. Match the following columns. 292. Consider the following statements :
Column-I (Natural Column-II (a) Sexually transmitted diseases can be cured
methods of (Characteristics) completely if detected early and treated
contraception) properly.
(a) Coitus (1) Avoid (b) Early symptoms of STIs include itching, fluid
interruptus intercourse discharge and swelling in genital areas.
during Select the correct option.
ovulation (1) a is true, b is false
(b) Lactational (2) Avoid (2) Both a and b are true
amenorrhea insemination (3) 𝑎 is false, 𝑏 is true
into vagina (4) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are false
(c) Periodic (3) Ovum is not
293. The consequences of delayed treatment of STIs
abstinence available for
fertilisation include:
Select the correct option (a) ectopic pregnancy
a b c (b) Still births
(1) 3 1 2 (c) Pelvic inflammatory diseases
(2) 1 3 2 (d) Uncontrolled growth of cells lanier
(3) 3 2 1 Select the most appropriate option.
(4) 2 3 1 (1) (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (c) and (d) are correct
288. Consider the following statements : (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(a) Oral contraceptives inhibit ovulation and (4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
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 22

294. Consider the following statements : (b) GIFT (2) Transfer of

(a) An infertile couple is unable to produce embryo into the
children due to immunological disorders uterus
only. (c) IUT (3) Transfer of
(b) In human population, males are always embryo into
fertile while females are either fertile or fallopian tube
infertile. Select the correct option.
Select the correct option. a b c
(1) 𝑎 is true, 𝑏 is false (1) 3 2 1
(2) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are true (2) 1 2 3
(3) 𝑎 is false, 𝑏 is true (3) 2 3 1
(4) Both a and b are false (4) 3 1 2
295. Consider the following statements : 297. Assertion : In all ART, fertilisation occurs outside

5
the female's body.
(a) Embryo formed by in-vivo fertilisation could
be used in intra uterine transfer.1 X
Reason : Infertile couples cannot produce
(b) Fully formed embryo is transferred into the gametes.
fundus region of uterus in ZIFT. X X
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
Select the correct option. reason is the correct explanation of
(1) 𝑎 is true, 𝑏 is false assertion.
(2) 𝑎 is false, 𝑏 is true (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
(3) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are false reason is not the correct explanation of
(4) Both 𝑎 and 𝑏 are true assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
296. Match the following columns.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
Column-I Column-I I
(a) ZIFT (1) Transfer of
ovum into
fallopian tube

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