CVE Practice Test

1 Which of the following describes analog clipping?

A. A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after

passing through an amplifier with excessive gain
applied
B. An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after
passing through an amplifier without any gain applied
C. Audio amplifiers with to high impedance
D. A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with
excessive AC line voltage
 1 Which of the following describes analog clipping?

A. A distorted signal voltage from a microphone after

passing through an amplifier with excessive gain
applied
B. An accurate signal voltage from a microphone after
passing through an amplifier without any gain applied
C. Audio amplifiers with to high impedance
D. A clean signal passed through an Audio amplifier with
excessive AC line voltage
 2 High definition video is best described as

A. Video Signal that consist of luminance scan interlaced

lines
B. Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels
C. Video Signal that represents 720 lines of pixels,
progressively scanned
D. Video Signal made up of 40X40 Macroblocks pixels
 2 High definition video is best described as

A. Video Signal that consist of luminance scan interlaced

lines
B. Video Signal made up of 8X8 blocks of pixels
C. Video Signal that represents 720 lines of pixels,
progressively scanned
D. Video Signal made up of 40X40 Macroblocks pixels
 3 The term “Full Motion Video” typically refers to a
transmission of video at which rate

A. Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second

B. Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C. Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D. Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
 3 The term “Full Motion Video” typically refers to a
transmission of video at which rate

A. Video Frames at a rate of less than 10 per second

B. Video Frames at a rate of greater than 100 per second
C. Video Frames at a rate of less than 24 per second
D. Video Frames at a rate of 24 or more per second
 4 What are 2 other names for Frame Relay Network?

A. RS-232
B. V.35
C. Broadband
D. Virtual Private Network
E. 802.3 Medium Access Control Network
 4 What are 2 other names for Frame Relay Network?

A. RS-232
B. V.35
C. Broadband
D. Virtual Private Network
E. 802.3 Medium Access Control Network
 5 Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE interfaces
that provide which three signals

A. Transmit Data
B. Receive Data
C. Request to Send
D. Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)
E. TX Clock and TX Data
F. TX Clock and RX Clock
 5 Multiplexers using HSD interfaces are DCE interfaces
that provide which three signals

A. Transmit Data
B. Receive Data
C. Request to Send
D. Data Carrier Detect (RLSD)
E. TX Clock and TX Data
F. TX Clock and RX Clock
 6 Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary
Rate T1?

A. BRTZ-AMI
B. B7S
C. HDB3
D. B8ZS
E. PULSE STUFFING
 6 Which of the following is Line Coding used for Primary
Rate T1?

A. BRTZ-AMI
B. B7S
C. HDB3
D. B8ZS
E. PULSE STUFFING
 7 Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are

A. Connection orientated, point to point connectivity only

B. Unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints
C. Connectionless orientated connectivity, shared
network that serves limited distances
D. Connectionless orientated connectivity, shared
network that serves unlimited distances
E. C and D
F. All of the above
 7 Local Area Network Metallic Interfaces are

A. Connection orientated, point to point connectivity only

B. Unshared network that serves unlimited endpoints
C. Connectionless orientated connectivity, shared
network that serves limited distances
D. Connectionless orientated connectivity, shared
network that serves unlimited distances
E. C and D
F. All of the above
8 E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.

A. 200
B. 240
C. 256
D. 300
8 E1 framing has a bit structure of how many bits per frame?
Clue Full metallic E1 speed divided by 8KHz Stratum timing.

A. 200
B. 240
C. 256
D. 300
 9 Which of the following describes the activity for which
RTCP is used?

A. Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video

over IP
B. Transport Task of Simple Network Management
Protocol
C. Network Statistics of media channels between video
conferencing hardware
D. Network Statistics of media channels between routers
E. Network Statistics of media channels between
Gatekeepers
 9 Which of the following describes the activity for which
RTCP is used?

A. Transport Task for Communication of Audio and Video

over IP
B. Transport Task of Simple Network Management
Protocol
C. Network Statistics of media channels between video
conferencing hardware
D. Network Statistics of media channels between routers
E. Network Statistics of media channels between
Gatekeepers
10 Which of the following are call establishment packets?
Select 3

A. Receiver Ready
B. Disconnect Request
C. Release Request
D. Setup
E. Connect Acknowledged
F. Receiver Not Ready
G. Alerting
H. Release Complete
10 Which of the following are call establishment packets?
Select 3

A. Receiver Ready
B. Disconnect Request
C. Release Request
D. Setup
E. Connect Acknowledged
F. Receiver Not Ready
G. Alerting
H. Release Complete
11 Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the
H.323 Gatekeeper?

A. Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals

B. Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals
C. Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals
D. Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323
Terminals
11 Which of the following is the Protocol RAS used by the
H.323 Gatekeeper?

A. Registration, Alerting, and Status of H.323 Terminals

B. Registration, Access, and Status of H.323 Terminals
C. Registration, Activation, and Status of H.323 Terminals
D. Registration, Admission, and Status of H.323
Terminals
12 Which of the following is the channel used to carry the
Audio for H.320 Terminals?

A. Channel 6
B. Channel 4
C. Channel 3
D. Channel 2
E. Channel 1
12 Which of the following is the channel used to carry the
Audio for H.320 Terminals?

A. Channel 6
B. Channel 4
C. Channel 3
D. Channel 2
E. Channel 1
13 Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?

A. G.711, G.721, G.722 AND G.723

B. G.711, G.722, G.728 AND G.726
C. G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1 AND G.729
D. G.711, G.722, G.728 AND G.723.1
13 Which audio coding standards are described by H.323?

A. G.711, G.721, G.722 AND G.723

B. G.711, G.722, G.728 AND G.726
C. G.711, G.722, G.728, G.723.1 AND G.729
D. G.711, G.722, G.728 AND G.723.1
 14 Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?

A. G.711
B. G.722
C. G.729
D. G.728
E. G.722.1
 14 Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?

A. G.711
B. G.722
C. G.729
D. G.728
E. G.722.1
 15 A telephone call over a Public Switched Telephone
Network is what type of quality?

A. Narrow band audio

B. Center band audio
C. Wide band audio
D. CD quality audio
 15 A telephone call over a Public Switched Telephone
Network is what type of quality?

A. Narrow band audio

B. Center band audio
C. Wide band audio
D. CD quality audio
 16 How is noise measured?
A. Volume
B. Distance
C. Amplitude
D. Impedance
 16 How is noise measured?
A. Volume
B. Distance
C. Amplitude
D. Impedance
 17 Pick the best match; Audio “Critical Distance” is a
definition that relates to:

A. Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room

microphone
B. Distance between the person speaking and the
microphone used
C. Distance between the video display monitor and
camera
D. Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and
doorways
 17 Pick the best match; Audio “Critical Distance” is a
definition that relates to:

A. Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room

microphone
B. Distance between the person speaking and the
microphone used
C. Distance between the video display monitor and
camera
D. Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and
doorways
 18 When required, improperly matched impedance will
cause problems with__________.

A. Audio signal levels

B. feedback frequency filtering
C. room acoustics
D. all of the above
 18 When required, improperly matched impedance will
cause problems with__________.

A. Audio signal levels

B. feedback frequency filtering
C. room acoustics
D. all of the above
19. Which of the following correctly describes typical audio
phantom power?

A. 48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to

provide power to the telephone set
B. 12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to
power amplified headphones
C. A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector
used to power remote pre-amplifiers
D. A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector
returning through pin 1, used to power microphones
19. Which of the following correctly describes typical audio
phantom power?

A. 48 volts DC applied to a telephone circuit center pair used to

provide power to the telephone set
B. 12 volts DC applied to the tip and ring of a TRS connector used to
power amplified headphones
C. A DC voltage applied to the center pin of an RCA type connector
used to power remote pre-amplifiers
D. A DC voltage applied to pins 2 and 3 of an XLR connector
returning through pin 1, used to power microphones
20. Which of the following functions can NOT be performed
by a microphone mixer?

A. Provide phantom power to microphones.

B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level
signals.
C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different
microphones.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
20. Which of the following functions can NOT be performed
by a microphone mixer?

A. Provide phantom power to microphones.

B. Provide gain to convert mic-level signals to line-level
signals.
C. Provide a means to adjust the relative gain of different
microphones.
D. Provide a means to adjust the video display brightness.
E. Provide a means to adjust the room acoustics
 21. What does Automatic Gain Control (AGC) do?

A. It turns up the volume to the far-end microphone.

B. It selects among multiple microphones.
C. It turns down the volume to the far-end microphone.
D. It builds the volume to the near-end microphone.
 21. What does Automatic Gain Control (AGC) do?

A. It turns up the volume to the far-end microphone.

B. It selects among multiple microphones.
C. It turns down the volume to the far-end microphone.
D. It builds the volume to the near-end microphone.
22. Which of the following correctly describes reverberation
and echo?

A. Echo is a coherent, distinct carry-on of sound.

B. Reverberation is irrelevant to conferencing audio.
C. Reverberation is long, distinct, acoustic reflections.
D. Reverberation is an incoherent, diffuse, carry-on of
sound
E. Echo is short, diffuse, acoustic reflections that linger
after the original sound has stopped.
22. Which of the following correctly describes reverberation
and echo?

A. Echo is a coherent, distinct carry-on of sound.

B. Reverberation is irrelevant to conferencing audio.
C. Reverberation is long, distinct, acoustic reflections.
D. Reverberation is an incoherent, diffuse, carry-on of
sound
E. Echo is short, diffuse, acoustic reflections that linger
after the original sound has stopped.
23. Which of the following devices is used to change Sound
Energy into Electrical Energy for the purpose
of the Far-End audience to hear the Near -End audience?

A. Mixer
B. Desk top microphone
C. Loud speaker
D. Sound pressure meter
23. Which of the following devices is used to change Sound
Energy into Electrical Energy for the purpose
of the Far-End audience to hear the Near -End audience?

A. Mixer
B. Desk top microphone
C. Loud speaker
D. Sound pressure meter
 24. A mic-level audio signal will measure as

A. 10 kiloVolt.
B. 10 miliVolt.
C. 10 gigaVolt.
D. 10 Watt.
E. 10 Amp.
 24. A mic-level audio signal will measure as

A. 10 kiloVolt.
B. 10 miliVolt.
C. 10 gigaVolt.
D. 10 Watt.
E. 10 Amp.
25. Muting an audio during a connected videoconference is
typically performed when you

A. need to move the microphone.

B. do not want to hear the other parties.
C. need to move conference table.
D. are listening and your room is very noisy.
E. need to hang up the video call.
25. Muting an audio during a connected videoconference is
typically performed when you

A. need to move the microphone.

B. do not want to hear the other parties.
C. need to move conference table.
D. are listening and your room is very noisy.
E. need to hang up the video call.
 26. During a H.323 Videoconference, what is the correct
bandwidth used by the G.711 and G.722 audio
algorithms in a 256K conference call?

• A.30,000 bits per second

• B.40,000 bits per second
• C.128,000 bits per second
• D.64,000 bits per second
 26. During a H.323 Videoconference, what is the correct
bandwidth used by the G.711 and G.722 audio
algorithms in a 256K conference call?

• A.30,000 bits per second

• B.40,000 bits per second
• C.128,000 bits per second
• D.64,000 bits per second
 27. What is the audio data rate in bits per second that a
G.723.1 and G.729 audio algorithms that use over
a network connection?

A. greater than 64,000

B. greater than 16,000
C. less than 5,000
D. less than 10,000
 27. What is the audio data rate in bits per second that a
G.723.1 and G.729 audio algorithms that use over
a network connection?

A. greater than 64,000

B. greater than 16,000
C. less than 5,000
D. less than 10,000
 28. What is the correct frequency response for the G.711
audio algorithm?

• A.50Hz to 3.4kHz
• B.50Hz to 7kHz
• C.300Hz to 3.4kHz
• D.300Hz to 7kHz
 28. What is the correct frequency response for the G.711
audio algorithm?

• A.50Hz to 3.4kHz
• B.50Hz to 7kHz
• C.300Hz to 3.4kHz
• D.300Hz to 7kHz
29. Line level audio cables are being connected. Which of the following
represents the electrical
requirements that should be followed during the cable connection?

• A. Power should be turned off, and connector cables

should be installed from the output of one device to the
output of the next device
• B. Power should be turned off, and the connector cables
should be installed from the output of one device to the
input of the next device
• C. Power is not important and Cables can be connected
without regard to the Connector labels
• D. Power is not important and Cables should only be
connected to connectors labeled "Audio OUT"
29. Line level audio cables are being connected. Which of the following
represents the electrical
requirements that should be followed during the cable connection?

• A. Power should be turned off, and connector cables

should be installed from the output of one device to the
output of the next device
• B. Power should be turned off, and the connector cables
should be installed from the output of one device to the
input of the next device
• C. Power is not important and Cables can be connected
without regard to the Connector labels
• D. Power is not important and Cables should only be
connected to connectors labeled "Audio OUT"
30. Which of the following statements about line-level and
mic-level are true?

• A. Audio mixers can be connected into a

line-level input.
• B. Line-level or mic-level can be used for
any audio input device.
• C. Line-level and mic-level always have
different impedance values.
• D. Voltage ranges are not the same
between line-level and mic-level.
30. Which of the following statements about line-level and
mic-level are true?

• A. Audio mixers can be connected into a

line-level input.
• B. Line-level or mic-level can be used for
any audio input device.
• C. Line-level and mic-level always have
different impedance values.
• D. Voltage ranges are not the same
between line-level and mic-level.
 31. Under normal operating conditions, Microphone and
Audio amplification system should have sufficient
_______ to operate without clipping.

• A. amplitude bias space

• B.100db padding
• C. no padding
• D. headroom
• E. videoroom
• F. voltage feedback
 31. Under normal operating conditions, Microphone and
Audio amplification system should have sufficient
_______ to operate without clipping.

• A. amplitude bias space

• B.100db padding
• C. no padding
• D. headroom
• E. videoroom
• F. voltage feedback
 32. What allows the detection of
audio distortion?

• A. Audible sound quality

• B. Measured audio signal level
• C. Measured background noise level
• D. Digital signal processor clock level
 32. What allows the detection of
audio distortion?

• A. Audible sound quality

• B. Measured audio signal level
• C. Measured background noise level
• D. Digital signal processor clock level
 33. Which of the following describes
frequency response?

• A. Ability to determine frequency content of a

signal
• B. Ability of a device to respond to amplitude
changes
• C. Ability of a circuit to define operating
frequency limits
• D. Ability of a device to operate within defined
frequency limits
 33. Which of the following describes
frequency response?

• A. Ability to determine frequency content of a

signal
• B. Ability of a device to respond to amplitude
changes
• C. Ability of a circuit to define operating
frequency limits
• D. Ability of a device to operate within defined
frequency limits
 34. Which, of the following items,
best describes gain?
• A. Increase only to a signal voltage as it passes
through a given component
• B. Increase or decrease to a signal voltage as a
passes through a given component
• C. Decrease only to a signal voltage as it passes
through a given system component
• D. None of the above
 34. Which, of the following items,
best describes gain?
• A. Increase only to a signal voltage as it passes
through a given component
• B. Increase or decrease to a signal voltage as a
passes through a given component
• C. Decrease only to a signal voltage as it passes
through a given system component
• D. None of the above
 35. Which of the following correctly describe the
role room acoustics play regarding acoustic echo
cancellation?

• A. People moving around in a room change the acoustic

paths presented to a microphone.
• B. Fans, heaters, and air conditioners add background
noise to the room, changing the room acoustic paths.
• C. Hard room surfaces act as reflectors for sound,
causing multiple acoustic paths from loudspeaker to
microphone.
• D. Heavy drapes and acoustic absorbers remove
acoustic paths and therefore cause problems for
acoustic echo cancellers.
 35. Which of the following correctly describe the
role room acoustics play regarding acoustic echo
cancellation?

• A. People moving around in a room change the acoustic

paths presented to a microphone.
• B. Fans, heaters, and air conditioners add background
noise to the room, changing the room acoustic paths.
• C. Hard room surfaces act as reflectors for sound,
causing multiple acoustic paths from loudspeaker to
microphone.
• D. Heavy drapes and acoustic absorbers remove
acoustic paths and therefore cause problems for
acoustic echo cancellers.
 36. Which of the following accurately describes
room gain as it applies to acoustic echo
cancellation?
• A. Measure of amplifier power driving the loudspeakers
in a given conference room
• B. Ratio of loudness of the participants voices versus the
loudspeaker volume arriving at the microphone
• C. Relative sensitivity of the microphones expressed in
dB versus the same microphone in a "free field“
environment
• D. Relative perceived loudness of a person speaking in a
given room versus the same person speaking in an
anechoic chamber
 36. Which of the following accurately describes
room gain as it applies to acoustic echo
cancellation?
• A. Measure of amplifier power driving the loudspeakers
in a given conference room
• B. Ratio of loudness of the participants voices versus the
loudspeaker volume arriving at the microphone
• C. Relative sensitivity of the microphones expressed in
dB versus the same microphone in a "free field“
environment
• D. Relative perceived loudness of a person speaking in a
given room versus the same person speaking in an
anechoic chamber
37. Which of the following correctly describes echo
as it relates to acoustic echo cancellations?
• A. The sound one hears when the far-end is talking and
one tries to talk at the same time.
• B. The sound of the room reverberation as picked up by
the local microphones, amplified and returned to the far-
end.
• C. The result of sound bouncing off the walls in the room
caused by the person speaking in that room being picked
up by the microphones.
• D. The sound of the far-end being returned to
themselves, caused by the room microphones picking up
the audio from the room loudspeakers.
37. Which of the following correctly describes echo
as it relates to acoustic echo cancellations?
• A. The sound one hears when the far-end is talking and
one tries to talk at the same time.
• B. The sound of the room reverberation as picked up by
the local microphones, amplified and returned to the far-
end.
• C. The result of sound bouncing off the walls in the room
caused by the person speaking in that room being picked
up by the microphones.
• D. The sound of the far-end being returned to
themselves, caused by the room microphones picking up
the audio from the room loudspeakers.
 38. Which of the following correctly describes the
purpose of an Acoustic Echo Canceller (AEC)?

• A. An AEC provides a means to reduce room noise sent

to the far-end.
• B. An AEC provides a means to reduce room
reverberation as heard by the far-end.
• C. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to
improve microphone sensitivity and gain.
• D. An AEC reduces the room loudspeaker contribution to
the local microphone sent to the far-end.
• E. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to
better allow the reduction of echo returned to the far-end.
 38. Which of the following correctly describes the
purpose of an Acoustic Echo Canceller (AEC)?

• A. An AEC provides a means to reduce room noise sent

to the far-end.
• B. An AEC provides a means to reduce room
reverberation as heard by the far-end.
• C. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to
improve microphone sensitivity and gain.
• D. An AEC reduces the room loudspeaker contribution to
the local microphone sent to the far-end.
• E. An AEC provides compensation for room acoustics to
better allow the reduction of echo returned to the far-end.
39. Which of the following are associated with the
operation of an Acoustic Echo Canceller (AEC)?

• A. Noise suppression
• B. Room microphones
• C. Room loudspeakers
• D. Automatic gain control
39. Which of the following are associated with the
operation of an Acoustic Echo Canceller (AEC)?

• A. Noise suppression
• B. Room microphones
• C. Room loudspeakers
• D. Automatic gain control
40. Which of the following correctly describes the term "half
duplex" as it refers to audio in a videoconference?

• A. Only one site of a conference is heard at any

given time.
• B. Only one person at a time is heard speaking
from any given room.
• C. Only one site of a conference is allowed to
speak at any given time.
• D. Only one person at a time is allowed to speak
in a given room attending a conference.
40. Which of the following correctly describes the term "half
duplex" as it refers to audio in a videoconference?

• A. Only one site of a conference is heard at any

given time.
• B. Only one person at a time is heard speaking
from any given room.
• C. Only one site of a conference is allowed to
speak at any given time.
• D. Only one person at a time is allowed to speak
in a given room attending a conference.
 41. Which of the following correctly describe
training as it applies to Acoustic Echo Cancellers
(AEC)?
• A. Training is a process by which AEC adapts to the
room acoustics
• B. Training is dependent on room AEC related audio
components and gain settings.
• C. Training occurs regardless of the events occurring in
a given room and AEC functions will only work if the
mute button is pressed.
• D. Training requires no input from any microphone
signals in a videoconferencing room.
 41. Which of the following correctly describe
training as it applies to Acoustic Echo Cancellers
(AEC)?
• A. Training is a process by which AEC adapts to the
room acoustics
• B. Training is dependent on room AEC related audio
components and gain settings.
• C. Training occurs regardless of the events occurring in
a given room and AEC functions will only work if the
mute button is pressed.
• D. Training requires no input from any microphone
signals in a videoconferencing room.
 42. S-Video Connections are typically designed
with what type of connectors?

• A. 4-Pin Mini-DIN
• B. RCA
• C. Banana plug
• D. Jones strip
• E. Phoenix
 42. S-Video Connections are typically designed
with what type of connectors?

• A. 4-Pin Mini-DIN
• B. RCA
• C. Banana plug
• D. Jones strip
• E. Phoenix
 43. If a Y/C cable is plugged in and the result is a
black and white video, which signal is not being
seen?

• A. Red, Green, and Blue signal

• B. Super VHS sync signal
• C. Luminance signal
• D. Chrominance signal
 43. If a Y/C cable is plugged in and the result is a
black and white video, which signal is not being
seen?

• A. Red, Green, and Blue signal

• B. Super VHS sync signal
• C. Luminance signal
• D. Chrominance signal
44. Of the following names, which two apply to S-
Video?

• A. Synchronous Video
• B. Y/C Video
• C. Separate Video
• D. Select Video
• E. Standard Video
44. Of the following names, which two apply to S-
Video?

• A. Synchronous Video
• B. Y/C Video
• C. Separate Video
• D. Select Video
• E. Standard Video
 45. Which signals are being used with Y/C
video?

• A. Red, green and blue

• B. Chrominance and luminance
• C. Kodachrome and polychrome
• D. Yustra spectrum and composite
 45. Which signals are being used with Y/C
video?

• A. Red, green and blue

• B. Chrominance and luminance
• C. Kodachrome and polychrome
• D. Yustra spectrum and composite
 46. A person is wearing a vertically striped shirt and is
sitting in front of a large window with closed blinds. What
effect does this have on camera focus?
• A. It has no adverse effect.
• B. The picture will be out of contrast.
• C. The camera will be unable to focus correctly.
• D. The iris will open and the picture will be bright
 46. A person is wearing a vertically striped shirt and is
sitting in front of a large window with closed blinds. What
effect does this have on camera focus?
• A. It has no adverse effect.
• B. The picture will be out of contrast.
• C. The camera will be unable to focus correctly.
• D. The iris will open and the picture will be bright
 47. High Definition Video connections
include which of the following? (select two)
• A.Three XLR connectors attached to one COAX cable
per connector
• B.One DB 25 Connector attached to several COAX
cables
• C.Three BNC connectors attached to one COAX cable
per connector
• D.Four 3.5mm Mini plugs attached to one COAX cable
per connector plug
• E.One DB 15 HD connector attached to three COAX
cables
 47. High Definition Video connections
include which of the following? (select two)
• A.Three XLR connectors attached to one COAX cable
per connector
• B.One DB 25 Connector attached to several COAX
cables
• C.Three BNC connectors attached to one COAX cable
per connector
• D.Four 3.5mm Mini plugs attached to one COAX cable
per connector plug
• E.One DB 15 HD connector attached to three COAX
cables
48. What effect does the zoom function have
relative to the camera's field of view?

• A. It widens the field at full zoom.

• B. It narrows the field at full zoom.
• C. It can either widen or narrow the field at
full zoom.
• D. It has no effect on the field of view.
48. What effect does the zoom function have
relative to the camera's field of view?

• A. It widens the field at full zoom.

• B. It narrows the field at full zoom.
• C. It can either widen or narrow the field at
full zoom.
• D. It has no effect on the field of view.
 49. Which of the following best describes a
field of view?
• A. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and
is measured in volts
• B. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and
is measured in degrees
• C. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and
is measured in lumens
• D. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and
is measured in farads
 49. Which of the following best describes a
field of view?
• A. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and
is measured in volts
• B. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and
is measured in degrees
• C. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and
is measured in lumens
• D. What the camera "sees" in a given scene and
is measured in farads
 50. Which camera control function causes video image to
change from bright to dark and back to bright as
you pass different light sources?

• A. Iris control
• B. PTZ control
• C. Focus control
• D. Contrast control
 50. Which camera control function causes video image to
change from bright to dark and back to bright as
you pass different light sources?

• A. Iris control
• B. PTZ control
• C. Focus control
• D. Contrast control
 51. PTZ Control may be performed by a camera
automatically by using(select 2)

• A. Music tracking.
• B. Voice tracking.
• C. Image tracking.
• D. VTC microphone tracking.
• E. Shadow tracking.
 51. PTZ Control may be performed by a camera
automatically by using(select 2)

• A. Music tracking.
• B. Voice tracking.
• C. Image tracking.
• D. VTC microphone tracking.
• E. Shadow tracking.
 52. How many frames per second make up a
NTSC and PAL video signal?

• A. NTSC 20
• B. NTSC 25
• C. NTSC 30
• D. PAL 25
• E. PAL 30
 52. How many frames per second make up a
NTSC and PAL video signal?

• A. NTSC 20
• B. NTSC 25
• C. NTSC 30
• D. PAL 25
• E. PAL 30
53. What are the termination impedance and
the signal level for NTSC video?
• A. 75 Ohms and 1 Vpp
• B. 75 Ohms and 2 Vrms
• C. 100 Ohms and 1 Vpp
• D. 100 Ohms and 1 Vrms
53. What are the termination impedance and
the signal level for NTSC video?
• A. 75 Ohms and 1 Vpp
• B. 75 Ohms and 2 Vrms
• C. 100 Ohms and 1 Vpp
• D. 100 Ohms and 1 Vrms
54. What are the termination impedance and
the signal level for PAL video?
• A. 50 Ohms and 1 Vpp
• B. 50 Ohms and 2 Vrms
• C. 75 Ohms and 1 Vpp
• D. 75 Ohms and 1 Vrms
54. What are the termination impedance and
the signal level for PAL video?
• A. 50 Ohms and 1 Vpp
• B. 50 Ohms and 2 Vrms
• C. 75 Ohms and 1 Vpp
• D. 75 Ohms and 1 Vrms
55. What is the number of scan lines and the frequency for
NTSC video?

• A. 525 lines and 50 Hz

• B. 525 lines and 60 Hz
• C. 625 lines and 50 Hz
• D. 625 lines and 60 Hz
55. What is the number of scan lines and the frequency for
NTSC video?

• A. 525 lines and 50 Hz

• B. 525 lines and 60 Hz
• C. 625 lines and 50 Hz
• D. 625 lines and 60 Hz
 56. What is the number of scan lines and the
frequency for PAL video?

• A. 525 lines and 50 Hz

• B. 525 lines and 60 Hz
• C. 625 lines and 50 Hz
• D. 625 lines and 60 Hz
 56. What is the number of scan lines and the
frequency for PAL video?

• A. 525 lines and 50 Hz

• B. 525 lines and 60 Hz
• C. 625 lines and 50 Hz
• D. 625 lines and 60 Hz
 57. Which of the following most accurately defines white
balance?

• A.The amount of white pixels that appear in a video

frame
• B.A feature that eliminates noises distributed uniformly
over the frequency spectrum
• C.A feature that splits the signal between the red, green,
and blue components to make white
• D.A feature that adjusts the signal between the red,
green, and blue components that yield white video
signals.
 57. Which of the following most accurately defines white
balance?

• A.The amount of white pixels that appear in a video

frame
• B.A feature that eliminates noises distributed uniformly
over the frequency spectrum
• C.A feature that splits the signal between the red, green,
and blue components to make white
• D.A feature that adjusts the signal between the red,
green, and blue components that yield white video
signals.
58. What effect does natural daylight from a
window have on video?

• A. It causes the video to be out of focus.

• B. It causes the picture to have a bluish tint.
• C. It causes the iris to close, which makes images
appear dark.
• D. It causes the iris to open, which makes images
appear bright
58. What effect does natural daylight from a
window have on video?

• A. It causes the video to be out of focus.

• B. It causes the picture to have a bluish tint.
• C. It causes the iris to close, which makes images
appear dark.
• D. It causes the iris to open, which makes images
appear bright
 59. Using different color-temperature light sources will
compromise which part of the camera performance?

• A.Brightness
• B.White Balance
• C.Field of View
• D.PTZ
 59. Using different color-temperature light sources will
compromise which part of the camera performance?

• A.Brightness
• B.White Balance
• C.Field of View
• D.PTZ
60. Which of the following video display resolutions
are true 16:9 Aspect Ratio?

• A.1920X1080
• B.1024X768
• C.1280X720
• D.720X480
60. Which of the following video display resolutions
are true 16:9 Aspect Ratio?

• A.1920X1080
• B.1024X768
• C.1280X720
• D.720X480
61. High-Definition Videoconferencing will require
and use

• A. the same camera from NTSC and PAL

VTC systems
• B. typical off the shelf web camera
• C. high-definition camera
• D. all of the above
61. High-Definition Videoconferencing will require
and use

• A. the same camera from NTSC and PAL

VTC systems
• B. typical off the shelf web camera
• C. high-definition camera
• D. all of the above
 62. What effect will an oscillating fan that is visible in the
background have on the overall video quality?

• A. No effect
• B. Shadows
• C. Video switching
• D. Lower frame rate
 62. What effect will an oscillating fan that is visible in the
background have on the overall video quality?

• A. No effect
• B. Shadows
• C. Video switching
• D. Lower frame rate
63. H.320 Video Conference is running and the picture of
the people from the Far-End is displaying intermittently
freezing video. Which of the following is a valid reason for
this problem to occur?

• A. Network is down
• B. Bandwidth of the call is 384 kilobits
• C. Attendees at the Near End are moving too
much
• D. Near End is receiving Content Video
• E. Far-End is receiving Content Video
63. H.320 Video Conference is running and the picture of
the people from the Far-End is displaying intermittently
freezing video. Which of the following is a valid reason for
this problem to occur?

• A. Network is down
• B. Bandwidth of the call is 384 kilobits
• C. Attendees at the Near End are moving too
much
• D. Near End is receiving Content Video
• E. Far-End is receiving Content Video
 64. Video display for Content (Role Management) Visual
Collaboration is best displayed on a
___________ video monitor.

• A. S-Video
• B. Component
• C. Composite
• D. Analog RF coaxial cable connected
 64. Video display for Content (Role Management) Visual
Collaboration is best displayed on a
___________ video monitor.

• A. S-Video
• B. Component
• C. Composite
• D. Analog RF coaxial cable connected
 65. What term is used for video display resolution
of H.264 Video Coding used for Visual Telephony?

• A. Standard Intermediate Format

• B. Standard Systems Committee
• C. Standard Optics
• D. Standardized Network Management
Parameters
 65. What term is used for video display resolution
of H.264 Video Coding used for Visual Telephony?

• A. Standard Intermediate Format

• B. Standard Systems Committee
• C. Standard Optics
• D. Standardized Network Management
Parameters
 66. What does CIF stand for?

• A.Common International Form

• B.Common Intermediate Form
• C.Common Intermediate Format
• D.Common International Format
 66. What does CIF stand for?

• A.Common International Form

• B.Common Intermediate Form
• C.Common Intermediate Format
• D.Common International Format
 67. SIF resolution is
• A.288 lines.
• B.144 lines.
• C.96 lines.
• D.480 lines.
• E.240 lines.
 67. SIF resolution is
• A.288 lines.
• B.144 lines.
• C.96 lines.
• D.480 lines.
• E.240 lines.
 68. Which of the following describe video dynamics as
processed through a videoconference system?

• A. Cameras react to light the same as ones eye and video

monitors accurately render the video information so what
one sees by eye is what the far-end sees.
• B. Cameras have limits to the range of light levels which
can be accommodated and tend to process the darker
regions further toward black than what ones eye sees.
• C. Codecs have the same limits as cameras and therefore
will not change the perceived qualities of the video as
rendered by the cameras.
• D. Codecs have more restrictive limits than cameras, and
the best way to accurately assess the video quality sent to
the far-end is to view a video scene fully coded and then
decoded.
 68. Which of the following describe video dynamics as
processed through a videoconference system?

• A. Cameras react to light the same as ones eye and video

monitors accurately render the video information so what
one sees by eye is what the far-end sees.
• B. Cameras have limits to the range of light levels which
can be accommodated and tend to process the darker
regions further toward black than what ones eye sees.
• C. Codecs have the same limits as cameras and therefore
will not change the perceived qualities of the video as
rendered by the cameras.
• D. Codecs have more restrictive limits than cameras, and
the best way to accurately assess the video quality sent to
the far-end is to view a video scene fully coded and then
decoded.
 69. For MPEG2 to sustain full motion video at 720X480
resolution, network bandwidth required must be less than
how many kilobits per second?

• A.1
• B.100
• C.1000
• D.10,000
 69. For MPEG2 to sustain full motion video at 720X480
resolution, network bandwidth required must be less than
how many kilobits per second?

• A.1
• B.100
• C.1000
• D.10,000
 70. MPEG4 Part 10 (H.264) coder requires what network
data rate to sustain full motion video at SIF resolution?

• A. Less than 1 kilobit per second

• B. Less than 384 kilobits per second
• C. More than 3,000 kilobits per second
• D. More than 10,000 kilobits per second
 70. MPEG4 Part 10 (H.264) coder requires what network
data rate to sustain full motion video at SIF resolution?

• A. Less than 1 kilobit per second

• B. Less than 384 kilobits per second
• C. More than 3,000 kilobits per second
• D. More than 10,000 kilobits per second
 71. In a multipoint videoconference your system is 15 fps,
and the far-end is 30 fps. How many frames per
second will the far-end viewer see under normal
conference conditions?
• A.7.5 fps
• B.10 fps
• C.15 fps
• D.30 fps
 71. In a multipoint videoconference your system is 15 fps,
and the far-end is 30 fps. How many frames per
second will the far-end viewer see under normal
conference conditions?
• A.7.5 fps
• B.10 fps
• C.15 fps
• D.30 fps
 72. In a point-to-point videoconference your system is 15 fps, and the
far-end is 30 fps. How many frames per second will the far-end viewer
see under normal conference conditions?

• A.7.5 fps
• B.10 fps
• C.15 fps
• D.30 fps
 72. In a point-to-point videoconference your system is 15 fps, and the
far-end is 30 fps. How many frames per second will the far-end viewer
see under normal conference conditions?

• A.7.5 fps
• B.10 fps
• C.15 fps
• D.30 fps
 73. Which of the following might cause a
video frame rate problem?

• A. Insufficient light source used in the

room
• B. Insufficient bandwidth between VTC
systems
• C. Carpeting is red color
• D. Walls that are painted red
 73. Which of the following might cause a
video frame rate problem?

• A. Insufficient light source used in the

room
• B. Insufficient bandwidth between VTC
systems
• C. Carpeting is red color
• D. Walls that are painted red
 74. Network Operating Systems will typically introduce
dynamic network functions and security by creating and
controlling a _______hierarchy.

• A. People to People Relationship

• B. People to Software Police Relationship
• C. Client to Client Relationship
• D. Client to Network Switch Relationship
• E. Client to Server Relationship
• F. Client to Software Police Relationship
 74. Network Operating Systems will typically introduce
dynamic network functions and security by creating and
controlling a _______hierarchy.

• A. People to People Relationship

• B. People to Software Police Relationship
• C. Client to Client Relationship
• D. Client to Network Switch Relationship
• E. Client to Server Relationship
• F. Client to Software Police Relationship
75. LDAP is used for which of the following?

• A. Video Directorship
• B. Video Chair Control
• C. Video Far-End Camera Control
• D. Video End Point Directory
75. LDAP is used for which of the following?

• A. Video Directorship
• B. Video Chair Control
• C. Video Far-End Camera Control
• D. Video End Point Directory
 76. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is used
to dynamically assign the

• A.MAC address.
• B.ISDN address
• C.IP address
• D.E.164 address
 76. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is used
to dynamically assign the

• A.MAC address.
• B.ISDN address
• C.IP address
• D.E.164 address
 77. Frame Relay Virtual Private Networks are capable of
providing more bandwidth by controlling and increasing the

• A. Circuit Clock.
• B. Network Clock.
• C. Variable Bit Rate.
• D. Committed Information Rate and Burst
Rate.
• E. Constant Bit Rate.
 77. Frame Relay Virtual Private Networks are capable of
providing more bandwidth by controlling and increasing the

• A. Circuit Clock.
• B. Network Clock.
• C. Variable Bit Rate.
• D. Committed Information Rate and Burst
Rate.
• E. Constant Bit Rate.
 78. Asynchronous Transfer Mode Network is
capable of providing which bandwidth?

• A. Unspecified Bit Rate

• B. Real-Time Variable Bit Rate
• C. Non-Real-Time Variable Bit Rate
• D. Constant Bit Rate
• E. Available Bit Rate
• F. All of the above
 78. Asynchronous Transfer Mode Network is
capable of providing which bandwidth?

• A. Unspecified Bit Rate

• B. Real-Time Variable Bit Rate
• C. Non-Real-Time Variable Bit Rate
• D. Constant Bit Rate
• E. Available Bit Rate
• F. All of the above
79. What is the name of the address field used for
Asynchronous Transfer Mode cells?

• A. Virtual Initializer and Address

• B. Virtual Path and Virtual Channel
Identifier
• C. Virtual Connection and Virtual
Destination Identifier
• D. None of the above
79. What is the name of the address field used for
Asynchronous Transfer Mode cells?

• A. Virtual Initializer and Address

• B. Virtual Path and Virtual Channel
Identifier
• C. Virtual Connection and Virtual
Destination Identifier
• D. None of the above
 80. Which of the following describes Switched
Virtual Circuits?

• A. Permanent connections through a Packet

Network
• B. Temporary connections through a DACS
• C. Temporary connections through a Packet
Network
• D. Dedicated connections through a channel
circuit network
 80. Which of the following describes Switched
Virtual Circuits?

• A. Permanent connections through a Packet

Network
• B. Temporary connections through a DACS
• C. Temporary connections through a Packet
Network
• D. Dedicated connections through a channel
circuit network
 81. How is Multiplexing performed? (Select 3 of
the following options.)

• A. By session
• B. By network administrator time of day
• C. By statistical
• D. By performance
• E. By time division
• F. By frequency division
 81. How is Multiplexing performed? (Select 3 of
the following options.)

• A. By session
• B. By network administrator time of day
• C. By statistical
• D. By performance
• E. By time division
• F. By frequency division
 82. Which of the following best describes and defines
Packet Jitter?

• A.Serious Packet Loss

• B.Random Packet Discard
• C.Packet Network Errors
• D.Packet Delay Time End to End
• E.Packet Delay Time Variation from
Packet to Packet
 82. Which of the following best describes and defines
Packet Jitter?

• A. Serious Packet Loss

• B. Random Packet Discard
• C. Packet Network Errors
• D. Packet Delay Time End to End
• E. Packet Delay Time Variation from
Packet to Packet
 83. In an Ethernet shared Hub configuration used for
videoconferencing, collisions may occur and be tolerated up to_____ %
Packet Ratio of Packets Collision over Total Packets Transported.

• A. .5
• B. 5
• C. 25
• D. 50
 83. In an Ethernet shared Hub configuration used for
videoconferencing, collisions may occur and be tolerated up to_____ %
Packet Ratio of Packets Collision over Total Packets Transported.

• A. .5
• B. 5
• C. 25
• D. 50
 84. Which of the following best describes
Inverse Multiplexing?
• A. Permanently Dividing the Audio and the Video
into separate streams
• B. Permanently Splitting a High speed data
source into two or more lower speed circuits
• C. Dynamically Splitting a High Speed Data
source into two or more lower speed circuits
• D. Dynamically Dividing the Audio and the Video
into separate streams
 84. Which of the following best describes
Inverse Multiplexing?
• A. Permanently Dividing the Audio and the Video
into separate streams
• B. Permanently Splitting a High speed data
source into two or more lower speed circuits
• C. Dynamically Splitting a High Speed Data
source into two or more lower speed circuits
• D. Dynamically Dividing the Audio and the Video
into separate streams
 85. The Bandwidth on Demand Interoperability Group created four
modes for standardized Inverse Multiplexing. Which mode is best
compatible with H.320/221 Video Conferencing?

• A.Mode 1
• B.Mode 2
• C.Mode 3
• D.Mode 4
 85. The Bandwidth on Demand Interoperability Group created four
modes for standardized Inverse Multiplexing. Which mode is best
compatible with H.320/221 Video Conferencing?

• A.Mode 1
• B.Mode 2
• C.Mode 3
• D.Mode 4
 86. Video conferencing systems defined for using a
Gatekeeper will interact using the

• A.LAP Protocol
• B.RAS Protocol.
• C.LDAP Protocol.
• D.DNS Protocol.
• E.D-Channel Protocol.
• F.All of the above
 86. Video conferencing systems defined for using a
Gatekeeper will interact using the

• A.LAP Protocol
• B.RAS Protocol.
• C.LDAP Protocol.
• D.DNS Protocol.
• E.D-Channel Protocol.
• F.All of the above
 87. Videoconferencing sites, when defined as using a
Gatekeeper, must successfully first communicate
which of the following commands?

• A.ADM, CCF
• B.ARJ, ACF
• C.RRQ, RRJ
• D.RRQ, RGH
• E.RRQ, RCF
 87. Videoconferencing sites, when defined as using a
Gatekeeper, must successfully first communicate
which of the following commands?

• A.ADM, CCF
• B.ARJ, ACF
• C.RRQ, RRJ
• D.RRQ, RGH
• E.RRQ, RCF
 88. Gatekeeper messages for registration and admission that are
successful will always have the Generic structure as: (Note - "XX" - is a
variable value that represents specific Gatekeeper names)

• A.RequestXX, ReplyXX
• B.RequestXX, DenyXXC
• C.XXRequest, XXReply
• D.XXRequest, XXConfirm
• E.XXRequest, XXAcnowledged
 88. Gatekeeper messages for registration and admission that are
successful will always have the Generic structure as: (Note - "XX" - is a
variable value that represents specific Gatekeeper names)

• A.RequestXX, ReplyXX
• B.RequestXX, DenyXXC
• C.XXRequest, XXReply
• D.XXRequest, XXConfirm
• E.XXRequest, XXAcnowledged
 89. Videoconferencing over IP End Point Systems must
use signaling to establish a media channel conference Call
Setup. Call Operations are part of what Standard?

• A.LAP / B
• B.LAP / D
• C.H.225/Q.921
• D.H.225/H.261
• E.H.225/Q.931
 89. Videoconferencing over IP End Point Systems must
use signaling to establish a media channel conference Call
Setup. Call Operations are part of what Standard?

• A.LAP / B
• B.LAP / D
• C.H.225/Q.921
• D.H.225/H.261
• E.H.225/Q.931
 90. To setup a Videoconferencing system to be capable of ISDN
speeds up to 512 kilobits per second, which of the following is
required? (Select three of the following options.)

• A.3 TE-2
• B.4 NT-1
• C.4 TE-2
• D.1 IMUX with 3 BRI line support
• E.1 IMUX with 4 BRI line support
• F.3 BRI lines
• G.3 NT-1
• H.6 BRI lines
• I.4 BRI lines
 90. To setup a Videoconferencing system to be capable of ISDN
speeds up to 512 kilobits per second, which of the following is
required? (Select three of the following options.)

• A.3 TE-2
• B.4 NT-1
• C.4 TE-2
• D.1 IMUX with 3 BRI line support
• E.1 IMUX with 4 BRI line support
• F.3 BRI lines
• G.3 NT-1
• H.6 BRI lines
• I.4 BRI lines
 91. Which of the following apply to a Video Conferencing
System? (Select three of the following options.)

• A.Coder / Decoder
• B.Audio Translator
• C.Audio, Video, Content, and Data Translator
• D.Analog to Digital and Digital to Analog Converter
• E.Video, Audio, Content, and Data Multiplexer
 91. Which of the following apply to a Video Conferencing
System? (Select three of the following options.)

• A.Coder / Decoder
• B.Audio Translator
• C.Audio, Video, Content, and Data Translator
• D.Analog to Digital and Digital to Analog Converter
• E.Video, Audio, Content, and Data Multiplexer
 92. Channel Network Clocks are used to provide
the timing source for what kind of data?

• A.Transmit
• B.Receive
• C.Old
• D.Discarded
• E.A and D
• F.A and B
 92. Channel Network Clocks are used to provide
the timing source for what kind of data?

• A.Transmit
• B.Receive
• C.Old
• D.Discarded
• E.A and D
• F.A and B
 93. Clocking Hierarchy for Channel Networks from the
Public Network to the customer premise station
equipment is as follows:

• A.Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Recovered Clock

/ Local Clock
• B.Master Clock / Local Clock / Recovered
Clock / Nodal Clock
• C.Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock / Master Clock
• D.Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Local Clock /
Recovered Clock
 93. Clocking Hierarchy for Channel Networks from the
Public Network to the customer premise station
equipment is as follows:

• A.Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Recovered Clock

/ Local Clock
• B.Master Clock / Local Clock / Recovered
Clock / Nodal Clock
• C.Recovered Clock / Nodal Clock / Master Clock
• D.Master Clock / Nodal Clock / Local Clock /
Recovered Clock
 94. Which two types of Networks are capable of providing
consistent, guaranteed QoS Constant Bit Rate Transport
with a steady reliable clock source?

• A.ISDN D-Channel
• B.ISDN Circuit Switched Voice
• C.ISDN Circuit Switched Data
• D.X.25 / X.75 Packet Switching
• E.ATM CBR-AAL0 Service
• F.Public Virtual Private Network
 94. Which two types of Networks are capable of providing
consistent, guaranteed QoS Constant Bit Rate Transport
with a steady reliable clock source?

• A.ISDN D-Channel
• B.ISDN Circuit Switched Voice
• C.ISDN Circuit Switched Data
• D.X.25 / X.75 Packet Switching
• E.ATM CBR-AAL0 Service
• F.Public Virtual Private Network
 95. Which of the following best describes Enterprise
Internetworking?

• A.T1 line or E1 lines connected to VTCs

• B.RS-366 lines connected to MCU
• C.Wide Area Networks between VTCs and Camera
Controls
• D.Wide Area Networks used as connections between
Network Switch-Routers
• E.Wide Area Networks used to connect two dial up
modems
• F.Wide Area Networks connecting to Voice Calling
Directors
 95. Which of the following best describes Enterprise
Internetworking?

• A.T1 line or E1 lines connected to VTCs

• B.RS-366 lines connected to MCU
• C.Wide Area Networks between VTCs and Camera
Controls
• D.Wide Area Networks used as connections between
Network Switch-Routers
• E.Wide Area Networks used to connect two dial up
modems
• F.Wide Area Networks connecting to Voice Calling
Directors
 96. Which of the following are examples of Wide Area Networks with
capabilities greater than one Million bits per second throughput?
(Select two of the following options.)

• A.Analog Telephone Line Service

• B.Digital Microphone Interfaces
• C.Digital Camera Interface
• D.T1/E1 line
• E.Broadband
 96. Which of the following are examples of Wide Area Networks with
capabilities greater than one Million bits per second throughput?
(Select two of the following options.)

• A.Analog Telephone Line Service

• B.Digital Microphone Interfaces
• C.Digital Camera Interface
• D.T1/E1 line
• E.Broadband
 97. Which of the following describes Request for
Comment documents?

• A.Internet Protocol Standards specifications

• B.WAN hardware specifications of operations
• C.Signal Regeneration specifications
• D.Signal Loss specifications
• E.Signal to noise ratio specifications
• F.LAN hardware specifications
 97. Which of the following describes Request for
Comment documents?

• A. Internet Protocol Standards specifications

• B. WAN hardware specifications of operations
• C. Signal Regeneration specifications
• D. Signal Loss specifications
• E. Signal to noise ratio specifications
• F. LAN hardware specifications
 98. Institute for Electrical and Electronics
Engineers group 802 manages
• A.Network repeaters and Network line drivers hardware
designs.
• B.Network line padding specifications.
• C.Local Area Network specifications
• D.Medium Access Control Addressing
• E.B and D
• F.A and C
• G.C and D
 98. Institute for Electrical and Electronics
Engineers group 802 manages
• A.Network repeaters and Network line drivers hardware
designs.
• B.Network line padding specifications.
• C.Local Area Network specifications
• D.Medium Access Control Addressing
• E.B and D
• F.A and C
• G.C and D
 99. Which organizations provide most of the channel
networks or DS0 / DS1 / CEPT1 connections to customer
locations worldwide?

• A.Public Switched Telephone Networks

• B.Internet Access Providers
• C.Cell Phone Carriers
• D.Fiber Carriers and Department of Defense
• E.Microwave Carriers
 99. Which organizations provide most of the channel
networks or DS0 / DS1 / CEPT1 connections to customer
locations worldwide?

• A.Public Switched Telephone Networks

• B.Internet Access Providers
• C.Cell Phone Carriers
• D.Fiber Carriers and Department of Defense
• E.Microwave Carriers
 100. Which of the following best
describes 64,000 bits per second?
• A.DS1
• B.DS3
• C.DS0
• D.CEPT1
 100. Which of the following best
describes 64,000 bits per second?
• A.DS1
• B.DS3
• C.DS0
• D.CEPT1
101. Switched Channel Circuit Networks provide which two-
bandwidth speed increments?

• A.48K bits per second

• B.64K bytes per second
• C.56K bytes per second
• D.64K bits per second
• E.56K bits per second
101. Switched Channel Circuit Networks provide which two-
bandwidth speed increments?

• A.48K bits per second

• B.64K bytes per second
• C.56K bytes per second
• D.64K bits per second
• E.56K bits per second
 102. Switched Channel Circuit Network by definition is
network that provides

• A.Packet switching.
• B.Cell Switching.
• C.temporary half-duplex connection from point A to point
B.
• D.temporary full-duplex connection from point A to point
B.
• E.permanent half-duplex network connections from point
A to point B.
• F.permanent full-network connections from point A to
point B.
 102. Switched Channel Circuit Network by definition is
network that provides

• A.Packet switching.
• B.Cell Switching.
• C.temporary half-duplex connection from point A to point
B.
• D.temporary full-duplex connection from point A to point
B.
• E.permanent half-duplex network connections from point
A to point B.
• F.permanent full-network connections from point A to
point B.
 103. Public Internet may be properly and securely
connected to the Private Domain Intranet for quality
videoconferencing by using which of the following
components lists?
• A.Broadband Interface and Router
• B.Broadband Interface, Network Address Translation
System, and Analog Modem
• C.Broadband Interface, Router with Fire Wall & Network
Address Translation System
• D.Repeater, Fire Wall, and Network Address Translation
System
• E.Analog Modem, Repeaters, Fire Wall, and Network
Address Translation System
 103. Public Internet may be properly and securely
connected to the Private Domain Intranet for quality
videoconferencing by using which of the following
components lists?
• A.Broadband Interface and Router
• B.Broadband Interface, Network Address Translation
System, and Analog Modem
• C.Broadband Interface, Router with Fire Wall & Network
Address Translation System
• D.Repeater, Fire Wall, and Network Address Translation
System
• E.Analog Modem, Repeaters, Fire Wall, and Network
Address Translation System
104. IEEE oversees which of the following?

• A.ANSI standards
• B.ISO standards
• C.802 LAN groups
• D.OSI Model
• E.Bell Standards
• F.All of the above
104. IEEE oversees which of the following?

• A.ANSI standards
• B.ISO standards
• C.802 LAN groups
• D.OSI Model
• E.Bell Standards
• F.All of the above
105. Open System Interconnect describes a
Model for
• A.3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with
Layer 1 as the most important.
• B.3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with
Layer 3 as the most important.
• C.7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer
7 as the most important.
• D.7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer
1 as the most important.
• E.none of the above.
105. Open System Interconnect describes a
Model for
• A.3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with
Layer 1 as the most important.
• B.3 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with
Layer 3 as the most important.
• C.7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer
7 as the most important.
• D.7 Layers Communication Protocol Hierarchy with layer
1 as the most important.
• E.none of the above.
 106. Which of the following describes one ISDN B
Channel?

• A. Network that is unable to function

• B. Network that provides 128 kilobits per second
• C. Network that provides 4800 kilobits per second
• D. Network that provides 1,536,000 bits per second
• E. Network that provides 64 kilobits per second
• F. Network that provides various rates up to 1,920,000 bits per
second
 106. Which of the following describes one ISDN B
Channel?

• A. Network that is unable to function

• B. Network that provides 128 kilobits per second
• C. Network that provides 4800 kilobits per second
• D. Network that provides 1,536,000 bits per second
• E. Network that provides 64 kilobits per second
• F. Network that provides various rates up to 1,920,000 bits per
second
 107. Videoconferencing channel synchronous networks
may be defined as (Select two of the following options.)

• A.networks capable of speeds up to 2,000,000 bits per

second.
• B.networks that can transmit but not receive at the same
time.
• C.networks that provide no clocks.
• D.networks that can transmit and receive simultaneously
with no clock.
• E.networks that require clocks for transmit and receive.
 107. Videoconferencing channel synchronous networks
may be defined as (Select two of the following options.)

• A.networks capable of speeds up to 2,000,000 bits per

second.
• B.networks that can transmit but not receive at the same
time.
• C.networks that provide no clocks.
• D.networks that can transmit and receive simultaneously
with no clock.
• E.networks that require clocks for transmit and receive.
 108. Select three of the following networks types that are
"Full Duplex".

• A. ISDN B-Channels
• B. Ethernet HUB interfaces
• C. Ethernet Switch interfaces
• D. Ethernet BUS cable interfaces
• E. S/T Reference point
• F. One Coaxial Cable
 108. Select three of the following networks types that are
"Full Duplex".

• A. ISDN B-Channels
• B. Ethernet HUB interfaces
• C. Ethernet Switch interfaces
• D. Ethernet BUS cable interfaces
• E. S/T Reference point
• F. One Coaxial Cable
 109. Digital Access Cross-Connect Systems are
used for Networks that are

• A.Dedicated Digital Channel Time Division

Multiplexing Networks.
• B.Switched Digital Channel Multiplexing
Networks.
• C.Packet Network Routers.
• D.Ethernet Switches.
 109. Digital Access Cross-Connect Systems are
used for Networks that are

• A.Dedicated Digital Channel Time Division

Multiplexing Networks.
• B.Switched Digital Channel Multiplexing
Networks.
• C.Packet Network Routers.
• D.Ethernet Switches.
110. Which of the following is Line Coding used for
Primary Rate E1?

• A.BRTZ-AMI
• B.B7S
• C.HDB3
• D.B8ZS
• E.Pulse Stuffing
110. Which of the following is Line Coding used for
Primary Rate E1?

• A.BRTZ-AMI
• B.B7S
• C.HDB3
• D.B8ZS
• E.Pulse Stuffing
 111. Which of the following communication signal
procedures are required for a H.323 Videoconferencing
over IP call to establish? (Select three)

• A.Capability Exchange Signals

• B.Selected Communication Mode Signals
• C.Frame Alignment and Bit Rate
Allocation Signal
• D.Master/Slave Determination
• E.Logical Channel Signaling
 111. Which of the following communication signal
procedures are required for a H.323 Videoconferencing
over IP call to establish? (Select three)

• A.Capability Exchange Signals

• B.Selected Communication Mode Signals
• C.Frame Alignment and Bit Rate
Allocation Signal
• D.Master/Slave Determination
• E.Logical Channel Signaling
 112. MCU operation of H.323 Videoconferencing
over IP is defined as which two components?

• A.Network Controller and Multipoint Controller

• B.Multipoint Controller and Multipoint Processor
• C.Multipoint Processor and Video Controller
• D.Audio and Video Controller
• E.All of the above
 112. MCU operation of H.323 Videoconferencing
over IP is defined as which two components?

• A. Network Controller and Multipoint Controller

• B. Multipoint Controller and Multipoint Processor
• C. Multipoint Processor and Video Controller
• D. Audio and Video Controller
• E. All of the above
 113. Media Gateways will

• A.process information for Video File Transfers.

• B.process audio for Multipoint Conferencing.
• C.provide Bearer to Bearer Channel Switching.
• D.provide Bearer Channel termination and Media Stream
termination and conversion.
• E.terminate Packet Networks.
 113. Media Gateways will

• A.process information for Video File Transfers.

• B.process audio for Multipoint Conferencing.
• C.provide Bearer to Bearer Channel Switching.
• D.provide Bearer Channel termination and Media Stream
termination and conversion.
• E.terminate Packet Networks.
114. Public Switched Telephone Company channel network
components starting at the customer site and
continuing to the Far-End site are set up as follows:
• A.Station / Interoffice Facilities / Local Exchange Carrier
Digital Switch
• B.Station / Local Loop / Interoffice Facilities / Local
Exchange Carrier Digital Switch
• C.Station / Interoffice Facilities / Local Loop / Local
Exchange Carrier Digital Switch
• D.Station / Local Loop / Local Exchange Carrier Digital
Switch / Interoffice Facilities
114. Public Switched Telephone Company channel network
components starting at the customer site and
continuing to the Far-End site are set up as follows:
• A.Station / Interoffice Facilities / Local Exchange Carrier
Digital Switch
• B.Station / Local Loop / Interoffice Facilities / Local
Exchange Carrier Digital Switch
• C.Station / Interoffice Facilities / Local Loop / Local
Exchange Carrier Digital Switch
• D.Station / Local Loop / Local Exchange Carrier Digital
Switch / Interoffice Facilities
 115. Defective Local Loop may introduce what two
problems? (Pick two of the following options.)

• A.Cyclic Redundancy Errors

• B.Network Channel Clocking Delay
• C.Over-voltage to codec power supply
• D.Over-voltage to the codec camera
• E.Intermittent codec network connections
 115. Defective Local Loop may introduce what two
problems? (Pick two of the following options.)

• A.Cyclic Redundancy Errors

• B.Network Channel Clocking Delay
• C.Over-voltage to codec power supply
• D.Over-voltage to the codec camera
• E.Intermittent codec network connections
 116. Customer owned Private Branch Exchange is best
described as

• A.a switch located at the Network Facilities office.

• B.a multiplexer located at the customer premise.
• C.a switch located at the customer premise.
• D.an obsolete network device.
• E.All of the above
 116. Customer owned Private Branch Exchange is best
described as

• A.a switch located at the Network Facilities office.

• B.a multiplexer located at the customer premise.
• C.a switch located at the customer premise.
• D.an obsolete network device.
• E.All of the above
 117. Broadband Connectivity is synonymous with

• A. Asynchronous Transfer Mode Networks.

• B. Internet Protocol Networks.
• C. Frame Relay Networks.
• D. Digital Subscriber Line Services.
• E. Cable Modem Internet Services.
• F. All of the above
 117. Broadband Connectivity is synonymous with

• A. Asynchronous Transfer Mode Networks.

• B. Internet Protocol Networks.
• C. Frame Relay Networks.
• D. Digital Subscriber Line Services.
• E. Cable Modem Internet Services.
• F. All of the above
 118. Which Network Services speeds are governed by
cable length and cable wire gauge?

• A. Packet Switching
• B. Integrated Services Digital Network
Primary Rate
• C.D-Channels
• D.B-Channels
• E. Digital Subscriber Line Services
 118. Which Network Services speeds are governed by
cable length and cable wire gauge?

• A. Packet Switching
• B. Integrated Services Digital Network
Primary Rate
• C.D-Channels
• D.B-Channels
• E. Digital Subscriber Line Services
 119. SONET Optical Carrier - 3 or OC-3 is what
speed?

• A.155M data packets per second

• B.155M bits per second
• C.155M bytes per second
• D.155M blocks per second
 119. SONET Optical Carrier - 3 or OC-3 is what
speed?

• A.155M data packets per second

• B.155M bits per second
• C.155M bytes per second
• D.155M blocks per second
 120. T1 trunks are capable of supporting up to

• A. 5 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

• B. 4 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
• C. 3 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
• D. 2 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
 120. T1 trunks are capable of supporting up to

• A. 5 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

• B. 4 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
• C. 3 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
• D. 2 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
 121. E1 trunks are capable of supporting up to

• A.6 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

• B.7 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
• C.5 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
• D.4 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
 121. E1 trunks are capable of supporting up to

• A.6 - 384,000 bit per second connections.

• B.7 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
• C.5 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
• D.4 - 384,000 bit per second connections.
 122. ISDN Primary Rate provided by Public Networks in
Europe, Asia, Latin America, and Australia use

• A.three Basic Rate Circuits.

• B.one T1 Interface.
• C.one E1 Interface.
• D.one T3 Interface.
 122. ISDN Primary Rate provided by Public Networks in
Europe, Asia, Latin America, and Australia use

• A.three Basic Rate Circuits.

• B.one T1 Interface.
• C.one E1 Interface.
• D.one T3 Interface.
123. Which of the following are two examples of Fiber Optic
interface problems? (Choose two of the
following options.)

• A.Splice loss and connection loss

• B.Noise
• C.Gravity
• D.Cable bends
• E.EMI - Electro Magnetic Interference
• F.RFI Radio Frequency Interference
124. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line Services is best
described as a network that provides

• A.a Constant Clocked Rate of bits per

second in both directions.
• B.a Half Duplex Network operation.
• C.equal bandwidth in both directions.
• D.unequal band width in both directions
124. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line Services is best
described as a network that provides

• A.a Constant Clocked Rate of bits per

second in both directions.
• B.a Half Duplex Network operation.
• C.equal bandwidth in both directions.
• D.unequal band width in both directions
125. When using Rob-Bit-Signaling or Channel Associated
Signaling and Pulse Stuffing Line coding, how many kilobits
are transmitted and received per second?

• A.32
• B.48
• C.56
• D.64
• E.128
• F.256
• G.512
125. When using Rob-Bit-Signaling or Channel Associated
Signaling and Pulse Stuffing Line coding, how many kilobits
are transmitted and received per second?

• A.32
• B.48
• C.56
• D.64
• E.128
• F.256
• G.512
 126. ISDN provides out-of-band signaling by introducing

• A.Digital Data splicing for signals.

• B.Data Channel for signals.
• C.Bearer Channel for signals.
• D.Supplementary Channel for signals.
 126. ISDN provides out-of-band signaling by introducing

• A.Digital Data splicing for signals.

• B.Data Channel for signals.
• C.Bearer Channel for signals.
• D.Supplementary Channel for signals.
 127. Ethernet can run at which of the following
speeds?

• A.10/100/1000 Million Blocks per second

• B.10/100/1000 Million Bytes per second
• C.10/100/1000 Million Bits per second
• D.10/100/1000 Million Packets per second
 127. Ethernet can run at which of the following
speeds?

• A.10/100/1000 Million Blocks per second

• B.10/100/1000 Million Bytes per second
• C.10/100/1000 Million Bits per second
• D.10/100/1000 Million Packets per second
128. Ethernet is capable of automatically sensing the speed
and duplicity of the LAN connection by using which
process?

• A.Flash Link Pulse

• B.Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
• C.Domain Name Services
• D.Light-weight Directory Access Protocol
• E.Resource Reservation Protocol
• F.RAS Protocol
128. Ethernet is capable of automatically sensing the speed
and duplicity of the LAN connection by using which
process?

• A.Flash Link Pulse

• B.Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
• C.Domain Name Services
• D.Light-weight Directory Access Protocol
• E.Resource Reservation Protocol
• F.RAS Protocol
 129. Ethernet has standardized cable configurations
documented in the TIA/EIA. Which of the following
specifications are Ethernet? (select two)

• A.RS-170
• B.RS-568a
• C.RS-530a
• D.RS-568b
• E.RS-530b
 129. Ethernet has standardized cable configurations
documented in the TIA/EIA. Which of the following
specifications are Ethernet? (select two)

• A.RS-170
• B.RS-568a
• C.RS-530a
• D.RS-568b
• E.RS-530b
 130. Session Initiated Protocol is used to replace what?

• A.Gateways
• B.Ethernet Routers
• C.Multipoint Conferencing (Control) Unit
• D.Analog Telephone Option
• E.Gatekeeper
 130. Session Initiated Protocol is used to replace what?

• A.Gateways
• B.Ethernet Routers
• C.Multipoint Conferencing (Control) Unit
• D.Analog Telephone Option
• E.Gatekeeper
 131. Session Initiated Protocol uses which command for
Call Setup?

• A.Registration Request packet

• B.Admission Request packet
• C.Invite packet
• D.IP Call Setup packets described in Q.931
• E.IP Call Setup packets described in Q.921
• F.None of the above
 131. Session Initiated Protocol uses which command for
Call Setup?

• A.Registration Request packet

• B.Admission Request packet
• C.Invite packet
• D.IP Call Setup packets described in Q.931
• E.IP Call Setup packets described in Q.921
• F.None of the above
 132. Which four digital interfaces are capable of operating
at rates up to 2 Million Bits per second?

• A.RS-232
• B.V.35
• C.V.25
• D.RS530
• E.X.21
• F.RS449
• G.X.25
• H.Q.931
 132. Which four digital interfaces are capable of operating
at rates up to 2 Million Bits per second?

• A.RS-232
• B.V.35
• C.V.25
• D.RS530
• E.X.21
• F.RS449
• G.X.25
• H.Q.931
 133. Data conferencing and control system interfaces are
Asynchronous and require which five settings?

• A. Steady ones Setting

• B. Start bits Setting
• C. Stop Bits Setting
• D. Parity Setting
• E. Bit Rate Setting
• F. Byte length Setting
• G. Flag Sync Setting
• H. Flow Control Setting
 133. Data conferencing and control system interfaces are
Asynchronous and require which five settings?

• A. Steady ones Setting

• B. Start bits Setting
• C. Stop Bits Setting
• D. Parity Setting
• E. Bit Rate Setting
• F. Byte length Setting
• G. Flag Sync Setting
• H. Flow Control Setting
 134. EIA/TIA RS-449/422 Digital Interface cable
specification describes cable length of up to _____ at
network speed of 384 kilobits per second.
• A.4000 yards
• B.250 feet
• C.150 feet
• D.1450 feet
• E.9000 feet
 134. EIA/TIA RS-449/422 Digital Interface cable
specification describes cable length of up to _____ at
network speed of 384 kilobits per second.
• A.4000 yards
• B.250 feet
• C.150 feet
• D.1450 feet
• E.9000 feet
135. Which of the following refers to Line coding used with
the 2-wire, U reference of a Basic Rate Interface?

• A.BRTZ-AMI
• B.HDB3
• C.2B1Q
135. Which of the following refers to Line coding used with
the 2-wire, U reference of a Basic Rate Interface?

• A.BRTZ-AMI
• B.HDB3
• C.2B1Q
 136. The Network Feature Protocol used to allow the sharing of a
Layer 3 IP to be used to originate IP sessions on the Private Network
and allow for one Layer 3 address with various Layer 4 address
connections on the Public Internet is called_______

• A.Network Gateway Translation.

• B.Network Address Translation.
• C.Port Address Translation.
• D.Fire Wall Translation.
• E.Bearer Services.
• F.Wire Services.
 136. The Network Feature Protocol used to allow the sharing of a
Layer 3 IP to be used to originate IP sessions on the Private Network
and allow for one Layer 3 address with various Layer 4 address
connections on the Public Internet is called_______

• A.Network Gateway Translation.

• B.Network Address Translation.
• C.Port Address Translation.
• D.Fire Wall Translation.
• E.Bearer Services.
• F.Wire Services.
 137. Network Address Translation
works in which OSI Layer?
• A.Layer 3
• B.Layer 4
• C.Layer 5
• D.None of the above
 137. Network Address Translation
works in which OSI Layer?
• A.Layer 3
• B.Layer 4
• C.Layer 5
• D.None of the above
 138. When Ordering ISDN for Video Conferencing H.320,
the most important request of information from the Network
Provider is
• A.length of the Copper Wire used for BRI or PRI medium
at customer premise.
• B.Switch Vendor Name.
• C.Switch Protocol being used.
• D.Switch Interoffice Facilities type
 138. When Ordering ISDN for Video Conferencing H.320,
the most important request of information from the Network
Provider is
• A.length of the Copper Wire used for BRI or PRI medium
at customer premise.
• B.Switch Vendor Name.
• C.Switch Protocol being used.
• D.Switch Interoffice Facilities type
139. Network Specific Facilities Identifier in the "Call Setup
Packet" allows for the selection of network_________

• A.speed.
• B.priority.
• C.carrier.
• D.dialed numbers.
139. Network Specific Facilities Identifier in the "Call Setup
Packet" allows for the selection of network_________

• A.speed.
• B.priority.
• C.carrier.
• D.dialed numbers.
 140. When configuring VTCs and MCUs to Statically configured IP
networks what three settings would
need to be provided for the system parameters?

• A.IP Address
• B.IP Network Speed in Packets per second
• C.IP Network Speed in Bytes per second
• D.IP Date and Time Clock
• E.IP Mask
• F.Default Gateway (Router)
• G.IP Network Provider Name
• H.Domain Name Settings
 140. When configuring VTCs and MCUs to Statically configured IP
networks what three settings would
need to be provided for the system parameters?

• A.IP Address
• B.IP Network Speed in Packets per second
• C.IP Network Speed in Bytes per second
• D.IP Date and Time Clock
• E.IP Mask
• F.Default Gateway (Router)
• G.IP Network Provider Name
• H.Domain Name Settings
 141. Gateway Calls for IP to ISDN will require the
_________settings for call setup.

• A.Gateway V.35 port and ISDN destination number

• B.Gateway Q.931 port and ISDN destination number
• C.Gateway Prefix-Bandwidth and ISDN destination
number
• D.Gateway RTP Address and ISDN destination number
• E.A and B.
• F.C and D
 141. Gateway Calls for IP to ISDN will require the
_________settings for call setup.

• A.Gateway V.35 port and ISDN destination number

• B.Gateway Q.931 port and ISDN destination number
• C.Gateway Prefix-Bandwidth and ISDN destination
number
• D.Gateway RTP Address and ISDN destination number
• E.A and B.
• F.C and D
142. Which three ISDN Switch Protocols are used by Public
network Providers in Europe, Latin America, and
Middle/Far East? (Select three of the following options.)
• A.NI-1
• B.5ESS
• C.DMS
• D.ETS300
• E.NET-3
• F.TS014 and TS013
142. Which three ISDN Switch Protocols are used by Public
network Providers in Europe, Latin America, and
Middle/Far East? (Select three of the following options.)
• A.NI-1
• B.5ESS
• C.DMS
• D.ETS300
• E.NET-3
• F.TS014 and TS013
 143. Full Duplex Ethernet Operation can be
achieved by using_____

• A.Single Fiber Optic Cable Network.

• B.Ethernet HUB.
• C.Ethernet Switches.
• D.Ethernet COAX Cable
 143. Full Duplex Ethernet Operation can be
achieved by using_____

• A.Single Fiber Optic Cable Network.

• B.Ethernet HUB.
• C.Ethernet Switches.
• D.Ethernet COAX Cable
 144. Two VTCs in a call running over the same Ethernet
Switch and are experiencing a video striping
display problem, which is impairing the video call quality.
What could cause the problem?
• A.Too much bandwidth is available
• B.Not enough bandwidth is available
• C.Both End Points are running Full Duplex
• D.Both End Points are running Half Duplex
• E.One End Point is Full Duplex and the
Other is Half Duplex
 144. Two VTCs in a call running over the same Ethernet
Switch and are experiencing a video striping
display problem, which is impairing the video call quality.
What could cause the problem?
• A.Too much bandwidth is available
• B.Not enough bandwidth is available
• C.Both End Points are running Full Duplex
• D.Both End Points are running Half Duplex
• E.One End Point is Full Duplex and the
Other is Half Duplex
 145. Which Network Alarm statuses are used to
monitor network facilities trunk services?

• A.RED & GREEN Alarms

• B.GREEN & YELLOW Alarms
• C.RED & YELLOW Alarms
• D.RED & ORANGE Alarms
 145. Which Network Alarm statuses are used to
monitor network facilities trunk services?

• A.RED & GREEN Alarms

• B.GREEN & YELLOW Alarms
• C.RED & YELLOW Alarms
• D.RED & ORANGE Alarms
 146. YELLOW Alarm at your location represents which
condition?

• A.The Network is having errors.

• B.The Network is up without errors.
• C.The other end is in a YELLOW Alarm
status.
• D.The other end is in a RED Alarm status.
• E.Your location is down and the other
location is up and running in both
directions without any problems.
 146. YELLOW Alarm at your location represents which
condition?

• A.The Network is having errors.

• B.The Network is up without errors.
• C.The other end is in a YELLOW Alarm
status.
• D.The other end is in a RED Alarm status.
• E.Your location is down and the other
location is up and running in both
directions without any problems.
 147. BERT testing is used for what purpose?

• A.Verifying the number of Video bit errors

• B.Verifying the number of the Network bit
errors
• C.Verifying the number of Audio bit errors
• D.None of the above
 147. BERT testing is used for what purpose?

• A.Verifying the number of Video bit errors

• B.Verifying the number of the Network bit
errors
• C.Verifying the number of Audio bit errors
• D.None of the above
 148. Which test equipment is used to verify ISDN
Q.931 messages?

• A.Bit Error Rate Test set

• B.Break out Box
• C.Distortion Analyzer
• D.Protocol Analyzer
 148. Which test equipment is used to verify ISDN
Q.931 messages?

• A.Bit Error Rate Test set

• B.Break out Box
• C.Distortion Analyzer
• D.Protocol Analyzer
149. LAN frame traffic can be examined at the bit
or byte level by using

• A.an Ethernet Packet Switching Multiplexer.

• B.an Ethernet Packet Multiplexer and Data
Compression Interface.
• C.a simple network management protocol.
• D.an Ethernet Packet Analyzer Application.
• E.an Ethernet Packet Transport Throughput
Measurement Testing Application
• F.an Oscilloscope.
149. LAN frame traffic can be examined at the bit
or byte level by using

• A.an Ethernet Packet Switching Multiplexer.

• B.an Ethernet Packet Multiplexer and Data
Compression Interface.
• C.a simple network management protocol.
• D.an Ethernet Packet Analyzer Application.
• E.an Ethernet Packet Transport Throughput
Measurement Testing Application
• F.an Oscilloscope.
 150. Videoconference rate of a H.323 IP Call
requires the packet examination of which of the
following?
• A.Medium Access Control Layer
• B.IP Header
• C.UDP Header
• D.TCP Layer
• E.Packet Payload
• F.Gatekeeper Registration Request
• G.RTP Header
 150. Videoconference rate of a H.323 IP Call
requires the packet examination of which of the
following?
• A.Medium Access Control Layer
• B.IP Header
• C.UDP Header
• D.TCP Layer
• E.Packet Payload
• F.Gatekeeper Registration Request
• G.RTP Header
151. 802.3 MAC format is used for which type of
network?

A.Point to Point Serial Modems

B.Asynchronous Transfer Mode
C.Token Ring
D.RS-530 and V.35
E.Ethernet
F.All of the above
151. 802.3 MAC format is used for which type of
network?

A.Point to Point Serial Modems

B.Asynchronous Transfer Mode
C.Token Ring
D.RS-530 and V.35
E.Ethernet
F.All of the above