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CN MCQ

The document is a question bank for the Computer Network course (EC-602) at the Academy of Technology, covering multiple choice and descriptive questions across various modules including data communication, networking, physical layer, and data link layer. It includes questions on OSI model layers, network topologies, protocols, and transmission methods. The document serves as a study aid for students preparing for exams in the subject.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
3 views

CN MCQ

The document is a question bank for the Computer Network course (EC-602) at the Academy of Technology, covering multiple choice and descriptive questions across various modules including data communication, networking, physical layer, and data link layer. It includes questions on OSI model layers, network topologies, protocols, and transmission methods. The document serves as a study aid for students preparing for exams in the subject.

Uploaded by

okiamokay2001
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Academy Of Technology, Adisaptagram

DEPARTMENT OF ECE
Computer Network Question Bank EC-602

Module – I: Overview of Data Communication and Networking


Part – A [Multiple Choice Type Questions]
1. The data link layer provides ..................... delivery.
a) host-to-host b) port-to-port c) process-to-process d)hop-to-hop
2. For n devices in a network and duplex mode transmission facility, the number of cable links
required for a mesh topology is –
a) n2 b) 2n c) n(n-1)/2 d) n(n-1)
3. The layer responsible for encryption technique in OSI model is –
a) network b) presentation c) data link d) session
4. Switches function in which layer(s) of OSI model?
a) physical b) data link c) network d)both a and b
5. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?
a) mesh b) ring c) star d)bus
6. The physical layer provides –
a) bit-to-signal transmission b) multiplexing c) circuit-switching d) all of these
7. The transport layer provides ..................... delivery.
a) bit-to-signal transmission b) bit synchronization c) process-to-process d) hop-to-hop
8. The topology with highest reliability is–
a) bus topology b) star topology c) mesh topology d) ring topology
9. The dedicated physical layer devices are –
a) Hub & Switch b) Hub & multiplexer c) ATM switch & MUX d) Repeater & Router
10. Advantage of layering includes –
a) multi-vendor integration b) data hiding & encapsulation c) easy testing d) all of these
11. A network which is used for sharing data, software and hardware among small number of users
owning micro computers is called
a) WAN b) LAN c) MAN d) PAN
12. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?
a) Mesh b) star c) ring d) bus
13. Flow control in OSI reference model is performed in –
a) Data link layer b) Network layer c) Session layer d) Application layer
14. Open Source Interconnection is developed by…….. and has…… layers.
a) IEEE, 7 b) ISI, 5 c) ISO, 7 d) None of these.

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15. Method of communication in which transmission takes place in both directions,But only in one
direction at a time, is called –
a) Simplex b) full-duplex c) four-wire circuit d) half-duplex
16. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves –
a) Simplex b) Half-duplex c) Duplex d) Automatic
17. The key elements of a protocol are –
a) syntax b) semantics c) timing d) all of these
18. The different networking standards are –
a) De facto (i.e., by fact) b) De jure (i.e., by law) c) Both a and b d) None of these
19. If a protocol specifies that data should be sent at 100 Mbps, what is the issue?
a) syntax b) semantics c) timing d) none of these
20. When a protocol specifies that the address of the sender must occupy the first 4 bytes of a message,
what is this issue?
a) syntax b) semantics c) timing d) none of these
21. Repeaters function in which layer(s)?
a) physical b) data link c) network d) both a and b
22. Bridges/Switches function in which layer(s)?
a) physical b) data link c) network d) both a and b
23. Routers function in which layers?
a) physical and data link b) physical, data link and network
c) data link and network d) network and transport
24. Gateways in OSI model can function all the way up to –
a) transport layer b) session layer c) presentation layer d) application layer
25. Which of the following can be handled by a gateway?
a) protocol conversion b) packet resizingc) data encapsulation d) all of the above
26. Protection of data from a natural disaster such as a tornado belongs to which of the following network
issue –
a) performance b) reliability c) security d) management
27. In which OSI layers does FDDI protocol operate?
a) Physical b) Data link c) Network d) a and b both
28. Which of the following allows devices on one network to communicate with devices on another
network?
a) Multiplexer b) Gateway c) Switch d) Modem
29. The two parameters used for measuring the performance of a network are –
a) throughput and delay b)power and delay
c)power andthroughput d)throughput and buffer size
30. Different computers are connected to a LAN by a cable and –
a) Modem b) NIC c) special wires d) telephone lines
31. The extended ASCII is of bit size and can represent up to characters.
a) 7 bit, 128 b) 8 bit, 128 c) 8 bit, 256 d) 7 bit, 256

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Part –B [WBUT Exam Type Questions]
[5 marks each]
1. For n devices, calculate the number of cable links required for a mesh, ring, bus and star topology.5
2. What are the various modes of communication? Explain the fiber optic cable.5
3. What do you mean by the term protocol? What are the key elements of a protocol?5
4. What are the different criteria that make a network effective and efficient?5
5.Discuss about the different kinds of transmission modes. 5
6.Explain the utility of layered network architecture. Compare OSI and TCP/IP reference model. 2+3
7.What are the responsibilities of the network layer and transport layer in the Internet model? 5
8.How do the layers of the TCP/IP model correlate to the layers of the OSI model? 5
9. What do you mean by transmission impairments? Discuss about different kinds of transmission
impairments. 1+4
10. Discuss protocols and standards in brief. Explain why a trailer is needed in data link layer frame. 3+2
11. Discuss about the different network topologies. 5
12. Compare star and mess topology with advantages and disadvantages. 5

[Part – C]
1. Assume a layered networking architecture. The packet structure in this architecture, as seen at the
lowest (physical) layer, is as follows:
WBUT Header AOT Header CSE Header STUDENT data
| 5 Bytes |  15 Bytes  | 20 Bytes |
Sketch the layered protocol model that applies to the given architecture (i.e. packet) by labeling each
layer in the figure below with the appropriate layer name. Your choices are WBUT, AOT, CSE and
STUDENT data.

Layer

Layer

Layer

Layer

2. If, in the given architecture above, the maximum length of the user data field is 150 bytes, what is the
overhead (as a percentage!) to send a 1600 byte user message?

3. Explain the typical characteristics of a LAN in terms of addressing mechanism, topology, MAC
protocol, channel capacity, cost and application.

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Module – II: Physical Layer
Part – A [Multiple Choice Type Questions]
1. Guard band increases the bandwidth for –
a) TDM b) WDM c) FDM d) none of these
2. A communication line with bandwidth 1 MHz and SNR value 63, what is the approximate bit rate and
signal level?
a) 8 Mbps, 4 b) 6 Mbps, 3 c) 4 Mbps, 2 d)6 Mbps, 4
3. Manchester code is a–
a) Non-return to zero code b) polar code c) both a and b d) none of these
4. Which is not a basic multiplexing method?
a) FDM b) TDM c) WDM d) none of these
5. The maximum data rate of a channel of 3000 Hz bandwidth and SNR of 30 dB is –
a) 15,000 bps b) 60,000 bps c) 1500 bps d) 3,000 bps
6. Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed into–
a) low-frequency sine wave b) electromagnetic signals c) aperiodic signals d) none of these
7. Baud means –
a) number of bits transmitted per unit time b) number of bytes transmitted per unit time
c) rate at which the signal changes d) none of these
8. The maximum data rate of a channel of 3000 Hz bandwidth and SNR of 30 dB is –
a) 15,000 bps b) 60,000 bps c) 1500 bps d) 3,000 bps
9. If the maximum value of a signal is 31 and minimum value is -32, how many bits are used for
coding?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
10. In networking terminology UTP means–
a) Unshielded twisted pair b) Ubiquitous Teflon port
c) Uniformly terminating port d) Unshielded T-connector port
11. In synchronous TDM, the data rate of link is –
a) n times faster b) n times slower c) 2 times faster d) 2 times slower
12. A telephone network is an example of ................... network.
a) Packet-switched b) Circuit-switched c) Message-switched d) None of the above
13. BNC connectors are used by ..................... cable.
a) UTP b) STP c) Coaxial d) Fiber-optic
14. Which is not a basic multiplexing method?
a) FDM b) TDM c) WDM d) IMUX
15. In an optical fiber, the inner core is .................. the cladding.
a) denser than b) less dense than c) the same density as d) another name for
16. The geostationary satellite used for communication systems –
a) rotates with earth b) remains stationary relative to the earth
c) is positioned over equator d) all the above

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17.The RJ45 is a connector used in case of .
a) 10Base2 b) 10Base5 c) 10BaseT d) 10BaseF
18. For separating channels in FDM, it is necessary to use .
a) time slots b) band pass filters c) differentiator d) Integrator
19. The number of times a signal changes value per second is called the rate.
a) Bit rate b) Baud rate c) frequency rate d) Bit interval

Part – B [WBUT Exam Type Questions]


[5 marks each]
1. Given a bit sequence 01001110, encode the binary string using–
i) NRZ (both), ii) RZ, iii) Manchester encoding, iv) Differential Manchester encoding. 5
2. a)What is the purpose of multiplex? FDM is for analog signals, TDM is for digital signals. Explain 5
b) What should be the link capacity to multiplex 3 input signals each of 300 bits per sec speed using 2
bits/sec framing rate? (1.5 × 2) + 2
3. a) Twisted pair cable offers better bandwidth than untwisted pair. How?
b) For a 4 kHz voice channel, what should be the minimum bit rate of the digitized channel considering
128 different quantization levels? State clearly Shannon‘s capacity formula. 2+(2 + 1)
4. a) Sketch the waveform for the bit stream 10110010 in differential Manchester encoding format.
b) A binary signal is sent over an 8 kHz channel whose signal to noise ratio is 20 dB. What is the
maximum achievable rate? Define signaling rate. 2 + (2 + 1)
5. Explain what the time period of a signal is. If there are two sine waves with frequencies of 20 kHz &
40 kHz, what are their time periods? In general, with the frequency of signal Y is double the frequency of
signal X, how are the time periods of X and Y are related arithmetically. 5
6. What are the advantages of digital transmission over analog transmission? 5
7. Write down the advantages of optical fiber over coaxial cable and twisted pair. 5
8. Explain the theory behind optical fiber communication. Discuss about the different type of propagation
modes in optical fiber. 5
9. How many types of analog-to-analog conversion techniques are there? Which one is most susceptible
to noise? Give reason. 5
10. What is switching? Explain the difference between circuit switching and packet switching? (5)
11. For the bit stream 101100010111, show the digital signal encoding formats using the
following encoding schemes. State any assumptions you make.
a. NRZ-L
b. NRZ-I
c. Bipolar-AMI
d. Manchester
e. Differential Manchester
12. Derive a formula to find, in a three-stage crossbar switch, the number of cross points L in terms of the
number of input/output lines N, the number of second stage switches k, and n lines per switch with
respect to the input lines. (5)

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13. Give examples to illustrate the following scenarios: 5
a. Bit rate = Baud rate
b. Bit rate < Baud rate
c. Bit rate > Baud rate
[15 marks each]
14. What do you mean by transmission impairments? Discuss about different kinds of transmission
impairments. Discuss about the different kinds of transmission medium. 3+6+6
15. Explain the different kinds of digital-to-digital encoding techniques. What is scrambling techniques?
12 + 3
16. In analog transmission, what is the role of carrier signal? Discuss about the different kind of digital-
to-analog conversion. 3 + 12
17. Explain PCM. Differentiate between bit rate and baud rate. What is quantization error? Explain
QAM. What is the difference between PSK and QAM? 5+3+2+3+2

[Part – C]

1. Justify the reason for which the PCM sampling rate has been set at 125 sec.
2. Mention the advantage of QAM over ASK or PSK. Discuss 8-QAM constellation with two amplitude
and four phases using the necessary diagram.
3. A telephone line can normally transmit frequencies in the range 300 to 3300 Hz, and the signal-to-
noise ratio is typically 3162. Estimate the capacity of this channel in bps.
4. A channel has a signal-to-noise ratio of 63 and a bandwidth of 1 MHz. What are the appropriate bit
rate and signal level?
5. Draw a space division three stage switch. There are 18 inputs and 20 outputs. Stage 1 has three
switches, stage 2 has two switches and stage 3 has four switches. How many cross points are needed
to compare this to a system using just one crossbar?
6. Determine the bit rate for high-definition TV (HDTV).
7. Consider a PCM encoder which samples an input analog signal at the rate 10 KHz, and digitizes each
sample in 8 bits. What will be the required data rate for the communication channel?

Module – III: Data Link Layer


Part – A [Multiple Choice Type Questions]
1. The Hamming code is used for –
a) Error Detection b) Error Correction c) Error Encapsulation. d) both a and b
2. In Ethernet when Manchester encoding is used, the bit rate is
a) Half the baud rates b) Twice the baud rate c) Same as the baud rated) none of these
3. Trailer is added to frame in –
a) Session layer b) Application layer c) Data link layer d) Network layer
4. Error detection at the data link layer is achieved by –
a) Bit stuffing b) CRC c) Hamming code d) Equalization

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5. Four bits are used for packed sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in computer
network. What is the maximum window size?
a) 4 b)8 c) 15 d) 16
6. Different computers are connected to a LAN by a cable and –
a) Modem b) NIC c) special wires d) telephone lines
7. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for n data packets sent ………acknowledgements are needed.
a) n b) 2n c) n-1 d) n+1
8. In HDLC inserts a 0 bit after ..................... consecutive 1 bits in the message data.
a) 4 b)6 c) 5 d)7
9. In which ARQ, if a NAK received, onlythe specific damaged or lost frame is retransmitted?
a) stop-and-wait b) go-back-n c) selective repeat d) both a and b
10. The l-persistent CSMA / CD is a special case of the p-persistent approach with p equal to –
a) 0.5 b) 0.1 c) 1.0 d) None of these.
11. Pure ALOHA has a maximum efficiency of
a) 18% b)37%c) 10% d) none of these
12. In the .......... random-access method there is no collision
a) ALOHA b) CSMA / CD c) CSMA / CA d) Token passing
13. How much channel throughput of Slotted ALOHA will be in comparison to Pure ALOHA?
a) Same b) Double c) Three times d) None of these
16. FDDI is a –
a) ring network b) star network c) mesh network d) bus network
17. A bridge has access to which address of a station on the same network?
a) physical b) network c) service access point d) all of the above
18.Bluetooth uses to communicate between two devices.
a) Radio wave b) Microwave c) Infrared d) Satellite
19. What is the Hamming distance between 11100110 and 10100011?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
20. An Ethernet has 38 bytes of data. How many bytes padding should be added?
a) 12 b) 8 c) 26 d) 46

Part – B [WBUT Exam Type Questions]


[5 marks each]
1. Discuss about the different types of flow control mechanism in data link layer. Describe different error
control mechanism in data link layer. 3+2
2. What are the responsibilities of data link layer? Explain the utility of MAC sub layer. 3+2
3.A generator function for CRC is given as x 5+ x2 + 1:
a) What is the generator function in binary form?
b) What is the checksum for the following message in binary and in polynomial form? 1+4
1101011011

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m-1
4. Prove thatthe maximum size of window in Selective Repeat ARQ is 2 where m is the number of bits
used for sequence number.
5. What is working operation of stop and wait ARQ for lost acknowledgement? 5
6. Prove thatthe maximum size of window in Go-Back-N ARQ is (2 – 1) where m is the number of bits
m

used for sequence number. 5


7. Explain ‗Selective Repeat ARQ protocol‘ with an example. 5
8. Explain with diagram; how the lost frame, delayed frame and lost acknowledgements are handled in
Go-Back-N ARQ. 5
9. Discuss HDLCframe format in brief. 5
10. Explain the PPP frame format in brief. 5
11. Compare and contrast Pure ALOHA and Slotted ALOHA with diagram. 5
12. Discuss about the channel allocation problem in MAC sub-layer. 5
13. Describe Ethernet frame format in brief. 5
14. What do you mean by data transparency and bit stuffing? Why is bit stuffing needed? 3+2
15. What is CDMA? State the advantages of CDMA over FDMA or TDMA. Define walsh table. 1+2+2
16. What is the ‗loop problem‘ with respect to transparent bridge? How can it be avoided? 2+3
17. Discuss CSMA/CA multiple access strategy with diagram. Why CSMA/CD cannot be used for
wireless environment? 4+1
18. Explain with proper reasons about the following, as applied to Ethernet (IEEE 802.3)
a) The efficiency of Ethernet decreases if the cable length is increased.
b) Ethernet is not suitable for high speed network (like optical fiber network).
c) The short frames are not allowed in Ethernet. 2+2+1

[15 marks each]


19. a) If α = propagation delay / transmission delay and p is the probability of frame error then prove that
channel utilization in the case of Stop-and-wait ARQ protocol is (1–p) / (1+ 2α). Let us assume that
we neglectthe processing time and the width of the ACK frame.
b) Draw the simplified phase diagram for bringing up a line up and bringing it down in PPP and
explain various phases.
c) Ethernet technology is based on broadcast protocol. Explain this. What happens when a collision
occurs in Ethernet communication? 5+5+(3+2)
20. a) What are random access and controlled access?
b) What are the differences between pure ALOHA and slotted ALOHA?
c) Describe ALOHA with flowchart.
d) Derive the expression of throughput for pure ALOHA.
e) What are non-persistence, l-persistence and p-persistence strategies? 2+2+4+4+3
21. a) What do you mean by channel utilization?
b) Discuss and differentiate persistent CSMA and non-pertinent CSMA?
c) Why are medium access control techniques required? List three popular medium access control
techniques.

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d) A 1 km 10 Mbps CSMA/CD LAN has a propagation speed of 200 m/µ sec. Data frames are 256
bits long including 32 bits of header, checksum and other overhead. The first bit slot after a successful
transition is reserved for the receiver to capture the channel to send a 32 bit acknowledge frame. What
is the affective data rate excluding overhead assuming there is no collision. 1+2+5+7
22. a) Why is the contention slot of CSMA/CD protocol 2Y? Explain
b) How a station can join and leave from a Token Ring LAN?
c) What is FDDI?
d) Describe the priority scheme of a Token Bus LAN.
e) What is the function of the preamble field of the 802.3 LAN?
f) Why is 802.4 called the ―Logical Ring‖? 3+3+2+2+2+3
23. Describe 'Stop-and-wait ARQ', ‗Go-Back-N ARQ' and 'Selective repeat ARQ' protocols, with the
help of diagram. Which one is better and why? (4+4+4) + 3

24. a) Compare and contrast a random access protocol with a controlled access protocol.
b) Theaddress 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 has been shown as the source physical address in an
Ethernet frame. The receiver has discarded the frame. Why?
c) Compare and contrast CSMA/CA with CSMA/CD.
d) What is transparent bridge? How does a repeater extend the length of a LAN?3 + 3 + 5 + 4

25. a) Name the types of HDLC frames, and give a brief description of each.
b) Draw the sender and receiver windows for a system using Go-Back-N ARQ, given the following:
i) Frame 0 is sent; frame 0 is acknowledged.
ii) Frames 1 and 2 are sent; frames 1 and 2 are acknowledged.
iii) Frames 3, 4 and 5 are sent; frame 4 is acknowledged; timer for frame 5 expires.
iv) Frames 5, 6 and 7 are sent; frames 5 through 7 are acknowledged. 9+6

[Part – C]
1. A receiver receives the code 11001110111. When it uses the Hamming coding algorithm, the result is
0101. Which bit is in error? What is the correct code?

2. An Ethernet MAC sub-layer receives 1510 bytes of data from the upper layer. Can the
databeencapsulatedin oneframe?Ifnot,howmanyframes need to be sent? Calculate the sizeofthe
dataineach frame.

3. A computer uses the following sequence numbers:


0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,15,0,1,2,3,4……..
Determine the sender and receiver‘s window sizes that are not possible in Selective Repeat protocol.

4. A computer is using the following sequence numbers:


0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 0, 1, …
Calculate the size of the window (Assume selective repeat protocol is used).
5. A computer uses the following sequence numbers: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 0, 1, 2, 3, …
Calculate the sender‘s and receiver‘s window size that are not possible in Selective Repeat protocol.

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6. A sliding Window protocol with selective repeat ARQ uses a sliding window size of 4. Frames were
sent as follows from station A to station B.

(a) Calculate the frames available in sender and receiver windows after frame 3 is lost.
(b) Receiver sends one data frame to after receiving frame 3 correctly, along with piggybacking
acknowledgement, then determine the frames in the sender window of station A and receiver window of
station B currently.

7. Match the following list: Sequence number is 5 bits


Protocol Ws , WR
(a) Stop-N-Wait ARQ (1) 31, 1
(b) Go-Back-N ARQ (2) 16, 16
(c) Selective repeat ARQ (3) 1, 1
Give explanations to support your answer.

8. In a CSMA/CD network with a data rate of 10 Mbps, the minimum frame size is found to be 512 bits
for the correct operation of the collision detection process. Calculate the minimum frame size if we
increase the data rate to: i) 100Mbps, ii) 1Gbps, iii) 10Gbps.

Module – IV:Network Layer


Part – A [Multiple Choice Type Questions]
1. An IPv6 address consists of ...................... bits.
a) 48 b) 16 c) 32 d) 128
2. IP address in the class B is given by –
a) 125.123.123.2 b) 191.23.21.54 c) 192.128.32.56 d) 10.14.12.34
3. Routers function in which layer(s)?
a) physical b) data link c) network d) all of these
4. IP address in the class C is given by –
a) 125.123.123.2 b) 191.23.21.54 c) 192.128.32.56 d) 10.14.12.34

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5. Different computers are connected to a LAN by a cable and –
a) Modem b) NIC c) special wires d) telephone lines
6. Physical to Logical addresses conversion done by which protocol(s)?
a) RARP b) BOOTP c) DHCP d) all of the above
7. The ..........................field in IP Datagram is used for error detection.
a) urgent pointer b) checksum c) sequence number d) acknowledge number
8. ARP is a –
a) TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically bind a high level IP address to a low level physical hardware
address
b) TCP/IP high level protocols for transferring files from one machine to another
c) Protocol used to monitor computers
d) Protocol that handles error and control messages
9. ICMP is a –
a) protocol handles error and control messages
b) protocol used to monitor computers
c) both a and b above
d) none of those
10. Which of the following is not an IPv6 address?
a) anycast b) multicast c) broadcast d) unicast
11. The network layer provides ..................... delivery.
a)host-to-host b) port-to-port c) process-to-process d) hop-to-hop
12. Maximum size of the data portion of the IP datagram is
a) 65515 bytes b) 65555 bytes c) 65535 bytes d) none of these
13. IP address can be used to specify a broadcast and map to hardware broadcast if available.
Byconversion broadcast address has hosted with all bits
a) 0 b) 1 c) both a and b above d) none of the above
14. Which of the following is an interior routing protocol?
a) RIP b) OSPF c) BGP d) both a and b
15. A station in a network forward incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output queue. What
routing algorithm is being used?
a) Distance vector routing b) Flooding c) Static routing d) Delta routing
16. In which routing method do all the routers have a common database?
a) distance vector b) link state c) link vector d) none of the above
17. Adaptive or dynamic directory used in packet routing changes
a) within each user session b) with each user session
c) at system generation time only d) both (a) and (b)
18. Which routing algorithm requires more traffic between routers for set-up and updating?
a) Distance vector b) Link state c) Dijkstra d) Vector link.
19. Which of the following is not an IPv6 address?
a) Anycast b) Multicast c) Broadcast d) Unicast

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20. The.......................... field in IP Datagram is used for error detection.
a) urgent pointer b) checksum c) sequence number d)acknowledge number
21. Identify the class of IP address 199.1.2.3.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
Note: First byte of class C ranges from 192-223

22. A subnet mask in class A has fourteen 1s. How many subnets does it define?
a. 32
b. 8
c. 64
d. 128
6
Note: default mask of class A has 8 bits. Subnet id has 14-8=6 bits so 2 = 64 subnets can be defined

23. A subnet mask in class B has nineteen 1s. How many subnets does it define?
a. 8
b. 32
c. 64
d. 128
Note: default mask of class B has 16 bits; subnet id has 19-16=3 bits so 23 = 8 subnets can be defined

24. Given the IP address 201.14.78.65 and the subnet mask 255.255.255.224, what is the subnet address?
a. 201.14.78.32
b. 201.14.78.65
c. 201.14.78.64
d. 201.14.78.12
Note: since first 3 bytes of subnet mask is 255 255 255. So first 3 bytes of subnet address is 201.14.78.
The last bytes is 65& 224 = 01000001(bin) & 11100000 (bin) = 01000000 (bin) = 64

25. Class has the greatest number of hosts per given network address.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Note: Class A’s netid length is the greatest

26. In routing, the full IP address of a destination is given in the routing table.
a. Next-hop
b. Network-specific
c. Host-specific
d. Default

27. In routing, the mask & destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in routing table.
a. Next-hop
b. Network-specific

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c. Host-specific
d. Default

28. In routing, the destination address is a network address in the routing table.
a. Next-hop
b. Network-specific
c. Host-specific
d. Default

29. Find the netid and the hostid of the following IP addresses.
a. 114.34.2.8 (netid: 114, hostid: 34.2.8)
b. 19.34.21.5 (netid: 19, hostid: 34.21.5)
c. 23.67.12.1 (netid: 23, hosted: 67.12.1)
d. 127.23.4.0 (netid: 127, hosted: 23.4.0)

30. In a class B subnet, we know the IP address of one of the hosts and the mask as given below:
IP address: 195.134.112.66
Mask: 255.255.224.0
What is the first address (network address)?
The first address is 195.134.96.0 (third byte is 112&224 = 96)

31. Find the masks that create the following number of subnets in class B.
a. 2 (255.255.128.0 : put first bits of 3rd byte 1)
b. 5 (255.255.224.0: put first 3 bits of 3rd byte 1)
c. 30 (255.255.248.0: put first 5 bits of 3rd byte 1)
d. 62 255.255.242.0: put first 6 bits of 3rd byte 1)
e. 120 255.255.254.0 : put first 7 bits of 3rd byte 1)
f. 250 255.255.255.0 : all 8 bits of 3rd byte 1)
Note: all bits in first 2 bytes are 1 since the mask is for class B address, for subnet id field, choose the
m1 m
bit number (m) that fits 2 < n <= 2 (n is the number provided in the question and m is the bits
number in subnet field) then fill the m bit with 1s.

32. What is the maximum number of subnets in class C using the following masks?
a. 255.255.255.192
(since 4th byte of the mask is 192 = 11000000(bin), with two 1s on left side so the answer is
22 = 4)
b. 255.255.255.224
(since 4th byte of the mask is 224 = 11100000(bin), with 3 1s on left side, so the answer is
23 = 8)
c. 255.255.255.240 (same method as above, the answer is 16)
d. 255.255.255.0 (same method as above, no bit assigned for subnetid, so there is no subnet, the
answer should be 0)

33. For each of the following subnet masks used in class B, find the number of 1s that defines the subnet.
a. 255.255.192.0 (2 since there are two 1s on the leftmost bits on third bytes)
b. 255.255.0.0 (0 since there are no 1s on the leftmost bits on third bytes)
c. 255.255.224.0 ( 3 since there are 3 1s on leftmost bits on the third bytes)
d. 255.255.255.0 ( 8 since there are 8 1s on the leftmost bits on the third bytes)
Note: default mask of class B is 255.255.0.0

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34. Write the following masks in the /n format.
a. 255.255.255.0 (/24 since 24 leftmost bits are 1s)
b. 255.0.0.0 (/8 since 8 leftmost bits are 1s)
c. 255.255.224.0 (/19 since 19 leftmost bits are 1s)
d. 255.255.240.0 (/20 since 20 leftmost bits are 1s)

35. Find the range of addresses in the following blocks.


a. 123.56.77.32/29 (123.56.77.32 ~ 123.56.77.39 since the rightmost 3 bits are available for
address)
b. 200.17.21.128/27 (200.17.21.128 ~ 200.17.21.159 since the rightmost 5 bits are used for
addresses)
c. 17.34.16.0/23 (17.34.16.0 ~ 17.34.17.255 since the rightmost 9 bits are available for address)
d. 180.34.64.64/30 (180.34.64.64 ~ 180.34.64.67 since rightmost 2 bits are available for address)

Part – B [WBUT Exam Type Questions]


[5 marks each]
1. Write down the main functions of network layer. 5
2. Explain the functions of repeater, bridge and gateways. 5
3. What is IP datagram? Write all the fields of IPv4 datagram. 1+4
4. Write four advantages of IPv6 over IPv4. 5
5. Briefly discuss IPv6 datagram format. 5
6. Explain the significance of Network Address Translation (NAT) in networking. 5
7. Compare between IPv4 options and IPv6 extension headers.5
8. Suppose a computer sends a packet at the network layer to another computer somewhere in the
internet. The logical destination address of the packet is corrupted. What happens to the packet? How
can the source computer be informed of the situation? (5)
9. Suppose an organization is given the block 17.12.14.0/26, which contains 64 (=26) addresses. The
organization has three offices and needs to divide the addresses into three sub-blocks of 32, 16, and 16
addresses. Design the sub-networks. (5)
10. What is routing? Why is it needed? Define non-adaptive and adaptive routing algorithm.(1+1)+3
11. a) What are the problems of providing redundant path in a bridged network?
b) How does a transport bridge provide solution to those problems? 2 + 3
12. What do you mean by the term ‗subnet masking‘? Explain with an example, how that can be
achieved. (5)
13. Explain link-state routing algorithm. Compare it with flooding.3 + 2
14. What do you mean by ‗subnet masking‘? Explain with an example, how that can be achieved. 3+2
15. Write the differences between virtual circuit approach and datagram approach. (5)
16. What are routing tables? Where are they located? Explain the utility of these tables in routing packets
from source to destination.(1+1)+3
17. Explain path vector routing with an example. (5)
18. What is IP address? Compare classful address and classless address.(5)

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[15 marks each]
19. What is IP address? Describe different classes of IP address. Why IP address is unique and universal?
Explain how CIDR is improving the IP address utilization? Explain the usefulness of subnet mask.
Draw the header format of IPv4 packet. Explain the utility of header length field. 1+2+1+2+2+5+2
20. a) Differentiate static routing with dynamic routing. Explain various fields of a typical routing table.
b) Explain link state routing principle. What is flooding?
c) Explain count to infinity problem. (2+3)+(3+2)+5
21. a) What is the difference between classful addressing and classless addressing in IPv4?
b)An ISP has a block of 1024 addresses. It needs to divide the addresses among 1024 customers.
Does it need sub netting? Explain your answer.
c) Calculate the HLEN field (in IPv4) value if the total length is 1200 bytes; 116 of which is data
from the upper layer.
d) Write the advantages of ICMP over the IPv4. 3+3+5+4
22. a) Briefly describe IPv4 header fields.
b) What do you mean by unicasting,multicasting and broadcasting?
c) What are the differences between Distance Vector Routing and Link State Routing? 6+4+5
23. a) What is IP address? Describe different classes of IP address.
b) Explain the significance of the ARP and ICMP in networking.
c) Differentiate between sub-netting and super-netting.
d) Suppose an organization is given the block 190.100.0.0/16 (65,536 addresses). The organization
needs to divide the addresses into three groups of customers —
st
i. 1 group has 64 customers; each needs 256 addresses.
ii.2nd group has 128 customers; each needs 128 addresses.
iii.3rd group has 128 customers; each needs 64 addresses.
Design the sub-blocks and find out how many addresses are still available. 4 + 3 + 2 + 6
24. a) What do you mean by routing? What is the difference between static and dynamic routing?
b) Describe the distance vector routing algorithm. Discuss the count-to-infinity problem in distance
vector routing algorithm and provide a solution mechanism for it.
c) Compare between IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers.2 + (5+4) + 4
25. Write short notes on the following (any three): 3x5
a. ARP
b. RARP
c. BOOTP
d. DHCP
e. ICMP
f. IGMP
23. DiscussIPv6 address structure in brief. Describe link state routing with example. Explain the necessity
of hierarchical routing.4 + 8 + 3
24. Distance vector routing suffers from count-to-infinity problem; BGP uses distance vector routing
principle but not suffers from count-to-infinity problem. Why? Describe the OSPF routing algorithm
along with the utility of ―Hello‖ and ―Link state update‖ message. Discuss about the different types
of OSPF links. 5+6+4
25. What is routing? Why is it needed? Define non-adaptive and adaptive routing algorithm. Explain
shortest path routing algorithm. Compare it with flooding. 2+2+4+5+2

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[Part – C]
1. Mention the application of each class present in classful addressing (unicast, multicast, broadcast, or
reserved). Explain the differences between classful addressing and classless addressing in IPv4 with
regard to working principle.
2. An organization is granted a block 130.56.0.0/16. The administrator has created 1024 subnets.
a. Find the number of addresses in each subnet.
b. Find the subnet prefix.
c. Find the first and the last address in the first subnet.
d. Find the first and the last address in the last subnet.
3. An ISP is granted a block of addresses starting with120.60.4.0/22. The ISP wants to distribute these
blocks to 100 organizations with each organization receiving just eight addresses. Design the sub-
blocks and give the slash notation for each sub-block. Find out how many addresses are still available
after these allocations.
4. In a block of addresses, we know the IP address of one host is 25.34.12.56/16. Calculate the first
address (network address) and the last address (limited broadcast address)inthis block.

5. Combine the following three blocks of addresses into a single block:


a. 16.27.24.0/26 b. 16.27.24.64/26 c. 16.27.24.128/25
6. A large organization with a large block address (12.44.184.0/21) is split into one medium-size
company using the block address (12.44.184.0/22) and two small organizations. If the first small
company uses the block (12.44.188.0/23), find out the remaining block that can be used by the second
small company.

Module – V: Transport Layer


Part – A [Multiple Choice Type Questions]
1. TCP requires ..................... delivery.
a) connection oriented b) reliable c) both a and b d)connectionless
2. The address required to uniquely identify a running application program is –
a) logical address b) physical address c) socket address d) network address
3. Connection establishment in TCP involves a ............... handshake.
a) three-way b) two-way c) one-way d) none of these.
4. UDP is –
a) connection-oriented b) connectionlessc) both a and b d) none of these.
5. UDP and TCP are both layer protocols.
a. Physical
b. Data link
c. Network
d. Transport

6. UDP needs the address to deliver the user datagram to the correct application program.
a. Port

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b. Application
c. Internet
d. Physical

7. Which is a legal port address?


a. 0
b. 513
c. 65,535
d. All the above

8. Which of the following does UDP guarantee?


a. Sequence numbers on each user datagram
b. Acknowledgments to the sender
c. Flow control
d. None of the above

9. Which of the following is not part of the UDP user datagram header?
a. Length of header
b. Source port address
c. Checksum
d. Destination port address

10. A host can be identified by while a program running on the host can be identified by .
a. An IP address; a port number
b. A port number; an IP address
c. An IP address; a host address
d. An IP address; a well-known port

11. The field is used to order packets of a message.


a. Urgent pointer
b. Checksum
c. Sequence number
d. Acknowledgment number

12. An ACK number of 1000 always means that .


a. 999 bytes has been successfully received
b. 1000 bytes has been successfully received
c. 1001 bytes has been successfully received
d. None of the above

13. The timer prevents a long idle connection between two TCPs.
a. Retransmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited

14. The timer is needed to handle the zero window-size advertisement.


a. Retransmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited

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15. Karn‘s algorithm is used in calculations by the timer.
a. Retransmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited

16. The timer is used in the termination phase.


a. Retransmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited

17. The timer keeps track of the time between the sending of a segment and the receipt of an
acknowledgment.
a. Retransmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited

18. A special segment called a probe is sent by a sending TCP when the _ timer goes off.
a. Transmission
b. Persistence
c. Keep-alive
d. Time-waited

Part – B [WBUT Exam Type Questions]


[5 marks each]
1. What is the utility of PSH and RST flag of TCP header? Explain how ―window‖ field of the TCP
header performs the end to end flow control.2 + 3
2. What are the responsibilities of transport layer? Explain the utility ofUDP datagram. 3 + 2
3. Describe the token bucket algorithm in brief with necessary diagram.5
4. Explain the working of leaky bucket algorithm. Give argument why the leaky bucket should allow just
one packet pet tick independent of how large the packet is.4 + 1
5. ―TCP and UDP‖- which one is better? Justify your answer.5
6.Define congestion. What is the difference between congestion control and flow control? 2+3
7.Describe the three-way handshaking procedure in TCP. 5
8.Describe TCP segment format in brief. 5
9. Explain the various Quality of Service (QoS) parameters. Mention the techniques to improve it. 3+2
10. What advantages does TCP over UDP? What are the features for which may TCP be a reliable
protocol? 2+3

[15 marks each]

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11. What is port address and socket address? Among TCP and UDP, which one is more reliable and why?
Why we use unreliable one? Draw the header format of TCP and explain different fields.
3+4+2+7
12. Describe the method of congestion control in datagram networks. How does it differ from the method
of congestion control in virtual circuit networks? 9+6

[Part – C]
1. Compare between the TCP header and the UDP header. List the fields in the TCP header that are
missing from UDP header. Give the reason for their absence.
2. Are there any circumstances when connection-oriented service will (or at least should) deliver packets
out of order? Explain.

Module – VI: Application Layer


Part – A [Multiple Choice Type Questions]
1. Which protocol in the application layer provides name services?
a) SMTP b) DNS c) HTTP d) SNMP
2. Which of the following is an application layer service?
a) Remote login b) File transfer and access c) Mail service d) All of these
3. Which of the following is an interpreter?
a) HTTP b) HTML c) CGI d) FTP
4. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for file transfer with minimal capability and minimal
overhead?
a) RARP b) FTP c) TFTP d) TELNET
5. Which of the following is true?
a) FTP allows systems with different directory structures to transfer file.
b) FTP allows systems using ASCII and a system using EBCDIC to transfer file.
c) FTP allows a PC and SUN workstation to transfer files.
d) All of these are true.

Part – B [WBUT Exam Type Questions]


[5 marks each]
1. Discuss about the different types of file transfer protocols in application layer. Why two port numbers
are used by the FTP protocol?3 + 2
2. What is SMTP?What do you mean by ‗mail transfer agent‘, ‗mail delivery agent‘, and ‗mail user
agent‘?2 + 3
3. Why do we need a DNS system? When we can directly use an IP address? What is the purpose of the
inverse domain? 3+1+1
[15 marks each]
4. a) What do you mean by ‗web page‘?
b) Discuss about the different types of web pages with example.

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c) Compare between HTTP GET and HTTP POST methods.
d) Explain the significance of CGI. 2+6+4+3

5. a) What do you mean by ‗terminal network‘? How are options negotiated in TELNET?How are
control and data characters distinguished in NVT?
b) Describe the working principle of SNMP in brief. (2+4+3) + 6

9. Write short notes on the following (any three): 3x5


a) HTTP and WWW
b) E-mail and SMTP
c) FTP and TFTP
d) TELNET
e) DNS
f) SNMP
[Part – C]
1. How is HTTP similar to SMTP?
2. Why do we need POP3or IMAP for electronic mail?

Module – VII: Modern Topics


Part – A [Multiple Choice Type Questions]
1. If A wants to send an encrypted message to B, the plaintext is encrypted with the public key of
a) A b) B c) the network d) Either A or B
2. If A wants to send a message to B for authentication, it is encrypted with private key of
a) A b) B c) the network d) Either A or B
3. DES encrypts blocks of bits.
a) 32 b) 56 c) 64 d) 128
4. The four primary security principles related to a message are –
(a) confidentiality, authentication, integrity and non-repudiation
(b) confidentiality, access control, non-repudiation and integrity
(c) authentication, authorization, non-repudiation and availability
(d) availability, access control, authorization and authentication
5. A is used to verify the integrity of a message.
a) message digest b) decryption algorithm c) digital envelope d) encryption algorithm
6. Firewall is a specialized form of a
a) bridge b) disk c) printer d) router
7. works on block cipher mode.
a) CFB b) OFB c) ECB d) CBC

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Part – B [WBUT Exam Type Questions]
[5 marks each]
1. Describe RSA algorithm in brief.(5)
2. What do you understand by message security? Explain the terms: ‗User Authentication‘,‘ Key
Management‘ and ‗Security Protocols‘. 3+2
3. Explain CFB and OFB modes of operation. (5)
4. Describe one round of DES in brief. (5)
5. What do you mean by ‗message digest‘? What are the key requirements of message digest?2 + 3
6. What is access control? How is it different from availability? (5)
7. What is the difference between ‗stream cipher‘ and ‗block cipher‘? What are the roles of the secret,
public and private key? 2+3

[15 marks each]


8. What do you understand by network security? Explain different types of attacks. What is
cryptography? What are the different kinds of cryptography? What is the relation between
cryptography and network security? Describe one symmetric key cryptography method in brief.
2+4+2+2+5
9. What is asymmetric key cryptography? Explain the Diffie-Hellman key exchange method. Describe
one asymmetric key cryptography method. What do you mean by authentication? What is digital
signature? 2+4+5+1+3
10. a) What are the differences between symmetric key cryptography and asymmetric key cryptography?
b) Explain the terms 'encryption' and 'decryption' in the context of cryptography.
c) Briefly discuss any key exchange algorithm learnt by you.
d) Describe IPSec in brief. 4+2+4+5
11. Explain substitution, transposition cipher and product cipher. What is the difference between
symmetric key encryption and asymmetric key encryption? What are the four basic principles related
to the security of a particular message? Explain each principle with proper example. 6+4+5
12. Write short notes on the following (any three): 3x5
a) Digital Signature
b) ISDN
c) Firewall
d) FDDI
e) Bluetooth
f) ATM
g) Cable Modem
h) DSL and ADSL
i) VPN
Part – C
1. Why message digest is used in cryptography?
2. ―The packet filter controls the flow between internal and potentially hostile network.‖ – Justify this
statement.

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PART-D[INTERVIEW QUESTIONS]
1) What is the network?

2) What do you mean by network topology?

3) What are the advantages of Distributed Processing?

4) What is the criteria to check the network reliability?

5) Which are the different factors that affect the security of a network?

6) Which are the different factors that affect the reliability of a network?

7) Which are the different factors that affect the performance of a network?

8) What makes a network effective and efficient?

9) What is bandwidth?

10) What is a node and link?

11) What is a gateway? Is there any difference between a gateway and router?

12) What is DNS?

13) What is DNS forwarder?

14) What is NIC?

15) What is the meaning of 10Base-T?

16) What is NOS in computer networking?

17) What are the different types of networks?

18) What is POP3?

19) What do you understand by MAC address?

20) What is IP address?

21) What is private IP address?

22) What is public IP address?

23) What is APIPA?

24) What is the full form of ADS?

25) What is RAID?

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26) What is anonymous FTP?

27) What is protocol?

28) What are the main elements of a protocol?

29 What is the Domain Name System?

30) What is link?

31) How many layers are in OSI reference model?

32) What is the usage of OSI physical layer?

33) Explain the functionality of OSI session layer?

34) What is the maximum length allowed for a UTP cable?

35) What is RIP?

36) What do you understand by TCP/IP?

37) What is netstat?

38) What do you understand by ping command?

39) What is Sneakernet?

40) Explain the peer-peer process.

41) What is a congested switch?

42) What is multiplexing in networking?

43) What are the advantages of address sharing?

44) What is RSA Algorithm?

45) How many layers are in TCP/IP?

46) What is the difference between TCP/IP model and the OSI model?

47) What is the difference between domain and workgroup?

Signature of Faculty Member(s):


-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Dr. Kanishka Majumder, Prof. Pinakpani Mukherjee & Prof. R. Neogi

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