Project Management

Professional

PMP/CAPM Certification Preparatory course,

in compliance with the PMBOK® Guide 4th Edition

Exam Questions
 Project Management Framework
 Q1. Four project managers are having lunch together and
discussing their projects. Most of the time they are just
complaining about how hard projects are to manage in their
company. Some complain about the stakeholders and the
number of changes they cause. Others talk about how hard
it is to get people to cooperate and perform. One project
manager wants to focus on the advantages of the matrix-
type organization they all work in for their projects. Which of
the following would he mention?

A. Improved project manager control over resources

B. More than one boss for project teams
C. Communications are easier
D. Reporting is easier
Answer
 Project Management Framework
 Q1. Answer A
Improved project manager control over resources

Explanation:
Remember that if the question doesn't state what it is comparing to,
it is comparing to a functional organization.

Next
 Project Management Framework
 Q 2. Two project managers have just realized that they are in a
weak matrix organization and that their power as project
managers is quite limited. One figures out that he is really a
project expediter and the other realizes he is really a project
coordinator. How is a project expediter different from a project
coordinator?
A. The project expediter cannot make decisions.
B. The project expediter can make more decisions.
C. The project expediter reports to a higher-level manager.
D. The project expediter has some authority.

Answer
 Project Management Framework
 Q 2. Answer A
.The project expediter cannot make decisions

Explanation:
The project coordinator reports to a higher-level manager and has
authority to make some decisions. The project expediter has no
authority to make decisions.

Next
 Project Management Framework
 Q 3. In a projectized organization, the project team:

A. Reports to many bosses.

B. Has no loyalty to the project.
C. Reports to the functional manager.
D. Will not always have a "home."

Answer
 Project Management Framework
 Q 3. Answer D

Explanation
The main drawback of the projectized organization is that at the
end of the project, the team is dispersed but they do not have a
functional department ('home") to which to return.

Next
 Project Management Framework
 Q4. A project manager is trying to complete a software
development project, but cannot get enough attention for
the project. Resources are focused on completing process-
related work and the project manager has little authority to
properly assign resources. What form of organization must
the project manager be working in?
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Expediter
D. Coordinator

Answer
 Project Management Framework
 Q 4. Answer A

Explanation:
In a functional organization, the project manager has the least
support for the project and has little authority to assign resources.
Choices C and D are roles in a weak matrix organization.

Next
 Project Management Framework
 Q5. A project manager has very little project experience, but he
has been assigned as the project manager of a new project.
Because he will be working in a matrix organization to
complete his project, he can expect communications to be:
A. Simple.
B. Open and accurate.
C. Complex.
D. Hard to automate.

Answer
 Project Management Framework
 Q 5. Answer C

Explanation:
Because a project done in a matrix organization involves people
from across the organization, communications are more complex.

Next: Project Management Processes

 Project Management Processes
 Q1. In which project management process group is the detailed
project budget created?

A. Initiating
B. Before the project management process
C. Planning
D. Executing

Answer
 Project Management Processes
 Q 1. Answer C

Explanation:
Notice the use of the word "detailed" Such a budget is created
during the planning process group.

Next
 Project Management Processes
 Q2. The project charter is created in which project management
process group?

A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Closing
D. Initiating

Answer
 Project Management Processes
 Q 2. Answer D

Explanation:
The project charter is needed before planning and execution of the
work can begin.

Next
 Project Management Processes
 Q3. The project team has just completed the initial project
schedule and budget. The NEXT thing to do is:

A. Identify risks.
B. Begin iterations.
C. Determine communications requirements.
D. Create a bar (Gantt) chart.

Answer
 Project Management Processes
 Q 3. Answer C

Explanation:
Communications requirements and quality standards are needed
before risks (especially risks relating to communications and
quality) can be determined (choice Al. Iterations (choice B) cannot
begin until the risks are identified, qualified, quantified, and
responses developed. These then create the need to revise the
WBS and other parts of the project management plan. A bar chart
(choice D) would have been done during the creation of the
schedule, so it cannot be the next thing. Of the choices listed,
determine communications requirements (choice C) is the best.

Next
 Project Management Processes
 Q4. A detailed project schedule can be created only after creating
the:

A. Project budget,
B. Work breakdown structure.
C. Project management plan.
D. Detailed risk assessment.

Answer
 Project Management Processes
 Q 4. Answer B

Explanation:
In the project management process, the project budget (choice A),
project management plan (choice C), and detailed risk assessment
(choice D) come after the schedule. The only answer that could be
an input is the WBS.

Next
 Project Management Processes
 Q5. The person who should be in control of the project during
project planning is the:

A. Project manager.
B. Team member.
C. Functional manager.
D. Sponsor.

Answer
 Project Management Processes
 Q 5. Answer A

Explanation:
The project manager should be named early in the project, during
project initiating if possible.

Next: Integration Management

 Integration Management
 Q1. Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on:

A. The personal careers of the team members.

B. Timely updates to the project management plan.
C. Effective communications at key interface points.
D. Product control.

Answer
 Integration Management
 Q1. Answer C
Explanation:
This question is asking for the most important of the choices. Think
about what is involved in integration: project management plan
development, project management plan execution, and integrated
change control. In order to integrate the project components into a
cohesive whole, communication is key when one activity will
interface with another, one team member will interface with
another, and any other form of interfacing will occur. Choices B and
D are parts of the monitoring and controlling process group, while
integration includes more than control. Choice A falls under project
management plan execution.

Next
 Integration Management
 Q 2. The need for is one of the major driving forces for
communication in a project.

A. Optimization
B. Integrity
C. Integration
D. Differentiation
.

Answer
 Integration Management
 Q2. Answer C

Explanation:
The project manager is an integrator. This is a question about your
role as an integrator and communicator.

Next
 Integration Management
 Q 3. Which of the Following describes the BEST use of historical
records from previous projects:

A. Estimating, life cycle costing, and project planning

B. Risk management. estimating, and creating lessons
learned
C. Project planning, estimating, and creating a status report
D. Estimating, risk management, and project planning
.

Answer
 Integration Management
 Q 3. Answer D

Explanation:
Historical records are not generally used for life cycle costing
(choice A), lessons learned (choice B), or creating status reports
(choice C).

Next
 Integration Management
 Q 4. When it comes to changes. the project manager's attention is
BEST given to:

A. Making changes.
B. Tracking and recording changes.
C. Informing the sponsor of changes.
D. Preventing unnecessary changes..

Answer
 Integration Management
 Q 4. Answer D

Explanation:
Project managers should be proactive. The only proactive answer
here is preventing unnecessary changes.

Next
 Integration Management
 Q 5 All of the following are parts of an effective change
management plan EXCEPT:

A. Procedures
B. Standards for reports
C. Meetings
D. Lessons learned
.

Answer
 Integration Management
 Q5. Answer D

Explanation:
A change management plan includes the processes and
procedures that allow smooth evaluation and tracking of
changes. Lessons learned (choice D) are reviews of the
processes and procedures to improve them; they are not part of
the system.

Next: Scope Management

 Scope Management
 Q 1 A work breakdown structure numbering system allows the
project staff to:

A. Systematically estimate costs of work breakdown

structure elements.
B. Provide project justification.
C. Identify the level at which individual elements are found.
D. Use it in project management software.

Answer
 Scope Management
 Q1. Answer C

Explanation :
The numbering system allows you to quickly identify the level in the
work breakdown structure where the specific element is found. It
also helps to locate the element in the WBS dictionary.

Next
 Scope Management
 Q 2 The work breakdown structure can BEST be thought of as an
effective aid for ________ communications.

A. Team
B. Project manager
C. Customer
D. Stakeholder

Answer
 Scope Management
 Q2. Answer D

Explanation:
The term stakeholder encompasses all the other choices. In this
case, it is the best answer since the WBS can be used (but does
not need to be used) as a communications tool for all
stakeholders to "see" what is included in the project.

Next
 Scope Management
 Q 3 Which of the following is a KEY output of the Verify Scope
process?

A. A more complete scope management plan

B. Customer acceptance of project deliverables
C. Improved schedule estimates
D. An improved project management information system

Answer
 Scope Management
 Q3. Answer B

Explanation:
The output of the Verify Scope process is customer acceptance of
project deliverables. The other choices all happen during project
planning, well before the time that the Verify Scope process
takes place.

Next
 Scope Management
 Q 4 During project executing, a team member comes to the project
manager because he is not sure of what work he needs to
accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents
contain detailed descriptions of work packages?

A. WBS dictionary
B. Activity list
C. Project scope statement
D. Scope management plan

Answer
 Scope Management
 Q4. Answer A

Explanation:
Activity lists (choice B) may list the work package they relate to,
but they do not contain detailed descriptions of the work
packages. The project scope statement (choice C) defines the
project scope, but it does not describe the work a team member
is assigned. The scope management plan (choice D) describes
how scope will be planned, managed, and conlroued.lt does not
include a description of each work package. The WBS dictionary
defines each element in the WBS. Therefore, descriptions of the
work packages are in the WBS dictionary.
.
Next
 Scope Management
 Q 5 During what part of the project management process is the
project scope statement created?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling

Answer
 Scope Management
 Q5. Answer B

Explanation:
The project scope statement is an output of the Define Scope
process, which occurs during project planning.

Next: Time Management

 Time Management
 Q 1 To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the
project to predict project duration. She does this by analyzing the
sequence of activities with the least amount of scheduling
flexibility. What technique is she using?

A. Critical path method

B. Flowchart
C. Precedence diagramming
D. Work breakdown structure

Answer
 Time Management
 Q1. Answer A

Explanation:
There are only two choices related to scheduling: A and C. Choice
C, however, is a diagramming technique that deals with the
relationship between activities, not schedule flexibility.

Next
 Time Management
 Q 2 A dependency requiring that design be completed before
manufacturing can start is an example of a:

A. Discretionary dependency.
B. External dependency.
C. Mandatory dependency.
D. Scope dependency.

Answer
 Time Management
 Q2. Answer C

Explanation:
Since the dependency is required, it could not be discretionary
(choice A) and therefore must be mandatory. No mention is
made that the dependency comes from a source outside the
project, so external (choice B) is not correct. Scope dependency
(choice D) is not a defined term. The key word in this question is
"requires" The question defines a mandatory dependency.

Next
 Time Management
 Q 3 Which of the following are GENERALLY illustrated BETTER
by bar charts than network diagrams?

A. Logical relationships
B. Critical paths
C. Resource trade-offs
D. Progress or status

Answer
 Time Management
 Q3. Answer D

Explanation:
The bar chart (or Gantt chart) is designed to show a relationship to
time. This is best used when demonstrating progress or status
as a factor of time.

Next
 Time Management
 Q 4 If the optimistic estimate for an activity is 12 days, and the
pessimistic estimate is 18 days, what is the standard deviation of
this activity?

A. 1
B. 1.3
C. 6
D. 3

Answer
 Time Management
  Q 4 Answer A

Explanation:
The standard deviation is computed by (P - O)/6. Therefore, the
answer is (18-12)/6=6/6=1.

Next
 Time Management
Q 5   A heuristic is BEST described as a:

A. Control tool.
B. Scheduling method.
C. Planning tool.
D. Rule of thumb.

Answer
 Time Management
Q5 Answer D

Explanation:
A heuristic is a rule of thumb. Examples are cost per line of
code, cost per square foot of Door space, etc.

Next: Cost Management

 Cost Management
Q 1   One common way to compute estimate at completion (EAC}
is to take the budget at completion (BAC) and:

A. Divide by SPI
B. Multiply by SPI
C. Multiply by CPI
D. Divide by CPI

Answer
 Cost Management

Q 1   Answer D

Explanation:
This question is asking for the formula for EAC, which is
BAC/CPI. Notice how you will have to remember the formula to
get the answer correct.

Next
 Cost Management
Q 2   Estimate at completion (EAC) is a periodic evaluation of:

A.The cost of work completed.

B.The value of work performed.
C.The anticipated total cost at project completion.
D.What it will cost to finish the job.

Answer
 Cost Management
Q 2   Answer C

Explanation:
When you look at earned value, many of the terms have similar
definitions. This could get you into trouble. Since the EAC means
the estimate at completion, choice C is the best answer. Choice D
is the definition of ETC, estimate to complete.

Next
 Cost Management

Q 3 If earned value (EV) = 350, actual cost (AC) = 400, planned

value (PV) = 325, what is cost variance (CV)?

A. 350
B. -75
C. 400
D. -50

Answer
 Cost Management

Q 3 Answer D

Explanation:
CV = EV - AC

Next
 Cost Management
Q 4 Analogous estimating:

A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques.

B. Is used most frequently during the executing processes
of the project
C. Uses top-down estimating techniques.
D. Uses actual detailed historical costs.

Answer
 Cost Management
Q 4 Answer C

: Explanation
Analogous estimating is used most frequently during the
planning processes, not the executing processes (choice
B). You do not need to use historical costs (choice D) for an
analogous estimate. Therefore, choice C is the correct
.answer

Next
 Cost Management
Q 5 All of the following are outputs of the Estimate Costs process
EXCEPT:

A. An understanding of the cost risk in the work that has been

estimated,
B. The prevention of inappropriate changes from being included in
the cost baseline.
C. An indication of the range of possible costs for the project.
D. Documentation of any assumptions made during the Estimate
Costs process.

Answer
 Cost Management
Q 5 Answer B

:Explanation
This question is asking, ·When you finish estimating costs,
what do you have?" Many people who do not realize that
estimates should be in a range pick choice C. Choice B is
more correctly part of the cost management plan and the
.change control system

Next: Quality Management

 Quality Management
Q 1 When a product or service completely meets a customer's
requirements:

A. Quality is achieved.
B. The cost of quality is high.
C. The cost of quality is low.
D. The customer pays the minimum price.

Answer
 Quality Management

Q 1 Answer A

:Explanation
As a general rule, one cannot say that quality (as defined in the
question) is either of high or low cost (choices B and C) or that it
provides the minimum price (choice D). It does give the customer
what the customer wanted, which may not be the lowest or
.highest cost, Therefore, the best answer is A

Next
 Quality Management
Q 2 To what does the following sentence refer? "The point where the
benefits or revenue to be received from improving quality equals the
incremental cost to achieve that quality."

A. Quality control analysis

B. Marginal analysis
C. Standard quality analysis
D. Conformance analysis

Answer
 Quality Management

Q 2 Answer B

:Explanation
Know the term so you will be able to answer questions that
deal with this concept, Choices A, C. and D may sound
.good, but they are made-up terms

Next
 Quality Management
Q3 Who is ultimately responsible for quality management on the
project?

A. The project engineer

B. The project manager
C. The quality manager
D. The team member

Answer
 Quality Management

Q 3 Answer B

:Explanation
Although each person working on the project should check their own
work as part of any project, the project manager ultimately has the
.responsibility for quality on the project as a whole

Next
 Quality Management
Q4 From the project perspective, quality attributes:

A. Determine how effectively the performing organization

supports the project
B. Provide the basis for judging the project’s success or failure.
C. Are specific characteristics for which a product is designed
and tested.
D. Are objective criteria that must be met.

Answer
 Quality Management

Q 4 Answer C

Explanation:
Quality attributes are the measurements that determine if the
product is acceptable. They are based on the characteristics of the
product for which they were designed.

Next
 Quality Management
Q5 Quality is:

A. Meeting and exceeding the customer's expectations.

B. Adding extras to make the customer happy.
C. The degree to which the project meets requirements.
D. Conformance to management's objectives.

Answer
 Quality Management

Q 5 Answer C

: Explanation
Chokes A and B cannot be the best, because there can be a cost
impact (or time, risk, etc.) of exceeding expectations or adding extras.
.Since a project should meet requirements, choice C is best

Next; Human Resource

Management
 Human Resource Management

Q1 All of the following are forms of power derived from the project
manager's position EXCEPT:

A. Formal.
B. Reward.
C. Penalty.
D. Expert.

Answer
 Human Resource Management

Q 1 Answer D

:Explanation
When someone is given the job of project manager, they will have
formal, reward, and penalty power. But just having the position
does not make the project manager either a technical or project
.management expert

Next
 Human Resource Management

Q2 The highest point of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is called:

A. Physiological satisfaction.
B. Attainment of survival.
C. Need for association.
D. Esteem.

Answer
 Human Resource Management

Q 2 Answer D

:Explanation
This question is asking which of the FOLLOWING is the highest.
.Self-actualization is not listed, so the next best choice is esteem

Next
 Human Resource Management

Q3 The halo effect refers to the tendency to:

A. Promote from within.

B. Hire the best.
C. Move people into project management because they are
good in their technical fields.
D. Move people into project management because they have
had project management training.

Answer
 Human Resource Management

Q3 Answer C

:Explanation
Just because a person is good in his technical field does not
mean he or she will also be a good project manager

Next
 Human Resource Management

Q4 The sponsor's role on a project is BEST described as:

A. Helping to plan activities.

B. Helping to prevent unnecessary changes to project
objectives.
C. Identifying unnecessary project constraints.
D. Helping to put the project management plan together.

Answer
 Human Resource Management

Q4 Answer B

Explanation Though the sponsor may help plan some of the

activities (choice A) it is not the sponsor's exclusive duty. Some
project constraints (choice C) come from the sponsor, but they
should be considered necessary. The project management plan
(choice D) is created by the team and approved by the sponsor
and other management. Since the project objectives are stated
in the project charter and it is the sponsor who issues the
project charter. Choice B is the correct answer.

Next
 Human Resource Management

Q5 Which of the following conflict resolution techniques will

generate the MOST lasting solution?

A. Forcing
B. Smoothing
C. Compromise
D. Problem solving

Answer
 Human Resource Management

Q5 Answer D

:Explanation
Problem solving normally takes more time, but it gets buy-in
,from everyone, generating a more lasting solution