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General Paper-1
TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE
2006 to 2017 [Solved]
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2018
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Sure Success Series
CBSE UGC NET / JRF / SET

TEACHING
&
RESEARCH APTITUDE
(GENERAL PAPER 1)
FOR
Junior Research Fellowship and Lectureship
By and
RAGHU R. ALLA ANUSHA K.
M.B.A., M.F.A., D.B.M. M.C.A.
Volume : #1
Edition : 2018
QuickNET
2017-2018
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PREFACE
It gives us immense pleasure to have reached this milestone
and be able to present a new MCQ Book on UGC NET -
Teaching and Research Aptitude (Paper 1). Our only reason
for writing this book is to fulfil the unmet need of the
aspiring students and faculties, who still looks for a book
with precise text with extensive coverage of quality question
bank to practice with solutions and explanations.
A student who goes through by exercising all the objective

questions by topic can easily crack this esteem exam. The
emphasis in this book is on making it more a practice book.
For this reason this book contains 6000+ MCQs by topic in-
addition to last 11D years question papers with solutions.
This book is made for Part I of UGC NET Exam. Paper 1

constituted of 10 chapters. Each chapter covers adequate
number of practice questions by topic. The book in the
present form shall serve as a complete revision tool prior to
the examinations.
We sincerely believe that students should acquire balanced

knowledge of theory as well as practice of the subject in
order to increase the chances of passing the exam.
We do believe the book will work like a tonic for all the
aspirants who are making their career in Teaching Industry.
Raghu R. Alla
Table of Contents
PAPER -1 Syll abus ................................................................................. iii
Pr evious Year Question Papers ..................................................................0
CBSE UGC NET - JANUARY 2017 ..................................................................................... 1
CBSE UGC NET - JULY 2016 .......................................................................................... 18
CBSE UGC NET - DECEMBER 2015................................................................................. 35
CBSE UGC NET - JUNE 2015.......................................................................................... 45
CBSE UGC NET - DECEMBER 2014................................................................................. 55
UGC NET JUNE 2014 ................................................................................................. 64
UGC NET DECEMBER 2013 ........................................................................................ 73
UGC NET JUNE 2013 ................................................................................................. 82
UGC NET DECEMBER 2012 ........................................................................................ 91
UGC NET JUNE 2012 ............................................................................................... 105
UGC NET DECEMBER 2011 ...................................................................................... 117
UGC NET JUNE 2011 ............................................................................................... 129
UGC NET DECEMBER 2010 ...................................................................................... 141
UGC NET JUNE 2010 ............................................................................................... 153
UGC NET DECEMBER 2009 ...................................................................................... 169
UGC NET JUNE 2009 ............................................................................................... 184
UGC NET DECEMBER 2008 ...................................................................................... 197
UGC NET JUNE 2008 ............................................................................................... 211
UGC NET DECEMBER 2007 ...................................................................................... 223
UGC NET JUNE 2007 ............................................................................................... 235
UGC NET DECEMBER 2006 ...................................................................................... 246
UGC NET JUNE 2006 ............................................................................................... 260
UNIT 1 Teaching Aptitude .................................................................. 273
Ability of Adaptability:............................................................................................... 274
Attitude Towards Children:........................................................................................ 289
Interest In Profession: ............................................................................................... 302
Professional Information: .......................................................................................... 320
Teaching Aptitude:.................................................................................................... 332
UNIT 2 Research Aptitude .................................................................. 463
Methods of Research: ............................................................................................... 464
Paper, Article, Workshop, Seminar, Conference and Symposium: ................................ 474
Academic Research:.................................................................................................. 484
Research Ethics:........................................................................................................ 493
Steps of Research:..................................................................................................... 497
Thesis Writing: Its Characteristics and Format:............................................................ 506
Research Aptitude:.................................................................................................... 513
UGC NET Teaching & Research Aptitude
UNIT 3 Communication...................................................................... 601

Communication Part I:............................................................................................... 602
Communication Part II:.............................................................................................. 614
UNIT 4 Reasoning.............................................................................. 683
Alphabet Series:........................................................................................................ 684
Best Reason Test:...................................................................................................... 715
Mathematical Ability Test:......................................................................................... 720
Number Series:......................................................................................................... 732
Numerical Reasoning:................................................................................................ 791
Problems based on Alphabet: .................................................................................... 795
Reasoning:................................................................................................................ 808
UNIT 5 Logical Reasoning................................................................... 818
Analogy Test:............................................................................................................ 819
Blood Relation: ......................................................................................................... 880
Coding and Decoding Test: ........................................................................................ 902
Direction Sense Test:................................................................................................. 940
Logical Reasoning:..................................................................................................... 967
Arranging according to size or age:............................................................................. 980
Spotting Out the Dissimilar:....................................................................................... 984
Time Sequence Tests:...............................................................................................1020
UNIT 6 Data Interpretation............................................................... 1031
Situation Reaction Test:............................................................................................1032
Statement & Argument: ...........................................................................................1047
Statement & Assumption:.........................................................................................1101
Statement & Conclusion: ..........................................................................................1107
Statement & Inference:............................................................................................1170
Verification of the Truth of the Statement:................................................................1174
UNIT 7 ICT ..................................................................................... 1182
Information and Communication Technology Part I:...................................................1183
Information and Communication Technology Part II:..................................................1257
UNIT 8 Peopl e And Environment....................................................... 1271
People and environment Part I: ................................................................................1272
People and environment Part II:................................................................................1344
Uni t 9 Higher Education System ....................................................... 1360
Governance, Polity And Administration:....................................................................1361
Higher Education System Part I: ................................................................................1382
Higher Education System Part II: ...............................................................................1513
ii
Page
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PAPER -1 Syllabus
SUBJECT: GENERAL PAPER ON TEACHING

AND RESEARCH APTITUDE
The main objective is to assess the teaching and research

capabilities of the candidates. Therefore, the UGC NET Test is aimed
at assessing the teaching and general / research aptitude as well as
their awareness. They are expected to possess and exhibit cognitive
abilities. Cognitive abilities include comprehension, analysis,
evaluation, understanding the structure of arguments and deductive
and inductive reasoning. The candidates are also expected to have a
general awareness and knowledge of sources of information. They
should be aware of interaction between people, environment and
nature resources and their impact on quality of life. The details are
given in the following sections:
NOTE:
i. Each section of the syllabus will get equal weight age: five
questions and 10 mark each section.
ii. Whenever pictorial questions are set for the sighted candidates
a passage followed by equal number of questions should be set
for the visually handicapped candidates.
iii
Page

Syllabus
I. Teaching Aptitude
Teaching: Nature, objectives, characteristics and basic requirements;
Learners characteristics;
Factors affecting teaching;

Methods of teaching;
Teaching aids;
Evaluation systems.
II. Research Aptitude

Research: Meaning, characteristics and types;
Steps of research;
Methods of research;
Research Ethics;
Paper, article, workshop, seminar, conference and symposium;

Thesis writing: its characteristics and format.
III. Reading Comprehension

A passage to be set with questions to be answered.
IV. Communication
Communication: Nature, characteristics, types, barriers and effective
classroom communication.
V. Reasoning (Including Mathematical)

Number series;
letter series;
codes;
Relationships;
Classification.
iv
Page

VI. Logical Reasoning

Understanding the structure of arguments;
Evaluating and distinguishing deductive and inductive reasoning;
Verbal analogies: Word analogy Applied analogy;

Verbal classification.
Reasoning Logical Diagrams: Simple diagrammatic relationship, multi-
diagrammatic relationship;
Venn diagram; Analytical Reasoning.
VII. Data Interpretation

Sources, acquisition and interpretation of data.
Quantitative and qualitative data;
Graphical representation and mapping of data.
VIII. Information and Communicating Technology (ICT)

ICT: meaning, advantages, disadvantages and uses;
General abbreviations and terminology;
Basics of internet and e-mailing.
IX. People and Environment

People and environment interaction;
Sources of pollution;
Pollutants and their impact on human life, exploitation of natural and
energy res ources;
Natural hazards and mitigation.
X. Higher Education System:

Governance Polity And Administration;
Structure of the institutions for higher learning and research in India;

formal and distance education;
Professional/technical and general education; value education:
v
governance, polity and administration; concept, institutions and their

Page
interactions.

Previous Year
Question Papers
&
Answer Keys
CBSE UGC NET - JANUARY 2017

Teaching and Research Aptitude
Questions and Answers
Q1) The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and
students with a view to explore the possibility of their enhanced participation in
school programmers. This endeavour may be related to which type of research?
1. Evaluation Research
2. Fundamental Research
3. Action Research
4. Applied Research
Answer: 3
Q2) In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps?
1. Reflect, observe, plan, act
2. Plan, act, observe, reflect
3. Plan, reflect, observe, act
4. Act, observe, plan, reflect

Answer: 2
Q3) Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below?
1. Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design,
Hypothesis making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and
conclusions.
2. Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem
formulation, Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
3. Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research
design, Collection of a Data; Data analysis and formulation of
generalizations and conclusions.
4. Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools
Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research
evidence
Answer: 3
1
Page

Q4) Below are given two seat research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools
(Set-II). Match the two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the correct
code:
Set-I Set-II
A Experimental method i Using primary secondary sources
B Ex post-facto method ii Questionnaire
C Descriptive survey method iii Standardized tests
D Historical method iv Typical characteristics tests
Codes:
A B C D
1. ii i iii iv
2. iii iv ii i
3. ii iii i iv
4. ii iv iii i
Answer: 2
Q5) The issue of Research ethics may be considered pertinent at which stage of
research?
1. At the stage of problem formulation and its definition
2. At the stage of defining the population of research

3. At the stage of data collection and interpretation
4. At the stage of reporting the findings.
Answer: 3
Q6) In which of the following, reporting format is formally prescribed?
1. Doctoral level thesis

2. Conference of researchers
3. Workshops and seminars
4. Symposia
Answer: 1
2
Page

Passage:
The last Great War, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world
had little impact on Indian Literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsions
against violence and adding to growing disillusionment with the humane
pretensions of the Western World. This was eloquently voiced in Tagores poems
and his last testament, Crisis in Civilization. The Indian intelligentsia was in a
state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help but sympathize with
the Englands dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the Russians fighting
with their backs on the wall against ruthless N azi hordes, and with the China
groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand their own
country was practically under the military occupation of their own soil and the
Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the opposite camp to liberate
their country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of loyalties.
One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which
came in the wake of the Allies victory and was followed by collapse of
colonialism in the neighbouring countries of South East Asia, would have
released an upsurge of the creative energy. No doubt it did, but it was soon
submerged in the great agony of partition with the inhuman slaughter of
innocents and the uprooting of the millions of the people from their homeland
followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies along with
Pakistans Invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed
provoke a pregnant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most
affected Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. Both poignant or
passionate writing does not by itself make great literature. What reserves of
enthusiasm and confidence served these disasters have been mainly absorbed
in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great
literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. I ndian literature is
richer today in terms of volume, range and variety than it ever was in past.
Q7) What was the impact of the last great war on Indian literature?
1. It had no impact
2. It aggravated popular revulsion against violence
3. It shook the foundations of literature
4. It offered eloquent support to the Western World
Answer: 2
Q8) What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?
1. Offered support to Subhas Bose
2. Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World
3. Expressed loyalty to England
4. Encouraged the liberation of countries

3
Answer: 2
Page

Q9) What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?
1. Indifference to Russias plight
2. They favoured Japanese militarism
3. They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties

4. They expressed sympathy for Englands dogged courage.
Answer: 4
Q10) Identify the factor responsible for the submergence creative energy in I ndia
literature.
1. Military occupation of ones own soil

2. Resistance to colonial occupation
3. Great agony of partition
4. Victory of Allies
Answer: 3
Q11) What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and
Bangladesh?
1. Suspicion of other countries
2. Continuance of rivalry
3. Menace of war
4. National reconstruction
Answer: 4
Q12) The passage has the message that
1. Disasters are inevitable
2. Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions
3. Indian literature does not have a marked landscape

4. Literature has no relation with war and independence.
Answer: 2
Q13) Effective communication pre-supposes
1. Non-alignment
2. Domination
3. Passivity
4. Understanding
4
Page
Answer: 4

Q14) When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is that most
people believe in
1. Indeterminate messages
2. Verbal messages
3. Non-verbal messages
4. Aggressive messages
Answer: 3
Q15) The typical feature of information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of
being
1. Sedentary
2. Staggered
3. Factual
4. Sectoral
Answer: 3
Q16) Expressive communication is driven by
1. Passive aggression
2. Encoders personality characteristics
3. External clues
4. Encoder-decoder contract
Answer: 2
Q17) Positive classroom communication leads to
1. Coercion
2. Submission
3. Confrontation
4. Persuasion
Answer: 4
Q18) Classroom communication is the basis of
1. Social identity
2. External inanities
3. Biased passivity
4. Group aggression
5
Page
Answer: 1

Q19) The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 243,... is
1. 30
2. 49
3. 125
4. 81
Answer: 3
Q20) The next term in the following series
YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, _?_ will be
1. TLO
2. QOL
3. QLO
4. GQP
Answer: 2
Q21) If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as O, I as A, P as N, E as M, O as E,
and C as S, then the code of COMPANIES will be
1. SPEINMOAC
2. NCPSEIOMA
3. SMOPIEACN
4. SEINCPAMO
Answer: 4
Q22) Among the following, identify the continuous type of data:
1. Number of languages a person speaks
2. Number of children in a household
3. Population of cities
4. Weight of students in a class
Answer: 4
Q23) Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays rs 21 to to the
shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays rs 28 to
the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two glass, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays rs
35 to the shopkeeper. the cost of 10 cups will be
1. 40 2. 60
3. 80 4. 70
6
Page
Answer: 4

Q24) Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the
fourth one is different. Identify the odd one
1. Lucknow
2. Rishikesh
3. Allahabad
4. Patna
Answer: 1
Q25) Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that
states a characteristic which is not a deductive reasoning
1. The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment
2. The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises
3. The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily
4. The argument may be valid or invalid
Answer: 1
Q26) If two standard form cate gorical propositions with the same subject and
predicate are related in such a manner that is one is undermined the other
must be undetermined, what is their relation?
1. Contrary
2. Subcontrary
3. Contradictory
4. Sub-altern
Answer: 3
Q27) Men and women may have different reproductive strategies but neither can
be considered inferior or superior to the other. any more than a bird's winds can
be considered superior or inferior to a fish's fins. Select the code that states
those two propositions
1. Biological
2. Physiological
3. Analogical
4. Hypothetical
Answer: 3
7
Page

Q28) Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they
cannot both be true but can be false. Select the code states those two
propositions
Propositions:
(a) Every student is attentive
(b) Some students are attentive
(c) Students are never attentive
(d) Some students are not attentive
Codes:
1. (a) and (b)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (b) and (c)
4. (c) and (d)
Answer: 2
Q29) Given below are two premised (a) and (b). from those two premises four
conclusions i, ii, iii, iv are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions
validly drawn from the premises (taking singly or jointly)
Premises:
(a) Untouchability is a curse
(b) All hot pans are untouchable
Conclusions:
(i) All hot pans are curse
(ii) some untouchable things as hot pans
(iii) All courses are untouchability

(iv) Some courses are untouchability
Codes:
1. (i) and (ii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. (iii) and (iv)

4. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: 4
8
Page

Q30) If the statement 'None but the brave wins the race' is false, which of the
following statements can be claimed to be true?
1. All brave persons win the race
2. Some persons who win the race are not brave

3. Some persons who win the race are brave
4. No person who wins the race is brave
Answer: 2
The table below embodies data on the sales revenue (rs in lakh) generated by a
publishing house during the years 2012-15 while selling books, magazines and
journals as three categories of items. Answer questions 31-33 based in the data
contained in the table
Items 2012 2013 2014 2015

Journals 46 47 45 44
Magazines31 39 46 51
Books 73 77 78 78
Total
Q31) In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue come from books?
1. 45% 2. 55%
3. 35% 4. 25%
Answer: 1
Q32) The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at
least two categories of items, is
1. 0 2. 1
3. 2 4. 3
Answer: 3
Q33) If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales
revenue as the year 2015 over the year 2014, then the revenue in the year 2016
must be approximately:
1. rs 194 lakh
2. rs 187 lakh
3. rs 172 lakh
4. rs 177 lakh
Answer: 4
9
Page

A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by

performance and gender of the students. The data is kept on a computer had
disk, but accidentally some of it lost because of a computer virus. Only the
following could be recovered:
Gender Average Good ExcellentTotal
Male 10
Female 32
Total 30
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed,
which decided that the following facts were self evident:
(a) Half the students were either excellent or good.
(b) 40% of the students were females
(c) One-third of the male students were average
Answer questions 34-36 based on the data given above
Q34) How many female students are excellent?
1. 0
2. 8
3. 16
4. 32
Answer: 1
Q35) What proportion of female students are good?

1. 0
2. 0.25
3. 0.50
4. 0.75
Answer: 2
Q36) Approximately, what proportion of good students are male?
1. 0
2. 0.73
3. 0.43
4. 0.27
10
Answer: 2
Page

Q37) Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

S1: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11
S2: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal
value as 0.625
1. S1 Only
2. S2 Only
3. Both S1 and S2
4. Neither S1 nor S2
Answer: 2
Q38) Read the following two statements:
I: Information and communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset
of Information Technology(I T)
II: The 'right to use' a piece of software is termed as copyright
Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

1. Both I and II
2. Neither I nor II
3. II Only
4. I Only
Answer: 2
Q39) Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest
to lowest speed?
i) Secondary Storage
ii) Main Memory (RAM)
iii) Cache Memory
iv) CPU Registers
Code:
1. i, ii, iii, iv
2. iv, iii, i, ii
3. iv, iii, ii, i

4. iii, iv, ii, i
Answer: 3
11
Page

Q40) Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.0 applications?

1. Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.
2. We b2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate
and share information online.
3. We b2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating
users to create it.
4. We b2.0 applications use only static pages.
Answer: 2
Q41) With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static
information in a publication together with variable information in a data source
to create one merged publication is called
1. Electronic mail
2. Data sourcing
3. Mail merge
4. Spam mail
Answer: 3
Q42). DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data DVD is an
acronym for
1. Digital Vector Disc
2. Digital Volume Disc
3. Digital Versatile Disc
4. Digital Visualization Disc
Answer: 3
Q43) Assertion (A): Sustainable development critical to well being of human

society.
Reason (R): Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or
deplete the natural resources.
Choose the correct code:
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true and (R) is true
4. (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer: 2
12
Page

Q44) The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NOx) in urban
areas is
1. Road transport
2. Commercial Sector
3. Energy use in industry
4. Power plants
Answer: 1
Q45) Which of the following is not a water-borne disease?
1. Typhoid
2. Hepatitis
3. Cholera
4. Dengue
Answer: 4
Q46) India governments target for power production from small hydro projects
by the year 2022 is
1. 1 Giga-Watt
2. 5 Giga-Watt
3. 10 Giga-Watt
4. 15 Giga-Watt
Answer: 2
Q47) In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out
Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?
1. Rwanda 2. Morocco
3. South Africa 4. Algeria

Answer: 1
Q48) Which of the following natural hazards is not hydro-meteorological?
1. Snow avalanche
2. Sea erosion
3. Tropical cyclone
4. Tsunami
Answer: 4
13
Page

Q49) Which of the following are the demerits of globalization of higher

education?
(a) Exposure to global curriculum
(b) Promotion of elitism in education
(c) Commodification of higher education
(d) Increase in the cost of education
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
1. (a) and (d)

2. (a), (c) and (d)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 3
Q50) Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?
(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.
(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.
(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.
(d) They can grant degrees.

Code:
1. (A), (B) and (C)
2. (B), (C) and (D)
3. (A), (C) and (D)
4. (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Answer: 2
Q51) The purpose of value education is best served by focusing on
1. Cultural practices prevailing in the society.
2. Norms of conduct laid down by a social group
3. Concern for human values

4. Religious and moral practices and instructions.
14
Answer: 3
Page

Q52) Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during
national emergency.
(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of
the states they represent.
(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Code:
1. (a) and (d)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 2
Q53) Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of
the proclamation of the Presidents Rule in a State?
(a) Dissolution of the State of Ministers in the State
(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.
(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government

(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary
Codes:
1. (a) and (d)
2. (a), (b) and (c)

3. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
4. (b) and (c)
Answer: 1
Q54) Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who
among the following hold (s) office during good behaviour?
(a) Governor of a state
(b) Attorney General of India
15
(c) Judges of the High Court

Page
(d) Administrator of a Union Territory


Codes:
1. (a) only
2. (c) Only
3. (a) and (c)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 2
Q55) Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions
in respect of teaching-learning relationships? Choose the correct code to
indicate your answer.
(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.
(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.
(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place
(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.

(v) A teacher teaches but learns also
(vi) Real learning implies rote learning
Codes:
1. (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
2. (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

3. (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
4. (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)
Answer: 2
Q56) Assertion (A): Learning is a lifelong process.
Reason (R): Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.
Choose the correct answer from the following code:
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 1
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Q57) Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of

1. Course coverage
2. Students interest
3. Learning outcomes of students

4. Use of teaching aids in the classroom
Answer: 3
Q58) In which teaching method learners participation is made optimal and
proactive?
1. Discussion method
2. Buzz s ession method
3. Brainstorming session method
4. Project method
Answer: 4
Q59) One of the most powerful factors affection teaching effectiveness is related
to the
1. Social system of the country
2. Economic status of the society
3. Prevailing political system
4. Educational system
Answer: 4
Q60) Assertion (A): Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of
learning.
Reason (R): As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly
reliable.
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 3
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CBSE UGC NET - JULY 2016

The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A
and B during the years 2011 - 15. Answer questions 1 - 3 based on the data
contained in the table:
Profit earned by the companies
Year and profit by A and B

Percentage Profit (%)
Year
A B
2011 20 30
2012 35 40
2013 45 35
2014 40 50
2015 25 35
Where, percent (%) Profit =Income-ExpenditureExpenditure100
1. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than
that of company A?
(1) 2012
(2) 2013
(3) 2014
(4) 2015
Answer: 2
2. If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs. 9 lakh in the year 2012
and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio2: 1, then what was the income
of the company A in that year?
(1) Rs. 9.2 lakh
(2) Rs. 8.1 lakh
(3) Rs. 7.2 lakh

18
(4) Rs. 6.0 lakh

Page
Answer: 2

3. What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B?
(1) 35%
(2) 42%
(3) 38%
(4) 40%
Answer: 3
The table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to
a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the
questions that follow:
Number of people and styles of music

Number of people
Ages (years) 15 - 20 (years) 21 - 30 (years) 31+
Style of Music
Classical 6 4 17
Pop 7 5 5
Rock 6 12 14
Jazz 1 4 11
Blues 2 3 15
Hip-Hop 9 3 4
Ambient 2 2 2
4. What percentage of respondents aged 31 + indicated a favorite style other

than classical music?
1. 64%
2. 60%
3. 75%
4. 50%
Answer: 3
5. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21 - 30?
1. 31%
2. 23%
3. 25%
4. 14%
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Answer: 3
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6. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is

their favourite style of music?
1. 6%
2. 8%
3. 14%
4. 12%
Answer: 4
7. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as________
1. Burning
2. Zipping
3. Digitizing
4. Ripping
Answer: 1
8. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipient at once is a________
1. Worm
2. Virus
3. Threat
4. Spam
Answer: 4
9. The statement the study, development, implementation, support or

management of computer-based information systems, particularly software
applications and computer hardware refers to
1. Information Technology (IT)

2. Information and collaborative Technology (ICT)
3. Information and data Technology (IDT)
4. Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Answer: 1
10. I f the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the
binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by
1. 110011
2. 110010
3. 110001
4. 110100
Answer: 1
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11. I dentify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also
res piratory tract of human beings.
1. Particulate matter
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Surface ozone
4. Carbon monoxide
Answer: 3
12. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers
of india?
1. Untreated sewage
2. Agriculture run-off
3. Unregulated small scale industries
4. Religious practices
Answer: 1
13. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by
1. 2022
2. 2030
3. 2040
4. 2050
Answer: 2
14 Indian governments target of producing power from biomass by the year

2022, is
1. 50 MW
2. 25 MW
3. 15 MW
4. 10 MW
Answer: 4
15. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true and (R) is false
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Page
Answer: 2

16. World Meteorological Organizations (WMO) objective has been to reduce the
number of deaths due to hydro meteorological disasters over the decade 2010 -
2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994 - 2003)
1. 25% 2. 50%
3. 75% 4. 80%
Answer: 2
17. ________is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computers start-up
routine.
2. RI M (Read Initial Memory) 2. RAM (Random Access Memory)

3. ROM (Read Only Memory) 4. Cache Memory
Answer: 3
18. An ASCI I is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal

computers in order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys
that the computer used selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for
1. American Standard Code for Information Interchange

2. American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
3. American Standard Code for Information Integrity
4. American Standard Code for Isolated Information
Answer: 1
19. The N ational Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared
unconstitutional by
1. The Supreme Court of India 2. The High Court

3. The High Court and the Supreme Court both
4. The President of India
Answer: 1
20. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are
correct?
(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d) 2. (b), (c) and (d)

3. (b) and (c) 4. (c) only
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Answer: 4

21. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?
(a) To respect the National Flag.

(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.
Select the correct answer from the codes given:
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 1
22. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?
(a) It is a constitutional body.

(b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
(d) It is a think-tank.
(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 3
23. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education
are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council)?
(a) Contributing to national development.

(b) Fostering global competencies among students and teachers.
(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.
(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
23
Answer: 2
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24. The best way for providing value education is through
(1) discussions on scriptural texts

(2) lecture/discourses on values
(3) seminars/symposia on values
(4) mentoring/reflective sessions on values
Answer: 4
25. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an
intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis
and synthesis. Below, given are two sets of items Set I consisting of levels of
cognitive interchange and Set II comprising basic requirements for promoting
them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct
alternative from the code:
Set I
(Levels of Cognitive Interchange)
a. Memory level
b. Understanding level
c. Reflective level
Set II
(Basic requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)
i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non-examples of a point.
ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations.
iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information
iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed.
Codes:
abc
(1) ii iv i
(2) iii iv ii
(3) ii i iv
(4) i ii iii
Answer: 3
26. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing

effective teaching-learning systems? Select the correct alternative from the codes
given below:
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.

(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learners family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.
(iv) Students language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the pres cribed dress code.
24
(vi) Motivational orientation of the students.

Page

Codes:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: 2
27. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and
creative thinking abilities among students.
Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true and (R) is false
Answer: 2
28. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of
evaluation system. Choose the correct code:
Types of Evaluations
Set-I SET-II
i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive aspects
a. Formative evaluation
with regularity
ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a
b. Summative evaluation
group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and
iii. Grading the final learning outcomes
comprehensive evaluation
d. Norm and criterion
iv. Quizzes and discussions
referenced tests
Codes:
List and correct codes

a b c d
iv iii i ii
i ii iii iv
iii iv ii i
i iii iv ii
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Answer: 1

29. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to

effectiveness of teaching:
List of factors:
1.
1. Teachers knowledge of the subject.
2. Teachers socio-economic background.
3. Communication skill of the teacher.
4. Teachers ability to please the students.
5. Teachers personal contact with students.
6. Teachers competence in managing and monitoring the classroom
transactions
Codes:
1. (b), (c) and (d)

2. (c), (d) and (f)
3. (b), (d) and (c)
4. (a), (c) and (f)
Answer: 4
30. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of
1. Attracting students attention in the class room.

2. Minimizing indiscipline problem in the classroom.
3. Optimizing learning outcomes of students.
4. Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.
Answer: 3
31. The format of thesis writing is the same as in
1. Preparation of a research paper/article

2. Writing of seminar presentation
3. A research dissertation
4. Presenting a workshop/conference paper
Answer: 3
32. I n qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be

considered critical?
1. Data collection with standardized research tools.

2. Sampling design with probability sample techniques.
3. Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.
4. Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.
26
Answer: 3
Page

33. From the following list of statement identify the set, which has negative
implications for research ethics :
1. A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.

2. Related studies are cited without proper references.
3. Research findings are made the basis for policymaking.
4. Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research
evidences.
5. A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from
other researches.
6. Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in
terms of preliminary studies.
1. I, II and III 2. II, III and IV

3. II, IV and VI 4. I, III and V
Answer: 3
34. I n a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress proneness of

children in competing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that child
rearing practices do influence stress- proneness. At the data-analysis stage a
null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On
the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of
significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research
hypothesis?
1. The research hypothesis will also be rejected.

2. The research hypothesis will be accepted.
3. Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.
4. No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.
Answer: 2
35. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the
organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will
be most appropriate for this study?
1. Historical method 2. Descriptive survey method

3. Experimental method 4. Ex-post factor method
Answer: 4
36. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing

research?
1. Developing a research design

2. Formulating a research question
3. Deciding about the data analysis procedure
4. Formulating a research hypothesis
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Answer: 2

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 37 to
42:
In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of
Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage across
numerous durable goods and consumer electronics industries (eg. Machinery,
automobiles, televisions, radios), then labour-based advantages shifted to South
Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be
capitalizing best on the basic of labour, Japanese firms still remain competitive
in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the
labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers
in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based advantage is
clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today a huge number of IT and
service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore and
like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing
technical skills. However, as educational level and technical skills continue to
rise in other countries, I ndia, Singapore and like nations enjoying labour-based
competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot be
sustained through emergence of new competitions.
In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coin and later even paper
money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were
formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital
flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires
regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in
places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist of course, but the
capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over
other capitalists distributed worldwide, Only if an organization is able to
combine , integrate and apply its res ources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an
effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such as
organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.
In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view

organizational knowledge as recourse with at least the same level of power and
importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior
knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the
application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering,
pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive
competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider
semiconductors (e. g. computer chips), which are made principles of sand and
common metals, these ubiquitous and powerful electronics devices are designed
within common office building, using commercially available tools, and
fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence land is not the
key competitive recourse in the semiconductor industry.
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Based on the passage answer the following questions:
37. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime?
1. Through regional capital flows

2. Through regional interactions among business players.
3. By making large bank, industries and markets coalesced.
4. By effective use of various instrumentalities.
Answer: 4
38. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?
1. Access to capital
2. Common office buildings
3. Superior knowledge
4. Common metals
Answer: 3
39. The passage also mentions about the trend of
1. Global financial flow

2. Absence of competition in manufacturing industry
3. Regionalization of capitalists
4. Organizational incompatibility
Answer: 1
40. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?
1. International commerce
2. Labour-Intensive industries
3. Capital resource management
4. Knowledge-driven competitive advantage
Answer: 4
41. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for

decades?
1. South Korea
3. Japan
4. Mexico
5. Malaysia
Answer: 2
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Page

42. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be

sustained in IT and service sectors?
1. Due to diminishing levels of skill

2. Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads
3. Because of new competitors
4. Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing
industries.
Answer: 3
43. What are the barriers to effective communication?
1. Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.

2. Dialogue, summary and self-review.
3. Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.
4. Personal statement, eye contact and simple narration.
Answer: 1
44. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of
1. Proximity, utility, loneliness

2. Utility, secrecy, dissonance
3. Secrecy, dissonance, deception
4. Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance
Answer: 1
45. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the
classroom.
1. Use of peer command

2. Making aggressive statements
3. Adoption of well-established posture
4. Being authoritarian
Answer: 3
46. Every communicator has to experience
1. Manipulated emotion
2. Anticipatory excitement
3. The issue of homophiles
4. Status dislocation
Answer: 2
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47. I magine you are working in an educational institution where people are of
equal status. Which method of communication is best suited and normally
employed in such a context?
1. Horizontal communication
2. Vertical communication
3. Corporate communication
4. Cross communication
Answer: 1
48. I dentify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while
addres sing students in a classroom.
1. Avoidance of proximity
2. Voice modulation
3. Repetitive pause
4. Fixed posture
Answer: 2
49. Two railway tickets from city A and B three ticketd from city A to C cost Rs.
177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C city Rs. 173.
The fare for city B from city A will be Rs.
1. 25
2. 27
3. 30
4. 33
Answer: 4
50. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning
to his left, he walk 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he from his starting
point?
1. 20 m 2. 15 m
3. 10 m 4. 5 m
Answer: 4
51. A sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is

mother of D. A is related to D as
1. Grand daughter
2. Daughter
3. Daughter-in-law
4. Sister
31
Answer: 1
Page

52. I n the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ________? ________ OPQRST, The missing term
is
1. JKLMN
2. JMKN L
3. NMLKJ
4. NMKLJ
Answer: 3
53. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is
the denial of the other. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code:
Propositions:
1. All women are equal to men

2. Some women are equal to men
3. Some women are not equal to men
4. No women are equal to men
Codes:
1. (a) and (b)

2. (a) and (d)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (a) and (c)
Answer: 4
54. I n certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of

AMERI CANS will be
1. YKCPGAYLQ
2. BNFSJDBMR
3. QLYAGPCKY
4. YQKLCYPAG
Answer: 1
55. I n the series 3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ________ The next term will be
1. 63
2. 73
3. 83
4. 93
Answer: 3
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56. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:
(1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.

(2) It can provide clear method of notation.
(3) It can be either valid or invalid.
(4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.
Answer: 3
57. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of deductive argument
with two premises:
(1) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion
may be valid.
(2) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
(3) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion
may be valid.
(4) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.
Answer: 2
58. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking
singly or together). Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises:
(i) All religious persons are emotional.
(ii) Ram is a religious person.
Conclusion:
(a) Ram is emotional.
(b) All emotional persons are religious.
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.
Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
Answer: 3
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59. I f the proposition All thieves are poor is false, which of the following
propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(1) Some thieves are poor.

(2) Some thieves are not poor.
(3) No thief is poor.
(4) No poor person is a thief.
Answer: 2
60. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the
nature of the argument involved in it:
To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as
absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.
(1) Astronomical
(2) Anthropological
(3) Deductive
(4) Analogical
Answer: 4
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CBSE UGC NET - DECEMBER 2015

1. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions,
greate r the demand on the:
(1) Family
(2) Society
(3) Teacher
(4) State
2. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?
(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.

(b) It replaces marks with grades.
(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.
(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.
(1) (a) (b) (c) and (d)

(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a) (b) and (c)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
3. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?
(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management
(b) Setting examples
(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
(d) Acknowledging mistakes
(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (C) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
4. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple
choice type questions?
(1) They are more objective than true-false type questions.
(2) They are less objective than essay type questions.
(3) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.
(4) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.
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5. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors

report to UNESCO was titled:
(1) International Commission on Education Report
(2) Millennium Development Report
(3) Learning: The Treasure Within
(4) World Declaration on Education for All
6. What are required for good teaching?
(a) Diagnosis
(b) Remedy
(c) Direction
(d) Feedback
(1) (a), (b), (c) and
(d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)
7. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory
research?
(1) It recognizes knowledge as power.

(2) It emphasises on people as experts.
(3) It is a collective process of enquiry.
(4) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge,
8. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a
hypothesis?
(1) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.
(2) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.
(3) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
(4) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.
9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format?
(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays
(b) Invert authors names (last name first)
(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals
(d) Alphabetically index reference list

(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
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10. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?

(a) It is a form of academic instruction.
(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.
(c) It involves large groups of individuals.
(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.
(1) (b) and (c)
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
11. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political
party in an u area. What tool should he prefer for the study?
(1) Rating scale
(2) Interview
(3) Questionnaire
(4) Schedule
12. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:
(1) Thesis format
(2) Copyright
(3) Patenting policy
(4) Data sharing policies
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 13 to

17.
I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card which is a horror
unto itself, especially as the keeper of the Big Card was leaning over me at the
time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing
a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the
myriad options available to me, I decided lo just write: Good luck, best, Joel.
It was then that I realised, to my horror, that 1 had forgotLen how to write. Mv
entire existence is tap letters into computer. My shopping lists are hidden in
the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember somelhing 1 send an e-
mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when Im struggling to think. Paper is
something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me
to type on.
A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 dont own a
pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years old have
never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80% have
never written a love letter, 56% dont have letter paper at home. And a quarter
have never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen
ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.
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Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, lacebook and
snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a
relic.
Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the
same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or
photography.
Answer the foll owing questions:
13. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like a rabbit in the
headlight. What does this phrase mean?
(1) A slate of confusion
(2) A state of pleasure
(3) A state of anxiety
(4) A state of pain
14. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of
pursuit?
(I) Handwriting
(2) Photography
(3) Sketching
(4) Reading
15. The entire existence of the author revolves round:
(a) Computer
(b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewrite ?
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (b) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (b) and (c) only
16. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?
(1) 800
(2) 560
(3) 500
(4) 100
17. What is the mam concern of the author?
(1) That the teens use social networks for communication.
(2) that the teens use mobile phones.
(3) That the teens use computer.
38
(4) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.

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18. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:

(a) To gather information about student weaknc
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of leaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a) only
19. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of
a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:
(1) Systemisation (2) Problem orientation
(3) Idea protocol (4) Mind mapping
20. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:
(1) Physical language (2) Personal language

(3) Para language 4) Delivery language
21. Every type of communication is affected by its:
(1) Reception (2) Transmission
(3) Non-regulation (4) Context
22. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom

communication are considered as:
(1) Verbal (2) Non-verbal
(3) Impersonal (4) Irrational
23. Most often, the teacher student communication is:
(1) Spurious (2) Critical
(3) Utilitarian (4) Confrontational
24. I n a classroom, a communicators trust level is determined by:
(1) the use of hyperbole (2) the change of voice level
(3) the use of abstract concepts (4) eye contact
25. The next term in the Series 2,5,10,17,26, 37,? is:

(1) 50 (2) 57 (3) 62 (4) 72
26. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of 1/3 rd of
students is found to be 60.
The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole
group will be;
(1) 80 (2) 76 (3) 74 (4) 72
39
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27. Anil after travelling 6 km towards hast from his house realized that he has
travelled i , wrong direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards West,
turned right anil travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the
office from his house is:
(1) 20 km (2) 11 km (3) 12 km (4) 10 km
28. The next term m the series: B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N,? is
(1) J561 (2) I62Q (3) Q62J (4) J58Q
29. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their
wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The
number of females present in the party is:
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 18 (4) 24
30. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is
related to R as:
(1) Son (2) Brother (3) Uncle (4) Father
31. Consider the argument given below ;
Pre employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors; architects
and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.
What type of argument it is?
(1) Deductive (2) Analogical (3) Psychological (4) Biological
32. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way thai they
can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those
propositions? Select the correct code.
Propositions:
(a) Some priests are cunning.
(b) No priest is cunning.
(c) All priests are cunning.
(d) Some priests are not cunning.
Codes:
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
33. A Cluster of propositions with a structure thai exhibits some inference is
called:
(1) An inference (2) An argument

(3) An explanation (4) A valid argument
40
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34. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct
code given below:
(A): No man is perfect.
(R): Some men are not perfect.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
35. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol
is called:
(1) Lexical (2) Precising (3) Stipulative (4) Persuasive
36. I f the proposition No men are honest is taken to be false which of the
following proposition/ propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?
Propositions:
(1) All men are honest (2) Some men are honest
(3) Some men are not honest (4) No honest person is man
Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical
Power Production of a country.
Year Population El ectrical Power
(million) Production (GW)*
1951 20 10
1961 21 20
1971 24 25
1981 27 40
1991 30 50
2001 32 80
2011 35 100
* 1 GW = 1000 Million
Watt
Based on the above table, answer the questions from SI. No. 37 to 42.
37. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population?
(1) 1961-71 (2) 1971-81
(3) 1991-2001 (4) 2001-2011
38. Average decadal growlh rate (%) of population is:
41
(1) ~12.21% (2) ~9.82%

(3) ~6.73% (4) ~ 5%
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39. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the
year 2021?
(1) 40.34 million (2) 38.49 million
(3) 37.28 million (4) 36.62 million
40. I n the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?
(1) 100 W (2) 200 W
(3) 400 W (4) 500 W
41. I n which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum?
(1) 1981-1991 (2) 1991-2001

(3) 2001-2011 (4) 1971-1981
42. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 to 2011?
(1) 100% (2) 300%
(3) 600% (4) 900%
43. N MEICT stands for:

(1) National Mission on Education through ICT
(2) National Mission on E-govemance through ICT
(3) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(4) National Mission on E-learning through ICT
44. Which of the following is an instant messaging application?

(a) WhatsApp (b) Google Talk (c) Viber
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
45. I n a Computer a byte generally consists of:

(1) 4 bits (2) 8 bits
(3) 16 bits (4) 10 bits
46. Which of the following is not an input device?
(1) Microphone (2) Keyboard
(3) Joystick (4) Monitor
47. Which of the following is an open source software?
(1) MS Word (2) Windows
(3) Mozilla Firefox (4) Acrobat Reader
48. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different
persons in MS Word
(1) Mail join (2) Mail copy
42
(3) Mail insert (4) Mail merge

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49. I nside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:
(a) Unvented gas stoves (b) Wood stoves (c) Kerosene heaters
(3) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
50. Which ot the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?
(1) Pesticides (2) Mercury (3) Lead (4) Ozone
51. Assertion (A): People population control measures do no! necessarily help in
checking environmental degradation.
Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental
degradation is rather complex.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?
(1) Wildfire (2) Lightning
(3) Landslide (4) Chemical contamination
53. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to
raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to:
(1) 175 GW (2) 200 GW (3) 250 GW (4) 350 GW
54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify
the correct sequence.
(1) Brazil > Russia > China > India (2) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(3) Russia > China > Brazil > India (4) China > Russia > Brazil > India
55. Which of the following are the objectives of Kashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha
Abhivan (RUSA)?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.

(b) lo ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous
colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous
colleges.
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
43
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
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56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational

institutions is constitutionally prohibited are:
(a) Religion (b) Sex (c) Place of birth (d) Nationality

(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the
Election Commission.
(c) First past the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality
of votes.

(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b); (c) and (d)
58. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in:
(1) the Union List (2) the State List
(3) the Concurrent List (4) the Residuary Powers
59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:
(1) 4 years
(2) 5 years
(3) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(4) not fixed
60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the
Lok Sabha?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Rajasthan (3) Tamil Nadu (4) West Bengal
Answer Key
Q1) 3, Q2) 4, Q3) 2, Q4) 1, Q5) 3, Q6) 1, Q7) 4, Q8) 2, Q9) 2, Q10) 4,
Q11) 3, Q12) 1, Q13) 1, Q14) 4, Q15) 2, Q16) 4, Q17) 4, Q18) 2, Q19) 4,
Q20) 3, Q21) 4, Q22) 2, Q23) 3, Q24) 4, Q25) 1, Q26) 4, Q27) 4, Q28) 4,
Q29) 2, Q30) 3, Q31) 2, Q32) 4, Q33) 2, Q34) 1, Q35) 3, Q36) 2, Q37) 1,
Q38) 2, Q39) 2, Q40) 4, Q41) 3, Q42) 4, Q43) 1, Q44) 4, Q45) 2, Q46) 4,
Q47) 3, Q48) 4, Q49) 4, Q50) 1&3, Q51) 1, Q52) 4, Q53) 4, Q54) 3, Q55) 2,
Q56) 2, Q57) 1, Q58) 2, Q59) 4, Q60) 1
44
Page

CBSE UGC NET - JUNE 2015

1. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability?
(1) Knowing (2) Understanding
(3) Analysing (4) Evaluating
2. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?
(1) Teachers knowledge
(2) Class room activities that encourage learning
(3) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
(4) Learning through experience
3. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct?
(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
4. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include:
(a) Lecture (b) Interactive lecture

(c) Group work (d) Self study
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
5. Achie vement tests are commonly used for the purpose of:
(1) Making selections for a specific job
(2) Selecting candidates for a course
(3) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
(4) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching
6. A good teacher is one who:

(1) gives useful information
(2) explains concepts and principles
(3) gives printed notes to students
(4) inspires students to learn
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7. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are

correct?
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to
find out the solution of a problem.
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of
hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be
done.
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
8. A good thesis writing should involve:
(a) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.

(b) careful checking of references.
(c) consistency in the way the thesis is written.
(d) a clear and well written abstract.
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
9. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of
his :
(1) Fundamental Research (2) Applied Research
(3) Action Research (4) Evaluation Research
10. Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude
test. This statement indicates a:
(1) research hypothesis (2) null hypothesis
(3) directional hypothesis (4) statistical hypothesis
11. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to

other situations?
(1) Historical Research (2) Descriptive Research
(3) Experimental Research (4) Causal Comparative Research
12. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire?
(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.

(b) Review of the current literature. (c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.
(d) Revision of the draft.
46
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
Page
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 13 to 18.

Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the
essence of what makes us Human.
Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety
of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which
stories are picked up and repeated and which ones are dropped and forgotten
often determines how we progress. Our history, knowledge and understanding
are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories
that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out
depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to
believe.
Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some
story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are
frightening, they are like totemic warnings: Fail to act now and we are all
doomed. Then there are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we
leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend is being
led by those who call themselves rational optimists. They tend to claim that it
is human nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of
others. The rational optimists however, do not realize how humanity has
progressed overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups
work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high
and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the Practical
Possibles, who sit between those who say all is fine and cheerful and be
individualistic in your approach to a successful future, and those who ordain
pessimism and fear that we are doomed. What the future holds for us is which
stories we hold on to and how we act on them.
Answer the following questions:

13. Our knowledge is a collection of:
(1) all stories that we have heard during our life-time

(2) some stories that we remember
(3) a few stories that survive
(4) some important stories
14. Story telling is:
(1) an art (2) a science

(3) in our genes (4) the essence of what makes us human
15. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories?
(1) We collectively choose to believe in
(2) Which are repeatedly narrated
(3) Designed to spread fear and tension
(4) Designed to make prophecy
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16. Rational optimists:

(a) Look for opportunities.
(b) Are sensible and cheerful.
(c) Are selfishly driven.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a) only
17. Humans become less selfish when:
(1) they work in large groups (2) they listen to frightening stories
(3) they listen to cheerful stories (4) they work in solitude
18. Practical Possibles are the ones who:
(1) follow Midway Path (2) are doom-mongers
(3) are self-centred (4) are cheerful and carefree
19. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following?

(a) Attitude surveys (b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance (d) Selection of communication channel
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
20. Assertion (A): Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible.
Reason (R): Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow of
information.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but, (R) is correct
21. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication?
(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
22. The term grapevine is also known as:
(1) Downward communication (2) Informal communication
48
(3) Upward communication (4) Horizontal communication

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23. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication?

(1) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(2) Participation of the audience
(3) One-way transfer of information
(4) Strategic use of grapevine
24. I n communication, the language is:
(1) The verbal code (2) Intrapersonal
(3) The symbolic code (4) The non-verbal code
25. The next term in the series is: 2, 5, 9, 19, 37,?

(1) 73 (2) 75 (3) 78 (4) 80
26. I n certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of HOTELS will
be:
(1) LEQI BP (2) ELQBIP (3) LEBIQP (4) ELIPQB
27. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned right
and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned left and walked 10
km. How many km will he have to walk to reach his home straight?
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 30
28. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle.
The boy is related to the girl as:
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Nephew (4) Son
29. I n an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the
number of students who have:
passed in all five subjects = 5583
passed in three subjects only = 1400
passed in two subjects only = 1200
passed in one subject only = 735
failed in English only = 75
failed in Physics only = 145
failed in Chemistry only = 140
failed in Mathematics only = 200
failed in Bio-science only = 157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is:
(1) 6300 (2) 6900 (3) 7300 (4) 7900
30. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older than
his wife. After 3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The age of the persons
wife after 5 years will be:
49
(1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 45 (4) 50

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31. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on
reason of the type:
(1) Inductive (2) Deductive (3) Demonstrative (4) Physiological
32. A deductive argument is invalid if:

(1) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(2) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(3) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
(4) Its premises and conclusions are all true
33. I nductive reasoning is grounded on:

(1) Integrity of nature (2) Unity of nature
(3) Uniformity of nature (4) Harmony of nature
34. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select
the correct code that represents them:
Statements:
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes:
(1) (a)and(b) (2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (c)
35. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Select the code:
Statements:
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
36. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate
ambiguity the definition is called:
(1) Stipulative (2) Theoretical

(3) Lexical (4) Persuasive
Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
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Page

Question numbers 37 to 42 are based on the tabulated data given below:

A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in thousand
rupees per month) mentioned against each of them:
S.No Age Salary (in S.no Age Salary (in

(in Thousand (in Thousand
years) rupees per years) rupees per
month) month)
1. 44 35 11. 33 30
2. 32 20 12. 31 35
3. 54 45 13. 30 35
4. 42 35 14. 37 40
5. 31 20 15. 44 45
6. 53 60 16. 36 35
7. 42 50 17. 34 35
8. 51 55 18. 49 50
9. 34 25 19. 43 45
10. 41 30 20. 45 50
37. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years. Which
class interval of 5 years has the maximum average salary?
(1) 35-40 years (2) 40 45 years

(3) 45 50 years (4) 50 55 years
38. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30 35 years?
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 35%
39. What is the average age of the employees?
(1) 40.3 years (2) 38.6 years

(3) 47.2 years (4) 45.3 years
40. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary 40,000 per month?
51
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 35% (4) 32%

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41. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40 50
years?
(1) 35 (2) 42.5 (3) 40.5 (4) 36.5
42. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary
of all the employees?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 55% (4) 47%
43. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as:
(1) Protection (2) Detection (3) Encryption (4) Decryption
44. Which of the following is not an output device?

(1) Printer (2) Speaker (3) Monitor (4) Keyboard
45. Which of the following represents one billion characters?
(1) Kilobyte (2) Megabyte (3) Gigabyte (4) Terabyte
46. Which of the following is not open source software?
(1) Internet explorer (2) Fedora Linux

(3) Open office (4) Apache HTTP server
47. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal
number 25?
(1) 10101 (2) 01101 (3) 11001 (4) 11011
48. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting?
(1) Altavista (2) MAC
(3) Microsoft Office (4) Google Talk
49. I n which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum?
(1) USA (2) European Union
(3) China (4) India
50. I ndias contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
(1) -3% (2) -6% (3) -10% (4) -15%
51. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively
on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be
approximately:
(1) ~8 (2) -16 (3) -32 (4) -64
52. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources?
(1) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(2) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
52
(3) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water

(4) Oil, forests and tides
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53. I n the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following
pollutants is not included?
(1) Carbon monoxide (2) Fine particulate matter
(3) Ozone (4) Chlorofluorocarbons
54. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of
anthropogenic activities on environment are:
(1) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
(2) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting
resources
(3) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
(4) Population, forest cover and land available per person
55. The session of the parliament is summoned by:
(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
56. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on:
(1) 21st April (2) 24th April
(3) 21st June (4) 7th July
57. The South Asia University is situated in the city of:
(1) Colombo (2) Dhaka (3) New Delhi (4) Kathmandu
58. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the
following aims?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education

(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
59. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India
at present (2015) is about:
(1) 8 percent (2) 12 percent
(3) 19 percent (4) 23 percent
60. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was:
(1) 08 (2) 14 (3) 27 (4) 43
53
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Answer Key
Q1) 4, Q2) 3, Q3) 2, Q4) 1, Q5) 4,
Q6) 4, Q7) 4, Q8) 1, Q9) 1, Q10) 2,
Q11) 1, Q12) 4, Q13) 3, Q14) 4, Q15) 1,

Q16) 1, Q17) 1, Q18) 1, Q19) 2, Q20) 4,
Q21) 4, Q22) 2, Q23) 3, Q24) 1, Q25) 2,
Q26) 2, Q27) 3, Q28) 1, Q29) 1, Q30) 4,
Q31) 1, Q32) 2, Q33) 3, Q34) 3, Q35) 2,
Q36) 3, Q37) 4, Q38) 4, Q39) 1, Q40) 1,

Q41) 2, Q42) 3, Q43) 3, Q44) 4, Q45) 3,
Q46) 1, Q47) 3, Q48) 4, Q49) 2, Q50) 2,
Q51) 3, Q52) 3, Q53) 4, Q54) 2, Q55) 1,
Q56) 1, Q57) 3, Q58) 2, Q59) 3, Q60) 4
54
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CBSE UGC NET - DECEMBER 2014

1. CSS stands for
(A) Cascading Style Sheets (B) Collecting Style Sheets
(C) Comparative Style Sheets (D) Comprehensive Style Sheets
2. MOOC stands for
(A) Media Online Open Course (B) Massachusetts Open Online Course
(C) Massive Open Online Course (D) Myrind Open Online Course
3. Binary equivale nt of decimal number 35 is
(A) 100011 (B) 110001

(C) 110101 (D) 101011
4. gif. jpg, bmp, png are used as extensions for files which store
(A) audio data (B) image data
(C) video data (D) text data
5. Symbols A-F are used in which one of the following?

(A) Binary number system (B) Decimal number system
(C) Hexadecimal number system (D) Octal number system
6. Which one of the following is not a search engine?
(A) Google (B) Chrome
(C) Yahoo (D) Bing
7. In terms of total CO, emissions from a country, identify the correct
sequence
(A) U.S.A. > China > India > Russia (B) China > U.S.A. > India > Russia
(C) China > U.S.A. > Russia > India (D) U.S.A. > China > Russia > India
8. Match List I and List II and identify the correct code:

List I List-II
a. World Health Day i. 16th September
b. World Population Day ii. 1st December
c. World Ozone Day iii. 1st July
d. World AIDS Day iv. 7th April
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
55
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) ii iii iv i
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(D) iii iv ii i
9. Which of the anthropogenic activity accounts for more than ~2/3rd of

global water consumption?
(A) Agriculture (B) Hydropower generation
(C) Industry (D) Domestic and Municipal usage
10. One of the anthropogenic sources of gaseous pollutants
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in air is
(A) Cement industry (B) Fertiliser industry
(C) Foam industry (D) Pesticide industry
11. The maximum number of fake institutions / universities as identified by

the UGC in the year 2014 are in the State / Union territory of
(A) Bihar (B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Delhi
12. Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant
degrees under the UGC Act, 1956?
1. A university established by an Act of Parliament.
2. A university established by an Act of Legislature.
3. A university / institution established by a linguistic minority.
4. An institution which is a deemed to be university.

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 1.2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Which of the following are the tools of good governance?
1. Social Audit 2. Separation of Powers
3. Citizens Charter 4. Right to Information
(A) 1,3 and 4 (B) 2. 3 and 4
(C) l and 4 (D) 1,2. 3 and 4
14. The cyclone Hudhud hit the coast of which State?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Kamataka

(C) Kerala (D) Gujarat
15. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?
(A) Clean air (B) Fres h water
(C) Fertile soil (D) Salt
16. Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in

(A) Right to Freedom (B) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
56
(C) Right to Equality (D) Right against Exploitation

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17. Which of the following organizations deals with capacity building

Educational Planning?
(A) NCERT (B) UGC
(C) NAAC (D) NUEPA
18. Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha?
1. Summoning 2. Adjournment sine die
3. Prorogation 4. Dissolution
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 1.2 and 3

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1,2, 3 and 4
19. The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed
(A) 3 months (B) 6 months
(C) 4 months (D) 100 days
20. Maximum participation of students during teaching is possible through

(A) Lecture method (B) Demonstration method
(C) Inductive method (D) Textbook method
21. Diagnostic evaluation ascertains
(A) Students performance at the beginning of instructions.

(B) Learning progress and failures during instructions.
(C) Degree of achievement of instructions at the end.
(D) Causes and remedies of persistent learning problems during instructions.
22. Instructional aids are used by the teacher to
(A) glorify the class (B) attract the students
(C) clarify the concepts (D) ensure discipline
23. Attitude of the teacher that affects teaching pertains to
(A) Affective domain (B) Cognitive domain
(C) Connative domain (D) Psychomotor domain
24. Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man was stated

by
(A) M.K.Gandhi (B) R.N. Tagore
(C) Swami Vivekanand (D) Sri Aurobindo
25. Which of the following is not a prescribed level of teaching?
(A) Memory (B) Understanding

(C) Reflective (D) Differentiation
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26. The core elements of a dissertation are

(A) Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and
Recommendations
(B) Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions:
Bibliography
(C) Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis: References
(D) Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology, Results;
Discussion and Conclusion
27. What is a Research Design?

(A) A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
(B) The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
(C) The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a graph.
(D) A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.
28. Sampling Cases means

(A) Sampling using a sampling frame
(B) Identifying people who are suitable for research
(C) Literally the researchers briefcase
(D) Sampling of people, newspapers, television programmes etc.
29. The frequency distribution of a research data which is symmetrical in

shape similar to a normal distribution but center peak is much higher, is
(A) Skewed (B) Mesokurtic
(C) Leptokurtic (D) Platykurtic
30. When planning to do as social research, it is better to
(A) approach the topic with an open mind

(B) do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
(C) be familiar with literature on the topic
(D) forget about theory because this is a very practical
31. When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentation to an
audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called
(A) Training Program (B) Seminar
(C) Workshop (D) Symposium
32. Media is known as
(A) First Estate (C) Third Estate
(B) Second Estate (D) Fourth Estate
33. The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting
information to a large number of receivers simultaneously, is called
(A) Group Communication (B) Mass Communication
58
(C) Intrapersonal Communication (D) Interpersonal Communication

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34. A smart classroom is a teaching space which has

(i) Smart portion with a touch panel control system.
(ii) PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player.
(iii) Document camera and specialized software
(iv) Projector and screen
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i). (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i).(ii),(iii)and(iv)
35. The term Yellow Journalism refers to
(A) sensational news about terrorism and violence
(B) sensationalism and exaggeration to attract readers / viewers.
(C) sensational news about arts and culture
(D) sensational news prints in yellow paper.
36. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or
images. The students are really
(A) Encoders (B) Decoders
(C) Agitators (D) Propagators
37. The next term in the series: AB, ED, I H, NM, is

(A) TS (B) ST
(C) TU (D) SU
38. If STREAMERS is coded as UVTGALDQR, then KNOWLEDGE will be coded
as
(A) MQPYLCDFD (B) MPQYLDCFD

(C) PMYQLDFCD (D) YMQPLDDFC
39. A is brother of B. B is the brother of C. C is the husband of D. E is the
father of A. D is related to E as
(A) Daughter (B) Daughter-in-law
(C) Sister-in-law (D) Sister
40. Two numbers are in the ratio 3: 5. If 9 is subtracted from the numbers,
the ratio become 12: 23. The numbers are
(A) 30,50 (B) 36,60
(C) 33,55 (D) 42,70
41. The mean of the ages of father and his son is 27 years. After 18 years,
father will be twice as old as his son. Their present ages are
(A) 42.12 (B) 40,14
59
(C) 30,24 (D) 36.18

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42. Digital Empowerment means

(i) Universal digit literacy
(ii) Universal access to all digital resources.
(iii) Collaborative digital platform for participative governance.
(iv) Probability of all entitlements for individuals through cloud.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii). (iii) and (iv)
43. The next term in the series: 2,7,28.63, 126. Is
(A) 215 (B) 245 (C) 276 (D) 296
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 44 to 48:

The literary distaste for politics, however, seems to be focused not so much on
the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary
representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature, i.e., on
the very politics of such representation. A political novel often turns out to be
not merely a novel about politics but a novel with a politics of its own, for it
seeks not merely to show us how things are but has fairly definite ideas about
how things should be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to
make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and
enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is (in an only too
familiar phrase) not literature but propaganda. This is s aid violate the very spirit
of literature which is to broaden our understanding of the world and to range of
our sympathies rather than to narrow them down through partisan
commitment. As John Keats said, We hate poetry that has a palpable design
upon us.
Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of
literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very
nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. I f political situations do not lend
themselves to happy literary treatment, political ideas present perhaps an even
greate r problem in this regard. Literature, it is argued, is about human
experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called
the felt reality of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour (rasa) rather
than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her
book Ideas and the Novel the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that
ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel though that was not so in
former days, i.e.. in the 18th and 19n centuries. Her formulation of the precise
nature of the incompatibility between ideas on the one hand and the novel on t
other betrays perhaps a divided conscience in the matter and a sense of
dilemma shared by many writers and readers: An idea cannot have loose ends,
but a novel, I almost think, needs them Nevertheless, there is enough in
60
common for the novelists to fee! the attraction of ideas while taking up arms
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against them most often with weapons of mockery.

44. The constructs of politics by its nature is

(A) Prevalent political situation (B) Ideas and Ideologies
(C) Political propaganda (D) Understanding of Iranian nature
45. Literature deals with

(A) Human experiences in politics (B) Intellectual abstractions
(C) Dry and empty ideas (D) Felt reality of human life
46. The observation of the novelist. Mary McCarthy reveals
(A) unseen felt ideas of today in the novel
(B) dichotomy of conscience on political ideas and novels
(C) compatibility between idea and novel
(D) endless ideas and novels
47. According to the passage, a political novel often turns out to be a
(A) Literary distaste for politics (B) Literary representation of politics
(C) Novel with its own politics (D) Depiction of murky practice of politics
48. A political novel reveals
(A) Reality of the things (B) Writers perception
(C) Particular ideology of the readers (D) The spirit of literature
49. Warrior is related to sword, carpenter is related to saw. farmer is related to

plough. In the same way, the author is related to
(A) Book (B) Fame (C) Reader (D) Pen
50. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B and C over-lapping each
other. The circle A represents the class of honest people, the circle B represents
the class of sincere people and circle C represents the class of politicians, p, q. r,
s. U. X. Y represent different regions. Select the code that represents the region
indicating the class of honest politicians who are not sincere.
Codes:
(A) X (B) q
61
(C) p (D) s
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51. A man ought no more to value himself for being wiser than a woman if he
owes his advantage to a better education, than he ought to boast of his courage
for beating a man when his hands were tied.
The above passage is an instance of

(A) Deductive argument (B) Hypothetical argument
(C) Analogical argument (D) Factual argument
52. By which of the following proposition, the proposition wise men are hardly
afraid death is contradicted?
(A) Some wise men are afraid of death.

(B) All wise men are afraid of death.
(C) No wise men is afraid of death.
(D) Some wise men are not afraid of death.
53. When in a group of propositions, one proposition is claimed to follow from
the others, the group of propositions is called
(A) An argument (B) A valid argument
(C) An explanation (D) An invalid argument
54. Namita and Samita are brilliant and studious. Anita and Karabi are
obedient and irregular Babita and Namita are irregular but brilliant. Samita and
Kabita are regular and obedient. Who among them is/are brilliant, obedient,
regular and studious?
(A) Samita alone (B) Namita and Samita
(C) Kabita alone (D) Anita alone
For a country CO, emissions (million metric tons) from various sectors are given
in the following table. Answer the questions (55 to 60) based on the d ata given:
55. By what percentage (%), the total emissions of CO, have increased from
2005 to 2009?
(A) -89.32% (B) -57.62% (C) -40.32% (D) -113.12%
56. What is the average annual growth rate of CO, emissions in power sector?
(A) -12.57% (B) -16.87% (C) -30.81% (D) -50.25%
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57. What is the percentage contribution of power sector to total CO, emissions
in the year 2008?
(A) -30.82% (B) -41.18% (C) -51.38% (D) -60.25%
58. In which year, the contribution (%) of industry to total sectoral CO,
emissions was minimum?
(A) 2005 (B) 2006 (C) 2007 (D) 2009
59. What is the percentage (%) growth of CO, emissions from power sector
during 2005 to 2009?
(A) 60 (B) 50 (C) 40 (D) 80
60. Which sector has recorded maximum growth in CO, emissions during
2005 to 2009?
(A) Power (B) Industry (C) Commercial (D) Agriculture
Answer Key:
Q1) A, Q2) C, Q3) A, Q4) B, Q5) C,
Q6) B, Q7) B, Q8) B, Q9) A, Q10) C,

Q11) B, Q12) C, Q13) 3, Q14) A, Q15) D,
Q16) B, Q17) D, Q18) C, Q19) B, Q20) B,
Q21) D, Q22) C, Q23) A, Q24) C, Q25) D,
Q26) D, Q27) D, Q28) D, Q29) C, Q30) C,
Q31) B, Q32) D, Q33) B, Q34) D, Q35) B,

Q36) B, Q37) A, Q38) B, Q39) B, Q40) C,
Q41) A, Q42) D, Q43) A, Q44) B, Q45) D,
Q46) A, Q47) C, Q48) B, Q49) D, Q50) D,
Q51) C, Q52) B, Q53) A, Q54) A, Q55) A,
Q56) A, Q57) B, Q58) A, Q59) A, Q60) D,

63
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UGC NET JUNE 2014

1. Which of the following are Central Universities?
1. Pondicherry University 2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University 4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1,2 and 4
2. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the
code given below:
i. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by TamilNadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes:
(A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii (D) i and iv
3. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the Planning
Commission?
(A) Chairman (B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning (D) Member Secretary
4. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A) Union List (B) State List
(C) Concurrent List (D) Residuary Powers
5. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes:
(A) Only argument (i) is strong. (B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong. (D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
6. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept?
(A) Assam University (B) Delhi University
64
(C) Hyderabad University (D) Pondicherry University

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7. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University?

1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive
Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive
Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 4 (B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1,2 and3 (D) 1,2, 3 and 4
8. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by
the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
9. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective (B) cognitive

(C) affective (D) selective
10. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?
(A) Students asking questions (B) Maximum attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom (D) Students taking notes
11. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?

(A) Lecture (B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration (D) Narration
12. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder (B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder (D) writing disorder
13. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create
meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm (B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm (D) interpretative paradigm
14. Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling?

(A) Simple random (B) Purposive
(C) Systematic (D) Stratified
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15. I dentify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to
provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.
(A) Placement (B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative (D) Summative
16. The research stream of immediate application is
(A) Conceptual research (B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research (D) Empirical research
17. Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm?
(A) Peter Haggett (B) Von Thunen

(C) Thomas Kuhn (D) John K. Wright
18. I n a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(A) the appendix (B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter (D) the text itself
19. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation (B) a fact
(C) an assertion (D) a discussion

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual
and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups
enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the State, The Indian
States special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence
of social groups of various historical provenances which mutually adhere in a
geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each
other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language.
Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the
regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the
turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional
group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their
ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word
State above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict
between the individual and the State, atleast before foreign governments became
established, just as there was no concept of state sovereignty or of any church-
and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian secularism has an admittedly peculiar feature: It requires the

state to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions.
These blessed aspects of Indias famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely
persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck
Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
66
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways
gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas Mores Utopia.
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There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian: but the
insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and
institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the
essence of all Utopians.
20. The basic construction of Thomas Mores Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social ine quality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.
21. What is the striking feature of modern India?
(A) A replica of Utopian State (B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values (D) Absence of Bigotry
22. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State?

(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances
attached to each other in a geographical, economic and politicalsense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.
23. The author uses the word State to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout
the period of history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in
time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
24. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian Secularism?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
25. Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish (B) secure (C) decode (D) change
26. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to
as
(A) sparks (B) green dots (C) snow (D) rain drops
27. I n circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is
67
(A) noise (B) audience (C) criticality (D) feedback

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28. Break-down in verbal communication is described as

(A) Short circuit (B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness (D) Entropy
29. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
(A) Technological theory (B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory (D) Information theory
30. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has bee n conferred on
(A) KaranJohar (B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar
31. Complete the series BB, FE, I I, ML, PP, ..by choosing one of the
following option given:
(A) TS (B) ST (C) RS (D) SR
32. A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking 6 km,
he turned to his left and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3 km after
turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far
is he away from his house?
(A) 3km (B) 4 km (C) 5 km (D) 6 km
33. I n a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of rs7, rs 8, rs 10
are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 23 (D) 29
34. I n certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In
this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE?
(A) OMESUCEM (B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM (D) OMESISCM
35. I f the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22,. is continued in the same pattern,
which one of the following is not a term of this series?
(A) 31 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 35
36. I f two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be
true but can not both be false, the relation between those two propositions is
called
(A) contradictory (B) contrary
(C) sub-contrary (D) subaltern
37. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many
numbers have been written?
(A) 32 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 38
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38. If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an
army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength. The
argument put above may be called as
(A) Analogical (B) De ductive

(C) Statistical (D) Causal
39. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code
which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment.
40. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each
other. The circle A represents the class of Indians, the circle B represents the
class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians, p, q, r, s
represent different regions.
Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists
who are not politicians.
Codes:
(A) q and s only (B) s only
(C) s and r only (D) p, q and s only
41. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the
premises (separate ly or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions:
(i) No cats are mammals. (ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats. (iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes:
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
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Read the following table carefully. Based upon this table answer questions
from 42 to 46: Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand
Hectares)
Government Private Tube Wells &
Year Tanks Other Sources Total
Canals Canals Other
1997-98 17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173
1998-99 17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411
1999-00 16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109
2000-01 15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076
2001-02 15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672
2002-03 13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778
2003-04 14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618

2004-05 14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867
2005-06 15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196
42. I dentify the source of Irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of
negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the
table.
(A) Government canals (B) Private canals

(C) Tube wells and other wells (D) Other sources
43. I n which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the
total net irrigated area was the highest?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01 (C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05
44. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest
percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997- 98 and 2005-06?
(A) Government canals (B) Private canals
(C) Tanks (D) Other sources
45. Find out the source of Irrigation that has registered die maximum
improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and
2003-04.
(A) Government canals (B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and other wells (D) Other sources
46. I n which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the
highest rate?
(A) 1998-99 (C) 2003-04 (B) 2000-01 (D) 2005-06
47. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
70
(A) RAM (B) ROM (C) CD-ROM (D) TCP

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48. Which one of the following is not. the same as the other three?
(A) MAC address (B) Hardware addres s
(C) Physical address (D) IP address
49. Identify the IP address from the following:

(A) 300-215 -317-3 (B) 302-215@ 417 -5
(C) 202 . 50 . 20 . 148 (D) 202-50-20-148
50. The acronym FTP stands for
(A) File Transfer Protocol (B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol (D) File Transfer Procedure
51. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format?
(A) PNG (B) GI F (C) BMP (D)GUI
52. The first web browser is
(A) Internet Explorer (B) Netscape
(C) World Wide We b (D) Firefox
53. Lahar is a natural disaster involving
(A) eruption of large amount of material (B) strong winds
(C) strong water waves (D) strong winds and water waves
54. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption
of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is
met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 x
106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A) 54 million metric tons (B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons (D) 2400 million metric tons
55. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in
recent times?
(A) Paris (B) London (C) Los Angeles (D) Beijing
56. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas (B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents (D) industrial effluents
57. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence
time in the atmosphere?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane (D) Nitrous oxide
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58. I n order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is

general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average
surface temperature of earth compared to that of per-industrial times by
(A) 1.5C to 2C (B) 2.0 C to 3.5 C

(C) 0.5C to l0C (D) 0.25 C to 0.5 C
59. The N ational Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union
Ministry of
(A) Environment (B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs (D) Defense
60. Match Lis t I and List II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List -I
a. Flood
b. Drought
c. Earthquake
d. Volcano
List II
1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
2. Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the
3. Avent through which molted substances come out
4. Excess rain and uneven distribution of water earth
Codes:
abcd
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Answer Key
Q1) A, Q2) D, Q3) B, Q4) C, Q5) A, Q6) B, Q7) C, Q8) B, Q9) C,
Q10) A, Q11) C, Q12) C, Q13) D, Q14) B, Q15) C, Q16) B, Q17) C,
Q18) D, Q19) C, Q20) A, Q21) D, Q22) B, Q23) D, Q24) A, Q25) C,
Q26) C, Q27) D, Q28) D, Q29) D, Q30) D, Q31) A, Q32) C, Q33) A,
Q34) C, Q35) C, Q36) C, Q37) A, Q38) A, Q39) C, Q40) B, Q41) C,
Q42) A, Q43) C, Q44) C, Q45) D, Q46) D, Q47) B, Q48) D, Q49) C,
Q50) A, Q51) D, Q52) C, Q53) A, Q54) B, Q55) D, Q56) C, Q57) C,
Q58) A, Q59) C, Q60) A
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UGC NET DECEMBER 2013

1. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?
(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
2. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment
and Accreditation Council?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of
higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.

Codes:
(A) l and 3 (B) l and 2
(C) l,2 and 4 (D) 2,3 and 4
3. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or
more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction (B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction (D) Writ Jurisdiction
4. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information
Commission?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners
are appointed by the President of India.
73
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs 25,000/-

4. It can punish an errant officer.
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Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 1,2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
6. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN The Hindu 2013 Election
Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
7. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will
be
(A) EKNJFTGP (B) EJKN FTGP (C) KNJFGTP (D) None of these
8. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs 7
whereas that of a mango is Rs 5/-. If the person has Rs 38, the number of
apples he can buy is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
9. A man pointing to a lady said, The son of her only brother is the brother of
my wife. The lady is related to the man as
(A) Mothers sister (B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law (D) Sister of Father-in-law
10. I n this series 6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7,1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6,
how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

11. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks
of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining
students is
(A) 85 (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 65
12. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as
Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years (B) 8 years (C) 12 years (D) 16 years
13. Which of the following is a social network?
(A) amazon.com (B) eBay (C) gmail.com (D) Twitter
14.The population information is called parameter while the corresponding

sample information is known as
74
(A) Universe (B) Inference (C) Sampling design (D) Statistics

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Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International
Center for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property
(I CCROM) was established with UNESCOs assistance in 1959. The inter-
governmental organization with 126 member states has done a commendable
job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards,
and sharing technical expertise. I n this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge
its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices
would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent
investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are
some of the positive lessons to imbibe.
Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritizing heritage with
significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less
endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long wav to go. Surveys indicate that
in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally
valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the
service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained
conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the
emphasis has been on setting up dedicate d labs and training ins titutions. It
would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream
research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.Increasing
funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part.The real challenge
is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts.
Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the

heritage structures, which international charters perhaps over emphasize. The
effort has to be broad-based: It must also serve as a means to improving the
quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first
tas k therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans
that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western
countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation
practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the
Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but
is yet to receive substantial state support.
More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilized by aligning it with the
green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially Eco-friendly and
conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices
campaign in future.
15. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the
Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCOs assistance to the educational institutions.
75
(D) after ASIs measures to protect the monuments

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16. The inter-govemment organization was appreciated because of

(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration
17. I ndian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organizations role and participation in the conservation
movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and
dissemination of awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of Indias meaningful assistance.
18. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small
number of prote cted monuments. As per given the total number of monuments
and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent (B) 11 percent (C) 12 percent (D) 13 percent
19. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural
heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering
institutes .
Choose correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (i) (ii), (iii ,(iv)
(B) (i). (ii) (iv)
(C) (i), (ii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)
20. I NTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural
heritage. The full form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
21. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher
should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punis h those causing disturbance.
76
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance.

(D) not bother of what is happening in the class.
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22. Effective teaching is a function of

(A) Teachers satisfaction.
(B) Teachers honesty and commitment.
(C) Teachers making students learn and understand.
(D) Teachers liking for professional excellence.
23. The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills (B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment (D) Inculcation of knowledge
24. Arrange the following teaching process in order:

(i) Relate the present knowledge with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (B) (ii), (i). (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii) (D) (iv), (i), (v). (ii), (iii)
25.CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engine ering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.
26. Teachers role at higher education level is to
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.
27.The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social Scientists
(B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian Political Analysts
28.The sequential operations in scientific research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B) Ge neralisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation,Generalisation, Co-variation.
29. I n sampling, the lottery method is used for
77
(A) Interpretation (B) Theorisation

Page
(C) Conceptualisation (D) Randomisation

30. Which is the main objective of research?

(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
31.Sampling error decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size (B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization (D) process of analysis
32. The principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) action research (B) applied research
(C) philosophical research (D) historical research
33. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience (B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience (D) Negative audience
34. Classroom communication can be described as
(A) Exploration (B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified (D) Discourse
35. I deological codes shape our collective
(A) Productions (B) Perceptions

(C) Consumptions (D) Creations
36. I n communication, myths but are have power
(A) uncultural. (B) insignificant.
(C) imprecise. (D) unpreferred
37. The first multi- lingual ne ws agency of India was

(A) Samachar (B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar (D) Samachar Bharati
38.Organisational communication can also be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication. (B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication. (D) mass communication.
39. I f two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such
that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
(A) Contradictory (B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary (D) Sub-alternation
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40. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and
speak Hindi as Archana does.Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali.
Kris hna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can
speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
(A) Archana (B) Bulbul (C) Ananya (D) Krishna
41.A stipulative definition may be said to be
(A) Always true (B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false (D) Neither true nor false
42.When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises

conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument (B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument (D) Analogical argument
43.Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun
and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by
various orders of creatures as the earth is.What type of argument is contained
in the above passage?
(A) Deductive (B) Astrological (C) Analogical (D) Mathematical
44. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two
premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises:
(i) All saints are religious, (major) (ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes:
(A) All saints are honest. (B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are religious. (D) All religious persons are honest
Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in
India from different regions of the world in different years. Study the table
carefully and answer questions from 45 to 48 based on this table.
Number of Foreign Tourist Arrivals

2007 2008 2009
Western Europe 1686083 1799525 1610086
North America 1007276 1027297 1024469
South Asia 982428 1051846 982633
South East Asia 303475 332925 348495
East Asia 352037 355230 318292

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West Asia 171661 215542 201110

Page
Total FTAs in India 5081504 5282603 5108579

45.Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign
tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe (B) North America
(C) South Asia (D) South East Asia
46. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate
of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009?
(C) South Asia (D) West Asia
47.out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of
foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe (B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia (D) West Asia
48. I dentify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist
arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(C) South Asia (D) East Asia
49. The post-industrial society is designated as
(A) Information society (B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society (D) Non-agricultural society
50. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication (B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction (D) Political campaigns
51. I nternal communication within institutions is done through
(A) LAN (B) WAN (C) EBB (D) MMS
52. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures (B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience (D) Preview of new films
53. The first virtual university of India came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Maharashtra

(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
54. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared.
Use the code given below:
(i) Limits to Growth (ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future (iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes:
80
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
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(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

55. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?

(A) Africa (B) Asia (C) South America (D) North America
56. Women are closer to nature than men. What kind of perspective is this?
(A) Realist (B) Essentialis (C) Feminist (D) Deep ecology

57. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of
tropical forests?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone
layer
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and
reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
58. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-
environment interaction is one of the following:
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach
59. The major source of the pollutant gas,carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban
areas is
(A) Thermal power sector (B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector (D) Domestic sector
60. I n a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen (C) LPG (D) CNG
Answer Key:
Q1) A, Q2) B, Q3) C, Q4) D, Q5) C, Q6) A, Q7) B, Q8) D, Q9) D,
Q10) C, Q11) A, Q12) C, Q13) D, Q14) D, Q15) A, Q16) B, Q17) C,
Q18) B, Q19) B, Q20) D, Q21) C, Q22) C, Q23) B, Q24) D, Q25) C,
Q26) B, Q27) A, Q28) A, Q29) D, Q30) D, Q31) B, Q32) B, Q33) B,

Q34) D, Q35) B, Q36) C, Q37) C, Q38) C, Q39) A, Q40) C, Q41) D,
Q42) C, Q43) C, Q44) C, Q45) B, Q46) D, Q47) A, Q48) C, Q49) A,
Q50) B, Q51) A, Q52) C, Q53) D, Q54) C, Q55) A, Q56) B, Q57) A,
Q58) D, Q59) B, Q60) B
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UGC NET JUNE 2013

1. www stands for
(A) work with web (B) word wide web
(C) world wide web (D) worth while web
2. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters (B) Sectors (C) Vectors (D) Head
3. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into
machine language is called a / an
(A) Compiler (B) Simulator (C) Translator (D) Interpreter

4. A Gigabyte is equal to
(A) 1024 Megabytes (B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes (D) 1024 Bytes
S. A Compiler is software which converts
(A). Characters to bits.

(B) High level language to machine language.
(C) Machine language to high level language
(D) Words to bits
6. Virtual memory
(A) an extremely large main memory.

(B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory
(D) a type of memory used in super computers.
7. The phrase tragedy of commons is in the context of
(A) tragic event related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.

(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources
(D) climate change
8. Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A) Ozone depletion (B) Hazardous waste

(C) Climate change (D) Nuclear-energy
9. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual
formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?
82
(A) Transport sector (B) Refrigeration and Airconditioning

(C) Wetlands (D) Fertilizers
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10. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of

(A) Oxides Of sulphur (B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM (D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
11. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to
cause damage to humans?
(A) Earth quakes (B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions (D) Droughts and Floods
12. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production
in India is around
(A) 2 3 % (B) 22-25% (C) l0-12% (D) < 1%
13. I n which of the following categories the enrollment of students in higher in
2010 11 was beyond the percentage Of seats reserved?
(A) OBC students (B) SC students
(C) ST students (D) Woman students
14. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University
Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956~by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities
15. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II)
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong;
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
16. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from
contesting elections?
Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their
political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
83
(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
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17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the
Supreme Court of India?
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
Codes:
(A) 1,2and3 (B) 1,3and4 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
18. I n the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only
to
(A) The President (B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister (D) The Cabinet Ministers
19. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for

(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself
20. N owadays the most effective mode of learning is

(A) Self study (B) Face-to-face learning
(C) e-Learning (D) Blended learning
Note: Both C & D are correct
21. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because
they
(A) can teach children better than men.
(B) know basic content better than men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.
(D) can deal with children with love and affection.
22. Which one is the highest order of learning?

(A) Chain learning (B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning (D) Conditioned-reflex learning
23. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) has control over students.
(B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.
(D) is very close to higher authorities.
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24. A diagram speaks more than 1000 words The statement means that the
teacher should
(A) use diagrams in teaching. (B) speak more and more in the class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class. (D) not speak too, much in the class.
25. A research paper
(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted
by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.
26. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good research ethics?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the
editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of
other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons, in a
research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favour
even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper
27. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?
(A) Simple Random Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling (D) Cluster Sampling
28. Which one of the following references is written as per Modem Language
Association (MLA) format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi: Prentice Hall of India,
2005
(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi: Prentice Hall of India,
2005
(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi, Prentice Hall of
India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi: Prentice Hall of India,
2005
29. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic

(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students
discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a
skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
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30. A working h ypothesis is

(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research
(D) a scientific theory
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (31 to 36):
The Taj Mahal has become one of the worlds best known monuments. This
domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end
of a four-quartered garden evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within
walls measuring 305 by 549 metres . Outside the walls, in an area known as
Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other
structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the
other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of
thirty villages given specifically for the tombs support.
The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by
contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tombs popular
name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Il1urninated Tomb
(Rauza-i-Munavvara). Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth
child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains
were temporarily buried. by the grief stricken emperor in a spacious garden
known as Zainabad on the bank of the nver Tapti.
SIX months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in
land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the- Mughal city
on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the
time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai
Singh. Although contemporary chronicle s indicate Jai Singhs willing
cooperation in this exchange, extant, farmans (imperial commands) indicate
that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleums
commencement. Jai Singhs further cooperation was insured by imperial orders
issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he provide stone masons and
carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his ancestral
domain, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahans additions to the
Agra fort were constructed concurrently.
Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence

indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan
most lavishly celebrate d the Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal, the entire
complex was virtually complete.
31. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from
the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of
marble is
(A) Burhanpur (B) Makrana (C) Amber (D) Jaipur
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32. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by

(A) Shah Jahan (B) Tourists (C) Public (D) European travelers
33. Point out the true statement from the following.
(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sandstone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr
Bagh..
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the Urs ceremony for Mumtaz
Mahal.
34. I n the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(A). Mumtazabad (B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad (D)Rauza-i-Munavvara.
35. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A) 1632 1636 A.D. (B) 1630 1643A.D.

(C) 1632 -1643 A.D. (D) 1636 1643 A.D.
36. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was
built, known as
(A) Farman (B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed (D) None oft he above
37. I n the process of Communication, which one Of the following is in the
chronological order?
(A) Communication, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
38,. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant (B) James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson (D) AO Hume
39. Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime
Minister
(A)Rajeev Gandhi (B) Narasimha Rao
(C) Indira Gandhi (D) Deve Gowda
40. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet
and mobile telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive Communication
87
(C) Development Communication

(D) Communitarian
Page

41 Classroom communication of a teacher rest on the principle of

(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment (D) Enlightenment
42 ________ is important when a teacher communicates with his / her student

(A) Sympathy (B) Empathy
(C) Apathy (D) Antipathy
43. I n a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be
represented by
(A) UJHFS (B) UHJSF

(C) JHUSF (D) HUJSF
44. I n a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each te am played
once against each of the other teams. The, number of teams participated in the
tournament is
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14

45. The missing number in the series 40, 120, 60, 180, 90,?, 135 is
(A) 110 (B) 270 (C) 105 (D) 210
46. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged
in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
(A) 18 (B) 24 (C) 33 (D) 36

47. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the
remaining numbers is
(A) 30 (B) 85/2 (C) 170/3 (D) 110
48. I f the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will
increase by
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 50%
49. I f the statement some men are honest is false, which among the following
statements will be true Choose the correct code given below
(i) All men are honest (ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest (iv) All men are dishonest
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii), (i) and (iv)
50. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question Bee
Honey, Cow Milk, Teacher ?
(A) Intelligence (B) Marks
88
(C) Lessons (D) Wisdom

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51. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P, If R is the
sister of S, how is Q related to T?
(A) Wife (B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law (D) Daughter-in-law
52. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or
stirring emotions is called
(A)Lexical (B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative (D)Precisions
53. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical
syllogisms
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical
syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a
categorical syllogism
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) & (iii) (B) (i) (ii) &(iv) (C) (ii) (iii)& (iv) (D) (i) (iii) &(iv)
54. I nductive reasoning presupposes
(A) Unity in human nature (B) Integrity in human nature
(C) Uniformity in human nature (D) Harmony in human nature
Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 55 to
60:
Area under Major Horticulture Crop (in lakh hectares)
Year Fruits Vegetables Flowers Total Horticulture
Area
2005-06 53 72 1 187
2006-07 56 75 1 194
2007-08 58 78 2 202
2008-09 61 79 2 207
2009-10 63 79 2 209
55. Which of the following, two year have recorded the highest
rate increase in area under the total horticulture?
89
(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07 (B) 2006-07 & 2008- 09

(C) 2007-08 & 2008- 09 (D) 2006-07 & 2007-08
Page

56. Shares of the area under flower vegetables and fruits in the area under total
horticulture are respectively
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent (B) 30, 38 an d 1 percent
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent (D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
57. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in are
during 2005-06 to 2009-10?
(A) Fruits (B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers (D) Total horticulture
58. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by
around10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10
(A) Fruits (B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers (D) Total horticulture
59. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the
area under total horticulture in 2007- 08?
(A) 53 percent (B) 68 percent (C) 79 percent (D) 100 percent
60. I n which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?
(A) 2006-07 (B) 2007-08 (C) 2008-09 (D) 2009-10
Answer Key
Q1) C, Q2) B, Q3) D, Q4) A, Q5) B,
Q6) C, Q7) C, Q8) C, Q9) A, Q10) B,
Q11) D, Q12) C, Q13) A, Q14) D, Q15) C,
Q16) A, Q17) D, Q18) C, Q19) C, Q20) D,
Q21) D, Q22) D, Q23) B, Q24) C, Q25) C,

Q26) B, Q27) C, Q28) D, Q29) D, Q30) C,
Q31) B, Q32) D, Q33) C, Q34) D, Q35) C,
Q36) A, Q37) C, Q38) B, Q39) C, Q40) B,
Q41) B, Q42) B, Q43) A, Q44) B, Q45) B,
Q46) C, Q47) D, Q48) D, Q49) B, Q50) D,

Q51) B, Q52) B, Q53) B, Q54) C, Q55) D,
Q56) A, Q57) C, Q58) B, Q59) B, Q60) A,
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1. The English word Communication is derived from the words
(A) Communis and Communicare (B) Communist and Commune
(C) Communism and Communalism (D) Communion and Common sense
Answer: (A)
2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of

communication to talk to the masses is known as
(A) Mass line communication (B) Group communication

(C) Participatory communication (D) Dialogue communication
Answer: (A)
3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as
(A) Transpersonal communication (B) Intrapersonal communication

(C) Interpersonal communication (D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (A)
4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is
(A) The Times of India (B) The Indian Express

(C) The Hindu (D) The Deccan Herald
Answer: (A)
5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was
(A) K.A. Abbas (B) Satyajit Ray

(C) B.R. Chopra (D) Dada Sahib Phalke
Answer: (D)
6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment

(C) Entertainment (D) Power equation
91
Answer: (B)
Page

7. The missing number in the series :

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is
(A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210
Answer: (D)
8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys

and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is
(A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 90 (D) 110
Answer: (B)
9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10

members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The
average of the whole group is
(A) 4 (B) 15/2 (C) 15/4 (D) 6

Answer: (C)
10. I f MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be

represented by
(A) AMSLR (B) MSLAR (C) MASRL (D) SAMLR
Answer: (A)
11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of
their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are
(A) 30, 20 (B) 35, 15 (C) 38, 12 (D) 40, 10

Answer: (A)
12. Let a means minus (), b means multiplied by (X), C means divided by (/)
and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14

Answer: (D)
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13. Consider the AssertionI and AssertionII and select the right code given
below:
AssertionI: Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take
away your wealth. But thieves cannot go to heaven. So you should keep your
wealth in heaven.
AssertionII: The difference of skin-colour of beings is because of the distance
from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is the
res ult of bodys reaction to the sun and its rays.
Codes :
(A) Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.
Answer: (B)
14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition some men are not
honest is contradicted?
(A) All men are honest. (B) Some men are honest.
(C) No men are honest. (D) All of the above.
Answer: (A)
15. A stipulative definition is

(A) always true (B) always false
(C) sometimes true sometimes false (D) neither true nor false
Answer: (D)
16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question
mark.
Examine r Examinee, Pleader Client, Preceptor ?

(A) Customer
(B) Path-finder
(C) Perceiver
(D) Disciple
Answer: (D)
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Page

17. I f the statement most of the students are obedient is taken to be true,
which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed to be true?
I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.
Codes :
(A) I & II
(B) II & III

(C) III & IV
(D) II & IV
Answer: (C)
18. Choose the right code:

A deductive argument claims that:
I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained
in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.
Codes:
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III

(D) All the above
Answer: (A)
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Page

On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions
from 19 to 24 :
Government Expenditures on Social Services
(As percent of total expenditure)
Sl. 2007- 2008- 2009- 2010-

Items
No. 08 09 10 11
Social Services 11.06 12.94 13.06 14.02
Education, sports &
(a) 4.02 4.04 3.96 4.46
youth affairs
(b) Health & family welfare 2.05 1.91 1.90 2.03
Water supply, housing,
(c) 2.02 2.31 2.20 2.27
etc.
Information &
(d) 0.22 0.22 0.20 0.22
broadcasting
Welfare to SC/ST &
(e) 0.36 0.35 0.41 0.63
OBC
Labour and
(f) 0.27 0.27 0.22 0.25
employment
Social welfare &

(g) 0.82 0.72 0.79 1.06
nutrition
(h) North-eastern areas 0.00 1.56 1.50 1.75
(i) Other social services 1.29 1.55 1.87 1.34
Total Government
100.00 100.00 100.00 100.00
expenditure
19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure
has been less than
5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
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20. I n which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the
highest rate?
(A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09 (C) 2009-10 (D) 2010-11
Answer: (B)
21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share
of expenditures?
(A) North-eastern areas (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting (D) Social welfare and nutrition
Answer: (C)
22. Which of the following items expenditure share is almost equal to the
remaining three items in the given years?
(A) Information & broadcasting (B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment (D) Social welfare & nutrition
Answer: (D)
23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate
of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11?
(A) Education, sports & youth affairs (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Overall social services
Answer: (B)
24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in
terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10?
(A) Labour and employment (B) He alth & family welfare
(C) Social welfare & nutrition (D) Education, sports & youth affairs
Answer: (A)
25. ALU stands for

(A) American Logic Unit (B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit (D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
Answer: (D)
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Page

26. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board

called
(A) Microprocessor (B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board (D) Mother Board
Answer: (D)
27. Computer Virus is a

(A) Hardware (B) Bacteria
(C) Software (D) None of these
Answer: (C)
28. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) (17) 10 = (17)16 (B) (17)10 = (17) 8
(C) (17)10 = (10111)2 (D) (17) 10 = (10001)2
Answer: (D)
29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is _______.

(A) .pdf (B) .doc (C) .docx (D) .txt
Answer: (C)
30. _______ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your

computer.
(A) TCP (B) FTP (C) SMTP (D) POP
Answer: (D)
31. Which of the following is a source of methane?

(A) Wetlands (B) Foam Industry
(C) Thermal Power Plants (D) Cement Industry
Answer: (A)
32. Minamata disaster in Japan was caused by pollution due to

(A) Lead (B) Mercury (C) Cadmium (D) Zinc
97
Answer: (B)
Page

33. Biomagnification means increase in the

(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms
(B) number of s pecies
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass
Answer: (A)
34. N agoya Protocol is related to
(A) Climate change (B) Ozone depletion

(C) Hazardous waste (D) Biodiversity
Answer: (D)
35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to Indias
energy needs is
(A) Solar energy (B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower (D) Wind energy
Answer: (C)
36. I n case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies

(A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.
(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(D) two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.
Answer: (A)
37. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index?

(A) Literacy Rate (B) Gross Enrolment
(C) Sex Ratio (D) Life Expectancy
Answer: (C)
38. I ndia has the highest number of students in colleges after

(A) the U.K. (B) the U.S.A.
(C) Australia (D) Canada
Answer: (B)
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Page

39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney
General of India?
1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High
Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha.
4. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only
Answer: (A)
40. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be

discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official
notings ?
1. His Excellency
2. Mahamahim
3. Honble 4. Shri/Smt.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C)
41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of
States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be
reduced.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3

Answer: (D)
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Page

42. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List I List II
(a) Poverty Re duction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals

(b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c) Social Assistance Scheme (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (A)
43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have

(A) ability to learn only (B) requisite level of motivation only
(C) opportunities to learn only (D) desired level of ability and motivation
Answer: (D)
44. Classroom communication must be

(A) Teacher centric (B) Student centric
(C) General centric (D) Textbook centric
Answer: (B)
45. The best method of teaching is to

(A) impart information
(B) ask students to read books
(C) suggest good reference material
(D) initiate a discussion and participate in it
Answer: (D)
46. I nteraction inside the classroom should generate

100
(A) Argument (B) Information (C) Ideas (D) Controversy

Answer: (C)
Page

47. Spare the rod and spoil the child, gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be banned.
(B) corporal punis hment is not acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.
(D) children should be beaten with rods.
Answer: (C)
48. The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed
as
(A) Interpersonal (B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication (D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (C)
49. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research

journal?
(A) Impact factor (B) h-index
(C) g-index (D) i10-index
Answer: (A)
50. Good research ethics means

(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors
your research.
(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.
(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that
you are reviewing for an academic journal.
(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one
journal.
Answer: (B)
51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?

(A) Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
Answer: (D)
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Page

52. Which one of the following references is written according to American

Psychological Association (APA) format?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata
McGraw Hill
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata
McGraw Hill
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata
McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata
McGraw Hill
Answer: (A)
53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence :
1. Identification of research problem

2. Listing of research objectives
3. Collection of data
4. Methodology
5. Data analysis
6. Results and discussion
(A) 1 2 3 4 5 6
(B) 1 2 4 3 5 6
(C) 2 1 3 4 5 6
(D) 2 1 4 3 5 6
Answer: (B)
54. I dentify the incorrect statement:

(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for
further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C) Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.
Answer: (D)
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Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60):
The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization
process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of
such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and
squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc.
But what is the reality? Given the unprecedental increase in urban population
over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing
countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how
badly.
In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water
and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By
way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with
improved wate r in urban areas in Asias largest countries such as China, I ndia,
Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms
of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the last
decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional
urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made
significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together,
providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a
decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop
of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human
resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.
55. The popular vie w about the process of urbanization in developing countries
is
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Neutral (D) Unspecified
Answer: (B)
56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing

countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million (B) 40 million (C) 50 million (D) 60 million
Answer: (A)
57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in

(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has degraded.
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Answer: (A)
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58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality
of life?
(A) Tempo of urbanization
(B) Provision of basic services

(C) Access to social amenities
(D) All the above
Answer: (A)
59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on

(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Ge neration of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement
Answer: (C)
60. I n the above passage, the author intends to state

(A) The hazards of the urban life
(B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C) The awareness of human progress

(D) the limits to growth
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET JUNE 2012

1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of
communication :
(A) Visual one way (B) Audio-Visual one way

(C) Audio-Visual two way (D) Visual two way
Answer: (C)
2. MC N ational University of Journalism and Communication is located at
(A) Lucknow (B) Bhopal (C) Chennai (D) Mumbai

Answer: (B)
3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for broadcasting was named in the year
(A) 1926 (B) 1936 (C) 1946 (D) 1956
Answer: (B)
4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed ?

(A) NTCS (B) PAL (C) NTSE (D) SECAM
Answer: (B)
5. The term DAVP stands for

(A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity
(B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity
(C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity
(D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity
Answer: (D)
6. The term TRP is associated with TV shows stands for

(A) Total Rating Points (B) Time Rating Points
(C) Thematic Rating Points (D) Television Rating Points
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Answer: (D)
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7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence?

2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, _____
(A) 60 (B) 64 (C) 72 (D) 70
Answer: (C)
8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP

(A) N (B) M (C) O (D) L
Answer: (B)
9. Given that in a code language, 645 means day is warm; 42 means warm
spring and 634 means spring is sunny; which digit represents sunny ?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
Answer: (A)
10. The basis of the following classification is :

first President of India author of Godan books in my library, blue things and
students who work hard
(A) Common names (B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases (D) Indefinite description
Answer: (C)
11. I n the expression Nothing is larger than itself the relation is larger than is
(A) antisymmetric (B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive (D) irreflexive
Answer: (D)
12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before,
and more crimes being committed than ever before.
Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.

Choose the correct answer from below :
(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
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Answer: (A)
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13. I f the proposition All men are not mortal is true then which of the following
inferences is correct ? Choose from the code given below :
1. All men are mortal is true. 2. Some men are mortal is false.
3. No men are mortal is doubtful. 4. All men are mortal is false.
Code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Answer: (B)
14. Determine the nature of the following definition :

Abortion means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.
(A) Lexical (B) Persuasive (C) Stipulative (D) Theoretical

Answer: (B)
15. Which one of the following is not an argument ?

(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be
eating at night.
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.
Answer: (B)
16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to

(A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic
form.
(C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic
form
Answer: (A)
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17. Reasoning by analogy leads to

(A) certainty (B) definite conclusion
(C) predictive conjecture (D) surety
Answer: (C)
18. Which of the following statements are false ? Choose from the code given
below :
1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as true or false.
Code :
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
Answer: (C)
19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and

C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F ?
(A) B (B) C (C) D (D) E
Answer: (C)
20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer
reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter ?
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 33.33%
Answer: (A)
21. I f Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari
knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may
correctly conclude that
(A) y can be exactly determined

(B) y may be either of two values
(C) y may be any of three values
(D) there is no value of y satisfying these conditions
Answer: (A)
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22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The
first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9
AM. When will the reservoir be filled ?
(A) 11 AM (B) 12 N oon (C) 1 PM (D) 1:30 PM

Answer: (C)
23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the
electricity generation ?
(A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW (C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW

Answer: (A)
24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in

the electricity generation ?
(A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW (C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW
Answer: (B)
25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the

(A) Phone lines (B) LAN (C) Internet (D) a Server
Answer: (C)
26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which
stands for
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Answer: (B)
27. Which of the following is not a programming language ?

(A) Pascal
(B) Microsoft Office
(C) Java
(D) C++
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Answer: (B)
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28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is
equal to
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 10
Answer: (D)
29. I nternet explorer is a type of

(A) Operating System (B) Compiler
(C) Browser (D) IP address
Answer: (C)
30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which

(A) One automatically gets ones mail everyday
(B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write ones mail
(C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email
(D) One does not need any telephone lines
Answer: (C)
31. I rritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant

(A) Sulphur di-oxide (B) Ozone (C) PAN (D) Nitrous oxide
Answer: (C)
32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons ?

(A) Thermal power plants (B) Automobiles
(C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning (D) Fertilizers
Answer: (C)
33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?

(A) Clean air
(B) Fertile soil
(C) Fresh water
(D) Salt
Answer: (D)
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34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in

water ?
(A) Total dissolved solids (B) Coliform count
(C) Dissolved oxygen (D) Density
Answer: (D)
35. S and P waves are associated with

(A) floods (B) wind energy
(C) earthquakes (D) tidal energy
Answer: (C)
36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given
below :
List I List II
(i) Ozone hole (a) Tsunami
(ii) Greenhouse effect (b) UV radiations
(iii) Natural hazards (c) Methane
(iv) Sustainable development (d) Eco-centrism
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a)
Answer: (A)
37. I ndian Institute of Advanced Study is located at

(A) Dharmshala (B) Shimla (C) Solan (D) Chandigarh
Answer: (B)
38. I ndicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher

Education.
(A) 04 (B) 05 (C) 06 (D) 08
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Answer: (A)
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39. Which of the following rights was considered the Heart and Soul of the
Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ?
(A) Freedom of Speech (B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (D)
40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation (D) Sir Charles Metcalfe
Answer: (B)
41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include

1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3, 4 and 2

Answer: (B)
42. The President of India takes oath

(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.
Answer: (D)
43. I f you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with
normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class?
(A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.
(B) Take care of him sympathetically in the classroom.
(C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do
anything.
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(D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.
Answer: (D)
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44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test ?

(A) Reliability (B) Objectivity (C) Ambiguity (D) Validity
Answer: (C)
45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid ?

(A) Overhead projector (B) Blackboard
(C) Epidiascope (D) Slide projector
Answer: (B)
46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on
the blackboard ?
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by
them.
(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.
Answer: (D)
47. A teacher can be successful if he/she

(A) helps students in becoming better citizens
(B) imparts subject knowledge to students
(C) prepares students to pass the examination
(D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner
Answer: (D)
48. Dynamic approach to teaching means

(A) Teaching should be forceful and effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic

(C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D) The students should be required to learn through activities
Answer: (D)
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49. The research that aims at immediate application is

(A) Action Research (B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research (D) Fundamental Research
Answer: (A)
50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of
the following expressions is used ?
(A) ibid (B) et.al (C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit.
Answer: (A)
51. N ine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a
reference drawn from
(A) Vertical study (B) Cross-sectional study
(C) Time series study (D) Experimental study
Answer: (B)
52. Conferences are meant for

(A) Multiple target groups (B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research (D) All the above
Answer: (D)
53. Ex Post Facto research means

(A) The research is carried out after the incident
(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.
(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.
Answer: (A)
54. Research ethics do not include

(A) Honesty (B) Subjectivity (C) Integrity (D) Objectivity
Answer: (B)
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Page

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 :

James Madison said, A people who mean to be their own governors must arm
themselves with power that knowledge gives. I n India, the Official Secrets Act,
1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access to
information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But
in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more
openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step
forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process
that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the
Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, I would only like to see
that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive
spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument
for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and
effective Government functioning for the good of our People. He further said,
This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as
we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will
be kept under constant reviews.
The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the
Right to Information in Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could
be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the
work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny, Government of India
has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700 crores
which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and
categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate
under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public
authorities. The transformation from nontransparency to transparency and
public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.
55. A person gets power

(A) by acquiring knowledge (B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings (D) by denying public information
Answer: (A)
56. Right to Information is a major step forward to

(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly
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Answer: (A)
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57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill

(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a
friendly, caring and effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people
Answer: (B)
58. The Commission made the Bill effective by

(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation
Answer: (C)
59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government

(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three

organs of the State.
These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

Answer: (D)
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Page


1. Photo bleeding means
(A) Photo cropping (B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting (D) Photo colour adjustment
Answer: (D)
2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted

by
(A) Audience (B) Communicator

(C) Satellite (D) Media
Answer: (B)
3. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation?
(A) English (B) Hindi (C) Bengali (D) Tamil

Answer: (B)
4. Aspect ratio of TV Scree n is

(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 2 : 4
Answer: (A)
5. Communication with oneself is known as

(A) Organisational Communication (B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication (D) Intrapersonal Communication
Answer: (D)
6. The term SITE stands for

(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education
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Answer: (C)
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7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?

2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ___
(A) 76 (B) 74 (C) 75 (D) 50
Answer: (C)
8. Find the next letter for the series

MPSV..
(A) X (B) Y (C) Z (D) A
Answer: (B)
9. If 367 means I am happy; 748 means you are sad and 469 means happy
and sad in a given code, then which of the following represents and in that
code ?
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 4

Answer: (C)
10. The basis of the following classification is animal, man, house, book, and
student:
(A) Definite descriptions (B) Proper names

(C) Descriptive phrases (D) Common names
Answer: (D)
11. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it
came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (C)
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Page

12. The relation is a sister of is

(A) non-symmetrical (B) symmetrical
(C) asymmetrical (D) transitive
Answer: (D)
13. I f the proposition Vegetarians are not meat eaters is false, then which of
the following inferences is correct? Choose from the codes given below:
1. Some vegetarians are meat eaters is true.
2. All vegetarians are meat eaters is doubtful.
3. Some vegetarians are not meat eaters is true.
4. Some vegetarians are not meat eaters is doubtful.
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (A)
14. Determine the nature of the following definition: Poor means having an
annual income of Rs. 10,000.
(A) persuasive (B) prcising (C) lexical (D) stipulative
Answer: (B)
15. Which one of the following is not an argument?

(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.
Answer: (A)
16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of
Boolean Algebra of classes.
(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of
Boolean Algebra of classes.
(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help
of Boolean Algebra of classes.
119
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help
of Boolean Algebra of classes.
Page
Answer: (B)

17. I nductive logic studies the way in which a premise may

(A) support and entail a conclusion (B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion
(D) support a conclusion without entailing it
Answer: (D)
18. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from the codes given
below.
1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.

2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 4 alone (D) 3 and 4

Answer: (D)
19. I f the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square
increases by
(A) 60 % (B) 40 % (C) 196 % (D) 96 %

Answer: (D)
20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on
independently. The number of ways in which hall can be illuminated is
(A) 102 (B) 1023 (C) 210 (D) 10 !

Answer: (B)
21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?
(A) 100 (B) 110 (C) 120 (D) 180
Answer: (B)
22. I n a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and
every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is
120
(A) at least 30 (B) at most 20 (C) exactly 25 (D) exactly 5
Answer: (C)
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The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given
below, the percentage contribution to CO 2 emissions from various sectors is
indicated.
23. What is the absolute CO 2 emission from domestic sector?

(A) 1.5 mmt (B) 2.5 mmt (C) 1.75 mmt (D) 0.75 mmt
Answer: (D)
24. What is the absolute CO 2 emission for combined thermal power and
transport sectors?
(A) 3.25 mmt (B) 1.5 mmt (C) 2.5 mmt (D) 4 mmt
Answer: (A)
25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones?

(A) Windows Vista (B) Android (C) Windows XP (D) All of the above
Answer: (B)
26. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers
is smallest of all ?
(A) (1111) 2
(B) (1111)8
(C) (1111)10
(D) (1111) 16
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Answer: (A)
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27. High level programming language can be converted to machine language

using which of the following?
(A) Oracle (B) Compiler (C) Mat lab (D) Assembler
Answer: (B)
28. HTML is used to create

(A) machine language program (B) high level program
(C) web page (D) web server
Answer: (C)
29. The term DNS stands for

(A) Domain Name System (B) De fense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software (D) Dependent Name Server
Answer: (A)
30. I Pv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits
required for IPv6 addres s.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 addres s is same as number of bits required
for IPv6 addres s.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 addres s is less than number of bits required
for IPv6 addres s.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
Answer: (C)
31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide (B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide (D) Aerosols
Answer: (C)
32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen (B) Chlorofluorocarbons
122
(C) Carbon monoxide (D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons

Answer: (B)
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33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in
India?
(A) Solar energy (B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy (D) Tidal energy
Answer: (A)
34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?

(A) Transport sector (B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants (D) Hydropower plants
Answer: (B)
35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?

(A) Earthquake (B) Tsunami (C) Flash floods (D) Nuclear accident
Answer: (D)
36. Ecological footprint represents

(A) area of productive land and wate r to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO 2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
Answer: (A)
37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values (B) the social values

(C) the political values (D) the economic values
Answer: (A)
38. I ndicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of

India.
(A) 10 (B) 07 (C) 08 (D) 09
Answer: (B)
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Page

39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of

(A) The President of India (B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
Answer: (D)
40. Match the List I with the List II and select the correct answer from the
codes given below:
List I List II
(Commissions and Committees) (Year)

(a) First Administrative Reforms (i) 2005
Commission
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I (ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee (iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms (iv) 1953
Commission
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (B)
41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the

function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments
Answer: (C)
42. The members of Gram Sabha are

(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
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Answer: (D)
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43. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is
possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course. (B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation. (D) Formative evaluation.
Answer: (C)
44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he
visits the teachers house for the purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the students parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.
Answer: (D)
45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of
the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.
Answer: (D)
46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?

(A) Blackboard (B) Diorama (C) Epidiascope (D) Globe
Answer: (C)
47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask

(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time
Answer: (A)
48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher?

(A) He should be a learned person. (B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience. (D) He should be an expert in his subject.
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Answer: (C)
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49. A hypothesis is a
(A) law (B) canon (C) postulate (D) supposition
Answer: (D)
50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank
in India, which one of the following would you follow?
(A) Area Sampling (B) Multi-stage Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling (D) Quota Sampling
Answer: (B)
51. Controlled group condition is applied in

(A) Survey Research (B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research (D) Descriptive Research
Answer: (C)
52. Workshops are meant for

(A) giving lectures (B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories (D) hands on training/experience
Answer: (D)
53. Which one of the following is a research tool?

(A) Graph (B) Illustration (C) Questionnaire (D) Diagram
Answer: (C)
54. Research is not considered ethical if it

(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.
Answer: (B)
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Page

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55
to 60 :
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development,
consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This
inordinate development has led to the transcendental second reality of sacred
perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the
century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the first reality of
enlightened rationalism and the second reality of the Beyond have to be
harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are,
they portray the is of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The
ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ought
to be). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new
science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one
certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.
The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has
proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the
non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the two cultures, the
scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the
bedrock of a science of understanding in the new century. It will give new
meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value)
coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be
humanistically irresponsible.
55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on

(A) Consumerism (B) Mate rialism
(C) Spiritual devaluation (D) Inordinate development
Answer: (D)
56. The de facto values in the passage means

(A) What is (B) What ought to be (C) What can be (D) Where it is
Answer: (A)
57. According to the passage, the first reality constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity (B) Political development

(C) Sacred perception of life (D) Enlightened rationalism
Answer: (D)
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Page

58. Encounter of the two cultures, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature

(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
Answer: (A)
59. The contents of the passage are
(A) Descriptive
(B) Prescriptive
(C) Axiomatic
(D) Optional
Answer: (D)
60. The passage indicates that science has proved that

(A) universe is material
(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance
(D) humans are irresponsible

Answer: (B)
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Page

UGC NET JUNE 2011

1. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on
(A) Primary Data only
(B) Secondary Data only

(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as

(A) Descriptive Research
(B) Sample Survey
(C) Fundamental Research
(D) Applied Research
Answer: (C)
3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and

prepared a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as
(A) Seminar
(B) Workshop
(C) Conference
(D) Symposium
Answer: (B)
4. In the process of conducting research Formulation of Hypothesis is followed

by
(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
129
(D) Collection of Data

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Answer: (D)


All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government
records or parish birthlists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are
only the necessary means to understanding something other than the texts
themselves, such as a political action or a historical trend, whereas for the
intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts is itself the aim of
his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to draw on
the focus of other disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes
of their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects premises and
conclusions. Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent subdisciplines are
shifting and indistinct: the history of art and the history of s cience both claim a
certain autonomy, partly just because they require specialised technical skills,
but both can also be seen as part of a wider intellectual history, as is evident
when one considers, for example, the common stock of knowledge about
cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period.
Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a
producer of methods. His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is
trying to illuminate, not in having exclusive possession of either a corpus of
evidence or a body of techniques. That being said, it does seem that the label
intellectual history attracts a disproportionate share of misunderstanding.
It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really
mattered. The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians
bred a kind of philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was
what mattered. The prejudice was reinforced by the assertion that political
action was never really the outcome of principles or ideas that were more
flapdoodle. The legacy of this precept is still discernible in the tendency to
require ideas to have licensed the political class before they can be deemed
worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some reasons why the history of
art or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and
significance than the history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years
the mirror-image of this philistinism has been more common in the claim that
ideas of any one is of systematic expression or sophistication do not matter, as if
they were only held by a minority.
5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand

(A) the chosen texts of his own
(B) political actions
(C) historical trends

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(D) his enquiries

Answer: (A)
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6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of

(A) conclusions (B) any corpus of evidence
(C) distinctiveness (D) habitual interpretation
Answer: (D)
7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from

(A) a body of techniques (B) the common stock of knowledge
(C) the dominance of political historians (D) cosmological beliefs
Answer: (D)
8. What is philistinism?
(A) Reinforcement of prejudice (B) Fabrication of reasons
(C) The hold of land-owning classes (D) Belief that power and its exercise matter
Answer: (D)
9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as

part of
(A) literary criticism (B) history of science
(C) history of philosophy (D) intellectual history
Answer: (D)
10. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as
if they were held by a minority, is
(A) to have a licensed political class (B) a political action

(C) a philosophy of literature (D) the mirror-image of philistinism
Answer: (D)
11. Public communication tends to occur within a more
(A) complex structure

(B) political structure
(C) convenient structure
(D) formal structure
131
Answer: (C)
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12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal
signs is referred to as
(A) channelisation (B) mediation (C) encoding (D) decoding
Answer: (A)
13. Effective communication needs a supportive

(A) economic environment (B) political environment
(C) social environment (D) multi-cultural environment
Answer: (C)
14. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of

communication is an individuals
(A) personality (B) expectation (C) social status (D) coding ability
Answer: (D)
15. When communicated, institutionalised stereotypes become

(A) myths (B) reasons (C) experiences (D) convictions
Answer: (C)
16. I n mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receivers

(A) competence (B) pre-disposition (C) receptivity (D) ethnicity
Answer: (C)
17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR :

DENOMINATOR and then select the pair of words from the following which have
a similar relationship :
(A) fraction : decimal (B) divisor : quotient
(C) top : bottom (D) dividend : divisor
Answer: (D)
18. Find the wrong number in the sequence 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
132
(A) 130 (B) 142 (C) 153 (D) 165

Answer: (D)
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19. I f HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is
coded as
(A) BOBY (B) COBY (C) DOBY (D) OOBY
Answer: (B)
20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this
relationship, make the right choice for the second set:
K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?
(A) 10/8 (B) 10/18 (C) 11/19 (D) 10/19

Answer: (B)
21. I f A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand

for?
17, 19, 20, 9, 8

(A) Plane (B) Moped (C) Motor (D) Tonga
Answer: (B)
22. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to
increase, the ratio between the reduction in consumption and the original
consumption is
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 1 : 5 (D) 1 : 6
Answer: (C)
23. How many 8s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5
but not immediately followed by 3 ?
5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6
5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 3
133
Answer: (A)
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24. I f a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a
triangle a square, the shape of a wheel is
(A) Rectangle (B) Circle (C) Point (D) Triangle
Answer: (C)
25. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the
distribution of different crops as provided in the standard classification of crops
in India ?
(A) Pie diagram (B) Chorochromatic technique

(C) Isopleth technique (D) Dot method
Answer: (B)
26. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data
classification ?
(A) Qualitative (B) Normative (C) Spatial (D) Quantitative
Answer: (C)
27. Which one of the following is not a source of data ?

(A) Administrative records (B) Population census
(C) GIS (D) Sample survey
Answer: (A)
28. I f the statement some men are cruel is false, which of the following
statements/statement are/is true ?
(i) All men are cruel.
(ii) No men are cruel.
(iii) Some men are not cruel.
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) only
Answer: (D)
29. The octal number system consists of the following symbols :

(A) 0 7 (B) 0 9 (C) 0 9, A F (D) None of the above
134
Answer: (A)
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30. The binary equivalent of (19) 10 in signed magnitude system is

(A) 11101100 (B) 11101101 (C) 10010011 (D) None of these
Answer: (D)
31. DNS in internet technology stands for

(A) Dynamic Name System (B) Domain Name System
(C) Distributed Name System (D) None of these
Answer: (B)
32. HTML stands for

(A) Hyper Text Markup Language (B) Hyper Text Manipulation Language
(C) Hyper Text Managing Links (D) Hyper Text Manipulating Links
Answer: (A)
33. Which of the following is type of LAN ?

(A) Ethernet (B) Token Ring (C) FDDI (D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
34. Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) Smart cards do not require an operating system.
(B) Smart cards and PCs use some operating system.
(C) COS is smart card operating system.
(D) The communication between reader and card is in full duplex mode.
Answer: (B)
35. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year
(A) 1986 (B) 1988 (C) 1990 (D) 1992
Answer: (A)
36. I dentify the correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the
power sector in India :
135
(A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > wind (B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > wind
(C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind (D) Nuclear > hydro > wind>thermal
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Answer: (B)

37. Chromium as a contaminant in drinking wate r in excess of permissible

levels, causes
(A) Skeletal damage (B) Gastrointestinal problem
(C) Dermal and nervous problems (D) Liver/Kidney problems
Answer: (C)
38. The main precursors of winter smog are

(A) N 2O and hydrocarbons (B) NO x and hydrocarbons
(C) SO 2 and hydrocarbons (D) SO 2 and ozone
Answer: (B)
39. Flash floods are caused when

(A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable vertical
wind shear
(B) the atmosphere is stable
(C) the atmosphere is convectively unstable with no vertical windshear
(D) winds are catabatic
Answer: (A)
40. I n mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is

(A) transport sector (B) thermal power
(C) municipal waste (D) commercial sector
Answer: (C)
41. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Delhi (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (A)
42. Most of the Universities in India are funded by

(A) the Central Government
(B) the State Governments
(C) the University Grants Commission
(D) Private bodies and Individuals
136
Answer: (C)
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43. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and
Management education in India ?
(A) NCTE
(B) MCI
(C) AICTE
(D) CSIR
Answer: (C)
44. Consider the following statements :

Identify the statement which implies natural justice.
(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.
(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.
(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen
(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.

Answer: (C)
45. The President of India is

(A) the Head of State
(B) the Head of Government

(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government
Answer: (C)
46. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of
India ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Governor of a State

Answer: (D)
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Page

Not for Visually Handicapped Candidates

Questions 47 to 49 are based upon the following diagram in which there are
three interlocking circles A, P and S where A stands for Artists, circle P for
Professors and circle S for Sportspersons.
Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f:
47. The region which represents artists who are neither sportsmen nor
professors.
(A) d (B) e (C) b (D) g
Answer: (B)
48. The region which represents professors, who are both artists and
sportspersons.
(A) a (B) c (C) d (D) g
Answer: (A)
49. The region which represents professors, who are also sportspersons, but not
artists.
(A) e (B) f (C) c (D) g
Answer: (C)
138
Page

Questions 50 to 52 are based on the following data :

Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10
A.M. to 10:20 A.M. The data, thus, obtained is as follows :
X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68

63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64
50. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of
measurement, is
(A) 69 (B) 68 (C) 67 (D) 66

Answer: (B)
measurement, is
(A) 63 (B) 62 (C) 61 (D) 60

Answer: (C)
measurement, is
(A) 66 (B) 65 (C) 64 (D) 63
Answer: (B)
53. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should
(A) Allow students to do what they like.
(B) De al with the students strictly.
(C) Give the students some problem to solve.
(D) Deal with them politely and firmly.
Answer: (D)
54. An effective teaching aid is one which

(A) is colourful and good looking
(B) activates all faculties
(C) is visible to all students
(D) easy to prepare and use
139
Answer: (B)
Page

55. Those teachers are popular among students who

(A) develop intimacy with them (B) help them solve their problems
(C) award good grades (D) take classes on extra tuition fee
Answer: (B)
56. The essence of an effective classroom environment is

(A) a variety of teaching aids (B) lively student-teacher interaction
(C) pin-drop silence (D) strict discipline
Answer: (B)
57. On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to
introduce himself, he should
(A) ask them to meet after the class (B) tell them about himself in brief
(C) ignore the demand and start teaching (D) scold the student for this
unwanted demand
Answer: (B)
58. Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the
teacher
(A) frequently talks about values (B) himself practices them
(C) tells stories of great persons (D) talks of Gods and Goddesses
Answer: (B)
59. The essential qualities of a researcher are

(A) spirit of free enquiry (B) reliance on observation and evidence
(C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge (D) all the above
Answer: (D)
60. Research is conducted to

I. Generate new knowledge II. Not to develop a theory
III. Obtain research degree IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge
Which of the above are correct ?

(A) I, III & II (B) III, II & IV (C) II, I & III (D) I, III & IV
Answer: (D)
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1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?
(A) Socio-economic Status (B) Marital Status
(C) Numerical Aptitude (D) Professional Attitude
Answer: (D)
2. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His
research would be classified as
(A) Descriptive Survey (B) Experimental Research

(C) Case Study (D) Ethnography
Answer: (B)
3. The term phenomenology is associated with the process of

(A) Qualitative Research (B) Analysis of Variance
(C) Correlational Study (D) Probability Sampling
Answer: (A)
4. The Sociogram technique is used to study

(A) Vocational Interest (B) Professional Competence
(C) Human Relations (D) Achievement Motivation
Answer: (C)
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10:
It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all
nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented
the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it as
a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and
the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he
became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of
Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful
movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nation-
wide action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing so,
and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and
crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people
141
with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of united

action and sacrifice for a larger cause.
Page

Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and
every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes
that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The time was
ripe for it, of course, and circumstances and world conditions worked for this
change. But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and
conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and he released many of the bonds that
imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever
forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came over the Indian
people.
Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance
because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could
reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology
functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions
and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.
It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not
think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences.
But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised
mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the
Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they
indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and
activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi the question of
personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise
him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of
her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to
him by the British Government or others has been an ins ult to India and her
people.
5. Which one of the following is true of the given passage?
(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhis role in Indian movement for

independence.
(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in Indias freedom movement.
(C) The author is neutral on Gandhis role in Indias freedom movement.
(D) It is an account of Indian National Congresss support to the working-class
movement.
Answer: (B)
6. The change that the Gandhian movement brought among the Indian masses
was
(A) Physical (B) Cultural (C) Technological (D) Psychological

142
Answer: (D)
Page

7. To consider the nationalist movement or to criticise it as a working-class

movement was wrong because it was a
(A) historical movement (B) voice of the Indian people
(C) bourgeois movement (D) movement represented by Gandhi
Answer: (B)
8. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he could

(A) preach morality (B) reach the heart of Indians
(C) see the conflict of classes (D) lead the Indian National Congress
Answer: (B)
9. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they did not fit in
with
(A) objective conditions of masses (B) the Gandhian ideology
(C) the class consciousness of the people (D) the differences among masses
Answer: (A)
10. The author concludes the passage by

(A) criticising the Indian masses
(B) the Gandhian movement
(C) pointing out the importance of the personality of Gandhi
(D) identifying the sorrows of millions of Indians
Answer: (C)
11. Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication points are

referred to as
(A) Networked media (B) Connective media
(C) Nodal media (D) Multimedia
Answer: (A)
12. The information function of mass communication is described as

(A) diffusion (B) publicity C) surveillance (D) diversion
Answer: (C)
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13. An example of asynchronous medium is

(A) Radio (B) Television (C) Film (D) Newspaper
Answer: (D)
14. I n communication, connotative words are

(A) explicit (B) abstract (C) simple (D) cultural
Answer: (D)
15. A message beneath a message is labelled as

(A) embedded text (B) internal text
(C) inter-text (D) sub-text
Answer: (D)
16. I n analog mass communication, stories are

(A) static (B) dynamic (C) interactive (D) exploratory
Answer: (A)
17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS : NEVER and
then select from the following pair of words which have a similar relationship :
(A) often : rarely (B) frequently : occasionally
(C) constantly : frequentl (D) intermittently : casually
Answer: (A)
18. Find the wrong number in the sequence: 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27 (B) 34 (C) 43 (D) 48
Answer: (B)
19. I n a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in
the same code as
(A) 30 (B) 37 (C) 39 (D) 41
Answer: (B)
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Page

relationship, make the right choice for the second set: AF : IK : : LQ : ?
(A) MO (B) NP (C) OR (D) TV
Answer: (D)
21. I f 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Answer: (A)
22. I n an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in
English and 20% in both. The percentage of those who passed in both subjects
is
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40
Answer: (D)
23. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and
(b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can
logically follow ?
Statements:
I. Some flowers are red.
II. Some flowers are blue.
Conclusions:
(a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
(b) Some flowers are both red and blue.
(A) Only (a) follows. (B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow. (D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Answer: (D)
24. I f the statement all students are intelligent is true, which of the following
statements are false?
(i) No students are intelligent.
(ii) Some students are intelligent.
(iii) Some students are not intelligent.
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(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) only
Answer: (B)
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25. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude
with a universal statement is called
(A) Deductive Reasoning (B) Inductive Reasoning
(C) Abnormal Reasoning (D) Transcendental Reasoning
Answer: (B)
26. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation
two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two
ducks?
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4 (D) 3
Answer: (D)
27. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing
their trades.
(i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
(ii) Miss B sits right to the barber
(iii) The washerman sits right to the barber
(iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C
What are the trades of A and B?

(A) Tailor and barber (B) Barber and cook
(C) Tailor and cook (D) Tailor and washerman
Answer: (C)
28. Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between
two variables?
(A) Scatter Diagram (B) Frequency Distribution
(C) Two-way table (D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation
Answer: (D)
29. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP)?
(A) MTNL (B) BSNL
(C) ERNET India (D) Infotech India Ltd.
Answer: (D)
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30. The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols

(A) 0 7 (B) 0 9 , A F (C) 0 7, A F (D) None of these
Answer: (B)
31. The binary equivalent of (15) 10 is (2s complement system is used)

(A) 11110001 (B) 11110000 (C) 10001111 (D) None of these
Answer: (A)
32. 1 GB is equal to
(A) 230 bits (B) 230 bytes (C) 220 bits (D) 220 bytes
Answer: (B)
33. The set of computer programs that manage the hardware/software of a

computer is called
(A) Compiler system (B) Operation system
(C) Operating system (D) None of these
Answer: (C)
34. S/MIME in Internet technology stands for

(A) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(B) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
(C) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(D) Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
Answer: (A)
35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action
Plan of Government of India?
(A) Solar power (B) Waste to energy conversion
(C) Afforestation (D) Nuclear energy
Answer: (D)
36. The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should
not exceed
(A) 500 mg/L (B) 400 mg/L (C) 300 mg/L (D) 200 mg/L
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Answer: (A)
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37. Chipko movement was first started by

(A) Arundhati Roy (B) Medha Patkar
(C) Ila Bhatt (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
Answer: (D)
38. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
(A) SO 2 and O3 (B) SO 2 and NO 2
(C) HCHO and PAN (D) SO 2 and SPM
Answer: (C)
39. Assertion (A): Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.

Reason (R): They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
40. Volcanic eruptions affect

(A) atmosphere and hydrosphere (B) hydrosphere and biosphere
(C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere (D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and
atmos phere
Answer: (D)
41. I ndias first Defence University is in the State of

(A) Haryana (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab
Answer: (A)
42. Most of the Universities in India

(A) conduct teaching and research only
(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
(C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
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(D) promote research only
Answer: (C)
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43. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

(A) Election Commission (B) Finance Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission (D) Planning Commission
Answer: (D)
44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
(C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
Answer: (B)
45. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of
Indian democracy?
(A) Written Constitution
(B) No State religion
(C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Answer: (D)
46. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only
the President of India?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
(C) Advocate-General
(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Answer: (B)
47. I f two small circles represent the class of the men and the class of the
plants and the big circle represents mortality, which one of the following
figures represent the proposition All men are mortal. ?
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Answer: (C)
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The following table presents the production of electronic items (TVs and LCDs)
in a factory during the period from 2006 to 2010. Study the table carefully and
answer the questions from 48 to 52:
Year 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

TV 6000 9000 13000 11000 8000
LCDs 7000 9400 9000 10000 12000
48. I n which year, the total production of electronic items is maximum?
(A) 2006 (B) 2007 (C) 2008 (D) 2010

Answer: (C)
49. What is the difference between averages of production of LCDs and TVs from
2006 to 2008?
(A) 3000 (B) 2867 (C) 3015 (D) 2400

Answer: (Wrong question)
50. What is the year in which production of TVs is half the production of LCDs
in the year 2010?
(A) 2007 (B) 2006 (C) 2009 (D) 2008
Answer: (B)
51. What is the ratio of production of LCDs in the years 2008 and 2010?
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3
Answer: (B)
52. What is the ratio of production of TVs in the years 2006 and 2007?
(A) 6 : 7
(B) 7 : 6
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 2
Answer: (C)
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53. Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning. It may be
because such children
(A) Are gifted
(B) Come from rich families

(C) Show artificial behaviour
(D) Create indiscipline in the class
Answer: (A)
54. The most important quality of a good teacher is

(A) Sound knowledge of subject matter
(B) Good communication skills
(C) Concern for students welfare
(D) Effective leadership qualities
Answer: (A)
55. Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of teacher student

relationship?
(A) Very informal and intimate
(B) Limited to classroom only

(C) Cordial and respectful
(D) Indifferent
Answer: (C)
56. The academic performance of students can be improved if parents are

encouraged to
(A) supervise the work of their wards
(B) arrange for extra tuition
(C) remain unconcerned about it
(D) interact with teachers frequently

Answer: (A)
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57. I n a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be

(A) occasional roars of laughter
(B) complete silence
(C) frequent teacher-student dialogue

(D) loud discussion among students
Answer: (C)
58. I f a parent approaches the teacher to do some favour to his/her ward in the
examination, the teacher should
(A) try to help him
(B) ask him not to talk in those terms
(C) refuse politely and firmly
(D) ask him rudely to go away
Answer: (C)
59. Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe the meaning of
research as a process?
(A) Systematic Activity
(B) Objective Observation

(C) Trial and Error
(D) Problem Solving
Answer: (B)
60. Which of the following is not an example of a continuous variable?

(A) Family size
(B) Intelligence
(C) Height
(D) Attitude
Answer: (B)
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UGC NET JUNE 2010

1. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good
teacher ?
(A) Punctuality and sincerity

(B) Content mastery
(C) Content mastery and reactive
(D) Content mastery and sociable
Answer: (C)
2. The primary responsibility for the teachers adjustment lies with

(A) The children
(B) The principal
(C) The teacher himself
(D) The community

Answer: (B)
3. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100
students at B.Ed. level?
(A) 1 + 7
(B) 1 + 9
(C) 1 + 10
(D) 1 + 5
Answer: (C)
4. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability
among teachers is
(A) Digestive upsets (B) Explosive behaviour
(C) Fatigue (D) Worry
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Answer: (B)
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5. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.
(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.
(C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education.

(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.
Answer: (C)
6. A successful teacher is one who is
(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian

(B) Quite and reactive
(C) Tolerant and dominating
(D) Passive and active
Answer: (A)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.
The phrase What is it like? stands for a fundamental thought process. How
does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy
segments of earth space? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of
the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe? There is no such
thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every
microscopic point on the earths surface differs from every other such
point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because
they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the
abstract images and models developed in the human mind.
How are abstract images formed? Humans alone among the animals possess
language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images
of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced
because they attach a word symbol to them.
During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about
the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing
interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses
is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts
are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which
are theoretical, implying that they are not real.
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The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is

now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same
culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a
reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events
on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind
of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered.
Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are
derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the
educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens
or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of
scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and
procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly
behaviour.
7. The problem raised in the passage reflects on

(A) thought process
(B) human behaviour
(C) cultural perceptions
(D) professional opinion

Answer: (C)
8. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind

(A) Observation of things
(B) Preparation of mental images

(C) Expression through language
(D) To gain knowledge
Answer: (B)
9. Concept means
(A) A mental image
(B) A reality
(C) An idea expressed in language form
(D) All the above
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Answer: (C)
Page

10. The relation of Percept to Concept is

(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Reflective (D) Absolute
Answer: (C)
11. I n the passage, the earth is taken as

(A) The Globe (B) The Human Habitat
(C) A Celestial Body (D) A Planet
Answer: (C)
12. Percept means

(A) Direct observation through the senses
(B) A conceived idea
(C) Ends of a spectrum

(D) An abstract image
Answer: (B)
13. Action research means
(A) A longitudinal research

(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
(D) A research with socioeconomic objective
Answer: (C)
14. Research is
(A) Searching again and again
(B) Finding solution to any problem
(C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem

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Answer: (C)
Page

15. A common test in research demands much priority on

(A) Reliability (B) Use ability
(C) Objectivity (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
16. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.
(B) Survey of related literature
(C) Identification of problem

(D) Searching for solutions to the problem
Answer: (A)
17. I f a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative

style contributes more to institutional effectiveness ? This will be an example of
(A) Basic Research
(B) Action Research
(C) Applied Research
Answer: (C)
18. N ormal Probability Curve should be

(A) Positively skewed
(B) Negatively skewed
(C) Leptokurtic skewed

(D) Zero skewed
Answer: (D)
19. I n communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is
(A) audience attitude (B) audience knowledge

(C) audience education (D) audience income
157
Answer: (A)
Page

20. Post-modernism is associated with

(A) newspapers (B) magazines
(C) radio (D) television
Answer: (D)
21. Didactic communication is

(A) intra-personal (B) inter-personal
(C) organisational (D) relational
Answer: (B)
22. I n communication, the language is

(A) the non-verbal code (B) the verbal code
(C) the symbolic code (D) the iconic code
Answer: (B)
23. I dentify the correct sequence of the following:

(A) Source, channel, message, receiver
(B) Source, receiver, channel, message
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel

(D) Source, message, channel, receiver
Answer: (A)
24. Assertion (A): Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
Reason (R): Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are
violent in character.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (C)
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Page

25. When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error
in the area of a square will be
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2
Answer: (C)
26. On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January
12, 1979 was
(A) Thursday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Sunday
Answer: (B)
27. I f water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called
world, which of the following grows a fruit?
(A) Water (B) Tree (C) World (D) Earth
Answer: (C)
28. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B.

How is D related to E?
(A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father-in-law (D) Brother-in-law
Answer: (D)
29. I f INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded?

(A) CADNIHWCE (B) HANODEINR (C) AENIRHDCN (D) ECNARDNIH
Answer: (D)
30. Find the next number in the following series:

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63
(B) 65
(C) 67
(D) 69
Answer: (B)
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31. Which of the following is an example of circular argument?

(A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image.
(B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our
knowledge of God.
(C) Some of the Indians are great because India is great.
(D) Rama is great because he is Rama.
Answer: (B)
32. Lakshmana is a morally good person because

(A) he is religious (B) he is educated
(C) he is rich (D) he is rational
Answer: (D)
33. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and
(b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can
logically follow?
I. Some religious people are morally good.
II. Some religious people are rational.
Conclusions:
(a) Rationally religious people are good morally.
(b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good.
(A) Only (a) follows.
(B) Only (b) follows.
(C) Both (a) and (b) follow.

(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Answer: (C)
34. Certainty is
(A) an objective fact (B) emotionally satisfying

(C) logical (D) ontological
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Answer: (B)
Page

Questions from 35 to 36 are based on the following diagram in which there

are three intersecting circles I, S and P where circle I stands for Indians,
circle S stands for scientists and circle P for politicians. Different regions of the
figure are lettered from a to g.
35. The region which represents non Indian scientists who are politicians.
(A) f (B) d (C) a (D) c
Answer: (A)
36. The region which represents politicians who are Indians as well as
scientists.
(A) b (B) c (C) a (D) d
Answer: (C)
37. The population of a city is plotted as a function of time (years) in graphic

form below:
Which of the following inference can be drawn from above plot?

(A) The population increases exponentially.
(B) The population increases in parabolic fashion.
(C) The population initially increases in a linear fashion and then stabilizes.
(D) The population initially increases exponentially and then stabilizes.

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Answer: (D)
Page

In the following chart, the price of logs is shown in per cubic metre and that of
Plywood and Saw Timber in per tones. Study the chart and answer the
following questions 38, 39 and 40.
38. Which product shows the maximum percentage increase in price over the
period?
(A) Saw timber

(B) Plywood
(C) Log
Answer: (A)
39. What is the maximum percentage increase in price per cubic metre of log ?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 20
Answer: (D)
40. I n which year the prices of two products increased and that of the
third increased ?
(A) 2000
(B) 2002
(C) 2003
(D) 2006
162
Answer: (B)
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41. Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in
India ?
(A) National Sample Surveys
(B) Agricultural Statistics

(C) Census
(D) Vital Statistics
Answer: (A)
42. I n a large random data set following normal distribution, the ratio (%) of
number of data points which are in the range of (mean standard
deviation) to the total number of data points, is
(A) ~ 50%
(B) ~ 67%
(C) ~ 97%
(D) ~ 47%
Answer: (B)
43. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 16
Answer: (B)
44. Which one of the following is an example of Operating System?

(A) Microsoft Word
(B) Microsoft Excel
(C) Microsoft Access
(D) Microsoft Windows

Answer: (D)
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45. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal
number 23?
(A) 01011
(B) 10111
(C) 10011
Answer: (D)
46. Which one of the following is different from other members?

(A) Google
(B) Windows
(C) Linux
(D) Mac
Answer: (A)
47. Where does a computer add and compare its data?

(A) CPU
(B) Memory
(C) Hard disk

(D) Floppy disk
Answer: (C)
48. Computers on an internet are identified by
(A) e-mail address

(B) street address
(C) IP address
Answer: (C)
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49. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of

(A) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any
person.
(B) Establishment of Central, State and District Level Information Commissions

as an appellate body.
(C) Transparency and accountability in Public authorities.
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
50. Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage to property and
lives?
(A) Hydrological
(B) Hydro-meteorological
(C) Geological
(D) Geo-chemical
Answer: (B)
51. Dioxins are produced from
(A) Wastelands
(B) Power plants
(C) Sugar factories
(D) Combustion of plastics
Answer: (D)
52. The slogan A tree for each child was coined for
(A) Social forestry programme
(B) Clean Air programme
(C) Soil conservation programme
(D) Environmental protection programme

Answer: (A)
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53. The main constituents of biogas are

(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide
(B) Methane and Nitric oxide
(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide

(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide
Answer: (A)
54. Assertion (A): In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during
past several decades.
Reason (R): The population of the world has been growing significantly.
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (B)
55. Climate change has implications for

1. soil moisture
2. forest fires
3. biodiversity
4. ground water
Identify the correct combination according to the code:
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B)
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56. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council

(NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.
(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme
grading approach.
(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of
grading, which is not a progressive decision.
(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality
of education in the institution concerned.
Answer: (C)
57. Which option is not correct?

(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and
technical sphere fall
Under 64th entry of Union list.
(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd
Constitutional Amendment
Act 1976.
(C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.
(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education
in 2002 through 86th Cons titutional Amendment.
Answer: (C)
58. Which statement is not correct about the National Education Day of India?
(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.
(B) It is celebrate d on 11th November every year.
(C) It is celebrate d in the memory of Indias first Union Minister of Education,
Dr. Abul Kalam Azad.
(D) It is being celebrated since 2008

Answer: (A)
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59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
List I List II
(Articles of the
Constitution)
(I nstitutions)
(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323 (iii) Finance Commission at Union level

(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer: (A)
60. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956,
are not permitted to
(A) Offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.
(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and
overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC.
(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance
Education Council
Answer: (C)
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1. The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes through
its own channel is
(A) Osmania University

(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Answer: (D)
2. Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust
effectively with the classroom teaching?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching learning
3. Knowledge of students needs

4. Content mastery
(A) 1 & 3
(B) 2 & 3
(C) 2, 3 & 4
(D) 2 & 4
Answer: (C)
3. Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions

in India?
(A) NAAC and UGC

(B) NCTE and NAAC
(C) UGC and NCTE
(D) NCTE and IGNOU
Answer: (B)
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4. The primary duty of the teacher is to

(A) raise the intellectual standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard of the students
(C) help all round development of the students

(D) imbibe value system in the students
Answer: (C)
5. Micro teaching is more effective
(A) during the preparation for teaching-practice

(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
(D) always
Answer: (B)
6. What quality the students like the most in a teacher?

(A) Idealist philosophy (B) Compassion
(C) Discipline (D) Entertaining
Answer: (C)
7. A null hypothesis is
(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference between the variables

Answer: (A)
8. The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is
called
(A) Philosophical research (B) Historical research

(C) Mythological research (D) Content analysis
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Answer: (B)
Page

9. Action research is
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research

(D) Simulative research
Answer: (B)
10. The process not needed in Experimental Researches is
(A) Observation
(B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling
(D) Content Analysis
Answer: (B)
11. Manipulation is always a part of

(A) Historical research
(B) Fundamental research
(C) Descriptive research
(D) Experimental research

Answer: (C)
12. Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between

creativity and intelligence?
(A) 1.00
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.3
Answer: (A)
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Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 13 to 18:
The decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the
autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 the months which Perderel Moon while
editing Wavells Journal has perceptively described as The Edge of a Volcano.
Very foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of several
hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and
detaining without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by
holding the first trial in the Red Fort, Delhi in N ovember 1945, and putting on
the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz,
Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru
appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his barristers gown after 25
years), and the Muslim League also joine d the countrywide protest.
On 20 November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that there has seldom
been a matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe
to say, sympathy this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal
barriers. A journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the same
day reporte d that There is not the slightest feeling among them of Hindu and
Muslim A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is Muslim.
Some of these men are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a controversy
about Pakistan. The British became extremely nervous about the I.N.A. spirit
spreading to the Indian Army, and in January the Punjab Governor reported
that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had been attended by
Indian soldiers in uniform.
13. Which heading is more appropriate to assign to the above passage?

(A) Wavells Journal
(B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.A. Trials
(D) Red Fort Prisoners

Answer: (C)
14. The trial of P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon
symbolises
(A) communal harmony

(B) threat to all religious persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the natives
172
Answer: (C)
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15. I .N.A. stands for

(A) Indian National Assembly
(B) Indian National Association
(C) Inter-national Association

(D) Indian National Army
Answer: (D)
16. There has seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public
Interest and, it is safe to say, sympathy this particular brand of sympathy
cuts across communal barriers.
Who sympathises to whom and against whom?
(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K. Sehgal against the British
(C) Sikhs sympathised with Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled
Answer: (D)
17. The majority of people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising
Jinnah were the
(A) Hindus
(B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs
(D) Hindus and Muslims both
Answer: (B)
18. The sympathy of I ndian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A.
prisoners at Lahore indicates
(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(B) Rebellious nature of Indian soldiers

(C) Simply to participate in the reception party
173
Answer: (A)
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19. The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated
newspapers in the world is
(A) Great Britain
(B) The United States

(C) Japan
(D) China
Answer: (C)
20. The chronological order of non-verbal communication is

(A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
(C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols
(D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs
Answer: (A)
21. Which of the following statements is not connected with communication?

(A) Medium is the message.
(B) The world is an electronic cocoon.
(C) Information is power.

(D) Telepathy is technological.
Answer: (D)
22. Communication becomes circular when
(A) the decoder becomes an encoder

(B) the feedback is absent
(C) the source is credible
(D) the channel is clear
Answer: (A)
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23. The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai
(26/11) in 2008 was
(A) Orkut
(B) Facebook
(C) Amazon.com
(D) Twitter
Answer: (D)
24. Assertion (A): For an effective classroom communication at times it is

desirable to use the projection technology.
Reason (R): Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of
course contents.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
25. January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1,
1996?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Saturday
Answer: (B)
26. When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the
percentage error (%) in the area of a rectangle will be
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
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(D) 4
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Answer: (C)

27. The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be

(A) 74
(B) 75
(C) 76
Answer: (B)
28. There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions

can be answered in
(A) 20 ways
(B) 100 ways
(C) 240 ways
(D) 1024 ways
Answer: (D)
29. What will be the next term in the following?

DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?
(A) AKPO
(B) ABYZ
(C) JIRQ
(D) LMRS
Answer: (C)
30. Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1,040.
They used it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are the charges paid by Y?
(A) Rs. 290
(B) Rs. 320
(C) Rs. 360
(D) Rs. 440

Answer: (B)
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Page

31. Deductive argument involves

(A) sufficient evidence
(B) critical thinking
(C) seeing logical relations

(D) repeated observation
Answer: (C)
32. I nductive reasoning is based on or presupposes
(A) uniformity of nature

(B) God created the world
(C) unity of nature
(D) laws of nature
Answer: (A)
33. To be critical, thinking must be

(A) practical
(B) socially relevant
(C) individually satisfying
(D) analytical
Answer: (B)
34. Which of the following is an analogous statement?

(A) Man is like God
(B) God is great

(C) Gandhiji is the Father of the Nation
(D) Man is a rational being.
Answer: (A)
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Page

Questions from 35 - 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are
three intersecting circles. H representing The Hindu, I representing Indian
Express and T representing The Times of India. A total of 50 persons were
surveyed and the number in the Venn diagram indicates the number of persons
reading the newspapers.
35. How many persons would be reading at least two newspapers?

(A) 23 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 29
Answer: (C)
36. How many persons would be reading almost two newspapers?

(A) 23 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 48
Answer: (A)
37. Which of the following graphs does not represent regular (periodic)
behaviour of the variable f(t)?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (C)
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Page

Study the following graph and answer the questions 38 to 40:
38. I n which year total number of patients registered in hospital X and hospital
Y was the maximum?
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (C)
39. What is the maximum dispersion in the registration of patients in the two
hospitals in a year?
(A) 8000
(B) 6000
(C) 4000
(D) 2000
Answer: (A)
40. I n which year there was maximum decrease in registration of patients in

hospital X?
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (D)
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41. Which of the following sources of data is not based on primary data
collection?
(A) Census of India
(B) National Sample Survey

(C) Statistical Abstracts of India
(D) National Family Health Survey
Answer: (C)
42. Which of the four data sets have more dispersion?

(A) 88 91 90 92 89 91
(B) 0 1 1 0 1 2
(C) 3 5 2 4 1 5
(D) 0 5 8 10 2 8
Answer: (D)
43. Which of the following is not related to information security on the Internet?
(A) Data Encryption (B) Water marking
(C) Data Hiding (D) Information Retrieval
Answer: (D)
44. Which is the largest unit of storage among the following?

(A) Terabyte (B) Megabyte
(C) Kilobyte (D) Gigabyte
Answer: (A)
45. bit stands for

(A) binary information term
(B) binary digit
(C) binary tree

(D) Bivariate Theory
180
Answer: (B)
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46. Which one of the following is not a linear data structure?

(A) Array (B) Binary Tree
(C) Queue (D) Stack
Answer: (B)
47. Which one of the following is not a network device?

(A) Router (B) Switch
(C) Hub (D) CPU
Answer: (D)
48. A compiler is used to convert the following to object code which can be
executed
(A) High-level language (B) Low-level language
(C) Assembly language (D) Natural language

Answer: (A)
49. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in

(A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan (B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Malabar Coast (D) Delta regions

Answer: (A)
50. The Sagarmanthan N ational Park has been established to preserve the eco-
system of which mountain peak?
(A) Kanchenjunga (B) Mount Everest

(C) Annapurna (D) Dhaulavira
Answer: (B)
51. Maximum soot is released from
(A) Petrol vehicles (B) CNG vehicles

(C) Diesel vehicles (D) Thermal Power Plants
181
Answer: (D)
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52. Surface Ozone is produced from

(A) Transport sector (B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry (D) Chemical industry
Answer: (A)
53. Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited
most economically?
(A) Solar (B) Wind
(C) Geo-thermal (D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)

Answer: (A)
54. The most recurring natural hazard in India is

(A) Earthquakes (B) Floods
(C) Landslides (D) Volcanoes

Answer: (B)
55. The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the

establishment of 1500 Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs

(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by
public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Answer: (B)
56. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in

Parliament shall be transacted in
(A) English only
(B) Hindi only

(C) English and Hindi both
(D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
182
Answer: (C)
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57. Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?

(A) Seminar (B) Workshop
(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion
Answer: (D)
58. The Parliament in India is composed of

(A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President

(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Answer: (C)
59. The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal

System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education
contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D) Distance education systems contribution is not taken into account while
considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
Answer: (B)
60. Assertion (A): The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to
improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation
and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Answer: (A)
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Page

UGC NET JUNE 2009

1. Good evaluation of written material should not be based on:
(A) Linguistic expression (B) Logical presentation
(C) Ability to reproduce whatever is read (D) Comprehension of subject

Answer: (D)
2. Why do teachers use teaching aid?

(A) To make teaching fun-filled
(B) To te ach within understanding level of students

(C) For students' attention
(D) To make students attentive
Answer: (B)
3. Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of:

(A) Learning (B) Research
(C) Heredity (D) Explanation
Answer: (A)
4. Which among the following gives more freedom to the learner to interact?
(A) Use of film
(B) Small group discussion
(C) Lectures by experts
(D) Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV
Answer: (B)
5. Which of the following is not a product of learning?

(A) Attitudes (B) Concepts
184
(C) Knowledge (D) Maturation
Answer: (D)
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6. How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?

(A) Through its impartiality (B) Through its reliability
(C) Through its validity (D) All of these
Answer: (D)
7. Action-research is:
(A) An applied research
(B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research

(D) All the above
Answer: (B)
8. The basis on which assumptions are formulated:
(A) Cultural background of the country

(B) Universities
(C) Specific characteristics of the castes
(D) All of these
Answer: (A)
9. Which of the following is classified in the category of the developmental

research?
(A) Philosophical research (B) Action research
(C) Descriptive research (D) All the above
Answer: (D)
10. We use Factorial Analysis:

(A) To know the relationship between two variables
(B) To test the Hypothesis
(C) To know the difference between two variables

(D) To know the difference among the many variables
185
Answer: (C)
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Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15:

While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of
the country, it did help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society
and formed several progressive institutions during that process. One of the most
beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the British, was democracy.
Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings; democracy was and is
far better alternative to the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs, which
prevailed in India in the pre-British days.
However, one of the harmful traditions of British democracy inherited by India

was that of conflict instead of cooperation between elected members. This was
its essential feature. The party, which got the support of the majority of elected
members, formed the Government while the others constituted a standing
opposition. The existence of the opposition to those in power was and is
regarded as a hallmark of democracy.
In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is
not possible, it's rule by persons elected by the people. I t is natural that there
would be some differences of opinion among the elected members as in the rest
of the society.
Normally, members of any organizations have differences of opinion between

themselves on different issues but they manage to work on the basis of a
consensus and they do not normally form a division between some who are in
majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in opposition.
The members of an organization usually work on consensus. Consensus simply
means that after an adequate discussion, members agree that the majority
opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus persons who form a majority on
one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail may not be on the same side if
there is a difference on some other issue.
It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two party
system came to prevail in Britain and that is now being generally taken as the
best method of democratic rule.
Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party
system was not brought about in the country. It appears that to have two
parties in India of more or less equal strength - is a virtual impossibility. Those
who regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons into
consideration.
When the two party system got established in Britain, there were two groups
among the rules (consisting of a limited electorate) who had the same economic
interests among themselves and who therefore formed two groups within the
selected members of Parliament.
There were members of the British aristocracy (which landed interests and
186
consisting of lord, barons etc) and members of the new commercial class
consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups were more or less of equal
Page
strength and they were able to establish their separate rule at different times.


11. I n pre-British period, when India was ruled by the independent rulers:
(A) Peace and prosperity prevailed in the society
(B) People were isolated from political affairs
(C) Public opinion was inevitable for policy making
(D) Law was equal for one and all
Answer: (B)
12. What is the distinguishing feature of the democracy practiced in Britain?

(A) End to the rule of might is right.
(B) Rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
(C) It has stood the test of time.
(D) Cooperation between elected members.
Answer: (B)
13. Democracy is practiced where:

(A) Elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matter.
(B) Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine .
(C) Representatives of masses.
(D) None of these.
Answer: (B)
14. Which of the following is true about the British rule in India?
(A) It was behind the modernization of the Indian society.

(B) India gained economically during that period.
(C) Various establishments were formed for the purpose of progress.
(D) None of these.
Answer: (A)
15. Who became the members of the new commercial class during that time?
(A) British Aristocrats
(B) Lord and barons
(C) Political Persons
(D) Merchants and artisans
187
Answer: (D)
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16. Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is very
popular throughout the world?
(A) TPS
(B) Telepresence
(C) Video conference
(D) Video teletext
Answer: (C)
17. Which is not 24 hours news channel?

(A) NDTV24x7
(B) ZEE N ews
(C) Aajtak
(D) Lok Sabha channel
Answer: (D)
18. The main objective of F.M. station in radio is:

(A) Information, Entertainment and Tourism
(B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction
(C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment

(D) Entertainment only
Answer: (B)
19. I n communication chatting in internet is:
(A) Verbal communication

(B) Non verbal communication
(C) Parallel communication
(D) Grapevine communication
Answer: (C)
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Page

20. Match List-I with List-II and select List-I t the correct answer using the
codes gh List-II
(Artists) (Art)
(a) Pandit Jasraj (i) Hindustani vocalist

(b) Kishan Maharaj (ii) Sitar
(c) Ravi Shankar (iii) Tabla
(d) Udai Shankar (iv) Dance
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (C)
21. I nsert the missing number in the following:

3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48
(A) 37
(B) 40
(C) 38
(D) 45
Answer: (C)
22. I n a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be written
in that code?
(A) SPEST
(B) SPSET
(C) SPETS
(D) SEPTS
Answer: (C)
189
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23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this
relationship mark the right choice for the second set: BDFH : OMKI : : GHIK : ?
(A) FHJL
(B) RPNL
(C) LNPR
(D) LJHF
Answer: (C)
24. What was the day of the week on 1st January 2001?
(A) Friday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Sunday
(D) Wednesday
25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A) 27
(B) 34
(C) 43
(D) 48
Answer: (B)
26. I n a deductive argument conclusion is:
(A) Summing up of the premises

(B) Not necessarily based on premises
(C) Entailed by the premises
(D) Additional to the premises
Answer: (C)
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Page

27. 'No man are mortal' is contradictory of:

(A) Some man are mortal
(B) Some man are not mortal
(C) All men are mortal

(D) No mortal is man
Answer: (A)
28. A deductive argument is valid if:
(A) premises are false and conclusion true

(B) premises are false and conclusion is also false
(C) premises are true and conclusion is false
(D) premises are true and conclusion is true
Answer: (D)
29. Structure of logical argument is based on:

(A) Formal validity
(B) Mate rial truth
(C) Linguistic expression
(D) Aptness of examples

Answer: (A)
30. Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South
and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each
other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South. Which direction are
the ladies facing to?
(A) East and West
(B) North and West
(C) South and East
(D) None of these

Answer: (B)
191
Page

Questions 31 and 32 are based on the following venn diagram in which there
are three intersecting circles representing Hindi knowing persons, English
knowing persons and persons who are working as teachers. Different regions so
obtained in the figure are marked as a, b, c, d, e, f and g.
31. I f you want to select Hindi and English knowing teachers, which of the
following is to be selected?
(A) g
(B) b
(C) c
(D) e
Answer: (C)
32. I f you want to select persons, who do not know English and are not
teachers, which of the region is to be selected?
(A) e
(B) g
(C) b
(D) a
Answer: (B)
192
Page

Study the following graph carefully and answer questions 33 to 35.
33. I n which year the quantity of engineering goods' exports was maximum?
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2004
(D) 2007
Answer: (B)
34. I n which year the value of engineering goods decreased by 50 percent

compared to the previous year?
(A) 2004
(B) 2007
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (B)
35. I n which year the quantity of exports was 100 percent higher than the
quantity of previous year?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
193
Answer: (C)
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36. What do you need to put your web pages on the www?
(A) a connection to internet
(B) a web browser
(C) a web server

(D) all of the above
Answer: (D)
37. Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services in India?
(A) Essar (B) BPL

(C) Hutchison (D) Airtel
Answer: (B)
38. Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from:
(A) Bangalore (B) Sri Harikota

(C) Chennai (D) Ahmedabad
Answer: (B)
39. What is blog?
(A) Online music

(B) Intranet
(C) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
(D) A personal or corporate Google search
Answer: (C)
40. Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website?

(A) www.jeevansathi.com
(B) www.bharatmatrimony.com
(C) www.shaadi.com
(D) www.u.k.singlemuslim.com
194
Answer: (D)
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41. Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable

changes in:
(A) physical characteristics of the environment
(B) biophysical characteristics of the environment
(C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment
(D) all the above
Answer: (D)
42. Bo g is a wetland that receives water from:

(A) nearby wate r bodies (B) melting
(C) rain fall only (D) sea only
Answer: (C)
43. Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes?
(A) Central Indian Highland (B) Coastal region
(C) Himalayan region (D) Indian desert
Answer: (C)
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
List-I List-II
(I nstitutes) (Cities)
(a) Central Arid Zone Institute (i) Kolkata
(b) Space Application Centre (ii) New Delhi

(c) Indian Institute of Public Administration (iii) Ahmedabad
(d) Headquarters of Indian Science Congress (iv) Jodhpur
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
195
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Page
Answer: (A)

45. I ndian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year:

(A) 2005 (B) 2004 (C) 2006 (D) 2007
Answer: (B)
46. The Kothari Commission's report was entitled on:

(A) Education and National Development
(B) Learning to be adventure
(C) Diversification of Education
(D) Education and socialization in democracy
Answer: (A)
47. Which of the following is not a Dualmode University?

(A) Delhi University (B) Bangalore University
(C) Madras University (D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

Answer: (D)
48. Which part of the Constitution of India is known as "Code of

Administrators?
(A) Part I (B) Part II (C) Part III (D) Part IV
Answer: (D)
49. Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary

and their social practices against any act of Parliament?
(A) Article 371 A (B) Article 371 B

(C) Article 371 C (D) Article 263
Answer: (A)
50. Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance?
(A) Right to information (B) Citizens' Charter

(C) Social Auditing (D) Judicial Activism
Answer: (D)
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Page


1. According to Swami Vivekananda, teacher's success depends on:
(A) His renunciation of personal gain and service to others
(B) His professional training and creativity

(C) His concentration on his work and duties with a spirit of obedience to God
(D) His mastery on the subject and capacity in controlling the students
Answer: (A)
2. Which of the following teacher, will be liked most?

(A) A teacher of high idealistic attitude
(B) A loving teacher
(C) A teacher who is discipline d
(D) A teacher who often amuses his students
Answer: (B)
3. A teacher's most important challenge is:

(A) To make students do their home work
(B) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable
(C) To maintain discipline in the class room

(D) To prepare the question paper
Answer: (B)
4. Value-education stands for:
(A) making a student healthy

(B) making a student to get a job
(C) inculcation of virtues
(D) all-round development of personality
197
Answer: (C)
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5. When a normal student behaves in an erratic manner in the class, you would:
(A) pull up the student then and there (B) talk to the student after the class
(C) ask the student to leave the class (D) ignore the student
Answer: (B)
6. The research is always -

(A) verifying the old knowledge (B) exploring new knowledge
(C) filling the gap between knowledge (D) all of these
Answer: (D)
7. The research that applies the laws at the time of field study to draw more and
more clear ideas about the problem is:
(A) Applied research (B) Action research
(C) Experimental research (D) None of these

Answer: (C)
8. When a research problem is related to heterogeneous population, the most

suitable sampling method is:
(A) Cluster Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Convenient Sampling (D) Lottery Method
Answer: (B)
9. The process not needed in experimental research is:
(A) Observation (B) Manipulation and replication

(C) Controlling (D) Reference collection
Answer: (A)
10. A research problem is not feasible only when:
(A) it is researchable (B) it is new and adds something to knowledge

(C) it consists of independent and dependent variables
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(D) it has utility and relevance

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Answer: (C)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 11 to 15:
Radically changing monsoon patterns, reduction in the winter rice harvest and
a quantum increase in respiratory diseases all part of the environmental
doomsday scenario which is reportedly playing out in South Asia. According to a
United Nations Environment Programme report, a deadly three-kilometer deep
blanket of pollution comprising a fearsome, cocktail of ash, acids, aerosols and
other particles has enveloped in this region. For India, already struggling to cope
with a drought, the implication of this are devastating and further crop failure
will amount to a life and death question for many Indians. The increase in
premature deaths will have adverse social and economic consequences and a
rise in morbidities will place an unbearable burden on our crumbling health
system. And there is no one to blame but ourselves. Both official and corporate
India has always been allergic to any mention of clean technology. Most
mechanical two wheelers roll of the assembly line without proper pollution
control system. Little effort is made for R&D on simple technologies, which
could make a vital difference to people's lives and the environment.
However, while there is no denying that South Asia must clean up its act,
skeptics might question the timing of the haze report. The Kyoto meet on
climate change is just two weeks away and the stage is set for the usual battle
between the developing world and the West, particularly the Unites States of
America. President Mr. Bush has adamantly refused to sign any protocol, which
would mean a change in American consumption level. U.N. environment report
will likely find a place in the U.S. arsenal as it plants an accusing finger towards
controls like India and China. Yet the U.S.A. can hardly deny its own dubious
role in the matter of erasing trading quotas.
Richer countries can simply buy up excess credits from poorer countries and
continue to pollute. Rather than try to get the better of developing countries,
who undoubtedly have taken up environmental shortcuts in their bid to catch
up with the West, the USA should take a look at the environmental profigacy,
which is going on within. From opening up virgin territories for oil exploration to
relaxing the standards for drinking water, Mr. Bush's policies are not exactly
beneficial, not even to America's interests. We realize that we are all in this
together and that pollution anywhere should be a global concern otherwise there
will only be more tunnels at the end of the tunnel.
11. Both official and corporate India is allergic to:

(A) Failure of Monsoon
(B) Poverty and Inequality
(C) Slowdown in Industrial Production

(D) Mention of Clean Technology
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Answer: (D)
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12. I f the rate of premature death increases it will:

(A) Exert added burden on the crumbling economy
(B) Have adverse social and economic consequences
(C) Make positive effect on our effort to control population

(D) Have less job aspirants in the society
Answer: (C)
13. According to the passage, the two wheeler industry is not adequately
concerned about:
(A) Passenger safety on the roads
(B) Life cover insurance of the vehicle owner
(C) Pollution control system in the vehicle
(D) Rising cost of the two wheelers
Answer: (B)
14. What could be the reason behind timing of the haze report just before the
Kyoto meet?
(A) United Nations is working hand-in-glove with U.S.A.
(B) Organizers of the forthcoming meet to teach a lesson to the U.S.A.

(C) Drawing attention of the world towards devastating effects of environment
degradation.
(D) U.S.A. wants to use it as a handle against the developing countries in the
forthcoming meet
Answer: (D)
15. Which of the following is the indication of environmental degradation in

South Asia?
(A) Social and economic inequality
(B) Crumbling health care system

(C) Inadequate pollution control system
(D) Radically changing monsoon pattern
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Answer: (D)
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16. Community Radio is a type of radio service that caters to the interest of:
(A) Local audience
(B) Education
(C) Entertainment
(D) News
Answer: (A)
17. Orcut is a part of:
(A) Intra personal Communication

(B) Mass Communication
(C) Group Communication
(D) Interpersonal Communication
Answer: (D)
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
List-I List - II
(Artists) (Art)
(a) Amrita Shergill (i) Flute

(b) T. Swaminathan Pillai (ii) Classical Song
(c) Bhimsenjoshi (iii) Painting
(d) Padma Subramaniyam (iv) Bharat N atyam
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Answer: (A)
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19. Which is not correct in latest communication award?

(A) Salman Rushdie - Booker's Prize - July 20, 2008
(B) Dilip Sanghavi - Business Standard CEO Award July 22, 2008
(C) Tapan Sinha - Dada Saheb Falke Award, July 21, 2008
(D) Gautam Ghosh - Osians Lifetime Achievement Award July 11, 2008
Answer: (D)
20. Firewalls are used to protect a communication network system against:
(A) Unauthorized attacks

(B) Virus attacks
(C) Data-driven attacks
(D) Fire-attacks
Answer: (A)
21. I nsert the missing number in the following:

2/3, 4/7, ? , 11/21, 16/31
(A) 10/8
(B) 6/10
(C) 5/10
(D) 7/13
Answer: (D)
22. I n a certain code, GAMESMAN is written as AGMEMSAN. How would

DI SCLOSE be written in that code?
(A) IDSCOLSE
(B) IDCSOLES
(C) IDSCOLES
(D) IDSCLOSE
Answer: (A)
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23. The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this
relationship mark the right choice for the second set:
AST : BRU : : N QV : ?
(A) ORW
(B) MPU
(C) MRW
(D) OPW
Answer: (D)
24. On what dates of April 1994 did SUNDAY fall?

(A) 2,9,16,23,30
(B) 3,10,17,24
(C) 4,11,18,25
(D) 1,8,15,22,29
Answer: (B)
25. Find out the wrong number in the sequence:

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
(A) 130
(B) 142
(C) 153
(D) 165
Answer: (D)
26. There are five books A, B, C, D and E. The book C lies above D, the book E
is below A and B is below E. Which is at the bottom?
(A) E
(B) B
(C) A
(D) C
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Answer: (B)
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27. Logical reasoning is based on:

(A) Truth of involved propositions
(B) Valid relation among the involved propositions
(C) Employment of symbolic language

(D) Employment of ordinary language
Answer: (B)
28. Two propositions with the same subject and predicate terms but different in
quality are:
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Subaltern
(D) Identical
Answer: (C)
29. The premises of a valid deductive argument:

(A) Provide some evidence for its conclusion
(B) Provide no evidence for its conclusion
(C) Are irrelevant for its conclusion

(D) Provide conclusive evidence for its conclusion
Answer: (D)
30. Syllogistic reasoning is:
(A) Deductive
(B) Inductive
(C) Experimental
(D) Hypothetical
Answer: (A)
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Study the following Venn diagram and answer questions nos. 31 to 33.
Three circles representing GRADUATES, CLERKS and GOVERNMENT
EMPLOYEES are intersecting. The intersections are marked A, B, C, e, f, g and
h. Which part best represents the statements in questions 31 to 33?
31. Some Graduates are Government employees but not as Clerks.

(A) h
(B) g
(C) f
(D) e
Answer: (C)
32. Clerks who are graduate s as well as government employees:

(A) e
(B) f
(C) g
(D) h
Answer: (D)
33. Some graduate s are Clerks but not Government employees.

(A) f
(B) g
(C) h
(D) e
Answer: (D)
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Study the following graph and answer questions numbered from 34 to 35:
34. Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2006?
(A) ab
(B) ce
(C) cd
(D) ef
Answer: (B)
35. Which of the firms got maximum profit growth rate in the year 2007?
(A) bdf
(B) acf
(C) bed
(D) ace
Answer: (A)
36. The accounting software 'Tally' was developed by:

(A) HCL
(B) TCS
(C) Infosys
(D) Wipro
Answer: (B)
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37. Errors in computer programmes are called:

(A) Follies
(B) Mistakes
(C) Bugs
(D) Spam
Answer: (C)
38. HTML is basically used to design:
(A) Web-page
(B) Web-site
(C) Graphics
(D) Tables and Frames
Answer: (A)
39. 'Micro Processing'is made for:

(A) Computer
(B) Digital System
(C) Calculator
(D) Electronic Goods

Answer: (B)
40. I nformation, a combination of graphics, text, sound, video and animation is

called:
(A) Multiprogramme
(B) Multifacet
(C) Multimedia
(D) Multiprocess
Answer: (C)
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41. Which of the following pairs regarding typical composition of hospital wastes
is incorrect?
(A) Plastic- 9-12%
(B) Metals- 1-2%

(C) Ceramic- 8-10%
(D) Biodegradable- 35-40%
Answer: (A)
42. Fres h water achieves its greatest density at:

(A) -4 C
(B) 0 C
(C) 4 C
(D) -2.5 C
Answer: (C)
43. Which one of the following is not associated with earthquakes?

(A) Focus
(B) Epicenter
(C) Seismograph
(D) Swells
Answer: (D)
44. The tallest trees in the world are found in the region :
(A) Equatorial region

(B) Temperate region
(C) Monsoon region
(D) Mediterranean region
Answer: (B)
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45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
List-I List - II
(National Parks) (States)

(a) Periyar (i) Orissa
(b) Nandan Kanan (ii) Kerala
(c) Corbett National Park (iii) Rajasthan
(d) Sariska Tiger Reserve (iv) Uttarakhand
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (A)
46. According to Radhakrishnan Commission, the aim of Higher Education is:

(A) To develop the democratic values, peace and harmony
(B) To develop great personalities who can give their contributions in politics,
administration, industry and commerce
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
47. The N ational Museum at New Delhi is attached to:

(A) Delhi University
(B) a Deemed University
(C) a Subordinate Office of the JNU
(D) Part of Ministry of Tourism and Culture

Answer: (D)
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48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given
below:
List-I List-II
(I nstitutions) (Locations)
(a) National Law Institute (i) Shimla
(b) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies (ii) Bhopal
(c) National Judicial Academy (iii) Hyderabad
(d) National Savings Institute (iv) Nagpur
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (D)
49. Election of Rural and Urban local bodies are conducted and ultimately
supervised by:
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) State Election Commission
(C) District Collector and District Magistrate
(D) Concerned Returning Officer
Answer: (B)
50. Which opinion is not correct?

(A) Education is a subject of concurrent list of VII schedule of Constitution of
India
(B) University Grants Commission is a statutory body
(C) Patent, inventions, design, copyright and trademarks are the subject of
concurrent list
(D) Indian Council of Social Science Research is a statutory body related to
research in social sciences
Answer: (C)
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UGC NET JUNE 2008

1. The teacher has been glorified by the phrase "Friend, philosopher and guide"
because:
(A) He has to play all vital roles in the context of society

(B) He transmits the high value of humanity to students
(C) He is the great reformer of the society
(D) He is a great patriot
Answer: (B)
2. The most important cause of failure for teacher lies in the area of:
(A) inter personal relationship
(B) lack of command over the knowledge of the subject
(C) verbal ability
(D) strict handling of the students
Answer: (B)
3. A teacher can establish rapport with his students by:

(A) becoming a figure of authority
(B) impressing students with knowledge and skill
(C) playing the role of a guide (D) becoming a friend to the students
Answer: (B)
4. Education is a powerful instrument of:
(A) Social transformation (B) Personal transformation

(C) Cultural transformation (D) All the above
Answer: (D)
5. A teacher's major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of the

student is affected through:
(A) Constant fulfilment of the students' needs
(B) Strict control of class-room activities
(C) Sensitivity to students' needs, goals and purposes
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(D) Strict reinforcement of academic standards

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Answer: (C)

6. Research problem is selected from the stand point of:

(A) Researcher's interest (B) Financial support
(C) Social relevance (D) Availability of relevant literature
Answer: (C)
7. Which one is called non-probability sampling?

(A) Cluster sampling (B) Quota sampling
(C) Systematic sampling (D) Stratified random sampling
Answer: (B)
8. Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in:

(A) Survey method (B) Historical studies
(C) Experimental studies (D) Normative studies
Answer: (B)
9. Field-work based research is classified as:

(A) Empirical (B) Historical
(C) Experimental (D) Biographical
Answer: (A)
10. Which of the following sampling method is appropriate to study the

prevalence of AIDS amongst male and female in India in 1976, 1986, 1996 and
2006?
(A) Cluster sampling

(B) Systematic sampling
(C) Quota sampling
(D) Stratified random sampling
Answer: (B)
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The fundamental principle is that Article 14 forbids class legislation but permits
reasonable classification for the purpose of legislation which classification must
satisfy the twin tests of classification being founded on an intelligible differentia
which distinguishes persons or things that are grouped together from those that
are left out of the group and that differentia must have a rational nexus to the
object sought to be achieved by the Statute in question. The thrust of Article 14
is that the citizen is entitled to equality before law and equal prote ction of laws.
In the very nature of things the society being composed of unequals a welfare
State will have to strive by both executive and legislative action to help the less
fortunate in society to ameliorate their condition so that the social and economic
ine quality in the society may be bridged.
This would necessitate a legislative application to a group of citizens otherwise
unequal and amelioration of whose lot is the object of state affirmative action. In
the absence of the doctrine of classification such legislation is likely to flounder
on the bed rock of equality enshrined in Article 14. The Court realistically
appraising the social and economic ine quality and keeping in view the
guidelines on which the State action must move as constitutionally laid down in
Part IV of the Constitution evolved the doctrine of classification. The doctrine
was evolved to sustain a legislation or State action designed to help weaker
sections of the society or some such segments of the society in need of succour.
Legislative and executive action may accordingly be sustained if it satisfies the
twin tests of reasonable classification and the rational principle correlated to the
object sought to be achieved.
The concept of equality before the law does not involve the idea of absolute
equality among human beings which is a physical impossibility. All that Article
14 guarantees is a similarity of treatment contra-distinguished from identical
treatment. Equality before law means that among equals the law should be
equal and should be e qually administered and that the likes should be treated
alike. Equality before the law does not mean that things which are different
shall be as though they are the same. I t of course means denial of any special
privilege by reason of birth, creed or the like. The legislation as well as the
executive government, while dealing with diverse problems arising out of an
infinite variety of human relations must of necessity have the power of making
special laws, to attain any particular object and to achieve that object it must
have the power of selection or classification of persons and things upon which
such laws are to operate.
11. Right to equality, one of the fundamental rights, is enunciated in the

constitution under Part III, Article:
(A)12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15
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Answer: (C)
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12. The main thrust of Right to equality is that it permits:

(A) class legislation
(B) equality before law and equal protection under the law
(C) absolute equality

(D) special privilege by reason of birth
Answer: (B)
13. The social and economic inequality in the society can be bridged by:
(A) executive and legislative action

(B) universal suffrage
(C) identical treatment
(D) none of the above
Answer: (A)
14. The doctrine of classification is evolved to:

(A) Help weaker sections of the society
(B) Provide absolute equality
(C) Provide identical treatment

Answer: (A)
15. While dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of
human relations, the government
(A) must have the power of making special laws

(B) must not have any power to make special laws
(C) must have power to withdraw equal rights
(D) none of the above
Answer: (A)
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16. Communication with oneself is known as:

(A) Group communication
(B) Grapevine communication
(C) Interpersonal communication

(D) Intrapersonal communication
Answer: (D)
17. Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India?
(A) NTSE
(B) PAL
(C) SECAM
(D) NTCS
Answer: (B)
18. All India Radio before 1936 was known as:

(A) Indian Radio Broadcasting
(B) Broadcasting Service of India
(C) Indian Broadcasting Service
(D) All India Broadcasting Service

Answer: (C)
19. The biggest news agency of India is:

(A) PTI (B) UNI (C) NANAP (D) Samachar Bharati
Answer: (A)
20. Prasar Bharati was launched in the year:

(A) 1995 (B) 1997 (C) 1999 (D) 2001
Answer: (B)
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21. A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter
while measure based upon a sample is known as:
(A) Sample parameter
(B) Inference
(C) Statistics
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
22. The importance of the correlation co-efficient lies in the fact that:
(A) There is a linear relationship between the correlated variables.
(B) It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
(C) It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association between
two variables.
(D) It is a non-parametric method of statistical analysis.

Answer: (C)
23. The F-test:

(A) is essentially a two tailed test.
(B) is essentially a one tailed test.

(C) can be one tailed as well as two tailed depending on the hypothesis.
(D) can never be a one tailed test.
Answer: (C)
24. What will be the next letter in the following series?

DCXW, FGVU, HGTS
(A) AKPO
(B) JBYZ
(C) JIRQ
(D) LMRS
Answer: (C)
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25. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two small
circles represent formal class-room education and distance education and the
big circle stands for university system of education, which figure represents the
university systems?
Answer: (B)
26. The statement, 'To be non-violent is good' is a:

(A) Moral judgement
(B) Factual judgement
(C) Religious judgement

(D) Value judgement
Answer: (A)
27. Assertion (A): Man is a rational being.
Reason (R): Man is a social being.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: (B)
28. Value Judgements are:

(A) Factual Judgements
(B) Ordinary Judgements
(C) Normative Judgements

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(D) Expression of public opinion

Answer: (C)
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29. Deductive reasoning proceeds from:

(A) general to particular
(B) particular to general
(C) one general conclusion to another general conclusion

(D) one particular conclusion to another particular conclusion
Answer: (A)
30. AGARTALA is written in code as 14168171, the code for AGRA is:
(A) 1641 (B) 1416 (C) 1441 (D) 1461

Answer: (D)
31. Which one of the following is the most comprehensive source of population
data?
(A) National Family Health Surveys (B) National Sample Surveys

(C) Census (D) Demographic Health Surveys
Answer: (C)
32. Which one of the following principles is not applicable to sampling?
(A) Sample units must be clearly defined

(B) Sample units must be dependent on each other
(C) Same units of sample should be used throughout the study
(D) Sample units must be chosen in a systematic and objective manner
Answer: (B)
33. I f January 1st, 2007 is Monday, what was the day on 1st January 1995?
(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Friday
(D) Saturday
Answer: (A)
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34. I nsert the missing number in the following series:

4 16 8 64 ? 256
(A) 16 (B) 24 (C) 32 (D) 20
Answer: (A)
35. I f an article is sold for Rs. 178 at a loss of 11%; what would be its selling
price in order to earn a profit of 11%?
(A) Rs. 222.50 (B) Rs. 267
(C) Rs. 222 (D) Rs. 220

Answer: (C)
36. WYSIWYG - describes the display of a document on screen as it will actually

print:
(A) What you state is what you get

(B) What you see is what you get
(C) What you save is what you get
(D) What you suggest is what you get
Answer: (B)
37. Which of the following is not a Computer language?

(A) PASCAL (B) UNIX (C) FORTRAN (D COBOL
Answer: (B)
38. A key-board has at least:

(A) 91 keys (B) 101 keys (C) 111 keys (D) 121 keys
Answer: (B)
39. An E-mail addres s is composed of:
(A) two parts (B) three parts (C) four parts (D) five parts
Answer: (A)
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40. Corel Draw is a popular:

(A) Illustration programme (B) Programming language
(C) Text programme (D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
41. Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the following ranges:
(A) l-2 KHz (B) 100-500 Hz
(C) 10-12 KHz (D) 13-16 KHz
42. Which one of the following units is used to measure intensity of noise?
(A) decibel
(B) Hz
(C) Phon
(D) Watts/m2
Answer: (A)
43. I f the population growth follows a logistic curve, the maximum sustainable
yield:
(A) is equal to half the carrying capacity.
(B) is equal to the carrying capacity.
(C) depends on growth rates.
(D) depends on the initial population.
Answer: (A)
44. Chemical weathering of rocks is largely dependent upon:

(A) high temperature
(B) strong wind action
(C) heavy rainfall

(D) glaciation
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Answer: (C)
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45. Structure of earth's system consists of the following:

Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer.
List-I (Zone) List-II (Chemical Character)
(a) Atmosphere (i) Inert gases

(b) Biosphere (ii) Salt, fresh water, snow and ice
(c) Hydrosphere (iii) Organic substances, skeleton matter
(d) Lithosphere (iv) Light silicates
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (B)
46. N AAC is an autonomous institution under the aegis of:

(A) ICSSR
(B) CSIR
(C) AICTE
(D) UGC
Answer: (D)
47. National Council for Women's Education was established in:
(A) 1958
(B) 1976
(C) 1989
(D) 2000
Answer: (A)
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48. Which one of the following is not situated in New Delhi?

(A) Indian Council of Cultural Relations
(B) Indian Council of Scientific Research
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training

(D) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies
Answer: (D)
49. Autonomy in higher education implies freedom in:
(A) Administration
(B) Policy-making
(C) Finance
(D) Curriculum development
Answer: (D)
50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given
below:
List-I (Institutions) List-II (Locations)
(a) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University (i) Mumbai
(b) S.N.D.T. University (ii) Baroda

(c) M.S. University (iii) Jodhpur
(d) J.N. Vyas University (iv) Sagar
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (i) (ii) (vi) (iv)
(C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer: (A)
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1. Verbal guidance is least effective in the learning of:
(A) Aptitudes
(B) Skills
(C) Attitudes
(D) Relationship
Answer: (B)
2. Which is the most important aspect of the teacher's role in learning?

(A) The development of insight into what constitutes an adequate performance
(B) The development of insight into what constitutes the pitfalls and dangers to
be avoided
(C) The provision of encouragement and moral support
(D) The provision of continuous diagnostic and remedial help

Answer: (A)
3. The most appropriate purpose of learning is:

(A) personal adjustment
(B) modification of behaviour

(C) social and political awareness
(D) preparing oneself for employment
Answer: (B)
4. The students who keep on asking questions in the class should be:
(A) encouraged to find answer independently
(B) advised to meet the teacher after the class
(C) encouraged to continue questioning
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(D) advised not to disturb during the lecture
Answer: (A)
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5. Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through:

(A) discussion method (B) le cture method
(C) audio-visual aids (D) text book method
Answer: (A)
6. Generalised conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically known as:

(A) Data analysis and interpretation (B) Parameter inference
(C) Statistical inference (D) All of the above
Answer: (A)
7. The experimental study is based on:

(A) The manipulation of variables (B) Conceptual parameters
(C) Replication of research (D) Survey of literature
Answer: (A)
8. The main characteristic of scientific research is:

(A) empirical (B) theoretical
(C) experimental (D) all of the above
Answer: (D)
9. Authenticity of a research finding is its:

(A) Originality (B) Validity
(C) Objectivity (D) All of the above
Answer: (C)
10. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?

(A) Area Sampling Technique
(B) Purposive Sampling Technique
(C) Systematic Sampling Technique

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Answer: (C)
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Gandhi's overall social and environmental philosophy is based on what human
beings need rather than what they want. His early introduction to the teachings
of Jains, Theosophists, Christian sermons, Ruskin and Tolstoy, and most
significantly the Bhagavad Gita, were to have profound impact on the
development of Gandhi's holistic thinking on humanity, nature and their
ecological interrelation. His deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and
rural population created an ambience for an alternative social thinking that was
at once far-sighted, local and immediate. For Gandhi was acutely aware that the
demands generated by the need to feed and sustain human life, compounded by
the growing industrialization of India, far outstripped the finite resources of
nature. This might nowadays appear naive or commonplace, but such
pronouncements were as rare as they were heretical a century ago. Gandhi was
also concerned about the destruction, under colonial and modernist designs, of
the existing infrastructures which had more potential for keeping a community
flourishing within ecologically-sensitive traditional patterns of subsistence,
especially in the rural areas, than did the incoming Western alternatives based
on nature-blind technology and the enslavement of human spirit and energies.
Perhaps the moral principle for which Gandhi is best known is that of active
non-violence, derived from the traditional moral restraint of not injuring another
being. The most refined expression of this value is in the great epic of the
Mahabharata, (c. 100 BCE to 200 CE), where moral development proceeds
through placing constraints on the liberties, desires and acquisitiveness
endemic to human life. One's action is judged in terms of consequences and the
impact it is likely to have on another. Jainas had generalized this principle to
include all sentient creatures and biocommunities alike. Advanced Jaina monks
and nuns will sweep their path to avoid harming insects and even
bacteria. Non-injury is a non-negotiable universal prescription.
11. Which one of the following have a profound impact on the development of
Gandhi's holistic thinking on humanity, nature and their ecological
interrelations?
(A) Jain teachings (B) Christian sermons
(C) Bhagavad Gita (D) Ruskin and Tolstoy

Answer: (C)
12. Gandhi's overall social and environmental philosophy is based on human

beings:
(A) need (B) desire

225
(C) wealth (D) welfare

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Answer: (A)

13. Gandhiji's deep concern for the disadvantaged, the poor and rural
population created an ambience for an alternative:
(A) rural policy
(B) social thinking

(C) urban policy
(D) economic thinking
Answer: (B)
14. Colonial policy and modernisation led to the destruction of:

(A) major industrial infrastructure
(B) irrigation infrastructure
(C) urban infrastructure
(D) rural infrastructure
Answer: (D)
15. Gandhi's active non-violence is derived from:

(A) Moral restraint of not injuring another being
(B) Having liberties, desires and acquisitiveness
(C) Freedom of action

(D) Nature-blind technology and enslavement of human spirit and energies
Answer: (A)
16. DTH service was started in the year:
(A) 2000 (B) 2002

(C) 2004 (D) 2006
Answer: (C)
17. N ational Press day is celebrated on:
(A) 16th November (B) 19th N ovember

(C) 21th November (D) 30th November
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Answer: (A)
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18. The total number of members in the Press Council of India are:
(A) 28
(B) 14
(C) 17
(D) 20
Answer: (A)
19. The right to impart and receive information is guaranteed in the

Constitution of India by Article:
(A) 19 (2) (a)
(B) 19(16)
(C) 19(2)
(D) 19(1) (a)
Answer: (D)
20. Use of radio for higher education is based on the presumption of:
(A) Enriching curriculum based instruction
(B) Replacing teacher in the long run

(C) Everybody having access to a radio set
(D) Other means of instruction getting outdated
Answer: (C)
21. Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark
which will complete the following series: 5, 4, 9, 17, 35, ? = 139
(A) 149
(B) 79
(C) 49
(D) 69
Answer: (D)
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Questions 22 to 24 are based on the following diagram in which there are three
interlocking circles I, S and P, where circle I stands for Indians, circle S for
Scientists and circle P for Politicians. Different regions in the figure are lettered
from a to f
22. The region which represents Non-Indian Scientists who are Politicians:
(A) f (B) d (C) a (D) c
Answer: (A)
23. The region which represents Indians who are neither Scientists nor
Politicians:
(A) g (B) c (C) f (D) a
Answer: (B)
24. The region which represents Politicians who are Indians as well as
Scientists:
(A) b (B) c (C) a (D) d
Answer: (C)
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25. Which number is missing in the following series?

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63
(B) 65
(C) 67
(D) 69
Answer: (B)
26. The function of measurement includes:

(A) Prognosis
(B) Diagnosis
(C) Prediction
Answer: (D)
27. Logical arguments are based on:

(A) Scientific reasoning
(B) Customary reasoning
(C) Mathematical reasoning

(D) Syllogistic reasoning
Answer: (D)
28. I nsert the missing number: 4 : 17 : : 7 : ?
(A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 50 (D) 51

Answer: (C)
29. Choose the odd word:

(A) Nun (B) Knight (C) Monk (D) Priest
Answer: (B)
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30. Choose the number which is different from others in the group:
(A) 49
(B) 63
(C) 77
(D) 81
Answer: (D)
31. Probability sampling implies:
(A) Stratified Random Sampling

(B) Systematic Random Sampling
(C) Simple Random Sampling
Answer: (D)
32. I nsert the missing number:

36/62 , 39/63, 43/61, 48/64, ?
(A) 51/65
(B) 56/60
(C) 54/65
(D) 33/60
Answer: (C)
33. At what time between 3 and 4 O'clock will the hands of a watch point in
opposite directions?
(A) 40 minutes past three
(C) 50 minutes past three
(B) 45 minutes past three
(D) 55 minutes past three
Answer: (C)
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34. Mary has three children. What is the probability that none of the three
children is a boy?
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/3
(C) 3/4 (D) 1

Description:
1. The probably of a boy are bbb, bbg, bgb, gbb, bgg, gbg, ggb, ggg, which is 8
'equally likely' cases, one meets desired criteria, probability of desired criteria is
1/8 .
2. Probability that first child is not boy= 1/2
Probability that second child is not boy= 1/2
Probability that third child is not boy= 1/2
Probability that none of the three children is a boy= 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2= 1/8
35. I f the radius of a circle is increased by 50 per cent. Its area is increased by:
(A) 125 per cent (B) 100 per cent
(C) 75 per cent (D) 50 per cent
Answer: (A)
36. CD ROM stands for:

(A) Computer Disk Read Only Memory
(B) Compact Disk Read Over Memory
(C) Compact Disk Read Only Memory

(D) Computer Disk Read Over Memory
Answer: (C)
37. The 'brain' of a computer which keeps peripherals under its control is called:
(A) Common Power Unit (B) Common Processing Unit

(C) Central Power Unit (D) Central Processing Unit
231
Answer: (D)
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38. Data can be saved on backing storage medium known as :

(A) Compact Disk Recordable (B) Computer Disk Rewritable
(C) Compact Disk Rewritable (D) Computer Data Rewritable
Answer: (C)
39. RAM means:

(A) Random Access Memory (B) Rigid Access Memory
(C) Rapid Access Memory (D) Revolving Access Memory
Answer: (A)
40. www represents:

(A) who what and where
(B) weird wide web
(C) word wide web

(D) world wide web
Answer: (D)
41. Deforestation during the recent decades has led to:

(A) Soil erosion
(B) Landslides
(C) Loss of bio-diversity
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
42. Which one of the following natural hazards is responsible for causing
highest human disaster?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Snow-storms
(C) Volcanic eruptions
232
(D) Tsunami
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Answer: (D)

43. Which one of the following is appropriate for natural hazard mitigation?
(A) International AID
(B) Timely Warning System
(C) Rehabilitation
(D) Community Participation
Answer: (B)
44. Slums in metro-city are the result of:
(A) Rural to urban migration

(B) Poverty of the city-scape
(C) Lack of urban infrastructure
(D) Urban-governance
Answer: (A)
45. The great Indian Bustard bird is found in:

(A) Thar Desert of India
(B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Temperate Forests in the Himalaya
(D) Tarai zones of the Himalayan Foot

Answer: (A)
46. The first Indian Satellite for serving the educational sector is known as:
(A) SATEDU (B) INSAT - B
(C) EDUSAT (D) INSAT-C

Answer: (C)
47. Exclusive educational channel of IGNOU is known as:

(A) GyanDarshan (B) Cyan Vani
(C) DoorDarshan (D) Prasar Bharati

233
Answer: (A)
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48. The head quarter of Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya

is situated in:
(A) Sevagram (B) New Delhi
(C) Wardha (D) Ahmedabad

Answer: (C)
49. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(I nstitutes) (Locations)
(a) Central Institute of English (i) Chitrakoot and Foreign
Languages
(b) Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya (ii) Hyderabad
(c) Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies (iii) New Delhi

(d) IGNOU (iv) Dharmasala
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (A)
50. The aim of vocationalization of education is:

(A) preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge
(B) converting liberal education into vocational education
(C) giving more importance to vocational than general education
(D) making liberal education job-oriented
Answer: (D)
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UGC NET JUNE 2007

1. Teacher uses visual-aids to make learning:
(A) simple (B) more knowledgeable
(C) quicker (D) interesting

Answer: (D)
2. The teacher's role at the higher educational level is to:

(A) provide information to students
(B) promote self-learning in students

(C) encourage healthy competition among students
(D) help students to solve their personal problems
Answer: (B)
3. Which one of the following teachers would you like the most:
(A) punctual (B) having research aptitude
(C) loving and having high idealistic philosophy
(D) who often amuses his students
Answer: (B)
4. Micro teaching is most effective for the student-teacher:

(A) during the practice-teaching (B) after the practice-teaching
(C) before the practice-teaching (D) none of the above
Answer: (A)
5. Which is the least important factor in teaching?

(A) punishing the students (B) maintaining discipline in the class
(C) lecturing in impressive way
235
(D) drawing sketches and diagrams on the black-board
Answer: (A)
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6. To test null hypothesis, a researcher uses:

(A) t test (B) ANOVA (C) X2 (D) factorial analysis
Answer: (B)
7. A research problem is feasible only when:

(A) it has utility and relevance (B) it is researchable
(C) it is new and adds something to knowledge (D) all the above
Answer: (D)
8. Bibliography given in a research report:

(A) shows vast knowledge of the researcher
(B) helps those interested in further research
(C) has no relevance to research
(D) all the above

Answer: (B)
9. Fundamental research reflects the ability to:

(A) Synthesize new ideals (B) Expound new principles
(C) Evaluate the existing material concerning research

(D) Study the existing literature regarding various topics
Answer: (B)
10. The study in which the investigators attempt to trace an effect is known as:
(A) Survey Research
(B) 'Ex-post Facto' Research

(C) Historical Research
(D) Summative Research
Answer: (B)
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All political systems need to mediate the relationship between private wealth
and public power. Those that fail risk a dysfunctional government captured by
wealthy interests. Corruption is one symptom of such failure with private
willingness-to-pay trumping public goals. Private individuals and business firms
pay to get routine services and to get to the head of the bureaucratic queue.
They pay to limit their taxes, avoid costly regulations, obtain contracts at
inflated prices and get concessions and privatised firms at low prices.
If corruption is endemic, public officials - both bureaucrats and elected officials

- may redesign programmes and propose public projects with few public benefits
and many opportunities for private profit. Of course, corruption, in the sense of
bribes, pay-offs and kickbacks, is only one type of government failure. Efforts to
promote 'good governance' must be broader than anti-corruption campaigns.
Governments may be honest but inefficient because no one has an incentive to
work productively, and narrow elites may capture the state and exert excess
influence on policy.
Bribery may induce the lazy to work hard and permit those not in the inner
circle of cronies to obtain benefits. However, even in such cases, corruption
cannot be confined to 'functional' areas. It will be a temptation whenever private
benefits are positive. It may be a reasonable response to a harsh reality but,
over time, it can facilitate a spiral into an even worse situation.
11. The governments which fail to focus on the relationship between private
wealth and public power are likely to become:
(A) Functional
(B) Dysfunctional
(C) Normal functioning
(D) Good governance
Answer: (B)
12. One important symptom of bad governance is:

(A) Corruption
(B) High taxes
(C) Complicated rules and regulations

(D) High prices
Answer: (A)
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13. When corruption is rampant, public officials always aim at many

opportunities for:
(A) Public benefits
(B) Public profit

(C) Private profit
(D) Corporate gains
Answer: (C)
14. Productivity linked incentives to public/private officials is one of the

indicatives for:
(A) Efficient government
(B) Bad governance
(C) Inefficient government
(D) Corruption
Answer: (A)
15. The spiralling corruption can only be containe d by promoting:

(A) Private profit
(B) Anti-corruption campaign

(C) Good governance
(D) Pay-offs and kick backs
Answer: (A)
16. Press Council of India is located at:

(A) Chennai
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Delhi
Answer: (D)
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17. Adjusting the photo for publication by cutting is technically known as:
(A) Photo cutting
(B) Photo bleeding
(C) Photo cropping

(D) Photo adjustment
Answer: (C)
18. Feed-back of a message comes from:
(A) Satellite
(B) Media
(C) Audience
(D) Communicator
Answer: (A)
19. Collection of information in advance before designing communication

strategy is known as:
(A) Feed-back
(B) Feed-forward
(C) Research study

(D) Opinion poll
Answer: (D)
20. The aspect ratio of TV screen is:
(A) 4:3 (B) 4:2 (C) 3:5 (D) 2:3

Answer: (A)
21. Which is the number that comes next in the sequence?

9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6,
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 4

Answer: (C)
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22. I f in a certain language TRIVANDRUM is coded as 2 5 9 5 3 5 4 7 5 8, how

would MADRAS be coded?
(A) 834536
(B) 834538
(C) 834530
(D) 834539
Answer: (A)
23. The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data

does not explain one of the following:
(A) Is 'X' related to 'Y'?
(B) How is 'X' related to 'Y'?
(C) How does 'X' affect the dependent variable 'Y' at different levels of another
independent variable 'K' or 'M'?
(D) How is 'X' by 'K' related to 'M'?
Answer: (D)
24. January 12, 1980 was Saturday, what day was January 12, 1979:
(A) Saturday
(B) Friday
(C) Sunday
(D) Thursday
Answer: (B)
25. How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year, if
the month ends on We dnesday?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
Answer: (B)
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26. From the given four statements, select the two which cannot be true but yet
both can be false.
Choose the right pair:
(i) All men are mortal

(ii) Some men are mortal
(iii) No man is mortal
(iv) Some men are not mortal
(A) (i) and(ii) (B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and(iii) (D) (ii) and(iv)

Answer: (D)
27. A Syllogism must have:

(A) Three terms (B) Four terms
(C) Six terms (D) Five terms
Answer: (B)
28. Copula is that part of proposition which denotes the relationship between:
(A) Subject and predicate (B) Known and unknown
(C) Major premise and minor premise (D) Subject and object
Answer: (A)
29. "E" denotes:

(A) Universal Negative Proposition (B) Particular Affirmative Proposition
(C) Universal Affirmative Proposition (D) Particular Negative Proposition

Answer: (A)
30. 'A' is the father of 'C, and 'D' is the son of 'B'. 'E' is the brother of 'A'. If 'C is
the sister of 'D', how is 'B' related to 'E'?
(A) daughter
(B) husband
(C) sister-in-law
(D) brother-in-law
241
Answer: (C)
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31. Which of the following methods will you choose to prepare choropleth map
of India showing urban density of population:
(A) Quartiles (B) Quintiles
(C) Mean and SD (D) Break - point

Answer: (A)
32. Which of the following methods is best suited to show on a map the types of
crops being grown in a region?
(A) Choropleth (B) Chorochromatic

(C) Choroschematic (D) Isopleth
Answer: (A)
33. A ratio represents the relation between:
(A) Part and Part (B) Part and Whole

(C) Whole and Whole (D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
34. Out of four numbers, the average of the first three numbers is thrice the
fourth number. If the average of the four numbers is 5, the fourth number is:
(A) 4.5
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 4
Answer: (C)
35. Circle graphs are used to show:

(A) How various sections share in the whole?
(B) How various parts are related to the whole?
(C) How one whole is related to other wholes

(D) How one part is related to other parts?
242
Answer: (B)
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36. On the keyboard of computer each character has an "ASCII" value which
stands for:
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Answer: (B)
37. Which part of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs calculation and
makes decisions:
(A) Arithematic Logic Unit (B) Alternating Logic Unit
(C) Alternate Local Unit (D) American Logic Unit
Answer: (A)
38. "Dpi" stands for:

(A) Dots per inch (B) Digits per unit
(C) Dots pixel inch (D) Diagrams per inch
Answer: (A)
39. The process of laying out a document with text, graphics, headlines and
photographs is involved in
(A) Deck Top Publishing (B) Desk Top Printing
(C) Desk Top Publishing (D) Deck Top Printing
Answer: (C)
40. Transfer of data from one application to another line is known as:
(A) Dynamic Disk Exchange
(B) Dodgy Data Exchange
(C) Dogmatic Data Exchange

(D) Dynamic Data Exchange
243
Answer: (D)
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41. Tsunami occurs due to:

(A) Mild earthquakes and landslides in the oceans
(B) Strong earthquakes and landslides in the oceans
(C) Strong earthquakes and landslides in mountains

(D) Strong earthquakes and landslides in deserts
Answer: (B)
42. Which of the natural hazards have big effect on Indian people each year?
(A) Cyclones (B) Floods

(C) Earthquakes (D) Landslides
Answer: (B)
43. Comparative Environment Impact Assessment study is to be conducted for:
(A) the whole year (B) three seasons excluding monsoon

(C) any three seasons (D) the worst season
Answer: (A)
44. Sea level rise results primarily due to:
(A) Heavy rainfall (B) Melting of glaciers

(C) Submarine volcanism (D) Seafloor spreading
Answer: (B)
45. The plume rise in a coal based power plant depends on:
(i) Buoyancy
(ii) Atmospheric stability
(iii) Momentum of exhaust gases
Identify the correct code:
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
244
Answer: (B)
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46. Value education makes a student:

(A) Good citizen (B) Successful businessman
(C) Popular teacher (D) Efficient manager
Answer: (A)
47. N etworking of libraries through electronic media is known as:

(A) Inflibnet (B) Libinfnet
(C) Internet (D) HTML
Answer: (A)
48. The University which telecasts interactive educational programmes through

its own channel is:
(A) B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad
(B) I.G.N.O.U.
(C) University of Pune
(D) Annamalai University
Answer: (B)
49. The Government established the University Grants Commission by an Act of

Parliament in the year:
(A) 1980 (B) 1948
(C) 1950 (D) 1956
Answer: (D)
50. Universities having central campus for imparting education are called:
(A) Central Universities
(B) Deemed Universities
(C) Residential Universities
(D) Open Universities

Answer: (A)
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1. Which of the following is not instructional material?
(A) Over Head Projector (B) Audio Casset
(C) Printed Material (D) Transparency
Answer: (D)
2. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning
(B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge
(C) Lecture Method is one way process
(D) During Lecture Method students are passive
Answer: (A)
3. The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is:

(A) To prepare students to pass examination
(B) To develop the capacity to take decisions
(C) To give new information
(D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture
Answer: (B)
4. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Reliability ensures validity
(B) Validity ensures reliability
(C) Reliability and validity are independent of each other
(D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity
Answer: (C)
5. Which of the following indicates evaluation?
(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
(B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English
(C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
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6. Research can be conducted by a person who:

(A) has studied research methodology (B) holds a postgraduate degree
(C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability (D) is a hard worker
Answer: (A)
7. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis
(B) Researcher must possess analytical ability
(C) Variability is the source of problem

(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
8. Which of the following is not the Method of Research?
(A) Observation (B) Historical

(C) Survey (D) Philosophical
Answer: (A)
9. Research can be classified as:
(A) Basic, Applied and Action Research

(B) Quantitative and Qualitative Research
(C) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
10. The first step of research is:

(A) Selecting a problem
(B) Searching a problem
(C) Finding a problem
(D) Identifying a problem

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Answer: (D)
Page

Read the following passage and answer the question nos. 11 to 15:
After almost three decades of contemplating Swarovski-encrusted navels on
increasing flat abs, the Mumbai film industry is on a discovery of India and
itself. With budgets of over 30 crore each, four soon to be released movies by
premier directors are exploring the idea of who we are and redefining who the
other is. It is a fundamental question which the bling-bling, glam-sham and
disham-disham tends to avoid. It is also a question which binds an audience
when the lights go dim and the projector rolls: as a nation, who are we? As a
people, where are we going?
The Germans coined a word for it, zeitgeist, which perhaps Yash Chopra would
not care to pronounce. But at 72, he remains the person who can best capture
it. After being the first to project the diasporic Indian on screen in Lamhe in
1991, he has returned to his roots in a new movie. Veer Zaara, set in 1986,
where Pakistan, the traditional other, the part that got away, is the lover and
the saviour. In Subhas Ghais Kisna, set in 1947, the other is the English
woman. She is not a memsahib, but a mehbooba. In Ketan Mehtas The Rising,
the East India Englishman is not the evil oppressor of countless cardboard
characterisations, which span the spectrum from Jewel in the Crown to Kranti,
but an honourable friend.
This is Manoj Kumars Desh Ki dharti with a difference: there is culture, not
contentious politics; balle balle, not bombs: no dooriyan (distance), only
nazdeekiyan (closeness).
All four films are heralding a new hero and heroine. The new hero is fallible and
vulnerable, committed to his dharma, but also not afraid of failure - less of a
boy and more of a man. He even has a grown up name: Veer Pratap Singh in
Veer-Zaara and Mohan Bhargav in Swades. The new heroine is not a babe, but
often a bebe, dressed in traditional Punjabi clothes, often with the stereotypical
body type as well, as in Bride and Prejudice of Gurinder Chadha.
11. Which word Yash Chopra would not be able to pronounce?

(A) Bling + bling (B) Zeitgeist
(C) Montaz (D) Dooriyan
Answer: (B)
12. Who made Lamhe in 1991?

(A) Subhash Ghai (B) Yash Chopra
(C) Aditya Chopra (D) Sakti Samanta
248
Answer: (B)
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13. Which movie is associated with Manoj Kumar?

(A) Jewel in the Crown (B) Kisna
(C) Zaara (D) Desh Ki dharti
Answer: (D)
14. Which is the latest film by Yash Chopra?

(A) Deewar (B) Kabhi Kabhi
(C) Dilwale Dulhaniya Le Jayenge (D) Veer Zaara
Answer: (D)
15. Which is the dress of the heroine in Veer-Zaara?

(A) Traditional Gujarati Clothes
(B) Traditional Bengali Clothes
(C) Traditional Punjabi Clothes

(D) Traditional Madras Clothes
Answer: (C)
16. Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication?
(A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.

(B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
(C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
(D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.
Answer: (A)
17. Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India?

(A) Zee News
(B) NDTV 247
(C) CNBC
(D) India News

249
Answer: (C)
Page

18. Consider the following statements in communication:

(i) Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Childrens Film Society, India.
(ii) Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of
India.
(iii) Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development
Corporation.
(iv) Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Preeti Zinta have all been recipients of Dada
Saheb Phalke Award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iv) only
(D) (iii) only
Answer: (B)
19. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(A) N. Ram: The Hindu (B) Barkha Dutt : Zee News
(C) Pranay Roy: NDTV 247 (D) Prabhu Chawla: Aaj taak
Answer: (B)
20. Because you deserve to know is the punchline used by:

(A) The Times of India (B) The Hindu
(C) Indian Express (D) Hindustan Times
Answer: (D)
21. I n the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is:
(A) 26
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) 32
250
Answer: (C)
Page

22. I f A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following
numbers stand for 17, 19, 20, 9 and 8:
(A) PLANE
(B) MOPED
(C) MOTOR
(D) TONGA
Answer: (B)
relationship, what is the right choice for the second set?
AST : BRU : : N QV : ?
(A) ORW
(B) MPU
(C) MRW
(D) OPW
Answer: (D)
24. I n a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is
written as:
(A) 30
(B) 37
(C) 38
(D) 39
Answer: (B)
25. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4. If its perimeter is
52 cm, the length of the smallest side is:
(A) 9 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 11 cm
(D) 12 cm
251
Answer: (D)
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26. Which one of the following statements is completely non-sensical?

(A) He was a bachelor, but he married recently.
(B) He is a bachelor, but he married recently.
(C) When he married, he was not a bachelor.

(D) When he was a bachelor, he was not married.
Answer: (B)
27. Which of the following statements are mutually contradictory?

(i) All flowers are not fragrant.
(ii) Most flowers are not fragrant.
(iii) None of the flowers is fragrant.
(iv) Most flowers are fragrant.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
28. Which of the following statements say the same thing?

(i) I am a teacher (said by Arvind)
(ii) I am a teacher (said by Binod)
(iii) My son is a teacher (said by Binods father)
(iv) My brother is a teacher (said by Binods sister)

(v) My brother is a teacher (said by Binods only sister)
(vi) My sole enemy is a teacher (said by Binods only enemy)
Code:
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
252
(C) (ii) and (vi) (D) (v) and (vi)

Answer: (B)
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29. Which of the following are correct ways of arguing?

(i) There can be no second husband without a second wife.
(ii) Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence Anil is a friend of Raj.
(iii) A is equal to B, B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C.

(iv) If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it.
Code:
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)
30. Which of the following statement/s are ALWAYS FALSE?

(i) The sun will not rise in the East some day.
(ii) A wooden table is not a table.
(iii) Delhi city will be drowned under water.
(iv) Cars run on water as fuel. Choose the correct answer from the code given
below:
Code:
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) alone

Answer: (A)
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Page

Study the following graph and answer question numbers 31 to 33:
31. I n the year 2000, which of the following Companies earned maximum
percent profit?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) d
(D) f
Answer: (D)
32. I n the year 2001, which of the following Companies earned minimum
percent profit?
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
Answer: (A)
33. I n the years 2000 and 2001, which of the following Companies earned
maximum average percent profit?
(A) f
(B) e
(C) d
(D) b
254
Answer: (A)
Page

34. Human Development Report for each of the year at global level has been
published by:
(A) UNDP (B) WTO
(C) IMF (D) World Bank

Answer: (A)
35. The number of students in four classes A, B, C, D and their respective mean
marks obtained by each of the class are given below:
Class A Class B Class C Class D

Number of students 10 40 30 20
Arithmetic mean 20 30 50 15
The combine d mean of the marks of four classes together will be:
(A) 32
(B) 50
(C) 20
(D) 15
Answer: (A)
36. LAN stands for:

(A) Local And National
(B) Local Area Network
(C) Large Area Network
(D) Live Area Network
Answer: (B)
37. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Modem is a software
(B) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage
(C) Modem is the operating system

(D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa
255
Answer: (D)
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38. Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer?

(A) Computer is a machine that can process information.
(B) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both
qualitative and quantitative data quickly and accurate ly.
(C) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly process
only quantitative data.
(D) Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and
accurately only qualitative information
Answer: (B)
39. I nformation and Communication Technology includes:

(A) On line learning
(B) Learning through the use of EDUSAT
(C) Web Based Learning

(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
40. Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of e-mail?
(A) www_mail.com
(B) www@mail.com
(C) WWW@mail.com
(D) www.mail.com
Answer: (B)
41. The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of:
(A) change in weather
(B) sinking of islands
(C) loss of vegetation

(D) extinction of animals
Answer: (A)
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Page

42. With absorption and decomposition of CO 2 in ocean water beyond desired

level, there will be:
(A) decrease in temperature
(B) increase in salinity

(C) growth of phytoplankton
(D) rise in sea level
Answer: (C)
43. Arrange column II in proper sequence so as to match it with column I and

choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Column I Column II
Water Quality pH Value
(a) Neutral (i) 5
(b) Moderately acidic (ii) 7

(c) Alkaline (iii) 4
(d) Injurious (iv) 8
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: (A)
44. The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused
by:
(A) Coal
(B) Firewood
(C) Refuse burning

(D) Vegetable waste product
257
Answer: (A)
Page

45. The urbanisation process accounts for the wind in the urban centres during
nights to remain:
(A) faster than that in rural areas (B) slower than that in rural areas
(C) the same as that in rural areas (D) cooler than that in rural areas
Answer: (A)
46. The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation

of:
(A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission (B) Mudaliar Commission

(C) Sargent Commission (D) Kothari Commission
Answer: (A)
47. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards
the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational institutions of their
own liking?
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 29
(C) Article 30 (D) Article 31
Answer: (C)
48. Match List - I (Institutions) with List - II (Functions) and select the correct
answer by using the code given below:
List - I (Institutions) List - II (Functions)
(a) Parliament (i) Formulation of Budget
(b) C & A.G. (ii) Enactment of Budget

(c) Ministry of Finance (iii) Implementation of Budget
(d) Executing Departments (iv) Legality of expenditure
(v) Justification of Income
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(C) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii)
258
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
Answer: (B)
Page

49. Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by:
(A) Indian Institute of Public Administration
(B) Administrative Staff College of India
(C) L.B.S. National Academy of Administration

(D) Centre for Advanced Studies
Answer: (C)
50. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections

are settled by:
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Joint Committee of Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Central Election Tribunal
Answer: (C)
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Page

UGC NET JUNE 2006

1. Which of the following comprise teaching skill?
(A) Black Board writing
(B) Questioning
(C) Explaining
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
2. Which of the following statements is most appropriate?

(A) Teachers can teach.
(B) Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn.
(C) Lecture Method can be used for developing thinking.
(D) Teachers are born.
Answer: (B)
3. The first Indian chronicler of Indian history was:

(A) Megasthanese
(B) Fahiyan
(C) Huan Tsang

(D) Kalhan
Answer: (D)
4. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Syllabus is a part of curriculum.

(B) Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum.
(C) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a
particular university.
260
(D) Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a

Page
Answer: (A)

5. Which of the two given options is of the level of understanding?

(I) Define noun.
(II) Define noun in your own words.
(A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II
Answer: (B)
6. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern
society?
(I) to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge.

(II) to discover new things.
(III) to write a critique on the earlier writings.
(I V) to systematically examine and critically analyse the investigations/sources
with objectivity.
(A) IV, II and I (B) I, II and III (C) I and III (D) II, III and IV
Answer: (A)
7. Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer
from the code given below:
List - I (Interviews) List - II (Meaning)

(a) structured interviews (i) greater flexibility approach
(b) Unstructured interviews (ii) attention on the questions to be
answered
(c) Focused interviews (iii) individual life experience
(d) Clinical interviews (iv) Pre determined question

(v) non-directive
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(C) (v) (ii) (iv) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)
261
Answer: (A)
Page

8. What do you consider as the main aim of inter disciplinary research?

(A) To bring out holistic approach to research.
(B) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain.
(C) To over simplify the problem of research.

(D) To create a new trend in research methodology.
Answer: (A)
9. One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to:
(A) improve data interpretation (B) eliminate spurious relations

(C) confirm triangulation (D) introduce new variables
Answer: (B)
10. The depth of any research can be judged by:
(A) title of the research. (B) objectives of the research.

(C) total expenditure on the research. (D) duration of the research.
Answer: (B)

The superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for,
and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections
to the offices of the President and the Vice - President of India are vested in the
Election Commission of India. It is an independent constitutional authority.
Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive
interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the
constitution that the chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his
office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme
Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after
his appointment.
In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the
Delhi High Court directed that information relating to Government dues owed by
the candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation,
electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any other dues should be
furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the
election authorities under the commission.
262
Page

11. The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions:

(A) The authority of the commission cannot be challenged.
(B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics.
(C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates.

(D) This would ensure fair and free elections.
Answer: (D)
12. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent

constitutional authority. This is under Article No.
(A) 324
(B) 356
(C) 246
(D) 161
Answer: (A)
13. I ndependence of the Commission means:

(A) have a constitutional status. (B) have legislative powers.
(C) have judicial powers. (D) have political powers.
Answer: (A)
14. Fair and free election means:

(A) transparency (B) to maintain law and order
(C) regional considerations (D) role for pressure groups
Answer: (B)
15. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under
Article :
(A) 125
(B) 352
(C) 226
263
(D) 324
Page
Answer: (D)

16. The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding

the processes, issues, events and societal developments is known as:
(A) content supply
(B) surveillance
(C) gratification
(D) correlation
Answer: (A)
17. The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and
machines is known as:
(A) cybernetics (B) reverse communication
(C) selectivity study (D) response analysis
Answer: (A)
18. N etworked media exist in inter-connected:

(A) social environments (B) economic environments
(C) political environments (D) technological environments
Answer: (D)
19. The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital

atmos phere is referred to as:
(A) online communication (B) integrate d media
(C) digital combine (D) convergence
Answer: (D)
20. A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs

simultaneously in various forms is described as:
(A) man-machine speak
(B) binary chat

(C) digital talk
(D) interactivity
264
Answer: (D)
Page

21. I nsert the missing number:

16/32, 15 /33, 17/31, 14/34 ?
(A) 19/35
(B) 19/30
(C) 18/35
(D) 18/30
Answer: (D)
22. Monday falls on 20th March 1995. What was the day on 3rd November
1994?
(A) Thursday
(B) Sunday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Saturday
Answer: (A)
23. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these
numbers is:
(A) 36
(B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 28
Answer: (C)
24. I n a certain code, FHQK means GIRL. How will WOMEN be written in the
same code?
(A) VNLDM
(B) FHQKN
(C) XPNFO
(D) VLNDM
265
Answer: (A)
Page

25. At what time between 4 and 5 O'clock will the hands of a watch point in
(A) 45 min. past 4 (B) 40 min. past 4
(C) 50 4/11 min. past 4 (D) 54 6/11 min. past 4

Answer: (D)
26. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement

given below?
Statement: Most teachers are hard working.

Conclusions:
(I) Some teachers are hard working.
(II) Some teachers are not hard working.
(A) Only (I) is implied (B) Only (II) is implied
(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied
Answer: (C)
27. Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian
Parliament?
(A) Any MLA (B) Chief of Army Staff

(C) Solicitor General of India (D) Mayor of Delhi
Answer: (C)
28. Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement

given below?
Statement: Most of the Indian states existed before independence.
Conclusions:
(I) Some Indian States existed before independence.
(II) All Indian States did not exist before independence.
(A) only (I) is implied (B) only (II) is implied

(C) Both (I) and (II) are implied (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied
Answer: (B)
266
Page

29. Wate r is always involved with landslides. This is because it:

(A) reduces the shear strength of rocks
(B) increases the weight of the overburden
(C) enhances chemical weathering

(D) is a universal solvent
Answer: (B)
30. Direction for this question:
Given below are two statements (a) and (b) followed by two conclusions (i) and
(ii). Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of the following
conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting one of the
four response alternatives given below the conclusion :
Statements:
(a) all businessmen are wealthy.

(b) all wealthy people are hard working.
Conclusions:
(i) All businessmen are hard working.
(ii) All hardly working people are not wealthy
(A) Only (i) follows (B) Only (ii) follows

(C) Only (i) and (ii) follows (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows
Answer: (A)
31. Using websites to pour out one's grievances is called:
(A) cyber venting (B) cyber ranting

(C) web hate (D) web plea
Answer: (A)
32. I n web search, finding a large number of documents with very little relevant
information is termed:
(A) poor recall (B) web crawl
(C) poor precision rate (D) poor web response
267
Answer: (A)
Page

33. The concept of connect intelligence is derived from:

(A) virtual reality (B) fuzzy logic
(C) Bluetooth technology (D) value added networks
Answer: (D)
34. Use of an ordinary telephone as an Internet applicance is called:

(A) voice net
(B) voice telephone
(C) voice line

(D) voice portal
Answer: (C)
35. Video transmission over the Internet that looks like delayed livecasting is
called:
(A) virtual video
(B) direct broadcast
(C) video shift
(D) real-time video
Answer: (D)
36. Which is the smallest North-east State in India?

(A) Tripura (B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram (D) Manipur
Answer: (A)
37. Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage due to:
(A) high evaporation
(B) sea water flooding due to tsunami
(C) over exploitation of ground water by tube wells

(D) seepage of sea water
268
Answer: (D)
Page

38. While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of Bengal, Narmada
and Tapti flow into the Arabian Sea because these two rivers:
(A) Follow the slope of these rift valleys
(B) The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west
(C) The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west
(D) The Indian peninsula south of the satpura ranges is tilted towards east
Answer: (A)
39. Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the Godavari delta
because of:
(A) erosion of top soils by annual floods
(B) inundation of land by sea water
(C) traditional agriculture practices
(D) the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland

Answer: (A)
40. Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the
MHRD Government of India?
(A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi

(B) Mythic Society, Bangalore
(C) National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi
(D) India International Centre, New Delhi
Answer: (C)
41. Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying climate

Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short waves and radiation
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
269
Answer: (A)
Page

42. 'SITE' stands for:

(A) System for International technology and Engineering
(B) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(C) South Indian Trade Estate

(D) State Institute of Technology and Engineering
Answer: (B)
43. What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian
Government for 'Conducting Research at Antarctic?
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Yamunotri
(C) Uttari Gangotri
Answer: (A)
44. Minis try of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes:

(A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(B) De partment of Secondary Education and Higher Education
(C) Department of Women and Child Development

(D) All the above
Answer: (D)
45. Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:
(A) With the prior permission of the President.

(B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably.
(C) In case of inconsistency among State legislatures.
(D) At the request of two or more States.
Answer: (D)
270
Page

The following pie chart indicates the expenditure of a country on various sports
during a particular year. Study the pie chart and answer it Question Number
46 to 50.
46. The ratio of the total expenditure on football to that of expenditure on

hockey is :
(A) 1:15 (B) 1:1 (C) 15:1 (D) 3:20
Answer: (B)
47. if the total expenditure on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,000,00 how
much was spent on basket ball?
(A) Rs. 9,50,000 (B) Rs. 10,00,000
(C) Rs. 12,00,000 (D) Rs. 15,00,000
Answer: (D)
48. The chart shows that the most popular game of the country is :
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Tennis
Answer: (C)
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Page

49. Out of the following country's expenditure is the same on :

(A) Hockey and Tennis
(B) Golf and Basket ball
(C) Cricket and Football

(D) Hockey and Golf
Answer: (B)
50. I f the total expenditure on sport during the year was Rs. 1,50,00,000 the
expenditure on cricket and hockey together was:
(A) Rs. 60,00,000
(B) Rs. 50,00,000
(C) Rs. 37,50,000
(D) Rs. 25,00,000
Answer: (A)
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Page

UNIT 1
Teaching Aptitude
273
Page

Teaching Aptitude
Ability of Adaptability:
Q1) If the persons living in flats are not contributing for its maintenance
charges, what will you decide and take action to solve the discord
Options:
A) You will convene an urgent meeting of the members and request them
collectively to extend their support
B) You will threat them of the building's collapse
C) You will take revenge and debar them from co-operation
D) You will withdraw your own active support to the committee
Q2) Suppose your principal is penalizing you deliberately. You do your best
efforts to make him happy. But he deals with you as his enemy. What would
you do under this situation?
Options:
A) You will always abuse him and try to impose upon him
B) You will not do anything because you have elderly honour for him
C) You will always find faults in him
D) You will never bow to his wrong will
Q3) It is said that political power defeated the administrative power. You are
also an eye witness of it. How could you accommodate yourself under these
pressures?
Options:
A) You will follow the proverb-'Do as the Romans do'
B) You will try your best to remain confirm to your duties
C) You will do herculean efforts to win the politics through moral triumph
D) You will repress your consciousness
274
Page

Q4) If your colleague deliberately neglect you inspite of your courteous

invitation, the reasonable cause of it may be
Options:
A) Withdrawal due to inferiority complexes
B) A voidance due to feelings of superiority
C) Rivalries in relation to professional dignity
D) Personal conflicts in family
Q5) If you have taken a house on rent you would like to build good relations
with your land lord through
Options:
A) Adaptation and accommodations
B) Maintaining submissive attitude
C) Maintaining dominating attitude
D) Social adaptation
Q6) If you take your mid-day meal to school, what will be your mode of taking
meal during recess hour?
Options:
A) You share your meal with others because other's food is tastier
B) You take food with your friend in canteen
C) You take food in isolation due to family customs and personal inhibitions
D) You share your food with all the staff members and enjoy it in your group
Q7) Suppose your junior colleague expects some financial support from you on
the occasion of his marriage. What decision will you take in this situation?
Options:
A) I f marriage is at your place, you will give him full support

B) You will think it against your, honour to assist the juniors
C) You make lame excuses
D) You will be weighing the support in relation to intimacy of relations
275
Page

Q8) In general, it seems that the schools have become the place of politics
instead of teaching in modern age. Suppose you get appointment in such a
school, what would you do in this situation?
Options:
A) You will accept the membership of the active political group
B) You will be continuing to make favourable efforts so that teaching
environment can be retained in school
C) You will free yourself from political activities and pressures
D) You will try to crush the teachers politics with the help of students
Q9) Suppose a few teachers are busy in cracking filthy jokes during their leisure
time in school, you are also member of that group but unable to stop them.
What would you like to do to avoid it?
Options:
A) You persuade them not to waste their leisure time in filthy jokes
B) You change the group or live in isolation because you don't relish it
C) You instruct them to mind their language while cracking jokes in school
D) You criticise and remind them of their noble profession
Q10) When your parents visit your house, you give them more respect than your
in-laws. Under these conditions what will be expected by your life?
Options:
A) She will ask for equal treatment to her parents because she gives due respect
to your parents
B) She has no right to ask for similar treatment
C) Because your parents are higher in social status, so have a right of high
res pect
D) She will remain in a neutral position
Q11) The maxim of maintaining good relations with others is

Options:
A) Sycophancy
B) Kaleidoscopic per
C) Attractive features and mental make p
D) Control over emotions
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Q12) Suppose your friend has just left the home on scooter along with his son,
immediately you hear the news that they met a road accident. What will you do
in this case?
Options:
A) You will mock at him because you have poor relations with him
B) You will rush immediately and extend all possible help keeping in mind that
this is not the time of personal enmity
C) You will leave the place immediately so that nobody can blame you later on
D) You will visit them next day and give an impression that you knew it just now
from neighbourhood
Q13) Suppose a colleague is living in your mohalla but you have no affinity with
him, the reason of it may be
Options:
A) His miserable behaviour and rural back ground
B) His religious faith
C) His social rejection
D) His selfishness
Q14) When your friend invites you on feast then what do you in these
conditions?
Options:
A) You go only when you have class affinity
B) You must go because one should give due honour to invitation
C) You go at one or two houses of friends only
D) Make lame excuses on next day
Q15) Suppose your colleague either commits theft or torn out your postage from
school due to jealously. How would you overcome this problem?
Options:
A) You catch the culprit red-handed and abuse him
B) You try to take a revenge by tearing his letters just to teach him a lesson
C) Once you catch him and warn him severely
D) You insult him in public
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Q16) When girl-students make a request, the other male students are annoyed
with you on the pretext that you have been easily approached by them and do a
favour. In such a situation how would you like to control them and the class?
Options:
A) You will clarify that it is difficult for you to refute the request made by the girl
students
B) You will justify that most of the girl students are more sincere towards their
studies than the boys
C) You will tell the boys that girl students have no option except to depend on
the school teacher for their academic assistance
D) You will try to improve the interaction in the class without emphasizing
gender discrimination
Q17) If your neighbour knows about your blood group, all of a sudden his child
fell down to a road accident, and he request you to donate blood to save his
child's life, what decision would you like to take?
Options:
A) You will refuse immediately
B) You will create a fear of same serious disease to avoid it
C) You will immediately agree to donate your blood
D) You will suggest him to arrange blood from a Blood-bank
Q18) If you have all the potentialities to become an efficient teacher but the
school's adverse conditions do not help you. How could you adjust with this
reality?
Options:
A) You will continue excellent efforts because you believe that unfavourable
conditions lead to some solutions
B) You will try force the administrative machinery to control the conditions
C) You will work unwillingly under these prevailing situations
D) You will not even try to think about its solution
Q19) You are very busy in your personal work mean while your neighbouring
retired person visits you in a relaxed and gossiping mood. In such a time how
would you like to behave with that person?
Options:
A) You exhibit passive attitude in order to discourage his conversation
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B) You enjoy the company by thinking that you too feel relaxed with him
C) You give due honour but tell him about the time-limit
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D) You sit as an idle person and think of his departure

Q20) As the age is increasing you become anxious for your old age. What would
you do to eliminate the anxiety?
Options:
A) Timely preparation for the age to avoid the tensions
B) Involvement in other activities to divert your attention
C) Learn yoga to control undesirable emotions
D) You don't waste present while thinking for future unnecessarily
Q21) If you have the habit of book-lifting from library, how would you solve this
typical problem behaviour?
Options:
A) Gradually you will leave this habit because you know that it is very painful
experience to the individual who is in dire need of it
B) You realise it as an immoral act but have no alternative
C) You will try to purchase it
D) You will try to get it from other students
Q22) You become rash when some inadequate behaviour is shown by others.
When you show such behaviour in relation to others, what do you think?
Options:
A) Those persons should be irritated because it is the echo-like behaviour
B) You are elder have the right to behave in such a manner
C) Behave as you expect from others
D) You always become rash in case of maltreatment given by others, so try to
control yourself
Q23) If a girl student prefers you beyond the ethical limits then how would you
control your own emotions?
Options:
A) You will try to sublimate her emotions, as she is passing through the
adolescent stage
B) You will like to repress her intentions through strict measures
C) You will relish her emotionality
D) You will have in mind the similar emotions but afraid of social dignity
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Q24) The government has the provision to appoint a family member after
sudden death of an employee. Suppose you have no child, in this case how far
do you agree with this scheme?
Options:
A) It is a foolish scheme because mishaps can occur with anybody at anytime
B) It is more obligatory than the welfare activity
C) To think about it is baseless under any condition
D) It is favourable scheme for the families in a great tragedy
Q25) If some students enter your room and abuse you harshly, at that time how
would you control your emotions?
Options:
A) You will react in similar tone and try to assault them physically
B) First you will try to pacify their emotions, then ask politely about their
problems
C) You will feel ashamed among your colleagues
D) You will report the case to the principal with recommendation of rustication
Q26) If your colleague entangles you in the act of negligence of duties with the
help of principal how would you behave with him?
Options:
A) Revengeful and will give physical and mental shock to him
B) You will neglect him
C) You will insult him among the colleagues
D) You will keep yourself alert and make his efforts unfruitful
Q27) When your motor-bike is out of order all of sudden then what will you do
in this situation?
Options:
A) You will immediately get the bike repair because you feel inferiority to go to
the institute without it
B) You will not touch it because it saves you from the unusual expense of petrol
and repairing
C) You will get it repaired immediately otherwise it will be deteriorated
D) You will become neutral as you believe to face every condition
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Q28) Suppose a teacher has acute stammering problem but he wins the favour
through sycophancy. Therefore, he goes to any extent to seek favour from the
administration. The other colleagues have great jealousy with him. Because he
climbed all the progressive ladder through that quality. How would you like
such a person in your company?
Options:
A) You treat him like your 'Guru' as he is the most successful teacher
B) You criticise and abuse him
C) You will treat him as his best friend
D) You tell him the difference between right and wrong things, to enhance his
moral courage
Q29) When you are in dispute with your wife on some family issues but realize
that she has adequate reasoning in those matters, then how would you like to
solve these disputes?
Options:
A) You accept the reasoning and withdraw yourself
B) You never crumble down your own ego
C) You attempt to assault her physically and mentally
D) You try to solve the dispute within reasonable limits before it aggravates
Q30) One of the senior colleagues is trying to exercise his power through
majority in the school. Sometimes you fell that the colleague has power
mongering attitude and therefore, realising it in his own favour. In such a
condition how would you like to adjust with him?
Options:
A) You remain in the group but create obstacles in channelizing his powers
B) You try to pass your time in more creative manner
C) You establish another strong group against his party
D) You put forth the principles of upright behaviour
Q31) When you are invited for a feast, then you have the idea that
Options:
A) Do wastage of food in order to pay the gift or money on the occasion

B) It is an opportunity to take food outside home, therefore, enjoy it with whole
family
C) That families should join such parties on the basis of relations and affinity
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D) Never waste any food particle whether you are at home or in feast
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Q32) Now-a-day the Government has given priority to social welfare schemes,
therefore, it has launched various schemes like Age-old Pension scheme, Widow
Pension scheme etc. Your personal opinion towards all these schemes is
Options:
A) The schemes are fruitful to raise the standard and support the economy of
backward sections of the society
B) It is a kind of governmental obligation for the weaker sections
C) These schemes deprive the beneficiaries from social sympathy
D) These people live a dignified life like others along with 'A'
Q33) While you come-out of home for some purpose, and you are being crossed
by a handicapped person, then you think
Options:
A) About bad omen

B) That all human beings are equal
C) With hatredness
D) That they are incomplete and awkward
Q34) How would you maintain good association with such a colleague who is
clear in heart but very aggressive in behaviour?
Options:
A) You restrict your personal relations
B) You maintain relations but whenever he cools down, tell him his mistakes
politely
C) You snap your relations
D) You maintain personalized relations
Q35) You would like to prefer to join a teaching profession
Options:
A) By giving bribery for your appointment in village or town school
B) By exalting your excellence in national level competition
C) By any means as job conditions are very difficult
D) By seeking political support
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Q36) If a teacher requests you to do a favour in a girl student's evaluation, what

would you like to do in this situation?
Options:
A) You will teach him a moral lesson against injustice

B) You will scold him that he is a wicked fellow as he loose the sanctity of
evaluation
C) You will remind him the grace and morality of being a teacher
D) You will evaluate the answer-book honestly and give marks accordingly
Q37) How would you solve the problem of your child, if he takes extra-interest in
late night films on TV?
Options:
A) By persuading the child that he cannot reach to school early in the morning
due to late night sleep
B) By convincing him that late night films are not useful for young children
C) By scolding him and discouraging for it
D) By going to sleep before schedule in order to force him to early sleep
Q38) You are travelling in far-off places of India through advanced Railway's
reservation. When a lady enters with a request to give her a seat, what will be
your reaction?
Options:
A) You refuse flatly that you cannot share the seat
B) You give a second thought if the lady is young and beautiful
C) You will ask her to sit for same time
D) You will leave your seat and make alternative arrangement for yourself
Q39) In a society, what type of role do you feel for yourself to resurrect values in
it?
Options:
A) Effective
B) Un-effective
C) Normal
D) Nothing to contribute
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Q40) How could you accommodate with your age-old parents, inspite of the fact
that they always complain for their difficulties for no apparent reasons
Options:
A) You will feel sorry but not communicate to them

B) You will find out the ways to become free from their responsibilities
C) You will focus your attention on the genuine problems due to senility
D) Do favourable efforts to find out remedies for their troubles
Q41) When your exercises his powers with an altitude of malice how would you
avoid confrontation under this condition?
Options:
A) You become furious but crumble down your emotions due to the superiority
of the person
B) You think to kill him to take revenge
C) You imagine that god must give him punishment for his untrue act
D) You keep promise not to surrender against the wickedness
Q42) When a co-worker is blessed with a son and he desires some financial
assistance from you, then how would you extend your co-operation to him?
Options:
A) You just formally ask for any sort of assistance desired by him
B) You extend all types of support as you have intimate relationship
C) You try to hide your face during this time
D) You put forward some lame excuses
Q43) How would you behave with student's parents on the eve of parent-teacher
association being observed in the school?
Options:
A) Poorly, full of selfishness and forced them to oblige with gifts etc.
B) Nicely, so the parents can feel satisfied that the teacher has given due care
C) Passively because you feel that the students are only for one year with you so
it is better to exploit them
D) Uninteresting devoid of emotionality
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Q44) You are being pressurized by your colleagues to take the membership of
the teacher's union. How could you take decision in this situation?
Options:
A) You will give priority to social relations, therefore, you accept the offer
B) You will have faith in unity so you accept the membership
C) You will think it is better to disaffiliate yourself from the colleagues instead of
enmity with the management
D) You will try best to go against their will by hook or crook
Q45) If somebody is mal-treating the aged persons, what action would you like
to take against the individual?
Options:
A) Threat him face the consequences
B) You will request him to stop the mal-treatment
C) You will maltreat that individual to take revenge
D) You will not involve yourself unnecessarily
Q46) When a co-worker gives you a mental shock, then. What will you do?
Options:
A) You will develop enmity with him

B) You will wait for your turn to put him in the same state
C) You will fight in a decent manner D) You think do good and forget it
Q47) In contemporary society with deteriorating values, the excellent education

will be that which
Options:
A) Works for re-establishment of humanitarian and cultural values
B) Enables to earn in an easy manner
C) Exaggerates the competition in the society
D) Accelerates the social-change in society
Q48) When you met an accident with the bicycle of a tiny school-going child,
then what will you do?
Options:
A) You will run away from the place immediately
B) You will take care of your-self but not of the child's injuries
C) You will scold the child and take advantage of being an elder
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D) You will accept your mistake and extend whole hearted, support to the young
child
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Q49) When the Mohalla Samiti asks to donate some money for the repairing
works of Hand pipe in the vicinity, then what will you do?
Options:
A) You will not contribute as it has no utility for you

B) You will contribute according to your will in a selfless manner
C) You will find faults in the samiti and its collections
D) You will pay some money in order to warn them not to pay visit in future
Q50) If a friends instigates you to participate actively in the strike but you
disagree with them, then how will you react in this situation?
Options:
A) You indirectly co-operate them but not with the issues
B) You will not participate actively as your consciousness does not allow you
C) You first do your duties then something else
D) You will launch a movement against your friends to resolve the conflict
Q51) If you get an opportunity to serve a central school, but in turn you miss
the opportunity to enjoy your home town. How would you accommodate in these
conditions?
Options:
A) You will think yourself lucky enough that you got an opportunity to mix-up
with the people of different states
B) You will never forget your home town and for this curse your central school
services
C) You will feel free as having least family resistance and obligations
D) You will have great pride in thinking yourself a powerful link in national
integration
Q52) You became aggressive on those parental issues which you feel inadequate
because
Options:
A) It has heavy impact on your brain and create obstacles in your life
B) You have lost sympathy in their inappropriate behaviour
C) You cannot rationalize their thinking
D) You have developed the negative attitude
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Q53) What will you do in case of a sudden death occur at the place of your
friend?
Options:
A) After getting intimation, you avoid to go

B) You go on the next day with your wife
C) You rush immediately at such occasions
D) You do not observe this courtesy even such tragedy occurs at your friends
house
Q54) You will demonstrate your impartial behaviour through

Options:
A) Maintaining your own high self-esteem and egoistic behaviour

B) Criticising the teacher' community as a whole
C) Assaulting the teachers in the midst of students
D) Making your own behaviour more balanced and fair
Q55) If a colleague belongs to the minority group but quite progressive in views,
the basis of maintenance of healthy relations will be the realisation of that
Options:
A) The throat-cut competition as you assume that he is having cultural

handicaps
B) High selfishness- because you fell that the person will go to any extent for his
vested interests
C) High jealous attitude-assuming that he is relishing all benefits due to
minority groups
D) The hard-work he has done to achieve the status
Q56) If you live on rent in your friend's house, it will be perceived by you as
Options:
A) Sacrifice of mutual relations
B) Development of more warmth in relations
C) Exposure of personal weaknesses and end of relations
D) Meeting with a good co-worker who cooperate from home to school
Q57) Whenever you give an order for tea in staff room, then you remember
Options:
A) Minimum expenses B) More members and lesser number of tea
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C) Health of the colleagues D) The total number of people

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Q58) If you invite your colleagues in your marriage ceremony, the procedure of it
will be
Options:
A) Only personal invitation will be extended to most dear colleague

B) Only a specific group of teachers will be invited
C) Extend invitation to all the teachers without any distinction
D) You will invite all the personnel of the school
Q59) How would you like to behave with your students, in comparison to your
children?
Options:
A) Just like own children
B) Equal treatment is not possible to all the students
C) Repressed treatment
D) It is better to lend them a free hand
Q60) When you deal with others, you expect that

Options:
A) They deal according to your nature in order to get your appreciation

B) You restore only superficial dealings otherwise it becomes a sad affair of
relations
C) You estimate others with reference to your own behaviour
D) You do not develop deep intimacy
Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) D, Q3) B, Q4) D, Q5) D,
Q6) D, Q7) A, Q8) C, Q9) A, Q10) A,
Q11) C, Q12) B, Q13) D, Q14) B, Q15) C,
Q16) B, Q17) C, Q18) B, Q19) C, Q20) A,
Q21) A, Q22) D, Q23) A, Q24) D, Q25) B,
Q26) D, Q27) C, Q28) C, Q29) D, Q30) D,
Q31) C, Q32) D, Q33) B, Q34) B, Q35) B,
Q36) D, Q37) B, Q38) C, Q39) A, Q40) C,
Q41) D, Q42) B, Q43) B, Q44) B, Q45) B,
Q46) B, Q47) A, Q48) D, Q49) B, Q50) C,
Q51) A, Q52) B, Q53) C, Q54) D, Q55) D,
Q56) D, Q57) C, Q58) C, Q59) A, Q60) C
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Attitude Towards Children:
Q1) If students alleged you for making favouritism in evaluation, how can you
deal with this problem?
Options:
A) Giving threat to fail them

B) Making efforts to reveal the position fairly
C) Adopting punitive measures
D) Showing the student's answer-books in order to satisfy them
Q2) If you join your class on the very first day of opening the session, and take
introduction of the students, the primary objective of this introduction(for you)
will be
Options:
A) Exploration of potential students who serve you throughout the session
B) Development of friendly relations with the students of administrative class
C) Selection of those students who can do the school job for you
D) To know about student's potentialities along with their family status
Q3) If you give the student physical punishment upto his nervous breakdown,
what will you do?
Options:
A) Pray to god, to forgive you
B) Repent over your foolishness
C) Never repeat such behaviour
D) Accept the fault and try to control him
Q4) Your school building is just adjacent to a Cinema Hall. It generates

delinquency and spoil the young mind badly. Therefore, there is utter chaos in
the school in the name of discipline. What alternative will you have in your mind
to fight with this menace?
Options:
A) Prepare the list of the delinquents and isolate them from class
B) Make a discipline committee to watch out such students and give them
rigorous punis hment
C) Start a movement for shifting of school building
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D) Raise your voice for student's welfare

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Q5) Suppose you are checking student's answer books, all of a sudden you have
finished red refill. You call an student and order him to bring a refill. What
would you like to do in such a situation?
Options:
A) You will give him required money for the purpose
B) You will return the money when student show courteous gesture
C) You think that students money is teachers own money
D) You will feel ashamed when you will be paying for such a small amount
Q6) If some student's parent make a complaint that the child has developed the
excessive habit of telling-a-lie and never give due importance to home work, you
will do
Options:
A) After due confirmation, be vigilant towards the child in future

B) Forget about the child's problem as parent has become vigilant
C) Insult the child along with his parent
D) Speaking high about your skills to deal with the child
Q7) Generally the teachers do not take pains on students postures in the class-
room. What will you do for their improvement?
Options:
A) You will enforce proper posture training in the class-room
B) You will not be observant towards them
C) Sometimes you take note of them otherwise you forget it
D) You will inform the physical instructor
Q8) It is the daily routine that some students bring undesirable food items from
the school-gate. You are full of sorrow to see this condition of your students.
What is its remedy?
Options:
A) You will force to leave the peddlers of eatables from the school gate
B) You will force the students to remain within the gate
C) Inform the principal
D) Announcing on the prayer ground in the morning and ask them to avoid
such practices
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Q9) A scheduled caste student is visiting the class only to get his scholarship.
What provisions will you make to attract his attention towards e ducation?
Options:
A) I nsulting remarks on the caste and the parents

B) Tell him about the importance of education in one's life
C) Rebuking the child
D) Think about the irrationality of the scheme
Q10) Spare the rod and spoil the child. It is a famous saying. Its contribution in
modern class-room serves our purpose in a
Options:
A) Better way B) Worst way
C) Effective manner D) Exclusive manner
Q11) A child is a back -bencher and is unable to watch the black-board clearly,
therefore he stands, see and sit repeatedly. It disturbs the nearby classmates,
what inference will you draw with reference to the student's difficulty?
Options:
A) The child has poor eye-sight

B) The child may has defective eyes
C) The black-board may has shining effect of light
D) None of the above
Q12) If a student becomes unconscious during the period, what will you like to
do?
Options:
A) Hurriedly rushing to the principal's office and canvassing for help impatiently
B) Giving first aid to the student and try to contact the school 's doctor
C) Sending message to student's home and awaiting for his parents
D) Making arrangements to send the student to his home
Q13) If you would be a teacher, how would you like a behave with your
students?
Options:
A) Autocratic B) Democratic
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C) Laissez-faire D) As the conditions permit

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Q14) When you are mal-treated in your class as a new-comer then how will deal
with the students?
Options:
A) Through tough punitive measure

B) Through warning of expulsion
C) Through improving your qualities
D) You leave the class
Q15) Ge nerally an adolescent is full of anxiety, anger and tension. How would
you sublimate his stress and strain?
Options:
A) Through friendly relations, sharing his private life and giving due emotional
comforts
B) Through repressing measures
C) Through rejection and leave him in isolation
D) By making a mockery as a philosopher
Q16) If you select a monitor in your class, which criteria will be followed by you
in this selection?
Options:
A) On the basis of democratic(Through election)
B) On the basis of physical make-up
C) On the basis of superiority in the class
D) On the basis of personal preference
Q17) Suppose you are hurriedly rushing to your school in the morning.
Meanwhile your eyes go across the road, where your student met an accident.
What decision will you take under this critical condition of the student>
Options:
A) You will go away from the accident's site in anonymity
B) You reach the site, look after the student, after giving him first-aid, report to
the police station and rush towards hospital
C) You are escaping because you do not want to take risk unnecessarily
D) You are expressing the accident as an adventurous game
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Q18) Suppose an intelligent student became mal-adjusted due to some family

problems. As he has deep faith in you, he comes to you for its solution. What
action will you take in this condition?
Options:
A) You protect yourself as you fear your insult in such a issue
B) You think patiently and suggest some favourable remedy
C) You solve out your selfishness by knowing his family's weakness
D) You leave the child without interfering in his problem
Q19) If a student wants to share his problems with his teacher, he visits his
teacher for the same at home, In such a condition the teacher should
Options:
A) Exte nd reasonable help and boost his morale
B) Suggest him to escape from his family
C) Contact the student's parents and solve his problem
D) Warn him, never visit his home
Q20) Our students are having exact mirror-image of the modern society's
corruption and indulge in anti-social acts. What will you do to cope with it in
these circumstance?
Options:
A) You will attempt to emerge as a big political reformer
B) You will try to keep them away from such maladies
C) You will control them through disciplinary rules
D) Before giving them lessons. Make your personal life to emerge as an ideal
teacher
Q21) If you get an opportunity to teach a blind student along with normal
students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class?
Options:
A) Take care of him sympathetically in the class-room
B) Arranging a seat in the front row and try to keep teaching pace according to
him
C) Not giving extra attention because majority suffers otherwise
D) You think that blindness is the result of his sins, so what can you do against
God's will
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Q22) How would you change the behaviour of a tobacco addict student in the
class?
Options:
A) You will counsel him for few weeks and provide the literature having harmful
impacts of it on one's health
B) You share with him as you also have this fancy habit
C) You report to his parents
D) You do not take any action as you your self have this habit
Q23) Suppose you are travelling in a train. All of a sudden you recognise your
old student who is passing without any salutary mark. What will you think in
such condition?
Options:
A) You will be cursing yourself as your students has not given any respect
B) You will think that the student cannot recognise you
C) You will be cursing the modern disrespectful trend in students
D) You will introspect in relation to your students for further improvement
Q24) Suppose an intelligent boy of your class request for a particular book from
you. What decision will you take in this case?
Options:
A) Telling-a-lie that the book is not with you
B) Giving a rationale that to help him is equal to curtail other student's rights
on the same book
C) Give the book without any hitch for certain duration
D) Suggest him to purchase it himself
Q25) Suppose a teacher has short height. It creates an obstacle in utilizing the
black-board in a justifiable manner. Therefore, the students cannot follow the
lessons inspite of utmost care taken by the teacher. In such a condition what
would you like to suggest him?
Options:
A) Good! Atleast you can save your labour and clothes from dust particles
B) You suggest him to make a temporary platform of bricks with the help of
students
C) You suggest him to make a complaint with the principal
D) Collect donations from his student to reconstruct the black-board
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Q26) If a teacher's personality is weak it is the possibility that his students

inherit this trait. The reason of this saying is
Options:
A) Student is the miniature model of teacher's behaviour

B) Students imitate his teacher's behaviour
C) Students pass through development stages
D) Students get encouragement. If they behave as their teacher
Q27) When students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the
class by making numerous mischievous like throwing of chalks, whistling upon
you, calling foul and obscene words, then what will be your role in that class?
Options:
A) Be friendly with a few students and with their help crackdown the goonda
elements
B) Showing them your invisible moral powers as a teacher
C) Expelling few students to give then an indirect threat
D) Doing favourable efforts to judge himself and improve the mutual relations
Q28) It appears that modern students are adopting innovative methods of

flattery and short-cuts in their studies. What do you think about its remedial
measures?
Options:
A) Use these youngsters for your personal gains
B) Teacher must protect their own faces from them
C) Favourable remedial measures should be implemented to make them strong
and upright citizens by the teachers
D) As it is the trend of society there is nothing wrong in it
Q29) Suppose you are an ambitious teacher. You have high ideals for class-
room teaching but your hard-labour goes in vain. The reason is that the
student's result is not satisfactory. The reason of this problem is
Options:
A) Downfall in the educational level of the students
B) You egoistic teaching behaviour beyond student's own level
C) Individual differences among the students
D) The teaching has no access to students
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Q30) If your school is located near a slum area, in turn it affects your school's
environment, what steps will you take to keep away your students?
Options:
A) Your will voluntary select the students and do service in the slum area
B) You will give more emphasis on school sanitation and plantation
C) You will develop action-oriented plan for environmental education for
children
D) You will allot one plant to each students to look after throughout his stay in
school.
Q31) Some teachers, enjoy inflicting remarks on girl students in the staff-room.
Being a junior subordinate you do not feel any pleasure in it but are unable to
keep them quiet. What will you do in such a situation?
Options:
A) Se vere criticism in their absence
B) Taping of the talks and report the matter to the principal
C) No participation at all
D) Quarrelling and insulting a few of them
Q32) The teacher has been glorified by the phrase 'Friend, Philosopher and
Guide' because
Options:
A) He has to play all these vital roles in context of the society
B) He transfuses the high values of the humanity into young ones sitting in the
class-room
C) He is the great reformer and patriotic saviour of a nation
D) All the above statements are true
Q33) Suppose a child is devoid of social efficiency then what measures will you
adopt to overcome this difficulty?
Options:
A) I mparting him training to overcome the difficulty
B) Mentioning the positive aspects of it
C) Giving threats of its deficiency
D) Admitting the child in a clinic
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Q34) If there is a great problem of discipline in your school which disrupts the
routine of the school. What would you like to do to deal with such a utter
chaos?
Options:
A) You will thrash-out the reasons for this problem
B) You will organise the discipline committee with the permission of the
principal and implement its rules strictly
C) You indulge in one group of gangsters and try to control another trouble
making group with its support
D) You think that you are here only to teach, not for guarding the peace and
welfare
Q35) Suppose luckily you get an opportunity to serve the minority institution.
The castism and narrow views are the rules of the place. As you are little bit
having scientific outlook and you become prey of victimisation. How would you
find yourself in a equilibrium in such an institution?
Options:
A) You will uplift the humanistic values beyond these narrow walls and develop
them in your students
B) You will pass out your life in a submissive manner
C) You will infuse rebellious attitude against them
D) You victimisations is increasing you become more and more objective critic of
these values
Q36) If your principal indulges in corruption and forces you to co-operate, how
would you make compromise with such a superior fellow?
Options:
A) You will not surrender to his wishes and open the front to criticise him and
gain support in your favour
B) When principal threatens you, will remain silent
C) You will adopt the middle path and remain a silent spectator
D) You will change your attitude and think that single person cannot change the
world
Q37) Suppose your student gets appointment in your school. Your behaviour
towards him will be
Options:
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A) Encouraging and friendly B) Critical and full hatred

C) Like an old young student D) Full of complexes and egoistic impulses
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Q38) It is popularly said that any two students are not alike. The meaning of
this phrase is
Options:
A) The students differ in their physical make-up

B) The students differ in their mental make-up
C) The students differ in their familial and social status
D) All the above statements are correct
Q39) Suppose a student is a chain smoker and generally he leaves the period or
comes late due to smoking, How would you like to compromise with such a
student in the class?
Options:
A) Applying suggestive measures in a isolator conditions
B) Insulting him on assembly ground
C) Expelling him from the school
D) Sharing the habit and become friendly
Q40) Suppose some students indulge in porno graphic painting in the school's
toilets and other places on walls and you nab a student busy with the work,
what option will you prefer with the students?
Options:
A) You will warn him and leave as it is the common problem of adolescent's age
B) You will reasonably punis h him and ask him not do it again
C) You will penalize the whole class
D) You diagnose the group of such students and regularly keep vigilant eyes on
them.
Q41) A scheduled caste student is admitted in your class. The other classmates
treat him as untouchable and leave him in isolation. How would you give him
better adjustment in the class?
Options:
A) By putting examples by your own deeds
B) By advising
C) By punishing them
D) By justifying the plight of the down-trodden
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Q42) Suppose a child has hearing impairment but you have no idea about him.
What will be your duty towards that child?
Options:
A) Recognise the child and manage accordingly

B) You become neutral because it is not your headache
C) You send him to specialist for treatment
D) You report to teachers, parents and principal to send him to a special school
Q43) A high-caste teacher is biased with the scheduled caste's students. What
advise do you like to give to that teacher?
Options:
A) Nothing is wrong in his attitude
B) He should not behave against the national spirit and need of the hour
C) Scold him for narrow thinking
D) Threat him against the constitutional provisions
Q44) Ge nerally the students have throat-cut competition to sit on front benches
in the class. To overcome this problem you will be making seating
arrangements. What will be the rationale of seat allocation to the students?
Options:
A) The age and height of the students
B) The personal relationship with the child
C) The mental level of the children
D) The economic and social status of the child.
Q45) If you will be the senior member of poor student's committee, what will be
your crite ria to disburse the financial aid to the students?
Options:
A) Financial support must go to your favourable students

B) Financial support must go to the desirable students
C) Financial support must be distributed to the students giving every service to
the teacher
D) You are neutral and feel it a burden
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Q46) A student who is mentally retarded, cannot follow your lecture and sit in a
deaf and dumb manner, when you recognise him, what will you do?
Options:
A) Make your lecture very simple and spare some extra time for him
B) You do not sacrifice majority for the individual
C) You attempt in such a manner that he leaves your class
D) You do not support him at all
Q47) If a poor student is unable to deposit his monthly fees in time, what will
you do in this condition?
Options:
A) Strike off his name and deprive from classes
B) You deposit his fees and given him opportunity to join the classes
C) Making a mockery of the poor fellow
D) No sympathy with the student on economic matters
Q48) When you make a mistake while teaching in the class and your students
points it out sharply then what will you do?
Options:
A) You break all the limits of anger
B) You feel sorry for committing a blunder
C) You scold the child and angrily resist him
D) You leave the class for a week
Q49) Which duties would you like to be carried out by the monitor?
Options:
A) Strictly follow your order, and work as a bonded labour
B) Control your class in your absence
C) Check the home-work of students given by you
D) Help in your house-hold jobs
Q50) If you have been given the additional responsibility of the school library,
you think that
Options:
A) You are the exclusive reader as you are the exclusive worker there
300
B) It is the right of every student on the library and its reading material
C) It is the exclusive right of principal to exploit the resources of library
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D) It is the right of all the teachers to make appropriate use of library

Q51) The teacher is called the leader of the class. The justification of this
nickname is
Options:
A) Because he masters the art of oratory like a political leader
B) Because he is the autocratic emperor of his class
C) Because he belongs to recognised teacher's union
D) Because he is making the future of the country in the class
Q52) Suppose you are a fresh appointee in a school, a girl student stays in
school hostel throughout summer-break and preparing for the competitive
examination. Because she does not rely on officials so she requests to collect her
post at your postal address. What would you like to do in that case?
Options:
A) You never give her your on address as your suspect a foul game in it
B) You permit her on genuine humanitarian ground being a fair sex
C) You do not give permission as it is against your own principles
D) You permit her because you have some emotional inclination towards her
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) D, Q3) D, Q4) B, Q5) A,

Q6) A, Q7) A, Q8) D, Q9) B, Q10) B,
Q11) A, Q12) B, Q13) B, Q14) C, Q15) A,
Q16) A, Q17) B, Q18) B, Q19) A, Q20) D,
Q21) B, Q22) A, Q23) D, Q24) C, Q25) B,
Q26) B, Q27) D, Q28) C, Q29) C, Q30) C,
Q31) B, Q32) B, Q33) A, Q34) B, Q35) A,
Q36) A, Q37) A, Q38) D, Q39) A, Q40) B,
Q41) A, Q42) A, Q43) B, Q44) A, Q45) B,
Q46) A, Q47) B, Q48) B, Q49) B, Q50) A,
Q51) B, Q52) C
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Interest In Profession:
Q1) In teaching, if nothing has been learned, northing has been

Options:
A) Taught B) Studied
C) Examined D) Assigned
Q2) When a student can no longer recall material he had learned some time
back, one can assume that
Options:
A) He had never learned it

B) He repressed it
C) It was lost as a result of the interference of subsequent leanings
D) The neural connections involved faded as a result of disuse
Q3) Which of the following is least acceptable Learning may

Options:
A) Be acquired without intent
B) Occur independently of past-experience
C) Be detrimental to the individual
D) Take place without operation of movies and goals
Q4) Which of the following would least quality as an essential aspect of the
process of learning?
Options:
A) Adequate readiness
B) Response to stimulation
C) Insight into means-end relationship
D) The reinforcement of response
Q5) As teachers, we should think of our work in terms of

Options:
A) Systematic drill
B) The mastery of subject-matter
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C) Hearing lessons recited

D) Child growth and development
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Q6) The modern consensus regarding the sending of disciplinary cases to the
principal's office is that
Options:
A) It should be used only when other means have failed

B) It is generally best used for first offense to show that non-sense will not be
tolerated
C) It is a sign of poor discipline
D) It is generally advisable since the principal is ultimately responsible for the
discipline in his school
Q7) The key to effective class-room discipline lies in

Options:
A) Seeking the cause of misbehaviour and taking appropriate action
B) Making an example of the leaders of any class-room mischief
C) Inspiring respect by remaining cold and aloof to pupils in and out of the class
room
D) Providing a programme with inbuilt means for the satisfaction of pupil needs
Q8) Which of the following best reflects democracy in the class-room?

Options:
A) Allowing children to sit where they want and work with whom they please
B) Allowing children freedom to the observance of class-room rules and
regulations
C) Allowing the class to decide the curricular experiences of the class-room
D) Allowing the maximum participation of all the students in class-room
activities
Q9) A teacher today, is least expected to serves as
Options:
A) A director of many activities
B) An able publicist of the school
C) An encyclopaedia of knowledge
D) A committee member and consultant
Q10) Verbal guidance is least effective in the learning of

Options:
303
A) Attitudes B) Concepts
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C) Facts D) Skills

Q11) Learning implies something in the individual

Options:
A) Acquired by
B) Occurring to
C) Occurring within
D) Absorbed by
Q12) Secondary school teaching in the past held more prestige than elementary
education because
Options:
A) The subject-matter was at a higher level of difficulty
B) Secondary teachers usually had a higher level of training
C) Pay schedules generally were higher for secondary school teaching
D) All of the above
Q13) With which of the following aspects of learning are the teachers and
psychologists most directly concerned?
Options:
A) The products of learning

B) The process of learning
C) The development of habits
D) The avoidance of errors
Q14) Which of the following is the best statement of the relationship of

intelligence to delinquency?
Options:
A) Dull children are most likely to be apprehended and appear to be more often
delinquent
B) Dull children appear more frequently delinquent because they tend to come
from slum areas where strict law enforcement prevails
C) Delinquency is most prevalent at both extremes of the intellectual scale, the
gifted and the idiot ad the imbeciles
D) Delinquency is not a product of intelligence as much as of other factors
Q15) The ground rules for the class-room should be established by the
Options:
304
A) Principal B) Pupils
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C) Pupils and teachers D) Teacher

Q16) The best learning procedure in teaching children is to have them

Options:
A) Read about the way an activity can be performed
B) Write about the way an activity can be performed
C) See an activity as it is being performed
D) Perform the activity themselves
Q17) The greatest weakness of current IQ tests is that
Options:
A) They are not reliable
B) They are not equally fair to persons of different back-grounds
C) They do not provide motivation to different tastes
D) They measures performance rather than ability
Q18) The most effective approach for social workers to follow in dealing with
groups of delinquent boys is probably
Options:
A) To keep them fully occupied e.g., sports
B) To concentrate on winning them as friends before attempting to reform them
C) Simply to display proper behaviour themselves and wait for the boys to
identify with them
D) To provide them with Big Brother heroes among the nicer kids in the
neighbour hood
Q19) According to State and National Codes, it would not be unethical for
teachers to
Options:
A) Promulgate private religious views in the class-room
B) Tutor members of their classes privately for pay
C) Apply for a specific position that is not vacant
D) Refuse to sign a contract which displease them
Q20) Research has shown that the percentage of the total study time which
could profitably be devoted to recitation as opposed to re-reading could be as
high as
Options:
305
A) 20 per cent B) 40 per cent

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C) 60 per cent D) 80 per cent

Q21) Provisions for the special education of retarded and handicapped children
is usually financed by
Options:
A) Local funds with the usual state aid

B) Special state fund
C) Local funds with special state aid
D) Local and state funds with special assessment to be paid by parent or
charitable organizations
Q22) In practice at the secondary level, the most common provision for
individual-differences is
Options:
A) Ability -grouping
B) Acceleration and retardation
C) Different curricula
D) Different expectations from students
Q23) Afte r subsiding a disturbance in the class room, the teacher's main
concern should be
Options:
A) To punish all offenders and there by fore shall the recurrence of unacceptable
behaviour
B) To know the cause of the misbehaviour
C) To provide closer supervision as a means of preventing the recurrence of the
incident to reduce the demands made upon the individuals involved as a means
of reducing tension
D) To enlist group censure as a means of curbing future misbehaviour
Q24) The best statement of the position of the teacher in the class-room is that
he is
Options:
A) The chairman of the group
B) The director of the group
C) One member of the group
D) The umpire of the group
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Q25) Which of the following statements concerning learning is the least

acceptable?
Options:
A) Learning involves the acquisition of habits, knowledge and attitudes

B) Learning involves new ways of overcoming obstacles and attaining goals
C) Learning involves the weakening of the resistance to the passage of a neutral
impulse
D) Learning represents progressive change in behaviour
Q26) The most important task in teaching is

Options:
A) Making assignments and hearing recitations
B) Directing pupils in development of experiences
C) Scoring test papers and giving out-grades
D) Making monthly reports and keeping records
Q27) Language is best thought of as

Options:
A) A biological (instinctive) development

B) A system of symbols for effective problem-solving
C) A nomenclature for cataloguing experience
D) A medium for self-enhancement
Q28) Probably the most effective way of learning a complex and complicated skill
is
Options:
A) To practice the whole skill over and over
B) To practice each part of the skill separately
C) To practice the whole skill with separate attention to parts where indicated
D) To alternate between practice on the whole and on the parts
Q29) Which of the following is not a product of learning?

Options:
A) Attitudes
B) Concepts
307
C) Knowledge
D) Maturation
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Q30) Rama, a bright pupil, is openly impatient of the errors and slowness of
other students in the class and wishes to answer much more than his share of
questions. His teacher should
Options:
A) Ask him only his share and those quite hard questions
B) Allow him to answer as many questions as he wants in order to expedite
class work
C) Tell him privately before class that he is behaving improperly
D) Make him realize that he is not so smart by asking him difficult questions
that he cannot answer
Q31) In present times, the prestige level of teachers is recognized by the general
public as
Options:
A) Above that of professional worker
B) On a par with the professional class of workers
C) On a par with the wage earner or labour
D) Somewhere between wage earner and professional worker
Q32) Which of the following best explains the existence of organized gangs of
delinquent teenagers with which students often affiliate themselves?
Options:
A) I nactive and lax law enforcement
B) Lack of parks and others facilities for amusement
C) Lack of constructive activities from which students can derive wholesome
satisfaction
D) Student's desire for adventure
Q33) When a disciplinary action is necessary with a preschool child, the least
acceptable technique would generally be
Options:
A) To isolate him by sending him to his room
B) To take away some of his privileges
C) To scold him
D) To make him feel sorry for having hurt your feelings
308
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Q34) The most basic cause of teacher's failure in maintaining discipline is the
teacher's lack of
Options:
A) Competence in teaching methods

B) Knowledge of his subject
C) A constructive programme of meaningful things to be learnt and done
D) Knowledge of educational psychology
Q35) The extent of community restriction placed on the personal life of the
teacher is
Options:
A) Virtually nil in all types of communities
B) Greater in metropolitan areas
C) Growing with each generation of teachers
D) Greater in rural communities
Q36) Segregation into special classes for the educable is generally recommended
for approximately the lowest per cent of the general school population
Options:
A) One-half of one B) Two
C) Five D) Ten
Q37) The initials PTA refer to what organization

Options:
A) Progressive Teacher Association
B) Parent-Teacher Association
C) Private Tutors Association
D) Principal Teacher Administration
Q38) A te acher is introducing a new subject when meeting the class for the first
time it would be best to
Options:
A) Begin with the first lesson without delay
B) Give a class a broad outline of the subject
C) Begin at once with the review of the relevant material of the previous grades
309
D) Concentrate on identifying potential trouble-makers and leaders of the class-

room mischief
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Q39) If the school is to effective in promoting proper attitudes in children a wide

variety of situations, if needs to place a major emphasis upon
Options:
A) Training children to choose their attitudes on the basis of rational

discrimination
B) Providing heros with positive attitudes with which children can identify
C) Rewarding the display of positive attitudes
D) Punishing the display of negative attitudes
Q40) Trial-Error Learning in men and animals differ chiefly in that man places
greate r dependence upon
Options:
A) Overt activity B) Rapid and energetic action
C) Symbolic manipulation D) The uniqueness of each problem
Q41) Probably the most important of the following determinants of the

effectiveness of learning is
Options:
A) The method of presentation

B) The need of meaningfulness and understanding
C) The concentration of the learning periods
D) The degree of over-learning
Q42) In a democracy, individual-differences are encouraged because

Options:
A) I ndividuals will all tend to act and think alike in the long run
B) Individuals will place the good of India ahead of their own preferences
C) Individual-differences make for diverse beneficial contribution to the common
cause
D) The Constitution guarantees the right of the individual to act as he pleases
Q43) Purposeful group-learning in the class-room generally begins with

Options:
A) I ntelligent trial and error activity

B) Motives and a clarification of objectives
310
C) Hypothesis and generalisations

D) Delegation of responsibility to the members
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Q44) Teaching would come in which of the following classification of work?

Options:
A) Clerical B) Managerial
C) Professional D) Service
Q45) The most valid crite rion, on the basis of which of judge whether teaching is
a profession, is the teacher's
Options:
A) Love for children

B) Broad and thorough knowledge of subject matter
C) Exemplification of dominant values of our culture
D) Observance of professional ethics
Q46) Which of the following the teacher is not expected to do?

Options:
A) Participate in community activities such as Red Cross
B) Give help to pupils in their personal and school problems
C) Keep pupil's attendance and achievement records
Q47) In order to give effective guidance to the learning of a skill, the instructor
must necessarily be able
Options:
A) To execute the skill with a high degree of perfection

B) To execute the skill with a higher degree of perfection than the person he is
trying to instruct
C) To develop in the student's insight into the nature of the skill to be learned
D) To foresee and forestall the development of bad habits, the occurrence of
plateaus, etc
Q48) In the following list of the aspects of the guidance of learning activities,
which is the most fundamental and should occur first from the stand point of
time?
Options:
A) Determination of methods of evaluation
311
B) Determination of methods of presentation

C) Determination of objectives
Page
D) Selection of the learning activities

Q49) The development of desirable person's characteristics is largely a matter of

Options:
A) Social pressures B) Habit-formation
C) Motivation D) Opportunity for learning
Q50) Political responsibilities make demands upon many people. Teachers

should
Options:
A) Take a film stand on political issue and support their side in any way, they
can
B) Refuse to take a stand
C) Accept civic responsibilities, but refuse to be drawn into fractional disputes
D) Never mention politics in class
Q51) Which of the following best explains the pattern of mental growth?
Options:
A) A steady and uniform growth from birth to early adulthood
B) A growth patte rn paralleling the physical growth curve
C) A uniform rise to the middle teens and a gradual levelling off to the middle
twenties
D) An erratic pattern from individual to individual precluding any generalization
Q52) Underlying the construction of intelligence tests is the assumption that the
people to be tested
Options:
A) Are of normal intelligence

B) Are of the same stock from the biological point of view of heredity
C) Have gained the same amount of knowledge
D) Can be measured as to intelligence without undue interference from the
factor of differences in experience
Q53) Attitude, once established

Options:
A) Generally continue to exist even if they do not provides satisfaction for one's
motives
B) Can be changed relatively easily by introducing logical proof of contrary view
points
C) Can be changed more effectively by intellectual appeal than by emotional
312
appeal
D) Are often maintained through selective perception
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Q54) The best evidence of the professional status of teaching is the

Options:
A) Publication of journal B) Fixing of salary schedules
C) Enforcement of high standards
D) Establishment of retirement systems
Q55) In the final analysis, teaching must be thought of mainly as a process of

Options:
A) Directing the activities of people

B) Asking questions and appraising answers
C) Hearing the recitation of pupils
D) Indoctrinating pupils with adult ideas
Q56) Which of the following is not characteristic of the mentally retarded child?
Options:
A) He is generally above average in sensor motor and artistic aptitude
B) He tends to display socially undesirable traits more frequently than normal
children
C) He tends to be retarded in his physical development
D) He is relatively lacking in ability to abstract and generalize
Q57) If a learner is 'ready when he begins a new task and the first teaching is
good, his learning curve will probably rise
Options:
A) Rapidly with wide fluctuations
B) Rapidly with slight fluctuations
C) At a moderate but very uniform rate of speed
D) Slowly but steadily
Q58) Modern educational philosophers tend to agree that the indoctrination of

school children
Options:
A) Is definitely taboo
B) Is undesirable but essentially unavoidable at time
C) Is essential if the school is to mould children into the dominant views of our
313
society
D) Is permissible only when other means of moulding the child into the ways of
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society have been exhausted

Q59) The most important function of the teacher is to

Options:
A) Maintain a order
B) Impart subject-matter
C) Teach problem-solving techniques
D) Guide pupil's growth
Q60) It has been seen that the students lose much of their learning during
summer vacation, which one of following shows the least depreciation over the
summer months?
Options:
A) Arithmetic computation
B) Arithmetic reasoning
C) Historical dates and places
D) Rules of punctuation and grammar
Q61) A series of progressive approximations to a successful performance best

defines
Options:
A) Developmental Tasks
B) Learning
C) Maturation
D) The Scientific Method
Q62) Which of the following is the most adequate definition of learning?

Options:
A) The acquisition and organization of knowledge
B) The development of skills
C) The solving of problems
D) The modification of behaviour
Q63) The main argument against teacher's strikes has been that
Options:
A) Teacher's strikes generally have been unsuccessful

B) Salaries have risen faster than the cost of living
314
C) Teachers contract should not be violated

D) The public is sympathetic to the teacher
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Q64) The mental changes involved as the learner acquires new ways of
perceiving or apprehending the things are referred to as
Options:
A) Cognitive B) Affective
C) Co native D) Tautological
Q65) The most critical factor needed to make teaching a true profession is
Options:
A) An improved salary scale

B) A longer period of training
C) Improved school-buildings
D) Discipline of its own members
Q66) The term intra-individual differences refers to

Options:
A) Differences among the various in a given individual
B) Differences in a given trait between two or more individuals
C) Differences in a given trait individual associated with the passage of time
(maturation and learning)errant curricula
D) Differences in a given trait in a given individual associated with errors of
measures
Q67) The function of a teacher primarily is that of a

Options:
A) Se rvice-station attendant, filling students with knowledge
B) Minister, tending to the personal and spiritual needs of children
C) Guide, helping the child progress towards maximum growth
D) Director, organizing and planning worth-while experiences for the class
Q68) For maximum efficiency in learning a given passage for one single
production (for example a school play), it is best to have
Options:
A) Many relatively short practice periods distributed over a long period of time
B) A few relatively long practice periods distributed over a long period of time
C) Many short practice periods concentrated just before the performance is
315
required
D) Relatively long practice periods concentrated just before performance is
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required

Q69) Psychologists would consider the real criterion of whether or not learning
has taken place to be
Options:
A) I ncreased sensitivity to appropriate stimuli

B) Increased understanding
C) Improved behaviour
D) Speed of reaction
Q70) Forgetting can be considered to be

Options:
A) A passive process of fading
B) The res ult of incorrect learning
C) The result of insufficient learning
D) A case of negative transfer
Q71) The first professional responsibility you must meet as a new teacher is to
Options:
A) Change the curriculum in the light of your training
B) Seek to enrich the educational philosophy of other teachers
C) Co-operate with your fellow teachers inspite of differences
D) Change your mind as the conditions permit
Q72) In which of the following areas do deaf children tend to show the greatest
relative inferiority to normal children?
Options:
A) I ntellectual development
B) Socio-emotional development
C) Academic progress
D) Language development
Q73) Which of the following is the least important aspect of the teacher's role in
the guidance of learning?
Options:
A) The development of insight into what constitutes an adequate performance

B) The development of insight into what constitute the pitfalls and dangers to be
316
avoided
C) The provision of continuous diagnostic and remedial help
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D) The fore-stalling of habits

Q74) Which of the following statements appears most accurate in the light of
our present knowledge of the neurophysiology underlying learning?
Options:
A) Learning involves neural fibres in a telephonic type connection between a

given receptor and a given effectors
B) Learning appears independent of any neurophysiologic basis
C) Learning capacity to be independent of the mass of the brain
D) To date, Psychologists have not been able to discover the neurophysilogical
changes occurring as a person learns
Q75) Recitation in learning appears most profitable when introduced

Options:
A) At the beginning of the learning period
B) Uniformity throughout the learning period
C) Towards the end of the learning period
D) Only as preparation for the testing period
Q76) The best way to establish rapport with your class is to
Options:
A) Demand the respect due your age and status
B) Remain aloof, be a figure of authority
C) Impress your students with your knowledge and skill
D) Play the role of a guide who desires to help them
Q77) Which of the following procedures would be best from the stand point of
efficiency of acquisition for a given degree of long-term retention?
Options:
A) A high level of over-learning
B) Reviews spaced progressively further apart
C) Trial and Error
D) Cramming
Q78) Which of the following would constitute the most proper action to take, if a
child continues to talk after the class. has been asked to be quiet?
Options:
317
A) Speak loudly enough to be heard by the student who is talking

B) Have the whole class sit with hands folded for five minutes to impress on
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them the need for silence

C) Make the whole class stay after school

D) Arrange to speak to him privately
Q79) The teacher's primary responsibility lies in

Options:
A) Planning educational experiences
B) Implementing and administering policies
C) Promoting human relations with parents
D) Experimenting with teaching techniques
Q80) Which of the following best explains the phenomenon of forgetting?

Options:
A) The passage of time
B) The phenomenon of reminiscence
C) The phenomenon of interference
D) Repression
Q81) It is generally agreed that
Options:
A) Each educational group should have its own independent organization
B) Administrators and teachers should have separate professional organization
C) Any professional organization should included several levels of leadership
D) All of the above are correct
Q82) Which of the following is not an aspect of learning?

Options:
A) The accumulation of knowledge
B) Cue-reduction
C) Modification of perceptions
D) The sensitization of nerve fibres
Q83) Which of the following duties is least likely to be required of all teachers?
Options:
A) Visiting the homes of the pupils

318
B) Disciplining pupils in their care

C) Keeping a record of text-books
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D) Preparing and grading examinations

Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) C, Q3) D, Q4) C, Q5) D,
Q6) A, Q7) D, Q8) C, Q9) C, Q10) D,
Q11) C, Q12) D, Q13) B, Q14) B, Q15) C,
Q16) D, Q17) B, Q18) B, Q19) D, Q20) D,
Q21) C, Q22) D, Q23) B, Q24) B, Q25) D,
Q26) B, Q27) C, Q28) C, Q29) D, Q30) D,
Q31) D, Q32) C, Q33) D, Q34) C, Q35) D,
Q36) C, Q37) B, Q38) B, Q39) C, Q40) C,
Q41) B, Q42) C, Q43) B, Q44) C, Q45) D,
Q46) D, Q47) C, Q48) C, Q49) C, Q50) C,
Q51) C, Q52) D, Q53) D, Q54) C, Q55) A,
Q56) A, Q57) B, Q58) C, Q59) D, Q60) B,
Q61) B, Q62) D, Q63) C, Q64) A, Q65) D,
Q66) A, Q67) C, Q68) D, Q69) C, Q70) D,
Q71) C, Q72) D, Q73) B, Q74) D, Q75) C,
Q76) D, Q77) B, Q78) D, Q79) A, Q80) C,
Q81) C, Q82) D, Q83) A
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Professional Information:
Q1) Rousseau's major contribution to modern education was the

Options:
A) Agricultural school B) Kindergarten
C) Philanthropy D) Philosophy of Naturalism
Q2) The problem child is generally one who has

Options:
A) An unsolved problem B) A poor home heredity
C) A poor home environment D) A younger brother or sister
Q3) Research in the field of juvenile delinquency would lead the teachers and
parents to believe that
Options:
A) It is primarily a problem of foreigners in our society

B) It is even worse in rural areas than in urban society
C) It is disease of society limited to low economic areas
D) It is a problem having many roots
Q4) Which of the following is not a major modern trend in teacher education?
Options:
A) A change in emphasis from the teaching of subject-matter to the directing of
pupil growth
B) A change in emphasis from academic growth to the all-round development of
child
C) A change in emphasis from scholarship to personality development
D) A change from autocratic discipline to greater pupil self-direction
Q5) The effects of World War-II upon education are noticeable in the form of
strong tendency to
Options:
A) Make the schools stronger supports for national policy
B) Improve the articulation between high school and college
320
C) Reverse the trend toward increased technology training

D) Answer 'A' and 'B' only
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Q6) When Locke spokes of 'Tabula rasa' he referred to his belief that
Options:
A) The doctrine of innate ideas is essentially correct
B) The organism reacts as a whole to stimulus
C) The mind starts from scratch in gathering sense data
D) The mind itself is a result of the process of evolution
Q7) The primary goal towards which the modern school is oriented is that of the
development on the parts of its students of
Options:
A) Adequate behaviour B) Socially acceptable behaviour
C) Personal adequacy and independence
D) A sound system of ethical values
Q8) The major responsibility with which school personnel have been entrusted
is that of
Options:
A) Changing human nature of conform to social expectations
B) Adjusting the child to conform to the demands of society
C) Adapting the programme of education to conform to the nature and needs of
the child
D) Harmonizing the needs of the child and the demands of society for the benefit
of both
Q9) To educate according to nature means

Options:
A) To return to the nature as opposed to the artificial in life
B) To educate according to the law of nature of human development
C) To study natural laws and apply them to the education process
D) All of the above
Q10) Which of the following is the most important single factor underlying the
success of beginning teacher?
Options:
A) His personality and ability to relate to the class
321
B) His attitudes and outlook on life

C) His verbal facility and organizational ability
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D) His scholarship and intellectual ability

Q11) The first kindergarten was started by

Options:
A) Friedrich Froebel
B) Benjamin Franklin
C) Johann Pestalozzi
D) De Witt Clinton
Q12) Which of the following is not a positive factor in the teacher's Mental-
health?
Options:
A) A programme in which routine is reutilized
B) Personal and professional competence
C) A schedule allowing for hobbies, friends responsibility and adequacy
D) A strong need to love and to be loved by children
Q13) In making occupational field-trips, the pupils should

Options:
A) Be accompanied by the teacher at all times
B) Be prepared to ask questions from their guide
C) Discuss their visits upon returning to school
D) All the above
Q14) Plato's theory called for an educational programme in which

Options:
A) The unfit were to be eliminated and the fit located
B) Education was life itself, not a preparation for it
C) The validity of mental discipline, his dialectic for rulers
D) His 'Science was for workers, his dialectic for rulers
Q15) UNESCO has as one of its many promising activities, a campaign to

provide
Options:
A) Education for all adults of the member nations
B) Universal, free, compulsory primary education
C) Free education to those who desires it
322
D) Indoctrination against the dangers of communism

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Q16) Educational psychology should provide prospective teachers with

Options:
A) I nsights into the various aspects of modern education
B) Principles, insights and attitudes as points of departure for effective teaching
C) Research procedures by means of which to evaluate current teaching
procedure
D) Rules of thumb to deal with everyday class-room situation
Q17) In helping students to make educational plants, it is unwise to for them to

Options:
A) Mix general with vocational subjects
B) Select all their subjects from one field
C) Take typing with college preparatory subjects
D) Plan their programmes more than a year ahead
Q18) The best way to prepare students for the transition to the next step in the
educational ladder is to
Options:
A) Make a visit to the school building

B) Receive visitors from the new school
C) Prepare a booklet about the new school
D) There is no best way for such orientation
Q19) Which one of the following can truthfully be said of non-school, active
agencies of social interaction?
Options:
A) The less education people have, the more they use established recreational
agencies
B) The largest items of the expenditure for leisure time activities are for those of
a passive nature
C) Adult sponsorship of youth serving organizations has proved undesirable
D) The community council should conduct activities, not just to co-ordinate
them
Q20) The greatest single cause of failure in beginning teachers lies in the area of
Options:
323
A) General culture B) General scholarship

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C) Subject-matter back ground D) Inter-personal relations

Q21) Which of the following has no potential for occupational information?

Options:
A) Sharing activities in the elementary school
B) The general class of a Junior high school
C) A biology class in a senior high-school
Q22) Modern Indian education at the Elementary school level can best be
described as being
Options:
A) Curriculum-centred
B) Project-centred
C) Pupil-centred
D) Subject-centred
Q23) The primary task of the teacher is

Options:
A) To teach the prescribed curriculum
B) To stimulate and guide student's learning
C) To ensure that all students belong to socially acceptable peer groups
D) To promote habits of conformity to adult demands and expectations
Q24) The field of education is permeated by conflicts and misconceptions largely

because
Options:
A) The problems encountered in teaching call for subjectivity of interpretation
B) There are no best teaching methods and procedures
C) The problem encountered in teaching are not amenable to rigorous scientific
investigation
D) Education has first to be practical and only secondary to be scientific
Q25) Concerning educational films, it can be truthfully said that

Options:
A) They differ from commercial films chiefly is the basis of nature of the film
B) Motion picture production by school children has proved to be a failure
324
C) War developments advanced the educational use of films by decades

D) The interest factor in educational films was stressed from the start
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Q26) Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous
instability among teacher is
Options:
A) Absenteeism
B) Digestive upsets
C) Explosive behaviour
D) Worry
Q27) Research has shown that maladjustment among teacher is

Options:
A) Relatively non-existent
B) Relatively rare among Career' teachers
C) Exceedingly widespread, especially among women teachers
D) Of greater incidence than in comparable professional groups
Q28) Which of the following is most likely to be characterized the in-effective

teacher?
Options:
A) Emphasis upon standards

B) Emphasis upon pupil discussion in the clarification of group goals
C) Emphasis upon the control of the immediate situation
D) Refusal to help children until they have helped themselves
Q29) By emotional maturity is meant a

Options:
A) Low degree of sensitivity coupled with a high level of intellectual growth
B) Extreme patience or sympathy towards problems involving other people
C) Lack of patience or sympathy towards problem involving other people
D) Lack of control or inhibition of the emotions appropriate to one's age-group
Q30) The teacher's major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of

the child is best affected through
Options:
A) Constant fulfilment of the child's needs

B) Strict control of class-room activities
325
C) Sensitivity to pupil needs, goals and purposes

D) Strict reinforcement of a academic standards
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Q31) A career course should be aimed at

Options:
A) Obtaining from every student a realistic self-appraisal
B) Securing from every student a choice of his life's work
C) Developing the ability to make intelligent choice of jobs
D) Answers 'A' and 'C'
Q32) Experience has shown that the most feasible plan for utilizing
occupational orientation programme broadcast by radio is
Options:
A) The recording of the programme for inter communication playback
B) The direct hook-up of the programme with all class-room radios
C) The assignment of pupils to listen to and report on the programme
D) The bringing of pupils to listen to and report on the programme
Q33) In early Athenian education the Paidagogos was a

Options:
A) Foreigner
B) Slave
C) Teacher
D) Craftsmen
Q34) According to school authorities

Options:
A) Children should be allowed complete freedom of choice in viewing TV
B) Community leaders have a responsibility for influencing television standards
C) All TV programmes have a dangerous effect upon young children
D) Children should never be permitted to choose the TV programmes they view
Q35) The study of occupational information should be

Options:
A) Postponed until the pupil is ready to choose a vocation
B) Introduced in connection with a programme of self-appraisal
C) Handled only by the school's occupation counsellor
D) Made a regular 10th and 12 th grade subject
326
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Q36) De wey liked best, the following definition of education

Options:
A) Education as a product B) Recapitulation
C) Acquisition of knowledge D) Preparation for life
Q37) The major contribution of the ancient Greeks to modern education was
their
Options:
A) Emphasis upon the development of individual personality

B) Subordination of the individual to the welfare of the state
C) Stress upon physical fitness
D) High moral and religious standards
Q38) A fundamental difference between the radio and the motion pictures is
that of
Options:
A) Radio is more responsive to public opinion
B) Movies more deliberately try to influence behaviour
C) Radio programmes are less subject to control
D) Movies employ no self-censorship like the radio
Q39) Much of the disciplinary and motivational difficulties experiences by

teachers stem from
Options:
A) Personal mal adjustment on the part of teachers or pupils
B) The failure of the curriculum to meet pupil's needs
C) The theoretical unsoundness of progressive education
D) The relatively greater appeal of other interests competing for the child's
attention
Q40) The primary purpose of the inclusion of out of class activities as part of the
overall school programme is
Options:
A) To meet accreditation requirements

B) To keep children under supervision after school
327
C) To provide other avenues of pupil's self realization

D) To provide students with a means of acceleration through earning extra-
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credits

Q41) Teachers need to study educational philosophy mainly, because

Options:
A) Few, if any, teachers have a philosophy
B) Most teachers follows a wrong philosophy
C) Teacher's are incapable of formulating their own philosophy
D) Teachers may improve their work by clarifying their philosophy
Q42) A basic ideal of a democratic society is
Options:
A) Powerful leadership
B) Belief in the opinions of the leaders
C) Respect for the enlightened individual
D) Might makes right'
Q43) In making use of employment information, it is well to remember that

Options:
A) The more general the information, the more useful it is
B) One should select one source of information and stick to it
C) Descriptions in term of absolute adjectives are best
D) Recent primary sources are better than secondary ones
Q44) The phrase Equal Educational Opportunity means

Options:
A) Equal opportunity for all children to have access to higher education

B) Equality of the type of education available for each child
C) Equality of educational standards for each child
D) Equal opportunity to have the type of education which one is suited
Q45) Probably the best reminder a beginning teacher might take with him into
his class room is
Options:
A) Knowledge of one's subject is the crucial thing
B) Liking children is a necessary and a sufficient condition for effective teaching
C) Pupil adjustment is the paramount educational objective
D) Learning is effective to the extent that it involves the goals and purposes of
328
individual children
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Q46) A pupil should definitely be encouraged to go to college if

Options:
A) He has better than the average intelligence
B) He has financial backing to see him through
C) He has met high-school graduation requirements
D) All the above are true and he wishes to go
Q47) To Plato, the main role of education was to
Options:
A) Cultivate the personality of each individual
B) Develop the power of contemplation
C) Strengthen the power of perception
D) Train each person for a vocation
Q48) Which of the following is least acceptable in the light of the modern
concept of education?
Options:
A) The personal and social adjustment of the child is a responsibility of the
school must necessarily and legitimately assumed
B) Despite the importance of its other responsibilities, the school exists
primarily for the purpose of developing the intellectual and the academic
atmos phere
C) Prime consideration should be given to the development of sound attitudes
and values
D) Although the products of education are also of fundamental interests to
educations, teachers are more generally directly involved in the methods and
procedures by means of which these products are to be attained
Q49) Which of the following is not one of the aims and purposes of UNESCO?
Options:
A) Held an educational isolationism
B) Promote intellectual inter dependence
C) Helps to unite peoples of the world
D) Promote pride in nationalistic groups
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Q50) The primary function of the school as an agent of society is

Options:
A) To develop in children an adequate level of vocational competence
B) To prepare the child for life
C) To provide children with an understanding of their environment
D) To provide youth with a uniform set of experiences as the basis for effective
communication
Q51) Which of the following is not a reason for the small scale use of radio for
educational purposes?
Options:
A) All subject-matter does not lend itself equally to its use
B) Many teachers and administrators are not alert to its possibilities
C) We have been slow to give up our preconceptions of educations
D) The evidence relative to its effectiveness is too inconclusive
Q52) In education the term 'Gang' represents adolescents

Options:
A) Anti-social group
B) Secondary or territory marginal groups
C) Male group only
D) Social phenomena
Q53) Which of the following is the most correct statement about the relation
between marital status and the personal social adjustment of teachers?
Options:
A) Empirical evidence favours the married teacher
B) Empirical evidence favours the single teacher
C) Marital status favour married male teachers but single female teachers
D) Marital status bears no relation to adjustment
Q54) Primary responsibility for the teacher's adjustment lies with

Options:
A) The children
B) The principal
330
C) The teacher himself

D) The teacher's parents
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Q55) The education of primitive man included the elements which today would
be termed as
Options:
A) Vocational
B) Moral
C) Religious
D) All the above
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) A, Q3) D, Q4) C, Q5) D, Q6) D,
Q7) A, Q8) D, Q9) D, Q10) A, Q11) A, Q12) D,
Q13) D, Q14) A, Q15) B, Q16) B, Q17) B,
Q18) D, Q19) B, Q20) D, Q21) D, Q22) C,
Q23) B, Q24) C, Q25) C, Q26) D, Q27) D,
Q28) C, Q29) D, Q30) C, Q31) C, Q32) A,
Q33) B, Q34) B, Q35) B, Q36) D, Q37) A,
Q38) A, Q39) B, Q40) C, Q41) D, Q42) C,
Q43) D, Q44) D, Q45) D, Q46) D, Q47) B,
Q48) B, Q49) D, Q50) B, Q51) D, Q52) D,
Q53) A, Q54) C, Q55) D
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Teaching Aptitude:
Q1) Which of the following comprise teaching skill?

Options:
A) Blank Board Writing B) Questioning
C) Explaining D) All the above
Q2) Which of the following statements is most appropriate?

Options:
A) Teachers can teach.
B) Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn.
C) Lecture Method can be used for developing thinking.
D) Teachers are born.
Q3) The first Indian chronicler of Indian history was:
Options:
A) Megasthanese B) Fahiya
C) Huan Tsang D) Kalhan
Q4) Which of the following statements is correct?
Options:
A) Syllabus is a part of curriculum.
B) Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum.
C) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a
D) Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a
Q5) Which of the two given options is of the level of understanding?
I) Define noun.
II) Define noun in your own words.
Options:
332
A) Only I B) Only II
C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II
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Q6) Which of the following is not instructional material?

Options:
A) Over Head Projector B) Audio Cassette
C) Printed Material D) Transparency
Q7) Which of the following statement is not correct?

Options:
A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning
B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge
C) Lecture Method is one way process
D) During Lecture Method students are passive
Q8) The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is:

Options:
A) To prepare students to pass examination
B) To develop the capacity to take decisions
C) To give new information
D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture
Q9) Which of the following statement is correct?

Options:
A) Reliability ensures validity
B) Validity ensures reliability
C) Reliability and validity are independent of each other
D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity
Q10) Which of the following indicates evaluation?
Options:
A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English
C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
D) All the above
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Q11) Teacher uses visual-aids to make learning:

Options:
A) Simple
B) More knowledgeable
C) Quicker
D) Interesting
Q12) The teachers role at the higher educational level is to:
Options:
A) Provide information to students
B) Promote self-learning in students
C) Encourage healthy competition among students
D) Help students to solve their personal problems
Q13) Which one of the following teachers would you like the most:
Options:
A) Punctual
B) Having research aptitude
C) Loving and having high idealistic philosophy
D) Who often amuses his students
Q14) Micro teaching is most effective for the student-teacher:

Options:
A) During the practice-teaching

B) After the practice-teaching
C) Before the practice-teaching
Q15) Education is a powerful instrument of:

Options:
A) Social transformation
B) Personal transformation
C) Cultural transformation
334
D) All the above

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Q16) A te achers major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of the

Options:
A) Constant fulfilment of the students needs

C) Sensitivity to students needs, goals and purposes
D) Strict reinforcement of academic standards
Q17) Which is the least important factor in teaching?

Options:
A) Punishing the students
B) Maintaining discipline in the class
C) Lecturing in impressive way
D) Drawing sketches and diagrams on the black-board
Q18) Verbal guidance is least effective in the learning of:

Options:
A) Aptitudes B) Skills
C) Attitudes D) Relationship
Q19) Which is the most important aspect of the teachers role in learning?
Options:
B) The development of insight into what constitutes the pitfalls and dangers to
be avoided
C) The provision of encouragement and moral support
D) The provision of continuous diagnostic and remedial help
Q20) The most appropriate purpose of learning is:

Options:
A) Personal adjustment
B) Modification of behaviour
C) Social and political awareness
D) Preparing oneself for employment
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Q21) The students who keep on asking questions in the class should be:
Options:
A) Encouraged to find answer independently
B) Advised to meet the teacher after the class
C) Encouraged to continue questioning
D) Advised not to disturb during the lecture
Q22) Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through:
Options:
A) Discussion method B) Lecture method
C) Audio-visual aids D) Text book method
Q23) The teacher has been glorified by the phrase "Friend, philosopher and
guide because:
Options:
A) He has to play all vital roles in the context of society
B) He transmits the high value of humanity to students
C) He is the great reformer of the society
D) He is a great patriot
Q24) The most important cause of failure for teacher lies in the area of:
Options:
A) I nter personal relationship
B) Lack of command over the knowledge of the subject
C) Verbal ability
D) Strict handling of the students
Q25) Which among the following gives more freedom to the learner to interact?
Options:
A) Use of film
B) Small group discussion
C) Lectures by experts
D) Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV
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Options:
A) Attitudes
B) Concept
C) Knowledge
D) Maturity
Q27) A te acher can establish rapport with his students by:
Options:
A) Becoming a figure of authority
B) Impressing students with knowledge and skill
C) Playing the role of a guide
D) Becoming a friend to the students
Q28) According to Swami Vivekananda, teachers success depends on:

Options:
A) His renunciation of personal gain and service to others
B) His professional training and creativity
C) His concentration on his work and duties with a spirit of obedience to God
D) His mastery on the subject and capacity in controlling the students
Q29) A te achers most important challenge is:

Options:
A) To make students do their home work

B) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable
C) To maintain discipline in the class room
D) To prepare the question paper
Q30) Value-education stands for:

Options:
A) Making a student healthy
B) Making a student to get a job
C) Calculation of virtues
337
D) All-round development of personality

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Q31) When a normal student behaves in an erratic manner in the class, you
would:
Options:
A) Pull up the student then and there

B) Talk to the student after the class
C) Ask the student to leave the class
D) Ignore the student
Q32) Good evaluation of written material should not be based on:

Options:
A) Linguistic expression
B) Logical presentation
C) Ability to reproduce whatever is read
D) Comprehension of subject
Q33) Why do teachers use teaching aid?
Options:
A) To make teaching fun-filled
B) To teach within understanding level of students
C) For students attention
D) To make students attentive
Q34) Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of:

Options:
A) Learning
B) Research
C) Heredity
D) Explanation
Q35) Which of the following teacher, will be liked most?

Options:
A) A teacher of high idealistic attitude
B) A loving teacher
C) A teacher who is disciplined
D) A teacher who often amuses his students
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Q36) The University which telecasts interaction educational programmes

through its own channel is
Options:
A) Osmania University
B) University of Pune
C) Annamalai University
D) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Q37) Which of the following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust
1. Knowledge of technology.
2. Use of technology in teaching learning.
3. Knowledge of students? needs.
4. Content mastery
Options:
A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3
C) 2, 3 & 4 D) 2 & 4
Q38) Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education

Institutions in India?
Options:
A) NAAC and UGC B) NCTE and NAAC
C) UGC and NCTE D) NCTE and IGNOU
Q39) The primary duty of the teacher is to

Options:
A) Raise the intellectual standard of the students
B) Improve the physical standard of the students
C) Help all round development of the students
D) Imbibe value system in the students
Q40) Micro teaching is more effective

Options:
A) During the preparation for teaching-practice

339
B) During the teaching-practice

C) After the teaching-practice
D) Always
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Q41) What quality the students like the most in a teacher?

Options:
A) I dealist philosophy B) Compass ion
C) Discipline D) Entertaining
Q42) Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher?
Options:
A) Punctuality and sincerity B) Content mastery
C) Content mastery and reactive D) Content mastery and sociable
Q43) Which of the following comprise teaching skill?

Options:
A) Black Board writing B) Questioning
C) Explaining D) All the above
Q44) Which of the following statements is most appropriate?

Options:
A) Teachers can teach.
B) Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn.
C) Lecture Method can be used for developing thinking.
D) Teachers are born.
Q45) The least justifiable use of the results of a standardized reading test is to
Options:
A) identify areas of pupil deficiency
B) evaluate the reading instruction programme.
C) Serve as a basis for report card marks
D) Serve as the basis for a parent conference
Q46) A good teachers priority in his school shall be his

Options:
A) Principal
B) Secretary of the Managing Committee
340
C) Colleagues
D) Students
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Q47) School is a social agency which

Options:
A) Contributes to the raising of the society to a higher standard
B) Conserves and transmits people
C) Has certain biological endowments
D) Isolates the good from bad
Q48) An empowering school will promote which of the following qualities the
most in its teachers?
Options:
A) tendency to experiment
B) memory
C) disciplined nature
D) competitive aptitude
Q49) A te acher should be

Options:
A) Honest
B) Diligent
C) Dutiful
D) Punctual

Options:
A) Megasthanese B) Fahiyan
C) Huan Tsang D) Kalhan
Options:
A) Syllabus is a part of curriculum.
B) Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum.
C) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a
particular university
D) Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a
particular university
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Q52) The most important objective of teaching is to

Options:
A) facilitate students when it comes to the construction of knowledge and
understanding
B) cover the Syllabus timely
C) create a friendly environment inside the classroom or teaching learning
process
D) attend and takes the classes regularly and timely
Q53) Environmental education should be taught in schools because

Options:
A) it will affect environmental pollution
B) it is important part of life
C) it will provide job to teachers
D) we cannot escape from environment
Q54) The most important challenge before a teacher is

Options:
A) To maintain discipline in the classroom

B) To make students do their home work
C) To prepare question paper
D) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable
Q55) The idea that Basic Education is education through crafts

Options:
A) True as far as the rural areas are concerned
B) The whole truth of the schemes
C) The complete truth even for urban areas
D) True to some extent only because the concept is deeper
Q56) The term prejudice in a person is colored by
Options:
A) A hasty judgment about a situation with an unfavourable
B) Judgment and assessment of a situation without any favourites
C) Partial observation and acquaintance of a situation without any motives
D) Pre-judgment of a situation with a view to settle a conflict in haste
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Q57) Which of the two given options is of the level of understanding?

I) Define noun.
II) Define noun in your own words.
Options:
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II
Q58) Which of the following is not instructional mate rial?

Options:
A) Over Head Projector
B) Audio Cassette
C) Printed Material
D) Transparency
Q59) Which of the following statement is not correct?

Options:
A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning

B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge
C) Lecture Method is one way process
D) During Lecture Method students are passive
Q60) Most important work of teacher is

Options:
A) to organize teaching work
B) to deliver lecture in class
C) to take care of children
D) to evaluate the students
Q61) Gifted students are

Options:
A) non-assertive of their needs
B) independent in their judgments
343
C) independent of teachers
D) introvert in nature
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Q62) Of the following learning theories, the one that embodies the idea that the
learning takes place through insight is known as
Options:
A) Gestalt
B) Stimulus-Response
C) Connectionist
D) Pragmatic
Q63) The main objective of teaching at Higher Education Level is:

Options:
A) To prepare students to pass examination
B) To develop the capacity to take decisions
C) To give new information
D) To motivate students to ask questions during lecture

Options:
A) Reliability ensures validity
B) Validity ensures reliability
C) Reliability and validity are independent of each other
D) Reliability does not depend on objectivity
Q65) Which of the following indicates evaluation?

Options:
A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
B) Mohan got 38 percent marks in English
C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
D) All the above
Q66) Which of the following is not a type of the learned motives?

Options:
A) Reflexes
B) Habits
C) Attitude
D) Interest
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Q67) Assessment for learning takes into account the following except
Options:
A) mistake of students
B) learning styles of students
C) strengths of students
D) needs of students
Q68) Which one of the following is an example of a fine motor skill?
Options:
A) climbing
B) hopping
C) running
D) writing
Q69) Which would be the best theme to start with in a nursery class?
Options:
A) My best friend
B) My neighbourhood
C) My school
D) My family
Q70) Teacher uses visual-aids to make learning:

Options:
A) Simple
B) More knowledgeable
C) Quicker
D) Interesting
Q71) The teachers role at the higher educational level is to:

Options:
D) help students to solve their personal problems
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Q72) Which one of the following teachers would you like the most:
Options:
A) Punctual
B) Having research aptitude
C) Loving and having high idealistic philosophy
D) Who often amuses his students
Q73) In order to install a positive environment in a primary class a teacher

should
Options:
A) wish each child in the morning
B) narrate stories with positive endings
C) allow them to make groups on their own on the basis of Sociometry during
group activities.
D) not discriminate and set the same goal for every child.
Q74) Successful inclusion requires the following except

Options:
A) involvement of parents
B) capacity building
C) sensitization
D) segregation
Q75) The teachers and students in a school belong to a ........ System

Options:
A) Suprasystem
B) Subsystem
C) Interface system
D) Closed system
Q76) Q scores are generally ........ correlated with academic performance.

Options:
A) least
B) perfectly
C) highly
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D) moderately
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Options:
A) During the practice-teaching
B) After the practice-teaching
C) Before the practice-teaching
Options:
D) All the above
Q79) A te achers major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of the

Options:
Q80) The trial and error method of learning according to Thorndike could be
classified as under
Options:
A) The principle of multiple responses
B) The law of exercise
C) The principle of partial activity
D) The principle of Associative learning
Q81) Liberalism in education, when it was claimed by universities of the world

since the 19th century, meant
Options:
A) Free dom to be given to education from the clutches of religion

B) favouring liberal education as opposed to special education
347
C) Academic freedom for teachers in instruction

D) Administrative freedom to universities to run the institution
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Q82) The term Evaluation and Assessment could be discriminated as follows

Options:
A) Assessment is limited to coverage achievement whereas evaluation is
qualitative in character
B) Evaluation is concerned with the effective aspects of achievement whereas
assessment judges the cognitive aspects
C) Evaluation involves the measurement as well as diagnosis of students
attainments, whereas assessment is concerned with only scholastic
attainments.
D) Assessment is an attempt to measure the pupil as whole whereas evaluation
is concerned with his achievement only
Q83) Planning or arranging the students environment in order to predict the

consequences of a students behaviour is referred to as
Options:
A) Prompting
B) Reinforcement
C) Shaping
D) Stimulus control
Q84) Naturalism in education means

Options:
A) I ntroduction of physical sciences in education
B) Giving more importance to mind than to matter
C) Making discrimination between mind and consciousness
D) Supporting both mind and consciousness equally
Q85) Navodaya Schools have been established to
Options:
A) increase number of school in rural areas
B) provide good education in rural areas
C) complete Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
D) check wastage of education in rural areas
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Q86) For developing the language abilities of kindergartners, which of the

following would be the most appropriate way to follow up the writing of a group
essay?
Options:
A) Prepare a list of the most difficult words for the children to learn to spell.
B) Show the children how to revise the sentences to make them longer and more
complex structurally.
C) Have the children print the essay for themselves, then practice writing it,
using cursive letters.
D) Read the essay aloud, in unison with the children, then leave it displayed
where they can examine it
Q87) Which is the least important factor in teaching?
Options:
A) Punishing the students B) Maintaining discipline in the class
C) Lecturing in impressive way
D) Drawing sketches and diagrams on the black-board

Options:
A) Aptitudes B) Skills
C) Attitudes D) Relationship
Q89) Which is the most important aspect of the teachers role in learning?
Options:
B) The development of insight into what constitutes the pitfalls and dangers to
be avoided
C) The provision of encouragement and moral support
D) The provision of continuous diagnostic and remedial help
Q90) Theory of multiple intelligence implies the following except

Options:
A) intelligence is a distinct set of processing operations used by an individual to

solve problems.
349
B) disciplines should be presented in a number of ways

C) learning could be accessed through a variety of means
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D) emotional intelligence is not related to IQ

Q91) Smallest unit of meaning in a language is

Options:
A) syntax B) morpheme
C) Pragmatics D) phoneme
Q92) A child cannot distinguish between saw and was, nuclear and unclear.
She/he is suffering from
Options:
A) dyslexia B) word jumbling disorder

C) dyslexemia D) dysmorphemia
Q93) Adolescents may experience

Options:
A) feeling of self-actualization
B) feeling of satiation about life
C) anxiety and concern about themselves
D) feeling of fear about sins committed in childhood.

Options:
A) Personal adjustment B) Modification of behaviour
C) Social and political awareness D) Preparing oneself for employment
Options:
A) Encouraged to find answer independently
B) Advised to meet the teacher after the class
C) Encouraged to continue questioning
D) Advised not to disturb during the lecture
Q96) Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through:

Options:
A) A Discussion method
350
B) Lecture method
C) Audio-visual aids
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D) Text book method

Q97) The teacher has been glorified by the phrase Friend, philosopher and
guide because:
Options:

Options:
C) Verbal ability
Options:
A) Use of films
Q100) Which theory of learning has found knowledge of internal processes

crucial to the understanding of learning?
Options:
A) Cognitive theorists B) Stimulus response theorists
C) Operant conditioning theorists D) Classical conditioning theorists
Q101) A teacher can make problem-solving fun for students by doing all the
following except
Options:
A) providing open ended material
B) giving time for free play
C) providing endless opportunities for creative thinking
D) expecting perfection from the students while they are trying to do things by
351
themselves.
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Q102) It is said that a teacher in the classroom is a

Options:
A) Speaker
B) Leader
C) Friend
D) Thinker
Options:
A) Attitudes
B) Concept
C) Knowledge
D) Maturation
Q104) A teacher can establish rapport with his students by:

Options:
Q105) According to Swami Vivekananda, teachers success depends on:

Options:

D) His mastery on the subject and capacity in controlling the students
Q106) A teachers most important challenge is:

Options:
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Options:
C) Inculcation of virtues
Q108) Some students are backward in studies. What will be your attitude
towards them?
Options:
A) Harsh B) Sympathetic
C) Liberal D) Lovable
Q109) For harmonious development of the personality of the child, parent

should
Options:
A) overprotect the child.
B) regularly compare the child with other children.
C) provide conducive environment at home.
D) engage qualified teachers.
Q110) Which of the following characteristics is most essential to make you a

good teacher?
Options:
A) Sympathy for students.
B) Proficiency of language.
C) Thoroughness of knowledge.
D) Effective communication.
Q111) You have been selected in all the four professions given below. Where
would you like to go?
Options:
A) Teacher
B) Police
C) Army
353
D) Bank
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would:
Options:
A) Pull up the student then and there

Q113) Good evaluation of written material should not be based on:

Options:

Options:
A) To make teaching fun-filled
C) For students attention
Q115) Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of:

Options:
A) Learning
B) Research
C) Heredity
D) Explanation
Q116) learners can learn more effectively by

Options:
A) listening the lecture
B) noting the detailed written notes from the lecture
C) actively participating in the lecture in interactive way
D) all of the above
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Q117) Vygotsky theory implies

Options:
A) child will learn best in the company of children having IQ lesser than his/her
own.
B) collaborative problem solving
C) individual assignments to each student
D) after initial explanation, do not support a child in solving difficult questions
Q118) Which of the following plays a broad role for guiding the selection of
teaching method?
Options:
A) The focus of learning B) the strength of the entire class
C) content of teaching D) all of the above

Options:
A) A teacher of high idealistic attitude B) A loving teacher

through its own channel is
Options:
A) Osmania University B) University of Pune

C) Annamalai University D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
1.knowledge of technology.
2. Use of technology in teaching learning.
3. knowledge of students needs.
4. Content mastery
Options:
A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3
355
C) 2, 3 & 4 D) 2 & 4
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Q122) Who has signed an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education

Options:
A) NAAC and UGC B) NCTE and NAAC

C) UGC and NCTE D) NCTE and IGNOU
Q123) Which combination of teaching methods listed below would encourage

the learner-cantered paradigm?
Options:
A) I ndividualized instruction and lecture method
B) Simulation and demonstration
C) Lecture method and experimentation
D) Projects and Direct experiences
Q124) At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because

Options:
A) it develops self-confidence in children
B) it makes learning easy
C) it is helpful in intellectual development
D) it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere
Q125) Women are better teacher at primary level because

Options:
A) they behave more patiently with children

B) they are ready to work with low salary
C) higher qualification is not needed in this profession
D) they have less chances in other profession
Q126) ins ide the classroom, before explaining the importance of topic, it is too
important to
Options:
A) maintain strict discipline in the class
B) get the attention of the students
C) ask the students few questions from the last lecture
D) all of the above
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Q127) If we believe in the dualistic theory of the mind versus body nature of an,
have to arrive at the consequence that
Options:
A) Education is mechanization in process and theoretical in development

B) Learning is purely a matter of material changes in the behaviour of man
C) Learning an education should cater to observable behaviour of man
D) Education is purely a matter of mental training and development of the self.
Q128) Swami Vivekananda was famous for speaking of

Options:
A) Vedas
B) Medicians
C) Gita
D) Vedanta
Q129) Article 45 under the Directive Principles of State policy in the India
Constitution, provides for
Options:
A) Rights of minorities to establish educational institutions

B) Free and compulsory primary education
C) Education for weaker sections of the country
D) Giving financial assistance to less advanced states
Q130) Vivekananda was a

Options:
A) Religious guru B) Poet
C) Philosopher D) All of the above
Q131) you are planning to teach human anatomy in a medical college. Which
one of the following is the most suitable teaching aid?
Options:
A) Put up a chart on human anatomy
B) show the students model of the human body
C) Read from the text and simultaneously explaining the topic
D) show the presentation and videos depicting location and functions of parts of
357
the human body

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Q132) Which of the following teacher behaviour suggests a dimension of

unsuccessful teacher behaviour? A teacher who is
Options:
A) Stimulating and imaginative

B) Busine ss like and friendly
C) Aloof and routine
D) Understanding and sympathetic
Q133) What is most important while writing on blackboard?

Options:
A) Good writing
B) Clarity in writing
C) Writing in big letters
D) Writing in small letters
Q134) The industrial revolution that started in the West to begin with had the
following effect on education
Options:
A) Shifting the emphasis from the lower class culture to the middle class culture
B) Shifting the centre of gravity from the middle to the lower class culture
C) Introduction of mass educational programmes
D) Introduction of vocationalisation of education
Q135) Any deterrents are negative in character

Options:
A) When they prevent children from doing wrong
B) When they prevent doing wrong but do not reform children
C) When they are administered owing to some misunderstanding
D) When they are administered with a negative motive
Q136) Which of the following kinds of instruction is frequently cited as the

opposite of discovery learning?
Options:
A) Simulation games B) Expository teaching

C) Mastery learning D) Schema training
358
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Q137) Industries near the towns cause

Options:
A) Pollution
B) Finished material
C) Security
D) Employment
Q138) Gang age period refers to
Options:
A) I nfancy
B) Preadolescent
C) Teen age
D) Adult
Q139) If you find a child in your class who always isolates from the rest of the
class, you would ...
Options:
A) ask the child to be normal by taking example of his classmates
B) try to understand the underlying clause
C) leave the child alone so that the child comes out of his own
D) inform the management that his presence may affect other students of the
class.
Q140) All of the following can be signs that a child is gifted, except
Options:
A) I nterest in encyclopaedia and dictionaries
B) Uneasy relationships with peers.
C) Early development of a sense of time
D) Easy retention of facts
Q141) With the frequent use of brain storming method the teacher develops
Options:
A) Creativity
B) Intelligence
C) Perception
359
D) Memory
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Q142) In which stage is the Physical growth is rapid

Options:
A) Early childhood
B) Infancy
C) Adolescence
D) School age
Q143) The two factor theory of intelligence was proposed by
Options:
A) Spearman
B) We chsler
C) Piaget
D) Binet
Q144) When a teacher ensures that students complete an exercise in

mathematics and makes sure instructions are clear and specific. The teacher
ensures the ........ aspect of assessment
Options:
A) A Validity
B) Practicality
C) Reliability
D) Wash-back effect
Q145) Who said this, Child should be treated as child.

Options:
A) A Rousseau
B) We chsler
C) Bine t
D) Gagne
Q146) It is absurd to say that there can be

Options:
A) A pollution due to noise
B) Education causes pollution
C) Transport vehicles cause pollution
360
D) All of the above

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Q147) Which of the following will not hamper effective communication in the
class?
Options:
A) A An ambiguous statement
B) A lengthy statement
C) A precise statement
D) A statement which allows the listener to draw his own conclusions
Q148) which of the following is most suitable method of teaching if focus of

learning is to increase the skills
Options:
A) A demonstration
B) discussion
C) learning by self-study
D) all of the above
Q149) Some students send a greeting card to you on teachers day. What will
you do? You will
Options:
A) do nothing
B) say thanks to them
C) ask them to not to waste money
D) reciprocate the good wishes to the
Q150) A student comes late in your class. Then you will

Options:
A) inform to parents B) punis h him
C) try to know the reason D) not pay attention there
Q151) the lecture method in a classroom is an effective way to

Options:
A) I ntroduce new concept
B) introduce new skills
C) if the mind the understanding of learners
D) Stimulate participation of learner
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Q152) Which one is accountable in cooperative learning

Options:
A) I ndividual
B) Group
C) Both A & B
Q153) What type of test is most effective when trying to test memorization?
Options:
A) True / false
B) Multiple choices
C) Fill in blanks
D) B and C
Q154) Cooperative learning is an alternative to

Options:
A) competitive models
B) Teaching models
C) lesson plans
D) Micro teaching
Q155) The essential characteristic of cooperative learning is

Options:
A) Effective learning
B) Positive interdependence
C) Cooperation
D) Division of labour
Q156) The students like to spend the most of the time with
Options:
A) Teachers
B) parents
C) Relatives
D) Peers
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Q157) Peer culture constitutes

Options:
A) Socialization
B) Individualization
C) Both A & B
Q158) Which is not the advantage of team teaching
Options:
A) Better utilization of resources
B) Better planning
C) Better use of teaching techniques
D) Better financial benefits of teachers
Q159) The hypothesis underlying team teaching is

Options:
A) Teachers feel bore while working alone
B) Teachers are not competent
C) The best teachers in schools are shared by more students
D) The single teacher cannot control the class
Q160) Classroom management research findings suggest that one of the most
effective ways to maximize the amount of time elementary school children spend
on academic activities is for the teacher to do which of the following?
Options:
A) Plan for, teach, and enforce routines for transition times and classroom
housekeeping tasks.
B) Assign homework three times a week in the major subjects.
C) Assign individual reading on new topics before discussing the topic in class.
D) Introduce new material in a lecture followed immediately by a questioning
session on the material.
Q161) When the students become failed, it can be understood that
Options:
A) the system has failed B) The teachers failure
363
C) The text-books failure D) The individual students failure

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Q162) A teacher uses a text and some pictures of fruits and vegetables and
holds a discussion with her students. The students link the details with their
previous knowledge and learn the concept of nutrition. This approach is based
on
Options:
A) A Classical conditioning of learning
B) Theory of reinforcement
C) Operant conditioning of learning
D) Construction of knowledge
Q163) Out of the following, in which lesson, a general rule is explained first and
then examples are illustrated?
Options:
A) Deductive lesson B) Inductive lesson

C) Cognitive lesson D) Skill lesson
Q164) Counselling is provided to assist an individual

Options:
A) To diagnose learning deficiencies

B) To understand and solve problem
C) To develop insight
D) To develop the personality
Q165) The lowest level of Taxonomy of Educational Objectives of Cognitive

Domain given by Bloom is
Options:
A) Knowledge B) Comprehension
C) Application D) Analysis
Q166) Instructional objectives are useful to

Options:
A) Teachers
B) Students
C) Question paper setters
D) All of the above
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Q167) The objectives of a Curriculum are to be stated in terms of

Options:
A) Students entering behaviour
B) Students terminal behaviour
C) Teachers behaviour
D) Learning process
Q168) Which of the following is a characteristic of a good test?
Options:
A) Validity
B) Reliability
C) Usability
D) All of the above
Q169) which domain does the following objective fall? At the end of the lesson
the learner should be able to hit the football using the head.
Options:
A) Affective domain
B) Cognitive domain
C) Psychomotor domain
D) A and C domains
Q170) During a visit to a second-grade classroom, a student teacher observed a

child spending the time allotted for a worksheet either looking out the window or
doodling on his paper. When the student teacher asked the child if he needed
help on the assignment, he said no. When asked why he wasnt doing it, he
pointed to another student and said, She does all her work fast and when shes
done, she gets more work. The boys reaction suggests which of the following
about his classroom?
Options:
A) A routine has been established for students who are having trouble finishing
an assignment to ask the teacher for assistance.
B) A routine for rewarding students who finish work promptly is not in place.
C) Students must work alone on seatwork, without consulting other students.
D) Students who finish work before the whole class is finished must not
interrupt the students who are still working
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Q171) When you put a question in the class to check the knowledge of students,
the best method would be to
Options:
A) Put more than one question at a time to stimulate students

B) Frame the question as lengthy as you can
C) To point to intelligent students first and then put the question
D) To pose the question to the whole class and then select somebody to answer
Q172) Research is
Options:
A) Data gathering
B) Moving from a broad area to a narrow and focused area
C) A systematic process of finding the truth
D) Data gathering, processing and analysis
Q173) The theory of learning associated with connectionism was propounded by

Options:
A) Socrates
B) Pavlov
C) Thorndike
D) Kilpatrick
Q174) Evaluation in education insists on the following

Options:
A) Making tests more reliable and valid
B) Conducting periodical tests to detect students weaknesses
C) Insisting on clear cut behaviour al objectives of teaching
D) Examining students objectively for selection purpose
Q175) The main purpose of the first degree in our universities should be to
Options:
A) Bring students to frontiers of knowledge and from there should be research
B) Equip students with necessary competencies for different work experiences
C) Prepare students for social service and bring them to the threshold of
knowledge
366
D) Bring to the frontiers of research with necessary equipment of knowledge

Page

Q176) The idea of starting girls University in our country started in the year
1970.
Options:
A) As an initiative of the British rulers.

B) Through the efforts of municipalities and local fund communities
C) With the opening of the SNDT university at Bombay
D) With the political awakening in the country by the push given by Mahatma
Gandhi
Q177) In the introduction part of a lesson plan you get the student ........
Options:
A) Assignments B) Previous knowledge
C) Attention D) Abilities
Q178) A good communicator needs to be good at

Options:
A) A Speaking B) Listening
C) The use of language D) The use of humour in speech
Q179) Which controls reflex action?

Options:
A) Sympathetic nervous system B) Central nervous system
C) Parasympathetic nervous system D) Sensory nerves
Q180) The National Educational Policy of 1979, recommended also about the
public schools
Options:
A) their uniquencies and traditions have to preserved the interests of the best
talents of the country
B) they should be brought under laws and regulations of the government public
education system
C) they must be allowed the autonomy that was bestowed on the by the past
system of education
D) suitable ratio has to be maintained for admission of middle class and poor
student also.
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Q181) Rama Krishna Mission was founded by

Options:
A) Swami Dayanand B) Swami Vivekananda
C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy D) Guru Nanak Dev
Q182) Annie Besant inspired the opening of schools in many cities is

Options:
A) End of nineteenth century
B) Early nineteenth century
C) Early twentieth century
D) End twentieth century
Q183) Critical pedagogy firmly believes that

Options:
A) the learners need not reason independently
B) what children learn out of school is irrelevant
C) the experiences and perceptions of learners are important
D) the teacher should always lead the classroom instruction
Q184) Cons idering that all behaviour occurs in context, what is the possible
source of behaviour of a child who refuses to interact with the teacher and peers
all the time?
Options:
A) Materials being learnt are too simple or too challenging

B) The child has a fight with the parents
C) The child has been rejected or ridiculed by parents and adults
D) The child does not understand
Q185) A teacher, after preparing a question paper, checks whether the

questions test specific testing objectives. He is concerned primarily about the
question papers
Options:
A) content coverage
B) typology of questions
C) reliability
368
D) validity
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Q186) School based assessment is primarily based on the principle that

Options:
A) teachers know their learners capabilities better than external examiners
B) students should at all costs get high grades
C) schools are more efficient than external bodies of examination
D) assessment should be very economical
Q187) Learners display individual differences. So a teacher should
Options:
A) provide a variety of learning experiences
B) enforce strict discipline
C) increase number of tests
D) insist on uniform pace of learning
Q188) Which of the following is a principle of development?

Options:
A) It does not proceed at the same pace for all
B) Development is always linear
C) It is a discontinuous process
D) All processes of development are not inter-connected
Q189) Human development is divided into domains such as

Options:
A) physical, cognitive, emotional and social

B) emotional, cognitive, spiritual and socio psychological
C) psychological, cognitive, emotional and physical
D) physical, spiritual, cognitive and social
Q190) In ancient India religions and moral aims were dominated by

Options:
A) Brahmanic system of education
B) kshatriya system of education
C) Both A & B
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Q191) What does the cognitive domain of Blooms taxonomy of educational

objectives affect in learners?
Options:
A) Thoughts B) Emotions
C) Skills D) All the above
Q192) The concept of totalitarian education in the West was in favour of

Options:
A) Treating education as a binding factor of international understanding

B) The education of the individual for development of his total personality
C) Making the education of the individual as an instrument for realizing the
ends of the state
D) Making the state responsible to evolve education as a means of satisfying
individuals needs and interests.
Q193) Regarding co-education at the secondary stage, the 1952-53 Education

Commission has suggested that
Options:
A) To start, resource, in several states could not afford

B) There should be objection to extend co-educational school
C) To maintain separate schools for boys and girls
D) The situation in our country warrants establishment of more boys schools
than co-educational school.
Q194) Who formed Brahmo Sama

Options:
A) Guru Nana B) Kabir
C) Ramanand D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Q195) A teacher has serious defect is he/she

Options:
A) is physically handicapped
B) belongs to low socio-economic status
C) has weak personality
D) has immature mental development
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Q196) If a student is constantly rubbing his eyes and is inattentive during

blackboard work he is having
Options:
A) Adjustment problem
B) hearing problem
C) Visual problem
D) All of the above
Q197) Play therapy is adopted in the study of children in order to

Options:
A) Make the educational process joyful
B) To understand the inner motives and complexes of children
C) Make education more activity cantered
D) Highlight the importance of play activities in education
Q198) What is the disadvantage of the project method of teaching?

Options:
A) It is learner-cantered
B) Learners get firsthand knowledge
C) The learners are not well supervised
D) The learners interest is considered
Q199) The most powerful barrier of communication in the classroom is

Options:
A) Noise in the classroom
B) Confusion on the part of the teacher
C) Lack of teaching aids
D) More outside disturbance in the class room
Q200) Non-formal Education is

Options:
A) Provided by family, community, religion etc.
B) Having no fixed curriculum
C) Not motivated for acquiring knowledge
D) Arranged by some organized body
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Q201) Qualities essential to success in teaching are

Options:
A) Adaptability, patience and alertness
B) Dependence and indecisiveness
C) Authoritarian attitude
D) Materialistic bent of mind
Q202) School is an institution which has the function of
Options:
A) Stratification on religious basis
B) Stratification on economic class basis
C) Social distance
D) Socialization
Q203) The human interaction within a school may be described as a

Options:
A) Social Position
B) Social Hierarchy
C) Social System
D) Social Mobility
Q204) It is said that there is an urgent need of articulation among schools and
colleges, this problem of articulation is concerned with
Options:
A) Provision of better administrative facilities
B) Appointment of talented teachers
C) Communication and closer relationship among teachers
D) Better facilities for in-service training of teachers
Q205) The teachers should make constant efforts to situate the new information
in the context of
Options:
A) real-life experiences
B) evaluation system
C) previously learned information
372
D) all of the above

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Q206) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a slow learner?

Options:
A) Limited vocabulary
B) Short span of attention
C) Abstract thinking
D) Limited range of interests
Q207) The mean score on any class test is the result of
Options:
A) dividing the sum of all scores by the number of scores
B) determining the middle score when all the scores have been listed from the
highest to the lowest
C) determining the most frequent score.
D) Adding all the scores and dividing by the most frequent score
Q208) The success of teacher is

Options:
A) high achievement of students
B) good traits of his/her personality
C) his/her good teaching
D) his/her good character
Q209) Inclusive Education

Options:
A) celebrates diversity in the classroom
B) encourages strict admission procedures
C) includes indoctrination of facts
D) includes teachers from marginalized groups

Options:
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Options:
D) Always
Options:
A) I dealist philosophy
B) Compass ion
C) Discipline
D) Entertaining
Q213) Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good
teacher?
Options:
A) Punctuality and sincerity
B) Content mastery
C) Content mastery and reactive
D) Content mastery and sociable
Q214) Which of the following is an objective question?

Options:
A) Short answer question
B) Open ended question
C) True or False
D) Essay type question
Q215) Which of the following is a feature of progressive education?

Options:
A) I nstruction based solely on prescribed textbooks
B) Emphasis on scoring good marks in examinations
C) Frequent tests and examinations
D) Flexible timetable and seating arrangement
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Q216) A teacher used the following statement to change the behaviour of a

student who was a smoker. Smoking is healthy for the nation. This is an
example of
Options:
A) Cognitive dissonance B) Conceptual conflict
C) Meaningful learning D) Challenge
Q217) A child has been admitted to your school who belongs to a back ward
family/background from the cultural viewpoint. You will
Options:
A) keep him in a class in which, there are many more students of backward
background from the cultural viewpoint
B) Send a teacher to know more about the backward cultural background of the
child
C) keep him in a normal class but will make special arrangements for teaching
him, keeping his special needs in view
D) Advise him to take up vocational education
Q218) A Deepawali fair is being organized in your school. What would you like
to do?
Options:
A) only to visit the fair
B) to take part in function
C) to take a shop to sell something
D) to distribute free water to visitors
Q219) The academic aspects of education at school level are governed by

Options:
A) UGC B) NCERT
C) NEPA D) NCTE
Q220) Tagore was a

Options:
A) Philosopher B) Poet
C) Musician D) Both A & B
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Q221) The topic method in education should be interpreted

Options:
A) a method of development of the syllabus in a subject
B) a concentric approach of teaching the classroom
C) a substitute for the project method of teaching
D) a method suited better for arts subjects as compared to science subjects.
Q222) When a student takes the same test twice it is referred to as?
Options:
A) Post-test
B) Pre-test
C) Test-retest
D) After-test
Q223) A child starts to cry when his grandmother takes him from his mothers
lap. The child cries due to
Options:
A) Social anxiety
B) Emotional anxiety
C) Stranger anxiety
D) Separation anxiety
Q224) The process whereby the genetic factors limit an individuals

res ponsiveness to the environment is known as
Options:
A) Discontinuity
B) Differentiation
C) Range of reaction
D) Canalization
Q225) The term Mnemonics is associated with

Options:
A) Memory
B) Amnesia
C) cognitive behaviour
376
D) Anaemia
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Q226) Frobels most important contribution to education was his development of

the
Options:
A) A Public high school

B) Latin School
C) Vocational school
D) Kindergarten
Q227) the learner always appreciate

Options:
A) a concise and stimulating lecture
B) A well researched and informative lecture
C) a well organized and presentable lecture
D) all of the above
Q228) It is advantage of giving home work that students

Options:
A) remain busy at home
B) study at home
C) may be checked for their progress
D) may develop habit of self study
Q229) Appetite and satiety centres of brain an present it

Options:
A) Hypothalamus B) Cerebral hemisphere
C) Cerebellum D) Medulla oblongata
Q230) The Indian Education Commission (1964-66) has recommended

compulsory social service for school children as follows
Options:
A) 20 days for the lower secondary stage and 20 days for the higher secondary
stage
B) 10 days for the primary stage and 30 days the secondary stage
C) 30 days for the lower secondary and 20 days for the higher secondary stage
D) 10 days for the lower secondary stage and 20 days for the higher secondary
377
stage
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Q231) All teachers should have a good ........ when they go into the class-room
Options:
A) Plan
B) Choice
C) Attitude
D) Class
Q232) The most important function of a teacher is to
Options:
A) facilitate learning
B) manage instructional resources
C) coordinate curricular activities
D) provide information
Q233) It is popularly said that any two students are not alike. This implies that
they differ in their
Options:
A) physical and mental set up B) aptitude
C) social status D) attitude
Q234) Which of the following methods of teaching encourages the use of

maximum senses?
Options:
A) Problem-solving method
B) Laboratory method
C) Self-study method
D) Team teaching method
Q235) Emotional development is as much affected by maturation and learning

as sensory processes, muscular growth and intellectual functions. Parlous
experiment showed emotional responses could be learned through
Options:
A) conditioning
B) imitation
C) knowledge and skills.
378
D) None of these
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Q236) Before starting instruction a teacher should

Options:
A) know the existing knowledge of his students and their background
knowledge.
B) Be aware of the environmental variables acting on the mind of the pupil
C) Be competent enough to arouse the curiosity of pupil.
D) All of these
Q237) The members of a group act, feel and think together, in a way which is
different from the normal acting, feeling and thinking of individual, who come
together to for the group. I t is known as
Options:
A) memsis B) Co-operation
C) Understanding D) Group working
Q238) which of the following is a good method of teaching?

Options:
A) Lecture and dictation B) Seminar and project
C) Seminar and dictation D) Dictation and Assignment
Q239) which of the following is the most important signal factor in underlying
the success of beginning a teacher?
Options:
A) Scholarship
B) Communicative ability
C) Personality and its ability to relate to the class and to the pupils
D) Organizational ability
Q240) which one of the following is least required during the preparation of
lecture?
Options:
A) Clear introduction and summary
B) Time and control unit
C) Examples for better explanation and understanding.
D) Factual materials in indirect way
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Q241) The most important task is teaching is

Options:
A) Making Monthly Reports And Maintaining Records
B) Making Assignments And Hearing Recitations
C) Directing Students In The Development Of Experience
D) None Of These
Q242) The most accurate statement about teaching machines is that
Options:
A) b. f. skinner Began The Movement For Their Use.
B) They Were Designed As A Economy Measure To Replace Teachers.
C) They Are Not As Efficient As Teachers In Reinforcing Responses
D) They Can Be Used For All earning Programmes
Q243) Students should prefer those teachers who

Options:
A) dictate notes in the class.
B) give important questions before examination.
C) can clear their difficulties regarding subject-matter.
D) are themselves disciplined.
Q244) Which of the following is the most important characteristic of Open Book
Examination system?
Options:
A) Students become serious
B) It improves attendance in the classroom.
C) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students.
D) In compels students to think
Q245) Team teaching has the potential to develop:

Options:
A) Competitive spirit
B) Cooperation
C) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each other
D) Highlighting the gaps in each others teaching
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Q246) The most common cause of nervous instability amongst teacher is

Options:
A) worry B) fatigue
C) quarrelsome behaviour D) all of the above
Q247) What will you do as a teacher if the students do not attend your class?
Options:
A) Blame the students for their absence
B) keep quiet considering the present attitude of students as the change of
culture
C) Think of using some interesting methods of teaching
D) know the reason and try to remove the
Q248) Teachers who are enthusiastic in the classroom teaching

Options:
A) often lack proficiency in the subjects which stays hidden under their
enthusiasm
B) simply dramatize to hold the students attention.
C) involve their students in the teaching learning process
D) All of these
Q249) The most appropriate meaning of learning is

Options:
A) inculcation of knowledge B) modification of behaviour

C) personal adjustment D) acquisition of skills
Q250) A teacher can help adolescent to overcome his special problems, and help
him to adjust to the environment Which of the following attitude, he should not
made?
Options:
A) He Should Impart Right Information about sex
B) He Should Redirect The Energies Of The Adolescent To Fruitful Channels
Through Sports And Other Constructive Activities.
C) He Should Have Unsympathetic Attitude Towards Others
D) He Should Have Right Information About Sex.
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Q251) The process of learning include which of the following

Options:
A) Synthesis And Organization Of The Old And New Experiences, Resulting In A
Novel Pattern.
B) It Includes All Activities Which Leave Permanent Effect On The Individual.
C) In its Simplest Form, Learning Means Acquisition, Retention And
Modification Of Experience
D) All Of These
Q252) A new comer teacher who is maltreated in his class will deal with the
students by
Options:
A) Applying Punitive Measure
B) Improving His Qualities And Expressing It Before Them In A Good Way.
C) Changing His Class After Consultation
D) Giving Them A Threat Of Expulsion.
Q253) A teacher can establish rapport with his pupil by
Options:
A) Becoming A Figure Of Authority
B) Impressing Them with knowledge And Skill
C) Playing The Role Of A Guide With Desire To Help The
D) Becoming A Friend To The pupils
Q254) If majority of students in your class is weak you should

Options:
A) Not Care About Intelligent student
B) Keep Your Speed Of Teaching Fast So That Students Comprehension Level
May Increase
C) Keep Your Teaching Slow Which Can Also Be Helpful To Bright Students.
D) Keep Your Teaching Slow Along With Some Extra Guidance To Bright People
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Q255) If student do not understand what is taught in the class the teacher
should feel
Options:
A) terribly bored B) to explain it in different way
C) that he is wasting time D) pity for the students
Q256) Which of the following is not true about earthquake?
Options:
A) The shaking of ground is known as earthquake
B) It is a geological hazard
C) Seismic waves generated by earthquakes are invaluable for studying the
interior of earth
D) Tsunami causes earthquakes
Q257) comparing the lecture and developmental lessons which one of the
following is false?
Options:
A) There is more public developmental lesson

B) It t is more difficult to ascertain public learning in a lecture lesson
C) The lecture method is more conducive to largest class
D) Slow children derive more benefits form a lecture than brighter children do
Q258) If a teacher is cracking filthy jokes in a class and you are unable to stop
him, then what will you do?
Options:
A) persuade him/her decently not to waste their time-in filthy jokes.
B) live in isolation or change the group.
C) instruct him to mind his/her language in class.
D) be critical and remind him for the nobility of their jobs.
Q259) The main purpose of evaluating listening is

Options:
A) to accept or reject an idea given to the listener

383
B) to evaluate the speakers credibility and personality

C) Both (a) and (b)
D) All of these
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Q260) The teacher has been glorified by the phrase Friend, philosopher and
guide because
Options:
Q261) A teacher major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of the

student is affected through
Options:
Q262) Teachers primary responsibility lies in
Options:
A) planning educational experiences
B) implementing policies
C) keeping students record
D) All of the above
Q263) In case of equal emoluments. The best profession is that of

Options:
A) Teacher
B) Doctor
C) An Engineer
D) Research Workers
Q264) Which one of the following is a primary task of a teacher?

Options:
A) To teach the prescribed curriculum.

384
B) To stimulate and guide students learning.

C) To promote habits of conformity to adult demands and expectations
D) To provide diagnostic and re-medial aid wherever desired.
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Q265) Which one of the following has the largest share in classroom
communication?
Options:
A) Listening
B) Reading
C) Writing
D) Speaking
Q266) If a student is absent from the classes for a long time

Options:
A) you will try to know the cause of his absence.
B) you would try to solve his problems or help him.
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of these
Q267) Who has the least chance of becoming an effective teacher?

Options:
A) One who is a strict disciplinarian.

B) One who knows his subject well
C) One who has no interest in teaching.
D) One who teaches moral values.
Q268) Educational quality is

Options:
A) Fundamental right
B) Only a customary right
C) Only a legal right
D) None of these
Q269) Which of the following is fast step of teaching?

Options:
A) Presentation
B) Application
385
C) Comparison
D) Generalization
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Q270) Which of the following is /are correct?

Options:
A) A teacher should introduce the lesson before he starts teaching

B) a teacher should have command over his language
C) A teacher should have command over his subject
D) All of these
Q271) Effective teaching involves

Options:
A) teacher dominance
B) pupil dominance
C) teacher and pupil interview
D) silence
Q272) Maximum participation of students-dents is possible

Options:
A) discussion method
B) lecture method
C) audio-visual aids
D) text book method
Q273) During le cture in classroom, some students hesitate to say that they are
unable to understand your lecture. What may be the reason for this?
Options:
A) You are unable to communicate effectively.
B) Your educational methodology is inadequate
C) Students fear you.
D) There is a cordial relation between you and your students
Q274) All of the following statements about a teacher are correct except that
he/she is
Options:
A) a friend guide and philosopher

386
B) teacher that the students do not know

C) the leader in the class.
D) Changes his attitudes and behaviour according to the need of the society.
Page


Options:
A) during the practice-teaching B) after the practice teaching

C) before the practice-teaching D) None of these
Q276) Teaching model is a way to

Options:
A) teach in a formal as well as informal way.

B) Select such stimulus so that, the students may give expected feedback.
C) Talk and think about instruction, which may contain facts in organized and
classified manner.
D) both (a) and ( b)
Q277) suppose you are asked by your friends to take the membership of the
teachers association. How could you take decision in this situation?
Options:
A) You will give priority to social relations, therefore, you will accept the offer.
B) You will have, faith in unity so you will accept the membership.
C) You will de-affiliate yourself from the colleagues instead of entity with the
management.
D) You will try to avoid the issue.
Q278) an effective teaching means all of the following except

Options:
A) A teacher teaches with enthusiasm.
B) A teacher finds fault in his students.
C) A teacher puts emphasis more on teaching than on class control.
D) A teacher is interested in making the subject matter understood rather than
on completing the course.
Q279) To gain popularity among students, teacher should:

Options:
A) personally help them in their study

387
B) frequently organize tours

C) dictate notes while teaching
D) maintain good social relation-ship
Page

Q280) Which one of the following is not a quality of teacher?

Options:
A) Teacher should use modern techniques. Methods and gadgets are teaching
for better understanding of subject matter.
B) Teacher should maintain a autocratic atmosphere in the class.
C) He/she should have interest in his/her profession and knowledge must be
updated.
D) Teacher must be fair tin grading and marking.
Q281) Which of the following is NOT true?

Options:
A) Teaching is an art.
B) Teachers can be trained.
C) Teachers are born.
D) All of the above
Q282) The main function of educational psychology is to provide prospective

teacher with:
Options:
A) research procedures for evaluating current teaching procedure.
B) Insight into the needs, problems and styles of behaviour of teacher.
C) Insight into various aspects of modern teaching education.
D) How to deal with students and everyday class situation.
Q283) Which of the following is not a quality of teacher?

Options:
A) Teacher should be keen in his work and should be enthusiastic and anxious
to keep his knowledge fresh and update.
B) He should have feelings of love and sympathy.
C) His language should be understandable to students.
D) He may not know child psychology.
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Q284) You bringing your pupil for a monument visit outside your city. A father
is reluctant to send his child for this. What will you do?
Options:
A) Leave that child and go with others
B) Try to understand his fathers problems
C) Try to convince him for sending his child by explaining the importance of
such as educational and cultural trip.
D) None of these
Q285) The primary task of a teacher is

Options:
A) to teach the prescribed curriculum
B) to prepare students to pass their examination
C) to make them a thinking people
D) to modify their behaviour according to the needs of our society and country.
Q286) Who define d teaching as a A organized system of specific activities aimed

to help the learner learn something ?
Options:
A) Morrin
B) Byod
C) smith
D) Jackson
Q287) Which of the following statements regarding motivation is correct?

Options:
A) Freewill, intellect and reason are the motivating factors according to Plato.
B) Inborn, unlearned tendencies, called instincts are the motivating forces
according to James Burt.
C) Curiosity and level of aspiration are motivating factors according to Berlyne.
D) All of these
389
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Q288) Catharsis means discharge of emotions. A teacher can let off pent up
energy of his disciple through
Options:
A) picnic/excursions
B) mock parliament
C) celebration of festivals
D) all of these
Q289) The students who keep asking questions in the class

Options:
A) Performs the role of an active member of the political party in power.
B) Should be encouraged to participate in classroom discussion
C) Should be encouraged to find answer independently
D) Should be encouraged to continue questioning.
Q290) which of the following one is most effective for a teacher?

Options:
A) Knowledge
B) Feedback
C) Management
D) Teaching skills
Q291) If majority of students in your class are weak you should

Options:
A) not care about the intelligent students
B) keep your speed of teaching fast so that students comprehension level may
increase
C) keep your teaching slow
D) keep your teaching slow along with some extra guidance to bright pupils
Q292) A teacher who is not able to draw the attention of his students should
Options:
A) evaluate his teaching method and improve it

390
B) res ign from the post

C) find fault in his pupils
D) start dictating
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Q293) Arrange the following teaching process in order

(in) relating the present knowledge with the previous knowledge
(ii) evaluation
(iii) reteaching
(iv) formulating objectives
(v) presentation of materials
Options:
A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

B) (ii), (i) (iii), (iv), ( v)
C) ( v), (iv), (iii), (i) , (ii)
D) (iv), (i) , ( v), (ii), (iii)
Q294) Which of the following is the most important single factor in underlying
Options:
A) scholarship
B) communicative ability
C) personality and its ability to relate to the class and to the pupils
D) organizational ability
Q295) The field of education is permeated by conflicts and misconception

because
Options:
A) problems in education call for subjectivity of interpretation
B) problems encountered in teaching are not amenable to rigorous scientific
investigation
C) there are not good teaching methods and procedures
D) teachers are not worthy of doing rigorous scientific investigation
Q296) If some of your pupils misbehave with you in the college campus you
must
Options:
A) report to the principal

391
B) report to their parents

C) improve their behaviour by your own character and scholarship
Page
D) mobilize other teachers against these guys

Q297) If back-benchers are always talking in the classroom a teacher should

Options:
A) let them do what they are doing

B) punis h them
C) ask them to sit on the front bench
D) none of the above
Q298) Use of telecast materials

Options:
A) enhances concentration and learning
B) reduces the burden of the teacher
C) increases retention power
D) all of the above
Q299) Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through

Options:
A) lecture method
B) discussion method
C) textbook method
D) audio-visual aids
Q300) An effective teaching means all of the following except
Options:
A) a teacher teaches with enthusiasm
B) a teacher finds fault in his students
C) a teacher puts emphasis more on teaching than on class control
D) a teacher is interested in making the subject matter understood rather than
on completing the course
Q301) A teacher in the class should keep the pitch of his voice
Options:
A) high enough
B) low
392
C) moderate
D) sometime low and sometime high
Page

Q302) A teacher
Options:
A) should introduce the lesson before he starts teaching

B) should have command over his language
C) should have command over his subject
D) all of the above
Q303) If students are not able to follow , you should

Options:
A) give them prompt
B) make the matter easy
C) illustrate with examples
D) All of the above
Q304) If remarks are passed by students on you, as a teacher, you will

Options:
A) punish them
B) expel them from the college
C) take revenge while evaluating internal test copies
D) be impartial at the time of evaluation
Q305) All of the following are the characteristic features of an effective teacher
except
Options:
A) emphasis upon standard
B) emphasizing group discussion for the purpose of clarifying the objectives
C) emphasis upon the quick control of the problematic situation
D) differential treatment meted out to students of his class
Q306) If some students fail in the examination it is the fault of

Options:
A) the teacher
B) the principal
393
C) pupils themselves
D) text books
Page

Q307) If a teacher is not able to answer the question of a pupil he should

Options:
A) say that he will answer after consultation

B) rebuke the pupil
C) say that the question is wrong
D) feel shy of his ignorance
Q308) Micro teaching is useful to students of

Options:
A) primary classes only
B) junior classes only
C) 10 + 2 classes only
D) higher classes and primary classes both
Q309) The greatest important cause of failure in beginning for a teacher lies in
the area of
Options:
A) inter-personal relationship
B) verbal ability
C) knowledge of the teacher
D) tight handling of the students
Q310) The introduction of career courses in schools and colleges aims at

Options:
A) developing the ability to make the intelligent choice of jobs
B) providing professional knowledge to students
C) increasing g. k. in students
D) All of the above
Q311) The main role of education according to Plato was

Options:
A) to develop the power of contemplation
B) to, develop the personality of each individual
394
C) to strengthen the 'state

D) All of the above
Page

Q312) A democratic society is one which

Options:
A) follows the principles of equality, freedom, fraternity and justice

B) res pects the enlightened individuals
C) believes in equal educational opportunity
D) All of the above
Q313) The major responsibility with which the school personnel's have been
entrusted is that
Options:
A) it harmonizes the needs of the child and demands of the society for the
benefit of both
B) it makes the child able to get job
C) it prepares the school programme according to the need of the child
D) all of the above
Q314) Classroom discipline can be maintained effectively by
Options:
A) knowing the cause of indiscipline and handling it with stern hand
B) providing a programme which is ac-cording to thee/wed and interest of the
pupils
C) by putting on fancy clothes in the classroom
Q315) A teacher in the class is

Options:
A) the president of the group
B) a director of the group
C) a leader and guide of the group
D) all of the above
Q316) Verbal guidance is least effective in teaching
Options:
395
A) attitude B) concept and facts

C) relationship D) skills
Page

Q317) Quality of education in a school/college can be measured through

Options:
A) infrastructural facilities available

B) manpower, te achers and principal available
C) students achievement
D) all of the above
Q318) Teachers should study educational philosophy because

Options:
A) they do not know it
B) they do not have their own philosophy
C) philosophy is the backbone of all disciplines
D) they may improve their work by clarifying their own philosophy
Q319) An effective teacher adopts the norms of

Options:
A) democratic society
B) laissez faire society
C) autocratic society
D) all of the above according to the situation
Q320) The best educational programme is one which is according to the
Options:
A) need of the child
B) ability of the child
C) interest of child
D) all of these

Options:
A) inculcation of knowledge
B) modification of behaviour
C) personal adjustment
396
D) acquisition of skills
Page

Q322) Teachers primary responsibility lies in

Options:

C) keeping students records
D) all of the above
Q323) A teacher meeting his students for the first time should
Options:
A) start teaching without caring the students' likes and dislikes
B) develop rapport with the class
C) give a broad outline of the whole subject
D) (b) and (c) both
Q324) Kindergarten (KG.) system of education means garden of small kids

which is indebted to
Options:
A) Dewey B) Froebel
C) Plato D) Spencer
Q325) While dealing with juvenile delinquents a teacher should

Options:
A) play them with filthy sex jokes

B) talk with them frankly and guide and channelize their potentialities in
constructive ways
C) complain to the principal against them
Q326) While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, then a
teacher should
Options:
A) keep quiet for a while and then go on
B) not bother of what is happening in the class
397
C) punish those causing disturbance

D) all of the above
Page


Options:
A) asking questions and evaluating the learning

B) directing the activities of the pupils
C) hearing the recitation of pupils
D) all of the above
Q328) A teacher is expected to do all except

Options:
A) participation in community activities
B) help pupils to solve their problems
C) taking interest in politics
D) Sponsor clubs and other school affairs

Options:
A) know the existing knowledge of his students and their background knowledge
B) be aware of the environmental variables acting on the mind of the pupils
C) be competent enough to arouse the curiosity of his pupils
D) all of the above
Q330) John Locke's phrase of tabula rasa means
Options:
A) Tal and Ras
B) free education
C) mind itself is a result of the process of evolution
D) All of the above
Q331) TV is superior to radio as teaching aid because it

Options:
A) is costly
B) invites two senses hearing and vision simultaneously leading to more
accurate form of learning
398
C) is generally liked by pupils

D) all of above
Page

Q332) On which of the following statements there is consensus among

educators?
Options:
A) Disciplinary cases should be sent to the principal only when other means
have failed
B) Disciplinary cases should never be sent to the principal's office
C) Disciplinary cases should be totally neglected in the class
Q333) The functions of a teacher is in the order of

Options:
A) guiding the child, helping him towards progress and evaluation
B) checking homework, guiding him and assigning further task
C) Both of these
Q334) In order to develop rapport with your pupils you should
Options:
A) guide them B) behave them in a democratic way
C) have communicative ability D) all of the above
Q335) Observable behaviour s which a teacher can use in the class to bring
home to the pupil an idea or point is technically 'called
Options:
A) teaching skills B) communication facilities
C) demonstration D) none of these
Q336) which of the following statements regarding motivation is correct?

Options:
A) Freewill, intellect and reason are the motivating factors according to Plato
according to James Burt
C) Curiosity and level of aspiration are the motivating factors according to
399
Berlyne
D) All of the above
Page

Q337) All of the following statements regarding a teacher are correct except that
he is/he
Options:
A) a friend, guide and philosopher
B) teaches what the students do not know
C) the leader of the class
D) changes his attitudes and behaviour according to the need of the society
Q338) The first important step in teaching is

Options:
A) planning beforehand B) organizing mate rial to be taught
C) knowing the background of s tudents D) none of the above
students by
Options:
A) applying punitive measures
B) improving his qualities and expressing it before them in a good way
C) changing his class after consultation with the principal
D) giving them a threat of expulsion
Q340) Suppose you are teaching in a minority college where castism and narrow
mindedness victimize you, for better adjustment there you should
Options:
A) uplift the humanistic values beyond these narrow wall and develop scientific
temper in your students
B) be s ubmissive there and save your job at all costs
C) rebel against such attitudes as it is against the norms of the Indian society
Q341) An effective teacher is expected to

Options:
A) encourage the students to make initiative

400
B) reduce the anxiety level of students to moderate level

C) to make students feel that education is their need
D) all of the above
Page

Q342) Drop outs are more likely to be

Options:
A) unemployed
B) vulnerable to the requirement of public assistance
C) engaged in antisocial behaviour
D) all of these
Q343) Suppose you are an ambitious teacher. You have high ideals for class
room teaching but your hard labour goes in vain. The reason underlying this
problem may be
Options:
A) Your teaching level is above the ability level/of students
B) Individual differences among students make your efforts futile
C) both of these
Q344) If a child is a back bencher and is unable to watch the black board
clearly. As a result he stands, sees and sits repeatedly. What inference will you
draw regarding the case?
Options:
A) The child is of short height as compared to his class mates
B) The blackboard is under shining effect of light
C) The child has defective-vision
D) both (a) and (C)
Q345) If a high 'caste teacher adopts a discriminatory attitude toward a low

caste students his behaviour is
Options:
A) correct according to his religion
B) against the national spirit, and need of the hour
C) not against the constitutional provisions
D) not against the code of teacher's professionalism of UNESCO
401
Page

Q346) The professional requirements of a teacher as explaine d in the UNESCO

publication is/are
Options:
A) mastery over the subject and competency for teaching
B) Innovativeness in approach and teaching strategies
C) justice to the profession
D) All of the above
Q347) Teacher's professionalism means

Options:
A) the extent to which a teacher subscribes to a professional code
B) a teacher has to teach for the sake of getting salaries
C) a teacher must have completed professional teachers training course before
his appointment
D) all of the above
Q348) If a student becomes unconscious in the class what will you do first?
Options:
A) Rushing to the principal's office and canvassing for help impatiently
B) Telephoning student's parents and waiting for them
C) Giving first aid to him and trying to contact any nearby doctor
D) making arrangement to send him to his home
Q349) A child may have hearing impairment if

Options:
A) he speaks loudly unusually
B) he comes nearer to the speaker during conversation
C) he generally says, "Please repeat" to the teacher
D) all of the above
Q350) If a student is constantly rubbing his eyes and is unattentive during

Options:
402
A) adjustment problem B) hearing problem

C) visual problem D) all of the above
Page

Q351) Effective teaching means

Options:
A) Love, cooperation, sympathy, affection and encouragement given to students

B) Corporal punishment given to students at the time of moral offences
C) Individualized instruction and open classroom discussion
D) both (a) and (C)
Q352) Teachers' professionalism may be assessed in terms of all of the following

commitments except
Options:
A) commitment to the profession and student
B) commitment to the colleagues and employ
C) commitment to the religion and castes
D) commitment to the parents and community
Q353) If you come across to teach a blind student along with the normal
students what type of behaviour you are expected to exhibit?
Options:
A) Take care of him with sympathy
B) Don't give any extra attention because majority of students may, suffer
C) Arrange the seat in the front row and try to keep your teaching pace
according to him without making the other students suffer
Q354) If a girl student requests you to collect her posts at your addres s what
would you like to do in this case?
Options:
A) You would not give permission as it is against your own principles

B) You will never give her your own address suspecting a foul game
C) You will permit the girl to collect the posts at your addres s because as a
teacher you should do it
D) You will permit her because you have some attachment with her
403
Page

Q355) If you are irritated and show rashness because of the inadequate
behaviour s shown by others what do you think about your own behaviour
Options:
A) it is justified because behaviour s are echo lime
B) your behaviour is not good because elders have the right to behave you in
this way
C) your behaviour is also the sign of mal-adjustment and so try to control
yourself when you are maltreated
D) none of these
Q356) Suppose the teachers are busy in cracking filthy jokes and you are also
there but you are unable to stop them you should
Options:
A) persuade them decently not to waste their time-in-filthy jokes
B) live in isolation or change the group
C) instruct them to mind their language while passing leisure time
D) be critical and remind them for the nobility of their jobs
Q357) The primary responsibility for the teacher's adjustment lies with
Options:
A) The children B) The principal
C) The teacher himself D) The community
instability among teachers is
Options:
A) Digestive upsets B) Explosive behaviour
C) Fatigue D) Worry
Q359) Which one of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum
B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions
404
C) Curriculum includes both formal, and informal education

D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation
Page

Q360) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test?

Options:
A) Reliability
B) Objectivity
C) Ambiguity
D) Validity
Q361) For a teacher, which one of the following methods would be correct for
writing on the blackboard?
Options:
A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible
B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it
C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them
D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible
Q362) Dynamic approach to teaching means

Options:
A) Teaching should be forceful and effective

B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
D) The students should be required to learn through activities
Q363) If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along

with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the
class?
Options:
A) Not giving him extra attention because majority may suffer
B) Take care of him sympathetically in the classroom
C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do
anything
D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him
Q364) Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid?

Options:
405
A) Overhead projector B) Blackboard

C) Epidiascope D) Slide projector
Page

Q365) A teacher can be successful if he/she

Options:
A) Helps students in becoming better citizens

B) Imparts subject knowledge to students
C) Prepares students to pass the examination
D) Presents the subject matter in a well organized manner
Q366) By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is
possible?
Options:
A) Evaluation at the end of the course
B) Evaluation twice a year
C) Continuous evaluation
D) Formative evaluation
Q367) When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline
of the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?
Options:
A) Expelling those students
B) Isolate those students
C) Reform the group with your authority
D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour
Q368) A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask

Options:
A) Meaningful questions
B) As many questions as possible
C) Maximum number of questions in a fixed time
D) Many meaningful questions in a fixed time
Q369) For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should
Options:
A) Allow students to do what they like

406
B) Deal with the students strictly

C) Give the students some problems to solve
D) Deal with them politely and firmly
Page

Q370) Those teachers are popular among students who

Options:
A) Develop intimacy with them

B) Help them solve their problems
C) Award good grades
D) Take classes on extra tuition fee
Q371) On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to
Options:
A) Ask them to meet after the class
B) Tell them about himself in brief
C) Ignore the demand and start teaching
D) Scold the students for this unwanted demand
Q372) Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he
visits the teacher's house for the purpose, the teacher should
Options:
A) Contact the student's parents and solve his problem
B) Suggest him that he should never visit his house
C) Suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem
D) Extend reasonable help and boost his morale
Q373) Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?

Options:
A) Blackboard
B) Diorama
C) Epidiascope
D) Globe
Q374) Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher?

Options:
A) He should be a learned person

407
B) He should be a well dressed person

C) He should have patience
D) He should be an expert in his subject
Page

Q375) An effective teaching aid is one which

Options:
A) Is colourful and good looking

B) Activates all faculties
C) Is visible to all students
D) Easy to prepare and use
Q376) The essence of an effective classroom environment is

Options:
A) A variety of teaching aids
B) Lively student-teacher interaction
C) Pin-drop silence
D) Strict discipline
Q377) Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the
teacher
Options:
A) Frequently talks about values

B) Himself practices them
C) Tells stories of great persons
D) Talks of Gods and Goddesses
Q378) A successful teacher is one who is

Options:
A) Compassionate and disciplinarian
B) Quite and reactive
C) Tolerant and dominating
D) Passive and active
teacher?
Options:

408
B) Content mastery
Page

Q380) The most important quality of a good teacher is

Options:
A) Sound knowledge of subject matter

B) Good communication skills
C) Concern for student's welfare
D) Effective leadership qualities
Q381) Suppose the teachers are busy in cracking filthy jokes and you are also
there but you are unable to stop them you should
Options:
A) persuade them decently not to waste their time-in-filthy jokes
B) live in isolation or change the group
C) instruct them to mind their language while passing leisure time
D) be critical and remind them for the nobility of their jobs
Q382) The primary responsibility for the teacher's adjustment lies with
Options:
A) The children
B) The principal
C) The teacher himself
D) The community
instability among teachers is
Options:
A) Digestive upsets
B) Explosive behaviour
C) Fatigue
D) Worry
Q384) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test?

Options:
A) Reliability
409
B) Objectivity
C) Ambiguity
D) Validity
Page

Q385) For a teacher, which one of the following methods would be correct for
writing on the blackboard?
Options:
A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible
B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it
C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them
D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible
Q386) Dynamic approach to teaching means

Options:
A) Teaching should be forceful and effective
B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
D) The students should be required to learn through activities
Q387) If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along

with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the
class?
Options:
A) Not giving him extra attention because majority may suffer
B) Take care of him sympathetically in the classroom
C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do
anything
D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him
Q388) Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid?

Options:
A) Overhead projector B) Blackboard

C) Epidiascope D) Slide projector
Q389) A teacher can be successful if he/she

Options:
A) Helps students in becoming better citizens

410
B) Imparts subject knowledge to students

C) Prepares students to pass the examination
D) Presents the subject matter in a well organized manner
Page

Q390) By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is
possible?
Options:
A) Evaluation at the end of the course
B) Evaluation twice a year
C) Continuous evaluation
D) Formative evaluation
Q391) When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline
of the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?
Options:
A) Expelling those students
B) Isolate those students
C) Reform the group with your authority
D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour
Q392) A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask
Options:
A) Meaningful questions
B) As many questions as possible
C) Maximum number of questions in a fixed time
D) Many meaningful questions in a fixed time
Q393) For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should
Options:
A) Allow students to do what they like
B) Deal with the students strictly
C) Give the students some problems to solve
D) Deal with them politely and firmly
Q394) Those teachers are popular among students who

Options:
A) Develop intimacy with them

411
B) Help them solve their problems

C) Award good grades
D) Take classes on extra tuition fee
Page

Q395) On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to
Options:
A) Ask them to meet after the class
B) Tell them about himself in brief
C) Ignore the demand and start teaching
D) Scold the students for this unwanted demand
Q396) Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he
visits the teacher's house for the purpose, the teacher should
Options:
A) Contact the student's parents and solve his problem
B) Suggest him that he should never visit his house
C) Suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem
D) Extend reasonable help and boost his morale
Q397) Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?
Options:
A) Blackboard
B) Diorama
C) Epidiascope
D) Globe
Q398) Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher

Options:
A) He should be a learned person
B) He should be a well dressed person
C) He should have patience
D) He should be an expert in his subject
Q399) An effective teaching aid is one which

Options:
A) Is colourful and good looking

412
B) Activates all faculties

C) Is visible to all students
D) Easy to prepare and use
Page

Q400) The essence of an effective classroom environment is

Options:
A) A variety of teaching aids

B) Lively student-teacher interaction
C) Pin-drop silence
D) Strict discipline
Q401) Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the
teacher
Options:
A) Frequently talks about values

B) Himself practices them
C) Tells stories of great persons
D) Talks of Gods and Goddesses
Q402) A successful teacher is one who is

Options:
A) Compassionate and disciplinarian
B) Quite and reactive
C) Tolerant and dominating
D) Passive and active
teacher?
Options:

B) Content mastery
Q404) The most important quality of a good teacher is

Options:
A) Sound knowledge of subject matter
B) Good communication skills
413
C) Concern for student's welfare

D) Effective leadership qualities
Page

Q405) The academic performance of students can be improved if parents are

encouraged to
Options:
A) Supervise the work of their wards
B) Arrange for extra tuition
C) Remain unconcerned about it
D) Interact with teachers frequently
Q406) If a parent approaches the teacher to do so some favour to his/her ward

in the examination, the teacher should
Options:
A) Try to help him
B) Ask him not to talk in those terms
C) Refuse politely and firmly
D) Ask him rudely to go away
Options:
A) To make learning interesting
C) For students' attention
Q408) Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning. It may be
because such children
Options:
A) Are gifted
B) Come from rich families
C) Show artificial behaviour
D) Create indiscipline in the class
Q409) Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of teacher-student

relationship?
Options:
414
A) Very informal and intimate B) Limited to classroom only

C) Cordial and respectful D) Indifferent
Page

Q410) In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be

Options:
A) Occasional roars of laughter

B) Complete silence
C) Frequent teacher-student dialogue
D) Loud discussion among students
Q411) Good evaluation of written material should not be based on

Options:
Q412) Attitudes, concepts, skills, and knowledge are products of:

Options:
A) Learning
B) Research
C) Heredity
D) Explanation
Q413) Which one is not a product of learning?
Options:
A) Attitudes
B) Concepts
C) Knowledge
D) Maturation

Options:
415

Page


Options:
A) I dealist philosophy B) Compass ion

C) Discipline D) Entertaining
Q416) The teacher has been glorified by the phrase "Friend, Philosopher and
Guide" because:
Options:
B) He transmits the high value of Humanity to the students
Q417) A teacher can establish rapport with his students by:

Options:
Options:
A) Use of film
1 Knowle dge of technology
2 Use of technology in teaching learning
3 Knowle dge of students' needs
4 Content mastery
416
Options:
A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3
Page
C) 2, 3, & 4 D) 2 & 4


Options:

D) Always
Q421) Assertion (A): For an effective classroom communication at times it is

desirable to use the projection technology. Reason (R): Using the projection
technology facilitates extensive coverage of course contents
Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Options:
C) Verbal ability

Options:
D) All the above
Q424) According to Swami Vivekananda, teacher's success depends on:

Options:

417

D) His mastery on the subject and capacity in controlling the student
Page

Q425) A teacher's most important challenge is:

Options:

would:
Options:
A) Pull up the students then and there
Q427) The teacher's role at the higher educational level is to:

Options:

D) Help students to solve their personal problems

Options:
A) Aptitudes
B) Skills
C) Attitudes
D) Relationship

Options:
A) Personal adjustment
B) Modification of behaviour
418
C) Social and political awareness

D) Preparing oneself for employment
Page

Q430) A teacher's major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of

the students is affected through:
Options:
A) Constant fulfilment of the students' needs
B) Strict control of classroom activities
C) Sensitivity to students' needs, goals and purposes

Options:
A) A teacher of high idealistic attitude
B) A loving teacher

Options:

C) Inculcation of virtues
Q433) How a teacher should behave with the students

Options:
A) General
B) Father
C) Friend
D) Leader
Options:
A) You Would Not Give Permission As It Is Against Your Own Principles

419
B) You Will Never Allow Her Suspecting A Foul Game

C) As A Teacher You Will Allow Her
D) You Will Permit Her Because You May Get In Touch With Her.
Page

Q435) The most important task is teaching is

Options:
A) Making Monthly Reports And Maintaining Records

B) Making Assignments And Hearing Recitations
C) Directing Students In The Development Of Experience
D) None Of These

Options:
A) b. f. skinner Began The Movement For Their Use.
B) They Were Designed As An Economy Measure To Replace Teachers.
C) They Are Not As Efficient As Teachers In Reinforcing Responses
D) They Can Be Used For All Learning Programmes
Q437) Why should a student not be punished severely?

Options:
A) He May Quarrel With A Teacher.
B) He May Leave The School And Join Another
C) His Parent May Quarrel With The Teacher.
D) The Student May Develop A Negative Attitude Towards His Studies, Teacher
And School.
Q438) The teaching is not thought as a process of

Options:
A) Directing The Activities Of People.
B) Listening The Recitation Of Pupils.
C) indoctrinating Adult Ideas To Young People
D) None Of These
Q439) Each child grows in its own unique way. The wide individual differences
are caused by
Options:
A) Heredity
420
B) endowment
C) Environmental Influences
D) All Of These
Page

Q440) All of the following are advantages of teaching machines except

Options:
A) The Control Of Cheating

B) Tracking Of Errors
C) The Insurance Of Attention
D) Their Universal Use For Different Kinds Of Programmes.
Q441) A teacher can help adolescent to overcome his special problems, and help
him to adjust to the environment. Which of the following attitude, he should not
made?
Options:
A) He Should Impart Right Information About Sex.
B) He Should Redirect The Energies Of The Adolescent To Fruitful Channels
Through Sports And Other Constructive Activities.
C) He Should Have Unsympathetic Attitude Towards Others.
D) He Should Have Right Information About Sex.
Q442) The process of learning include which of the following

Options:
A) Synthesis And Organization Of The Old And New Experiences, Resulting In A
Novel Pattern.
B) It Includes All Activities Which Leave Permanent Effect On The Individual.
C) In Its Simplest Form, Learning Means Acquisition, Retention And
Modification Of Experience.
D) All Of These
students by
Options:
A) Applying Punitive Measure
B) Improving His Qualities And Expressing It Before Them In A Good Way.
C) Changing His Class After Consultation
D) Giving Them A Threat Of Expulsion.
421
Page

Q444) A teacher can establish rapport with his pupil by

Options:
A) Becoming A Figure Of Authority

B) Impressing Them With Knowledge And Skill
C) Playing The Role Of A Guide With Desire To Help Them
D) Becoming A Friend To The Pupils
Q445) If majority of students in your class is weak you should

Options:
A) Not Care About Intelligent Students
B) Keep Your Speed Of Teaching Fast So That Students Comprehension Level
May Increase
C) Keep Your Teaching Slow Which Can Also Be Helpful To Bright Students.
D) Keep Your Teaching Slow Along With Some Extra Guidance To Bright People
Q446) For formulating the curriculum, which factor is most important?

Options:
A) Teachers Ability
B) Children's Capabilities And Needs
C) National Ideology
D) social And Cultural Ideals
Q447) There are so many definitions of learning. Which of the following is most
adequate?
Options:
A) The Modification Of behaviour
B) The Development Of Skills
C) The Acquisition And Organizations Of Knowledge
D) All Of These
Q448) Teachers should study the educational philosophy because

Options:
A) They Do Not Know It.

422
B) They Do Not Have Their Won Philosophy

C) Philosophy Is The Backbone Of All Disciplines
D) They May Improve Their Work By Clarifying Their Own Philosophy
Page

Q449) Why should you prefer teaching to other profession?

Options:
A) For The Service Of Humanity.

B) For Love Of Teaching
C) For Love To Young (Youth)
D) For Mastery Over The Subject Of Teaching
Q450) The best way by a teacher to introduce a new subject by

Options:
A) Giving A Broad Outline Of The Subject
B) Relating It To Daily Life Situation
C) Relating It To Previously Studied Subject Or Course Material.
D) Any Of These
Q451) As a teacher you should not demand your pupils which is beyond their
stage of growth. If you do so, it only causes
Options:
A) Frustrations
B) Frustrations, Heighten Tension And Nervousness
C) Encouragement For More Learning
D) Both (B)And (C )
Q452) A teacher generally asks questions to his pupils during the lecture, why?
Options:
A) Are Students Listening The Lecture Attentively?
B) To Know, Which Student Is Brilliant One?
C) To Know Whether The Students Are Understanding The Lecture Or Not.
D) To Help The Students
Q453) A competent teacher must have a sound knowledge in right order

Options:
A) Proactive, Concept, Theory And Research
B) Theory, Research, Concept And Practice
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C) Concept, Theory, Practice And Research

D) Research, Practice, Concept And Theory
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Options:
A) Asking Questions And Evaluating The Learning

B) Directing The Activities Of Pupils
C) Hearing Recitation Of Pupils
D) all Of These
Q455) A teacher commands prestige, authority esteem and respect. He should

make use of it through suggestion. He should not try to command respect
through
Options:
A) Scholarship B) Punishing And Creating Revolting Situation
C) Experience D) Tact
Q456) A teacher is successful only if he

Options:
A) Knows His Subject Thoroughly Well
B) Produces Cent Per Cent Result
C) Is Approachable
D) publishes Papers In Journals Of Repute
Q457) The major responsibility with which the school personnel have been
entrusted is that
Options:
A) It Harmonizes The Child's Need And Demands Of The Society Both
B) It Makes The Child Able To Get Job
C) It Prepares The School Programme According To The Need Of The Child
D) All Of These
Q458) One of your students wants to share his problems with you. He visits
your house for the same. In such a condition one should
Options:
A) Suggest Him To Escape From His Family.

424
B) Extend Necessary Co-Operation And Boost His Morale.

C) Contact The Students Parent And Solve The Problem.
D) None Of These
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Q459) For better interaction with the students, the teachers objective should be
the
Options:
A) Equitable Distribution Of Response Time B) Proximity
C) Affirm Or Correct Student Performance D) All Of These
Q460) Which of the following is quality of a teacher?
Options:
A) He Presenting The Subject Matter In An Effective Manner With Clear
Explaining Leading To Better Understanding Of The Matter.
B) He Should Be Trained To Various Teaching Methodologies.
C) He Should Know The Child Psychology
D) All Of These
Q461) In ancient education system, teachers applied some psychological

principles in education especially to young child from pre-school age to
adolescence. They recognize the role of
Options:
A) Gurukul Type Of Education
B) Convent System Of Schooling
C) Sense And Perception In Teaching And Learning
D) All Of These
Q462) Recreational Reading should be

Options:
A) Reserved For The School Library Period.
B) Assigned As Homework.
C) A Responsibility Of The Home Not The School
D) An Integral Part Of Language Art Curriculum.
Q463) Which characteristic from the following is least concerned with a teacher?
Options:
A) Command Over Subject Matter.

425
B) Respect From College Management

C) Good Rapport With The Students .
D) Effective Verbal Communication.
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Q464) Which of the following statements doesn't suit a teacher? The teacher is
Options:
A) Really Interested In Students

B) Able To Direct And Discipline Students.
C) Reluctant To Adapt Himself To New Situation
D) Enthusiastic About The Work That Teachers Do.
Q465) Who can be a good teacher? One

Options:
A) Whose Students Do Not Need To Ask Questions
B) Who Answers All The Questions Asked By Students
C) Who Never Encourages Children To Known Something Not In Curriculum.
D) Who Always Tells His/her Students That From Where They Can Get Answers
To Their Queries.
Q466) Meaningful learning takes place when

Options:
A) Students Are Interested In Topic Taught.

B) Explanations Are Given Within Reach Of Students.
C) The New Content Being Taught Is Related To The Previous Knowledge Of The
Student.
D) Students Raise Questions And Get Them Clarified.
Q467) Teachers use teaching aids for

Options:
A) Making Teaching Interesting.
B) Making Teaching With Understanding Level Of Students
C) Making Student Attentive. D) The Sake Of Its Use.
Q468) Which of the following is true about Modern Annual Examination

System?
Options:
A) It Encourages Attaining Knowledge By Cramming.

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B) It Doesn't Encourage The Habit Of Regular Study.

C) It Doesn't Encourage Students To Attain Their Classes Regularly.
D) All Of These
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Q469) The most important challenge before a teacher is:

Options:
A) To Maintain Discipline In The Classroom

B) To Make Students Do Their Homework C) To Prepare Question Paper
D) To Make Teaching Learning Process Enjoyable
Q470) If you are irritated and show rashness because of the inadequate
behaviour of another teachers , what do you think about your own behaviour?
Options:
A) It Is Justified Because behaviour s Are Echo Lim.
B) Your behaviour Is Not Good Because Elders Have The Right To Behave You In
This Way.
C) Your behaviour Is Also A Sign Of Maladjustment And So Try To Control
Yourself When You Are Maltreated.
D) All Of These
Q471) Teacher's professionalism means:
Options:
A) The Extent To Which A Teacher Subscribes To A Professional Code
B) A Teacher Has To Teach For The Sake Of Getting Salaries
C) A Teacher Must Have Completed Professional Teachers Training Course
Before His Appointment
D) all Of These
Q472) Which one of the most fundamental of the guidance activities should be
executed first?
Options:
A) Determination Of Objectives B) Selection Of Learning Activities

C) Determination Of Learning Process D) Selection Of Curriculum
Q473) A teacher should keep his voice in the class

Options:
A) High Enough To Be Heard By Every Student Clearly

427
B) Loud, So That Every One Can Hear Clearly

C) Moderate
D) Sometime Low And Some Time High
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Q474) Which of the following is/are true about teaching?

Options:
A) The Analysis And Assessment Of Teaching Provide Feedback For Further

Improvement In Teaching Method.
B) It Is Highly Dominated By Communication Skill.
C) It Is A Process Not An Act.
D) All Of These
Q475) Which of the following is/are true about teacher/teaching?

Options:
A) teacher Should Have Control Over The Students To Maintain Peace And
Order I n The Class.
B) Teaching Should Be Pupil Centred Rather Than Subject Centred.
C) Teacher Should Arouse Interest Among Students About The Subject
D) All Of These
Q476) Which of the following is true about teaching/teacher?
Options:
A) Teacher Should Work As A Leader In The Class.
B) Teacher Should Make A Lesson Plan Before Presenting Lesson In The Class.
C) Teacher Should Maintain A Democratic Atmosphere In The Class
D) All Of These
Q477) A teacher learns maximum from

Options:
A) Principal B) Books
C) Students D) None of these
Q478) If majority of students in your class are weak you should

Options:
A) Not care about intelligent students.
B) Keep your speed in teaching fast so that students comprehension level may
increase.
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C) Keep you teaching slow.

D) Keep your teaching slow along with some extra guidance to bright pupils.
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Options:
A) planning of representation of topic or subject.

B) organizing the background of students for the subject
C) organizing the material to be taught
D) knowing the background of s tudents
Q480) Failure of students in examination, it may be the fault of

Options:
A) teacher
B) principal
C) students themselves
D) both (a)and ( c)
Q481) Bright Light in classroom is a type of -------Barrier.

Options:
A) physical distraction
B) emotional distraction
C) channel
D) none of these
Q482) All students are not geniuses concludes that
Options:
A) many students are not genius
B) all geniuses are students
C) no student is genius
D) None of these
Q483) which of the following is a teaching aid?

Options:
A) Working Model of Wind Mill
B) Tape Recorder
C) 16 mm Film Projector
429
D) All of the above

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Q484) The main aim of teaching is:

Options:
A) To develop only reasoning

B) To develop only thinking
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) To give information
Q485) The quality of teaching is reflected:

Options:
A) By the attendance of students in the class
B) By the pass percentage of students
C) BY the quality of questions asked by students
D) By the duration of silence maintaine d in the class
Options:
A) You would not give permission as it is against your own principles

B) You will never allow her suspecting a foul game
C) As a teacher you will allow her
D) You will permit her because you may get in touch with her.
Q487) If a student is constantly rubbing his eyes and is unattentive during

blackboard work, he is having
Options:
A) adjustment problem B) hearing problem
C) visual problem D) All of the above
Q488) The professional requirement of a teacher as explained in the UNESCO

publication is/are
Options:
A) mastery over the subject and competency for teaching
B) innovativeness in approach and teaching strategies
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C) justice to the profession

D) All of the above
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Q489) which of the following must be the qualities of teacher except?

Options:
A) Patience and tolerance

B) Swee t, polite and clear voice
C) Superstitions
D) Good communication skill
Q490) If Majority Of Students In Your Class Are Weak You Should

Options:
A) Not Care About Intelligent Students.
B) Keep Your Speed In Teaching Fast So That Students Comprehension Level
May Increase.
C) Keep You Teaching Slow.
D) Keep Your Teaching Slow Along With Some Extra Guidance To Bright Pupils.
Q491) The Professional Requirements Of A Teacher As Explained In The Unesco

Publication Is /Are
Options:
A) Mastery Over The Subject And Competency For Teaching
B) Innovativeness In Approach And Teaching Strategies
C) Justice To The Profession
D) All Of The Above
Q492) Some Students Are Weak In Studies. What Will Be Your Attitude Towards
Them?
Options:
A) Strict B) Lenient
C) Liberal D) Lovable
Q493) If A Teacher Is Not Able To Answer The Question Of A Pupil He Should

Options:
A) Say That He Will Answer After Consultation
B) Rebuke The Pupil
431
C) Say That Question Is Wrong

D) Feel Shy Of His Ignorance
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Q494) An Individual's Ability To Learn Is

Options:
A) Acquired B) Teachers
C) Elders D) None Of These
Q495) How Will You Demonstrate Your Impartial behaviour?

Options:
A) By Maintaining High Self Esteem And Egoistic behaviour .

B) By Making Own behaviour More Balanced And Fair.
C) By Assaulting A Teacher.
D) By Criticizing The Teacher Community.
Q496) A Teacher Who Is Not Able To Draw The Attention Of His Students
Should
Options:
A) Evaluate His Teaching Method And Improve It.
B) Resign From The Post.
C) Find Fault In His Pupils.
D) Start Dictating
Q497) Of Great Importance In Determining The Amount Of Transference That

Occurs In Learning Is The
Options:
A) IQ Of Teacher B) Knowledge Of The Teacher
C) Use Of Appropriate Elements D) Presence Of Identical Elements
Q498) Democracy In The Classroom Is Best Reflected Through
Options:
A) Allowing Students Freedom To The Observance Of Classroom Rules And
Regulations.
B) You Will Justify That Most Of The Female Students Are More Sincere
Towards Their Studies Than Male Students.
C) You Will Justify To The Male Students That It Is Difficult For You Refuse The
432
Request Made By Female Students

D) None Of These
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Q499) What Can A Teacher Do To Develop Integrated Personalities Of His Pupil?

Options:
A) Children Should Be Encouraged And Helped To Set Themselves Well-Defined

Goals And Objectives Which They Can Hope To Achieve.
B) They Should Be Helped To Build Their Self-Esteem To Develop A Sense Of
Worthiness And Positive Ego I mage.
C) Life In Schools Should Be So Planned That Children Are Able To Express
Themselves Fully.
D) All Of These
Q500) A Backward Child Is A Slow Learner. He Does Not Respond Satisfactorily

To The Ordinary School Curriculum And To The Usual Methods. The Causes Of
This Phenomena Are
Options:
A) Poor Intellectual Ability And Low Intelligence
B) Physical Defects And Diseases
C) Emotional Disturbance
D) All Of The Above
Q501) You Are A Teacher Of Literature. A Chapter Of A Book Deals With A

Biography Of A Scientist And His Works. In This Situation, What Would You Do
With Chapter?
Options:
A) You Would Ask The Students To Read Themselves.
B) You Would Request The Science Teacher, To Teach This Chapter To The
Students.
C) You Would Consult Other Books Concerning With The Scientist And Then
Teach The Lesson To Student.
D) Any One Of Them.
Q502) While Delivering Lecture If There Is Some Disturbance In The Class, Then
A Teacher Should
Options:
A) Keep Quiet For A While And Then Go On.
B) Not Bother Of What Is Happening In The Class.
C) Punish Those Causing Disturbance.
433
D) All Of These
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Q503) The Test On The Basis Of Which A Teacher Takes Decision About The
Students Is Known As
Options:
A) Performance Test B) Institutional Test
C) Revision Test D) Instructional Test
Q504) In Your Institution, A Debate Test Would Be Held Shortly Then How
Would You Support Your Students?
Options:
A) By Writing The Debate
B) You Would Tell Students How To Write A Debate
C) You Will Tell Students Where To Consult For Literature
D) None Of These
Q505) How Can Students In A Class Be Made Attentive?

Options:
A) By Speaking Loudly In The Class
B) By Preparing Your Lecture Properly
C) By Creating Curiosity In Students
D) By Wearing Special Types Of Clothes
Q506) A Teacher Can Get Important Place In Society If He
Options:
A) Performs The Role Of An Active Member The Political Party In Power
B) Is Scholar And In Power
C) Participates Actively In Social Activities
D) Performs His Responsibility Honestly
Q507) Which Of The following Can Be Termed As Most Import Task In Teaching
Among The Given?
Options:
A) Directing Students In Development Pf Experiences.
B) making Monthly Reports And Maintaining Records.
434
C) Making Assignments And Checking Worksheets.

D) All Of The Above
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Q508) If Your Own Son Is In Your Class. How Will You Behave With Your
Students In Comparison To Your Son?
Options:
A) Just Like Your Own Son.
B) Equal Treatment Is Not Possible To All The Students.
C) Repressed Treatment.
D) It Is Better To Lend Them A Free Hand.
Q509) The Criteria For Grading Should Be

Options:
A) The Material Is Covered In An Accurate Manner.
B) The Writing Communicates Clearly And Effectively.
C) Is There Any Originality In The Submitted Work.
D) All Of These.
Q510) Verbal Guidance Is Least Effective In Teaching

Options:
A) Attitude
B) Concepts And Facts
C) Relationship
D) Skills
Q511) Which Of The following Is Most Important For Effective Learning In

Classroom?
Options:
A) Teacher's Ability To Create And Maintain Inappropriate Responses
B) Provide Immediate Feedback
C) Do Not Provide Unconstructive Comments For Evaluating Activities
D) All Of These
Q512) Use Of Telecast Materials.

Options:
A) Enhances Concentration And Learning.

435
B) Reduces The Burden Of The Teacher.

C) Increases Retention Power.
D) All Of These
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Q513) All of The following Are The Characteristic Features Of An Effective

Teacher Except
Options:
A) Emphasis Upon Standards
B) Emphasizing Group Discussion For The Purpose Of Clarifying The Objectives
C) Emphasis Upon The Quick Control Of Problematic Situations.
D) Differential Treatment Meted Out To Students Of His Class.
Q514) Which One Of The following Should A Teacher Adopt In His Lecture In A
Class?
Options:
A) Precise And Low Tone. B) Elongated Tone.
C) Precise And High Tone. D) Moderate Tone.
Q515) Which Of The following Is True About Micro Teaching?

Options:
A) It Is The following With Video Recording Of Lessons.
B) It Is A Teacher Education Technique Allowing Teachers To Apply Clearly
Defined Teaching Goals.
C) It Is Scaled Down Teaching Encounte rs In Class Size And Class Time.
D) All Of These
Q516) If Students Are Not Able To follow Your Lectures What Will You Do First?
Options:
A) You Will Make Your Lecture More Easy.
B) You Will Try To Know The Cause And Find The Right Solution For That.
C) You Will Start Giving Examples To Them.
D) None Of These
Q517) "This Methodology Trains The Child To Search Facts, Rules And
Principles Led By His Own Efforts, Organize The Set Of Knowledge Gained And
Delineate General Rule". The Aforesaid Statement Is About Which Of The
following Methodology Of Teaching?
Options:
436
A) Montessori B) Kindergarten
C) Heuristic D) Playway
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Q518) While Dealing With Juvenile Delinquents A Teacher Should

Options:
A) Play Them Filthy Jokes.

B) Talks With Them Frankly And Guide And Channelize
C) Complain To The Principal Against Them
D) None Of These
Q519) Which Of The following Is A Disadvantage Of Teaching Machine?

Options:
A) The Insurance Of Attention
B) Their Universal Use For Different Kinds Of Programmes
C) The Tracking Of Errors
D) All Of These
Q520) The Greatest Important Cause Of Failure In The Beginning For A Teacher
Lies In The Area Of:
Options:
A) I nterpersonal Relationship
B) verbal Ability
C) Knowledge Of The Teacher
D) Light-Handling Of The Student
Q521) The Best Way To React To A Wrong Answer Given By A Student Is:
Options:
A) To Scold Him For Not Having Learnt The Lesson
B) To Explain Why The Answer Is Wrong
C) To Ask Another Student To Give The Correct Answer
D) To Ignore The Wrong Answer And Pass On The Next Question
Q522) Which Of The following Institutions Is Responsible For The

Implementation Of Reforms In Teaching Profession?
Options:
A) University Grants Commission.

437
B) National Council For Teacher's Education

C) National Council For Educational Research And Training
D) National Institute Of Educational Planning And Administration.
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Q523) A Serious Minded Teacher As A Rule:

Options:
A) Allows The Mistakes To Be Committed And Explains How To Minimize Those

Mistakes
B) Never Allows Mistakes On The Part Of His Students
C) Takes All Precaution So That Students Never Commit Mistakes
D) Should Mildly Punish Students Who Commit Mistakes
Q524) One Of Your Student Is Too Poor To Buy A Book. How Will You Help
Him?
Options:
A) You Will Purchase The Book.
B) You Will Collect A Fund From Others For This Purpose.
C) You Will Provide The Books From Library.
D) You Will Request The Institute Administration To Make A Policy For Helping
Such Students.
Q525) Objective Type Questions Are Not Helpful In Testing

Options:
A) Student's Knowledge Level Of Subject Matter.
B) Student's Ability To Describe And Explain Things.
C) Student's Ability Of Writing And Expression.
D) All Of The Above
Q526) The Function Of A Teacher Is In The Order Of:

Options:
A) Guiding The Child, Helping Him Towards Progress And Evaluation
B) Checking Homework, Guiding Him And Assigning Further Task
C) Both (A) And (B)
D) None Of These
438
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Q527) Classroom Discipline Can Be Maintained Effectively By:

Options:
A) Knowing The Cause Of Indiscipline And Handling It With Stern Hand

B) Providing A Programme Which Is According To Need And Interest Of Pupils
C) By Giving Punishment For Even Smallest Sins
D) None Of These

Options:
A) planning of representation of topic or subject.
B) organizing the background of students for the subject
C) organizing the material to be taught
D) knowing the background of s tudents
Q529) One of your colleagues is living in your locality but you have no affinity
with him, the reason may be
Options:
A) his selfishness
B) his religious faith
C) his social rejection
D) his miserable behaviour and rural background
Q530) Which of the following is correct statement?

Options:
A) Computers can be used for diagnosing the difficulty of a student in learning a
subject
B) Psychological testing can be done with the help of computer provided a
software is available
C) A set of instructions is called a programme
D) All the above
Q531) Which of the following methods of teaching encourages the use of

maximum senses?
Options:
439
A) Problem-solving method B) Laboratory method

C) Self-study method D) Team teaching method
Page

Q532) Which of the following is a product of learning?

Options:
A) Maturation B) Intelligence
C) Skills D) Forgetness
Q533) An effective teacher adopts the norms of the

Options:
A) Democratic Society
B) Laissez Faire Society
C) Autocratic Society
D) All of these according to conditions
Q534) Why a teacher is called the leader of the class?

Options:
A) He masters the art of oratory like a political leader.
B) He is autocratic emperor of his class.
C) He belongs to a recognized teacher's union.
D) He is a maker of the future of his students.
Q535) Failure of students in examination, it may be the fault of

Options:
A) teacher
B) principal
C) students themselves
D) both (a)and ( c)
Q536) In the guidance of learning a teacher has many important roles. Which
one of the following is the least important aspect of the teachers role in the
guidance of learning?
Options:
A) The provision of continuous diagnostic and remedial help.
B) The forestalling of habits.
C) The provision of encouragement and moral support.
440
D) The development of insight into what constitute the pitfalls and danger to be
avoided.
Page

Q537) Which one of the following is not concerned with the duties of a teacher?
Options:
A) To discipline the students

B) To prepare students for examinations
C) to make monthly and annual reports
D) To participate in extracurricular activities
Q538) If a teacher had to establish his credibility in evaluating answer sheets he

must be
Options:
A) strict B) lenient
C) objective D) prompt
Q539) Suggestion helps in the development of information moral behaviour ,

aesthetic sense and character traits. Which of the following is the chief source of
suggestions which mould his life ?
Options:
A) Pupil of same age B) Teachers

C) Elders D) None of these
Q540) A teacher exploits students in your school. In this situation, what you will
do?
Options:
A) Report the matter to the principal.
B) Not interfere in this matter.
C) Guide the teacher please stop this activity.
D) Go on Satyagraha against the teacher.
Q541) Of the following learning theories, the one that embodies the idea that the
Options:
A) Gestalt
B) Stimulus-Response
441
C) Connectionist
D) Pragmatic
Page

Q542) The teacher ought to know the problems prevalent in the field of
education. The reason is that
Options:
A) only a teacher can do something about solving them.
B) he can tell about the same to another teacher.
C) teachers can tell the government about it.
D) with this knowledge, the teacher can have information about education.
Q543) The male students in your class are annoyed with you on the pretext you
that have a favour to the female students. In such an embarrassing situation
how would you like to control them in class?
Options:
A) You will tell the male students that girls have no option except to depend on
school teacher for their academic assistance.
B) You will justify that most of the female students are more sincere towards
their studies than male students.
C) You will justify to the male students that it is difficult for you refuse the
request made by female students
D) None of these
Q544) With respect to the development of skills, all of the following are correct
except that
Options:
A) Pupil of same mental age should learn at the same rate.
B) group interaction increases the skills
C) group instruction facilitates the learning process
D) workbooks can be invaluable learning aid.
Q545) When you make a mistake while teaching in the class and your students
point it out angrily then what will you do?
Options:
A) You will break all limits of anger
B) You will feel sorry for committing the blunder
C) You will scold him/her and resist them
D) You will leave the class for few days
442
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Q546) The project method of teaching is best associated with the philosophy of
Options:
A) John Dewey
B) Max raffe rty
C) Robert Hatchins
D) b. f. Skinner
Q547) Emotional development is as much affected by maturation and learning

as sensory processes, muscular growth and intellectual functions. Parlor's
experiment showed emotional responses could be learned through
Options:
A) conditioning B) imitation
C) knowledge and skills. D) None of these

Options:
A) know the existing knowledge of his students and their background
knowledge.
B) be aware of the environmental variables acting on the mind of the pupil.
C) be competent enough to arouse the curiosity of pupil.
D) All of these
Q549) A competent teacher must have a sound knowledge about:

Options:
A) Proactive, Concept, Theory and Research
B) theory, Research, Practice and concepts
C) Concept, Theory, Practice and Research
D) Research, Practice, Concept and Theory
Q550) Below are given some probable characteristics of an ineffective teacher,

which of the following is most likely to be characterized the ineffective teacher?
Options:
A) Emphasis upon standards

443
B) Emphasis upon pupil discussion in the clarification of group's goals

C) emphasis upon the control of immediate situation
D) None of these
Page

Q551) Maximum participation of students is possible in teaching through

Options:
A) Lecture method
B) Discussion method
C) Textbook method
D) Audi-visual aids
Q552) Which of the following is/are the qualities of teacher?

Options:
A) Teacher should be able to arrange subject matter in a logical way
B) Teacher should inspire his pupil
C) Teacher should have sweet, polite and clear voice.
D) All of these
Q553) The students who keep asking questions in the class

Options:
A) performs the role of an active member of the political party in power.
B) should be encouraged to participate in classroom discussion
C) should be encouraged to find answer independently
D) should be encouraged to continue questioning.
Q554) Which of the following one is most effective for a teacher?
Options:
A) knowledge
B) Feedback
C) Management
D) teaching skills
Q555) Many experienced teachers go into a classroom and embark straight

away upon a lesson. As a beginner to the teaching profession will you
Options:
A) adopt the same procedure
B) make a written note of your preparation
444
C) as the students alike

D) None of these
Page

Q556) Which can be described as an ideal teaching technique?

Options:
A) Repetitive drill and rote memorization

B) Using props and manipulative to help students understand abstract concept.
C) Encouraging in group discussion for logical thinking.
D) both (b) and (c)
Q557) A mentally retarded student attends your lecture and sit in a deaf and
dumb manner. What will you do?
Options:
A) Make your lecture very simple and spare some extra time for him.
B) You do not like to spoil majority for the individual.
C) You pressurized the student to leave the class.
D) You do not support him at all.
Q558) Teaching in higher education implies

Options:
A) presenting the information given in the text book

B) asking questions in the class and conducting examinations
C) helping students prepare for and pass the examination
D) helping students how to learn
Q559) For providing evaluative feedback to students, the teacher should

Options:
A) use correction, not criticism, in respect to inappropriate responses
B) provide immediate feedback
C) do not provide unconstructive comments for evaluating activities
D) All of these
Q560) Which of the following is a good method of teaching?

Options:
A) Lecture and dictation
B) Seminar and project
445
C) Seminar and dictation

D) Dictation and Assignment
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Q561) Which of the following is the most important signal factor in underlying
Options:
A) Scholarship
B) Communicative ability
C) Personality and its ability to relate to the class and to the pupils
D) Organizational ability
Q562) Which one of the following is least required during the preparation of
lecture?
Options:
A) Clear introduction and summary.
B) Time and control unit
C) Examples for better explanation and understanding.
D) Factual materials in indirect way.
Q563) Failure of the teacher to communicate its ideas well to the students may
res ult in
Options:
A) classroom indiscipline.
B) loss of student's interest in the topic being taught.
C) increase in number of absentees in the class.
D) All of these
Q564) If a group of students enter your room and abuse you and behave
violently with you, at that time how would you control your emotions?
Options:
A) You will react in a similar fashion and try to assault them physically.
B) First, you will try to pacify their emotions and then ask politely about their
behaviour .
C) You will feel ashamed among your teachers community.
D) You will report the case to the principal with recommendation of punitive
measures.
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Q565) What is the reason behind the adoption of 'GRADE' system instead of our
old' MARKS' system?
Options:
A) It will improve the quality of assessment.
B) It will improve teacher student relationship.
C) It will eliminate the differentiation between students on marks basis.
D) Grading system is easier than marks system.
Q566) Why do you support the five stage method of Herbart?

Options:
A) I n this there is no scope for individual diversity of students.
B) Under this, generalization is not required to be done while teaching subjects
like language, history, geography etc.
C) In this method, it is difficult to make co-ordination between various subjects.
D) All of these
Q567) Which of the following are true about teaching?
Options:
A) Teaching is dynamic in nature.
B) Teaching is a process.
C) It changes its concept with time and place.
D) All of these

Options:
A) personally help them in their study B) frequently organize tours
C) dictate notes while teaching D) maintain good social relationship
Q569) Which one of the following is not a quality of teacher?

Options:
A) Teacher should use modern techniques. Methods and gadgets is teaching for
better understanding of subject matter.
B) Teacher should maintain an autocratic atmosphere in the class.
447
C) He/she should have interest in his/her profession and knowledge must be

updated.
D) Teacher must be fair tin grading and marking.
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Q570) Which of the following is 'NOT' true?

Options:
A) Teaching is an art.
B) Teachers can be trained.
C) Teachers are born.
D) All of the above
Q571) The main function of educational psychology is to provide prospective

teacher with:
Options:
A) research procedures for evaluating current teaching procedure.
B) ins ight into the needs, problems and styles of behaviour of teacher.
C) insight into various aspects of modern teaching education.
D) how to deal with students and everyday class situation.
Q572) Which of the following is not a quality of teacher?

Options:
A) Teacher should be keen in his work and should be enthusiastic and anxious
to keep his knowledge fresh and update.
B) He should have feelings of love and sympathy.
C) His language should be understandable to students.
D) He may not know child psychology.
Q573) The primary task of a teacher is:

Options:
A) to teach the prescribed curriculum
B) to prepare students to pass their examination
C) to make them a thinking people
D) to modify their behaviour according to the needs of our society and country.
Q574) Who define d teaching as a " an organized system of specific activities

aimed to help the learner learn something "?
Options:
448
A) Morrin B) Byod
C) Smith D) Jackson
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Q575) Which of the following statements regarding motivation is correct?

Options:
A) Freewill, intellect and reason are the motivating factors according to Plato.
according to James Burt.
C) Curiosity and level of aspiration are motivating factors according to Berlyne.
D) All of these
Q576) Catharsis means discharge of emotions. A teacher can let off pent up
energy of his disciple through
Options:
A) picnic/excursions
B) mock parliament
C) celebration of festivals
D) all of these
Q577) Suppose you are asked by your friends to take the membership of the
teachers association. How could you take decision in this situation?
Options:
A) You will give priority to social relations, therefore, you will accept the offer.
B) You will have, faith in unity so you will accept the membership.
C) You will de affiliate yourself from the colleagues instead of enmity with the
management.
D) You will try to avoid the issue.
Q578) An effective teaching means all of the following except

Options:
A) a teacher teaches with enthusiasm.

B) a teacher finds fault in his students.
C) a teacher puts emphasis more on teaching than on class control.
D) a teacher is interested in making the subject matter understood rather than
on completing the course.
449
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Q579) All of the following statements about a teacher are correct except that
he/she is
Options:
A) a friend guide and philosopher
B) teacher that the students do not know
C) the leader in the class.
D) changes his attitudes and behaviour according to the need of the society.

Options:
A) during the practice-teaching
B) after the practice teaching
C) before the practice-teaching
D) None of these
Q581) Teaching model is a way to

Options:
A) teach in a formal as well as informal way.

B) select such stimulus so that, the students may give expected feedback.
C) talk and think about instruction, which may contain facts in organized and
classified manner.
D) both (a) and ( b)
Q582) Which of the following is /are correct?

Options:
A) A teacher should introduce the lesson before he starts teaching
B) a teacher should have command over his language
C) A teacher should have command over his subject
D) All of these
Q583) Effective teaching involves

Options:
A) teacher dominance
450
B) pupil dominance
C) teacher and pupil interview
D) silence
Page

Q584) Which college has the least number of students from the discipline of
Science?
Options:
A) A
B) C
C) E
D) D
Q585) Maximum participation of students is possible

Options:
A) discussion method
B) lecture method
C) audio-visual aids
D) text book method
Q586) During le cture in classroom, some students hesitate to say that they are
unable to understand your lecture. What may be the reason for this?
Options:
A) You are unable to communicate effectively.
B) Your educational methodology is inadequate
C) Students fear you.
D) There is a cordial relation between you and your students
Q587) If a student is absent from the classes for a long time

Options:
A) you will try to know the cause of his absence.
B) you would try to solve his problems or help him.
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of these
Q588) Who has the least chance of becoming an effective teacher?

Options:
A) One who is a strict disciplinarian.

451
B) One who knows his subject well.

C) One who has no interest in teaching.
D) One who teaches moral values.
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Q589) Which of the following is fast step of teaching?

Options:
A) Presentation B) Application
C) Comparison D) Generalization
Q590) Which one of the following is a primary task of a teacher?

Options:
A) To teach the prescribed curriculum.

B) To stimulate and guide students learning.
C) To promote habits of conformity to adult demands and expectations
D) To provide diagnostic and remedial aid wherever desired.
Q591) If a teacher is cracking filthy jokes in a class and you are unable to stop
him, then what will you do?
Options:
A) persuade him/her decently not to waste their time-in filthy jokes.
B) live in isolation or change the group.
C) instruct him to mind his/her language in class.
D) be critical and remind him for the nobility of their jobs.
Q592) The teacher has been glorified by the phrase "Friend, philosopher and
guide" because
Options:
Q593) A teacher's major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of

the student is affected through
Options:
A) Constant fulfilment of the student's needs
452
C) Sensitivity to students' needs, goals and purposes

Page

Q594) Teacher's primary responsibility lies in

Options:

C) keeping students record
D) All of the above
Q595) In case of equal emoluments. The best profession is that of

Options:
A) Teacher
B) Doctor
C) An Engineer
D) Research Workers
Q596) Which of the following is not true about earthquake?

Options:
A) The shaking of ground is known as earthquake
B) It is a geological hazard
C) Seismic waves generated but earthquakes are invaluable for studying the
interior of earth
D) Tsunami causes earthquakes
Q597) In comparing the lecture and developmental lessons which one of the
following is false?
Options:
A) There is more public activity in the developmental lesson
B) It is more difficult to ascertain public learning in a lecture lesson
C) The lecture method is more conducive to largest class
D) Slow children derive more benefits from a lecture than brighter children do
Q598) If students do not understand what is taught in the class the teacher
should feel
Options:
453
A) terribly bored B) to explain it in different way

C) that he is wasting time D) pity for the students
Page

Q599) Doctor: Medicine:: Teacher:?

Options:
A) Class
B) Lecture
C) Education
D) Students
Q600) Teachers who are enthusiastic in the classroom teaching

Options:
A) often lack proficiency in the subjects which stays hidden under their
enthusiasm
B) simply dramatize to hold the student's attention.
C) involve their students in the teaching learning process
D) All of these

Options:
A) inculcation of knowledge
C) personal adjustment
D) acquisition of skills
Q602) Team teaching has the potential to develop:

Options:
A) Competitive spirit
B) Cooperation
C) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each other
D) Highlighting the gaps in each other's teaching
Q603) The most common cause of nervous instability amongst teacher is
Options:
A) worry
B) fatigue
C) quarrelsome behaviour
454
D) all of the above

Page

Q604) What will you do as a teacher if the students do not attend your class?
Options:
A) Blame the students for their absence

B) Keep quiet considering the present attitude of students as the change of
culture
C) Think of using some interesting methods of teaching
D) Know the reason and try to remove them
Options:
A) Rushing to the principal's office and canvassing for help immediately
B) Telephoning (informing) student's parents and wait for them
D) Making arrangement to send him to his house or nearby hospital
Q606) If a child is a back bencher and unable to watch the blackboard clearly.
As a result he stands, sees and sits repeatedly. What inference will you draw
regarding the case?
Options:
A) The child is of short height as compared to his classmates.
B) The blackboard is under shining effect of light.
C) The child has a defective-vision
D) Both (a) and ( c )

Options:
A) dictate notes in the class.
B) give important questions before examination.
C) can clear their difficulties regarding subject-matter.
D) are themselves disciplined.
455
Page

Q608) Which of the following is the most important characteristic of Open Book
Examination system /
Options:
A) Students become serious B) It improves attendance in the classroom.
C) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students.
D) In compels students to think.
Q609) Micro teaching is useful to

Options:
A) primary classes B) sub junior classes
C) higher classes D) both higher and primary classes
Q610) To encourage the students to become self motivated independent learner

a teacher can
Options:
A) give frequent posture feedback that can give student self belief that he can do
it.
B) ensure opportunities for students success by assigning tas k
C) create a democratic atmosphere
D) All of these
Q611) In comparison, which is one of the steps of teaching?
Options:
A) A student is asked to compare two teachers.
B) A student is asked to compare two sets of facts.
C) A student is asked to compare present with the past.
D) A student is asked to compare two different topics/lessons.
Q612) Which one of the following is not required for effective learning?
Options:
A) Ask open ended divergent questions which allow for a variety of acceptable
answers
B) Use the 'brain storming ' techniques to evaluate the understanding of specific
456
facts and their feedback

C) Ask students to go for a group discussion on a subject/topic
D) All of these are helpful in effective teaching
Page


Options:
A) during the preparation for teaching -practice

B) during the teaching -practice
C) after the teaching practice
D) always

Options:
A) I dealist philosophy
B) Compass ion
C) Discipline
D) Entertaining
Q615) Who has signed as MOU for Accreditation of Teacher education

Options:
A) NAAC and UGC

B) NCTE and NAAC
C) UGC and NCTE
D) NCTE and IGNOU
Q616) The most appropriate purpose of learning is ;

Options:
A) personal adjustment
C) social political awareness
D) preparing oneself for employment
Q617) CHEER stands for

Options:
A) Children Enrichment Education Electronic Radio
B) Child Health Education Electronic Recording
457
C) Children for Environment and Energy Representation

D) None of these
Page

Q618) A good teacher is one who

Options:
A) is highly intelligent
B) lives simple life.
C) has mastery over his teaching subject.
D) has genuine interest in his student.
Options:
A) encouraged to find answer independently
B) advised to meet the teacher after the class
C) encouraged to continue questioning
D) advised not to disturb during the lecture
Q620) Which one of the following satisfactions helps our children from infancy
onwards to adolescence, equipped them with a sense of achievement,
recognition and independence?
Options:
A) Affectionate, warm, security giving satisfaction.
B) Self enlarging, ego building, adequacy giving satisfactions.
C) They gain satisfaction and love through close physical contact
D) None of these
Q621) What is symposium?

Options:
A) A meeting at which a group engages in intensive discussion and activity on a
particular subject or project.
B) A formal meeting for discussion or debate
C) A meeting conference for discussion of a topic especially one in which the
participants form an audience and make presentations.
D) None of these
Q622) The school or college building needs a calm surrounding to avoid

Options:
458
A) environmental stress B) competing stimulus

C) subjective stress D) none of these
Page

Q623) Teaching on TV is superior to class room instruction because

Options:
A) very large classes are made possible and thus it is economically

advantageous
B) experts for teaching a difficult topic can be arranged and others can be
benefited from them
C) teaching materials can be filmed for reuse
D) all of these
Q624) To stop malpractice of mass copying in the examination, what will you
do?
Options:
A) You will give severe serve punishment to students

B) You will try to give moral equation to the students.
C) You will try to give moral equation to the students.
D) You will rusticate the students forever from the school
Q625) Heterogeneous grouping best serves the aims of a democratic society

because:
Options:
A) parents prefer it.
B) pupil prefer it.
C) it minimizes class distinctions
D) it is the best environment for learning.
Q626) If in a research independent variables cannot be teacher except?

Options:
A) Experimental Research
B) Non-experimental Research
C) Pure or Fundamental Research
D) Exploratory Research
459
Page

Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) B, Q3) D, Q4) A, Q5) B,
Q6) D, Q7) A, Q8) B, Q9) C, Q10) D,
Q11) D, Q12) B, Q13) B, Q14) D, Q15) D,
Q16) C, Q17) A, Q18) B, Q19) A, Q20) B,
Q21) A, Q22) A, Q23) B, Q24) B, Q25) B,
Q26) D, Q27) B, Q28) C, Q29) B, Q30) C,
Q31) B, Q32) D, Q33) B, Q34) A, Q35) B,
Q36) D, Q37) C, Q38) B, Q39) C, Q40) B,
Q41) C, Q42) C, Q43) D, Q44) B, Q45) C,
Q46) D, Q47) A, Q48) D, Q49) C, Q50) D,
Q51) A, Q52) A, Q53) B, Q54) D, Q55) D,
Q56) A, Q57) B, Q58) D, Q59) A, Q60) A,
Q61) B, Q62) A, Q63) B, Q64) C, Q65) D,
Q66) A, Q67) A, Q68) D, Q69) D, Q70) D,
Q71) B, Q72) B, Q73) D, Q74) D, Q75) B,
Q76) C, Q77) A, Q78) D, Q79) C, Q80) B,
Q81) C, Q82) C, Q83) D, Q84) A, Q85) B,
Q86) D, Q87) A, Q88) B, Q89) A, Q90) D,
Q91) B, Q92) B, Q93) A, Q94) B, Q95) A,
Q96) A, Q97) B, Q98) B, Q99) B, Q100) A,
Q101) D, Q102) B, Q103) D, Q104) B, Q105) C,
Q106) B, Q107) C, Q108) B, Q109) C, Q110) A,
Q111) A, Q112) B, Q113) D, Q114) B, Q115) A,
Q116) C, Q117) B, Q118) D, Q119) B, Q120) D,
Q121) C, Q122) B, Q123) D, Q124) D, Q125) A,
Q126) B, Q127) D, Q128) D, Q129) B, Q130) C,
Q131) D, Q132) C, Q133) A, Q134) D, Q135) B,
Q136) B, Q137) A, Q138) B, Q139) B, Q140) B,
Q141) A, Q142) B, Q143) A, Q144) A, Q145) A,
Q146) B, Q147) C, Q148) A, Q149) B, Q150) C,
Q151) A, Q152) C, Q153) D, Q154) A, Q155) B,
Q156) D, Q157) A, Q158) D, Q159) C, Q160) A,
Q161) D, Q162) D, Q163) A, Q164) B, Q165) A,
Q166) D, Q167) B, Q168) D, Q169) C, Q170) B,
Q171) D, Q172) D, Q173) C, Q174) C, Q175) A,
Q176) C, Q177) C, Q178) C, Q179) C, Q180) D,
Q181) B, Q182) A, Q183) C, Q184) C, Q185) D,
Q186) A, Q187) A, Q188) A, Q189) C, Q190) C,
Q191) A, Q192) C, Q193) A, Q194) D, Q195) D,
Q196) C, Q197) B, Q198) C, Q199) B, Q200) B,
Q201) A, Q202) D, Q203) C, Q204) C, Q205) C,
460
Q206) C, Q207) A, Q208) C, Q209) A, Q210) C,

Q211) B, Q212) C, Q213) C, Q214) C, Q215) C,
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Q216) A, Q217) C, Q218) B, Q219) B, Q220) D,

Q221) C, Q222) C, Q223) D, Q224) C, Q225) A,
Q226) D, Q227) D, Q228) D, Q229) C, Q230) C,
Q231) A, Q232) A, Q233) A, Q234) B, Q235) A,
Q236) D, Q237) A, Q238) B, Q239) C, Q240) D,
Q241) C, Q242) A, Q243) C, Q244) D, Q245) C,
Q246) A, Q247) D, Q248) C, Q249) B, Q250) C,
Q251) D, Q252) B, Q253) C, Q254) D, Q255) B,
Q256) D, Q257) D, Q258) A, Q259) C, Q260) B,
Q261) C, Q262) A, Q263) A, Q264) B, Q265) A,
Q266) C, Q267) C, Q268) D, Q269) B, Q270) D,
Q271) C, Q272) A, Q273) A, Q274) B, Q275) B,
Q276) D, Q277) D, Q278) B, Q279) A, Q280) B,
Q281) D, Q282) D, Q283) D, Q284) C, Q285) D,
Q286) C, Q287) D, Q288) D, Q289) D, Q290) D,
Q291) D, Q292) A, Q293) D, Q294) C, Q295) B,
Q296) C, Q297) C, Q298) A, Q299) B, Q300) B,
Q301) A, Q302) D, Q303) C, Q304) D, Q305) D,
Q306) C, Q307) A, Q308) D, Q309) A, Q310) A,
Q311) A, Q312) D, Q313) A, Q314) B, Q315) C,
Q316) D, Q317) D, Q318) D, Q319) A, Q320) D,
Q321) B, Q322) A, Q323) D, Q324) B, Q325) B,
Q326) A, Q327) B, Q328) C, Q329) D, Q330) C,
Q331) B, Q332) A, Q333) A, Q334) D, Q335) A,
Q336) D, Q337) B, Q338) C, Q339) B, Q340) A,
Q341) D, Q342) D, Q343) C, Q344) D, Q345) B,
Q346) D, Q347) A, Q348) C, Q349) D, Q350) C,
Q351) D, Q352) C, Q353) C, Q354) A, Q355) C,
Q356) A, Q357) C, Q358) B, Q359) C, Q360) C,
Q361) D, Q362) D, Q363) D, Q364) B, Q365) D,
Q366) C, Q367) D, Q368) D, Q369) D, Q370) B,
Q371) B, Q372) D, Q373) C, Q374) C, Q375) B,
Q376) B, Q377) B, Q378) C, Q379) B, Q380) B,
Q381) A, Q382) C, Q383) B, Q384) C, Q385) D,
Q386) D, Q387) D, Q388) B, Q389) D, Q390) C,
Q391) D, Q392) D, Q393) D, Q394) B, Q395) B,
Q396) D, Q397) C, Q398) C, Q399) B, Q400) B,
Q401) B, Q402) C, Q403) B, Q404) B, Q405) D,
Q406) A, Q407) A, Q408) A, Q409) C, Q410) A,
Q411) C, Q412) A, Q413) D, Q414) C, Q415) C,
Q416) A, Q417) C, Q418) B, Q419) C, Q420) B,
Q421) A, Q422) B, Q423) D, Q424) C, Q425) A,
Q426) B, Q427) B, Q428) B, Q429) B, Q430) C,
461
Q431) D, Q432) D, Q433) D, Q434) C, Q435) C,

Q436) A, Q437) D, Q438) C, Q439) D, Q440) D,
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Q441) C, Q442) D, Q443) B, Q444) C, Q445) D,

Q446) B, Q447) A, Q448) D, Q449) A, Q450) D,
Q451) B, Q452) C, Q453) C, Q454) B, Q455) B,
Q456) A, Q457) A, Q458) B, Q459) D, Q460) D,
Q461) C, Q462) D, Q463) B, Q464) C, Q465) C,
Q466) A, Q467) B, Q468) D, Q469) D, Q470) C,
Q471) A, Q472) D, Q473) D, Q474) D, Q475) D,
Q476) D, Q477) C, Q478) D, Q479) D, Q480) D,
Q481) A, Q482) A, Q483) D, Q484) C, Q485) C,
Q486) C, Q487) C, Q488) D, Q489) C, Q490) D,
Q491) D, Q492) A, Q493) A, Q494) C, Q495) B,
Q496) A, Q497) A, Q498) B, Q499) D, Q500) D,
Q501) C, Q502) A, Q503) A, Q504) C, Q505) C,
Q506) D, Q507) A, Q508) A, Q509) D, Q510) D,
Q511) D, Q512) A, Q513) C, Q514) A, Q515) D,
Q516) B, Q517) C, Q518) B, Q519) A, Q520) A,
Q521) B, Q522) D, Q523) A, Q524) C, Q525) D,
Q526) A, Q527) B, Q528) D, Q529) A, Q530) D,
Q531) B, Q532) C, Q533) A, Q534) B, Q535) D,
Q536) D, Q537) D, Q538) C, Q539) C, Q540) C,
Q541) A, Q542) A, Q543) B, Q544) A, Q545) B,
Q546) A, Q547) A, Q548) D, Q549) C, Q550) C,
Q551) B, Q552) D, Q553) D, Q554) D, Q555) B,
Q556) D, Q557) A, Q558) D, Q559) D, Q560) B,
Q561) C, Q562) D, Q563) D, Q564) B, Q565) C,
Q566) D, Q567) D, Q568) A, Q569) B, Q570) D,
Q571) D, Q572) D, Q573) D, Q574) C, Q575) D,
Q576) D, Q577) D, Q578) B, Q579) B, Q580) B,
Q581) D, Q582) D, Q583) C, Q584) D, Q585) A,
Q586) A, Q587) C, Q588) C, Q589) B, Q590) B,
Q591) A, Q592) B, Q593) C, Q594) A, Q595) A,
Q596) D, Q597) D, Q598) B, Q599) C, Q600) C,
Q601) B, Q602) C, Q603) A, Q604) D, Q605) C,
Q606) D, Q607) C, Q608) D, Q609) D, Q610) D,
Q611) B, Q612) D, Q613) B, Q614) C, Q615) B,
Q616) B, Q617) A, Q618) D, Q619) A, Q620) A,
Q621) C, Q622) B, Q623) D, Q624) C, Q625) C,
Q626) B,
462
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UNIT 2
Research Aptitude
463
Page

Research Aptitude
Methods of Research:
Q1) The step of experimental method is

Options:
A) Selection and definition of a problem
B) Survey of the related literature
C) Experimental design
D) All the above
Q2) Which one of the following research methods, have the similarity in nature
when compared in relation to sample, control and validity of inferences?
Options:
A) Experimental and Ex Post Faco method

B) Historical and Philosophical method
C) Survey and Experimental method
Q3) The propounded of the law of single variable is

Options:
A) James S.Will B) Thomas Hobbes
C) William Kant D) Dewey
Q4) In correlation design of Ex Post Facto Research, we study

Options:
A) The variable which has been measured in advance and will be work as an
causative factor for second variable
B) The second variable which is going to be measured and will work as a
causative factor for antecedent variable
464
C) The third variable which cannot be measured but work as a causative factor
for first and second variable
D) All the above three situations and occurrence of variables
Page

Q5) According to Lindquist the types of experimental design are

Options:
A) Six B) Four C) Two D) None of the above
Q6) Case-study collects the data from the following sources

Options:
A) From individual B) From Anecdotal records
C) From Government documents D) From all the above
Q7) The need of philosophical research method is desired in

Options:
A) Philosophy related researches
B) All the researches involved in exploring the aims of social sciences
C) Explorations of Atma and Paramatma
D) Determining the role and extension of philosophy
Q8) The problem for the research related to metaphysics can be

Options:
A) What is meant by existence
B) What are the qualities of the existence of the objects
C) How knowledge of individuality of the objects can be realised
D) All the above
Q9) The characteristic of survey method is

Options:
A) To solve the problems at local level
B) To enhance the body of knowledge
C) To solve the present problems
D) All the above
Q10) The steps of historical research method are

Options:
A) To identify the problem B) To collect the data
465
C) To criticise the data D) All the above

Page

Q11) The meaning of variable is

Options:
A) The quality having different values
B) The nature of happening which influences other happenings through its
presence
C) Both of the above
Q12) Ge nerally variable are of

Options:
A) Two types-Independent and dependent variable
B) Three types-Independent, dependent and Intervening variables
C) Four types-Independent, dependent, Intervening and control variables
Q13) In Epistemology, the following problem can be solved

Options:
A) What is known to the brain beyond the knowledge of its own ideas
B) How do the knowledge 'becomes objective as well as subjective
simultaneously
C) What is the criteria of judgement of Truth and False
D) All the above are correct
Q14) The characteristics of experimental method is

Options:
A) It follows the law of single variable
B) It is the laboratory method of research and has borrowed from pure sciences
C) It follows the scientific method
Q15) The following steps of case-study have been jumbled with each other
1.Focus of study 2. Identification of Cause effect symptoms 3. Remedy for
adjustment 4. Follow-up programme 5. Data collection The correct sequence in
above steps is codes:
Options:
466
A) 1, 5, 2, 3 and 4 B) 1, 4, 5, 2 and 3
C) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 D) 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1
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Q16) Descriptive study is related with

Options:
A) Survey research method

B) Experimental research method
C) Case study method
D) All the above
Q17) The objective of Descriptive Research is

Options:
A) To identify and focus on the present conditions
B) To study the subject on phenomenon in a speedy manner
C) To collect the facts
D) All the above
Q18) The main types of case study are

Options:
A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Not at all
Q19) The meaning of Crossed Reaction Experimental Design is
Options:
A) Such an experimental design where all the reactions are carried out with the
subjects in a sequential fashion
B) Such where the subject related errors are eliminated an experimental design
C) Both of the above are correct
D) None of the above are correct
Q20) Ge nerally the external and internal validity is present in the inference, we
get from
Options:
A) Experimental method
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B) Survey method
C) Ex Post Facto method
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Q21) The contribution of case-study is

Options:
A) I n study and data collection of a case related to caste, age, sex, religion,
problems, intellectual level, socio-economic status etc.
B) In evaluating of historical facts related with persons or case
C) In study of institutionalized groups and families
D) In all the above studies
Q22) The limitation of case-study is

Options:
A) It has subjectivity
B) It is difficult to formulate assumptions
C) It is difficult to employ complex statistical methods
Q23) The survey method is classified on the basis of

Options:
A) The nature of variable

B) The measurable class or group
C) The source of data collection
D) All the above
Q24) The objective of case-study is

Options:
A) Remedial
B) Diagnostic
C) Educational
D) All the above
Q25) The fundamental assumption of experimental method is related with

Options:
A) Law of single variable
B) Law of two variable
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C) Controlled conditions
D) Intermediary variables
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Q26) The meaning of the Historical method of research is

Options:
A) To employ scientific method in order to study the historical problems
B) To establish relationship between historical facts and current events
C) To make specific investigation of the past events
D) All the above
Q27) The steps of the Historical method of research are given in a jumbled state.
Select them in a scientific order from the following options 1. Identification of
the problem. 2.Criticism of data 3. Interpretation of data 4. Collection of data
Options:
A) 1, 4, 3 and 2
B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
C) 1, 3, 2 and 4
D) 4, 3, 2 and 1
Q28) Case-study method denotes

Options:
A) The study of a case in its vicinity

B) The extensive study of a 'Case'
C) The cumulative study of a case
D) All the above
Q29) Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method?

Options:
A) Single-group experiment
B) Parallel-group experiment
C) Rotational group experiment
D) Residual group experiment
Q30) The control in Survey method is required

Options:
A) To a great extent
B) To a less extent
C) To a normal extent
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D) Not at all
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Q31) Survey method is associated with

Options:
A) Those exercises which are continued regularly
B) Those processes which are continued regularly
C) The experiences which have been already realised
D) All the above
Q32) The advantage of Random Replication Design is
Options:
A) It controls almost all types of errors
B) It studies the effects of the institutions simultaneously
C) It employs in social science researches vigorously
Q33) The position of sample in Survey method is

Options:
A) Essential
B) Partial
C) Constant
Q34) The important characteristics of the survey method is

Options:
A) It is capable for collecting data from a large group (population)

simultaneously
B) Here the work is being carried out on pre-determined problem
C) The aims of this method are fixed and specific
Q35) The types of Historical method are

Options:
A) Descriptive and Analytical
B) Historical-Constitutional and Reporting
C) School survey and social surveys
D) Survey Examination-Questionnaire survey
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Q36) The meaning of ExPost Facto Research is

Options:
A) The research carried out after the incident
B) The research carried out prior to the incident
C) The research carried out along with the happening of an incident
D) The research carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident
Q37) In order to carried out a study on Juvenile delinquents, the best method is
Options:
A) Ex-Post Facto method B) Case-Study method
C) Experimental method D) Genetic method
Q38) The criteria of a good case-study is

Options:
A) Continuity B) Completeness of the data
C) Validity of the data D) All the above
Q39) The wrong statement in relation to experimental method is

Options:
A) Observation under controlled condition is experiment
B) It is method of effective control of variables
C) Careful observation of a phenomenon under controlled conditions
D) It is an useful method in laboratories
Q40) On the basis of the nature, of variable the types of survey method are
Options:
A) Stratified survey and survey researches
B) Sample and population related researches
C) Surveys through Questionnaire and interviews
D) All the above
Q41) The experimental method is

Options:
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A) A method for verifying a hypothesis B) A method deriving inferences

C) A variable controlling method D) None of the above
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Q42) In ExPost Faco research the position of the variable is

Options:
A) Generally the Independent variable happened before the research
B) The researcher begins with single dependent and independent variables
C) And after it he studies the possible relation in a regressed form
D) All the above
Q43) According to Mouly, the type of research methods is
Options:
A) Historical method B) Survey method
C) Experimental method D) All the above methods
Q44) Ethics is related with

Options:
A) Beliefs of the person B) Nature of Law
C) Civic principles and rights D) All the above
Q45) Ex Post Faco method of research is associated to

Options:
A) Sample B) Control
C) Validity related with inferences D) All the above
Q46) The internal validity related with inferences is associated to
Options:
A) Ex Post Faco method of research
B) Experimental method of research
Q47) Which of the following method is free from the difficulties related with
sampling, control and validity of inferences?
Options:
A) Historical method
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B) Philosophical method
C) Experimental method
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D) Survey method

Q48) The Historical method is related with

Options:
A) The history oriented researches only

B) The researches of history and Archaeology
C) The historical researches conducted in all the disciplines
D) None of the above is correct
Q49) Which one of the characteristic is not related to survey method of

research?
Options:
A) It organises scientific principles
B) It is comparatively more difficult and changeable
C) It requires imaginary planning
D) It is not related with person's qualities
Q50) The informations to be collected in survey method are related to

Options:
A) Present position
B) Aims of the research
C) The attainment of the aim of the research
D) All the above
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) B,
Q3) A, Q4) D, Q5) A, Q6) D, Q7) B,
Q8) D, Q9) D, Q10) D, Q11) C, Q12) C,
Q13) D, Q14) D, Q15) A, Q16) D, Q17) D,
Q18) C, Q19) C, Q20) C, Q21) D, Q22) D,
Q23) D, Q24) D, Q25) A, Q26) D, Q27) A,
Q28) D, Q29) D, Q30) B, Q31) D, Q32) D,
Q33) A, Q34) D, Q35) B, Q36) A, Q37) A,
Q38) D, Q39) D, Q40) A, Q41) A, Q42) D,
Q43) D, Q44) D, Q45) D, Q46) B, Q47) A,
Q48) C, Q49) A, Q50) D
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Paper, Article, Workshop, Seminar, Conference

and Symposium:
Q1) The characteristic feature of a workshop is
Options:
A) To attain the higher cognitive and Psychomotor objectives of the research
B) To comprehend the theoretical and practical aspects of the research
C) To explore the possibilities of applied aspects of the research
D) All of the above
Q2) In a seminar the main function of the president of a specific session is

Options:
A) To coordinate the activities in that session
B) To exercise his power to control the debatable discussions between Speakers
and Audience
C) To maintain as disciplining agency
D) All of the above statements are correct
Q3) The main objective of organizing a workshop is
Options:
A) To improve the skills of the researchers in order to solve the specific problem
B) To impart practical training to the researchers
C) To make perfect the researchers in an area of research
D) All of the above
Q4) Generally the format of research resembles with

Options:
A) A long essay
B) A synopsis
C) A writing technique
D) A report preparing method
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Q5) Generally in all researches, an abstract of each article has been prepared
which focuses upon
Options:
A) The central theme of the research paper

B) The research-innovation employed in research paper
C) The effective conclusions of the research paper
D) All of the above
Q6) The compulsion of publication of research paper is

Options:
A) Only for University Teachers
B) Only for Central University Teachers
C) For all the teachers in higher education institutions
D) Cannot say
Q7) The advantage of Seminar is
Options:
A) The attainment of higher Cognitive and Affective objectives of the research
B) The development of democratic values
C) The formation of good learning habits
D) All of the above
Q8) Symposium is
Options:
A) I ntellectual entertainment
B) Hearty entertainment
C) T.V. related entertainment
D) Research with entertainment
Q9) In colleges, universities the promotion on the post of Reader under the
Personal Promotion Scheme, the required minimum number of published
papers is
Options:
A) 3 to 5
B) Only one
475
C) Only two
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Q10) The research is a

Options:
A) Honest investigation
B) Passive investigation
C) Investigation for showing scholarship
D) Investigation in the interest of society
Q11) The affective objective of seminar is
Options:
A) To incorporate the qualities of patience and tolerance in the researcher
B) To appreciate the research inferences
C) To incorporate emotional stability and motivation in the researcher
D) All of the above statements are correct
Q12) The research papers writing methodology has slight variations in reference
to
Options:
A) The standards maintained by research journals
B) The interests of the researchers
C) The research traditions
D) All of the above statements are correct with slight variations
Q13) The main Psycho-motor objective of the workshop is

Options:
A) The expertise of formulating research design
B) The ability of selection and determining of the problems
C) The skills of construction of research apparatus
D) All of the above
Q14) In present time the Seminars are organised

Options:
A) For promoting the teachers
B) For revamping teachers with research potentialities
C) For converting low grade teaches into higher grades
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Q15) Seminar is a
Options:
A) The process of promoting the reflective level
B) The process of nurturing the higher cognition
C) The interactional process of thinking
D) All of the above are true
Q16) The UGC has made it compulsory for every teacher to participate in
Seminars because
Options:
A) The teacher is the nation builder
B) The teacher is awakening the nation
C) The teacher is the transmitter of democratic values
D) The teacher is the builder of young generation
Q17) The process of writing a research paper is

Options:
A) Scientific
B) Unscientific
C) Original
Q18) Conference is a
Options:
A) Provision to discuss on serious matters
B) Adequate solution of research problems
C) Wider manipulation of research inferences
D) All of the above
Q19) Ge nerally, in a research conference the peoples call for

Options:
A) Conducting classical discussions
B) Giving guidance
C) Harassing the new researchers
D) Showing personal powers by the experts
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Q20) Seminar provides the following opportunity to a researcher

Options:
A) Expression of feelings B) Exchange of ideas
C) Spontaneous learning D) All of the above
Q21) In organization of a workshop, the following cognitive objective is primarily

included
Options:
A) To search the solutions for complicated problems

B) To discuss the Socio-philosophical aspects of the research
C) To determine the research methods
D) All of the above
Q22) Ge nerally the objective of organizing a workshop is

Options:
A) To develop the research attitude in the researchers
B) To tell about the research methodology to the neo-researchers
C) To impart practical training of conducting research
Q23) The Seminar can be organized

Options:
A) I n a class B) In a school
C) In a district level D) At all the levels
Q24) The limitations of a research workshop are

Options:
A) Need of extra time B) Extra emphasis on practicality
C) Need of specific research material D) All of the above
Q25) The research paper and the research article are

Options:
A) Two separate name of one and same thing
478
B) First is factual and later a theoretical in nature

C) First is having survey background the later is experiment in nature
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D) B and C are the correct statements

Q26) The human resources of a workshop is

Options:
A) Organiser-Coordinator-Expert
B) Organiser-Coordinator-Expert-Participant
C) Organizer-Coordinator-Expert Researcher
Q27) The research papers are written in order to
Options:
A) Gain name and fame
B) Communicate the research
C) Get promotions
Q28) The advantages of preparing the research paper is

Options:
A) The exchange of ideas related to research
B) The familiarity with the research approaches
C) The awareness about present researches
D) All of the above
Q29) The advantage of Conference is

Options:
A) Development of democratic values

B) Guidance of new-researchers
C) Mutual exchange of ideas
D) All of the above
Q30) The affective objective of the workshop is

Options:
A) The awareness towards recent (emerging) problematic areas in the field of
research
B) The activation towards immediate problems
C) The expertise in the field of research
D) All of the above
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Q31) The aim of symposium is

Options:
A) To develop the knowledge about current problems and the capacity to identify
them
B) To take decision about the problems related to research topics
C) To seek advice of the experts in the area
D) All of the above
Q32) The constituents of a seminar are

Options:
A) Organizer-Chairman-Speakers-Participants
B) President-Chairman-Workers
C) Chairman-Participant only
Q33) The characteristic of symposium is

Options:
A) To develop the comprehensive understanding of about the specific problems
of research and its various dimensions
B) To give freedom to express their ideas by the speakers as well as the audience
C) To impart training for higher order of thinking
D) All of the above
Q34) Ge nerally, in conference one of the following do not participate

Options:
A) Expert
B) Researcher
C) Ignorant
D) Curious person
Q35) The step of research workshop is
Options:
A) The presentation and explanation of the topic
B) The practice of following an approach
C) Follow-up and evaluation of a topic
D) All of the above
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Page

Q36) The research paper does not has its advantage when it does not
Options:
A) Improve the goal-oriented researches
B) Present for wider criticism of his inferences
C) Nourish the wider causes of the society
D) Imparts fame at regional and national levels
Q37) The term 'workshop' borrowed in the field of research from
Options:
A) Engineering
B) Drama-house
C) Technology
Q38) Ge nerally it has been witnessed that the compulsion of writing a research
paper has generated anomaly because
Options:
A) Every teacher does not possess the proper aptitude for writing a research
paper
B) Every teacher does not have desirable qualities for writing a research paper
C) Each teacher does not possess the scientific attitude to carry out the research
Q39) Symposium is a
Options:
A) A well organised group of a few speakers with large audience
B) Arrival at the certain goal through mutual exchange of ideas
C) Process of taking decisions in a group
D) All of the above
Q40) Ge nerally research papers have been given more weightage instead of
research articles because these will be
Options:
A) Based on data
B) Incorporate d with statistics
481

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Q41) Ge nerally in a research conference the following person is not present

Options:
A) Permanent member B) Common person

C) Expert D) Chairman of Conference
Q42) The background of the research paper may be

Options:
A) Philosophical
B) Historical
C) Contemporary
Q43) The basic requirement for preparing a research paper is

Options:
A) The research orientation of the person
B) The research skills in the person
C) The research attitudes in the person
D) All of the above
Q44) The main cognitive objective of seminar is

Options:
A) To develop critical and analytical capacities in a researcher
B) To develop observational and experiential presenting capabilities in a
researcher
C) To develop synthetic and evaluation related abilities in a researcher
D) All of the above are correct statements
Q45) The central role in workshop is of

Options:
A) The Director B) The Expert
C) The Participants D) All of the above
482
Page

Q46) The primary aim of organising the Seminar is

Options:
A) Attaining knowledge B) Communication of research inferences
C) The exhibition of research creativity D) None of the above
Q47) The research papers are generally prepared by

Options:
A) The research scholars B) The research supervisors
C) The scientists D) All of the above
Q48) Ge nerally research papers are presented abundantly in

Options:
A) Se minars B) Journals
C) Symposiums D) All of the above
Q49) Research conferences can be conducted at

Options:
A) Regional level B) National level
C) International level D) All of the above level
Q50) Which one of the following is NOT a type of Seminar?

Options:
A) House-committee B) International Seminar
C) National Seminar D) Focal Seminar
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) D,
Q3) D, Q4) B, Q5) D, Q6) C, Q7) D,
Q8) A, Q9) A, Q10) A, Q11) D, Q12) D,
Q13) D, Q14) B, Q15) D, Q16) D, Q17) A,
Q18) D, Q19) B, Q20) D, Q21) D, Q22) C,
Q23) D, Q24) D, Q25) D, Q26) B, Q27) B,
Q28) D, Q29) D, Q30) D, Q31) D, Q32) A,
Q33) D, Q34) C, Q35) D, Q36) C, Q37) A,
Q38) D, Q39) D, Q40) C, Q41) B, Q42) D,
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Q43) D, Q44) D, Q45) B, Q46) A, Q47) D,

Q48) D, Q49) A, Q50) A
Page

Academic Research:
Q1) To become unscientific, it is sufficient

Options:
A) I rrelevant arguments
B) Prejudices
C) Disagreement
D) All the above
Q2) The research is always
Options:
A) Exploring new knowledge
B) Verifying the old knowledge
C) Filling the gap between the knowledge
D) Including all the above
Q3) The Theoretical aims of research is

Options:
A) Explanatory
B) Qualitativeness
C) Quantitativeness
D) Inferential
Q4) Which of the following is classified in the category of the developmental

research?
Options:
A) Philosophical research
B) Action-research
C) Descriptive research
D) All the above
Q5) The analysis of the term 'Anusandhan' gives two words

Options:
A) A+nusandhan
484
B) An+usandhan
C) Anu+sandhan
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D) Au+nsandhan

Q6) In Hindi language the term Anusandhan refers to

Options:
A) Follower of an aim B) Preying of an aim
C) Attain the aim D) Become goal-oriented
Q7) The term Anusandhan in Hindi has been borrowed from

Options:
A) The advantageous aims used in archery training in olden days
B) The objectives employed in modern Rifle Shooting competitions
C) Both of the above analogous and true in terminology's perspective
D) Both are the heterogeneous and not related with the term in question
Q8) A research should be

Options:
A) Objective B) Valid
C) Reliable D) All the above
Q9) On the basis of contributions made, all the researches can be classified as
Options:
A) Fundamental-Applied-Action Research
B) Experimental-Historical-Philosophical
C) Longitudinal and Cross-sectional
Q10) Research is based upon

Options:
A) Scientific method B) Experiments
C) Scientists D) Genera principles
Q11) Research is an honest effort carried out through insight'.

Options:
A) Best
B) Watson
485
C) Cook
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Q12) The factual aims are most important in

Options:
A) Historical researches B) Behavioural researches
C) Theoretical researches D) Philosophical researches
Q13) Ge nerally the data of the research is

Options:
A) Quantitative only
B) Qualitative only
C) Both of the above analogous and true in terminology's perspective
Q14) Researches are generally treated as Identity symbols' of a nation because

Options:
A) Researches reflect the progress of a nation
B) Researches focus on human development
C) Researches help in acquiring international prestige
D) All the above
Q15) A researcher should possess

Options:
A) Scientific attitude B) Scientific thinking
C) Scientific feelings D) Scientific behaviour
Q16) Factual aims of research has the quality of

Options:
A) Descriptive nature B) Foundation on human values
C) Cause-effect relatedness D) All the above
Q17) The principles formulated by the Fundamental research are used in

Options:
A) Applied researches
B) Philosophical research
486
C) Action researches
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Q18) Action-research is
Options:
A) An applied research B) A research carried out to solve
immediate problems C) A longitudinal research
D) All the above
Q19) In Longitudinal approaches primarily the researches are related with

Options:
A) Temporal sequence B) Eugenics

C) Sample D) None of the above
Q20) The basic need of a research is

Options:
A) I n preparation of a project B) In guidance

C) In economic planning D) In sitting in library
Q21) Which of the following statement matches with that of Mouly?

Options:
A) Research is a process in which Exploratory procedure(method) has been
employed
B) The application of Scientific method foe experimentation and interpretation
intellectually for solving the problems is called a research
C) Research is an intensive formal and organised procedure
D) Research can be defined in the form of study method of problem-solving
Q22) The characteristics of a research is

Options:
A) Se rious and intensive study B) Wisdom
C) Based on standardized conclusions D) All the above
Q23) Ge nerally the formulation and progress of new knowledge have been
carried out through
Options:
487
A) Fundamental researches B) Experimental researches

C) Historical researches D) None of the above
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Q24) If you are interested to perceive yourself as a 'Scientist' then what sort of
changes will you prefer in yourself?
Options:
A) Registration for Ph.D. Degree B) T raining under the guidance of a scientist

C) Full of scientific excitement D) Development of scientific attitude
Q25) The aims of research is

Options:
A) Factual B) Verifiable C) Theoretical D) All the above
Q26) On the basis of the approach the classification of researches has taken
birth(emerged from)
Options:
A) Biological sciences B) Pure s ciences C) Psychology D) None of the above
Q27) If you are employing scientific method for solving a problem and
interpretation of the results, then this process is called
Options:
A) Scientific B) Self-satisfying
C) Complementary to personal objectives D) None of the above
Q28) The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is
called as
Options:
A) Historical researches B) Philosophical research

C) Mythological research D) None of the above
Q29) The single difference between Longitudinal and cross-sectional researches

is
Options:
A) I n Longitudinal researches are working on single group of subject for long
term duration while in cross-section, the immediate results have been derived
after selecting a sample
B) In Longitudinal researcher the researcher should have more patience to work
than in cross-sectional researches
C) The Longitudinal researches have been generally carried out under the
488
specific situation and with specific persons but it is not carried out in cross-
sectional researches
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D) All the above differences are correct

Q30) The need of objective observation is

Options:
A) I n performing experiment B) In research
C) In normal behaviour D) In all the situations
Q31) When a person deriving all the conclusions through observation and
experimentation in his routine life. In this way the person can be treated as a
Options:
A) Scientist B) Good citizen

C) Intellectual person D) Normal person
Q32) Reliability in the fundamental quality of a research which also reflects

Options:
A) Validity B) Verifiability
C) Purity of data D) Superiority
Q33) When a research is repeated under the similar controlled conditions, such
research is called as
Options:
A) Reliable B) Unreliable
C) Changeable D) Dynamic
Q34) Ganga Action Plan'-is a Action Research plan because it has

Options:
A) To attained a definite goal B) To finished in a scheduled time

C) A define socio-economic order D) All the above
Q35) The meaning of generalization is

Options:
A) To normalize special quality

B) To implement the research conclusion at the larger level
C) To give advantages of research to normal person
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Page

Q36) Research approaches are

Options:
A) Longitudinal and cross-sectional B) Oblique and horizontal
C) Long and short section D) None of the above
Q37) Longitudinal Approach is related with

Options:
A) Long term researches B) Transverse researches
C) Horizontal researches D) All the above
Q38) Cross-sectional researches are fundamentally related with

Options:
A) Sample
B) Statistics
C) Tendencies
D) Eugenics
Q39) The survey research are classified under the
Options:
A) Fundamental researches
B) Experimental researches
Q40) Research in the method of study of the problems, where the solutions of
the problems have been carried out through given facts.' The statement is given
by
Options:
A) Munroe B) Best C) Watson D) Cook
Q41) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a research?

Options:
A) I rrelevant data collection B) Irrelevant data analysis
C) Irrelevant conclusions D) All the above
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Page

Q42) The new values and principles establishes through

Options:
A) Philosophical research B) Natural researches
C) Human motivation D) Social situations
Q43) If you are repeating the mistake again and again then you are called a
Options:
A) Excellent researcher B) Excellent forgetter
C) Foolish person D) Normal person
Q44) In order to imbibe the quality of Prediction' in a research, it should be

Options:
A) Completed on the basis of solid data
B) Based on one's own self-preferences
C) Resultant of an astrologer
D) Carried out in order to satisfy the public opinion
Q45) The main condition which should be followed by research is

Options:
A) Honest exploration
B) Knowledge of facts and principles
C) Standardized findings and conclusions
D) All the above
Q46) The research is(in reference to human nature)

Options:
A) An attitude of inquiry B) A method of formulating principles
C) A systematic and intellectual work D) A scientific method
Q47) Ge nerally a scientist's observations related to Experiment and testing are

based on
Options:
A) Scientific principles B) House hold rules
C) Self-imagination D) Self-experiences
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Q48) McGrath and Watson have defined research as

Options:
A) User of exploratory method B) A intellectual exploration
C) Use of scientific method for analysis D) Problem-solving
Q49) The classification of the scheme of Black Board Operation can be carried
out under
Options:
A) Philosophical research B) Experimental researches

C) Action researches D) None of the above
Q50) The research reporting should be carried out

Options:
A) I n a scientific way B) In an imaginary way

C) Through copying D) Through discussion among the scientists
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) D, Q3) A, Q4) B, Q5) C, Q6) A, Q7) C,
Q8) D, Q9) A, Q10) A, Q11) B, Q12) A,
Q13) C, Q14) D, Q15) A, Q16) A, Q17) A,
Q18) B, Q19) A, Q20) A, Q21) B, Q22) D,
Q23) A, Q24) D, Q25) D, Q26) A, Q27) A,
Q28) A, Q29) D, Q30) D, Q31) D, Q32) A,
Q33) B, Q34) D, Q35) B, Q36) A, Q37) A,
Q38) A, Q39) C, Q40) B, Q41) D, Q42) A
Q43) C, Q44) A, Q45) D, Q46) A, Q47) A,
Q48) A, Q49) C, Q50) A 492
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Research Ethics:
Q1) The objectivity of the research can be enhanced

Options:
A) Through its reliability B) Through its validity
C) Through its impartiality D) All of the above
Q2) In order to inculcate the ethical values in the researches, it is essential that
it should be
Options:
A) I n accordance with the researcher's abilities

B) Providing opportunities to the researcher to work freely
C) Inculcate maturity in the researcher
D) All of the above
Q3) When a researcher is engaged in research in a subjective manner, the result

will be
Options:
A) inadequate formulation of objectives B) inadequate sele ction of apparatus
C) inadequate collection of data D) All of the above
Q4) The assumptions are formulated on the basis of

Options:
A) Universality
B) Cultural back-ground of a country
C) Specific characteristics of the castes
Q5) The wrong statement related with research in

Options:
A) The research has been carried out for invention

B) The research has been carried out for name and fame
C) The research has been carried out for ornamental degrees
D) All the above items are incorrect in relation to research
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Q6) The transfer of the values and qualities of the researcher takes place
Options:
A) I n the research works carried out by him
B) In all the works performed by him
C) In the vocational works carried out by him
Q7) The research work is not influenced by
Options:
A) The researcher himself B) His pre-established assumptions
C) The curse of some other researchers D) The wrong calculations
Q8) The Ethics in research is not related to

Options:
A) Self-interest B) Scientific method
C) Reliability D) Humanity
Q9) What will you do to make your research value oriented?

Options:
A) You pay the cost of its writing to a ghost writer
B) You will charge the market rate for the work, you have conducted so far
C) You will ensure honesty and faith in the research work
D) You will make a Plagiarism
Q10) Research is a
Options:
A) Value oriented process B) Passive process
C) Self contained process D) Discovery oriented process
Q11) The polluted facts can give birth to

Options:
A) A good research
B) Errorless research
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C) Polluted research
D) Human sorrows
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Q12) The research should not be carried out with blind-folded eyes'-the meaning
of this phrase is
Options:
A) The research should be free from all personal biases

B) The research should be free from personal limitations
C) The research should be separated from personal ideology
D) All of the above
Q13) Each word of a research should be

Options:
A) justifiable B) Full of wisdom C) Enjoyable D) Entertaining
Q14) The research is an ethical process. Here the meaning of ethics is

Options:
A) The external beauty of the research
B) The quality of the research content
C) The fulfilment of research values in an investigation
Q15) The justification explains

Options:
A) The inherent truth of a research B) The logic of the research
C) The significance of the research D) The adequacy of the research
Q16) The value of a research has been lost when

Options:
A) A researcher behaviour become prejudiced
B) A researcher becomes prey of hallucinations
C) A researcher feels agreement with imaginary assumptions
D) All of the above
Q17) In the three dimensions of the Philosophy the study of values has been
carried out under
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Options:
A) Metaphysics B) Epistemology
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C) Ethics D) None of the above

Q18) Some research scholars thinks that when a little extension will be made in
dissertation, it will be equivalent to the degree of Ph.D. This idea denotes
Options:
A) The illusions on the part of researcher

B) The truth on the part of researcher
C) The miserable behaviour of the researcher
D) The pitiable behaviour of the researcher
Q19) If a researcher has the quality of exploration and has the fine skills in his
field of research, the research will be
Options:
A) Value oriented B) Comprehension oriented
C) Anxiety oriented D) Thinking oriented
Q20) Suppose a researcher has some prejudices in relation to some problem,

then the research carried out by him, is called as
Options:
A) Value oriented research B) Polluted research
C) Inadequate research D) Prejudiced research
Q21) The research should be value oriented

Options:
A) I n the interest of human being B) In the interest of all the living creatures
C) In the self-interest D) In the interest of religion
Q22) When a researcher do not possess the quality of collection of the facts from
social environment, such research will
Options:
A) not be a pure research B) be a malicious research

C) be a irrelevant research D) pure research
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) A, Q3) D, Q4) B, Q5) D, Q6) B, Q7) C,
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Q8) A, Q9) C, Q10) A, Q11) C, Q12) D,

Q13) A, Q14) C, Q15) D, Q16) D, Q17) C,
Q18) A, Q19) A, Q20) B, Q21) A, Q22) A
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Steps of Research:
Q1) The meaning of the definition of a problem is

Options:
A) To define the complex words in the problem and suggest their meaning in the
light of the problem
B) To limit the problem in words
C) To present the definition of different authors related to problem
Q2) The advantage of synopsis is

Options:
A) It clearly shows the way of research
B) It visualizes the various difficulties related with different steps of research
C) It helps in planning various steps of the research
D) All the above
Q3) The meaning of the probability sampling is

Options:
A) Where lies the uniform probability of inclusion of all the elements of the
population in a sample
B) Where the complete representativeness of the population is considered
C) Where no prejudices are existed with any element of the sample
D) All the above
Q4) According to Good, Barr and Scates one of the following is not the source of
a problem
Options:
A) Specific studies B) Analysis of the field of knowledge
C) Suggestions of an intelligent person D) Different areas under the study
Q5) Hypothesis is
Options:
A) A thoughtful statement B) A forwarding statement
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C) A temporary solution D) All the above

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Q6) Which one of the following is treated as basis of evaluation for the proposed
problem of research?
Options:
A) Novelty of a problem
B) Presence of problem-solving potentiality
C) Possibilities of data collection from the sample
D) All the above
Q7) The type of hypothesis is

Options:
A) I nterrogative form B) Declarative form
C) Directional form D) All the above
Q8) The gaps in explanations is meant by

Options:
A) When there is disagreement in the expression of an explanation
B) When there appears difference in explanation
C) When there is a vagueness in an explanation
D) All the above
Q9) The quality of a problem is

Options:
A) Clarity B) Worth for solution
C) Hypothesis oriented D) All the above
Q10) Which one of the following is NOT a quality of a problem?

Options:
A) I nnate nature of the problem
B) Practicality of the problem
C) Problem according to the interests of the researcher
D) Measurability of problem
Q11) The research problems available in the field of philosophy are called as
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Options:
A) Philosophical problems B) Historical problems
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C) Presentable problems D) Invisible problems

Q12) Suppose the population is quite comprehensive and distributed in a large

geographical area. In such a situation what kind of sampling procedure would
you like to adopt?
Options:
A) Multi-level sampling B) Systematic sampling
C) Cluster sampling D) None of the above
Q13) The background of the Historical researches is
Options:
A) I n the form of chronological sequence
B) In the room of historical data and facts
Q14) A good synopsis is considered as

Options:
A) A half-way research B) A complete research
C) A partial research D) A beginning of research
Q15) The advantage of the sample is

Options:
A) Time-saving B) Money-saving
C) Energy-saving D) All the above
Q16) The basic principle of problem selection is

Options:
A) Novelty of a problem B) Practicality of a problem
C) Future-orientation of a problem D) All the above
Q17) Problem is
Options:
A) Obstacle in the way of needs
B) Suggested question for a problem
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C) An interrogative question
D) All the above
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Q18) When a possible solution to the problem has been written in desired
direction, this type of hypothesis is called
Options:
A) Directional hypothesis B) Non-directional hypothesis

C) Declarative hypothesis D) None of the above
Q19) The Purposive sample will be

Options:
A) Depending on the researcher's whims

B) Based upon a specific objective of sampling procedure
C) Based on the excellent method of sampling
Q20) The best quality of a researcher is

Options:
A) Curiosity B) Active imagination C) Ability D) All the above
Q21) The synopsis of research is called

Options:
A) Blue print B) Mapping of problem
C) Base of a problem D) All the above
Q22) The advantage of random sampling is
Options:
A) It is the excellent method of sample selection
B) It is an economic method in terms of money, time, and energy
C) It produces accurate results
D) All the above
Q23) The limit of the probability sample is

Options:
A) It is not giving guarantee of representativeness of the sample from a
population
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B) The data do not fulfil the standards of the normal probability curve
C) It has great risk of generalization of the results
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D) All the above

Q24) Systematic sampling is

Options:
A) A comprehensive method of sample selection
B) A simple method of sample selection
C) An effective method of generalization of data
D) All the above
Q25) The delimitations of a sample are
Options:
A) Possibilities of basis B) Needs of trained persons
C) Inconsistency of sample units D) All the above
Q26) The basis of selection of the problem is

Options:
A) Two just opposite experiences B) The suggestions given after research
C) The counselling with experts D) All the above
Q27) How one can select a new problem of research from the researches which
have been already completed?
Options:
A) By collecting comprehensive informations from the research worker who have
completed the research
B) By collecting informations from the research supervisor
C) By searching the literature in the library
Q28) The problem arises from two opposite experiences when

Options:
A) They generate conflicts B) They generate struggles

C) They come in comprise with each other D) None of the above conditions exist
Q29) The nature of a hypothesis is

Options:
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A) Conceptual B) Declarative C) Action-oriented D) All the above

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Q30) In Stratified sampling the units are selected

Options:
A) After dividing the population in different groups on the basis of specific
standard and then taking an equal proportion of units from each group
B) After dissociating the population in different groups on the basis of specific
standard and then the units are selected from these groups
C) After dividing the population in different 'strata' and then selecting any one
strata out of them
Q31) The meaning of Randomization is

Options:
A) Each element of population has equal chances to included in the sample
B) The selection of an individual from population do not pose threat to the
selection of other individuals in the sample
C) The method does not include the personal basis
D) All the above
Q32) The Scientific Method is used in

Options:
A) Scientific researches
B) Social science researches
Q33) The meaning of a declarative hypothesis is

Options:
A) The declaration of the relationship among the variables
B) The expression of the correlations among the variables
Q34) Tippet table is
Options:
A) A statistical table
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B) A table used for sampling purposes

C) A table used for verification of statistical inferences
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D) All the above

Q35) In Non-probability sampling the probability exists of

Options:
A) I nsufficient population B) Limitations of data
C) Both of the above D) None of the above
Q36) Which one of the following is not a type of a problem?

Options:
A) Philosophical problem B) Co relational problems
C) Survey problems D) Longitudinal problems
Q37) Best has defined hypothesis as

Options:
A) It is a thoughtful statement B) It is a forward thinking
C) It is an expected happening D) It is a temporary solution
Q38) The quality of probable sample is

Options:
A) It represents the population in excellent manner
B) It has normal distribution of the data gathered from the sample
C) The data is analysed through normal statistical techniques
D) All the above
Q39) Which of the following precaution should be kept in mind by the

researcher during the selection of a representative sample?
Options:
A) Deep knowledge of the target population
B) The adequate knowledge of the sampling techniques
C) Accurate implementation of the sampling design
D) All the above
Q40) The quality of Non-probability sampling is

Options:
A) Easy and convenient selection of the sample
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B) It has no question of probability of selection of an element

C) It can be analysed through simple statistical method
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Q41) Suppose you are interested in taking a research project on B.E.D. Pupil
teachers and you deserve a judicious sample of this population then what kind
of sampling procedure would you like to adopt?
Options:
A) Multi-level sampling B) Systematic sampling
C) Group sampling D) None of the above
Q42) Ge nerally at present the following tradition has been observed for doing
research
Options:
A) The supervisor putting the problem to student's mind without considering his
ability, interest etc.
B) The researchers themselves work hard to searching a good problem
C) By doing slight changes in the existing topics, variables etc., new problems
have been worked out easily
D) Both A and C in the above
Q43) The preparation of a synopsis is

Options:
A) An art B) A science C) Both of the above D) None of the above
Q44) The method of Randomization is

Options:
A) Lottery or coin method B) Blind folded on dice method
C) Tippets table of irregular members D) All the above
Q45) The sources of a problem is

Options:
A) Historical records B) The virgin areas of research
C) The conclusions whose testing of verifiability is still to be carried out
D) All the above
Q46) If a problem is very expensive and the possibility of data collection is also
appears to be very difficult then what would you like to do?
Options:
A) Accepting challenge of selection of such problem
B) Forging such problem
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C) Trying to solve such problem

D) Escaping from such problem
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Q47) Karlinger has written about a problem

Options:
A) It is description of an interrogative question
B) It is a posed question for problem solving
C) It is an unanswered question
Q48) The researcher should keep a precaution while he is defining a problem
Options:
A) He should not have used the words having more than one meaning
B) He should forecast the results on its basis
C) He should precise its nature
D) All the above
Q49) According to Von Dalen the main importance of hypothesis in research is

Options:
A) It is the strong chain between the problem and its solution
B) It reflects the whole working design of the research
C) It delimits the research to be carried out
Q50) Ge nerally the steps of scientific method are also the steps of
Options:
A) Research B) Human life C) Literary collection D) None of the above
Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) D, Q3) D, Q4) C, Q5) D,

Q6) D, Q7) D, Q8) D, Q9) D, Q10) A,
Q11) A, Q12) C, Q13) C, Q14) A, Q15) D,
Q16) D, Q17) D, Q18) A, Q19) B, Q20) A,
Q21) D, Q22) D, Q23) D, Q24) D, Q25) D,
Q26) D, Q27) C, Q28) A, Q29) D, Q30) A,
Q31) D, Q32) C, Q33) C, Q34) D, Q35) C,
Q36) D, Q37) A, Q38) D, Q39) D, Q40) D,
Q41) A, Q42) D, Q43) C, Q44) D, Q45) D,
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Q46) B, Q47) A, Q48) D, Q49) D, Q50) A

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Thesis Writing: Its Characteristics and Format:
Q1) The content edited in Encyclopaedia is

Options:
A) Primary source B) Secondary source
C) Continuous source D) Infinite source
Q2) The main parts of the Body of Research Synopsis are
Options:
A) Title Page-Trunk-Posterior part B) Title Page and Main Body
C) Title Page and Posterior Part D) None of the above
Q3) The significance of preface in a Research thesis is

Options:
A) To pay obeisance
B) To get freedom from gratitude of the supervisor
C) To become a little bit emotional at this occasion
D) To take blessing of the family members
Q4) Evidences in research collect from

Options:
A) Primary and secondary sources B) Pure and applied sources
C) Active and passive sources D) None of the above
Q5) There exists a single most important difference between the reference and
bibliography
Options:
A) The references have the actual page numbers

B) The references have the last name of the person(Surname) on its first priority
C) The references have the minute details in order to verify them
Q6) The advantage of Research report writing in a scientific manner is

Options:
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A) Global Standardization B) Global Communication

C) Global Awakening D) Global Welfare
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Q7) In which of the following objective's achievement , the related literature is

Options:
A) I n defining the problem B) In formulating the problem
C) In selection of the tool D) In exploration of the inferences
Q8) The method of Research reporting should be

Options:
A) Scientific B) Ethical and attractive
C) Personal D) Favourable to globalisation
Q9) Reference serves the purpose

Options:
A) The authenticity of the given content
B) Of insightful decision making by the researcher
C) Of giving ornamental value to the research
D) If exhibits the great achievements of the piece of research
Q10) The devaluation of Research proposal will take place when

Options:
A) You will try to give extra importance to certain person
B) You will become unbiased for all the persons who have directly or indirectly
contributed in your work
C) You will be giving thanks to persons in the light of your personal relations
D) You will make a justice with all the persons
Q11) Ge nerally the synopsis of the research is compared with human body.
Inspite of the differences existed in its different parts, it must have
Options:
A) Uniformity
B) Equality
C) Functional continuity
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Q12) The importance of Graphs and figures in a Research thesis is

Options:
A) They produce the perceptual quality in a research
B) They enhance the aesthetic sense in a research
C) They enhance the spontaneity to researched faith
D) All the above
Q13) In order to prepare a Research report the quality desired in a researcher is
Options:
A) Skill-oriented capabilities B) Scientific Attitude
C) Mental Balance D) All the above
Q14) Year Books contains the detailed content of

Options:
A) A specific year only B) A year only
C) Derails of specific issues on annual basis D) Cant say
Q15) Generally in the last pages of each thesis there is a provision of writing
suggestions and recommendations, because
Options:
A) It enhances your repute as a great scholar
B) It communicates the best researcher's qualities in your
C) It gives authenticity to your research work
D) It is mere a tradition
Q16) When a Research worker do not has the desired ability of reporting of
research, then the work carried out by him, will be of
Options:
A) Low grade quality B) Good grade quality

C) Excellent grade quality D) Cant say
Q17) There is a need for the qualities of labelling, page-numbering and

refinement in the graphical figures in a researcher
508
Options:
A) Specific qualities B) Artistic qualities
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C) Appreciative qualities D) Painter's qualities

Q18) The Research design is related to

Options:
A) Sample selection B) Formulation of Experimental design
C) Selection and construction of the tool D) All the above
Q19) In order to ensure maximum acceptability of data analysis and its

interpretation, the help should be taken from
Options:
A) Statistics B) Graphs and diagrams

C) Computer floppy D) Appreciable typing
Q20) The title page of Research thesis should be

Options:
A) Brief and meaningful B) Scientific and logical

C) Aesthetic and attractive D) All the above and 'Catchy'.
Q21) The advantage of the Survey of Related literature is

Options:
A) It is like a back-bone of the research
B) It helps in formulating objectives and hypotheses of the research
C) It helps in preparation of research design
Q22) The justifiable scientific list of all references is called

Options:
A) I ndex B) Bibliography C) Reference D) Neo book reference
Q23) Ge nerally when you are interested to limit the length of preface the
judicious practice observed is that
Options:
A) You delete the name of supervisor from it,
B) You delete the name of Clerk from it
C) You delete the name of family members from it
509
D) You delete the name of nearest relatives from it

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Q24) The middle part of the Research Synopsis prepares

Options:
A) The middle most part of research B) The partial part of research
C) The complete part of research D) It is difficult to infer
Q25) Before preparing your Research report you consult with

Options:
A) Your supervisor B) Your elder colleagues
C) Your predecessor's works D) All the above
Q26) The words of preface should be

Options:
A) Multi meaningful B) Full of emotions
C) Balanced, alert and humble D) In ornamental words
Q27) The main part of the research is

Options:
A) Title page B) Trunk region
C) Posterior region D) All the above parts
Q28) What will you put on top priority while giving the suggestions in your
research?
Options:
A) The difficulties you have faced during your research work
B) The limitations of your research work
C) The futuristic improvements to be carried out by other researches
D) All the above
Q29) In priorities of the Research synopsis, one can include

Options:
A) Title Page, Table of Content, and Index of Tables
B) Title Page and List of Graph only
C) Title Page and Supervisor's Certificate only
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Q30) The Title page of a Research synopsis should be

Options:
A) Attractive
B) Organised
C) Aesthetic
D) Logical
Q31) The beauty of the Research thesis can be enhanced
Options:
A) By kee ping aesthetic sense in its typography
B) By giving good charts, flow diagrams and systematic graphs
C) By keeping its excellent binding and title page
D) All the above
Q32) In Research thesis the importance of introduction is

Options:
A) It imbibes the importance of problem in it
B) It determines the direction of survey related to problem
C) It explains the objectives of the problem
D) All the above
Q33) The importance of research suggestions is

Options:
A) It gives required source of energy to the researchers in future

B) It helps in saving of time of the new researchers by helping in identifying the
problems
C) It in satiated the knowledge thirst of the new researcher
D) It helps in copying by other researcher
Q34) In primary sources we include

Options:
A) Hand written manuscripts only
B) The original writings of the authors
C) Direct collection from the thesis
D) All of the above
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Page

Q35) When a thesis has been submitted in order to attain a degree or related
contain objective, the supervisors certificate has been produced because
Options:
A) It ensure the quality of research

B) It gives name and fame to the worker
C) It gives clearance from all foundations
D) It ensures authenticity of the research work
Answers:
Q1) B, Q2) A, Q3) A, Q4) A, Q5) D,

Q6) B, Q7) D, Q8) A, Q9) A, Q10) A,
Q11) C, Q12) D, Q13) D, Q14) C, Q15) D,
Q16) A, Q17) B, Q18) D, Q19) B, Q20) D,
Q21) D, Q22) C, Q23) D, Q24) A, Q25) D,
Q26) C, Q27) D, Q28) D, Q29) A, Q30) C,
Q31) D, Q32) D, Q33) A, Q34) D, Q35) D
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Page

Research Aptitude:
Q1) Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern
society?
I to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge
II to discover new things.
III to write a critique on the earlier writings.
V to systematically examine and critically analyze the investigations/sources
with objectivity.
Options:
A) V, II and I
B) I, II and III
C) I and III
D) II, III and IV
Q2) To test null hypothesis, a researcher uses:

Options:
A) t test B) ANOVA
C) X2 D) factorial analysis
Q3) A research problem is feasible only when:

Options:
A) it has utility and relevance
B) it is researchable
C) it is new and adds something to knowledge
D) all the above
Q4) Bibliography given in a research report:

Options:
A) shows vast knowledge of the researcher
B) helps those interested in further research
C) has no relevance to research
D) all the above
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Page

Q5) Fundamental research reflects the ability to:

Options:
A) Synthesize new ideals
B) Expound new principles
C) Evaluate the existing material concerning research
D) Study the existing literature regarding various topics
Q6) Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer
from the code given below:
List -I (Interviews)
a) structured interviews
b) Unstructured interviews
c) Focused interviews
d) Clinical interviews
List -II (Meaning)
i) greater edibility approach.
ii) attention on the questions to be answered
iii) individual life experience
iv) Pre determined question
v) non-directive
Options:
A) A (iv), B (i), C (ii), D (iii)
B) A (ii), B (iv), C (i), D (iii)
C) A (v), B (ii), C (iv), D (i)
D) A (i), B (iii), C (v), D (iv)
Q7) What do you consider as the main aim of inter disciplinary research?
Options:
A) To bring out holistic approach to research.

B) To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain.
C) To over simplify the problem of research.
D) To create a new trend in research methodology.
Q8) One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to:

Options:
A) improve data interpretation B) eliminate spurious relations
514
C) confirm triangulation D) Introduce new variables

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Q9) The depth of any research can be judged by:

Options:
A) Title of the research.
B) Objectives of the research.
C) Total expenditure on the research.
D) Duration of the research.
Q10) Research can be conducted by a person who:
Options:
A) has studied research methodology
B) holds a postgraduate degree
C) possesses thinking and reasoning ability
D) is a hard worker

Options:
A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis
B) Researcher must possess analytical ability
C) Variability is the source of problem
D) All the above
Q12) Which of the following is not the Method of Research?

Options:
A) Observation
B) Historical
C) Survey
D) Philosophical
Q13) Research can be classified as:

Options:
A) Basic, Applied and Action Research
B) Quantitative and Qualitative Research
C) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research
D) All the above
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Q14) The first step of research is:

Options:
A) Selecting a problem
B) Searching a problem
C) Finding a problem
D) Identifying a problem
Q15) The study in which the investigators attempt to trace an effect is known
as:
Options:
A) Survey Research
B) Ex-post Facto Research
C) Historical Research
D) Summative Research
Q16) Ge neralized conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically known as:

Options:
A) Data analysis and interpretation
B) Parameter inference
C) Statistical inference
D) All of the above
Q17) Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between

Options:
A) 0
B) 0.6
C) 0.5
D) 0.3
Q18) Action research means

Options:
A) Action research means
B) An applied research
C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
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D) A research with socioeconomic objective

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Q19) Research is
Options:
A) Se arching again and again
B) Finding solution to any problem
C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
Q20) The experimental study is based on:
Options:
A) The manipulation of variables
B) Conceptual parameters
C) Replication of research
D) Survey of literature
Q21) The main characteristic of scientific research is:

Options:
A) empirical
B) theoretical
C) experimental
D) all of the above
Q22) Authenticity of a research finding is its:

Options:
A) Originality
B) Validity
C) Objectivity
D) All of the above
Q23) Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?

Options:
A) Area Sampling Technique
B) Purposive Sampling Technique
C) Systematic Sampling Technique
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Q24) Probability sampling implies:

Options:
A) Stratified Random Sampling
B) Systematic Random Sampling
C) Simple Random Sampling
D) All of the above
Q25) Research problem is selected from the stand point of:
Options:
A) Researchers interest
B) Financial support
C) Social relevance
D) Availability of relevant literature
Q26) Which one is called non-probability sampling?

Options:
A) Cluster sampling
B) Quota sampling
C) Systematic sampling
D) Stratified random sampling
Q27) Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in:

Options:
A) Survey method
B) Historical studies
C) Experimental studies
D) Normative studies
Q28) Field-work based research is classified as:

Options:
A) Empirical
B) Historical
C) Experimental
D) Biographical
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Q29) Which of the following sampling method is appropriate to study the

2006?
Options:
A) Cluster sampling
B) Systematic sampling
C) Quota sampling
Q30) Which one of the following principles is not applicable to sampling?

Options:
A) Sample units must be clearly defined
B) Sample units must be dependent on each other
C) Same units of sample should be used throughout the study
D) Sample units must be chosen in a systematic and objective manner
Q31) If January 1st, 2007 is Monday, what was the day on 1st January 1995?
Options:
A) Sunday
B) Monday
C) Friday
D) Saturday
Q32) The research is always -(December-2008)

Options:
A) verifying the old knowledge
B) exploring new knowledge
C) filling the gap between knowledge
D) all of these
Q33) The research that applies the laws at the time of field study to draw more
and more clear ideas about the problem is:
Options:
A) Applied research B) Action research

C) Experimental research D) None of these
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Q34) When a research problem is related to heterogeneous population, the most

suitable sampling method is:
Options:
A) Cluster Sampling
B) Stratified Sampling
C) Convenient Sampling
D) Lottery Method
Q35) The process not needed in experimental research is:

Options:
A) Observation
B) Manipulation and replication
C) Controlling
D) Reference collection
Q36) A research problem is not feasible only when:

Options:
A) it is researchable
B) it is new and adds something to knowledge
C) it consists of independent and dependent variables
D) it has utility and relevance
Q37) How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?

Options:
A) Through its impartiality
B) Through its reliability
C) Through its validity
D) All of these
Q38) Action-research is:

Options:
A) An applied research
B) A research carried out to solve immediate problems
C) A longitudinal research
D) All the above
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Q39) The basis on which assumptions are formulated:

Options:
A) Cultural background of the country
B) Universities
D) All of these

research?
Options:
B) Action research
D) All the above
Q41) We use Factorial Analysis:

Options:
A) To know the relationship between two variables
B) To test the Hypothesis
C) To know the difference between two variables
D) To know the difference among the many variables
Q42) A null hypothesis is

Options:
A) when there is no difference between the variables
B) the same as research hypothesis
C) subjective in nature
D) when there is difference between the variables
Q43) The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is
called (December-009)
Options:
B) Historical research
C) Mythological research
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D) Content analysis
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Q44) Action research is

Options:
D) Simulative research
Q45) The process not needed in Experimental Researches is
Options:
A) Observation
B) Manipulation
C) Controlling
D) Content Analysis
Q46) Manipulation is always a part of

Options:
A) Historical research
B) Fundamental research
D) Experimental research
Q47) A common test in research demands much priority on

Options:
A) Reliability
B) Usability
C) Objectivity
D) All of the above
Q48) Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
Options:
A) Se arching sources of information to locate problem.
B) Survey of related literature
C) Identification of problem
D) Searching for solutions to the problem
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Q49) If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative

style contributes more to institutional effectiveness? This will be an example of
Options:
A) Basic Research
B) Action Research
C) Applied Research
Q50) Normal Probability Curve should be

Options:
A) Positively skewed
B) Negatively skewed
C) Leptokurtic skewed
D) Zero skewed

style contributes more to institutional effectiveness? This will be a example of
Options:
A) Basic Research
B) Action Research
C) Applied Research
Q52) Normal Probability Curve should be

Options:
A) Positively skewed B) Negatively skewed
C) Leptokurtic skewed D) Zero skewed
Q53) Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern
society?
Options:
A) To keep pace with the advancement in knowledge
B) To discover new things.
C) to write a critique on the earlier writings.
D) to systematically examine and critically Analyze the investigations/sources
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with objectivity.
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Q54) The correlation between two variables in which the effect of some other
variable or variables on their relationship is controlled is called
Options:
A) Contingency coefficient of correlation. B) Multiple correlations.

C) Partial correlation. D) Product-moment correlation.
Q55) What is the nature of the statement that experimental generalizations are
statistical inferences; they can only attain a degree of probability somewhere
along a continuum between truth and falsity?
Options:
A) Not wholly true
B) Wholly true
C) Incorrect entirely
D) None of the above .
Q56) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of non-parametric statistical

tests?
Options:
A) They can be used when data are in the forms of ranks or categories
B) They yield statements of exact probabilities irrespective of the shape of the
population distribution
C) They are less powerful than the parametric tests.
D) They can be used in situations where parametric tests are applicable
Q57) ANOVA does NOT assume that

Options:
A) The treatment groups are selected at random from the same population.
B) The adjusted scores within groups have normal distribution.
C) The treatment groups are homogeneous.
D) The treatment groups are drawn from a larger population.
Q58) When large groups of interconnected facts are considered together in a

consistent manner, we get a
Options:
A) Scientific Theory B) Critical Problem
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C) Combined Result D) Confirmed Fact

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Q59) If in a research independent variables cannot be manipulated then it is

known as
Options:
C) Fundamental Research
Q60) A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter
while a measure based upon a sample is known as
Options:
A) Sample parameter
B) Inference
C) Statistic
D) None of these
Q61) Ordinarily a good piece of research follows four phases. They are give
below
i) Setting of objectives
ii) Analyzing data
iii) Collecting data
iv) Interpreting the findings
Which of the following orders for these phases is correct?

Options:
A) (iii), (i), (iv), & (ii)
B) (i), (iii), (ii), & (iv)
C) (i), (ii), (iii), & (iv)
D) (ii), (iv), (iii) & (i)
Options:
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Options:
A) improve data interpretation
B) eliminate spurious relations
C) confirm triangulation
D) introduce new variables
Options:
A) Title of the research.
B) Objectives of the research.
C) Total expenditure on the research.
D) Duration of the research.

Options:
D) is a hard worker

Options:
A) Objectives of research are stated in first chapter of the thesis

B) Researcher must possess analytical ability
C) Variability is the source of problem
D) All the above
Q67) Suppose you have a glass of milk and with a measuring glass you continue
to add half a c. c. of plain tea at every step, till your friend reports a change in
judgment in the colour of the milk. The quantity of tea added, has just crossed
what is just termed as
Options:
A) Illusion B) Absolute Threshold

C) Color Blindness D) Just Noticeable Difference
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Page

Q68) Suppose one Experimenter (E) in psychology firmly believes that Brahman
in children are inherently superior to the Harijan children. Naturally he would
never think of home environment as an explanation. This is a very obvious
example of
Options:
A) Experimenters Bias
B) Subjects Bias
C) Stimulus Error
D) Response Error
Q69) Which one of the following approaches tries to analyze human behaviour
in terms of stimulus-response units acquired through the process of learning,
mainly through instrumental conditioning?
Options:
A) Cognitive Approach
B) Dynamic and Psychoanalytic Approach
C) Stimulus-Response-behaviouristic Approach
D) Existential Approach
Q70) The approach which has its roots in Gestalt Psychology is popularly
Known as
Options:
A) Holistic Approach
B) Stimulus-Response-behaviouristic Approach
C) Dynamic and Psychoanalytic Approach
D) Cognitive Approach
Q71) Which approach emphasizes the role of instinctual processes and their
modification in the course of interaction with the society?
Options:
A) Dynamic and Psychoanalytic Approach
B) Cognitive Approach
C) Holistic Approach
D) Stimulus-Response-behaviouristic Approach
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Q72) Which approach placed emphasis on human existencethe need to

establish a sense of personal identity and to build meaningful links with the
world?
Options:
A) Cognitive Approach
C) Holistic Approach
Q73) Which of the following is not the Method of Research?

Options:
A) Observation
B) Historical
C) Survey
D) Philosophical
Q74) Research can be classified as:

Options:
A) Basic, Applied and Action Research

B) Quantitative and Qualitative Research
C) Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research
D) All the above
Q75) The first step of research is:

Options:
A) Selecting a problem
B) Searching a problem
C) Finding a problem
D) Identifying a problem
Q76) To test null hypothesis, a researcher uses:

Options:
A) t test
B) ANOVA
C) X2
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D) factorial analysis
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Q77) A research problem is feasible only when:

Options:
A) it has utility and relevance
B) it is researchable
C) it is new and adds something to knowledge
D) all the above
Q78) Existentialism tries to reach modern man, offer him help in terms of
clarifying his values, work out a meaningful and purposive existence.
Psychologists who shaped this approach were
Options:
A) Rollo May, R. D. Laing and Erick Fromm
B) G. W. Allport, R. B. Catell and H. J. Eysenk
C) Erickson and Sulliva
D) Piaget, Bruner and Witki
Q79) The system which still survives very nearly in its rigid forms is
Options:
A) Cognitive Approach B) Dynamic and Psychoanalytic Approach

C) Holistic Approach D) Existential Approach
Q80) Which approach tells us that under normal conditions the Organism is not
a passive recipient of stimuli but an active, seeking and striving entity trying to
master the environment and also master itself?
Options:
A) Organism, Holistic and Self Approaches
C) Cognitive Approach
Q81) Bibliography given in a research report:

Options:
A) shows vast knowledge of the researcher
B) helps those interested in further research
C) has no relevance to research
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D) all the above

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Q82) Fundamental research reflects the ability to:

Options:
A) Synthesize new ideals
B) Expound new principles
C) Evaluate the existing material concerning research
D) Study the existing literature regarding various topics
Q83) The study in which the investigators attempt to trace an effect is known
as:
Options:
A) Survey Research
Q84) Ge neralized conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically know as:

Options:
A) Data analysis and interpretation
B) Parameter inference
C) Statistical inference
D) All of the above
Q85) Psychologists are sometimes interested to study consciousness even

though they have no method of observing it directly except by using
Options:
A) Inference as the only tool
B) Experimentation as the only tool
C) Observation technique
D) Introspection technique
Q86) The term unconscious motivation describes the key idea of

Options:
A) Structuralism
B) Functionalism
C) Psychoanalysis
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D) behaviour ism
Page

Q87) The psychologists who are especially concerned with increasing the
efficiency of learning in school by applying their psychological knowledge about
learning and motivation to the curriculum are popularly known as
Options:
A) Experimental Psychologists
B) Clinical Psychologists
C) Physiological Psychologists
D) Educational Psychologists

Options:

Options:
A) empirical
B) theoretical
C) experimental
D) all of the above
Q90) Authenticity of a research finding is its:

Options:
A) Originality B) Validity
C) Objectivity D) All of the above
Q91) Which technique is generally followed when the population is

finite?(December-2007)
Options:
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Options:
D) All of the above
Q93) According to Lindquist, how many types of experimental designs possible
Options:
A) five
B) six
C) seven
D) eight
Q94) Who of the following has edited a survey of educational research?

Options:
A) kothari
B) Buch
C) Yashpal
D) Aryabhatta
Q95) The polluted facts can lead to the birth of

Options:
A) Error free research

B) human sorrows
C) good research
D) polluted research
Q96) Photocopy of books is not considered appropriate, as it is

Options:
A) violation of intellectual property
B) difficulty for reading
C) and act of plagiarism
D) both B and C
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Q97) Research problem is selected from the stand point of:

Options:
A) Researchers interest
B) Financial support
C) Social relevance
D) Availability of relevant literature
Q98) Which one is called non-probability sampling?
Options:
A) Cluster sampling
B) Quota sampling
C) Systematic sampling
Q99) Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in:

Options:
A) Survey method
B) Historical studies
C) Experimental studies
D) Normative studies
Q100) Field-work based research is classified as:

Options:
A) Empirical
B) Historical
C) Experimental
D) Biographical
Q101) The research papers are written to

Options:
A) communicate the research
B) become popular in the society
C) gain a lot of money
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Q102) Which one of the following generally does not participate in concurrence?
Options:
A) intelligent and curious person B) ignorant and dull persons
C) highly expert person in that field D) low quality research scholars
Q103) In the assessment of personality, the normative and objective method

refers to
Options:
A) The use of sophisticated techniques for measuring the accuracy of a persons

perception of reality.
B) Prediction of behaviour on the basis of intensive interviewing.
C) Prediction of behaviour on the basis of data from personality tests.
D) The use of projective techniques.
Q104) Which is the best format to use if content and material gathered for
certain number of students by different interviews have to be compared in a
piece of research?
Options:
A) Projective B) Structured
C) Unstructured D) Analytical.
Q105) What best describes the Likert technique of attitude measurement?

Options:
A) Subjects indicate whether they agree with each of a series of attitude

statements which are equally spaced along an attitude continuous
B) Subjects indicate on five point scales the extent of their agreement with a set
of attitude statements
C) Subjects judge a particular concept on a series of bipolar semantic scale
D) Subjects response to an open-ended interview are coded by content analyst.
Q106) What can increase the power of a statistical test?

Options:
A) Decreasing the size of the sample
B) Avoiding the use if the null hypothesis
C) Designing for small error effects
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D) Avoiding random sampling.

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Q107) Which is not the effective way of controlling a nuisance variable in a

experimental design?
Options:
A) Excluding the variable as one of the factors in the experiment

B) Exercising statistical control
C) Random assignment of subjects
D) Holding the nuisance variable constant for all subjects.
Q108) What are the types of Descriptive Research?

Options:
A) Survey Test
B) Questionnaire Survey
C) Interview Survey
D) All of the above .
Q109) Who has defined Ex-Post Facto Research by saying that it is a systematic
scientific exploration in which the scientist (researcher) does not have direct
control on the independent variable?
Options:
A) Fred Karlinger
B) George J. Mouly
C) John W. Best
D) W.S. Monroe.
Q110) What are the types of variables?

Options:
A) I ndependent variables
B) Controlled variables
C) Both of them
D) None of these.
Q111) What is the difference between Laboratory Experiment and Field

Experiment?
Options:
A) Difference of place B) Difference of samples
535
C) Difference of variables D) All of the above

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Q112) Which experiments are more popular in Educational Psychology?

Options:
A) Laboratory Experiments
B) Field Experiments
C) Field Studies
D) Historical Researches.
Q113) In some developed countries like U.S A. and U.K. many psychologists are
engaged for diagnosing learning difficulties and trying to remedy them. These
psychologists are popularly called
Options:
A) School Psychologists
B) Social Psychologists
C) Experimental Psychologists
D) Industrial Psychologists

2006?
Options:
A) Cluster sampling
C) Quota sampling
Q115) Which one of the following principles is not applicable to sampling?

Options:
A) Sample units must be clearly defined
B) Sample units must be dependent on each other
C) Same units of sample should be used throughout the study
D) Sample units must be chosen in a systematic and objective manner
Options:
A) Sunday B) Monday
536
C) Friday D) Saturday
Page

Q117) The research is always -(December-2008)

Options:
D) all of these
and more clear ideas about the problem is:
Options:
A) Applied research B) Action research
C) Experimental research D) None of these
Q119) When a research problem is related to heterogeneous population, the

most suitable sampling method is:
Options:
A) Cluster Sampling B) Stratified Sampling
C) Convenient Sampling D) Lottery Method
Q120) Today, private and public organizations also apply psychology to

problems of management and employee training, to supervision of personnel, to
improving communication within the organization, to counselling employees and
to alleviating industrial strife. The applied psychologists who do this work are
sometimes called
Options:
A) Personnel Psychologists
B) Organizational Psychologists
C) Experimental Psychologists
D) Social Psychologists
Q121) A person who uses the particular psychotherapeutic techniques which

originated with Sigmund Freud and his followers is called
Options:
A) A psychoanalyst B) A psychiatrist
C) A child psychologist D) A clinical psychologist
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Q122) Finding the causes of behaviour from a number of observations is called

Options:
A) I nductive reasoning
B) Observational technique
C) Deductive reasoning
D) Introspection
Q123) The clinical method is ordinarily used only when people come to
psychologists with
Options:
A) Social problems
B) Personal Problems
C) Organizational problems
D) Internal problems
Q124) The process not needed in experimental research is:

Options:
A) Observation
C) Controlling
Q125) A research problem is not feasible only when:

Options:
Q126) How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?

Options:
B) Through its reliability
C) Through its validity
D) All of these
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Page

Q127) Action-research is:

Options:
D) All the above
Q128) The basis on which assumptions are formulated:
Options:
A) Cultural background of the country
B) Universities
D) All of these
Q129) The technique of regulating various variables in an experiment is called

Options:
A) I ndependent Variable B) Dependent variable
C) Experimental control D) Controlled variable
Q130) Psychologists with the Biological perspective try to relate behaviour to

functions of
Options:
A) Body B) Mind
C) Soul D) Unconscious
Q131) A little girl Leny pushed Bapula, her brother, off his tricycle. She learned
to behave this way because the behaviour paid off in the past, in other words,
she learned to act aggressively in certain situations because she was rewarded
for such behaviour in the past. With which perspective, a psychologist can study
this type of problem?
Options:
A) Biological Perspective
B) Behaviour al Perspective
C) Cognitive Perspective
D) Social Perspective
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Q132) The perspective which is concerned with characteristic changes that

occur in people as they mature is known as
Options:
A) Developmental Perspective B) Biological Perspective

C) Humanistic Perspective D) Psychoanalytic Perspective
Q133) A key psychodynamic idea is that when unconscious impulses are

unacceptable or when they make us anxious; to reduce anxiety, we use
Options:
A) Defence Mechanisms B) Super ego
C) Instincts D) Dreams
Q134) The distinction between a clinical psychologist and a psychiatrist is that

Options:
A) A clinical psychologist normally holds a PhD. or MA degree or Psy. D. (Doctor
in Psychology) and a psychiatrist holds an MD degree
B) A clinical psychologist holds a Ph. d. degree in Psychology and a psychiatrist
holds both Psy. D. degree and Ph. d. degree
C) A clinical psychologist holds a special degree in Psychology and a psychiatrist
holds a Ph. d. degree in Psychology
D) A clinical psychologist has a special training in psychotherapy and a
psychiatrist holds m. a. degree in Psychology
Q135) The Subject Psychology was formally recognized in Germany in the year
Options:
A) 1789 B) 1668
C) 1879 D) 1897
Q136) Which of the following is/are true about Expost Facto Study?
Options:
A) The investigators attempt to trace an effect which has already occurred to its
probable causes
B) The effect becomes dependent variable
C) The investigators have no direct control over such variables
D) All of these
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Q137) The per capita income of India from 1950 to 1990 is four times. This
study is
Options:
A) Social
B) Horizontal
C) Longitudinal
D) Factorial
Q138) Which of the following is the most essential characteristic of a research

worker?
Options:
A) Sympathy
B) Open mindedness
C) Patience
D) Emotional control

research?
Options:
A) Philosophical research B) Action research
C) Descriptive research D) All the above
Q140) We use Factorial Analysis:

Options:
A) To know the relationship between two variables
B) To test the Hypothesis
C) To know the difference between two variables
D) To know the difference among the many variables

Options:
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Q142) The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past
is called
Options:
B) Historical research
C) Mythological research
D) Content analysis

Options:
D) A longitudinal research
Q144) The decline of the British Empire should have spelt the decline of
English. This statement is a/a
Options:
A) fact
B) advice
C) opinion
D) prejudice
Q145) To study the relationship of family size with income a researcher

classifies his population into different income slabs and then takes a random
sample from each slab. Which technique of sampling does he adopt?
Options:
A) Random Sampling
B) Stratified Random Sampling
C) Cluster Sampling
D) Systematic Sampling
Q146) Which of the following is the most read page of a thesis?
Options:
A) Title page B) Table of contents
542
C) Abstract D) Research Design

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Q147) The historical research is different from experimental research in the

process of
Options:
A) Replication
B) Formulation of hypothesis
C) Hypothesis testing
D) All of the above
Q148) To study Abnormal Psychology means, to study mainly the nature of

Options:
A) Conscious Mind
B) Unconscious Mind
C) Subconscious Mind
D) Normal Mind
Q149) Sigmund Freud is regarded as the father of

Options:
A) Psychoanalysis
B) Behaviour ism
C) Functionalism
D) Gestalt Psychology
Q150) A single-case experimental design in which the response to a treatment is

compared to baseline occurring before and after the treatment is called what?
Options:
A) Single-case design
B) Multiple-baseline
C) Changing-criterion
Q151) A literature review requires

Options:
A) Planning
B) Good & clear writing
C) Lot of rewriting
543
D) All of the above

Page

Q152) Which of the following is true about good hypotheses?

Options:
A) It is formulated in a way such that it can be tested by the data
B) There is a limited scope and it should not have global significance
C) It is precise, specific and consistent with most known facts
Q153) Which of the following is true about footnote?
Options:
A) it is essential in report writing
B) it is not much essential in the report writing
C) it is not at all essential in report writing
D) it is never used in report writing
Q154) The process not needed in Experimental Researches is (December 2009)

Options:
A) Observation
B) Manipulation
C) Controlling
D) Content Analysis
Q155) Manipulation is always a part of

Options:
A) Historical research
B) Fundamental research
D) Experimental research
Q156) Which correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between

Options:
A) 1
B) 0.6
C) 0.5
D) 0.3
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Page

Q157) Action research means

Options:
A) A longitudinal research
B) An applied research
C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
D) A research with socioeconomic objective
Q158) Research is
Options:
A) Se arching again and again
B) Finding solution to any problem
C) Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem
Q159) A common test in research demands much priority on

Options:
A) Reliability
B) Usability
C) Objectivity
D) All of the above
Q160) Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?
Options:
A) Se arching sources of information to locate problem.

B) Survey of related literature
C) Identification of problem
D) Searching for solutions to the problem
Q161) While editing primary data, we have just to notice the information
contained in the questionnaire is
Options:
A) Homogeneous
B) consistent
C) complete
D) All of the above
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Q162) Which of the following statements is correct about validity and reliability?
Options:
A) When internal validity is high, external validity is low
B) When internal validity is high, there is no change in external validity
C) When internal validity is high, external validity is also high
D) All of the given options
Q163) In a single-case design, you hope that the behaviour of the participants
prior to the administration of a treatment condition is ........
Options:
A) Not highly variable
B) Highly variable
C) Moving at a steep rate of change
Q164) Which design would use analysis of covariance during data analysis?
Options:
A) Non-equivalent comparison-group design
B) Interrupted time-series design
C) Changing criterion design
D) All of the above
Q165) For the first time, the word Psychology was used by
Options:
A) Rudolf Goeckel
B) Sigmund Freud
C) William James
D) E. B. Titchener
Q166) The literal meaning of Psychology is

Options:
A) Science of behaviour
B) Science of Soul
C) Science of Consciousness
D) Science of Mind
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Q167) Rudolf Goekle used the word Psychology for the first time in
Options:
A) 1590 AD
B) 1950 AD
C) 1095 AD
D) 1509 AD
Q168) Psychology as the Science of Mind was defined by
Options:
A) Psychoanalysis
B) behaviourists
C) Functionalists
D) Ancient Greek Philosophers
Q169) Scientific Psychology came into existence during

Options:
A) 19th Century
B) 20th Century
C) 18th Century
D) 17th Century
Q170) E. B. Titchener (1867-1927) defined Psychology as the science of

Options:
A) Soul
B) Mind
C) Experience
D) Conscious Experience
Q171) J. B. Wats on defined Psychology as the science

Options:
A) Soul
B) Behaviour
C) Mind
D) Consciousness
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Q172) The unit of Sociology is the Group, whereas the unit of Psychology is the
Options:
A) Stimulus
B) Individual
C) Animal
D) Institution
Q173) The branch of psychology which (teals with the study of animal behaviour
is known as
Options:
A) Social Psychology
B) Abnormal Psychology
C) Differential Psychology
D) Comparative Psychology
Q174) The father of Experimental Psychology is

Options:
A) Wilhelm Wundt
B) Sigmund Freud
C) CG. Jung
D) E. B. Titchener
Q175) Hypothesis refers to
Options:
A) The outcome of an experiment

B) A conclusion drawn from an experiment
C) A form of bias in which the subject tries to outguess the experimenter
D) A tentative statement about the relationship
Q176) Statistics is used by researchers to

Options:
A) Analyze the empirical data collected in a study

B) Make their findings sound better
C) Operationally define their variables
D) Ensure the study comes out the way it was intended
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Q177) An observation of a dependent variable response prior to any attempt to

change this response is known as the ........
Options:
A) Flat line B) Baseline

C) Variance D) Reverse
Q178) The most frequently used quasi-experimental design is the ........ design.
Options:
A) Non-equivalent comparison-group B) Interrupted time-series

C) Changing-criterion D) Regression discontinuity
Q179) A baseline ........

Options:
A) Is used as the standard against which change induced by the treatment is

assessed
B) Is the occurrence of a response in its freely occurring or natural state
C) Is first obtained prior to the administration of a treatment
Q180) Psychology was defined as the Science of Behaviour by

Options:
A) Functionalists B) Structuralisms
C) Gestalt Psychologists D) Behaviourists
Q181) Which of the following options are the main tasks of research
I Modern society? I to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge
II to discover new things.
III to write a critique on the earlier writings.
V to systematically examine and critically analyze the investigations/sources
with objectivity.
Options:
A) I V, II and I
B) I, II and III
C) I and III
549
D) II , III and IV
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Q182) Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
Options:
A) A (iv), B (i), C (ii), D (iii)

B) A (ii), B (iv), C (i), D (iii)
C) A (v), B (ii), C (iv), D (i)
D) A (i), B (iii), C (v), D-(iv),
Q183) Any systematically organized body of verified knowledge about a certain

class of facts and events is known as
Options:
A) Science B) Experiment
C) Hypothesis D) Fact
Q184) Psychology is
Options:
A) A social Science B) A Natural Science
C) A Biological Science D) Both Natural and Social Science
Q185) Why is it important to change one variable at a time in single case

designs?
Options:
A) Changing one variable allows isolation of the cause of the change
B) Changing more than one variable at a time confounds those independent
variables
C) Both A and B are true
Q186) Researchers can attempt to eliminate the threat of bias from the
selection-maturation effect in the non-equivalent comparison-group design by
matching experimental and control participants on important variables.
Options:
A) True
B) False
C) Neither True nor False just a statement
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Q187) Group comparison designs are always superior to single-case designs.

Options:
A) True
B) False
Q188) When you are confident that the experimental manipulation produced the
changes you measured in the dependent variable, your study probably has good
........ validity.
Options:
A) I nternal
B) External
C) Causal
D) Construct
Q189) Identifying a factor to be measured by placing units or categories on a

scale to differentiate varying degrees of that factor and describing these units in
some manner is known as
Options:
A) A checklist. B) A schedule,
C) A test. D) A rating scale.

style contributes more to institutional effectiveness, it is an example of
Options:
A) Basic research.
B) Action research.
C) Applied research.
D) Fundamental research.
Q191) In case of ANOVA if there are no treatment effects at all, then F-ratio will
be
Options:
A) Zero. B) 1
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C) -1 D) Any value between 1.0-1%.

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Q192) What is the nature of F-test?

Options:
A) Essentially a two-tailed test
B) Essentially a one-tailed test
C) Can be one-tailed as well as two-tailed depending on the hypothesis to be
tested
D) Can never be a one-tailed test.
Q193) Who developed Method of equal appearing intervals forming the basis of
constructing attitude scales?
Options:
A) Likert
B) Thurstone and Chave
C) Bogardus
D) Guttman.
Q194) Mr. Ali has conducted an extensive review of the literature and has
deductively reasoned a hypothesis about his problem on the basis of this review.
Which type of a research plan is Mr. Ali likely proposing?
Options:
A) Qualitative
B) Ethical
C) Both quantitative and qualitative
D) Quantitative
Q195) The directors of a graduate program in educational research wish to see

what types of jobs their graduates take after they finish their program. They
randomly sample students from the program and have them fill out
questionnaires with items asking about the types of jobs they have had. They
also are asked to describe the roles they play in their current positions. This
project is best described as having what kind of objective
Options:
A) Descriptive
B) Predictive
C) Explanatory
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Q196) When research is done to test hypotheses and theories about how and
why phenomena operate as they do, then the primary purpose of such research
is
Options:
A) Descriptive
B) Predictive
C) Explanatory
Q197) The variable the researcher matches to eliminate it as an alternative

explanation is called a(n) ........ variable
Options:
A) Matching
B) Independent
C) Dependent
D) Partial
Q198) Which of the following is not a longitudinal design?
Options:
A) Panel
B) Cross-sectional
C) Trend
D) Both A and C are longitudinal designs
Q199) Researcher selects only 25 members as a sample from the total

population of 20, 000, and considers
Options:
A) He was guided by his supervisor
B) He was a good researcher
C) The population was Homogeneous
Q200) The title page of a research synopsis must be
Options:
A) attractive B) organized
553
C) aesthetic D) logical
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Q201) The positive correlation between teachers salaries and the price of liquor
is........
Options:
A) Spurious
B) Due to a third-variable
C) Nonspurious
D) Both A and B
Q202) Which of the following is considered a special case of the general linear
model?
Options:
A) A variable
B) Partial correlation
C) Analysis of covariance
D) Both b and c
Q203) When a researcher starts with the dependent variable and moves
backwards, it is called ........
Options:
A) Predictive research
B) Retrospective research
C) Exploratory research
D) Descriptive research
Q204) The method of working multiple hypotheses refers to a technique for

identifying rival explanations.
Options:
A) True
B) False
Q205) GLM refers to which of the following?
Options:
A) General Logic Model B) General Limited Model
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C) General Lab Model D) General Linear Model

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Q206) In which of the following year Council of scientific and industrial research
Society was constituted as an autonomous society
Options:
A) 1940
B) 1942
C) 1962
D) 1950
Q207) The objectivity of the research is enhanced

Options:
B) through its reliability
C) through its validity
D) All of the above
Q208) Which of the following is the basic purpose of pre-test interview in this
case study?
Options:
A) To identified the potential problem

B) To know the sample size
C) To develop the questionnaire
D) To use agency representative
Q209) Which one of the following sampling type is used in operations test to
select the units?
Options:
A) Simple random sampling B) Cluster sampling
C) Quota sampling D) Judgment sampling
Q210) Which one of the following sets is the measure of central tendency?
Options:
A) Mean, standard deviation, mode
B) Mean, median, standard deviation
C) Arithmetic mean, median, mode
D) Standard deviation, internal validity, mode
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Q211) What is an attitude scale with five points on it varying from strongly
approved to strongly disapproved?
Options:
A) Likert type
B) Thurstone type
C) Bogardus type
D) Guttman type.
Q212) What is an attitude scale in which each items value is calculated by

finding out the mean or median of the ratings of a large number of judges on an
eleven-point rating scale?
Options:
A) Thurstone type B) Guttman type
C) Bogardus type D) Likert type.
Q213) Which of the following situations calls for the use of a ratio-scale?
Options:
A) researcher waits to assert that the two persons X and V differ in their
attitudes towards nationalization of education
B) He wishes to state that the attitude of one person X is more favourable than
that of Y
C) He wishes to make a statement that as compared to Y, X is much more in
favour of nationalization than he is, as compared to Z
D) He wants to show that X is twice as much in favour of Nationalization as Y.
Q214) Which one of the following is regarded as the very breath of an

experiment?
Options:
A) I ndependent Variable B) Dependent Variable

C) Controlled Variable D) Experimental Control
Q215) In lab experiment the effect of Variables is controlled to evaluate the

causal relationship.
Options:
A) Extraneous B) Moderate
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C) Intervening D) All of the above

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Q216) Internal validity refers to .

Options:
A) Researchers degree of confidence.
B) Generalizability
C) Operationalization
D) All of the above
Q217) Which one of the following is not a step in non-experimental research?
Options:
A) Determine research problem and hypotheses
B) Analyze data
C) Interpret results
D) All are steps
Q218) If a research finding is statistically significant, then ........

Options:
A) The observed result is probably not due to chance
B) The observed result cannot possibly be due to chance
C) The observed result is probably a chance result
D) The null hypothesis of no relationship is probably true
Q219) A researcher is doing a study of pee r groups in middle school. She

interviews 5 girls and 5 boys. She is doing a grounded theory study; hence, she
decides to generate her codes as she scans through her transcriptions of her
data. These codes are labelled
Options:
A) A priori codes
B) Post hoc codes
C) Inductive codes
D) Master list codes
Q220) Research concerned with the derivation of generalizations of broad

applicability and only secondarily with any practical value is called
Options:
A) Applied research. B) Fundamental research.
557
C) Action research. D) Practical research.

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Q221) Which of the following is not relevant to analysis of the research problem?
Options:
A) Isolating the variables that are involved in the problem and clarifying their
relationships
B) Accumulating the facts that might be related to the problem
C) Attending seminars on research methodology
D) Proposing various relevant explanations (hypothesis) for the cause of the
difficulty.
Q222) Opinionnaire is defined as a special form of inquiry to collect

Options:
A) The opinion of a sample of population on certain facts.
B) To quantify, analyze and interpret the collected data.
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Q223) Sociometry is a technique for describing

Options:
A) Social relationships that exists between members of a group.

B) Attractions or repulsions between individuals.
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Q224) Importance of Sociometry lies in

Options:
A) To have an idea of the group at a glance, to form appropriate groups of
students for various projects and activities.
B) To find out the changes taking place in the group structure and qualities of
leadership appreciated by the group.
C) To compare one group with the other to help the guidance worker by
acquainting him with the pupil relationships.
D) All of the above .
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Page

Q225) In case of true experimental research the investigator is always required

to make a compromise between which of the following four is not correct?
Options:
A) I nternal validity and external validity
B) Contrived setting and natural setting
C) Randomization and manipulation
D) Control of extraneous variables and building the correlated variable into
design.
Q226) While writing a research report investigators mostly arrange items in

Bibliography in
Options:
A) Heading like books, periodicals, newspaper reports, public documents and

miscellaneous.
B) In a single alphabetized list.
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
Q227) When researchers refer to a significant difference, they mean that the
Options:
A) Scores of two groups shows great variability.
B) Experimental results have social importance.
C) Results of a study occurred by chance.
D) Results of a study can be replicated by another similar study.
Q228) Free Association in Psychoanalysis means

Options:
A) Allowing a subject to talk freely.

B) Focused interview.
C) A structured interview.
D) None of the above.
Q229) There is only person who has defined Educational Research. He is

Options:
559
A) John W. Best. B) W.M. Travers.

C) George Mouly. D) None of these.
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Q230) Who said Educational Research is that activity which is directed toward
development of science of behaviour in educational situation?
Options:
A) f. l. Whites
B) W.S. Monroe
C) W.M. Travers
D) j. w. Best.
Q231) Which is not a characteristic of Science?

Options:
A) Science employs hypothesis
B) Science is based on facts
C) Science is not free from emotional bias
D) Science uses quantitative methods.
Q232) What is not the reason underlying the importance of research in

education?
Options:
A) It is a tool for verifying, testing and validating knowledge
B) it is a potent means of creating new knowledge
C) It has moved to the centre of the behaviour al sciences
D) It provides answers to many problems faced by educators.
Q233) What is not essential about a research problem?

Options:
A) It should be amenable to research
B) It should be significant
C) It should lead to new knowledge
D) It should lead to theory building.
Q234) In a normal distribution, 100 per cent of observations are covered by the
following
Options:
560
A) 3.09 s. B) 3 s.
C) 2s D) s
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Q235) What can Statistics do?

Options:
A) Prove anything
B) Disprove anything
C) Neither prove nor disprove anything-is just a tool
D) None of these.
Q236) Who said, Statistics has been define d as The Science of Counting?
Options:
A) Bowley
B) Galton
C) Stephen King
D) RA. fisher.
Q237) On what is placed reliance in most investigations?

Options:
A) Se condary data
B) Primary data
C) Both primary and secondary data
D) None of these.
Q238) What is true about Secondary data?
Options:
A) Should never be used
B) Should be used after careful scrutiny
C) No scrutiny is required while using it
D) While scrutinizing, only thing to see is who collected it.
Q239) To which aspect are related questioning assumptions underlying the

problem?
Options:
A) I dentifying the problem
B) Defining the problem
561
C) Analyzing the problem

D) Stating the problem.
Page

Q240) What does description of the research problem NOT include?

Options:
A) Background of the study B) Theories on which it is based

C) Assumptions underlying it D) Review of research done.
Q241) Which of the following is the least helpful to locating and analyzing
problems?
Options:
A) Exploring the literature in an area of interest
B) Discussing with the research guide
C) Examining every day experiences
D) Critical analysis of the existing theories and practices.
Q242) Sarah is a qualitative researcher studying how children and parents

interact in Head Start Centres. As she examines her data (videotapes and
transcripts), she jots down notes concerning the interactions, generating
hypotheses, suggesting relationships among categories of information she is
examining and so on. This process of jotting notes as she examines the data is
called
Options:
A) Memoing B) Transcription
C) Facesheet coding D) Drawing diagrams
Q243) Qualitative data analysis is still a relatively new and rapidly developing
branch of research methodology.
Options:
A) True B) False
C) Neither True nor False just a statement D) None of the above
Q244) The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive

words, or category names is known as ........
Options:
A) Concurring
562
B) Coding
C) Colouring
D) Segmenting
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Q245) What is the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data during a
single research study called?
Options:
A) I nterim analysis
B) Inter analysis
C) Inter-item analysis
D) Constant analysis
Q246) Which of the following is/are necessary condition(s) for causation?

Options:
A) The relationship condition
B) The temporal antecedence condition
C) The lack of alternative explanation condition
D) All of the above
Q247) Which of the following is the weakest experimental design?

Options:
A) One group pretest-posttest design

B) Quasiexperimental design
C) Two group posttest only design
D) Ex post facto design
Q248) The development of a solid foundation of reliable knowledge typically is

built from which type of research?
Options:
A) basic research
B) action research
C) evaluation research
D) orientational research
Q249) Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion

from a set of premises?
Options:
563
A) rationalism B) deductive reasoning

C) inductive reasoning D) probabilistic
Page


Options:
A) research, objectives can be worded in question form.

B) research, objectives can be worded in statement form.
C) Objectives are to be stated in Chapter I of the Thesis
D) All of the above
Q251) The difference between experimental research and historical research in

the process of
Options:
A) the formulation of the hypothesis
B) the testing of hypothesis
C) replication
D) All of these

Options:

D) All of these
Q253) In every field research pursuits promote systematic and gradual

advancement of knowledge but discoveries are rare because
Options:
A) research is a continuous critical investigation
B) it is not common to be able to think beyond a grooved channel
C) sustained experimental work needed for discoveries is not easily forthcoming
D) most people lack depth of Knowledge needed for it
Q254) What makes people to undertake research?

Options:
A) Desire to face the challenge in solving the unsolved problems.

564
B) Desire to get a research degree along with it consequential benefits.

C) Desire to get intellectual joy of doing some creative work.
D) All of these
Page

Q255) A satisfactory quantitative method should not possess one of the

following qualities:
Options:
A) Appropriateness B) Measurability
C) Comparability D) Flexibility
Q256) A big bag contains an equal number of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise
coins. If the total amount in the bag is 35 , how many coins of each type are
there?
Options:
A) 15 B) 18
C) 20 D) 25
Q257) A research problem is not feasible only when

Options:
Q258) If the sample drawn doesnt specify any condition about the parameter of
the population. It is called
Options:
A) selected statistics
B) distribution free statistics
C) census
D) None of these
Q259) Which opinion is not correct?

Options:
A) Education is a subject of concurrent list of VII schedule of Constitution of
India
B) University Grants commission is a statutory body
565
C) Patent, inventions, design, copyright and trademarks are the subject of

concurrent list
Page

D) Indian Council of Social Science Research is a statutory body related to

Q260) A dogma is different from a theory in respect of any one of the following?
Options:
A) Experimental verification
B) Conviction
C) Assumption
D) Acceptability
Q261) All are the examples of qualitative variables except:

Options:
A) religion and castes
B) sex
C) observation
D) interest of the subject
Q262) Which of the following is not a step of research?

Options:
A) Selecting a topic
B) Framing research questions
C) Surveying the research topic
D) None of these
Q263) What is the full form of abbreviation HFT used in research?

Options:
A) Holzman Inkblot Test B) Holfkins Issac Test
C) Higher Intelligence Test D) Hinds Informative Test
Q264) In order to produce a quality of research, it depends on

Options:
A) use of high technology
566
B) available facilities
C) training in research methodology
D) dedication on the part of researcher
Page


prevalence of AIDS among male and female in India in 1976, 1986, 1996 and
2006?
Options:
A) Cluster sampling
C) Queen sampling
Q266) Which of the following is/are the examples of qualitative variable?

Options:
A) Religion and Caste
B) Sex
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of these
Q267) Which of the following is/are components of ethical research?
Options:
A) Disclosure
B) Understanding
C) Competence
D) All of the above

Options:
D) All of the above
Q269) The research guide requires which of the following essential qualities?
Options:
A) Subject matter expertise

567
B) Methodological expertise
C) Inter-disciplinary expertise
D) All of these
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Options:

B) Purposive sampling Technique
C) Systematic sampling technique
D) None of these
Q271) The quality of research is judged by the

Options:
A) experience of researcher.
B) Depth of the research.
C) Methodology followed in conducting the research.
D) Relevance of research.
Q272) The study in which the investigators attempt

Options:
A) Survey Research
Q273) Which of the following is/are step/steps of Research plan?
Options:
A) Objectives of the study
B) Review of literature
C) Research hypothesis
D) All of these
Q274) What is/are the objectives of workshop in research?

Options:
A) Consideration of alternative research models through the presented different
model programmes
B) Defining and refining of problem to help researcher
568
C) Both (a) and (b)

D) None of these
Page


Options:
A) Has studied research methodology

B) Holds a postgraduate degree
C) Possesses thinking and reasoning ability
D) Is a hard worker
Q276) Independent variables are not manipulated in

Options:
A) Normative research
B) ex-post facto researches
D) None of these
Q277) Who said that members of the same species are not alike?
Options:
A) Darwin
B) Herbert Spencer
C) Best
D) Good
Q278) A researcher divides the populations into PG, graduates and 10 + 2

students and using the random digit table he selects some of them from each.
This is technically called
Options:
A) stratified sampling
B) stratified random sampling
C) representative sampling
D) none of these
Q279) A researcher divides his population into certain groups and fixes the size
of the sample from each group. It is called
Options:
569
A) stratified sample B) quota sample

C) cluster sample D) all of the above
Page

Q280) Field study is related to

Options:
A) real life situations

B) experimental situations
C) laboratory situations
Q281) Attributes of objects, events or things which can be measured are called
Options:
A) qualitative measure
B) data
C) variables
Q282) An example of scientific knowledge is

Options:
A) authority of the Prophet or great men
B) social traditions and customs
C) religious scriptures
D) laboratory and field experiments
Q283) Generalized conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically known as
Options:
A) statistical , inference of external validity of the research
B) data analysis and interpretation
C) parameter inference
D) all of the above
Q284) A researcher selects only 10 members as a sample from the total

population of 5000 and considers it good because
Options:
A) he was a good researcher
B) he was guided by his supervisor
570
C) the populations was homogeneous

D) all of these
Page


Options:
A) Area sampling technique

B) Purposive sampling technique
C) Systematic sampling technique
Q286) he research antagonistic to ex-post facto research is

Options:
A) experimental studies
B) normative researches
C) library researches
D) all of the above
Q287) The experimental study is based on the law of

Options:
A) single variable
B) replication
C) occupation
Q288) A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called

parameter while measure based upon a sample is known as
Options:
A) sample parameter
B) inference
C) statistic
D) none of these
Q289) The final result of a study will be more accurate if the sample drawn is
Options:
A) taken randomly
B) fixed by quota
571
C) representative to the population

D) purposive
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Q290) Which of the following is a non-probability sample?

Options:
A) Quota sample
B) Simple random sample
C) Purposive sample
D) (a) and (c) both

Options:
A) normative researches
C) both of the above
Q292) The process not needed in experimental researches is

Options:
A) observation
B) controlling
C) manipulation and replication
D) reference collection
Q293) A teacher encounters various problems during his professional

experiences. He should
Options:
A) resign from his post in such situations
B) do research on that problem and find a solution
C) avoid the problematic situations
D) take the help of the head of the institution
Q294) A researcher selects a probability sample of 100 out of the total

population. It is
Options:
A) a cluster sample
572
B) a random sample
C) a stratified sample
D) a systematic sample
Page

Q295) Area (cluster) sampling technique is used when

Options:
A) population is scattered and large size of the sample is to be drawn

B) population is heterogeneous
C) long survey is needed
D) (a) and (C)
Q296) Validity of a research can be improved by

Options:
A) eliminating extraneous factors
B) taking the true representative sample of the population
C) both of the above measures
D) none of these
Q297) Who is regarded the father of scientific social surveys?

Options:
A) Darwin
B) Booth
C) Best
D) None of these
Q298) All are example of qualitative variables except
Options:
A) religion and castes
B) sex
C) observation
Q299) Formulation of hypothesis may not be necessary in

Options:
A) survey studies
B) fact finding (historical) studies
C) normative studies
573
D) experimental studies
Page

Q300) Logic of induction is very close to

Options:
A) the logic of sampling

B) the logic of observation
C) the logic of the controlled variable
Q301) The probability of a head and a tail of tossing four coins simultaneously
is
Options:
A) 42583
B) 42370
C) 42461
D) 23377
Q302) While writing research report a researcher

Options:
A) must not use the numerical figures in numbers in the beginning of sentences
B) must arrange it in logical, topical and chronological order
C) must compare his results with those of the other studies
D) all of the above
Q303) The per capita income of India from 1950 to 1990 is four times. This
study is
Options:
A) social
B) horizontal
C) longitudinal
D) factorial
Q304) If you are doing experiment on a large group of sample which method of
controlling will you adopt?
Options:
574
A) matching B) randomization
C) elimination and matching both D) elimination
Page

Q305) A good hypothesis should be

Options:
A) precise, specific and consistent with moist known facts

B) formulated in such a way that it can be tested by the data
C) of limited scope and should not have global significance
D) all of these
Q306) All causes non sampling errors except

Options:
A) faulty tools of measurement B) inadequate sample
C) non response D) defect in data collection
Q307) For doing external criticism (for establishing the authenticity of data) a
researcher must verify
Options:
A) the signature and handwriting of the author
B) the paper and ink used in that period which is under study
C) style of prose writing of that period
D) all of the above
Q308) Survey study aims at:

(i) knowing facts about the two existing situation
(ii) comparing the present status with the standard norms
(iii) criticizing the existing situation
(iv) identifying the means of improving the existing situation
Options:
A) (i) and (ii) only
B) (i), (ii), and (iii)
C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
D) (ii) and (iii) only

process of
575
Options:
A) replication B) the formulation of the hypothesis
Page
C) the hypothesis testing D) all of the above

Q310) A research problem is feasible only when

Options:
B) it is new and add something to knowledge
C) it has utility and relevance
D) all of these
Q311) Hypothesis cannot be stated in

Options:
A) null and question form terms
B) declarative terms
C) general terms
D) directional terms
Q312) Total error in a research is equal to

Options:
A) sampling error + non-sampling error
B) SQRT [(sampling error) + (non -sampling error)]^2
C) only sampling error
D) sampling error * 100
Q313) The validity and reliability of a research will be at stake when
Options:
A) The author who is the source of information is biased, incompetent or
dishonest
B) The incident was reported after a long period of time from that of its
occurrence
C) The researcher himself is not competent enough to draw logical conclusions
D) All of the above
Q314) Seeing a very big rally it was reported that JD will win the election, the
conclusion was based on:
Options:
576
A) random sampling B) cluster sampling

C) systematic sampling D) purposive sampling
Page

Q315) Study the table which shows the income of five persons, and answer the
question that follows?
Options:
A) There has been an increase in the income of A but slight and steady decline
in the income of B from 1960 to 1990
B) D and E have at least one property uncommon
C) Percentage increase of A is higher than E
D) C has fluctuating trend in his income
Q316) The review of the related study is important while undertaking a research
because
Options:
A) it avoids repetition or duplication

B) it helps in understanding the gaps
C) it helps the researcher not to draw illogical conclusions
D) all of above
Q317) Studying the social status of a population a researcher concluded that

Mr. X is socially backward. His conclusion is
Options:
A) wrong B) right
C) inaccurate D) biased Note
Q318) In order to augment the accuracy of the study a researcher

Options:
A) should increase the size of the sample B) should be honest and unbiased
C) should keep the variance high D) all of these
Q319) Which of the following is a primary source of data?

Options:
A) Personal records, letters, diaries, autobiographies, wills, etc.
B) Official records governments' documents, information preserved by social-
religious organizations etc
577
C) Oral testimony. of traditions and customs

D) All of the above
Page

Q320) A researcher wants to study the future of the Congress in India. For the
study which tool is most appropriate for him?
Options:
A) Questionnaire
B) Schedule
C) Interview
D) Rating scale
Q321) It is an example of negative correlation:

Options:
A) an increase in population will lead to a shortage of food grains
B) poor intelligence means poor achievement in school
C) corruption in India is increasing
D) poor working condition retards output
Q322) The other name of independent variable for an experimental research

is/are
Options:
A) treatment variable B) experimental variable
C) manipulated variable D) all of the above
Q323) Which of the following is not the characteristic of a researcher?
Options:
A) He is a specialist rather than a generalist
B) He is industrious and persistent on the trial of discovery
C) He is not inspirational to his chosen field but accepts the reality
D) He is not versatile in his interest and even in his native abilities
Q324) Bibliography given in a research report

Options:
A) helps those interested in further research and studying the problem from
another angle
B) makes the report authentic
578
C) Both (a) & (b)

Page

Q325) Collective psychology of the whole period is a theory which

Options:
A) can explain all phase of historical development

B) means the psychology of the whole society
C) means psychological approach of data collection
D) all of the above
Q326) If the sample drawn does not specify any condition about the parameter
of the population, it is called
Options:
C) census
Q327) Research is born out of

Options:
A) human curiosity
B) human requirements
C) natural incidents
D) None of these
Q328) Which of the following is the first ste p of research?

Options:
A) I dentification of subject
B) Identification of nature of problem
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of these
Q329) The final result of a study will be more accurate if the sample drawn is
Options:
A) taken randomly
B) fixed by quota
579
C) representative to the population

D) purposive
Page

Q330) Indian Institute of Natural Resins and Gums (Formerly Indian Lac
Research Institute) is at ---------
Options:
A) Lucknow
B) Kolkata
C) Ranchi
D) New Delhi
Q331) Discussion Method can be used when:

Options:
A) The topic is very difficult
B) The topic is easy
C) The topic is difficult
D) All of the above
Q332) A college wants to give training in use of Statistical Package for Social
Sciences (SPSS) to researchers. For this the college should organize:
Options:
A) Conference
B) Seminar
C) Workshop
D) Lecture
Q333) Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of a research?

Options:
A) Research is systematic
B) Research is not a process
C) Research is problem oriented
D) Research is not passive

Options:
A) Discoveries are researches

580
B) Researches lead to discovery

C) Invention and Research are related
Page


Options:
A) I n research, objectives can be worded in question form.

B) In research, objectives can be worded in statement form.
D) All of the above
Q336) If in a research independent variables cannot be manipulated then it is

known as
Options:
C) Pure or Fundamental Research
Q337) Which of the following is not a characteristic of research?

Options:
A) Systematic
B) Objective
C) Logical
D) Perspective
Q338) Certificate for copy right waiver is generally given in

Options:
A) thesis writing
B) paper
C) article
D) books
Q339) For Knowledge Lessons

Options:
A) Glover's Scheme Is Used
B) Herbart's Five-Stage System Is Used
581
C) Garry's Scheme Is Used

D) None Of These
Page

Q340) Which Of The following Is Responsible For Uniformity In Curriculum At

Higher Level In India?
Options:
A) University Grants Commission.
B) National Council For Educational Research And Training
C) Human Resource Development Ministry.
D) All India Council For Technical Education.
Q341) Central Soil Salinity Research Institute is situated at

Options:
A) Kasargod B) Karnal
C) Gulmarg D) Gwalior
Q342) A researcher wants to study the future of the Congress-I in India. For the
study which tool is most appropriate for him?
Options:
A) Questionnaire
B) Schedule
C) interview
D) Rating scale
Q343) The important pre-requisites of a researcher in sciences, social sciences

and humanities are
Options:
A) laboratory skills, records, supervisor, topic
B) Supervisor, topic, critical analysis, patience
C) archives, supervisor, topic, flexibility in thinking
D) topic, s upervisor, good temperament, pre-conceived notions

process of
Options:
A) replication
582
B) formulation of hypothesis
C) hypothesis testing
D) All of the above
Page


Options:
A) title of the research.

B) objectives of the research.
C) total expenditure on the research
D) duration of the research.
Q346) Formulation of hypothesis may not be necessary in

Options:
A) survey studies
B) fact finding (Historical) studies
C) normative studies
D) experimental studies
Q347) Hypothesis cannot be stated in

Options:
A) null and question form terms
B) declarations terms
C) general terms
D) directional terms
Options:
A) Discoveries are researches
B) Researches lead to discovery
C) Invention and Research are related

Options:
A) I n research, objectives can be worded in question form.
B) In research, objectives can be worded in statement form.
583
D) All of the above

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Options:

D) is a hard worker

Options:
A) normative research
C) both of the above
D) None of these
Q352) For a proposition to be true it is necessary that it should have all of the
following characteristics EXCEPT
Options:
A) it must be objective
B) it must be in tune with accepted beliefs.
C) it must be consistent.
D) it must be testable.
Q353) The quality of research is judged by the

Options:
A) experience of researcher.
B) depth of the research.
C) methodology followed in conducting the research.
D) relevance of research.
Q354) The study in which the investigators attempt

Options:
A) Survey Research
B) Ex-post Facto' Research
584
Page

Q355) Which of the following is/are step/steps of Research plan?

Options:
A) Objectives of the study

B) Review of literature
C) Research hypothesis
D) All of these
Q356) What is/are the objectives of workshop in research?

Options:
A) Consideration of alternative research models through the presented different
model programmes
B) Defining and refining of problem to help researcher
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of these
Q357) Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling

Options:
A) Purposive Sampling
B) Cluster Sampling
C) Stratified Random Sampling
D) Simple Random Sampling
Q358) The research guide requires which of the following essential qualities?
Options:
A) Subject matter expertise
B) Methodological expertise
C) Inter-disciplinary expertise
D) All of these

Options:
585

D) None of these
Page

Q360) If you are doing experiments on a large group of samples which method of
controlling will you adopt?
Options:
A) Elimination
B) Elimination and matching
C) Randomization
D) Matching

Options:
D) All of the above
Q362) Who among the following considered hypothesis as an assumption or

preposition?
Options:
A) George H. Landenberg
B) Gorgy G. Moore
C) Stephan Hawking
D) Alber D. Nero
Q363) Which of the following is/are components of ethical research?

Options:
A) Disclosure
B) Understanding
C) Competence
D) All of the above

2006?
Options:
586
A) Cluster sampling B) Systematic sampling

C) Queen sampling D) Stratified random sampling
Page

Q365) The F-test

Options:
A) is essentially a two tailed test.

B) is essentially a one tailed test.
C) can be one tailed as well as two tailed depending on the hypothesis.
D) can never be a one tailed test.
Q366) What is the full form of abbreviation HFT used in research?

Options:
A) Holzman Inkblot Test
B) Holfkins Issac Test
C) Higher Intelligence Test
D) Hinds Informative Test
Q367) In order to produce a quality of research, it depends on

Options:
Q368) Who among the following used the term "variance" for the first time?
Options:
A) j. l. Bayerd
B) j. l Murphy
C) R.A. Fisher
D) Rudi Shawn
Q369) Which of the following is a purposive sampling?

Options:
A) Random probability sampling
B) Stratified random sampling
C) Cluster sampling
587
D) Deliberate sampling
Page

Q370) The first question that a researcher interested in the applicable for
statistical techniques to his problem has to ask
Options:
A) whether the data could be quantified
B) whether appropriate statistical techniques are available
C) whether analysis of data would be possible
D) whether worthwhile inferences could be drawn
Q371) Which of the following is not a step of research?

Options:
A) Selecting a topic
B) Framing research questions
C) Surveying the research topic
D) None of these

Options:

India
B) University Grants commission is a statutory body
concurrent list
Q373) A dogma is different from a theory in respect of any one of the following?
Options:
A) Experimental verification
B) Conviction
C) Assumption
D) Acceptability
Q374) All are the examples of qualitative variables except:

Options:
588
A) religion and castes B) sex

C) observation D) interest of the subject
Page

Q375) A research problem is not feasible only when

Options:
Q376) If the sample drawn doesn't specify any condition about the parameter of
the population. It is called
Options:
C) census
D) None of these
Q377) When a research problem is related to heterogeneous population, the

most suitable sampling method is
Options:
A) Cluster Sampling B) Stratified Sampling
C) Convenient Sampling D) Lottery Method
Q378) Which of the following is a characteristic of a researcher?

Options:
A) He is a specialist rather than generalist.
B) He is industrious and persistent on the trail of discovery.
C) He is not operational to his chosen filed but accepts the reality.
D) All of these
Q379) The difference between experimental research and historical research in

the process of
Options:
A) the formulation of the hypothesis
B) the testing of hypothesis
C) replication
589
D) All of these
Page


Options:

D) All of these
Q381) In every field research pursuits promote systematic and gradual

Options:
B) it is not common to be able to think beyond a grooved channel
C) sustained experimental work needed for discoveries is not easily forthcoming
D) most people lack depth of knowledge needed for it
Q382) What makes people to undertake research?

Options:
A) Desire to face the challenge in solving the unsolved problems.

B) Desire to get a research degree along with it consequential benefits.
C) Desire to get intellectual joy of doing some creative work.
D) All of these

Options:
A) objectives should be pin-pointed
B) objectives can be written in statement or question form
C) another word for problem is variable
D) all the above
Q384) A satisfactory quantitative method should not possess one of the

following qualities:
Options:
A) Appropriateness
590
B) Measurability
C) Comparability
D) Flexibility
Page

Q385) The process not needed to experimental research is

Options:
A) Observation
C) Controlling
and more clear ideas about the problem is
Options:
A) Applied research
B) Action research
C) Experimental research
D) None of these
Q387) Quality of research depends on

Options:

Q388) A researcher undertakes

Options:
A) to verify what has already been established
B) to refute what has been accepted as a fact
C) to describe and explain a new phenomena
D) to do one or the other of the above
Q389) Which of the following is not an example of a continuous variable?

Options:
A) Family size
B) Intelligence
591
C) Height
D) Attitude
Page

Q390) Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe the meaning of
research as a process?
Options:
A) Systematize Activity
B) Objective Observation
C) Trial and Error
D) Problem Solving
Q391) If a sample is drawn without specifying the parameters of selection, then

this is known as:
Options:
A) random sampling
C) systematic sampling
D) quota sampling
Q392) Which of the following doctrines supports the process of scientific

development?
Options:
A) Realistic education
B) Idealistic education
C) Naturalistic education
D) None of these
Q393) Which one of the following is not correct? A belief becomes a scientific
truth when it
Options:
A) is established experimentally.
B) is arrived by logically.
C) is accepted by many people
D) can be replicated.
Q394) The process not needed in Experimental Researches is

Options:
592
A) Observation B) Manipulation
C) Controlling D) Content Analysis
Page

Q395) The technique of research where a researcher or investigator studies the

whole population with respect to certain sociological and psychological variables
is known as
Options:
A) Field experiment B) Field study
C) Ex-Post facto study D) Survey Research
Q396) If as a researcher, you do not get a satisfactory explanation to certain

occurrences
Options:
A) you give a damn to it perhaps it is not worth knowing.
B) you would wait until I come across a right person who may explain it to me.
C) you would visit a nearby research could be find out whether an answer could
be obtained.
D) you would not be at rest until you get an appropriate explanation.
Options:
D) Simulative research
Q398) For conducting study relating to the family size and per capita income in
our country, a researcher divides the whole population of the region into
different income groups and then takes random samples from each group.
Options:
A) random sampling B) levelled random sampling

C) group sampling D) patterned sampling
Q399) Which of the following is necessary for Personal Interview in survey

research?
Options:
593
A) Accessibility of the respondent B) Cognition

C) Motivation of the respondent D) All of these
Page

Q400) The type of evaluation research which reflects that different discussion
are made:
Options:
A) process evaluation B) outcome evaluation
C) control evaluation D) All of the above
Q401) Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative

terms?
Options:
A) Socio-economic Status B) Marital Status
C) Numerical Aptitude D) Professional Attitude
Q402) The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past
is called
Options:
A) Philosophical research B) Historical research
C) Mythological research D) Content analysis

Options:

Options:
A) empirical B) theoretical
C) experimental D) all of the above
Q405) Which of the following are true about Research /

Options:
A) Research requires skills of writing and reproducing the report.

B) Research requires that the researcher has full expertise of the problem being
594
studied and replicable.

C) Research is characterized by systematic, objective and logical procedures.
Page
D) All of these

Q406) Which of the following are the functions of social science research?
Options:
A) Discovery of new facts and their interpretation.

B) Policy formulation for further development.
C) Diagnosis of problem and their analysis.
D) All of these
Options:
Q408) Which of the following is not matched correctly?

Options:
A) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre-Trombay
B) Antarctica Research Centre ---Goa
C) National Sugar Institute ---Kolkata
D) Raman Research Institute --Chennai
Q409) Which department had less than 10 % of employees all through the year
1999 to 2004?
Options:
A) Purchase
B) Sales
C) Accounts
D) Research

Options:
A) improve data interpretation
B) eliminate spurious relations
595
C) confirm triangulation
D) introduce new variables
Page


Options:
Q412) A researcher is generally expected to
Options:
A) Study the existing literature in a field.
B) generate new principles and theories.
C) synthesize the ideas given by others.
D) evaluate the findings of a study.
Q413) The word research is derived from

Options:
A) French word
B) Spanish word
C) Latin word
D) Greek word
Q414) In every field, research pursuits promote systematic and gradual

Options:
B) it is not common to be able to think beyond a proved channel
C) sustained experimental work needed for discovery is not easily forthcoming
D) most people lack the depth of knowledge needed for it.
Q415) Which of the following is not a characteristic of research?

Options:
A) Systematic
B) Objective
C) Logical
D) Perspective
596
Page

Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) B, Q3) D, Q4) B,
Q5) B, Q6) A, Q7) A, Q8) B, Q9) B,
Q10) A, Q11) D, Q12) A, Q13) D, Q14) D,
Q15) B, Q16) A, Q17) A, Q18) C, Q19) C,
Q20) A, Q21) D, Q22) C, Q23) C, Q24) D,
Q25) C, Q26) B, Q27) B, Q28) A, Q29) B,
Q30) B, Q31) A, Q32) D, Q33) C, Q34) B,
Q35) A, Q36) C, Q37) D, Q38) B, Q39) A,
Q40) D, Q41) C, Q42) A, Q43) B, Q44) B,
Q45) D, Q46) C, Q47) D, Q48) A, Q49) C,
Q50) D, Q51) C, Q52) D, Q53) A, Q54) B,
Q55) B, Q56) B, Q57) D, Q58) A, Q59) B,
Q60) C, Q61) B, Q62) A, Q63) B, Q64) B,
Q65) A, Q66) D, Q67) B, Q68) A, Q69) C,
Q70) C, Q71) A, Q72) D, Q73) A, Q74) D,
Q75) D, Q76) B, Q77) D, Q78) A, Q79) B,
Q80) A, Q81) B, Q82) B, Q83) B, Q84) A,
Q85) A, Q86) C, Q87) D, Q88) A, Q89) D,
Q90) C, Q91) C, Q92) D, Q93) B, Q94) B,
Q95) D, Q96) A, Q97) C, Q98) B, Q99) B,
Q100) A, Q101) A, Q102) B, Q103) C, Q104) B,
Q105) B, Q106) C, Q107) C, Q108) D, Q109) A,
Q110) C, Q111) D, Q112) A, Q113) A, Q114) B,
Q115) B, Q116) A, Q117) D, Q118) C, Q119) B,
Q120) A, Q121) A, Q122) A, Q123) B, Q124) A,
Q125) C, Q126) D, Q127) B, Q128) A, Q129) C,
Q130) A, Q131) B, Q132) A, Q133) A, Q134) A,
Q135) C, Q136) D, Q137) C, Q138) B, Q139) D,
Q140) C, Q141) A, Q142) B, Q143) B, Q144) D,
Q145) B, Q146) C, Q147) D, Q148) B, Q149) A,
Q150) D, Q151) D, Q152) A, Q153) A, Q154) B,
Q155) C, Q156) A, Q157) C, Q158) C, Q159) D,
Q160) A, Q161) D, Q162) D, Q163) A, Q164) A,
Q165) A, Q166) B, Q167) A, Q168) D, Q169) A,
Q170) D, Q171) B, Q172) B, Q173) D, Q174) A,
Q175) D, Q176) A, Q177) B, Q178) A, Q179) D,
Q180) D, Q181) A, Q182) A, Q183) A, Q184) A,
Q185) C, Q186) A, Q187) B, Q188) C, Q189) D,
Q190) C, Q191) B, Q192) C, Q193) B, Q194) A,
Q195) A, Q196) C, Q197) A, Q198) D, Q199) C,
Q200) C, Q201) D, Q202) D, Q203) B, Q204) A,
597
Q205) D, Q206) B, Q207) D, Q208) A, Q209) A,

Q210) C, Q211) A, Q212) A, Q213) D, Q214) D,
Page

Q215) D, Q216) A, Q217) D, Q218) A, Q219) C,

Q220) B, Q221) C, Q222) C, Q223) C, Q224) D,
Q225) A, Q226) B, Q227) D, Q228) A, Q229) B,
Q230) C, Q231) C, Q232) C, Q233) D, Q234) A,
Q235) C, Q236) A, Q237) A, Q238) B, Q239) C,
Q240) D, Q241) C, Q242) A, Q243) A, Q244) B,
Q245) A, Q246) D, Q247) B, Q248) A, Q249) B,
Q250) D, Q251) D, Q252) D, Q253) A, Q254) D,
Q255) D, Q256) C, Q257) B, Q258) A, Q259) C,
Q260) A, Q261) D, Q262) D, Q263) A, Q264) D,
Q265) D, Q266) C, Q267) D, Q268) D, Q269) D,
Q270) C, Q271) D, Q272) B, Q273) D, Q274) C,
Q275) C, Q276) C, Q277) A, Q278) B, Q279) B,
Q280) A, Q281) C, Q282) D, Q283) A, Q284) C,
Q285) C, Q286) A, Q287) A, Q288) C, Q289) C,
Q290) D, Q291) C, Q292) D, Q293) B, Q294) B,
Q295) D, Q296) C, Q297) B, Q298) D, Q299) B,
Q300) A, Q301) B, Q302) D, Q303) C, Q304) B,
Q305) D, Q306) B, Q307) D, Q308) B, Q309) D,
Q310) D, Q311) C, Q312) B, Q313) D, Q314) B,
Q315) C, Q316) D, Q317) C, Q318) D, Q319) C,
Q320) A, Q321) A, Q322) D, Q323) D, Q324) C,
Q325) A, Q326) B, Q327) A, Q328) C, Q329) C,
Q330) C, Q331) A, Q332) C, Q333) B, Q334) B,
Q335) D, Q336) B, Q337) D, Q338) A, Q339) B,
Q340) A, Q341) B, Q342) A, Q343) B, Q344) D,
Q345) B, Q346) B, Q347) C, Q348) B, Q349) D,
Q350) C, Q351) C, Q352) D, Q353) D, Q354) B,
Q355) D, Q356) C, Q357) A, Q358) D, Q359) C,
Q360) C, Q361) D, Q362) B, Q363) D, Q364) D,
Q365) C, Q366) A, Q367) D, Q368) A, Q369) D,
Q370) A, Q371) D, Q372) C, Q373) A, Q374) D,
Q375) B, Q376) A, Q377) B, Q378) D, Q379) D,
Q380) D, Q381) A, Q382) D, Q383) A, Q384) D,
Q385) D, Q386) A, Q387) D, Q388) D, Q389) C,
Q390) C, Q391) B, Q392) A, Q393) A, Q394) B,
Q395) D, Q396) D, Q397) B, Q398) B, Q399) D,
Q400) B, Q401) D, Q402) B, Q403) A, Q404) C,
Q405) D, Q406) D, Q407) A, Q408) D, Q409) B,
Q410) B, Q411) C, Q412) B, Q413) C, Q414) A,
Q415) D,
598
Page

Explanations:
Q278) Division of population on the basis of class, income, education level etc is
called stratification and every member of each stratum has equal chance of
being selected by the researcher. In this way characteristics of various strata are
identified and studied.
Q284) If characteristics of the population is homogeneous a small sample may
be e nough for study because it may represent the whole population easily
Q286) Studies opposite to ex-post facto are experimental ones where various
causes are first presented and their effects due to manipulation of the single
variable are seen
Q288) When we study about an event by taking a sample from the population it
is called statistic and a group of statistical measures is called statistics.
Q289) The more the sample represents the population the more accurate are the
res ults of the study. Sample can be made more representative either by
increasing the size of the sample or by following more reliable method of
sampling.
Q290) In normative researches only data are collected from the survey and after
'analyzing them results are declared. Thus there is no need of manipulating
independent variables. In ex-post facto-research effects are already known and
researcher studies the causes lying behind these r effects. Here too independent
variable are not manipulated.
Q292) Reference collection is not needed in experimental studies because a
researcher relies only on his own results which may be different from the
previous studies
Q293) It is but natural to face various problems in life and seeking solutions to
these problems is a must. A true teacher always tries to get solution of his
problem by doing formal or informal researches
Q294) In random sampling technique every number of the population has equal
chance of being selected
Q295) When long survey is being done and population is being scattered over a
large area then researcher selects various groups from the whole area. The
selection of these groups is based on the discretion of the researcher.
Q301) If there is only one coin the probability of its being head and tail is 50% -
50%. If coins are two then each will have 25% chance of getting down head and
tail. Now if coins are four this chance will be 12*1/2% each and so on.
599
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Q317) Such type of studies are always comparative in nature. He should say
that Mr. X is socially or economically backward as compared to Mr. Y.
Q320) Questionnaire is most appropriate technique for studying such problems

because a large sample of the population can be covered in a short period by
mailing it to the respondents.
Q321) When one variable is increasing and the other one is decreasing then
correlation will be negative, zero correlation means variables are independent of
each other and in positive correlations direct relationship is seen in both the
variables
600
Page

UNIT 3
Communication
601
Page

Communication
Communication Part I:
Q1) Decoding is associated with

Options:
A) Message Sender B) Message Receiver
Q2) The biggest obstacle in the way of communication in a class is

Options:
A) Excess of noise in a class
B) Vagueness about the content of a teacher
C) The noise out of class and other related obstacles
D) Lack in teaching aid material
Q3) An effective communication produces in receiver

Options:
A) Happiness B) Acceptance C) Its access to other people D) Thinking
Q4) Which of the following group is not making a communication process

defe ctive in a class room?
Options:
A) Reversing-Evaluating-Focussing B) Evaluating-Focussing-Eliciting
C) Evaluating-Focussing-Exaggerating D) Evaluating-Eliciting-Exaggerating
Q5) If your students remain unsatisfied even after your teaching a particular
lesson or content, what would you like to do under these conditions?
Options:
A) You will leave aside all fruitful efforts of teaching in order to enhance their
understanding
B) You will be doing your best efforts again and again till they will not
understand the content
602
C) You will think that again and again repetition of the same content is mere a
destroying the time
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D) You will be keeping sympathetic behaviour with the students

Q6) Which of the following is not matched with the nature of communication?
Options:
A) A directional process B) A feed-back process
C) A dynamic process D) A passive process
Q7) In which of the following situations the students can interact to one another
in more liberal(free) environment?
Options:
A) I n discussions within the small group B) By using Film Projector

C) By T.V. viewing D) In Expert's lectures
Q8) In which of the following condition the class appears to be most effective?
Options:
A) When the teacher imparts experiences according to the levels of students

B) When the teacher keeps students in a state of relaxation during teaching
C) When teacher teaches the subject-matter in a clear and loud voice
D) When teacher establishes strict discipline in the class
Q9) Which of the following is a best method to control noise in the class room
situation?
Options:
A) To give warning to the students that they must keep silence
B) To speak loudly by the teacher to keep pace with the noise in the class
C) To watch the class silently and minutely scan the class
D) To ignore the student's noise, stand confidently and start teaching
Q10) When a teacher is being treated as an effective communicator, the

teacher's duty should be
Options:
A) That he will be communicating thinking ability in students
B) That he will be imparting knowledge through lesson-teaching and healthy
discussions
C) That he will be discussing the content with students
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Q11) Anderson quoted

Options:
A) Communication-A dynamic process
B) Communication-A process of exchange of ideas
C) Communication-A process of association of ideas
Q12) The Receiver should follow the inevitable condition in order to receive the
message
Options:
A) He has the ability to transmit a message
B) He has the ability to decoding the message
C) He has the ability to interpret the message
D) He has all the above abilities
Q13) When you are unable to follow the foreigner's language, the
communication of message will be carried out through
Options:
A) Speaking loudly or screaming B) Symbolic language
C) Learning his language D) Cant say
Q14) Which of the following element is essential for communicating a research

work?
Options:
A) Process B) Mastery over the language
C) Statement of aim D) B and C both
Q15) Sometimes it has been witnessed that in a large class, students are trying
to ditch their teacher in disciplinarian art. In your opinion the problem lies with
Options:
A) The students B) The process
C) The content to be taught D) The time taken for teaching
Q16) Which one of the following should be adopted by a teacher in his

communication?
Options:
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A) Brief, clear and low level B) Elongated tone

C) Clear and high tone D) Moderate tone
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Q17) The effective communication will be taking place if

Options:
A) The source is attractive and autocratic
B) The message is designed according to the listeners
C) The latest communication technology has been employed
D) The receiver is passive to receive the messages
Q18) The main limit of Mass communication is

Options:
A) It is very costly for the receiver

B) It takes much time in message production
C) It success depends on the message producers
D) The feed-back system is in a poor state
Q19) The basic elements of communication are

Options:
A) The Source and the Receiver B) The Messenger and the Receiver
C) The Source and the Channel D) All of the above
Q20) The way through which message passes, is called

Options:
A) Channel B) Transmission medium
C) Transmission channel D) Transmission system
Q21) Which of the following process has been incorporated for the decoding of
the messages?
Options:
A) The messages are changed into signs
B) The interpretation of the secret messages has been carried out
C) The obstacles are created in messaging service
D) The messages are changed through encoding
Q22) In a process of communication, the final objective of Feed-back is

Options:
A) To bring desirable change in the process of communication
B) To understand about the content
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C) To identify the defects of the communicator

D) To diagnose the limits of the message sender
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Q23) The advantage of Feedback in the process of communication is

Options:
A) It clarifies the communication
B) It is beneficial in understanding of the subject-matter
C) It diagnoses the defects in messages sender or communicator
D) It explores the defects in receiver
Q24) The barriers in communication can be overcome if
Options:
A) The listener has all the desirable competencies of best listening
B) The listener is in a state of motivator
C) The listener has some extra incentives
D) All of the above
Q25) If a teacher is unable to communicate his ideas to the students in

adequate manner, the result of it will be
Options:
A) The end of discipline in the class
B) The end of students' interest in the topic
C) The maximum absence of students from the class
D) All of the above
Q26) Which of the following teacher's quality is associated with his best
teaching?
Options:
A) The abilities of the teacher
B) Teacher's abstinence
C) The oral expression of the teacher
D) The vocational commitment and love for the profession
Q27) Which of the following measure should be adopted by a teacher in order to

adjust himself as an effective communicator?
Options:
A) He uses more and more teaching aids

B) Whate ver he teaches, it should be adequate to all the levels of students
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C) He should ask questions to the students' during teaching

D) He should extend help in searching the best answers of the questions
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Q28) Communication is a
Options:
A) Process-which is going on between the Source and the Receiver
B) A condition of exchange of ideas
C) A method of transfer of ideas
D) All of the above
Q29) In an excellent communication, it is not desired
Options:
A) Change in voice(voice modulation)
B) External or physical beauty
C) Communication of adequate feelings
D) Involvement of students
Q30) The term communis is taken from

Options:
A) Latin language
B) Greek language
C) Hebrew language
D) English language
Q31) According to Legons, the meaning of communication is

Options:
A) Exchange of ideas between two or more than two individuals

B) Dialogue between two persons
C) Interaction between two persons
D) All of the above
Q32) In an effective communication there is no need of

Options:
A) Modulations in voice and speech
B) Adequate gestures
C) Mastery over the content
D) Handsome personality
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Q33) In order to a teacher should have effective communication, it is essential

that
Options:
A) The teacher should become master of his own subject

B) The teacher should prepare a good teaching aid
C) The teacher should discuss the questions asked in previous year's
examination
D) The teacher should start at that point from where students are ready to learn
Q34) Which one of the following is not treated as an obstacle in the way of
effective communication?
Options:
A) A long statement
B) An inadequate statement
C) A brief statement
D) A statement which permits the listener to derive the conclusions
Q35) Communication is possible
Options:
A) Between two animals of the same species
B) Between a living organism and machines
C) Between an individual and a group
D) In all the above situations
Q36) The non-verbal communication is possible through

Options:
A) Speech symbols
B) Eyes
C) Sense of touch
D) All of the above
Q37) What is the fundamental principle of Educational Psychology?

Options:
A) To teach the tricks of teaching profession

B) To develop insight about the different aspects of modern education
608
C) To develop insights about the needs, problems and styles of behaviours of the
students
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D) To develop the research designs for modern teaching processes

Q38) The types of communication are

Options:
A) Two B) Four C) Six D) Eight
Q39) The barrier of the communication can be categorised as

Options:
A) Physical barriers B) Language barriers

C) Psychological barriers D) All the above
Q40) Which special train was running in order to disseminate scientific

awareness in the country?
Options:
A) Science and Technology rail B) The Great Indian rail
C) Science rail D) None of the above
Q41) When your friend point out at your gross mistake which you have
committed in the class during teaching, then your reaction will be
Options:
A) Resisting him and tell him confidently that it does not come under the
purview of a mistake
B) Discussing on the mistake, try to put your stand, if he does not agree then
accepting your mistake
C) Warning him that he should not behave in such a manner in future
D) Requesting him politely that he should not tell it to any other person
Q42) The barriers of communication can be eliminated when it is

Options:
A) Simple and comprehensible B) Associated with feed-back
C) Following the rules for excellent listening D) All of the above
Q43) If you are interested in maintaining effective communication in your class,

what will you do?
Options:
A) Teaching of the subject-matter with clarity and students pace

B) To use appropriate media for teaching
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C) To capture the sender's message in toto and decode it appropriately by the

students
D) To receive the messages immediately
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Q44) Ge nerally in a communication the position of perception, retention and

recall will be
Options:
A) Like source variables B) Like message variables

C) Like message receivers D) Like channel variables
Q45) A te acher will be having effective teaching if

Options:
A) He explains adequately the expected content to his students in a class

B) He repeats the explanations in order to grasp by all the students
C) He gives rich learning experiences to the students
D) He gives right answers to all the queries of the students
Q46) Which of the following step you keep in priority for a effective
communication?
Options:
A) To select a channel for communication
B) To plan a evaluation procedure
C) To specify the objectives of communication
D) To select various types of media for communication
Q47) The communication of teacher's ideas to the students is meant

Options:
A) I mparting of knowledge B) Delivering of ideas

C) Inculcating ideas in the students brain D) Continuing the teaching process
Q48) If you are interested in communicating democratic tendencies among your

students, which of the following system will enabled them with this objective?
Options:
A) You discuss and debate on the issue of advantages of Democratic system with
students and indoctrinate them about it by changing their beliefs.
B) You conduct the election for students' Assembly and give them
res ponsibilities to share.
C) You give priority to democratic values in your day-today practice of working
and engage whole class in its adequate management and give them suitable
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duties
D) You will excellent speakers and dignitaries in school and divert the attention
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of students towards their speech about the great persons of the world

Q49) When you are delivering a lecture in a class, it is better if you 1. Know the
ideas of other persons 2. Know that all the students in the class are not
Homogeneous in nature 3. Give due respect to other's ideas Which one of the
following pair is correct in the above context?
Options:
A) 1 and 2 B) 3 only C) 1 and 3 D) 1, 2 and 3
Q50) Below are given some traits of a good teacher 1.Mastery over the content 2.
Effective verbal communication 3. Handsome personality 4. Potentiality to seek
res pect from students 5. Potentiality to seek respect from community leaders
Which of the above qualities you should prefer in an effective teacher?
Options:
A) 1, 2 and 3 B) 1, 2 and 4 C) 1, 2 and 5 D) 1, 3 and 5
Q51) The simple process of communication consists of the following elements

Options:
A) Message source-Medium-Message Receiver
B) Message Source-Encoding-Decoding-Message Receiver
C) Message Source-Message Receiver
D) Message Source-Feed-back
Q52) The nature of communication is

Options:
A) Process of exchange of ideas B) A purposive process
C) A Psycho-social process D) All of the above
Q53) An efficient te acher ensures

Options:
A) Feelings of co-operation in his students
B) Full freedom on his own part without any restriction
C) Competition among his students
D) Feelings of either co-operation or competition as the conditions permit in his
students.
Q54) The meaning of communis is

Options:
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A) Differences B) Normal C) Sensation D) Etiquettes

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Q55) The biggest barrier of the communication is

Options:
A) Noise B) Person C) Language D) Previous Experiences
Q56) What is the essential step for an effective communicator?

Options:
A) Selection of the channel for communication
B) Think about the evaluation procedure
C) Determining the objectives of communication
D) Identifying various medium of communication
Q57) Ge nerally it has been witnessed that the communication in the class
disrupted, because
Options:
A) The students' attention is not focussed on it
B) The teacher delivers a monotonous lecture
C) The students are not taking proper interest in the lesson taught by the
teacher
D) The loud noise continued within and outside the classroom
Q58) The verbal communication completes through

Options:
A) Verbal medium B) Symbolic medium
C) Lips medium D) Bodily organs medium
Q59) If you get appointment in a college as a teacher, how could you behave
with your students?
Options:
A) Autocratic manner B) Democratic manner

C) Laissez faire manner D) Intellectual manner
Q60) The work of Messenger is

Options:
612
A) To develop a message B) To encode the message

C) To transmit the message D) All of the above
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Q61) The messages are changed into symbols through the process of
Options:
A) Encoding B) Decoding C) Sign language D) None of the above
Q62) Which of the following is not a true statement?

Options:
A) A good communicator-cannot be judged as a good teacher
B) A good communicator-has the satirical (Humorous) expressions
C) A good communicator-is an exhaustive reader
D) A good communicator has the mastery over language
Q63) Which of the following alternative is representing the effective

communication?
Options:
A) The teacher should crack the jokes during teaching in the class
B) The teacher should impact multidimensional sensory influence on the
students through his teaching
C) The teacher should speak authoritatively
D) The teacher should teach whatever is beneficial to the students
Q64) The word communication is derived from
Options:
A) Communis B) Communique C) Communil D) Commune
Q65) In all formal and informal communications the following quality is

comprised of
Options:
A) Structuredness B) Unstructuredness C) Discrimination D) Similarity
Answers:
Q1) B, Q2) A, Q3) B, Q4) D, Q5) B, Q6) D, Q7) A, Q8) B, Q9) C, Q10) A, Q11) A,
Q12) D, Q13) B, Q14) D, Q15) B, Q16) B, Q17) B, Q18) D, Q19) A, Q20) A, Q21)
B, Q22) A, Q23) A, Q24) D, Q25) D, Q26) D, Q27) D, Q28) D, Q29) D, Q30) A,
Q31) D, Q32) D, Q33) D, Q34) C, Q35) D, Q36) B, Q37) C, Q38) A, Q39) D, Q40)
A, Q41) B, Q42) D, Q43) C, Q44) D, Q45) C, Q46) C, Q47) C, Q48) C, Q49) D,
Q50) B, Q51) A, Q52) D, Q53) D, Q54) B, Q55) A, Q56) C, Q57) D, Q58) A, Q59)
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B, Q60) D, Q61) A, Q62) D, Q63) D, Q64) A, Q65) D

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Communication Part II:
Q1) The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding the

processes, issues, events and societal developments is known as:
Options:
A) Content supply
B) Surveillance
C) Gratification
D) Correlation
Q2) The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and
Options:
A) Cybernetics
B) Reverse communication
C) Selectivity study
D) Response analysis
Q3) Networked media exist in inter-connected:

Options:
A) Social environments
B) Economic environments
C) Political environments
D) Technological environments
Q4) The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital

Options:
A) Online communication
B) Integrated media
C) Digital combine
D) Convergence
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Q5) A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs

simultaneously I various forms is described as:
Options:
A) Man-machine speak
B) Binary chat
C) Digital talk
D) Interactivity
Q6) Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication?

Options:
A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.
B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.
Q7) Which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India?

Options:
A) Zee News
B) NDTV 24 x 7
C) CNBC
D) India News
Q8) Consider the following statements in communication:

i) Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children's Film Society, India.
ii) Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of
India.
iii) Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development
Corporation.
iv) Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Preeti Zinta have all been recipients of Dada
Saheb Phalke Award.
Options:
A) (i) and (iii)
B) (ii) and (iii)
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C) (iv) only
D) (iii) only
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Q9) Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

Options:
A) N. Ram: The Hindu
B) Barkha Dutt: Zee News
C) Pranay Roy: NDTV 7
D) Prabhu Chawla: Aaj Tak
Q10) Because you deserve to know is the punch line used by:
Options:
A) The Times of India
B) The Hindu
C) Indian Express
D) Hindustan Times
Q11) Press Council of India is located at:

Options:
A) Chennai
B) Mumbai
C) Kolkata
D) Delhi
Q12) Adjusting the photo for publication by cutting is technically known as:
Options:
A) Photo cutting
B) Photo bleeding
C) Photo cropping
D) Photo adjustment
Q13) Feed-back of a message comes from:

Options:
A) Satellite
B) Media
C) Audience
D) Communicator
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Q14) Collection of information in advance before designing communication

Options:
A) Fee d-back
B) Feed-forward
C) Research study
D) Opinion poll
Q15) The aspect ratio of TV screen is:

Options:
A) 0.16875
B) 0.168055555555556
C) 0.128472222222222
D) 8.54166666666667E-02
Q16) DTH service was started in the year:

Options:
A) 2000
B) 2002
C) 2004
D) 2006
Q17) National Press day is celebrated on:

Options:
A) 16th November
B) 19th N ovember
C) 21th November
D) 30th November
Q18) The total number of members in the Press Council of India are:
Options:
A) 28
B) 14
C) 17
D) 20
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Q19) The right to impart and receive information is guaranteed in the

Options:
A) 19 (2) (a)
B) 19(16)
C) 19(2)
D) 19(1) (a)
Q20) Communication with oneself is known as:

Options:
A) Group communication
B) Grapevine communication
C) Interpersonal communication
D) Intrapersonal communication
Q21) Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India?

Options:
A) NTSE
B) PAL
C) SECAM
D) NTCS
Q22) All India Radio before 1936 was known as:

Options:
A) I ndian Radio Broadcasting
B) Broadcasting Service of India
C) Indian Broadcasting Service
D) All India Broadcasting Service
Q23) The biggest news agency of India is:

Options:
A) PTI
B) UNI
C) NANAP
D) Samachar Bharati
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Q24) Prasar Bharati was launched in the year:

Options:
A) 1995 B) 1997
C) 1999 D) 2001
Q25) Community Radio is a type of radio service that caters to the interest of:
Options:
A) local audience
B) Education
C) Entertainment
D) News
Q26) Orkut was a part of:

Options:
A) I ntra personal Communication
B) Mass Communication
C) Group Communication
D) Interpersonal Communication
Q27) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
List-I (Artists)
a) Amrita Shergill
b) T. Swaminathan Pillai
c) Bhimsenjoshi
d) Padma Subramanian
List-II (Art)
i) Flute
ii) Classical Song
iii) Painting
iv) Bharat Natyam
Options:
A) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
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Q28) Which is not correct in latest communication award?

Options:
A) Salman Rushdie Bookers Prize -July 20, 2008
B) Dilip Sanghavi Business Standard CEO Award July 22, 2008
C) Tapan Sinha Dada Saheb Falke Award, July 21, 2008
D) Gautam Ghosh Osians Lifetime Achievement Award July 11, 2008
Q29) Firewalls are used to protect a communication network system against:
Options:
A) Unauthorized attacks
B) Virus attacks
C) Data-driven attacks
D) Fire-attacks
Q30) Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is
very popular throughout the world?
Options:
A) TPS
B) Telepresence
C) Video conference
D) Video teletext
Q31) Which is not 24 hours news channel

Options:
A) NDTV24x7
B) ZEE N ews
C) Aajtak
D) Lok Sabha channel
Q32) The main objective of f. m. station in radio is:

Options:
A) I nformation, Entertainment and Tourism
B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction
C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment
D) Entertainment only
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Q33) In communication chatting in internet is:

Options:
A) Verbal communication
B) Non verbal communication
C) Parallel communication
D) Grapevine communication
Q34) Match List-I with List-II and select List-I the correct answer using the
codes List-II
(Artists)
a) Pandit Jasra
b) Kishan Mahara
c) Ravi Shankar
d) Udai Shankar
(Art)
i) Hindustani vocalist
ii) Sitar
iii) Tabla
iv) Dance
Options:
A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Q35) The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated
Options:
A) Great Britain B) The United States

C) Japan D) China
Q36) The chronological order of non-verbal communication is

Options:
A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours

B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
C) colours, signs, codes, symbols
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D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs

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Q37) Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication points are

referred to as
Options:
A) Networked media
B) Connective media
C) Nodal media
D) Multimedia
Q38) The information function of mass communication is described as

Options:
A) diffusion
B) publicity
C) surveillance
D) diversion
Q39) An example of asynchronous medium is

Options:
A) Radio
B) Television
C) File
D) Newspaper
Q40) communication, connotative words are

Options:
A) Explicit
B) Abstract
C) Simple
D) Cultural
Q41) Which of the following statements is not connected with communication?

Options:
A) Medium is the message.
B) The world is an electronic cocoon.
C) Information is power.
D) Telepathy is technological.
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Q42) Communication becomes circular when

Options:
A) the decoder becomes an encoder
B) the feedback is absent
C) the source is credible
D) the channel is clear
Q43) The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai
(26/11) in 2008 was
Options:
A) Orkut
B) Facebook
C) Amazon. co
D) Twitter
Q44) In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is

Options:
A) audience attitude
B) audience knowledge
C) audience education
D) audience income
Q45) Post-modernism is associated with

Options:
A) Newspapers
B) Magazines
C) Radio
D) Television
Q46) Didactic communication is

Options:
A) intra-personal
B) inter-personal
C) organizational
D) relational
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Q47) In communication, the language is

Options:
A) the non-verbal code
B) the verbal code
C) the symbolic code
D) the iconic code
Q48) Identify the correct sequence of the following:
Options:
A) Source, channel, message, receiver
B) Source, receiver, channel, message
C) Source, message, receiver, channel
D) Source, message, channel, receiver
Q49) A message beneath a message is labelled as

Options:
A) embedded text
B) internal text
C) inter-text
D) sub-text
Q50) In analog mass communication, stories are

Options:
A) static
B) dynamic
C) interactive
D) exploratory
Q51) Firewalls are used to protect a communication network system against:

Options:
A) Unauthorized attacks
B) Virus attacks
C) Data-driven attack
D) Fire-attacks
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Q52) Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio line is
very popular throughout the world?
Options:
A) TPS
B) Telepresence
C) Video conference
D) Video teletext
Q53) Which is not 24 hours news channel

Options:
A) NDTV24x7
B) ZEE N ews
C) Aajtak
D) Lok Sabha channel
Q54) The main objective of f. m. station in radio is:

Options:
A) I nformation, Entertainment and Tourism
B) Entertainment, Information and Interaction
C) Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment
D) Entertainment only
Q55) In communication chatting in internet is:

Options:
A) Verbal communication
B) Non verbal communication
C) Parallel communication
D) Grapevine communication
Q56) The country which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated
Options:
A) Great Britain
B) The United States
C) Japan
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D) China
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Q57) The chronological order of non-verbal communication is

Options:
A) Signs, symbols, codes, colours
B) Symbols, codes, signs, colours
C) Colours, signs, codes, symbols
D) Codes, colours, symbols, signs
Q58) Which of the following statements is not connected with communication?
Options:
A) Medium is the message.
B) The world is an electronic cocoon.
C) Information is power.
D) Telepathy is technological.
Q59) Communication becomes circular when

Options:
A) the decoder becomes an encoder
B) the feedback is absent
C) the source is credible
D) the channel is clear
Q60) The site that played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai
(26/11) in 2008 was
Options:
A) Orkut
B) Facebook
C) Amazon. com
D) Twitter
Q61) In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is (Jun010)

Options:
A) audience attitude
B) audience knowledge
C) audience education
D) audience income
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Q62) Post-modernism is associated with

Options:
A) ne wspapers
B) magazines
C) radio
D) television
Q63) Didactic communication is
Options:
A) intra-personal
B) inter-personal
C) organizational
D) relational
Q64) In communication, the language is

Options:
A) the non-verbal code
B) the verbal code
C) the symbolic code
D) the iconic code
Q65) Indentify the correct sequence of the following:

Options:
A) Source, channel, message, receiver

B) Source, receiver, channel, message
C) Source, message, receiver, channel
D) Source, message, channel, receiver
Q66) Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication points are

referred to as
Options:
A) Networked media
B) Connective media
C) Nodal media
D) Nodal media
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Options:
A) diffusion
B) publicity
C) surveillance
D) diversion
Options:
A) Radio
B) Television
C) Film
D) Newspaper
Q69) In communication, connotative words are

Options:
A) Explicit
B) Abstract
C) Simple
D) Cultural
Q70) A message beneath a message is labelled as

Options:
A) embedded text
B) internal text
C) inter-text
D) sub-text

Options:
A) static
B) dynamic
C) interactive
D) exploratory
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Page

Q72) Interpretation is beneficial when communicating across cultures. There are

different kinds of interpretation, which include
Options:
A) Simultaneous. B) Transliteration.
C) Sequential. D) All of the listed items.
Q73) In the question below the two statements labelled as assertion (A) and
reason (R) . Which one of the following is correct.
Assertion (A): a newspaper is a mass media tool

Reason (R): newspaper connects masses with pieces of information
Options:
A) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is false
Assertion (A): on-verbal communication is related to expression of feelings,

emotions in a wordless manner
Reason (R): body language is helpful in creating an understanding of any
matter feeling
Options:

Q75) Respect is essential when practicing as a health professional.

Options:
A) However, you only need to respect yourself and your colleagues.
B) It is the foundational factor that builds mutual understanding and a
therapeutic relationship.
C) It is especially important when relating to people older than you.
D) However, you only need to respect those people who respect you.
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Q76) The interpretation of physical message into a form that has eventual
meaning for a receiver is called
Options:
A) Coding
B) Recording
C) Decoding
D) Encoding
Q77) Which of the following is the first newspaper to have a readers editor?
Options:
B) The Hindu
C) Hindustan Times
D) the pioneer
Q78) In communication, ...................... confirms receipt of the message.

Options:
A) Receiver
B) Communication
C) Channel
D) Sender
Q79) Communication is a ............................ way process.

Options:
A) Two
B) Three
C) One
D) None of above
Q80) Which is Indias first channel on children on TV?

Options:
A) Cartoon network
B) Walt Disney
C) United home entertainments Hungama TV
D) Nick Junior
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Q81) Which of the following is the largest single edition regional newspaper?
Options:
A) Anandabazar patrika
B) janasatta
C) Nai Dunia
Q82) The oldest existing English daily of India is
Options:
B) The Hindustan Times
C) The Hindu
D) The Telegraph
Q83) Channels used for downward communication are

Options:
A) Types of print
B) Oral media
C) Handbook manuals
D) All of the above
Q84) What is the other name of Hickys Bengal Gazette?

Options:
A) The Bengal News

B) Calcutta General advertiser
C) Bengal Journal
D) None of the
Q85) Which communication has an emotional appeal?

Options:
A) I ntrapersonal communication
B) Interpersonal communication
C) Mass communication
D) Group communication
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Q86) A fatwa was issued in Salman Rushdies name following the publication of
Options:
A) Midnights children
B) Shame
C) Satanic Verses
Q87) The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding

the processes, issues, events and societal developments is known as:
Options:
A) Content supply
B) Surveillance
C) Gratification
D) Correlation
Q88) The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and
Options:
A) Cybernetics
B) Reverse communication
C) Selectivity study
D) Response analysis
Q89) Networked media exist in inter-connected:

Options:
A) Social environments
B) Economic environments
C) Political environments
D) Technological environments
Q90) The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital

Options:
A) Online communication B) Integrated media

C) Digital combine D) Convergence
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Q91) The teacher has arranged a meeting with Sakshis mother to discuss these
concerns. Which of the following statements is best for the teacher to say to
Sakshis mother?
Options:
A) Sakshi needs extra practice reading and writing problematic letters and
words at home at least 30 minutes per day.
B) Please discuss the importance of schoolwork to Sakshi so that she will
increase her efforts in class work.
C) These are possible symptoms of dyslexia so I would like to refer her to a
specialist for diagnosis.
D) Please adjust Sakshis diet because she is most likely showing symptoms of
ADHD due to food allergies.
Q92) In which language the highest newspapers are published in India

Options:
A) English
B) Hindi
C) Bengali
D) Gujarati
Q93) Which of the following is best suited with the Readers Digest?
Options:
A) It is monthly periodical
B) It is a newspaper
C) It is quarterly periodical
Q94) The first objective of teaching English is to develop
Options:
A) Listening skill B) speaking skill
C) Reading skill D) writing skill
Q95) The numbers of kings of sounds are
Options:
A) 2 B) 3
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C) 4 D) 5
Page

Q96) Which of the following is used to facilitate oral presentation?

Options:
A) Aid
B) Aids
C) Visual Aids
D) Manual Aids
Q97) Which ONE of the following is a basic type of speech?
Options:
A) Poetry
B) Written
C) Public
D) Precise
Q98) A speech-writer earns a good living by writing speeches is

Options:
A) Professional
B) Personal
C) Elementary
D) Semi-literate
Q99) When using remote communication it is best to

Options:
A) Use concise, accurate and clear statements.

B) Use unexplained jargon.
C) Use spoken expression and construction.
D) Avoid checking spelling and grammar.
Q100) The kinds of sounds are

Options:
A) Consonant sounds, oral sounds
B) Oral sounds, vowel sound
C) Verbal sounds, consonant sounds
D) Consonant sounds, Vowel sounds
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Page

Q101) Phonemes the unit of sound

Options:
A) Maximum B) Minimum
C) Medium D) Large
Q102) A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that

occurs simultaneously in various forms is described as:
Options:
A) Man-machine speak B) Binary chat

C) Digital talk D) Interactivity
Q103) Which one of the following can be termed as verbal communication?

Options:
A) Prof. Sharma delivered the lecture in the class room.

B) Signal at the cross-road changed from green to orange.
C) The child was crying to attract the attention of the mother.
D) Dipak wrote a letter for leave application.
Q104) which is the 24 hours English Business news channel in India?

Options:
A) Zee News B) NDTV 24 x 7
C) CNBC D) India News
Q105) Cons ider the following statements in communication:

i) Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children's Film Society, dia.
ii) Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of
India.
iii) Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Film Development
Corporation.
iv) Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Preeti Zinta have all been recipients of Dada
Saheb Phalke Award.
Options:
A) (i) and (iii) B) (ii) and (iii)

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C) (iv) only D) (iii) only

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Q106) The number of branches of phonetics are

Options:
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q107) Which of the following is matched with press trust of India
Options:
A) It is an News agency
B) It is an newspaper
C) It is a trust for poor
Q108) In which year modern postal service started in India?

Options:
A) 1837
B) 1839
C) 1848
D) 1 948
Q109) Who said that communication is the interchange of thoughts and ideas
Options:
A) McLuhan
B) Dennis McQuail
C) Charles E. Osgood
D) Lord Mountbatten
Q110) ON E of the following groups is the components of The Rhetorical Triangle.

Options:
A) Appeal and logic
B) Appeal, emotion and logic
C) Appeal, resolution and logic
D) Resolution, logic and emotion
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Page

Q111) In an organization, the two basic types of correspondence are

Options:
A) Exte rnal and international
B) International and regional
C) Internal and external
D) Internal and regional
Q112) ON E of the following is NOT a characteristic of internal correspondence.
Options:
A) May not be disclosed to outsiders
B) Sometimes restrictive
C) Sometimes secretive
D) May be disclosed to outsiders
Q113) Internal correspondence may be either secret or

Options:
A) Closed
B) Open
C) National
D) Departmental
Q114) At the end of 19th century who introduced motion pictures?

Options:
A) Lumiere Brothers
B) Guttenberg
C) Thomas Kuhn
D) Donald Knuth
Q115) Non-verbal communication is

Options:
A) Kinesics
B) Proxemics
C) Para language
D) All of the above
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Page

Q116) Interpersonal communication is

Options:
A) Person to person contact
B) When an individual sends and receives messages
C) The thought process
D) Communication with mass audience
Q117) When using remote communication it is advisable to avoid
Options:
A) Formal language.
B) Abrupt and impolite messages.
C) Correcting spelling and grammar.
D) Using one idea to a sentence.
Q118) Phonology is the study of how sounds are

Options:
A) Produced
B) Transmitted
C) Organized
D) Distinguished
Q119) Which of the following incidents happened in year 1854?

Options:
A) I U postal system was introduced

B) Post office savings bank started
C) The first postage stamp introduced
D) All of them happened in the same year
Q120) Which of the following is the full form of UNI

Options:
A) United Nations information
B) United Nations India
C) United News Indian
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Q121) Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

Options:
A) N. Ram: The Hindu
B) Barkha Dutt: Zee News
C) Pranay Roy: NDTV 24?7
D) Prabhu Chawla: Aaj Tak
Q122) "Because you deserve to know is the punch line used by:
Options:
B) The Hindu
C) Indian Express
D) Hindustan Times
Q123) Press Council of India is located at:

Options:
A) Chennai
B) Mumbai
C) Kolkata
D) Delhi
Q124) Adjusting the photo for publication by cutting is technically known as:
Options:
A) Photo cutting
B) Photo bleeding
C) Photo cropping
D) Photo adjustment
Q125) Feed-back of a message comes from:

Options:
A) Satellite
B) Media
C) Audience
D) Communicator
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Page

Q126) The highest level in linguistics is

Options:
A) Phonology
B) phonetics
C) Morphology
D) Pragmatics
Q127) DN A is a joint venture of
Options:
A) Zee TV and Star TV
B) Zee TV and Dainik Jagra
C) Zee TV and Dainik Bhaskar
D) Zee TV and Doordarshan
Q128) Who among the following is a celebrated cartoonist

Options:
A) Abu Abraham
B) Ajay Jadeja
C) Morris Odumbe
D) Sanath Jayasurya
Q129) The official secrets act came into effect in

Options:
A) 1910
B) 1923
C) 1945
D) 1947
Q130) The Right to information act came into effect in

Options:
A) 2006
B) 2005
C) 2004
D) 1999
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Page

Q131) The numbers of vowels in English are

Options:
A) 21
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q132) Collection of information in advance before designing communication

Options:
A) Fee d-back
B) Feed-forward
C) Research study
D) Opinion poll
Q133) The aspect ratio of TV screen is:

Options:
A) 0.16875
B) 0.168055555555556
C) 0.128472222222222
D) 8.54166666666667E-02

Options:
A) 2000
B) 2002
C) 2004
D) 2006
Q135) National Press day is celebrate d on:

Options:
A) 16th November
B) 19th N ovember
C) 21th November
D) 30th November
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Page

Q136) The total number of members in the Press Council of India are:
Options:
A) 28
B) 14
C) 17
D) 20

Options:
A) 19 (2) (a)
B) 19(16)
C) 19(2)
D) 1 9(1) (a)
Q138) The number of consonants in English are

Options:
A) 15
B) 21
C) 26
D) 31
Q139) What is an external correspondence issued to the mass media on a

specific issue, which is meant for public consumption called?
Options:
A) House Release
B) Press Release
C) Press Note
D) House Report
Q140) Which of the following is NOT a feature of an official letter?

Options:
A) Written on the letter head
B) Contains personal feelings
C) Carries a reference number
642
D) contains address and telephone number(s)

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Q141) ON E of the following is NOT a feature of a special meeting.

Options:
A) Handling of routine matters
B) No consideration of minutes of any previous meeting
C) Notice of meeting
D) Called to consider a specific issue or issues
Q142) The conversion of spoken words into written language is
Options:
A) Transplantation
B) Transmission
C) Transcription
D) Translation
Q143) Remote communication takes many forms and has various

characteristics. It includes
Options:
A) Telephones and the internet.
B) Written reports and databases.
C) Video/teleconferences.
D) All of the above.
Q144) Which of the following is the full form of PIN (related to PIN code)
Options:
A) Postal index number
B) Postal identity number
C) Both A and B
Q145) In which year air mail system started

Options:
A) 1854
B) 1853
C) 1829
D) 1975
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Page

Q146) In 881-82, the first telephone service was started in

Options:
A) Kolkata
B) Mumbai
C) Delhi
D) Howrah
Q147) Effective communication requires
Options:
A) Connection, an uncommon purpose and mutual understanding
B) Receiving and understanding
C) Understanding of different environmental factors
Q148) The Indian equivalent of communication is

Options:
A) Antology bhab
B) Samvahana,
C) Anubhav
D) All of the above
Q149) Communication with oneself is known as:

Options:
A) Group communication
B) Grapevine communication
C) Interpersonal communication
D) Intrapersonal communication
Q150) Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India? In India for

broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed?
Options:
A) NTSE
B) PAL
C) SECAM
D) NTCS
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Q151) All India Radio before 1936 was known as:

Options:
A) I ndian Radio Broadcasting
B) Broadcasting Service of India
C) Indian Broadcasting Service
D) All India Broadcasting Service
Q152) The biggest news agency of India is:
Options:
A) PTI
B) UNI
C) NANAP
D) Samachar Bharati
Q153) Prasar Bharati was launched in the year:

Options:
A) 1995
B) 1997
C) 1999
D) 2001
Q154) Intrapersonal communication is best described as

Options:
A) Complication between person to person

B) Talking to oneself
C) More than two persons are talking
D) All of the above
Q155) Which is the father of Indian language journalism in Indian

Options:
A) Raja Rammohan Roy
B) Swami Vivekananda
C) Sister Nivedita
D) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
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Q156) Who among the following wrote the book television in India
Options:
A) Vinod Mehta
B) Nalin Mehta
C) Milkha singh
D) Amitava Bachha
Q157) Which of the following newspaper is published in a tabloid for
Options:
A) Mail today
B) The statement
C) The Telegraph
D) The Tribune
Q158) Grapevine is related to

Options:
A) Horizontal communication
B) Vertical communication
C) Oral communication
D) Informal communication
Q159) Misunderstandings
Options:
A) Can be easily avoided if you supply written information.

B) Only occur when you have not clearly explained something.
C) Can be avoided if you adjust your language appropriately and allow time for
questioning and clarifying.
D) Are breakdowns in communication
Q160) Which of the following is NOT a feature of a regular meeting?

Options:
A) Notice of meeting
B) Cons ideration of minutes of a previous meeting
C) Motion for adjournment
D) Call to the bar
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Page

Q161) Which of the following is the purpose for convening an emergency

meeting?
Options:
A) There is a ceremony to be performed

B) There is a member of staff to be sent off
C) There is an urgent matter at hand
D) There is money to be shared
Q162) Channel for upward communication is

Options:
A) Newspapers
B) Letters sent to home
C) Posters
D) Offer options that allow anonymous input, such as suggestion boxes etc
Q163) . When was censorship introduced on Indian press

Options:
A) 1970
B) 1790
C) 1792
D) 1795
Q164) When was commercial broadcasting started in Akashvani?

Options:
A) November 1, 1967
B) November 1, 1957
C) November 1, 193
D) November 1, 1945
Q165) In India, the first automatic telephone exchange was commissioned

Options:
A) Calcutta
B) Delhi
C) Shimla
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Page

Q166) Which of the following is full form of NSD with respect to communication
technology
Options:
A) National subscriber dialling

B) National School of defence technology
C) National system of dialling technology
Q167) In which year VSNL was formed

Options:
A) 1986
B) 1983
C) 1922
D) 1935
Q168) When was the national channel started up broadcast quality music.
Options:
A) 32281
B) 13288
C) 17305
D) 33742
Q169) Which of the following happened in 1976

Options:
A) Doordarshan was separate d from AIR
B) Doordarshan was separate d from FM
C) Color television was introduced in India
Q170) Which of the following is true about Prasar Bharati?

Options:
A) It is a television channel
B) It is newspaper
C) It is magazine
D) It is autonomous broadcasting Corporation
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Page

Q171) Community Radio is a type of radio service that caters to the interest of:
Options:
A) Local audience
B) Education
C) Entertainment
D) News
Q172) Orkut was a part of:
Options:
A) I ntra personal Communication
B) Mass Communication
D) Interpersonal Communication
Q173) Which is not correct in latest communication award?

Options:
A) Salman Rushdie Bookers Prize July 20, 2008
B) Dilip Sanghavi Business Standard CEO Award July 22, 2008
C) Tapan Sinha Dada Saheb Falke Award, July 21, 2008
D) Gautam Ghosh Osians Lifetime Achievement Award July 11, 2008
Q174) The first newspaper in India started in

Options:
A) Kolkata
B) Assam
C) Bangladesh
D) Chattagram
Q175) ON E of the following is NOT a purpose for which a notice of meeting is

sent to members of a meeting.
Options:
A) I nvite participants to an event
B) Inform participants prior to the take-off of an event
C) Inform participants after the take-off of an event
D) Give ample time for participants to plan to attend an event
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Q176) Which of the following states the three fundamental tools of a meeting?
Options:
A) Notice of Meeting, Chairmans Opening Remarks and Agenda
B) Notice of Meeting, Agenda and Minutes of Meeting
C) Agenda, Chairman's Opening Remarks and Chairmans Closing Remarks
D) Notice of Meeting, Chairman's Closing Remarks and Agenda
Q177) Generally in a communication the position of perception, retention and

recall will be
Options:
A) Like Channel variables B) Like dependent variable
C) Like destination variable D) None of the above
Q178) Which of the following is the responsibility of a messenger?

Options:
A) To encode the message B) To decline the message
C) To develop the message D) All of the above
reason (R) . Which one of the following is correct
Assertion (A)downward communication flows from superior to downward
Reason(R)downward communication helps in resolving conflicts
Options:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q180) Which of the following is responsible for decoding the message?

Options:
A) Se nder
B) Receiver
C) Channel
D) Adapter
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Q181) Which of the following is known as the biggest barrier of communication?

Options:
A) Noise
B) Bad words
C) Channel distortion
Q182) At present network, Akashvani comprises of how many broadcasting

centres
Options:
A) 197
B) 132
C) 120
D) 95
Q183) Communication with indigenous peoples

Options:
A) Is no different to communication with non-indigenous peoples.
B) Is inevitable when practicing as a health professional.
C) Requires the health professional to stereotype each indigenous person they
see.
D) Requires understanding of the complexity and diversity of cultural identity to
create cultural safety
Q184) Which of the following is NOT a type of technical report?

Options:
A) Research Report
B) Committee Report
C) Spectators Report of a football match
D) Investigative Report of Communal riot
Q185) ON E of the following is NOT a part of a technical report.

Options:
A) Title Page B) Table of Contents

C) Acknowledgement D) Invitation
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Q186) The reference section of a report does NOT have ONE of the following
features.
Options:
A) Authors names are arranged alphabetically

B) Titles of cited works are indicated in full
C) Year of publication for each entry is indicated
D) Acknowledgement
Q187) Which of the following is NOT included in the appendix section of a

report?
Options:
A) Conclusion
B) Maps
C) Questionnaire
D) Graphs
Q188) How many relay centres does Akashvani have

Options:
A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 15
Q189) Communication by using the Eyes is an example of

Options:
A) Non-verbal communication
B) Written communication
C) Verbal communication
Q190) Which of the following is responsible to change the messages into

symbols?
Options:
A) Decoding B) Encoding
C) Symbolic expression D) All of the above
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Q191) When did the radio broadcasting started in India

Options:
A) 1927
B) 1925
C) 1936
D) 1920
Q192) Which of the following places two privately owned transmitters placed
when AIR started in India?
Options:
A) Mumbai and Kolkata
B) Mumbai and Pune
C) Kolkata and Pune
D) Kolkata and Assam
Q193) When did Vividh Bharati started?

Options:
A) 1957 B) 1955
C) 1947 D) 1920
Q194) In which year FM became private organization?

Options:
A) July 6, 1999 B) July 6, 1997
C) July 6, 1995 D) July 6, 1993
Assertion (A): two way communication is not possible in the mass media
Reason (R): the message is conveyed, but the feedback is not immediate
Options:
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Page

Q196) Which of the following is known as important element of communication?

Options:
A) The sender and the receiver
B) The sender and the chairman
C) The receiver and the channel
D) The sender, Channel and receiver
Q197) For a teacher to be an effective communicator it is essential that
Options:
A) Teacher must start from the point from where the children are ready to learn
B) Teacher must use good teaching aid
C) The teacher must be a master in that subject
D) All of the above
Q198) A teacher should behave with the children

Options:
A) I ntellectually
B) Democratically
C) Autocratically
D) Morally
Q199) Suppose you are unable to follow a foreigners language. In this case,
communication of messages will be carried out through
Options:
A) Symbolic language
B) Body language
C) Screaming
Q200) Message is passing through the

Options:
A) Transmission wire
B) Channel
C) Transmission medium
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Q201) Which of the following is the meaning of communication according to

Hegons
Options:
A) Dialogue between two-persons

B) Interaction among two groups
C) Both A and B
Q202) The general appeal of a report is NOT dependent on ONE of the following.
Options:
A) Language choice
B) Language use
C) Format
D) Launching ceremony
Q203) Marketing communication in an organization is NOT directed at ONE of

the following.
Options:
A) Middlemen
B) Cons umers
C) Salesmen
D) Management
Q204) Which of the following is NOT a method of establishing and sustaining

marketing relations?
Options:
A) Press Release
B) Advertorial
C) Feature article
D) Force
Q205) Identify the correct sequence of newspaper format

Options:
A) Mast-head, headline, conclusion, body

B) Body, conclusion, headline, mast-head
655
C) Conclusion, headline, body, mast-head

D) Mast-head, headline, body, conclusion
Page

Q206) Match the following

Options:
A) A 2, B 3, C 1, D 4
B) A 3, B 2, C 1, D 4
C) A 4, B 3, C 1, D 2
D) A 3, B 2, C 4, D 1
Q207) Internet technology ISP means

Options:
A) I nternet service provider
B) Internet subscriber Porter
C) Internet subscriber provider
D) Internet system provider
Q208) Which of the following is the largest Internet service provider in India
Options:
A) VSNL
B) BSNL
C) NTML
D) Airtel
Q209) Where from the term communis m came from
Options:
A) Latin
B) Green
C) Roman
D) Persia
Q210) Which of the following is nature of communication

Options:
A) Process of exchange of ideas
B) A purposive process
C) A psychosocial process
656
D) All of the above

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Q211) Match the following

Options:
A) A 2, B 3, C 1, D 4 B) A 4, B 2, C 1, D 3
C) A 4, B 3, C 1, D 2 D) A 3, B 2, C 4, D 1
Q212) Cultural safety

Options:
A) Protects the culture of the health professional, keeping it safe.
B) Requires special places of safety that accommodate the relevant culture.
C) Requires understanding of your own culture, the culture of the health service
and the culture of the person seeking assistance.
D) All of the above.
Q213) Identify the correct sequence of news channels

Options:
A) Zee news, colours, Star plus, Al Jazeera
B) Zee news, ABP news, Al Jazeera, Times
C) CNBC, BBC, Star world, Sony
D) All of the above
Q214) Which of the following is not true about the types of oral communication?
A) Auditory communication is dependent on hearing
B) Idiolect is a language of an individual at a particular period in life
C) Monologue is a long utterance by many people simultaneously
Options:
A) Only A B) Only B
C) Only C D) all of the above
Q215) Which of the following is not a true statement about an oral

communication?
I)Oral communication provides an immediate feedback
II) Oral communication is more authentic than written communication
III) Oral communication is not frequently used in legal records
Options:
657
A) Both I and II B) Both I and III

C) Both II and III D) None of the above
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Q216) Which of the following is the barrier of communication?

Options:
A) Language barrier B) Physical barrier

C) Psychological barrier D) All of the above
Q217) In effective communication a long statement is considered as

Options:
A) Barrier B) Not a barrier to

C) Effective message D) Wrong message
Q218) Which of the following train disseminates scientific awareness in the

country?
Options:
A) Technological rail B) Scientific rail
C) Science and technology rail D) All of the above
Q219) Culturally appropriate communication is essential for effective

communication.
Options:
A) It requires the health professional to live in the country and speak the
language.
B) It is impossible for a health professional to be culturally competent so being
friendly and helpful will compensate.
C) If the health professional uses an interpreter they will achieve culturally
appropriate communication.
D) It requires awareness of cultural differences, sensitivity and openness to
these differences, and acknowledgement of the validity of the other culture.
Q220) To communicate easily and effectively with your readers, how many
number of principles communication are applied
Options:
A) Nine
B) Seven
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C) Eleven
D) Six
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Q221) A letter that completes a valid contract between a buyer and a seller is
called.
Options:
A) An order letter
B) An acknowledgment letter
C) An inquiry
D) A sales letter
Q222) Who enforced the vernacular press act?

Options:
A) Raymond Williams
B) Marshall Lyton
C) Queen Victoria
D) Lord Clive
Q223) Who among the following differentiated between Hot and Cold messages?
Options:
A) Raymond Williams
B) Marshall McLuhan
C) James Augustus
Q224) Which of the following is NOT an effective advertising media?

Options:
A) Bill boards
B) Television
C) Whisper
D) Internet
Q225) ON E of the following is NOT an example of an electronic media.

Options:
A) The internet
B) Newspapers
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C) Television
D) Cable network
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Q226) Which of the following is NOT an example of the print media?

Options:
A) Television
B) National Dailies
C) Metropolitan Dailies
D) Magazines
Q227) Which of the following is an important property for an effective

communicator?
Options:
A) The objective of communication
B) Thinking about the evaluation procedure
C) Both A and B
Q228) The ultimate objective of feedback in the process of communication is a

Options:
A) To bring some desirable changes in the process of communication

B) To understand about the messages
C) To understand the disadvantage of communication
D) All of the above
Q229) In discussion with small group, the students can interact with each other
in
Options:
A) Restricted environment
B) A more liberal environment
C) A fully restricted environment
Q230) Which committee was set up to re-examine the Prasar Bharati Act?
Options:
A) Se ngupta committee
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B) Changder committee
C) Ghosh committee
D) Pradhan committee
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Q231) A combination of document analysis, observations and interviews are

applied usefully in
Options:
A) Content analysis
B) Case study
C) Survey research
D) Field experiment
Q232) Which was the first Indian advertising agency?

Options:
A) I ndian advertising agency

B) Indian national advertising agency
C) national advertising agency
D) international advertising agency
Q233) Which of the following is the popular editing software for film/video?
Options:
A) Photoshop
B) Indesign
C) Final cut pro
D) VCD cutter
Q234) Which of the following is the most important step for an effective
communicator?
Options:
A) Determining objectives of communication

B) Identifying mediums of communication
C) Selecting the most suitable channel
D) All of the above
Q235) Culture includes

Options:
A) Values and beliefs.
B) Customs, traditions, values and desires.
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C) Ways of living and behaviour al habits.

D) Beliefs, values, spirituality, language, familial and social roles, artistic
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expression, food, non-verbal behaviour and remedies.

Q236) Family/person-centred practice is

Options:
A) Supported by all health professions.

B) A new concept that developed at the beginning of this century.
C) Only useful when working with children.
D) The use of a collaborative relationship to fulfil the needs and achieve the
goals of the person seeking assistance.
Q237) Which of the following media can be used effectively in large group
communications?
Options:
A) Television
B) Overhead Projector
C) Video
D) Computer
Q238) for providing evaluative feedback to students, the teacher should
Options:
A) Use correction, not criticism, in respect to inappropriate responses
B) Provide immediate feedback
C) Do not provide non-constructive comments for evaluating activities
D) All of these
Q239) Effective Communication takes place when

Options:
A) source is attractive and authoritarian
B) message design incorporates audience
C) modern communication technologies are used
D) receivers are passive recipient
Q240) According to Berlo, Communication has how many elements?

Options:
A) 4
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B) 3
C) 6
D) 5
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Q241) Communication word is derived from a verb of which language?

Options:
A) Latin
B) French
C) German
D) Italian
Q242) Which of the following is not a transmitting barrier?

Options:
A) Physical distraction
B) Emotional interference
C) Conflicting messages
D) Channel barrier

Options:
A) Communicator should have fine senses
B) Communicator should have tolerance power
C) Communicator should be soft spoke
D) Communicator should have good personality
Q244) Yahoo messenger is an......
Options:
A) application
B) on line transaction
C) virtual terminal
D) all of above
Q245) Encoding is
Options:
A) the formulation of messages in the communicators mind
B) the formulation messages in the receivers mind
C) coding of whole communication process
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D) none of these
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Q246) An effective communication does not require

Options:
A) change in speech pattern

B) appropriate gesture
C) mastery of content
D) handsome personality
Q247) Which of the following provides more freedoms to the communication to

interact?
Options:
A) Small group discussion
B) Using film projectors
C) Viewing countrywide classroom
D) Lecture by experts
Q248) Which one of the following is true about the communication?

Options:
A) it is dynamic in nature
B) It is constantly changing
C) It is shifting in response to the overall situation
D) All of the above
Q249) Which of the following methods of communication would be most effective

in classroom?
Options:
A) Lecture method
B) Multimedia method
C) Presenting written matter with the Lectures
D) Presenting written notes
Q250) Intimate communication comes under the heading of

Options:
A) intrapersonal communication
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B) interpersonal communication
C) group communication
D) None of these
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Q251) Feedback system is weakest in which of the following?

Options:
A) I nterpersonal Communication
B) Intrapersonal Communication
D) Mass Communication
Q252) Which of the following systematically discovers relations and interaction

among variables in real life situations such as school, factory, community etc?
Options:
A) Field experiments
B) Field study
C) Survey study
D) Ex-post factor study
Q253) Any effective communication system employs a feedback system order to

Options:
A) make the necessary modifications in the process.

B) Understand more about the content.
C) Find faults with the sender(teacher)
D) find faults with the receiver ( the students)
Q254) The most important aspect of communication-listening can be improved

by
Options:
A) making voice effective and impressive.
B) making communication material novel interesting and need based
C) making the full attention
D) All of these
Q255) Which of the following is an old form of communication?

Options:
A) Fire signals
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B) Radio Signals
C) Telegrams
D) None of these
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Q256) which of the following steps would you consider first as an effective
communicator?
Options:
A) Select the channels of communication
B) Plan the evaluation procedure
C) Specify the objectives of communication
D) Identify the various media for communication
Q257) Information and Communication Technology includes:

Options:
A) On line learning
B) Learning through the use of EDUSAT
C) Web Based Learning
D) All the above
Q258) if you invite personal friends and colleagues in your sons birthday party,
the procedure of invitation will be
Options:
A) Only personal invitation will be extended to most dear ones.
B) Only a specific group of teachers will be invited.
C) Extend invitation to all the teachers without any distinction.
D) You would invite all the personnel of the school.
Q259) Listening to a lecture is

Options:
A) information Listening
B) evaluative listening
C) emphatic Listening
D) none of these
Q260) As a chairman of UPSC while selecting a teacher you should, be

Options:
A) fair and impartial

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B) able to judge the personality of candidates

C) encouraging to those appearing for interview
D) All of these
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Q261) Teaching on TV is superior to class room instruction because

Options:
A) very large classes are made' possible and thus. it; is economically
advantageous
B) experts for teaching a difficult topic can be arranged and others can be
benefited from them
C) teaching materials can be filmed for reuse
D) All of these
Q262) following are the experimental learning activities adopted by a teacher.

Arrange them in cyclic order.
(i) Accommodation (ii) Converging (iii) Assimilation (iv) Diverging
Options:
A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
D) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
Q263) Listening is badly affected by

Options:
A) message overload-excess of listened material
B) high speed of speaking
C) a sizable hearing loss-physiological problem
D) all of the above
Q264) Which of the following methods of communication is the most effective?

Options:
A) presenting written material

B) presenting written material along with film projector
C) multi-media method
D) cannot be determine d
Q265) All are the components of listening except

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Options:
A) he aring B) attending-being attentive
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C) answering D) understanding and remembering

Q266) Better classroom management means

Options:
A) per group work and better interaction among pupils

B) prior preparation of teacher in the making of suitable aids
C) punctuality of the teachers in coming in the class and finishing the course in
time
D) All of these
Q267) All are the examples of the media of two way communication except
Options:
A) public meeting
B) padyatra
C) street plays
D) procession and rallies
Q268) Arrange the following activities of interaction in logical order

(i) Analysis of the work done (ii) Planning and preparation (iii) Presentation of
material (iv) Modification and improvement
Options:
A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
C) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
D) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Q269) Which of the following skills has the largest share in communication time
in schools/colleges?
Options:
A) Listening B) Reading
C) Writing D) Speaking
Q270) Which of the following teachers will you like most?

Options:
A) One who uses board occasionally

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B) One who uses chart and maps

C) One who uses film projector along with the proper use of the board
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D) One who uses motion picture as a last resort

Q271) The main purpose of evaluative listening is

Options:
A) to accept or reject an idea given to the listener

B) to evaluate the speaker's credibility and personality
C) both of above
D) none of these
Q272) CHEER stands for

Options:
A) Children Enrichment Education Through Radio
B) Child Health Education Electronic Recording
C) Children for Engineers and Energy Requirement
Q273) The most important aspect of communication listening, can be improved

by
Options:
A) making the attention fully paid

B) making the communicated material novel-interesting and need based
C) making voice effective and impressive
D) all of these
Q274) Educational TV was first introduced in India in the year

Options:
A) 1961
B) 1959
C) 1968
D) 1969
Q275) Which of the following cannot be a good way of communication in

promoting literacy among villagers?
Options:
A) Demonstration
669
B) Reading and writing

C) providing material on TV and film projector
D) Large group discussion
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Q276) A student helps a teacher to solve the problem while the teacher was
delivering the lecture. He was
Options:
A) an emphatic listener B) an evaluative listener
C) a realistic listener D) an informational listener
Q277) SITE stands for
Options:
A) System for International Technology and Engineering
B) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
C) South Indian Trade Estate
D) None of these
Q278) The process of communication enhances through

Options:
A) belongingness B) security and freedom to make choices
C) informality of meeting and avoidance of pressure
D) all of these
Q279) Visualization in the instructional process cannot increase

Options:
A) interest and motivation B) retention and adaptation
C) stress and boredom D) curiosity and concentration
Q280) The latest development in the hardware technology is the introduction of

Options:
A) FM channels B) Z channe ls
C) M channels D) Star channels
Q281) Software computer cannot be used

Options:
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A) for demonstration B) for reading and writing

C) as a systematic programmed learning techniques
D) as a machine for evaluating students progress
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Q282) Overhead projector is superior to short circuit TV in a classroom teaching

because
Options:
A) it is cheap and self devised
B) pictures in it may be shown in a desired sequence and with a minimum of
lost motion (material)
C) information presented though it is easily retained
D) it is easy to use
Q283) All of the following are the limitations of televised Instruction except
Options:
A) televised lesson moves at a fixed speed and thus cannot take the individual
differences of students into account
B) it does not permit the exchange of ideas between the teachers and taught
C) It does not properly help the students in making the materials clearly
understood.
D) experts consume much time in planning and preparation of the programme.
Q284) Which of the following groups of students can be most benefited

computer based education programme?
Options:
A) Small group of low IQ
B) Large group of moderate intelligence
C) Heterogeneous groups in IQ
D) All of the above
Q285) Which of the following is not a successful communicator?
Options:
A) One who presents material in a precise and clear way.
B) One who is able to adapt himself according to the language of the
communicate
C) One who knows a lot but is somewhat reserve in his attitude.
D) One who sometimes becomes informal before the receiver and develops
rapport
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Q286) Closed circuit television is useful

Options:
A) only for a restricted audience residing at a particular place

B) for large group communication
C) only for poor students of the class
Q287) Which of the following teachers will you like most?

Options:
A) a loving teacher
B) a teacher of highly idealist philosophy
C) a teacher who often amuses his students
D) a disciplined teacher
Q288) Televised educational programme is useful because

Options:
A) it can present the natural phenomenon of the world in natural form
B) it can magnify the microscopic forms of life and can be presented on TV
C) it affords the opportunity for large audience in the same auditorium or in
different locations to view it clearly
D) all of these
Q289) Noise is known as

Options:
A) transmitting barrier
B) receiving barrier
C) sender barrier
D) none of these
Q290) All are the examples of the media of two way communication except
Options:
A) public meeting
B) padyatra
672
C) street plays
D) procession and rallies
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Q291) A message is
Options:
A) what is actually transmitted

B) what a receiver actually receives
C) what a communication actually produces
D) None of these
Q292) A channel is
Options:
A) medium, which carries the message
B) an agent who which reacts on the behalf of receiver
C) an agent who encoded/decoded the receiver
D) All of the above
Q293) A good communicator is the one who offers to his audience:

Options:
A) plentiful of information
B) a good amount of statistics
C) concise proof
D) repetition of facts
Q294) Which of the following media can be used effectively in large group
communications?
Options:
A) Television
B) Overhead Projector
C) Video
D) Computer
Q295) The carrier of mass communication is known as

Options:
A) mass media
B) print media
673
C) electronic media
D) None of these
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Q296) The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a

digital atmosphere is referred to as:
Options:
A) online communication B) integrated media
C) digital combine D) convergence
Q297) Feedback is
Options:
A) immediate reaction of receiver
B) res ponse of receiver to communicator's message
C) analysis done by the receiver of the communicator's message
D) None of these
Q298) Which of the following is not a successful communicator?

Options:
A) One who presents material in a precise and clear way.
B) One who is able to adapt himself according to the language of the
communicate.
C) One who knows a lot but is somewhat reserve in his attitude
D) One who sometimes becomes informal before the receiver and develops
rapport.
Q299) Major limitation of mass communication is

Options:
A) it is very costly
B) the feedback system is weak
C) more time is required to produce the message
D) the success largely depends upon the producer
Q300) Which of the following steps would you consider first as an effective
communicator?
Options:
A) Select the channels of communication

674
B) Plan the evaluation procedure

C) Specify the objectives of communication
D) Identify the various media for communication
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Options:
A) On line learning
D) All the above
Q302) Communication satellites work through

Options:
A) transponders
B) transmitters
C) radars
D) None of these
Q303) Which of the following is an old form of communication?

Options:
A) Fire signals
B) Radio Signals
C) Telegrams
D) None of these
Q304) The most important aspect of communication-listening can be improved

by
Options:
A) making voice effective and impressive.
B) making communication material novel interesting and need based.
C) making the full attention
D) All of these
Q305) Any effective communication system employs a feedback system in order

to
Options:
A) make the necessary modifications in the process.

675
B) understand more about the content.

C) find faults with the sender (teacher)
D) find faults with the receiver ( the students)
Page

Q306) Which of the following systematically discovers relations and interaction

among variables in real life situations such as school, factory, community etc?
Options:
A) Field experiments
B) Field study
C) Survey study
D) Ex-post factor study
Q307) Which one of the following has the largest share in classroom
communication/
Options:
A) Listening
B) Reading
C) Writing
D) Speaking
Q308) "mm-hmm" is a type of . Feedback
Options:
A) ambiguous
B) positive
C) negative
D) Either (a) or ( c )
Q309) Which one of the following is true about the communication?

Options:
A) It is dynamic in nature
B) It is constantly changing
C) It is shifting in response to the overall situation
D) All of the above
Q310) Which of the following methods of communication would be most effective

in classroom?
Options:
676
A) Lecture method B) Multimedia method

C) Presenting written matter with the Lectures
D) Presenting written notes
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Q311) Intimate communication comes under the heading of

Options:
A) intrapersonal communication
B) interpersonal communication
C) group communication
D) None of these
Q312) An effective communication does not require

Options:
A) change in speech pattern
B) appropriate gesture
C) mastery of content
D) handsome personality
Q313) Which of the following provides more freedoms to the communication to

interact?
Options:
A) Small group discussion

B) Using film projectors
C) Viewing countrywide classroom
D) Lecture by experts

Options:
A) Communicator should have fine senses
B) Communicator should have tolerance power
C) Communicator should be soft spoken
D) Communicator should have good personality
Q315) Yahoo messenger is an ..

Options:
A) application
B) on line transaction
677
C) virtual terminal
D) all of above
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Q316) Encoding is
Options:
A) the formulation of messages in the communicator's mind

B) the formulation messages in the receiver's mind
C) coding of whole communication process
D) None of these
Q317) If a person replies like " I see " or 'mm-hmm' then it is known as
Options:
A) positive feedback
B) negative feedback
C) ambiguous feedback
D) None of these
Q318) According to Berlo, Communication has how many elements?

Options:
A) 4
B) 3
C) 6
D) 5
Q319) Communication word is derived from a verb of which language?
Options:
A) Latin
B) French
C) German
D) Italian
Q320) Which of the following is not a transmitting barrier?

Options:
A) Physical distraction
B) Emotional interference
C) Conflicting messages
678
D) Channel barrier
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Q321) Effective Communication takes place when

Options:
A) source is attractive and authoritarian

B) message design incorporates audience
C) modern communication technologies are used
D) receivers are passive recipient
Q322) One will be an effective communicator, if

Options:
A) he is a humorous speaker.
B) he has historic talent
C) he is very clear about what one communicates .
D) he communicates in one's mother tongue.
Q323) Which of the following magazines is not in Hindi medium?

Options:
A) Outlook
B) India Today
C) The Week
D) Maya
Q324) Characteristics of all informal and formal communications are
Options:
A) same
B) structured
C) different
D) None of these

Options:
A) diffusion
B) publicity
C) surveillance
679
D) diversion
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Q326) In communication, connotative words are

Options:
A) explicit
B) abstract
C) simple
D) cultural

Options:
A) static
B) dynamic
C) interactive
D) exploratory
Q328) Which of the following is not correct about instant messaging?

Options:
A) It is the most secure form of messaging.
B) There are chances of message being read by othe r.
C) Instant `messaging is possible between peer-to-peer systems too
D) Instant messaging also supports file transfer.
Q329) At which of the following frequency the communication will not be reliable
for a receiver beyond horizon?
Options:
A) 100 kHz
B) 100GHz
C) 1MHz
D) None of these
Q330) The process of communication enhances through

Options:
A) belongingness
B) security and freedom to make choices
680
C) informality of meeting and avoidance of pressure

D) all of these
Page

Q331) In classroom communication the topic or lesson is known as

Options:
A) message
B) channel
C) system
D) content
Q332) Which of the following cannot be a good way of communication in

promoting literacy among villagers?
Options:
A) Demonstration
B) Reading and writing
C) Providing material on TV and film projector
D) Large group discussion
Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) A, Q3) D, Q4) D,
Q5) D, Q6) A, Q7) C, Q8) D, Q9) B,
Q10) D, Q11) D, Q12) C, Q13) C, Q14) D,
Q15) A, Q16) C, Q17) A, Q18) A, Q19) D,
Q20) D, Q21) B, Q22) C, Q23) A, Q24) B,
Q25) A, Q26) D, Q27) A, Q28) D, Q29) A,
Q30) C, Q31) D, Q32) B, Q33) C, Q34) C,
Q35) C, Q36) A, Q37) A, Q38) C, Q39) D,
Q40) D, Q41) B, Q42) A, Q43) A, Q44) A,
Q45) D, Q46) B, Q47) B, Q48) D, Q49) D,
Q50) A, Q51) A, Q52) C, Q53) D, Q54) C,
Q55) A, Q56) C, Q57) A, Q58) B, Q59) A,
Q60) A, Q61) A, Q62) D, Q63) B, Q64) B,
Q65) D, Q66) A, Q67) C, Q68) D, Q69) D,
Q70) D, Q71) A, Q72) D, Q73) A, Q74) C,
Q75) B, Q76) C, Q77) B, Q78) A, Q79) A,
Q80) C, Q81) A, Q82) A, Q83) D, Q84) B,
Q85) B, Q86) C, Q87) A, Q88) A, Q89) D,
Q90) D, Q91) C, Q92) B, Q93) A, Q94) A,
Q95) A, Q96) C, Q97) C, Q98) A, Q99) A,
Q100) D, Q101) B, Q102) D, Q103) A, Q104) C,
Q105) D, Q106) B, Q107) A, Q108) A, Q109) B,
681
Q110) B, Q111) C, Q112) D, Q113) B, Q114) A,

Q115) D, Q116) A, Q117) B, Q118) C, Q119) C,
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Q120) A, Q121) B, Q122) D, Q123) D, Q124) C,

Q125) C, Q126) B, Q127) C, Q128) A, Q129) B,
Q130) C, Q131) D, Q132) D, Q133) A, Q134) C,
Q135) A, Q136) A, Q137) D, Q138) B, Q139) B,
Q140) B, Q141) A, Q142) C, Q143) D, Q144) A,
Q145) A, Q146) A, Q147) B, Q148) B, Q149) D,
Q150) B, Q151) C, Q152) A, Q153) B, Q154) B,
Q155) A, Q156) B, Q157) A, Q158) D, Q159) C,
Q160) D, Q161) C, Q162) D, Q163) D, Q164) A,
Q165) C, Q166) A, Q167) A, Q168) A, Q169) A,
Q170) D, Q171) A, Q172) C, Q173) D, Q174) A,
Q175) C, Q176) B, Q177) A, Q178) D, Q179) B,
Q180) B, Q181) A, Q182) A, Q183) D, Q184) C,
Q185) D, Q186) D, Q187) A, Q188) A, Q189) A,
Q190) B, Q191) A, Q192) A, Q193) A, Q194) C,
Q195) A, Q196) D, Q197) A, Q198) B, Q199) A,
Q200) B, Q201) C, Q202) D, Q203) D, Q204) D,
Q205) D, Q206) B, Q207) A, Q208) A, Q209) A,
Q210) D, Q211) B, Q212) C, Q213) B, Q214) C,
Q215) B, Q216) D, Q217) A, Q218) C, Q219) D,
Q220) B, Q221) B, Q222) B, Q223) B, Q224) C,
Q225) B, Q226) A, Q227) C, Q228) A, Q229) B,
Q230) A, Q231) D, Q232) A, Q233) C, Q234) A,
Q235) D, Q236) D, Q237) B, Q238) D, Q239) B,
Q240) A, Q241) A, Q242) B, Q243) A, Q244) D,
Q245) A, Q246) D, Q247) A, Q248) D, Q249) B,
Q250) B, Q251) D, Q252) B, Q253) A, Q254) D,
Q255) A, Q256) C, Q257) D, Q258) C, Q259) A,
Q260) D, Q261) D, Q262) B, Q263) D, Q264) C,
Q265) C, Q266) D, Q267) C, Q268) B, Q269) A,
Q270) C, Q271) C, Q272) A, Q273) D, Q274) A,
Q275) B, Q276) A, Q277) B, Q278) D, Q279) C,
Q280) A, Q281) A, Q282) B, Q283) C, Q284) D,
Q285) C, Q286) A, Q287) A, Q288) D, Q289) A,
Q290) C, Q291) B, Q292) A, Q293) A, Q294) B,
Q295) A, Q296) D, Q297) B, Q298) C, Q299) B,
Q300) C, Q301) D, Q302) A, Q303) A, Q304) D,
Q305) A, Q306) B, Q307) A, Q308) A, Q309) D,
Q310) B, Q311) B, Q312) D, Q313) A, Q314) A,
Q315) D, Q316) A, Q317) C, Q318) A, Q319) A,
Q320) B, Q321) B, Q322) C, Q323) A, Q324) C,
Q325) C, Q326) D, Q327) A, Q328) A, Q329) C,
Q330) D, Q331) D, Q332) B,
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UNIT 4
Reasoning
(Including mathematical)
683
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Reasoning
(I ncluding mathematical)
Alphabet Series:
Q1) Three words are given in this question, which have something in common
among themselves. Out of the four given alternatives, choose the most
appropriates choose the most appropriate descriptive about these three words.
Options:
A) They are endocrine glands
B) They are organs for fertilization in plants
C) They are excretory organs
D) They are reproductive organs
Q2) A, D, Z, E, Y, F?
Options:
A) w
B) v
C) x
D) u
Q3) cmw, hrb, ....., rbl, wgq, blv

Options:
A) mwg
B) lvf
C) lwg
D) mxg
Q4) DKY, F J W, HIU, J HS, .....

Options:
A) KGR
B) LF Q
C) KF R
684
D) LGQ
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Q5) OT E, P U F, QV G, RW H, .....
Options:
A) SY J
B) T XI
C) SXJ
D) SXI
Q6) 1725, 15X4, 3V 3,?, 9R1

Options:
A) 11T2
B) 11T 7
C) 14T2
D) 11T T
Q7) BXJ, ET L, HP N, KLP, .....

Options:
A) N HR
B) M HQ
C) M IP
D) None of these
Q8) P 3C, R5F, T 8I, V12L,
Options:
A) Y 17O
B) X 17M
C) X 17O
D) None of these
Q9) B, E, H,?
Options:
A) I
B) J
C) K
685
D) L
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Q10) G, H, J, M, ....., V
Options:
A) T
B) S
C) R
D) Q
Q11) Q, N, K,?, E
Options:
A) H
B) M
C) Z
D) I
Q12) BDGILN QS, .....

Options:
A) T V
B) V W
C) W X
D) V X
Q13) QP O, SRQ, U T S, W V U, .....
Options:
A) XV Z
B) ZY A
C) Y XW
D) V W X
Q14) CG, DI,?, IP, M U

Options:
A) F L
B) M N
C) F P
686
D) F Q
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Q15) AB, BA, ABD, DBA, P QRS,?

Options:
A) SRQP
B) M N OI
C) PQRM
D) None of these
Q16) . ....., siy, oeu, kaq, gwm, csi

Options:
A) wnb
B) vne
C) vme
D) None of these
Q17) D 4, F 6, H 8, J 10
Options:
A) K 12, M 13
B) L 12, M 14
C) L 12 , N 14
D) K 12, N 14
Q18) What will be the next letter in the following series? DCXW, FEVU, HGTS
Options:
A) AKPO
B) JBYZ
C) JIRQ
D) LMRS
Q19) There are five books A, B, C, D and E. The book C lies above D, the book E
Options:
A) E
B) B
687
C) A
D) C
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Q20) What will be the next term in the following? DCXW, FEVU, HGTS,?
Options:
A) AKPO
B) ABYZ
C) JIRQ
D) LMRS
Q21) BEH, DGJ, (?), EJO, GLQ, INS,?

Options:
A) FLR
B) FIS
C) FKO
D) FIL
Q22) APZLT, CQYNR, ERXPP, GSWRN,?

Options:
A) KVIJUJ
B) JUUVK
C) ITVTL
D) KUUVJ
Q23) RAP, MAP, HOT FUN,?
Options:
A) HNE
B) PGI
C) STN
D) CAT
Q24) ZBAY, JRQI, OMLN, YCBX,?

Options:
A) DXWC
B) XCBY
C) VDEW
688
D) FUVE
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Q25) CWE, FQH, RDI,?

Options:
A) XBZ
B) TGU
C) MCO
D) FUT
Q26) J, F, M, A, M,?
Options:
A) M
B) J
C) D
D) S
Q27) C, E, H, L, Q,?
Options:
A) R
B) W
C) U
D) X
Q28) H, V, G, T, F, R, E, P,?
Options:
A) K, L
B) D, N
C) C, D
D) L, K
Q29) EV, JQ, OL,?

Options:
A) TH
B) TG
C) FT
D) US
689
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Q30) prt ......... bdf , hjl , npr

Options:
A) uwy
B) vya
C) vxz
D) axy
Q31) KPA, LQB, MRC, NSD, ......

Options:
A) I JOT
B) OTE
C) EOT
D) TOE
Q32) ADG, GJM

Options:
A) NOT
B) MOQ
C) MPS
D) WTO
Q33) ab_a_b_ aab_a
Options:
A) babb
B) aaba
C) abba
D) baab
Q34) AZA, BYB, CXC?

Options:
A) DXD
B) DXM
C) DWD
690
D) None of these
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Q35) NMO, RQS, VUW, ZYA,?

Options:
A) DCE
B) BCD
C) ECD
D) FCD
Q36) PAT, PEN, PIN, POT?

Options:
A) PIG
B) PET
C) PUT
D) POT
Q37) A/2, B/4, C/6, D/8

Options:
A) E/12, F/14
B) E/10, F/12
C) D/10, E/10
D) E/8, F/10
Q38) DCXW, FEVU, GHTS, JIRQ,?
Options:
A) LKPO
B) ABYZ
C) J1RQ
D) LMRS
Q39) BYW, DUX, FQY, ...

Options:
A) HZM
B) HCZ
C) HMZ
691
D) None of these
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Q40) a......ca......bc......bcc.......bca
Options:
A) bbab
B) baba
C) aabb
D) bbaa
Q41) BAS,?, DCQ, DDP, FEO

Options:
A) CBT
B) ABR
C) BCT
D) BBR
Q42) BAZ, DCY, FEX,?

Options:
A) FXW
B) EFX
C) FEY
D) HGW
Q43) C-3, E-6, G-12, I -24, K-48,?
Options:
A) S-48
B) M-96
C) L-96
D) O-48
Q44) eject, elect, epic, flower, fluent,?

Options:
A) select
B) dirty
C) dummy
692
D) flush
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Q45) cba _cb _cb _c_

Options:
A) caab
B) cbca
C) cbac
D) None of these
Q46) A, K, E, O, I S, .Q A, U E.
Options:
A) I V
B) M W
C) N X
D) IW
Q47) N D, I Y, D T, Y O, T J,
Options:
A) M P
B) N Q
C) O F
D) OE
Q48) P R T, B D F, H J L, N P R
Options:
A) U W Y
B) V Y A
C) X Z B
D) V X Z
Q49) B D, FH, JL, NP,

Options:
A) SV
B) SU
C) RT
693
D) QS
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Q50) AC, FH, KM, PR,

Options:
A) SU
B) TV
C) VW
D) UW
Q51) KPA, LQB, MRC, NSD,

Options:
A) TOE
B) OET
C) ETO
D) OTE
Q52) E JO, T Y D, I N S, X C H,
Options:
A) N R W
B) M S X
C) M R W
D) N S X
Q53) GTZ, FSY, ERX, DQW,
Options:
A) CVP
B) CPV
C) VCP
D) VPC
Q54) EPV, FQW, GRX, HSY,

Options:
A) I TZ
B) IUZ
C) JIZ
694
D) IRZ
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Q55) ADG, GJM,

Options:
A) MOR
B) GKO
C) MPS
D) WTQ
Q56) WTQ, QNK,

Options:
A) KNQ
B) KI G
C) EHK
D) KHE
Q57) GR, IP, KN, ML,

Options:
A) OJ
B) QG
C) OK
D) SF
Q58) PON, RQP, TSR, VUT,
Options:
A) WUY
B) YXZ
C) XWV
D) UVW
Q59) ABY, CEY, FIY, JNY, ..

Options:
A) TVY
B) ORY
C) OPY
695
D) OTY
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Q60) CE, FI, JL, MP, QS,

Options:
A) TVY
B) XY
C) WY
D) TW
Q61) UV, QR, MN, IJ,

Options:
A) GH
B) CD
C) EF
D) AB
Q62) CX, FU, I R, .. OL, RI.

Options:
A) LO
B) MN
C) NO
D) OP
Q63) .ZXV, FDB, LJH, RPN.
Options:
A) YWV
B) AYV
C) TRP
D) LZX
Q64) .SIY, OEU, KAQ, GWM, CSI.

Options:
A) WNC
B) WN B
C) VNC
696
D) WMC
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Q65) AKU, FPZ, PZJ, UEO, ZJT.

Options:
A) KUE
B) JTD
C) JUE
D) KVE
Q66) DEB, I JG, NOL, XVY.

Options:
A) RSP
B) STP
C) RSQ
D) STQ
Q67) CED, IHG, LKM, UTS

Options:
A) NPO
B) ORQ
C) OQP
D) QRO
Q68) RNP, TPR, V
Options:
A) YP
B) BY
C) DZ
D) RT
Q69) HGF, KJI, N.

Options:
A) IP
B) OQ
C) PR
697
D) ML
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Q70) AR, CS, ET,

Options:
A) WY
B) XZ
C) GU
D) VB
Q71) AB DEF HIJK? STUVWX

Options:
A) MNOPQ
B) LMNOP
C) LMNO
D) QRST
Q72) G H J M? V
Options:
A) T
B) S
C) R
D) Q
Q73) BCYXEFVU
Options:
A) H, I
B) R, R
C) I, J
D) S, T
Q74) ZXVTR
Options:
A) O, K
B) N, M
C) K, S
698
D) P, N
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Q75) C, E, G, I, K,
Options:
A) O, K
B) M, O
C) K, M
D) M, K
Q76) A/2, B/4, C/6, D/8,

Options:
A) E/16, F/32
B) F/32, I /14
C) F/12, E/16
D) E/10, F/12
Q77) C-3, E-5, G-7, I-9, ..

Options:
A) X-24, M-21
B) K-11, M-13
C) O-15, X-24
D) M-18, K-14
Q78) AZXBVTCR
Options:
A) P, D
B) E, O
C) Q, E
D) O, Q
Q79) Q, L, E, C,
Options:
A) B, A
B) I, G
C) A, G
699
D) H, B
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Q80) A, CD, GHI,? , UVWXY

Options:
A) LMNO
B) MNO
C) NOPQ
D) NOP
Q81) AZ, BY, CX,?

Options:
A) EF
B) GH
C) DE
D) DW
Q82) B, F, K, Q,
Options:
A) X
B) R
C) T
D) Y
Q83) BG, GC, HN, N
Options:
A) D
B) J
C) I
D) H
Q84) B, A, Z, D, C, Y, F, E,
Options:
A) W
B) X
C) U
700
D) G
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Q85) X, U, R, O, L,
Options:
A) M
B) J
C) K
D) I
Q86) BA, YZ, DC, WX,

Options:
A) DE
B) EF
C) FE
D) FG
Q87) DCXW, FEVU, HGTS

Options:
A) LKPO
B) ABYZ
C) JIRQ
D) LMRS
Q88) aba-ab-b--ba-
Options:
A) aaab
B) baba
C) baab
D) abbb
Q89) ab-a-b-a-bba
Options:
A) aaab
B) baba
C) abba
701
D) baab
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Q90) -bc-ca-aba-c-ca
Options:
A) abbcc
B) bacba
C) bbbcc
D) abcbb
Q91) a-bb-baa-bbb-aa
Options:
A) baabb
B) bbaab
C) abaab
D) aabba
Q92) a-cb-bc-ca-ab-b
Options:
A) abcca
B) bcaca
C) bcbba
D) cabbc
Q93) ab-aabb--bb-
Options:
A) abbb
B) abab
C) baba
D) baaa
Q94) -bc-bb-aabc
Options:
A) abab
B) babc
C) acac
702
D) aacc
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Q95) ab-bc-c-ba-c
Options:
A) baac
B) caab
C) aaab
D) aabba
Q96) aa-bb-aa-abbbb-a
Options:
A) bbaa
B) aabb
C) baba
D) abab
Q97) a-cbabc-cb-ab-c
Options:
A) caba
B) acab
C) abab
D) baca
Q98) a-aba-ab-bab-b
Options:
A) abab
B) bbaa
C) aabb
D) babb
Q99) ab-bcbca--c- bab

Options:
A) abcc
B) acbc
C) baaa
703
D) ccaa
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Q100) ab-cbb-a-cca-ba
Options:
A) ccab
B) bbca
C) acbc
D) aacb
Q101) a-cacbc-baca--b
Options:
A) cacb
B) babc
C) abac
D) baba
Q102) a-ca-bc-bcc-bca
Options:
A) bbab
B) baba
C) aabb
D) bbaa
Q103) a-baccaba-aab-cca-aa-a-ac
Options:
A) ababab
B) aabbab
C) aaabab
D) abbaba
Q104) ab-dca-bdc-a-da-ab- d
Options:
A) dbcbbc
B) cbddbc
C) ccdbcd
704
D) cdbbcc
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Q105) bc-aa-dab- dab-ca-c-d

Options:
A) dcbcbd
B) cdbdcb
C) dccbcd
D) cddbdb
Q106) ab-ccc- dddbcc- ddaa-acdd-aab-bb

Options:
A) abdaab
B) dbdaba
C) bddaab
D) baddab
Q107) a-abbb-ccccd-ddccc-bb-ba
Options:
A) abcda
B) abdbc
C) abdcb
D) abcad
Q108) adb-ac-da-cddcb-dbc-cbda
Options:
A) bccba
B) cbbaa
C) ccbba
D) bbcad
Q109) a-cdaab-cc- daa-bbb-ccddd

Options:
A) bdbda
B) bddca
C) dbbca
705
D) bbdac
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Q110) PAT, PEN, PIN, PUT,?

Options:
A) PIG
B) PET
C) PUT
D) POT
Q111) M P K R I T?
Options:
A) U
B) V
C) W
D) G
Q112) Fill in the missing member in the sequence:

Aunt, brother, daughter.mother, son.
Options:
A) father
B) nie ce
C) sister
D) uncle
Q113) If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following
numbers stand for 17, 19, 20, 9, and 8:
Options:
A) PLANE
B) MOPED
C) MOTOR
D) TONGA
Q114) Which of the following options will complete the series? AZ, GT, MN,? ,
YB.
Options:
706
A) KF B) RX
C) SH D) TS
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Q115) In the following sequence find the last term. A, D, Z, E, Y, F?

Options:
A) W
B) V
C) X
D) U
Q116) AGARTALA is written in code as 14168171 , the code for AGRA is

Options:
A) 1641
B) 1416
C) 1441
D) 1461
Q117) Find the last member of the following series AG ms BH nt CI??

Options:
A) uy
B) ou
C) jk
D) uo
Q118) A, CD, GHI,?, UVWXY
Options:
A) LMNO
B) PRSQ
C) NOPQ
D) NOPM
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Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) C,
Q3) A, Q4) B, Q5) B, Q6) A, Q7) A,
Q8) C, Q9) C, Q10) D, Q11) A, Q12) D,
Q13) C, Q14) A, Q15) A, Q16) D, Q17) C,
Q18) C, Q19) B, Q20) C, Q21) D, Q22) C,
Q23) D, Q24) A, Q25) C, Q26) B, Q27) B,
Q28) B, Q29) B, Q30) C, Q31) B, Q32) C,
Q33) A, Q34) C, Q35) A, Q36) C, Q37) B,
Q38) A, Q39) C, Q40) D, Q41) D, Q42) D,
Q43) B, Q44) D, Q45) A, Q46) B, Q47) D,
Q48) D, Q49) C, Q50) D, Q51) D, Q52) C,
Q53) B, Q54) A, Q55) C, Q56) D, Q57) A,
Q58) C, Q59) D, Q60) D, Q61) C, Q62) A,
Q63) C, Q64) D, Q65) A, Q66) D, Q67) C,
Q68) D, Q69) D, Q70) C, Q71) A, Q72) D,
Q73) A, Q74) D, Q75) B, Q76) D, Q77) C,
Q78) A, Q79) D, Q80) A, Q81) D, Q82) A,
Q83) C, Q84) B, Q85) D, Q86) C, Q87) C,
Q88) C, Q89) B, Q90) D, Q91) C, Q92) B,
Q93) D, Q94) C, Q95) B, Q96) A, Q97) D,
Q98) B, Q99) D, Q100) A, Q101) B, Q102) D,
Q103) C, Q104) D, Q105) A, Q106) C, Q107) C,
Q108) B, Q109) D, Q110) C, Q111) D, Q112) C,
Q113) B, Q114) C, Q115) C, Q116) D, Q117) B,
Q118) D,
Explanations:
Q18) First two letter is the difference of +2 i.e. next 2 character

and last two character is difference of -2 character i.e. previous 2.
Therefore After HG TS --> JI RQ
Q19) According to distribution the order is top to bottom is C, D, A, E, B, So B is
at bottom.
Q20) in a given series First 2 letter is next 2 Alphabets

and next 2 letter is previous 2 Alphabet.
Therefore After HG TS ---> JI RQ"
Q21) There are two series BEH, DGJ, FIL and EJO, GLQ, INS. The first letter in
every group of the series comes after a gap of one letter, i.e., B, D, F, and the
second and third letters of each group have the same sequence, i.e., EGI and
HJL. Same is the case with the second series.
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Q22) The first letter in every group is ascending in the order of ACEGI. The
second letter in every group is also ascending in the order of PQRST, the third
letter in every group is des cending in the order of ZYXWV, fourth letter in every
group is ascending in the order of LNPRT and the last letter in every group is
descending with a gap of one letter, i.e., TRPNL
Q23) a, e, i, o, u are vowels and there is a vowel consonant relationship in every
group of the series.
Q24) Assign the numerical value of ZBAY, as 1, 2, 3, 4 we get

1st Term
ZBAY
26 2 1 25
2nd Term
JRQI
10 18 17 9
(+10) (+5) (+5) (+10) (going in forward direction)
following this formula we get DXWC"
Q25) Add the alphabetic numerical value of each letter in the group and the n
sum up the unit and tens which is equal to four everywhere,
i.e., CWE = 3 + 23 + 5 = 31 which is equal to 3 + 1= 4, FQH = 6 + 17 + 8 = 31 (3
+ 1) = 4 and so on
Q26) The series contains the first letter of the months of the year in continuity
Q27) There is an increasing trend in the gaps of various letters in the series, i.e.,
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 etc. So Q + 5 = W
Q28) There are two series H, G, F, E, D, C and V, T, R, P, N, L. The first has no
gap but the second has a gap of one letter in descending order.
Q29) E is fifth from beginning of the alphabet and V is fifth from the end.
Similarly J is tenth from the beginning and Q is 10th from the end and the same
rule is followed in the other pairs of the series.
Q30) There is a gap of one letter in every letter of the group. Moreover, every
second group of the series starts after a gap of one letter, i.e., after prt, we see
vxz.
Q31) The first letter of every group is in alphabetical order, i.e., KLMNO. Same is
the case with II and III letters of the group. Such as PQRST and ABCDE
Q32) The first letter of every group is the last letter of the preceding group with a
gap of two letters in every member of the group, i.e., after ADG we see GJM.
Q33) The letters group abba is repeated three times.
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Q35) Every next term in the series starts with a gap of one letter along with
some change in the sequence of letters such as, NMO, is for MNO, RQS, is for
QRS and so on.
Q36) The middle letters which are vowels have an increasing trend of A, E, I, 0,
U etc.
Q37) Letters are in alphabetical order with numerical difference order of 2, 4, 6,
8, 10, 12, 14 etc.
Q38) Start reading from CD, EF, GH, IJ, KL and then QR, ST, UV, WX, YZ and
so on after splitting the groups.
Q39) Divide each member of series in this way
B D F H and so on one gap in ascending order.
Y U Q M and so on three gap in descending order
WX Y Z and so on no gap in ascending order

Q40) There are three groups in the series abcab, bcabc cabca .
Q41) Last letter in every group is falling down, i.e., SRQPO. The middle one is
increasing, i.e., ABCDE and the first letter has two pairs, BB and DD.
Q42) The third, sixth and ninth letters are in the reverse order of the alphabet
i.e., Y, X, W. Ist fourth and seventh letters are going up with a gap of one letters
and II, V and 8th also have a gap of one letter.
Q43) There is a gap of one letter in all the alphabets and numbers are doubling
Q44) These are meaningful words which are according to the order of the
dictionary.
Q45) The series is cbac, cbac, cbac, cbac.

Q46) There is a gap of three letters between the first letters of each group and
there is also a gap of three letters between the second letters of each group.
Q47) Four letters are left between the first letters of each group in reverse order
and four alphabets are left between second letters of each group in reverse
order.
Q48) One letter is left between the first and second letters and second and third
letters of each group. Besides one alphabet is also between the last letter of each
group and the first letter of next group.
Q49) One letter is left between the first and second letters of each group and
also one letter is left between the last letter of each group and the first letter of
the next group.
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Q50) One letter is left between the first and second letters of each group and
also two letters are left between the last letter of each group and the first letter
of next group.
Q51) First letters of each group are in alphabetical order. Like this, the second
and third letters of each group are also in alphabetical order.
Q52) There is a gap of four letters between the first and the second, the second
and the third letter of each group and the re is also a gap of four letters between
the last letter of one group and the first letter of next group.
Q53) First letters of each group are in reverse order. Similarly the second and
third letters are in reverse order.
Q54) First letters of each group are in alphabetical order. Similarly the second
the third letters are in alphabetic order.
Q55) There is a gap of two letters between the 1 st and 2 nd , and 2 nd and 3 rd
letter of each group. Besides, the last letter of each group and the first letter of
the next group is same.
Q56) Two letters are left in reverse other between the 1 st and 2nd and also
between 2nd and 3rd letter of each group. Besides, the last letter of each group
and the first letter of next group is same.
Q57) One letter is left between the first letters of each group while one letter is
left in reverse order between the 2nd letters of each group.
Q58) One letter is left between the first lette rs of each group. The same is with
the second and third letters of each group.
Q59) There is a gap of 1, 2, 3, letters respectively between the first letters of

first and second group, second and third group, third and fourth groups etc.
there is a gap of 2, 3, 4, letters respectively between the first and second
group, second and third group, third and fourth groups etc. besides, the third
letter of each group is 'Y'.
Q60) One letter is left between both the letters of first group. Two letters are left
between the letters of second group. Again one letter is left between both the
letters of third group. This order is repeated further. Besides, the last letter of
each group and the first letter of next group are in alphabetical order.
Q61) Both the letters of each group are in alphabetical order. Besides, three
letters are left in reverse order between the first letters of each group.
Q62) Two letters are left between the first letters of each group and two letters
are also left in reverse order between the second letters of each group.
Q63) One letter is left in reverse order between the two consecutive letters of
711
each group.
Q64) There is a gap nine in reverse order between the two consecutive letters of
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each group.
Q65) There is a gap of four letters between the first letters of each group. The
same is with the other letters of each group.
Q66) There is a gap of four letters between the first letters of each group. The
same is with the other letters of each group.
Q67) There letters are left between the first letter of each group and the last
letter of next group.
Q68) One letter is left between the first letters of each group, the other two
letters of each group are also in this order.
Q69) All the letters of the group are in reverse alphabetical order.
Q70) One letter is left between the first letters of each group but second letters
of each group are in order.
Q71) One letter is left between the last letter of each group and the first letter of
next group. Besides this one letter is added as we proceed further in each group.
The letters of each group are in alphabetical order.
Q72) There is no gap between the first two letters. One letter is left between the
second and third letter. While two letters are left between third and fourth letter.
This order is repeated further.
Q73) First two letters are in alphabetical order while the next two letters are in
reverse order. Besides this, one letter is missing between the second and fifth
letters.
Q74) The letters are in reverse order while one letter is missing between two
consecutive letters.
Q75) There is a gap of one letter between two consecutive letters. Besides, this
the letters are capital and small respectively.
Q76) The letters are in alphabetical order while the number 2, 4, 6, etc.
Q77) If A=2, and Z=52 according to the number of alphabet. Then, A B C D ,
W, X, Y, Z. 2, 4, 6, 8, 46, 48, 50, 52.
Q78) First, fourth, and seventh letters are in alphabetical order while next two
letters are in reverse order in which one letter is missing.
Q79) Letters are in reverse order in which from the last 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4 letters
missing between two consecutive letters.
Q80) There are two letters in second term and one letter is missing between the
letter of first term and the first letter of second term. There are 3 letters in third
term and two letters are missing between the first letter of third term and last
letter of second term and so on.
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Q81) The first letters of each group are in alphabetical order while second letters
are in reverse alphabetical order.
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Q82) Three letters are missing between B and F, 4 letters are missing between F
and K and 5 letters are missing between K and Q.
Q83) The first letter of first term and the second letter of the second term are in
alphabetical order. Hence , the first letter of third term and second letter of the
fourth term should be in alphabetical order.
Q84) Third, sixth and the ninth letters of the series are in reverse order of
alphabet.
Q85) Two letters are missing between two consecutive letters of the series.
Q86) Both letters of each term in the series are two continuous letters but in
first term they are in reverse order while in second term they are in direct order
and so on.
Q87) First two letters of each term are in reverse order, Similarly third and
fourth letters are also in reverse order. Besides this, second letter of the second
term is the next letter after the first letter of the first term.
Q88) a b is repeated six times in the series.
Q89) a b b a is repeated three times in the series.
Q90) There is a repetition of a b c , b c a, c a b in the series.
Q91) The series is a a b b b b , a a a a b b b b a a.

Q92) The series is a b c, b c b, c bc, a b a, b a b.
Q93) a b b a is repeated 3 times in the series.
Q94) The series is a b c, c a b, b c a, a b c i.e. it is in cyclic order.
Q95) The series is a b c, b c a, c a b, a b c i.e. it is in cyclic order.
Q96) a a b b , b b a a is repeated 2 times in the series.

Q97) The series is a b c b a, b c a c b, c a b a c in cyclic order.
Q98) a b is repeated 7 times in the series.
Q99) The series is abcbc, bcaca, cabab.
Q100) The series is abccb, bcaac, cabba.
Q101) The series is abcac, bcaba, cabcb.

Q102) The series is abcab, bcabc, cabca.
Q103) a a b a c c ab a a is repeated in the series.
Q104) The series formed is abcd, dabc, cdab, bcda, abcd in which the last letter
713
of the first sequence becomes the first letter of the second sequence.
Q105) The series formed is bcdaa, cdabb, dabcc, abcdd, which is in cyclic order.
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Q106) The series formed is abbcccdddd, bccdddaaaa, cddaaabbbb which is in

cyclic order.
Q107) The series formed is: aaa bbbb cccc dddd cccc bbbb a in which each
letter is repeated 4 times.
Q108) The series formed is: a d b c a c b d a b c d d c b a d b c a c b d a in
which the letters equidistant from the beginning and end are the same.
Q109) The series formed is: abcd, aabbccdd, aaabbb, cccddd in which each
letter of first sequence is repeated two times in second sequence and 3 times in
third sequence.
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Best Reason Test:
Q1) People wear goggles because
Options:
A) they protect their eyes from dazzling light B) they conceal their eyes
C) by it they look handsome D) they see better by it
Q2) An educated wife is useful because

Options:
A) she is more beautiful than others B) she is perfect housewife
C) she can earn by getting job D) she is faithful
Q3) Policeman wears a uniform because

Options:
A) it is provided by government free of cost B) it scares the criminals

C) he can be easily recognized D) it keeps him smart
Q4) A deaf is always dumb because

Options:
A) he is born so B) ear is internally connected to throat

C) deaf and dumb are synonyms
D) speaking is learnt by hearing from others
Q5) Farmers use manure in their fields because

Options:
A) it kills the germs of the soil
B) it helps in maintaining the fertility of the soil
C) the government advises to do so D) it is their traditional practice.
Q6) Children should avoid smoking because
Options:
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A) it is a bad habit B) elders advise them not to do so

C) it is an unnecessary expenditure D) it is injurious for health
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Q7) Children like to read comics because

Options:
A) they teach morals B) it is the cheapest means of recreation
C) they make the children laugh D) they contain amusing pictures
Q8) A reporter says the number of bus accidents is more than that of car
accidents, the number of car accidents is less than that of bus accidents. Which
of the following conclusion can be drawn the report?
Options:
A) There are more buses on the road than trucks
B) Truck drivers are very careless
C) There are more trucks than cars on the road
D) None of these
Q9) In a game of cards, moves are to be made according to the moves already
made the opponent and on the basis of the cards left with the opponent. Which
traits are most important for success in this?
Options:
A) Ability to opponent's move B) Memory
C) Chance D) Concentrated attention on one's own move
Q10) Platinum is more costly than silver because it is

Options:
A) he avier B) whiter
C) rarely found D) harder
Q11) People use rubber soles in their shoes because

Options:
A) they are fashionable B) rubber is more porous than leather
C) they produce less sound D) they are durable
Q12) During a year the sale proceeds of a cooperative milk society was Rs.41,
000. During the next year the sales increased was Rs.59, 000. It is claimed that
there was 50% increase in the sale proceeds of the milk handled by it. The
members of the society will benefit proportionately only if
Options:
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A) the quality of milk had been maintained

B) price stability had been maintained C) expenditure had decreased
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D) expenditure of the society had not increased.

Q13) Snakes and hawks are predators of mice in a field. Dogs which also feed
on mice are brought on the scene. What will be the immediate result?
Options:
A) Decrease in the number of snakes and hawks
B) Decrease in the number of dogs
C) Decrease in the number of mice
D) Increase in the number of snakes
Q14) There are five persons who witness an accident. But the accused involved
argues that he can produce 50 persons instead of five who can say that they did
not see him causing the accident. The argument of the thief will not hold
because
Options:
A) respondent's side always fake witnesses
B) the offence has to be proved only on the basis of authenticity of evidence, not
on the basis of number of witnesses
C) witness is required to prove his guilt
D) an accused is always unreliable
Q15) Wet clothes dry quickly on a dry day than on a rainy day because-
Options:
A) breeze blows rapidly during the dry days
B) the sun does not rise on a rainy day
C) wet clothes absorb the moisture of air on a rainy day
D) the air is more moist on a rainy day than on a dry day
Q16) Ice floats on water because

Options:
A) it is transparent B) it is spongy
C) its weight is less than the weight of water of equal volume
D) it is a substance which melts quickly
Q17) Mr. is not interested in Mr. because
Options:
A) Mr. is a poor man B) Mr. has no good manners
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C) Mr. is black D) Mr. is a short man

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Q18) Every nation must maintain an army because

Options:
A) it will be helpful to reduce the population of the nation

B) it is essential for defence of the nation
C) it will increase the strength of the people
D) it will be helpful in expansion the empire.
Q19) Science research scholars wear aprons because

Options:
A) aprons mark them out as members of that department
B) aprons indicate a sign of scholarship
C) aprons keep them smart
D) aprons keep their dresses safe
Q20) Fire brigade buses are of red colour because

Options:
A) red colour indicates the sign of danger

B) red colour is officially recommended by the department
C) they should look promine nt out of all buses
D) red colour is durable
Q21) Now-a-days many young people use high heeled shoes because
Options:
A) these shoes increase the heights of the young people
B) it comes under fashion
C) it is safer them to wear these types of shoes
D) they practice to balance their bodies after wearing such shoes
Q22) Ge nerally the patients of blood pressure visit the hill stations because
Options:
A) it is pleasure some to enjoy the environment

B) cold weather is favourable for the patients of blood pressure
C) they are advised by the physicians to do so
D) atmospheric pressure decreases with the height from sea level
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Q23) In summer people want to wear light colored dress because

Options:
A) in this dress they look very smart

B) they will be safe against the excess of heat
C) the light colored material is cheap
D) light colour dress absorbs the external heat
Q24) Ladies wear ornaments so that

Options:
A) they can conceal their defects
B) they can prevent theft of their ornament
C) they may feel to be lucky
D) they look beautiful
Q25) The man is your good friend if

Options:
A) he always praises you
B) he helps you by money
C) he helps you in the time of your trouble
D) he always live with you
Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) B, Q3) C, Q4) D, Q5) B,

Q6) D, Q7) D, Q8) D, Q9) B, Q10) C,
Q11) B, Q12) D, Q13) C, Q14) B, Q15) D,
Q16) C, Q17) B, Q18) B, Q19) D, Q20) C,
Q21) B, Q22) C, Q23) B, Q24) D, Q25) C,
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Mathematical Ability Test:
Q1) If an article is sold for Rs. 178 at a loss of 11%; What would be its selling
Options:
A) Rs 222.50
B) Rs. 267
C) Rs. 222
D) Rs. 220
Q2) When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the
Options:
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
Q3) Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1, 040.
They used it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are the charges paid by Y?
Options:
A) RS 290
B) RS 320
C) RS 360
D) RS 440
Q4) A, B, C, D and E distribute some cards among themselves in a manner that

A gets one less than B; C gets 5 more than D; E gets 3 more than B while D gets
as many as b. who gets the least number of cards?
Options:
A) B
B) C
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C) D
D) A
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Q5) How many numbers from 1 to 100 are such each which is divisible by 8 and
whose at least one digit is 8?
Options:
A) Four
B) Zero
C) Eight
D) Six
Q6) The minimum number of colours required to paint all the sides of a cube so
that no two adjacent faces may have the same colour, is
Options:
A) Six
B) Three
C) Four
D) Two
Q7) There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. There spiders A, B
and C start of climb on these pillars simultaneously. In one chance A climbs on
X by 5 cm but slips down 1 cm. B climbs on Y 6 cm but slips down 3 cm. C
climbs on Z 7 cm but slips down 2 cm. If they each requires 50 chances to reach
the top of the pillar, what is the height of the shortest pillar?
Options:
A) 151 cm
B) 153 cm
C) 250 cm
D) 200 cm
Q8) I was quite alone in the park. After some time an old man and an old
woman came there. After them two couples with a baby came there. Now, how
many persons are there?
Options:
A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 11
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Q9) A class starts after lunch at 1.00p.m. and las ts till 3.52 p.m. In this
duration four periods are held. Before every period 4 minutes are allowed for
going from one room to another. What is the exact duration for each period?
Options:
A) 42 min.
B) 39 min
C) 41 min
D) 40 min
Q10) A man invited some boys and girls on the birthday of his son. The number
of boys was less than that of girls by 2.He gave Rs.10 to each boy and Rs.20 to
each girl. If total amount distributed by him is Rs.280, what was the number of
boys?
Options:
A) 25
B) 10
C) 8
D) 15
Q11) A straight line is 36 cm long. the points are to be marked on the line from
both the ends so that the first point be at a distance of 1 cm from one end, the
second point be at a distance of 2 cm from the first point and the third point be
at a distance of 3 cm from the second point and so on. If the points on the ends
are not counted and the common points are counted as one, what is number of
points?
Options:
A) 13
B) 12
C) 10
D) 16
Q12) There are some cows, bulls and 45 hens in a group. One care taker looks
after 15 animals. The number of bulls is twice the number of cows. If the
number of head is less than the total number of feet by 186(including the care
taker), how many care takers are there?
Options:
A) 9 B) 8
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C) 5 D) 6
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Q13) If 15 apples and 20 oranges cost as much as 20 apples and 15 oranges.

How do you compare the costs of two?
Options:
A) Apples are as costly as oranges

B) Oranges are costly than apples
C) Apples are costly than oranges
D) Nothing can be found from the given data
Q14) An elevator has the capacity of 12 adults or 20 children. How many adults
can board the elevator with 15 children?
Options:
A) 4
B) 5
C) 3
D) 6
Q15) A man has three bags. There are 4 marbles of different colours in first bag,
5 marbles of different colours in second bag and 3 marbles of different colours
in third bag. I f two colours are such which are only in first and second bag and
one colour is such which is in all the three bags, how many different colours are
in all the three bags?
Options:
A) 10
B) 9
C) 7
D) 8
Q16) If the following series of numbers is written in the reverse order, which
number will be the seventh to the right of the fourth number from the left? 1, 8,
3, 9, 7, 4, 10, 6, 2, 11, 13, 5, 14, 16
Options:
A) 3
B) 8
C) 13
D) 0
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Q17) Reverse the digits of each of the following numbers and arrange them in
descending order. Which of the following will be the middle digit of the second
highest number? 739, 279, 359, 189, 549
Options:
A) 5
B) 8
C) 7
D) 3
Q18) If it is possible to make a number which is a perfect square of a two digit

even number with the second, fifth and sixth digits of the number 46789153,
which of the following will be first digit of that three digit number?
Options:
A) 9
B) 1
C) 8
D) 6
Q19) In a row of children, Preeti is seventh from the left and Bhakti is fourth
from the right. When Preeti and Bhakti exchange positions, Preeti will be
fifteenth from the left. Which will be Bhakti's position from the right?
Options:
A) 11th
B) 8th
C) 4th
D) 12th
Q20) If the first and the second digits in the number 57124893 were
interchanged, similarly the third and the fourth, and the fifth and the sixth and
so on, which digit will be the fourth counting to your left?
Options:
A) 4
B) 8
C) 1
D) 2
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Q21) The managing director reached the conference hall 10 minutes before half
past twelve and he reached 20 minutes before the chairman. If the chairman
was already late by half an hour than the schedule time of interview, what was
the schedule time for interview?
Options:
A) 50 min. past 12
B) 10 min. past 12
C) 30 min. past 12
D) 40 min. past 12
Q22) In a certain series given below count each 5 which is not immediately
preceded by 3 but are immediately followed by 7. How many such 5's are there?
1573 5747 372 5658 5745 655 7157 755
Options:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q23) How many 5's are there in the following number series which are either
preceded by 6 or followed by 7? 3 1 2 4 5 6 7 5 6 5 7 2 4 7 5 6 6 5 7
Options:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q24) One-third of the students in a class are Marathi speaking. one-half of the
students know Hindi. the number of Gujarati speaking students is twice that of
Marathi speaking students. Two-third of the students are girls. Which of the
following statements is definitely true?
Options:
A) All Marathi speaking students are boys
B) A half of the Marathi speaking student know Hindi
C) Some Guajarati speaking students know Hindi
D) All Guajarati speaking students are girls
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Q25) If a boy is asked to put in a basket one mango when ordered 'One', one
orange when ordered 'Two', one apple when ordered 'Three', and is asked to take
out from the basket one mango and one orange both when ordered 'Four'.
Sequence orders 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4 .
How many total oranges were in the basket at the end of above sequence?
Options:
A) 1 B) 4
C) 3 D) 2
Sequence orders 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4 .
How many total fruits will be in the basket at the end of the above order
sequence?
Options:
A) 9 B) 13
C) 11 D) 10
Sequence orders 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4 .
How many total mangoes were in the basket at the end of the above order
sequence?
Options:
A) 1 B) 4
C) 3 D) 2
Sequence orders 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4 .
How many total apples were there in the basket at the end of the above order
sequence?
Options:
A) 10 B) 11
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C) 7 D) 12
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Q29) A garden has as many flower-bearing trees as it has fruit-bearing trees.

Three-fourths of the trees are old. One-half of the trees are grafted. Which of the
following statements is definitely true?
Options:
A) All flower bearing trees are grafted
B) All fruit bearing trees are grafted
C) At least one-half of the fruit bearing trees are old.
D) At least one-half of the flower bearing trees are old.
Q30) Answer the question based on the following data for examination:
Candidates appeared 10500; Passed in three subjects only 5685; Passed in
three subjects only 1498; Pas sed in two subjects only 1250 ; Passed in one
subject only 835; Faile d in English only 78; Faile d in Maths only 275; Failed in
Physics only 149; Failed in Chemistry only 147; Faile d in Biology only 221
How many candidates failed in all the subject?
Options:
A) 362 B) 2867
C) 3317 D) 4815
subject only 835; Faile d in English only 78; Faile d in Math's only 275; Failed in
How many candidates failed because of having failed in four or less subjects?
Options:
A) 2368 B) 3618
C) 4453 D) 4815
Physics only 149; Failed in Chemistry only 147; Failed in Biology only 221
How many candidates passed at least in four subject?
Options:
A) 870 B) 1705
727
C) 5685 D) 6555
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If 167 candidates passed in English only and 2557 failed in English. How many
candidates failed even after having passed in English and one or more other
subjects?
Options:
A) 2091
B) 2258
C) 3508
D) 4378
subject only 835; Faile d in English only 78; Faile d in Maths only 275; Failed in
If 1002 candidates failed in Mathematics, how many candidates failed because
of having failed in Maths but not in Maths only?
Options:
A) 695
B) 727
C) 1002
D) 1277
Madhav ranks s eventeenth in a class of thirty-one. What is his rank from the
last?
Options:
A) 13
B) 14
C) 15
D) 16
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How many numbers from 11 to 50 are there which are exactly divisible by 7 but
not by 3?
Options:
A) 2
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answers:
Q1) C, Q2) C, Q3) B, Q4) D,

Q5) A, Q6) B, Q7) B, Q8) A, Q9) D,
Q10) C, Q11) B, Q12) D, Q13) A, Q14) C,
Q15) D, Q16) D, Q17) C, Q18) B, Q19) D,
Q20) C, Q21) B, Q22) D, Q23) C, Q24) C,
Q25) D, Q26) C, Q27) D, Q28) C, Q29) D,
Q30) A, Q31) C, Q32) D, Q33) B, Q34) B,
Q35) C, Q36) B,
Explanations:
Q1) Selling Price (SP) = 100 -11= 89% of Cost price c. p

178 = c. p *89/100
c. p = 100 *178/89=200
Therefore For 11% profit, the S.P will be S.P = 200 * 111/100= 222 Rs"
Q2) Suppose length is 10 and breadth is 10 then area is 100,
1 % error then 9.9 *9.9 = 98.01.
Hence 2 % error will be there."
Q3) X, Y, Z used car for 26 hours i.e. 7 + 8 + 11 = 26 paid 1040.
Therefore, 1040/26 = 40,
Y used for 8 hours i.e. 40 * 8 = 320.
Q4) Suppose A gets x cards

then
B gets = x + 1
D gets = x + 1
E gets = x + 4
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and C gets = x + 6
Hence, A gets the least number of cards
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Q5) The numbers are 8, 48, 80 and 88

Q7) Distance covered by A in 50 chances=49(5-1)+5=201 cm Distance covered
by B IN 50 CHANCES=49(6-3)+6=153 cm Distance covered by C in 50
chances =49(7-2)+7=252 cm Hence, the height of the reqd. pillar=153 cm
Q9) No. of interval between 4 periods=3 Therefore Time taken in the
intervals=3x4=12 min. But total duration=2 hours 52 min. Therefore Time taken
in all the four periods=2 hours 40 min. Therefore Exact duration for each
period=40 min.
Q10) Let the No. of boys be x Therefore No. of girls=x+2 Therefore

10x+20(x+2)=280 or 30x=280-40 Therefore x=8.
Q12) Let the number of cows be x. Therefore No. of bulls=2x and no. of
caretaker=x+2x+45/15 Therefore No. of feet=4x+8x+90+2(x+2x+45/15) and the
number of heads=x+2x+45+(3x+45/15) Therefore 4x+8x+90+2(3x+45/15)-(x+15-
(x+2x+45+(3x+45/15))=186 or 180x+1350+6x+90-45x-3x-45-625=2790 or
138x=2070 Therefore x = 15 and Hence, No. of care takers=15+30+45/15=6
Q13) The cost of 15 apples+20 oranges=The cost of 20 apples and 15 oranges
Therefore The cost of 20 oranges-the cost of 15 oranges.
Q14) Remaining capacity of the elevator=20-15=5 children Therefore 20
children=12 adults Therefore 5 children=12x5/20=3
Q15) One colour is common to all the three and 2 are common in first and
second. Therefore, rest of the five marbles are of different colours. Hence, the
total number of different colours is 8.
Q16) The series in reverse order is: 16, 14, 5, 13, 11, 2, 6, 10, 4, 7, 9, 3, 8, 1
Fourth number of the new series from the left=13 and 7th number from 13 to
the right=9.
Q17) On writing the numbers in reverse order, we get 937, 972, 953, 981, 945
and on arranging them in descending order, we get 981, 972, 953, 945 and 937
The middle digit of the second highest number=7.
Q18) Second, fifth and sixth digits are 6, 9 and 1 respectively and with these
196 is formed is a perfect square of 14. Hence, the first digit of the reqd.
Number is 1.
Q19) Before exchanging the positions Bhakti was fourth from the right it means
there were 3 girls more to her right. After exchanging Preeti reached at her place
and Preeti becomes 15th from the left i.e., there are 14 girls more to Preeti's left.
Thus there are 18 girls in all. As Bhakti reaches at Preeti's place whose is 7th
from the left, therefore, Bhakti is 12th from the right.
Q20) The third number 1, the original series will be the fourth letter after
interchange.
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Q21) The managing director reached at 12.20 p.m. and the chairman reached at
12.40 p.m Therefore Time for interview=12.10 p.m.
Q22) Required 5's in the series are printed boldly.1 5 7 3 5 7 4 7 3 7 2 5 6 5 8 5
7456 5571 577 55
Q23) Required 5's in the series are printed boldly. 3 1 2 4 5 6 7 5 6 5 7 2 4 7 5 6
657
Q24) Let the total students be x. Therefore No. of Marathi speaking
students=x/3 No. of Hindi speaking students =x/2 and the No. of Guajarati
speaking students=2x/3 As the No. of Guajarati speaking students is more than
=x/2 Therefore Hence, some Guajarati speaking students must know Hindi
definitely.
Q30) No. of candidates failed in all the subjects.=10500-
[(5685+1498+1250+835+(78+275+149+147+221)]=10500-10138=362.
Q31) No. of candidates failed in four or less

subjects.=(78+275+149+221)+1250+1498+835=4453
Q32) No. of candidates passed at least in four
subjects.=5685+(78+275+149+147+221)=6555
Q33) Total number of candidates who failed=10500-5685=4815 Therefore No. of
candidates who failed even after passed in English and one or more other
subjects=4815-2557=2258
Q34) No. of candidates who failed in Maths=1002 Therefore No. of candidates
who failed having failed in Maths but not in Maths only =1002-275=727
Q36) The numbers which are divisible by 7 but not by 3 are 14, 28, 35 and 49.
731
Page

Number Series:
Q1) Which number is missing in the following series? 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50?
Options:
A) 63 B) 65
C) 67 D) 69
Q2) Which is the number that comes next in the sequence? 9, 8 , 8, 8, 7, 8, 6,

Options:
A) 5 B) 6
C) 8 D) 4
Q3) 120, 99, 80, 63, 8,?

Options:
A) 35 B) 38
C) 39 D) 40
Q4) 589654237, 89654237, 8965423, 965423,?

Options:
A) 58965 B) 65423
C) 89654 D) 96542
Q5) 3, 10, 101.?

Options:
A) 10101 B) 10201
C) 10202 D) 11012
Q6) In the series 2, 6, 18, 54... what will be the 8th term?
Options:
732
A) 4370 B) 4374
Page
C) 7443 D) 7434

Q7) 1, 1, 4, 8, 9, 7, 6,?
Options:
A) 32 B) 64
C) 81 D) 256
Q8) 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 8, 54?,
Options:
A) 18 B) 27
C) 36 D) 81
Q9) 6, 13, 25, 51, 101,
Options:
A) 201 B) 202
C) 203 D) 205
Q10) 5, 6, 9, 15.?40
Options:
A) 21 B) 25
C) 27 D) 33
Q11) 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27?

Options:
A) 37 B) 44
C) 50 D) 55
Q12) 3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, 21, 22, 31, 34?

Options:
A) 42 B) 43
C) 51 D) 52
Q13) 198, 194, 185 , 169,?

Options:
733
A) 92 B) 112
Page
C) 136 D) 144

Q14) 2, 3, 5, 7, 11?17
Options:
A) 12 B) 13
C) 14 D) 15
Q15) 6, 12, 21.?48

Options:
A) 33 B) 38
C) 40 D) 45
Q16) . Which term of the series , 1 0, 0, 0, . . . is 1280?
Options:
A) 10th B) 9th
C) 8th D) None of these
Q17) 2, 5, 9,?, 20, 27

Options:
A) 14 B) 16
C) 18 D) 24
Q18) 2, 3, 3, 5, 10, 13,?, 43, 172 , 177

Options:
A) 23 B) 38
C) 39 D) 40
Q19) 9, 27, 31, 155, 161, 1127?

Options:
A) 316 B) 1135
C) 1288 D) 2254
Q20) 2, 1, 2, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 8, 10, 11.?

Options:
A) 9 B) 10
734
C) 11 D) 12
Page

Q21) Which of the following will

not be a number of the series 1, 8, 27, 64 , 125 , .....?
Options:
A) 256 B) 512
C) 729 D) 1000
Q22) 13, 32, 24, 43, 35,? 46, 65 , 57, 76

Options:
A) 45 B) 52
C) 54 D) 55
Q23) 22, 24, 28,?52, 84

Options:
A) 36 B) 38
C) 42 D) 46
Q24) 3, 15,?, 63, 99, 143

Options:
A) 27 B) 35
C) 45 D) 56
Q25) 90, 180, 12, 50, 100, 200,?, 3, 50, 4, 25, 2, 6, 30, 3
Options:
A) 150 B) 175
C) 225 D) 250
Q26) 48, 24, 96, 48, 192.?

Options:
A) 76 B) 90
C) 96 D) 98
Q27) 2, 15, 41, 80.?

Options:
735
A) 111 B) 120
Page
C) 121 D) 132

Q28) 6, 11, 21, 36, 56?

Options:
A) 42 B) 51
C) 81 D) 91
Q29) 563, 647, 479, 815.?

Options:
A) 672 B) 386
C) 279 D) 143
Q30) 13, 35, 57, 79, 911,?

Options:
A) 1110 B) 1112
C) 1113 D) 1315
Q31) 1, 4, 10, 22, 46.?

Options:
A) 64 B) 86
C) 94 D) 122
Q32) 66, 36, 18.?

Options:
A) 3 B) 6
C) 8 D) 9
Q33) In the series3, 9, 15, ...... what will be the 21st term?
Options:
A) 117 B) 121
C) 123 D) 129
Q34) 28, 33, 3 , 36,?, 39

Options:
736
A) 32 B) 34
Page
C) 38 D) 40

Q35) 1, 9, 25, 49, 81.?

Options:
A) 100 B) 112
C) 121 D) 144
Q36) 1, 9, 25, 49.?121?

Options:
A) 64 B) 81
C) 91 D) 100
Q37) 2, 2, 5, 13, 28,?

Options:
A) 49 B) 50
C) 51 D) 52
Q38) 0, 2, 8, 14.?34
Options:
A) 20 B) 23
C) 24 D) 25
Q39) 1, 5, 14, 30, 55, 91?
Options:
A) 130 B) 140
C) 150 D) 160
Q40) In the series 10, 17, 24, 31, 38, ..... which of the following will be a
number of the series?
Options:
A) 48 B) 346
C) 574 D) 1003
Q41) 240,?, 120, 40, 10, 2

737
Options:
A) 180 B) 240
Page
C) 420 D) 480

Q42) 2, , 3, 8, 27, 112.?

Options:
A) 226 B) 339
C) 452 D) 565
Q43) 6, 17, 39, 72 ,?

Options:
A) 83 B) 94
C) 116 D) 127
Q44) 20, 29, 19, 16, 17, 13, 14, 11.,?.?

Options:
A) 10, 10 B) 10, 11
C) 13, 14 D) 13, 16
Q45) 24, 60, 120, 210,?

Options:
A) 300 B) 336
C) 420 D) 525
Q46) 625, 5, 125, 25, 25,?5

Options:
A) 5 B) 25
C) 125 D) 625
Q47) 10, 100, 200, 310?
Options:
A) 400 B) 410
C) 420 D) 430
Q48) 11, 10,?100, 1001, 1000, 10001

Options:
738
A) 101 B) 110
Page
C) 111 D) None of these

Q49) 2, 7, 27, 107, 427.?

Options:
A) 1262 B) 1707
C) 4027 D) 4207
Q50) 1, 1, 2, 6, 24, .? 720

Options:
A) 100 B) 104
C) 108 D) 120
Q51) 2, 15, 4, 12, 6, 7.?

Options:
A) 8, 8 B) 8, 0
C) 3, 8 D) None of these
Q52) 4832, 5840, 6848,?

Options:
A) 7815 B) 7846
C) 7856 D) 7887
Q53) 5824, 5242,?4247, 3823

Options:
A) 4467 B) 4718
C) 4856 D) 5164
Q54) 2, , 8, 6, 128?
Options:
A) 2042 B) 2046
C) 2048 D) 2056
Q55) 1, 2, 6, 7, 21, 22, 66, 67,?

739
Options:
A) 70 B) 134
Page
C) 201 D) 301

Q56) 0.5, 0.55, 0.65, 0.8?

Options:
A) 0.9 B) 0.82
C) 1 D) 0.95
Q57) 0, 2, 3, 5, 8, 10, 15, 17, 24, 26.?

Options:
A) 28 B) 30
C) 32 D) 35
Q58) 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 25,?

Options:
A) 26 B) 27
C) 29 D) 37
Q59) 5, 2, 7, 9, 16, 25,?

Options:
A) 41 B) 45
C) 48 D) 52
Q60) 7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342,?

Options:
A) 391 B) 421
C) 481 D) 511
Q61) 3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108.?

Options:
A) 147 B) 162
C) 183 D) 192
Q62) 3, 7, 23, 95.?

740
Options:
A) 62 B) 128
Page
C) 479 D) 575

Q63) 6, 8, 3, 21, 7, 56.?

Options:
A) 8 B) 9
C) 63 D) 64
Q64) 4, 9, 25,?121, 169, 289, 361

Options:
A) 49 B) 64
C) 81 D) 87
Q65) 6, 13, 28, 59?
Options:
A) 111 B) 113
C) 114 D) 122
Q66) 4, 12, 36, 108,?
Options:
A) 144 B) 216
C) 304 D) 324
Q67) which term of the series 5, 8, 11, 14 is .320?

Options:
A) 104th B) 105th
C) 106th D) 64th
Q68) 8, 9, 8, 7, 10, 9, 6, 11, 10?, 12

Options:
A) 5 B) 7
C) 8 D) 11
Q69) 4, 10,?82, 244, 730

Options:
741
A) 24 B) 28
C) 77 D) 218
Page

Q70) 1, 5, 13, 25, 41?

Options:
A) 51 B) 57
C) 61 D) 63
Q71) 325, 259, 204, 160, 127, 105,?

Options:
A) 94 B) 96
C) 98 D) 100
Q72) 4, 7, 12, 19, 28,?

Options:
A) 30 B) 36
C) 39 D) 49
Q73) 5760, 960,?48, 16, 8

Options:
A) 120 B) 160
C) 192 D) 240
Q74) 45, 54, 47,?49, 56, 51, 57, 53

Options:
A) 48
B) 50
C) 55
D) None of these
Q75) 3, 8, 13, 24, 41,?

Options:
A) 70
B) 75
742
C) 80
D) 85
Page

Q76) 10, 14, 26, 42, 70,?

Options:
A) 100 B) 102
C) 106 D) 112
Q77) 10, 18, 28, 40, 54, 70,?

Options:
A) 85 B) 86
C) 87 D) 88
Q78) 8, 28, 116, 584?

Options:
A) 1752 B) 3502
C) 3504 D) 3508
Q79) 121, 143, 165, 186, 209,?

Options:
A) 143 B) 165
C) 186 D) 209
Q80) 6, 5, 35, 77, 165, 221

Options:
A) 35
B) 77
C) 165
D) 15
Q81) 8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83

Options:
A) 13
B) 21
743
C) 32
D) 47
Page

Q82) 1, 2, 4, 8, 6, 3 , 6 , 96
Options:
A) 4 B) 32
C) 64 D) 96
Q83) 3, 4, 10, 32, 136, 685, 4116

Options:
A) 10 B) 32
C) 136 D) 4116
Q84) 105 , 80 , 60, 30, 0, 45, -90

Options:
A) 105 B) 60
C) 0 D) -45
Q85) 2, , 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64

Options:
A) 17 B) 26
C) 37 D) 64
Q86) 125, 126, 124, 127, 123, 129

Options:
A) 126
B) 124
C) 123
D) 129
Q87) 2, 5, 10, 50, 500, 5000

Options:
A) 5
B) 10
744
C) 50
D) 5000
Page

Q88) 1, 3, 12, 25, 48

Options:
A) 3 B) 12
C) 25 D) 48
Q89) 15, 16, 22, 29, 45, 70

Options:
A) 16 B) 22
C) 45 D) 70
Q90) 8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386

Options:
A) 14 B) 48
C) 98 D) 194
Q91) 3, 10, 27, 4, 16, 64, 5, 25, 125

Options:
A) 3 B) 4
C) 10 D) 27
Q92) 1, 5, 9, 15, 25, 37, 49

Options:
A) 9
B) 15
C) 25
D) 37
Q93) 4, 10, 22, 46, 96, 190, 382

Options:
A) 4
B) 10
745
C) 96
D) 382
Page

Q94) 2, 6, 24, 96, 285, 568, 567

Options:
A) 6 B) 24
C) 285 D) 567
Q95) 3, 2, 8, 9, 13, 22, 18, 32, 23, 42

Options:
A) 8 B) 9
C) 13 D) 22
Q96) 196, 169, 144, 121, 101
Options:
A) 101 B) 121
C) 169 D) 196
Q97) 56, 58, 62, 70, 84, 118, 182

Options:
A) 58 B) 62
C) 84 D) 118
Q98) 1, 5, 5, 9, 7, 11, 11, 15, 12, 17

Options:
A) 11 B) 12
C) 17 D) 15
Q99) 25, 36, 49, 81, 121, 169, 225

Options:
A) 36 B) 49
C) 169 D) 225
Q100) 1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 356, 777

Options:
A) 21
746
B) 129
C) 10
Page
D) 356

Q101) 5, 10, 40, 80, 320, 550, 2560

Options:
A) 80 B) 320
C) 550 D) 2560
Q102) 2, 3, 4, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 16
Options:
A) 3 B) 6
C) 9 D) 12
Q103) 11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54

Options:
A) 5 B) 20
C) 40 D) 26
Q104) 5, 27, 61, 122, 213, 340, 509

Options:
A) 27 B) 61
C) 122 D) 509
Q105) 3, 7, 15, 39, 63, 127, 255, 511

Options:
A) 15
B) 39
C) 63
D) 127
Q106) 380, 188, 92, 48, 20, 8, 2

Options:
A) 8
B) 20
747
C) 48
D) 188
Page

Q107) 16, 22, 30, 45, 52, 66

Options:
A) 30 B) 45
C) 52 D) 66
Q108) 10, 26, 74, 218, 654, 1946, 5834

Options:
A) 26 B) 74
C) 218 D) 654
Q109) 24576, 6144, 1536, 96

Options:
A) 96 B) 386
C) 1536 D) 6144
Q110) 10, 14, 28, 32, 64

Options:
A) 28 B) 32
C) 64 D) 132
Q111) 46080, 3840, 384

Options:
A) 384
B) 48
C) 24
D) 2
Q112) 89, 78, 86, 80, 85

Options:
A) 83
B) 82
748
C) 86
D) 78
Page

Q113) 0, 2, 3, 5, 8, 10, 15, 18, 24, 26, 35

Options:
A) 18 B) 24
C) 26 D) 10
Q114) 325, 259, 202, 160, 127, 105, 94

Options:
A) 94 B) 127
C) 202 D) 259
Q115) 1236, 2346, 3456, 4566, 5686

Options:
A) 1236 B) 3456
C) 4566 D) 5686
Q116) 93, 309, 434, 498, 521, 533

Options:
A) 309 B) 434
C) 498 D) 521
Q117) 20, 19, 17,?10, 5

Options:
A) 12
B) 13
C) 14
D) 15
Q118) 2, 3, 5, 7, 11.?17
Options:
A) 12
B) 13
749
C) 14
D) 15
Page

Q119) 6, 11, 21, 36, 56,?

Options:
A) 42 B) 53
C) 81 D) 96
Q120) 1, 6, 13, 22, 33,?

Options:
A) 44 B) 53
C) 46 D) 96
Q121) 3, 9, 27, 81,?

Options:
A) 324 B) 243
C) 210 D) 162
Q122) 1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73,?

Options:
A) 97 B) 99
C) 101 D) 201
Q123) 2, 5, 9,?20, 27
Options:
A) 14
B) 16
C) 18
D) 32
Q124) 5, 9, 17, 29, 45?

Options:
A) 60
B) 65
750
C) 68
D) 70
Page

Q125) 3, 7, 15, 31, 63?

Options:
A) 92 B) 115
C) 127 D) 131
Q126) Insert the missing number 16/32 , 15/33, 17/31, 14/34,?

Options:
A) 19/35 B) 19/30
C) 18/35 D) 18/30
Q127) The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27 The largest of these
numbers is:
Options:
A) 36 B) 32
C) 30 D) 28
Q128) In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54, the missing number X is
Options:
A) 26 B) 24
C) 36 D) 32
Q129) The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 1/2, 1/3: 1/4 If its perimeter is
Options:
A) 9 cm B) 10 cm
C) 11 cm D) 12 cm
Q130) Which is the number that comes ext in the sequence?9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6,

Options:
A) 5
B) 6
751
C) 8
D) 4
Page

Q131) Out of four numbers, the average of the first three numbers is thrice the
Options:
A) 4.5 B) 5
C) 2 D) 4
Q132) Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark
which will complete the following series: 5, 4, 9, 17, 35,?= 139
Options:
A) 149 B) 79
C) 49 D) 69
Q133) Which number is missing in the following series? 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37,
50,?
Options:
A) 63 B) 65
C) 67 D) 69
Q134) Insert the missing number: 4: 17:: 7:?

Options:
A) 48 B) 49
C) 50 D) 51
Q135) Insert the missing number 36/62, 39/63, 43/61, 48/64

Options:
A) 51/65 B) 56/60
C) 54/65 D) 33/60
Q136) Insert the missing number in the following series: 4 16 8 64? 256
Options:
A) 16
752
B) 24
C) 32
D) 20
Page

Q137) Insert the missing number in the following: 2/3, 4/7,? , 11/21, 6/31
Options:
A) 10-08-2016 B) 06-10-2016
C) 05-10-2016 D) 01-07-2016
Q138) Find out the wrong number in the sequence: 125, 127, 130, 135, 142,
153, 165
Options:
A) 130 B) 142
C) 153 D) 165
Q139) Insert the missing number in the following: 3, 8, 18, 23, 33,?, 48
Options:
A) 37 B) 40
C) 38 D) 45
Q140) Find out the wrong number in the sequence. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
Options:
A) 27 B) 34
C) 43 D) 48
Q141) The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37,? will be
Options:
A) 74
B) 75
C) 76
Q142) 4, 6, 9, 13,
Options:
A) 15
753
B) 12
C) 18
D) 17
Page

Q143) 8, 20, 36, 56,

Options:
A) 80 B) 100
C) 64 D) 84
Q144) 11, 33, 55, 77

Options:
A) 99 B) 88
C) 121 D) 101
Q145) 1, 8, 4, 27, 9,?
Options:
A) 8 B) 9
C) 64 D) 16
Q146) 3, 6, 8, 16, 18,

Options:
A) 28 B) 36
C) 54 D) 34
Q147) 17, 13, 11, 7, 5,?

Options:
A) -1 B) 1
C) 0 D) 2
Q148) 9, .....18, 28, 27, 21, 36, 14

Options:
A) 30 B) 35
C) 23 D) 40
Q149) 4, 9, 19, 39...

Options:
A) 49 B) 79
754
C) 89 D) 59
Page

Q150) 0, 7, 26, 63
Options:
A) 124 B) 125
C) 93 D) 103
Q151) 3, 2, 7, 6, 11
Options:
A) 13 B) 8
C) 4 D) 10
Q152) 17, 44, 62, 53 ......
Options:
A) 66 B) 26
C) 29 D) 63
Q153) 5, 3, 6, 2, 7, 1, .....
Options:
A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 8
Q154) 1, 2, 3, 1, 4, 9, 1, ...27
Options:
A) 5 B) 4
C) 16 D) 8
Q155) 81 , 9, 64 , 8, ....., 12
Options:
A) 97 B) 144
C) 96 D) 100
Q156) 2, 6, 12, 20, 30

Options:
A) 40 B) 44
755
C) 42 D) 36
Page

Q157) 7, 13, 17, 19,

Options:
A) 21 B) 29
C) 23 D) 31
Q158) 2, 20, 74, 110,

Options:
A) 182 B) 110
C) 120 D) 160
Q159) 3, 5, 9, 17, 33
Options:
A) 44 B) 65
C) 64 D) 49
Q160) 3, 6, 6, 12, ....18

Options:
A) 9 B) 72
C) 81 D) 38
Q161) 5, 3, 8, 11....30
Options:
A) 13
B) 17
C) 19
D) 38
Q162) 4, 3, 12, 9, 2, 18, 3, ...21

Options:
A) 5
B) 4
756
C) 3
D) 7
Page

Q163) 78, 65, 75, 62, 72...?

Options:
A) 61 B) 65
C) 64 D) 59
Q164) 6, 5, 24, 25, 144, (?)

Options:
A) 155 B) 160
C) 170 D) 175
Q165) 60, 30, 120, 15, 240?

Options:
A) 30 B) 120
C) 240 D) 7.5
Q166) 6, 24, 60, 120, 336, (?)

Options:
A) 270 B) 240
C) 210 D) 336
Q167) 12, 32, 72, 152, (?), 632

Options:
A) 815
B) 613
C) 515
D) 312
Q168) 41, 14, 53, 35, 73...

Options:
A) 72
B) 27
757
C) 37
D) 13
Page

Q169) 128, 64, 32...?

Options:
A) 16 B) 30
C) 8 D) 4
Q170) (?), 19, 37, 61, 91, 127, 169

Options:
A) 17 B) 13
C) 11 D) 7
Q171) 1, 2, 3, 1, 4, 9, 1, ...27
Options:
A) 5 B) 4
C) 16 D) 8
Q172) 3, 5, 9, 17, 33
Options:
A) 44 B) 64
C) 65 D) 49
Q173) 6, 5, 24, 25, 144, (?)

Options:
A) 155
B) 160
C) 170
D) 175
Q174) 128, 64, 32...?

Options:
A) 33
B) 35
758
C) 45
D) 16
Page

Q175) 3, 5, 7, 9 ..
Options:
A) 1 B) 11
C) 13 D) 6
Q176) 4, 6, 9, 13
Options:
A) 18 B) 17
C) 16 D) 19
Q177) 4, 9, 16, 25
Options:
A) 32 B) 42
C) 55 D) 36
Q178) 0, 7, 26, 63,

Options:
A) 125 B) 126
C) 124 D) 98
Q179) 5, 8, 13, 21, ..

Options:
A) 55
B) 34
C) 52
D) 37
Q180) 3, 7, 13, 19,

Options:
A) 23
B) 17
759
C) 37
D) 29
Page

Q181) 3, 5, 9, 17,
Options:
A) 26 B) 65
C) 33 D) 42
Q182) 8, 20, 28, 44, ..

Options:
A) 58 B) 62
C) 50 D) 64
Q183) 34, 45, 56, 67, .

Options:
A) 78 B) 82
C) 73 D) 84
Q184) 3, 2, 7, 6, 11, .
Options:
A) 8 B) 4
C) 10 D) 2
Q185) 3, 6, 8, 16, 18, .

Options:
A) 32
B) 42
C) 26
D) 36
Q186) 6, 5, 24, 25,

Options:
A) 175
B) 210
760
C) 164
D) 144
Page

Q187) 1, 8, 27, 64,

Options:
A) 100 B) 121
C) 125 D) 316
Q188) 22, 33, 66, 88,

Options:
A) 115 B) 520
C) 260 D) 165
Q189) 17, 27, 37, 56, .

Options:
A) 49 B) 62
C) 78 D) 57
Q190) 2, 3, 5, 7, .
Options:
A) 12 B) 13
C) 11 D) 14
Q191) 7, 13, 21, 31,

Options:
A) 41
B) 43
C) 37
D) 39
Q192) 3, 15, 35, 63,

Options:
A) 69
B) 77
761
C) 81
D) 99
Page

Q193) 0, 1, 2, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 8, 10, 11, .

Options:
A) 9 B) 11
C) 10 D) 12
Q194) 1, 1, 8, 4, 27, 9, .
Options:
A) 4 B) 6
C) 9 D) 64
Q195) 2, 20, 74, 110, .

Options:
A) 115 B) 132
C) 144 D) 182
Q196) 1, 0, 3, 2, 5, 6,
Options:
A) 9 B) 8
C) 7 D) 10
Q197) 1, 2, 2, 5, 3, 10,
Options:
A) 12
B) 8
C) 7
D) 4
Q198) 5, 3, 6, 2, 7, 1,
Options:
A) 0
B) 2
762
C) 8
D) 4
Page

Q199) one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong te rm.
49, 48, 45, 42, 33, 24, 13
Options:
A) 48 B) 45
C) 42 D) 33
4, 6, 9, 18, 34, 59, 95

Options:
A) 9 B) 6
C) 18 D) 34
2, 6, 10, 16, 20, 28, 35, 45
Options:
A) 10 B) 16
C) 20 D) 28
1, 4, 7, 11, 16, 22, 29
Options:
A) 1
B) 4
C) 22
D) 11
3, 18, 38, 78, 123, 178, 243

Options:
A) 123
B) 178
763
C) 3
D) 38
Page

7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 342, 500
Options:
A) 7
B) 28
C) 124
D) 215
2, 5, 10, 18, 26, 37, 50
Options:
A) 2
B) 5
C) 37
D) 18
17, 19, 23, 29, 33, 37, 41

Options:
A) 17 B) 19
C) 23 D) 33
3, 10, 19, 31, 43, 58, 75
Options:
A) 31 B) 43
C) 58 D) 10
58, 57, 54, 50, 42, 33, 22
Options:
764
A) 57 B) 54
C) 50 D) 42
Page

720, 120, 24, 8, 2, 1, 1
Options:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 24
D) 8
89, 78, 86, 80, 85, 82, 83
Options:
A) 78
B) 86
C) 80
D) 85
112, 114, 120, 124, 132, 142, 154

Options:
A) 114 B) 120
C) 124 D) 132
5, 11, 23, 47, 96, 191, 383
Options:
A) 11 B) 23
C) 47 D) 96
3, 4, 5, 9, 22.5, 67.5, 270, 945
Options:
765
A) 4.5 B) 9
C) 22.5 D) 270
Page

380, 188, 92, 48, 20, 8, 2
Options:
A) 188
B) 92
C) 48
D) 20
7, 9, 17, 42, 91, 172, 293
Options:
A) 9
B) 17
C) 42
D) 91
36, 54, 18, 27, 22.5, 13.5, 4.5

Options:
A) 13.5 B) 18
C) 22.5 D) 27
169, 218, 254, 269, 295, 304, 308
Options:
A) 304 B) 254
C) 269 D) 218
22, 33, 66, 99, 121, 297, 594
Options:
766
A) 297 B) 121
C) 99 D) 66
Page

46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1
Options:
A) 3840
B) 384
C) 48
D) 24
582, 605, 588, 611, 634, 617, 600
Options:
A) 634
B) 617
C) 611
D) 634
8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83

Options:
A) 21 B) 13
C) 32 D) 47
12, 18, 27, 90, 270, 945, 3780
Options:
A) 20 B) 18
C) 945 D) 27
7, 14, 56, 168, 336, 1344, 2688, 8064
Options:
767
A) 1344 B) 56
C) 2688 D) 8064
Page

36, 49, 100, 144, 196, 256, 324
Options:
A) 100
B) 49
C) 256
D) 144
105, 85, 60, 30, 0, -45, -90
Options:
A) 0
B) 30
C) 85
D) -45
15, 45, 90, 360, 1080, 2160, 6480

Options:
A) 90 B) 360
C) 6480 D) 1080
8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
Options:
A) 194 B) 98
C) 14 D) 48
325, 259, 202, 160, 127, 105, 94
Options:
768
A) 127 B) 259
C) 94 D) 202
Page

54, 43, 34, 26, 22, 19, 18
Options:
A) 34
B) 26
C) 43
D) 18
3, 4, 10, 32, 136, 685, 4116
Options:
A) 136
B) 10
C) 4116
D) 32
16, 17, 21, 30, 45, 71, 107

Options:
A) 21 B) 107
C) 16 D) 45
112, 114, 120, 124, 132, 142, 154
Options:
A) 114 B) 120
C) 124 D) 132
5, 11, 23, 47, 96, 191, 383
Options:
769
A) 11 B) 96
C) 191 D) 23
Page

3, 4.5, 9, 22.5, 67.5, 270, 945
Options:
A) 270
B) 4.5
C) 22.5
D) 9
380, 188, 92, 48, 20, 8, 2
Options:
A) 188 B) 92
C) 48 D) 20
7, 9, 17, 42, 91, 172, 293
Options:
A) 42 B) 172
C) 17 D) 9
Q237) following number-series has one wrong number in it. After searching the
wrong number find out the correct number in its place.
510, 254, 126, 64, 30, 14, 6

Options:
A) 252 B) 124
C) 62 D) 32
8, 12, 16, 23, 32, 43, 56
Options:
770
A) 11 B) 21
C) 9 D) 52
Page

5, 10, 17, 26, 39, 50, 65

Options:
A) 15
B) 25
C) 35
D) 37
3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 21
Options:
A) 19
B) 15
C) 9
D) 14
2, 9, 17, 65, 126, 217, 344
Options:
A) 35
B) 125
C) 8
D) 28
9, 25, 49, 89, 121, 169, 225
Options:
A) 120
B) 81
C) 64
771
D) 36
Page

4, 25, 100, 289, 652, 1369, 2500

Options:
A) 978
B) 342
C) 652
D) 2022
240, 240, 120, 40, 20, 2
Options:
A) 50
B) 30
C) 10
D) 1
0, 9, 64, 169, 576, 1225
Options:
A) 289
B) 666
C) 1369
D) 225
95, 86, 73, 62, 47, 30, 11
Options:
A) 75
B) 47
772
C) 74
D) 65
Page

Q247) 720, 96, 24, 6, 2, 1, 1

Options:
A) 120
B) 6
C) 1
D) 96
Q248) 2, 20, 27, 44, 64

Options:
A) 27
B) 8
C) 20
D) 44
Q249) 0, 1, 2, 4, 4, 5, 6, 6, 8, 7, 10.
Options:
A) 6
B) 5
C) 1
D) 2
Q250) Which one of the number is wrong in the series? 0, 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21,
28, 37, 45
Options:
A) 0
B) 10
C) 45
D) 37
Q251) 1, 1, 2, 6, 24,?, 720

Options:
A) 100
B) 104
773
C) 108
D) 120
Page

Q252) 76.54.32.98.?
Options:
A) 23
B) 44
C) 43
D) 33
Q253) Which is the number that comes next in the sequence? 9, 8 , 8, 8, 7, 8, 6,

Options:
A) 5
B) 6
C) 8
D) 4
Q254) Which number is missing in the following series? 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50?
Options:
A) 63
B) 65
C) 67
D) 69
Q255) Which will be the missing term in the following sequence: 0 , 3, 8 , 15 ,

24 , 35 ,? 63 , 80 , 99.
Options:
A) 68
B) 49
C) 64
D) 36
Q256) A big contains an equal number of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise
coins. If the total amount in the bag is 35 , how many coins of each type are
there?
Options:
774
A) 15 B) 18
C) 20 D) 25
Page

Q257) The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols

Options:
A) 0 -7
B) 0 -9, A -F
C) 0 -7, A -F
D) None of these
Q258) Find the wrong number in the following sequence 2, -7, 10, -65, 29, -215,
50, -342
Options:
A) -7
B) 26
C) -65
D) -215
Q259) 2, 9, 28,?, 126, 217

Options:
A) 67
B) 69
C) 65
D) 79
Q260) 19, 2.38.3.114.4?

Options:
A) 228
B) 256
C) 352
D) 456
Q261) 1, 2, 4, 8, 16,?
Options:
A) 20
B) 24
775
C) 28
D) 32
Page

Q262) 6, 3, 12, 6, 24, .?

Options:
A) 12
B) 18
C) 30
D) 48
Q263) 1, 1, 6, 6, 11, 11,?

Options:
A) 11
B) 13
C) 16
D) 17
Q264) 64, 32, 16, 8,?

Options:
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
Q265) 1, 3, 6, 10, 15,?
Options:
A) 19
B) 20
C) 21
D) 22
Q266) 29, 23, 18, 14,?

Options:
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
776
D) 12
Page

Q267) 2, 4, 7, 12,?
Options:
A) 15
B) 17
C) 19
D) 23
Q268) 36, 25, 16, 9,?

Options:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q269) 1, 4, 9, 16?
Options:
A) 19
B) 21
C) 23
D) 25
Q270) 2, 4, 8, 14, 22,?
Options:
A) 32
B) 38
C) 48
D) 56
Q271) 0, 1, 8, 27, 64,?

Options:
A) 122
B) 125
C) 128
777
D) 256
Page

Q272) 2, 4, 7, 11, 16,?

Options:
A) 18
B) 20
C) 22
D) 25
Q273) 5, 14, 27, 44, 65,?

Options:
A) 109
B) 90
C) 88
D) 180
Q274) 1, 4, 10, 22, 46,?

Options:
A) 68
B) 48
C) 12
D) 94
Q275) 3, 6, 8, 16, 19,?
Options:
A) 21
B) 38
C) 35
D) 36
Q276) 6, 3, 12, 6, 18,?

Options:
A) 9
B) 24
C) 12
778
D) 36
Page

Q277) 3, 5, 9, 17, 33,?

Options:
A) 49
B) 48
C) 63
D) 65
Q278) 1, 4, 9, 16, 25,?

Options:
A) 30
B) 32
C) 34
D) 36
Q279) 17, 13, 11, 7, 5, 1,?

Options:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 0
D) -1
Q280) 30, 24, 19, 15, 12,?
Options:
A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 11
Q281) Which is the number that comes next in this sequence? 9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6

Options:
A) 5
B) 6
C) 8
779
D) 4
Page

Q282) Complete the following series by filling the question-mark. 2, 7, 12,

23,?47,
Options:
A) 28
B) 34
C) 31
D) 38
Q283) Which is the number that comes next in this sequence? 4, 6, 12, 14, 28,
30
Options:
A) 32
B) 64
C) 62
D) 60
Q284) Which is the number that comes next in this sequence? 5, 16, 51, 158,
Options:
A) 1452
B) 483
C) 481
D) 1454
Q285) Find the missing term in the following series. 240, 120, 40, 10, 2
Options:
A) 480
B) 240
C) 220
D) 120
780
Page

Answers:
Q1) B, Q2) C, Q3) A,
Q4) D, Q5) C, Q6) B, Q7) B, Q8) B,
Q9) C, Q10) B, Q11) C, Q12) B, Q13) D,
Q14) B, Q15) A, Q16) B, Q17) A, Q18) C,
Q19) B, Q20) B, Q21) A, Q22) C, Q23) A,
Q24) B, Q25) A, Q26) C, Q27) D, Q28) C,
Q29) D, Q30) C, Q31) C, Q32) C, Q33) C,
Q34) B, Q35) C, Q36) B, Q37) D, Q38) C,
Q39) B, Q40) B, Q41) B, Q42) D, Q43) C,
Q44) A, Q45) B, Q46) C, Q47) D, Q48) A,
Q49) B, Q50) D, Q51) B, Q52) C, Q53) B,
Q54) C, Q55) C, Q56) C, Q57) D, Q58) C,
Q59) A, Q60) D, Q61) A, Q62) C, Q63) A,
Q64) A, Q65) D, Q66) D, Q67) C, Q68) A,
Q69) B, Q70) C, Q71) A, Q72) C, Q73) C,
Q74) C, Q75) A, Q76) D, Q77) D, Q78) D,
Q79) C, Q80) C, Q81) D, Q82) D, Q83) B,
Q84) C, Q85) D, Q86) D, Q87) D, Q88) C,
Q89) B, Q90) B, Q91) C, Q92) B, Q93) C,
Q94) B, Q95) B, Q96) A, Q97) C, Q98) B,
Q99) A, Q100) D, Q101) C, Q102) C, Q103) C,
Q104) A, Q105) B, Q106) C, Q107) B, Q108) D,
Q109) B, Q110) D, Q111) C, Q112) C, Q113) A,
Q114) C, Q115) D, Q116) D, Q117) C, Q118) B,
Q119) C, Q120) C, Q121) B, Q122) A, Q123) A,
Q124) B, Q125) C, Q126) D, Q127) C, Q128) C,
Q129) D, Q130) C, Q131) C, Q132) D, Q133) B,
Q134) C, Q135) C, Q136) A, Q137) D, Q138) D,
Q139) C, Q140) B, Q141) B, Q142) C, Q143) A,
Q144) A, Q145) C, Q146) B, Q147) B, Q148) B,
Q149) B, Q150) A, Q151) D, Q152) B, Q153) D,
Q154) D, Q155) B, Q156) C, Q157) C, Q158) A,
Q159) B, Q160) A, Q161) C, Q162) D, Q163) D,
Q164) D, Q165) D, Q166) D, Q167) D, Q168) C,
Q169) A, Q170) D, Q171) D, Q172) B, Q173) D,
Q174) D, Q175) B, Q176) A, Q177) D, Q178) C,
Q179) B, Q180) D, Q181) C, Q182) D, Q183) A,
Q184) C, Q185) D, Q186) D, Q187) C, Q188) D,
Q189) D, Q190) C, Q191) B, Q192) D, Q193) D,
Q194) D, Q195) D, Q196) C, Q197) D, Q198) C,
Q199) C, Q200) B, Q201) B, Q202) A, Q203) C,
781
Q204) B, Q205) D, Q206) D, Q207) A, Q208) C,

Q209) D, Q210) A, Q211) B, Q212) D, Q213) D,
Page

Q214) C, Q215) A, Q216) C, Q217) C, Q218) B,

Q219) D, Q220) D, Q221) D, Q222) D, Q223) C,
Q224) B, Q225) A, Q226) C, Q227) D, Q228) D,
Q229) B, Q230) D, Q231) D, Q232) B, Q233) B,
Q234) A, Q235) C, Q236) D, Q237) C, Q238) A,
Q239) D, Q240) A, Q241) D, Q242) B, Q243) C,
Q244) C, Q245) D, Q246) A, Q247) D, Q248) C,
Q249) C, Q250) D, Q251) D, Q252) C, Q253) C,
Q254) B, Q255) A, Q256) C, Q257) B, Q258) C,
Q259) C, Q260) D, Q261) D, Q262) A, Q263) C,
Q264) D, Q265) C, Q266) C, Q267) C, Q268) D,
Q269) D, Q270) A, Q271) B, Q272) C, Q273) B,
Q274) D, Q275) B, Q276) A, Q277) D, Q278) D,
Q279) D, Q280) C, Q281) C, Q282) B, Q283) D,
Q284) C, Q285) B,
Explanations:
Q126) 16/32 then 15/33 means -1/+1,

17/31 means +2/-2,
14/34 means -3/+3
next +4/-4 i.e.18/30
Q127) Four consecutive even number = x, x+2, x+4, x+6.
According to question, x+x+2x+4x+6/4=27.
4x+12/4 = 27
4x =108 -12=96.
x=96/4=24. Hence , The largest number =x+4= 24+6=30. The numbers are 24,
26 28, and 30 , which addition is 108 which average is 27, So biggest is 30
Q128) In the sequence of numbers

8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54
8*3= 24, 12*3= 36, 18*3= 54, i.e. multiple of 3.
Q129) let the sides of the triangle are x/2, x/3, x/4.
So X/2+X/3+X/4 = 52
52=13 X/12
X = 52*12/13 = 48. Therefore first side of triangle= 48/2= 24, Second side =
48/3 = 16, Third side = 48/4=12. Therefore smallest side is 12cm.
Q130) Given sequence is 9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6,
Third term decrease by 1 with first,
Fifth term decrease by 1 with third,
Seventh term decrease by 1 with fifth.
Second, Forth, Sixth are remain at same i.e. at 8. So next will 8.
782
Page

Q131) Give that average of the four numbers is 5.

So addition of 4 numbers is 20.
The average of the first three numbers is thrice the fourth number
So 6 + 6 + 6 =18.
Hence fourth is 20-18 =2.
Q132) 4 * 2 = 8 + 1 = 9
9 * 2 = 18 -1=17
17 *2 = 34 + 1 =35
So 35 * 2 = 70 -1 = 69
Hence 4 + 5 + 9 + 17+ 35 + 69 =139 Twice the previous number plus 1 and
twice the previous and minus 1 series"
Q133) Observe that 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50,?
There is difference between two number is 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13
So next is 50 +15=65
Q134) Square of 4 is 16 +1 = 17
Therefore Square of 7 is 49 +1 = 50
Q135) Observe 36/62, 39/63, 43/61, 48/64,? series
Upper part is increase by 3, 4, 5, 6
i.e.36+3= 39, 39+4 = 43, 43+5 = 48, 48 + 6 = 54.
Q136) Square root of 16 is 4,
Square root of 64 is 8,
Therefore Square root of 256 is 16.
Q137) 2/3 = 2/2*2-1,
4/7 = 4/4 *2-1,
11/21 = 11/11*2-1, and
16/31 = 16/16*2-1;
Therefore 7/13= 7/7*2- 1.
Q138) Difference 125 and 127 is 2,
then 3, 5, 7, 11, and 12.
Except 12 all are prime numbers so 165 is wrong in series.
Q139) The Difference between 2 number in series is 5 then 10, 5 then 10.
Therefore after 33 + 5 = 38.
Q140) The series is decrease with order 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11.
Therefore expected series will be 52, 51, 48, 43, 36, 27, 16.
Hence 34 is wrong in series there must be 36.
Q141) 2 * 2 = 4 + 1 = 5,
5 * 2 = 10 -1 = 9,
9 * 2 = 18 +1 = 19,
19*2 = 38 -1 = 37,
783
37*2 = 74 + 1= 75.
Page

Q142) The difference between two consecutive numbers is increasing in the

order of 2, 3, 4, 5, etc.
Q143) Every member of the series is, divisible by 4 and quotient is in the order
of 2, 5, 9, 14, 20, i.e., it has an increasing trend with the difference of 3, 4, 5
and 6
Q144) Every member of the series is divisible by 11 and every next member is
22 greate r than the preceding one.
Q145) There are two series, 1^3, 2^3, 3^3, 4^3, and 2^2, 3^2, 4^2
Q146) II nd number is twice of the first and fourth is twice of the third one. So
18 x 2 = 36
Q147) There are three groups 17 ---13, 11---7, and 5----1. Besides every next
group start by 2 less than its previous one
Q148) There are two series, 9, 18, 27, 36 and 35, 28, 21, 14
Q149) The difference is being doubled at every number in every pair

II nd number is twice of the first and fourth is twice of the third one. So 18 x 2 =
36
Q150) The rule is (1^3 -1), (2^3 -1), (3^3 -1), (4^3 -1) and (5^3 -1).
Q151) There are two series 3, 7, 11 and 2, 6, 10 with equal difference of 4
everywhere.
Q152) The total of unit + tens of every member is equal to eight, i.e., 1 + 7 = 8, 4
+ 4 = 8, 2 + 6 = 8
Q153) There are two series 5, 6, 7, 8 and 3, 2, 1, 0
Q154) 1, 2, 3, 1^2, 2^2, 3^2, 1^3, 2^3, 3^3
Q155) First is the square of the second in every pair such as
(9)2=81, (8)2=64 and (12) 2=144"
Q156) The difference between two consecutive numbers are increasing in the
order of 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12
Q157) The series can be completed. by the next prime number.
Q158) The difference between two consecutive numbers is divisible by 18.

Q159) The difference between the two consecutive terms are doubling, i.e., 2, 4,
8, 16, 32. Thus 33 + 32 = 65.
Q160) First is the half of the second number in every pair
Q161) 5+3=8, 11+19=30 etc
784
Page

Q162) 4x3=12,
9x2=18 and
3x7=21
Q163) There are two series78, 75, 72 and 65, 62, 59

Q164) IIIrd term is=Ist termx4, i.e., 6x4=24
IVth term is =IInd term x 5, i. e, 5x5=25
Vth term is = IVth termx7, i.e., 25x7=175
Multipliers are in the increasing order of 4, 5, 6, 7, etc
Q165) there are two series=s 60, 120, 240 and 30, 15, 7 1/2 etc.
The terms in the first series are doubling and in the IInd they are being halved
Q166) There are three groups in the series 6 ---24, 60, ---120 and 366---366
and ratios are 1: 4, 1: 2 and 1: 1
Q167) 32-12=20, 72-32=40, 152- 72=80 and so on.
It means difference are doubling as 20, 40, 80, 160, 320 etc.
it otherwise means the required number will be 152+160=312 and
312+320=632"
Q168) Every second number is reverse of the first e.g.41=14, 53=35 an d 73=37
Q169) Each next number is half of the preceding one
Q170) The difference between seventh and sixth is 42,

Difference between sixth and fifth is 36,
Difference between fifth and fourth is 30,
between IVth and IIIrd is 24,
between IIIrd and second is 18.
It means the difference at in the increasing order of 12, 18, 24, 30, 36 and so on
and the first term will be 19-12=7
Q171) 1, 2, 3, 1^2, 2^2, 3^2, 1^3, 2^3, 3^3
Q172) The difference between the two consecutive terms are doubling, i.e., 2, 4,
8, 16, 32. Thus 33 + 32 = 65.
Q173) IIIrd term is=Ist termx4, i.e., 6x4=24

IVth term is =IInd term x 5, i. e, 5x5=25
Vth term is = IVth termx7, i.e., 25x7=175
Multipliers are in the increasing order of 4, 5, 6, 7, etc
Q174) 16*2=32, 32*2=64, 64*2=128
Now in reverse 128/2=64, 64/2=32 so 32/2=16
Q175) The numbers are increasing by 2.
Q176) The difference between two consecutive numbers increases by 1.
Q177) Each number is a whole square.
785
Page

Q178) Numbers are 1^3-1, 2^3-1, 3^3-1, and so on.

Q179) The sum of 1 st two numbers (5&8 )is the third number (13) and the sum
of next two numbers (8&13) is the next number (21) and so on.
Q180) Each number of the series is the next prime number (indivisible by any
other number).
Q181) 2nd number 5 is twice the 1 st number minus one, similarly 3 rd number
9 is twice the second number minus one and so on.
Q182) Each number is a multiple of 4.
Q183) The difference between two consecutive numbers increases by 11.

Q184) 2nd number is less by 1 than the 1 st number and 3 rd number is more
by 5 than the 2nd number. The same rule follows in other numbers of the
series.
Q185) 2nd number is twice of the 1 st number and 3 rd number is greater by 2
than the 2nd number. Same rule applies in other numbers.
Q186) 3rd number is four times of the 1 st number and 4th number is five times
of the 2nd number. According 5th number should be six time of the 3rd number
(24x6)6th number be seven times of the 4th number (25x7).
Q187) Number are whole cubes.
Q188) Numbers are the multiples of 11

Q189) The total of two digits of 1st number is 8 and it increases by one in each
other number.
Q190) Each te rm is a continuous prime number.
Q191) Differences of two consecutive numbers are 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, .e tc.
Q192) Numbers are 2^2-1, 4^2-1, 6^2-1, 8^2-1 and so on.

Q193) Cons idering the middle term as 6, we observe that 6 exceeds the term on
the left by the same amount as the corresponding term on the right exceeds 6.
Q194) Numbers are 1^3, 1^2, 2^3, 2^2, 3^3, 3^2, 4^3 and so on.
Q195) The difference of two consecutive numbers is the multiple of 18.
Q196) There are two series (1, 3, 5, ..)and (0, 2, 6)

Q197) There are two series (1, 2, 3, ) and (2, 5, 10, )
Q198) There are two series (5, 6, 7, )and (3, 2, 1, )
Q199) The differences of two consecutive numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 and 11.
Hence, there should be 40 in place of 42.
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Q200) The difference of two consecutive numbers are 1^2, 2^2, 3^3, 4^2, 5^2
and 6^2. Hence, there should be 5 in place of 6.
Q201) No other term is a perfect square.
Q202) The differences of two consecutive numbers are 2, 3, 4, 5, 6and 7. Hence,

there should be 2 in place of 1.
Q203) Only 3 is a prime number.
Q204) If 26 is written in place of 28, the terms of the series will be 2^3-1, 3^3-1,
4^3-1, 5^3-1, 6^3-1, 7^3-1and 8^3-1 respectively.
Q205) If 17 is written in place of 18, the terms of the series will be 1^2+1,
2^2+1, 3^2+1, 4^2+1, 5^2+1, 6^2+1, and 7^2+1 respectively.
Q206) All the rest numbers are prime numbers. Hence, 31 should be written in
place of 33.
Q207) If 30 is written in place of 31, the difference of two consecutive numbers
will be 7, 9, 11, 13, 15 and 17 respectively.
Q208) If 49 is written in place of 50, the difference of two consecutive numbers
will increase by 2.
Q209) If 6 is written in place of 8.Each term will be 6, 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1 times
res pectively to its next term.
Q210) If 87 is written in place of 78, then tenth digit of each term will be 8.
Q211) If 118 is written in place of 120, the difference of two consecutive terms
will increase by 2.
Q212) If 95 is written in place of 96, the difference of two consecutive terms will
be 6, 12, 24, 48, 96and 192 respectively.
Q213) If 236.25 is written in place of 270, then the ratios of two successive
terms will be 1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 3.5 and 4 respectively.
Q214) If 44 is written in place of 48, then each term will be four more than two
times the next term.
Q215) If 8 is written is place of 9, then the difference of two consecutive terms
will be(1)^2, (3)^2, (5)^2, (7)^2, (9)^2 and (11)^2 respectively.
Q216) If 22.5 is replaced by 9, then second term is 3/2 times of the first term
and third term is 1/3 times of the second term and so on.
Q217) If 269 is replaced by 279, then the difference of two consecutive terms is
a perfect square.
Q218) If 121 is replaced by 198, then the 2nd term is 1 1/2 times of the 1st
term and the 3rd term is 2 times of the 2nd term and so on.
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Q219) If 24 is replaced by 8 then the ratio of two consecutive terms will be 1/12,
1/10, 1/8, ..etc.
Q220) If 634 is replaced by 594 then second term will be more than first term by
23 and third term will be less than second term by 17 and so on.
Q221) If 47 is replaced by 46, the differences of two consecutive terms will be 5,
8, 11, 14, 17, 20,
Q222) If 27 is replaced by 36, then the ratios of two consecutive terms are 3/2,
2, 5/2, 3, etc.
Q223) If 2688 is replaced by 4032, then the ratios of two consecutive terms are
2, 4, 3 respectively.
Q224) If 49 is replaced by 64, then terms are 6^2, 8^2, 10^2, 12^2, 14^2, 16^2,
18^2.
Q225) If 0 is replaced by -5 then, the differences of two consecutive terms are
20, 25, 30, 35, 40 and 45.
Q226) If 6480 is replaced by 8640, then the ratios of two consecutive terms are
3, 2 and 4 respectively.
Q227) If 48 is replaced by 50, then each term is less than two times the previous
term by 2.
Q228) If 202 is replaced by 204, then the differences of two consecutive terms
are 66, 55, 44, 33, 22and 11.
Q229) If 26 is replaced by 27, then the differences of two consecutive terms are
11, 9, 7, 5, 3 an d 1.
Q230) If 32 is replaced by 33, then Second term=(First term+1)x1 Third
term=(Second term+1)x2 Fourth term=(Third term+1)x3 and so on.
1^2, 2^2, 3^3, 4^2, 5^2and 6^2.
Q232) If 120 is replaced by 118, then the differences of two consecutive terms
are 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12.
6, 12, 24, 48, 96 and 192.
Q234) If 270 is replaced by 236.25, then the ratios of two consecutive terms are
1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 3.5 and 4 respectively.
192, 96, 48, 24, 12 and 6 respectively.
(1)^2, (3)^2, (5)^2, (7)^2, (9)^2 and (11)^2 respectively.
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Q237) If 64 is replaced by 62, then each term will be 2 more than two times its
next term.
Q238) If 12 is replaced by 11, then the difference of two consecutive terms will
increase by 2.
Q239) If 39 is replaced by 37, then the terms of the series will be 2^2+1, 3^2+1,
4^2+1, 5^2+1, 6^2+1, 7^2+1 and 8^2+1.
Q240) If 21 is replaced by 19, then terms of the series will be 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17,
19 i.e. each term is a prime number.
Q241) If 17 is replaced by 28, then the series will be: 1^3+1, 2^3+1, 3^3+1,
4^3+1, 5^3+1, 6^3+1 and 7^3+1.
Q242) If 89 is replaced by 81, then the series will be: 3^2, 5^2, 7^2, 9^2, 11^2,
13^2, 15^2.
Q243) If 652 is replaced by 676, then the series will be: (1^2+1)^2, (2^2+1)^2,
(3^2+1)^2, (4^2+1)^2, (5^2+1)^2, (6^2+1)^2, and (7^2+1)^2.
Q244) If 20 is replaced by 10, then the ratios of two consecutive terms will be: 1:
1, 2: 1, 3: 1, 4: 1 and 5: 1 respectively.
Q245) If 169 is replaced by 225, then the series will be: (1^2-1)^2, (2^2-1)^2,
(3^3-1)^2, (4^2-1)^2, (5^2-1)2 and (6^2- 1)2.
Q246) If 73 is replaced by 75, then the differences of two consecutive terms will
be 9, 11, 13, 15, 17 and 19 respectively.
Q247) If 120 is written in place of 96, then each term will be 6, 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1
times respectively to its next term.
Q248) If 13 is written in place of 20, then differences of two consecutive terms
will be 11, 14, 17 and 20 res pectively.
Q249) If 3 is written in place of 1 then two series (0, 2, 4, 6, 8, 10) and (3, 4, 5,
6, 7)will be formed.
Q250) There should be 36 in place of 37 so that the differences of two
consecutive numbers are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, ..etc.
Q261) Each number is two times of its previous number.

Q262) There are two series(6, 12, 24, ) and (3, 6, 12, )
Q263) There are two series(1, 6, 11, 16, )and (1, 6, 11, 16, ) The difference of
two consecutive numbers is 5.
Q264) Each number is half of its previous number.
Q265) The difference of two consecutive number is increasing by 1.

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Q266) The difference of two consecutive number is decreasing by 1.

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Q267) 4-2=2, 7-4=3, 12-5=7. Hence,?-12=7 or?=19.

Q268) 36=6^2, 25=5^2, 16=4^2, 9=3^2. Therefore?=2^2=4.
Q269) 1=1^2, 4=2^2, 9=3^2, 16=4^2. Therefore?=5^2=25
Q270) The difference of two consecutive numbers is increasing by 2.

Q271) The series is 0^3, 1^3, 2^3, 3^3, 4^3, 5^3,
Q272) The difference of two consecutive terms is increasing by 1.
Q273) The difference of two consecutive terms is increasing by 4.
Q274) The difference of two consecutive terms are 3, 6, 12, 24, 48,
Q275) Each even term is obtained by multiplying the previous term by 1/2.
Q276) Each even term is obtained by multiplying the previous term by 1/2.
Q277) The difference of two consecutive terms are 2, 4, 8, 16, 32,
Q278) The series is (1)^2, (2)^2, (3)^2, (4)^2, (5)^2, (6)^2,
Q279) Each odd term is less by 2 than its previous term.
Q280) The difference of two consecutive terms is decreasing by one.

Q281) There are two series in it 9, 8, 7, 6and 8, 8, 8, 8,
Q282) The differences of two consecutive terms are 5, 7, 9, 11, 13,
Q283) There are two series in it: 4, 12, 28, 60, and 6, 14, 30, 62
Q284) 16=5X3+1, 51=16X3+3, 158=51X3+5 Therefore Next term=158x3+7=481
Q285) Ratios of two consecutive
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Numerical Reasoning:
Q1) Choose the number which is different from others in the group:
Options:
A) 49
B) 63
C) 77
D) 81
Q2) Insert the arithmetical signs in the following numerical figure.

9 6 3 = 27
Options:
A) + , x
B) -, +
C) / , +
D) + , /
Q3) If 84 x 13 = 8, 37 x 13 = 6, 26 x 11 = 6 , then 56 x 22 =?
Options:
A) 36
B) 39
C) 7
D) 11
Q4) If 3 x 6 = 18, 5 x 3 = 16, 8 x 2 = 20. Find the value of 4 x 6 =?

Options:
A) 12
B) 12
C) 33
D) 20
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Q5) If + means divide, x means minus, + means multiply and -means plus, then
find the value of 9 + 3 + 4 -8 x 2?
Options:
A) 15
B) 17
C) 17.5
D) 18
Q6) How many pillars are needed to construct a bridge of 300 meter long, if
pillars. are at a distance of 12 meters each
Options:
A) 22
B) 24
C) 25
D) None of these
Q7) What sign should be changed to make the equation 5 + 6 3 -12 x 2 = 17,
correct?
Options:
A) + ,
B) -+
C) + x
D) None of these
Q8) If 1 = 3, 2 = 5, 3 = 7, 4 = 9, then 7 =?
Options:
A) 15
B) 13
C) 17
D) 11
Q9) Insert the numerical signs in the following numerical figure. 8 8 2 1 = 14
Options:
792
A) -, +, - B) -, /, x
C) x, /, - D) +, -, x
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Q10) The ratio of boys and girls in a school is 3: 2, 20% of boys and 25% of girls
are scholarship holders. The percentage of students who are scholarship holders
are?
Options:
A) 45
B) 35
C) 60
D) 22
Q11) Change the sign to find the equation 48 -(3 + 4) + (2 x 2) = 0

Options:
A) Change + into x
B) Change x into +
C) Change -into +
D) Change + into -
Q12) If 56 x 11 = 9, 37 x 13 = 6, 42 x 12 = 3 then find the value of 87 x 77 =?
Options:
A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q13) If 1 = 1, 2 = 4, 3 = 10 and 4 = 22, then 5 =?

Options:
A) 39
B) 34
C) 44
D) 46
Q14) Find out the number that does not belong to the group for lack of common
property. 169, 289, 361, 442, 484, 729.
Options:
793
A) 484 B) 442
C) 361 D) 289
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Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) A, Q3) C,
Q4) D, Q5) A, Q6) C, Q7) D, Q8) D,
Q9) D, Q10) D, Q11) A, Q12) A, Q13) D,
Q14) B,
Explanations:
Q1) 49, 63 and 77 are divisible by 7.

But 81 is not divisible by 7.
Q2) Always apply the rules of BODMAS in such type of problems. In this
problem multiplication will be done first then comes the operation of addition
and finally subtraction, i.e., 9 + 6 x 3 = 27
Q3) (8 + 4) -(1 + 3) = 8,
(3 + 7) -(1 + 3) = 6 and
(5 + 6) -(2 + 2) = 7
Q4) (3 + 6) x 2 = 18,
(5 + 3)x 2 = 16,
(8 + 2) x 2 = 20
Q5) (i) 9 + 3 4-8 x 2
(ii) 9 3 x 3 + 8 2
(iii) 9 x (1/3 )x 3 + 8 2
(iv) 9 + 8 -2 = 15
Q6) 300 25/2 + one pillar = 300 x 2/25 + one pillar = 25

Q8) Assigned codes are increasing at an interval of 2.
Q9) The explanation is in answer No. 4, i.e., 8 + 8 -2 x 1 = 14
Q10) 3: 2 of 100 = 60 and 40
.20% of 60 =.12 an d 25% of 40 = 10"
Q11) 48 -(3 x 4) x (2 x 2) = 0
Q12) (5 + 6) -(1 + 1.) = 9
(3 + 7)-(1 + 3) = 6.
(4 + 2) -(1 + 2) = 3
then (8 + 7) -(7 + 7) = 1
Q13) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, (Digits)
1, 4, 10, 22, 46 (Code),
Gap is being doubled at every digit.
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Problems based on Alphabet:
Q1) AGARTALA is written in code as 14168171, the code for AGRA is:
Options:
A) 1641
B) 1416
C) 1441
D) 1461
Q2) If with third, fourth and 11 th letters of the word 'CONTROVERSI AL' A
meaningful word can be formed then its first letter is the answer. If more than
one words are possible then M and if no meaningful word can be formed then X
is answer.
Options:
A) N
B) T
C) I
D) M
Q3) If there is only one such letter in the word 'PROSPEROUS' which is not
repeated, then that letter is the answer. If there are more than one such letters,
then M is the answer and if there is no such letter then X is the answer.
Options:
A) E
B) U
C) q
D) M
Q4) If English alphabets are written in reverse order what will be the fourth
letter of the right from the 13th letter from the left?
Options:
A) J
795
B) L
C) K
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D) M

Q5) If English alphabets are written in reverse order what will be the seventh
letter to the right of the 12th letter from the left?
Options:
A) F
B) G
C) H
D) S
Q6) If the letters of 'TREAG' and 'GLARE' are arranged in proper order, the two
words so formed are synonym to each other. What are the first letters of the two
words?
Options:
A) T, G
B) L, G
C) T, A
D) G, L
Q7) If with the third, fourth, fifth, seventh and 10th letters of the 'P E R S O N
AL I T Y' a meaningful word is formed then first letter the word is the answer. If
no word is possible then X is the answer.
Options:
A) O
B) T
C) S
D) R
Q8) If the first and second letters of the word 'D E P R E S S I O N' were
interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters
and so on, which of the following would be the seventh letter from the right?
Options:
A) R
B) O
C) P
D) S
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Q9) Two letters in the word 'B O X E S' have as many letters between them as in
the alphabet. Which one of those two comes first in the alphabet?
Options:
A) O
B) B
C) X
D) E
Q10) In the following alphabet, which letter is fifteenth to the right of the letter
which is third to the left of J? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X
YZ
Options:
A) V
B) Y
C) U
D) S
Q11) In the alphabet from A to Z which is the third letter to the right of the letter
which is midway between K and S?
Options:
A) Q
B) P
C) R
D) O
Q12) If the letters of the word "Principal" are used as many times as one wants
to use which one of the following words cannot be formed?
Options:
A) Pail
B) Crap
C) Plain
D) Price
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Q13) If the letters of the word "Intercorrelate" are used as many times as one
wants to use which one of the following words cannot be formed?
Options:
A) Enter
B) Entire
C) Entice
D) Entry
Q14) If the letters of the word "Jerusalem" are used as many times as one wants
Options:
A) Ease
B) Sale
C) Mail
D) Rule
Q15) If the letters of the word "Dutiful" are used as many times as one wants to
use which one of the following words cannot be formed?
Options:
A) Lift
B) Duty
C) Till
D) Flit
Q16) If the letters of the word "Evolution" are used as many times as one wants
Options:
A) Tool
B) Loot
C) Volt
D) Vale
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Q17) If the letters of the word "Ravenous" are used as many times as one wants
Options:
A) Never
B) Rover
C) River
D) Vener
Q18) If the letters of the word "Undertaking" are used as many times as one
Options:
A) Drinker
B) Denter
C) Tricker
D) Tanker
Q19) If the letters of the word "Articulates" are used as many times as one wants
Options:
A) Courts
B) Electric
C) Article
D) Later
Q20) If the letters of the word "Fallacious" are used as many times as one wants
Options:
A) Fills
B) Fails
C) Files
D) Falls
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Q21) If the letters of the word "Elementary" are used as many times as one
Options:
A) Lament B) Lumen
C) Termer D) Meanly
Q22) In a telephone directory which of the following names will appear in the
middle?
Options:
A) Premjibhai B) Premjeebhai
C) Premajeebhai D) Premajibhai
Q23) Two letters of the word 'TROUBLE' have as many letters between them in
the word as in the alphabet. Which one of those two comes earlier in the
alphabet?
Options:
A) O B) R
C) L D) U
Q24) If the first and second letters of the word, 'CORRESPONDENCE' were
interchanged as well as the third and fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth, and
so on, then which of the following shall be the tenth letter counting from right?
Options:
A) O B) P
C) R D) S
Q25) How many of the following words can be made from the word
'UNDERTAKING', using any letter any number of times? Racer, Inking, Reduce,
Rater, Kanter, Drinker, Reduit, Kingle, Taken, Unaimed.
Options:
A) 4 B) 5
C) 7 D) 6
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Q26) If we substitute numbers 1 to 12 indicating hours on the dial of a clock by

the letters of the alphabet in their order starting with C, which letter will
represent 9?
Options:
A) J B) L C) K D) I
Q27) If all the letters of the word RATIONALISATION are written according to
alphabetical order, which letter will be farthest from the first letter?
Options:
A) L B) T C) R D) N
Q28) The letters of the word RACTOR are in disorder. If they are arranged in
proper order, the name of a vegetable is formed. what is the last letter of the
word so formed?
Options:
A) T B) A C) C D) O
Q29) If by arranging the letters of the word 'NESTIN' the name of a game is
formed, what is the first and last letters of the word so formed?
Options:
A) E, S B) T, N C) T, S D) E, N
Q30) Two of the following have the same meaning. which of the remaining three
would appear earlier in a dictionary?
Options:
A) I mpose B) Inculcate C) Implore D) Impress
Q31) Ten alphabet patterns are given which have one or the other characteristic
common with the given target pattern. Identify one set of three alphabet
patte rns which has the one common characteristic with the target pattern.
Target Pattern: T T O L E B Alphabet Pattern: (1) L O S (2) N I M(3) H T H (4) K
M P (5) L K S (6) E E P (7) S S L (8) V E V (9) P T B (10) V O C
Options:
A) 1, 5, 7 B) 1, 7, 9 C) 2, 4, 10 D) 3, 7, 8
801
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Options:
A) 1, 3, 5 B) 2, 3, 8 C) 1, 2, 8 D) 2, 4, 6
Options:
A) 1, 4, 7 B) 4, 5, 9 C) 1, 9, 10 D) 2, 9, 10
Options:
A) 1, 7, 10 B) 5, 6, 8 C) 1, 5, 6 D) 1, 2, 8
Options:
A) 4, 7, 8 B) 1, 5, 8 C) 3, 6, 7 D) 1, 5, 6
Q36) If the first and the second letters in the word 'MISFORTUNE' were
interchanged, also the third and the fourth letters, the fifth and the sixth letters
and so on which letter would then be the eighth letter counting to your left?
Options:
802
A) O B) F C) S D) T
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Q37) If the letters of the following alphabet interchange positions, so that A

takes the place of Z and Z takes the place of A; B takes the place of Y and Y
takes the place of B and so on what will be the 13th letter from the right? A B C
D EFG HI J K L MN OP QR S T U VWX Y Z
Options:
A) M B) N C) O D) L
Q38) Which of the following names will appear in the middle if they are arranged
alphabetically?
Options:
A) Parakashji B) Prakashji C) Parakashjee D) Parkashji
Q39) If the following alphabet is written in the reverse order, which will be the
8th letter to the right of O? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y
Z
Options:
A) F B) G C) V D) W
Q40) Which letter will be eighth to the right of the third letter of the second half
of the English alphabet?
Options:
A) V B) Y C) W D) X
Q41) Write the English alphabet in reverse order. First cancel every second
letter and then select that letter which divides the remaining letters of the
alphabet in two equal parts.
Options:
A) M B) P C) N D) L
Q42) Which word in the following options cannot be formed by using the letters
of the word "CORRIGENDUM". Find this word?
Options:
803
A) GENDER B) DAN GER C) ERROR D) MURDER

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of the word "ACCOMMODATION". Find this word?
Options:
A) NOTATION B) NATION C) ACTION D) ROTATION
of the word "REFRIGERATOR". Find this word?
Options:
A) GRET B) FRI GATE C) REACTOR D) TRAITOR
of the word "PREDOMINATE". Find this word?
Options:
A) TERMIN ATE B) NATURAL C) DOMINATE D) REAPER
of the word "SUBTER FUSE". Find this word?
Options:
A) BARTER B) TERS E C) REFUSE D) FUSE
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) D, Q3) D, Q4) A,

Q5) C, Q6) D, Q7) D, Q8) C, Q9) B,
Q10) A, Q11) C, Q12) D, Q13) D, Q14) C,
Q15) B, Q16) D, Q17) C, Q18) C, Q19) A,
Q20) C, Q21) B, Q22) D, Q23) C, Q24) D,
Q25) D, Q26) C, Q27) B, Q28) A, Q29) C,
Q30) C, Q31) D, Q32) C, Q33) B, Q34) D,
Q35) C, Q36) D, Q37) A, Q38) D, Q39) B,
Q40) D, Q41) C, Q42) B, Q43) D, Q44) C,
Q45) B, Q46) A,
804
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Explanations:
"Q1) A G A R T A L A is written in code as
1416 8171
Therefore A G R A = 1 4 6 1"
Q2) Third, fourth and 11th letters of the word 'C O N T R O V E R O V E R S I A
L ' are N, T and I respectively. two meaningful words 'NIT' and 'TIN' can be
formed with these letters.
Q3) Two letter O and R are repeated in the word 'P R O S P E R O U S'.
Q4) If English alphabets are written in reverse order, 13th letter from the left is
'N' and the fourth letter to the right of N is 'J'.
Q5) If English alphabets are written in reverse order, 12th letter from the left is
'O' and the seventh letter to the right of 'O' IS 'h'.
Q6) If the letters of the two given words are arranged to form two synonyms, the
new formed words are 'GREAT' and 'LARGE'.
Q7) Third, fourth, fifth, seventh and tenth letters of the word' P E R S O N A L I
T Y' are R, S, O, A and T respectively with these letters a meaningful word
'ROAST' is formed.
Q8) After making the required changes, the word formed is 'E D R P S E I S N O'.
The seventh letter of this word from the right is 'P'.
Q9) There are two letters O and X between the letters B and E. also there are
two letters C and D between B and E in the alphabet.
Q10) The third letter to the left of 'J' is 'G' and 15th letter to the right of 'G' is 'V'.
Q11) The letter midway between 'K' and 'S' is 'O' and the third letter to the right
of 'O' is 'R'.
Q12) There is no 'E' in 'PRINCIPAL' but there is 'E' in 'PRICE'.
Q13) There is no 'Y' IS 'Intercorrelate' but there is 'Y' in 'Entry'.
Q14) There is no 'I' in 'Jerusalem' white there is 'I' in 'Mail'.
Q15) There is no 'Y' in 'Dutiful' while there is 'Y' in 'Duty'.

Q16) There is no 'A' in 'Evolution' while there is 'A' in 'Vale'.
Q17) There is no 'I' in 'Ravenous' while there is 'I' in 'River'.
Q18) There is no 'C' is 'Undertaking' while there is 'C' Tricker.
Q19) There is no 'O' in 'Articulates' while there is 'O' in 'Courts'.
805
Q20) There is no 'E' is 'Fallacious' while there is 'E' in 'Files'.

Page
Q21) There is no 'U' in 'Elementary' while there is 'U' in 'Lumen'.

Q22) The names in a telephone directory will be in the following order-

Peremjibhai, Premajeebhai, Premajibhai, Premjeebhai, Premjibhai.
Q23) There are two letters 'U' and 'B' between the letters 'O' and 'L' in the word
'TROUBLE' and also there are two letters 'M' and 'N' between the letters 'O' and
'L' in alphabet. Since 'L' comes earlier in 'O' and 'L' , so 'L' is the required
answer.
Q24) By interchanging the first and second letters, third and fourth letters and
so on of the word' C O R R E S P O N D E N C E' the word 'O C R R S E O P D N
N E E C' is formed the tenth of which from right is 'S'.
Q25) The following 6 words can be made from the word 'U N D E R T A K I N G'.
'Raker', 'Rater', 'Kanter', 'Drinker', 'Reduit', and 'Taken'.
Q27) By writing the letters of the word 'R A T I O N A L I S A T I O N ' according
to alphabet, the word formed will be 'A A A I I I L N N O O R S T T ' in which the
farthest letter from A is 'T'.
Q28) If the letters of 'R A C T O R' are arranged in such a way that a name of
vegetable is formed, the word will be 'C A R R O T'. Its last letter is 'T'.
Q29) If the letters of 'N E S T I N' are arranged to make a name of game, the
word will be 'TENNIS'. Its first and the last letter 'T' and 'S'.
Q30) Inculcate and Impress have the same meaning. the remaining there words
will be in the following order in a dictionary, I mplore, Impose, Indulge.
Q31) In target pattern 'T T O L B' one consonant is repeated. in the same one
consonant is repeated in each of the words. H T H, S S L and V E V.
Q32) There is one vowel between two consonant each of the words as in target
patte rn.
Q33) In each of these words, these three different letters as in target pattern.
Q34) In each of these words, there is one vowel between two consonant as in
target pattern.
Q35) Two letters are repeated in each of these words as in target pattern.
Q36) According to the given instructions, the word formed is 'I M F S R O U T E
N ' in which the eighth letter from the right is 'T'.
Q37) Afte r the necessary changes, the alphabet is reversed in which the 13th
letter from the right is 'M'.
Q38) If the names are arranged alphabetically, their order is: Parakashjee,
Parakashji, Parkashji, Prakashje, Prakashji.
Q39) In a alphabet written in reverse order, the eighth letter to the right of O is
806
'G'.
Page

Q40) Second half of the alphabet starts from the letter N. Therefore, third letter
from N will be P and the eighth letter to the right of P is X.
Q41) Afte r cancelling the every second letter of the alphabet written in reverse
order, we get the remaining as given below-Z X V T R P N L J H F D B Here are
13 letters in which N is the 7th letter which divides the remaining alphabet in
two equal parts.
Q42) The letter 'A' is not present in the word CORRIGENDUM.
Q43) The letter 'R' is not present in 'ACCOMMODATION'.

Q44) The letter 'C' is not present in 'REFRIGERATOR'.
Q45) The letter 'U' is not present in 'PREDOMINATE'.
Q46) The letter 'A' is not present in 'SUBTERFUG E'.
807
Page

Reasoning:
Options:
A) Sunday B) Monday C) Friday D) Saturday
Q2) Insert the missing number: 16/32 , 15/33, 17/31 , 14/34 ,?

Options:
A) 19/35 B) 19/30 C) 18/35 D) 18/30
Q3) Monday falls on 20th March 1995. What was the day on 3rd November
1994?
Options:
A) Thursday B) Sunday C) Tuesday D) Saturday
Q4) The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these
numbers is:
Options:
A) 36 B) 32 C) 30 D) 28
Q5) In a certain code, FHQK means GIRL. How will WOMEN be written in the
same code?
Options:
A) VNLDM B) FHQKN C) XPNFO D) VLNDM
Q6) At what time between 4 and 5 Oclock will the hands of a watch point in
Options:
808
A) 45 min. past 4 B) 40 min. past 4

C) 50(4/11) min. past 4 D) 50(6/11) min. past 4
Page

Q7) In the sequence of numbers 8, 24, 12, X, 18, 54 the missing number X is:
Options:
A) 26 B) 24 C) 36 D) 32
Q8) If A stands for 5, B for 6, C for 7, D for 8 and so on, then the following
numbers stand for 17, 19, 20, 9 and 8:
Options:
A) PLANE B) MOPED C) MOTOR D) TONGA
Q9) The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this
relationship, what is the right choice for the second set? AST: BRU:: N QV:?.
Options:
A) ORW B) MPU C) MRW D) OPW
Q10) In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is
written as:
Options:
A) 30 B) 37 C) 38 D) 39
Q11) The sides of a triangle are in the ratio of 1/2: 1/3: 1/4 . I f its perimeter is
Options:
A) 9cm B) 10cm C) 11cm D) 12cm
Q12) Which is the number that comes next in the sequence?

9, 8, 8, 8, 7, 8, 6,?
Options:
A) 5
B) 8
C) 6
D) 4
809
Q13) If in a certain language PUNCTUAL is coded as 1 6 5 9 8 6 2 3, how would

Page
ACTUPULN be coded?

Options:
A) 8 3 4 5 3 6 B) 2 9 8 6 1 6 3 5
C) 8 3 4 5 3 0 D) 8 3 4 5 3 9
Q14) The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data

Options:
A) Is X related to Y?
B) How is X related to Y?
C) How does X affect the dependent variable Y at different levels of another
independent variable K or M?
D) How is X by K related to M?
Q15) January 12, 1980 was Saturday, what day was January 12, 1979:
Options:
A) Saturday B) Friday
C) Sunday D) Thursday
Q16) How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year, if
Options:
A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) None of the above
Q17) Out of four numbers, the average of the first three numbers is thrice the
Options:
A) 4.5 B) 5 C) 2 D) 4
Q18) Circle graphs are used to show:

Options:
A) How various sections share in the whole?
B) How various parts are related to the whole?
C) How one whole is related to other wholes
810
D) How one part is related to other parts?

Page

Q19) E denotes:
Options:
A) Universal Negative Proposition
B) Particular Affirmative Proposition
C) Universal Affirmative Proposition
D) Particular Negative Proposition
Q20) A is the father of C, and D is the son of B. E is the brother of A. If C is

the sister of D, how is B related to E?
Options:
A) daughter
B) husband
C) sister-in-law
D) brother-in-law
Q21) Find out the number which should come at the place of question mark
which will complete the following series: 5, 4, 9, 17, 35,? = 139
Options:
A) 149
B) 79
C) 49
D) 69
Q22) Which number is missing in the following series? 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50,?
Options:
A) 63
B) 65
C) 67
D) 69
Q23) Insert the missing number: 4: 17:: 7:?

Options:
A) 48
B) 49
C) 50
811
D) 51
Page

Q24) Choose the odd word:

Options:
A) Nun
B) Knight
C) Monk
D) Priest
Q25) Choose the number which is different from others in the group:
Options:
A) 49
B) 63
C) 77
D) 81
Q26) Insert the missing number: 36/62, 39/63, 43/61, 48/64,?

Options:
A) 51/65
B) 56/60
C) 54/65
D) 33/60
Options:
A) 40 minutes past three
B) 50 minutes past three
C) 45 minutes past three
D) 55 minutes past three
Q28) Mary has three children. What is the probability that none of the three
children is a boy?
Options:
A) 01-02-2016
B) 01-03-2016
C) 03-04-2016
812
D) 01-08-2016
Page

Q29) If the radius of a circle is increased by 50 per cent. Its area is increased by:
Options:
A) 125 per cent
B) 100 per cent
C) 75 per cent
D) 50 per cent
Q30) What will be the next letter in the following series? DCXW, FEVU, HGTS
Options:
A) AKPO
B) JBYZ
C) JIRQ
D) LMRS
Q31) AGARTALA is written in code as 14168171, the code for AGRA is:
Options:
A) 1641
B) 1416
C) 1441
D) 1461
Q32) Insert the missing number in the following series: 4 16 8 64? 256
Options:
A) 16
B) 24
C) 32
D) 20
Q33) If an article is sold for Rs. 178 at a loss of 11%; What would be its selling
Options:
A) 222.5
B) 267
C) 222
D) 220
813
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Q34) Insert the missing number in the following: 2/3, 4/7,? , 11/21, 16/31
Options:
A) 10-08-2016
B) 06-10-2016
C) 05-10-2016
D) 01-07-2013
Q35) In a certain code, GAMESMAN is written as AGMEMSAN. How would

Options:
A) IDSCOLSE
B) IDCSOLES
C) IDSCOLES
D) IDSCLOSE
Q36) The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this
relationship mark the right choice for the second set: AST: BRU:: NQV:?
Options:
A) ORW
B) MPU
C) MRW
D) OPW
Q37) On what dates of April 1994 did SUNDAY fall?

Options:
A) 2, 9, 16, 23, 30
B) 3, 10, 17, 24
C) 4, 11, 18, 2
D) 1, 8, 15, 22, 29
Q38) Find out the wrong number in the sequence: 125, 127, 130, 135, 142,
153, 165
Options:
A) 130 B) 142
C) 153 D) 165
814
Page

Q39) There are five books A, B, C, D and E. The book C lies above D, the book E
Options:
A) E B) B C) A D) C
Q40) Insert the missing number in the following: 3, 8, 18, 23, 33,?, 48
Options:
A) 37 B) 40 C) 38 D) 45
Q41) In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be

written in that code?
Options:
A) SPEST B) SPSET C) SPETS D) SEPTS
relationship mark the right choice for the second set: BDFH: OMKI:: GHIK:?
Options:
A) FHJL B) RPNL C) LNPR D) LJHF
Q43) What was the day of the week on 1st January 2001
Options:
A) Friday B) Monday C) Sunday D) Wednesday
Q44) Find out the wrong number in the sequence. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
Options:
A) 27 B) 34 C) 43 D) 48
Q45) When an error of 1% is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the
Options:
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4
815
Page

Q46) January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1,
1996?
Options:
A) Sunday B) Sunday C) Wednesday D) Saturday
Q47) The next number in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37,? will be

Options:
A) 74 B) 75 C) 76 D) None of the above
Q48) There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions

can be answered in
Options:
A) 20 ways B) 100 ways C) 240 ways D) 1024 ways
Q49) What will be the next term in the following? DCXW, FEVU, HGTS,?
Options:
A) AKPO B) ABYZ C) JIRQ D) LMRS
Q50) Three individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1,
040. They used it for 7, 8, 11 hours, respectively. What are the charges paid by
Y?
Options:
A) Rs. 290 B) Rs. 320 C) Rs.360 D) Rs.440
Q51) Blacksmith is related to Anvil in the same way as surgeon is related to

Options:
A) scalpel B) knife C) pen D) stethoscope
Q52) Mary has three children. What is the probability that none of the three
children is a boy
Options:
816
A) B) 1/3 C) 3/4 D) 1/8

Page

Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) D, Q3) A,
Q4) C, Q5) C, Q6) D, Q7) C, Q8) B,
Q9) D, Q10) B, Q11) D, Q12) C, Q13) B,
Q14) D, Q15) B, Q16) D, Q17) C, Q18) A,
Q19) A, Q20) C, Q21) D, Q22) B, Q23) C,
Q24) B, Q25) D, Q26) C, Q27) B, Q28) D,
Q29) A, Q30) C, Q31) D, Q32) A, Q33) C,
Q34) D, Q35) A, Q36) D, Q37) B, Q38) D,
Q39) B, Q40) C, Q41) C, Q42) C, Q43) B,
Q44) B, Q45) C, Q46) B, Q47) B, Q48) D,
Q49) C, Q50) B, Q51) A, Q52) D,
Explanations:
Q52) 1.The probably of a boy are bbb, bbg, bgb, gbb, bgg, gbg, ggb, ggg, which is
8 'equally likely' cases, one meets desired criteria, probability of desired criteria
is 1/8 .
2. Probability that first child is not boy= 1/2
Probability that second child is not boy= 1/2

Probability that third child is not boy= 1/2
Probability that none of the three children is a boy= 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 = 1/8
817
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UNIT 5
Logical Reasoning
818
Page

Logical Reasoning
Analogy Test:
Q1) If EFGHIJK is coded as VUT-SRQP then LIMIT can be coded as

Options:
A) KNRNC
B) ORNRG
C) JKOKG
D) RSTSG
Q2) In any discipline, theories and observables (related experimental results)
Options:
A) should complement each other
B) often more than not should contradict e ach other
C) need not have anything to do with each other
D) should compensate each other
Q3) Doctor: Medicine:: Teacher

Options:
A) Class
B) Lecture
C) Education
D) Students
Q4) ELEGAN CE is related to VULGARITY in the same way as GRACEFUL is

related to
Options:
A) AWKWARD
B) COMELY
C) ASPERITY
D) DIRTY
819
Page

Q5) In a certain code language, 419 means fruit is sweet 248 means
very sweet voice and 637 means eat fruit daily then 9 stands for
Options:
A) eat
B) is
C) daily
D) fruit
Q6) Montreal protocol is related to

Options:
A) Ozone depletion
B) Nuclear weapons
C) Sea-bed
D) Landmines
Q7) Find the odd one out of the following

Options:
A) hockey
B) cricket
C) baseball
D) basketball
Q8) If BOY is coded as ACNPXZ and COW as BDNPVX then how will you code
LIFE?
Options:
A) KMHJEGDF
B) LMGHEGDF
C) LMHJGEFD
D) None of these
Q9) Hour is related to second in the same four

Options:
A) Bodhgaya
B) Secondary
820
C) Primary
D) Intermediary
Page

Q10) Bull is related to Drought in the same way as cow is related to ..........
Options:
A) Livestock
B) Milch
C) Farm
D) Fodder
Q11) If Dust is called Air, Air is called Fire, Fire is called Water, Water is called
colour. colour is called Rain and Rain is called Dust, the where do fish live?
Options:
A) colour
B) Dust
C) Water
D) Fire
Q12) Promotional device which is used to improve the image and profitability of
a periodical is known as
Options:
A) Personal Relation
B) Personnel Relation
C) Public Relation
D) Promotional Relation
Q13) COACH: TEAM::

Options:
A) groupie: band
B) foreman: jury
C) diplomat: country
D) senator: senate
Q14) ANARCHY: GOVERNMENT::

Options:
A) confederation: state
B) trepidation: courage
C) serenity: equanimity
821
D) computer: hard drive

Page

Q15) GALVANIZE: CHARISMATIC LEADER::

Options:
A) jeer: fan
B) correct: charlatan
C) retreat: champion
D) moderate: arbiter
Q16) SENTENCE: WORDS::
Options:
A) album: guitar
B) paragraph: punctuation
C) novel: index
D) collage: paper strips
Q17) PARRY: BLOW::

Options:
A) equivocate: question
B) cower: start
C) boomerang: backlash
D) cast: invective
Q18) DI SQUIETUDE: ANXIOUS::

Options:
A) isolation: sequestered
B) cupidity: bellicose
C) embellishment: overstated
D) nonplus: perplexed
Q19) MILK: DRAIN::

Options:
A) insult: commend
B) abstract: distend
C) extend: disregard
D) exploit: employ
822
Page

Q20) ABSTRUSE: CLEAR::

Options:
A) nondescript: conspicuous
B) high-brow: indifferent
C) affable: agreeable
D) prominent: manifest
Q21) OMNISCIENT: KNOWLEDGE::
Options:
A) saturnine: energy
B) principled: method
C) inquisitive: science
D) boundless: expanse
Q22) STOKE: SMOTHER::

Options:
A) incinerate: heat
B) animate: enervate
C) contest: decry
D) acknowledge: apprehend
same code?
Options:
A) VNLDM
B) FHQKN
C) XPNFO
D) VLNDM
Q24) The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this
relationship, what is the right choice for the second set?
AST:: BRU:: N QV:?.
Options:
A) ORW B) MPU
823
C) MRW D) OPW
Page

Q25) In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35. In this code PAT is
written as:
Options:
A) 30
B) 37
C) 38
D) 39
Q26) If in a certain language PUNC-TUAL is coded as 1 6 5 9 8 6 2 3, how would

ACTUPULN be coded?
Options:
A) 8 3 4 5 3 6
B) 2 9 8 6 1 6 3
C) 8 3 4 5 3 0
D) 8 3 4 5 3 9
Q27) Choose the odd word:

Options:
A) Nun
B) knight
C) Monk
D) Priest
Q28) If the radius of a circle is in-creased by 50 per cent. Its area is increased
by:
Options:
A) 1.25
B) 1
C) 0.75
D) 0.5
Q29) Ina certain code, GAMESMAN written as AGMEMSAN. How would

Options:
A) IDSCOLSE B) IDCSOLES
824
C) IDSCOLES D) IDSCLOSE
Page

relationship mark the right choice for the second set: AST: BRU:: NQV:?
Options:
A) ORW
B) MPU
C) MRW
D) OPW
Q31) In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be

Options:
A) SPEST
B) SPSET
C) SPETS
D) SEPTS
relationship mark the right choice for the second set: BDFH: OMKI:: GHIK:?
Options:
A) FHJL
B) RPNL
C) LNPR
D) LJHF
Q33) Light: Sun:: Heat:?

Options:
A) Electricity
B) Moon
C) Fire
D) Star
Q34) Handsome: Beautiful:: Husband:?

Options:
A) Women B) Wife
C) Girl D) She
825
Page

Q35) 3: 10:: 8:?

Options:
A) 10
B) 13
C) 17
D) 14
Q36) Monday: April:: Friday:?
Options:
A) July
B) Saturday
C) August
D) Tuesday
Q37) Parrot: Cage:: Man:?

Options:
A) Home
B) Motor Car
C) Prison
D) Forest
Q38) Waiting: Boredom:: Education:?

Options:
A) Class
B) Enlightenment
C) Schooling
D) Cunning
Q39) Angry.: Night::?: Day

Options:
A) Helpful
B) Pleased
C) Cruel
D) Loving
826
Page

Q40) 28: 126:: 126:?

Options:
A) 127
B) 28
C) 56
D) 81
Q41) 17: 19:: 47:?
Options:
A) 53
B) 59
C) 41
D) 34
Q42) NUMBER: UNBMRE:: GHOST:?

Options:
A) HGSOT
B) TSOGH
C) OGHST
D) SOTGH
Q43) Disease: Health:: Free dom:?

Options:
A) Slavery
B) Pleasure
C) Plight
D) Beauty
Q44) ABC: ZYX:: CBA:?

Options:
A) DCY
B) BCA
C) XYZ
D) XZY
827
Page

Q45) UTS: FDC:: WVU:?

Options:
A) YWV
B) WXY
C) UVW
D) HGF
Q46) Butter: Milk:: Oil:?
Options:
A) Cow
B) Seeds
C) Curd
D) Grains
Q47) Crime: Punishment:: Deed:?

Options:
A) Pleasure
B) Hatred
C) Sin
D) Prize
Q48) Soldier: Gun:: Blacksmith:?

Options:
A) Wood
B) Sword
C) Iron
D) Hammer
Q49) Crime: Punishment:: Deed:?

Options:
A) Pleasure
B) Hatred
C) Sin
D) Prize
828
Page

Q50) Air: Atmosphere:: Water:?

Options:
A) Island
B) Earth
C) Ocean
D) Drop
Q51) Mother: Daughter:: Father:?
Options:
A) Son
B) Brother
C) Boy
D) Sister
Q52) Obey: Defy:: Work:?

Options:
A) Lazy
B) Rest
C) Idle
D) Labour
Q53) Light: Sun:: Heat:?

Options:
A) Electricity
B) Moon
C) Fire
D) Stars
Q54) Oil: Lamp:: Wax:?

Options:
A) Bulb
B) Candle
C) Light
D) Dark
829
Page

Q55) Parrot: Cage:: Man:?

Options:
A) Home
B) Life
C) House
D) Prison
Q56) Pen: Ink:: Pencil:?
Options:
A) Knife
B) Write
C) Lead
D) Chalk
Q57) Trouble: Safety:: Freedom:?

Options:
A) I ndependence
B) Slavery
C) Liberty
D) Patient
Q58) Sickness: Health:: Happiness:?

Options:
A) Medicine
B) Misery
C) Comfort
D) Sorrow
Q59) Bee: Honey:: Cow:?

Options:
A) Animal
B) Grass
C) Milk
D) Water
830
Page

Q60) Ocean: Pond:: Deep:?

Options:
A) River
B) Shallow
C) Canal
D) Clean
Q61)?: Simple:: Abstract: Concrete
Options:
A) Specific
B) Hard
C) Procedure
D) Complex
Q62) Walk: Run:: Bree ze:?

Options:
A) Cold
B) Fast
C) Wind
D) Breathe
Q63) Factory: Production:: School:?

Options:
A) Teacher
B) Students
C) Building
D) Education
Q64) House: Wall:: Wall:?

Options:
A) Cement
B) Sand
C) Roof
D) Brick
831
Page

Q65) Cardboard: Opaque:: Glass:?

Options:
A) Brittle
B) Glossy
C) Transparent
D) Lustrous
Q66) Soft: Sponge:: Sharp:?
Options:
A) Blunt
B) Cut
C) pierce
D) Edge
Q67) Pupil: Class:: Bead:?

Options:
A) Necklace
B) Ornament
C) Jewellery
D) Gold
Q68) Entrance: Exit:: Loyalty:?

Options:
A) Falsehood
B) Disrespect
C) Dishonesty
D) Treachery
Q69) Chapter: Book:: Flower:?

Options:
A) Plant
B) Bud
C) Letter
D) Bouquet
832
Page

Q70) Disease: Pathology:: planets:?

Options:
A) Sun
B) Satellite
C) Astrology
D) Astronomy
Q71) Ankle: Knee:: Wrist:?
Options:
A) Elbow
B) Hand
C) Finger
D) Foot
Q72) Army: Soldier:: Galaxy:?

Options:
A) Planet
B) Satellite
C) Meteor
D) Star
Q73) Doctor: Medicine:: Teacher:?

Options:
A) Class
B) Students
C) College
D) Lecture
Q74) Statue: Size:: Song:?

Options:
A) Words
B) Beauty
C) Tune
D) Poetry
833
Page

Q75) Sorrow: Joy:: Pleasure:?

Options:
A) Feat
B) Anger
C) Hatred
D) Pain
Q76) Dark: Light:: Black:?
Options:
A) White
B) Night
C) Day
D) Dark
Q77) Meter:?:: Litre: Volume

Options:
A) Weight
B) Pressure
C) Length
D) Area
Q78) Circle:?:: Sphere: Cube

Options:
A) Round
B) Square
C) Ring
D) Corners
Q79) Ornithologist: Bird:: Anthropologist:?

Options:
A) Animals
B) Insects
C) Minerals
D) Mankind
834
Page

Q80) Step: Staircase:: Soldier:?

Options:
A) Rifle
B) War
C) Army
D) Bravery
Q81) Ancient: Modern:: Often:?
Options:
A) Seldom
B) Frequent
C) Always
D) Never
Q82)?: Bee:: Fang: Snake

Options:
A) Flying
B) Humming
C) Honey
D) Sting
Q83)?: Graceful:: Vulgarity: Elegance

Options:
A) Plain
B) Awkward
C) Asperity
D) Comely
Q84)?: Copy:: Invent: Imitate

Options:
A) Discovery
B) Inquiry
C) Draw
D) Original
835
Page

Q85)?: Giraffe:: Australia: Kangaroo

Options:
A) I ndia
B) Antarctica
C) Africa
D) France
Q86)?: Light:: Dusk: Dawn
Options:
A) Electricity
B) Sun
C) Noon
D) Heavy
Q87)?: Man:: Aves: Bird

Options:
A) Lizard
B) Homosapiens
C) Mammals
D) Holothurodiea
Q88) Newspaper: Press:: Cloth:?

Options:
A) Cotton
B) Mill
C) Tailor
D) Market
Q89) Fossils: Creatures:: Mummies:?

Options:
A) Mothers
B) Human beings
C) Dried up dead bodies
D) Dead bodies
836
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Q90) Education: Teacher:: Treatment:?

Options:
A) Medicine
B) Nurse
C) Chemist
D) Doctor
Q91) Clock: Time:: Lamp:?
Options:
A) Bulb
B) Room
C) Glow
D) Light
Q92) Well: Depth:: Word:?

Options:
A) Literature
B) Language
C) Meaning
D) Writing
Q93) House: Windows:: Man:?

Options:
A) Universe
B) Eyes
C) Speech
D) Brain
Q94) Stammering: Speech:: Deafness:?

Options:
A) Hearing
B) Ear
C) Dumb
D) Silence
837
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Q95) Car: Petrol:: T.V.:?

Options:
A) Antenna
B) Entertainment
C) Electricity
D) Screen
Q96) Home: Shelter:: School:?
Options:
A) Principal
B) Student
C) Class
D) Education
Q97) Stone: Hard:: Feather:?

Options:
A) Soft
B) White
C) Bird
D) Fly
Q98) Tall: Short:: Treachery:?

Options:
A) Glory
B) Disgrace
C) Honour
D) Loyalty
Q99) Plant: Tree:: House:?

Options:
A) Skyscraper
B) Castle
C) Home
D) Building
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Q100) ABC: ZYX:: CBA:?

Options:
A) XYZ
B) BCA
C) YZX
D) ZXY
Q101) JLN: SQO:: PRT:?
Options:
A) UYW
B) UTV
C) YWU
D) VUT
Q102) ADE: FGJ:: KN O:?

Options:
A) PQR
B) TPR
C) PQT
D) RQP
Q103) DGJ: KMO:: MPS:?

Options:
A) TVX
B) WUS
C) SVY
D) XVT
Q104) ACE: HIL:: MOQ:?

Options:
A) TVX
B) TUX
C) XVT
D) SUW
839
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Q105) LOM: N MK:: PKI:?

Options:
A) RIX
B) SHG
C) RIG
D) RHG
Q106) LJH: KKI:: CIA:?
Options:
A) BJB
B) BBB
C) DBB
D) CBZ
Q107) Aab: Aab:: Pqr:?

Options:
A) PQR
B) PQr
C) pQr
D) Pqr
Q108) BCD: FGH:: LMN:?

Options:
A) WXV
B) VWX
C) STV
D) XWV
Q109) ABD: CDF:: MNP;?

Options:
A) KLM
B) LNO
C) VXY
D) NPQ
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Q110) UTS: FDC:: WVU:?

Options:
A) XWV
B) WXY
C) SJM
D) RPO
Q111) NUMBER: UNBMRE:: GHOST:?
Options:
A) HOGST
B) HOGTS
C) HGOST
D) HGSOT
Q112) DRIVEN: EIDRVN:: BEGUM:?

Options:
A) EUBGM
B) MGBEM
C) BGMEU
D) UEBGM
Q113) BDAC: FHEG:: NPMO:?

Options:
A) QTRS
B) RQTS
C) TRQS
D) QRT
Q114) PRLN: XZTV:: JLFH:?

Options:
A) RTNP
B) NPRT
C) NRPT
D) NTRP
841
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Q115) EGI K: FILO:: FHJL:?

Options:
A) JGMP
B) JGPM
C) GJMP
D) GJPM
Q116) LXN U: NYPV:: QTBR:?
Options:
A) SDSU
B) RSUD
C) RUSD
D) SRUD
Q117) PNLJ: IGEC:: VTRP:?

Options:
A) QOMK
B) RSTU
C) QSRC
D) RPOM
Q118) JTIS: HRGQ:: FPEO:?

Options:
A) CNDM
B) CN DQ
C) DNCM
D) DCNQ
Q119) QYGO: SAIQ:: UCKS:?

Options:
A) WDMV
B) VFNU
C) WDLU
D) VEMU
842
Q120) YAWC: UESG:: QIOK:?

Page

Options:
A) MINC
B) MIKE
C) KOME
D) MMKO
Q121) BZDX: FUHT:: JRLP:?

Options:
A) NN KL
B) NN LO
C) NN PL
D) NMLR
Q122) ACFJ: OUZJ:: SUXB:?

Options:
A) GNSA B) GLQZ
C) GLKPY D) GORC
Q123) PCWL: REXM:: THNY:?

Options:
A) OZPL B) KOVZ
C) PMKZ D) VJOZ
Q124) CFIL: PSVY:: HKNQ:?

Options:
A) NPSV B) LPSY
C) LORU D) MOQT
Q125) 1/4: 1/8:: 1/3:?

Options:
A) 01-07-2016
B) 01-04-2016
C) 01-06-2016
843
D) 02-06-2016
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Q126) 1/4: 1/8:: 2/3:?

Options:
A) 01-04-2016
B) 01-03-2016
C) 01-02-2016
D) 02-07-2016
Q127) 09: 25:: 49:?
Options:
A) 63
B) 36
C) 64
D) 81
Q128) 01: 04:: 05:?

Options:
A) 6
B) 16
C) 24
D) 36
Q129) 01: 08:: 09:?

Options:
A) 16
B) 25
C) 36
D) 49
Q130) 12: 35:: 16:?

Options:
A) 32
B) 48
C) 49
D) 63
844
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Q131) 7: 11:: 31:?

Options:
A) 36
B) 39
C) 37
D) 43
Q132) 122: 170:: 290:?
Options:
A) 299
B) 315
C) 332
D) 344
Q133) 3: 16:: 7:?

Options:
A) 49
B) 52
C) 64
D) 73
Q134) 42: 56:: 110:?

Options:
A) 132
B) 136
C) 144
D) 148
Q135) 01: 08:: 16:?

Options:
A) 25
B) 125
C) 64
D) 27
845
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Q136) 12: 20:: 30:?

Options:
A) 15
B) 32
C) 35
D) 42
Q137) 3: 10:: 08:?
Options:
A) 10
B) 13
C) 17
D) 14
Q138) 01: 04:: 08:?

Options:
A) 96
B) 81
C) 72
D) 64
Q139) 11: 17:: 19:?

Options:
A) 29
B) 27
C) 25
D) 21
Q140) 08: 28:: 15:?

Options:
A) 63
B) 126
C) 65
D) 124
846
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Q141) 08: 09:: 64:?

Options:
A) 16
B) 25
C) 125
D) 32
Q142) 5: 8:: 15:?
Options:
A) 19
B) 20
C) 18
D) 21
Q143) 3: 9:: 8:?

Options:
A) 14
B) 64
C) 25
D) 27
Q144) 6: 24:: 5:?

Options:
A) 23
B) 22
C) 26
D) 20
Q145) 5: 26:: 7:?

Options:
A) 50
B) 55
C) 28
D) 19
847
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Q146) 6: 35:: 11:?

Options:
A) 120
B) 115
C) 122
D) 121
Q147) 3: 27:: 4:?
Options:
A) 140
B) 75
C) 100
D) 80
Q148) 3: 3(3/8):: 5:?

Options:
A) 5(5/8)
B) 5(3/8)
C) 5(2/8)
D) 5(9/8)
Q149) 1: 5:: 7:?

Options:
A) 8
B) 9
C) 15
D) 13
Q150) Resignation: Office::

Options:
A) Competition: Game
B) Illness: Hospital
C) Abdication: Throne
D) Moisture: Rain
848
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Q151) Bunch: Key::

Options:
A) Hound: Pack
B) Team: Competition
C) Beehive: Bee
D) Examination: Subject
Q152) Profit: Loss:
Options:
A) Success: Failure Rupee: Paisa
B) Rupee: Paisa
C) Whole: part
D) Multiplication: Addition
Q153) Sapling: Tree ::

Options:
A) Horse: Mare
B) Student: Teacher
C) Bud: Flower
D) Tree: Furniture
Q154) Supervisor: Worker::

Options:
A) Junior: Senior
B) Superior: I nferior
C) Elder: Younger
D) Debtor: Creditor
Q155) Malaria: Mosquito::

Options:
A) Poison: Death
B) Rat: Plague
C) Epidemic: Bacteria
D) Cholera: Water
849
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Q156) Paisa: Rupee::

Options:
A) Kilogram: Quintal
B) Meter: Centimetre
C) Coin: Money
D) Weight: Ton
Q157) Poet: Verse::
Options:
A) Prose: Novelist
B) Author: Book
C) Novel: prose
D) Publication: Editor
Q158) Water: Thirst::

Options:
A) Food: Hunger
B) Sun: Energy
C) Appetite: Meal
D) Ice-Cream: Cold
Q159) Pulp: Paper::

Options:
A) Wood: Table
B) Cloth: Shirt
C) Yarn: Fabric
D) Iron: Steel
Q160) 'Skirmish' is related to 'War' in the same way as 'Disease' is related to-
Options:
A) I nfection
B) Epidemic
C) Patient
D) Medicine
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Q161) Captain' is related to 'Soldier' in the same way as 'Leader' is related to-
Options:
A) Chair
B) follower
C) party
D) Minister
Q162) Tree' is related to 'Root' in the same way as 'Smoke' is related to-
Options:
A) Cigarette
B) Fire
C) Heat
D) Chimney
Q163) Head' is related to 'Cap' in the same way as 'Finger' is related to-
Options:
A) Nail
B) Helmet
C) Ring
D) Thimble
Q164) Carpenter' is related to 'Furniture' in the same way as 'Cobbler' is related

to-
Options:
A) Shoe
B) Chappal
C) Footwear
D) Leather
Q165) Tree' is related to 'Sapling' in the same way as 'woman' is related to-
Options:
A) Off-spring
B) Father
C) Boy
D) Flower
851
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Q166) Vocalis t' is related to 'Song' in the same way as 'Player' is related to-
Options:
A) Game
B) Victory
C) Match
D) Practice
Q167) Accommodation' is related to 'Rent' in the same way as 'Journey' is

related to-
Options:
A) Luggage
B) Expense
C) Tax
D) Octroi
Q168) Smoke' is related to 'Pollution' in the same way as 'War' is related to-
Options:
A) Victory
B) Death
C) Destruction
D) Treaty
Q169) Bell' is related to 'Sound' in the same way as 'Lamp' is related to-
Options:
A) Flame
B) Light
C) Wick
D) Oil
Q170) Stone' is related to 'Hard' in the same way as 'Feather' is related to-
Options:
A) White
B) Bird
C) Soft
D) Fly
852
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Q171) Thermometer' is related to' Degree' in the same way as 'Clock' is related
to-
Options:
A) Wall
B) Time
C) Hour
D) Needle
Q172) Soft' is related to 'Sponge' in the same way as 'Sharp' is related to-
Options:
A) Blunt
B) Pierce
C) Cut
D) Edge
Q173) Cardboard' is related to 'Opaque' in the same way as 'Glass' is related to-
Options:
A) Brittle
B) Lustrous
C) Glossy
D) Transparent
Q174) House' is related to 'Wall' in the same way as 'Wall' is related to-
Options:
A) Cement
B) Brick
C) Sand
D) Roof
Q175) Walk' is related to 'Run' in the same way as 'Breeze' is related to-
Options:
A) Wind
B) Cold
C) Air
D) Fast
853
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Q176) Factory' is related to 'Production' in the same way as 'School' is related

to-
Options:
A) Teacher
B) Building
C) Education
D) students
Q177) Stammering' is related to 'Speech' in the same way as 'Deafness' is

related to which of the following?
Options:
A) Ear
B) Hearing
C) Dumb
D) Silence
Q178) Pupil' is related to 'Class' in the same way as 'Bead' is related to-
Options:
A) Necklace
B) Ornament
C) Jewellery
D) Gold
Q179) Book' is related to 'Author' in the same way as 'Food' is related to-
Options:
A) Guest
B) Container
C) Cook
D) Butter
Q180) Which one is the same as Bombay, Calcutta, Cochin?

Options:
A) Delhi
B) Kanpur
C) Madras
854
D) Sholapur
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Q181) Which one is the same as Coal, Ebony and Soot?

Options:
A) Blush
B) Raven
C) Ash
D) Rust
Q182) Which one is the same as Basket, Pail and Pan?
Options:
A) Knife
B) Spoon
C) Fork
D) Bowl
Q183) Which one is the same as Emancipate, Free and Release?

Options:
A) I gnore
B) Pardon
C) Liberate
D) Quit
Q184) Which one is the same as Daisy, Pansy and Rose?

Options:
A) Bed
B) Violet
C) Plant
D) Red
Q185) Which one is the same as Arid, Parched and Droughty?

Options:
A) Draft
B) Cow
C) Earth
D) Dry
855
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Q186) Which one is the same as Grandfather, Father and Brother?

Options:
A) Baby
B) Father-in-Law
C) Son
D) Son-in-law
Q187) Which one is the same as Yellow, Orange and Green?
Options:
A) Tree
B) Purple
C) Grass
D) Leaf
Q188) Which one is the same as Lungs, Liver and Kidneys?

Options:
A) Heart
B) Intestines
C) Testis
D) Neck
Q189) Which one is the same as Lock, Shut and Fasten?

Options:
A) Window
B) Door
C) Block
D) Iron
Q190) With respective to the following three words. Which One expresses most
effectively the general characteristic of these three words. What is the alternative
word? Airplane, Train, Truck
Options:
A) Speed
B) Rooms
C) Wheels
856
D) Transport
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word?
Wolf, Leopard, Deer

Options:
A) Meat eater
B) Jungles
C) Mammals
D) Cruel
word?
Sword, Gun, Pistol

Options:
A) Arms
B) Cons table
C) Bullet
D) War
word?
Fraud, Jealously, Hatred

Options:
A) Destruction B) Envy
C) Human Characteristics D) Quality
word?
Novel, Epic, Drama
Options:
A) Subject B) Literature
C) Poetry D) Knowledge
857
Page

word?
Wheat, Barley, Rice

Options:
A) Food
B) Gram
C) Cereal
D) Agriculture
word?
Coal, Iron, Mica

Options:
A) Rock
B) Minerals
C) Gold
D) Earth
word?
Honesty, Credibility, Reliability

Options:
A) Quality B) Dependability
C) Charter D) Nicety
word?
Cap, Coat, Trousers
Options:
A) Smart B) Shirt
C) Dress D) Tailor
858
Page

word?
Stool, Table, Chair

Options:
A) Bench
B) Furniture
C) Carpet
D) Office
Q200) Which one of the following is same as Liver, Heart, Kidney?

Options:
A) Nose
B) Blood
C) Urine
D) Lung
Q201) Which one of the following is same as Uncle Aunt, Brother?
Options:
A) Child
B) Boy
C) Adult
D) Nephew
Q202) Which one of the following is same as jute, Cotton, Wool?

Options:
A) Nylon
B) Rayon
C) Silk
D) Terylene
Q203) Which one of the following is same as Lead, Convince, Allure?

Options:
A) Direct B) Order
859
C) Initiate D) Fascinate
Page

Q204) Which one of the following is same as Flood, Fire, Cyclone?

Options:
A) Accident
B) Rain
C) Earthquake
D) Damage
Q205) Which one of the following is same as Carpenter, Plumber, Electrician?
Options:
A) Doctor
B) Blacksmith
C) Teacher
D) Lawyer
Q206) Which one of the following is same as Cork, Plug, Dam?

Options:
A) Obstruction
B) Drain
C) Pipe
D) Tap
Q207) Which one of the following is same as Red, Yellow, Blue?

Options:
A) Sky
B) Dark
C) Green
D) Bright
Q208) Which one of the following is same as Desire, Wish, Want?

Options:
A) Pleasant
B) Feel
C) Anxiety
D) Satisfy
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Q209) Which one of the following is same as Ohm, Volt, Amp.?

Options:
A) Light
B) Meter
C) Hour
D) Watt
Q210) What' is related to 'Foot' in the same way as a 'Hand' is related to Wrist?
Options:
A) Length
B) Shoe
C) Ankle
D) Leg
Q211) What' is related to 'Pint' in the same way as 'Inch' is related to

Centimetre?
Options:
A) Gallon
B) Litre
C) Weight
D) Volume
Q212) As 'friend' is to friendly' so 'Opponent' is to-

Options:
A) Enemy
B) Hostile
C) Defeat
D) Contest
Q213)? Is related to Masculine in the same way Woman is related to?

Options:
A) Disguise, Modest
B) Capacity, Woman
C) Man, Feminine
D) Brave, Mrs.
861
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Q214)? Is to Sky as Fish is to?

Options:
A) Blue, Swim
B) Bird, Water
C) Open, Hook
D) Tree, colour
Q215)? Is to Uncle as Mother is to?

Options:
A) Brother, Brought-up
B) Father, Aunt
C) Cousin, Beautiful
D) Aunt, Father
Q216)? Is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to?

Options:
A) Colombo, India
B) Kathmandu, Capital
C) India, Paris
D) Island, Harbour
Q217)? Is to Ivory as Deer is to?

Options:
A) White, Hunt B) Elephant, Horn
C) Huge, Rare D) Costly, Scarce
Q218) Table is to? as Cup is to?

Options:
A) Furniture, Tea B) Student, Horse
C) Wood, Hot D) Chair, Plate
Q219) Sugar is to? As Mava is to?

Options:
A) Sweet, Sour B) Energy, Machine
862
C) Sugarcane, Milk D) White, Sweet

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Q220)? Is to Sun as Rain is to?

Options:
A) Moon, Rainbow
B) Light, Cloud
C) Sky, Wet
D) Day, Night
Q221)? Is to Brain as Mouth is to?
Options:
A) Skull, Tongue
B) Hat, Lips
C) Hair, Voice
D) Turban, Saliva
Q222)? Is to Touch as Ear is to?

Options:
A) Hand, Know
B) Experience, Feeling
C) Skin, Hear
D) Hair, Dirt
Q223) Genuine: Authentic:: Mirage:?

Options:
A) Illusion
B) Image
C) Hideout
D) Reflection
Q224) Find the odd one out

Options:
A) Sucheta Kriplani
B) j. jayalatitha
C) Padmaja Naidu
D) Mayawati
863
Q225) If in a certain code, BEAT is coded as GIDV What is the code of SOUP?
Page

Options:
A) XSXR
B) XSSR
C) XXXR
D) WXYR
Q226) Which Of The following Is Wrongly Matched?

Options:
A) Froebel --Progressivism B) Dewey --Pragmatism

C) Skinner --Gestalt D) Herbart --Apperception
Q227) The Adage Of Maintaining Good Relations With Others Is

Options:
A) Sycophancy
B) Kaleidoscopic Personality
C) Attractive Features And Mental Make Up
D) Control Over Emotion
Q228) Find the odd man out of following group?

Options:
A) JLMK B) PRSQ
C) RUTS D) NOPM
Q229) In a certain code. ROUNDS is written as RONUDS. How will PLEASE will
be written in the same code:
Options:
A) L P A E S E
B) P L A E S E
C) L P A E E S
D) P L A S E E
Q230) If EFGHIJK is coded as VUTSRQP then LIMIT can be coded as:

Options:
864
A) KNRNC B) ORNRG
C) JKOKG D) RSTSG
Page

same code?
Options:
A) VNLDM
B) FHQKN
C) XPNFO
D) VLNDM
Q232) In each of the four group of letters one is different from the others. Pick
the odd one out.
Options:
A) I SRQ B) MLKJ
C) HGFD D) NMLK
Q233) In the income section, how many degrees (approx.) should there be in
central angle of the sector representing income tax?
Options:
A) 105 B) 120
C) 135 D) 150
Q234) Promotional device which is used to improve the image and profitability of
a periodical is known as
Options:
A) Personal Relation
B) Personnel Relation
C) Public Relation
D) Promotional Relation
Q235) Jackal ' is related to ' Carnivorous" in the same way as ' Goat ' is related
to .
Options:
A) Omnivorous
B) Herbivorous
C) Carnivorous
D) Multivorous
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Q236) Which one of the following words is different from the rest three

Options:
A) Odour
B) Smell
C) Fragrance
D) Foul
Q237) Bull is related to Drought in the same way as cow is related to .

Options:
A) Livestock
B) Milch
C) Farm
D) Fodder
Q238) are self replicating malicious code independent of the action of

the user but slow down the processes on entering a network.
Options:
A) Viruses
B) Worm
C) Trojan Horse
D) None of these
Q239) Hour is related to 'second' in the same four

Options:
A) Bodhgaya
B) Secondary
C) Primary
D) Intermediary
Q240) If BOY is coded as ACNPXZ and COW as BDNPVX then how will you code
LIFE?
Options:
A) KMHJEGDF
B) LMGHEGDF
C) LMHJGEFD
D) None of these
866
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Q241) ELEGAN CE is related to VULGARITY in the same way as a GRACEFUL is

related to
Options:
A) AWKWARD B) COMELY
C) ASPERITY D) DIRTY
Q242) In a certain code language, 419 means fruit is sweet 248 means very
sweet voice and 637 means eat fruit daily then 9 stands for
Options:
A) eat B) is
C) daily D) fruit
Q243) Montreal protocol is related to

Options:
A) Ozone depletion B) Nuclear weapons
C) Sea-bed D) Landmines
Q244) Blacksmith is related to Anvil in the same way as surgeon is related to

Options:
A) scalpel B) knife
C) pen D) stethoscope
Q245) In any discipline, theories and observables (related experimental results)
Options:
A) should complement each other
B) often more than not should contradict e ach other
C) need not have anything to do with each other
D) should compensate each other
Q246) Three words are given in this question, which have something in common
among themselves. Out of the four given alternatives, choose the most
appropriates, choose the most appropriate descriptive about these three words.
Ovary: Uterus: Cervix
867
Options:
A) They are excretory organs B) They are reproductive organs
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C) They are endocrine glands D) They are organs for fertilization in plants

Q247) Murali s aid to a lady. "The son of your only brother is the brother of my
wife ". How is the lady related to Murali?
Options:
A) Mother B) Pate rnal Mother-in-law

C) Mother-in-law D) None of these
Q248) Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between
two variables?
Options:
A) Scatter Diagram
B) Frequency Distribution
C) Two-way table
D) Coefficient of rank Correlation
Q249) Select on alternative, in which the third statement is implie d by the first
two statements.
Options:
A) All elephants are wild. All tigers are wild. So, Tigers are elephants.
B) All apples are red some apples are oranges. So all oranges are red.
C) All roads are rails. All carts are roads. So, all rails are carts.
D) All men can run. All women are men. So, all women can run.
Q250) If in a certain language, GERMANY is coded as HGUQFTF then how will

you code N EOMAN?
Options:
A) OFQPES B) OGRQFT
C) OFQQFT D) None of these
Q251) Elevated: Exalted

Options:
A) Dirty: Filthy
B) Rouse: Commensurate
C) Promoted: Excellence
D) Poor: Poverty
868
Q252) If LIMIT is coded as ORNRG and SOUR is coded as HLFI, then HIGH can
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be coded as

Options:
A) STRS
B) SRTS
C) RSTR
D) GLOG
Q253) In a code language 256 means 'you are good' 637, means 'we are bad',
358 means 'good and bad' then what is the code for 'and'?
Options:
A) 2 B) 5
C) 8 D) 3
Q254) Soldier: Gun ; Blacksmith:?
Options:
A) Wood B) Iron
C) Sword D) Hammer
Q255) A and B are married couple. X and Y are brothers. X is the brother of (a)
How is Y related to B?
Options:
A) Brother B) Brother in law
C) Son D) Father
Q256) Snowfall is related to precipitation in the same way as Grotto is related to

Options:
A) Throat B) Castle
C) Cave D) Fort
Q257) India borrowed the idea of Directive Principles of StatePolicy from the
constitution of
Options:
A) The Weimar Republic of Germany.
B) The Republic of Ireland.
869
C) The South Africa.

D) None of these
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Answers:
Q1) B, Q2) A, Q3) C, Q4) A, Q5) B, Q6) A,
Q7) D, Q8) A, Q9) C, Q10) B, Q11) A,
Q12) C, Q13) B, Q14) B, Q15) D, Q16) D,
Q17) A, Q18) D, Q19) D, Q20) A, Q21) D,
Q22) B, Q23) C, Q24) D, Q25) B, Q26) B,
Q27) B, Q28) A, Q29) A, Q30) D, Q31) C,
Q32) C, Q33) C, Q34) B, Q35) C, Q36) C,
Q37) C, Q38) B, Q39) B, Q40) B, Q41) A,
Q42) A, Q43) A, Q44) C, Q45) D, Q46) B,
Q47) D, Q48) D, Q49) D, Q50) C, Q51) A,
Q52) B, Q53) C, Q54) B, Q55) D, Q56) C,
Q57) B, Q58) D, Q59) C, Q60) B, Q61) D,
Q62) C, Q63) D, Q64) D, Q65) D, Q66) A,
Q67) A, Q68) D, Q69) D, Q70) D, Q71) A,
Q72) D, Q73) D, Q74) C, Q75) D, Q76) A,
Q77) C, Q78) B, Q79) D, Q80) C, Q81) A,
Q82) D, Q83) B, Q84) D, Q85) C, Q86) D,
Q87) B, Q88) B, Q89) B, Q90) D, Q91) D,
Q92) C, Q93) B, Q94) A, Q95) C, Q96) D,
Q97) A, Q98) D, Q99) D, Q100) A, Q101) C,
Q102) C, Q103) A, Q104) B, Q105) C, Q106) A,
Q107) D, Q108) B, Q109) D, Q110) D, Q111) D,
Q112) D, Q113) D, Q114) A, Q115) C, Q116) D,
Q117) A, Q118) C, Q119) D, Q120) D, Q121) C,
Q122) D, Q123) D, Q124) C, Q125) C, Q126) B,
Q127) D, Q128) D, Q129) D, Q130) D, Q131) C,
Q132) D, Q133) C, Q134) A, Q135) B, Q136) D,
Q137) C, Q138) B, Q139) A, Q140) C, Q141) B,
Q142) C, Q143) B, Q144) D, Q145) A, Q146) A,
Q147) D, Q148) A, Q149) D, Q150) C, Q151) D,
Q152) A, Q153) C, Q154) D, Q155) D, Q156) A,
Q157) B, Q158) C, Q159) C, Q160) B, Q161) B,
Q162) B, Q163) D, Q164) C, Q165) D, Q166) A,
Q167) D, Q168) C, Q169) B, Q170) C, Q171) C,
Q172) D, Q173) D, Q174) B, Q175) A, Q176) C,
Q177) B, Q178) A, Q179) C, Q180) C, Q181) C,
Q182) D, Q183) C, Q184) C, Q185) D, Q186) C,
Q187) B, Q188) A, Q189) C, Q190) D, Q191) C,
Q192) A, Q193) C, Q194) B, Q195) C, Q196) B,
Q197) A, Q198) C, Q199) B, Q200) D, Q201) D,
Q202) C, Q203) D, Q204) C, Q205) B, Q206) A,
Q207) C, Q208) C, Q209) D, Q210) C, Q211) A,
Q212) B, Q213) C, Q214) B, Q215) D, Q216) A,
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Q217) B, Q218) D, Q219) C, Q220) B, Q221) A,

Q222) C, Q223) A, Q224) C, Q225) A, Q226) C,
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Q227) C, Q228) C, Q229) B, Q230) B, Q231) D,

Q232) C, Q233) B, Q234) C, Q235) B, Q236) D,
Q237) B, Q238) A, Q239) C, Q240) A, Q241) A,
Q242) B, Q243) A, Q244) A, Q245) A, Q246) B,
Q247) C, Q248) D, Q249) D, Q250) B, Q251) A,
Q252) B, Q253) C, Q254) D, Q255) B, Q256) C,
Q257) B,
Explanations:
Q23) De code the CODE with next Alphabet of Code. i.e. A with B, B with C.
Q24) AST: BRU:: NQV:?
The Relationship show that First letter DECODE with next alphabet, and second
letter DECODE with the previous alphabets and so on.
Therefore N --> O, Q --> P, and V --> W i.e. OPW.
Q25) According to the position number of alphabets
A =1, P=16, T=20
Hence, PAT=16+1+20 = 37.
Q26) If in a certain language PUNCTUAL is coded as 1 6 5 9 8 6 2 3 then
P=1 U=6 N=5 C=9 T=8 U=6 A=2 L=3
Therefore ACTUPULN = 2 9 8 6 1 6 3 5"
Q27) Knight is a man who served his sovereign or lord as a mounted soldier in
armour.
While Nun, Monk, Priest are work for social service. Nun is a member of a
religious community of women, typically one living under vows of poverty,
chastity, and obedience.
A monk is a person who practices religious asceticism, living either alone or
with any number of other monks.
A priest or priestess (feminine) is a person authorized to perform the sacred
rituals of a religion, especially as a mediatory agent between humans and one or
more deities.
Q28) Area of circle = pie * Radius *Radius.
Suppose radius is 100
Hence Area= 3.14 *100 *100 =31400
Radius increase by 50% i.e .150
Therefore Area = 3.14 *150 *150 =70650
which is 125 % of original
Q29) First two characters interchange the position and
Next two characters same again
Next 2 characters interchange the position and
Next 2 is same again.
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Therefore DI SC LO SE decode as
IS SC OL SE
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Q30) De code First character with Next Alphabet and

Previous Character with next Alphabet relationship
Therefore Decode N Q V with O P W
Q31) Write Given Code in Reverse order i.e. STEPS ---> SPETS.
Q32) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
A BC D E FG H I JK L MN O PQ RS T U VW XY Z
Q33) Sun gives-light. In the same way Fire gives heat.
Q34) Handsome is related to Husband and Beautiful is related to Wife.
Q35) Ist term = 2^2 -1 =4 -1 =3

IInd term = 3^2 + 1 = 9 + 1 = 10
IIIrd term = 3^2 -1.= 9 -1 = 8
IVth term = 4^2 + 1 = 16 + 1 = 17"
Q36) Fridays comes three days after Monday so three month after April will be
August.
Q37) Parrot is kept into Cage. Similarly Man is kept into Prison after trial
Q38) Waiting leads to Boredom and
Education leads to Enlightenment.
Q39) First terms is the opposite of the IIIrd term as is the case with IInd and
IVth terms.
Q40) IInd and IIIrd terms are equal. So Ist and .IVth terms should also be equal.
Q41) Second term is the next prime number after 17. So the next prime number
after 47 is 53.
Q42) Every pair of letters in the terms are in reverse order as
NU = UN, MB = BM and ER = RE.
Q43) Disease is the antonym of Health and the antonym of Freedom will be
Slavery
Q44) He re A has been used in place of Z, B for Y and C for X everywhere.
Q45) Ist term is related to IIIrd term when read in reverse order as STU -UVW.
Same is the case with IInd and IVth terms as-CDF -FGH."
Q46) Butter is obtaine d from Milk and Oil is obtained from Seeds.
Q47) Punishment is the result of Crime. In the same way Prize is the result of
Deeds
Q48) Soldier uses Gun and Blacksmith uses Hammer
Q49) Punishment is the result of Crime. In the same way Prize is the result of
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Deeds
Q50) Since 'Atmosphere' is the biggest unit which contains 'Air' in the same way
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'Ocean' is the biggest unit which contains 'Water'.

Q51) As 'Father' is the masculine of 'Mother' in the same way 'Son' is the
masculine of 'Daughter'.
Q52) As 'Defy' is the opposite of 'Obey' in the same way 'Rest' is three opposite of
'Work'.
Q53) As 'Sun' is the source of 'Light' in the same way 'Fire' is the source of
'Heat'.
Q54) As 'Oil' is used in 'Lamp' in the same way 'Wax' is used in 'CANDLE'.
Q55) As 'Parrot' is captured in 'Cage' similarly 'Man' is captured in 'Prison'.
Q56) As 'Ink' is used in 'Pen' similarly 'Lead' is used in 'pencil'.

Q57) As 'Safety' is the opposite of 'Trouble'. Similarly 'Slavery' is the opposite of
'Freedom'.
Q58) As 'Health' is the opposite of 'Sickness' in the same way 'Sorrow' is the
opposite of 'Happiness'.
Q59) As 'Bee' gives 'Honey' as liquid material, in the same way 'Cow' gives 'Milk'
as liquid material.
Q60) As 'Pond' is the small form of 'Ocean' in the same way 'Shallow' is the
small form of 'Deep'.
Q61) As 'Abstract' is the opposite of 'Concrete' in the same way 'Complex' is the
opposite of 'Simple'.
Q62) As 'Run' is the high speed of 'Walk' in the same way 'Wind' is the high
speed of 'Bree ze'.
Q63) As 'Production' is obtained from 'Factory' in the same 'Education' is
obtained from 'School'.
Q64) As 'House' is made with 'Walls' in the same way 'Wall' is made with
'Bricks'.
Q65) As 'Cardboard' is 'Opaque' so 'Glass' is 'Transparent'.
Q66) As 'Sponge' is 'Soft' so 'Knife' is 'Sharp'.
Q67) As 'Class' is formed with a number of 'Pupils' so 'Necklace' is formed with a
number of 'Beads'.
Q68) As 'Entrance' is the opposite of 'Exit' so 'Loyalty' is the opposite of
'Treachery'.
Q69) As a 'Book' contains many 'Chapters' so 'Bouquet' contains many 'Flowers'.
Q70) As 'Disease' is studied under 'Pathology' so 'Planets 'are studied under
'Astronomy'.
873
Q71) As 'Ankle' is the lower part of 'Knee' so 'Wrist' is the lower part of 'Elbow'.
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Q72) As 'Army' contains a number of 'Soldiers' so 'Galaxy' contains a number of

'Stars'.
Q73) As 'Medicine' is prescribed by 'Doctor' so 'Lecture' is delivered by 'Teacher'.
Q74) As 'Statue' depends upon 'Size' so 'Song' depends upon 'Tune'.

Q75) As 'Sorrow' is the opposite of 'Joy' so 'Pleasure' is the opposite of 'Pain.
Q76) As 'Dark' is the opposite of 'Light' so 'Black' is the opposite of 'White'.
Q77) As 'Litre' is a measuring unit of 'Volume' so 'Meter'. , a measuring unit of
'Length'.
Q78) As 'Sphere' and 'Cube' are solid figures so 'Circle' and 'Square' are plane
figures .
Q79) As 'Ornithologist' is a special in the science of 'Birds' so 'Anthropologist' is
a specialist in the science of 'Mankind'.
Q80) As 'Staircase' has many steps so 'Army' has a number of 'Soldiers'.
Q81) As 'Ancient' is the opposite of 'Modern' in the same way 'Often' is the
opposite of 'Seldom'.
Q82) As 'Snake' attacks by 'Fang' similarly 'Bee' attacks by 'String'.
Q83) Vulgarity' is the opposite of 'Elegance' similarly 'Awkward' is the opposite
of 'Graceful'.
Q84) First word is the opposite of second word.

Q85) As 'Kangaroo' is found in Australia, similarly 'Giraffe' is found in 'Africa'.
Q86) First word is the opposite of the second word.
Q87) First word is species of the second word.
Q88) As 'Newspaper' is printed in 'Press', similarly 'Cloth' is made in 'Mill'.
Q89) As 'Fossils' are the remains of 'Creatures' dug up from earth in the same
way 'Mummies' are the remains of the 'Human-beings'.
Q90) As 'Education' is obtaine d from 'Teacher', in the same way 'Treatment' is
obtained from 'Doctor'.
Q91) As 'Time' is known by 'Clock' similarly 'Light' is obtained from 'Lamp'.
Q92) Importance of 'Well' is from 'Depth' similarly importance of 'Word' is from

its 'Meaning'.
Q93) As 'Windows' are an outer part of 'House' in the same way 'Eyes' are the
outer part of 'Man'.
Q94) As 'Stammering' is the defect of 'Speech' similarly 'Deafness' is the defect of
874
'Hearing'.
Q95) As 'Car' works with petrol similarly T.V.works with 'Electricity'.
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Q96) As 'Home' provides 'Shelter', in the same manner 'School' provides

'Education'.
Q97) Second word is the characteristic of the first.
Q98) First word is the opposite of the second word.

Q99) As 'Tree' is a bigger form of 'Plant' similarly 'Building' is the bigger form of
'House'.
Q100) CBA is the reverse of ABC, so ZYX is the reverse of XYZ.
Q101) In first term one letter is missing between two consecutive letters in
alphabetical order while in second term same is repeated but in reverse order.
Q102) In first term, two letters are missing between first two letters while last
two are continuous but in second term first two letters are continuous and two
letters are missing between last two letters.
Q103) In first term, two letters are missing between each of the two letters while
one letter is missing between each of the two letters.
Q104) There is a gap of one letter between each two consecutive letters of ACE
and MOQ but the first two letters of HIL are in sequence while one letter is
missing between the second and third letters.
Q105) One letter is missing between first letters of first and second term. The
same is the case between and second letters and third letters of the two terms.
Q106) In the two terms, first letters are in reverse alphabetical order whereas
second letters and third letters are in alphabetical order.
Q107) Capital letter in the first term is the small letters in the second term and
small letters in the first term are capital letters in the second term.
Q108) Letters in each group are in alphabetical order.

Q109) First and second letters of each group are in alphabetical order while
there is a gap of one letter between the second and third letters.
Q110) The letters of each group are in reverse order.
Q111) First two letters of the first term are in reverse order in the second term
and so are the next two letters.
Q112) Fifth and third letters of the first term are first and second letters of the
second term and first two letters of the first term are third and fourth letters of
the second term.
Q113) In each term third, first, fourth and second letters are in alphabetical
order.
Q114) There is a gap of one letter between third and fourth and first, and first
875
and second letters of each group.

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Q115) One letter is missing between each two letters in first term while two
letters are missing in second term. Again in third term one letter is missing .So,
in fourth term two letters would be missing.
Q116) There is one letter missing between the first and third letters of the two
terms while second and fourth letters are in the sequence.
Q117) There is one letter missing between two successive letters in each term in
reverse order of alphabet.
Q118) There is a gap of one letter between each corresponding letters of 'JTIS'
and 'HRGQ'.
Q119) There is a gap of one letter between each corresponding letters of 'QYGO'
and 'SAIQ'.
Q120) There is a gap of letters between each corres ponding letters of 'YAWC' and
'UESG'.
Q121) There is a gap of three letters between each corresponding letters of

'BZDX' and 'FUHT'.
Q122) There is gap of 13, 17, 23, and zero letters between first letter, second
letters, third letters and fourth letters respectively of the words 'ACFJ' and
'OUBJ'.
Q123) There is a gap of one letter between the first letter of PCWL and REXM
and also a gap of one letter between the second letters but third letters and
fourth letters are in sequence.
Q124) There is a gap of two letters between the two consecutive letters of each
term.
Q125) First term is double of the second term. Hence, fourth term will be
=1/3x1/2 i.e., 1/6
Q126) First term is double of the second term. Hence, fourth
term=1/2x2/3=1/3
Q127) First term is the square of 3, second term is the square of 5 and the third
term is the square of 7. Hence, the fourth term will be the square of 9.
Q128) Second term=(First term+1)^2 Therefore Fourth term=(Third term+1)^2.
Q129) First term=(1)^2. Second term=(2)^3. Third term=(3)^2. Therefore Fourth
term=(4)^3.
Q130) First term=6x2. Second term=6^2-1 Third term=8x2 Therefore Fourth
term=8^2-1
Q131) First term is a prime number. Second term is the next prime number to
it. Hence, fourth term should be next prime number to 31.
876
Q132) First, Second, and third each term is one more than the square of prime
number. Hence, the fourth term=(19)^2+1.
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Q133) First term=(2)^2-1. Second term=(4)^2 Third term=(2)^3-1 Therefore

Fourth term=(4)^3
Q134) First term=(6)^2+6 .Second term=(7)^2+7. Third term=(10)^2+10
Therefore Fourth term=(11)^2+11.
Q135) First term =(1)^2; Second term=(2)^3 Third term=(4)^2. Hence, fourth
term=(5)^3
Q136) First term=3^2+3. Second term=4^2+4 Third term=5^2+5 Therefore
Fourth term=6^2+6
Q137) First term=2^2-1. Second term=3^2+1 Third term=3^3-1 Therefore

Fourth term=4^2+1
Q138) Second term=(First term+1)^2 Therefore Fourth term=(Third term+1)^2
Q139) All the terms are alternate prime numbers.
Q140) First term=3^2-1. Second term=3^3+1 Third term=4^2-1 therefore Fourth
term=4^3+1
Q141) First term=2^3. Second term=3^2 third term=4^3 Therefore Fourth
term=5^2
Q142) Second term=First term+3 Therefore Fourth term=Third term+3
Q143) Second term=(First term)^2 Therefore Fourth term=(Third term)^2
Q144) Second term=4xFirst term Therefore Fourth term =4xThird term

Q145) Second term =(FIRST TERM)^2+1 Therefore Fourth term=(Third
term)^2+1
Q146) Second term=(First term)^2-1 Therefore fourth term=(Third term)^2-1
Q147) Second term=(First term)^3 Therefore Fourth term=(Third term)^3
Q148) Second term=First term+1/8 First term. Therefore Fourth term=Third

term+1/8 Third term.
Q149) Second term=(First term)+4 Therefore Fourth term=(Third term)+4
Q150) As in resignation the office is to be left in the Same manner when
abdication is done, throne is to be left.
Q151) As 'Bunch ' is the collection of 'Keys', in the same way 'Bouquet' is the
collection of 'Flowers'.
Q152) As profit is antonym of loss, in the same way success is the antonym of
failure.
Q153) As sapling is a young tree in the same way bud is the young flower.
877
Q154) As supervisor supervises the worker in the same way officer supervises
the clerk.
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Q155) As malaria is caused by the mosquito in the same way cholera is caused
due to water.
Q156) As 100 paise are equivalent to a rupee in the same way 100 kilograms are
equivalent to a quintal.
Q157) As verse is written by a poet in the same way book is written by an
author.
Q158) As 'Water' quenches' Thirst' in the same manner 'Food' satisfies 'Hunger'.
Q159) As 'Pulp' is the raw material of 'Paper', in the same manner 'Yarn' is the
raw material for 'Fabric'.
Q160) As skirmish leads to war in the same way disease leads to epidemic.
Q161) As soldier follows the captain in the same way follower follows the leader.
Q162) As a tree grows with root, in the same way smoke is produced with fire.
Q163) As cap is worn on the head in the same way ring is worn on the finger.
Q164) As furniture is made by carpenter in the same way footwear is made by
cobbler.
Q165) As sapling is a younger form of a tree in the same manner girl is the
younger form of a woman.
Q166) As to sing is the hobby of a vocalist in the same manner to play a game is
the hobby of a player.
Q167) As money given for accommodation is known as rent in the same manner
money given for journey is known as fare.
Q168) As smoke leads to pollution in the same way war leads to destruction.
Q169) As bell gives sound in the same way lamp gives light.
Q170) As to be hard is the quality of the stone in the same manner to be soft is
the quality of the feather.
Q171) As unit of thermometer is 'degree' in the same way unit of clock is 'hour'.
Q172) As 'softness' if found in sponge in the same way 'sharpness' is found in
knife.
Q173) As to be 'Opaque' is the quality of the cardboard in the same way to be

transparent is the quality of glass.
Q174) As wall is a part of a house in the same way brick is a part of wall
Q180) All are harbours.
Q181) All are the forms of carbon.
878
Q182) Basket, Pail, Pan and Bowl-all are vessels.

Q183) The synonym of Emancipate, free and release is liberate.
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Q184) Daisy, pansy, Rose and Violet are flowers or plants.

Q185) The synonym of arid, parched and droughty is dry.
Q186) The word 'son' makes a lineage with grandfather, father and brother.
Q187) As yellow, orange and green are different colours so purple is also a
colour.
Q188) As lungs, liver and kidneys are internal organs of body, in the same way
'heart' is also an internal organ.
Q189) The synonym of lock, shut and fasten is block.
Q190) Airplane, Train and Truck are all the means of transport.
Q191) All the three given animals are mammals.
Q192) All the three given words are arms.
Q193) All the three given words are the characteristics of human beings.
Q194) All the given words are different forms of literature.
Q195) All the three given things are cereals.

Q196) Coal, iron and mica are all minerals.
Q197) All the three given words are the qualities of a person.
Q198) All the three given words are the parts of dress.
Q199) All the three given words are the parts of furniture.
Q200) Lung is also an internal part of body as liver, heart and kidney are the
internal parts of body.
Q201) Like uncle, aunt and brother, the term nephew is also used to show
relationship.
Q202) Jute, cotton, wool and silk all are natural yarns.
Q203) The synonym of lead, convince and allure is fascinate.

Q204) Like flood, fire, cyclone, earthquake is also a natural calamity.
Q205) Carpenter, plumber, electrician and blacksmith are all manual workers.
Q206) Obstruction is caused due to cork, plunge and dam.
Q207) As red, yellow and blue are the different colours in the same way gree n is
also a colour.
Q208) The synonym of desire, wish and want is anxiety.
Q209) Ohm, volt, ampere and watt are units of measurement of electricity.
879
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Blood Relation:
Q1) Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, He is the son of the only son
of my mother. How is Suresh related to that boy?
Options:
A) Brother
B) Uncle
C) Cousin
D) Father
Q2) If A + B means A is the mother of B; A B means A is the brother B; A%B

means A is the father of B and A means A is the sister of B, which of the
following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?
Options:
A) Q N + M P
B) P + S N Q
C) P M + N Q
D) P M + N Q
Q3) If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D

is related to A?
Options:
A) Brother
B) Sis ter
C) Nephew
D) Cannot be determined
Q4) If A + B means A is the brother of B; A B means A is the sister of B and A

means A is the father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?
Options:
A) M N C + F
B) F C + N M
C) N + M F C
D) M N C + F
880
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Q5) Introducing a boy, a girl said, He is the son of the daughter of the father of
my uncle. How is the boy related to the girl?
Options:
A) Brother B) Nephew
C) Uncle D) Son-in-law
Q6) Pointing to a photograph Lata says, He is the son of the only son of y
grandfather. How is the man in the photograph related to Lata?
Options:
A) Brother B) Uncle
C) Cousin D) Data is inadequate
Q7) If A + B means A is the brother of B; A B means A is the son of B; and A%B

means B is the daughter of A then which of the following means M is the
maternal uncle of N?
Options:
A) M + O N B) M %O N + P
C) M + O%N D) None of these
Q8) If D is the brother of B, how B is related to C?

To answer this question which of the statements is/are necessary?
1.The son of D is the grandson of C
2. B is the sister of D
Options:
A) Only 1 B) Only 2
C) Either 1 or 2 D) 1 and 2 both are required
Q9) If A + B means A is the father of B; A B means A is the brother B; A%B

means A is the wife of B and A B means A is the mother of B, which of the
following shows that M is the maternal grandmother of T?
Options:
A) M N %S + T
B) M N S%T
881
C) M S N %T
D) M N S%T
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Q10) Pointing to a photograph. Bajpai said, He is the son of the only daughter
of the father of my brother. How Bajpai is related to the man in the
photograph?
Options:
A) Nephew
B) Brother
C) Father
D) Maternal Uncle
Q11) Deepak said to Nitin, That boy playing with the football is the younger of
the two brothers of the daughter of my fathers wife. How is the boy playing
football related to Deepak?
Options:
A) Son
B) Brother
C) Cousin
D) Brother-in-law
Q12) Pointing a photograph X said to his friend Y , She is the only daughter of
the father of my mother. How X is related to the person of photograph?
Options:
A) Daughter B) Son
C) Nephew D) Cannot be decided
Q13) Veena who is the sister-in-law of Ashok, is the daughter-in-law of Kalyani.

Dheeraj is the father of Sudeep who is the only brother of Ashok. How Kalyani is
related to Ashok?
Options:
A) Mother-in-law B) Aunt
C) Wife D) None of these
Q14) If A + B means A is the sister of B; A B means A is the wife of B, A%B

means A is the father of B and A means A is the brother of B. Which of the
following means T is the daughter of P?
Options:
882
A) P Q%R + S T B) P Q%R T + S
C) P Q%R + T S D) P Q%R + S + T
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Q15) Pointing to a woman, Abhijit said, Her granddaughter is the only daughter
of my brother. How is the woman related to Abhijit?
Options:
A) Sister
B) Grandmother
C) Mother-in-law
D) Mother
Q16) Amit said This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother. How is
Amit related to the girl?
Options:
A) Brother
B) Grandfathe r
C) Husband
D) Father-in-law
Q17) A and B are children of D Who is the father of A? To answer this question
which of the statements (1) and (2) is necessary?
1. C is the brother of A and the son of E.
2. F is the mother B
Options:
A) Only (1) B) Only (2)
C) Either (1) or (2) D) (1) and (2) both
Q18) Pointing towards a man, a woman said, His mother is the only daughter
of my mother. How is the woman related to the man?
Options:
A) Mother B) Grandmother
C) Sister D) Daughter
Q19) If P $Q means P is the brother of Q; P Q means P is the mother of Q; P Q

means P is the daughter of Q i AB$C D, who is the father?
Options:
883
A) D B) B
C) C D) Data is inadequate
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Q20) Introducing Sonia, Aamir says, She is the wife of only nephew of only
brother of my mother. How Sonia is related to Aamir?
Options:
A) Wife
B) Sis ter
C) Sister-in-law
D) Data is inadequate
Q21) If A + B means A is the brother of B; A%B means A is the father of B and A

means A is the sister of B. Which of the following means M is the uncle of P?
Options:
A) M %N P
B) N P %M
C) M + S%R%P
D) M + K%T P
Q22) Pointing to Varman, Madhav said, I am the only son of one of the sons of
his father. How is Varman related to Madhav?
Options:
A) Nephew B) Uncle
C) Father or Uncle D) Father
Q23) Introducing a woman, Shashank said, She is the mother of the only
daughter of my son. How that woman is related to Shashank?
Options:
A) Daughter
B) Sis ter-in-law
C) Wife
D) Daughter-in-law
Q24) If A + B means B is the brother of A; A B means B is the husband of A; A

B means A is the mother of B and A%B means A is the father of B, which of the
following relations shows that Q is the grandmother of T?
Options:
884
A) Q P + R%T B) P Q%R T
C) P Q%R + T D) P + Q%R T
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Q25) Consider the following 1.A3Pmeans A is the mother of P 2. A4P means A is

the brother of P 3. A9P means A is the husband of P 4. A5P means A is the
daughter of P Which of the following means that K is the mother-in-law of M?
Options:
A) M 9N 3K4J
B) M 9N 5K3J
C) K5J 9M 3N
D) K3J 9N 4M
Q26) Pointing to a photograph Anjali said, He is the son of the only son of my
grandfather. How is the man in the photograph related to Anjali?
Options:
A) Brother
B) Uncle
C) Son
Q27) Pointing to a person, Deepak said, His only brother is the father of my
daughters father. How is the person related to Deepak?
Options:
A) Father B) Grandfathe r
C) Uncle D) Brother-in-law
Q28) P is the mother of K; K is the sister of D; D is the father of J . How is P

related to J?
Options:
A) Mother B) Grandmother
C) Aunt D) Data inadequate
Q29) If P $Q means P is the father of Q; P Q means P is the mother of Q and P

Q means P is the sister of Q, the N L$P Q shows which of the relation of Q to
N?
Options:
885
A) Grandson B) Granddaughter
C) Nephew D) Data is inadequate
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Q30) If A$B means A is the brother of B; A@B means A is the wife of B; AB

means A is the daughter of B and A B means A is the father of B, which of the
following indicates that U is the father-in-law of P?
Options:
A) P @Q$T U W
B) P @W $Q T U
C) P @Q$W T U
D) P @Q$T W U
Q31) Introducing a man, a woman said, He is the only son of the mother of my
mother. How is the woman related to the man?
Options:
A) Mother
B) Sis ter
C) Niece
D) Maternal aunt
Q32) Pointing to Gopi, Nalni says, I am the daughter of the only son of his
grandfather. How Nalni is related to Gopi?
Options:
A) Niece
B) Daughter
C) Sister
Q33) As son B is married with C whose sister D is married to E the brother of B.

How D is related to A?
Options:
A) Sister
B) Daughters-in-law
C) Sister-in-law
D) Cousin
Q34) Pointing to a lady a person said, The son of her only brother is the brother
of my wife. How is the lady related to the person?
Options:
886
A) Maternal aunt B) Grandmother

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C) Sister of father-in-law D) None of these

Q35) Consider the following 1.B5D means B is the father of D 2.B9D means B is
the sister of D 3. B4D means B is the brother of D 4. B3D means B is the wife of
D Which of the following means F is the mother of K?
Options:
A) F 3M 5K
B) F 5M 3K
C) F 9M 4N 3K
D) F 3M 5N 3K
Q36) A$B means A is the father of B; AB means A is the sister of B; A B means

A is the daughter of B and A@B means A is the brother of B. Which of the
following indicates that M is the wife of Q?
Options:
A) Q$RT @M
B) Q$R@T M
C) Q$R T M
D) Q$R@T M
Q37) If A$B means A is the brother of B; B C means B is the son of C; C@D

means C is the wife of D and AD means A is the son of D, how C is related to A?
Options:
A) Maternal grandmother B) Maternal aunt
C) Aunt D) Mother
Q38) Pointing to a girl Sandeep said, She is the daughter of the only sister of
my father. How is sandeep related to the girl?
Options:
A) Uncle B) Cousin
C) Father D) Grandfather
Q39) Pointing to a boy in the photograph Reena said, He is the only son of the
only child of my grandfather. How Reena is related to that boy?
Options:
887
A) Mother B) Sis ter

C) Aunt D) Cannot be determined
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Q40) Consider the following 1.. A B means A is the sister of B 2.. A$B means B
is the mother of A 3. A + B means A is the brother of B 4.A = B means B is the
father of A Which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of N?
Options:
A) M = P + Q N
B) N + P = Q M
C) N P $Q M
D) None of these
Q41) If M N means M is the daughter of N ; M + N means M is the father of N ;

M %N means M is the mother of N and M N means M is the brother of N the P
%Q + R T K indicates which relation of P to K?
Options:
A) Daughter-in-law
B) Sis ter-in-law
C) Aunt
D) None of these
Q42) If P + Q means P is the brother of Q; P Q means P is the father of Q and P

means P is the sister of Q, which of the following relations shows that I is the
nie ce of K?
Options:
A) K + Y + Z I B) K + Y I Z
C) Z I Y + K D) K Y + I Z
Q43) Pointing towards a girl, Abhisek says, This girl is the daughter of only a
child of my father. What is the relation of Abhiseks wife to that girl?
Options:
A) Daughter B) Mother
C) Aunt D) Sister
Q44) If A$B means B is the father of A; AB means B is the mother of A; A B

means B is the sister of A and A@B means B is the husband of A, which of the
following indicates that N is the grandmother of P?
Options:
888
A) P QM $N B) P @Q$M N
C) P Q$N M D) None of these
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Q45) Anupam said to a lady sitting in a car, The only daughter of the brother of
my wife is the sister-in-law of the brother of your sister.
how the husband of the lady is related to Anupam?

Options:
A) Maternal uncle
B) Uncle
C) Father
D) Son-in-law
Q46) If P + Q means P is the brother of Q; P Q means P is the wife of Q and P

%Q means P is the daughter of Q then which of the following means D is the
uncle of A?
Options:
A) A%B C + D
B) A B +C%D
C) A + C%B D
D) None of these
Q47) A is the son of C; C and Q are sisters; Z is the mother of Q and P is the son
of Z. Which of the following statements is true?
Options:
A) P and A are cousins
B) P is the maternal uncle of A
C) Q is the maternal grandfather of A
D) C and P are sisters
Q48) M is the father of N who is the son of V .
In order to know the relation of M to P, which of the statement/statements

is/are necessary?
1. P is the brother of V .
2. The daughter of N is the granddaughter of V .
Options:
A) Only (1)
889
B) Only (2)
C) Either (1) or (2)
D) (1) and (2) both
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Q49) If X + Y means X is the daughter of Y ; X Y means X is the brother of Y ;

X%Y means X is the father of Y and X Y means X is the sister of Y . Which of
the following means I is the niece of J?
Options:
A) J N %C I B) I C N %J
C) J + M C%I D) I C +N J
Q50) Pointing to a photograph, Vipul said, "She is the daughter of my

grandfather's only son." How is Vipul related to the girl in the photograph?
Options:
A) Father B) Brother
C) Uncle D) Grandson
Q51) A is the father of C, and D is the son of B. E is the brother of A. If C is

the sister of D, how is B related to E?
Options:
A) daughter B) husband
C) sister-in-law D) brother-in-law
Q52) Six members of a family A, B, C, D, E, and F are travelling together. B is

son of C but C is not the mother of B. A and C are married couple. E is brother
of C. D is daughter of A. F is brother of B. Then find who is wife of E?
Options:
A) F
B) B
C) A
Q53) A woman walking with a boy meets another woman and on being asked
about her relationship with the boy, she says, "My maternal uncle and his
maternal uncles of maternal uncle are brothers."What is the relationship
between the woman and the boy?
Options:
890
A) Aunt and Nephew B) Mother and Son

C) Grandmother and Grandson D) Wife and Husband
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Q54) A man was going with a girl. somebody asked his relationship with the girl.
he replied, "My pate rnal uncle is the pate rnal uncle of her paternal uncles."What
is the relationship between the man and the girl?
Options:
A) Father and Mother B) Father and Daughter
C) Daughter and Maternal Uncle D) Brother-in-law and Sister-in-law
Q55) Pointing at a photo, Dinesh said, "His father is the only son of my
mother."The photo belongs to-
Options:
A) Dinesh B) Dinesh's brother
C) Dinesh's father D) Dinesh's on
Q56) A is the mother of B and C. I f D is the husband of C, what is A to D?

Options:
C) Mother-in-law D) Aunt
Q57) Introducing a lady, a man said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my
mother-in-law."What is the man to the lady?
Options:
A) Son B) Brother
C) Uncle D) Father
Q58) If N is the brother of B, M is the sister of N, J is the brother of P and P is

the daughter of B, who is the uncle of J?
Options:
A) B B) M
C) P D) N
Q59) A man said to a lady, "The son of your only brother is the brother of my
wife."What is the lady to the man?
Options:
891

C) Sister of father-in-law D) Grandmother
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Q60) If A is the brother of B and K, D is the mother of B and E is the father of a.

which one of the following statements is not definitely true?
Options:
A) B is the brother of K
B) A is the father of K
C) A is the son of D
D) D is the wife of E
Q61) Looking at a portrait of a man, Sanjay said, "His mother is the wife of my
father's son. Brothers and sisters I have none."At whose portrait was Sanjay
looking?
Options:
A) His son
B) His nephew
C) His cousin
D) His uncle
Q62) There are five persons sitting on a bench. blue eyed lady sitting in the
middle is my mother. At the extreme left, the man with grey hair is my maternal
uncle. lady sitting at the extreme right is having a prime on her nose and is the
wife of a person who is sitting between a blue eyed lady and grey haired man
and has a pointed nose. A lady having marks on her face is the younger sister of
the blue eyed lady and is sitting on the remaining fifth place. the person having
a pointed nose is the son of the blue eyed lady. what is the lady having marks
on her face to the man sitting at the extreme left?
Options:
A) Wife
B) Maternal Aunt
C) Sister
D) Sister-in-law
Q63) If (i) A*B means A is the brother of B (ii) A@B means A is the daughter of B
(iii) A^B means A is the sister of B Which one of the following shows the relation
that P is the maternal uncle of Q?
Options:
A) P ^ R @ Q
892
B) P * R @ Q
C) Q @ R ^ P
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D) Q @ R * P
Q64) Pointing to a boy, Ramesh said, "His only brother's mother is my father's
wife." How is Ramesh related to that boy?
Options:
A) Uncle B) Father
C) Nephew D) Brother
Q65) A, B, C, D, E and F are members of a Club. There are two married couples
in the group. A is the brother of D's husband. c is the president of All India
Working Women's Association. F is a sitarist, is a bachelor. B's wife is not a
member of the Club. four of them belong to the same family. B and F are
colleagues in the same organization. How is F related to B?
Options:
A) Brother B) Nephew
C) Father D) Data inadequate
Q66) If B's mother was A's mother's daughter. How was A related to B?
Options:
A) Father B) Sister
C) Brother D) Maternal Uncle
Q67) Introducing a woman, a man said, "Her mother's husband's sister is my

aunt."How is the man related to the woman?
Options:
A) Nephew B) Brother
C) Brother-in-law D) Cousin
Q68) A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A's son is D's brother. How is B
related to C?
Options:
A) Father B) Brother
C) Uncle D) Grandfather
Q69) Old man's son is my son's uncle, then what relation has the old man to
me?
Options:
893
A) Brother B) Father
C) Grandfather D) Uncle
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Q70) If(1) 'S+K' means 'S is the sister of K'; (2) 'S-K' means 'S is the father of K';
(3) 'SXK' means 'S is the brother of K'; which of the following means 'P is the
aunt of D'?
Options:
A) P+M-D B) P-MXD
C) M-M+D D) PXM-D
Q71) Leela, who is Sohan's daughter, says to Latika, "Your mother Alka is the
younger sister of my father who is the third child of Gajanan."What is the
relation of Gajanan to Latika?
Options:
A) Father B) Uncle
C) Grandfather D) Father-in-law
Q72) All the six members of a family A, B, C, D, E and F are travelling together.
B is the son of C but C is not the mother of B. A and C are A married couple. e
is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B. How many male
members are there in the family?
Options:
A) 1 B) 3
C) 2 D) 4
B is the son of C but C is not the mother of B. A and C are A married couple. e
is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B. Who is the
mother of B?
Options:
A) D B) F
C) E D) A
B is the son of C but C is not the mother of b. A and C are a married couple. e is
the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B. How many
children does A have?
Options:
894
A) One B) Two
C) Three D) Four
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the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B. Who is the wife of
E?
Options:
A) A
B) F
C) B
D) None of these
B is the son of C but C is not the mother of b. at and C are a married couple. e
is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B. Which of the
following is a pair of females?
Options:
A) A E
B) B D
C) D F
D) A D
the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B. How is E related
to D?
Options:
A) Father
B) Brother
C) Uncle
the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B. A told B that C is
his father's nephew, D is A's cousin but not brother of c. how is D related to C?
Options:
A) Father
B) Sis ter
895
C) Mother
D) Aunt
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Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) C, Q3) D, Q4) D,
Q5) A, Q6) A, Q7) D, Q8) D, Q9) A,
Q10) D, Q11) B, Q12) B, Q13) D, Q14) B,
Q15) D, Q16) D, Q17) B, Q18) A, Q19) A,
Q20) A, Q21) D, Q22) C, Q23) D, Q24) A,
Q25) B, Q26) A, Q27) C, Q28) B, Q29) D,
Q30) A, Q31) C, Q32) C, Q33) B, Q34) C,
Q35) A, Q36) D, Q37) D, Q38) B, Q39) B,
Q40) D, Q41) D, Q42) B, Q43) B, Q44) D,
Q45) D, Q46) D, Q47) B, Q48) A, Q49) D,
Q50) B, Q51) C, Q52) D, Q53) B, Q54) B,
Q55) D, Q56) C, Q57) D, Q58) D, Q59) C,
Q60) B, Q61) A, Q62) C, Q63) C, Q64) D,
Q65) D, Q66) D, Q67) B, Q68) C, Q69) B,
Q70) A, Q71) C, Q72) D, Q73) D, Q74) C,
Q75) D, Q76) D, Q77) C, Q78) B,
Explanations:
Q1) The boy in the photograph is the only son of the son of Suresh's mother i.e.,
the son of Suresh. Hence, Suresh is the father of boy.
Q2) P -M P is the brother of M
M + N M is the mother of N
N x Q N is the sister of Q
Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of Q.
Q3) If D is Male, the answer is Nephew.
If D is Female, the answer is Niece.
As the sex of D is not known, he nce, the relation between D and A cannot be
determine d.
Note: Niece -A daughter of one's brother or sister, or of one's brother-in-law or
sister-in-law. Nephew -A son of one's brother or sister, or of one's brother-in-law
or sister-in-law.
Q4) M x N M is the father of N
N -C N is the sister of C
and C + F C is the brother of F.
Hence, M is the father of C or C is the son of M.
Q5) The father of the boy's uncle the grandfather of the boy and daughter of
the grandfather sister of father.
Q6) The man in the photograph is the son of the only son of Lata's grandfather
i.e., the man is the son of Lata's father. Hence, the man is the brother of Lata.
Q7) Because the sex of O is not known.
896
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Q8) Given: D is the brother of B.

From statement 1, we can detect that D is son of C (son of D is the grandson of
C).
From statement 2, we can detect that B is 'Female' (sister of D).
Therefore, B is daughter of C.
Q9) M x N M is the mother of N
N % S N is the wife of S
and S + T is the father of T.
Hence, M is the maternal grandmother of T.
Q10) The man in the photo is the son of the sister of Bajpai. Hence, Bajpai is the
maternal uncle of the man in the photograph.
Q11) Father's wife mother. Hence, the daughter of the mother means sister
and sister's younger brother means brother. Therefore, the boy is the brother of
Deepak.
Q12) The only daughter of the father of X's mother' means mother of X.
Hence X is the son of the lady in the photograph.
Note: Still have doubt like ""How X is a male?""
Q13) Ashok is the only brother of Sudeep and Veena is the sister-in-law of
Ashok. Hence Veena is the wife of Sudeep. Kalyani is the mother-in-law of
Veena. Kalyani is the mother of Ashok.
Q14) P x Q P is the wife of Q
Q % R Q is the father of R
R -T R is the brother of T
T + S T is the sister of S.
Therefore, T is the daughter of P.
Q15) Daughter of Abhijit's brother niece of Abhijit. Thus the granddaughter of
the woman is Abhijit's niece.
Hence, the woman is the mother of Abhijit.
Q16) The girl is the wife of grandson of Amit's mother i.e., the girl is the wife of
son of Amit. Hence, Amit is the father-in-law of the girl.
Q17) A and B are children of D.
From (1), C is the brother B and son of E.
Since, the sex of D and E are not known. Hence (1) is not sufficient to answer
the question.
From (2). F is the mother of B. Hence, F is also the mother of A. Hence D is the
father of A.
Thus, (2) is sufficient to answer the question.
Q18) Only daughter of my mother myself.
Hence, the woman is the mother of the man.
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Q19) A is the mother of B, B is the brother of C and C is the daughter of D.

Hence, D is the father.
A (Parents) D
B -is -Brother -of -C
Q20) Brother of mother means maternal uncle. Hence only nephew of Aamir's
maternal uncle means Aamir himself. Therefore Sonia is the wife of Aamir.
Q21) M + K M is the brother of K
K % T K is the father of T
T x P T is the sister of P
Therefore, K is the father of P and M is the uncle of P.
Q22) Madhav is the only son of one of the sons of Varman's father Either
Varman is the father or uncle of Madhav.
Q23) The woman is the mother of Shashank's granddaughter. Hence, the
woman is the daughter-in-law of Shashank.
Q24) Q -P Q is the mother of P
P + R R is the brother of P
Hence, q is the mother of R
R % T R is the father of T.
Hence, Q is the grandmother of T.
Q25) M9N M is the husband of N
N5K N is the daughter of K
Hence, M is the son-in-law of K
K3J K is the mother of J
Hence, K is a lady
Hence, K is the mother-in-law of M.
Q26) The man in the photograph is son of Anjali's grandfather's son i.e., the son
of Anjali's father. Hence, the boy is the brother of Anjali.
Q27) Father of Deepak's daughter's father Deepak's father.
Hence, the person in the brother of Deepak's father.
Therefore, the person is the uncle of Deepak.
Q28) P is the mother of K
K is the sister of D
D is the father of J.
Therefore, J is the nephew or niece of K and P is the grandmother of J.
Q29) As the sex of Q is not known, hence, data is inadequate.
Q30) P @ Q P is the wife of Q ...(1)
Q $ T Q is the brother of T ...(2)
T U T is the daughter of U
Hence, Q is the son of U ...(3)
898
U * W U is the father of W.
From (1) and (3), U is the father-in-law of P.
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Q31) The man is the only son of the mother of the woman. Hence, the man is
the maternal uncle of the woman. So, the woman is the niece of the man.
Q32) Nalni is the daughter of the only son of Gopi's grandfather. Hence, it's
clear that Nalni is the sister of Gopi.
Q33) Since E is the brother of B
Therefore, A is the father of E
but D is the wife of E.
Hence, D is the daughter-in-law of A.
Q34) Brother of person's wife brother-in-law of the person. Hence, the son of
lady's brother is brother-in-law of the person.
Therefore, the brother of the lady is the father-in-law of the person. Hence, the
lady is the sister of the person's father-in-law.
Q35) F3M F is the wife of M
M5K M is the father of K
Therefore, F is the mother of K.
Q36) Q $ R Q is the father of R
R @ T R is the brother of T
Hence, Q is the father of T
T * M T is the daughter of M
Hence, M is the mother of T
Hence, M is the wife of Q.
Q37) A $ B A is the brother of B
B * C B is the son of C
Hence, A is the son of C
C @ D C is the wife of D
Hence, C is the mother of A.
Q38) The girl is the daughter of the sister of Sandeep's father. Hence, the girl is
the cousin or Sandeep is the cousin of the girl.
Q39) The boy in the photograph is the only son of Reena's grandfather's only
son; i.e., the boy is the only son of Reena's father.
Hence, the boy is the brother of Reena or Reena is the sister of the boy
Q41) P % Q P is the mother of Q
Q + R Q is the father of R
R -T R is the brother of T
Hence, Q is the father of T
T x K T is the daughter of K
Hence, Q is the husband of K.
Therefore, P is the mother-in-law of K.
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Q42) K + Y K is the brother of Y

Y x I Y is the father of I
Hence, K is the uncle of I
and I -Z I is the sister of Z
Hence, I is the niece of K.
Q43) Only the child of my father means 'Abhisek' himself. This means the girl is
the daughter of Abhisek. Hence, Abhisek's wife is the mother of the girl
Q45) Anupam's son-in-law is the brother of the lady who was sitting in the car.
Hence, the husband is also the son-in-law of Anupam
Q47) C and Q are sisters and A is the son of C. Hence, C is the mother of A or Z
is the mother Q.
Hence, Z is the maternal grandmother of A. P is the son of Z. Hence, P is the
maternal uncle of A.
Q48) M is the father of N and N is the son of V.

Hence, V is the mother of N.
From (1), P is the brother of V
Therefore, M is the brother-in-law of P because V is the wife of M.
From (2), the daughter of N, is the granddaughter of V. From this we do not get
any relation of M to P.
Q49) I x C I is the sister of C
C + N C is the daughter of N
and N -J N is the brother of I.
Hence, I is niece of J
Q50) My grandfather's only son --My father.
So, the girl is the daughter of Vipul's father i.e., Vipul is the girl`s brother.
Q51) B is sister in law of E,
E is brother in law of B,
A and B are parents of C and D.
E is Uncle of C and D.
So B is Sister-in-law of E.
Q53) As the maternal uncle of the boy is the brother of the woman, therefore,
the boy and the woman are son and mother respectively.
Q54) Since, the paternal uncle of the man and the paternal uncle of the pate rnal
uncle of the girl are the one and the same, therefore, the girl is the daughter of
the man.
Q55) Since, the only son of the mother of Dinesh, is Dinesh, therefore, the photo
belongs to Dinesh's son.
Q56) Since, D is the husband of C, and A is the mother of C, therefore, A is the
mother-in-law of D.
900
Q57) Since , the mother-in-law of the man is the mother of the mother of the
Page
lady, therefore, the lady is the daughter of the man.

Q58) Since, J is the brother of p and P is the daughter of B but N is the brother
of B, therefore, N is the uncle of J.
Q59) Since, the son of the only brother of the lady is the nephew of the lady,
therefore, the wife of the man is the niece of the lady. hence, the lady is the
sister of the father-in-law of the man.
Q60) In the family E is the father whose wife is D. E has three children A, B and
K out which A is the son. Hence, A cannot be the father of K.
Q61) Since, Sanjay has neither a sister nor a brother, therefore, Sanjay is the
only son of his father. Hence, the mother of the portrait is the wife of Sanjay.
therefore, the portrait was of Sanjay's son.
Q62) The man sitting at the extreme left is my maternal uncle and the lady
having marks on her face is my mother's sister. Hence, the lady having marks
on her face is the sister of the man sitting at the extreme left.
Q63) Q@Q means Q is daughter of R and R ^p means R is the sister of P. Hence,

P is the maternal uncle of Q.
Q64) The mother of the only brother of the boy is the wife of Ramesh's father.
Therefore, she is mother of Ramesh. hence, Ramesh is the brother of the boy.
Q66) B's mother was the sister of A. Hence, A is the maternal uncle of B.
Q67) He r mother's husband means her father and her father's sister is man's
aunt. Therefore, the man and woman may be cousin.
Q68) C and D are the daughters of A and B is the uncle of C.
Q69) Since, the old man's son is my son's uncle, therefore, old man's son is my
brother. Hence, the old man is my father.
Q70) P+M-D means P is the sister of M who is the father of D. Therefore, P is the
aunt of D.
Q71) As Alka is the sister of Sohan and Sohan is the third child of G ajanan,
therefore, Alka will be the daughter of G ajanan. But Latika is the daughter of
Alka, therefore, Gajanan will be grandfather of Latika.
Q72) There are four male members-E, C, B and F.

Q73) C is father of B and A&C are a married couple. hence, A is the mother of B.
Q74) A has two sons B&F and one daughter D.
Q75) As there is only one married couple, hence E has no wife.
Q76) A is the mother and D is the daughter.
Q77) D is the daughter of C and E is the brother of C. Hence, E is the uncle of

D.
901
Q78) C is the cousin brother of A and D is the cousin sister of A. Hence, D is the
sister of C.
Page

Coding and Decoding Test:
Q1) If TOUR is written as 1234, CLEAR is written as 56784 and SPARE is

written as 90847, find the code for CARE
Options:
A) 1247
B) 4847
C) 5247
D) 5847
Q2) CALANDER is coded in a code as CLANAEDR. Find the code for CIRCULAR
under the same rule.
Options:
A) LACANDER
B) CRI UCALR
C) CLANADER
D) None of these
Q3) In a code sign DRLAL is coded as 62014314. How CAMEL is coded?

Options:
A) 5315714
B) 35729310
C) 5313613
D) None of these
Q4) In a code language 35796 is written as 44887. Find the code for 46823.
Options:
A) 55914 B) 57194
C) 55934 D) 55745
Q5) If LIGHT is coded as GILTH, find the code for RAINY.

Options:
902
A) I ARYN B) ARIN Y
C) NAIRY D) RINAY
Page

Q6) If TOM = 48 and DI CK = 27. Find the value of CATTLE?

Options:
A) 93
B) 61
C) 91
D) 65
Q7) If LONDON is coded as MPOEPO. What code is needed for DELHI?
Options:
A) DEHLI B) EFIMJ
C) HLDEI D) EFMIJ
Q8) In a certain language if A is written as 2, B as 4 and C as 6 what do the

figure 12, 10, 10, 8 stands for?.
Options:
A) DEEP B) DOOR
C) DEER D) FEED
Q9) In a certain code language

1 .Chip, Din, Chunk means students attend class
2. Din Sunk Dink means Arjun is student
3. Jump Mink Sink means Schools are good
4. Dink Mup Chimp means Teacher is teaching
The code which is used for Arjun is?
Options:
A) Sunk
B) Din
C) Dink
D) Chunk
Q10) In a military code CAUTION is coded as UACITNO.

How will you write MISUNDERSTAND?
Options:
A) SI MUNEDSRTAND
903
B) SIMNUEDSRATDN
C) SMIUNDERSTAND
Page

Q11) In a .certain code-language, CUL, WAP, DIR means red little box, SUT;
MAD BIX, means well arranged pile, BIX, FAC, DIR means pile of boxes. The
code for 'of here is?
Options:
A) FAC
B) SUT
C) DIR
D) BIX
Q12) In a code language 256 means 'you are good', 637 means 'we are bad', 358
means 'good and bad'. Find the code for 'and'.
Options:
A) 2
B) 5
C) 8
D) 3
Q13) If GUN is coded as HVO. find the code for PEN.

Options:
A) QFO
B) CDP
C) RST
D) NOT
Q14) KNOWLEDGE is coded as 256535475. How can GENERAL be coded

Options:
A) 7549993
B) 7559913
C) 755591
D) 7555913
Q15) If BOY is coded as ACNPXZ. What will be the code for LIFE?
Options:
904
A) KMHJEGDF B) LMGHEGDF
C) LMHJGEFD D) None of these
Page

Q16) If SISTER is coded as 535301, UNCLE is coded as 84670 and BOY is coded
as 129. Find the code word for SON?
Options:
A) 524
B) 923
C) 872
D) 361
Q17) Fill in the blank with suitable figures.

S 16 10 V
L 28 20 P
F __ __ J
Options:
A) 30, 38
B) 38, 40
C) 38, 30
D) 40, 32
Q18) In a certain code Language

134 means good and tasty
478 means see good picture
729 means picture are faint
Which number has been used here for faint?
Options:
A) 9
B) 2
C) data are inadequate
D) 7
Q19) In a code language COME is coded as XLNV. Find the code for CAT?
Options:
A) XZG
B) CMW
905
C) YMN
D) XWG
Page

Q20) If in a certain language PROSE is coded as PPOQE, how is 'LIGHT' coded

in that code?
Options:
A) LIGFT
B) LLGFE
C) JIEHR
D) LGGFT
Q21) If in a certain language PRACTICE is coded as PICCTRAE, how is 'FLAMES'

coded in that code?
Options:
A) FEMALS
B) FALEMS
C) FMELAS
D) FALMES
Q22) If in a certain language, METAPHER is coded as EMATHPRE, how is

'NORMAL' coded in that code?
Options:
A) ORMLAN
B) ONRMLA
C) ONMRAL
D) ONMRLA
Q23) If in a certain language, FIELD is coded as GJFME, how is 'SICKLE' coded

in that code?
Options:
A) RHBJKD
B) RHJBKD
C) TJDLMF
D) TJDMLF
Q24) If in a certain language, HAPPY is coded as GBOQX, how is 'Cross' coded

in that code?
Options:
906
A) BSPTR B) BSNRT
C) BSNTR D) BNSTR
Page

Q25) If any word LPPHGLDWH in coded as IMMEDIATE, how is 'WRSVHFUHW'

coded in that code?
Options:
A) YUVKIXKY
B) FAITHFUL
C) TOPSBRASS
D) TOPSECRET
Q26) If in a certain language, HOUSE is coded as INVRF, how is 'CROWD' coded

in that code?
Options:
A) BGNVC
B) DQPVK
C) DQPVE
D) DSPXE
Q27) If in a certain language PANKEJ is coded as OBMLDK, how is 'SAROD'

coded in that code?
Options:
A) RBSPC
B) RBQPC
C) TBQPC
D) RBPQC
Q28) If in a certain language, TIGER is coded as RIGET, how is 'CROWN' coded

in that code?
Options:
A) NROWC B) NOWRC
C) RRWCO D) NOWCR
Q29) If in a certain language, KNOWLEDGE is coded as 256535475, how is

'GENERAL' coded in that code?
Options:
907
A) 7545993 B) 7969393
C) 7555913 D) 755591
Page

Q30) In a certain code 'JUDICI AL' is written as 'LAUJICID'. How is 'GLORIOUS'

Options:
A) LGSUROOL
B) USGLIOOR
C) SULGROOL
D) SULGOIRO
Q31) If in a certain language, CERTAIN is coded as XVIGZRM, how is

'MUNDANE' coded in that code?
Options:
A) NFMWZMV
B) VMZWMFN
C) NFMWZMX
D) NFMXZMV
Q32) If in a certain language, SEQUENCE is coded as HVJFVMXV, how is

'CHILDREN' coded in that code?
Options:
A) XSRMWIVM
B) XSROWIVM
C) OSROWIVN
D) MVIWORSX
Q33) If in a certain language, MOBILITY is coded as 46293927, how is

'EXAMINATION' coded in that code?
Options:
A) 67250623076
B) 56149512965
C) 45038401854
D) 57159413955
Q34) If a certain language, WOMEN is written as OWMNE, how will NOTES be

written in the same code?
Options:
908
A) OTNES B) NOETS
C) SETON D) ONTSE
Page

Q35) If in a certain language, BEAT is coded as GIDV, how is 'SOUP coded in

that code?
Options:
A) XSXR
B) XXSR
C) RXSR
D) XSYR
Q36) If in a certain language DIVISION is written as DVISIOIN, how is STATES

is written in that language?
Options:
A) SATETS
B) STAETS
C) SATTES
D) SAETTS
Q37) If MONKEY is coded in a certain language as XDJMNL, how TIGER will be

coded?
Options:
A) SHFDQ
B) QDFHS
C) SDFHS
D) QDHJS
Q38) If 'ROAD' is coded in a certain language as URDG, how SWAN will be

coded?
Options:
A) VXDQ B) VZDQ
C) UXDQ D) VZCQ
Q39) In a certain code if MILLION is written as IMLLOIN, how will HILTON be

coded?
Options:
909
A) HITLON B) IHLOTN
C) IHTLNO D) HILTNO
Page

Q40) If PRAMOD be coded as SODJRA in a certain language, how will KESHAV

be coded?
Options:
A) NBUEDS
B) NBVECS
C) NBVFDS
D) NBVEDS
Q41) If RATIONAL is coded in a certain language as RTANIOLA, how will TRIBAL

be coded?
Options:
A) TRI ALB
B) TIRALB
C) TIRLBA
D) TIRABL
Q42) If in a certain code SCRIPT is written as TCQIQT, how will DIGEST be

written?
Options:
A) EIFETT
B) TIHETT
C) EIFERT
D) EIHETT
Q43) If UNDERSTAND is coded as 1234567823, how will START be coded?

Options:
A) VHSOB
B) OHMOV
C) YHMOV
D) OBMIV
Q44) If UNDERSTAND is coded as 1234567823, how will START be coded?

Options:
A) 56781
B) 83243
910
C) 73652
D) 67857
Page

Q45) If CLOCK is coded as KCOLC, how will STEPS be coded?

Options:
A) SEPTS
B) SPETS
C) SPSET
D) SPEST
Q46) If MONDAY is coded as 123456 and BELT is coded as 0789, how would
you encode the word TOMBAY?
Options:
A) 921056
B) 460528
C) 290165
D) 358702
Q47) If TOM=48 and DICK=27, what is HARRY equal to?

Options:
A) 50
B) 80
C) 70
D) 60
Q48) If CUPBOARD is coded as CXPBXXRD, how will CRAFT be coded?

Options:
A) CRAXT
B) CRAFX
C) CXART
D) CRXFT
Q49) In a certain code 'STABILISE' is written as 'UVCDKNUG'. How would

'CRICKET' be written in that code?
Options:
A) ETKFMVG
911
B) ESLEMGV
C) ETKATCR
D) ETKEMGV
Page

Q50) In a certain code 'favour' is written as ECURTV. How is 'FOSTER' written

in that code?
Options:
A) QEWRVD
B) EPRVDU
C) GQTWFV
D) EQRWDV
Q51) If the word KNIFE is coded as MPKHG, what do the letters DTGCF stand
for?
Options:
A) BARED
B) BRAED
C) BRADE
D) BREAD
Q52) If the letters GBOQX stand for HAPPY, for which word the letters CROSS
stand for?
Options:
A) BSNRT
B) BSPTR
C) BSNTR
D) BNSTR
Q53) If MNPQWXFG stand for the word LOVE, then for which word do the
letters IJBCUVFG stand?
Options:
A) HOME
B) HATE
C) KITE
D) WIFE
Q54) If the word BOY is coded as ACNPXZ, then for what word do the letters
RTNPMO stand?
Options:
912
A) CUT B) PEN
C) SON D) DOG
Page

Q55) If in a certain language GONE is coded as ILPB, then for what word do the
letters EOKY stand?
Options:
A) I BCR
B) RI BC
C) CIRB
D) CRIB
Q56) If SKEW is coded as POCY, then for what word do the letters JYQV stand?
Options:
A) MSUT
B) MUTS
C) SUTM
D) MUST
Q57) If in a certain language THEN is coded as RLBS, then for what word AEPJ
is coded?
Options:
A) CSAE
B) SACE
C) CASE
D) CAES
Q58) If in a certain language DQPVE is coded as CROWD, which word would be

coded as HOUSE?
Options:
A) IN VFR
B) INVRF
C) IVRNF
D) VIRFN
Q59) If in a certain code, HPEX is coded as KTIZ, then which word would be
coded as LIFE?
Options:
A) I EBC
913
B) IECB
C) IBEC
Page
D) BICE

Q60) If in a certain code LONDON is coded as MPOEPO, which word would be

coded as IVOHSZ?
Options:
A) MEXICO
B) HOLAND
C) HUNGRY
D) ISLALN
Q61) If in a certain languages SISTER is coded as 535301, UNCLE is coded as

84670 and BOY as 129, how will SON be coded?
Options:
A) 923
B) 524
C) 342
D) 872
Q62) If SLEEP is coded as XMKKB, SPEAR is coded as XBKOY and PULL as

BFMM, how will you code PLEASURE?
Options:
A) XYKBMOFK
B) KOXFYKBM
C) BMKOXFYK
D) BKMOXEKY
Q63) If GRASP is coded as INOPQ and BROWN is coded as RNSTU, how will you
code SPARROW?
Options:
A) PQONN ST
B) POQNNSU
C) PQONMOT
D) PQONNSU
Q64) If HARD is coded as 1357 and SOFT is coded as 2468, what do the figures
21448 stand for?
Options:
914
A) SHOOP B) SHOOL
C) SHOOT D) SCOOL
Page

Q65) If TOUR is coded as 1234, CLEAR I S CODED AS 5678 and SPARE as

90847, how will the word SCULPTURE be coded?
Options:
A) 935601347
B) 567903417
C) 953603741
D) 953601347
Q66) If in a certain language A is written as 2, B as 4 and C as 6, then in the

same language what do the figures 1210108 stand for?
Options:
A) DEEP
B) DOOR
C) DEER
D) FEED
Q67) If in a certain code 5234 is written as RING and 6109 as FAST, how will
095234 be written?
Options:
A) STRNIG
B) NGRIST
C) STRING
D) STRIGN
Q68) If in a certain language 8514 is coded as HEAD, 3945 is coded as RIDE

and 057 as BEG, what does the word GRADE stand for?
Options:
A) 13754
B) 73145
C) 411357
D) 14735
Q69) If in a certain language GASP is coded as KMRO and CROW is coded as

AXYZ , then in the same language how will the word SPARROW be coded?
Options:
915
A) ROMXXYZ B) ROMZYYX
C) TRCTTOY D) VSDUURZ
Page

Q70) If INDUS is coded as 03865, and TENNIS is coded as 243305, then how
will you code STUDENT?
Options:
A) 5628323 B) 5648324
C) 5268432 D) 5268234
Q71) Which one of the following is the value of H+B+F?

Options:
A) 20 B) 16
C) 17 D) 15
Q72) J-B+D is equal to-

Options:
A) 9 B) 21
C) 16 D) 12
Q73) If TOM=48 and DICK=27, what is HARRY equal to?

Options:
A) 46
B) 50
C) 70
D) 67
Q74) B 6 8 D J 14 17 M N--S
Options:
A) 17, 22
B) 16, 21
C) 15, 20
D) 18, 23
Q75) K 21 15 H O 29 39 T D--B
Options:
A) 3, 5
916
B) 5, 7
C) 7, 5
Page
D) 7, 3

Q76) P 34 32 Q V 44 40 X G---1
Options:
A) 14, 12
B) 40, 32
C) 18, 14
D) 18, 30
Q77) S 16 10 V L 28 20 P F--J
Options:
A) 30, 38
B) 38, 30
C) 40, 32
D) 32, 40
Q78) G 39 33 J C 47 41 F R--Y
Options:
A) 17, 3
B) 3, 17
C) 15, 1
D) 4, 12
Q79) If Dust is called Air, Air is called Fire, Fire is called Water, Water is called
colour, colour is called Rain and Rain is called Dust, where do Fish live?
Options:
A) Dust
B) Water
C) colour
D) Fire
Q80) If SEND-MONEY is coded as QCLBKMLCW, what will be the first and last
letters of the word in the same code for MOST-SECRET?
Options:
A) R, K
B) K, R
C) O, V
917
D) V, U
Page

Q81) If BOX is coded as CDPQYZ, what will be the last two letters of word in the
same code for HERO?
Options:
A) N, M
B) M, N
C) P, Q
D) Q, P
Q82) If ACNP is coded as NPJL , what will be the last letter of the word in the
same code for CINPQSRTG?
Options:
A) D
B) E
C) F
D) C
Q83) If CARPENTER is coded as BAQPDN SEQ, what will be the first letter of
word in the same code for SANJIV?
Options:
A) N
B) T
C) R
D) V
Q84) If CLOCK is coded as KCOLC, what will be the first and last letters of the
word in the same code for RAMESHA?
Options:
A) A, M
B) H, E
C) R, A
D) A, R
Q85) If QUESTIONS is coded as NXBVQLLQ, what will be the first two letters of
the word in the same code for REPLY?
Options:
918
A) O, V B) R, L
C) Y, C D) O, H
Page

Q86) If GREEN is coded as FSDFM, what will be the lat letter of the word in the
same code for BLUE?
Options:
A) M
B) R
C) F
D) T
Q87) If SCRIPT is coded as TCQIQT, what will be the first and last letters of the
word in the same code for DIGEST?
Options:
A) C, T
B) E, T
C) C, F
D) E, F
Q88) If SON is coded as TUPQOP, what will be the third and fourth letters from
the left of the word in the same code for FATHER?
Options:
A) B, C
B) U, V
C) G, H
D) I, J
Q89) If FIRE is coded as DGPC, what will be the third letter from the left of the
word in the same code for SHOT?
Options:
A) Q
B) N
C) M
D) R
Q90) If(1) 'Quo Cui Heer' means 'Boy is good'. (2) 'Lai Quo Mea' means 'Meena is
fair'. (3) 'Ruo Lev Mea' means 'All are fair'. (4) 'Si Hai Cui' means 'Dog was good'.
Options:
919
A) Quo B) Cui
C) Heer D) Lai
Page

Q91) If in a certain code language (1)'Hupa chip fu pa' stands for' Ram is very
intelligent'. (2) 'Chip hupa kupa tik' stands for 'Hari is very smart'. (3) 'lik fu
hupa' stands for 'Boy is intelligent (4) 'fu tik dop' stands for 'Smart and
intelligent'. then which one of the following word is used for 'Hari'?
Options:
A) chip
B) hupa
C) fu
D) kupa
Q92) If is a certain code language-(1) 'Chip Din Chunk' means 'Students attends
class'. (2) 'Din Sunk Dink' means 'Arjun is student'. (3) 'Jump Mink Sink' means
'Schools are good'. (4) 'Dink Mup Chimp' means 'Teacher is teaching'. (4) 'Dink
Mup Chimp' means 'Teacher is teaching'. then which one of the following is used
for Arjun?
Options:
A) Sunk
B) Din
C) Dink
D) Chunk
Q93) Which one of the statements in Q.(3) IS EXTRA?

Options:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q94) If in a certain code language-(1) 'Tom Kun Sud' means 'Dogs are
barking.(2) 'Kun Jo Mop' means 'Dogs and horses'. (3) 'Mut Tom ko' means
'Donkeys are mad'. which word in that language means 'barking'?
Options:
A) Ko
B) Kun
C) Jo
D) Sud
920
Page

Q95) If in a certain code language-(1) 'YOB YEAR SE' means 'Child is innocent'.
(2) 'PACELA YEAR' means 'Innocent and long'. (3) 'Neglase' means 'Man is long'.
Which of the following words is used for and'?
Options:
A) YEAR
B) YOB
C) LA
D) PACE
Q96) In a certain code language-'kew' xas huma deko' means 'she' is eating
apples' 'kew tepo qua' means 'she sells toys'. and 'sul lim deko' means 'Ilike
apples'. Which words in the language means 'she' and 'apples'?
Options:
A) xAs ' and 'deko'

B) xAs ' and 'kew'
C) kew' and 'deko'
D) kew' and 'xAs '
Q97) In a certain code language-(1)'pic vic nic' means 'winter is cold'. (2)'to nic
re' means 'summer is hot'. (3) 're pic boo' means 'winter and summer'. (4) 'vic
tho pa' means 'nights are cold'. Which word in that language represents
'summer'?
Options:
A) nic
B) re
C) to
D) vic
Q98) In a certain code language-(1) 'po ki top ma' means 'Usha is playing cards'.
(2) 'kop ja ki ma' means 'Asha is playing tennis'. (3) 'ki top sop ho' means 'they
are playing football'. (4) 'po sur kob' means 'Cards and tennis'. Which word in
that language means 'Asha'?
Options:
A) ja
B) ma
C) kob
D) top
921
Page

Q99) In a certain code language-'1, 2, 3' means 'bright little boy, ''1, 4, 5' means
'tall big boy' and '6, 3, 7' means 'beautiful little flower'. Which numeral in that
language means 'bright'?
Options:
A) 1
B) 6
C) 3
D) none of these
Q100) In a certain code language-'743' means 'Mangoes are good'. '657' means
'Eat good food' and '934' means 'Mangoes are ripe'. Which digits means 'ripe' in
that language?
Options:
A) 5
B) 4
C) 9
D) 7
Q101) In a certain code language-'Pat Zoo Sim' means 'Eat Good Mangoes' 'Pus
Sim Tim' means 'Mangoes and Sweets' and 'Tim Zoo Kit' means 'Purchase Good
Sweets'. Which word in that language means 'Good'?
Options:
A) Zoo B) Pus
C) Sim D) Tim
Q102) In a certain code language-'1 3 4' means 'Good And Tasty' '4 7 8' means
'See Good Pictures' and '7 2 9' means 'Pictures Are Faint'. Which of the following
numerical symbol stands for 'See'?
Options:
A) 9 B) 2
C) 1 D) none of these
Q103) In a certain code language-'1 2 3 ' means 'hot filtered coffee' '3 5 6 '
means 'very hot day' and '5 8 9' means 'day and night'. Which of the following
numeral symbols stands for 'very'?
Options:
922
A) 9 B) 5
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C) 8 D) 6

Q104) In a certain code language-'They are fools' means 'Plane is risky' 'We are
wise' means 'Train is fast' and 'Wise never fools' means 'Fast always risky'.
Which of the following stands for 'Train'?
Options:
A) They
B) Never
C) Fools
D) We
Q105) If 'npi sto qpr' stands for 'bright red rose'. 'imn npi spo' stands for 'grows
carrot red', 'adv spa qpr' stands for 'colour bright grows', what would 'red ' stand
for?
Options:
A) qpr B) spa
C) npi D) imn
Q106) If 'wne si cpso ptm' stands for 'Suresh got sweet eyes', 'msi wne ptm'
stands for 'large sweet eyes' and 'wne ptm rti si npo' stands for 'Rohit got sweet
eyes too', what would 'got' stand for?
Options:
A) ptm B) si
C) npo D) wne
Q107) If 'shm rtm opn' stands for 'colourful tiny market', 'kli shm hmp' stands
for 'Tuesday market bund' and 'kli hmp opn' stands for 'colorful Tuesday bund',
what would 'tiny' stand for?
Options:
A) rtm B) hmp
C) kli D) opn
Q108) If 'Cinto Baoli tsi nzro' means 'her village is Sarupur'. 'mhi cinto keepi tsi
oind' means 'her first love is literature' and 'oind geit tsi cinto pki' means
'literature collection is her hobby' which word 'literature' would mean?
Options:
A) Cinto
923
B) Baoli
C) Oind
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D) Geit

Q109) If 'sti nro kti' stands for 'clouds pour down' 'nro bsi mit' stands for 'down
he goes' and 'bsi nro zpi' stands for 'died down he', what would 'goes' stands for?
Options:
A) nro
B) mit
C) kti
D) bsi
Q110) If Digits: 7 2 1 5 3 9 8 6 4 equals to Letters: W L M S I N D J B then [5 2

3 7 9] equals to?
Options:
A) S L N W I
B) S L I WN
C) S L I N J
D) M L S W I

4 3 6 2] equals to?
Options:
A) M D B S J L
B) M D IL J B
C) B W J L S M
D) M D B I J L

4 6 3 2] equals to?
Options:
A) M D J B S L
B) M D J B W L
C) B D L S M W
D) M D B J I L

2 7 5] equals to?
Options:
924
A) J I L S W B) D L I M W
C) D I L W S D) J S M W I
Page


9 2 8] equals to?
Options:
A) J B L N D
B) B J N L D
C) D B N L S
D) J B N L D

9 3 1 2] equals to?
Options:
A) I S I M N L
B) I S N I L M
C) S I N L M I
D) I S N I M L

4 1 3] equals to?
Options:
A) J N B W D
B) J N B W I
C) J N B M I
D) J N B I M

7 3 4 1] equals to?
Options:
A) D W N I B M
B) D I W I B M
C) I W M I D B
D) D I W S I M

8 6 7 5] equals to?
Options:
925
A) N L D J W S B) N L D J S W
C) L D N J W S D) D S W J L N
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3 4 5 6] equals to?
Options:
A) M L I J S W
B) M L I B S J
C) I L M D J S
D) M L I D B J
Q120) If Letters: D I N E S H K U M equals to Digits: 8 2 5 1 7 4 9 3 6 then [D E

S H M U N] equals to?
Options:
A) 2 1 7 4 6 7 2
B) 8 1 7 5 3 4 6
C) 1 3 5 6 9 8 4
D) 8 1 7 4 6 3 5
Q121) If Letters: D I N E S H K U M equals to Digits: 8 2 5 1 7 4 9 3 6 then [S H

K N U D I] equals to?
Options:
A) 7 4 5 3 2 9 8
B) 7 4 9 5 2 3 8
C) 7 4 9 5 3 8 2
D) 4 5 7 9 2 8 3
Q122) If Letters: D I N E S H K U M equals to Digits: 8 2 5 1 7 4 9 3 6 then [N I

S U D IM ] equals to?
Options:
A) 3 5 9 8 7 6 2
B) 5 2 7 8 3 6 2
C) 5 2 7 3 8 2 6
D) 5 2 7 3 6 2 8
Q123) If Letters: D I N E S H K U M equals to Digits: 8 2 5 1 7 4 9 3 6 then [D I

N E S H] equals to?
Options:
926
A) 8 2 1 5 7 4 B) 8 2 1 4 7 5
C) 2 1 7 4 8 5 D) 8 2 5 1 7 4
Page

Q124) If Letters: D I N E S H K U M equals to Digits: 8 2 5 1 7 4 9 3 6 then [S I

M U K I] equals to?
Options:
A) 7 6 3 9 22
B) 7 2 6 9 2 3
C) 7 2 6 3 9 2
D) 6 3 2 7 9 3
Q125) If Letters: D I N E S H K U M equals to Digits: 8 2 5 1 7 4 9 3 6 then [N E

K I S U M] equals to?
Options:
A) 5 1 9 2 7 3 6
B) 5 9 1 2 3 6 7
C) 9 3 2 6 5 7 2
D) 3 5 7 6 9 2 1
Q126) If Letters: D I N E S H K U M equals to Digits: 8 2 5 1 7 4 9 3 6 then [I N

K S E K H] equals to?
Options:
A) 5 9 4 3 2 6 7
B) 4 3 7 6 9 5 2
C) 2 5 1 7 4 9 7
D) 2 5 9 7 1 9 4
Q127) If Letters: D I N E S H K U M equals to Digits: 8 2 5 1 7 4 9 3 6 then [H U

M S E N I] equals to?
Options:
A) 4 3 6 1 7 2 5
B) 4 3 6 7 1 5 2
C) 3 6 41 5 27
D) 4 3 6 2 5 1 7
Q128) If Letters: D I N E S H K U M equals to Digits: 8 2 5 1 7 4 9 3 6 then [M U

N E S H] equals to?
Options:
927
A) 6 3 5 1 4 7 B) 6 3 5 1 7 4
C) 6 3 1 5 7 4 D) 5 3 6 4 1 7
Page

Q129) If Letters: D I N E S H K U M equals to Digits: 8 2 5 1 7 4 9 3 6 then [I N

D U N E M] equals to?
Options:
A) 2 5 8 3 5 1 6 B) 2 5 8 5 3 1 6
C) 5 3 8 1 6 2 5 D) 2 5 8 6 2 1 5
Q130) In a confidential map of an army, the following code is used to show the
height & distance of the defence posts in meters. [A N G R Y C H I L D] mapped
as [1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0] There was a doubt in the actual secrecy of the above
code. So , this code was changed and the new code was [G L A N D Y R I C H]
mapped to [1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0].
According to the previous code the distance between the defence posts T & P
was R D N H meters. What would be the distance according to the new code?
Options:
A) N H D R B) D R N H C) N Y H R D) N H L R
mapped to [1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0].
The height of the post B, above sea level, according to the first code is D G I A H
meters. What would be it according to the new code?
Options:
A) H A R H I B) H A R I G C) H A I G L D) R I G H A
mapped to [1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0].
The post F was at a distance of R H Y meters from the post H. The distance
between the posts was reduced by 50 meters. What would be the distance now,
according to the new code?
Options:
A) D L P B) N L D C) N D L D) L N D
928
Page

mapped to [1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0].
According to the previous code the distance between the post M and R was L R
G Y meters. An army officer made the mistake of reading and he found it as L R
G Y according to the new code. How much less, would the actual distance be
because of this mistake?
Options:
A) 6719 meters
B) 6179 meters
C) 6971 meters
D) 7619 meters
mapped to [1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0].
During war a new post K was established between the post L and N. According
to the new code, the distance between the post K and N is D C A meters.
According to the previous code the distance between the posts L and N is A D L
C meters. What would be the distance between L and K according to the new
code?
Options:
A) H A D
B) D A C
C) D C A
D) D H A
Q135) If Digits: 3 7 9 2 5 1 4 8 6 equals to Letters: Y P K T N B S D V then [7 3 9

5 2 1] equals to?
Options:
A) P Y K N T N
B) P Y K N B T
C) P Y T N K B
D) none of these
929
Page


1 6 8] equals to?
Options:
A) K N B S V D
B) K N S B V D
C) T N S B V D
D) K N S N V D
Q137) If Digits: 3 7 9 2 5 1 4 8 6 equals to Letters: Y P K T N B S D V then

[23587/9164] equals to?
Options:
A) TYNDP/KBSN
B) TPN DP/KNBS
C) TPNDP/KBNS
D) None of these

1 3 2 6] equals to?
Options:
A) N P D B Y T V
B) N Y S B P T V
C) N P S B Y K V
D) None of these
Q139) If Digits: 3 7 9 2 5 1 4 8 6 equals to Letters: Y P K T N B S D V then

[63879/215] equals to?
Options:
A) V Y D P K/T N B
B) V Y P D K/T B N
C) Y V D P K/T B N
D) V Y D P K/T B N
930
Page

Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) B, Q3) A, Q4) A, Q5) A, Q6) B,
Q7) D, Q8) D, Q9) A, Q10) B, Q11) A,
Q12) C, Q13) A, Q14) D, Q15) A, Q16) A,
Q17) C, Q18) C, Q19) A, Q20) D, Q21) C,
Q22) D, Q23) C, Q24) C, Q25) D, Q26) C,
Q27) B, Q28) A, Q29) C, Q30) D, Q31) A,
Q32) B, Q33) B, Q34) D, Q35) A, Q36) A,
Q37) B, Q38) B, Q39) C, Q40) D, Q41) C,
Q42) A, Q43) B, Q44) D, Q45) B, Q46) A,
Q47) C, Q48) D, Q49) D, Q50) D, Q51) D,
Q52) C, Q53) B, Q54) C, Q55) D, Q56) D,
Q57) C, Q58) B, Q59) A, Q60) C, Q61) B,
Q62) C, Q63) A, Q64) C, Q65) D, Q66) D,
Q67) C, Q68) B, Q69) A, Q70) C, Q71) B,
Q72) D, Q73) C, Q74) D, Q75) D, Q76) C,
Q77) B, Q78) A, Q79) C, Q80) B, Q81) C,
Q82) D, Q83) C, Q84) D, Q85) D, Q86) C,
Q87) B, Q88) A, Q89) C, Q90) C, Q91) D,
Q92) A, Q93) C, Q94) D, Q95) D, Q96) C,
Q97) B, Q98) A, Q99) D, Q100) C, Q101) A,
Q102) D, Q103) D, Q104) D, Q105) C, Q106) B,
Q107) A, Q108) C, Q109) B, Q110) B, Q111) D,
Q112) D, Q113) C, Q114) D, Q115) D, Q116) C,
Q117) B, Q118) A, Q119) B, Q120) D, Q121) C,
Q122) C, Q123) D, Q124) C, Q125) A, Q126) D,
Q127) B, Q128) B, Q129) A, Q130) D, Q131) C,
Q132) B, Q133) A, Q134) D, Q135) D, Q136) B,
Q137) D, Q138) D, Q139) D,
Explanations:
Q1) R is in every group of letter and 4 is in every group of numbers so R = 4 C L
E A R = 5 6 7 8 4 , S P A R E = 9 0 8 4 7 Here 847 are common So CL = 56 and
SP = 90 Thus C A R E = 8 4 7
Q2) C AL AN DE R = C IR CU LA R
C LA NA ED R = C RI UC AL R
Here first and last letters are not dispositional but other pairs are being reversed
Q3) Add two in the serial number of letters as:
D = 4th + 2 = 6
R= 18th + 2 = 20
L = 12th + 2 = 14
A = Ist + 2 = 3
L = 12th + 2 = 14
931
Page

Q4) 3+1=4 of the code

5-1=4 of the code
7+1=8 of the code
9-1=8 of the code
6+1=7 of the code
as 3 5 7 9 6
+1 -1 +1 -1 +1
-----------------------------
44887 So 4 6 8 2 3 +1 -1 +1 -1 +1
----------------------------------
55914
Q5) There are two groups LIG and HT each being reversed
LIG HT RAI, NY
GI L TH IAR, YN
Q6) TOM
20 + 15 + 13 = 48
DI CK
4+9+3+11=27
CATTLE
3 + 1 + 20 + 20 + 12 + 5 = 61
Q7) L O N D O N D E L H I
+1 1 1 1 1 1 + 1 1 1 1 1
M P O E PO E FM I J
Q8) 12 10 10 8
FE ED
Q9) On the basis of Ist and IInd equations ""students"" = DIN
On the basis of IInd and IVth equations ""is"" = DINK
So Putting these two values into equation IInd we get the code for Arjun as
SUNK.
Q10) CAU TI ON MIS UN DE RS TA ND
UAC IT NO SIM NU ED SR AT DN
It means in the first group three letters are reversed then each pair is being
reversed.
Q11) CUR WAP DIR ---------(1)

red little boxes
BIX FAC DIR -------(2)
pile of boxes.
So DIR = boxes
BIX FAC DIR ---------(2)
pile of boxes
SUT MAD BIX ------------(3)
932
well arrange pile

So BIX = pile
Page
Thus of = FAC

Q12) You are good = 256

We are bad = 637
Are = 6
We are bad = 637
Good and bad = 358
bad = 3
you are good = 256
good and bad = 358
good=5 so and = 8
Q13) Every letter in the code is one letter ahead such as G =R, U=V, N=0 Thus P
= Q, E = F, N = 0
Q14) Add unit and tens of numerical value of letters such as
K =11= 1 + 1 = 2 G= 7 = 7 + 0 = 7
N=14= 1 + 4= 5 E=5
O=15= 1 + 5 = 6 N=5
W=23= 2 + 3 = 5 E=5
L=12= 1 + 2 = 3 R=9
E= 5 = 5 + 0 = 5 A=1
R=18= 1 + 8=9 L=3
D= 4 = 4 + 0 = 4
Q15) B = AC It means original letters can be inserted in
O = NP between the two coded letters Y=XZ
So L=KM,
I=HJ ,
F=EG
and E = DF
Q16) S I S T E R U N C L E
5353 0184 670
BO Y SON
1295 24
Q17) The difference between S and Lis
6 x 2 = 12 + 16 = 28
The difference between L and F is
5 x 2 = 10 + 28 = 38
The difference between V and P is
5 x 2 = 10 + 10 = 20
and the difference between P and J is also 5 x 2 = 10 + 20 = 30
Q18) 4= good
7 = Picture
and 2 and 9 = are and faint respectively.
933
Page

Q19) X V N L
IIII
ABCDEFGHI JKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
It means C = X or third from left and III from right

and O = L or 15th from left and 15th from right.
M = N or 13th from left and 13th from right,
E = V or th from left and Vth from right."
Q20) First, third and fifth letters are same but in place of second and fourth
letters previous two letters are used.
Q21) First and last letters are same but second and third letters and third last
and second last letters have interchanged.
Q22) First and second letters of the first word are reversed in the coded word,
i.e., second letter is changed to first and first to second. other letters are also in
this order.
Q23) Each letter of GJFME stands for each corresponding letter of the word
FIELD, one place ahead.
Q24) The first letter of the word GBOQX is the previous letter of the first letter of
the word HAPPY and the second letter of the word GBOQX is the next letter of
the second letter of the word 'HAPPY'. This order is the further repeated.
Q25) Each letter of LPPHGLDWH stands for each corresponding letter of the
word IMMEDI ATE, three place ahead.
Q26) The first letter of word HOUSE is one letter before the first letter of the
word INVAR but the second letter of the word HOUSE is one letter ahead of the
second letter of the word INVAR. This order is applied in further letters also.
Q27) The first letter of the word PANKEJ is one letter ahead of the first letter of
word OBMLOK but the second letter of the word PANKEJ is one letter before the
second letter of the word OBMLDk. this order is further repeated.
Q28) The first and last letters of the word TIGER are reversed while the mid
three letters are same, in RIGET.
Q29) K is in the 11th place according to alphabetic order. Therefore
K=11=1+1=2 N =14=1+4=5 Like this O=15=1+5=6 W=23=2+3=5 and so on.
Therefore GENERAL=7555913
Q30) The last two letters' A L' are written in reverse order, then first two letters
are written in reverse order, then last but two letters i.e., 'CI' are written in
reverse order and in the last third & fourth letter i.e., 'DI' are written in reverse
order.
934
Q31) As the first letter of the word CERTAIN has left two letters before like that
the first letter of the work XVIGNRM has left two letters after. This order is
Page
further repeated.

Q32) As the first letter of the word SEQUENCE has left some letters at the end
like that the first letter of the word HVJFVMXV has left that many letters in the
beginning. this order is further repeated.
Q33) M is the 13th letter of alphabets. Therefore M=13=1+3=4 O=15=1+5=6 Like

this B=2 I=9 L=12=1+2=3 extra Therefore EXAMINATION=56149512965
Q34) The first and second letters are reversed while third letter is same and
fourth and fifth letters are also reversed.
Q35) First, second, third, fourth letters of the word BEAT are written 5, 4, 3 and
2 letters ahead in the word GIDV. Like this SOUP will be coded as XSXR.
Q36) First and second letters of the first letter and also fourth and fifth, sixth
and seventh, are reversed within themselves.
Q37) The first letter of the word MONKEY becomes the last letter of the word
XDJMNL after being the previous letter of the first word.
Q38) Each letter of the word URDG stands for each corres ponding letter of the
word ROAD, three letters ahead.
Q39) First and second, third and fourth , fifth and sixth letters of the first word
are reversed.
Q40) The first letter' P' is two letters before the first letter 'S' but the second
letter 'R' is two letters ahead the second letter 'O'. Other letters also change in
the same order.
Q41) Second and third letters of the word RATIONAL are reversed and the sixth
letter comes to fourth place in the coded word, while seventh and eighth letter
interchange themselves.
Q42) First and fifth letter of the first word are one letter ahead, while third letter
in one letter before and the other letters remain same.
Q43) First, third, fifth and seventh letter of the word QUESTION are three letter
before in the word NXBVQLLQ, while second, fourth, sixth and eighth are three
letters ahead.
Q44) On comparing numbers with letters: U=1, N =2, D=3, E=4, R=5, S=6, T=7,
A=8 Therefore START=67857
Q45) All letters are written in reverse order.
Q46) On comparing numbers with letters. M=1, O=2, N=3, D=4, A=5, Y=6, B=0,
E=7, L=8, T=9 Therefore TOMBAY=921056
Q47) T is 20th letter in alphabets O is 15 th letter in alphabets M is 13 th letter

in alphabets On adding-20+15+13=48.Like this Harry=70.
Q48) Each vowel of 'CUPBOARD' is replaced by 'X'.
935
Q49) Each letter of 'UVCDKNUG' is one letter ahead to the corresponding letter
of 'STABILISE'.
Page

Q50) 1st, 3rd and 5th letters of 'FAVOUD' are moved one step backward, while
2nd, 4th and 6th are moved 2 steps, 3 steps and 4 steps forward.
Q51) Each letter of the word KNIFE stands for each corresponding letter of the
word MPKHG, two place ahead.
Q52) First letter of the word HAPPY is next letter of the first letter of the word
GBOQX and the second letter of the word HAPPY is the previous letter of the
second letter of the word GBOQx. this order is further repeated.
Q53) First two letters of the word MNPQ WXFG are the next-two letters of the
first letter of the word LOVE while third-fourth letters of the word MNPQ WXFG
are the next-two letters of the second letter of the word LOVe. this order is
repeated further.
Q54) The first letters of the word BOY comes in between the first two letters of
the word ACNPXZ and second letter of the word BOY comes in between the third
fourth letter of the coded word. this order is applied further.
Q55) The first letter of the word GONE is one letter before, the first letter of the
word ILPb. while second letter of the word GONE is two letters ahead of the
second letter of the word ILPB. This is again repeated in third and fourth letters.
Q61) S=5, I=3, T=3, E=0, R=1, U=8, N =4, C=6, L=7, B=1, O=2, Y=9, Therefore
SON=524
Q62) S=X, L=M, E=K, P=B, A=O, R=Y, U=F Therefore PLEASURE=B M K O X F Y
K
Q63) G=I, R=N, A=O, S=P, P=Q, B=R, O=S, W=T, N=U Therefore
SPARROW=PQONNST
Q64) H=I, A=3, R=5, D=7, S=2, O=4, F=6, T=8 Therefore 21488=SHOOT
Q65) T=1, O=2, U=3, R=4, C=5, L=6, E=7, A=8, R=4, S=9, P=0 Therefore
SCULPTURE=953601347
Q66) The difference between the two letters of the alphabets is 2 Therefore 12=F,
10=E, D=8 Therefore 1210108=FEED
Q67) 0=S, 9=T, 5=R, 2=I, 3=N, 4=G Therefore 095234=STRING

Q68) G=7, R=3, A=1, D=4, E=5 Therefore GRADE=73145
Q69) S=R, P=O, A=M, R=X, O=Y, W=Z Therefore SPPARROW=ROMXXYZ
Q70) S=5, T=2, U=6, D=8, E=4, N=3 Therefore student=5268432
Q71) B, F and H are the second, sixth and eighth letters of alphabet
res pectively. if B=2 and F=6, then H will be equal to 10 and 4 respectively.
hence, J-B+D=10-2+4=12 equal to 8. Hence, H+B+F=8+2+6=16.
Q72) J, B and D are the a0th, second and fourth letters of alphabets
936
res pectively. if B=2 y. if B=2 is taken, then J and D will be equal to 10 and 4
res pectively. hence, J-B+D=10-2+4=12
Page

Q73) T is the 20th letter of alphabet Therefore TOM=20+15+13=48 and

DI CK=4+9+3+11=27 Hence, HARRY=8+1+18+18+25=70
Q74) There is a gap of one letter between B and D and also there is a gap of one
number between 6 and 8 .Similarly, there is gap of 2 letters between J and M
and a gap of 2 numbers between 14 and 17.As there is a gap of 4 letters
between N and S, there is a gap of 4 numbers between the required numbers.
Again there is a gap of 7 letters between B and J and a gap of 7 numbers
between 6 and 14.As there is a gap of 3 letters between J and M, therefore, the
number with a gap of 3 after 14 is 18. Hence, the required numbers are 18&23.
Q75) H is the 8th letter and the number besides it is 15. So, by (2n-1) Where n
is the number of letter and (2n-1) is the number. There will be 7&3 for D and B
res pectively.
Q76) P and Q are continuous letters while there is a gap of 2 between the
numbers. There is a gap of one letter between V and x. while a gap of 4 between
the numbers. Similarly, since one letter is missing between G and I, the
difference between the numbers should be 4.As in all rows first number is larger
than the second, hence the correct answer should be 18 and 14.
Q77) 6 letters are missing between S and L, and the difference of the numbers is
12. As 5 letters are missing between F and L, the difference of the numbers
should be 10. Therefore, the first number should be 38. 5 letters are missing
between V and P and the difference of numbers is 10.As 5 letters are missing
between P and J, the second number should be 30.
Q78) Three letters are missing between G and C and the difference of the
numbers is 8. Hence, by the relation 2n+2, when14 letters are missing between
C and R, the difference of the numbers should be 30. Therefore, the first
numbers should be 17.Similarly, 18 letters are missing between Y and f. hence,
the second number should be 3.
Q79) Fishes live in water and for water the term 'colour' is used.
Q80) Each letter of the word SEND-MONEY is one letter ahead of each
corresponding letters of the word QCLB-KMLCW.
Q81) Last two letterers of the word CDPQYZ are the next two letters of the last
letter of the word BOX.
Q82) The last letter of the coded word is three letters before the last letter of the
word ACN P.
Q83) The first letter of the coded word is the previous letter of the first letter of
the word CARPENTER.
Q84) The letter of the word CLOCK are reversed in the word KCOLC.
Q85) First, third, fifth and seventh of the word QUESTION are two letters after
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the corresponding letters of the word N XB VQLLQ while second, fourth, sixth
and eighth letters of the word QUESTION are two letters before the
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corresponding letters of the word NXBVQLLQ.

Q86) The last letter of the word GREEN is the next letter of the last letter of
word FSD FM.
Q87) The first and fifth letter of the word SCRIPT is the previous letter of the
corresponding letter of the word TC QIQT while third letter of the first word is
the next letter of the corresponding letters of the coded word and the other
letters remain the same.
Q88) The first two letters of the word TUPQOP are the next two letters of the first
letter of the word SON. The other letters of the word are also in this order.
Q89) Each letter of the word FIRE stands for each corresponding letter of the
word DGPC, one letter ahead.
Q90) As 'Quo' means 'is' and 'Cui' means 'Good', therefore, 'Heer' means 'Boy'.
Q91) As 'hupa' means ' is', 'fu' means 'intelligent', 'chip' means 'very' and 'tik'
means 'smart', therefore, 'kupa' means 'Hari'.
Q92) Chip din Chunk=Student attends class. Din Sunk dink=Arjun is student.
Therefore Din=Student and dink mup Chimp=Teacher is teaching Therefore
dink=is Therefore Sunk=Arjun
Q93) In Question (3) the sentence is extra as it has no use in this question.
Q94) Tom Kun Sud=Dogs are barking Kun Jo Mop=Dogs and horses Therefore
Kun=Dogs, and Mut Tom Ko=Donkies are Mad Therefore Tom=are Therefore,
sud=barking.
Q95) PACE LA YEAR=innocent and long
Q96) By comparing (i) and (ii) sentence, we get kew=she and by comparing (i)
and(ii) sentence, we get debo=apples
Q97) to nic re'=summer is hot 're pic boo'=winter and summer Therefore
re=summer.
Q98) Po ki top ma'=Usha is playing cards po sur kob=Cards and tennis
po=cards, But kob ja ki ma=Asha is playing tennis Therefore kob=tennis and 'ki
ma'=is playing Hence, 'ja'=Asha.
Q99) By comparing I and II, we get 1 means 'boy' By comparing I and III, we get
3 means 'little'. Therefore 2 means 'bright'.
Q100) By comparing I and II, we get 4 and 3 means 'Mangoes' are. Hence, 9
means 'ripe'.
Q101) By comparing I and II, we get 'Zoo' means 'Good'.
Q102) By comparing I and II, we get '4 ' means 'Good'. and by comparing II and
III, we get '7' means 'Pictures' Hence, '8' means 'see'.
Q103) By comparing I and II, we get '3' means 'hot' and by comparing II and III,
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we get '5' means 'day' Hence, '6' means 'very'.

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Q104) By comparing I and II, we get 'Are' means ' is' and by II and III, we get
wise means 'Fast' Hence, We' MEANS 'Train'.
Q105) By (i) and (ii) npi->red.
Q106) By (i) and (ii) sweet eyes->wne ptm and by(i) and (iii) got ->si.
Q107) By (i) and (ii) market->shm and by (i) and (iii) colourful->opn Therefore
From(i) tiny ->rtm.
Q108) From (i) and (ii) Cinto tsi ->her is From (ii) and (III) oind->literature.
Q109) From(i) and (ii) down ->nro From(ii) and (iii) he->bsi Hence, from(ii)goes-
?mit.
Q130) The distance between the two defence posts T&P, according to the old
code is RDNh. hence, the distance in numbers is 4027 meters, Since, this
distance is to be coded according to the new code, the new distance would be
NHLR. This is because N stands for 4, H stands for O and so on, in the new
code.
Q131) The height of the post B according to the old code is DGIAh. decoding the
code we get the actual height as 03812 meters above sea level. again coding the
height with new code alphabets, we get the height as HAIGL meters.
Q132) Distance of the post F from the post H, according to the old code is RHY,
i.e., it is 475 meters. This distance was reduced by 50 meters. So, now the
distance between post F&H is 475-50=425 meters. According to the new code
this can be represented by the alphabets NLd. hence, this would be the code to
represent the distance according to the new code.
Q133) The distance between M&R according to the old code was LRGY meters.
Decoding it we get the distance to be 9435 meters. Since, the army officer read
the distance LRGY according to the new code, the distance came out to be 2716
meters. So the difference in the distance would be 9435 m -2716m=6719 m.
Q134) A new defence post K was established between the post L&N. According
to the new code post K is at a distance of Dc. meters from or it is at a distance of
593 meters. Distance between posts L&N is ADLC meters (according to the old
code).Decoding ADLC, we get the distance as 1096 m. so, the distance of post K
from post L would be 1096 m- 593 m=503 m. Since, the distance of post K from
post L is 503 m, putting it according to the new code, we get the distance to be
DHA meters.
Q135) The correct word is P Y K N T B.

Q137) The correct word is TYNDP/KBVS
Q138) The correct word is N P S B Y T V.
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Direction Sense Test:
Q1) One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a
crossing. If Vishals shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was
Udai facing?
Options:
A) East
B) West
C) North
D) South
Q2) Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z, then

in which direction of Y, is P?
Options:
A) North
B) South
C) South-East
D) None of these
Q3) If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What
will West become?
Options:
A) North-East
B) North-West
C) South-East
D) South-West
Q4) A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3
km he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the
starting place?
Options:
A) West
B) South
C) North-East
D) South-West
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Q5) Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour
hand points to North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15
P.M.?
Options:
A) South-East
B) South
C) North
D) West
Q6) Rasik walked 20 m towards north. Then he turned right and walks 30 m.
Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15m. Finally
he turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many meters is he
from the starting position?
Options:
A) 15 m West
B) 30 m East
C) 30 m west
D) 45 m East
Q7) Two cars start from the opposite places of a main road, 150 km apart. First
car runs for 25 km and takes a right turn and then runs 15 km. It then turns
left and then runs for another 25 km and then takes the direction back to reach
the main road. In the mean time, due to minor break down the other car has
run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the distance between two
cars at this point?
Options:
A) 65 km
B) 75 km
C) 80 km
D) 85 km
Q8) Starting from the point X, Jayant walked 15 m towards west. He turned left
and walked 20 m. He then turned left and walked 15 m. After this he turned to
his right and walked 12 m. How far and in which directions is now Jayant from
X?
Options:
A) 32 m, South
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B) 47 m, East
C) 42 m, N orth
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D) 27 m, South

Q9) One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to each other face
to face. If Hemas shadow was exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was
Rekha facing?
Options:
A) North
B) South
C) East
Q10) A boy rode his bicycle Northward, then turned left and rode 1 km and
again turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself 1 km west of his starting
point. How far did he ride northward initially?
Options:
A) 1 km
B) 2 km
C) 3 km
D) 5 km
Q11) k is 40 m South-West of L. If M is 40 m South-East of L, then M is in

which direction of K?
Options:
A) East B) West
C) North-East D) South
Q12) A man walks 2 km towards North. Then he turns to East and walks 10
km. After this he turns to North and walks 3 km. Again he turns towards East
and walks 2 km. How far is he from the starting point?
Options:
A) 10 km B) 13 km
C) 15 km D) None of these
Q13) The length and breadth of a room are 8 m and 6 m respectively. A cat runs
along all the four walls and finally along a diagonal order to catch a rat. How
much total distance is covered by the cat?
Options:
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A) 10 B) 14
C) 38 D) 35
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Q14) One morning sujata started to walk towards the Sun. After covering some
distance she turned to right then again to the right and after covering some
distance she again turns to the right. Now in which direction is she facing?
Options:
A) North B) South
C) North-East D) South-West
Q15) Some boys are sitting in three rows all facing North such that A is in the
middle row. P is just to the right of A but in the same row. Q is must behind of P
while R is in the North of
Options:
A) I n which direction of R is Q?
B) South
C) South-West
D) North-East
Q16) One morning after sunrise, Vimal started to walk. During this walking he
met Stephen who was coming from opposite direction. Vimal watch that the
shadow of Stephen to the right of him (Vimal). To Which direction Vimal was
facing?
Options:
A) East B) West
C) South D) Data inadequate
Q17) Golu started from his house towards North. After covering a distance of 8
km. he turned towards left and covered a distance of 6 km. What is the shortest
distance now from his house?
Options:
A) 10 km B) 16 km
C) 14 km D) 2 km
Q18) P started from his house towards west. After walking a distance of He
turned to the right and walked 10 m. He then again turned to the right and
walked 15 m. After this he is to turn right at 135o and to cover 30 m. I n which
direction should he go?
Options:
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A) west B) south
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C) South-West D) South-East

Q19) X started to walk straight towards south. After walking 5 m he turned to

the left and walked 3 m. After this he turned to the right and walked 5 m Now to
which direction X is facing?
Options:
A) North-East
B) South
C) North
D) South-West
Q20) He mant in order to go to university started from his house in the east and
came to a crossing. The road to the left ends in a theatre, straight ahead is the
hospital. In which direction is the university?
Options:
A) North
B) South
C) East
D) West
Q21) Afte r walking 6 km, I turned to the right and then walked 2 km. After then
I turned to the left and walked 10 km. In the end, I was moving towards the
North. From which direction did I start my journey?
Options:
A) North
B) South
C) East
D) West
Q22) Ravi left home and cycled 10 km towards South, then turned right and
cycled 5 km and the n again turned right and cycled 10 km. Afte r this he turned
left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometres will he have to cycle to reach his
home straight?
Options:
A) 10 km
B) 15 km
C) 20 km
D) 25 km
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Q23) Reena walked from A to B in the East 10 feet. Then she turned to the right
and walked 3 feet. Again she turned to the right and walked feet. How far is she
from A?
Options:
A) 4 feet
B) 5 feet
C) 24 feet
D) 27 feet
Q24) One morning after sunrise Nivedita and Niharika were talking to each
other face to face at Dolphin crossing. If Niharikas shadow was exactly to the
right of Nivedita, Which direction Niharika was facing?
Options:
A) North B) South
C) East D) Data is inadequate
Q25) If A x B means A is to the south of B; A + B means A is to the north of B; A

% B means A is to the east of B; A -B means A is to the west of B; then in P % Q
+ R -S, S is in which direction with respect to Q?
Options:
A) South-West B) South-East
C) North-East D) North-West
Q26) One morning after sunrise, Suresh was standing facing a pole. The shadow
of the pole fell exactly to his right. To which direction was he facing?
Options:
A) East B) South
C) West D) Data is inadequate
Q27) A child went 90 m in the East to look for his father, then he turned right
and went 20 m. After this he turned right and after going 30he reached to his
uncles house. His father was not there. From there he went 100 m to his north
and met his father. How far did he meet his father from the starting point?
Options:
A) 80 m
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B) 100 m
C) 140 m
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D) 260 m

Q28) Four friends A, B, C and D live in a same locality. The house of B is in the
east of As house but in the north of Cs house. The house of C is in the west of
Ds house. Ds house is in which direction of As house?
Options:
A) South-East B) North-East
C) East D) Data is inadequate
Q29) Umesh directly went from P, to Q which is 9 feet distant. Then he turns to
the right and walked 4 feet. After this he turned to the right and walked a
distance which is equal from P to Q. Finally he turned to the right and walked 3
feet. How far is he now from P?
Options:
A) 6 feet B) 5 feet
C) 1 feet D) 0 feet
Q30) Shyam walks 5 km towards East and then turns left and walks 6 km.
Again he turns right and walks 9 km. Finally he turns to his right and walks 6
km. How far is he from the starting point?
Options:
A) 26 km B) 21 km
C) 14 km D) 9 km
Q31) Amit started walking positioning his back towards the sun. After some
time, he turned left, then turned right and towards the left again. which
direction is he going now?
Options:
A) North or South
B) East or West
C) North or West
D) South or West
Q32) Rohit walked 25 m towards south. Then he turned to his left and walked
20 m. He then turned to his left and walked 25 m. He again turned to his right
and walked 15 m. At what dis tance is he from the starting point and in which
direction?
Options:
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A) 35 m East B) 35 m North
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C) 30 m West D) 45 m East

Q33) Village Q is to the North of the village P. The village R is in the East of
Village Q. The village S is to the left of the village P. In which direction is the
village S with respect to village R?
Options:
A) West
B) South-West
C) South
D) North-West
Q34) Radha moves towards South-East a distance of 7 km, then she moves
towards West and travels a distance of 14 km. From here she moves towards
North-West a distance of 7 km and finally she moves a distance of 4 km towards
east. How far is she now from the starting point?
Options:
A) 3 km
B) 4 km
C) 10 km
D) 11 km
Q35) Sundar runs 20 m towards East and turns to right and runs 10 m. Then
he turns to the right and runs 9 m. Again he turns to right and runs 5 m. After
this he turns to left and runs 12 m and finally he turns to right and 6 m. N ow to
which direction is Sundar facing?
Options:
A) East
B) West
C) North
D) South
Q36) Sachin walks 20 km towards North. He turns left and walks 40 km. He
again turns left and walks 20 km. Finally he moves 20 km after turning to the
left. How far is he from his starting position?
Options:
A) 20 km
B) 30 km
C) 50 km
D) 60 km
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Q37) From his house, Lokesh went 15 km to the North. Then he turned west
and covered 10 km. Then he turned south and covered 5 km. Finally turning to
the east, he covered 10 km. In which direction is he from his house?
Options:
A) East
B) West
C) North
D) south Dev, Kumar, Nilesh, Ankur and Pintu are standing facing to the North
in a playground such as given below: Kumar is at 40 m to the right of Ankur.
Dev is are 60 m in the south of Kumar. Nilesh is at a distance of 25 m in the
west of Ankur. Pintu is at a distance of 90 m in the North of Dev.
Q38) Which one is in the North-East of the person who is to the left of umar?
Options:
A) Dev
B) Nilesh
C) Ankur
D) Pintu
Q39) If a boy starting from Nilesh, met to Ankur and then to Kumar and after
this he to Dev and then to Pintu and whole the time he walked in a straight line,
then how much total distance did he cover?
Options:
A) 215 m B) 155 m
C) 245 m D) 185 m
Q40) If the flats of P and T are interchanged then whose flat will be next to that
of U?
Options:
A) P
B) Q
C) R
D) T
Q41) Which of the following combination get south facing flats?

Options:
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A) QTS B) UPT
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C) URP D) Data is inadequate

Q42) The flats of which of the other pair than SU, is diagonally opposite to each
other?
Options:
A) QP
B) QR
C) PT
D) TS
Q43) Whose flat is between Q and S?

Options:
A) T
B) U
C) R
D) P Each of the following questions is based on the following information: 8-
trees mango, guava, papaya, lemon, banana, raspberry and apple are in two
rows 4 in each facing North and South. Lemon is between mango and apple but
just opposite to guava. Banana is at one end of a line and is just next in the
right of guava or either banana tree is just after guava tree. Raspberry tree
which at one end of a line, is just diagonally opposite to mango tree.
Q44) Which of the following statements is definitely true?

Options:
A) Papaya tree is just near to apple tree.
B) Apple tree is just next to lemon tree.
C) Raspberry tree is either left to Pomegranate or after.
D) Pomegranate tree is diagonally opposite to banana tree.
Q45) Which tree is just opposite to raspberry tree?
Options:
A) Papaya
B) Pomegranate
C) Papaya or Pomegranate
Q46) Which tree is just opposite to banana tree?

Options:
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A) Mango B) Pomegranate
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C) Papaya D) Data is inadequate

Q47) According to X @ B * P, P is in which direction with respect to X?

Options:
A) North
B) South
C) North-East
D) South-West
Q48) According to M N $ T, T is in which direction with respect to M?
Options:
A) North-West
B) North-East
C) South-West
D) South-East
Q49) According to P R $ A * U, in which direction is U with respect to P?

Options:
A) East
B) West
C) North
D) South
Q50) Siva Reddy walked 2 km west of his house and then turned south covering
4 km. Finally, He moved 3 km towards east and then again 1 km west. How far
is he from his initial position?
Options:
A) 10 km
B) 9 km
C) 2 km
D) 4 km
Q51) A man walks 6 km to the east and then turn to the south 2 km. Again he
turns to the east and walks 2 km. Next he turns northwards and walks 8 km.
How far is he now from his starting point?
Options:
A) 18 km
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B) 10 km
C) 16 km
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D) 12 km

Q52) Rajeshs school bus is facing North when reaches his school. After starting
from Rajeshs house, it turning twice and then left before reaching the school.
What direction the bus facing when it left the bus stop in front of Rajeshs
house?
Options:
A) East
B) North
C) South
D) West
Q53) Anil wants to go the university. He starts from his house which is in the
East and comes to a crossing. The road to his left ends in a theatre, straight
ahead is the hospital. In which direction is the University?
Options:
A) East
B) North
C) South
D) West
Q54) If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, what
will West become?
Options:
A) North B) East
C) South-East D) North-West
Q55) Kumar walks 10 meters in front and 10 meters to the right. The every time
turning to his left he walks 5, 15 and 15 meters respectively. How far is he now
from his starting point?
Options:
A) 15 m B) 10 m
C) 12 m D) 5 m
Q56) The time on the watch is quarter to three. If the minute-head points to
North-East, If the minute-hand points to North-East, in which direction does the
hour hand point?
Options:
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A) South-West B) South-East
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C) North-West D) North-East

Q57) Starting from a point X, Ravi walked 20 m towards South. He turned left
and walked 30m. He then turned left and walked 20 m. He again turned left and
walked 40 m and reached at a point Y. How far and i which direction is the
point Y from the point X?
Options:
A) 5m East of X
B) 10m West of X
C) 15m West of X
D) 10m East of X
Q58) Lakshman went 15 kms to the West of his house, then turned left and
walked 20 kms. He then turned East and walked 25 kms and finally turning left
covered 20 kms. How far was he from his house?
Options:
A) 5 kms B) 10 kms
C) 40 kms D) 80 kms
Q59) Ravi started walking towards North. After walking 30 m, he turned left and
walked 40 m. He then turned left and walked 30 m. He again turned left and
walked 50 m. How far was he from his original position?
Options:
A) 50m B) 30m
C) 10m D) 60m
Q60) A man walks 30 m towards s outh. Then, turning to his right, he walks 30
m. Then, turning to his left, he walks 20 m. Again, he turns to his left and walks
30 m. How far is he from his initial position?
Options:
A) 30m B) 35m
C) 50m D) 60m
Q61) Starting from a Point X, Ramu walked 20 m towards South. He turned left
and walked 30 m. He then turned left and walked 20 m. He again turned left
and walked 40 m and reached a point Y. How far and i which direction is the
point Y from the point X
Options:
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A) 20 m West B) 10 m East
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C) 10 m North D) 10 m West

Q62) Going 50m to the south of her house, Latha turns left and goes another
20m. Then, turning to the North, she goes 30m and then starts walking to her
house. In which direction is she walking now?
Options:
A) North-West B) North
C) South-East D) East
Q63) Sahithi who is facing South turns to her left and walks 15 m, then she
turns to her left and Walks 7m, then facing West she walks 15m. How far is she
from her original position?
Options:
A) 10m B) 7m
C) 30m D) 15m
Q64) A, B, C and D are playing cards. A and B are partners. D faces towards
North. If A faces towards West, then who faces towards south?
Options:
A) C B) B
C) D D) E
Q65) Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between D

and C. A is between E and C. F is to the right side of D. Who is between A and
F?
Options:
A) B
B) D
C) C
D) E
Q66) B is to the South-West A, C is to the East of B and South-East of A and D

is to the north of C in line with BA. In which direction of A is D located?
Options:
A) East
B) North
C) South-East
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D) North-east
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Q67) A watch reads 4.30, If the minute hand points East, in what direction will
be the hour hand point?
Options:
A) South-East
B) North-East
C) North
D) North-west
Q68) Ravi travelled 4km straight towards south. He turned left and travelled
6km straight, then turned right and traveled 4km straight. How for is he from
the starting point?
Options:
A) 8km B) 10km
C) 12km D) 18km
Q69) Ramya walks towards northwest for 5km. Then she walks 3km towards
east and is just above. Where she started then she moved 7km North. how for is
she from her original position?
Options:
A) 12km B) 17km
C) 15km D) 11km
Q70) Ramesh walks 30 m towards south. Then turning to his right he walks
30m. Then turning to his left he walks 20m. Again turning to his left he walks
30m. How for is he from his starting position?
Options:
A) 30m B) 20m
C) 50m D) None of these
Q71) A walks 10 m in front and 10m to the right. Then every time turning to his
left he walks5, 15 and 15m respectively. How for is he now from his starting
point?
Options:
A) 10m
B) 20m
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C) 5m
D) 15m
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Q72) A person walks facing north 10m and the he turn left and walks 5m. he
again turns left and walks 10m. How far is he from his original position and
towards which direction?
Options:
A) 20m South
B) 15m West
C) 10m East
D) 5m West
Q73) Anitha started from home and walked some distance towards North-East
and then turned 90 degrees left. After sometime she again turned 90 degrees
left. In what direction is shewalking now?
Options:
A) North-West
B) South-West
C) South
D) West
Q74) Amar was facing North. He turns right and walks 20m. Then he turns
again and walks10m. Then he turns right again and walks 60m. in which
direction is he from the starting point?
Options:
A) North
B) North-East
C) North-West
D) East
Q75) A man starts walking in the morning facing the sun. After sometime, he
turned to his left. Later he again turned to his left. The direction in which the
man is moving now is:
Options:
A) South
B) North
C) East
D) West
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Q76) Raghu travelled 3km southwards, then turned right and travelled 5km.
Then again turned right and travelled 7km. I n which direction was he travelling
last?
Options:
A) South B) North
C) East D) West
Q77) Sunil started walking from a point P towards South. After walking 40m, he
took after turn. He then walked 30m and reached a point Q. What is the straight
line distance between Pand Q, and Q is towards which direction of P?
Options:
A) 60 meters, South east
B) 50 meters, South West
C) 50 meters, South east
D) None of these
Q78) A man walks 1 km to East and then he turns to South and walks 5 KM.
Again he turns to East and walks 2 km. After this he turns to North and walks 9
km. N ow, how far is the from his starting point?
Options:
A) 3 km B) 4 km
C) 5 km D) 7 km
Q79) I walk 30 meters in North-West direction from my house and then 30

meters in South-West direction. After this I walk 30 meters in South-East
direction. Now, I turn to my house. now in what direction am I going?
Options:
A) North-East B) North-West
C) South-East D) South-West
Q80) Piyush faces towards East. Turning to his right hw walks 50 meters and
then turning to his left, he walks 50 meters. After this he turns to his right and
walks 50 meters. Again he turns to his right and walks 100 meters. Finally he
turns to his right and walks 100 meters. Now, in what direction is he from his
starting point?
Options:
956
A) East B) West
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C) North D) South

Q81) If South-East becomes North and North-East becomes West and all the
rest directions are changed in the same manner, then what will be the direction
for West?
Options:
A) North-East
B) South
C) South-East
D) South-West
Q82) If Rahim moves 20 meters in East direction and then turns to his left and
then moves 15 meters and then he turns to his right and moves 25 meters. After
this he turns to his right and moves 15 meters. Now, how far is he from his
starting point?
Options:
A) Zero meter
B) 40 meters
C) 50 meters
D) 45 meters
Q83) A direction pole was situated on the crossing. due to an accident the pole
turned in such a manner that the pointer which was showing East
Options:
A) South-West
B) East
C) West
D) North
Q84) A boy was misdirected from his way while returning to his home from his
school. in order to reach his home he first moved 3 km in South direction and
then turned to his left and moved 2 km in straight direction on the road leading
to East. From there he moved to his left and walked 3 km. After this he again
turned to his left and moved 1 km. Finally he reached his home. the home of the
boy was in which direction from his school?
Options:
A) West
B) North
C) East
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D) South
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Q85) A cyclist goes 30 km to North and then turning to East he goes 40 km.
Again he turns to his right and goes 20 km. After this he turns to his right and
goes 40 km. How far is he from his starting point?
Options:
A) 0 km
B) 10 km
C) 25 km
D) 40 km
Q86) Mohan was facing East. He walked 4 km forward and the n after turning to
his right walked 3 km. Again he turned to his right and walked 4 km. After this
he turned back. which direction was he facing at that time?
Options:
A) East
B) West
C) North
D) South
Q87) Rani and Sarita started from a place x. rani went West and Sarita went
North, both travelling with the same speed. after some time both turned their
left and walked a few steps. If they again turned to their left, in which directions
the faces of Rani and Sarita will be with respect to X.
Options:
A) North and East

B) North and West
C) West and North
D) East and South
Q88) Rishi started early in the morning on the road towards the Sun. After
sometime he turned to his left. Again after sometime he turned to his right. After
moving some distance he again turned to his right and began to move. At this
time in what direction was he moving?
Options:
A) East
B) North-East
C) North-West
D) South
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Q89) While standing on his head, Shashank's face is towards South. in which
direction will his right hand point?
Options:
A) North-East
B) North
C) East
D) South-East
Q90) Amit walks 100 yards straight from his house which is facing north and
then he walks 20c yards in the reverse direction. Further he takes a left turn
and walks 100 yards. In which direction is Amit now from his original position?
Options:
A) North-East B) South-West
C) North-West D) South-East
Q91) A man walks northwards. After a while he turns towards his right and a
little further to his left. Finally, after walking a distance of one kilometre he
turns to his left again. A
Options:
A) North B) South
C) East D) West
Q92) Vijay starts walking straight towards East. After walking 75 meters he
turns to the left and walks 25 meters straight. Again he turns to the left and
walks a distance of 40 meters straight. Again he turns to the left and
Options:
A) 140 meters B) 50 meters
C) 35 meters D) 115 meters
Q93) Milind goes 30 meters North then turns right and walks 40 meters, then
again turns right and walks 20 meters, then again turns right and walks 40
meters, How many meters is the from his original position?
Options:
A) 0
B) 10
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C) 20
D) 40
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Q94) Geeta walked towards a temple which is infront of her to the north. when
the temple was 90 meters away from her, she turned to the left and collected a
message from Vijay's house, which was 50 meters away in that direction and
walked towards the west for 100 meters and turned to her right and walked 90
meters, How many meters was she from the temple?
Options:
A) 0
B) 90
C) 50
D) 150
Q95) A walks 10 meters infront and 10 meters to the right. Then every time
turning to his left he walks 5, 15 and 15 meters respectively. How far is he now
from his starting point?
Options:
A) 10 meters
B) 20 meters
C) 5 meters
D) 15 meters
Q96) The door of Rohit's house is towards the east. From the backside of the
house, he walks straight 100 yards then turns towards right and walks 100
yards again and after that turns towards left and stops after walking 50 yards.
Now Rohit is in which direction from the starting point?
Options:
A) South-East
B) North-West
C) North-East
D) South-West
Q97) If A is in the North of B and C is in the West of B. In what direction is A

with respect to C?
Options:
A) North-East
B) East
C) South
D) South-West
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Q98) Four boys A, B, C and D are up on the ladder. A is further up the ladder
than B, B is between A and C. If D is further up than A, who is the third from
the bottom?
Options:
A) B B) C
C) A D) D
Q99) If M is in North-East of N and P is in South-West of N then (i) p is in the

South of N and (ii) N is between M and P. Out of these two statements (i) and (ii)
which is /are correct?
Options:
A) (i) and (ii) both are correct B) (i) and (ii) both are wrong
C) only (i) is correct D) only (ii) is correct
Q100) The time by Saurabh's watch is half past three. if the hour hand points
towards East, to which direction would minute-hand point?
Options:
A) North
B) East
C) South-East
D) none of these
Q101) Five persons A, B, C, D and E are standing in a row. B is between A and

C and D is between C and e. if the distance of C from B is equal to the distance
of D from C, what is the relation between the distances of A to B and B to E?
Options:
A) Both are equal
B) A B is smaller than B E
C) A B is larger than B E
D) There is no relation in A B and B E
Q102) Six families A, B, C, D, E and F are living in houses in a row. B has D

and F as neighbours, E has A and C as neighbours. A does not live next to
either F or D .If C does not next to D, who are F's next door neighbours?
Options:
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A) B and F B) Band D
C) Only B D) Band C
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Q103) The post office is in the East of the school while my house is in the South
of the school. The market is in the North of the post office. if the distance of the
market from the post office is equal to the distance of my house from the school,
in which direction is the market with respect to my house?
Options:
A) North
B) East
C) North-East
D) South-West
Q104) Six students are sitting in a row, K is sitting between V and R.V is sitting
next to M.M is sitting next to B, who is sitting on the extreme left and Q is
sitting next to R. Who are sitting adjacent to V?
Options:
A) R and Q
B) B and M
C) Q and K
D) M and K
Q105) Six boys are so standing that they form a circle each facing the centre.
Alok is to the left of Prabhat. Sunil is between Ashok and Vikash. hari is
between Alok and Ashok. Who is to the left of Vikash?
Options:
A) Prabhat
B) Hari
C) Ashok
D) Sunil
Q106) Two ladies and two men are playing bridge a card game and seated at
North, East, South and West of a table. no lady is facing East Person sitting
opposite to each other are not of the same sex. one man is facing South. Which
directions are the ladies facing?
Options:
A) East and West

B) South and East
C) North and West
D) North and East
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Q107) Girija, Ishan, Francis and Hema are sitting on a bench. francis has Hema
next to her on her left. Ishan is sitting with Francis and Girija on either side of
her. Who sits at the extreme right?
Options:
A) Hema B) Girija
C) Ishan D) Francis
Q108) Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a row. B is between F

and d. e is between A and c. A does not stand next to either F or d. c does not
stand next to d. f is between which of the following pair of students?
Options:
A) B and D B) B and A
C) B and E D) B and C
Q109) Six persons are playing a card game. Suresh is facing Raghubir who is to
the left of Ajay and to the right of Pramod. ajay is to the left of Dhiraj. Yogendra
is to be left of Pramod. if Dhiraj exchanges his seat with Yogendra and Pramod
with Raghubir, who will be sitting to the left of Dhiraj?
Options:
A) Yogendra B) Raghubir
C) Suresh D) Ajay
Q110) Five girls are standing in a row facing East Savita is to the left of Usha,
Tulsa and Urmila. usha, Tulsa and Urmila are to the left of Kumud. urmila is
between Usha and Tulsa. if Tulsa is fourth from the left , how far is Usha from
the right?
Options:
A) First B) Second
C) Fifth D) Fourth
Q111) The town of Paranda is located on Green lake. the town of Akram is West
of Paranda. Tokhada is East of Akram but West of Paranda. kakran is East of
Bopri but We st of Tokhada and Akram .I f they are all in the same district, which
town is the farthest in West?
Options:
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A) Paranda B) Kakran
C) Akram D) Bopri
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Q112) P, Q, R and S are playing a game of carom. P, R and S, Q are the

partners. S is to the right of R who is facing West. To which direction Q is
facing?
Options:
A) East B) West
C) North D) South
Q113) Six friends A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the
centre. e is to the left of d. c is between A and b. f is between E and A. Who is to
the left of B?
Options:
A) A B) D
C) E D) C
Q114) Six friends A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the
centre. e is to the left of d. c is between A and b. f is between E and A. Who is to
the right of C?
Options:
A) E B) F
C) B D) A
Q115) Five persons are sitting in a row .One of the two persons at the extreme
ends is intelligent and the other one is fair. A fat person is sitting to the right of
a weak person. A tall person is to the left of the fair person and the weak person
is sitting between the intelligent and fat persons. Tall person is at which place
counting from right?
Options:
A) First B) Second
C) Third D) Fourth
is sitting between the intelligent and fat persons. Person to the left of weak
person possesses which of the following characteristics?
Options:
A) I ntelligent B) Fat
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C) Fair D) Tall
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is sitting between the intelligent and fat persons. Which of the following persons
is sitting at the centre?
Options:
C) Fair D) Weak
is sitting between the intelligent and fat persons. Fat person is sitting on whose
left hand side?
Options:
A) I ntelligent B) Fair
C) Weak D) Tall
is sitting between the intelligent and fat persons. If the fair person and fat
person exchange their positions, so also tall and weak, then who will be sitting
to the left of the weak person?
Options:
C) Fair D) Tall
is sitting between the intelligent and fat persons. One morning after sunrise,
Mohinder and Malik were standing in a Chowk in Rohtak with their backs
towards e ach other. Mohinder's shadow fell exactly towards his left hand side.
which direction was Malik facing?
Options:
A) East B) West
C) North D) South
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Page

Answers:
Q1) C, Q2) D, Q3) C, Q4) D, Q5) D, Q6) D, Q7) A,
Q8) A, Q9) B, Q10) B, Q11) A, Q12) B,
Q13) C, Q14) A, Q15) D, Q16) C, Q17) A,
Q18) C, Q19) B, Q20) A, Q21) B, Q22) B,
Q23) B, Q24) A, Q25) B, Q26) B, Q27) B,
Q28) A, Q29) C, Q30) C, Q31) A, Q32) A,
Q33) B, Q34) C, Q35) C, Q36) A, Q37) C,
Q38) D, Q39) A, Q40) C, Q41) C, Q42) A,
Q43) A, Q44) B, Q45) C, Q46) A, Q47) D,
Q48) B, Q49) C, Q50) D, Q51) B, Q52) D,
Q53) B, Q54) C, Q55) C, Q56) A, Q57) B,
Q58) C, Q59) C, Q60) D, Q61) D, Q62) A,
Q63) B, Q64) D, Q65) D, Q66) D, Q67) B,
Q68) C, Q69) D, Q70) C, Q71) C, Q72) D,
Q73) B, Q74) B, Q75) D, Q76) C, Q77) C,
Q78) C, Q79) A, Q80) B, Q81) C, Q82) D,
Q83) D, Q84) C, Q85) B, Q86) A, Q87) C,
Q88) D, Q89) C, Q90) D, Q91) D, Q92) C,
Q93) B, Q94) D, Q95) C, Q96) B, Q97) A,
Q98) C, Q99) D, Q100) D, Q101) B, Q102) D,
Q103) C, Q104) D, Q105) A, Q106) C, Q107) B,
Q108) D, Q109) C, Q110) D, Q111) D, Q112) C,
Q113) B, Q114) A, Q115) B, Q116) A, Q117) B,
Q118) D, Q119) C, Q120) D,
Explanations:
Q80) As Piyush faces towards East and he walks turning to his right, therefore, he starts to walk in the
direction of South.
Q81) If South-East becomes North and North-East becomes West, therefore, the whole figure moves
through 135 degree, Hence, West will be the South-East.
Q83) As East becomes South, therefore, the pole has turned through 90 degree in antilock wise direction.
Hence, the west will be North.
Q88) Since, early in the morning the Sun is in the direction of East, therefore, he started in the direction
of East.
Q89) Since, standing on his head Shashank's face is towards South, therefore, his right hand will be in the
direction of East.
Q101) The position of all the five persons is as follows: A B C D E Hence, A B is smaller than B E.
Q102) The position of six families is as follows: D B F C E A Hence, F's next door neighbours are B and C.
Q103) The positions of school, house, post office and market are as follows:
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Q104) The positions of the six students are as given below
Q120) Since, Mohinder shadow fell towards his lefts, therefore, Mohinder was facing towards North,
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Hence, Malik was facing towards South.

Logical Reasoning:
Q1) Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement

given below?
Statement: Most teachers are hard working.
Conclusions:
I) Some teachers are hard working.
II) Some teachers are not hard working.
Options:
A) Only (I) is implie d
B) Only (II) is implied
C) Both (I) and (II) are implied
D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied
Q2) Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement

given below?
Statement: Most of the Indian states existed before independence.
Conclusions:
I) Some Indian States existed before independence.
II) All Indian States did not exist before independence.
Options:
A) Only (I) is implie d
B) Only (II) is implied
C) Both (I) and (II) are implied
D) Neither (I) nor (II) is implied
Q3) Direction for this question: Given below are two statements (a) and (b)
followed by two
conclusions (i) and (ii). Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of
the following conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting
one of the four response alternatives given below the conclusion:
Statements:
a) all businessmen are wealthy.
967
b) all wealthy people are hard working.

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Conclusions:

i) All businessmen are hard working.

ii) All hardly working people are not wealthy
Options:
A) Only (i) follows

B) Only (ii) follows
C) Only (i) and (ii) follows
D) Neither (i) nor (ii) follows
Q4) Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying climate

Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short waves and radiation
Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Q5) Which one of the following statements is completely non-sensical?

Options:
A) He was a bachelor, but he married recently.

B) He is a bachelor, but he married recently.
C) When he married, he was not a bachelor.
D) When he was a bachelor, he was not married.
Q6) Which of the following statements are mutually contradictory?

i) All flowers are not fragrant.
ii) Most flowers are not fragrant.
iii) None of the flowers is fragrant.
iv) Most flowers are fragrant.

Options:
A) (i) and (ii)
B) (i) and (iii)
C) (ii) and (iii)
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D) (iii) and (iv)

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Q7) Which of the following statements say the same thing?
I) I am a teacher (said by Arvind)
ii) am a teacher (said by Binod)

iii) My son is a teacher (said by Binods father)
iv) My brother is a teacher (said by Binods sister)
v) My brother is a teacher (said by Binods only sister)
vi) My sole enemy is a teacher (said by Binods only enemy)

Options:
A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
C) (ii) and (vi)
D) (v) and (vi)
Q8) Which of the following are correct ways of arguing?:
i) There can be no second husband without a second wife.

ii) Anil is a friend of Bob, Bob is a friend of Raj, hence Anil is a friend of Raj. iii)
A is equal to B, B is equal to C, hence A is equal to C.
iv) If everyone is a liar, then we cannot prove it.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below

Options:
A) (iii) and (iv)
B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Q9) Which of the following statement/s are ALWAYS FALSE?

i) The sun will not rise in the East some day.
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ii) A wooden table is not a table.

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iii) Delhi city will be drowned under water.

iv) Cars run on water as fuel.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below
Options:
A) (i), (iii) and (iv)

B) Only (iii)
C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
D) (ii) alone
Q10) From the given four statements, select the two which cannot be true but
yet both can be false.
Choose the right pair:
i) All men are mortal
ii) Some men are mortal
iii) No man is mortal
iv) Some men are not mortal
Options:
A) (i) and(ii)
B) (iii) and (iv)
C) (i) and(iii)
D) (ii) and (iv)
Q11) A Syllogism must have:

Options:
A) Three terms
B) Four terms
C) Six terms
D) Five terms
Q12) Copula is that part of proposition which denotes the relationship between:
Options:
A) Subject and predicate
B) Known and unknown??
C) Major premise and minor premise
D) Subject and object??
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Q13) The function of measurement includes:

Options:
A) Prognosis
B) Diagnosis
C) Prediction
D) All of the above
Q14) Logical arguments are based on:
Options:
A) Scientific reasoning
B) Customary reasoning
C) Mathematical reasoning
D) Syllogistic reasoning
Q15) A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter
while measure based upon a sample is known as:
Options:
A) Sample parameter
B) Inference
C) Statistics
D) None of these
Q16) The importance of the correlation co-efficient lies in the fact that:
Options:
A) There is a linear relationship between the correlated variables.
B) It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
C) It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association between
two variables.
D) It is a non-parametric method of statistical analysis.
Q17) The F-test:

Options:
A) is essentially a two tailed test.
B) is essentially a one tailed test.
C) can be one tailed as well as two tailed depending on the hypothesis.
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D) can never be a one tailed test.

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Q18) The statement, To be non-violent is good is a:

Options:
A) Moral judgment
B) Factual judgment
C) Religious judgment
D) Value judgment
Q19) Assertion (A): Man is a rational being.
Reason (R): Man is a social being.

Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Q20) Value Judgments are:

Options:
A) Factual Judgments
B) Ordinary Judgments
C) Normative Judgments
D) Expression of public opinion
Q21) De ductive reasoning proceeds from:
Options:
A) general to particular
B) particular to general
C) one general conclusion to another general conclusion
D) one particular conclusion to another particular conclusion
Q22) Logical reasoning is based on:

Options:
A) Truth of involved propositions
B) Valid relation among the involved propositions
C) Employment of symbolic language
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D) Employment of ordinary language

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Q23) Two propositions with the same subject and predicate terms but different
in quality are:
Options:
A) Contradictory
B) Contrary
C) Subaltern
D) Identical
Q24) The premises of a valid deductive argument:

Options:
A) Provide some evidence for its conclusion
B) Provide no evidence for its conclusion
C) Are irrelevant for its conclusion
D) Provide conclusive evidence for its conclusion
Q25) Syllogistic reasoning is:

Options:
A) Deductive
B) Inductive
C) Experimental
D) Hypothetical
Q26) In a deductive argument conclusion is:

Options:
A) Summing up of the premises
B) Not necessarily based on premises
C) Entailed by the premises
D) Additional to the premises
Q27) No man are mortal is contradictory of:

Options:
A) Some man are mortal
B) Some man are not mortal
C) All men are mortal
D) No mortal is man
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Q28) A deductive argument is valid if:

Options:
A) premises are false and conclusion true
B) premises are false and conclusion is also false
C) premises are true and conclusion is false
D) premises are true and conclusion is true
Q29) Structure of logical argument is based on:
Options:
A) Formal validity B) Material truth
C) Linguistic expression D) Aptness of examples
Q30) Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East,
South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to
each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South. Which direction
are the ladies facing to?
Options:
A) East and West
B) North and West
C) South and East
D) None of these
Q31) Assertion (A): For an effective classroom communication at times it is

desirable to use the projection technology.
Reason (R): Using the projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of
course contents.
Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Q32) De ductive argument involves

Options:
A) sufficient evidence B) critical thinking
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C) seeing logical relations D) repeated observation

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Q33) Inductive reasoning is based on or pres upposes

Options:
A) uniformity of nature
B) God created the world
C) unity of nature
D) laws of nature
Q34) To be critical, thinking must be
Options:
A) practical
B) socially relevant
C) individually satisfying
D) analytical
Q35) Which of the following is an analogous statement?

Options:
A) Man is like God
B) God is great
C) Gandhiji is the Father of the Nation
D) Man is a rational being.
Q36) Assertion (A): Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
Reason (R): Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are
violent in character.
Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A
C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Q37) Which of the following is an example of circular argument?

Options:
A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image.
B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our
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knowledge of God.
C) Some of the Indians are great because India is great.
D) Rama is great because he is Rama.
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Q38) Lakshmana is a morally good person because

Options:
A) he is religious B) he is educated
C) he is rich D) he is rational
Q39) Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a)
and (b).
Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can
logically follow?
i. some religious people are morally good.
II. Some religious people are rational.
Conclusions: a) Rationally religious people are good morally.
b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good
Options:
A) Only (a) follows. B) Only (b) follows.
C) Both (a) and (b) follow . D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.
Q40) Certainty is
Options:
A) an objective fact B) emotionally satisfying
C) logical D) ontological
Q41) Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a)
and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions
can logically follow?
Statements:
i. some flowers are red.
Ii. some flowers are blue.
Conclusions:
a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
b) Some flowers are both red and blue.
Options:
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A) Only (a) follows. B) Only (b) follows.

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C) Both (a) and (b) follow. D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.

Q42) If the statement: all students are intelligent is true, which of the following
statements are false?
i) No students are intelligent.
ii) Some students are intelligent.
iii) Some students are not intelligent.
Options:
A) (i) and (ii) B) (i) and (iii)
C) (ii) and (iii) D) (i) only
Q43) A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and

conclude with a universal statement is called
Options:
A) Deductive Reasoning B) Inductive Reasoning
C) Abnormal Reasoning D) Transcendental Reasoning
Q44) What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation.
Two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two
ducks?
Options:
A) 5 B) 7
C) 4 D) 3
Q45) Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing
their trades.
i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
ii) Miss B sits right to the barber.
iii) The washer man sits right to the barber.
iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C.
What are the trades of A and B?

Options:
A) Tailor and barber B) Barber and cook
C) Tailor and cook D) Tailor and washer man
Q46) Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between
two variables?
977
Options:
A) Scatter Diagram B) Frequency Distribution
Page
C) Two-way table D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation

Q47) Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data
classification?
Options:
A) Qualitative B) Normative
C) Spatial D) Quantitative
Q48) Which one of the following is not a source of data?

Options:
A) Administrative records B) Population census

C) GIS D) Sample survey
Q49) If the statement some men are cruel is false, which of the following
statements/statement are/is true .
i) All men are cruel.
ii) No men are cruel.
iii) Some men are not cruel
Options:
A) (i) and (iii) B) (i) and (ii)
C) (ii) and (iii) D) (iii) only
Q50) If 367 means I am happy?; 748 means you are sad and 469 means happy
and sad in a give code, then which of the following represents and in that code?
Options:
A) 3 B) 6
C) 9 D) 4
Q51) There are 10 true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions

can be answered in
Options:
A) 20 ways
B) 100 ways
C) 240 ways
D) 1024 ways
978
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Answers:
Q1) C, Q2) B, Q3) A, Q4) A, Q5) B, Q6) D, Q7) B,
Q8) A, Q9) A, Q10) D, Q11) B, Q12) A,
Q13) D, Q14) D, Q15) C, Q16) C, Q17) C,
Q18) A, Q19) B, Q20) C, Q21) A, Q22) B,
Q23) C, Q24) D, Q25) A, Q26) C, Q27) A,
Q28) D, Q29) A, Q30) B, Q31) B, Q32) C,
Q33) A, Q34) B, Q35) A, Q36) C, Q37) B,
Q38) D, Q39) C, Q40) B, Q41) D, Q42) B,
Q43) B, Q44) D, Q45) C, Q46) D, Q47) C,
Q48) A, Q49) D, Q50) C, Q51) D,
Explanations:
Q51) If you have 10 questions, and 2 choices per question, then you have 2^10
=1024 possibilities.
979
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Arranging according to size or age:
Q1) Among five friends, Deepti is in the middle by age. Kamal is youngest. Ulka
is older than Nayan who is younger than Alka and Deepti. Who is the oldest
among them?
Options:
A) Kamal B) Ulka C) Nayan D) Data inadequate
Q2) Among five villages, Wadgaon is smaller than Jategaon. Bhivani is larger
than Mohgaon and Ranjni is larger than Jategaon, but not as large as Mohgaon.
Which is the largest village?
Options:
A) Wadgaon B) Mohgaon C) Jategaon D) Bhivani
Q3) Five boys participated in an elocution competition-
Options:
A) Alok ranked higher than Suresh B) Suresh ranked higher than Prakash.
C) Suresh D) Kabir
Q4) Hari is six months younger to Sita while Babu is three months younger to
Anita.When Sheela was born, Babu was two months old.Anita belongs to the age
group of five while Hari belongs to the age group of six.Who among the following
is oldest?
Options:
A) Babu
B) Sita
C) Anita
D) Sheela
Q5) If Geeta is more beautiful than Rupa but not so beautiful as Nita, which one
of the following statements is correct?
Options:
A) Nita is more beautiful is than Rupa
B) Rupa is more beautiful than Nita
980
C) Nita is not more beautiful than Geeta

D) Geeta is the more beautiful than Geeta
Page

Q6) If Anita is taller than Surjit but shorter than Kusum and Surjit as tall
Kalpna but taller than Vanita, then Kalpna is
Options:
A) just as tall as Anita B) taller than Kusum

C) shorter than Anita D) shorter than Surjit
Q7) Shrikant is shorter than Nilima.Pratima is taller than Shrikant.Subhash is

taller than Nilima but shorter than Heramb.Nilima is taller than Pratima. Who
will be in the middle if they stand in a row according to height?
Options:
A) Pratima B) Heramb C) Shrikant D) Nilima
Q8) Among five friends, Mohan is older than Raju but not as old as Lalit is older
than Neelesh and Kabir. Neelesh is younger than Raju but not the youngest.
Who is the fourth in the descending order of age?
Options:
A) Mohan B) Raju C) Kabir D) None of these
Q9) Vikas is taller than Shyam but shorter than Umesd. Umesh is taller than
Rajat but shorter than Ganesh. If Shyam is taller than Rajat who is shortest
among all?
Options:
A) Ganesh B) Umesh C) Rajat D) Vikas
Q10) A, B, C, D and E are five rivers. A is shorter than B but longer than E.C is
the longest and D is a little shorter than B and a little longer than A. Which is
the shortest river?
Options:
A) B B) C C) D D) E
Q11) Shirish is taller than Ashutosh, Raju is taller than Charu but shorter than
Bala.Ashutosh is shorter than Charu.Charu is taller than Shirish. Who is the
tallest?
981
Options:
A) Shirish B) Bala C) Raju D) Ashutosh
Page

Q12) The accused is more powerful than the dead.The police is less powerful
than the court but more powerful than the lawyer.The accused bows his head in
presence of the police.who is the most powerful?
Options:
A) police B) Lawyer C) Court D) Accused
Q13) Ahmed is taller than Salim. Salim is not as tall as Ahmed but taller than
Akbar. Sohan too is not as tall as Salim but taller than Akbar. Who is the
tallest?
Options:
A) Salim B) Akbar C) Sohan D) Ahmed
Q14) The cricket ball is lighter than the hockey ball and volleyball is lighter than
the football.Hockey ball is lighter than the football but heavier than the tennis
ball.Which of the following is the heaviest?
Options:
A) Hockey ball B) Cricket ball C) Volley ball D) Foot ball
982
Page

Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) D, Q3) A, Q4) B, Q5) A,

Q6) C, Q7) D, Q8) D, Q9) C, Q10) D,
Q11) B, Q12) C, Q13) D, Q14) D,
Explanations:
Q1) From the given informations it is not possible to find who is older among
Alka and Ulka
Q2) Five village are in the following order Bhivani>Mohgaon>Ranjni
Jategaon>Wadgaon.
Q3) They ranked in descending order as: Nikhil, Alok, Kabir, Suresh and
Prakash.
Q4) When Sheela was born, Babu was 2 months old, Anita was 5 months old,
Hari was 6 months old and Sita was I year old. Hence, Sita is the oldest.
Q5) Since, Geeta is more beautiful than Rupa but not so beautiful as Nita, i.e.,
Nita is the most beautiful, therefore, Nita is more beautiful than Rupa.
Q6) Since kalpna is just as tall as Surjit and Surjit is shorter than Anita,
therefore, Kalpna is shorter than Anita.
Q7) According to decreasing order of height they are in the following order.
Heramb, Subhash, Nilima, Pratima, Shrikant.
Q8) They are in descending order of age as follows: Lalit, Mohan, Raju, Neelesh,
Kabir.
Q9) According to the decreasing height they are as follows-Ganesh, Umesh,

Vikas, Shyam, Rajat.
Q10) According to the decreasing in length, they are as follows: C, B, D, A, E.
Q11) They are in descending order of height as follows: Bala, Raju, Charu,
Shirish, Ashutosh.
Q12) Court>Police>Lawyer and also Police>the accused>the dead.Therefore

Court is the most powerful.
Q13) According to the decreasing height, they are as follows: Ahmed, Salim,
Sohan, Akbar.
Q14) If'>' stands for heavier, then Football>Hockey ball>Cricket ball and
Football>Hockey ball>Tennis ball.And also Football>Volley ball. Hence, Football
is the heaviest.
983
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Spotting Out the Dissimilar:
Q1) In this question four words have been given, out of which three are alike in
the same manner and fourth one is different. Choose the odd one out.
Options:
A) Tailor
B) Carpenter
C) Blacksmith
D) Barber
Q2) For each of the following options four words are given, out of which three
are same in a Certain way While the rest one is different. Find out the different
one.
Options:
A) Teacher
B) Principal
C) Student
D) Professor
one.
Options:
A) Bird
B) Crow
C) Kite
D) Pigeon
one.
Options:
984
A) Bowl
B) Spoon
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C) Tumbler
D) Cup
one.
Options:
A) Beam B) Pillar
C) House D) Roof
one.
Options:
A) Delhi B) Bombay
C) Madras D) Calcutta
one.
Options:
A) Red B) Paint
C) Green D) Yellow
one.
Options:
A) Gold
B) Silver
C) Mercury
D) Aluminium
one.
985
Options:
Page

A) Eye
B) Tongue
C) Ear
D) Nose
one.
Options:
A) Handkerchief B) Shirt
C) Jacket D) Coat
one.
Options:
A) Mango B) Pear
C) Orange D) Papaya
one.
Options:
A) Rajesh B) Ajay
C) Vijay D) Rakesh
one.
Options:
A) Milk
B) Wine
C) Water
D) Curd
986
one.
Page
Options:

A) Rifle
B) Pistol
C) Sword
D) Gun
one.
Options:
A) Chameleon B) Lizard
C) Snake D) Cobra
one.
Options:
A) Quick B) Small
C) Long D) Broad
one.
Options:
A) Stone B) Lime
C) Wall D) Cement
one.
Options:
A) Sun
B) Cloud
C) Moon
D) Earth
987
one.
Page
Options:

A) Moon
B) Jupiter
C) Mars
D) Saturn
one.
Options:
A) Sword B) Spear
C) Shield D) Arrow
one.
Options:
A) Slip B) Swim
C) Run D) Hear
one.
Options:
A) February B) April
C) June D) August
one.
Options:
A) Ring
B) Bracelet
C) Ornament
D) Bangle
988
one.
Page
Options:

A) Bed
B) Stool
C) Chair
D) Bench
one.
Options:
A) Carrot B) Radish
C) Sweet-potato D) Potato
one.
Options:
A) He-goat B) Ox
C) Cow D) Bull
one.
Options:
A) Nest B) Boat
C) Stable D) Kennel
one.
Options:
A) Sad
B) Cheerful
C) Jovial
D) Festive
989
one.
Page
Options:

A) Helicopter
B) Steamer
C) Chariot
D) Automobile
one.
Options:
A) Long jump B) Athletics

C) High jump D) Running
one.
Options:
A) Physics B) Thermodynamics
C) Optics D) Electronics
Q32) In each of the options, three of the four are alike in a certain way and so
from a group, Which one does not belong to that group?
Options:
A) Magazine
B) Novel
C) Thesis
D) Periodical
Options:
A) Hour
B) Week
C) Fortnight
D) Calendar
990
Options:
Page

A) Blacksmith
B) Tailor
C) Sailor
D) Carpenter
Q35) In each of the option, out of four words given, three have one quality or
concept common which is not applicable to the fifth. choose the odd one out.
Options:
A) Square
B) Rectangle
C) Triangle
D) Circle
Options:
A) Paper
B) Footruler
C) Sharpener
D) Teacher
Options:
A) Bench
B) Sofa
C) Cupboard
D) Chair
Options:
A) Chisel
B) Tools
C) Hammer
D) Axe
991
Page

Options:
A) Tree B) Root
C) Flower D) Leaf
Options:
A) Bush
B) Plant
C) Leaf
D) Creeper
Options:
A) Calcutta
B) Madras
C) Jaipur
D) Bombay
Options:
A) Hut
B) Building
C) Cottage
D) Accommodation
Options:
A) Kuchipudi
B) Kathak
C) Disco
D) Manipuri
992
Page

Options:
A) Sitar B) Violin
C) Sarod D) Tanpura
Q45) Find out the pair which is different from the others in each of the following
options.
Options:
A) Air and Oxygen
B) Teacher and Student
C) Mathematics and Geometry
D) Flower and Petal
options.
Options:
A) Elephants and Trumpet
B) Horses and Neigh
C) Camels and Roar
D) Dogs and Bark
options.
Options:
A) Water and Bucket
B) Ink and Inkpot
C) Oil and Lamp
D) Pen and Nib
options.
Options:
A) Patient and Hospital
B) Criminals and Prison
C) Student and Teacher
D) Bird and Nest
993
options.
Page

Options:
A) Cycle and Scooter B) Rifle and Sword
C) Pencil and Pen D) Tea and Coffee
options.
Options:
A) Tree-Plant
B) We alth-Money
C) Wish-Desire
D) Heavy-Light
options.
Options:
A) Black and White
B) In and Out
C) Weapons and Arms
D) High and Low
options.
Options:
A) Head and Cap
B) Dhoti and Chest
C) Hands and Gloves
D) Feet and Shoes
options.
Options:
A) Camel and Ass
B) Hen and Chicken
C) Sheep and Lamb
D) Cow and Calf
994
options.
Page

Options:
A) Horse and Stable B) Birds and Nest
C) Dog and Den D) Sheep and Pen
options.
Options:
A) Oil and Lamp
B) Water and Ice
C) Wood and Table
D) Silk and Shirt
options.
Options:
A) Sister and Brother
B) Uncle and Aunt
C) Grandfather and Grandson
D) Father-in-law and Son-in-law
options.
Options:
A) Bag and Baggage
B) Kith and Kin
C) Pen and Pencil
D) Bread and Butter
options.
Options:
A) Husband and Wife
B) Lion and Fox
C) Dog and Cat
D) Crow and Cuckoo
995
options.
Page

Options:
A) Beautiful and Handsome B) Brother and Worry
C) Cold and Chilly D) Avoid and Seek
options.
Options:
A) Lions and Roar
B) Snakes and Hiss
C) Frogs and Bleat
D) Bees and Hum
options.
Options:
A) Daring and Timid
B) Beautiful and Pretty
C) Clear and Vague
D) Youth and Adult
options.
Options:
A) Surdas and Tulsidas
B) Pairs and London
C) Krishna and Kaveri
D) Hemamalini and Maithli Sharan Gupta
options.
Options:
A) Bulb and Light
B) Clock and Time
C) River and Tank
D) Chimney and Smoke
996
options.
Page

Options:
A) Bottle and Wine B) Inkpot and Ink
C) Cup and Tea D) Pitcher and Water
Q65) In each of the options, there are groups of letters. One of these groups is
different from the other groups. Find out the different group.
Options:
A) NEXFL
B) LANCP
C) FRGSP
D) ZGPKU
Options:
A) YHGCY
B) NDWVS
C) JLQNS
D) JSXYM
Options:
A) WJWYO
B) ACAZV
C) GMRGS
D) METET
Options:
A) adcL
B) rpN
C) igmO
D) ropZ
997
Page

Options:
A) CEAR B) TEAR
C) FEAR D) WEAR
Q70) In each of the options, there are four numbers. Out of these three are alike
in a certain way but the rest one is different. Choose the one which is different
from the rest three
Options:
A) 9 B) 28
C) 217 D) 64
from the rest three
Options:
A) 4756 B) 2074
C) 6572 D) 9865
from the rest three
Options:
A) 24 B) 36
C) 42 D) 48
from the rest three
Options:
A) 37
B) 46
C) 23
D) 59
998
from the rest three

Options:
Page

A) 3642
B) 4249
C) 7586
D) 1745
from the rest three
Options:
A) 8791 B) 1879
C) 8971 D) 7619
from the rest three
Options:
A) 169 B) 121
C) 181 D) 144
from the rest three
Options:
A) 5188 B) 9238
C) 8244 D) 6311
from the rest three
Options:
A) 7314
B) 7029
C) 2709
D) 3115
999
from the rest three

Page
Options:

A) 1472
B) 3848
C) 2683
D) 4210
Q80) In each of the options from 1 to 5, which one is different from the rest?
Options:
A) Snake B) Serpent
C) Crocodile D) Whale
Options:
A) Cobbler B) Carpenter
C) Farmer D) Potter
Options:
A) Jupiter B) Saturn
C) Venus D) Sun
Options:
A) 43
B) 53
C) 63
D) 73
Options:
A) July
B) January
C) May
D) September
1000
Q85) Directions-In each of the options from 11 to 13, four are alike in a certain
way. which is the one not like the other four?
Page
Options:

A) Mist
B) Cloud
C) Fog
D) Rain
Options:
A) Hour B) Day
C) Second D) Time
Options:
A) Algebra B) Geometry
C) Mathematics D) Trigonometry
Q88) Directions-In each of the options from 16 to 20, which one is different from
the rest of the others?
Options:
A) Japan
B) Nepal
C) France
D) China
Options:
A) Grape
B) Cashew nut
C) Pineapple
D) Apple
1001
Options:
A) Orchestra
B) Flute
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C) Guitar
D) Harmonium
Options:
A) Bouquet
B) Garland
C) Florist
D) Flowers
Options:
A) Trousers
B) Shirt
C) Frock
D) Cloth
Q93) Find the pair which is different from others.

Options:
A) Night-Day
B) White-Black
C) Light-Dark
D) Sun-Moon

Options:
A) I ndustry-Labourers
B) Hospital-Patients
C) Disease-Insects
D) Market-Buyers

1002
Options:
A) Crime-Punishment
Page
B) Judgment-Advocacy

C) Enterprise-Success
D) Exercise-Health

Options:
A) Book-Pages
B) Parliament-Members
C) Continent-Countries
D) Fruit-Seeds

Options:
A) Sentence-Word B) Hour-Minute
C) Tree-Forest D) Class-Student

Options:
A) Man-House B) Lion-Forest
C) Bird-Nest D) Horse-Stable

Options:
A) Man-Child
B) Black-Yellow
C) Table-Chair
D) Millet-Barley
Options:
A) Life-Death
B) Poison-Nectar
C) Cloth-Rag
D) Thankful-Thankless
1003

Page

Options:
A) Birds-Sky B) Railway-Train
C) Airplane-Sky D) Ship-Sea

Options:
A) Happiness-Joy B) Peace-Relief
C) Sickness-Death D) Grief-War

Options:
A) College-Principal B) Bank-Manager
C) Post offices-Postman D) Navy-Commander

Options:
A) Son-Nephew B) Horse-Mare
C) Man-Lion D) Cock-Bull

Options:
A) Wood-Saw
B) Paper-Pen
C) Nail-Hammer
D) Garden-Flowers

Options:
A) Army-General
B) Ship-Captain
C) Bus-Driver
D) College-Principal
1004
Options:
Page

A) Head-Hand
B) Van-Driver
C) Leaf-Root
D) Wheel-Axle
Options:
A) Sun-Moon B) High-Low
C) Black-White D) Shallow-Deep

Options:
A) Father-Son B) Mother-Daughter
C) Uncle-Aunt D) Uncle-Nephew

Options:
A) Room-Floor
B) Table-Chair
C) Hand-Finger
D) Tree-Branch

Options:
A) Gentle-Tender
B) Soft-Wool
C) Hard-Stone
D) Smooth-Glass

Options:
A) Few-Many B) Light-Heavy
C) Fat-Weightily D) Short-Tall
1005
Q113) Find the letter group which is different from others.

Options:
Page

A) FBI
B) QMT
C) VRY
D) HEK
Options:
A) XT B) JF
C) RL D) PL

Options:
A) FIL B) RUX
C) ILO D) LOQ

Options:
A) DGI B) MPR
C) KND D) FIK

Options:
A) CJG
B) HNK
C) ELI
D) JQN

Options:
A) BCDF
B) OPRS
C) HIJL
D) TUVX
1006

Options:
Page

A) ZVRN
B) KHEB
C) WSOK
D) RNJF
Options:
A) BQCR B) DSEU
C) FVGW D) HXIY

Options:
A) FVhT B) LNpR
C) PsVZ D) HMnW

Options:
A) ZYXW B) UTSR
C) NMLK D) IHGE

Options:
A) YZW
B) EPF
C) NJO
D) TVU

Options:
A) Cfj
B) Djz
C) Evm
D) Evn
1007

Options:
Page

A) Dij
B) PgO
C) LfM
D) SdE
Options:
A) bcd B) eFg
C) psv D) mkl

Options:
A) BDT B) QTM
C) PSV D) CKT

Options:
A) Emkv B) Dfgj
C) Kifn D) Qjvs

Options:
A) msLT
B) joQU
C) bsCM
D) fdPj

Options:
A) BDFH
B) GI KM
C) UWXZ
D) PRTV
1008

Options:
Page

A) AXUP
B) ONKN
C) GFKD
D) VSPM
Options:
A) BCDE B) WYZA
C) YZAB D) PQRS

Options:
A) TOP B) ZAY
C) CYO D) XCW

Options:
A) NMO B) CBD
C) VUW D) XYZ

Options:
A) KMO
B) GI K
C) EFG
D) ACF

Options:
A) A
B) B
C) E
D) O
1009

Options:
Page

A) ZWT
B) FCA
C) SPM
D) LIF
Options:
A) MNO B) ACD
C) GIJ D) PRS

Options:
A) ACE B) GI L
C) EGI D) MOQ

Options:
A) BOC B) MIN
C) XAZ D) SUT

Options:
A) ZYX
B) YXV
C) VUT
D) TSR

Options:
A) RNJF
B) SOKI
C) TPLH
D) NJFB
1010
Q143) Find out the odd one.

Options:
Page

A) 36
B) 64
C) 108
D) 54
Options:
A) 212 B) 343
C) 757 D) 511

Options:
A) 706 B) 507
C) 489 D) 250

Options:
A) 49 B) 85
C) 121 D) 81

Options:
A) 5
B) 11
C) 7
D) 9
Q148) Which one is different from rest of the three?

Options:
A) Breathing
B) Singing
C) Playing
D) Writing
1011

Options:
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A) Advise
B) Counsel
C) Direct
D) Suggest
Options:
A) Pluto B) Eros
C) Neptune D) Venus

Options:
A) Car B) Trolley
C) Cart D) Sledge

Options:
A) Mansion B) Villa
C) Garage D) Apartment

Options:
A) English
B) Encyclopaedia
C) Russian
D) German

Options:
A) Hero
B) Villain
C) Heroine
D) Artist
1012
Q155) In this question, four words given, out of which three are alike in some
manner and one is different. Choose the odd one out
Page
Options:

A) Graphite
B) Coal
C) Pearl
D) Diamond
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) C, Q3) A, Q4) D, Q5) C, Q6) D,
Q7) B, Q8) C, Q9) B, Q10) A, Q11) D,
Q12) D, Q13) D, Q14) C, Q15) D, Q16) A,
Q17) C, Q18) B, Q19) A, Q20) C, Q21) D,
Q22) A, Q23) C, Q24) B, Q25) D, Q26) C,
Q27) B, Q28) A, Q29) C, Q30) B, Q31) A,
Q32) D, Q33) D, Q34) C, Q35) D, Q36) D,
Q37) C, Q38) B, Q39) A, Q40) C, Q41) D,
Q42) D, Q43) C, Q44) D, Q45) B, Q46) C,
Q47) D, Q48) C, Q49) D, Q50) D, Q51) C,
Q52) B, Q53) A, Q54) C, Q55) A, Q56) B,
Q57) C, Q58) D, Q59) D, Q60) C, Q61) B,
Q62) D, Q63) C, Q64) D, Q65) C, Q66) A,
Q67) D, Q68) D, Q69) A, Q70) D, Q71) D,
Q72) C, Q73) B, Q74) B, Q75) D, Q76) C,
Q77) B, Q78) A, Q79) C, Q80) D, Q81) C,
Q82) D, Q83) C, Q84) D, Q85) D, Q86) D,
Q87) C, Q88) C, Q89) B, Q90) A, Q91) C,
Q92) D, Q93) D, Q94) C, Q95) B, Q96) D,
Q97) C, Q98) B, Q99) A, Q100) C, Q101) B,
Q102) D, Q103) C, Q104) B, Q105) D, Q106) C,
Q107) B, Q108) A, Q109) C, Q110) B, Q111) A,
Q112) C, Q113) D, Q114) C, Q115) D, Q116) C,
Q117) B, Q118) B, Q119) B, Q120) B, Q121) C,
Q122) D, Q123) A, Q124) D, Q125) C, Q126) B,
Q127) C, Q128) A, Q129) D, Q130) C, Q131) B,
Q132) B, Q133) A, Q134) D, Q135) C, Q136) B,
Q137) D, Q138) A, Q139) B, Q140) C, Q141) B,
Q142) B, Q143) B, Q144) D, Q145) C, Q146) B,
Q147) D, Q148) A, Q149) C, Q150) B, Q151) A,
Q152) C, Q153) B, Q154) D, Q155) C,
Explanations:
Q2) All the rest are connected with teaching profession.

Q3) All the rest are the names of birds.
1013
Q4) All the rest are utensils.

Q5) All the rest are parts of a house
Page
Q6) All the rest are towns of India.

Q7) All the rest are colours.

Q8) All the rest are solid metals.
Q9) All the rest are external organs of a body.
Q10) All the rest are used for wearing.

Q11) All the rest are fruits.
Q12) All the rest are male.
Q13) All the rest are in liquid form.
Q14) All the rest are fire arms.
Q15) All the rest are reptiles.

Q16) All the rest show size and shape.
Q17) All the rest are the building mate rial.
Q18) All the rest are terms concerned with Astronomy.
Q19) All the rest are planets.
Q20) All the rest are used for attacking.

Q21) All the rest are connected with the movement of the body.
Q22) All the rest months have either 30 or 31 days.
Q23) All the rest are the different types of ornaments.
Q24) All the rest have four legs.
Q25) All the rest have taste.

Q26) All the rest are male animals.
Q27) All the rest are places of shelter for animals or birds.
Q28) All the rest are signs of pleasure.
Q29) All the rest need diesel or petrol for their working.
Q30) All the rest are events.

Q31) All the rest are different branches of Physics.
Q32) Only Dictionary supplies us with meanings.
Q33) All others are units of time measurement.
Q34) All work while living on land.
Q35) All others are geometrical figures.

1014
Q36) Al the rest are used for writing purpose.

Q37) All others are meant for sitting purpose.
Page

Q38) All the rest are the names of different tools.

Q39) All others are parts of a tree.
Q40) All the rest are different forms of plants.
Q41) All others are capital of states.

Q42) All other are the different names of accommodation.
Q43) All the others are classical dances.
Q44) All others contain strings.
Q45) In all other pairs, the second word is a part of the first.
Q46) In all other pairs, the second word is cry of the first word.
Q47) In all the other pairs, the first word is kept inside the second word.
Q48) In all the other pairs, the first word is kept inside the second word.
Q49) In all the other pairs, all the things are lifeless.
Q50) In all the other pairs, the first word is the synonym of the second word.
Q51) In all the other pairs, the first word is the opposite of the second word.
Q52) In all the other pairs, the second word is worn on the first word.
Q53) In all the other pairs, the second word is the baby of the first word.
Q54) In all the other pairs, the first word reside in the second word.
Q55) In all the other pairs, the second word is made of the first word.
Q56) In all the other pairs, there is a relation other than the husband-wife
relation.
Q57) In all the other pairs, the two words make phrases.
Q58) In all the other pairs, the first word is masculine, while the second is
feminine.
Q59) In all the other pairs, the first word is the synonym of the second word.
Q60) In all the other pairs, the second word is the cry of the first word.
Q61) In all the other pairs, the first word is the opposite of the second word.
Q62) In all the other pairs, the first and the second words belong to the same
category.
Q63) In all the other pairs, the second word is within the first word.
Q64) In all the other pairs, the second word is found in the first word.
1015
Q65) All the rest groups have a vowel.

Q66) In no other group a letter has been used twice.
Page

Q67) In all the rest groups, a letter has been used twice.
Q68) In all the other groups, a letter is capital.
Q69) All the other groups form meaningful words.
Q70) All the other numbers are 2^3+1, 3^3+1, 5^3+1, 6^3+1.
Q71) In no other number, any digit is repeated.
Q72) All the other numbers are divisible by 12.
Q73) All the other numbers are prime numbers.
Q74) In no other number, any digit is repeated.
Q75) All the other numbers are formed with 1, 7, 8and 9.

Q76) All the other numbers are perfect squares.
Q77) In all the other numbers last two digits are same.
Q78) In all the other numbers the sum of tens hundred and thousands digits is
equal to the unit digit.
Q79) In all the other numbers, the digit 4 is used.

Q80) All the other are reptiles
Q81) All the rest produce some things while farmer grows.
Q82) All the other are planets.
Q83) All the rest are prime numbers.
Q84) All the rest have 31 days.

Q85) Rain is only in liquid form.
Q86) All the rest are units of time.
Q87) All the rest are branches of Mathematics.
Q88) All the rest are the countries of Asia
Q89) All the rest are fruits

Q90) All the rest are the parts of the orchestra.
Q91) All the rest are articles made flowers.
Q92) All the rest are garments.
Q93) In all the other pairs, one word is the antonym of the other.
Q94) In all the other pairs, the first word is a workplace and second is people
1016
associated with it.

Q95) In all the other pairs, the second word is the result of first word.
Page
Q96) In all the other pairs, the first is the collection of second.

Q97) In all the other pairs, the first is th

Q98) In all the rest pairs, the first word lives in the second word.
Q99) All the rest are non-living things.
Q100) In all the rest pairs, one word is the antonym of the other.
Q101) In all the rest pairs, first word is an article and the second is the place
where it moves.
Q102) In all the rest pairs first word is the cause and the second word is the
effect.
Q103) Manager is the head of bank, Principal is the head of college, Commander
is the head of Navy, but Postman is not the head of Post office.
Q104) All other pairs are of masculines.
Q105) In all other pairs, the second is used on the first.
Q106) As driver drives a bus, such operations are not done in other pairs.
Q107) In all other pairs, head and hand are the parts of the body, leaf and root
are the parts of a tree, wheel and axle are the parts of pulley system but such a
relation does not exist in van and driver.
Q108) In all the rest pairs, one word is antonym of the other.
Q109) In only(C)second is feminine of the first.
Q110) In all the rest pairs, the first word is a part of the second word.
Q111) In all the rest pairs, the first word is the quality of the second word.
Q112) In all the other pairs, one is antonym of the other.
Q113) In each other groups, the first letter is four letters ahead of the second
letter and the third letter is three letters ahead the first letter.
Q114) In each other groups, there is a gap of 3 letters in first and second letter.
Q115) In each other groups, there is a gap of 2 letters between first and second
letters and also a gap of 3 letters between second and third letter.
Q116) In each other groups, there is a gap of 2 letters in first and second letters
and a gap of 1 letter in second and third letters.
Q117) In each other groups, the third letter is four letters ahead of the first
letter and the second letter is three letters ahead of the third letter.
Q118) In other groups first three letters are in alphabetical order and three is a
gap of one letter between third and fourth letters group(B)
1017
Q119) K-3=H, H-3=E, E-3=B BUT Z-4=V, V-4=R, R-4=N

Page

Q120) In rest of the groups, 1st and 3rd letters are in alphabetical order and
2nd and 4th letter are in alphabetical order. While such is not the case with
group(B)
Q121) In all other groups, third letter is in small form.

Q122) Letters in other groups are in reverse alphabetical order.
Q123) In other groups 1st and 3rd letters are in alphabetical order.
Q124) Second letter in other groups is in small form.
Q125) One letter in other groups is a vowel (a, e, I, o, u).
Q126) All the three letters in other groups are in small form.
Q127) In all other groups letter T is used.
Q128) In all other groups three letters are in small forms.
Q129) In all other groups, the last letter is in capital form.
Q130) In all other groups one letter of alphabet is missing between each two
letters.
Q131) No letter in other groups has been repeated.
Q132) Letters in other groups are in alphabetical order.
Q133) Only 'Top' is a word.
Q134) In all the others groups, second, first and third letters are in alphabetical
order.
Q135) In all the rest groups, there is a gap of one letter between the first and
second letters and also a gap of one letter between the second and third letters.
Q136) All the rest are vowels
Q137) In all the rest groups, there is a gap of two letters between the first and
second letters and also a gap of two letters between the second and third letters.
Q138) In all the rest groups, there is a gap of one letter between the first and
second letters.
Q139) In all the other groups, there is a gap of one letter between the first and
the second letters and also a gap of one letter between the second and third
letters.
Q140) In all the other groups, the first and the third letters are in alphabetical
order.
Q141) In all the other groups, the letters are in reverse order.
1018
Q142) In all the other groups, there is a gap of three letters between two
consecutive letters.
Q143) All the rest numbers are divisible by 9
Page

Q144) In all the other numbers first and third digits are same
Q145) In all the other number zero is used
Q146) All the rest numbers are perfect squares
Q147) All the rest numbers are prime numbers

Q148) Only Breathing is natural action
Q149) In all the rest, there is option
Q150) All the rest are planets
Q151) All the rest are pulled by animals
Q152) All the rest are places for people to live

Q153) All the rest are languages
Q154) All the rest are artists
1019
Page

Time Sequence Tests:
Q1) Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:

Options:
A) With the prior permission of the President.
B) Only after the constitution is amended suit-ably.
C) In case of inconsistency among State legislatures.
D) At the request of two or more States.
Options:
A) Sunday B) Monday
C) Friday D) Saturday
Q3) Monday falls on 20th March 1995 What was the day on 3rd November
1994?
Options:
A) Thursday B) Sunday
C) Tuesday D) Saturday
Options:
A) 45 min. past 4 B) 40 min. past 4
C) 50 4/11 min. past 4 D) 54 6/11 min. past 4
Q5) January 12, 1980 was Saturday, what day was January 12, 1979:
Options:
A) Saturday
B) Friday
C) Sunday
1020
D) Thursday
Page

Options:
A) 40 minutes past three

B) 50 minutes past three
C) 45 minutes past three
D) 55 minutes past three
Q7) On what dates of April 1994 did SUNDAY fall?

Options:
A) 2, 9, 16, 23, 30
B) 3, 10, 17, 24
C) 4, , 11, 18, 2
D) 1, 8, 15, 22, 29
Q8) What was the day of the week on 1st January 2001
Options:
A) Friday
B) Tuesday
C) Sunday
D) Wednesday
Q9) January 1, 1995 was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1,
1996?
Options:
A) Sunday
B) Monday
C) Wednesday
D) Saturday
Q10) In which year the number of employees working in production department

was less than 50% of the total employees?
Options:
A) 1999
1021
B) 2001
C) 2002
D) 2003
Page

Q11) How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year. If
Options:
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) None of these
Q12) If 3rd of the month falls on Friday, what day will be on the 4th day after
21st of the Month?
Options:
A) Monday
B) Saturday
C) Thursday
D) Friday
Q13) If the day, two days after tomorrow be Thursday, what day would have
been two days before yesterday?
Options:
A) Friday
B) Tuesday
C) Monday
D) Saturday
Q14) My brother is 562 days older to me while my sister is 75 weeks older to

him. If my sister was born on Tuesday , on which day was I born?
Options:
A) Sunday B) Monday
C) Thursday D) Tuesday
Q15) How many Mondays are there in a particular month of a particular year, if
the months ends on Wednesday?
Options:
A) 4
1022
B) 5
C) 3
D) none of these
Page

Q16) Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F of a famous playwright are to be staged one

on each day from Monday to Saturday. the schedule of the plays is to be
accordance with the following:
(a) A must be staged on the previous day of the day on which E is staged.
(b) C must not be staged on Tuesday.
(c) B must be staged on a day which follows the day on which F is staged.
(d) D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by
B.
(e) E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.
Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging
from Monday?
Options:
A) E A B F D C B) A F B E D C C) A F B C D E D) none of these

B.
Play C cannot definitely be staged on which of the following days in addition to
Tuesday?
Options:
A) Monday B) We dnesday C) Thursday D) Friday

B.
1023
Play D is between which of the following pairs of plays?

Options:
Page
A) C and E B) E and F C) A and E D) B and E


B.
Which of the following plays is Monday?
Options:
A) E
B) A
C) F
D) B

B.
Which of the following plays immediately follows 'B'?
Options:
A) F
B) E
C) D
D) A
Q21) When I found that I was half an hour earlier than the scheduled time of
the train, the train being late by 1-30 hours, arrived at 6-20 hours. I had
reached the station at.
Options:
1024
A) 4-40 hours
B) 5-10 hours
C) 4-20 hours
Page
D) 5-20 hours

Q22) A remembers that his uncle had visited them after 13th but before 18th of
a month, while B remembers that the uncle had visited them after 16th but
before 20th. then on which date did their uncle visit A and B?
Options:
A) 14th
B) 17th
C) 15th
D) Insufficient data to predict
Q23) If Saturday falls four days after today which is 6th January, on what day
did the 1st of December of previous year fall?
Options:
A) Sunday
B) We dnesday
C) Tuesday
D) Monday
Q24) Manis h was born on 3rd March 1980.Sanjiv was born 4 days before
Manis h. the Republic Day of that year fell on Saturday. which day was Sanjiv's
birthday?
Options:
A) Wednesday
B) Friday
C) Thursday
D) Tuesday
Q25) A day after tomorrow will be X-mas day. what will be the day on New-year-
day if today is Monday?
Options:
A) Monday
B) Thursday
C) Sunday
D) Wednesday
Q26) Which of following is not a leap year?

1025
Options:
A) 2000 B) 1200 C) 1600 D) 700
Page

Q27) At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined when it is half past 8?
Options:
A) 70 degree
B) 80 degree
C) 75 degree
D) 60 degree
Q28) How many times from 4 p.m to 10 p.m. the hands are at right angles?
Options:
A) 9
B) 11
C) 10
D) 6
Q29) At what time are the hands of a clock together between 6 and 7?
Options:
A) 32 (8/11)min. past 6
B) 34 (8/11)min. past 6
C) 30 (8/11)min. past 6
D) 32 (5/7)min. past 6
Q30) A bus for Bombay leaves every forty minutes from a bus stand. an enquiry
clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the
next bus will leave at 10.45 a. m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this
information to the passenger?
Options:
A) 10.05 a. m
B) 9.55 a. m
C) 10.35 a. m
D) 10.15 a. m
Q31) In 1/2 hour, the long hand of a clock will rotate through an angle of.
Options:
A) 90 degree
1026
B) 120 degree
C) 75 degree
D) 180 degree
Page

Q32) At what time between 9 a. m. and 10 a. m. will be the hands of watch point
in opposite directions?
Options:
A) 15(4/11) min. past 9 a. m

B) 17(4/11)min. past 9 a. m
C) 14(4/11)min. past 9 a. m
D) 16(4/11)min. past 9 a. m
Q33) Rajesh went out between 5 and 6 and re turned between 6 and 7.He found
that the hands of the clock had exactly changed places. When did Rajesh go
out?
Options:
A) 31(4/13)min. past 5
B) 33(4/13)min. past 5
C) 32(4/13)min. past 5
D) 32(6/13)min. past 5
Q34) Two watches, one of which gained at the rate of 1 min. and other lost at
the rate of 1 min. daily, were set correctly at noon on the first January
1978.When did the watches indicate the same time?
Options:
A) Dec.27, 1978 midnight
B) Dec.26, 1978 noon
C) Dec.25, 1978 noon
D) Dec.27, 1978 noon
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) A, Q3) A, Q4) D, Q5) B, Q6) B,
Q7) B, Q8) ALL WRONG, Q9) B, Q10) A, Q11) D,
Q12) B, Q13) A, Q14) C, Q15) D, Q16) D,
Q17) D, Q18) A, Q19) C, Q20) D, Q21) C,
Q22) B, Q23) D, Q24) C, Q25) D, Q26) D,
Q27) C, Q28) B, Q29) A, Q30) D, Q31) D,
Q32) D, Q33) C, Q34) D,
1027
Page

Explanations:
Q2) There are 3 leap years in between 1995 and 2007 which are 1996, 2000,
2004. You have to minus (12 + 3) from Monday.
1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day.)

1 ordinary year has 1 odd day.
1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days)
1 leap year has 2 odd days.
From 2007 to 1995 There are 12 Yrs.
1996, 2000 and 2004 are leap years Therefore number of odd days = 3 * 2 = 6
Remaining 9 years have 1 odd day each = 9 * 1 = 9
6 + 9 = 15 , 15 divide by 7 = 1 i.e. one day previous of Monday
Hence Sunday is Right Answer.
Q3) Form 3rd N ovember to 30 November no of days = 28
1st Dec to 31st December no of days = 31

1st Jan to 31st Jan no of days = 31
1st feb to 28 feb no of days = 28
1st march to 20 March no of days = 20
Total no of days 28 + 31+ 31 + 28 + 20 = 138
Therefore, 138 divide by 7 remaining 5

i.e.5 days back form 1) Monday 2) Sunday, 3) Saturday, 4) Friday, 5) Thursday,
Q5) A year contain = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 days) Therefore one day back i.e.
Friday
Q6) Require time of a watch point in opposite directions between 3 and 4
O'clock will the hands is = 50 minutes past three
Q7) Solution: . Let us find the day on 1st April, 1994.
2000 years have 0 odd day.
We have to calculate day on 1st April, 1994.
2000-1994 = 6 Years.
1996 is leap year and have 4 odd days

Ordinary years have 3 odd days.
1028
Therefore 5 * 2 =10 + 3= 13 days minus i.e.(1 week + 6 days)

Some codes o remember the months and weeks:
Page

Sunday 1
Monday 2
Tuesday 3
We dnesday 4
Thursday 5
Friday 6
Saturday 0
Therefore on 1 January 1994 there is Friday
For 1st April 1994

Jan. Feb. March
31 + 29 + 31 = 91 days = (13 weeks + 0 day) .
Total number of odd days = 0 odd days.
: . 1st April 1994 was Friday
Thus, on 3rd , 10th , 17th, 24th will be Sunday fall on April 1994.
Q8) It was Monday on 1st January 2001
Q11) Problem is not clearly specify and possibility of Mondays in a particular
month which ends on Wednesday is 4 or 5 both.
Q12) Since, third of the month falls on Friday, therefore, 10th, 17th and 24th of
month would fall on Friday. hence, the 4th day after 21st of the month i.e., 25th
of the month would fall on Saturday.
Q13) The day two days after tomorrow is Thursday, it means, tomorrow should
be Tuesday and it should be Monday on today. therefore, two days before
yesterday it should be Friday.
Q14) Difference of No. of days of my sister's age and my age is 75x7+562 i.e.,
1087days. After dividing 1087 by 7, we get 2 as remainder. Therefore, 2 days
after Tuesday is Thursday.
Q15) As Monday falls on 31st, or 30th, or 29th or 28th there will be 5 or 4
Mondays.
Q16 to Q20) Mon[F], Tues[B], Wed[A], Thus[E], Fri[D], Sat[C]

Q21) The scheduled time of train was 6.20-1.30=4.50 As I was half an hour
earlier Therefore I reached the station at 4.50-0.30=4.20 hrs.
Q22) Afte r 13th but before 18th means 14, 15, 16 and 17 and after 16th but
1029
before 20th means 17, 18 and 19.Since, among these dates only 17th is
common. Therefore, their uncle visited them on 17th.
Page

Q23) Since, Saturday falls four days after 6th Jan. Therefore, on 10th Jan., it
will Saturday. the number of days between 1 st Dec. and 10th Jan. is 40.After
dividing 40 by 7 we get 5 as remainder. Therefore, 5 days before Saturday
means Monday.
Q24) As 1980 is a leap year, 4 days before 3rd March means 28th February. the
difference between 26 th Jan. and 28th Feb. is 33 days. Dividing 33 by 7 we get
5 as reminder. So, the day after 5 days from Saturday will be Thursday.
Q25) Since, X-mas day falls on 25th Dec., therefore, today it will be 23rd Dec.,
Hence, on 23rd Dec. it is Monday. the number of days between 23rd Dec. and 1
st Jan. is 9 days. Dividing 9 by 7, we get 2 as remainder. So, it will be
We dnesday on New Years day.
Q26) As 700 is not perfectly divisible by 400.
Q27) At half past 8 the minute hand points towards 6 and the hour hand points
towards 2(1/2) marks between 8 and 9. The angle between 6 and 8 is 60 degree
and the angle 2(1/2) min. space is 15 degree. hence, total angle between two
hands is 75 degree.
Q28) As in 12 hours the hands are 22 times at right angle Therefore in 6 hours
the hands are 22 times at right angle =22x6/12=11 times.
Q29) At 6 O' clock the hands are 30 minutes apart. Therefore, in order to
coincide the minute must gain 30 minutes. Therefore 55 minutes are gained by
the minute hand in 60 minutes. Therefore 30 minutes are gained by the minute
hand in 60 minutes=60x30/55=360/11 32(8/11) minutes Hence, the hands of
the watch will coincide at 32(8/11) in. past 6.
Q30) As buses are left for Bombay after every forty minutes and the next bus
had to go at 10.45 a. m. Hence, the previous bus left 10.45 a. m. Since , the
enquiry clerk told that it had left just 10 minutes, ago. Hence , the enquiry clerk
gave the information at 10.15 a. m.
Q31) Therefore In 1 hour the minute hand rotates through 360degree. Therefore
In 1/2 hour it will rotate through=360/2 =180degree.
Q32) At 9 a. m. the hands are 45 min. apart. They will be opposite to each other
when there is a space of 30 minutes between them. This will happen when the
min. hand will gain 15 minutes in 15x60/55 i.e., 16(4/11) minutes. Hence, the
hands are opposite to each other at 16(4/11) min. past 9 a. m.
Q34) The first watch gains on the second watch 1+1 i.e., 2 minutes in a day. the
watches will indicate the same time when the one has gained 12 hours on the
other. As 2 min. is gained in 1 day Therefore 12 hours is gained in 1 day
=1/2x12x60=360 days Counting 360 days from 1st Jan. 1978, we get Dec.27,
1978.
1030
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UNIT 6
Data Interpretation
1031
Page

Data Interpretation
Situation Reaction Test:
Q1) You are playing football in a park. When you kick the ball, it strikes and
breaks the window pane of a nearby house. You would:
Options:
A) demand your ball back from the house owner.
B) say that it was no fault of yours.
C) stealthily get your ball back.
D) apologize to the house owner and contribute to replace the glass.
Q2) If in the examination hall, you find that the question paper is too tough to
be answered satisfactorily by you, the best thing to do for you is to
Options:
A) tell the examiner that the questions are out of course.
B) provoke the candidates to walk out of the examination hall.
C) try to know something from your neighbour.
D) try to solve the questions as much as you know with a cool head.
Q3) You are returning home from school. On the way, you find a sealed envelope
in a street, fully addressed with unused stamps on it You would:
Options:
A) leave it there as it was and walk away

B) remove the stamps and destroy the envelope.
C) open the envelope, find out who has dropped it by mistake, and send it to
him if possible.
D) post it at the nearest letter box.
Q4) You are interviewed for a new job. Which of the following is most important
to you?
Options:
A) Opportunities for promotion
B) Remuneration you will be paid
1032
C) Scope to develop your ideas and use them to improve the working of the
organization
D) All the above are equally important
Page

Q5) You find that the person whom you call your friend has been cheating you.
what would you do?
Options:
A) Break relations with him. B) Give him tit for tat

C) Make him realize his mistake D) Tell other friends about him.
Q6) An angry customer wants to meet the senior manager for grievance
reporting. What will you do?
Options:
A) Talk to him yourself
B) Be patient and try to cool him down
C) Try to remove his inconveniences by consulting seniors
D) Tell him it is not easy to meet the senior manager
Q7) You are a sincere and dedicated manager in a reputed five-star hotel. You
have been appointed as the Chief Manager of the Guwahati branch which needs
to be developed. your Salary has been hiked.
Options:
A) You give it a shot for 2 months and see how it goes

B) You accept the challenge and go ahead with the project
C) You accept another offer and leave the job
D) You crib for limited resources and try to convince the superior to send
somebody else instead of
Q8) You are walking down the street and suddenly you see two hundred rupee
notes on the pavement. What action will you take?
Options:
A) Pocket it yourself.
B) Leave it where it is.
C) Give the money to a beggar.
D) Deposit it in the nearest police station
Q9) You have made some silly mistakes which have been pointed out to you.
You will:
Options:
1033
A) laugh it away. B) get angry.

C) feel miserable. D) feel thankful.
Page

Q10) You are moving across the road on a scooter when you observe that two
boys on a bike snatch a ladys gold chain and ride away. You would
Options:
A) console the woman.

B) chase the
C) inform the police about the matter. boys to catch hold of them.
D) stand and see what happens next.
Q11) On reaching the railway station, you find that the train you wanted to
catch is just to start and there is hardly any time for purchasing the ticket. The
best thing for you is to:
Options:
A) rush to the train rather than miss it and inform the T.T.I. at the ext stoppage
about your inability to purchase the ticket.
B) rush to the train and perform your journey quietly.
C) first purchase the ticket and then catch the train if it is there.
D) miss the train rather than take the risk of boarding the moving train
Q12) You are returning home from school. On the way, you find a sealed
envelope in a street, fully addressed with unused stamps on it. You would:
Options:
A) leave it there as it was and walk away.
B) remove the stamps and destroy the envelope.
C) open the envelope, find out who has dropped it by mistake, and send it to
him if possible.
D) post it at the nearest letter box.
Q13) If in the examination hall, you find that the question paper is too tough to
be answered satisfactorily by you, the best thing to do for you is to:
Options:
A) tell the examiner that the questions are out of course.
B) provoke the candidates to walk out of the examination hall.
C) try to know something from your neighbour.
D) try to solve the questions as much as you know with a cool head.
1034
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Q14) Your bathroom tap is leaking and is a constant source of irritating noise.
You would:
Options:
A) sleep with pillows upon your ears.

B) put a bucket underneath
C) try to put up a cork upon the mouth of the tap.
D) call a plumber to repair the tap.
Q15) You find a ladys purse dropped on the road and on pocking it up, find a
thousand rupees inside. You would:
Options:
A) take the purse away.
B) take out the money and leave the purse there.
C) deposit it at the nearest police station.
D) stand there and wait for the owner.
Q16) While sitting in a park, you observe that a smart young man comes to the
place on a scooter, leaves it there and goes away with someone else on a
motorbike. you would:
Options:
A) chase the person. B) inform the police at the nearby booth.
C) call back the person. D) remain engaged in your enjoyment.
Q17) You are playing football in a park. When you kick the ball. it strikes and
breaks the window pane of a nearby house. You would:
Options:
A) demand your ball back from the house owner.
B) say that it was no fault of yours.
C) stealthily get your ball back.
D) apologize to the house owner and contribute to replace the glass.
Q18) You are in a bus. The bus reaches your stop but still you have not
purchased the ticket because of heavy rush. what will you do?
Options:
1035
A) Jump out quickly to avoid embarrassment.

B) Call the conductor, give him the money and get the ticket.
C) Hand the money to someone sitting nearby to give it to the conductor.
Page
D) Give the money to the driver.

Q19) While you board a train at the station, you find a suitcase beneath your
seat. You would:
Options:
A) report the matter to the police.

B) open up the suitcase to look through its contents.
C) try to find out the address of the owner from the paper etc. in the suitcase.
D) finding no one to claim it, take it into the own possession.
Q20) While firing crackers, a child gets severs burns on the hand. What would
you do?
Options:
A) Dip the childs hands in cold water till there is no more burning sensation.
B) Wash the hands with dettol.
C) Send someone to call the doctor.
D) Apply some ointment on the affected area.
Q21) You find that the person whom you call your friend has been cheating you.
What would you do?
Options:
A) Break relations with him.
B) Give him tit for tat.
C) Make him realize his mistake.
D) Tell other friends about him.
Q22) While attending your friends party, you see your friends muffler catching
fire from the candle on the table behind him. You would
Options:
A) ask your friend to see behind him.
B) rush to call friends mother.
C) rush and taking out the muffler from his neck, drop it and pour water on it.
D) take out the muffler and throw it away.
Q23) Your friend is not invite you to his marriage party. You will:
Options:
1036
A) hold it against him.

B) attend the ceremony.
C) send him your best wishes.
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D) ignore the whole affair.

Q24) While travelling in a train, you observe some college students pulling the
alarm chain simply to get down at their desired point. You would
Options:
A) with the help of some passengers , check them from doing so.
B) let them pull the chain but check them from detraining.
C) inform the guard of the train as soon as it stops.
D) Keep quiet and do nothing.
Q25) You are driving your car on the road when you hit against a fruit vendors
cart. You would:
Options:
A) escape from the site by driving away.
B) abuse the fruit vendor for putting his cart on the way.
C) pay the fruit vendor for the damage done to him.
D) insist that it was not your fault.
Q26) You are the guest at a dinner. The host asks you to take one more chapati
after your stomach is full. You would:
Options:
A) make a blunt refuse.
B) take the chapati.
C) politely say that the food was too good and you have already eaten much.
D) make a bad face at him.
Q27) You are passing by a river and you know a swimming. suddenly, you hear
the cry of the drowning child. You would:
Options:
A) dive into the river to save him.
B) wait to see if some other person is there to help.
C) look for professional drivers. D) console the chiles parents.
Q28) You are playing in your friends house, when he gets stuck with a naked
electric wire. You would:
Options:
1037
A) hold him by the arms and try to set him free.

B) hold the wire and pull it away.
C) pull off the wire with a wooden stick.
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D) send for the doctor.

Q29) You are interviewed for a new job. Which of the following questions is most
important to you?
Options:
A) Opportunities for promotion

B) Remuneration you will be paid
C) Scope to develop your ideas and use them to improve the working of the
organization
D) All the above are equally important
Q30) You are alone in the house and there is quite a danger of thieves around.
Just then, you hear a knock at the door. You would:
Options:
A) open the door to see who is there.
B) first peep out from the window to confirm whether you know the person.
C) not open the door.
D) ask the servant to see who is there.
Q31) You are living in the college hostel. The dal served to you in the mess has a
lot of stones. What would you do?
Options:
A) Leave eating the dal altogether.
B) Bring the matter to the notice of mess in charge.
C) Speak to the cook about changing the dal.
D) Buy your own dal and cook it in your room.
Q32) While travelling in a train, you notice a man from the coach behind yours
fall off the train . You would:
Options:
A) Pull the alarm chain so that the train may stop and the man may be helped.
B) shout at the falling man asking him to get up quickly and entrain.
C) Jump off the train to assist the falling man.
D) wait till the train stops at the next station and inform the railway authorities
there.
Q33) No risk no gain, you
Options:
1038
A) feel that risk means no gain

B) believe that this slogan is correct
C) feel it is foolish to accept unnecessary risk
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D) feel that risk may be taken only after judging the situation thoroughly.

Q34) Your friends like smoking and influence you to do the same. You will
Options:
A) smoke only because your friends are smoking
B) refuse to smoke C) smoke but only in their presence
D) refuse and lie to them that you have asthma
Q35) You have a new boss. You

Options:
A) will be in different B) welcome him warmly
C) go and flatter him as will help out in future
D) have problems adjusting as you are still loyal to your old boss
Q36) You are getting late for your college and bus is not available. In such a
situation
Options:
A) you start walking
B) you drop the idea of going to college that day and return home
C) you think about other possible conveyance
D) you wait patiently for the bus though you are late for the class
Q37) If you are HR Manager of XYZ company and there is only one vacancy.
There are three candidates to the post, one out of them is your nephew. You
would
Options:
A) select your nephew though he is not eligible for the post
B) select the candidate who is eligible for the post
C) consult with senior what needs to be done
D) tell the candidate that vacancy is already fulfilled
Q38) Afte r having committed to your family that you would be taking the out on
a vacation, you suddenly find yourself wanted in a board meeting which
unfortunately clashes with the vacation. What would you do?
Options:
A) Assuming it to be urgent, start making necessary arrangement to ensure that
the reason for the meeting is fulfilled, thus cancelling the vacation
B) Find out what the urgent meeting is all about and make necessary
1039
arrangements and postpone your vacation

C) Proceed with your vacation plans without making any arrangement
D) Try and get out of that situation by asking your colleague to cover up for you.
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Q39) Your college has organized a blood donation camp. You

Options:
A) persuade your friends to donate
B) donate your blood at the camp
C) do not believe in donating blood and decide not to attend
D) yourself do not believe in donating blood but ask other to do so
Q40) Your maid has invited you to her daughters wedding. You would
Options:
A) completely ignore her
B) attend the wedding
C) buy a gift for her daughter
D) congratulate her and make up some for not being able to attend.
Q41) When you see a blind man trying to cross the road. You
Options:
A) ask someone to help him.
B) go and help him
C) wait till he crosses the road
D) ignore and move in
Q42) If you are a manager and one of your employees is not working properly, as
a manager you would
Options:
A) fine him
B) give the man two weeks to improve
C) try to develop the mans abilities and interest in another job
D) talk to him and try to find out his problem
Q43) You are suffering from diabetes, when you see a whole lot of chocolates,
you are tented to eat them. But you also realize that they are not good for you in
the long run. What do you do?
Options:
A) You would not eat them because you know the harmful effects
1040
B) You decide not to eat them but keep thinking about the
C) You would eat them but feel guilty about what you have done
D) You would give into the temptation and eat the chocolates without being
Page
bothered about the consequences

Q44) You have four options of job. You would

Options:
A) choose the higher salary
B) choose the job where you can utilize your skills
C) choose the one which gives you chance to go abroad
D) choose the one which has surety that it cannot be snatched from you
Q45) Your boss has given you some urgent assignment at the end hour. What
would you do?
Options:
A) Try to finish the job as per its requirement
B) Tell him that you would do it next day
C) Request one of your colleagues to help you
Q46) You are a social worker. On visiting an orphanage, there is one child who
is not ready to let you go away,
Options:
A) you ignore the child because you have other kids to attend
B) you leave with no concern
C) you decide to visit him every Sunday
D) you talk to the authorities and arrange for parents who can adopt him ,
Q47) Afte r your graduation, you are offered a well paid government job.
However, your friend says that you have to bribe to get the appointment order.
You
Options:
A) go to some influential politician who can help

B) accept the job by paying the bribe, consoling yourself that this is the present
social setup
C) accept the job by paying the bribe, but firmly resolve that this is the last time
you will pay bribe
D) flatly refuse the offer
Q48) You
Options:
1041
A) get setup when others do not behave properly

B) are at least interested about what others are thinking about you
C) can keep your face smiling even when you are terribly disgusted
Page
D) feel that you should not conceal your attitude from others

Q49) If you find yourself in a situation where you are required to make a power-
point presentation and you are already bogged down by too work, as the
manager what would you do?
Options:
A) Take an alternative mode of presentation
B) Cancel the seminar and reschedule according to your convenience
C) Pass the buck to your subordinate, you are the boss, no one can question
you
D) Prioritize your work and try to squeeze out time for it
Q50) You are alone in the house and your sister-in-law is suddenly experiencing
labour pains, you
Options:
A) would definitely get upset and do not know what is the right step
B) go out of the house to call your family doctor
C) walk her to the nearest hospital
D) call an ambulance for emergency
Q51) When you get angry, you usually

Options:
A) throw things
B) withdraw yourself and start crying
C) leave the situation and engage yourself in a different activity
Q52) While travelling in your car, certain persons stop you on the way asking
you to take an injured child to the hospital. You would
Options:
A) ask them to leave your way and then drive away

B) ask them to first call the police
C) immediate take the child to hospital
D) get out of the car and ask some other person to help the
Q53) The statement, ' To be non-violent is good' is a:

Options:
1042
A) Moral judgment B) Factual judgment

C) Religious judgment D) Value judgment
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Q54) Which one of the following statements is completely non-sensical?

Options:
A) He was bachelor, but he married recently
B) He is a bachelor, but he married recently
C) When he married, he was not a bachelor.
D) When he was a bachelor, he was not married.
Q55) While going on a scooter, you find someone has been hurt by your vehicle,
you would
Options:
A) try to turn away from the spot immediately
B) stop your vehicle and say 'I am sorry'
C) take him to the doctor and arrange for his medical aid
D) pay compensation for the injury and in this way try to dispose of the matter.
Q56) If in your office you feel your subordinates got furious due to some of your
action, you would-
Options:
A) call a few of them in your office and hear them patiently
B) take disciplinary action against the influential subordinates
C) inform your superiors about the situation and seek their advice
D) play 'divide and rule' policy
Q57) If while going to office you find a running car has just run over a child, the
most immediate thing you would do is to-
Options:
A) inform at the nearest police station about the accident
B) render first-aid to the injured child
C) search the pockets of the injured to find out his home address, if it is there
and intimate his parents
D) hire a taxi and try to follow the car
Q58) If in the examination hall, you find that and question paper is too tough to
be answered satisfactorily by you the best thing to do for you is to-
Options:
A) walk out from the examination hall and instigate other examines also for the
1043
same.
B) take help from neighbouring examinees to answer the questions satisfactorily
C) speak loudly about the toughness of the questions
Page
D) answer the question paper with a cool head and mind

Q59) While going for the morning walk, you find a man lying unconscious on the
street, you would-
Options:
A) take him to the doctor and get medical aid

B) search his pockets to find his address and inform his parents
C) inform the police authorities
D) cover his with a cloth and go on your way
Q60) Reaching at the railway station you find that the train you wanted to catch
is just to start and there is hardly any time foe purchasing the ticket, the best
thing for you is to-
Options:
A) rush to the train rather than miss it and inform the T.T.i. at the next
stoppage about your inability to purchase the ticket
B) rush to the train and perform your journey quietly
C) first purchase the ticket and then catch the train if it is there
D) miss the train rather than take the risk of boarding the moving train.
Q61) If while passing through a railway line, you notice that the two trains from
the opposite directions are running on the same lines you would-
Options:
A) go in your way without taking any notice of the accident likely to happen
B) rush to the nearest station and inform the railway authorities about all that
you had noticed
C) rush towards either of the running trains and try to intimate the engine staff
about the probable accident
D) wait and see till the trains pass on
Q62) At midnight you heard the voice of several persons shouting , 'Fire, Fire',
you would-
Options:
A) ring to the Fire Brigade station and inform the officials there about the fire
B) rush out of the room with buckets of water to extinguish the fire
C) ensure where the fire had taken place and to what extent
D) continue to sleep, till you are called for
1044
Page

Q63) If in the night, you find some thieves entering in your mother's bedroom
and opening the almirah where in her gold ornaments and jewelleries are kept.
What would you do at that time?
Options:
A) You would cry out and inform all your family members and neighbours for
help
B) You would at once rush to the police station to seek police help
C) You would not take the risk of facing the situation and continue to sleep
D) You would face the situation with the help of other family members
Q64) If in your college hostel mess, you find that the dal being served for the
last ten days, is having a lot of stones and you are fed up with eating it. What
would you do?
Options:
A) Leave eating the dal altogether
B) Bring the matter to the notice of the mess incharge and if nothing is done by
him then to inform the hostel superintendent
C) Speak the cook about changing the dal
D) Buy your own dal and cook it in your room.
Q65) Your baby's clothes have caught fire and none except your wife who is in
the bath room, is present in the house, you would-
Options:
A) ask your wife about the incident and to come out at once
B) telephone your family doctor
C) cry 'fire, fire'
D) wrap the baby tightly in some blanket and try to extinguish the fire
Q66) You are standing at the door of the train that has just left the platform.
Suddenly you see a man from your behind coach falling off the train. What will
you do?
Options:
A) Pull the alarm chain so that the train may stop and the man may be helped
B) Shout at the falling man asking him to get up quickly and entrain as it is not
moving very fast
C) Jump off the train to assist the falling man
1045
D) Wait till the train stops at the next station and inform the railway authorities
there
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Q67) You have not done well in your university examinations. Your father advise
you to give up the studies and do something else. what will be the best for you
to do?
Options:
A) I nsist your father to continue your studies
B) Give up your studies and join your father's business
C) Continue your studies with greater interest and hard work with the
convenience of your father
D) Try for same service
Q68) While returning from night cinema show, you notice that some goondas
are chasing two young girls going in a rickshaw-
Options:
A) you would ask the goondas to run away or to bear the consequences
B) you would es cort the girls upto market place giving no chance to goondas to
play their foul game
C) you would seek the help of some passersby so as to make girls out goondas
grip
D) you would pass on your way quietly and take no notice of them
Q69) You find a briefcase in a compartment of a train in which nobody else is

travelling. how will you deal with the briefcase?
Options:
A) Hand it over to the Station Master at the next stoppage of the train
B) Try to find out the address of the owner from the papers etc., in the briefcase
and manage to send it to him
C) Finding no clue of its owner, you would bring it in your own use
D) Thinking it a gift from God, treat it as your own
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) D, Q3) D, Q4) D, Q5) C, Q6) B, Q7) B, Q8) D, Q9) D, Q10) B,
Q11) A, Q12) D, Q13) D, Q14) D, Q15) D, Q16) B, Q17) D, Q18) B, Q19) A,
Q20) A, Q21) C, Q22) C, Q23) C, Q24) A, Q25) C, Q26) C, Q27) A, Q28) C,
Q29) D, Q30) B, Q31) B, Q32) A, Q33) D, Q34) B, Q35) B, Q36) C, Q37) B,
Q38) B, Q39) B, Q40) C, Q41) B, Q42) D, Q43) A, Q44) B, Q45) A, Q46) D,
Q47) D, Q48) C, Q49) D, Q50) D, Q51) C, Q52) D, Q53) A, Q54) B, Q55) C,
Q56) A, Q57) B, Q58) D, Q59) A, Q60) A, Q61) C, Q62) C, Q63) D, Q64) B,
1046
Q65) D, Q66) A, Q67) C, Q68) B, Q69) B,

Page

Statement & Argument:
Q1) Statement Should India encourage exports, when most things are
ins ufficient for internal use itself?
Arguments
I) Yes. We have to earn foreign exchange to pay for our imports

II) No. Even selective encouragement would lead to shortages.
Options:
A) Only argument I is strong
B) Only argument II is strong
C) Either I or II is strong
D) Neither I nor II is strong
Q2) Statement Should all the drugs patented and manufactured in Western
countries be first tried out on sample basis before giving license for sale to
general public in India?
Arguments
I) Yes. Many such drugs require different doses and duration for Indian
population and hence it is necessary.
II) No. This is just not feasible and hence cannot be implemented
Options:
D) Both I and II are strong
Q3) Statement Should India make efforts to harness solar energy to fulfil its
energy requirements?
Arguments I)Yes, Most of the energy sources used at present is exhaustible.
II) No. Harnessing solar energy requires a lot of capital, which India lacks in.
Options:
1047
Page

Q4) Statement Should there be students union in college/university?

Arguments
I) No. This will create a political atmosphere in the campus.
II) Yes, it is very necessary Students are future political leaders.

Options:
A) Only argument I is strong B) Only argument II is strong
C) Neither I nor II is strong D) Both I and II are strong
Q5) Statement Should India give away Kashmir to Pakistan?

Arguments
I) No. Kashmir is a beautiful state. It earns a lot of foreign exchange for India.
II) Yes. This would help settle conflicts.
Options:

C) Either I or II is strong D) Both I and II are strong
Q6) Statement Should cottage industries be encouraged in rural areas?

Arguments
I) Yes. Rural people are creative.

II) Yes. This would help to solve the problem of unemployment to some extent.
Options:
Q7) Statement Should young entrepreneurs be encouraged?

ArgumentsI) Yes. They will help in industrial development of the country. II)
Yes. They will reduce the burden on employment market.
Options:
1048

Page

Q8) Statement Should all the annual examinations up to Std. V be abolished?

Arguments
I)Yes the young student should not be burdened with such examinations which
hampers their natural growth.
II) No. The students will not study seriously as they will get automatic
promotion to the next class and this will affect them in future.
Options:
Q9) Statement Should Indian scientists working abroad be called back to

India?
Arguments
I) Yes. They must serve the motherland first and forget about discoveries,
honours, facilities and all.
II) No. We have enough talent; let them stay where they want.
Options:
C) Either I or II is strong D) Neither I nor II is strong
Q10) Statement Should we scrap the system of formal education beyond

graduation?
Arguments
I) Yes. It will mean taking employment at an early date.
II) No. It will mean lack of depth of knowledge.
Options:
Q11) Statement Should there be an upper age limit of 65 years for contesting
Parliamentary/ Legislative Assembly elections?
Arguments
I) Yes. Generally, people above the age of 65 lose their dynamism and will power.
II) No. The life span is so increased that people remain physically and mentally
active even up to the age of 80.
Options:
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Page

Q12) Statement Should new big industries be started in Mumbai?

Arguments
I) Yes. It will create job opportunities.
II) No. It will further add to the pollution of the city.

Options:
Q13) Statement Should high chimneys be installed in industries?

Arguments
I) Yes. It reduces pollution at ground level.
II) No. It increases pollution in upper atmosphere.
Options:

Q14) Statement Does India need so many plans for development?

ArgumentsI) Yes nothing can be achieved without proper planning II) No. Too
much time, money and energy is wasted o planning.
Options:
Q15) Statement Should articles of only deserving authors be allowed to be

published?
Arguments
I) Yes. It will save a lot of paper which is in short supply.
II) No. It is not possible to draw a line between the deserving and the
undeserving.
Options:
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Q16) Statement Should colleges be given the status of a university in India?

Arguments
I) Yes. Colleges are in a better position to assess the students performance and
therefore the degrees will be more valid. II)No it is Utopian to think that there
will not be nepotism and corruption in awarding degrees by colleges.
Options:
Q17) Statement Should the prestigious people who have committed crime
unknowingly, be met with special treatment?
Arguments
I) Yes. The prestigious people do not commit crime intentionally.
II) No. It is our policy that everybody is equal before the law.
Options:
Q18) Statement Can pollution be controlled?
Arguments
I) Yes. If everyone realizes the hazards it may create and cooperates to get rid of
it, pollution may be controlled.
II) No. The crowded highways, factories and industries and an ever-growing
population eager to acquire more and more land for constructing houses are
beyond control.
Options:
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Q19) Statement Should the railways in India be privatized in a phased

manner like other public sector enterprises?
Arguments
I) Yes. This is the only way to bring in competitiveness and provide better
services to the public.
II) No. This will pose a threat to the national security of our country as
multinationals will enter into the fray.
Options:

Q20) Statement Should internal assessment in colleges be abolished?

Arguments I)Yes. This will help in reducing the possibility of favouritism.
II) No, teaching faculty will lose control over students.
Options:
Q21) Statement Should all the unauthorized structures in the city be

demolished?
Arguments
I) No. Where will the people residing in such houses live?
II) Yes. This will give a clear message to general public and they will refrain from
constructing unauthorized buildings.
Options:
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Q22) Statement Should there be a maximum limit for the number of ministers
in the Central Government?
Arguments
I) No. The political party in power should have the freedom to decide the number
of ministers to be appointed.
II) Yes. The number of ministers should be restricted to a certain percentage of
the total number of seats in the parliament to avoid unnecessary expenditure.
Options:

Q23) Statement Should foreign films be banned in India?

Arguments
I) Yes. They depict an alien culture which adversely affects our values.
II) No. Foreign films are of a high artistic standard.
Options:

Q24) Statement s buying things on instalments profitable to the customer?

Arguments
I) Yes. He has to pay less. No, paying instalments upsets the family budget.
Options:
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Q25) Statement Should Doordarshan be given autonomous status?

Arguments
I) Yes. It will help Doordarshan to have fair and impartial coverage of all
important events.
II) No. The coverage of events will be decided by a few who may not have healthy
outlook.
Options:
C) Neither I nor II is strong
Q26) Statement Should adult education programme be given priority over

compulsory education programme?
Arguments
I) No. It will also help in success of compulsory education programme.
II) Yes. It will help to eliminate the adult illiteracy.
Options:

Q27) Statement Should new universities be established in India?

ArgumentsI) II) No. We have still not achieved the target for literacy.
III)
IV) No. We will have to face the problem of unemployed but highly qualified
people.
Options:
A) Only argument II is strong
B) Either I or II is strong
1054
Page

Q28) StatementShould non vegetarian food be totally banned in our country?

ArgumentsI)Yes. It is expensive and therefore it is beyond the means of most
people in our country.
II) No. Nothing should be banned in a democratic country like ours.

Options:
Q29) Statement Should a total ban be put on trapping wild animals?

Arguments
I) Yes. Trappers are making a lot of money;
II) No. Bans on hunting and trapping are not effective.
Options:
Q30) Statement Should Government close down loss making public sector
enterprises?
Arguments
I) No. All employees will lose their jobs, security and earning, what would they
do?
II) Yes. In a competitive world the rule is survival of the fittest.
Options:
1055
Page

Q31) Statement Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?
Arguments
I) Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants there. II) No.
Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than big cities. So?
Why offer extra incentives!
Options:
Q32) Statement Should there be a cap on maximum number of contestants

for parliamentary elections in any constituency?
Arguments
I) Yes. This will make the parliamentary elections more meaningful as the voters
can make a considered judgment for casting their vote. II) No. In a democracy
any person fulfilling the eligibility criteria can contest parliamentary elections
and there should be no restrictions.
Options:
Q33) Statement Should so much money be spent on advertisements?

Arguments
I) Yes. It is an essential concomitant in a capitalist economy.
II) No. It leads to wastage of resources.
Options:
1056
Page

Q34) Statement Should all the legislators be forced to resign from their
profession?
Arguments
I) Yes. They will be able to devote more time for the country.
II) No, nobody will contest election.
Options:
Q35) Statement Should computer knowledge be made a compulsory subject

for all the students at secondary school level?
Arguments
I) No, our need is bread for everyone, we cannot follow western models.
II) Yes. We cannot compete in the international market without equipping our
children with computers.
Options:

Q36) Statement Should there be uniforms for students in the colleges in India
as in the schools?
Arguments
I) Yes, this will improve the ambience of the colleges as all the students will be
decently dressed.
II) No. The college students should not be regimented and they should be left to
choose their clothes for coming to the college.
Options:
1057

Page

Q37) Statement Should India engage into a dialog with neighbouring countries
to stop cross border tension?
Arguments
I) Yes. This is the only way to reduce the cross border terrorism and stop loss of
innocent lives.
II) No. Neighbouring countries cannot be relied upon in such matters, they may
still engage in subversive activities.
Options:

Q38) Statement Should there be a world government?

Arguments
I) Yes. It will help in eliminating tensions among the actions. II) No. Then, only
the developed countries will dominate in the government.
Options:

Q39) Statement Should the practice of transfers of clerical cadre employees

from government offices of one city to those of another be stopped?
Arguments
I) No. Transfer of employees is a routine administrative matter and we must
continue it.
II) Yes. It involves lot of governmental expenditure and inconvenience too many
compared to the benefits it yields.
Options:
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Page

Q40) Statement Is paying ransom or agreeing to the conditions of kidnappers

of political figures, a proper course of action?
Arguments
I) Yes. The victims must be saved at all cost.

II) No. It encourages the kidnappers to continue their sinister activities.
Options:
A) Only argument II is strong
Q41) Statement Should religion be banned?

Arguments
I) Yes. It develops fanaticism in people.
II) No, Religion binds people together.
Options:
Q42) Statement Should India become a permanent member of UNs Security

Council?
Arguments I)Yes. India has emerged as a country which loves peace and
amity.
II) No. Let us first solve problems of our own people like poverty, malnutrition.
Options:
1059
Page

Q43) Statement Should fashionable dresses be banned?

Arguments
I) Yes. Fashions keep changing and hence consumption of cloth increases.
II) No. Fashionable clothes are a persons self expression and therefore his/her
fundamental right.
Options:
Q44) Statement Should an organization like UNO be dissolved?

ArgumentsI) Yes. With cold war coming to an end, such organizations have no
role to play No, In the absence of such organizations there may be a world war.
Options:

Q45) Statement Should there be no place of interview in selection?

Arguments
I) Yes, it is very subjective In assessment.
II) No. It is the only instrument to judge candidates motives and personality.
Options:
Q46) Statement Should family planning be made compulsory India?

Arguments
I) Yes. Looking to the miserable conditions in India, there is no other go.
II) No. In India there are people of various religions and family planning is
against the tenets of some of the religions.
Options:
1060
Page

Q47) Statement Should income tax be abolished in India?

Arguments
I) Yes. It is an unnecessary burden on the wage earners.
II) No. It is a good source of revenue.

Options:
Q48) Statement Should there be a ceiling on the salary of top executives of

multinationals in our country?
Arguments I)Yes. Otherwise it would lead to unhealthy competition and our
own industry would not be able to withstand that.
II) No. With the accent on liberalization of economy, any such move would be
counterproductive. Once the economy picks up, this disparity will be reduced.
Options:
Q49) Statement Should school education be made free in India?
Arguments
I) Yes. This is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
II) No. It would add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.
Options:
1061
Page

Q50) Statement Should import duty on all the electronic goods be dispensed
with?
Arguments
I) No. This will considerably reduce the income of the government and will
adversely affect the developmental activities.
II) No. The local manufacturers will not be able to compete with the foreign
manufacturers who are technologically far superior.
Options:

Q51) Statement Should children be legally made responsible to take care of

their parents during their old age?
Arguments
I) Yes. Such matter can only be solved by legal means.
II) Yes. Only this will bring some relief to poor parents.
Options:
Q52) Statement Should there be reservation in Government jobs for

candidates from single child family?
Arguments
I) No. This is not advisable as the jobs should be offered to only deserving
candidates without any reservation for a particular group.
II) Yes. This will help reduce the growing population India as the parents will be
encouraged to adopt single child norm.
Options:
1062
Page

Q53) Statement Should higher education be completely stopped for some

time?
Arguments
I) No. It will hamper the countrys future progress.

II) Yes. It will reduce the educated unemployment.
Options:
Q54) Statement Should we scrap the Public Distribution System in India?

Arguments
I) Yes, Protectionism is over, everyone must get the
bread on his/her own.
II) Yes. The poor do not get any benefit because of corruption.
Options:
Q55) Statement Should India have no military force at all?

Arguments I) No. Other countries in the world do not believe in nonviolence.
II) Yes. Many Indians believe in nonviolence.
Options:
Q56) Statement Should the sex determination test during pregnancy be

completely banned?
Arguments
I) Yes. This leads to indiscriminate female foeticide and eventually will lead to
social imbalance.
II) No. People have a right to know about their unborn child.
1063
Options:
Page

Q57) Statement Should persons convicted of criminal offences i the past be

allowed to contest elections in India?
Arguments
I) No. Such persons cannot serve the cause of the people and country. II) Yes. It
is democracy let people decide whom to vote.
Options:
Q58) Statement Should officers accepting bribe be punished?

Arguments
I) No. Certain circumstances may have compelled the to take bribe.
II) Yes. They should do the job they are entrusted with, honestly.
Options:
Q59) Statement Should there be a complete ban on use of all types of

chemical pesticides in India?
Arguments I) No. The pests will destroy all the crops and the farmers will have
nothing to harvest II) Yes. The chemical pesticides used in agriculture pollute
the water under ground and this has become a serious health hazard.
Options:

Q60) Statement Should cutting of trees be banned altogether?

Arguments
I) Yes. It is very much necessary to do so to restore ecological balance.

II) No. A total ban would harm timber based industries.
Options:
1064

Page

Q61) Statement Should there be a restriction on the migration of people from

one state to another state in India?
Arguments
I) No. Any Indian citizen has a basic right to stay at any place of his/her choice
and hence they cannot be stopped.
II) Yes. This is the way to effect an equitable distribution of resources across the
states in India.
Options:

Q62) Statement Should all refugees, who make unauthorized entry into a
country, be forced to
go back to their homeland?
Arguments
I) Yes. They make their colonies and occupy a lot of land. II) No. They leave their
homes because of hunger or some terror and on human grounds, should not be
forced to go back.
Options:
Q63) Statement Should India create a huge oil reserve like some Western
countries to face difficult situations in future?
Arguments
I) No. There is no need to block huge amount of foreign exchange and keep the
money idle.
II) Yes. This will help India withstand shocks of sudden rise in oil prices due to
unforeseen circumstances.
Options:
1065

Page

Q64) Statement Should there be more than one High Court in each state in
India?
Arguments
I) No. This will be a sheer wastage of taxpayers money.

II) Yes. This will help reduce the backlog of cases pending for a very long time.
Options:
Q65) Statement Should judiciary be independent of the executive?

Arguments
I) Yes. This would help curb the unlawful activities of the executive.
II) No. The executive would not be able to take bold measures.
Options:
Q66) Statement Should all the practicing doctors be brought under

Government control so that they get salary from the Government and treat
patients free of cost?
Arguments
I) No. How can any country do such an undemocratic thing?
II) Yes. Despite many problems, it will certainly help minimize, if not eradicate,
unethical medical practices.
Options:
Q67) Statement Should students take part in politics?

Arguments I)Yes. It inculcates in the qualities of leadership.
II) No. They should study and build up their career.
1066
Options:
Page

Q68) Statement Should the opinion polls predicting outcome of elections

before the elections be banned in India?
Arguments
I) Yes. This may affect the voters mind and may affect the outcome.
II) No. Such polls are conducted all over the world.
Options:
Q69) Statement Should the political parties be banned?

Arguments
I) Yes. It is necessary to teach a lesson to the politicians.
II) No. It will lead to an end of democracy.
Options:
Q70) Statement Should system of offering jobs only to the wards of

government employees be introduced in all government offices India?
Arguments
I) No. It denies opportunity to many deserving individuals and government may
stand to lose in the long run.
II) No. It is against the principle of equality, does not government owe its
res ponsibility to all its citizens
Options:
Q71) Statement Should the vehicles older than 15 years be reacted in metros
in India?
Arguments
I) Yes. This is a significant step to lower down the pollution level in metros.
II) No. It will be very difficult for vehicle owners to shift to other parts in country
because they will not get suitable job for their very existence.
Options:
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Page

Q72) Statement Should the tuition fees in all postgraduate courses be hiked
considerably?
Arguments
I) Yes. This will bring in some sense of seriousness among the students and will
improve the quality. II) No. This will force the meritorious poor students to stay
away from postgraduate courses.
Options:
Q73) Statement Should the persons below the age of 18 years be allowed to
join armed forces?
Arguments
I) No. Persons below the age of 18 do not attain both physical and mental
maturity to shoulder such burden.
II) Yes. This will help the country develop its armed forces which will serve the
country for a longer time.
Options:
Q74) Statement Should all the infrastructural development projects in India

be handed over to the private sector?
Arguments
I) No. The private sector entities are hot equipped to handle such projects.
II) Yes. Such projects are handled by private sector in the developed countries.
Options:
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Page

Q75) Statement Should all the colleges in India be allowed to devise their own
curriculum and syllabus for the vocational courses promoting self-employment?
Arguments
I) Yes. This is an important step to generate employment opportunities.

II) No. This will affect the quality of education due to lack of uniformity in
syllabus.
Options:
Q76) Statement Should agriculture in rural India be mechanized?
Arguments
I) Yes. It would lead to higher production.
II) No. Many villagers would be left unemployed.
Options:
Q77) Statement Should there be concentration of foreign investment in only

few states?
Arguments
I) No. It is against the policy of overall development of the country. II) Yes. A
large number of
states lack infrastructure to attract foreign investment.
Options:
1069
Page

Q78) Statement Should the oil companies be allowed to fix the price of
petroleum products depending on market conditions?
Arguments
I) Yes. This is the only way to make the oil companies commercially viable.
II) No. This will put additional burden on the retail prices of essential
commodities and will cause a lot of hardships to the masses.
Options:
Q79) Statement Should the education at all levels be offered only in

vernacular medium? Arguments
I) Yes. This is the only way to enhance performance of the students.
II) No. This will severely affect acquiring knowledge for want of good text books
in vernacular medium.
Options:

Q80) Statement Should there be only one rate of interest for their deposits of
varying durations i banks?
Arguments
I) No. People will refrain from keeping money for longer duration resulting into
reduction of liquidity level of banks.
II) Yes. This will be much simple for the common people and they may be
encouraged to keep more money i banks.
Options:
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Page

Q81) Statement Should all news be controlled by Government in a

democracy?
Arguments
I) Yes. Variety of news only confuses people.

II) No. Controlled news loses credibility.
Options:
Q82) Statement Should taxes on colour television be further increased?

Arguments
I) Yes, colour television is a luxury
II) and only rich people buy them. No, Televisions are bought by the poor too.
Options:
Q83) Statement Should the educated unemployed youth be paid

unemployment allowance by the Government?
Arguments
I) Yes. It will provide the some monetary help to either seek employment or to
kick start some self-employment venture.
II)No It will dampen their urge to do something to earn their livelihood and thus
promote idleness among the unemployed youth.
Options:
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Page

Q84) Statement Should there be only one university throughout India?

Arguments
I) Yes. This is the only way to bring about uniformity i the educational
standards.
II) No. This is administratively impossible.
III) Yes. This will make the degrees procured by students, comparable for
offering jobs.
Options:
A) None is strong
B) Only I and II are strong
C) Only II and III are strong
D) Only I and III are strong
Q85) Statement Should India immediately stop digging coal from its mines?
Arguments
I) Yes. The present stock of local will not last long if we continue mining at the
present rate. II) No. We do not have alternate energy source of sufficient
quantity. III) No. This will put millions of people at a disadvantage and their lives
will get adversely affected and also the industry.
Options:
A) Only I and II are strong
B) Only II and III are strong
C) Only I and III are strong
D) All are strong
Q86) Statement Should all the indirect taxes in India be combine d into a
single tax on all commodities?
Arguments
I) Yes. This will considerably simplify the tax collection mechanism and the cost
of collecting tax will also reduce.
II) Yes. The manufacturers and traders will be benefited by this which in turn
will boost tax collection.
III) No. No other country has adopted such system.
Options:
1072
A) None is strong B) Only I and III are strong

C) Only II is strong D) None of these
Page

Q87) Statement Should there be complete ban on Indian professionals seeking

jobs elsewhere after getting their education in India?
Arguments
I) Yes. This is the only way to sustain present rate of technological development
in India.
II) No. The Indians settled abroad send huge amount of foreign exchange and
this constitutes a significant part of foreign exchange reserve.
III) No. The practical knowledge gained by Indians by working in other countries
help India develop its economy.
Options:
A) None is strong B) All are strong
C) Only I and II are strong D) Only III is strong
Q88) Statement Should there be a total ban on tobacco products and smoking
in India?
Arguments
I) Yes. It is wrong to smoke away millions of money.
II) No. It will throw thousands of workers in the tobacco industry out of
employment.
III) No. The government will lose huge amount of money as it will not earn by
way of taxes on these products.
Options:
A) None is strong B) Only I and II are strong
C) Only II is strong D) Only II and III are strong
Q89) Statement Should administrative officers be transferred after one or two

years?
Arguments
I) Yes. They get friendly with local people and are manipulated by them. II)No.
By the time their policies and schemes start taking shape, they have to leave.
III) No. This will create a lot of administrative hassles and cause a lot of
inconvenience to the officers.
Options:
1073
A) Only II is strong B) Only I and II are strong

C) Only II and III are strong D) Only I and III are strong
Page

Q90) Statement Should the consumption of aerated drinks be banned in

India?
Arguments
I) Yes. This is the only way to reduce the risk of exposing people to some
diseases.
II) No. Each individual should have right to choose what he wants.
III) No. There is no confirmed evidence that such products have adverse effects
on human body.
IV) Yes. It is banned in many other countries also.

Options:
A) Only I is strong
C) Only III is strong
D) Only I and IV are strong
Q91) Statement Should higher education be restricted to only those who can
bear the expenditure?
Arguments
I) Yes. Higher education is very costly; hence it should not be given free.
II) No. There are a large number of brilliant students who cannot afford to pay
and they should be give higher education.
Options:
Q92) Statement Should those who receive dowry, despite the law prohibiting
it, be punished?
Arguments I)Yes. Those who violate the law must be punished.
II) No. Dowry system is firmly rooted in the society since time immemorial.
Options:
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Page

Q93) StatementIs the Government justified in spending so much on defence?

Arguments I)Yes. Safety of the country is of prime importance.
II) No. During peace, this money could be used for the development of the
country.
Options:
Q94) Statement Should girls learn arts like judo and karate?
Arguments I)Yes. It will enable them to defend themselves from rogues and
ruffians. II) No. They will lose their feminine grace.
Options:
Q95) Statement Should India develop a national water grid by connecting all
the rivers in the country?
Arguments
I) No. This is not just possible as we do not have the technical knowhow. yes,
this will greatly help the entire country by effectively channelizing the excess
water to the areas having shortage.
Options:
Q96) Statement Should individuals/institutes having treasures of national

significance like Nobel Prizes, hand them over to the Central Government for
their safe custody?
Arguments
I) Yes. The individuals or institutions do not have enough resources to protect
them.
II) No. These are the property of the individuals/institutions that win them and
should be in their custody.
1075
Options:
Page

Q97) Statement Should there be reservation of seats and posts o communal

basis?
Arguments
I) Yes. It will check most of the intercommunal biases.

II) No, ours is a secular state.
Options:
Q98) Statement Should Octroi be abolished?

Arguments
I) Yes. It will eliminate a important source of corruption.
II) No. It will adversely affect government revenues.
Options:
Q99) Statement Should public holidays be declared on demise of important

national leaders?
Arguments
I) No. Such unscheduled holidays hamper national progress. II)Yes. People
would like to pay their homage to the departed soul.
Options:

Q100) State ment Should India support all the international policies of United
States of America?
Arguments
I) No. Many other powerful countries do not support the same.
II) Yes. This is the only way to gain access to USA developmental funds.
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Options:
Page

Q101) State ment Should words like Smoking is injurious to health essentially
appear on cigarette packs?
Arguments I) Yes. It is a sort of brainwash to make the smokers realize that
they are inhaling poisonous stuff.
II) No. It hampers the enjoyment of smoking.
Options:
Q102) State ment Should the council of ministers once appointed be kept the
same for the entire period intervening two elections?
Arguments
I) No. Shuffling of ministers and portfolios is a healthy democratic process.
II) Yes. The ministers do not get a hold on their portfolio unless they are kept for
a longer duration.
Options:

Q103) State ment Should people with educational qualification higher than the
optimum requirements be debarred from seeking jobs?
Arguments
I) No. It will further aggravate the problem of educate d unemployment.
II) Yes. It creates complexes among employees and affects the work adversely.
III) No. This goes against the basic rights of the individuals.
IV) Yes. This will increase productivity.
Options:
A) Only I and III are strong
B) All are strong
1077
C) Only II and IV are strong

D) None of these
Page

Q104) State ment Should India go in for computerization in all possible

sectors?
Arguments
I)Yes. It will bring efficiency and accuracy in the work.

II) No. It will be an injustice to the monumental human resources which are at
present underutilized.
III) No. Computerization demands a lot of money. We should not waste money
on it
Iv)Yes. When advanced countries are introducing computers in every field, how
can India afford to lag behind?
Options:
A) Only I is strong B) Only I and II are strong
C) Only I and III are strong D) Only II and III are strong
Q105) State ment Should all the school teachers be debarred for giving private
tuitions?
Arguments I) No. The needy students will be deprived of the expertise of these
teachers.
II) Yes. This is an injustice to the unemployed educated people who can earn
their living by giving tuitions.
III) Yes. Only then the quality of teaching in schools will improve.
IV) Yes. Now salary of these teachers is reasonable.
Options:
A) Only I and III are strong B) Only I, II and III are strong
C) Only III and IV are strong D) None of these
Q106) State ment Should education be made compulsory for all children up to
the age of 14?
Arguments
I) Yes. This will help to eradicate the system of forced employment of these
children.
II) Yes. This is an effective way to make the entire population educated. III) No.
We do not have adequate infrastructure to educate the entire population. IV)
Yes. This would increase the standard of living.
1078
Options:
A) All are strong B) Only I, II and III are strong
C) Only I, II and IV are strong D) Only II is strong
Page

Q107) State ment Should trade unions be banned completely?

Arguments
I) Yes. Workers can concentrate on production.
II) No. This is the only way through which employees can put their demands
before the management.
III)Yes. Employees get their illegal demands fulfilled through these unions.
IV) No. Trade unions are not banned in other economically advanced countries.
Options:
A) Only I is strong B) Only II is strong

C) Only I and II are strong D) Only I, II and III are strong
Q108) State ment Should the public sector undertakings be allowed to adopt
hire and fire policy?
Arguments
I) Yes. This will help the public sector undertakings to get rid of nonperforming
employees and reward the performing employees.
II) No. This will give an unjust handle to the management and they may use it
indiscriminately. III)Yes. This will help increase the level of efficiency of these
organizations and these will become profitable establishments.
Options:
Q109) State ment Is caste based reservation policy in professional colleges

justified?
Arguments
I) Yes. The step is a must to bring the underprivileged at par with the privileged
ones.
II) No. It obstructs the establishment of a classless society.

III) Yes. This will help the backward castes and classes of people to come out of
the oppression of upper caste people.
Options:
1079
A) Only I and II are strong

B) Only II is strong
Page

Q110) State ment Should there be a complete ban on genetically Modified

imported seeds?
Arguments
I) Yes. This will boost the demand of domestically developed seeds. No. This is
the only way
to increase production substantially.
II) Yes. Genetically modified products will adversely affect the health of those
who consume these products.
Options:
A) Only I and II are strong B) Only II is strong
Q111) State ment Should the income generated out of agricultural activities be
taxed?
Arguments
I) No. Farmers are otherwise suffering from natural calamities and low yield
coupled with low procurement price and their income should not be taxed.
II) Yes. Majority of the population is dependent on agriculture and hence their
income should be taxed to augment the resources.
III) Yes. Many big farmers earn much more than the majority of the service earn
and they should be taxed to remove the disparity.
Options:
C) Only II and III are strong D) All are strong
Q112) State ment Should all the management institutes in the country be
brought under government control?
Arguments
I) No. The government does not have adequate resources to run such institutes
effectively.
II) No. Each institute should be given freedom to function on its own.
III) Yes. This will enable to have standardized education for all the students.
IV) Yes. Only then the quality of education would be improved.
1080
Options:
A) None is strong B) Only I, II and III are strong

C) Only I and III are strong D) All are strong
Page

Q113) State ment Should the system of Lok Adalats and mobile courts be
encouraged in India?
Arguments
I) Yes It helps to grant speedy justice to the masses.
II) Yes. The dispensing of minor cases at this level would reduce the burden on
the higher courts.
III) No. These courts are usually partial in justice.
Options:
A) Only I and II are strong B) Only II and III are strong

C) Only I and III are strong D) All are strong
Q114) State ment Should India acquire/manufacture the latest nuclear

weapons?
Arguments I) Yes. The enemies of India are improving their weapons

continuously and it becomes imperative to protect the sovereignty and integrity
of the country.
II) No. Instead the money should be diverted to development activities.
III) No. The international community will isolate Indians and this will bring a
setback to Indian economy.
V) No. It will be against our policy of maintaining world peace.
Options:
A) Only I is strong B) Only I and IV are strong
C) Only I, II and IV are strong D) All are strong
Q115) State ment Should there be a complete ban on manufacture and use of
firecrackers?
Arguments
I) No. This will render thousands of workers jobless.
II) Yes. The firecracker manufacturers use child labour to a large extent. III)Yes.
This will be a concrete step to reduce noise and air pollution.
IV) No. Use of firecrackers makes certain special occasions more lively and
joyful.
Options:
1081
A) Only I and II are strong B) Only I and III are strong

C) Only III and IV are strong D) Only I, II and III are strong
Page

Q116) State ment Should literacy be the minimum criterion for becoming a
vote r in India?
Arguments
I) No. Mere literacy is no guarantee of political maturity of an individual.

II) Yes. Illiterate people are less likely to make politically wiser decisions of
voting for a right candidate or party.
III) No. Voting is the constitutional right of every citizen.
Options:
A) None is strong
C) Only III is strong
D) All are strong
Q117) State ment Should there be only few banks in place of numerous
smaller banks in India?
Arguments I) Yes. This will help secure the investors money as these big banks
will be able to withstand intermittent market related shocks.
II) No. A large number of people will lose their jobs as after the merger many
employees will be redundant.
III) Yes. This will help consolidate the entire banking industry and will lead to
healthy competition.
Options:
A) None is strong
Q118) State ment Should religion be taught in our schools?
Arguments
I) No. Ours is a secular state. II)Yes. Teaching religion helps inculcate moral
values among children.
III) No. How can one dream of such a step when we want the young generation
to fulfil its role in the 21st century.
Options:
1082
A) All are strong B) None is strong

C) Only I is strong D) Only II is strong
Page

Q119) State ment Should the parliamentary elections in India be held every
three years as against five years at present?
Arguments
I) No. This will enhance wastage of money and resources. Yes this will help the
vote rs to change nonperforming representatives without much delay.
II) No. The elected representatives will not have enough time to settle and
concentrate on developmental activities.
Options:

Q120) State ment Should the number of holidays of government employees be

reduced?
Arguments
I) Yes. Our government employees are having the maximum number of holidays
among the countries of the world.
II) Yes. It is a sign of British legacy, why should we carry it further?
III) Yes. It will speed up work and all the pending jobs can be completed well in
time. Iv)No. Employees must be given ample spare time to spend with their
family.
Options:
A) Only I and III are strong B) Only III is strong
C) Only I, III and IV are strong D) None is strong
Q121) State ment Should class IV children have Board examination?

Arguments
I) Yes. This will motivate the children to study and get higher marks, and thus
more knowledge can be imbibed at a younger age.
II) No. The children will be forced to study and wont enjoy the process.
III) Yes. In todays competitive world the children need to be prepared right from
the beginning to face such difficult examinations.
IV) No. This will add pressure on tender aged children and leave very little time
for them to play.
1083
Options:
A) All are strong B) Only I, II and IV are strong
Page
C) only II III and Iv are strong D) Only I and III are strong

Q122) State ment Should the rule of wearing helmet for both driver and pillion
rider while driving a motor bike be enforced strictly?
Arguments
I) Yes. It is a rule and rules should be followed strictly by all.
II) No. Each individual knows how to protect his own life and it should be left to
his discretion.
III) No. It does not ensure safety as only the head is protected and rest of the
body is not.
IV) Yes. It is a necessity as head, being the most sensitive organ, is protected by
the helmet.
Options:
A) None is strong B) Only I and III are strong
C) Only I and IV are strong D) Only II and IV are strong
Q123) State ment Should all the students graduating in any discipline
desirous of pursuing post graduation of the subjects of their choice be allowed
to enrol in the postgraduate courses?
Arguments
I)Yes. The students are the best judge of their capabilities and there should not
be restrictions for joining postgraduate courses.
II) No. The students need to study relevant subjects in graduate courses to enrol
in postgraduate courses and the students must fulfil such conditions.
III) No. There are not enough institutes offering postgraduate courses which can
accommodate all the graduates desirous of seeking postgraduate education of
their own choice.
Options:
C) All are strong D) None of these
Q124) State ment Should we impart sex education in schools?

Arguments
I) Yes. All the progressive nations do so.
II) No. We cannot impart it in coeducational schools.
III) Yes. It would certainly help in eradicating the existing misunderstanding and
make the younger generation physically and mentally healthier. It will destroy
the moral fabric and the highly esteemed value system which we have inherited
from our fore fathers.
1084
Options:
A) None is strong B) Only I, III and IV are strong

C) Only II III, and IV are strong D) None of these
Page

Q125) State ment Should coal engines be replaced by electric engines in

trains?
Arguments
I) Yes. Coal engines cause a lot of pollution.
II) Yes. Electric engines are good on performance, easy to operate and low on
maintenance.
III) No. India does not produce enough electricity to fulfil its domestic needs
also.
Options:
A) All are strong B) Only I and II are strong
Q126) State mentShould all those who are convicted for heinous crimes like
murder or rape, beyond all reasonable doubts be given capital punishment or
death penalty?
Arguments
I) No. The death penalty should be given only in very rare and exceptional cases.
II) Yes. This is the only way to punish such people who take others lives or
indulge in inhuman activities.
III)Yes. Such severe punishments only will make people refrain from such
heinous acts and the society will be safer.
IV) No. Those who are repentant for the crime they committed should be given a
chance to improve and lead a normal life.
Options:
A) Only II and IV are strong B) All are strong
C) Only III is strong D) Only II and III are strong
Q127) State ment Should all the profit making public sector units be sold to
private companies?
Arguments
I) Yes. This will help the government to augment its resources for implementing
the development programmes .
II) No. The private companies will not be able to run these units effectively.
III) Yes. There will be a significant improvement in the quality of services.

IV) No. There would not be job security for the employees at all the levels.
1085
Options:
A) Only II and III are strong B) All are strong
C) Only III and IV are strong D) Only I, II and III are strong
Page

Q128) State ment Should all the youngsters below 21 years of age be
disallowed from going to a beer bar?
Arguments
I)No. It is not correct to prevent matured youngsters above 18 years of age who
can vote , from having fun.
II) Yes. The entry fee to such pubs should also be hiked.
III) No. There is no such curb in western countries.
IV) Yes. This will help in preventing youngsters from getting into bad company
and imbibing bad habits.
Options:
A) Only I is strong B) Only I and III are strong
C) Only III and IV are strong D) Only I and IV are strong
Q129) State ment Should the government ban all forms of protests including
strikes and processions?
Arguments
I) Yes. This is the only way to teach discipline to the employees.
II) No. Government cannot deprive its citizens of their basic rights.
III) Yes. This is the only way to ensure maximum productivity without
disruption of work.
Options:
Q130) State ment Should children be prevented completely from watching

television?
Arguments
I) No. We get vital information regarding education through television.
II) Yes. It hampers the study of children.

III) Yes young children are misguided by certain programmes featuring sex and
violence.
IV) No. This is the only way to educate the masses.
Options:
1086
A) Only I, II and III are strong B) Only I is strong

C) Only I, II and IV are strong D) Only I and II are strong
Page

Q131) State ment Should mercy death be legalized, i.e., all those who are
suffering from terminal diseases be allowed to end their lives if they so desire?
Arguments
I) No. Nobody should be allowed to end his/her life at his/her will as this goes
against the basic tenets of humanity.
II) Yes. Patients undergoing terrible suffering and having absolutely no chance of
recovery should be liberated from suffering through mercy death. III) No. Even
mercy death is a sort of killing and killing can never be legalized.
Options:
Q132) State ment Should seniority be the only criterion for the promotion?
Arguments
I) No. It would be an injustice to those juniors who are more deserving and
suitable for higher positions than their senior counterparts.
II) Yes. Otherwise senior employees do feel humiliated.
III)Yes. Senior employees are more experienced and must be rewarded for the
same.
Options:
A) None is strong B) Only I is strong
C) Only I and III are strong D) Only I and II are strong
Q133) State ment Should admission to all professional courses be made on the
basis of past academic performance rather than through entrance tests?
Arguments
I) Yes. It will be beneficial for those candidates who are unable to bear the
expenses of entrance tests.
II)Yes. Many deserving candidates securing high marks in their qualifying

academic examinations do not perform well on such entrance tests. III)No. The
standard of examinations and assessment conducted by different Boards and
universities are not comparable and hence there is a need to conduct entrance
tests to calibrate them on a common yardstick.
Options:
1087
A) Only I and II are strong B) Only II and III are strong

C) Only I and III are strong D) Only III is strong
Page

Q134) State ment Should there be reservation of jobs in the organizations in

the private sector also as in the public sector undertakings in India?
Arguments
I) Yes. This would give more opportunities of development to the weaker sections
of the society and thus help reduce the gap between the affluent and the
downtrodden in India.
II) No. The private sector does not get any government assistance and therefore
they should not be saddled with such policies.
III) No. Nowhere else in the world such a practice is being followed.
IV) No. The management of the private sector undertaking would not agree to
such compulsions.
Options:
C) Only I, II and IV are strong D) Only I and IV are strong
Q135) State ment Should workers/employees be allowed to participate in the

management of factories in India?
Arguments
I) Yes. It is the present management theory.
II) No. Many workers are illiterate and so their contributions will not be of any
value.
III) Yes. Employees owned companies generally have higher productivity.
IV) No. Employee union ownership drives up salaries and wages.
Options:
A) Only I and II are strong B) None is strong
Q136) State ment Should women be given equal opportunity in the matter of
employment in every field?
Arguments
I) Yes. They are equally capable. II) No. They have to shoulder household
res ponsibilities. III)Yes. They should also go into the outside world.
Options:
A) Only I is strong
1088

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Q137) State ment Should government established higher level Institutes of

Technology (IITs) be privatized?
Arguments
I) Yes. Privatization will make these institutes financially healthy, competitive

and quality conscious.
II) Yes. Privatization is the key of the new era can we survive without it?
III) No. Standard of education of these institutes will fall.
Options:
A) None is strong
B) All are strong
C) Only I is strong
Q138) State ment Are nuclear families better than joint families?
Arguments
I) No. Joint families ensure security and also reduce the burden of work.
II) Yes. Nuclear families ensure greater freedom.
Options:
Q139) State ment Should government stop spending huge amounts of money
on international sports?
Arguments
I) Yes. This money can be utilized for upliftment of the poor.
II) No. Sports persons will be frustrated and will not get international exposure.
Options:
1089
Page

Q140) State ment Should the railways immediately stop issuing free passes to
all its employees?
Arguments
I) No. The employees have the right to travel free.

II) Yes. This will help railways to provide better facility.
Options:
Q141) State ment Should there be compulsory medical examination of both the
man and the woman before they marry each other?
Arguments
I) No. This is an intrusion to the privacy of an individual and hence cannot be
tolerated. II)Yes. This will substantially reduce the risk of giving birth to children
with serious ailments.
Options:

Q142) State ment Should there be a ban on product advertising?

Arguments
I) No. It is an age of advertising. Unless your advertisement is better than your
other competitors, the product will not be sold.
II)Yes. The money spent on advertising is very huge and it inflates the cost of the
product.
Options:
1090
Page

Q143) State ment Should luxury hotels be banned in India?

Arguments
I)Yes. They are places from where international criminals operate.
II) No. Affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay.

Options:
Q144) State ment Should shifting agriculture be practiced?

Arguments I) No. It is a wasteful practice II)Yes. Modern methods of farming
are too expensive.
Options:
Q145) State mentshould our country extend generous behaviour and goodwill
to our erring and nagging neighbours?
Arguments
I) Yes. Goodwill always pays dividend.
II) No. Our gene rous behaviour and goodwill will be considered as our weakness.
Options:
Q146) State ment Is pen mightier than a sword?

Arguments
I) Yes. Writers influence the thinking of the people.

II) No. With the help of physical force one can conquer all.
Options:
1091

Page

Q147) State ment: Should education be given by the government free of charge?
Arg. I : Yes, it will help in universalization of education in the country.
Arg. I I: No, there will be budgetary deficit creating some new problems.
Options:
A) I is strong B) only argument II is strong
C) both the arguments are strong D) neither I nor II is strong
Q148) State ment: Should students study in early hours of morning?
Arg. I : Yes, mind is fresh and alert at that time.

Arg. I I: No, early risers feel sleepy throughout the day.
Options:
A) only I is strong B) only argument II is strong
Q149) State ment: Should the government stop aiding to minority institutions of
education?
Arg. I : Yes, their poor quality as well as quantity of education is wasting the
fund.
Arg. I I: No, ruling party will lose its vote bank in the coming elections.
Options:
A) only I is strong
B) only argument II is strong
C) both the arguments are strong
D) neither I nor II is strong
Q150) State ment: Should workers be allowed to participate in the management

of factories in India?
Arg. I : Yes, it is the present management theory.
Arg. I I: No, many workers are illiterate and their contribution will not be of
value.
Options:
A) only I is strong
1092

Page

Q151) State ment: Should the political parties be banned?

Arg. I : Yes, it is necessary to teach a lesson to the politicians.
Arg. I I: No, it will lead to an end of democracy.
Options:
A) only I is strong
Q152) State ment: Should India have nuclear weapons?

Arg. I : Yes, it is necessary to protect the sovereignty and integrity of the country.
Arg. I I: No, this will disturb the balance of power in the region.
Options:
A) only I is strong
Q153) State ment: The educated people should work in villages.

Arg. I : Yes, because they can revolutionarize agriculture and revamp the rural
atmos phere.
Arg. I I: No, because their education might wastes there in villages.
Options:
A) only I is strong
Q154) State ment: Should the health care services be nationalized

Arg. I : Yes, it has been done elsewhere in the world.
Arg. I I No, the quality of health care services will deteriorate.
Options:
1093
A) only I is strong
Page

Q155) State ment: Should guides published by private agencies be banned?

Arg. I : Yes, because only then students will start reading text books.
Arg. I I: No, because they are of immense help for weak students at the eleventh
hour.
Options:
A) only I is strong
Q156) State ment: Agriculture in India should be mechanized.

Arg. I : Yes, it would lead to higher production.
Arg. I I: No, many villagers would be left unemployed.
Options:
A) only I is strong
Q157) State ment: Should public meeting and conferences be banned in the
country?
Arg. I : Yes, it is the place where, opponents are abused
Arg. I I: No, it is against fundamental rights given to citizens of India.
Options:
A) only I is strong
Q158) State ment: Should sex education be given in schools?

Arg. I : Yes, it is given in western countries.
Arg. I I: No, it is naturally gained when children grow into adolescence.
Options:
1094

Page

Q159) State ment: Should drivers be prohibited to consume liquors?

Arg. I : Yes, it reduces the chance of uncontrolled driving of vehicles.
Arg. I I: No, it adds to stamina in them.
Options:
A) only I is strong
Q160) State ment: Should income tax be evaded by the people?

Arg. I : Yes, the rate of income tax is very high.
Arg. I I: No, it is illegal and unlawful.
Options:
A) only I is strong
Q161) State ment: Should state lotteries be stopped?

Arg. I : Yes, government should not promote gambling habits
Arg. I I: No, government will have to suffer loss of revenue.
Options:
A) only I is strong
Q162) State ment: Should primary teacher's salary be raised?
Arg. I : Yes, it will encourage and motivate them to teach in a better way.
Arg. I I: No, it will increase financial pressures on the government.
Options:
A) only I is strong
1095

Page

Q163) State ment: Does the survival of the fittest dictum fit today?
Arg. I : Yes, weak have very poor chance of achieving anything in the present day
world of competition.
Arg. I I: No, we are not living in the stone age now.
Options:
Q164) State ment: Is the youngest child happy when a new baby takes birth in
the family?
Arg. I : Yes, it is exciting for him to have a new member in the family.
Arg. I I: No, he becomes jealous of the new born.
Options:
Q165) State ment: Should caste system be banned in the Indian society?
Arg. I : Yes, it is a heavy barrier in the way of speedy development of the country
Arg. I I: No, it will give chance to low caste people to run the government through
elections.
Options:
Q166) State ment: Should private sector be permitted to enter into the public
utility services?
Arg. I : Yes, they are doing well in advanced western countries.
Arg. I I: No, it is risky to put these services in private hands.
Options:
Q167) State ment: Should articles of only deserving authors be allowed to be
published?
Arg. I : Yes, it will save a lot of paper which falls short of supply.
Arg. I I: No, it is not possible to draw a demarcation between the deserving and
the undeserving authors.
1096
Options:
Page

Q168) State ment: Should military training be made incumbent on all school and
college going students?
Arg. I : Yes, it will inculcate discipline among them.
Arg. I I: No, it. will bring regimentation in education.

Options:
Q169) State ment: Should India support economic liberalization?

Arg. I : Yes, it will boost up industrial development lea ding to more supply of the
commodity and low price.
Arg. I I: No, it is against the Nehru's dream of democratic socialism.
Options:

Q170) State ment: Should the duration of the parliamentary government be

increased?
Arg. I : Yes, it will reduce the expenses on elections and also reduce inflation.
Arg. I I: No, it will take longer time to change a ruling party even if it is corrupt.
Options:
A) only I is strong
Q171) State ment: Should movies full of violence be telecasted?

Arg. I : Yes, because children will adopt such behaviour from films
Arg. I I: No, because violence is the heart and soul of all pictures.
Options:
A) only I is strong
1097

Page

Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) A, Q3) A,
Q4) D, Q5) A, Q6) B, Q7) D, Q8) D,
Q9) D, Q10) B, Q11) D, Q12) C, Q13) A,
Q14) A, Q15) B, Q16) D, Q17) B, Q18) C,
Q19) D, Q20) A, Q21) B, Q22) B, Q23) D,
Q24) D, Q25) A, Q26) B, Q27) D, Q28) B,
Q29) D, Q30) A, Q31) A, Q32) D, Q33) A,
Q34) A, Q35) B, Q36) B, Q37) A, Q38) B,
Q39) C, Q40) D, Q41) C, Q42) A, Q43) B,
Q44) B, Q45) A, Q46) D, Q47) B, Q48) D,
Q49) B, Q50) B, Q51) D, Q52) D, Q53) A,
Q54) D, Q55) D, Q56) A, Q57) A, Q58) B,
Q59) D, Q60) D, Q61) A, Q62) B, Q63) B,
Q64) B, Q65) A, Q66) B, Q67) C, Q68) A,
Q69) D, Q70) D, Q71) A, Q72) B, Q73) A,
Q74) D, Q75) A, Q76) A, Q77) A, Q78) B,
Q79) B, Q80) A, Q81) B, Q82) D, Q83) D,
Q84) C, Q85) B, Q86) D, Q87) A, Q88) D,
Q89) C, Q90) C, Q91) B, Q92) A, Q93) A,
Q94) A, Q95) B, Q96) B, Q97) B, Q98) D,
Q99) A, Q100) D, Q101) A, Q102) D, Q103) D,
Q104) A, Q105) D, Q106) D, Q107) B, Q108) D,
Q109) B, Q110) B, Q111) C, Q112) A, Q113) A,
Q114) A, Q115) B, Q116) D, Q117) A, Q118) D,
Q119) D, Q120) B, Q121) C, Q122) C, Q123) D,
Q124) D, Q125) B, Q126) C, Q127) C, Q128) D,
Q129) C, Q130) B, Q131) D, Q132) B, Q133) D,
Q134) A, Q135) C, Q136) D, Q137) C, Q138) D,
Q139) B, Q140) D, Q141) B, Q142) D, Q143) B,
Q144) A, Q145) D, Q146) A, Q147) C, Q148) A,
Q149) A, Q150) B, Q151) B, Q152) A, Q153) A,
Q154) D, Q155) B, Q156) A, Q157) B, Q158) D,
Q159) A, Q160) B, Q161) D, Q162) A, Q163) A,
Q164) B, Q165) A, Q166) D, Q167) B, Q168) B,
Q169) C, Q170) B, Q171) A,
1098
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Explanations:
Q147) Argument I follows because those who are unable to get education due to
monetary problems, will get, if it is made free of charge, and argument II is also
strong because it will require additional budget increasing financial
Q148) After sound sleep mind becomes fresh and alert.
Q149) It is a fact based on researches that quality as well as quantity of
education in minority institutions, barring a few, is extremely poor because of
many reasons as compared to governments' institutions. If we compare the
achievement with money invested it is less than 1/10th. So argument first is
strong. Second argument is not strong because ruling party must act in
accordance with the general welfare of the people disregarding its vote bank.
Q150) A rule which is supported by a theory does not suit to all circumstances.
So argument I is not strong but argument II is really a fact at least in India
where literacy is not more than 50% while management require fine piece of
education.
Q151) Argument II is strong because where there are no political parties there is
no democracy.
Q152) Having a nuclear weapon is one thing and using it indiscriminately is
another thing. So argument I is strong but II one is not strong because some
other countries of the region does also have it.
Q153) Argument I is strong because by using their education properly they can
revolutionarize agriculture and revamp rural atmosphere. It does not mean that
their education is being wasted there.
Q154) A thing which is considered good elsewhere in the world cannot

necessarily be good for us. Thus imitation of a model cannot be the base of an
argument and nationalized health cal. e services are not always attached with
poor health service. So argument II is also weak.
Q155) If agencies stop publishing guide books it is not necessary that students
will go through text books. Study habits are related to other variables like
intelligence, socio-economic status, aim of life etc. On the other hand there is no
doubt that guides are helpful for weak students. So argument II is strong.
Q156) Mechanization in agriculture does not mean that many people will lose
their jobs. Mechanization generally helps in reducing the use of animals in
agriculture.
Q157) Right to freedom of expression is a fundamental right. So argument II is
strong but argument I is weak because it rarely happens that opponents are
abused in public meetings and conferences.
1099
Q158) The culture of India is very much different from that of the western
countries. So whatever is liked there may not be necessarily regarded good here.
Moreover, children need not such type of education but they are adults who
Page

should be imparted sex education. Knowledge of sex in real sense is not an

innate process.
Q159) Controlled driving cannot be done in the state of intoxication. So
argument I is strong but argument II is weak. Consuming liquor does increase
stamina for a while but after that it crashes the nervous system.
Q160) The rate of income tax is really very high but even then we should not
evade it because it is against law.
Q161) Both the arguments are not strong
Q162) Study shows that salary of the teacher has great impact on their
professional ability and motivation. So argument I is really strong .
Q163) Competition always leads to the survival of the fittest.
Q164) Second argument is more appealing and based on the observations than
that of the 1.
Q165) Division of society on the basis of caste is really a hard stone in the way
of speedy low of social and political functioning so argument I is strong but
argument II does not follow because banning of caste system is one thing and
people's attitude toward it, is another thing. Moreover low caste people are
already running the government at various levels thus caste system bear little
impact on this issue.
Q166) The condition of a developing country is entirely different as compared to
a developed nation. So argument I is not strong and argument II is also weak
because private sector is doing well in many economic areas and their credibility
is unquestionable.
Q167) It is clear from the second argument that there is no way of identifying
deserving authors. If the criteria of deserving and non-deserving authors are the
significance of their articles, the question of investigating into the author does
not arise. So argument I is weak and II one is strong.
Q168) Argument I is weak which is evident from the II argument which is really
strong. Moreover, the discipline which is there in military, is different from the
discipline that we want in colleges as well as in the society. It will definitely
increase regimentation because everyone does not like military training and his
freedom of choice is challenged here.
Q169) First argument is based on economic principles and laws while the
second one has its origin into history and politics.
Q170) Expenses on election are not the sole cause of inflation so argument I is
weak but argument II is strong because when a ruling party is not acting
satisfactorily we can change it through elections and do away with it by popular
1100
votes.
Q171) Only argument I is strong, because such movies create the attitude of
violence especially in adults.
Page

Statement & Assumption:
Q1) Ravi is too intelligent to fail in the examination.

Assumption I: Very intelligent boys do not fail in the examinations.
Assumption II: Those who are not intelligent at all may fail in the examinations.
Options:
A) assumption I is implicit B) assumption II is implicit,
C) both I and II are implicit D) neither of them is implicit.
Q2) Crop condition continues to be critical before rains.
Assumption I: It is expected to improve after rain.

Assumption II: Unless it rains no change in crop condition is likely to be.
Options:
Q3) Let the government increase the present rate of taxation to recover the
deficit in the budget.
Assumption I: Present rate of taxes is very low.
Assumption II: If government wants to get away with the budgetary deficit it
should increase tax rate.
Options:
Q4) Go by airplane from Delhi to Chennai to reach quickly.

Assumption I: Delhi and Chennai are connected by air services.
Assumption II: There is no other means of going from Delhi to Chennai.
Options:
A) assumption I is implicit
B) assumption II is implicit,
1101
C) both I and II are implicit

D) neither of them is implicit.
Page

Q5) Indian scientists working abroad do not come back and serve their
motherland.
Assumption I: India lacks such highly sophisticated labs, instruments and other
amenities as they have there.
Assumption II: India cannot afford to pay them as much as they get there.
Options:
Q6) Some patients die because of sheer negligence.

Assumption I: Negligence kills the patient.
Assumption II: They are neglected by doctors nor by their family.

Options:
Q7) If you have any problem, bring them to me.

Assumption I: I am able to solve any of your problems.
Assumption II: You don't have any problem.
Options:
Q8) Successful man has the ability to judge himself correctly.

Assumption I: Successful man cannot make a wrong judgment.
Assumption II: To judge others is of no use for successful man.
Options:
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Q9) Every mature citizen of India exercises adult franchise.

Assumption I: Children are entitled to cast their votes.
Assumption II: Adult suffrage is related to those who are grown up.
Options:
Q10) Everybody likes reading "Alif Laila".

Assumption I: Alif Laila is the only important reading mate rial.
Assumption II: Alif Laila is an interesting story.
Options:
Q11) Himalaya drugs improve haemoglobin keeping the complexion fair and
glaring.
Assumption I: People like fair and glaring complexion.
Assumption II: Complexion becomes dull and dark owing to the deficiency of
haemoglobin.
Options:
Q12) Warning: Cigarette smoking is injurious to health.

Assumption I: Non-smoking promotes health.
Assumption II: This warning is not necessary at all.
Options:
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Q13) Of all the newspapers published in India `The Hindu' has the largest
number of readers.
Assumption I: The volume of readership of all newspapers in India is known.
Assumption II: No newspaper in India other than 'The Hindu' has a large
readership.
Options:
Q14) Opening a sports centre in Aligarh is of no use.

Assumption I: Inhabitants of. Aligarh have no interest in games.
Assumption II: Sports have lost its credibility today.

Options:
Q15) Although the city was under knee deep of water for a week in this
monsoon, there was no outbreak of cholera.
Assumption I: Cholera spreads usually in monsoon.
Assumption II: Water concentration at a place leads to cholera.

Options:
1104
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Answers:
Q1) C, Q2) C, Q3) B, Q4) A, Q5) C,
Q6) B, Q7) A, Q8) D, Q9) B, Q10) B,
Q11) C, Q12) D, Q13) A, Q14) A, Q15) C,
Explanations:
Q1) Too intelligent means very intelligent so assumption I is implicit. On the
other hand if someone is very much intelligent he rarely fails and that who is
not intelligent at all may fail. So assumption II is also implicit.
Q2) Crop is dependent on rains. Whatever problem the crop faces ceases to be
after rains. Thus any improvement in crop condition is directly related to rains.
If it does not rain its condition will continue to be critical. Thus both the
assumptions are implicit.
Q3) There are many reasons behind budgetary deficits. Thus if the rate of tax is
low even then it cannot be said that deficit is the product of low tax rate. In this
way first assumption is not implicit but II one is implicit as taxes are a good
source of finance to cover the deficit.
Q4) One is suggested to go to Chennai from Delhi by airplane. It means both the
cities are connected by air services. But the word 'quickly' used in the statement
clarifies that there are other means of transportation also. So only assumption I
is implicit.
Q5) Both are the genuine reasons that is why they do not come back here.
Q6) The assumption I is not implicit because statement is "I" premise while
assumption is A premise.
Q7) If someone is able to solve a problem only then he will say like that, but
assumption II is not implicit at all.
Q8) Successful man judge himself correctly but it does not mean that he will
never have wrong judgment. Assumption II is also not implicit because if he
judges others he may or may not be a successful man.
Q9) Adult suffrage is related to youths so children are not entitled to it. But
assumption II is implicit because grown up means those adults who are grown
up.
Q10) Assumption I is not implicit because `only' is not there in the statement
but assumption II is implicit because reading a material is. liked by all only
when it is interesting or significant from any point of view.
Q11) Complexion is directly related to haemoglobin. Those who do not have fair
1105
and glaring complexion feel concern over the problem and uses Himalaya drugs
in order to improve haemoglobin and hence maintain complexion
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Q12) Both of the assumptions are not implicit because those' who are not
addicted to smoking are not necessarily healthy. It means that smoking has no
doubt, ill effect on health but non-smoking does not necessarily promote health,
because of this reason warning is necessary.
Q13) Assumption I is implicit because unless we know the volume of readership
of all newspapers we cannot conclude about the popularity of a particular
newspaper. Here the study is comparative in nature so we cannot say on the
basis of only this meagre information that other newspapers has less number of
readers. Thus assumption II is not implicit.
Q14) He re only assumption I is implicit because people of Aligarh have no
interest in games so sports centre is of no use here. Assumption II does not
relate with the statement at all so this is not implicit.
Q15) Although there was water logging, yet there was not outbreak of cholera. It
means water logging leads to cholera. And water logging is usually seen in
monsoon so cholera and monsoon are also related.
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Statement & Conclusion:
Q1) Consider below statements

a) No Cloud is Bird.
b) Some Goats are Birds.
c) All Cars are Goats.
Conclusions
I)No Car is Cloud.
II) Some Cars are Birds.
III) No Bird is Car. Some Clouds are Goats.
Options:
A) Only III follows B) Only either II or III follows
C) Only I follows D) Only I and either II or III follow
a) All Grapes are Bananas.

b) All Potatoes are Bananas.
c) Some Bananas are Mangoes.
Conclusions
I)No Grape is Mango.
II) Some Potatoes are not Mangoes.
III) Some Grapes are Potatoes.
IV) All Mangoes are Grapes.
Options:
A) Either I or III follows B) Only II & III follow
C) Only I, II & III follow D) None of these
Q3) Consider the following statements

a) All medicines are tablets b) Some tablets are tonics
c) Some tonics are bitter
Conclusions
I)Some tablets are bitter II) No medicine is a tonic
Options:
1107
A) Only I follow B) Either I or II follow

C) Only II follows D) None follows
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a) Some Cats are Rats.
b) Some Rats are Ants.
c) Some Ants are Flies.
Conclusions I) Some Flies are Cats.
II) Some Flies are not Ants.
III)No Rat is Fly.
IV) No Cat is Fly.
Options:
A) Only II follows B) Only I & III follow
C) Only I or IV follows D) None of these
a) All Chalks are Dusters

b) Some Chalks are Boards.
c) Some Dusters are Pens
Conclusions
I) Some Pens are Chalks.
II)Some Dusters are Boards.
III) Some Pens are Boards.
IV) All Chalks are Pens..
Options:
A) Either I or IV follows B) Either I or IV & II follow
C) Only II follows D) None of these

a) All incomes are salaries
b)Some salaries are perks
c) Some perks are tangible
Conclusions
I)Some incomes are tangible
II)At least some perks are salaries
Options:
A) Only I follow
B) Either I or II follow
1108
C) Only II follows
D) None follows
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a) Some Bags are Books.
b) All Books are Boxes.
c) No Box is Board.
Conclusions
I) Some Bags are not Boards.
II)Some Bags are not Boxes.
III) All Bags are Boxes.
IV) No Bag is Board.
Options:
A) either II or III follows B) Only IV follows
C) Only II follows D) None of these

a) Some streets are roads.
b) Some roads are lanes.
c) Some lanes are highway
Conclusions
I) Some roads are not streets.
II) No highway is street.
III) Some streets are not roads.
IV) Some lanes are not roads.
Options:
A) Only III follows B) Only IV and III follow

C) Both I and III follow D) None of these

a) All roses are red
b) Some red are colour

c) All colour are paints
Conclusions I)Some red are paints
II)All red are roses
Options:
A) Only I follow
1109
C) Only II follows
D) None follows
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a) Some pencils are pens.
b) All pens are erasers.
c) All staplers are erasers.
Conclusions
I) Some pens are not pencils.
II)All erasers are pencils.
III) Some staplers are pens.
IV) Some staplers are pencils.
Options:
A) Only I follows B) Only III follows
C) Only IV follows D) None of these

a) Some tables are chairs.
b) No cupboard is table.
c) Some chairs are cupboards.
Conclusions
I)Some chairs are not tables.
II)All chairs are either tables or cupboard
III) Some chairs are both tables and cupboards.
IV) All chairs are tables.
Options:
A) Only I and IV follow

B) Only IV follows
C) Either II or III & I follow
D) None of these
Q12) Consider the following statement a) Some casual are formal

b) All formal are expensive c) All expensive are elegant ConclusionsI) All formal
are elegant
II) Some causal are expensive
Options:
A) Only I follow
1110
C) Only II follows
D) Both I and II follows
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a) All birds are animals.
b) Some animals are humans.
c) All humans are mammals.
Conclusions
I)Some humans are not birds.
II)Some birds are humans.
III)Some animals are not mammals.
IV) All animals are mammals.
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Either I or II follows
C) Either I or II and either III or V follow D) None of these

a) Some leaves are fruits.
b) All branches are fruits.
c) Some roots are branches
Conclusions
I) Some roots are fruits.
II) Some branches are leaves.
III) No leaf is branch.
IV) Some leaves are roots.
Options:
A) Either II or III and I follow B) Only I follows

C) Only I and III follow D) None of these

a) All books are notes.
b) Some notes are pencils.
c) No pencil is paper.
Conclusions
I) Some notes are books.
II)Some pencils are
III) Some books are paper
IV) No book is a paper
Options:
1111
A) Only I follows B) Only I and either III or IV follow

C) Either III or IV follows D) None of these
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a) All towns are cities
b) All cities are urban
c) Some urban are rural
Conclusions
I) Some towns are rural
II) All rural are towns
Options:

C) Only II follows D) Neither I nor II follow

a) Some cups are utensils.
b) No utensil is a bucket.
c) All buckets are plates.
Conclusions
I) Some cups are buckets.
II) Some utensils are plates.
III)No utensil is a plate.
IV) Some cups are plates.
Options:
A) Only I follows B) Only III follows
C) Either II or III follows D) None of these

a) Some keys are locks.
b) All locks are doors.
c) Some doors are windows.
Conclusions
I)Some locks are windows.
II)Some windows are keys.
III)Some windows are doors.
IV) No window is a lock.
Options:
A) Either I or IV follows
1112
B) Only II follows
C) Only III and IV follow
D) None of these
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Q19) Consider the following statements Some trains are cars

b) All cars are branches
c) All branches are nets
d) Some nets are dresses
Conclusions
I) Some dresses are cars
II) Some nets are trains
III)Some branches are trains
IV)Some dresses are trains
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) Both I and II follows

a) All pins are staplers.
b) Some staplers are sharpeners.
c) Some sharpeners are stands.
Conclusions
I)Some staplers are stands.
II)Some sharpeners are pins.
III)Some pins are stands.
IV)Some stands are sharpeners.
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Only II and IV follow

Q21) Consider the following statement

a) All papers are clips
b) Some clips are boards
c) Some boards are lanes
d) All lanes are roads
Conclusions
I) Some roads are boards
II) Some lanes are clips
III) Some boards are papers
IV) Some roads are clips
1113
Options:
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a) Some oranges are apples.
b) All apples are guavas.
c) No guava is a banana
Conclusions
I) Some guavas are oranges.
II) No apple is a banana
III) Some oranges are bananas.
IV) Some apples are bananas.
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Only I and either II or IV follow
C) Only I, II and IV follow D) Only III and either II or IV follow

a) Some spectacles are boxes
b) No bat is a ball.
c) Some boxes are balls.
Conclusions
I) Some boxes are not bats.
II) Some bats are spectacles.
III) No bat is a box.
IV) No ball is a spectacle.
Options:
A) Only I follows B) Only 1 & III follow

C) Only II and III follow D) None of these

a) All pens are clocks
b) Some clocks are tyres
c) Some tyres are wheels
d) Some wheels are buses
Conclusions
I) Some buses are tyres
II) Some wheels are clocks
III) Some wheels are pens
IV) Some buses are clocks
1114
Options:
A) Only I follow B) Either I or IV follow
Page
C) Only II and III follow D) None follows


a) All fans are tube lights.
b) No pen is a bulb
c) Some bulbs are fans.
Conclusions
I) Some pens are tube lights.
II) No pens are tube lights.
III) Some tube lights are fans.
IV) All tube lights are fans.
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Either I or II and III follow
C) Only III and IV follow D) None of these

a)All stones are hammers No hammer is ring
b) Some rings are doors
c) All doors are windows
Conclusions
I) Some windows are stones
II) Some windows are rings No window is stone
III) Some rings are stones
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) II and either I or III follow

a) Some fruits are vegetables.
b) All liquids are drinks.
c) All drinks are fruits.
Conclusions
I) Some drinks are vegetables.
II) Some fruits are liquids.
III) All liquids are fruits.
IV) No liquids are vegetables.
Options:
1115
A) Only I and II follow

B) Only II and III follow
C) Only I, II & III follow
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D) None of these


a) Some desks are chairs
b) All chairs are tables
c) Some tables are mats
Conclusions
I) Some mats are desks
II) Some tables are desks
III) Some mats are chairs
Options:
A) Only II follow B) Either I or II follow
a) All shirts are trousers.

b) Some socks are shoes.
c) All shoes are shirts.
Conclusions
I) Some socks are shirts.
II) Some socks are trousers.
III) All shoes are trousers.
IV) All shoes are socks.
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Only II and IV follow

a) Some books are papers.
b) All plates are records.
c) Some records are books.
Conclusions
I) Some plates are books.
II) Some records are papers.
III) Some papers are plates.
IV) Some books are records.
Options:
1116
A) Only II and III follow

B) Only I and III follow
C) Only IV follows
Page
D) None of these


a) All sweets are fruits
b) No fruit is pencil
c) Some pencils are glasses
Conclusions
I) Some glasses are sweets
II)Some pencils are sweets No glass is sweet
Options:


a) Some ice are ring.
b) No ring is paint.
c) Some rings are gold.
Conclusions
I) No gold is paint.
II) No ice is gold.
III) Some rings are paints.
IV) All golds are rings.
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Only III and IV follow

a) All gates are flowers.
b) Some gates are fruits.
c) Some flowers are clips.
Conclusions
I)Some flowers are fruits.
II) Some clips are fruits
III) Some clips are gates.
IV) No flower is fruit.
Options:
A) Only I follows
1117
B) Only I and IV follow

C) Only II and IV follow
D) Only I and III follow
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a) Some books are flowers
b) Some flowers are chains
c) Some chains are hammers
Conclusions
I) Some hammers are flowers
II) Some chains are books
III) Some hammers are books
Options:
C) Only II and I follow D) None follows
a) No candle is bell.
b) Some shoes are bells.
c) All tables are shoes.
Conclusions
I) Some tables are bells.
II) No table is bell.
III) Some shoes are candles.
IV) No shoe is a candle.
Options:
A) Only I and IV follow B) Only III and IV follow
C) Only II and IV follow D) None of these

a) Some films are clouds.
b) All rats are clouds.
c) Some clouds are chairs.
Conclusions
I) No film is chair.
II) Some rats are films.
III) Some clouds are rats.
IV) Some chairs are rats.
Options:
1118
A) Only I and III follow

B) No conclusion follows
C) Only IV follows
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D) None of these


a) All roofs are cameras
b) Some cameras are photographs
c) Some photographs are stores
Conclusions
I) Some stores are cameras
II) Some stores are roofs
III) Some cameras are roofs
Options:
A) Only III follow B) Either I or II follow
a) Some cups are slates.

b) All slates are apples.
c) No apple is a car.
Conclusions
I)Some cars are slates.
II) Some cups are cars.
III) Some apples are cups.
IV) No car is a cup.
Options:
A) Only III follows B) Only IV follows
C) Either II or IV & III follow D) None of these

a) All buds are bells.
b) Some buds are cakes.
c )Some bells are sponges.
Conclusions
I) Some cakes are sponges.
II) Some bells are buds.
III) Some sponges are not cakes.
IV) Some bells are not sponges.
Options:
1119
A) Only either 1 or III and II follow

B) Only II and III follow
C) Only either I or IV and II follow
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D) None of these


a) Some nails are horses
b) All horses are tablets
c) All tablets are crows
Conclusions
I) Some crows are nails
II) Some tablets are nails
III) Some crows are horses
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) All I, II and III follow
a) No machine is a fly.
b) Some flies are colours.
c) All colours are sweets.
Conclusions
I) Some machines are colours.
II) All sweets are colours.
III) Some sweets are flies.
IV) No sweet is a machine.
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Only IV follows
C) Only III follows D) None of these

a) Some kings are cars.
b) Some cars are bottles.
c) No bottle is a lemon.
Conclusions
I) Some cars are lemons.
II) No king is a lemon.
III) Some kings are bottles.
IV) All cars are either kings or bottles.
Options:
1120
A) Only either 1 or II and III follow

B) Only III or IV follows
C) Only IV follows
Page
D) None of these


a) Some goats are hammers.
b) All hammers are diamonds.
c) No diamond is green.
Conclusions
I) No goat is green.
II) Some diamonds are hammers.
III) Some goats are diamonds.
IV) Some greens are hammers.
Options:
A) Only I and IV follow B) Only II and IV follow
C) Only II and III follow D) Only either II or III and I follow

a) All buildings are towers
b) All towers are roads
c) All roads are huts
Conclusions
I) Some roads are buildings
II) All towers are huts
III) All huts are roads
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Either I or II follow

a) Some cars are mopeds.
b) Some mopeds are hills.
c) All pencils are mopeds.
Conclusions
I) All pencils are hills.
II) Some pencils are cars.
III) Some cars are hills.
IV) Some pencils are not cars.
Options:
1121
A) Only I follows
B) Only either II or IV follows
C) Only I or III follows
Page
D) Only I and IV follow


a) Some pages are papers.
b) Some papers are magazines.
c) All magazines are books.
Conclusions
I) Some books are magazines.
II) Some books are papers.
III ) Some magazines are pages.
IV) Some pages are magazines.
Options:
A) All follow B) Only I and III follow

a) All windows are doors.
b) No door is a lock.
c) Some locks are keys.
Conclusions
I) Some locks are doors.
II) Some locks are not doors.
III) Some keys are not doors.
IV) All doors are windows.
Options:
A) All follow B) Only either I or II follows

C) None follows D) None of these

a) Some shirts are coats.
b) All coats are jackets.
C)Some jackets are trousers.
Conclusions
I) Some shirts are jackets.
II) Some jackets are shirts.
III) All trousers are jackets.
IV) Some trousers are jackets
Options:
1122
A) Only I, II and III follow B) Only I, II and IV follow

C) Only II, III and IV follow D) None of these
Page


a) All cups are benches
b) Some benches are drums
c) All drums are kites
Conclusions
I) Some kites are cups
II) Some kites are benches
III) Some drums are cups
Options:
a) Some bikes are cars

b) Some cars are trains
c) Some trains are buses
Conclusions
I) Some buses are cars
II) Some trains are bikes
III) Some buses are bikes
Options:

a) All dogs are cats
b) Some cats are rats
c) All rats are mats
Conclusions
I) Some mats are cats
II) Some mats are dogs
III) Some rats are cats
Options:

1123
C) Only II and III follow

D) II and either I or III follow
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a) All bikes are scooters.
b) All scooters are scooties.
c) All scooties are mopeds.
Conclusions
I) All mopeds are scooties.
II) All scooties are scooters.
III) All scooters are bikes.
IV) All bikes are mopeds.
Options:
A) None follows B) Only III and IV follow

a) Some pots are buckets.
b) Some buckets are bags.
c) Some bags are purses.
Conclusions
I) Some purses are buckets.
II) Some bags are pots.
III) Some purses are pots.
IV) Some pots are bags.
Options:
A) All follow B) None follows


a) All pens are sticks
b) All sticks are rings
c) All rings are rods
Conclusions
I) Some rings are pens
II) Some rods are sticks
III) Some rods are pens
Options:
1124
A) Only I follow
Page
D) All I, II and III follow


a) Some tables are chairs
b) All chairs are houses
c) All houses are tents
Conclusions
I) All houses are chairs
II) Some tents are chairs
III) Some houses are tables`
Options:
a) Some pencils are kites

b) Some kites are desks
c) All desks are jungles
d) All jungles are mountains
Conclusions
I) Some mountains are pencils
II) Some jungles are pencils
III) Some mountains are desks
IV) Some jungles are kites
Options:
A) Only III and IV follow B) Either I or II follow


a) All cups are bottles
b) Some bottles are jugs No jug is plate
c) Some plates are tables
Conclusions
I) Some tables are bottles
II) Some plates are cups
III) No table is bottle
IV) Some jugs are cups
Options:
1125

C) Only II and III follow D) Either I or III follows
Page


a) Some chairs are handles
b) All handles are pots
c) All pots are mats
d) Some mats are buses
Conclusions
I) Some buses are handles
II) Some mats are chairs No bus is handle
III) Some mats are handles
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) II and IV and I or III follow

a) All flowers are buses
b) Some buses are cats
c) All cats are tigers
Conclusions
I) Some tigers are buses
II) Some tigers are flowers
III) Some cats are flowers
IV) Some buses are tigers
Options:
A) Only I and IV follow B) Either I or II follow

C) Only II and III follow D) Only I and III follow

a) All fans are rooms
b) No room is green
c) Some windows are gree n
Conclusions
I) Some windows are fans
II) Some windows are rooms
III) Some fans are green
IV) No green is fan
Options:
1126
A) I V follow B) Either I or II follow

Page


a) Some tablets are rains
b) All dogs are rains
c) All rains are chairs
Conclusions
I) Some chairs are tablets
II) All dogs are chairs
III) Some tablets are dogs
IV) Some tablets are chairs
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) Only I, II and IV follow

a) No man is sky
b) No sky is road
c) Some men are roads
Conclusions
I) No road is ma
II) No road is sky
III) Some skies are me
IV) All roads are me
Options:

Q63) Consider the below statements

a)All players are spectators
b)Some spectators are theatres
c)Some theatres are dramas
conclusions
I) Some dramas are spectator Some players are dramas
II) Some stations are rings
III) Some theatres are players
IV) All spectators are players
Options:
1127

Page


a) Some buckets are waters
b) All waters are papers
c) Some papers are woods
Conclusions
I) Some woods are waters
II) Some buckets are woods
III) Some papers are buckets
IV) Some woods are buckets
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) Only III follows

a) Some rings are phones
b)Some phones are computers
c)Some computers are stations
Conclusions
I) Some stations are rings
II)Some phones are stations
III) Some computers are rings
IV) All rings are stations
Options:


a) All leaves are inks
b) No ink is brush
c) All cakes are brushes
Conclusions
I) Some cakes are leaves
II) Some inks are cakes
III) Some inks are leaves
IV) Some cakes are brushes
Options:
1128

C) Only II and III follow D) III and IV follow
Page


a) All needles are threads
b) All threads are boxes
c) All trees are boxes
Conclusions
I) No needle is tree
II) Some trees are threads
III) Some boxes are needles
IV) Some trees are needles
Options:
A) Only I and III follow B) Either I or II follow
C) Only II and III follow D) Only either I or IV and III follow

a) Some tents are buildings
b)Some buildings are chairs
c) Some chairs are windows
Conclusions
I) Some windows are buildings
II) Some windows are tents
III) Some chairs are tents
Options:


a) All tables are boards
b) All pens are boards
c) All boards are papers
Conclusions
I) Some pens are tables
II) Some papers are pens
III) No pen is table
Options:
1129

C) Only III and III follow D) Only either I or III and II follow
Page


a) All chains are cycles
b) Some cycles are wheels
c) All wheels are mirrors
Conclusions
I) Some cycles are mirrors
II) Some wheels are chains
III) Some mirrors are cycles
Options:
A) All follow B) Either I or II follow
a) Some boxes are hammers

b) Some hammers are beads
c) All beads are rings
Conclusions
I) Some rings are hammers
II) Some hammers are boxes
III) Some rings are boxes
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) Only I and II follow

a) All jackets are trousers
b) No trouser is shirt
c) Some shirts are caps
Conclusions
I) Some caps are jackets
II) Some shirts are jackets
III) Some trousers are jackets
Options:

1130

D) Only III follows
Page


a) Some cameras are binoculars
b) All binoculars are spoons
c) Some spoons are cups
Conclusions
I) Some cups are binoculars
II) Some spoons are cameras
III) Some cups are cameras
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) Only II follows
a) All hotels are airports

b) All airports are belts
c) Some belts are hooks
Conclusions
I) Some belts are hotels
II) Some airports are hotels
III) Some hooks are belts
Options:
A) All follow B) Either I or II follow

a) All pins are rods
b) Some rods are chains
c) All chains are hammers
Conclusions
I) Some pins are hammers
II) Some hammers are rods
III) No pin is hammer
Options:
A) Only I and II follow

1131

D) Only either I or III and II follow
Page


a) Some books are papers
b) Some papers are desks
c) Some desks are chairs
Conclusions
I) Some books are desks
II) Some papers are chairs
III) Some books are chairs
Options:
a) Some pots are buckets

b) All buckets are tubs
c) All tubs are drums
Conclusions
I) Some drums are pots
II) All tubs are buckets
III) Some drums are buckets
Options:
A) none follow B) Either I or II follow

a) All pins are bags
b) All chalks are bags
c) All needles are bags
Conclusions
I) Some needles are pins
II) Some chalks are needles
III) No needle is pin
Options:

1132

D) Only either I or III follow
Page


a) Some buses are trucks
b) Some trucks are boats
c) No boat is jeep
Conclusions
I) Some jeeps are buses
II) Some boats are buses
III) Some jeeps are trucks
Options:
a) All flowers are trees

b) All trees are jungles
c) No jungle is hill
Conclusions
I) No flower is hill
II) No tree is hill
III) Some jungles are flowers
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) All follow

a) All tables are sofas
b) All sofas are beds
c) All beds are mats
Conclusions
I) Some mats are sofas
II) Some beds are tables
III) Some mats are tables
Options:

1133

D) All follow
Page


a) Some plates are spoons
b) All spoons are forks
c) All forks are bowls Some bowls are utensils
Conclusions
I) Some plates are bowls
II) All spoons are bowls
III) Some forks are utensils
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) Only I and II follow
a) Some books are files

b) All files are discs
c) Some discs are boards
d) All boards are keys
Conclusions
I) Some books are keys
II) No book is key
III) Some discs are keys
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) Either I or II and III follow

a) All buses are trains are utensils
b) Some trains are cars
c) No car is scooter All scooter are jeeps
Conclusions
I) Some cars are buses
II) All jeeps are scooters
III) No jeep is train
Options:
1134
D) None follows
Page


a) All curtains are pillows
b) No pillow is mattress
c) Some mattresses are beds
d) All beds are sofas
Conclusions
I) No bed is pillow
II) Some mattresses are sofas
III) Some beds are pillows
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) Only II and either I or III follow

a) Some pulses are grains
b) Some grains are sprouts
c) All sprouts are nuts
d) No fruit is nut
Conclusions
I) Some nuts are pulses
II) Some nuts are grains
III) No fruit is sprout
Options:

C) Only II and III follow D) Only II and III follow

a) Some tables are jugs
b) Some jugs are pots
c) All pots are plates
Conclusions
I) Some plates are jugs
II) Some pots are tablets
III) Some plates are tablets
Options:
1135
A) Only I follow
Page
D) Only I and III follow


a) All chairs are rings
b) Some rings are sticks
c) All sticks are branches
Conclusions
I) Some branches are chairs
II) Some branches are rings
III) Some sticks are chairs
Options:
a) All bulbs are chairs

b) All chairs are tablets
c) All tables are mirrors
Conclusions
I) Some mirrors are bulbs
II) Some tables are bulbs
III) All chairs are mirrors
Options:
C) Only IV and III follow D) All follow

a) All knives are hammers
b) No hammer is sword
c) Some swords are nails
Conclusions
I) Some nails are hammers
II) Some swords are knives
III) No nail is hammer
Options:

1136
C) Only IV and III follow

D) Only either I or III follows
Page


a) Some fruits are trees
b) All trees are jungles
c) All jungles are roads
Conclusions
I) All fruits are jungles
II) Some roads are fruits
III) Some jungles are fruits
Options:
C) Only I and III follow D) Only II and III follow
a) Some books are pens

b) Some pens are desks
c) Some desk are racks
Conclusions
I) Some racks are pens
II)Some desks are books
III) Some racks are books
Options:
C) Only I and III follow D) None follow

a) No room is house
b) No house is building
c) Some buildings are huts
Conclusions
I) Some huts are rooms
II) Some huts are houses
III) Some huts are buildings
Options:

1137

D) Only III follows
Page


a) All houses are window
b) All roads are windows
c) All toys are windows
Conclusions
I) Some toys are houses
II) Some roads are houses
III) Some roads are toys
Options:
a) All chairs are fruits

b) No fruit is nail
c) Some nails are hammers
Conclusions
I) Some hammers are fruits
II) Some nails are fruits
III) Some fruits are chairs
Options:
C) Only II and III follow D) Only III follows

a) All benches are rivers
b) All rivers are ponds
c) Some ponds are hills
Conclusions
I) Some ponds are benches
II) Some hills are benches
III) Some rivers are benches
Options:

1138

D) All follow
Page


a) Some rings are bangles
b) Some bangles are beads
c) Some beads are flowers
Conclusions
I) Some flowers are rings
II) Some flowers are bangles
III) No ring is flower
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Either I or II follow
C) Only II follows D) Only Either I or III follows
a) Some bats are dogs

b) All dogs are tigers
c) Some tigers are rats
Conclusions
I) Some rats are bats
II) Some tigers are bats
III) Some rats are dogs
Options:

a) Some chairs are pens
b) All pens are books
c) Some books are walls
Conclusions
I) Some walls are pens
II) Some books are chairs
III) Some walls are chairs
Options:
A) Only III follow

1139
C) Only II follows
D) None follows
Page

Q100) Cons ider below statements

a) Some robots are machines
b) Some computers are both robots and machines
c) Some animals are machines
d) Some toys are animals
Conclusions
I) Some toys are robots
II) Some toys are machines
III) Some animals are computers
IV) Some robots are not toys
Options:
C) Only II follows D) Only Either I or IV follows

a) All suns are stars b) All moons are stars
c) Some planets are suns d) Some stars are gases
Conclusions
I) Some stars are planets II) Some suns are gases
III) No moon is a planet IV) Some gases are moons
Options:
C) Only III and IV follows D) None follows

a) All books are diaries
b) Some diaries are pens
c) Some pens are drawers
d) All drawers are chairs
Conclusions
I) Some drawers are diaries
II) Some chairs are pens
III) Some pens are books
IV) Some diaries are books
Options:
1140

C) Only II follows D) Only II and IV follows
Page


a) Some buildings are rivers
b) Some mountains are both buildings and rivers
c) Some roads are buildings
d) All roads are trucks
Conclusions
I) Some mountains are roads
II) Some buildings are trucks
III) Some rivers are roads
IV) Some trucks are rivers
Options:
A) Only IV follow B) Either I or II follow

a) All tables are round
b) Some hills are round
c) Some rivers are hills
d) All rivers are conical
Conclusions
I) Some rivers are round
II) Some hills are conical
III)Some rivers are both hills and round
IV) Some tables are conical
Options:
A) Only IV follow B) Either I or III follow

a) All pens are books b) All books are chairs
c) Some chairs are desks d) Some desks are tables
Conclusions
I) Some tables are chairs II) Some desks are pens
III) Some chairs are pens IV) All pens are chairs
Options:
1141

C) Only II follows D) Only III and IV follow
Page


a) Some trains are buses
b) Some buses are trucks
c) Some trucks are boats
d) Some boats are cars
Conclusions
I) Some trucks are trains
II) Some cars are trucks
III) Some boats are buses
IV) Some boats are trains
Options:

a) Some chains are bangles
b) Some bangles are rings
c) All rings are tyres.
d) All tyres are tables
Conclusions
I) Some tables are bangles
II) Some tyres are bangles
II) Some tables are chains
IV) Some tyres are chains
Options:
C) Only I and II follows D) None follows

a) All hills are roads b) All roads are stones
c) All stones are jungles d) All jungles are rivers
Conclusions
I) Some rivers are stones II) Some jungles are hills
III) Some stones are hills IV) All rivers are jungles
Options:
1142

C) Only II and IV follows D) Only I, II and III follow
Page


a) All needles are threads
b) Some threads are clothes
c) No cloth is room
d) All rooms are houses
Conclusions
I) Some houses are needles
II) Some rooms are threads
III) No house is needle
IV) Some clothes are needles
Options:
C) Only II follows D) Only either I or III follows

a) Some bags are toys b) All toys are curtains
c) Some curtains are walls d) All walls are roofs
Conclusions
I) Some roofs are curtains II) Some walls are toys

III) Some walls are bags IV) Some curtains are bags
Options:
C) Only II and IV follows D) Only I and IV follow

a) Some roses are flowers
b) Some flowers are buds
c) All buds are leaves
d) All leaves are plants
Conclusions
I) Some plants are flowers
II) Some roses are buds
III) No leaves are roses
IV) No roses are buds
Options:
1143

C) Only III follows D) Only I and either II or IV follow
Page


a) Some books are journals b) All journals are papers
c) Some papers are cards d) All cards are boards
Conclusions
I) Some papers are books II) Some papers are boards
III) Some boards are journals IV) Some boards are books
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Either I or IV follow
C) Only I and II follows D) None follows

a) Some grapes are apples b) Some apples are bananas
c) All bananas are guavas d) No guava is pomegranate
Conclusions
I) No grapes are pomegranates II) Some guavas are grapes
III) Some guavas are apples IV) No bananas are pomegranate
Options:
C) Only IV follows D) Only III and IV follow

a) Some doors are walls
b) All walls are floors
c) All floors are rooms
d) Some rooms are windows
Conclusions
I) All walls are rooms
II) Some rooms are doors
III) Some rooms are walls
IV) Some floors are doors
Options:
C) Only VI follows
1144
D) All follow
Page


a) Some spoons are forks
b) Some forks are bowls
c) All bowls are plates
d) Some plates are utensils
Conclusions
I) Some utensils are forks
II) Some plates are forks
III) Some plates are spoons
IV) Some utensils are spoons
Options:
A) Only I and III follow B) Either IV or II follow

a) All chairs are tables b) All tables are desks
c) Some desks are benches d) Some desks are sofas
Conclusions
I) Some benches are sofas II) Some sofas are tables
III) Some benches are tables IV) No chair is bench
Options:
C) Only IV follows D) None follows

a) Some sweets are chocolates
b) Some chocolates are mints
c) Some mints are food
d) Some food is diet
Conclusions
I) No sweets are diet
II) No food is chocolates
III) Some sweets are diet
IV) Some sweets are food
Options:
1145

C) Only IV follows D) Either I or III follows
Page


a) All windows are doors
b) All buildings are doors
c) All doors are boats
Conclusions
I) All windows are boats
II) All buildings are boats
III) Some boats are doors
Options:
C) Only III follows D) All follow
a) Some desks are chairs

b) Some chairs are pens
c) Some pens are drawers
Conclusions
I) Some drawers are desks
II) Some drawers are chairs
III) No drawer is chair
Options:
C) Only III follows D) Only Either II or III follows

a) All flowers are trees
b) Some trees are houses
c) All houses are wheels
Conclusions
I) Some wheels are trees
II) Some trees are flowers
III) Some wheels are flowers
Options:
A) Only I follow
B) Either I or III follow
1146
C) Only II follows
D) Only I and II follow
Page


a) Some radios are telephones
b) All telephones are mirrors
c) All mirrors are desks
Conclusions
I) Some radios are desks
II) Some radios are mirrors
III) Some desks are telephones
Options:
C) Only II and III follows D) All follow

a) All furniture are jungles
b) No jungle is road
c) Some roads are hills
Conclusions
I) Some roads are furniture
II) Some jungles are furniture
III) Some hills are jungles
Options:
Q123) Cons ider the following statements

a) Some boxes are walls
b) No wall is roads
c) All roads are rivers
Conclusions
I) Some rivers are walls
II) Some roads are boxes
III) No wall is river
Options:
A) Only I follow
1147

D) Only either I or III follows
Page


a) All biscuits are chocolates.
b) Some chocolates are breads.
c) All breads are pastries.
Conclusions
I) Some biscuits are pastries.
II) Some pastries are chocolates.
III) Some biscuits are not pastries
IV)All pastries are breads.
Options:
A) Only I, II and III follow B) Only either I or III and II follow
C) Only either I or III and IV follow D) None of these

a) All glasses are roads.
b) No road is a stick.
c) Some sticks are pens.
Conclusions
I) Some glasses are sticks.

II) Some pens are sticks.
III) Some roads are sticks.
IV) No glass is a stick.
Options:
A) None follows B) Only either I or II and IV follows

C) Only either I or II and IV follows D) None of these

a) Some lions are goats.
b) Some goats are horses.
c) Some horses are flowers.
Conclusions
I) Some lions are horses.
II) Some goats are flowers.
III) Some lions are flowers.
IV) Some horses are lions.
1148
Options:
A) None follows B) Only I and IV follow
Page


a) All trees are books.
b) Some books are tables.
c) All tables are pencils.
Conclusions
I) Some pencils are tables.
II) Some books are trees.
III) Some tables are trees.
IV) Some pencils are trees.
Options:
A) None follows B) All follow
C) Only either I or II follows D) None of these

a) Some doors are windows.
b) All windows are dogs.
c) Some dogs are cats.
Conclusions
I) Some dogs are doors.
II) All dogs are doors.
III) Some cats are windows.
V) Some dogs are windows.
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Only II and III follow

C) Only I and IV follow D) All follow

a) All buses are trains.
b) All trains are rickshaws.
c) All rickshaws are cycles.
Conclusions
I) All cycles are buses.
II) All rickshaws are buses.
III)All buses are rickshaws.
IV) All trains are cycles.
Options:
1149
A) All follow B) None follows

Page


a) Some bricks are trees.
b) All trees are pens.
c) All pens are boats.
Conclusions
I) Some boats are bricks
II) Some pens are bricks
III) Some trees are bricks
IV) Some bricks are boats
Options:
A) All follow B) Only I and II follow

a) All cups are tables.
b) No table is water.
c) Some waters are clothes.
Conclusions
I) No cloth is cup.
II) No cloth is table.
III) Some clothes are waters.
IV) Some waters are cups.
Options:
A) All follow B) Only III follows

C) Only I and II follow D) None of these

a) Some flowers are rods.
b) Some rods are doors.
c) Some doors are houses.
Conclusions
I) Some houses are flowers.
II) Some doors are flowers.
III) Some flowers are doors.
IV) No house is flower.
Options:
1150
A) Only II and III follow B) Only either I or II follows

C) Only either I or IV follows D) None of these
Page


a) All trucks are vans.
b) All vans are cars.
c) All cars are trains.
Conclusions
I) All trains are trucks.
II) All cars are trucks.
III) All trucks are trains.
IV) All vans are trains.
Options:
A) All follow B) Only I and II follow
C) Only II and Iv follow D) None of these

a) No table is fruit.
b) No fruit is window.
c) All windows are chairs.
Conclusions
I) No window is table.
II) No chair is fruit.
III) No chair is table.
IV) All chairs are windows.
Options:
A) None follows B) Only I and II follow

C) Only III & IV follow D) None of these

a) All birds are fruits.
b) Some fruits are towers.
c) All towers are windows.
Conclusions
I) Some birds are towers.
II) Some windows are birds.
III) Some windows are fruits.
IV) Some towers are birds.
Options:
1151

C) Only III follows D) All follow
Page


a) Some buses are trains.
b) No train is a dog.
c) All dogs are parrots.
Conclusions
I) No bus is a parrot.
II) Some parrots are trains.
III) Some parrots are buses.
IV) No dog is a bus.
Options:
A) Only either I or III follows B) Only IV follows
C) Only I and III follow D) None of these

a) Some cups are flowers.
b) Some flowers are boxes.
c) All boxes are tigers.
Conclusions
I) Some tigers are cups.
II) Some tigers are flowers.
III) Some boxes are cups.
IV) No tiger is a flower.
Options:
A) None follows B) Only III follows

C) Only either I or III follows D) None of these

a) Some cats are lions.
b) All lions are hares.
c) All hares are horses.
Conclusions
I) Some cats are horses.
II) Some horses are lions.
III) Some hares are cats.
IV) Some cats are hares.
Options:
1152
A) Only I and II follow B) Only I and III follow

C) All follow D) None of these
Page


a) All boats are rivers.
b) All rivers are mangoes.
c) All mangoes are apples.
Conclusions
I) All apples are boats.
II) All mangoes are boats.
III) All rivers are apples.
IV) All boats are apples.
Options:
A) All follow B) Only I, III and IV follow
C) Only II, III and IV follow D) None of these

a) Some boxes are trees.
b) Some trees are horses,
c) All horses are fruits.
Conclusions
I) Some fruits are boxes.
II) Some fruits are trees.
III) Some horses are boxes.
IV) No fruits are boxes.
Options:
A) Only either II or IV follows B) Only either I or IV and II follow

C) Only either I or III and IV follow D) None of these

a) All flowers are buses.
b) Some buses are cats.
c) All cats are tigers.
Conclusions
I) Some tigers are buses.
II) Some tigers are flowers.
III) Some cats are flowers.
IV) Some buses are tigers.
Options:
1153
A) None follows B) Only III and IV follow

C) Only I and IV follow D) Only II and III follow
Page


a) All fans are rooms.
b) No room is green.
c) Some windows are gree n.
Conclusions
I) Some windows are fans.
II) Some windows are rooms.
III) Some fans are green.
IV) No green is fan.
Options:
A) Only III follows B) Only IV follows
C) Only II & IV follow D) All follow

a) Some tablets are rains.
b) All dogs are rains.
c) All rains are chairs.
Conclusions
I) Some chairs are tablets.
II) All dogs are chairs.
III) Some tablets are dogs.
IV) Some tablets are chairs.
Options:
A) Only I, II& III follow B) Only II, III and IV follow


a) No man is sky.
b) No sky is road.
c) Some men are roads.
Conclusions
I) No road is man.
II) No road is sky.
III) Some skies are men.
IV) All roads are men.
Options:
1154
A) Only I follows B) Only 1 and III follow

C) Only II & III follow D) None of these
Page


a) Some candles are houses.
b) Some houses are trains.
c) Some trains are roads.
Conclusions
I) Some roads are candles.
II) Some trains are candles.
III) Some roads are houses.
IV) Some candles are roads.
Options:
C) Only II & III follow D) Only III and IV follow

a) No tree is fruit.
b) All fruits are stones,
c) All stones are rains.
Conclusions
I) No stone is tree.
II) No rain is tree.
III) Some rains are fruits.
IV) Some rains are trees.
Options:
A) None follows B) Only either II or IV and follow

C) Only either II or III and I follow D) None of these

a) All books are stars.
b) Some stars are windows,
c) All windows are hills.
Conclusions
I) Some windows are books.
II) Some hills are stars.
III) Some hills are books.
IV) Some stars are books.
Options:
1155
A) None follows B) Only I & III follow

C) Only II & IV follow D) None of these
Page


a) Some cats are rats,
b) All rats are bats,
c) Some bats are jungles.
Conclusions
I) Some jungles are cats.
II) Some bats are cats.
III) Some jungles are rats.
IV) No jungles is cat.
Options:
A) None follows B) Only either I or IV and III follow
C) Only either I or IV and II follow D) None of these

a) All flowers are clouds.
b) No clouds is sky
c) All skies are tigers.
Conclusions
I) Some clouds are flowers.
II) All clouds are flowers.
III) Some tigers are skies.
IV) All tigers are skies.
Options:
A) Only II and IV follow B) Only either III or IV follows

C) All follow D) None of these

a) Some dogs are rats.
b) All rats are trees.
c) Some trees are not dogs.
Conclusions
I) Some trees are dogs.
II) All dogs are trees.
III) All rats are dogs.
IV) All trees are dogs.
Options:
1156
A) Only I follows B) Only II & III follow

C) All follow D) None follows
Page


a) Some boys are rains.
b) All rains are clouds.
c) Some clouds are cars.
Conclusions
I) Some clouds are boys.
II) Some cars are boys.
III ) Some cars are rains.
IV) Some rains are boys.
Options:
A) None follows B) Only I follows
C) Both I & IV follow D) All follow

a) All bricks are flowers.
b) Some houses are flowers.
c) All pens are houses.
Conclusions
I) Some houses are bricks.
II) Some pens are flowers.
III ) Some flowers are bricks.
IV) No pen is flower.
Options:
A) Only either II or IV and follow B) Only either II or IV and I follow

C) Only either I or II and IV follow D) All follow

a) All lions are ducks.
b) No duck is a horse.
c) All horses are fruits.
Conclusions
I) No lion is a horse. II) Some fruits are horses.
III) Some ducks are lions. IV) Some lions are horses.
Options:
A) All follows
1157
B) Only either I or IV and both II and III follow

C) Only either I or IV and II follow
D) None of these
Page


a) Some mountains are rivers.
b) Some rivers are roads.
c) Some roads are windows.
Conclusions
I) Some windows are roads.
II) Some rivers are mountains.
III) Some roads are mountains.
IV) Some windows are rivers.
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Only III and IV follow
C) Only I & IV follow D) None follows

a) All benches are trees.
b) All trees are flowers.
c) All flowers are fruits.
Conclusions
I) All fruits are benches.
II) All trees are fruits.
III) Some fruits are flowers.
IV) Some flowers are benches.
Options:
A) Only II, III& IV follow B) Only III and IV follow

C) Only II & III follow D) None of these

a) Some trains are radios.
b) Some radios are waters.
c) All tigers are wate rs.
Conclusions
I) Some trains are tigers.
II) Some trains are waters.
III) No water is train.
IV) All waters are tigers.
Options:
1158
A) Both II & III follow B) Only either II or III follows

C) Only either I or III follows D) Only either I or IV follows
Page


a) Some buses are rivers.
b) All rivers are mountains.
c) Some roads are mountains.
Conclusions
I) Some mountains are buses.
II) Some roads are buses.
III) Some roads are rivers.
IV) Some mountains are roads None follows
Options:
A) Only III and IV follow B) Only I & IV follow
C) All follow D) None follows

a) All lions are jungles.
b) Some jungles are rabbits.
c) All rabbits are elephants.
Conclusions
I) Some rabbits are lions.
II) Some elephants are jungles.
III) Some elephants are lions.
IV) Some elephants are rabbits.
Options:
A) Only I and II follow B) Only II and III follow


a) All books are pens.
b) No pens are houses.
c) All houses are doors.
Conclusions
I) No books are houses.
II) No books are doors.
III) Some doors are pens.
IV) Some houses are books.
Options:
1159
A) Only I follows B) Only II and III follow

Page

Q160) State ment: Since the feeling of superiority is built in wherever there is
social development, there is a little that can be done to arrest it except at the
cost of social development.
Con. I: To maintain social development complex should be allowed to continue.

Con. II: Social development and complex run side by side.
Options:
A) only conclusion I follows B) only conclusion II follows.
C) both I and II follow D) neither I nor II follows
Q161) State ment: A maladjusted is a noncriminal who commits crime for the
sake of adjustment.
Con. I: Some crimes have their root cause in adjustment problems.
Con. II: Maladjustment and delinquency go hand in hand.
Options:
A) only conclusion I follows B) only conclusion II follow
Q162) State ment: The oceans are store house of practically every mineral
including . 238U92. But like most other minerals it is found in extremely low
concentration about 3 grams per 1000 tons of water.
Con. I: Sea water contains silver and iron.
Con. II: Gold is found about 3 grams per 1000 tons of water.
Options:

Q163) State ment: No new tax has been proposed in the budget of 201112. I t is
still a surplus budget.
Con. I: The budget of 201112 may be considered a good budget.

Con. II: 201112 budget is a surplus budget because no new tax has been
proposed.
Options:
1160
A) only conclusion I follows

B) only conclusion II follows.
C) both I and II follow
Page
D) neither I nor II follows

Q164) State ment: The essence of one day cricket is the ability to score runs fast
and to bowl with a mixture of control and aggression which adroitly handled can
tie the opponent hand and foot.
Con. I: Kapil Dev who won the World Cup in 1983 had all the above qualities.
Con. II: Aggressive bowling as well as fast scoring of runs are equally
indispensable to win a one day cricket match.
Options:
Q165) State ment: Strikes are the inherent rights of workers for the purpose of
securing justice.
Con. I: Workers cannot get justice unless they go on strike.
Con. II: Every worker must defend his/ her inherent right.
Options:
Q166) State ment: Books without knowledge of life are useless.

Con. I: All books contain knowledge of life.
Con. II: People should be anxious to acquire the knowledge of life.
Options:
Q167) State ment: Apart from the educational value of newspapers their
recreational values should also be kept into account.
Con. I: People take newspapers to be a means of imparting education.
Con. II: The entertainment value of newspapers is also of paramount

importance.
Options:
1161

Page

Q168) State ment: Recent researches have shown that pimples have their root
cause in the liver.
Con. I: The medication for pimples should be administered to the liver.
Con. II: Inhaling of steams is of no use for this purpose.
Options:
C) both I and II follow D) neither of P or Q is true
Q169) State ment: It is evident from the historical information that even in
ancient India both the masters and disciples valued not the quantity of
education but its quality.
Con. I: There was an identity in educational values between teachers and
students in ancient India.
Con. II: Quality of education is valued and given more importance than quantity
of education today.
Options:
Q170) State ment: The disparities between the problems of rich and the poor do
not stand out clearly when we compare the attitude of the law making bodies
towards these two strata of the society.
Con. I: Parliament do not discriminate between rich and. poor while formulating
policies for them.
Con. II: Law makers do not have identical attitude towards the haves and have
nots.
Options:
Q171) State ment: In a police encounter 5 terrorist and 2 soldiers were killed and
one injured seriously.
Con. I: The clash was not unexpected.
Con. II: The only injured was the terrorist.
Options:
1162

Page

Q172) Statement: Now you need not have an import license to own a software
computer today.
Con. I: Computer softwares are made indigenously.
Con. II: Duty free computers are now available.

Options:
Q173) State ment: Good is the enemy of best.

Con. I: You should be good to your best enemy.
Con. II: Best do not like the good.
Options:
Q174) State ment: Whereabouts of my brother is not known since he left this
place last year by that unlucky bus which collided with a truck near Faizabad.
Con. I: My brother was killed in the accident.
Con. II: Collision of the bus and the truck is the reason behind my brother's
missing.
Options:
D) neither of P or Q is true
Q175) State ment: It is risky to travel from Jammu to Baramula because of the
zigzag road.
Con. I: Jammu and Baramula are connected. by bus services.

Con. II: There is no other means of transportation from Jammu to Baramula.
Options:
1163

Page

Q176) State ment: This book is too costly to be worthless.

Con. I: When books fall short of supply their prices go up.
Con. II: The higher the selling price, the superior is the quality of the
commodity.
Options:
Q177) State ment: Books are like friends who give rich and lasting rewards.
Con. I: Always choose rich friends like books.
Con. II: Books give us eternal satisfaction.
Options:
Q178) State ment: Miser people seldom help the poor.

Con. I: Those who are miser never help the poor.
Con. II: Poor are very, rarely helped by the miser.
Options:
Q179) State ment: It. is written in history books that most of the battles which
took place among rulers were fought for amassing wealth and beautiful women.
World War I has a background very near to it.
Con. I: If money minded people will flourish, World War III may start.
Con. II: In olden days wealth and beautiful women were the major concerns for
rulers.
Options:
1164

Page

Q180) State ment: Domestic demand has been increasing faster than the
production of indigenous crude oil.
Con. I: Deficiency demand will have to be met by import.
Con. II: There is no need to cut domestic demand of crude oil.

Options:
Q181) State ment: Constitutional morality is not a natural sentiment.

Con. I: Sentiments are always innate.
Con. II: Constitutional morality can be cultivated.
Options:
Q182) State ment: It does not matter what type of food you eat. What matters is
whether you can digest it.
Con. I: Any type of food is equally good as long as it is digested.
Con. II: The type of food one eat, is immaterial.
Options:
Q183) State ment: The best way to escape from a problem is to solve it.
Con. I: Your life will be dull if you don't face a problem

Con. II: To escape from a problem demand some solution of the problem.
Options:
1165

Page

Q184) State ment: Majority rules in a democracy.

Con. I: In a democracy candidates are elected by a majority of votes.
Con. II: Majority have the power to amend a law in parliament in democratic set
up.
Options:
Q185) State ment: The greatest need of India today is not of good researchers but
well trained teachers.
Con I India does not need researchers today.
Con. II: Researchers are least attached with the universalization and
popularization of quality education.
Options:
Q186) State ment: All that glitters is not gold.

Con. I: Judgment should not exclusively be made on the basis of the
appearance.
Con. II: Gold does not shine at all.
Options:
Q187) State ment: I have nothing except the reality of ignorance.
Con. I: The world of knowledge is too vast to be explored by a single person.

Con. II: The writer is ashamed of his poor knowledge.
Options:
1166

Page

Answers:
Q1) B, Q2) D, Q3) B, Q4) D, Q5) C, Q6) C,
Q7) A, Q8) D, Q9) A, Q10) D, Q11) D, Q12) D,
Q13) C, Q14) A, Q15) A, Q16) D, Q17) C,
Q18) D, Q19) C, Q20) C, Q21) A, Q22) A,
Q23) A, Q24) D, Q25) B, Q26) D, Q27) B,
Q28) A, Q29) D, Q30) C, Q31) B, Q32) D,
Q33) A, Q34) D, Q35) D, Q36) D, Q37) A,
Q38) C, Q39) A, Q40) D, Q41) C, Q42) D,
Q43) C, Q44) A, Q45) B, Q46) D, Q47) D,
Q48) B, Q49) C, Q50) D, Q51) D, Q52) C,
Q53) B, Q54) D, Q55) C, Q56) A, Q57) D,
Q58) D, Q59) A, Q60) A, Q61) D, Q62) A,
Q63) A, Q64) D, Q65) D, Q66) D, Q67) D,
Q68) D, Q69) D, Q70) D, Q71) D, Q72) D,
Q73) D, Q74) A, Q75) D, Q76) D, Q77) D,
Q78) D, Q79) D, Q80) D, Q81) D, Q82) D,
Q83) D, Q84) D, Q85) D, Q86) D, Q87) A,
Q88) A, Q89) D, Q90) D, Q91) D, Q92) D,
Q93) D, Q94) D, Q95) D, Q96) A, Q97) D,
Q98) C, Q99) C, Q100) D, Q101) A, Q102) D,
Q103) C, Q104) C, Q105) D, Q106) D, Q107) C,
Q108) D, Q109) D, Q110) D, Q111) D, Q112) C,
Q113) D, Q114) D, Q115) C, Q116) D, Q117) D,
Q118) D, Q119) D, Q120) D, Q121) D, Q122) C,
Q123) D, Q124) C, Q125) C, Q126) A, Q127) D,
Q128) C, Q129) D, Q130) A, Q131) B, Q132) C,
Q133) D, Q134) A, Q135) C, Q136) A, Q137) D,
Q138) C, Q139) D, Q140) B, Q141) C, Q142) B,
Q143) D, Q144) D, Q145) A, Q146) A, Q147) C,
Q148) C, Q149) D, Q150) A, Q151) C, Q152) A,
Q153) D, Q154) A, Q155) A, Q156) B, Q157) B,
Q158) D, Q159) A, Q160) C, Q161) C, Q162) A,
Q163) A, Q164) B, Q165) D, Q166) D, Q167) C,
Q168) A, Q169) C, Q170) A, Q171) D, Q172) D,
Q173) D, Q174) C, Q175) A, Q176) B, Q177) B,
Q178) C, Q179) B, Q180) A, Q181) B, Q182) A,
Q183) D, Q184) C, Q185) B, Q186) C, Q187) D,
1167
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Explanations:
Q160) If we remove superiority complex from the mind of the people we will
jeopardize social development.
Q161) Both the conclusions can be drawn from the statement but only one
conclusion will be correct at one time. Thus either I follows or II follows.
Q162) Every mineral is found in oceans and also in low concentrations but
second conclusion does not follow because all minerals are not found in the
same concentration. 3 grams per 1000 tons of water concentration has been
used exclusively for 238U92
Q163) If burden of tax does not increase even then it is able to meet the
budgetary requirement of the government, it is a good budget.
Q164) Conclusion I is not implicit because there is no reference of a particular
cricketer in the statement.
Q165) Correct inference may be:

(i) If justice is not being given to workers, they have the right to go on strikes.
(ii) No one has the right to prevent workers going on strike.
Q166) I and II both don't follow from the statement.
Q167) Both I and II follow from the statement.
Q168) Conclusion II does not follow because there is no reference of steam in

the statement.
Q169) Conclusion II also follows because of the word "even" in the statement
that makes it a reported speech of indirect narration.
Q170) Study the attitude of parliamentarians towards rich and poor separately.
If it is identical then it will be difficult to distinguish rich and poor on the basis
of their problems.
Q171) Encounte rs are always unexpected, and the persons who was injured
among them, may either be a soldier or a terrorist.
Q172) Liberalization does not necessarily mean that people have started
producing computers indigenously and custom duty and import license are not
identical in nature.
Q173) Conclusion I and II both are not implied, e.g., if we don't like someone it
does not mean that we are enemy of that person.
Q174) I and II both the conclusions probably follow from the statement
Q175) No such problems arises in rail or air services so 'bus services' is the only
1168
possible option. And there are other means also and land ways is risky among
them.
Page

Q176) It otherwise means that the books are so expensive that it cannot be
worthless (transformation).
Q177) Conclusion I is irrelevant.
Q178) The word `seldom' is very close to never the 'very rarely' is also very near
to it and II conclusion is the passive form of the statement
Q179) The statement clarifies that there were some exceptions to this purpose of
war so nothing can be definitely said about a war in future. Moreover money
minded people and kings are not the same things.
Q180) Conclusion II is not correct because in order to keep a balance between

production of oil and domestic demand, the later must be cut.
Q181) Sentiments are natural and cultivated both according to the statement.
Q182) Immate rial is the opposite of material not of matter.
Q183) Conclusion I is irrelevant. Second is also not implicit because there are
ways other than its solution for escape.
Q184) Both the conclusions follow from the statement separately. So either I or
II is correct.
Q185) Conclusion I is wrong because the statement does not talk exclusively
but refers "the greatest need of India" and II is also probably true.
Q186) Conclusion I is a literal and proverbial inference and II one is a logical

one.
Q187) Everyone in this world is ignorant in many respects, so there is nothing
to be ashamed of.
1169
Page

Statement & Inference:
Q1) a) My son is not old enough to vote.

(b) My son has handsome personality.
Inference: My son is a boy under 18 years of age.
Options:
A) the inference is definitely true
B) the inference is definitely false
C) the inference is probably false or true
D) inference cannot be drawn
Q2) (a) Either he is happy or he is poor.

(b) He is happy.
Inference: He is poor.
Options:

Q3) (a) I know a professor of a university.

(b) He has beard.
Inference: All the professors of the university have beard.
Options:
Q4) (a) Those who are honest are good teachers.

(b) Hard working people are honest
Inference: Hard work is the necessary quality of a good teacher.
Options:
1170
A) the inference is definitely true B) the inference is definitely false

C) the inference is probably false or true D) inference cannot be drawn
Page

Q5) (a) L is the brother of K.

(b) K is the friend of M.
Inference: L is the friend of M.
Options:
Q6) (a) Cats like rats.

(b) Rats like bread.
Inference: Bread is liked by cats
Options:

Q7) (a) P is behind M and N.

(b) Q is behind P.
Inference: Q is behind M.
Options:
Q8) (a) This is the bus for route No. 10.
(b) Buses of route No. 10 generally go to Connaught Palace.

Inference: This bus goes to the Connaught Place.
Options:
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Page

Q9) (a) Happy is one who is contended.

(b) Religious people are contended.
Inference: Religious people are happy.

Options:
Q10) (a) Metals are generally malleable or ductile.

(b) X is neither malleable nor ductile.
Inference: X is not a metal.
Options:
1172
Page

Answers:
Q1) C, Q2) B, Q3) B, Q4) C, Q5) C,

Q6) B, Q7) A, Q8) C, Q9) C, Q10) C,
Explanations:
Q1) The voting age has not been given here. so we cannot definitely say about
the age of the child. We can only assess the boy on the basis of the voting age
common in India and boys of this age generally have handsome personality.
Q2) The correct inference is "he is not poor".
Q3) I know only one professor who has beard and other professors are not
known to me. So the conclusion must be false. And the inference that "some
professors of the university have beard" is probably false or probably true.
Q4) All hard working people are honest and honest are good teachers. So hard
work is the quality of a good teacher but it is not the only quality that he must
have. There are other qualities needed by him to be a good teacher. It is
probably not true because the criteria of necessary qualities have not been given
here.
Q5) There are four terms.

Q6) There are four terms in the statement so conclusion drawn on the basis of
them will be definitely false.
Q7) Q P M N
Q8) The word 'generally' clarifies that the inference is not definitely true.
Q9) The inference is not definitely true because of the fallacy of division
Q10) The word 'generally' used in the statement (a) makes the inference
probably true or probably false. It means that there is at least one metal which
is neither malleable nor ductile. 1173
Page

Verification of the Truth of the Statement:
Q1) If we are going early in the morning towards the south, the sun will be
visible at our left-
Options:
A) Always
B) Never
C) Often
D) Sometimes
Q2) A boy is sitting on the back se at of a car. when the driver suddenly starts
the car, the boy experiences a backward force-
Options:
A) Always
B) Sometimes
C) Often
D) Never
Q3) In India a widow can marry her brother-in-law although a man cannot
marry the sister of his dead wife-
Options:
A) Always
B) Often
C) Sometimes
D) Never
Q4) Yesterday I saw an ice cube which had already melted due to the heat of a
nearby furnace
Options:
A) Always B) Sometimes
C) Often D) Never
Q5) My ten years old niece is taller than my twelve years old son
Options:
1174
A) Always B) Sometimes
C) Often D) Never
Page

Q6) Which one of the following is always associated with 'Justice'?

Options:
A) Hypocrisy
B) Magnanimity
C) Legitimate
D) Diminutiveness
Q7) Which one of the following is always associated with a 'tree'?
Options:
A) Roots
B) Flowers
C) Leaves
D) Fruits
Q8) Which one of the following is always with 'Bargain'?

Options:
A) Sumptuousness
B) Exchange
C) Triviality
D) Eloquence
Q9) Which one of the following is always found in 'Bravery'?

Options:
A) Courage B) Experience
C) Power D) Knowledge
Q10) Which one of the following is always found in 'Wonder'?

Options:
A) Crowd B) Lumber
C) Astonishment D) Rustic
Q11) Which one of the following is always found in 'Remedy of fault'?

Options:
1175
A) Punishment B) Fault
C) Remedy D) Scolding
Page

Q12) Which one of the following is always in 'Sentiment'?

Options:
A) Cruelty
B) Insight
C) Neutrality
D) Emotion
Q13) A river always has
Options:
A) Banks
B) Fishes
C) Weeds
D) Boats
Q14) What is always found in factories?

Options:
A) Chimney
B) Electricity
C) Workers
D) Sellers
Q15) What is always found in a 'Phrase'?

Options:
A) Nomenclature B) Manifestation
C) Pictorial effect D) Glossary
Q16) Ladies are always

Options:
A) Beautiful B) Black
C) Attractive D) Of a fair complexion
Q17) Any husband is alwaysthan his wife.

Options:
1176
A) taller B) beautiful
C) older D) none of these
Page

Q18) In electionis necessary.

Options:
A) candidate
B) speech
C) poster
D) canvassing
Q19) Life of fat people is always

Options:
A) Much
B) Happy
C) Little
D) Healthy
Q20) In debateis necessary

Options:
A) room
B) platform
C) speaker
D) audience
Q21) In schoolis always found.
Options:
A) book
B) building
C) black-board
D) teacher
Q22) In agricultureis always found

Options:
A) cultivator
B) tractor
C) land
1177
D) spade
Page

Q23) In a countryis always found.

Options:
A) airplane
B) king
C) army
D) area
Q24) In a manare always found.

Options:
A) teeth
B) feet
C) eyes
D) lungs
Q25) In a bedsteadis/are always found

Options:
A) wide tape
B) rope
C) legs
D) mattress
Q26) What is found necessarily in desert?
Options:
A) Camel
B) Sand
C) Watermelon
D) Wind
Q27) What is found necessarily in newspaper?

Options:
A) News
B) Advertisement
C) Date
1178
D) Editor
Page

Q28) What is found necessarily in milk?

Options:
A) Cream
B) Oiliness
C) Whiteness
D) Curd
Q29) What is found necessarily in game?

Options:
A) Spectators
B) Defeat
C) Referee
D) Players
Q30) What is most essential for a hospital?

Options:
A) Nurse
B) Room
C) Air
D) Doctor
Q31) What is most essential for a train?
Options:
A) Passenger
B) Driver
C) Engine
D) Fans
Q32) What is most necessary in a race?

Options:
A) Judge
B) Competitor
C) Spectators
1179
D) Victory
Page

Q33) A hill always has

Options:
A) Trees B) Animals
C) Water D) Height
Q34) Danger always has

Options:
A) Enemy B) Attack
C) Fear D) Help
Q35) Management always entails

Options:
A) Counsel B) Regulation
C) Exhortation D) Coercion
Q36) Disclosure always involves

Options:
A) Se crets B) Agents
C) Display D) Exposition
Q37) Controversy always involves

Options:
A) Dislike B) Injustice
C) Disagreement D) Passion
Q38) What is always in worry?

Options:
A) Difficulty B) Unrest
C) Non-co-operation D) Poignancy
Q39) A song always has

1180
Options:
A) Chorus B) Musician
Page
C) Tymbal D) Word

Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) A, Q3) C, Q4) D, Q5) B,
Q6) C, Q7) A, Q8) B, Q9) A, Q10) C,
Q11) B, Q12) D, Q13) A, Q14) C, Q15) D,
Q16) C, Q17) D, Q18) A, Q19) C, Q20) C,
Q21) D, Q22) C, Q23) D, Q24) D, Q25) C,
Q26) B, Q27) A, Q28) C, Q29) D, Q30) D,
Q31) C, Q32) B, Q33) D, Q34) C, Q35) B,
Q36) A, Q37) C, Q38) B, Q39) D,
Explanations:
Q1) Early in the morning the sun is in the direction of east. If we are going
toward the south, our face will be in the direction of south and our left hand will
be in the direction of east. Hence, if we go early in the morning toward the
south, the sun will always be visible at our left.
Q2) When a car suddenly starts, the lower part of the boy's body will be in
motion while his upper part will be at rest. Hence, he will always experience a
backward force.
Q3) As there is no such tradition hence this will happen sometimes.
Q4) Since, the ice cube had already melted due to heat of a nearly furnace so
after this ice cannot remain as ice cube.
Q6) Because justice can only be given according to law.
Q7) Without roots tree cannot exist.

Q8) Bargain is only possible when exchange takes place.
Q9) Courage is the root of bravery.
Q13) River cannot be formed without banks. 1181
Page

UNIT 7
ICT
Information and
Communication
Technology 1182
Page

Information and Commun ication Technology Part I:
Q1) Where does a computer add and compare its data?

Options:
A) CPU
B) Memory
C) Hard disk
D) Floppy disk
Q2) Computers on an internet are identified by

Options:
A) e-mail address
B) street address
C) IP address
Q3) Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP)?
Options:
A) MTNL
B) BSNL
C) ERNET India
D) Infotech India Ltd
Q4) Using websites to pour out ones grievances is called:

Options:
A) cyber venting
B) cyber ranting
C) web hate
D) web plea
Q5) In web search, finding a large number of documents with very little relevant
information is termed:
Options:
1183
A) poor recall B) web crawl

C) poor precision rate D) poor web response
Page

Q6) The concept of connect intelligence is derived from:

Options:
A) virtual reality
B) fuzzy logic
C) Bluetooth technology
D) value added networks
Q7) Use of an ordinary telephone as an Internet appliance is called:

Options:
A) voice net
B) voice telephone
C) voice line
D) voice portal
Q8) Video transmission over the Internet that looks like delayed live casting is
called:
Options:
A) virtual video
B) direct broadcast
C) video shift
D) real-time video
Q9) LAN stands for:

Options:
A) Local And National
B) Local Area Network
C) Large Area Network
D) Live Area Network

Options:
A) Modem is a software
B) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage
1184
C) Modem is the operating system

D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa
Page

Q11) Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer?

Options:
A) Computer is a machine that can process information.
B) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both
qualitative and quantitative data quickly and accurate ly.
C) Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly process
D) Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and

Options:
A) On line learning
D) All the above
Q13) Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of e-mail?
Options:
A) www_ail. com
B) www@mail. com
C) WWW@mail. com
D) www.mail. com
Q14) On the keyboard of computer each character has an ASCII value which
stands for:
Options:
A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Q15) Which part of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs calculation and
makes decision
Options:
1185
A) Arithmetic Logic Unit B) Alternating Logic Unit

C) Alternate Local Unit D) American Logic Unit
Page

Q16) Dpi stands for:

Options:
A) Dots per inch

B) Digits per unit
C) Dots pixel inch
D) Diagrams per inch
Q17) The process of laying out a document with text, graphics, headlines and
Options:
A) Deck Top Publis hing
B) Desk Top Printing
C) Desk Top Publishing
D) Deck Top Printing
Q18) Transfer of data from one application to another line is known as:
Options:
A) Dynamic Disk Exchange

B) Dodgy Data Exchange
C) Dogmatic Data Exchange
D) Dynamic Data Exchange
Q19) CD ROM stands for:

Options:
A) Computer Disk Read Only Memory
B) Compact Disk Read Over Memory
C) Compact Disk Read Only Memory
D) Computer Disk Read Over Memory
Q20) The brain of a computer which keeps peripherals under its control is
called:
Options:
A) Common Power Unit

1186
B) Common Processing Unit

C) Central Power Unit
D) Central Processing Unit
Page

Q21) Data can be saved on backing storage medium known as:

Options:
A) Compact Disk Recordable

B) Computer Disk Rewritable
C) Compact Disk Rewritable
D) Computer Data Rewritable
Q22) RAM means:

Options:
A) Random Access Memory
B) Rigid Access Memory
C) Rapid Access Memory
D) Revolving Access Memory
Q23) www represents:

Options:
A) who what and where
B) weird wide web
C) word wide web
D) world wide web
Q24) WYSIWYG -describes the display of a document on screen as it will

actually print:
Options:
A) What you state is what you get
B) What you see is what you get
C) What you save is what you get
D) What you suggest is what you get
Q25) Which of the following is not a Computer language?

Options:
A) PASCAL
B) UNIX
1187
C) FORTRAN
D) COBOL
Page

Q26) A key-board has at least:

Options:
A) 91 keys
B) 101 keys
C) 111 keys
D) 121 keys
Q27) An E-mail address is composed of:

Options:
A) two parts
B) three parts
C) four parts
D) five parts
Q28) Corel Draw is a popular:

Options:
A) Illustration programme
B) Programming language
C) Text programme
Q29) The accounting software Tally was developed by:
Options:
A) HCL
B) TCS
C) Infosys
D) Wipro
Q30) Errors in computer programmes are called:

Options:
A) Follies
B) Mistakes
C) Bugs
1188
D) Spa
Page

Q31) HTML is basically used to design:

Options:
A) Web-page
B) We b-site
C) Graphics
D) Tables and Frames
Q32) Micro Processing' is made for:

Options:
A) Computer
B) Digital System
C) Calculator
D) Electronic Goods
Q33) Information, a combination of graphics, text, sound, video and animation

is called: (DECEMBER-008)
Options:
A) Mulitprogramme
B) Multifacet
C) Multimedia
D) Multiprocess
Q34) What do you need to put your web pages on the www?
Options:
A) a connection to internet
B) a web browser
C) a web server
D) all of the above
Q35) Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services in India?
Options:
A) Essar
B) BPL
1189
C) Hutchison
D) Airtel
Page

Q36) Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from:

Options:
A) Bangalore
B) Sri Harikota
C) Chennai
D) Ahmedabad
Q37) What is blog?

Options:
A) Online music
B) Intranet
C) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
D) A personal or corporate Google search
Q38) Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website?

Options:
A) www.jeevansathi. com
B) www.bharatmatrimony. com
C) www.shaadi. com
D) www. u.k. singlemuslim. com
Q39) Which of the following is not related to information security on the

Internet?
Options:
A) Data Encryption
B) Water marking
C) Data Hiding
D) Information Retrieval
Q40) Which is the largest unit of storage among the following?

Options:
A) Terabyte
B) Megabyte
1190
C) Kilobyte
D) Gigabyte
Page

Q41) bit stands for

Options:
A) binary information term

B) binary digit
C) binary tree
D) Bivariate Theory
Q42) Which one of the following is not a linear data structure?

Options:
A) Array
B) Binary Tree
C) Queue
D) Stack
Q43) Which one of the following is not a network device?

Options:
A) Router
B) Switch
C) Hub
D) CPU
Q44) A compiler is used to convert the following to object code which can be
executed
Options:
A) High-level language
B) Low-level language
C) Assembly language
D) Natural language
Q45) Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?

Options:
A) 2
B) 8
1191
C) 10
D) 16
Page

Q46) Which one of the following is an example of Operating System?

Options:
A) Microsoft Word
B) Microsoft Excel
C) Microsoft Access
D) Microsoft Windows
Q47) Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal
number 23?
Options:
A) 1011
B) 10111
C) 10011
Q48) Which one of the following is different from other members?

Options:
A) Google
B) Windows
C) Linux
D) Mac

Options:
A) 0 -7
B) 0 -9 , A -F
C) 0 -7, A -F
D) None of these
Q50) The binary equivalent of (-15)10 is (2?s complement system is used)

Options:
A) 11110001
B) 11110000
1192
C) 10001111
D) None of these
Page

Q51) The two parts of a computer are

Options:
A) Zip Drive and CD.

B) Monitor and Keyboard
C) Hardware and Software
D) Bus and Power
Q52) The Central Processor Unit (CPU) is a

Options:
A) Place where your files live.
B) Main chip on the computer that makes everything go.
C) Space where your computer does its processing.
D) Disk Drive
Q53) What does RAM stand for?

Options:
A) Random access memory
B) Read access memory
C) Random auxiliary memory
D) Random Anti Memory
Q54) Using websites to pour out ones grievances is called:
Options:
A) cyber venting
B) cyber ranting
C) web hate
D) web plea
Q55) In web search, finding a large number of documents with very little
relevant information is termed:
Options:
A) poor recall
B) web crawl
1193
C) poor precision rate

D) poor web response
Page

Q56) The concept of connect intelligence is derived from:

Options:
A) virtual reality
B) fuzzy logic
C) Bluetooth technology
D) value added networks
Q57) Use of an ordinary telephone as an Internet appliance is called:

Options:
A) voice net
B) voice telephone
C) voice line
D) voice portal
called:
Options:
A) virtual video
B) direct broadcast
C) video shift
D) real-time video
Q59) LAN stands for:

Options:
A) Local And National
Q60) A normal CD-ROM usually can store up to .......... data?

Options:
A) 680 KB
B) 680 Bytes
1194
C) 680 MB
D) 680 GB
Page

Q61) Which of the following required large computer memory?

Options:
A) I maging
B) Graphics
C) Voice
D) All of above
Q62) Offline device is

Options:
A) A device which is not connected to CPU
B) A device which is connected to CPU
C) A direct access storage device
D) An I/O device
Q63) Which of the following programming language started from second

generation?
Options:
A) LISP
B) C
C) QBASIC
D) FORTRAN
Q64) Which one of the following input device is user-programmable?

Options:
A) Dumb terminal
B) Smart terminal
C) VDT
D) Intelligent terminal
Q65) Which is not consisted in a processor

Options:
A) ALU
B) CU
1195
C) Memory
D) Registers
Page

Q66) IBM 1401 is the first computer to enter in Nepal. It belonged to

Options:
A) First Generation
B) Second Generation
C) Third Generation
D) Fourth Generation
Q67) The Third Generation Computer was made with..........

Options:
A) Vacuum Tube
B) Discrete Components
C) IC
D) Bio Chips
Q68) Which of the following are the two main components of the CPU?
Options:
A) Control Unit and Registers
B) Registers and Main Memory
C) Control unit and ALU
D) ALU and bus
Q69) Disk space is the
Options:
A) Place where the computer does the processing.
B) Box that holds the guts of the computer.
C) Place where your files live.
D) Main memory of computer
Q70) A Mega =
Options:
A) 1 Million
B) 10 Million
C) 100 Thousand
1196
D) 1000 Thousand
Page

Q71) A byte stores enough information for one

Options:
A) File
B) Keystroke (e.g.: d)
C) Word (e.g. "boy)
D) Movie
Options:
A) Modem is a software
C) Modem is the operating system
D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa

Options:
A) Computer is a machine that can process information.
qualitative and quantitative data quickly and accurately.

Options:
A) On line learning
D) All the above
Q75) Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of e-mail?

Options:
A) www mail. com

1197
B) www@mail. com
C) WWW@mail. com
D) www.mail. com
Page

Q76) On the keyboard of computer each character has an ASCII value which
stands for:
Options:
A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Q77) Which part of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) performs calculation and
makes decision
Options:
A) Arithmetic Logic Unit

B) Alternating Logic Unit
C) Alternate Local Unit
D) American Logic Unit
Q78) If f you had a 1 Mb text file, how many keystrokes would you have?
Options:
A) It depends on how many words you have.
B) 1 Million
C) 10 Million
D) 1000 Million
Q79) What else do we measure in Megabytes (MB)?

Options:
A) RAM
B) Disk Space
C) Both Disk Space and RAM
D) Only RAM
Q80) Megahertz (MHz) measures

Options:
A) Sound
1198
B) Speed
C) Space
D) None
Page

Q81) UNIVAC is
Options:
A) Universal Automatic Computer

B) Universal Array Computer
C) Unique Automatic Computer
D) Unvalued Automatic Computer
Q82) The basic operations performed by a computer are

Options:
A) Arithmetic operation
B) Logical operation
C) Storage and relative
D) All the above
Q83) c. d-R.O.M. is a
Options:
B) Volatile memory
C) Optical memory
Q84) Laser Printer uses
Options:
A) Raster Scan
B) Camera Lanes
C) Heat Sensitive paper
Q85) Bandwi dth is maximum, along the following communication channel.

Options:
A) Twisted pairs
B) Optical fibre
C) Co-axial cable
1199
D) Infrared
Page

Q86) EBCDIC code developed by

Options:
A) AN SI
B) IBM
C) SILICA
D) Plastic
Q87) CPU chip is made of

Options:
A) Carbon
B) Copper
C) flexible stack
Q88) Winchester disk means

Options:
A) Disk stack
B) Removable disk
C) Flexible stack
Q89) A CPUs processing power is measured in
Options:
A) IPS
B) CIPS
C) MIPS
D) KIPS
Q90) One Kilobyte means

Options:
A) 2^2 Bytes
B) 2^10 Bytes
C) 2^100 Bytes
1200

Page

Q91) A billionth of a second is defined as

Options:
A) Mill Second
B) Micro second
C) Nano second
D) Pico second
Q92) A computer system that combines text, graphics, voice and video is Known
as
Options:
A) Multi user system
B) Multitasking system
C) Multimedia
Q93) The range of frequencies available for data transmission is known as

Options:
A) PCI
B) Multitasking system
C) Multimedia
Q94) WAN Hardware does not include

Options:
A) Multiplexer
B) Router
C) Bridge
D) None of these
Q95) Dpi stands for:

Options:
A) Dots per inch
B) Digits per unit
C) Dots pixel inch
1201
D) Diagrams per inch

Page

Q96) The process of laying out a document with text, graphics, headlines and
Options:
A) Deck Top Publis hing

B) Desk Top Printing
C) Desk Top Publishing
D) Deck Top Printing
Q97) Transfer of data from one application to another line is known as:
Options:
A) Dynamic Disk Exchange
B) Dodgy Data Exchange
C) Dogmatic Data Exchange
D) Dynamic Data Exchange
Q98) CD ROM stands for:

Options:
A) Computer Disk Read Only Memory
B) Compact Disk Read Over Memory
C) Compact Disk Read Only Memory
D) Computer Disk Read Over Memory
Q99) The brain of a computer which keeps peripherals under its control is
called:
Options:
Q100) RAM chip was invented by

Options:
A) I ntel
B) Motorola
1202
C) IBM
D) None of these
Page

Q101) What is diameter of CD-ROM

Options:
A) 12 CM
B) 12 Inch
C) 12 mm
Q102) Internet addresses are assigned by

Options:
A) TETF
B) IEEE
C) INTERNI C
Q103) AMDs full name is

Options:
A) Automated Micro Device
B) Advanced Micro Device
C) Arithmetic Multiple Device
Q104) Cyrix makes
Options:
A) Monitor
B) Microprocessor
C) Printer
Q105) Hertz Means

Options:
A) One cycle per Minute
B) One cycle per second
C) One cycle per millisecond
1203
D) One cycle per hour

Page

Q106) PCI was developed by

Options:
A) Motorola
B) ASCII
C) Intel
Q107) The function of NIC is

Options:
A) Link computer with memory
B) Link computer with network
C) Link computer with printer
Q108) Laser printer uses

Options:
A) PDL
B) HTML
C) COBOL
Q109) Printer resolutions are measured in
Options:
A) Bits per inch
B) Dots per inch.
C) Dots per centimetre
Q110) Photo sensitive chip used in a video camera is know

Options:
A) BCD
B) CCD
C) FDD
1204

Page

Q111) ........ is internet address.

Options:
A) HTML
B) URL
C) HTTP
Q112) PTM is a ........

Options:
A) Utility software
B) System software
C) Application software

Options:
A) Compact Disk Recordable
B) Computer Disk Rewritable
Q114) RAM means:
Options:

Options:
B) weird wide web
C) word wide web
1205
D) world wide web

Page

Q116) WYSIWYG -describes the display of a document on screen as it will

actually print:
Options:
A) What you state is what you get
B) What you see is what you get
C) What you save is what you get
D) What you suggest is what you get
Q117) Which of the following is not a Computer language?

Options:
A) PASCAL
B) UNIX
C) FORTRAN
D) COBOL
Q118) A key-board has at least:

Options:
A) 91 keys
B) 101 keys
C) 111 keys
D) 121 keys
Q119) An E-mail addres s is composed of:

Options:
A) two parts
B) three parts
C) four parts
D) five parts
Q120) Which is pre cursor of the internet?

Options:
A) Gopher
B) ARPANET
1206
C) IETF
Page

Q121) Gateway works on ........ level of OSI model.

Options:
A) 2
B) 3
C) 7
Q122) ........ provides port number.

Options:
A) I ETF
B) IANA
C) MIMC
Q123) Storage capacity of floppy is maximum in ........

Options:
A) DSSD
B) DSDD
C) SSSD
D) All the above
Q124) The ISA is a ........ architecture.
Options:
A) 8 bit Data bus
B) 16 bit data bus
C) 32 bit data bus
D) 64 bit data bus
Q125) The serial mouse has a ........

Options:
A) 9-pin connector
B) 16-pin connector
C) 25 -pin connector
1207
D) 32 pin connector
Page

Q126) Server is also known as ........

Options:
A) Front end
B) Back end
C) Connecting end
Q127) POP is ........

Options:
A) Mail
B) Mail server
C) Mail protocol
Q128) Inventor of WWW is ........

Options:
A) Bill Gates
B) Sachin Tendulkar
C) Tim Berner Lee
Q129) ISA has ........ number of address line.
Options:
A) 18
B) 24
C) 16
D) 20
Q130) The 5.25 inch floppy can ........ MB data.

Options:
A) 2..8 MB
B) 1.2 MB Data
C) 1.4 M.B
1208

Page

Q131) Which one is not a Database Management system.
Options:
A) Access
B) Fox Pro
C) Netscape
D) Oracle
Q132) The .........was created in 1989 at the European particle. Physics

laboratory in Geneva, Switzerland.
Options:
A) Arpanet
B) WWW
C) Firewalls
D) folders
Q133) The operating system uses ........ to help the CPU coordinate processes.
Options:
A) Webs
B) Interrupt Requests (IRQ)
C) Firewalls
D) Folders
Q134) Corel Draw is a popular:

Options:
C) Text programme
Q135) The accounting software Tally was developed by:

Options:
A) HCL
B) TCS
1209
C) Infosys
D) Wipro
Page

Q136) Errors in computer programmes are called:

Options:
A) Follies
B) Mistakes
C) Bugs
D) Spam
Q137) HTML is basically used to design:

Options:
A) Web-page
B) We b-site
C) Graphics
D) Tables and Frame
Q138) Micro Processing' is made for:

Options:
A) Computer
B) Digital System
C) Calculator
D) Electronic Goods
Q139) Information, a combination of graphics, text, sound, video and animation

is called:
Options:
A) Mulitprogramme
B) Multifacet
C) Multimedia
D) Multiprocess
Q140) Refresh rate of monitors is measured in

Options:
A) Hertz
B) measured in
1210
C) Megavolt
D) Megahorse
Page

Q141) PCI is a type of ........

Options:
A) Plug; and Play

B) Browser
C) Bus
D) Software
Q142) PPP stands for

Options:
A) Print to print protocol
B) Point to point Protocol
C) Print to Print protocol
Q143) Cache memory is

Options:
A) High Speed Register
B) Low-Speed RAM
C) Non-Volatile RAM
D) High-Speed RAM
Q144) A GUI is a
Options:
A) Hardware
B) Language interpreter
C) Software interface
D) An operating system
Q145) Which of the following is not a procedural language.

Options:
A) PASCAL
B) Basic
C) Visual Basic
1211

Page

Q146) A ........works like an upside-down mouse.
Options:
A) Joystick
B) Track pad
C) Track point
D) Trackball
Q147) On a CD-ROM data is stored in the form of ........& ........

Options:
A) Lands and pits
B) Dots and Dash
C) High and Low
D) None of these
Q148) TCP/IP is
Options:
A) Software
B) Hardware
C) Network
Q149) Computer virus is a ........

Options:
A) Hardware
B) Software
C) Both A &B
Q150) Three types of memory chips are RAM, ROM and

Options:
A) EISA
1212
B) RI SC
C) CD-ROME
D) CMOS
Page

Q151) Which one is not a multitasking operating system

Options:
A) MS-DOS
B) Windows
C) LINOX
D) UNIX
Q152) What do you need to put your web pages on the www?
Options:
A) a connection to internet
B) a web browser
C) a web server
D) all of the above
Q153) Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services India?
Options:
A) Essar
B) BPL
C) Hutchison
D) Airtel
Q154) Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from:
Options:
A) Bangalore
B) Sri Harikota
C) Chennai
D) Ahmedabad
Q155) What is blog?

Options:
A) Online music
B) Intranet
C) A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
1213
D) A personal or corporate Google search

Page

Q156) Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website?

Options:
A) www.jeevansathi.com
B) www.bharatmatrimony.com
C) www.shaadi.com
D) www.u.k.singlemuslim.com
Q157) ........provides field for entering or comment of any length.

Options:
A) Counter field
B) Logical field
C) Memo field
D) Date field
Q158) The scroll lock key is a ........key.

Options:
A) Function
B) Numeric
C) Toggle
D) Cursor control
Q159) A PCM CI A hard drive uses........
Options:
A) Type I slot
B) Type II slot
C) Type III slot
D) Type I V slot
Q160) Tape is accessed

Options:
A) Randomly
B) Sequentially
C) Direct
1214

Page

Q161) A devise that receives analog signal and converts them into digital data is
known as
Options:
A) Modulator
B) Demodulator
C) Multiplexer
Q162) Master Boot Record is also known as

Options:
A) Partition Sector
B) Master Partition table
C) Both A and B
Q163) Electronic instructions that tells the hardware what to do are known as
Options:
A) Modem
B) Electronic pen
C) Program
D) Micro computer
Q164) Which of the following memories need refresh?

Options:
A) SRAM
B) DRAM
C) ROM
D) All of the above
Q165) Which of the following is not related to information security on the

internet?
Options:
A) Data Encryption
B) Water marking
1215
C) Data Hiding
D) Information Retrieval
Page

Q166) Which is the largest unit of storage among the following?

Options:
A) Terabyte
B) Megabyte
C) Kilobyte
D) Gigabyte
Q167) bit stands for
Options:
A) binary information term
B) binary digit
C) binary tree
D) Bivariate Theory
Q168) Which one of the following is not a linear data structure?

Options:
A) Array
B) Binary Tree
C) Queue
D) Stack
Q169) Which one of the following is not a network device?

Options:
A) Router
B) Switch
C) Hub
D) CPU
Q170) A compiler is used to convert the following to object code which can be
executed
Options:
A) High-level language
B) Low-level language
C) Assembly language
1216
D) Natural language
Page

Q171) The number of records contained within a block of data on magnetic tape
is defined by the
Options:
A) Block definition
B) Record contain clause
C) Blocking factor
D) Record per block
Q172) Mark I is also known as

Options:
A) American Sequence Controlled Calculator
B) Automatic Sequence Calculating Controller
C) American Sequence Controlled Computer
D) Automatic Sequence Controlled Calculator
Q173) Which of the following registers is loaded with the contents of the memory
location pointed by the PC?
Options:
A) Memory address registers

B) Memory data registers
C) Instruction register
D) Program counter
Q174) Which of the following are the cheapest memory devices in terms of
Cost/Bit?
Options:
A) Se miconductor memories
B) Magnetic Disks
C) Compact Disks
D) Magnetic Tapes
Q175) MIS is designed to provide information needed for effective decision

making by?
Options:
1217
A) Consumers
B) Workers
C) Foremen
Page
D) Managers

Q176) Which is valid statement

Options:
A) 1 kB = 1024 Bytes
B) 1 MB = 1024 Bytes
C) 1 kB = 1000 Bytes
D) 1 MB = 1000 Bytes
Q177) Latency time is

Options:
A) Time to spin the needed data under head
B) Time to spin the needed data under track
C) Time to spin data under sector
D) All of above
Q178) Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?

Options:
A) 2
B) 8
C) 10
D) 16
Q179) Which one of the following is an example of Operating System?
Options:
A) Microsoft Word
B) Microsoft Excel
C) Microsoft Access
D) Microsoft Windows
Q180) Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the
decimal number 23?
Options:
A) 1011
B) 10111
1218
C) 10011
Page

Q181) Which one of the following is different from other members?

Options:
A) Google
B) Windows
C) Linux
D) Mac
Q182) Who built the first Mechanical Calculator

Options:
A) Joseph Marie Jacquard
B) John Mauchly
C) Blaise Pascal
D) Howard Aike
Q183) The most important advantage of a video disk is

Options:
A) Compactness
B) Potential capacity
C) Durability
D) Cost effectiveness
Q184) Which of the following generation computers had expensive operation

cost?
Options:
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Q185) An IBM system/38 represents the computer class of

Options:
A) Small-scale computer
B) Medium-scale computer
1219
C) Large-scale computer
D) Super computer
Page

Q186) Another word for a daisy wheel printer

Options:
A) Petal printer
B) Golf ball printer
C) Laser printer
D) Line printer
Q187) Cursor is a
Options:
A) Pixel
B) Thin blinking line
C) Pointing device
D) None of these
Q188) Which device is used to backup the data?

Options:
A) Floppy Dis k
B) Tape
C) Network Drive
D) All of the above
Q189) Which of the following printers are you sure will not to use if your
objective is to print on multi carbon forms?
Options:
A) Daisy wheel
B) Dot matrix
C) Laser
D) Thimble
Q190) Which of the following items are examples of storage devices?

Options:
A) Floppy / hard disks
B) CD-ROMs
C) Tape devices
1220
D) All of the above

Page

Q191) ASCII and EBCDIC are the popular character coding systems. What does
ASCII stand for?
Options:
A) American Stable Code for International Interchange

B) American Standard Case for Institutional Interchange
C) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
D) American Standard Code for Interchange Information
Q192) Which computers are used as servers for any medium sized
organizations?
Options:
A) Mainframe Computer
B) Mini Computers
C) Micro Computers
D) Super Computers
Q193) Slide Rules was invented in

Options:
A) 1614
B) 1617
C) 1620
D) None of above
Q194) A typical personal computer used for business purposes would

have..........of RAM.
Options:
A) 4 KB
B) 16 K
C) 64 K
D) 256 K
Q195) The ALU of a computer normally contains a number of high speed storage
element called
Options:
1221
A) Se miconductor memory
B) Registers
C) Hard disks
Page
D) Magnetic disk

Q196) Which was the computer conceived by Babbage?

Options:
A) Analytical Engine
B) Arithmetic Machine
C) Donald Kunth
D) All of above
Q197) The processing speed of first generation computers was

Options:
A) milliseconds
B) microseconds
C) nanoseconds
D) picoseconds
Q198) Model 5100 was ........ in 1957.

Options:
A) The first PC built by IBM
B) The first PC built by Apple
C) The first PC built by Motorola
D) The first PC built by Intel
Q199) VGA is
Options:
A) Video Graphics Array
B) Visual Graphics Array
C) Volatile Graphics Array
D) Video Graphics Adapter
Q200) A kind of scanner MICR is the short form of

Options:
A) Magnetic Ink Character Reader
B) Magnetic Ink Code Reader
C) Magnetic Ink Cases Reader
1222

Page

Q201) Which of the following is not a class based on size?

Options:
B) Micro Computer
C) Mini Computer
D) Digital Computer
Q202) Which 8-bit chip was used in many of todays TRS-80 computers?
Options:
A) Z-8000
B) Motorola 6809
C) Z-8808
D) Z-80
Q203) Which of the following disk is fixed disk?

Options:
A) Hard Disks
B) Flash Disks
C) Blu-Ray Disks
D) DVDs
Q204) Which of the following professions has not been affected by personal
computers?
Options:
A) Medical
B) Clerical and law
C) Accounting
Q205) The word Abacus is derived from Abax, a word from

Options:
A) Latin language
B) Greek Language
1223
C) Sanskrit language
D) Ancient Egypt
Page

Q206) In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed

Options:
A) Parallel only
B) Sequentially only
C) Both sequentially and parallel
D) All of above
Q207) Which of the following memory medium is not used as main memory
system?
Options:
A) Magnetic core
B) Semiconductor
C) Magnetic tape
D) Both A and B
Q208) An online backing storage system capable of storing larger quantities of

data is
Options:
A) CPU
B) Memory
C) Mass storage
D) Secondary storage
Q209) A kind of serial dot-matrix printer that forms characters with

magnetically charged ink sprayed dots is called
Options:
A) Laser printer
B) Ink-jet printer
C) Drum printer
D) Chan printer
Q210) Which of the following does not affect the resolution of a video display
image?
Options:
1224
A) Bandwidth
B) Raster scan rage
C) Vertical and horizontal lines of resolution
Page
D) Screen size

Q211) Which of the following printing devices an output composed of a series of

data?
Options:
A) Wire matrix printer
B) Band printer
C) Wang image printer
D) Both A and C
Q212) Which of the following is an example of fifth generation computer?

Options:
A) PIM/m
B) ICL 2950
C) IBM 140
D) None of above
Q213) Magnetic disks are the most popular medium for

Options:
A) Direct access
B) Sequential access
C) Both A and B
D) None of above
Q214) Which of the following is not a third generation computer?

Options:
A) I BM 360
B) IBM 1401
C) PDP-8
D) HP 2115
Q215) What is a compiler?

Options:
A) A compile r does a conversion line by line as the program is run
B) A compiler converts the whole of a higher level program code into machine
1225
code in one step

C) A compiler is a general purpose language providing very efficient execution
Page

Q216) .......... computers are also called personal computers

Options:
B) Mini Computers
C) Micro Computers
D) Super Computers
Q217) Which of the following is not input unit device?

Options:
A) scanner
B) camera
C) plotter
D) digitizer
Q218) Identify the correct statement

Options:
A) I BM PCs used RISC CPU designs
B) Macintosh used CISC CPU design
C) IBM used CISC CPU design
D) None of above is true
Q219) Which of the following statement is false?
Options:
A) Mechanical analog computers have existed for thousands of years
B) There are mechanical analog computers and electronic analog computers.
C) All electronic computers are digital computers
D) All of above are false
Q220) Which of the following require large computers memory?

Options:
A) I maging
B) Graphics
C) Voice
1226
D) All of Above
Page

Q221) The two major types of computer chips are

Options:
A) Exte rnal memory chip
B) Primary memory chip
C) Microprocessor chip
D) Both B and C
Q222) Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation computers
Options:
A) First Generation
B) Second Generation
C) Third Generation
D) Fourth Generation
Q223) What is the main difference between a mainframe and a super computer?
Options:
A) Super computer is much larger than mainframe computers
B) Super computers are much smaller than mainframe computers
C) Supercomputers are focused to execute few programs as fast as possible
while mainframe uses its power to execute as many programs concurrently
D) Supercomputers are focused to execute as many programs as possible while
mainframe uses its power to execute few programs as fast as possible.
Q224) ASCII and EBCDIC are the popular character coding systems. What does
EBCDIC stand for?
Options:
A) Exte nded Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
B) Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code
C) Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code
D) Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code
Q225) The brain of any computer system is

Options:
A) ALU
1227
B) Memory
C) CPU
D) Control unit
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Q226) Storage capacity of magnetic disk depends on

Options:
A) tracks per inch of surface

B) bits per inch of tracks
C) disk pack in disk surface
D) All of above
Q227) The two kinds of main memory are

Options:
A) Primary and secondary
B) Random and sequential
C) ROM and RAM
D) All of above
Q228) Which of the following devices can be sued to directly image printed text?
Options:
A) OCR
B) OMR
C) MICR
D) All of above
Q229) The output quality of a printer is measured by
Options:
A) Dot per inch
B) Dot per sq. inch
C) Dots printed per unit time
D) All of above
Q230) In analog computer

Options:
A) I nput is first converted to digital form
B) Input is never converted to digital form
C) Output is displayed in digital form
1228
D) All of above
Page

Q231) Which of the following memories needs refresh?

Options:
A) SRAM
B) DRAM
C) ROM
D) All of above
Q232) Through which device the main components of the computer

communicate with each other?
Options:
A) Keyboard
B) System Bus
C) Monitor
D) Memory
Q233) What type of device is computer keyboard?

Options:
A) Memory
B) Output
C) Storage
D) Input
Q234) Which is the limitation of high level language?

Options:
A) Lower efficiency
B) Machine dependence
C) machine level coding
D) None of above
Q235) An example of a digital device can be

Options:
A) Digital clock
B) Automobile speed meter
1229
C) Clock with a dial and two hands

D) All of the above
Page

Q236) Where does a computer add and compare its data?

Options:
A) CPU
B) Memory
C) Hard disk
D) Floppy disk
Q237) Computers on an internet are identified by

Options:
A) e-mail address
B) street address
C) IP address
Options:
A) MTNL
B) BSNL
C) ERNET India
D) Infotech India Ltd.
Options:
A) 0 -7
B) 0 -9 , A -F
C) 0 -7, A -F
D) None of these
Q240) The binary equivalent of (-15)10 is (2?s complement system is used)

Options:
A) 11110001
B) 11110000
C) 10001111
1230
D) None of these
Page

Q241) Which of the following is not true?

Options:
A) Transistors are much smaller

B) Transistors produce low heat
C) Transistors were less reliable
D) Transistors were used in radios and other electronic devices
Q242) A characteristic of card systems is

Options:
A) Slowness in processing data
B) Using cards as records of transactions
C) Needing a larger DP staff
D) All of the above
Q243) The full form of EEPROM is

Options:
A) Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
B) Easily Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
C) Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
Q244) The original ASCII code used .......... bits of each byte, reserving that last
bit for error checking
Options:
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Q245) A computer programmer

Options:
A) Does all the thinking for a computer
B) Can enter input data quickly
1231
C) Can operate all types of computer equipments

D) Can draw only flowchart
Page

Q246) Fifth generation computer is also known as

Options:
A) Knowledge information processing system
B) Very large scale integration (VLSI)
C) Both of above
D) None of above
Q247) The commonly used standard data code to represent alphabetical,

Numerical and punctuation characters used in electronic data processing
system is called
Options:
A) ASCII
B) EBCDIC
C) BCD
D) All of above
Q248) Which of the following have low failure rate?

Options:
A) mechanical devices
B) electronic devices
C) electro-mechanical devices
D) None of above
Q249) Who designed the first electronics computer-ENIAC?

Options:
A) Van-Neuma
B) Joseph M. Jacquard
C) J. Presper Eckert and John W Mauchly
D) All of above
Q250) Who invented the high level language C?

Options:
A) Dennis M. Ritchie
B) Niklaus Wirth
1232
C) Donald Kunth
D) Cormen and Rivest
Page

Q251) Which of the following is the appropriate definition of Information

Technology?
Options:
A) I nformation Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for

processing information.
B) Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for
distribution of useful in-formation
C) Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for
storage, retrieval, processing and distributing information of Book Examination
system? any kinds.
D) Information Technology refers to the use of principles of Physical sciences
and Social sciences for processing of information of many kinds
Q252) ICT stands for:

Options:
A) I nternational Communication Technology
B) Computer is capable of analyzing both quantitative and qualitative data
C) Information and Communication Technology
D) Inter connected Terminals
Q253) Which of the following statement is NOT correct?

Options:
A) Computer is capable of processing only digital signal.
B) Computer is capable of analyzing both quantitative and qualitative data.
C) Appropriate software is required for processing the data
D) Computer is capable of processing digital as well as analog signals
Q254) Boot is......
Options:
A) start-up of a computer B) loading software in a computer
C) managing memory of computer D) all of above
Q255) Generalized conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically know as:
Options:
1233
A) statistical inference of external validity of the research

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D) All of the above

Q256) DTH (Direct to Home)

Options:
A) TV communication
B) Cinema
C) Radio
D) None of these
Q257) Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) is used for

Options:
A) high speed data transfer
B) developing efficient digital network over existing one
C) accessing remote computer
D) synchronizing protocols of different network
Q258) Corel Draw is a popular

Options:
C) Text programme
Q259) The first question that a re-searcher interested in the applicable for
statistical techniques to his problem has to as
Options:
A) whether the data could be quantified
B) whether appropriate statistical techniques are available
C) whether analysis of data would be possible
D) whether worthwhile inferences could be draw
Q260) Radio waves of constant amplitude can be generated with

Options:
A) filter
B) rectified
1234
C) FET
D) oscillator
Page

Q261) File
Options:
A) is a collection of related records
B) is a automated processing system
C) TDM
D) None of these
Q262) ASCII represents ...... Number of characters C if it is using 7 bits
Options:
A) 127
B) 256
C) 128
D) None of these
Q263) An input operation performs two functions, they are

Options:
A) It causes an input device to physically read data, and transmits the data from
the input de-vice to an input area of CPU.
B) It causes an input device to transmits the data convert into image form.
C) It causes an input device to physically read data, transmit the data to printer.
D) None of these
Q264) Very small time intervals less than Nano seconds are accurately
measured by the
Options:
A) Quartz clocks
B) Pulsars
C) Atomic clocks
D) White dwarfs
Q265) Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India?

Options:
A) NTSE
B) PAL
1235
C) SECAM
D) NTCS
Page

Q266) Which of the following is recording source of data?

Options:
A) Books
B) Journals, Magazines and Newspapers
C) Internet clippings
D) All of these
Q267) ...... are self replicating malicious code independent of the action of the
user but slow down the processes on entering a network.
Options:
A) Viruses
B) Worm
C) Trojan Horse
D) None of these
Q268) RAM means:

Options:

Q269) Which of the following is a job of DNS?

Options:
A) Name display
B) File transfer
C) IP address display
D) None of these
Q270) MICR devices can read

Options:
A) letter
B) numbers
1236
C) Both (a) and (b)

D) None of these
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Options:
A) 2000
B) 2002
C) 2004
D) 2006
Q272) Jon Von Neumann developed
Options:
A) the first electronic computer.
B) first electronic flip flop machine
C) stored programme concept
D) None of these
Q273) The VIRUS is a

Options:
A) Software program
B) Hardware
C) Device
D) None of these
Q274) Which of the following statements is true with respect to Electronic Fund
Transfer?
Options:
A) To verify the identity of the card holder using signature is more than using
the PIN.
B) All cards are not checked with hot card number
C) A central authority verifies the signature of the card
D) None of these
Q275) Ethernet is an example of

Options:
A) LAN
B) WAN
1237
C) MAN
D) None of these
Page

Q276) what is EDI?

Options:
A) Electronic Data Interface
B) Electronic Data Internet
C) Electronic Data Interchange
D) None of these
Q277) LAN stands for:
Options:
A) Local and National

Options:
A) System for International Tele-vision based Education.

B) Satellite Instruction Television Experiment.
C) Satellite Instructional Technological Experiment.
D) System of Indian Trade in Europe.
Q279) Communication satellites work through

Options:
A) Transponders
B) Transmitters
C) Radars
D) None of these
Q280) The question to be answered by factorial analysis of the quantitative data

Options:
A) Is X related to Y?
B) How is X related to Y?
C) How does X affect the dependent variable Y at different levels of another
1238
independent variable K or M?
D) How is X by K related to M?
Page

Q281) Which of the following is meant of information collection?

Options:
A) Schedule
B) Report
C) Plan
D) Scope
Q282) Hybrid computer is a combination of

Options:
A) Calculator and Laptop
B) Laptop and Abacus
C) Analog Computer and Digital Computer
D) Punch Card and Analog Computer
Q283) Which of the following is not a part of Information?

Options:
A) logical
B) formal
C) impersonal
D) perception
Q284) Close Circuit Television CCT is useful
Options:
A) only for a restricted audience residing at a particular place.
B) for large group communication
C) only for poor students of the class
D) None of these
Q285) Using antivirus software is a

Options:
A) detective measure
B) preventive measure
C) corrective measure
1239
D) All of the above

Page

Q286) Data in a computer can be represented as

Options:
A) hexadecimal
B) decimal
C) binary
D) All of the above
Q287) which of the following is used to append a digital signature?

Options:
A) Public key
B) Private key
C) Digital key
D) none of these
Q288) Benefits of computer are that

Options:
A) they are accurate
B) they are intelligent
C) they are machine
D) None of these
Q289) Logic of induction is very close to
Options:
A) logic of sampling
B) logic of observation
C) logic of controlled variables
D) None of these
Q290) Which satellite channel uses the adline, Knowing is everything?

Options:
A) BBC World
B) Star
C) Sony
1240
D) Zee
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Options:
A) An increase in the production of machines increases the organizational
efficiency of the economy.
B) Better economic organization produces more machines
C) Better economic organization leads to a more efficient use of machines.
D) Machines produce money leading to an increase in productivity of the
economy.
Q292) Nano knowledge city is being established at

Options:
A) Jaipur
B) Hyderabad
C) Bangalore
D) Chandigarh
Q293) The system file of an operating system is

Options:
A) ASM
B) COM
C) DOT
D) pdf
Q294) Data is computerized to

Options:
A) meet the business requirement
B) to increase the integrity value of the data
C) to ensure optimal utilization of resources
D) modularity
Q295) Color cards are used for

Options:
A) Monitors
B) CPU
1241
C) Video graphics
D) All of these
Page

Q296) ATMs of bank have

Options:
A) emoney
B) only money transferring capabilities
C) real currency
D) None of these
Q297) Line access and avoidance of collision are the main functions of:
Options:
A) the CPU
B) the monitor
C) network protocols
D) wide area networks
Q298) Laptop is a
Options:
A) Mini-computer
B) Micro-computer
C) Desktop PC
D) None of these
Q299) . Is the most advantageous payment way when orders are mostly
received through phone or e-mail.
Options:
A) Real time processing solution
B) We blink
C) API
D) Virtual terminal solution
Q300) FTP is better than HTTP because

Options:
A) it uses separate channels for data transmission and flow control.
B) it transfers data from the web server.
C) it transfers data from the life sever.
1242
D) it copies file to the user's hard disk in the destination specified by the user.
Page

called:
Options:
A) virtual video
B) direct broadcast
C) video shift
D) real-time video
Q302) Which is the source of primary data

Options:
A) Books
B) newspapers
C) Respondent
D) Reports
Q303) Ethernet is an example of

Options:
A) LAN
B) WAN
C) MAN
D) None of these
Q304) What is EDI?

Options:
A) Electronic Data Interface
B) Electronic Data Internet
C) Electronic Data Interchange
D) None of these

Options:
A) System for International Television based Education.
B) Satellite Instruction Television Experiment.
1243
C) Satellite Instructional Technological Experiment.

D) System of Indian Trade in Europe.
Page

Q306) The VIRUS is a

Options:
A) Software program
B) Hardware
C) Device
D) None of these
Q307) Which of the following statements is true with respect to Electronic Fund
Transfer?
Options:
A) To verify the identity of the card holder using signature is more than using
the PIN.
B) All cards are not checked with hot card number
C) A central authority verifies the signature of the card
D) None of these
Q308) Jon Von Neumann developed

Options:
A) the first electronic computer.

B) first electronic flip flop machine
C) stored programme concept
D) None of these
Q309) MICR devices can read

Options:
A) letter
B) numbers
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of these
Q310) RAM means:

Options:
1244

Page

Q311) Which of the following is recording source of data?

Options:
A) Books
B) Journals, Magazines and Newspapers
C) Internet clippings
D) All of these
Q312) An input operation performs two functions, they are
Options:
A) It causes an input device to physically read data, and transmits the data from
the input device to an input area of CPU.
B) It causes an input device to transmits the data convert into image form.
C) It causes an input device to physically read data, transmit the data to printer.
D) none of these
Q313) Very small time intervals less than Nano seconds are accurately
measured by the
Options:
A) Quartz clocks
B) Pulsars
C) Atomic clocks
D) White dwarfs
Q314) DTH (Direct to Home)

Options:
A) TV communication
B) Cinema
C) Radio
D) None of these
Q315) Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) is used for

Options:
A) high speed data transfer
B) developing efficient digital network over existing one
1245
C) accessing remote computer

D) synchronizing protocols of different network
Page

Q316) Corel Draw is a popular

Options:
C) Text programme
Q317) Radio waves of constant amplitude can be generated with

Options:
A) filter
B) rectified
C) FET
D) oscillator
Q318) File
Options:
A) is a collection of related records
B) is a automated processing system
C) TDM
D) None of these
Q319) Boot is --
Options:
A) start up of a computer
B) loading software in a computer
C) managing memory of computer
D) all of above
Q320) Generalized conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically known as:

Options:
A) statistical inference of external validity of the research
1246
D) All of the above

Page

Q321) Which of the following is not an input device /

Options:
A) Joystick B) Scanner
C) VDU D) Keyboard
Q322) Which of the following is the appropriate definition of Information

Technology?
Options:
A) I nformation Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for

processing information.
B) Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for
distribution of useful information
C) Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for
storage, retrieval, processing and distributing information of many kinds.
D) Information Technology refers to the use of principles of Physical sciences
and Social sciences for processing of information of many kinds.
Q323) ICT stands for:
Options:
A) I nternational Communication Technology
C) Information and Communication Technology
D) Inter connected Terminals
Q324) Which of the following Satellites helps to telecast T.V. Network

Programmes all over the country?
Options:
A) Apple
B) Aryabhatta
C) Rohini
D) INSAT -IB
Q325) Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
Options:
1247
A) Computer is capable of processing only digital signal.

C) Appropriate software is required for processing the data
Page
D) Computer is capable of processing digital as well as analog signals

Q326) Memory protection is normally done by

Options:
A) the operating system

B) the antivirus
C) the processor and the associated hardware
D) the user programme

Options:

Options:
B) weird wide web
C) word wide web
D) world wide web
Q329) Which of the following satellites is known as Resources at -1?
Options:
A) IRSP -5
B) IRSP -6
C) IRSC -1
D) IRSD -1
Q330) The ' brain' of a computer which keeps peripherals under its control is
called
Options:
1248

Page

Q331) Errors in computer programmes are called

Options:
A) Follies
B) Mistakes
C) Bugs
D) Spam
Q332) Micro Processing ' is made for
Options:
A) Mulitprogramme
B) Multifacet
C) Multimedia
D) Multiprocess
Q333) A transmission mode that uses different wire for different bits is
transmission.
Options:
A) parallel
B) serial
C) random
D) fat
Q334) Back up means:

Options:
A) to create a duplicate set of programme or data files in case the original is
damaged.
B) provide different kinds of connection and band width in computers.
C) the type of data transmission.
D) All of the above
Q335) Programs stored in which of the following memories can't be erased?

Options:
A) RAM
B) ROM
1249
C) Cache Memory
D) Virtual Memory
Page

Q336) The set of computer programs that manage the hardware/software of a

computer is called
Options:
A) Compiler system
B) Operation system
C) Operating system
D) None of these
Q337) Which of the following is/are steps of software developments?

Options:
A) Specify the problem
B) Analyze the problem
C) Test the program
D) All of the above
Q338) A peripheral is:

Options:
A) firmware
B) sleek ware
C) software
D) hardware
Q339) Which of the following is/are modem's characteristics?

Options:
A) Transmission speed
B) Data compression
C) Error detection and correction
D) All of these
Q340) Plotter is a
Options:
A) LAN
B) Language
C) Output device
1250
D) All of these
Page

Q341) Which of the following FM radio stations is owned by the Times of India
group?
Options:
A) Radio City
B) Radio Mirchi
C) Radio Rainbow
D) Red FM

Options:
A) Radio
B) Television
C) Film
D) Newspaper
Q343) Which of the following is not a characteristic of VPN (Virtual Private

Network ) /
Options:
A) Low Capital Requirement

B) High Pay Back Period
C) Less expensive than leased line network
D) More flexible than WAN technology
Q344) ISDN stands for:

Options:
A) I ndian Standard Digital Network
B) Integrated Service Digital Network
C) Integrated Service Data Network
D) International Standard Data Network
Options:
A) MTNL
B) BSNL
1251
C) ERNET India
D) Infotech India Ltd.
Page

Q346) HTTP stands for

Options:
A) hypertext type protocol

B) hypertext transfer protocol
C) honorary text transfer protocol
D) None of these
Q347) An MMS is
Options:
A) an audio media
B) a visual media
C) audio-visual media
D) None of these
Q348) Which of the following is associated with implementation of e-commerce/

Options:
A) MAN
B) Wireless WAN
C) Value-added network
D) None of these
Q349) For security we should consider -----------in internet
Options:
A) local data reduction
B) event correction
C) low resource utilization
D) All of these
Q350) A session can be defined as

Options:
A) a link between two network nodes
B) series of transmission between nay disconnection
C) a specific connection place in a system
1252
D) None of these
Page

Q351) Which is the oldest soap opera telecasted in India?

Options:
A) Kahani Ghar Ghar Ki

B) Buniad
C) Humlog
D) Saas Bhi Kabhi Bahu Thee
Q352) Which of the following methods implies the collection of information by

way of investigators own examination without interviewing the respondents?
Options:
A) Observation
B) Posting questionnaire
C) Schedule method
D) Random probability sampling
Q353) Attributes of objects, events or things which can be measured are called
Options:
A) qualitative measure
B) data
C) variables.
D) none of these

Options:
A) Modem is a software.
C) Modem is the operating system.
D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa.
Q355) Which of the following is the appropriate format of Url of e-mail?

Options:
A) www_ mail. com
B) www@mail. com
1253
C) WWW@mail. com
D) www.mail. com
Page


Options:
A) Computer is a machine that can process information
qualitative accurate ly.
accurately only information
Q357) SON ET uses ..

Options:
A) twisted-pair cable
B) fibre-optic cable
C) coaxial cable
D) none of these
Q358) What is browser?
Options:
A) A special program to use the Internet
B) A special program to run the computer
C) A machine
D) None of these
Q359) Viruses that can change their appearance and use encryption are known
as
Options:
A) boot sector virus
B) polymorphic virus
C) stealth virus
D) None of these
1254
Page

Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) C, Q3) D, Q4) A, Q5) A, Q6) D,
Q7) C, Q8) D, Q9) B, Q10) D, Q11) B,
Q12) D, Q13) B, Q14) B, Q15) A, Q16) A,
Q17) C, Q18) D, Q19) C, Q20) D, Q21) C,
Q22) A, Q23) D, Q24) B, Q25) B, Q26) B,
Q27) A, Q28) A, Q29) B, Q30) C, Q31) A,
Q32) B, Q33) C, Q34) D, Q35) B, Q36) B,
Q37) C, Q38) D, Q39) D, Q40) A, Q41) B,
Q42) B, Q43) D, Q44) A, Q45) A, Q46) D,
Q47) B, Q48) A, Q49) B, Q50) A, Q51) C,
Q52) B, Q53) A, Q54) A, Q55) A, Q56) D,
Q57) C, Q58) D, Q59) B, Q60) C, Q61) D,
Q62) A, Q63) D, Q64) D, Q65) C, Q66) B,
Q67) C, Q68) C, Q69) C, Q70) A, Q71) B,
Q72) D, Q73) B, Q74) D, Q75) B, Q76) B,
Q77) A, Q78) B, Q79) C, Q80) B, Q81) A,
Q82) D, Q83) C, Q84) A, Q85) B, Q86) B,
Q87) C, Q88) A, Q89) C, Q90) B, Q91) C,
Q92) C, Q93) B, Q94) C, Q95) A, Q96) C,
Q97) D, Q98) C, Q99) D, Q100) C, Q101) C,
Q102) C, Q103) B, Q104) B, Q105) B, Q106) C,
Q107) B, Q108) A, Q109) B, Q110) A, Q111) B,
Q112) C, Q113) C, Q114) A, Q115) D, Q116) B,
Q117) B, Q118) B, Q119) A, Q120) B, Q121) C,
Q122) B, Q123) B, Q124) B, Q125) A, Q126) B,
Q127) C, Q128) C, Q129) B, Q130) B, Q131) C,
Q132) B, Q133) B, Q134) A, Q135) B, Q136) C,
Q137) A, Q138) B, Q139) C, Q140) A, Q141) C,
Q142) B, Q143) D, Q144) C, Q145) C, Q146) D,
Q147) A, Q148) C, Q149) C, Q150) D, Q151) A,
Q152) D, Q153) B, Q154) B, Q155) C, Q156) D,
Q157) C, Q158) C, Q159) C, Q160) B, Q161) B,
Q162) C, Q163) C, Q164) B, Q165) D, Q166) A,
Q167) B, Q168) B, Q169) D, Q170) A, Q171) C,
Q172) D, Q173) C, Q174) C, Q175) D, Q176) A,
Q177) A, Q178) A, Q179) D, Q180) B, Q181) A,
Q182) C, Q183) B, Q184) A, Q185) A, Q186) B,
Q187) B, Q188) D, Q189) C, Q190) D, Q191) C,
Q192) B, Q193) C, Q194) D, Q195) B, Q196) A,
Q197) A, Q198) A, Q199) A, Q200) A, Q201) D,
Q202) D, Q203) A, Q204) D, Q205) A, Q206) C,
Q207) C, Q208) C, Q209) B, Q210) D, Q211) D,
1255
Q212) A, Q213) C, Q214) B, Q215) B, Q216) C,

Q217) C, Q218) C, Q219) C, Q220) D, Q221) D,
Q222) D, Q223) C, Q224) A, Q225) C, Q226) D,
Page

Q227) C, Q228) A, Q229) B, Q230) B, Q231) B,

Q232) B, Q233) D, Q234) A, Q235) A, Q236) A,
Q237) C, Q238) D, Q239) B, Q240) A, Q241) C,
Q242) D, Q243) A, Q244) C, Q245) A, Q246) A,
Q247) D, Q248) B, Q249) C, Q250) A, Q251) C,
Q252) C, Q253) D, Q254) D, Q255) A, Q256) A,
Q257) A, Q258) A, Q259) A, Q260) D, Q261) A,
Q262) C, Q263) A, Q264) C, Q265) B, Q266) D,
Q267) A, Q268) A, Q269) C, Q270) B, Q271) D,
Q272) C, Q273) D, Q274) D, Q275) A, Q276) A,
Q277) B, Q278) B, Q279) A, Q280) D, Q281) A,
Q282) C, Q283) D, Q284) A, Q285) D, Q286) C,
Q287) B, Q288) A, Q289) A, Q290) A, Q291) C,
Q292) C, Q293) B, Q294) C, Q295) A, Q296) C,
Q297) C, Q298) D, Q299) D, Q300) A, Q301) D,
Q302) C, Q303) A, Q304) A, Q305) B, Q306) D,
Q307) D, Q308) C, Q309) B, Q310) A, Q311) D,
Q312) A, Q313) C, Q314) A, Q315) A, Q316) A,
Q317) D, Q318) A, Q319) D, Q320) A, Q321) C,
Q322) C, Q323) C, Q324) C, Q325) D, Q326) C,
Q327) C, Q328) D, Q329) B, Q330) D, Q331) C,
Q332) C, Q333) B, Q334) A, Q335) B, Q336) C,
Q337) D, Q338) D, Q339) D, Q340) C, Q341) B,
Q342) D, Q343) C, Q344) B, Q345) D, Q346) B,
Q347) C, Q348) C, Q349) D, Q350) B, Q351) C,
Q352) A, Q353) C, Q354) D, Q355) B, Q356) B,
Q357) B, Q358) A, Q359) B,
1256
Page

Information and Commun ication Technology Part II :
Q1) The name of the first Electronic computer is

Options:
A) E DVAC B) E N IAC C) E DSAC D) UNIVAC
Q2) Which of the following is the example of input device?

Options:
A) Visual Display unit, Dot-matrix Printer, Laser Printer
B) Key board, Mouse, OMR
C) RAM, ROM, PROM
D) Arithmetic and Logic unit, Control unit
Q3) Which of the following statement does describe best the computer based
information system?
Options:
A) A system is which computer is used to change data into informations

B) Input data
C) Processing data
D) To analyse the complex mathematical calculations
Q4) Two main types of Computer Chips are

Options:
A) Exte rnal Memory Chip B) Primary Memory Chip
C) Microprocessor Chip D) Both B and C
Q5) Which of the following is measured in Bits and Bytes?

Options:
A) Computer Memory B) Computer Speed
C) Computer Storage Capacity D) None of the above
Q6) The operation for adding two numbers has been carried out in
1257
Options:
A) Programme B) ALU C) Control unit D) Output unit
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Q7) The amount of cheque is recorded through magnetic ink through

Options:
A) Encoder B) Embosser C) Inscriber D) Imprinter
Q8) The term computer is generally used for CPU and

Options:
A) External memory B) Internal memory
C) Input device D) Output device
Q9) Such a Network which helps in communicating regional, national and global
informations through large institutions is called
Options:
A) MAN B) LAN C) WAN D) VAN
Q10) MODEM is used for communicating data

Options:
A) I n LAN B) In MAN C) In WAN D) None of the above
Q11) Which of the following is NOT an ingredient of 'MS Office'?

Options:
A) MS Word B) MS Excel C) MS Power Point D) MS Super Power
Q12) For joining gateways one uses
Options:
A) Two similar network
B) Two different network
C) Best channels available for communication
D) Best networks for communication
Q13) C, C++ and JAVA are the example of

Options:
1258
A) Programming language B) Secondary memory device

C) Internal parts of a computer D) Brands of professional computers
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Q14) For booting a computer related informations are stored in

Options:
A) Random Access Memory B) CD-ROM
C) Read only Memory D) In all the above
Q15) The Computer Monitor is joined with

Options:
A) A Cable B) A Bus C) A Wire D) A Modem
Q16) The best economic method of Data processing is

Options:
A) Batch processing B) Transaction processing
C) Distributed processing D) Real time processing
Q17) Web client is called

Options:
A) Web server B) We b Browser
Q18) Computer Assisted Instruction (CAI) is generally used to fulfil

Options:
A) Cognitive objective
B) Affective objectives
C) Psycho-motor objectives
D) Only A and B
Q19) When and where the first computer was installed in India?
Options:
A) I ndian Statistical Institute, Kolkata in 1955

B) Indian Institute of Statistics, Delhi in 1957
C) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore, in 1971
D) Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad, in 1975
1259
Page

Q20) Which of the following does not use in Local Area Network (LAN)?
Options:
A) Modem B) Printer C) Calse D) Computer
Q21) Machine language and Assembly language are the examples of

Options:
A) High level language B) Low level language
Q22) Which type of Hardware input is being used in computer supported

information system?
Options:
A) Key board B) Printer C) Monitor D) Hard Disk
Q23) Multimedia is
Options:
A) A technology B) A software C) A media D) A popular computer game
Q24) Optical Character Reader (OCR) can read

Options:
A) The data printed by machine only
B) The numbers printed by machine and hand only
C) Both of the above except hand written material
D) The machine
Q25) Which part of Menu Bar will you open for the selection of New Slide?
Options:
A) File B) Edit C) Insert D) View
Q26) Which of the following Network had developed first of all in the field of
Education?
1260
Options:
A) NICNET B) MAN C) WAN D) None of the above
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Q27) A Byte is equal to

Options:
A) 2 Bits B) 8 Bits C) 16 Bits D) 32 Bits
Q28) The advantage of MS WORD is in

Options:
A) Letter writing B) Preparing lecture
C) Preparing question paper D) All the above
Q29) He aders and Footers are exhibited

Options:
A) In print layout B) In normal view
C) In web layout D) In all the above
Q30) A person can make out presentations for

Options:
A) Sales promotion B) Teaching
C) Orientation training of employees D) All the above
Q31) By which one of the following Data Entry cannot be carried out?
Options:
A) KOM B) OCR C) OMR D) Voice identification system
Q32) For preparing new pres entation one should use the following command
Options:
A) Auto content wizard B) MS outlook
C) Command Prompt D) MS Access
Q33) The Father of the Linear Programming is

Options:
1261
A) B.F. Skinne r
B) Sydney Pressy
C) Norman A.crowder
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D) Thomas F.Gilbert

Q34) Which of the following devices is just against the Key Board in a computer
system?
Options:
A) Printer B) Track ball C) Joystick D) Mouse
Q35) UNIX, DOS and WINDOWS are the examples of

Options:
A) Application programme B) Operating system
C) Word processing D) Commercial computer brands
Q36) The first webpage of any organisation is called

Options:
A) Portal B) Home page C) Portal D) Web site
Q37) Which of the following command would you like to follow to change the
slide order?
Options:
A) Replace B) Paste C) Duplicate D) Slide sorter
Q38) Ge nerally all the formulae in Excel start with the sign of
Options:
A) Astrix(*) B) And (&) C) Dollar ($) D) Equivalent (=)
Q39) The advantage of the application of MICR is

Options:
A) I n evolving cashless social structure B) In making cheque less society
C) In evolving credit less society D) None of the above
Q40) The clock speed of a computer measured through

Options:
1262
A) Megabytes and Gigabytes

B) Megahertz and Gigahertz
C) Bits and Megabits
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D) Nano seconds and Pico seconds

Q41) The role of information and communication technology in education is

Options:
A) To give face-to-face counselling
B) To give counselling through telephone
C) To use audio-visual cassettes in counselling
D) All the above
Q42) In MS WORD last action can be reversed by
Options:
A) Repeat' B) UNDO' C) REDO' D) All the above
Q43) The presentation package and slides are prepared by

Options:
A) Power point B) Excel C) MS Word D) All the above
Q44) Which of the following measuring unit is applied in reference to computer

system?
Options:
A) Byte B) Kilobyte C) Megabyte D) All the above
Q45) Font size can be changed through

Options:
A) I nsert menu B) Tools menu C) Format menu D) Edit menu
Q46) CAI is a model of

Options:
A) Hardware approach B) Software approach
C) System analysis D) All the above
Q47) The computer is used through multimedia devices for

Options:
1263
A) Automation B) Entertainment C) Military use D) Medicinal use

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Q48) In a computer which type of the devices are extending the facility to join
components and capabilities in it?
Options:
A) System boards B) Storage devices C) Input devices D) Expansion slots
Q49) Data and information in it

Options:
A) Similar concepts B) Data retains information in it
C) The information takes birth from data D) Cannot say
Q50) The great disadvantage of the Laser Printing is

Options:
A) It is comparatively silent(Noiseless) B) It is working with very slow speed
C) Its output is of low quality D) None of the above
Q51) The computer display which is generally used for typing, editing and
formatting is
Options:
A) Normal view B) We b layout C) Print layout D) All the above
Q52) The need of information and communication technology in education is

Options:
A) To satisfy the growing demand of education and to form knowledge-based
society
B) To make educational material more interesting and comprehending
C) To give support to various mediums of instruction
D) All the above
Q53) MS Word is an example of

Options:
A) Application software
B) System software
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C) Operating system
D) Translating programme
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Q54) The Control Unit in a digital Computer is called

Options:
A) Clock B) IC's C) Nerve centre D) All the above
Q55) When in a small area, we joined a number of computers in a group and do

not use telephone line in it, then it is called?
Options:
A) Local Area Network B) Remote Communication Network
C) Wide Area Network D) Value Aided Network
Q56) A Kilobyte and a Megabyte is equal to

Options:
A) 1024 Bytes and 1000 kilobytes B) 1000 Bytes and 100 kilobytes
C) 1024 Bytes and 100 kilobytes D) 1000 Bytes and 10, 000 kilobytes
Q57) A Floppy Dis k consists of

Options:
A) 2,500 Bytes B) 1,440,000 Bytes C) 25,000 Bytes D) 2,500,000 Bytes
Q58) The group of instructions which directs computer, is called

Options:
A) Storage B) Logic C) Memory D) Programme
Q59) The limitation of a traditional computer is

Options:
A) The handling of the text B) The handling of numbers
C) Effective communication D) None of the above
Q60) POP3 and IMAP -the e-mail accounts by which a person

Options:
1265
A) Is associated with a server for sending and receiving

B) May get his e-mail easy
C) Is associated with a server for reading and noting of his e-mails
Page
D) Do not require a telephone line

Q61) The abbreviation DNS stands for

Options:
A) Domain Name System B) Dependent Name Server
C) Defence Nuclear System D) Downloadable New Software
Q62) The father of modern computer is called

Options:
A) Charles Babbage B) Blaize Pascal

C) Howard Icons D) William Wordsworth
Q63) A te acher can develop a Question Bank with the help of

Options:
A) MS Word B) Excel C) Power Point D) All the above
Q64) Ge nerally Modem is connected with Telephone line and

Options:
A) I n middle of Network B) Communication Adopter

C) Serial port D) Computer
Q65) Registers-the elements of fast pace are located in
Options:
A) Memory B) CPU C) I/O Devices D) ROM
Q66) The function of Information and Communication Technology is

Options:
A) Collection and storage of the informations

B) Communication of informations
C) Processing of informations
D) All the above
Q67) The objective of information and communication technology is

Options:
A) To propagate more and more the material related to education and research
B) To usher the present generation in Cyber Age
1266
C) To disseminate and propagate the informal education

D) All the above
Page

Q68) The mechanical digital calculator was invented by

Options:
A) Human Hollirith B) Blaize Pascal
C) Charles Babbage D) Howard Icons
Q69) Which of the following topology is considered best among the following?
Options:
A) Ring Topology B) Star Topology
C) Bus Topology D) None of the above
Q70) In multimedia the following range of CD-ROM is employed

Options:
A) 150-500 Megabyte (MB) B) 200-600 Megabyte
C) 250-700 Megabyte D) 300-800 Megabyte
Q71) Magnetic Tape can work

Options:
A) As an input media B) As an output media
C) As an secondary storage media D) All the above
Q72) HTML is a brief name given to

Options:
A) HOTMAIL-for the convenience of e-mail
B) A computer language which assist in preparation of web page
C) For the modulation level of MODEM
D) For the high-tension requirement of the computer
Q73) The present age is called the age of information revolution therefore the
informations are treated as
Options:
A) Commodity
B) Article of economic development
1267
C) Article of National progress and development

D) All the above
Page

Q74) The advantage of internet to a teacher is

Options:
A) He can modernise his knowledge and enrich it
B) He can counsel the students
C) He can prepare teaching aid material
D) All the above
Q75) The instrument which helps in receiving the web page matter through
internet is called
Options:
A) Client B) Browser C) Server D) None of the above
Q76) When in a work sheet there are 256 columns, the number of rows in it
should be
Options:
A) 65555 B) 56565 C) 65536 D) 65356
Q77) RAM in reference to computer stands for

Options:
A) Random Awareness Memory B) Read All Memory
C) Read Any Memory D) Random Access Memory
Q78) We can draw a pie graph in
Options:
A) Excel
B) Power Point
Q79) The computer monitor is appeared like a TV set but cannot perform the
function of
Options:
1268
A) Receiving of TV signals
B) An immediate picture
C) Display graphics
Page
D) Clear picture

Q80) http://www.Examination.Com -It is the example of

Options:
A) URL B) HTML C) AML D) LAN
Q81) Ge nerally Super Computers are used

Options:
A) For intensive processing of input and output
B) For data Retrieval operations
C) In Mathematical intensive scientific Application
D) In all the above
Q82) The meaning of the term Programme is

Options:
A) List of informations
B) Internal design of computer
C) Informations collected in Memory
D) Informations processed by computer
Q83) Who is called the grandfather of computer among the following?

Options:
A) Blaize Pascal B) Charles Babbage
C) Herman Holirath D) Joseph jaequard
Q84) We can prepare Report card through

Options:
A) MS WORD B) Power Point
C) Excel D) All the above
Q85) The advantage of using the computer is

Options:
A) The computer calculates with fast pace and more and more data can be
stored in it
1269
B) If your input may be wrong but output is correct

C) Computer is an unfatigable machine
D) All the above
Page

Q86) In the following the fastest computer constituent is

Options:
A) CPU B) Magnetic Tape
C) Video Terminal D) Sensors and Mechanical controllers
Q87) A computer performs its all mathematical and logical calculations through
Options:
A) CPU B) Memory unit C) Output unit D) Visual Display unit
Q88) The computer cannot perform any job without

Options:
A) Chip B) Programme C) Memory D) Output device
Q89) The meaning of MODEM is

Options:
A) Modulator-Demodulator B) Essential Equipment for Internet
C) An Electronic device D) None of the above
Q90) The first step of preparing multimedia kit is

Options:
A) To determine the content and its objectives
B) To select the appropriate communication techniques
C) To follow the instructions to apply the above techniques
D) All the above
Answers:
Q1) B, Q2) B, Q3) A, Q4) D, Q5) C, Q6) B, Q7) A, Q8) B, Q9) C, Q10) C, Q11) D,
Q12) B, Q13) A, Q14) C, Q15) A, Q16) A, Q17) B, Q18) D, Q19) A, Q20) A, Q21)
B, Q22) A, Q23) A, Q24) D, Q25) C, Q26) C, Q27) B, Q28) D, Q29) A, Q30) D,
Q31) A, Q32) A, Q33) A, Q34) A, Q35) B, Q36) B, Q37) D, Q38) D, Q39) A, Q40)
B, Q41) D, Q42) B, Q43) A, Q44) D, Q45) A, Q46) A, Q47) B, Q48) D, Q49) C,
Q50) D, Q51) A, Q52) D, Q53) A, Q54) D, Q55) A, Q56) A, Q57) B, Q58) C, Q59)
C, Q60) A, Q61) A, Q62) A, Q63) A, Q64) B, Q65) B, Q66) D, Q67) D, Q68) B,
1270
Q69) C, Q70) B, Q71) D, Q72) B, Q73) D, Q74) D, Q75) C, Q76) C, Q77) D, Q78)
A, Q79) A, Q80) A, Q81) D, Q82) A, Q83) B, Q84) B, Q85) D, Q86) A, Q87) A,
Q88) B, Q89) A, Q90) D
Page

UNIT 8
People And Environment
1271
Page

People and environment Part I:
Q1) Which of the four data sets have more dispersion?

Options:
A) 88, 9 , 90, 9 , 89, 9
B) 0, 1 , 1 , 0, 1 , 1
C) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1, 5
D) 0, 5, 8, 0, 2, 8
Q2) The great Indian Bustard bird is found in
Options:
A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan
B) Coastal regions of India
C) Malabar Coast
D) Delta regions
Q3) The Sagarmanthan National Park has been established to preserve the
ecosystem of which mountain peak?
Options:
A) Kanchenjunga
B) Mount Everest
C) Annapurna
D) Dholavira
Q4) Maximum soot is released from
Options:
A) Petrol vehicles B) CN G vehicles
C) Diesel vehicles D) Thermal Power Plants
Q5) Surface Ozone is produced from
Options:
A) Transport sector B) Cement plants
C) Textile industry D) Chemical industry
1272
Q6) Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be

Page
exploited most economically?

Options:
A) Solar
B) Wind
C) Geo-thermal
D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
Q7) The most recurring natural hazard in India is

Options:
A) Earthquakes
B) Floods
C) Landslides
D) Volcanoes
Q8) Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in India?
Options:
A) National Sample Surveys
B) Agricultural Statistics
C) Census
D) Vital Statistics
Q9) Which is the smallest North-east State in India?

Options:
A) Tripura
B) Meghalaya
C) Mizoram
D) Manipur
Q10) Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking wate r shortage due to:
Options:
A) high evaporation
B) sea water flooding due to tsunami
C) over exploitation of ground water by tube wells
D) seepage of sea water
1273
Q11) While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of Bengal, Narmada
and Tapti flow into the Arabian Sea because these two rivers:
Page
Options:

A) follow the slope of these rift valleys

B) The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west
C) The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west
D) The Indian peninsula south of the Satpura ranges is tilted towards east
Q12) Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the Godavari delta
because of:
Options:
A) erosion of top soils by annual floods

B) inundation of land by sea water
C) inundation of land by sea water
D) the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland

Options:
B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably.
Q14) The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form
of:
Options:
A) change in weather
B) sinking of islands
C) loss of vegetation
D) extinction of animals
Q15) Consider the following about the Himalayan orogeny

Options:
A) The orogeny resulted from the southward movement
B) The orogeny began about 25 million years ago
C) The orogeny closed about 1 million years ago
D) The Himalayas have a root of relatively light crustal rocks projecting into the
denser mantle.
1274
Q16) Which of the following combinations is correct?

Options:
Page

A) A and B
B) C and D
C) A and C
D) B and D
Q17) A seismogram records the following types of earthquake waves. I L-waves II

P -waves III S -waves The correct chronological sequence of the arrival of these
waves is
Options:
A) B, C and D
B) B, A and C
C) C, A and B
D) A, B and C arrive at the same time
Q18) Which one of the following statement is true of braided streams?

Options:
A) Width and depth of the channel are equal
B) Width of the channel is greater than its depth
C) Width of the channel is unrelated to its depth
D) Width of the channel is less than its depth
Q19) With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water beyond desired
level, there will be:
Options:
A) decrease in temperature
B) increase in salinity
C) growth of phytoplankton
D) rise in sea level
Q20) The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused
by:
Options:
A) Coal
B) Firewood
C) Refuse burning
1275
D) Vegetable waste product

Q21) The urbanization process accounts for the wind in the urban centres
during nights to remain:
Page

Options:
A) faster than that in rural areas
B) slower than that in rural areas
C) the same as that in rural areas
D) cooler than that in rural areas
Q22) Which of the following methods will you choose to prepare choropleth map
of India showing urban density of population:
Options:
A) Quartiles
B) Quintiles
C) Mean and SD
D) Break -point
Q23) Which of the following methods is best suited to show on a map the types
of crops being grown in a region
Options:
A) Choropleth B) Chorochromatic
C) Choroschematic D) Isopleths
Q24) A ratio represents the relation between:

Options:
A) Part and Part
B) Part and Whole
C) Whole and Whole
D) All of the above
Q25) Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying the climate.
Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short wave and infra -red radiations.
Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) .
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) .
C) (A) is true and (R) is false
1276
Q26) Which of the following grows rapidly res ulting in the shrinkage of water
Page
bodies?

Options:
A) Phytoplankton
B) Zooplankton
C) Algae
D) Macrophytes
Q27) Which species of chromium is toxic in water?

Options:
A) Cr+2
B) Cr+3
C) Cr+6
D) Cr0
Q28) Chemical compounds having same crystal structure are called

Options:
A) Polymorphic
B) Pseudomorphic
C) Isomorphic
Q29) Micas having an atomic structure defined as continuous sheets of tetra

hedrons, sharing 3-oxygen atoms, are called:
Options:
A) I nosilicate
B) Phyllosilicate
C) Tectosilicate
D) Sorosilicate
Q30) If the population growth follows a logistic curve, the maximum sustainable
yield:
Options:
A) is equal to half the carrying capacity
B) is equal to the carrying capacity
C) depends on growth rate
D) depends on the initial population
1277
Page

Q31) Fluidized -bed combustion of coal is an efficient method of controlling

which of the following air pollutants:
Options:
A) CO
B) SPM and Nox
C) NOx and Sox
D) CO, SPM and Sox
Q32) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): One of the movements of the surface water of ocean is known as
ocean current.
Reason (R): Ocean currents are caused mainly due to planetary winds and the
difference in temperature and density of water.
In the context of the above two statements, which one the following is correct?
Options:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
Q33) Tsunami occurs due to:

Options:
A) Mild earthquakes and landslides in the oceans
B) Strong earthquakes and landslides in the oceans
C) Strong earthquakes and landslides in mountains
D) Strong earthquakes and landslides in deserts
Q34) Which of the natural hazards have big effect on Indian people each year?
Options:
A) Cyclones
B) Floods
C) Earthquakes
D) Landslides
1278
Q35) Comparative Environment Impact Assessment study is to be conducted

for:
Page

Options:
A) the whole year
B) three seasons excluding monsoon
C) any three seasons
D) the worst season
Q36) Sea level rise results primarily due to:

Options:
A) Heavy rainfall
B) Melting of glaciers
C) Submarine volcanism
D) Seafloor spreading
Q37) The plume rise in a coal based power plant depends on:
i) Buoyancy.
ii) Atmospheric stability.
iii) Momentum of exhaust gases. Identify the correct code:
Options:
A) (i) and (ii) only

B) (ii) and (iii) only
C) (i) and (iii) only
D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q38) Winds blowing down an incline often due to cold air drainage are called:
Options:
A) Anabatic winds B) Mountain winds
C) Cyclonic winds D) katabatic winds
Q39) Mixing height is:

Options:
A) the height of ground based inversion
B) the height at which geostrophic balance occurs
C) the height of constant solar flux layer
1279
D) the height upto which atmosphere is churned by convection

Page
Q40) For a comprehensive EIA study, it is to be conducted for:

Options:
A) The whole year
B) Any three seasons including monsoon
C) Three seasons excluding monsoon
D) The worst season
Q41) In initial environmental examination, the following are considered:

Options:
A) No quantitative data
B) Primary data
C) Secondary data
D) On site data for at least a season
Q42) Which of the following forest types is most widespread in India?

Options:
A) Tropical evergree n forest
B) Tropical deciduous forest
C) Temperate forest
D) Scrub forest
Q43) The presence of pneumatophores is seen in:

Options:
A) Desert plants
B) Climbers and lianas
C) Trees of tropical moist forests
D) Mangroves
Q44) Ramsar convention is related to conservation of:
Options:
A) Tiger
B) Elephants
C) Crop genetic diversity
D) Wetlands
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Q45) A significant effect of climate change on account of global warming of

terrestrial plants will be on:
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Options:

A) Stomatal mechanism
B) Amino acid composition of cereal grains
C) Phenology
D) Bark formation in trees
Q46) A tree, which is popular in social forestry programme in India, is:

Options:
A) Shorea Robusta
B) Ailanthus excelsa
C) Cedrus deodara
D) Callistemon lanceolatus
Q47) The great Indian Rhino has its natural home in
Options:
A) Kaziranga National Park
B) Corbett National Park
C) Sunderbans
D) kanha National Park
Q48) According to the Botanical Survey of India, the total number of plant
species in India is about:
Options:
A) 45000
B) 75000
C) 17000
D) 30000
Q49) Assertion (A): Bt cotton is a transgenic crop which has been introduced in
India, but is being opposed on environmental grounds. Reason (R): CrylAc
protein in Bt cotton has been found to be toxic and allergenic to human beings.
Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
1281
Q50) Oxygen toxicity (in humans) is caused by:

Options:
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A) I nhalation of molecular oxygen

B) Generation of free radicals
C) Interactions of singlet oxygen with membrane
Q51) C2F3C 3 gas:

Options:
A) absorbs ultraviolet radiations
B) affects troposphere ozone
C) forms aerosols in stratosphere
D) absorbs infrared radiations
Q52) Which of the following shows bioaccumulation and contaminate food

chains?
Options:
A) Pesticides
B) Polychlorinated biphenyls
C) PAN
D) All of the above
Q53) Removal of which of the following impurities from contaminated water

requires the of coagulants:
Options:
A) Colloidal impurities
B) dissolved solids
C) micro organisms
D) all of the above
Q54) The most efficient method of biodegradable urban solid waste management
is:
Options:
A) Landfills
B) Pelletization
C) Gasification
D) Composting
1282
Q55) Pollutants in soil can be broken down by micro organisms. The process is
called:
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Options:

A) Probiotics
B) Bioremediation
C) Bioaugmentation
Q56) A thermodynamic function of state which is constant during a reversible

isobaric isothermal process is:
Options:
A) Geothermal potential
B) Thermodynamic efficiency
C) Enthalpy
D) Gibbs free energy
Q57) t -statistic is useful for testing:

Options:
A) Variances
B) Overall goodness of fit of a regression model
C) null hypothesis for a regression coefficient
D) constancy of the mean
Q58) 1 metric ton of average coal in energy terms is equivalent to:

Options:
A) 2000 cubic feet of natural gas
B) 24000 cubic fe et of natural gas
C) 1.5 barrels of oil
D) 2.0 barrels of oil
Q59) In marine environment Carbonate Compensation Depth (CCD) is de-fined

as depth at which:
Options:
A) Carbonate begins to dissolve
B) Carbonate begins to precipitate
C) Carbonate begins to precipitate
D) Bicarbonate begins to dissolve
1283
Q60) In an idealized Magneto hydrodynamic power plant, the maximum power

output varies with fuel velocity (u) as:
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Options:
A) U
B) U2
C) U3
D) U1/2
Q61) In humid climate, weathering of various types of rocks occurs. Identify the
correct sequence in order of decreasing weathering:
Options:
A) Basalt: Dunite: Granite
B) Basalt: Granite: Dunite
C) Dunite: Granite: Basalt
D) Dunite: Basalt: Granite
Q62) The lion -tailed macaque is endemic to:

Options:
A) Andaman and Nicobar islands
B) Lakshadweep
C) Nilgiri
D) Arunachal Pradesh
Q63) Which of the following concepts can be used to study the rate of
acceleration of the Universe? I) Supernovae Explosions.
II) Dark Matter.
III) Dark Energy.
IV) Black Holes.
Options:
A) I& III only.
B) I& II only.
C) II, III & IV only.
D) I, III & IV only.
Q64) Which of the following can be a trigger for Coral Bleaching? I) crease in
ocean temperature.
1284
II) Decrease in ocean temperature.

III) Decline in Zooplankton levels.
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IV) Changes in salinity.

V) Elevated sea levels due to global warming.
Options:
A) All except II
B) All except II & IV
C) All except V
D) None of the above.
Q65) De forestation during the recent decades has led to:

Options:
A) Soil erosion B) Landslides
C) Loss of bio-diversity D) All the above
Q66) Which one of the following natural hazards is responsible for causing
highest human disaster?
Options:
A) Earthquakes B) Snow-storms??
C) Volcanic eruptions D) Tsunami
Q67) Which one of the following is appropriate for natural hazard mitigation?
Options:
A) I nternational AID
B) Timely Warning System
C) Rehabilitation
D) Community Participation
Q68) Slums in metro-city are the result of:

Options:
A) Rural to urban migration

B) Poverty of the city-scape
C) Lack of urban infrastructure
D) Urban-governance
1285
Q69) Ganga Action plan was launched in.

Options:
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A) 1985
B) 1986
C) 1987
D) 1988
Q70) NRCP was launched in

Options:
A) 1994
B) 1995
C) 1996
D) 1997
Q71) The Suez Canal connects:
Options:
A) Baltic Sea and the Caspian Sea
B) Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea
C) Red Sea and the Caspian Sea
D) Mediterranean Sea and North Sea
Q72) Nagli is a
Options:
A) Animal
B) Cotton
C) Crop
D) None of these
Q73) Solar, Wind are the examples of

Options:
A) Renewable
B) Non-renewable
C) Both
D) None of these
Q74) Jog waterfall, the highest waterfall in India, is located in

1286
Options:
A) Kerala
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B) Karnataka

C) Maharashtra
D) Madhya Pradesh
Q75) Which one of the following mountain peaks of the Himalayas is not in
India
Options:
A) Annapurna
B) Nanda Devi
C) Mt. Kamet
D) Kanchenjunga
Q76) Free ly suspended magnetic needle stands in which direction?

Options:
A) North-West direction
B) North-South direction
C) North-East direction
D) South-West direction
Q77) In what regions can the sun be seen at midnight?

Options:
A) The tropical zone
B) Warm temperate regions
C) The Arctic and Antarctic regions
D) Anywhere at the time of lunar eclipse
Q78) The Basel Convention on the Control of Trans boundary Movements of

Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal, usually known as the Basel Convention:
I) t is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of
hazardous wastes from developed to less developed countries.
II)It does not address the movement of radioactive waste.
Options:
A) I only. B) II only.
C) Both I and II D) None of these
1287
Q79) Which among the following planets intersects the orbit of Neptune?
Options:
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A) Mercury
B) Pluto
C) Earth
D) Uranus
Q80) Which of the following countries is called the Country of white elephants?
Options:
A) Kuwait
B) Thailand
C) South Africa
D) India
Q81) Where is the famous shore temple located?
Options:
A) Puri
B) Visakhapatnam
C) Mamallapuram
D) Chennai
Q82) If the Arctic Ice was somehow replaced with dense forest, which of the
following situation may arise:
Options:
A) It will accelerate Global Warming.
B) It will decelerate Global Warming.
C) It may or may not affect Global warming.
D) It will have no affect on Global Warming.
Q83) Radcliff Line is a boundary line between
Options:
A) I ndia and Bangladesh
B) India and Bhutan
C) India and China
D) India and Pakistan
1288
Q84) Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Red tide-a
term used to describe Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs) in marine coastal areas.
I)These blooms are not associated with tides.
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II) ABs tint the seawater to a reddish colour.

III) Not all algal blooms are harmful, even those involving red discoloration.
Options:
A) I& III only. B) I& II only.

C) II& III only. D) I, II& III
Q85) Which of the following statements is/are correct:

I) Ozone Depletion causes reduction in stratospheric and upper tropospheric
temperatures.
II) crease in Green House Gases causes reduction in stratospheric and upper
tropospheric temperatures.
Options:
A) I only. B) II only.
C) Both I and II D) None on these
Q86) Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Ozone
Depletion:
I) Ozone hole is measured in terms of ozone concentrations, which is expressed
in Dobson units.
II) The major cause for Ozone Depletion is the presence of CFCs i stratosphere-
CFCs are entirely man made and not found naturally.
Options:
A) I only.
B) II only.
C) Both I and II
D) None of these
Q87) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Options:
A) Panna: Diamond
B) Neyveli: Lignite
C) Mysore: Marble
D) Sambhar: Salt
1289
Q88) Where does the primitive community. of Bushman live?

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Options:
A) Sahara desert
B) Thar des ert
C) Kalahari desert
D) Atacama desert
Q89) Difference of longitudinal of two places on the earth is 15^0 What will
Difference of longitudinal of two places on the earth is
Options:
A) No difference
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 15 hours
Q90) The first man to reach the South Pole on I December 14, 1911 was
Options:
A) Commander Robert, E. Peary of U.S.
B) Roald Amundsen from Norway
C) The Navigator Ferdinand Magellan
D) Sir Francis Drake of England
Q91) Which one among the following languages has largest number of speakers
in the world?
Options:
A) Bengali
B) French
C) Japanese
D) Portuguese
Q92) Where was electricity introduced in India?

Options:
A) Kolkata
B) Darjeeling
C) Mumbai
D) Chennai
1290
Q93) The great Indian Bustard bird is found in:

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Options:
A) Thar Desert of India
C) Temperate Forests in the Himalaya
D) Tarai zones of the Himalayan Foot
Q94) Which one of the following is the most comprehensive source of population
data?
Options:
A) National Family Health Surveys
B) National Sample Surveys
C) Census
D) Demographic Health Surveys
Q95) Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the following ranges:
Options:
A) 1-2 KHz
B) 100-500 Hz
C) 10-22 KHz
D) 13-16 KHz
Q96) Which one of the following units is used to measure intensity of noise?
Options:
A) decibel
B) Hz
C) Phone
D) Watts/m^2
Q97) If the population growth follows a logistic curve, the maximum sustainable
yield:
Options:
A) is equal to half the carrying capacity.
B) is equal to the carrying capacity.
C) depends on growth rates.
D) depends on the initial population.
1291
Q98) Chemical weathering of rocks is largely dependent upon:

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Options:
A) high temperature
B) strong wind action
C) heavy rainfall
D) glaciation
Q99) Which of the following pairs regarding typical composition of hospital

wastes is incorrect?
Options:
A) Plastic9-12%
B) Metals1-2%
C) Ceramic8-10%
D) Biodegradable35-40%
Q100) Fres h water achieves its greatest density at:

Options:
A) 4 C
B) 0 C
C) 4 C
D) 2.5 C
Q101) Which one of the following is not associated with earthquakes?

Options:
A) Focus
B) Epicentre
C) Seismograph
D) Swells
Q102) The tallest trees in the world are found in the region:
Options:
A) Equatorial region
B) Temperate region
C) Monsoon region
D) Mediterranean region
1292
Q103) Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable

changes in:
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Options:
A) physical characteristics of the environment
B) biophysical characteristics of the environment
C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment
D) all the above
Q104) Bog is a wetland that receives water from:

Options:
A) ne arby wate r bodies

B) melting
C) rain fall only
D) sea only
Q105) Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earth-
quakes?
Options:
A) Central Indian Highland
B) Coastal region
C) Himalayan region
D) Indian desert
Q106) Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year: (JUNE-
009)
Options:
A) 2005
B) 2004
C) 2006
D) 2007
Q107) Which of the following sources of data is not based on primary data
collection?
Options:
A) Census of India
B) National Sample Survey
C) Statistical Abstracts of India
1293
D) National Family Health Survey

Q108) Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Vitamin
Page
D:

I) Vitamin D is produced in the skin by ultraviolet light.

II) Higher levels of Vitamin D are associated with higher morbidity.
III) Body has no mechanism to prevent sunlight from producing too much
Vitamin D
Options:
A) I& III only. B) I& II only.
C) II& III only. D) I, II &III
Q109) An increase of 10 ppm in the concentration of CO, in atmosphere

represents approximately an addition of carbon of amount:
Options:
A) 1.2 Kilotons B) 2.12 Megatons
C) 21.2 Giga tons D) 2120 tons
Q110) The capital of Laos is

Options:
A) Vientiane B) Ankara
C) Abu Dhabi D) Hanoi
Q111) Which strait separates India from Sri Lanka?

Options:
A) Mandeb B) Magellan
C) Malacca D) Palk
Q112) Which of the following is the largest island?

Options:
A) Sumatra B) Madagascar
C) Honshu D) Cuba
Q113) Which of the following district is on the international border of India

Options:
A) Gorakhpur B) West Khasi Hills
C) Kinnaur D) Kullu
1294
Q114) Which one of the following is not the vegetation in Selva forests?
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Options:

A) Epiphytes B) Xerophytes
C) Liana D) Hydrophytes
Q115) How far the axis of earth is inclined of its orbital surface?
Options:
A) 23 B) 66
C) 180 D) It is not inclined
Q116) Recently Chinese scientists have developed Carbon Aerogel. Which

of the following is/are correct about it:
I) It is the second lightest material after Graphite aerogel.
II) It has excellent elasticity.
III) t is expected to play an important role in pollution control.
IV) t is expected to become ideal material for sound absorption.

Options:
A) II , III & IV only. B) II, & IV only.
C) I& III only. D) I, II, III & IV
Q117) Lantana know as Phool Lakhri in local parlance, is a shrub found in

abundance in Himachal Pradesh.
1. It is a toxic weed and has affected the mountain diversity of the state.
2. Lantana species are widely cultivated for their flowers.
3. It is endemic to India.
4. It is considered as potential fire hazard and it is combustible even when

green.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct about it?

Options:
A) I , II & IV only.
B) II& IV only.
C) I& III only.
D) I, II, III & IV
1295
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Q118) Which of the following is only star?

Options:
A) Moon
B) Venus
C) Earth
D) Sun
Q119) Israel has common borders with
Options:
A) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
B) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
C) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
D) Turkey, , Syria, Iraq and Yemen
Q120) Which one of the following is the longest glacier of India?

Options:
A) Pindari
B) Gangotri
C) Siachen
D) Zemu
Q121) Nubian desert is in
Options:
A) Ethopia
B) Egypt
C) Sudan
D) Somalia
Q122) The longest highway in India runs from

Options:
A) Kolkata to Jammu
B) Jammu to Kanya Kumari
C) Ambala to Nagercoil
D) Varanasi to Kanya Kumari
1296
Q123) Which of the following statements are correct about C & Ku Band that
are used for satellite communications transmissions:
Page
I)The frequency of Ku Band is greater than C band.

II) C band performs better under adverse weather conditions in comparison to

Ku band.
III) C band has a higher likelihood of terrestrial interference in comparison to Ku
Band.
Options:
A) I , II &, III B) I& II only
C) II &III only D) II & III only.
Q124) Which of the following statements are true regarding Soda Lake:
I) Soda lakes are highly acidic lakes.
II) Soda lakes are highly productive ecosystems.
III) A critical geological condition for the formation of Soda Lake is the absence
of soluble calcium or magnesium.
IV) Lonar and Sambhar lakes are examples of Soda lakes in India.
Options:
A) I , II& III only B) I& IV only.
C) II, III & IV only. D) III& IV only.
Q125) Which of the following is/are the Industrial uses of Hydraulic Fracturing:
I)Arousing production from oil and gas wells.
II) To dispose of waste by injection into deep rock formations.
III) As a method to measure the stress in the Earth.
Options:
A) I , II & III B) I only.

C) I& III only. D) II & III only.
Q126) The new alluvial deposits found the Gangetic plain are known as
Options:
A) Bhabar
B) Bhangar
C) Khadar
D) Terai
1297
Q127) Which water body separates Australia from New Zealand?

Page
Options:

A) Cook Straits
B) Tasman Sea
C) Munro Sound
D) Great Barrier Reef
Q128) Kodaikanal, the famous hill-station of South India is situated on:

Options:
A) Palni Hills
B) Annamalai Mountain
C) Nilgiri Mountain
D) Cardamom Hills
given below:
Options:
A) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (i)
B) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (i)
C) A (i), B (iii), C (iv), D (ii)
D) A (iv), B (ii), C (iii), D (i)
given below:
Options:
A) A (ii), B (i), C (iv), D (iii)

B) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (i)
C) A (i), B (iii), C (iv), D (ii)
D) A (iv), B (ii), C (iii), D (i)
Q131) The smallest continent of the world is

Options:
A) Europe
B) Antarctica
C) South America
D) Australia
1298
Q132) The earthquake waves which have transverse movements are known as
Options:
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A) Primary waves
B) Secondary waves
C) Surface waves
Q133) Plasma arc technology is used for the disposal of waste, which of the
following statements is/are correct with regard to this technology:
I) It can be used for the disposal of hazardous and radioactive waste.
II) Oxides of Sulfur and Nitrogen are the polluting gases produced
in this process.
III) This technology has not been tried anywhere in India.
Options:
A) I& II
B) I& II only.
C) I& III only.
D) III only.
Q134) What do you understand by the term Dark Fermentation
Options:
A) It is a method to reduce CO2 in the atmosphere.
B) It is a method to produce Hydrogen as fuel from wastewater.
C) It is a method to dispose nuclear wastes.
D) It is a method to produce methane from organic waste.
Q135) Which region of India receives rainfall due to western disturbance I

winter?
Options:
A) Western region
B) Central region
C) Eastern region
D) North-Western region
Q136) What is the correct sequence of the rivers Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada
and Tapi in the descending order of their lengths?
1299
Options:
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A) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi
B) Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi
C) Narmada-Godavari-Tapi-Mahanadi
D) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi
Q137) Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution
around the Sun?
Options:
A) Earth
B) Jupiter
C) Mars
D) Venus
Q138) Which of the following is the highest waterfall in the world?

Options:
A) Angel
B) Ribbin
C) Hungela
D) Quecanag
Q139) What is the harm from the depletion of Earths ozone layer
Options:
A) The average temperature of earths surface will increase gradually
B) The oxygen content of the atmosphere will decrease
C) Increased amount of Ultra violet radiation will reach earths surface
D) Sea levels will rise as the polar ice caps will gradually melt
Q140) Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases
Options:
A) Methane and ozone
B) Oxygen and nitrous oxide
C) methane and Sulfur dioxide
D) Carbon dioxide and Sulfur dioxide
1300
Q141) Structure of earths system consists of the following: Match List-with List-
II and give the correct answer.
Options:
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A) A-(i), B (iii), C (ii), D (iv)

B) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (i)
C) A (i), B (iii), C (iv), D (ii)
D) A (iv), B (ii), C (iii), D (i)
Q142) Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable

changes in:
Options:
A) physical characteristics of the environment

B) biophysical characteristics of the environment
C) socio-economic characteristics of the environment
D) all the above
Q143) Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in India
Parliament?
Options:
A) Any MLA
B) Chief of Army Staff
C) Solicitor General of India
D) Mayor of Delhi
Q144) Water is always involved with landslides. This is because it:

Options:
A) reduces the shear strength of rocks

B) increases the weight of the overburden
C) enhances chemical weathering
D) is a universal solvent
Q145) Which of the following is a prime health risks associated with greater UV
radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?
Options:
A) Damage to digestive system
B) Increased liver cancer
C) Neurological disorder
D) Increased skin cancer
1301
Q146) The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is

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Options:
A) air pollution.
B) contamination of groundwate r.
C) increased use of land for landfills. .
D) none of the above.
Q147) Which of the following can generate Tsunami?

Options:
A) Earthquake
B) Nuclear bomb testing
C) Meteorite impact
D) All of these
Q148) In the study of man environment interaction, the statement of Miss

Semple that the humans are solely the product of their environment is:
Options:
A) An opinion
B) A prejudice
C) A fact
D) A widely accepted phenomenon
Q149) If the population growth follows a logistic curve the maximum

sustainable yield:
Options:
A) is equal to half the carrying capacity
B) is equal to the carrying capacity
C) depends on growth rates.
D) depends on the initial population
Q150) What is true about Lonar Lake?

Options:
A) It is a Salt Lake
B) It is a Crater Lake
C) It is a Lagoon Lake
D) It is situated in Rift Valley
1302
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Q151) Winter rains in north -west India are generally associated with the
phenomenon of
Options:
A) retreating monsoon
B) temperate cyclones
C) local thunderstorms
D) shift in Jet stream movement
Q152) The colour of yellow sea is such on a account of

Options:
A) industrial pollution
B) peculiar types of phytoplankton growing there.
C) loess brought by Hwang-ho river.
D) high sulphur content in the bottom rocks
Q153) Sharavati Hydro-electric Project is located in

Options:
A) Odisha
B) Tamil N aidu
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Karnataka
Q154) What is the full form of IUCN?

Options:
A) I ndian Universal Centre of Nature
B) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
C) Indian Union for Conservation of Nature
D) Interaction Union for Consumption of Natural Resources
Q155) Which one of the following is appropriate for natural hazard mitigation?
Options:
A) I nternational AID
B) Timely Warning System
C) Rehabilitation
1303
D) Community Participation
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Q156) The great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) bird is found in

Options:
A) Thar Desert of India
C) Temperate Forests in the Himalaya
D) Tarai zones of the Himalaya Foot
Q157) What is bio chore?

Options:
A) A unit of vegetation having uniformity of life form

B) A unit of vegetation having same type of climate
C) A unit of vegetation having large tree
D) A unit of vegetation having grass land
Q158) Pitchblende is the ore of

Options:
A) rubidium B) francium
C) radium D) uranium
Q159) Who developed the first paper for the human beings?
Options:
A) The Babylonians B) The Chinese
C) The Sumerians D) The Aryans
Q160) Kavaratti is the capital city of

Options:
A) Pondicherry B) Andaman-Nicobar Islands
C) Lakshadweep D) None of these
Q161) Atmosphere exists because of

Options:
A) gravitational force of earth
B) revolution of earth
C) Rotation of earth
1304
D) None of these
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Options:
A) Heavy rainfall
Q163) Tsunami occurs due to:
Options:
A) Mild earthquakes and land-slides in the oceans
B) Strong earthquakes and land-slides in the oceans
C) Strong earthquakes and land-slides in the mountains
D) Strong earthquakes and land-slides in the deserts
Q164) Which of the following is not cy-clone prone area in India?

Options:
A) Orissa
B) Gujarat
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Assam(Asom)
of:
Options:
Q166) The coldest place on the earth among the following is

Options:
A) Halifax
B) Chicago
C) Siachin
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D) Verkhoyansk
Page

Q167) E denotes:
Options:
A) Universal Negative Proposition
B) Particular Affirmative Proposition
C) Universal Affirmative Proposition
D) Particular Negative Proposition
Q168) Sericulture is:
Options:
A) science of the various kinds of serum
B) artificial rearing of fish
C) art of silkworm bree ding
D) study of various cultures of a community
Q169) Which of the following dams is not on Narmada river?

Options:
A) I ndira-Sagar Project
B) Maheshwar Hydel Power Project
C) Jobat Project
D) Koyna Power Project
Q170) Photosphere is described as the:

Options:
A) Lower layer of atmosphere

B) Visible surface of the sun from which radiation emanates
C) Wavelength of solar spectrum
Q171) Location of sugar industry in India is shifting from north to south

because of:
Options:
A) cheap labour
B) expanding regional market
C) cheap and abundant supply of power
1306
D) high yield and high sugar content in sugarcane

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Q172) Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
Options:
A) Delhi
B) Kolkata
C) Jodhpur
D) Nagpur
Q173) India's Oil bearing areas are mostly associated with the:
Options:
A) Plutonic rocks
B) Volcanic rocks
C) Sedimentary rocks
D) Metamorphic rocks
Q174) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Options:
A) Kota Chambal
B) Bhubaneswar --Mahanadi
C) Jabalpur Narmada
D) Surat ---Tapti
Q175) Nagarjunasagar Project is situated on the river:

Options:
A) Tungabhadra
B) Cauvery
C) Krishna
D) Godavari
Q176) Through which States does Cauvery River flow?

Options:
A) Gujarat, M.P. Tamil Nadu
B) Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
C) Karnataka, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh
D) M.P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
1307
Page

Q177) The world is divided into:

Options:
A) 12 time zones
B) 20 time zones
C) 24 time zones
D) 36 time zones
Q178) Atmosphere exists because:
Options:
A) The Gravitational force of the Earth
B) Revolution of the Earth
C) Rotation of the Earth
D) Weight of the gases of atmosphere
Q179) The zone of excessively dry climate with very cold temperature
throughout the year correspond to:
Options:
A) Arctic deserts
B) Tundra
C) alpine meadows
D) Antarctica
Q180) Laterite soil develops as a result of:

Options:
A) deposits of alluvial
B) deposition of loess
C) leaching
D) continued vegetation cover
Q181) Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of the Indus?

Options:
A) Sutlej
B) Jhelum
C) Bhagirathi
1308
D) Chenab
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Q182) Tides in the oceans are caused by:

Options:
A) Gravitational pull of the moon on the earth's surface including sea water
B) Gravitational pull of the sun on the earth's surface only and not on the sea
water
C) Gravitational pull of the moon and the sun on the earth's surface including
the sea water
D) None of these
Q183) Which of the following statements is not true about the availability of
water on the earth, the crisis for which is going to increase in the years to come?
Options:
A) About 97.5 per cent of the total volume of water available on the earth is salty
B) 80 per cent of the water available to us for use comes in bursts as monsoons
C) About 2.5 per cent of the total water available on the earth is polluted water
and cannot be used for human activities
D) Possibility is that some big glaciers will melt in the coming ten-fifteen years
and sea level will rise by 3-4 meters all over the earth
Q184) Different seasons are formed because

Options:
A) Sun is moving around the earth
B) of revolution of the earth around the Sun on its orbit
C) of rotation of the earth around its axis
D) because earth is tilted when it revolves around sun.
Q185) Cons ider the following statements:

1. Ozone is found mostly in the Stratosphere.
2. Ozone layer lies 55-75 km above the surface of the earth.
3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.

4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on the earth.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Options:
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
1309
C) 2 and 3
D) 1 and 4
Page

Q186) The natural vegetation of Savana consists of:

Options:
A) Tall grass
B) Scrub jungle
C) Short grass
D) Trees
Q187) The much discussed Tehri Dam Project is located in which of the
following states?
Options:
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Rajasthan
C) Haryana
D) Uttaranchal
Q188) What is major source harmful radiation in the house?

Options:
A) Tube light
B) Oven
C) Color TV
D) Heater
Q189) The biggest reserves of thorium are in:

Options:
A) I ndia
B) China
C) The Soviet Union
D) U.S.A
Q190) The term 'Regur' refers to:

Options:
A) Laterite soils
B) Black Cotton soils
C) Red soils
1310
D) Deltaic Alluvial soils

Page

Q191) Where are most of the earth's active volcanoes concentrated?

Options:
A) Europe
B) Pacific Ocean
C) Africa
D) South America
Q192) The fertility of the soil can be increased by growing:
Options:
A) Cereals
B) Fibre Crops
C) Legumes
D) Root Crops
Q193) The coldest place on the earth is:

Options:
A) Halifax
B) Chicago
C) Siachen
D) Verkhoyansk (Antarctica)
Q194) Which of the following pairs of the river dam project and the State in
which it is located, is not correct?
Options:
A) Gandhi Sagar Madhya Pradesh
B) Tungabhadra Tamilnadu
C) Bhakra N angal --Punjab
D) Hirakud ---Orissa
Q195) When does the moon come between the sun and the earth?
Options:
A) Lunar eclipse
B) solar eclipse
C) side real day
1311
D) full moon day

Page

Q196) Turpentine oil used in medicine' is obtained from:

Options:
A) Acacia
B) Chir pin
C) Myrobalans
D) Kusum
Q197) Which of the following is cold stream?
Options:
A) Curasia
B) Labrador
C) Gulf of stream
D) Hakuna Matata
Q198) Solar eclipse takes place when:

Options:
A) The moon comes between the sun and the earth
B) The earth comes between the sun and the moon
C) The sun comes between the moon and the earth
Q199) Which of the following is the smallest ocean of the world?

Options:
A) Pacific
B) Indian
C) Atlantic
D) Arctic
Q200) The planets are kept is motion in their respective orbits by the:
Options:
A) Rotation of the sun on its axis
B) Gravitation and centrifugal forces
C) Great size and spherical shape
D) Rotation and the density of the planets
1312
Q201) Which of the following soil is very hard to cultivate?

Page

Options:
A) Alluvial
B) Red
C) Black
D) Sandy
Q202) Atmospheric pressure exerted on earth is due to:

Options:
A) rotation of earth
C) gravitational pull
D) uneven heating of earth
Q203) The southern tip of India is:

Options:
A) Cape Comorin
B) Point Calimere
C) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands
D) Kovalam in Trivandrum
Q204) In determining the Indian climate, major role played by Himalayas is/are:
Options:
A) The east-west extension of the Great-Himalayas does not permit the summer
monsoon to cross it and thus keeps its sojourn restricted to India
B) The direct the summer monsoon towards the north-west
C) During the winter they stop the southward penetration of the cold and dry
polar air
D) All of the above
Q205) The rock material carried by a glacier is called

Options:
A) alluvium
B) meanders
C) nodules
D) moraines
1313
Page

Q206) Krishna Raja Sagar Dam is built across the river:

Options:
A) Kaveri
B) Tungabhadra
C) Krishna
D) Godavari
Q207) The greatest diversity of animal and plants species occurs in:
Options:
A) temperate deciduous forests
B) tropical moist forests
C) heavily polluted rivers
D) desert lands
Q208) What is meant by the term "cirrus"?

Options:
A) A low cloud
B) A rain-bearing cloud
C) A high-cloud
D) A hail-bearing cloud
Q209) The latitude of a place is expressed by its angular distance in relation to:
Options:
A) Equator
B) South Pole
C) Axis of the Earth
D) North Pole
Q210) Which country is known for the most frequent earthquakes?

Options:
A) Italy
B) Japan
C) China
D) Iran
1314
Page

Q211) High velds are the temperate grasslands of:

Options:
A) Africa
B) South Australia
C) Europe and Asia
D) South America
Q212) For which of the following reasons, clouds do not rain in desert?
Options:
A) Maximum air velocity
B) Minimum temperature
C) Minimum air velocity
D) Minimum humidity
Q213) Light Year is a unit of

Options:
A) I ntensity of light
B) Distance
C) Time
D) Planetary motion
Q214) All vital atmospheric processes leading to various climatic and weather
conditions take place in the:
Options:
A) Troposphere
B) Ionosphere
C) Exosphere
D) Stratosphere
Q215) The Hirakud Project is on which of the following rivers?

Options:
A) Godavari
B) Mahanadi
C) Damodar
1315
D) Kosi
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Q216) The circulation of ocean water occurs

Options:
A) only laterally
B) only vertically
C) both laterally and vertically
D) neither laterally nor vertically
Q217) During winter, the northern half of India is warmer than areas of similar
latitudinal location by 3 to 8 because:
Options:
A) I ndia is essentially a tropical country.
B) The surface wind blows in a particular direction in one season
C) The Great Himalayas check the penetration of cold polar air into India
effectively.
D) Of winter rains
Q218) Which river is flowing near Ayodhya?

Options:
A) Ganga
B) Yamuna
C) Saryu
D) Krishna
Q219) Which of the following States has rich forests of sandalwood?
Options:
A) Andhra Prades h
B) Karnataka
C) Kerala
D) Madhya Pradesh
Q220) The Nagarjunsagar project is on the river:

Options:
A) Sutlej
B) Narmada
C) Krishna
D) Kaveri
1316
Page

Q221) The cold oceanic current passing through the coast of North America is
known as:
Options:
A) Kuroshio Current
B) Gulf Stream
C) Labrador Current
D) Falkland Current
Q222) Most of the weather phenomena take place in the:

Options:
A) stratosphere
B) troposphere
C) tropopause
D) ionosphere
Q223) Which is called the "Tiger State"?

Options:
A) Rajasthan
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Jammu & Kashmir
Q224) A wind which is not affected by the effect of ground friction is called a
Options:
A) prevailing wind
B) jet stream
C) katabatic wind
D) geostrophic wind
Q225) The 23South latitude is known as

Options:
A) The Tropic of Cancer
B) The Tropic of Capricorn
C) The Equator
1317
D) The Prime Meridian

Page

Q226) The sky appears blue because

Options:
A) It is actually blue
B) The atmos phere scatters blue light more than the others
C) All colours interfere to produce blue
D) In white light, blue colour dominates
Q227) It represent the permanent loss of hearing and no recovery?
Options:
A) NISTS
B) NIPTS
C) NICCS
D) NIDTS
Q228) Siachen is
Options:
A) Limiting glacier zone between India and Pakistan
B) Limiting desert zone between India and Pakistan
C) Limiting zone between China and Pakistan
D) Limiting zone between India and Myanmar
Q229) The smallest Continent is

Options:
A) Europe
B) Australia
C) Antarctica
D) South America
Q230) Where is the Siachin Glacier situated in India?

Options:
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Himachal Pradesh
C) Jammu & Kashmir
D) Sikkim
1318
Page

Q231) At the Equator, the duration of a day is

Options:
A) 10 hrs
B) 12 hrs
C) 14 hrs
D) 16 hrs
Q232) Savanna grasslands are found in
Options:
A) Australia
B) Africa
C) East Asia
D) South America
Q233) Through which of the following countries does the river Tigris flow?
Options:
A) Egypt
B) Iran
C) Italy
D) Iraq
Q234) Summer solstice occurs on

Options:
A) 44256
B) 44287
C) 44317
D) 44348
Q235) Port Blair is situated in

Options:
A) North Andaman
B) South Andaman
C) Middle Andaman
D) Little Andaman
1319
Page

Q236) Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forests known as
Options:
A) Tropical moist evergreen
B) Dry deciduous
C) Tropical moist deciduous
D) Dry evergreen
Q237) In the interior of earth
Options:
A) the temperature falls with increasing depth
B) the pressure falls with increasing depth
C) the temperature rises with increasing depth
D) pressure remains constant with varying depth
Q238) Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India, is located in the state of

Options:
A) Himachal Pradesh
B) Rajasthan
C) West Bengal
D) J & K
Q239) In which South American country does one find the Atacama desert?
Options:
A) Chile
B) Peru
C) Brazil
D) Columbia
Q240) Winter rains in north and north-west India are generally associated with
the phenomenon of
Options:
A) Retreating monsoon
B) Temperate cyclones
C) Local thunderstorms
1320
D) Shift in Jet stream movement

Page

Q241) Which one of the following rivers is known as "Sorrow of Bihar"?

Options:
A) Damodar
B) Gandaki
C) Kosi
D) Sone
Q242) Imaginary lines drawn on a global map from pole to pole and from the
perpendicular to the equator are called
Options:
A) Contours
B) Isobars
C) Meridians
D) Steppes
Q243) A lunar eclipse occurs when

Options:
A) Sun, Moon and Earth are not in the same line
B) Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon
C) Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth
D) Sun comes between the Earth and the Moon
Q244) Which of the following passes through India?

Options:
A) Tropic of Capricorn
B) Tropic of Cancer
C) Equator
D) 0 Longitude
Q245) When a ship crosses the International Date Line from west to East
Options:
A) It loses one day
B) It gains one day
C) It loses half-a-day
1321
D) It gains half-a-day
Page

Q246) It gains half-a-day

Options:
A) I ndia & Sri Lanka
B) North & South Korea
C) Pakistan & China
D) Britain & France
Q247) Vajrai Waterfall the highest waterfall in India is located in the state of
Options:
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) West Bengal
C) Karnataka
D) Maharashtra
Q248) Which of the following ports has a free trade zone?

Options:
A) Kandla
B) Cochin
C) Madras
D) Tuticorin
Q249) When the moon is near the horizon, then it appears bigger because of
Options:
A) Atmospheric refraction
B) Scattering of light
C) Diffraction
D) Total internal reflection
Q250) Tsunamis are huge sea waves caused by:

Options:
A) Earthquakes
B) Volcanoes
C) Winds
D) Icebergs
1322
Page

Q251) Equinox' means

Options:
A) Days are longer than nights
B) Days and nights are equal
C) Days are shorter than nights
D) None of these
Q252) International Date Line passes through
Options:
A) 0 Greenwich
B) 180 Greenwich
C) 900 Greenwich
D) 2700 Gree nwich
Q253) Suez navigation canal links up Mediterranean Sea with the

Options:
A) Atlantic Ocean
B) Pacific Ocean
C) North Sea
D) Red Sea
Q254) Which. of the following people are related to T.E. Lawrence?

Options:
A) The people of China

B) Inhabitants of Mangole
C) The people of Afghanistan
D) The people of Arab
Q255) The longest dam in India is

Options:
A) Bhakra Dam
B) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
C) Hirakud Dam
D) Kosi Dam
1323
Q256) The standard time of India is the local time of

Page

Options:
A) 81 East longitude
B) 82.5 East longitude
C) 84 East longitude
D) 86 East longitude
Q257) Match List I (Types of Natural Regions) with List II ( Areas Associated with
the Regions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Options:
A) I --5, II --4, III --2, IV --3
B) I --2, III --3, II --1, IV --5
C) I --2, II --4, III --1, IV --3
D) I --5, II --3, III --2, IV --4
Q258) Life expectancy is highest in the world in

Options:
A) Canada
B) Germany
C) Japan
D) Norway
Q259) Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution
around the Sun?
Options:
A) Earth
B) Jupiter
C) Mars
D) Venus
Q260) Which of the following is the highest waterfall in the world?

Options:
A) Angel
B) Ribbin
C) Hungela
D) Quecanag
1324
Page

Q261) Peso is the currency of

Options:
A) Cuba
B) Bermuda
C) Grenada
D) Jamaica
Q262) Which city was known as the 'Manchester of India'?
Options:
A) Mumbai
B) Surat
C) Ahmedabad
D) Ludhiana
Q263) Kodaikanal, the famous hill-station of South India is situated on:

Options:
A) Palni Hills
B) Annamalai Mountain
C) Nilgiri Mountain
D) Cardamom Hills
Q264) The smallest continent of the world is

Options:
A) Europe
B) Antarctica
C) South America
D) Australia
Q265) The earthquake waves which have transverse movements are known as
Options:
A) Primary waves
B) Secondary waves
C) Surface waves
1325
Q266) Which region of India receives rainfall due to western disturbance in

Page
winter?

Options:
A) Western region
B) Central region
C) Eastern region
D) North-Western region
Q267) What is the correct sequence of the rivers Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada
and Tapi in the descending order of their lengths?
Options:
A) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi
B) Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi
C) Narmada-Godavari-Tapi-Mahanadi
D) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi
Q268) Which one of the following is the longest glacier of India?

Options:
A) Pindari
B) Gangotri
C) Siachen
D) Zemu
Q269) Nubian desert is in

Options:
A) Ethiopia
B) Egypt
C) Sudan
D) Somalia
Q270) The longest highway in India runs from

Options:
A) Kolkata to Jammu
B) Jammu to Kanya Kumari
C) Ambala to Nagercoil
D) Varanasi to Kanya Kumari
1326
Page
Q271) The new alluvial deposits found the Gangetic plain are known as

Options:
A) Bhabar
B) Bhangar
C) Khadar
D) Terai
Q272) Which wate r body separates Australia from New Zealand?

Options:
A) Cook Straits
B) Tasman Sea
C) Mc. munro Sound
D) Great Barrier Reef
Q273) Which of the following district is on the international border of India

Options:
A) Gorakhpur
B) West Khasi Hills
C) Kinnaur
D) Kullu
Q274) Which one of the following is not the vegetation in Selva forests?
Options:
A) Epiphytes
B) Xerophytes
C) Liana
D) Hydrophytes
Q275) How far the axis of earth is inclined of its orbital surface?
Options:
A) 23
B) 66
C) 180
D) It is not inclined
1327
Q276) Which of the following is only star?

Page

Options:
A) Moon
B) Venus
C) Earth
D) Sun
Q277) Israel has common borders with

Options:
A) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt

B) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
C) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
D) Turkey, , Syria, Iraq and Yemen
Q278) Which one among the following languages has largest number of
speakers in the world?
Options:
A) Bengali
B) French
C) Japanese
D) Portuguese
Q279) Where was electricity introduced in India?

Options:
A) Kolkata
B) Darjeeling
C) Mumbai
D) Chennai
Q280) The capital of Laos is

Options:
A) Vientiane
B) Ankara
C) Abu Dhabi
D) Hanoi
1328
Page
Q281) Which strait separates India from Sri Lanka?

Options:
A) Mandeb
B) Magellan
C) Malacca
D) Palk
Q282) Which of the following is the largest island?

Options:
A) Sumatra
B) Madagascar
C) Honshu
D) Cuba
Q283) Radcliff Line' is a boundary line between

Options:
A) I ndia and Bangladesh
B) India and Bhutan
C) India and China
D) India and Pakistan
Q284) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Options:
A) Panna: Diamond
B) Neyveli: Lignite
C) Mysore: Marble
D) Sambhar: Salt
Q285) Where does the primitive community. of Bushman live?
Options:
A) Sahara desert
B) Thar des ert
C) Kalahari desert
D) Atacama desert
1329
Q286) Difference of longitudinal of two places on the earth is 15. What will be
the difference in its local time?
Page
Options:

A) No difference
B) 1 hour
C) 2 hours
D) 15 hours
Q287) Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
Options:
A) Delhi
B) Kolkata
C) Jodhpur
D) Nagpur
Q288) In what regions can the sun be seen at midnight?
Options:
A) The tropical zone
B) Warm temperate regions
C) The Arctic and Antarctic regions
D) Anywhere at the time of lunar eclipse
Q289) Which among the following planets intersects the orbit of Neptune?
Options:
A) Mercury
B) Pluto
C) Earth
D) Uranus
Q290) Which of the following countries is called the "Country of white

elephants"?
Options:
A) Thailand
B) Kuwait
C) South Africa
D) India
1330
Q291) Where is the famous shore temple located?

Page
Options:

A) Puri
B) Visakhapatnam
C) Mamallapuram
D) Chennai
Q292) The area covered by forest in India is about:

Options:
A) 0.46
B) 0.33
C) 0.23
D) 0.19
Q293) Jog wate rfall, the highest waterfall in India, is located in
Options:
A) Kerala
B) Karnataka
C) Maharashtra
D) Madhya Pradesh
Q294) The first man to reach the South Pole on I December 14, 1911 was
Options:
A) Commander Robert, E. Peary of U.S.
B) Roald Amundsen from Norway
C) The Navigator Ferdinand Magellan
D) Sir Francis Drake of England
Q295) Free ly suspended magnetic needle stands in which direction?

Options:
A) North-West direction
B) North-South direction
C) North-East direction
D) South-West direction
1331
Q296) The biochemical processes taking place in the body is known as

Options:
Page

A) Catabolism
B) Metabolism
C) Anabolism
D) None of above
Q297) World's first man in space was

Options:
A) Neil Armstrong
B) Yuri Gagarin
C) Kalpna Chawla
D) Edwin Eugene Aldrin
Q298) The area covered by forest in India is about
Options:
A) 0.46
B) 0.33
C) 0.23
D) 0.21
Q299) Ozone layer depletion is mainly due to

Options:
A) CFC
B) carbon monoxide
C) carbon dioxide
D) methane
Q300) which of the following is long term effect (tertiary effect) of flooding?
Options:
A) I ncrease in corruption
B) Destruction of wild life habitat
C) Sediment deposition
D) All of the above
1332
Q301) Fire balls are

Options:
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A) very bright meteors

B) volcanic eruption
C) forest fire
D) None of these
Q302) Nagarjuna Sagar dam is situated on river

Options:
A) Tungabhadra
B) Cauvery
C) Krishna
D) Godavari
Options:
A) Darwin
B) Herber
C) Best
D) Good
Q304) Which of the following can be the effect of meteorite impact?

Options:
A) Massive earthquake
B) Dust in atmosphere
C) Widespread wildfire
D) All of these
Q305) An atom bomb is based on the principle of

Options:
A) nucle ar fusion
B) nuclear spallation
C) nuclear fission
D) None of these
Q306) Malaria is caused by

1333
Options:
A) bacterial infection
Page
B) viral infection

C) parasitic infection
D) fungal infection
Q307) Which of the following can cause explosive volcanic eruption?

Options:
A) Low viscosity of magma
B) High viscosity of magma
C) High water content in ground
D) None of these
Q308) Which of the following is/ are true about shooting stars?
Options:
A) Certain objects which appear to fall from sky leaving a streak of light are
called shooting stars.
B) they are also called meteors.
C) As there stars travels through atmosphere, these pieces become hot, burn
and emit light thus acquiring brightness.
D) All of these
Q309) Which of the following is not a National Park?

Options:
A) Kanheri
B) Gir
C) Corbett
D) Kaziranga
Q310) Water is always involved with landslides. This is because it:

Options:
A) reduces the shear strength of rocks.

B) increases the weight of the overburden
C) enhances chemical weathering
D) is a universal solvent
Q311) Water for civil supplies are commonly purified by

1334
Options:
A) Chlorination
Page
B) Distillation

C) Filtration
D) Decantation
Q312) Which of the following is not cyclone prone area in India?

Options:
A) Orissa
B) Gujarat
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Assam(Asom)
of:
Options:
Q314) Which of the following Hydel power projects is situated in Jammu and
Kashmir?
Options:
A) Lok Tak
B) Riwand
C) Salal
D) Upper Sileru
Q315) Atmosphere exists because of

Options:
A) gravitational force of earth

C) rotation of earth
D) None of these
1335

Options:
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A) Heavy rainfall
Q317) Pitchblende is the ore of

Options:
A) rubidium
B) francium
C) radium
D) uranium
Q318) Which one of the following is different from the other three?
Options:
A) Venus
B) Jupiter
C) Uranus
D) Neptune
Q319) Which tree species is used for making railway sleepers?

Options:
A) Sal
B) Teak
C) Redwood
D) Sardines
Q320) What is true about Lonar Lake?

Options:
A) It is a Salt Lake
B) It is a Crater Lake
C) It is a Lagoon Lake
D) It is situated in Rift Valley
1336
Q321) The largest continent in the world is:

Options:
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A) North America
B) Africa
C) Asia
D) Europe
Q322) What is the full form of IPCC?

Options:
A) I nternational Panel on Climate Change
B) International Panel on Carbon Consumption
C) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
D) None of these
Q323) Complete loss of memory is termed
Options:
A) Amnesia
B) Coma
C) Trauma
D) Paranesia
Q324) Which of the following dams is not on Narmada river?

Options:
A) I ndira Sagar Project
B) Jobat Project
C) Maheshwar Hydel Power Project
D) Koyna Power Project
Q325) Which of the following is a secondary or tertiary effect of volcanic

eruption?
Options:
A) Hot ash flow (pyro-elastic flow)
B) Mudflow (Lahars)
C) Volcanic land slide (debris flow and debris avalanches)
D) Famine and Disease
1337
Q326) Which of the elements is essential for animals but not in plants?
Page
Options:

A) Potassium
B) Iodine
C) Calcium
D) Phosphorus
Q327) The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused
by:
Options:
A) Coal
B) Firewood
C) Refuse burning
D) Vegetable waste product
Q328) Which of the following is not a bird sanctuary?

Options:
A) Bharatpur Sanctuary
B) Periyar Sanctuary
C) Manjira Sanctuary
D) Nelapathu Sanctuary
Q329) The tallest trees in the world are found in the region.
Options:
A) Equatorial region
B) Temperate region
C) Monsoon region
D) Mediterranean region
Q330) The main constituents of biogas are
Options:
A) Methane and Carbon dioxide
B) Methane and Nitric oxide
C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide
D) Methane and Sulphur dioxide
1338
Q331) Famous Silent valley is situated in:

Options:
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A) Kerala B) Sikkim
C) Himachal Pradesh D) None of these
Q332) The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking wate r

should not exceed
Options:
A) 500 mg/L B) 400 mg/ L
C) 300 mg/L D) 200 mg/ L
Q333) Which of the following is/are sources of soil pollution?

Options:
A) Mining and Quarrying B) Sewage sludge
C) Demolition and Construction D) All of the above
Q334) Chipko movement' was first started by:

Options:
A) Arundhati Roy B) Medha Patkar
C) Ila Bhatt D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
Q335) Which State is regarded as the land of five-rivers?

Options:
A) Uttar Pradesh B) Punjab
C) Chhattisgarh D) Assam (Asom)
Q336) Liquid Petroleum Gas contains mainly

Options:
A) methane
B) butane
C) ethane
D) hydrogen
1339
Q337) The mangrove vegetation in India is found in:
Options:
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A) Gangetic delta region B) East Himalayn states

C) Western ghat region D) Eastern ghat region
Q338) Which one of the following is an antidote for lead poisoning?

Options:
A) Nickel B) Cis-platina
C) White of egg D) EDTA
Q339) The largest continent in the world is:
Options:
A) North America B) Africa
C) Asia D) Europe
Q340) Tehri Dam Project is located in which of the following states?

Options:
A) Madhya Pradesh B) Rajasthan
C) Haryana D) Uttarakhand
Q341) The disease caused by swelling of the membrane over spinal cord and
brain is
Options:
A) Paralysis B) Meningitis
C) Sclerosis D) Leukaemia
Options:
A) Darwin B) Herber
C) Best D) Good
Q343) Which of the following is not a geological hazard?

Options:
A) Earthquake B) Avalanche
C) Landslide D) Drought
1340
Answers:
Page
Q1) D, Q2) A, Q3) B, Q4) D, Q5) A,

Q6) A, Q7) B, Q8) A, Q9) A, Q10) D,

Q11) A, Q12) A, Q13) D, Q14) A, Q15) B,
Q16) D, Q17) A, Q18) B, Q19) C, Q20) A,
Q21) A, Q22) A, Q23) A, Q24) D, Q25) B,

Q26) A, Q27) B, Q28) C, Q29) D, Q30) A,
Q31) D, Q32) C, Q33) B, Q34) B, Q35) A,
Q36) B, Q37) B, Q38) C, Q39) A, Q40) B,
Q41) B, Q42) C, Q43) D, Q44) A, Q45) A,
Q46) A, Q47) A, Q48) A, Q49) A, Q50) B,

Q51) B, Q52) D, Q53) B, Q54) D, Q55) B,
Q56) D, Q57) B, Q58) D, Q59) A, Q60) C,
Q61) A, Q62) A, Q63) D, Q64) D, Q65) D,
Q66) D, Q67) B, Q68) A, Q69) A, Q70) B,
Q71) B, Q72) C, Q73) A, Q74) B, Q75) A,

Q76) B, Q77) C, Q78) C, Q79) B, Q80) B,
Q81) C, Q82) A, Q83) D, Q84) D, Q85) C,
Q86) B, Q87) C, Q88) C, Q89) B, Q90) B,
Q91) A, Q92) B, Q93) A, Q94) C, Q95) B,
Q96) A, Q97) A, Q98) C, Q99) A, Q100) C,

Q101) D, Q102) B, Q103) D, Q104) C, Q105) C,
Q106) B, Q107) C, Q108) B, Q109) B, Q110) A,
Q111) D, Q112) B, Q113) C, Q114) B, Q115) A,
Q116) A, Q117) A, Q118) D, Q119) A, Q120) C,
Q121) C, Q122) D, Q123) A, Q124) C, Q125) A,

Q126) C, Q127) B, Q128) A, Q129) A, Q130) A,
Q131) D, Q132) B, Q133) C, Q134) B, Q135) D,
Q136) B, Q137) B, Q138) A, Q139) C, Q140) B,
Q141) A, Q142) D, Q143) C, Q144) B, Q145) D,
Q146) B, Q147) D, Q148) A, Q149) A, Q150) B,

1341
Q151) A, Q152) C, Q153) D, Q154) B, Q155) B,

Q156) A, Q157) A, Q158) D, Q159) B, Q160) C,
Page

Q161) A, Q162) B, Q163) B, Q164) B, Q165) A,

Q166) D, Q167) A, Q168) C, Q169) D, Q170) B,
Q171) D, Q172) B, Q173) C, Q174) B, Q175) C,
Q176) B, Q177) C, Q178) A, Q179) A, Q180) C,

Q181) C, Q182) C, Q183) D, Q184) D, Q185) A,
Q186) A, Q187) D, Q188) A, Q189) A, Q190) B,
Q191) B, Q192) C, Q193) D, Q194) B, Q195) B,
Q196) B, Q197) B, Q198) A, Q199) D, Q200) B,
Q201) B, Q202) C, Q203) C, Q204) D, Q205) D,

Q206) A, Q207) B, Q208) C, Q209) A, Q210) B,
Q211) A, Q212) A, Q213) B, Q214) A, Q215) B,
Q216) C, Q217) C, Q218) C, Q219) B, Q220) C,
Q221) C, Q222) B, Q223) B, Q224) D, Q225) B,
Q226) B, Q227) B, Q228) A, Q229) B, Q230) C,

Q231) B, Q232) B, Q233) D, Q234) D, Q235) B,
Q236) C, Q237) C, Q238) D, Q239) A, Q240) A,
Q241) C, Q242) C, Q243) B, Q244) B, Q245) A,
Q246) A, Q247) D, Q248) A, Q249) A, Q250) A,
Q251) B, Q252) B, Q253) D, Q254) D, Q255) C,

Q256) B, Q257) A, Q258) C, Q259) B, Q260) A,
Q261) A, Q262) C, Q263) A, Q264) D, Q265) B,
Q266) D, Q267) B, Q268) C, Q269) C, Q270) D,
Q271) C, Q272) B, Q273) C, Q274) B, Q275) A,
Q276) D, Q277) A, Q278) D, Q279) B, Q280) A,

Q281) D, Q282) B, Q283) D, Q284) C, Q285) C,
Q286) B, Q287) B, Q288) C, Q289) B, Q290) A,
Q291) C, Q292) C, Q293) B, Q294) B, Q295) B,
Q296) B, Q297) B, Q298) D, Q299) A, Q300) D,
Q301) A, Q302) C, Q303) A, Q304) D, Q305) C,

1342
Q306) C, Q307) B, Q308) D, Q309) A, Q310) B,

Q311) A, Q312) B, Q313) A, Q314) C, Q315) A,
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Q316) B, Q317) D, Q318) A, Q319) A, Q320) B,

Q321) C, Q322) C, Q323) A, Q324) D, Q325) D,
Q326) C, Q327) C, Q328) B, Q329) B, Q330) A,
Q331) A, Q332) A, Q333) D, Q334) D, Q335) B,

Q336) B, Q337) A, Q338) D, Q339) C, Q340) D,
Q341) B, Q342) A, Q343) D,
Explanations:
Q167) E denotes Universal Negative Proposition.

An E-proposition distributes bidirectionally between the subject and predicate.
From the categorical proposition "No beetles are mammals", we can infer that no
mammals are beetles. Since all beetles are defined not to be mammals, and all
mammals are defined not to be beetles, both classes are distributed.
Classification of Propositions:
(a) Universal Affirmative Proposition A type
(b) Universal Negative Proposition E type
(c) Particular Affirmative Proposition I type
(d) Particular Negative Proposition O type
1343
Page

People and environment Part II:
Q1) IUCN' stands for

Options:
A) I nternational Unity on Community and Nationality
B) Inter-state Unity of Culture Nature
C) Indian Union Congress Nation
D) International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
Q2) Zone of atmosphere near the ground is
Options:
A) Stratosphere B) Mesosphere C) Troposphere D) Homosphere
Q3) Approximately how many people are alive today?

Options:
A) 1 billion B) 2 billion C) 4 billion D) More than 6 billion
Q4) Which of the following is the transition layer between stratosphere and the
mesosphere?
Options:
A) Stratopause B) Tropopause C) Mesopause D) Thermopause
Q5) Emphysema disease is caused by

Options:
A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulphur dioxide
C) Mercury D) Photochemical smog
Q6) Submerged hydrophytes have commonly dissected leaves for

Options:
A) I ncreasing number of stomata
B) Decreasing surface area
1344
C) Reducing effect of water currents

D) Increasing surface area
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Q7) Ozone layer depletion or hole in ozone layer is being chiefly found in
Options:
A) Russia B) South pole C) North pole D) None of these
Q8) Biosphere Reserves are also notified as

Options:
A) Ecosystems B) Woodlands C) National Parks D) Conservation
Q9) Who developed the 'hot spots concept' in 1988?

Options:
A) M.S.Swaminathan B) P.K.Iyengar
C) Norman Myers D) George Bush
Q10) On the basis of the type of environment being polluted, we may recognize
Options:
A) Air pollution B) Soil pollution C) Water pollution D) All of these
Q11) Biodiversity is an abbreviation of
Options:
A) Biological rhythm B) Abiotic factor
C) Biotic factor D) Biological diversity
Q12) An ecological community is an assemblage of
Options:
A) Food webs B) Closely related species
C) Family units D) Interacting populations
Q13) Humans interfere with the natural phosphorus cycle by
Options:
A) Causing erosion of land
1345
B) Adding phosphate fertilizers to agricultural soils

C) Dumping sewage into rivers and lakes
D) All of the above
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Q14) The carrying capacity of a population is determined by its

Options:
A) Birth rate B) Death rate

C) Limiting resource D) Population growth rate
Q15) Exponential growth occurs when there is

Options:
A) Sexual reproduction only B) No inhibition from crowding

C) Asexual reproduction only D) A fixed carrying capacity
Q16) Pollutants like PAN and O3 (Photochemical smog) cause
Options:
A) I rritation of eye B) Irritation nose and eye
C) Respiratory distress D) All of the above
Q17) Greenpeace is
Options:
A) NGO B) An inhibitory process
C) Government policy for speciation D) All of the above
Q18) The wet forests of Amazon basin are known as which one of the following?
Options:
A) Pampas B) Selvas C) Campos D) Lianos
Q19) Fluorides enter plant leaves through

Options:
A) Leaf base B) Root C) Stomata D) Stem
Q20) The geographic limits within which a population exists is its

Options:
1346
A) Range
B) Habitat
C) Niche
Page
D) Territory

Q21) "Ecosystem is the system resulting from the integration of all the living and
non-living factors of the environment". This state was of
Options:
A) Haeckel B) Tansley C) Mishra D) Odum
Q22) The special characteristics of plants and animals that enable them to be
successful under prevailing set of environmental conditions are called
Options:
A) Speciation B) Adaptation C) Evolution D) Ecotype
Q23) Eutrophication means

Options:
A) Nutrient dissipated B) Forest containing acid rain
C) Nutrient enrichment D) None of the above
Q24) What percentage of land area of India provides to the global diversity?
Options:
A) 2.4% B) 5% C) 8% D) 19%
Q25) Cultural eutrophication is caused by the addition of too many

Options:
A) Ammonium B) Nitrate C) Phosphate D) All of these
Q26) Aerosols are particles in air less than

Options:
A) 1 u B) 6 u C) 100 u D) 150 u
Q27) Agenda-21' is the product of
Options:
A) Evolution
1347
B) Earth Summit
C) Speciation
D) Both B and C
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Q28) Biodiversity is of use to modern agriculture as a

Options:
A) Source of new biodegradable pesticides
B) Source of new crops
C) Source of material for breeding improved varieties
Q29) The Earth Summit of 1992 at Rio de Janiero resulted into a Convention on
Biodiversity, which came into force on
Options:
A) 5 June, 1992 B) 19 December, 1993
C) 29 December, 1993 D) 1 April, 2000
Q30) The earth planet along with the atmosphere (i.e., air, water and land) that
sustains life is called
Options:
A) Troposphere B) Biosphere C) Stratosphere D) Ecosystem
Q31) Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Options:
A) Black cotton soil-Rich in calcium B) Laterite-Contains aluminium
C) Chernozen-Richest soil D) Terra rosa-Most suitable for roses
Q32) Which of the following is the most widely used form of renewable energy?
Options:
A) Coal B) Fossil fuel C) Hydro power D) Wood
Q33) Population dispersion is the
Options:
A) Mixing of two populations
B) Spatial distribution of individuals
C) Movement from one fixed point to another and back again
1348
D) Movement away from a natal site

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Q34) Which of the following is the most harmful pollutant?

Options:
A) CH4 B) NO2 C) CO2 D) SO2
Q35) Man-engineered ecosystem is

Options:
A) Marine B) Grassland C) Cropland D) Forest
Q36) The main function of Biosphere Reserves are

Options:
A) Conservation B) Scientific research and education
C) Development of ecological aspects D) All of the above
Q37) The habitat of a population is the

Options:
A) Geographic area it covers
B) Set of conditions and resources it uses
C) Set of interactions it has with other populations
D) Places where it lives
Q38) The population growth rate 'r' is inversely related to

Options:
A) Generation time B) Age structure
C) Clutch size D) Number of clutches per life time
Q39) Noise pollution is created if noise is in excess to

Options:
A) 80-100 Db B) 70-75 db C) 50-60 db D) 40-65 db
Q40) The example of endothermic animal is

Options:
1349
A) Man B) Frogs C) Snakes D) Both B and C

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Q41) The 'IUCN' Red List System' was initiated in the year
Options:
A) 1963 B) 1969 C) 1992 D) 2000
Q42) Population size may decrease as a result of

Options:
A) Emigration B) Mortality
C) Both A and B D) Zonation
Q43) On the 2000 Red List how many species are listed as threatened?
Options:
A) 5484 B) 11046 C) 1939 D) 143
Q44) Which of the following is the basic unit of study in ecology?

Options:
A) Population B) Environment C) Biosphere D) Organisms
Q45) Minamata' disease in Japan was chiefly due to
Options:
A) Lead pollution B) Fluoride pollution
C) Mercury pollution D) Radioactive pollution
Q46) A Biosphere Reserve consists of
Options:
A) Core zone B) Buffer zone C) Transition zone D) All of these
Q47) Ultraviolet radiation from sunlight cause the reaction that produces
Options:
A) Fluorides
B) SO2
1350
C) Ozone
D) CO
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Q48) Who among the following is known as "father of ecology in India"?

Options:
A) P.Maheshwari B) S.K.Kashyap C) B.P. pal D) Ramdeo Mishra
Q49) Consider the components of a food chain: Producers->herbivores-

>carnivores ->top carnivores. Which level contains the most energy?
Options:
A) Herbivores B) Carnivores C) Top carnivores D) Producers
Q50) Wetland conservation programmes are generally based on

Options:
A) Checking waste disposal in wetlands
B) Preparation of wetland enveloping
C) Reduction of excessive inflow of nutrients
D) All of the above
Q51) Which of the following is a true statement?

Options:
A) Since gases not derived from fossil fuel combustion are involved, reduction in
fossil fuel burning will not help the green house effect
B) Global warming is so imminent that nothing can be done
C) Global warming is of no immediate concern
D) Reduction in fossil fuel burning will lessen the greenhouse effect
Q52) Who first of all coined the term ecology'?

Options:
A) Reiter B) Haeckel C) Odum D) Clement
Q53) Loss of mine rals on the hills is due to

Options:
A) Strip mining
B) Terracing
1351
C) Soil erosion by water

D) Contour-strip cropping
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Q54) The basic strategies of biodiversity conservation is/are

Options:
A) I n situ (on site) B) Ex situ (off site)
C) Both A and B D) None of these
Q55) Most interacting populations are
Options:
A) Coevolved B) Mutualistic C) Parasitic D) Symbiotic
Q56) "The unwanted sound dumped into the atmosphere leading to health
hazards" is meant for
Options:
A) Noise pollution B) Water pollution
C) Air pollution D) Radioactive pollution
Q57) The stratospheric ozone depletion leads to

Options:
A) Forest fires B) Global warming

C) Increase in the incidence of skin cancer D) All of the above
Q58) To achieve conservation of biological diversity it is usually necessary to

Options:
A) I ntroduce certain species B) Establish protected areas

C) Restore ecosystems D) All of the above
Q59) Extinction of species includes

Options:
A) Natural extinction B) Mass extinction

C) Anthropogenic extinction D) All of the above
Q60) Which of the following atoms typically cycles within the most localized
area?
1352
Options:
A) Sulphur B) Phosphorus
Page
C) Carbon D) Nitrogen

Q61) Most agriculture makes use of plants from

Options:
A) Early secondary succession B) Late secondary succession
C) Early primary succession D) Late primary succession
Q62) Salinity of the soil is often caused due to

Options:
A) Excessive addition of rainwater
B) Excessive leaching
C) Rapid evaporation of surface water
D) Accumulation of soluble minerals near or in the surface in arid region
Q63) B.O.D. test is made for measuring

Options:
A) Noise pollution B) Soil pollution C) Water pollution D) Air pollution
Q64) Cyanosis is caused by

Options:
A) Copper B) Chromium C) Nitrate concentration D) Carbon dioxide
Q65) Which of the following is/are the chief source(s) of soil and water
pollution?
Options:
A) Thermal power station's waste product B) Agro-industry
C) Mining D) All of the above
Q66) Which of the following organisms is iteroparous?

Options:
A) Bacterium B) Pacific salmon C) Human D) Annual plant
Q67) Smog is a common pollutant in places having

Options:
A) Excessive ammonium in the air B) High temperature
1353
C) Excessive SO2 in the air D) Low temperature

Page

Q68) The study of interrelations between organisms and their environment is

known as
Options:
A) Biosphere B) Autecology C) Synecology D) Ecology
Q69) Soil conservation can be best achieved by

Options:
A) Good plant covers B) Wind Screens
C) Low rainfall D) Restricted human activity
Q70) Which of the following is/are abiotic factor(s)?
Options:
A) Light B) Temperature C) Moisture D) All of these
Q71) A population is a group of

Options:
A) Communities in an ecosystem B) Individual in a family
C) Species in a community D) Individuals in a species
Q72) About how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is
converted to chemical energy by photosynthesis?
Options:
A) 30% B) 90% C) 1% D) 75%
Q73) An ecological pyramid of energy flow is often an inverted pyramid in which

of the following ecosystems?
Options:
A) Tundra B) Ocean C) Desert D) Rain forest
Q74) A dental disease characterized by mottling of teeth is due to the presence

of certain chemical element in drinking wate r. The element responsible for this
is
1354
Options:
A) Mercury B) Fluorine C) Molybdenum D) Lead

Page

Q75) The country which hosted the first world Earth Summit on conservation of
environment is
Options:
A) USA B) Brazil C) India D) UK
Q76) Tropical rain forest destruction is extremely serious because

Options:
A) Large tracts of forest absorb CO2, reducing the treatment of global warming
B) It will lead to a server reduction in biological diversity
C) Tropical soils cannot support agriculture for long
Q77) The dominant species in mangrove forests is/are

Options:
A) Rhizophora B) Avicennia
C) Both A and B D) None of these
Q78) The human population first began to grow exponentially at the time of the
Options:
A) Agricultural revolution B) First World War
C) Tool-using revolution D) Industrial revolution
Q79) Lead (Pb) causes
Options:
A) Radioactive pollution B) Soil and water pollution
C) Air pollution D) All of the above
Q80) Cryopreservation involves storage of cells from embryos and shoot tips in
liquid nitrogen at
Options:
A) 0^0C
B) 5^0c
1355
C) -196^0 C
D) 100^0C
Page

Q81) Acid deposition causes

Options:
A) The greenhouse effect to lessen B) Lakes and forests to die
C) Acid indigestion in humans D) All of the above are correct
Q82) Peak concentration of ozone occurs in the atmosphere above a height of

Options:
A) 25 km B) 100 km C) 10 km D) 150 km
Q83) In India, sacred forests are located in

Options:
A) Karnataka B) Kerala and Meghalaya
C) Maharashtra D) All of the above
Q84) Water pollution can be stopped best by

Options:
A) Spraying DDT
B) Treating effluents to remove injurious chemicals
C) Cultivating useful water plants
D) Rearing more fishes
Q85) The growth of human population is most rapid in the

Options:
A) Temperate regions B) Asia

C) North America D) Tropical and subtropical regions
Q86) Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?

Options:
A) Ocean B) Desert C) Forest D) Mountain
Q87) Benzene is
1356
Options:
A) Gaseous pollutant B) Liquid pollutant
Page
C) Solid pollutant D) All of the above

Q88) Grazing is an example is

Options:
A) Positive pollution B) Negative pollution
C) Gully erosion D) Sheet erosion
Q89) Which of the following is mismatched?

Options:
A) Biomass burning-CO2 given off B) Fossil fuel burning-CO2 given off
C) Solar energy-greenhouse effect D) Nuclear power-radioactive wastes
Q90) In which of the following plants are Rhizobium bacteria involved in fixing
atmos pheric nitrogen?
Options:
A) Tomato B) Rice C) Bean D) Potato
Q91) PAN' stands for

Options:
A) Principle of Advanced Nations B) Pres ume Additional Noise
C) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate D) Prime Added Nature
Q92) The burning of fossil fuels includes

Options:
A) Coal B) Oil C) Gas D) All of these
Q93) Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of

Options:
A) Hydrogen B) Chlorine C) Sulphur dioxide D) Oxygen
Q94) The process of laterization results into

Options:
1357
A) Mineralization of humus
B) Degradation of soil
C) Formation of soil
Page
D) Formation of humus

Q95) Water pollution is caused by

Options:
A) Hydrocarbon gases and growth of phytoplanktons B) Industrial effluents
C) Rain D) Decay of aquatic animals bodies
Q96) Thermal pollution of water body is due to

Options:
A) Discharge of agricultural runoff
B) Discharge of chemical from industries
C) Discharge of chemicals from mining
D) Discharge of heat(hot water) from power plants
Q97) Any substance which causes pollution is called

Options:
A) I nfection B) Pollutant C) Co-factor D) Inhibitor
Q98) Cryopreservation is the storage of material at ultra-low temperature

Options:
A) By very rapid cooling B) By gradual cooling
C) By gradual cooling and simultaneous dehydration at low temperature
D) By all of the above
Q99) Water is a renewable resource, and
Options:
A) It is still subject to pollution
B) There will always be a plentiful supply
C) Primary sewage treatment plants assure clean drinking water
D) The oceans can never become polluted
Q100) What percent of ultraviolet radiation increase with subsequent reduction

of 1% ozone?
Options:
1358
A) 2% B) 8% C) 18% D) 28%
Page

Q101) Which of the following is not correctly matched? (i) The water (Prevention
and Control of Pollution) Act, 1975 (ii) The Motor Vehicle Act came into force
from 1st July, 1989 (iii) The Air (Prevention and Control) Pollution Act, 1981 (iv)
The Environment Protection Act, 1983
Options:
A) I and IV B) Only III
C) Only II D) All of the above are incorrectly matched
Q102) Which of the following is/are the source(s) of air pollution?
Options:
A) Thermal power stations B) Industrial chimney wastes
C) Automobiles D) All of the above
Q103) Continuous sewage flow into a stream would lead to
Options:
A) Algal bloom B) Eutrophication
C) Increase in temperature D) Depletion of O2
Q104) About how much of the chemical energy within producer tissues becomes
chemical energy within herbivore tissues?
Options:
A) 10% B) 1% C) 30% D) 50%
Q105) When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, the biological
oxygen demand will
Options:
A) Decrease B) Increase C) Remain unchanged D) Slightly decrease
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) C, Q3) D, Q4) A, Q5) D, Q6) C, Q7) B, Q8) C, Q9) C, Q10) D, Q11) D,
Q12) D, Q13) D, Q14) C, Q15) B, Q16) D, Q17) A, Q18) B, Q19) C, Q20) D, Q21)
B, Q22) B, Q23) C, Q24) C, Q25) D, Q26) A, Q27) B, Q28) D, Q29) C, Q30) B,
Q31) D, Q32) C, Q33) B, Q34) D, Q35) C, Q36) D, Q37) D, Q38) A, Q39) A, Q40)
A, Q41) A, Q42) C, Q43) B, Q44) D, Q45) C, Q46) D, Q47) A, Q48) D, Q49) D,
Q50) D, Q51) D, Q52) A, Q53) A, Q54) C, Q55) A, Q56) A, Q57) D, Q58) D, Q59)
D, Q60) B, Q61) A, Q62) D, Q63) C, Q64) C, Q65) D, Q66) C, Q67) D, Q68) D,
1359
Q69) A, Q70) D, Q71) D, Q72) C, Q73) B, Q74) B, Q75) B, Q76) D, Q77) C, Q78)
A, Q79) C, Q80) C, Q81) B, Q82) A, Q83) D, Q84) B, Q85) D, Q86) A, Q87) B,
Q88) B, Q89) C, Q90) C, Q91) C, Q92) D, Q93) C, Q94) B, Q95) B, Q96) D, Q97)
Page
B, Q98) D, Q99) A, Q100) A, Q101) A, Q102) D, Q103) D, Q104) C, Q105) B

Unit 9
Higher Education System
1360
Page

Governance, Polity And Administration:
Q1) Collective responsibility is the Hallmark of which form of Government?

Options:
A) parliamentary form B) Presidential form
C) Military form D) None of the above
Q2) In case of death, resignation or removal of Governoracts as the Governor.

Options:
A) The Chief Minister B) The President of India
C) The Speaker D) The Chief Justice of High Court
Q3) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the

Options:
A) Prime Minister of India B) President of India
C) Finance Minister D) Lok Sabha
Q4) India is a republic because

Options:
A) Every adult of the age 18 or more has been given the right to vote
B) The Constitution guarantees fundamental rights of the people
C) The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
D) Head of State is elected for a fixed term
Q5) Indian Constitution reserves the residuary powers to
Options:
A) The Union B) The States
C) The Parliament D) The President
Q6) The most controversial amendment passed during the emergency was?
Options:
1361
A) 43rd
B) 41st
C) 42nd
Page
D) 44th
Q7) In India freedom of press is

Options:
A) Specifically provided in the Constitution
B) Implied in the right to freedom of expression
C) Available to the people of India under Law of Parliament
D) Available to the people of India under executive orders
Q8) The subject on which the State Government enjoys exclusive powers are
given in
Options:
A) Concurrent List B) State List
C) Union List D) Residuary List
Q9) The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Raja Sabha is
Options:
A) 525 and 250 respectively B) 550 and 250
C) 535 and 275 D) 500 and 250
Q10) The Contingency Fund of the State is placed under the

Options:
A) Chief Secretary B) Finance Minister
C) Chief Minister D) Governor
Q11) ..is the popular House of State Legislature.

Options:
A) Legislative Assembly B) Legislative Council
C) Legislative Sabha D) Zilla Council
Q12) How many seats have been reserved for the Union Territories in Lok
Sabha?
Options:
A) 20
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B) 25
C) 30
D) 50
Page

Q13) The President of India, who has some political differences with Prime
Minister was
Options:
A) Zakir Hussain B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C) Fakrudin Ali Ahmed D) None of the above
Q14) If a Governor wants to resign, to whom does he address his letter of

resignation?
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) Home Minister
C) Chief Minister D) President of India
Q15) The Legislative Council of a State can be abolished or created by the

Options:
A) President of India on the recommendation of the Parliament
B) Legislative Assembly of the State concerned
C) Parliament through a simple legislation
D) Parliament on the recommendation of the Legislative Assembly of the State
concerned
Q16) The sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court of India is

Options:
A) 13 B) 15 C) 16 D) 31
Q17) Which of the following is not a Union Territory?

Options:
A) Lakshadweep B) Delhi
C) Manipur D) Daman&Diu
Q18) The Governor of a State holds his office only during the pleasure of
Options:
A) Prime Minister
1363
B) President
C) Chief Minister
D) Home Minister
Page

Q19) What does the Article 352 of the Constitution contain?

Options:
A) Provision regarding declaration of Emergency
B) Powers of the High Court
C) Division of powers between the Centre and the States
D) Powers of the Prime Minister
Q20) A Parliamentary government cannot operate without
Options:
A) A written constitution B) An independent judiciary
C) Political parties D) A rigid constitution
Q21) Which one of the following is wrong?

Options:
A) It is the duty of the Chief Minister to keep the Governor informed of all the
decisions of the Cabinet
B) The Governor has the Power to ask for any information from the Chief
Minister regarding the administration of the State
C) The Governor is the real head of the State administration
D) As an agent of the Central Government the Governor may have to act
sometimes independently of the advice of the Council of Ministers
Q22) The report of the Public Accounts Committee is presented to the

Options:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Rajya Sabha
D) Lok Sabha
Q23) Which of the following is not one of the Fundamental rights?

Options:
A) Right to freedom of Religion
B) Right to freedom of through and expression
C) Right to equality
1364
D) Right to equal pay for equal work for man as well as women
Page

Q24) The Constitution of India is

Options:
A) Very rigid B) Very flexible
C) A combination of rigidity and flexibility D) Neither rigid nor flexible
Q25) De cisions on question about disqualification of members of the Lok Sabha

are taken by the
Options:
A) President B) Prime Minister

C) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs D) Secretary to Parliament
Q26) The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by

Options:
A) Dr.Rajendra Prasad B) N.Gopalas wamy

C) B.R.Ambedkar D) None of these
Q27) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the procedure of

passing of Bills in Parliament?
Options:
A) A bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse because of the prorogation of the
two Houses of Parliament
B) A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok
Sabha shall lapse on its dissolution
C) A bill pending in the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha not lapse on
the dissolution of the Lok Sabha
D) A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has been passed by the Lok Sabha
shall not lapse on the adjournment of the Rajya Sabha
Q28) Representatives of Union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by

Options:
A) Direct election B) Indirect election C) Nomination D) All the above
Q29) The term of Rajya Sabha members was fixed by the

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Options:
A) Constitution B) President C) Parliament D) Cabinet
Page

Q30) The main feature of Presidential government is

Options:
A) Stability
B) Irresponsibility
C) Check and balances
D) Rigidity
Q31) The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State cannot
exceed
Options:
A) One-fourth of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly
B) One -third of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly
C) One-sixth of the total members of the Legislative Assembly
D) No such limit has been fixed
Q32) Parliamentary government was adopted in India

Options:
A) By sheer accident
B) Because it was made obligatory to adopt this government under Indian
Independence Act of 1947
C) Because of historical considerations and practical necessities
D) On account of all the above reasons
Q33) Which one of the following statements holds good in respect of the Rajya
Sabha?
Options:
A) One-third of its members retire after every three years
B) Two-thirds of its members retire after every three years
C) Two-thirds of its members retire after every two years
D) One-third of its members retire after every two years
Q34) Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?

Options:
A) Dr. Radhakrishnan
1366
B) N.Sanjiva Reddi
C) V.V. Giri
D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Page

Q35) The Government in India is known as Parliamentary because

Options:
A) Parliament is elected by the people
B) Parliament consists of two houses
C) Parliament is a sovereign body
D) The executive is accountable to the Legislature
Q36) The President of India is entitled to a monthly salary of

Options:
A) Rs.1, 50, 000 B) Rs.1, 40, 000
C) Rs. 1, 35, 000 D) Rs.1, 25, 000
Q37) The Governor of a State in India is

Options:
A) Directly elected by the people of the State
B) Appointed by the Prime Minister
C) Appointed by the President
D) Appointed by the State Chief Minister
Q38) If a Governor wants to resign, to whom does he address his letter of

resignation?
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) Chief Minister
C) President of India D) Home Minister
Q39) Seats in the Lok Sabha are not reserved for the
Options:
A) Scheduled Castes
B) Scheduled Tribes
C) Scheduled Tribes in the autonomous district of Assam
D) Anglo Indians
Q40) The Indian Constitution has given a special status to the State of Jammu
and Kashmir under Article
Options:
1367
A) 352 B) 370
C) 368 D) 361
Page

Q41) What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?

Options:
A) 40 B) 60 C) 50 D) 70
Q42) To be eligible for election as President of India a person must have

completed the age of
Options:
A) 35 years B) 40 years C) 30 years D) 25 years
Q43) The Constituent Assembly of India opted for a Parliamentary form of

government. Leaders like Ambedkar, in this, preferred
Options:
A) Stability over responsibility B) Responsibility over stability
C) Responsibility and stability D) People's rule
Q44) Who amongst the following acts as the presiding officer of the House
without being its members?
Options:
A) Vice-President of India
B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C) Chairman of the Legislative Council
D) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Q45) Which one of the following cannot be dissolved but can be abolished any
time?
Options:
A) State Legislative Councils B) State Legislative Assemblies
C) Rajya Sabha D) Lok Sabha
Q46) The Governor of a State can address the Legislature at the commencement
of the
Options:
1368
A) New session after each general election B) First session every year
Page

Q47) Which is the most important reason to consider India as a Secular State?
Options:
A) People of different religions live in India
B) Government works for the welfare of people of all religions
C) Religion is separate d from politics
D) Minority religions are given special protection
Q48) The Governor of a State can
Options:
A) Dissolve the Legislative Assembly B) Dissolve the Legislative Council
C) Both the above D) None of the above
Q49) The maximum duration between two sessions of the Indian Parliament
should not be more than
Options:
A) 3 months B) 6 months
C) 9 months D) one year
Q50) In Parliamentary Government

Options:
A) The President has the main importance
B) The Prime Minister has the main importance
C) The Vice-President has the main importance
D) The Head of the State has the main importance
Q51) The Constitution amendment bills are initiated in

Options:
A) The Lok Sabha
B) The Rajya Sabha
C) Either House
D) The Lok Sabha with the prior approval of the State assemblies
Q52) What is the age of retirement of the Supreme Court Judges?

1369
Options:
A) 60 years B) 65 years C) 62 years D) 70 years
Page

Q53) All the following are Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian
Constitution except
Options:
A) The right to equality

B) The right against exploitation
C) The right to adequate means of livelihood
D) The right to freedom of religion
Q54) The Election Commission of a state can be removed from office

Options:
A) Only by the Governor
B) In the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme
Court
C) Only by the President on the advice of the Chief Justice of the concerned
State
D) In the same manner as the Vice-president of India
Q55) Who among the following is considered to be the custodian of the Lok
Sabha?
Options:
A) The Prime Minister B) The Leader of the opposition
C) The Chief whip of the ruling party D) The Speaker
Q56) The subordinate courts enjoy

Options:
A) Only civil jurisdiction B) Only criminal jurisdiction
C) Only revenue jurisdiction D) All of the above
Q57) A Judge of the Supreme Court of India can be removed from office
Options:
A) By the President of India according to his sweet will
B) By the Prime Minister of India
C) By the Chief Justice of India
D) By the President on an address by each House of Parliament and supported
1370
by a majority of the total membership of that house and by a majority of not less
than 2/3 of the members of that House present and voting
Page

Q58) Which one of the following Lok Sabha was dissolved before the expiry of its
normal term?
Options:
A) First Lok Sabha B) Fourth Lok Sabha

C) Sixth Lok Sabha D) None of the above
Q59) If the Vice-President were to submit his resignation, he would notify to

Options:
A) The President of India B) The Prime Minister
C) The Chief Justice of India D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Q60) The number of UTs in the Indian Union is

Options:
A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9
Q61) Which of the following means the collective responsibility of the Cabinet?
Options:
A) The venue and agenda of the Cabinet meeting are kept secret for security
reasons
B) It is imperative for the Prime Minister to consult all the ministers to ascertain
their views
C) The deliberations of the Cabinet are kept secret
D) The Cabinet functions as a compact unit in justifying its decisions
Q62) The total number of members of the Legislative Council can in no case be
less than
Options:
A) 40 B) 60 C) 50 D) No minimum strength has been fixed
Q63) Which one of the following is not a function of the Chief Minister of a
State?
Options:
A) He allots business among his colleagues
B) He can ask any Minister to resign and in case of his refusal advise the
1371
Governor to dismiss him

C) He can dissolve the Legislative Assembly
D) He presides over the meetings of the Cabinet and controls the agenda thereof
Page

Q64) The Presidential Government operates on the principle of

Options:
A) Se paration of Powers B) Division of Labour
C) Fusion of Labour D) Centralisation of Power
Q65) Cabinet government is based on

Options:
A) Se paration of legislature and executive

B) Fusion of legislature, executive and judiciary
C) Fusion of legislature and executive
Q66) Which of the following Articles speaks of the appointment of the Governor?
Options:
A) Article 160 B) Article 140 C) Article 255 D) Article 155
Q67) The Constitution of India is

Options:
A) One of the smallest constitutions in the world
B) A medium sized constitution
C) One of the most elaborate constitutions of the world
Q68) The Vice-President of India is elected by

Options:
A) The same electoral college which elects the President of India

B) The Rajya Sabha
C) The Lok Sabha
D) By an electoral college consisting of the members of Houses of Parliament
Q69) A Governor can issue an ordinance

Options:
A) Whenever he likes
B) whenever Chief Minister advises him
C) Whenever the State Legislature is not in Session and the Governor is satisfied
1372
that immediate action is needed

D) When the Union Government tells him to do so
Page

Q70) Inthe executive power of the State Government is vested

Options:
A) The President of India B) The Chief Minister
C) The Governor D) The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Q71) Chief Minister is

Options:
A) The Head of the State B) The Head of the Government
C) An integral part of the legislature D) Always a member of the Lower House
Q72) Which of the following was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent
Assembly?
Options:
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad B) Pt.Jawahar Lal Nehru

C) Sardar Patel D) B.R.Ambedkar
Q73) Consider the following statements: The Fundamental duties- 1. Have

always been a part of the constitution of India 2. Have been added through an
amendment 3. Are applicable to all citizens of India Which of these statements
is/are correct?
Options:
A) 1 and 3 B) 1 only C) 2 only D) 2 and 3
Q74) The grant of franchise to women on equal terms with men is assertion of
the principle of
Options:
A) Political equality B) Civil equality
C) Natural equality D) Social equality
Q75) Prime Minister of India is

Options:
A) Leader of the Rajya Sabha
1373
B) Leader of the Lok Sabha

C) Leader of the masses
Page

Q76) Parliamentary Supremacy' is a definite feature of the political system in

Options:
A) U.K B) India C) Canada D) Australia
Q77) The Legislative Council of a State can be abolished or created by

Options:
A) The President of India
B) The Legislative Assembly of the State concerned
C) By Parliament according to its will
D) By Parliament provided the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to
that effect
Q78) The Union Cabinet is responsible to

Options:
A) The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha B) The President of India
C) The Lok Sabha only D) The electorate
Q79) The Speaker of a State Assembly can be removed from his office by
Options:
A) A resolution of the Legislative Assembly passed by a majority of all the
members of the Assembly
B) The President of India
C) The Chief Minister
D) The Governor
Q80) The first general election under the Constitution was held in
Options:
A) 1949 B) 1950 C) 1952 D) 1953
Q81) A Governor can be removed by

Options:
A) Prime Minister
1374
B) President of India
C) Chief Minister
D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Page

Q82) The subordinate Civil Courts are headed by

Options:
A) District Court B) Session Court
C) Board of Revenue D) None of these
Q83) The size of the Council of Ministers of a State

Options:
A) Is fixed by the governor in accordance with the High Courts advice
B) Is decided by the Chief Minister
C) Is fixed by the Constitution (91 st Amendment) Act, 2003
D) Is dependent on the total strength of the assembly
Q84) The right of vote in India is given to all people on the basis of
Options:
A) Age
B) Education
C) Religion
D) Property
Q85) The right to freedom of speech and expression

Options:
A) Does not include freedom of press
B) Includes freedom of press
C) Includes freedom of press only in certain respects
Q86) Which one of the following statements is correct?

Options:
A) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha elected by the elected members of the
Rajya Sabha
B) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha president over the joint session of both the
Houses of Parliament
C) The electoral college for the election of the Vice-President is the same as that
for the election of the President
1375
D) The nominated members of both the House of Parliament have voting right in
the election of the Vice-President but not in the election of the President
Page

Q87) The "Fundamental Duties" of the Indian citizen have been

Options:
A) Originally provided by the constitution
B) Included in the constitution by the 44th amendment
C) Included in the constitution by the 42nd amendment
D) Inserted into the constitution by a judgement of the Supreme Court
Q88) The Speaker of Lok Sabha has to address his letter of resignation to the
Options:
A) Prime Minister of India
B) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
C) President of India
D) Vice-President of India
Q89) The Rajya Sabha

Options:
A) Is a permanent house
B) Has a maximum life of 6 years
C) Has a maximum life 5 years
D) Has no fixed life
Q90) The President of India is elected by

Options:
A) Parliament
B) State legislatures
C) By the people directly
D) By an electoral college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha,
the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies
Q91) Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:
A) The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of Prime Minister
B) Money Bills cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
C) The 42nd Amendment extended the term of the Lok Sabha and the State
1376
Legislative Assemblies from 5 years to 6 years

D) As nearly as possible one-third members of the Rajya Sabha retire on the
expiration of every third year
Page

Q92) The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within
Options:
A) One year B) Six months
C) Four months D) Three months
Q93) Which of the following words were added to the Preamble of Indian
Constitution under the 42nd Amendment?
Options:
A) Democratic Republic B) Democratic Socialist

C) Socialist Secular D) Sovereign Secular
Q94) The Governor of a state enjoys

Options:
A) No discretionary powers B) Very extensive discretionary powers

C) Discretionary Powers in certain matters D) None of these
Q95) The Governor even though is a constitutional head, he

Options:
A) Is at par with the President
B) Is on a different footing from the President
C) Is the successor of the President in the State Administration
Q96) To Which one of the following categories does the Right to Property belong?
Options:
A) Legal Right B) Fundamental Right
C) Human Right D) Natural Right
Q97) The Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of India is

Options:
A) The Defence Minister
B) The Prime Minister
1377
C) The Chief of the Army Staff

D) The President of India
Page

Q98) The members of Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of

Options:
A) Three years B) Five years C) Six years D) Seven years
Q99) Which one of the following statements correctly describes "a hung
Parliament"?
Options:
A) A Parliament in which no party has clear majority
B) The Prime Minister has resigned but Parliament is not dissolved
C) The Parliament lacks the quorum to conduct business
D) A lame duck Parliament
Q100) The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to

the Lok Sabha is
Options:
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Q101) The time-gap between two sessions of Parliament must not exceed
Options:
A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months D) one year
Q102) India has

Options:
A) Parliamentary form of government

B) Presidential form of government
C) Both parliamentary and pres idential forms of government
D) None of these
Q103) Which is the largest State in area?

Options:
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Uttar Pradesh
1378
C) Maharashtra
D) Rajasthan
Page

Q104) When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the
deadlock is resolved by
Options:
A) A joint sitting of the two Houses B) President of India

C) Prime Minster of India D) By a special committee formed for the purpose
Q105) Which of the following exercises power to promulgate ordinances during

the recess of the legislative?
Options:
A) Chief Minister B) Governor C) Speaker D) Deputy Speaker
Q106) Who appoints the Governor of a State?

Options:
A) Home Minister of India B) President of India

C) Chief Minister of that State D) Prime Minister of India
Q107) When does a Presidential Ordinance cease to operate?

Options:
A) At the expiry of four-weeks from the reassembly of Parliament or earlier if
both Houses disapprove it
B) At the expiry of six-weeks from the reassembly of Parliament or earlier if both
Houses disapprove it
C) At the expiry of six-months from the reassembly of Parliament or earlier if
both Houses disapprove it
D) None of these
Q108) The President of India is elected by

Options:
A) Direct election
B) Indirect election by means of the single transferable vote
C) Universal adult franchise
D) All members of the Parliament
1379
Q109) The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is

Options:
Page
A) 500 B) 525 C) 535 D) 550

Q110) Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the

Options:
A) 42nd Amendment B) 40th Amendment
C) 39th Amendment D) 36th Amendment
Q111) When a State Government fails to comply with the directions of the
Centre in the exercise of administrative power
Options:
A) The Governor may be directed by the President to dismiss the ministry
B) The President can declare a national emergency and convert the federal
structure into a unitary one
C) A Constitutional emergency can be declared in the State and the President
can assume all the powers of the State Government
D) The Supreme Court may be asked to intervene
Q112) The Attorney General of India is appointed by

Options:
A) The Chief Justice of India B) The Prime Minister
C) The President of India D) The UPSC
Q113) Article 370 of the Indian Constitution deals with

Options:
A) The Emergency Powers of the President

B) The special position of the State of Jammu and Kashmir
C) The power to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter
of public importance
D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States
Q114) Chief Minister is not responsible for

Options:
A) Running the entire administration of the State

B) The maintenance of the law and order in the State
C) The defence of the State
Q115) How many languages have been recognised by the Constitution?

1380
Options:
A) 13 B) 14 C) 22 D) 16
Page

Q116) Which of the following has not been laid down by the Indian
Constitution?
Options:
A) Direct election to the Lok Sabha

B) Direct election to the State Legislative Assemblies
C) Direct election of the President of India
D) Creation of Supreme Court which is competent to interpret the Constitution
Q117) The Governor of a State is an integral part of the

Options:
A) State Cabinet B) Parliament
C) President's Secretariat D) State Legislature
Q118) How many States are there in the Union of India?

Options:
A) 22 B) 24 C) 26 D) 28
Q119) Which one of the following is not an essential qualification for contesting
election to Lok Sabha?
Options:
A) Citizenship of India B) Age of 25 years
C) Soundness of mind D) Graduation
Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) D, Q3) B, Q4) D, Q5) A, Q6) C, Q7) B, Q8) B, Q9) B, Q10) D, Q11) A,
Q12) A, Q13) B, Q14) D, Q15) D, Q16) D, Q17) C, Q18) B, Q19) A, Q20) C, Q21)
C, Q22) D, Q23) D, Q24) C, Q25) A, Q26) C, Q27) A, Q28) A, Q29) A, Q30) A,
Q31) B, Q32) C, Q33) D, Q34) B, Q35) D, Q36) A, Q37) C, Q38) C, Q39) D, Q40)
B, Q41) B, Q42) A, Q43) B, Q44) A, Q45) A, Q46) C, Q47) B, Q48) A, Q49) B,
Q50) B, Q51) C, Q52) B, Q53) C, Q54) B, Q55) D, Q56) D, Q57) D, Q58) C, Q59)
A, Q60) B, Q61) C, Q62) A, Q63) C, Q64) A, Q65) C, Q66) D, Q67) C, Q68) D,
Q69) C, Q70) C, Q71) B, Q72) A, Q73) D, Q74) A, Q75) B, Q76) A, Q77) D, Q78)
C, Q79) A, Q80) C, Q81) B, Q82) A, Q83) C, Q84) A, Q85) B, Q86) D, Q87) C,
Q88) B, Q89) A, Q90) D, Q91) D, Q92) B, Q93) C, Q94) C, Q95) B, Q96) A, Q97)
D, Q98) C, Q99) A, Q100) A, Q101) B, Q102) A, Q103) D, Q104) A, Q105) B,
1381
Q106) B, Q107) B, Q108) B, Q109) D, Q110) D, Q111) C, Q112) C, Q113) B,

Q114) C, Q115) C, Q116) C, Q117) D, Q118) D, Q119) D
Page

Higher Education System Part I:
Q1) Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
List-I (Institutions)
a) Central Institute of English
b) Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya
c) Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies
d) IGNOU
List-II (Locations)
i) Chitrakoot and Foreign Languages
ii) Hyderabad
iii) New Delhi
iv) Dharmasala
Options:
A) A (ii), B (i), C (iv), D (iii)
B) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (i)
C) A (v), B (iii), C (iv), D (ii)
D) A (iv), B (ii), C (iii), D (v)
Q2) Which statement is not correct about the National Education Day of India?
Options:
A) It is celebrate d on 5th September every year.
B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.
C) It is celebrated in the memory of Indias first Union Minister of Education, Dr.
Abul alam Azad.
D) It is being celebrate d since 2008
Q3) Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956,
are not permitted to
Options:
A) Offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.
B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.
C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas
res pectively without the permission of the UGC.
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D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance

education Council
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Q4) Indias first Defence University is in the State of

Options:
A) Haryana
B) Andhra Pradesh
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Punjab
Q5) Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the
MHRD Government of India?
Options:
A) I ndian council of world Affair, New Delhi
B) Mythic Society, Bangalore
C) National Bal Bhawan, New Delhi
D) India International Centre, New Delhi
Q6) The University which telecasts interactive educational programmes through

its own channel is:
Options:
A) B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad

B) IGNOU
C) University of Pune
D) Annamalai University
Q7) The Government established the University Grants Commission by an Act of

Parliament in the year:
Options:
A) 1980
B) 1948
C) 1950
D) 1956
Q8) Universities having central campus for imparting education are called:
Options:
A) Central Universities
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B) Deemed Universities
C) Residential Universities
D) Open Universities
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Q9) The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation

of:
Options:
A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission

B) Mudaliar Commission
C) Sargent Commission
D) Kothari Commission
Q10) Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards
own liking?
Options:
A) Article 19
B) Article 29
C) Article 30
D) Article 3
Q11) Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted

by:
Options:
A) I ndian Institute of Public Administration
B) Administrative Staff College of India
C) l. b. s. National Academy of Administration
D) Centre for Advanced Studies
Q12) Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential

Elections are settled by:
Options:
A) Election Commission of India

B) Joint Committee of Parliament
C) Supreme Court of India
D) Central Election Tribunal
Q13) Value education makes a student:

Options:
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A) Good citizen B) Successful businessman

C) Popular teacher D) Efficient manager
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Q14) The head quarter of Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi

Vishwavidyalaya is situated in:
Options:
A) Se vagram
B) New Delhi
C) Wardha
D) Ahmedabad
Q15) The aim of vocationalisation of education is:

Options:
A) preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge
B) converting liberal education into vocational education
C) giving more importance to vocational than general education
D) Making liberal education job-oriented
Q16) NAAC is an autonomous institution under the aegis of:

Options:
A) I CSSR
B) CSIR
C) AICTE
D) UGC
Q17) National Council for Womens Education was established in:

Options:
A) 1958
B) 1976
C) 1989
D) 2000
Q18) Which one of the following is not situated in New Delhi?

Options:
A) I ndian Council of Cultural Relations
B) Indian Council of Scientific Research
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C) National Council of Educational Research and Training

D) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies
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Q19) Autonomy in higher education implies freedom in:

Options:
A) Administration
B) Policy-making
C) Finance
D) Curriculum development
Q20) According to Radhakrishnan Commission, the aim of Higher Education is:
Options:
A) To develop the democratic values, peace and harmony
B) To develop great personalities who can give their contributions in politics,
administration, industry and commerce
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None of these
Q21) The National Museum at New Delhi is attached to:

Options:
A) Delhi University
B) a Deemed University
C) a Subordinate Office of the JNU
D) Part of Ministry of Tourism and Culture
Q22) Election of Rural and Urban local bodies are conducted and ultimately
supervised by:
Options:
B) State Election Commission
C) District Collector and District Magistrate
D) Concerned Returning Officer

Options:
India
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B) University Grants Commission is a statutory body

concurrent list
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Q24) The Kothari Commissions report was entitled on:

Options:
A) Education and National Development
B) Learning to be adventure
C) Diversification of Education
D) Education and socialization in democracy
Q25) Which of the following is not a Dual mode University?

Options:
A) Delhi University
B) Bangalore University
C) Madras University
D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Q26) Which part of the Constitution of India is known as Code of

Administrators??
Options:
A) Part I
B) Part II
C) Part III
D) Part IV
Q27) Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary

and their social practices against any act of Parliament?
Options:
A) Article 371 A
B) Article 371 B
C) Article 371 C
D) Article 263
Q28) Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance?
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Options:
A) Right to information B) Citizens Charter
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C) Social Auditing D) Judicial Activist

Q29) The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the

establishment of 1500 Universities is to
Options:
A) create more teaching jobs

B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
C) replace or substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by
public institutions
D) enable increased movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Q30) According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in

Parliament shall be transacted in
Options:
A) English only
B) Hindi only
C) English and Hindi both
D) All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
Q31) Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?
Options:
A) Se minar B) Workshop
C) Lecture D) Group Discussion
Q32) The Parliament in India is composed of

Options:
A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President
C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President
D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Q33) The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal

System of Education and by System of Distance Education. Distance education
contributes
Options:
A) 50% of formal system

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B) 25% of formal system

C) 10% of the formal system
D) Distance education systems contribution is not taken into account while
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considering the figures of enrolment in higher education

Q34) Assertion (A): The UGC Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to
improve the quality of teachers.
Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation
and refresher courses.
Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is correct and (R) is false.
D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Q35) The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation

Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in
terms of
Options:
A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.
B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme
grading approach.
C) Once get accredited by NBA or N AAC, the institution is free from renewal of
grading, which is not a progressive decision.
D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality
of education in the institution concerned.
Q36) Which option is not correct?
Options:
A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and
technical sphere fall Under 64th entry of Union list.
B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act 1976.
C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first established in 1920.
D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education
in 200 through 86th Constitutional Amendment.
Q37) Networking of libraries through electronic media is known as:
Options:
A) I nflibnet
B) Libinfne t
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C) Internet
D) HTML
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Q38) SITE stands for:

Options:
A) System for Inte rnational technology and Engineering
B) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
C) South Indian Trade Estate
D) State Institute of Technology and Engineering
Q39) What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian
Government for Conducting Research at Antarctic?
Options:
A) Dakshin Gangotri
B) Yamunotri
C) Uttara Gangotri
Q40) Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes:

Options:
A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
B) Department of Secondary Education and Lite racy
C) Department of Women and Child Development
D) All the above

Options:
A) 19 (2) (a)
B) 19(16)
C) 19(2)
D) 19(1) (a)
Q42) Use of radio for higher education is based on the pres umption of:
Options:
A) Enriching curriculum based instruction
B) Replacing teacher in the long run
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C) Everybody having access to a radio set

D) Other means of instruction getting outdated
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Q43) The first Indian Satellite for serving the educational sector is known as:
Options:
A) SATEDU
B) INSAT -B
C) EDUSAT
D) INSAT-C
Q44) Exclusive educational channel of IGNOU is known as:

Options:
A) GyanDarshan
B) Cyan Vani
C) DoorDarshan
D) Prasar Bharati
Q45) Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution) with List-II (Institutions) and
select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I(Articles of the Constitution)
a) Article 280
b) Article 324
c) Article 323
d) Article 315
List -II (Institutions)

i) Administrative Tribunals
ii) Election Commission of India
iii) Finance Commission at Union level
iv) Pre Union Public Service Commission
Options:
A) A (iii), B (ii), C (i), D (iv)
B) A (ii), B (iv), C (i), D (iii)
C) A (iii), B (ii), C (iv), D (i)
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D) A (i), B (iii), C (ii), D (iv)

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Q46) Match List-I (Institutions) with List-II (Locations) and select the correct
a) National Law Institute
b) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies
c) N ational Judicial Academy
d) N ational Savings Institute
List-II (Locations)
i) Shimla
ii) Bhopal
iii) Hyderabad
iv) Nagpur
Options:
A) A (iii), B (i), C (ii), D (iv)
B) A (ii), B (iv), C (i), D (iii)
C) A (iii), B (ii), C (iv), D (i)
D) A (i), B (iii), C (ii), D (iv)
Q47) Match List-I (Institutions) with List-II (Locations) and select the correct
a) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University
b) Send. t. University
c) M.S. University
d) j. n. Vyas University
List-II (Locations)
i) Mumbai
ii) Baroda
iii) Jodhpur
iv) Sagar
Options:
A) A (iv), B (i), C (ii), D (iii)
B) A (ii), B (iv), C (i), D (iii)
C) A (iv), B (ii), C (iv), D (i)
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D) A (i), B (iii), C (v), D (iv)

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Q48) Match List-I (Institutions) with List-II (Functions) and select the correct
a) Parliament
b) C & A.G.
c) Ministry of Finance
d) Executing Departments
List-II (Functions)
i) Formulation of Budget
ii) Enactment of Budget
iii) Implementation of Budget
iv) Legality of expenditure
v) Justification of Income
Options:
A) A (iii), B (iv), C (i), D (iii)
B) A (iii), B (iv), C (ii), D (i)
C) A (v), B (iii), C (iv), D (ii)
D) A (iv), B (ii), C (iii), D (v)
Q49) Most of the Universities in India

Options:
A) conduct teaching and research only
B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
D) promote research only
Q50) Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

Options:
A) Election Commission
B) Finance Commission
C) Union Public Service Commission
D) Planning Commission
Q51) To make teachers accountable. They should be given

Options:
1393
A) Freedom in the selection of content and methods of teaching

B) Training in teaching and examining.
C) Opportunities for professional growth
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D) Transfer to places where they want to serve.

Q52) Who is the custodian of fundamental rights of people?

Options:
A) Supreme Court
B) President
C) Prime Minister
D) State Assembly
Q53) The social heritage of people could be described by the following term
Options:
A) Culture
B) Social norm
C) Transmission
D) Human involvement
Q54) Which one of the following characteristics could be regarded as the

outstanding aspect of a scientific culture?
Options:
A) Generalization
B) Actualization
C) Qualification
D) Quantification
Q55) In India, education means

Options:
A) The assimilation of tradition in language
B) Respectful behaviour to elders & teachers
C) Customs
D) All are important
Q56) Which of the following standing committees of Parliament has no MP from

Rajya Sabha?
Options:
A) Public Accounts Committee
B) Estimates Committee
1394
C) Committee on Public Undertakings

D) Committee on Government Assurances
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Q57) India is a
Options:
A) Se cular State B) Bilingual State
C) Communist State D) Capitalist State
Q58) The Council of Ministers is responsible to the

Options:
A) President B) Lok Sabha
C) Vice-President D) Rajya Sabha
Q59) The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the

Options:
B) Speaker of the Rajya Sabha
D) Ministry of Law & Justice
Q60) Which of the following are the ideals set forth in the Preamble?
Options:
A) Social, economic and political Justice
B) Equality of status and of opportunity
C) Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
D) All of these
Q61) Of which fundamental right is a foreigner in India deprived of?

Options:
A) To seek justice in court
B) To seek financial security of life
C) To criticize policies of government
D) To vote at the time of Parliamentary election
Q62) The Legislative Council of a State is a

Options:
1395
A) temporary body B) permanent body

C) semi-permanent body D) chamber of the nominated members
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Q63) Which of the following is the federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
Options:
A) There is distribution of Powers in accordance with 2 lists

B) Written and rigid constitution
C) Independent Judiciary
D) All of these
Q64) The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India relates to

Options:
A) Panchayati Raj Institutions
B) Anti-defection Act
C) List of languages recognized by the Constitution
D) Procedure for amendment to the Constitution
Q65) He aring is controlled by

Options:
A) Frontal lobes
B) Occipital lobes
C) Temporal lobes.
D) Parietal lobes
Q66) All the functions of educational measurements are concerned, directly or

indirectly with
Options:
A) Avoidance of conflicts
B) Selection of teachers
C) Facilitation of learning
D) Improvement of administration

Options:
A) B F Skinner began the movement for their use
B) they were designed as an economy measure to replace teachers
1396
C) they are not as efficient as teachers in reinforcing responses

D) they can be used for all learning programmes
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Q68) A culturally disadvantaged child is best served by the school system that
Options:
A) places him/her in a class with other culturally disadvantaged children
B) gives him/her an annual intelligence test
C) trains teachers to understand his/her impoverished home back-ground
D) assesses his/her strengths and needs and provide for an individualized
learning plan
Q69) All of the following tend to erode local control of education in favour of
national control, except The
Options:
A) National Science Foundation
B) National Institute of Mental Health
C) College Entrance Examination Board
D) National Defence Education Act
Q70) A student fails a test for which he did not study. By ascribing his failure to
the fact that the teacher does not like him he is utilizing
Options:
A) conversion
B) sympathism
C) rationalization
D) Compensation
Q71) The project method of teaching is best associated with the philosophy of
Options:
A) John Dewey
B) Max Rafferty
C) Robert Hutchins
D) B F Skinner
Q72) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) is situated at

Options:
A) N. Hyderabad
1397
B) Bangalore
C) Delhi
D) Trombay (Mumbai)
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Q73) Birla Institute of Technology is situated at

Options:
A) Ranchi
B) Jaipur
C) Kota
D) Hardwar
Q74) Central Forensic Science Laboratory is situated in

Options:
A) Chandigarh
B) Patna
C) Patiala
D) Ludhiana
Q75) In which of the following respects is a theory not different from a belief?
Options:
A) Antecedent consequent relationships
B) Acceptability
C) Verifiability
D) Demonstrability
Q76) According to Swami Vivekananda, teachers success depends on
Options:
A) His renunciation of personal gain a service to others
B) His concentration on his work and if with a spirit of obedience to God
C) His professional training and creating
D) His mastery of the subject and task controlling the students
Q77) The Montessori schools insist on

Options:
A) The principle of sense training
B) Creativeness, the main objective c education
C) Complete discipline and supervision
1398
D) Well equipped school buildings

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Q78) It is usually claimed that any subject that is taught in school has a
disciplinary value. This means, that
Options:
A) It requires strict discipline among students to learnt it
B) It teaches certain habits and qualities to train the minds of students
C) Every subject is the outcome of the disciplined thinking and experience of
experts
D) It requires special and discipline d methods of teaching
Q79) According to Alder, the primary cause for stresses and strains in a
individual is
Options:
A) The feeling of inferiority

B) The desire for knowledge of the self
C) The desire for gratification of the sex impulse
D) The curiosity to know the mind of others
Q80) The Pancha Kosh Theory of Education was elaborated by

Options:
A) Swami Vivekananda
B) Patanjali
C) Mahatma Gandhi
D) Aurobindo
Q81) Which one of the following sets of special powers has been conferred on
Rajya Sabha by the Constitution?
Options:
A) To change the existing territory of a state and to change the name of a state
B) To pass a resolution empowering the parliament to make laws i the State List
and creation of one or more All-India services
C) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the
pension of the President after his retirement
D) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the
number of Election Commissioners
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Q82) It is often complained that there is brain drain in our country. The
implication is that
Options:
A) The brains of educated persons are having washed in unnecessary pursuits.

B) Students brains are unnecessarily burdened with every education
C) Education that is imparted is a string to the brains average students
D) Educated and capable people are seeking jobs in other countries because of
unemployment here
Q83) Historically speaking, Thorndike's theory of learning was translated into

class room method following
Options:
A) Froebel an principles of child education.
B) Herbatian steps with only slight modifications.
C) John Lookes approach to childrens state of mind
D) The scientific principles recommended by Rousseau.
Q84) Rousseau who popularized the Naturalistic Philosophy of Education in the

West belonged to
Options:
A) The 17th Century B) The 16th Century
C) The 15th 16th Centuries D) The 18th Century
Q85) A good piece of research is the product of

Options:
A) A good research library
B) Collective scholarship
C) A penetrating and analytical mind
D) A touch of genius
Q86) The horizontal enrichment programme of instruction means

Options:
A) Selecting topics of equal difficulty level and presenting them together.
B) Grouping children of similar abilities for teaching advanced knowledge
1400
C) Teaching topics in relation to other topics to suggest self study by students

D) Enlisting the co-operation of all talented students to study together with a
competitive spirit
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Q87) Appetite and satiety centres of brain an present in

Options:
A) Hypothalamus
B) Cerebral hemisphere
C) Cerebellum
D) Medulla oblongata
Q88) The Indian Education Commission (1964-66) has recommended

compulsory social service for school children as follows
Options:
A) 20 days for the lower secondary stage and 20 days for the higher secondary
stage
B) 10 days for the primary stage and 30 days the secondary stage
C) 30 days for the lower secondary and 20 days for the higher secondary stage
D) 1 0 days for the lower secondary stage and 20 days for the higher secondary
stage
Q89) Who can amend the Constitution?
Options:
A) President B) Parliament
C) Prime Minister D) Union Cabinet
Q90) How many members of the Anglo-Indian community can be nominated to

the Lok Sabha by the President?
Options:
A) 2
B) 5
C) 10
D) 12
Q91) When you put a question in the class to check the knowledge of students,
the best method would be to
Options:
A) Put more than one question at a time to stimulate students

1401
B) Frame the question as lengthy as you can

C) To point to intelligent students first and then put the question
D) To pose the question to the whole class and then select somebody to answer
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Q92) Research is
Options:
A) Data gathering
B) Moving from a broad area to a narrow and focused area
C) A systematic process of finding the truth
D) Data gathering, processing and analysis
Q93) If you were reading a series of articles about the teaching of reading, you
would expect to be reading an article by
Options:
A) Paul McKee
B) Albert Harris
C) Arthur Gates
D) Frank Riesman
Q94) Of the following, the author of a widely used intelligence test is

Options:
A) David Wechsler B) B F Skinner
C) William Cruiksha D) Bruno Bettelheim
Q95) Indian Institute of Science (IISc) is located in

Options:
A) Chennai B) Kolkata
C) Bangalore D) Mumbai
Q96) Indian Institute of Foreign Trade is situated in

Options:
A) Lucknow B) Dehradun
C) New Delhi D) Mumbai
Q97) National Institute of Immunology is situated in

Options:
1402
A) Delhi
B) Hyderabad
C) Goa
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D) Kochi

Q98) A set of test papers from a class of 29 students has been arranged in order
from the highest to the lowest scores. The mark on the fifteenth paper is known
as the
Options:
A) median
B) mean
C) mode
D) norm
Q99) Recreational reading should be

Options:
A) reserved for the school library period
B) assigned as homework
C) a responsibility of the home, not the school
D) an integral part of the language arts curriculum
Q100) When Jeewan receives his failing test mark, he tells the teacher, You
dont like me. This is an example of
Options:
A) identification
B) transference
C) egocentrism
D) projection
Q101) Of the following learning theories, the one that embodies the idea that
Options:
A) Gestalt
B) stimulus-response
C) connectionist
D) pragmatic
Q102) Overlearning tends to strengthen an individuals
Options:
1403
A) powers of retention
B) endurance
C) feeling of boredom
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D) motivation

Q103) How many Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) are there in India?
Options:
A) 16
B) 4
C) 6
D) 3
Q104) How many Indian Institutes o Management (IIM) are there in India?
Options:
A) 13
B) 7
C) 5
D) 8
Q105) The theory of learning associated with connectionism was propounded by

Options:
A) Socrates
B) Pavlov
C) Thorndike
D) Kilpatrick
Q106) Evaluation in education insists on the following:

Options:
A) Making tests more reliable and valid

B) Conducting periodical tests to detect students weaknesses
C) Insisting on clear cut behaviour al objectives of teaching
D) Examining students objectively for selection purpose
Q107) The main purpose of the first degree in our universities should be to
Options:
A) Bring students to frontiers of knowledge and from there should be research
B) Equip students with necessary competencies for different work experiences
C) Prepare students for social service and bring them to the threshold of
knowledge
1404
D) Bring to the frontiers of research with necessary equipment of knowledge

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Q108) The idea of starting girls University in our country started in the year
1970.
Options:
A) As an initiative of the British rulers.

B) Through the efforts of municipalities and local fund communities
C) With the opening of the SNDT university at Bombay
D) With the political awakening in the country by the push given by Mahatma
Gandhi
Q109) A good communicator needs to be good at

Options:
A) Speaking B) Listening
C) The use of language D) The use of humour in speech
Q110) Which controls reflex action?

Options:
A) Sympathetic nervous system
B) Central nervous system
C) Parasympathetic nervous system
D) Sensory nerves
Q111) The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the
consolidated fund of India Because
Options:
A) they may get salaries regularly every month
B) their salaries may be free from legislative vote
C) there may not be any cut in their salaries
D) their financial position may be secure to enable them to dispense impartial
justice
Q112) A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a
period of
Options:
A) Five Years
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B) Seven years
C) Six years or sixty five years of age whichever is more
D) Six years or until he attains the age of sixty five whichever is earlier
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Q113) Adult educations main objective is to

Options:
A) Teach adults to be able to understand what they read
B) Enable the adults to read and write
C) Help adults achieve literacy along it personal development
D) Socialize the adults to move about freely
Q114) The idea of sense training in the Monte: method is based on
Options:
A) The theory of transfer of training
B) The behaviouristic theory of education
C) The stimulus response theory of learning
D) The pragmatic aspects of education theories
Q115) Which of the following skills/qualities is most important for a researcher?

Options:
A) Desire to discover the truth B) Communication skills
C) Ability to gather data D) Ability to work hard
Q116) The term Manpower Needs in any country requires the

Options:
A) People should be educated in accordance with specified jobs requirements
B) Enrolments in educational institutions should be decided according
C) Capacities of men should be fully utilized for education and training
D) Education at all stages should be geared to promote the powers of the
educates
Q117) Spinal nerves are usually
Options:
A) Mixed B) Efferent
C) Afferent D) Sensory
Q118) A mixed cranial nerve is

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Options:
A) Facial B) Abducens
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C) Auditory D) Oculomotor

Q119) Man is superior to other animals mainly due to

Options:
A) Large brain B) Free forelimbs
C) Erect posture D) Front eyes
Q120) Vocationalisation of education has the object of

Options:
A) Preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge
B) Giving more importance to vocation than general education
C) Converting liberal education into vocational education
D) Creating an educational bias among vocational people
Q121) The quorum of the Parliament is fixed at

Options:
A) one-tenth of the membership of the House
B) one-third of the membership of the House
C) one-half of the membership of the House
D) four-fifths of the membership of the House
Q122) The Directive Principles

Options:
A) aim at establishing welfare state of Gandhian conception
B) aim at giving ideals to be incorporated at a later stage
C) aim at giving support to the , Fundamental Rights
D) A and B only
Q123) In India the executive is responsible directly to the

Options:
A) Legislature B) President
C) Judiciary D) Lok Sabha
Q124) The Rajya Sabha is

Options:
1407
A) dissolved once in two years B) dissolved after every five years

C) adjourned every six months D) not subject to dissolution
Page

Q125) Ministers in the Union Cabinet are appointed by the

Options:
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister
D) None of these
Q126) The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister is responsible to
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) President
C) Parliament D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q127) What is the literal meaning of secularism?

Options:
A) Freedom to worship any God B) Death of religion
C) Separation of religion from the state D) All of these
Q128) The real powers in the Central Government are enjoyed, according to the
Constitution of India by the
Options:
A) President of India B) Vice-President of India
C) Prime Minister of India D) Chief Ministers
Q129) The abbreviation SUPW means

Options:
A) Social Upsurge for Progress and Work
B) Scientific Utilization for People and World
C) Socially Useful and Productive Work
D) Solution of Utilitarian Problems of Work
Options:
1408
A) Telephoning students parents and waiting for the

B) Rushing to the principals office and canvassing for help impatiently
Page
D) Making arrangement to send him to his home

Q131) Effective teaching means

Options:
A) Love, cooperation, sympathy, affection and encouragement give to students
B) Corporal punishment given to students at the time of moral of-fences
C) Individualized instruction and open classroom discussion
D) Both A and C
Q132) School children are often victims of infection caused by
Options:
A) Mal-nutrition caused by undigested food particles
B) Invasion of the body by the plant and animal organisms
C) Carelessness of teachers in providing activities
D) Lack of proper exercises and drills
Q133) One can be a good teacher, if he

Options:
A) Has genuine interest in teaching B) knows his subjects
C) knows how to control students D) Has good expression
Q134) Drop outs are more likely to be

Options:
A) Vulnerable to the requirement of public assistance
B) Unemployed
C) Engaged in antisocial behaviour
D) All of these
Q135) Genu and splenium are associated with

Options:
A) Medulla oblongatas B) Cerebrum

C) Cerebellum D) Vermis
Q136) Parkins on's disease is of

Options:
1409
A) Heart B) kidneys
C) Brain D) Lungs
Page

Q137) The professional requirements of a teacher as explaine d in the UNESCO

publication is/ are
Options:
A) I nnovativeness in approach and teaching strategies

B) Mastery over the subject and competency for teaching
C) Justice to the profession
D) All of the above
Q138) During depolarization, permeability of neuron increases towards

Options:
A) N+
B) Na+
C) Ag+
D) Mg++

Options:
A) Give important questions before examination
B) Dictate notes in the class
C) Can clear their difficulties regarding subject-matter
D) Are themselves disciplined
Q140) Students learn more from a teacher who is

Options:
A) One who communicates his ideas precisely and clearly?
B) Affectionate
C) Gently
D) Hard working
Q141) The most important skill of teaching is

Options:
A) making students understand what the teacher says
B) keeping students relaxed while teaching
C) Covering the course prescribed in his subject
1410
D) Taking classes regularly

Page

Q142) A technical educational cess was recommended to be levied in our

country the first time by
Options:
A) The Secondary Education Commission

B) The International Education Commission
C) The University Education Commission
D) The Technical Education Commission
Q143) The best way to react to wrong answer by a student is

Options:
A) To scold him for not having learnt lesson
B) To explain why the answer is wrong
C) To ignore the wrong answer and pass on to the next question
D) To ask another student to give the corn answer
Q144) The trial and error method of learning according to Thorndike could be
classified as under
Options:
A) The principle of multiple responses B) The law of exercise
C) The principle of partial activity D) The principle of Associative learning

Options:
A) Freedom to be given to education from the clutches of religion
B) Favouring liberal education as opposed to special education
Q146) The term Evaluation and Assessment could be discriminated as follows:
Options:
A) Assessment is limited to coverage achievement whereas evaluation is
qualitative in character
B) Evaluation is concerned with the effective aspects of achievement whereas
assessment judges the cognitive aspects
C) Evaluation involves the measurement as well as diagnosis of students
1411
attainments, whereas assessment is concerned with only scholars-tic

attainments.
D) Assessment is an attempt to measure the pupil as whole whereas evaluation
Page
is concerned with his achievement only

Q147) Naturalism in education means

Options:
A) I ntroduction of physical sciences in education
B) Giving more importance to mind than to matter
C) Making discrimination between mind and consciousness
D) Supporting both mind and consciousness equally
Q148) In a class of ten pupils the grades in a spelling test were 97 97 97 9

9 8 76 73 6 60 The mode of those scores is
Options:
A) 92
B) 97
C) 97 minus 60 divided by
D) the sum of the scores divided by 10
Q149) Of the following intelligence tests, the one which is individually

administered is the
Options:
A) WISC
B) Pintner-Cunningham Primary
C) Army Alpha
D) Kuhlman-Anderson
except that
Options:
A) pupils of the same mental age should learn at the same rate
B) group instruction facilitates the learning process
C) learning individual instruction is often required
D) workbooks can be an invaluable learning aid
Q151) The pair of terms incorrectly associated is

Options:
A) IQ-relationship between MA and CA

1412
B) validity-measure of consistency in testing

C) inkblot-projective testing
D) median-the middle score
Page

Q152) School is life, not a preparation for life. This statement summarizes one
important aspect of educational philosophy of
Options:
A) John Dewey
B) Robert Hutchins
C) Mortimer Adler
D) SI Hayakawa
Q153) Of the following, the educator who is not an advocate of radical

educational reform
Options:
A) Postman
B) Illich
C) Bestor
D) Kozol
Q154) All of the following are correct paired except

Options:
A) Froebel -progressivism
B) Dewey pragmatism
C) SkinnerGestalt
D) Herbartapperception
Q155) The most powerful Upper Chamber in the world is

Options:
A) American Senate
B) British House of Lords
C) Rajya Sabha of the Indian Republic
Q156) The President of India is

Options:
A) The head of the State
B) The head of the Government
1413
C) The head of the State as well as Government

D) All of these
Page

Q157) As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the
order of precedence?
Options:
A) Deputy Prime Minister

B) Former President
C) Governor of a State within his State
D) Speaker of Lok Shaba
Q158) A bill becomes a law when

Options:
A) Both Houses of Parliament approve it by requisite majority
B) The Council of Ministers approves it
C) The President gives his assent
D) The Supreme Court upholds its constitutional validity
Q159) Mains treaming is a term associated with

Options:
A) career education B) education for the handicapped
C) interage class groupings D) environmental education
Q160) Most students in medieval universities learned by

Options:
A) laboratory experimentation B) reading the Bible
C) listening to lectures D) studying in libraries
Q161) All of the following are advantages of teaching machines except

Options:
A) the control of cheating
B) the tracking of errors
C) the ins urance of attention
D) their universal use for different kinds of programmes
Q162) Holding of elections for the village Panchayat is decided by

1414
Options:
A) The Collector B) The Election Commission
Page
C) The Central Government D) The State Government

Q163) The industrial revolution that started in the West to begin with had the
following effect on education
Options:
A) Shifting the emphasis from the lower class culture to the middle class culture
B) Shifting the centre of gravity from the middle to the lower class culture
C) Introduction of mass educational programmes
D) In production of vocationalisation of education

Options:
Q165) Industries near the towns cause

Options:
A) Pollution
B) Finished material
C) Security
D) Employment
then, knowledge is accumulated on the basis of that rule?
Options:
A) Deductive lesson
B) Inductive lesson
C) Developing lesson
D) knowledge lesson
Q167) In the project education technique, the work load on the teacher is
Options:
A) very high
B) comparatively low
1415
C) low
D) nil
Page

Q168) Why do you not support the five-stage method of Herbart?

Options:
A) I n this, there is no scope for the individual diversity of students
B) Under this, it is difficult to make coordination between various subjects
C) Under this, generalization is not required to be done while teaching subjects
D) all of these
Q169) Who is known as the father of educational psychology?

Options:
A) Pestology
B) Devy
C) Herbart
D) Spencer
Q170) The educational system of today promotes educated unemployment.

The reason is that
Options:
A) education gives theoretical knowledge only

B) professional education is not a part of education
C) the objective of education is not vivid
D) all of these
Q171) In the school, education on environment can be imparted by

Options:
A) lectures
B) articles
C) sports
D) adopting it ourselves
Q172) Indian Institute of Advanced studies is located in

Options:
A) Shimla
B) Solan
1416
C) Dharmshala
D) Chandigarh
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Q173) Air Force Administrative College is situated in

Options:
A) Hyderabad
B) Coimbatore
C) Bidar
D) Agra
Q174) Indian School of Mines is situated at

Options:
A) Patna (Bihar)
B) Dhanbad (Jharkhand)
C) Kolkata (W. Bengal)
D) Guwahati (Assam)
Q175) What is the full form of MCA?

Options:
A) Ministry of Commerce & Agriculture

B) Master of Computer Application
C) Member Chartered Accountant
D) Master of Commerce & Arts
Q176) Immediate feedback is an essential characteristic of

Options:
A) team teaching
B) teaching machines
C) the Dalton Plan
D) the project method
Q177) Of the following objectives of an elementary music programme, the one of

lowest priority is
Options:
A) to expose children to a variety of musical compositions

B) to prepare children for wise use of leisure time
C) to develop a group of performers for the holiday assemblies
1417
D) to provide children with emotional outlets

Page

Q178) With regard to readiness to read, all of these statements are true except
that
Options:
A) some psychologists believe that a child is not ready to begin reading until he/
she has achieved a mental age of about six years
B) a strong desire to read is a determining factor
C) a reading readiness programme may begin for some children in kindergarten
D) physical maturation is a crucial factor
Q179) It is absurd to say that there can be

Options:
A) A pollution due to noise
B) Education causes pollution
C) Transport vehicles cause pollution
D) All of the above
Q180) Which of the following will not hamper effective communication in the
class?
Options:
A) An ambiguous statement
B) A lengthy statement
C) A precise statement
D) A statement which allows the listener to draw his own conclusions
Q181) If a student is constantly rubbing his eyes and is inattentive during

Options:
A) Adjustment problem
B) Hearing problem
C) Visual problem
D) All of the above
Q182) Play therapy is adopted in the study of children in order to
Options:
1418
A) Make the educational process joyful

B) To understand the inner motives and complexes of children
C) Make education more activity centred
Page
D) Highlight the importance of play activities in education

Q183) The most powerful barrier of communication in the classroom is

Options:
A) Noise in the classroom

B) Confusion on the part of the teacher
C) Lack of teaching aids
D) More outside disturbance in the class room
Q184) It is said that there is an urgent need of articulation among schools and
colleges, this problem of articulation is concerned with
Options:
A) Provision of better administrative facilities
B) Appointment of talented teachers
C) Communication and closer relationship among teachers
D) Better facilities for in-service training of teachers
Q185) The most important challenge before a teacher is

Options:
A) To maintain discipline in the classroom

B) To make students do their home work
C) To prepare question paper
D) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable
Q186) The idea that Basic Education is education through crafts

Options:
A) True as far as the rural areas are concerned
B) The whole truth of the schemes
C) The complete truth even for urban areas
D) True to some extent only because the concept is deeper
Q187) The joint sittings of the Union Parliament may be summoned for
Options:
A) Special address of the President
B) Annual address of the President
1419
C) Presidents occasional messages of national significance

D) Resolution of the dead lock between the two Houses on a non-money bill
Page

Q188) Who appoints the comptroller an Auditor-General of India?

Options:
A) The U.P.S.C.
B) The President
C) The Prime Minister
D) The Parliament
Q189) A frequency distribution is best defined as the
Options:
A) number of scores above the median score
B) number of pupils scoring above the median score
C) number of test items attend correctly by a majority of the class
D) number of pupils who received each score on a test
Q190) With regard to standardized testing, which of the following statements is

correct?
Options:
A) the testing of intelligence began in Germany
B) the We chsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) is a group test
C) the Rorschach test uses inkblots
D) the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is easy to interpret

because
Options:
A) parents prefer it
B) pupils prefer it
D) it is the best environment for learning
Q192) The Lok Sabha secretariat comes under the control of

Options:
A) Ministry of Home Affairs
1420
C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

D) Prime Minister
Page

Q193) Who examines the of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India after it
is laid before Parliament?
Options:
A) Lok Sabha Speaker

C) Public Accounts Committee
Q194) Of great importance in determining the amount of transference that

occurs in learning is the
Options:
A) IQ of the learner
B) Knowledge of the teacher
C) use of appropriate materials
D) presence of identical elements
Q195) Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction
over Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Options:
A) Andhra Prades h
B) Calcutta
C) Madras
D) Orissa
Q196) In case of absence of President and Vice-President, which of the following

acts as the president of country
Options:
A) Prime Minister
B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Leader of opposition
Q197) Which of the following subjects does not belong to the Union List?
Options:
1421
A) Atomic Energy
B) War and Peace
C) Post office Savings Bank
Page
D) Public Health and Sanitation

Q198) President can be removed on charges o violating the Constitution by

Options:
A) No-confidence motion B) Impeachment
C) Electoral College of Legislative Assemblies D) Prime Minister
Q199) The term prejudice in a person is colored by

Options:
A) A hasty judgment about a situation with an unfavourable
B) Judgment and assessment of a situation without any favouritism
C) Partial observation and acquaintance of a situation without any motives
D) Pre-judgment of a situation with a view to settle a conflict in haste
Q200) Suppose you are teaching in a minority college where castism and arrow
mindedness victimize you, for better adjustment there you should
Options:
A) Uplift the humanistic values beyond these narrow walls and develop scientific
temper in your students
B) Rebel against such attitudes as it is against the norms of the India society
C) Be submissive there and save your job at all costs
Q201) Suppose you want to teach your students to develop factual knowledge of
a subject. Which of the following methods would be suitable in your opinion?
Options:
A) The demonstration method B) The lecturer method
C) The heuristic method D) The source method
Q202) Judicial Review is the power of the higher court to declare

unconstitutional any
I) Law passed by legislature
II) Judgment of the lower court
III) Order of the exe cutive Choose the from the following choices
Options:
A) I and II only
1422
B) III only
C) I and III only
D) I, II and III
Page

Q203) How many types of emergency can be declared by the President of India?
Options:
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q204) The retirement age of a Supreme Court Judge is
Options:
A) 55 years
B) 58 years
C) 62 years
D) 65 years
Q205) The Prime Minister is

Options:
A) nominated by the President
B) elected by the Chief Ministers of States
C) is the leader of the majority party of Lok Sabha
D) is the leader of the majority party of Rajya Sabha
Q206) Why are the Fundamental Rights considered fundamental?

Options:
A) Necessary for the successful working of democratic institution

B) Basic to the welfare, dignity and happiness of the individual
C) Constitution is based on these
D) Only I and II
Q207) The Presidents Rule is imposed in a State orid a Union Territory when
the
Options:
A) Governor of a State or the Chief Commissioner or Governor advises the
President to do so because the Government in that State/Territory cannot be
carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
1423
B) Chief Minister of a State requests to this effect

C) Chief Justice of the State High Court recommends through the Governor
D) Prime Minister knows best
Page

Q208) Agriculture, including research and education, falls in

Options:
A) State List
B) Union List
C) Concurrent List
Q209) Fundamental Rights of the citizens are

Options:
A) non-justifiable
B) justifiable
C) justifiable if the highest court feels it should be
D) Some rights are justifiable
Q210) Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens are contained in .......... Of the
I ndian Constitution
Options:
A) part I
B) part II
C) part III
D) part IV
Q211) Free dom of the Press as such

Options:
A) has been guaranteed by the Constitution
B) has not been expressly guaranteed by the Constitution
C) both (a) and (b)
Q212) Administrative Law means

Options:
A) law passed by the Union
B) law or rules made by the executive
1424
C) laws relating to administration of non-Governmental institutions

D) all the above
Page

Q213) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha sit jointly when
Options:
A) they like
B) there is a disagreement between the two (Houses)
C) the President summons both the Houses
D) they must meet when two years have lapsed after the last meeting
Q214) Who administers the Union Territories?

Options:
A) The President through the Administrators appointed by him
B) The Prime Minister of India
C) The Law Minister, Government of India
D) The Attorney-General of India
Q215) Directive Principles of State Policy aim at

Options:
A) ensuring individual liberty
B) ensuring and strengthening the countrys independence
C) protecting the depressed classes
D) providing social and economic base for genuine democracy in the country
Q216) Usually a Gram Panchayat is not responsible for
Options:
A) construction of village roads and tanks
B) sanitation, maternity and child welfare
C) financing of agriculturists
D) agricultural production
Q217) What does the Panchayati Raj System signify?

Options:
A) single-tier structure of local Government
B) Double-tier system of self Government
C) Three-tier structure of local Govt. at the village, block and district level
1425
D) None of these
Page

Q218) The Chairman and the members of State Public Service Commission are
appointed by the
Options:
A) President
B) Governor
C) Chairman of UPSC
D) Prime Minister
Q219) The function of the Panchayat Samiti is to

Options:
A) Deal with rural industrialization
B) Deal with administration of justice at the Panchayat level
C) Implement community development project schemes
D) Deal with financial matters of the Panchayat
Q220) Of the doctrine of immanence it can be said truthfully that it

Options:
A) Pictures the world as an unfriendly place
B) Implies that knowledge of the good is in the world about us
C) distrusts the senses and unaided reason
D) Supports Platos theory of reality
Q221) The sociologist feels that, if men expect to put an end to prejudice and
race conflict, they will have to give major attention to
Options:
A) Legislating human rights for minorities
B) Putting into effect the melting pot theory
C) Re-establishing ethnocentrism
D) Remedying social abuses and reducing conflict
Q222) Boarding schools are considered to be better than the day schools
because
Options:
A) They help children in their social development

1426
B) They are helpful in freeing parents from their responsibilities

C) They save the trouble for children to walk to school from homes
D) They are meant for homeless and parentless children
Page

Q223) Which one of the following is an ODD statement?

Options:
A) Majority of teachers use lectures method
B) knowledge is static
C) Most of the classrooms are poorly equipped
D) One way interaction prevails in the classrooms
Q224) Which has the greatest potential for education through audio-visual
means?
Options:
A) SI TE programmes B) Teaching machine
C) The language laboratory D) The Computer
Q225) Teaching in higher education implies

Options:
A) Asking questions in the class and conducting examinations
B) Presenting the information given in the text book
C) Helping students to prepare for and pass the examination
D) Helping students how to learn

Options:
Q227) The approach to the concept of learning was different for Dewey and
White Head in the following sense:
Options:
A) Deweys approach was logical whereas White Heads approach was
philosophical
B) Dewey thought of learning in pragmatic terms whereas White Head thought
in terms of cultural aspects
1427
C) Dewey thought of learning as an end in it where as White Head thought

about it as a means
D) Dewey thought of learning in experimental terms while white Head thought of
Page
it in more esthetic terms.

Q228) Effective teaching, by and large is a function of

Options:
A) Teachers honesty
B) Teachers scholarship
C) Teachers making students learn and understand
D) Teacher likes for the job of teaching
Q229) Cultural pluralism is based on the concept that
Options:
A) America is the Melting Pot for various foreign stocks
B) The American culture for all
C) It is incompatible with democracy
D) Our culture is variegated and dynamic, each group of immigrants
contributing towards its enrichment
Q230) To say that the adolescents are rebellions in nature, will be regarded by
experts as
Options:
A) A mis conception
B) A necessary character at that stage
C) And objective description of facts
D) An effect of the environment
Q231) The competency of a teacher can be judged on the basis

Options:
A) Length of service
B) Publication of books
C) Meeting needs of students
D) Personality of teacher
Q232) A teacher who believes in the realistic philosophy of education would

Options:
A) Support strict control and supervision to make children understand human
race and culture
1428
B) Not allow control and pressure on students to learn what they want to learn
C) Oppose supervision and interference of the teacher with the interests of
students.
Page
D) Allow full freedom to students in learning, following a non-interference policy.


Options:
A) Freedom to be given to education from the clutches of religion

B) Favouring liberal education as opposed to special education
Q234) My reaction to the statement: A good teacher is essentially a good

researcher is that this is
Options:
A) My firm belief
B) Something find difficult to agree to
C) Something which I accept only as an opinion
D) Only a hypothesis
Q235) The development of feelings of appreciation and interests come under the
category of
Options:
A) Cognitive development of personality
B) Cognitive developmental aspects
C) Psycho-motor development of emotions
D) Affective aspects of development
Q236) The state of the psyche designated as super ego by the Psycho analysts, if
found
Options:
A) I n higher animal also B) Among human beings alone
C) Among men practicing yogic exercises D) Among men and animals as well
Q237) As an idealist, which of the following maxim would you think to correct
about the problem of discipline?
Options:
A) The child should be trained to practice restraint with only limited freedom
1429
B) Discipline should be imposed from outsiders and teachers with full control
C) The child should be allowed full-freedom without any restraint
D) The child is subjected to fear and control to train him to desist from doing
Page
wrong

Q238) Fundamental duties of citizens were provided

Options:
A) Education department B) By the school principle
C) h. r. D. Ministry D) In the Constitution of India
Q239) Afferent nerve Fibres carry impulses from
Options:
A) Effectors organs to CNS B) CN S to receptor
C) Receptors to CNS D) CNS to muscles
Q240) Education cultivates faculties which are

Options:
A) Moral B) Aesthetic
C) Intellectual D) All of these
Q241) Object of education according to Durkheim is

Options:
A) Cultivate physical activities B) Awaken the child to learn

C) Games and competition D) All of the above
Q242) Which of the following statement is in correct?

Options:
A) U.S.A., in the year 1937, the Federal Government felt the necessity of
population education in order to check the decline of population and to increase
the same. But gradually that country felt the need of such education in order to
check the high growth of population. Thus the term population education is
applied either to increase or to de-crease the rate of growth of population as per
the need of situation of a nation of the world.
B) Population Education, which is one of the recent topics that we have
introduced in our syllabus, was first used in Sweden in 1935, when the
population education commission of the country to generate public awareness
about the increase of the rate of growth
C) The purpose of population education is to develop awareness and
understanding of the relations between population growth and national
development both in short and long run and to develop and understanding of
the consequences of individual decisions in the important area of reproductive
1430
behaviour . A population awareness programme, there-fore, should be provided

the facts of population dynamic, of family life, of human reproduction that
children will need.
Page
D) None of these

Q243) Nerve transmission is

Options:
A) Mechanical process
B) Chemical process
C) Biological process
D) Physical process
Q244) In the Rajya Sabha, the States have been provided
Options:
A) Equal representation
B) Representation on the basis of population
C) Representation on the basis of population and size
D) Representation on the basis of size
Q245) The Controller and Auditor-General of India acts as the chief accountant
and auditor for the
Options:
A) Union Government
B) State Governments
C) Union and State Governments
D) Neither Union nor State Governments
Q246) Education is a subject in the

Options:
A) Union list
B) State list
C) Concurrent list
D) None of the lists
Q247) In which of the following states was the Panchayati Raj first introduced?
Options:
A) Rajasthan
B) Gujarat
C) Uttar Pradesh
1431
D) Bihar
Page

Q248) Which Writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an
authority to perform a function that it was not performing?
Options:
A) Writ of certiorari
B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
C) Writ of Mandamus
D) Writ of Quo Warrant
Q249) A ganglion connected with spinal reflex is present in

Options:
A) White matter around grey matter of spinal cord
B) Dorsal root of a spinal nerve
C) Ventral horn of grey matter
D) Ventral root of a spinal nerve
Q250) The student centred plan is most favourable in the matter of

Options:
A) Articulation B) Balance
C) Continuity D) All of the above
Q251) The term Co-curricular activities is a popular one for all educational
institutions. Which of the following would you regard as a co-curricular activity?
Options:
A) Debating competitions
B) Collection of funds for school building
C) Foot-ball matches
D) Tournaments
Q252) If a curriculum maker follows the subjective theory of values in

education, he will
Options:
A) Not insist on the inclusive of any subject in the curriculum if pupils or
parents are not interested in it
B) Disregard the interests of children the parents for the inclusive of any subject
1432
in the curriculum
C) Implement the study of subject for its inherent values to fulfil the needs of
students
Page
D) Care more for the content aspects than for the methodological

Q253) Twelve pairs of ribs and twelve pairs of nerves occurs in

Options:
A) Fish
B) Snake
C) Frog
D) Man
Q254) The interaction between teachers and students or between buyers and
sellers is classified by the sociologists as a social inter action of
Options:
A) The secondary type
B) The multiple types
C) The primary type
D) The responsive type One undertakes research
Q255) One undertakes research

Options:
A) To verify what has already been established

B) To describe and explain a new phenomenon
C) To refute what has already bee n accepted as a fact
D) To do one or the other of the above
Q256) Who realized the urgent need for the reform of rigid, lifeless, meaningless
curriculum
Options:
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Jawahar Lai N ehru
C) Subhash Chandra Bose
D) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Q257) An effective teacher adopts the norms of the:

Options:
A) Autocratic society
1433
B) Laissez-faire society
C) Democratic society
D) All of the above
Page

Q258) The most desirable outcome of higher education is:

Options:
A) Acquisition of higher order thinking skills
B) Training of individual
C) Acquisition of knowledge
D) Increase in academic achievement
Q259) The tool that describes the degrees of dimensions being observed
Options:
A) Opinionnaire B) Rating scale
C) Inventory D) Questionnaire
Q260) The educationist who stressed the social of education.

Options:
A) Froebel B) John Dewey
C) Prof. Bagley D) Herbart
Q261) Intrinsic motivation means:

Options:
A) Desire to perform activities because they are rewarding
B) To take lead to achieve goals
C) Desire that arises within the organism
D) All of the above
Q262) Which one of the following is not considered as a Regional College of

Education?
Options:
A) Mumbai B) Mysore
C) Ajmer D) Bhopal
Q263) If majority of students in your class are weak you should:

Options:
1434
A) Not care about the intelligent students

B) keep your teaching slow
C) keep your speed of teaching fast
Page
D) keep your teaching slow along with some extra guidance

Q264) Lifelong learning' has developed because of:

Options:
A) Shortage of educational institutions

B) Requirement of educated people
C) Dynamics of knowledge explosion
D) Urge to learn more and more
Q265) While dealing with juvenile delinquents a teacher should:

Options:
A) Talk with them frankly and guide and channelize their potentialities in
constructive ways
B) Complain to the principal against them
C) Play them with filthy jokes
Q266) According to 'Herbert Spencer', education is:

Options:
A) Harmonious development
B) Complete living aim
C) Morality
D) Drawing out of best
Q267) Use of telecast materials:

Options:
A) Reduces the burden of the teacher
B) Increases retention power
C) Enhances concentration and learning
D) All of the above
Q268) Stephen M.Corey is associated with:

Options:
A) None of the above
B) Scientific research
1435
C) Action research
D) Applied research
Page

Q269) Classroom discipline can be maintained effectively by:

Options:
A) Providing a programme which is according to the need and interest of the
pupils
B) By putting on fancy clothes in the classroom
C) knowing the cause of indiscipline and handling it with stern hand
Q270) Perception, Retention and recall are:

Options:
A) Task variables
B) Receiver variables
C) Source variables
D) Message variables
Q271) A newcomer teacher who is maltreated in his class will deal with the
students by:
Options:
A) Changing his class after consultation with the principal

B) Improving his qualities and expressing it before them in a good way
C) Punishing them
D) Giving them a threat of expulsion
Q272) National Institute of Education is situated at:

Options:
A) Kolkata
B) Madras
C) Delhi
D) Mumbai
Q273) Which of the following is true about our modern evaluation system in
university education?
Options:
A) It doesn't encourage the habit of regular study

1436
B) It doesn't encourage students to attend their classes regularly

C) it asses the acquisition of knowledge by cramming
D) All of the above
Page

Q274) The psychological aspects of the classroom is best managed by:

Options:
A) Counsellor
B) Peers
C) Class teacher
D) Principal
Q275) Basic education is also known as:

Options:
A) New education policy
B) Wardha education plan
C) Essential education
D) Universal education
Q276) Values are:

Options:
A) I ntrinsic
B) Ultimate
C) Extrinsic
D) All of the above
Options:
A) Frequently organize tours
B) Dictates notes while teaching
C) Personally help them in their studies
D) Maintain good social relations
Q278) The statement 'value is that which satisfies human desire' is by:
Options:
A) Allport
B) I..S Mill
C) B. Russell
1437
D) W.H Urban
Page

Q279) A student tries to solve a problem without any help from a teacher. The
teacher should:
Options:
A) Pay no attention to her/him

B) Scold him/her for foolishness
C) Offer help to solve his problem
D) Appraise his/her individual effort
Q280) Informal education means:

Options:
A) Natural B) In artificial
C) Artificial D) Artless
Q281) One can be a good teacher if she/he:

Options:
A) knows how to control students
B) knows his/her subject
C) Has genuine interest in teaching
D) Has good expression
Q282) The largest producers of highly educated man power.

Options:
A) NIEPA B) NAAC
C) NCERT D) UGC
Q283) There will be better communication in a lecture if a teacher:

Options:
A) Prepares the notes well in advance and use them as a guide
B) Talks e xtempore
C) Reads from prepared notes
D) Talks extempore drawing examples from other disciplines
Q284) Which one of the following is not a professional education?

1438
Options:
A) Nursing B) Teacher education
Page
C) Medicine D) None of the above

Q285) Effective teaching, is function of:

Options:
A) Teacher's honesty
B) Teachers making students learn and understand
C) Maintaining discipline in the class
D) Teachers liking for the job of teaching
Q286) Indian Institute of Advanced study is situated at:

Options:
A) Hyderabad
B) Simla
C) Madras
D) Bangalore
Q287) Which of the following teaching method is more effective?

Options:
A) Deductive method
B) Discussion method
C) Lecture method
D) Textbox method
Q288) UGC was established on:
Options:
A) 1958
B) 1949
C) 1953
D) 1935
Q289) One will have more chances of being successful as a teacher, if

Options:
A) He is traine d in teaching
B) He is competent enough in his subject
C) He belongs to the family of teachers
1439
D) He can organize his teaching material systematically and conveys the same
effectively
Page

Q290) Which is true in higher education?

Options:
A) Right pupils receive right education B) All cannot learn
C) All can learn, but all do not learn D) All can learn, so all learn
Q291) Which of the following is most important for a teacher?

Options:
A) School B) Students
C) Discipline D) Teaching
Q292) An effective teacher:

Options:
A) Is a strict disciplinarian B) Is a continuous learner
C) Is the master of the subject D) Uses many teaching aids
Q293) If a principal of your college, charge you with the act of negligence of
duties, how would you behave with him?
Options:
A) You would neglect him
B) You would take a tough stand against the charges
C) You would take revenge by giving physical and mental agony to him
D) You would keep yourself alert in discharging your duties
Q294) Which one of the following is not a Central University?

Options:
A) Madras University
B) Viswa Bharathi Shanthiniketha
C) Aligarh Muslim University
D) Banaras Hindu University
Q295) Why will you ask questions from students during the course of a lecture?
Options:
1440
A) To learn which one of the students is the brightest one

B) To learn whether students are understanding the lecture or not
C) Are the students carefully listening to your lecture
Page
D) To assist the students

Q296) The learning theory 'progressivism' is associated with:

Options:
A) Montessori
B) Rousseau
C) Dewey
D) Froebel
Q297) Education is a subject in the:

Options:
A) State list
B) Union list
C) Concurrent list
Q298) The teacher's major contribution towards the maximum development of

the child is through:
Options:
A) Provides a variety of learning experiences

B) Teaching the prescribed curriculum
C) Explaining everything
Q299) Micro teaching is for:

Options:
A) Developing skills of learning
B) Developing teaching skills
C) Developing proficiency in subjects
D) All the above
Q300) The first important step in teaching is:

Options:
A) knowing the background of students
B) Planning beforehand
1441
C) Organizing materials to be taught

D) None of these
Page

Q301) Discussion in the class will be more effective if the topic of discussion is:
Options:
A) I nformed to the students well in advance
B) Written on the board without introducing it
C) Not introduced
D) Stated just before the start of discussion
Q302) The innovative system for major education to learn while learn is:
Options:
A) Non-formal education
B) Open Universities
C) Informal education
D) Navodaya Vidyalayas
Q303) Which of the years, IGNOU was set up?

Options:
A) 1986 B) 1958
C) 1953 D) 1985
Q304) Which commission has recommended the formulation of UGC in India?

Options:
A) National Planning Commission
B) University Education Commission
C) kothari Commission
Q305) The main function of UGC:

Options:
A) Management B) Finance
C) Research D) All the above
Q306) A university teacher should normally concentrate on:

Options:
1442
A) Research B) Guidance
C) Teaching D) All the above
Page

Q307) Who contributed mainly for the establishment of the university at

Pondicherry?
Options:
A) R.N.Tagore
B) j. l. Nehru
C) Sri Aurobindo
D) Vivekananda.
Q308) Who founded the 'Asiatic Society of Bengal'?

Options:
A) David Hare
B) William Jones
C) William Carey
D) Raja Ram Mohan Ray
Q309) This is what he should do'. Is a sentence known as:

Options:
A) Atidesa
B) Upadesa
C) Both
D) Neither
Q310) Internship is must for teacher education, because it provides:

Options:
A) Complete School Environment
B) Content Courses
C) Practical Courses
D) Result Preparation.
Q311) Who said for nearly half a century, the examination has been recognized
as one of the worst features of Indian Education.
Options:
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

1443
B) Dr. Radha Krishna

C) Dr. Laxman swamy Mudaliar
D) Dr. tara chand
Page

Q312) When was National Policy on education formulated?

Options:
A) Aug, 1986
B) Jan, 1986
C) March, 1988
D) Oct, 1988.
Q313) Who gave the slogan 'Each one teach one'?

Options:
A) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Dr. Khurana
D) Maulana Azad.
Q314) The wandering teachers during the Vedic age were called?
Options:
A) Gurus
B) Atmans
C) Charakas
D) Brahmana
Q315) The Name of great ancient Nalanda University library was?
Options:
A) Buddha
B) Langha
C) Dharmganj
D) Dharmartha.
Q316) Macaulay wrote his famous minute on educational policy on?

Options:
A) 16th February
B) 8th February
C) 1st February
1444
D) 2nd February
Page

Q317) Vidhayak se ntences can be classified as:

Options:
A) Upadesaka
B) Atidesa
C) Both
D) Neither
Q318) In which year a committee of Public instruction was set up?

Options:
A) 1821 a. d.
B) 1822 a. d.
C) 1823 a. d.
D) 1824 a. d.
Q319) Which of the following is not an advisory board of education?

Options:
A) CABE
B) HRD
C) UGC
D) NCERT.
Q320) Who govern the academic policies of the collages of education?
Options:
A) UGC
B) NEPA
C) NCTE
D) NCERT
Q321) Higher education was given during Vedic Period in:

Options:
A) Gurukuls
B) Charan
C) Shakhas
1445
D) All above
Page

Q322) Which University was not established during 1854-1858:

Options:
A) Calcutta University
B) Madras University
C) Punjab University
D) Bombay
Q323) University Areas of autonomy are:

Options:
A) Selection of students
B) Planning for academic work
C) Progress and Promotion of teachers
D) All above
Q324) Cause of falling universities standard are:

Options:
A) Lack of Facilities
B) Traditional methods of teaching
C) Lack of Library
D) All above.
Q325) Evaluation of the teacher-trainee should be in the field of:
Options:
A) Education Theory
B) Community Work
C) Methodology
D) All above
Q326) For the revival of Vedic learning, who raised the Slogan of 'Back to the
Vedas '?
Options:
A) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
B) Swami Vivekanand
1446
C) Rabindra Nath Tagore

D) Keshav Chandra Sen
Page

Q327) How many articles are there in National Policy on Education 1986?
Options:
A) 150
B) 157
C) 160
D) 158
Q328) During Vedic Age pupil were called?

Options:
A) Brahmana
B) Brahmachari
C) Charka
D) None of these.
Q329) The 'Upanayana' of given was closed in?

Options:
A) 500 AD
B) 600 AD
C) 700 AD
D) 800 AD
Q330) Who raised the slogan 'Each one teach one'?
Options:
A) j. l Nehru
B) Mahatma Gandhi.
C) Maulana Azad.
D) None of these.
Q331) At the time of independence, there were how many universities?

Options:
A) Ten
B) Fifteen
C) Eighteen
1447
D) Twenty.
Page

Q332) The future of education in India depends on:

Options:
A) Society
B) Government
C) Family
D) Economy
Q333) Which thinker have Not accepted that the state has an ethical purpose?
Options:
A) Karl Marx
B) Gandhi.
C) Aristotle
D) Laski
Q334) Which year a committee on decentralized management of Education was

appointed?
Options:
A) Aug, 1992
B) Feb, 1993
C) March, 1993
D) April, 1993
Q335) In Which year 'grant-in-aid' system was introduced?

Options:
A) 1858
B) 1852
C) 1857
D) 1851
Q336) When was Indian University Commission Appointed?

Options:
A) 1463
B) 758
C) 829
1448
D) 11047
Page

Q337) The method of summate d rating for increasing attitudes was development
by:
Options:
A) Thurstone in 1932
B) Chave in 1929
C) Likert
D) Thurstone and Chave both as co-authors.
Q338) The Charter Act of 1813 Provided how much as annual expenditure for
the revival and promotion of literature in India?
Options:
A) 1 lakh rupees
B) 2 lakh rupees
C) 3 lakh rupees
D) 4 lakh rupees
Q339) Who gave his reports on general education in 1937?

Options:
A) AN Jha
B) Wood
C) Mudaliar
D) Dr. Zakir Hussan
Q340) In Which year the review committee on curriculum was appointed?

Options:
A) 1977
B) 1976
C) 1978
D) 1979
Q341) Where is N.d. t. Women University situated?

Options:
A) Calcutta
B) Bombay
1449
C) Madras
D) Delhi
Page

Q342) When was Ishwar-bahi J. Patel Committee was appointed?

Options:
A) 1975
B) 1976
C) 1977
D) 1978
Q343) During 1901-02 there were how many arts and professional colleges in
India?
Options:
A) 81
B) 91
C) 181
D) 191
Q344) Sankhya theory of education is known as:

Options:
A) Brahman Parinamavada
B) Prikriti Parinamavada
C) Both of these
D) Neither
Q345) Chairman of Revised national policy of education committee was:

Options:
A) Ram Murti
B) Man Mohan Singh
C) Janardhan Reddy
D) Murli Manohar Joshi
Q346) N.P.E document consists of:

Options:
A) Three Parts
B) Seven Parts
1450
C) Twelve Parts
D) Twenty Parts
Page

Q347) Who founded Royal Asiatic Society of Bengal' in Calcutta in 1784?

Options:
A) Warren Hasting
B) Johan Duncan
C) William Jones
D) Sir Richard
Q348) In Which year the Indian university act was passed?

Options:
A) 1901
B) 1902
C) 1903
D) 1904
Q349) When was 'National open school' established?

Options:
A) 1975
B) 1986
C) 1989
D) 1990
Q350) What was the title of teacher in the Vedic period?
Options:
A) Acharya
B) Guru
C) Siksha
D) Brahma
Q351) The term of reference of Mudaliar Commission was:

Options:
A) Primary Education
B) Secondary Education
C) Higher Education
1451
D) All-Round Education
Page

Q352) According to wood's Dispatch the medium of instruction should be:

Options:
A) Only English
B) Only Sanskrit
C) Only Vernaculars
D) English and Vernaculars
Q353) Vallabhi was a famous education was registered as a society in?

Options:
A) 500 a. d.
B) 600 a. d.
C) 700 a. d.
D) 800 a. d.
Q354) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan was registered as a Society in?

Options:
A) 23743
B) 24077
C) 24108
D) 01-12-1966
Q355) Work-Experience is a training for:
Options:
A) Cooperation in have work.
B) Participation in factory
C) Participation in productive work for earning
D) All above
Q356) Expenditure in primary education in VII th-Plan.

Options:
A) 2849 Chores of rupees
B) 1832 Chores of rupees
C) 1083 Chores of rupees
1452
D) 7633 Chores of rupees

Page

Q357) Most of the important factor in educational reconstruction according to

the commission is:
Options:
A) Teacher
B) Building
C) Finance
D) Supervision
Q358) What was the medium of education in Vedic period?

Options:
A) Pali
B) Sanskrit
C) Prakrit
D) Local Dialect
Q359) Where is Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library Situated?

Options:
A) Patna
B) Chandigarh
C) Jhansi
D) Lucknow
Q360) Which Commission recommended the induction of applied science and

technology in the University Course?
Options:
A) Mudaliar Commission
B) Sadler Commission
C) Hunter Commission
D) Indian University Commission.
Q361) Which of the following org. is associated with HRD ministry

Options:
A) INDEST
B) National Book Trust
1453
C) National Bal Bhavan

D) All of above
Page

Q362) What is the purpose of Jan Sikshan Sansthan?

Options:
A) Provide vocational training to non-literate, neo-literate and school dropouts.

B) Provide basic education to illiterate adults.
C) Create awareness about health and reproduction among rural people
D) None of above.
Q363) Correct chronological order? (older to newer)

Options:
A) Mid Day meal, RTE, SSA
B) SSA, Mid Day Meal, RTE
C) RTE, Mid Day meal, SSA
D) Mid Day Meal, SSA, RTE.
Q364) What is the purpose of Jalmani Yojana?

Options:
A) I nstall water purifiers in remote hamlets with population less than 500
B) Installation of water purifiers in rural schools.
C) Provide drinking wate r in desert areas
D) Provide subsidy to farmers for installing drip irrigation system.
Q365) What is the primary aim of Dhanlakshmi Yojana?
Options:
A) Prevent child marriages.
B) Promote intercaste marriages
C) Change the mentality of seeing girl child as a financial burden.
D) Provide scholarship to bright girl students to pursue PG or Ph. d
Q366) Which among the following Indian ministry coordinates with WIPO?
Options:
A) HRD
B) External affairs
C) Commerce and industries.
1454
D) Science and technology

Page

Q367) UGC is a
Options:
A) Statutory organization
B) Attached office of HRD ministry
C) Constitutional body
D) Subordinate office of HRD ministry
Q368) Who releases Educational content via Gyan Darshan and Gyan Vani?
Options:
A) Education ministry
B) IGNOU, NCERT
C) National Bal Bhavan
D) None of Above.
Q369) Who is responsible for conducting All India Pre-Dental entrance test?
Options:
A) AICTE
B) Medical Council of India
C) Dental Council of India
D) CBSE
Q370) Who among the following looks into the Minimum qualification for
appointment of teachers?
Options:
A) UGC
B) HRD ministry
C) NCERT
D) National council for teacher education
Q371) What is the purpose of Bal Shree scheme?

Options:
A) I dentify creative children and nurture them.
B) Provide extra protein and iron supplements to kids suffering from
Malnutrition
1455
C) Provide free medical checkup in Government schools.

D) None of above.
Page

Q372) Purpose of Mahila Samakhya scheme?

Options:
A) Provide incentives to female graduates to join teaching profession.

B) Provide reservation to females in Government college lecturer jobs.
C) Empower rural women by educating them.
D) None of above.
Q373) Target beneficiaries of SABLA scheme are

Options:
A) Dowry victims
B) Adolescent girls
C) Rural women
D) All of above.
Q374) The Kendriya vidhyalaya are meant for

I Wards of Transferable state Government employees
II Wards of Transferable central Government employees
III Wards of Defence personnel

V Bright students from naxal affected areas
Options:
A) Only I and IV
B) Only II and III
C) Only I, II and IV
D) Only II
Q375) Correct statements about Rahstriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)

I Provide free and compulsory education to high school children.
II Increase the high school enrolment rate from 52% to 75%

Options:
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
1456
D) none of above
Page

Q376) What was the purpose of 86 Constitutional amendment act?

I Make right to education a fundamental right
II Impose duty on parents and guardians to provide for education to their

children.
Options:
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
Q377) Correct Statement

I) 93rd amendment inserted article 21/A and 51A(K) in the Constitution.
II) 86 amendment modified article 15 of the Constitution.
Options:
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both I and II
Q378) Correct chronological order?

Options:
A) IGNOU, UGC, NCERT
B) NCERT, UGC, IGNOU
C) UGC, NCERT, IGNOU
D) GNOU, NCERT, UGC
Q379) Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safe
guards the rights of Minorities to establish and run educational in-situations of
their own liking?
Options:
A) Article 19
B) Article 29
C) Article 30
1457
D) Article 31
Page

Q380) Which one of the following is 28th state of India

Options:
A) Uttarakhand
B) Jharkhand
C) Chhattisgarh
D) None of these
Q381) The effective means in education communication is
Options:
A) Black Board Writing
B) Audio-Visual means
C) Audio means
D) Visual means
Q382) The Dalton Scheme of Education is useful for which one of the following?
Options:
A) For infants
B) For little children
C) For older children
D) For all of these
Q383) The most powerful upper chamber in the world is:

Options:
A) American senate
C) Rajya Sabha of Indian Republic
D) None of these
Q384) Which of the following standing committee of Parliament has no Member

of Parliament from Rajya Sabha?
Options:
A) Hawai Island
B) Greenland
C) Kamchatka
1458
D) None of these
Page

Q385) The Government of India introduced Bharat Ratna and Padmashree

awards under
Options:
A) Article 18 of the constitution

B) Article 20 of the constitution
C) Article 17 of the constitution
D) Article 16 of the constitution
supervised by
Options:
Q387) When was the All India Radio (AIR) was adopted?
Options:
A) June 8th 1936

B) July 17th 19
C) June 17th 193
D) July 8th 1949
Q388) What is the full form of IPCC?

Options:
A) I nternational Panel on climate change
B) International Panel on carbon consumption
C) Intergovernmental Panel o Climate
D) None of these
Q389) The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to

Options:
A) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) the Comptroller and Auditor General
1459
C) the President of India

D) the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Page

Q390) The biggest news agency of India is

Options:
A) PTI
B) UNI
C) NANAP
D) Samachar Bharati

Options:
A) to come back to nature as op-pose to mechanical life
B) to educate in accordance with the law of nature of human development
C) to study natural laws and apply them to educational process.
D) All of the above

Options:
D) making liberal education job-oriented
national control, except the
Options:
B) National Institute of Mental health
D) National Defence education Act
Q394) Indias first Defence University is set up in

Options:
A) Haryana
B) Delhi
1460
C) Punjab
D) Uttar Pradesh
Page

Q395) Which of the following Institutes is situated in Karikudi (Tamil Nadu)?

Options:
A) Central Electro Chemical Re-search Institute

B) Central Marine Fish Research institute
C) Central Plantation Crop Research Institute
D) None of these
Q396) National Anthem Jan-gana-mana was composed by

Options:
A) Madam Cama
B) Surendranath Chatterji
C) Bankimchandra Chatterji
D) Rabindranath Tagore
Options:
Q398) Disputes regarding the election of Vice President are decided by
Options:
A) the Speaker
B) the President
C) the Parliament
D) the Supreme Court
Q399) Use of radio for higher education is based on the presumption of:
Options:
1461
D) Other means of instruction getting out-dated

Page

Q400) When was the 1st Indian postal stamp was issued?
Options:
A) 1937
B) 1876
C) 1854
D) 1852
Q401) Which of the following words is not included in preamble of the

constitution?
Options:
A) Socialist
B) Secular
C) Dignity
D) Integrity
Q402) The President of India may either give his assent or withhold his assent
on a reserved bill of a state in case if the bill is
Options:
A) Finance Bill
B) Money Bill
C) An Ordinary Bill
D) All of these
Q403) Central Institute of Design is situated at

Options:
A) Ahmedabad
B) Pune
C) Gulmarg
D) Dehradun

Elections are settled by
Options:

1462

Page

Q405) Which of the following is not created by the Act of Parliament

Options:
A) Atomic Energy Commission

B) Backward Class Commission
C) University Grants Commission
D) Railway Board
Q406) Which of the following is Mahila University in Rajasthan

Options:
A) Kota University
B) MDS University, Ajmer
C) Banasthali Vidyapeeth
D) JNY University, Jodhpur
Q407) the final decision about the disqualification of an M.P. of Lo Sabha under
the law of defection rests with
Options:
A) Speaker
B) Election Commission
C) Supreme Court
D) President
Q408) The President of India

Options:
A) Enjoys absolute powers.
B) Enjoys limited but real powers
C) Enjoys only nominal powers.
D) Enjoys no powers.
Q409) The main role of education ac-cording to Plato is:

Options:
B) to develop the personality of each individuals
1463
C) to strengthen the state.

D) All of these
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Q410) The planning commission of India is

Options:
A) Tripura
B) Meghalaya
C) Mizoram
D) Manipur
Q411) India is a:
Options:
A) Se cular State
B) Bilingual State
C) Communist State
D) Capitalist State
Q412) The Council of Ministers is responsible to the:

Options:
A) President
B) Lok Sabha
C) Vice-President
D) Rajya Sabha
Q413) The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the:
Options:
B) Speaker of the Rajya Sabha
D) Ministry of Law & Justice
Q414) Which of the following are the ideals set forth in the Preamble?
Options:
A) Social, economic and political Justice
B) Equality of status and of opportunity
C) Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
1464
D) All of these
Page

Q415) Of which fundamental right is a foreigner in India deprived of?

Options:
A) To seek justice in court

B) To seek financial security of life
C) To criticize policies of government
D) To vote at the time of 'Parliamentary election
Q416) The Legislative Council of a State is a:

Options:
A) temporary body
B) permanent body
C) semi-permanent body
D) chamber of the nominated members
Q417) Which of the following is the federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
Options:
A) There is distribution of Powers in accordance with 2 lists
B) Written and rigid constitution
C) Independent Judiciary
D) All of these
Q418) The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India relates to:
Options:
A) Panchayati Raj Institutions
B) Anti-defection Act
C) List of languages recognized by the Constitution
D) Procedure for amendment to the Constitution
Q419) The quorum of the Parliament is fixed at:

Options:
A) one-tenth of the membership of the House
B) one-third of the membership of the House
C) one-half of the membership of the House
1465
D) four-fifths of the membership of the House

Page

Q420) The Directive Principles:

Options:
A) aim at establishing welfare state of Gandhian conception

B) aim at giving ideals to be incorporated at a later stage
C) aim at giving support to the , Fundamental Rights
D) A and B only
Q421) In India the executive is responsible directly to the:

Options:
A) Legislature
B) President
C) Judiciary
D) Lok Sabha
Q422) The Rajya Sabha is:

Options:
A) dissolved once in two years
B) dissolved after every five years
C) adjourned every six months
D) not subject to dissolution
Q423) Ministers in the Union Cabinet are appointed by the:
Options:
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister
D) None of these
Q424) The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister is responsible to:
Options:
A) Prime Minister
B) President
C) Parliament
1466
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Page

Q425) What is the literal meaning of secularism?

Options:
A) Freedom to worship any God
B) Death of religion
C) Separation of religion from the state
D) All of these
Q426) The real powers in the Central Government are enjoyed, according to the
Constitution of India by the:
Options:
A) President of India
B) Vice-President of India
C) Prime Minister of India
D) Chief Ministers
Q427) The Prime Minister is:

Options:
A) nominated by the President
B) elected by the Chief Ministers of States
C) is the leader of the majority party of Lok Sabha
D) is the leader of the majority party of Rajya Sabha
Q428) Why are the Fundamental Rights considered fundamental?

Options:
A) Necessary for the successful working of democratic institution
B) Basic to the welfare, dignity and happiness of the individual
C) Constitution is based on these
D) Only A and B
Q429) The President's Rule is imposed in a State orid a Union Territory when
the:
Options:
A) Governor of a State or the Chief \Commissioner of a Lt Governor advises the
President to do so because the Government in that State/Territory cannot be
1467
carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution

B) Chief Minister of a State requests to this effect
C) Chief' Justice of the State High Court recommends through the Governor
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D) Prime Minister knows best

Q430) Agriculture, including research and education, falls in:

Options:
A) State List
B) Union List
C) Concurrent List
Q431) Fundamental Rights of the citizens are:

Options:
A) non-justifiable
B) justifiable
C) justifiable if the highest court feels it should be
D) Some rights are justifiable
Q432) Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens are contained in .......... of the
'I ndian Constitution'
Options:
A) Part I
B) Part II
C) Part III
D) Part IV
Q433) Free dom of the Press as such:

Options:
A) has been guaranteed by the Constitution
B) has not been expressly guaranteed by the Constitution
C) both (a) and (b)
Q434) Administrative Law means:

Options:
A) law passed by the Union
B) law or rules made by the executive
1468
C) laws relating to administration of non-Governmental institutions

D) all the above
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Q435) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha sit jointly when:
Options:
A) they like
B) there is a disagreement between the two (Houses)
C) the President summons both the Houses
D) they must meet when two years have lapsed after the last meeting
Q436) Who administers the Union Territories?

Options:
A) The President through the Administrators appointed by him
B) The Prime Minister of India
C) The Law Minister, Government of India
D) The Attorney-General of India
Q437) Directive Principles of State Policy aim at:

Options:
A) ensuring individual liberty
B) ensuring and strengthening the country's independence
C) protecting the depressed classes
D) providing social and economic base for genuine democracy in the country
Q438) Usually a Gram Panchayat is not responsible for:
Options:
A) construction of village roads and tanks
B) sanitation, maternity and child welfare
C) financing of agriculturists
D) agricultural production
Q439) What does the Panchayati Raj System signify?

Options:
A) single-tier structure of local Government
B) Double-tier system of self Government
C) Three-tier structure of local Govt. at the village, block and district level
1469
D) None of these
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Q440) For knowledge lessons

Options:
A) Glover's Scheme is used
B) Herbart's five-stage system is used
C) Garry's scheme is used
D) none of these
Q441) "This methodology trains the child to search for facts, rules and
principles by his own efforts, organize the set of knowledge gained and delineate
general rules." The aforementioned statement is about the following
methodology of teaching
Options:
A) Montessori
B) Kindergarten
C) Heuristic
D) Play-way
Q442) In Garry's Plan
Options:
A) work is important
B) play is important
C) learning is important
D) all these three have equal importance
Q443) The Dalton Scheme of education is useful for which ones of the following?
Options:
A) For infants
D) For all of these
Q444) In the school, provisions must be made for free and natural expressions
of a child." Who give this statement?
Options:
1470
A) T. Remont
B) Ryeburn
C) Montessori
Page
D) Lyndon

Q445) "There should be no difference between the words and deeds of a

teacher." who gave this statement?
Options:
A) McKe nnan
B) John Locke
C) Rousseau
D) Aristotle
Q446) "The teacher ought to know about the problems prevalent in the field of
education". The reason is that
Options:
A) only a teacher can do something about solving them
B) he can tell about the same to another teacher
C) teachers can tell the government about it
D) with this knowledge, the teacher can have information about education
Q447) The major objective of education is
Options:
A) reforming the society
B) making students discipline
C) developing inherent abilities/powers of students
D) making students followers of teachers
Q448) All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) is located in

Options:
A) Lucknow
B) Delhi
C) Mumbai
D) Chennai
Q449) In the context of education, some views of Gandhiji have been appended
below. Which one of them is incorrect?
Options:
1471
A) I n education, experimentation, work and research must be given due places

B) Education must be self-dependent
C) Literacy is education
Page

D) Education must be such as to develop all the powers and inherent qualities
of children
Q450) Personalized System of education

Options:
A) does not inculcate a feeling of socialization in students
B) does not inculcate a feeling of competition in students
C) leads to wastage of time and energy
D) all of these are true
Q451) In your view, arrangement for "education on environment" in the school

Options:
A) is important for creating an awareness among students about the
environment
B) is likely to put more burden on students
C) is a mode of entertainment for students
D) is like giving work to teachers
Q452) Education not only conserves the culture of a nation, but also it
Options:
A) makes the latter rich
B) defines the latter
C) makes the latter spiritual
D) makes the latter mass-oriented and popular
Q453) National Defence Academy (NDA) is situated at

Options:
A) Kharadwasla(Pune)
B) Dehradun
C) Allahabad
D) Chennai
Q454) Which one of the following provides constitutional guarantee of personal

freedom?
1472
Options:
A) Quo Warrant B) Mandamus
Page
C) Certiorari D) Habeas Corpus

Q455) The project education method of teaching is associated with

Options:
A) Rousseau
B) Frobel
C) Dewey
D) Armstrong
Q456) Under the Winnetka Plan

Options:
A) the diversity of interests of the students is recognized
B) the diversities of abilities are accepted
C) the diversities of needs are accepted
D) all of these are recognized
Q457) According to Dewry, education is a

Options:
A) Social need
B) Personal need
C) Psychological need
D) theoretical need
Q458) Who gave the principle of "pupil activity?"
Options:
A) Rousseau
B) Henderson
C) Comenius
D) Binet
Q459) In the wake of serious shortages of resources and rising population of our
nation, you have the following views about the programmes for improving the
standards of education (under the aegis of national policy of education).
Options:
A) They are impractical

1473
B) They are courageous and laudable efforts

C) They are new forms of traditional programmes
D) They increase the workload of teachers
Page

Q460) Adult education should be under the authority of the following

Options:
A) The government
B) Non-government organizations
C) Educated persons
D) All of these
Q461) NASA is the name of space agency of

Options:
A) Netherlands
B) Britain
C) America
D) India
then, knowledge is accumulated on the basis of that rule?
Options:
A) Deductive lesson
B) Inductive lesson
C) Developing lesson
D) Knowledge lesson
Q463) In the project education technique, the work load on the teacher is
Options:
A) very high
B) comparatively low
C) low
D) nil
Q464) Why do you not support the five-stage method of Herbart?

Options:
A) I n this, there is no scope for the individual diversity of students
B) Under this, it is difficult to make coordination between various subjects
1474
C) Under this, generalization is not required to be done while teaching subjects

D) all of these
Page

Q465) Who is known as the father of educational psychology?

Options:
A) Pestology
B) Devy
C) Herbart
D) Spencer
Q466) The educational system of today promotes "educated unemployment".

The reason is that
Options:
A) education gives theoretical knowledge only
B) professional education is not a part of education
C) the objective of education is not vivid
D) all of these
Q467) In the school, "education on environment" can be imparted by

Options:
A) lectures
B) articles
C) sports
D) adopting it ourselves
Q468) Indian Institute of Advanced studies is located in

Options:
A) Shimla
B) Solan
C) Dharmshala
D) Chandigarh
Q469) Air Force Administrative College is situated in

Options:
A) Hyderabad
B) Coimbatore
1475
C) Bidar
D) Agra
Page

Q470) Indian School of Mines is situated at

Options:
A) Patna (Bihar)
B) Dhanbad (Jharkhand)
C) Kolkata (W. Bengal)
D) Guwahati (Assam)
Q471) What is the full form of MCA?
Options:
A) Ministry of Commerce & Agriculture
B) Master of Computer Application
C) Member Chartered Accountant
D) Master of Commerce & Arts
Q472) Immediate feedback is an essential characteristic of:

Options:
A) team teaching
B) teaching machines
C) the Dalton Plan
D) the project method
Q473) Of the following objectives of an elementary music programme, the one of

lowest priority is:
Options:
A) to expose children to a variety of musical compositions
B) to prepare children for wise use of leisure time
C) to develop a group of performers for the holiday assemblies
D) to provide children with emotional outlets
Q474) With regard to readiness to read, all of these statements are true except
that:
Options:
A) some psychologists believe that a child is not ready to begin reading until he/
she has achieved a mental age of about six years
1476
B) a strong desire to read is a determining factor

C) a reading readiness programme may begin for some children in kindergarten
D) physical maturation is a crucial factor
Page

Q475) If you were reading a series of articles about the teaching of reading, you
would expect to be reading an article by:
Options:
A) Paul McKee
B) Albert Harris
C) Arthur Gates
D) Frank Riesman
Q476) Of the following, the author of a widely used intelligence test is:
Options:
A) David Wechsler
B) B F Skinner
C) William Cruikshank
D) Bruno Bettelheim
Q477) Indian Institute of Science (IISc) is located in

Options:
A) Chennai
B) Kolkata
C) Bangalore
D) Mumbai

Options:
A) Lucknow
B) Dehradun
C) New Delhi
D) Mumbai
Q479) National Institute of Immunology is situated in

Options:
A) Delhi
B) Hyderabad
1477
C) Goa
D) Kochi
Page

Q480) A set of test papers from a class of 29 students has been arranged in
order from the highest to the lowest scores. The mark on the fifteenth paper is
known as the:
Options:
A) median
B) mean
C) mode
D) norm
Q481) Re creational reading should be:

Options:
A) reserved for the school library period
B) assigned as homework
C) a responsibility of the home, not the school
D) an integral part of the language arts curriculum
Q482) When Jeewan receives his failing test mark, he tells the teacher, "You
don't like me." This is an example of:
Options:
A) identification
B) transference
C) egocentrism
D) projection
Q483) Of the following learning theories, the one that embodies the idea that
learning takes place through insight is known as:
Options:
A) Gestalt
B) stimulus-response
C) connectionist
D) pragmatic
Q484) Over learning tends to strengthen an individuals:
Options:
1478
A) powers of retention
B) endurance
C) feeling of boredom
Page
D) motivation

Q485) How many Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) are there in India?
Options:
A) 16
B) 4
C) 6
D) 3
Q486) How many Indian Institutes o Management (IIM) are there in India?
Options:
A) 13
B) 7
C) 5
D) 8
Q487) The most accurate statement about teaching machines is that:

Options:
A) B F Skinner began the movement for their use
B) they were designed as an economy measure to replace teachers
C) they are not as efficient as teachers in reinforcing responses
D) they can be used for all learning programmes
Q488) A culturally disadvantaged child is best served by the school system that:
Options:
A) places him/her in a class with other culturally disadvantaged children
B) gives him/her an annual intelligence test
C) trains teachers to understand his/her impoverished home background
D) assesses his/her strengths and needs and provide for an individualized
learning plan
national control, except the:
Options:

1479

Page

Q490) A student fails a test for which he did not study. By ascribing his failure
to the fact that the teacher does not like him he is utilizing:
Options:
A) conversion
B) sympathism
C) rationalization
D) Compensation
Q491) The project method of teaching is best associated with the philosophy of:
Options:
A) John Dewey
B) Max Rafferty
C) Robert Hutchins
D) B F Skinner
Q492) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) is situated at

Options:
A) N. Hyderabad
B) Bangalore
C) Delhi
D) Trombay (Mumbai)
Q493) Birla Institute of Technology is situated at

Options:
A) Ranchi
B) Jaipur
C) Kota
D) Hardwar
Q494) Central Forensic Science Laboratory is situated in

Options:
A) Chandigarh
B) Patna
1480
C) Patiala
D) Ludhiana
Page

Q495) In a class of ten pupils the grades in a spelling test were:

97-97-97-92-92-85- 76-73-65- 60.
The mode of those scores is:
Options:
A) 92
B) 97
C) 97 minus 60 divided by 2
D) the sum of the scores divided by 10
Q496) Of the following intelligence tests, the one which is individually

administered is the:
Options:
A) WISC
B) Pintner-Cunningham Primary
C) Army Alpha
D) Kuhlman-Anderson
except that:
Options:
A) pupils of the same mental age should learn at the same rate
B) group instruction facilitates the learning process
C) learning individual instruction is often required
D) workbooks can be an invaluable learning aid
Q498) The pair of terms incorrectly associated is:

Options:
A) IQ-relationship between MA and CA
B) validity-measure of consistency in testing
C) inkblot-projective testing
D) median-the middle score
Q499) "School is life, not a preparation for life." This statement summarizes one
important aspect of educational philosophy of
1481
Options:
A) John Dewey B) Robert Hutchins
Page
C) Mortimer Adler D) SI Hayakawa

Q500) Of the following, the educator who is not an advocate of radical

educational reform
Options:
A) Postman
B) Illich
C) Bestor
D) Kozol
Q501) All of the following are correct paired except:

Options:
A) Froebel -progressivism
B) Dewey --pragmatism
C) Skinner--Gestalt
D) Herbart--apperception
Q502) The most powerful Upper Chamber in the world is

Options:
A) American Senate
C) Rajya Sabha of the Indian Republic
Q503) The President of India is

Options:
A) The head of the State
B) The head of the Government
C) The head of the State as well as Government
D) All of these
Q504) As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the
order of precedence?
Options:
A) Deputy Prime Minister

1482
B) Former President
C) Governor of a State within his State
D) Speaker of Lok Shaba
Page

Q505) A bill becomes a law when

Options:
A) Both Houses of Parliament approve it by requisite majority

B) The Council of Ministers approves it
C) The President gives his assent
D) The Supreme Court upholds its constitutional validity

Options:
A) career education
B) education for the handicapped
C) interage class groupings
D) environmental education
Q507) Most students in medieval universities learned by:

Options:
A) laboratory experimentation
B) reading the Bible
C) listening to lectures
D) studying in libraries
Q508) All of the following are advantages of teaching machines except:
Options:
A) the control of cheating
B) the tracking of errors
C) the ins urance of attention
D) their universal use for different kinds of programmes
Q509) Holding of elections for the village Panchayat is decided by

Options:
A) The Collector
B) The Election Commission
C) The Central Government
1483
D) The State Government

Page

Q510) The joint sittings of the Union Parliament may be summoned for
Options:
A) Special address of the President
B) Annual address of the President
C) President's occasional messages of national significance
D) Resolution of the dead lock between the two Houses on a non-money bill
Q511) Who appoints the comptroller an Auditor-General of India?
Options:
A) The U.P.S.C.
B) The President
C) The Prime Minister
D) The Parliament
Q512) Cons ider the following statements regarding the Governor of a state in
India:
(i) To be appointed as Governor, one should have completed the age of 45 years
(ii) The Governor holds the office during the pleasure of the President
(iii) After completing five years in office, the Governor cannot continue to hold
the office even when his successor has not entered upon his office
(iv) The executive power of the state is vested in the Governor.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Options:
A) (i) and (ii)

B) (iii) and (iv)
C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
D) (ii) and (iv)
Q513) A frequency distribution is best defined as the:

Options:
A) number of scores above the median score
B) number of pupils scoring above the median score
C) number of test items answered correctly by a majority of the class
D) number of pupils who received each score on a test
1484
Page

Q514) With regard to standardized testing, which of the following statements is

correct?
Options:
A) the testing of intelligence began in Germany

B) the We chsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) is a group test
C) the Rorschach test uses inkblots
D) the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is easy to interpret

because:
Options:
A) parents prefer it
B) pupils prefer it
D) it is the best environment for learning
Q516) Who is legally competent under the Indian Constitution to declare war or
conclude peace?
Options:
A) The President B) The Prime Minister
C) The Council of Ministers D) The Parliament
Q517) In the context-of Panchayati Raj, which one of the following is true about
Gram Sabha?
Options:
A) This is the -topmost tier of the Panchayati Raj
B) It consists of all the voters residing in the jurisdiction of a Village Panchayat
C) It is the executive body consisting of selected representative from Village
Panchayat
D) It consists of all the adult males of the Village Panchayat
Q518) The Lok Sabha secretariat comes under the control of

Options:
A) Ministry of Home Affairs

1485

C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
D) Prime Minister
Page

Q519) Who examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
after it is laid before Parliament?
Options:
A) Lok Sabha Speaker
C) Public Accounts Committee
Q520) Of great importance in determining the amount of transference that

occurs in learning is the:
Options:
A) IQ of the learner
B) knowledge of the teacher
C) use of appropriate materials
D) presence of identical elements
Q521) The term least restrictive environment refers to the education of the:
Options:
A) handicapped
B) gifted
C) early childhood youngsters
D) retarded
Q522) Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right now?

Options:
A) Right to equality
B) Right to property
C) Right to Constitutional remedies
D) None of these
Q523) The time of gap between two sessions of Parliament is not more than
Options:
A) 9 months
1486
B) 1 month
C) 3 months
D) 6 months
Page

Q524) Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction
over Andaman and Nicobar islands
Options:
A) Andhra Prades h
B) Calcutta
C) Madras
D) Orissa
Q525) In case of absence of President and Vice-President, which of the following

acts as the president of country
Options:
A) Prime Minister
B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Leader of opposition
Q526) Which of the following subjects does not belong to the Union List?
Options:
A) Atomic Energy
B) War and Peace
C) Post office Savings Bank
D) Public Health and Sanitation
Q527) President can be removed on charges o violating the Constitution by

Options:
A) No-confidence motion
B) Impeachment
C) Electoral College of Legislative Assemblies
D) Prime Minister
Q528) In the Rajya Sabha, the States have been provided

Options:
A) Equal representation
1487
B) Representation on the 'basis of population

C) Representation on the basis of population and size
D) Representation on the basis of size
Page

Q529) The Controller and Auditor-General of India acts as the chief accountant
and auditor for the
Options:
A) Union Government B) State Governments

C) Union and State Governments D) Neither Union nor State Governments
Q530) Education is a subject in the:

Options:
A) Union list B) State list

C) Concurrent list D) None of the lists
Q531) In which of the following states was the Panchayati Raj first introduced?
Options:
A) Rajasthan B) Gujarat
C) Uttar Pradesh D) Bihar
Q532) Which Writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an
authority to perform a function that it was not performing?
Options:
A) Writ of certiorari
B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
C) Writ of Mandamus
D) Writ of Quo Warrant
Q533) Judicial Review' is the power of the higher court to declare

unconstitutional any
1. Law passed by legislature
2. Judgment of the lower court
3. Order of the executive

Choose the answer from the following choices:
Options:
A) 1 and 2 only
1488
B) 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Page

Q534) How many types of emergency can be declared by the President of India?
Options:
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Q535) The retirement age of a Supreme Court Judge is:
Options:
A) 55 years
B) 58 years
C) 62 years
D) 65 years
Q536) The Chairman and the members of State Public Service Commission are
appointed by the
Options:
A) President
B) Governor
C) Chairman of UPSC
D) Prime Minister
Q537) The function of the Panchayat Samiti is to

Options:
A) Deal with rural industrialization
B) Deal with administration of justice at the Panchayat level
C) Implement community development project schemes
D) Deal with financial matters of the Panchayat
Q538) The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the
consolidated fund of India because
Options:
A) they may get salaries regularly every month
B) their salaries may be free from legislative vote
1489
C) there may not be any cut in their salaries

D) their financial position may be secure to enable them to dispense impartial
justice
Page

Q539) A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a
period of
Options:
A) Five Years
B) Seven years
C) Six years or sixty five years of age whichever is more
D) Six years or until he attains the age of sixty five whichever is earlier
Q540) Who can amend the Constitution?

Options:
A) President B) Parliament
C) Prime Minister D) Union Cabinet
Q541) How many members of the Anglo-Indian community can be nominated to

the Lok Sabha by the President?
Options:
A) 2 B) 5
C) 10 D) 12
Q542) Which one of the following sets of special powers has been conferred on
Rajya Sabha by the Constitution?
Options:
A) To change the existing territory of a state and to change the name of a state
B) To pass a resolution empowering the parliament to make laws in the State
List and creation of one or more All-India services
C) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the
pension of the President after his retirement
D) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the
number of Election Commissioners
Q543) Which of the following standing committees of Parliament has no MP from

Rajya Sabha?
Options:
A) Public Accounts Committee

1490
C) Committee on Public Undertakings
D) Committee on Government Assurance
Page

Q544) Who is the custodian of fundamental rights of people?

Options:
A) Supreme Court
B) President
C) Prime Minister
D) State Assembly
Q545) The Dalton Scheme of Education is useful for which one of the following?
Options:
A) For infants
D) For all of these
Q546) The term'least restrictive environment' refers to the education of the

Options:
A) Handicapped
B) Gifted
C) Early Childhood Youngsters
D) Retarded
Q547) According to Dewry, education is a:
Options:
A) Social Need
B) Personal Need
C) Psychological Need
D) Theoretical Need
Q548) The major objective of education is:

Options:
A) Reforming The Society
B) Making Students Discipline d
C) Developing Inherent Abilities/Powers Of Students
1491
D) Making Students followers Of Teachers

Page

Q549) Personalized system of education:

Options:
A) Doesn't Inculcate A Feeling Of Socialization In Students

B) Doesn't Inculcate A Feeling Of Competition
C) Leads To Wastage Of Time And Energy
D) All Of These
Q550) UGC was established in

Options:
A) 1966
B) 1953
C) 1946
D) 1986
Q551) President can be removed on the charges of violating the constitution by

Options:
A) confidence motion
B) Impeachment
C) Electoral College of legislative Assemblies
D) Prime Minister
Q552) The time of gap between two sessions of Parliament is not more than
Options:
A) 180 days
B) 120 days
C) 150 days
D) 90days
Q553) The present annual examination system:

Options:
A) promotes rote learning
B) does not promote good study habits
C) does not encourage students to be regular in class
1492
D) All of the above

Page

Q554) Kindergarten (KG)system of education is indebted to

Options:
A) Dewey B) Froebel
C) Plato D) Spencer
Q555) Of The following Objectives Of An Elementary Music Programme The One

Of Lowest Priority Is
Options:
A) To Expose Children To A Variety Of Musical Compositions.

B) To Prepare Children For Wise Use Of Leisure Time.
C) To Develop A Group Of Performers For Holiday Assemblies.
D) To Provide Children With Emotion Outlets.
Q556) Which One Is Not The Objective Of Special Education?

Options:
A) To Pursue Those Curricular Matters That Strategically Determine Effective
Living For Specific Type Of Handicapped Children.
B) To Develop Motivational Patterns In The Handicapped That Will Produce
Achievements.
C) To Develop Realistic Self-Concept In Handicapped Children.
D) All Of These
Q557) The Introduction Of Career Courses In Schools And Colleges Aims At

Options:
A) Developing The Ability To Make The Intelligent Choice Of Jobs.
B) Providing Professional Knowledge To Students.
C) Increasing g. k. In Students.
D) All Of The Above
Q558) If The Principal Of Your Institution Is Not Satisfied With Your

Performance And Charge You With The Act Of Negligence Of Duties, How Would
You Behave With Him?
Options:
A) You Would Take Revenge By Giving Physical And Agony To Him.

1493
B) You Would Neglect Him.

C) You Would Take A Tough Stand Against The Changes.
D) You Would Keep Yourself Alert And Make His Efforts Unfruitful.
Page

Q559) Which Is Most Favourable For Education?

Options:
A) Social Class
B) Social Mobility
C) Social Stratification
D) Caste
Q560) Which Of The following Is The Educational Implication Of The Of The

Learning Process?
Options:
A) Memory
B) Interest
C) Curiosity And Level Of Aspiration Are Motivating Factors According To
Berlyne.
D) All Of These
Q561) Which One Of The following Languages Can Be The Best Medium Of
Instruction At Primary Level?
Options:
A) National Language(Hindi)
B) International Language(English)
C) Regional Language
D) Mother Tongue
Q562) Kindergarten (KG) system of education is indebted to

Options:
A) Dewey
B) Froebel
C) Plato
D) Spencer
Q563) In which year the University Grants Commission was established?

Options:
A) 1948
1494
B) 1944
C) 1953
D) 1960
Page

Q564) UNO has fixed the target for 'Education for All' till the year
Options:
A) 2013
B) 2012
C) 2015
D) 2013
Q565) Free dom of Speech

Options:
A) has been guaranteed by the constitution.
B) has not been expressly guaranteed by the constitution
C) has been given only to selected institutions.
D) None of these
Q566) The decline of the British Empire should have spelt the decline of English
Options:
A) the statement is a fact
B) the statement is an advice
C) the statement is an opinion
D) the statement is a prejudice
Q567) The Lok -Sabha can be dissolved before the expiry of its normal five year
term by
Options:
A) The Prime Minister
B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C) The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
D) None of these
Q568) Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?

Options:
A) Right to Equality
B) Right to Education
1495
C) Right to freedom of speech and expression

D) Right to Employment
Page

Q569) Joint SAARC University of eight SAARC nations will be established in

Options:
A) Colombo (Sri Lanka)

B) Dhaka (Bangladesh)
C) New Delhi (India)
D) Male (Maldives)
Q570) A member of UPSC holds office for a period of

Options:
A) 5 years
B) 7 years
C) Six years or sixty five years of age whichever is more.
D) Six years or sixty five years of age whichever is earlier.

Options:
A) Megasthanese
B) Fahiyan
C) Huan Tsang
D) Kalhan
Q572) At present right to property is a
Options:
A) Legal Right
B) Human Right
C) Fundamental Right
D) Natural Right
Q573) Institute of technology is situated at

Options:
A) BHU, Varanasi
B) Osmania, University
C) Jamia Millia, Delhi
1496
D) None of these
Page


Options:
A) Lucknow
B) Dehradun
C) New Delhi
D) Mumbai
Options:
A) career education
B) education for handicapped
C) inter-age class groupings
D) environmental education
Q576) In our present society where values are deteriorating, the excellent
education will be which
Options:
A) enables one to earn in an easy manner.

B) exaggerates the competition in the society.
C) works for establishment of human and cultural value.
D) deaccelerates the social change in society.
Q577) Professors need to study educational philosophy mainly because

Options:
A) most professors know nothing about educational philosophy
B) most professors follow a wrong philosophy
C) they may improve their work by classifying their philosophy.
D) All of the above
Q578) On which of the following statements there is consensus among

educators?
Options:
A) Disciplinary cases should be sent to the principal only when other means
have failed.
1497
B) Disciplinary cases should never be sent to principal's office.

C) Disciplinary cases should be totally neglected in the class.
D) None of these
Page

Q579) Quality of education in a school/college can be measured through

Options:
A) infrastructural facilities available

B) manpower teachers and principal available
C) students achievements
D) All of the above
Q580) In your view arrangement for "education on environment" in the school

Options:
A) is important for creating an awareness among an awareness among students
about the environment.
B) is likely to put more burden on students.
C) is a mode of entertainment for students.
D) is like giving work to teacher.
Q581) The main role of education according to Plato is:

Options:

B) to develop the personality of each individuals
C) to strengthen the state.
D) All of these
Q582) The planning commission of India is

Options:
A) Tripura
B) Meghalaya
C) Mizoram
D) Manipur

Options:
B) Only after the constitution is amended suit-ably.
1498

Page

Q584) The final decision about the disqualification of an M.P. of Lok Sabha
under the law of defection rests with
Options:
A) Speaker
B) Election Commission
C) Supreme Court
D) President
Q585) If you invite personal friends and colleagues in your son's birthday party,
the procedure of invitation will be
Options:
A) only personal invitation will be extended to most dear ones.
B) only a specific group of teachers will be invited.
C) extend invitation to all the teachers without any distinction.
D) you would invite all the personnel of the school.

Elections are stetted by
Options:
Q587) Which of the following is not created by the Act of Parliament?

Options:
A) Atomic Energy Commission
B) Backward Class Commission
C) University Grants Commission
D) Railway Board
Q588) Which of the following is Mahila University in Rajasthan?

Options:
A) Kota University
1499
B) MDS University, Ajmer

C) Banasthali Vidyapeeth
D) JNY University, Jodhpur
Page

Q589) When was the 1st Indian postal stamp was issued?
Options:
A) 1937
B) 1876
C) 1854
D) 1852
Q590) The President of India may either give his assent or withhold his assent
on a reserved bill of a state in case if the bill is
Options:
A) Finance Bill
B) Money Bill
C) An Ordinary Bill
D) All of these
Q591) Central Institute of Design is situated at

Options:
A) Ahmedabad
B) Pune
C) Gulmarg
D) Dehradun
Q592) Use of radio for higher education is based on the presumption of:
Options:
D) Other means of instruction getting out-dated
Q593) Educational quality is

Options:
A) Fundamental right
B) Only a customary right
1500
C) Only a legal right

D) None of these
Page

Q594) In 1999-2000, the ratio of export to the import is

Options:
A) 0.381944444444444
B) 0.422916666666667
C) 0.59375
D) 0.634722222222222
Q595) Appropriation Act of the General Budget is

Options:
A) a Finance Bill
B) a Mone y Bill
C) an Ordinary Bill
D) a Constitution Amendment Bill
Q596) India's first Defence University is set up in

Options:
A) Haryana
B) Delhi
C) Punjab
D) Uttar Pradesh
Q597) Which of the following Institutes is situated in Karikudi (Tamil Nadu)?
Options:
A) Central Electro Chemical Research Institute
B) Central Marine Fish Research Institute
C) Central Plantation Crop Research Institute
D) None of these
Options:
1501
Page

Q599) The Constitution of India envisages three types of services

Options:
A) Navy, Air Force, Army

B) Civil, Military and Paramilitary
C) All India Services, Central Services, State Services
D) None of these

Options:
D) making liberal education job-oriented
Q601) INSAT-1 series was procured from

Options:
A) USA
B) France
C) USSR
D) Japan
national control, except the
Options:
Q603) Which is the biggest multipurpose project in India?

Options:
A) Nagarjuna Sagar
B) Bhakra N angal
1502
C) Damodar
D) Krishanraja Sagar
Page


Options:
A) to come back to nature as oppose to mechanical life
B) to educate in accordance with the law of nature of human development
C) to study natural laws and apply them to educational process.
D) All of the above
Q605) In case of absence of both the President and the Vice President who acts
as the president of the country?
Options:
A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) The Prime Minister
C) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
D) Minister of Home Affairs
Q606) The Government of India introduced Bharat Ratna and Padmashree

awards under
Options:
A) Article 18 of the constitution

B) Article 20 of the constitution
C) Article 17 of the constitution
D) Article 16 of the constitution
supervised by
Options:
Q608) The Directive Principles of State Policy seek

Options:
A) to establish the supremacy of the constitution

1503
B) to curb the authoritarian rule

C) to strengthen judiciary
D) to make the constitution an instrument of social change
Page

Q609) The "Report on Currency and Finance ' for each of the financial year in
India is published by:
Options:
A) Reserve Bank of India
B) Ministry of Finance
C) Planning Commission
D) Central Statistical Organization
Q610) Dhunaram Thermal Power Project is situated in

Options:
A) Maharashtra
B) Jharkhand
C) Gujarat
D) Andhra Pradesh
Q611) The Idea of ' Democratic Decentralization' in India was popularized by

Options:
A) a. d. Gorwala Committee, 1951

B) Paul H. appleby Committee, 1951
C) b. r. Mehta Committee, 1957
D) Ashok Mehta Committee, 1978
Q612) The effective means in education communication is

Options:
A) Black Board Writing
B) Audio-Visual means
C) Audio means
D) Visual means
Q613) Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards
own liking?
Options:
1504
A) Article 19 B) Article 29
C) Article 30 D) Article 31
Page

Q614) Which one of the following is 28th state of India

Options:
A) Uttarakhand
B) Jharkhand
C) Chhattisgarh
D) None of these
Q615) The University Grants Commission was constituted on the

recommendation of:
Options:
A) faster than that in rural areas
B) slower than that in rural areas
C) the same as that in rural areas
D) cooler than that in rural areas
Q616) Value-education stands for

Options:
A) making a student for
B) making a student to get a job
C) inculcation of virtues
D) all-round development of personality
Q617) In the context of Panchayati Raj, which one of the following is true about
Gram sabha?
Options:
A) This is topmost tier of Panchayati Raj
B) It consists of all the voters residing in the jurisdiction of a village panchayat
C) It is executive body consisting of selected representative from village
panchayat
D) It consists of all the adult males of village panchayat
Q618) MCA-21 is a measure initiative taken up by the Government of India in

which of the following areas
Options:
1505
A) attracting international tourists

B) e-governance
C) modernization of airports
Page
D) foreign direct investment in India

Q619) Who among the following Viceroys enforced the Vernacular Press Act?
Options:
A) Lord Lytton B) Lord Hardings

C) Lord Canning D) Lord Mountbatten
Q620) Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act
1956, are not permitted to
Options:
A) offer programme in higher education and issue degrees.
B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education
C) open off-campus and off-store campus anywhere in the country and overseas
res pectively without the permission of the UGC.
D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of country and
overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC.
Q621) Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by
only the President of India?
Options:
A) Chief Minister of a State
B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
C) Advocate-General
D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University
Q622) Most of the Universities in India

Options:
A) conduct teaching and research only
B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
D) promote research only
Q623) Which of the following fields had been given major stress n the National
Education Policy?
Options:
1506
A) Examination and Evaluation B) Professionalism

C) Research D) Instruction
Page

Q624) National Police Academy is situated at:

Options:
A) Hyderabad B) Humpy
C) Kolkata D) Chennai
Q625) The established year of University Grants Commission (UGC) is

Options:
A) 1949 B) 1953
C) 1966 D) 1956
Q626) The term fourth state refers to

Options:
A) Backward classes residing in a static B) Parliament
C) Judiciary D) Press

through its women channel is
Options:
A) Osmania University B) University of Pune
C) Annamalai University D) Indira Gandhi National University (IGNOU)
Q628) Who is the chairman of Knowledge commission?

Options:
A) Sam Pitroda
B) k. m. Kaushik
C) C. Rangarjam
D) Arjun Singh
Q629) Who among the following has the following has the right to speak and
take part in proceedings of both houses of Parliament but is not entitled to vote?
Options:
A) The Attorney General of India.
1507
B) The Chief of Armed Forces.

C) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
D) Election Commissioner.
Page

Q630) Which of the following is a joint project?

Options:
A) Parambikulam Alyar Project B) Tungabhadra Project
C) Damoder Valley Project D) All of these
Q631) Geneco' technology is

Options:
A) The method for the development of species of food crops
B) Technique for prevention of cataract
C) Defence system for prevention from AIDS
D) Technique for preinformation regarding genetic diseases
Q632) Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian
Parliament?
Options:
A) Any MLA B) Chief of Army Staff
C) Solicitor General of India D) Major of Delhi
Q633) Which of the following is responsible for all matters within higher
education sector other than funding?
Options:
A) Association of India Universities (AIU)
B) University of Indian universities (UGC)
C) AICTE
D) None of these
Q634) The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the

Options:
A) Prime Minister of India B) Speaker of Lok Sabha

C) President of India D) Ministry of Law and Justice
Q635) Which of the following does not come under vocational courses?
Options:
1508
A) Agro based food Industry (Crop based ) B) Sericulture

C) Vegetable seed production D) None of these
Page

Q636) Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS(Probationers) is imparted

by:
Options:
A) I ndian Institute of Public Administration

B) Administrative Staff College of India
C) l. b. s National Academy of Administration
D) Centre for Advanced Studies
Q637) The University Grants Commission was constituted on the

recommendation of:
Options:
A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishanan Commission
B) Mudaliar Commission
C) Sargent Commission
D) Kothari Commission
Q638) The preamble was proposed before the drafting committee by

Options:
A) b. n. Rao
B) b. r. Ambedkar
C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
D) Sardal Patel
Q639) If there is no fire detection and control equipment in your institutions

computer lab, which of the following is most important in such circumstances?
Options:
A) Offsite storage of transaction and master backup files
B) Adequate fire insurance
C) Fully tested backup processing facility.
D) Regular hardware maintenance
Q640) Which of the following is a non affiliating unitary central university?

Options:
A) Nagaland University, Kohima

1509
B) Tezpur University, Nappam, Assam (Asom)

C) North -Eastern hill University, Shilong
D) None of these
Page

Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) A, Q3) B, Q4) A, Q5) C,
Q6) B, Q7) D, Q8) A, Q9) A, Q10) C,
Q11) C, Q12) C, Q13) A, Q14) C, Q15) D,
Q16) D, Q17) A, Q18) D, Q19) D, Q20) C,
Q21) D, Q22) B, Q23) C, Q24) A, Q25) D,
Q26) D, Q27) A, Q28) D, Q29) A, Q30) C,
Q31) D, Q32) C, Q33) B, Q34) A, Q35) C,
Q36) C, Q37) A, Q38) B, Q39) A, Q40) D,
Q41) D, Q42) C, Q43) C, Q44) A, Q45) A,
Q46) D, Q47) A, Q48) B, Q49) C, Q50) D,
Q51) A, Q52) A, Q53) A, Q54) D, Q55) D,
Q56) B, Q57) A, Q58) B, Q59) C, Q60) D,
Q61) D, Q62) B, Q63) D, Q64) B, Q65) C,
Q66) C, Q67) A, Q68) D, Q69) B, Q70) C,
Q71) A, Q72) D, Q73) A, Q74) A, Q75) B,
Q76) A, Q77) A, Q78) B, Q79) A, Q80) D,
Q81) B, Q82) D, Q83) B, Q84) D, Q85) C,
Q86) C, Q87) C, Q88) C, Q89) B, Q90) A,
Q91) D, Q92) D, Q93) D, Q94) A, Q95) C,
Q96) C, Q97) A, Q98) A, Q99) D, Q100) D,
Q101) A, Q102) A, Q103) A, Q104) A, Q105) C,
Q106) C, Q107) A, Q108) C, Q109) C, Q110) C,
Q111) D, Q112) D, Q113) C, Q114) A, Q115) D,
Q116) A, Q117) B, Q118) C, Q119) D, Q120) A,
Q121) A, Q122) D, Q123) A, Q124) D, Q125) C,
Q126) C, Q127) C, Q128) C, Q129) C, Q130) C,
Q131) D, Q132) B, Q133) A, Q134) D, Q135) C,
Q136) C, Q137) D, Q138) C, Q139) C, Q140) D,
Q141) A, Q142) A, Q143) B, Q144) A, Q145) C,
Q146) C, Q147) A, Q148) B, Q149) A, Q150) A,
Q151) B, Q152) A, Q153) C, Q154) C, Q155) A,
Q156) A, Q157) C, Q158) C, Q159) B, Q160) C,
Q161) D, Q162) D, Q163) B, Q164) B, Q165) A,
Q166) A, Q167) A, Q168) D, Q169) C, Q170) B,
Q171) D, Q172) A, Q173) B, Q174) B, Q175) B,
Q176) B, Q177) C, Q178) D, Q179) B, Q180) C,
Q181) C, Q182) B, Q183) B, Q184) C, Q185) D,
Q186) D, Q187) D, Q188) B, Q189) D, Q190) C,
Q191) C, Q192) C, Q193) C, Q194) D, Q195) B,
Q196) C, Q197) D, Q198) B, Q199) A, Q200) A,
Q201) B, Q202) C, Q203) B, Q204) D, Q205) C,
1510
Q206) D, Q207) A, Q208) A, Q209) B, Q210) C,

Q211) B, Q212) B, Q213) B, Q214) A, Q215) D,
Page

Q216) C, Q217) C, Q218) B, Q219) C, Q220) B,

Q221) A, Q222) A, Q223) A, Q224) A, Q225) D,
Q226) B, Q227) D, Q228) D, Q229) D, Q230) A,
Q231) C, Q232) A, Q233) C, Q234) A, Q235) D,
Q236) B, Q237) A, Q238) D, Q239) A, Q240) D,
Q241) D, Q242) D, Q243) D, Q244) B, Q245) C,
Q246) C, Q247) A, Q248) C, Q249) B, Q250) A,
Q251) A, Q252) C, Q253) A, Q254) A, Q255) A,
Q256) A, Q257) C, Q258) A, Q259) B, Q260) B,
Q261) D, Q262) A, Q263) D, Q264) C, Q265) A,
Q266) B, Q267) C, Q268) C, Q269) A, Q270) C,
Q271) B, Q272) C, Q273) D, Q274) C, Q275) B,
Q276) D, Q277) C, Q278) D, Q279) D, Q280) A,
Q281) C, Q282) D, Q283) D, Q284) D, Q285) B,
Q286) B, Q287) B, Q288) C, Q289) D, Q290) A,
Q291) B, Q292) B, Q293) D, Q294) A, Q295) C,
Q296) D, Q297) C, Q298) A, Q299) B, Q300) A,
Q301) A, Q302) B, Q303) D, Q304) B, Q305) D,
Q306) D, Q307) C, Q308) B, Q309) B, Q310) A,
Q311) A, Q312) A, Q313) B, Q314) C, Q315) C,
Q316) D, Q317) C, Q318) C, Q319) B, Q320) C,
Q321) D, Q322) C, Q323) D, Q324) D, Q325) D,
Q326) A, Q327) B, Q328) B, Q329) B, Q330) B,
Q331) B, Q332) B, Q333) A, Q334) B, Q335) C,
Q336) B, Q337) D, Q338) A, Q339) B, Q340) B,
Q341) B, Q342) C, Q343) D, Q344) B, Q345) C,
Q346) C, Q347) C, Q348) D, Q349) C, Q350) A,
Q351) B, Q352) D, Q353) C, Q354) B, Q355) C,
Q356) A, Q357) A, Q358) B, Q359) C, Q360) B,
Q361) A, Q362) A, Q363) D, Q364) B, Q365) C,
Q366) C, Q367) A, Q368) B, Q369) D, Q370) D,
Q371) A, Q372) C, Q373) B, Q374) B, Q375) B,
Q376) C, Q377) B, Q378) C, Q379) C, Q380) B,
Q381) B, Q382) C, Q383) A, Q384) B, Q385) A,
Q386) B, Q387) A, Q388) C, Q389) A, Q390) A,
Q391) B, Q392) D, Q393) B, Q394) A, Q395) A,
Q396) D, Q397) B, Q398) D, Q399) B, Q400) D,
Q401) C, Q402) B, Q403) A, Q404) C, Q405) D,
Q406) B, Q407) A, Q408) C, Q409) D, Q410) C,
Q411) A, Q412) B, Q413) C, Q414) D, Q415) D,
Q416) B, Q417) D, Q418) B, Q419) A, Q420) D,
Q421) A, Q422) D, Q423) C, Q424) C, Q425) C,
Q426) C, Q427) C, Q428) D, Q429) A, Q430) A,
1511
Q431) B, Q432) C, Q433) B, Q434) B, Q435) B,

Q436) A, Q437) D, Q438) C, Q439) C, Q440) B,
Page

Q441) C, Q442) D, Q443) C, Q444) C, Q445) A,

Q446) A, Q447) C, Q448) B, Q449) C, Q450) D,
Q451) A, Q452) A, Q453) A, Q454) D, Q455) C,
Q456) D, Q457) A, Q458) D, Q459) B, Q460) B,
Q461) C, Q462) A, Q463) A, Q464) D, Q465) C,
Q466) B, Q467) D, Q468) A, Q469) B, Q470) B,
Q471) B, Q472) B, Q473) C, Q474) D, Q475) D,
Q476) A, Q477) C, Q478) C, Q479) A, Q480) A,
Q481) D, Q482) D, Q483) A, Q484) A, Q485) A,
Q486) A, Q487) A, Q488) D, Q489) B, Q490) C,
Q491) A, Q492) D, Q493) A, Q494) A, Q495) B,
Q496) A, Q497) A, Q498) B, Q499) A, Q500) C,
Q501) C, Q502) A, Q503) A, Q504) C, Q505) C,
Q506) B, Q507) C, Q508) D, Q509) D, Q510) D,
Q511) B, Q512) D, Q513) D, Q514) C, Q515) C,
Q516) A, Q517) B, Q518) C, Q519) C, Q520) D,
Q521) A, Q522) B, Q523) D, Q524) B, Q525) C,
Q526) D, Q527) B, Q528) B, Q529) C, Q530) C,
Q531) A, Q532) C, Q533) C, Q534) B, Q535) D,
Q536) B, Q537) C, Q538) D, Q539) D, Q540) B,
Q541) A, Q542) B, Q543) B, Q544) A, Q545) C,
Q546) A, Q547) A, Q548) C, Q549) D, Q550) B,
Q551) B, Q552) A, Q553) D, Q554) B, Q555) C,
Q556) D, Q557) B, Q558) D, Q559) C, Q560) D,
Q561) D, Q562) B, Q563) C, Q564) C, Q565) B,
Q566) D, Q567) C, Q568) D, Q569) C, Q570) D,
Q571) D, Q572) A, Q573) A, Q574) C, Q575) B,
Q576) C, Q577) C, Q578) A, Q579) D, Q580) A,
Q581) D, Q582) C, Q583) D, Q584) A, Q585) C,
Q586) C, Q587) D, Q588) B, Q589) D, Q590) B,
Q591) A, Q592) B, Q593) D, Q594) A, Q595) B,
Q596) A, Q597) A, Q598) B, Q599) C, Q600) D,
Q601) A, Q602) B, Q603) B, Q604) B, Q605) C,
Q606) A, Q607) B, Q608) D, Q609) A, Q610) C,
Q611) C, Q612) B, Q613) C, Q614) B, Q615) B,
Q616) C, Q617) B, Q618) B, Q619) A, Q620) B,
Q621) B, Q622) C, Q623) B, Q624) A, Q625) B,
Q626) D, Q627) D, Q628) A, Q629) A, Q630) C,
Q631) A, Q632) C, Q633) A, Q634) C, Q635) D,
Q636) C, Q637) A, Q638) C, Q639) A, Q640) B
1512
Page

Higher Education System Part II:
Q1) The number of Agricultural Education Institutes in India till today was
Options:
A) 37 B) 45 C) 39 D) 38
Q2) At the end of Eleventh Five Year Plan the total number of Central
Universities in India was
Options:
A) 15 B) 17 C) 43 D) 20
Q3) The suggestion given by Dr.Gajendragadkarwas

Options:
A) To review the organisation structures of universities on regular basis
B) To bring timely change in the University's organisation
C) To bring change in Administrative wings of Universities
D) All the above
Q4) In India, total number of Open University is

Options:
A) Fourteen B) Fifteen C) Eighteen D) Sixteen
Q5) What percentage of girls is enrolled in Higher Education in India in 2014-15

Options:
A) 46% B) 42% C) 39% D) 36%
Q6) Total number of colleges in India, imparting Higher Education in 2014-15

are
Options:
A) 38038 B) 39175 C) 39507 D) 40760
Q7) The total number of standalone Institution till 31st March, 2015 was
1513
Options:
A) 11922 B) 10576 C) 9813 D) 8756

Page

Q8) Which of the following institutes of higher learning in India are not covered
under RUSA?
Options:
A) All State Universities 12Band 2 f compliant only

B) All Colleges 12B and 2 f compliant only
C) All State Universities Non 12B and non 2 f compliant
D) Central Universities
Q9) Complex of Colleges' is called

Options:
A) Federal University B) Unitary University
C) Central University D) State University
Q10) When a university has its separate campus for Teaching purposes and
there are many autonomous and constituent colleges affiliated to it, then this
organisational pattern is called
Options:
A) A Federal University B) A Decentralized University
C) An Unitary University D) None of the above
Q11) On the basis of teaching process the universities can be categorised as

Options:
A) Traditional and Open Universities B) Central and State Universities
C) Residential cum Affiliating University D) None of the above
Q12) In 1969 the U.G.C. had appointed

Options:
A) Administration of Universities B) Administration of Colleges
C) Administrative Legislation for both of the above
Q13) What is the targeted Gross Enrolment Ratio in Higher Education by the
end of XIII Plan
1514
Options:
A) 32% B) 35% C) 38% D) 42%
Page

Q14) Which of the following is not an aim of Higher Education according to

Kothari Commission?
Options:
A) To explore new knowledge in context of truth and interpret it in terms of

ancient knowledge and beliefs in contemporary needs
B) To give right leadership in all the fields of life
C) To promote social justice and equality
D) To explore innate abilities in persons and develop them through training
Q15) The U.G.C. have launched Career Orientation Programme in

Options:
A) 1994- 95 B) 1995-96 C) 1986-87 D) 1992
Q16) The number of State Universities in India as on 15th January, 2016 was
Options:
A) 344 B) 220 C) 225 D) 230
Q17) When a university runs some courses in its Central Campus and some
other course in its affiliating colleges, such University is called as
Options:
A) Residential-Affiliating University B) Affiliating University
C) Unitary Teaching University D) None of the above
Q18) Project cost of RUSA is to be shared between the centre and state in the
ratio of except for special category states
Options:
A) 50:50 B) 60:40 C) 65:35 D) 70:30
Q19) The aim of Higher Education according to Radhakrishnan Commission is

Options:
A) To develop the great personalities who can give their contributions in politics,
administration, profession, industry and commerce
B) To preserve the democratic values and develop a harmony between individual
and society
C) To pay respect to old beliefs and develop intellectual giants having faith in
1515
new beliefs and ideologies and their coordination with old ones
D) All of the above
Page

Q20) Ge nerally in Federal type of Universities the Organisational Pattern of

Courses is
Options:
A) Post Graduate Courses in University Campus and Graduate Courses in

Constituent College
B) Post Graduate and Graduate Courses in University Campus while Graduate
Courses are only in its Constituent Colleges
C) Special Post Graduate Courses in University Campus and in Constituent
Colleges both types of the courses
Q21) Open Universities are treated as Non-traditional Universities because

Options:
A) I nnovative methods of teaching and learning are used in these Universities

B) Innovation methods of admission, curriculum and evaluation are followed in
these universities
C) Modern Communication Techniques are used in these universities
D) All of the above
Q22) Which of the following are included in main feature of the UGC Xith Year
Plan(2007-12) for University only?
Options:
A) I ncentives for resource mobilization
B) Universities with potential for excellence
C) Basic facilities for women
D) All of the above
Q23) Who was the Chairman of the U.G.C. Committee 1969 appointed for
Administrative Legislation of the Universities?
Options:
A) Dr. P.B. Gajendragadkar B) Dr. Laxman Swami Mudaliar
C) Dr. Sarvapalli Radha Krishnan D) Dr.Zakir Hussain
Q24) A high level committee was set up in April 2009, headed by formed UGC
Chairman Yash Pal for
1516
Options:
A) Restructuring high education in the country B) New University
Page
C) Salary revision D) None of the above

Q25) The Development objective of Higher Education during Twelfth Five Year
Plan (2012-17) is based on
Options:
A) Expansion B) Equity C) Excellence D) All of the above
Q26) Delhi University is a

Options:
A) Central University B) State University
C) Deemed University D) Cannot say
Q27) The National Institute of Education Planning and Administration has been
converted into a Deemed University and is now called the
Options:
A) NUEPA B) ERN ET C) CIEFL D) INDEST
Q28) On the basis of organisational structure the Universities can be classified

as
Options:
A) Residential and Affiliating Universities B) Central and State Universities
C) Unitary and Federal Universities D) None of the above
Q29) The total number of Central Universities in India on 15 th January, 2016

was
Options:
A) 10
B) 46
C) 25
D) 31
Q30) Unitary Teaching College is called

Options:
A) Residential University
1517
B) Affiliating University
C) Residential cum Affiliating University
Page

Q31) The main aim of Vocationalisation in Higher Education is

Options:
A) To control the enrolment of students in Post Graduation Courses
B) To create repulsion towards Higher Education
C) To shift the students attention from the problem of Unemployment
D) To guard the students from continuing higher education without purpose
Q32) The aim of U.G.C.s Standing Committee of Vocational Education is
Options:
A) To identify such institution where vocational courses can be implemented
B) To impact training to the teachers for vocational education
C) To prepare study material for vocational courses
D) All of the above
Q33) The Residential Universities are the Universities having

Options:
A) Central Campus for Imparting Education
B) Many Campuses for Imparting Education
D) None of the above are correct
Q34) Gross enrolment Ratio in Higher Education in India during 2014-15 is

Options:
A) 23.6% B) 21.5% C) 20.3% D) 19.5%
Q35) What amount has been made in the Eleventh Five Year Plan for Education
Mission through ICT?
Options:
A) 5000 crore B) 5500 crore C) 6000 crore D) 6500 crore
Q36) The UGC INFONET network is run and managed by

Options:
1518
A) ERN ET B) NUEPA C) INFLIBNET D) None of the above

Page

Q37) The agency which have founded SCOVE is

Options:
A) UGC B) NCERT C) ICSSR D) CSIR
Q38) At the end of Eleventh Five Year Plan the total number of Deemed
Universities in India was
Options:
A) 129
B) 115
C) 117
D) 119
Q39) Which of the following is not related to Indian Education Commission's

(1964-66) recommendations?
Options:
A) University's Autonomy and Income Expenditure
B) Role and Appointment of Vice chancellor
C) University Legislation
D) Role of Registrar
Q40) The abbreviation 'SCOVE' stands for

Options:
A) Standing Committee of Vocational Education
B) Supreme Court Ordinance on Vocational Employment
C) State Committee on Vocational Education
D) State Council of Virtual Education
Q41) The meaning of Affiliating University is
Options:
A) The universities which are not having Central Campus for teaching but it is
going on in Affiliating Colleges
B) The universities which implement Curriculum only and Coordinating
Examinations
C) The Universities which work as distribution of Degrees
1519
D) All the above are true

Page

Q42) The total number of Deemed Universities in India upto 15th January, 2016
was
Options:
A) 125
B) 99
C) 69
D) 97
Q43) To which committee, the name of Rev. P.T. Chandi was associated?
Options:
A) The Committee for College Administrative Legislation
B) The Committee for University Administrative Legislation
C) Affiliating Universitys Standardization Committee
D) Federal University's Standard Committee
Answers:
Q1) B, Q2) C, Q3) D, Q4) A, Q5) A,
Q6) D, Q7) A, Q8) D, Q9) A, Q10) A,
Q11) A, Q12) C, Q13) A, Q14) D, Q15) A,
Q16) A, Q17) A, Q18) C, Q19) D, Q20) A,
Q21) D, Q22) D, Q23) A, Q24) A, Q25) D,
Q26) A, Q27) A, Q28) A, Q29) B, Q30) A,
Q31) A, Q32) D, Q33) A, Q34) A, Q35) A,
Q36) A, Q37) A, Q38) A, Q39) D, Q40) A,
Q41) D, Q42) A, Q43) A
1520
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No# 1 QuickNET Sure Success Series

TEACHING AND RESEARCH APTITUDE

2006 to 2017 [Solved]

With Solutions & Explanations

Authentic & Dependable

CBSE UGC NET / JRF / SET

A student who goes through by exercising all the objective

This book is made for Part I of UGC NET Exam. Paper 1

We sincerely believe that students should acquire balanced

UNIT 3 Communication...................................................................... 601

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SUBJECT: GENERAL PAPER ON TEACHING

The main objective is to assess the teaching and research

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Factors affecting teaching;

II. Research Aptitude

Paper, article, workshop, seminar, conference and symposium;

III. Reading Comprehension

V. Reasoning (Including Mathematical)

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VI. Logical Reasoning

Verbal analogies: Word analogy Applied analogy;

VII. Data Interpretation

VIII. Information and Communicating Technology (ICT)

IX. People and Environment

X. Higher Education System:

Structure of the institutions for higher learning and research in India;

governance, polity and administration; concept, institutions and their

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CBSE UGC NET - JANUARY 2017

4. Act, observe, plan, reflect

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A Experimental method i Using primary secondary sources

B Ex post-facto method ii Questionnaire

C Descriptive survey method iii Standardized tests

D Historical method iv Typical characteristics tests

2. At the stage of defining the population of research

1. Doctoral level thesis

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4. Encouraged the liberation of countries

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3. They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties

1. Military occupation of ones own soil

3. Indian literature does not have a marked landscape

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(iii) All courses are untouchability

3. (iii) and (iv)

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2. Some persons who win the race are not brave

Items 2012 2013 2014 2015

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A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by

Q35) What proportion of female students are good?

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Q37) Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

3. iv, iii, ii, i