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TRB Geography 10 2025

The document is a Teacher's Resource Book for Class 10 Geography by Veena Bhargava, published by Goyal Brothers Prakashan. It includes various topics such as topographical maps, climate, soil resources, and agriculture in India, along with exercises and questions for students. The book is structured with contents that guide the teaching and learning process in geography for the specified class.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
26 views76 pages

TRB Geography 10 2025

The document is a Teacher's Resource Book for Class 10 Geography by Veena Bhargava, published by Goyal Brothers Prakashan. It includes various topics such as topographical maps, climate, soil resources, and agriculture in India, along with exercises and questions for students. The book is structured with contents that guide the teaching and learning process in geography for the specified class.

Uploaded by

arnavvrasal10
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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TEACHER’S RESOURCE BOOK

A Textbook of
GEOGRAPHY
For Class 10

By
Veena Bhargava

GOYAL BROTHERS PRAKASHAN


GOYAL BROTHERS PRAKASHAN
EDUCATIONAL PUBLISHERS
Sales & Registered Office
11/1903, Chuna Mandi, Paharganj, New Delhi - 110055
Post Box : 5720, Phones : 23584658 & 23582812
E-mail : info@goyal-books.com
website : www.goyal-books.com
Administrative Office
D-231, Sector 63, Noida-201301 (U.P.)
Phone : 0120-4655555

SHOWROOMS
Ahmedabad : Y-10, Dev Castle Complex Opp. Radhekrishan Villa, Jaymala-Govind-
wadi Road, Isanpur, Ahmedabad–382443 (Gujarat)
Tel : 09925004030
Chennai : No. 50/39 Ground Floor, Five Furlong Road Guindy, Chennai–600 032
(Tamil Nadu) Tel : 044-29530414, Fax : 044-29530874
Guwahati : H. No. 69, KRB Road, Beside Bharalumukh, SO Guwahati – 781009
(Assam), Phone : 0361-2967044 Email : guwahati@goyal-books.com
Hyderabad : F-7/8/41, First Floor, Agarwal Chambers, 5-9-1121, King Kothi Road,
Hyderabad - 500001 Tele-fax : 23211332
Kochi : Fair Heavens, H.No. 52-2783/A, Shine Road, Vytilla
Emakulam - 682019 (Kerala) Phone : 0484-2305288
Kolkata : No. 203, 2nd Floor, Fomra Towers, 84-A, Acharya Jagdish Chandra
Bose Road, Kolkata - 700014 Phone : 033-22262683
Bengaluru : 1681/5/4, Ground Floor, 3rd Main Ramamohanapuram,
Bengaluru - 560 021, Phone : 080-23320655
Bhopal : Plot No. 203, Zone-II, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal-462 011 (M.P.),
Tele-fax : 0755-4271371
Lucknow : B-318, Sector-B, Mahanagar, Opposite P.A.C Main Gate,
Lucknow - 226 006, Phone : 0522-2320841
Patna : Ravi Kiran Apartment, Flat No. 2-A, Second floor,
Near Water Pumping Station, Pani Tanki Lane, Pirmohani, Patna –
800003

Nagpur : Thakkar Villa, House No. 436 Joshiwadi, Sibuldi, Nagpur – 440012
Phone : 9823655077

To buy our books online log on to www.goyal-books.com


© Reserved with Author
Edition : 2025

Published & Printed by


Roshan Lal Goyal for Goyal Brothers Prakashan, New Delhi
CONTENTS
1. Interpretation of Topographical Maps–I 5–7

2. Interpretation of Topographical Maps–II 7–8


3. Location, Extent and Physical Features 9 – 10
of India (Through Map Only)
4. Climate of India 11 – 18
5. Soil Resources of India 18 – 23
6. Natural Vegetation 23 – 29
7. Water Resources 29 – 36
8. Mineral and Energy Resources– I 37 – 38
9. Mineral and Energy Resources– II 39 – 45
10. Agriculture in India – I : Introduction 45 – 49
11. Agriculture in India – II : Food Crops 49 – 52
12. Agriculture in India – III : Cash Crops 52 – 58
13. Manufacturing Industries in India–I : 58 – 61
Agro–based
14. Manufacturing Industries in India–II : 61 – 66
Mineral based
15. Transport 66 – 71
16. Waste Management–Impact of Waste 71– 77
Accumulation

17. Waste Generation and Management – 77 – 80


Methods of Safe Disposal of Waste
All rights reserved. No part of this book or parts thereof may be reproduced,
stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any language or by any means,
electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise without the prior
written permission of the author.
1. INTERPRETATION OF
TOPOGRAPHICAL MAPS - I
EXERCISE
Answer the following questions.
1. How many types of maps are there?
Ans. Maps can be classified as follows:
i. Plan or cadastral maps ii. Wall map
iii. Atlas map iv. Physical
v. Political vi. Thematic
vii. Topographical map
2. What is the significance of colours in topographical maps?
Ans. Each colour represents a particular feature. All these colours are
called conventional colours as they are accepted all over the
world. For example,
• yellow – cultivable land
• green – forest area
• blue – perennial water bodies, etc.
3. List the objectives of Survey of India map.
Ans. The objectives are :
a. To have all topographical control and conduct required
surveys within the country.
b. Mapping and production of political, physical and aeronautical
charts.
c. Demarcation of external boundaries.
4. Draw the symbols of the following conventional signs in
appropriate colours —
(i) Broken ground (ii) Temple (iii) Church (iv) Contours showing
one side steep, the other side gentle slope (v) Survey tree
Ans. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

5
5. Define the following terms and draw the symbols for the same:
(i) Causeway (ii) Contours (iii) Depression (iv) Stony waste
(v) Fire line (vi) Surveyed tree (vii) Brackish
(viii) Meander (ix) Broken ground (x) Embankment
Ans. (i) Causeway is a raised platform across a minor
stream or road. It is motorable during dry
season.
(ii) Contours are imaginary lines joining places of
equal heights above the sea level.
(iii) Depression is formed in sandy regions at the
top of the sand dune where the wind blows
the sand away.
(iv) The land mostly covered with rock boulders
and stones where cultivation is not possible.
(v) A clearing made in the forest area to prevent
spread of fire.
(vi) A surveyor’s mark shown in black.
( vii) Salted water of the perennial line well not fit
for drinking or irrigation.
(viii) Meander is a bend in the river flowing through
a plain. It indicates a flat land.
(ix) Found in dry or arid regions where the top soil
gets easily eroded during rainy season due to
flooding. This type of land is uncultiviable.
(x) A cement wall constructed along a tank or
artificial lake to prevent flooding.
6. What is the significance of conventional signs and symbols in
topographical survey maps? Explain with the help of examples.
Ans. A variety of features both natural and man-made are depicted
with the help of symbols on the topographical sheet. These are
called conventional symbols and these are accepted universally.
E.g., A river –

Or a metalled road –

6
7. Define the following conventional signs and symbols.
(Refer Textbook)
Ans. Same as question 5.

2. INTERPRETATION OF
TOPOGRAPHICAL MAPS - II
EXERCISE
Answer the following questions.
1. Define contour.
Ans. A contour is an imaginary line joining all places which are at
the same height taken from mean sea level.
2. What is hachuring used for?
Ans. It helps to know the steepness of a slope.
3. What is a gradient? How is it determined?
Ans. Not in syllabus any more.
4. What are form lines?
Ans. Form lines are contour lines that show only approximate height
above sea level. They are used to show the elevations of the area
that are not accessible for proper survey.
5. What are spot heights? How are they represented on the map?
Ans. Spot heights. Spot heights are actual heights above mean sea
level, fixed during a survey. For example, H is the height of that
point above mean sea level, represented with a .200 m.
6. What is meant by benchmarks? How are they represented on the
map?
Ans. Benchmarks are the permanent survey points shown by a stone
or a building. They indicate the height of that point above sea
level through accurate survey and denoted as BM.
7. What is meant by index contours? In what way are they useful?
Ans. Every fifth line in the multiple of 20 m is accentuated or
highlighted. This is called index contour.
8. Differentiate between vertical interval and horizontal equivalent.
Ans. Vertical interval is the vertical distance between two contours.
Horizontal equivalent is the horizontal distance between two
contour lines.
9. What is a grid?
7
Ans. The network of horizontal and vertical lines or the Easting and
Northing is called the Grid or Grid reference.
10. What points should be kept in mind while reading a grid reference?
Ans. Points –
i. Origin is the southwest (SW) corner of the map.
ii. Eastings are always read to the East of the origin.
iii. Northings are always read to the North of the origin.
iv. While giving a grid reference, Eastings are stated first, followed
by Northings.
11. Identify and name the relief features represented in the given
diagrams A, B, C, D, E and F.

Ans. A. Plateau
B. V shape valley
C. A pass
D. Gentle slope and steep slope
E. A conical hill
F. A conical hill with steep slope on one side and gentle slope
on the other.

8
3. LOCATION, EXTENT AND PHYSICAL
FEATURES OF INDIA
(THROUGH MAP ONLY)
1. On the outline map of India :
(a) Mark the following mountains in brown and name them :
Himalayas, Aravali, Garo, Khasi, Jayantia, Vindhya, Satpura,
Nilgiris, Eastern and Western Ghats, K2, and Kanchenjunga.
(b) Mark the rivers in blue and name them :
Indus, Ravi, Betwa, Son, Gomti, Mahanadi, Brahmaputra,
Narmada, Tapi, Krishna, Kaveri, Turgabhadra and Godavari.
(c) Mark and name the plains, plateaus and coastal plains, as
given in the map syllabus.

9
2. On an outline map of India :
(i) Mark and name the Tropic of Cancer.
(ii) Mark and name the Standard Meridian of India.
(iii) On a political map of India, mark the 28 states and name
their capitals.
(iv) Mark and name the union territories of India.
(v) Mark and name the National Capital Territory (NCT) of India.
3. On an outline map of India
(i) Mark and name with the help of arrows : Western Disturbances.
(ii) Standard Meridian – 82½°E.
82 12°E
STANDARD MERIDIAN

AFGHANISTAN
LADAKH

W
N
Di
st
ur
ba
nc
PA K I S TA N es C H I N A

N
E
P
A BHUTAN
L

BANGLADESH
ncer 23 1°N
TRIPURA
Tropic of Ca 2

MAYNMAR

ARABIAN BAY
OF
SEA AMASRAVATI BENGAL
Panaji
GOA

SRI
LANKA

I N D I A N O C E A N

10
4. CLIMATE OF INDIA

EXERCISE
A. Multiple Choice Questions.
1. The temperature decreases with increasing altitude at the rate of
(a) 2° C for every 140m (b) 1° C for every 32m
(c) 6° C for every 500m (d) 1° C for every 166m
2. The SW monsoon blows in summer from
(a) SE to NW (b) SW to NE (c) NE to SW (d) NW to SW
3. Monsoon winds are
(a) Local winds (b) Westerlies
(c) Periodic winds (d) Easterlies
4. The local winds Kali Baisakhi are accompanied by heavy rainfall.
It is good for
(a) wheat crop (b) cotton crop (c) tea crop (d) coffee crop
5. SW monsoon winds pick up moisture from
(a) Bay of Bengal (b) Arabian sea
(c) Indian ocean (d) Mediterranean sea
6 The Retreating monsoon causes winter rain in
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Gujarat (d) Tamil Nadu
7. Cold season extends from
(a) June to September (b) March to May
(c) October to November (d) December to February
8. Loo, the hot dusty winds blow in the month of
(a) May (b) December (c) October (d) January
9. North East Monsoon blows in the direction of
(a) Southwest to Northeast (b) West to East
(c) Northeast to Southwest (d) Northwest to Southeast
10. Western disturbances originate in the
(a) Arabian sea (b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian ocean (d) Mediterranean Sea
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (d)
8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11
B. Answer the following questions.
1. Name the factors affecting the climate of a place.
Ans. (a) Tropic of Cancer (b) Great Himalayas
(Factors for temperature – location, influence of Himalayas,
Altitude, Distance from the sea, Western disturbances, Tropical,
cyclones and Upper air currents or Jet stream)
2. Name the type of climate in India.
Ans. Tropical Monsoon
3. What is the chief characteristic feature of the tropical monsoon
type climate?
Ans. Alternation of seasons
4. What are onshore winds and offshore winds?
Ans. Onshore winds are those winds that from blow sea to land, which
contain/bring moisture with them. Offshore winds are the winds
that blow from land to sea. These are dry winds.
5. State the importance of monsoon season in India.
Ans. Indian economy depends on monsoons. Failure of monsoon/
weak monsoon affects the crop pattern; also good rainfall helps
in increasing the groundwater levels.
6. Name a few local winds that pass through India.
Ans. Local winds – Loo, Kalibaisakhi, Mango showers, Norwesters
and Cherry blossom.
7. Which is the more important branch — the Arabian Sea branch
or the Bay of Bengal branch? Why?
Ans. The Arabian Sea branch because the Arabian Sea branch is more
powerful as it is three times greater than that the Bay of Bengal
branch.
8. Which is the first state to receive the monsoon winds and the
last to see its retreat in India?
Ans. Kerala
9. State two important characteristic features of the Indian monsoons.
Ans. – It is orographic in nature.
– It is uneven, erratic and unpredictable.
– Most of the country gets rain from the south-west monsoons.
10. Name the different seasons of India, stating the months when

12
they are experienced.
Ans. The four seasons are:
(i) The Hot Day Season (March to May)
(ii) The Rainy Season or the season of the South-west monsoon
(June to September)
(iii) The Season of Retreating South-west monsoon (Oct to Nov).
(iv) The Cold Season or the season of the North-East monsoon
(Dec to Feb)
11. What is the meaning of the word ‘monsoon’?
Ans. Monsoon is derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’ which
means season.
12. How are monsoon winds different from the land and sea breezes?
Ans. Monsoon winds blow for a certain period of time and are
responsible for bringing rain on a larger scale, whereas land
and sea breezes only moderate the temperature of a place.
13. Why are there great variations in India’s climate?
Ans. Due to
– vast latitudinal expanse
– the varied topographical features
– the size of the land
– distance from the sea
14. Give reasons to justify that the Himalayas act as a perfect climatic
divide.
Ans. The two functions of the Himalayas are :
(a) they act as a barrier for the rain bearing winds, i.e., they do
not allow the winds to leave our country.
(b) they prevent the bitter cold winds from Siberia entering
our country.
15. Which winds are responsible for the rain experienced over the
greater part of India?
Ans. South-west Monsoon winds
16. During which part of the year is the rain experienced in India?
Ans. June to September
17. How are the sources of rainfall in the north-west part of India
different from the rain experienced on the eastern coastal areas
in winter?
13
Ans. North-west India – Westerly depressions – rainfall during winter;
coastal areas of Eastern India – North-east monsoon – rainfall
during winter.
18. Why does Kanyakumari experience an equable climate?
Ans. Because it has coastal influence/surrounded by the sea.
19. Why does central Maharashtra receive scanty rainfall?
Ans. It lies in the rain shadow region of the Deccan Plateau.
20. Why is western part of India a desert region?
Ans. Western India –
(i) The Arabian Sea branch of South-west monsoon blows parallel
to the Aravalli hills, so they do not intercept these winds.
(ii) These hills are very low.
(iii) The moisture laden winds passing over Rajasthan do not
saturate as the heat in the desert region increases their
capacity to hold moisture.
21. What are western disturbances?
Ans. During winter there is an inflow of low pressure depressions
called Western Disturbance in North-west India. These originate
in the Mediterranean Sea and come to India after crossing Iraq,
Afghanistan and Pakistan. They move east causing/bringing rain
in Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh.
22. Name one part of India that receives rainfall in winter and summer
as well.
Ans. Coromandel Coast
23. Explain how retreating monsoon winds are different from the
north-east trades.
Ans. (i) Retreating monsoons blow during the months of October and
November.
(ii) The north-east trade winds bring less rain.
North-east monsoon – they blow from North-east to South-
east and bring rain during winter to Eastern Coast.
24. Name a place in India which receives the heaviest rainfall. To
which state does this place belong?
Ans. Mawsynram in Meghalaya (state).
25. Name the winds that are responsible for causing heaviest rainfall
in the above question.
14
Ans. The Bay of Bengal branch of South-west monsoon.
[Temperature and Rainfall conditions in major cities of India]
Station Altitude in
J F M A M J J A S O N D
Metres

Pune 559 T°C 21 22.6 26.3 29.2 29.7 27.5 25.1 24.5 24.8 25.5 22.5 20.5

R cms 0.15 0.15 0.15 1.5 2.7 11.4 16.7 9.0 13.4 9.0 2.7 0.3

Mumbai T 24.4 24.4 26.7 28.3 30.0 28.9 27.2 27.2 27.2 28.3 27.2 25.0

R 0.25 0.25 — — 1.75 50.2 61.0 37.0 27.0 4.75 1.00 —

Mangaluru 22 T 26.5 26.8 28.1 29.2 29.2 26.5 26.1 26.1 26.3 26.8 27.0 26.7

R 0.28 0.18 0.52 2.89 15.7 94.18 98.8 59.74 26.62 20.7 7.24 1.29

Madurai 133 T 25.0 26.5 28.7 30.6 21.2 20.08 20.2 29.08 29.02 28.0 26.4 25.2

R 1.97 1.24 1.77 5.48 6.95 2.98 4.94 16.2 11.9 18.8 14.5 5.1

Chennai T 24.5 26 28 30 32 32.5 30.7 30 29.7 28 26 24.6

R 2.8 0.7 0.7 1.5 4.5 5.1 9.5 11.3 12.4 28.1 34.5 13.6

Srinagar 1586 T 0.3 2.6 8.3 13.1 17.7 21.9 24.4 23.8 20.2 14.0 8.1 3.3

R 7.39 7.1 9.17 9.27 1.65 3.56 5.92 6.15 3.89 2.97 1.12 3.35

New Delhi 216 T 13.8 16.6 21.6 27.8 33.2 33.6 30.9 29.8 29.2 25.7 19.7 15.2

R 2.5 2.1 1.3 0.8 1.3 7.7 17.9 18.4 12.3 1.0 0.2 1.0

Kolkata 6 T 19.4 21.7 26.7 29.4 30.6 29.4 28.9 28.3 28.3 27.2 22.8 19.4

R 0.7 2.8 3.6 4.8 14.5 30.2 31.8 32.3 25.1 10.6 1.8 0.4

Ahmedabad 50 T 21.7 23.3 27.9 31.7 33.9 33 29.8 28.5 29 29.4 26.2 22.7

R 0.15 0.2 0.13 0.13 0.99 9.3 31 20.4 106 0.89 0.36 0.1

26. Refer data of Pune and answer the following questions :


(a) Calculate the annual range of temperature.
(b) What is the total rainfall experienced by the station?
(c) When does the station receive maximum rainfall? State a
reason for your answer.
Ans. (a) 9.2°C (b) 67.15 cm
(c) In the month of July by South West Monsoon of Arabian sea
branch.
27. Give reasons for the following :
(i) Mumbai gets more rainfall than Pune.
(ii) The moisture laden winds passing over Rajasthan do not
saturate.
(iii) S.W. monsoon withdraws from India in October/November.
Ans. (i) Since Mumbai lies on the windward side of Western Ghats
and Pune lies on the leeward side of Western Ghats, it
receives less rain.
(ii) As the heat in the desert region increases the capacity to hold
the moisture.

15
(iii) Due to the apparent movement of the Sun towards south, the
low pressure in Central India gets weakened and is no longer
able to attract the monsoon winds towards the land, so the
South-west monsoon begins to withdraw from the mainland
of India.
28. Answer in one word :
(i) Withdrawal of SW monsoon.
(ii) Low pressure depressions during winter in North-west India.
(iii) Land and sea breeze on a large scale.
Ans. (i) Retreating monsoon
(ii) Westerly depressions
(iii) Monsoon


5. SOIL RESOURCES OF INDIA


EXERCISE
A. Multiple Choice Questions.
1. Black soils are rich in
(a) Magnesium Carbonates (b) Phosphates
(c) Nitrogen (d) Organic matter
2. The red soils are formed due to
(a) Weathering of ancient crystalline rocks
(b) Disintegration of sedimentary rocks
(c) Deposition by the rivers
(d) Transport by the rivers
3. Red soils are rich in
(a) Potash (b) Lime (c) Nitrogen (d) Phosphate
4. An area in India where Gully erosion takes place
(a) Narmada valley (b) Chambal ravines
(c) Ganga river (d) Damodar river
5. Black soils are found in
(a) Haryana (b) Maharashtra
(c) Meghalaya (d) Uttar Pradesh
6. The soil with the unique property of being building material
(a) Red soil (b) Alluvial soil
(c) Laterite soil (d) Black soil
7. The laterite soils are found in

16
(a) The summits of Western ghats
(b) Deccan Plateau
(c) Indo-Gangetic plains
(d) Coastal plains
8. The soil formed due to deposition by rivers
(a) Red soil (b) Black soil
(c) Alluvial soil (d) Laterite soil
9. The soil that promotes leaching
(a) Red soil (b) Black soil
(c) Alluvial soil (d) Laterite soil
10. The soil formed in situ
(a) Red soil (b) Black soil
(c) Alluvial soil (d) Laterite soil
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a)
8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)

B. Answer the following questions.


1. How are soils formed?
Ans. Soils are formed under specific natural conditions. Its formation
is related to the parent rock material. It is formed by denudation
and disintegration of rocks. The process of soil formation is called
Pedogenesis.
2. Name the factors responsible for soil formation.
Ans. Its formation/factors are –
(a) Parent material (b) Climatic conditions
(c) Relief (d) Vegetation
(e) Drainage
(f) Animals, insects and man are also factors responsible for the
formation of soil
3. Name the main components of soil.
Ans. Main components of soil – mixture of inorganic materials, minerals
and organic material (humus).
4. Name the major soils of India.
Ans. Major soil of India –
(a) Alluvial soils (b) Black soils
(c) Red soils and (d) Laterite soils

17
5. Why are alluvial soils very fertile?
Ans. Because they are rich in humus.
6. How are black soils formed?
Ans. They are formed as a result of weathering and denudation of
lava flow rocks/have originated from the solidification of basic
lava spread over vast areas of Deccan Plateau during volcanic
activity.
7. Does black soil undergo leaching?
Ans. No because these areas are not subjected to heavy rain/non-porous
and rain cannot wash out the silicates.
8. Give the other names for black soil. Name two characteristic
features of black soil.
Ans. Insitu/Lava soil/Regur soil / Residual soil
(i) It is fine textured and clayey.
(ii) It has high amount of lime, iron, phosphorous, etc.
9. Why are red soils not suitable for agriculture?
Ans. Because they lack humus, magnesia, lime and nitrogen.
10. What is leaching? Give an example of a leached soil.
Ans. Leaching is a process by which the mineral nutrients in the soil
are washed away by heavy rainfall, thereby making the top soil
infertile. Example – Laterite soil.
11. What type of soil is widely distributed over the Ganga basin?
Ans. Alluvial soil.
12. Which is the most widely transported soil?
Ans. Alluvial soil.
13. Which soil is found suitable for growing coffee in India?
Ans. Laterite soil.
14. Name the soil found on the summits of Eastern Ghats.
Ans. Laterite soil.
15. Name one important characteristic of mountain soil.
Ans. Mountain soil is loamy and silty in valley sides and coarse grained
in the upper slopes.
16. What are the properties of desert soils?
Ans. Their colour vary from red to brown. They are generally sandy
in texture and saline in nature
17. How are laterite soils formed?
Ans. Laterite soils are formed under the conditions of high temperature

18
and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods. Its formation
takes place strictly under monsoon conditions.
18. Why does laterite soil undergo leaching?
Ans. Because it is found in areas which experience heavy rainfall it
is a typical soil found monsoon type of climatic region.
19. What is soil erosion? Name the different types of soil erosion.
Ans. Soil erosion is the removal of top soil by different agents of
weathering.
Types –
(i) Sheet erosion
(ii) Gully erosion/Rill Erosion
(iii) Splash erosion
20. What is soil conservation? State two ways in which one can
reduce soil erosion.
Ans. Soil conservation is an effort made to prevent soil erosion. Soil
erosion can be prevented by afforestation and by constructing small
dams.
21. Explain the following terms : topsoil, in situ, bangar, khadar, humus.
Ans. Top soil – it is the uppermost layer of the soil consisting of
humus, thereby making it very fertile.
In situ – formed where they are found.
Bhangar – they are the old alluvial soils found usually higher
up in the Northern Plains, they are not very fertile.
Khadar – are the new alluvial soils, found at the low levels near
the river, are very fertile since they are replenished by floods
every year.
Humus – it is the organic material, dark in colour, formed by
the decomposition of plant remains and animal waste. The more
humus, darker is the soil and more fertile is the soil.
22. On an outline map of India.
(a) Mark one major area for each of the following soils: alluvial
soil, black soil, laterite soil and red soil.
(b) A region rich in alluvial soil.
(c) Shade the area having black soil is the western Madhya
Pradesh.
(d) Mark a region having red soil in eastern Rajasthan.
(e) Mark the type of soil found on the coastal strip of Eastern
Coast.
19
(f) Mark an area on the Western Coast having laterite soil.
Ans.

23. Give geographical reasons –


(a) Red soil is not suitable for cultivation.
(b) Laterite soils are used as building material.
(c) Black soils are black in colour.
(d) Alluvial soils of coastal region are black in colour.
Ans. Give reasons –
(a) Because it lacks humus and is acidic in nature.
(b) Because they harden like iron when exposed to air and are
durable so they provide valuable building material.
(c) Due to black crystalline schists and basic gneisses, also due

20
to the fact that they are formed due to the solidification of
lava during volcanic activity.
(d) Due to the fact that it is porous, clay like/presence of new
or old alluvium.
24. Answer in one word –
(a) Soils formed due to weathering of Deccan trap.
(b) Alluvial soils of coastal region are called ________________
(c) In some valleys like Narmada and Tapi the soil is
______________ deep.
Ans. (a) Black (b) Coastal alluvium
(c) 6 m


6. NATURAL VEGETATION
EXERCISE
A. Multiple Choice Questions
1. Tropical evergreen forests are so called because
(a) they are very dense
(b) they are rain forests
(c) the trees are found in mixed stands
(d) they do not shed their leaves at the same time
2. Identify the tree which is hard and scented found usually in high
altitudes.
(a) Teak (b) Rosewood
(c) Deodar (d) Sundari
3. Name the vegetation found in the windward side of the Western
Ghats
(a) Tropical evergreen forest (b) Deciduous
(c) Mangrove forests (d) Thorn and scrub forests
4. Afforestation is
(a) cutting down the trees
(b) planting trees from where they have been removed
(c) planting fresh trees
(d) clearing forests for the purpose of farming
5. These type of trees are found on the windward side of the
Western Ghats
(a) Rosewood (b) Hintal (c) Chir (d) Deodar
21
6. Littoral forests grow in the areas of
(a) heavy rainfall (more than 200cm) in and around delta
(b) Western coast of India with rainfall above 200cm
(c) Central India with rainfall of 100-200cm
(d) In North West India in the Indo-Gangetic plain with rainfall
of 100-150cm
7. The littoral forests have pneumatophores or breathing roots
because
(a) they can resist the tidal waves
(b) to get oxygen
(c) to survive in marshes and submerged areas
(d) for scenic beauty
8. The characteristic feature of the forest found in Nilgiri hills is
(a) they are dense
(b) the forests are economically important
(c) they occur in the transition zone of mixed forest and
coniferous forest
(d) they have broad leaves
9. The trees in the Tropical desert forest have stunted growth
because
(a) they do not get enough rainfall
(b) they have long thorns
(c) they are not economically important
(d) because of lack of nutrients and dehydration in the desert
10. The trees in the given picture provide wood pulp for paper
industry. Identify the type of trees

(a) Deciduous (b) Coniferous (c) Khair (d) Myrobalan

Answers
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c)
8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)

22
B. Answer the following questions
1. What do you mean by the term ‘Natural Vegetation’?
Ans. Natural vegetation are plants that have not been grown by humans.
2. State the relation between climate and natural vegetation of a
place.
Ans. Natural vegetation of a place depends on soil, climate, relief and
most important rainfall. According to the distribution of rainfall
it varies from place to place, heavier the rainfall, denser is the
growth of plants.
3. How important are trees to man?
Ans. Forests are important to man. They provide several direct and
indirect benefits to mankind – they help in maintaining ecological
balance, reduce pollution, purify air, source of timber, fruits,
flowers, fuel, herbs, home for a wide variety of animals, birds,
insects and source of employment to many people
4. What is the percentage of forest cover on land in India?
Ans. Nearly 22 per cent.
5. Why is there shrinkage of forest cover in India? What precautions
can be taken to reduce this shrinkage?
Ans. Shrinkage due to :
(a) Population pressure
(b) Practice of shifting cultivation
(c) Overgrazing of pasture
(d) Deforestation
(e) Urbanisation and industrialisation
(f) Construction of hydroelectric projects
(g) Human activities like mining, quarrying, etc.
Precautions that could be taken include:
(a) Afforestation
(b) Shifting cultivation to be banned
(c) Scientific methods to be adopted and stop forest fires
(d) Undertaking silviculture operations on a wide scale
(e) Establishing national parks and sanctuaries to protect wildlife
6. Name a few important forest products.
Ans. The important forest products are timber, fruits, flowers, fuel,
herbs, home for a wide variety of animals, birds and insects.

23
7. What are the factors that influence the natural vegetation of a
place?
Ans. Natural vegetation of a place depends on soil, climate, relief and
most important rainfall. According to the distribution of rainfall
it varies from place to place, heavier the rainfall, denser is the
growth of plants.
8. What are the characteristics of tropical evergreen forest? Name
some important trees of these forests.
Ans. Tropical Evergreen Forests –
(a) Characterised by climber and epiphytes
(b) Have dense undergrowth
(c) Lack of transport facility
(d) Found in the areas of heavy rainfall
9. Name the economically most important vegetation belt of India.
Justify your answer.
Ans. Tropical deciduous/ deciduous monsoon forests provide wood/
timber for commercial purposes which is hard and durable. These
forests are not as dense as tropical evergreen forests. Forests are
accessible, trees grow in pure stand.
10. Mention one area where deciduous monsoon forests are found.
Give one reason stating why they are found there.
Ans. (a) Area – in the belt running along the Western Ghats, surrounding
the belt of Evergreen Forests, both on eastern and western
slopes.
(b) The second area runs along the Shivalik range and Chotanagpur
plateau. Reason – these areas receive rainfall between 150–
200 cm, temperature between 24°– 27°C.
11. Name the important trees of monsoon forests. Give one use of
each.
Ans. Important trees are teak, sal, sandalwood, semul, myrobalan,
eucalyptus.
Uses –
(a) Teak for making furniture/construction of houses (doors,
windows).
(b) Sal – railway sleepers and house building.
(c) Sandalwood – handicrafts, oil in perfumes and cosmetics.
(d) Semul – matchboxes, toys and packing cases.
(e) Myrobalan – fruit used for tanning leather and dyeing purpose
24
(f) Eucalyptus – oil for medicinal purpose and wood for paper
industry.
12. What are the main features of the mountain forests? In which
parts of India are these forests found?
Ans. (a) Mountain forests – features – they consist of mixed deciduous
and coniferous forests.
(b) They occur in the transition zone of mixed forest and
coniferous forests.
(c) Mixed vegetation can be seen as according to height,
temperature and rainfall changes.
They are found in the temperate zone of the Himalayas, in
the South they are found in Nilgiris and Annamalai hills at an
elevation from 1000 m to 1500 m.
13. Under what climatic conditions do the desert and semi-desert
vegetation grow?
Ans. Climate conditions: – Temperature - 25° – 27°C
Rainfall less than 25 cm
14. What are the characteristics of the Mangrove forests?
Ans. Characteristics –
(a) These forests are common in areas along the coasts and the
mouth of the rivers which are affected by tides.
(b) It can survive both in fresh and saltwater.
(c) Characterised by breathing roots or pneumatophore which act as
respiratory organs.
(d) Its stilt like roots remain submerged under water but can be seen
at low tide, this tangled mass of root helps the plant to survive
in the shifting mud of coastal regions.
(e) These forests are very dense.
15. By what other names do you associate Mangrove forests?
Ans. Other names are Tidal / Littoral / Sundarbans.
16. What do you mean by the terms ‘afforestation’ and ‘deforestation’?
Ans. Afforestation – to increase the area under forests, more and more
trees are planted.
Deforestation – to plant two small seedlings in place of a felled

tree/where trees have been cut.

25
17. Give two characteristic features of Tropical Evergreen forest that
make it difficult to exploit.
Ans. (a) Because they are dense hence impenetrable.
(b) Transport is not possible.
(c) Trees do not grow in pure stand.
18. Why are the Deciduous Monsoon forests found on the eastern
part of South India?
Ans. These areas experience rainfall of 150 cm – 200 cm.
19. Name two states in India where thorn and scrub forests are found
along with two examples of trees found here.
Ans. Two states – Rajasthan, W. Haryana, W. Punjab, Gujarat, parts
of MP, trees – khair, babul and kikar. (any two)
20. Name the type of vegetation found in saline environment under
tidal influence and name the most important tree associated with
the above type of vegetation.
Ans. Tidal forests/sundari tree, gorjan and hintal.
21. What characteristics of Sundari tree make it suitable for boat
building?
Ans. Sundari – wood is hard, strong and durable.
22. Why are forests grown in and around steel cities?
Ans. To reduce pollution and also provide basic raw material.
23. Name two states where Deodar trees are grown. How is this
wood useful?
Ans. Deodar is grown in Himachal Pradesh and Kashmir; the wood
is used for house construction and other purposes.
24. Name the type of vegetation found along the coastal strip of the
Ganga delta.
Ans. Tidal/Mangrove
25. State the total forest cover of the total geographic area of India.
Ans. Around 22 per cent.
26. Give geographical reasons –
(a) Tropical Evergreen forests are called Evergreen.
(b) Tropical Evergreen forests are called rainforests.
(c) The tidal forests occur in and around deltas.
Ans. (a) As they do not shed their leaves at the same time, they remain
evergreen.

26
(b) They are found in areas of heavy rainfall.
(c) These mangrove forests are found prone to tidal influence.
Their roots remain submerged in water but can be seen at
low tide and are characterised by breathing roots.
27. Answer in one word
(a) The tidal forests that occur in and around the deltas.
(b) Its fruit is used for tanning leather and for dyeing purposes.
(c) These forests shed their leaves for 6– 8 weeks during spring.
Ans. (a) Mangrove
(b) Khair tree
(c) Deciduous monsoon forests
28. Differentiate between social forestry and agro forestry.
Ans. Social forestry Agro forestry
l To create awareness regarding l It is an integrated approach

conservation of forests. using interactive benefits.


l To meet the needs of rural l It is more profitable usage

people regarding fuel and of land.


timber.


7. WATER RESOURCES
A. Multiple Choice Questions.
1. Irrigation in India is indispensable for sustained agricultural
development because of
(a) ever increasing demand of food crops
(b) India experiences tropical monsoon climate which is unevenly
distributed, unreliable and erratic in nature
(c) There is a large variety of crops grown in India
(d) Scarcity of rainfall
2. The perennial canals can be built in the areas of
(a) uneven terrain
(b) low level relief with deep fertile soil
(c) in the deltaic regions
(d) in the mountainous relief
27
3. A tank can be constructed in the area of
(a) undulating relief (b) underlying hard rocks
(c) natural depressions (d) all the above
4. The tank irrigation is practiced mostly in
(a) Punjab (b) Uttarakhand
(c) Haryana (d) Tamil Nadu
5. A tube well is a
(a) borewell (b) pond
(c) lake (d) surface well
6. The given type of modern irrigation is useful
for arid region
(a) bamboo irrigation
(b) tube well irrigation
(c) drip irrigation
(d) sprinkler irrigation
7. Irrigation by canals is more suitable in Northern India because
(a) it is cheap
(b) it irrigates larger area
(c) the surface of the northern plain is flat with soft soil
(d) it is perennial
8. Canal irrigation leads to the ground around it becoming
unproductive because
(a) due to waterlogging the capacity of the soil to absorb water
decreases and the water which collects can ruin the crop
(b) percolation of water through canal can lead to swamps
(c) problem of salt effervescence due to overflooding of the
fields make the soil unsuitable for farming
(d) all the above
9. Rainwater harvesting is useful for
(a) industrial use (b) recharging ground water
(c) domestic use (d) agriculture
10. Connect the correct pairs.
(a) paar (1) Maharashtra
(b) kere (2) Assam
(c) tal (3) Karnataka
(d) dongs (4) Western Rajasthan

28
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c)
8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a) (4), (b) (3), (c) (1), (d) (2)

B. Answer the following questions


1. What is irrigation?
Ans. The process of supplying water to crops by artificial measures such as
canals, wells, tube wells and lakes from the existing natural sources
of water like rivers, tanks, ponds or underground water.
2. Why is irrigation necessary for a country like India?
Ans. Need:
(a) Uneven uncertain distribution of rainfall.
(b) Rainfall is restricted June to September except in Tamil Nadu
which receives rains in winter too.
(c) Some crops which are grown in winter need artificial supply
of water when there is hardly any rain in most parts of the
country.
(d) A few crops such as rice, sugarcane, jute, etc. need more
water and hence need to be provided with irrigation.
(e) The ever increasing population in India leads to demand of more
intensive agriculture. Hence the need for irrigation is felt.
3. State the different methods of irrigation.
Ans. The different methods of irrigation are as follows – canal, tank,
wells, tubewells, sprinkler, dip irrigation and bamboo irrigation.
4. Of the two types of canal irrigation, which do you think is better?
Why?
Ans. Perennial canals are better because they contain water/serve
throughout the year; as they supply water even during hot season,
cultivation of some crops can be carried out around the year.
5. What is tank irrigation?
Ans. When water is collected in tanks and used in the dry season to
irrigate fields, it is called tank irrigation.
6. What are the advantages and disadvantages of tank irrigation?
Ans. Advantages –
(a) It is cheaper.
(b) As the water is collected and used in dry season, it uses the
water table of the surrounding region.

29
(c) In the absence of perennial rivers and canals, tanks provide
a source of water during dry season.
(d) It is cheaper than other type of irrigation.
Disadvantages –
(a) Large amount of water is wasted through evaporation.
(b) Since the tanks dry up in summer.
(c) They occupy large areas of land, which could be otherwise
used for cultivation.
(d) Due to stagnation of water, siltation takes place.
7. Where are tanks most widely used and why?
Ans. Tank irrigation is used mostly in South India predominantly in
the states of Telangana, AP and Tamil Nadu because:
(a) Many natural depressions are found in Peninsular India.
(b) Because of hard rocks, which are non-porous, they can store
water during rains.
8. Of the two types of wells, which is the best and why?
Ans. Tubewells because –
(a) They can irrigate a larger area as compared to surface wells.
(b) They are useful during drought conditions when surface wells
dry up.
(c) They occupy less area as compared to surface area.
(d) They do not cause pollution.
9. Name two states where tank irrigation and well irrigation is
practised.
Ans. Two states where tank irrigation is practiced – AP, Telangana,
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. (Give any two names)
Well irrigation – UP, Bihar, Punjab, AP and Haryana. (any two)
10. Name two methods of drawing water from the well.
Ans. Two methods – Persian wheel or Rahat. It is worked by bullocks
or buffaloes. Mhole, Picolan/Dhenkli /and other methods.
11. Despite big river projects, irrigation through groundwater has
still been growing in popularity. Why is this?
Ans. Because it is cheaper and does not cause pollution.
12. For an Indian farmer state two advantages that well irrigation
has over canal irrigation.
30
Ans. l Well irrigation is cheaper than canal irrigation.
l It has water throughout three year.

13. What is the difference between surface water resource and


groundwater resource? State two advantages of each.
Ans. Surface water Groundwater
This is the water, i.e., available The part of the rainwater that
in the form of rivers, on the seeps through the cracks,
surface of the earth in lakes, crevices into the ground is
ponds and canals. called groundwater.

14. Name two important canal systems each in Uttar Pradesh and
Punjab.
Ans. UP – Agra canal, upper Ganga canal
Punjab – Nangal canal, Sirhind canal
15. Irrigation in India faces many problems. State any two such
problems.
Ans. Problem – if there is a problem with the monsoon, different
irrigation measures also fail as the monsoon is uneven and the
distribution of rainfall is uncertain.
16. Differentiate between inundation canal and perennial canal.
Ans. Inundation canals Perennial canals
l They are useful only l They contain water throughout

during the floods. year.


l They are cheaper and l They are comparatively more

easy to build. expensive.

17. Give two reasons why inundation canals are being converted to
perennial canals.
Ans. Inundation canals are being converted to perennial canals because
(a) They contain water throughout the year.
(b) They are more useful.
18. Give two reasons why tube well irrigation is more important in
northern India than in southern India.
Ans. Tube wells are more important in North India because the ground
is softer as compared to South India which is more rocky.

31
19. Give two reasons why tank irrigation is more popular in southern
India.
Ans. Because :
(a) Most of the area of peninsula India is uneven with many
natural depressions.
(b) The Deccan plateau consists of underlying hard rocks which
are impervious/non-porous, these rocks do not allow the water
to seep through.
20. Name two states which suffer periodically from droughts. Give
a reason for your answer.
Ans. Rajasthan and Telangana; reason – scarcity of rainfall
21. State the objectives of National Water Policy.
Ans. Objectives of National Water Policy are :
(a) To provide surplus water to the deficit areas.
(b) It proposes to evolve a national water grid for proper
management and utilisation of water in the country.
(c) It aims to reduce water pollution and to improve the quality
of water of the rivers.
(d) Recharging of groundwater is also a priority of National
Water Policy.
22. What is meant by the term Rainwater Harvesting?
Ans. Rainwater Harvesting – the activity of collecting rainwater directly
or recharging it into the ground to improve groundwater storage
in the aquifer.
23. Why is it necessary to conserve water?
Ans. (a) Because of the over-exploitation of underground water often
results in the lowering of the water table.
(b) In India rainfall is seasonal, unevenly distributed, thus
conservation of water is essential.
24. How is rainwater harvesting done? Explain.
Ans. Rainwater can be collected over rooftops and within our house
premises and can be channelised through small PVC pipes into the
underground pits, sumps/wells to be used by hand pump or wells.
25. State the advantages of rooftop rainwater harvesting.
Ans. (a) It replenishes the groundwater and increases its level.
32
(b) It improves the quality of groundwater by diluting salinity.
(c) Does not cause pollution and is environment friendly.
(d) Easily affordable.
26. Name the state where rainwater harvesting is commonly practised.
Ans. Chennai, Bengaluru, Mumbai, (states of AP, Telangana, Tamil
Nadu and Assam).
27. Give geographical reasons—
(a) River Damodar is called ‘river of sorrow’.
(b) Irrigation by canals is more suitable in northern India as
compared to the south.
(c) Tank irrigation is used in peninsular India.
Ans. (a) River Damodar is called ‘River of Sorrow’ owing to its
devastating floods.
l It used to flood its basin in Bengal.

(b) (i) Because the rivers of northern plains are perennial as they
are snow-fed whereas in South India rivers are seasonal.
(ii) The ground in the Northern Plains is flat and soft hence
easy to dig while in the South, the region being rocky is
difficult to dig.
(iii) The demand for irrigation is comparatively more in North
because it is an agricultural region.
(c) Because:
l In the Deccan Plateau, the underlying hard rocks do not

allow the water to seep through.


28. Answer in one word—
(a) A plastic tube which has small holes through which water
keeps on dripping.
(b) An ancient irrigation system in North-East part of India.
(c) Tube wells are used extensively in UP and Bihar and are
very popular.
Ans. (a) Drip irrigation
(b) Bamboo irrigation
(c) Tube wells are popular in UP and Bihar as conditions are
ideal in these areas with high water table and ground is
soft with alluvial soil so as to facilitate digging as deep as
required.

33
29. State the advantages and disadvantages of sprinkler irrigation.
Ans. Sprinkler irrigation
Advantage Disadvantage
l No loss of water by seepage l High initial cost and
evaporation as water is operating.
supplied through pipe.
l Suited for arid and semi-arid l Saline water may cause
regions. pollution.
l Does not interfere with l Water must be free from
cultivation, sand and less debris and salt.
wastage of water.
30. Name the modern methods of irrigation.
Ans. Modern sprinkler, drip irrigation, etc.
31. Study the picture below and answer the questions that follows :

(a) Name the type of irrigation.


(b) What are the advantages of this type of irrigation.
Ans. Drip irrigation –
Advantages
l Water application efficiency is high.

l Field levelling is not necessary.

l Soil type plays an important role in frequency of irrigation.

l Recycled non-potable water can be safely used.



34
8. MINERAL & ENERGY
RESOURCES - I
A. Multiple Choice Questions.
1. Metallic minerals are found in
(a) Sedimentary rocks (b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Igneous rocks (d) In all the above
2. Magnetite type of Iron ore contains
(a) 80% of pure iron (b) 72% of pure iron
(c) 60% of pure iron (d) 40% of pure iron
3. Iron ore is mainly used for
(a) ship building (b) bolts, nails and screws
(c) roads and railways (d) all the above
4. This state has the largest reserves of magnetite and haematite
(a) Odisha (b) Rajasthan
(c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh
5. This is an important mineral for making iron and steel
(a) copper (b) iron (c) coal (d) manganese
6. Manganese is used in the manufacture of
(a) bolts & nails (b) sponge
(c) iron appliances (d) ferromanganese
7. This mineral is highly ductile
(a) iron ore (b) manganese (c) copper (d) bauxite
8. It is used for making aircrafts, ships and utensils
(a) iron ore (b) bauxite
(c) copper (d) none of the above
9. The highest producer of copper is
(a) Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh
(b) Khetri in Rajasthan
(c) Jharkhand in Hazaribagh (d) Salem in Tamil Nadu
10. The leading producer of manganese is
(a) Sundargarh in Odisha
(b) Chitradurg in Karnataka
(c) Ratnagiri district in Maharashtra
(d) Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh

35
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c)
8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a)

B. Answer the following questions.


1. Name the prominent minerals of India.
Ans. They are coal, iron ore, manganese, copper and bauxite.
2. Name the state that leads in the production of Iron Ore in India.
Ans. Odisha followed by Karnataka and Chattisgarh.
3. Name two places in India where Bauxite is found.
Ans. Odisha and Jharkhand.
4. State two uses of Bauxite.
Ans. Uses – in making aircrafts, ships, utensils, headlights, reflector,
mirrors, etc. (any two)
5. Why is it necessary to conserve mineral resources?
Ans. Because they are exhaustible and they have many uses. They are
essential for many industries.
6. Name three states where iron ore is found in India.
Ans. Odisha, Karnataka and Chattisgarh.
7. State the uses of manganese.
Ans. Uses –
(i) Very important in the manufacturing of iron and steel.
(ii) In manufacturing bleaching powder/insecticides/dry batteries
and paints.
8. Why is manganese important for making iron and steel?
Ans. It makes steel strong, removes impurities and makes it immune
to rusting.
9. State the main uses of copper.
Ans. In electrical machinery/automobile industry/telephone/stainless
steel.
10. Name the states where copper is found.
Ans. MP, Rajasthan and Jharkhand.
11. Why is copper important for electrical machinery?
Ans. Of its high ductility, high thermal and electrical conductivity.


36
9. MINERAL AND ENERGY
RESOURCES – II
A. Multiple Choice Questions
1. Conventional energy resources consist of
(a) petroleum (b) tidal energy
(c) biofuel (d) wind energy
2. This is the best quality of coal with 80% carbon
(a) bituminous (b) lignite
(c) anthracite (d) peat
3. Petroleum is
(a) non-inflammable liquid
(b) natural fossil fuel
(c) renewable form of energy resource
(d) none of the above
4. Hydel power is a
(a) renewable resource
(b) non-renewable resource
(c) exhaustible resource
(d) very expensive
5. Multipurpose projects were installed by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru to
(a) supply water to cities and for power generation
(b) for navigation
(c) for economic development
(d) to avoid silting in the river
6. Hirakud dam was constructed mainly
(a) for Irrigation
(b) to control floods
(c) to supply water for domestic use
(d) to store water
7. The main raw materials for generation of atomic energy
(a) uranium and plutonium (b) coal and non-ore
(c) manganese and copper (d) copper and bauxite
8 Solar energy is
(a) in-exhaustible (b) non-renewable
(c) non affordable (d) more useful in temperate zone
37
9. Identify the type of energy used in the given picture
(a) wind energy
(b) solar energy
(c) biomass energy
(d) tidal power
10. Largest coal field in India
(a) Digboi (b) Ranigunj (c) Jharia (d) Bombay High

ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a)
8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)

B. Answer the following questions


1. How is energy obtained?
Ans. Energy is obtained from commercial sources like coal, petroleum
and natural gas.
2. How do we classify energy?
Ans. Energy
(i) Conventional energy source
(ii) Non-conventional energy source
3. Where is coal got from?
Ans. Coal is found in sedimentary rock.
4. Why is coal often referred to as ‘black gold’?
Ans. Coal like gold has many uses, it is versatile, it is used for
generating electricity, its byproduct also has many uses.
5. Write in brief about the origin of coal.
Ans. It was formed in the carboniferous period due to high temperature
and pressure which led to the slow burning of trees and plants
which are known as fossil fuels. It is found at various depths in
beds of varying thickness and extent.
6. Give the different varieties of coal. Which do you think is the
best variety? Why?
Ans. Different varieties of coal are :
(i) Anthracite (ii) Bituminous coal
(iii) Lignite (iv) Peat
Anthracite variety is the best because it contains 80 per cent
carbons. It is very hard, compact and gives more heat.
38
7. Name the main coal-bearing areas of India.
Ans. Coal bearing areas – Gondwana coalfields in Jharkhand,
Chattisgarh, Odisha and West Bengal.
8. List the state-wise distribution of coal.
Ans. West Bengal – Ranigunj, Purulia and Bankura
Jharkhand – Bokaro and Jharia
Odisha – Talcher
Madhya Pradesh – Singrauli, Korba and Chhindwara
Maharashtra – Pench
Telangana – Singareni
Tamil Nadu – Neyvelli
9. Which state ranks first in the Gondwana coal?
Ans. Jharkhand
10. Name three important states which form the tertiary coal
distribution.
Ans. Kashmir, Rajasthan and Assam.
11. Name any three major problems of coal mining industry.
Ans. Problems :
(i) There is a problem of ash disposal, as it gives out large
amounts of ash.
(ii) Fires or floods of coal mines cause heavy loss to both the
mines and lives.
(iii) Lack of high skill and technology – most of the mines use
obsolete methods.
(iv) Coal is a bulky commodity, so it requires heavy transport,
and thus requires good network of transport which increases
the prices.
12. List any two ways by which one can conserve coal.
Ans. (i) New reserves should be discovered and new techniques
should be adapted.
(ii) Selective mining should be discouraged in order to prevent
wastage of coal.
(iii) Coking coal should be used for metallurgical industry only.
13. Where is petroleum obtained from?
Ans. It is obtained from rocks, particularly sedimentary rocks inside
the earth.

39
14. Name the two most important areas of petroleum oil.
Ans. (i) Offshore sea at Mumbai High, Bassein and Aliabet
(ii) Digboi, Naharkatiya and Rudrasagar
(iii) Gujarat – Ankleshwar, Koyali and Kalol
(any two)
15. Name a few important oil fields of North and East India.
Ans. North-east Assam – Digboi, Naharkatiya, Maran
Arunachal Pradesh – at Nigreu oil fields near Kharasang
Nagaland – Borbolla (border between Nagaland & Assam)
16. Name a few important oil fields of West India.
Ans. West India – Gujarat – Ankleswar, Kalol, Kosamba, Kathana,
Kadi and Ahmedabad.
17. Why is Mumbai High considered to be major oil bearing site in
India?
Ans. Because it is a very promising oilfield and produces more than
1/3rd crude oil output of India.
18. How many oil refineries do we have in India?
Ans. About 18 oil refineries.
19. Name a few problems of natural gas.
Ans. (i) Flaring of gas is a very common problem. It takes place due
to lack of required compression and transport problems.
(ii) Lack of technical help
20. Name the different types of electricity.
Ans. (a) Hydro-electricity
(b) Thermal electricity
(c) Nuclear power
21. What are the main causes for the low production of hydel power?
Ans. Causes –
(a) Most of the river regions in India are erratic because they
are fed by monsoon rains which are seasonal, unreliable
especially in South India. Hence, the rivers cannot provide
for hydel power
(b) Many rivers do not have natural waterfalls and huge capital
has to be invested for controlling dams.
(c) The sites suitable are away from the consuming centres, as
a result a lot of energy is wasted as transmission.

40
22. Enumerate the factors needed for installing a hydroelectric project.
Ans. (a) Mountainous area where water falls from a height.
(b) Climate should be suitable, i.e., rivers should not freeze
during winter.
(c) Permanent supply of water can be ensured by perennial rivers,
hence snow-fed rivers of the Himalayas are of great use.
(d) Flow of water should be uniform in the river, any fluctuation
would affect the generation of electricity.
23. How important is the hydel power projects for India?
Ans. India being so rich in water resources there is enough scope of
developing water power in India as
(i) India is endowed with rich perennial rivers.
(ii) There are many areas rich in mineral resources ideal for
construction of dams. Hence, hydro-electric power supplies
electricity to industries and promotes agriculture and
industrial development.
24. How do hydel power projects score over thermal projects?
Ans. Hydel Thermal
l This is inexhaustible l Coal is exhaustible and non-
renewal source. renewable.
l It is cheaper to build the l They are expensive to build a
dams. thermal power station.
l They do not cause any l They do cause pollution.
pollution
l It is easy to transport it l Since coal is a bulky
for a long distance. commodity, thermal power
projects are restricted to areas
of coal production.
25. What are the main disadvantages of hydro-electric power (H.E.P.)?
Ans. Disadvantages –
(i) We must have a mountainous or hilly region so that water
falls from a height.
(ii) The supply of water may fluctuate thus affecting the generation
of electricity.
(iii) Problem of silting is one more disadvantage.

41
26. Which was the first state to set up hydro-electric power (H.E.P.)
project?
Ans. Sivasamudram water falls of the Cauvery in Karnataka was the
first major power station in India owned by British companies
and set up by General Electric of USA.
27. What are the disadvantages of thermal electricity?
Ans. (i) It causes pollution.
(ii) It is very expensive to build the thermal power station.
(iii) Transportation is also a problem.
28. Name three coal-based projects.
Ans. Korba, Ramagundam and Durgapur.
29. What are the raw materials required for nuclear energy?
Ans. Uranium, Plutonium, Thorium and Beryllium.
30. Where is uranium found in India?
Ans. In the copper belt of Bihar and the rocks of the Aravalli range
in Rajasthan.
31. Name the nuclear power stations of India.
Ans. Tarapur (Maharashtra)
Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu)
Narora (UP)
Rawatbhatta (Rajasthan)
Kakrapara (Gujarat)
Kaiga (Karnataka)
32. Name a few non-conventional sources or energy.
Ans. Solar, wind, geothermal, tidal, biogas, etc.
33. How do the non-conventional sources of energy score over the
conventional sources of energy?
Ans. Non-conventional :
(i) These sources of energy are available freely and plenty, there
is no fear of them getting exhausted.
(ii) They do not cause pollution/are environmental friendly.
(iii) Does not depend on climatic/geographic conditions.
(iv) Produces electricity on a larger scale.
34. Explain the need to develop the alternative sources of energy.
Ans. Need – (i) There are more freely and easily available, no chance
of getting them exhausted.
(ii) They are environmental friendly/do not cause pollution.
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35. State two advantages that biogas has over the solar energy.
Ans. The waste generated during biogas can be used for double purposes
– energy and the waste as a fertiliser which solar energy does
not have.
(ii) Biogas plants are not as expensive as solar power plants.
(iii) Solar energy is dependent on climate/weather conditions
whereas biogas need not depend on weather conditions.
(any two)
36. Which is the most abundant non-conventional sources of energy?
Ans. Solar energy
37. Name two states where wind farm projects have been undertaken.
Ans. Gujarat, AP, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Odisha.
38. What are the advantages of producing electricity from water?
Ans. The advantages of producing electricity from water are :
(i) This is inexhaustible renewal source.
(ii) It is cheaper to build the dams.
(iii) They do not cause any pollution.
(iv) It is easy to transport it to a long distance.


10. AGRICULTURE IN INDIA – I:


INTRODUCTION
A. Multiple Choice Questions.
1. Agriculture provides raw material to
(a) textile industry (b) electronic industry
(c) Iron & steel industry (d) cottage industry
2. In India agriculture is mainly dependent on
(a) arrival of monsoon (b) raw material
(c) economy (d) labour
3. In Kharif season the crops are sown in
(a) November (b) June
(c) April (d) October

43
4. In India Intensive Commercial farming is practised because
(a) land holdings are very large
(b) most of the land is fallow
(c) due to population pressure which reduces the size of land
holdings
(d) extensive farming is not possible as farmers cannot afford
5. Organic farming is becoming popular as in this type of farming
(a) chemical fertilizers are used(b)
compost is used as fertilizer
(c) only one crop is grown (d) it is expensive
6. In subsistence agriculture
(a) the farmer produces food to earn more money
(b) the farmer grows crop for his own consumption
(c) the farmer grows food crop to exchange for other amenities
(d) the farmer practices primitive agriculture
7. Mixed farming means
(a) farming of many crops on the same farm
(b) growing fodder crop alongwith other crop
(c) cultivation of crops and livestock rearing on the same farm
(d) to grow root crops like beet and turnip
8. Green revolution was first confined to only
(a) Bihar (b) Punjab
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Gujarat
9. In Zaid crop season farmers grow
(a) wheat (b) fruits and vegetables
(c) cotton (d) pulses
10. Pesticides and herbicides are used to
(a) grow the crop
(b) save the crops from the diseases
(c) increase fertility of the soil
(d) increase the production of the crops
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c)
8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)

44
B. Answer the following questions
1. What do you mean by the term ‘agriculture’?
Ans. It means man’s management of the environment to produce food.
2. What is meant by the term ‘subsistence agriculture’?
Ans. It is a system of agriculture in which the farmer produces
exclusively for his own consumption.
3. What is commercial farming?
Ans. It is a system of agriculture in which food crops are produced
especifically for sale in the market, by using improved variety
of seeds and machinery.
4. What is mixed farming?
Ans. In mixed farming, cultivation of crops and rearing of livestock
is done simultaneously.
5. What is meant by the term ‘plantation farming’? Give two examples.
Ans. Plantation farming is a system of agriculture where crops are grown
on large farms, a single ‘cash crop’ purely meant for sale is grown.
6. How important is agriculture to India?
Ans. Importance of agriculture are:
(i) It forms the backbone of Indian economy.
(ii) It not only produces food and fodder, it is also the source of raw
material for many other industries.
(iii) It acts as a consumer for many industrial products as these are
used in the farming industry.
(iv) It provides employment to millions of people, many agricultural
products are exported (e.g., tea, jute, etc.) which brings in foreign
exchange.
(v) We are able to grow a wide variety of crops because of its
undulating topography, varied climate, ideal temperature, etc.
7. Give a few important characteristics of Indian agriculture.
Ans. Characteristics –
l dependence on monsoon
l Variety of crops

l Preponderance of food crops

l Crop season (Rabi, Kharif and Zayad seasons)

8. What are rabi and kharif crops? Give examples.


Ans. Kharif crop/season – It extends from April-May/seeds are sown in

45
June, harvesting is done in the month of November. For example,
rice, maize, cotton, jute, etc.
Rabi crop/season– the ground is prepared in the month of October/
November and harvesting is done in March. For example, wheat,
barley, tobacco, etc.
9. Give any three problems of Indian agriculture.
Ans. Three problems –
(a) Erratic nature of rainfall – agriculture in India depends on
monsoon which is uncertain, unreliable, irregular, in spite
of all measures taken to provide irrigation, production gets
affected due to floods and / or droughts.
(b) Poor quality of seeds – due to poverty good quality seeds
are out of reach of farmers.
(c) Small and fragmented land holdings.
(d) Traditional upbringing, farmers don’t like innovation.
(e) Lack of proper use of manures and fertilisers.
(f) Pests and diseases are the other factors. (any three)
10. What type of agriculture is practised in India?
Ans. Intensive and subsistence agriculture.
11. How is ‘jhooming’ carried out?
Ans. Jhooming – in this type of farming, a patch of forest land is
selected, cleared by burning plants or trees; crops are then
grown. After 2–3 years, when the soil loses its fertility, the land
is abandoned and again a fresh piece of land is selected and the
process continues.
12. What is done in primitive type of agriculture?
Ans. In primitive cultivation farmers use simple tools and elementary
techniques to grow food for their own use.
13. Where is intensive commercial farming done?
Ans. It is practised in monsoon lands of Asia (India, China, Bangladesh,
etc.) where there is a high population pressure.
14. What happens in extensive commercial farming?
Ans. It is practised in sparsely populated area where land is abundant
(e.g., USA, Russia, Canada); here agriculture is mostly mechanised
as labour is expensive, farms are large (e.g., Terai regions of
north India).
15. What is meant by monoculture?
46
Ans. Cultivation of a single crop in a given area is called monoculture.
eg. cultivation of corn, soyabeans or pineforest.


11. Agriculture in India – II:


Food Crops
A. Multiple Choice Questions.
1. Rice crop requires an average temperature of 24°C with a range
of
(a) 10°C to 15°C (b) 16°C to 32°C
(c) 21°C to 27°C (d) 24°C to 35°C
2. Gram can be best grown is
(a) red soil (b) Loamy soil
(c) black soil (d) laterite soil
3. Wheat is the staple food of
(a) North (b) South
(c) East (d) West
4. In this method of cultivation the seeds are dropped at regular
interval in the furrows made by the farmers with the help of a
plough or dibber – It is
(a) Drilling method (b) Broadcasting method
(c) Dibbling (d) Transplantation
5. Diseases damage the rice crop and can reduce yield. The most
common diseases are
(a) Rust (b) Loose smut
(c) Black point (d) Stem rot
6. Rice crop requires an average rainfall of
(a) 100 cm to 150 cm (b) 150 cm to 200 cm
(c) 50 cm to 100 cm (d) 50 cm to 150 cm
7. The larges producer of Jowar
(a) Punjab (b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal (d) Uttar Pradesh
8. Millets require temperature ranging from
(a) 25°C to 35°C (b) 10°C to 15°C
(c) 26°C to 33°C (d) 20°C to 27°C

47
9. Wheat grows well in
(a) Red soil (b) Alluvial soil
(c) Black soil (d) Laterite soil
10. The crop is hardy, and drought resistant
(a) Pulses (b) Wheat
(c) Millets (d) Rice
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b)
8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)

B. Answer the following questions.


1. What do you understand by the term ‘cereals’?
Ans. The term ‘cereal’ is applied for all kinds of grass like plants
which have starchy and edible seeds.
2. Name the different methods of sowing rice.
Ans. Broadcasting, Dibbling, Drilling, Transplantation and Japanese
methods.
3. Which is the best method of growing rice?
Ans. The Japanese method of transplantation is the best method of
growing rice.
4. What kind of soil is best suited for growing rice?
Ans. Deep fertile clayey or friable loams soils are best soil for growing
rice.
5. Name the leading producer of rice in India.
Ans. West Bengal.
6. Name a state in India where rice is grown as a non-food crop.
Ans. Punjab and Haryana (any one)
7. Name an area in India where rice is grown under ‘shifting
cultivation’.
Ans. North-east India.
8. State the reasons for low yield of rice in India.
(a) Farmers are not using HYV of seeds, good fertilisers,
insecticides, etc.
(b) Due to disease, it reduces the yield.
(c) Farmers do not get suitable price for their crop.
(d) Proper storage of rise is not available.

48
9. What are the climatic conditions suitable for growing of wheat?
Ans. Temperature – 10°C to 15°C: as harvesting nears higher
temperature, (20°C – 25°C) is required. Rainfall – 50 to 100 cm.
10. Is wheat a rabi or kharif crop?
Ans. Rabi crop.
11. Name the leading producers of wheat in India.
Ans. Western UP, Punjab, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, etc.
12. Give two natural and two man-made factors that help in the
cultivation of wheat.
Ans. Natural – level lands/alluvial soils, cool temperature
Man-made – supply of HYV seeds, good use of chemical fertilisers,
good irrigational facilities, use of machines, etc.
13. Give a few important aspects of ‘Green Revolution’.
Ans. Green Revolution – use of HYV seeds, better irrigational facilities,
use of insecticides and pesticides, land reforms, rural electrification,
use of chemical fertilisers, improved rural infrastructure, etc.
14. In which season is wheat sown and why?
Ans. Wheat is grown in winter, immediately after rain, hence it is
easy to prepare the fields for sowing. The deep soil provides the
much needed moisture to the wheat plants in the early stage.
15. Is maize a rabi or kharif crop? Name three leading producers
of maize.
Ans. Maize is both Rabi and Kharif crop – Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
16. Why are the millets called the dry crops?
Ans. Because they can be grown where the rainfall is low, where rice
or wheat cannot be grown. It is a hardy, drought resistant crop.
17. Why are millets so widely grown?
Ans. Because it can be grown on a variety of soil, they do not have
special requirements and can be grown in arid/semi arid regions.
18. Give two new uses of maize.
Ans. Excellent fodder for the cattle. It is also used as food crop. It is
used in confectionary as cornflour and cereal as cornflakes.
19. What is the common feature of all millets?
Ans. These are small round in shape and grown on top portion of the
plant.
20. Name the most important rotation crop. In what way does it help
the soil?
Ans. Pulses; they are leguminous plants and help in restoring the soil

49
fertility by converting atmospheric nitrogen and utilise this. They
are rotated with other crops to maintain or restore soil fertility.


12. AGRICULTURE IN INDIA – III:


CASH CROPS
A. Multiple Choice Questions
1. Rabi crop is sown in
(a) June-July (b) October-Nov
(c) December-January (d) March-April
2. Cotton requires
(a) 21°- 27° C temp (b) 15°- 25° C temp
(c) 10°- 5° C temp (d) 30° - 35° C temp
3. Cultivation of sugarcane from the root stock of the cane which has been
cut is called
(a) Ginning (b) Ratooning
(c) Clone planting (d) Retting
4. Cotton plant is vulnerable to attack by diseases like
(a) green leaf hopper (b) stripe rust
(c) boll worms (d) rust
5. Study the picture given and answer the question – the largest producer
of this crop is
(a) Gujarat
(b) Punjab
(c) Haryana
(d) Tamil Nadu
6. The groundnut kernels contain
(a) 40 – 50% oil (b) no oil
(c) 20 – 30% oil (d) 10 – 15% oil
7. Sugarcane can grow well in the alluvial soil. It should be rich in
(a) Nitrogen (b) Calcium
(c) Phosphorus (d) All the above
8. The fine plucking is associated with
(a) coffee (b) tea (c) rubber (d) cotton
9. Crop rotation is done to
(a) preserve the soil (b) preserve minerals in the soil
50
(c) grow more crops (d) none of the above
10. Winnowing is associated with
(a) rice crop (b) cotton crop
(c) soya bean (d) wheat crop

Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a)
8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (d)

B. Answer the following questions


1. What are the climatic conditions that favour the cultivation of
cotton?
Ans. l Cotton – Temperature – 21°C to 27°C
l Rainfall – 50 cm to 80 cm
l Plenty of sunshine
l Warm days and cool nights
l 200 frost-free days
2. Where in India does long staple cotton grow? What are its
advantages?
Ans. Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, AP and Telangana.
It makes fine quality cotton cloth since the fibre is long, fine and
stronger.
3. Is dry weather necessary at the time of harvest of cotton? Why?
Ans. Yes, because warm days and cool nights are good for the
development of the pod and fibre.
4. Why is jute called the ‘brown paper’ of the wholesale trade?
Ans. Because of its wide variety of uses, e.g., sacks, gunny bags, ropes
upholstery, etc.
5. What are the geographical requirements for growing jute? Name
the leading producer of jute.
Ans. Temperature – 24°C to 35°C; Rainfall – 170 cm – 200 cm
Soil – light – sandy or clayey loams
It grows well in the flood plains and river deltas in alluvial soil.
West Bengal – leading producer.
6. Name the two most important fibre crops of India.
Ans. Cotton and Jute
7. Name the different varieties of tea in India.

51
Ans. Black tea, Green tea and Oolong tea.
8. Why is tea generally grown on the hill slopes?
Ans. Because tea cannot withstand stagnant water.
9. Why are the tea plants pruned?
Ans. Pruning is done because it:
(a) Helps in growing new shoots bearing soft leaves in plenty.
(b) The removal of the central stem encourages the quick
development of lateral branches, it is pruned to a height of
40 cm which facilitates hand plucking which is done mostly
by women.
10. Name the leading producer of tea in India. What factors have
helped it to become the leading state?
Ans. (a) Leading north-east India (Areas : Assam hill regions,
Brahmaputra valley and West Bengal).
(b) South India – Nilgiris, Cardamom, Palni, Annamalai hills in
Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka.
Factors– Assam – rainfall– above 200 cm, temperature – 20°C, no
fog/frost; labour is available in plenty.
11. Why is the plucking of tea leaves entrusted generally to women?
Ans. Because women by temperament are more suitable for plucking.
12. Name the different stages of tea processing before it is sent out
to the market.
Ans. Tea has to undergo the following stages of processing –
(i) withering (ii) rolling (iii) fermentation (iv) drying / fixing
(v) sorting
13. Name the two main centres where tea is auctioned.
Ans. Kolkata and Cochin.
14. Why is blending necessary for tea?
Ans. Blender is necessary to give the consumer the required taste on
the basis of its flavour, colour and texture.
15. Give two reasons stating the economic importance of the tea
industry.
Ans. (a) It provides employment to both men and women.
(b) It earns a lot of foreign exchange for the country.
16. Name two important regions where tea is grown in South India.
52
Ans. South India – Nilgiris, Cardamom, Palni and Annamalai hills in
Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka. (any two)
17. Name the two main varieties of coffee grown in India.
Ans. Coffee Arabica, Coffee Robusta and Coffee Liberica. (any two)
18. Why are young coffee plants protected from heat?
Ans. They cannot withstand direct sun rays and hot dry winds. Hence,
the coffee plant should be grown under the shady trees to it
protect from heat.
19. State three factors which favour the cultivation of coffee in South
India. Name the leading producer of coffee in India.
Ans. Temperature – 15°C–28°C, rainfall – 125–300 cm; and laterite
soil Karnataka is the leading producer of coffee.
20. State one climatic and one commercial problem that coffee
cultivation in India faces.
Ans. Climatic condition – fluctuations in monsoon/dry weather
Commercial problem – Stiff competition from the major coffee
producing countries of the world due to fluctuations in coffee
production.
21. Name the different methods by which sugarcane can be propagated.
Ans. Sett and Ratooning methods.
22. State the leading producer of sugarcane in India.
Ans. Uttar Pradesh.
23. What are the advantages of ‘ratooning’?
Ans. Advantage – as there is no need to prepare the field, cost of
cultivation is less as compared to the sett method.
(b) Matures early – no extra expenditure, saves labour.
24. Give two problems the farmers of north India face during sugarcane
cultivation.
Ans. Problems –
(a) Mills are far away from the fields, hence problem of transport.
(b) Sugarcane is soil exhausting crop. It needs plenty of manure
and water.
(c) Pests and diseases which are harmful to the plant.

53
25. What advantage does the Deccan region have over the north with
reference to sugarcane cultivation?
Ans. Advantages in Deccan – (a) No loo in the summer and no frost
in winter. Sea breezes in the coastal areas.
(b) Better methods, manures, fertilisers, sugar growing areas and mills
are close to each other so transport is not a problem thereby not
losing sucrose content.
26. Name a few diseases that sugarcane plant is susceptible to.
Ans. Fungal diseases like red rot, smut rus and ratoon stunting are
susceptible to sugarcane plant.
27. Name a few important oilseeds grown in India.
Ans. Groundnuts, mustard, soya beans, castor and linseed.
28. State the economic importance of oilseeds.
Ans. (a) Provides employment to millions of people.
(b) It is a major foreign exchange earner.
29. What is an oil cake? How is it used?
Ans. Oil cake is the residue left after extracting oil from the seeds
pressed in the form of oil cake. Oil cake (edible) forms an
important part of cattle feed and manure. It is also used as raw
material for manufacturing few items like paints, varnishes, soaps,
lubricants, etc.
30. Name the non-edible oilseeds. Why are they so called?
Ans. Castor, linseed and neem seed oil are called non-edible, because
they are unfit for human and cattle consumption as they are
poisonous.
31. Give the geographical conditions necessary for the growth of
groundnuts. Name its leading producer.
Ans.. Temperature: 20°C– 25°C; Rainfal: 50 –70 cm
Soil: well drained light sandy loams, red and black soils are ideal
for groundnut.
32. Name the by-products of sugarcane. Give one important use of
each.
Ans. The residue of sugarcane after removing juice is used as raw
material for paper mills.
33. Why are floods beneficial for better growth of jute?
Ans. Because floods replenish the soils with fine silt/alluvium.
54
34. Explain the following terms. With which crop do you associate
them?
(a) Ginning (b) Retting (c) Clonal planting
(d) Ratooning (e) Fine plucking (f) Bud grafting
Ans. (a) Ginning – cotton. It is the process in which the cotton fibre
is separated from the seeds.
(b) Retting – Jute. It is a microbiological process which loosens
the outer bark and facilitates removal of fibre from the stalk
by dipping the jute bundles in soft flowing clear river water
for 2–3 weeks.
(c) Cloning planting (tea) taking the cuttings from a good high
yielding mother plant instead of seeds. This method is called
clonal planting as the new plant also will have the qualities
of the mother plant.
(d) Ratooning (sugarcane) In this method, after the first crop, the
sugarcane is cut leaving the root intact in the soil, the lower
part of the stem which is left in the soil is well fertilised
and the stem begins to grow again. This method is called
ratooning.
(e) Fine plucking tea – the best tea is obtained from the young
shoots consisting of two leaves and an unopened bud.
(f) Bud grafting – A strip of a good yielding plant containing
a bud is inserted under the bark of a young seeding.
35. Give reason –
(a) Tea is best grown on hill slopes.
(b) Pruning is essential for a tea plant.
(c) Honey bees are reared on coffee plants.
Ans. (a) Because it cannot withstand stagnant water.
(b) Prunning helps in growing new shoots bearing soft leaves
in plenty.
(c) As they help to pollinate the flower.
36. Answer in one word –
(a) Method in which coffee is obtained by pulping, fermenting,
washing and drying.
(b) Method in which coffee berries are dried in the sun.
(c) Method in which seeds are dropped through bamboo shafts

55
attached to a plough.
Ans. (a) Wet method/parchment method
(b) Dry process/Cherry or native
(c) Drilling method


13. MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES


IN INDIA – I : AGRO-BASED
A. Multiple Choice Questions.
1. Molasses is a product of
(a) silk industry (b) sugar industry
(c) cotton textile industry (d) woollen industry
2. Bombyx Mori is associated with
(a) cotton textile industry (b) jute industry
(c) silk industry (d) sugar industry
3. Bagasse is a raw material for
(a) toy industry (b) paper industry
(c) silk industry (d) jute industry
4. Sericulture is practiced in
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka (d) Uttar Pradesh
5. This state is called Cottonopolis of India
(a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra
6. This state is called Manchester of South India
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Punjab
(c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh
7. Press mud is used for
(a) making wax (b) nail polish
(c) paper (d) fertilizer
8. Industries that depend on the agricultural products for their raw
material
(a) sugar industry (b) heavy industry
(c) cottage industry (d) none of the above

56
9. Kandla (free trade zone) is situated in
(a) Maharashtra (b) Kerala
(c) Gujarat (d) Tamil Nadu
10. Non-mulberry silk such as muga, tassar and eri are produced in
(a) Nagaland (b) Gujarat
(c) Telangana (d) Assam

Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a)
8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d)

B. Answer the following questions


1. Name a few agro-based industries.
Ans. Cotton textile, silk, jute, woollen industries, etc.
2. What are the four special features of the cotton textile industry
in India?
Ans. The four special features of cotton textile industry in India are:
(i) fine quality and design
(ii) most widespread
(iii) provides employment
(iv) provides foreign exchange
3. Give two reasons why the cotton textile industry has developed
around Mumbai.
Ans. Two reasons –
(a) The black cotton soil in the hinterland of Mumbai provides
the raw material.
(b) Humid climate also is helpful.
(c) Cheap hydroelectric power is available from Tata hydroelectric
grid from Western Ghats.
(d) Mumbai is well connected with the hinterland by roads and
railways. (any two)
4. Name the oldest and the most widespread industry in India.
Ans. Textile industry.
5. What are the problems of the cotton textile industry?
Ans. Problems faced by cotton industry –
(a) Scarcity of raw material – India does not have/grow more
57
of long staple cotton, so it faces shortage of raw material.
(b) Obsolete machinery – most of the mills are 20 to 30 years
old, this has resulted in low productivity and inferior quality.
(c) Stiff competition – Indian cotton faces stiff competition from
synthetic/artificial fibre.
(d) Inadequate power supply – with increasing population the
problem of power supply is becoming acute and the industry
suffers from shortage of power.
6. State any three problems faced by sugar industry.
Ans. Three problems faced by sugar industry –
(a) Low and irregular supply of raw material – yield per hectare
is very low as compared to other countries in the world.
(b) Short crushing season – sugarcane is a seasonal crop, crushing
season varies from 4 to 7 months and the mills remain idle
during the remaining period of the year.
(c) Old and obsolete machinery – most of the machinery in
UP, Bihar are old and obsolete which in turn affects the
production.
7. What is meant by the term sericulture? State the factors responsible
for the concentration of silk industry in Kanataka.
Ans. Sericulture – the art of rearing silkworms for silk production is
called sericulture. Factors responsible for the concentration of
silk in Karnataka –
(a) Availability of favourable climate for rearing silk worms.
(b) Availability of the silkworm known as Bombyxmori which
is reared throughout the year.
(c) Supply of soft water free from alkaline salts.
(d) Availability of the mulberry plant which is raised as a
plantation bush.
8. Which industry has a tendency to migrate towards the south? Why?
Ans. Sugar industry : Factors responsible are the black soil, higher
temperature, good rainfall, irrigation, frost-free growing season,
longer crushing season, in the South. Most the sugar mills are
closer to the growing areas. They are new and are better equipped
with modern machinery. Sugar mills are better managed.
9. Name the by-products of the sugar industry. Give the industrial
use of each.

58
Ans. By-products of sugar industry are :
(a) Molasses – manufacture of fertiliser, power alcohol/plastic/
synthetic rubber.
(b) Bagasse – paper industry/making of cardboard.
(c) Press mud – wax/shoe polish/carbon paper.
10. State any three differences between the sugar industry of Northern
and Peninsular India.
Ans. Three differences –
North India Peninsular India
(a) Frost is very common. (a) No frost
(b) Shorter crushing season (b) Longer crushing season (7 to 8
(4 months). months).
(c) Old sugar mills with (c) New modern machines are used.
obsolete machinery.
(d) Sucrose contents get (d) Sucrose content is much higher
diminished once the sugar since the sugar mills and sugar
mills and sugar growing growing areas are very close; so
areas are not very close. the loss of sucrose content is not
very high. (any two)


14. MANUFACTURING INDUSTRIES


IN INDIA – II: MINERAL-BASED
A. Multiple Choice Questions.
1. This industry forms the backbone of the industrial economy
(a) cotton textile (b) electronic industry
(c) iron and steel industry (d) petrochemical industry
2. Steel pipes have been replaced by
(a) synthetic rubber (b) plastic ware
(c) PVC pipes (d) synthetic fibre
3. This city is called Silicon Valley of India
(a) Hyderabad (b) Mumbai
(c) Pune (d) Bengaluru
4. Tata steel company
59
(a) supports a fertilizer plant
(b) produces locomotive parts
(c) produces railway coaches
(d) produces special steel for vehicles related to Indian space
programme
5. This plant was set up in collaboration with the West German
firm Krupps and Demag
(a) Tata steel (b) Rourkela steel plant
(c) Bhilai Iron and Steel plant (d) Visakhapatnam plant
6. Bhilai Iron and Steel plant gets its iron ore from
(a) Sundargarh and Keonjhar district
(b) Noamundi mines of Singhbhum
(c) Dalli – Rajhara range
(d) Bailadila mines in Chhattisgarh
7. Rourkela steel plant gets its supply of fresh water from
(a) river Subarnarekha (b) river Brahmani
(c) river Mahanadi (d) Tendula canal
8 This Iron and steel plant is most sophisticated and modern steel
plant
(a) Tata steel plant
(b) Rourkela steel plant
(c) Visakhapatnam steel plant
(d) Bhilai steel plant
9. This steel plant is managed by Rashtriya Ispat Nigam
(a) Rourkela steel plant (b) Tata steel plant
(c) Bhilai steel plant (d) Visakhapatnam steel plant
10 Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is at
(a) Pune (b) Mumbai
(c) Hyderabad (d) Bengaluru

Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b)
8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)

B. Answer the following questions.


1. What comprises the electronic goods?
Ans. Electronic goods comprises TV sets, transistor sets, telephone
exchanges, mobile sets, computer and varied equipment for
60
defence and railways.
2. Name the leading software centres of India.
Ans. Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Pune, Mohali, Gurugram, Noida, etc.
3. What does NRSA stand for? Where is this centre?
Ans. NRSA – National Remote Sensing Agency. It is located at
Hyderabad.
4. What are petrochemicals?
Ans. Petrochemicals are organic chemicals derived from petroleum.
5. Name the main raw materials used in the petrochemical industry.
Ans. Raw materials used in petrochemical industry – petroleum, LPG,
coal, natural gas, benzene, naphtha, coal gas.
6. Name the main products of the petrochemical industry.
Ans. Products – synthetic fibres, synthetic rubber, adhesives, printing
ink, carbon paper, polythene PVC of plastic group, etc., detergents,
petrol/diesel, etc.
7. How important are petrochemicals?
Ans. Petrochemicals are important because they are cheaper, durable,
not dependent on agricultural raw materials, cost effective and
raw materials are easily available.
8. Name a few important petrochemical industries.
Ans. Union Carbide India at Trombay
Udex Plant at Koyali Refinery (Gujarat)
IPCL in Gujarat
Petrochemical complex at Bongaigaon
9. Classify industries according to (a) the source of raw material
(b) the size and (c) the management.
Ans. (a) Source of raw material -
(a) Agro based industries – e.g., sugar, jute
(b) Minerals based industries – e.g., Iron, steel, cement, etc.
(c) Animal based industries – e.g., silk, wool and dairy products.
(d) Forest based Industries – e.g., paper, cardboard, etc.
(b) size – on the basis of size
Large scale; medium scale; small scale
(c) The management –
(a) Public sector – e.g., Railways, Transport, Irrigation, etc.

61
(b) Private sector industries – e.g., Tata Steel Company, etc.
(c) Joint sector industries – e.g., Oil India
(d) Cooperative sector industries – e.g., sugar mills, aluminium,
cement, etc.
10. List some mineral-based industries.
Ans. Mineral based industries – e.g., iron steel industries, ship building,
heavy engineering locomotives, machine industries and tools.
11. Name a few important factors that are responsible for the location
of, or development of, industries in a particular area.
Ans. Factors – supply of raw material, power supply, capital, water
supply, transport, market and demand, labour, etc.
12. What is an integrated steel plant?
Ans. An integrated steel plant is one where all the processes from
melting of iron ore in the blast furnace to steel making followed
by shaping of the metal is all done under one complex.
13. What are the raw materials needed for the iron and steel industry?
Ans. The raw materials required for iron and steel industry are – iron
ore, coal, manganese and limestone, water and labour.
14. What are mini-steel plants? What are their advantages?
Ans. A mini steel plant is one which manufactures steel using scrap
iron in electric arc furnaces.
Advantages – it uses scrap iron and electric furnace so there is
no pollution. It conserves coal, needs less capital investment and
produces special steel.
15. Name the various steel plants that are located in India. Name
their collaborators.
Ans. Different Steel Plants of India
(a) Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO)
(b) Bhilai Iron & Steel Plant - USSR
(c) Rourkela Steel Plant – West Germany
(d) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant


15. TRANSPORT
A. Multiple Choice Questions
1. National Highways are maintained by

62
(a) Central Public Works Department (CPWD)
(b) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
(c) National Highways Development Projects (NHDP)
(d) Public Works Department (PWD)
2. Which is the most significant mode of transport in India?
(a) Railways (b) Roadways
(c) Airways (d) Waterways
3. This mode of transport connects remote areas with cities
(a) Waterways (b) Railway
(c) Roadways (d) none of the above
4. Yamuna expressway connects the following cities
(a) Jaipur and Delhi (b) Delhi and Agra
(c) Allahabad and Delhi (d) Agra and Jaipur
5. Golden quadrilateral is a highway network connecting
(a) Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai & Chennai
(b) Jammu, Kanyakumari, Jamnagar, Delhi
(c) Chandigarh, Chennai, Pune and Bhubaneswar
(d) Lucknow, Hyderabad, Surat and Patna
6. This mode of transport is the fastest mode of transport
(a) Road (b) Waterways
(c) Airways (d) Railways
7. This mode of transport is free of Geographical contrasts like
Mountains, Rivers and Oceans
(a) Waterways (b) Airways
(c) Railways (d) Roadways
8. This mode of transport is most suitable for carrying heavy and
bulky goods
(a) Airways (b) Waterways
(c) Railways (d) Roadways
9. The longest National Waterway of India is from
(a) Ganga, Allahabad to Haldia
(b) Kollan to Kottapuram in Kerala
(c) Brahmaputra river to Sadia in Assam
(d) Kakinada to Pondicherry
10. In Indian railway- the width of Broad gauge is
(a) 1.676m (b) 2.0m
(c) 1.6km (d) 1.76m
63
Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b)
8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a)

B. Answer the following questions


1. What is the importance of Roadways in the economic development
of India?
Ans. (i) Importance – in trade/business.
(ii) They provide a link between railway stations and ports.
(iii) They are also safer means of transport for particular goods.
2. Compare and contrast Railways with Airways.
Ans.
Railways Airways
l Cheaper mode of transport l Is more expensive.

for bulky products over


long distance.
l They do not connect to the l They do not connect the hinterland.
seaports.
l Slower mode of transport l Fastest mode of transport.
as compared to Airways.
l Railways cannot be used in l Air transport is the most significant
very hilly terrain. in hilly regions, in border areas
which are not easily accessible.
l It cannot be used during l It is very important during the times
any emergency. of material disasters, calamities.
3. Name the different categories of road in India.
Ans. Different categories of road :
(a) Expressways (b) National Highways (c) State Highways
(d) District roads (e) Village roads
4. What is the objective of Golden Quadrilateral?
Ans. Golden Quadrilateral – to reduce the time and distance between
the mega cities of India.
A quadrilateral is formed by connecting Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkatta
and Chennai and hence its name.

64
5. What is the importance of Border Roads?
Ans. Border roads – to give boost to the trade and economic
development of the country. Also for the development of roads
of strategic importance in border areas.
6. Why is rail transport most comfortable and popular means of
transport?
Ans. (i) Because they serve as cheaper mode of transport for bulky
products over long distance.
(ii) They serve as the principal mode of transport for both freight
and passengers.
7. Why are the means of transport called the ‘lifelines’ of nation’s
economy?
Ans. The means of transport are called lifelines of nations’ economy
because a well-knit and coordinated system of transport can
develop the country’s economy. It links the country with the rest
of the world and helps in developing its economy to compete
with the international standards.
8. State any two merits of water transport.
Ans. (i) Water transport is much cheaper as compared to rail, road/
airways.
(ii) Less maintenance costs as compared to other means of
transport.
9. Name four international airports of India.
Ans. At Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata, Hyderabad (any four).
10. Name any two states served by inland waterways.
Ans. Bihar, Assam and West Bengal. (any two)
11. Name the important means of inland transport in Kerala. What
is it used for?
Ans. Kerala – The Kollam – Kottapuram stretch of West coast canal
along Champakara and Udyogmandal canals (205 km).

The backwaters of Kerala serve as a means of navigation. These
waterways are used by local boats for transporting goods like
spices, coconuts, raw rubber, pepper and other products.
12. Name the important national waterways in India.
Ans. NW No. 1 – The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia
(1620 km).

65
NW No. 2 – The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of Brahmaputra river
(891 km).
NW No. 3 – The Kollam -Kottapuram stretch of West coast canal
along Champakara.
13. State the importance of major airways in India.
Ans. (a) It is indispensable for the business people, to defence where
it saves lives at times and in calamities.
(b) It is significant in hilly regions in border areas, which are
not otherwise easily accessible by other means.
(c) It is the fastest means to reach a place.
14. State the problems faced by Indian shipping.
Ans. Problems of ports / shipping
(i) Ports are not well connected with the hinterland.
(ii) There is a heavy pressure on cargo containers.
(iii) There is an imbalance in coastal traffic movement as traffic
is not equally available in both directions, thus making it
necessary for the ship to take the return journey.
(iv) Slow handling of the cargo at port and undue port delays
inflict heavy losses on shipping companies.
15. What does AAI stand for? Why was it formed?
Ans. AAI stand for Airports Authority of India. It was formed to
accelerate the integrated development, expansion and modernisation
of the operational, terminal and cargo facilities at the airports in
the country conforming to international standards.
16. How can air transport promote tourism at the international level?
Ans. Air transport promotes tourism by highlighting India’s (statewise)
rich cultural heritage to the outside world.
17. Why is inland navigation more popular in north India as compared
to south?
Ans. Because the rivers of the Peninsular India are not navigable as
they have very little water during the hot season and mostly
depends on monsoon.
Rivers of north India are perennial as they are snow-fed hence
river Ganga and Brahmaputra carry the largest part of the river
traffic.

66
18. State the factors that affect the distribution of railway network.
Ans. The distributional pattern of railway network is influenced by
the following factors – relief, terrain, topography, density of
population, fertility of land and semi-arid climatic conditions.
19. Which port is known as Tidal port? Why was it developed?
Ans. Kandla Port – it was developed to compensate the loss of Karachi
Port to Pakistan.
20. What is the importance of Jawaharlal Nehru Port?
Ans. Jawaharlal Nehru Port is the only fully mechanised port of India.
It is a world class port, it was developed to release pressure on
Mumbai Port.
21. Where is Yamuna Expressway situated? Why is it important?
Ans. Yamuna Expressway is situated between New Delhi and Agra.
It is a 6 lane expressway and is important as it reduces travel
time between Delhi and Agra.


16. WASTE MANAGEMENT – IMPACT


OF WASTE ACCUMULATION
A. Multiple Choice Questions.
1. Which of the following is not an example of how the 3Rs can
be adopted by a city?
(a) Recovering heat from combustible waste.
(b) Disposing plastic bottles in a landfill.
(c) Composting organic waste
(d) Offering collection of recyclables from the apartments
building once a week.
2. Flyash from power plants can be used as cement substitutes;
with which of the following Rs it is associated?
(a) Recycle (b) Reduce
(c) Reuse (d) All the above

67
3. Waste paper can be converted to make new paper; with which
of the following Rs it is associated?
(a) Recycle (b) Reduce
(c) Reuse (d) All the above
4. What do 3Rs stand for?
(a) Resource, Recharge, Reset
(b) Reborn, Receive, Retrieve
(c) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
(d) Rebind, Reason, Realms
5. Which of the following is not an example of non – biodegradable
waste?
(a) Glass (b) Vegetable peels
(c) Plastic bottles (d) Glass Items
6. E- waste refers to
(a) Environment waste (b) Electrical waste
(c) Excreta waste (d) Electronic waste
7. Refer to the image & answer the question that follows

Which of the flowing type of waste can be generated here?
(a) Biomedical waste
(b) Domestic waste
(c) Industrial waste
(d) Agricultural waste
8. Which of the following type of pollution is the cause of Minamata
disease?
(a) Air pollution (b) Soil pollution
(c) Water pollution (d) Environmental pollution
9. Refer to the image & answer the question that follows.

Identify the type of pollution in the picture.
(a) Biomagnification
(b) Bioaccumulation
(c) Eutrophication
(d) Bioamplification

68
10. Smog is related to which of the following type of pollution?
(a) Water pollution (b) Air pollution
(c) Soil pollution (d) Environmental pollution

Answers
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c)
8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)

B. Answer the following questions


1. What is meant by spoilage of landscape? How does it affect the
environment?
Ans. Spoilage of landscape refers to the heap of rubbish, garbage and
trash in urban cities which is left uncared and untreated. It spoils
the authentic beauty of the land and damages the environment
severely. The decaying waste matter becomes the breeding ground
for all sorts of insects, flies and mosquitoes, which leads to
spreading of infectious diseases.
2. What is meant by pollutant? Give two examples of air pollution.
Ans. Substances that cause pollution are called pollutants, e.g., smog,
acid rain, etc.
3. Name two diseases caused by air pollution.
Ans. Respiratory problems in children and the aged, skin cancer,
cataract, etc.
4. What is meant by eutrophication? How does it affect aquatic
life?
Ans. Eutrophication – It is the process of depletion of oxygen from
water bodies occurring either naturally or due to human activities.
It causes death of most of the aquatic organisms, plants rot and
fish die due to the lack of oxygen.
5. Name the disease caused by mercury contamination in Japan.
Ans. Minamata disease.
6. What affect does the burning of organic waste has on environment?
Ans. If the waste is not disposed off properly it can cause environmental
problems – the area can become the breeding ground for harmful
insects and rodents.

69
7. Name any three diseases caused due to water pollution.
Ans. Water borne diseases, excessive CO2 and chlorine in water kills
fish.
• Bacteria and virus present in the polluted water can cause a wide
variety of stomach ailments such as gastroenteritis, diarrhea, liver
diseases, etc.
8. What is meant by biomagnification?
Ans. Biomagnification means increasing concentration of various toxic
substances along the food chain.
9. How is acid rain caused? What are its effects?
Ans. SO2, Nitrous Oxide, Nitrogen Oxide mix with the moisture in
the air to become Sulphuric Acid and Nitric Acid – these fall
to the earth along with the rain causing damage to forests, fish,
animals, etc. Statues and stonework of buildings are damaged.
10. What are hazards caused by soil pollutions?
Ans. The presence of excess amount of chlorine in water completely
destroys the aquatic life Some of the main diseases transmitted
from soil to man are cholera, typhoid, dysentery, etc.
• Animals are also affected – some of the animal diseases are
leptospirosis and anthrax.
• Nitrogen fertilisers produce toxic concentration of nitrates in the
leaves.
• Is also responsible for the loss of fertility and productivity of soil.
11. What are the effects of untreated solid waste?
Ans. Causes health hazards. The accumulated soiled waste starts
decomposing and thus polluting the environment.
12. Why is it essential to have proper disposal of waste?
Ans. Proper disposal of waste is necessary to avoid pollution due
to decomposition, health hazards, spoilage and environmental
pollution.
13. Name the diseases spread by industrial effluents.
Ans. (a) Toxic effluents from industries are released into water and
soil.
(b) They are deposited in the tissues of terrestrial plants and
aquatic organisms.
(c) These toxic chemicals, oil oxides of sulphur and nitrogen lead
to environmental and thermal pollution and may endanger the
70
life of human animals and insects alike. The pollution of
water by industrial effluents containing methyl-mercury may
cause insanity and death.
14. How do farm waste affect human life? Name any two harmful
substances they contain.
Ans. The farm waste becomes a breeding ground for harmful insects
and rodents, affects the nervous system of the organisms.
• It may have long-term impact on soil. It may even enter the food
chain through water and soil pollution.
15. Name any three pollutants produced by chemical effects from
industries? How do they affect terrestrial life?
Ans. Fatal to fish, the toxic metals like lead, arsenic, copper, mercury
are harmful to marine life.
• Earthworms are susceptible to cadmium poisoning.
• Diarrhea, weight loss, lowered fertility, etc., are some of the
major effects of flourides seen in animals and cattle.
16. How does DDT affect the marine life?
Ans. DDT is fatal to fish (affects the nervous system of organisms).
17. Why is fluoride harmful for cattles?
Ans. Some of the major effects of fluorides are – animals are susceptible
to fluorosis, diarrhea, weight loss, lowered fertility, etc.
18. How do plastics affect marine life?
Ans. Colour plastics are harmful as their pigment contains heavy metals
that are toxic. Some of the harmful metals found in plastics are
copper, chromium, cobalt and lead.
19. Give two reasons why waste must be managed efficiently?
Ans. Waste must be recycled to conserve our resources and protect
our environment.
(a) Create public awareness, develop better management techniques/
educate the farmers.
(b) Proper infrastructure to conserve all resources/protect our
environment.
20. Why should waste be recycled?
Ans. Waste must be recycled to conserve our resources and protect
our environment.

71
21. In what way developing countries face more problems than
developed countries in managing waste?
Ans. The developing countries face more problems than developed
countries as they don’t have the latest knowhow, public awareness
and better management techniques.
22. Write a brief note on the need for management of waste in India.
Ans. India needs better management of waste disposal because
increasing urbanisation has led to overcrowding of cities. Hence,
lack of space for disposal of garbage, increasing air pollution,
water pollution, soil pollution and increase in number of vehicles
causing pollution has made life difficult in metro cities.
23. What is meant by E-waste. Why is it important to recycle it?
Ans. E- waste – it means electronic waste . It includes computer
hardware, broken wires, etc.
• Dumping E-waste is becoming a serious problem especially in
metro cities. Hence, E-waste recycling is important to protect
our environment.
24. State two methods for managing waste efficiently and properly.
Ans. The two methods for managing waste efficiently are:
(a) To reduce generation of waste.
(b) To find ways to turn waste into wealth by using it as a
potential resource.
25. In what way can we reduce the generation of waste?
Ans. (a) By reducing the use of harmful articles which are non-
biodegradable, e.g., polybags with cloth or paper bags.
(b) Promoting awareness among the public about generation of
waste and ways to reduce.
(c) Learning to use products which do not generate too much
waste, are ecofriendly and biodegradable.
26. How can we utilize the household waste?
Ans. Household waste/items should not be thrown or discarded. A
consumer can make a wise choice and reuse the items after
repairing or polishing them or giving them a makeover instead
of purchasing a new one.
27. What substitutes would you suggest in place of plastic and
polythene bags which are non-biodegradable?

72
Ans. Cloth, jute, paper bags as these are biodegradable.
28. What is meant by 3 Rs? Explain with the help of appropriate
examples.
Ans. 3 Rs – Reduce, Reuse & Recycle.
Reduce – Household waste (vegetable peels, garden waste) can
be reduced by making compost.
Reuse – Making new notebooks from unused pages of old
notebooks.
Recycle – It needs to be segregated at source, e.g., bagasses –
residue of sugarcane after extraction of juice for paper manufacture.
29. How can you recycle paper?
Ans. Paper recycling –
(a) Waste paper is sometimes reused to make new paper through
a process called paper recycling.
(b) Many new products result from paper recycling, e.g.,
newspaper, computer paper, etc.
(c) It is also used in manufacturing building materials such as
insulation, plaster board and roofing.


17. WASTE GENERATION AND


MANAGEMENT – METHODS OF
SAFE DISPOSAL OF WASTE
A. Multiple Choice Questions.
1. Refer to the image & answer the question that follows.
Which of the following waste management processes is practised
here?
(a) Dumping
(b) Segregation
(c) Composting
(d) Landfill
2. This is the process which involves the deposition of waste on
or in the ground and covered them with earth in the large area
on the outskirts of the cities.
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(a) Segregation (b) Composting
(c) Vermicomposting (d) Landfill
3. Refer to the image & answer the question that follows.
Which of the following waste management processes
is practised here?
(a) Fermentation
(b) Segregation
(c) Composting
(d) Landfill
4. Most of the garbage of Delhi is recycled in Timarpur plant to
generate
(a) Biogas (b) Fertilizer
(c) Cooking gas & electricity (d) All the above
5. According to you which of the following is the best suitable site
for landfill?
(a) Centre of the city
(b) Garbage beside each house
(c) Large area away from the city
(d) All the above
6 Which of the following statements related to composting is not
correct?
(a) Composting involves decomposition of both organic &
inorganic wastes.
(b) Earthworms play a significant role in composting.
(c) Composting involves decomposition of organic waste into
humus.
(d) Both (b) & (c).
7. Which of the following set of microorganisms is involved in the
process of composting?
(a) Algae, Viruses (b) Protozoa, algae
(c) Helminths, archaea (d) Bacteria, fungi, actinomycetes
8. Which of the following is/are not the advantages of composting?
(a) Reduction in the quantity of waste
(b) Conversion of organic waste into valuable fertilizer

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(c) Aerobic composting is relatively expensive and emits bad
odours.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answers
1. (b) 2.(d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c)

B. Answer the following questions.


1. Why is it necessary to segregate waste at source?
Ans. It needs to be segregated at source into
(a) biodegradable
(b) non-biodegradable for easy disposal
2. What precautions should be observed while collecting the waste?
Ans. Collection of waste must be organised areawise by covered trucks,
vans/rickshaws so as to prevent littering on the roads.
(a) Day-to-day collection is very important to prevent the spread
of diseases, contaminating and polluting the environment.
(b) Building material, debris and demolition waste must be
separately collected and disposed off appropriately.
3. Why should the waste bins be kept covered?
Ans. So that it does not lead to diseases, pollution of atmosphere and
not exposed to stray cattle.
4. Why should manual handling of waste be avoided?
Ans. To prevent people from exposure to dreadful diseases and
infections.
5. How is waste transferred? What happens if the vehicles used for
transporting waste are not covered?
Ans. Vehicles used for transfer must be separately designed, it should
be covered while being transferred to prevent the pollution of
environment and spread and litter on the roads.
It may lead to dreadful diseases and infection.
6. What are landfills? What factors must be kept in mind while
planning a landfill?
Ans. Landfills are large areas on the outskirts of cities where the waste
is deposited on or in the ground and covered with earth.

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Factors –
(a) Topography (b) Land requirement and its cost
(c) Accessibility (d) Cover
(e) Climate
7. State the problems associated with landfills.
Ans. Problems – Creation of methane gas, this gas leaks into the
surrounding soil, damaging plants and environment.
8. What is a leachate? Why is it harmful for soil and water?
Ans. Leachate – is formed when rainwater leaks into the landfill. As
the water percolates through the landfill, chemical processes turn
it acidic. The resulting toxic leachate leaks through the bottom
and sides of the landfill and contaminates the water and soil.
9. What is meant by composting?
Ans. It is a waste disposal technique where biodegradable waste is
decomposed by microbes and the waste is converted to manure.
10. Explain the process of composting in brief.
Ans. It can be done in two ways.
(a) Aerobic (with the help of oxygen in the air).
(b) Anaerobic composting (without oxygen in the air).
Aerobic – here waste is mixed and aerated to create conditions
for decomposition. If sufficient aeration is not available, then it
gives out bad odour.
Anaerobic – here the decomposed waste is converted into soil
conditioners and the material obtained can be added to land to
enhance soil quality.
11. State any three advantages of composting.
Ans. Advantages –
(a) Conversion of organic waste into fertiliser.
(b) Improves the texture of the soil.
(c) It increases the water holding capacity.
(d) Recycling of organic materials and nutrients back into the
soil.
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