EXAM 1 - CNS C.

Simplex
1. Which of the following is TRUE about D. Bidirectional
peer-to-peer networking? Answer: C. Simplex
A. Less complex 10. Which topology has a single point of
B. All of the Given failure?
C. Easy to set up A. Ring
D. Not as secure B. Mesh
E. Not scalable C. Star
Answer: B. All of the Given D. Hybrid
2. What is the purpose of an IP address? Answer: C. Star
A. To uniquely identify a device on a 11. Which OSI layer is responsible for reliable
network transmission of data segments?
B. To hide the identity of a user A. Network
C. To provide power to a device B. Transport
D. To manage domain names C. Session
Answer: A. To uniquely identify a device D. Data Link
on a network Answer: B. Transport
3. Which of the following is NOT a 12. Which of the following is a protocol of the
characteristic of a client-server network? application layer?
A. Centralized resources A. TCP
B. More secure B. IP
C. Scalable C. HTTP
D. All devices are equal D. UDP
E. Uses dedicated servers Answer: C. HTTP
Answer: D. All devices are equal 13. Which of the following is a feature of the
4. Which of the following best describes the TCP protocol?
Internet? A. Connectionless
A. A local area network B. Reliable delivery
B. A private network C. Faster than UDP
C. A global system of interconnected D. Used for video streaming
networks Answer: B. Reliable delivery
D. A type of VPN 14. Which network device connects different
Answer: C. A global system of networks?
interconnected networks A. Switch
5. What type of address is used to deliver a B. Bridge
frame to a specific device on a LAN? C. Router
A. IP address D. Repeater
B. MAC address Answer: C. Router
C. Subnet mask 15. What kind of address is 192.168.1.1?
D. Port number A. Public
Answer: B. MAC address B. Private
6. What device is used to segment a network C. Multicast
and reduce collisions? D. Loopback
A. Repeater Answer: B. Private
B. Switch 16. What is the main function of DNS?
C. Hub A. Encrypt data
D. Modem B. Translate domain names to IP
Answer: B. Switch addresses
7. Which device operates at Layer 3 of the C. Assign MAC addresses
OSI model? D. Manage routing tables
A. Switch Answer: B. Translate domain names to IP
B. Hub addresses
C. Router 17. Which protocol is used to send email?
D. Repeater A. FTP
Answer: C. Router B. HTTP
8. Which of the following is NOT an end C. SMTP
device? D. SNMP
A. Both laptop and printer Answer: C. SMTP
B. Both router and firewall appliance 18. Which layer of the OSI model defines
C. Printer cables and connectors?
D. Firewall appliance A. Data Link
Answer: B. Both router and firewall B. Physical
appliance C. Network
9. What type of communication allows data to D. Session
flow in only one direction? Answer: B. Physical
A. Full-duplex 19. Which term describes the rate at which
B. Half-duplex data is transferred?
 A. Latency 29. Which of the following is NOT a valid
B. Bandwidth network media?
C. Throughput A. Copper
D. Jitter B. Fiber-optic
Answer: B. Bandwidth C. Wireless
20. Which device forwards packets based on D. Bluetooth speaker
IP address? Answer: D. Bluetooth speaker
A. Switch 30. What does ping command test?
B. Hub A. Cable length
C. Router B. DNS resolution
D. Bridge C. Network connectivity
Answer: C. Router D. MAC address
21. Which of the following uses logical Answer: C. Network connectivity
addressing? 31. Which layer in the OSI model is
A. MAC responsible for path determination?
B. TCP A. Transport
C. IP B. Network
D. HTTP C. Data Link
Answer: C. IP D. Application
22. What does HTTP stand for? Answer: B. Network
A. High Transfer Text Protocol 32. What protocol is used to securely transfer
B. Hypertext Transfer Protocol files?
C. Hyper Terminal Transfer Protocol A. FTP
D. Hypertext Transmission Protocol B. TFTP
Answer: B. Hypertext Transfer Protocol C. SFTP
23. What is the function of ARP (Address D. Telnet
Resolution Protocol)? Answer: C. SFTP
A. Resolve IP to MAC address 33. Which layer ensures flow control and error
B. Assign IP addresses correction?
C. Encrypt data A. Network
D. Filter network traffic B. Transport
Answer: A. Resolve IP to MAC address C. Session
24. Which topology provides the highest D. Application
redundancy? Answer: B. Transport
A. Bus 34. Which protocol is used for remote device
B. Star management?
C. Ring A. SMTP
D. Mesh B. SNMP
Answer: D. Mesh C. FTP
25. What does DHCP stand for? D. POP
A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol Answer: B. SNMP
B. Data Host Control Protocol 35. What is a function of the data link layer?
C. Domain Host Computer Protocol A. IP addressing
D. Dynamic Hypertext Control Protocol B. Frame delimiting and error detection
Answer: A. Dynamic Host Configuration C. Routing
Protocol D. DNS resolution
26. What port number is used by HTTP? Answer: B. Frame delimiting and error
A. 21 detection
B. 23 36. What is the maximum length of a CAT5
C. 25 cable?
D. 80 A. 50 meters
Answer: D. 80 B. 100 meters
27. Which of the following is a valid IPv4 C. 150 meters
address? D. 200 meters
A. 256.100.1.1 Answer: B. 100 meters
B. 192.168.1.256 37. What command displays the IP address of
C. 192.168.1.1 a computer?
D. 192.168.300.1 A. ping
Answer: C. 192.168.1.1 B. ipconfig
28. Which class of IP addresses has a default C. tracert
subnet mask of 255.255.0.0? D. netstat
A. Class A Answer: B. ipconfig
B. Class B 38. Which of the following is a Layer 2 device?
C. Class C A. Router
D. Class D B. Switch
Answer: B. Class B C. Firewall
 D. Modem D. /32
Answer: B. Switch Answer: D. /32
39. What is the term for a set of rules 49. Which tool measures network bandwidth
governing communication? usage?
A. Language A. Task Manager
B. Protocol B. NetFlow
C. Syntax C. ARP
D. Command D. Ping
Answer: B. Protocol Answer: B. NetFlow
40. What protocol is used for retrieving 50. What OSI layer is responsible for data
emails? encryption?
A. SMTP A. Network
B. FTP B. Transport
C. POP3 C. Presentation
D. HTTP D. Application
Answer: C. POP3 Answer: C. Presentation
41. What topology requires the least cable?
A. Ring
B. Bus EXAM 2 – CNS
C. Star
1. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class C
D. Mesh
Answer: B. Bus network ID, which subnet mask would you use?
42. Which port number is used for HTTPS? a. 255.255.255.252
A. 20 b. 255.255.255.240
B. 21 c. 255.255.255.248
C. 443 d. 255.255.255.224
D. 8080
Answer: C. 443
Answer: b. 255.255.255.240
43. What command is used to trace route
taken by packets?
A. ping 2. What protocol is responsible for automatically
B. netstat assigning IP addressing information?
C. tracert a. HTTP
D. ipconfig b. DHCP
Answer: C. tracert c. FTP
44. Which of the following is a disadvantage of
d. DNS
mesh topology?
A. High redundancy
B. Complex installation Answer: b. DHCP
C. Easy to manage
D. Secure 3. You have an interface on a router with the IP
Answer: B. Complex installation address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router
45. What does MAC stand for?
interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses
A. Media Access Control
B. Machine Access Control on the LAN attached to the router interface?
C. Media Address Code a. 2
D. Multiple Access Code b. 6
Answer: A. Media Access Control c. 8
46. What is the main function of a firewall? d. 30
A. Manage bandwidth
B. Block viruses
Answer: b. 6
C. Control incoming and outgoing network
traffic
D. Assign IP addresses 4. What is an advantage of using IPv6?
Answer: C. Control incoming and outgoing a. more addresses for networks and hosts
network traffic b. uses 32-bit address space
47. What protocol provides connectionless c. easy to remember
communication? d. has no broadcast
A. TCP
B. HTTP
C. UDP Answer: a. more addresses for networks and hosts
D. FTP
Answer: C. UDP 5. Host-A has the IPv4 address and subnet mask
48. What is the smallest IPv4 network? 192.168.1.50 255.255.255.0. Which IPv4
A. /16 address/es would be on the same network as Host-
B. /24
A?
C. /30
a. 192.168.2.100
b. 192.168.1.100 11. The default configuration on a home wireless
c. 192.168.1.256 router provides which type of addresses to devices
d. 10.168.1.100 using DHCP?
a. public IP addresses
Answer: b. 192.168.1.100 b. loopback IP addresses
c. private IP addresses
6. What is one advantage of using DHCP to assign d. multicast addresses
addresses to mobile devices?
a. Each device gets a static IP Answer: c. private IP addresses
b. DHCP is required for phones
c. Devices must have public IPs 12. If the default gateway is misconfigured on a
d. Address leases are temporary and are returned host, what is the impact on communications?
to the pool when the device is turned off a. The host cannot access local resources
b. The host can access the internet but not printers
Answer: d. Address leases are temporary and are c. The host is unable to communicate with hosts on
returned to the pool when the device is turned off remote networks
d. The host is denied DHCP
7. Which destination IPv4 address does a DHCPv4
client use to send the initial DHCP Discover packet Answer: c. The host is unable to communicate with
when the client is looking for a DHCP server? hosts on remote networks
a. 0.0.0.0
b. 255.255.255.0 13. Which of the following is a loopback address?
c. 255.255.255.255 a. 192.168.1.1
d. 192.168.1.1 b. 0.0.0.0
c. 127.0.0.7
Answer: c. 255.255.255.255 d. 10.0.0.1

8. Which settings must be configured on a PC to Answer: c. 127.0.0.7

communicate with devices across the Internet?
a. MAC address only 14. What is the network number for an IPv4 address
b. IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway 172.16.34.10 with the subnet mask of
address 255.255.255.0?
c. Subnet mask and MAC a. 172.16.0.0
d. MAC and hostname b. 172.16.34.0
c. 172.16.34.10
Answer: b. IP address, subnet mask, and default d. 172.16.255.0
gateway address
Answer: b. 172.16.34.0
9. Which of the following is a public address?
a. 172.16.1.1 15. Which two parts are components of an IPv4
b. 10.10.10.10 address?
c. 198.133.219.2 a. MAC and broadcast
d. 192.168.0.1 b. network and host portion
c. subnet and VLAN
Answer: c. 198.133.219.2 d. IP and DNS

10. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while Answer: b. network and host portion
maximizing the number of host addresses available
on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow 16. A technician is setting up equipment on a
from the host field to provide the correct subnet network. Which device will need IP addresses?
mask? a. Switch
a. 4 b. Access Point in bridge mode
b. 5 c. IP phone
c. 6 d. Patch panel
d. 3
Answer: c. IP phone
Answer: b. 5
17. What is one factor increasing the adoption of
IPv6 network addresses? 23. Which type of address is automatically assigned
a. NAT is not supported in IPv6 to every IPv6-enabled interface
b. IPv4 is faster a. loopback
c. IPv6 supports multicast only b. global unicast
d. IoT adds millions of network-ready sensors that c. link-local
need IP addresses d. broadcast
Answer: link-local
Answer: d. IoT adds millions of network-ready
sensors that need IP addresses 24. What does the 192 in the address
192.168.10.50 represent
18. This identifies the networking device that the a. the host portion
host uses to access the Internet or another remote b. the subnet mask
network. c. the network portion
a. DNS d. the broadcast domain
b. Subnet mask Answer: the network portion
c. Default gateway
d. DHCP 25. What is the subnet mask of a Class B network
a. 255.0.0.0
Answer: c. Default gateway b. 255.255.255.0
c. 255.255.0.0
19. What is the purpose of NAT? d. 255.255.255.255
a. Encrypt IP packets Answer: 255.255.0.0
b. Filter broadcast traffic
c. Translating private IP addresses to a public 26. What command would you use on a Windows
registered IP address PC to see the IP address assigned to that device
d. Manage DNS zones a. ifconfig
b. ping
Answer: c. Translating private IP addresses to a c. ipconfig
public registered IP address d. traceroute
Answer: ipconfig
20. What criterion must be followed in the design of
an IPv4 addressing scheme for end devices? 27. Which three IP addresses are private
a. MAC addresses must be unique a. 192.168.0.1
b. Each IP address must be unique within the local b. 172.31.255.255
network c. 10.0.0.1
c. IP addresses must end in 0 d. 172.32.0.1
d. Devices must use IPv6 Answer: 192.168.0.1, 172.31.255.255, 10.0.0.1

Answer: b. Each IP address must be unique within 28. Which two statements describe public IPv4
the local network addresses
a. They can be used to access the Internet
21. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits b. They begin with 169
to how many bits? c. They must be unique across the entire Internet
a. 64 d. They are only routable within private networks
b. 96 Answer: They can be used to access the Internet,
c. 128 They must be unique across the entire Internet
d. 256
29. A technician configures a network device with
Answer: c. 128 the IPv6 address 2001DB8ACAD2::/64. What does
the /64 represent
22. Which two parts are components of an IPv6 a. the number of addresses available
global unicast address b. the number of bits in the network portion
a. broadcast address and loopback address c. the default gateway address
b. subnet ID and interface ID d. the number of usable host addresses
c. global routing prefix and interface ID Answer: the number of bits in the network portion
d. private address and public address
Answer: global routing prefix and interface ID
30. A network administrator wants to test a. 128
connectivity to a remote server. Which command b. 255
should the administrator use c. 192
a. ping d. 64
b. ipconfig Answer: 192
c. netstat
d. telnet 38. Which two statements are characteristics of IP
Answer: ping a. Connection-oriented
b. Provides best effort delivery
31. What is the valid host range of the IP address c. Requires a circuit to be established
192.168.1.1 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 d. Does not guarantee delivery
a. 192.168.1.0 - 192.168.1.255 Answer: Provides best effort delivery, Does not
b. 192.168.1.1 - 192.168.1.254 guarantee delivery
c. 192.168.0.1 - 192.168.2.254
d. 192.168.1.2 - 192.168.1.253 39. What is the default subnet mask for a Class C
Answer: 192.168.1.1 - 192.168.1.254 IP address
a. 255.255.0.0
32. What happens when a DHCP server is not b. 255.255.255.0
available c. 255.0.0.0
a. Devices use their MAC address d. 255.255.255.255
b. Devices are assigned 127.0.0.1 Answer: 255.255.255.0
c. Devices use APIPA addresses
d. Devices are unable to communicate 40. What is the primary purpose of DNS
Answer: Devices use APIPA addresses a. Assigning IP addresses
b. Translating domain names to IP addresses
33. What protocol is used to resolve a known IP c. Routing packets
address to a MAC address d. Securing network traffic
a. DNS Answer: Translating domain names to IP addresses
b. ARP
c. DHCP
d. HTTP 3RD EXAM – CNS
Answer: ARP
1. Which type of address never changes on a
34. Which IPv6 address type is similar in function to device and is similar to a person's name?
an IPv4 private address A. IP address
a. global unicast B. Logical address
b. link-local C. MAC address
c. unique local D. Network address
d. loopback Answer: C. MAC address
Answer: unique local
2. Which piece of software is responsible for
35. What is the main purpose of a default gateway creating virtual machines and providing them
a. To assign IP addresses access to resources on a physical machine?
b. To provide DNS service A. Hosted operating system
c. To forward traffic to other networks B. Host operating system
d. To encrypt network traffic C. Hypervisor
Answer: To forward traffic to other networks D. Supervisor
Answer: C. Hypervisor
36. Which part of an IPv6 address indicates the
subnet 3. What is a characteristic of the UDP protocol?
a. the first 32 bits A. Guaranteed delivery
b. the first 48 bits B. Error correction
c. the last 64 bits C. Low overhead
d. the first 64 bits D. End-to-end establishment before delivery
Answer: the first 64 bits Answer: C. Low overhead

37. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary 4. What is an attack using ARP?
number 11000000 A. ARP broadcasts
B. ARP starvation Answer: C. Exit
C. ARP poisoning
D. ARP hopping attacks 11. Which control bit flags are used during the
Answer: C. ARP poisoning three-way handshake?
A. ACK and FIN
5. Which portion of an IP address uniquely identifies B. FIN and RESET
that device on that network? C. RESET and SYN
A. Network D. SYN and ACK
B. Host Answer: D. SYN and ACK
C. Logical
D. Physical 12. Which IOS mode are you in if the
Answer: B. Host Switch(config)# prompt is displayed?
A. Interface sub-configuration mode
6. Which transport layer protocol statement is B. Global configuration mode
TRUE? C. Privileged EXEC mode
A. TCP has fewer fields than UDP. D. Line console sub-configuration mode
B. UDP provides reliability. Answer: B. Global configuration mode
C. UDP is a best-effort delivery protocol.
D. TCP is faster than UDP. 13. The _____ provides a connection point for
Answer: C. UDP is a best-effort delivery protocol. separate networks and controls the flow of
information between the networks.
7. Which of the following best describes DHCP? A. None of the given
A. DHCP automates the process for discovering the B. Access layer
MAC address of the destination. C. Core layer
B. DHCP automates the process for discovering the D. Distribution layer
IP address for a domain name. Answer: D. Distribution layer
C. DHCP automates the assignment of IP
addresses, subnet masks, gateways, and other 14. What is one function of the ARP protocol?
IPv4 networking parameters. A. Resolving an IPv4 address to a MAC address
D. DHCP automates the translation of private and B. Obtaining an IPv4 address automatically
public IP addresses. C. Maintaining a table of domain names with their
Answer: C. DHCP automates the assignment of IP resolved IP addresses
addresses, subnet masks, gateways, and other D. Mapping a domain name to its IP address
IPv4 networking parameters. Answer: A. Resolving an IPv4 address to a MAC
address
8. What characteristic of a network would allow
video traffic to have priority over traffic from an 15. Having multiple paths to a destination is known
email application? as redundancy. This is an example of which
A. Fault tolerance characteristic of network architecture?
B. Scalability A. Fault tolerance
C. Security B. Security
D. Quality of Service C. Scalability
Answer: D. Quality of Service D. QoS
Answer: A. Fault tolerance
9. SaaS in computer networking means:
A. Software as a service 16. How many exchanges are needed to end both
B. System as a software sessions between two hosts?
C. System as a service A. Two exchanges
D. Software as a system B. Five exchanges
Answer: A. Software as a service C. Four exchanges
D. One exchange
10. Which command or key combination allows a Answer: C. Four exchanges
user to return to the previous level in the command
hierarchy? 17. Which design layer provides connectivity to
A. CTRL-C devices on an Ethernet LAN?
B. CTRL-Z A. Distribution
C. Exit B. Core
D. End C. Access
D. Physical 24. Which term describes the type of cloud
Answer: C. Access computing service that provides applications over
the web?
18. Which type of address never changes on a A. SaaS
device and is similar to a person's name? B. IaaS
A. IP address C. ITaaS
B. Logical address D. PaaS
C. MAC address Answer: A. SaaS
D. Network address
Answer: C. MAC address 25. Which delivery method does not guarantee that
the packet will be delivered fully without errors?
19. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about A. Best effort
virtualization? B. Media independent
A. Less equipment is required C. Connectionless
B. Less space is required Answer: A. Best effort
C. Less energy is consumed
D. Less legacy support 26. Which IOS mode allows access to all
Answer: D. Less legacy support commands and features?
A. Line console sub-configuration mode
20. Which UDP datagram reassembly statement is B. Global configuration mode
true? C. Interface sub-configuration mode
A. UDP reassembles the data using sequence D. Privileged EXEC mode
numbers. Answer: D. Privileged EXEC mode
B. UDP reassembles the data in the order that it
was received. 27. Which network design model improves
C. UDP does not reassemble the data. efficiency by dividing the network into smaller
D. UDP reassembles the data using control bits. pieces?
Answer: C. UDP does not reassemble the data. A. Fault-tolerant
B. Hierarchical
21. Cloud-based applications and services offered C. Redundant
in a _____ are made available to the general D. Reliable
population. Services may be free or are offered on a Answer: B. Hierarchical
pay-per-use model, such as paying for online
storage. 28. Which port is used by the Hypertext Transfer
A. Private cloud Protocol?
B. Community cloud A. 68
C. Hybrid cloud B. 80
D. Public cloud C. 69
Answer: D. Public cloud D. 110
Answer: B. 80
22. An IP address is considered what type of
address: 29. A DNS server that receives a request for a
A. Virtual name resolution that is not within its DNS zone will
B. Physical send a failure message to the requesting client.
C. Logical A. False
D. None of the given B. True
Answer: C. Logical Answer: A. False

23. Which port group includes port numbers for 30. These are the benefits of virtualization, except:
FTP, HTTP, and TFTP applications? A. Easier prototyping
A. Registered ports B. Improved disaster recovery
B. Private ports C. Increased server uptime
C. Well-known ports D. Increased energy
D. Dynamic ports Answer: D. Increased energy
Answer: C. Well-known ports
31. Why is UDP desirable for protocols that make
simple request and reply transactions?
A. Low overhead
B. Flow control 38. When would a switch record multiple entries for
C. Reliability a single switch port in its MAC address table?
D. Same-order delivery A. When a router is connected to the switch port
Answer: A. Low overhead B. When the switch is configured for Layer 3
switching
32. The _____ is a high-speed backbone layer with C. When multiple ARP broadcasts have been
redundant (backup) connections. It is responsible forwarded
for transporting large amounts of data between D. When another switch is connected to the switch
multiple end networks. port
A. Distribution layer Answer: D. When another switch is connected to
B. Access layer the switch port
C. Core layer
D. None of the given 39. What are the three layers of the switch
Answer: C. Core layer hierarchical design model?
A. Core, distribution, access
33. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are B. Data link, network access, enterprise
requirements of which of the four basic C. Distribution, access layer, physical layer
characteristics of network architecture? D. Data link, network access, physical
A. QoS Answer: A. Core, distribution, access
B. Fault tolerance
C. Security 40. The _____ provides a connection point for end-
D. Scalability user devices to the network and allows multiple
Answer: C. Security hosts to connect to other hosts through a network
device, usually a switch or a wireless access point.
34. Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch> A. Distribution layer
prompt is displayed? B. Core layer
A. User EXEC mode C. None of the given
B. Privileged EXEC mode D. Access layer
C. Global configuration mode Answer: D. Access layer
D. Line console sub-configuration mode
Answer: A. User EXEC mode 41. Which protocol is used to discover the
destination address needed to be added to an
35. Which two devices would commonly be found at Ethernet frame?
the access layer of the hierarchical enterprise LAN A. DHCP
design model? B. DNS
A. Access point and Layer 2 switch C. ARP
B. Firewall and access point D. HTTP
C. Firewall and switch
D. Layer 3 device and firewall 41. Which protocol is used to discover the
Answer: A. Access point and Layer 2 switch destination address needed to be added to an
Ethernet frame?
36. Which protocol translates a website name such A. DHCP
as www.cisco.com into a network address? B. DNS
A. HTTP C. ARP
B. DHCP D. HTTP
C. DNS Answer: C. ARP
D. FTP
Answer: C. DNS 42. What command must be entered on a switch
port that is connected to an end device?
37. Which port is used by the Hypertext Transfer A. switchport mode trunk
Protocol Secure? B. switchport access vlan 1
A. 68 C. switchport mode access
B. 69 D. switchport trunk vlan 1
C. 80 Answer: C. switchport mode access
D. 443
Answer: D. 443 43. What protocol is used to automatically assign IP
addresses to hosts?
A. ARP
B. DNS C. SSH
C. ICMP D. SNMP
D. DHCP Answer: C. SSH
Answer: D. DHCP
FINAL EXAM LESSONS – CNS
44. What do you call a four-layer stack that allows
the TCP/IP protocol to function? 1. Today, there are single security appliances that
A. OSI model will solve all the network security needs of an
B. Network stack organization.
C. Protocol data unit Answer: False
D. TCP/IP model
Answer: D. TCP/IP model 2. What name is given to a device that controls or
filters traffic going in or out of the network?
45. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in an IP Answer: Firewall
address?
A. To determine the physical location of the device 3. What is the correct definition of risk
B. To identify the gateway management?
C. To distinguish the network and host portion of an Answer: The process of identifying and assessing
IP address risk to reduce the impact of threats and
D. To route data packets outside the network vulnerabilities
Answer: C. To distinguish the network and host
portion of an IP address 4. What tool can identify malicious traffic by
comparing packet contents to known attack
46. Which protocol does Ping use to test signatures?
connectivity? Answer: IDS
A. TCP
B. UDP 5. What is the last stage of a pen test?
C. IP Answer: Analysis and reporting
D. ICMP
Answer: D. ICMP 6. What protocol is used to collect information about
traffic traversing a network?
47. What port does the DNS service typically use? Answer: NetFlow
A. 23
B. 53 7. Which of the following actions should an
C. 80 organization take in the event of a security breach?
D. 25 Answer: Carry out research to uncover what caused
Answer: B. 53 the breach
Answer: Communicate a call to action to all
48. Which of the following services maps employees
hostnames to IP addresses?
A. DHCP 8. How do Cisco ISE and TrustSec work?
B. FTP Answer: They enforce access to network resources
C. DNS by creating role-based access control policies
D. SSH
Answer: C. DNS 9. What should you do in order to make sure that
people you live with do not have access to your
49. Which command is used to save the secure data?
configuration in a Cisco device to NVRAM? Answer: Set up password protection
A. copy running-config startup-config
B. write erase 10. Which type of technology can prevent malicious
C. copy startup-config running-config software from monitoring user activities, collecting
D. reload personal information and producing unwanted pop-
Answer: A. copy running-config startup-config up ads on a user computer?
Answer: Antispyware
50. Which of the following protocols provides secure
remote login? 11. Why do IoT devices pose a greater security risk
A. Telnet than other computing devices on a network?
B. HTTP
Answer: Most IoT devices do not receive frequent Answer: An email is sent to the employees of an
software updates organization with an attachment that looks like an
antivirus update, but the attachment actually
12. What allowed automatic authentication to occur consists of spyware
when using a cloud storage account with an online
printing service? 23. What type of attack allows an attacker to use a
Answer: The cloud storage service is an approved brute force approach?
application for the online printing service Answer: Password cracking

13. Which of the following is an example of two 24. What is the most common goal of search engine
factor authentication? optimization poisoning?
Answer: Your fingerprint and your password Answer: To increase web traffic to malicious sites

14. How can you keep your personal browsing 25. A set of changes done to any program or
history hidden from other users on a shared application with the aim of updating, fixing or
computer? improving it is often referred to as what?
Answer: Operate the web browser in private Answer: A patch
browser mode
26. What do you call a program written to take
15. You are having difficulty remembering advantage of a known security vulnerability?
passwords for all of your online accounts. What Answer: An exploit
should you do?
Answer: Save the passwords in a centralized 27. Securing physical access to target equipment is
password manager program an organization’s best defense against a cyber
attack.
16. Which of the following is a requirement of a Answer: False
strong password?
Answer: Use special characters such as 28. Who is responsible for overseeing a blockchain
exclamation mark, at sign, or dollar sign electronic ledger?
Answer: Anyone belonging to the blockchain
17. What is the best method to prevent Bluetooth network
from being exploited?
Answer: Always disable Bluetooth when it is not 29. What level of cyber protection does each of the
being used following factors require?
Answer: Personal, Organizational, Government
18. Which configuration on a wireless router is not
considered to be adequate security for a wireless 30. An individual user profile on a social network
network? site is an example of an
Answer: Preventing the broadcast of an SSID Answer: Online identity

19. You have stored your data on a local hard disk. 31. Your neighbor tells you that they do not have an
Which method would secure this data from online identity. They have no social media accounts
unauthorized access? and only use the Internet to browse. Is your
Answer: Data encryption neighbor right?
Answer: No
20. Which technology removes direct equipment
and maintenance costs from the user for data 32. Which of the following pieces of information
backups? would be classified as personal data?
Answer: A cloud service Answer: Social security number
Answer: Driver license number
21. Which of the following characteristics describe a Answer: Date and place of birth
worm?
Answer: Is self replicating 33. Which of the following methods can be used to
Answer: Travels to new computers without any ensure confidentiality of information?
intervention or knowledge of the user Answer: Data encryption
Answer: Two factor authentication
22. Which of the following examples illustrates how Answer: File permission settings
malware might be concealed?
34. What are the foundational principles for
protecting information systems as outlined in the
McCumber Cube?
Answer: Integrity
Answer: Availability
Answer: Confidentiality

35. Why might internal security threats cause

greater damage to an organization than external
security threats?
Answer: Internal users have direct access to the
infrastructure devices

36. Which of the following is a key motivation of a

white hat attacker?
Answer: Discovering weaknesses of networks and
systems to improve the security level of these
systems

37. Which of the following methods is used to check

the integrity of data?
Answer: Hashes or checksums

38. Cyberwarfare is the use of technology to

penetrate and attack another nation’s computer
systems and networks in an effort to cause damage
or disrupt services, such as shutting down a power
grid.
Answer: Cyberwarfare