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f4 Endterm 1 Exams Sgs

The document outlines the F4 Endterm 1 Examinations for KCSE candidates, detailing the subjects tested and the purpose of the exams, which is to build confidence and identify strengths and weaknesses. It includes specific instructions for candidates and a series of biology exam questions covering various topics. Additionally, it provides contact information for marking schemes and consultancy services.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

6 views227 pages

f4 Endterm 1 Exams Sgs

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F4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS

SMART-GRADE SERIES
ALL SUBJECTS
Nation-wide Endterm 1 exams for the current KCSE Candidates.The purpose
of this practice Examinations is to build confidence, develop test-taking
strategies, and identify their strengths and weaknesses.

SUBJECTS TESTED;
Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, Geography, History,
Business Studies, Agriculture, Home-science,Islamic Religious Education & Computer
Studies.

SMARTGRADE SERIES

For Marking Schemes

Mr Isaboke 0746-222-000 /0742-999-000

MWALIMU CONSULTANCY
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

BIOLOGY
231/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.(K.C.S.E)

BIOLOGY
231/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, admission number, date, and signature and school name in the spaces
provided.
b) Answer all the questions.
c) Answers must be written in spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION MAXIMUM SCORE STUDENTS SCORE

1-24 80
Answer all the questions
1.a) Define the term specimen. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
b) Give two significances of collecting specimens in biology. (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

2. Give three reasons why Drosophila melanogaster is considered suitable for use in genetic
experiments. (3mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

3. List two factors you would consider before selecting a microscope for use in a biological study.
(2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

4. A group of form two students placed a fresh leaf in warm water. They observed that air bubbles
formed on the surface of the leaf.
a) What biological process were they investigating? (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
b) Name the structures from which the air bubbles were coming from. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
c) Explain the distribution of the structures named in (b) above on the leaf surfaces of an aquatic plant.
(2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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5. Differentiate between hydrolysis and condensation. (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

6. (a) Which sets of teeth would be used in chewing sugarcane for maximum extraction of sap?(2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(b) What is the advantage of heterodont dentition over homodont dentition? (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(b) During digestion name the enzyme that acts on the sugarcane sap and give the final products.
(2mks)
Enzyme
........................................................................................................................

Final products
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

7. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.
a) The part labelled X turned blue black after iodine solution was applied on the cut cross section of
the above specimen
i) Name part X (1mks)
........................................................................................................................

ii) Give a reason for your answer. (1mks)

b) State two phenomenons of stomata which reduce the rate of transpiration. (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

8. a) What is respiratory quotient? (1mks)

b) Explain why it is difficult to measure respiratory quotient in plants. (2mks)

9. Study and complete the table below. (3mks)

Character Monocot Dicot

a) Number of stamens

b) Arrangement of vascular
bundle in stem

c) Type of root

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10. The diagram below shows blood circulation in a mammalian tissue.

a) Give the name of the above section of the blood circulation system. (1mks)
........................................................................................................................
b) Explain two the adaptation of the above section to its function. (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
c) What is the name of blood vessel Q. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................

11. Differentiate between dioecious and monoecious plants. (2mks)

12.a) Why does endosperm weight of a germinating seed decrease as the weight of the shoot
increases. (l mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
b) State three importance of the pupa stage of metamorphosis to insects. (lmks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
13. The diagrams below show a pair of homologous chromosomes. Study them and answer the
questions that follow.

i) State the phenomenon shown above. (lmk)

........................................................................................................................
ii. What is the genetic significance of the phenomenon above? (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
iii. Name the type of mutation caused by the above phenomenon. (2mks)
........................................................................................................................

14. In an experiment to determine the population of Tilapia fish in a school fish pond, students of
Canada school decided to use capture-recapture method.
a) Name three vital tools the students would need for the exercise. (3mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

b) State two factors that might affect the accuracy of their results. (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

15. The table below show description of sizes of glomeruli and renal tubules of two animals, which
are in different environments.
Animal Q Animal W
Glomeruli Few Many
Renal tubules Long Short

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a) Name the likely environment in which each animal lives. (2mks)
Q–
....................................................................................................................................................................
W-
....................................................................................................................................................................

b) Suggest the main nitrogenous waste produced by animal W. (lmk)

........................................................................................................................

c) What is the importance of the renal tubules being long? (lmk)

16. What is the role of the following hormones in human reproduction?

i) Follicle stimulating hormone in male (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
ii) Luteinizing hormone during menstrual cycle. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

17. Below is representation of an experiment that was carried out on a tree in Kayombe forest.
a) Which two tissues are removed in a ring bark experiment? (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

b) Removal of the tissues above leads to some effects to the plant. Name these 2 effects. (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

c) State and explain the observation that would be made in the plant above after some time. (3mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

18. A section of nucleic strand contains the following sequence.

A — C — G — A — G — A — T — A— C
a) i) Write the complimentary DNA stand. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
ii) Write the mRNA strand of the strand in (a) above. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
b) Name the site for protein synthesis in a cell. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
c) State one disorder caused by non-disjunction mutation. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................

19. i) State the importance of rings of chitin in the tracheal system of insects. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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ii) Explain the significance of maintaining a steep concentration gradient in the respiratory surfaces of
animals. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

iii) Explain why a bony fish dies shortly after being removed from water. (3mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

20. Explain why Lamark’s theory of evolution is not accepted by modern scientist. (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

21. Name the branch of biology that deals with;

a) Relationship between antelopes and gazelles in their environment. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
b) Study of Ebola virus. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
c) Explain what would happen if a given of living things lose their ability to reproduce. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

22. Explain the following when testing a leaf for starch.

i) Boiling the leaf in hot water. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
ii) Destarching (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
iii) Boiling the leaf in methylated spirit. (lmk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

23. Explain why osmosis is a special type of diffusion. (lmk)

24. Explain three protective functions of the blood. (3mks)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE!

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

BIOLOGY
231/2
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, admission number, school and sign in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
3. This paper contains two sections A and B. Answer ALL questions in section A. In section B,
answer question 6 (Compulsory) and EITHER question 7 or 8.
4. Note that all questions in section A carry equal marks.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Section Question Maximum score Candidates score
A 1 8
2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8
B 6 20
7 20
8 20
Total score 80
SECTION A: 40MKS: ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS
1. A cross between red flowered plant and white flowered plant produced plants with pink flowers.
Using letter R to represent the gene for red color and W to represent white color;
a. Work out a cross between F1 plants (4mks)

b. Give the;
i. Phenotypic ratio of F2 plants (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
ii. Genotypic ratio of F2 plants (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
c. Name a characteristic in humans which is controlled by multiple alleles. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
d. Which is the biological term used to refer to the condition exhibited by F1 plants. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................

2. The photograph below shows red blood cells that have been put in different solutions. Examine
them and answer the questions that follow.

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a) i)Identify the type of solution in which F was placed. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................

ii) State the process which the red blood cells underwent in illustration G. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................

b) Account for the appearance the red blood cells underwent in illustration E. (3mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

c) Explain what would happen if plant cells are placed in the solution in which the cells in G were
immersed. (3mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

3. The diagram below shows blood circulation in a mammalian tissue.

a. Name the parts labelled P and Q. (2mks)

P ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
Q…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b. Name the substances that are:
i. Required for respiration that move out of capillaries. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................

ii. Removed from tissue cells as a result of respiration. (1mk)

........................................................................................................................

c. Explain how substances move from the blood capillaries into the tissue cells. (3mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

d. Name one blood component that is not found in the part labeled P. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................

4. a. The diagram below represents a member of kingdom Animalia.

i. Name the phylum to which the organism belong. (1mk)

........................................................................................................................

ii. Using observable features in the diagram, give three reasons for the answer in 4a (i) above.(3mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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b. To estimate the population size of crabs in a certain lagoon, traps were laid at random. 400 crabs
were caught, marked and released back into the lagoon on the first day. Four days later, traps were
laid again at random. Out of the 374 crabs caught the second time, 80 were found to have been
marked.
i. Calculate the population size of the crabs in the lagoon. (3mks)

iii. What is the name given to this method of estimating the population size? (1mk)
........................................................................................................................

5. An experiment was set up as show below.

(a) A student blew air in and out through point X. Using arrows indicate how air gets in and out of the
set up. (2mks)
(b) [i] In which of the tube would lime water form white precipitate first. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
ii] Give a reason. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(c)What is the effect of lactic acid in the thigh muscle of an athlete after a short fast race? (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(d) Identify the type of muscle in human being where the formation and effect of lactic acid is not felt.
(1mk)
........................................................................................................................
(e) What is the biological significance of boiling milk. [1mk]
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

SECTION B: 40 Mks: Answer question 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8.

6. An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of temperature on the rate of reaction
catalyzed by an enzyme. The results are shown in the table below.
Temperature 0c Rate of reaction in mg of
product per unit time
5 0.2
10 0.5
15 0.8
20 1.1
25 1.5
30 2.1
35 3.0
40 3.7
45 3.4
50 2.8
55 2.1
60 1.1

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(a) On the grid provided draw a graph of rate of reaction against temperature. (6marks)
(b) When was the rate of reaction 2.6 mg of product per unit time? (2 mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(c) Account for the shape of the graph between
(i) 50 C and 400 C (2 mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(ii) 450 C and 600C (3 mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(d) Other than temperature name two ways in which the rate of reaction between 50C and 400C could
be increased. (2 mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(e) (i) Name one digestive enzymes in the human body which works best in acidic condition(1 mk)
........................................................................................................................
(ii) How is the acidic condition for the enzyme named in (e) (i) above attained? (2 mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(f) The acidic conditions in (e) (ii) above is later neutralized
(i) Where does the neutralization take place? (1 mk)
........................................................................................................................
(ii) Name the substance responsible for neutralization (1 mk)
........................................................................................................................

7. Describe:
a. How the structure of mammalian heart is adapted to its function. (15mks)
b. The process of blood clotting. (5mks)

8. a) After a meal of carbohydrate, the glucose level in the blood rose to 150mg/ cm3 . Explain the
role of the liver in bringing the sugar level down back to normal. (8mks)
b) Explain six importance of plants excretory products. (12mks)

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

CONFIDENTIAL
Each candidate should have:
1. Specimen L (HALF unripe banana).
2. About 70ml Iodine Solution .
3. Visking tubing about 8cm.
4. 100ml beaker.
5. Two Threads.
6. Scalpel.
7. Pestle and mortar
8. Means of timing
9. 20mls of solution L
10. 4 test tubes in a test tube rack.
11. Benedict’s solution
12. Iodine solution
13. 1% copper sulphate
14. Sodium hydroxide (10%)
15. DCPIP
16. Source of heat/water bath
17. 50 mls beaker
18. Distilled water
19. 10mls measuring cylinder

NB Solution L contains glucose and ascorbic acid dissolved in water

NB/ Each candidate should have coloured pictures for question 1b. and 2.
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, Admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Answer ALL questions in in the spaces provided.
c) You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1 3/4 hours reading the whole paper carefully
before commencing your work.
d) Candidates should answer the questions in English

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 13

2 15

3 12

TOTAL 40

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QUESTIONS
1. a). You are provided with a specimen labelled L. Slice off about 2cm2 cube from the specimen.
Peel it, crush to obtain a paste. Carefully tie one end of the 8cm LONG transparent visking tubing
provided. Place the paste and tie the other end to ENSURE THERE IS NO LEAKAGE AT BOTH
ENDS OF THE TUBING.
Rinse the outside of the tubing with water. Immerse the tubing with its content in 100ml beaker
containing iodine solution. Leave the set up for 20 minutes.
(i) Record your observations in the table below. (4 marks)

Contents inside tubing Iodine solution Outside tubing

Before the experiment

After the experiment

(ii) What physiological process is demonstrated by this experiment ? (1 mark)

........................................................................................................................

(iii) Account for the results obtained in (a) above. (3 marks

(iv) Name any one part of the human body where a similar physiological process takes place. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
(b) The diagrams below show a type of cell division occurring in animal.

A B
X

D Y C
(i) Identify stages B and C. (2 marks)
B………………………………………………………………………………………………
C……………………………………………………………………….………………………
(ii) State the functions of the parts labeled X and Y (2marks)
X
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Y
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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2. You are provided with specimen Q, R S T and U. Study them to answer the questions below.

(a) Work the actual length of specimen T, given that the shatter resistant ruler measures Q from tip of
mouth to tip of abdomen. (2 marks)

(b) A boy immobilised specimen Q and attempted to drown and suffocate it in water by placing its
head in water. Using observable features, explain why he couldn’t succeed. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(c) Use the features in order given below and construct a dichotomous key that can be used to identify
the specimen above.
Wings, long or short hind limbs, number of legs, antenna. (8 marks)

(d) State two ways in which specimen Q is adapted to evade its predators in its ecological niche.
(2marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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(e) State two observable differences between the specimen Q and R (2marks)
Specimen Q Specimen R

3. You are provided with a solution L. Using the reagents provided, determine the food
substances in L. Fill in the table below. (12 marks)
FOOD SUBSTANCE PROCEDURE OBSERVATION CONCLUSION
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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

CHEMISTRY
233/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name, admission number, date, index number and school in the spaces provided
 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided
 All working MUST BE clearly shown where necessary
 Scientific calculators may be used
 Candidates should answer the questions in English

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 – 28 80

.
QUESTIONS
1. State and explain the change in mass that occur when the following substances are separately
heated in open crucibles.
𝟏
a) Copper metal (1 marks)
𝟐

2. (a) State Graham’s law of diffusion (1 mark)

(b) A volume of 120 cm3 of nitrogen gas diffused through a membrane in 40 seconds, how long will
240cm3 of carbon (IV) oxide defuse through the same membrane? (2 marks)

3. A reaction of Propane with chlorine gas gave a compound of formula C3H7Cl.

a) What condition is necessary for the above reaction to take place. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................

b) Draw the structural formula of the compound C3H7Cl (2 marks)

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4. Name a gas which is used together with Oxygen in welding. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................

5. Study the table below and answer the questions that follow.
(The letters are not the actual symbols of the elements)
Element B C D E F
Atomic number 18 5 3 5 20
Mass number 40 10 7 11 40

(i) Which two letters represent the same elements? Give reason. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(ii) Give the number of neutrons in an atom of element D. (Show your working) (1 mark)

6. A hydrated salt of copper has the formula CuSO4.nH2O. About 25g of the salt was heated until all
the water evaporated. If the mass of the anhydrous salt is 16.0g, find the value of n.(Cu = 64.0, S =
32.0, O = 16.0, H = 1) (3 marks)

7. The table below shows the pH values of the solutions I, II, III and IV
Solution I II III IV
pH 2 7 11 14
a) Which solution is likely to be that of calcium hydroxide? (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
b) Select the solution in which a sample of aluminum oxide is likely to dissolve. Give a reason for
your answer. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
c) Select a pair of solutions that would likely give a pH of 7 when equal volumes are reacted with
each other. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................

8. Sodium chloride has a higher melting point than hydrogen chloride, explain. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

9. Study the table below and answer the questions that follow
substance M.pt oC B.pt oC Electrical conductivity Electrical conductivity
in solid state in molten state
J 365 463 Nil Nil
K 1323 2773 Good Good
L 1046 1680 Nil Good
M 2156 2776 Nil Nil
Place J, K, L and M in the appropriate categories from the following:
i. Metallic solid ______________________________ (1 mark)
ii. Covalent network solid ________________________ (1 mark)
iii. Ionic solid __________________________________ (1 mark)
iv. Covalent molecular solid_______________________ (1 mark)
10. The diagram below shows how two gases, P and Q were collected.

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a) Name the two methods used. (2 marks)
(i)..…………………………………………(ii) …………………………………………….....

b) State properties of P and Q that enable them to be collected through the methods shown.(2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

11. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions in the table below and answer
the questions below the table
Bond Bond Energy (KJmol-1)
C-H 414
Cl-Cl 244
C-Cl 326
H-Cl 431

Calculate the enthalpy change of the following reaction

CH4 (g) + Cl2 (g) U.V. light CH3Cl(g)+HCl (g) (3 marks )

12. Study the diagram below used to investigate the property of steam on aluminium
Aluminium
powder

Steam
(a) Explain why no gas was collected in the set up above. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(b) Explain why the reaction between aluminium and steam stops after a short time. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

13. A pupil analyzed a commercial vinegar solution by titration and found that 24.5cm3 of 0.09 M
sodium hydroxide solution was required for titration of 1cm3 of vinegar. Calculate the molarity of
ethanoic acid CH3COOH in vinegar. (3 marks)

14. The diagram below shows a ‘jiko’ when in use. Study it and answer the questions that follow

Region B

Burning charcoal

Region A
Air

Ash

(a) Identify the gas formed at region B (1 mark)

........................................................................................................................
(b) Using an equation, explain what happens at region A (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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15. Sodium chloride is contaminated with copper (II) oxide. Explain how pure sodium chloride can be
obtained from the mixture. (3 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

16. The table below gives three experiments on the reaction of excess sulphuric (VI) acid and 0.5g of
zinc done under different conditions. In each the volume of gas was recorded at different time
intervals.
Experiment Form of zinc Sulphuric (VI) acid solution

I Powder 0.8M
II Powder 1.0M
III Granules 0.8M

On the axis below, draw and label the three curves that could be obtained from such results.
(3 marks)
17. The set-up of apparatus below used to prepare sulphur (VI) oxide:
Dry gas N

Catalyst X
Drying agent Y
Dry gas M

Ice Solid SO3

(i) Name Gas N………………………… and Gas M………………………….. (1 mark)

(ii) Catalyst X …………………………………………………………………... (1 mark)
(iii) Why is it necessary to use drying agent Y? (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

18. State and explain the observation made when chlorine gas is bubbled into potassium iodide
solution. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

19. The diagram below shows an arrangement of electrons in Aluminium chloride dimer.

(i) Write down the structural formula of the above molecule. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(ii) On the diagram, indicate using an arrow the dative bond. (1 mark)

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20. When Magnesium metal is burnt in air, it reacts with both oxygen and nitrogen gases giving a
white solid with black specs. Write two equations for the reactions that take place. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

21. Below is a representation of an electrochemical cell.

Pb(s)|Pb2+(aq)||Ag+(aq)|Ag(s)

a) What does || represent? (1 mark)

........................................................................................................................
b) Given the following:
Eᶿ (volts)
Pb2+(aq) + 2e- Pb(s) -0.13

Ag+(aq) + e- Ag(s) +0.80

Calculate the E.M.F of the electrochemical cell (2 marks)

22. When hot concentrated nitric (V) acid is added to sulphur, a red – brown gas and a colourless
liquid are formed.
(i) Write an equation for the reaction. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(ii) Identify the oxidizing agent in the reaction above. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
(iii) State one environmental hazard of the nitrogen compounds. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
23. Draw the dot (.) and cross (x) structure of:
a) Carbon (II) oxide - CO (2 marks)

b) Ammonium ion - NH4+ (2 marks)

24. Using sodium hydroxide solution, describe a chemical test that can be used to distinguish between
copper (II) ions and iron (II) ions. (3 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

25. State and explain what would be observed if concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid is added to:
(a) Sugar crystals (1 ½ marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(b) Copper (II) sulphate crystals (1 ½ marks)

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26. When 100 cm3 of 0.5 M sulphuric acid solution, H2SO4, react with 100 cm3 of 1 M sodium
hydroxide solution, NaOH, the temperature rises by 6.85 Kelvins. Calculate the molar heat of
neutralization described by the equation: (3 marks)
H2SO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l)

27. Filtration is carried out in the apparatus shown

𝟏
a) Name X ……………………………………………………………………… ( mark)
𝟐
𝟏
b) State one property that makes it possible to separate mixtures using filtration. ( mark)
𝟐

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
28. Calculate the oxidation numbers of Sulphur in the following species: (3 marks)
a) SO32-

b) SO3

c) S2O32-
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

CHEMISTRY
233/2
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided
d) Silent electronic calculators may be used.
e) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 13
2 12
3 12
4 10
5 11
6 10
7 12
Total Score 80

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QUESTIONS
1. The grid below shows part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that follow. The
letters are not the actual symbols of the elements.

A B C D
E F
G
H

(a) Give the name of the family to which element F belongs. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
(b) Identify an element which forms a stable divalent anion (1mk)
........................................................................................................................

(c) Give the formula of:

(i) The compound formed between A and B (½mk)

(ii) The sulphate of H (½mk)

(d) Using dot(.) and cross(x) diagram, show the bonding in the compound formed between E and C.
(2mks)

(e) Compare the atomic radii of elements C and D. Explain. (2mks)

(f) Select the element that has the lowest ionization energy. Explain. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
(g) 0.081g of element A reacts with 20cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid. Calculate the molarity of the
hydrochloric acid. (R.A.M = 27) (3mks)

(h) The graph below shows the trend of the melting points and the boiling points of the family to
which element G belongs. Explain the trend in the melting points. (2mks)

2. (a) (i) What is a fuel? (1 mk)

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(b) (i) Define molar enthalpy of combustion. (1 mk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(ii) Use the information provided by the thermochemical equations below to calculate the
molar enthalpy of combustion of ethyne. (3 mks)
C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g) ∆H= -394 kJ mol-1
H2(g) + ½O2(g) H2O(g) ∆H= -286 kJ mol-1
2C(s) + H2(g) C2H2(g) ∆H= +226 kJ mol-1

(c) Study the data given below and answer the questions that follow.
Substance/ion Enthalpy change
CaCl2(s) Lattice energy = -2237 kJ mol-1
Ca2+(g) Hydration energy = -1650 kJ mol-1
Cl-(g) Hydration energy = -364 kJ mol-1
(i) Determine the molar enthalpy of solution of calcium chloride in water. (2 mks)

(ii) Draw an energy level diagram for the dissolution of calcium chloride in water. (3 mks)
3. (a) The diagram below shows the preparation of an oxide of nitrogen. Study the diagram and
answer the questions that follow.
Flask M

Mixture of
ammonium
Heat
sulphate and Gas jar
solid D
Oxide of nitrogen
(Gas L)

(i) Name the solid D. (1mk)

(ii) Write the equation for the reaction in the flask M (1mk)

(iii) Burning magnesium ribbon was lowered into the gas jar containing gas L. State and explain
the observations made. (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(iv) Write the two equations for the reactions taking place in (iii) above. (2mks)
I.

II.

(v) A drop of water was added to the product formed in (iii) above. A colourless gas K with a
choking smell was produced. Write the chemical equation for the production of gas K (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(b) (i) Give two uses for nitric (V) acid. (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(ii) A factory uses nitric (V) acid and ammonia gas as the only reactants for the preparation of
ammonium nitrate. If the daily production of the ammonium nitrate is 4800kg, calculate the mass
of ammonia gas used daily in kg. (N=14.0, O = 16.0 H= 1.0) (3 mks)

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4. A group of form four students of Cockelbet Secondary School carried out an experiment to
determine the solubility of potassium chlorate. The table below shows the results obtained.
Total volume of water added(cm3) 10.0 20.0 30.0 40.0 50.0
Mass of KClO3(g) 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0 5.0
Temperature at which crystals appear(0C) 80.0 65.0 55.0 45.0 30.0
Solubility of KClO3(g/100gH2O)
(a) Complete the table to show the solubility of KClO3 at different temperatures. (3mks)
(b) Plot a graph of mass of KClO3 per 100g water against temperature at which crystals form. (3mks)
(c) From the graph, determine ;
(i) The solubility of KClO3 at 40oC. (1mk)

(ii) The temperature at which the solubility of KClO3 is 35g/100g water. (1mk)

(d) Explain the shape of the graph. (1mk)

5. (a) Use the standard reduction potentials for elements P, Q, R, S and T given below to answer the
questions that follow. (The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the elements).
Eθ (Volts)
P2+ (aq) + 2e P (s) - 2.90
Q2+(aq) + 2e Q (s) -2.36
R+ (aq) + e ½R2 (g) 0.00
S2+ (aq) + 2e S (s) + 0.33
½ T2 (g) + e T- (aq) +2.86
(i) Which element is likely to be hydrogen? Give a reason for your answer. (1½mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(ii) What is the Eθ value of the strongest reducing agent? (1mk)

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(iv) In the space provided below draw a labeled diagram of the electrochemical cell that would be
obtained when half-cells of elements Q and S are combined. (3mks)

(b) An iron spoon is placed in an electrochemical cell with AuCl3 solution to be gold plated. How long
must the spoon be in the electrolytic cell if the spoon is to be plated with 0.293 g of Au and the
current of the cell is 1.03A. ( RAM of Au =197; 1F = 96,485 C). (3mks)

6 The diagram below represents a blast furnace used for the extraction of iron.
Charge
mixture

L Tuyere
s

A
B
(a) Name three substances contained in the charge mixture. (1½mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(b) Name the substances labeled A and B. (2mks)

A…………………………………………………………………………………………….
B…………………………………………………………………………………………….

(c) Arrange regions J, K and L in order of decreasing temperature. (1mk)

(d) Write an equation for the reaction that occurs in region L. (1mk)

(e) What is the function of the tuyeres? (1mk)

(f) Distinguish between cast iron and wrought iron. (1mk)

(g) Write an equation for the reaction between heated iron and chlorine. (1mk)

(h) Iron-60 is a radioisotope of iron (half-life 2.6 x 106 years). Its ultimate decay product is nickel-60.
Write a nuclear equation for this process.
(Atomic numbers: Fe= 26, Ni= 28) (1mk)

(i) State one use of stainless steel. (½mks)

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7. (a) Draw and name all the isomers of C4H6 (2mks)

(b) The following monomers react to form a polymer:

Draw and name the structure of the polymer (2mks)

(c) Chlorofluorocarbons have a wide range of uses. However they have been linked to depletion of
ozone.
(i) Explain the problem caused by depletion of ozone layer. (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(ii) Give one other environmental problem caused by chlorofluorocarbons. (1mk)

(d) Study the flow chart below and use it to answer the questions that follow.
Conc. H3PO4
Propanol Gas A
Heat
Process W

NaOH(aq) NaOH(s)
Propanoic acid B C
Heat
(i) Name:
I: Process W (½mk)

II: Substances A, B and C (1½mks)

A:
B:
C:
(ii) Write an equation for the combustion of substance C (1mk)

(iii) Give one use of gas A (1mk)

(e) Explain how a sample of propan-1-ol could be distinguished from a sample of propanoic acid by
means of a chemical reaction (2mks)

THIS IS THE LAST PAGE PRINTED.

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
CHEMISTRY
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
CONFIDENTIAL REPORT
INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS
In addition to the fittings and apparatus found in a chemistry laboratory, each candidate will require
the following:
A.
1. One burette 0 – 50 ml 11. About 60cm3 of solution A
2. One pipette 25.0 ml and a pipette filler 12. About 100cm3 of solution B
3. Two clean and dry conical flasks (250ml) 13. About 100cm3 of solution C
4. Six clean and dry test-tubes 14. 100ml glass beaker
5. pH chart (Full range) 15. White piece of plain paper marked with a
6. One boiling tube cross on it with a blue print
7. About 500cm3 of distilled water supplied in a 16. Thermometer
wash bottle 17. Stop watch/stop clock
8. One 250ml volumetric flask supplied with a 18. One sticker / label
stopper. 19. About 0.5 of solid sodium carbonate
9. One 10ml measuring cylinder 20. About 2g of solid R
10. One 50ml measuring cylinder 21. About 0.5g of solid V

B Access to:
1. Universal indicator solution (full range)
2. Phenolphthalein indicator
3. Bunsen burner, tripod stand and wire gauze
4. 2.0M sodium hydroxide solution supplied with a dropper
5. Acidified potassium manganate (VII) supplied with a dropper
6. 0.5M aqueous lead (II) nitrate solution supplied with a dropper
7. 2.0M ammonia solution supplied with a dropper.
8. 2.0M barium chloride solution
9. 2.0M lead nitrate solution
10. Bromine water
11. Potassium iodide solution
Note:
1. Solid R is a mixture of lead (II) carbonate and sodium sulphite in the ratio of 1:1
2. Solid V is oxalic acid
3. Solution A is prepared by dissolving 172cm3 of Conc. Hydrochloric Acid (Density 1.18g/cm3) in
400cm3 of distilled water and diluting with distilled water to make one litre solution.
4. Solution B is prepared by dissolving 15.8g of sodium thiosulphate (Na 2S2O3) in 600cm3 of
distilled water and diluting with distilled water to make one litre solution.
5. Solution C is prepared by dissolving 4g of sodium hydroxide pellets in 600cm3 of distilled and
diluting with distilled water to one litre.
6. Acidified potassium manganate (VII) is prepared by dissolving 3.0g of potassium manganate
(VII) in 400cm3 of 2.0M H2SO4 and diluting with distilled water to one litre.
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

CHEMISTRY
233/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name and Index number in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided on the question paper
(d) You are NOT allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2 ¼ hours
allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you to read the question paper and make sure you
have all the apparatus and chemicals that you may need.
(e) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary
(f) Mathematical tables and silent non-programmed electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
1 22
2 11
3 07
Total Score 40

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1. You are provided with:
i) Solution A which is 2.0M hydrochloric Acid (HCl)
ii) Solution B, which is 0.1 M sodium thiosulphate (Na2S2O3)
iii) Solution C which is alkali of 0.1 M concentration

You are required to:

i) Find the effect of change of temperature on the rate of reaction between sodium thiosulphate,
solution B, and hydrochloric Acid, solution A.
ii) Prepare a dilute solution of hydrochloric acid, solution A
iii) Write an ionic equation for the reaction between hydrochloric acid, solution A, and the alkali
solution C.

Procedure I
Using a measuring cylinder measure 10 cm3 of solution B into a clean 100cm3 glass beaker. Place it
together with its contents on a white piece of paper marked with a cross (X) on it with bold blue
print. Measure the temperature of the solution and record it as shown in the table below.
Using a clean measuring cylinder, measure 5cm3 of solution A. add it to the contents of the beaker
containing solution B and immediately start the stop watch. Record the time it will take for the cross
(X) to become invisible when viewed above the reaction mixture in the beaker.
Wash the glass beaker used and repeat the experiment at the temperature indicated in the table below
by warming sodium thiosulphate solution B to the stated temperature before adding hydrochloric
Acid, solution A.
Table I
Experiment number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Volume of hydrochloric Acid, solution A 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
(1 cm3)
Volume of sodium thiosulphate solution 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10
B(cm3)
Temperature (0C) of sodium thiosulphate, Room 30 35 40 45 50 55 60
solution B temp.
Time in seconds

1
Reciprocal of time   per seconds, S-1
t 

(6 marks)
1
a) On the grid provided, plot a graph of reciprocal of time   against temperature (3 marks)
t 

b) Comment on the effect of change in temperature on the rate of reaction between sodium
thiosulphate, solution B and hydrochloric acid, solution A. (1mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

c) Use your graph to determine:

i) The time taken by the reaction when the temperature is 580C. (1mark)

ii) The temperature at which the rate of the reaction is 0.045 sec-1. (1mark)

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PROCEDURE II
Using a clean measuring cylinder, place 12.5 cm3 of solution A in a 250ml volumetric flask. Add 200
cm3 of distilled water and shake. Add distilled water upto the mark. Label this solution D. Fill a
burette with solution D. Using a pipette and pipette filler, place 25.0 cm3 of solution C into a 250 ml
conical flask. Add two drops of phenolphthalein indicator and titrate with solution D until the pink
colour disappears.
Record your results in table II. Repeat the titration two more times and complete the table.
Table II
I II III
Final Burette Reading(cm3)
Initial Burette Reading(cm3)
Volume of solution D (cm3)
d) Calculate:
i) The average volume of solution D used. (1 mark)

ii) Moles of hydrochloric Acid, solution D used. (1 mark)

iii) Moles of Alkali solution C used. (1mark)

iv) Determine the reacting mole ratio between the hydrochloric acid, solution D, and the alkali,
solution C. (1 mark)

v) Write ionic equation for the reaction between hydrochloric acid, solution A and alkali, solution C.
(1mark)
2. Place all solid R provided into a clean boiling tube then add about 10cm3 of distilled water. Shake
the contents thoroughly then filter. Retain both the filtrate and residue. Divide the filtrate into four
equal portions.
(a) To the first portion, add sodium hydroxide solution dropwise until in excess.
Observation Inference

(½ mark) (½ mark)

(b) To the second portion, add about 2cm3 of Barium Chloride Solution.
Observation Inference

(1 mark) (1 mark)

(c) To the third portion, add 3 drops of lead (ii) nitrate solution provided followed by about 2cm3 of
2M nitric (V) acid and shake the mixture.
Observation Inference

(1 mark) (1mark)

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(d) To the fourth portion, add 3 drops of acidified potassium manganate (VII).
Observation Inference

(1 mark) (1 mark)

(e) Transfer all the residue into a clean boiling tube, then add about 2cm3 of 2M nitric acid and
add about 3cm3 of distilled water when all the solid has dissolved. Divide the resulting
product into three equal portions.
(i) To the 1st portion add sodium hydroxide solution drop wise until in excess.
Observation Inference

(½ mark) (½ mark)

(ii) To the second portion, add ammonia solution drop wise until in excess.
Observation Inference

(½ mark) (½ mark)
(iii) To the third portion, add a few drops of potassium iodide solution.
Observation Inference

( ½ mark) (½ mark)

3. You are provided with solid V. You are required to carry out the tests indicated below.
Place a spatulaful of solid V in a boiling tube. Add about 6 cm3 of distilled water and shake well.
Divide the mixture into four equal portions in test tubes.
a) To the first portion, add two drops of potassium manganate (VII) solution.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

b) To the second portion, add three drops of bromine water.

Observations Inferences

(l mark) (l mark)

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(l mark) (l mark)

(d) Test the pH of the solution using universal indicator solution provided.
Observations Inferences

(½ mark) (½ mark)
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

PHYSICS
232/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper consists of two sections A and B.
 Answer all the questions in the two sections in the spaces provided after each question
 All working must be clearly shown.
 Electronic calculators, mathematical tables may be used.
 All numerical answers should be expressed in the decimal notations.
 You may use ‘g’ as 10m/s2

FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAX MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
A 1 – 14 25
15 13
16 13
B
17 13
18 09
19 07

TOTAL 80

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SECTION A (25 Marks)
1. The figure 1, below shows a section of a tape measure used for measuring the circumference of a
cylindrical water tank.

Figure 1
i. State the accuracy of the tape (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
ii. Determine the diameter of the tank (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

2. Figure 2, shows a metal bolt which is threaded. Explain how a metre-rule may be used to measure
the pitch (distance between adjacent peaks) of the threading (2 marks)

Figure 2
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

3. State the advantage of fitting wide tyres on a vehicle that move on earth roads (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

4. It may not be possible to suck liquid into your mouth using drinking straw on the surface of the
moon. Explain (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
5. A drop of blue ink is introduced at the bottom of a beaker containing water. It is observed that
after sometime, all the water in the beaker turns blue. Name the process that takes place.(1 mark)
........................................................................................................................

6. In the set-up shown below, water near the top of the boiling tube boils while at the bottom it
remains cold. Give a reason for this. (2 marks)

Figure 3
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

7. The diagram below shows two glass-tubes of different diameters dipped in water. Explain why h 2
is greater than h1 (3 marks)

Figure 4

8. A solid copper sphere will sink in water while a hollow copper sphere of the same mass may float.
Explain (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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9. Name the instrument that would be most suitable for measuring the thickness of one sheet of this
question paper (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

10.
a) State how pressure of a moving fluid varies with the speed of the fluid (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
b) State Bernoulli’s principle (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

11. The solid marble shown below is in a stable equilibrium. On the space provided, sketch the same
marble in a neutral state of equilibrium (1 mark)

Figure 5

12. The figure below shows how pressure and volume of a fixed mass of a gas vary at constant
temperature. Sketch on the same axes, a graph for the same mass of gas at temperature,T2 such that
𝑇2 < 𝑇1 (1 mark)

Figure 6
13. The figure below shows a ball being whirled in a vertical plane. Sketch on the same figure the path
followed by the ball if the string cuts when the ball is in the same position shown. (1 mark)

ball

String 𝜔

Figure 7

14. A spring extends by 6cm when supporting a mass of 0.06kg on earth. When the spring is used to
support the same mass on moon, it extends by 1 cm. determine the moon’s gravitational strength
(3 marks)

SECTION B (55 MARKS)

15.
a) Define the following terms:
i. Angular velocity (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
ii. Centripetal acceleration (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

b) State two ways in which the centripetal force on a body of mass m can be increased (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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c) Figure 8 shows an object at the end of a light spring balance connected to a peg using astring. The object is mov
ing in a circular path on a smooth horizontal table with a constant speed.

Figure 8
i. State what provides the centripetal force (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
ii. On the same diagram Indicate with an arrow the direction of the centripetal force (1 mark)

iii. State a reason why the object is accelerating while its speed remains constant (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

iv. The mass of the object is 0.5kg and it is moving at a speed of 8m/s at a radius of 2m. determine the
reading on the spring balance (3 marks)

d) A body moving with uniform angular velocity found to have covered an angular distance 170
radians in t seconds. Thirteen seconds later it is found to have covered a total angular distance of
300 radians. Determine t (3 marks)
16.
a) State the pressure law for an ideal gas (1mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
b) The set up shows an arrangement to determine the relationship between temperature and pressure
of a gas constant volume.

Figure 9
(i) Describe how measurements are obtained in the experiment. (3marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(ii) Explain how the result form the experiment can be used to determine the relationship between
temperature and pressure. (2marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
c) A bicycle tire is pumped to a pressure of 2.2 × 10 5pa at230C. After a race the pressure is found to
be 2.6 × 105 pa. Assuming the volume of the tyre did not change, what is the temperature of the air
in the tyre. (3marks)

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d) Air is trapped inside a glass tube by a thread of mercury 240 mm long. When the tube is held
horizontally the length of the air column is 240mm.

750 mmHg

L1 = 240 mm 240mm
Figure 10

Assuming that the atmospheric pressure is 750mm Hg and the temperature is constant; calculate the
length of the air column when the tube is vertical with open end down. (3marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
e) What is an ‘ideal gas?’ (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

17.
a) Define the following terms:
i. Mechanical advantage (1 mark)

ii. Velocity ratio (1 mark)

b) Sketch a labeled diagram to show how an arrangement of a single pulley may be used to provide a
mechanical advantage of 2. (3 marks)
c) The figure 11, below shows a loaded wheelbarrow.
i. Indicate and label on the diagram three forces acting on the wheelbarrow when a worker is just
about to lift the handle. (3 marks)

Figure 11
ii. Suppose the handle-bars of the wheelbarrow were extended, which force(s) would change?
Explain (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
d) A ball rolls on a table in a straight line. A part from the transitional kinetic energy, state the other
form of kinetic energy possessed by the ball. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
e) The figure 12, below shows how the potential Energy (P.E) of a ball thrown vertically upwards.
(J)
8
6

P.E
4
2

2 4 6 8 height, m

Figure 12
On the same axes, plot a graph of kinetic energy of the ball. (2 marks)

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18.
a) State the law of floatation (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
b) When a piece of metal is placed on water, it sinks. But when the same piece of metal is placed on a
block of wood, both are found to float. Explain this observation. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

c) Figure 13 shows a cork floating on water and held to the bottom of the beaker by a thin thread

Figure 13
i. Name the force acting on the cork. (3marks)
........................................................................................................................
ii. Describe how each of the forces mentioned in (i) above changes when water is added into the
beaker until it fills up. (3marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

19.
a) Water flows in a horizontal smooth pipe. State the changes that would be observed in the nature of
flow if the speed of water is steadily increased from low to high value (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
b) A pipe of radius 6mm is connected to another pipe of radius 9mm. if water flows in the wider pipe
at a speed of 2m/s, what is the speed in the narrower pipe? (3 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

c) State the reason why it may not be possible to suck liquid into your mouth using drinking straw on
the surface of the moon (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

d) A can with a hole on the side is filled with water to a certain height. Water jets out as shown below
(figure 14, a). A second identical can is filled with water to the same height and a block of wood
floated on the water as shown (figure 14, b). give a reason why the water jet in (b) is longer than
that in (a). (1 mark)

Figure 14

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

PHYSICS
232/2
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(a) Write your Name and Index Number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two Sections; A and B.
(d) Answer ALL the questions in Sections A and B in the spaces provided.
(e) All workings must be clearly shown.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Section Question Max Score Candidate’s Score
A 1 – 12 25
13 11
14 12
B 15 13
16 10

17 09

Total Score 80
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. Figure 1 below shows the formation of a band of colors when white light traverses a drop of water:

Figure 15
(i) Why does it split into different colors between P and Q? (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(ii) What natural phenomenon is associated with the above? (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................

2. An electric iron is rated at 1.5 KW, 240 V. Calculate the resistance of the element. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

3. A model preparing for beauty contest stands 70 cm away from a concave mirror of focal length 90
cm. State two characteristics of the image observed. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

4. The diagram below shows a soft iron ring lying next to the south-pole of a magnet.

Figure 16

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(a) Complete the diagram to show the magnetic field patterns between the magnet and the ring.
(1 mark)
(b) State a practical application of the above effect. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

5. A boy standing in front of a high wall claps his hands once and hears an echo after 0.64 seconds. If
he moves 20 m farther away from the wall and claps again, he hears the echo after 0.76 seconds.
Calculate the speed of sound. (3 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

6. The table shows part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Figure 17
(a) What happens to photo energy as one moves across the spectrum from gamma to radio waves?
(1 mark)
........................................................................................................................

(b) What part of the electromagnetic spectrum does a TV remote control gadget make use of? (1 mk)
........................................................................................................................

7.Explain why sound from a distance source is heard more clearly at night than during the day.(2 mk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
8. Explain why the resistance of a metal conductor increases with increase in temperature. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

9. Figure 4 below shows a graph of displacement against time for a particular point in a wave.

Figure 18
(a) From the graph, determine the frequency of the wave. (3 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

10. Using a ray diagram, illustrate the use of a lens as a magnifying glass. (3 marks)

11. State ONE advantage of the lead-acid accumulator over the dry cell. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

12. State the two functions of the earth-pin on the three-pin plug. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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SECTION B (55 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided
13. (a) Define the term capacitance of a capacitor. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(b) State two factors that affect the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(c) Figure 5 below shows an arrangement of capacitors connected to a 12 V D.C. supply

Figure 19
(i) Determine the effective capacitance. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(ii) Calculate the charge through the 3 μF capacitor. (2marks)

(d) The following figure shows an electrical circuit with a network of resistors connected to a battery

Figure 20
A current of 1.2 A flows through the 4 Ω resistor when the switch is closed. Determine:
i) the total resistance in the circuit. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

ii) the voltmeter reading. (2 marks)

14. (a) State two conditions necessary for total internal reflection to occur. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(b) The figure shows a diver positioned at point D below the water surface, and a setting sun S.

In what direction above the horizontal surface of the water will the diver see the setting sun?
(Refractive index of water = 1.33). (3 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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(c) A coin is placed at the bottom of a beaker containing two immiscible liquids A and B of refractive
indices ηA = 1.36 and ηB = 1.44 respectively as in the diagram below.

Calculate the apparent depth of the coin as seen by an observer from the top. (4 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(d) A tree of height 7.5 m is focused on the screen of pinhole camera made using a box of length 15
cm. If the height of the image is 10 cm, determine the distance of the tree from the camera.(3 mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

15. (a) State ONE way of minimizing power loss during transmission. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(b) A step-down transformer with turns ratio 12:1 and efficie ncy 95% has 2 000 turns in the primary
coil. When the primary circuit is connected to a 240 V a.c. source, the power delivered to a load is
found to be 500 W.
Determine:
(i) the number of turns in the secondary coil. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(ii) the input power. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(iii) The secondary voltage. (2 marks)

(iv) the secondary current. (2 marks)

(b) A consumer uses the following electrical appliances daily: four 60 W bulbs working for 3½ hours,
two 75 W bulbs working for 3 hours 45 minutes, an electric blender rated 500 W working for 15
minutes, and a television set rated 100 W working for 12 hours.
(i) Calculate the total number of units consumed in a day. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(iii) If the appliances are used for 30days, determine the total cost if the cost per unit is 4.80 cents.
(2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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16. (a) In an experiment to observe interference of light waves a double slit is placed close to the
source. See figure 7

Figure 21
(i) State the function of the double slit (1mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(ii) Describe what is observed on the screen (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(iii) State what is observed on the screen when
I). The slit separation S1 S2 is reduced (1mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
II) White light source is used in place of monochromatic source (1mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

b) Figure 8 below shows a set up made by a Form 2 student to study an aspect of a wave.

Figure 22
(i) State what happens to the sound from the bell as the bottle and its contents are cooled to 0°C
(1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

Explain the observation in (i) above (2 marks)

c) Water waves of same wavelength are incident on different apertures A and B as shown below.

Complete the diagrams to show the pattern of the waves beyond the apertures in each case. (2 marks)

17. You are provided with the following apparatus: connecting wires, a soft iron rod, a battery of 3
cells, a switch, a long insulated copper wire and a rheostat.
(a) Using a suitable diagram, show how an electromagnet can be made with the given apparatus.
(3 marks)

(b) State two ways by which the strength of an electromagnet can be increased (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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(c) (i) State Flemings left hand rule (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(ii) The figure below shows current flowing in coil placed in a magnetic field.

(I) Show on the diagram the direction of the force acting on the coil labelled P and Q. (1 mark)

(II) State two ways of increasing the force on the coil. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

The physics teacher should ensure availability of the following apparatus for the learner to carry-out
this practical examination.

QUESTION ONE - A metre-rule

• Two new size ‘D’ dry cells - Some plasticine
• A two-cell holder - rubber bung.
• A bulb (2.5 V ) 2.7 cm
• A volt-meter (0-3V)
• An ammeter (0-1A)
Rubber-bung
• A switch
2.9 cm

• Amounted resistance wire labelled AB (swg 32)

Question two
- A candle 2.1 cm

- A lens and a lens holder (lens should be of

- Vernier calipers.
focal length of 10 cm)
- beam balance. (or electric balance)
- A screen

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS
a) Answer all the questions in this paper
1
b) You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 hours allowed for this paper reading
2
the whole paper carefully before starting your work.
c) Marks are given for clear record of the observations made, their suitability and accuracy and
the use made of them.
d) Candidates are advised to record observations as soon as they are made
e) Mathematical table and electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

QUESTION TOTAL MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 20

2 20

GRAND TOTAL 40
QUESTION ONE
You are provided with the following apparatus:
• Two dry cells
• A cell holder
• A bulb
• A volt-meter
• An ammeter
• A switch
• Amounted resistance wire labelled AB

a) Set up the apparatus as shown in the circuit below.

Figure 23
b) With the crocodile clip at A (i.e. L = 100cm) take the voltmeter reading (V) and the ammeter
reading (I). Record V and I in the table 1 below.

Table 1
Length l(cm) 100 80 60 40 20 0
Voltage (V)
Current I (A)
Length, L (m)
(7 marks)
c) Repeat the procedure in (b) above for the lengths shown and complete the table above.
d) Explain the changes you observe on the bulb as L decrease from A. (2 marks)

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e) Plot a graph of voltage against current (5 marks)

f) Determine the slope of the graph when L = 0.60 m (3 marks)

g) State the significance of the gradient (1 mark)

a) Set up the apparatus as shown in figure 2 below (ensure that the candle flame and the lens are
approximately the same height above the bench)

Figure 24

b) Set the position of the lens so that it is 40cm from the candle (U = 40 cm). Adjust the position of
the screen until a sharp image of the candle flame is obtained. Measure the distance, V between
the lens and the screen. Record the value of V

V = ………… cm (1mark)

c) Repeat the procedures in b) above for other values of U in the table b below. (4 marks)
Table 2
U(cm) 45 50 55
V(cm)
𝑣
Magnification (m) =
𝑢

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𝑣
d) Given that f = where f is the focal length of the lens, use the results in table above to
𝑚+1,

determine the average values of ‘f’ (4 marks)

PART B.
You are provided with the following:
- rubber bung.
- Vernier calipers.
- beam balance. (or electric balance)

Proceed as follows:
e) Using a Vernier caliper, measure the lengths D, d, and h as shown in figure 2.
D

d
Figure 2
D = ....................................................... m (1 mark)
d = ........................................................ m (1 mark)
h = ........................................................ m (1 mark)

f) Measure the mass, M of the rubber bung using the electric balance.

M = …………………. g M = ............................................... kg (2 marks)

g)
𝑑+𝐷
(i) Given that 𝑄 = determine the value of Q. (2 marks)
4

𝑀
(ii) Determine the value of r given that: 𝜋𝑟𝑄 2 = (3 mark)
ℎ

h) State the significance of r (1 mark)

This is the last printed page

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

AGRICULTURE
443/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
(a) This paper contains three sections A, B and C
(b) Answer ALL the questions in section A and B
(c) Answer any Two questions from section C
(d) All answers should be written in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1-14 30
B 15-18 20

C 20
20

TOTAL 90
SECTION A (30MKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided
1.State two reasons why farmers should be encouraged to practice organic farming (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

2. State two ways in which crop rotation controls weeds (1mk)

3. Name two methods of sowing pasture crops (1mk)

4. State four qualities considered when selecting seeds for planting (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

5. State four advantages of crop rotation (2mks)

6. State three physical agents of weathering in soil formation (1 ½ mks)

8. Give three reasons why Banana should be pruned (1 ½ mks)

9. State four factors considered when classifying crop pests (2mks)

10. Give four reasons for land fragmentation (2mks)

11. State two mechanical methods used in separating soil in soil analysis (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

12. State three ways in which inorganic fertilizers are classified (1 ½ mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
13. State three effects of raindrops on bare soil (1 ½ mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

14. Give three reasons why layering would be preferred to the use of cutting as a method of raising
planting materials ( ½ mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

15. State the forms in which nitrogen is absorbed by plants (1mk)

16. Outline four factors which effect herbraidal selectivity (2mks)

17. State four natural factors that may influence soil erosion (2mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

18. Name four disadvantages of zero grazing (2mks)

SECTION B (20 MKS)

Answer ALL Questions in this section
20. Below are illustrations of common weeds. Study them and answer the questions that follow

(a) Identify the weeds (2mks)

A……………………………………………. B…………………………………………….
(b) State the harmful effects of the weed B above (1mk)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(c) Give four advantages of leasehold tenure systems (2mks)

22.. (a) What is soil sampling? (1 mark)

1 7

2 8

3 9

10 4

11 5

12 6
(i) What method of soil sampling is represented above? (1 mark )
........................................................................................................................
(ii) name the other method of soil sampling (1mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(iii) Outline three areas which should be avoided during soil sampling. (3 marks )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
23. . Identify the rotational grazing system shown below (1mk)

........................................................................................................................
b) Give the FOUR advantages of the system named above (4mks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

SECTION C (40MKS)
Answer any two Questions in this section
24. (a) Describe harvesting of pyrethrum under the following sub-headings
(i) Procedure (4mks)
(ii) Precautions (6mks)
(b) Describe the safety measures observed when handling farm herbicides (10mks)

25. Describe the production of Rhodes grass (Chloris gayana) under the following sub-headings
(a) Land preparation (5mks)
(b) Pasture establishment (8mks)
(c) Maintenance (7mks)
26. .(a) Discuss the production of beans under the following sub headings
(i) Land preparation (4mks)

(ii) Varieties (2mks)

(iii) Selection and preparation of planting materials (5mks)
(iv) Field management practices
(b) Explain the method and procedure of harvesting of sugarcane (4mks)
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

AGRICULTURE
443/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTIONS MAX SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1-17 30
B 18-21 20

C 20
20

TOTAL 90
SECTION A – 30 MARKS
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. List down two reasons that make Agriculture (2 marks )
(i) An art
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(ii) A science
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

2. State one use of each of the following farm tools. (2 marks)

(i) Mason’s trowel
........................................................................................................................
(ii) A pair of tin snips
........................................................................................................................

3. Give four reasons why indigenous cattle breeds are more suited to semi-arid areas of Kenya than
exotic breeds. (2 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

4. Name two functions of calcium in dairy cows. (1 mark)

5. Prepare 100kg pig ration of DCP of 16% using a cereal balancer of 10% DCP and cotton seed cake
of 28%DCP. ( 4 marks )
6. State two ways by which proper feeding contributes to disease control in poultry. (1 mark )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

7. Outline four methods used to control Tse-tse flies. ( 2 mks )

8. (a) What is meant by the terms zero grazing in livestock production? (1 mark )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
(b) What is the duration of oestrous cycle in a cow? (1 mark )
........................................................................................................................

(c ) If a dairy cow is noticed to be showing first sign of heat at 9.00am. What time should it be
inseminated ? (1 mark )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

9. Give two reasons why walls of dairy shed should be white washed instead of painting with water
or oil paints. (1 mark )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

10. A part from tractor and electricity, name four other sources of power that may be used for doing
work on the farm. (2 marks )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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11. State two factors that contribute to depreciation of farm tools and equipment. (1 mark )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
12. Name four chemical preservatives used to treat the wooden (2 marks )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
13. Name two methods of identifying piglets in the farm. (1 mark )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
14. Outline four management practices a farmer should undertake to ensure maximum number of fish
is harvested from a fish pond. (2 marks )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

15. Name two methods of extracting honey from the combs. (1 mark )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
16. Name four benefits of a good farm layout. (2 marks )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

17. State four symptoms shown by poultry when suffering from new castle disease. (2 marks )
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
SECTION B – 20 MARKS
18. The illustration below shows behaviour of chicks in a brooder in response to certain conditions.
Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Explain the reason for the behaviour of chicks in the above diagrams. (4 marks )
A......................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
B......................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
C......................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
D......................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(b) Give other two signs the chicks will show other than the one you have given in C above. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(c ) Outline three necessary conditions required in a brooder. (3 marks )

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19. Identify the livestock parasites drawn below.

Identify the following livestock parasites. (3 marks )

A
B
C

(b) In which organs of livestock are the parasites A, B and C found. (3 marks )
A
B
C

20. The diagram D, E and F below represents different conditions of the tyres.

(a) Which diagram represents the correct pressure in a tractor tyre? (1 mark
........................................................................................................................
(b) (i) Identify the mistakes with the other tyres. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

(ii) Give the correction measure for each tyre mentioned in b(i) above. (1 mark)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

21. Give three maintenance practices that should be carried out on a grain storage structure. (3 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

SECTION C – 40 MARKS
Answer any two questions in the spaces provided after the questions
22. (a) Describe construction of a movable calf pen under the following sub-headings.
(i) Selection and construction materials
(i) Requirements of a calf pen (12 marks)
(b) Describe the management of a dairy calf for the first week after calving. (8 marks)

23. (a) Outline any seven factors that would determine the use of jembe instead of use of
a disc plough in primary cultivation. (6 marks)
(b) State seven structural difference between petrol and diesel engines. (14 marks)

24. Explain ten management practices that a farmer could carry out to improve milk production in a
low yielding dairy cow. (20 marks)

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

Answer ALL the Questions

1. Highlight four ways in which business studies may be of benefit to an individual. (4 Marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

2. Outline four features of economic resources. (4 Marks)

3. Outline four challenges that a firm would experience as a result of expansion of the entire industry
in which it is found. (4 Marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
4. Outline four factors that affect business activities and which the business has control over.(4
Marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

5. Identify four gaps that may create a business opportunity in a market. (4 Marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

6. Highlight four merits of an open office layout to a business (4 Marks)

7. Outline four reasons why cash payment is preferred to cheque payment. (4 Marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

8. Identify four types of insurance policies relevant to a supermarket owner. (4 Marks)

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9. The following information relates to Kembe Traders as at 31st December 2008
Rate of stock turnover 3 times
Mark up 20%
Opening stock sh.160,000
Closing stock sh.200,000
Required : Determine
i) Gross profit
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
ii) Sales
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

10. Highlight four characteristics of a perfect competitive market. (4 marks)

11. The table below relates to four different businesses, insert the correct values for A, B, C and D.
(4marks)
ASSETS CAPITAL LIABILITIES
2,310,642 A 486,932
B 40,385 96,483
941,682 31,685 C
3,104,611 D 395,348
12. The population of the youth in country X is likely to be 3/4 of the total population in ten years
time. Highlight four challenges this country will face at this point in time. (4 Marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

13. Highlight four factors that may cause the demand curve to shift to the right (4 Marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

14. For each of the following transactions indicate the account to be debited or credited.
Transaction A/C debited A/C credited
a) Received discount from Top
suppliers
b) Allowed discount to Shujaa Traders
c) Sold furniture to Owuor on credit
d) Took stock worth sh.200 for personal
use
15. List four items that may affect the capital of a business (4 Marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

16. State four ways in which advertising agencies assist in sales promotion. (4 Marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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17. State four ways in which the Kenyan currency qualifies as good money. (4 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

18. State four advantages of using the internet as a means of communication. (4 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

19. Highlight four ways in which transport is important to a business. (4 marks)

20. State four circumstances under which a producer would sell his goods directly to the consumer.
(4 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

21. In the spaces provided state the source document for each of the subsidiary books given below. (4
marks)
Subsidiary book Source document
a) Sales Journal
b) Purchases journal
c) Returns inwards journal
d) Returns outwards journal
22. List four assumptions of the circular flow of income in a two sector closed economy. (4 marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
23. Mention four small scale retailers with shops. (4marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
24. The following balances were extracted from the books of Highway stores on 31st Dec. 2015
Land and buildings 650000
Stock 470000
Bank overdraft 80000
Debtors 350000
Ten year loan 500000
Creditors 220,000
Cash 50000
Motor van 150000
Required :Prepare a balance sheet for Highway Stores as at 31st Dec. 2015. (4 marks)

25. Chumo industries want to open a warehouse for her products. Give the management some advice
on four factors it should consider in establishing the warehouse. (4 Marks)
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper consists of six questions
b) Answer any five questions
c) All questions carry equal marks
d) Write your answers in spaces provided.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question Maximum score Candidate’s Score
1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
5 20
6 20
TOTAL SCORE
QUESTIONS
1. a) Highlight four ways in which the economic environment may positively influence the
activities of a business. (8 marks)
(b) st
On 1 July 2021, Shujaa Traders had Shs.36,500 at bank and cash in hand Shs. 250. During the
month the following transactions took place.
July 2 Cash sales Shs.42,630 paid directly to the bank.
July 3 Received a cheque for Shs.14,100 from Mkora in full settlement of a debt.
July 7 Credit sales Shs. 15,500 to Otonglo
July 8 Bought goods for Shs.26,240 on credit from Mali Mali Enterprises.
July 12 Cash sales Shs.42,450.
July 14 Paid Mwema by cheque Shs.23,750 in full settlement of his account after deducting 5% cash
discount.
July 15 Paid wages Shs.24,000 in cash.
July 16 Withdrew Shs.36,000 from the bank for office use.
July 17 Cleared Mali Mali account of Shs. 26,240 in cash less 12.5% discount.
July 18 Otonglo cleared her account of Shs 15,500 in cash less 11.5% discount.
July 20 Cheque received from Mkora was dishonoured.
July 28 Paid salaries by cheque Shs.48,600.
July 30 All cash was banked except Shs.5,000.

Required: Prepare a three-column cash book. (12 marks)

2. a) Zeraki is launching a new Bookshop for schools in Kenya. If you are their
marketing manager what five factors would you consider when choosing an
appropriate media for promoting the bookshop. (10 marks)

b) Highlight five accounting documents used in home trade. (10 marks)

3. a) Explain five factors that influence entrepreneurial practices in Kenya. (10 marks)
b) With the aid of a well labelled diagram, show the effects of increase in supply on equilibrium price
and quantity. (10 marks)

4. a) Nyalego is an importer of assorted goods from different countries. Explain five

advantages he may enjoy while his goods are stored in a bonded warehouse. (10 marks)

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b) The following information relates to Msafi traders.
MSAFI TRADERS
TRIAL BALANCE
AS AT 31/12/2021
Details Dr. (Shs.) Cr. (Shs.)
Capital 200,000
Motor vehicle 10,000
Machinery 16,000
Stock (1/1/2021) 12,000
Debtors 83,500
Cash 68,000
Bank 112,800
Creditors 45,000
Sales 280,000
Purchases 120,000
Carriage inwards 2,000
Returns 1,200 1,000
Carriage on sales 4,000
Discount 3,000 4,000
Salaries 2,000
Rent 21,500
Insurance 10,000
Electricity 17,000
551,500 551,500

Closing stock Shs.8,000.

Required: Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account. (10 marks)

5. a) The graph below represents population and output levels of three countries, A B and C

Output(Q)

A B C

Population (p)
(i) State the type of population found in each country
Country B......................................................................... (1 mark)
Country C......................................................................... (1 mark)
(ii) Explain four challenges that country C may be facing (8 marks)

(b) Explain five circumstances under which an insurance contract may be terminated. (10 marks)

6. a) Explain five activities that may be carried out in the process of distributing goods. (10 marks)
(b) Outline five internal diseconomies of scale that a firm that grows in size is likely to encounter.
(10 marks)

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
313/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

313/1
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
 This paper consist of six questions
 Answer any five questions from this paper in the answer booklet provided.

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

MARKS
QUESTIONS
1a) Describe the second account of creation in genesis 2:4b-25 (7mks)
b) With reference to the Genesis stories of creation in Chapter 1 and 2 outline the attributes of God.
(7mks)
c) State the problems faced by Bible authors. (6mks)

2a) Describe how the Israelites worshipped God before the Babylonian exile. (8mks)
b) Explain what the Israelites understood about God from the Exodus experience. (6mks)
c) Give ways in which the Israelites disobeyed the Ten Commandments. (6mks)

3 a) Identify six reasons why it was difficult for Elijah to stop idolatry in Israel (8mks)
b) With reference to 1st kings 21:17-29, give the forms of punishment prophesied by Elijah to King
Ahab and Queen Jezebel. (6mks)
c) Explain ways in which injustice can disrupt peace in society. (6mks)

4a) Outline the various ways through which the Old Testament prophets communicated their
messages to the people. (7mks)
(b) Give seven teachings of prophet Amos about the day of the Lord. (7mks)
(c) How can Christians assist the church leaders to perform their duties effectively? (6 mks)

5. (a) Describe how the people of Judah renewed their covenant with God under the leadership of
Ezra. (8mks)
(b)Outline measures taken by Nehemiah to ensure completion of rebuilding the broken walls of
Jerusalem. (7mks)
(c) What do Christians learn from the dedication of the wall of Jerusalem? (5mks)

6. (a) Give reasons why oaths were administered in traditional African communities (7mks)
(b) Explain the role of the sponsor during the traditional African circumcision ceremonies (7mks)
(c) Identify six aspects of traditional African worship that have been incorporated in Christian
worship. (6mks)

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
313/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
 This paper consist of six questions
 Answer any five questions from this paper in the answer booklet provided.

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

MARKS
INSTRUCTIONS:
Answer any FIVE questions
1 a) Describe what took place when Mary visited Elizabeth (6mks)
b) State the differences between the work of John the Baptist and that of Jesus Christ. (8mks)
c) Give reasons why Christians dedicate children to God in church today. (6mks)

2. a) With reference to Luke 5:17-26, describe the healing of the paralytic man. (8mks)
b) Give six lessons learnt about Jesus from the cure of the Paralytic man. (6mks)
c) State six reasons why some Christians do not believe in miracles today (6mks)

3. a) Identify six petitions in the Lord’s prayer. (6mks)

b) With reference to Jesus ‘journey to Jerusalem, state four teachings of Jesus about salvation (7mks)
c) What seven lessons can Christians learn from the parable of the prodigal son? (7mks)

4. a) Explain the gift of the Holy Spirit as taught by Saint Paul. (7mks)
b) Identify Peter’s understanding of the person of Jesus during the Day of Pentecost. (6mks)
c) Outline the causes of disunity in the church today. (7mks)

5. a) State ways in which sex is abused in Kenya (6mks)

b) Explain the Christian teaching on responsible sexual behaviour (8mks)
c) State the ways used by traditional communities to prevent pre-marital sex among the youth.
(6mks)

6. a)Give reasons why Christians pay taxes to the government of Kenya. (7mks)
b) What are the obstacles to effective maintenance of law and order? (7mks)
c) Outline steps the church is taking to reduce lawlessness in Kenya today. (6mks)

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper has three sections: A , B and C
b) Answer ALL questions in section A; three questions from Section B answer and two questions
from section C .
c) All answers MUST be written in the Foolscap papers provided.

Section A Question Maximum score Candidates Score

1- 17
Section B 18
19
20
21
Section C 22
23
24
SECTION A (25 MARKS)
ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
1. Identify one source of Kenyan History. (1 mark)
2. Name two sub-clans of the Mijikenda. (2 marks)
3. State two natural factors that facilitated the coming of the early visitors to the Kenyan Coast
before 1500 A.D. (2 marks)
4. Name one Portuguese commander who led the Portuguese expeditions to the E. Africa Coast.(1
mark)
5. Identify one peaceful method of conflict resolution in Kenya. (1 mark)
6. Give two symbols of national unity in Kenya. (2 marks)
7. Give one right of person with disability. (1 mark)
8. State one strategic reason for the colonization of Kenya. (2 marks)
9. Identify two social challenges of the early political associations in Kenya. (2 marks)
10. Name one independent churches founded in Kenya before 1940. (2 marks)
11. Identify the national philosophy associated with President Daniel T. arap Moi. (1 mark)
12. State two features of missionary education in colonial Kenya. (2 marks)
13. Identify one qualification of a county governor. (1 mark)
14. Identify two functions of the Senate in Kenya. (2 marks)
15. State one way in which criminal activities can be reduced. (1 mark)
16. Give two sources of revenue for the national government. (2 marks)
17. State one way in which the government of Kenya is promoting games and sports. (1mark)

SECTION B. (45 MARKS)

ANSWER THREE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION. (45 MARKS)
18. (a) Give five reasons which influenced the migration of the plain Nilotes to Kenya during the Pre-
Colonial period. (5 marks)
(b) Explain five results of the migration and settlement of the Maasai in Kenya during the pre-
colonial period. (10 marks)

19. (a) State three reason for the coming of the Portuguese to Kenyan Coast in the 15th century.(3
marks)
(b) Explain six effects of the Portuguese rule on the East African Coast. (12 marks)

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20. (a) Give five grievances of the Kikuyu Central Association which were Presented by Jomo
Kenyatta to the colonial secretary in 1929. (5 Marks)
(b) Explain five factors which led to the migration of African to the urban areas in Kenya during the
colonial period. (10 marks)
21. (a) State three factors that have contributed to high illiteracy levels in Kenya since Independence.
(3 marks)
b) Discuss six factors that have facilitated industrialization in Kenya since Independence. (12 marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any TWO questions from this section.
22. (a) State three characteristics of human rights (3marks)
(b) Explain six rights of an accused person in Kenya (12marks)

23. (a) Give three functions of the prisons department in Kenya (3 marks)
(b) Explain six reforms that have been introduced in the prisons department in Kenya (12 marks)

24. (a) Describe the stages in the preparation of the National Budget (3 marks)
(b) Explain six ways in which the National Government uses its funds (12marks

END
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
A) This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C
B) Answer ALL THE QUESTIONS from section A, THREE QUESTIONS from section B and
TWO QUESTIONS from section C in the foolscaps provided.
C) Students should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION A SECTION B SECTION C
1-17
18 19 20 21 22 23 24

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SECTION A (25MRKS)
1. Give the main method used by anthropologists to gather their historical data. (1mk)
2. Identify the method used making sangoan tools (1mk)
3. Identify the external reasons for Lewanika’s collaboration with the British. (2mks)
4. Identify the chartered company that British used to administer parts of West Africa. (1mk)
5. Give the reasons why the location of Samore Toure’s second empire contributed to his defeat by
French. (2mks)
6. Identify two ancestors of man associated with the making of Oldowan tools. (2mks)
7. List two invention which Jethro Tull, a British farmer, invented (2mks)
8. State two regions where salt was mined during the Trans-Saharan trade (2mks)
9. State two ways in which knowledge of iron-working led to the rise of kingdoms in the pre-colonial
period. (2mks)
10. Identify the social classes that made up the Buganda society in the pre-colonial period. (2mks)
11. State one way through which the European nations maintained peace among themselves during the
partition of African. (1mk)
12. State two duties of Native Affairs Department in Zimbabwe during the pre- colonial period. (2mks)
13. Name the underground movement that spearheaded armed resistance in South Africa during the
apartheid system. (1mk)
14. Identify one weapon used during the cold war. (1mk)
15. Identify the vessel used in space exploitation. (1mk)
16. Give the UN agency tasked with promoting workers welfare. (1mk)
17. State the official head of commonwealth organization. (1mk

SECTION B: (45 MARKS)

Answer Any Three Questions
18a) Identify three reasons why African slaves were more preferred than other races during the Trans
– Atlantic trade. (3mks)
b) Explain six factors that contributed to the decline of Trans – Saharan trade. (12mks)

19a) Give three advantages of using radio over newspaper in modern society. (3mks)
b) Discuss six contribution of television of economic development. (12mks)
20a) Outline five factors that led to the rise of Shona kingdom during the 19th (5mks)
b) Describe the political organization of Asante Empire in the pre- colonial period. (10mks)

21a) Other than Nigeria name other three countries colonized by the British in West Africa
(3mks)
b) Explain six reasons why the British used direct rule in Zimbabwe. (12mks)

SECTION C (30MRKS)
Answer Any Two Questions
22a) Name three political parties that struggled for independence in Ghana. (3mks)
b) Explain six factors for the rise nationalism in Ghana. (12mks)

23a)Give three reasons for the failure of peace settlement after the First World War. (3mks)
b) Discuss six causes of the Second World War. (12mks)

24a) Name three founders of Non- Aligned Movement. (3mks)

b) Explain six factors that undermined the activities of Non- Aligned movement. (12mks)

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

GEOGRAPHY
312/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper has two sections: A and B
(c) Answer all the questions in section A
(d) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from section B
(e) All answers must be written in the spaces provided after Question 10.

FOR EXAMINATION USE ONLY.

Maximum Score Candidate Score
Section A. 25
Question 6 25
Question 7 25
Question 8 25
Question 9 25
Question 10 25
TOTAL 100%
SECTION A
Answer ALL questions in this section.
1. (a) What is a weather station? (2 marks)
(b) Give three factors that influence wind direction. (3 marks)
2. (a) Name two types of tectonic plate boundaries. (2 marks)
(b) Give three effects of the movement of tectonic plates. (3 marks)

3. State four causes of the decline of the areas under forests in Kenya. (4 marks)

4. The diagram below shows a section of a river. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify the stage of development of the section of the river. (1 mark)
(b) A part from feature marked R, give two other features formed at this stage. (2 marks)
(c) State three conditions necessary for the formation of the feature marked R. (3 marks)

5. (a) Differentiate between an aquifer and a water table. (2 marks)

(b) Give three problems associated with artesian wells. (3 marks)

SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section
6. Study the map of Kisumu East 1: 50,000 (Sheet 116/2) provided to answer questions that follow.
(a) i) Convert the map scale into a statement scale. (2 marks)
ii) Identify two methods that have been used to represent relief on the map. (2 marks)
iii) Name two drainage features found in grid square 0384. (2 marks)
(b)Give the six figure grid reference of the Air Photo Principal point to the East of Obumba
School. (2 marks)
(c)Describe the relief of the area covered by the map. (5 marks)
(d) i)Citing evidence, name three social services offered in the area covered by the map. (6 mks)
ii)Explain three factors that may have influenced the distribution of settlements in the area.
(6 marks)

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7. (a) (i) What is a mineral? (2 marks)
(ii) Describe the following characteristics of minerals:
 Lustre (2 marks)
 Colour (2 marks)
 Cleavage (2 marks)
(b) Describe three ways in which igneous rocks are formed. (9 marks)
(c) Explain four significance of rocks to the economy of Kenya. (8 marks)

8. (a) (i) State three causes of faulting. (3 marks)

(ii) Differentiate between a normal fault and a reverse fault. (4 marks)
(b) (i) A part from rift valley, give three other relief features formed due to faulting. (3 marks)
(ii) With the aid of diagrams, describe how compressional forces can lead to formation of a rift
valley. (8 marks)
(c) Students from your class are planning to carry out a field study on an area affected by faulting.
(i) State four reasons why it is important to have a pre-visit to the area. (4 marks)
(ii) Give three reasons why it would be inappropriate to use observation to collect data during the
field study. (3 marks)

9. (a) (i) What are ocean tides? (2 marks)

(ii) Name two ocean currents along the western coast of Africa. (2 marks)
(b) State three factors that determine the rate of coastal erosion. (3 marks)
(c) With the aid of labeled diagrams, describe the formation of the following coastal features:
(i) Fringing reef (5 marks)
(ii) Spit (5 marks)
(d) Explain the significance of oceans to human activities. (8 marks)

10. (a) Name three components of soil. (3 marks)

(b) Explain how the following factors influence the formation of soil:
(i) Climate (4 marks)
(ii) Topography (4 marks)
(c) Describe how laterization occurs. (6 marks)
(d) Explain four ways in which human activities contribute to soil erosion. (8 marks)
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

GEOGRAPHY
312/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper has two sections: A and B
(c) Answer all the questions in section A
(d) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from section B
(e) All answers must be written in the spaces provided after Question 10.

FOR EXAMINATION USE ONLY.

Maximum Score Candidate Score
Section A. 25
Question 6 25
Question 7 25
Question 8 25
Question 9 25
Question 10 25
TOTAL 100%

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SECTION 25 MARKS
1.a) Name three tourist attractions found in the Rift Valley of Kenya. (3marks)
b. Give any two measures the Kenyan government has taken to attract more tourists. (2marks)
2. a) Define the term agroforestry. (2 marks)
b) State three reasons why agroforestry is being encouraged in Kenya. (3 marks)

3. a) State two characteristics of market gardening. (2 marks)

b) Give two reasons why horticulture is more developed in Netherlands than in Kenya. (2 marks)
c) Cite two advantages of growing horticultural crops in green houses. (2 marks)

4. a) What is energy crisis? (2 marks)

b) State any three effects of energy crisis in Kenya in the recent past. (3 marks)

5. a) State two reasons why some industries are located near the sources of raw materials.(2 marks)
b) State two reasons why the new county government system should encourage the Jua Kali
industries in their regions. (2 marks)

SECTION B
6. The table below shows three main crops produced in Kenya in the years 2008 – 2010(amounts in
metric tonnes). Use it to answer questions below.
Crop 2008 2009 2010
Maize 200,000 380,000 400,000
Wheat 100,000 130,000 150,000
Tea 250,000 300,000 350,000
a) i) Using a scale of 1cm represent 50,000 metric tonnes, draw a comparative bar graph to
represent the data above. (8mks)
ii) State two advantages of using comparative bar graph. (2mks)
b) i) Name two countries in Kenya where wheat is grown in large scale. (2mks)
ii) State three conditions that favour wheat farming in Kenya. (3mks)
c) State four benefits of wheat growing in Kenya. (4mks)
d) Explain three factors that make Canada produce more wheat than Kenya. (6mks)
7.(a) (i) Name three types of minerals. (3 marks)
(ii) State three ways in which minerals occur. (3 marks)
(b) (i) Describe shaft mining method. (5 marks)
(ii) Outline three challenges faced by shaft miners. (3 marks)
(c) Explain four problems facing the mining industry in Kenya. (8 marks)
(d) Highlight three ways in which mining derelicts can be reclaimed. (3 marks)

8. .(a) Name four major fishing grounds in the Atlantic and Pacific oceans. (4mks)
(b) State five main factors favouring these fishing grounds. (5mks)
(c) Name three types of fishing and for each one, state one method of fishing used. (6mks)
(d) (i) Give four reasons why the marine fishing industry in East Africa is not well developed. (4mks)
(ii) State six ways in which the fishing industry is of significance in Kenya. (6mks)

9. (a) Apart from Mwea, name five large irrigation schemes in Kenya. (5mks)
(b) Explain four conditions that made Mwea a suitable location for irrigation scheme. (8mks)
(c) Explain three benefits to farmers in the Pekerra irrigation scheme. (6mks)
(d) Explain three problems experienced by farmers in the Perkera irrigation scheme. (6mks)

10. (a) Name two breeds of dairy cattle reared in Kenya. (2mks)
(b) State four factors that favour dairy farming in Denmark (4mks)
(c) State five problems faced by dairy farmers in Kenya. (5mks)
(d) Explain six factors that favour beef farming in Argentina. (6mks)
(e) Explain four ways in which the government of Kenya could assist nomadic pastoralists to
improve the quality of their livestock. (8mks)

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

ENGLISH
101/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

Functional Skills

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
a) Write your name, school and admission number in the spaces provided.
b) Sign and write the date of exam in the spaces provided.
c) Answer all the questions in this paper.
d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

S/No. Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 Functional Writing 20

2 Cloze Test 10

3 Oral Skills 30
TOTAL 60
1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20MARKS)
You are the environment club chairperson in your school. You have been invited to give a speech on
how to conserve the environment during the “Environmental Awareness Day” in your county.
The Governor, sub-county director of environment, the area chief, students, the club patrons and
members from the community will attend.
In your speech you will address the following issues: deforestation, pollution and waste disposal.
Write the speech that you will deliver. (20 marks
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2.Read the passage below and fill in each blank space with the most appropriate word.(10 mks)
Curriculum reform in education is a worldwide-practiced phenomenon that is involved in striving for
the (i)........................educational practices, primarily with the demands of the twenty-first-century
knowledge economy. African (ii)........................immediately after
independence had to inherit the colonial education system, which (iii)....................................
discriminative and which demanded realignment to societal and cultural demands of the nation.
Coincidentally, curriculum (iv)............................. in most African nations adopted the content or
knowledge-based approach. Not long, the Knowledge-based curriculum dissatisfied most countries
for its products were too academic, but lacking skills and knowledge (v)..............................the
applicability as required by the demands from the workplace. Kenya and Tanzania adopted a
curriculum with the philosophy of education for self-reliance;(vi) .......................... due to the
inadequately trained teachers and insufficient resources, it ended up being
(vii).......................examinable and losing its goal. That (viii)........................to unemployment,
increased vices, and rampant dropouts, among other factors. Currently, due to technological
advancement, most countries have opted (ix).............................a competency-based curriculum
(CBC), which appears as worldwide trends in offering skills that match with the requirements of
companies’ employers. (x).....................question shall be: does the job market currently determine
the curriculum reforms in education?

3. a) Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow: 30 MARKS
The Song of the Engine by Worsely Benison
With a snort and pant the engine dragged
Its heavy train uphill,
And puffed these words the while she puffed
And laboured with a will:

“I think-I can-I think-I can

I’ve- got- to reach- the top.
I’m sure- I can- I will- get there
I sim-ply must-not stop.”

At last, the top was reached and passed,

And then-how changed the song!
The wheels all joined in the engine’s joy,
As quickly she tore along.
“I knew I could do it; I knew I could win,
Oh, rickety, rackety, rack!
And now for a roaring rushing race
On my smooth and shining track!”
i) How has the poet made the above poem rhythmic? (4 marks)
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ii) How would you say the last two lines of the poem? (2 marks)
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b) The underlining indicates the stressed word in the sentences below. Briefly explain what each
sentence means. (3 marks)
I bought a camera for you.
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I bought a camera for you.
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I bought a camera for you.
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c) Write another word with a similar pronunciation for each of the ones given below. (4 marks)
(i) Clime................................................................................................
(ii) Packed.............................................................................................
(iii) Blew................................................................................................
(iv) Serial................................................................................................
d) Your friend wishes to visit you over the December holidays but she has never been to your place.
She requests you to give her directions that will enable her reach your home. How would you
ensure that the directions you give enable her to reach her destination? (4 Marks)
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e) Imagine you have been invited to give a speech on the topic “Devastating effects of Covid19.”
State three introductory strategies of your speech. (3 Marks)
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f. Study the genre below and answer the questions that follow.
If Peter Piper picked a peck of pickled peppers, where’s the peck of pickled peppers Peter Piper
picked?
i) Giving a reason, classify the genre. (2 marks)
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ii) Identify the dominant sound pattern used in the above genre. (2 marks)
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iii) State two functions of the genre above. (2marks)

iv) If the above genre was to be translated to another language, what would be lost? (1 mark)
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g. Indicate whether you would use falling intonation or rising intonation in the sentences below.
(3mks)
i) Did you remember to buy tomatoes? ………………………………………………
ii) Where did you buy these? ………………………………………………………..
iii) Open the window! ………………………………………………………………

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

ENGLISH
101/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

 Write your name, Index number and the name of your school in the spaces provided above.
 Sign and write date of examination in the spaces provided above.
 Answer all the questions in this question paper.
 All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper
.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

QUESTIONS TOTAL MARKS SCORES
1 Comprehension 20
2 Literary appreciation 25
3 Poem 20
4 Grammar 15
TOTAL 80
1. COMPREHENSION
Read the following passage then answer the questions thereafter.
It is a matter of time before more ex-convicts are offloaded back into communities as authorities try to
decongest prisons whose populations are above the recommended capacity.
Subject to the advice and recommendations of the power of Mercy advisory Committee (POMAC),
about 900 “reformed” hardcore convicts will be released.
This will be in addition to 3,908 petty offenders released since June 1, through a presidential pardon.
The release of the huge number of prisoners comes at a time when police officers are grappling with
insecurity challenges. When not on standby to deal with incidents of electoral violence, the cops
have to keep tabs on criminal’s gangs that have resurfaced ahead of the General election.
Already these vicious gangs have wreaked havoc in Onganta Rongai, Mombasa and Nakuru where cops
are struggling to tame them. The presence of ex-convicts among communities is, therefore, likely to
make a bad situation worse. From previous experience, some of pardoned prisoners find engaging
in violent robbery, burglary, motor vehicle or livestock theft irresistible.
Cops generally fear the next lot of ex-convicts coming out of prisons will relapse into crime, making
their work more difficult. “Our worry is that many of them will go back into crime, this is not
farfetched but a common trend based on past experiences. Once these guys are set free, the impact
will be instant with crimes shooting up” says a senior police officer, who spoke to the media,
representing the views of some of his colleagues.
But police spokesman Bruno Shiosso says there is no cause for alarm since officers are trained on how
to deal with lawbreakers, and that ex-convicts are no exception when it comes to enforcing law and
order. He said they are certain that prisons authorities will only let out those who proved beyond
doubt that they have reformed and become responsible citizens.
“But for those who think they will go baaack to crime, we shall deal with them within the realms of the
law, “noted Shioso.
The police fear is understandable since recently, a former convict bludgeoned his mother to death in
Riagicheru Village of Kirinyaga County. Barely days after being released from jail last month
Ephantus Kiura shocked locals when he allegedly killed Grace Muthoni Ndambiri on June 12 by
hitting the elderly woman with a blunt object.
Kiura had been imprisoned at the Gathigiriri Prison by a court in Mwea for torching his 76-year old
mother’s house. Upon earning freedom through a presidential pardon, the man brutally killed his
mother. He was among the 3,908 petty offenders released from prison in a decongestion programme.
Kiura was a beneficiary of the community service order. However, he never waited to serve the
noncustodial sentence and is now staring at life behind bars for the alleged murder. Petty offenders
put on this form of light punishment are required to perform a specified number of hours of unpaid
work in the community. This, however, does not apply to prisoners serving jail for capital offences.
Authorities admit that it is often difficult to ascertain the prisoners who correctly merit release. Some
of those who make it to the freedom list either fake having reformed or bribe prison officials-
ultimately leading to the wrong individuals being reintegrated back into communities. Though stake
holders have no right prescription for selecting the right convicts for pardon, the general feeling is

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that more general feeling is that more attention should be put on rehabilitation of inmates to achieve
the desired change.
“Prisons have turned into containment facilities as opposed to rehabilitation centres where inmates and
convicts are turned into responsible citizens” states Ambrose Ngare, a former prisons boss.
According to Ngare, now executive director of Africa Institute of Criminology, a non-governmental
organization dealing in restorative justice, it is pointless releasing prisoners without first
endeavouring to reconcile them with the victims they wronged.

QUESTIONS (20 MKS)

1. What is the main reason the advisory committee gives for the release of convicts? (1 mk)
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2. Give the main concerns of the police officers in connection to the release of the ex-convicts.(2 mks)
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3. State the crimes the offenders have been accused of engaging in. (3 mks)
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4. Give the total number of ex-convicts the police officers expects in the communities. (1 mk)
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5. In about 55 words, chronologically summarise the criminal life of Ephantus Kiura. (5 mks)
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6. Cops generally fear the next lot of ex-convicts will relapse into crime. Identify the phrasal
quantifier in the sentence. (1 mk)
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7. Identify the attitude of the public towards the released ex-convicts. (3 mks)
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8. What does the writer mean by (2 mks)

‘Prisons have turned into containment facilities as opposed to rehabilitation centres’
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9. Give the meaning of the following words. (2 mks)

i) grappling ……………………………………………………………………………………
ii) right prescription …………………………………………………………………………….

2. EXCERPT (25 MARKS)

Bembe:You have a reputation for being too strong-willed to be suitable for a school teacher.
You're as stubborn as a mule.
Nicole:What crime is that?
Bembe:Well, it is not a crime as such; but don't you think it is a bad influence to the students?
(Bangs the table violently and shouts an order. Two police officers enter.) Handcuff
her!(There is a commotion as the officers reach out to Nicole. She resists but is
overwhelmed. There is an interval of silence as Bembe begins to rummage through papers
on Nicole's table. Nicole refuses to move and sits down on the floor. The officers drug her
on the door) Stop. (The officers stop. There is silence. Then Bembe moves behind
Nicole'stable and starts pulling the drawers open, one after the other) Where have you
hidden it?
Nicole:Hidden what?

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Bembe:The Samaritan! (Nicole is visibly surprised at the answerbut remains silent) I will tell you
this, whenever you see mepersonally involved in an arrest, you must know it's aserious
matter, as serious as death. And you should be afraid. Very afraid!
Nicole:I am not guilty of anything, and I refuse to be intimidated!(Inspector Bembe bangs the
table violently with his gun.Nicole recoils with a start.) Woman! Show sumseriousness!
This is no laughing matter. Are you willing to talk?
Nicole:About what? (There is silence as Inspector Bembe wearshis beret and places his scepter
under his armpits)
Bembe:About The Samaritan.
Nicole:What about The Samaritan?
Bembe:Where is it?
Nicole:I don't understand you?
Bembe:Where is it? (He repeats angrily)
Nicole:(Swinging her head in disbelief) I have no such thing in my possession, but you can
download it from the internet.
Bembe:(Hitting Nicole on the face with a bunch of papers) Now you have to tell those two
students to shut that thing off. Alright?
Nicole:Why should I?
Bembe:Because it is the right thing to do!
Nicole:I have no right to dictate what they do with their App.
Bembe:Then you have to shut it down yourself! We believe The Samaritan is your brainchild!
The two students are just a cover-up! And the App is a grave danger to society!
Nicole:Mr. Inspector, when The Samaritan helps us fight environmental degradation by exposing
the culprits, is that dangerous?
Bembe:Fighting environmental degradation is none of the school's business! We have competent
agencies employed to do that! Teach the authorized curriculum.
Nicole:When it helps us to know who supplies air to the Municipal Council instead of goods and
services, is that dangerous?

QUESTIONS
(a) Briefly outline the events preceding this excerpt. (3 marks)
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(b) In the light of what has been happening in the text, why does Inspector Bembe tell Nicole that
she has a reputation for being too strong-willed to be suitable for a school teacher? (2 marks)
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(c) Discuss two thematic concerns of the writer raised in the excerpt. (4marks)
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(d) Identify one character trait of each of the following characters:

(i) Inspector Bembe
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(ii) Nicole
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(e) (i) Because it is the right thing to do! (Rewrite replacing "Because" with another subordinating
conjunction) (1 mark)
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(ii) You're as stubborn as a mule. (Rewrite adding a question tag) (1 mark)

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(iii) You're just confirming some of the other accusations that have been made against you.
(Rewrite replacing the underlined word with a phrasal verb) (1 mark)
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(f) Pick out two stylistics devices employed in the excerpt and illustrate them. (4 marks)
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(g) (i) We believe The Samaritan is your brainchild! (Rewrite in the passive voice) (1 mark)
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(ii) Then you have to shut it down yourself! (Rewrite ending with "then") (1 mark)
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(h) Explain the meanings of the following words used in the excerpt. (3 marks)
• Download –

 Brainchild

• Grave

3. Read the poem below and answer questions that follow:

I AM TIRED OF TALKING IN METAPHORS
I will talk plainly,
Because I am moved to abandon riddles,
I will tell you of how
We held our heads in our hands
Because the owl hooted all night
And the dogs howled as if mourning
We waited the bad news
We received it.
Our mother blinded in one eye
Crippled in the right leg
Because she did not vote
For her husband’s candidate
I will remind you
Of when the peeled plantains
Stood upright in the cooking pot
We slaughtered a cock,
Anticipating an important visitor
We got her:
Our daughter – piece of flesh in a sack
Our present from her husband

No! I will not use metaphors

I will just talk to you:
I do not fight to take your place
Or to constantly wave my fist in you face
I refuse to argue about

Your “manly pact”

with my father
You’ re buying me for a bag of potatoes
And pepper
All I want
Is for you to stop denying me
My presence needs no metaphors

I am here
Just as you are
I am not a machine
To dismantle whenever you whim
I demand my human dignity
QUESTIONS
a) Who is the persona in this poem? (2 mks)
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b) What are the thematic concerns of the poem. (4 mks)

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c) Explain the speaker’s attitude towards the subject matter. (3 mks)

d) Give a character trait of the speaker. (2 mks)

e) Discuss two elements of tradition highlighted in the poem. (4 mks)

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f) Identity two features of style used in the poem. (4 mks)

g) Our mother blinded in one eye. Crippled in the right leg. (Join using a conjunction) (1mk)
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4. GRAMMAR (15 MKS)
a) Give the meaning of the idiomatic expression used in the following sentences. (3 mks)
i) The long-awaited guests arrived at the eleventh hour.
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ii) After thorough revision of the text the teacher told the students’ the ball is in your court.’
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iii) After being arrested the thief spilt the beans about their spoil.
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b) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each. (3 mks)
i) Njoki did not know it was a dangerous vocation. (Rewrite using……………how…..)
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ii) Someone saw Kirimi leaving the plane in Khartoum. (Begine: Kirimi……………….)
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iii) She opened the window and a bat flew out. (End in: a bat)
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c) Complete the following sentences using the appropriate form of the word given in
brackets.
i) Sophie’s mother ………………………………….of her wearing very tight clothes in
church. (approve)
ii) His …………………………….cost him his job. (efficient)
iii) The ……………………….of the traveller’s was hindered by the poor roads. (mobile)

d) Replace the underlined word with the gender neutral word.

i) The foreman arrived late and delayed the construction.
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ii) The housegirl died in the inferno.
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e) Explain the two different meanings in each of the following sentences. (4 mks)
i) The students will read the books in the library.
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ii) The man looked at the cow with one eye.

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

ENGLISH
101/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

a) Answer three questions only
b) In question three choose only one of the optional set texts you have prepared on.
c) Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional text, only the first one to appear
will be marked.
d) Each of your essays must not exceed 450 words.
e) All answers to be written in the answer booklet provided.

For Examiner’s Use Only

QUESTIONS TOTAL MARKS SCORES

1 Imaginative writing 20

2 Compulsory set text 20

3 Optional set text 20

TOTAL 60

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Answer three questions only
In question 3, choose only one of the optional texts you have prepared on.
1. Imaginative composition (compulsory) (20 mks)
Either
a) Write a composition beginning: “The deafening silence was broken by shouts and
screams. As I crawled out of bed, I knew that the worst had finally happened…”

b) “A bad workman always quarrels with his tool”. Write a story to bring out the meaning
of the saying. (20 mks)

2. Compulsory
“Greed is dehumanizing.” Drawing your illustrations from Fathers of Nations by Paul B. Vitta
write an essay supporting this statement. (20 marks)

3. Optional set texts.

Either
Godwin Siundu, A Silent Songs and Other Stories
Marriage is a valued cultural and religious practice in most African communities. Using
relevant illustrations from The Truly Married Woman by Abioseh Nicol, write an essay
in support of this statement. (20 marks)

Or
b) Drama
Adipo Sidang, Parliament of Owls.
"Life is full of ironies." Using illustrations from Parliament of Owls, by Adipo Sidang, write an
essay to justify this statement. (20 marks)

c) The Novel
Kazuo Ishiguro, An Artist of the Floating World
The author has been able to effectively employ irony to bring out the message of the text.
Illustrate the effectiveness of this style in the text An Artist of The floating world by Kazuo
Ishiguro (20 marks)
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

KISWAHILI
102/1
KARATASI YA 1
MUDA: SAA 1¾
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

MAAGIZO KWA MTAHINIWA:

Maagizo
1. Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
2. Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia.
3. Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
4. Kila insha ina alama 20.
5. Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
6. Insha zote sharti ziandikwe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa kwenye kijitabu hiki cha maswali.

Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee.

Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
Jumla 40

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MASWALI
1. Wewe ni katibu wa jopo lililochunguza sababu zinazozifanya jamii mbalimbali nchini zisiwe na
maridhiano na utangamano. Andika ripoti.

2. Mtoto mvulana anakabiliwa na hatari ya kukosa kufaulu masomoni kuliko mtoto msichana katika
karne hii. Fafanua.

3. Andika insha inayofafanua ukweli wa methali: Bila silaha usiingie vitani.

4. Andika insha itakayoanza kwa maneno yafuatayo: Sauti hiyo ilikuwa ya kutisha…
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

KISWAHILI
102/2
KARATASI YA 2
MUDA: SAA 2½
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

MAAGIZO
 Andika jina lako na namba yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
 Weka sahihi yako na tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa
 Jibu maswali yote.
 Majibu yaandikwe katika nafasi zilizoachwa wazi katika kijitabu hiki cha maswali.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE.

SWALI UPEO ALAMA

1 15

2 15

3 40

4 10

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1.SEHEMU YA A UFAHAMU (15)
Soma ufahamu huu kisha uyajibu maswali yanayofuata:
Basi huu ni mwanzo tu Mwanzo wa ngoma ni lele.Huu ni mwanzo wa safari ndefu .Itachukua miaka na
mikaka.Lakini msiwe na papara.Sharti mwanzo tutanabahi twaelekea wapi ndipo tuamue tutasafirije
.Tahadhari na hatari ya hasira , visasi na papara pamoja na maradhi yanayozidi yote yaani maradhi
ya matumaini yanayozidi uhalisia.Matumaini yaliopindukia ndiyo huwalewesha watu wakadhani
watapata afueni wakizifuata pepo za siasa za chama kimoja au siasa za vyama vingi , mfumo wa
soko huria au mfumo wa ukiritimba , mfumo wa utandawazi au mfumo wa kibepari , utawala wa
kidekteta au utawala wa kidemokrasia na udini, ujamaa na ukomonisti na kadhalika.
Hatari kabisa ni ya kujenga nyumba ya karata.Nasema tena,tahadhari na ulevi wa ushindi .Mimi
nashauri hivi ;hatua ya kwanza ya elimu si elimu ya shahada au stashahada zipatikanazo
vyuoni.Elimu ya kuijielewa sisi ni nani twatoka wapi , twaelekea wapi na tutaurejeshaje utu pahali
pake mahsusi toka kule mwituni kwa wanyama uliotokomea.
“Amani awe mtemi !”Umati ukadai Hapana hata kidogo.Badala yake acha amani iwe na mtemi mpya
msinivishe joho ambalo si makamo yangu kulivaa,” aliwaambia .”Kaeni mfikirie vyema juu ya
mustakabali wenu.Nilichodhamiria mimi ni kushirikiana na ndugu yangu Madhubuti kumnyonyoa
kipungu mmoja , ila sikutaka niingie pahala pake niruke juu nikijihadaa kwamba nitafika mbinguni.”
Ila msikubali dhuluma .Dhuluma msikubali , ikija dhuluma tena msimlaumu mtu mwingine, jilaumini
wenyewe.Jilaumini tu wenyewe .Nawakumbusha tu kwamba kuwepo mamlakani kwa mtemi
Hamisi muda huu wote si kosa lake tu .Alisema Amani.Ni kosa letu sote .Ni kosa letu sote kwa
kukubali dhuluma zake na udahlili wetu.Kwa kila mtawala katili kuna umma uliomruhusu ama
kumpa uwezo wa kutekeleza ukatili wake.
Pia hatuwezi kuwa binadamu kamili endapo hatuoni walemavu kama wenzetu .Tutakuwa tumelemaa
ulemavu mbaya zaidi kuliko ulemavu.Kauli hii ilkuwa tokeo la funzo alilojifunza Mwalimu Fasiri
kutokana na amali na kalima za imani kuwaelekea Watoto wake walemavu.

Maswali
a)Kulingana na mwandishi ni mambo gani ambayo yafaa tujitahadharishe nayo? (alama 3)
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b)Tambua aina za elimu katika maisha . (alama3)

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c)Kulingana na taarifa ni mambo gani yanayochochea dhuluma katika jamii? (alama 4)
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d)Ukirejelea kifungu hiki, eleza maana ya ngoma ni lele. (alama 2)

e)Binadamu kamili ana sifa gani? (alama 1)

f)Eleza maana ya vifungu hivi kama vilivyotumika katika kifungu;

i)nikijihadaa nitafika mbinguni (alama 1)
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ii)Kumnyonyoa kipungu(alama 1)
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2. SEHEMU YA B. UFUPISHO (alama 15)

Soma kifungu kisha ujibu maswali
Ripoti za kila mara kuhusu uharibifu wa pesa za umma katika serikali za kaunti ni za kusikitisha
.Kuna mabilioni ya pesa za mlipa ushuru ambazo hufujwa katika serikali kuu na hivyo basi
wananchi wanakosewa sana wanapoona mtindo huu ukiendelea pia katika serikali za kaunti.
Wakati katiba ilipitishwa mwaka wa 2010, Wakenya wengi walikuwa na matumaini mno kwamba

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ugatuzi ungewatatulia matatizo ambayo walikuwa wakiyapitia katika tawala zilizotangulia hasa
katika maeneo yaliotengwa kimaendeleo.
Miaka Ishirini na mbili baadaye, kuna mafanikio yamepatikana ila hatua kubwa Zaidi inaweza
kupigwa katika kuboresha Maisha ya raia kama mianya ianyotumiwa kufuja pesa za raia itazibwa.
Wizi huu unajumuisha pia jinsi magavana wanavyobuni nafasi za kazi zisizo na maana ambazo
wakati mwingine hutoewa kwa jamaa na marafiki wao , ni sharti ukomeshwe mara moja.
Kuna wananchi wengi ambao tayari wameanza kufa moyo kuhusu umuhimu wa ugatuzi ilhali ukwel
ni kwamba hatungependa kurejelea utawala ulio chini ya serikali kuu pekee.Changamoto za
ugatuzi zinazosababishwa na ulafi wa viongozi wachache zinatoa nafasi kwa wakosoaji wa mfumo
wa uongozi kushawishi wananchi n ahata wahisani wasishughulike kuchangia katika maendeleo ya
kaunti zao.
Juhudi zozote zile za maendeleo haziwezi kufanikishwa bila ushirikiano kutoka kwa wananchi na
wahisani na hivyo basi ni jukumu la viongozi kuonyesha nia ya kutumia mamlaka walizopewa
kwa manufaa ya raia. Tume ya maaddili ya kupambana na ufisadi (EACC) kufikia sasa
imeonekana kufanya kazi nzuri kwa kuwasaka na kuwashtaki magavana walio mamlakani na
wengine walioondoka kwa kushukiwa kufuja mali za umma.Tungependa asasi zote zinazohusika
na msuala ya kupambana na uhalifu , Pamoja na wadu wengine katika jamii wenye nia njema kwa
wananchi wasitambue mambo maovu yanayotendeka katika kaunti zao.
Nchi hii inatawala kwa misingi ya kisheria na hivyo basi hakuna sababu kumhurumia kiongozi
yeyote anayekiuka sheria anapokuwa mamlakani kwa msingi wa mamlaka anayoyashikilia .Ni
kupitia adhabu kali za kisheria pekee ambapo tutafanikiwa kukomesha uongozi mbaya kwani
kama wananchi watakuwa wakisubiri kuwaadhibu wahusika kwa kuwaondoa mamlakani pekee
watakuwa wametoa nafasi ya ufujaji kwa viongozi wapya kila miaka mitano.

a) Fupisha ujumbe wa aya tatu za kwanza kwa maneno 80. (Alama 8, alama 1 ya mtiririko)
Matayarisho
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Nakala safi
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b)Fupisha aya mbili za mwisho kwa maneno 70.(alama 7, 1 ya mtiririko)

Matayarisho
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Jibu
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3.SEHEMU YA C: SARUFI NA MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (alama40)

a)i)Andika vigezo muhimu vya kuainisha konsonanti (alama 2)
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ii)Tofautisha sauti zifuatazo /sh/ na /ch/ (alama 1)

b)Tumia kiimbo katika sentensi mbili tofauti sahii kudhihirisha uamilifu wake. (al.2)
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c)Eleza maana za maneno yafuatayo kwa kuzingatia mahali ambapo shadda imewekwa (alama 2)
‘ala………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) Fafanua dhana ya sauti mwambatano kwa kutolea mfano sahihi. (alama 2)

.e)Bainisha majukumu ya viambishi katika kitenzi hiki (alama 2)

Nimemkimbilia
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f)Weka nomino hizi katika ngeli mwafaka

i)debe……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii)Mtaimbo………………………………………………………………………………………………
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g)Yakinisha
Mgonjwa yule hasikii wala kusema lolote.(alama2)
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h)Andika kwa ukubwa (alama2)

Panya huyo alinaswa mtegoni na nyama kubwa mdomoni.
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i)Geuza kauli iliyo kwenye mabano

i)Wanyama pori huwavutia watalii(tendwa)(alama1)
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j)Andika katika usemi halisi (alama3)
Mama alitaka kujua kama kulikuwa na jamaa yake ambaye alikuwa ameugua ugonjwa huo.
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k)Tumia kiwakilishi cha pekee chenye kuleta dhana ya msisitizo katika sentensi sahihi (alama2)
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l)Changanua kwa njia ya mstari (alama 4)

Waswahili husema chema chajiuza ,kibaya chajitembeza.
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m)Andika sentensi upya kulingana na maagizo (alama2)

Ongezeko la visa vya uhalifu linatishia kuangamiza amani katika miaka ya hivi karibuni.
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n)Tunga sentensi moja kwa kutumia kirai kihusishi kisha uigie mstari (alama 2)
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o)Bainisha vishazi
Tangu alipowasili kutoka Nairobi amewasaidia maskini wengi. ( alama 2)
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p)Eleza matumizi mawili ya alama ya mkato (alama2)
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q)Onyesha shamirisho na chagizo katika sentensi ifuatayo (alama 3)

Wanawali walirembeshwa nyusi kwa wanja mweusi.
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r)Kamilisha methali ifuatayo (alama 1)

Mchama ago hanyeli…………………………………………………………………………………

4.ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)

a)Taja mambo matatu yanayopelekea kufa kwa lugha (alama 3)
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b)Isimujamii ina umuhimu gani kwa wanafunzi wa Shule ya Upili ? (alama 4)

c)Andika sifa tatu utakayotumia kuwatangazia watu kuhusu kinyang’anyiro cha soka. (alama3)
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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES

KISWAHILI
102/3
KARATASI YA 3
MUDA: SAA 2½
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

Hati Ya Kuhitimu Kisomo Cha Sekondari

(K.C.S.E)
MAAGIZO KWA WATAHINIWA
 Andika jina lako, shule, nambari ya mtihani kisha utie sahihi katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu
 Jibu maswali manne pekee
 Swali la kwanza ni la lazima
 Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki yaani Riwaya,
Tamthilia, Hadithi fupi na Ushairi
 Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
 Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili pekee.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1. 20
20
20
20
JUMLA
1. SEHEMU YA A: FASIHI SIMULIZI
(SWALI LA LAZIMA ALA. 20)
Soma utungo ufuatao kasha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.
Nilipokukopoa,
Cheko la mwivu wangu lilipaa sana
Ukewenza ukamshawishi kuchukua buruji kueneza habari.
“Njooni mwone jana la ajabu.”
“Hajawahi kuonekana kama huyu
Tangu kuumbwa kwa ulimwengu.”
Ndivyo walisema walokubeza
Kijiji kizima kilimiminika mwangu nyumbani
Kuyatuma maozi kukutazama weye
Uso na thamani walikwona,
Wakaupa unyonge moyo wangu toto,
Wakanituma kuola viungo vyako
Wakanitanabahisha upungufu ulokulemaza!
Chozi chungu likapukitika
Likalovya change kidari
Likalovya chaoko kipaji
Tabasamu ukatoa kunihakikishia
“Mimi si mjalana!
Katu sivyo wasemavyo walimwengu!”
Neno lako hili likanipa tulivu
Nikaamua alakulihali kupambana na yangu jumuiya
Ilpsema kwa moja kauli utokomezwe, chakani utupwe.
Tazameni mahasidi mloteka
Teko la dharau mlonimwaiya
Mkanitia ukiwa usomithilika!
Oleni! Tungeni macho!
Mwana mlioambaa ukoma
<lomwinga ja nyuni wala mtama, tazameni
Mekuwa malaika, anowaauni
Kiguru mlomtajia hakimzuwii kufuma mishale!
Maadui wamwonapo hutetema kama jani
Mefagia vijiji vinane kwa pigo moja la kiganja chake
Mepigana vita visohisabika
Na Wetu mahasimu waliotupoka na mifugo.

Jamii yetu sasa metawala kote

Umekuwa nahodha mwenye kubwa saburi
Akili yako nyepesi sumaku kweli kweli

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Hupakata yote ya neema na shwari
Mwili wako japo lemavu,
Mesheheni nguvu za majagina mia moja!
Naposhika zana, maadui elfu huanguka!
Umeifaa jamii hii, ilotaka kuangamiza
Majagina wote, wakusujudia
Walokufurusha wamebaki hizika
Watukuka ewe shibli
Mfano wa Shaka Zulu
Alowayeyusha kama barafu.

Limwengu mzima wakujua, mwana

Alozawa kishika mkuki
Ulosema na miungu, alfajiri lipoukumbatia ulimwengu
Wla mwana jihadhari usaliti wao waja
Wasije kutosa lindini kwa nduli kukukabidhi.

MASWALI
(a) Ainisha utungo huu kimuundo na kimaudhui. (ala. 2)
(b) Eleza sifa tatu za mighani ambazo zinajitokeza katika utungo huu. (ala.6)
(c) Jadili fani katika wimbo huu. (ala.5)
(d) Jadili sifa za jamii iliyoizaa kazi hii. (ala. 2)
(e) Ni nani anayimba wimbo huu (nafsineni)? (ala.1)
(f) Eleza tofauti 4 kati ya mighani na visasili (ala.4)

SEHEMU YA B: NGUU ZA JADI

Jibu swali la 2 au 3.
2. “Ufisadi ni kikwazo cha maendeleo katika jamii. Fafanua kulingana na riwaya ya Nguu za
Jadi.(al.20)

3. “Hakika kila mtu ni mhusika mkuu katika kisa cha maisha yake mwenyewe."
a. Fafanua muktadha wa dondoo hili. (al.4)
b. Tibithisha ukweli kuwa mrejelewa wa maneno haya aliipa hadhira yake kitu cha
kuwatia moyo. (al.16)

SEHEMU C: TAMTHILIA YA BEMBEA YA MAISHA

Jibu swali la 4 au 5
4. Eleza nafasi ya mbinu ya kuchanganya ndimi katika ujenzi wa tamthilia ya bembea ya maisha
(alama20)
5.

'Nilikupata wapi? Mahututi!'

(a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili (alama4)
(b) Bainisha mbinu mbili za kimtindo zilizomo kwenye dondoo (alama2)
(c) Onyesha toni ya msemaji (alama2)
(d) Jadili changamoto alizopitia msemewa wa maneno haya (alama12)

SEHEMU YA D: HADITHI FUPI

Jibu swali la 6 au 7
6. Umaskini ni donda sugu katika hadithi kifo cha suluhu, huku ukitoa hoja ishirini jadili alama 20

7. ''Isije ikawa mwenye nyumba kaja naye mwenyeji kachelewa kumfungulia mlango;
itakua balaa bin beluwa''
a. Weka dondoo hii katika mukthadha wake (al.4)
b. Tambua mbinu ya lugha inayojitokeza katika dondoo hili. (al.2)
c. Eleza namna mbinu uliyotambua imetumika katika hadithi nzima (al.14)

SEHEMU YA E: USHAIRI
8. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali yaliyofuata.
1. Jambo lolote ni nia, kuweka yako azima,
Hasa ukikusudia, kulepuka la lawama,
Mola takusaidia, kila la ovu kuzama,
Ukiitaka salama, jua hasira hasara.

2. Hakika si masikhara, wa kale waliyosema,

Ni maneno ya busara, tena ni wasia mwema,
Kuwa hasira hasara, ghadhabu zisizokoma,
Ukiitaka salama, jua hasira hasara.

3. Mja katu haitaki, hasira kuziandama,

Punguza zako hamaki, moyo uwe na huruma,
Kwani zikizidi chuki, hapo huja uhasama,
Ukiitaka salama, jua hasira hasara.

4. Na uhasama ujapo, uadui kukwegema,

Hapo ndipo upatapo, kukufikia zahama,
Mwisho ndipo ujutapo, ikabaki kulalama,
Ukiitaka salama, jua hasira hasara.

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5. La usawa sinyamai, kukweleza ni lazima
Chuki nyingi hazifai, hebu tuliza mtima,
Waweza tupa uhai, au nyingi darahima,
Ukiitaka salama, jua hasira hasara.

6. Upunguze wako mori, mwana na mtu mzima,

Upoze moyo wa hari, hasira zipate hama,
Subira huvuta heri, ikaleta na neema,
Ukiitaka salama, jua hasira hasara.

7. Kifaya nilipofika, hapa ndiyo kaditama,

Sahibu wasia shika, hasira si kitu chema,
Mtegemee Rabuka, atakulinda Karima,
Ukiitaka salama, jua hasira hasara.
MASWALI
a) Toa anwani mwafaka kwa shairi hili. (Al. 1)
b) Ainisha shairi hili kwa kuzingatia:- (Al. 4)
i) Mishororo
ii) Vipande
c) Fafanua umbo la shairi hili. (Al. 4)
d) Dhihirisha matumizi ya idhini ya mshairi katika shairi hili. (Al. 3)
e) Andika ubeti wa sita kwa lugha tutumbi. (Al. 3)
f) Eleza toni ya shairi hili. (Al. 2)
g) Ni nani nafsineni katika shairi hili? Eleza (Al. 1)
h) Fafanua msamiati ufuatao kama ulivyotumika shairini. (Al. 2)
i) Mtima
ii) Darahima
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
MATHEMATICS
121/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two sections; Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer all the questions in Section I and any five questions from Section II
(e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces provided
below each question
(f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be used,
except where stated otherwise.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II
Total Grand
Total
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

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SECTION I (50 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided below each question
1. Ibrahim spends a quarter of his monthly salary on school fees, one-ninth on water and electricity
bills, two-thirds of the remainder on house up keep and saves the rest. The difference between
what he saves and the amount he spends on house up keep is Kshs. 10,350. Calculate Ibrahim’s
monthly salary. (3 marks)

2. Lessons in Lake Primary and Kisumu Girls High Schools take 30 minutes and 40 minutes
respectively. The two bells ring simultaneously at 7.50 a.m. How many times will they ring
together again between 7.50 a.m. and 3 p.m.? (3 marks)

3. Complete the figure below to show a rotational symmetry of order 6 about O. (3 marks)

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4. The sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon is 12600. Find the number of sides of the
polygon, hence give the name of the polygon. (3 marks)

5. Find the inequalities that satisfy the region labeled R in the figure below. (3 marks)

6. Rodi walked from Kisian to Otonglo, a distance of 8 km for 1½ hours. He then took a motorbike to
Rabuor that traveled at a speed of 80 km/h and took 15 minutes. From Rabuor, he boarded a car to
Kendu Bay, 60 km away and took 45 minutes to arrive in Kendu Bay. Calculate his average
velocity for the whole journey. (3 marks)
7. Simplify the expression (3 marks)
(−4𝑏 + 3𝑎)2 − (3𝑎 + 4𝑏)2
12𝑎

8. A saleslady earns a commission of 3% and 5% for sale of goods up to Kshs. 100,000 and above
Kshs. 100,000 respectively. In a certain month. Sarah’s total commission was Kshs. 15,100.
Calculate the value of goods that Sarah sold that month. (3 marks)

9. The position vectors of points A and B are 2𝒊 − 3𝒋 + 9𝒌 and −5𝒊 + 𝒌 respectively. Calculate
|𝑨𝑩|, leaving your answer in surd form. (4 marks)

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10. Nerry paid Kshs. 955,000 for a car at Sammy Traders. This was a discount of 4.5%. Sammy
Traders made a profit of 16% from this sale. What is the amount of profit that Sammy Traders
realized from this sale? Give your answer to the nearest Kshs. 100. (4 marks)

11. Solve for 𝜃 in the equation

2 sin(2𝜃 − 300 ) = 1 for 00 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 3600 (4 marks)

12. The line below shows a diagonal of a rhombus PQRS. Given that QS=5 cm, complete the
rhombus. Hence find the PQ. (3 marks)
13. The cost of three toners and four cartridges is Kshs. 36,000. Oyoo bought one more toner and one
less cartridge that are similar to the above and paid and paid Kshs. 1,500 more. Calculate the cost
of one toner and one cartridge. (3 marks)

14. A measuring cylinder has a diameter of 7 cm. Water fills the cylinder up to a height of 6 cm. A
solid sphere is immersed into the cylinder and the height of water in the cylinder increases to 10
cm. calculate the radius of the sphere correct to 4 significant figures. (3 marks)

15. The figure below shows an open cuboid ABCDEFGH. A particle traces a path from A to E
through C as indicated by the arrows. Draw the net of the solid and show the path on it. (3 marks)

16. Without using a calculator or mathematical table, solve for 𝑥 in (2 marks)

𝑥 5 = 161,051

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SECTION II (50 marks)
Answer any five questions in this section
17. A cylindrical milk urn has diameter 40 cm and height 1.4 metres.
22
(a) Calculate the capacity of milk in litres in the urn when it is full, to the nearest litre. Use π = .
7
(2 marks)

(b) The milk is packed into tetrahedron packets of capacity 200 ml. Calculate the number of packets
used. (2 marks)

(c) The packets are packed into boxes that contain 24 packets each. How many complete boxes are
used to package the milk? (2 marks)

(d) Each box is sold at Kshs. 840, a profit of 12%. Calculate the buying price of each packet.(4 mks)
18. The figure below shows a histogram drawn for marks scored by students in a mathematics contest

(a) State the modal class. (1 mark)

(b) Draw a frequency distribution table from the histogram. (2 marks)

(d) On the histogram, draw a vertical line showing where the median mark lies (4 marks)

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5
19. The displacement 𝑆 of a particle after t seconds is given by 𝑆 = 4𝑡 3 − 𝑡 2 − 3𝑡 + 3.
2
Determine the:
(a) velocity of the particle when 𝑡 = 3 (3 marks)

(b) value of 𝑡 when the particle is instantaneously at rest (3 marks)

(c) displacement when the particle is instantaneously at rest. (2 marks)

(d) acceleration of the particle when 𝑡 = 2 seconds (2 marks)

20. The distance between towns A and B is 360km. A minibus left town A at 8.15 a.m. and traveled
1
towards town B at an average speed of 90km/hr. A matatu left town B, 2 hours later on the same
3
day and travelled towards A at average speed of 110km/hr.
(a) (i) At what time of the day did the two vehicles meet? (4 marks)

(ii) How far from A did the two vehicles meet? (2 marks)

(b) A motorist started from her home at 10.30 a.m. on the same day as the matatu and travelled at an
average speed of 100 km/h. She arrived at B at the same time as the minibus. Calculate the
distance from A to her house. (4 marks)

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21. In the figure below, PQRS is a trapezium. PQ is parallel to SR. The diagonals SQ and PR intersect
at T and SR=2PQ. 𝑷𝑸 = 𝒒, 𝑷𝑺 = 𝒔, 𝑷𝑻 = ℎ𝑷𝑹 and 𝑺𝑻 = 𝑘𝑺𝑸, where ℎ and 𝑘 are constants

(a) Find in terms of 𝒒 and 𝒔:

(i) 𝑸𝑹; (2 marks)

(ii) 𝑷𝑻; (2 marks)

(iii) 𝑺𝑻. (1 mark)

(b) Determine the values of ℎ and 𝑘 (5 marks)

22. The figure below, two circles, centres E and G and radii 5 cm and 12 cm respectively intersect at F
and H. EG = 13 cm.

(a) Show that EFG = 900. (3 marks)

(b) Calculate
(i) the size of obtuse FEH (3 marks)

(ii) the area of the shaded part, correct to 2 decimal places. Use π=3.142 (4 marks)

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23. (a) Fill the table below for the function 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 2 for −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 5 (2 marks)
𝑥 −1 0 1 2 3 4 5
𝑦
(b) (i) Draw the graph of the function 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 2 for −1 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 5 (3 marks)

(ii) On the same axes, draw line 𝑦 = 𝑥 – 1 (1 mark)

(c) Determine the values of x at the points of intersection between the curve 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 2 and line
𝑦 = 𝑥– 1 (2 marks)

(d) Give the equation of the line of symmetry of the curve (2 marks)
24. In the figure below, ABC is a tangent to the circle at B.

(a) Given that ABG = 420 , EBD = 270 and BGD = 490 , calculate the sizes of the following
angles. Give reasons in each case
(i) DGE (2 marks)

(ii) GFE (3 marks)

(iii)  DBC (2 marks)

(b) Given that BC = 10 cm and CD = 7 cm, calculate TS (3 marks)

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
MATHEMATICS
121/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II Grand
Total
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
SECTION I (50 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided below each question
1. A milk urn has a capacity of 18.48 litres. A cylindrical container of diameter 14 cm and height
10 cm is used to draw milk from the urn for sale. How many times will it be used to completely
drain the milk from the urn? (3 marks)

2. An arithmetic progression is such that its first term and common difference are 3 and 2
respectively. The difference of the last and forty-first terms of this progression is 48. Find the
number of terms in the progression. (3 marks)

3. Make 𝑥 the subject of the formula; (3 marks)

𝑥2 − 𝑞
𝑝=√
𝑟 + 𝑥2

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3 1
4. Find the value of p if the expression 𝑝𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + is a perfect square, given that p is a constant.
2 16
(2 marks)

5. In the figure below, PT is a tangent to the circle from an external point P. PT=24 cm and OP=25
cm.

Calculate the shaded area correct to 2 decimal places. (4 marks)

6. The cost 𝐶 of hiring a conference facility for one day consists of two parts, one which is fixed and
the other varies as the number of participants 𝑛 attending a conference. If Kshs. 45,000 is charged
for hiring the facility for 100 participants and Kshs. 40,000 for 60 participants, find the number of
participants if Kshs. 63,000 is used to hire the facility. (4 marks)
7. (a) Expand (1 + 2𝑥 )6 in ascending powers of 𝑥 up to the term in 𝑥 4 (1 mark)

(b) Use the expansion in (a) above to find the value of (0.98)6 correct to 5 decimal place. (2 marks)

8. The cash price of a deep freezer is Kshs. 50,000. Mary bought the freezer on hire purchase terms
by paying a deposit of Kshs. 25,000 followed by 24 equal monthly instalments of Kshs. 2,250
each. An annual interest, compounded quarterly was charged on the balance for a period of 2
years. Determine, correct to 1 decimal place, the interest rate per month. (4 marks)

9. The equation of a trigonometric function is 𝑦 = 3 sin(𝑎𝜃 − 60)0. The function has a period of
7200 .
(a) Identify the phase angle of the function (1 mark)

(b) Determine the value of 𝑎 (1 mark)

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10. An airport R is 4320 nautical miles to the north of another airport T (450S, 1080E). find the
position of T (3 marks)

11. The table below show the number of days (𝑑) and heights of tree seedlings (ℎ) in a tree nursery
Number of days (𝑑) 1 2 3 4 5
Height (ℎ cm) 3.7 6.0 7.5 8.3 8.8

(a) On the grid provided, draw a graph to represent the information in the table given. (2 marks)

(b) Use the graph to determine the rate of change of height (ℎ) with the number of days at 𝑑 = 3
(2 marks)
7
12. The probability of Kisumu Day High School to win a hockey match is . If it losses in hockey,
8
3
then it has a probability of winning in soccer as . Otherwise, the probability of winning the soccer
4
2
match is . Calculate the probability of the school winning either of the two games. (3 marks)
3

13. The figure below shows a ranch ABCD drawn to a scale of 1: 100,000. A security light tower is to
be installed in the ranch such that it meets the following conditions:

 It is nearer to A than it is to B
 It is at least 200 metres from the point C
 It is further from the line CD than it is to A
Shade the possible region in the ranch where the tower would be installed to meet the above
conditions. (4 marks)

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14. Calculate the percentage error in the perimeter of a circle of radius 3.5 cm. (3 marks)

15. Use logarithms only to evaluate, correct to 4 decimal places (4 marks)

3 14.70 tan 350 24′
√
69.852

16. Solve for x in the equation (3 marks)

log(5𝑥 + 75) − 2 log 3 = log(2𝑥 − 9)
SECTION II (50 marks)
Answer any five questions in this section
18. The table below shows the heights of tree seedlings measured in a tree nursery.
(a) Complete the table below. (2 marks)
Height 𝑓 𝑥 𝑑 = 𝑥 − 5.45
3.0 – 3.9 3
4.0 – 4.9 5
5.0 – 5.9 7
6.0 – 6.9 8
7.0 – 7.9 5
8.0 – 8.9 2

(b) Use the table to calculate the standard deviation correct to decimal places. (4 marks)

(ii) Use the ogive to find the range of height between the 20th and the 80th percentile. (2 marks)

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18. The table below show income tax rate for the year 2019.
Taxable Income (Kshs. per month)Tax rate (Kshs per Kshs. 20)
1 – 12,000 2
12,001 – 22,500 3
22,501 – 33,000 4
33, 000 – 43,500 5
43,501 – 54,000 6
54,001 and over 7
Emerick earns a basic salary of Kshs. 38,780. He is entitled to the following allowances per month:
house allowance – Kshs. 10,000, medical allowance – Kshs. 3,850 and a non-taxable transport
allowance of Kshs. 5,200. He is entitled to a personal tax relief of Kshs. 1,054 monthly.
Calculate:
(a) Emerick’s monthly taxable income. (2 marks)

(b) Emerick’s monthly Pay As You Earn. (5 marks)

(c) His net monthly salary given that the following deductions are made from his monthly pay: NHIF
– Kshs. 3,000, Bank loan – Kshs. 7,568, WCPS – Kshs. 780. (3 marks)
19. The figure below shows a hockey field of dimensions 60 metres by 48 m. The shaded area is an
astroturf that is 𝑥 metres wide.

(c) Form and simplify an expression in x for the:

(i) Area of the field and the astroturf ; (1 mark)

(ii) Area covered by the astroturf. (2 marks)

(d) Given that the shaded area is 220 m2,

(i) find the value of 𝑥; (4 marks)

(ii) calculate the perimeter of the field with the turf. (3 marks)

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20. A′(−6,0), B′(−2, −3) and C′(−2, 0) are the vertices of the image of triangle ABC under a
1 −2
transformation described by the matrix 𝐌 = ( )
0 1
(a) Determine the coordinates of triangle ABC (3 marks)

(b) (i) On the same grid, draw triangles ABC, A′B′C′ (2 marks)

(ii) Describe fully the transformation M (1 mark)

(c) Triangle A′′B′′C′′ is the image of triangle A′B′C′ such that A′′(0, 6), B′′(6, 2) and C′′(0, 2)
(i) Draw triangle A′′B′′C′′on the same axes (1 mark)

(ii) Find a single matrix of transformation that maps triangle ABC onto triangle A′′B′′C′′ (3 marks)

21. (a) Complete the table below giving the values correct to 1 decimal place.
(2 marks)
𝑥0 0 30 60 90 120 150 180 210 240 270 300 330 360
𝑦
3
= 2 sin ( 𝑥) −2.0 −1.1 0.0 2.0 2.8 2.0 1.1 0.0 −2.0
4
3
− 2 cos ( 𝑥)
4
𝑦 = 1 + 2 cos 𝑥 3.0 2.0 1.0 0.0 −0.7 −1.0 0.0 1.0 2.7 3.0

(b) On the grid provided and using the same axes, draw the graphs of
3 3
𝑦 = 2 sin ( 𝑥) − 2 cos ( 𝑥) and 𝑦 = 1 + 2 cos 𝑥 for 00 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3600
4 4
(4 marks)

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(e) Using graphs in part (b),
(i) find the values of 𝑥 for which: (3 marks)
3 3
1 + cos ( 𝑥) = sin ( 𝑥)
4 4

(ii) determine the values of 𝑥 for which: (1 mark)

3 3
2 sin ( 𝑥) − 2 cos ( 𝑥) = 1 + 2 cos 𝑥
4 4
22. Awuor was paid an initial salary of Kshs. 180,000 per annum with a fixed annual increment.
Wasonga was paid and initial salary of Kshs. 150,000 per annum with a 10% increment
compounded annually.
(a) Given that Awuor’s annual salary in the 11th year was Kshs. 288,000, determine:
(i) Her annual increment (3 marks)

(ii) The total amount of money Awuor earned during the 11 years (3 marks)

(b) Determine Wasonga’s monthly earning, correct to the nearest 10 shillings during the 11 th year. (4
marks)

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23. The figure below represents a prism ABCDEFGH of length 6 cm. the section ADEH of the prism is
a trapezium in which AD=11 cm, HE=8 cm, BG=5 cm and ADE=DEH=900

(c) Calculate correct to 1 decimal place;

(i) The angle between line DG and the plane ABCD. (3 marks)

(ii) The angle between planes ABGH and ABCD (3 marks)

(d) Calculate the volume of the prism (4 marks)

24. The figure below shows the area bound by the curve 𝑦 = 5𝑥 − 𝑥 2 and the line 𝑦 = 𝑥

(a) Find 𝑎, the value of 𝑥 at the point of intersection of the curve and the line. (3 marks)

(b) Using the trapezium rule with 4 trapezia, estimate the area of the shaded region. (4 marks)

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
COMPUTER STUDIES
451/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
b) This paper consists of Two sections A and B
c) Answer ALL questions in section A
d) Answer question 16 and any other THREE questions from section B
e) All answers should be written in the spaces provided on the question paper

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION QUSTIONS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
A 1 -15
B 16
17
18
19
20
TOTAL SCORE
SECTION A (40 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in SECTION
1. A programmer always uses command line operating system more than the other types of operating
systems. State two reasons why he likes this type of operating system (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Biometric systems is used for both physical and data security. State three disadvantages of using
biometric systems (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. What is automatic recalculation (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4.
(a) State three causes of data loss in computing (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) List two precautions taken against crashing of hard disk (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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5. Differentiate between COM ports and LPT ports (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Describe three main parts of a file Name (3marks)

7. Ventilation is an important practice in the computer lab because it enhances proper circulation of
air. Outline three ways in which air is regulated in the computer room. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Warranty must be signed during the purchase of a computer. Name three items a buyer must
consider before signing the warranty (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Mention two cause of system entropy (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Explain why two’s complement is preferred to one’s complement in computing. (1marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Computers have evolved through a number of generations. List three limitations of the first
generation of computers. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Identify the type of operating system represented in Figure 1 and 2 (2marks)

Figure 1 Figure 2
__________________________________________________________________________________

13. Give two benefits of writing a program in Low Level programming Language (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. State four function of an operating system in respect to disk management (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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15. Due to rapid changes in Technology the World is slowly moving from the magnetic and optical
storage devices to solid state storage devices
(a) Define the term solid state storage devices (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give two advantages of solid state storage devices (2marks)

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

16.
(a) State three basic types of program control structures (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Mention three causes of syntax errors (3marks)

(c) An organization intends to increase salaries of employees using the following rates
Current Salary Percentage Increase
Greater than or equal to 70000 5%
Greater than 50,000 and less than 70,000 8%
Less than or Equal to 50,000 10%

Design a flowchart that reads the total population of the employee in the organizatio n and the perform
the following for each employee (9marks)
❖ Read the current salary
❖ Compute the increment
❖ Display current Salary , Increment and the new salary
17.
(a) Convert the following numbers to their decimal equivalent (6marks)
(i) 11.0112
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_________

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(ii) 12.158
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
(iii) A1H
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_________
(b) Outline four ways in which data integrity may be maintained (4marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
(c) Explain three advantages of using questionnaires as a fact finding tool. (3marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
(d) What is the role of a recycle bin (2marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
18.
(a) Masai teacher’s college has decided to automate its library for effective services to the students.
Identify four methods they are likely to use to gather information during system development.
(4marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_________
(b) What do the following terms mean in relation to internet? (5marks)
Downloading
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
Hyperlink
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
Web browser
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
ISP
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
Search engine
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
(c) Differentiate between sorting and filtering as used in electronic spreadsheet program (2marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
(d) What do the following terms mean (4maks)
(i) Spam mails

__________________________________________________________________________________
(ii) Inbox

__________________________________________________________________________________
(iii) Onboard Modem

__________________________________________________________________________________
(iv) WIMP

__________________________________________________________________________________
19.
(a) Mention three types of database model (3marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

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_______________________________________________________________________________
______
(b) List three advantages of using database management systems (3marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
(c) In a database system, data integrity ensures the correctness and completeness of the data in the
database. Differentiate the following types of integrity constraints: (3marks)
(i) Domain Integrity
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
(ii) Entity Integrity
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
(iii)Referential Integrity
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

(d) Use diagrams to describe the following types of relationships (3marks)

(i) One to One

__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
___
(e) File organization refers to the arrangement of records on secondary storage. Briefly describe the
following file organization methods. (3marks)
(i) Serial

(ii) Sequential

__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
___
(iii) Random

__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

20.
(a) What is a website (2marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
___
(b) Name three facilities that are needed to connect to the internet. (3marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
______
(c) State three ways students can benefit by having internet in a school (3marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________

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_______________________________________________________________________________
_________
(d) State the function of the following protocols (3marks)
(i) TCP

__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
___
(ii) IP

__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
___
(iii) POP3

__________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_________
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
COMPUTER STUDIES
451/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

451/2
COMPUTER STUDIES
Paper 2 (PRACTICAL)
2 ½ hour

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Indicate your name and index number at the right hand corner of each printout
b) Write your name and index number on the CD/removable storage medium provided
c) Write the name and version of the software used for each question attempted in the answer sheet
provided
d) Answer all the questions
e) All questions carry equal marks
f) Passwords should not be used while saving in the CD/removable storage Medium
g) Marked printout of the answers on the sheet
h) Arrange your printouts and staple them together
i) Hand in all the printouts and the CD/removable storage medium used
j) All the work should be saved at the desktop of your computer in a folder named with our name and
index number. All the work in your folder should be burned to the CD/WR provided

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QUESTION ONE (50 MARKS)
1. The following table contains details of Baharini Girls school
ADMN House Stud DOB RECEIPT Fees Fees House KCPE House
O No name NO Paid(kshs) Bal(kshs) Name MARKS Capacity

1001 H20 Alice K 7/4/1999 101 20000 5000 simba 380 200

1050 S08 Lilly O 2/3/2002 894 18000 7000 chui 350 150

1202 P30 Mary 8/10/2000 500 23000 2000 Kifaru 400 180

1025 H20 Juliet 4/4/2000 258 25000 0 Simba 358 200

1200 S08 Joan 5/1/2001 259 15000 10000 chui 398 150

1278 H20 Milly 3/4/1998 200 15000 10000 simba 402 200

1201 P30 Linet 2/7/1998 205 20000 5000 kifaru 356 180

1203 S08 Lisper 9/5/2001 209 25000 0 chui 403 150

REQUIRED
a) Create a database file that can be used to store the above data. Name the file Baharini school
database. (2mks)
b) Create Three tables, student details, Accounts table and dormitory table (11mks)
c) Format the following fields as follows:
a. House number to maximum of 3 characters. (1mrk)
b. Datae of birth as medium date (1mrk)
c. Fees pad and fees balance in Ksh. In two decimal points (2mrks)
d. House name of data type look up typed. (1mrk)
d) Create a relationship between the three tables (3mks)
e) Using appropriate forms, Enter the information given into the three tables (15mks)
f) Create a query for all students housed in Chui with their adm no and fee balance save as Chui
query (3mks)
g) Design a “current age query” to display name, Fee paid and current ages of all the students
(5mks)
h) Create a query Last born to display adm no of all the students who were born after 1999 and have
paid more than 20,000. (4mks)
i) Create a report “Hefty Balances” showing students with fees balances and calculate total balance
(3mks)
j) Print, The Last born query, Hefty balance report (2mks)
2. QUESTION 2 (50MARKS)
Use a spreadsheet to manipulate data in the table below.
Adm No Name Stream Comp Art Bus Eng Mat Student Rank
mean
C001 Barasa H 56 45 36 56 26
C002 Wangila K 58 57 90 54 23
C003 Wafula H 48 56 54 45 25
C004 Wanjala K 78 95 78 46 24
C005 Kerubo H 49 86 68 35 52
C006 Akinyi K 56 45 25 63 54
C007 Odhiambo H 75 78 45 65 56
C008 Okunyuku K 89 69 65 53 51
C009 Nekesa H 69 58 45 54 52
C010 Simiyu H 85 46 78 52 53
TOTAL
TOTAL FOR H
TOTAL FOR K
a) Enter the data in all bordered worksheet and fit all column. Save the workbook as
mark 1 (16mks)
b) Find the total marks for each subject (2mks)
c) Find total for each subject per stream using a function (4mks)
d) Find mean mark for each student using a function (2mks)
e) Rank mean student in descending order using the mean (3mks)
f) In cell B17 count the number of students with a mean mark of 70 and above. (2mks)
g) Create a column called Grade. Grade all the students based on the mean score as follows: greater
than 70 “Distinction” Greater than 50 “Credit” Greater than 30 “Pass” else fail. (3mks)
h) Create a well labeled column chart on a different sheet to show the mean mark of every student.
Rename the sheet as mark 2. (5mks)
i) Using mark1, use subtotals to find the average mark for each subject per stream. (6mks)
j) Copy the data in sheet 1 to sheet 3 and filter the data display only the students with distinction.
(3mks)
k) Print sheet 1,mark 2 and the sheet 3 (3mks)

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FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
HOME-SCIENCE
441/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

Instructions to students
a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided
c) This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C
d) Answer all the questions in sections A and B and any two questions in section C
e) Answers to all the questions must be written in the spaces provided in the paper

For examiner’s use only

Section Question Maximum Score Student’s Score
A 1- 20 40
B 21 20
C 20
20
TOTAL SCORE 100
SECTION A: (40 marks)
1. State two signs of vitamin A deficiency. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. List four accessories used in home decoration. (2marks)

3. Mention two reasons why a classroom should be well ventilated. (2marks)

4. Outline three dangers of weaning a baby late. (3marks)

5. Name two metals used in making saucepans. (1mark)

6. Mention two points on the care of a baby with diarrhoea. (2marks)

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7. Suggest two factors that determine the choice of an opening. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Mention three danger signs that should be reported to a doctor when taking care of the sick at
home. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. State the reason for sprinkling water on an earthen floor before sweeping. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Suggest three reasons for laundering clothes. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Give two meanings of basting in Home Science. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Highlight three points to look out for when buying carrots. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Identify four labour saving equipment that may be found in a modern kitchen. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Mention three problems that consumers face when shopping. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. Suggest four possible danger areas in the home where a child can drown at home. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. Give two ways of disinfecting hospital linen. (1mark)

17. Highlight four signs of dehydration in a baby. (2marks)

18. Give two qualities of a good fabric for beginners in sewing. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Suggest four ways of finishing the neckline of a little girl’s dress. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. Mention two items in a First Aid kit that could be used to manage a cut. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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SECTION B: (20 marks)
COMPULSORY
Answer question 21 in the spaces provided after the question
21. You are going out on a youth camp over the holiday.
a) Outline the procedure you will follow when cleaning the coloured canvas bag that you will use to
pack your clothes. (7marks)
b) Describe how you will clean the hand mirror you will pack to use at the camp. (6marks)
c) Outline how you will clean the muddy plastic sandals you will use at the camp. (7marks)

SECTION C: (40 marks)

Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided at the end of this section.
22.
a) Outline five advantages of food preservation. (5marks)
b) Explain five advantages of using a shopping list. (5marks)
c) Highlight four dangers of washing clothes without sorting them. (4marks)
d) Discuss three points to observe when planning meals for an elderly person. (6marks)

23.
a) Draw and name six possible care label symbols that may be found on a loose coloured cotton shirt.
(6marks)
b) Outline five reasons why consumers need to be informed. (5marks)
c) Suggest four possible hindrances to breastfeeding. (4marks)
d) Mention five reasons why play is important in the life of a three year old child. (5marks)

24.
a) Suggest five ways of ensuring safe outcomes in pregnancy. (5marks)
b) Highlight four qualities of a good laundry brush. (4marks)
c) Discuss three considerations to bear in mind when painting a bedroom. (6marks)
d) Mention five dangers posed by piles of uncollected garbage. (5marks)
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
HOME-SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

441/2
HOMESCIENCE
PRACTICAL – Paper 2
(CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper consists of 3 printed pages
b) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.
c) Candidates must use machine stitches appropriately in the construction of the garment
d) Hand stitches used instead of machine stitches will not be marked
e) Hand stitches will only be allowed for the making of hemming and tacking stitches.
f) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

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GIRL’S SKIRT
A pattern of a girl’s skirt is provided. You are required to study the sketches, instructions and layout
carefully before you begin the test.

MATERIALS PROVIDED
1. Pattern pieces
A. – Skirt back
B. – Yoke (front)
C. – Lower skirt (front)
D. - Front waistband
E. – back waistband
F. - frill
2. Plain lightweight cotton fabric 56cm long by 90cm wide.
3. Sewing thread to match the fabric.
4. One large envelope.

THE TEST
Using the materials provided, cut out and make the left half of the girl’s skirt to show the following
processes:
a) Cutting out (14mks)
b) Making of the dart at the back skirt ( 6 ½ mks)
c) Joining of the yoke front to the lower skirt front using an overlaid seam. Do not trim. Neaten half
the seam using loop stitches. (12mks)
d) Attaching of the frill to the lower skirt front using a plain seam. Leave the gathering stitches and
do not trim the seam allowance. (11mks)
e) Making of the skirt side seam from the yoke to the hemline using an open seam. (7mks)
f) Attaching of the front and back waistbands and holding them in place using tacking stitches.
(21mks)
g) Making of the worked buttonhole. (12mks)
OMIT
The management of the skirt hem.
Overall presentation (6 ½ mks)
At the end of the examination, firmly sew onto your work, on a single fabric, a label bearing your
name and index number. Remove the needle, pins and loose threads from your work. Fold your
work neatly and place it in the envelope provided. Do not put scraps of fabric in the Envelope.
Do not seal the envelope.
FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
HOME-SCIENCE
441/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

441/3
HOMESCIENCE
FOODS AND NUTRITION
PAPER 3
PRACTICAL
1 ¾ HOURS
PLANNING; 30 MINUTES
PRACTICAL TEST SESSION; 1 ¼ HOURS

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
1. Read the test carefully
2. Write your name and admission number on every sheet of paper used
3. Textbooks and recipes may be used during the planning session as reference materials
4. You will be expected to keep to your order of work during the practical session
5. You are allowed to take away ONLY your reference materials at the end of the planning session
6. You are not allowed to bring additional noted to the practical session.

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

THE TEST
You are going out camping and need to pack some food for lunch. Using all the ingredients listed
below; prepare, cook and pack a suitable meal for you and your friend. In addition prepare and
pack a suitable refreshing drink.
INGREDIENTS
Irish potatoes/wheat flour
Liver/chicken
Sugar
Oil/Cooking fat
Carrots
Capsicum
Salt
Lemon
Onion
Cucumber/cabbage
Fruit in season

PLANNING SESSION- 30 MINUTES

Use separate sheets of paper for each tasks listed below and a carbon paper to make duplicate copies.
Then proceed as follows:
1. Identify the food items and write down their recipes.
2. Write down your order of work
3. Make a list of foodstuff, materials and equipment you will require.
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
314/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

314/1
ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
 This paper consist of six questions
 Answer any five questions from this paper in the answer booklet provided.

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

MARKS

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1.
a) State the Reasons why the Quran was revealed in Arabic. (7mks)
b) Describe the Process of the Diacriticalization of the Qu’an. (6mks)
c) Discuss the Moral teachings of Surah An Nur- (7mks)

2.
a) Give Reasons why mankind needed revelation of the Qur’an. (8mks)
b) Explain the Background behind the revelation of suratul Hujurat (6mks)
c) What are the Conditions that must be fulfilled by a translator (Mutarjim) of the Qur’an. (6mks)
3.
a) Difference between hadith Qudsi and Nabawwi. (8mks)
b) The prophet (p.b.u.h) said” every one of you is a guardian and is responsible for his charges’ in the
light of his hadith, explain islam’s position on the care for animals and plants. (6mks)
c) Mention the six authentic books of hadith (sahih as sita). (6mks)
4.
a) Enumerate Things which nullify wudhu. (6mks)

b) Explain the eight Recipients of Zakat. There are eight categories of people who are eligible to
receive Zakat: (8mks)
c) List the Functions of the Qaadhi`s office. (6mks)

5.
a) What are The Conditions for preparations of Hajj. (5mks)
b) State the Hudoood offences and their punishments. (10mks)
c. Differences between Islamic law and secular law. (5mks)

6.
a) Explain the three types of Types of Tawheed. (6mks)
b) Mention the Duties of Sunni Imam in the Muslim society/Functions of an imam. (6mks)
c) Discuss the Significance of Qadha and Qadar to a Muslim. (8mks)
FORM 4 ENDTERM 1 EXAMINATIONS
SMARTGRADE SERIES
ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
314/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO…………………….

314/2
ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (K.C.S.E.)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
 This paper consist of six questions
 Answer any five questions from this paper in the answer booklet provided.

QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

MARKS

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

QUESTIONS
1. a) Identify six immoral trends in the Kenyan society (6mks)
b) State seven rules on the code of dress for Muslim women. (7mks)
c) Explain the ways in which Muslims in Kenya can help to eradicate drugs and substance abuse.
(7mks)

2. a) Mention the objectives of marriage in Islam (8mks)

b) Explain six importance of edat in Islam. (6mks)
c) Discuss the essential conditions of mirath (6mks)

3. a) Discuss the significance of wasiya (8mks)

b) State the significance of upholding ethical values in business and commerce (5mks)
c) Identify the factors that can invalidate contracts and agreements (7mks)

4. a) Explain five ways in which the Prophet (S.A.W) promoted equality of all races during his life
time. (10mks)
b) Identify the contributions of Uthman binAffan in Islam during the prophets life, (5mks)
c) Discuss the achievements of Muawiyya bin Abu Sufyan (5mks)

5. a) What roles did Jumbes and Akidas play in the spread of Islam in Tanzania (5mks)
b) Describe the impact of Islam at the East Coast of Africa in the 19th Century (7mks)
c) Explain six factors that led to the decline of the Ummayad Dynasty (6mks)

6. a) Describe the early life and education background of Sheikh Abdallah Swaleh Farsy (7mks)
b) Explain seven contributions of Hassan al –Banna in Islam (7mks)
c) State six recommendations made by Imam Ghazali towards children’s education (6mks)
THE END

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FOR THE FOLLOWING;
 ONLINE TUITION
 REVISION NOTES
 SCHEMES OF WORK
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This is a Copyright Property of Mwalimu Consultancy Ltd.

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