This booklet contains 24 printed pages.

MRF No. :

PAPER - 1 : PHYSICS, MATHEMATICS & CHEMISTRY Test Booklet Code

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with only Black Ball Point
B
Pen provided in the examination hall.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and
Chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted
4 (four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each question.
¼ (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question (i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted for indicating
incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated
for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
8. For writing particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet use only
Black Ball Point Pen provided in the examination hall.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/
hall.
10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This
space is given at the bottom of each page and in four pages (Page 20-23) at the end of the
booklet.
11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
12. The CODE for this Booklet is B. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side–2 of the Answer
Sheet is same as that on this Booklet. Also tally the serial number of the Test Booklet and
Answer Sheet are the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should
immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and
the Answer Sheet.
13. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters ) :

Roll Number : in figures

: in words

Examination Centre Number :

Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters) :

Candidate’s Signature : 1. Invigilator’s Signature :

2. Invigilator’s Signature :
 PART A — PHYSICS 3. A solid sphere of radius r made of a soft
material of bulk modulus K is surrounded
ALL THE GRAPHS/DIAGRAMS GIVEN ARE by a liquid in a cylindrical container. A
SCHEMATIC AND NOT DRAWN TO SCALE. massless piston of area a floats on the
surface of the liquid, covering entire cross
section of cylindrical container. When a
1. It is found that if a neutron suffers an mass m is placed on the surface of the
elastic collinear collision with deuterium piston to compress the liquid, the fractional
at rest, fractional loss of its energy is pd ; decrement in the radius of the sphere,
while for its similar collision with carbon
nucleus at rest, fractional loss of energy  dr  , is :
 
is p c . The values of p d and p c are  r 

respectively :
mg
(1) (0, 0) (1)
3 Ka

(2) (0, 1) mg
(2)
Ka
(3) (⋅89, ⋅28)
Ka
(3) mg
(4) (⋅28, ⋅89)

Ka
(4) 3 mg
2. The mass of a hydrogen molecule is
3.32×10 −27 kg. If 10 23 hydrogen
molecules strike, per second, a fixed wall 4. Two batteries with e.m.f. 12 V and 13 V
of area 2 cm 2 at an angle of 458 to the are connected in parallel across a load
normal, and rebound elastically with a resistor of 10 Ω. The internal resistances of
speed of 103 m/s, then the pressure on the the two batteries are 1 Ω and 2 Ω
wall is nearly : respectively. The voltage across the load
lies between :
(1) 2.35×102 N/m2
(1) 11.4 V and 11.5 V
(2) 4.70×102 N/m2
(2) 11.7 V and 11.8 V
(3) 2.35×103 N/m2 (3) 11.6 V and 11.7 V

(4) 4.70×103 N/m2 (4) 11.5 V and 11.6 V

B/Page 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

5. A particle is moving in a circular path of 7. If the series limit frequency of the Lyman
radius a under the action of an attractive series is νL, then the series limit frequency
k of the Pfund series is :
potential U=− . Its total energy is :
2r 2 (1) νL/16
(2) νL/25
(1) Zero
(3) 25 νL
3 k (4) 16 νL
(2) −
2 a2
8. Unpolarized light of intensity I passes
k through an ideal polarizer A. Another
(3) − 2
4a identical polarizer B is placed behind A.
The intensity of light beyond B is found to
k I
(4) be . Now another identical polarizer C
2 a2 2
is placed between A and B. The intensity
I
beyond B is now found to be . The angle
6. Two masses m 1=5 kg and m 2=10 kg, 8
connected by an inextensible string over a between polarizer A and C is :
frictionless pulley, are moving as shown (1) 458
in the figure. The coefficient of friction of (2) 608
horizontal surface is 0.15. The minimum (3) 08
weight m that should be put on top of m2 (4) 308
to stop the motion is :
9. An electron from various excited states of
hydrogen atom emit radiation to come to
the ground state. Let λ n , λ g be the
de Broglie wavelength of the electron in
the n th state and the ground state
respectively. Let Λn be the wavelength of
the emitted photon in the transition from
the nth state to the ground state. For large
n, (A, B are constants)
(1) Λ2n ≈ A+B λn2
(1) 43.3 kg
(2) Λn2 ≈λ
(2) 10.3 kg
B
(3) Λn ≈ A + 2
(3) 18.3 kg λn

(4) 27.3 kg (4) Λn ≈ A +B λn

B/Page 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

10. The reading of the ammeter for a silicon 13. For an RLC circuit driven with voltage of
diode in the given circuit is : 1
amplitude vm and frequency ωo=
LC
the current exibits resonance. The quality
factor, Q is given by :
R
(1) ( ωo C)

CR
(2) ωo
(1) 11.5 mA
(2) 13.5 mA ωo L
(3)
(3) 0 R
(4) 15 mA ωo R
(4)
L
11. An electron, a proton and an alpha 14. A telephonic communication service is
particle having the same kinetic energy are working at carrier frequency of 10 GHz.
moving in circular orbits of radii re, rp, rα Only 10% of it is utilized for transmission.
respectively in a uniform magnetic field B. How many telephonic channels can be
The relation between re, rp, rα is : transmitted simultaneously if each channel
(1) re < rp < rα requires a bandwidth of 5 kHz ?
(2) re < rα < rp (1) 2×10 5
(3) re > rp = rα (2) 2×10 6
(4) re < rp = rα (3) 2×10 3
(4) 2×10 4
12. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance
15. A granite rod of 60 cm length is clamped
90 pF is connected to a battery of emf
at its middle point and is set into
20 V. If a dielectric material of dielectric
longitudinal vibrations. The density of
5 granite is 2.7×103 kg/m3 and its Young’s
constant K = is inserted between the
3
modulus is 9.27×1010 Pa. What will be
plates, the magnitude of the induced
the fundamental frequency of the
charge will be :
longitudinal vibrations ?
(1) 2.4 n C
(1) 10 kHz
(2) 0.9 n C (2) 7.5 kHz
(3) 1.2 n C (3) 5 kHz
(4) 0.3 n C (4) 2.5 kHz

B/Page 4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

16. Seven identical circular planar disks, each 18. In a potentiometer experiment, it is found
of mass M and radius R are welded that no current passes through the
symmetrically as shown. The moment of galvanometer when the terminals of the
inertia of the arrangement about the axis cell are connected across 52 cm of the
normal to the plane and passing through potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted
the point P is : by a resistance of 5 Ω, a balance is found
when the cell is connected across 40 cm of
the wire. Find the internal resistance of
the cell.
(1) 2Ω
(2) 2.5 Ω
(3) 1Ω
(4) 1.5 Ω

73
(1) MR 2 19. An EM wave from air enters a medium.
2
181 The electric fields are
(2) MR 2
2 → ∧  z 
E 1= E01 x cos  2 πν  − t   in air and
19  c 
(3) MR 2
2 → ∧
E 2= E02 x cos [ k (2 z−ct)] in medium,
55
(4) MR 2 where the wave number k and
2
frequency ν refer to their values in air. The
17. Three concentric metal shells A, B and C
of respective radii a, b and c (a < b < c) medium is non-magnetic. If ȏ r1 and ȏr
2
have surface charge densities +σ, −σ and refer to relative permittivities of air and
+σ respectively. The potential of shell B medium respectively, which of the
is : following options is correct ?

σ  b2 − c2 
r 1
1
(1)  + a (1) =
o  b 
r
2
4

σ  b2 − c2 
r 1
1
(2)  + a (2) =
o  c 
r
2
2

r
σ  a 2 − b2  1
=4
(3)  + c (3)
o  a 
r
2

r
σ  a 2 − b2  1
=2
(4)  + c (4)
o  b 
r
2

B/Page 5 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

20. The angular width of the central 22. From a uniform circular disc of radius R
maximum in a single slit diffraction R
and mass 9 M, a small disc of radius
is
pattern is 608. The width of the slit is 3
1 µm. The slit is illuminated by removed as shown in the figure. The
monochromatic plane waves. If another moment of inertia of the remaining disc
slit of same width is made near it, Young’s about an axis perpendicular to the plane
fringes can be observed on a screen placed of the disc and passing through centre of
at a distance 50 cm from the slits. If the disc is :
observed fringe width is 1 cm, what is slit
separation distance ?

(i.e. distance between the centres of each

slit.)

(1) 75 µm
(1) 10 MR2
(2) 100 µm
37
(2) MR 2
9
(3) 25 µm
(3) 4 MR2
(4) 50 µm 40
(4) MR 2
9

23. In a collinear collision, a particle with an

21. A silver atom in a solid oscillates in simple initial speed vo strikes a stationary particle
harmonic motion in some direction with a of the same mass. If the final total kinetic
frequency of 1012/sec. What is the force energy is 50% greater than the original
constant of the bonds connecting one atom kinetic energy, the magnitude of the
with the other ? (Mole wt. of silver=108 and relative velocity between the two particles,
Avagadro number=6.02×1023 gm mole−1) after collision, is :
vo
(1) 2.2 N/m (1)
2
vo
(2) 5.5 N/m (2)
2
vo
(3) 6.4 N/m (3)
4
(4) 7.1 N/m (4) 2 vo

B/Page 6 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

24. The dipole moment of a circular loop 27. In an a.c. circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f.
carrying a current I, is m and the magnetic and current are given by
field at the centre of the loop is B1. When e=100 sin 30 t
the dipole moment is doubled by keeping
i=20 sin  30 t − 
π
the current constant, the magnetic field at  4
B1 In one cycle of a.c., the average power
the centre of the loop is B2. The ratio
B2 consumed by the circuit and the wattless
is : current are, respectively :
(1) 2 50
(1) ,0
1 2
(2) (2) 50, 0
2
(3) 2 (3) 50, 10
1000
(4) 3 (4) , 10
2

25. The density of a material in the shape of a 28. All the graphs below are intended to
cube is determined by measuring three represent the same motion. One of them
sides of the cube and its mass. If the does it incorrectly. Pick it up.
relative errors in measuring the mass and
length are respectively 1.5% and 1%, the
maximum error in determining the density (1)
is :
(1) 4.5%
(2) 6%
(3) 2.5%
(4) 3.5% (2)

26. On interchanging the resistances, the

balance point of a meter bridge shifts to
the left by 10 cm. The resistance of their
series combination is 1 kΩ. How much was (3)
the resistance on the left slot before
interchanging the resistances ?
(1) 550 Ω
(2) 910 Ω (4)
(3) 990 Ω
(4) 505 Ω

B/Page 7 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

29. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas PART B — MATHEMATICS
occupies a volume V at 278C. The gas
expands adiabatically to a volume 2 V.
31. If the tangent at (1, 7) to the curve
Calculate (a) the final temperature of the
x 2 =y−6 touches the circle
gas and (b) change in its internal energy.
x2+y2+16x+12y+c=0 then the value of
c is :

(1) (a) 189 K (b) −2.7 kJ (1) 85

(2) 95
(3) 195
(2) (a) 195 K (b) 2.7 kJ
(4) 185

(3) (a) 189 K (b) 2.7 kJ

32. If L1 is the line of intersection of the planes
2x−2y+3z−2=0, x−y+z+1=0 and
(4) (a) 195 K (b) −2.7 kJ L2 is the line of intersection of the planes
x+2y−z−3=0, 3x−y+2z−1=0, then
the distance of the origin from the plane,
containing the lines L1 and L2, is :
1
(1)
2 2
30. A particle is moving with a uniform speed
in a circular orbit of radius R in a central 1
(2)
force inversely proportional to the n th 2
power of R. If the period of rotation of the 1
particle is T, then : (3)
4 2
1
(4)
(1) T∝R(n+1)/2 3 2

33. If α, β e C are the distinct roots, of the

(2) T∝Rn/2
equation x2−x+1=0, then α101+β107 is
equal to :
(3) T∝R3/2 for any n. (1) 1
(2) 2

n +1
(3) −1
(4) T∝R 2
(4) 0

B/Page 8 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

34. Tangents are drawn to the hyperbola 38. If sum of all the solutions of the equation
4x2−y2=36 at the points P and Q. If these  π  π  1
8 cos x ⋅  cos  + x  ⋅ cos  − x  −  = 1
tangents intersect at the point T(0, 3) then   6   6  2
the area (in sq. units) of ∆PTQ is : in [0, π] is kπ, then k is equal to :
(1) 60 3 8
(1)
9
(2) 36 5
20
(3) 45 5 (2)
9
(4) 54 3 2
(3)
3
35. If the curves y 2 =6x, 9x 2 +by 2 =16 13
intersect each other at right angles, then (4)
9
the value of b is :
(1) 4 39. A bag contains 4 red and 6 black balls. A
ball is drawn at random from the bag, its
9
(2) colour is observed and this ball along with
2
(3) 6 two additional balls of the same colour are
returned to the bag. If now a ball is drawn
7
(4) at random from the bag, then the
2
probability that this drawn ball is red, is :
36. If the system of linear equations
1
x+ky+3z=0 (1)
5
3x+ky−2z=0 3
2x+4y−3z=0 (2)
4
xz 3
has a non-zero solution (x, y, z), then (3)
y2 10
is equal to : 2
(4)
(1) −30 5
(2) 30
1 1
(3) −10 40. Let f ( x ) = x 2 + and g( x ) = x − ,
2
x x
(4) 10 f (x )
x e R−{−1, 0, 1}. If h( x ) = , then the
37. Let S={x e R : x / 0 and g(x )
local minimum value of h(x) is :
2? x −3?+ x ( x −6)+6=0}. Then S :
(1) −2 2
(1) contains exactly two elements.
(2) contains exactly four elements. (2) 2 2
(3) is an empty set. (3) 3
(4) contains exactly one element. (4) −3

B/Page 9 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

41. Two sets A and B are as under : 45. The sum of the co-efficients of all odd
A={(a, b) e R×R : ?a−5? < 1 and degree terms in the expansion of
5 5
?b−5? < 1};
B={(a, b) e R×R : 4(a−6) 2 +9(b−5) 2
( x + x3 − 1 ) ( + x − x3 − 1 ) , (x > 1)
is :
≤ 36}. Then : (1) 1
(1) A ∩ B = φ (an empty set) (2) 2
(2) neither A ⊂ B nor B ⊂ A (3) −1
(3) B⊂A (4) 0
(4) A⊂B
46. Let a1, a2, a3, ....., a49 be in A.P. such that
42. The Boolean expression 12
~(p ∨ q) ∨ (~ p ∧ q) is equivalent to : ∑ a4k+1 = 416 and a 9 +a 43 =66. If
k=0
(1) q
a12 + a 22 + ..... + a17
2
= 140 m , then m is
(2) ~q
(3) ~p equal to :
(1) 34
(4) p
(2) 33
43. Tangent and normal are drawn at
(3) 66
P(16, 16) on the parabola y2=16x, which
(4) 68
intersect the axis of the parabola at A and
B, respectively. If C is the centre of the 47. A straight line through a fixed point (2, 3)
intersects the coordinate axes at distinct
circle through the points P, A and B and
points P and Q. If O is the origin and the
∠CPB=θ, then a value of tan θ is :
rectangle OPRQ is completed, then the
(1) 3
locus of R is :
4 (1) 3x+2y=xy
(2)
3 (2) 3x+2y=6xy
1 (3) 3x+2y=6
(3)
2 (4) 2x+3y=xy
(4) 2
π
2
sin 2 x
44. If
x−4 2x
2 x x−4
2x
2 x = (A + Bx )(x − A)2 ,
48. The value of
∫
−π2
1 + 2x
dx is :

2x 2 x x−4
(1) 4π
then the ordered pair (A, B) is equal to : π
(1) (−4, 5) (2)
4
(2) (4, 5) π
(3)
(3) (−4, −5) 8
π
(4) (−4, 3) (4)
2
B/Page 10 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
49. Let g(x)=cos x 2 , f (x) = x , and 52. The integral
sin 2 x cos 2 x
α, β (α < β) be the roots of the quadratic
equation 18x 2 −9πx+π 2 =0. Then the ∫ (sin x+cos x sin x+sin x cos x+cos x) dx
5 3 2 3 2 5 2

area (in sq. units) bounded by the curve is equal to :

y=(gof )(x) and the lines x=α, x=β and 1
(1) +C
y=0, is : 1 + cot 3 x

1 −1
(1) ( 3− 2 ) (2) +C
2 1 + cot 3 x

1 1
+C
(2)
2
( 2 −1 ) (3)
3(1 + tan 3 x )

1 −1
(3)
2
( 3 −1 ) (4)
3(1 + tan 3 x )
+C

1 (where C is a constant of integration)

(4)
2
( 3 +1 )
53. Let S={t e R : f (x)=?x−π? ⋅ (e?x?−1) sin?x?
is not differentiable at t}. Then the set S is
50. For each t e R, let [t] be the greatest integer equal to :
less than or equal to t. Then (1) {π}
lim x   1  +  2  + ..... +  15   (2) {0, π}
x→0+   x   x   x  
(3) φ (an empty set)
(1) is equal to 120. (4) {0}

(2) does not exist (in R). 54. Let y=y(x) be the solution of the
(3) is equal to 0. differential equation
dy
(4) is equal to 15. sin x + y cosx = 4x , x  (0, π) . If
dx
π π
y   = 0 , then y   is equal to :
9 9 2 6
51. If ∑ (xi − 5) = 9 and ∑ (xi − 5)2 = 45 , 8 2
i=1 i=1 (1) − π
then the standard deviation of the 9 items 9
x1, x2, ....., x9 is : 4 2
(2) − π
9
(1) 2
4
(2) 3 (3) π2
9 3
(3) 9
−8 2
(4) π
(4) 4 9 3

B/Page 11 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 → 58. From 6 different novels and 3 different
55. Let u be a vector coplanar with the vectors
→ ∧ ∧ ∧ → ∧ ∧ →
dictionaries, 4 novels and 1 dictionary are
a = 2 i + 3 j − k and b = j + k . If u to be selected and arranged in a row on a
→ → → shelf so that the dictionary is always in
is perpendicular to a and u ⋅ b = 24 ,
the middle. The number of such
→2
then u is equal to : arrangements is :
(1) 256 (1) at least 500 but less than 750
(2) 84 (2) at least 750 but less than 1000

(3) 336 (3) at least 1000

(4) 315 (4) less than 500

56. The length of the projection of the line 59. Let A be the sum of the first 20 terms and
segment joining the points (5, −1, 4) and B be the sum of the first 40 terms of the
(4, −1, 3) on the plane, x+y+z=7 is : series
1 12+2⋅22+32+2⋅4 2+52+2⋅62+.....
(1)
3
If B−2A=100λ, then λ is equal to :
2 (1) 464
(2)
3 (2) 496
2 (3) 232
(3)
3 (4) 248
2
(4)
3
60. Let the orthocentre and centroid of a
triangle be A(−3, 5) and B(3, 3)
57. PQR is a triangular park with
respectively. If C is the circumcentre of
PQ=PR=200 m. A T.V. tower stands at
this triangle, then the radius of the circle
the mid-point of QR. If the angles of
having line segment AC as diameter, is :
elevation of the top of the tower at P, Q
and R are respectively 458, 308 and 308, 5
(1) 3
then the height of the tower (in m) is : 2

(1) 100 3 3 5
(2)
2
(2) 50 2
(3) 10
(3) 100
(4) 50 (4) 2 10

B/Page 12 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 PART C — CHEMISTRY 64. The increasing order of basicity of the
following compounds is :

61. Total number of lone pair of electrons in (a)

3 ion is :
I−
(b)
(1) 9
(2) 12
(3) 3 (c)
(4) 6

(d)
62. Which of the following salts is the most
basic in aqueous solution ?
(1) FeCl3
(1) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
(2) Pb(CH3COO)2
(2) (d) < (b) < (a) < (c)
(3) Al(CN)3
(4) CH3COOK (3) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)

(4) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)

63. Phenol reacts with methyl chloroformate
in the presence of NaOH to form product
A. A reacts with Br2 to form product B.
65. An alkali is titrated against an acid with
A and B are respectively :
methyl orange as indicator, which of the
following is a correct combination ?
(1)
Base Acid End point

(1) Weak Strong Yellow to

(2) pinkish red

(2) Strong Strong Pink to

colourless
(3)
(3) Weak Strong Colourless to
pink

(4) Strong Strong Pinkish red

(4)
to yellow

B/Page 13 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

66. The trans-alkenes are formed by the 69. The major product formed in the following
reduction of alkynes with : reaction is :

(1) Na/liq. NH3

(2) Sn - HCl

(3) H2 - Pd/C, BaSO4

(4) NaBH4

(1)
67. The ratio of mass percent of C and H of an
organic compound (CXHYOZ) is 6 : 1. If
one molecule of the above compound
(CXHYOZ) contains half as much oxygen
(2)
as required to burn one molecule of
compound CXHY completely to CO2 and
H2O. The empirical formula of compound
CXHYOZ is :
(3)
(1) C 3H4O 2

(2) C 2H4O 3

(3) C 3H6O 3 (4)

(4) C 2H 4O

70. How long (approximate) should water be

68. Hydrogen peroxide oxidises [Fe(CN)6]4−
electrolysed by passing through
to [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3− in acidic medium but
100 amperes current so that the oxygen
reduces [Fe(CN) 6]3− to [Fe(CN) 6]4− in
released can completely burn 27.66 g of
alkaline medium. The other products
diborane ?
formed are, respectively :
(Atomic weight of B=10.8 u)
(1) H2O and (H2O+O2)
(1) 3.2 hours
(2) H2O and (H2 O+OH−)
(2) 1.6 hours
(3) (H2O+O2) and H2O (3) 6.4 hours

(4) (H2O+O2) and (H2O+OH−) (4) 0.8 hours

B/Page 14 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

71. Which of the following lines correctly show 73. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI
the temperature dependence of gives :
equilibrium constant, K, for an exothermic
reaction ? (1) Hexanoic acid

(2) 6-iodohexanal

(3) n-Hexane

(4) 1-Hexene

74. Consider the following reaction and

statements :
(1) C and D
[Co(NH3)4Br2]++Br−→[Co(NH3)3Br3]+NH3
(2) A and D
(I) Two isomers are produced if the
(3) A and B reactant complex ion is a cis-isomer.

(II) Two isomers are produced if the

(4) B and C
reactant complex ion is a trans-
isomer.

(III) Only one isomer is produced if the

72. At 5188 C, the rate of decomposition of a
reactant complex ion is a trans-
sample of gaseous acetaldehyde, initially
isomer.
at a pressure of 363 Torr, was
1.00 Torr s−1 when 5% had reacted and (IV) Only one isomer is produced if the
0.5 Torr s−1 when 33% had reacted. The reactant complex ion is a cis-isomer.
order of the reaction is :
The correct statements are :
(1) 1
(1) (III) and (IV)
(2) 0
(2) (II) and (IV)

(3) 2 (3) (I) and (II)

(4) 3 (4) (I) and (III)

B/Page 15 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

75. The major product of the following 76. Phenol on treatment with CO 2 in the
reaction is : presence of NaOH followed by
acidification produces compound X as the
major product. X on treatment with
(CH 3CO)2O in the presence of catalytic
amount of H2SO4 produces :

(1)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(4)

B/Page 16 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

77. An aqueous solution contains an unknown 79. When metal ‘M’ is treated with NaOH, a
concentration of Ba2+. When 50 mL of a white gelatinous precipitate ‘X’ is obtained,
1 M solution of Na2SO4 is added, BaSO4 which is soluble in excess of NaOH.
just begins to precipitate. The final volume Compound ’X’ when heated strongly gives
is 500 mL. The solubility product of BaSO4 an oxide which is used in chromatography
is 1×10 −10 . What is the original as an adsorbent. The metal ‘M’ is :
concentration of Ba2+ ? (1) Al

(1) 1.1×10−9 M (2) Fe

(3) Zn
(2) 1.0×10−10 M
(4) Ca

(3) 5×10−9 M
80. An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M H2S
(4) 2×10−9 M and 0.20 M HCl. If the equilibrium
constants for the formation of HS− from
H2S is 1.0×10 −7 and that of S 2− from
HS − ions is 1.2×10 −13 then the
78. Which of the following compounds will
concentration of S 2− ions in aqueous
be suitable for Kjeldahl’s method for
solution is :
nitrogen estimation ?
(1) 6×10 −21
(2) 5×10 −19

(1) (3) 5×10 −8

(4) 3×10 −20

81. The recommended concentration of

(2)
fluoride ion in drinking water is up to
1 ppm as fluoride ion is required to make
teeth enamel harder by converting
[3Ca3(PO4)2⋅Ca(OH)2] to :
(3)
(1) [3Ca3(PO 4)2⋅CaF 2]
(2) [3{Ca(OH)2}⋅CaF2]
(3) [CaF2]
(4)
(4) [3(CaF2)⋅Ca(OH)2]

B/Page 17 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

82. The compound that does not produce 84. The oxidation states of
nitrogen gas by the thermal decomposition Cr in [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ]Cl 3 , [Cr(C 6 H 6 ) 2 ], and
is : K2[Cr(CN) 2(O) 2(O 2)(NH 3)] respectively
are :
(1) NH4NO2
(1) +3, 0, and +6

(2) (NH4)2SO4 (2) +3, 0, and +4

(3) +3, +4, and +6

(3) Ba(N3)2
(4) +3, +2, and +4
(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7

85. Which type of ‘defect’ has the presence of

cations in the interstitial sites ?
83. The predominant form of histamine
(1) Frenkel defect
present in human blood is (pK a ,
Histidine=6.0) (2) Metal deficiency defect

(3) Schottky defect

(4) Vacancy defect

(1)

86. The combustion of benzene (l) gives CO2(g)

and H2O(l). Given that heat of combustion
of benzene at constant volume is
(2)
−3263.9 kJ mol −1 at 258 C; heat of
combustion (in kJ mol−1) of benzene at
constant pressure will be :

(R=8.314 JK−1 mol−1)

(3)
(1) 3260

(2) −3267.6

(3) 4152.6
(4)
(4) −452.46

B/Page 18 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

87. Which of the following are Lewis acids ? 89. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the
following compounds, which one will
(1) PH3 and SiCl4 show the highest freezing point ?

(2) BCl3 and AlCl3 (1) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl . 2H2O

(2) [Co(H2O)3Cl3] . 3H2O
(3) PH3 and BCl3
(3) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
(4) AlCl3 and SiCl4 (4) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 . H2O

90. According to molecular orbital theory,

88. Which of the following compounds which of the following will not be a viable
contain(s) no covalent bond(s) ? molecule ?

KCl, PH3, O2, B2H6, H2SO4 (1) H−

2

(1) KCl
(2) H22−
2+
(3) He2
(2) KCl, B2H6
+
(4) He2
(3) KCl, B2H6, PH3

(4) KCl, H2SO4

-o0o-

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

B/Page 19 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

B/Page 20 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

B/Page 21 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

B/Page 22 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

B/Page 23 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Read the following instructions carefully :

1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer
Sheet (Side–1) with Black Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on Side–2 of the Answer Sheet, use Black Ball Point Pen
only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified
space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response, ¼ (one–fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question
(i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score,
however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for
discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set will be provided.
7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer
Sheet. All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose
in the Test Booklet itself, marked ‘Space for Rough Work’. This space is given at the
bottom of each page and in four pages (Page 20-23) at the end of the booklet.
8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should
leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer
Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a
candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to have
handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates
are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in
the Attendance Sheet.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic device like mobile phone, pager
etc. is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with
regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt
with as per Rules and Regulations of the Examination body.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
15. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of
papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit
Card inside the examination room/hall.
B/Page 24