Chapterwise - Topicwise

Biology
 EBD_7325
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(ii)
 Index
NEET SOLVED PAPER 2018 2018-1- 2018- 12

1. The Living World 1-7

2. Biological Classification 8-25

3. Plant Kingdom 26-42

4. Animal Kingdom 43-60

5. Morphology of Flowering Plants 61-72

6. Anatomy of Flowering Plants 73-83

7. Structural Organisation in Animals 84-92

8. Cell: The Unit of Life 93-108

9. Biomolecules 109-119

10. Cell Cycle and Cell Division 120-127

11. Transport in Plants 128-135

12. Mineral Nutrition 136-143

13. Photosynthesis 144-156

14. Respiration in Plants 157-164

15. Plant Growth and Development 165-174

16. Digestion and Absorption 175-187

17. Breathing and Exchange of Gases 188-194

18. Body Fluids and Circulation 195-208

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19. Excretory Products and Their Elimination 209-216

20. Locomotion and Movement 217-223

21. Neural Control and Coordination 224-234

22. Chemical Coordination and Regulation 235-248

23. Reproduction in Organisms 249-252

24. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 253-267

25. Human Reproduction 268-280

26. Reproductive Health 281-285

27. Principles of Inheritance and Variation 286-316

28. Molecular Basis of Inheritance 317-336

29. Evolution 337-355

30. Human Health and Diseases 356-373

31. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 374-386

32. Microbes in Human Welfare 387-394

33. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 395-402

34. Biotechnology and Its Applications 403-409

35. Organisms and Populations 410-422

36. Ecosystem 423-434

37. Biodiversity and its Conservation 435-445

38. Environmental Issues 446-460

(iv)
 NEET Solved Paper 2018
1. The difference between spermiogenesis and A B C
spermiation is (1) iii ii i
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, (2) i iii ii
while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed. (3) iii i ii
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are (4) ii iii i
formed, while in spermiation spermatids 6. All of the following are part of an operon except
are formed. (1) an operator (2) structural genes
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are (3) a promoter (4) an enhancer
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa 7. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
are released from sertoli cells into the her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
cavity of seminiferous tubules. inherited by
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from (1) Only daughters
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of (2) Only sons
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation (3) Both sons and daughters
spermatozoa are formed. (4) Only grandchildren
2. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from 8. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm evolution is
(2) endoderm and mesoderm (1) Multiple step mutations
(3) ectoderm and endoderm (2) Saltation
(4) mesoderm and trophoblast (3) Minor mutations
3. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ (4) Phenotypic variations
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, 9. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
preventing eggs from getting implanted. strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen and
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU
prevents ovulation in females.
(2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(3) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(3) UCCAUAGCGUA
(4) is an IUD.
(4) ACCUAUGCGAU
4. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
10. Among the following sets of examples for
pregnancy are divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin (1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin (2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(3) hCG, progestogen s, estr ogens, (3) Eye of octopus, bat and man
glucocorticoids (4) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens 11. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
5. Match the items given in Column I with those nutritional value by increasing the amount of
in Column II and select the correct option given (1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin A
below : (3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin B12
Column I Column II 12. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
A. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of disease?
endometrial (1) Psoriasis
lining (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase (3) Vitiligo
C. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase (4) Alzheimer’s disease
 EBD_7325
2018-2 BIOLOGY
13. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs Column-I Column-II
of many vertebrates is an example of A. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
(1) Homology B. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
(2) Analogy C. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
(3) Adaptive radiation enrichment
(4) Convergent evolution D. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
14. Which of the following characteristics represent A B C D
‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans? (1) ii i iii iv
A. Dominance (2) i iii iv ii
B. Co-dominance (3) i ii iv iii
C. Multiple allele (4) iii iv i ii
D. Incomplete dominance 21. Which of the following options correctly
E. Polygenic inheritance represents the lung conditions in asthma and
(1) B, C and E (2) A, B and C emphysema, respectively?
(3) A, C and E (4) B, D and E (1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
15. In which disease does mosquito transmitted respiratory surface
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of (2) Increased number of bronchioles;
lymphatic vessels? Increased respiratory surface
(1) Elephantiasis (3) Decreased respiratory surface;
(2) Ascariasis Inflammation of bronchioles
(3) Amoebiasis (4) Increased respiratory surface;
(4) Ringworm disease Inflammation of bronchioles
16. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ 22. Match the items given in Column I with those
conservation’ except in Column II and select the correct option given
(1) Wildlife safari parks below :
(2) Sacred groves Column I Column II
(3) Seed banks A. Tricuspid valve i. Between left
(4) Botanical gardens atrium and left
17. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the ventricle
drug “Smack”? B. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
(1) Flowers (2) Latex ventricle and
(3) Leaves (4) Roots pulmonary artery
18. In a growing population of a country, C. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
(1) pre-reproductive individuals are more than atrium and right
the reproductive individuals. ventricle
(2) reproductive individuals are less than the A B C
post-reproductive individuals. (1) iii i ii
(3) pre-reproductive individuals are less than (2) i iii ii
the reproductive individuals. (3) ii i iii
(4) reproductive and pre-reproductive (4) i ii iii
individuals are equal in number. 23. Match the items given in Column I with those
19. Which one of the following population in Column II and select the correct option given
interactions is widely used in medical science below:
for the production of antibiotics? Column I Column II
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism A. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
(3) Amensalism (4) Parasitism B. Inspiratory ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
20. Match the items given in Column I with those Reserve volume
in Column II and select the correct option given C. Expiratory iii. 500 – 550 mL
below : Reserve volume
D. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
NEET Solved Paper 2018 2018-3

A B C D A B C
(1) iii ii i iv (1) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) iii i iv ii (2) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) iv iii ii i (3) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) i iv ii iii (4) (i) (iii) (ii)
24. Which of the following is an amino acid derived 30. Which of the following is an occupational
hormone? respiratory disorder?
(1) Epinephrine (2) Ecdysone (1) Anthracis (2) Silicosis
(3) Estriol (4) Estradiol (3) Emphysema (4) Botulism
25. Which of the following structures or regions is 31. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
incorrectly paired with its functions? contraction because it
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration (1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
and cardiovascular reflexes. of active sites on actin for myosin.
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that (2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding
interconnect different regions of brain; to it.
controls movement. (3) Prevents the formation of bonds between
(3) Corpus callosum : band of fibers the myosin cross bridges and the actin
connecting left and right cerebral filament.
hemispheres. (4) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
(4) Hypothalamus : production of releasing filament.
hormones and regulation of temperature, 32. Select the incorrect match :
hunger and thirst. (1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
26. The transparent lens in the human eye is held chromosomes
in its place by (2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body (3) Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians
(2) ligaments attached to the iris chromosomes
(3) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body (4) Submetacentric – L-shaped chromosomes
(4) smooth muscles attached to the iris chromosomes
27. Which of the following hormones can play a 33. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
significant role in osteoporosis? (1) Proteins and lipids
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin (2) DNA and RNA
(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone (3) Free ribosomes and RER
(3) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin (4) Nucleic acids and SER
(4) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone 34. Which of these statements is incorrect?
28. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly (1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
help in erythropoiesis? mitochondrial matrix
(1) Chief cells (2) Mucous cells (2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(3) Parietal cells (4) Goblet cells (3) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
29. Match the items given in Column I with those outer mitochondrial membrane
in Column II and select the correct option given (4) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied
below : with NAD that can pick up hydrogen
Column I Column II atoms
A. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance 35. Which of the following events does not occur
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
B. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting (1) Protein folding
C. Albumin (iii) Defence (2) Protein glycosylation
mechanism (3) Phospholipid synthesis
(4) Cleavage of signal peptide
 EBD_7325
2018-4 BIOLOGY
36. Many ribosomes may associate with a single Column I Column II
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide (Function) (Part of Excretory
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are system)
termed as A. Ultrafiltration i. Henle’s loop
(1) Polysome (2) Polyhedral bodies B. Concentration ii. Ureter
of urine
(3) Nucleosome (4) Plastidome
C. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
37. Which of the following terms describe human
urine
dentition? D. Storage of iv. Malpighian
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont urine corpuscle
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont v. Proximal
(3) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont convoluted tubule
(4) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont A B C D
38. Identify the vertebrate group of animals (1) iv v ii iii
characterized by crop and gizzard in its (2) iv i ii iii
digestive system (3) v iv i iii
(1) Amphibia (2) Reptilia (4) v iv i ii
(3) Osteichthyes (4) Aves 45. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option given
39. Which one of these animals is not a
below :
homeotherm?
Column I Column II
(1) Macropus (2) Chelone A. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
(3) Psittacula (4) Camelus uric acid in joints
40. Which of the following features is used to B. Gout ii. Mass of
identify a male cockroach from a female crystallised
cockroach? salts within the
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the kidney
9th abdominal segment C. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation
(2) Presence of caudal styles in glomeruli
(3) Presence of anal cerci D. Glomerular iv. Presence of in
(4) Forewings with darker tegmina nephritis glucose urine
A B C D
41. Which of the following organisms are known
(1) iii ii iv i
as chief producers in the oceans?
(2) i ii iii iv
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Diatoms (3) iv i ii iii
(3) Euglenoids (4) Cyanobacteria (4) ii iii i iv
42. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in 46. What is the role of NAD + in cellular
(1) using flagella for locomotion respiration?
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing (1) It functions as an enzyme.
excess water (2) It functions as an electron carrier.
(3) having two types of nuclei (3) It is the final electron acceptor for
(4) using pseudopodia for capturing prey anaerobic respiration.
43. Which of the following animals does not (4) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
undergo metamorphosis? 47. Which one of the following plants shows a very
(1) Earthworm (2) Tunicate close relationship with a species of moth, where
(3) Starfish (4) Moth none of the two can complete its life cycle
44. Match the items given in Column I with those without the other?
in Column II and select the correct option given (1) Hydrilla (2) Yucca
(3) Viola (4) Banana
below:
NEET Solved Paper 2018 2018-5

48. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis 58. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
by (1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells
(1) Green sulphur bacteria (2) It is a membrane-bound structure
(2) Nostoc (3) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
(3) Chara (4) It takes part in spindle formation
(4) Cycas 59. Stomata in grass leaf are
49. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed (1) Dumb-bell shaped (2) Kidney shaped
by plants? (3) Barrel shaped (4) Rectangular
(1) Ferric 60. The stage during which separation of the paired
(2) Ferrous homologous chromosomes begins is
(3) Both ferric and ferrous (1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
(4) Free element (3) Zygotene (4) Diakinesis
61. Which of the following is commonly used as a
50. Double fertilization is
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
human lymphocytes?
tube with two different eggs
(1) Retrovirus (2) Ti plasmid
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
(3) pBR 322 (4) phage
nuclei
62. Use of bioresources by multinational companies
(3) Syngamy and triple fusion and organisations without authorisation from
(4) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg the concerned country and its people is called
51. Which of the following elements is responsible (1) Bio-infringement (2) Biopiracy
for maintaining turgor in cells? (3) Bioexploitation (4) Biodegradation
(1) Magnesium (2) Sodium 63. In India, the organisation responsible for
(3) Calcium (4) Potassium assessing the safety of introducing genetically
52. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in modified organisms for public use is
liquid nitrogen having a temperature of (1) Indian Council of Medical Research
(1) – 120°C (2) – 80°C (ICMR)
(3) – 160°C (4) – 196°C (2) Council for Scientific and Industrial
53. Which among the following is not a prokaryote? Research (CSIR)
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Mycobacterium (3) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(3) Oscillatoria (4) Nostoc (GEAC)
54. The two functional groups characteristic of (4) Research Committee on Genetic
sugars are Manipulation (RCGM)
(1) Hydroxyl and methyl 64. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain
(2) Carbonyl and methyl Reaction (PCR) is
(3) Carbonyl and hydroxyl (1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(4) Carbonyl and phosphate (2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
55. Which of the following is not a product of light (3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
reaction of photosynthesis? (4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(1) ATP (2) NADH 65. Select the correct match
(3) Oxygen (4) NADPH (1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
56. Stomatal movement is not affected by (2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(1) Temperature (2) Light (3) G. Mendel - Transformation
(4) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(3) CO2 concentration(4) O2 concentration
66. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign
57. The Golgi complex participates in
company, though such varieties have been
(1) Fatty acid breakdown
present in India for a long time. This is related
(2) Formation of secretory vesicles
to
(3) Activation of amino acid (1) Co-667 (2) Sharbati Sonora
(4) Respiration in bacteria (3) Basmati (4) Lerma Rojo
 EBD_7325
2018-6 BIOLOGY
67. Select the correct match 76. What type of ecological pyramid would be
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus pneumoniae obtained with the following data?
(2) Alfred Hershey and - TMV Secondary consumer : 120 g
Martha Chase Primary consumer : 60 g
(3) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon Primary producer : 10 g
Jacques Monod (1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
(4) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum (2) Pyramid of energy
and F. Stahl (3) Upright pyramid of biomass
68. Which of the following has proved helpful in (4) Upright pyramid of numbers
preserving pollen as fossils? 77. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
(1) Pollenkitt (2) Cellulosic intine (1) CO (2) CO2
(3) Sporopollenin (4) Oil content (3) O3 (4) SO2
69. The experimental proof for semiconservative 78. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
replication of DNA was first shown in a (1) 5th June (2) 21st April
(1) Fungus (2) Bacterium nd
(3) 22 April (4) 16th September
(3) Virus (4) Plant 79. Natality refers to
70. Which of the following pairs is wrongly (1) Death rate
matched? (2) Birth rate
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles (3) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance (4) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(3) T.H. Morgan : Linkage 80. Match the items given in Column I with those
(4) XO type sex : Grasshopper in Column II and select the correct option given
determination below:
71. Offsets are produced by Column I Column II
(1) Meiotic divisions (2) Mitotic divisions A. Herbarium (i) It is a place
(3) Parthenogenesis (4) Parthenocarpy having a
72. Select the correct statement collection of
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term “linkage” preserved plants
(2) Punnett square was developed by a British and animals
scientist B. Key (ii) A list that
(3) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman enumerates
(4) Spliceosomes take part in translation methodically all
73. Which of the following flowers only once in its the species found
life-time? in an area with
(1) Bamboo species (2) Jackfruit brief description
(3) Papaya (4) Mango aiding
74. Niche is identification
(1) all the biological factors in the organism’s C. Museum (iii) Is a place where
environment dried and pressed
(2) the physical space where an organism lives plant specimens
(3) the functional role played by the organism mounted on
where it lives sheets are kept
(4) the range of temperature that the organism D. Catalogue (iv) A booklet
needs to live containing a list
75. In stratosphere, which of the following elements of characters and
acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and their alternates
release of molecular oxygen? which are helpful
(1) Carbon (2) Cl in identification
(3) Oxygen (4) Fe of various taxa.
NEET Solved Paper 2018 2018-7

A B C D 86. Casparian strips occur in

(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (1) Epidermis (2) Pericycle
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) Endodermis (4) Cortex
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 87. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) produced by
81. Which one is wrongly matched? (1) Apical meristems
(1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia (2) Vascular cambium
(2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae (3) Axillary meristems
(3) Unicellular organism – Chlorella (4) Phellogen
(4) Gemma cups – Marchantia 88. Select the wrong statement :
82. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores (1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
are produced exogenously in and Plantae
(1) Neurospora (2) Alternaria (2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(3) Saccharomyces (4) Agaricus (3) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
83. Winged pollen grains are present in cell in all kingdoms except Monera
(1) Mustard (2) Cycas (4) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
structures in Sporozoans
(3) Pinus (4) Mango
89. Which of the following statements is correct?
84. Pneumatophores occur in
(1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
(1) Halophytes gymnosperms
(2) Free-floating hydrophytes
(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
(3) Submerged hydrophytes Salvinia is homosporous
(4) Carnivorous plants (3) Stems are usually unbranched in both
85. Plants having little or no secondary growth are Cycas and Cedrus
(1) Grasses (4) Horsetails are gymnosperms
(2) Deciduous angiosperms 90. Sweet potato is a modified
(3) Cycads (1) Stem (2) Adventitious root
(4) Conifers (3) Rhizome (4) Tap root
 EBD_7325
2018-8 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (3) Spermiogenesis is conversion of 8. (2) As per mutation theory which was given
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas by Hugo de Vries state that the evolution
spermiation is the release of the sperms is a discontinuous phenomenon or saltatory
from sertoli cells into the cavity of phenomenon/saltation.
seminiferous tubule. 9. (1) Coding strand and mRNA have the similar
2. (1) The extraembryonic membranes are nucleotide sequence except, Thymine (T)
amnion, chorion, allantois and yolk sac. is replaced by Uracil (U) in mRNA.
Amnion is derived from mesoderm on the 10. (3) Divergent evolution demonstrates how
outer side and ectoderm on the inner side. species can have common (homologous)
Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm anatomical structures, whereas eye of
and mesoderm, whereas allantois and yolk octopus, bat and man are examples of
sac membrane have mesoderm on analogous organs showing convergent
outerside and endoderm in inner side. evolution.
3. (1) Saheli is world's first and only oral non 11. (4) Curd has enriched presence of vitamins
steroidal contraceptive pill, dosage-once a specially Vit-B12 , which improves its
week pill. Its functioning is based upon nutritional value than milk.
selective estrogen receptor modulation and 12. (4) Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative
prevents egg from getting implanted. disorder due to deficiency of
4. (4) The placenta is an endocrine gland that is neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Rheumatoid
only present during pregnancy. It relases arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which
hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens, etc. antibodies are produced against the synovial
Human chorionic gonadotropic hormone membrane and cartilage. Vitiligo causes
(hCG) stimulates the corpus luteum during white patches on skin also characterized as
pregnancy to release estrogen and autoimmune disorder. Psoriasis is a skin
progesterone. Human placental lactogen disease that causes itchy or sore patches of
(hPL) is involved in growth of body of thick red skin and is also autoimmune.
mother and breast. Progesterone maintains 13. (1) Bird and bat wings are analogous, as
pregnancy. forelimb is homologous. In different
5. (4) In proliferative phase, the follicles start vertebrates, bones of forelimbs are similar
developing, called follicular phase. but their forelimbs are adapted in different
Secretory phase is also called as luteal way as per their adaptation, show
phase mainly controlled by progesterone homology.
secreted by corpus luteum. Menstruation 14. (2) IAIO, IBIO - Dominant-recessive relationship
involves breakdown of overgrown IAIB - Codominance
endometrial lining. IA, IB & IO - Three different allelic forms
6. (4) Unlike eukaryotes in prokaryotes the genes of a gene (multiple allelism)
are organised into operon. Operon is a co- 15. (1) Lymphatic filariasis, also known as
ordinated group of genes which are all elephantiasis, is a human disease caused
transcribed together & regulate a by parasitic worms known as filarial
metabolic pathway as a unit. worms. It is caused by roundworm,
7. (3) Woman acts as a carrier. Both son & Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted
daughter inherit X-chromosome. Although by culex mosquito.
only son would be the diseased one. 16. (2) In-situ conservation is the on-site
c
X X × XY conservation or the conservation of genetic
c c
resources in natural populations of plant
X X X Y XX XY or animal species. E.g. Sacred groves.
NEET Solved Paper 2018 2018-9

17. (2) 'Smack' also called as brown sugar/Heroin 25. (2) The limbic system (emotional motor
is formed by acetylation of morphine. It is system) is responsible for the experience
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule and expression of emotion but n ot
of Poppy plant (Papaver somniferum). movement. It is located in the core of the
18. (1) Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals brain and includes the amygdala,
or the younger population size is larger hippocampus and hypothalamus.
than the reproductive group, the population 26. (1) The muscles that move the eyeball are
will be an increasing population. attached to the sclera. Suspensory ligament
19. (3) Amensalism/antibiosis, association of lens - a series of fibers that connect the
between organisms of two different species ciliary body of the eye with the lens,
in which one is inhibited or destroyed and holding it in place.
the other is unaffected. These are chemicals 27. (4) Osteoporosis has 3 causes: excess
secreted by one microbial group (eg : parathyroid hormone, advanced age, and
Penicillium) which harm other microbes lack of estrogen in older females. Estrogen
(eg : Staphylococcus). It has no effect on promotes the activity of osteoblast and
Penicillium or the organism which inhibits osteoclast. Parathormone promotes
produces it. mobilisation of calcium from bone into
20. (4) blood. Excessive activity of parathormone
21. (1) Asthma is a common long-term causes demineralisation leading to
inflammatory disease of the airways of the osteoporosis.
lungs. It is a difficulty in breathing causing 28. (3) Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron
and bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic present in diet from ferric to ferrous form
disorder in which alveolar walls are so that it can be absorbed easily and used
damaged due to which respiratory surface during erythropoiesis. Intrinsic factor is
is decreased, and is mainly caused by essential for the absorption of vitamin B12
smoking. and its deficiency causes pernicious
22. (1) Tricuspid valves are AV valve present anaemia.
between right atrium and right ventricle 29. (3) Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during
in heart. Bicuspid valves (mitral valves) coagulation. These strands forms a
are AV valve present between left atrium network and the meshes of which are
and left ventricle. Semilunar valves are occupied by blood cells, this structure
present at the openings of aortic and finally forms a clot. Antibodies are derived
pulmonary aorta. from Gamma-Globulin fraction of plasma
23. (2) Tidal volume (TV) is volume of air proteins which means globulins are
inspired or expir ed durin g normal involved in defence mechanisms. Albumin
respiration. It is approximately 500 mL. is a plasma protein mainly responsible for
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is Blood Colloidal Osmotic Pressure (BCOP).
additional volume of air a person can 30. (2) Silicosis is an occupational disease caused
inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is due to excess inhalation of silica dust in
around 2500 - 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve the workers involved grinding or stone
volume (ERV) is additional volume of air breaking industries.
a person can be expired by a forceful 31. (1) The sarcoplasmic reticulum to release
expiration. This averages 1000 - 1100 mL. calcium ions into the muscle interior where
Residual volume (RV) is volume of air they bind to troponin, thus causing
remaining in lungs even after forceful tropomyosin to shift from the face of the
expiration. This averages 1100 - 1200 mL. actin filament to which myosin heads need
24. (1) Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine by to bind to produce contraction.
the removal of carboxyl group. It is a 32. (3) Polytene chromosomes are found in
catecholamine. salivary glands of insects of order Diptera.
 EBD_7325
2018-10 BIOLOGY
33. (3) Nissl bodies are present in the soma or cell 43. (1) Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
body of a neuron. When observed under larva into adult. Animal that perform
electron microscope, they appear to be metamorphosis are said to have indirect
composed of rough endoplasmic reticulum development. Metamorphosis includes, in
(RER) and free ribosomes hence help in insects, the transformation of a maggot into
protein synthesis. an adult fly and a caterpillar into a butterfly
34. (3) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in and, in amphibians, the changing of a
inner mitochondrial membrane. tadpole into a frog. In earthworm
35. (3) Phospholipid synthesis does not take place development is direct which means no
in rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). larval stage are there and hence no
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is metamorphosis.
involved in lipid synthesis. 44. (2) In renal physiology, ultrafiltration occurs
36. (1) A polyribosome (or polysome) is a complex at the barrier between the blood and the
of an mRNA molecule and two or more filtrate in the glomerular capsule
ribosomes that act to translate mRNA (Bowman 's capsule) in the kidn eys.
instructions into polypeptides. Concentration of urine refers to water
37. (2) In thecodont teeth are present in the absorption from glomerular filtrate created
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli. In by counter-current mechanism in Henle's
diphyodont teeth erupts twice, temporary loop. Urine is carried from kidney to
milk or deciduous teeth are replaced by a bladder through ureter. Urinary bladder is
set of permanent or adult teeth. In for storage of urine.
heterodont dentition it consists of different 45. (3) Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in
types of teeth namely incisors, canine, the urine. Gout is due to deposition of uric
premolars and molars. acid crystals in the joint. Renal calculi are
38. (4) The digestive tract of aves has additional precipitates of calcium phosphate produced
chambers in their digestive system as crop in the pelvis of the kidney. Glomerular
and gizzard. Crop is concerned with nephritis is the inflammatory condition of
storage of food grains, whereas gizzard is glomerulus characterised by proteinuria
a masticatory organ in birds used to crush and haematuria.
food grain. 46. (2) In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an
39. (2) The two extremes in the animal kingdom electron carrier.
are endothermic homeotherms and 47. (2) In obligate mutualism, one organism
ectothermic poikilotherms. Most cannot survive without the other. Yucca
mammals, including humans, as well as
have an obligate mutualism with a species
most birds are endothermic homeotherms,
of moth i.e. Pronuba.
while most fish, invertebrates, reptiles, and
48. (1) Green sulphur bacteria do not use H2O as
amphibians are ectothermic poikilotherms.
source of proton, therefore they do not
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
evolve O2 .
which is poikilotherm or cold blooded.
40. (2) Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal 49. (1) Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of
styles which are absent in females. Anal/ ferric ions.
caudal styles arise from 9 th abdominal 50. (3) Double fertilization is a unique
segment in male cockroach. phenomenon that occurs in angiosperms
41. (2) Diatoms are the chief producers in some only.
oceans and in some seasons as they are the Double fertilization = Syngamy + Triple fusion
primary producers and the food chain in 51. (4) Plants require potassium ions (K+ ) for
marine ecosystem depends on it. protein synthesis and for the opening and
42. (3) Ciliates differs from other protozoans in closing of stomata, which is regulated by
having two types of nuclei. E.g., proton pumps to make surrounding guard
Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e. cells either turgid or flaccid.
macronucleus & micronucleus.
NEET Solved Paper 2018 2018-11

52. (4) Pollen grains can be stored for several years strands; (ii) annealing of primers to each
in liquid nitrogen at -196°C original strand for new strand synthesis;
(Cryopreservation). and (iii) extension of the new DNA strands
53. (1) Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote from the primers.
(unicellular fungi). Mycobacterium is a 65. (1) Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is
bacterium. Oscillatoria and Nostoc are nucleic acid.
cyanobacteria. 66. (3) In 1997, an American company got patent
54. (3) Sugar is a carbohydrate. These are rights on Basmati rice through the US
polyhydroxy aldehyde, ketone or their patent and trademark office that was
derivatives, which means they have actually been derived from Indian farmer's
carbonyl and hydroxyl groups in its varieties. The diversity of rice in India is
structure. one of the richest in the world, 27
55. (2) ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of documented varieties of Basmati are grown
light reaction, while NADH is a product in India. Indian basmati was crossed with
of respiration process. semi-dwarf varieties and claimed as an
56. (2) Light, temperature and concentration of invention or a novelty. Sharbati sonora and
CO2 affect opening and closing of stomata. Lerma Rojo are varieties of wheat.
They are not affected by O2 concentration. 67. (3) Fran cois Jacob and Jacque Monod
57. (2) Golgi complex after processing, packages proposed model of gene regulation known
them in vesicles, and either stores them as operon model/lac operon. Alec Jeffreys
for later use or sends them out of the cell. gave DNA fingerprinting technique.
It is also the organelle that builds Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl gave semi-
lysosomes (cell digestion machines). conservative DNA replication in E.coli.
58. (3) The nucleolus (plural nucleoli) is a large, Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase proved
distinct, spheroidal subcompartment of the DNA as genetic material not protein.
nucleus of eukaryote cells that is the site 68. (3) Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore
assembly of ribosomal subunits. it is helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
59. (1) Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell 69. (2) Semi-conservative DNA replication was
shaped stomata in their leaves. first shown in bacterium escherichia coli
60. (2) The guard cells in dicot plants are kidney by Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
shaped and dumbbell shaped in monocots. 70. (1) Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
61. (1) Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for pleiotropic gene. Pleiotropy occurs when
introducing a DNA fragment in human one gene influences two or more seemingly
lymphocyte. unrelated phenotypic traits.
62. (2) Biopiracy term used for or refers to the use 71. (2) An offset is a small, virtually complete
of bioresources by multinational daughter plant that has been naturally and
companies and other organisation without asexually produced on the mother plant.
proper authorisation from the countries They are clones, meaning that they are
and people concerned with compensatory genetically identical to the mother plant.
payment. Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
63. (3) Indian Government has setup organisation by mitosis.
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering 72. (2) Punnett (British scientists) devised the
Appraisal Committee) which will make "Punnett Square" to depict the number and
decisions regarding the validity of GM variety of genetic combinations, and had
research and safety of introducing GM- a role in shaping the Hardy-Weinberg law.
organism for public services. Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative
64. (3) PCR is based on three simple steps required mode of replication. Transduction was
for any DNA synthesis reaction: (i) discovered by Zinder and Lederberg.
denaturation of the template into single Spliceosome formation is part of post-
transcriptional change in eukaryotes.
 EBD_7325
2018-12 BIOLOGY
73. (1) A monocarpic plant flowers and produces 81. (1) Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae, where
seeds only once before dying, e.g. bamboo. asexual spores and gametes are non-motile
A polycarpic plant reproduces sexually or non-flagellated.
more than once in its lifetime, e.g. 82. (4) In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
jackfruit, papaya, mango, etc. basidiospores or meiospores are produced
74. (3) Joseph Grinnell in 1917 coined the term exogenously. Neurospora (a genus of
niche, which he used as largely equivalent ascomycetes) produces ascospores as
to a species habitat. It refers the functional meiospores but endogenously inside the
role played by the organism where it lives. ascus). Alternaria (a genus of
75. (2) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other deuteromycetes) does not produce sexual
halogenated ozone depleting substances spores. Saccharomyces (Unicellular
(ODS) are mainly responsible for man- ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
made chemical ozone depletion. CFCs rise endogenously.
into the stratosphere where they are 83. (3) Winged pollen grains are present in Pinus.
eventually broken down by ultraviolet Each pollen grain has two wing-like
(UV) rays from the Sun. This causes them structures which enables it to float in air,
to release free chlorine. The chlorine reacts as an adaptation for dispersal by the wind.
with oxygen which leads to the chemical 84. (1) Some lateral roots of mangroves become
process of destroying ozone molecules. specialized as pneumatophores in saline
76. (1) The given data depicts th e inverted mud flats. These are lateral roots that grow
pyramid of biomass, usually present in upward (negative geotropism) for varying
aquatic ecosystem. Upright pyramid of distances and function as the site of oxygen
biomass and numbers are not possible, as intake for the submerged primary root
the data depicts primary producer is less system.
than primary consumer and this is less than 85. (1) Grasses are monocots and monocots
secondary consumers. Pyramid of energy usually do not have secondary growth.
is always upright. Palm like monocots have anomalous
77. (3) A primary pollutant is an air pollutant secondary growth.
emitted directly from a source. A secondary 86. (3) Casparian strip is a band of cell wall
pollutant is not directly emitted as such, material deposited in the radial and
but forms when other pollutants (primary transverse walls of the endodermis.
pollutants) react in the atmosphere. O3 Casparian strip is made of suberin and
(ozone) is a secondary pollutant. sometimes lignin.
78. (4) World Ozone day is celebrated on 16th 87. (2) Secondary tissues are generated from the
September. 5th June is World Environment growth of a cambium. Vascular cambium
Day. 21st April is National Yellow Bat Day. gives rise to secondary xylem to the inside,
22nd April is National Earth Day. and to secondary phloem to the outside.
79. (2) Natality is the birth r ate within a 88. (4) Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
population. When compared with the death sarcodines (Amoeboid).
or mortality rate, the growth or decrease 89. (1) The gymnosperms are a group of seed-
in a population can be determined. producing plants. The name is based on
80. (3) Herbarium - Dried and pressed plant the unenclosed condition of their seeds
specimen. (called ovules in their unfertilized state).
Key - Identification of various taxa. 90. (2) Sweet potato is a modified adventitious
Museum - Plant and animal specimen root for storage of food. Rhizomes are
are preserved. underground modified stem. Tap root is
Catalogue - Alphabetical listing of primary root directly elongated from the
species. radicle.
 1
Chapter

The Living World

Topic 1: Characteristics of Living Organisms 5. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora
primarily because of their  [2004]
1. It is much easier for a small animal to run (a) power of adaptability in diverse habitat
uphill than for a large animal, because  [2016] (b) property of producing large number of
(a) it is easier to carry a small body weight. seeds
(b) smaller animals have a higher metabolic (c) nature of self pollination
rate. (d) domestication by man
(c) small animals have a lower O 2 6. Organisms which obtain energy by the
requirement. oxidation of reduced inorganic compounds
(d) the efficiency of muscles in large animals are called  [2002]
is less than in the small animals. (a) photoautotrophs
2. Which one of the following aspects is an (b) chemoautotrophs
exclusive characteristic of living things ? (c) saprozoic
[2011M] (d) coproheterotrophs
(a) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in 7. What is true for photolithotrops? [2001]
vitro (a) Obtain energy from radiations and
(b) Increase in mass from inside only hydrogen from organic compounds
(c) Perception of events happening in the (b) Obtain energy from radiations and
environment and their memory hydrogen from inorganic compounds
(d) Increase in mass by accumulation of (c) Obtain energy from organic compounds
material both on surface as well as (d) Obtain energy from inorganic
internally. compounds
3. Biological organisation starts with  [2007] 8. First life on earth was  [2001]
(a) cellular level (a) Cyanobacteria
(b) organismic level (b) Chemoheterotrophs
(c) atomic level (c) Autotrophs
(d) submicroscopic molecular level (d) Photoautotrophs
4. The living organisms can be unexceptionally 9. The most important feature of all living
distinguished from the non-living things on systems is to  [2000]
the basis of their ability for  [2007] (a) utilize oxygen to generate energy
(a) interaction with the environment and (b) replicate the genetic information
progressive evolution (c) produce gametes
(b) reproduction
(d) utilize solar energy for metabolic
(c) growth and movement
activities
(d) responsiveness to touch.
 EBD_7325
2 BIOLOGY
10. The book Genera Plantarum was written by 16. The common characteristics between tomato
[1999] and potato will be maximum at the level of
(a) Bessy their  [NEET Kar. 2013]
(b) Hutchinson (a) Genus (b) Family
(c) Engler and Prantl (c) Order (d) Division
(d) Bentham & Hooker 17. Which one of the following organisms is
11. Study of fossils is  [1991] scientifically correctly named, correctly
(a) palaeontology printed according to the International Rules
(b) herpetology of Nomenclature and correctly described?
(c) saurology [2012M]
(a) Musca domestica - The common house
(d) organic evolution
lizard, a reptile.
12. Homeostasis is organism’s  [1991]
(b) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan
(a) tendency to  change with change in
pathogen causing the most serious type
environment
of malaria.
(b) tendency to resist change (c) Felis tigris - The Indian tiger, well
(c) disturbance in regulatory control protected in Gir forests.
(d) plants and animal extracts used in (d) E.coli - Full name Entamoeba coli, a
homeopathy commonly occurring bacterium in
13. Employment of hereditary principles in the human intestine.
improvement of human race is  [1990] 18. Which one of the following animals is
(a) Euthenics (b) Eugenics correctly matched with its particular named
(c) Euphenics (d) Ethnology taxonomic category ?  [2011]
14. Static concept of species was put forward (a) Tiger - tigris, the species
by  [1988] (b) Cuttle fish - mollusca, a class
(a) de Candolle (b) Linnaeus (c) Humans - primata, the family
(c) Theophrastus (d) Darwin (d) Housefly - musca, an order
19. ICBN stands for  [2007]
Topic 2: Classification and Taxonomic
Categories (a) International Code of Botanical
Nomenclature
15. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal (b) International congress of Biological
rules. Which one of the following is contrary Names
to the rules of nomenclature? [2016] (c) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(a) Biological names can be written in any (d) Indian Congress of Biological Names.
language 20. Phenetic classification is based on [2003, 04]
(b) The first word in a biological name (a) sexual characteristics
represents the genus name, and the (b) the ancestral lineage of existing
second is a specific epithet organisms
(c) The names are written in Latin and are (c) observable characteristics of existing
italicised organisms
(d) When written by hand, the names are (d) dendograms based on DNA
to be underlined characteristics
The Living World 3
21. Biosystematics aims at  [2003] 27. Species is a [1994]
(a) identification and arrangement (a) unit of classification
of organisms on the basis of their (b) unit in the evolutionary history of a tree
cytological characteristics (c) specific class of evolution
(b) the classification of organisms based on (d) not related to evolution
broad morphological characters 28. Binomial nomenclature consists of two
(c) delimiting various taxa of organisms words  [1994]
and establishing their relationships (a) Genus and species
(d) the classification of organisms based (b) Order and family
on their evolutionary history and (c) Family and genus
establishing their phylogeny on the (d) Species and variety
totality of various parameters from all 29. “Taxonomy without phylogeny is similar to
fields of studies bones without flesh” is the statement of
22. Species are considered as  [2003] [1994]
(a) real units of classification devised by (a) Oswald Tippo 
taxonomists (b) John Hutchinson
(b) real basic units of classification
(c) Takhtajan
(c) the lowest units of classification
(d) artificial concept of human mind which (d) Bentham and Hooker
cannot be defined in absolute terms 30. Binomial nomenclature means [1993]
23. What is true for individuals of same species? (a) one name given by two scientists
(a) Live in same niche  [2002] (b) one scientific name consisting of a
(b) Live in same habitat generic and specific epithet
(c) Interbreeding (c) two names, one latinised, other of a
person
(d) Live in different habitat
(d) two names of same plant
24. The practical purpose of classification of
31. Linnaeus is credited with  [1993]
living organisms is to  [1999]
(a) binomial nomenclature
(a) explain the origin of living organisms (b) theory of biogenesis
(b) trace the evolution of living organisms (c) discovery of microscope
(c) name the living organisms (d) discovery of blood circulation
(d) facilitate identification of unknown 32. The term phylum was given by [1992]
organisms (a) Cuvier (b) Haeckel
25. A taxon is [1990, 91, 92, 96] (c) Theophrastus (d) Linnaeus
(a) a group of related families 33. Sequence of taxonomic categories is
(b) a group of related species [1992]
(c) a type of living organisms (a) Class – Phylum – Tribe – Order –
(d) a taxonomic group of any ranking Family – Genus – Species
26. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by (b) Division – Class – Family – Tribe –
[1994] Order – Genus – Species
(a) de Vries  (c) Division – Class – Order – Family –
(b) Carlous Linnaeus Tribe – Genus – Species
(c) Huxley (d) Phylum – Order – Class – Tribe –
(d) John Ray Family – Genus – Species
 EBD_7325
4 BIOLOGY
34. An important criterion for modern day 37. The term “New Systematics” was introduced
classification is  [1991] by  [1988]
(a) resemblances in morphology (a) Bentham and Hooker
(b) Linnaeus
(b) anatomical and physiological traits
(c) Julian Huxley
(c) breeding habits (d) A.P. de Candolle
(d) presence or absence of notochord
Topic 3: Taxonomical Aids
35. Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature
called  [1990] 38. Which one of the following is not a correct
(a) mononomial (b) vernacular statement ?  [NEET 2013]
(c) binomial (d) polynomial (a) Botanical gardens have collection of
36. Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ living plants for reference.
classification is  [1990] (b) A museum has collection of photographs
(a) species (b) kingdom of plants and animals
(c) family (d) variety (c) Key is taxonomic aid for identification
of specimens.
(d) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and
preserved plant specimens.
The Living World 5

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Basal metabolic rate is inversely 8. (b) First living beings were formed in the
proportional to body size. So smaller environment of sea having abundant organic
animals have a higher metabolic rate. Hence molecules. They absorbed the organic
production of energy is more. materials for the sake of nutrtion and hence
2. (c) All living things have an ability to were chemoheterotrophs.
respond to their environment, that is also 9. (b) Replication of the genetic information
called stimulation. causes transfer of genetic information from
3. (d) Biological organisms starts with one generation to the next.
submicroscopic moleculer level like viruses, 10. (d) Bentham & Hooker wrote the book
bacteria etc. Genera Plantarum. Bentham began with the
These organisms are unable to be seen by Flora Hongkongensis in 1861, which was
naked eyes without the help of microscope the first comprehensive work on any part of
or even electron microscope. the little-known flora of China and Hong
4. (b) There are several factors and processes Kong, including Hong Kong Croton. This
which differentiate living beings from non- was followed by the Flora Australiensis, in
living beings like reproducction, respiration, seven volumes (1863-1878), the first flora
growth, etc. But among them reproduction of any large continental area that had ever
is the only difference which differentiates
been finished. His greatest work was the
living being from non-living beings without
Genera Plantarum, which begun in 1862,
any exception.
and concluded in 1883 in collaboration with
5. (a) Angiosperms have adapted themselves
Sir Joseph Dalton Hooker.
to all kinds of habitat - terrestial, aquatic,
11. (a) Herpetology is the branch of zoology
tropical, deciduous and alpine. Self
concerned with the study of amphibians and
pollination is seen in very few angiosperms.
reptiles.
Production of large number of seeds ensure
Palaentlogy is the branch of zoology
that at least some will germinate. Not all
concerned with the study of fossils.
plants have been domesticated by man.
6. (b) The organisms obtaining energy by Serology is the branch of zoology concerned
chemical reactions independent of light are with the study of lizards.
called chemotrophs. When the reductants 12. (b) Homoeostasis is the property of all living
obtained from the environment in are beings, which is a self regulatory mechanism
inorganic form then organisms are called of maintaining favourable internal condition
chemoautotrophs. If they are organic, then for uninterrupted chemical reactions in the
the organisms are chemoheterotrophs. living system despite the changes in the
Photoautotrophs make their food by external environment. e.g. In winter the skin
photosynthesis using energy from the sun. contracts to conserve body heat.
Saprozoic organisms obtain food from dead 13. (b) Eugenics is the science that deals with
and decaying matter. factors (such as principles of genetics)
7. (b) Photolithotrophs manufacture their related to improvement of human race.
own organic nutrients from inorganic raw Improvement of race is positive eugenics
materials (H2, O2) with the help of radiation and if factors are impaired, then it is negative
energy. eugenics.
 EBD_7325
6 BIOLOGY
• Euthenics is the science which 20. (c) Phenetic classification is based upon
improves the condition of life and the observable characteristics of an organism.
environment of human being. Phylogenetic system of classification is
• Ethnology is the study of different a system indicating the evolutionary or
races of mankind, their distribution, phylogenetic relationship of organisms.
relationship and activities. 21. (d) Biosystematics is the study of diversity
• Euphenics is the study of body of organism and all their comparative and
functions and treatment of heredity evolutionary relationships.
defect through medical means i.e. 22. (c) Species is the lowest or basic taxonomic
genetic engineering. category comprising of one or more natural
14. (b) Carolus Linnaeus introduced Binomial population of individuals that interbreed
System of Nomenclature in his book Species freely.
Plantarum (1753). He said that there can 23. (c) Individuals of the same species can
be variation within species, but they do not interbreed. No two individuals share the
change from one species to another. same ecological niche.
15. (a) Binomial nomenclature is a formal 24. (d) Biological classification is the scientific
system of naming species of living things by arrangement of organisms in a hierarchial
giving each a name composed of two parts, series of groups and subgroups on the basis
both of which use Latin grammatical forms, of similarities and differences in their traits.
although they can be based on words from It helps in building evolutionary pathways
other languages. and in identifying new organisms.
16. (b) Families are characterised on the basis 25. (d) Taxon is a taxonomic group of any
of both vegetative and reproductive features rank.
of plant species. Tomato (Lycopersicon 26. (b) Linnaeus.
esculentum) and potato (Solanum tuberosum) 27. (a) Species is the basic unit of classification.
belong to the same family Solanaceae. It is defined as a group of natural population
17. (c) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan whose members can interbreed among
pathogen causes the most serious type of themselves and are reproductively isolated
malaria that is falciparum malaria. from other such groups.
Musca domestica – House fly, an insect 28. (a) Binomial nomenclature consists of
belongs to phylum arthropoda. two words – genus and species. First word
Felis tigris - The Bengal tiger, is well protected denotes genus name and second word
in Sundarbans (tiger reserve) denotes species name.
E.coli - Escherichia coli, a commonly occurring 29. (c) The statement was given by Takhtajan.
bacterium in human intestine. 30. (b) Binomial Nomenclature means the
18. (a) Tiger and tigris both are from same scientific name of any organism consist of
genus with a particular taxonomic category. a generic and a specific epithet. Generic
19. (a) ICBN (International code of Botanical name starts with capital letter and specific
Nomenclature) - It is one of the code of name with small letter. Both the names are
nomenclature which is independent of in Italics when printed, or underlined in
zoological and bacteriological nomenclature. manuscripts.
The code applies equally to names of 31. (a) Binomial Nomenclature.
taxonomic groups treated as plants whether 32. (a) Cuvier, the father of modern
or not these groups were originally treated as palaeontology, introduced the term
such. “phylum”.
The Living World 7
33. (c) With the discovery of more and more the generic name and the specific epither
organisms, it sometimes becomes, difficult E.g. potato is named as Solanum tuberosum.
to adjust an organism to the traditional Solanum represents genus and tuberosum
categories. Therefore to make taxonomic species. The first name or genus begins
position of a species more precise, the always with a capital letter and second or
various obligate categories in hierarchial species name with small letter, and both are
classification are explained below separately underlined, when written and
Division —→ Class —→ Order —→ Family italicised when printed.
—→ Genus —→ Species 36. (a) Species is the basic unit for
34. (b) Modern day classification is new understanding taxonomy, that occupies
systematics or biosystematics which a key position. It is defined as a dynamic
includes all the characteristic of organisms genetically distinct group of organisms,
gathered from the study of different which resemble each other in all respect
sections like Physiology, Ecology, Anatomy, and freely interbreed among themselves to
Biochemistry, Cytology. produce fertile offsprings.
35. (c) The first scientific attempt to name the 37. (c) The term “New Systematics” was
organism was polynomial nomenclature wined by Julian Huxley (1940). Characters
of plants collected through different
which consisted of number of words that
branches of science are considered eg.
incorporate all its important characters.
ecology, physiology, biochemistry, cytology,
E.g. : Caryophyllum was named as
genetics etc.
Caryophyllum saxatilis folis gramineus
38. (b) Museum – Biological museums are
umbellatis corymbis, which means
generally set up in educational institutes
caryophyllum growing on rocks having
such as schools and colleges. Museums
grass like leaves and umbellate corymb
have collections of preserved plant and
arrangement of flowers. However
animal specimens for study and reference.
polynomial system of nomenclature was not
Specimens are preserved in the containers
favoured by many scientists as it is difficult
or jars in preservative solutions. Plant and
to remember long descriptive names. animal specimens may also be preserved as
To over come this problem a system was dry specimens. Insects are preserved in insect
developed by Carolus Linnaeus known as boxes after collections, killing and pinning.
“Binomial nomenclature”. This system Larger animals like birds and mammals are
provides organisms with appropriate and usually stuffed and preserved. Museums often
distinct names consisting of two words, have collections of skeletons of animals too.
 EBD_7325
2
Chapter

Biological Classification

Topic 1: Five Kingdom Classification 6. A system of classification in which a large

number of traits are considered, is  [1999]
1. Pick up the wrong statement   [2015 RS]
(a) artificial system
(a) Prostista have photosynthetic and
heterotrophic modes of nutrition (b) synthetic system
(b) Some fungi are edible (c) natural system
(c) Nuclear membrane is present Monera (d) phylogenetic system
(d) Cell wall is absent in Animalia 7. Phylogenetic classification is based on
2. Five kingdom system of classification [1994]
suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on: (a) utilitarian system 
[2014] (b) habits
(a) Presence or absence of a well defined (c) overall similarities
nucleus. (d) common evolutionary descent
(b) Mode of reproduction. 8. Artificial system of classification was first
(c) Mode of nutrition. used by  [1989]
(d) Complexity of body organisation. (a) Linnaeus
3. What is common about Trypanosoma, (b) De Candolle
Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia ? [2006] (c) Pliny the Edler
(a) They have flagella (d) Bentham and Hooker
(b) They produce spores 9. System of classification used by Linnaeus
(c) These are all parasites was  [1989]
(d) These are all unicellular protists (a) natural system
4. In the five-kingdom system of classification, (b) artificial system
which single kingdom out of the following (c) phylogenetic system
can include blue green algae, nitrogen-fixing (d) asexual system
bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria? 10. Classification given by Bentham and Hooker
is [1988]
[1998, 2003]
(a) artificial (b) natural
(a) Fungi (b) Plantae
(c) phylogenetic (d) numerical
(c) Protista (d) Monera
Topic 2: Monera
5. In five kingdom system, the main basis of
classification is  [2002] 11. Which of the following are found in extreme
(a) structure of nucleus saline conditions 
?       [2017]
(b) mode of nutrition (a) Eubacteria (b) Cyanobacteria
(c) structure of cell wall (c) Mycobacteria (d) Archaebacteria
(d) asexual reproduction
Biological Classification 9
12. Which of the following components provides (a) Cyanobacteria
sticky character to the bacterial cell?  [2017] (b) Archaebacteria
(a) Nuclear membrane (c) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(b) Plasma membrane (d) Heterotrophic bacteria
(c) Glycocalyx 21. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as
(d) Cell wall [2012]
13. Which among the following are the smallest (a) protists (b) golden algae
living cells, known without a definite cell wall, (c) slime moulds (d) blue green algae
pathogenic to plants as well as animals and 22. How many organisms in the list given below
can survive without oxygen?     [2017] are autotrophs?
(a) Pseudomonas (b) Mycoplasma
Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas,
(c) Nostoc (d) Bacillus
Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Saccharomyces,
14. Which of the following structures is not found
Trypanosomes, Porphyra, Wolffia  [2012M]
in a prokaryotic cell?     [2015 RS]
(a) Four (b) Five
(a) Ribosome
(c) Six (d) Three
(b) Mesosome
23. In eubacteria, a cellular component that
(c) Plasma membrane
resembles eukaryotic cells is :     [2011]
(d) Nuclear envelope
(a) plasma membrane
15. The structures that help some bacteria to
attach to rocks and / or host tissues are: (b) nucleus
[2015 RS] (c) ribosomes
(a) Fimbriae (b) Mesosomes (d) cell wall
(c) Holdfast (d) Rhizoids 24. Organisms called methanogens are most
16. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in: abundant in a :       [2011]
(a) Cell membrane     [2014] (a) sulphur rock (b) cattle yard
(b) Mode of nutrition (c) polluted stream (d) hot spring
(c) Cell shape 25. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a
(d) Mode of reproduction species of       [2008]
17. The motile bacteria are able to move by: (a) Xanthomonas (b) Pseudomonas
[2014] (c) Alternaria (d) Erwinia
(a) Fimbriae (b) Flagella 26. In the light of recent classification of
(c) Cilia (d) Pili living organisms into three domains of life
18. Which of the following are likely to be present (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), which one
in deep sea water ?   [NEET 2013] of the following statements is true about
(a) Eubacteria (b) Blue-green algae archaea?      [2008]
(c) Saprophytic fungi (d) Archaebacteria (a) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects
19. Specialized cells for fixing atmospheric (b) Archaea have some novel features that
nitrogen in Nostoc are  [NEET Kar. 2013] are absent in other prokaryotes and
(a) Akinetes (b) Heterocysts eukaryotes
(c) Hormogonia (d) Nodules
(c) Archaea completely differ from both
20. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful
prokaryotes and eukaryotes
to humans in making curd from milk and
in production of antibiotics are the ones (d) Archaea completely differ from
categorised as :      [2012] prokaryotes.
 EBD_7325
10 BIOLOGY
27. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methan- 32. Which bacteria is utilized in gober gas plant?
obacterium exemplify:       [2008] [2002]
(a) Archaebacteria that contain protein (a) Methanogens
homologous to eukaryotic core histones (b) Nitrifying bacteria
(b) Archaebacteria that lack any histones (c) Ammonifying bacteria
resembling those found in eukaryotes but (d) Denitrifying bacteria
whose DNA is negatively supercoiled 33. Which statement is correct for bacterial
(c) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or transduction ? [2002]
positively supercoiled but which have a (a) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria
cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria to another bacteria through virus
(d) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and (b) Transfer of genes from one bacteria to
ribosomes another bacteria by conjugation
(c) Bacteria obtains its DNA directly
28. Which one of the following statements about
mycoplasma is wrong ?        [2007] (d) Bacteria obtains its DNA from other
external source
(a) They are pleomorphic
34. What is true for cyanobacteria? [2001]
(b) They are sensitive to penicillin (a) Oxygenic with nitrogenase
(c) They cause diseases in plants (b) Oxygenic without nitrogenase
(d) They are also called PPLO. (c) Non-oxygenic with nitrogen
29. In which of the animals dimorphic nucleus (d) Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase
is found? [2005] 35. What is true for archaebacteria ? [2001]
(a) Amoeba proteus (a) All halophiles
(b) Trypanosoma gambiense (b) All photosynthetic
(c) Plasmodium vivax (c) All fossils
(d) Paramecium caudatum (d) Oldest living beings
30. The most throughly studied fact of the 36. The main difference in Gram (+)ve and
known bacteria-plant interactions is the Gram (–)ve bacteria resides in their  [2001]
[2004] (a) cell wall (b) cell membrane
(a) cyanobacterial symbiosis with some (c) cytoplasm (d) flagella
aquatic ferns 37. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in
(b) gall formation on certain angiosperms [1999]
by Agrobacterium (a) leucoplasts (b) chloroplasts
(c) nodulation of Sesbania stems by (c) chromoplasts (d) chromatophores
nitrogen fixing bacteria 38. In prokaryotes, the genetic material is  [1999]
(d) plant growth stimulation by phosphate- (a) linear DNA with histones
solubilising bacteria (b) circular DNA with histones
31. The chief advantage of encystment to an (c) linear DNA without histones
Amoeba is [2003] (d) circular DNA without histones
(a) the chance to get rid of accumulated 39. A few organisms are known to grow and
waste products multiply at temperatures of 100–105ºC.
They belong to [1998]
(b) the ability to survive during adverse
(a) marine archaebacteria
physical conditions
(b) thermophilic sulphur bacteria
(c) the ability to live for sometime without
(c) hot-spring blue-green algae (cyanobac-
ingesting food
teria)
(d) protection from parasites and predators
(d) thermophilic, subaerial fungi
Biological Classification 11
40. Transfer of genetic information from one 48. Bacteria lack alternation of generation
bacterium to another in the transduction because there is [1992]
process is through [1998] (a) neither syngamy nor reduction division
(a) Conjugation (b) distinct chromosomes are absent
(b) Bacteriophages released from the donor (c) no conjugation
bacterial strain (d) no exchange of genetic material
(c) Another bacterium 49. Name the organisms which do not derive
(d) Physical contact between donor and energy directly or indirectly from sun [1991]
recipient strain
(a) Chemosynthetic bacteria
41. The hereditary material present in the
(b) Pathogenic bacteria
bacterium Escherichia coli is [1998]
(a) single stranded DNA (c) Symbiotic bacteria
(b) deoxyribose sugar (d) Mould
(c) double stranded DNA 50. Which one belongs to monera? [1990]
(d) single stranded RNA (a) Amoeba (b) Escherichia
42. Sex factor in bacteria is [1996] (c) Gelidium (d) Spirogyra
(a) Chromosomal replicon Topic 3: Prolista
(b) F-replicon
51. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates
(c) RNA
and Slime moulds are included in the
(d) Sex-pilus kingdom       [2016]
43. Temperature tolerance of thermal blue-green (a) Monera (b) Protista
algae is due to [1994] (c) Fungi (d) Animalia
(a) cell wall structure 52. In which group of organisms the cell walls
(b) cell organisation form two thin overlapping shells which fit
(c) mitochondrial structure together?  [2015 RS]
(d) homopolar bonds in their proteins (a) Euglenoids (b) Dinoflagellates
44. Nitrogen fixer soil organisms belong to (c) Slime moulds (d) Chrysophytes
[1994] 53. In the five-kingdom classification, Chlam-
(a) mosses (b) bacteria ydomonas and Chlorella have been included in
(c) green algae (d) soil fungi  [2012M]
45. Entamoeba coli causes [1994] (a) protista (b) algae
(a) Pyrrhoea (b) Diarrhoea (c) plantae (d) monera
(c) Dysentery (d) None 54. Which one of the following organisms is not
46. Escherichia coli is used extensively in biological an example of eukaryotic cells ?    [2011]
research as it is  [1993] (a) Paramecium caudatum
(a) easily cultured (b) Escherichia coli
(b) easily available (c) Euglena viridis
(c) easy to handle (d) Amoeba proteus
(d) easily multiplied in host 55. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in:
47. Genophore/bacterial genome or nucleoid is [2010]
made of [1993] (a) Protista (b) Fungi
(a) histones and nonhistones (c) Archaea (d) Monera
(b) RNA and histones 56. Which one of the following is a slime
(c) a single double stranded DNA mould?       [2007]
(d) a single stranded DNA (a) Physarum (b) Thiobacillus
(c) Anabaena (d) Rhizopus
 EBD_7325
12 BIOLOGY
57. The thalloid body of a slime mould 65. Protists obtain food as [1994]
(Myxomycetes) is known as [2006] (a) photosynthesisers, symbionts and holo-
(a) plasmodium (b) fruiting body trophs
(c) mycelium (d) protonema (b) photosynthesisers
58. Auxopores and hormocysts are formed, (c) chemosynthesisers
respectively, by: [2005] (d) holotrophs
(a) Some diatoms and several cyanobacteria 66. Protista includes [1994]
(b) Some cyanobacteria and diatoms (a) heterotrophs
(c) Several cyanobacteria and several (b) chemoheterotrophs
diatoms (c) chemoautotrophs
(d) Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria. (d) all the above
59. In Amoeba and Paramecium osmoregulation 67. African sleeping sickness is due to [1991]
occurs through [2002] (a) Plasmodium vivax transmitted by Tse tse
(a) pseudopodia fly
(b) nucleus (b) Trypanosoma lewsii transmitted by Bed
(c) contractile vacuole Bug
(d) general surface (c) Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by
Glossina palpalis
60. Which of the following organism possesses
(d) Entamoeba gingivalis spread by Housefly.
characteristics of both a plant and an animal?
68. Genetic information in Paramecium is
[1995]
contained in [1990]
(a) Bacteria (b) Euglena (a) micronucleus
(c) Mycoplasma (d) Paramecium
(b) macronucleus
61. The function of contractile vacuole, in (c) both micronucleus and macronucleus
protozoa, is [1995] (d) mitochondria
(a) locomotion (b) food digestion 69. Which is true about Trypanosoma ? [1990]
(c) osmoregulation (d) reproduction (a) Polymorphic
62. Macro and micronucleus are the characteris- (b) Monogenetic
tic feature of [1995] (c) Facultative Parasite
(a) Paramecium and Vorticella (d) Non-pathogenic
(b) Opelina and Nictothisus 70. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite, belongs to
(c) Hydra and Ballantidium class [1990]
(d) Vorticella and Nictothirus (a) Sarcodina (b) Ciliata
63. Excretion in Amoeba occurs through [1995] (c) Sporozoa (d) Dinophyceae
(a) lobopodia 71. The causal organism for African sleeping
(b) uroid portion sickness is [1989]
(c) plasma membrane (a) Trypanosoma cruzi
(d) contractile vacuole (b) T. rhodesiense
64. Protistan genome has [1994] (c) T. tangela
(a) membrane bound nucleoproteins em- (d) T. gambiense
bedded in cytoplasm 72. The vector for sleeping sickness is [1989]
(b) free nucleic acid aggregates (a) House fly (b) Tse-Tse fly
(c) gene containing nucleoproteins con- (c) Sand fly (d) Fruit fly
densed together in loose mass 73. Trypanosoma belongs to class [1989]
(d) nucleoprotein in direct contact with cell (a) Sarcodina (b) Zooflagellata
substance (c) Ciliata (d) Sporozoa
Biological Classification 13
74. A bite of Tse-Tse fly may pass to humans (b) Morels and truffles are poisonoues
(a) Leishmania donovani [1989] mushrooms
(b) Trypanosoma gambiense (c) Yeast is unicellular and useful in
(c) Entamoeba histolytica fermentation
(d) Plasmodium vivax (d) Penicillium is multicellular and produces
75. The infective stage of malarial parasite antibiotics
Plasmodium that enters human body is 82. Which one of the following fungi contains
[1989] hallucinogens?       [2014]
(a) merozoite (b) sporozoite (a) Morchella esculenta
(c) trophozoite (d) minuta form (b) Amanita muscaria
(c) Neurospora sp.
Topic 4: Fungi
(d) Ustilago sp.
76. One of the major components of cell wall of 83. Which one of the following is true for fungi?
most fungi is       [2016] [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Chitin (b) Peptidoglycan (a) They are phagotrophs
(c) Cellulose (d) Hemicellulose (b) They lack a rigid cell wall
77. Which one of the following statements is (c) They are heterotrophs
wrong?       [2016] (d) They lack nuclear membrane
(a) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green 84. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in:
algae
[2010]
(b) Golden algae are also called desmids
(a) Saccharomyces (b) Streptococcus
(c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
(d) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Plasmodium
78. Which one one of the following matches is 85. Which one is the wrong pairing for the
correct ?    [2015 RS] disease and its causal organism?    [2009]
(a) Black rust of wheat - Puccinia graminis
1. Alternaria Sexual Deuteromy-
(b) Loose smut of wheat - Ustilago nuda
reproduction cetes
absent (c) Root-knot of vegetables - Meloidogyne sp
(d) Late blight of potato - Alternaria solani
2. Mucor Reproduction Ascomycetes
by 86. Which pair of the following belongs to
Conjugation Basidiomycetes?       [2007]
3. Agaricus Parasitic Basidiomycetes (a) puffballs and Claviceps
fungus (b) peziza and stink borns
4. Phytophthora Aseptate Basidiomycetes (c) Morchella and mushrooms
mycelium (d) birds nest fungi and puffballs.
87. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of   [2007]
79. True nucleus is absent in : [2015 RS]
(a) Uncimula (b) Ustilago
(a) Mucor (b) Vaucheria (c) Claviceps (d) Phytophthora.
(c) Volvox (d) Anabaena 88. Which of the following environmental
80. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers conditions are essential for optimum growth
of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to: of Mucor on a piece of bread ? [2006]
[2015 RS] A. Temperature of about 25°C
(a) Basidiomycetes (b) Phycomycetes B. Temperature of about 5° C
(c) Ascomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes C. Relative humidity of about 5%
81. Choose the wrong statements:   [2015 RS] D. Relative humidity of about 95%
(a) Neurospora is used in the study of E. A shady place
biochemical genetics F. A brightly illuminated place
 EBD_7325
14 BIOLOGY
Choose the answer from the following 99. Mycorrhiza is [1996]
options : (a) a symbiotic association of plant roots
(a) A, D and E only (b) B, D and E only and certain fungi
(c) B, C and F only (d) A, C and E only
(b) an association of algae with fungi
89. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and
cause their lysis, are called [2004] (c) a fungus parasitising root system of
(a) lysozymes (b) lipolytic higher plants
(c) lytic (d) lysogenic (d) an association of Rhizobium with the
90. Mycorrhiza represents [2003] roots of leguminous plants
(a) antagonism (b) endemism 100. Which of the following is not correctly
(c) symbiosis (d) parasitism
matched? [1995]
91. Which of the following secretes toxins
during storage conditions of crop plants? (a) root knot disease - Meloidogyne javanica
[2002] (b) smut of bajra - Tolysporium penicillariae
(a) Aspergillus (b) Penicillium (c) covered smut of barley - Ustilago nuda
(c) Fusarium (d) Colletotrichum (d) late blight of potato - Phytophthora
92. Which fungal disease spreads by seed and infestans
flowers? [2002]
101. The chemical compounds produced by the
(a) Loose smut of wheat
host plants to protect themselves against
(b) Corn stunt
(c) Covered smut of barley fungal infection is [1995]
(d) Soft rot of potato (a) phytotoxin (b) pathogen
93. Plant decomposers are [2001] (c) phytoalexins (d) hormone
(a) Monera and fungi 102. White rust disease is caused by [1995]
(b) Fungi and plants (a) Claviceps (b) Alternaria
(c) Protista and animalia
(c) Phytophthora (d) Albugo candida
(d) Animalia and monera
94. Adhesive pad of fungi penetrates the host 103. Ustilago causes plant diseases called smut
with the help of [2001] because [1994]
(a) mechanical pressure and enzymes (a) they parasitise cereals
(b) hooks and suckers (b) mycelium is black
(c) softening by enzymes (c) they develop sooty masses of spores
(d) only by mechanical pressure
(d) affected parts becomes completely
95. A good green manure in rice fields is [2000]
black.
(a) Aspergillus (b) Azolla
(c) Salvinia (d) Mucor 104. Claviceps purpurea is causal organism of
96. In fungi stored food material is [2000] [1994]
(a) glycogen (b) starch (a) Smut of Barley
(c) sucrose (d) glucose (b) Rust of Wheat
97. Black rust of wheat is caused by [2000] (c) Ergot of Rye
(a ) Puccinia (b) Mucor
(d) Powdery Mildew of Pea.
(c) Aspergillus (d) Rhizopus
105. Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition is exhibited
98. Puccinia forms [1998]
(a) uredia and aecia on wheat leaves by [1990]
(b) uredia and telia on wheat leaves (a) Algae (b) Fungi
(c) uredia and aecia on barberry leaves (c) Bryophytes (d) Pteridophytes
(d) uredia and pycnia on barberry leaves
Biological Classification 15
Topic 5: Viruses and Virioids (b) they require both RNA and DNA
106. Viroids differ from viruses in having;  [2017] (c) they both need food molecules
(a) DNA molecules without protein coat (d) they both require oxygen for respiration
(b) RNA molecules with protein coat 115. Which one of the following statements about
(c) RNA molecules without protein coat viruses is correct ?  [2003]
(d) DNA molecules with protein coat (a) Nucleic acid of viruses is known as
107. Which of the following statements is wrong capsid
for viroids?       [2016] (b) Viruses possess their own metabolic
(a) They lack a protein coat system
(b) They are smaller than viruses (c) All viruses contain both RNA and DNA
(c) They cause infections (d) Viruses are obligate parasites
(d) Their RNA is of high molecular weight 116. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of
108. Which of the following shows coiled RNA size  [2003]
strand and capsomeres?       [2014] (a) 700 × 30 nm (b) 300 × 10 nm
(a) Polio virus (c) 300 × 5 nm (d) 300 × 20 nm
(b) Tobacco masaic virus 117. Cauliflower mosaic virus contains [2001]
(c) Measles virus (a) ss RNA (b) ds RNA
(d) Retrovirus (c) ds DNA (d) ss DNA
109. Viruses have: [2014] 118. Enzymes are absent in [2000]
(a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat (a) Cyanobacteria (b) Viruses
(b) Prokaryotic nucleus (c) Algae (d) Fungi
(c) Single chromosome 119. A virus can be considered a living organism
(d) Both DNA and RNA because it [2000]
110. Satellite RNAs are present in some (a) responds to touch stimulus
[NEET Kar. 2013] (b) respires
(a) Plant viruses (b) Viroids (c) reproduces (inside the host)
(c) Prions (d) Bacteriophages (d) can cause disease
111. Which statement is wrong for viruses?  [2012] 120. Which one of the following statements about
(a) All are parasites viruses is correct?  [1997]
(b) All of them have helical symmetry (a) Viruses possess their own metabolic
(c) They have ability to synthesize nucleic system
acids and proteins (b) Viruses contain either DNA or RNA
(d) Antibiotics have no effect on them (c) Viruses are facultative parasites
112. Virus envelope is known as: [2010] (d) Viruses are readily killed by antibiotics
(a) Capsid (b) Virion 121. Influenza virus has [1996]
(c) Nucleoprotein (d) Core (a) DNA
113. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a (b) RNA
[2006] (c) both DNA and RNA
(a) Prion (b) Worm (d) only proteins and no nucleic acids.
(c) Bacterium (d) Virus 122. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) genes are
114. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated [1994]
chromosomes because [2003] (a) double stranded RNA
(a) both require the environment of a cell to (b) single stranded RNA
replicate (c) polyribonucleotides
(d) proteinaceous
 EBD_7325
16 BIOLOGY
123. Rickettsiae constitute a group under [1994] (b) provides food for the alga
(a) bacteria (c) fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the
(b) viruses alga
(c) independent group between bacteria (d) releases oxygen for the alga
and viruses 128. Lichens are a well known combination of an
(d) fungi alga and a fungus where fungus has [2004]
124. Organisms which are indicator of SO2 (a) a saprophytic relationship with the alga
pollution of air [1992] (b) an epiphytic relationship with the alga
(a) Mosses (b) Lichens (c) a parasitic relationship with the alga
(c) Mushrooms (d) Puffballs (d) a symbiotic relationship with the alga
Topic 6: Lichens 129. Most of the Lichens consist of [1997]
(a) blue-green algae and basidomycetes
125. Which of the following are most suitable
(b) blue-green algae and ascomycetes
indicators of SO2 pollution in the environment?
[2015 RS] (c) red algae and ascomycetes
(a) Conifers (b) Algae (d) brown algae and phycomycetes
(c) Fungi (d) Lichens 130. Which one of the following is not true about
126. Which one single organism or the pair of or- lichens? [1996]
ganisms is correctly assigned to its taxonomic (a) Their body is composed of both algal
group?      [2012] and fungal cells
(a) Paramoecium and Plasmodium belong to (b) Some form food for reindeers in arctic
the same kingdom as that of Penicillium regions
(b) Lichen is a composite organism formed (c) Some species can be used as pollution
from the symbiotic association of an indicators
algae and a protozoan (d) These grow very fast at the rate of about
(c) Yeast used in making bread and beer is 2 cm per year
a fungus
131. Lichens indicate SO2 pollution because they
(d) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of
[1989]
protista
(a) show association between algae and
127. There exists a close association between the
fungi
alga and the fungus within a lichen. The
fungus [2005] (b) grow faster than others
(a) provides protection, anchorage and (c) are sensitive to SO2
absorption for the alga (d) flourish in SO2 rich environment
Biological Classification 17

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) T h e k i n g d o m M o n e r a p o s s e s s e s system of classification. Proposed by de
unicellular organisms (e.g - bacteria) having Jussieu, phylogenetic system of classification
no nuclear membrane. indicates the evolutionary or phylogenetic
2. (a) Five kingdom system of classification relationship of organisms.
was proposed by R.H. Whittaker (1969). 7. (d) The first phylogenetic system of
The five kingdom classification is based on classification was proposed by Adolf
the following criteria : Engler and his associate Karl Prantl in their
• Complexity of cell structure – Prokaryotes monograph “Die Naturlichen Pflanzen
or Eukaryotes Familien”. In this system of classification,
• Complexity of organisms body – organisms are classified on the basis
Unicellular or Multicellular of evolutionary sequence and genetic
• M o d e o f o b t a i n i n g nu t r i t i o n – relationship among the organisms. Hence,
Autotrophic or Heterotrophic this system is highly dynamic not static.
• Phylogenetic relationships Fossil records play a vital role in elucidation
3. (d) Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis & of evolutionary relationships. This system
has led to new systematics.
Giardia are unicellular protists i.e. unicellular
8. (c) During the early period in taxonomy,
eukaryotes.
only external morphology (the characters
4. (d) Monera is the prokaryotic kingdom observable with naked eye) were the sole
that includes bacteria, blue green algae criteria to classify plants and animals.
(cyanobacteria) and archae-bacteria Theophrastus gave names and description of
(a group of ancient bacteria). Protista 480 plants in his book “Historia plantarum”
includes slime, unicellular and colonial , on the basis of their habit but Pliny the
eukaryotes. The important members are Edler introduced first artificial system of
diatoms, dinoflagellates, euglenoids, moulds classification in his book Historia Naturalis.
and protozoans. Fungi is the kingdom of He classified both plants and animals.
multicellular or multinucleate heterophyllous 9. (b) Linnaeus put forward an “Artificial
and spore producing eukaryotic organisms system” of plant classification which was
like Rhizopus mildews, mushroom etc. based on sexual characters. It is commonly
Kingdom plantae includes all coloured also called as Sexual System of plant
multicellular photosynthetic organisms classification.
(plants). 10. (b) George Bentham and Joseph Dalton
5. (b) The five kingdom classification is a Hooker have given Natural system of
mode of classification based on the following classification. In this system of classification
criteria. all the important characteristic of the
• Complexity of cell structure organisms that provide information
• Complexity of body structure regarding their natural relationship are taken
• Modes of nutrition into consideration which helps in bringing
• Ecological life styles out maximum number of similarities in
• Phylogenetic relationship a group and comparable differences with
6. (c) Artificial system of classification other groups of organisms. For example,
is based on comparison of one or a few mammals are characterised by the presence
characters. A system based upon a large of mammary gland, hair, vivipary, 4
no. of natural characters or traits is natural chambered heart etc.
 EBD_7325
18 BIOLOGY
11. (d) Archaebacteria are able to survive in found in all types of environment - fresh
harsh conditions due to the presence of water, sea water, salt marshes, moist rocks,
branched lipid chain in cell membrane that tree trunks, moist soils, hot springs, frozen
reduces fluidity of cell membrane. waters.
It includes halophiles which are exclusively 22. (c) Autotrophs are those organisms that
found in saline habitats. are able to make energy-containing organic
12. (c) Sticky character of the bacterial molecules from inorganic raw material
wall is due to glycocalyx which is rich in by using basic sunlight. Nostoc, Chara,
glycoproteins. Porphyra and Wolffia are photoautotrophs
13. (b) Mycoplasmas are smallest, prokaryotes while Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are
lacking cell wall and are pleomorphic in chemoautotrophs.
nature. These are pathogenic to both plants 23. (a) Eubacteria are prokaryotic but eubacteria
and animals. are enclosed by plasma membrane like
14. (d) Nuclear envelope is not found in a eukaryotic cells.
prokaryotic cell. 24. (b) Methanogens are archaebacteria, abundant
15. (a) Fimbriae assist some bacteria in in cattle yard and paddy fields.
attaching to rocks or host body for obtaining 25. (a) Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by
establishment and nutrition. a species of Xanthomonas. Mature rice plant
16. (a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria are infected by these bacteria, lesion begins
in having a different cell wall structure. They as water soaked stripes on the leaf blades and
lack peptidoglyan in cell wall and possess a eventually would increase in length and width
monolayer of branched fatty acids attached becoming yellow to grayish-white until the
to glycerol by ether bonds in their cell entire leaf dries up.
membranes. 26. (b) A domain of prokaryotic organisms
17. (b) Motile bacteria have thin filamentous containing the archaebacteria including the
extensions on their cell wall called flagella. methanogens, which produce methane; the
18. (d) Archaebactera live in some of the most thermoacidophilic bacteria, which live in
harsh habitats such as extreme salty areas extremely hot and acidic environments, & the
(halophiles), hot springs (thermoacidophiles) halophilic bacteria, which can only function
and marshy areas (methanogens) and in deep at high salt concentrations are abundant in
sea water. the world’s oceans.
19. (b) Heterocysts are large sized, thick-walled 27. (a) Ther mococcus, Methanococcus a nd
specialised cells which occur in terminal, Methanobacterium exemplify archaebacteria
intercalary or lateral position in filamentous that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic
cyanobacteria, e.g., Nostoc. They have enzyme core histones.
nitrogenase and are specialised to perform 28. (b) While working at the Rockrfeller
biological nitrogen fixation. Institute, Brown reported isolation of a
20. (d) The most abundant prokaryotes helpful PPLO from human arthritic joint tissue in
to humans in making curd from milk and in 1938. In 1949, Diennes reported to the 7th
production of antibiotics are the heterotrophic International Rheumatology Congress, the
bacteria. Lactobacillis bacteria convert milk isolation of PPLO from the genitourinary
into curd. tracts of men afflicted with arthritis. In
21. (d) Cyanobacteria are also referred as discussing the significance of this observation,
blue green algae, they perform oxygenic Brown reported successful treatment of
photosynthesis. They are most successful arthritic patients in 1949 with a new antibiotic
autotrophic organisms on earth which are called aureomycin (Clark, 1997).
Biological Classification 19
29. (d) Paramecium has two types of nucleus, 40. (b) Transfer of genetic information from one
a larger macronucleus involved with the bacterium to another by physical contact is
vegetative activities and a smaller involved called conjugation while if it takes place by
with reproduction. some other medium like virus than it is called
30. (b) This phenomenon has been successfully transduction.
used in genetic engineering to produce disease 41. (c) In (E.coli) double stranded DNA is
resistant varieties of plants. present.
31. (b) Encystment enables the zygote to survive 42. (b) Sex-factor or F-factor in bacteria results
under adverse or infavourable conditions in high frequency conjugation. It allows
wherein it lies dormant. bacteria to produce sex pilus necessary for
32. (a) Methanobacillus (methanogen) occurs in conjugation.
marshes and also in dung. It produces CH4 43. (d) Some of the blue green algae can tolerate
gas under anaerobic condition and is utilized extremes of temperature due to presence
in gobar gas plant. of gelatinous sheath, and compactness of
33. (a) Transduction is virus mediated gene protein molecules in protoplasm.
transfer in bacteria. 44. (b) Only some bacteria and blue green
34. (a) Cyanobacteria are oxygenic photoau- algae (cynobacteria) have the capacity to fix
totroph. Many members perform nitrogen atmospheric nitrogen.
fixation. • Bacteria : Azotobacter, Rhizobium, Frankia
35. (d) Archaebacteria are the most ancient and etc.
halogenous group of bacteria and are called • Blue green algae : Nostoc, Oscillatoria,
living fossils. Anabaena etc.
36. (a) Gram +(ve) and Gram –(ve) bacteria 45. (d) Pyrrhoea is caused by bacterial infections
are separated on the basis of their cell wall along with other factors, Diarrhoea by caused
composition. Christian Gram, on the basis by rotavirus along with many other factors.
of staining behaviour of the cell wall with Dysentery is caused by Entamoeba histolytica.
Gram’s stain, grouped bacteria into Gram 46. (a) Escherichia coli, lives as a symbiont in
+ve and Gram –ve type. The bacteria which human intestine.
retain blue or purple colour after staining are 47. (c) The bacterial genome/nucleoid is made
Gram +ve e.g. Bacillus subtilis and which loses of single circular double stranded DNA
blue colour is Gram –ve e.g. E. coli. In Gram without histone protein as it is a prokaryotic
–ve, stain is washed due to high lipid content organisms. The genome contains some 100
in the cell having thick wall, Gram +ve has chemical sites or loci. Each locus contains in
single layered cell wall rich in peptidoghycans E. coli contains about 4000 genes.
which retain the colour. 48. (a) In bacteria asexual reproduction through
37. (d) C h l o r o p l a s t s, c h r o m o p l a s t s a n d binary fission is the most common method of
leucoplasts are the types of plastids found in multiplication. Sexual reproduction which
higher plants. Chloroplasts contain the green comprises of syngamy and meiosis is entirely
pigment chlorophyll. Chromoplasts contain absent. Hence, no gamete formation takes
coloured pigments. Leucoplasts are colourless place. In sexually reproducing organism
and store starch granules. alternation of generation occurs.
38. (d) In prokayotes nucleoid consist of double 49. (a) Chemosynthetic bacteria do not require
stranded circular DNA without histone sunlight as a source of energy either directly
protein. or indirectly. The energy for the synthesis of
39. (a) These are archaebacteria which can food is obtained by the oxidation of certain
tolerate high temperature. inorganic substances present in the medium.
 EBD_7325
20 BIOLOGY
The chemical energy obtained from oxidation In some filamentous cyanobacterial forms
reaction is trapped in ATP molecules. The unisexual reproduction occurs by hormogonia
ATP is used in CO2 assimilation. (hormocysts). They are identified by presence
50. (b) Whittaker (1969) divided organisms into of biconcave (one disk or separation disc
five kingdoms : Monera, Protista, Plantae, between two adjacent cells e.g. Oscillatoria).
Fungi and Animalia. Kingdom Monera 59. (c) Contractile vacuole in Amoeba and
includes all prokaryotes – Mycoplasma, Paramecium maintain the water balance of
bacteria, actinomycetes, blue-green algae, the cell. This is known as osmoregulation.
archaebacteria, methanogens. Escherichia 60. (b) The Euglena is an organism, which
is bacteria, Amoeba, Gelidium come under possesses both the characteristics of plants
Protista, Spirogyra is algae. and animals, as it can move with a flagella
51. (b) All unicellular eukaryotic organism like and also contains chlorophyll. Its nutrition
diatoms, desmids (chrysophytes), euglenoids, is mixotrophic.
dinoflagellates and slime mould are included 61. (c) In protozoa, the function of contractile
in Protista. vacuole is the removal of excretory substances,
52. (d) In chrysophytes, the cell walls form two carbon dioxide etc. It is very essential to
thin overlapping shells held together. The regulate water content i.e., osmoregulation.
body of Diatoms appears like soap box due 62. (a) The macronucleus lacks nuclear
to overlapping shells. membrane and is formed of trophochromatin.
It regulates the metabolic activities of the
53. (b) Chlamydomonas & Chlorella have been
body and it is also known as trophonucleus.
included in algae. Algae are chlorophylus,
The micronucleus has a definite nuclear
thalloid avascular plants with no cellular
membrane and controls the reproductive
differentiation. Algae belong to thallophyta
activities of Paramecium and Vorticella.
of plant kingdom.
63. (d) The conractile vacuole is supposed
54. (b) E. coli is a prokaryotic gram negative to assist excertion in Amoeba, as its watery
bacterium. contents possess traces of carbon dioxide
55. (a) Single celled eukaryotes are included and urea. The CO2 diffuses directly through
in protista. Protista includes all unicellular plasmalemma.
and colonial eukaryotes except green and 64. (a) Protistans are eukaryotes and their
red algae. It is also known as kingdom of genetic material is organised in form of
unicellular eukaryotes. nucleus. DNA is associated with histone
56. (a) Physarum polycephalum belongs to phylum protein.
Amoebozoa, infraphylum Mycetozoa, and 65. (a) Members of kingdom Protista have
class Myxogastrea. P. polycephalum, often diverse mode of nutrition. They are
referred to as the “many-headed slime,” is a photosynthetic, saprophytic parasitic and
slime mold that inhabits shady, cool, moist ingestive. They are major heterotrophs.
areas, such as decaying leaves and logs. 66. (d) Kingdom Protista includes flagellates
57. (a) The thalloid body of slime moulds (euglenophyceae), diatoms, dinoflagellates,
is made up of multinucleated cell which slime moulds, sarcodines, ciliates, sporozoans.
lacks septa in between and hence it is a They have photosynthetic, chemotrophic,
multinucleated single celled mass called heterotropic mode of nutrition.
plasmodium. 67. (c) I. African sleeping sickness disease
58. (d) Binary fission in diatoms reduces the size also called as trypansomiasis is common
of most daughters which is corrected through in western and central parts of African
the development of auxospores. continent.
Biological Classification 21
II. The disease is caused by parasite Try- modern morphological form for at least 34
panosoma gambiense of class zooflagellata. million years since fossil tse-tse have been
III. The parasite is transmitted through bite recovered from the Florissant Fossil Beds in
of Tse-Tse fly (vector Glossina palpalis). Colorado.
IV. The disease appears when the causal 73. (b) Zooflagellata of Protozoan Protista. They
organism enters into cerebrospinal fluid of have flagella and heterotrophic (Parasitic)
human. mode of nutrition.
V. Trypanosoma is an obligate parasite, 74. (b) Tse-Tse fly is vector of sleeping sickness
digenetic and polymorphic organism. disease and it transmits Trypanosoma gambiense
68. (a) Paramecium has two nuclei through its bite.
Micronucleus 75. (b) The infective stage of Plasmodium that
enters human blood is sporozoite.
Macronucleus 76. (a) A cell wall is a rigid structural layer,
which provides protection and structural
Micronucleus support to the cells. The composition of cell
• Small having two
sets of chromosomes wall varies from one species to another. In
(diploid) fungi, the cell wall is composed of strong
Paramecium •Concerned with covalent linkages of chitin, glucans and
reproduction i.e. stores glycoproteins. Alternatively, in case of land
genetic information
plants, the cell wall is composed of cellulose
Macronucleus and hemicellulose. Archean cell walls consists
•Larger having many of peptidoglycans.
sets of chromosomes 77. (c) Eubacteria are the true bacteria.
•Concerned with
functioning of the cell 78. (a) Alternaria belongs to class - Deuteromyce-
tes, which lack sexual reproduction. Asexual
69. (a) Trypanosoma is polymorphic i.e. it exists
reproduction takes place by conidia produced
in different forms in the successive stages of its
on conidiophores.
life cycle. These are Leishmania, Leptomonad,
79. (d) Anabaena is a cyanobacteria which lack
Crituidial and trypanosomal stages.
a true nucleus because of absence of nuclear
70. (c) Plasmodium belongs to class Sporozoa
membrane.
of protozoan profists. It is an endoparasite
80. (d) Class- deuteromycetes comprises of
lacking any locomotory structure and
imperfect fungi which play role in decomposi-
contractile vacules. It reproduces through
tion of organic wastes.
spore formation.
81. (b) Morel and truffles are used as food and
71. (d) African sleeping sickness disease also they are members of Ascomycetes fungi.
called trypanosomiasis, that is common 82. (b) Several mushrooms such as Amanita
in Africa which is caused by parasite, muscaria, Psilocybe mexicana and Panaeolus
Trypanosoma gambiense. The parasite is spp. secrete hallucinogenic substances like
transmitted by Tse-Tse fly (Glossina palpalis). psilocybin and psilocin. These substances may
72. (b) Vector for sleeping sickness is Tse-Tse fly destroy brain cells and power of perception in
(Glossina palpalis). The parasite Trypanosoma human beings.
is transmitted through the bite of this fly. 83. (c) Fungi lack chlorophyll, hence, they do
Tse-tse have been extensively studied because not prepare their food by photosynthesis.
they are biological vectors of the African They can grow where organic material is
trypanosomiasis, deadly disease which available. So, they are heterotrophs that
includes sleeping sickness in people and acquire their nutrient by absorption and store
nagana in cattle. Tse-tse have existed in the in the form of glycogen.
 EBD_7325
22 BIOLOGY
84. (b) Membrane bound organelles are absent place. So Mucor requires a temperature of
in Streptococcus. It is a bacterium that is about 25ºC, humidity about 95% and a shady
included under kingdom Monera. Monerans place to grow fully.
are prokaryotes which lack membrane bound 89. (c) Viruses that get integrated with the
organelles like mitochondria, E.R, Golgi etc. bacterial host genome are called lysogenic.
Saccharomyces, Chlamydomonas and Plasmodium Virus which transmit its DNA into bacterial
are eukaryotes that have membrane bound cell and divide within bacterial cell causing
organelles. breakdown of bacterial cell wall are called lytic
85. (d) Late blight is caused by the fungus virus. Lysozymes are present in the lipolytic
Phytophthora infestans. Late blight appears on enzymes catalyse breakdown of fats (lipids).
potato or tomato leaves as pale green, water- 90. (c) Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association
soaked spots, often beginning at leaftips or between fungi and roots of higher plants.
edges. The circular or irregular leaf lesions Mycorrhiza form wooly covering of fungal
are often surrounded by a pale yellowish- hyphae on the surface and remain in
green border that merges with healthy tissue. upper layers. It is of two types ecto and
Lesions enlarge rapidly and turn dark brown
endomycorrhiza. In some endomycorrhiza,
to purplish-black. During periods of high
the fungal hyphae develop some organs
humidity and leaf wetness, a cottony, white
called vesicles within the root cortical cells,
mold growth is usually visible on lower
such mycorrhizae are called VAM (vesicular
leaf surfaces at the edges of lesions. In dry
arbuscular mycorrhizae). It is meant for
weather, infected leaf tissues quickly dry
phosphate nutrition.
up and the white mold growth disappears.
Infected areas on stems appear brown to black 91. (a) Aspergillus flavus produces carcinogenic
and entire veins may be killed in a short time fungus toxin (Aflatoxin) during storage
when moist weather persists. condition of crop plant.
86. (d) The class Basidiomycetes includes those 92. (a) Ustilago causes loose smut of wheat, as a
members that produce their basidia and result the grain and flower get converted into
basidiospores on or in a basidiocarp. powdered mass.
87. (c) Ergot of Rye is a plant disease that is 93. (a) Plant decomposers are bacteria (Kingdom
caused by the fungus Claviceps purpurea. The Monera) and fungi.
so-called ergot that replaces the grain of the 94. (a) The fungal hyphae secrete enzymes
rye is a dark, purplish sclerotium, from which which convert insoluble complex food
the sexual stage, of the life cycle will form material in the substratum to the soluble
after over wintering. ones. The hyphae wall of intracellular hyphae
come in contact with the host protoplasm and
obtain food by direct diffusion.
95. (b) Aspergillus is a fungus, Mucor is also
a fungus. Azolla harbors blue-green algae
Anabaena which fixes N2, increasing fertility.
96. (a) Glycogen is a glucosan homopolysac-
charide which is the major reserve food of
Ergot of Rye
animals, fungi and some bacteria. Starch is
88. (a) Mucor is a fungus and most of the fungi also glucosan homopolysaccharide and is
require the optimum temperature of about 15- the major reserve food of plants. Sucrose is
30ºC, good moisture content in atmosphere formed of one molecule of glucose and one
and not very dark and not very lightened molecule of fructose.
Biological Classification 23
97. (a) Black rust of wheat is caused by Puccinia 106. (c) Viroids in nature are sub-viral agents as
graminis. The symptoms are seen in stem or infectious RNA particles, without protein
leaf sheath as brownish spot. coat.
98. (b) Puccinia causes black rust of wheat . It 107. (d) Viroids, the smallest known pathogens,
completes its life cycle in two hosts-wheat and are naked, circular, single-stranded RNA
barberry. Two types of spores are produced molecules that do not encode protein but
on wheat - uredospores and teleutospores. autonomously replicate when introduced into
99. (a) Association of algae and fungi is host plants. Viroids only infect plants; some
referred to as lichen. Symbiotic association cause economically important diseases of
of Rhizobium with roots of leguminous plants crop plants, while others appear to be benign.
is referred to as symbiosis. Mycorrhiza is 108. (b) TMV (Tobacco Mosaic Virus) is a
a symbiotic association between fungi and rod-shaped virus. The rod has a core which
roots of higher plants. The fungal partner of contains helically coiled single stranded
mycorrhiza obtains food from roots of the RNA. There is a protective covering of
higher plant and in return supplies mineral protein called capsid around the infective
elements to it. part. Capsid consists of small subunits called
100. (c) Covered smut of barley is caused by capsomeres and has antigenic property.
Ustilago hordei, not by Ustilago nuda. This 109. (a) All viruses are nucleoproteins (Nucleic
disease is purely externally seed borne. acid + Protein) in the structure. The nucleic
101. (c) Phytoalexins are non-specific antibiotic acid (DNA and RNA) is the genetic material.
substances produced by plants in response to In a particular virus either DNA or RNA is
infection by a fungus. the genetic material. Both are never present
102. (d) Albugo candida is an obligate parasite in a virus.
causing white rust on members of family Single stranded RNA or ss RNA - Tobacco
Cruciferae and other hosts. mosaic virus (TMV)
103. (d) Smut disease is caused by Ustilago species Virus envelope is known as capsid. The
of basidiomycetes fungi. It is characterised by capsid is composed of protein subunits called
formation of black coloured chlamydospores capsomere.
or teleutospores called smut spore due to 110. (a) Plant viruses often contain parasites of
which the affected part becomes black. their own, referred to as satellites. Satellite
104. (c) The fungus that causes the disease ‘Ergot RNAs are dependent on their associated
of Rye’ is Claviceps purpurea. It contains many (helper) virus for both replication and
poisonous alkaloids. The hallucinogenic drug encapsidation. Example—Tobacco Necrosis
LSD is extracted from this fungi. Virus (TNV). Viroids are infectious agents
• Rust of wheat is used by Puccinia smaller than viruses. Bacteriophages are
graminis. viruses that infect the bacteria. A prion is an
• Powdery mildew of pea is caused by infectious agent that is composed primarily
Erysiphae. of protein.
105. (b) Fungi are nutritionally saprophytes, 111. (b) All the viruses are obligate parasite i.e.
which grow on dead and decaying matter. they remain inert outside the host cell. They
They secrete enzyme to the external medium have ability to syntheize nucleic acids and
where digestion takes place and digested food proteins by using host cellular machinery
is absorbed by the body surface. They convert (ribosomes, tRNAs, aminoacids, energy).
complex organic constituents of dead body Three shapes are found in viruses helical
into simple soluble forms. That is why fungi (elongate body e.g. T.M.V), cuboidal (short
are regarded as decomposers. broad body with rhombic rounded, polyhedral
 EBD_7325
24 BIOLOGY
shape e.g. Poliomyelitis virus) and binal (with • Influenza virus B are known to infect
both cuboidal and helical parts e.g. many humans and seals.
bacteriophages like T2). Antibiotics have no • Influenza virus C are known to infect
effect on them, antiviral drugs can only kill humans and pigs.
them. 122. (b) All viruses are nucleoprotein (Nucleic
112. (a) Virus envelope is known as capsid. The acid + Protein) in their structure. The nucleic
capsid is composed of protein subunits called acid (DNA and RNA) is genetic material. In a
capsomere. particular virus either DNA or RNA is genetic
113. (a) Mad cow disease is actually Bovine material. Both are never present in a virus.
Spongiform Encephalopathy or BSE. In this Hence viruses contains:
disease cattles in Britain got spongy brain & (i) Double stranded DNA (ds DNA) -
ultimately gradual degradation of nervous Hepatitis B
system. It is caused by some virus like but (ii) Single stranded DNA (ss DNA) -
nucleic acid devoid proteinaceous particles coliphage
called prions (proteinaceous infectious (iii) Double stranded RNA (ds RNA) - Reo
particle). virus, wound Tumor virus
114. (a) Viruses can live only inside the host cell, (iv) Single stranded RNA (ss RNA) -
using their machinery for its own metabolism. Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV)
115. (d) Virus is a nucleoprotein entity which 123. (c) Rickettsia are tiny obligate, intracellular
becomes active only inside a living cells uti- parasites found in blood sucking insects like
lizing the latter machinery for multiplication. lices, mites, ticks. They were first observed
Capsid is the protein covering the genetic by Ricketts in 1909 but it was properly
material. described by Rocha-lime 1916, who named
116. (d) Tobacco mosaic virus is 300 nm long and them as Rickettsia. They have mucopeptide
20 nm in diameter. cell wall with DNA as genetic material and
117. (c) Cauliflower mosaic virus contains double are independent entity causing diseases like
stranded DNA. Q-fever, typhus etc.
118. (b) Enzymes are absent in viruses because 124. (b) Lichens are composite organisms
they are unable to transmit their nucleic acid representing a symbiotic association between
from one host cell to another. fungus and a algae. It can be crustose, foliose
119. (c) Virus is an ultra microscopic nucleopro- and fruticose types. They are the pioneer
tein entity which becomes active only inside organisms in a new habitat. Lichens are used
a living cell. It resembles living beings due to as indicator of air pollution. It does grow in
presence of genetic material and reproduc- the environment where pollution level is high,
tion. SO2 is strong air pollutant and lichens are very
120. (b) Viruses have either DNA or RNA as the sensitive to SO2.
genetic material. Viruses having RNA as the 125. (d) Lichens cannot grow in places where
genetic material are known as retroviruses. sulphur dioxide is present in the environment.
121. (b) Influenza virus is a retrovirus wherein, 126. (c) Saccharomyces cervisiae is a yeast used in
the genetic material comprises of RNA. making bread (Baker’s yeast) and commercial
There are three genera of influenza virus, production of ethanol.
identified by antigenic differences in their Paramoecium & Plasmodium are of animal
nucleoprotein and matrix protein: kingdom while Pencillium is a fungi. Lichen
• Influenza virus A are the cause of all is composite organism formed from the
flu pandemics and are known to infect symbiotic association of an algae and a
humans, other mammals and birds (see fungus. Nostoc & Anabaena are examples of
also avian influenza). kingdom monera.
Biological Classification 25
127. (a) Lichens (coined by Theophrastus) are partner protects the alga by retaining water,
composite or dual organisms which are serving as a larger surface area for capture of
formed by a fungus partner or mycobiont mineral nutrients and, in some cases, provides
(mostly ascomycetes) and an algal partner minerals obtained from the substratum. If
(mostly blue green algae). Fungus forms a cyanobacterium is present, as a primary
the body of lichen as well as its attaching partner or another symbiont in addition to
and absorbing structures. Algae performs green alga as in certain tripartite lichens, they
photosynthesis and provides food to the can fix atmospheric nitrogen, complementing
fungus. the activities of the green alga.
128. (d) Lichens are composite organisms formed 130. (d) Lichens are composite organisms formed
by symbiotic association between a fungus by the association between a fungus and a
and alga. A saprophyte is an organism feeding photosynthetic symbiont. The bulk of lichen
on dead, decaying organic matter. Epiphyte is body is formed of fungus.
a plant growing over another plant. Parasites
131. (c) Lichens typically grow in harsh environ-
live inside their host.
ments in nature. Most lichens, especially epi-
129. (b) The lichen fungus is typically a member
phytic fruticose species and those containing
of the Ascomycota, rarely a member of the
cyanobacteria, are sensitive to manufactured
Basidiomycota. The algal or cyanobacterial
pollutants. Hence, they have been widely used
cells are photosynthetic, and as in higher
as pollution indicator organisms.
plants they reduce atmospheric carbon
dioxide into organic carbon sugars to feed Lichens are symbiotic associations of a
both symbionts. Both partners gain water fungus with a photosynthetic partner (called
and mineral nutrients mainly from the a photobiont or phycobiont) that can produce
atmosphere through rain and dust. The fungal food for the lichen from sunlight.
 EBD_7325
3
Chapter

Plant Kingdom

Topic 1: Algae 8. Which of the following is not correctly

matched for the organism and its cell wall
1. An example of colonial alga is : [2017]
degrading enzyme?  [NEET 2013]
(a) Volvox (b) Ulothrix
(a) Plant cells-Cellulase
(c) Spirogyra (d) Chlorella (b) Algae-Methylase
2. Male gemetes are flagellated in : [2015 RS] (c) Fungi-Chitinase
(a) Anabaena (b) Ectocarpus (d) Bacteria-Lysozyme
(c) Spirogyra (d) Polysiphonia 9. Which one of the following is wrongly
3. Which one of the following statements is matched?  [NEET Kar. 2013]
wrong?  [2015 RS] (a) Nostoc-Water blooms
(a) Agar - agar is obtained from Gelidium (b) Spirogyra-Motile gametes
and Gracilaria (c) Sargassum-Chlorophyll c
(b) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space (d) Basidiomycetes-Puffballs
food 10. Algae have cell wall made up of: [2010]
(c) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae (a) cellulose, galactans and mannans
(d) Algin and carragen are products of algae
(b) hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
4. Which one of the following shows isogamy
(c) pectins, cellulose and proteins
with non-flagellated gametes?[2014]
(d) cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
(a) Sargassum (b) Ectocarpus
11. Mannitol is the stored food in: [2009]
(c) Ulothrix (d) Spirogyra
(a) Porphyra (b) Fucus
5. Which one of the following is wrong about (c) Gracillaria (d) Chara
Chara?  [2014] 12. If you are asked to classify the various algae
(a) Upper oogonium and lower round into distinct groups, which of the following
antheridium. characters you should choose? [2007]
(b) Globule and nucule present on the same (a) nature of stored food materials in the
plant. cell
(c) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium. (b) structural organization of thallus
(d) Globule is male reproductive structure. (c) chemical composition of the cell wall
6. An alga which can be employed as food for (d) types of pigments present in the cell.
human being is:  [2014] 13. Floridean starch is found in  [2000]
(a) Ulothrix (b) Chlorella (a) Chlorophyceae (b) Rhodophyceae
(c) Spirogyra (d) Polysiphonia (c) Myxophyceae (d) Cyanophyceae
7. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated 14. A research student collected certain alga
gametes is found in : [NEET 2013] and found that its cells contained both
(a) Spirogyra (b) Volvox chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b as well as
(c) Fucus (d) Chlamydomonas phycoerythrin.The alga belongs to [2000]
Plant Kingdom 27
(a) Rhodophyceae 24. Which of the following cannot fix nitrogen?
(b) Bacillariophyceae  [1994]
(c) Chlorophyceae (a) Nostoc (b) Azotobacter
(d) Phaeophyceae (c) Spirogyra (d) Anabaena
15. Columella is a specialised structure found in 25. In Ulothrix/Spirogyra, reduction division
the sporangium of  [1999] (meiosis) occurs at the time of  [1993]
(a) Ulothrix (b) Rhizopus (a) gamete formation
(c) Spirogyra (d) None of these (b) zoospore formation
(c) zygospore germination
16. Ulothrix can be described as a [1998]
(d) vegetative reproduction
(a) non-motile colonial alga lacking
26. Chloroplast of Chlamydomonas is [1993]
zoospores
(a) stellate (b) cup-shaped
(b) filamentous alga lacking flagellated
(c) collar-shaped (d) spiral
reproductive stages
27. Pyrenoids are the centres for formation of
(c) membranous alga producing zoospores (a) porphyra (b) enzymes[1993]
(d) filamentous alga with flagellated (c) fat (d) starch
reproductive stages 28. The product of conjugation in Spirogyra or
17. An alga very rich in protein is [1997] fertilization of Chlamydomonas is [1991]
(a) Spirogyra (b) Ulothrix (a) zygospore (b) zoospore
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Chlorella (c) oospore (d) carpospore
18. Ulothrix filaments produce  [1997] 29. The common mode of sexual reproduction
(a) isogametes (b) anisogametes in Chlamydomonas is  [1991]
(c) heterogametes (d) basidiospores (a) isogamous (b) anisogamous
19. Brown algae is characterised by the presence (c) oogamous (d) hologamous
of  [1997] 30. Sexual reproduction involving fusion of two
cells in Chlamydomonas is  [1988]
(a) phycocyanin (b) phycoerythrin
(a) isogamy (b) homogamy
(c) fucoxanthin (d) haematochrome
(c) somatogamy (d) hologamy
20. Blue-green algae belong to  [1996]
(a) Eukaryotes (b) Prokaryotes Topic 2: Bryophytes
(c) Rhodophyceae (d) Chlorophyceae 31. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of:   [2017]
21. The absence of chlorophyll, in the lowermost (a) Fucus (b) Funaria
cell of Ulothrix, shows  [1995] (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Marchantia
(a) functional fission 32. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively
(b) tissue formation are:    [2017]
(c) cell characteristic (a) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
(d) beginning of labour division (b) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
22. Agar is commercially obtained from [1995] (c) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
(a) red algae (b) green algae (d) Haplontic, Diplontic
(c) brown algae (d) blue-green algae 33. Which one is wrong statement ?  [2015 RS]
23. In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction (a) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores
occurs by  [1994] (b) Haploid endosperm is typical feature of
gymnosperms
(a) Isogamy and anisogamy
(c) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c and
(b) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
fucoxanthin
(c) Oogamy only (d) Archegonia are found in Bryophyta,
(d) Anisogamy and oogamy Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms.
 EBD_7325
28 BIOLOGY
34. Which of the following is responsible for peat 37. Archegoniophore is present in : [2011]
formation?  [2014] (a) Marchantia (b) Chara
(a) Marchanita (b) Riccia (c) Adiantum (d) Funaria
(c) Funaria (d) Sphagnum 38. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that
35. Which one of the following is common to grow in highly acidic (PH2) habitats belong
multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and to the two groups:  [2010]
protonema of mosses [2012] (a) Eubacteria and archaea
(a) Diplontic life cycle (b) Cyanobacteria and diatoms
(b) Members of kingdom plantae (c) Protists and mosses
(c) Mode of Nutrition (d) Liverworts and yeasts
(d) Multiplication by fragmentation 39. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is
36. Examine the figure given below and select aided by  [2007]
the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, (a) indusium (b) calyptra
c and d) correctly identified.    [2011M] (c) peristome teeth (d) elaters
40. In a moss the sporophyte  [2006]
(a) produces gametes that give rise to the
gametophyte
(b) arises from a spore produced from the
gametophyte
(c) manufactures food for itself as well as
for the gametophyte
(d) is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
41. Peat Moss is used as a packing material for
sending flowers and live plants to distant
places because  [2006]
(a) it is hygroscopic
(a) (A) Archegoniophore
(b) It reduces transpiration
(B) Female thallus
(c) it serves as a disinfectant
(C) Gemmacup (d) it is easily available
(D) Rhizoids 42. Which of the following propagates through
(b) (A) Archegoniophore leaf- tip?  [2004]
(B) Female thallus (a) Walking fern
(C) Bud (b) Sproux-leaf plant
(D) Foot (c) Marchantia
(d) Moss
(c) (A) Seta
43. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an
(B) Sporophyte
advanced feature because it shows  [2003]
(C) Protonema (a) physiologically differentiated sex organs
(D) Rhizoids (b) different sizes of motile sex organs
(d) (A) Antheridiophore (c) same size of motile sex organs
(B) Male thallus (d) morphologically different sex organs
(C) Globule 44. The antherozoids of Funaria are [1999]
(D) Roots (a) aciliated (b) flagellated
(c) multiciliated (d) monociliated
Plant Kingdom 29
45. Bryophytes comprise  [1999] 51. Unique features of Bryophytes is that they
(a) sporophyte of longer duration (a) produce spores     [1994]
(b) dominant phase of sporophyte which is (b) have sporophyte attached to
parasitic gametophyte
(c) dominant phase of gametophyte which (c) lack roots
produces spores (d) lack vascular tissues
(d) small sporophyte phase and generally 52. Protonema occurs in the life cycle of
parasitic on gametophyte. [1990, 1993]
46. Which of the following is true about (a) Riccia (b) Funaria
bryophytes?  [1999] (c) Somatogamy (d) Spirogyra
(a) They possess archegonia 53. Bryophytes are amphibians because [1991]
(b) They contain chloroplast (a) they require a layer of water for
(c) They are thalloid carrying out sexual reproduction
(d) All of these (b) they occur in damp places
47. Bryophytes are dependent on water because (c) they are mostly aquatic
[1998] (d) all the above
(a) water is essential for fertilization for 54. Apophysis in the capsule of Funaria is [1990]
their homosporous nature
(a) lower part (b) upper part
(b) water is essential for their vegetative
(c) middle part (d) fertile part
propagation
55. Moss peristome takes part in [1990]
(c) the sperms can easily reach upto egg in
(a) spore dispersal (b) photosynthesis
the archegonium
(c) protection (d) absorption
(d) archegonium has to remain filled with
56. Sperms of both Funaria and Pteris were
water for fertilization
released together near the archegonia of
48. Bryophytes can be separated from algae
Pteris. Only its sperms enter the archegonia
because they  [1997]
as  [1989]
(a) are thalloid forms
(a) Pteris archegonia repel Funaria sperms
(b) have no conducting tissue
(b) Funaria sperms get killed by Pteris
(c) possess archegonia with outer layer of
sperms
sterile cells
(c) Funaria sperms are less mobile
(d) contain chloroplasts in their cells
(d) Pteris archegonia release chemical to
49. In which one of these the elaters are present
attract its sperms
along with mature spores in the capsule (to
help in spore dispersal)?  [1996] Topic 3: Pteridophytes
(a) Riccia (b) Marchantia
57. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of
(c) Funaria (d) Sphagnum
male gametes requires  [2016]
50. The plant body of moss (Funaria) is  [1995] (a) Wind (b) Insects
(a) completely sporophyte (c) Birds (d) Water
(b) completely gametophyte 58. The plant body is thalloid in
(c) predominantly sporophyte with [NEET Kar. 2013]
gametophyte (a) Funaria (b) Sphagnum
(d) predominantly gametophyte with (c) Salvinia (d) Marchantia
sporophyte
 EBD_7325
30 BIOLOGY
59. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to 67. The ‘amphibians’ of plant kingdom are
represent a significant step towards evolution (a) unicellular motile algae [1996]
of seed habit because:      [2011M] (b) multicellular non-motile algae
(a) female gametophyte is free and gets (c) bryophytes with simple internal
dispersed like seeds organization
(b) female gametophyte lacks archaegonia (d) pteridophytes with complex internal
(c) megaspores possess endosperm and organization not reaching angiosperm
embryo surrounded by seed coat
level.
(d) embryo develops in female gametophyte
68. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/
which is retained on parent sporophyte.
bryophytes in possessing  [1993]
60. In which one of the following, male and
female gametophytes do not have free living (a) independent gametophyte
independent existence?  [2008] (b) well developed vascular system
(a) Pteris (b) Funaria (c) archegonia
(c) Polytrichum (d) Cedrus (d) flagellate spermatozoids
61. Which one of the following is heterosporous? 69. The plant group that produces spores and
(a) Dryopteris (b) Salvinia  [2008] embryo but lacks vascular tissues and seeds
(c) Adiantum (d) Equisetum is  [1992]
62. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, (a) Pteridophyta (b) Rhodophyta
the antherozoids and eggs mature a different (c) Bryophyta (d) Phaeophyta
times. As a result  [2007] 70. Which one of the following is not common
(a) there is high degree of sterility between Funaria and Selaginella? [1992]
(b) one can conclude that the plant is (a) Archegonium (b) Embryo
apomictic (c) Flagellate sperms (d) Roots
(c) self-fertilization is prevented 71. Evolutionary important character of
(d) there is no change in success rate of Selaginella is  [1989]
fertilization (a) heterosporous nature
63. In Ferns meiosis occurs when [2000] (b) rhizophore
(a) spore germinates (c) strobili
(b) gametes are formed (d) ligule
(c) spores are formed
72. Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise to fern
(d) antheridia and archegonia are formed
plant (sporophyte) without fertilization. It is
64. Dichotomous branching is found in [1999]
 [1988]
(a) Fern (b) Funaria
(a) apospory (b) apogamy
(c) Liverworts (d) Marchantia
65. The “walking” fern is so named because (c) parthenocarpy (d) parthenogenesis
(a) it is dispersed through the agency of 73. Which one of the following is considered
walking animals  [1998] important in the development of seed habit?
(b) it propagates vegetatively by its leaf tips (a) Heterospory  [2009]
(c) it knows how to walk by itself (b) Haplontic life cycle
(d) its spores are able to walk (c) Free -living gametophyte
66. Multicellular branched rhizoids and leafy (d) Dependent sporophyte
gametophytes are characteristic of  [1997] 74. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses
(a) all bryophytes and ferns are grouped under the general
(b) some bryophytes term  [2003]
(c) all pteridophytes (a) Thallophytes (b) Cryptogams
(d) some peteriodphytes (c) Bryophytes (d) Sporophytes
Plant Kingdom 31

Topic 4: Gymnosperms 3. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox

and Albugo is oogamous
75. Select the mismatch [2017]
4. The sporophyte in liveworts is more
(a) Cycas – Dioecious elaborate than that in mosses
(b) Salvinia – Heterosporous 5. Both, Pinus and Marchantia are
(c) Equisetum – Homosporous dioecious
(d) Pinus – Dioecious How many of the above statements are
76. Select the correct statement: [2016] correct?
(a) Gymnosperms are both homosporous (a) Two (b) Three
and heterosporous (c) Four (d) One
(b) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are 81. What is common in all the three, Funaria,
gymnosperms Dryopteris and Ginkgo? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees (a) Independent sporophyte
(d) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well (b) Presence of archegonia
adapted to extremes of climate (c) Well developed vascular tissues
77. In which of the following gametophyte is not (d) Independent gametophyte
independent free living ?  [2015 RS] 82. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in
(a) Marchantia (b) Pteris having: [2012]
(c) Pinus (d) Funaria (a) Seeds (b) Motile Sperms
78. Read the following five statements (A to (c) Cambium (d) Vessels
E) and select the option with all correct 83. Which one of the following is a correct
statements :  [2015 RS] statement? [2012]
(A) Mosses and Lichens are the first (a) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a
organisms to colonise a bare rock. protonemal and leafy stage
(B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte (b) In gymnosperms female gametophyte
(C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM is free-living
(D) Main plant body in bryophytes is (c) Antheridiophores and
gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes archegoniophores are present in
it is sporophytic pteridophytes.
(E) In gymnosperms, male and female (d) Origin of seed habit can be traced in
gametophytes are present within pteridophytes
sporangia located on sporophyte 84. Read the following five statements (A - E)
(a) (B), (C) and (D) (b) (A), (D) and (E) and answer the question. [2012M]
(c) (B), (C) and (E) (d) (A), (C) and (D) (A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is
79. Besides paddy fields cyanobacteria are also retained on the parent sporophyte.
found inside vegetative part of : (B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not
[NEET 2013] independent.
(a) Cycas (b) Equisetum (C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more
developed than that in Polytrichum.
(c) Psilotum (d) Pinus
(D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is
80. Read the following statements (A-E) and
isogamous.
answer the question which follows them.
(E) The spores of slime molds lack
[NEET 2013]
cell walls. How many of the above
1. In liverworts, mosses and ferns statements are correct?
gametophytes are free-living
(a) Two (b) Three
2. Gymnosperms and some ferns are
(c) Four (d) One
heterosporous.
 EBD_7325
32 BIOLOGY
85. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly (c) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
matched? [2012M] (d) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
(a) Ginkgo -Archegonia 92. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber
(b) Salvinia - Prothallus represents  [2007]
(c) Viroids - RNA (a) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen
(d) Mustard - Synergids grains are stored after pollination
86. Consider the following four statements (b) an opening in the megagametophyte
whether they are correct or wrong?  [2011M] through which the pollen tube
(A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more approaches the egg
elaborate than that in mosses (c) the microsporangium in which pollen
(B) Salvinia is heterosporous grains develop
(C) The life cycle in all seed-bearing plants (d) a cell in the pollen grain in which the
is diplontic sperms are formed.
(D) In Pinus male and female cones are 93. Conifers differ from grasses in the  [2006]
borne on different trees
(a) lack of xylem tracheids
(a) Statements (A) and (C)
(b) absence of pollen tubes
(b) Statements (A) and (D)
(c) formation of endosperm before
(c) Statements (B) and (C)
fertilization
(d) Statements (A) and (B)
(d) production of seeds from ovules
87. The gametophyte is not an independent, free
living generation in :      [2011] 94. Match items in Column I with those in
(a) Polytrichum (b) Adiantum Column II :
(c) Marchantia (d) Pinus Column I Column II
88. Which one of the following plants is (A) Peritrichous (J) Ginkgo
monoecious?  [2009] flagellation
(a) Pinus (b) Cycas (B) Living fossil (K) Macrocystis
(c) Papaya (d) Marchantia (C) Rhizophore (L) Escherichia coli
89. Which one of the following is a vascular (D) Smallest (M) Selaginella
cryptogam?  [2009] flowering plant
(a) Ginkgo (b) Marchantia (E) Largest perennial (N) Wolffia
(c) Cedrus (d) Equisetum alga
90. Select one of the following pairs of Select the correct answer from the following:
important features distinguishing Gnetum (a) A-L; B-J; C-M; D-N; E-K; [2005]
from Cycas and Pinus and showing affinities (b) A-K; B-J; C-L; D-M; E-N
with angiosperms  [2008]
(c) A-N; B-L; C-K; D-N; E-J;
(a) absence of resin duct and leaf venation
(d) A-J; B-K; C-N; D-L; E-K
(b) presence of vessel elements and absence
of archegonia 95. Which one of the following is a living fossil?
(c) perianth and two integuments (a) Cycas (b) Moss[2003, 04]
(d) embryo development and apical (c) Saccharomyces (d) Spirogyra
meristem 96. Which one of the following pairs of plants
91. Flagellated male gametes are present in all are not seed producers?  [2003]
the three of which one of the following sets? (a) Funaria and Pinus
[2007] (b) Fern and Funaria
(a) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla (c) Funaria and Ficus
(b) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis (d) Ficus and Chlamydomonas
Plant Kingdom 33

97. Which one of the following is a living fossil? 105. A plant having seeds but lacking flowers and
[1996, 97, 2003] fruits belongs to  [1992]
(a) Pinus (b) Opuntia (a) Pteridophytes (b) Mosses
(c) Ginkgo (d) Thuja (c) Ferns (d) Gymnosperms
98. Cycas has two cotyledons but not included in 106. In Pinus, the pollen grain has 6 chromosomes
angiosperms because of  [2001] then in its endosperm will have [1992]
(a) Naked ovules (a) 12 (b) 18
(c) 6 (d) 24
(b) Seems like monocot
107. Resin and turpentine are obtained from
(c) Circinate ptyxis
(a) Cycas (b) Pinus [1992]
(d) Compound leaves
(c) Cedrus (d) Abies
99. In which of the following would you place
108. In Pinus/gymnosperms, the haploid
the plants having vascular tissue lacking
structure are [1989]
seeds? [1999, 2000]
(a) megaspore, endosperm and embryo
(a) Algae (b) Bryophytes
(b) megaspore, pollen grain and endosperm
(c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperms
(c) megaspore, integument and root
100. Which one of the following statements
(d) pollen grain, leaf and root
about Cycas is incorrect?  [1998]
109. In gymnosperms like Pinus and Cycas, the
(a) It does not have a well-organized female
endosperm is  [1988]
flower
(a) triploid (b) haploid
(b) It has circinate vernation
(c) diploid (d) tetraploid
(c) Its xylem is mainly composed of xylem
vessels Topic 5: Angiosperms
(d) Its roots contain some blue-green algae.
110. Double fertilization is exhibited by :  [2017]
101. A well developed archegonium with neck
(a) Algae
consisting of 4-6 rows of neck canal cells,
(b) Fungi
characterises  [1995]
(c) Angiosperms
(a) Gymnosperms only
(d) Gymnosperms
(b) Bryophytes and pteridophytes
111. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces:
(c) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
[2015 RS]
(d) Gymnosperms and flowering plants
(a) Single sperm and vegetative cell
102. The ‘wing’ of Pinus seed is derived from
(b) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
(a) testa  [1994]
(c) Three sperms
(b) testa and tegmen (d) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
(c) surface of ovuliferous scale 112. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and
(d) all the above megasporogenesis :  [2015 RS]
103. Which one is the most advanced from (a) form gametes without further divisions
evolutionary point of view.  [1993] (b) Involve meiosis
(a) Selaginella (b) Funaria (c) occur in ovule
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) Pinus (d) occur in anther
104. A plant in which sporophytic generation is 113. In angiosperms, functional megaspore
represented by zygote  [1992] develops into  [2011M]
(a) Pinus (b) Selaginella (a) embryo sac (b) ovule
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) Dryopteris
(c) endosperm (d) pollen sac
 EBD_7325
34 BIOLOGY
114. Compared with the gametophytes of the 120. The largest ovules, largest male and female
bryophytes the gametophytes of vascular gametes and largest plants are found among
plant are       [2011] (a) Angiosperms  [2000]
(a) smaller but have larger sex organs (b) Tree ferns and some monocots
(b) larger but have smaller sex organs
(c) Gymnosperms
(c) larger and have larger sex organs
(d) Dicotyledonous plants
(d) smaller and have smaller sex organs
121. Largest sperms in the plant world are found
115. Male and female gametophytes are
in  [1998]
independent and free -living in: [2010]
(a) Pinus (b) Banyan
(a) Mustard (b) Castor
(c) Pinus (d) Sphagnum (c) Cycas (d) Thuja
116. Which one of the following has haplontic 122. Seed-habit first originated in [1996]
life cycle?  [2009] (a) certain ferns (b) certain pines
(a) Polytrichum (b) Ustilago (c) certain monocots (d) primitive dicots
(c) Wheat (d) Funaria 123. Sunken stomata is the characteristic feature
117. Which one pair of examples will correctly of  [1995]
represent the grouping Spermatophyta (a) hydrophyte (b) mesophyte
according to one of the schemes of (c) xerophyte (d) halophyte
classifying plants ?  [2003] 124. Pinus differs from mango in having [1993]
(a) Ginkgo, Pisum (a) tree habit
(b) Acacia, Sugarcane (b) green leaves
(c) Pinus, Cycas (c) ovules not enclosed in ovary
(d) Rhizopus, Triticum
(d) wood
118. Which of the following plants produces
125. Turpentine is obtained from [1992]
seeds but not flowers?  [2002]
(a) Angiospermous wood
(a) Maize (b) Mint
(c) Peepal (d) Pinus (b) Pteridophytes
119. Which of the following is without exception (c) Gymnospermous wood
in angiosperms?  [2002] (d) Ferns
(a) presence of vessels 126. Which one has the largest gametophyte?
(b) double fertilisation  [1991]
(c) secondary growth (a) Cycas (b) Angiosperm
(d) autotrophic nutrition (c) Selaginella (d) Moss
Plant Kingdom 35

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Volvox is motile colonial fresh water 10. (a) Algae possess a def inite cell wall
green alga. It forms spherical colonies. containing cellulose, galactans and mannans.
2. (b) Male gametes are flagellated in Ecto- 11. (b) Mannitol is a food stored in Fucus.
carpus (phaeophyceae). They possess hetero- Fucus is a genus of brown alga in the class
kont, lateral flagella. Phaeophyceae to be found in the intertidal
3. (c) Mannitol or laminarin is the stored food zones of rocky seashores almost everywhere
in phaeophyceae (brown algae). in the world. Primary chemical constituents of
this plant include mucilage, algin, mannitol,
4. (d) In Spirogyra, sexual reproduction
beta-carotene, zeaxanthin, iodine, bromine,
occurs through conjugation. Gametes are potassium, volatile oils, and many other
non-f lagellated, morphologically similar. minerals.
But physiologically different (isogamy with 12. (d) It will be types of pigment present in
physiological anisogamy). the cell, like Rhodophyceae shows presence
5. (c) Chara is a green alga found attached to of phycoerythrin, chlorophyceae shows
bottoms of shallow water of ponds, pools and presence of phycocyanin etc.
lakes. Male sex organ is called antheridium. 13. (b) Reserve food in red algae (Rhodophy-
Female sex organ is called oogonium. ceae) is Floridean starch. In green algae,
Oogonium is borne at the top of the four (Chlorophyceae), reserve food is starch. In
celled filament. brown algae, reserve food is laminarin and
6. (b) Chlorella and Spirullina are unicellular manitol. In cyanophyceae reserve food is
algae, rich in proteins and are used as food cyanophycean starch.
supplements by space travellers. 14. (a) In green algae, the photosynthetic
7. (a) In Spirogyra, sexual reproduction pigments are chlorophyll a & b, carotenes
occurs through conjugation. Gametes are and xanthophylls. In phaeophyceae, the
non-f lagellated, morphologically similar. pigments are chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c and
But physiologically different (isogamy carotenes and xanthophylls. Phycoerythrin
with physiological anisogamy). Volvox gives red colour to Rhodophyceae.
and Fucus are examples of oogamous 15. (b) Ulothrix is a green alga. Spirogyra is
and Chlamydomonas contains isogamous a filamentous green alga. In Rhizopus the
flagellated gametes. columella bears the spores for asexual
8. (b) Algae is a plant and so its cell wall is reproduction.
made up of cellulose. Cellulase enzyme is 16. (d) Spirogyra is a filamentous alga lacking
needed for degradation of its cell wall. flagellated reproductive stages.
17. (d) Chlorella can be grown to provide human
9. (b) Cyanobacteria, e.g., Nostoc, grow in
food rich in protein, lipid, carbohydrates,
such abundance as to form water blooms.
vitamins and minerals.
Sargassum belongs to brown algae which
possess chl a, c, carotenoids, xanthophyll and Chlorella has been researched as a potential
source of food and energy, because its
a characteristic brown pigment, fucoxanthin.
efficiency of photosynthesis can reach 8%,
Commonly known forms of basidiomycetes
which is comparable with other highly
are mushrooms, bracket fungi or puffballs.
efficient crops such as sugar cane. It is high
In Spirogyra gametes are non-f lagellated
in protein and other essential nutrients.
(non-motile) but similar in size. They show
When dried, it has about 45 percent protein,
amoeboid movements.
 EBD_7325
36 BIOLOGY
20 percent fat, 20 percent carbohydrate, 5% Chlamydomonas – cup shaped, 1/cell
fiber, and 10 percent minerals and vitamins. Zygnema – Stellate, 2/cell
18. (a) Sexual reproduction in Ulothrix is Spirogyra – Spiral, 1/ cell
isogamous type. Only similar type of Ulothrix – Collar shaped, 1/cell
gametes called isogametes are produced. 27. (d) In cell biology, pyrenoids are centers of
19. (c) Phycoerythrins are accessory photosyn- carbon dioxide fixation within the chloroplasts
thetic pigments along with phycocyanins. of algae and hornworts. Pyrenoids are not
Haematochrome is a pigment in the blood. membrane-bound organelles, but specialized
Brown algae is brown due to fucoxanthin. areas of the plastid that contain high levels
20. (b) Blue green algae or cyanobacteria are of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/
prokaryotes. Prokaryotes lack a well defined oxygenase (RUBISCO). RUBISCO fixes
nucleus surrounded by nuclear membrane. carbon dioxide by adding it to the 5-carbon
Eukaryotes have well organised nucleus. sugar-phosphate, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate,
Rhodophyceae & Chlorophyceae are mem- yielding two molecules of the 3-carbon
bers of algae which come under eukaryotes. compound, 3 -phosphog lycerate. I n a
21. (d) Lowermost cell in Ulothrix functions competing reaction, the enzyme uses oxygen
as the holdfast. It is meant for attaching the to break down ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate to
filaments to the substratum which shows phosphoglycolate and 3-phosphoglycerate,
beginning of labour division. with no net fixation of carbon.
28. (a) In both the members of green algae,
22. (a) The Agar is obtained from several
Spirogyra and Chlamydomonas, gametes
members of red algae such as Gracilaria,
fuse to form zygote which develops into a
Gelidium, Chondrus etc. Agar gels are
thick walled resting zygospore. Zoospore is
ex tensively used for g row i ng m ic ro -
asexual spore while ospore is sexual spore.
organisms.
29. (a) In Chlamydomonas, sexual reproduction
23. (b) In chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction
takes place through :
takes place by all the three processes
1. Isogamy : Fusion of 2 similar gametes.
1. Isogamy – Fusion of morphologically 2. Anisogamy : Fusion between morpho-
and physiologically similar gametes. logically similar but physiologically
2. Anisogamy – Morphologically similar different gametes.
but physiologically dissimilar gametes. 3. Oogamy : Fusion between two dissimi-
3. Oogamy – Fusing gametes are lar gametes.
dissimilar in all respect. 4. Hologamy : Fusion of two young cells.
24. (c) Spirogyra is a member of green algae Most common mode is isogamy.
which cannot fix atmospheric nitrogen. Only 30. (a) Isogamy refers to a form of sexual
Nostoc and Anabaena (Blue green algae) and reproduction involving gametes of the same
Azotobacter (bacteria) can fix nitrogen. size. Since both gametes look alike, they
25. (c) Plant body of Ulothrix and Spirogyra cannot be classified as “male” or “female.”
is gametophyte (haploid), they produce Instead, organisms undergoing isogamy
zoogametes(n) which fuse to form zygospore are said to have different mating types,
(2n) diploid, which is a resting spore. Under most commonly noted as “+” and “–”
favourable condition zygospore undergoes strains. Fertilization occurs when “+” and
reductional division or meiosis to produce “–” strain gametes fuse to form a zygote.
zoospores which give rise to new plant. There are several types of isogamy. Both
26. (b) Shape and number of chloroplast in gametes may be flagellated and thus motile.
different members of algae is different This type mating occurs in algae such as
Chlamydomonas.
Plant Kingdom 37
42. (a) In mosses vegetative propagation
occurs by fragmentation. Marchantia is a
liverwort in which propagation also occurs
by fragmentation. Walking fern Adiantum
propagates through leaf tip.
A. Isogamy of motile cells 43. (a) Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra occurs
B. Isogamy of non-motile cells by conjugation involving union of two
gametes. The fusing gametes are similar but
31. (c) Chlamydomonas has haplontic life cycle
hence shows zygotic meiosis. one is more active and passes onto the other
32. (b) Ectocarpus exhibits haplodiplontic life cell. This differentiation of gametes is called
cycle while Fucus has diplontic life cycle. physiological anisogamy.
33. (a) The spores are non motile in Mucor. 44. (b) Antherozoids of Funaria bear two
34. (d) Sphagnum, a moss, provides peat that flagella at anterior end and is spirally coiled.
has long been used as fuel. It has the capacity 45. (d) In br yophytes, the dominant and
to retain water for long periods and as independent living phase of the life cycle is
such used to cover the plant roots during gametophyte. Sporophyte is always attached
transportation.
and dependent upon the gametophytic plant
35. (d) 36. (a) body for water supply, fixation, and part or
37. (a) Archegoniophore is the female sex organ whole nutrient requirement.
of bryophytes (Marchantia) and pteridophytes.
Its neck region is made up of 4-6 vertical rows 46. (d) Bryophytes are non vascular embryo-
of cells. phytes characterized by the presence of an
38. (a) Hyperthermophilic organism that grow independent gametophyte and a parasitic
in highly acidic habitats belong to eubacteria sporophyte. Plant body is either thalloid or
and archae groups. foliose. Archegonium is the f lask shaped
39. (d) Elater is an elongated, spirally thick- female sex organ. They bear chloroplast.
ened, water-attracting cell in the capsule of 47. (c) Bryophytes require a thin film of water
a liverwort, derived from sporogenous tissue on the surface of their substratum during
and assist in spore dispersal. In mosses ca- sexual reproduction for the following
lyptra is a structure initially present around reasons:
sporophyte then break later. It is developed (i) dehiscence of antheridia requires
from ventral wall after fertilization. It pro- absorption of water from outside
vides protective covering to the developing
(ii) dehiscence of archegonium
sporogonium. Peristome teeth are found in
the capsule of moss. These are present below (iii) swimming of sperms to reach the
operculum and are hygroscopic in nature. archegonia
40. (d) In moss main plant body is gametophyte 48. (c) Archegonium is the flask shaped female
while sporophyte is meant for spore dispersal sex organ in bryophytes while algae have
mainly. Hence it is called that the sporophyte non-jacketed sex organs (gametangia).
is partially parasitic on gametophyte. 49. (b) In Marchantia, capsule elaters are present
41. (a) Peat moss is used wherever we require to which help in dispersal of spores.
retain water for a long because peat mosses 50. (d) The gametophytic generation represents
are hygroscopic in nature and they absorb the dominant phase in the life cycle of
the moisture from the atmosphere and br yophy tes. T he sporophy te phase is
this moisture keep the living materials and dependent on the gametophyte. That is why,
flowers fresh for a long time.
the plant body of Funaria is predominantly
gametophyte with sporophyte.
 EBD_7325
38 BIOLOGY
51. (b) I n br yophy tes, t he plant body is heterosporous have two types of spores,
gametophyte. Sporophyte remains attached microspores and megaspores.
to the gametophyte and produces spores. 62. (c) In the prothallus of a vascular cryp-
Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte. togams the antherozoids and eggs mature
52. (b) In Funaria, the spore germinates to at different times which result in failure of
form a green multicellular structure called self-fertilization.
as protonema which later on develops into 63. (c) Gametic meiosis is found in all animals.
gametophyte. Presence of protonema is a In sporic meiosis the sporophyte produces
characteristic feature of moss. sporangia where meiosis occurs producing
53. (a) Bryophytes are amphibians because haploid spores.
they complete their vegetative phase on land 64. (d) In mosses branching is lateral but extra-
but water is necessary for their reproductive axillary (Funaria). Marchantia is a dorsiventral
phase. dichotomously branched thalloid liverwort.
54. (a) Capsule of Funaria is differentiated into: In Sphagnum branching is profuse.
(1) Operculum – upper part - forms lid 65. (b) Vegetative reproduction occurs in ferns
(2) Theca – Middle – fertile part by fragmentation of rhizome and growth of
(3) Apophysis – lower part -photosynthetic adventitious buds. In Adiantum caudatum
the adventitious buds occur at the leaf tips.
55. (a) Peristomes are teeth present in the
It is called the walking fern because of its
capsule of moss. These are in two rows and
ability to form new ferns whenever the leaf
helps in the dispersal of the spores due to
tip happens to come in contact with soil.
hygroscopic nature.
66. (b) In pteridophytes, the gametophyte is
56. (d) Archegonia of a particular species
independent living, small thalloid structure
recognises antherozoids (sperms) of the
called prothallus. In pteridophytes, the
same species through release of chemical. In primary roots are replaced by adventitious
Pteris, archegonia produces malic acid which roots. Whereas in bryophytes, the gameto-
attracts sperms of Pteris only for fertilization. phyte is leafy.
57. (d) Bryophytes neither have pollen nor 67. (c) Bryophytes are terrestial plants but they
flowers and rely on water to carry the male require a thin film of water on the surface of
gametes (sperm) to the female gametes their substratum during sexual reproduction,
(eggs). The antherozoids (male gametes of hence they are called amphibians of the plant
pteridophytes) are armed with hair-like or kingdom.
whip-like cilia or flagellae and are able to 68. (b) Well developed vascular system is
swim through water; they do not travel great present in the members of Pteridophytes
distances and are only released when free but absent in mosses as the plant body is
water is available. sporophyte which is distinguished into true
58. (d) The plant body of a liverwort is haploid root, stem and leaves.
(n), gametophytic, small, dorsoventrally Independent gametophyte, archegonia
flattened, thallose, dichotomously branched flagellate spermatozoids are present in moss
fixed by unicellular and unbranched rhizoids, and pteridophyte both.
e.g., Marchantia. 69. (c) Bryophytes are the plants which pro-
59. (d) Selaginella and Salvinia are advanced duces spores and embryo but no vascular
pteridophytes. tissues are present, although primitive type
60. (d) Male and female gametophytes of of conducting tissues are present in the form
Cedrus do not have free living independent of hadrome and leptome.
existence. Cedrus belongs to conifer. • Rhodophytes & phaeophytes are algae
61. (b) Salvinia i s a n a q u at ic fe r n w it h producing spores, but no embryo &
both annual and perennial species the vascular tissue
Plant Kingdom 39
• Pteridophytes have spores, embryo and 77. (c) Pinus belongs to gymnosperms in
true vascular tissues. which male and female gametophytes do not
70. (d) Funaria, is a moss (Bryophyte) that have an independent free living existance.
possesses archegonium, embryo, flagellated They remain within the sporangia which
sperms. These are also present in Selaginella are of two types — microsporangia and
(Pteriodophyte) but it also has roots which megasporangia.
are absent in Funaria. 78. (b) Selaginella is a heterosporus pteridophyte
71. (a) Presence of two types of spores micro- containing micro & megaspores. In Cycas,
spores and megaspores (heterospory) is the corolloid root has the cyanobacteria -
evolutionary characteristic in the life cycle Anabaena.
of Selaginella. 79. (a) In Cycas specialised root called coralloid
72. (b) When prothallus of a fern gives rise roots are associated with N 2 – f ixing
to sporophyte directly from somatic cell cyanobacteria either Nostoc or Anabaena.
without forming gametes it is apogamy. Such Coralloid roots lie near the soil surface.
type of sporophyte is haploid in nature. They are irregular and often dichotomously
Development of gametophyte directly from branched. Root hair and root cap are absent
sporophyte without meiosis and without in these roots.
forming spores, is apospory. 80. (b) In liverworts and ferns gametophytes
73. (a) Heterospory is considered important in are free living while in fern, sporophytes are
the development of seed habit. Heterospory free living. Gymnosperms and genera like
is the production of spores of two different Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous.
sizes and sexes by the sporophytes of land The sporophyte in mosses are more elaborate
plants. Heterospory was evolved from than that of liverworts, Pinus is monoecious
isospory independently by several plant and heterosporous. Marchantia is dioecious.
groups in the Devonian period as part of 81. (b) The female sex organ archegonium is
the process of evolution of the timing of sex formed in bryophytes (Funaria), pteridophytes
differentiation. Heterosporic plants produce
(Dryopteris) and gymnosperms (Ginkgo).
small spores called microspores which either
82. (b) Cycas (a gymnosperm) and Adiantum
germinate to become male gametophytes or
a pteridophyte, known as Maiden hair
have reduced male gametophytes packaged
fern resemble each other in having motile
within them, and similarly larger spores
sperm. Seeds, cambium are common in
called megaspores that germinate into
gymnosperms and absent in pteridophytes.
female gametophytes, or which have female
True vessels are absent in both pteridophytes
gametophytes packaged within them.
and gymnospems.
74. (b) The plants which reproduce by
83. (d)
spores and do not produce seeds are called
cryptogams. The term cryptogams is made (1) Gametophyte of br yophytes bears
of 2 Greek words ie. Kryptos (hidden) + protonemal & leafy stage.
gamos (marriage). These include Bryophytes (2) In gymnosperm female gametophyte is
(mosses) and Pteridophytes (ferns). not free living.
75. (d) Pinus is monoecious plant comprising of (3) They are present in Marchantia which is
both male and female cones on same plant. a bryophyte.
76. (c) Sequoia semepervirans is one of the tallest (4) Origin of seed habit started in pterido-
trees. phyte Selaginaella.
 EBD_7325
40 BIOLOGY
84. (a) Statement (A) and (B) are correct 91. (d) Gametophyte is not an independent free
Riccia is a liverwort in which simplest living generation in Pinus.
sporophyte consists of capsule only while 92. (c) The fertile region of microsporophyll
Polytrichum is a moss in which sporophyte bears a number of microsporangia or pollen
consists of foot, seta & capsule. Volvox sacs arranged in sori. The pollen chamber
is a f resh water g reen colonial alga. represents microsporangium, in which
Reproduction is both sexual and asexual. pollen grains develop.
Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Slime 93. (c) Conifers (Gymnosperms) differ from
molds are consumer decomposer protists. grasses (angiosperms) because in gymno-
They possess characters of plants (cellulosic sperms the female gametophyte is actually
cell wall), animals (phagotrophic nutrition) endosperm which is made before fertiliza-
and fungi (spores). tion. While in grasses endosperm is a tis-
85. (a) Archegonia are not formed in Ginkgo. sue formed by the fertilization of second
86. (b) (A) Sporophyte is more developed in male gamete to polar nuclei. Moreover in
mosses rather than liverwort. gymnosperms the endosperm is a haploid
tissue while in angiosperms it is triploid.
(B) Pinus is monoecious in which male &
94. (a) Peritrichous flagellation : Flagella all
female cones are borne on different branches.
around e.g. Escherichia coli.
87. (c) The male gametes of bryophytes are
Living fossil : Organisms which have
bif lagellate, and those of pteriodophytes
undergone very little change since they first
are multiflagellate, except Selaginella having
evolved e.g. Ginkgo.
biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of
Rhizophore : Rhizophores are present in
gymnosperms are non motile except those
Selaginella which is a colourless, leaf less,
of Cycas having multiciliate gametes.
positively geotropic, elongated structure.
88. (a) Pinus plant is monoecious i.e. both male
Smallest flowering plant : Wolffia.
and female cone are present in same plant
Largest perennial alga : Macrocystis.
but on different branches. Pinus, with over
95. (a) Cycas revoluta a native of China and
100 species, is the largest genus of conifers
Japan commonly known as “Tesso” or Sago
and the most widespread genus of trees in
palm” is also called living fossil due to its
the Northern Hemisphere. Pinus are also
primitive characters.
extensively planted in temperate regions
96. (b) Pteridophytes (fern) and bryophytes
of the Southern Hemisphere. Pines have a
(Funaria) are seedless plants. Gymnosperms
relatively rich fossil record.
(pines) and angiosperms (Ficus) are seed
89. (d) Equisetum is a vascular cryptogam. bearing plants.
Equisetum is the only living genus in the
97. (c) Ginkgophyta is an ancient group, of
Equisetaceae, a family of vascular plants which the sole living representative or living
that reproduce by spores rather than seeds. fossil is Ginkgo biloba or Maiden hair tree. It
They are commonly known as horse tails. is native of South China.
Equisetum is a “living fossil,” as it is the 98. (a) In Cycas (gymnosperm) the seed does not
only k nown genus of the entire class occur inside a fruit but lies naked or exposed
Equisetopsida. on the surface of megasporophyll.
90. (b) The important features distinguishing 99. (c) Pteridophytes are primitive seedless
Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and showing vascular plants. Bryophytes are non vascular
affinities with angiosperms are presence of embryophytes. Gymnosperms are seed
vessel elements and absence of archegonia. plants in which conducting part of xylem
Plant Kingdom 41
consists of tracheids. Algae are non-vascular 108. (b) Pinus and in all other gymnosperms
photosynthetic aquatics forming accessory endosperm is produced before fertilization
spores for asexual reproduction. and is haplolid. Megaspore and pollen grain
100. (c) In Cycas, conducting part of xylem are initial structures of female gametophyte
consists of tracheids. and male gametophyte respectively hence,
101. (b) Archegonia is the female sex organ of they are haploid.
bryophytes and pteridophytes. Its neck region 109. (b) In gymnosperms like Cycas/Pinus,
is made up of 4-6 vertical rows of cells. endosperms of female gametophyte is
102. (c) The ovule matures into seed and is haploid and formed before fertilizaiton.
provided with wings. The upper surface of In angiosperms, endosperm is triploid
ovuliferous scale forms the membranous and develops after fertilization.
wings of the seed which helps in dispersal 110. (c) Double fertilization is a unique feature
of the seed. The time taken from cone exhibited only by angiosperms. It involves
formation to seed dispersal is about two years both syngamy and triple fusion.
in Pinus. 111. (d) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
are produced by male gametophyte in
103. (d) Pinus is a conifer, a member of gymno-
angiosperms.
sperm has well developed conducting tissue
112. (b) In meiosis, the number of chromosomes
and presence of seed, whereas Selaginella is
are reduced by half producing haploid
a member of pteridophyte (heterospory),
daughter cells. The microspore mother cell
Funaria is a moss, Chlamydomonas is an alga.
and the megaspore mother cell undergo
104. (c) The plant body of Chlamydomonas meiosis to produce haploid microspore and
is gametophyte (haploid). It reproduces megaspore respectively.
asexually by zoospore formation and 113. (a) During megagametogenesis functional
sexually by gametes. Gametes are isogametes megaspore (mostly chalazal) gives rise
which fuse to produce diploid zygote which is to embryo sac. This is the mature female
the only structure representing sporophytic gametophyte generation.
generation. 114. (a) The gametophyte of bryophytes are
In Pinus main plant body is sporophyte are smaller but have large sex organs.
is the case with Selaginella and Dryopteris. 115. (d) Sphagnum is a bryophyte in which male
105. (d) Gymnosperms are vascular land plants and female gametophytes are independent and
having naked ovules i.e., ovules are not free living. In Pinus (a gymnosperm), mustard
enclosed in a ovary hence, flower is absent. and castor (angiosperms), the main plant body
Ovules after fertilization produce naked is sporophytic. Gametophyte is highly reduced
seeds. Pteridophytes (ferns) and mosses do and is completely dependent on sporophyte.
not produce seed. 116. (b) Ustilago has a haplontic life cycle. This
106. (c) Pollen grains are haploid (n). If haploid is a simplest and most primitive type of life
no. of chromosomes are 6 then endosperm cycle. The other pattern of life-cycle have
will also have 6 chromosomes as it is formed originated from this type. This type is found
in all chlorophyceae. In such cases the somatic
before fertilization and is haploid.
phase (plant) is haploid (gametophyte) while
107. (b) Pinus species → Resins and turpentine
the diploid phase (sporophyte) is represented
Cedrus → Timber for railway sleepers
by zygote. During germination the zygote
Abies → Paper, Canada balsam. (2n) divides meiotically producing haploid
Cycas → ornamental plant (n) zoospores, which develop into individual
 EBD_7325
42 BIOLOGY
plant. Here the unicellular or filamentous 121. (c) The sperms of Cycas are the largest
gametophyte (n) alternates with one-celled in the plant kingdom reaching a size of 300
zygote or sporophyte (2n). The haploid mm . Egg of Cycas and its nucleus are also the
filamentous plants are known as haplonts largest in the plant kingdom.
which reproduce asexually by zoospores or 122. (a) Seed habit originated in Cycadophiles
aplanospores producing the individals like or pteridosperms.
parents.
123. (c) Sunken stomata is the characteristic
117. (a) Spermatophytes are the seed plants.
feature of xerophytes which help in reducing
They are the plants bearing seeds containing
a dormant embryo. It includes gymnosperms loss of water from leaf surface. These type of
and angiosperms. Ginkgo belongs to group stomata are found in Oleander or Pine.
gymnosperms and Pisum belongs to group 124. (c) Pinus is a member of gymnosperm in
angiosperms. which ovules are not enclosed in the ovary
118. (d) Maize, mint and peepal are flowering i.e. naked seed, whereas mango is a typical
plants or angiosper ms but Pinus is a angiosperm whose ovules are enclosed in
gymnosperm in which seeds are produced ovary i.e., presence of fruit.
but flowers are not produced or seeds are not 125. (c) Turpentine is extracted from the wood
enclosed in flowers.
(xylem) of Pinus (Gymnosperm).
119. (b) Vesselless angiosperms are Wintera,
Tur pentine is a f luid obtained by the
Trochodendron etc. Secondary growth is
absent in some angiosperms. Angiospermic complex distillation of resin obtained from
plants are autotrophic in nutrition. But some trees, mainly various species of pine (Pinus).
angiosperms are heterotrophic in nutrition. It is composed of terpenes, mainly the
The 4 special modes of nutrition and their monoterpenes alpha-pinene and beta-pinene.
examples include: Turpentine oil is obtained by boiling resin
(i) Saprophytic : e.g. Neottia, Monotropa. at 155 degrees Celsius in large tubs. It has
(ii) Symbiotic – e.g. Mycorrhiza-between a potent odor that is similar to that of nail
fungus and roots of higher plants. polish remover.
(iii) Parasitic – Cuscuta.
126. (d) As one moves from thallophyta →
(iv) Insectivorous plant – Nepenthes.
Bryophyta → Pteriodophyta → Gymnosperm
Double fertilization is characteristic of
→ Angiosperms, there is reduction in the
all angiosperms.
120. (c) Egg of Cycas (Gymnosperms) and its gametophyte and elaboration of sporophyte.
nucleus are the largest in the plant kingdom. Hence, moss has largest gametophyte. Moss
The sperms of Cycas are also the largest in → Selaginella → Cycas → Angiosperm →
the plant kingdom. Reduction in Gametophyte.
 4
Chapter

Animal Kingdom

Topic 1: Basis of Classification of Animals 6. The organisms attached to the substratum,

generally, possess [1995]
1. Which of the following characteristics is (a) radial symmetry
mainly responsible for diversification of (b) one single opening of digestive canal
(c) asymmetrical body
insects on land?  [2015 RS]
(d) cilia on surface to create water current
(a) Bilateral symmetry
7. Radial symmetry is often exhibited by
(b) Exoskeleton animals having [1994]
(c) Eyes (a) one opening of alimentary canal
(d) Segmentation (b) aquatic mode of living
2. Metagenesis refers to: [2015 RS] (c) benthos/sedentary living
(a) Alteration of generation between asexual (d) ciliary mode of feeding
8. Coelom derived from blastocoel is known
and sexual phases of an organisms
as [1994]
(b) Occurrence of a drastic change in form (a) enterocoelom (b) schizocoel
during post-embroyonic development (c) pseudocoelom (d) haemocoelom
(c) Presence of a segmented body and 9. Metamorphosis of insects is regulated
parthenogenetic mode of reproduction through hormone [1991]
(d) Presence of different morphic forms (a) pheromone (b) thyroxine
3. Which one of the following have the highest (c) ecdysone (d) all the above
number of species in nature? [2011] 10. Ecdysis is shedding of [1990]
(a) Fungi (b) Insects (a) stratum corneum
(c) Birds (d) Angiosperms (b) epidermis
(c) dermis
4. Radial symmetry is usually associated with
(d) stratum Malpighi
(a) aquatic mode of life [1996]
(b) lower grade of organisation Topic 2: Porifera, Coelenterate, Ctenophora,
(c) creeping mode of locomotion Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes
(d) sedentary mode of life
11. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined
5. True coelom is the space lying between the
with flagellated cells called: [2017]
alimentary canal and body wall enclosed by
(a) oscula
the layers of [1996]
(b) choanocytes
(a) ectoderm on both sides
(c) mesenchymal cells
(b) endoderm on one side and ectoderm on
the other (d) ostia
(c) mesoderm on one side and ectoderm on 12. Body having meshwork of cell, internal
the other cavities lined with food filtering flagellated
cells and indirect development are the
(d) mesoderm on both sides
characteristics of phylum. [2015 RS]
 EBD_7325
44 BIOLOGY
(a) Porifera (b) Mollusca (c) Millepedes have two pairs of appendages
(c) Protozoa (d) Coelenterate in each segment of the body
13. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents (d) Animals belonging to Phylum Porifera
both marine and fresh water species: [2014] are exclusively marine
(a) Echinoderms (b) Ctenophora 21. In contrast to Annelids the Platyhelminths
(c) Cephalochordata (d) Cnidaria show: [2005]
14. Which one of the following living organisms (a) Absence of body cavity
completely lacks a cell wall? [2014] (b) Bilaterial symmetry
(a) Cyanobacteria (c) Radial symmetry
(b) Sea – fan(Gorgonia) (d) Presence of pseudocoel
(c) Saccharomyces 22. During its life-cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver
(d) Blue–green algae fluke) infects its intermediate host and
15. Planaria possesses high capacity of: [2014] primary host at the following larval stages
(a) Metamorphosis respectively : [2003]
(b) Regeneration (a) miracidium and metacercaria
(c) Alternation of generation (b) redia and miracidium
(d) Bioluminescence (c) cercaria and redia
16. Which one of the following groups of animals (d) metacercaria and cercaria
reproduces only by sexual means? 23. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which
[NEET Kar. 2013] are best described as [2003]
(a) Ctenophora (b) Cnidaria (a) multicellular having tissue organization,
(c) Porifera (d) Protozoa but no body cavity
17. Which one of the following kinds of animals (b) unicellular or acellular
are triploblastic? [2010] (c) multicellular without any tissue
(a) Flat worms (b) Sponges organization
(c) Ctenophores (d) Corals (d) multicellular with a gastrovascular
18. Which one of the following groups of system
animals is bilaterally symmetrical and 24. What is common between Ascaris lumbricoides
triploblastic? [2009] and Anopheles stephensi? [2000]
(a) Aschelminthes (round worms) (a) Sexual dimorphism
(b) Ctenophores (b) Hibernation
(c) Sponges (c) Anaerobic respiration
(d) Coelenterates (Cnidarians) (d) Metamerism
19. Ascaris is characterized by [2008] 25. Most appropriate term to describe the life
(a) absence of true coelom but presence of cycle of Obelia is [1998]
metamerism (a) metagenesis
(b) presence of neither true coelom nor (b) metamorphosis
metamerism (c) alternation of generations
(c) presence of true coelom but absence of (d) neoteny
metamerism 26. What is true about all sponges without
(d) presence of true coelom and exception? [1996]
metamerism (metamerisation) (a) They are all marine
20. From the following statements select the (b) They have flagellated collar cells
wrong one. [2005] (c) They have a mixed skeleton consisting
(a) Prawn has two pairs of antennae of spicules and spongin fibres
(b) Nematocysts are characteristic of the (d) They reproduce only asexually by
budding
Pylum Cnidaria
Animal Kingdom 45
27. Special character of Coelenterates is [1994] 37. Ascaris lumbricoides infection occurs through
(a) polymorphism [1991]
(b) nematocysts (a) sole of uncovered feet
(c) flame cells (b) contaminated cooked measly pork
(d) hermaphroditism (c) improperly cooked measly pork
28. Which one belongs to Platyhelminthes ? (d) from air through inhalation
[1994] 38. Onchosphere occurs in [1990]
(a) Schistosoma (b) Trypanosoma (a) Ascaris (b) Fasciola
(c) Plasmodium (d) Wuchereria (c) Taenia (d) Planaria
29. Budding is a normal mode of asexual 39. Taenia saginata differs from Taenia solium
reproduction in [1993] in [1990]
(a) starfish and Hydra (a) absence of scolex hooks
(b) hydra and sponges (b) absence of scolex hooks and uterine
(c) tapeworm and Hydra branching
(d) sponge and starfish (c) absence of scolex hooks and presence
30. What is true about Taenia saginata ? [1993] of both male and female reproductive
(a) Life history has pig as intermediate host organs
(b) There are two large suckers on scolex (d) presence of scolex hooks
(c) Rostellar hooks are absent 40. Transfer of Taenia to secondary host occurs
(d) Rostellum has double circle of hooks as [1989]
31. The simplest type of canal system in Porifera (a) onchosphere (b) cysticercus
is [1992] (c) morula (d) egg.
(a) ascon type (b) leucon type 41. Animals/organisms floating on the surface
(c) sycon type (d) radial type of water are [1988]
32. What is correct about Taenia ? [1992] (a) plankton (b) pelagic
(a) Male organs occur in posterior (c) benthos (d) neritic
proglottides 42. Organ Pipe Coral is [1988]
(b) Male organs occur in anterior (a) Tubipora (b) Astraea
proglottides (c) Helipora (d) Fungia
(c) Female organs occur in anterior
proglottides Topic 3: Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca,
(d) Mature proglottides contain both male Echinodermata, Hemichordata, Chordata
and female organs
33. Ascaris larva is called [1992] 43. An important characteristic that
(a) cysticercus (b) rhabditiform Hemichordates share with Chordates is :
(c) hexacanth (d) onchosphere [2017]
34. Bladderworm/cysticercus is the larval stage (a) Ventral tubular nerve cord
of [1991] (b) Pharynx with gill slits
(a) Tapeworm (b) Roundworm (c) Pharynx without gill slits
(c) Pinworm (d) Liver Fluke (d) Absence of notochord
35. The excretory structures of flatworms/ 44. Which of the following featrues is not present
Taenia are [1991]
in the Phylum - Arthropoda ? [2016]
(a) flame cells (b) protonephridia
(a) Chitinous exoskeleton
(c) malpighian tubules (d) green glands
36. Classification of Porifera is based on [1991] (b) Metameric segmentation
(a) branching (b) spicules (c) Parapodia
(c) reproduction (d) symmetry (d) Jointed appendages
 EBD_7325
46 BIOLOGY
45. Which group of animals belong to the same (a) (A) and (D) respire mainly through
phylum? [NEET 2013] body wall
(a) Earthworm , Pinworm, Tapeworm (b) (B) and (C) show radial symmetry
(b) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta (c) (A) and (B) have cnidoblasts for self-
defense
(c) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
(d) (C) and (D) have a true coelom
(d) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito 50. One example of animals having a single
46. One of the representatives of phylum opening to the outside that serves both as
Arthropoda is : [NEET 2013] mouth as well as anus is: [2010]
(a) Silverfish (b) Pufferfish (a) Octopus (b) Asterias
(c) Flying fish (d) Cuttlefish (c) Ascidia (d) Fasciola
47. In which one of the following the genus 51. Which one of the following statements about
name, its two charcters and its phylum are certain given animals is correct?    [2010]
not correctly matched, whereas the remaining
(a) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are
three are correct [2012] pseudocoelomates
(b) Molluscs are acoelomates
Genus Two characters Phylum (c) Insects are pseudocoelomates
name

(d) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are
(a) Body Segmented
(a) Pila
Mouth with radula
Mollusca coelomates
(b) Spiny Skinned 52. Which one of the following is NOT a
(b) Asterias Echinoermata characteristic of phylum Annelida? [2008]
Water vascular system
(c) Pore bearing (a) Closed circulatory system
(c) Sycon Porifera
Canal system (b) Segmentation
(d) Jointed appendages (c) Pseudocoelom
(d) Periplaneta Arthropoda
Chitinous exoskeleton (d) Ventral nerve cord
48. Which one of the following statements 53. Which one of the following phyla is
is totally wrong about the occurrence of correctly matched with its two general
notochord, while the other three are correct? characteristics? [2008]
[2011M] (a) Arthropoda - Body divided into
head, thorax and
(a) It is present only in larval tail in
abdomen and
Ascidians
respiration by
(b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in tracheae
adult frog (b) Chordata - Notochord at
(c) It is absent throughout life in humans some stage and
from the very beginning separate anal and
(d) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus urinary openings
49. The figure shows four animals (A), (B), to the outside
(C) and (D). Select the correct answer with (c) Echinodermata - Pentamerous
respect to a common characteristics of two radial symmetry
of these animals. [2011M] and mostly
internal
fertilization
(A) (B) (d) Mollusca - Normally
oviparous and
development
(C) (D) through a
trochophore or
veliger larva
Animal Kingdom 47
54. Which one of the following groups of three 60. The animals with bilateral symmetry
animals each is correctly matched with their in young stage, and radial pentamerous
one characteristic morphological feature? symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the
[2008] phylum [2004]
Animals Morphological (a) Annelida (b) Mollusca
feature (c) Cnidaria (d) Echinodermata
(a) Liver fluke, Sea - Bilateral 61. In Arthropoda, head and thorax are often
anemone, Sea symmetry fused to form cephalothorax, but in which
cucumber one of the following classes, is the body
(b) Centipede, Prawn - Jointed appendages divided into head, thorax and abdomen ?
Sea urchin [2004]
(c) Scorpion, Spider, - Ventral solid central (a) Insecta
Cockroach nervous system (b) Myriapoda
(d) Cockroach, - Metameric (c) Crustacea
Locust, Taenia segmentation (d) Arachnida and Crustacea
55. What is true about Nereis, scorpion, 62. Which one of the following is a matching
cockroach and silver fish ?  [2007] pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon
(a) They all posses dorsal heart it exhibits ? [2003]
(b) None of them is aquatic
(a) Taenia – Polymorphism
(c) They all belong to the same phylum
(d) They all have jointed paired appendages (b) Pheretima – Sexual dimorphism
56. Two common characters found in centipede, (c) Musca – Complete metamorphosis
cockroach and crab are [2006] (d) Chameleon – Mimicry
(a) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton 63. In which of the following notochord is
(b) Green gland and tracheae present in embryonic stage? [2002]
(c) Book lungs and antennae (a) All chordates (b) Some chordates
(d) Compound eyes and anal cerci (c) Vertebrates (d) Non chordates
57. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts 64. In which of the following animal post anal
are the characteristics of [2006] tail is found? [2001]
(a) Ctenoplana and Beroe (a) Earthworm
(b) Aurelia and Paramecium (b) Lower invertebrate
(c) Hydra and starfish (c) Scorpion
(d) Starfish and sea anemone (d) Cobra
58. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic 65. In which of the following, haemocyanin
of [2006] pigment is found ? [2001]
(a) Echinodermata and Annelida (a) Mollusca (b) Annelida
(b) Annelida and Arthropoda
(c) Echinodermata (d) Lower chordata
(c) Mollusca and Chordata
66. Cell-tissue-body organisation is characteristic
(d) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda of [2000]
59. Which one of the following is a matching set
(a) Star fish (b) Hydra
of a phylum and its three examples ? [2006]
(c) Liver fluke (d) Sponge
(a) Platyhelminthes - Planaria, Schistosoma,
67. What is common among silverfish, scorpion,
Enterobius
crab and honey bee? [1997]
(b) Mollusca - Loligo, Teredo, Octopus
(a) Compound eyes (b) Poison gland
(c) Porifera - Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula
(d) Cnidaria - Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia (c) Jointed legs (d) Metamorphosis
 EBD_7325
48 BIOLOGY
68. Besides annelida and arthropoda, the 79. Which one occurs in Echinodermata? [1991]
metamerism is exhibited by [1995] (a) Bilateral symmetry
(a) cestoda (b) chordata (b) Radical symmetry
(c) mollusca (d) acanthocephala (c) Porous body
69. Point out the non-parasite [1994] (d) Soft skin
(a) Tapeworm (b) Mosquito 80. Pheretima posthuma is highly useful as [1990]
(c) Leech (d) Sea anemone (a) their burrows make the soil loose
70. Tube feet occur in [1994] (b) they make the soil porous, leave their
(a) Cockroach (b) Star Fish castings and take organic debris in the
(c) Cuttle Fish (d) Cat Fish soil
71. All chordates possess [1994] (c) they are used as fish meal
(a) exoskeleton (d) they kill the birds due to
(b) limbs biomagnification of chlorinated
(c) skull hydrocarbons
(d) axial skeletal rod of notochord 81. Blood of Pheretima is [1990]
72. A common characteristic of all vertebrates is (a) blue with haemocyanin in corpuscles
(a) presence of skull [1994] (b) blue with haemocyanin in plasma
(b) division of body into head, neck, trunk (c) red with haemoglobin in corpuscles
and tail
(d) red with haemoglobin in plasma
(c) presence of two pairs of functional
82. Malpighian tubules are [1990]
appendages
(a) excretory organs of insects
(d) body is covered with an exoskeleton
73. Which one assists in locomotion? [1993] (b) excretory organs of annelids
(a) Trichocysts in Paramecium (c) respiratory organs of insects
(b) Pedicellariae of Star Fish (d) respiratory organs of annelids
(c) Clitellum in Pheretima 83. Kala-azar and Oriental Sore are spread by
(d) Posterior sucker in Hirudinaria [1990]
74. Adult Culex and Anopheles can be (a) Housefly (b) Bed Bug
distinguished with the help of [1992] (c) Sand Fly (d) Fruit Fly
(a) mouth parts/colour 84. Photoreceptors of earthworm occur on
(b) sitting posture [1989]
(c) antennae/wings (a) clitellum (b) many eyes
(d) feeding habits (c) dorsal surface (d) lateral sides
75. Eye of the molluscan group that resembles 85. Earthworms are [1989]
vertebrate eye is [1992] (a) useful
(a) bivalvia (b) gastropoda (b) harmful
(c) pelecypoda (d) cephalopoda (c) more useful than harmful
76. Star fish belongs to [1992] (d) more harmful
(a) Asteriodea (b) Ophiuroidea 86. A chordate character is [1989]
(c) Holothuroidea (d) Crinoidea (a) gills
77. Aristotle’s lantern occurs in class [1992] (b) spiracles
(a) Echinoidea (b) Asteroidea (c) postanal tail
(c) Holothuroidea (d) Ophiuroidea (d) chitinous exoskeleton
78. An insect regarded as greatest mechanical 87. Silk thread is obtained from Silk Moth
carrier of diseases is [1991] during [1988]
(a) Pediculus (b) Cimex (a) pupal state (b) larval state
(c) Musca (d) Xenopsylla (c) nymph state (d) adult state
Animal Kingdom 49
88. A wood boring mollusc/Shipworm is [1988] (b) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three
(a) Chiton (b) Teredo chambered heart
(c) Limax (d) Patella (c) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric
segmentation
Topic 4: Cyclostomata, Chondrichthyes, (d) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded
Osteichthyes (poikilothermal)
95. Which one of the following pairs of animals
89. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh
comprises ‘jawless fishes’? [2009]
water and whose ammocoetes larvae after
(a) Mackerals and Rohu
metamorphosis return to the ocean is:
(b) Lampreys and hag fishes
[2015 RS]
(c) Guppies and hag fishes
(a) Myxine (b) Neomyxine
(d) Lampreys and eels
(c) Petromyzon (d) Eptatretus
96. Which one of the following is a matching pair
90. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce
of a body feature and the animal possessing
electric current is: [2014] it?  [2007]
(a) Pristis (b) Torpedo (a) Ventral central - Leech
(c) Trygon (d) Scoliodon nervous system
91. Which of the following are correctly (b) Pharyngeal gill slits - Chameleon
matched with respect to their taxonomic absent in embryo
classification? [NEET 2013] (c) Ventral heart - Scorpion
(a) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion- (d) Post-end tail - Octopus.
Insecta 97. Given below are four matchings of an animal
(b) House fly, butterfly, tse tse fly, silverfish- and its kind of respiratory organ :   [2003]
Insecta (A) Silver fish – trachea
(c) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber- (B) Scorpion – book lung
Echinodermata (C) Sea squirt – pharyngeal gills
(d) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish-Pisces (D) Dolphin – skin
The correct matchings are
92. Which one of the following animals is (a) C and D (b) A and D
correctly matched with its one characteristics (c) A, B and C (d) B and D
and the taxon? [NEET Kar. 2013]
98. Fish which can be used in biological control
Animal Characteristic Taxon of mosquitoes/Larvicidal fish is [2001]
(a) Duckbilled Oviparous Mammalian (a) Eel (b) Carp
platypus (c) Cat Fish (d) Gambusia
(b) Millipede Ventral nerve Arachnida 99. Blastopore is the opening of  [2000]
cord (a) coelenteron (b) coelom
(c) Sea Anemone Triploblastic Cnidaria (c) blastocoel (d) archenteron
(d) Silverfish Pectoral and Chordata 100. In desert grasslands which type of animals
Pelvic fins are relatively more abundant? [1998]
93. Sharks and dogfishes differ from skates and (a) Arboreal (b) Aquatic
rays by [NEET Kar. 2013] (c) Fussorial (d) Diurnal
(a) Their pectoral fins distinctly marked off 101. Closed circulatory system occurs in [1994]
from cyclindrical bodies (a) snail (b) cockroach
(b) Gill slits are ventrally placed (c) cuttle Fish (d) all of these
(c) Head and trunk are widened considerably 102. Jelly Fishes belongs to class [1989]
(d) Distinct demarcation between body and (a) Hydrozoa (b) Scyphozoa
tail (c) Anthozoa (d) None of these
94. Which one of the following pairs of animals 103. Association between Sucker Fish (Remora)
are similar to each other pertaining to the and Shark is [1988]
feature stated against them? [2012M] (a) Commensalism (b) Symbiosis
(a) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus - Viviparity (c) Predation (d) Parasitism
 EBD_7325
50 BIOLOGY
Topic 5: Amphibia, Reptiles, Aves, Mammals 109. Match the name of the animal (column I),
with one characteristics (column II), and
104. Which among these is the correct combination the phylum/class (column III) to which it
of aquatic mammals? [2017] belongs: [NEET 2013]
(a) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon Column I Column II Column III
(b) Whales, Dolphins, Seals (a) Ichthyophis terrestrial Reptilia
(c) Trygon, Whales, Seals (b) Limulus body Pisces
(d) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks covered by
105. Which of the following characteristic features chitinous
always holds true for the corresponding group exoskeleton
of animals? [2016] (c) Adamsia radially Porifera
(a) Cartilaginous Chondrichthyes symmetrical
endoskeleton (d) Petromyzon ectoparasite Cyclostomata
(b) Viviparous Mammalia 110. The characteristics of class Reptilia are :
(c) Possess a mouth Chordata [NEET Kar. 2013]
with an upper and (a) Body covered with dry and cornified
a lower jaw skin, scales over the body are epidermal,
(d) 3 - chambered heart Reptilia they do not have external ears
with one incompletely (b) Body covered with moist skin which is
divided ventricle devoid of scales, the ear is represented by
a tympanum, alimentary canal, urinary
106. Which one of the following characteristics is
and reproductive tracts open into a
not shared by birds and mammals ? [2016]
common cloaca
(a) Ossified endoskeleton
(c) Fresh water animals with bony
(b) Breathing using lungs endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate
(c) Viviparity buoyancy
(d) Warm blooded nature (d) Marine animals with cartilaginous
107. Which of the following animals is not endoskeleton, body covered with placoid
viviparous? [2015 RS] scales
(a) Elephant (b) Platypus 111. Which one of the following categories of
(c) Whale (d) Flying fox (Bat) animals, is correctly described with no single
108. Which of the following represents the correct exception in it? [2012M]
combination without any exception? (a) All sponges are marine and have collared
[2015 RS] cells.
Characteristics Class (b) All mammals are viviparous and possess
diaphragm for breathing.
(a) Mouth ventral, gills without Chondrichthyes (c) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills
operculum; skin with placoid and an operculum on each side.
scales; persistent notochord (d) All reptiles possess scales, have a three
(b) Sucking and circular mouth; Cyclostomata chambered heart and are cold blooded
jaws absent, integument (poikilothermal).
without scales; paired 112. What will you look for to identify the sex of
appendages the following? [2011]
(c) Body covered with feathers; Aves (a) Female Ascaris- Sharply curved posterior
skin moist and glandular; end
fore-limbs form wings; lungs (b) Male frog- A copulatory pad on the first
with air sacs digit of the hind limb
(d) Mammary gland; hair on Mammalia (c) Female cockroach-Anal cerci
body; (d) Male shark-Claspers borne on pelvic
pinnae; two pairs of Limbs fins
Animal Kingdom 51
113. Which one of the following groups of 117. Which one of the following is the true
animals is correctly matched with its one description about an animal concerned?
characteristic feature without even a single [2008]
exception ? [2011] (a) Earthworm - The alimentary canal
(a) Reptilia : possess 3 - chambered heart consists of a
with one incompletely divided ventricle sequence of pharynx,
(b) Chordata : possess a mouth provided oesophagus, stomach,
with an upper and lower jaw gizzard and intestine
(c) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilagious (b) Frog - Body divisible into
endoskeleton three regions - head,
neck and trunk
(d) Mammalia : give birth to young one.
(c) Rat - Left kidney is slightly
114. In which one of the folllowing, the genus higher in position than
name, its two characters and its class/ the right one
phylum are correctly matched? [2011] (d) Cockroach - 10 pairs of spiracles (2
pairs on thorax and 8
Genus Two characters Class/
pairs on abdomen)
name phylum
118. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(a) Ascaris (i) Body segmented An- matched ? [2007]
(ii) Males and fe- nelida Animals - Morphological features
males distinct (i) Crocodile - 4-chambered heart
(b) Sala- (i) A tympanum Am- (ii) Sea urchin - Parapodia
mandra represents ear phibia (iii) Obelia - Thecodont
(iv) Lemur - Thecodont
(ii) Fertilization is
external (a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) only (i) and (iv)
(c) only (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) Pteropus (i) Skin possesses Mam- 119. In which one of the following sets of animals
hair malia do all the four give birth to young ones?
(ii) Oviparous [2006]
(d) Aurelia (i) Cnidoblasts Coelen- (a) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus
terata (b) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi
(c) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin, , Loris
(ii) Organ level of
(d) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich
organization
120. Annual migration does not occur in the case
115. Frogs differ from humans in possessing: of [2006]
(a) paired cerebral hemispheres [2011M] (a) Siberian crane (b) Salamander
(b) hepatic portal system (c) Arctic tern (d) Salmon
(c) nucleated red blood cells 121. Which one of the following characters is not
(d) thyroid as well as parathyroid typical of the class Mammalia? [2005]
116. Which one of the following statements about (a) Thecodont dentition
all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and (b) Alveolar lungs
Penguin is correct? [2010] (c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves
(a) Penguin is homeothermic while the
(d) Seven cervical vertebrae
remaining three are poikilothermic
122. One of the following is a very unique feature
(b) Leech is a fresh water form while all
of the mammalian body: [2004]
others are marine
(c) Spongilla has special collared cells called (a) Homeothermy
choanocytes, not found in the remaining (b) Presence of diaphragm
three (c) Four chambered heart
(d) All are bilaterally symmetrical (d) Rib cage
 EBD_7325
52 BIOLOGY
123. Indicate the correct statement [2000] 131. All vertebrates possess [1993]
(a) Camel has biconcave red blood cells (a) renal portal system
(b) Bat bears feathers (b) dorsal hollow central nervous system
(c) Rat bears cloaca (c) four chambered ventral heart
(d) Platypus lays eggs (d) pharyngeal gill slits
124. The long bones are hollow and connected by 132. Mucus helps frog in forming [1993]
air passages these are characteristics of (a) thick skin (b) dry skin
(a) mammals [1998] (c) smooth skin (d) moist skin
(b) reptilia 133. A larval stage occurs in the life history of all
(c) aves members of the group [1993]
(d) all land vertebrates (a) frog, lizard and cockroach
125. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found (b) ascaris, housefly and frog
in [1996] (c) housefly, earthworm and mosquito
(a) pigeon (b) house lizard (d) butterfly, frog and mosquito
(c) frog’s tadpole (d) flying fish 134. Tracheae of cockroach and mammal are
126. Functionwise, just as there are nephridia in similar in having [1993]
an earthworm, so are [1996] (a) paried nature
(a) parotid glands in toad (b) noncollapsible walls
(b) statocysts in prawn (c) ciliated inner lining
(c) flame cells in liver fluke (d) origin from head
(d) myotomes in fish 135. Which one of the following animals
127. The flightless bird Cassowary is found in possesses nerve cells but no nerves? [1993]
(a) Mauritius (b) Australia [1996] (a) Hydra (b) Tapeworm
(c) New Zealand (d) Indonesia (c) Earthworm (d) Frog’s tadpole
128. The cervical vertebrae in humans is [1993] 136. What is common between Ostrich, Penguin
(a) same as in whale and Kiwi? [1993]
(b) more than that in rabbit (a) Running birds (b) Migratory birds
(c) double than that of horse (c) Flightless birds (d) Four toed birds
(d) less than that in giraffe 137. An egg laying mammal is [1992]
129. What is common in Whale, Bat and Rat ? (a) Kangaroo (b) Platypus
[1993] (c) Koala (d) Whale
(a) Absence of neck 138. Sound box of birds is called [1992]
(b) Muscular diaphragm between thorax (a) pygostyle (b) larynx
and abdomen
(c) syrinx (d) synsacrum
(c) Extra-abdominal testes to avoid high
139. Bull Frog of India is [1992]
temperature of body
(a) Rana tigrina (b) R. sylvatica
(d) Presence of external ears
(c) R. ecutesbeiana (d) R. esculenta
130. Gorilla, Chimpanzee, Monkeys and
140. Kidney of adult rabbit is [1991]
Humans belongs to the same [1993]
(a) pronephros (b) metanephros
(a) species (b) genus
(c) mesonephros (d) opisthonephros
(c) family (d) order
Animal Kingdom 53
141. Penguin occurs in [1990] 147. Fire bellied toad is [1988]
(a) Australia (b) Antarctica (a) Amphiuma (b) Discoglossus
(c) Africa (d) America (c) Necturus (d) Salamandra
142. Skin is a respiratory organ in [1990] 148. Necturus is [1988]
(a) lizards (a) Hell Bender (b) Congo Eel
(b) birds (c) Mud Puppy (d) Blind Worm
(c) primitive mammals 149. Typhlops is [1988]
(d) frog (a) Sea Snake (b) Glass Snake
143. Flight muscles of birds are attached to  [1989] (c) Blind Snake (d) Grass Snake
150. Both male and female pigeons secrete milk
(a) clavicle (b) keel of sternum
through [1988]
(c) scapula (d) coracoid
(a) Salivary glands
144. Wish bone of birds is from [1989]
(b) Modified sweat glands
(a) pelvic girdle
(c) Crop
(b) skull
(d) Gizzard
(c) hind limbs 151. Feet of kingfisher are modified for [1988]
(d) pectoral girdle/clavicles (a) wading (b) perching
145. Eutherians are characterised by [1989] (c) running (d) catching
(a) hairy skin 152. Bird vertebrae are [1988]
(b) true placentation (a) acoelous (b) heterocoelous
(c) ovoviviparity (c) amphicoelous (d) procoelous
(d) glandular skin 153. Hair occur in all mammals except those of
146. Which is not a true amphibian animal?  [1988] [1988]
(a) Salamander (b) Toad (a) Rodentia (b) Chiroptera
(c) Tortoise (d) Frog (c) Primata (d) Cetacea
 EBD_7325
54 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The exoskeleton of insects consists of 9. (c) Metamorphosis of insects is regulated
chitinous cuticle. It gets hardened due to through ecdysone hormone.
deposition of calcium. It prevents dessication 10. (a) Stratum corneum is the outermost,
and gives protection. partially cornified layer of scale like cells.
2. (a) Metagenesis is defined as alternation Small fragments of this layer are periodically
of generation found in phylum cnidaria (eg. shed off from the body known as ecdysis. The
Obelia). In this phenomenon one generation new layer is regularly formed by underlaying
of an organism reproduces asexually, followed stratum germinativum.
by a sexually reproducing generation. 11. (b) In poriferans (sponges) choanocytes
3. (b) In nature insects have the highest number (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel.
of species (30 million). Fungi have 100,000, Flagella present in collar cells provide
angiosperms have 260000 and birds have circulation to water in water canal system.
10,000 species. 12. (a) The given characteristic features define
4. (b) Coelom or body cavity, when derived the phylum porifera.
from blastocoel is pseudocoelom as in 13. (d) Members of Ctenophora,
nematodes, rotifers. In this type of cavity, Cephalochordata and Echinodermata are
mesoderm is lined by only one side i.e., exclusively marine.
towards the body wall. Schizocoel is true 14. (b) Gorgonia ( sea-fan) is an animal. All
coelom derived from mesodermal segments. animals lack cell wall.
5. (d) Coelom is a fluid filled space between 15. (b) Planaria is a flatworm which possesses a
body wall and alimentary canal which is high capacity of regeneration.
lined by parietal peritoneum (mesoderm) 16. (a) In Ctenophora, sexes are not separate.
on the outer side and visceral peritoneum Reproduction takes place only by sexual
(mesoderm) on the inner side. means. In Cnidaria, which exist in both
forms, polyps produce medusae asexually
ECTODERM
and medusae form the polyps sexually.
MESODERM Porifera (sponge) reproduce asexually by
COE M

GUT fragmentation and sexually by formation of

LO

ENDODERM gametes. Protozoans come under protista

which reproduce asexually and sexually by
cell fusion and zygote formation.
6. (a) The organisms, which are attached 17. (a) Triploblastic condition can be seen in flat
to substratum, generally, possess radial worms. Ctenophores, sponges and corals are
symmetry in all vertical planes. diploblastic.
7. (c) In radial symmetry – body is cut 18. (a) Aschelminthes is bilaterally symmetrical
longitudinally through any radius into two and triploblastic. These are mostly aquatic,
equal halves. Present in sessile animals i.e. free living or parasitic. Their body is three
star fish that live in the sea bottom. layered which is ectoderm, mesoderm and
endoderm.
8. (c) Coelom or body cavity, when derived
from blastocoel is pseudocoelom as in 19. (b) Ascaris is a common parasite found in
nematodes, rotifers. In this type of cavity, the large intestine of man. It is world wide
mesoderm is lined by only one side i.e., in distribution. The number of worms may
towards the body wall. Schizocoel is true be 500 or more in a single host. Ascaris is
coelom derived from mesodermal segments. characterised by presence of neither true
coelom nor metamerism.
Animal Kingdom 55
20. (d) Animals belonging to Phylum Porifera 28. (a) Schistosoma (Blood f luke) – Platyhelminthes
are mostly marine except a few which are Trypanosoma – Aschelminthes
found in fresh water- e.g. Spongilla, Euspongia. Wuchereria – Aschelminthes
21. (a) Platyhelminthes includes flat warms. Plasmodium – Protozoa
There is no body cavity. The animals are 29. (b) Budding is an asexual mode of reproduc-
therefore acoelomates. Annelids also have tion in Hydra & sponges. Bud is formed as an
bilateral symmetry. They are coelomate outgrowth on the body surface, then detached
having a perivisceral cavity divided into to form new animal.
compartments.
30. (c) Rostellum and hooks are absent in Taenia
22. (b) When in contact with water, the egg saginata.
capsule form non feeding larva miracidium.
31. (a) Presence of canal system - a network of
Miracidium enters the body of snail to from
channels for water transport - is an important
sporocyst . The sporocyst develops into redia.
feature in sponges. Ascon type of canal is
Redia form cercaria and come out of snail.
simplest in Porifera which brings in food,
They get encysted forming metacercaria.
oxygen and carries away CO2 and nitrogenous
23. (c) Sponges show cellular grade of organiza-
waste.
tion. They do not have tissue system. Sycon is
a sponge. 32. (d) The body of Taenia is ribbon like and
24. (a) Sexual dimorphism is common between is divided into segments called proglottids.
Ascaris lumbricoides and Anopheles stephensi. Each proglottid has one or two sets of male
Male and female round worms can be and female reproductive organs.
morphologically differentiated. Female 33. (b) Ascaris larva is also called rhabditiform.
Anopheles mosquito is sanguivorous whereas 34. (a) Bladderworm or cysticerus larva forms
male Anopheles mosquito sucks nectar. in tapeworm.
25. (a) Metamorphosis is the gradual transfor- 35. (a) Excretory system of Taenia consists of a
mation of the embryo to the adult through a pair of peculiar flame cells, which absorb the
larval and pupal stage. Alternation of genera- waste material from the body and discharges
tion is seen in the plant kingdom wherein a it through excretory duct.
haploid gametophyte generation alternates 36. (b) The term porifera was given by Grant, the
with diploid sporophyte generation. Phe- phylum includes animals with pores in their
nomenon of sexual reproduction by a larva body. Its classification is based on skeleton or
is known as neoteny e.g. Axolotl larva. In spicules.
Obelia polyps reproduce medusaes asexually 37. (b) Ascaris enters into the human by eating
and medusae form the polyps sexually. Such semi-cooked (improperly) cooked pork
alternation of asexual and sexual phases in contaminated with Ascaris.
the life cycle of Obelia is called metagenesis. 38. (c) Onchosphere is the larval stage in Taenia
26. (b) Sponges are marine with the exception solium.
of family spongilidae, the members of which 39. (b) Taenia saginata lacks rostellum and scolex
occur in fresh water e.g. Spongilla. Their hooks.
endoskeleton is made of either spicules or 40. (a) The eggs of Taenia pass out through
spongin fibres or both. Sponges reproduce human faeces which is eaten by pigs, eggs
asexually by fragmentation or by budding and develops into onchosphere, then to cyst
or through gemmules and reduction bodies. larva in the muscle of pig; The entry stage
Sponges also exhibit sexual reproduction. into secondary host (pig) is onchosphere.
27. (b) Presence of nematocysts or stinging cells
41. (a) Organisms passively floating on the
are the characteristic feature of the phylum
surface of water are planktons. Floating
Coelenterata. It serves the function of offence
animals are called zooplanktons and plants
and defence by producing toxin to kill the prey
are phytoplanktons.
& enemy.
 EBD_7325
56 BIOLOGY
42. (a) Tubipora is organ pipe coral included in are poriferans, coelentrates, ctenophores,
class Anthozia. platyhelminthes and nemertean. Pseudo-
43. (b) Pharyngeal gill slits are present in coelomates are animals that have false or
hemichordates and in chordates. Notochord pseudo coelom. Examples are aschelmin-
is present in chordates only. Ventral tubular thes. Coelomates are animals that has true
nerve cord is present in non-chordates. coelom enclosed by mesoderm on both sides.
44. (c) All arthropods possess a stiff exoskeleton Examples: from annelida to arthropoda
(external skeleton) composed primarily of are coelomates. Hence roundworms are
chitin. Arthropod bodies are divided into pseudocoelomates, molluses and insects are
segments. Parapodia are paired, lateral coelomates while flatworms are acoelomates.
appendages extending from the body 52. (c) Characteristic of phylum-Annelida is
segments. Arthropod appendages may be pseudocoelomate. Pseudocoelomate is any
either biramous (branched) or uniramous invertebrate animal whose body cavity is a
(unbranched). They do not possess jointed pseudocoel, a cavity between the gut and
appendages. the outer body wall derived from a persistent
45. (b) Prawn , Scorpion and Locusta belong blastocoel, rather than a true coelom.
to phylum Arthropoda. This is the largest Pseudocoelomate animal include the Rotifera
phylum of Animalia, over two-thirds of all and Nematoda.
named species on earth are Arthropoda. 53. (d) Mollusca mostly oviparous and a few
Phylum is named so due to presence of viviparous. The development may be direct
jointed appendages (arthros = jointed, poda or indirect with trochophore, velliger and
= appendages) in body of members of this glochidium.
phylum. 54. (c) Scorpion, spider and cockroach have
46. (a) Representive of Phylum Arthropoda is ventral solid central nervous system. All three
silverfish. Arthropoda is the largest phylum belongs to phylum-Arthopoda.
of Animalia, which covers two-thirds of all — Spider belong to class-Archnida
named species. — Scorpion belong to c1ass- Archnida
47. (a) Molluscans are soft bodied animals. — Cockroach belong to class-Insecta
Their body is unsegmented with a distinct 55. (a) Nereis (belonging to class polychaeta of
head, muscular foot and visceral hump. In phylum Annelida), scorpion and cockroach
Pila, the buccal cavity contains a resping
(belonging to phylum arthropoda) and silver
organ, the radula with transverse rows of
fish all have dorsal heart.
teeth.
56. (a) Jointed legs & chitinous exoskeleton are
48. (c) Notochord is a flexible rod like structure the common characters found in centipede,
that forms the main support of the body in the cockroach & crab.
lowest chordates. It is not absent in humans
57. (a) Aurelia, Hydra & Sea anemone have the
through out their life. Notochord is present in
characteristic cnidoblast cells.
embryonic stage and get changed or replaced
58. (b) Metameric segmentation means body is
by vertebral column in the adult.
divided externally as well as internally. This
49. (d) From annelida to chordata all organisms
characteristic is present in annelida (eg. earth
are eucoelomate. C-Mollusca (Octopus),
worm) and arthropoda (eg. cockroach). Their
D-Arthropoda (Scorpion) have a true coelom.
body is divided externally and internally as
50. (d) Fasciola, a flatworm has a single body well.
cavity to the outside that serves both as
59. (b)
mouth for ingestion and anus for egestion of
60. (d) Echinoderms show bilateral symmetry
undigested food. This is known as blind sac
in their larval stage and pentamerous radial
plan.
symmetry in the adult stage. Annelids are
51. (a) Acoelomates are animals that have
bilaterally symmetrical, coelenterates show
no body cavity or coelom. The examples
Animal Kingdom 57
radial symmetry. Molluscs are also bilaterally 72. (a) Vertebrates are also known as craniata
symmetrical. due to presence of skull in all its members.
61. (a) Insects show a distinct division into 73. (d) Hirudinaria (leech), does not possesses
head, thorax and abdomen. In crustaceans setae or parapodia for locomotion. Its
and myriapods head and thorax are fused. posterior sucker helps in locomotion.
In arachnids body is divided into prothorax, 74. (b) The body of an adult lies more or less
mesothorax and metathorax. parallel to the surface in Culex where as in
62. (c) Obelia exhibits polymorphism. Round Anopheles the body lies at an angle of 45° to
worm (Ascaris) exhibits sexual dimorphism. the surface.
Pheretima is a hermaphrodite and Chameleon 75. (d) Class Cephalopoda of the phylum
shows camouflage. Mollusca has well developed eyes and
63. (a) Presence of notochord in any stage of the resemble vertebrate eyes e.g., Octopus, Sepia
life cycle is a major chordate characteristic. etc.
64. (d) Post anal tail is present in chordates at 76. (a) Star fish belongs to the class – Asteroidea.
some stage in the life. 77. (a) Jaw apparatus is called Aristotle’s
65. (a) Haemocyanin is the pigment carrying O2 Lantern which is present in the Class
in molluscs. Annelids have erythrocruosin. Echinoidae of the Phylum Echinodermata.
66. (b) Sponges show cell aggregate body 78. (c) Musca is the zoological name of house
organization. Cell tissue organization appear fly which is regarded as mechanical carrier of
in coelenterates. Platyhelminthes show tissue many diseases.
organ organizations. 79. (b) Larval stage of Echinoderms have
67. (c) Silver fish (Insecta), scorpion (Arachni- bilateral symmetry and the adults have radial
da); crab (Crustacea) and honey bee (Insecta) symmetry, pentamerous i.e., body parts
all belong to phylum Arthropoda which is arranged in five or multiples of five.
characterized by the presence of jointed ap- 80. (b) Earthworms are very useful to human
pendages. Poison gland occur only in scor- as they make the soil porous and increase
pion. Compound eyes and metamorphosis its fertility through worm casting. They are
are the characteristic of insects. called as Nature’s ‘plough man’.
68. (b) Metamerism is an important character of 81. (d) In the blood of earthworm, haemoglobin
annelida and arthropoda. The body is divided is dissolved in the plasma. RBCs are absent.
externally into segments called metameres. 82. (a) Malpighian tubules are fine, unbranched,
Metamerism is also exhibited by chordata due yellow tubules that lie more or less free in the
to repetition of a succession of homologous haemocoel. They open into alimentary canal.
structures along anterio-posterior axis. They absorb nitrogenous waste product, and
69. (d) Sea anemone (Adamsia) is marine animal thus acts as excretory organs in insects.
attached to the empty shell of gastropods 83. (c) Sand fly (Leishmania donovani) is the
occupied by hermit crab. They live as vector of Kala azar, causes severe liver
symbionts, not as parasites. infection.
84. (c) Light receptors are found in diffused
condition to differentiate between light and
dark. These receptors are present on the dorsal
70. (b) Tube feet is the locomotory organ that surface.
occurs in star fishes. 85. (a) Earthworms are very useful to human
71. (d) All chordate possess : as they make the soil porous and increase
— Notochord at some stage of life its fertility through worm casting. They are
— Dorsal tubular nervous system called as Nature’s ‘plough man’.
— Pharyngeal gill slits at same stage of 86. (c) Chordates are featured by the presence
life cycle. of the following characters.
 EBD_7325
58 BIOLOGY
• Notochord (cephalic or head region) 96. (a) Leech has ventral central nervous
• Pharyngeal gill silts system which consists of nerve ring, and a
• Postanal tail. solid, double, mid ventral nerve cord with
87. (a) Caterpillar larva is a voracious eater, ganglia.
it gets matured and by secreting silk thread 97. (c) Sea squirt is Herdmania. Dolphin is an
changes into pupa & encloses into silk
aquatic mammal and breathes through lungs.
cocoon.
88. (b) Teredo (shipworm) is the member of class 98. (d) Gambusia
– Bivalvia (double shell plates). 99. (d) Coelom is a fluid filled space between
Shipworms are in fact not worms at all, but body wall and alimentary canal which is lined
rather a group of marine molluscs (Eulamel- by mesoderm on both sides. Coelenteron
libranchiata) in the family Teredinidae. They is the sac like body cavity in coelenterates.
bore into submerged wood, and bacteria in a
Blastocoel is the fluid filled cavity of
special organ called the gland of Deshayes
enabling them to digest cellulose. The ship- blastocyst. Archenteron is the gut cavity in
worms belong to several genera of which the gastrula enclosed by the endoderm. The
Teredo is the most commonly mentioned. The open and of it is called blastopore.
best known species is Teredo navalis. 100. (c) Fussorial are the animals which live
89. (c) Petrormyzon marinus, commonly known beneath the soil (in low temperature) and are
as sea lamprey lays eggs in fresh water and found abundant in desert grasslands.
its larvae, after metamorphosis, return to the
ocean (saline water). 101. (c) Cockroach & snail have open type of
90. (b) Torpedo is a sluggish fish. It is carnivorous. circulatory system.
The prey is killed due to electric shock. The Closed type of blood circulatory system
shock can also be harmful for human beings. occurs in cuttlefish.
91. (b) House fly, butterfly, tse tse fly, silverfish 102. (b) Animals which are marine, solitary, bell
all belongs to insecta. or umbrella shaped belong to class Scyphozoa
92. (a) Duckbilled platypus is oviparous and i.e., Jelly fish.
comes under phylum mammalia. Millipede
103. (a) Commensalism is an association between
belongs to the phylum arthropoda. Sea-
anemone is diploblastic and belongs to two organisms in which one is benefitted but
phylum cnidaria. Silver-fish is an insect the other is not harmed.
belonging to phylum arthropoda, having long 104. (b) Sharks and Trygon (sting ray) are the
antennae, no wings and move in a wiggling members of cartilaginous fish while Whale,
motion that resembles the movement of a fish. Dolphin and Seals are aquatic mammals
93. (a) Sharks and dogfishes have cylindrical belong to class mammalia.
body while skates and rays have flattened 105. (a) Chondrichthyes always have cartilaginous
body with winglike pectoral fins which are
endoskeleton. Most mammals are viviparous,
not distinct from body.
giving birth to young. However, the five
94. (d) Sea horse and flying fish are cold blooded
animals. Ornithorhyncus is oviparous. Croco- species of monotreme, the platypuses and
dile has four chambered heart. Ascaris and the echidnas, lay eggs. Chordates have jawless
Ancylostoma are segmented roundworms. animals (Agnatha) as well. Most reptiles
95. (b) Lampreys and hagfishes are unusual, have 3 chambered heart. Crocodilians have 4
jawless fish that comprise the order chambered hearts. Turtles have 3 chambered
Cyclostomata, so named because of the heart but with an incomplete wall in the single
circular shape of the mouth. The brains of ventricle, so their hearts are functionally 4
lampreys and hagfishes differ a lot, but they chambered.
also show a large number of similarities, as 106. (c) Giving birth to young that develop within
do all craniate brains. the mother’s body rather than hatching from
Animal Kingdom 59
eggs. All mammals except the monotremes and red blood cells which are nucleated. Frog
are viviparous. cells do not lack platelets.
107. (b) Platypus is an oviparous (egg laying 116. (c) Spongilla is a fresh water sponge that
animal). It belongs to class-mammalia. belongs to phylum porifera. It has special
108. (a) (i) Aves possess dry skin, without collared cells called choanocytes. Choanocytes
glands except oil gland near the base are not found in leech, dolphin and penguin.
of tail. 117. (d) C o c k r o a c h b e l o n g s t o p hy l u m -
(ii) Pinnae are not found in aquatic Arthropoda. It has 10 pairs of Spiracles (2
animals and egg laying mammals. pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen).
(iii) In cyclostomes, unpaired appendages 118. (b) Crocodile belongs to class reptilia which
(joints) are found. has four chambered heart. Lemur teeth are
109. (d) Ichthyophis – Amphibian embedded in the sockets of two which is
Limulus – Arthropoda known as thecodont.
Adamsia – Cnidaria 119. (c) Penguin, Kiwi & Ostrich all belong to
class Aves of chordata (i.e. birds) and they
Petramyzon – Jawless
do not give birth to their young ones, they
vertebrate &
are oviparous, while Kangaroo, Hedgehog,
ectoparasite, Dolphin, Loris all belong to class mammalia
cyclostomate and are viviparous.
110. (a) In option (a), all the characteristics 120. (b) Salamander does not undergo any annual
belong to class Reptilia. In options (b), (c) and migration as it occurs in Siberian crane, Arctic
(d) the characteristics belong to the classes tern and Salmon mainly for the search of food
Amphibia, Osteichthyes and Chondrichthyes or for breeding.
respectively. 121. (c) Mammals have 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
111. (a) All sponges are marine and have collared 122. (b) Presence of diaphragm which separates
cells without any exception. Sponges are the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity
animals of the phylum Porifera. They are is the characteristic feature of all mammals.
multicellular organisms which have bodies Homeothermy is the phenomenon whereby
full of pores and channels allowing water to warm blooded animals, birds and mammals
circulate through them, consisting of jelly-like can maintain a constant body temperature.
mesohyl sandwiched between two thin layers Four chambered heart is observed in birds and
of cells. mammals. Rib cage occurs in all vertebrates.
112. (d) A male shark possesses a pair of claspers 123. (d) Duck-billed platypus is an egg laying
which are inserted into a female shark’s cloaca mammal.
(an opening on the underside of the body) 124. (c) Hollow bones are characteristic adaptive
at the time of mating. Claspers are located features of birds. It reduces their body weight
on the inner edge of the pelvic fins near the and is a major flight adaptation.
male’s cloaca. The function of claspers is to 125. (a) Birds have pneumatic bones.
introduce sperm into a female shark’s body 126. (c) Toads possess a pair of large parotid
for the purpose of fertilizing her eggs. Female glands behind the tympana. They produce
sharks do not have claspers. a milky poisonous fluid. Statocysts are the
113. (c) Chondrichthyes are the cartilaginous organs of equilibrium and sensory perception
fish with a flexible skeleton made of cartilage located at the base of antennae. Flame cells
rather than bone. in liver fluke are the excretory organs.
114. (c) The characteristics and phylum of 127. (b) Flightless birds are restricted to the
Pteropus is accurate. islands of Australia and New Guinea.
115. (c) Human possesses enucleated RBCs in 128. (a) The number of cervical vertebrae are
mature state. But frog blood has both white same in man & whale that is 7 in number.
 EBD_7325
60 BIOLOGY
129. (b) Diaphragm is present in mammals as 141. (b) Penguin is a flightless bird found in
a muscular seperator between thorax and colder regions like Antarctica.
abdominal region. 142. (d) Skin in fact is a secondary or accessory
130. (d) Gorilla, Chimpanzee, Monkeys and respiratory organ in frog when frog undergoes
Man belongs to same order- Primates of class the hybernation or aestivation i.e. winter sleep
mammalia. or summer sleep & when it goes into the water
131. (b) Dorsal hollow nervous system is one of for a long time.
the important feature of vertebrates.
143. (b) In birds flight muscles or breast muscles
132. (d) Mucus helps frog in forming moist skin
are attached to the large sternum or breast
as it is necessary for cutaneous respiration
bone. The wings are powered by these flight
during hibernation of frog.
muscles.
133. (d) A larval stage occurs in the life history
of butterfly, frog and mosquito. 144. (d) Two clavicles are fused with inter clavicle
134. (b) Tracheal tube of cockroach and human to form a fork shaped bone called wish bone
have non-collapsable wall. Each tracheal tube or furcula or bone of merry thoughts.
is lined with cuticle which prevents collapsing. 145. (b) Etherians are placental animals. The
135. (a) Nerve cells are present in the form of foetus develop inside uterus of female where
network of neurons in Hydra but the brain they are nourished by special structure called
and nerves are absent. as placenta.
136. (c) Ostrich, Kiwi, Penguin are all flightless 146. (c) Tortoise (Testudo) is a member of order-
birds. Chelonia, class – Reptiles.
137. (b) Prototherians are egg laying mammals, 147. (b) Fire bellied toad (Bombina orientalis) is
they share characters with reptiles. a member of family Discoglossidae of order
e.g., - Duck bill Platypus Anura of class Amphibia. Its belly is red or
The Platypus (Ornithorhynchus anatinus) is a orange-red.
semi-aquatic mammal endemic to eastern 148. (c) Necturus (Mud puppy) order – Urodela
Australia and Tasmania. Together with the class – Amphibia is a species of which
four species of Echidna, it is one of the five salamanders is a part of the genus Necturus.
species of monotremes, the only mammals 149. (c) Typhols is a non-poisonous blind snake.
that lay eggs instead of giving birth to 150. (c) Crop in birds stores & softens food and
young. It is the sole living representative of
secretes milk in pigeons.
its family (Ornithorhynchidae) and genus
151. (a) In birds, hind limbs are variously
(Ornithorhynchus), though a number of related
species have been found in the fossil record. modified for various functions like perching,
138. (c) Sound box or syrinx is present below grasping etc. In the kingfisher they are
trachea which produces sound in birds. modified for wading.
139. (a) Rana tigrina – Bull frog; Order - Anura 152. (b) Bird vertebrae are heterocoelous.
Amphibia. Acoelous vertebrae are found in mammals.
140. (b) Metanephric kidney is found differenti- 153. (d) Members of the order Cetacea of class
ated into cortex and medulla and duct of such Mammalia are aquatic animals like whales,
kidney is ureter. dolphins having smooth and hairless skin.
 5
Chapter

Morphology of
Flowering Plants

Topic 1: Root 8. Which of the following is not a stem

modification? [2016]
1. Plants which produce characteristic pneu- (a) Pitcher of Nepenthes
matophores and show vivipary belong to :
(b) Thorns of citrus
[2017] (c) Tendrils of cucumber
(a) Halophytes (d) Flattened structures of Opuntia
(b) Psammophytes 9. An example of edible underground stem is:
(c) Hydrophytes [2014]
(d) Mesophytes (a) Carrot (b) Groundnut
2. Sweet potato is homologous to [2011M] (c) Sweet potato (d) Potato
(a) Potato (b) Colocasia 10. What is eye of potato?  [2001]
(c) Ginger (d) Turnip (a) Axillary bud (b) Acessory bud
3. Roots of which plant contains an oxidising (c) Adventitious bud (d) Apical bud
agent?  [2001] Topic 3: Leaf
(a) Carrot (b) Soyabean
(d) Mustard (d) Radish 11. Stems modified into flat green organs
4. The plant, which bears clinging roots, is performing the functions of leaves are known
as [2016]
[1999]
(a) Cladodes (b) Phyllodes
(a) trapa (b) orchid
(c) Phylloclades (d) Scales
(c) screw pine (d) podostemon
12. Leaves become modified into spines in :-
5. Buttress roots are found in  [1995]
[2015 RS]
(a) sorghum (b) banyan
(a) Pea (b) Onion
(c) Terminalia (d) Pandanus
(c) Silk Cotton (d) Opuntia
6. Velamen is found in  [1991] 13. How many plants among China rose,
(a) roots of Screwpine Ocimum, sunflower, mustard, Alstonia,
(b) aerial and terrestrial roots of orchids guava, Calotropis and Nerium (Oleander) have
(c) leaves of Ficus elastica opposite phyllotaxy?  [NEET Kar. 2013]
(d) aerial roots of orchids (a) Two (b) Three
Topic 2: Stem (c) Four (d) Five
14. Phyllode is present in :  [2012]
7. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications (a) Asparagus
of :    [2017]
(b) Euphorbia
(a) Adventitious root (b) Stem (c) Australian Acacia
(c) Leaf (d) Stipules (d) Opuntia
 EBD_7325
62 BIOLOGY
15. Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate (a) Five (b) Six
venation are present in  [2011M] (c) Seven (d) Eight
(a) Calotropis (b) Neem 24. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis
(c) China rose (d) Alstonia [NEET Kar. 2013]
16. Heterospory and seed habit are often (a) Terminates in a flower
discussed in relation to a structure called (b) Has unlimited growth
[1997] (c) Bears a solitary flower
(a) spathe (b) bract (d) Has unlimited growth but lateral
(c) petiole (d) ligule branches end in flowers
25. Inflorescence is racemose in
Topic 4 : Inflorescence / Flower
[NEET Kar. 2013]
17. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla (a) Soyabean (b) Brinjal
is also called [2016]
(c) Tulip (d) Aloe
(a) Carina (b) Pappus
26. Placentation in tomato and lemon is [2012]
(c) Vexillum (d) Corona
(a) Parietal (b) Free central
18. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is
(c) Marginal (d) Axile
attached to the [2016]
27. Cymose inflorescence is present in : [2012]
(a) Anther
(b) Connective (a) Solanum (b) Sesbania
(c) Placenta (c) Trifolium (d) Brassica
(d) Thalamus or petal 28. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils
19. Perigynous flowers are found in :-[2015 RS] in flowers of  [2012]
(a) Cucumber (b) China rose (a) Aloe (b) Tomato
(c) Rose (d) Guava (c) Papaver (d) Michelia
20. Axile placentation is present in [2015 RS] 29. How many plants in the list given below
(a) Lemon (b) Pea have marginal placentation?
(c) Argemone (d) Dianthus Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar,
21. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap Sun hemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion,
one another without any particular direction, Moong, Pea, Tobacco, Lupin [2012M]
the condition is termed as:  [2014] (a) Four (b) Five
(a) Vexillary (b) Imbricate (c) Six (d) Three
(c) Twisted (d) Valvate 30. Flowers are zygomorphic in : [2011]
22. Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, (a) mustard (b) gulmohur
pumpkin, china rose, lupin, cucumber, (c) tomato (d) datura
sunhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum, 31. Which one of the following diagrams
petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato, represents the placentation in Dianthus?
onion, aloe and tulip how many plants have
hypogynous flower ?  [NEET 2013] [2011M]
(a) Ten (b) Fifteen (a) (b)
(c) Eighteen (d) Six
23. Among flowers of Calotropis, tulip, Sesbania,
Asparagus, Colchicine, Sweet pea, Petunia,
Indigofera, Mustard, Soyabean, Tobacco and
(c) (d)
groundnut how many plants have corolla with
valvate aestivation?  [NEET Kar. 2013]
Morphology of Flowering Plants 63
32. In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the (c) marginal placentation
placentation is :  [2010] (d) superficial placentation
(a) Marginal (b) Basal 41. Floral features are chiefly used in
(c) Free Central (d) Axile Angiosperms identification because [1998]
33. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of: [2010] (a) flowers are of various colours
(a) guava (b) plum (b) flowers can be safely pressed
(c) brinjal (d) cucumber (c) reproductive parts are more stable and
conservative than vegetative parts
34. The technical term used for the androecium
in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosa (d) flowers are nice to work with
42. Hypanthodium is  [1994]
sinensis) is:  [2010]
(a) thalamus (b) fruit
(a) Monadelphous (b) Diadelphous
(c) inflorescence (d) ovary
(c) Polyandrous (d) Polyadelphous
43. Epipetalous stamens with free filaments and
35. An example of axile placentation is: [2009] fused anthers occur in  [1991, 92]
(a) Dianthus (b) Lemon (a) Asteraceae (b) Solanaceae
(c) Marigold (d) Argemone (c) Liliaceae (d) Poaceae
36. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of Topic 5: Fruif / Seed
[2008]
44. Coconut fruit is a : [2017]
(a) Lemon (b) Mustard
(a) Berry (b) Nut
(c) Sun flower (d) Pea
(c) Capsule (d) Drupe
37. Which of the following is a flowering
45. The morphological nature of the edible part
plant with nodules containing filamentous
of coconut is:    [2017]
nitrogen-fixing micro-organism [2007]
(a) Cotyledon (b) Endosperm
(a) Crotalaria juncea
(c) Pericarp (d) Perisperm
(b) Cycas revoluta
46. The coconut water from tender coconut
(c) Cicer arietinum
represents [2016]
(d) Casuarina equisetifolia
(a) endocarp
38. Long filamentous threads protruding at the
(b) fleshy mesocarp
end of the young cob of maize are
(c) free nuclear proembryo
[2000, 06]
(d) free nuclear endosperm
(a) styles (b) ovaries
47. Cotyledon of maize grain is called [2016]
(c) hairs (d) anthers (a) plumule (b) coleorhiza
39. Angiosperm to which the largest flowers (c) coleoptile (d) scutellum
belong is?  [1999] 48. Coconut water from a tender coconut is
(a) total stem parasite [2015 RS]
(b) partial stem parasite
(a) Free nuclear endosperm
(c) total root parasite
(b) Innermost layers of the seed coar
(d) partial root parasite
(c) Degenerated nucellus
40. The type of placentation in which ovary
is syncarpous, unilocular and ovules on (d) Immature emryo
sutures is called  [1999] 49. Which one of the following fr uits is
(a) apical placentation parthenocarpic? [2015 RS]
(b) parietal placentation (a) Apple (b) Jackfruit
(c) Banana (d) Brinjal
 EBD_7325
64 BIOLOGY
50. The wheat grain has an embryo with one, (a) 42 (b) 63
large, shield-shaped cotyledon known as: (c)
84 (d) 21
[2015 RS] 58. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of
(a) Coleorrhiza embryo is represented by  [2006]
(b) Scutellum (a) scutellum (b) prophyll
(c) Coleoptile (c) coleoptile (d) coleorhiza
(d) Epiblast 59. Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from
51. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions
[2006]
in:  [2014]
(a) a multipistillate syncarpous flower
(a) Apple (b) Banana
(b) a cluster of compactly borne flowers on
(c) Tomato (d) Potato
a common axis
52. Which one of the following statements is
correct?  [2014] (c) a multilocular monocarpellary flower
(a) The seed in grasses is not endospermic. (d) a unilocular polycarpellary flower
(b) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit. 60. Aril represents the edible part of
(c) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present [1997, 99, 2005, 06]
in maize grain. (a) banana (b) litchi
(d) A sterile pistil is called a staminode. (c) mango (d) apple
53. An aggregate fruit is one which develops 61. Mango juice is got from  [1989, 2002, 04]
from:  [2014]
(a) epicarp
(a) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
(b) mesocarp
(b) Multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium
(c) endocarp
(c) Complete inflorescence
(d) pericarp and thalamus
(d) Multicarpellary superior ovary
62. Juicy hair–like structures observed in the
54. How many plants in the list given below
have composite fruits that develop from an lemon fruit develop from  [2003]
inflorescence Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, (a) mesocarp and endocarp
pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry [2012] (b) exocarp
(a) Four (b) Five (c) mesocarp
(c) Two (d) Three (d) endocarp
63. The aleurone layer in maize grain is specially
55. The coconut water and the edible part of
coconut are equivalent to : [2012] rich in  [2003]
(a) auxins (b) proteins
(a) Endosperm (b) Endocarp
(c) starch (d) lipids
(c) Mesocarp (d) Embryo
64. Edible part of banana is  [2001]
56. Which one of the following statements is
(a) epicarp
correct ?  [2011]
(b) mesocarp and less developed endocarp
(a) In tomato, fruit is a capsule
(c) endocarp and less developed mesocarp
(b) Seeds of orchids have oil-rich
(d) epicarp and mesocarp
endosperm
65. Which is correct pair for edible part? [2001]
(c) Placentation in primose is basal
(a) Tomato - Thalamus
(d) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot
(b) Maize - Cotyledons
57. What would be the number of chromosomes
(c) Guava - mesocarp
of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42
(d) Data palm - Mesocarp
chromosomes in its root tip cells ? [2011]
Morphology of Flowering Plants 65
66. The embryo in sunflower has [1998] 75. Perisperm is  [1988, 89]
(a) one cotyledon (a) remnant of endosperm
(b) two cotyledons (b) persistent nucellus
(c) many cotyledons (c) peripheral part of endosperm
(d) no cotyledon (d) disintegrated secondary nucleus
67. Which one of the following statements is 76. Fruit of Groundnut is  [1988]
correct with respect to the plant species and (a) Legume (b) Caryopsis
its use?  [1997] (c) Berry (d) Nut
(a) Oryza sativa – rich source of protein Topic 6: Families - Fabaceae / Solanaceae
(b) Manihot utilissima – root tubers eaten Liliaceae
especially in Kerala
77. Tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium is found
(c) Ricinus communis – important edible in flowers of [2016]
cereal
(a) Liliaceae (b) Solanaceae
(d) Hibiscus esculentus – flowers eaten
(c) Fabaceae (d) Poaceae
throughout the country.
68. Which one of the following is a true fruit? 78. is the floral formula of
[1996]
[2015 RS]
(a) Apple (b) Pear
(a) Sesbania (b) Petunia
(c) Cashew nut (d) Coconut
(c) Brassica (d) Allium
69. Which part of the coconut produces coir? 79. Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of:
[1996]  [2015 RS]
(a) Seed coat (b) Mesocarp (a) Indigofera (b) Aloe
(c) Epicarp (d) Pericarp. (c) Tomato (d) Tulip
70. Vivipary is  [1992] 80. Among china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato,
(a) seed germination with subterranean guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how many
cotyledons plants have superior ovary? [2015 RS]
(b) seed germination with epiterranean (a) Six (b) Three
cotyledons (c) Four (d) Five
(c) fruit development without pollination 81. Flowers are unisexual in:  [2015 RS]
(d) seed germination inside the fruit while (a) Cucumber (b) China rose
attached to the plant (c) Onion (d) Pea
71. Germination of seed within fruit is [1992] 82. In china rose the flowers are : [NEET 2013]
(a) ovipary (b) vivipary (a) Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate
(c) hypogeal (d) epigeal aestivation
72. Fruit of Mangifera indica is  [1991] (b) Zygomor phic, hypog ynous with
(a) Berry (b) Drupe imbricate aestivation
(c) Capsule (d) Siliqua (c) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted
73. New Banana plants develop from [1990] aestivation
(a) rhizome (b) sucker (d) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with
(c) stolon (d) seed twisted aestivation
74. In Groundnut the food/oil reserve is present 83. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the
in  [1990] family  [2012]
(a) epicarp (b) mesocarp (a) Fabaceae (b) Asteraceae
(c) endosperm (d) cotyledons (c) Solanaceae (d) Brassicaceae
 EBD_7325
66 BIOLOGY
84. Which one of the following organisms 91. Bicarpellary gynoecium and oblique ovary
is cor rectly matched with its three occures in  [2001]
characteristics?  [2012M] (a) Mustard (b) Banana
(a) Pea: C3 pathway, Endospermic seed, (c) Pisum (d) Brinjal
Vexillary aestivation 92. Tetradynamous stamens are found in family
(b) Tomato: Twisted aestivation, Axile [1995, 01]
placentation, Berry (a) Malvaceae (b) Solanaceae
(c) Onion: Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, (c) Cruciferae (d) Liliaceae
Axile placentation 93. Match the following and indicate which is
(d) Maize: C3 pathway, Closed vascular correct [2000]
bundles, Scutellum (a) Cucurbitaceae – Orange
85. The correct floral formula of chilli is : [2011] (b) Malvaceae – Cotton
(a) O ♂ K(5)C5A5G(2) (c) Brassicaceae – Wheat
+
(d) Leguminosae – Sunflower
O ♂ K(5)C(5)A5G(2)
(b) 94. Pulses are obtained from  [1993]
+
O ♂ K(5)C(5)A(5)G(2)
(c)
(a) Fabaceae (b) Asteraceae
+ (c) Poaceae (d) Solanaceae
O ♂ K(5)C5A(5)G(2)
(d) 95. Floral formula of Tomato/Tobacco is
+ [1989, 92]
86. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of   [2011]
(a) + K4–5 A10G(2)
(a) peach (b) cucumber
(c) cotton (d) guava + + K2+2 C4A2+4G1
(b)
87. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of:
+ + P2 A3G1
(c)
(a) Gulmohur (b) Cassia [2010]
(c) Calotropis (d) Bean
+ + K(5) C(5)A5 G(2)
(d)
88. The floral formula  [2009]
96. Syngenesious condition is found in [1991]
K(5) C(5) A5G(2)
+ (a) Asteraceae (b) Labiate
is that of: (c) Solanaceae (d) Fabaceae
(a) Soyabean (b) Sunhemp 97. + + K5 C5A5 G(2) is floral formula of [1991]
(c) Tobacco (d) Tulip
(a) Liliaccae (b) Solanaceae
89. What type of placentation is seen in sweet
(c) Asteraceae (d) Fabaceae
pea?  [2006]
98. Botanical name of Cauliflower is [1991]
(a) Axile (b) Free central
(a) Brassica oleracea var. capitata
(c) Marginal (d) Basal (b) Brassica campesteris
90. Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, (c) Brassica oleracea var. botrytis
bicarpellate ovary with oblique septa and (d) Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera
fruit a capsule of berry, are characteristic 99. A family delimited by head type of
features of  [2006] inflorescence is  [1990]
(a) Brassicaceae (b) Solanaceae (a) Fabaceae (b) Asteraceae
(c) Liliaceae (d) Asteraceae (c) Solanaceae (d) Liliaceae
Morphology of Flowering Plants 67

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Halophytes growing in saline soils show multiple nodes and internodes, and cladode
vivipary for seed germination and have for a single internode of a phylloclade. In
pneumatophores for gaseous exchange. some plants, the petioles are flattened and
2. (d) Sweet potato and turnip both are roots widened, to become phyllodes or phyllodia.
that become modified for special functions, 12. (d) In Opuntia, leaves become modified into
the most common being the formation of spines to avoid transpiration so as to save
tuberous roots for food storage. water for desert adaptation. The stems of this
3. (b) In the roots of soyabean plant, plant appear like-leaf, termed as- phylloclades
leghaemoglobin, a pigment with affinity for which perform the process of photosynthesis.
oxygen, is found. 13. (b) Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement
4. (b) Screw pine (Pandanus) bear stilt roots. of leaves on the stem or branch.
Trapa bears assimilatory roots. Orchid bears
• O  cimum, Guava, Calotropis → Opposite
clinging roots.
phyllotaxy
5. (c) Buttress roots are asymmetrically
• C hina rose, Sunflower, Mustard →
thickened prop roots found at the base
of certain trees. They render additional Alternate phyllotaxy
mechanical support to the trees. e.g. Salmalia, • A  lstonia, Nerium (Oleander) → Whorled
Terminalia etc. phyllotaxy
6. (d) Aerial roots of orchids hang freely in 14. (c) Phyllode is present in Australian Acacia.
the air and absorb moisture with the help of It is modification of leaf in which lamina is
special sponge like tissue called velamen. absent and petiole becomes flattened and
7. (b) Thorns are hard, pointed straight perform the function of food synthesis.
structures for protection against grazing 15. (d) Whorled phyllotaxy is a feature of
animal. These are modified stem. Nerium and Alstonia. In Alstonia five leaves
8. (a) Pitcher of Nepenthes or pitcher plant is are present in a whorl while in Nerium three
modification of leaf whereas thorns in citrus leaves are present in a whorl.
tendrils of cucumber and flattened structure 16. (d) Heterospory, development of seed habit
of Opuntia are all stem modification. and ligulate leaves are important features
9. (d) Potato is an example of edible of Selaginella. The reproductive structure
underground stem. 
in Selaginella is strobilus. A strobilus has
• It is differentiated into nodes and
many ligulate sporophylls. Two types of
internodes. The ‘eyes’ on potato tuber
spores are produced megasporophylls and
indicate axillary buds at the nodes.
microsporophylls. Ligule is a small leaf like
• It bears scaly leaves. The leaves do not store
outgrowth at the base of leaf.
food.
17. (c) Papilionaceous flowers are flowers with
•  Axillary buds arise at the nodes.
the characteristic irregular and butterfly-like
•  Does not bear roots.
corolla. A single, large upper petal is known as
10. (c) Axillary bud is the bud arising in the
axil of branch. Apical bud arises at the apex. the banner or vexillum and the name has been
Adventitious bud arises from any location derived from an ancient military standard.
other than its usual location. 18. (d) The proximal end is attached to the
11. (c) Phylloclade refers to a portion of a thalamus whereas the distal end bears anther.
flattened leaf-like stem or branch with 19. (c) Ovary is partly superior and partly
inferior in perigynous flower.
 EBD_7325
68 BIOLOGY
20. (a) In a multilocular ovary, when the 28. (d) The female reproductive part of a flower
placenta is axial and ovules are attached to it is gynoecium. It is syncarpous or fused in
is known as axile placentation. tomato.
21. (b) If the margins of sepals or petals overlap 29. (c) Marginal placentation is a placentation
one another but not in any particular direction with ovules borne on the wall along the
as in Cassia and gulmohur, the aestivation is ventral suture of a simple ovary. Gram,
called imbricate. Arhar, Sun hemp, Moong, Pea & Lupin
22. (b) Mustard (cruciferae) , brinjal (solanaceae) belong to fabaceae family that bear marginal
china rose (malvaceae), lupin (leguminosae), placentation.
gram (leguminosae), bean (leguminosae), 30. (b) When a flower can be divided into two
chilli, Petunia, potato, tomato, Withania similar halves only in one particular vertical
(solanaceae), onion, Aloe, tulip (liliaceae) plane, it is zygomorphic, e.g. pea, gulmohar,
have hypogynous flower while bittergourd, bean, etc.
cucumber (cucurbitaceae), guava (myrtaceae) 31. (b) Free central placentation occurs in
have epigynous flower and rose has perigynous Dianthus and Primula in which ovules are
flower. borne on central axis and septa are absent.
23. (c) Calotropis, tulip, Asparagus, colchicine, 32. (b) In basal type of placentation, the ovary
Petunia, mustard, tobacco have valvate is unilocular with a single ovule. In this, the
aestivation while sweet pea, groundnut, placenta is at the base of the ovary. It is seen
soyabean, Indigofera, Sesbania have vexillary in Polygonum.
aestivation. 33. (b) A flower in which floral parts arise
24. (a) In cymose inflorescence, the growth of from around the ovary is called perigynous.
the main axis is definite because the growing In this, the ovary is half inferior and half
point of peduncle is used up in the formation superior. It can be seen in the flowers of
of a flower. Further growth of flowering axis plum, peach etc.
is continued by one or more lateral branches 34. (a) Hibiscus belongs to family Malvaceae.
which also end in flower. It possess numerous stamens that are called
25. (a) • Inflorescence in family fabaceae (e.g., monadelphous.
soyabean) is racemose. 35. (b) In flowering plants, placentation occurs
• Inflorescence in family liliaceae (e.g., where the ovules are attached inside the
tulip, Aloe) is solitary/cymose; often ovary. An example of axile placentation is
umbellate. citrus. In this type of placentation the ovary
• Inflorescence in family solanaceae (e.g., is sectioned by radial spokes with placentas
brinjal) is solitary, axillary or cymose as in separate locules.
in Solanum. 36. (b) Replum is present in the ovary of flower
26. (d) Parietal Ex. - Mustard of mustard. A false septun called replum
Free central Ex. - Primula & Dianthus develops between the two parietal placentae
Marginal Ex. - Pea in mustard and other members of family
Axile Ex. - Tomato, lemon, Brassicaceae. The ovary becomes bilocular.
Chinarose 37. (d) It is also know as Australian pine, which
is a deciduous tree with a soft, wispy, pine-
27. (a) Cymose infloresence is present in
like appearance that can grow to 100 feet or
Solanum. Cymose inflorescence is the name
more in height. Also known as ironwood, or
of determinate or definite inflorescence in
beefwood. It bears a superficial resemblance
which the tip of the main axis terminates in
to the conifer genus Pinus because of its small,
a flower and further growth continues by one
round, cone-like fruits and its branchlets of
or more lateral branches which also behaves
scale-like leaves that look like pine needles.
like the main axis.
Morphology of Flowering Plants 69
38. (a) Long filamentous threads of maize are 49. (c) Parthenocarpic fruits (eg - banana) are
the styles of the ovaries. In fact, these are the produced without fertilization of ovule.
longest styles in plants. 50. (b) Scutellum is large, shield shaped
39. (c) Rafflessia is an angiosperm, which cotyledon that helps in the absorption of
produces the largest flowers. It is also a total nutrients from endosperm during germination.
root parasite. 51. (c) In tomato the edible part is pericarp and
40. (b) The arrangement of ovules inside placenta.
the ovary of a flowering plant is called 52. (c) Generally, monocotyledonous seeds
placentation. In marginal placentation, the (e.g., grasses) are endospermic but some as
ovule develop from a longitudinal suture in orchids are non-endospermic. Mango is a
where the margins of the ovary wall fuse. e.g.. drupe fruit that develops from multicarpellary,
Pea, gram. In apical placentation a single syncarpous, superior ovary having one or
ovule is born near the apex of the ovary. Here many seeds. A sterile stamen is called a
ovary is unilocular (Cannabis). In superficial staminode. In monocots, outer covering
placentation the ovary is unilocular simple of endosperm separates the embryo by a
or syncarpous e.g. Nymphaea. proteinous layer called aleurone layer.
41. (c) Reproductive parts (floral features) are 53. (b) Aggregate fruits (etaerio) develop from
more stable and conservative than vegetative the multicarpellary apocarpous ovary. They
parts, which exhibit changes due to the are of following types; Etaerio of follicles,
environmental factors quite readily. So floral etaerio of achenes, etaerio of berries, etaerio
features are more reliable. of drupes.
42. (c) Hypanthodium is a special kind of 54. (d) Fig-develops from hypanthodium
inflorescence where the receptacle is usually inflorescence; pineapple- develops from spike
fleshy and flask-shaped. e.g. Ficus. inflorescence; Mulberry-develops from catkin
43. (a) Asteraceae possess five stamens with inflorescence.
free filaments but anthers are united forming 55. (a) Liquid endosperm is the edible part of
a tube around the style (syngenesious). coconut.
44. (d) Coconut fruit is a drupe. A drupe is a 56. (d) Tulips are most popular and wildly
fleshy fruit with thin skin and central stone grown flowers. Tulips are bulbs, possessing
containing the seed. modified stems and leaves.
45. (b) The edible part of coconut is its endo- 57. (b) Aleurone cells are the outer cell layer of
sperm. Coconut has double endosperm, liquid the endosperm, usually only one cell thick
endosperm and cellular. in wheat and the only endosperm tissue
46. (d) Coconut water is the clear liquid inside alive at maturity. The cell layers of this layer
young green coconuts (fruits of the coconut are responsible for the de-novo synthesis of
palm). In early development, it serves as a enzyme needed during germination. The
suspension for the endosperm of the coconut chromosome number is 63 of a plant with
during the nuclear phase of development. As 42 chromosome in its root tip cells.
growth continues, the endosperm matures 58. (a) Single cotyledon of embryo in cereal
into its cellular phase and deposits into the grain is represented by scutellum. Coleoptile
rind of the coconut meat. represents the covering of stem. Coleorrhiza
47. (d) The cotyledons are known as seed leaves, represents the covering of root.
they are attached to the embryonic axis. 59. (b) Pineapple (Ananas sativus) is a
Dicotyledons typically have two cotyledons sorosis fruit developed from a composite
and monocotyledons have only one cotyledon. inflorescence which is actually a cluster of
The single shield-shaped cotyledon in grains compactly borne flowers on a common axis.
known as scutellum. 60. (b) Aril develops from outer seed coat
48. (a) Coconut water is the free nuclear endo- and is the edible part of litchi. An aril (or
sperm which is used.
 EBD_7325
70 BIOLOGY
arillus) is a fleshy covering of certain seeds 68. (d) The fruit is a mature or ripened ovary.
formed from the funiculus attachment point When a fruit develops exclusively from the
of the seed .The aril may create a fruit-like ovary, it is said to be true fruit. When in
structure called a false-fruit and is produced addition to the ovary, some other floral part
by a few species of gymnosperms, notably also participates in the formation of fruits,
the yews and related conifers in the families then it is known as false fruit. Apple, pear,
Taxaceae and Cephalotaxaceae. cashewnut, mulberry etc. are all false fruits.
61. (b) Mesocarp is the edible part of Mangifera 69. (b) Coir (Etymological origin: from Tamil
indica (Mango). and Malayalam - kayar - cord) is a coarse
62. (d) The juicy hair – like structures in the fibre extracted from the fibrous outer shell of
lemon fruit develop from the inner side of a coconut. Coir fibres are found between the
endocarp (from the placenta). husk and the outer shell of a coconut. The
63. (b) The aleurone layer in maize grain is individual fibre cells are narrow and hollow,
specially rich in proteins. with thick walls made of cellulose. They
Aleurone is a protein found in the are pale when immature but later become
endosperm of many seeds. It forms the hardened and yellowed as a layer of lignin is
outermost layer of the seed coat in some deposited on their walls.
grains. During seed germination, hydrolysis 70. (d) Vivipary germination is the characteris-
in the seed causes the aleurone cells to break tic mode of seed germination in Rhizophora
down into amino acids. Once triggered (Mangrove).
by hormones released from the embryo, 71. (b)
the aleurone synthesises enzymes in order 72. (b) Drupe is a fleshy one seeded, indehiscent
to break down the starchy endosperm fruit eg. Mangifera indica.
supplying sugars to drive the growth of 73. (b) Each pseudostem produces a single
roots and germination. Aleurones can bunch of bananas, before dying and are
have two different morphological features, replaced by a new pseudostem. The base of
homogenous and heterogenous. The the plant is a rhizome (known as a corm).
homogenous aleurone is consists of similar Corms are perennial, with a productive
protein bodies (e.g. Phaseolus vulgaris) while lifespan of 15 years or more . Cultivated
the heterogenous aleurone consists of bananas are parthenocarpic, which makes
different shape and type of proteins covered them sterile and unable to produce viable
with a membrane (e.g. Riccinus communis). seeds. Lacking seeds, another form of
64. (b) Banana (Musa paradisica) is a fleshly propagation is required. This involves
fruit with rich sugar content. Edible part is removing and transplanting part of the
fleshy mesocarp and rudimentary endocarp, underground stem (called a corm). Usually
develops from trilocular, inferior ovary. this is done by carefully removing a sucker
65. (d) In guava, mesocarp and endocarp form with some roots intact.
the edible part. In maize seed coat is fused 74. (d) Groundnut is economically important
with fruit wall. plant as edible oil is obtained from the
66. (b) Sunflower is a dicotyledonous plant. cotyledons. Peanuts are a rich source of
Hence its embryo has two cotyledons. Plants protein (roughly 30 grams per cup after
like maize are monocotyledonous and hence roasting) and monounsaturated fat. Recent
have a single cotyledon in the embryo. research on peanuts and nuts in general has
67. (b) Oryza sativa is rice. Ricinus communis is found anti-oxidants and other chemicals that
castor, a source of castor oil that acts as a may provide health benefits. Peanuts are a
purgative. Manihot is the scientific name significant source of resveratrol, a chemical
for tapioca, a tuber rich in starch. Hibiscus studied for potential anti-aging effects.
esculentus is okra (bhindi).
Morphology of Flowering Plants 71
75. (b) Normally endosperm formation is 85. (b) Floral formula of chilli is
accompanied by degeneration of nucellus. K C AG
Persistent nucellus is termed as perisperm. ⊕ + (5) (5) 5 (2)
The dust-like seeds of orchids 86. (a) The ovary is half-inferior in flowers of
have no endosperm. Orchid seedlings peach.
are mycoheterotrophic in their early 87. (d) Keel is the characteristic of the flowers
development. In some other species, such as of family papilionaceae. For example, bean,
coffee, the endosperm also does not develop. gram, pea etc.
Instead the nucellus produces a nutritive The flowers of this family have butterfly
tissue termed perisperm. shaped corolla. The outermost petals of
76. (a) Legume is a dehiscentdry fruit produced these flowers are the largest and is called
from a monocarpellary superior ovary. vexillum, the two largest petals are similar
Caryopsis is dry and one seeded fruit which and have wings and the two anterior petals
developed from a superior monocarpellary called keel are fused enclosing stamens and
ovary. In this the pericarp is closed and fused carpels.
with seed coat. It is the characteristics of 88. (c) The given floral formula is of tobacco.
family Poaceae. It belong to the family Solanaceae. The
77. (a) The Liliaceae are a huge variety, com- flower is actinomorphic, bisexual and has
prising about 280 genera and 4000 species of superior ovary. Soyabean and sunhemp
perennial herbs mostly. It includes starchy have monocarpellary pistil and tulip has
rhizomes, corms or bulbs, characterized by trimerous flower and perianth.
alternate leaves which are whorled. The flow- 89. (c) In sweet pea, the gynoecium is
ers are often showy, mostly bisexual and ac- monocarpellary and bears a single placenta
tinomorphic. Also, they exhibit tricarpellary along the junction of two fused margins, this
syncarpous gynoecium. Example of such a is called marginal placentation.
class is the Erythronium montanum, the alpine 90. (b) Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers,
fawn lily. bicarpillary ovary with oblique septa, fruit
78. (b) Floral formula of Petunia (solanaceae) is either capsule or berry are the characteristic
features of family solanaceae.
K(5) C(5) A5G(2) .
+ In brassicaceae – dimerous or
79. (a) Indigofera is a member of family fabaceae. tetramerous, actinomorphic but sometimes
It has keel type of floral structure in which zygomorphic flower, bicarpellary ovary with
two anterior fused petals are present. a false septum (called replum), fruit is siliqua
80. (a) Superior ovary is found in china rose, or silicula is present.
mustard brinjal, potato, onion and tulip. In Lilicaeae – Trimerous, actinomorphic
Guava and cucumber have inferior ovary. flower, tricarpillary, syncarpous ovary, fruit
81. (a) The flowers of cucumber are unisexual, is berry or capsula is present.
it means they have only male flowers or only In Asteraceae – Pentamerous,
female flowers. actinomorphic or zygomorphic flower,
82. (d) In china rose (Hibiscus rosa-sinensis) bicarpillary, syncarpous, unilocular ovary,
flowers are actinomorphic , hypogynous with fruit is cypsella is present.
twisted aestivation in corolla. 91. (d) In mustard, bicarpellary gynoecium
83. (a) This type of aestivation is seen in with oblique ovary is present.
fabaceae. Here, the posterior largest petal 92. (c) Tetradynamous stamens consist of
overlaps the petals that are lateral, which in four long-sized stamens and two short-
turn overlap the two anterior petals. sized stamens. Such kind of stamens are
84. (c) Onion - Bulb - Underground stems found in family Cruciferae e.g. Sarsoo.
-Imbricate aestivation -Axile placentation - Tetradynamous condition is characteristic
Member of Liliaceae. of this family.
 EBD_7325
72 BIOLOGY
93. (b) Malvaceae - Cotton is called syngenesious. It is found in family
94. (a) Pulses which are economically Asteraceae (Compositae). The condition is
important belong to the family Fabaceae. an adaptation for entomophily.
95. (d) Tomato and Tobacco both belong to 97. (d) Fabaceae.
the family Solanaceae. Solanaceae has 98. (c) Cauliflower has the scientific name
some identifying characteristics that include Brassica oleracea belonging to the variety
bicarpellary syncarpous superior ovary, axile botrytis.
plancentation, fruit is berry or capsule. 99. (b) Asteraceae possesses head or capitulum
96. (a) When stamens are united by their inflorescence which is racemose and is
anthers and filaments are free the condition surrounded by an involucre of bracts.
 6
Chapter

Anatomy of
Flowering Plants
Topic 1: Meristmatic Tissue/Simple 8. Function of companion cells is [2011M]
and Complex Tissue (a) providing energy to sieve elements for
active transport
1. Root hairs develop from the region of :
(b) providing water to phloem
(a) Elongation     [2017]
(c) loading of sucrose into sieve elements
(b) root cap
by passive transport
(c) Meristematic activity
(d) loading of sucrose into sieve elements
(d) Maturation
9. The chief water conducting elements of
2. Which of the following is made up of dead
xylem in gymnosperms are: [2010]
cells?  [2017]
(a) vessels (b) fibres
(a) Collenchyma
(c) transfusion tissue (d) tracheids
(b) Phellem
10. Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical
(c) Phloem
tissue and cuticle is characteristic of: [2009]
(d) Xylem parenchyma
(a) mesophytes (b) epiphytes
3. Transmission tissue is characteristic feature
(c) hydrophytes (d) xerophytes
of :  [2015 RS]
11. The length of different internodes in a culm
(a) Solid style (b) Dry stigma
of sugarcane is variable because of [2008]
(c) Wet stigma (d) Hollow style
(a) shoot apical meristem
4. In a ring girdled plant:  [2015 RS]
(b) position of axillary buds
(a) The root dies first
(c) size of leaf lamina at the node below
(b) The shoot and root die together
each internode
(c) Neither root nor shoot will die
(d) intercalary meristem
(d) The shoot dies first
12. Passage cells are thin walled cells found
5. Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements
in [2007]
in:  [2014]
(a) phloem elements that serve as entry
(a) having casparian strips
points for substance for transport ot
(b) being imperforate
other plant parts
(c) lacking nucleus
(b) testa of seeds to enable emergence of
(d) being lignified
growing embryonic axis during seed
6. Meristematic tissue responsible for increase
germination
in girth of tree trunk is  [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) central region of style through which
(a) Apical meristem
the pollen tube grows towards the ovary
(b) Intercalary meristem
(d) endodermis of roots facilitating rapid
(c) Lateral meristem
transport of water from cortex to
(d) Phellogen
pericycle.
7. Companion cells are closely associated with:
13. A common structural feature of vessel
[2012]
elements and sieve tube elements are [2006]
(a) Sieve elements (b) Vessel elements
(a) pores on lateral walls
(c) Trichomes (d) Guard cells
 EBD_7325
74 BIOLOGY
(b) presence of p-protein (b) intercalary meristem
(c) enucleate condition (c) apical meristem
(d) thick secondary walls (d) parenchyma
14. In a woody dicotyledonous tree, which of 21. Which of the following statements is true?
the following parts will mainly consist of [2002]
primary tissues? [2005] (a) Vessels are multicellular with narrow
(a) All parts lumen
(b) Stem and root (b) Tracheids are multicellular with narrow
(c) Flowers, fruits and leaves lumen
(d) Shoot tips and root tips (c) Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen
15. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting (d) Tracheids are unicellular with wide
from the tip upward, the four zones occur in lumen
the following order: [2004] 22. Loading of pholem is related to [2001]
(a) Root cap, cell division, cell enlargement, (a) increase of sugar in phloem
cell maturation (b) elongation of phloem cell
(b) Root cap, cell division, cell maturation, (c) separation of phloem parenchyma
cell enlargement (d) strengthening of phloem fibre
(c) Cell division, cell enlargement, cell 23. A leaf primordium grows into the adult leaf
maturation, root cap lamina by means of [1998]
(d) Cell division, cell maturation, cell (a) apical meristem
enlargement, root cap (b) lateral meristem
16. The cells of the quiescent centre are (c) marginal meristems
characterised by [2003] (d) at first by apical meristem and later
(a) dividing regularly to add to tunica largely by marginal meristems.
(b) having dense cytoplasm and prominent 24. At maturity which of the following is
nuclei enucleate? [1997]
(c) having light cytoplasm and small nuclei (a) Sieve cell (b) Companion cell
(d) dividing regularly to add to the corpus (c) Palisade cell (d) Cortical cell
25. What is not true about sclereids? [1996]
17. The apical meristem of the root is present
(a) These are parenchyma cells with
(a) in all the roots [2003]
thickened lignified walls
(b) only in radicals
(b) These are elongated and flexible with
(c) only in tap roots
tapered ends
(d) only in adventitious roots
(c) These are commonly found in the shells
18. Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the
of nuts and in the pulp of guava, pear,
(a) pollen tube of Pinus [2003]
etc
(b) cytoplasm of Chlorella
(d) These are also called the stone cells
(c) mycelium of a green mould such as
26. Bordered pits are found in [1993]
Aspergillus (a) Sieve cells (b) Vessel wall
(d) spore capsule of a moss (c) Companion cells (d) Sieve tube wall
19. Vessels are found in [2002] 27. Angular collenchyma occurs in [1991]
(a) all angiosperms and some gymnosperms (a) Cucurbita (b) Helianthus
(b) most of angiosperms and few (c) Althaea (d) Salvia
gymnosperms 28. An organised and differentiated cellular
(c) all angiosperms, all gymnosperms and structure having cytoplasm but no nucleus
some pteriodophyta is [1991]
(d) all pteridophyta (a) Vessels
20. Axillary bud and terminal bud are derived (b) Xylem parenchyma
from the activity of [2002] (c) Sieve tubes
(a) lateral meristem (d) Tracheids
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 75
29. Collenchyma occurs in [1990] (c) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose
(a) herbaceous climbers microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
(b) woody climbers (d) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
(c) climbing stems 37. Which of the following statements is not true
(d) water plants for stomatal apparatus?  [NEET Kar. 2013]
30. For union between stock and scion in grafting (a) Inner walls of guard cells are thick
which one is the first to occur?  [1990] (b) Guard cells invariably possess chloro-
(a) Formation of callus plasts and mitochondria
(b) Production of plasmodesmata (c) Guard cells are always surrounded by
(c) Differentiation of new vascular tissues subsidiary cells
(d) Regeneration of cortex and epidermis (d) Stomata are involved in gaseous ex-
31. Organisation of stem apex into corpus and change
tunica is determined mainly by [1989] 38. Ground tissue includes [2011]
(a) planes of cell division (a) all tissues external to endodermis
(b) regions of meristematic activity (b) all tissues except epidermis and vascular
(c) rate of cell growth bundles
(d) rate of shoot tip growth (c) epidermis and cortex
32. Sieve tubes are suited for translocation of (d) all tissues internal to endodermis
food because they possess [1989] 39. In land plants, the guard cells differ from
(a) bordered pits other epidermal cells in having : [2011]
(b) no ends walls (a) cytoskeleton
(c) broader lumen and perforated cross (b) mitochondria
walls (c) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) no protoplasm (d) chloroplasts
33. Tunica corpus theory is connected with 40. Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves of:
(a) root apex [1988] (a) mustard (b) soybean [2009]
(b) root cap (c) gram (d) sorghum
(c) shoot apex 41. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop
(d) secondary growth from: [2008]
34. Which meristem helps in increasing girth? (a) phellogen (b) plerome
(a) Lateral meristem [1988] (c) periblem (d) dermatogen
(b) Intercalary meristem 42. What happens during vascularization in
(c) Primary meristem plants? [2000]
(d) Apical meristem (a) Differentiation of procambium is im-
35. Which one yields fibres? [1988] mediately followed by the development
(a) Coconut (b) Oak of secondary xylem and phloem
(c) Teak (d) Sisso (b) Differentiation of procambium fol-
lowed by the development of xylem and
Topic 2: Tissue System
phloem
(Epidermis/Ground Vascular)
(c) Differentiation of procambium , xylem
36. Which of the following facilitates opening of and phloem is simultaneous
stomatal aperture?  [2017] (d) Differentiation of procambium followed
(a) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells by the development of primary phloem
(b) Radial orientation of cellulose micro- and then by primary xylem
fibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
 EBD_7325
76 BIOLOGY

Topic 3: Dicot/Monocot (Root/Stem/Leaf) (b) are capable of producing secondary

xylem and phloem
43. A major characteristic of the monocot root is (c) possess conjunctive tissue between
the presence of :  [2015 RS] xylem and phloem
(a) Scattered vascular bundles
(d) are not surrounded by pericycle
(b) Vasculature without cambium
51. Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root
(c) Cambium sandwiched between phloem
and xylem along the radius is distinguished from the dicotyledonous
(d) Open vascular bundles stem by [2009]
44. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are (a) absence of secondary phloem
considered closed because:  [2015 RS] (b) presence of cortex
(a) Cambium is absent (c) position of protoxylem
(b) There are no vessels with perforations (d) absence of secondary xylem
(c) Xylem is surrounded all around by 52. The annular and spirally thickened
phloem conducting elements generally develop in
(d) A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle
the protoxylem when the root or stem is:
45. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem
[2009]
and a dicot root. Which of the following
anatomical structures will you use to (a) elongating (b) widening
distinguish between the two? [2014] (c) differentiating (d) maturing
(a) Secondary xylem 53. In barley stem vascular bundles are: [2009]
(b) Secondary phloem (a) closed and scattered
(c) Protoxylem (b) open and in a ring
(d) Cortical cells (c) closed and radial
46. Closed vascular bundles lack [2012] (d) open and scattered
(a) Ground tissue (b) conjunctive tissue 54. Four radial vascular bundles are found in
(c) Cambium (d) Pith [2002]
47. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles (a) dicot root (b) monocot root
are found in :  [2012] (c) dicot stem (d) monocot stem
(a) Sunflower (b) Maize 55. Transition of radial vascular bundle in root
(c) Cycas (d) Pinus to conjoint vascular bundle in stem occurs
in which zone? [1999]
48. As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root
(a) Epicotyl (b) Hypocotyl
has [2012M]
(c) Meristem (d) At base of stem
(a) many xylem bundles.
56. Where do the casparian bands occur?
(b) relatively thicker periderm.
[1990, 94]
(c) inconspicuous annual rings.
(a) Epidermis (b) Endodermis
(d) more abundant secondary xylem.
(c) Pericycle (d) Phloem
49. Which one of the following is wrongly
57. Plant having column of vascular tissues
matched? [2011]
bearing fruits and having a tap root system
(a) Root pressure - Guttation
is  [1994]
(b) Puccinia - Smut
(a) monocot
(c) Root - Exarch protoxylem
(b) dicot
(d) Cassia - Imbricate aestivation
50. Some vascular bundles are described as open (c) gymnosperm of dicot
because these [2011M] (d) gymnosperm or monocot
(a) are surrounded by pericycle but not 58. A bicollateral vascular bundle is characterised
endodermis by [1992]
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 77
(a) Phloem being sandwiched between order of the components with reference to
xylem their arrangement from outer side to inner
(b) Transverse splitting of vascular bundle side in a woody dicot stem. [2015 RS]
(c) Longitudinal splitting of vascular (A) Secondary cortex
bundle (B) Wood
(d) Xylem being sandwiched between (C) Secondary phloem
phloem (D) Phellem
59. Monocot leaves possess [1990] The correct order is:
(a) intercalary meristem (a) (A), (B), (D), (C) (b) (D), (A), (C), (B)
(c) (D), (C), (A), (B) (d) (C), (D), (B), (A)
(b) lateral meristem
67. Age of a tree can be estimated by :
(c) apical meristem
(a) biomass   [NEET 2013]
(d) mass meristem
60. Collenchyma occurs in the stem and petioles (b) number of annual rings
of [1990] (c) diameter of its heartwood
(a) Xerophytes (b) Monocots (d) its height and girth
68. Lenticels are involved in :  [NEET 2013]
(c) Dicot herbs (d) Hydrophytes
(a) Gaseous exchange
61. Pericycle of roots produces [1990]
(b) Food transport
(a) mechanical support
(c) Photosynthesis
(b) lateral roots (d) Transpiration
(c) vascular bundles 69. Interfascicular cambium develops from the
(d) adventitious buds
cells of :  [NEET 2013]
62. What is true about a monocot leaf ? [1990]
(a) Xylem parenchyma
(a) Reticulate venation
(b) Endomermis
(b) Absence of bulliform cells from
(c) Pericycle
epidermis
(d) Medullary rays
(c) Mesophyll not differentiated into
70. The common bottle cork is a product of :
palisade and spongy tissues
[2012]
(d) Well differentiated mesophyll
(a) Dermatogen (b) Phellogen
63. Pith and cortex do not differentiate in [1988] (c) Xylem (d) Vascular Cambium
(a) monocot stem (b) dicot stem 71. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood
(c) monocot root (d) dicot root spermatophytes because they lack : [2012]
Topic 4: Secondary Growth (a) Cambium
64. The vascular cambium normally gives rise (b) Phloem fibres
to:  [2017] (c) Thick-walled tracheids
(a) Primary phloem (b) Secondary xylem (d) Xylem fibres
(c) Periderm (d) Phelloderm 72. The cork cambium, cork and secondary
65. Identify the wrong statement in context of cortex are collectively called: [2011]
heartwood:  [2017] (a) phelloderm’ (b) phellogen
(a) It is highly durable (c) periderm (d) phellem
(b) It conducts water and minerals efficiently 73. Which one of the following is not a lateral
(c) It comprises dead elements with highly meristem? [2010]
lignified walls (a) Intrafascicular cambium
(d) Organic compounds are deposited in it (b) Interfascicular cambium
66. Read the different components from (A) to (c) Phellogen
(D) in the list given below and tell the correct (d) Intercalary meristem
 EBD_7325
78 BIOLOGY
74. Heartwood differs from sapwood in: [2010] 83. Which exposed wood will decay faster?
(a) presence of rays and fibres (a) Sapwood [1993]
(b) absence of vessels and parenchyma (b) Softwood
(c) having dead and non-conducting (c) Wood with lot of fibres
elements (d) Heartwood
(d) being susceptible to pests and pathogens 84. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found
75. Which one of the following is resistant to between phloem/bark and wood of a dicot
enzyme action? [2008] is [1993]
(a) Cork (b) Wood fibre (a) Cork cambium
(c) Pollen exine (d) Leaf cuticle
(b) Vascular cambium
76. For a critical study of secondary growth in
(c) Endodermis
plants. Which one of the following pairs is
(d) Pericycle
suitable? [2007]
(a) teak and pine 85. Periderm is produced by [1993]
(b) deodar and fern (a) Vascular cambium
(c) wheat and maiden hair fern (b) Fascicular cambium
(d) sugarcane and sunflower. (c) Phellogen
77. Ectophloic siphonostele is found in [2004] (d) Intrafascicular cambium
(a) Osmunda and Equisetum 86. Vascular cambium produces [1990, 92]
(b) Marsilea and Botrychium (a) primary xylem and primary phloem
(c) Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae (b) secondary xylem and secondary
(d) Dicksonia and Maidenhair fern phloem
78. Main function of lenticel is [2002] (c) primary xylem and secondary phloem
(a) transpiration (b) guttation (d) secondary xylem and primary phloem
(c) gaseous exchange (d) bleeding 87. Commercial cork is obtained from [1991]
79. Which of the following meristems is (a) Berberis/Barberry (b) Salix/Willow
responsible for extrastelar secondary growth (c) Quercus/Oak (d) Betula/Birch
in dicotyledonous stem? [1998] 88. Cork cambium and vascular cambium
(a) Intrafascicular cambium are [1990, 95]
(b) Interfascicular cambium (a) parts of secondary xylem and phloem
(c) Intercalary meristem
(b) parts of pericycle
(d) Phellogen
(c) lateral meristems
80. Procambium forms [1994]
(d) apical meristems
(a) only primary vascular bundles
(b) only vascular cambium 89. Which is the correct fact about diffuse or
(c) only cork cambium ring porous wood? [1989]
(d) primary vascular bundles and vascular (a) Ring porous wood, carries more water
cambium for short period
81. As the secondary growth takes place (b) Diffuse porous wood carries more water
(proceeds) in a tree, thickness of [1994] (c) Ring porous wood carries more water
(a) heart wood increases when need is higher
(b) sap-wood increases (d) Diffuse porous wood is less specialised
(c) both increase but conducts water rapidly throughout
(d) both remain the same 90. Cork is formed from [1988]
82. Abnormal/anomalous secondary growth (a) cork cambium (phellogen)
occurs in [1993] (b) vascular cambium
(a) Dracaena (b) Ginger (c) phloem
(c) Wheat (d) Sunflower (d) xylem
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 79

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) In roots, the root hairs develops from The wall constituting the tracheids is hard,
zone of maturation. This zone is differentiated thick and lignified. These are elongated cells
zone thus bearing root hairs. with tapering ends.
2. (b) Cork cambium undergoes periclinal 10. (c) Reduction in vascular tissue, mechanical
division and cuts off thick walled suberised tissue and cuticle is characteristic of
dead cells towards outside i.e. phellem (cork) hydrophytes.
and it cuts off thin walled living cells i.e., 11. (d) The length of different internodes in
phelloderm on inner side. a culm of sugarcane is variable because of
3. (a) A solid style has transmission tissue intercalary meristem. Intercalary meristem
which has large intercellular spaces. It allows is not a part of apical meristem. It occurs in
growth of pollen tube in pistil. the internodes of grasses (sugarcane) between
4. (a) In a ring girdled plant, roots die first due leaf nodes and enables longitudinal growth of
to damage of phloem causing inhibition of the stem.
translocation of food. 12. (d) The innermost layer of the cortex is
5. (b) The walls of vessels (tracheary elements) called endodermis. It comprises a single
are lignified and less thicker than tracheids. layer of barrel shaped cells without any
The lumen is wider. Vessels differ from intercellular spaces. In roots thick walled
tracheids in having cell fusions arising endodermal cells are interrupted by thin
through the dissolution of end walls. walled passage cells or transfusion tissue.
6. (c) Lateral meristems are meristems which 13. (c) In plants, conducting tissue xylem has
occur parallel to the circumference of the an important integral cell as xylem vessel
organs in which they develop. They undergo which is enucleate. The phloem on other
periclinal divisions producing secondary hand has a row of sieve tubes which are also
tissues on the outer and inner sides and enucleate at maturity.
increase the girth of the plant organs. 14. (d) Primary Meristems : They are those
Examples are vascular cambium and cork- meristematic tissues which are dervied
cambium. directly from the meristems of the embryo
7. (a) Companion cells are narrow, elongated and retain their meristematic activity.
and thin walled living cells. They lie on They are present at root, shoot tip and leaf
the sides of the sieve tubes and are closely primordia.
associated with them through compound 15. (a) Root shows the following regions
plasmodesmata. It is supposed that the nuclei Root cap or calyptra - caplike protective
of the companion cells control the activities covering over tip of the root
of the sieve tube through plasmodesmata. Meristematic region is the subapical position
Companion cells also help in maintaining Zone of elongation - receives new cells from
a proper pressure gradient in the sieve tube the growing point
elements. Root hair zone - is the zone of differentiation
8. (d) Function of companion cell is to load Zone of mature cells - having thick walled
sugar and amino acids into sieve elements. impermeable cells.
These cells use transmembrane proteins for 16. (c) The cells of queiscent centre have lower
uptake by active transport. concentration of DNA, RNA and protein
9. (d) Tracheids are chief water conducting as compared to other cells in the root apex.
elements of xylem in gymnosperms. They These cells do not divide, hence cytoplasm
are devoid of protoplasm and hence dead. is light and nuclei are small in them. This
 EBD_7325
80 BIOLOGY
concept is based upon quiescent centre isodiametric, prosenchymatic, forked or
theory proposed by Clowes (1961). fantastically branched. The cell walls fill
17. (a) The apical meristem of the root is nearly all the cell’s volume. The shell of
present at all the root tips. Apical meristem many seeds like those of nuts as well as the
is subterminal in position of the growing stones of drupes like cherries or plums are
root tips and responsible for terminal growth made up from sclereid.
of the root in plants. 26. (b) The walls of xylem vessels are lignified
18. (d) Chlorenchyma cells are those and bordered pits are common in the walls
parenchymatous cell which contain 27. (a) Along with providing mechanical
chloroplast in them. They are capable of strength, collenchyma also provides flexibility
photosynthesis. A spore capsule of moss can to the organ and allows their bending
perform photosynthesis, thus chlorenchyma
eg. : Cucurbita.
are present in them.
19. (b) Generally gymnosperms do not 28. (c) Internally, sieve tubes possess peripheral
have vessels but a few gymnosperms with layer of cytoplasm and are devoid of nucleus.
vessels are Ephedra, Smilax etc. Most of They are living cells. Cell walls of sieve tubes
angiosperms have vessels except of few e.g., are thickened than surrounding parenchyma
Trochodendron. cells.
20. (c) Apical meristem is located at the apex of 29. (c) Collenchyma is abundant in climbing
stem, root and branches, and forms axillary stems providing mechanical strength.
and terminal bud. Intercalary meristems 30. (a) In grafting, union between stock and
take part in linear growth. Lateral meristem scion produces undifferentiated mass of
occurs parallel to the circumference of the cells called callus.
organs. They increase the girth of the plant. Grafting is a method of plant propagation
21. (d) Vessels are elongated, multicellular widely used in horticulture, where the
water conducting channels with wide tissues of one plant are encouraged to fuse
lumen formed by end to end fusion of a with those of another. It is most commonly
large number of vessel elements. Tracheids used for the propagation of trees and shrubs
are elongated dead cells with tapering ends grown commercially. Grafting is limited to
having lignified walls and large or wide dicots and gymnosperms. Monocots lack the
lumen. Their main function is conduction vascular cambium required.
of water and minerals from root to leaf. 31. (a) Cells of tunica divide anticlinally to
22. (a) Phloem is involved in transport of form the outer layer, cells of corpus undergo
organic food. According to mass flow division in different planes.
hypothesis organic substances flow in the 32. (c) Sieve tubes are elongated tubular
form of solution in sieve elements due to conducting channels of phloem. The end
development of an osmotically generated walls possess many small pores and have
pressure gradient. thin cellulosic wall. The lumen is broad in
23. (d) A leaf primordium grows into the adult nature.
leaf lamina by means of apical meristem 33. (c) The shoot apex or stem apical meristem
first and later marginal meristems. has two zones, outer tunica and inner corpus.
24. (a) At maturity all physiological functions This theory was given by Schmidt 1924.
of sieve tube takes place in companion cell, 34. (a) Lateral meristems occur on the sides of
since the sieve tube elements lose their stem and help in increasing girth of stem and
nucleus at maturity. root. It divides only periclinally or radially
25. (a) Sclereids are small bundles of and is responsible for increase in girth or
sclerenchyma tissue in plants that form diameter.
durable layers, such as the cores of apples 35. (a) Commercial fibres are obtained from
and the gritty texture of pears. Sclereids Cocos nucifera (coconut) also called surface
are variable in shape. The cells can be fibres and occur on surface of seeds.
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 81
36. (b) Cellulose microfibrils are arranged 45. (c) Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous
radially rather than longitudinally which root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous
makes easy for the stomata to open. stem by position of the protoxylem. In dicot
37. (c) Sometimes, a few epidermal cells in the root, the protoxylem is located near the
vicinity of the guard cells become specialised periphery of the vascular cylinder while in
in their shape and size and are known as dicot stem the protoxylem is located near
subsidiary cells or accessory cells. the centre of vascular bundle i.e., the xylem
38. (b) Ground tissue includes all tissues except is endarch.
epidermis and vascular bundles. The ground 46. (c) In closed vascular bundle cambium is
tissue comprises the bulk of the primary absent between xylem and phloem.
plant body. Parenchyma, collenchyma 47. (b) Stem of maize has water containing
and sclerenchyma cells are common in the cavities in vascular bundles.
ground tissue. 48. (a) The vascular bundles are arranged in
39. (d) Guard cells differ from epidermal cells a loose circle inside the endodermis of a
in having chloroplast. The cell wall of guard monocot root. In a monocot root, more than
cells are not uniform, inner walls are thicker six vascular bundles are present. It shows
than the outer walls, epidermal cells are polyarch condition.
uniformly thin. 49. (b) Smut is a disease of cereals, corn,
40. (d) Palisade parenchyma is absent in leaves grasses and sorghum caused by many species
of sorghum. It is a leaf tissue composed of fungi.
of columnar cells containing numerous 50. (b) Open vascular bundles means presence
chloroplasts in which the long axis of each of cambium during secondary growth.
cell is perpendicular to the leaf surface. Vascular cambium divides to form secondary
The palisade parenchyma is usually directly xylem towards inner side while secondary
beneath the epidermis of the upper surface phloem towards outside.
of the leaf. The cells of the palisade 51. (c) Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous
parenchyma are cylindrical. Neighbouring root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous
cells look like the stakes of a palisade. Cells stem by position of protoxylem. In dicot root
of the palisade parenchyma contain three to the protoxylem is located near the periphery
five times as many chloroplasts as those of of the vascular cylinder while in dicot stem
the spongy parenchyma. The chloroplasts the protoxylem is located near the centre of
are usually present near the cell wall, since vascular bundle i.e. the xylem is endarch.
this adjustment guarantees optimal use of 52. (d) The annular and spirally thickened
light. conducting elements generally develop in
41. (b) Vascular tissues in flowering plants the protoxylem when the root or stem is
develop from plerome. Plerome is a central maturing.
core of primary meristem which gives rise 53. (a) In barley stem, vascular bundles are
to all cells of the stele from the pericycle closed and scattered. They are open only for
inward. a hours in the day time and never open at
42. (b) Vascularization of plant means the night. e.g Cereals.
development of vascular bundle in the plant, 54. (a) When xylem and phloem strands are
which develops from the cambium. present at different radii the vascular bundles
43. (b) Monocot root shows radial and closed are radial and 4 radial vascular bundles
vascular bundle (xylem & phloem). (tetrach condition) are present in dicot root.
44. (a) Vascular bundles in monocotyledons This is called tetrach conditions.
are considered closed due to absence of 55. (b) Transition of radial vascular bundle
cambium. in root to conjoint vascular bundle in
stem occurs in transition zone which is
 EBD_7325
82 BIOLOGY
generally hypocotyl. Hypocotyl is the It permits the exchange of gases between the
part of embryonal axis below the level of outer atmosphere and the internal tissue of
cotyledons. the stem.
56. (b) Endodermis or innermost layer of 69. (d) At the time of secondary growth inter-
cortex has casparian strips in roots. It fascicular cambium is formed by parenchy-
is called starch sheath in dicot stems. It matous medullary rays.
separates cortex from stele. The cell walls Interfascicular cambium along with intra-
are thickened at the corners in angular
fascicular cambium (formed from cambium
collenchyma.
cells present between xylem and phloem)
57. (b) Dicots prossess tap root system
58. (d) Bicollateral vascular bundles have constitute continuous cambium ring. If new
phloem in both outer and inner side of cells are cut off in both directions it causes
xylem. These type of bundles occur in secondary growth in most dicotyledonous
cucurbitaceae. plants.
59. (a) Intercalary meristems are derived 70. (b) The common bottle cork is the product
from apical meristems and separated from of phellogen. Phellogen produces cork or
the same by permanent cells. They are phellem on the outer side. It consists of dead
responsible for localised growth.
and compactly arranged rectangular cells that
60. (c) Collenchyma provides mechanical
possess suberised cell walls. The cork cells
strength to young dicot stems, petioles and
leaves. contain tannins. Hence, they appear brown
61. (b) Pericycle in roots is active in the or dark brown in colour. The cork cells of
formation of root branches or lateral roots. some plants are filled with air e.g., Quercus
62. (c) In monocot leaves, the mesophyll cells suber (Cork Oak or Bottle Cork).
are undifferentiated. 71. (d) Xylem fibres provide rigidity to the plant.
63. (a) The ground tissue in monocot stem do 72. (c) Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm are
not show distinction into cortex, endodermis, collectively called periderm.
pericycle, pith and pith rays.
73. (d) Meristem is divided on the basis of
64. (b) During secondary growth in plants
position in plant bodies into apical meristem,
vascular cambium gives rise to secondary
xylem and secondary phloem. Phelloderm lateral meristem and intercalary meristem.
is formed by cork cambium. Periderm is Lateral meristem is present on the lateral
the corky outer layer formed in secondary sides, that is fascicular and interfascicular
thickening. cambium and cork cambium (phellogen).
65. (b) Heartwood is inactive physiologically 74. (c) Heartwood differs from sapwood in
due to deposition of organic compounds and having dead and non-conducting elements.
formation of tyloses so it will not conduct In old trees, the inner region that comprises
water and minerals.
dead elements with highly lignified walls
66. (b) The correct sequence from outerside to
inner side in a woody dicot stem is as follows: is called heartwood. Heartwood does not
Phellem → Secondar y cor tex → conduct water but gives mechanical support
Secondary phloem → Wood , [(d) → (a) → to the stem. On the other hand, the peripheral
(c) → (b)] region, which is lighter in colour is called
67. (b) Age of a tree can be estimated by number sapwood. It is involved in the conduction of
of annual rings. Annual ring constitute water and minerals from root to leaf.
alternate concentric rings of spring wood and 75. (c) Pollen exine is resistant to enzyme
autumn wood.
action. The hard outer layer called the exine
68. (a) Lenticels are lens shaped openings
is made up of sporopollenin which is one of
occuring in stems of most of the woody trees.
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 83
the most resistant organic material known. It 82. (a) Abnormal secondary growth occurs in
can withstand high temperatures and strong some arborescent monocots (eg. : Dracaena,
acids and alkali. No enzymes that degrade Yucca)
sporopollenin are so far known. 83. (a) Sapwood is less durable because it
76. (a) Teak and pine are most suitable for the is susceptible to attack by pathogen and
study of critical secondary growth because insects. It is physiologically active and
in secondary growth, secondary tissues are conduction of water takes place through it.
Heartwood is not attacked by pathogens and
formed from lateral meristem which is well
insects as it is physiologically inactive. It is
developed in these two cases and secondary
filled with tannins, resins and gums which
growth occurs in gymnosperms and dicots.
are not preferred by insects and pathogens.
77. (a) The central pith is surrounded by 84. (b) Vascular cambium is produced by
xylem, phloem, pericycle and endodermis . two types of meristems, fascicular and
The phloem occurs only outside the xylem interfascicular cambium.
e.g Equisetum, Osmunda. 85. (c) Secondary ground tissue or periderm
is formed from phellogen or cork cambium.
The phellogen forms phellem on the outer
Xylem face and phelloderm on the inner. The
pith three layers i.e., phellem, phellogen and
Phlorm
phelloderm jointly constitute the periderm.
Endoderm 86. (b) Vascular cambium produces secondary
xylem on the inner side and secondary
78. (a) Lenticels are pores present in woody phloem to the outer side.
stem through which transpiration or loss of 87. (c) Quercus suber (cork oak or bottle cork)
water vapour takes place. Lenticel formation possess cork cells. Cork cells are dead,
suberized and impervious to water and air,
begins during the development of the first
compactly arranged with no intercellular
periderm. In the stem, they usually appear
spaces.
below a stoma or group of stomata. It should
88. (c) Cork cambium and vascular cambium
also be noted that lenticels can be present on
are responsible for secondary growth which
fruits such as apples and pears. increases the girth of the stem.
79. (d) Intrafascicular cambium occurs inside 89. (c) Ring porous wood is more advanced
the vascular bundles in between xylem than diffuse porous wood as it provides for
and phloem. Interfascicular cambium better translocation when requirement of
develops in the form of strips at the level of plant is high.
intrafascicular cambium of vascular bundles. 90. (a) Phellogen present in outer cortical
Intercalary meristem lie in between areas of cells produce cork or phellem on the outer
permanent tissues. side which consists of dead and compactly
80. (a) Procambium is the derivative of shoot arranged rectangular cells that possess
apical meristem and forms vascular strand. suberised cell walls which causes them to
81. (a) Heartwood is the central wood of become buoyant. Phellogen also cuts off
mature dicot stem and is the nonfunctional cells on innerside called as phelloderm or
part of secondary xylem. secondary cortex.
 EBD_7325
7
Chapter

Structural Organisation
in Animals
Topic 1: Tissue/Epithelial Tissue (b) cemented directly to one another to
form a single layer
1. Choose the correctly matched pair: [2014]
(c) continuously dividing to provide form
(a) Inner lining of salivary ducts – Ciliated to an organ
epithelim
(d) loosely connected to one another to
(b) Moist surface of buccal cavity – form an irregular organ
Glandular epithelium
7. Stratum germinativum is an example of
(c) Tubular parts of nephrons – Cuboidal which kind of epithelium? [1997]
epithelium
(a) Cuboidal (b) Ciliated
(d) Inner surface of bronchioles – Squamous (c) Columnar (d) Squamous
epithelium
8. Basement membrane is made up of [1997]
2. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in (a) epidermal cells only
humans are known to occur in : [2011]
(b) endodermal cells only
(a) eustachian tube and stomach lining (c) both epidermal and endodermal cells
(b) bronchioles and fallopian tubes (d) no cell at all, but is a product of epithelial
(c) bile duct and oesophagus cells
(d) fallopian tubes and urethra 9. Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells appearing
3. The kind of epithelium which forms the like packed tiles occurs on [1994]
inner walls of blood vessels is : [2010] (a) inner lining of cheek
(b) inner lining of stomach
(a) cuboidal epithelium
(c) inner lining of fallopian tubes
(b) columnar epithelium
(d) inner lining of ovary
(c) ciliated columnar epithelium 10. The layer of actively dividing cells of skin is
(d) squamous epithelium termed as [1993]
4. The epithelial tissue present on the inner (a) stratum compactum
surface of bronchioles and fallopian tube is: (b) stratum corneum
(a) glandular (b) ciliated [2009] (c) stratum malpighii/stratum
(c) squamous (d) cuboidal germinativum
5. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and (d) stratum lucidum
gap junctions are found in [2009] 11. Hair present in the skin are  [1993]
(a) connective tissue (b) epithelial tissue (a) epidermal in origin and made of dead
(c) neural tissue (d) muscular tissue cells
6. Simple epithelium is a tissue in which the (b) epidermal in origin and made of living
cells are [2000] cells
(a) hardened and provide support to the (c) dermal in origin and made of living cells
organs (d) dermal in origin and made of dead cells
Structural Organisation in Animals 85

Topic 2: Connective Tissue 17. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive
structure in our pinna (external ears) is also
12. Which type of tissue correctly matches with found in: [2009]
its location ? [2016] (a) nails (b) ear ossicles
Tissue Location (c) tip of the nose (d) vertebrae
(a) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine 18. In which one of the following preparations
(b) Areolar tissue Tendons are your likely to come across cell junctions
(c) Transitional epithelium Tip nose most frequently ? [2007]
(d) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of
(a) Thrombocytes
stomach
(b) Tendon
13. Choose the correctly matched pair: [2014]
(c) Hyaline cartilage
(a) Tendon–Specialized connective tissue
(d) Ciliated epithelium.
(b) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue
19. Areolar connective tissue joins [2006]
(c) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue
(a) integument with muscles
(d) Cartilage–Loose connective tissue
(b) bones with muscles
14. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a
certain type of connective tissue. Identify the (c) bones with bones
parts labeled A, B, C and D, and select the (d) fat body with muscles
correct answer from the given option. 20. Mast cells secrete [2006]
[2012M] (a) myoglobin (b) histamine
(c) hemoglobin (d) hippurin
21. Which cartilage is present at the end of long
bones? [2002]
(a) Calcified cartilage
Part-A Part-B Part-C Part - D (b) Hyaline cartilage
(a) Macro- Fibro- Collagen Mast cells (c) Elastic cartilage
phage blast fibres (d) Fibrous cartilage
(b) Mast Macro- Fibroblast Collagen 22. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged
cell phage fibres and for its recovery which cartilage is
(c) Macro- Collagen Fibroblast Mast cell preferred? [2001]
phage fibres (a) Hyaline cartilage (b) Elastic cartilage
(d) Mast Collagen Fibroblast Macrophage
(c) Calcified cartilage (d) Fibrous cartilage
cell fibres 23. The polysaccharide present in the matrix of
15. The supportive skeletal structures in the cartilage is known as [2000]
human external ears and in the nose tip are (a) cartilagin (b) ossein
examples of [2012M] (c) chondriotin (d) casein
(a) ligament (b) areolar tissue 24. Protein present in the matrix of cartilage is
(c) bone (d) cartilage known as [1997]
16. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to (a) chondrin (b) casein
the category of: [2011M] (c) cartilagin (d) ossein
(a) smooth muscle tissue 25. Formation of cartilage bones involves [1993]
(b) squamous epithelium (a) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts
and resorption chondroblasts
(c) columnar epithelium
(b) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts
(d) connective tissue
and resorption by chondroblasts
 EBD_7325
86 BIOLOGY
(c) deposition of bony matter by osteoclasts
only
(d) deposition of bony matter by osteoblasts (3) (4)
only
26. Blood capillary consists of [1993]
(a) endothelium only
Tissue Location Function
(b) endothelium and thin coat of connective
tissue (a) (2) Glandular Intestine Secretion
(c) endothelium and thin coat of muscle epithelium
fibres
(d) endothelium and thin coat of connective (b) (3) Collagen Cartilage Attach
tissue plus muscle fibres fibres skeletal
27. Histamine secreting cells are found in [1989] muscles to
(a) connective tissues bones
(b) lungs
(c) (4) Smooth Heart Heart
(c) muscular tissue muscle contraction
(d) nervous tissue tissue
Topic 3: Muscular Tissue
(d) (1) Columnar Nephron Secretion
28. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and epithelium and
match with its characteristcs and its location absorption
[NEET Kar. 2013]
30. The type of muscles present in our : [2011M]
(a) heart are involuntary and unstriated
smooth muscles
(b) intestine are striated and involuntary
(c) thigh are striated and voluntary
(a) Skeletal muscle, shows striations and (d) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres
closely attached with the bones of the
fusiform in shape
limbs
(b) Smooth muscles, show branching, found 31. Which one of the following is correct pairing
in the walls of the heart of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue
(c) Cardiac muscles, unbranched muscles, that moves it ? [2009]
found in the walls of the heart (a) Biceps of upper arm–Smooth muscle
(d) Striated muscles, tapering at both-ends, fibres
attached with the bones of the ribs
(b) Abdominal wall–Smooth muscle
29. The four sketches (1, 2, 3 and 4) given below,
(c) Iris–Involuntary smooth muscle
represent four different types of animal
(d) Heart wall–Involuntary unstriated
tissues. Which one of these is correctly
muscle
identified in the options given, along with its
correct location and function? [2012M] 32. Which of the following is not exclusively
supplied with involuntary muscles ? [1998]
(a) Muscular coats of blood vessels
(b) Muscles of the ducts of glands
(1) (2)
(c) Muscles of iris
(d) Muscles of urethra
Structural Organisation in Animals 87

Topic 4: Neural Tissue (b) Arthrodial membrane

(c) Cartilage
33. Which one of the following contains the
(d) Cementing glue
largest quantity of extracellular material?
39. What external changes are visible after the last
(a) Myelinated nerve fibres [2003]
moult of a cockroach nymph? [NEET 2013]
(b) Striated muscle (a) Anal cerci develop
(c) Areolar tissue (b) Both fore wings and hind wings develop
(d) Stratified epithelium (c) Labium develops
34. Which cells do not form layer and remain (d) Mandibles become harder
structurally separate? [2001] 40. Select the correct option with respect to
(a) Epithelial cells (b) Muscle cells cockroaches  [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) Nerve cells (d) Gland cells (a) The fore wings are tegmina which are
Topic 5: Cockroach/Earthworm/Frog used in flight
(b) Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous
35. Frog’s heart when taken out of the body wastes into urea
continues to beat for sometime. [2017]
(c) Males bear short anal styles not present
Select the best option from the following in females
statements. (d) Nervous system comprises of a dorsal
(A) Frog is a poikilotherm. nerve cord and ten pairs of ganglion
(B) Frog does not have any coronar y 41. Compared to those of humans, the
circulation. erythrocytes in frog are  [2012]
(C) Heart is “myogenic” in nature. (a) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin
(D) Heart is autoexcitable (b) nucleated and with haemoglobin
Options: (c) very much smaller and fewer
(a) Only (D) (b) (A) and (B) (d) nucleated and without haemoglobin.
(c) (C) and (D) (d) Only (C) 42. Select the correct statement from the ones
36. Which of the following features is not present given below with respect to Periplaneta
in Periplaneta americana ? [2016] americana.  [2012]
(a) Schizocoelom as body cavity (a) Nervous system located dorsally, consists
(b) Indeterminate and radial cleavage of segmentally arranged ganglia joined
during embryonic development by a pair of longitudinal connectives.
(c) Exoskeleton composed of (b) Males bear a pair of short thread like
N-acetylglucos-amine anal styles.
(d) Metamerically segmented body (c) There are 16 very long Malpighian
37. The body cells in cockroach discharge their tubules present at the junctions of
nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly midgut and hindgut.
in the form of : [2015 RS] (d) Grinding of food is carried out only by
(a) Potassium urate the mouth parts.
(b) Urea 43. One very special feature in the earthworm
(c) Calcium carbonate Pheretima is that [2011]
(d) Ammonia (a) fertilisation for eggs occurs inside the
38. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body body
are joined by : [2015 RS] (b) the typhlosole greatly increases the
(a) Muscular tissue effective absorption area of the digested
food in the intestine
 EBD_7325
88 BIOLOGY
(c) the S-shaped setae embedded in the (a) coelomic fluid (b) haemolymph
integument are the defensive weapons (c) slimy mucus (d) excretory fluid
used against the enemies 48. Which one of the following correctly
(d) it has a long dorsal tubular heart describes the location of some body parts in
44. Which of the following is correctly stated as the earthworm Pheretima ? [2009]
it happens in the common cockroach ?[2011] (a) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 - 7
(a) Malpighian tubules are excretory segments.
organs projecting out from the colon (b) One pair of ovaries attached at
(b) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th
in blood segments.
(c) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th
(c) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
segments.
(d) The food is ground by mandibles and
(d) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16 - 18
gizzard
segments.
45. Consider the following four statements
49. Earthworms have no skeleton but during
(A-D) related to the common frog Rana
burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid
tigrina, and select the correct option stating
and acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due
which ones are true (T) and which ones are
to [2008]
false (F)
(a) coelomic fluid (b) blood
Statements : [2011M]
(c) gut peristalsis (d) setae
(a) On dry land it would die due to lack of 50. A piece of bone such as femur of frog if kept
O2 its mouth is forcibly kept closed for in dilute HCl for about a week will [2000]
a few days
(a) assume black colour
(b) It has four- chambered heart (b) shrink in size
(c) On dry land it turns uricotelic from (c) turn flexible
ureotelic (d) crack into pieces
(d) Its life-history is carried out in pond 51. A. Periplaneta americana is nocturnal,
water omnivorous, household pest. [1992]
Options: R. It is because it acts as scavenger
(A) (B) (C) (D) (a) A is true but R is false
(a) T F F T (b) A is false but R is true
(b) T T F F (c) Both A and R are true and R is correct
(c) F F T T explanation of A
(d) F T T F (d) Both A and R are true but R is not
46. Which one of the following structures in correct explanation of A
Pheretima is correctly matched with its 52. Earthworm possesses hearts [1991]
function? [2011M] (a) 6 pairs (b) 4 pairs
(a) Clitellum - secretes cocoon (c) 2 pairs (d) 1
53. Male and female cockroaches can be
(b) Gizzard - absorbs digested food
distinguished externally through [1991]
(c) Setae- defence against predators
(a) anal styles in male
(d) Typhlosole - storage of extra nutrients
(b) anal cerci in female
47. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle (c) anal style and antennae in females
on it outer surface without damaging its gut,
(d) both b and c
the fluid that comes out is : [2009]
Structural Organisation in Animals 89

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) (i) Inner lining of salivary ducts - of which rest over a noncellular basement
Compound epithelum membrane.
(ii) Moist surface of buccal cavity - 7. (c) The simple cuboidal epithelium consists
Compound epithelium of a single layer of polygonal cells which
(iii) Tubular parts of nephorns - appear cuboidal in vertical section. Cuboidal
Cuboidal epithelium. epithelium occurs in terminal respiratory
(iv) Inner surface of bronchioles – bronchioles. Columnar epithelium is made
Ciliated epithelium. of tall cylindrical cells and it occurs in the
2. (b) Ciliated epithelium is usually found in lining of stomach. In ciliated epithelium,
the respiratory tract of fallopian tubes. the cells bear cilia on their free surface and it
3. (d) Squamous epithelium is formed of thin occurs in the respiratory tract.
discoidal and polygonal cells that fit like 8. (d) Basement membrane is a delicate
tiles in a floor, so is also called pavement noncellular layer made of extracellular
epithelium. It is found in the walls of blood material that lies below the epithelium in
vessels, in the alveoli of lung for exchange contact with its basal surface. Basement
of gas, and in Bowman’s capsule of nephron membrane is a delicate noncellular layer
for ultra filtration. made of extracellular material that lies
4. (b) Ciliated epithelium has simple below the epithelium in contact with its
columnar epithelial cells, but in addition, basal surface. Besides this the basal lamina
they posses fine hair-like outgrowths, cilia consists of mucopoly saccharides and very
on their free surfaces. These cilia are capable fine fibres.
of rapid, rhythmic, wavelike beatings in 9. (a) Squamous epithelial cells have the
a certain direction. This movement of appearance of thin, flat plates. The shape
the cilia in a certain direction causes the of the nucleus usually corresponds to the
mucus, which is secreted by the goblet cells, cell form and helps to identify the type of
to move (flow or stream) in that direction. epithelium. Squamous cells, for example,
Ciliated epithelium is usually found in the tend to have horizontal flattened, elliptical
air passages like the nose. It is also found in nuclei because of the thin flattened form
the uterus and fallopian tubes of females. of the cell. They form the lining of cavities
The movement of the cilia propel the ovum such as the mouth, blood vessels, heart and
to the uterus. lungs and make up the outer layers of the
5. (b) The cell junctions known as tight, skin.
adhering and gap junctions are found in 10. (c) It is the innermost one celled thick
epithelial tissue. Epithelial tissue covers the layer made up of columnar epithelial cells.
whole surface of the body. It is made up It lies on a basement. These cells are active
of cells closely packed and ranged in one & continuously produce new cells by mitotic
or more layers. This tissue is specialised to division and is thus called germinative layer
form the covering or lining of all internal or stratum germinativum. The division rate
and external body surfaces. Epithelial tissue of these cells is highest during sleep or rest
that occurs on surfaces of the interior of the and lowest during muscular activity & stress.
body is known as endothelium. 11. (a) Each hair is present in a tubular pit
6. (b) Simple epithelium is a tissue made of a called hair follicle. Living cells are only
single layer of compactly arranged cells all present at the base of hair known as hair
 EBD_7325
90 BIOLOGY
papilla, rest of the hair is dead and divisible the inflammation site. Mast cell release
into outer cuticle, middle cortex & inner histamine which increases the permeability
medulla. of blood vessels at the site of inflammation
12. (a) Wall of intestine is made of smooth so that more blood supply takes place. The
muscle. Tendons consist of dense regular site gets warm and red due to this.
connective tissue fascicles encased in dense 21. (b) Hyaline cartilage is present at the end
irregular connective tissue sheaths. Tip of long articular bones. It provides a smooth
of nose consists of squamous epithelium. articular surface to permit movement at
Lining of epithelium is made of columnar joints. Elastic cartilage is found where
epithelium. support with flexibility is needed such as in
13. (c) Tendon is dense regular connective tissue. external ears.
Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective Fibro cartilage is a very tough substance and
tissue located mainly beneath the cells. is used in places of the body where shock
Cartilage is a type of specialised connetive absorbers are needed.
tissue. Examples – Discs between vertebrate and in
14. (a) Connective tissue is the most diverse the knee joints.
of the four tissue types with a wide variety 22. (a) Hyaline cartilage is firm but slightly
of functions. Connective tissue is made up elastic with clear matrix. It is present in
of cells and fibers in a “jelly-like” ground larynx, trachea, bronchi, nose. Elastic
substance. cartilage occurs in external ear. Calcified
15. (d) Cartilage is a type of connective tissue cartilage occurs in suprascapula. Fibrous
which is present in external ears and in the cartilage occurs in intervertebral discs.
nose tip of humans. 23. (c) The chief component of ground
16. (b) The lining of a blood vessel is with substance of cartilage is chondromuco
simple squamous epithelium. Inner most protein which is formed of chondriotin
lining of blood vessels is called endothelium. sulphate, keratin sulphate and
“Squamous” refers to the fact that the cells hyaluronic acid.
are flat. 24. (a) Chondrin is a gelatin-like substance
17. (c) The kind of tissue that forms the and can be obtained by boiling cartilage in
supportive structure in our pinna (external water. The cartilage is a connective tissue
ears) is also found in tip of the nose. External that contains cells embedded in a matrix of
pinna is made up of elastic cartilage. It is the chondrin.
passage towards middle ear. 25. (a) Deposition of bony matter by
18. (d) It is ciliated epithelium which bears osteoblasts and resorption chondroblasts.
numerous delicate hair like outgrowths, the 26. (a) The wall of blood vessels (arteries
cilia, arising from basal granules. The cilia & veins) are made up of mainly 3 layers –
remains in rhythmic motion and creates the outer most tunica externa has a loose
current to transport the materials which connective tissue, collagen fibres, lymph
comes in contact with them. vessels and the middle tunica media has
19. (a) Areolar connective tissue has rich circular smooth muscle fibres, some elastic
supply of nerve fibres and blood vessels. It fibres and the inner most tunica interna is
joins skin epithelia with muscles, nerves & a single layered endothelium of polyhedral
blood vessels. Binding of body parts together squamous cells. If the arteries reach organs
is the main function of areolar connective they form arterioles which are thinner and
tissue. mainly consist smooth muscles and when
20. (b) At the site of infection, the infectious they subdivide in the tissues they make
organisms release some chemical to capillaries. The wall of capillaries are very
increase the flow of mast cells towards thin (usually less than one micron) and
Structural Organisation in Animals 91
have numerous minute pores and made up 34. (c) Only nerve cells do not form layers.
of only endothelium. Exchange of material These also remain structurally separate
takes place between blood and tissue from each other. Nerve cells or neurons
fluid across the endothelial membrane of are the cells specialized to conduct an
capillaries through active diffusion. electrochemical current. Nerve tissue is
27. (a) In connective tissues, histamine is an made up of these cells and supporting cells.
organic nitrogen compound involved in Epithelial tissue is made of one or a few
local immune responses and regulating layers of compactly arranged cells overlying
physiological function in the gut and it a basement membrane. Glands are epithelial
acts as a neurotransmitter. Histamine is cells specialized to elaborate and release
produced by basophils and mast cells found chemicals for use in the body. Muscle tissue
in nearby connective tissues. is made of elongated and contractile cells
28. (a) Skeletal muscle tissue is closely called myocytes.
attached to sketetal bones. In a typical 35. (c) The vertebrates process myogenic heart
muscle such as the biceps, striated (striped) which is self contractile system or autoexcit-
skeletal muscle fibres are bundled together able; it will thus keep working outside the
in a parallel fashion. body for some time.
36. (b) Periplanata americana shows spiral
29. (a) Glandular epithelium invaginates
and determinate types of cleavage during
epithelia into connective tissue which
embryonic development which is a feature
differentiate into secretory units. Examples
of Protostomes.
include sebaceous glands of the skin and
37. (a) The body cells in cockroach discharge
glands in the intestinal lining (exocrine
their nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph
glands), and many endocrine glands
as a solution of sodium or potassium urate (a
releasing hormones, such as the thyroid
weak alkaline fluid).
follicle.
38. (b) Between the various sclerite, a flexible
30. (c) Thigh muscles are skeletal muscles that
membrane exists which is known as arthrodial
are striated and voluntary. membrane.
31. (b) The structure of the abdominal wall 39. (b) The development of cockroach is
is similar in principle to the thoracic wall. paurometabolous meaning that their
There are three layers, an external, internal development is through nymphal stage. The
and innermost layer. The vessels and nerves nymphs look very much like adults. The
lie between the internal and innermost layers. nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to
The abdomen can be divided into quadrants reach adult form. The last nymphal stage has
or nine abdominal regions. wingpads while adult cockroaches have wings.
32. (d) Voluntary muscles - under control of 40. (c) In cockroaches, males bear a pair of
our will. Involuntary muscles - Not under short, thread like anal styles which are
the control of our will. Muscles of urethra absent in females.
also remain under voluntary control after
41. (b) The erythrocytes or RBCs in frog are
infancy.
large, oval and biconvex nucleated cells with
33. (c) Areolar tissue is the least specialized respiratory red pigment haemoglobin in its
connective tissue. It has a large amount of cytoplasm.
ground substance (extracellular material)
42. (b) The anal styles in males cockroaches
and possesses rich blood and nerve supplies.
help in copulation.
It spreads extensively throughout the body,
43. (b) The intestine of an earthworm has a
under the skin and epithelia, in between and
peculiar fold of tissue that forms a pocket
around muscles, nerves and blood vessels
in the intestine that is visible when viewing
and in the submucosa of respiratory and
a cross section. This space, which runs
gastrointestinal tract.
almost the whole length of the body dorsally
 EBD_7325
92 BIOLOGY
is known as the typhlosole and it serves to 49. (a) Earthworms have no skeleton but
increase the surface area of the intestine for during burrowing, anterior end becomes
absorption. turgid and acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is
44. (d) Cockroach intake the food after due to coelomic fluid. The coelom is filled
grounding it by its mandibles and gizzard. with an alkaline milky coelomic fluid. This
45. (a) (A) Dry skin causes ceased cutaneous coelomic fluid contains water, salts, proteins
respiration and 4 types of cells namely amoebocytes,
(B) Three chambered heart. mucocytes, circular cells and chloragogen
(C) Frog never becomes uricotelic cells.
(D) External fertilization occurs in water 50. (c) When a bone is kept in dilute acids
46. (a) Clitellum - secretes cocoon during like HCl for a few days, the Ca2+ salts get
breading season of earthworm. Gizzard is
dissolved leaving only the soft and flexible
used for- grinding of food particles. Setae
organic matrix. This process is called
help in locomotion. Typhlosole increases the
decalcification. If a bone is kept in KOH it
absorption area in intestine.
remains unaffected and only the surrounding
47. (a) If a live earthworm is pricked with a
muscles and connective tissues get dissolved
needle on its outer surface without damaging
so that the bone now appears clean.
its gut, the fluid that comes out is coelomic
51. (c) Periplaneta americana (cockroach) cannot
fluid because coelomic fluid lies between
act as a scavanger, it does not feed upon dead
body wall and alimentary canal. Earthworms
are helpful to man as bait for fishing and animals.
loosen the soil for roots to grow as well. A 52. (b) Earthworm has 4 pairs of heart i.e.,
earthworm’s wastes help to fertilize the soil. 2 pairs-Lateral hearts and 2 pairs-Lateral
48. (c) In Pheretima two pairs of testes sacs oesophageal hearts present in 7th and 9th and
are situated in the 10th and 11th segments. 12th and 13th segments respectively.
Each testes sac of the 10th segment encloses 53. (a) Sexual dimorphism is found in cock-
a testes and a seminal funnel. Each testes roach. A pair of anal style are present in
sac of the 11th segment encloses a testes, a male cockroach only. Female has broader
seminal vesicle and a seminal funnel. abdomenal segments.
 8
Chapter

Cell: The Unit of Life

Topic 1: Cell 5. Names of Schleiden and Schwann are

associated with [1993]
1. Identify the correct order of organisation of
genetic material from largest to smallest : (a) protoplasm as the physical basis of life
[2015 RS] (b) cell theory
(a) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene (c) theory of cell lineage
(b) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide (d) nucleus functions as control centre of
(c) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene cell
(d) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide 6. Which is correct about cell theory in view of
2. A protoplast is a cell : [2015 RS] current status of our knowledge about cell
(a) without nucleus structure [1993]
(b) undergoing division (a) It needs modification due to discovery of
(c) without cell wall subcellular structures like chloroplasts
(d) without plasma membrane and mitochondria
3. A major break through in the studies of (b) Modified cell theory means that all
cells came with the development of electron living beings are composed of cells
microscope. This is because [2006] capable of reproducing
(a) the resolving power of the electron (c) Cell theory does not hold good because
microscope is 200 – 350 nm as compared all living beings (e.g., viruses) do not
to 0.1 – 0.2 for the light microscope
have cellular organisation
(b) electron beam can pass through thick
(d) Cell theory means that all living objects
materials, whereas light microscopy
requires thin sections consist of cells whether or not capable
(c) the electron microscope is more of reproducing
powerful than the light microscope as 7. Angstrom (Å) is equal to [1992]
it uses a beam of electrons which has (a) 0.01 mm (b) 0.001 mm
wavelength much longer than that of (c) 0.0001 mm (d) 0.00001 mm
photons 8. Electron microscope has a high resolution
(d) the resolution power of the electron power. This is due to [1992]
microscope in much higher than that of (a) electromagnetic lenses
the light microscope (b) very low wavelength of electron beam
4. A student wishes to study the cell structure (c) low wavelength of light source used
under a light microscope having 10X eyepice (d) high numerical aperture of glass lenses
and 45X objective. He should illuminate used
the object by which one of the following 9. Resolution power is the ability to [1991]
colours of light so as to get the best possible (a) distinguish two close points
resolution? [2005] (b) distinguish two close objects
(a) Blue (b) Green (c) distinguish amongst organelles
(c) Yellow (d) Red (d) magnify image
 EBD_7325
94 BIOLOGY
10. Magnification of compound microscope is 17. Which one of the following does not differ in
not connected with [1990] E.coli and Chlamydomonas? [2012]
(a) numerical aperture (a) Ribosomes
(b) focal length of objective (b) Chromosomal Organization
(c) focal length of eye piece (c) Cell wall
(d) tube length (d) Cellmembrane
11. Organelles can be separated from cell 18. Nuclear mebrane is absent in [2012]
homogenate through [1989] (a) Penicillium (b) Agaricus
(a) chromatography (c) Volvox (d) Nostoc
19. Which of the following statements regarding
(b) X-rays diffraction
cilia is not correct ?      [2006]
(c) differential centrifugation
(a) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages
(d) auto-radiography
(b) Microtubules of cilia are composed of
Topic 2: Prokaryotic Cells – Cell Envelope tubulin
and its Modifications, Ribosomes (c) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine
and Inclusion Bodies doublet microtubules surrounding two
single microtubules
12. Which one of the following is not an inclusion (d) The organized beating of cilia is
body found in prokaryotes ? [2015 RS] controlled by fluxes of Ca2+ across the
(a) Cyanophycean granule membrane
(b) Glycogen granule 20. The prokaryotic flagella possess [1995]
(c) Polysome (a) unit membrane enclosed fibre
(d) Phosphate granule (b) protein membrane enclosed fibre
13. Cell wall is absent in : [2015 RS] (c) ‘9 + 2’ membrane enclosed structure
(a) Funaria (b) Mycoplasma (d) helically arranged protein molecule
(c) Nostoc (d) Aspergillus 21. Golgi apparatus is absent in [1993]
14. Which structures perform the function of (a) higher plants
mitochondria in bacteria? [2014] (b) yeast
(a) Nucleoid (b) Ribosomes (c) bacteria and Blue-green algae
(c) Cell wall (d) Mesosomes (d) none
15. The term ‘glycocalyx’ is used for 22. Experiments on Acetabularia by Hammerling
[NEET Kar. 2013] proved the role of [1992]
(a) A layer surrounding the cell wall of (a) cytoplasm in controlling differentiation
bacteria (b) nucleus in heredity
(b) A layer present between cell wall and (c) chromosomes in heredity
membrane of bacteria (d) nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(c) Cell wall of bacteria Topic 3: Eukaryotic Cells – Cell Organelltes
(d) Bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess
N-glycosylated proteins 23. Which of the following cell organelles
is responsible for extracting energy from
16. Why is a capsule advantageous to a bacte-
carbohydrates to form ATP? [2017]
rium?   [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Ribosome (b) Chloroplast
(a) It allows the bacterium to attach to the
surface (c) Mitochondrion (d) Lysosome
(b) It protects the bacterium from desiccation 24. Mitochondria and chloroplast are [2016]
(c) It provides means of locomotion (a) semi-autonomous organelles
(d) It allows bacterium to “hide” from host’s (b) formed by division of pre-existing
immune system organelles and they contain DNA but
lack protein synthesizing machinery
Cell: The Unit of Life 95
Which one of the following options is correct? 33. Match the columns and identify the correct
(a) Both (a) and (b) are correct option. [2015 RS]
(b) (b) is true but (a) is false Column-I Column-II
(c) (a) is true but (b) is false (1) Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in
(d) Both (a) and (b) are false
Golgi apparatus
25. Microtubules are the constituents of [2016]
(2) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure
(a) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes
(b) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia of DNA
(c) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin (3) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous
(d) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles sacs in stroma
26. Which one of the following cell organelles is (4) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in
enclosed by a single membrane ? [2016] mitochondria
(a) Mitochondria (1) (2) (3) (4)
(b) Chloroplasts
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Nuclei (b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
27. DNA is not present in : [2015 RS] (c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(a) Ribosomes (b) Nucleus (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast 34. Cellular organelles with membranes are :
28. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of : [2015 RS] [2015 RS]
(a) Membrane of Golgi complex (a) chormosomes, ribosomes and endoplas-
(b) Microtubules
mic reticulum
(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(b) endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and
(d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
29. Select the correct matching in the following nuclei
pairs: [2015 RS] (c) lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mito-
(a) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids chondria
(b) Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen (d) nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria
(c) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids 35. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having
(d) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipids a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single
30. Which of the following are not membrane- type of monomer are known as: [2014]
bound? [2015 RS] (a) Microtubules
(a) Ribosomes (b) Lysosomes
(b) Microfilaments
(c) Mesosomes (d) Vacuoles
(c) Intermediate filaments
31. The function of the gap junction is to
[2015 RS] (d) Lamins
(a) facilitate communication between 36. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water
adjoining cells by connecting the is chiefly regulated by: [2014]
cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small (a) Mitochondria (b) Vacuoles
molecules and some large molecules. (c) Plastids (d) Ribosomes
(b) separate two cells from each other. 37. Match the following and select the correct
(c) stop substance from leading across a tissue answer: [2014]
(d) performing cementing to keep neighbour- (1) Centriole (i) Infoldings in
ing cells together
mitochondria
32. Balbiani rings are sites of : [2015 RS]
(2) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids
(a) Nucleotide synthesis
(b) Polysaccharide synthesis (3) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids
(c) RNA and protein synthesis (4) Ribozymes (iv) Basal body cilia or
(d) Lipid synthesis fiagella
 EBD_7325
96 BIOLOGY
(1) (2) (3) (4) (a) Endoplasmic reticulum-synthesis of
(a) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) lipids
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (b) Mitochondria-produce cellular energy in
(c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) the form of ATP
(c) Golgi body-provides packaging material
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(d) Lysosomes - secrete hydrolytic enzymes
38. Which one of the following organelle in the
43. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in
figure correctly matches with its function ?
[NEET 2013] [2012]
(a) Lysosomes (b) Nucleolus
(c) Nucleoplasm (d) Ribosomes
44. What is true about ribosomes? [2012]
(a) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S,
where “S” stands for sedimentation
coefficient
(a) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis (b) These are composed of ribonucleic acid
(b) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids and proteins
(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein (c) These are found only in eukaryotic cells
synthesis (d) These are self-splicing introns of some
(d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation
RNAs.
of glycoproteins
39. The Golgi complex plays a major role 45. Select the correct statement from the following
[NEET 2013] regarding cell membrane. [2012]
(a) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates + +
(a) Na and K ions move across cell
(b) as energy transferring organelles membrane by passive transport
(c) in post translational modification of
(b) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the cell
proteins and glycosidation of lipids
(d) in trapping the light and transforming it membrane.
into chemical energy (c) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar
40. A major site for synthesis of lipids is : heads towards the inner part.
[NEET 2013] (d) Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane
(a) SER (b) Symplast was proposed by Singer and Nicolson
(c) Nucleoplasm (d) RER 46. Which one of the following structures is an
41. Which of the following type of plastids does organelle within an organelle? [2012M]
not contain stored food material?
[NEET Kar. 2013] (a) Ribosome (b) Peroxisome
(a) Amyloplasts (b) Chromoplasts (c) ER (d) Mesosome
(c) Elaioplasts (d) Aleuroplasts 47. Which one of the following cellular parts is
42. Select the alternative giving correct identifica- correctly described? [2012M]
tion and function of the organelle ‘A’ in the (a) Centrioles - Sites for active RNA
diagram [NEET Kar. 2013] synthesis.
(b) Lysosomes - Optimally active at a pH of
about 8.5.
(c) Thylakoids - Flattened membranous
sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts.
(d) Ribosomes - Those on chloroplasts are
larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm
are smaller (70s).
A
Cell: The Unit of Life 97
48. Important site for formation of glycoproteins (a) Plasmodesmata
and glycolipids is [2011] (b) Plastoquinones
(a) vacuole (b) golgi apparatus (c) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) plastid (d) lysosome (d) Plasmalemma
49. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in: 55. Which one of the following has its own
[2011] DNA? [2010]
(a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria (a) Mitochondria (b) Dictyosome
(c) chromoplast (d) ribosomes (c) Lysosome (d) Peroxisome
50. What are those structures that appear as beads 56. The main arena of various types of activities
- on- string in the chromosomes when viewed of a cell is: [2010]
under electron microscope ? [2011] (a) plasma membrane
(a) Genes (b) Nucleotides (b) mitochondrian
(c) cytoplasm
(c) Nucleosomes (d) Base pairs
(d) nucleus
51. The figure below shows the structure of a
57. The plasma membrane consists mainly of:
mitochondrion with its four parts labelled
[2010]
(A), (B), (C) and (D).
(a) phospholipids embedded in a protein
(D) (B) bilayer
(A) (C) (b) proteins embedded in a phospholipid
bilayer
(c) proteins embedded in a polymer of
glucose molecules
(d) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate
bilayer
58. Plasmodesmata are: [2009]
Select the part correctly matched with its (a) locomotary structures
function. [2011M] (b) membranes connecting the nucleus
(a) Part (D): Outer membrane – gives rise with plasmalemma
to inner membrane by splitting (c) connections between adjacent cells
(b) Part (B): Inner membrane – forms (d) lignified cemented layers between cells
infoldings called cristae 59. Cytoskeleton is made up of: [2009]
(c) Part (C): Cristae – possess single circular (a) callose deposits
DNA molecule and ribosomes (b) cellulosic microfibrils
(d) Part (A): Matrix – major site for (c) proteinaceous filaments
respiratory chain enzymes (d) calcium carbonate granules
52. In mitochondria, proteins accumulate in the 60. Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher plant
[2011M] contains: [2009]
(a) outer membrane (a) light-dependent reaction enzymes
(b) ribosomes
(b) inner membrane
(c) chlorophyll
(c) intermembrane space
(d) light– independent reaction enzymes
(d) matrix
61. Middle lamella is composed mainly of: [2009]
53. Which one of the following is not considered
(a) muramic acid
as a part of the endomembrane system ?
(b) calcium pectate
[2011M]
(c) phosphoglycerides
(a) Golgi complex (b) Peroxisome
(c) Vacuole (d) Lysosome (d) hemicellulose
54. Which one of the following structures 62. Keeping in view the fluid mosaic model
between two adjacent cells is an effective for the structure of cell membrane, which
transport pathway? [2010] one of the following statements is correct
 EBD_7325
98 BIOLOGY
with respect to the movement of lipids and (a) The enzymes of the electron transfer
proteins from one lipid monolayer to the other chain are embedded in the outer
(described as flipflop movement)? [2008] membrane
(a) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop (b) The inner membrane is highly
(b) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, protein convoluted forming a series of infoldings
can not (c) The outer membrane resembles a sieve
(c) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can (d) The outer membrane is permeable to all
not kinds of molecules
69. The main organelle involved in modification
(d) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
and routing of newly synthesized proteins to
63. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls
their destinations is [2005]
of [2008]
(a) chloroplast
(a) Pythium (b) Xanthomonas
(c) Pseudomonas (d) Saccharomyces (b) mitochondria
64. The two sub-units of ribosome remain united (c) lysosome
a critical ion level of [2008] (d) endoplasmic Reticulum
(a) copper (b) manganese 70. According to widely accepted “fluid mosaic
(c) magnesium (d) calcium model” cell membranes are semi-fluid,
65. Vacuole in a plant cell [2008] where lipids and integral proteins can diffuse
(a) is membrane-bound and contains randomly. In recent years, this model has
storage proteins and lipids been modified in several respects. In this
(b) is membrane-bound and contains water regard, which of the following statements is
and excretory substances incorrect? [2005]
(c) lacks membrane and contains air (a) Proteins in cell membranes can travel
(d) lacks membrane and contains water within the lipid bilayer.
and excretory substances (b) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop
66. Select the wrong statement from the movements in the lipid bilayer.
following [2007] (c) Proteins can remain confined within
(a) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria certain domains of the membrane.
have an internal compartment, the (d) Many proteins remain completely
thylakoid space bounded by the embedded within the lipid bilayer.
71. Centromere is required for: [2005]
thylakoid membrane
(a) movement of chromosomes towards
(b) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria
poles
contain DNA
(b) cytoplasmic cleavage
(c) The chloroplasts are generally much (c) crossing over
large than mitochondria (d) transcription
(d) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria 72. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
contain an inner and an outer [2005]
membrane. (a) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
67. Which one of the following is not a constituent (b) only on ribosomes attached to the
of cell membrane? [2007] nuclear envelope and endoplasmic
(a) glycolipids (b) proline reticulum
(c) phospholipids (d) cholesterol. (c) on-ribosomes present in the nucleolus
68. Which of the following statement regarding as well as in cytoplasm
mitochondrial membrane is not correct ? (d) on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as
[2006] well as in mitochondria
Cell: The Unit of Life 99
73. Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells 83. Some of the enzymes,which are associated in
differ in [2004] converting fats into carbhoydrates, are present
(a) type of movement and placement in in [1999]
cell (a) liposomes (b) golgi bodies
(b) location in cell and mode of functioning (c) microsomes (d) glyoxysomes
(c) microtubular organization and type of 84. Which of the following organ has single
movement membrane? [1999]
(d) microtubular organization and function (a) Nucleus (b) Cell Wall
74. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the (c) Mitochondria (d) Spherosomes
[2004] 85. The proteins are synthesised at [1999]
(a) outer membrane (b) inner membrane
(a) ribosomes (b) mitochondria
(c) thylakoids (d) stroma
(c) centrosomes (d) golgi bodies
75. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
86. Genes located on mitochondrial DNA  [1997]
[2002]
(a) generally show maternal inheritance
(a) upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
(b) are always inherited from the male
(b) upper layer is polar and hydrophobic
parent
(c) phospholipids form a bimolecular layer
in middle part (c) show biparental inheritance like the
(d) proteins form a middle layer nuclear genes
76. Which of the following occurs more than one (d) are not inherited
and less than five in a chromosome? [2002] 87. The function of rough endoplasmic reticulum
(a) Chromatid (b) Chromosome is [1995]
(c) Centromere (d) Telomere (a) fat synthesis (b) lipid synthesis
77. Ribosomes are produced in [2002] (c) protein synthesis (d) steroid synthesis
(a) nucleolus (b) cytoplasm 88. The point, at which polytene chromosomes
(c) mitochondria (d) golgi body appears to be attached together, is called
78. Mitotic spindle is mainly composed of which [1995]
protein? [2002] (a) centriole (b) centromere
(a) Actin (b) Myosin (c) chromomere (d) chromocentre
(c) Tubulin (d) Myoglobin 89. The desmosomes are concerned with  [1995]
79. Microtubules absent in [2001] (a) cytolysis
(a) mitochondria (b) centriole (b) cell division
(c) flagella (d) spindle fibres (c) cell adherence
80. Element necessary for middle lamella is (d) cellular excretion
(a) Ca (b) Zn [2001] 90. Inner membrane convolutions of a mito­
(c) K (d) Cu chondrion are known as [1994]
81. The cell organelle involved in glyco-sylation (a) lamellae (b) thylakoids
of protein is [2000] (b) grana (d) cristae
(a) ribosome 91. Mitochondrial cristae are sites of [1994]
(b) peroxisome (a) breakdown of macromolecules
(c) endoplasmic reticulum (b) protein synthesis
(d) mitochondria (c) phosphorylation of flavoproteins
82. Lysosomes have a high content of [2000] (d) oxidation-reduction reactions
(a) hydrolytic enzymes 92. Organelle having flattened membrane bound
(b) lipoproteins cisternae and lying near the nucleus is [1994]
(c) polyribosomes (a) golgi apparatus (b) mitochondrion
(d) DNA ligases (c) centriole (d) nucleolus
 EBD_7325
100 BIOLOGY
93. Membranous bag with hydrolytic enzymes 101. An outer covering membrane is absent over
which is used for controlling intracellular [1992]
digestion of macro -molecules is [1994] (a) nucleolus (b) lysosome
(a) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) mitochondrion (d) plastid
(b) nucleosome
102. Which one is apparato reticolare? [1992]
(c) lysosome
(d) phagosome (a) Golgi apparatus
94. In salivary gland chromosomes/polytene (b) Endoplasmic reticulum
chromosomes, pairing is [1993] (c) Microfilaments
(a) absent (d) Microtubules
(b) occasional 103. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane was
(c) formed between nonhomologous chro- put forward by [1991]
(a) Danielli and Davson
mosomes
(b) Singer and Nicolson
(d) formed between homologous chromo-
(c) Garner and Allard
somes
(d) Watson and Crick
95. Cell recognition and adhesion occur due to
104. Ribosomes were discovered by [1991]
biochemicals of cell membranes named
(a) Golgi (b) Porter
[1993]
(c) De Robertis (d) Palade
(a) proteins
105. Cell wall shows [1991]
(b) lipids
(a) complete permeability
(c) proteins and lipids
(b) semipermeability
(d) glycoproteins and glycolipids (c) differential permeability
96. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated (d) impermeability
with [1993]
106. Addition of new cell wall particles amongst
(a) photorespiration (b) phototropism
the existing ones is [1991]
(c) photoperiodism (d) photosynthesis
(a) deposition (b) apposition
97. Balbiani rings (puffs) are sites of [1993]
(c) intussusception (d) aggregation
(a) DNA replication
107. The latest model for plasma membrane is
(b) RNA and protein synthesis [1990]
(c) synthesis of polysaccharides (a) lamellar model
(d) synthesis of lipids (b) unit membrane model
98. Ribosomes are the centre for [1992] (c) fluid mosaic model
(a) respiration (b) photosynthesis (d) molecular lipid model
(c) protein synthesis (d) fat synthesis 108. Hammerling’s experiments of Acetabularia
99. Oxysomes of F0 – F1 particles occur on involved exchanging [1990]
[1992] (a) cytoplasm (b) nucleus
(a) thylakoids (c) rhizoid and stalk (d) gametes
(b) mitochondrial surface 109. Plasma membrane is made of [1989]
(c) inner mitochondrial membrane (a) proteins and carbohydrates
(d) chloroplast surface (b) proteins and lipids
100. All plastids have similar structure because (c) proteins, lipids and carbohydrates
they can [1992] (d) proteins, some nucleic acid and lipids
(a) store starch, lipids and proteins 110. Polyribosomes are aggregates of [1989]
(b) get transformed from one type to (a) ribosomes and rRNA
another (b) only rRNA
(c) perform same function (c) peroxisomes
(d) be present together
Cell: The Unit of Life 101
(d) several ribosomes held together by 113. According of fluid mosaic model, plasma
string of mRNA membrane is composed of [1988]
111. Nucleoproteins are synthesised in [1989] (a) phospholipids and oligosaccharides
(a) nucleoplasm (b) phospholipids and hemicellulose
(b) nuclear envelope (c) phospholipids and integral proteins
(d) phospholipids, extrinsic proteins and
(c) nucleolus
intrinsic proteins
(d) cytoplasm
114. Acetabularia used in Hammerling’s nucleocy-
112. A bivalent consists of [1989] toplasmic experiments is [1988]
(a) two chromatids and one centromere (a) unicellular fungus
(b) two chromatids and two centromeres (b) multicellular fungus
(c) four chromatids and two centromeres (c) unicellular uninucleate green algae
(d) four chromatids and four centromeres (d) unicellular multinucleate green algae
 EBD_7325
102 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Genome > chromosomes > gene > Magnification
nucleotide. Size of the image with the instrument
=
2. (c) Cell wall is absent in a protoplast. Size of the image with the unaided eye
3. (d) A major break through in cell studies Objective lens × Ocular lens
came with the development of EM having 40 x 10 x
great resolution power due to which we can Magnification = 400 times.
see the ultrastructures of cell organelles. Magnification is defined as the power
4. (a) Resolving power or limit of resolution of enlargement.
is the ability of the eye to distinguish two Magnification
close objects as separate. Its value is Size of the image with the instrument
0.61λ =
calculated by Abbe’s equation, L m = Size of the image with the unaided eye
NA
11. (c) Centrifuge is an instrument used to
where l is the wavelength of light.
create a centrifugal force. The homogenate
NA or numerical apperture is multiple of of the cell organelles is allowed to undergo
refractive index and sine of angle subtended centrifugation by which different cell
by optical axis and outer ray covered by organelles get separated. This process is
objective (sina). known as differential centrifugation.
5. (b) Cell theory was proposed by Schleiden 12. (c) Polysomes are found in eukaryotes and
and Schwann (1839) according to which “All are defined as a cluster of ribosomes attached
living organisms are composed of cells.” to a mRNA molecule. Polysomes are number
Cell theory is also known as cell principle, of ribosomal complexes situated on mRNA.
cell doctrine etc. 13. (b) Mycoplasma lacks cell wall.
6. (c) The exceptions to cell theory are 14. (d) In some bacteria (e.g., Bacillus subtilis) the
plasma membrane form certain invaginations
viruses which do not possess a cellular
or infoldings called mesosomes in the
machinery. They consists of DNA or RNA cytoplasm. The mesosomes have various
core surrounded by a protein sheath and lack functions, viz., respiratory, secretory etc.
cellular organisation. 15. (a) Glycocalyx or mucilage is the outermost
7. (c) Angstrom Å = 0.0001 µm coating of bacterial cells/cell wall which is
1Å = 10–10 m = 10–8cm rich in polysaccharides. A thick and tougher
= 10–7 mm = 10–4 mm mucilage is called capsule which gives
8. (b) Resolution is a power of a microscope gummy or sticky trait to cells. It protects the
to distinguish between two particles that cells from dessication, toxins and preventing
are closely situated. Electron microscope attachment to foreign invaders.
has high resolution power due to very low 16. (d) Capsule is a layer that lies outside the
wavelength of electron beam. cell wall of bacteria. The capsule can protect
9. (b) The ability to distinguish two close cells from engulfment by eukaryotic cells,
objects is called power of resolution. such as macrophages. They also exclude
bacterial viruses and most hydrophobic
10. (a) Magnification is defined as the power of
toxic materials such as detergents.
enlargement. Magnification of compound
17. (d) Cell membrane of E.coli, a bacteria
microscope is the product of magnification
and Chlamydomonas a unicellular green alga
of objective lens and magnification of ocular
does not differ. As in both cell membrane is
lens. composed of lipids and proteins.
Cell: The Unit of Life 103
18. (d) Nostoc is a prokaryote while rest are lacking any membrane: Ribosomes,
eukaryotes. Nuclear membrane is absent in Centrioles, Nucleolus.
prokaryotes. 27. (a) Ribosomes are composed of ribonucleic
19. (a) Eukaryotic cilia are made up of tubulin acid and proteins and are not surrounded by
protein. Cilia have a core of 2 microtubules any membrane. These are the site for protein
and around there are 9 doublet microtubules. synthesis.
These are not at all hair like structures. 28. (c) In late prophase, nuclear envelope
20. (d) The prokaryotic flagellum is single disappears and reappears in late telophase
stranded made up of several parallel from rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
protein fibrils and helical in shape while in 29. (a) Lipid synthesis takes place in smooth
endoplasmic reticulum.
eukaryotes it is made up of axonema and
30. (a) Ribosomes are not membrance-bound
sheath.
cell organelle.
21. (c) Golgi complex is absent in prokaryotic 31. (a) The function of the gap junction is to
cell i.e (PPLO, bacteria and blue green facilitate communication between adjoining
algae). It is present in all eukaryotic cells cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid
except sieve tubes of plants, sperms of transfer of ions, small molecules and some
bryophytes and pteridophytes and red blood large molecules.
corpuscles. 32. (c) RNA and protein synthesis occur in
22. (b) Presence of hereditary information Balbiani rings.
in the nucleus was proved by the work 33. (a) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii)
of Hammerling on single celled alga 34. (c) Lysosomes, golgi apparatus and
Acetabularia. mitochondria are the cell organelles which
23. (c) The site of aerobic oxidation of carbohy- have membranes.
drates in cells to generate ATP are mitochon- 35. (b) Microtubule, microfilament and in-
dria. termediate filaments along with ER form
24. (c) Mitochondria & chloroplast are semi- cytoskeleton. Microfilaments are non-living,
autonomous cell organelle which are formed solid and consist of actin protein. They are
by division of pre-existing organelle & 4-6 nm in diameter.
contain DNA but they also contain protein 36. (b) The vacuole is bound by a single mem-
synthesizing machinery, thus (a) is true & (b) brane called tonoplast. It also functions as
is false. semipermeable membrane. It segregates
25. (b) Microtubules are long, hollow cylinders vacuolar contents from cytoplasm, allows
made up of polymerised a- and b-tubulin osmotic entry or exit of water, concentration
dimers. Microtubules are part of a structural and storage of nutrients as well as wastes.
network (the cytoskeleton) within the 37. (a) Centrosome is an organelle usually
cell’s cytoplasm. Roles of the microtubule containing two cylindrical structures called
cytoskeleton include mechanical support, centrioles. The centrioles form the basal
organization of the cytoplasm, transport, body of cilia or flagella. In chloroplast a
motility and chromosome segregation so they number of organised flattened membranous
are present in cilia and flagella for cellular sacs called the thylakoids are present in the
movement, centrioles for chromosomal stroma. Chlorophyll pigments are present
movement and spindle fibres for structural in the thylakoids. Each mitochondrion is a
organization as well as chromosomal double membrane bound structure. The inner
movement during nuclear division. membrane forms a number of infoldings
26. (c) Double Membrane bound Organelles: called the cristae towards the matrix. The
Mitochondria, Chloroplasts, Endoplasmic cristae increase the surface area.
Reticulum, Golgi Body, and Nucleus. Single 38. (c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum is
Membrane bound Organelles: Lysosomes, a network or reticulum of tiny tubular
Peroxisomes, and Vacuoles. Organelles structures scattered in the cytoplasm and
 EBD_7325
104 BIOLOGY
bear ribosomes on their outer surface. 46. (a) Ribosome are small naked (non
These are involved in protein synthesis and membrane bound) particles made of r-RNA
secretion. They are extensive and continuous and proteins. Ribosomes are also seen
with the outer membrane of the nucleus. in the organelles like mitochondria and
39. (c) Golgi apparatus plays a major role in chloroplasts. They are the cell’s protein
post translational modification of proteins factories and are found on RER and
forming glycoprotein and glycosidation scattered in the cytoplasm as polyribosomes.
of lipid forming glycolipids. A number Ribosomes are the sites at which information
of proteins and lipids synthesised on carried in the genetic code is converted into
endoplasmic reticulum (rough and smooth protein molecules.
respectively) are modified in the cisternae of 47. (c) Centrioles serve as basal bodies for
the Golgi apparatus before they are released cilia and flagella. They are concerned with
from the trans face. spindle formation during cell division.
40. (a) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles
is the major site for synthesis of lipid. In containing many hydrolytic enzymes, which
animal cells lipid like steroidal hormones are optimally active at an acid pH (near
are synthesised in SER. pH 5). Thylakoids are membrane-bound
41. (b) Chromoplasts are non-photosynthetic organelles found within chloroplasts. The
coloured plastids which synthesise and thylakoid membrane, forms many flattened,
store carotenoid pigmentes. They, therefore, fluid-filled tubules that enclose a single
appear orange red and yellow whereas convoluted compartment. These tubules
tend to stack on top of each other to form a
amyloplast (store starch), aleuroplast (store
structure called a granum.
proteins) and elaioplast (store oil droplets
and fats) are leucoplasts colourless plastids. 48. (b) Golgi apparatus is the important site
for formation of glycoprotein and glycolipid.
42. (b) Fig., (A) shows the cell organelle
49. (d) Peptide synthesis takes place in
mitochondria. The mitochondria
ribosome the cell.
are bounded by two membranes, i.e.,
50. (c) Under electron microscope the
outer membrane and inner membrane.
nucleosomes appear as beads on a string in
Mitochondria are referred as “powerhouse”
chromosome, due to a short length of DNA
of the cell as they produce 95% of ATP. wrapped around a core of histone proteins.
This energy is produced during the break 51. (b) The mitochondrial inner membrane
down of food molecules which involve forms infoldings known as cristae, which
glycolysis, oxidative decarboxylation and allow greater surface area for protein such
oxidative phosphorylation (Kreb’s cycle and as cytochrome to function properly and
respiratory chain). efficiently.
43. (b) Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized 52. (b) The inner membrane of mitochondria
in nucleolus. Nucleolus is also known as contains more than 151 different
ribosomal factory. polypeptides, and has a very high protein-to-
44. (b) Ribosomes are amembraneous (ie. phospholipid ratio.
without membrane) cell organelle composed 53. (b) Except peroxisome the remaining three
of rRNA and protein. These are found in and ER are the parts of endomembrane
both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In system.
prokaryotes, ribosomes are 70S type while 54. (a) Plasmodesmata are the structures present
in eukaryotes, it is 80S type. between two adjacent cells that permits
45. (d) Fluid mosaic membrane model was the transport and communication between
proposed by Singer and Nicholson in 1972. them. They are the fine cytoplasmic strands
It is most accepted model of structure of that connect the protoplasts of adjacent
biomembrane. plant cells by passing through the cell walls.
Cell: The Unit of Life 105
55. (a) Mitochondria has its own DNA. It is the movement of lipids and proteins from
a structure within cytoplasm of eukaryotic one lipid monolayer to the other, lipid can
cells that carries out aerobic respiration. It is rarely flip-flop, protein can not. The fluid
the site of Kreb’s cycle and ETS. mosaic model is the most important and
Therefore, it is also called as cell’s energy widely accepted latest model for plasma
production site. membrane was given by Singer and Nicolson
56. (c) The main arena of various types of in 1972. According the them it resembles
activities of a cell is cytoplasm. It forms “protein iceberg in a sea of lipids”.
the living protoplasm of a cell excluding 63. (a) Cellulose is a major component of
the nucleus. It consists of proteins, fats, cell wall of Pythium. Pythium is a genus of
carbohydrates, nucleic acids, vitamins, waste parasitic Oomycete. Because this group of
metabolites and all organelles. organisms were once classified as fungi, they
57. (b) Plasma membrane comprises of mainly are sometimes still treated as such. Pythium,
proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer. like others in the family Pythiaceae, are
Protein molecules occur at places both usually characterized by their production
inside and outer side of the lipid bilayer. of coenocytic hyphae, hyphae without
separations. Oogonia generally contain
58. (c) Plasmodesmata are connections
a single oospore. Antheridia contain an
between adjacent cells. Plasmodesmata are
elongated and club shaped antheridium.
narrow channels that act as intercellular
64. (c) The two subunits of ribosome remain
cytoplasmic bridges to facilitate
united at a critical ion level of magnesium.
communication and transport of materials
The presence of magnesium and its
between plant cells. Plasmodesmata are
amount plays an important role in the
formed during cell division, when traces of
appearance and structure of the ribosomes.
the endoplasmic reticulum become caught
If magnesium is absent in the medium, the
in the new wall that divides the parent cell.
large particles fall apart to display a group
59. (c) The cytoskeleton is made up of three of smaller particles.
kinds of protein filaments actin filaments
65. (b) Vacuole in a plant cell is membrane
(also called microfilaments), intermediate bound and contains water and excretory
filaments and microtubules whose substance. Vacuole is a space within the
major constituents are actin and tubulin cytoplasm of living cell that is filled with
respectively. air, water or other liquid, cell sap or food
60. (d) Stroma in the chloroplasts of higher particles. In plant cells, there is usually
plant contains light independent reaction one large vacuole bounded by a single
enzymes. Within the stroma are stacks of layered membrane (tonoplast or vacuole
thylakoids, the sub-organelles which are the membrane); animal cells usually have
site of photosynthesis. several small vacuoles.
61. (b) Middle lamella is mainly composed 66. (a) Both chloroplasts and mitochoridria
of calcium pectate. Calcium is deposited have an internal compartment, the thylakoid
in plants cell walls during their formation - space bounded by double membrane
it is required for the stability and function
of cell membranes and acts as a type of
‘cementing agent’ in the cell walls in the
form of calcium pectate’. Calcium pectate
is like a glue binding adjacent cells together
so if inadequate calcium is not transported
during cell formation, tissues become less
stable and prone to disintegration.
62. (b) Keeping in view of the ‘Fluid mosaic
model” for the structure of cell membrane,
 EBD_7325
106 BIOLOGY
76. (a) A chromatid is one of two identical
strands of DNA making up a chromosome
that are joined at their centromeres, for
the process of nuclear division (mitosis
or meiosis). The term is used till the
centromeres remain in contact. When they
separate (during anaphase of mitosis and
anaphase 2 of meiosis), the strands are
called daughter-chromosomes. The tips of
67. (b) the chromatid are called telomeres. They
68. (a) The enzymes of electron transport prevent the ends of the chromosome from
system are present in inner mitochondrial attaching to other chromosomes. It has been
membrane. said that after repeated cell replication, the
69. (d) Endoplasmic reticulum transport telomeres get shorter resulting in cell death.
proteins and enzymes to their destinations Thus, this means that the way telomeres work
i.e. within the cell and outside the cell. could play a role in determining the lifespan of
70. (b) Flip-Flop movement is due to migration a cell.
of lipid molecules from one lipid monolayer 77. (a) Golgi bodies take part in elaboration
to other monolayer of lipid bilayer. and secretion of complex biochemicals.
71. (a) During anaphase APC (anaphase Mitochondria are the site of ATP synthesis.
promoting complex) develops. It degenerates Ribosomes are produced in nucleolus.
proteins binding the two chromatids in the 78. (c) Mitotic spindles are composed of
region of centromere. microtubules which are made of tubulin
As a result, the centromere of each dimers. Actin and myosin are the contractile
chromosome divides. This converts the two proteins of muscle fibres. Myoglobin is
chromatids into daughter chromosomes. oxygen carrying pigment found in muscle.
72. (d) Protein synthesis in an animal cell 79. (a) Microtubules are formed of dimers
occurs on ribosomes present in cytoplasm of tubulin. Microtubules are present in
as well as in mitcohondria because centriole, flagella, spindle fibres but not in
mitochondria and chloroplast also have mitochondria.
their own DNA, RNA and ribosome so can 80. (a) Zinc is an activator of enzymes like
synthesize half of their required proteins. carbonic anhydrase. Copper takes part
73. (c) Prokaryotes have simple flagella in electron transport as plastocyanin.
without microtubules whereas eukaryotes Potassium maintains membrane
have complex cilia and flagella which permeability.
consists of microtubules arranged in 81. (c) Glycosylation is the process or result
9+2 fashion (an outer ring of nine pairs of addition of saccharides to proteins and
surrounding 1 center pair). lipids. The process is one of four principal
74. (c) The thylakoid membranes possess co-translational and post-translational
the chlorophylls. The outer membrane is modification steps in the synthesis of
permeable to a number of solutes. Inner membrane and secreted protein. The
membrane has a number of carrier proteins. majority of proteins synthesized in the
Stroma forms the matrix containing the rough ER undergo glycosylation. It is an
enzyme for Calvin cycle. enzyme-directed site-specific process, as
75. (c) Fluid mosaic model of plasma opposed to the non-enzymatic chemical
membrane proposes that plasma membrane reaction of glycation.
comprises of a phospholipid bilayer wherein 82. (a) Lysosomes are single membrane bound
icebergs of proteins float in the sea of vesicular organelles rich in acid hydrolases.
phospholipids. They are involved in phagocytosis.
Cell: The Unit of Life 107
83. (d) Golgi bodies are cytoplasmic organelle 92. (a) Organelle that has flattened membrane
which take part in elaboration and secretion bound cisternae and lies near the nucleus is
of complex biochemicals. Microsomes are Golgi apparatus.
small single membraned cell organelles that 93. (c) Lysosomes are membranous bag with
absorb oxygen and perform direct oxidation hydrolytic enzymes used for controlling
of substrates. Glyoxisomes contain enzymes intracellular digestion of macro-molecules.
for b-oxidation of fatty acids. 94. (d) In salivary gland chromosomes /
84. (d) Nucleus is enclosed by a double layered polytene chromosomes, somatic pairing is
envelope. Sphaerosomes are small spherical formed between homologous chromosomes
single membrane bound cell organelles and repeated replication of their
specialized to synthesize and store fat. chromonemata.
Mitochondria is also surrounded by a two 95. (d) Cell recognition and adhesion occurs
layered membrane - outer membrane and due to biochemicals named glycoproteins
inner membrane. and glycolipids of cell membranes. These
are formed due to the small carbohydrate
85. (a) Ribosomes are the sites of protein
molecules present on lipids and extrinsic
synthesis. Mitochondria is the site of
protein.
ATP synthesis . Golgi complex takes part
96. (a) In plant peroxisomes are associated
in elaboration and secretion of complex
with photorespiration. Peroxisomes are
biochemicals. The distinctly staining
ubiquitous organelles in eukaryotes that
region of cytoplasm surrounding the pair
function to rid the cell of toxic substances.
of centrioles together with the centrioles is They have a single membrane that separates
called centrosome. their contents from the cytosol (the
86. (a) Genes located on the mitochondrial internal fluid of the cell) and that contains
DNA are inherited through the cytoplasm. membrane proteins critical for various
The zygote receives cytoplasm from the functions, such as importing proteins into
female gamete, hence it involves maternal the organelles and aiding in proliferation.
inheritance. Unlike lysosomes, which are formed in the
87. (c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears secretory pathway, peroxisomes usually self-
ribosomes on its outer surface. These replicate by enlarging and then dividing,
ribosomes take part in protein synthesis. although there is some indication that new
88. (d) Granules of condensed chromatin ones may be formed directly. Peroxisomes
(heterochromatin), are found scattered were discovered by the Belgian cytologist
in interphase nuclei. At chromocentre, the Christian de Duve in 1965.
polytene chromosomes appear attached. 97. (b) In the region of Balbiani ring the DNA
89. (c) Desmosomes are cementing substances, strands uncoil, become active and produce
which adhere to each other and keep the number of copies of messenger RNA.
latter tightly packed and they also prevent 98. (c) Ribosomes are the workhouses
of protein biosynthesis, the process of
leakage of fluid from interphase.
translating messenger RNA (mRNA) into
90. (d) The inner membrane of mitochondria
protein. The mRNA comprises a series
is infolded to form involutions called cristae.
of codons that dictate, to the ribosome,
They are meant for increasing the active the sequence of the amino acids needed
area of the inner membrane. to make the protein. Using the mRNA as
91. (d) Mitochondrial cristae possess small a template, the ribosome translates each
particles called elementary particles which codon of the mRNA, pairing it with the
contain ATP- ase. Therefore, they are the appropriate amino acid. This is done
centes of ATP synthesis during oxidative - using molecules of transfer RNA (tRNA)
phosphorylation. containing a complementary anticodon on
 EBD_7325
108 BIOLOGY
one end and the appropriate amino acid on two layers of phospholipid molecules and
the other.Protein synthesis begins at a start proteins arranged in a symetrical pattern.
codon near the 5’ end of the mRNA. 108. (c) J. Hammerling (1934) conducted
99. (c) The inner membrane of mitochondria experiments using two species of green algae
possess small tennis racket like particles Acetabularia crenulata and A. mediterranea.
called elementary particle, F0 – F1 particles They differ in the shapes of their caps. The
or oxysomes. There are 1 × 104 – 1 × 105 nucleus in both species is situated in rhizoids
oxysomes in a mitochondria. at the bottom of stalk. After removing cap,
100. (b) All plastids are similar in structure. So if stalk of one species is grafted on rhizoid
they can easily get transformed from one of the other species, shape of the cap will be
type to another. Depending upon the colours determined by nucleus, not by the stalk. This
there are three types of plastids- leucoplasts, experiment makes clear that the characters
chromoplasts and chloroplasts. of an individual are controlled by nucleus.
101. (a) A covering membrane is absent around 109. (c) Plasma membrane is made up
nucleolus. Calcium seems to be essential for of proteins, lipids and carbohydrates.
maintaining its configuration. Carbohydrates are covalently linked to both
102. (a) lipid and protein.
103. (b) Fluid Mosaic Model of cell membrane 110. (d) Polyribosomes consists of 4-8
was put forward by Singer and Nicolson. ribosomes which are attached to a single
104. (d) Ribosomes were discovered by strand of mRNA. This mechanism helps
Robinson and Brown in plant cell and in synthesis of several copies of the same
Palade in animal cell. protein.
105. (a) Cell wall shows complete permeability 111. (d) Nucleoproteins are conjugated
because it helps in the transport of proteins. They are deoxyribonucleoproteins
substances in and out of the cell. and ribonucleoproteins synthesised in
106. (c) Growth of cell wall occurs by two cytoplasm of the cell.
methods : 112. (c) A pair of homologus chromosomes
(i) Intussusception : When the primary lying together in the zygotene stage of
wall is stretched, the materials of Prophase I of first meiotic division is called
secondary wall are secreted by a bivalent.
protoplam deposited within it. 113. (d) According to fluid mosaic model
(ii) Apposition : Materials of secondary proposed by Singer and Nicolson (1972,
wall secreted by protoplam are 74), plasma membrane is composed of a
deposited in the form of thin layer one phospholipid bilayer and protein. Protein
above the other. molecules occur at places both inside and
outside of lipid bilayer. The internal proteins
107. (c) Fluid mosaic model is the most recent
are called intrinsic proteins and the external
model of a biomembrane proposed by
proteins are called extrinsic proteins.
Singer and Nicolson (1972, 74). According
to this model, the membrane does not have 114. (c) Acetabularia used in Hammerling’s
a uniform deposition of lipids which are nucleocytoplasmic experiments is
present as highly viscous fluid matrix of unicellular, uninucleate, marine green alga.
 9
Chapter

Biomolecules

Topic 1: Essential Molecules of 7. Living cell contains 60 – 75% water. Water

Biological System present in human body is [1992]
(a) 60 – 65% (b) 50 – 55%
1. About 98 percent of the mass of every living (c) 75 – 80% (d) 65 – 70%
organism is composed of just six elements
including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, Topic 2: Proteins/Amino Acids
oxygen and [2007] 8. The two polypeptides of human insulin are
(a) sulphur and magnesium linked together by [2016]
(b) magnesium and sodium (a) hydrogen bonds
(c) calcium and phosphorus (b) phosphodiester bond
(d) phosphorus and sulphur. (c) covalent bond
2. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be (d) disulphide bridges
classified into a single category of biological 9. The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor
chemicals, because all of these [2005] for the synthesis of [2016]
(a) help in regulating metabolism (a) Melatonin and Serotonin
(b) are exclusively synthesized in the body (b) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
of a living organism as at present (c) Estrogen and Progesterone
(c) are conjugated proteins (d) Cortisol and Cortisone
(d) enhance oxidative metabolism 10. The figure shows a hypothetical tetrapeptide
3. Carbohydrates, the most abundant bio- portion of a protein with parts labelled A-D.
molecules on earth, are produced by : [2005]
Which one of the following option is correct?
(a) some bacteria, algae and green plant
[NEET Kar. 2013]
cells
(b) fungi, algae and green plant cells
(c) all bacteria, fungi and algae
(d) viruses, fungi and bacteria
4. Most abundant organic compound on earth
is [2001]
(a) Protein (b) Cellulose (a) A is the sulphur containing amino acid
(c) Lipids (d) Steroids - methionine
5. Most diverse macromolecules, found in (b) D is the acidic amino acid - glutamic
the cell both physically and chemically acid`
are [1996] (c) C is an aromatic amino acid - tryptophan
(a) proteins (b) carbohydrates (d) A is the C - terminal amino acid and D
(c) nucleic acids (d) lipids. is N terminal amino acid
6. The four elements making 99% of living 11. Which one is the most abundant protein in
system are [1994] the animal world [2012]
(a) C, H, O, S (b) C, H, O, P (a) Trypsin (b) Haemoglobin
(c) C, H, O, N (d) C, N, O, P (c) Collagen (d) Insulin
 EBD_7325
110 BIOLOGY
12. Which one out of A-D given below correctly respresents the structural formula of the basic amino
acid   [2012]

(a) C (b) D (c) A (d) B

13. Which one of the following biomolecules is 19. The enormous diversity of protein molecules
correctly characterized? [2012M] is due mainly to the diversity of [1998]
(a) Lecithin - A phosphorylated glyceride (a) amino groups on the amino acids
found in cell membrane. (b) R groups on the amino acids
(b) Palmitic acid - An unsaturated fatty (c) amino acid sequences within the protein
acid with 18 carbon atoms. molecule
(c) Adenylic acid - Adenosine with a (d) peptide bonds
glucose phosphate molecule. 20. Genes are packed into a bacterial
(d) Alanine amino acid - Contains an amino chromosome by [1997]
group and an acidic group anywhere in (a) histones (b) basic proteins
the molecule. (c) acidic proteins (d) actin
14. Which of the following is the simplest amino 21. Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes
acid? [2005] place [1997]
(a) Alanine (b) Asparagine
(a) only in the cytoplasm
(c) Glycine (c) Tyrosine
(b) in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
15. Collagen is [2002]
(c) in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
(a) fibrous protein (b) globular protein
(d) only on ribosomes attached to the
(c) lipid (d) carbohydrate
nuclear envelope
16. Conjugated proteins containing
carbohydrates as prosthetic group are known 22. Amino acids are produced from [1992]
as [2000] (a) Proteins (b) Fatty acids
(a) Chromoproteins (b) Glycoproteins (c) Essential oils (d) a-keto acids
(c) Lipoproteins (d) Nucleoproteins Topic 3: Fats/Lipids
17. Which is an essential amino acid? [2000]
(a) Serine (b) Aspartic acid 23. A typical fat molecule is made up of [2016]
(c) Glycine (d ) Phenylalanine (a) three glycerol molecules and one fatty
acid molecule
18. The secondary structure of that portion of
(b) one glycerol and three fatty acid
an integral protein that is buried in the lipid
molecules
bilayer of a cell membrane is [1999]
(c) one glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(a) b-strand (b) b-bend
(d) three glycerol and three fatty acid
(c) random coil (d) a-helix molecules
Biomolecules 111
24. A phosphoglycerate is always made up of :
[NEET 2013] B N
(a) only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified
to a glycerol molecule to which a
phosphate group is also attached N
(b) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid (a) B : Adenine — a nucleotide that makes
esterified to a glycerol molecule to which up nucleic acids
a phosphate group is also attached (b) A: Triglyceride — major source of
(c) a saturated or unsaturated fatty acid energy
esterified to a phosphate group which is (c) B : Uracil — a component of DNA
also attached to a glycerol molecule. (d) A: Lecithin — a component of cell
(d) only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a membrane
glycerol molecule to which a phosphate 29. Length of one turn of the helix in a b-form
group is also attached DNA is approximately [2000, 06]
25. Lipids are insoluble in water because lipid (a) 3.4 nm (b) 2 nm
molecules are [2002] (c) 0.34 nm (d) 20 nm
(a) hydrophilic (b) hydrophobic 30. Which one of the following hydrolyses
(c) neutral (d) zwitter ions internal phosphodiester bonds in a
26. Spoilage of oil can be detected by which polynucleotide chain? [2005]
fatty acid? [2001] (a) Lipase (b) Protease
(a) Oleic acid (b) Linolenic acid (c) Endonuclease (d) Exonuclease
(c) Linoleic acid (d) Erucic acid 31. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule
Topic 4: Nucleic acids/Nucleotides means that [2005]
(a) the phosphate groups of two DNA
27. G i ve n b e l o w i s t h e d i a g r a m m a t i c strands, at their ends. share the same
representation of one of the categories of position
small molecular weight organic compounds (b) the phosphate groups at the start of two
in the living tissues. Identify the category DNA strands are in opposite position
shown and the one blank component “X” in (pole)
it. [2012] (c) one strand turns clockwise
(d) one strand turns anti-clockwise
32. A nucleotide is formed of [1991, 05]
(a) Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(b) Purine, sugar and phosphate
(c) Nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
Category Component
(d) Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(a) Cholesterol Guanine
33. One of the similarities between DNA and
(b) Amino acid NH2
RNA is that both [2000]
(c) Nucleotide Adenine
(a) are polymers of nucleotides
(d) Nucleoside Uracil
(b) are capable of replicating
28. Which one of the following structural
(c) have similar sugars
formulae of two organic compounds is
(d) have similar pyrimidine bases
correctly identified along with its related
34. DNA synthesis can be specifically measured
function ? [2011]
O by estimating the incorporation of radio
|| labelled [1997]
A O CH2 – O – C – R
|| | (a) uracil
R2 – C – O – CH (b) adenine
|
CH2 – O – P – O – CH2 – CH2 (c) thymidine
| | (d) deoxyribose sugar
OH N
|

CH3 | CH3
|

CH3
 EBD_7325
112 BIOLOGY
35. The nitrogenous organic base purine 46. In double helix of DNA, the two DNA
occuring in RNA is [1996] strands are [1988]
(a) cytosine (b) thymine (a) coiled around a common axis
(c) guanine (d) uracil (b) coiled around each other
36. Two free ribonucleotide units are interlinked (c) coiled differently
with [1995] (e) coiled over protein sheath
(a) peptide bond 47. RNA does not possess [1988]
(b) covalent bond (a) Uracil (b) Thymine
(c) hydrogen bond (c) Adenine (d) Cytosine
(d) phosphodiester bond
37. Which one contains four pyrimidine Topic 5: Enzymes/Cofactors
bases ? [1994] 48. Which one of the following statements is
(a) GATCAATGC (b) GCUAGACAA correct, with reference to enzymes ?  [2017]
(b) UAGCGGUAA (d) TGCCTAACG (a) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
38. Which is wrong about nucleic acids ? [1993] (b) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(a) DNA is single stranded in some viruses (c) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
(b) RNA is double stranded occasionally
(d) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
(c) Length of one helix is 45Å in B-DNA
49. Which one of the following statements in
(d) One turn of Z-DNA has 12 bases
incorrect?  [2015 RS]
39. Adenine is [1992]
(a) Purine (b) Pyrimidine (a) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor
(c) Nucleoside (d) Nucleotide molecule is not chemically changed by
40. Which is distributed more widely in a cell ? the enzyme.
[1992] (b) The competitive inhibitor does not affect
(a) DNA (b) RNA the rate of breakdown of the enzyme-
(c) Chloroplasts (d) Sphaerosomes substrate complex.
41. In RNA, thymine is replaced by [1991, 92] (c) The presence of the competitive inhibitor
(a) Adenine (b) Guanine decreases the Km of the enzyme for the
(c) Cytosine (d) Uracil substrate.
42. The basic unit of nucleic acid is [1991] (d) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly
(a) Pentose sugar (b) Nucleoid with the enzyme to form an enzyme-
(c) Nucleoside (d) Nucleotide inhibitor complex.
43. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 50. Select the option which is not correct with
120 cytosine bases. The total number of respect to enzyme action:  [2014]
nucleotides present in the segment is [1991] (a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active
(a) 120 (b) 240
site.
(c) 60 (d) 480
(b) Addition of lot of succinate does
44. DNA is composed of repeating units of
[1991] not reverse the inhibition of succinic
(a) Ribonucleosides dehydrogenase by malonate.
(b) Deoxyribonucleosides (c) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the
(c) Ribonucleotides enzyme at a site distinct from that which
(d) Deoxyribonucleotides binds the substrate.
45. Which is not consistent with double helical (d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of
structure of DNA ? [1990] succinic dehydrogenase.
(a) A = T, C = G 51. The essential chemical components of many
(b) Density of DNA decreases on heating coenzymes are :  [NEET 2013]
(c) A + T/C + G is not constant (a) Nucleic acids (b) Carbohydrates
(d) Both A and B (c) Vitamins (d) Proteins
Biomolecules 113
52. Transition state structure of the substrate (c) Non-competitive inhibition of an
formed during an enzymatic reaction is : enzyme can be overcome by adding
[NEET 2013] large amount of substrate.
(a) permanent but unstable (d) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind
(b) transient and unstable to the enzyme irreversibly.
(c) permanent and stable 58. The catalytic efficiency of two different
(d) transient but stable enzymes can be compared by the [2005]
53. Which of the following statements about (a) formation of the product
enzymes is wrong?   [NEET Kar. 2013] (b) pH optimum value
(a) Enzymes require optimum pH and (c) Km value
temperature for maximum activity (d) molecular size of the enzyme
(b) Enzymes are denatured at high 59. In which one of the following enzymes,
temperatures is copper necessarily associated as an
(c) Enzymes are mostly proteins but some activator? [2004]
are lipids also (a) Carbonic anhydrase
(d) Enzymes are highly specific (b) Tryptophanase
54. The curve given below shows enzymatic (c) Lactic dehydrogenase
activity with relation to three conditions (pH, (d) Tyrosinase
temperature and substrate concentration.) 60. Feedback inhibition of an enzymatic reaction
What do the two axes (x and y) represent ? is caused by [2000]
[2011] (a) End product
(b) Substrate
(c) Enzyme
(d) Rise in temperature
y-axis

61. Enzymes enhance the rate of reaction by

[2000]
(a) forming a reactant-product complex
x-axis (b) changing the equilibrium point of the
x - axis y-axis reaction
(a) enzymatic activity pH (c) combining with the product as soon as
(b) temperature enzyme activity it is formed
(c) substrate concentration enzymatic (d) lowering the activation energy of the
activity reaction
(d) enzymatic activity temperature 62. An enzyme brings about [1993]
55. A competitive inhibitor of succinic (a) decrease in reaction time
dehydrogenase is [2008] (b) increase in reaction time
(a) Malonate (b) Oxaloacetate (c) increase in activation energy
(c) m-ketoglutarate (d) Malate (d) reduction in activation energy
56. An organic substance bound to an enzyme 63. Enzymes having slightly different molecular
and essential for its activity is called [2006] structure but performing identical activity
(a) Holoenzyme (b) Apoenzyme are [1991]
(c) Isoenzyme (d) Coenzyme (a) Holoenzymes (b) Isoenzymes
57. Which of the following statements regarding (c) Apoenzymes (d) Coenzymes
enzyme inhibition is correct? [2005]
(a) Competitive inhibition is seen when a Topic 6: Saccharides
substrate competes with an enzyme for 64. Which of the following are not polymeric ?
binding to an inhibitor protein. [2017]
(b) Competitive inhibition is seen when the (a) Proteins (b) Polysaccharides
substrate and the inhibitor compete for (c) Lipids (d) Nucleic acids
the active site on the enzyme.
 EBD_7325
114 BIOLOGY
65. Which one of the following statements is (c) b -methyl galactoside
wrong? [2016] (d) sucrose
(a) Sucrose is a disaccharide. 71. As the age advances, there is a gradual
(b) Cellulose is a polysaccharide. thinning of hair in human males. This is
(c) Uracil is a pyrimidine. mainly because of lowered  [2000]
(d) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino (a) blood supply
acid. (b) synthesis of proteins
66. Which of the following biomolecules does (c) synthesis of glycogen
have phosphodiester bond ? [2015 RS] (d) availability of energy
(a) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide 72. Cellulose, the most important constituent of
(b) Amino acids in a polypeptide plant cell wall is made of [1998]
(c) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide (a) unbranched chain of glucose molecules
(d) Fatty acids in a diglyceride linked by a-1, 4 glycosidic bond
67. The introduction of t-DNA into plants (b) branched chain of glucose molecules
linked by b-1, 4 glycosidic bond in
involves:    [2015RS]
straight chain and a-1, 6 glycosidic
(a) Altering the pH of the soil, then heat
bond at the site of branching
shocking the plants
(c) unbranched chain of glucose molecules
(b) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief linked by b-1, 4 glycosidic bond
period (d) branched chain of glucose molecules
(c) Allowing the plant roots to stand in water linked by a-1, 6 glycosidic bond at the
(d) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium site of branching.
tumefaciens 73. Lactose is composed of [1998]
68. Which one of the following is a non - reducing (a) Glucose + Glucose
carbohydrate?  [2014] (b) Glucose + Fructose
(a) Maltose (c) Fructose + Galactose
(b) Sucrose (d) Glucose + Galactose.
(c) Lactose 74. In which one of the following groups, all the
(d) Ribose 5 - phosphate three are examples of polysaccharides?
69. Macro molecule chitin is : [NEET 2013] [1996]
(a) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide (a) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
(b) Sucrose, maltose, glucose
(b) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
(c) glucose, fructose, lactose
(c) Simple polysaccharide
(d) Galactose, starch, sucrose
(d) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
75. A polysaccharide, which is synthesized and
70. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
stored in liver cells, is [1995]
(a) galactose [2002]
(a) lactose (b) galactose
(b) gluconic acid
(c) arabinose (d) glycogen
Biomolecules 115

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Calcium and phosphorus are the H Tyr
H
Gln
Leu
remaining elements.
Leu
Ser 15
Glu H
A-chain
2. (a) The major life processes are controlled
Cys Asn
ile 10
S Tyr D
Ser
by enzymes as they enhance the rate of Gly lle Val Glu Gln
S
Cys Cys
Thr 20 Cys Asn

biological reactions. 1 5 S
S

S HD D
Vitamins are required in limited
S D
H H H Gly Glu Arg
Phe Val Asn Gln His Leu Cys H Cys Gly D
amounts by organisms for regulation of
20
5 Gly D H Val Phe
1
Ser D H Leu 25 Phe D
metabolism and growth. B-chain 10 His H D Tyr Tyr D
Leu D H H
Hormones are organic compounds
Thr D
Leu
Val Glu Ala Pro D

30 Lys
produced by certain organs in small Thr D

quantities. They act physiologically far from 9. (a) Tryptophan is a precursor to neuro-
their site of origin. transmitters serotonin and melatonin.
Thyroxine (3,5,3’,5’-tetraiodothyronine) is
3. (a) Some bacteria (such as
produced by follicular cells of the thyroid
Rhodopseudomonas), algae and green plants
gland. It is produced as the precursor
cell produce carbohydrates. thyroglobulin. Estrogen is biosynthesized
4. (b) Cellulose is the most abundant organic from progesterone (in two steps from
compound, polysaccharide and biopolymer cholesterol, via intermediate pregnenolone).
found on earth. Cortisone is one of several end-products of
5. (a) Proteins are polymers of amino acids. a process called steroidogenesis. Cortisol is
There are only 20 amino acids which can be produced in the adrenal cortex of kidney.
arranged in different orders in a polypeptide 10. (b) Glutamic acid and aspartic acid are
chain to form a wide array of proteins. acidic amino acids with two carboxylic groups
6. (c) Principal or major elements include and one amino group.
oxygen, carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen. 11. (c) Collagen is the most abundant protein
in the animal world. Rubisco (ribulose
They are so named because they alone
biphosphte carboxylase - oxygenase) is not
constitute 99% of living system.
only the most abundant protein in plants but
7. (d) Water is the most abundant compound also in the whole biosphere.
in the most majority of cells. About 65-70% 12. (b) It is structural formula of basic amino
of human body is water. Major portion of acid lysine.
water found in human body occurs in the 13. (a) Palmitic acid is one of the most
cells as intracellular water. common, saturated fatty acids found in
8. (d) Insulin is a hormone consisting of 2 animals and plants. It has 16 carbons
polypeptide chains. Each chain is composed including the carboxyl carbon. Adenylic acid
of a specific sequence of amino acid residues is a nucleotide consisting of adenine, ribose
connected by peptide bonds. In humans, or deoxyribose, and a phosphate group. It
chain A has 21 amino acids, and chain B has is a constituent of DNA or RNA. It is also
called adenosine monophosphate. Amino
30. Post translational modifications result
acids are organic acids (with carboxylic
in the connection of these two chains by
group COOH) having amino group (–NH2)
disulfide bridges. Cysteine residues on A7 generally attached to Carbon or carbon next
and B7, as well as A20 to B19 are covalently to carboxylic group. The carbon also bears
connected by disulfide bridges.
 EBD_7325
116 BIOLOGY
a variable alkyl group (R) or hydrogen or 19. (c) There are only 20 amino acids . These
hydrocarbon. In alanine (R) is represented can be arranged in different order in the
by methyl group. polypeptide chain to form a diverse array of
14. (c) The general structure of an amino acid proteins.
is 20. (b) In bacteria the chromosome or
+ nucleoid is a naked double stranded
NH3
| DNA. The bacterial DNA is folded with
H − C − COO − the help of RNAs forming a super coiled
|
R circular complex. The coiling is stabilized
where R is an alkyl or aryl group. with the help of non-histonic polyamines
In Glycine, R is also a hydrogen atom. and a number of positively charged ions.
Therefore glycine is the simplest amino acid. Eukaryotic DNA is associated with histone
+ + proteins that are helpful in its coiling to form
NH3 NH3 chromatin fibres.
| |
H − C − COO − 21. (c) In the cytoplasm protein synthesis is
H − C − COO −
| | restricted to the ribosomes. Mitochondria
H CH3
Glycine Alanine
being a semiautonomous organelle, has its
OH own genetic machinery to synthesize its
proteins.
O NH2
22. (d) An amino acid molecule consists of a
C central carbon bonded to an amino group
CH2 CH2 (–NH2), a carboxylic group (–COOH), a
C C
hydrogen atom and a carbon chain or ring
H2N COOH H2N COOH on its sides.
H H 23. (b) Fat molecules are made of atoms of
Tyrosine Asparagine carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. The hydrogen
15. (a) Collagen is a major fibrous protein of and oxygen atoms binds to the carbon, as
connective tissue occuring as white fibres pictorially depicted. A typical fat molecule has
produced by fibroblast. one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.
16. (b) Besides polypeptides, conjugated
H
proteins posses additional groups, metals or
–

O
ions. Nucleoproteins are proteins associated H–C–O– H H – O – – chain of carbons, hydrogens
–

C
–

with nucleic acids. Lipoproteins are proteins H–C–O– H H–O – –

O chain of carbons, hydrogens
–

associated with lipids. C

–

Chromoproteins are proteins associated H – C– O – H H – O – O– chain of carbons, hydrogens

–
–

with pigments. Glycoproteins are proteins C

H
with a simple or complex sugar residue at 3H2O
glycerol 3 fatty acids
their n- terminal.
17. (d) Essential amino acids are those 24. (b) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid
which cannot be synthesized in the body esterified to a glycerol molecule to which
a phosphate group is also attached forms
from precursors. These amino acids must
phosphoglycerides.
be present in our diet. They are valine,
Phosphoglycerides are major structural
leucine, isoleucine, lysine, methionine,
components of cell membranes. They are,
phenylalanine, tryptophan and threonine.
therefore, called membrane lipids. Lecithin
18. (d) Secondary structure is development of is one such example.
new stearic relationships amongst the amino 25. (b) Water attracting molecules are called
acids through formation of intra and inter hydrophilic. Water repelling molecules
polypeptide hydrogen bonds. are called hydrophobic. Amino acids
Biomolecules 117
simultaneously carry positive and negative 33. (a) DNA and RNA are both polymers of
charges. Such substances are called zwitter nucleotides . DNA has deoxyribose sugar
ions. Lipids are compounds of C, H, O while RNA has ribose sugar. DNA has
but the ratio of H and O is more than 2 : thymine while RNA has uracil in place of
1, that is, the ratio of oxygen is lesser than thymine.
carbohydrates. Lipids are insoluble in water 34. (c) Thymidine is used to assess the rate of
but soluble in non-polar solvents such as DNA synthesis, since thymine is unique to
benzene, chloroform etc. DNA.
The most common lipid found in a cell 35. (c) The nitrogenous bases forming
is phospholipid. It contains a hydrophilic the nucleoside in RNA are adenine,
(polar) head and a hydrophobic (non- polar guanine (purines) and cytosine and uracil
tail). (pyrimidines).
26. (d) Erucic acid is a monounsaturated 36. (d) In a phosphodiester bond, linkage takes
omega-9 fatty acid, denoted 22 : 1 w-9. It is place between the phosphate group of one
prevalent in rapeseed, wallflower seed, and nucleotide and the hydroxyl group of sugar
mustard seed, making up 40 to 50 percent of (ribose or deoxyribose) of the adjacent
their oils. Erucic acid is also known as cis- nucleotide.
13-docosenoic acid and the trans isomer is 37. (a) The pyrimidine bases include cytosine,
known as brassidic acid. thymine and uracil.
27. (d) A combination of a nitrogen base with 38. (c) Length of one helix is 34Å in B-DNA.
a pentose sugar is known as nucleoside. 39. (a) The nitrogenous bases are constituents
The nitrogen base combines with the sugar of DNA. The nitrogenous bases may
molecule at its 1′ carbon atom in a glycosidic be purines or pyrimidines. Purines are 9
bond (C – N – C) by one of its nitrogen membered, double winged structures eg.
atoms (usually 1 in pyrimidines and 9 in adenine or guanine.
purines). Depending upon the type of pentose 40. (b) Bulk of RNA occurs in the cytoplasm
sugar, nucleosides are differentiated into and a small amount in the nucleus in
ribonucleosides and deoxyribonucleosides. eukaryotic cells. In prokaryotic cell RNA is
28. (d) Lecithin is a fat like substance (a found in the cytoplasm.
phospholipid), which is a part of plasma 41. (d) RNA is a single chain of ribonucleotides.
membrane. Each ribonucleotide consists of nitrogenous
29. (a) Length of one turn of DNA helix is bases (adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil),
34Å. ribose sugar and phosphoric acid.
1Å = 10–1 nm 42. (d) Nucleic acid (DNA and RNA) comprise
34 × 1 of polynucleotides. Each nucleotide consist
∴ 34¯ = 10−1 × 34 = = 3.4 nm
10 of nitrogenous bases, pentose sugar and
phosphoric acid.
30. (c) Endonucleases hydrolyse internal
43. (d) According to Chargaff ’s rule, the amount
phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide
of adenine is always equal to thymine and
chain (DNA). While exonucleases hydrolyse
that of guanine equal to cytosine. Moreover,
terminal phosphodiester bonds in a
A + G = T + C.
polynucleotide chain (DNA).
120 + 120 = 120 + 120
31. (a) Antiparallel strands of DNA have two
240 = 240
strands having phosphate groups at same
So there will be 480 nucleotides in all.
positions in space.
44. (d) DNA is a long, double helix consisting
32. (c) The nucleic acid (DNA and RNA)
of repeating units of deoxyribonucleotides.
are repeating units of nucleotides i.e.
45. (c) The ratios for the (A+ G)/ (T+C) are
polynucleotides. Each nucleotide comprises
constant at approximately 1.0 for the different
of nitrogenous heterocyclic bases viz.
organisms. Each of these organisms contain
purines or pyrimidines, pentose sugar and
phosphoric acid.
 EBD_7325
118 BIOLOGY
a double stranded genome. The percentage 55. (a) Malonate is a powerful inhibitor of
of Guanine and Cytosine are almost equal cellular respiration, because it binds to the
to each other, similarly the percentages of active site of succinate dehydrogenase in the
Adenine and Thymine are almost equal citric acid cycle but does not react. It thereby
to each other as well. In other words, the competes with succinate, since it does not
percentage of purines should be equal to have the -CH2-CH2- group (as in succinate
the percentage of pyrimidines for double which is required for dehydrogenation).
stranded DNA. This means that For the oxidative phosphorylation reaction,
(A + G) = (C + T) malonate is an inhibitor for complex II which
The (A + T) / (C + G) ratios are not again contains succinate dehydrogenase.
constant for all the species The relative 56. (d) Coenzyme is an organic substance that
numbers of (A + T) base pairs and (G + C) enhances the action of an enzyme by binding
base pairs are unique to each organism and with the protein molecule. Holoenzyme is
can vary between the different species. a biochemically active compound formed
46. (a) The two chains comprising the DNA by the combination of an enzyme with a
are sprially coiled around a common axis to coenzyme. Apoenzyme is the protein part of
form a regular, right handed double helix. an enzyme to which the coenzyme attaches
47. (b) In RNA, pyrimidine thymine is replaced to form an active enzyme. Isoenzyme is
by uracil. one of the several forms of an enzyme that
48. (a) Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme catalyse the same reaction but differ from
which consists of a protein part called each other in such properties as substrate
apoenzyme and a non-protein called cofactor. affinity and maximum rates of enzyme
Coenzyme are also organic compounds but substrate reaction.
their association with apoenzyme is only 57. (b) In competitive inhibition the inhibitor
transient and acts as cofactors. resembles the substrate in structure and
49. (c) Km increases but Vmax remains the same hence compete for the active site of the
in competitive inhibition. This is because, on enzyme.
slightly increasing the substrate concentration, 58. (c) Km (Michealis Menten constant). It is
the effect of inhibitor is removed. defined as that substrate concentration at
50. (b) Inhibitions of succinic dehydrogenase which, under optimum conditions, the rate
by malonate is an example of competitive of an enzyme catalysed reaction reaches
inhibition. Thus it is a reversible reaction. half the maximum rate. Km is inversely
On increasing the substrate (succinate) proportional to affinity of enzyme far its
concentration the effect of inhibitor is substrate.
removed and Vmax remains same. 59. (d) Tyrosinase (polyphenol oxidase,
51. (c) The essential chemical components of catecholase) is a copper-containing oxidase
many enzymes are vitamins, e.g., coenzyme which is widely distributed in plants, animals
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and man. It oxidizes tyrosine to the pigment
and NADP contain vitamin niacin. melanin in mammals and causes the cut
52. (b) Transition state structure formed during surfaces of many fruits and vegetables to
an enzymatic reaction is transient and darken (browning reactions).
unstable. 60. (a) Glucose + ATP
53. (c) Almost all enzymes are proteins. There
Hexokinase
are some nucleic acids that behave like (Enzyme)
enzymes. There are called ribozyme (also
called RNA enzyme or catalytic RNA). Glucose – 6– Phosphate
(End Product)
54. (b) In the given curve, the relation between Inhibits +
temperature and enzyme activity is shown. ADP
Biomolecules 119
61. (d) Activation energy is the energy required 70. (a) Reducing sugar is any sugar that has an
to overcome energy barrier of the reactants aldehyde group or is capable of forming one,
and make them reactive to start a chemical in solution through isomerisation. Reducing
reaction. Enzymes lower the requirement of monosaccharides include glucose, fructose,
activation energy. glyceraldehyde and galactose. Many
62. (d) Enzymes accelerate chemical reaction disaccharides, like lactose and maltose also
by lowering the activation energy. have a reducing form, as one of the two
63. (b) There are certain enzymes which have units may have an open- chain form with an
slightly different molecular structure but aldehyde group.
However, sucrose and trehalose, in
have similar catalytic function such enzymes
which the anomeric carbons of the two
are known as isoenzymes. Holoenzyme is the
units are linked together, are non reducing
active compound formed by combination of
disaccharides since neither of the rings is
a coenzyme and an apoenzyme. Apoenzyme capable of opening.
is the protein component of an enzyme, to 71. (b) Reduced protein synthesis causes
which the coenzyme attaches to form an thinning of hairs.
active enzyme. Coenzymes are organic non- 72. (c) Cellulose is the structural polysaccharide
protein molecules that bind with the protein of plant cell walls. They are long chain
molecule (apoenzyme) to form the active polymers of b-glucose units. The adjacent
enzyme (holoenzyme). b-glucose units are joined by linkages.
64. (c) – Nucleic acids are polymers of 73. (d) Lactose is a disaccharide that consists
nucleotides of b-D-galactose and b-D-glucose molecules
– Proteins are polymers of amino acids bonded through a b1-4 glycosidic linkage.
– Polysaccharides are polymers of Lactose makes up around 2-8% of the solids
monosaccharides in milk. The name comes from the Latin
– Lipids are the tri-esters of fatty acids word for milk, plus the -ose ending used to
with glycerol. name sugars.
65. (d) Glycine (abbreviated as Gly or G) is the 74. (a) Polysaccharides are complex
smallest of the 20 amino acids commonly carbohydrates formed by polymerization
found in proteins, and indeed is the smallest of a large number of units called
possible (having a hydrogen substituent as its monosaccharides, starch is a glucosan
side-chain). The formula is NH2CH2COOH. polysaccharide and is the major reserve
food of animals. Cellulose is the structural
Its codons are GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG of
polysaccharide of plant cell wall. Sucrose
the genetic code.
is a disaccharide comprised of one unit
66. (c) Nucleic acids have phophodiester bond
of D-glucose and one unit of D-fructose.
in a nucleotide. Maltose is a disaccharide formed of two
67. (d) Agrobacterium tumefaciens introduces molecules of glucose held together, lactose is
t-DNA into the plant. disaccharide formed through condensation
68. (b) Sucrose is classified under non reducing of D-glucose and D-glucose. Glucose and
sugars because it does not have any free fructose are monosaccharides.
aldehyde or keto group. 75. (d) Glycogen is a polysaccharide, which
69. (d) Chitin or fungal cellulose is a nitrogen is synthesized and stored in the liver. It is
containing polysaccharide and hetero- released into the blood by breakdown of
polymer of NAG. simple glucose, and energy is released.
 EBD_7325
Chapter

10 Cell Cycle and Cell

Division

Topic 1: Phases of cell cycle – Interphase A

B C
1. DNA replication in bacteria occurs:  [2017]
(a) Within nucleolus Mitosis
(b) Prior to fission
(c) Just before transcription Interphase

(d) During S phase

D
2. A somatic cell that has just completed the S
Which one of the following is the correct
phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete indication of the stage/phase in the cell
of the same species, has : [2015 RS] cycle? [2009]
(a) same number of chromosomes but twice (a) C - Karyokinesis
the amount of DNA (b) D - Synthetic phase
(b) twice the number of chromosomes and (c) A - Cytokinesis
four times the amount of DNA (d) B - Metaphase
6. At what stage of the cell cycle are histone
(c) four times the number of chromosomes
proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell?
and twice the amount of DNA
(a) During G 2 stage of prophase [2005]
(d) twice the number of chromosomes and (b) During S-phase
twice the amount of DNA (c) During entire prophase
3. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount (d) During telophase
of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the 7. In the somatic cell cycle [2004]
initial amount is denoted as 2C? [2014] (a) In G1 phase DNA content is double the
(a) G0 and G1 (b) G1 and S amount of DNA present in the original
(c) Only G2 (d) G2 and M cell
(b) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
4. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle: [2014]
(c) a short interphase is followed by a long
(a) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell.
mitotic phase
(b) Amount of DNA remains same in each (d) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
cell. 8. In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in
(c) Chromosome number is increased. [1996, 2000]
(d) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in (a) G1 phase
each cell. (b) G2 phase
5. Given below is a schematic break-up of the (c) Mitotic metaphase
phases / stages of cell cycle: (d) S phase
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 121
9. A bacterium divides every 35 minutes. 14. Which of the following is not a characteristic
If a culture containing 105 cells per ml is feature during mitosis in somatic cells ? [2016]
grown for 175 minutes, what will be the cell (a) Spindle fibres
concentration per ml after 175 minutes? [1998] (b) Disappearance of nucleolus
(a) 5 × 105cells (b) 35 × 105cells (c) Chromosome movement
5
(c) 32 × 10 cells (d) 175 × 105cells (d) Synapsis
10. Which one of the following structures will 15. A stage in cell division is shown in the
not be common to mitotic cells of higher figure. Select the answer which gives
plants? [1997] correct identification of the stage with its
(a) cell plate (b) centriole characteristics. [NEET 2013]
(c) centromere (d) spindle fibres

Topic 2: M - phase / cytokinesis

11. Which of the following options gives the correct
sequence of events during mitosis?  [2017]
(a) Condensation → nuclear membrane
disassembly → arrangement at equator
→ centromere division → segregation
→ telophase
(b) C o n d e n s a t i o n → c r o s s i n g ove r (a) Late anaphase Chromosomes
→ nuclear membrane disassembly move away from
→ segregation → telophase
equatorial plate,
(c) Condensation → arrangement at equator Golgi complex
→ centromere division → segregation
not present
→ telophase
(b) Cytokinesis Cell plate formed,
(d) Condensation → nuclear membrane
mitochondria
disassembly → crossing over
distributed between
→ segregation → telophase
two daughter cells
12. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a
(c) Telophase Endoplasmic
protein degradation machinery necessary
for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC reticulum and
is defective in a human cell, which of the nucleolus not
following is expected to occur? [2017] reformed yet
(a) Chromosomes will be fragmented (d) Telophase Nuclear envelop
(b) Chromosomes will not segregate reforms, golgi
complex reforms
(c) Recombination of chromosome arms
will occur 16. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
homologous chromosomes is called
(d) Chromosomes will not condense
[NEET 2013]
13. Spindle fibres attach on to [2016]
(a) Kinetochore
(a) Telomere of the chromosome
(b) Bivalent
(b) Kinetochore of the chromosome
(c) Axoneme
(c) Centromere of the chromosome
(d) Equatorial plate
(d) Kinetosome of the chromosome
 EBD_7325
122 BIOLOGY
17. During the metaphase stage of mitosis spindle (a) satellites
fibres attach to chromosomes at (b) secondary constrictions
[NEET Kar. 2013] (c) kinetochores
(a) Centromere (d) centromere
(b) Kinetochore 21. During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to
(c) Both centromere and kinetochore disappear at: [2010]
(d) Centromere, kinetochore and areas (a) late prophase (b) early metaphase
adjoining centromere (c) late metaphase (d) early prophase
18. A stage of mitosis is shown in the 22. Which stages of cell division do the following
diagram. Which stage is it and what are its figures A and B represent respectively?  [2010]
characteristics? [NEET Kar. 2013]

Fig. A Fig. B
(a) Metaphase - Telophase
(a) Late prophase – chromosomes move to (b) Telophase - Metaphase
spindle equator (c) Late Anaphase - Prophase
(b) Metaphase – spindle fibres attached (d) Prophase - Anaphase
to kinetochores, centromeres split and 23. Synapsis occurs between: [2009]
chromatids separate (a) mRNA and ribosomes
(c) Metaphase – chromosomes moved to (b) spindle fibres and centromere
spindle equator chromosomes made up
(c) two homologous chromosomes
of two sister chromatids
(d) a male and a female gamete
(d) Anaphase – centromeres split and
24. If you are provided with root-tips of onion
chromatids separate and start moving
in your class and are asked to count the
away chromosomes, which of the following stages
19. Select the correct option with respect to can you most conveniently look into? [2004]
mitosis. [2011] (a) Metaphase (b) Telophase
(a) Chromatids separate but remain in the (c) Anaphase (d) Prophase
centre of the cell in anaphase. 25. Which one of the following precedes re-
(b) Chromatids start moving towards formation of the nuclear envelope during M
opposite poles in telophase. phase of the cell cycle [2004]
(c) Golgi complex and endoplasmic (a) Decondensation from chromosomes,
reticulum are still visible at the end of and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
prophase. (b) Transcription from chromosomes, and
(d) Chromosomes move to the spindle reassembly of the nuclear lamina
equator and get aligned along equatorial (c) Formation of the contractile ring, and
plate in metaphase formation of the phragmoplast
20. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to (d) Formation of the contractile ring, and
the spindle fibres by their: [2011M] transcription from chromosomes
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 123
26. Best material for the study of mitosis in (a) same number of chromosomes and
laboratory is [2002] same number of chromatids
(a) anther (b) root tip (b) half number of chromosomes and half
(c) leaf tip (d) ovary number of chromatids
27. If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then (c) half number of chromosomes and same
it becomes [2002] number of chromatids
(a) triploid (b) tetraploid (d) same number of chromosomes and half
number of chromatids
(c) diploid (d) monoploid
28. During cell division, the spindle fibres attach Topic 3: Meiosis - I/II
to the chromosome at a region called [2000] 36. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at  [2016]
(a) chromocentre (b) kinetochore (a) Pachytene (b) Leptotene
(c) centriole (d) chromomere (c) Zygotene (d) Diplotene
29. Microtubule is involved in the [1998] 37. Select the correct option : [2015 RS]
(a) cell division
(b) muscle contraction I II

(c) membrane architecture A Synapsis aligns (i) Anaphase-II

homologous chromosomes
(d) DNA recognition
B Synthesis of RNA and (ii) Zygotene
30. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a protein
single cell to make 128 cells? [1997]
C Action of enzyme (iii) G2-phase
(a) 7 (b) 14 recombinase
(c) 28 (d) 64 D Centromeres do not (iv) Anaphase-I
31. During cell division in apical meristem the separate but chromatids
nuclear membrane appears in [1997] move towards opposite
poles
(a) metaphase (b) anaphase
(v) Pachytene
(c) telophase (d) cytokinesis
32. Colchicine is employed to diploidize a haploid A B C D
cell as it [1996] (a) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
(a) inhibits mitosis (b) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
(b) inhibits formation of mitotic spindle (c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(c) allows replication of DNA twice in one (d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
cell cycle 38. Choose the correct option for the following
events of meiosis in correct sequence:
(d) inhibits formation of centromere
(A) Crossing over [2015 RS]
33. Best stage to observe shape, size and number
(B) Synapsis
of chromosomes is [1994]
(C) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(a) interphase (b) metaphase
(D) Disappearance of nucleolus
(c) prophase (d) telophase
(a) B → A → C → D
34. Number of chromatids at metaphase is  [1992] (b) A → B → C → D
(a) two each in mitosis and meiosis (c) A → B → D → C
(b) two in mitosis and one in meiosis (d) D → C → B → A
(c) two in mitosis and four in meiosis 39. The chromosomes in which centromere is
(d) one in mitosis and two in meiosis situated close to one end are: [2015 RS]
35. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in (a) Acrocentric (b) Telocentric
possessing [1991] (c) Sub-metacentric (d) Metacentric
 EBD_7325
124 BIOLOGY
40. The enzyme recombinase is required at which (a) transformation (b) chiasmata
stage of meiosis: [2014] (c) crossing over (d) synapsis
(a) Pachytene (b) Zygotene 47. Lampbrush chromosomes occur during  [1996]
(c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
(a) prophase of mitosis
41. During meiosis I, the chromosomes start
pairing at [NEET Kar. 2013] (b) diplotene of meiosis
(a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene (c) metaphase of meiosis
(c) Pachytene (d) Diplotene (d) interphase
42. During gamete formation, the enzyme 48. Meiosis is evolutionary significant because it
recombinase participates during [2012] result in [1994]
(a) Metaphase - I (b) Anaphase - II (a) genetically similar daughters
(c) Prophase - I (d) Prophase - II (b) four daughter cells
43. Given below is the representation of a certain (c) eggs and sperms
event at a particular stage of a type of cell (d) recombinations
division. Which is this stage? [2012] 49. Meiosis II performs [1993]
(a) separation of sex chromosomes
(b) synthesis of DNA and centromere
(c) separation of homologous chromosomes
(d) separation of chromatids
50. In meiosis, the daughter cells differ from
parent cell as well as amongst themselves due
(a) Prophase I during meiosis to [1991]
(b) Prophase II during meiosis (a) segregation, independent assortment
(c) Prophase of Mitosis and crossing over
(d) Both prophase and metaphase of mitosis (b) segregation and crossing over
44. Identify the meiotic stage in which the (c) independent assortment and crossing
homologous chromosomes separate while the over
sister chromatids remain associated at their
(d) segregation and independent assortment
centromeres? [2012M]
51. Segregation of mendelian factor (Aa) occurs
(a) Metaphase I (b) Metaphase II
during [1990]
(c) Anaphase I (d) Anaphase II
(a) Diplotene
45. Genetic map is one that [2003]
(a) shows the distribution of various species (b) Anaphase I
in a region (c) Zygotene/Pachytene
(b) establishes sites of the genes on a (d) Anaphase II
chromosome 52. Meiosis I is reductional division. Meiosis II
(c) establishes the various stages in gene is equational division due to [1988]
evolution (a) pairing of homologous chromosomes
(d) show the stages during the cell division (b) crossing over
46. The exchange of genetic material between (c) separation of chromatids
chromatids of paired homologous chromo­ (d) disjunction of homologous chromo­
somes during first meiotic division is called somes
[1996]
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 125

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) In bacteria DNA replication occurs in cells. Centromere holds the sister chromatids
cytoplasm prior to fission. Prokaryotes due in a chromosome. Spindle fibres appear
to their primitive nature do not show well during metaphase.
marked S-phase. 11. (a) The correct sequence of events occur
2. (b) When S-phase completes, a somatic cell during mitosis would be as follows
contains 2n number of chromosomes and 4C (i) DNA condensation occurs so that
content of DNA. chromosomes become visible during early to
3. (c) In M-phase both 4C and 2C of DNA are mid-prophase.
present in different stages. (ii) Disassembly of nuclear membrane begins
4. (a) During S or synthesis phase, replication at late prophase or transition to metaphase.
or duplication of chromosomal DNA and (iii) Chromosomes align at equator during
synthesis of histone proteins takes place. metaphase.
During this time the amount of DNA per cell (iv) Centromere division occurs during
doubles. anaphase forming daughter chromosomes.
5. (b) In schematic break-up of the phases/ (v) During anaphase segregation also occurs
stages of cell cycle, D synthetic phase is the in which daughter chromosomes separate and
correct indication of the stage/phase in the move to opposite poles.
cell cycle. (vi) Telophase finally leads to formation of
6. (b) Histone proteins are synthesized during two daughter nuclei.
S-phase of cell cycle. S-phase or synthetic 12. (b) During anaphase, Anaphase Promoting
phase is when synthesis of DNA takes place. Complex (APC) is a protein necessary for
7. (b) DNA replication is restricted to S- separation of daughter chromosomes. A
phase of interphase. G2 phase is followed defective APC will cause the chromosomes
by the mitotic phase which is shorter than fail to segregate during anaphase.
the interphase. In G2 phase, DNA content 13. (b) Attachment of microtubules to chromo-
is double than the amount present in the somes is mediated by kinetochores, which ac-
original cell. tively monitor spindle formation and prevent
8. (d) G1 phase, also called Gap I phase is premature anaphase onset during mitosis.
characterized by increase in cell size. In the 14. (d) Synapsis is the pairing of two homologous
S phase or synthetic phase DNA molecules chromosomes that occurs during meiosis. It
replicate. G2 is the second growth phase. allows matching-up of homologous pairs
Gap II is the phase where in there is intensive prior to their segregation, and possible
formation of RNAs and proteins. In the chromosomal crossover between them.
mitotic metaphase, the chromosomes are Synapsis takes place during prophase I, of
arranged at the equatorial plate. zygotene of meiosis.
9. (c) 175 min = 5 divisions 15. (d) Telophase is the stage of reconstitution of
35 nuclei. The chromosomes that have reached
Number of cells formed their respective poles decondense and lose
their individuality and collect in a mass in the
= (2)5 × 105 = 32 × 105 two poles. Nuclear envelope assemble around
10. (b) Plants cells do not have centrioles. Cell chromatin mass. Nucleolus, Golgi complex
plate appears during cytokinesis in dividing and ER reform.
 EBD_7325
126 BIOLOGY
16. (b) During zygotene, second stage of they regain their coiled composition. In
meiosis I, homologous chromosomes start anaphase the chromatids separate and move
pairing together forming a complex structure towards opposite poles. In prophase stage
called synaptonemal complex. The complex the chromosomes appear thread like and
formed by a pair of synapsed homologous individual chromatids cannot be seen.
chromosome is called a bivalent or a tetrad. 25. (b) At the beginning of M phase or
Crossing over occurs between non sister mitotic phase, the nuclear membrane and
chromatids of bivalent in the next stage. nucleolus disappear. The decondensation
17. (b) Kinetochores are small disc-shaped of chromosomes occur. But when nuclear
structures at the surface of the centromeres envelop start forming then nuclear lamina
which serve as the sites of attachment of assemble and chromosomes start condensing.
spindle fibres to the chromosomes that are 26. (b) Anther cells are used to study mitosis.
moved into position at the centre of the cell. 27. (b) Colchicine inhibits spindle formation,
Hence, the metaphase is characterised by all due to which chromatids are unable to
the chromosomes that proceed to lie at the separate during anaphase which results in
equator. doubling of chromosomes. So, if a diploid
18. (c) Metaphase chromosome is made up cell is treated with colchicine, there is
of two sister chromatides which are held doubling of chromosomes and it becomes
together by the centromere. Chromosomes tetraploid,. Its an alkaloid obtained from
are moved to spindle equator and get aligned Colchicum autumnale.
along metaphase plate through spindle fibres 28. (b) Kinetochore is the proteinaceous
to both poles. covering of centriole, to which spindle fibers
19. (d) In mitosis, chromosomes move to the attach.
equator and get aligned along equatorial 29. (a) The spindle fibres involved in cell
plate in metaphase. division is made of microtubules
20. (c) Kinetochores are large protein 30. (a) In mitosis a single cell divides to form
complexes that bind the centromeres of two daughter cells. It is an equational
chromosomes to the microtubules of mitotic division.
spindle fibres, during metaphase in the cell
31. (c) Metaphase is characterized by the
cycle.
appearance of spindle fibres. Anaphase
21. (d) During mitosis, endoplasmic reticulum
involves movement of chromatids towards
and nucleus begin to disappear at early
the poles. Cytokinesis marks the division of
prophase. Also, nucleus and cell become
the cytoplasm of the parent cell into daughter
spherical and DNA molecules condense to
cells.
form shortened chromosome.
32. (b) Colchicine is a mitotic poison which
22. (c) The figure A represents late anaphase
inhibits the formation of spindle fibres.
while figure B represents prophase stage of
33. (b) During metaphase, the centomeres
mitosis.
of the chromosome lie on the equatorial
23. (c) Synapsis is the pairing of two
plate according to their size and spatial
homologous chromosomes that occurs
arrangement. So it is the best time to count
during prophase I (zygotene stage) of meiosis.
the number and study the morphology of
The two chromosome move together and
chromosomes.
pairly corresponding along their lengths as
34. (a) In both mitotic and meiotic metaphase,
they lie side to side. The resulting structure
the number of chromatids per chromosome
is called a bivalent.
is two.
24. (a) Chromosomes are most distinct in
the metaphase stage. In the telophase stage
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 127
35. (d) In mitotic anaphase, the sister 44. (c) Anaphase I begins when the two
chromatids separate from each other and chromosomes of each bivalent (tetrad)
begin to move towards the opposite poles. separate and start moving toward opposite
36. (a) Meiosis is a process (discovered by poles of the cell as a result of the action of the
German biologist, Oscar Hertwig) where a spindle. In anaphase I, the sister chromatids
single cell divides twice to produce four cells remain attached at their centromeres and
containing half the original amount of genetic move together toward the poles.
information. These cells are our sex cells -
45. (b) Genetic mapping help in studying the
sperm in males, eggs in females. Crossing over
architecture of the chromosomes and of
is the process by which two chromosomes,
exchange some distal part of their DNA. entire genome.
This process occurs in the Pachytene stage 46. (c) The points of attachment between
of Prophase I of meiosis. homologous chromosomes after their
37. (a) Pachytene - Crossing over mediated by separation in diplotene are called chiasmata.
recombinase enzyme. The process of pairing of homologous
Z yg o t e n e - Pa i r i n g o f h o m o l o g o u s chromosomes is called synapsis. The
chromosomes phenomenon by which DNA isolated from
G2 phase - Synthesis of RNA and protein one type of cell, when introduced into
Anaphase I - Centromeres do not separate but another type, is able to bestow some of
chromatids move towards opposite poles. the properties of the former to the latter, is
38. (a) Synapsis → Crossing over → Termi- known as transformation.
nalisation of chiasmata → Disappearance of 47. (b) Lampbrush chromosomes are highly
nucleolus.
elongated bivalent chromosomes of
39. (a) In acrocentric chromosomes, one arm is
diplotene stage, which are held together by
very short but another is long.
chiasmata and have a large number of lateral
40. (a) The enzyme recombinase is required at
loops for rapid transcription.
Pachytene stage of meiosis. It catalyzes the
exchange of short pieces of DNA between 48. (d) Meiosis provides a chance for new
two long DNA strands, particularly the combinations of chromosomes mainly by the
exchange of homologous regions between the phenomenon of crossing over and random
paired maternal and paternal chromosomes. distribution of homologous chromosomes
41. (b) During zygotene, a substage of Prophase between daughter cells.
I of meiosis I, chromosomes start pairing 49. (d) Meiosis II is homotypic division
together by a process called synapsis. Such specially for maintanence of the haploid
paired chromosomes are called as homologous number, separating the chromatids from
chromosomes. A complex structure i.e., each other in a chromosome.
synaptonemal complex is formed by a pair of 50. (a) Due to segregation, independent
synapsed homologous chromosomes called a
assortment and crossing over at the time of
bivalent or a tetrad.
meiosis, daughter cells exhibit variation.
42. (c) Recombinase enzyme catalyzes the
51. (b) The paired homologous chromosomes
exchange of short pieces of DNA between
two long DNA strands, particularly the separate in Anaphase I of meiosis I so that
exchange of homologous regions between the each gamete receives one chromosome of
paired maternal and paternal chromosome in each homologous pair.
prophase - I of meiosis I. 52. (c) Meiosis II is an equational division
43. (a) The given diagram represents crossing which is meant for maintaining the haploid
over that takes place in pachytene stage of number produced by meiosis I and separating
prophase - I during meiosis. the two chromatids of a chromosome.
 EBD_7325
Chapter

11 Transport in Plants

Topic 1: Diffusion/Active Transport 5. The movement of mineral ions into plant root
cells as a result of diffusion is called [1996]
1. Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf
(a) osmosis
through the stomatal opening. Through
the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide (b) active absorption
diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. (c) passive absorption
Reason out the above statements using one of (d) endocytosis
following options [2016] 6. Active and passive transports across cell
(a) Both processes cannot happen simulta- membrane differ in [1993]
neously. (a) passive transport is nonselective
(b) Both processes can happen together (b) passive transport is along the
because the diffusion coefficient of
concentration gradient while active
water and CO2 is different.
transport is due to metabolic energy
(c) The above processes happen only during
night time. (c) active transport is more rapid
(d) One process occurs during day time, and (d) passive transport is confined to anions
the other at night. while active transport in confined to
2. Which of the following criteria does not cations
pertain to facilitated transport?  [NEET 2013]
Topic 2: Water Potential/Osmosis
(a) High selectivity
(b) Transport saturation 7. The water potential of pure water is : [2017]
(c) Uphill transport (a) Less than zero
(d) Requirement of special membrane (b) More than zero but less than one
proteins (c) More than one
3. Movement of ions or molecules in a direction (d) Zero
opposite to that of prevailing electrochemical
8. Which one gives the most valid and recent
gradient is known as [2000]
explanation for stomatal movements?
(a) diffusion
(a) Potassium influx and efflux [2015 RS]
(b) active transport
(b) Starch hydrolysis
(c) pinocytosis
(c) Guard cell photosynthesis
(d) brownian movement
(d) Transpiration
4. If a cell A with DPD 4 bars is connected to
9. When a fresh-water protozoan possessing
cell B, C, D whose OP and TP are respectively
a contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass
4 and 4, 10 and 5 and 7 and 3 bars, the flow
of water will be [1998] containing marine water, the vacuole will
(a) increase in number [2004]
(a) A and D to B and C
(b) disappear
(b) A to B, C and D
(c) increase in size
(c) B to A, C and D
(d) decrease in size
(d) C to A, B and D
Transport in Plants 129
10. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has Topic 3: Transport of Water in Plants
osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7
atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell 18. A column of water within xylem vessels of tall
B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure trees does not break under its weight because
3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The of: [2015 RS]
result will [2007] (a) Tensile strength of water
(a) no movement of water (b) Lignification of xylem vessels
(b) equilibrium between the two (c) Positive root pressure
(c) movement of water from cell A to B. (d) Dissolved sugars in water
(d) movement of water from cell B to A. 19. Root pressure develops due to : [2015 RS]
11. When water moves through a semi permeable (a) Low osmotic potential in soil
membrane then which of the following (b) Passive absorption
pressure develops? [2001] (c) Increase in transpiration
(a) O. P. (b) S. P (d) Active absorption
(c) T. P. (d) W. P 20. Roots play insignificant role in absorption of
12. Water potential of actively absorbing cells is water in : [2015 RS]
[1999] (a) Pistia (b) Pea
(a) always + ve (b) always – ve (c) Wheat (d) Sunflower
21. Guttation is the result of : [2011M]
(c) always 0 (d) always > 1
(a) diffusion (b) transpiration
13. The water potential and osmotic potential of
(c) osmosis (d) root pressure
pure water are [1998] 22. The rupture and fractionation do not usually
(a) zero and zero (b) 100 and 100 occur in the water column in vessel/tracheids
(c) zero and 100 (d) 100 and zero during the ascent of sap because of [2008]
14. With increase in the turgidity of a cell (a) lignified thick walls
surrounded by water the wall pressure will (b) cohesion and adhesion
(a) increase [1997] (c) weak gravitational pull
(b) decrease (d) transpiration pull
(c) fluctuate 23. The ability of the Venus fly trap to capture
(d) remain unchanged insects is due to: [2005]
15. Water potential in the leaf tissue is positive (a) specialised “muscle-like” cells
(+) during [1997] (b) chemical stimulation by the prey
(a) excessive transpiration (c) a passive process requiring no special
(b) low transpiration ability on the part of the plant
(c) excessive absorption (d) rapid turgor pressure changes
(d) guttation 24. Minerals absorbed by roots move to the leaf
16. A bottle filled with previously moistened through [1988]
mustard seeds and water was screw capped (a) xylem
tightly and kept in a corner. It blew up (b) phloem
suddenly after about half an hour. The (c) sieve tubes
phenomenon involved is [1990] (d) none of the above
25. In soil, the water available for root absorption
(a) diffusion (b) imbibition
is [1991, 99]
(c) osmosis (d) d.P.D
(a) gravitational water
17. Water potential is equal to [1988]
(b) capillary water
(a) ys + O.P. (b) ys = T.P.
(c) hygroscopic water
yp + yw (d)
(c) ys + yp
(d) combined water
 EBD_7325
130 BIOLOGY
26. The closure of lid of pitcher in a pitcher plant, 34. Stomata of a plant open due to [2003]
is due to [1995] (a) influx of calcium ions
(a) turgor movement (b) influx of potassium ions
(b) tropic movement (c) efflux of potassium ions
(c) paratonic movement
(d) influx of hydrogen ions
(d) autonomous movement
35. Stomata open and close due to [2002]
27. Water movement between cells is due to
(a) T.P. [1992] (a) circadian rhythm
(b) W.P. (b) genetic clock
(c) D.P.D (c) pressure of gases inside the leaves
(d) Incipient plasmolysis (d) turgor pressure of guard cells
28. Guttation is mainly due to [1992] 36. Which of the following plant is found to have
(a) root pressure (b) osmosis minimum transpiration [2001]
(c) transpiration (d) imbibition (a) Nerium (b) Hydrilla
29. The most widely accepted theory for ascent (c) Mango (d) Guava
of sap in trees is [1991] 37. Plants die from prolonged water-logging
(a) capillarity because [1997]
(b) role of atmospheric pressure (a) soil nutrients become very dilute
(c) pulsating action of living cell
(b) root respiration stops
(d) transpiration pull and cohesion theory
(c) cell sap in the plants becomes too dilute
of Dixon and Jolly
(d) nutrients leach down due to excess
30. The principal pathway of water translocation
in angiosperms is [1990] water
(a) sieve cells 38. Which is produced during water stress that
(b) sieve tube elements brings stomatal closure [1993]
(c) xylem vessel system (a) ethylene (b) abscisic acid
(d) xylem and phloem (c) ferulic acid (d) coumarin
39. An adaptation for better gaseous exchange in
Topic 4: Transpiration
plant leaves is [1993]
31. Transpiration and root pressure cause water (a) hair on lower surface
to rise in plants by : [2015 RS] (b) multiple epidermis
(a) Pulling and pushing it, respectively (c) waxy cuticle
(b) Pushing it upward (d) stomata on lower surface away from
(c) Pushing and pulling it, respectively direct sun rays.
(d) Pushing it upward
40. Which of the following is used to determine
32. Guard cells help in: [2009]
the rate of transpiration in plants? [1992]
(a) transpiration
(a) Porometer/hygrometer
(b) guttation
(c) fighting against infection (b) Potometers
(d) protection against grazing (c) Auxanometer
33. Potometer works on the principle of [2005] (d) Tensiometer / Barometer
(a) osmotic pressure 41. In terrestrial habitats, temperature and rainfall
(b) amount of water absorbed equals the conditions are influenced by [1992]
amount transpired (a) water transformations
(c) root pressure (b) transpiration
(d) potential difference between the tip of (c) thermoperiodism
the tube and that of the plant (d) translocation
Transport in Plants 131
42. Conversion of starch to organic acids is Topic 5: Phloem Transport
required for [1992]
47. Carbohydrates are commonly found as
(a) stomatal opening
starch in plant storage organs. Which of the
(b) stomatal closing
following five properties of starch (A-E) make
(c) stomatal formation
it useful as a storage material? [2008]
(d) stomatal activity
(A) Easily translocated
43. At constant temperature, the rate of transpira-
(B) Chemically non-reactive
tion will be higher at [1992]
(C) Easily digested by animals
(a) Sea level
(b) 1 km below sea level (D) Osmotically inactive
(c) 1 km above sea level (E) Synthesized during photosynthesis
(d) 1.5 km above sea level The useful properties are
44. In guard cells when sugar is converted into (a) (B) and (C) (b) (B) and (D)
starch, the stomatal pore [1992] (c) (A), (C) and (E) (d) (A) and (E)
(a) closes completely 48. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve
(b) opens partially tube members is supported by [2006]
(c) opens fully (a) P-proteins
(d) remains unchanged (b) mess flow involving a carrier and ATP
45. Transpiration is least in [1988] (c) cytoplasmic streaming
(a) good soil moisture (d) root pressure and transpiration pull
(b) high wind velocity 49. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes
(c) dry environment place in [1997]
(d) high atmospheric humidity (a) xylem (b) phloem
46. Phenyl mercuric acetate (PMA) results in (c) parenchyma (d) cambium
(a) reduced photosynthesis [1988] 50. Translocation of carbohydrate nutrients
(b) reduced transpiration usually occurs in the form of [1992]
(c) reduced respiration (a) Glucose (b) Maltose
(d) killing of plants (c) Starch (d) Sucrose
 EBD_7325
132 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) In actively growing plants, water is 6. (b) Active transport always involves the
continuously evaporating from the surface of expenditure of energy for the movement of
leaf cells through stomatal opening exposed substances against concentration gradient.
to air. This is called transpiration. Through 7. (d) By convention, the water potential of
the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide pure water at standard temperature, which is
diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. not under any pressure, is taken to be zero.
Simultaneously as both are the process of (Ψw = 0)
simple diffusion occurs in order of diffusion 8. (a) The opening and closing of stomata are
pressure gradient or diffusion coefficient. caused by influx and efflux of potassium ions
2. (c) Substance that have a hydrophilic (K+). The increase of K+ results in opening
moiety, find it difficult to pass through of stoma and decrease of K+ causes closing
the membrane, their movement has to be of stoma. The turgidity of guard cells induces
facilitated by the membrane protein without the opening of the pores of stomata found on
expenditure of ATP energy. Facilitated
the surface of leaves.
diffusion cannot cause net transport of
9. (d) A fresh water protozoan when placed
molecules from a low to a high concentration
in marine water medium, loss of water takes
or uphill transport. Transport rate reaches a
place i.e., exosmosis. Hence the contractile
maximum when all of the protein transporters
are being used (saturation). Facilitated vacuole will decrease in size.
diffusion is very specific. 10. (c) Movement of water will be from low
3. (b) Movement of ions against concentration DPD to high DPD i.e from A to B
gradient involves the expenditure of energy. 11. (a) The hydrostatic pressure developed
Diffusion involves the movement of solute inside the cell wall due to endosmosis
particles from region of higher concentration is called turgor pressure. Due to turgor
to a region of lower concentration. Pinocytosis pressure, the rigid cell wall offers resistance.
is cell drinking. Brownian movement is the This resistance which works in a direction
random to and fro movement of atoms and opposite to turgor pressure is the wall
molecules. pressure.
4. (c) D.P.D. or suction pressure (S.P.) 12. (b) Water potential is regarded as the
= O.P. – T. P. tendency of water to leave a system. Pure
Hence D.P.D. for A = 4 bars, B = 0 bars, C = water has the highest possible water potential
5 bars, D = 4 bars which is zero. All solutions have a water
We know that direction of movement of potential lower than that of pure water.
water is from lower D.P.D. (S.P.) to higher 13. (a) Osmotic potential is the potential of a
D.P.D. (S.P.). solution to cause movement of water into it
Thus flow will be from B to A, C, and D. across a semi- permeable membrane. Water
5. (c) Osmosis is the movement of solvent potential is the tendency of water to leave a
particles from a region of low solute system.
concentration to a region of high solute 14. (a) Wall pressure is equal and opposite to
concentration through a selectively
the turgor pressure.
permeable membrane. Active absorption
15. (d) Pure water has maximum water
involves use of ATP.
potential. Water potential in the leaf tissue
Transport in Plants 133
becomes greater than pure water under 23. (d) Bending of tentacles in Venus fly trap or
conditions of excessive humidity when the Drosera after coming in contact with an insect
leaves cannot lose water by transpiration. is thigmonastic or chemonastic movement
Hence, water is lost as droplets via hydathodes of variation or turgor movement.
by the process of guttation. The mechanism by which the trap snaps
16. (b) Imbibition pressures developed during shut involves a complex interaction between
germination of seeds and spores are of elasticity, turgor and growth. In the open,
higher magnitude. untripped state, the lobes are convex , but
17. (d) Water potential is defined as the in the closed state, the lobes are concave
difference between the chemical potential It is the rapid flipping of this bistable state
of water at any point in a system and that of that closes the trap, but the mechanism by
pure water under standard conditions. The which this occurs is still poorly understood.
unit of measurement of water potential is When the trigger hairs are stimulated, an
pascal, Pa (1 mega pascal, Mpa = 10 bars). action potential involving calcium ions  is
It is represented by greek letter PSi (Y). generated, which propagates across the lobes
Water potential has two components-solute and stimulates cells in the lobes and in the
potential which is always negative and midrib between them.
pressure potential which is usually positive. 24. (a) Minerals move upwards along with
Therefore water potential Yw is expressed water, through the tracheary elements of
as: xylem.
Yw = Ys + Yp 25. (b) After rain a portion of water percolates
18. (a) Due to tensile strength of water, a downward under the influence of gravity. It
column of water within xylem vessels of tall is not available to plants. Hygroscopic water
trees does not break under its weight. is also not available for plants because soil
19. (d) Active absorption creates root pressure. particles hold water by strong attractive
In this process, the expenditure of energy forces. Chemically bound water is water
takes place for the movement of substances combined with chemicals. Capillary water is
against concentration gradient. present in narrow spaces of soil and is held
20. (a) Pistia is a hydrophyte plant where in soil by capillary forces and is absorbed by
absorption of water by root is not important. root.
21. (d) The main cause of guttation in plants
26. (c) Pitcher plant is an insectivorous plant
is root pressure. During night when root
which catches insects. The paratonic
pressure is high, water drops ooze out with
movements are induced in response to an
the assistance of special structures called
external stimulus caused by insects due to
hydathodes which help in guttation.
which lids close and the insects are trapped
22. (b) Rupture and fractionation do not
inside the pitcher.
usually occur in the water column in vessel/
27. (c) Water is absorbed by a system having
tracheids during the ascent of sap because of
higher DPD from another system with lower
cohesion and tension. The water molecules
DPD. The net force with which water is
have a great mutual attraction to each other
drawn into a cell is equal to the difference of
or tremendous cohesive power which is
osmotic pressure (OP) and turgor pressure
sometimes as much as 350 atmospheres.
known as diffusion pressure deficit (DPD).
Thus, the transpiration pull develops a
DPD = OP – TP
negative pressure in the uppermost xylem
28. (a) Loss of water from margins of leaves
cells. It is transmitted from there into the
xylem of stems, and then to the roots. is called guttation. Guttation occurs when
 EBD_7325
134 BIOLOGY
transpiration rate is very low as compared to 37. (b) Under water logged conditions, roots
rate of water absorption. Thus root pressure die due to lack of air for respiration.
is developed and water is pushed out through 38. (b) During scarcity of water in the soil,
stomata like pores called hydathodes. It stress hormone abscisic acid is produced
occurs in more saturated atmosphere. which brings about stomatal closure. ABA
29. (d) Transpiration pull and cohesion theory inhibits the uptake of K+ by the guard cells
was put forward by Dixon and Jolly in 1894. and promotes leakage of malic acid from
According to this theory water rises due to guard cell. This results in loss of water from
the transpiration pull, continuity of water guard cell due to its lower osmotic potential.
column and the cohesive power of water Guard cell becomes flaccid leading to closure
molecules from the lower part of the roots of stomatal aperture. ABA also causes
to the higher peaks of the trees.
stomatal closure under high concentration
30. (c) Water movement occurs through the
of CO2 in the guard cells.
tracheary elements of xylem.
39. (d) Stomata present on lower surface of
31. (a) Transpiration creates pulling (Negative
pressure) force. Root pressure creates positive plant leaves effectively exchange gases
pressure developed in xylem. It is measured without allowing much loss of water from
by manometer. the leaves.
32. (a) Guard cells help in transpiration. 40. (b) Potometer is an apparatus used for
Transpiration is the evaporation of water measuring the rate of transpiration.
from the aerial parts of plants, especially 41. (b) Transpiration is responsible for
leaves but also stems, flowers and roots. saturation of the atmosphere.
Stomatal opening allows the diffusion 42. (a) Starch is converted to malic acid
of carbon dioxide and oxygen during (organic acid) through the action of an
photosynthesis. enzyme phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
33. (b) Potometer : It is an apparatus for (PEPC) under condition of high pH when
measuring the rate of transpiration. most of the CO2 is utilized due to high
34. (b) During day time, due to photosynthesis,
photosynthetic rate during daytime.
malic acid forms, which breaks into H+ and
43. (d) The rate of transpiration is inversely
malate. H+ ions move out of guard cells and
proportional to the atmospheric pressure.
K+ ions enter forming potassium malate
which makes guard cells turgid and stomata Increased height above the sea level lowers
opens. the atmospheric pressure and increases the
35. (d) Turgor pressure is the pressure that rate of evaporation.
develops in a cell due to osmotic diffusion 44. (a) When sugar is converted into starch, the
of water inside it and is responsible for osmotic concentration of guard cells fall and
pushing the membrane against cell wall. they lose water to adjacent cells and stomata
Stomata open under conditions of increased closes.
turgor pressure in guard cells and stomata 45. (d) Transpiration is a process of loss of
close under conditions of decreased turgor water in the form of vapours from the aerial
pressure of guard cells. When turgid, they parts of the plants. Transpiration is inversely
swell and bend outward. As a result, the proportional to the atmospheric humidity.
stomatal aperture opens. When they are The rate of transpiration would be higher
flaccid, the tension from the wall is released
when humidity is low.
and stomatal aperture closes.
46. (b) Phenyl Mercuric Acetate (PMA) is
36. (a) Nerium is a xerophytic plant and has
an antitranspirant. Antitranspirants are
sunken stomata, confined to lower epidermis
to reduce the rate of transpiration. compounds applied to the leaves of plants
Transport in Plants 135
to reduce transpiration without affecting role in living organisms. Starch and other
gaseous exchange. They are used on christmas polysaccharides serve as energy storage
trees, cut flowers, newly transplanted shrubs, in plants, particularly in seeds, tubers, etc.
and in other applications to preserve and which provide a major energy source for
protect plants from drying out too quickly. animals, including humans.
They have ‘also been reportedly used to 48. (a) P-protein is the supporting factor for
protect leaves from salt burn and fungal the translocation of organic solutes in sieve
diseases. tubes.
Anti Transpirants are of two types: 49. (b) Minerals can move upward and
1. Metabolic inhibitors downward (bidirectional movement) as
2. Film forming antitranspirants
well as laterally in phloem. Phloem plays an
47. (b) Carbohydrates are commonly found
important role in translocation of minerals.
as starch in plant storage organs. It is a
chemically non-reactive and osmotically 50. (d) Translocation of organic solutes occur
inactive polysaccharide with a molecular through sieve tubes in the form of sucrose.
weight. Carbohydrates perform a vital Transportable form of sugar is sucrose.
 EBD_7325
12
Chapter

Mineral Nutrition

Topic 1: Mineral Elements (a) Phosphorus (b) Calcium

(c) Potassium (d) Sulphur
1. In which of the following, all three are
8. Which one of the following is not an
macronutrients? [2016]
essential mineral element for plants while
(a) Boron, zinc, manganese
the remaining three are? [2011M]
(b) Iron, copper, molybdenum
(a) Iron (b) Manganese
(c) Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
(c) Cadmium (d) Phosphorus
(d) Nitrogen, calcium, phosphorus
9. Which one of the following is essential for
2. Minerals known to be required in large
photolysis of water ? [2011M]
amounts for plant growth include : [2015 RS]
(a) Manganese (b) Zinc
(a) calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper
(c) Copper (d) Boron
(b) potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron
10. Which one of the following is not a
(c) magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc
micronutrient? [2010]
(d) phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium
(a) Molybdenum (b) Magnesium
3. Which of the following elements is a
(c) Zinc (d) Boron
constituent of biotin? [NEET Kar. 2013]
11. Manganese is required in: [2009]
(a) Sulphur (b) Magnesium
(a) plant cell wall formation
(c) Calcium (d) Phosphorus
(b) photolysis of water during photosynthesis
4. Best defined function of Manganese in green
(c) chlorophyll synthesis
plants is : [2012]
(d) nucleic acid synthesis
(a) Photolysis of water
12. A plant requires magnesium for [2007]
(b) Calvin cycle
(a) protein synthesis
(c) Nitrogen fixation
(b) chlorophyll synthesis
(d) Water absorption
(c) cell wall development
5. Which one of the following is correctly (d) holding cells together.
matched ? [2012] 13. Which one of the following elements is not
(a) Passive transport of nutrients - ATP an essential micronutrient for plant growth?
(b) Apoplast - Plasmodesmata (a) Zn (b) Cu [2007]
(c) Potassium - Readily immobilisation (c) Ca (d) Mn
(d) Bakane of rice seedlings - F. Skoog
14. The most abundant element present in the
6. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires
plants is [2004]
[2012M]
(a) Carbon (b) Nitrogen
(a) zinc (b) iron
(c) niacin (d) copper (c) Manganese (d) Iron
7. Which one of the following elements in 15. The major role of minor elements inside
plants is not remobilised? [2011] living organisms is to act as [2003]
Mineral Nutrition 137
(a) binder of cell structure Topic 2: Plant diseases/mineral absorption
(b) co-factors of enzymes
(c) building blocks of important amino 23. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and
acids potassium are visible first in: [2014]
(d) constituent of hormones (a) Senescent leaves (b) Young leaves
(c) Roots (d) Buds
16. The major portion of the dry weight of
24. The deficiencies of micronutrients, not
plants comprises of [2003]
only affects growth of plants but also vital
(a) Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
functions such as photosynthetic and
(b) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium mitochondrial electron flow. Among the list
(c) Calcium, magnesium and sulphur given below, which group of three elements
(d) Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen shall affect most, both photosynthetic and
17. Boron in green plants assists in [2003] mitochondrial electron transport: [2005]
(a) sugar transport (a) Co, Ni, Mo (b) Ca, K, Na
(b) activation of enzymes (c) Mn, Co, Ca (d) Cu, Mn, Fe
(c) acting as enzyme cofactor 25. Grey spots of oat are caused by deficiency
(d) photosynthesis of [2003]
18. Passive absorption of minerals depend on (a) Fe (b) Cu
(a) temperature [2001] (c) Zn (d) Mn
26. The plants grown in magnesium-deficient
(b) temperature and metabolic inhibitor
but urea sprayed soil would show [2000]
(c) metabolic inhibitor
(a) deep green foliage
(d) humidity
(b) early flowering
19. Which one of the following is a micronutrient (c) yellowing of leaves
for plants? [1996] (d) loss of pigments in petals
(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium 27. Which of the following is not caused by
(c) Manganese (d) Nitrogen deficiency of mineral nutrition? [1997]
20. Which one of the following is not an essential (a) Necrosis
element for plants ? [1996] (b) Chlorosis
(a) Potassium (b) Iron (c) Etiolation
(c) Iodine (d) Zinc (d) Shortening of internodes
21. Phosphorous and nitrogen ions generally get 28. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship
depleted in soil because they usually occur between roots of higher plants and [1995]
(a) virus (b) fungi
as [1989]
(c) bacteria (d) blue green algae
(a) neutral ions
29. The association between blue-green algae
(b) negatively charged ions
and fungi occurs in [1995]
(c) positively charged ions (a) lichens (b) symbiosis
(d) both positively and negatively charged (c) cannibism (d) mycorrhiza
but disproportionate mixture
Topic 3: Metabolism of Nitrogen
22. Which one is an essential mineral, not
constituent of any enzyme but stimulates the 30. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric
activity of many enzymes [1989] nitrogen in leguminous plants is : [NEET 2013]
(a) Zn (b) Mn (a) Ammonia (b)
(c) K (d) Mg (c) Glutamate (d)
 EBD_7325
138 BIOLOGY
31. Which two distinct microbial processes are 35. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing
responsible for the release of fixed nitrogen symboint is found in : [2011]
as dinitrogen gas (N2) to the atmosphere? (a) Alnus (b) Cycas
[NEET Kar. 2013] (c) Cicer (d) Pisum
(a) Anaerobic ammonium oxidation, and 36. Nitrifying bacteria : [2011]
denitrification (a) oxidize ammonia to nitrates
(b) Aerobic nitrate oxidation, and nitrite (b) convert free nitrogen to nitrogen
reduction compounds
(c) Decomposition of organic nitrogen, and (c) convert proteins into ammonia
conversion of dinitrogen to ammonium (d) reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
compounds 37. The function of leg haemoglobin in the root
(d) Enteric fermentation in cattle, and nodules of legumes is : [2011]
nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium in root (a) inhibition of nitrogenase activity
nodules of legumes (b) oxygen removal
32. Which one of the following is wrong (c) nodule differentiation
statement? [2012] (d) expression of nif gene
(a) Anabaena and Nostoc are capable of 38. An element playing important role in
fixing nitrogen in free living state also. nitrogen fixation is : [2010]
(b) Root nodule forming nitrogen fixers live (a) Molybdenum (b) Copper
as aerobes under free-living conditions. (c) Manganese (d) Zinc
(c) Phosphorus is a constituent of cell 39. One of the free -living, anaerobic nitrogen -
membranes, certain nucleic acids and fixer is: [2010]
cell proteins. (a) Beijernickia (b) Rhodospirillum
(d) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are (c) Rhizobium (d) Azotobacter
chemoautotrophs. 40. Which of the following is a symbiotic
33. Read the following four statements (A-D). nitroger fixer? [2009]
(A) Both, photophosphorylation and (a) Azotobacter (b) Frankia
oxidative phosphorylation involve (c) Azolla (d) Glomus
uphill transport of protons across the 41. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is
membrane. brought about by: [2008]
(B) In dicot stems, a new cambium (a) Bradyrhizobium (b) Clostridium
originates from cells of pericycle at the (c) Frankia (d) Azorhizobium
time of secondary growth. 42. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium
(C) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and which can also form symbiotic association
Petunia are polyandrous. with the water fern Azolla is [2004]
(D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in free- (a) Tolypothrix (b) Chlorella
living state also in soil. (c) Nostoc (d) Anabaena
How many of the above statements are 43. Which one of the following mineral elements
correct? [2012M] plays an important role in biological nitrogen
(a) Two (b) Three fixation ? [2003]
(c) Four (d) One (a) Molybdenum (b) Copper
34. For its action, nitrogenase requires [2012M] (c) Manganese (d) Zinc
(a) Mn2+ 44. Enzyme involved in nitrogen assimilation
(b) light [2001]
(c) high input of energy (a) nitrogenase (b) nitrate reductase
(d) super oxygen radicals (c) transferase (d) transaminase
Mineral Nutrition 139
45. Which aquatic fern performs nitrogen 47. Which of the following is a free living aerobic
fixation? [2001] nonphotosynthetic nitrogen-fixer?
(a) Azolla (b) Nostoc [1997]
(c) Salvia (d) Salvinia (a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter
46. In plants inulin and raphides [2001] (c) Azospirillum (d) Nostoc
(a) reserved food material 48. Which of the following can fix atmospheric
(b) wastes nitrogen ? [1995]
(c) secretory material (a) Albugo (b) Cystopus
(d) insect attracting material (c) Saprolegnia (d) Anabaena
 EBD_7325
140 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, amino acid containing a free carboxyl group.
calcium, sulfur and magnesium are the Zinc is a cofactor for carboxypeptidase. In
macronutrients. Digestion of carboxypeptidase, requires zinc
2. (d) Phosphorus, potassium, sulphur and for its protein degrading action.
calcium play an important role in plants 7. (b) Calcium is not remobilized from
growth. These minerals are required in the leaves to the fruits, like potassium,
large amount. Phosphorus is required for all phosphorus and sulphur. It occurs
phosphorylation reactions and constitution abundantly in a non-exchangeable form such
of cell membrane, nucleic acids and some as anorthite (CaAl2Si2O8).
proteins. Potassium is related with protein 8. (c) Cadmium is not an essential element for
synthesis, closing and opening of stomata and plants. Phosphorus is a macronutrient and
activation of enzyme. Calcium regulates iron and manganese are micronutrients for
metabolic activities, function of cell membrane plants.
9. (a) Photolysis is catalysed by the protein-
and stabilizes the structure of chromosomes.
bound inorganic complex containing
Sulphur is the main constituent of the amino
manganese ions (oxygen evolving complex)
acids, cystine and methionine, coenzymes and
of photosystem II.
vitamins.
10. (b) Magnesium is a macronutrient.
3. (a) Biotin, also known as vitamin H, is a
Micronutrients are essential elements that
water-soluble B-vitamin. It is a coenzyme
are required by plants in small amounts.
for carboxylase enzymes, involved in the
They include Fe, Cu, B, Mo, Mn, Cl, and Ni.
synthesis of fatty acids, isoleucine, valine and
Macronutrients, on the other hand, are those
in gluconeogenesis. Sulphur is a constituent
essential elements that are required by plants
of biotin. in larger amounts. The examples include C,
4. (a) The best defined function of manganese H, O, N, S, P, K, Ca and Mg.
is in the splitting of water to liberate oxygen 11. (b) Manganese is essential for many plant
during photosynthesis. It is absorbed in the functions. Some of them are:
form of manganese ions (Mn2+). It activates
• The assimilation of carbon dioxide in
many enzymes involved in photosynthesis, photosynthesis.
respiration and nitrogen metabolism.
• It is involved in the Hill Reaction where
5. (c) Potassium immobilisation is the water is split during photosynthesis.
conversion of water soluble potassium into
• It aids in the synthesis of chlorophyll
water insoluble form. Readily available and in nitrate assimilation.
potassium constitutes about 1% of total
• Manganese activates fat forming
potassium available in soil, whereas slightly enzymes.
soluble potassium accounts for about 98%.
• It functions in the formation of
6. (a) Carboxypeptidase is an exopeptidase
riboflavin, ascorbic acid, and carotene.
enzyme secreted by the pancreas that acts
• It functions in electron transport during
only on the peptide linkage of a terminal
photosynthesis.
Mineral Nutrition 141

12. (b) X —CH3 in Chl a 19. (c) Nutrients which are required in large
—CHO in Chl b
amounts in functioning of plant are
CH3
H3C I II known as macronutrients eg. Ca, Mg, N.
N N
Porphyrin H– Mg –H Nutrients required in trace amounts are
ring
(Head)
H3C
N N
CH3
known as micronutrients. Manganese is
III IV
a micronutrient for plants essential for
0 synthesis of chlorophyll. It is also required
0 0
Ester
0 for activation of enzymes of respiration and
linkage 0
CH3 nitrogen metabolism.
CH3 20. (c) Iodine is the only such element which is
H3C
CH3
an essential mineral for animals but is not
CH3
required by plants.
Phytol
(Tail) H3C 21. (d) Phosphorus and nitrogen are essential
H3C elements normally required in large
CH3
H3C
H3C
quantities by plants.
β Carotene 22. (c) Potassium is not a constituent of any
enzyme but is an activator of enzymes.
A plant requires magnesium for chlorophyll Potassium is an essential mineral and is
synthesis. All four rings bind with metal atom found in more amounts in actively dividing
magnesium (Mg++ ), which remain present cells such as buds, young leaves, root tips,
at the center of chlorophyll molecule. etc. It has some other roles like regulating
13. (c) Essential micro elements are Fe, Mn, Zn, stomatal movement and protein synthesis.
B, Cu, Mo and essential macronutrionts are 23. (a) The parts of the plants that show the
C,H, N, P, S, Ca, K, Mg. deficiency symptoms also depend on the
14. (a) Manganese and iron are micronutrients mobility of the element in the plant. For
required in trace amounts. Concentration element that are actively mobilised within
of nitrogen in dry matter is 15000 mg./gm. the plants and exported to young developing
Concentration of carbon in dry matter is tissues, the deficiency symptoms tend to
45,000 mg / gm. appear first in the older tissues. For example,
15. (b) Minor elements are those which are nitrogen, potassium and magnesium are
required by plants in very small amounts. visible first in the senescent leaves.
These elements have a significant role 24. (d) Copper : Electron transfer
in enzyme activities (zinc activates
+ 2+
carboxylases, carbonic anhydrase and ( Cu Cu )
various dehydrogenases). Maintenance of carbohydrate / nitrogen balance,
16. (a) The major portion of the dry weight of chlorophyll synthesis.
plants comprises of carbon, hydrogen and
Iron : Electron transport in photosynthesis
oxygen. 2+ 3+
17. (a) Manganese is an activator of enzymes. and respirations ( Fe Fe )
Copper is essential for photosynthesis. development of chloroplasts, chlorophyll
Molybdenum is a cofactor of enzymes.
and other pigments, protein synthesis.
Boron assists in sugar transport.
Manganese : Metabolism and photolytic
18. (a) Roots do not spend any energy on this
evolution of oxygen.
type of mineral absorption. So application
25. (d) Grey spots of oat are caused by deficiency
of a metallic inhibitor will not retard the
of Manganese.
process.
 EBD_7325
142 BIOLOGY
26. (c) Deficiency of magnesium produces process that converts fixed nitrogen to
chlorosis due to breakdown of chlorophyll. atmospheric nitrogen gas, N2. In marine
Chlorosis is a condition in which plant nitrogen cycle, anaerobic oxidation of
foliage produces insufficient chlorophyll. ammonium coupled to nitrate reduction,
When this happens, leaves do not have contributes substantially to N2–production
their normal green colour; they may be pale in marine sediments.
green, yellow, or yellow-white. The affected 32. (c) Phosphorus is a constituent of nucleic
plant has little or no ability to manufacture acids of both DNA and RNA but absent in
carbohydrates and may die unless the cell membranes and cell proteins.
cause of its chlorophyll insufficiency is 33. (c) All the four statements are correct.
treated. Specific nutrient deficiencies (often 34. (c) Nitrogenases are the enzymes used by
aggravated by high pH) cause chlorosis, some organisms to fix atmospheric nitrogen
which may be corrected by supplemental gas. It is the only known family of enzymes
feedings of iron, magnesium or nitrogen that accomplish this process. Nitrogenase
compounds in various combinations. Some requires high input of energy & anaerobic
pesticides, particularly herbicides, may also condition.
cause chlorosis, both to target weeds and 35. (b) A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen
occasionally to the crop being treated. fixing symbiont is found in Cycas.
36. (a) The nitrifying bacteria bring about
27. (c) Etiolation is the response of a plant
transformations of ammonia to nitrite and
to stimuli. When plant seeds are grown
of nitrite to nitrate.
in insufficient light, (either in partial or
37. (b) Leghaemoglobin is the haemoglobin
complete absence of light) the seedlings will
like red pigment found in root nodules
have long, weak stems, smaller and fewer
of legumes and reported to function as
leaves because of longer internodes, and a
an oxygen-carrying pigment in symbiotic
pale yellow colour (chlorosis). This is due to
nitrogen fixation.
a lack of chlorophyll. The increase in height 38. (a) Molybdenum is a micronutrient that
helps the plant reach a possible source of plays an important role in nitrogen fixation.
light faster. It is a part of nitrate reductase enzyme that
28. (b) Symbiotic relationship between roots of helps in nitrogen fixation.
higher plants and fungi is called mycorrhiza, 39. (b) Rhodospirillum is a free-living, anaerobic
e.g. Pinus roots are associated with fungal nitrogen fixer bacteria. It can synthesize its
hyphae. food in presence of light under anaerobic
29. (a) In lichens, the association between an conditions.
algae and a fungus is considered to be a Beijernickia and Azotobacter are free living
symbiotic one. In this association, algae aerobic nitrogen fixing bacteria. Rhizobium
provides food to fungi. is a symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria.
30. (a) Ammonia is the first stable compound 40. (b) Frankia is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer in
produced in fixation of atmospheric nitrogen root nodules of several non-legume plants
in leguminous plant. A molecule of nitrogen like Casurina and Alnus.
is changed into two molecules of ammonia. 41. (c) Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of
It requires 16 ATP, a source of electron Alnus is brought about by Frankia. It is a
donor ferredoxin, hydrogen donor NADPH symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria in root
or FMNH2 and dinitrogenase enzyme. nodules of several non-legume plants like
31. (a) In the global nitrogen cycle, bacterial Casuarina (Australian Pine), Myrica and
denitrification is recognised as important Alnus (Alder).
Mineral Nutrition 143
42. (d) The freshwater fern Azolla harbours 45. (a) Azolla performs nitrogen fixation through
Anabaena (a blue green alga) in its leaf its colonies of Anabaena azollae, which have
cavities. Chlorella is simply a green alga. the capacity to fix atmospheric nitrogen.
Nostoc is a free living cyanobacteria involved 46. (a) Inulin and raphides crystals are reserve
in N2 fixation and so is Tolypothrix. materials in plants. Inulin is a polysaccharide
43. (a) Molybdenum is a component of (a polymer of fructose) and is present in
nitrogenase and nitrate reductase involved compositae. Raphides are bunches of needle
during N2 fixation. Copper is essential for like crystal of calcium oxalate found in
photosynthesis and respiration. Zinc is certain plant cells.
involved in synthesis of auxin. Manganese is 47. (b) Rhizobium is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer.
Azospirillum is a nitrogen fixing fungus and
an activator of enzymes involved in nitrogen
Nostoc is anaerobic.
metabolism.
48. (d) Anabaena is a nitrogen fixing blue-green
44. (a) A molecule of N2 is changed to ammonia
alga composed of barrel-shaped cells held in
by nitrogenase. Transaminase transfers a gelatinous matrix. So it can fix atmospheric
amino group from one substrate to another. nitrogen.
 EBD_7325
Chapter

13 Photosynthesis

Topic 1: Photosynthetic Apparatus 9. Suppose an aquatic plant is placed in a test

tube containing distilled water and the tube
1. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons
is stoppered. The tube is left outdoors for 24
are found in [2016]
hours and the pH value of the water is then
(a) stroma
measured at regular intervals. Which of the
(b) lumen of thylakoids
following is the most probable result? [1997]
(c) inter membrane space
(a) The pH value is lowest just before
(d) antennae complex sunrise
2. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell (b) The pH value is highest just before
vacuoles are [2016] sunrise
(a) Xanthophylls (b) Chlorophylls (c) The pH value is lowest at noon
(c) Carotenoids (d) Anthocyanins (d) The pH value is lowest just before
3. The structures that are formed by stacking of sunset.
organized flattened membranous sacs in the 10. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in:
chloroplasts are : [2015 RS]
(a) grana [2005]
(a) Grana (b) Stroma lamellae
(c) Stroma (d) Cristae (b) pyrenoid
4. Chromatophores take part in: [2015 RS] (c) stroma
(a) Growth (b) Movement (d) both grana and stroma
(c) Respiration (d) Photosynthesis 11. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less
5. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because
of: [2014] of : [2005]
(a) Rhodospirillum (b) Spirogyra (a) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundle
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) Ulva sheath cells.
6. Pigment-containing membranous extensions (b) Rubisco in C4 plants has higher affinity
in some cyanobacteria are : [NEET 2013] for CO2.
(a) Basal bodies (c) Four carbon acids are the primary initial
(b) Pneumatophores CO2 fixation products.
(c) Chromatophores
(d) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated
(d) Heterocysts via PEP carboxylase.
7. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in: [2009]
12. Plants adapted to low light intensity have
(a) Oscillatoria (b) Rhodospirillum
[2004]
(c) Chlorobium (d) Chromatium
(a) larger photosynthetic unit size that the
8. The core metal of chlorophyll is [1997] sun plants
(a) iron (b) magnesium (b) higher rate of CO2 fixation that the sun
(c) nickel (d) copper plants
Photosynthesis 145
(c) more extended root system (c) chlorophyll is least effective in absorbing
(d) leaves modified to spines green light
13. Which element is located at the centre of the (d) green light allows maximum
porphyrin ring in chlorophyll ? [2003] photosynthesis
(a) Manganese (b) Calcium 20. The principle of limiting factors was
(c) Magnesium (d) Potassium proposed by [1996]
14. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of (a) Blackman (b) Hill
solar radiations are primarily absorbed by (c) Arnol (d) Liebig
carotenoids of the higher plants? [2003] 21. Nine-tenth of all photosynthesis of world
(a) Violet and blue (b) Blue and green (85-90%) is carried out by [1994]
(c) Green and red (d) Red and violet (a) large trees with millions of branches
15. Which of the following absorb light energy and levess
for photosynthesis? [2002] (b) algae of the ocean
(a) Chlorophyll (b) Water molecule (c) chlorophyll containing ferns of the
(c) O2 (d) RuBP forest
16. At a temperature above 35ºC [1992] (d) scientists in the laboratories
(a) rate of photosynthesis will decline 22. Maximum solar energy is trapped by [1993]
earlier than that of respiration (a) planting trees
(b) rate of respiration will decline earlier (b) cultivating crops
than that of photosynthesis (c) growing algae in tanks
(c) there is no fixed pattern (d) growing grasses
(d) both decline simultaneously 23. All types of plastids possess essentially the
17. Protochlorophyll differs from chlorophyll in same structure because they [1992]
lacking [1998] (a) perform the same function
(a) 2 hydrogen atoms in one of its pyrrole (b) store food materials like starch, fat and
rings protein
(b) 2 hydrogen atoms in two of its pyrrole
(c) occur in aerial parts
rings
(d) can transform from one form to another
(c) 4 hydrogen atoms in one of its pyrrole
24. Chlorophyll a occurs in [1992]
rings
(a) all photosynthetic autotrophs
(d) 4 hydrogen atoms in two of its pyrrole
rings (b) in all higher plants
18. Chlorophyll ‘a’ molecule at its carbon (c) all oxygen liberating autotrophs
atom 3 of the Pyrrole ring II has one of the (d) all plants except fungi
following [1996, 97] 25. Photosynthetic pigments found in the
(a) aldehyde group (b) methyl group chloroplasts occur in [1991]
(c) carboxyl group (d) magnesium. (a) thylakoid membranes
19. Most plants are green in colour because (b) plastoglobules
[1997] (c) matrix
(a) the atmosphere filters out all the colours (d) chloroplast envelope
of the visible light spectrum except 26. A very efficient converter of solar energy
green with net productivity of 2-4 kg/m2 or more
(b) green light is the most effective is the crop of [1989]
wavelength region of the visible (a) wheat (b) sugarcane
spectrum in sunlight for photosynthesis
(c) rice (d) bajra
 EBD_7325
146 BIOLOGY
27. The size of chlorophyll molecule is [1988] 34. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited
(a) Head 15 × 15 Å, tail 25 Å chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is
(b) Head 20 × 20 Å, tail 25 Å (a) iron-sulphur protein     [2007]
(c) Head 15 × 15 Å, tail 20 Å (b) ferredoxin
(d) Head 10 × 12 Å, tail 25 Å (c) quinone
(d) cytochrome
Topic 2: Light Reaction
35. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form
28. Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop of phytochrome is [2007]
have been instrumental in the discovery of (a) 680 nm (b) 720 nm
[2016] (c) 620 nm (d) 640 nm
(a) photophosphorylation and non-cyclic 36. In photosystem-1the first electron acceptor
electron transport is [2006]
(b) two photosystems operating (a) Cytochrome
simultaneously
(b) Plastocyanin
(c) photophosphorylation and cyclic
(c) An iron-sulphur protein
electron transport
(d) Ferredoxin
(d) oxidative phosphorylation
37. Which pigment system is inactivated in red
29. Cytochromes are found in : [2015 RS]
(a) Outer wall of mitochondria drop? [2001]
(b) Cristae of mitochondria (a) PS -I and PS -II (b) PS-I
(c) Lysosomes (c) PS -II (d) None of these
(d) Matrix of mitochondria 38. Cytochrome is [2001]
30. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis (a) Metallo - Flavo protein
comes from water molecules. Which one of (b) Fe-containing porphyrin pigment
the following pairs of elements is involved in (c) Glycoprotein
this reaction? [2015 RS] (d) Lipid
(a) Manganese and Potassium 39. The first step of photosynthesis is [2000]
(b) Magnesium and Molybdenum (a) excitation of electron of chlorophyll by
(c) Magnesium and Chlorine
a photon of light
(d) Manganese and Chlorine
(b) formation of ATP
31. In photosynthesis the light-independent
(c) attachment of CO2 to 5 carbon sugar
reactions take place at : [2015 RS]
(a) Photosystem-I (d) ionisation of water
(b) Photosystem-II 40. Photochemical reactions in the chloroplast
(c) Stromal matrix are directly involved in [2000]
(d) Thylakoid lumen (a) Formation of phosphoglyceric acid
32. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the (b) Fixation of carbon dioxide
formation of [2009] (c) Synthesis of glucose and starch
(a) ATP and NADPH (d) Photolysis of water and phosphorylation
(b) ATP, NADPH and O2 of ADP to ATP
(c) ATP 41. Which one of the following statements about
(d) NADPH cytochrome P-450 is wrong? [1998]
33. Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule (a) It contains iron
of photosystem II are accepted first by: (b) It is an enzyme involved in oxidation
[2008] reaction
(a) Cytochrome-b (b) Cytochrome-f (c) It is a coloured cell
(c) Quinone (d) Ferredoxin (d) It has an important role in metabolism
Photosynthesis 147

42. NADPH is generated through [1997] (c) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can
(a) photosystem I be grown in CO2 - enriched atmosphere
(b) photosystem II for higher yield
(c) anerobic respiration (d) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs
at 10% of full sunlight
(d) glycolysis
49. A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory
43. Pigment acting as a reaction centre during
losses, has improved water use efficiency,
photosynthesis is [1994]
shows high rates of photosynthesis at high
(a) Carotene (b) Phytochrome temperatures and has improved efficiency of
(c) P700 (d) Cytochrome nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following
44. Which one occurs both during cyclic and physiological groups would you assign this
noncyclic modes of photophosphorylation? plant? [2016]
[1994] (a) C3 (b) C4
(a) Involvement of both PS I and PS II (c) CAM (d) Nitrogen fixer
(b) Formation of ATP 50. Bundle sheath cells [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) Release of O2 (a) Are rich in RUBISCO
(d) Formation of NADPH (b) Are rich in PEP carboxylase
45. A photosynthesising plant is releasing 18O (c) Lack RUBISCO
more than the normal. The plant must have (d) Lack both RUBISCO and PEP carboxylase
been supplied with [1993] 51. A process that makes important difference
(a) O3 between C3 and C4 plants is : [2012]
(b) H2O with 18O (a) Transpiration (b) Glycolysis
(c) CO2 with 18O (c) Photosynthesis (d) Photorespiration
52. The correct sequence of cell organelles during
(d) C6H12O6 with 18O
photorespiration is : [2012]
46. Photosystem II occurs in [1992] (a) Chloroplast-Golgibodies-mitochondria
(a) Stroma (b) Chloroplast-Rough Endoplasmic
(b) Cytochrome reticulum, Dictyosomes
(c) Grana (c) Chloroplast-peroxisome-mitochondria
(d) Mitochondrial surface (d) Chloroplast-vacuole-peroxisome
47. Ferredoxin is a constituent of [1991] 53. CAM helps the plants in : [2011]
(a) PS I (b) PS II (a) conserving water
(c) Hill reaction (d) P680 (b) secondary growth
Topic 3: Calvin (C3) cycle/C4 Pathway/ (c) disease resistance
Photorespiration (d) reproduction
54. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells
48. With reference to factors affecting the rate
have [2011M]
of photosynthesis, which of the following
(a) thin walls, many intercellular spaces
statements is not correct ?    [2017]
and no chloroplasts
(a) Increasing atmospheric CO2
(b) thick walls, no intercellular spaces and
concentration up to 0.05% can enhance large number of chloroplasts
CO2 fixation rate (c) thin walls, no intercellular spaces and
(b) C3 plants respond to higher temperatures several chloroplasts
with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 (d) thick walls, many intercellular spaces
plants have much lower temperature
and few chloroplasts
optimum
 EBD_7325
148 BIOLOGY
55. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was 63. In C3 plants, the first stable product of
discovered in photosynthesis of : [2010] photosynthesis during the dark reaction is
(a) Bryophyte (b) Gymnosperm (a) Malic acid [2004]
(c) Angiosperm (d) Alga (b) Oxaloacetic acid
56. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis (c) 3-phosphoglyceric acid
than C3 plants due to: [2010] (d) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(a) Higher leaf area 64. Stomata of CAM plants [2003]
(b) Presence of larger number of (a) never open
chloroplasts in the leaf cells (b) are always open
(c) Presence of thin cuticle
(c) open during the day and close at night
(d) Lower rate of photorespiration
(d) open during the night and close during
57. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis the day
during CO2 fixation occurs in [2008]
65. In sugarcane plant 14CO2 is fixed in malic
(a) epidermal cells (b) mesophyll cells
acid, in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is
(c) bundle sheath (d) guard cells
(a) fructose phosphatase [2003]
58. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid
(b) ribulose biphosphate carboxylase
formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the
cells of [2007] (c) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase
(a) bundle sheath (b) phloem (d) ribulose phosphate kinase
(c) epidermis (d) mesophyll 66. Which one of the following is wrong in
59. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more relation to photorespiration ? [2003]
efficient than C3 plants because: [2007] (a) It is a characteristic of C3 plants
(a) the CO2 compensation point is more (b) It occurs in chloroplasts
(b) CO2 generated during photorespiration (c) It occurs in daytime only
is trapped and recycled through PEP (d) It is a characteristic of C4 plants
carboxylase 67. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in
(c) the CO2 efflux is not prevented (a) presence of oxygen     [2001]
(d) they have more chloroplasts (b) low CO2 conc.
60. During photorespiration, the oxygen (c) high CO2 conc.
consuming reaction(s) occur in [2006] (d) absence of CO2
(a) stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes 68. In photosynthesis energy from light reaction
(b) grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes to dark reaction is transferred in the form of
(c) stroma of chloroplasts (a) ADP (b) ATP [2002]
(d) stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria (c) RuDP (d) Chlorophyll
61. As compared to a C3 – plant, how many 69. Which pair is wrong? [2001]
additional molecules of ATP are needed for (a) C3 – Maize
net production of one molecule of hexose
(b) C4 – Kranz anatomy
sugar by C4 plants: [2005]
(c) Calvin cycle – PGA
(a) two (b) six
(d) Hatch and Slack Pathway – Oxalo
(c) twelve (d) zero
acetic Acid
62. Photosynthetically active radiation is represented
70. How many turns of Calvin cycle yield one
by the range of wavelength of [1996, 2004, 05]
molecule of glucose ? [1996, 2000]
(a) 340-450 nm (b) 400-700 nm
(a) Eight (b) Two
(c) 500-600 nm (d) 400-950 nm
(c) Six (d) Four
Photosynthesis 149
71. Fixation of one CO2 molecule through 79. Series of reactions which can convert fatty
Calvin cycle requires [2000] acids to sugars in plants but not in animals
(a) 1 ATP and 2NADPH2 is [1994]
(a) krebs cycle (b) glyoxylate cycle
(b) 2ATP and 2NADPH2
(c) ornithine cycle (d) glycolysis
(c) 3ATP and 2NADPH2 80. Which one is a C4-plant? [1993]
(d) 2ATP and 1NADPH2 (a) Papaya (b) Pea
72. The enzyme which fixes CO2 in C4 plants is (c) Potato (d) Maize/Corn
81. Formation of ATP in photosynthesis and
(a) Hydrogenase [2000]
respiration is an oxidation process which
(b) PEP carboxylase utilises the energy from [1992]
(c) Reductase (a) Cytochromes (b) Ferredoxin
(d) RuBP carboxylase (c) Electrons (d) Carbon dioxide
73. Which enzyme is most abudantly found on 82. The enzyme that catalyses carbon dioxide
earth? [1999] fixation in C4 plants is [1992]
(a) Catalase (b) Rubisco (a) RuBP carboxylase
(c) Nitrogenase (d) Invertase (b) PEP carboxylase
74. The carbon dioxide acceptor in Calvin cycle/ (c) Carbonic anhydrase
C3-plants is [1993, 95, 96, 99] (d) Carboxy dismutase
83. The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4-plants
(a) Phospho-enol pyruvate (PEP) is [1990, 92]
(b) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate (RuBP) (a) Phosphoenol-pyruvate
(c) Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA) (b) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate
(d) Ribulose monophosphate (RMP) (c) Oxalo-acetic acid
75. Photorespiration is favoured by [1996] (d) Phosphoglyceric acid
(a) high O2 and low CO2 84. Dark reactions of photosynthesis occur in
(b) low light and high O2 (a) Granal thylakoid membranes [1991]
(b) Stromal lamella membranes
(c) low temperature and high O2
(c) Stroma outside photosynthetic lamellae
(d) low O2 and high CO2 (d) Periplastidial space
76. Which one of the following is represented by 85. Which technique has helped in investigation
Calvin cycle? [1996] of Calvin cycle? [1991]
(a) Reductive carboxylation (a) X-ray crystallography
(b) Oxidative carboxylation (b) X-ray technique
(c) Radioactive isotope technique
(c) Photophosphorylation
(d) Intermittent light
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation.
86. During monsoon, the rice crop of eastern
77. The specific characteristic of C4-plants is states of India show lesser yield due to
[1995] limiting factor of [1991]
(a) bulliform cells (b) isobilateral leaf (a) CO2 (b) light
(c) kranz anatomy (d) parallel veins (c) temperature (d) water
78. C4-cycle was discovered by [1994] 87. Kranz anatomy is typical of [1990]
(a) Hatch and Slack (b) Calvin (a) C4 plants (b) C3 plants
(c) Hill (d) Arnon (c) C2 plants (d) CAM plants
 EBD_7325
150 BIOLOGY
88. The substrate for photorespiration is [1989] 90. Carbon dioxide joins the photosynthetic
(a) Phosphoglyceric acid pathway in [1988]
(b) Glycolate (a) PS I (b) PS II
(c) Serine
(c) Light reaction (d) Dark reaction
(d) Glycine
91. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH in [1988]
89. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle operates in [1989]
(a) PS I
(a) Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts
(b) Grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts (b) PS II
(c) Grana of mesophyll chloroplasts (c) Calvin cycle
(d) Stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts (d) Noncyclic photophosphorylation
Photosynthesis 151

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Proton concentration is higher in the In the matrix or stroma are embedded a
lumen of thylakoid due to photolysis of water, number of flattened membranous sacs
H+ pumping and NADP reductase activity in called thylakoids or lamellae. At places the
stroma. During the light-dependent reaction, thylakoids are aggregated to form stacks
protons are pumped across the thylakoid called grana.
membrane into the lumen making it acidic 11. (d) In C4 plants, initial fixation of carbon
down to pH 4. dioxide occurs in mesophyll cells. The
2. (d) Many leaves produce water-soluble primary acceptor of CO2 is phosphoenol
vacuolar pigments, which are stored within pyruvate or PEP. It combines with carbon
cell vacuoles (microscopic water sacs within dioxide in the presence of PEP carboxylase
each cell). Two major classes of leaf vacuolar or Pepcase to form oxaloacetate.
pigments are anthocyanins and betalains. C4 plants are more efficient in picking up CO2
3. (a) In chloroplast which are green coloured even when it is found in low concentration
plastids, thylakoids are arranged in stacks like because of the high affinity of PEP case.
the pile of coins called grana.
12. (a) They have larger photosynthetic unit
4. (d) Chromatophores play an important role
size so that they can absorb maximum
in the process of photo synthesis. They contain
amount of light of the Photosynthetically
pigments and are found in blue green algae.
Active Radiation (PAR) for photosynthesis.
5. (a) In Rhodospirillum, electron donor is
13. (c) A non ionic Mg atom is held in the
organic compound during photosynthesis.
centre of porphyrin (of chlorophyll) held by
6. (c) In some photoautotrophic bacteria,
N atom of pyrrole ring.
bacteriochlorophyll and bacteriophaeophy-
tin or bacterioviridin pigments containing 14. (a) Carotenoids have three absorption peaks
membraneous extensions called chromato- in the blue-violet range of the spectrum.
phores are present. These are sites of bacterial In photosynthetic organisms, carotenoids
photosynthesis. play a vital role in the photosynthetic
7. (a) Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in reaction centre. They either participate in
Oscillatoria. It is a genus of filamentous the energy-transfer process, or protect the
cyanobacteria which is named for the reaction center from auto-oxidation. In non-
oscillation in its movement. photosynthesizing organisms, carotenoids
8. (b) A non ionic Mg atom is held in the have been linked to oxidation-preventing
centre of porphyrin (of chlorophyll) held by mechanisms.
N atom of pyrrole ring. 15. (a) Each pigment has its own absorption
9. (a) After sunrise, photosynthesis is carried spectrum, chlorophyll absorbs light energy
out using CO2. Hence concentration of CO2 in blue and red region.
decreases increasing pH.
16. (a) The optimum temperature of
10. (a) Internally a chloroplast contains
photosynthesis is 10º–25ºC for C3 plants and
a matrix or stroma which is similar to
30º–45ºC for C4 plants.
cytoplasm in its constitution. It contains
DNA, RNA, ribsomes, enzymes for CO2 17. (a) Protochlorophyll differs from chloro-
assimilation, proteins, starch grains and fat phyll in lacking 2 hydrogen atoms in one of
droplets or plastoglobuli. its pyrrole rings.
 EBD_7325
152 BIOLOGY
18. (b) Chlorophyll a has a methyl group as quantum yield of photosynthesis. This
attached to the third carbon, which is effect was first of all noticed by Robert
replaced by an aldehyde group in chlorophyll b. Emerson. Later on Emerson and his group
19. (c) The leaves appear green because of the observed that if chlorella plants are given the
pigment chlorophyll which does not absorb inefficient far red light and red light of shorter
green light rather reflects it back. wavelengths in alternate fashion, the quantum
20. (a) The principle of limiting factors was yields were greater than could be expected
formulated by Blackmann (1905). It states from adding the rates found when either
that when a process is conditioned as to its color was provided alone. This synergistic
rapidity by a number of separate factors, effect or enhancement is known as EEE or
the rate of process is limited by the pace of “Emerson Enhancement Effect”. This was the
slowest factor. first good evidence that there are two photo
systems; one absorbs far red light and other
21. (b) 85-90% of all photosynthesis of world is
red light and both of them must operate to
carried out by phytoplanktons in ocean.
drive photosynthesis most effectively.
22. (c) Algae are the most efficeint photosyn-
29. (b) Cytochromes are fond in mitochondria.
thesizing organisms.
These are located on the inner membrane
23. (d) Depending upon their colour, plastids
of mitochondria and are related with
are of three main types – leucoplasts,
phosphorylation.
chromoplasts and chloroplasts.
30. (d) During photosynthesis photolysis of
24. (c) Chlorophyll a is found in all water is induced by Mn++ and CI– ions.
photosynthetic plants except bacteria. Hence, 31. (c) Stromal matrix contains a number of
it is termed as universal photosynthetic flattened membranous sacs called thylakoid
pigment. or lamellae.
25. (a) Photosynthetic pigments occur on 32. (c) Cyclic photophosphorylation results in
photosynthetic thylakoids of chloroplasts. A the formation of ATP. This process is called
stack of thylakoids is called granum. photophosphorylation, which occurs in
26. (b) C4 cycle occurs in C4 plants like two different ways. Adenosine triphosphate
sugarcane, maize. C4 cycle provides a more (ATP) is considered by biologists to be the
efficient way of CO2 fixation than C3 cycle energy currency of life. It is the high-energy
and hence gives more productivity. The rest molecule that stores the energy we need to
are C3 plants. do just about everything we do. It is present
27. (c) Chlorophyll has a tetrapyrrole in the cytoplasm and nucleoplasm of every
porphyrin ring as head (15 × 15Å) and a cell, and essentially all the physiological
long hydrocarbon tail called phytol (20 Å) mechanisms that require energy for operation
tail attached to the ring structure. obtain it directly from the stored ATP.
28. (b) Wavelengths beyond 700nm are 33. (c) Electrons from excited chlorophyll
apparently of insufficient energy to drive molecule of photosystem II are accepted
any part of photosynthesis. So a huge drop first by quinone. Photosystem II is a
in efficiency has been noticed at 700nm. This photosynthetic pigment system along with
phenomenon is called as “Red drop effect”. some electron carriers that are located in
In other words there is a sharp decrease in the appressed part of the grana thylakoids.
quantum yield at wavelengths greater than Photosystem II has chlorophyll a, b and
680nm. The number of oxygen molecules carotenoids. Other components of PS II
released per light quanta absorbed is called are phaeophytin, plastoquinone (PQ),
Photosynthesis 153
cytochrome complex and blue coloured 45. (b) The phenomenon of breaking up of
copper containing plastocyanin. water into hydrogen and oxygen in the
34. (c) The first acceptor of electrons from an illuminated chloroplasts is called photolysis.
excited chlorophyll of PSII is quinone. Oxygen comes from photolysis of water was
35. (a) The Pr form absorbs light between 660 verified by Ruben & Kamen (1941).
to 680 nm and absorbs at a peak of 666 nm. 46. (c) Photosystem II is a photosynthetic
It is the form synthesized in dark-grown pigment system that is located in the
seedlings. When Pr absorbs red light, it is appressed part of grana thylakoids.
converted to the Pfr form. 47. (a) In PSI, when the electron passes from
36. (c) In photosystem I or photoact I electrons ferredoxin and plastoquinone, the electron
released by P-700 are accepted by a substance loses sufficient energy to form ATP from
of iron-sulphur-protein complex denoted as ADP and inorganic phosphate.
A(FeS) which is thus reduced and it passes 48. (b) In C3 plants photosynthesis decreases
these high electrons to oxidised ferredoxin at higher temperature due to increased
and it gets reduced. From reduced Fd these photorespiration.
electrons are passed to FAD which is now C4 plants have higher temperature optimum
reduced to FADH2 and then electrons and because of the presence of enzyme called
hydrogen are accepted by NADP which pyruvate phosphate dikinase, which is
makes NADPH2. Here, photosystem I ends. sensitive to low temperature.
37. (c) The reduction in the rate of 49. (b) C4 plants are adapted to hot and dry
photosynthesis in monochromatic light of climate and lack photorespiration due to
more than 680 nm is called red drop. Kranz anatomy and have Greater productivity
38. (b) Cytochrome is an Fe containing of biomass.
porphyrin pigment. These are electron 50. (a) In C4 plants, bundle sheath cells are rich
transferring proteins often regarded as in RUBISCO, but lack PEPcase. The CO2
enzymes. released in the bundle sheath cells enters the
39. (a) Light reaction is the first step of C3 or the Calvin pathway, common to all
photosynthesis. Attachment of CO2 to 5 plants. Thus, the basic pathway that results
carbon sugar occurs in the next step or dark in the formation of sugars, the calvin pathway
reaction. is common to the C3 and C4 plants.
40. (d) The photochemical phase of photo­ 51. (d) Photorespiration is absent is C4 plants.
synthesis involves fixing light energy and Photorespiration does not produce energy
photolysis of water producing ATP and or reducing power. Rather, it consumes
NADPH. energy. Further, it undoes the work of
41. (a) Cytochrome P-450 contains copper. photosynthesis. There is 25% loss of fixed
42. (a) NADPH is generated by photosystem I CO2. Therefore, photorespiration is a
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation. highly wasteful process. This happens only
43. (c) P700 consists of a chl a and chl b in case of C3 plants.
molecules and is named as such due to 52. (c)
maximum absorption by pigment or 53. (a) CAM plants are most common in arid
photocentre at that wavelength. environments. Being able to keep stomata
44. (b) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves closed during the hottest and driest part of
only PSI and there only ATP formation the day reduces the loss of water through
occurs. evapotranspiration.
 EBD_7325
154 BIOLOGY
54. (b) In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath 61. (c) Equation for C4 pathway is :
cells have thick wall, no intracellular spaces 6 PEP + 6 RuBP + 6CO2 + 30 ATP + 12
and large number of chloroplasts. NADPH + 6PEP + 6 RuBP + C6H12O6 + 30
55. (d) Phosphoglyceric and (PGA) is the first ADP + 30 H3PO4 + 12 NADP +
stable product of photosynthesis. It was The net reaction of C3 dark fixation is
first discovered by Calvin, Benson and their
6RuBP + 6CO2 + 18ATP + 12 NADPH 6
colleagues in Chlorella, (algae).
RuBP + C6H12O6 + 18 ADP + 18 P + 12
56. (d) C4 plants are more efficient in NADP +
photosynthesis than C3 plants due to
62. (b) Photosynthesis takes place only in
photorespiration. Photorespiration is an
the visible part (400 - 700 nm wavelength)
inhibitory process that decreases the rate of
of electromagnetic radiations. Hence this
photosynthesis. It is absent in C4 plants and
component comprises the photosynthetically
present only in C3 plants.
active radiation.
57. (b) In leaves of C4 plants, malic acid synthesis
63. (c) 3-phosphoglyceric acid, a 3 carbon
during CO2 fixation occurs in mesophyll
compound is the first product formed in the
cells. The mesophyll cells perform C4 cycle
C3 cycle. It is then converted to glyceraldehyde
and the cells of bundle sheath perform C3
3-phosphate. Oxaloacetic acid, 4 carbon
cycle. CO2 taken from the atmosphere is
compound is the first product formed in C4
accepted by phosphoenol pyruvic acid (PEP)
cycle. It is then converted to malic acid.
present in the chloroplasts of mesophyll cells
64. (d) To conserve water, the stomata of CAM
of these leaves, leading to the formation of
plants open during night to take up CO2 and
a 4-C compound, oxaloacetic acid (OAA).
store it in the form of malic acid which is
This acid is converted to another 4-C acid, the
utilised during the time of photosynthesis.
malic acid which enters into the chloroplast
65. (c) Sugarcane is a C4 plant in which
of bundle sheath cells and undergoes
CO2 is fixed in malic acid by the enzyme
oxidative decarboxylation yielding pyruvic
phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylase
acid (3C - compound) and CO2.
present in mesophyll cells.
58. (d) In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll
66. (b) During day time, due to photosynthesis
cells and C3 - cycle occurs in bundle sheath
CO2 concentration is low.
cells.
67. (d) Tropical plants have evolved C4 cycle to
59. (c) The C4 pathway allows photosynthesis
overcome photorespiration.
to occur at very low concentrations of
68. (b) ATP molecules produced in the light
carbon dioxide as PEP carboxylase has an
reaction are used in the dark reaction to fix
extremely high affinity for carbon dioxide.
CO2 to form organic compounds.
This pathway also works well at high
69. (a) Maize is a C4 plant exhibiting Hatch
temperatures and light intensity, enabling
and Slack pathway. These plants show Kranz
efficient photosynthesis in tropical plants.
anatomy and overcome photorespiration.
60. (a) Photorespiration is the process
70. (c) Each turn of Calvin cycle generates one
which occurs in C3 plants. In this process,
carbon atom hence six turns of the cycle is
peroxisomes, chloroplast and mitochondria
required to generate one molecule of hexose
take part. The oxygen consuming reactions
sugar glucose.
occurs in peroxisomes and stroma of
chloroplast while CO2 releasing reaction 71. (c) 2 ATP are required during conversion
of PGA to 1, 3-diphosphoglyceric acid and
occurs in mitochondria.
1 ATP during conversion of glyceraldehyde
Photosynthesis 155
phosphate to ribulose biphosphate. 2NADH2 82. (b) In C4 plants, the primary acceptor of
molecules are utilised for converting 1, CO2 is phosphoenol pyruvate. It combines
3-diphosphoglyceric acid to glyceraldehyde with carbon dioxide in the presence of PEP
phosphate. carboxylase to form oxalo acetic acid in
72. (b) RuBP carboxylase fixation of CO2 in mesophyll cells.
C3 plants. Hydrogenase catalyses addition 83. (a) The primary acceptor of CO2 in C4
of hydrogen. plants is phosphoenol pyruvate or PEP. In
73. (b) RUBISCO is the enzyme involved in mesophyll cells PEP combines with CO2
Calvin cycle. Nitrogenase catalyses nitro- and converted into a 4 carbon compound
genation. Invertase catalyses breaking of oxaloacetic acid by PEP carboxylase. In
sucrose to glucose and fructose. C3 plants, ribulose 1, 5–diphosphate is the
74. (b) The primary CO2 acceptor in C3 primary acceptor of CO2.
plants is Ribulose-1, 5-diphosphate (RuBP) 84. (c) Dark reaction occurs in the stroma or
which forms a 3 carbon compound matrix of chloroplasts. It is independent of
3-phosphoglyceric acid. light but depends on the products of light
75. (a) Photorespiratory loss of CO2 occurs reaction (ATP and NADPH–assimilatory
when RUBISCO starts functioning as an process).
oxygenase instead of carboxylase under 85. (c) In 1954-55 Calvin traced the pathway
conditions of high O2 and low CO2. It of carbon fixation using radioactive isotope
involves three organelles chloroplast, method and discovered the Calvin cycle.
mitochondria and peroxisomes. Half of the
86. (b) According to law of limiting factors
photosynthetically fixed carbon (in the form
given by Blackman, when a process depends
of RUBP) may be lost into the atmosphere
upon a number of factors which are separate,
through this process and no ATP formation
the rate of the process is limited by the pace of
occurs.
the slowest factor. Rate of yield is dependent
76. (a) In dark phase of calvin cycle of
on light as photosynthesis is dependent on
photosynthesis, the CO2 is reduced to
light. During monsoon, the intensity light is
glucose in stroma of chloroplast, making
less and so rate of photosynthesis and hence
use of the ATP & NADPH2, (available from
yield is reduced.
light phase).
87. (a) C4 plants have a characteristic leaf
77. (c) Anatomy of leaves of C4– plant is called
anatomy called kranz anatomy with two
kranz anatomy. In the mesophyll cells of
distinct choloroplast containing cells,
these plants-pallisade tissue is absent.
mesophyll and bundle sheath cells.
78. (a) C4 cycle was worked out by Hatch and
Slack (1966). C4 cycle occured in C4 plants. 88. (b) Light dependent uptake of O2 and
release of CO2 in C3 photosynthetic cell
79. (b) Several plant structures e.g. pollen,
is called photorespiration. Glycolate
seeds contain fats. The fats are hydrolysed
(glycolic acid) is the chief metabolite of
and consumed as a source of energy. This is
photorespiration and also its substrate. Other
accomplished through oxidative degradation
important metabolities are the amino acids
called glyoxylate cycle.
glycine and serine. But phosphoglyceric
80. (d) Maize, Sugarcane, Sorghum, Atriplex,
acid (PGA) is a lipid and is not substrate of
Panicum are examples of C4 plants.
photorespiration.
81. (c) Electrons provide energy for the
89. (a) C4 plants are specialised plants for better
formation of ATP in photosynthesis and
CO2 assimilation found in hot environment.
respiration.
 EBD_7325
156 BIOLOGY
They have a characteristic leaf anatomy (Blackman’s reaction or biosynthetic phase)
called kranz anatomy showing two distinct carbohydrates are synthesised from carbon
choloroplast containing cells mesophyll dioxide in stroma of chloroplast using ATP
and bundle sheath cells. Mesophyll cells are and NADPH products of light reactions.
located very near to bundle sheath cells and 91. (d) Non cyclic photophosphorylation is
are the site for C4 cycle i.e. CO2 is first fixed not only connected with ATP synthesis but
as a 4 carbon compound oxalocetic acid by also production of NADPH. It involves two
the action of PEP carboxylase. The second photosystems—PSI and PSII. PSII (680)
carboxylation event occurs in stroma of receives electrons from photolysis of water
chloroplast of bundle sheath cell through C3 and transfer it to PSI (700) to form NADPH
cycle. from NADP+. The hydrogen required for
90. (d) Photosynthesis is completed in two reduction comes from breaking of water
phases-light and dark phases. In dark phase molecules.
 Chapter

14 Respiration in Plants

Topic 1: Respiration/Aerobic Respiration 7. Respiratory substrate yielding maximum

number of ATP molecule is [1994]
1. Which of the metabolites is common to
(a) ketogenic amino acids
respiration mediated breakdown of fats,
(b) glucose
carbohydrates and proteins?  [NEET 2013]
(a) Fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate (c) amylose
(b) Pyruvic acid (d) glycogen
(c) Acetyl CoA 8. Life without air would be  [1993]
(d) Glucose - 6 - phosphate (a) reductional
2. The three boxes in this diagram represents the (b) free from oxidative damage
three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic (c) impossible
respiration. Arrows represents net reactants (d) anaerobic
or products.  [NEET 2013] 9. End products of aerobic respiration are
1 5 9 10 (a) sugar and oxygen [1992]
(b) water and energy
glucose

Pathway A 2 Pathway B 6 Pathway C 11 (c) carbon dioxide, water and energy

7
(d) carbon dioxide and energy
4 8 12
3 Topic 2: Glycolysis / Fermentation
Arrows numbered 4, 8 and 12 can all be :
10. Phosphoenol Pyruvate (PEP) is the primary
(a) ATP (b) H2O
+ CO2 acceptor in:   [2017]
(c) FAD or FADH2 (d) NADH
(a) C4 plants
3. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that
(b) C2 plants
causes botulism is  [2006]
(c) C3 and C4 plants
(a) an obligate anaerobe
(d) C3 plants
(b) an facultative aerobe
11. In which one of the following processes CO2
(c) an obligate aerobe
in not released?  [2014]
(d) a facultative anaerobe
(a) Aerobic respiration in plants
4. Net gain of ATP molecules during aerobic
(b) Aerobic respiration in animals
respiration is [1999]
(c) Alcoholic fermentation
(a) 36 molecules (b) 38 molecules
(d) Lactate fermentation
(c) 40 molecules (d) 48 molecules
12. The energy - releasing metabolic process
5. Site of respiration in bacteria is [1997]
in which substrate is oxidised without an
(a) episome (b) ribosome
external electron acceptor is called: [2010]
(c) mesosome (d) microsome
6. Maximum amount of energy/ATP is (a) glycolysis
liberated on oxidation of  [1994] (b) fermentation
(a) fats (b) proteins (c) aerobic respiration
(c) starch (d) vitamins (d) photorespiration
 EBD_7325
158 BIOLOGY

13. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately (b) production of methanol by enteric

termed:  [2009] bacteria
(a) parabolic (b) amphibolic (c) fermentation into ethanol by yeast
(c) anabolic (d) catabolic (d) glycolysis in the skeletal muscle of a
14. The energy-releasing process in which the sprinter performing a hundred metre
substrate is oxidised without an external dash
electron acceptor is called  [2008] 20. The enzymes hexokinase which catalyses
glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis
(a) fermentation
is inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate. This is
(b) photorespiration
an example of  [1996]
(c) aerobic respiration
(a) competitive inhibition
(d) glycolysis (b) non-competitive inhibition
15. How many ATP molecules could maximally (c) feedback allosteric inhibition
be generated from one molecule of glucose, (d) positive feedback.
if the complete oxidation of one mole of
21. Fermentation is anaerobic production of
glucose to CO2 and H2O yields 686 kcal and
 [1996]
the useful chemical energy available in the
(a) protein and acetic acid
high energy phosphate bond of one mole of
(b) alcohol, lactic acid or similar compounds
ATP is 12 kcal ?  [2006]
(c) ethers and acetones
(a) Thirty (b) Fifty -seven
(d) alcohol and lipoproteins
(c) One (d) Two
22. Fermentation products of Yeast are [1994, 97]
16. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are
(a) H2O + CO2
removed by  [2004]
(b) methyl alcohol + CO2
(a) ATP
(c) methyl alcohol + Water
(b) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(d) ethyl alcohol + CO2
(c) NAD+
23. In animal cells, the first stage of glucose
(d) molecular oxygen breakdown is  [1994]
17. In alcoholic fermentation [2003] (a) Krebs cycle
(a) oxygen is the electron acceptor (b) glycolysis
(b) triose phosphate is the electron donor (c) oxidative phosphorylation
while acetaldehyde is the electron (d) E.T.C.
acceptor 24. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per
(c) triose phosphate is the electron donor glucose, 32 ATP molecules are formed from
while pyruvic acid is the electron NADH/FADH2 in  [1993]
acceptor (a) respiratory chain
(d) there is no electron donor (b) Krebs cycle
18. How many ATP molecules are produced (c) oxidative decarboxylation
by aerobic oxidation of one molecule of (d) EMP
glucose?  [2002] 25. When one glucose molecule is completely
(a) 2 (b) 4 oxidised, it changes  [1992]
(c) 38 (d) 34 (a) 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules
19. Maximum usable energy per mol of glucose (b) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP
metabolised will be generated during [1999] molecules
(a) aerobic respiration by germinating (c) 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules
seeds (d) 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules
Respiration in Plants 159

26. Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed
glucose molecule during respiration [1991] because:  [2008]
(a) 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 (a) high energy bonds are formed in
during respiratory chain mitochondrial proteins
(b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria (b) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into
and 34 inside mitochondria the intermembrane space
(c) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during Krebs (c) a proton gradient forms across the inner
cycle membrane
(d) All are formed inside mitochondria (d) there is a change in the permeability
27. End product of glycolysis is [1990] of the inner mitochondrial membrane
(a) acetyl CoA toward adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
(b) pyruvic Acid 34. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the
(c) glucose 1-phosphate mitochondrial matrix except one which is
(d) fructose 1-phosphate located in inner mitochondrial membranes
28. EMP can produce a total of  [1990] in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes.
(a) 6 ATP (b) 8 ATP This enzyme is  [2007]
(c) 24 ATP (d) 38 ATP (a) isocitrate dehydrogenase
29. Incomplete oxidation of glucose into pyruvic
(b) malate dehydrogenase
acid with several intermediate steps is known
(c) succinate dehydrogenase
as  [1988]
(d) lactate dehydrogenase.
(a) TCA-pathway (b) glycolysis
35. The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle
(c) HMS-pathway (d) Krebs cycle
and the electron transport system is the
30. NADP+ is reduced to NADPH in [1988]
formation of  [2007]
(a) HMP (b) Calvin Cycle
(c) glycolysis (d) EMP (a) ATP in one large oxidation reaction
(b) sugars
Topic 3: Krebs cycle / ETs / Chemiosmosis (c) nucleic acids
31. Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle ? (d) ATP in small stepwise units.
[2017] 36. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in
(a) There is one point in the cycle where the chloroplasts and mitochondria is based
FAD+ is reduced to FADH2 on:  [2005]
(b) During conversion of succinyl CoA (a) membrane potential
to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is (b) accumulation of Na ions
synthesised (c) accumulation of K ions
(c) The cycle starts with condensation of (d) proton gradient
acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic 37. During which stage in the complete oxidation
acid to yield citric acid of glucose are the greatest number of ATP
(d) There are three points in the cycle where molecules formed from ADP [2005]
NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+ (a) glycolysis
32. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the (b) krebs cycle
guard cells are called [2016] (c) conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl
(a) Complementary cells Co-A
(b) Subsidiary cells (d) electron transport chain
(c) Bulliform cells 38. During anaerobic digestion of organic waste,
(d) Lenticels such as in producing biogas, which one of
33. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of the following is left undegraded ? [2003]
oxidative phosphorylation proposes that (a) Cellulose (b) Lipids
(c) Lignin (d) Hemi-cellulose
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39. Which one of the following concerns 47. Poisons like cyanide inhibit Na+ efflux and
photophosphorylation ?  [2003] k+ influx during cellular transport. This
Light energy
AMP + Inorganic PO4    → ATP
(a) inhibitary effect is reversed by an injection
of ATP. This demonstrates that [1994]
(b) Light energy
ADP + AMP     → ATP (a) ATP is the carrier protion in the
(c) Light energy transport system.
ADP + Inorganic PO4     → ATP
(b) energy for Na+ – k+ exchange pump
(d) ADP + Inorganic PO4  → ATP comes from ATP.
(c) ATP is hydrolysed by ATP to release
40. In which one of the following do the two energy.
names refer to one and the same thing ? (d) Na+ – K+ exchange pump eperates in
[2003] the cell.
(a) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea cycle 48. End product of citric acid/Krebs cycle is
(b) Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle  [1993]
(c) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric acid (a) citric acid (b) lactic acid
cycle (c) pyruvic acid (d) CO2 + H2O
(d) Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle 49. Oxidative phosphorylation is production of
41. The mechanism of ATP formation both in (a) ATP in photosynthesis  [1992]
chloroplast and mitochondria is explained (b) NADPH in photosynthesis
by [1997] (c) ATP in respiration
(a) relay pump theory of Godlewski (d) NADH in respiration
(b) Munch’s pressure/ mass flow model 50. Terminal cytochrome of respiratory chain
(c) chemiosmotic theory of Mitchell which donates electrons to oxygen is [1992]
(d) Cholondy-Went’s Model (a) Cyt. b (b) Cyt. c
42. In Krebs cycle FAD participates as electron (c) Cyt. a1 (d) Cyt. a3
acceptor during the conversion of  [1997]
(a) succinyl CoA to Succinic acid Topic 4: Respiratory Quotient
(b) alfa keto glutarate to Succinyl CoA
(c) succinic acid to Fumaric acid 51. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded
(d) fumaric acid to Malic acid exclusively in the  [2008]
43. Connecting link between glycolysis and (a) proplastids (b) glyoxysomes
Krebs cycle is/before entering Krebs cycle (c) peroxisomes (d) mitochondria
pyruvate is changed to  [1990, 92, 97] 52. Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) for fatty acid is
(a) oxaloacetate (b) PEP (a) > 1 (b) < 1 [1995]
(c) pyruvate (d) acetyl CoA (c) 1 (d) 0
44. Oxidative phosphorylation involves 53. Apparatus to measure rate of respiration and
simultaneous oxidation and phosphorylation R.Q. is  [1992]
to finally form  [1996] (a) Auxanometer (b) Potometer
(a) pyruvate (b) NADP (c) Respirometer (d) Manometer
(c) DPN (d) ATP 54. R.Q. is ratio of  [1990]
45. Krebs cycle occurs in  [1996] (a) CO2 produced to substrate consumed
(a) mitochondria (b) cytoplasm (b) CO2 produced to O2 consumed
(c) chloroplasts (d) ribosomes (c) oxygen consumed to water produced
46. Which of the following is essential for (d) oxygen consumed to CO2 produced
conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl Co-A? 55. R.Q. is  [1988]
(a) LAA (b) NAD [1995] (a) C/N (b) N/C
(c) TPP (d) All of these (c) CO2/O2 (d) O2/CO2
Respiration in Plants 161

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Acetyl CoA is common to respiration 7. (b) Firstly, amylose and glycogen are
mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates converted to glucose. Deamination of
and proteins. Fats are broken down to fatty ketogenic amino acids occur and these enter
acid and glycerol and finally are degraded respiratory catabolism as intermediates.
to acetyl Co - A. Protein first degraded by 8. (d) In anaerobic respiration, oxygen is
proteases to indiviual amino acids which not used in the breakdown of respiratory
are deaminated to pyruric acid and further substrate.
decarboxylised to acetyl Co- A. 9. (c) Aerobic respiration is an enzymatically
2. (a) In the given diagram of aerobic controlled release of energy in a stepwise
respiration – pathway A is glycolysis, pathway catabolic process of complete oxidation of
B is Kreb’s cycle and pathway C is ETS , thus
organic substrate into CO2 and H2O with O2
4, 8 & 12 are ATP. ATP act as energy currency.
acting as the terminal oxidant.
The energy is trapped in form of ATP and it is
10. (a) In the mesophyll cells cytoplasm of C4
broken down whenever and wherever it needs
plants like sugarcane, maize, sorghum etc.
to be utilised.
PEP is 3C compound which serves as primary
3. (a) Clostridium botulinum is an obligate CO2 acceptor.
anaerobe i.e. it normally lives in the absence 11. (d) Lactic acid fermentation : It occurs in
of oxygen. Facultative anaerobes are those lactic acid bacteria (Lactobacillus) and muscles
who generally live in oxygen but may live (Human). Pyruvic acid produced in glycolysis
without oxygen in suitable medium. Obligate is reduced by NADH2 to form lactic acid
aerobes can only live in the presence of without producing carbon dioxide.
oxygen while facultative aerobes generally
live in oxygen but can also live without Lactate dehydrogenase
CH3COCOOH + NADH2 
2+ →
oxygen. FMN,Zn
4. (a) 38 molecules of ATP are produced CH3CHOHCOOH + NAD
during aerobic respiration. Of these 2 ATP               Lactic acid
are used in link reaction. Hence net gain is 12. (b) The energy releasing metabolic process
of 36 ATP. in which substrate is oxidised without
5. (c) Mesosomes are the invaginations of an external electron acceptor is called
the plasma membrane that can form into fermentation.
vesicles. They are found to be present in 13. (b) All energy-releasing pathways whether
both gram-positive and gram-negative aerobic (requiring oxygen) or anaerobic (not
bacteria. Mesosomes may play a role in cell requiring oxygen) begin with a pathway
wall formation during cell division and/or called glycolysis, which occurs in the
chromosome replication and distribution cytoplasm (cytosol). Aerobic respiratory
and/or electron transfer systems of pathway is thus appropriately termed
respiration. amphibolic. Aerobic respiration is the main
energy-releasing pathway leading to ATP
6. (a) Fats are used as respiratory substrates by
formation. It occurs in the mitochondria.
a number of organisms because they contain
Aerobic respiration yields thirty-six ATP.
more energy as compared to carbohydrates.
 EBD_7325
162 BIOLOGY

14. (d) Glycolysis takes place in all body cells 23. (b) Glycolysis is the first step of respiration
and is of two types- which occurs without requirement of O2 and
(a) Anaerobic glycolysis-From glycogen or is common to both aerobic and anaerobic
glucose to lactic acid in muscles. modes of respiration.
(b) Aerobic glycolysis- From glycogen 24. (a) Complete degradation of a molecule of
or glucose to pyruvic acid (all cells of glucose yields 38 ATP molecules.
body) 25. (c) Complete oxidation of glucose
15. (b) 12 kcal of energy present in one produces 38 ATP molecules in aerobic
molecule of ATP & on oxidation of one respiration. The number of ATP molecules
mole of glucose into CO2 and H2O energy may however may depending upon how
released is 686 kcal. So no. of ATP which NADH2 enters mitochondria.
can store this energy would be = 57.1 = 57 26. (b) 2 ATP are produced during glycolysis in
ATPs. cytoplasm. 34 ATP are produced by Krebs
16. (c) ATP is the energy currency in all cells. cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, ETC.
Glyceraldehyde 3 - phosphate is reduced 27. (b) The end product of glycolysis is pyruvic
during glycolysis. Molecular oxygen is the acid which is a three carbon compound.
terminal electron acceptor in ETS. 28. (b) The net gain of energy is equal to 8
17. (b) In alcohol fermentation triose phosphate ATP in EMP pathway.
is the electron donor while acetaldehyde is 29. (b) Glycolysis involves the process of partial
the electron acceptor. oxidation of glucose or similar hexose sugar
18. (c) 38 ATP molecules are produced by into two molecules of pyruvic acid through
aerobic oxidation of glucose. a series of ten enzyme mediated reactions. It
19. (a) The energy yield during aerobic occurs in cytoplasm.
respiration (36 ATP) is 18 times of that 30. (a) Complete degradation of a molecule of
during anaerobic respiration ( 2 ATP). glucose produces 12 molecules of NADPH2
20. (c) Competitive inhibition is the reversible by HMP.
inhibition of enzyme activity due to presence 31. (c) Krebs cycle begins with condensation of
of substrate analogues. Non competitive acetyl CoA (2C) with oxaloacetic acid (4C)
inhibition is the reduction of enzyme to form citric acid (6C).
activity by a factor that has no real structural 32. (b) Specialized epidermal cells surrounding
similarity with the substrate. Allosteric the guard cells are known as Subsidiary or
inhibition is reversible noncompetitive accessory cell.
inhibition occurring in case of allosteric 33. (c) Chemiosmotic theory was postulated by
enzymes. Herein, the inhibitors are the the British biochemist Peter Mitchell (1920-
products or intermediates of reactions are 22) to explain the formation of ATP in the
catalyzed by the enzymes. Hence, it is also mitochondrial electron transport chain. As
called end product inhibition or feedback electrons are transferred along the electron
inhibition. carrier system in the inner mitochondrial
21. (b) Fermentation is referred to as the membrane, hydrogen ions (protons)
decomposition of organic compounds, are actively transported into the space
anaerobically by enzymes yielding alcohol, between the inner and outer mitochondrial
organic acids; gases etc. membranes, which thus contains a higher
concentration of protons than the matrix.
22. (d) End products of fermentation are ethyl
This creates an electrochemical gradient
alcohol, lactic acid and CO2.
Respiration in Plants 163

across the inner membrane, through which 40. (c) TCA cycle is so called because the
protons move back into the matrix. first stable product formed in the cycle is
34. (c) Succinate: ubiquinone oxidoreductase, a tricarboxylic acid molecule, that is, citric
also known in mitochondria as complex acid. Hence, the name citric acid cycle.
II, provides a link between the citric It is also called the Krebs cycle as it was
acid cycle and the membrane-bound discovered by Krebs.
electron-transport system. The membrane 41. (c) According to the chemiosmotic theory
extrinsic, water-soluble domain, known as the energy liberated during electron transport
succinate dehydrogenase (SDH), contains performs the osmotic work of accumulating
the fumarate/succinate active site with a H+ ions, conserving energy in building a
covalently bound FAD group and three proton gradient, which is used to build ATP
iron-sulfur clusters: [2Fe-2S]2 +/1+, [4Fe- from ADP and inorganic phosphate.
4S]2+/1+, and [3Fe-4S]1 +/0 . The enzyme 42. (c) In the conversion of succinyl Co A
catalyzes the interconversion of fumarate to succinic acid, energy liberated during
and succinate, and is closely related to hydrolysis of succinyl CoA is used in
fumarate reductase. synthesis of GTP. For the conversion of alfa-
35. (d) Glycolysis, Krebs cycle and electron ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA, NAD+ and
transport system, they all give ATP which CoA are required. Conversion of fumaric
is the main energy currency of our body. acid to malic acid involves simple hydration.
Glycosis takes place in cytoplasm, Krebs FAD participates in conversion of succinic
cycle also occurs in cytoplasm while ETS acid to fumaric acid.
takes place in the mitochondria. 43. (d) The end product of glycolysis is
36. (d) The enzyme responsible for oxidative pyruvate. It enters mitochondria and is
phosphorylation is ATP synthase. ATP oxidatively decarboxylated to acetyl CoA
synthase is located in the F1 component before entering into Krebs cycle.
of F0 – F1 or elementary particles. ATP
44. (d) Oxidative phosphorylation is the
synthase becomes active in ATP formation
synthesis of energy rich ATP from ADP
only where there is a proton gradient having
and inorganic phosphate, that is related to
higher concentration of H+ or protons on
oxidation of reduced coenzymes produced
the F0 side as compared to F1 side. Increased
in cellular respiration.
proton concentration is produced in the
outer chamber of outer surface of inner 45. (a) The enzyme involved in Krebs cycle are
mitochondrial memberane by the pushing localized in the mitochondrial matrix.
of protons with the help of energy liberated 46. (d) During aerobic oxidation of pyruvic
by passage of electrons from one carrier to acid, first of all there is activation of pyruvic
another. acid in which NAD and coenzyme react with
37. (d) ATP molecules from ADP are generated pyruvic acid and oxidative decarboxylation
in maximum number in electron transport takes place leading to the formation of acetyl
chain. Co-A. In this process, lipoic acid amide
38. (c) Lignin is a complex polymer of (LAA), thyamine pyrophosphate (TPP) and
phenylpropane units, which are cross-linked NAD are essential to perform this reaction.
to each other with a variety of different 47. (a) Active transport is the uphill movement
chemical bonds. of particles against their concentration
39. (c) Photophosphorylation refers to addition gradient. Energy is utilised in the form of
of phosphate in the presence of light. energy. Cyanide inhibits soluble absorption
 EBD_7325
164 BIOLOGY

by lowering respiration rate leading to enzymes involved in the cycle, which have
formation of less ATP. Addition of ATP not been found in mammals, are contained
facilities active transport. Immediate ATP in organelles called glyoxysomes.
supply minimise the effect of cyanide in 52. (b) Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) is defined
normal aerobic respiration. as the ratio of the molecules of carbon
48. (d) The two molecules of pyruvate are dioxide given out to the number of oxygen
completely degraded in Krebs cycle to form molecules taken in during respiration. Its
two molecules of ATP, 8 NADH2, 2 FADH2, value for fatty acids is always less than unity.
CO2 and water. 53. (c) Respirometer is an instrument for
49. (b) Oxidative phosphorylation is the measuring respiratory quotient as well as
synthesis of energy rich ATP molecules rate of respiration.
with the help of energy liberated during 54. (b) Ratio of the volume of CO2 produced
oxidation of reduced co-enzymes produced to the volume of O2 consumed in respiration
in respiration. over a period of time is known as respiratory
50. (d) Terminal cytochorome is cyt a3. It quotient.
posseses two copper centers. It helps in 55. (c) Respiratory Quotient
transfer of electrons to oxygen.
51. (b) In germinating seeds, fatty acids are
degraded exclusively in the glyoxysomes.
The current estimate is that about 30
Glyoxylate cycle occurs in tissues rich in
molecules of ATP are produced when
fats, such as those of germinating seeds; the
glucose is completely oxidised to CO2.
 15
Chapter

Plant Growth and

Development

Topic 1: Growth/Differentiation, 7. If a tree, flowers thrice in a year (Oct., Jan.

Dedifferentiation & Redifferentiation/ and July) in Northern India, it is said to be
Development [1997]
(a) photosensitive but thermoinsensitive
1. Typical growth curve in plants is :[2015 RS] (b) thermosensitive but photoinsensitive
(a) Linear (b) Stair-steps shaped (c) photo and thermosensitive
(c) Parabolic (d) Sigmoid (d) photo and thermoinsensitive
2. Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any 8. Thigmotropic movement is best shown by
support is an example of: [2010] [1995]
(a) thigmotaxis (b) thigmonasty (a) movement in tendril
(c) thigmotropism (d) thermotaxis (b) insectivorous plants
3. Senescence as an active developmental (c) movement in roots
(d) movement in Mimosa pudica
cellular process in the growth and
9. Klinostat is employed in the study of  [1993]
functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated
(a) osmosis
in  [2008] (b) growth movements
(a) vessels and tracheid differentiation (c) photosynthesis
(b) leaf abscission (d) respiration
(c) annual plants 10. Phytohormones are :  [1990]
(d) floral parts (a) chemicals regulating flowering
4. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type (b) chemicals regulating secondary growth
of  [2007] (c) hormones regulating growth from seed
(a) autonomic movement of variation to adulthood
(b) paratonic movement of growth (d) regulators synthesised by plants and
influencing physiological processes
(c) autonomic movement of growth
11. Leaves of many grasses are capable of
(d) autonomic movement of locomotion.
folding and unfolding because they [1989]
5. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to (a) are very thin
[2004] (b) are isobilateral
(a) reception of pollen by stigma (c) have specialised bulliform cells
(b) formation of pollen (d) have parallel vascular bundles
(c) development of anther
Topic 2: Plant Growth Regulators
(d) opening of flower bud
6. Movement of leaves of Sensitive Plant, 12. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be
Mimosa pudica are due to  [1988, 99] prevented by the application of: [2017]
(a) thermonasty (b) seismonasty (a) Ethylene (b) Auxins
(c) hydrotropism (d) chemonasty (c) Gibberellic acid (d) Cytokinins
 EBD_7325
166 BIOLOGY
13. The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of 19. During seed germination its stored food is
[2016]: mobilized  [NEET 2013]
(a) ABA (b) GA3 (a) Cytokinin (b) ABA
(c) IAA (d) Ethylene (c) Gibberellin (d) Ethylene
14. What causes a green plant exposed to the light 20. The pineapple which under natural
on only one side, to bend toward the source conditions is difficult to blossom has been
of light as it grows ?  [2015 RS] made to produce fruits throughout the year
(a) Green plants seek light because they are by application of [NEET Kar. 2013]
phototropic (a) IAA, IBA (b) NAA, 2, 4-D
(b) Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted (c) Phenyl acetic acid (d) Cytokinin
side to grow faster 21. Which one of the following generally acts as
(c) Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, an antagonist to gibberellins? [2012M]
stimulating greater cell elongation there.
(a) Zeatin (b) Ethylene
(d) Green plants need light to perform
(c) ABA (d) IAA
photosynthesis
22. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven
15. Auxin can be bioassayed by :  [2015 RS]
distribution of:  [2010]
(a) Hydroponics
(a) gibberellin (b) phytochrome
(b) Potometer
(c) cytokinins (d) auxin
(c) Lettuce hypocotyl elongation
23. One of the synthetic auxin is: [2009]
(d) Avena coleoptile curvature
(a) IAA (b) GA
16. Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were
(c) IBA (d) NAA
removed and placed on agar for one hour, the
agar would produce a bending when placed 24. Which one of the following acids is a
on one side of freshly-cut coleoptile stumps. derivative of carotenoids ?  [2009]
Of what significance is this experiment? (a) Indole-3 -acetic acid
[2014] (b) Gibberellic acid
(a) It made possible the isolation and exact (c) Abscisic acid
identification of auxin. (d) Indole butyric acid
(b) It is the basis for quantitative determi- 25. Which one of the following pairs, is not
nation of small amounts of growth- correctly matched? [2007]
promoting substances. (a) Gibberellic acid - Leaf fall
(c) It supports the hypothesis that IAA is (b) Cytokinin - Cell wall elongation
auxin. (c) IAA - Cell wall elongation
(d) It demonstrated polar movement of (d) Abscissic acid - Stomatal closure.
auxins. 26. “Foolish seedling’’ disease of rice led to the
17. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept discovery of [2007]
in a dark room. After a few days they were (a) ABA (b) 2, 4-D
found to have become white-coloured like (c) IAA (d) GA
albinos. Which of the following terms will 27. An enzyme that can stimulate germination
you use to describe them?  [2014] of barley seeds is  [2006]
(a) Mutated (b) Embolised (a) lipase (b) protease
(c) Etiolated (d) Defoliated (c) invertase (d) a-amylase
18. Which one of the following growth regulators 28. How does pruning help in making the hedge
is known as ‘stress hormone’? [2014] dense?  [2006]
(a) Abscissic acid (b) Ethylene
(a) It frees axillary buds from apical
(c) GA3 (d) Indole acetic acid dominance
Plant Growth and Development 167
(b) The apical shoot grows faster after 39. Which is employed for artificial ripening of
pruning banana fruits?  [1992, 2000]
(c) It releases wound hormones (a) Auxin (b) Coumarin
(d) It induces the differentiation of new (c) Ethylene (d) Cytokinin
shoots from the rootstock 40. ABA is involved in  [1999]
29. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the (a) dormancy of seeds
green plants takes place due to [2004] (b) root elongation
(a) indole acetic acid (b) cytokinins (c) shoot elongation
(c) gibberellins (d) ethylene (d) increased cell division
30. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by 41. Which combination of gases is suitable for
 [2003] fruit ripening?  [1998]
(a) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio (a) 80% CO2 and 20% CH2
(b) high auxin : cytokinin ratio (b) 80% CH4 and 20% CO2
(c) high cytokinin : auxin ratio (c) 80% CO2 and 20% O2
(d) high gibberellin : auxin ratio (d) 80% C2H4 and 20% CO2
31. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its 42. A plant hormone used for inducing
effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is
hormone  [2003]  [1998]
(a) abscisic acid (b) auxin (a) gibberellins (b) cytokinins
(c) cytokinin (d) ethylene (c) ethylene (d) abscisic acid.
32. What reason will you assign for coconut 43. Gibberellins promote  [1988, 97]
milk used in tissue culture?  [2000, 03] (a) seed germination (b) seed dormancy
(a) Gibberellins (b) Cytokinins (c) leaf fall (d) root elongation
(c) Auxins (d) Ethylene 44. A chemical believed to be involved in
33. Seed dormancy is due to the  [2002] flowering is  [1991, 95]
(a) ethylene (b) abscisic acid (a) gibberellin (b) kinetin
(c) IAA (d) starch (c) florigen (d) IBA
34. Dwarfness can be controlled by treating the 45. Ethylene gas is used for  [1995]
plant with  [1992, 2002] (a) growth of plants
(a) cytokinin (b) gibberellic acid (b) delaying fruit’s abscission
(c) auxin (d) antigibberellin (c) ripening of fruits
35. What breaks bud dormancy of potato tuber? (d) stopping the leaf abscission
[2001] 46. Movement of auxin is  [1994]
(a) Gibberellin (b) IAA (a) centripetal (b) basipetal
(c) ABA (d) Zeatin (c) acropetal (d) both B and C
36. Hormone responsible for senescence [2001] 47. Auxetic growth is [1994]
(a) ABA (b) auxin (a) increase in cell volume only
(c) GA (d) cytokinin (b) increase in cell number only
37. Which of the following prevents fall of (c) increase in fatty tissue
fruits?  [2001] (d) increase in intercellular material
(a) GA3 (b) NAA 48. What is a stress hormone? or The hormone
(c) Ethylene (d) Zeatin produced during adverse environmental
38. Removal of apical bud results in conditions is  [1993]
[1993, 2000]
(a) benzyl aminopurine
(a) formation of new apical bud
(b) elongation of main stem (b) dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
(c) death of plant (c) ethylene
(d) formation of lateral branching (d) abscisic acid
 EBD_7325
168 BIOLOGY
49. The regulator which retards ageing/ (c) shoot elongation
senescence of plant parts is : [1993] (d) cell elongation and wall formation
(a) cytokinin (b) auxin 59. Highest auxin concentration occurs [1990]
(c) gibberellin (d) abscisic acid (a) in growing tips
50. Cytokinins  [1992] (b) in leaves
(a) promote abscission (c) at base of plant organs
(b) influence water movement (d) in xylem and phloem
60. Mowing grass lawn facilitates better
(c) help retain chlorophyll
maintenance because  [1989]
(d) inhibit protoplasmic streaming
(a) wounding stimulates regeneration
51. Apical dominance is caused by [1992] (b) removal of apical dominance and
(a) abscisic acid in lateral bud stimulation of intercalary meristem
(b) cytokinin in leaf tip (c) removal of apical dominance
(c) gibberellin in lateral buds (d) removal of apical dominance and
(d) auxin in shoot tip promotion of lateral meristem
52. Bananas can be prevented from over-ripening 61. Leaf fall can be prevented with the help of
by  [1992]  [1989]
(a) maintaining them at room temperature (a) abscisic acid (b) auxins
(b) refrigeration (c) florigen (d) cytokinins
(c) dipping in ascorbic acid solution 62. Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if
(d) storing in a freezer induced to root or dipped in [1988]
(a) gibberellins (b) cytokinins
53. The hormone responsible for apical
(c) auxins (d) ethylene
dominance is  [1991]
(a) IAA (b) GA Topic 3: Photoperiodism/Vernalisation
(c) ABA (d) florigen 63. Through their effect on plant growth
54. Abscisic acid causes  [1991] regulators, what do the temperature and
(a) stomatal closure (b) stem elongation light control in the plants? [2012M]
(c) leaf expansion (d) root elongation (a) Apical dominance
55. Hormone primarily connected with cell (b) Flowering
division is  [1988, 1991] (c) Closure of stomata
(a) IAA (b) NAA (d) Fruit elongation
(c) cytokinin/Zeatin (d) gibberellic acid 64. Vernalization stimulates flowering in
56. Which of the following movement is not [2012M]
related to auxin level?  [1990] (a) zamikand (b) turmeric
(c) carrot (d) ginger
(a) Bending of shoot towards light
65. Photoperiodism was first characterised in:
(b) Movement of root towards soil
(a) tobacco (b) potato [2010]
(c) Nyctinastic leaf movements
(c) tomato (d) cotton
(d) Movement of sunflower head tracking
the sun 66. Importance of day length in flowering of
plants was first shown in [2008]
57. Phototropic and geotropic movements are
(a) lemna (b) tobacco
linked to :  [1990]
(c) cotton (d) petunia
(a) gibberellins (b) enzymes
67. Treatment of seed at low temperature under
(c) auxin (d) cytokinins
moist conditions to break its dormancy is
58. Abscisic acid controls  [1990]
called  [2006]
(a) cell division (a) vernalization (b) chelation
(b) leaf fall and dormancy (c) stratification (d) scarification
Plant Growth and Development 169
68. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hours (b) Phytochrome is destroyed
day and 12 hours night period cycles and it (c) Phytochrome synthesis increases
flowered while in the other set night phase (d) Destruction and synthesis of phyto-
was interrupted by flash of light and it did chrome remain in equilibrium.
not produce flower. Under which one of 75. In short day plants, flowering is induced by
the following categories will you place this [1992]
plant?  [2004] (a) photoperiod less than 12 hours
(a) Long day (b) Darkness neutral (b) photoperiod below a critical length and
(c) Day neutral (d) Short day uninterrupted long night
69. The pigment, that absorbs red and far red (c) long night
light in plants, is  [1995, 97, 2002] (d) short photoperiod and interrupted long
(a) xanthophyll (b) cytochrome night
(c) phytochrome (d) carotene 76. Flowering dependent on cold treatment is
70. Which one is a long-day plant? [2001] [1992]
(a) Tobacco (b) Glycine max (a) cryotherapy (b) cryogenics
(c) Mirabilis jalapa (d) Spinach (c) cryoscopy (d) vernalisation
71. Proteinaceous pigment which control 77. Tendrils exhibit/twining of tendrils is due
activities concerned with light [2001]
to [1991]
(a) phytochrome (b) chlorophyll
(a) thigmotropism (b) seismonasty
(c) anthocyanin (d) carotenoids
(c) heliotropism (d) diageotropism
72. The method that renders the seed coat
78. Which one increases in the absence of light?
permeable to water so that embryo
[1989]
expansion is not physically retarded is [2000]
(a) Uptake of minerals
(a) vernalization (b) stratification
(b) Uptake of water
(c) denudation (d) scarification
(c) Elongation of internodes
73. The response of different organisms
(d) Ascent of sap
to environmental rhythms of light and
79. Which of the following hormones can
darkness is called  [1998]
(a) phototaxis (b) photoperiodism replace vernalisation?  [1989]
(c) phototropism (d) vernalization. (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin
74. What will be the effect on phytochrome in a (c) Gibberellins (d) Ethylene
plant subjected to continuous red light? 80. Phytochrome is involved in  [1988]
[1997] (a) phototropism (b) photorespiration
(a) Level of phytochrome decreases (c) photoperiodism (d) geotropism
 EBD_7325
170 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Sigmoid growth curve maintains equi- grow around a pole or the stem of another
librium with carrying capacity, it forms plant.
asymptote stage in plants. 9. (b) Klinostat = Clinostat is an apparatus
2. (c) The coiling of garden pea tendrils used to nullify the effect of geotropism. It has
around any support is an example of a clock on the main axis which is attached to
thigmotropism. Thigmotropism is the a rod. The Top of the rod is attached to a
growth movement in response to touch. flower pot. The klinostat is kept in horizontal
The stems and tendrils of the climbers are position and allowed to rotate (to nullify the
positively thigmotrophic in their response. geotropism) and plant growth is observed.
3. (b) Senescence is an active developmental 10. (d) Phytohormones are plant hormones
cellular process in the growth and which are synthesized by the plants and act
functioning of a flowering plant, indicated as regulators and influence physiological
in lead abscission. Senescence is the changes process like growth, movements etc. auxins,
that occur in an organism between maturity gibberellins etc. are the phytohormones.
and death, i.e., ageing. 11. (c) Monocot leaves have some specialized
Characteristically there is a deterioration in cells in the epidermal cells of their leaves
functioning as the cells become less efficient called bulliform cells (motor cells) which
in maintaining and replacing vital cells lose or gain turgidity due to which their
components. leaves show coiling and uncoiling.
4. (c) Opening of floral buds into flowers, is 12. (b) Auxins helps to prevent premature leaf
a type of autonomic movement of water and fruit fall.
which is due to epinasty. 13. (c) Auxin has been clearly demonstrated
5. (d) Anthesis is the period during which a in the leaf sheath or coleoptile of oat plant
flower is fully open and functional. It may (Avena sativa). This plant coleoptile has been
also refer to the onset of that period. used for the test of hormone Auxin (IAA)
6. (b) Mimosa pudica (touch me not) leaves participating in the growth of the plant.
show seismonastic movement in response to 14. (c) Auxin stimulates cell elongation. It
physical contact. The movement is because accumulates on shaded side which results in
of turgor changes due to ejection of water more elongation of cells towards shaded side
by cells of pulvinus (swollen leaf base) on of the plant. This causes bending of the plant
touching it. It causes folding and drooping towards source of light.
of leaves. 15. (d) Avena coleoptile curvature is used for the
7. (d) In northern India, during these months bioassay of auxin.
maximum variation in light intensity, 16. (b) Charles Darwin and his son Francis
duration and temperature is observed. Darwin observed that the coleoptiles
Hence, only plants that are photo-and of Oat (Avena sativa) and canary grass
thermoinsensitive can flower during these (Phalaris canariensis) responded to unilateral
months. illumination by growing towards the
8. (a) The phenomenon of thigmotropism is light source (phototropic curvature or
a response to contact with a solid object. It is phototropism). After a series of experiments,
exhibited by tendrils of climbing plants that it was concluded that the tip of the coleoptile
Plant Growth and Development 171
was the site of production of a substance, that It functions in many plant developmental
caused the bending of coleoptile. processes, including bud dormancy. Abscisic
17. (c) Etiolation is depigmentation of leaf acid is a derivative of carotenoids. It was
when plant is placed in dark for more than called “abscisin II” originally because it was
36 hrs. thought to play a major role in abscission
18. (a) Abscisic Acid (ABA) is called stress hor- of fruits. At about the same time another
mone which works in adverse environmental group was calling it “dormin” because they
condition when there is low water content in thought it had a major role in bud dormancy.
atmosphere or in drought conditions. ABA The name abscisic acid (ABA) was coined as
causes the stomatal closure of leaves due a compromise between the two groups.
to which the water loss by the plant is mini- 25. (a) Gibberllic acid stimulates cell growth
mized. of leaves and stem causing their expansion,
19. (c) Gibberellins stimulate the synthesis elongation respectively and leaf fall is
of α-amylase and protease enzyme in controlled by ABA.
germinating grains of cereals. They are 26. (d) The effect of gibberellins had been
involved in the conversion of starch into known in Japan since early 1800 where
sugar. The proteases convert an inactive certain rice plants were found to suffer
β-amylase to the active form. The active from bakane or bakanae (foolish seedling)
β-amylase and α-amylase together digest disease. Such rice plants were thin, pale
starch to glucose which is mobilized to meet green, spindle-shaped, longer by 50% than
the metabolic demands of embryo. the healthy plants, and were sterile.
20. (b) Plants which are difficult to flower can 27. (d) a-amylase enzyme stimulates the
be made to do so by spraying them with 2, 4, germination of barley seed.
–D (2, 4 – dichlorophenoxy acetic acid) and 28. (a) When an apical bud is present on a
NAA (napthalene acetic acid) which are plant, it suppresses the growth of axillary
synthetic auxins, e.g., litchi, pineapple. buds, this is called apical dominance. When
21. (c) Gibberellins & ABA are antagonistic to in pruning apical bud is cut off the axillary
each other. ABA counteracts many effects of buds start growing & hedge become dense.
gibberellins like induction of hydrolases and 29. (c) Gibberellins induces elongation of
alpha- amylases in barley seedlings. internodes.
22. (d) Phototrophic curvature is the result 30. (c) Differentiation of root is controlled by
of uneven distribution of auxin. The high auxin concentration. While in tissue
experiments conducted by Charles Darwin culture, auxin concentration is made high to
concluded that the tip of coleoptile of promote rooting.
canary grass contain auxin that causes the 31. (b) Zinc is one of the components of auxin.
bending of the entire coleoptile towards the 32. (b) The medium in tissue culture provides
light source. all the essential nutrients required for
23. (d) NAA is a synthetic auxin. Some of growth and division of callus. Coconut milk
the most widely used weed killers are contains cytokinins which is useful in tissue
synthetic auxins. Synthetic auxin analogs culture.
include 1–naphthaleneacetic acid (NAA), 2, 33. (b) Ethylene breaks dormancy of different
4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2, 4-D) and plants. Abscisic acid induces dormancy in
2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4,5- seeds, buds and underground storage organs.
T). 34. (b) One of the most important effects
24. (c) Abscisic acid (ABA), also known as of gibberellins is the reversal of dwarfism
abscisin II and dormin, is a plant hormone.
 EBD_7325
172 BIOLOGY
(even in genetically dwarf plants). Dwarf stem and (ii) anthesins which are necessary
pea & dwarf corn attain almost normal size for flower formation. Acting together they
when treated with gibberellins. It has been form the substance named ‘florigen’.
proven that dwarf plants have lower level 45. (c) Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone
of GA which causes the dwarfism. Thus which plays an important role in fruit
the external supply causes rapid elongation ripening. In the presence of ethylene there is
of internodes. GA does not have any effect an increase in the rate of respiration.
on elongation of normal (non dwarf or tall) 46. (d) Auxins are synthesized at the tip of
plant. shoot & then transported towards the base
35. (a) IAA promotes apical dominance. ABA i.e. basipetal. In all segments of root at all
induces dormancy in buds. temperatures, the movement of auxin is
36. (a) ABA or Abscisic acid is responsible for polarised acropetally.
leaf fall or senescence. 47. (a) Three types of growth are present in
37. (b) NAA or Naphthalene Acetic Acid is multicellular animals :
synthetic auxin. It is used to check fruit fall (i) Auxetic growth : Increase in cell
specially in tomato. volume only, not in number.
(ii) Multiplication growth : Increase in
38. (d) Apical buds inhibit lateral branching
number, not in volume.
due to apical dominance. Removal of apical
(iii) Accretionary growth : Growth is due
bud promotes lateral branching. to mitotic division of some special
39. (c) Ethylene is a plant hormone which has type of cells occurring in specific
the most remarkable effect of stimulation of locations of body.
fruit ripening. 48. (d) Abscisic Acid (ABA) is called
40. (a) Gibberellins are involved in shoot stress hormone which works in adverse
elongation. Auxins are important in root environmental condition when there is
elongation and cell division. low water content in the atmosphere or
41. (d) Ethylene acts physiologically as a in drought conditions. ABA causes the
hormone in plants. It stimulates the ripening stomatal closure of leaves due to which the
of fruit, the opening of flowers, and the water loss by the plant is minimized.
abscission (or shedding) of leaves. Its 49. (a) Cytokinins help in retaining chlorophyll,
biosynthesis starts from methionine with hence delay senescense.
1-aminocyclopropane-1-carboxylic acid 50. (c) Cytokinins cause delay in senescence
(ACC) as a key intermediate. (Richmond-Lang effect). Senescence is the
42. (b) Cytokinins are used in tissue culture to phenomenon in which the mature leaves
induce shooting of the cultural callus. lose chlorophyll, turn yellow and fall off.
43. (a) Some light sensitive seeds like Lectuca 51. (d) Apical dominance is the phenomenon
sativa (Lettuce) germinate in complete by which presence of apical bud does not
darkness with the help of Gibberellins which allow lateral buds to grow. Apical dominance
otherwise require specific light conditions. is due to auxin. When shoot tip is cut; then
44. (c) Chailakhyan (1936) a Russian inves- lateral buds start growing.
tigator who researched on photoperiodism 52. (c) Ascorbic acid is an organic acid with
proposed the term ‘florigen’. According to antioxidant properties. Its appearance is
him ‘Florigen Complex’, the true flowering white to light yellow crystals or powder.
hormone includes two group of substances It is water soluble. The L-enantiomer
formed in leaves (i) gibberellins which are of ascorbic acid is commonly known as
necessary for the formation and growth of Vitamin C. Ascorbic acid is easily oxidized
Plant Growth and Development 173
and so is used as a reductant in photographic 61. (d) It is due to Richmond-Lang effect.
developer solutions and as a preservative. Cytokinins prevent degeneration of
53. (a) Apical dominance is caused by the chlorophyll, proteins and nucleic acids.
action of auxins. IAA (Indole-3-acetic acid) They increase of inflow of auxin and amino
is a naturally occurring auxin. acids. It reactivates leaf metabolism.
54. (a) Abscisic acid is a stress hormone. During 62. (b) Cytokinins help cells in retaining
desication abscisic acid is synthesized which chlorophyll for longer time. Cytokinins
reduces transpiration by closure of stomata. delay the senescence (ageing) of leaves and
It conserves water. other organs.
55. (c) The most important function of 63. (b) Flowering is induced by light and
cytokinins (zeatin is a cytokinin present in temperature.
Zea mays - the corn) is the promotion of cell 64. (c) Carrot is a biennial plant which flowers
division. These are now established as true in the second season. Vernalization is
cell division factors. the subjection of seeds or seedlings to
56. (c) All movements except nyctinastic low temperature in order to hasten plant
movement are related to auxin. Nyctinastic development and flowering. Vernalization
(sleeping) movement of leaves is due to is commonly used for crop plants such as
diurnal changes. (changes in day and night). winter rye and is possible because the seeds
57. (c) Phototropic movements are the plant and buds of many plants require cold in
responses towards light. Generally plant order to break dormancy. Winter cereals are
shoot and flower show positive phototropism therefore sown in the autumn for flowering
while geotropism is the plant response to the following year. However, if germinating
the gravity of earth. Generally roots are seeds are artificially vernalized they can be
positively geotropic. All these movements sown in the spring for flowering the same
are linked to Auxin. year. Biennial plants, such as carrot (Daucus
58. (b) Abscisic acid as the name suggests carota), will remain in their non - flowering
cause abscission due to which leaves fall. It rosette form until subjected to cold treatment.
also acts as a growth inhibitor & induces bud 65. (a) Photoperiodism is the response to
dormancy in various plants. duration and timings of light and dark
59. (a) Highest concentration of auxins period. It was first characterised in tobacco
occurs at the growing tips. This was proved plant.
by Went in 1928 by his experiment on 66. (b) Photoperiodism was first studied by
Avena coleoptile. It was demonstrated that Garner and Allard (1920). They observed
auxins are synthesized at the tips and then that “Maryland Mammoth” variety of
translocated downwards where they cause tobacco could be made to flower in summer
by reducing the light hours with artificial
growth.
darkening. It could be made to remain
60. (b) Apical dominance is a common
vegetative in winter by providing extra light.
observation in vascular plants. If apical
67. (c) Treatment of seed at a low temperature
meristem is intact & growing, the growth
under moist conditions to break dormancy is
of lateral tips is suppressed. According to
called stratification.
Thimann & Skoog the auxin, synthesized in
68. (d) Short day plants require long
apical meristem, is translocated downwards
uninterrupted dark period for flowering.
& inhibits the growth of lateral tips. That
They will not produce flower if night was
is why mowing grass lawns facilitate better
interrupted by flash of light.
maintenance.
 EBD_7325
174 BIOLOGY
69. (c) The pigment phytochrome is involved • Inhibition of synthesis of Pr.
in flowering and many other light-mediated • Total amount of phytochrome decreases.
processes. It absorbs red and far red light in 75. (b) A short day plant is one that flowers on
plants for photosynthesis. photoperiods shorter than the critical day
70. (d) Long day plants undergo flowering after length. It generally flowers when treated by
receiving light above a critical day length. e.g. a short day and uninterrupted long night
Spinach, sugarbeet. Short day plants flower (more than 12 hrs.)
only when they receive light below a critical 76. (d) Vernalization is the method of inducing
day length. e.g. Glycine max, Tobacco. early flowering in plants by pretreatment of
71. (a) Borthwick & Hendricks (1952) gave the their seeds at low temperature.
concept of phytochrome. Phytochrome is a 77. (a) Twining of tendrils is due to
coloured protein pigment located in plasma thigmotropism i.e. movement due to the
membrane to perceive the photoperiodic contact with a foreign body (touch).
stimulus in leaves. It may exist in two 78. (c) In the absence of light stem becomes
interconvertable forms Pr and Pfr (red and excessive long due to ‘etiolation’. This causes
far red light absorbing forms). cells of internodes to get enlarged.
72. (d) Scarification is the breaking of the 79. (c) Vernalization is the low temperature
seed coat barriers which can be done by treatment for flowering in plants. Plants
mechanical or chemical methods. are treated (seeds and seedlings) with very
73. (b) Photoperiodism is the effect of duration low temperature to promote germination.
of light and darkness on the growth, A Lang & co-workers demonstrated that
development and behaviour of an organism. the application of gibberellins can replace
74 (a) Continuous exposure to red light causes the cold treatment or vernalization in many
• Conversion of Pr to Pfr which is rapidly plants.
destroyed. 80. (c) Refer Answer 42.
 Chapter

16 Digestion and Absorption

Topic 1: Digestive System 6. The primary dentition in human differs from

permanent dentition in not having one of the
1. Which cells of “Crypts of Lieberkuhn”
following type of teeth : [2015 RS]
secrete antibacterial lysozyme ?   [2017]
(a) Premolars (b) Molars
(a) Paneth cells (b) Zymogen cells
(c) Incisors (d) Canine
(c) Kupffer cells (d) Argentaffin cells
7. Where do certain symbiotic micro-organisms
2. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver
normally occur in human body?
from :    [2017]
[2012M]
(a) Stomach (b) Kidneys
(a) Caecum
(c) Intestine (d) Heart
(b) Oral lining and tongue surface
3. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play
(c) Vermiform appendix and rectum
school and passes through a dental check - up.
The dentist observed that the boy had twenty (d) Duodenum
teeth. Which teeth were absent?    [2017] 8. Two friends are eating together on a dining
(a) Canines (b) Pre-molars table. One of them suddenly starts coughing
while swallowing some food. This coughing
(c) Molars (d) Incisors
would have been due to improper movement
4. Which of the following guards the opening
of:      [2011]
of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum ?
(a) epiglottis (b) diaphragm
[2016]
(c) neck (d) tongue
(a) Semilunar valve
9. Which one of the following correctly
(b) Ileocaecal valve
represents the normal adult human dental
(c) Pyloric sphincter formula ?      [2011M]
(d) Sphincter of Oddi 3 1 3 1 2 1 3 3
5. Which of the following statements is not (a) , , , (b) , , ,
3 1 2 1 2 1 2 3
correct?    [2015 RS] 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3
(a) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of (c) , , , , , ,
2 1 2 3 (d)
3 1 3 3
intestine and secrete mucus
10. If for some reason our goblet cells are non
(b) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa
functional, this will adversely affect:  [2010]
of stomach and secrete HCl.
(a) production of somatostatin
(c) Acini are present in the pancreas and
(b) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous
secrete carboxypeptidase
glands
(d) Brunner’s glands are present in the
(c) maturation of sperms
submucosa of stomach and secrete
(d) smooth movement of food down the
pepsinogen
intestine
 EBD_7325
176 BIOLOGY
11. Which one of the following is the correct 18. The contraction of gall bladder is due to
matching of the site of action on the given [1998]
substrate, the enzyme acting upon it and the (a) Gastrin (b) Cholecystokinin
end product?      [2008]
(c) Secretin (d) Enterogastrone
(a) Duodenum: Triglycerides Monoglycer-
19. Kupffer’s cells occur in [1993]
ides
(a) spleen (b) kidney
(b) Small inestine: Starch Disaccharide
(Maltose) (c) brain (d) liver
(c) Small intestine: Proteins Amino acids 20. Brunner’s glands occur in [1992]
(d) Stomach: Fats Micelles (a) submucosa of duodenum
12. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and (b) submucosa of stomach
secreted by       [2006] (c) mucosa of oesophagus
(a) endothelial cells (lining the blood (d) mucosa of ileum
vessels) 21. Pancreas produces [1991]
(b) liver cells (a) three digestive enzymes and one
(c) juxtaglomerular (JG) cells hormone
(d) macula densa cells (b) three types of digestive enzymes and
13. Stool of a person is whitish grey coloured two hormones
due to malfunction of which of the following (c) two digestive enzymes and one
organ?       [2002] hormone
(a) Pancreas (b) Spleen (d) three digestive enzymes and no
hormone
(c) Kidney (d) Liver
22. Emulsification of fat is carried out by [1990]
14. The daily dietary requirement of a
moderately active adult individual is (a) Bile pigments (b) Bile salts
approximately      [1999] (c) HCl (d) Pancreatic juice
(a) 8,000 k cal (b) 4,000 k cal 23. In man the zymogen or chief cells are mainly
(c) 1,000 k cal (d) 2,500 k cal found in       [1990]
15. The food having fully undergone mechanical (a) Cardiac part of stomach
and chemical digestion inside the stomach, (b) Pyloric part of stomach
is called       [1999] (c) Duodenum
(a) Chyle (b) Bolus (d) Fundic part of stomach
(c) Amino acid (d) Chyme 24. Duct leading from parotid gland and opening
16. An adolescent human below 17 years of age into vestibule is      [1988]
normally has dental formula as    [1999] (a) Haversian duct
3 1 3 1 2 1 2 3 (b) Stensen’s duct
(a) , , , (b) , , ,
3 1 2 1 2 1 2 3 (c) Wolffian duct
2 1 2 3 2 1 2 2 (d) Infra-orbital duct
(c) , , , (d) , , ,
2 1 2 3 2 1 2 2 25. Wharton’s duct is associated with [1988]
17. The layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth (a) Sublingual salivary duct
is         [1998] (b) Parotid salivary gland
(a) Ameloblast (b) Osteoblast (c) Submaxillary salivary gland
(c) Odontoblast (d) Dentoblast (d) Brunner’s glands
Digestion and Absorption 177

Topic 2: Digestion and Absorption of (c) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine,

Digested Products active absorption
(d) Glycine, glucose Small intestine,
26. Which of the following options best represents
active absorption
the enzyme composition of pancreatic
juice?   [2017] 32. A healthy person eats the following diet - 5
(a) amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase gm raw sugar, 4 gm albumin, 10 gm pure
buffalo ghee adultrated with 2 gm vegetable
(b) peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
ghee (hydrogenated vegetable oil) and 5 gm
(c) lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxy-
lignin. How many calories he is likely to get?
peptidase
[NEET Kar. 2013]
(d) amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
27. In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the (a) 144 (b) 126
[2016] (c) 164 (d) 112
(a) gastrin secreting cells 33. Which enzymes are likely to act on the baked
(b) parietal cells potatoes eaten by a man, starting from the
mouth and as it moves down the alimentary
(c) peptic cells
canal? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(d) acidic cells
(a) Salivary maltase → carboxypeptidase
28. Gastric juice of infants contains :  [2015 RS]
→ trypsinogen
(a) nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase
(b) Pancreatic amylase → salivary amylase
(b) pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
→ lipases
(c) amylase, rennin, pepsinogen
(c) Disaccharidase like maltase → lipases
(d) maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
→ nucleases
29. The initial step in the digestion of milk in
(d) Salivary amylase → pancreatic amylase
humans is carried out by       [2014]
→ disaccharidases
(a) Lipase (b) Trypsin
34. Which one of the following enzymes carries
(c) Rennin (d) Pepsin
out the initial step in the digestion of milk in
30. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through
humans?       [2011]
mucosa cells of intestine by the process
called:  [2014] (a) Pepsin (b) Rennin
(a) active transport (c) Lipase (d) Trypsin
(b) facilitated transport 35. One of the constituents of the pancreatic
(c) simple diffusion juice while poured into the duodenum in
humans, is:     [2011M]
(d) co-transport mechanism
(a) trypsinogen (b) chymotrypsin
31. Select the correct match of the digested
products in humans given in column -I with (c) trypsin (d) enterokinase
their absorption site and mechanism in 36. A young infant may be feeding entirely on
column-II  [NEET 2013] mothers milk which is white in colour but
Column I Column II the stools which the infant passes out is quite
(a) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to ?
passive [2009]
absorption (a) bile pigments passed through bile juice
(b) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, (b) undigested milk protein casein
move as (c) pancreatic juice poured into duodenum
chylomicrons (d) intestinal juice
 EBD_7325
178 BIOLOGY
37. Which one of the following statements is 42. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in
true regarding digestion and absorption of food absorption have on their surface:  [2005]
food in humans?       [2009] (a) pinocytic vesicles
(a) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed (b) microvilli
through intestinal mucosa with the help (c) zymogen granules
of carrier ions like Na+. (d) phagocytic vesicles
(b) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein 43. Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive
particles that are transported from hormones. They are secreted in :    [2005]
intestine into blood capillaries. (a) Pyloric stomach (b) Duodenum
(c) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by (c) Ileum (d) Oesophagus
salivary amylase in our mouth 44. Duodenum has characteristic Brunner’s
gland which secrete two hormones called
(d) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the
[2004]
proenzyme pepsinogen.
(a) Kinase, estrogen
38. Which one of the following pairs of food
(b) Secretin, cholecystokinin
components in humans reaches the stomach
(c) Prolactin, parathormone
totally undigested?      [2009]
(d) Estradiol, progesterone
(a) Starch and fat
45. During prolonged fasting, in what sequence
(b) Fat and cellulose
are the following organic compounds used
(c) Starch and cellulose
up by the body ?       [2003]
(d) Protein and starch
(a) First proteins, next lipids and lastly
39. What will happen if the secretion of parietal
carbohydrates
cells of gastric glands is blocked with an
(b) First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly
inhibitor?       [2008]
proteins
(a) Gastric juice will be deficient in
(c) First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly
chymosin
proteins
(b) Gastric juice will be deficient in
(d) First carbohydrates, next proteins and
pepsinogen
lastly lipids
(c) In the absence of HCI secretion,
46. Hydrolytic enzymes which act on low pH
inactive pepsinogen is not converted
are called as       [2002]
into the active enzyme pepsin
(a) proteases (b) a-amylases
(d) Enterokinase will not be released
(c) hydrolases (d) peroxidases
from the duodenal mucosa and so
47. A person is eating boiled potato, which food
trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin
component is found in it ?      [2000]
40. A person who is one along hunger strike and
(a) DNA which gets digested by pancreatic
is surviving only on water, will have  [2007]
DNAase
(a) less amino acids in his urine
(b) Lactose which is indigestible
(b) more glucose in his blood
(c) Starch which does not get digested
(c) less urea in his urine
(d) Cellulose which is digested by intestinal
(d) more sodium in his urine.
cellulose
41. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration,
48. Secretin and cholecystokinin are two
saliva and tears, destroys   [2007]
hormones involved in digestion. They are
(a) certain types of bacteria secreted by       [1999]
(b) all viruses (a) Duodenum (b) Ileum
(c) most virus-infected cells (c) Oesophagus (d) Stomach
(d) certain fungi
Digestion and Absorption 179
49. The hormone that stimulates the stomach to 56. Secretion of gastric juice is stopped by
secrete gastric juice is      [1998] [1993]
(a) Enterogastrone (b) Enterokinase (a) Gastrin
(c) Renin (d) Gastrin (b) Pancreazymin
50. A person had to undergo a surgery in which a (c) Cholecystokinin
major portion of his pancreas was removed. (d) Enterogastrone
Which of the following food constituents 57. Most of the fat digestion occurs in [1993]
will he find especially difficult to digest ?
(a) Rectum (b) Stomach
[1997]
(c) Duodenum (d) Small intestine
(a) Starch (b) Proteins
58. Where is protein digestion accomplished?
(c) Fats (d) Lactose sugar
51. For persons suffering from high blood [1991]
cholesterol, the physicians recommend (a) Stomach (b) Ileum
[1996] (c) Rectum (d) Duodenum
(a) pure ‘deshi ghee’ or butter 59. Secretin stimulates production of [1990]
(b) vegetable oil such as groundnut oil (a) Saliva (b) Gastric juice
(c) red meat with layers of fats (c) Bile (d) Pancreatic juice
(d) vanaspati margarine 60. Pancreatic juice and hormones of pancreas
52. Which one of the following is a matching are produced by      [1990]
pair of a substrate and its particular digestive (a) Same cells
enzyme?       [1996] (b) Same cells at different times
(a) Starch — maltase (c) Statement is wrong
(b) Lactose — rennin (d) Different cells
(c) Maltose — steapsin
61. Release of pancreatic juice is stimulated by
(d) Casein — chymotrypsin
[1989]
53. The enzyme enterokinase helps in the
(a) Enterokinase (b) Cholecystokinin
conversion of       [1995]
(a) pepsinogen into pepsin (c) Trypsinogen (d) Secretin
(b) trypsinogen into trypsin Topic 3: Disorders of Digestive System
(c) caesinogen into caesin
(d) proteins into polypeptides 62. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an
54. Renin acts on [1994] otherwise normal human, may lead to
(a) milk changing casein into calcium [2012]
paracaseinate at 7.2 – 8.2 pH (a) Indigestion (b) Jaundice
(b) proteins in stomach (c) Diarrhoea (d) Vomiting
(c) fat in intestine 63. When breast feeding is replaced by less
(d) milk changing casein into calcium nutritive food low in proteins and calories;
paracaseinate at 1 – 3 pH. the infants below the age of one year are
55. Inhibition of gastric and stimulation of likely to suffer from:      [2009]
gastric, pancreatic and bile secretions are (a) Rickets (b) Kwashiorkor
controlled by hormones       [1994]
(a) Gastrin, secretin, enterokinin and (c) Pellagra (d) Marasmus
cholecystokinin 64. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble
(b) Enterogastrone, gastrin, pancreozymin vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
and cholecystokinin [2007]
(c) Gastrin, enterogastrone, cholecystoki- (a) Retinol - Xerophthalmia
nin and pancreozymin (b) Cobalamine - Beri-beri
(d) Secretin, enterogastrone, gastrin and (c) Calciferol - Pellagra
enterokinin (d) A scorbic acid - Scurvy.
 EBD_7325
180 BIOLOGY
65. Which group of three of the following five 70. Fluoride pollution mainly affects [2003]
statements (a-e) contain is all three correct (a) kidney (b) brain
statements regarding beri-beri?    [2005] (c) heart (d) teeth
(A) a crippling disease prevalant among 71. Which one of the following pairs is not
the native population of sub-Saharan correctly matched? [2003]
Africa; (a) Vitamin B6 – Beri Beri
(B) a deficiency disease caused by lack of (b) Vitamin C – Scurvy
thiamine (vitamin B1) (c) Vitamin B3 – Pellagra
(C) a nutritional disorder in infants (d) Vitamin B12 – Pernicious anaemia
and young children when the diet 72. The haemorrhagic disease of new born is
is persistently deficient in essential caused due to the deficiency of [2002]
protein; (a) vitamin A (b) vitamin B1
(D) occurs in those countries where the (c) vitamin B12 (d) vitamin K
staple diet is polished rice; 73. Which set is correct? [2001]
(E) the symptoms are pain from neuritis, (a) Corpus callosum — Grafian follicle
paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive (b) Sebum — Sweat
oedema, mental deterioration and (c) Bundle of His — Pace maker
finally heart failure; (d) Vitamin B7 — Niacin
(a) B, D and E (b) A, B and D 74. Which one is correctly matched? [2001]
(c) A, C and E (d) B, C and E (a) Vitamin E — Tocopherol
66. A patient is generally advised to specially, (b) Vitamin D — Riboflavin
consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs (c) Vitamin B — Calciferol
in diet only when he suffers from   [2005] (d) Vitamin A — Thiamine
(a) Scurvy (b) Kwashiorkor 75. A person deficient in the rhodopsin should
(c) Rickets (d) Anemia be advised to take more of      [2000]
67. Which one of the following pairs is not (a) Guava and ripe banana
correctly matched?      [2004] (b) Apple and grapes
(a) Vitamin B12 - Pernicious anaemia (c) Carrot and ripe papaya
(b) Vitamin B6 - Loss of appetite (d) Radish and potato
(c) Vitamin B1 - Beri-beri 76. A patient suffering from cholera is given saline
(d) Vitamin B3 - Pellagra drip because  [1996, 2000]
68. Which one of the following is the correct (a) Cl– ions are important component of
matching of a vitamin, its nature and its blood plasma
deficiency disease?      [2004] (b) Na+ ions help to retain water in the body
(a) Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Night (c) Na+ ions are important in transport of
blindness substances across membrane
(b) Vitamin K – Fat-Soluble – Beri-beri
(d) Cl– ions help in the formation of HCl in
(c) Vitamin A – Fat-soluble – Beri-beri
stomach for digestion
(d) Vitamin K – Water-soluble – Pellagra
77. Which one of the following pairs is
69. The richest sources of vitamin B12 are  [2004]
mismatched?       [1999]
(a) Goat’s liver and Spirulina
(a) Vitamin C - Scurvy
(b) Chocolate and green gram
(b) Vitamin D - Rickets
(c) Rice and hen’s egg
(c) Vitamin K - Beri Beri
(d) Carrot and chicken’s breast
(d) Vitamin A - Xerophthalmia
Digestion and Absorption 181
78. Nutrients absorbed by the blood capillaries 84. A dental disease characterized by mottling
of intestinal villi first go into     [1999] of teeth is due to the presence of a certain
(a) liver through hepatic portal vein
chemical element in drinking water. Which
(b) hepatic artery
(c) aorta of the following is that element ?    [1995]
(d) posterior vena cava (a) mercury (b) chlorine
79. One of the factors required for the maturation (c) fluorine (d) boron
of erythrocytes is      [1998] 85. Prolonged deficiency of nicotinic acid
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B12 produces       [1994]
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
(a) Osteomalacia (b) Xerophthalmia
80. Which one of the following is a protein
deficiency disease?       [1998] (c) Pellagra (d) Anaemia
(a) Night blindness (b) Eczema 86. Calcium deficiency occurs in the absence of
(c) Kwashiorkor (d) Cirrhosis vitamin       [1994]
81. Which one of the following vitamins can be (a) D (b) C
synthesized by bacteria inside the gut? [1997] (c) E (d) B
(a) B1 (b) C
87. Vitamin K is required for [1993]
(c) D (d) K
82. Which one of the following is a matching (a) change of prothrombin to thrombin
pair of a vitamin and the deficiency disease (b) synthesis of prothrombin
related with it ?      [1996] (c) change of fibrinogen to fibrin
(a) Riboflavin — beri beri (d) formation of thromboplastin
(b) Thiamine — xerophthalmia
88. Which of the following pair is characterised
(c) Niacin — pellagra
(d) Calciferol — scurvy by swollen lips, thick pigmented skin of
83. The vitamin C or ascorbic acid prevents hands and legs and irritability?   [1993]
[1995] (a) Thiamine – Beri-Beri
(a) rickets (b) Protein – Kwashiorkor
(b) pellagra (c) Nicotinamide – Pellagra
(c) scurvy
(d) Iodine – Goitre
(d) antibody synthesis
 EBD_7325
182 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) – Kupffer-cells are phagocytic cells mucus lubricates the food for an easy
present in liver. passage. So, if for some reason, goblet cells
– Zymogen cells are enzyme producing cells become non-functional, it will adversely
which are secreted by pancreas. affect the smooth movement of food down
– Paneth cell secrete lysozyme which acts the intestine.
as anti-bacterial agent, into the lumen of 11. (b) Small intestine- Starch disaccharide
intestine. (maltose)
– Argentaffin cells are hormone producing Smal1 intestine is the portion of the
cells. alimentary canal between the stomach and
2. (c) In hepatic portal system, hepatic portal large intestine. It is subdivided into the
vein drains blood to liver from intestine. duodenum, jejunum and ileum. It plays
3. (b) Total number of teeth in a human child is an essential role in the final digestion and
20. In primary dentition premolars are absent. absorption of food.
4. (d) The sphincter of Oddi (or hepatopan- 12. (b) Angiotensinogen is a protein secreted
creatic sphincter) is a muscular valve that by the liver cells.
controls the flow of digestive juices (bile and 13. (d) Stool colour is due to the bile pigments,
pancreatic juice) through the ampulla of Vater biliverdine and bilirubin secreted by liver.
into the second part of the duodenum. whitish grey stool colour indicates secretion
5. (d) Duodenum contains Brunner’s glands of biliveridin and bilirubin is not proper
which secrete mucus and digestive juices. from the liver.
6. (a) The dental formula for milk teeth is 14. (d) The daily dietary requirement of
, so premolars are absent in the primary a moderately active adult individual is
approximately 2,500 k cal.
dentition. 15. (d) After mastication, food is converted
7. (a) The caecum is a pouch-like portion into a small ball by rolling of the tongue
of the large intestine which hosts some known as bolus. Churning movement of
symbiotic micro-organisms. The caecum the stomach brings about mechanical
absorbs water and salts from undigested breakdown of the food into finer particles.
foods before they continue on to the large The pulpy mass formed in stomach is called
intestine. chyme. In the intestine food is converted
8. (a) The coughing would have been due to into a liquid emulsion due to completion
improper movement of epiglottis. of digestion of most of the nutrients. The
9. (c) The adult dental formula of human is liquefied food emulsion contained in small
2 1 2 intestine is called chyle.
Incisor , Canine , Premolar , 16. (d) The permanent teeth appear completely
2 1 2
3 by the age of 12 years, except for the last
Molar .
3 molars, which, if present, are formed after
10. (d) Goblet cells, found in the intestinal the age of 18 years. The dental formula
mucosal epithelium, secrete mucus. The before the wisdom teeth appear would be
Digestion and Absorption 183

2 1 2 2 24. (b) A pair of parotid glands (the largest

i , c ; pm , m salivary glands) present in the cheeks just
2 1 2 2
under the ears open in the vestibule (a narrow,
after wisdom teeth appear groove like space which separates the gums
2 1 2 3 from lips and cheeks) by the parotid ducts
i , c ; pm , m also known as Stensen’s duct.
2 1 2 3
25. (c) A pair of submaxillary glands lie at the
17. (a) Osteoblast are the bone degenerating
angles of lower jaw open by submaxillary
cells. Odontoblast are the special cells
ducts also known as Wharton’s ducts. They
secreting dentine.
open under the tongue behind the lower
18. (b) Secretin released by duodenum inhibits
incisor of its sides. These glands are present
movements in the gastrontestinal tract.
in most mammals but absent in rabbit &
Enterogasterone inhibits digestive activity
horses. They mostly secrete mucus of saliva.
of stomach. Gastrin stimulates secretion of
HCl. 26. (c) Rennin and Pepsin enzymes are present
19. (d) Kupffer’s cells or stellate cells are active in the gastric juice whereas Maltase is present
phagocytic cells present in the liver. They in the intestinal juice.
engulf the worn out and dead RBCs & 27. (b) The main constituent of gastric acid
break down haemoglobin. They are hepatic is hydrochloric acid which is produced by
macrophages. parietal cells (also called oxyntic cells) in the
20. (a) These are the tubulo-alveolar glands gastric glands in the stomach.
present in the submucosa of duodenum only. 28. (b) Gastric juice of infants contains
They secrete an alkaline mucus with very pepsinogen, lipase and rennin. Gastric
little enzymes & pour their secretion into juice does not contain amylase, maltase &
crypts of Lieberkuhn. nuclease.
21. (b) Pancreas produces enzymes (i) 29. (c) Rennin (also called chymosin) is an
trypsinogen which is then activated enzyme that occurs in gastric juice and is a
by enterokinase into active trypsin (ii) constituent of rennet. It coagulates milk by
chymotrypsinogen which is again an converting caseinogen to casein. The initial
inactive proenzyme, activated by trypsin (iii) step in the digestion of milk in humans is
procarboxypeptidases which are activated carried out by rennin.
into carboxypeptidases by trypsin and two 30. (b) Facilitated transport is a form of passive
hormones (a) Insulin (b) Glucagon which
transport in which materials are moved across
control the glucose level in blood.
the plasma membrane by a transport protein
22. (b) Bile salts viz sodium glycocholate &
down their concentration gradient; hence, it
sodium taurocholate (both are organic salts
does not require energy.
present in bile) reduce the surface tension
31. (d) Small intestine is major area of
of large fat globules and break them to fine
absorbtion of nutrients. Approximately
minute fat droplets. This process is known as
emulsification of fats. 80% of absorbtion take place here. Glucose,
23. (d) Zymogen or chief cells are mainly found fructose, fatty acids, amino acids (Glycine
in the fundic part of the stomach. They etc.) are absorbed through mucosa into
are the most abundant among the gastric blood and lymph by active absorbtion.
glands & secrete proenzymes, propepsin and 32. (a) Physiological value of carbohydrates is
prorenin. (They are also present in intestine 4.0 kcal/g, proteins 4.0 kcal/g and of fats is
but their main site is stomach). 9.0 kcal/g. Hence,
 EBD_7325
184 BIOLOGY
5 g raw sugar will yield 5 × 4.0 = 20.0 kcal the breaking down of polysaccharides,
4 g albumin (protein) will yield 4 × 4.0 complex carbohydrates that contain many
= 16.0 kcal monosaccharides. Chief among these is
10 + 2 g of fat will yield 12 × 9.0 amylase, a starch that accounts for 20 percent
= 108.0 kcal of dietary carbohydrate.
Total yield = 144 kcal. 38. (b) Fat and cellulose is the pair of food
components in human that reaches the
33. (d) Chemical process of digestion starts in
stomach totally undigested.
the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the
39. (c) If the secretion of parietal cells of
carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary
gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor,
amylase. Carbohydrates in the chyme are
in the absence of HCI secretion, inactive
hydrolysed by pancreatic amylase into
pepsinogen is not converted into the active
disaccharides.
enzyme pepsin.
34. (b) Rennin is an enzyme that is essential
40. (c) Due to a long hunger strike and survival
for the protein digestion. It is active in acidic
on water, a person will have less urea in his
medium and inactive in normal gastric juice
urine because urea is delivered to kidney
of adult.
as a waste product from liver which is
35. (a) Trypsinegen it is inactive form and formed after the breakdown of proteins fats,
we know that all enzymes of pancreas are carbohydrates during hunger.
secreted in this form. Enzyme enterokinase 41. (a) Lysozyme is an antibacterial agent
is secreted from the duodenal mucosa, at which is secreted by the major salivary
the chemical stage that changes the inactive glands.
pancreatic secretion trypsinogen to trypsin. 42. (b) Presence of microvilli on the epithelial
36. (a) Young infant may be feeding entirely cells of intestine increases the surface area
on mother’s milk which is white in colour for absorption of food.
but the stools which the infant passes out is 43. (b) Secretin and cholecystokinin are
quite yellowish because of the bile pigments secreted in the duodenum.
passed through bile juice. Bile pigments They provide stimulus to
are any of several coloured compounds (i) Secretin : Acidic chyme entry into
derived from porphyrin that are found in duodenum
bile; principally bilirubin and biliverdin. Bile (ii) CCK-PZ : Presence of fat in duodenum
pigment is produced regularly when old red Their action involves:
blood cells are broken down, mainly by the (i) Secretin : Releases bicarbonates in the
spleen. In some blood-disorders where the pancreatic juice.
red cells are destroyed, more bile pigment is (ii) CCK-PZ : contracts the gall bladder
produced. to release bile. Stimulating pancreas to
37. (a) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed secrete and release digestive enzymes in the
through intestinal mucosa with the help of pancreatic juice.
carrier ions like Na+. Carbohydrates are 44. (b) Secretin released by duodenal cells
absorbed as monosaccharides (simple sugars inhibits movement in gastrointestinal tract.
such as glucose, fructose, and galactose that Cholecystokinin stimulates release of
cannot be further broken down by hydrolysis) pancreatic enzymes. Prolactin is a hormone
or as disaccharides (such as sucrose, lactose, released by anterior pituitary. Parathormone
maltose, and dextrin that can be hydrolyzed is released by parathyroid glands. Estradiol
to two monosaccharides). These simpler is released by ovary and progesterone is
molecules, however, must be obtained by released by corpus luteum.
Digestion and Absorption 185
45. (b) Carbohydrates are the basic source of paracaseinate, forming solid curd or
energy, proteins provide material for growth coagulated milk. Renin is present in the
and development. gastric juice and hence works in highly
46. (c) Proteases catalyze breakdown acidic pH (due to HCl) in stomach (about
of proteins and amylases act upon 1-3 pH) and is absent in adult human being.
carbohydrates. Hydrolases catalyse 55. (b) Inhibition of gastric juice secretion
hydrolysis. is done by a hormone (secreted by the
47. (a) Boiled potato does not contain cellulose intestinal mucosa) called enterogastrone
or lactose. Its starch is also digested. DNA while stimulation of gastric juice secretion is
is broken down into purines, pyrimidines done by the hormone gastrin secreted by the
and sugars by pancreatic nuclease (such as pyloric stomach mucosa. On the other hand
DNAase). pancreatic & bile secretions are controlled
48. (a) Duodenum. by a hormone complex cholecystokinin
49. (d) Enterogasterone reduces digestive pancreozymin (CCK-PZ) secreted by the
activity of stomach. Renin is secreted intestinal mucosa.
by kidney and regulates blood pressure. 56. (d) Enterogestrone is a hormone secreted
Enterokinase activates trypsinogen to by intestinal mucosa and it has an inhibitory
trypsin. effect on gastric juice from gastric glands in
50. (c) When a major portion of pancreas is stomach.
removed, the enzymes that typically digest 57. (d) Although traces of fat digesting enzyme
fat and meat inside the intestine are also (gastric lipase) have been reported but due
removed. to its very little concentration, it is unable to
51. (b) Hypercholesterolemia or high blood start fat digestion in stomach. Fat digestion
cholesterol arises due to excess saturated starts in duodenum with the help of bile salts
fat in the diet. In this condition cholesterol & pancreatic juice but completes in small
deposits on the walls of blood vessels causing intestine.
reduction in their diameter. This results
58. (b) Protein digestion starts in the stomach
in rise of blood pressure and other cardiac
with the action of enzyme pepsin. In the
disorders. The disease can be prevented
duodenum it is performed by the action of
by taking unsaturated oils in the diet i.e.
trypsin, chymotrypsin & carboxypeptidases
vegetable oils such as groundnut oils. Butter,
(from pancreatic juice). Aminopeptidases
ghee, animal fats are all rich in saturated
& dipeptidases, enterokinase act in jejunum
fatty acids.
and it ends in the ileum.
52. (a) Fat is mainly digested by pancreatic
59. (d) Pancreatic juice secretion is regulated
lipase while protein is digested by enzymes
in pancreatic juice, intestinal juice and by the hormone secretin, which is produced
stomach. by the walls of the duodenum upon detection
53. (b) The enzyme enterokinase (enterope- of acid in food, proteins, and fats.
ptidase) helps in the conversion of 60. (d) Pancreas consists mainly of large lobules
trypsinogen (inactive form of another / acini / alveoli and secretes pancreatic
enzyme) into trypsin (active form of the juice. In between the acini, randomly spread
enzyme) for protein digestion in the intestine. endocrine cells are present known as Islets
54. (d) Renin acts on milk protein casein & of Langerhans which consist of a, b, and F
changes it into paracasein spontaneously cells & secrete insulin, glucagon, pancreatic
precipitating into insoluble calcium polypeptide and somatostatin hormones.
 EBD_7325
186 BIOLOGY
61. (b) Cholecystokinin is a hormone which first child is weaned (not accustomed to
is secreted by the duodenal wall. It causes food other than its mother’s milk) after the
the release of bile by the contraction of the second is born, its primary supply of protein
gall bladder & increases the enzyme release (the mother’s milk) is lost. If the new diet is
process of pancreatic cells. The pancreatic very low in protein the needs of the growing
juice enterokinase is an ‘activator enzyme’ individual this disease develops.
which is present in the intestinal juice All the food stuff eg. milks, lentils, meat and
(success entericus) and converts the inactive eggs are rich in proteins.
proenzyme trypsinogen to active trypsin 67. (b) Deficiency of pyridoxine (Vit B6) causes
enzyme. Secretin is also a hormone and dermatitis, anaemia, convulsions, nausea,
causes the release of sodium bicarbonate in vomiting and mental disorders.
the pancreatic juice. 68. (a) Vitamins, A, D, E and K are fat soluble
62. (a) Anxiety and eating spicy food together vitamins.
in normal healthy man can lead to indigestion 69. (a) Carrots are a source of vitamin A. Egg
which causes difficulty in digestion. is a good source of vitamin E.
63. (d) If breast feeding is replaced by less 70. (d) Main source of flourine include drinking
nutritive food low in proteins and calories; water, tea, sea food. Deficiency causes weak
the infants below the age of one year are teeth and excess causes mottling of teeth or
likely to suffer from Marasmus. It is a form fluorosis.
of malnutrition that occurs when there is 71. (a) Deficiency of vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
not enough protein in the diet. This disease causes beri beri.
is more common in very poor countries. 72. (d) Vitamin K is also called anti-
It often occurs during a drought or other haemorrhagic factor or phylloquinone. Its
natural calamities, or during political unrest. deficiency causes delayed blood clotting.
These conditions are responsible for a lack Even minor injuries in the body of those
of food, which leads to malnutrition. such cause profuse bleeding (haemorrhage).
64. (a) Fat soluble vitamins are - A, D, E and K 73. (c) Vitamin B3 or Niacin is a constituent
and lack of vitamin A causes xerophthalmia. of NAD. Corpus luteum is temporary
65. (a) Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes Beri endocrine tissue developing from ruptured
Beri disease. Beri Beri disease was discovered grafian follicle. Bundle of His is a part of
by Eijkman in 1897. He observed that the the conducting system of heart conducting
disease occured mainly in people existing cardiac impulse from atria to ventricles.
on a polished rice diet. This disease is rare Sebum is the name given to the oil secreted
in the western world because of food habits by sebaceous glands in the skin.
and food enrichment. Beri beri disease is 74. (a) Vitamin D - Calciferol
characterized by loss of apetite and weight Vitamin B1 - Thiamine
and vigour, retarted growth, degeneration of
Vitamin A - Retinol
nerves, muscle atrophy, and even paralysis,
Vitamin B2 - Riboflavin
weakened heart beat and failure.
75. (c) Vitamin A is essential for the synthesis
66. (b) A child may have a diet containing
of retinal pigment, rhodopsin. Carrot and
sufficient carbohydrates and fats but still
papaya are good sources of vitamin A.
suffers a serious form of malnutrition.
76. (b) In patients affected with cholera, a
This form of malnutrition is known as
cholera enterotoxin is produced which
Kwashiorkor. It develops in children whose
results in increased synthesis of intracellular
diets are deficient in protein. When the
cyclic AMP, which in turn increases the
Digestion and Absorption 187
permeability of intestinal mucosa, leading B2) causes ariboflavinosis. Scurvy is the result
to secretion of fluid throughout the small of lack of vitamin C in the diet. Deficiency
intestine. Hence the patient is given saline of calciferol (vitamin D) in the diet causes
drip whereby Na+ ions restore the osmotic rickets in children and osteomalacia in
balance by retaining water in the body. adults.
77. (c) Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin. It 83. (c) Scurvy is a disease with bleeding
is essential for synthesis of prothrombin gums, thin bones etc. It is caused due to the
and other clotting factors. Deficiency of deficiency of vitamin C. It can be cured by
vitamin K increases clotting time resulting taking citrus fruits.
in prolonged bleeding. 84. (c) The excess of fluorine in water causes a
78. (a) Hepatic portal system brings venous condition called fluorosis, which is identified
blood directly from digestive tract, spleen, by mottling of teeth (yellowish streaks) and
pancreas and gall bladder to liver for abnormal bones liable to fracture etc.
extraction of nutrients and other metabolites 85. (c) Pellagra.
by the hepatic portal vein. Aorta arises from 86. (a) Vitamin D (ergocalciferol or antirachitic
the left ventricle and carries oxygenated vitamin) which is commonly known as
blood to all parts of the body. Posterior vena ‘sunshine vitamin’ regulates the absorption of
cava opens into the right atrium bringing calcium & phosphorus from gastrointestinal
deoxygenated blood from the lower half of tract and hence helping in the normal growth
the body. of bones & teeth. Its deficiency disturbs
79. (b) Vitamin A takes parts in synthesis of the calcium & phosphorus absorption and
retinal pigments. Vitamin C functions as hence deficiency of these minerals in the
antioxidant. Vitamin D is required for the body causes soft bones where bones become
absorption of calcium in the intestine. curved and fragile (osteomalacia) and teeth
80. (c) Nightblindness is caused by deficiency decay.
of vitamin A. Cirrhosis is caused by 87. (b) Vitamin K is also known as
inflammation of liver cells. ‘antihaemorrhagic factor’. This vitamin is
81. (d) Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin essential for the synthesis of prothrombin in
produced in sufficient quantity by intestinal liver cells which is essential for normal blood
bacteria. Vitamin B1 is a water soluble clotting. It is also synthesized by bacteria
vitamin, obtained partly from intestinal present in the colon.
bacteria and partly from diet. Vitamin D is 88. (c) Pellagra which is characterized by skin
a fat soluble sterol synthesized in the skin, inflammation specially thick pigmented skin
Vitamin C is obtained specially from citrus of hands and legs, swollen lips, diarrhoea &
fruits. nervous disorder is caused by the deficiency
82. (c) Beri-beri is a deficiency disease caused of vitamin B3 also known as Nicotinic
by the lack of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the acid or Vitamin P.P. (Pellagra preventing
diet. The deficiency of riboflavin (vitamin vitamin).
 EBD_7325
Chapter

17 Breathing and Exchange

of Gases
Topic 1: Respiratory Organs/Mechanism (b) One can breathe out air through
of Breathing eustachian tubes by closing both the
1. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the nose and the mouth.
alveoli. They do not collapse even after (c) One can consiously breathe in and
forceful expiration, because of:    [2017] breathe out by moving the diaphragm
(a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume alone, without moving the ribs at all.
(b) Tidal Volume (d) The lungs can be made fully empty by
(c) Expiratory Reserve Volume forcefully breathing out all air from
(d) Residual Volume them
2. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of 4. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from
human respiratory system with labels A, B, C body tissues into the blood is present as
and D. Select the option which gives correct [2011M]
identification and main function and/or (a) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
characteristics.   [NEET 2013] (b) free CO2 in blood plasma
A (c) 70% carbamino- haemoglobin and 30%
Bronchus as bicarbonate
(d) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
Cut end of rib B
C 5. Listed below are four respiratory capacities
(i–iv) and four jumbled respiratory volumes
Lung D
of a normal human adult:      [2010]
(a) B-pleural membrane-surrounds ribs on Respiratory Respiratory
both sides to provides cushion against capacities volumes
rubbing.
(i) Residual volume 2500mL
(b) C-Alveoli-thin walled vascular bag like
(ii) Vital capacity 3500mL
structures for exchange of gases.
(iii) Inspiratory reserve 1200mL
(c) D-Lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls
it down during inspiration volume
(d) A-trachea-long tube supported by (iv) Inspiratory capacity 4500mL
complete car tilaginous rings for Which one of the following is the correct
conducting inspired air. matching of two capacities and volumes?
3. Which one of the following is a possibility (a) (ii) 2500mL, (iii) 4500mL
for most of us in regard to breathing, by (b) (iii) 1200mL, (iv) 2500mL
making a conscious effort?      [2011M] (c) (iv) 3500 mL, (i) 1200mL
(a) One can breathe out air totally without (d) (i) 4500 mL, (ii) 3500mL
oxygen.
Breathing and Exchange of Gases 189
6. The majority of carbon dioxide produced by (b) Total lung capacity minus expiratory
our body cells is transported to the lungs reserve volume
[2006] (c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus
(a) as bicarbonates expiratory reserve volume
(b) as carbonates (d) Total lung capacity minus residual
(c) attached to hemoglobin volume
(d) dissolved in the blood Topic 2: Exchange and Transport of Gases
7. The quantity 1500 ml in the respiratory
volumes of a normal human adult refers to 14. When you hold your breath, which of the
[1996] following gas changes in blood would first
(a) maximum air that can be breathed in lead to the urge to breathe?     [2015 RS]
and breathed out (a) rising CO2 concentration
(b) residual volume (b) falling CO2 concentration
(c) expiratory reserve volume (c) rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration
(d) total lung capacity (d) falling O2 concentration
8. Air is breathed through [1994] 15. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-
(a) Trachea — lungs — larynx — pharynx dioxide absorbed by the blood will be
— alveoli transported to the lungs:       [2014]
(b) Nose — larynx — pharynx — bronchus (a) as bicarbonate ions
— alveoli — bronchioles (b) in the form of dissolved gas molecules
(c) Nostrils — pharynx — larynx — trachea (c) by binding to R.B.C.
— bronchi — bronchioles — alveoli (d) as carbamino - haemoglobin
(d) Nose — mouth — lungs 16. Figure shown schematic plan of blood
9. Carbonic anhydrase occurs in [1991] circulation in humans with labels A to D.
(a) Lymphocytes (b) Blood plasma Identify the label and give its function’s.
(c) RBC (d) Leucocytes [NEET 2013]
10. Skin is an accessory organ of respiration in   
[1990]
(a) humans (b) frog
(c) rabbit (d) lizard
11. The alveolar epithelium in the lungs is
[1990]
(a) nonciliated columnar
(b) nonciliated squamous
(a) B-Pulmonary artery-takes blood from
(c) ciliated columnar
heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg
(d) ciliated squamous
(b) C-Vena Cava - takes blood from body
12. Intercostal muscles occur in [1988]
parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg
(a) abdomen (b) thigh
(c) D - Dorsal aorta - takes blood from Heart
(c) ribs (d) diaphragm
to body Part PO2 = 95 mm Hg
13. What is vital capacity of our lungs?  [1988]
(d) A-Pulmonary vein - takes impure blood
(a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal
from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg
volume
 EBD_7325
190 BIOLOGY
17. The figure given below shows a small part of (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
human lung where exchange of gases takes (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
place. In which one of the options given 20. When CO2 concentration in blood increases,
below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly breathing becomes      [2004]
identified along with its function? [2011] (a) shallower and slow
(b) there is no effect on breathing
(c) slow and deep
(d) faster and deeper
21. The process of migration of chloride ions
from plasma to RBC and of carbonate ions
from RBC to plasma is      [1999]
(a) chloride shift (b) ionic shift
(c) atomic shift (d) Na+ pump
22. Which one of the following organs in the
human body is most affected due to shortage
Options :
of oxygen?       [1999]
(a) C : arterial capillary – passes oxygen to
tissues (a) intestine (b) skin
(b) A : alveolar cavity – main site of (c) kidney (d) brain
exchange of 23. The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the
respiratory lungs takes place by      [1998]
gases (a) simple diffusion (b) osmosis
(c) D : capillary wall – exchange of (c) active transport (d) passive transport
O2 and CO2 24. In alveoli of the lungs, the air at the site of
takes place here. gas exchange, is separated from the blood by
(d) B : red blood cell – transport of [1997]
CO2 mainly (a) alveolar epithelium only
18. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused (b) alveolar epithelium and capillary endo-
in the human blood even after its uptake by thelium
the body tissues. This O2  [2011]
(c) alveolar epithelium, capillary endothe-
(a) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise lium and tunica adventitia
(b) raise the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg. (d) alveolar epithelium, capillary endothe-
(c) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin lium, a thin layer of tunica media and
saturation at 96% tunica adventitia
(d) helps in releasing more O 2 to the 25. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet
epithelial tissues. blood does not become acidic, because
19. Which two of the following changes (a–d) [1995]
usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers (a) it is absorbed by the leucocytes
when they move to high altitudes (3,500 m (b) blood buffers play an important role in
or more)?       [2010] CO2 transport.
(i) Increase in red blood cell size (c) it combines with water to form H2CO3
(ii) Increase in red blood cell production which is neutralized by NaCO3
(iii) Increased breathing rate (d) it is continuously diffused through
(iv) Increase in thrombocyte count tissues and is not allowed to accumulate
Changes occurring are:
Breathing and Exchange of Gases 191
26. The carbon dioxide is transported via blood 30. Name the pulmonary disease in which
to lungs as       [1995] alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange
(a) dissolved in blood plasma is drastically reduced due to damage in the
(b) in the form of carbonic acid only alveolar walls. [2015 RS]
(a) Emphysema (b) Pneumonia
(c) in combination with haemoglobin only
(c) Asthma (d) Pleurisy
(d) carbaminohaemoglobin and as carbonic
31. Which of the following are the correct
acid statement for respiration in human?   [2012]
27. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin (a) C i g a r e t t e s m o k i n g m ay l e a d t o
is       [1994] inflammation of bronchi
(a) Sigmoid (b) Hyperbolic (b) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre
(c) Linear (d) Hypobolic in pons region of brain can increase the
28. Carbon dioxide is transported from tissues to duration of inspiration
(c) Workers in grinding and stone - breaking
respiratory surface by only     [1993]
industries may suffer from lung fibrosis
(a) plasma and erythrocytes
(d) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is
(b) plasma carried by haemoglobin as carbamino
(c) erythrocytes haemoglobin.
(d) erythrocytes and leucocytes 32. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually
high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content.
Topic 3: Disordes of Respiratory System
Which of the following conclusions is most
29. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused likely to be correct? The patient has been
inhaling polluted air containing unusually
mainly by cigarette smoking [2016]
high content of   [2004]
(a) emphysema (a) carbon disulphide
(b) asthma (b) chloroform
(c) respiratory acidosis (c) carbon dioxide
(d) respiratory alkalosis (d) carbon monoxide
 EBD_7325
192 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Volume of air present in lungs after remain in the blood and carries the CO2 to
forceful expiration as residual volume lungs.
prevents the collapsing of alveoli. 7. (b) The total volume of air that can be
2. (b) Alveoli are very thin, irregular walled expelled from the lungs after maximum
bag like structures for gaseous exchange. inspiration and then expiring to the
Tracheae bronchi and bronchioles are maximum is known as the vital capacity.
supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings. The volume of air that remains inside lungs
Double layered pleural membrane surrounds at the end of maximum forceful expiration
the lungs with pleural fluid between them. It is the residual volume. Expiratory reserve
reduces friction on the lung surface. volume is the maximum extra volume of air
3. (b) Eustachian tube connects middle ear that can be expired by forceful expiration
cavity (tympanic cavity) with nasopharynx. after a normal tidal expiration. Total lung
It is approximately 35 mm long in adults, capacity is the maximum volume of air that
which helps in breathing out by closing both can be contained in the lungs after maximum
the nose and mouth. inspiration.
4. (a) 70% to 75% CO2 is transported as 8. (c) The pathway of inhaled air is - Nostrils
primary buffer of the blood bicarbonate ion → pharynx (common passage for food & air)
(HCO3) in blood plasma. When CO2 diffuses → larynx (voice box) → trachea (the wind
from tissues into blood then it is acted upon pipe) → bronchi (2 for each side lungs) →
by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase. bronchioles (give rise to alveolar ducts) →
5. (c) The correct matching of respiratory alveoli (the exchange site for gases in the
capacities with their respiratory volumes form of small sacs or pouches).
are: 9. (c) Carbonic anhydrase is a zinc-containing
Respiratory Capacities Respiratory enzyme present in RBCs. In presence of this
Volumes enzyme, carbon dioxide reacts with water to
Residual volume 1200 mL form carbonic acid.
Vital capacity 4500 mL 10. (b) Frog has lungs as its main respiratory
Inspiratory reserve volume 2500 mL organs but during hibernation & aestivation
and when in water it respires through skin.
Inspiratory volume 3500 mL
11. (b) The very thin alveolar wall (about
6. (a) Transport of CO2 is much easier than 0.0001 mm) is composed of moist, non–
O2 because of the higher solubility of CO2 ciliated, squamous epithelial cells.
than O2. Almost 7% of CO2 is transported in 12. (c) Intercostal muscles (external intercostal
dissolved state in plasma. About 23% of the & internal intercostal) are attached with the
CO2 is transported in the form of carbamino
ribs which help in the movement of rib cage
haemoglobin. 70% of CO2 is transported in
during breathing.
the form of bicarbonate ions. CO2 reacts
with water present in plasma. 13. (d) Vital capacity of lungs is the largest
Carbonic acid is unstable & gives H+ and possible expiration after largest possible
HCO3–. H+ bind with haemoglobin to inspiration that is greatest. Volume of air
maintain the pH of blood while HCO3– can be exchanged in single respiration or
Breathing and Exchange of Gases 193
amount of air breathed in and out with 20. (d) The breathing becomes faster and
greatest possible efforts. deeper in order to oxygenate the blood at a
VC = TRV +TV + ERV fast rate. Shallow and slow breathing occurs
= 3000 + 500 + 1100 during rest.
= 4600 ml. 21. (a) During the transport of CO2 through
14. (a) Chemoreceptors in the medulla get the blood, bicarbonate ions diffuse out of
stimulated by increase in CO2 concentration RBCs while chloride ions from plasma enter
in the blood of arteries. Decrease in O2 the RBCs to maintain ionic equilibrium.
concentration has no significant effect on This is called chloride shift.
chemoreceptors. 22. (d) Brain is the most vital organ. It stops
15. (a) CO2 from the respiratory tissues to the functioning in the absence of O2.
lungs is transported by the blood in 3 ways: 23. (a) Gaseous exchange between blood
(i) In dissolved state or as a physical (dissolved phase) and alveolar air (gaseous
solution: Very small amount is physically phase) across respiratory membrane occurs
dissolved in plasma (7% i.e. ≅ 0.3 ml of CO2 by simple diffusion. Obviously, it depends
by each 100 ml of blood). upon the concentration gradient (=partial
(ii) Bicarbonate ions:  ≅ 70% (i.e. ≅ pressure) of the concerned gases in blood
2.5 ml per 100 ml of blood) CO2 diffuses in and alveolar air.
plasma & then into RBCs where it (in the 24. (b) Alveoli are the site of respiratory
presence of carbonic anhydrase) combines exchange of gases. Oxygen from the alveolar
with H 2 O to form carbonic acid which air diffuses through the alveolar epithelium
is almost spontaneously dissociated into and the capillary endothelium into the
hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ions. capillary blood, and carbon dioxide diffuses
(iii) Carbaminohaemoglobin : ≅ 23% in the opposite direction.
(i.e. ≅ 1 ml of CO2 per 100 ml of blood) 25. (b) CO2 enters RBC and reacts with
combines with haemoglobin forming an water to form carbonic acid. Carbonic
unstable compound. acid dissociates to form bicarbonate and
16. (b) A is pulmonary vein which takes pure hydrogen ions. Some bicarbonate ions are
blood from lungs to heart. B is dorsal aorta transported in erythrocytes while some
which takes pure blood from heart to various diffuse into the blood plasma. Exit of
body parts. C is vena cava which takes impure bicarbonate ions change the ionic balance
blood from various body pars to right auricle between the plasma and erythrocytes. To
of the heart. D is pulmonary artery which restore this balance chloride ions diffuse
takes impure blood from heart to lungs. from plasma into erythrocytes. Due to this
17. (b) In the given figure the exchange of the pH of blood is maintained.
respiratory gases occurs in alveolar cavity. 26. (d) Carbon dioxide is transported via blood
18. (a) A large portion of oxygen is left unused in to lungs mostly as carbaminohaemoglobin
the human blood even after its uptake by the and carbonic acid. It is released in lungs in
body tissues. This O2 acts as a reserve during exchange with oxygen.
muscular exercise. 27. (a) It is the relationship between the
19. (a) At high altitude, the body undergoes percentage saturation of haemoglobin (by
numerous changes in order to increase volume) in the blood and the oxygen tension
(partial tension) PO2 of the blood.
oxygen delivery to cells and improve the
It is usually a sigmoid curve. Haemoglobin
efficiency of oxygen usage. The early
molecules can bind up to four oxygen
changes include increased breathing rate
molecules in a reversible manner. The shape
and increased red blood cell production.
 EBD_7325
194 BIOLOGY
of the curve results from the interaction of (i) In dissolved state or as a physical
bound oxygen molecules with incoming solution : Very small amount physically
molecules. The binding of the first molecule dissolved in plasma (7% i.e. @ 0.3 ml of CO2
is difficult. However, this facilitates the by each 100 ml of blood)
binding of the second and third molecules, (ii) Bicarbonate ions : @ 70% (i.e. @ 2.5 ml
and it is only when the fourth molecule is to per 100 ml of blood) CO2 diffuses in plasma
be bound that the difficulty increases, partly & then into RBCs where it (in the presence
as a result of crowding of the haemoglobin of carbonic anhydrase) combines with
molecule, partly as a natural tendency of H2O to form carbonic acid which is almost
oxygen to dissociate. spontaneously dissociated into hydrogen ion
& bicarbonate ions.
(Haldane effect : O2 displaces CO2 for Hb)
(iii) Carbaminohaemoglobin : @ 23% (i.e. @
↓ pH ↓ pH 1 ml of CO2 per 100 ml of blood) combines
↑ DPG ↑ DPG with haemoglobin forming an unstable
↑ Temp
↑ Temp compound.
(Bohr effect:↑CO p2H, temp.) 29. (a) Emphysema results when the delicate
linings of the air sacs in the lungs become
damaged beyond repair. Most commonly, the
toxins in cigarette smoke create the damage.
Emphysema is called smoker’s disease.
30. (a) In the disease emphysema, alveolar
surface area is reduced due to destruction of
alveolar walls.
The O2-Hb dissociation curve is 31. (c) (a) and (c). Neural signals from
a sigmoidal curve that represents the pneumotaxic center in pons region of brain
relationship between O2 concentration and can limit the duration of inspiration. About
the percentage saturation of Hb. As the 25% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by
concentration increases from about 90% haemoglobin as carboxyhaemglobin.
there is a significant plateau in the curve, 32. (d) Carboxyhaemoglobin is the stable
which has several important biological product formed by the association of CO
repercussions. and Hb in the blood. The association of
28. (a) CO2 from the respiratory tissues to the carbon dioxide and haemoglobin forms
lungs is transported by the blood in 3 ways : carbaminohaemoglobin.
 Chapter

18 Body Fluids and

Circulation

Topic 1: Blood / Lymph (d) both A and B antigens in the plasma but
no antibodies.
1. Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which 6. The figure shows a human blood cell. Identify
of the following statement(s) is/are most it and give its characteristics.
appropriate explanation for this feature ? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(1) They do not need to reproduce [2017]
(2) They are somatic cells
(3) They do not metabolize
(4) All their internal space is available for
oxygen transport
(a) only (1)
(b) (1), (3) and (4)
Blood Cell Characteristics
(c) (2) and (3)
(d) only (4) (a) Monocyte Life span 3 days,
2. Reduction in pH of blood will [2016] produce antibodies
(a) reduce the rate of heart beat. (b) Basophil Secrete serotonin,
(b) reduce the blood supply to the brain. inflammatory response
(c) decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with (c) B-lymphocyte Form about 20% of
oxygen.
blood cells involved
(d) release bicarbonate ions by the liver.
in immune response
3. Which one of the following is correct ?
[2015 RS] (d) Neutrophil Most abundant blood
(a) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen cell, phagocytic
(b) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC 7. Which one of the following plasma proteins
(c) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC is involved in the coagulation of blood ?
(d) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes [2011]
4. Erythropoiesis starts in : [2015 RS] (a) an albumin (b) serum amylase
(a) Liver (b) Spleen (c) a globulin (d) fibrinogen
(c) Red bone marrow (d) Kidney
8. Which one of the following human organs is
5. Person with blood group AB is considered as
often called the graveyard of RBCs?[2011M]
universal recipient because he has: [2014]
(a) Gall bladder (b) Kidney
(a) both A and B antigens on RBC but no
antibodies in the plasma. (c) Spleen (d) Liver
(b) both A and B antibodies in the plasma. 9. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled
(c) no antigen on RBC and no antibody in by the gene I. It has three alleles – IA IB and
the plasma. i. Since there are three different alleles, six
 EBD_7325
196 BIOLOGY
different genotypes are possible. How many 16. The most active phagocytic white blood cells
phenotypes can occur?  [2010] are:  [2008]
(a) Three (b) One (a) neutrophils and eosinophils
(c) Four (d) Two (b) lymphocytes and macrophages
10. What is true about RBCs in humans?[2010] (c) eosinophils and lymphocytes
(a) They carry about 20–25 per cent of CO2 (d) neutrophils and monocytes
(b) They transport 99.5 per cent of O2 17. The haemoglobin of a human foetus [2008]
(c) They transport about 80 per cent oxygen (a) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that
only and the rest 20 per cent of it is of the adult
transported in dissolved state in blood (b) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that
of an adult
plasma
(c) has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
(d) They do not carry CO2 at all
(d) has a higher affinity for oxygen than
11. The most popularly known blood grouping
is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and that of an adult
18. A drop of each of the following, is placed
not ABC, because “O” in it refers to having:
separately on four slides. Which of them will
[2009]
not coagulate?  [2007]
(a) overdominance of this type on the genes
(a) Blood serum
for A and B types
(b) Sample from the thoracic duct of
(b) one antibody only - either anti - A or
lymphatic system
anti- B on the RBC; (c) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
(c) no antigens A and B on RBCs (d) Blood plasma.
(d) other antigens besides A and B on RBCs 19. Which one of the following statements is
12. Compared to blood our lymph has: [2009] incorrect ?  [2006]
(a) plasma without proteins (a) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs,
(b) more WBCs and no RBCs increases the efficiency of respiration in
(c) more RBCs and less WBCs birds
(d) no plasma (b) In insects, circulating body fluids serve
13. There is no DNA in:  [2009] to distribute oxygen to tissues
(a) mature RBCs (c) The principle of countercurrent flow
(b) a mature spermatozoan facilitates efficient respiration in gills of
(c) hair root fishes
(d) an enucleated ovum (d) The residual area in lungs slightly
14. Globulins contained in human blood plasma decreases the efficiency of respiration
are primarily involved in :  [2009] in mammals
(a) osmotic balance of body fluids 20. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both
(b) oxygen transport in the blood antigens are present but no antibody, the
blood group of the individual would be
(c) clotting of blood
[2004]
(d) defence mechanisms of body
(a) B (b) O
15. Which type of white blood cells are
(c) AB (d) A
concerned with the release of histamine and
21. You are required to draw blood from a patient
the natural anti- coagulant heparin? [2008]
and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of
(a) Neutrophils (b) Basophils
blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also
(c) Eosinophils (d) Monocytes
provided with the following four types of
Body Fluids and Circulation 197
test tubes. Which of them will you not use 28. The life span of human W.B.C. is
for the purpose?  [2004] approximately  [1997]
(a) Test tube containing calcium (a) less than 10 days
bicarbonate (b) between 20 to 30 days
(b) Chilled test tube (c) between 2 to 3 months
(c) Test tube containing heparin (d) more than 4 months
29. Which one of the following vertebrate
(d) Test tube containing sodium oxalate
organs receives the oxygenated blood only ?
22. Which of the following statements is true for
(a) Gill (b) Lung [1996]
lymph?  [2002]
(c) Liver (d) Spleen
(a) WBC and serum 30. Which one of the following statements
(b) all components of blood except RBCs about blood constituents and transport of
and some proteins respiratory gases is most accurate ? [1996]
(c) RBCs, WBCs and plasma (a) RBCs transport oxygen whereas WBCs
(d) RBCs proteins and platelets transport CO2
23. What is correct for blood group ‘O’?[2001] (b) RBCs transport oxygen whereas plasma
(a) No antigens but both a and b antibodies transports only CO2
are present (c) RBCs as well as WBCs transport both
(b) A antigen and b antibody oxygen and CO2
(c) Antigen and antibody both absent (d) RBCs as well as plasma transport both
(d) A and B antigens and a, b antibodies oxygen and CO2
31. The lymph serves to  [1995]
24. What is true about leucocytes ? [2000]
(a) transport oxygen to the brain
(a) Their sudden fall in number is indication
(b) transport carbon dioxide to the lungs
of blood cancer
(c) return the interstitial fluid to the blood
(b) These are produced in thymus (d) return the WBCs and RBCs to the
(c) These are enucleated lymph nodes
(d) These can squeeze out through the 32. Antigens are present  [1995]
capillary walls (a) inside the nucleus
25. In mammals, histamine is secreted by [1998] (b) on cell surface
(a) histiocytes (b) lymphocytes (c) inside the cytoplasm
(c) mast cells (d) fibroblasts (d) on nuclear membrane
26. With respect to the ABO group, there are 33. A child of blood group O cannot have
four major blood types because this blood parents of blood groups  [1994]
group is determined by  [1998] (a) AB and AB/O (b) A and B
(a) three alleles, all of which are recessive (c) B and B (d) O and O
34. Cells formed in bone marrow include[1993]
(b) three alleles, of which, two are recessive
(a) RBC
and the third is dominant
(b) RBC and leucocytes
(c) three alleles, of which two are co-
(c) Leucocytes
dominant and the third is recessive (d) Lymphocytes
(d) three alleles, all of which are co- 35. A man with blood group A marries AB
dominant blood group woman. Which type of progeny
27. Which of the following is not a granulocyte? indicate that the man is not homozygous?
[1997] [1993]
(a) Lymphocyte (b) Eosinophil (a) AB (b) B
(c) Basophil (d) Neutrophil (c) A (d) O
 EBD_7325
198 BIOLOGY
36. Blood capillaries are made of  [1993] Topic 2: Circulatory Pathways/Double
(a) endothelium, connective tissue and Circulation/Regulation of Cardiac activity
muscle fibres
(b) endothelium and muscle fibres 47. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is
(c) endothelium and connective tissue [2016]
(d) endothelium only (a) same as that in the aorta.
37. The genotype of B-group father of an (b) more than that in the carotid.
O-group child is  [1992] (c) more than that in the pulmonary vein.
(a) IOIO (b) IBIB (d) less than that in the venae cavae.
(c) IAIB (d) IOIB 48. Blood pressure in the mamma lian aorta is
38. Component of blood responsible for maximum during :      [2015 RS]
producing antibodies is [1992] (a) Diastole of the right ventricle
(a) Thrombocytes (b) Monocytes (b) Systole of the left ventricle
(c) Erythrocytes (d) Lymphocytes (c) Diastole of the right atrium
39. Wall of blood capillary is formed of  [1991] (d) Systole of the left atrium
(a) haemocytes (b) parietal cells 49. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds
(c) endothelial cells (d) oxyntic cells produced during each cardiac cycle. The
40. Blood group AB has [1991] second sound is heard when: [2015 RS]
(a) no antigen (a) Ventricular wall vibrate due to gushing
(b) no antibody in of blood from atria
(c) neither antigen nor antibody (b) Semilunar valves close down after the
(d) both antigen and antibody blood flows into vessels from ventricles
41. Which one engulfs pathogens rapidly? (c) AV node receives signal from SA node
[1989] (d) AV valves open up
(a) Acidophils (b) Monocytes 50. Which one of the following animals has two
(c) Basophils (d) Neutrophils separate circulatory pathways? [2015 RS]
42. A person with blood group A requires blood. (a) Lizard (b) Whale
The blood group which can be given is (c) Shark (d) Frog
[1989] 51. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect
(a) A and B (b) A and AB the working of the heart?  [2014]
(c) A and O (d) A, B, AB and O (a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac
43. Removal of calcium from freshly collected output.
blood would  [1989] (b) Heart rate is increased without affecting
(a) cause delayed clotting the cardiac output.
(b) prevent clotting (c) Both heart rate and cardiac output
(c) cause immediate clotting increase.
(d) prevent destruction of haemoglobin (d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output
44. Lymph differs from blood in possessing increases.
[1989] 52. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of
(a) only WBC a normal person, the P-wave represents the :
(b) more RBC and WBC [NEET 2013]
(c) more RBC and few WBC
R
(d) more WBC and few RBC
45. Mineral found in red pigment of vertebrate
blood is [1989]
P Q S T
(a) magnesium (b) iron
(c) calcium (d) copper (a) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
46. RBCs do not occur in [1988] (b) Beginning of the systole
(a) frog (b) cow (c) End of systole
(c) camel (d) cockroach (d) Contraction of both the atria
Body Fluids and Circulation 199
53. Figure shows blood circulation in humans 57. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.
with labels A to D. Select the option which Which one of its components in human is
gives correct identification of label and correctly interpreted below  [2011M]
functions of the part:  [NEET Kar. 2013] (a) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
(b) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac
D contraction
(c) Peak P and Peak R together-Systolic
LA
and diastolic blood pressures
RA
RV LV (d) Peak P- Initiation of left atrial
contraction only
58. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae
of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is
partially non - functional, what will be the
C Body parts Lumen
A immediate effect?  [2010]
(a) The flow of blood into the aorta will be
B
slowed down
(a) A – Artery - thick walled and blood flows (b) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working
evenly (c) The blood will tend to flow back into
(b) B – Capillary - thin without muscle layers the left atrium
and wall two cell thick (d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary
(c) C – Vein - thin walled and blood flows artery will be reduced
in jerks/spurts 59. In a standard ECG which one of the following
(d) D – Pulmonary vein - takes oxygenated alphabets is the correct representation of the
blood to heart PO2 = 95 mmHg respective activity of the human heart?
54. ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the (a) S - start of systole  [2009]
following organs in humans? [2011] (b) T - end of diastole
(a) Brain (b) Heart (c) P - depolarisation of the atria
(c) Kidney (d) Pancreas (d) R - repolarisation of ventricles
55. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which : 60. In humans, blood passes from the post caval
[2011] to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to.
(a) supply oxygenated blood to the different [2008]
organs (a) pushing open of the venous valves
(b) break up into capillaries which reunite (b) suction pull
to form one visceral organ (c) stimulation of the sino auricular node
(c) break up into capillaries which reunite (d) pressure difference between the post
to form a vein caval and atrium
(d) carry blood from one visceral organ to 61. Which one of the following mammalian
another visceral organ cells is not capable of metabolising glucose
56. Which one of the following statements is to carbon-dioxide aerobically?    [2007]
correct regarding blood pressure ? [2011] (a) unstraited muscle cells
(a) 130/90 mmHg is considered high and (b) liver cells
requires treatment (c) red blood cells
(b) 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal (d) white blood
blood pressure 62. Which one of the following has an open
(c) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active circulatory system ?  [2006]
(d) 90/110 mmHg may harm vital organs (a) Periplaneta (b) Hirudinaria
like brain and kidney (c) Octopus (d) Pheretima
 EBD_7325
200 BIOLOGY
63. Which of the following substances, if (c) Purkinje fibres
introduced into the blood stream, would (d) A. V. node
cause coagulation of blood at the site of its 71. An adult human with average health has
introduction? [2005] systolic and diastolic pressures as [1998]
(a) Prothrombin (b) Fibrinogen (a) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
(c) Thromboplastin (d) Heparin (b) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
64. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to (c) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
function normally. The doctors find that an (d) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It 72. The correct route through which pulse-
is likely that it will be grafted at the site of making impulse travels in the heart is [1995]
(a) Atrioventricular bundle [2004] (a) AV node→bundle of His→SA node
(b) Purkinje system Purkinje fibres →heart muscles
(c) Sinuatrial node (b) AV node→SA node→Purkinje fibres→
(d) Atrioventricular node bundle of His→heart muscles
65. Systemic heart refers to  [2003] (c) SA node→Purkinje fibre→bundle of
His→AV node→heart muscles
(a) the two ventricles together in humans
(d) SA node→AV node→bundle of
(b) the heart that contracts under
His→Purkinje fibre→heart muscles
stimulation from nervous system
73. ‘Dup’ sound is produced during closure of
(c) left auricle and left ventricle in higher
[1994]
vertebrates
(a) Semilunar valves (b) Bicuspid valve
(d) entire heart in lower vertebrates
(c) Tricuspid valve (d) Both b and c
66. Bundle of His is a network of  [2003]
74. Closed circulatory system occurs in [1994]
(a) nerve fibres found throughout the heart
(a) cockroach (b) tadpole/fish
(b) muscle fibres distributed throughout the
(c) mosquito (d) housefly
heart walls
75. Pacemaker of heart is  [1994]
(c) muscle fibres found only in the ventricle
(a) AV node (b) Bundle of His
wall
(c) SA node (d) Purkinje fibres
(d) nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
76. Vitamin K is required for [1993]
67. Impulse of heart beat originates from[2002]
(a) formation of thromboplastin
(a) S. A. node (b) A. V. node
(b) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
(c) Vagus nerve (d) Cardiac nerve
(c) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
68. Pulmonary artery differs from pulmonary
(d) synthesis of prothrombin
vein in having  [2000]
77. A vein possesses a large lumen because
(a) no endothelium
[1990]
(b) valves
(a) tunica media and tunica externa form a
(c) large lumen
single coat
(d) thick muscular walls
(b) tunica interna and tunica media form a
69. The active molecule that helps initiate the single coat
inflammatory response when mast cells (c) tunica interna, tunica media and tunica
degranulate is [1999] externa are thin
(a) perforin (b) histamine (d) tunica media is a thin coat
(c) heparin (d) insulin 78. Splenic artery arises from [1990]
70. Contraction of the ventricle in the heart (a) anterior mesenteric artery
begins by the command from [1999] (b) coeliac artery
(a) Chordae tendinae (c) posterior mesenteric artery
(b) S.A. node (d) intestinal artery
Body Fluids and Circulation 201
79. Tricuspid valve is found in between [1989] which of the following, is likely to alleviate
(a) sinus venosus and right auricle his symptoms?  [2006]
(b) right auricle and right ventricle (a) Folic acid and cobalamine
(c) left ventricle and left auricle (b) Riboflavin
(d) ventricle and aorta (c) Iron compounds
80. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except (d) Thiamine
(a) Pulmonary (b) Cardiac [1989] 84. The blood cancer is known as [1995]
(c) Hepatic (d) Systemic
(a) leukaemia (b) thrombosis
81. Breakdown product of haemoglobin is
(c) haemolysis (d) haemophilia
(a) Bilirubin (b) Iron [1988]
85. Haemophilia is [1989]
(c) Biliverdin (d) Calcium
(a) royal disease
82. Child death may occur in the marriage
between  [1988] (b) faulty blood clotting
(a) Rh+ man and Rh+ woman (c) both a and b
(b) Rh+ man and Rh– woman (d) mosquito having haemocoel
(c) Rh– man and Rh– woman 86. Presence of RBC in urine is [1988]
(d) Rh– man and Rh+ woman (a) Alkaptonuria (b) Ureathiasis
(c) Hematuria (d) Proteinuria
Topic 3: Disorders of Circulatory System
87. Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by[1988]
83. Examination of blood of a person (a) Leukemia
suspected of having anemia, shows large, (b) Polycythemia
immature, nucleated erythrocytes without (c) Mental retardation
haemoglobin. Supple-menting his diet with (d) Hemolytic anaemia
 EBD_7325
202 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) In human RBCs, nucleus get degenerates and the chest. It is called graveyard of RBC
during maturation and it provide more space because fragment of red blood cells, old and
for oxygen carrying pigment (haemoglobin). dead cells are constantly being removed from
It lacks many cell organelles including the blood streams by it.
mitochondria so respires anaerobically. 9. (c) The three alleles in ABO blood groups in
2. (c) Reduction of pH of blood will decrease humans can produce six different genotypes
the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen which and four different phenotypes.
in turn causes acidosis. Genotypes Phenotypes
3. (c) Blood consists of plasma, RBC, WBC IA,IA, IAi Blood group A
and platelets. IBIB, IBi Blood group B
4. (c) Erythropoiesis is the process of formation IAIB Blood group AB
of R.B.C. In the first month of pregnancy, i i Blood group O
yolk sac is the haemopoietic tissue. After 5 10. (a) Blood transports oxygen from
weeks, it is followed by the liver. Red bone respiratory organs to the tissue cells and also
marrow from 6 months onwards becomes the transports carbon dioxide from the tissue
principal site of erythropoiesis. cells to the respiratory membrane. About
5. (a) Karl Landsteiner first reported ABO 97% of oxygen is transported by RBCs in the
blood groups in human beings. A, B and O blood while the remaining three percent of
blood groups were discovered by Landsteiner oxygen is carried in a dissolved state through
in 1900 while AB blood group was found plasma. Nearly 20-25% of carbon dioxide is
out by de Castello and Steini (1902). ABO transported by RBCs whereas 70% is carried
blood groups are determined by the gene I as bicarbonate. About 7% of CO2 is carried
(isoagglutinin). There are three alleles. IA, in dissolved state through plasma.
IB and IO of this gene. Proteins produced by 11. (c) The ABO blood group system is the
the IA and IB alleles are called A antigen and most important blood type system (or blood
B antigen. Individuals with AB blood group group system) in human blood transfusion.
have both antigen A and antigen B on their It is named ABO and not ABC, because
blood group O (or blood group zero in some
RBCs, and no antibodies for either of the
countries) individuals do not have either A
antigens in their plasma.
or B antigens on the surface of their RBCs,
6. (b) Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin,
but their blood serum contains IgM anti-A
heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory
antibodies and anti-B antibodies against the
reactions.
A and B blood group antigens. Therefore, a
7. (d) Fibrinogen, the protein of blood plasma group O individual can receive blood only
is converted to insoluble protein fibrin during from a group O individual, but can donate
the clotting process. The fibrinogen free fluid, blood to individuals of any ABO blood
obtained after removal of the clot, called group (ie A, B, O or AB).
blood serum, is plasma minus fibrinogen. 12. (b) Lymph is a mobile connective tissue
8. (c) Spleen is an organ of the lymphatic comprising lymph plasma and lymph
system located in the left side of the corpuscles. Its composition is just like blood
abdominal cavity under the diaphragm, the plasma except that it lacks RBCs and large
muscular partition between the abdomen plasma proteins.
Body Fluids and Circulation 203
13. (a) Red blood cells are the most common materials. It does not take part in blood
type of blood cell and delivering oxygen to clotting.
the body tissues via the blood. There is no 19. (b) In insects circulating body fluid called
DNA in mature RBC. The reticulocyte is hameolymph does not help in the circulation
the immediate precursor of the mature RBC of respiratory gases for the body. It only
and, within 24 hours of release into the circulates the food and nutrients to the
peripheral circulation, evolves into mature different body parts. Distribution of oxygen
RBC. (respiration) takes place through small air
14. (d) Globulins contained in human blood chambers called spiracles.
plasma are primarily involved in defence 20. (c) Blood group AB is also known as the
mechanism of body. Globulin is one of the universal recipient.
two types of serum proteins, the other being 21. (a) Presence of calcium will remove
albumin. Globulins can be divided into heparin (blood anti-coagulant) and will
three fractions based on their electrophoretic promote blood clotting. Sodium oxalate and
mobility. Most of the alpha and beta globulins heparin containing test tubes will not allow
are synthesized by the liver, whereas gamma the blood to clot.
globulins are produced by lymphocytes and 22. (b) Lymph is a colourless vascular connec-
plasma cells in lymphoid tissue. tive tissue derived from tissue fluid. RBCs
15. (b) Basophil is a type of white blood and platelets are absent. Only leucocytes and
cell (leucocyte) that has a lobed nucleus floating amoeboid lymphocytes are present.
surrounded by granular cytoplasm. Basophils 23. (a) Blood group ‘O’ is known as the
are produced continually by stem cells in universal donor since it does not contain
the red bone marrow & move about in an antigens.
amoeboid fashion. Like, mast cells, they 24. (d) Leucocytes are colourless, nucleated
produce histamine and heparin as part of the amoeboid cells found in blood which are
body’s defences at the site of an infection or devoid of haemoglobin and are capable of
injury. coming out of blood capillaries through the
16. (d) The most active phagocytic white blood process of diapedesis. Fall of WBC count
cells are neutrophils and monocytes. is called leucopenia, and occurs due to folic
Neutrophil is a type of WBC (leucocyte) that acid deficiency and AIDS etc.
has a lobed nucleus and granular cytoplasm. 25. (c) Histamine is a potent vasodilator
Neutrophils engulf bacteria and release formed by decarboxylation of the amino
various substance such as lysozyme and acid histidine and released by mast cells in
oxidizing agents. response to appropriate antigens.
Monocyte is the largest form of WBC in Mast cells are especially prevalent in the
vertebrates. It has a kidney shaped nucleus connective tissue of the skin and respiratory
and is actively phagocytic, ingesting bacteria tract and in surrounding blood vessels.
and cell’s debris. 26. (c) Blood group is determined by three
17. (d) The haemoglobin of a human foetus alleles - IA, IB, and Io. Alleles IA and IB are
has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of codominant. Blood group A is determined
an adult. Haemoglobin is a group of globlar by IA IA or IA Io. Blood group B is IB IB or
proteins occurring widely in animals as IB Io. Blood group O is Io Io. Blood group AB
oxygen carriers in blood. is IA IB.
18. (a) Blood serum is [of pale yellow colour] 27. (a) White blood cells are of two types :
and is liquid minus clotting [elements]. It (i) Granulocytes (with granular cytoplasm)
does not have fibrinogen and other clotting - neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils.
 EBD_7325
204 BIOLOGY
(ii) Agranulocytes (with clear cytoplasm) - 34. (b) In foetus ; liver, spleen, bone marrow,
Lymphocytes and monocytes lymph nodes & thymus are the haemopoietic
28. (a) Most of the WBCs have a life span organs (blood forming). In adults most of
which is even less than 1 day. the blood corpuscles form in the peripheral
White blood cells or leukocytes are cells region of red bone marrow in long bones.
which form a component of the blood. They 35. (b)
are produced in the bone marrow at a rate Man (A) : I A Io → I A I A → A 
of about 1000 million per day and help to 
→ I A IB → AB 
defend the body against infectious disease showsheterozygous
 all show heterozygous
Woman (AB) : I A I B → I A Io → AB
and foreign materials as part of the immune 
system. → IB Io → B 
There are normally between 4×109 and OR
1.1×1010 white blood cells in a litre of healthy A A A A
I I → I I → A
adult blood. In conditions such as leukemia 
→ I A IB → AB 
this may rise to as many as 50,000 white all show
 all showshomozygous
homozygous
blood cells in a single drop of blood (only 1% IA IB → IA IA → A 

of blood on average is a white blood cell). As → I A IB → AB 
well as in the blood, white cells are also found
36. (d) Endothelium.
in large numbers in the lymphatic system, the
37. (d) If the child has O blood group – I° I°
spleen, and in other body tissues. The white
If father has B blood group it is either – IB
blood cells have a life span of 10 days.
IB or IB Io But if father has IB IB then child
29. (d) Spleen and brain are the organs which cannot have I° I°, so father must have IB Io.
receive only oxygenated blood. In gills and
38. (d) Lymphocyte is a type of white blood
lungs, blood picks up oxygen.
cells in the vertebrate immune system.
30. (d) RBCs as well as plasma both carry Lymphocytes are responsible for making
oxygen and CO2 in dissolved and chemically antibodies.
combined form. 39. (c) The walls of blood capillaries do not
31. (c) An important function of lymph possess tunica externa (connective tissue
is to return interstitial fluid back to the layer containing lymph vessels), tunica
blood. This interstitial fluid is also called media (a thick network of smooth muscle
extracellular fluid, which is formed from fibres) but only tunica interna (a single layer
blood due to various factors, i.e. hydrostatic endothelium of squamous cells).
pressure, osmotic gradient etc. 40. (b) Blood group A – Antigen-A & Antibody
32. (b) Antigens are foreign proteins, which ‘b’ or Anti A or a,
stimulate specific immune response Blood group B – Antigen-B & antibody
(antibody) against itself when introduced a or Anti B or b
into the body. They are present on the surface Blood group AB – Antigen-A & B and
of cell wall. no antibody.
33. (a) The inheritance of blood group is Blood group O – No antigen &
determined by some allelic genes which are Antibodies a & b both.
IA, IB & I°. In one individual two allelic genes 41. (d) Neutrophils are a type of Leucocyte
are present. IA & IB are dominant while Io is (WBCs) that can take all types of stain
recessive in heterozygous condition. So if a (Acidic-Basic-Neutral). It is most abundant
child has a blood group O he/she must have (60-70% of total WBCs) and most active
IoIo & he/she cannot have the parents of type of WBCs i.e. they are the most actively
blood group AB & AB/O. phagocytic in nature.
Body Fluids and Circulation 205
42. (c) A has antigen A & antibody b so it can 51. (a) Control of Heart Beat by Nervous
have the same blood group. O has no antigen System: Medulla oblongata has two
& antibodies a & b so it is called universal regulatory centre:
donor. (i) Accelerator centre - It functions through
43. (b) Because the process of blood clotting sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and
starts when prothrombinase (an enzyme increases heart beat by the secretion of
formed by thromboplastin) catalyzes the epinephrine or adrenaline.
conversion of prothrombin (an inactive (ii) Depressor centre - It functions through
protein in the blood plasma) into thrombin
parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS)
(active protein) and this reaction takes place
by the secretion of acetylcholine. It
in the presence of Ca2+. Now this thrombin
decreases heart beat, speed of conduction
converts fibrinogen into fibrin which makes
of action potential and thereby the
fibrin threads on polymerization & with
blood corpuscles, it clots blood, som if Ca2+ cardiac output.
are removed from blood it’ll prevent clotting. 52. (d) R
It may also be done by adding some anti
coagulants eg. sodium & potassium oxalates
in blood as they precipitate Ca2+ present in P Q S T
the blood.
44. (a) Lymph differs from blood in that it The P-wave represents the electrical
contains less protein and no red blood cells. excitation (or depolarisation) of the atria,
Lymph contains white blood cells. which leads to the contraction of both the
45. (b) Mineral found in red pigment of atria. The QRS complex represents the
depolarisation of the ventricles, which
vertebrate blood is iron.
initiates the ventricular contraction. The
46. (d) The blood of cockroach do not contain
contraction starts shortly after Q and marks
RBCs as it is not infact the blood, but
the beginning of the systole.
haemolymph which has some unpigmented
free cells in plasma known as haemotocytes 53. (d) Artery is blood vessel which receives
which have nothing to do with the transport blood from heart, has elastic thick wall
showing jerky movements due to pumping
of gases or respiration.
activity of heart. Vein is a blood vessel which
47. (c) Arteries have higher blood pressure than
carries blood towards the heart, has wider
vein because blood is forced inside them from
heart and also their lumen is narrow. lumen with internal valves where blood
flows smoothly and slowly. Blood capillary
48. (b) The wall of left ventricle is the thickest
of all the Chambers. It supplies oxygenated is a very fine blood vessel which has a
blood throughout the body. Aorta arises from single layered wall. Pulmonary veins are the
left ventricle and the musculature is best only veins which carry oxygenated blood.
developed. (PO2 = 95 mmHg, PCO2 = 40 mmHg)
49. (b) The second sound heard by doctors using 54. (b) ‘Bundle of His’ are a typical cardiac
stethoscope occurs when semilunar valves muscle fibres, connecting the atria with
close down after the blood flows into vesels ventricle.
from ventricles. 55. (b) Arteries are the vessels which break up
50. (b) Whale is a mammal. It has four cham- into capillaries which reunite to form one
bered heart having two atria and two ven- visceral organ.
tricles. Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood 56. (d) 90/110 mmHg may harm vital
flow in separate circulatory pathways. organs like brain and kidney. This is called
 EBD_7325
206 BIOLOGY
hypertension which can give rise to increased involves the distribution of oxygenated
heart rate and palpitation. blood via the aorta from the heart to all
57. (c) Peak P-causes diastolic phase in ventricle parts of the body, and the collection of
while R-Peak causes systole in ventricle. deoxygenated blood from all parts of the
Diastolic and systolic phases represented by body through the great veins into the heart.
P & R. Pulmonary circulation denotes the route
58. (d) Tricuspid valve is the valve in the heart impure blood takes from the heart to the
between the right atrium and right ventricle. lungs for purification and then back to the
The valve opens to allow blood to flow from heart, the left auricle receives oxygenated
atrium into the ventricle. Thus if tricuspid blood and passes it to the left ventricle.
valve is partially non-functional, then the The left ventricle pumps the pure blood to
flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will all parts of the body through aorta. Hence
be reduced. these two chambers involved in systemic
59. (c) In a standard ECG, the P-wave is circulation are referred to as systemic heart.
a small upward wave that indicates the 66. (c) The atrioventricular bundle (AV bundle),
depolarisation of the atria. This is caused by on entering the ventricles splits into right and
the activation of SA node. left branches. These branches then enter the
60. (b) In human, blood passes from the post heart muscles. They branch extensively and
caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart are called Purkinje fibres. They conduct the
due to suction pull. cardiac impulse to the ventricular wall.
61. (c) Since RBCS do not have mitochondria 67. (a) SA node is called the pacemaker
so they can respire only anaerobically. because it initiates the cardiac impulse. AV
62. (a) Periplaneta (P. americana, the Indian node receives the impulse from the SA node
Cockroach) is an insect & insects do not and transmits it to the ventricles
have closed blood circulation. Their blood 68. (d) Arteries have thick wall and narrow
(called haemolymph) even does not serve lumen while veins have thin walls and large
for respiration. They do not possess blood lumen. Arteries do not have valves.
vessels in this circulatory system and hence 69. (b) Mast cells contain granules of heparin
it is an open system. and histamine. Heparin prevents blood
63. (c) Fibrinogen, prothrombin, thromboplas- clotting. Histamine produces inflammation.
tin are respectively clotting factors I, II and 70. (b) SA is the site of generation of the
III. rhythmic cardiac impulse. AV node is a
Thromboplastin is released from injured compact mass of myogenic fibres which
platelets or injured tissue. This converts receives impulse from SA node and
prothrombin into thrombin in the presence transmits it to ventricles. Purkinje fibres are
of calcium ions. The thrombin converts in contact with the contractile muscles of
fibrinogen into fibrin and the latter froms the the ventricular walls. Chordae tendinae are
clot. the muscles which keep the AV valves in
64. (c) SA node is the natural pacemaker position.
located in the right atrium. SA node initiates 71. (b) An adult human with average health
the cardiac impulse. So, artificial pacemaker has systolic and diastolic pressures as 120
will be grafted at the site of SA node. mm Hg and 80 mm Hg respectively.
65. (c) Higher vertebrates exhibit double 72. (d) The pulse making impulse travels in
circulation of blood namely systemic and the heart in the order of SA node→AV
pulmonary circulation. Systemic circulation node→bundle of His→Purkinje fibres→heart
Body Fluids and Circulation 207

muscles. haemoglobin are haem i.e. iron & globin

73. (a) Heart produces two types of sounds. protein which is then converted into
1st sound : ‘Lubb’ is produced by closure of yellowish substance bilirubin, extracted by
bicuspid and tricuspid valves. 2nd sound : the liver cells from the blood & stored in
‘Dup’ is produced by closure of semilunar the form of bile in gall bladder. The more
valves present at the base of aorta to avoid appropriate answer is iron.
back flow of blood into the ventricle. 82. (b) Rh factor was discovered by Karl
74. (b) Closed circulatory system means blood Landsteiner. A child of Rh+ man will be Rh+
flows in some definite vessels in a specific whether the mother is Rh+ or Rh–. If the
direction in more organized manner than mother is Rh+ then there will be no problem
that of open system in which blood does not but if mother is Rh– so when the blood of
flow in vessels. Rh+ child (in womb) mixes with the blood of
75. (c) Sino-Auricular node (S.A node) present Rh– mother then some antibodies in mother’s
in the walls of right auricle has a myogenic blood are formed against Rh+ factor which
initiation of heartbeat in a regular fashion coagulate the womb blood causing death. If
and controls the pace of heartbeat. birth takes place then there is a possibility of
76. (d) Synthesis of prothrombin helps in child death in early years. This in known as
coagulation of blood. Vitamin K is required erythroblastosis foetalis. In most cases the Ist
for the synthesis of prothrombin and blood pregnancy may succeed but after that it fails.
clotting factors I, VII, IX and X. 83. (a) Folic Acid (Cyanocobalamine vit. B12)
works in the formation and maturation
77. (d) Veins have larger lumen because the
of RBCs. In its deficiency RBC formation
wall of blood vessels is made up of tunica
decreases and the formed RBCs will not
externa, tunica media & tunica interna is
mature i.e. they will not loose the nucleus
thin in veins.
and hence remain nucleated and lack
78. (b)
Hepatic artery Liver haemoglobin. Such RBCs cannot carry
oxygen & person suffers from anaemia.
Heart Carotico systemic arch Dorsal aorta Coeliac artery
Supplementing his diet with folic acid
Splenic (spleen) Lienogastric and cobalamine will lead to the increased
formation and proper maturation of
Gastric (stomach)
enucleated RBCs with haemoglobin and
79. (b) Tricuspid valve is present between eliminate anaemia.
right auricle and right ventricle. It has 3
84. (a) Leukaemia is a type of blood cancer,
membranous flaps to check the flow of
which is characterized by an uncontrolled
blood in reverse direction. Sinus venosus and
increase in the number (through mitosis) of
right auricle are guarded by sinu-atrial value.
leucocytes in the blood.
The opening of left auricle and left ventricle
85. (c) Haemophilia is a sex linked disease
is guarded by bicuspid valve. The opening of
(linked with X chromosomes). In this
ventricle and aorta is guarded by semilunar
disease, blood lacks the thromboplastin
valves.
protein which causes blood clotting during
80. (a) Pulmonary artery carries the blood from
injury. In normal human, blood clots in 2-6
the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs
min. While in haemophilic human, it may
for oxygenation so it carries deoxygenated
take from 3 hrs to 24 hrs due to which death
blood.
may occur. This disease was Ist discovered by
81. (b) The breakdown products of Jon Catto in 1803. The most famous families
 EBD_7325
208 BIOLOGY
in which the inheritance of this disease was 87. (d) In sickle cell anaemia, normal
found were the Royal families of Britain & haemoglobin (HbA) gets changed in
Russia, so it is also called Royal disease. denatured form of haemoglobin (HbS)
86. (c) Alkaptonuria (also known as blackurine in which the haemoglobin molecule’s
disease) is excretion of large amount of configuration changes and it changes its
alkapton in urine which when comes in the shape, in low O2 concentration unable
contact with light turn black and it is caused to transport O2 transportation and RBCs
by gene mutation. Hematuria is presence become sickle shaped. It is a genetic disease
of blood or RBCs in urine, proteinuria is caused by the denaturation of haemoglobin,
presence of protein in the urine. that is why it is known as hemolytic anaemia.
 Chapter

19 Excretory Products and

Their Elimination
Topic 1: Excretory Products of 4. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component
Different Animals of the excretory products of  [2009]
(a) earthworm (b) cockroach
1.
Select the option which shows correct
matching of animal with excretory organs (c) frog (d) man
and excretory product  [NEET Kar. 2013] 5. Earthworms are [2006]
Animal Excretory Excretory (a) uricotelic when plenty of water is available
organs product (b) uricotelic under conditons of water
(a) Housefly Renal tubules Uric acid scarcity
(b) Labeo (Rohu) Nephridial Ammonia (c) ammonotelic when plenty of water is
tubes available
(c) Salamander Kidney Urea (d) ureotelic when plenty of water is available
(d) Peacock Kidney Urea 6. Uricotelism is found in [2004]
2. Which one of the following options gives (a) Mammals and birds
the correct categorization of six animals (b) Fishes and fresh water protozoans

according to the type of nitrogenous wastes (c) Birds, reptiles and insects
(A, B, C), they give out? [2012M]
(d) Frogs and toads
A-Ammo- B-Ureotelic C-Urico-
7. A terrestrial animal must be able to [2004]
notelic telic
(a) excrete large amounts of water in urine
(a) Pigeon, Aquatic Cockroach,
Humans Amphibia, Frog (b) conserve water
Lizards (c) actively pump salts out through the skin
(b) Frog, Lizards Aquatic Cockroach, (d) excrete large amounts of salts in urine
Amphibia, Pigeon
8. In Hydra waste material of food digestion and
Humans
nitrogenous waste material removed from 
(c) Aquatic Frog, Pigeon,
Amphibia Humans Lizards, (a) mouth and body wall  [2001]
Cockroach (b) mouth and tentacles
(d) Aquatic Cockroach, Frog, Pigeon, (c) mouth and nematocyst
Amphibia Humans Lizards (d) body wall and tentacles
3. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous 9. Which one of the following is a matching
wastes is found in  [2011] pair?  [2000]
(a) Reptiles and Bird (a) Tears-excretion of salts
(b) Birds and Annelids (b) Sweat-thermoregulation
(c) Amphibians and Reptiles (c) Saliva-tasting food
(d) Insects and Amphibians (d) Sebum-sex attraction
 EBD_7325
210 BIOLOGY
10. In ureotelic animals, urea is formed by the (c) Hepatic Vein
[1997, 2000] (d) Hepatic Portal Vein
(a) Arginine cycle (b) Cori's cycle 17. Which of the following does not favour the
formation of large quantities of dilute urine?
(c) Ornithine cycle (d) EM pathway
(a) Caffeine [2015 RS]
11. Solenocytes are the main excretory structures
(b) Renin
in  [1998]
(c) Atrial-natriuretic factor
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Annelids
(c) Molluscs (d) Echinodermates (d) Alcohol
18. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from
12. In Ornithine cycle, which one pair of the
the nephron will result in:  [2015 RS]
following wastes are removed from the
(a) More concentrated urine
blood?  [1996]
(b) No change in quality and quantity of
(a) CO2 and urea
urine
(b) CO2 and ammonia (c) No urine formation
(c) Ammonia and urea (d) More diluted urine
(d) Urea and sodium salts 19. Human urine is usually acidic because :
13. Uric acid is nitrogenous waste in [1994] [2015 RS]
(a) Mammals and molluscs (a) excreted plasma proteins are acidic
(b) Birds and lizards (b) potassium and sodium exchange
generates acidity
(c) Frog and cartilaginous fishes
(c) hydrogen ions are actively secreted into
(d) Insects and bony fishes the filtrate.
14. Nitrogenous waste products are eliminated (d) the sodium transporter exchanges one
mainly as  [1991] hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in
(a) urea in tadpole and ammonia in adult peritubular capillaries.
frog 20. Which of the following causes an increase in
(b) ammonia in tadpole and urea in adult sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted
frog tubule?  [2014]
(c) urea in both tadpole and adult frog (a) Increase in aldosterone levels
(d) urea in tadpole and uric acid in adult frog (b) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
(c) Decrease in aldosterone levels
Topic 2: Human Excretory System
(d) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
15. Which of the following statements is 21. Figure shown human urinary system with
correct? [2017] structures labelled A to D. Select option
(a) The descending limb of loop of Henle which correctly identifies them and gives their
is impermeable to water. characteristics and /or functions.
(b) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is [NEET 2013]
permeable to water. A
(c) The descending limb of loop of Henle
B
is permeable to electrolytes.
(d) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is C Kidney
impermeable to water. D
16. In mammals, which blood vessel would
normally carry largest amount of urea? [2016]
(a) Renal Vein Urinary bladder
(b) Dorsal Aorta
(a) B-pelvis-broad funnel shaped space inner
Excretory Products and Their Elimination 211
to hilum, directly connected to loops of (c) Distal convoluted tubule : reabsorption
Henle. of K+ ions into the surrounding blood
(b) C-Medulla-inner zone of kidney and capillaries
contains complex nephrons. (d) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away
(c) D - Cortex - outer part of kidney and do from the glomerular towards renal vein.
not contain any part of nephrons 27. Which one of the following statements
(d) A-Adrenal gland - located at the anterior is correct with respect to kidney function
part of kidney. Secrete Catecholamines regulation ?  [2011]
which stimulate glycogen breakdown. (a) When someone drinks lot of water,ADH
22. The maximum amount of electrolytes and release is suppressed.
water (70 - 80 percent) from the glomerular (b) Exposure to cold temperature blood flow
filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.
nephron ? [2012] (c) An increase in glomerular blood flow
(a) Ascending limb of loop of Henle stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.
(b) Distal convoluted tubule (d) During summer when body loses lot
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule of water by evaporation, the release of
(d) Descending limb of loop of Henle ADH is suppressed.
28. Ureters act as urogenital ducts in [2011M]
23. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) (a) human males
activates [2012M] (b) human females
(a) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. (c) frog's both males and females
(b) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline. (d) frog's males
(c) juxta - glomerular cells to release renin. 29. Which one of the following statements in
(d) posterior pituitary to release regard to the excretion by the human kidneys
vasopressin. is correct? [2010]
24. Which one of the following characteristics is (a) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is
common to both in humans and adult frogs? impermeable to water
(a) Four - chambered heart [2012M] (b) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of
(b) Internal fertilization reabsorbing HCO3
(c) Nucleated RBCs (c) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular
(d) Ureotelic mode of excretion filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
25. Which one of the following is not a part of a (d) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is
renal pelvis?      [2011] impermeable to electrolytes
(a) Peritubular capillaries 30. The principal nitrogenous excretory com-
(b) Convoluted tubules pound in humans is synthesised [2010]
(c) Collecting ducts (a) in kidneys but eliminated mostly through
(d) Loops of Henle liver
26. Which one of the following correctly explains (b) in kidneys as well as eliminated by
the function of a specific part of a human kidneys
nephron ?  [2011] (c) in liver and also eliminated by the same
(a) Podocytes : create minute spaces (slite through bile
pores) for the filtration of blood into the (d) in the liver, but eliminated mostly
Bowman’s capsule through kidneys
(b) Henle’s loop : most reabsorption of the 31. Consider the following four statements (i-iv)
major substances from the glomerular regarding kidney transplant and select the two
filtrate correct ones out of these. [2010]
 EBD_7325
212 BIOLOGY
(i) Even if a kidney transplant is proper 37. If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian
the recipient may need to take immune nephron, which of the following is to be
suppresants for a long time expected? [2003]
(ii) The cell mediated immune response is (a) The urine will be more dilute
(b) There will be no urine formation
responsible for the graft rejection
(c) There will be hardly any change in the
(iii) The B lymphocytes are responsible for
quality and quantity of urine formed
rejection of the graft (d) The urine will be more concentrated
(iv) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney 38. Formation of concentrated (hyperosmotic)
transplant depends on specific interferons urine in vertebrates generally depends on
The two correct statements are: [2000]
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (a) length of the proximal convoluted tubule
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii) (b) length of Henle's loop
32. What will happen if the stretch receptors of (c) area of Bowman's capsule epithelium
(d) capillary network forming glomerulus
the urinary bladder wall are totally removed?
39. In the renal tubules the permeability of the
(a) Micturition will continue [2009]
distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct
(b) Urine will continue to collect normally to water is controlled by [1999]
in the bladder (a) Vasopressin (b) Aldosterone
(c) There will be no micturition (c) Growth hormone(d) Renin
(d) Urine will not collect in the bladder 40. The basic functional unit of the human kidney
33. Bowman’s glands are found in [2006] is  [1997]
(a) external auditory canal (a) nephron (b) nephridia
(b) cortical nephrons only (c) pyramid (d) Henle's loop
(c) juxtamedullary nephrons 41. Part not belonging to uriniferous tubule is 
(d) olfactory epithelium (a) Glomerulus  [1994]
34. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. (b) Henle’s loop
His urine will be found to contain abnormal (c) Distal convoluted tubule
quantities of:  [2005] (d) Connecting tubule
(a) fats (b) amino acids 42. If kidney fail to reabsorb water, the effect on
tissue would  [1994]
(c) glucose (d) ketones
(a) remain unaffected
35. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid
(b) shrink and shrivel
to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule
(c) absorb water from blood plasma
is:  [2005]
(d) take more O2 from blood
(a) 50 mm Hg (b) 75 mm Hg
43. Glucose is taken back from glomerular filtrate
(c) 20 mm Hg (d) 30 mm Hg through  [1993]
36. In Ornithine cycle, which of the following (a) Active transport (b) Passive transport
wastes are removed from the blood? [2005] (c) Osmosis (d) Diffusion
(a) CO2 and urea 44. Under normal conditions which one is
(b) Ammonia and urea completely reabsorbed in the renal tubule?
(c) CO2 and ammonia [1991]
(d) Urea and urine (a) Urea (b) Uric acid
(c) Salts (d) Glucose
Excretory Products and Their Elimination 213
45. Brush border is characteristic of  [1990] (c) Oviduct
(a) neck of nephron (d) Vas deferens
(b) collecting tube 47. Reabsorption of useful substances from
(c) proximal convoluted tubule glomerular filtrate occurs in [1989]
(d) all the above (a) Collecting tube
46. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are (b) Loop of Henle
parts of  [1990] (c) Proximal convoluted tubule
(a) Seminiferous tubules (d) Distal convoluted tubule
(b) Nephron
 EBD_7325
214 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Salamander (Amphibia; Caudata) urine and conserve water. Choices (c) and (d)
excrete urea through kidneys (mesonephric). are characteristics of marine animals who
2. (c) Those animals that excrete ammonia are need to overcome the problem of preventing
called as ammonotelic, eg. aquatic amphibia. entry of salts and loss of water. Choice (a) is
Those animals that excrete urea are called as characteristic of fresh water animals.
ureotelic, eg. frog, humans. 8. (a) Hydra being a coelenterate, has blind
Those animals that excrete uric acid are sac body plan. It has only one mouth which
called as uricotelic, eg. pigeon, lizards, and serves as the opening for ingestion and waste
cockroach. elimination besides diffusion across body
3. (a) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or Vaso- wall.
pressin increases the reabsorption of water 9. (b) Sweat regulates body temperature.
in the distal convoluted tubule, collecting Sweating also called perspiration or some-
tubules and collecting ducts of the nephrons times transpiration is the production and
of the kidneys. As a result, the reabsorption evaporation of a fluid, consisting primarily of
of water from the glomerular filtrate is in- water as well as a smaller amount of sodium
creased. When someone drinks lot of water, chloride the main constituent of “table salt”,
requirement of absorption of water decreases, that is excreted by the sweat glands in the skin
so ADH release is suppressed. of mammals.
4. (b) Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous compo- 10. (c) In ureotelic animals urea is formed by
nent of the excretory product of cockroach. Ornithine cycle. Urea is formed in the liver
Animals which live in dry conditions have where two molecules of ammonia combine
to conserve water in their bodies. Therefore, with one molecule of CO2 in presence of
they synthesise crystals of uric acid from am- Ornithine, citrulline, arginine and enzyme
monia. Uric acid crystals are non-toxic and arginase. This is called Ornithine cycle.
can be retained in the body for a considerable 11. (a) Solenocytes or flame cells or protone-
time. Uricotelic animals include insects, rep- phridia are excretory organs in Platyhelmin-
tiles and birds. thes (Flatworms). They excrete ammonia. In
5. (c) Some animals have dual behaviour of Annelids excretory organ are nephridia. In
excretion eg. earthworm. It excretes ammonia Molluscs sac like kidneys are excretory organ.
(hence called ammonotelic) when enough In a Echinodermata nitrogenous wastes are
water is available but excretes urea (ureotelic) excreted through gills.
in dry conditions. 12. (b) In ureotelic animals urea is formed from
6. (c) In uricotelic animals nitrogenous waste ammonia by Ornithine cycle.
is eliminated in the form of uric acid. Ammo-
CO2 + 2NH3 → CO(NH2)2 + H2O
notelism is seen in aquatic animals wherein
nitrogenous wastes is eliminated in the form ammonia Urea
of ammonia eg. Fishes, tadpole. Ureotelism 13. (b) The excretion of uric acid as nitrogenous
is observed in human beings in which nitog- waste is called uricotelism. The excretion of
enous waste is eliminated as urea. uric acid is advantageous for those animals
7. (b) Terrestial animals have limited access to which have to conserve water for their survival
water. Hence they have to secrete hypertonic like birds and lizards.
Excretory Products and Their Elimination 215
14. (b) Ammonia molecules are small and 22. (c) Nearly all the essential nutrients, and
highly soluble in water. In ammonotelic 70-80 percent of electrolytes and H2O are
animals large amount of H2O is required reabsorbed by proximal convoluted tubules.
to eliminate ammonia from the body, so it 23. (c) The amount of the filtrate formed by
is found in aquatic animals like tadpole of the kidneys per minute is called glomerular
frog. When tadpole becomes a mature frog it filtration rate (GFR). GFR in a healthy
acquires mainly ureotelism. individual is approximately 125 ml/minute,
i.e., 180 litres per day. A fall in GFR can
15. (d) Descending limb of loop of Henle
activate the JG cells to release renin which
is permeable to water but impermeable
can stimulate the glomerular blood flow
to electrolytes whereas ascending limb is
and thereby the GFR back to normal.
impermeable to water but permeable to Renin converts angiotensinogen in blood
electrolytes. to angiotensin I and further angiotensin II.
16. (c) Hepatic Vein, because the liver produces Angiotensin II being powerful vasoconstrictor
urea and other waste materials and then it increases the glomerular blood pressure and
pours it all in the right ventricle of the heart thereby GFR.
for oxygenation. The heart distributes the 24. (d) Adult frog and human exhibit ureotelism
blood to various parts of the body from here. because there excretory waste product is urea.
So the impure blood brought by the Hepatic 25. (c) Renal pelvis is the innermost portion of
Vein and other blood vessels get distributed kidney. So, collecting ducts are not a part of
through the aorta. This will automatically renal pelvis.
imply that the Renal Artery will contain lesser 26. (a) Podocytes are highly specialized cells
impure blood than the Hepatic Vein. with a complex cytoarchitecture plays a major
role in establishing the selective permeability
17. (b) The secretion of Renin is induced by
of glomerular filtration barrier.
decrease in blood pressure and blood volume.
27. (a) When some one drinks lots of water,
It maintains the proper BP and BV. It has no
kidney release of ADH is suppressed.
role in the formation of large quantities of 28. (d) In male frogs the sperms are carried
urine. through the ureters, hence in male, ureters
18. (d) Gnerally all of the essential nutrients are called urinogenital ducts.
and 70% to 80% of electrolytes and water 29. (c) Urine formation involves three main pro-
are reabsorbed by this segment. Removal of cess called, glomerular filtration, reabsorption
proximal convolnted tubule from the nephron and secretion. A comparison of the volume
will result in dilution of urine. of the filtrate formed per day (which is 180
19. (c) Urine has acidic nature because hydrogen litres per day) with that of urine released
ions(H+) are components of an acid which (about 1.5 litres) suggest that nearly 99 percent
of the glomerular filtrate is resorbed by the
are secreted into the filtrate.
renal tubules. The descending limb of loop of
20. (a) Aldosterone hormone, released by the
Henle is permeable to water but impermeable
adrenal glands, helps the body regulate blood
to electrolytes.
pressure. Aldosterone causes the tubules The ascending limb is impermeable to
of the kidneys to increase the reabsorption water but allows transport of electrolytes.
of sodium and water into the blood. This Reabsorption of sodium ions and water
increases the volume of fluid in the body, takes place in distal convoluted tubule.
which also increases blood pressure. Also, it is capable of reabsorption of
21. (d) A – Adrenal gland – located at the anterior HCO3.
part of kidney, secrete Catecholamines which 30. (d) The principal nitrogenous excretory
stimulate glycogen breakdown. compound in humans is urea. It is synthesized
 EBD_7325
216 BIOLOGY
in the mitrochondrial matrix and cytosol of 37. (a) Henle’s loop is associated with the
liver cells and eliminated through kidneys. concentration of urine and production of
31. (d) Tissue and blood group matching are es- hypertonic urine.
sential before undertaking kidney transplant. 38. (b) Henle’s loop is involved in osmoregulation
Even if kidney transplant is proper, the recipi- and concentrating urine. Thus producing a
ent may need to take immuno suppresant all hypertonic urine.
his/her life. The ability of body to differenti- 39. (a) Growth hormone, released by the
ate self and non­self and the cell-mediated anterior lobe of pituitary which brings about
body growth by synthesis and deposition of
immune response is responsible for graft
proteins in tissues. Renin secreted by special
rejection.
cells in kidneys regulates blood pressure.
32. (a) Sensory stretch receptors are responsible Aldosterone reduces Na + elimination by
for the stretch reflex. If these are removed helping active reabsorption from the nephric
then autonomic nervous system control will filtrate.
not be there and micturition will continue. 40. (a) Nephridia are the excretory structures of
Micturition is the expulsion of urine from the annelids. Henle's loop is a part of the nephron
urinary bladder. or uriniferous tubule of the vertebrate kidney.
33. (d) Bowman’s glands are found in olfactory 41. (a) Glomerulus is a group of about 50
epithelium which secrete mucus to keep the capillaries which have numerous pores and
olfactory epithelium moist and free from are separated by the lumen of Bowman’s
germs. Capsule through a basement layer.
34. (d) Under fasting conditions and in un- 42. (b) If kidneys fail to reabsorb water the
controlled diabetes, the liver produces large urine will be diluted causing polyuria
amount of ketone bodies like Acetoacetate, (frequent urination). Then the body tissues
get dehydrated & the cell will loose water
dihydroxy butyrate. The presence of excess
content & shrink.
ketone bodies in blood or urine is termed
43. (a) Active transport.
ketonemic and ketonuria respectively. 44. (d) The cells of Proximal Convoluted
35. (c) (i) Glomerular capillary pressure (45 Tubule (PCT) reabsorb entire glucose, amino
mm Hg) favours filteration. acids, most of the inorganic ions (Na+, K+,
(ii) The colloidal osmotic pressure Cl–), most of the water as well as some urea.
(due to plasma proteins, particularly Glucose is reabsorbed actively and most
albumin) acts against filteration. Its value effectively.
is ~20 mmHg. 45. (c)
(iii) The filterate pressure due to 46. (b) Nephron is the excretory unit of human
the glomerular filterate filled in the excretory system. Each nephron has a
Bowman’s capsule also acts against Bowman’s Capsule, a Proximal Convoluted
filteration. Its value is ~10 mmHg. Tubule (PCT), Loop of Henle (Descending
Net filteration pressure & Ascending limbs) and Distal Convoluted
= 45 – (20 + 10) mm Hg Tubule (DCT) which then enter into collecting
= 15 mm of Hg (10 – 20 mm of Hg) duct.
36. (c) Urea NH 2 – CO – NH 2 is formed 47. (c) From Bowman's capsule, glomerular
filtrate enters the proximal convoluted tubule.
from two molecules of ammonia and one
Most of the useful substances like Glucose,
molecule of carbon dioxide. A molecule
Amino Acids, inorganic ions (Na + , K + ,
of ammonia combines with carbondioxide Cl– etc), and most of the important buffer
to form carbonyl phosphate. It reacts with bicarbonates are reabsorbed in Proximal
ornithine to form citrulline. Citrulline accepts Convoluted Tubule. Cells are specially
another molecule of NH4+ giving rise to adaptive for absorption having numerous
arginine. Arginine is hydrolysed into urea and microvilli & mitochondria (to provide energy
ornithine with the help of enzyme arginase. for active absorption).
 Chapter

20 Locomotion and
Movement

Topic 1: Types of Movement / Muscle 5. Which one of the following pairs of chemical
substances is correctly categorized? [2012M]
1. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli (a) Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid
in sustained muscle contraction is known as hormones
[2016] (b) Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive
(a) Spasm (b) Fatigue enzymes secreted in stomach
(c) Tetanus (d) Tonus (c) Troponin and myosin - Complex
2. Sliding filament theory can be best explained proteins in striated muscles
as: [2015 RS] (d) Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide
(a) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and hormones
slide pass each other 6. Which of the following is the contractile
(b) Actin and Myosin filaments do not protein of a muscle? [1998, 2006]
(a) Myosin (b) Tropomyosin
shorten but rather slide pass each other
(c) Actin (d) Tubulin
(c) When myofilaments slide pass each 7. What is sarcomere? [2001]
other, Myosin filaments shorten while (a) Part between two H-lines
Actin filaments do not shorten (b) Part between two A-lines
(d) When myofilaments slide pass each other (c) Part between two I-bands
Actin filaments shorten while Myosin (d) Part between two Z-lines
filament do not shorten 8. Which statement is correct for muscle
3. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due contraction? [2001]
to : [NEET 2013] (a) Length of H-line decreases
(a) The central gap between myosin (b) Length of A-band remains constant
(c) Length of I-band increases
filaments in the A-band.
(d) Length of two Z-lines increase
(b) The central gap between actin filaments
9. Which ion is essential for muscle
extending through myosin filaments in contraction? [1994]
the A-band (a) Na (b) K
(c) Extension of myosin filaments in the (c) Ca (d) Cl
central portion of the A-band. 10. Characteristics of smooth muscle fibres are
(d) The absence of myofibrils in the central [1990]
portion of A-band. (a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated,
4. During muscle contraction in humans the uninucleate and involuntary
[NEET Kar. 2013] (b) spindle shaped, unbranched, unstriped,
(a) Actin filaments shorten multinucleate and involuntary
(b) Sarcomere does not shorten (c) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped,
(c) A band remain same multinucleate and involuntary
(d) cylindrical, unbranched, striated,
(d) A, H and I bands shorten
multinucleate and voluntary
 EBD_7325
218 BIOLOGY
Topic 2: Skeletal System / Joints Type of joint Example
(a) Cartilaginous joint between frontal
11. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type
and pariental
of :  [2017]
(b) Pivot joint between third and
(a) Cartilaginous joint
fourth cervical vertebrae
(b) Synovial joint
(c) Saddle joint (c) Hinge joint between humerus
(d) Fibrous joint and pectoral girdle
12. Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only ‘Y’ (d) Gliding joint between carpals
pairs are true ribs. Select the option that 17. The characteristics and an example of a
correctly represents values of X and Y and synovial joint in humans is : [NEET 2013]
provides their explanation:  [2017] Characteristics Examples
(a) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached (a) Fluid filled between Skull bones
dorsally to vertebral two joints, provides
column and sternum cushion
on the two ends. (b) Fluid filled synovial Joint between
(b) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally cavity between two atlas and axis
attached to vertebral bones
column but are free (c) Lymph filled between gliding joint
on ventral side. two bones, limited between
(c) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally movement carpals
attached to vertebral (d) Fluid cartilage Knee joint
column but are free on between two bones,
ventral side. limited movements
(d) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached 18. Select the correct statement with respect to
dorsally to vertebral locomotion in humans : [NEET 2013]
column and ventrally
(a) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in
to the sternum.
joints causes their inflammation
13. Glenoid cavity articulates : [2015 RS]
(b) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic
(a) Scapula with acromion
vertebrae.
(b) Clavicle with scapula
(c) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is
(c) Humerus with scapula
(d) Clavicle with acromion a fibrous joint
14. Which of the following joints would allow no (d) The decreased level of progesterone
movement? [2015 RS] causes osteoporosis in old people
(a) Cartilaginoius joint 19. Three of the following pairs of the human
(b) Synovial joint skeletal parts are correctly matched with
(c) Ball and Socket joint their respective inclusive skeletal category
(d) Fibrous joint and one pair is not matched. Identify the
15. Which of the following is not a function of non-matching pair. [2011M]
the skeletal system? [2015 RS] Pairs of skeletal parts Category
(a) Storage of minerals (a) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
(b) Production of body heat (b) Clavicle and Glenoid Pelvic girdle
(c) Locomotion cavity
(d) Production of erythrocytes (c) Humerus and Ulna Appendicular
16. Select the correct matching of the type of skeleton
the joint with the example in human skeletal (d) Malleus and Stapes Ear ossicles
system: [2014]
Locomotion and Movement 219
20. Which one of the following is the correct (a) actinin (b) troponin
matching of three items and their grouping (c) myosin (d) actin
category? [2009] 27. What will happen if ligaments are cut or
Items Group broken? [2002]
(a) ilium, ischium, pubis - coxal bones (a) Bones will move freely at joints
of pelvic girdle (b) No movement at joints
(b) actin, myosin, - muscle proteins (c) Bones will become unfix
rhodopsin. (d) Bones will become fixed
(c) cytosine, uracil, - pyrimidines 28. The joint found between sternum and the
thiamine ribs in humans is [2000]
(d) malleus, incus, - ear ossicles (a) angular joint
cochlea (b) fibrous joint
21. Elbow joint is an example of: [2009] (c) cartilaginous joint
(a) hinge joint (d) gliding joint
(b) gliding joint 29. Which one of the following is a skull bone ?
(c) ball and socket joint [2000]
(d) pivot joint (a) Atlas (b) Coracoid
22. Which one of the following items gives its (c) Arytaenoid (d) Pterygoid
correct total number? [2008] 30. Total number of bones in the hind limb of
(a) Floating ribs in humans -4 man is [1998]
(b) Amino acids found in proteins - 16 (a) 14 (b) 30
(c) Types of diabetes -3 (c) 24 (d) 21
(d) Cervical vertebrae in humans - 8 31. The lower jaw in mammals is made up of
23. In human body, which one of the following [1998]
is anatomically correct? [2007] (a) Mandible (b) Dentary
(a) Collar bones - 3 pairs (c) Maxilla (d) Angulars
(b) Salivary glands - 1 pairs 32. The functional unit of contractile system in
(c) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs striated muscle is [1998]
(d) Floating ribs - 2 pairs (a) myofibril (b) sarcomere
24. Which of the following pairs, is correctly (c) Z-band (d) cross bridges
matched? [2005] 33. The number of floating ribs in the human
(a) Hinge joint - between vertebrae body, is [1995]
(b) Gliding joint - between zygapophyses (a) 6 pairs (b) 5 pairs
of the successive (c) 3 pairs (d) 2 pairs
vertebrae 34. Which is part of pectoral girdle? [1994]
(c) Cartilaginous - skull bones (a) Glenoid cavity (b) Sternum
joint (c) Ilium (d) Acetabulum
(d) Fibrous joint - between phalanges 35. Long bones function in [1993]
25. An acromian process is characteristically (a) support
found in the: [2005] (b) support, erythrocyte and leucocyte
synthesis
(a) pelvic girdle of mammals
(c) support and erythrocyte synthesis
(b) pectoral girdle of mammals
(d) erythrocyte formation
(c) skull of frog
36. A deltoid ridge occurs in [1990]
(d) sperm of mammals
(a) Radius (b) Ulna
26. ATPase enzyme needed for muscle
(c) Femur (d) Humerus
contraction is located in [2004]
 EBD_7325
220 BIOLOGY
37. Number of cervical vertebrae in camel is 41. Select the correct statement regarding
[1990] the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal
(a) more than that of rabbit system :- [2012]
(b) less than that of rabbit (a) Muscular dystrophy - age related
(c) same as that of whale shortening or muscles.
(d) more than that of horse
38. Extremities of long bones possess cartilage (b) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass
[1989] and higher chance of fractures with
(a) calcified (b) fibrous advancing age.
(c) elastic (d) hyaline (c) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune
39. Haversian canals occur in [1989] disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin
(a) Humerus (b) Pubis filaments
(c) Scapula (d) Clavicle (d) Gout - inflammation of joints due to
Topic 3: Disorders of Muscular extra deposition of calcium.
and Skeletal System 42. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause
40. Select the correct statement with respect to of:  [2010]
disorders of muscles in humans (a) tetany (b) anaemia
[NEET Kar. 2013] (c) angina pectoris (d) gout
(a) Rapid contractions of skeletal muscles 43. Parathormone deficiency produces muscle
causes muscle dystrophy ramps or tetany as a result of [1999]
(b) Failure of neuromuscular transmission
(a) lowered blood Ca2+
in myasthenia gravis can prevent normal
swallowing (b) enhanced blood Na+
(c) Accumulation of urea and creatine in (c) enhanced blood glucose
the joints cause their inflammation (d) enhanced blood Ca2+
(d) An overdose of vitamin D causes
osteoporosis
Locomotion and Movement 221

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Sustained contraction with no relaxation 7. (d) Darks bands on the myofibril form
phase is called muscle tetanus. A-band. Middle part of A-band contains
2. (b) Sliding filament theory was given by light zones-Hensen line (H-lines). Light
Huxley and Huxley (1954). It states that band on myofibril is called I-band. Middle
Actin and Myosin filaments do not become part of I-band contains Z-lines. Sarcomere is
short but rather slide pass each other. Because part between two Z-lines.
of sliding of actin filaments over myosin the 8.  (a,b) When Ca+ ions combine with troponin
length of I-band will change. contraction of muscles initiates. During
3. (b) Central part of thick filament, not contraction the Z lines come closer together
overlapped by thin filaments is called the ‘H’ and the sarcomere becomes shorter. The
zone. ‘H’ zone is also called Hensen’s Line. length of A band remains constant. I bands
4. (c) Increase in Ca++ level into the sarcoplasm
shortens and H-band narrows.
leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit
9. (c) Movement of Ca2+ out in sarcoplasmic
of troponin on actin filaments and there by
reticulum controls the making and breaking
remove the masking of active sites for myosin.
of actin and myosin complex actomyosin
Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the
myosin head now binds to the exposed active due to which muscle contraction and
sites on actin to form a cross bridge. This relaxation takes place. Albert Szent Gyorgyi
pulls the attached actin filaments towards the worked out biochemical events of muscle
centre of ‘A’ band. The ‘Z’ line attached to contraction.
these actins are also pulled inwards thereby 10. (a) Characteristics of smooth muscle
causing a shortening of the sarcomere, fibres.
i.e., contraction. It is clear from the above • cells range from 5 to 10 µm in
steps, that during shortening of the muscle, diameter and 30 to 200 µm in length
i.e., contraction, the ‘I’ bands get reduced, • spindle-shaped
whereas the ‘A’ bands retain the length. • single, centrally located nucleus
5. (c) Troponin is a protein which is found on • smooth muscle tissue occuring
actin filament and myosin protein is found within almost every organ, forming
in myosin filament. Both actin and myosin sheets, bundles or sheaths around
are complex proteins in striated muscles. other tissues.
Thymosin is a hormone secreted by the
Smooth muscle differs from both skeletal
thymus that stimulates development of T
and cardiac muscle tissues in structure and
cells. Prolactin is a hormone released by
the pituitary gland that stimulates breast function. Sarcomeres or myofibrils are not
development and milk production in present - therefore not striated, ie. smooth.
women. Rhodopsin, also known as visual 11. (b) Pivot joint is a type of synovial joint
purple, is not a hormone. It is a biological which provide freely movement between atlas
pigment in photoreceptor cells of the retina and axis vertebrae of vertebral column.
that is responsible for the first events in the 12. (d) In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present
perception of light. out of which 7 pairs of ribs (1st to 7th pair)
6. (a) Actin and tropomyosin are part of are dorsally attached to vertebral column and
thin filaments of skeletal muscle. Tubulin is ventrally to the sternum.
presents in microtubules. Myosin is muscle 13. (c) Glenoid cavity articulates humerus with
protein. scapula.
 EBD_7325
222 BIOLOGY
14. (d) Fibrous joint is an attachment between increasing or decreasing the angle between
bones, being held together by fibrous the bones e.g. elbow joint, knee joint etc.
connective tissue. For example- suture 22. (a) In a humans total number of ribs are
between skull bones. Fourteen (14). These are of three types
15. (b) Production of body heat is caused by (1) True ribs-These are 7 in number.
the process of metabolism (respiration). (2) False ribs- These are two (2) in number.
16. (d) A gliding joint is a common type of (3) Floating ribs-These are 4 in number.
synovial joint formed between bones that 23. (d) Floating ribs are 2- pairs (11th and 12th
meet at flat or nearly flat articular surfaces.
pair) which are not attached to sternum.
Gliding joints allow the bones to glide past
one another in any direction along the plane
of the joint - up and down, left and right, and
diagonally. Many gliding joints are formed in
the appendicular skeleton between the carpal
bones of the wrist; between the carpals and
the metacarpals of the palm; between the
tarsal bones of the ankle; and between the
tarsals and the metatarsals of the foot.
17. (b) Synovial joints are characterised by
the presence of a fluid filled synovial cav-
ity between the articulating surfaces of the
two bones. Such an arrangement allows
considerable movement. These joints help 24. (b) Hinge joint : elbow joint, knee joint,
in locomotion and many other movements. ankle joint, inter phalangeal joint.
Ball and socket joint (between humerus Gliding joint : Intercarpal joint, intertarsal
and pectoral girdle), Hinge joint (knee joint, sternoclavicular joint and joint
joint), Pivot joint (between atlas and axis), between pre and post zygapophysis of
Gliding joint (between the carpals) and Saddle adjacent vertebra.
joint (between carpal and metacarpal of thumb) Fibrous joint (Synarthroses) : Joints of
are some examples. cranium - bones. Joints between teeth and
18. (a) Vertebral column has 12 thoracic Jaw bones.
vertebrate. The joints between adjacent Cartilaginous joint (Amphiarthroses): Joints
vertebrae is cartilaginous joint which permits
between mammalian vertebrae and two
limited movements. Progesterone is secreted
innominate bones (pubic symphysis).
by corpus luteum which supports in pregnancy
25. (b) Each half of pectoral girdle has two
in females. Deposition of uric acid in form of
bones i.e. clavicle and scapula. A spine like,
urate crystal in the joints are responsible for
the inflammation and painful symptoms of acromian process is attached to scapula for
gout. articulation with clavicle bone.
19. (b) Glenoid cavity is found in pectoral 26. (c) ATPase enzyme is located in the
girdle. myosin cross bridge heads. Actin forms the
20. (a) The pelvic girdle is formed by two light or I- Band. Actin slides over myosin
innominate bones consists of three separate during contraction. Troponin protein is
bones ilium, ischium and the pubis. involved in establishing connection with
21. (a) Elbow joint is an example of hinge myosin cross bridges. Actin is not involved
joint. The elbow is a hinge joint; it can open in muscle contraction. It is also an ATPase
and close like a door. Hinge joint is a form (an enzyme) which is activated by Ca2+
of diarthrosis (freely movable joint) that and Mg2+ ions. Hence, ATPase enzyme is
allows angular movement in one plane only,
located in myosin.
Locomotion and Movement 223
27. (c) Ligments are specialised connective which the head of humerus fits making the
tissues which connect bones together, hence shoulder joint.
if they are cut or broken the bone will be 35. (b) Long bones gives us support as well
come unfixed. as their bone marrow (the peripheral part)
28. (c) In angular joint articulating surface of synthesizes (in adults) the blood cells.
one bone is oval and convex whereas that of 36. (d) A deltoid ridge is present along the
the other is elliptical and concave, it allows ventral side of humerus (bone of upper arm
movement only in two directions e.g. Wrist. - Brachium) which provides the attachement
Fibrous joints are unmovable joints e.g. points to muscles.
Sutures of skull. Cartilaginous joints have 37. (c) All mammals have 7 cervical vertebrae
little motility due to disc of fibrocartilage in their neck (it is one of the unique
between the articular ends. In gliding joints mammalian characters). Though they
articulate end of both the bones are either become long in camel & giraffe but the
flat or curved to allow gliding movements. number is 7 only. As whale is also a mammal
e.g. between carpels and wrist. it also possess the same number of cervical
29. (d) Atlas is the first cervical vertebra. vertebrae.
Coracoid is part of the pectoral girdle. 38. (d) Hyaline Cartilage forms the ‘cushions’
Pterygoid is a small bone articulated with or ‘pads’ upon the articular surfaces at the
palatine. Arytenoids are cartilage present at joints of long bones and called ‘articular
the back of larynx. cartilage’. Its role in adult body is to
30. (b) Each hind limb contain 30 bones withstand forces of compression and torsion
namely 1 femur in the thigh, 1 petala in the at the joints.
knee, 1 tibia and 1 fibula in the lower leg, 7 39. (a) Haversian canals are a characteristic
tarsals in the ankle, 5 metatarsals in the sole feature of the mammalian bones present in
and 14 phalanges in toes. the matrix of bones. They are present in the
31. (a) Lower jaw is made of mandible or jaw humerus bone.
bone. 40. (b) Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoim-
32. (b) A skeletal muscle consists of a bundle mune muscular disease. It causes breakdown
of long fibres running the length of the of neuromuscular junction due to which the
muscle. Each fibre is a single cell with many brain loses control over muscles. The symp-
nuclei. Skeletal muscle is also called striated toms may include drooping eyelids, difficulty
muscle because the regular arrangement of in swallowing muscle fatigue, difficult breath-
the myofilaments creates repeating pattern ing and inability to control facial expressions.
of light and dark bands. Each repeating unit 41. (b) Major causative factors of osteoporosis
is a sarcomere, the basic functional unit of are imbalances of hormones like calcitonin
the muscle. The borders of the sarcomere of thyroid, parathormone of parathyroids,
sex hormones, and deficiencies of calcium
are the Z lines, which line up in adjacent
and vitamin D.
myofibrils and contribute to striations visible
42. (a) Tetany is caused by reduction in the
with a light microscope. calcium level due to underactive parathyroid
33. (d) In a human body, there are two pairs of hormone.
floating ribs. i.e., 11th and 12th pairs. These 43. (a) Parathormone released by the
ribs are not attached to either to sternum or parathyroid gland elevates the level of
the cartilage of another rib. They protect the Ca2+ in blood. The deficiency of this
kidneys. hormone lowers blood Ca2+. As a result, the
34. (a) Glenoid cavity is a shallow concavity excitability of muscles and nerves increases
on the lateral side of pectoral girdle in causing tetany -sustained contraction.
 EBD_7325
Chapter

21 Neural Control and

Coordination
Topic 1: Neural System (b) the transverse tubules
(c) the myofibril
1. Myelin sheath is produced by : [2017]
(d) the sacroplasmic reticulum
(a) Astrocytes and Schwann cells
6. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would
(b) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
most likely disrupt:  [2014]
(c) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
(a) short - term memory.
(d) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes
(b) co-ordination during locomotion.
2. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are
(c) executive functions, such as decision
present on :   [2017]
making.
(a) Pre-synaptic membrane
(d) regulation of body temperature.
(b) Tips of axons
7. The most abundant intracellular cation is :
(c) Post-synaptic membrane
[NEET 2013]
(d) Membrane of synaptic vesicles
(a) Ca++ (b) H+
3. Which of the following regions of the brain
(c) K+ (d) Na+
is incorrectly paired with its function?
8. A diagram showing axon terminal and
[2015 RS]
synapse is given. Identify correctly at least
(a) Cerebellum – language comprehension
two of A-D.  [NEET 2013]
(b) Corpus callosum – communication
between the left and right cerebral
cortices
(c) Cerebrum – calculation and C
contemplation
(d) Medulla oblongata – homeostatic control
4. Destruction of the anterior horn cell of the
B
spinal cord would result in loss of :  [2015 RS]
(a) voluntary motor impulses
(b) commissural impulses D
A
(c) integrating impulses
(d) sensory impulses (a) B-Synaptic connection, D-K+
5. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor (b) A-Neurotransmitter, B-Synaptic cleft
neuron occurs at:  [2014] (c) C- Neurotransmitter, D-Ca++
(a) the neuromuscular junction (d) A-Receptor, C-Synaptic vesicles
Neural Control and Coordination 225
9. A sagittal section of human-brain is shown (a) Sympathetic nervous system is
here. Identify at least two labels from A-D. activated releasing epinephrin and
[NEET Kar. 2013] norepinephrin from adrenal medulla.
(b) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly
A
across the cleft and transmit a nerve
impulse.
(c) Hypothalamus activates the
B parasympathetic division of brain.
C (d) Sympathetic nervous system is
activated releasing epinephrin and
D
norepinephrin from adrenal cortex.
(a) A – Cerebral hemispheres;
13. When a neuron is in resting state i.e.,
B – Cerebellum
not conducting any impulse, the axonal
(b) C – Mid brain; D – Cerebellum
membrane is:  [2011]
(c) A – Cerebrum; C – Pons
(a) comparatively more permeable to Na+
(d) B – Corpus callosum; D – Medulla
ions and nearly impermeable to K+
10. The figure shows an axon terminal and
ions
synapse. Select the option giving correct
(b) equally permeable to both Na+ and K+
identifications of tables A-D
ions
[NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
A (d) comparatively more permeable to K+
D ions and nearly impermeable to Na+
ions
14. The nerve centres which control the body
temperature and the urge for eating are
B contained in:  [2010]
C
(a) hypothalamus (b) pons
(a) A – Axon terminal; (c) cerebellum (d) thalamus
B–Serotonin complex 15. Which part of human brain is concerned
(b) A – Action potential; with the regulation of body temperature?
C – Neurotransmitter  [2009]
(c) B – Neurotransmitter; (a) Cerebellum
D – Receptor capsules (b) Cerebrum
(d) C – Receptor; D – Synaptic vesicles (c) Hypothalamus
11. The human hind brain comprises three (d) Medulla Oblongata
parts, one of which is :  [2012] 16. During the propagation of a nerve impulse,
(a) Spinal cord the action potential results from the
(b) Corpus callosum movement of : [2008]
+
(a) K ions from extracellular fluid to
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Hypothalamus intracellular fluid
12. A person entering an empty room suddenly (b) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to
finds a snake right in front on opening the extracellular fluid
door. Which one of the following is likely (c) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to
extracellular fluid
to happen in his neuro-hormonal control
(d) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to
system ?  [2012]
intracellular fluid
 EBD_7325
226 BIOLOGY
17. During the transmission of nerve impulse 23. In the resting state of the neural membrane,
through a nerve fibre, the potential on the diffusion due to concentration gradients, if
inner side of the plasma membrane has allowed, would drive  [2004]
which type of electric change? [2007] (a) K+ into the cell
(a) First positive, then negative and (b) K+ and Na+ out of the cell
continue to be positive (c) Na+ into the cell
(b) First negative, then positive and (d) Na+ out of the cell
continue to be positive. 24. The Nissl’s granules of nerve cells are made
(c) First positive, then negative and again up of  [1997, 03]
back to positive (a) ribosomes (b) proteins
(d) First negative, then positive and again (c) DNA (d) mitochondria
back to negative. 25. Which of the following statements is correct
18. Which one of the following pairs of for ‘nodes of Ranvier’ of nerve? [2002]
structures distinguishes a nerve cell from
(a) Neurilemma is discontinuous
other types of cells?  [2007]
(b) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
(a) Vacuoles and fibres
(c) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath
(b) Flagellum and medullary sheath
are discontinuous
(c) Nucleus and mitochondria
(d) Covered by myelin sheath
(d) Perikaryon and dendrites.
26. In which animal nerve cell is present but
19. Four healthy people in their twenties got
involved in injuries resulting in damage and brain is absent?  [2002]
death of a few cells of the following. Which (a) Sponge (b) Earthworm
of the cells are least likely to be replaced by (c) Cockroach (d) Hydra
new cells?  [2005] 27. Neuroglia consist of cells found in the
(a) Liver cells [1999]
(b) Neurons (a) liver
(c) Malpighian layer of the skin (b) kidney
(d) Osteocytes (c) central nervous system and ganglia
20. In a man, abducens nerve is injured. Which (d) testes
one of the following functions will be 28. Anesthetics reduce pain by blocking the
affected?  [2005] transmission of nerve impulses. The kind of
(a) Movement of the eye ball chemicals working as anesthetics are those
(b) Movement of the tongue that block  [1998]
(c) Swallowing (a) only the voltage-gated sodium channels
(d) Movement of the neck in membranes
21. One of the examples of the action of the (b) only the voltage-gated potassium
autonomous nervous system is [2005] channels in membranes
(a) swallowing of food (c) only the neuro-transmitter receptors
(b) pupillary reflex (d) voltage-gated sodium and potassium
(c) peristalsis of the intestine channels and neuro-transmitter
(d) knee-jerk response receptors
22. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely 29. In humans, visceral organs are innervated
to affect  [2004] by  [1996]
(a) tongue movements (a) sympathetic nerves and are under
(b) gastrointestinal movements conscious control
(c) pancreatic secretion
(b) parasympathetic nerves and are under
(d) cardiac movements
conscious control
Neural Control and Coordination 227
(c) both sympathetic and parasympathetic Topic 2 : Reflex Action & Reflex Arc
nerves and are under conscious control
(d) both sympathetic and parasympathetic 38. Which of the following is an example of
nerves but are not under conscious negative feedback loop in humans? [2007]
control (a) Secretion of tears after falling of sand
30. The sympathetic nerves in mammals arise particles into the eye.
from  [1995] (b) Salivation of mouth at the sight of
(a) sacral nerves delicious food
(b) cervical nerves (c) Secretion of sweat glands and
(c) thoraco-lumbar nerves constriction of skin blood vessels when
it is too hot
(d) 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves
(d) Constriction of skin blood vessels and
31. Respiratory centre is situated in [1994]
contraction of skeletal muscles when it
(a) cerebellum
is too cold
(b) medulla oblongata
39. In vertebrates, simple reflex action is
(c) hypothalamus
[1999]
(d) cerebrum
(a) polysynaptic (b) bisynaptic
32. CNS is mostly made of  [1993]
(c) trisynaptic (d) monosynaptic
(a) motor neurons and sensory neurons
40. Ivan Pavlov performed experiments on
(b) sensory neurons and association
[1993]
neurons
(a) simple reflexes 
(c) association neurons
(b) conditioned reflexes
(d) motor neurons and association neurons
(c) cardiac reflexes
33. Vagus nerve is  [1992]
(d) origin of life
(a) X (b) IX
(c) VII (d) V Topic 3: Sensory Reception & Processing
34. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from 41. Good vision depends on adequate intake of
[1992] carotene rich food.
(a) effector organs to CNS Select the best option from the following
(b) receptors to CNS statements :  [2017]
(c) CNS to receptors (i) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from
(d) CNS to muscles carotene
35. One function of parasympathetic nervous (ii) The photopigments are embedded in the
system is  [1990] membrane discs of the inner segment
(a) contraction of hair muscles (iii) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A
(b) stimulation of sweat glands
(iv) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all
(c) acceleration of heart beat the visual photopigments
(d) constriction of pupil
Options :
36. Third ventricle of brain is also known as
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
[1990]
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
(a) metacoel (b) rhincoel
42. Photosensitive compound in human eye is
(c) paracoel (d) diacoel
made up of [2016]
37. Which of the following cranial nerves can
(a) Guanosine and Retinol
regulate heart beat?  [1989]
(b) Opsin and Retinal
(a) X (b) IX
(c) Opsin and Retinol
(c) VIII (d) VII (d) Transducin and Retinene
 EBD_7325
228 BIOLOGY
43. A gymnast is able to balance his body upside 47. Which part of the human ear plays no role
down even in the total darkness because of : in hearing as such but is otherwise very
[2015 RS] much required?  [2012]
(a) Vestibular apparatus (a) Eustachian tube
(b) Tectorial membrane (b) Organ of corti
(c) Organ of corti (c) Vestibular apparatus
(d) Cochlea (d) Ear ossicles
44. In mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the center 48. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin
of the visual field, where: [2015 RS] contained in the rods type of photoreceptor
(a) the optic nerve leaves the eye cells of the human eye, is a derivative of:
(b) only rods are present  [2011]
(c) more rods than cones are found (a) vitamin B1 (b) vitamin C
(d) high density of cones occur, but has no (c) vitamin D (d) vitamin A
rods. 49. Alzheimer disease in humans is associated
45. Which one of the following statements is not with the deficiency of:  [2009]
correct?  [2014] (a) glutamic acid
(a) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of (b) acetylcholine
(c) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
visual photo pigments.
(d) dopamine
(b) In retina the rods have the photopigment
50. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section
rhodopsin while cones have three
of a single loop of human cochlea: [2008]
different photopigments.
(c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C.
A B
(d) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein
present in rods only. C
46. Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are A D
shown in the diagram. Select the option
which gives correct identification along with Which one of the following options
its functions/characteristics : [NEET 2013] correctly represents the names of three
different parts?
C (a) B: Tectorial membrane, C: Perilymph,
D: Secretory cells
Lens (b) C: Endolymph, D: Sensory hair cells,
B A: Serum
Iris
A (c) D: Sensory hair cells, A: Endolymph,
B: Tectorial membrane
D (d) A: Perilymph, B: Tectorial membrane,
(a) B-Blind spot-has only a few rods and cones C: Endolymph
(b) C-Aqueous chamber-reflects the light 51. Which one of the following is the correct
which does not pass through the lens. difference between Rod Cells and Cone
(c) D-Choroid-is anterior part forms ciliary Cells of our retina?  [2008]
body Rod Cells Cone Cells
(d) A-Retina-contains photoreceptors-rods (a) Visual: High Low
and cones. acuity
Neural Control and Coordination 229
(b) Visual : Iodops in 58. Cornea transplantation is outstandingly
pigment Rhodpsin successful because  [1996]
contained (a) cornea is easy to preserve
(c) Overall : Vision in Colour (b) cornea is not linked up with blood
function poor light vision and vascular and immune systems
detailed (c) the technique involved is very simple
vision in (d) cornea is easily available
bright light 59. Function of iris is to  [1993]
(d) Distribu- More conc- Evenly (a) move lens forward and backward
tion : entrated in distributed (b) refract light rays
retina all over (c) bring about movements of eye lids
52. Cornea transplant in humans is almost
(d) alter the size of pupil.
never rejected. This is because  [2008]
60. Retina is most sensitive at  [1993]
(a) its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(a) optic disc (b) periphery
(b) it has no blood supply
(c) macula lutea (d) fovea centralis
(c) it is composed of enucleated cells
61. Light rays entering the eye is controlled by
(d) it is a non-living layer
[1993]
53. What is intensity of sound in normal
conversation?  [2001] (a) pupil (b) iris
(a) 10—20 decibel (c) cornea (d) lens
(b) 30—60 decibel 62. Iris is part of  [1992]
(c) 70—90 decibel (a) sclerotic
(d) 120—150 decibel (b) choroid/Uvea
54. When we migrate from dark to light, we fail (c) choroid and retina
to see for sometime but after a time visibility (d) sclerotic and choroid
becomes normal. It is an example of  [2001] 63. Eye lens is formed from  [1992]
(a) accommodation (b) adaptation (a) ectoderm
(c) mutation (d) photoperiodism (b) mesoderm
55. Characteristic feature of human cornea (c) endoderm
 [2001] (d) ectoderm and mesoderm
(a) Secreted by conjunctiva and glandular 64. Afferent nerve fibre carries impulses
(b) It is lacrimal gland which secretes tears from [1992]
(c) Blood circulation is absent in cornea (a) effector to central nervous system
(d) In old age it becomes harden and (b) receptor to central nervous system
white layer deposits on it which causes
(c) central nervous system to muscles
cataract
(d) central nervous system to receptors
56. Suspensory ligament is part of  [1999]
(a) heart (b) eye 65. Sensitive pigmented layer of eye is [1989]
(c) tongue (d) brain (a) cornea (b) retina
57. In the chemistry of vision in mammals, the (c) sclerotic (d) iris
photosensitive substance is called [1997] 66. Acute vision is present in  [1988]
(a) sclerotin (b) retinol (a) vulture (b) shark
(c) rhodopsin (d) melanin (c) bat (d) frog
 EBD_7325
230 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Myelin sheath wrapped around the 9. (c) Cerebrum is the first and most
nerve axon. Oligodendrocytes are neuroglial developed part of fore brain. It makes
cells which produce myelin sheath in central 2/3 part of total brain. Pons is a small
nervous system while Schwann cell produces spherical projection, which is situated
myelin sheath in peripheral nervous system. below the midbrain and upper side of the
2. (c) Pre-synaptic membrane is involved medulla oblongata. It acts as a relay centre
in the release of neurotransmitter in the among different parts of brain. B and D are
chemical synapse. The receptors sites for thalamus and spinal cord respectively.
neurotransmitters are present on post- 10. (d) In the given figure, A, B, C and D are
synaptic membrane of neuron. axon, neurotransmitters, receptors and
3. (a) Cerebellum maintains the balance and synaptic vesicles respectively.
body posture. It is not concerned with logical 11. (c) The human hind brain comprises of
part. pons, cerebellum and medulla oblongata.
4. (a) In poliomyelitis, anterior horn cells of 12. (a) Epinephrine and norepinephrine are
spinal cord are destructed which causes loss secreted by adrenalmedulla in response to
of motor activities of limbs. stress of any kind and during emergency
5. (a) The neuromuscular junction connects situations and are called emergency
the nervous system to the muscular system hormones or hormones of flight, or fight.
via synapses between efferent nerve fibres and 13. (d) When a neuron is in resting state i.e.,
muscle fibres. not conducting any impulse, the axonal
6. (d) The hypothalamus is a highly complex membrane is comparatively more permeable
structure in the brain that regulates many to K+ ion and nearly impermeable to Na+
important brain chemicals. The hypothalamus ions.
is responsible for hormone production. The 14. (a) Hypothalamus contains important
hormones produced by this area govern body
nerve centres that controls the body
temperature, thirst, hunger, sleep, circadian
temperature, thirst, hunger and eating, water
rhythm, moods, sex drive, and the release of
balance and sexual function.
other hormones in the body. This area of the
15. (c) Hypothalamus part of human brain
brain controls the pituitary gland and other
is concerned with the regulation of body
glands in the body.
temperature. The hypothalamus is a portion
7. (c) The most abundant intracellular cation
of the brain that contains a number of
is K+.
small nuclei with a variety of functions.
8. (d) A-Receptor, C-Synaptic vesicles B is
The hypothalamus is small cone-shaped
synaptic cleft. A synapse is formed by the
structure, projects downward, ending in the
membranes of a synaptic neuron and post
pituitary.
synaptic neuron, which may or may not
16. (d) Total sum of physio-electrochemical
separated by a gap called synaptic cleft. It is
changes that takes place along the length of
filled by fluid called neurotransmitter which
nerve fibre is known as nerve impulse.
are involved in transmission of impulse at
Change in potential due to stimulation of
these synapses.
Neural Control and Coordination 231
nerve fibre is called action potential. During 23. (c) In a resting state of the neural
propagation of nerve impulse, Na+ enters membrane, Na+ concentration is higher
inside so ( +ve) charge is formed inside the on the outer side and K+ concentration is
membrane. K+ ions come out. more within the cell. This concentration
17. (d) Once the events of depolarization gradient is maintained by voltage gated
have occurred, a nerve impulse or spike channels. Hence if diffusion is allowed Na+
is initiated. Action potential is another would enter the cell and K+ would leave.
name of nerve impulse. It lasts for about 24. (a) Prominent granules (Nissl’s granules)
1 msec (millisecond). The stimulalted, observed in the cytoplasm of the cyton are
negatively charged point on the outside believed to be made of ribosomes.
of the membrane sends out an electrical A Nissl body (or Nissl granule or tigroid
current to the positive point (still polarized body) is a large granular body found in
adjacent to it). This local current causes nerve cells. It was named after Franz Nissl,
the adjacent inner part of the membrane German neurologist (1860-1919). Nissl
to reverse its potential from –70 mV to bodies can be demonstrated by selective
+30 mV. The reversal repeats itself over and staining, which was developed by Nissl
over until the nerve impulse is conducted and the stain used was an aniline stain to
through the length of the neuron. label extranuclear RNA granules. These
18. (d) The cytoplasm immediately granules are rough endoplasmic reticulum
surrounding the nucleus is loaded with (with ribosomes) and are the site of protein
protein synthetic machinery and is called synthesis. Nissl bodies show changes under
perikaryon, dendrites are usually shorter, various physiological conditions and in
tapering and much branched processes pathological conditions they may dissolve
which may be one to several. These two are and disappear (karyolysis).
only present in nerve cells. 25. (b) Neurons are the chief functional units
19. (b) The neurons are cells specialised to of the nervous system. An ordinary neuron
conduct an electrochemical current. Neuron
has a soma or cyton and a long thread called
cells do not have the capability of division.
axon which is enclosed in a multilayered
20. (a) Abducens nerve is the sixth cranial
myelin sheath, made by Schwann cells.
nerve. It innervates the extraocular muscle
The myelin sheath is interrupted at the
(superior oblique) of eyeball, therefore
spaces between schwann cells to form gaps.
controls movement of the eyeball.
These gaps are called Nodes of Ranvier.
21. (c) Autonomic nerveous system regulates
These nodes and the myelin sheath create
and coordinates involuntry activities like
condition that speed up the nerve impulses.
heart beat, homeostasis, body temperature,
26. (d) A primitive type of nervous system,
breathing, gut peristalsis and secretion of
without brain is found in the form of intra
glands. Human intestine shows movements
epidermal nerve net. However, there is no
during food digestion called peristalsis.
brain in Hydra to coordinate the response.
22. (a) Muscles of the tongue are invested
27. (c) Neuroglia are non-nervous cells
by the 12th cranial nerve, Hypoglossal.
present- along with and in between the
The 10th cranial nerve, vagus supplies the
neurons in central nervous system, ganglia
viscera of the thorax, abdominal region
and retina. They have roles like myelin
and thus controls gastrointestinal, cardiac
formation, transport of materials to
movements and pancreatic secretion.
 EBD_7325
232 BIOLOGY
neurons, maintenance of ionic balance and foramen of Monro & behind with the iter
phagocytosis. (the duct of midbrain). The ventral wall of
28. (d) Anesthetic chemicals block the voltage diocoel in known as hypothalamus.
gate sodium and potassium channel. 37. (a) Xth pair of cranial nerves (vagus
29. (d) The activities of all visceral organs nerves) has a motor branch called cardiac
are coordinated through the regulation nerve which innervate cardiac muscles.
of their smooth muscles and glands by 38. (d) When the set point of hypothalamus is
the nerve fibres of the sympathetic and disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates
parasympathetic nervous system. These vasodilation and sweating while in low
constitute the autonomic nervous system temperature there is vasoconstriction and
which carry out functions that are not under shivering.
the control of our will. 39. (d) A reflex action is a nerve mediated
30. (c) In mammals, the sympathetic spontaneous, automatic and involuntary
nerves arise from thoraco-lumbar nerves response to a stimulus acting through
(autonomic nervous system). specific receptors without consulting the will
31. (b) Respiratory centre is situated bilaterally of the animal. When a reflex arc consists of
in medulla oblongata, while breathing is only two neurons in an animal (one sensory
controlled by pneumotaxic and apneustic neuron, and one motor neuron), is defined
centres in pons varolii. Impulse for as monosynaptic.
voluntary forced breathing starts in cerebral 40. (b) Conditioned reflexes (reflexes
hemisphere. developed by training and learning) were
32. (c) Association neurons or interneuron. first demonstrated by Russian Scientist Ivan
33. (a) Vagus nerve is 10th pair of nerves Pavlov in dogs. He used to ring the bell
arising from medulla oblongata of brain. while giving the food to his dog, after some
These are mixed nerves i.e. having both time when only bell is rung watering of
sensory as well as motor nerve fibres. mouth started in dog i.e. dog learnt a close
34. (b) Afferent nerve fibres – sensory nerve association of food and bell and it gets into
fibres which carry senses from receptors to
dog’s reflexes.
brain or spinal cord (CNS).
41. (a) Carotene is the source of retinal which
Efferent nerve fibres – motor nerve
is involved in formation of rhodopsin of
fibres carry orders or responses from CNS to
rod cells. Retinal, a derivative of vitamin
effectors (muscles and glands).
A, is the light-absorbing part of all visual
35. (d) Sympathetic system prepares the body
photopigments. Photopigments are occur
for stress or emergency conditions while
entirely on the surface of membrane disc.
parasympathetic system is associated with
42. (b) Retinal is also known as retinaldehyde.
the period of rest. So when one faces the
It was originally called retinene, and renamed
stress or emergency conditions sympathetic
afterwards it was discovered to be vitamin A
system enlarges the pupil to allow more light
aldehyde. Retinal is one of the many forms
in the eye while during rest, parasympathetic
of vitamin A (the number of which varies
nervous system constricts the pupil to its
from species to species). Retinal is a polyene
normal condition.
chromophore, bound to proteins called
36. (d) It is the cavity of diancephalon which is
opsins, and is the chemical basis of animal
connected ahead with the lateral ventricles
vision.
or paracoel of cerebral hemisphere by
Neural Control and Coordination 233
43. (a) Vestibular apparatus has specific 50. (d) The diagramnatic cross section of a
receptors called crista and macula to maintain single loop of human cochlea represents the
the balance and posture of body. three different parts-
44. (d) Fovea centralis is the most sensitive part A- Perilymph
of retina. It has high density of cones, but rods B- Tertorial membrane
are not found. C-Endolymph
45. (c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A. Cochlea arises from sacculus. It is
Retinal is a polyene chromophore, and bound spirally coiled duct. It is also known as
to proteins called opsins, is the chemical Lagena.
basis of animal vision. Bound to proteins It is connected with sacculus by duct of
called type 1 rhodopsins, retinal allows reuniens.
certain microorganisms to convert light into 51. (c) Rod cells is a type of light sensitive
metabolic energy. receptor cell present in the retinas of
46. (d) Retina is the innermost layer of eyeball vertebrates. Rod contains the pigment
and it contains three layers of cells - ganglion rhodopsin and are essential for vision in dim
cells, bipolar cells and photoreceptor cells. light.
Photoreceptor cells are not present in blind Cone cells is a type of light sensitive
spot. The space between the cornea and receptor cell, found in retinas of all diurnal
the lens is called the aqueous chamber and vertebrates. Cones are specialized to
contains a thin watery fluid called aqueous transmit information about colour and are
humor. responsible for the visual acuity of the eye.
Choroid is anterior part of external sclera They function best in bright light.
layer of eyeball while ciliary body is anterior 52. (b) Cornea transplant in humans is almost
part of middle choroid layer. never rejected. This is because it has no
47. (c) Vestibular apparatus is a part of blood supply. Cornea is a transparent layer
inner ear which has no role in hearing but of tissue, continuous with the sclerotic, that
responsible for the maintenance of balance forms the front part of the vertebrate eye,
of the body and posture. over the iris and lens.
48. (a) Rhodopsin contained in the rod type 53. (b) The word noise is taken from the latin
of photoreceptor cells of human eye is a word nausea and is defined as unwanted or
derivative of vitamin B1. unpleasant sound that causes discomfort.
49. (b) Alzheimer disease in humans Source Intensity (dB)
is associated with the deficiency of Breathing 10
acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the Broadcasting studio 20
neurotransmitter produced by neurons Trickling clock 30
referred to as cholinergic neurons. Library 30 – 35
Acetylcholine plays a role in skeletal muscle Normal conversetion 35 – 60
movement, as well as in the regulation Telephone office Noise 60 – 80
of smooth muscle and cardiac muscle. Alarm clock 70 – 80
Acetylcholine is synthesized from choline Traffic 50 – 90
and acetyl coenzyme-A through the action Motorcycle 105
of the enzyme choline acetyltransferase and Jet fly over 100 – 110
becomes packaged into membrane-bound Train whistle 110
vesicles. Air craft 110 – 120
 EBD_7325
234 BIOLOGY
54. (b) It takes some time for rhodopsin to 60. (d) Fovea centralis is the most sensitive part
split into scotopsin and retinal (bleading) of retina (in fact most sensitive part of the
and release of transmitter passing nerve eye). This is the area of most acute vision.
inpulse via bipolar and ganglion cells to the Actually it is a small depression present in
optic nerves. mammals (not in frog) at macula lutea or
This is a case of adaptation. It differs yellow spot.
from accomodations which is a reflex 61. (a) Pupil is the opening which controls the
mechanism by which the focus of the eye amount of light entering in eye. When light
change to make the images of distant and intensity is high, it decreases in size and
near objects sharp on the retina. when light intensity is low it dilates to allow
55. (c) The outermost layer of the eye ball more light in the eye to make eye enable to
is fibrous in nature. Two-third part of this see the object.
layer is opaque and lies inside the eyeorbit 62. (d) At the junction of the sclera and the
and is known as sclera. The remaining one- cornea, the vascular coat sharply blends
third of the outer layer is transparent and into the cavity of the eyeball to form a thin,
bulges out to form the cornea. There is no coloured partition. This partition is called
supply of blood in cornea. iris.
56. (b) Stretching and relaxation of suspensory 63. (a) Ectoderm forms : Eye (conjunctiva,
ligament changes the focal length of lens for cornea, lens, retina, iris, ciliary muscles)
Mesoderm forms : Sclera & choroid of eye.
accommodation.
64. (b) In nervous systems, afferent nerve
57. (c) Melanin is the pigment which gives
fibres carry nerve impulse from receptors
colour to the skin. Retinol is the other name
or sense organs towards the central nervous
for vitamin A. Sclerotin is the component of
system.
the carapace in crustaceans.
65. (b) Retina has 2 layers, an outer heavily
58. (b) Cornea transplants are easy, since there
pigmented (melanin containing) layer and
are no blood vessels involved.
an inner neurosensory layer. The inner layer
59. (d) Iris controls the size of pupil by
consists of rods and cones, bipolar nerve
contracting or relaxing of its circular
cells and large ganglionic nerve cells.
muscles. It controls the amount of light
66. (a) Vulture, some other birds and man have
entering in eye.
acute vision.
 Chapter

22 Chemical Coordination
and Regulation

Topic 1: Human Endocrine System 5. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females

is controlled by circulating levels of [2016]
1. A temporary endocrine gland in the human
(a) estrogen and progesterone
body is:  [2017]
(b) estrogen and inhibin
(a) Corpus cardiacum (c) progesterone only
(b) Corpus luteum (d) progesterone and inhibin
(c) Corpus allatum 6. Which one of the following hormones is not
(d) Pineal gland involved in sugar metabolism ? [2015 RS]
2. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in (a) Aldosterone (b) Insulin
reproduction, acts on:  [2017] (c) Glucagon (d) Cortisone
(a) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates 7. Which one of the following hormones though
secretion of LH and FSH. synthesised elsewhere is stored and released
(b) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates by the master gland ? [2015 RS]
secretion of oxytocin and FSH. (a) Luteinizing hormone
(c) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates (b) Prolactin
secretion of LH and relaxin. (c) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(d) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates (d) Antidiuretic hormone
secretion of LH and oxytocin. 8. Identify the hormone with its correct
3. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults matching of source and function: [2014]
does not cause further increase in height, (a) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth
because: [2017] and maintenance of mammary glands.
(b) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the
(a) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle.
(b) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth
(c) Progesterone - corpus-luteum, stimula-
Hormone in adults.
tiuon of growth and activities of female
(c) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after
secondary sex organs.
birth. (d) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall
(d) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in increases the blood pressure.
adults. 9. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of:
4. Which of the following pairs of hormones [2014]
are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to
to each other? [2016] increased metabolic rate.
(a) Parathormone – Calcitonin (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of
(b) Insulin – Glucagon reninangiotensin-aldosterone pathway.
(c) Aldosterone – Atrial Natriuretic (c) the a drena l m edulla , lea ding to
Factor increased secretion of epinephrine and
(d) Relaxin – Inhibin norepinephrene.
 EBD_7325
236 BIOLOGY
(d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the 13. Which of the following represents the action
blood sugar levels. of insulin? [NEET Kar. 2013]
10. Which of the following statements is correct (a) Increases blood glucose levels by
in relation to the endocrine system? hydrolysis of glycogen
[NEET 2013] (b) Increases blood glucose levels by
(a) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal stimulating glucagon production
tract, heart, kidney and liver do not (c) Decreases blood glucose levels of
produce any hormones. forming glycogen
(b) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by (d) Increases blood glucose level by
the body in trace amount that act as promoting cellular uptake of glucose
intercellular messenger are known as 14. Norepinephrine : [NEET Kar. 2013]
hormones. (1) Is released by sympathetic fibres
(c) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are (2) Is released by parasympathetic fibres
produced by the pituitary gland . (3) Increases the heart rate
(d) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural (4) Decreases blood pressure
regulation of the hypothalamus. Which of the above said statements are
11. A pregnant female deliver a baby who suffers correct?
from stunted growth, mental retardation/low (a) (1) and (4) (b) (1) and (3)
intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This (c) (2) and (3) (d) (2) and (4)
is the result of : [NEET 2013] 15. Select the option which correctly matches
(a) Low secretion of growth hormone the endocrine gland with its hormone and its
(b) Cancer of the thyroid gland function [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) Over secretion of pars distalis Endocrine Hormone Function
(d) Deficiency of iodine in diet gland
12. Select the answer which correctly matches the (a) Ovary FSH stimulates follicular
endocrine gland with the hormone it secrets development and the
and its function/deficiency symptom: secretion of estrogens.
[NEET 2013] (b) Placenta estrogen initiates secretion of
Endocrine Hormone Function/
the milk.
gland deficiency
(c) Corpus estrogen essential for
symptom
luteum maintenance
(a) Posterior Growth Oversecretion
of endometerium
pituitary Hormone Stimulates
(d) Leydig androgen initiates the
(GH) abnormal
cells production of
growth
(b) Thyroid Thyroxine Lack of sperms.
gland iodine in diet 16. Which one of the following pairs of hormones
results in are the examples of those that can easily pass
goitre through the cell membrane of the target cell
(c) Corpus Testosterone Stimulates and bind to a receptor inside it (Mostly in the
luteum spermato- nucleus) [2012]
genesis (a) Insulin, glucagon
(d) Anterior Oxytocin Stimulates (b) Thyroxin, insulin
pituitary contraction (c) Somatostain, oxytocin
uterus during child (d) Cortisol, testosterone
birth
Chemical Coordination and Regulation 237
17. Match the source gland with respective hormone as well as the function correctly. [2011]
Source gland Hormone Function
Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Contraction of uterus muscles during child
(a) birth
(b) Posterior pituitary Vasopressin Stimulates reabsorption of water in the distal
tubules in the nephron
(c) Corpus luteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy

(d) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level

18. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major
effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C.
[2011]
Source gland Hormone Function
A Oestrogen Maintenance of secondary sexual characters

Alpha cells of islets of B Raises blood sugar level

Langerhans
Anterior pituitary C Over secretion leads to gigantism

Options:
(a) A-Ovary; B-Glucagon; C-Growth hormone
(b) A-Placenta; B-Insulin; C-Vasopressin
(c) A-Ovary; B-Insulin; C-Calcitonin
(d) A-Placenta; B-Glucagon; C-Calcitonin

19. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body 22. Toxic agents present in food which interfere
such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the with thyroxine synthesis lead to the
hormone : [2011M] development of:  [2010]
(a) calcitonin (b) prolactin (a) toxic goitre (b) cretinism
(c) adrenaline (d) melatonin (c) simple goitre (d) thyrotoxicosis
20. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect 23. A health disorder that results from the
the secretion of which one of the following? deficiency of thyroxine in adults and
[2010]
characterised by (i) a low metabolic rate, (ii)
(a) Aldosterone
increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to
(b) Both Androstenedione and Dehydroep-
retain water in tissues is: [2009]
iandrosterone
(a) simple goitre (b) myxoedema
(c) Adrenaline
(c) cretinism (d) hypothyroidism
(d) Cortisol
21. Which one of the following pairs is 24. The blood calcium level is lowered by the
incorrectly matched?  [2010] deficiency of [2008]
(a) Glucagon - Beta cells (source) (a) parathormone
(b) Somatostatin - Delta cells (source) (b) thyroxine
(c) Corpus luteum - Relaxin (secretion) (c) both calcitonin and parathormone
(d) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus (disease) (d) calcitonin
 EBD_7325
238 BIOLOGY
25. Which one of the following pairs of organs 32. Which of the following hormones is not a
includes only the endocrine glands? [2008] secretion product of human placenta ? [2004]
(a) Parathyroid and Adrenal (a) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(b) Pancreas and Parathyroid (b) Prolactin
(c) Thymus and Testes (c) Estrogen
(d) Adrenal and Ovary (d) Progesterone
26. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an 33. Which one of the following pairs correctly
endocrine gland after ovulation ? [2007] matches a hormone with a disease resulting
(a) Stroma from its deficiency ? [2003]
(b) Germinal epithelium (a) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
(b) Relaxin – Gigantism
(c) Vetelline membrane
(c) Prolactin – Cretinism
(d) Graafian follicle.
(d) Parathyroid hormone – Tetany
27. A person is having problems with calcium
34. Melanin protects us from [2002]
and phosphorus metabolism in his body.
(a) U. V. rays (b) visible rays
Which one of following glands may not be
(c) infrared rays (d) X-rays
functioning properly ? [2007]
35. Mainly which type of hormones control the
(a) Parotid (b) Pancreas menstrual cycle in human beings? [2002]
(c) Thyroid (d) Parathyroid (a) FSH
28. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared (b) LH
resident of seventh floor of a multistored (c) FSH, LH, estrogen
building starts climbing down the stairs (d) Progesteron
rapidly. Which hormone initiated this 36. When both ovaries are removed from rat
action ? [2007] then which hormone is decreased in blood?
(a) adrenaline (b) glucagon (a) Oxytocin [2002]
(b) gastrin (d) thyroxine (b) Prolactin
29. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary (c) Estrogen
hormone known as [2006] (d) Gonadotropin releasing factor
(a) GH (b) Prolactin 37. Adrenaline directly affects on [2002]
(c) LH (d) FSH (a) S. A. node
30. Which of the following is an accumulation (b) b-cells of Langerhans
and release centre of neurohormones ? (c) dorsal root of spinal cord
[2006] (d) epithelial cells of stomach
(a) Intermediate lobe of the pituitary 38. Acromegaly is caused by [2002]
(b) Hypothalamus (a) excess of G.H.
(c) Anterior pituitary lobe (b) excess of thyroxin
(d) Posterior pituitary lobe (c) deficiency of thyroxin
(d) excess of adrenalin
31. Which one of the following pairs correctly
39. Which of the following radioactive isotope is
matches a hormone with a disease resulting
used in the detection of thyroid cancer?
from its deficiency? [2004]
[1995, 02]
(a) Luteinizing - Failure of
(a) Iodine-131 (b) Carbon-14
ovulation
(c) Uranium-238 (d) Phosphorus-32
(b) Insulin - Diabetes insipidus
40. Melatonin is produced by [2000]
(c) Thyroxine - Tetany (a) thymus (b) skin
(d) Parathyroid - Diabetes mellitus (c) pituitary (d) pineal gland
Chemical Coordination and Regulation 239
41. Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) is 48. The most important component of the oral
produced by [2000] contraceptive pill is [1998]
(a) parathyroid (a) growth hormone
(b) pars intermedia of pituitary (b) thyroxine
(c) anterior pituitary (c) luteinizing hormone
(d) posterior pituitary (d) progesterone
42. Progesterone, the component of the oral 49. Hormones, thyroxine, adrenaline and the
contraceptive pills, prevents pregnancy by pigment melanin are formed from [1997]
[2000] (a) tryptophan (b) glycine
(a) preventing the cleavage of the fertilized (c) tyrosine (d) proline
egg 50. Which one of the following hormone
(b) preventing the formation of ova stimulates the “let-down” (release) of milk
(c) blocking ovulation from the mother’s breasts when the baby is
(d) creating unfavourable chemical sucking ? [1996]
environment for the sperms to survive (a) Progesterone (b) Oxytocin
in the female reproductive tract (c) Prolactin (d) Relaxin
43. Oxytocin helps in [1999] 51. According to the “immunity theory” of
(a) lactation ageing, the process starts with the gradual
(b) child birth atrophy and disappearance of [1996]
(c) ovulation (a) thyroid
(d) implantation of the embryo (b) parthyroid
44. A candidate vaccine for male contraception (c) thymus
is based on [1999] (d) islets of Langerhans
(a) follicle stimulating hormone 52. In human adult females oxytocin [1996]
(b) progesterone (a) is secreted by anterior pituitary
(c) testosterone (b) stimulates growth of mammary glands
(d) luteinizing hormone (c) stimulates pituitary to secrete
45. Insulin differs from growth hormone in that vasopressin
it [1999] (d) causes strong uterine contractions
(a) stimulates lipoprotein lipase in vicinity during parturition
of fat cells 53. The mammalian corpus luteum produces
(b) increases the transport of amino acids [1995]
across the cell membranes of muscles (a) estrogen
(c) increases mRNA/ribosome acitivity (b) progesterone
(d) stimulates hormone sensitive lipase in (c) luteotropic hormone
fat cells (d) luteinizing hormone
46. The gland that regresses with age is [1999] 54. Nicotine acts as a stimulant, because it
(a) adrenal (b) gonad mimics the effect of [1995]
(c) thymus (d) thyroid (a) thyroxine (b) acetylcholine
47. Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which (c) testosterone (d) dopamine
[1998] 55. Which of the following endocrine gland
(a) lowers calcium level in blood stores its secretion in the extracellular space
(b) elevates calcium level in blood before discharging it into the blood? [1995]
(c) has no effect on calcium (a) Pancreas (b) Adrenal
(d) elevates potassium level in blood (c) Testis (d) Thyroid
 EBD_7325
240 BIOLOGY
56. Ovulation is stimulated by [1994] 65. Which hormone possesses anti-insulin
(a) LH (b) FSH effect? [1988]
(c) estrogen (d) progesterone (a) Cortisol (b) Calcitonin
57. Function of enterogastrone is [1994] (c) Oxytocin (d) Aldosterone
(a) regulation of bile flow
Topic 2: Hormones of Heart, Kidney &
(b) stimulation of pancreatic flow
Gastrointestinal Tract/Mechenism of
(c) inhibition of gastric secretion
Hormone Action
(d) stimulation of gastric secretion
58. Ovulation occurs under the influence o 66. A decrease in blood pressure / volume will
(a) LH (b) FSH [1994] not cause the release of :  [2017]
(c) estrogen (d) progesterone (a) Atrial natriuretic factor
59. Testosterone is produced by [1993] (b) Aldosterone
(a) sertoli cells (b) leydig’s cells (c) ADH
(c) oxyntic cells (d) pituitary gland (d) Renin
60. Male hormone is produced in the testis by 67. Identify the correct statement on ‘inhibin’
cells of [1993] [2016]
(a) sertoli (b) epithelial (a) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and
(c) spermatocytes (d) leydig Prolactin.
61. Occurrence of Leydig’s cells and their (b) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary
secretion is  [1991] and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
(a) ovary and estrogen (c) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary
(b) liver and cholesterol and inhibits the secretion of LH.
(c) pancreas and glucagon (d) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and
(d) testes and testosterone inhibits the secretion of LH.
62. ADH or vasopressin is  [1991] 68. A chemical signal that has both endocrine and
(a) enzyme that hydrolyses peptides neural roles is ? [2015 RS]
(b) hormone secreted by pituitary that (a) Calcitonin (b) Epinephrine
promotes reabsorption of water from (c) Cortisol (d) Melatonin
glomerular filtrate 69. What is correct to say about the hormone
(c) hormone that promotes glycogenolysis action in humans?  [2012]
(d) energy rich compound connected with (a) Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of
muscle contraction. islets of Langerhans and stimulates
63. Addition of a trace of thyroxine or iodine in glycogenolysis
water containing tadpoles will [1990] (b) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with
(a) keep them in larval stage ageing
(b) hasten their metamorphosis (c) In females FSH first binds with specific
(c) slow down their metamorphosis receptors on ovarian cell membrane
(d) kill the tadpoles (d) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen
64. MSH of pars intermedia of middle pituitary and progesterone
is responsible for [1988]
70. A steroid hormone which regulates glucose
(a) darkening of skin in lower vertebrates
metabolism is [2006]
(b) light colouration of skin in lower
(a) corticosterone
vertebrates
(b) 11- deoxycorticosterone
(c) noth A and B
(c) cortisone
(d) darkening of skin in human beings
(d) cortisol
Chemical Coordination and Regulation 241
71. Which one of the following is not a second 77. Chemically hormones are [2004]
messenger in hormone action ? [2006] (a) biogenic amines only
(a) Calcium (b) Sodium (b) proteins, steroids and biogenic amines
(c) cAMP (d) cGMP (c) proteins only
72. Which one of the following does not act as a (d) steroids only
neurotransmitter ? [2006] 78. Which one of the following hormones is a
(a) Epinephrine (b) Norepinephrine modified amino acid? [2004]
(c) Cortisone (d) Acetylcholine (a) Epinephrine (b) Progesterone
73. Which hormone causes dilation of blood (c) Prostaglandin (d) Estrogen
vessels, increased oxygen consumption and 79. Which steroid is used for microbial trans-
glucogenesis? [2006] formation? [2002]
(a) Insulin (b) Adrenaline (a) Cortisol (b) Cholesterol
(c) Glucagon (d) ACTH (c) Testosterone (d) Progesterone
74. Which one of the following statement is 80. The technique used for estimation of minute
correct? [2006] amounts of hormones and drugs is called
(a) Endrocrine glands regulate neural [1999]
activity, and nervous system regulates (a) electrophoresis
endocrine glands (b) electroencephalogram
(b) Neither hormones control neural (c) fractionation
activity nor the neurons control (d) radioimmunoassay
endocrine activity 81. According to the accepted concept of
(c) Endocrine glands regulate neural hormone action, if receptor molecules are
activity, but not vice versa removed from target organs, then the target
(d) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but organ will [1995]
not vice versa (a) not respond to the hormone
75. Parkinson’s disease (characterized by (b) continue to respond to hormone without
tremors and progressive rigidity of limbs) any difference
is caused by degeneration of brain neurons (c) continue to respond to the hormone but
that are involved in movement control and in the opposite way
make use of neurotransmitter [2005] (d) continue to respond to the hormone but
(a) acetylcholine (b) norepinephrine will require higher concentration
(c) dopamine (d) GABA 82. Gastric secretion is stopped by hormone
76. Mast cells of connective tissue contain [1993]
[2004] (a) enterogastrone (b) gastrin
(a) vasopressin and relaxin (c) pancreozymin (d) cholecystokinin
(b) heparin and histamine 83. Insulin is [1990]
(c) heparin and calcitonin (a) vitamin (b) lipid
(d) serotonin and melanin (c) hormone (d) enzyme
 EBD_7325
242 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Corpus luteum is the temporary endocrine luteinizing hormone (LH). These processes
gland formed in the ovary after ovulation. It are controlled by the size and frequency
release hormones like progesterone, oestrogen of GnRH pulses, as well as by feedback
etc. from progesterone and estrogens. Low-
2. (a) GnRH is secreted by hypothalamus frequency GnRH pulses are required for FSH
which stimulates anterior pituitary gland for release, whereas high-frequency GnRH pulses
the secretion of gonadotropins (FSH and stimulate LH pulses in a one to one manner.
LH). 6. (a) Aldosterne is produced by adrenal cortex
3. (a) Epiphyseal plate which is responsible and plays an important role in the regulation
for bone growth close after adolescence so of Na+ and K+ levels in body.
hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults 7. (d) ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) and
does not cause further increase in height. The oxytocin are produced by hypothalamus and
epiphyseal plate is a hyaline cartilage plate in stored in posterior pituitary.
the metaphysis at each end of a long bone. 8. (b) Oxytocin, a neurohypophysial hormone,
4. (d) Calcitonin exerts its effects by interacting is produced by the hypothalamus and stored
with target cells, primarily in bone and and secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.
kidney. The actions of PTH and calcitonin It stimulates contractions of the smooth
are antagonistic on bone resorption but muscle tissue in the wall of the uterus during
synergistic on decreasing the renal tubular childbirth. Progesterone is a female hormone
reabsorption of phosphorus. Insulin and produced by the ovaries during release of
glucagon work synergistically to keep blood a mature egg from an ovary (ovulation).
glucose concentrations normal. An elevated Progesterone helps prepare the lining of the
blood glucose concentration results in the uterus (endometrium) to receive the egg if it
secretion of insulin and glucose is transported becomes fertilized by a sperm. If the egg is
into body cells. Aldosterone secretion may be not fertilized, progesterone levels drop and
inhibited by potassium depletion, inhibitors menstrual bleeding begins. Atrial natriuretic
of the renin-angiotensin system, dopamine factor is a hormonal substance produced by
and atrial natriuretic factor. The latter appears the right atrium of the heart that stimulates
to be an important physiological regulator of the excretion of sodium and water by the
aldosterone secretion. ANF inhibits basal, kidneys and helps regulate blood pressure.
ACTH, Angiotensin II and potassium- 9. (c) Adrenal Medulla is called emergency
stimulated aldosterone production in vitro by gland and secretes adrenaline (Epinephrine)
a direct action on the adrenal gland. Inhibin and nor-adrenaline (nor-epinephrine)
is a hormone secreted by granulosa cells of hormones.
the ovary which inhibit the secretion of FSH Adrenaline (epinephrine) is commonly called
(Follicle Stimulating Hormone) whereas as ‘emergency hormone’ or 3F – hormone
relaxin produced by ovary and placenta at (For fear, fight & flight). It stimulates sweating,
the time of childbirth to softens the ligament heart beat and breathing rate. It causes the
in the pelvis and widens the cervix. dilation of coronary artery (supplying blood
5. (a) At the pituitary, GnRH stimulates the to the heart muscles), bronchioles (for
synthesis and secretion of the gonadotropins, increasing inspiratory volume) and pupil (for
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and better vision).
Chemical Coordination and Regulation 243
10. (b) Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals mainly testosterone. Androgens play a
which act as intercellular messengers and are major stimulatory role in the process of
produced in trace amounts. spermatogenesis (formation of spermatozoa).
Gastrointestinal tracts secretes four major 16. (d) Cortisol and testosterone are steroid
peptide hormones – gastrin, secretin, hormones which are lipid soluble and easily
cholecystokinin (CCK) and gastric inhibitory pass through the cell membrane of a target
peptide (GIP) while juxtaglomerular cells cell and bind to specific intracellular receptor.
of kidney secretes erythropoietin, a peptide 17. (b) Posterior pituitary releases vasopressin
hormone. Releasing and inhibitory hormones which stimulates reabsorption of water in
are produced by hypothalamus. Neurohypophysis the distal tubules in nephron.
or posterior pituitary is under direct neural 18. (a) Anterior pituitary secrets growth
regulation of the hypothalamus. hormone. Ovary secrets oestrogen hormone.
11. (d) Iodine is essential for the normal Alpha cells of islets of langerhans secrets
rate of hormone synthesis in the thyroid. glucagon.
Deficiency of iodine in our diet results in 19. (d) Melatonin is a hormone that regulates
hypothyroidism and enlargement of the the 24 hour rhythm of our body such as the
thyroid gland, commonly called goitre. sleep-wake cycle etc. Melatonin is produced
Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes by pineal gland in the brain, which is
defective development and maturation responsible for operation and regulation of
of the growing baby leading to stunted the biological clock in mammals.
growth (cretinism), mental retardation, 20. (c) Adrenal gland has two parts-cortex
low intelligence quotient, abnormal skin, and medulla. The medulla is stimulated
deaf-mutism, etc. by sympathetic nervous tissue to produce
12. (b) • Growth hor mone secreted by adrenaline and non-adrenaline while the
Anterior pituitary cortex is stimulated by pituitary hormone to
• Corpus leutum secreted Progesterone release cortisol, aldosterone and estrogens.
• Oxytocin is secreted by Posterior Thus injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to
pituitary affect the secretion of adrenaline.
13. (c) Insulin is a peptide hormone, which 21. (a) Glucagon is secreted by a-cells of the
plays a major role in the regulation of islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It
glucose homeostasis. Insulin acts mainly increases the concentration of glucose in
on hepatocytes and adipocytes (cells of the blood by stimulating the breakdown of
adipose tissue), and enhances cellular glycogen.
glucose uptake and utilization. Insulin also 22. (c) Goitre is caused by deficiency of iodine
stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen in diet. Iodine is needed for the synthesis
(glycogenesis) in the target cells. of thyroxine. Toxic agents present in food
14. (b) Norepinephrine is released by sympa- interfere with thyroxine synthesis and lead
thetic fibres i.e, rapidly secreted in response to goitre.
to stress of any kind and during emergency 23. (b) Myxoedema is caused by deficiency of
situations. It increases the heart beat, the thyroid hormone or thyroxine in adults. It
strength of heart contraction and the rate of is characterised by increase in body weight,
respiration. puffy appearance, low metabolic rate, and
15. (d) Leydig cells or interstitial cells, which tendency to retain water in tissues.
are present in the intertubular spaces produce 24. (a) A peptide hormone secreted by the
a group of hormones called androgens parathyroid gland in response to low levels
 EBD_7325
244 BIOLOGY
of calcium in the blood. It acts to maintain 30. (d) Neurohormones are actually secreted by
normal blood levels of calcium by increasing the neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus.
the number of osteoclasts, which break down They are circulated to the posterior part
the bone matrix and release calcium into of the pituitary gland through the blood &
the blood. It also increases the reabsorption stored there and released when required.
of calcium and magnesium ions in the 31. (a) Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates
kidney tubules, so that their concentration is ovulation. Deficiency of insulin causes
maintained in the blood. diabetes mellitus. Deficiency of ADH
25. (a) Parathyroid and adrenal are the or vasopressin causes diabetes insipidus.
endocrine glands. Adrenal glands are Deficiency of parathormone causes tetany.
the pairs of endocrine glands situated Deficiency of thyroxine causes cretinism in
immediately above the kidneys. Hence they
infants and myxoedema in adults.
are also known as suprarenal glands.
32. (b) Human chorionic gonadotropin is
Parathyroid glands are the two pairs
released by Anophoblast cells of the placenta.
of endocrine glands situated behind or
Estrogen and progesterone are also released
embedded within the thyroid gland in higher
by placental cells to maintain pregnancy.
vertebrates. They produce parathyroid
hormone, which controls the amount of Prolactin is secreted from anterior lobe of
calcium in the blood. pituitary. Placenta secretes Human Placental
26. (d) Graafian follicle – the ovarian medulla Lactogenic Factor which prepare mammary
contains many rounded or oval bodies, glands to secrete milk.
called ovarian, or graafian follicles, at 33. (d) Deficiency of parathyroid hormone
various stages of development. Each follicle causes tetany. The disease causes sustained
contains a large ovum surrounded by many contraction of muscles of larynx, face, hands
layers of follicle cells. and feet.
27. (d) Parathyroid disorders : It causes the 34. (a) Melanin is secreted from the
lowering of blood calcium level. This intermediate lobe of pituitary. Melanin
increases the excitability of nerves and mainly protects the skin from harmful effects
muscles causing cramps and convulsions. of UV-rays. People living in tropics tend to
28. (a) It is commonly called as ‘emergency disperse more melanin in their skin – an
hormone’ or 3F – hormone (For fear, fight adaptive feature.
& flight). Its secretion is regulated by SNS, 35. (c) Estrogens are steroid hormones
and not by pituitary as in case of adrenal secreted by growing ovarian follicles.
cortex. It stimulates sweating, heart beat During menstrual cycle a negative feedback
and breathing rate. It causes the dilation
prevents the secretion of estrogen. FSH
of coronary artery (supplying blood to the
stimulates maturation of Graafian follicles.
heart muscles), bronchioles (for increasing
LH stimulates ovulation and development of
inspiratory volume) and pupil (for better
corpus luteum.
vision).
36. (c) Estrogen is released from the ovarian
29. (d) During spermatogenetic developments
spermatids get nourished by nurse or sertoli follicles. Oxytocin is secreted by posterior
cells. The function of sertoli cells and hence pituitary and prolactin is released by anterior
the spermatogenesis is under the direct pituitary. Gonadotropin releasing factor is
influence of follicle-stimulating hormone produced by hypothalamus.
(FSH) secreted by adenohypophysis of 37. (a) Adrenaline is a neurotransmitter that
pituitary gland. directly acts on the S A node.
Chemical Coordination and Regulation 245
The hormone adrenaline (epinephrine) is secreted by anterior pituitary lobe stimulates
secreted by adrenal medulla. This was first spermatogenesis in testes of males.
hormone to be isolated in crystalline form. Luteinizing hormone activates Leydig’s
This hormone is primarily responsible for cells of testes to secrete testosterones.
the alarming reactions. It increases the heart 45. (d) Insulin is released from the pancreas it
rate, breathing blood glucose level. helps in conversion of glucose to fatty acids.
38. (a) Deficiency of thyroxine causes cretinism It increases fat synthesis in adipose tissues.
in infants and myxoedema in adults. Excess 46. (c) Thymus gland is present in children
of adrenaline does not cause any disorder. with maximum development at puberty and
Acromegaly is caused by over secretion of thereafter it begins to shrink and atrophies
STH or somatotrophic hormone (Growth with the development of sex glands.
hormone). 47. (a) Calcitonin is a polypeptide hormone
39. (a) Iodine is an element used by thyroid which lowers calcium and phosphate level of
gland for the synthesis of thyroid hormones. plasma by inhibiting bone degradation and
Thus radioactive isotope Iodine -131 is used stimulating their uptake by bone. Parathyroid
as radioactive material for detection of hormone elevates calcium level in blood.
thyroid cancer. 48. (d) Use of contraceptive pills is a wide
40. (d) Melatonin is secreted by pineal gland spread form of birth control. Contraceptive
present between the cerebral hemispheres. pills contain estrogen and progesterone.
Melatonin concentration in blood follows a The production of the pituitary hormones
diurnal cycle, it rises in the evening and drops FSH & LH in the normal sexual cycle of a
at noon. Melatonin lightens skin colour in female is shut down by these hormones. In
certain animals and regulates working of the absence of FSH, the ovarian follicles do
gonads. not ripe and ovulation does not occur in the
41. (b) Parathyroid gland secretes absence of LH.
parathormone which regulates Ca2+ level 49. (a) Hormones thyroxine, adrenaline and
in blood. Anterior lobe of pituitary secretes the pigment melanin are formed from
the following hormones growth hormone, tyrosine. Tyrosine is transformed into
ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH. Posterior pituitary dopa through the enzyme tyrosinase. Then
secretes vasopressin and oxytocin. through different metabolic pathways it
The intermediate lobe (pars intermedium) produces thyroxine, adrenaline, melanin etc.
of the pitutary gland secretes MSH which 50. (b) Prolactin is a proteinaceous hormone
causes dispersal of pigment granules in the released by anterior lobe of pituitary.
pigment cells which give colour to the skin. Prolactin supplements the action of gonadal
42. (c) Contraceptive pills have estrogen and hormones in stimulating the growth and
progesterone. Progesterone suppresses activity of female mammary gland during
ovulation and production of LH while pregnancy and lactation. Oxytocin released
estrogen suppresses the production of FSH. by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland, is
43. (b) Oxytocin is also called the ‘child birth important for the mechanism of ejection
hormone’. Prolactin helps in lactation. of milk from the mammary glands due to
Luteinizing hormone levels trigger ovulation. sucking of breasts by infant. Progesterone,
44. (c) Progesterone is a steroid hormone released by corpus luteum brings about
secreted by corpus luteum and causes routine pregnancy changes such as uterine growth,
temporary changes in the endometrial lining implantation of embryo etc. Relaxin is a
of uterus. Follicle stimulating hormone proteinaceous hormone secreted by corpus
 EBD_7325
246 BIOLOGY
luteum towards the end of gestation androgens (mainly testosterone) Sertoli cells
period for loosening and softening of pelvic are elongated epithelial cells present inside
ligaments, relaxing of uterus for easing the seminal vesicle to nourish the growing
parturition. spermatozoa.
51. (c) According to the immunity theory 61. (d) Leydig’s cells are present in testes and
ageing occurs due to the loss of power they secrete male hormone testesterone.
of defence against the invasion of germs Small groups of polygonal, large cells present
and pathogens. The process starts with the in the connective tissue in between the
gradual atrophy and disappearance of the seminiferous tubules are known as Leydig’s
thymus gland during middle age. cells are interstitial cells. They secrete male
52. (d) Oxytocin also known as pitocin. It is sex hormone, testosterone.
an important hormone which is released in 62. (b) ADH : Antidiuretic hormone     –
neurohypophysis of pituitary. It stimulate the vasopressin is secreted by neurohypophysis
contraction of smooth muscles. It stimulate (posterior lobe) of pituitary gland. This
labour pain and also increase labour pain. hormone increases the reabsorption of
It is a hormone for quick birth. Its more water from the urine and hence urine gets
secretion results in parturition. concentrated and ECF gets diluted. Diabetes
53. (b) Mammalian corpus luteum produces insipidus caused by the hyposecretion of
progesterone. It is essential for the ADH.
continuation of pregnancy and it also 63. (b) In 1912, Gudernatsch discovered
stimulates acini glands. that metamorphosis in frog’s tadpole is
54. (b) Nicotine and acetylcholine have controlled by the thyroxine hormone which
the same receptors-Nicotinic cholinergic has the iodine as the main constituent. If
receptors and hence have the same action. thyroxine or iodine is added in water having
55. (d) The thyroid gland stores its hormone, tadpoles in it, then it increases the rate of
thyroglobulin in its follicles called metamorphosis in tadpole.
extracellular space before discharing it into 64. (a) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
the blood. (MSH) or Melanotropin is secreted by the
56. (a) Luteinizing Hormone (LH) induces intermediate lobe of adenohypophysis (pars
the Leideyg’s cells in males to produce intermedia) of pituitary gland in mammals
testesterone and in female it causes ovulation (other than man) so named ‘intermedin’. In
and secretion of female sex hormone estrogen lower vertebrates, it targets chromatophores
from mature ovarian follicle & progesterone & does wider distribution of the melanin
by corpus luteum. grannules in chromatophores, so that the skin
57. (c) Enterogastrone is a hormone released colour darkens. In birds & human beings and
by the upper intestinal mucosa that inhibits other mammals its role is uncertain but in
gastric motility and secretion. man it is probably responsible for bronzing
58. (a) Ovulation occurs under the influence of skin, moles etc.
of luteinizing hormone-LH secreted by the 65. (a) Cortisol is secreted by the middle region
anterior lobe of pituitary. of adrenal cortex. It increases the blood
59. (b) Leydig’s cells. glucose level (which is anti-insulin effect) by
60. (d) Male hormones are secreted by the converting proteins & fats into glucose.
Interstitial or Leydig’s cells present in the 66. (a) A decrease in blood pressure / volume
stroma of connective tissue in between the stimulates the release of renin, aldosterone,
seminiferous tubules in testis. They produce and ADH while increase in blood pressure
Chemical Coordination and Regulation 247
/ volume stimulates the release of Atrial 72. (c) Epinephrine or adrenaline, norepi-
Natriuretic Factor (ANF) secreted by atria nephrine or noradrenaline and acetylchlo-
of heart, which causes vasodilation and line are the neurotransmitters. These are
also inhibits RAAS (Renin Angiotensin released by the nerve fibres to trans-
Aldosterone System) mechanism that mit the impulse to the next neuron.
decreases the blood volume/pressure. Cortisone is not the neurotransmitter.
67. (b) In both females and males, inhibin 73. (b) Adrenaline (called Frieght-Flight-Fight
inhibits FSH production. In females, FSH hormone) is responsible for the dilation of
stimulates the secretion of inhibin from blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption
the granulosa cells of the ovarian follicles by tissues & glucogenesis to prepare the
in the ovaries. In turn, inhibin suppresses body for emergency reactions under the
FSH. In males, androgens stimulate inhibin threatening conditions.
production. It is secreted from the Sertoli 74. (a) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity
as endocrine glands secrete epinephrine &
cells, located in the seminiferous tubules
norepinephrine which have their effects on
inside the testes.
neuron activity. On the other hand neuron
68. (b) Epinephrine has two role as a hormone
also controls the activity of endocrine glands
and as a neurotransmitter.
by secreting neurohormones which regulate
69. (c) Glucagon is secreted by α cells of islets the activity of many endocrine glands.
of langerhans and stimulate glycogenolysis 75. (c) Parkinson’s disease (Paralysis agitans)
i.e. breakdown of glycogen into glucose (i) It develops due to deficiency of neuro
Thymosin hormone secreted from thymus transmitter, dopamine. The dopamine is
gland stimulates the development of not produced due to gradual destruction
certain kinds of white blood cells involved of neurons in the substantia nigra.
in producing immunity. It also hostens (ii) It produces muscle tremors so called
attainment of sexual maturity. shaking palsy.
70. (d) Cortisol is the steroid hormone secreted (iii) There is lack of control and
by adrenal cortex and plays an important coordination of movements resulting
role in carbohydrate metabolism. It retards in expression less face and stooping
the glucose consumption & hence level of posture which gradually produces
glucose in blood increases & blood pressure physical disability.
increases. 76. (b) Mast cells are granulated leucocyte cells.
Their granules contain histamine which is a
71. (b) In heart cells cAMP acts as secondary
vasodilator and heparin (an anticoagulant).
messenger which is made in the response
These take part in body defence and allergic
of adrenaline and it stimulates Ca2+ ions to
reaction. Vasopressin is released by posterior
come out from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
lobe of pituitary. Relaxin is released by
of muscle fibres which causes muscle placenta. Calcitonin is released by thyroid.
contraction. Serotonin and melanin are released by
cGMP (Cyclic Guanosine Monophosphate) intermediate lobe of pituitary gland.
which acts as secondary messenger works on 77. (b) Hormones are chemical messengers
the action of acetylcholine, increase in flow formed by endocrine cells. Chemically
of Ca2+ into muscle fibres & hence causes hormones are of the following types:
muscle relaxation. There is no role of sodi- Amines–composed of amino group e.g.,
um in hormonal action. Melatonin.
 EBD_7325
248 BIOLOGY
Amino acids – eg. thyroxine of electric potentials originating from
Peptides – eg. insulin different parts of the brain in the form
Steroids – eg. aldosterone of waves. Fractionation is the technique
78. (a) Epinephrine is synthesized from of rupturing cells and separating their
amino acid tyrosine. While estrogen and components especially cell organelles for
progesterone are modified steroids and studying their chemistry and functions.
prostaglandins are basically fat. Electrophoresis is the technique of
79. (b) Microbial transformation is a biological separation of charged solutes on the basis
process in which organic compounds are of their differential migration in an applied
modified into reversible products. These electric field.
81. (a) The hormones in blood act on specific
biotransformation reactions are catalysed
sites or receptors of target organ. So if we
by purified enzymes present in microbial
remove the receptor molecule from the target
cells or pure cullures of micro-organisms.
organs, there will be no response.
Cholesterol forms a major component of
82. (a) Enterogastrone secreted by the mucosa
animal cell membranes liposomes (artificially
of duodenum, it slows gastric contractions
created spheres surrounded by a phospholipid
and stops the secretion of gastric juice.
bilayer like a membrane). Cholesterol is used
83. (c) Insulin is a hormone secreted by the
for microbial transformation (transgenics). b-cells of pancreas and it controls the sugar
80. (d) Electroencephalogram is the recording level in blood.
 Chapter

23 Reproduction in
Organisms
Topic 1: Asexual Reproduction 7. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by:
(a) offset (b) rhizome [2009]
1. In ginger vegetative propagation occurs
(c) sucker (d) runner
through:  [2015 RS]
8. In which one pair both the plants can be
(a) Offsets (b) Bulbils
vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces?
(c) Runners (d) Rhizome
(a) Agave and Kalanchoe  [2005]
2. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
(b) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
matched? [2015 RS]
(c) Asparagns and Bryophyllum
Mode of reproduction Example
(d) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(a) Rhizome Banana
9. What is true for cleavage?  [2002]
(b) Binary fission Sargassum
(a) Size of embryo increases
(c) Conidia Penicillium (b) Size of cells decrease
(d) Offset Water hyacinth (c) Size of cells increase
3. Which one of the following is correctly (d) Size of embryo decreases
matched?  [2012] 10. During regeneration, modification of an
(a) Onion - Bulb organ to other organ is known as [2001]
(b) Ginger - Sucker (a) Morphogenesis
(c) Chlamydomonas - Conidia (b) Epimorphosis
(d) Yeast - Zoospores (c) Morphallaxis
4. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are [2011] (d) Accretionary growth
(a) root buds (b) flower buds 11. A population of genetically identical individu-
(c) shoot buds (d) axillary buds als, obtained from asexual reproduction is
5. What is common between vegetative (a) Callus (b) Clone [1993]
reproduction and apomixis? [2011M] (c) Deme (d) Aggregate
(a) Both are applicable to only dicot plants 12. Vegetative reproduction of Agave occurs
(b) Both bypass the flowering phase through  [1991]
(c) Both occur round the year (a) rhizome (b) stolon
(d) Both produces progeny identical to the (c) bulbils (d) sucker
parent
6. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly Topic 2: Sexual Reproduction
matched while the remaining three are
13. Seed formation without fertilization in
correct?      [2011M]
flowering plants involves the process of:
(a) Penicillium - Conidia
(a) Sporulation [2016]
(b) Water hyacinth - Runner
(b) Budding
(c) Bryophyllum - Leaf buds
(c) Somatic hybridization
(d) Agave - Bulbils
(d) Apomixis
 EBD_7325
250 BIOLOGY
14. Select the wrong statement: [NEET 2013] (b) size and location of the nucleus
(a) Anisogametes differ either in structure, (c) amount and distribution of yolk
function or behaviour. (d) number of egg membranes
(b) In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller 22. What is true about cleavage in fertilized egg
and motile, while male gamete is larger of humans?  [1994]
and non-motile. (a) Meroblastic
(c) Chalmydomonas exhibits both isogamy (b) Starts when egg reaches uterus
and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy. (c) Starts in fallopian tube
(d) Isogametes are similar in structure, (d) It is identical to normal mitosis
function and behaviour. 23. A perennial plant differs from biennial in
15. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence [1994]
of :  [NEET 2013] (a) having underground perennating
(a) stamen and carpel of the same plant structure
(b) upper antheridium and lower oogonium (b) having asexual reproductive structures
on the same plant (c) being tree species
(c) upper oogonium and lower antheridium (d) not dying after seasonal production of
on the same plant flowers
(d) antheridiophore and archegoniophore 24. Termination of gastrulation is indicated by
on the same plant (a) obliteration of blastocoel [1993]
(b) obliteration of archenteron
16. Meiosis takes place in : [NEET 2013]
(c) closure of blastopore
(a) Conidia (b) Gemmule
(d) closure of neural tube
(c) Megaspore (d) Meiocyte
25. In telolecithal egg the yolk is found [1993]
17. Syngamy can occur outside the body of the (a) all over the egg (b) on one side
organism in  [NEET Kar. 2013] (c) both the sides (d) centre
(a) Fungi (b) Mosses 26. Amount of yolk and its distribution are
(c) Algae (d) Ferns changed in the egg. Which one is affected?
18. Geocarpic fruits are produced by [2000, 02] (a) Pattern of cleavage [1993]
(a) onion (b) watermelon (b) Formation of zygote
(c) ground nut (d) carrot (c) Number of blastomeres
19. Which of the following processes is (d) Fertilization
associated with a change in the cellular DNA 27. Meroblastic cleavage is division [1992]
amount?  [1999] (a) horizontal (b) partial/parietal
(a) Spore germination (c) total (d) spiral
(b) Cytokinesis 28. Blastopore is  [1992]
(c) Fertilization (a) opening of neural tube
(d) Blastulation (b) opening of gastrocoel
20. The correct sequence in the process of (c) future anterior end of embryo
development of human embryo is [1998] (d) found in blastula
(a) fer tilization—zygote—cleavage— 29. During cleavage, what is true about cells?
morula—blastula—gastrula  [1991]
(b) fertilization—cleavage—mor ula— (a) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains
zygote—blastula—gastrula unchanged
(b) Size does not increase
(c) fer tilization—zygote—blastula—
(c) There is less consumption of oxygen
morula—cleavage—gastrula
(d) The division is like meiosis
(d) cleavage—zygote—fer tilization—
30. Cells become variable in morphology and
morula—blastula—gastrula function in different regions of the embryo.
21. In an egg, the type of cleavage is determined The process is  [1989]
by  [1995] (a) differentiation (b) metamorphosis
(a) shape and size of the sperm (c) organisation (d) rearrangement
Reproduction in Organisms 251

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Vegetative propagation takes place proliferate from the surface of the wound to
through rhizome in ginger. form the missing structure. In accretionary
2. (b) Binary fission usually takes place in growth some specialized cells retain the
Amoeba, Paramoecium and Euglena. ability to divide and produce new cells to
3. (a) Onion - Bulb - Undeground stem, Ginger replace the worn-out.
- Rhizome, Chlamydomonas - Zoospore, Yeast 11. (b) Cloning is a technique by which
- Ascospores genetically same individuals can be produced
4. (d) The axillary buds of the potato tuber without including any sexual reproduction eg.
are called “eyes” in common language. They Dolly sheep.
are found at the nodes of the stem tuber. The term clone is derived from źėłķ, the Greek
5. (d) Vegetative reproduction and apomixis word for “twig”, refering to the process,
both are asexual methods of reproduction, whereby a new plant can be created from a
which gives the progeny genetically similar twig.
to parent. 12. (c) Agave species are popular ornamental
6. (b) Water hyacinth is a free floating perennial plants. Each rosette is monocarpic and
plant, which can grow to a height of 3 feet. grows slowly to flower only once. During
7. (c) Vegetative propagation in mint occurs flowering a tall stem or “mast” grows from
through sucker. Vegetative reproduction is a the center of the leaf rosette and bears a
type of asexual reproduction for plants, and is large number of short tubular flowers. After
also called vegetative propagation, vegetative development of fruit the original plant dies,
multiplication, or vegetative cloning. It is a but suckers are frequently produced from the
process by which new plant “individuals” base of the stem which become new plants.
arise or are obtained without production of It is a common misconception that Agaves
seeds or spores. It is both natural process are cactus.
in many plant species (as well as non-plant 13. (d) Apomixis (asexual seed formation) is
organisms such as bacteria and fungi) and the result of a plant gaining the ability to
one used or encouraged by horticulturists to bypass the most fundamental aspects of
obtain quantities of economically valuable sexual reproduction: meiosis and fertilization.
plants. A related technique used in cultivation Without the need for male fertilization, the
is tissue culture, which involves vegetative resulting seed germinates a plant that develops
reproduction under sterile conditions. as a maternal clone.
8. (b) Leaves of a number of plants develop 14. (b) In oomycetes female gamete is large and
or possess adventitious buds for vegetative non motile while male gamete is small &
propagation e.g., Broyophyllum, Kalanchoe, motile.
Adiantum caudatum. 15. (c) Male sex organ is called antheridium
9. (b) Cleavage involves repeated cell division or globule while female sex organ is called
without increase in size. But cell size oogonium. They develop on the same
decrease. branchlet in the same plant in Chara.
10. (b) Morphallaxis is a mechanism of 16. (d) Meiosis takes place in meiocyte while
regeneration involving reorganization Conidia and Gemmule are asexual structures
of body cells. In epimorphosis new cells and megaspore is haploid.
 EBD_7325
252 BIOLOGY
17. (c) In most aquatic organisms, such as 23. (d) Perennials survive for more than two
a majority of algae and fishes as well as years and produce flowers and fruits during
amphibians, syngamy occurs in the external specific seasons.
medium (water), i.e., outside the body of 24. (a) Gastrulation ends with the complete
the organism. This type of gametic fusion is obliteration of blastocoel. The stage of three
called external fertilisation. primary germ layers starts.
18. (c) Geocarpic fruits are those which 25. (b) On the basis of distribution of yolk the
develop underground. Groundnut is the fruit eggs are of following types :
(i) Homolecithal : Evenly distributed yolk.
which develops underground, onion and
(ii) Telolecithal : Most of the yolk near the
carrot also occur within the soil but onion
vegetal pole, cytoplasm and nucleus lie
is a modified stem while carrot is a modified
near animal pole.
root. (iii) Centrolecithal : Centrally placed yolk
19. (c) Cytokinesis involves division of the surrounded by cytoplasm.
cytoplasm of the parent cell into its daughter 26. (a) Pattern of cleavage.
cells. Fertilization involves the fusion of two 27. (b) Different types of segmentation or
haploid gametes. Blastulation refers to the cleavages are found in animals depending
process of cleavage in the zygote to form a upon the amount of yolk & its distribution:
blastula. Holoblastic : Complete division.
20. (a) Fusion of male and female gamete Meroblastic : Division occurs only in
produces a zygote. Repeated division of cytoplasm but not in yolk. eg. fishes.
the zygote is called cleavage forming a 28. (b) It is the small slit like opening on the
solid morula. After further division and dorsal side of gastrocoel also known as
rearrangement a fluid filled cavity surrounded dorsal lip.
29. (b) During cleavage size of cells do not
by blastomeres - blastula is formed. The
increase (in fact the resultant blastomeres
appearance of germ layers mark the gastrula.
are smallest in size, because size of
21. (c) The amount of yolk and its distribution
embryo doesn’t increase and mitosis occurs
determines the type and depth of cleavage. repeatedly).
Cleavage is effected due to yolk resulting in 30. (a) Cells become variable in shape, size &
different types of segmentation or cleavage. getting their specialization for the formation
22. (c) After ovulation egg comes in fallopian of particular tissue or organ in future foetus.
tube where it is fertilized by the sperm & They place themselves at some specific
cleavage starts here only. regions in embryo for further organogeny.
 Chapter

24 Sexual Reproduction in
Flowering Plants

Topic 1: Flower / Pre-fertilisation (c) Pollen germination and pollen tube

growth are regulated by chemical
1. Attractants and rewards are required for :
components of pollen interacting with
[2017]
those of the pistil.
(a) Entomophily (b) Hydrophily
(d) Some reptiles have also been reported
(c) Cleistogamy (d) Anemophily
as pollinators in some plant species.
2. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary
6. Which one of the following may require
and are packed into inflorescence are usually
pollinated by:    [2017] pollinators, but is genetically similar to
autogamy?  [2015 RS]
(a) Bee (b) Wind
(c) Bat (d) Water (a) Xenogamy (b) Apogamy
3. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both : (c) Cleistogamy (d) Geitonogamy
[2017] 7. Which one of the following statements is not
(a) Autogamy and geitonogamy true?  [2015 RS]
(b) Geitonogamy and xenogamy (a) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe
(c) Cleistogamy and xenogamy allergies and bronchial afflictions in
some people
(d) Autogamy and xenogamy
4. Which one of the following statements is not (b) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats
true? [2016] secrete foul odour to attract them
(a) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of (c) Honey is made by bees by digesting
anther pollen collected from flowers
(b) Exine of pollen grains is made up of (d) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and
sporopollenin they are used in the form of tablets and
(c) Pollen grains of many species cause syrups
severe allergies 8. The hilum is a scar on the : [2015 RS]
(d) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be (a) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel
used in the crop breeding programmes (b) Fruit, where style was present
5. Which of the following statements is not (c) Seed, where micropyle was present
correct? [2016] (d) Seed, where funicle was attached
(a) Pollen grains of many species can 9. Which of the following are the important
germinate on the stigma of a flower, but floral rewards to the animal pollinators?
only one pollen tube of the same species [2015 RS]
grows into the style. (a) Nectar and pollen grains
(b) Insects that consume pollen or nectar (b) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
without bringing about pollination are (c) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates
called pollen/nectar robbers. (d) Colour and large size flower
 EBD_7325
254 BIOLOGY
10. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of: (a) Sporogenous tissue is haploid
[2015 RS] (b) Endothecium produces the microspores
(a) Nucellar embryo (c) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen
(b) Aleurone cell (d) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine
(c) Synergids 18. Which one of the following statements is
(d) Generative cell correct?   [NEET Kar. 2013]
11. Geitonogamy involves: [2014] (a) Geitonogamy involves the pollen and
(a) fertilization of a flower by the pollen stigma of flowers of different plants
from another flower of the same plant. (b) Cleistogamous flowers are always
(b) fertilization of a flower by the pollen autogamous
from the same flower. (c) Xenogamy occurs only by wind
(c) fertilization of a flower by the pollen pollination
from a flower of another plant in the (d) Chasmogamous flowers do not open at
same population. all
(d) fertilization of a flower by the pollen 19. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore
from a flower of another plant belonging mother cells after   [NEET Kar. 2013]
to a distant population. (a) Meiotic division
12. Male gametopyte with least number of cell is (b) Mitotic division
present in:      [2014] (c) Formation of a thick wall
(a) Pteris (b) Funaria (d) Differentiation
(c) Lilium (d) Pinus 20. Animal vectors are required for pollination in
13. Function of filiform apparatus is to:  [2014] [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma (a) Maize (b) Vallisneria
(b) Stimulate division of generative cell (c) Mulberry (d) Cucumber
(c) Produce nectar 21. Which of the following statements is correct?
(d) Guide the entry of pollen tube [NEET Kar. 2013]
14. Megasporangium is equivalent to : (a) Sporopollenin can withstand high
[NEET 2013] temperatures but not strong acids
(a) Fruit (b) Nucellus (b) Sporopollenin can be degraded by
(c) Ovule (d) Embryo sac enzymes
15. Advantage of cleistogamy is :  [NEET 2013] (c) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic
(a) More vigorous offspring materials
(b) No dependence of pollinators (d) Sporopollenin can withstand high
(c) Vivipary temperatures as well as strong acids and
(d) Higher genetic variability alkalis
16. Product of sexual reproduction generally 22. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are
generates:    [NEET 2013] prevented in - [2012]
(a) Prolonged dormancy (a) Papaya (b) Cucumber
(b) New genetic combination leading to (c) Castor (d) Maize
variation 23. An organic substance that can withstand
(c) Large biomass environmental extremes and cannot be
(d) Longer viability of seeds degraded by any enzyme is : [2012]
17. Which one of the following statements is (a) Cuticle (b) Sporopollenin
correct?   [NEET 2013] (c) Lignin (d) Cellulose
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 255
24. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed 33. Unisexuality of flowers prevents [2008]
setting is assured in [2012] (a) autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(a) Commelina (b) Zostera (b) both geitonogamy and xenogamy
(c) Salvia (d) Fig
(c) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
25. What is the function of germ pore? [2012M]
(a) Emergence of radicle (d) autogamy and geitonogamy
(b) Absorption of water for seed germination 34. What does the filiform apparatus do at the
(c) Initiation of pollen tube entrance into ovule? [2008]
(d) Release of male gametes (a) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into
26. Which one of the following statements is a synergid
wrong? [2012M] (b) It prevents entry of more than one pollen
(a) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage,
tube into the embryo sac
double fertilization does not take place.
(c) It brings about opening of the pollen tube
(b) Vegetative cell is larger than generative
cell. (d) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to
(c) Pollen grains in some plants remain egg
viable for months. 35. Which one of the following is surrounded by
(d) Intine is made up of cellulose and - a callose wall? [2007]
pectin. (a) male gamete
27. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few
(b) egg
ovules, are generally pollinated by [2012M]
(c) pollen grain
(a) bees (b) butterflies
(d) microspore mother cell
(c) birds (d) wind
28. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature 36. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by
of [2011] the division of [2007]
(a) suspensor (b) egg (a) generative cell
(c) synergid (d) zygote (b) vegetative cell
29. In which one of the following pollination is (c) microspore mother cell
autogamous? [2011] (d) microspore.
(a) Geitonogamy (b) Xenogamy 37. Which one of the following pairs of
(c) Chasmogamy (d) Cleistogamy plant structures has haploid number of
30. Wind pollination is common in [2011] chromosomes? [2007]
(a) legumes (b) lilies (a) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal
(c) grasses (d) orchids cells
31. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to (b) Egg cell and antipodal cells
the stigma of another flower of the same plant (c) Nucelus and antipodal cells
is called [2010]
(d) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
(a) Xenogamy (b) Geitonogamy
38. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal
(c) Karyogamy (d) Autogamy
embryo sac in the dicot plants is [2006]
32. Wind pollinated flowers are [2010]
(a) 3 + 2 + 3 (b) 2 + 3 + 3
(a) small, brightly coloured, producing large
number of pollen grains (c) 3 + 3 + 2 (d) 2 + 4 + 2
(b) small, producing large number of dry 39. What would be the number of chromosomes in
pollen grains the cells of the aleuron layer in a plant species
(c) large producing abundant nectar and with 8 chromosomes in its synergids?[2006]
pollen (a) 24 (b) 32
(d) small, producing nectar and dry pollen (c) 8 (d) 16
 EBD_7325
256 BIOLOGY
40. Through which cell of the embryo sac, does (a) upward (b) downward
the pollen tube enter the embryo sac? [2005] (c) right (d) left
(a) Egg cell 48. In angiosperms all the four microspores of
(b) Persistent synergid tetrad are covered by a layer which is formed
(c) Degenerated synergid by   [2002]
(d) Central cell (a) pectocellulose (b) callose
41. Which one of the following represents an (c) cellulose (d) sporopollenin
ovule, where the embryo sac becomes horse- 49. Anemophily type of pollination is found in
shoe shaped and the funiculus and micropyle  [2001]
are close to each other? [2005] (a) Salvia (b) Bottle brush
(a) Amphitropous (b) Circinotropous (c) Vallisneria (d) Coconut
(c) Atropous (d) Antropous 50. Eight nucleate embryo sacs are  [2000]
42. An ovule which becomes curved so that the (a) always tetrasporic
nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to (b) always monosporic
the funicle is [2004] (c) always bisporic
(a) Hemitropous (b) Campylotropous (d) sometime monosporic, sometimes
(c) Anatropous (d) Orthotropous bisporic and sometimes tetrasporic
51. The endosperm of gymnosperm is [1999]
43. In oogamy, fertilization involves[2004]
(a) triploid (b) haploid
(a) a small non-motile female gamete and a
(c) diploid (d) polyploid
large motile male gamete
52. Flowers showing ornithophily show few
(b) a large non-motile female gamete and a
characteristic like  [1999]
small motile male gamete
(a) blue flower with nectaries at base of
(c) a large non-motile female gamete and a corolla
small non motile male gamete (b) red sweet scented flower with nectaries
(d) a large motile female gamete and a small (c) bright red flower into thick inflorescence
nonmotile male gamete (d) white flowers with fragrance
44. An ovule which becomes curved so that the 53. How many pollen grains will be formed after
nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to meiotic division in ten microspore mother
the funicle is  [2004] cells?  [1996]
(a) Hemitropous (b) Campylotropous (a) 10 (b) 20
(c) Anatropous (d) Orthotropous (c) 40 (d) 80
45. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise 54. In an angiosperm, how many microspore
to  [2003] mother cells are required to produce 100
(a) only tapetum and sporogenous cells pollen grains  [1995]
(b) only the wall of the sporangium (a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 75 (d) 100
(c) both wall and the sporogenous cells
55. Chief pollinators of agricultural crops are 
(d) wall and the tapetum [1994]
46. In angiosperms pollen tubes liberate their (a) butterflies (b) bees
male gametes into the  [2002] (c) moths (d) beetles
(a) central cell (b) antipodal cell 56. Transfer of pollen to the stigma of another
(c) egg cell (d) synergids flower of the same plant is  [1994]
47. What is the direction of micropyle in (a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy
anatropous ovule ?  [2002] (c) Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 257
57. Fertilization involving carrying of male 66. Syngamy means  [1991]
gametes by pollen tube is  [1994] (a) fusion of gametes
(a) Porogamy (b) Siphonogamy (b) fusion of cytoplasms
(c) Chalazogamy (d) Syngonogamy (c) fusion of two similar spores
58. One of the most resistant biological material (d) fusion of two dissimilar spores
is  [1994] 67. Which ones produces androgenic haploids in
(a) lignin (b) hemicellulose anther cultures?  [1990]
(c) lignocellulose (d) sporopollenin (a) Anther wall
59. Ovule is straight with funiculus, embryo sac, (b) Tapetal layer of anther wall
chalaza and micropyle lying on one straight (c) Connective tissue
line. It is  [1993] (d) Young pollen grains
(a) Orthotropous (b) Anatropous 68. Male gametophyte of angiosperms/monocots
(c) Campylotropous (d) Amphitropous is  [1990]
60. Number of meiotic divisions required to (a) Microsporangium
produce 200/400 seeds of Pea would be (b) Nucellus
[1993] (c) Microspore
(a) 200/400 (b) 400/800 (d) Stamen
(c) 300/600 (d) 250/500 69. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is
61. Meiosis is best observed in dividing [1992] represented by  [1990]
(a) cells of apical meristem (a) Ovule
(b) cells of lateral meristem (b) Megaspore mother cell
(c) microspores and anther wall (c) Embryo sac
(d) microsporocytes
(d) Nucellus
62. Pollination occurs in  [1991]
70. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is
(a) Bryophytes and angiosperms
[1990]
(b) Pteridophytes and angiosperms
(a) Chalazogamy (b) Mesogamy
(c) Angiosperms and gymnosperms
(d) Angiosperms and fungi (c) Porogamy (d) Pseudogamy
63. Embryo sac occurs in  [1991] 71. Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a
(a) Embryo normal pollen tube was still formed because
(b) Axis part of embryo [1989]
(c) Ovule (a) vegetative cell is not damaged
(d) Endosperm (b) contents of killed generative cell
64. Which of the following pair has haploid stimulate pollen growth
structures?  [1991] (c) laser beam stimulates growth of pollen
(a) Nucellus and antipodal cells tube
(b) Antipodal cells and egg cell
(d) the region of emergence of pollen tube
(c) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother
is not harmed
cell
72. Which is correct?  [1989]
(d) Nucellus and primary endosperm
nucleus (a) Gametes are invariably haploid
65. Point out the odd one?  [1991] (b) Spores are invariably haploid
(a) Nucellus (b) Embryo sac (c) Gametes are generally haploid
(c) Micropyle (d) Pollen grain (d) Both spores and gametes are invariably
haploid
 EBD_7325
258 BIOLOGY
73. Male gametophyte of angiosperms is shed (c) Leeuwenhoek
as  [1988] (d) Strasburger
(a) four celled pollen grain 81. Double fertilization is fusion of  [1991]
(b) three celled pollen grain (a) two eggs
(c) microspore mother cell (b) two eggs and polar nuclei with pollen
(d) anther nuclei
74. Total number of meiotic division required for (c) one male gamete with egg and other with
forming 100 zygotes/100 grains of wheat is synergid
[1988] (d) one male gamete with egg and other with
(a) 100 (b) 75 secondary nucleus
(c) 125 (d) 50 82. Micropyle of seed is involved in the passage
of  [1988]
Topic 2: Double Fertilisation (a) male gamete (b) pollen tube
75. A diploid female plant and a tetraploid male (c) water (d) gases
plant are crossed. The ploidy of endosperm Topic 3: Post-fertilisation
shall be  [1989, 2004]
(a) tetraploid (b) triploid 83. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm
(c) diploid (d) pentaploid develops into ?     [2017]
76. Double fertilisation leading to initiation of (a) Endosperm (b) Embryo sac
endosperm in Angiosperms require [2000] (c) Embryo (d) Ovule
(a) fusion of one polar nucleus and the 84. Non-albuminous seed is produced in:[2014]
second male gamete only (a) Maize (b) Castor
(b) fusion of two polar nuclei and the second (c) Wheat (d) Pea
male gamete 85. Perisperm differs from endosperm in;
(c) fusion of four or more polar nuclei and [NEET 2013]
the second male gamete only (a) having no reserve food
(d) all the above kinds of fusion in different (b) being a diploid tissue
angiosperms (c) its formatting by fusion of secondary
77. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and nucleus with several sperms
female plant tetraploid, the ploidy level of (d) being a haploid tissue
endosperm will be  [1997]
86. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in :
(a) haploid (b) triploid
[NEET 2013]
(c) tetraploid (d) pentaploid
(a) Coconut (b) Groundnut
78. In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for
the formation of  [1996] (c) Gram (d) Maize
(a) embryo (b) endosperm 87. The viability of seeds is tested by
(c) seed coat (d) fruit wall [NEET Kar. 2013]
79. Double fertilization is characteristic of (a) Safranine
 [1993] (b) 2, 6 dichlorophenol indophenols
(a) Angiosperms (b) Pteridophytes (c) 2, 3, 5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Bryophytes (d) DMSO
80. Double fertilization and triple fusion were 88. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food
discovered by  [1988, 93] mainly in   [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Hofmeister (a) Perisperm (b) Endosperm
(b) Nawaschin and Guignard (c) Cotyledons (d) Hypocotyl
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 259
89. Which of the following statements is not true 97. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed
about somatic embryogenesis? from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary
[NEET Kar. 2013] is [2008]
(a) A somatic embryo develops from a (a) Caryopsis (b) Cypsela
somatic cell (c) Berry (d) Cremocarp
(b) The pattern of development of a somatic 98. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig
embryo is comparable to that of a zygotic encloses a number of: [2008]
embryo (a) Achenes (b) Samaras
(c) Somatic embryos can develop from (c) Berries (d) Mericarps
microspores 99. The fruit is chambered, developed from
(d) Somatic embryo is induced usually by inferior ovary and has seeds with succulent
an auxin such as 2, 4-D testa in [2008]
90. A drupe develops in [2011] (a) pomegranate (b) orange
(a) mango (b) wheat (c) guava (d) cucumber
(c) pea (d) tomato 100. Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes, and
91. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from the mature seed which bears only one embryo
[2010] with two cotyledons, are characteristic
(a) Synergids features of  [2005]
(b) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule (a) Cycads
(c) Antipodal cells (b) Conifers
(d) Diploid egg (c) Polypetalous angiosperms
92. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat (d) Gamopetalous angiosperms
or maize is comparable to which part of the 101. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for
seed in other monocotyledons? [2010] annual crop plants?  [2005]
(a) Cotyledon (b) Endosperm (a) It reduces the vigour of the plant.
(c) Aleurone layer (d) Plumule (b) It adversely affects the fertility of the
93. A fruit developed from hypanthodium plant.
inflorescence is called [2009] (c) The seeds exhibit long dormancy.
(a) Sorosis (b) Syconus (d) The seeds cannot be stored under normal
(c) Caryopsis (d) Hasperidium conditions for the next season.
94. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible 102. Adventive polyembryony in citrus is due to
parts in [2009] [2001, 05]
(a) walnut and tamarind (a) nucellus (b) integuments
(b) french bean and coconut (c) zygotic embryo (d) fertilised egg
(c) cashew nut and litchi 103. Study of formation, growth and development
(d) groundnut and pomegranate of new individual from an egg is [1993]
95. An example of a seed with endosperm, (a) Apomixis (b) Embryology
perisperm, and caruncle is [2009]
(c) Embryogeny (d) Cytology
(a) coffee (b) lily
104. Tegmen develops from  [1990]
(c) castor (d) cotton
(a) funiculus
96. Endosperm is consumed by developing
(b) chalaza
embryo in the seed of [2008]
(c) inner integument
(a) coconut (b) castor
(d) outer integument
(c) pea (d) maize
 EBD_7325
260 BIOLOGY
105. Parthenogenesis is  [1988] 108. The polyembryony commonly occurs in
(a) development of embr yo without  [1995]
fertilization (a) citrus (b) turmeric
(c) tomato (d) potato
(b) development of fruit without fertilization
109. Development of an organism from female
(c) development of fruit without hormones gamete/egg without involving fertilization
(d) development of embryo from egg is  [1989]
without fertilization (a) Adventitive embryony
(b) Polyembryony
Topic 4: Apomixis & Polyembryony
(c) Parthenocarpy
106. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species (d) Parthenogenesis
of [2011] 110. Nucellar embryo is  [1989]
(a) Citrus (b) Gossypium (a) Amphimictic haploid
(c) Triticum (d) Brassica (b) Amphimictic diploid
(c) Apomictic haploid
107. Which plant will lose its economic value
(d) Apomictic diploid
if its fruits are produced by induced
111. Formation of gametophyte directly from
parthenocarpy?  [1997]
sporophyte without meiosis is [1988]
(a) brape (b) pomegranate (a) Apospory (b) Apogamy
(c) banana (d) orange (c) Parthenogenesis (d) Amphimixis
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 261

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Insect pollinated plants provide rewards 12. (c) Male gametophyte is highly reduced in
as edible pollen grain and nectar as usual angiosperm and is known as pollen grain. It
rewards. In order to materialize and maximize is 2 or 3-celled.
pollination flowers have developed a set of 13. (d) Filiform apparatus helps in the entry of
attributes which are aimed at attracting the pollen tube into a synergid in ovule. Filiform
pollinators called attractants. apparatus is in form of finger like projection
2. (b) Wind pollination or anemophily occurs comprising a core of micro fibrils enclosed in
in flowers which are having a single ovule in a sheath. It resembles transfer cells meant for
each ovary, and numerous flowers packed short distance movement of metabolites. It is
in an inflorescence. It is a non-directional responsible for the absorption of food from
pollination. the nucleus.
3. (a) Autogamy occurs in bisexual flowers. 14. (c) Ovule is also called integumented
Geitonogamous flowers are unisexual megasporangium. It develops into seed after
but present in the same plant. Dioecious fertilisation in spermatophytes. It occurs
condition is observed when unisexual male singly or in a cluster inside ovary with
and female flowers are present on different parenchymatous cushions called placenta.
plants and it prevents both autogamy and 15. (b) Cleistogamy favours no dependence on
geitonogamy. pollinator because flowers never open. In such
4. (a) Tapetum is important for the nutrition flowers, the anthers and stigma lie close to
and development of pollen grains, as well as each other. When anthers dehisce in flower
a source of precursors for the pollen coat. buds pollen grains come in contact with the
5. (a) Pollen grains of different species are stigma to effect pollination.
incompatible, so they fail to germinate. If the 16. (b) Sexual reproduction leads to formation
pollen-stigma interaction is compatible, the of new progeny with appearance of variations
pollen grain hydrates and germinates shortly by Genetic recombination, of two different
following landing on the stigma. organisms interaction etc. During sexual
6. (d) Geitonogamy, genetically, shows reproduction provides vigour and vitality to
similarity with autogamy because the pollen the offsprings. They better adapt themselves
grains are borne on the same plant. to changing environmental conditions and
7. (c) Honey is produced by worker bees using also plays an important role in evolution.
nectar (fructose) of flowering plants. 17. (c) Sporogenous tissue is always diploid,
8. (d) The hilum is a scar found on the seed endothecium is second layer of anther wall
coat through which the developing seeds are and perform the function of protection and
attached to the fruit. help in dehiscence of anther to release the
9. (a) Nectar and pollen grains are the usual pollen. Hard outer layer of pollen is called
floral rewards which the animal pollinators exine but tapetum always nourishes the
get. developing pollen.
10. (c) Synergids have filiform apparatus. Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm
11. (a) Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen and generally have more than one nucleus
grains in different flowers of same plant. (polypoid).
 EBD_7325
262 BIOLOGY
18. (b) Cleistogamous flowers do not expose 26. (a) In over 60 per cent of angiosperms,
their reproductive parts. Anthers and stigma pollen grains are shed at cell 2-celled stage.
lie close to each other. Pure autogamy occurs In the remaining species the generative cell
since there is no chance of cross-pollination. divides mitotically to give rise to the two male
Cleistogamy is the most efficient floral gametes before pollen grains are shed (3-celled
adaptation for promoting self-pollination. stage.)
E.g., Viola mirabilis and Oxalis autosella. 27. (d) Wind pollinated flowers have generally
19. (a) Single Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) single ovule in each ovary.
with dense cytoplasm and a prominent 28. (c) A synergid cell wall forms a highly
nucleus gets differentiated from nucellus thickened structure called the filiform
near the micropylar region. This Megaspore apparatus at the micropylar end consisting of
Mother Cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis to numerous finger like projections into synergid
form ‘4’ haploid cells called megaspores
cytoplasm. These synergid cells are necessary
and the process of formation is known as
for pollen tube guidance in ovule.
megasporogenesis.
29. (d) Cleistogamy is autogamous pollination.
20. (d) There are different types of vectors
When pollination and fertilization occur
involved in pollination.
in unopened flower bud, it is known as
For example, Maize, mulberry → pollination
cleistogamy. It ensures self-pollination and
by wind. Vallisneria → pollination through
prevents cross-pollination.
water (hydrophily). Cucumber → Bees are
30. (c) Wind pollination is common in grasses.
brought for the commercial plantings of
cucumber. Grasses produce large amount of pollen
which by the help of wind reach to opposite
21. (d) Pollen grains are generally spherical
sex for reproduction.
and a prominent two-layered wall. The
hard outer layer called the exine is made up 31. (b) Geitonogamy is the process of transfer of
of sporopollenin which is one of the most pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of
resistant organic material known. It can another flower of the same plant. Example,
withstand high temperatures and strong acids maize.
and alkali. 32. (b) Pollination by wind is called anemophily.
22. (a) Papaya is dioecious i.e. male and female Wind pollinated flowers are small in size,
flowers occurs in separate plants so that it producing large number of dry pollen grains.
prevents both autogamy & geitonogamy Pollens are small, dry and light in weight.
(method of self pollination). Grasses are anemophilous plants.
23. (b) Sporopollenin is fatty substance present 33. (a) Unisexuality of flowers prevents
in pollen wall and provides resistance against autogamy, but not geitonogamy. In self
extremes conditions like high temperature, fertilisation , the male and female gametes
acid, bases. are derived from the same individual. Among
24. (a) Cleistogamous flower produce assured plants, self fertilization also called autogamy
seed set even in the absence of pollinations. is common in many cultivated species, eg.,
Plants such as Viola, Oxalis and Commelina. wheat and oats. However, self fertilization is
25. (c) The germ pores are apertures in the a form of inbreeding and does not allow for
exine layer of the pollen grain where the the mixing of genetic material; if it occurs
sporopollenin is absent. The germ pore helps over a number of generations it will result in
in the formation of the germ tube or pollen offspring being less vigorous and productive
tube and which makes its exit on germination. than those resulting from cross fertilization.
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 263
34. (a) Filiform apparatus helps in the entry of 42. (a) In campylotropous ovule, the body
pollen tube into a synergid in ovule. is curved but the embryosac is straight eg.
Filiform apparatus is in form of finger Capsella. In Anatropous, the body of ovule is
like projection comprising a core of micro inverted and gets fused with funiculus along
fibrils enclosed in a sheath. The filiform its whole length on one side (most of the
apparatus resembles transfer cells" meant angiosperms). In orthotropous condition the
for short distance movement of metabolites. body of ovule lies straight and upright over
The filiform apparatus responsible for the the funicle. e.g. Piperaceae, Polygonaceae.
absorption of food from the nucleus. 43. (b) In oogamy male and female gametes are
35. (d) MMC microspore mother cell is morphologically as well as physiologically
surrounded by a callose wall inner to the cell different. Female gametes are large and non-
wall. motile. Male gametes are small but motile.
36. (a) Generative cell which is a cell of the male 44. (a) In campylotropous ovule, the body is
gametophyte or pollen grain in seed plants curved but the embryo sac is straight eg.
that divides to give rise directly or indirectly Capsella. In anatropous ovule, the body
two sperms.
of ovule is inverted and gets fused with
37. (d) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus has funiculus along its whole length on one side
haploid number of chromosomes. While all
(most of the angiosperms). In orthotropous
other plant structures have diploid number of
condition, the body of ovule lies straight
chromosomes.
and upright over the funicle. e.g. Piperaceae,
38. (a) In a dicot plant general arrangement
Polygonaceae.
of nuclei in the embryosac is that 3 nuclei
45. (c) In flowering plants, archesporium cells
in 3 cells of egg apparatus (one egg cell &
2 synergids) at micropylar end and 2 polar undergo periclinal (transverse) division to
nuclei in almost middle region and 3 nuclei in form outer primary parietal layer and inner
the form of antipodals at the distal end from sporogenous cells. Primary parietal wall
micropyle, towards nucellus. So total nuclei after few more periclinal divisions form
3 + 2 + 3. anther wall and sporogenous cells give rise
39. (a) Aleurone layer is the layer formed by to sporogenous tissue.
the endospermic tissue in the members of 46. (d) Antipodal cells occur at the chalazal end
family Graminae eg. wheat, rice, maize etc. of the ovule. Synergids are the helping cells.
Obviously it will be a triploid tissue. So if 47. (b) In anatropous, ovule gets inverted and
synergids have 8 no. of chromosomes which micropyle is on the lower side. It is the most
are haploid than aleurone- layer must have 24 common type of ovule. In orthotropous ovule
chromosomes. micropyle is upward. This is the presentive
40. (c) After entering the ovule, the pollen tube type of ovule.
is attracted towards the micropylar end of 48. (d) The outermost covering of the pollen
the embryosac. The attractants are secreted grain is made of sporopollenin.
by synergids or help cells. The pollen tube
49. (d) Vallisneria exhibits hydrophily and Salvia
pierces one of the two synergids and bursts
is pollinated by honey bee. In bottle brush
it. The synergid is simultaneously destroyed.
pollination is carried out by birds.
41. (a) Circinotropous : The funicle is large and
50. (d) Monosporic type - eight nucleated
coiled around the ovule eg. Opuntia.
Polygonum type. In this types only one
Amphitropous : Both body of ovule and
megapore situated at chalazal end takes part
embryo sac are curved. The embryo sac
in the development of embryosac.
assumes horse-shoe shape. e.g. Papaveraceae.
 EBD_7325
264 BIOLOGY
Bisporic type - eight nucleated Allium type. 59. (a) It is a Polygonum type ovule in which
Tetrasporic type - eight nucleated Adoxa type. the body of ovule is straight i.e. funiculus,
51. (b) In gymnosperms the female gametophyte chalaza, embryo sac & micropyle lie in the
forming archegonia provides nourishment same vertical axis.
to the developing embryo. It later gets 60. (d) 200 seeds of pea would be produced
transformed into food-laden endosperm inside from 200 pollen grains and 200 embryo
the seed. Endosperm provides nourishment sac. 200 pollen grains will be formed by 50
for growth of seed at the time of seed microspore mother cell while 200 embryo sac
germination. Triploid endosperm occurs in will be formed by 200 megaspore mother cell
angiosperms. (because 3 will degenerate) so 250/500.
52. (a) Transfer of pollen grains by birds is 61. (d) Microsporocytes or microspore mother
known as ornithophily. They usually have cell after meiosis give rise to microspore. No
bright coloured flowers, tubular or cup shaped any other cell (in given options) divide by
and having a large quantity of nectar. meiosis.
53. (c) Each microspore mother cell gives rise 62. (c) Pollen g rains are found only in
to 4 microspores which develop into pollen Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
grains. 63. (c) Embryo sac is a female gametophyte
54. (a) Each microspore mother cells undergoes which contains the egg apparatus.
meiosis to produce four pollen grains. Thus, 64. (b) (a) Nucellus - 2n, antipodal cells - n
25 microspore mother cells are required to (b) Antipodal cells - n, egg cell - n
produce 100 pollen grains. (c) Antipodal cells - n, megaspore
55. (b) Pollination by insect is known as mother cell - 2n
Entomophily. Among insects bees are the (d) Nucellus - 2n primary endosperm
most common pollinators which pollinate nucleus - 3n
about 80% of the total insect pollinated Antipodal and egg cell are the product of
flowers. meiotic division and rest are not.
56. (d) Autogamy = Self Pollination 65. (d) They are all found in ovule (Nucellus,
Geitonogamy - (geiton = neighbour, gamos Embryo sac & Micropyle) while pollen grain
= marriage.) is male gametophyte.
i.e. when pollen grains are transferred to 66. (a) Fusion of male gamete with the egg is
the stigma of other flower of the same called syngamy.
plant (i.e. neighbouring flower). 67. (d) Androgenic haploids are produced by
Allogamy = Xenogamy – Cross young pollen grains because rest all are the
pollination. diploid tissue.
57. (b) In angiosperms the male gametes are 68. (c) Microspore is haploid, uninucleate,
carried by the pollen tube was discovered minute spore produced in large number as
by Strasburger in 1884. The process is called a result of meiosis in microspore mother
Siphonogamy. cell inside the microsporangia. These are
58. (d) Each pollen has two layered wall. The the first cell of gametophytic generation in
outer layer is thick, tough, cuticularised angiosperms.
called exine which is composed of a material 69. (c) Embryo sac is 7-celled structure. There
called "sporopollenin". It is highly resistant to is a large central cell with two polar nuclei,
biological and physical decomposition, due to egg apparatus with egg cell and 2 synergids
which pollens are preserved for a long time in present at micropylar end and its chalazal
fossils. end, 3 antipodal cells are present.
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 265
70. (c) In porogamy the tip of pollen tube enters of two male gametes with two different
the micropyle, pushes through the nucellar structures (egg and secondary nucleus) in the
tissue & finally pierces the egg-apparatus same female gametophyte is called double
end of the embryo sac. If pollen tube enters fertilization.
through chalazal side it is called chalazogamy 77. (d) The male gamete will be haploid (n). 2
& if it enters laterally it is called mesogamy. polar nuclei will be diploid (2n). Endosperm
71. (a) Each microspore divide by mitotic formed by fusion of male gamete with two
division making a smaller generative cell polar nuclei will be pentaploid.
and a larger vegetative cell or tube cell. If
generative cell is damaged then the normal
pollen tube will be formed because pollen tube
is formed by vegetative cell, not by generative 78. (b) In angiosperms, one male gamete fuses
cell of microspore. with the egg resulting in the formation of a
72. (a) Spores are formed in lower plants by diploid zygote. The other male gamete fuses
mitotic division and they may be diploid but with the two polar nuclei forming the primary
gametes are always made by meiosis & they endosperm nucleus . Thus type of fertilization
are always haploid. is called double fertilization.
73. (b) In majority of angiosper ms the 79. (a) Double fertilization in a characteristic
feature of angiosperms in which one male
pollen grains are shed from the anther at
gamete fuses with egg (called syngamy) and
bi-celled stage (one generative cell and one
other male gamete fuses with 2 polar nuclei
vegetative cell) but in some angiosperms the
(called triple fusion) to form endosperm.
generative cell divides forming 2 sperms prior
80. (b) In angiosperms one male gamete fuses
to the dehiscence of anther & pollen grains
with the egg to form diploid zygote. The
are shed at 3 celled stage.
process is called syngamy. The other male
74. (c) 100 zygotes requires 100 pollen grains
gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei to form
and 100 embryo sacs. 100 pollen grains are
triploid primary endosperm nucleus. The
formed from 25 microspore mother cells
process is called triple fusion. These two acts
while 100 embryo sacs are formed from 100 together known as double fertilization. The
functional megaspores which in turn are process was Ist demonstrated by Nawaschin
produced by 100 megaspore mother cells & Guignard in Fritillaria & Lilium.
since three out of four megaspores degenerate 81. (d) In angiosperms one male gamete fuses
in each case. with the egg to form diploid zygote. The
75. (a) Diploid female plant will have 2 polar process is called syngamy. The other male
nuclei (each haploid) with which one male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei to form
gamete form tetraploid male plant (male triploid primary endosperm nucleus. The
gamete of tetraploid plant will be diploid) process is called triple fusion. These two acts
fuses, making endosperm. So endosperm will together known as double fertilization. The
be tetraploid. process was Ist demonstrated by Nawaschin
& Guignard in Fritillaria & Lilium.
82. (c) Micropyle of seed performs the function
of absorbing water during germination.
76. (b) The second male gamete entering the 83. (b) The first cell of female gametophytic
ovary fuses with two haploid polar nuclei generation in angiosperm is megaspore. It
to form triploid primary endosperm nucleus undergoes three successive mitotic division
which develops into endosperm. This fusion to form 8-nucleated and 7-celled embryo sac.
 EBD_7325
266 BIOLOGY
84. (d) Exalbuminous (non-endospermic) 91. (b) Apomixis is an asexual type of
seeds usually store reserve food material in reproduction in which the plant embryos
cotyledons. In these seeds, the endosperm is grow from egg cells without being fertilized
used up and not present in mature seeds, e.g., by pollen-the male part of the plant. In
bean, gram and pea. citr us, apomictic embr yos arise from
85. (b) Perisperm is remnants of nucellus which maternal sporophytic tissue like nucellus and
is diploid (2n) but endosperm is triploid integuments in ovule. This type of embryony
(3n). Perisperm occurs in the seeds of Black is called adventive embryony.
pepper, coffee, castor, cardamum, Nymphaea. 92. (a) Scutellum is the modified cotyledon
Endosperm is the food laden tissue which observed in a grain of wheat or maize. It lies
is meant for nourishing the embryo in seed between embryo and the endosperm.
plants. In angiosperms the endosperm is 93. (b) The fig (Syconus) is an aggregate fruit,
formed as a result of vegetative fertilization, consisting of numerous seed-like pericarps
triple fusion or fusion of a male gamete with inclosed within a hollow, fleshy receptacle
diploid secondary nucleus of the central cell. where the flowers were attached. This fruit
86. (a) The seed coat develops from integuments developed from hypanthodium inflo­rescence.
originally surrounding the ovule. It is thick
94. (d) Cotyledons and testa respectively are
and hard in coconut which protect the embryo
edible parts in groundnut and pomegranate.
from mechanical injury and from drying out.
A cotyledon is a significant part of the embryo
87. (c) Dehydrogenase enzymes present in
within the seed of a plant. Upon germination,
living tissue reduce the tetrazolium chloride
the cotyledon may become the embryonic
to formazan, a reddish, water insoluble
first leaves of a seedling. Testa is often thick
compound. This reaction occurs in or near
or hard outer coat of a seed.
living cells which are releasing hydrogen in
95. (c) An example of a seed with endosperm,
respiration processes. Viable tissues produce a
perisperm, and caruncle is castor. Castor seed
normal red-colour, weak living tissue produce
is the source of castor oil, which has a wide
an abnormal colour. Dead tissues do not stain,
remaining usually white. variety of uses. The seeds contain between
40% and 60% oil that is rich in triglycerides.
88. (b) Endosperm is the nutritive tissue which
96. (c) In pea, endosper m is consumed
provides nourishment to the embryo in seed
by developing embryo in the seed. The
plant. Albuminous seeds retain a part of
endosperm is completely absorbed by the
endosperm as it is not completely used up
growing embryo and the food reserve gets
during embryo development (e.g., wheat,
stored in the cotyledons. Such seeds are called
maize, barley, castor, sunflower).
non endospermic or exalbuminous.
89. (c) Somatic embryogenesis is a process
97. (b) Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit
where a plant or embryo is derived from a
formed from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior
single somatic cell or group of somatic cells.
ovary is cypsela. Cypsela is also called
Somatic embryos are formed from plant
cells that are not normally involved in the inferior, false or pseudocarpic achene, the
development of embryos, i.e., ordinary plant thin fruit wall (developed from pericarp
tissue. No endosperm or seed coat is formed and thalamus)is attached to the seed at
around a somatic embryo. one point but the fruits develops from an
inferior, unilocular and uniovuled ovary, e.g.,
90. (a) Some fleshy fruits such as mango, plum
sunflower, marigold. Some cypsela develop
etc. usually have a single hard stone that
pappus for dispersal e.g. Soncus, Taraxacum.
encloses a seed, called drupe.
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 267
98. (a) The fleshy receptacle of syconus of 105. (d) It is involved in apomixis (asexual
fig encloses a number of Achenes. Achene reproduction).
is the thin dry pericarp is free from seed 106. (a) Nucellar polyembryony is reported in a
except at one point. The fruit develops from Citrus species.
a monocarpellary pistil having superior
107. (b) The development of fruit without
unilocular and ovuled ovary.
99. (a) The fruit of pomegranate is chambered, fertilization is called parthenocarpy.
developed from inferior ovary and has seeds Parthenocarpy is induced to produce
with succulent testa. The fruit is Balausta. It seedless variety of fruits. And since in
is a special type of false or pseudocarpic berry pomegranate seeds form edible part, it will
in which the syncarpous pistil consists of two loose its importance if parthenocarpy is
rows of fused carpels, one above the other. induced.
100. (a) Cycads is a group of gymnosperms 108. (a) Polyembryony refers to the formation
which have top shaped multiciliated male of more than one embryo within a seed of a
gametes and each mature seed of these plants
flowering plant. e.g. Citrus.
contain one embryo and two cotyledons e.g.,
Cycas. 109. (d) Development of an organism from
101. (d) Vivipary is the condition when seeds unfertilized egg is known as parthenogenesis
germinate on the plant. It is an undesirable and when a fruit is developed by this
character for annual crop plants because technique it is called parthenocarpy.
germinated seeds cannot be stored under 110. (d) Substitution of usual sexual reproduction
normal conditions for the next season. by a form of reproduction which does
102. (a) The embryos arising from the maternal not include meiosis and syngamy is called
sporophyte tissues are called adventive apomixis. In this phenomenon embryo is
embryos. In polyembryonate species the
developed by some other tissue without
adventive embryo arises by the proliferation
fertilization eg. nucellus or integuments or
of the nucellus cells.
unfertilized egg. Nucellus is a diploid tissue
103. (b) Embryology is the study of an individual's
life cycle after the fertilization takes place and so nucellar embryo is apomictic diploid.
till it develops into a new organism. 111. (a) A somatic cell in the nucellus directly
104. (c) In seeds developing from bitegmic forms an unreduced embryo sac and the
ovules the seed coat has two layers outer diploid egg parthenogenetically develops into
testa and inner tegmen. Testa develops from embryo i.e. formation of gametophyte from
outer integument whereas tegmen develops sporophyte without meiosis. It is known as
from inner integument. Apospory and it is a type of Apomixis.
 EBD_7325
Chapter

25 Human Reproduction

Topic 1: The Male Reproductive System 6. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from
(a) testicular lobules to rete testis [2010]
1. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive
(b) rete testis to vas deferens
and urinary system in the human male is:
(c) vas deferens to epididymis
(a) Urethra (b) Ureter [2014]
(d) epididymis to urethra
(c) Vas deferens (d) Vasa efferentia
7. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in :
2. The Leydig cells found in the human body
(a) fructose and calcium [2010]
are the secretory source of [2012]
(b) glucose and calcium
(a) Progesterone (b) intestinal mucus
(c) DNA and testosterone
(c) glucagon (d) androgens (d) ribose and potassium
3. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the 8. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in [2009]
human reproductive system gets blocked, the (a) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
gametes will not be transported from [2011] (b) glucose and certain enzymes but has no
(a) testes to epididymis calcium
(b) epididymis to vas deferens (c) fructose and certain enzymes but poor
in calcium
(c) ovary to uterus
(d) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(d) vagina to uterus 9. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a
4. The testes in humans are situated outside portion of human male reproductive system.
the abdominal cavity insides pouch called Select the correct set of the names of the parts
scrotum. The purpose served is for [2011] labelled A, B, C, D. [2009]
(a) maintaining the scrotal temperature A
lower than the internal body temperature
B
(b) escaping any possible compression by
C
the visceral organs
D
(c) providing more space for the growth of
epididymis
(d) providing a secondary sexual feature for
(a) vas deferens (A); seminal vesicle (B)
exhibiting the male sex
prostate (C); bulbourethral gland (D).
5. Sertoli cells are found in [2010]
(b) vas deferens (A); seminal vesicle (B)
(a) ovaries and secrete progesterone bulbourethral gland (C); prostate (D).
(b) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline (c) ureter (A); seminal vesicle (B); prostate
(c) seminiferous tubules and provide (C); bulbourethral gland (D)
nutrition to germ cells (d) ureter (A); prostate(B); seminal vesicle
(d) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin (C); bulbourethral gland (D).
Human Reproduction 269
10. Grey crescent is the area [2005] (a) (II) Endometrium(III) Infundibulum,
(a) at the point of entry of sperm into ovum (IV) Fimbriae
(b) just opposite to the site of entry of sperm (b) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V)
into ovum Cervix,
(c) at the animal pole (c) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI)
(d) at the vegetal pole Cervix
11. Location and secretion of Leydig’s cells are (d) (I) Perimetrium, (II)Myometrium, (Ill)
(a) Liver – cholesterol [1991] Fallopian tube
(b) Ovary – estrogen 17. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary
(c) Testes – testosterone is [2010]
(d) Pancreas – glucagon (a) isthmus (b) infundibulum
Topic 2: The Female Reproductive System (c) cervix (d) ampulla

12. Capacitation occurs in : [2017] Topic 3: Gametogenesis/Menstrual cycle/

(a) Epididymis Fertilisation and Implantation
(b) Vas deferens 18. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible
(c) Female reproductive tract only if [2016]
(d) Rete testis (a) the sperms are transported into vagina just
13. Capacitation refers to changes in the : after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
[2015 RS] (b) the ovum and sperms are transported
(a) Ovum before fertilization simultaneously to ampullary isthmic
(b) Ovum after fertilization junction of the fallopian tube
(c) Sperm after fertilization (c) the ovum and sperms are transported
(d) Sperm before fertilization simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic
14. Which of the following layers in an antral junction of the cervix
follicle is acellular ? [2015 RS] (d) the sperms are transported into cervix
(a) Theca interna (b) Stroma within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
(c) Zona pellucida (d) Granulosa 19. Select the incorrect statement : [2016]
15. The main function of mammalian corpus (a) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which
luteum is to produce: [2014] help in spermiogenesis
(a) estrogen only (b) LH triggers ovulation in ovary
(b) progesterone (c) LH and FSH decrease gradually during
(c) human chorionic gonadotropin the follicular phase
(d) relaxin only (d) LH triggers secretion of androgens from
16. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic the Leydig cells
sectional view of the female reproductive 20. Which of the following cells during gameto-
system of humans. Which one set of genesis is normally dipoid? [2015 RS]
three parts out of I-VI have been correctly (a) Spermatid
identified ? [2011] (b) Spermatogonia
(c) Secondary polar body
(d) Primary polar body
21. Which of the following events is not associated
with ovulation in human female?  [2015 RS]
(a) Full development of Graffin follicle
 EBD_7325
270 BIOLOGY
(b) Release of secondary oocyte (d) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes
(c) LH surge something that induces tissue (Y) to
(d) Decrease in estradiol develop
22. In human females, meiosis-II is not complete 27. The figure shows a section of human ovary.
until? [2015 RS] Select the option which gives the correct
(a) fertilization identification of A and B with function/
(b) uterine implantation characteristic [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) birth A
(d) puberty
23. Select the correct option describing gonado-
tropin activity in a normal pregnant female:
[2014]
(a) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the
thickening of endometrium.
(b) High level of FSH and LH facilitate B
implantation of the embryo. (a) A – Primary oocyte – it is the prophase
(c) High level of hCG stimulates the – I of the meiotic division
synthesis of estrogen and progesterone. (b) B – Corpus luteum – secretes progesterone
(d) High level of hCG stimulates the (c) A – Tertiary follicle – forms Graafian
thickening of endometrium. follicle
24. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of : (d) B – Corpus luteum – secretes estrogen
[NEET 2013] 28. Which one of the following statements is
(a) FSH (b) Oxytocin false in respect of viability of mammalian
(c) Vasopressin (d) Progesterone sperm? [2012]
25. What is the correct sequence of sperm (a) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours.
formation? [NEET 2013] (b) Survival of sperm depends on the pH
(a) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, of the medium and is more active in
spermatozoa, spermatid alkaline medium.
(b) Spermatogonia; spermatozoa, (c) Viability of sperm is determined by its
spermatocyte, spermatid motility.
(c) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, (d) Sperms must be concentrated in a thick
spermatid, spermatozoa suspension.
(d) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, 29. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of
spermatozoa total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The
26. Which of the following best illustrates result expected was [2012]
FEEDBACK in development? (a) High level of circulating FSH and LH in
[NEET Kar. 2013] the uterus to stimulate implantation of
(a) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes the embyro
something that slows down the growth (b) High level of circulatting HCG to
of tissue (Y) stimulate endometrial thickening
(b) Tissue (X) secretes RNA which changes (c) High level of FSH and LH in uterus to
the development of tissue (Y) stimulate endometrical thickening
(c) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes (d) High level of circulating HCG to
enzymes that inhibit the development stimulate estrogen and progesterone
of tissue (Y) synthesis
Human Reproduction 271
30. The secretory phase in the human menstrual (c) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure
cycle is also called [2012M] leading the sperm towards the ovum
(a) luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days (d) Acrosome serves no particular function
(b) follicular phase lasting for about 6 days 35. Which one of the following is the correct
matching of the events occurring during
(c) luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
menstrual cycle? [2009]
(d) follicular phase and lasts for about 13
(a) Proliferative phase: Rapid regeneration
days.
of myometrium and maturation of
31. What happens during fertilisation in humans Graffian follicle.
after many sperms reach close to the ovum?
(b) Development of cor pus luteum :
[2011M] Secretory phase and increased secretion
(a) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm of progesterone.
enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona (c) Menstruation: Breakdown of myome-
pellucida trium and ovum not fertilised.
(b) All sperms except the one nearest to the (d) Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak
ovum lose their tails level and sharp fall in the secretion of
(c) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms progesterone.
except one 36. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic
(d) Only two sperms nearest the ovum stages leading to the formation of sperms in
penetrate zona pellucida a mature human testes is: [2009]
32. About which day in a normal human (a) spermatogonia - spermatocyte - spermatid
menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of -sperms
LH (Popularly called LH-surge) normally (b) spermatid - spermatocyte - spermatogonia
occurs? [2011M] - sperms
(a) 14 day th
(b) 20 day
th
(c) spermatogonia - spermatid - spermatocyte
(c) 5th day (d) 11th day - sperms
33. The second maturation division of the (d) spermatocyte - spermatogonia - spermatid
mammalian ovum occurs [2010] - sperms
(a) shortly after ovulation before the ovum 37. Which one of the following is the most likely
makes entry into the fallopian tube root cause why menstruation is not taking
(b) until after the ovum has been penetrated place in regularly cycling human female?
by a sperm [2009]
(c) until the nucleus of the sperm has fused (a) maintenance of the hypertrophical
with that of the ovum endometrial lining
(d) in the graafian follicle following the first (b) maintenance of high concentration of
maturation division sex hormones in the blood stream
34. Which one of the following statements about (c) retention of well -developed corpus
human sperm is correct? [2010] luteum
(a) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure (d) fertilisation of the ovum
used for piercing and penetrating the egg, 38. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
resulting in fertilisation division, the male germ cells differentiate into
(b) The sperm lysins in the acrosome the [2008]
dissolve the egg envelope facilitating (a) primary spermatocytes
fertilisation
(b) secondary spermatocytes
 EBD_7325
272 BIOLOGY
(c) spermatids 46. Fertilizins are emitted by [1991, 1997]
(d) spermatozonia (a) immature eggs (b) mature eggs
39. Which one of the following statements is (c) sperms (d) polar bodies
incorrect about menstruation? [2008] 47. The estrous cycle is a characteristic of  [1995]
(a) During normal menstruation about (a) human males only
40 ml blood is lost (b) human females only
(b) The menstrual fluid can easily clot (c) mammalian males other than primates
(c) At menopause in the female, there (d) mammalian females other than primates
is especially abrupt increase in 48. At the end of first meiotic division, male
gonadotropic hormones sperm differentiates into [1994]
(d) The beginning of the cycle of (a) secondary spermatocyte
menstruation is called menarche (b) primary spermatocyte
(c) spermatogonium
40. In the human female, menstruation can be
(d) spermatid
deferred by the administration of [2007]
49. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
(a) combination of FSH and LH
nucleus occurs [1993]
(b) combination of estrogen and progesterone
(a) after entry of sperm before completion
(c) FSH only of fertilization
(d) LH only (b) after completion of fertilization
41. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones (c) before entry of sperm
is the immediate cause of menstruation? (d) without any relation of sperm entry
[2006] 50. Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by
(a) FSH (b) FSH-RH (a) capacitation [1993]
(c) Progesterone (d) Estrogen (b) release of lysin
42. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, (c) influx of Na+
which one of the following is unlikely?  [2005] (d) release of fertilizin
(a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate 51. Freshly released human egg has [1991]
(b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines (a) one Y-chromosome
(c) Estrogen secretion further decreases (b) one X-chromosome
(d) Primary follicle starts developing (c) two X-chromosomes
43. After ovulation the collapsed ovarian follicle (d) one X-chromosome & one Y-chromosome
shrinks and becomes filled with cell to form 52. Middle piece of mammalian sperm possesses
[1999] (a) mitochondria and centriole [1991]
(a) corpus luteum (b) corpus albicans (b) mitochondria only
(c) centriole only
(c) corpus atresia (d) corpus adiposum
(d) nucleus and mitochondria
44. The growth of corpus luteum is initiated by
53. How many sperms are formed from a
(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin [1999]
secondary spermatocyte? [1990]
(b) Follicle stimulating hormone
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) Luteinizing hormone (c) 2 (d) 1
(d) Prolactin 54. Sperm and egg nuclei fuse due to [1990]
45. In 28 day human ovarian cycle, ovulation (a) base pairing of their DNA and RNA
occurs on [1994, 1997] (b) formation of hydrogen bonds
(a) Day 1 (b) Day 5 (c) mutual attraction
(c) Day 14 (d) Day 28 (d) attraction of their protoplasts
Human Reproduction 273
55. Human eggs are [1989] 61. Identify the human developmental stage
(a) Alecithal (b) Microlecithal shown below as well as the related right
(c) Mesolecithal (d) Macrolecithal place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant
56. Egg is liberated from ovary in [1989] woman, and select the right option for the two
(a) secondary oocyte stage together. [2012M]
(b) primary oocyte stage
(c) oogonial stage
(d) mature ovum stage
Topic 4: Pregnancy and Embryonic
Development/Parturition and Lactation
Developmental Site of occurrence
57. Which of these is not an important component stage
of initiation of parturition in humans ? (a) Late morula Middle part of fallopian
[2015 RS] tube
(a) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(b) Blastula End part of fallopian tube
(b) Release of oxytocin
(c) Release of prolactin
(d) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio (c) Blastocyst Uterine wall
58. Which one of the following is not the function (d) 8 celled morula Starting point of fallopian
of placenta? It : [NEET 2013] tube
(a) secretes estrogen
62. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves
(b) facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and
transfer of which one of the following into the
waste material from embryo.
fallopian tube? [2010]
(c) secretes oxytocin during parturition
(a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(d) facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell
to embyo
stage
59. The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers
(c) Embryo of 32 cell stage
release of [NEET Kar. 2013]
(d) Zygote only
(a) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
(b) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary 63. The signals for parturition originate from
(c) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) (a) placenta only [2010]
from placenta (b) placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(d) Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) from (c) oxytocin released from mater nal
placenta pituitary
60. Signals for parturition originate from :  [2012] (d) fully developed foetus only
(a) Both placenta as well as fully developed 64. The first movements of the foetus and
foetus appearance of hair on its head are usually
(b) Oxytocin released from mater nal observed during which month of pregnancy?
pituitary [2010]
(c) Placenta only (a) Fourth month (b) Fifth month
(d) Fully developed foetus only (c) Sixth month (d) Third month
 EBD_7325
274 BIOLOGY
65. Which one of the following statements about 68. Which extra-embryonic membrane in
morula in humans is correct? [2010] humans prevents desiccation of the embryo
(a) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm inside the uterus? [2008]
(a) Chorion (b) Allantois
as an uncleaved zygote but much more
(c) Yolk sac (d) Amnion
DNA
69. During embr yonic development, the
(b) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less establishment of polarity along anterior/
DNA than in an uncleaved zygote posterior, dorsal/ventral or medial/lateral
(c) It has more or less equal quantity of axis is called [2003]
cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved (a) pattern formation
zygote (b) organizer phenomena
(d) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA (c) axis formation
than an uncleaved zygote (d) anamorphosis
70. Cleavage in mammalian egg is [2000]
66. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is
(a) superficial meroblastic
induced by [2009]
(b) discoidal meroblastic
(a) release oxytocin from pituitary (c) unequal holoblastic
(b) fully developed foetus and placenta (d) equal holoblastic
(c) differentiation of mammary glands 71. Extra-embr yonic membranes of the
(d) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid mammalian embryo are derived from  [1994]
67. A change in the amount of yolk and its (a) inner cell mass (b) trophoblast
distribution in the egg will affect [2009] (c) formative cells (d) follicle cells
72. Gonads develop from embryonic [1990]
(a) pattern of cleavage
(a) ectoderm
(b) number of blastomeres produced
(b) endoderm
(c) fertilization (c) mesoderm
(d) formation of zygote (d) both mesoderm and endoderm
Human Reproduction 275

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Urethra is a tube that connects the promotion of successful implantation of the
urinary bladder to the genitals for the removal human embryo. Seminal plasma in humans
of fluids from the body. The urethra travels is rich in fructose 1, calcium and certain
through the penis, and carries semen as well enzymes.
as urine. 9. (a) The human male reproductive system
2. (d) Leydig cells found in testis is the consists of a number of sex organs that
endocrine portion of the testis which are are a part of the human reproductive
present in between seminiferous tubules process. In diagram of male reproductive
secretes androgens or male sex hormone e.g. system of human, the point indicated
testosterone. by A,B,C,D are vas deferens, seminal
3. (a) If the vasa efferentia in the human vesicle, prostate and bulbourethral gland.
reproductive system get blocked the gametes 10. (b) On the surface of the egg opposite to the
will not be transformed from testes to point of sperm entry, the peripheral area of
epididymis. the egg becomes lighter in colour and assumes
4. (a) The testes are present in the scrotum a grey appearance. This area is crescentric in
which maintains the scrotal temperature shape and is known as the grey crescent.
below 2°C of the internal body temperature. 11. (c) Interstitial cells = Leydig’s cells are
5. (c) Sertoli cells are found in the walls of present in testes and secrete male hormone
seminiferous tubules of the testes. They testosterone.
anchor and provide nutrition to the developing 12. (c) Capacitation is increase in fertilising
germ cells especially the spermatids. capacity of sperms which occurs in female
6. (b) Vasa efferentia are ductules leading from reproductive tract. It is required to render
rete testis to vas deferens. The rete testis is an sperm to fertilize an oocyte.
anastomosing network of tubules located in 13. (d) Capacitation and acrosomal reaction
the hilum of the testicles that carries sperm occur before fertilization. The process of
from the seminiferous tubules to the vasa capacitation happens when sperms enter
efferentia. vagina. During this period, cholesterol
7. (a) Seminal plasma in human males are rich vesicles are removed from the acrosome.
in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. 14. (c) Zona pellucida is formed as a new
They provide a medium for transport of membrane by secondary oocyte around itself.
sperms, nourishes and activates sperms. 15. (a) The corpus luteum is a temporary
8. (d) Human seminal plasma is a complex endocrine structure involved in ovulation
mixture of proteins, glycoproteins, peptides, and early pregnancy. The main secretory
glycopeptides, and prostaglandins secreted product of corpus luteum is progesterone,
by organs of the male reproductive tract. The which is required for the establishment and
components of this fluid have been implicated maintenance of pregnancy.
in the suppression of immune response, 16. (b) In the given figure
agonistic effects on sperm-egg binding, and III - marked portion is Infundibulum
 EBD_7325
276 BIOLOGY
IV - marked portion is Fimbriae 24. (d)
V - marked portion is Cervix
17. (b) The part of fallopian tube closest to the
ovary is infundibulum. Infundibulum possess
finger-like projections called fimbriae that
help in collection of ovum after ovulation. It
leads to wider part of oviduct called ampulla.
The last part of oviduct is isthmus that has a
narrow lumen and joins the uterus.
18. (b) The word ampulla is derived from the
Latin word ‘flask’. Being the second portion
of the fallopian tube, it is the intermediate
dilated portion which immediately curves
over the ovary. This is the common site of
human fertilization as both the ovum and
sperms are simultaneously transported here.
19. (c) Considering the female reproductive
During menstrual or bleeding phase which
endocrinology, ovulation is the process of
comprises of 3 - 5 days out of 28 days menstrual
the monthly release of the viable oocyte from
cycle, the production of LH from the anterior
the ovary between the time of menarche and
lobe of the pituitary gland is considerably
menopause. During this time, there is a surge
reduced . The withdrawal of this hormone
in the production of LH and FSH, termed as
causes degeneration of corpus luteum and
gonadotropins, thereby initiating estradiol
therefore, progesterone production is reduced.
and progesterone secretion from the ovary.
Production of estrogens is also reduced in this
Both these hormones are very important for
phase.
the menstrual cycle.
25. (c) In testis, the immature male germ cells
20. (b) During gametogenesis, spermatogonia
or spermatogonia (2n) multiply by mitotic
are diploid because of undergoing the process
division and increase in number. Some
of meiosis.
spermatogonia (2n) known as primary
21. (d) In human female, during ovulation, LH
spermatocytes divide by meiotic division
surge takes place due to hypersecretion of
to form secondary spermatocytes (n). The
estrogen, which induces positive feed back
secondary spermatocytes undergo second
to anterior pituitary for secretion of LH.
meiotic division to produce spermatid which
22. (a) Meiosis-II does not complete untill are transformed into spermatozoa (sperms) by
fertilization occurs in females (in human the process called spermiogenesis.
being).
26. (d) During embryonic development, the
23. (c) Synthesis of estrogen and progesterone primary organiser signals the development of
due to high level of hCG is a normal another organ or tissue by secreting chemical
gonadotropic activity in a normal pregnant factors.
female. 27. (b) The corpus luteum is a temporary
endocrine structure in female mammals that
Human Reproduction 277
is involved in the production of relatively high females. In the ovary, the corpus luteum
levels of progesterone. A marked in the figure secretes estrogens and progesterone, which
shows primary follicle, a layer of granulosa are steroid hormones responsible for the
cells, surrounds each primary oocyte. A large thickening of the endometrium and its
number of these follicles degenerate during development and maintenance, respectively.
the phase from birth to puberty. 36. (a) The formation of sperms in mature
28. (d) Sperm is viable for 2-3 days. human testes completed in three important
29. (d) phases in gametogenesis- multiplication,
30. (c) The menstrual cycle is the scientific term growth and maturation phase. During these
for the physiological changes that can occur phases primarily germ cells change into
in fertile women for the purposes of sexual spermatogonia then spermatocyte during
reproduction and fertilization. The secretory growth phase which change into spermatoids
phase in the human menstrual cycle is also and spermatids into sperms.
called luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days. 37. (d) Fertilization of ovum is the most likely
During secretory phase, the endometrium root cause of when menstruation is not taking
prepares for the implantation of an embryo place in regularly cycling human female. In
and the corpus luteum is active and secretes order for fertilization to occur, one of these
progesterone hormone. sperm must attach itself to the ovum and
31. (a) During fertilisation in humans, many penetrate its outer surface. The fertilized
sperms reach close to the ovum. As sperm ovum will then continue travelling down the
comes in contact with the zona pellucida fallopian tube, taking several days until it
layer of the ovum it induces changes in the reaches the uterus. When it arrives, it attaches
membrane that blocks the entry of additional itself to the lining of the uterus and continues
sperm. The secretions of acrosome helps one to grow. If the ovum is not fertilized it will die
sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona and the progesterone and oestrogen hormone
pellucida. levels will drop. Without these hormones
32. (a) At 14th day of normal human menstrual the prepared uterus lining breaks up and is
cycle rapid secretion of LH normally occurs. released through the vagina. This is known
33. (b) In Oogenesis, the second maturation as a ‘period’.
division occurs until after the ovum has been 38. (b) In human, at the end of the first meiotic
penetrated by a sperm. Oogenesis involves division, the male germ cells differentrate into
the formation of haploid female gametes, the secondary spermatocyte.
ova from diploid egg mother cells, oogonia 39. (b) In human female, the periodic discharge
of ovary of female organism. of blood, mucus and cellular debris from
34. (b) Acrosome a small pointed structure at uterine wall from non-pregnant women of
the tip of nucleus. It breaks down just before sexual maturity is known as menstrual cycle.
fertilization, releasing hydrolytic enzymes Few hours before the start of mensuration, the
that assist penetration between follicle cells spiral arterioles constrict one by one resulting
that surrounds the ovum, thus facilitating into the blanch mucosa. The mucosa shrinks
fertilization. and the death of the blood deprived tissues
35. (b) The corpus luteum is essential for takes place. Blood clotting doesn’t occur due
establishing and maintaining pregnancy in to presence of fibrinolysin.
 EBD_7325
278 BIOLOGY
40. (b) The progesterone and estradiol continue 46. (b) A glycoprotein fertilizin (composed of
the hypertrophy of endometrial lining in the monosaccharides and amino acids) is secreted
uterus and fallopian tubes and maintain it by a mature egg. Penetrating sperm also has
throughout pregnancy. Progesterone is also some proteinaceous substance on its surface
necessary for the proper implantation of the called antifertilizin. Due to the interaction
foetus in the uterine wall. It stimulates the between fertilizin & antifertilizin, the sperm
endometrial glands to secrete a nutrient fluid adheres to the egg.
for the foetus, hence the term secretory phase. 47. (d) Estrous cycle is the characteristic of
The progesterone inhibits the release of FSH
mammalian females other than primates. It
so that it may not develop additional follicles
is due to estrogen hormone. Estrous is the
and eggs.
period during which ovulation occurs and
41. (c) Progesterone hor mone which is
the females mate with male.
secreted by the corpus luteum in the ovaries
48. (a) After first meiotic division primary
is responsible to stop ovulation (during
spermatocyte (diploid) gives rise to two
pregnancy) and fixes the foetus to the uterine
wall, facilitates placenta formation and secondary spermatocytes (haploid).
controls the foetus development in uterus. 49. (a) The entry of sperm stimulate the
If this hormone is withdrawn then fixation secondary oocyte to resume and complete the
of foetus to uterine wall will not take place, suspended meiosis II. This produces a haploid
formation of placenta will also not take place, mature ovum and a second polar body. The
ovulation starts from the ovaries and hence in second polar body and sperm tail immediately
human female menstruation starts. degenerate.
42. (c) Since cor pus luteum degenerates 50. (d) Egg secretes fertilizin due to which
so progesterone also decreases rapidly acrosome of sperm secretes antifertilizin
(progesterone is essential for maintenance and due to their reaction sperm adheres to
of pregnancy). Also estrogen continues to egg. The acrosome reaction is the reaction
curve growth of the endometrium which which occurs in the acrosome of the sperm as
ultimately becomes thick enough to break it approaches the zona pellucida. In mammals
down and cause menstruation. Hence choice the acrosome reaction releases hyaluronidase
(c) is incorrect as estrogen secretion does and acrosin; their role in fertilization is not
not decreases further. Primary follicles start
yet clear. It also alters a patch of pre-existing
developing.
sperm plasma membrane so that it can fuse with
43. (a) After ovulation ovarian follicle, undergo
the egg plasma membrane.
several stages of degeneration. The follicular
51. (b) Human female has X X chromosomes.
cells enlarge and fill with a yellow fluid to
When eggs formed each egg carries 22
form corpus luteum.
autosomes & one X chromosome. In human
44. (c) Luteinizing hormone causes ovulation.
The remaining cells of ovarian follicle are male each sperm carries 22 autosomes &
stimulated by LH to develop corpus luteum. either X or Y-chromosomes.
45. (c) The 28 days human ovarian cycle is 52. (a) Sperm has : (i) head in which acrosome
called menstrual cycle. On 14th day a mature & nucleus are present
ovarian follicle leaves ovary & comes into the (ii) middle piece in which it contains many
fallopian tube. mitochondria
Human Reproduction 279
(iii) A long & highly motile tail. produced by the embryo. The placenta
(A short neck is also present between is connected to the embryo through an
middle piece & head which has centrioles umbilical cord which helps in the transport of
and may sometimes regarded as a part substances to and from the embryo. Placenta
of middle piece) also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces
53. (c) Primary spermatocyte (46) divides several hormones like human chorionic
through meiosis to give two secondary gonadotropin (hCG), human placental
sper matocytes (23). Each secondar y lactogen (hPL) , estrogens, progesterone etc.
spermatocyte divides through mitosis 59. (a) Parturition is induced by a complex
giving rise to two spermatids (23) which on neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals for
spermeogenesis mature as sperms. parturition originate from the fully developed
54. (d) Sperm or male gamete fuses with egg or foetus and the placenta which induce mild
female gamete because of the attraction of uterine contractions called foetal ejection
their protoplast. Some chemicals are secreted reflex. This triggers release of oxytocin from
by ovule or egg wall to attract the male gamete the maternal pituitary.
or sperm. 60. (a) The signals for child birth (parturition)
55. (a) Eggs are of 4 types regarding the amount originate from the fully matured foetus
of yolk present in them : and placenta which induce mild uterine
(i) Alecithal Egg : Almost free of yolk eg. contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
most mammals like man. 61. (c) Blastocyst is a thin-walled hollow
(ii) Microlecithal Egg : Very small amount structure in early embryonic development
of yolk eg. Branchiostoma. that contains a cluster of cells called the inner
(iii) Mesolecithal Egg : Moderate amount of cell mass from which the embryo arises. The
yolk eg. Frog’s egg outer layer of cells gives rise to the placenta
and other supporting tissues needed for fetal
(iv) Macrolecithal Egg : Large amount of
development within the uterus while the
yolk eg. Reptiles, birds and egg-laying
inner cell mass cells give rise to the tissues of
mammals.
the body. The blastocyst reaches the womb
56. (a) Egg is liberated from the ovary (ovulation)
(uterus) around day 5, and implants into the
at secondary oocyte stage when the meiosis
uterine wall on about day 6.
II is arrested in secondary oocyte. It will be
62. (a) In vitro fertilization is a process where
induced by the sperm.
fertilization of egg occurs outside the mother’s
57. (c) The role of prolactin is not concerned
womb. This method is used as a major
with initiation of parturition in humans.
treatment for infertility. This method involves
Prolactin is responsible for milk synthesis
the removal of eggs from the female ovaries.
in mammary glands. When the levels of
This egg is then allowed to fertilize with sperm
estrogen and progesterone become low at
in a fluid medium in a test tube. The zygote is
parturition, then anterior pituitary activates
allowed to develop for a week. Either zygote
to release prolactin.
or early embryo up to 8 blastomeres is then
58. (c) Function of placenta – The placenta
transferred into the fallopian tube to complete
facilitate the supply of oxygen and nutrients
its further development. If the embryo is with
to the embryo and also removal of carbon
more than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred
dioxide and excretory/waste materials
 EBD_7325
280 BIOLOGY
into uterus for successful pregnancy. A baby by the amount of yolk in the egg. In eggs
conceived by fertilization that occurs outside with less yolk, cleavages are equal, and the
mother body is called test tube baby. resulting blastomeres are of similar size. If
63. (b) Parturition is the process of delivery the yolk is localized, such as in frog eggs, then
of the foetus. The signals for parturition cleavages are unequal, ­the cells derived from
originate from the fully developed foetus the yolky region (the vegetal pole) are larger
and placenta that induce uterine contraction than those derived from the region without
called foetal ejection reflex. This triggers the yolk (the animal pole).
release of oxytocin hormone from pituitary. 68. (d) Amnion is an extraembryonic membrane
This in turn leads to expulsion of the baby in human prevents desiccation of the embryo
out of uterus. inside the uterus. Amnion is a membrane that
64. (b) In human beings, after one month of encloses the embryo of reptiles, birds and
pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is formed. By mammals within the amniotic cavity. This
end of second month pregnancy, the foetus cavity is filled with amniotic fluid, in which
develops limbs and digits. By end of 12 weeks, the embryo is protected from dessication and
major organ systems are formed. After fifth external pressure.
month, the first movement of foetus and 69. (b) An organizer is a signal aligning center
appearance of hair on its head are observed. that directs the development of embryo or
By the end of 24 weeks, the body is covered part of embryo, e.g. in amphibians, it is dorsal
with hairs, eye lids separate and eyelashes are tip of blastophore.
formed. 70. (c) Cleavage in the human zygote is holo-
65. (a) Morula is a solid ball contained within blastic i.e. it divides the zygote and the blas-
the zone pellucida. It has almost equal tomeres completely into daughter cells. But
quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote it is unequal as the blastomeres differ in size.
but much more DNA. 71. (b) Four extra-embryonic membranes are
66. (b) Foetal ejection reflex in human female present in mammals which originally arise
is induced by fully developed foetus and from trophoblast viz. amnion, chorion,
placenta. When a woman is in a lithotomy allantois and yolk sac. The trophoblast is the
or semi-sitting position, the Foetal Ejection outermost layer of cells in morula.
Reflex is impaired and the increased pain 72. (c) Ectoderm produces – Liver, Epidermis,
caused by the sacrum’s inability to move as glands, hair, nervous system etc.
the baby descends can be intolerable. Endoderm produces – Pancreas, lining of
67. (a) A change in the amount of yolk and its urinary bladder etc.
distribution in the egg will affect pattern of Mesoderm produces – Dermis, most muscles,
cleavage. The pattern of cleavage is influenced Kidneys, Gonads etc.
 Chapter

26 Reproductive Health

Topic 1: Reproductive Health/Population 4. Hysteresctomy is surgical removal of :

Explosion & Birth Control (a) Prostate gland [2015 RS]
1. The function of copper ions in copper (b) Vas-deference
releasing IUD's is :    [2017] (c) Mammary glands
(a) They inhibit gametogenesis (d) Uterus
(b) They make uterus unsuitable for 5. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in
implantation which:      [2014]
(c) They inhibit ovulation (a) small part of the fallopian tube is
(d) They suppress sperm motility and removed or tied up.
fertilising capacity of sperms
(b) ovaries are removed surgically.
2. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the
following statement is incorrect ? [2016] (c) small part of vas deferens is removed or
(a) It is usually done when a woman is tied up.
between 14-16 weeks pregnant. (d) uterus is removed surgically.
(b) It is used for prenatal sex determination 6. Which of the following is a hormone releasing
(c) It can be used for detection of Down Intra Uterine Device (IUD)?     [2014]
syndrome (a) Multiload 375 (b) LNG - 20
(d) It can be used for detection of Cleft (c) Cervical cap (d) Vault
palate 7. Which of the following cannot be detected in
3. Which of the following approaches does not a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
give the defined action of contraceptive ?
(a) Sex of the foetus [NEET 2013]
[2016]
(b) Down syndrome
(a) Barrier methods prevent fertilization
(c) Jaundice
(b) Intra uterine Increase phagocytosis
(d) Klinefelter syndrome
devices of sperms, suppress
8. One of the legal methods of birth control is :
sperm motility and
[NEET 2013]
fertilizing capacity of
(a) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to
sperms
17 of the menstrual cycle
(c) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry
(b) by having coitus at the time of day break
contraceptives of sperms, prevent
(c) by a premature ejaculation during coitus
ovulation and
(d) abortion by taking an appropriate
fertilization
medicine
(d) Vasectomy Prevents
spermatogenesis
 EBD_7325
282 BIOLOGY
9. One of the following is not a method of (c) A-(c), B-(d), C-(a), D-(b)
contraception – which one? [NEET Kar. 2013] (d) A-(b), B-(c), C-(a), D-(d)
(a) Tubectomy 14. Copper-T is a device that prevents[2000]
(b) Condoms (a) implantation of blastocyst
(c) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and (b) ovulation
vasopressin (c) fertilization
(d) Lippes loop (d) egg maturation
10. What is the figure given below showing in
particular ? [2012] Topic 2: Medical Termination of Pregnancy/
Sexually Transmitted Diseases/Infertility
15. In case of a couple where the male is having a
very low sperm count, which technique will
be suitable for fertilisation ?  [2017]
(a) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian
(a) Ovarian cancer (b) Uterine cancer transfer
(c) Tubectomy (d) Vasectomy (b) Artificial Insemination
11. Which one of the following is the most widely (c) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
accepted method of contraception in India, (d) Intrauterine transfer
as at present ? [2011]
16. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as:
(a) Cervical caps
[2015 RS]
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Diaphragms (a) Implantation of embryo at site other than
(d) IUDs. (Intra uterine devices) uterus.
12. Cu ions released from copper - releasing Intra (b) Implantation of defective embryo in the
Uterine Devices (IUDs): [2010] uterus
(a) make uterus unsuitable for implantation (c) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal
(b) increase phagocytosis of sperms imbalance.
(c) suppress sperm motility (d) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality.
(d) prevent ovulation 17. A childless couple can be assisted to have a
13. Given below are four methods (A-D) and child through a technique called GIFT. The
their modes of action (a-d) in achieving full form of this technique is : [2015 RS]
contraception. Select their correct matching (a) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
from the four options that follow: [2008] (b) Gamete internal fertillization and
Method Mode of Action transfer
A. The pill (a) Prevents sperms (c) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
reaching cervix (d) Gemete inseminated fallopian transfer
B. Condom (b) Prevents implantation 18. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF
C. Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation involves transfer of:     [2014]
D. Copper T (d) Semen contains no (a) Ovum into the fallopian tube.
sperms (b) Zygote into the fallopian tube.
Matching: (c) Zygote into the uterus.
(a) A-(c), B-(a), C-(d), D-(b) (d) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the
(b) A-(d), B-(a), C-(b), D-(c) fallopian tube.
Reproductive Health 283
19. Artificial insemination mean: [NEET 2013] (c) whose cervical canal is too narrow to
(a) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test allow passage for the sperms
tube containing ova (d) who cannot provide suitable environment
(b) Artificial introduction of sperms of a for fertilisation
healthy donor into the vagina 25. Consider the statements given below
(c) Introduction of sperms of a healthy regarding contraception and answer as
donor directly into the ovary directed thereafter: [2008]
(d) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to (i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy
a test tube containing ova (MTP) during first trimester is generally
20. Which one of the following statements safe
is correct regarding Sexually Transmitted (ii) Generally chances of conception are nil
Diseases (STD)? [NEET Kar. 2013] until mother breast-feeds the infant upto
two years
(a) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting
a STD are very little (iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are
effective contraceptives
(b) A person may contact syphilis by sharing
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken
milk with one already suffering from the
upto one week after coitus to prevent
disease
conception
(c) Haemophilia is one of the STD
Which two of the above statements are
(d) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia
correct?
are both STD
(a) ii and iii (b) iii and iv
21. The stage transferred into the uterus after
(c) i and iii (d) i and ii
induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory
26. The permissible use of the technique
is [NEET Kar. 2013]
amniocentesis is for [2010]
(a) Zygote
(a) detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(b) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
(b) artificial insemination
(c) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage
(c) transfer of embryo into the uterus of the
(d) Morula
surrogate mother
22. The test-tube Baby Programme employs
(d) detecting any genetic abnormality
which one of the following techniques [2012]
27. Test tube baby is one who [1996, 2003]
(a) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(a) is born out of artificial insemination
(b) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(b) has undergone development in a test tube
(c) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIET)
(c) is born out of the technique of fertilization
(d) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
in vitro
23. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
(d) has been developed without fertilization
is considered safe up to how many weeks of
pregnancy? [2011] 28. Amniocentesis is a technique [1997]
(a) Eight weeks (b) Twelve weeks (a) by which the essential amino acids in the
(c) Eighteen weeks (d) Six weeks body can be estimated
24. The technique called gamete intrafallopian (b) by which any chromosomal anomalies
transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those in the foetus can be detected
females: [2011M] (c) in which the sex of the foetus can be
(a) who cannot produce an ovum reversed
(b) who cannot retain the foetus inside (d) that can be used for correcting genetic
uterus. disorders of the foetus
 EBD_7325
284 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Cu2+ interfere in the sperm movement, 6. (b) An intrauterine device (IUD) is a small
which suppress the sperm motility and contraceptive device, often ‘T’-shaped, often
fertilising capacity of sperms. containing either copper or levonorgestrel,
2. (d) Amniocentesis (also referred to as which is inserted into the uterus. They
amniotic fluid test or AFT) is a medical are one form of long-acting reversible
procedure used in prenatal diagnosis of contraception which is the most effective
chromosomal abnormalities and fetal types of reversible birth control. The LNG-20
infections, and also used for sex determination is so-called because it releases 20 micrograms
in which a small amount of amniotic fluid, of levonorgestrel per 24 hours, compared with
which contains fetal tissues, is sampled 30 micrograms of levonorgestrel in some
from the amniotic sac. Cleft palate is a mini-Pills.
developmental abnormality which can only 7. (c) Jaundice cannot be detected in a
be detected by sonography. developing foetus by amniocentesis. It is
3. (d) Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for a foetal sex determination test based on
male sterilization or permanent contraception. chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid
During the procedure, the male vas deferens surrounding the developing embryo. It is now
are severed and then tied or sealed in a legally ban in India.
manner so as to prevent sperm from entering 8. (d) Medical termination of pregnancy
into the seminal stream (ejaculate) and (MTP) or induced abortion become legal in
thereby prevent fertilization. India from 1971 with some strict conditions
4. (d) A hysterectomy is a surgery in which to avoid its misuse. Such restrictions are
woman’s uterus is removed. It is adopted for important to check indiscriminate and illegal
the treatment of uterine fibroids and cancer female foeticides which are reported to be
of uterine zone. high in India. All the other options are of
5. (a) Tubectomy also referred to as tubal natural methods of contraception.
sterilization is a surgical procedure done 9. (c) Oxytocin is birth hormone and acts
on women as a permanent method of on the smooth muscles of our body and
contraception. In this method fallopian stimulates their contraction. Vasopressin acts
tubes are blocked so that the ova or eggs mainly at the kidney and stimulates resorption
are prevented from travelling to the uterus of water and electrolytes and reduces loss of
from the ovary. This prevents any future water through urine. Hence, it is also called
pregnancies to occur after the surgical as anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).
procedure. 10. (c) The figure shows the tubectomy. This
Fallopian tubes is a surgical method to prevent pregnancy
in women. In tubectomy small part of the
fallopian tube is removed or tied through a
small cut in the abdomen or through vagina.
It is very effective method but reversibility is
Ovary
Uterus very poor.
Cervix 11. (d) Intra uterine device (IUD) is a method of
Vagina contraception in India. The IUD is inserted
in the woman’s uterus through the cervix.

Reproductive Health 285
12. (c) Cu ions released by copper releasing intra trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B and AIDS are
uterine devices suppresses sperm motility. some of the common STDs. Haemophilia is
Intra-uterine devices are inserted by sex-linked recessive disease, which show its
doctors in the uterus through vagina. They are transmission from unaffected carrier female to
available as the non-medicated IUDs, copper some of male progeny. Sickle cell anaemia is
releasing IUDs and hormone­releasing IUDs. an autoimmune linked recessive trait in which
13. (a) A. The pill — Prevents ovulation both the partners are carrier for the gene.
B. Condom — Prevents sperm 21. (d) In Intra-Uterine Transfer (IUT) embryo
reaching cervix with more than 8-blastomeres stage (morula)
C. Vasectomy — Semen contains no is used for transfer into the uterus.
sperms 22. (d) Test tube baby programme employs
D. Copper-T — Prevent zygote intrafallopion transfer (ZIFT)
implantation. technique. In this technique fusion of ovum
14. (a) Copper ‘T’ is an intrauterine device and sperm is done outside the body of woman
which prevents the fertilized egg becoming to form zygote which is allowed to divide
implanted in the wall of the womb. forming 8 blastomeres, then it is transfered
15. (b) Infertility cases due to inability of the fallopion tube of the woman.
the male partner to inseminate the female 23. (b) Medical termination of pregnancy
or due to very low sperm count in the is considered safe up to twelve weeks of
ejaculates, could be corrected by using pregnancy.
artificial insemination (AI) technique. In this 24. (a) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is
procedure semen is injected directly into the recommended for those females who cannot
vagina or uterus. produce an ovum. In this process, the eggs
16. (a) In ectopic pregnancies, the implantation of the donor woman are removed and in a
of embryo does not occur in uterus but at form of mixture with sperm transferred into
other site. fallopian tube of another woman who cannot
17. (b) IVF (In vitro Fertilization) is the process produce ovum, but can provide suitable
of fertilization by manually combining an environment for fertilization. Thus in GIFT,
egg and sperm in a laboratory dish. The
site of fertilization is fallopian tube, not
process involves monitoring and stimulating
laboratory.
a woman’s ovulatory process, removing
25. (c) Statements i and iii are correct.
ovum or ova (egg or eggs) from the woman’s
ovaries and letting sperm fertilise them in a - Medical Termination of Pregnancy
fluid medium in a laboratory. The fertilised (MTP) during first trimester is generally
egg (zygote) is cultured for 2-6 days in a safe.
growth medium and is then transferred to - Intrauterine device like copper-T are
the mother’s uterus with the intention of effective contraceptives.
establishing a successful pregnancy. 26. (d) Amniocentesis involves prenatal
18. (a) GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) diagnosis of metabolic error and other genetic
is a technique helping to have a child. abnormalities.
19. (b) In Artificial Insemination (AI) tech- 27. (c) In test tube baby, fertilization of the sperm
nique, the semen collected either from the and the ova is carried out in lab conditions
husband or a healthy donor is artificially (in vitro) and when the embryos have reached
introduced either into the vagina or into the the 32-celled stage, it is implanted back into
uterus (IUI – intrauterine insemination) of the uterus of the mother.
the female. 28. (b) Amniocentesis is the most widely used
20. (a) STDs are more common in 15-24 method for prenatal detection of many
years age group. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genetic disorders. It is also a technique used
genital herpes, chlamydiasis, genital warts, for determining the sex of the foetus.
 EBD_7325
Chapter

27 Principles of
Inheritance and Variation

Topic 1: Mendel's law of Inheritance  Column-I Column-II

Inheritance of one gene/Inheritance of two genes (A) Dominance (i) Many genes govern
a single character
1. The genotypes of a husband and Wife are
(B) Codominance (ii) In a heterozygous
IAIB and IAi.
organism only one
Among the blood types of their children, how
allele expresses itself
many different genotypes and phenotypes are
(C) Pleiotropy (iii) In a heterozygous
possible? [2017]
organism both
(a) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(b) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes alleles express
(c) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes themselves fully
(d) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes (D) Polygenic (iv) A single gene
2. Among the following characters, which inheritance influences many
one was not considered by Mendel in his characters
experiments on pea ?    [2017] (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular (a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(b) Seed – Green or Yellow → d → d → d (b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) Pod – Inflated or Constricted (c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) Stem – Tall or Dwarf (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
3. Which one from those given below is the period 6. In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more
for Mendel's hybridization experiments? parental-type offspring were produced than
the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates
[2017]
[2016]
(a) 1840 - 1850 (b) 1857 - 1869
(a) the two genes are located on two
(c) 1870 - 1877 (d) 1856 - 1863
different chromosomes.
4. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed (b) chromosomes failed to separate during
with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. meiosis.
When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting (c) the two genes are linked and present on
genotypes were in the ratio of [2016] the same chromosome.
(a) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous : Tall (d) both of the characters are controlled by
heterozygous : Dwarf more than one gene.
(b) 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall heterozygous : Tall 7. A cell at telophase stage is observed by a
homozygous : Dwarf student in a plant brought from the field. He
(c) 3 : 1 : : Tall : Dwarf tells his teacher that this cell is not like other
(d) 3 : 1 : : Dwarf : Tall cells at telophase stage. There is no formation
5. Match the terms in Column-I with their of cell plate and thus the cell is containing
description in Column-II and choose the more number of chromosomes as compared
correct option : [2016] to other dividing cells. This would result in
[2016]
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 287
(a) Aneuploidy (c) Complementary genes
(b) Polyploidy (d) Inhibitory genes
(c) Somaclonal variation 16. In a population of 1000 individuals 360
(d) Polyteny belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the
8. How many pairs of contrasting characters remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the
in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his frequency of allele A in the population is:
experiments ? [2015 RS] (a) 0.4 (b) 0.5 [2014]
(a) Six (b) Eight (c) 0.6 (d) 0.7
(c) Seven (d) Five 17. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry
9. Which is the most common mechanism of and have sufficiently large number of children
genetic variation in the population of sexually these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood
reproducing organism? [2015 RS] group: ‘AB’ blood group: ‘B’ blood group in
(a) Chromosomal aberrations 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein
(b) Genetic drift electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’
(c) Recombination and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group
(d) Transduction individuals. This is an example of :
10. Alleles are [2015 RS] (a) incomplete dominance [NEET 2013]
(a) true breeding homozygotes (b) Partial dominance
(b) different molecular forms of a gene (c) Complete cominance
(c) heterozygotes (d) Codominance
(d) different phenotype 18. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross
11. In his classic experiments on Pea plants, in which the F1 generation resembles both the
Mendel did not use [2015 RS] parents? [NEET 2013]
(a) Pod length (b) Seed shape
(a) Law of dominance
(c) Flower position (d) Seed colour
(b) Inheritance of one gene
12. A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman
(c) Co-dominance
with blood group ‘B’. What are all the possible
blood groups of their offsprings ? [2015 RS] (d) Incomplete dominance
(a) A,B and AB only 19. Which of the following statements is not true
of two genes that show 50% recombination
(b) A,B,AB and O
frequency? [NEET 2013]
(c) O only
(a) The genes are tightly linked
(d) A and B only
(b) The genes show independent assortment
13. Multiple alleles are present : [2015 RS]
(a) At different loci on the same chromosome (c) If the genes are present on the same
(b) At the same locus of the chromosome chromosome, they undergo more than
(c) On non-sister chromatids one crossovers in every meiosis
(d) On different chromosomes (d) The genes may be on different chromosomes
14. A gene showing codominance has:[2015 RS] 20. Genetic variation in a population arises due
(a) alleles tightly linked on the same to [NEET Kar. 2013]
chromosome (a) Mutations only
(b) alleles that are recessive to each other (b) Recombination only
(c) both alleles independently expressed in (c) Mutations as well as recombination
the heterozygote (d) Reproductive isolation and selection
(d) one allele dominant on the other 21. A certain road accident patient with
15. Fruit colour in squash in an example of : unknown blood group needs immediate
(a) Recessive epistasis [2014] blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at
(b) Dominant epistasis once offers his blood.What was the blood
group of the donor? [2012]
(a) Blood group B (b) Blood group AB
 EBD_7325
288 BIOLOGY
(c) Blood group O (d) Blood group A (d) One X and one Y chromosome
22. A test cross is carried out to [2012M] 28. Which one of the following cannot be
(a) determine the genotype of a plant at F2. explained on the basis of Mendel’s Law of
(b) predict whether two traits are linked. Dominance? [2010]
(c) assess the number of alleles of a gene. (a) The discrete unit controlling a particular
(d) determine whether two species or character is called a factor
varieties will breed successfully. (b) Out of one pair of factors one is
23. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed dominant, and the other recessive
that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are (c) Alleles do not show any blending and
same as 1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of: [2012] both the characters recover as such in F2
(a) Co-dominance generation.
(b) Dihybrid cross (d) Factors occur in pairs
(c) Monohybrid cross with complete 29. The genotype of a plant showing the
dominant phenotype can be determined by:
dominance
(a) test cross [2010]
(d) Monohybrid cross with incomplete
(b) dihybrid cross
dominance
24. When two unrelated individuals or lines are (c) pedigree analysis
crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is often (d) back cross
superior to both parents. This phenomenon 30. Select the correct statement from the ones
is called: [2011] given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
(a) heterosis (b) transformation [2010]
(c) splicing (d) metamorphosis (a) Tightly linked genes on the same
25. A person with unknown blood group under chromosome show higher recombinations
ABO system, has suffered much blood loss (b) Genes far apart on the same chromosome
in an accident and needs immediate blood show very few recombinations
transfusion. His one friend who has a valid (c) Genes loosely linked on the same chro-
certificate of his own blood type offers blood mosome show similar recombinations as
donation without delay. What would have the tightly linked ones
been the type of blood group of the donor (d) Tightly linked genes on the same chromo-
friend? [2011] some show very few recombinations
(a) Type B (b) Type AB 31. A common test to find the genotype of a
hybrid is by [2007]
(c) Type O (d) Type A
(a) crossing of one F2 progeny with female
26. Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves
crossing [2011M] parent
(a) between two genotypes with recessive (b) studying the sexual behaviour of F1
trait progenies
(b) between two F1 hybrids (c) crossing of one F1 progeny with male
(c) the F1 hybrid with a double recessive parent
genotype.
(d) between two genotypes with dominant (d) crossing of one F2 progeny with male
trait parent.
27. Which one of the following conditions of 32. Two genes R and Y are located very close
the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a on the chromosomal linkage map of maize
normal human female child ? [2011M] plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are
(a) Two X chromosomes hybridized, the F2 segregation will show
(b) Only one Y chromosome [2007]
(c) Only one X chromosome (a) segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
ratio
(b) segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 289
(c) higher number of the parental types 39. Phenotype of an organism is the result of
(d) higher number of the recombinant types. [2006]
33. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to (a) cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant (b) environmental changes and sexual
is crossed with a green seeded plant, what dimorphism
ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would (c) genotype and environment interactions
you expect in F1 generation ? [2007] (d) mutations and linkages
(a) 9 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 40. How many different kinds of gametes will
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 50 : 50 be produced by a plant having the genotype
AABbCC ? [2006]
34. Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an
(a) Four (b) Nine
example of [2007]
(c) Two (d) Three
(a) point mutation 41. In order to find out the different types of
(b) polygenic inheritance gametes produced by a pea plant having the
(c) codominance genotype AaBb, it should be crossed to a plant
(d) chromosomal aberration. with the genotype: [2005]
35. A human male produces sperms with the (a) AABB (b) AaBb
genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to (c) aabb (d) aaBB
two diallelic characters in equal proportions. 42. At a particular locus, frequency of ‘A’ allele
What is the corresponding genotype of this is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be
person? [2007] the frequency of heterozygotes in a random
(a) AaBB (b) AABb mating population at equilibrium? [2005]
(c) AABB (d) AaBb (a) 0.36 (b) 0.16
36. Which one of the following is an example of (c) 0.24 (d) 0.48
polygenic inheritance ? [2006] 43. The salivary gland chromosomes in the
(a) Production of male honey bee dipteran larvae, are useful in gene mapping
(b) Pod shape in garden pea because: [2005]
(c) Skin colour in humans (a) these are fused
(d) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa (b) these are much longer in size
37. In Mendel’s experiment with garden pea, (c) these are easy to stain
round seed shape (RR) was dominant over
wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) (d) They have endoreduplicated chromo-
was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). somes.
What are the expected phenotypes in the F2 44. A woman with normal vision, but whose
generation of the cross RRYY × rryy?  [2006] father was colour blind, marries a colour
(a) only wrinkled seeds with yellow blind man. Suppose that the fourth child of
cotyledons this couple was a boy. This boy [2005]
(b) only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
(a) may be colour blind or may be of normal
(c) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and
wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons vision
(d) only round seeds with green cotyledons (b) must be colour blind
38. Test cross involves [2006] (c) must have normal colour vision
(a) crossing between two F1 hybrids
(d) will be partially colour blind since he is
(b) crossing the F1 hybrid with a double
recessive genotype heterozygous for the colour blind mutant
(c) crossing between two genotypes with allele
dominant trait 45. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants
(d) crossing between two genotypes with are generally located in [2005]
recessive trait
 EBD_7325
290 BIOLOGY
(a) cytosol (b) They cannot interbreed in nature
(b) chloroplast genome (c) They are reproductively distinct
(c) mitochondrial genome (d) They are physiologically distinct
(d) nuclear genome 52. Which one of the following traits of garden
46. Lack of independent assortment of two genes pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature ?
A and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to [2004]
(a) repulsion (b) recombination (a) Round seed shape [2003]
(c) linkage (d) crossing over (b) Axial flower position
47. The recessive genes located on X-chromosome (c) Green seed colour
in humans are always [2004] (d) Green pod colour
(a) lethal 53. The genes controlling the seven pea characters
(b) sub-lethal studied by Mendel are now known to be
(c) expressed in males located on how many different chromosomes ?
(d) expressed in females
48. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal (a) Four (b) Seven [2003]
genes A and B and is also hemizygous for (c) Six (d) Five
hemophilic gene h. What proportion of his 54. Two crosses between the same pair of
sperms will be abh? [2004] genotypes or phenotypes in which the source
1 of the gametes are reversed in one cross, is
(a) (b) known as [2003]
32
(a) reverse cross (b) test cross
1 (c) reciprocal cross (d) dihybrid cross
(c) (d)
16 55. The linkage map of X-chromosome of fruit
49. A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms [2004] fly has 66 units, with yellow body gene (y) at
(a) 8 different gametes and 64 different one end and bobbed hair (b) gene at the other
zygotes end. The recombination frequency between
(b) 4 different gametes and 16 different these two genes (y and b) should be [2003]
zygotes (a) 100% (b) 66%
(c) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes (c) > 50% (d) < 50%
(d) 8 different gametes and 32 different 56. A gene is said to be dominant if [2002]
zygotes (a) it expresses its effect only in homozygous
50. In a certain plant, red fruit (R) is dominant state
over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is (b) it expresses its effect only in heterozygous
dominant over shortness (t) .If a plant with condition
RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant rrtt
(c) it expresses its effect both in homozygous
genotype, what will be the percentage of tall
and heterozygous condition
plants with red fruits in the progeny ? [2004]
(d) it never expresses its effect in any
(a) 50% (b) 100%
conditions
(c) 75% (d) 25% 57. On selfing a plant of F1 generation with
51. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long genotype “AABbCC”,the genotypic ratio in
days and N. tabacum flowers only during F2 generation will be [2002]
short days. If raised in the laboratory under
(a) 3 : 1
different photoperiods, they can be induced
(b) 1 : 2 : 1
to flower at the same time and can be cross
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
fertilized to produce self – fertile offspring.
What is the best reason for considering (d) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
N. sylvestris and N. tabacum to be separate 58. There are three genes a, b, c. Percentage of
species ? [2003] crossing over between a and b is 20%, b and c
is 28% and a and c is 8%. What is the sequence
(a) They are morphologically distinct
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 291
of genes on chromosome? [2002] (c) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative
(a) b, a, c (b) a, b, c father
(d) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive
(c) a, c, b (d) none of these
father
59. Independent assortment of genes does not
66. Which character studied by Mendel in garden
take place when [2001]
pea (Pisum sativum) was dominant [2000]
(a) genes are located on homologous
(a) Wrinkled seed shape
chromosomes
(b) Green pod colour
(b) genes are linked and located on same
(c) Green seed colour
chromosomes
(d) Terminal flower position
(c) genes are located on nonhomologous
67. Molecular weight of chromosome of yeast cell
chromosomes
is [1999]
(d) all the above 9 9
(a) 2.56 × 10 (b) 40 × 10
60. When dominant and recessive alleles express (c) 0.5 × 109 (d) 1 × 109
itself together it is called [2001]
68. In hybridisation Tt × tt gives rise to the
(a) codominance progeny of ratio [1999]
(b) dominance (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) amphidominace (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 : 1
(d) pseudodominance 69. How many base pairs are found in one
61. Ratio of complementary genes [2001] genome of man? [1999]
(a) 9 : 3 : 4 (b) 12 : 3 : 1 (a) 7 × 10 4 (b) 2.8 × 10 7
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4 (d) 9 : 7 (c) 3 × 109 (d) 4 × 109
62. Two non-allelic genes produce new phenotype 70. Crossing over in diploid organism is
when present together but fail to do so responsible for [1998]
independently are called? [2001] (a) segregation of alleles
(a) Epistatsis (b) dominance of genes
(b) Polygene (c) linkage between genes
(c) Non- complimentary genes (d) recombination of linked alleles
(d) Complimentary genes 71. How many genome types are present in a
typical green plant cell? [1998]
63. Probability of four sons to a couple is  [2001]
(a) Two (b) Three
(a) (b) (c) More than five (d) More than ten
72. If Mendel had studied the 7 traits using a
1 1 plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14, in
(c) (d) what way would his interpretation have been
16 32
different ? [1998]
64. A and B genes are linked what shall be genotype (a) He would have discovered blending or
of progeny in a cross between AB/ab and incomplete dominance
ab/ab? [2001] (b) He would not have discovered the law of
(a) AAbb and aabb (b) AaBb and aabb independent assortment
(c) AABB and aabb (d) None of these (c) He would have discovered sex linkage
65. Which one pair of the following parents is (d) He could have mapped the chromosome
most likely to get a child who suffer from 73. How many different types of genetically
hemolytic disease of new born? [2000] different gametes will be produced by a
(a) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive heterozygous plant having the genotype :
father AABbCc? [1998]
(b) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative (a) Two (b) Four
father (c) Six (d) Nine
 EBD_7325
292 BIOLOGY
74. Radioactive thymidine when added to the (a) 9 (b) 3
medium surrounding living mammalian cells (c) 4 (d) 1
gets incorporated into the newly synthesized 81. A child of blood group O can not have parents
DNA. Which of the following types of of blood groups [1994]
chromatin is expected to become radioactive (a) AB and AB/O (b) A and B
if cells are exposed to radioactive thymidine (c) B and B (d) O and O
82. Mendel studied inheritance of seven pairs
as soon as they enter the S-phase? [1998]
of traits in Pea which can have 21 possible
(a) Heterochromatin combinations. If you are told that in one of
(b) Euchromatin these combinations, independent assortment
(c) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin is not observed in later studies, your reaction
(d) Neither heterochromatin nor will be [1993]
euchromatin but only the nucleolus (a) Independent assortment principle may
75. A fruit fly is heterozygous for sex-linked be wrong
genes. When mated with a normal female (b) Mendel might not have studied all the
fruit fly, the male-specific chromosome will combinations
enter egg cells in the proportion of [1997] (c) It is impossible
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (d) Later studies may be wrong
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 7 : 1 83. A polygenic inheritance in human beings is
76. After crossing between two plants, the (a) Skin colour [1993]
progenies are found to be male-sterile. This (b) Phenylketonuria
phenomenon is found to be maternally (c) Colour blindness
inherited and is due to some genes which are
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
present in [1997]
84. Two dominant nonallelic genes are 50 map
(a) nucleus (b) chloroplast
units apart. The linkage is [1993]
(c) mitochondrion (d) cytoplasm
77. Alleles that produce independent effects in (a) cis type
their heterozygous condition are called (b) trans type
(a) codominant alleles [1996] (c) complete
(b) epistatic alleles (d) absent/ Incomplete
(c) complementary alleles 85. An organism with two identical alleles is
(d) supplementary alleles (a) dominant (b) hybrid [1992]
78. When two genetic loci produce identical
(c) heterozygous (d) homozygous
phenotypes in cis and trans position, they are
86. In a cross between AABB × aabb, the ratio
considered to be [1995]
of F2 genotypes between AABB, AaBB, Aabb
(a) pseudoalleles
and aabb would be [1992]
(b) different genes
(c) multiple alleles (a) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 : 1 : 2
(d) parts of same gene (c) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (d) 7 : 5 : 3 : 1
79. In a dihybrid cross AABB × aabb, F2 progeny 87. A gene pair hides the effect of another. The
of AABB, AABb, AaBB and AaBb occurs in phenomenon is [1999]
the ratio of [1994] (a) epistasis
(a) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (b) dominance
(c) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (d) 1 :2 : 2 : 4 (c) mutation
80. A cross between pure tall Pea plant with green (d) none of the above
pods and dwarf Pea plant with yellow pods 88. An allele is dominant if it is expressed in
will produce short F2 plants out of 16 [1994] [1992]
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 293
(a) both homozygous and heterozygous (c) alloloci (d) paramorphs
states 98. A man of A-blood group marries a women
(b) second generation of AB blood group. Which type of progeny
(c) heterozygous combination would indicate that man is heterozygous A?
(a) AB (b) A [1991]
(d) homozygous combination
(c) O (d) B
89. A child of O-group has B-group father. The
99. tt mates with Tt. What will be characteristic
genotype of father will be [1992]
O O B B of offspring ? [1990]
(a) I I (b) I I
(a) 75% recessive (b) 50% recessive
(c) IA IB (d) IB IO
(c) 25% recessive (d) All dominant
90. Out of 8 ascospores formed in Neurospora the
100. ABO blood group system is due to [1990]
arrangement is 2a : 4a : 2a showing [1992]
(a) multifactor inheritance
(a) No crossing over
(b) incomplete dominance
(b) Some meiosis (c) multiple allelism
(c) Second generation division (d) epistasis
(d) First generation division 101. In a genetic cross having recessive epistasis,
91. When a certain character is inherited only F2 phenotypic ratio would be [1990]
through female parent, it probably represents (a) 9 : 6 : 1 (b) 15 : 1
[1992] (c) 9 : 3 : 4 (d) 12 : 3 : 1
(a) multiple plastid inheritance 102. Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form
(b) cytoplasmic inheritance [1990]
(c) incomplete dominance (a) 1 AaBB : 1aaBB (b) All AaBB
(d) mendelian nuclear inheritance (c) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB (d) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB
92. Red (RR) Antirrhinum is crossed with white 103. Both husband and wife have normal vision
(WW) one. Offspring RW are pink. This is an though their fathers were colour blind. The
example of [1991] probability of their daughter becoming colour
(a) dominant -recessive blind is [1990]
(b) incomplete dominance (a) 0% (b) 25%
(c) hybrid (c) 50% (d) 75%
(d) supplementary genes 104. Bateson used the terms coupling and
93. The allele which is unable to express its effect repulsion for linkage and crossing over. Name
in the presence of another is called [1991] the correct parent of coupling type alongwith
its cross repulsion [1990]
(a) codominant (b) supplementary
(a) Coupling AABB, aabb; Repulsion
(c) complementary (d) recessive
AABB, AAbb
94. A dihybrid condition is [1991]
(b) Coupling AAbb, aaBB; Repulsion AaBb,
(a) tt Rr (b) Tt rr aabb
(c) tt rr (d) Tt Rr (c) Coupling aaBB, aabb; Repulsion AABB,
95. Mendel’s last law is [1991] aabb
(a) segregation (d) Coupling AABB, aabb : Repulsion
(b) dominance AAbb, aaBB
(c) independent assortment 105. Diploid chromosome number in humans is
(d) polygenic inheritance (a) 46 (b) 44 [1989]
96. First geneticist/ father of genetics was  [1991]
(c) 48 (d) 42
(a) de Vries (b) Mendel
106. Two linked genes a and b show 20%
(c) Darwin (d) Morgan
recombination. The individuals of a dihybrid
97. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian
cross between + +/ + + × ab/ab shall show
crosses are called [1991]
gametes [1989]
(a) multiple alleles (b) allelomorphs
 EBD_7325
294 BIOLOGY
(a) + + 80 : ab : 20 male sex in grasshopper
(b) + + 50 : ab : 50 (c) XO condition in human as found in
(c) + + 40 : ab 40 : + a 10 : + b : 10 Turner syndrome, determines female sex.
(d) + + 30 : ab 30 : + a 20 : + b : 20 (d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX)
107. A normal green male maize is crossed produce male in Drosophila.
with albino female. The progeny is albino 113. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by [2003]
because [1989] (a) whether the egg is fertilized or develops
(a) trait for albinism is dominant parthenogenetically
(b) the albinos have biochemical to destroy (b) the ratio of number of X-chromosomes
plastids derived form green male to the sets of autosomes
(c) X and Y chromosomes
(c) plastids are inherited from female parent
(d) the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to
(d) green plastids of male must have mutated the pairs of autosomes
108. What contribute to the success of Mendel ?
114. In which mode of inheritance do you
(a) Qualitative analysis of data [1988]
expect more maternal influence among the
(b) Observation of distinct inherited traits
offspring?   [2006]
(c) His knowledge of biology
(d) Consideration of one character at one (a) Cytoplasmic (b) Y-linked
time (c) X-linked (d) Autosomal
109. Haploids are able to express both recessive 115. Crossing over that results in genetic
and dominant alleles/mutations because recombination in higher organisms occurs
there are [1988] between  [2004]
(a) many alleles for each gene (a) sister chromatids of a bivalent
(b) two alleles for each gene (b) non-sister chromatids of a bivalent
(c) only one allele for each gene in the (c) two daughter nuclei
individual (d) two different bivalents
116. When a cluster of genes show linkage
(d) only one allele in a gene
behaviour they [2003]
Topic 2: Sex Determination (a) induce cell division
(b) do not show a chromosome map
110. The term ‘linkage’ was coined by :[2015 RS]
(c) show recombination during meiosis
(a) T. Boveri (b) G. Mendel
(d) do not show independent assortment
(c) W. Sutton (d) T.H. Morgan 117. No. of barr body present in each somatic cell
111. In our society women are blamed for of a female is [2001]
producing female children. Choose the (a) 1 (b) 2
correct answer for the sex-determination in
(c) 3 (d) 4
humans [NEET Kar. 2013]
118. Drosophila flies with XXY genotype are females
(a) Due to some defect in the women
but in case of humans, such individuals are
(b) Due to some defect like aspermia in man abnormal males (Klinefelter's syndrome).
(c) Due to the genetic make up of the This indicates that [2000]
particular sperm which fertilizes the egg (a) The Y chromosome has no role in sex
(d) Due to the genetic make up of the egg determination
112. Which one of the following conditions (b) In Drosophila, the Y chromosome is
correctly describes the manner of determining essential for sex determination
the sex in the given example? [2011] (c) The Y chromosome is male determining
(a) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) in humans
determine female sex in birds. (d) The Y chromosome is female determining
(b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine in Drosophila
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 295
119. Genetic identity of a human male is Topic 3: Mutation/Genetic Disorders
determined by [1997]
127. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused
(a) autosomes (b) nucleolus
due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis.
(c) sex chromosomes (d) cell organelles
Select the correct statement : [2017]
120. An individual exhibiting both male and
(a) Both are due to a quantitative defect in
female sexual characteristics in the body is
globin chain synthesis
known as [1996]
(b) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of
(a) hermaphrodite (b) intersex
globin molecules
(c) gynandromorph (d) bisexual
(c) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative
121. Barr body in human female is formed by
problem of globin molecules
[1996]
(d) Both are due to a qualitative defect in
(a) inactivation of paternal X-chromosome
globin chain synthesis
(b) inactivation of maternal
128. A disease caused by an autosomal primary
X-chromosome
non-disjunction is : [2017]
(c) inactivation of both X-chromosomes
(a) Klinefelter's Syndrome
(d) inactivation of either the paternal or
maternal X-chromosome (b) Turner's Syndrome
(c) Sickel Cell Anemia
122. H.J.Muller was awarded Nobel Prize for his
(d) Down's Syndrome
 [1996]
129. Which of the following most appropriately
(a) discovery that chemicals can induce gene
describes haemophilia ?       [2016]
mutations
(a) Recessive gene disorder
(b) discovery that ionizing radiations can
induce gene mutations (b) X - linked recessive gene disorder
(c) work on gene mapping in Drosophila (c) Chromosomal disorder
(d) efforts to prevent the use of nuclear (d) Dominant gene disorder
weapons. 130. Pick out the correct statements : [2016]
123. Barr body in mammals represents [1995] (1) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
(a) all the heterochromatin in female cells disease
(b) Y-chromosomes in somatic cells of male (2) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(c) all heterochromatin in male and female (3) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
cells recessive gene disorder.
(d) one of the two X-chromosomes in (4) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked
somatic cells of females recessive gene disorder
124. The polytene chromosomes were discovered (a) (1) and (4) are correct
for the first time in [1995] (b) (2) and (4) are correct
(a) Drosophila (b) Chironomus (c) (1), (3) and (4) are correct
(d) (1), (2) and (3) are correct
(c) Musca nebulo (d) Musca domestica
131. In the following human pedigree, the filled
125. A fruitfly exhibiting both male and female
symbols represent the affected individuals.
traits is [1994]
Identify the type of given pedigree. [2015 RS]
(a) heterozygous (b) gynandromorph
(c) hemizygous (d) gynander
126. Sex is determined in human beings [1993]
(a) by ovum
(b) at time of fertilization
(c) 40 days after fertilization
(d) seventh to eight week when genitals
differentiate in foetus
 EBD_7325
296 BIOLOGY
(a) X- linked recessive (d) It is a sex-linked disease
(b) Autosomal recessive 139. Which one is the incorrect statement with
(c) X-linked dominant regards to the importance of pedigree
(d) Autosomal dominant analysis? [NEET Kar. 2013]
132. A colour blind man marries a woman with (a) It helps to trace the inheritance of a
normal sight who has no history of colour specific trait
blindness in her family. (b) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of
What is the probability of their grandson being genetic information
colour blind ? [2015 RS] (c) It helps to understand whether the trait
(a) 1 (b) Nil in question is dominant or recessive
(c) 0.25 (d) 0.5 (d) It confirms that the trait is linked to one
133. An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex of the autosome
chromosomes was born due to : [2015 RS] 140. Down’s syndrome in humans is due to
(a) formation of abnormal ova in the mother [NEET Kar. 2013]
(b) fusion of two ova and one sperm (a) Two ‘Y’ chromosomes
(c) fusion of two sperms and one ovum (b) Three ‘X’ chromosomes
(d) formation of abnormal sperms in the (c) Three copies of chromosome 21
father (d) Monosomy
134. A pleiotropic gene:  [2015 RS] 141. A normal- visioned man whose father was
(a) is a gene evolved during Pliocene. colour. blind, marries a woman whose father
was also colour blind. They have their first
(b) controls a trait only in combination with
child as a daughter. what are the chance that
another gene
this child would be colour blind ? [2012]
(c) controls multiple traits in an individual.
(a) 100% (b) zero percent
(d) is expressed only in primitive plants
(c) 25% (d) 50 %
135. A man whose father was colour blind marries
142. Which one of the following is a wrong
a woman who had a colour blind mother
statement regarding mutations? [2012M]
and normal father. What percentage of male
children of this couple will be colour blind? (a) Deletion and insertion of base pairs
(a) 25% (b) 0% [2014] cause frame-shift mutations.
(c) 50% (d) 75% (b) C a n c e r c e l l s c o m m o n l y s h o w
chromosomal aberrations.
136. A human female with Turner’s syndrome:
(a) has 45 chromosomes with XO. [2014] (c) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens.
(b) has one additional X chromosome. (d) Change in a single base pair of DNA
(c) exhibits male characters. does not cause mutation.
(d) is able to produce children with normal 143. Represented below is the inheritance pattern
husband. of a certain type of traits in humans.
137. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia,
which is an autosomal recessive disorder,
what are the chances of pregnancy resulting FEMALE MALE
MOTHER FATHER
in an affected child? [NEET 2013]
(a) 50% (b) 25%
(c) 100% (d) no chance Daughter Son
138. The incorrect statement with regard to
Haemophilia is : [NEET 2013]
Which one of the following conditions could
(a) It is a recessive disease be an example of this pattern? [2012M]
(b) It is a dominant disease (a) Thalassemia
(c) A single protein involved in the clotting
of blood is affected
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 297
(b) Haemophilia (d) periodic infusion of genetically
(c) Phenylketonuria e n g i n e e r e d ly m p h o c y t e s h av i n g
(d) Sickle cell anaemia functional ADA cDNA.
144. Mutations can be induced with : [2011] 148. Sickle cell anaemia is: [2009]
(a) infra red radiations (a) caused by substitution of valine by
(b) I AA glutamic acid in the beta globin chain
(c) ethylene of haemoglobin
(d) gamma radiations (b) caused by a change in a single base pair
145. Which one of the following symbols and its of DNA
representation, used in human pedigree (c ) characterized by elongated sickle like
analysis is correct? [2010] RBCs with a nucleus
(a) = m a t i n g b e t we e n (d) an autosomal linked dominant trait
relatives 149. Select the incorrect statement from the
following: [2009]
(b) = unaffected male
(a) Galactosemia is an inborn error of
(c) = unaffected female
metabolism
(d) = male affected (b) Small population size results in random
146. Study the pedigree chart given below: genetic drift in a population
What does it show? [2009] (c) Baldness is a sex -limited trait
(d) Linkage is an exception to the principle
of independent assortment in heredity
150. Point mutation involves: [2009]
(a) change in single base pair
(b) duplication
(c) deletion
(d) insertion
151. Which one of the following conditions
(a) Inheritance of a condition like
in humans. is correctly matched with its
phenylketonuria as an autosomal
chromosomal abnormality/linkage? [2008]
recessive trait
(a) Klinefelters syndrome-44 autosomes +
(b) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not
XXY
possible
(b) Colour blindness - Y-linked
(c) Inheritance of a recessive sex - linked
(c) Erythroblastosis foetalis - X-linked
disease like haemophilia
(d) Downs syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO
(d) Inheritance of a sex -linked inborn error
152. Haploids are more suitable for mutation
of metabolism like phenylketonuria studies than the diploids. This is because
147. The genetic defect - Adenosine deaminase [2008]
(ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently (a) haploids are reproductively more stable
by: [2009] than diploids
(a) administering adenosine deaminase (b) mutagens penetrate in haploids more
activators. effectively than diploids
(b) introducing bone marrow cells producing (c) haploids are more abundant in nature
ADA into cells at early embryonic stages. than diploids
(c) enzyme replacement therapy. (d) all mutations, whether dominant or
recessive are expressed in haploids
 EBD_7325
298 BIOLOGY
153. If a colour blind woman marries a normal 160. A women with 47 chromosomes due to three
visioned man, their sons will be [2006] copies of chromosome 21 is characterized by:
(a) one-half colour blind and one-half normal (a) superfemaleness [2005]
(b) three-fourths colour blind and one-fourth (b) triploidy
normal (c) turner's syndrome
(c) all colour blind (d) down's Syndrome
(d) all normal visioned 161. A man with a certain disease marries a
154. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused normal woman. They have eight children (3
by the [2006] daughters and 5 sons). All the daughters suffer
(a) loss of half of the short arm of chromosome from their father's disease but none of the sons
5 are affected. Which of the following mode of
(b) loss of half of the long arm of chromosome inheritance do you suggest for this disease?
5 (a) Sex-linked recessive [2005]
(c) trisomy of 21st chromosome (b) Sex-linked dominant
(d) fertilization of an XX egg by a normal (c) Autosomal dominant
Y-bearing sperm (d) Sex-limited recessive
155. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's 162. A normal woman, whose father was colour-
blind is married to a normal man. The sons
chorea are [2006]
would be [2004]
(a) congenital disorders
(a) 75% colour-blind
(b) pollulant-induced disorders
(b) 50% color-blind
(c) virus-related diseases
(c) all normal
(d) bacteria - related diseases
(d) all colour-blind
156. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated
163. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation
from the African population because [2006]
in its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent
(a) it is not a fatal disease is taken as a male. During segregation of F2
(b) it provides immunity against malaria progenies that mutation is found in [2004]
(c) it is controlled by dominant genes (a) one-third of the progenies
(d) it is controlled by recessive genes (b) none of the progenies

157. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated (c) all the progenies
with haemolysis of: [2005] (d) fifty percent of the progenies
(a) leucocytes (b) lymphocytes 164. After a mutation at a genetic locus the
(c) platelets (d) RBCs character of an organism changes due to the
158. Which of the following is not a hereditary change in [2004]
disease? [2005] (a) protein structure
(a) Cystic fibrosis (b) Thalassemia (b) DNA replication
(c) Haemophilia (d) Cretinism (c) protein synthesis pattern
159. Haemophilia is more commonly seen (d) RNA transcription pattern
in human males than in human females 165. Christmas disease is another name for [2003]
because: [2005] (a) sleeping sickness
(a) a greater proportion of girls die in infancy (b) haemophilia
(b) this disease is due to a Y-linked recessive (c) hepatitis B
mutation (d) Down's syndrome
(c) this disease is due to an X-linked 166. Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in
recessive mutation human males are examples of [2003]
(d) this disease is due to an X-linked (a) sex-determining traits
dominant mutation (b) sex linked traits
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 299
(c) sex limited traits 174. Mongoloid idiocy in humans is also known
(d) sex influenced traits as [2000]
167. Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy (a) Tay Sachs disease
of chromosome number 21. What percentage (b) Klinefelter's syndrome
of offspring produced by an affected mother (c) Down's Syndrome
and a normal father would be affected by this (d) Turner's Syndrome
disorder? [2003] 175. Which of the following is the main category
(a) 25% (b) 100% of mutation? [1999]
(c) 75% (d) 50% (a) Genetic mutation
168. Which of the following is correct match? (b) Zygotic mutation
[2002] (c) Somatic mutation
(a) Down's syndrome — 21st chromosome (d) All of these
(b) Sickle cell anaemia — X-chromosome 176. One child is haemophilic (sex-linked trait),
(c) Haemophila — Y-chromosome while its fraternal twin brother is normal.
(d) Parkinson disease — X & Y chromosome Which one of the following informations is
169. Which of the following is an example of sex most appropriate? [1999]
linked disease? [2002] (a) The mother must have been heterozygous
(a) AIDS (b) Colour blindness (b) The child is a monozygotic twin
(c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea (c) The other child is a female and the father
170. Which of the following is an example of is haemophilic
pleiotropic effect? [2002] (d) The haemophilic child is a male
(a) Haemophilia 177. Red-green colour blindness in humans is
(b) Thalassemia governed by a sex-linked recessive gene. A
(c) Sickle cell anaemia normal woman whose father was colour
(d) Colour blindness blind marries a colour blind man. What
171. A diseased man marries a normal woman. proportion of their daughters is expected to
They have three daughters and five sons. All be colourblind? [1999]
the daughters were diseased and sons were (a) 3/4 (b) 1/2
normal. The gene of this disease is [2002] (c) 1/4 (d) All
(a) sex-linked dominant 178. In Down's syndrome, Karyotyping has shown
(b) sex-linked recessive that the disorder is associated with trisomy of
(c) sex-linked character chromosome number-21 usually due to
(d) autosomal dominant [1998]
172. In humans, male XXY and female XXXX
(a) non-disjunction during egg-cell formation
occur due to [2001]
(b) non-disjunction during sperm-cell
(a) aneuploidy
formation
(b) euploidy
(c) non-disjunction during formation of
(c) autosomal syndrome
egg-cells and sperm-cells
(d) none of these
173. Sickle cell anaemia is induced by [2001] (d) addition of extra chromosome during
(a) change of amino acid in a-chain of mitosis of the zygote
haemoglobin 179. Mental retardation in man associated with sex
(b) change of amino acid in b-chain of chromosomal abnormality is usually due to
haemoglobin (a) increase in X complement [1998]
(c) change of amino acid in both a- and (b) moderate increase in Y complement
b-chain of haemoglobin (c) large increase in Y complement
(d) change of amino acid in either a- or (d) reduction in X complement
b-chain of haemoglobin
 EBD_7325
300 BIOLOGY
180. The formation of multivalents at meiosis in 187. A women with albinic father marries an
a diploid organism is due to [1998] albinic man. The proportion of her progeny
(a) inversion is [1994]
(b) deletion (a) 2 normal : 1 albinic
(c) monosomy (b) all normal
(d) reciprocal translocation (c) all albinic
181. A woman with two genes for haemophilia and (d) 1 normal : 1 albinic
a gene for colour blindness on one of the 'X' 188. Genes located on Y-chromosome are [1994]
chromosomes marries a normal man. How (a) mutant genes (b) sex-linked genes
will the progeny be [1992] (c) autosomal genes (d) holandric genes
(a) haemophilic and colour-blind daughters 189. A colour blind mother and normal father
(b) 50% haemophilic colour-blind sons and would have [1994]
50% haemophilic sons (a) colour blind sons and normal/carrier
(c) 50% haemophilic daughters and 50% daughters
colour-blind daughters (b) colour blind sons and daughters
(d) All sons and daughters haemophilic and (c) all colour blind
colour-blind (d) all normal
182. Albinism is known to be due to an autosomal 190. Haploids are preferred over diploids for
recessive mutation. The first child of a couple mutation studies because in haploids [1993]
with normal skin pigmentation was an albino. (a) recessive mutations express immediately
What is the probability that their second child (b) dominant mutations express immediately
will also be an albino? [1998] (c) mutations are readily induced
(a) 25% (b) 50% (d) tissue culture is easy
(c) 75% (d) 100% 191. Of a normal couple, half the sons are
183. A person with the sex chromosomes XXY haemophilic while half the daughters are
suffers from [1997] carriers. The gene is located on [1993]
(a) Down's syndrome (a) X-chromosome of father
(b) Klinefelter's syndrome (b) Y-chromosome of father
(c) Turner's syndrome (c) one X-chromosome of mother
(d) Gynandromorphism (d) both the X-chromosomes of mother
184. Minor changes at gene level are described as 192. Which of the following is suitable for
(a) Point mutations [1997] experiment on linkage [1993]
(b) Chromosomal mutations (a) aaBB × aaBB (b) AABB × aabb
(c) Reverse mutations (c) AaBb × AaBb (d) AAbb × AaBB
(d) Forward mutations 193. Mr. Kapoor has Bb autosomal gene pair and
185. A person with 47 chromosomes due to an d allele sex-linked. What shall be proportion
additional Y chromosome suffers from a of Bd in sperms [1993]
condition called [1996] (a) Zero (b) 1/2
(a) Down's syndrome (c) 1/4 (d) 1/8
(b) Superfemale
194. Of both normal parents, the chance of a male
(c) Turner's syndrome child becoming colour blind are [1993]
(d) Klinefelter's syndrome
(a) no
186. The most striking example of point mutation
(b) possible only when all the four grand
is found in a disease called [1995]
parents had normal vision
(a) thalassemia
(c) possible only when father’s mother was
(b) night blindness
colour blind
(c) down's syndrome
(d) possible only when mother’s father was
(d) sickle cell anaemia
colour blind
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 301
195. Segregation of Mendelian factors (no linkage, (c) her mother is colour blind and father has
no crossing over) occurs during [1992] normal vision
(a) anaphase I (b) anaphase II (d) parents have normal vision but grand
(c) diplotene (d) metaphase I parents were colour blind.
196. In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/ 201. Which one is a hereditary disease ? [1990]
XO abnormality causes [1992] (a) Cataract (b) leprosy
(a) Down's syndrome
(c) Blindness (d) Phenylketonuria
(b) Kinefelter's syndrome
202. Haemophilia is more common in males
(c) Turner's syndrome because it is a [1990]
(d) Edward's syndrome
(a) Recessive character carried by
197. Down's syndrome is due to [1992]
(a) crossing over Y-chromosome
(b) linkage (b) Dominant character carried by
(c) sex-linked inheritance Y-chromosome
(d) nondisjunction of chromosomes (c) Dominant trait carried by
198. Blue eye colour is recessive to brown eye X-chromosome
colour. A brown eyed man whose mother
(d) Recessive trait carried by
was blue eyed marries a blue-eyed women.
The children shall be [1991] X-chromosome
(a) both blue eyed and brown eyed 1 : 1 203. In Down’s syndrome of a male child, the sex
(b) all brown eyed complement is [1990]
(c) all blue eyed (a) XO (b) XY
(d) blue eyed and brown eyed 3 : 1 (c) XX (d) XXY
199. Multiple alleles control inheritance of  [1991] 204. A mother in a family of five daughters is
(a) phenylketonuria expecting her sixth baby. The chance of its
(b) colour blindness being a son is [1988]
(c) sickle cell anaemia (a) zero (b) 25%
(d) blood groups (c) 50% (d) 100%
200. A colour blind girl is rare because she will be 205. Mutations used in agriculture are commonly
born only when [1991] (a) induced [1988]
(a) her mother and maternal grand father (b) spontaneous
were colour blind (c) lethal
(b) her father and maternal grand father were (d) recessive and lethal
colour blind
 EBD_7325
302 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Husband × Wife 7. (b) This phenomenon is known as polyploidy,
IAIB IAi wherein the cells contain more than two
paired (homologous) sets of chromosomes.
Polyploidy is often seen in the case of plants.
The major cause of polyploidy is the non
- disjunction of sister chromatids during
meiotic recombination. This condition is
actually useful in development of new crop
Number of genotypes = 4 varieties.
Number of phenotypes = 3 8. (c) Seven pairs of contrasting characters were
IAIA and IAi = A selected in pea plant and studied by Mendel
IAIB = AB in his experiment.
IBi = B 9. (c) The most common cause of variations
2. (a) During his experiments Mendel have is recombination in the organism which are
taken seven characters in a pea plant. In reproduced by sexual way.
which nature of trichomes i.e., glandular or 10. (b) Alleles are defined as alternative form of
non-glandular was not considered by Mendel. same gene.
3. (d) According to NCERT, Mendel conducted 11. (a) Mendel did not use pod length for his
hybridization experiments for 7 years on Pea experiment.
plant between 1856 to 1863 and his data was 12. (b) Possible × Possible
published in 1865. genotype genotype
4. (a) of man with blood of woman with
group A blood group B
IA IA, IA IO × IB IB, IB IO
If the genotype is
IA IO × IB IO
The possibility of resultant blood group may
be A, B, AB and O.
13. (b) All alleles of a gene are situated on the
Pollen → T t same loci of chromosome in organisms.
T TT Tt 14. (c) In codominance both alleles are
Tall Dwarf independently expressed in the heterozygote.
t Tt tt 15. (b) Epistasis is the phenomenon of suppres-
Tall Dwarf sion of phenotypic expression of gene by a
Phenotypic ratio : 3: 1 (Tall :Dwarf) nonallelic gene which shows its own effect.
Genotypic Ratio: 1:2:1 (Homozygous A dominant epistatic allele suppresses the
Tall : Heterozygous Tall : Dwarf) expression of a nonallelic gene whether the
5. (b) latter is dominant or recessive. For example,
6. (c) When two genes in a dihybrid cross fruit colour of Summer Squash (Cucurbita
are situated on the same chromosome, the pepo) is governed by a gene which pruduces
proportion of parental gene combinations yellow colour in dominant state (Y-) and green
are much higher than the non-parental colour in recessive state (yy).
or recombinant type. This is also called 16. (c) According to Hardy Weinberg principle.
incomplete linkage. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1; (p + q)2 = 1
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 303
p2
(AA) = 360 out of 1000 individual 24. (a) Heterosis or hybrid vigor occurs when
or p2 = 36 out of 100. two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed,
q2 = 160 out of 1000 or q2 = 16 out of the performance of F1 hybrid, which is often
100 superior to both is parents.
so q = = .4, As p + q = 1 25. (c) Type O blood group is considered the
so p is 0.6. universal donor blood group. It can potentially
17. (d) ABO blood group system in human be- be transfused to any patient regardless of their
ings is an example of codominant, dominant blood type. In emergency situation, this type
recessive and multiple alletes. Blood groups of blood can be given to the patient.
are controlled by the gene I located on 9th 26. (c) In test cross, genotype of an organism
chromosome that has 3 multiple alleles, out showing dominant phenotype is determined
of which any two are found in a person. by crossing it with homozygous recessive
In codominance both gene express it self genotype.
completely. 27. (a) Two X chromosomes would lead to the
18. (c) In Co-dominance F1 generation resemble birth of normal human female child.
both the parents. Ex : Blood group inheritance. 28. (c) According to Mendel’s law of Dominance,
19. (a) Tightly linked genes show more linkage out of two contrasting allelomorphic factors
then crossing over. only one expresses itself in an individual. The
20. (c) Crossing over leads to recombination of factor that expresses itself is called dominant
genetic material on the two chromosomes. while the other which has not shown its effect
Mutation results in alternation of DNA in the heterozygous individual is termed as
sequences and consequently results in change recessive. The option (c) in the given question
in the genotype and the phenotype of an cannot be explained on the basis of law of
organism. In addition to recombination, dominance. It can only be explained on
mutation is another phenomenon that leads the basis of Mendel’s Law of independent
to variation in DNA. assortment, according to which in a dihybrid
21. (c) Blood group O acts as universal donor. cross, the two alleles of each character assort
22. (a) A test cross, first introduced by Gregor independently of the alleles of other character
Mendel, is used to determine if an individual and separate at the time of gamete formation.
exhibiting a dominant trait is homozygous 29. (a) Test cross is the cross of an individual
or heterozygous for that trait. It takes place
with an individual having recessive phenotype.
between F1 - Generation and recessive parent.
It is used to determine the genotype of a plant
23. (d) Incomplete (partial or mosaic) dominance
is the phenomenon where none of the two showing the dominant phenotype, that means
contrasting alleles or factors is dominant. The to determine whether the individual exhibiting
expression of the character in a hybrid or F1 dominating characters are homozygous or
individual is intermediate or a fine mixture heterozygous.
of the expression of the two factors (as 30. (d) Linkage is the inheritance of genes of
found in homozygous state). Incomplete or
same chromosome together and capacity of
mosaic inheritance is not an example of pre-
mendelian concept of blending inheritance these genes to retain their parental combina-
because the parental types reappear in the F2 tion in subsequent generation. The strength
generation. It is however, considered by some of linkage between two genes is inversely
workers to be an example of quantitative proportional to the distance between the two.
inheritance where only a single gene pair This means, two linked genes show higher
is involved. F2 phenotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1, frequency of recombination if the distance
similar to genotypic ratio. between them is higher and lower frequency
if the distance is smaller.
 EBD_7325
304 BIOLOGY
31. (c) crossing of one F1 progeny with male 35. (d) Aa Bb
parent. e.g A
a B b

AB
Ab aB ab

36. (c) Polygenic inheritance is the inheritance

of traits which are dependent on the no.
of genes such as the skin colour of human
beings. eg. AABB is black AaBB in neither
dark nor black. AaBb is again wheatish Aabb
is light and aabb is white colour.
37. (c)
P-generation – RRYY rryy
To find the genotype of hybrid test cross is (Round seed (wrinkled seed ×
done. yellow cotyledon) green cotyledon)
32. (c) When the linked genes are situated Gametes : RY ry
quite close, the chances of crossing over are F1 generation – RrYy (all heterozygous
highly reduced. Due to this, large number round seeded and
of parental gametes are formed and only yellow cotyledon)
Selfing
few recombinant gametes are formed. This
results in higher number of parental types in
RY Ry rY ry
F2 generation as compared to recombinants. RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy
RY Round seed Round seed Round seed Round seed
33. (d) Let GG ⇒ homozygous yellow seed yellow coty. yellow coty. yellow coty. yellow coty.
plant. RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
Ry Round seed Round seed Round seed Round seed
F2 generation

Gg ⇒ heterozygous green yellow coty. green coty. yellow coty. green coty.
gg ⇒ homozygous green RrYY RrYy
rY Round seed Round seed
According to the question : yellow coty. yellow coty.
Gg × gg RrYy Rryy
ry Round seed Round seed
yellow coty. green coty.

G
g g g
So the ratio of round seeded with yellow
cotyledons : Round seeded green cotyledons :
Wrinkled seeded yellow cotyledons : Wrinkle
seeded green cotyledons in 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. So in
Gg the F2 generation the round seeded character
Gg gg gg remains with yellow cotyledons & wrinkled
seeds with yellow cotyledons.
( yellow ) (green) (green) (yellow) 38. (b) A cross of F1 hybrid with its recessive
homozygous parent is called the test cross. It
So, the ratio will be 50 : 50 is done to determine the genotype of a given
34. (b) Inheritance of skin colour in human is plant. If the given plant has homozygous
controlled by three genes, A B and C which dominant traits then on test cross it gives all
is polygenic inheritance. dominant trait plants but if it is heterozygous
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 305
dominant than it gives dominant and recessive Parent XcX × XcY
phenotypes in 1 : 1 ratio. Carrier Woman Colour blind
39. (c) Phenotype is the appearance of one   Man
organism while genotype is the gene Progeny XcXc XcY XXc XY
complement it has from its ancestors. These Colour Carrier
genes only show their effect in phenotype but blind son daughter
environment also plays an important role in 45. (a) Male sterility in plants can be controlled
this. Hence phenotype is a result of genotype by nuclear genes or cytoplasm or by both.
and environmental interaction. Three different mechanisms for control of
40. (c) It would make only two types of gametes, male sterility in plants are :
these are ABC & AbC. (i) Genetic male sterility; (ii) Cytoplasmic
41. (c) In order to find out the gamete or male sterility; (iii) Cytoplasmic genetic male
the genotype of an unknown individual, sterility. In Maize the genes for cytoplasmic
Scientists perform a test cross. In test cross control of male sterility are located in
the individual in question is crossed with cytoplasm.
the homozygous recessive parent. Hence the 46. (c) The lack of independent assortment in
answer is aabb. sweet pea and Drosophila is due to linkage.
42. (d) The mathematical expression to calculate 47. (c) Males have only one X - chromosome.
allele frequency can be given as p + q = 1. Hence any gene present on the one X -
Where p represents the frequency of dominant chromosome expresses itself n males. Females
allele and q represents the frequency of have two X- chromosomes . The mutant allele
recessive allele. The bionomial expression of must be present on both the X-Chromosomes
Hardy Weinberg’s law to calculate genotype to express itself phenotypically. If only one
frequency is p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 copy of allele present, then the female only
where p2 = homozygous dominant becomes a carrier showing no external
2pq = heterozygous dominant manifestation of the gene. Sublethal condition
q2 = homozygous recessive. can never arise in males.
Frequency of heterozygous individuals 1
= 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48. 48. (a) Chance of getting a =
2
43. (d) Polytene chromosomes were first
reported by EG Balbiani in 1881. They are 1
Chance of getting b =
quite common in salivary glands of insects 2
and are therefore popularly called salivary
gland chromosomes. Polytene chromosomes 1
Chance of getting b =
also occur in other organs of insects antipodal 2
cells (of embryo sac), endosperm cells and
suspensor cell of embryo. The chromosomes Chance of getting sperms with
can reach length of 200 µm and contain 1000 1 1 1 1
to 16000 times DNA as compared to the abh = × × =
2 2 2 8
ordinary somatic chromosomes. The giant
chromosomes are formed by somatic pairing 49. (a) A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms
between homologous chromosomes, and
8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes.
repeated replication (endomitosis) of their
The genotype of trihybrid plant is AaBbCc.
chromatids.
Number of gametes formed = 2n = 23 = 8
44. (a) Since the woman’s father was colour
Here n = no. of heterozygosity = 3 in present
blind. She would be a carrier of the colour
blindness gene. When she marries a colour case.
blind man. Their progeny could be No. of zygotes formed = 82 = 64.
 EBD_7325
306 BIOLOGY
50. (a) Parent : RRTt × rrtt 58. (a) a – b = 20%, b – c = 28%, a – c = 8%
Gametes : RT , Rt rt
b 20 a c
Offspring : RrTt Rrtt units 8 units

tall with tall with
Ratio = 1 : 1 red fruit yellow fruit
51. (c) Similar species show interbreeding 28 units
characters, i.e., two organisms which breed
Percent crossing over between two genes is
freely in nature to produce fertile offsprings
proportional to the distance between them.
belong to the same species. The two species
59. (b) Independent assortment of genes takes
are considered separate because they are
place only when they are located on separate
reproductively distinct.
non-homologus chromosomes. Where two
52. (c) Yellow seed colour is dominant over
or more than two genes are located on same
green seed colour.
chromosome, independent assortment will
53. (a) The seven traits are now know to be
not be possible.
present on 4 chromosome. But they do not
60. (a) According to principle of dominance,
show linkage, because of large distances
out of the two factors of alleles representing
between them on the chromosome.
different traits of a character, only one
54. (c) Dihybrid cross is made between individu-
expresses itself. But when both express
als having contrasting traits in order to study
themselves it is codominance.
the inheritance of two pairs of alleles. Test
61. (d) In complementary gene action, both
cross is a back cross between individual with
the non allelic pair independently produce
a dominant trait and its recessive parent to
similar phenotypes and when present together
know whether the individual is homozygous
produce a new phenotype. So, that F2 ratio
or heterozygous for the trait.
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 would become 9 : 7.
55. (b) Mapping of genes on chromosomes
62. (d)
is based on the assumption that genes are
arranged on the chromosome and that the 63. (c) ( ) ( )
percentage of crossing over (recombination Parents XX × XY
frequency) between two genes is an index of XY XX XX
their distance apart. Distances between genes XY XY offsprings
is expressed as map units, where one map unit daughters sons
is defined as 1 per cent recombination. 2 1
probability of son =
56. (c) A dominant gene would lead to the 4 2
expression of its phenotype irrespective of
the fact whether its allelic gene is dominant 4
1 1
or recessive. probability of four son =−   =
2 16
57. (b)
F1 parent : AABbCC × AABbCC 64. (b) Parents : AB/ab × ab/ab
Gametes : ABC AbC Gametes : AB ab × ab

ABC AABBCC AABbCC

AABbCC AAbbCC AB ab
AbC
F1 :
AABBCC – 1, AABbCC – 2, AAbbCC – 1 ab AaBb aabb
Genotypic ratio = 1 : 2 : 1
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 307
65. (a) Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs 76. (d) Male sterlity occur due to cytoplasmic or
when a Rh– mother conceives a Rh+ child. cytoplasmic- genenic inheritance, i.e., due to
Mother’s blood starts producing antibodies DNA present in mitochondrion or chloroplast
against the foetal red blood cells. under the i.e. control of extra-nuclear gene.
66. (b) Round seed shape is dominant over 77. (a) Epistasis is the suppression of the
wrinkled. Yellow seed colour is dominant normal phenotypic expression of the gene
over green seed colour Axial flower position by a non-allelic gene. Complimentary
is dominant over terminal. genes are two independent genes present on
67. (a) Molecular weight of chromosome of different gene loci which assist each other in
yeast cell is 2.56 × 109.
expressing a trait . Supplementary genes are
68. (a) Parents : Tt × tt two independent genes present on different
gene loci, each of which may produce its
Gametes : T t × t
own trait and interact when present together
Progeny : T t in dominant state to produce a new trait.
78. (a) The pseudoalleles are two genetic loci
t Tt tt producing identical phenotypes in cis as well
as trans position.
Ratio = 1 : 1
79. (d) Genotype is the genetic make up of an
69. (c) The number of base pairs (bp) found in organism. The given 4 genotypes are present
one genome of man is 3 × 109. in 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 ratio.
70. (d) Crossing over involves physical exchange 80. (c) The two factors of each trait arrange or
of genetic material between non-sister assort at random and are independent of each
chromatids of homologous chromosomes, other in their distribution into the gametes
which leads to recombination. and in the progeny.
71. (b) Three types of genome, occur in a typical Parent : TTyy × ttYY
green plant cell-nuclear genome, mitochon-
drial genome and chloroplast genome. Gametes : Ty tY
72. (b) If Mendel had studied a plant with 12 F1 : TtYy
chromosomes, he would have encountered
linked genes, and hence he would not have Gametes : TY Ty tY ty
arrived at principle of independent assortment Selfing :
73. (b) Different types of gametes produced will TTYY TTYy TtYY TtYy
F2 : TY
be ABC, AbC, ABc, Abc T T T T
74. (b) Heterochromatin is a specialized
Ty TTYy TTyy TtYy Ttyy
chromosome material which remains tightly
coiled and stains darkly in interphase. T T T T
Euchromatin is that portion of the TtYY TtYy ttYY ttYy
chromosome that stains with low intensity tY
T T D D
and uncoils during interphase. In the
TtYy Ttyy ttYy ttyy
beginning of S-sphase, DNA replication ty
occurs. DNA replication can occur in T T D D
diffuse/ less tightly coiled euchromatin.
Tall (T) - 12; Dwarf (D) - 4
75. (a) In sex determination, the male specific
81. (a) AB blood group possess the genotype
chromosome will have half as much chance
IAIB. The alleles IA and IB are codominant
as the other to enter the egg cell. Hence the
as both express themselves when together in
proportion will be 1 : 1. an individual.
 EBD_7325
308 BIOLOGY
82. (b) Law of independent assortment is 90. (c) In Neurospora, products of meiosis
applicable to only those factors or genes remain linearly arranged and undergo one
which are located on different chromosomes. mitosis. Crossing over occurs in four strand
Probably the characters were present on same stage.
chromosome and showed linkage which 91. (b) Plasma genes present in the maternal
Mendel might not have studied. cytoplasm are transmitted to offspring
83. (a) Polygenic inheritance show cumulative hence this type of inheritance is termed as
effect i.e. two independent dominant genes cytoplasmic or maternal inheritance.
produce additive effect on an individual. 92. (b) Incomplete dominance is the phenom-
84. (d) Chromosome mapping is based on the enon of none of the alleles being dominant,
fact that genes are linearly arranged on the with the effect that the hybrid produced by
chromosome and frequency of crossing crossing two pure individuals is a mixture
over is directly proportional to the distance between the parents.
between two genes. Dominant genes show cis 93. (d) The allele which cannot express its effect
arrangement. At 50 map units cis is changed in the hybrid or in the presence of dominant
to trans & vice-versa hence no fixed linkage allele is termed as recessive. It is denoted by
is present. small letter.
85. (d) Homozygous individuals have identical 94. (d) Dihybrid condition involves simultaneous
mendelian factors or genes for a character (TT inheritance of two pairs of mendelian factors
or tt). They are always pure for a particular or genes.
trait (character). 95. (c) According to the law of Independent
86. (c) Genotype is the genetic make up of Assortment, alleles of different characters
an individual irrespective of the mendelian located in different pairs of homologous
characters or genes impressing. chromosomes are independent of one another
in their separation or segregation during
Parent : AABB × aabb gamete formation.
96. (b) Gregor Johann Mendel formulated the
Gametes : AB ab
laws of heredity and is regarded as the father
F1 : AaBb of genetics.
97. (b) Allelomorphs control different expres-
SelfingAB: AB Ab aB ab sions or traits of the same character.
Ab aB ab
ABGametesAABB : AABb AaBB AaBb AaBB98. (d) I A I O × I A I B gives us the following
AB AaBB AABB AaBB genotypes IAIA, IOIB, IAIB.
AbF2 : AABb AAbb AaBb Aabb
AABb aaBB
AAbb AaBb 99. (b) On mating tt with Tt, 50% individual
AABB
aB 1 Ab AaBb
–AaBB aaBb Aabb offsprings are recessive and 50% are
ab – AaBb
AaBB 2 aB Aabb
AaBB aaBb
AaBb aabb
aaBB aaBb heterozygous dominant.
Aabb – 2 100. (c) A gene may have more than two
87. (a) Epistasis is the AaBb Aabb
ab phenomenon aaBb aabb
of masking alternative forms occupying the same locus
or aabb – 1 the phenotypic impression of
supressing on a chromosome such alleles are known as
a gene pair by a non allelic gene pair which multiple alleles and the phenomenon is turned
impresses its own effect. as multiple allelism. ABO blood group has 3
88. (a) Dominant alleles expresses itself in alleles. IO, IA or A, IB or B.
the homozygous as well as heterozygous 101. (c) In recessive epistasis, the recessive alleles
condition. It is denoted by capital letter. suppress the expression of a trait. Recessive
89. (d) The genotype of the child would be IºIº epistasis is a type of intergenic interaction in
(recessive). Hence the genotype of the father which one non allelic gene can produce its
can only be I I B O. effect independently in the dominant state
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 309
but second gene can produce its effect when 108. (d) Consideration of one character with
they are present together. Here homozygous two contrasting conditions at one time
recessive allele for a gene mask the expression contributed to Mendel's success in proposing
of dominant allele of another gene. the laws of inheritance of traits. His choice
102. (a) AaBB × aaBB on crossing gives 50% of experimental plant as pea and use of
individuals having genotype AaBB and 50% statistical methods also contributed to his
individuals having genotype aaBB. success.
Parent : AaBB × aaBB 109. (c) In haploid organisms every gene,
irrespective of dominant or recessive and
Gametes : AB aB × aB every mutation finds expression because there
is only one allele for each gene in the haploid
individual. Recessive allele is able to express
F1 AB aB as there is no alternative dominant allele for
producing its masking effect on recessive
AaBB aaBB allele.
aB 110. (d) Thomas Hunt Morgan won the Nobel
Prize (1933) in physiology or medicine for
103. (a) The probability of the daughter becoming the function of chromosomes in heredity.
colour blind arises only when the father is also 111. (c) In case of humans, the sex determining
colour blind. mechanism is XY type. Out of 23 pairs of
Husband – XY chromosomes, 22 pairs are exactly same in
Wife – XXC (wife is carrier because both males and females called autosomes.
her father is colour blind) A pair of X-chromosomes present in the
XY × XX
C female, whereas the presence of an X and
Normal Normal (Carrier) Y chromosome are determinant of male
characteristic. In case the ovum fertilises
C
XX XX
C
XY X Y with a sperm carrying X-chromosome the
Normal Normal Normal Colour blind zygote develops into a female (XX) and the
daughter daughter son son fertilisation of ovum with Y-chromosome
(Carrier)
carrying sperm results into a male offspring.
So, probability of their daughter becoming 112. (b) In grasshopper the males lack a Y-sex
colour blind is 0%. chromosome and have only an X-chromosome.
104. (d) Bateson and Punnett (1906) discovered They produce sperm cells that contain either
coupling and repulsion in sweet pea (Lathyrus an X chromosome or no sex chromosome,
odoratus). which is designated as O.
105. (a) Chromosomes occur in homologous 113. (b) Calvin Bridges demonstrated that in
pairs. Somatic cells have diploid number of Drosophila, the sex is determined by the ratio
chromosomes. Humans have 23 pairs i.e. 46 of the number of X chromosomes to the sets
chromosomes. 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 of autosomes.
pair of sex chromosomes ie. XX in females 114. (a) The genes of cytoplasmic characters
and XY in males. occur outside the chromosome, in cytoplasm,
106. (c) Two linked genes a and b show 20% they inherit their traits like chromosomal
recombination. The individuals of a dihybrid genes do. In a zygote formation the cytoplasm
cross between + + / + + × ab/ab shall show comes from the mother’s ova and hence the
gametes + + 40 : ab40: + a 10 : +b : 10.
cytoplasmic characters must come from
107. (c) Maternal inheritance or cytoplasmic maternal side and this is the reason that
inheritance involves the transmission of
cytoplasmic inheritance is also known as
plasma gene from the maternal cytoplasm to
maternal inheritance.
the offspring.
 EBD_7325
310 BIOLOGY
115. (b) Crossing over occurs between non–sister can be seen physically because of sexual
chromatids of two homologous chromo- dimorphism. A gynandromorph can have
somes. Homologous chromosomes form bilateral symmetry, one side female and one
bivalent. Crossing over occurs between chro- side male, or they can be mosaic, a case in
mosomes in a nucleus. which the two sexes aren’t defined as clearly.
116. (d) Linkage is the staying together of genes 126. (b) Sex of human body is determined by the
and their enblock inheritance from generation karyotype of the zygote or fertilized egg. Sex
to generation. Linked genes do not show of the baby depends upon the sperm which
independent assortment since they are present fertilizes the ovum.
on the same chromosome. 127. (b) Thalassemia is a quantitative problem of
117. (a) One bar body is present in each somatic synthesising very few globin molecules while
cell of female (XX). sickle cell anaemia is a qualitative problem
118. (c) In human the Y chromosome bears the of synthesising an incorrectly functioning
androgenic factor or the male determining
globin.
factor. Whereas in Drosophila the ratio of
sex chromosomes to autosomes is the factor 128. (d) Down’s syndrome is caused by non-
determining sex of the individual. disjunction of 21st chromosome i.e. Trisomy.
119. (c) Allosomes or sex chromosomes 129. (b) Hemophilia A and hemophilia B are
determine the sex of the individual. The rest inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The
of the chromosomes are known as autosome. genes associated with these conditions are
Nucleolus is a cell organelle involved in located on the X chromosome, which is one
synthesis of ribosomes. of the two sex chromosomes. In males (who
120. (c) Hermaphrodite or bisexual refers to an have only one X chromosome), one altered
organism having both male and female sex
copy of the gene in each cell is sufficient to
organs. Gynandromorphs are individuals who
exhibit both male and female characteristics. cause the condition. In females (who have two
121. (d) According to the principle of dosage X chromosomes), a mutation would have to
compensation, one of the two X chromosomes occur in both copies of the gene to cause the
in a female are inactivated at random. The disorder. Because it is unlikely that females
inactivate X chromosome appears as the barr will have two altered copies of this gene, it is
body. very rare for females to have hemophilia. A
122. (b) H.J. Muller - study of effect of radiation characteristic of X-linked inheritance is that
on the living organisms. He was awarded fathers cannot pass X-linked traits to their
the nobel prize for discovering that ionizing
sons.
radiations can induce gene mutations.
123. (d) A barr body is one of the X-chromosomes 130. (d) Sickle cell disease is inherited in an
in somatic cells of females. If there are more autosomal recessive pattern.
X-chromosomes, then there will be more barr 131. (b) Autosomal recessive is a type of disorder
bodies. in which two copies of an abnormal gene
124. (b) Polytene chromosomes are also called gi- must be found for the disease in the affected
ant chromosomes. They consist of numerous person.
parallel identical chromatids due to repeated 132. (c) XX × XcY
duplication without division. They were first
Normal women Colourblind man
time observed by Balbiani in the salivary
glands of Chironomus. ( ) Xc Y
125. (b) A gynandromorph is an organism that ( )
contains both male and female characteristics. X XX XY
These characteristics can be seen in butterflies, X XXc XY
where both male and female characteristics
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 311

The daughters of this couple will have aa → affected child (25%)
normal eye sight and carrier if one of 138. (b) Haemophilia is sex linked recessive
the carrier daughter marries with normal disease in which a simple protein that is a
eyed man. part of protein cascade involved in clotting of
XXc × XY blood is affected. Due to this, in an affected
Normal women Normal man individual a simple cut will result in non stop
( ) X Y bleeding.
( ) 139. (b) Pedigree is a chart showing the record of
X XX XY inheritance of certain genetic traits for two or
Xc XX X°Y more ancestral generations of an individual,
abnormality or disease.
Only 25% g randson will show
colourblindness. 140. (c) Down’s syndrome is the chromosomal
133. (a) A human baby having abnormality disorders due to the presence of an additional
with ‘XXX’ sex chromosomes is born due to copy of the chromosome number 21 (trisomy
evolution of abnormal ova in mother’s ovary. of 21). The affected individual is short
This is caused due to non-disjunction of X statured with small round head, furrowed
chromosome in the mother. tongue and partially open mouth and mental
development is retarted.
141. (b) If a normal visioned man marries a
woman whose father was also colourblind.
Then his wife would be carried of this disease
if her mother was normal. This trait passed
134. (c) A pleiotropic gene regulates multiple into children but daughters produce by this
traits (characteristics) in an individual. couple are carrier not the colourblind. 50%
135. (c) Colour blindness is a X-chromosome of sons would be colourblind.
linked character. 142. (d) Change in single base pair of DNA is also
a type of mutations called point mutations.
It is a type of mutation that causes the
replacement of a single base nucleotide with
another nucleotide of the genetic material,
DNA or RNA. For example, a point mutation
is the cause of sickle cell disease.
∴ Colourblind male = 50%. 143. (b) The inheritance pattern of a particular
136. (a) Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal
trait shown in the picture results in haemophilia.
condition that affects development in
Haemophilia is a group of inherited blood
females. A human female with Turner’s
disorders in which the blood does not clot
syndrome has 45 chromosomes with
properly. It is caused by a fault in one of the
XO. The most common feature of
Turner syndrome is short stature, which genes that determine how the body makes
becomes evident by about age 5. blood clotting factor VIII or IX. These genes
137. (b) Genotype of carrier parents is – Aa are located on the X chromosome.
(male parent) × Aa (female parent) 144. (d) Mutation can be induced by gamma
A a  radiation.
A AA Aa 145. (a) Pedigree analysis is a record of the
a Aa *aa occurrence of a trait in several generations of
a human family. In this\ male members are
AA → normal child (25%) shown by squares and female by circles. Sibs
Aa → carriers child (50%) are represented horizontally on a line in order
 EBD_7325
312 BIOLOGY
of birth. It helps us in giving information chromosomes. The haploid number is
about genotype of an individual for trait designated as X. Reproductive cells, formed
under investigation. as a result of meiosis are diploid. Fusion of
146. (a) The chart shows the inheritance of two such cells restores the normal diploid
a condition like phenylketonuria as an number. Therefore, haploids are more suitable
autosomal recessive trait. Parents’ needs to for mutation studies than the diploids. This is
be heterozygous as two of their children are because all mutations, whether dominant or
known to be sufferer of the disease. It cannot recessive are expressed in haploids.
be recessive sex linked inheritance because 153. (c) Colour blindness in a X-chromosome
then the male parent would also be sufferer. linked character. So they’ll be having all
147. (b) By introducing bone marrow cells colour blind sons and carrier daughters.
C C
producing ADA into cells at early embryonic XY X X
stages, the genetic defect a­ denosine deaminase
(ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently.
It is due to mutation.
C
148. (b) Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a XX C
carrier C XX C
X Y
change in a single base pair of DNA. X Y carrier
daughter colour blind
Sickle-cell anaemia is the name of a specific colour blind daughter son
form of sickle-cell disease in which there is son

homozygosity for the mutation that causes 154. (a) Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans
HbS. Sickle-cell disease, or sickle-cell anaemia caused by the partial deletion of the short
(or drepanocytosis), is a life-long blood arm of chromosome no. 5. In this child has
disorder characterized by red blood cells abnormalities in his/her facial expressions,
that assume an abnormal, rigid, sickle shape. mental retardation, they speak and cry like
Sickling decreases the cells flexibility and that of cat, heart does not work properly.
results in a risk of various complications. ‘
155. (a) Sickle cell anaemia is a biochemical
149. (c) Baldness is a sex influenced trait. disorder in which shape of RBCs become
The dominance of alleles may differ in
sickle-shaped due to the defective haemoglo-
heterozygotes of the two sexes.
bin. Haemoglobin becomes useless for oxygen
150. (a) A point mutation is a simple change transport.
in one base of the gene sequence. This
Huntington Chorea in a disease in which
is equivalent to changing one letter in a
atrophy of brain occurs resulting to respiratory
sentence, such as this example, where we
irregulations, articulation of speech and
change the ‘e’ in cat to an ‘h’:
irregular limbs movements take place. They
Original: The fat cat ate the wee rat.
both are genetic disease present in any person
Point Mutation: The fat hat ate the wee rat.
since birth hence congenital diseases.
151. (a) Klinefelter's syndrome is a genetic
156. (b) In sickle cell anaemia RBCs become
disorder affecting men in which an individual
sickle shaped which are not supportive for the
gains an extra X chromosome, so that the
growth of malarial parasite Plasmodium so it
usual Karyotype of XY is replaced by one of
provides immunity against malaria disease.
XXY. Symptoms of Klinefelter's syndrome
157. (d) Glucose-6-P dehydrogenase is the
named after us physician H.P. Klinefelter,
first enzyme of glucose oxidation during
include female characteristics (such as breast
enlargement). Pentose Phosphate Pathway. RBC contain
haemoglobin which combines with oxygen
So, the corresponding genotype will be AaBb.
to form oxyhaemoglobin which gives its
152. (d) Haploids describes a nucleus cell or
oxygen for oxidation of food. In haemolysis
organism with a single set of unpaired
there is destruction of RBCs with release
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 313
of haemoglobin into plasma resulting in 164. (a) Change in genetic locus, changes the gene
jaundice. So, now RBCs cannot provide and in turn the amino acid it codes for. This
oxygen for oxidation of food thereby causing alters the nature of protein synthesized which
deficiency of G-6-P dehydrogenase. produces change in the organism. DNA
158. (d) Cystic fibrosis : It is a common disorder replication is not affected neither the method
of caucasian race in which thick and more of protein synthesis. Synthesis of RNA over
salty mucus blocks the respiratory tract. The DNA template is called transcription.
homozygous recessive condition produces 165. (b)
166. (d) Sex linked traits are those like colour
the defective protein which regulates chloride
blindness or hemophilia, which show criss-
transport channel.
cross pattern of inheritance of certain
Cretinism : In this disorder the physical genes together along with sex determining
growth, mental growth and sexual growth
genes, because of their presence on the sex
in children is retarded. Such a dwarf and chromosomes. Sex limited characters express
sterile child is called a cretin. It is due to their effects only in one sex and not the other.
hyposecretion of thyroid hormones. Sex influenced characters appear due to the
Thalassemia : Due to defective production effect of particular sex hormone over different
of α or β chains of haemoglobin, autosomal structures.
recessive. 167. (d) 50% of ova will have (n + 1) chromosome
Haemophilia : Sex linked disorder due to which would, on fertilisation, yield abnormal
defective recessive gene. zygotes (n + 1) + (n) = 2n + 1.
159. (c) This disease is due to an X-linked 168. (a) Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder
recessive mutation. Males suffer this disorder caused by a defective allele on chromosome
since they have only one X chromosome and 11. Hemophilia is a sex linked recessive
hence express any trait on this chromosome. disorder. Down's syndrome is caused by
160. (d) Down's syndrome is caused by the trisomy of the 21st chromosome.
presence of an extra chromosome number 169. (b) AIDS is a viral disease. Syphilis and
21 and the off spring has 47 chromosomes. gonorrhoea are both sexually transmitted
161. (b) The daughters receive one X chromosome diseases. Colour blindness is a sex linked
from the father and one X chromosome from disease.
the mother. Since all the daughters suffer from 170. (c)
their father’s disease, the X chromosome 171. (a) Sex linked disorders follow criss-cross
from the father must be carrying a dominant inheritance pattern that affected father passes
trait. it on to their daughters. The daughters receive
one of their X - chromosome from their
162. (b) Normal woman with colour blind father
fathers.
would be a carrier 172. (b) Aneuploidy is numerical change in
Woman (XcX) × Normal man (XY) the chromosome number in the genome.
Progeny XcX XX XcY XY Euploidy is the phenomenon of having
normal normal colour blind normal multiple or more than twice the number of
but carrier daughter son son
daughter genome.
50% of the sons would be colour blind. 173. (b) Sickle cell anaemia is a hereditary
163. (b) Mitochondria is an organelle present in disorder of autosomal nature caused by
the cytoplasm. A zygote receives its cytoplasm mutation of the gene controlling b-chain
from the female parent gamete. Hence in the of haemoglobin. It involves substitution of
given question, the F2 progenies receive the glutamine by valine.
mitochondrial genome from the male parent, 174. (c) Downs syndrome develops due to trisomy
so mutation is not passed to progenies. of the 21st chromosome. Affected individual
possess a characteristic appearance. They
 EBD_7325
314 BIOLOGY
have short stature, small round heads, broad 181. (b) XhcXh × XY h→ haemophilia
forehead, open mouth and projecting lower Female Male C→ colour blindness
lip (Mongoloid idiocy).
175. (a) Somatic mutation is the mutation X hc X X hc Y Xh X Xh Y
occurring in somatic or body cells. Mutations daughter haemophilic daughter haemophilic
occurring in germ cells which are transferable (carrier) Colourblind (carrier) son
to the progeny is called germinal mutation.
son
Mutation occuring in genes is called genetic
mutation. 182. (a) A child will be albino only if it is
176. (a) The mother must have been a haemophilic homozygous for albinism genes (since
carrier (XhX). One of the twins would have albinism is a recessive character). As
inherited the normal X chromosome and the parents have normal skin, it means they are
other would have received the X chromosome heterozygous. As a result of cross between
carrying the gene for haemophilia.
two heterozygous parents, 25% of the children
177. (b) Normal woman whose father was colour
will be homozygous recessive. The nature of
blind would have received the X will be
the second child is not affected in any way by
chromosome from her father – XCY →
the nature of the first child because both are
Parents :  (P1) : ( ) X c X × X c Y ( )
independent events.
↓
        183. (b) Down’s syndrome develops due to
Progeny (F1) : trisomy of chromosome number 21. In
Turner’s syndrome, the effect appears due to
XcXc Xc X Xc Y XY
fusion of a gamete without sex chromosome
colour normal colour normal
and a gamete with one X-chromosome (44 +
blind daughter blind son
X). Klinefelter individuals are phenotypically
daughter son
males. The defect appears due to fusion of egg
178. (c) Down’s syndrome caused by trisomy 21,
having unreduced sex complement (A + X X)
arises due to an occassional non disjunction
with a gamete carrying Y chromosome (44
during meiosis when a gamete comes to
+ XXY). Gynandromorphism occur among
possess an extra chromosome (n+1). Fusion
Drosophila. In such individuals one half of
with a normal gamete [n + (n+1)] produces
the body shows male characters and the other
trisomy.
half shows female characters.
179. (a) Mental retardness is usually found when
184. (a) Gene mutation or point mutation is
there are more than two X chromosomes.
the change in expression of a gene caused
About 1% of all mentally defective men have
by change in number, sequence and types
one or more extra X chromosomes.
of nucleotides. A mutation from a wild
180. (d) Inversion is a change in chromosomal
gene type to a new type is called forward
architecture in which part of the chromosome
mutation. Reversal of mutated gene to wild
gets inverted in its position so that the
type is reverse mutation. Chromosomal
sequence of the genes in the inverted region
mutations are changes in the morphology of
is reversed. In deletion a segment of a
chromosomes.
chromosome breaks and is lost. Monosomy
185. (d) Klinefelter's syndrome is formed by the
is a type of deletion involving deficiency
union of an XX egg and a normal Y sperm or
of one chromosome (2n - 1). In reciprocal normal X egg and abnormal XY sperm. The
translocation there is a mutual exchange individual has 47 chromosomes (44 + XXY).
of segments between two non homologous 186. (d) Sickle cell anaemia (in which nucleotide
chromosomes. triplet GAG is changed to GUG) affects the
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 315
β-globin chain of haemoglobin. Since these Bd.
changes occur at a particular locus or point of 194. (d) On crossing carrier colour-blind woman
a chromosome where specific gene is located, with a normal man, the sons become colour
they are called as point mutation. blind. This is an example of criss cross
187. (d) The women is heterozygous as albinic inheritance. The genes for colourblindness is
condition is recessive hence when she marries coming from mother's father.
an albinic man, the offsprings are 50% normal 195. (a) At anaphase I, actual segregation occurs,
and 50% albinic. but two similar alleles occur in the dyad
188. (d) Holandric genes are present on the chromosome which separate at anaphase II.
differential region of the Y-chromosome. 196. (c) Turner syndrome encompassess several
The differential regions carry completely sex chromosomal abnormalities, of which
linked genes and they do not undergo crossing monosomy X is the most common. It occurs
over. in 1 out of every 2500 female births. Instead
189. (a) When a colour blind woman marries a of the normal XX sex chromosomes for a
normal man the recessive homozygous gene female, only one X chromosome is present
is expressed in sons whereas the daughters and fully functional. This is called 45,X
become carriers. or 45,X0, although other genetic variants
c c occur. In Turner syndrome, female sexual
X X × XY
Colourblind Mother Normal Father characteristics are present but generally
underdeveloped.
197. (d) Down's syndrome is due to non-disjunction
c c
Gametes : X X × X Y of chromosomes. Non-disjunction means
absence of separation of two homologous
X chromosomes during anaphase-I of
c c c c meiosis. Both X-chromosomes go together
XX XX XY XY
to same pole. Other pole will receive no
Carrier daughter Colourblind son X-chromosome.
190. (a) The haploid organisms readily express 198. (a) The brown eyed man will have the
the phenotypes of the new mutations because genotype Bb and his wife bb. Hence Bb × bb
there is no hindrance of dominance. = Bb : bb. Hence ratio is 1 : 1.
191. (c) Since half the sons are haemophilic 199. (d) Blood groups in human are controlled
so the genes for haemophilia is located on by multiple alleles.
X-chromosome of mother. 200. (b) The genotype of the mother was to be
H either XC XC or XCX and that of father XCY
XX × XY so that the daughter becomes colour blind.
Mother Father
201. (d) Phenylketonuria is a human genetic
H H disorder in which the body does not contain
XX XY X X X Y the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase,
Normal Normal Carrier Haemophilic necessary to metabolize phenylalanine
daughter son daughter son
to tyrosine, and converts phenylalanine
192. (b) Due to linkage the genes present on instead to phenylpyruvic acid. As PKU is
same chromosome stay together during an autosomal recessive genetic disorder each
parent must have at least one defective allele
transmission. All other combinations except
of the gene for PAH, and the child must
AABB × aabb show recombination which do
inherit a defective allele from each parent. As
not show linkage and hence not suitable for
such, it is possible for a parent with a PKU
experiments on linkage.
phenotype to have a child without PKU if the
193. (c) Genotype of Mr. Kapoor will be Bb other parent possesses at least one functional
d-hence one fourth of the sperms will have
 EBD_7325
316 BIOLOGY
allele of the gene for PAH. A child of two 204. (c) Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes and
parents with the PKU phenotype will always 1 pair of sex chromosomes which are XX
receive two defective alleles so will always in females and XY in males. So, everytime
have PKU. The gene for PAH is located on the chances of son or daughter is 50-50%
chromosome 12, at location 12q22-q24.2. depending upon which sex chromosome is
202. (d) Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive contributed by father in sperm.
trait carried by X chromosome (also known 205. (a) Induced mutations are produced in
as bleeder’s disease). response to external factors of chemicals
203. (b) Down’s syndrome is due to trisomy called mutagens. In agriculture mutagens
of 21st chromosome and is an autosomal are used to induce desired mutations in crop
abnormality. plants.
 Chapter

28 Molecular Basis of
Inheritance

Topic 1: The DNA/RNA World (a) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5% [2015 RS]
(b) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
1. The final proof for DNA as the genetic
(c) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
material came from the experiments of:
(d) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
(a) Hershey and Chase [2017]
7. Which one of the following is not applicable
(b) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty to RNA?  [2015 RS]
(c) Hargobind Khorana (a) 5’ phosphoryl and 3’ hydroxyl ends
(d) Griffith (b) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
2. DNA fragments are: [2017] (c) Chargaff ’s rule
(a) Negatively charged (d) Complementary base pairing
(b) Neutral 8. Transformation was discovered by: [2014]
(c) Either positively or negatively charged (a) Meselson and Stahl
depending on their size (b) Hershey and Chase
(d) Positively charged (c) Griffith
3. Which of the following RNAs should be most (d) Watson and Crick
abundant in animal cell?  [2017] 9. Uridine, present only in RNA is a
(a) t-RNA (b) m-RNA [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) mi-RNA (d) r-RNA (a) Pyrimidine (b) Nucleoside
4. The association of histone H1 with a (c) Nucleotide (d) Purine
nucleosome indicates:  [2017] 10. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous
(a) DNA replication is occurring. base sequence at ATCTG, what would be the
complementary RNA strand sequence
(b) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin
Fibre. (a) TTAGU (b) UAGAC [2012]
(c) AACTG (d) ATCGU
(c) The DNA double helix is exposed.
11. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the
(d) Transcription is occurring.
genetic material came from the studies on a 
5. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single  [2011M]
strand of RNA is known as [2016] (a) bacterium (b) fungus
(a) Polysome (c) viroid (d) bacterial virus
(b) Polymer 12. Infectious proteins are present in: [2010]
(c) Polypeptide (a) Gemini viruses (b) Prions
(d) Okazaki fragment (c) Viroids (d) Satellite viruses
6. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 13. Which one of the following does not follow
17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. the central dogma of molecular biology?
The percentages of the other three bases (a) Pea (b) Mucor [2010]
expected to be present in this DNA are : (c) Chlamydomonas (d) HIV
 EBD_7325
318 BIOLOGY
14. T.O. Diener discovered a:  [2009] 22. DNA template sequence of CTGATAGC is
(a) free infectious DNA transcribed over mRNA as  [2004]
(b) infectious protein (a) GUCTUTCG (b) GACUAUCG
(c) bacteriophage (c) GAUTATUG (d) UACTATCU
(d) free infectious RNA 23. Extranuclear inheritance occurs in [2004]
15. Which one of the following pairs of nitrog-
(a) peroxisome and ribosome
enous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly
matched with the category mentioned against (b) chloroplast and mitochondria
it? [2008] (c) mitochondria and ribosome
(a) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines (d) chloroplast and lysosome
(b) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines 24. Which form of RNA has a structure
(c) Guanine, Adenine - Purines resembling clover leaf ? [2004]
(d) Adenine, Thymine - Purines (a) rRNA (b) hn RNA
16. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds (c) m RNA (d) t RNA
the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic 25. Transformation experiment was first
cells. How is this DNA accommodated? 
performed on which bacteria? [2002]
(a) super-coiling in nucleosomes [2007]
(a) E.coli
(b) DNase digestion
(b) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(c) through elimination of repititive DNA
(d) deletion of non-essential genes. (c) Salmonella
17. A sequential expression of a set of human (d) Pasteurella pestis
genes [2007] 26. In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20% then
(a) messenger RNA (b) DNA sequence what will be the percentage of guanine?
(c) ribosome (d) transfer RNA. (a) 20% (b) 40% [2002]
18. During transcription, RNA polymerase (c) 30% (d) 60%
holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and 27. Extra-nuclear inheritance occurs in [2001]
assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s (a) Killer strain in Paramecium
DNA-binding sequence? [2007]
(b) Colour blindness
(a) AATT (b) CACC
(c) Phenylketonuria
(c) TATA (d) TTAA
(d) Tay sach disease
19. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
(a) discontinuous [2007] 28. Due to discovery of which of the following
(b) antiparallel in 1980 the evolution was termed as RNA
(c) semi-conservative world? [2001]
(d) parallel. (a) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA synthesise
20. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction proteins
between RNA and mRNA during bacterial (b) In some virus RNA the genetic material
protein synthesis?      [2006] (c) RNA have enzymatic property
(a) Neomycin (b) Streptomycin (d) RNA is not found in all cells
(c) Tetracycline (d) Erythromycin 29. The transfer RNA molecule in 3D appears
21. The following ratio is generally constant for [2000]
a given species: [2004]
(a) L-shaped (b) E-shaped
(c) Y-shaped (d) S-shaped
(a) (b)
30. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association

is as per which of the following pairs?[1999]
(c) (d) (a) AG-CT (b) AC-GT
(c) AT-GC (d) All of these
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 319
31. The Pneumococcus experiment proves that (a) mRNA (b) DNA
(a) DNA is the genetic material  [1999] (c) protein (d) polysaccharide
(b) Bacteria undergo binary fission 39. Nucleosome core is made of  [1993]
(c) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually (a) H1, H2A, H2B and H3
(d) RNA sometime controls the production (b) H1, H2A, H2B, H4
of DNA and proteins (c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
32. How many base pairs (bp) are found in the (d) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
haploid genome of humans? [1999] 40. A nucleotide is formed of [1991]
(a) 2.9 × 109 (b) 4 × 108 (a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(c) 7 × 109 (d) 3 × 109 (b) purine, sugar and phosphate
33. The eukaryotic genome differs from the (c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
prokaryotic genome because [1998] (d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(a) genes in the former case are organized
Topic 2: Replication/Transcription/
into operons
Genetic Code/Translation
(b) the DNA is complexed with histones in
prokaryotes 41. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes
(c) repetitive sequences are present in for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the
eukaryotes base at position 901 is deleted such that the
(d) the DNA is circular and single stranded length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how
in prokaryotes many codons will be altered? [2017]
34. Reverse transcriptase is [1994] (a) 11 (b) 33
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase (c) 333 (d) 1
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase 42. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase are used to elongate:  [2017]
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (a) The lagging strand towards replication
35. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen fork.
by  [1993] (b) The leading strand away from replication
(a) X-ray crystallography fork.
(b) electron microscope (c) The lagging strand away from the
(c) ultracentrifuge replication fork.
(d) light microscope (d) The leading strand towards replication
36. A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would fork.
most probably be  [1993] 43. Which one of the following is the starter
(a) single stranded (b) double stranded codon?  [2016]
(c) triple stranded (d) four stranded (a) AUG (b) UGA
37. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic (c) UAA (d) UAG
material?  [1993] 44. The movement of a gene from one linkage
(a) Griffith group to another is called :  [2015 RS]
(b) Watson (a) Duplication (b) Translocation
(c) Boveri and Sutton (c) Crossing over (d) Inversion
(d) Hershey and Chase 45. Which one of the following is wrongly
38. The transforming principle of Pneumococus as matched?  [2014]
found out by Avery, MacLeod and McCarty (a) Transcription – Writing information
was  [1993] from DNA to tRNA.
 EBD_7325
320 BIOLOGY
(b) Translation – Using information in How many of the above statements are
mRNA to make protein correct? [2012M]
(c) Repressor protein – Binds to operator to (a) Two (b) Three
stop enzyme synthesis. (c) Four (d) One
(d) Operon – Structural genes, operator and 52. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA
promoter. strand. What is so special shown in it? [ 2011]
46. Which of the following is not a property of 5’ —— GAATTC —— 3’
the genetic code?  [NEET Kar. 2013] 3’ —— CTTAAG —— 5’
(a) Universal (b) Non-overlapping (a) Replication completed
(c) Ambiguous (d) Degeneracy (b) Deletion mutation
47. DNA C mRNA B protein
Proposed by (c) Start codon at the 5’ end
A
(d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
The figure gives an important concept in the 53. The one aspect which is not a salient feature
genetic implication of DNA. Fill the blanks of genetic code, is its being: [2010]
A, B and C. [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) degenerate (b) ambiguous
(a) A – Francis Crick; B – translation;
(c) universal (d) specific
C – transcription
54. What is not true for genetic code? [2009]
(b) A – Maurice Wilkins; B – transcription;
C – translation (a) It is nearly universal
(c) A – James Watson; B – replication; (b) It is degenerate
C – extension (c) It is unambiguous
(d) A – Erwin Chargaff; B – translation; (d) A codon in mRNA is read in a non­
C – replication contiguous fashion
48. Removal of RNA polymerase III from 55. Removal of introns and joining the exons
nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of : in a defined order in a transcription unit is
(a) t RNA (b) hn RNA [2012] called:  [2009]
(c) m RNA (d) r RNA (a) tailing (b) transformation
49. Which one of the following is not a part of a (c) capping (d) splicing
transcription unit in DNA ? [2012] 56. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and
(a) The inducer discovered unequivocally that a genetic code
(b) A terminator is a ‘triplet’  [2009].
(c) A promoter (a) Hershey and Chase
(d) The structural gene (b) Morgan and Sturtevant
50. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a (c) Beadle and Tantum
defined order during transcription is called :
(d) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(a) Looping (b) Inducing [2012]
57. Which one of the following pairs of codons
(c) Slicing (d) Splicing
is correctly matched with their function or the
51. Read the following four statements (A-D).
signal for the particular amino acid? [2008]
(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with
(a) GUU, GCU-Alanine
uracil.
(b) UAG, UGA-Stop
(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is
referred to as positive regulation. (c) AUG, ACG-Start/Methionine
(C) The human genome has approximately (d) UUA, UCA-Leucine
50,000 genes. 58. Polysome is formed by [2008]
(D) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive (a) several ribosomes attached to a single
disease. mRNA
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 321
(b) many ribosomes attached to a strand of (d) association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl-
endoplasmic reticulum met-tRNA
(c) a ribosome with several subunits 65. Which one of the following triplet codes, is
(d) ribosomes attached to each other in a correctly matched with its specificity for an
linear arrangement amino acid in protein synthesis or as ‘start’
59. Molecular basis of organ differentiation or ‘stop’codon ?  [2003]
depends on the modulation in transcription (a) UAC – Tyrosine (b) UCG – Start
by [2007] (c) UUU – Stop (d) UGU – Leucine
(a) ribosome 66. What would happen if in a gene encoding a
(b) transcription factor polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon
(c) anticodon (UAU) is mutated to UAA?[2003]
(d) RNA polymerase. (a) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be
60. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a [2005] formed
(a) simple protein (b) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be
(b) RNA formed
(c) ribonucleoprotein (c) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino
acids will be formed
(d) repetitive DNA
(d) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be
61. In a mutational event, when adenine is
formed
replaced by guanine, it is a case of [2004]
67. In the genetic code dictionary, how many
(a) frame shift mutation
codons are used to code for all the 20 essential
(b) transcription
amino acids ?  [2003]
(c) transition
(a) 60 (b) 20
(d) transversion
(c) 64 (d) 61
62. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes
68. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed
consist of short sequences of [2004]
to the [2003]
(a) thymine rich repeats
(a) third member of a codon
(b) cytosine rich repeats
(b) first member of a codon
(c) adenine rich repeats
(c) second member of a codon
(d) guanine rich repeats
(d) entire codon
63. During replication of a bacterial chromosome
69. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types
DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin
of amino acid. It is called  [2002]
site and [2004]
(a) degeneracy of genetic code
(a) RNA primers are involved
(b) overlapping of gene
(b) is facilitated by telomerase
(c) wobbling of codon
(c) moves in one direction of the site
(d) universility of codons
(d) moves in bi-directional way
70. Exon part of m- RNAs have code for [2002]
64. During translation initiation in prokaryotes,
(a) protein (b) lipid
a GTP molecule is needed in[2003]
(c) carbohydrate (d) phospholipid
(a) association of 50 S subunit of ribosome
71. Types of RNA polymerase required in
with initiation complex
nucleus for RNA synthesis? [2001]
(b) formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with
mRNA (c) 3 (d) 4
 EBD_7325
322 BIOLOGY
72. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used 80. DNA elements which can switch their
synonymously because  [2001] position are called  [1998]
(a) one cistron contains many genes (a) exons (b) introns
(b) one gene contains many cistrons (c) cistrons (d) transposons
(c) one gene contains one cistron 81. Genes that are involved in turning on or off
(d) one gene contains no cistron the transcription of a set of structural genes
73. Mutation generally produces  [2000] are called  [1998]
(a) polygenes (b) dominant genes (a) Operator genes
(c) recessive genes (d) lethal genes (b) Redundant genes
74. Protein synthesis occurs [2000] (c) Regulator genes
(a) on ribosmes present in cytosol as well as (d) Polymorphic genes
in mitochondria 82. Which step of translation does not consume
(b) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear a high energy phosphate bond ? [1997]
envelope and endoplasmic reticulum (a) Translocation
(c) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol (b) Amino acid activation
(d) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as (c) Peptidyl-transferase reaction
well as cytoplasm
(d) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to active
75. One function of the telomeres in a chromosome ribosomal site
is to [2000]
83. Three codons causing chain termination are
(a) indentify the correct number of the
(a) TAG, TAA, TGA [1997]
homologous pair of chromosomes
(b) GAT, AAT, AGT
(b) help two chromatids to move towards
poles (c) AGT, TAG, UGA
(c) "seal" the ends of chromosomes (d) UAG, UGA, UAA
(d) start RNA synthesis 84. A mutation at one base of the first codon, of
76. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in a gene, produces a non-functional protein.
an exposed position of  [2000] Such a mutation is called  [1997]
(a) mRNA (b) rRNA (a) nonsense mutation
(c) tRNA (d) sRNA (b) missense mutation
77. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in (c) frameshift mutation
eucaryotes) is  [2000] (d) reverse mutation
(a) GUA (b) GCA 85. If a completely radioactive double stranded
(c) CCA (d) AUG DNA molecule undergoes two rounds of
78. DNA replication is  [2000] replication in a non-radioactive medium,
(a) conservative and discontinuous what will be the radioactive status of the four
(b) semiconservative and semi discontinuous resulting molecules?  [1997]
(c) semiconservative and discontinuous (a) Half the number contain no radioactivity
(d) conservative (b) All four still contain radioactivity
79. What base is responsible for hot spots for (c) Three out of four contain radioactivity
spontaneous point mutations? [1998] (d) Radioactivity is lost from all four
(a) Adenine 86. Different mutations referrable to the same
(b) 5-bromouracil locus of a chromosome give rise to [1997]
(c) 5-methylcytosine (a) multiple alleles (b) pseudoalleles
(d) Guanine (c) polygenes (d) oncogenes
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 323
87. During development of an organism, the 96. Out of A-T, G-C pairing, bases of DNA
product of one gene is required to activate may exist in alternate valency state owing to
another gene. Such gene products are called arrangement called  [1994]
(a) transcription factors  [1997] (a) analogue substitution
(b) episomes (b) tautomerisational mutation
(c) coenzymes (c) frame-shift mutation
(d) catalase (d) point mutation
97. The process of translation is  [1993]
88. In eukaryotes, after transcription of mRNA,
(a) ribosome synthesis
some of its nucleotides are removed before it
(b) protein synthesis
is translated into polypeptide. The nucleotides
(c) dNA synthesis
which are removed from mRNA are called
(d) rNA synthesis
(a) exons  [1997]
98. During DNA replication, the strands separate
(b) upstream sequences
by       [1993]
(c) unusual bases (a) DNA polymerase
(d) introns (b) topoisomerase
89. Okazaki fragments are seen during  [1996] (c) unwindase/Helicase
(a) transcription (b) translation (d) gyrase
(c) replication (d) transduction 99. Because most of the amino acids are
90. The translation termination triplet is  [1996] represented by more than one codon, the
(a) UAU (b) UAA genetic code is  [1993]
(c) UAC (d) UGC. (a) overlapping (b) wobbling
91. In split genes, the coding sequences are called (c) degenerate (d) generate
(a) introns (b) operons [1995] 100. Escherichia coli fully labelled with 15N is allowed
to grow in 14N medium. The two strands of
(c) exons (d) cistrons
DNA molecule of the first generation bacteria
92. Protein helping in opening of DNA double
have  [1992]
helix in form of replication fork is  [1994]
(a) different density and do not resemble
(a) DNA gyrase parent DNA
(b) DNA polymerase I (b) different density but resemble parent
(c) DNA ligase DNA
(d) DNA topoisomerase (c) same density and resemble parent DNA
93. Which is not involved in protein synthesis ? (d) same density but do not resemble parent
(a) Transcription (b) Initition [1994] DNA
(c) Elongation (d) Termination 101. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of
94. Reverse transcriptase is [1994] (a) serine and isoleucine  [1992]
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase (b) cysteine and valine
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (c) tyrosine and tryptophan
(d) phenylalanine and methionine
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
102. Experimental material in the study of DNA
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
replication has been  [1992]
95. The number of base substitution possible in
(a) Escherichia coli
amino acid codons is  [1994]
(b) Neurospora crassa
(a) 261 (b) 264 (c) Pneumococcus
(c) 535 (d) 549 (d) Drosophila melanogaster
 EBD_7325
324 BIOLOGY
103. The process of transfer of genetic information 110. Satellite DNA is important because it :
from DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from [2015 RS]
DNA is  [1991] (a) shows high degree of polymorphism in
(a) transversion (b) transcription population and also the same degree of
(c) translation (d) translocation polymorphism in an individual, which
104. In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons is heritable from parents to children.
as  [1990] (b) does not code for proteins and is same
(a) 64 amino acids are to be coded in all members of the population
(b) 64 types of tRNAs are present (c) codes for enzymes needed for DNA
(c) there are 44 nonsense codons and 20 replication
sense codons (d) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
(d) genetic code is triplet. 111. Select the correct option:  [2014]
105. An octamer of 4 histones complexed with Direction of RNA Direction of reading of
DNA forms [1990] synthesis the template DNA strand
(a) endosome (b) nucleosome (a) 5´—3´ 3´—5´
(c) mesosome (d) centromere (b) 3´—5´ 5´—3´
106. Genetic code consists of  [1988] (c) 5´—3´ 5´—3´
(a) adenine and guanine (d) 3´—5´ 3´—5´
(b) cytosine and uracil 112. The diagram shows an important concept in
the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the
(c) cytosine and guanine
blanks A to C.  [NEET 2013
(d) all the above
DNA A
mRNA B
protein
Proposed by
Topic 3: Regulation of Gene Expression C

(a) A-translation B - transciption C-Erwin

107. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of; [2017]
Chargaff
(a) Fungi (b) Animals
(b) A-transcription B - translation C-Francis
(c) Bacteria (d) Plants Crick
108. Which of the following is required as (c) A-translation B - extension C-Rosalind
inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon? Franklin
(a) Glucose  [2016] (d) A-transcription B - replication C-James
(b) Galactose Watson
(c) Lactose 113. Which enzymes will be produced in a cell in
which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac
(d) Lactose and galactose
Y gene? [NEET 2013]
109. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of (a) Lactose permease
E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is : (b) Transacetylase
[2015 RS] (c) Lactose permease and transcetylase
(a) Negative and inducible because repressor (d) β- galactosidase
protein prevents transcription 114. In an inducible operon, the genes are
(b) Negative and repressible because [NEET Kar. 2013]
repressor protein prevents transcription (a) Always expressed
(c) Feedback inhibition because excess (b) Usually not expressed unless a signal
of b-galactosidase can switch off turns them “on”
trascription (c) Usually expressed unless a signal turns
(d) Positive and inducible because it can be them “off ”
induced by lactose (d) Never expressed
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 325
115. Which one of the following also acts as a (c) Diplocococcus pneumoniae
catalyst in a bacterial cell ? [2011] (d) Neurospora crassa.
(a) 5s rRNA (b) sn RNA 121. One gene -one enzyme hypothesis was
(c) hn RNA (d) 23s rRNA postulated by  [2006]
116. Select the two correct statements out of the (a) Hershey and Chase
four (a–d) given below about lac operon.
(b) A. Garrod
(i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
(c) Beadle and Tatum
repressor and inactivate it [2010]
(ii) In the absence of lactose the repressor (d) R. Franklin
binds with the operator region 122. E.coli cells with a mutated z gene of the lac
(iii) The z-gene codes for permease operon cannot grow in medium containing
(iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob only lactose as the source of energy
and Jacque Monod because:  [2005]
The correct statements are: (a) the lac operon is constitutively active in
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) these cells
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) (b) they cannot synthesize functional beta-
117. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was galactosidase
first demonstrated in:  [2009] (c) in the presence of glucose, E.coli cells do
(a) Escherichia coli not utilize lactose
(b) Streptococcus pneumoniae (d) they cannot transport lactose from the
(c) Salmonella typhimurium medium into the cell
(d) Drosophila melanogaster 123. During transcription holoenzyme RNA
118. In the DNA molecule [2008] polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and
(a) the total amount of purine nucleotides the DNA assumes a saddle like structure at
and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always that point. What is that sequence called?
equal
[2005]
(b) there are two strands which run parallel
(a) AAAT box (b) TATA box
in the 5′ → 3′ direction
(c) GGTT box (d) CAAT box
(c) the proportion of Adenine in relation to
thymine varies with the organism 124. Which one of the following makes use of
(d) there are two strands which run anti RNA as a template to synthesize DNA? 
parallel one in 5′ → 3′ direction and other (a) DNA polymerase  [2005]
in 3′ → 5′ (b) RNA polymerase
119. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain (c) Reverse transcriptase
growth   [2007] (d) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
(a) polymerize in the 3’ - to - 5’ direction and 125. In transgenics, expression of transgene in
forms replication fork target tissue is determined by[2004]
(b) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA (a) enhancer (b) transgene
replication (c) promoter (d) reporter
(c) polymerize in the 5’ - to - 3’ direction and
126. What does "lac" refer to in what we call the
explain 3’ - to - 5’ DNA replication
lac operon? [2003]
(d) result in transcription.
(a) The number 1,00,000
120. One gene-one enzyme relationship was
(b) Lactose
established for the first time in [2007]
(c) Lactase
(a) Salmonella typhimurium
(d) Lac insect
(b) Escherichia coli
 EBD_7325
326 BIOLOGY
127. During transcription, the DNA site at which (a) The lac operon is repressed
RNA polymerase binds is called[2003] (b) All operons are induced
(a) enhancer (b) promoter (c) The lac operon is induced
(c) regulator (d) receptor (d) E.coli cells stop dividing
128. In E.coli during lactose metabolism repressor 136. An environmental agent, which triggers
binds to  [2002] transcription from an operon, is a [1995]
(a) regulator gene (b) operator gene (a) regulator
(c) structural gene (d) promoter gene (b) inducer
129. Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism (c) depressor
in E.coli and proposed operon concept. (d) controlling element
Operon concept is applicable for[2002] 137. The lac operon is an example of  [1995]
(a) all prokaryotes (a) arabinose operon
(b) all prokaryotes and some eukaryotes (b) inducible operon
(c) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes (c) repressible operon
(d) all prokaryotes and some protozoans (d) overlapping genes
130. In negative operon  [2001] 138. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by
(a) co-repressor binds with repressor [1994]
(b) co-repressor does not bind with repressor (a) lactose (b) promoter gene
(c) co-repressor binds with inducer (c) β -galactosidase (d) I-gene
(d) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon 139. Binding of specific protein on regulatory
131. In which direction m-RNA is synthesised on DNA sequence can be studied by means of
DNA template ?  [2001] (a) ultra centrifugation [1993]
(a) 5′ → 3′ (b) 3′ → 5′ (b) electron microscope
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Any (c) light microscope
132. At time of organogenesis genes regulate the (d) X-ray crystallography
process at different levels and at different time Topic 4: Human Project DNA
due to  [2001] Fingerprinting
(a) promoter (b) regulator
(c) intron (d) exon 140. Which of the following is not required for
133. In operon concept , regulator gene functions any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting
as  [1999] available at present ? [2016]
(a) repressor (b) regulator (a) Polymerase chain reaction
(c) inhibitor (d) all of these (b) Zinc finger analysis
134. The RNA that picks up specific amino acids (c) Restriction enzymes
from the amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to (d) DNA-DNA hybridization
ribosome during protein synthesis is called 141. One of the most frequently used techniques
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA [1997] in DNA fingerprinting is [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) AFLP (b) VNTR
(c) rRNA (d) carrier RNA
(c) SSCP (d) SCAR
135. The wild type E. coli cells are growing in
142. Which of the following forms the basis of
normal medium with glucose. They are
DNA Finger printing? [2012M]
transferred to a medium containing only
(a) The relative proportions of purines and
lactose as sugar. Which of the following
pyrimidines in DNA.
changes takes place?  [1995]
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 327
(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly 145. DNA fingerprinting refers to[2004]
repeated short DNA segments. (a) molecular analysis of profiles of DNA
(c) The relative difference in the DNA samples
occurrence in blood, skin and saliva.
(b) analysis of DNA samples using imprint-
(d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges ing devices
and grooves of the fingerprints. (c) techniques used for molecular analysis
143. In history of biology, human genome project of different specimens of DNA
led to the development of : [2011M] (d) techniques us ed for identification of
(a) biotechnology (b) biomonitoring fingerprints of individuals
146. The basis for DNA fingerprinting is [1996]
(c) bioinformatics (d) biosystematics
(a) occurrence of restriction fragment length
144. Satellite DNA is useful tool in: [2010]
polymorphism (RFLP)
(a) organ transplantation
(b) p h e n o t y p i c d i f f e r e n c e s b e t we e n
(b) sex determination individuals
(c) forensic science (c) availability of cloned DNA
(d) genetic engineering (d) knowledge of human karyotype
 EBD_7325
328 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Hershey and Chase proved that DNA as 10. (b) Sequence of DNA is ATCTG then
genetic material. They used bacteriophage for sequence of m-RNA will UAGAC. As
their experiment. adenine base pairs with uracil and guanine
2. (a) DNA fragments are negatively charged with cytosine.
because of presence of phosphate group. 11. (d) Bacteriophage was used by Hershey and
Chase to prove DNA as genetic material.
3. (d) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is most
12. (b) Infections proteins are rich in prions.
abundant in animal cell. It constitutes 80%
Prions are made of proteins without nucleic
of total RNA of the cell. acid. It is the causal agent of scrapie disease
4. (b) The association of H1 protein indicates of sheep.
the complete formation of nucleosome which 13. (d) HIV viruses does not follow central
requires DNA condensation. The DNA is dogma. Central dogma is a one way flow of
therefore in condensed form. information from DNA to mRNA and then
5. (a) A polysome or polyribosome is a to protein.
complex of an mRNA molecule and two or
more ribosomes, which is formed during the
active translation process. They were initially
named as ergosomes in 1963. However, 14. (d) Theodor O. Diener discovered the Potato
further research by Jonathan Warner and Spindle Tuber Viroid (“PSTVd”), the first
Alex Rich characterized polysome. viroid ever identified, in 1971. PSTVd is a
small, circular RNA molecule. Dr. Diener
6. (b) Chargaff ’s rule states that A = T and G
discovered that the pathogen causing potato
≡ C. The molar amount of adenine = molar
spindle tuber disease is not a virus, as
amount of thymine. The molar amount of
previously believed, but a much smaller, free
guanine = molar amount of cytosine.
RNA molecule.
Hence, G is 17%, so, C = 17%
15. (d) Purine is an organic nitrogenous base
A = 33%, so, T = 33% sparingly soluble in water, that gives rise to a
7. (c) Chargaff ’s rule is not applicable to RNA group of biologically important derivatives,
8. (c) Frederick Griffith (in 1928), a British notably adenine and guanine, which occur
Medical officer described the phenomenon in nucleotides and nucleic acids (DNA and
of bacterial transformation. He carried out RNA).
experiment with Streptococcus pneumoniae 16. (a) The nucleosome model explains the
(bacterium causing pneumonia) which is used packaging of histone proteins and DNA
to infect mice. By using S Strain (heat killed) in the chromatin material which forms the
and R strain (live) it was concluded that R chromosome.
17. (b) A sequential expression of a set of
strain has been transformed by some material
human genes is the DNA sequence. Because
of S strain which makes R strain virulent and gene is the functional part of DNA sequence.
enable to synthesize smooth polysachharide. 18. (c) The DNA binding sequence for RNA
9. (b) The combination of pentose sugar with polymerase is called TATA box.
nitrogenous bases (purines or pyrimidines) is 19. (b) The two chains are antiparallel, one
called nucleoside. Examples are adenosine, aligned in 5’→3’ direction the other in 3’ →
guanosine, cytidine, thymidine and uridine. 5’ direction.
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 329
20. (a) Neomycin is the antibiotic which inhibits 33. (b)
the translation of bacterial cell so that it can 34. (d) H. Temin and D. Baltimore (1970)
not affect the host cell. discovered that tumor viruses contain RNA as
21. (c) According to Chargaff purines and genetic material and replicate by synthesizing
pyrimidines are in equal amounts. Purine complementary DNA. This process is called
(adenine) is equimolar with pyrimidine reverse transcription and it is carried by an
RNA dependent DNA polymerase called as
(thymine) and purine (guanine) is equimolar
reverse transcriptase.
with pyrimidine (cytosine).
35. (a) In 1953 Wilkins obtained very fine X-ray
A+T
Base ratio is specific for species. crystallographic pictures of DNA from which
C+G
Watson and Crick developed the double helix
22. (b) During transcription, from the DNA
model of DNA.
template complementary mRNA is formed
and thymine is replaced by uracil. 36. (a) A single strand of DNA would not
23. (b) In eukaryotic cells, two cytoplasmic possess complementary base pairs. Hence
organelles, mitochondria and chloroplast nitrogenous bases are unequal in number.
of green plants, contain their own genetic 37. (d) Hershey and Chase (1952) worked on
materials. Escherichia coli and conclusively proved that
24. (d) rRNA occurs inside ribosomes. m DNA is the genetic material.
RNA carries information from DNA to 38. (b) The transforming chemical discovered by
polypeptides. hnRNA are heterogenous Griffith in his experiments with Pneumococcus,
nuclear RNA. was confirmed as DNA by Avery, McLeod
25. (b) Transformation is change in genetic and McCarty.
material of an organism by obtaining genes 39. (d) The four histone proteins constituting the
from outside. core of nucleosome are H2A, H2B, H3, H4.
26. (c) According to Chargaff's rule, the ratio 40. (c) Nucleotide is a unit of DNA , which
of purine bases to pyrimidine bases is equal. is formed of nitrogenous bases (urines &
A = T, C = G.
Pyrimidines), sugar (Pentose) & phosphate.
If T is 20% then A is 20% and C and G are
41. (b) If deletion happen at 901st position than
30%, 30%.
27. (a) Colour blindness follows sex-linked the remaining 98 bases specifying for 33
inheritance. Phenylketonuria is an in born error codons of amino acids will be altered.
of metabolism. 42. (c) Two DNA polymerase molecules
28. (c) Ribozymes are catalytically active RNA simultaneously work at the DNA fork, one
molecule discovered in 1980’s. They are self on the leading strand and the other on the
splicing introns indicating their possible lagging strand.
role as intermediates in the evolution of DNA polymerase synthesizes each Okazaki
biological systems from abiotic substances. fragment at lagging strand in 5′-3′ direction.
29. (a) Kim et al (1973) suggested L shape As the replication fork opens further, new
model of t- RNA by X-Ray diffraction while Pkazaki fragments appear. The first Okazaki
studying phenyl alanine t - RNA of yeast. fragment appears away from the replication
30. (c) In DNA adenine always pairs with fork and thus the direction of elongation
thymine and guanine always pairs with would be away from replication fork.
cytosine, this is called complementary base 43. (a) The start codon is the first codon of
pairing. a messenger RNA (mRNA) transcript
31. (a) Griffith’s experiment with Pneumococcus
translated by a ribosome. The start codon
proves that DNA is the genetic material.
always codes for methionine in eukaryotes
32. (d) The number of base pairs (bp) found in
the haploid genome of humans is 3 × 109. and a modified Met (fMet) in prokaryotes.
The most common start codon is AUG.
 EBD_7325
330 BIOLOGY
44. (b) In translocation, the movement of a gene Human genome contains some 20,000-
takes place from one linkage group to another 25,000 genes billion bases.
between non-homologous chromosomes. 52. (d) The sample of a portion of DNA strand
45. (a) Process of copying genetic information shown in the figure is palindromic sequence
from DNA to RNA is called transcription. of base pairs.
At a time only one DNA strand is being 53. (b) Genetic code is non ambiguous. There is
transcribed into RNA. The strand of DNA no ambiguity for a particular codon. A par-
with polarity 3’ → 5’ act as template strand ticular codon will always code for the same
and the DNA strand with polarity 5’ → 3’ act amino acid, where ever it is found.
as coding strand. 54. (d) The genetic code consists of 64 triplets of
nucleotides. These triplets are called codons.
46. (c) Genetic code is the relationship of
With three exceptions, each codon encodes
amino acid sequence in a polypeptide
for one of the 20 amino acids used in the
and nucleotide/base sequence in mRNA/
synthesis of proteins. That produces some
antisense strand of DNA.
redundancy in the code. Most of the amino
It is universal, i.e., a codon specifies
acids being encoded by more than one codon.
the same amino acid in all organisms,
The genetic code can be expressed as either
non-overlapping, i.e., adjacent codons are
RNA codons or DNA codons.
independent with no base being member of 55. (d) Splicing is the removal of introns and
two codons, degeneracy, i.e., some amino joining the exons in a defined order in a
acids are coded by more than one codon, transcription unit. In molecular biology,
hence the code is degenerate, unambiguous, splicing is a modification of RNA after
i.e., one codon codes for only one amino acid. transcription, in which introns are removed
47. (a) In this question A is Franis Crick, B and exons are joined.
is translation and C is transcription. It is 56. (d) Nirenberg and Mathaei (1961) experi­
unidirectional flow of information DNA to mentally proved that a single amino acid is
mRNA (transcription) and then decoding determined by a sequence of three nitrogen
the information present in mRNA in the bases. The sequence of three nitrogen bases
formation of polypeptide chain or protein determining a single amino acid is called
(translation). a triplet code. Nirenberg and Mathaei
48. (a) Removal of RNA polymerase III from experiments cracked the DNA and discovered
nucleoplasm w ill affect the synthesis of unequivocally that a genetic code is a triplet.
tRNA while RNA polymerase I forms r-RNA 57. (b) GCU indicates alanine but GUU
and RNA polymerase II form m-RNA is indicates valine.
Eukaryotes. Stop codons are UAG, UGA and UAA
49. (a) Transcription unit consists of promoter, AUG is the most common start codon which
structural gene & terminator. codes for methionine.
50. (d) Remonal of introns by spliceosome in UUA indicates leucine but UCA indicates
hnRNA and joining of exons by DNA liagse serine.
in a defined order during transcription is 58. (a) Polysome (Polyribosome) is a complex
called splicing. formed by several ribosomes attached to
51. (a) Statement A & D is correct a single mRNA molecule in the process of
Regulation of lac operon by repressor is translation.
referred as negative regulation. In negative 59. (d) The process of formation of protein
regulation, a repressor molecule binds to sequence from DNA strand is called
the operator of an operon and terminates transcription which requires RNA polymerase
transcription. In positive regulation, an
chain. RNA polymerase chains are of 3-types
activator interacts with the RNA polymerase
in eukaryotes
in the promoter region to initiate transcription.
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 331
(i) RNA polymerase-I are used in the formation of the 20 essential
(ii) RNA polymerase II amino acids (polypeptides).
(iii) RNA polymerase-III 68. (a) According to the Wobble hypothesis,
60. (c) Telomerase is a ribonucleoprotein which tRNA anticodon has the ability to wobble
synthesize the rich strand of telomers in at its 5′end by pairing with even non-
DNA. Telomerase is an enzyme that adds complementary base of mRNA codon. It
specific DNA sequence repeats ("TTAGGG" correspond to third base degeneracy of the
in all vertebrates) to the 3' ("three prime") codons.
end of DNA strands in the telomere regions, 69. (a) Out of 64 codons, only 3 signify stop
which are found at the ends of eukaryotic codons. There are more than one codon
chromosomes. The telomeres contain for most of the amino acids, the genetic
condensed DNA material, giving stability to code is non-over lapping. Three successive
the chromosomes. The enzyme is a reverse nucleotides or bases code for only one
transcriptase that carries its own RNA amino acid wobbling refers to the third base
molecule, which is used as a template when degeneracy.
it elongates telomeres, which are shortened 70. (a) Exons are the coding part of mRNA.
after each replication cycle. Telomerase was 71. (c) Eukaryotes have three types of RNA
discovered by Carol W. Greider in 1984. polymerases :
61. (c) In transition substitution a purine is (i) RNA polymerase I - It is found in
replaced by another purine base (A with G nucleus and is responsible for r-RNA
synthesis.
or vice versa). In transversion substitution
(ii) RNA polymerase II - It is found in
a purine is replaced by a pyrimidine base
nucleoplasm and is responsible for
or vice versa. Frameshift mutation is a type m-RNA synthesis.
of mutation where the reading of codons (iii) RNA polymerase III-It is found in
is changed due to insertion or deletion of nucleoplasm and is responsbile for
nucleotides. Transition is the formation of t-RNA and 5-S RNA synthesis.
RNA over the template of DNA. 72. (c) Cistron is that segment of DNA which
62. (c) Telomeres are non sticky terminal ends specifies synthesis of a polypeptide.
of the chromosomes. It has heterochromatin 73. (d) Polygene is a gene, single dominant allele
and repetitive DNA. of which expresses only a unit of the trait,
63. (d) Replication begins at the Ori - origin of lethal genes on expression stop producing
replication and proceeds on both sides from vital products essential for survival of an
the Ori. Unidirectional replication is rare. individual.
RNA primers are involved in both prokaryotes 74. (b)
and eukaryotes. 75. (c) Seal the ends of chromosomes. The
64. (d) For the formation of initiation complex
telomere is a "ribonucleoprotein complex"
during translation of mRNA, GTP is also
composed of a protein component and an
required. The initiator AUG codes for the
formylmethionine in prokaryotes. RNA primer sequence which acts to protect
65. (a) AUG is initiating codon. UCG codes the terminal ends of chromosomes. This
for serine, UUU codes for phenylalan, UGU prevents chromosomal disintegration and
codes for cysteine. prevents the ends of the chromosome from
66. (b) UAA is the stop codon. Therefore at 25th being processed as a double strand DNA
amino acid the synthesis of polypeptide stops. break, which could lead to chromosome-to-
So, a polypeptide of 24 Amino acid is formed. chromosome telomere fusions.
67. (d) Out of a total of 64 codons, 3 codons do 76. (c) tRNA works as an adaptor molecules for
not make any sense. Hence only 61 codons carrying amino acid to the mRNA templated
 EBD_7325
332 BIOLOGY
during protein synthesis. It bears anticodon gene mutation where the reading of codons
and recognizes the specific codon on mRNA. is changed due to insertion or deletion of
77. (d) The initiation codon is the codon which nucleotides.
initiates the protein synthesis. They are AUG 85. (a) DNA replication is semiconservative. i.e.
for methionine and GUG for valine. at each replication one of the parental strands
78. (b) In semi conservative replication of DNA is retained and a new daughter strand is
in each replica one half is the old strand and obtained. Thus only half of the parental DNA
the other half is a new strand synthesized over molecule is carried to the next generation.
it.
79. (c) The term "hot spots" was used by
Benzer for the sites which are more mutable
than other sites. Studies in 1978 revealed
that 5-methylcytosine residues occur at the
position of each hot spot.
80. (d) Transposons are sequences of DNA
that can move around to different positions
within the genome of a single cell, a process
called transposition. In the process, they
can cause mutations and change the amount 86. (a) Multiple alleles are multiple alternatives
of DNA in the genome. Transposons are or alleles of the same gene which occur in
also called “jumping genes” or “mobile the population of same species. Polygene
genetic elements”. Discovered by Barbara is a gene, single dominant allele of which
McClintock early in her career, the topic express only a unit of trait . Polygenes are the
went on to be a Nobel winning work in genes controlling quantitative inheritances.
1983. There are a variety of mobile genetic Oncogenes are the cancer causing genes.
elements, and they can be grouped based on 87. (a) In eukaryotes separate protein factors
their mechanism of transposition. take part in recognition and initiation during
81. (a) Operator gene allows the functioning of transcription. They are called transcription
the operon. factors. Coenzymes are non protein organic
82. (c) Only the peptidyl–transferase reaction cofactors which get loosely attached to
does not require energy. The aminoacyl-tRNA apoenzymes during the functioning of
binding to ribosome involves initiation factors holoenzymes.
and energy (GTP). Amino acid activation 88. (d) Eukaryote RNAs contain non coding
requires energy (the cleavage of ATP to intervening segments called introns. The
AMP and PPi). Translocation requires an process of removal of introns through cutting
elongation factors and energy (GTP). and joining the essential coding sequences (
83. (d) Termination codons are the stop signals exons) is called splicing.
which when encountered cause termination 89. (c) Replication of DNA is discontinuous
of polypeptide synthesis. They are UAA over the lagging strand over which only
(ochre), UAG (amber) and UGA (opal). small stretches of DNA are built due to
Codons are determined by the sequence of opposite running of DNA template. The
bases on the DNA. Thymine is not present small stretches of DNA are called okazaki
on RNA. fragments.
84. (b) A mutation bringing about early stoppage 90. (b) Termination codons ( triplet) are the
of polypeptide formation is called nonsense stop signals which when encountered cause
mutation. Frame shift mutation is a type of termination of polypeptide synthesis. The
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 333
termination codons are UAA, UAG and 102. (a) Messelson and Stahl (1958) raised
UGA. Escherichia coli on ammonium chloride
91. (c) The region of a gene, which becomes part having heavy isotope of nitrogen for several
of m-RNA and code for different regions of generations to study semi-conservative
the proteins are called exons. replication of DNA.
92. (a) DNA gyrase participates in the unwinding 103. (b) Central dogma of protein synthesis
of DNA helix during replication. explains a unidirectional or one way
93. (d) Protein synthesis stops when a nonsense flow of information from DNA to RNA
codon (UAA, UGA or UAG) reaches the (transcription) and from RNA to polypeptide
(translation).
amino acyl or A site.
104. (d) Genetic code is triplet coding for one
94. (d) The phenomenon of making DNA
amino acid in a polypeptide chain. There are
over RNA genome through enzyme reverse four different types of nucleotides - A,T,G,
transcriptase is called reverse transcription or and C. Since a code is a triplet thus 64
teminism. (4×4×4) distinct triplet of bases determine the
95. (d) Codons are 6 in number. Each codon 20 amino acids. But out of 64 only 61 code
possess 3 bases, each of which can undergo for 20 amino acids. Three codons that do not
transition and transversion. (1 × 32 = 549) code for any amino acids are terminator non
96. (b) The tautomer forms of nitrogen bases sense codons (UAG, UGA and UAA). Still in
are immuno-tautomer instead of amino group 61 triplet codons there is an excess 41 codons
(e.g. cytosine, adenine) or enol instead of the and therefore more than one codon codes for
keto group (e.g. thymine, guanine). same amino acid.
Tautomers are organic compounds that are 105. (b) Nucleosomes are oblate spherical
interconvertible by a chemical reaction called structure having an octamer of four histone
tautomerization. The concept of tautomers proteins (constituting 2 molecules of each
that are interconvertible by tautomerizations type).
is called tautomerism. Tautomerism is a 106. (d) Genetic code is the relationship of amino
special case of structural isomerism and acid sequence in a polypeptide chain and base
can play an important role in non-canonical sequence of mRNA. It includes adenine,
base pairing in DNA and especially RNA guanine, cytosine and thymine.
molecules. 107. (c) In eukaryotes spliceosomes are used in
97. (b) Protein synthesis occurs over ribosomes removal of introns during post-transcriptional
which are also referred to as protein factories. processing of hnRNA. They are absent in
98. (c) Unwindase or helicase takes part in sepa- prokaryotes.
ration of two DNA strands. In prokaryotes, 108. (c) Lac operon is an inducible operon.
helicase or unwindase is assisted by gyrase in Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme beta-
this function. galactosidase and it also regulates switching
99. (c) All amino acids are specified by more on and off of the operon. Hence, it is termed
as inducer. Inducers function by disabling
than one codon (except Tryptophan and
repressors. The gene is expressed because an
Methionine). Hence they are degenerate.
inducer binds to the repressor. The binding
100. (a) After one generation in 14N medium of the inducer to the repressor prevents the
DNA of bacteria settled at a level intermediate repressor from binding to the operator. RNA
between heavy and light bands due to semi polymerase can then begin to transcribe
conservative DNA replication. operon genes.
101. (b) Hargobind Khorana first deciphered the 109. (a) Lac operon under control of repressor
triplet codon of cysteine and valine. shows a negative regulation. Operon has
inducible nature.
 EBD_7325
334 BIOLOGY
110. (a) Satellite DNA displays high degree gene, designated as i gene, codes for repressor.
of polymorphism in population and also In the absence of the inducer, the repressor
the same degree of polymorphism in an binds to the lac operator, preventing RNA
individual, which is inherited from parents polymerase from binding to the promoter and
to children (offsprings). thus transcribing the structural gene.
111. (a) Synthesis of RNA exhibits several 117. (a) Semiconservative replication of DNA
features that are synonymous with DNA was first demonstrated in Escherichia coli. E.
replication. RNA synthesis requires accurate coli is a common type of bacteria that can
and efficient initiation, elongation proceeds get into food, like beef and vegetables. The
in the 5’→3’ direction (i.e. the polymerase strange thing about these bacteria is that they
moves along the template strand of DNA are not always harmful to you. E. coli normally
in the 3’→5’ direction), and RNA synthesis lives inside your intestines, where it helps your
requires distinct and accurate termination. body breakdown and digest the food you eat.
Transcription exhibits several features that 118. (d) In the DNA molecule, there are two
are distinct from replication. strands which run anti parallel one is 5' - 3'
112. (b) DNA A mRNA B protein
Proposed by
C direction and other in 3' -5' direction, the two
In this question A is transcription, B - chains are held together by hydrogen bonds
translation C - Francis Crick (central dogma) between their bases. Adenine (A), a purine of
It is unidirectional flow of information DNA one chain his exactly opposite thymine (T),
to mRNA (transcription) and then decoding a pyramidine of the other chain. Similarly,
the information present in mRNA in the cytosine (C), a pyrimidine lies opposite
formation of polypeptide chain or protein guanine (G), a purine. This allows a sort
(translation). of lock & key arrangment between large
113. (d) A nonsense mutation is the one which sized purine & small sized pyrimidine. It is
stops polypeptide synthesis due to formation strengthened by the appearance of hydrogen
of a terminating or non sense codon. e.g. bonds between the two.
ATT(UAA), ATC (UAG), ACT(UGA) . The 119. (c) Okazaki fragments in DNA are linked up
lactose or lac operon of Esherichia coli contains by the enzyme DNA ligase. Replication always
structural genes (Z, Y, A). If Y codes for ocur in 5' - 3' direction. Okazaki fragments
termination of polypeptide chain then only synthesized on 3' - 5' DNA template, join
the product of ‘Z’ gene transcribe to form to form lagging strand which grows in 3' - 5'
β galactosidase. direction.
114. (b) Inducible operons are usually switched 120. (d) It was given by Geneticists George W.
off. This is a type of operon which is switched Beadle and E. L. Tatum which states that each
on when a chemical called inducer is present. gene in an organism controls the production
The inducer is almost always a substrate. of a specific enzyme. It is these enzymes
115. (d) 23s rRNA acts as a catalyst in a bacterial that catalyze the reactions that lead to the
cell. phenotype of the organism.
116. (c) Jacob and Monod proposed the lac 121. (c) Beadle & Tatum postulated the theory
operon of E. coli. The lac operon contains a of ‘One-gene-one-enzyme’ in which they
promoter, an operator, and three structural stated that in any living cell there are number
genes called z, y, and a, coding for the of genes present on chromosomes in a linear
enzyme, β galactosidase, permease and fashion. One single gene controls the synthe-
transacetylase respectively. The lac regulator sis of one particular enzyme (or protein) in
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 335
the cell which is responsible for its phenotypic 129. (b) Gene regulation of eukar yotes is
character. complex as compared to that of prokaryotes.
122. (b) Operons are segments of genetic material 130. (a) In negative (repressible) operon, the
which function as regulated unit or units that repressor co-repressor complex binds with
can be switched on and switched off. An the operator. The free repressor cannot bind
operon consists of one to several structural to the operator.
genes. (Three in lac operon) 131. (a) The enzyme polymerase can synthesize
These are genes which produce mRNAs the bases only in 5′→3′direction.
for forming polypeptides / proteins / enzymes. 132. (b) Intron are non coding intervening
Z (produces enzyme β galactosidase for sequences on DNA but exons are the coding
splitting lactose into glucose and galactose). sequences.
Y (produces enzyme galactoside permease 133. (a) Regulator gene produces a biochemical
required in entry of lactose) A (produces for suppressing the activity of the operator
enzyme thiogalactoside trans- acetylase). gene.
The three structural genes of the operon 134. (b) mRNA or messenger RNA brings
coded information from DNA to form
produce a single polycistronic mRNA.
polypeptides. rRNA or ribosomal RNA
123. (b) About 28 base pairs from transcription
occurs inside ribosomes and is involved in
start site are TATA boxes. After 40 bases
protein synthesis.
from TATA boxes appears LAAT boxes. Both
135. (c) If Escherichia coli bacteria grow in normal
of these sequence serve as recognition site
glucose medium and when transferred to
in Eukaryotic promoters (Transcription in
a medium containing lactose, then the lac
eukaryotic genes in a far more complicated
operon is induced.
process than in prokaryotes)
136. (b) The inducer is an environmental agent,
124. (c) Reverse transcriptase (RNA dependent
which triggers transcription from an operon.
DNA polymerase) is present in some
The inducer or effector molecule are small
retroviruses eg. HIV virus.
sized which can bind to a regular protein.
125. (b) Transgenic organisms are genetically
137. (b) The lac operon consists of a promotor
modified organisms.
gene, an operator gene and structural
126. (b) Lactose operon in E.coli is a catabolic
genes. There are three structural genes
pathway in which the structural genes remain
designated as z, y and a, which code for the
switched off unless the inducer (Lactose) is
enzymes β-galactosidase, lac permease and
present in the medium.
transacetylase respectively. It is an example
127. (b) Regulator is a gene which forms a
of inducible operon.
biochemical for suppressing the activity of
138. (a) Lac operon is an inducible operon system
operator gene. Promoter is the gene which
which regulates genetic material. The genetic
provides the point of attachment to RNA
material remains switched off normally
polymerase required for transcription of
but becomes operational in the presence of
structural genes.
inducer lactose.
128. (b) Regulator gene forms a biochemical for
139. (d) X-ray crystallography is a technique
suppressing the activity of operator gene.
to study the binding of specific protein on
Promoter gene is the gene which provides
regulatory DNA. X-ray crystallography
point of attachment to RNA polymerase
or single-crystal X-ray diffraction is an
required for transcription of structural genes.
analytical technique which uses the
Structural genes are genes which transcribe m
diffraction pattern produced by bombarding
RNA for polypeptide synthesis.
 EBD_7325
336 BIOLOGY
a single crystal with X-rays to solve the whether a family relationship exists between
crystal structure. The diffraction pattern two people, to identify organisms causing a
is recorded and then analyzed or “solved” disease, and to solve crimes.
to reveal the nature of the crystal. This 143. (c) Common activities in bioinformatics
technique is widely used in chemistry and include mapping and analysing DNA and
biochemistry to determine the structures of protein sequences, aligning different DNA
an immense variety of molecules, including etc. are the part of human genome project.
inorganic compounds, DNA, and proteins. 144. (c) Satellite DNA is useful in forensic sci-
140. (b) Zinc-finger analysis is used for protein ence. The polymorphism of minisatellite,
analysis. The zinc finger proteins are a super microsatellite and minivariant repeats is
family of proteins involved in numerous analysed for DNA finger printing, DNA
activities of plant growth and development. profiling. It helps in the resolution of crimes,
141. (b) The technique of DNA fingerprinting legal disputes etc.
was developed by Dr. Alec Jeffrey in 1984. 145. (a) DNA fingerprinting is the technique
It is a technique generally using repeated of determining nucleotide sequences of
sequences (repetitive DNA) in the human certain areas of DNA which are unique to
genome that produces a pattern of band that each individual. DNA contains noncistronic
is unique for every individuals. These short hypervariable repeat sequences called VNTR.
nucleotide repeats vary in number from DNA fingerprinting involves the identification
person to person and are called variable of these VNTRs.
number of tandem repeat (VNTR). VNTR 146. (a) DNA fingerprinting is a technique to
belongs to class of satellite DNA referred to identify a person on the basis of his DNA
as minisatellite. which is specific for every individual. This
142. (b) DNA fingerprinting is a test to identify technique for the first time was developed
and evaluate the genetic information-called by Alec Jeffreys and his colleagues at
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)-in a person’s Leicester University in U.K. DNA of an
cells. DNA fingerprinting is a form of individual carries specific sequences of
identification based on sequencing specific nucleotides which are repeated many times
non-coding portions of DNA that are known throughout the length of DNA. This reveals
to have a high degree of variability from polymorphism in DNA. These are inherited.
person to person. These sections are known as Each individual inherits these repeats from
Tandem repeats. The test is used to determine his/her parents which are used as genetic
markers in personal identity test.
 Chapter

29 Evolution

Topic 1: Origin of Life/Evidences for/ (a) Analogous organs

Evolution/Adaptive Radiation/ (b) Adaptive radiation
Mechanism of Evolution (c) Homologous organs
(d) Convergent evolution
1. Which of the following represents order of 6. Which one of the following are analogous
Horse'? [2017] structures? [2014]
(a) Perissodactyla (b) Caballus (a) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon.
(c) Ferus (d) Equidae (b) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man.
2. Which of the following structures is homologus (c) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of
to the wing of a bird? [2016] Cucurbita
(a) Dorsal fin of a Shark (d) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse
(b) Wing of a Moth 7. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show
(c) Hind limb of Rabbit different patterns of structure, yet they
(d) Flipper of Whale perform similar function. This is an example
3. Following are the two statements regarding of: [NEET 2013]
the origin of life [2016] (a) Homologous organs that have evolved
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared due to divergent evolution.
on the earth were non-green and (b) Analogous organs that have evolved due
presumably anaerobes. to convergent evolution.
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were (c) Analogous organs that have evolved due
the chemoautotrophs that never released to divergent evolution.
(d) Homologous organs that have evolved
oxygen.
due to convergent evolution.
Of the above statements which one of the
8. The process by which organisms with
following options is correct?
different evolutionary history evolve similar
(a) (a) is correct but (b) is false.
phenotypic adaptations in response to a
(b) (b) is correct but (a) is false.
common environmental challenge, is called :
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(a) Convergent evolution [NEET 2013]
(d) Both (a) and (b) are false. (b) Non-random evolution
4. Analogous structures are a result of [2016] (c) Adaptive radiation
(a) Divergent evolution (d) Natural selection
(b) Convergent evolution 9. Variation in gene frequencies within
(c) Shared ancestry populations can occur by chance rather than
(d) Stabilizing selection by natural section. The is referred to as:
5. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; [NEET 2013]
forelimbs of whale used in swimming and (a) Genetic drift (b) Random mating
forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example (c) Genetic load (d) Genetic flow
of: [2014]
 EBD_7325
338 BIOLOGY
10. According to Darwin, The organic evolution 15. The idea of mutations was brought forth by
is due to: [NEET 2013] [2012M]
(a) Interspecific competition (a) Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum
(b) Competition within closely related sativum.
species (b) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening
(c) Reduced feeding efficiency in one primrose.
species (c) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele
(d) Intraspecific competition frequencies in a population.
11. Random unidirectional change in allele (d) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide
frequencies that occurs by chance in all variety of organisms during sea voyage.
populations and especially in small populations 16. Darwin’s finches are a good example of:
is known as [NEET Kar. 2013] (a) Industrial melanism [2010]
(a) Mutation (b) Migration (b) Connecting link
(c) Natural selection (d) Genetic drift (c) Adaptive radiation
12. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are (d) Convergent evolution
grouped according to their food sources. 17. Peripatus is a connecting link between:  [2009]
Which of the following is not a finch food? (a) Mollusca and Echinodermata
[NEET Kar. 2013] (b) Annelida and Arthropoda
(a) Seeds (b) Carrion
(c) Coelenterata and Porifera
(c) Insects (d) Tree buds
(d) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
13. Evolution of different species in a given area
18. Which one of the following scientists name
starting from a point and spreading to other
is correctly matched with the theory put forth
geographical areas is known as:  [2012]
by him? [2008]
(a) Adaptive radiation
(a) Weismann - Theory of continuity of
(b) Natural selection
Germplasm
(c) Migration
(b) Pasteur - Inheritance of acquired
(d) Divergent evolution
characters
14. Which one of the following options gives one
correct example each of convergent evolution (c) De Vries - Natural selection
and divergent evolution? [2012] (d) Mendel - Theory of Pangenesis
19. Darwinism finches are an excellent example
Convergent Divergent of   [2008]
evolution evolution (a) adaptive radiation
Eyes of (b) seasonal migration
Bones of forelimbs (c) brood parasitism
(a) octopus and
of vertebrates
mammals (d) connecting links
"Thorns of 20. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita
Bougainvillia Wings of butterflies are example of [2008]
(b)
and tendrils of and birds (a) analogous organs
Cucurbita" (b) homologous organs
Bones of (c) vestigial organs
Wings of butterfly
(c) forelimbs of (d) retrogressive evolution
and birds
vertebrates 21. Which one of the following pairs of items
"Thorns of correctly belongs to the category of organs
Bougainvillia Eyes of Octopus mentioned against it? [2008]
(d)
and tendrils of and mammals (a) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of
Cucurbita" Cucurbita - Analogous organs
Evolution 339
(b) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in 27. What is common between parrot, platypus
human eye - Vestigial organs and kangaroo? [2007]
(c) Nephridia of earthworm and (a) Toothless jaws
malpighian tubules of Cockroach - (b) Functional post-end tail
Excretory organs (c) Ovoparity
(d) Wings of honey bee and wings of crow (d) Homeothermy
- Homologous organs 28. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
22. Which one of the following is incorrect about (a) Thick subcutaneous fat [2007]
the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates (b) Convergent evolution
and microspheres) as envisaged in the biogenic (c) Homoiothermy
origin of life?   [2008] (d) Seasonal migration.
(a) They were able to reproduce 29. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered
(b) They could separate combinations of moth proves that [2007]
molecules from the surroundings (a) the melanic form of the moth has no
(c) They were partially isolated from the selective advantage over lighter form in
surroundings industrial area
(d) They could maintain an internal (b) the lighter-form moth has no selective
environment advantage either in polluted industrial
23. When two species of different genealogy area or non-polluted area
come to resemble each other as a result of (c) melanism is a pollution-generated
adaptation, the phenomenon is termed feature
(a) microevolution [2007] (d) the true black melanic forms arise by a
(b) co-evolution recurring random mutation
30. Adaptive radiation refers to [2007]
(c) convergent evolution
(a) evolution of different species from a
(d) divergent evolution
common ancestor
24. Which one of the following statement is
(b) migration of members of a species to
correct?   [2007]
different geographical areas
(a) There is no evidence of the existence of
(c) power of adaptation in an individual to
gills during embryogenesis of mammals
a variety of environments
(b) All plant and animal cells are totipotent
(d) adaptations due to geographical
(c) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny isolation.
(d) Stem cells are specialize cells. 31. One of the important consequences of
25. The concept of chemical evolution is based geographical isolation is [2007]
on   [2007] (a) preventing speciation
(a) interaction of water, air and clay under (b) speciation through reproductive isolation
intense heat (c) random creation of new species
(b) effect of solar radiation on chemicals (d) no change in the isolated fauna.
(c) possible origin of life by combination of 32. Which one of the following amino-acid
chemicals under suitable environmental was not found to be synthesized in Miller's
conditions experiment?  [2006]
(d) crystallization of chemicals. (a) Aspartic acid (b) Glutamic acid
26. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an (c) Alanine (d) Glycine
evidence in favour of [2007] 33. Evolutionary history of an organism is known
(a) evolution due to mutation as [2006]
(b) retrogressive evolution (a) Ancestry (b) Paleontology
(c) biogeographical evolution (c) Ontogeny (d) Phylogeny
(d) special creation.
 EBD_7325
340 BIOLOGY
34. An important evidence in favour of organic (a) Pisum sativum
evolution is the occurrence of [2006] (b) Drosophila melanogaster
(a) Analogous and vestigial organs (c) Oenothera lamarckiana
(b) Homologous organs only (d) Althea rosea
(c) Homologous and analogous organs 40. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog
(d) Homologous and vestigial organs indicates that [2004]
35. Animals have the innate ability to escape from (a) fishes were amphibious in the past
predation. Examples for the same are given
(b) fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors
below. Select the incorrect example. [2005] (c) frogs will have gills in future
(a) Colour change in Chameleon (d) frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
(b) Enlargement of body size by swallowing 41. Age of fossils in the past was generally
air in puffer fish determined by radio-carbon method and other
(c) Poison fangs in snakes methods involving radioactive elements found
(d) Melanism in moths in the rocks. More precise methods, which
36. Which one of the following experiments were used recently and led to the revision of
suggests that simplest living organisms could the evolutionary periods for different groups
not have originated spontaneously from non- of organisms, includes [2004]
living matter? [2005] (a) study of carbohydrates/proteins in
(a) Larvae could appear in decaying organic fossils
matter.
(b) study of the conditions of fossilization
(b) Microbes did not appear in stored meat (c) electron spin resonance (ESR) and fossil
(c) Microbes appeared from unsterilized DNA
organic matter (d) study of carbohydrates/proteins in
(d) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and rocks
kept sealed in a vessel. 42. According to Oparin, which one of the
37. Which one of the following phenomena following was not present in the primitive
supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection atmosphere of the earth [2004]
in organic evolution? [2005] (a) Methane (b) Oxygen
(a) Development of transgenic animals (c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour
(b) Production of ‘Dolly’, the sheep by 43. Diversification in plant life appeared[2004]
cloning (a) due to long periods of evolutionary
(c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects changes
(d) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’
(b) due to abrupt mutations
for organ transplantation (c) suddenly on earth
38. Using imprints from a plate with complete (d) by seed dispersal
medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you 44. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide
can select streptomycin resistant mutants and sequence) of mt-DNA and Y chromosomes
prove that such mutations do not originate as were considered for the study of human
adaptation. These imprints need to be used evolution, because [2003]
[2005] (a) they can be studied from the samples of
(a) on plates with and without streptomycin fossil remains
(b) on plates with minimal medium (b) they are small, and therefore, easy to
(c) only on plates with streptomycin study
(d) only on plates without streptomycin (c) they are uniparental in origin and do not
39. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic take part in recombination
evolution while working on: [2005] (d) their structure is known in greater detail
Evolution 341
45. Which one of the following sequences was (b) Parasites and predators as natural
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic enemies
evolution? [2003] (c) Survival of the fittest
(a) Variations, natural selection, overproduc­ (d) Struggle for existence
tion, constancy of population size 51. Random genetic drift in a population probably
(b) Overproduction, variations, constancy results from [2003]
(a) large population size
of population size, natural selection
(b) highly genetically variable individuals
(c) Variations, constancy of population
(c) interbreeding within this population
size, overproduction, natural selection
(d) constant low mutation rate
(d) Overproduction, constancy of population 52. Which of the following are homologous
size, variations, natural selection organs? [2002]
46. Industrial melanism is an example of [2003] (a) Wings of birds and locust
(a) defensive adaptation of skin against (b) Wings of birds (sparrow) and pectoral
ultraviolet radiations fins of fish
(b) drug resistance (c) Wings of bat and butterfly
(c) darkening of skin due to smoke from (d) Legs of frog and cockroach
industries 53. There is no life on moon due to the absence
(d) protective resemblance with the of [2002]
surroundings (a) O2 (b) water
47. In a random mating population in equilibrium, (c) light (d) temperature
54. Sequence of which of the followings is used
which of the following brings about a change
to know the phylogeny? [2002]
in gene frequency in a non-directional
(a) mRNA (b) rRNA
manner? [2003]
(c) tRNA (d) DNA
(a) Migration (b) Mutations 55. Two different species can not live for long
(c) Random drift (d) Selection duration in the same niche or habitat. This
48. Convergent evolution is illustrated by [2003] law is [2002]
(a) dogfish and whale (a) Allen's law
(b) rat and dog (b) Gause's hypothesis
(c) bacterium and protozoan (c) Dollo's rule
(d) starfish and cuttle fish (d) Weisman's theory
49. Which one of the following describes correctly 56. Which of the following is most important for
the homologous structures ? [2003] speciation ? [2002]
(a) Organs appearing only in embryonic (a) Seasonal isolation
stage and disappearing later in the adult (b) Reproductive isolation
(c) Behavioural isolation
(b) Organs with anatomical similarities, but
(d) Tropical isolation
performing different functions
57. In which condition the gene ratio remains
(c) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities,
constant for any species? [2002]
but performing same function (a) Sexual selection (b) Random mating
(d) Organs that have no function now, but (c) Mutation (d) Gene flow
had an important function in ancestors 58. Genetic drift operates only in [1998, 02]
50. Darwin in his 'Natural Selection Theory' did (a) smaller Populations
not believe in any role of which one of the (b) larger Populations
following in organic evolution ? [2003] (c) mendelian Populations
(a) Discontinuous variations (d) island Populations
 EBD_7325
342 BIOLOGY
59. Some bacteria are able to grow in 66. Which is not a vestigial part in humans?
Streptomycin containing medium due to [2000]
(a) natural selection [2002] (a) Segmental muscles of abdomen
(b) Induced mutation (b) Finger nails
(c) Third molar
(c) reproductive isolation
(d) Coccyx
(d) genetic drift
67. During organ differentiation in Drosophila
60. Similarities in organism with different an organ is often modified to another organ
genotype indicates [2001] such as wings could be replaced by legs.
(a) Microevolution Genes responsible for such metamorphosis
(b) Macroevolution are called [2000]
(c) Convergent evolution (a) Homeotic genes
(d) Divergent evolution (b) Plastid genes
61. Darwin’s theor y of pangenesis shows (c) Double dominant genes
similarity with theory of inheritance of (d) Complimentary genes
acquired characters then what shall be correct 68. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence
according to it?  [2001] in favour of evolution. This evidence comes
(a) Useful organs become strong and from the field of [2000]
developed while useless organs become (a) Biogeography (b) Anatomy
(c) Embryology (d) Palaentology
extinct. These organs help in struggle
69. Homologous organs are [1994, 99]
for survival
(a) Wings of insects and Bat
(b) Size of organs increase with ageing
(b) Gills of Fish and lungs of Rabbit
(c) Development of organs is due to will (c) Pectoral fins of Fish and fore limbs of
power Horse
(d) There should be come physical basis of (d) Wings of Grosshopper and Crow
inheritance 70. Phenomenon of ‘Industrial melanism’
62. Occurrence of endemic species in South demonstrates [1999]
America and Australia is due to [2001] (a) natural selection
(a) These species have been extinct from (b) induced mutation
other regions (c) geographical isolation
(b) Continental separation (d) reproductive islolation
(c) There is no terrestial route to these 71. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials
places at present because of [1998]
(d) Retrogressive evolution (a) a very high amount of oxygen in the
63. Half life period of C is about [2001] atmosphere
(a) 500 years (b) 5000 years (b) very low atmospheric temperature
(c) absence of raw materials
(c) 50 years (d) 5 × 104 years
(d) high degree of environmental pollution
64. Frequency of an allele in a isolated population
72. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches
may change due to [2001]
adapted to different feeding habits on the
(a) genetic Drift (b) gene flow Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin,
(c) mutation (d) natural selection provides evidence for [1998]
65. Forthcoming generation are less adaptive than (a) Intraspecific variations
their parental generation due to [2001] (b) Intraspecific competition
(a) natural selection (b) mutation (c) Interspecific competition
(c) genetic drift (d) adaptation (d) Origin of Species by natural selection
Evolution 343
73. Which one of the following includes all 79. The homologous organs are those that show
homologous organs? [1997] similarity in [1995]
(a) The wing of butterfly, wing of bird, (a) size (b) origin
wing (patagia) of bat (c) function (d) appearance
(b) The fore limb of frog, wing of bird and 80. The closely related morphologically similar
fore limb of rabbit sympatric populations, but reproductively
(c) The thoracic leg of cockroach, the hind isolated, are designated as [1995]
leg of frog and fore leg of rabbit (a) clines (b) demes
(d) The wing of bird, wing of bat and wing (c) clones (d) sibling species
of "flying" lizard 81. The change of the light-coloured variety of
74. The kind of evolution in which two species peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker
of different geneology come to resemble one variety (Biston carbonaria) is due to [1995]
another closely, is termed as [1996] (a) mutation (b) regeneration
(a) progressive evolution (c) genetic isolation (d) temporal isolation
(b) convergent evolution 82. Frequency of a character increases when it
(c) parallel evolution is [1994]
(d) retrogressive evolution (a) recessive (b) dominant
75. Identify the correct sequence in which the (c) inheritable (d) adaptable
following substances have appeared during 83. Which one does not favour Lamarckian concept
the course of evolution of life on earth [ 1996] of inheritance of acquired characters? [1994]
(a) Glucose, amino acids, nucleic acids, (a) Lack of pigment in cave dwellers
proteins (b) Absence of limbs in snakes
(b) Ammonia, amino acids, proteins, (c) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
nucleic acids (d) Melanisation of Peppered Moth in
industrial areas.
(c) Water, amino acids, nucleic acids,
84. Two geographical regions separated by high
enzymes
mountains are [1994]
(d) Amino acids, ammonia, phosphates,
(a) Oriental and Australian
nucleic acids
(b) Palaearctic and Oriental
76. Which one of the following sets includes only
(c) Nearctic and Palaearctic
the vestigial structures in man? [1996] (d) Neotropical and Ethiopian
(a) Body hair, olecranon process, coccyx, 85. Golden era/age of reptiles is [1994]
patella
(a) palaeozoic (b) mesozoic
(b) Wisdom teeth, mammary glands,
(c) recent (d) proterozoic
coccyx, patella
86. Evolutionary convergence is development of
(c) Coccyx, nictitating membrane,
[1993]
vermiform appendix, ear muscles
(a) common set of characters in group of
(d) Coccyx, body hair, ear ossicles,
different ancestry
vermiform appendix
(b) dissimilar characters in closely related
77. Extremities, tail and ear are relatively
groups
shorter in animals living in cooler regions as (c) common set of characters in closely
compared to those inhabiting warmer zones. related groups
This is [1996] (d) random mating.
(a) Bergman's Rule (b) Jordan's Rule 87. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation
(c) Gloger's Rule (d) Allen's Rule after generation but tails neither disappeared
78. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of nor shortened showing that [1993]
all vertebrates, supports the theory of [1995] (a) Darwin was correct
(a) biogenesis (b) Tail is an essential organ
(b) recapitulation (c) Mutation theory is wrong
(c) metamorphosis (d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance
(d) organic evolution of acquired characters.
 EBD_7325
344 BIOLOGY
88. Theory of Natural selection dwells on 1993] 97. ‘Origin’ of species’ was written by [1989]
(a) role of environment in evolution (a) Oparin (b) Weismann
(b) natural selection acting on favourable (c) Lamarck (d) Darwin
variations 98. Humming bird and Hawk illustrate [1988]
(c) changes in gene complex resulting in (a) Convergent evolution
heritable variations (b) Homology
(d) none of these (c) Adaptive radiation
89. Genetic drift is change of [1993] (d) Parallel evolution
(a) gene frequency in same generation 99. Phenomenon of organisms resembling others
(b) appearance of recessive genes for escaping from enemies is [1988]
(c) gene frequency from one generation to (a) Adaptation (b) Mimicry
next (c) Homology (d) Analogy
(d) none of the above
90. The first organisms were [1992] Topic 2: Hardy-Weinberg Principle/Origin
(a) Chemoautotrophs and Evolution of Man
(b) Chemoheterotrophs 100. Which of the following had the smallest brain
(c) Autotrophs capacity? [2015 RS]
(d) Eucaryotes (a) Homo sapiens
91. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the (b) Homo neanderthalensis
time of origin of life? [1991] (c) Homo habilis
(a) NH3 (b) H2 (d) Homo erectus
(c) O2 (d) CH4
101. A population will not exist in Hardy -
92. Parallelism is [1990]
Weinberg equilibrium if : [2015 RS]
(a) adaptive divergence
(a) There are no mutations
(b) adaptive divergence of widely separated
species (b) There is no migration
(c) adaptive convergence of widely different (c) The population is large
species (d) Individuals mate selectively
(d) adaptive convergence of closely related 102. Industrial melanism is an example of :
groups (a) Natural selection [2015 RS]
93. Basic principles of embryonic development (b) Mutation
were pronounced by [1990] (c) Neo Lamarckism
(a) Van Baer (b) Weismann (d) Neo Darwinism
(c) Haeckel (d) Morgan 103. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of
94. Evolution is [1989] the following geological era?[NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) progressive development of a race
(a) Devonion (b) Coenozoic
(b) history and development of a race (c) Jurassic (d) Mesozoic
alongwith variations
104. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to
(c) history of a race
40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts
(d) development of a race
of Africa, With short stature, heavy eyebrows,
95. “Continuity of germplasm” theory was given
retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy
by [1989]
teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and
(a) de Vries (b) Weismann
stooped posture was [2012]
(c) Darwin (d) Lamarck
(a) Homo habilis
96. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters
(b) Neanderthal human
was given by [1989]
(a) Wallace (b) Lamarck (c) Cro-magnan humans
(c) Darwin (d) De Vries (d) Ramapithecus
Evolution 345
105. What was the most significant trend in evolution (b) Dinosaurs become extinct and
of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his angiosperms appeared
ancestors? [2011] (c) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs
(a) Upright posture appeared
(b) Shortening of jaws (d) Gymnosperms were dominant plants
(c) Binocular vision and first birds appeared
(d) lncreasing brain capacity 111. Which one of the following is not a living
106. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) fossil? [2006] 
the black - coloured form became dominant (a) Sphenodon (b) Archaeopteryx
over the light- coloured form in England (c) Peripatus (d) King crab
during industrial revolution. [2009] 112. Which of the following is the relatively most
accurate method for dating of fossils? [2005]
This is an example of:
(a) Radio-carbon method
(a) appearance of the darker coloured (b) Potassium-argon method
individuals due to very poor sunlight (c) Electron-spin resonance method
(b) protective mimicry (d) Uranium-lead method
(c) inheritance of darker colour character 113. There are two opposing views about origin of
acquired due to the darker environment modern man. According to one view Homo
(d) natural selection whereby the darker erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern
forms were selected man. A study of variation of DNA however
suggested African origin of modern man.
107. Which one of the following in birds, indicates
What kind of observation on DNA, variation
their reptilian ancestry?   [2008] could suggest this? [2005]
(a) Scales on their hind limbs (a) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
(b) Four-chambered heart (b) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
(c) Two special chambers crop and gizzard (c) Similar variation in Africa and Asia
in their digestive tract (d) Variation only in Asia and no variation
(d) Eggs with a calcareous shell in Africa
108. Among the human ancestors the brain size 114. What kind of evidence suggested that man is
was more that 1000 cc in [2007] more closely related with chimpanzee than
(a) Homo erectus with other hominoid apes? [2004]
(b) Ramapithecus (a) Evidence from DNA from sex
(c) Homo habilis chromosomes only
(d) Homo neanderthalensis
(b) Comparison of chromosomes
109. Select the correct statement from the morphology only
following?  [2007] (c) Evidence from fossil remains, and the
(a) Fitness is the end result of the ability to fossil mitochondrial DNA alone
adapt and get selected by nature (d) Evidence from DNA extracted from
(b) All mammals except whales and camels sex chromosomes, autosomes and
have seven cervical vertebrae mitochondria
(c) Mutations are random and directional 115. In which era reptiles were dominant? [2002]
(d) Darwinian variations are small and (a) Coenozoic era (b) Mesozoic era
(c) Palaeozoic era (d) Archaeozoic era
directionless. 116. According to fossils discovered up to present
110. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was time origin and evolution of man was started
characterised by [2006] from [2002]
(a) Radiation of reptiles and origin of (a) France (b) Java
mammal-like reptiles (c) Africa (d) China
 EBD_7325
346 BIOLOGY
117. Which of following is closest relative of man? (d) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of
(a) Chimpanzee (b) Gorilla [2001] modern man
(c) Orangutan (d) Gibbon 125. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is
118. Which of the following is correct order of best shown by [1997]
evolutionary history of man? [2001] (a) Banding pattern in chromosomes number
(a) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal, 3 and 6
Cro-magnon (b) Cranial capacity
(b) Peking, Neanderthal, Homo sapiens, Cro- (c) Binocular vision
magnon (d) Dental formula
(c) Peking man, Heidelberg man,
126. Which one of the following statements about
Neanderthal, Cro-magnon
fossil human species is correct? [1997]
(d) Peking man, Neanderthel, Homo sapiens,
(a) Fossils of Homo neanderthalensis have
Heidelberg man
119. Homo sapiens evolved during [2000] been found recently in South America
(a) Pleistocene (b) Oligocene (b) Neanderthal man and Cro-Magnon
(c) Pliocene (d) Miocene man did exist for sometime together
120. Which of the following primate is the closest (c) Australopithecus fossils have been found
relative of humans? [2000] in Australia
(a) Rhesus monkey (b) Orangutan (d) Homo erectus was preceded by Homo
(c) Gorilla (d) Gibbon habilis
121. Which one of the following features is closely 127. In the evolution of man, several changes
related with the evolution of humans? [2000] occured in the ancestral characters. Which
(a) Loss of tail one of the following changes is irrelevant in
(b) Shortening of jaws this context? [1996]
(c) Binocular vision (a) Loss of tail from body
(d) Flat nails (b) Increase in the ability to communicate
122. In general, in the developmental history of with others and develop community
a mammalian heart, it is observed that it behaviour
passes through a two-chambered fish-like (c) Change of diet from fruits, hard nuts
heart, three-chambered frog-like heart and and roots to softer food
finally to four-chambered stage. To which
(d) Perfection in the structure and working
hypothesis can this above cited statement be
of hand for tool-making
approximated? [1998]
128. Which one of the following is regarded as the
(a) Hardy-Weinberg Law
(b) Lamarck's Principle direct ancestor of modern man ? [1996]
(c) Biogenetic Law (a) Homo erectus (b) Ramapithecus
(d) Mendelian Principles (c) Homo habilis (d) Australopithecus
123. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the 129. ‘Golden Age of Dinosaurs’/Age of reptiles
geological time scale is [1998] was [1994]
(a) 5 × 106 years back (a) Mesozoic (b) Coenozoic
(b) 25 × 106 years back (c) Palaeozoic (d) Psychozoic
(c) 50 × 106 years back 130. The earliest fossil form in the phylogeny of
(d) 75 × 106 years back Horse is [1994]
124. Which one of the following statements is (a) Merychippus (b) Mesohippus
correct? [1998] (c) Eohippus (d) Equus.
(a) Cro-Magnon man's fossil has been 131. Correct order is [1991]
found in Ethiopia (a) Palaeozoic → Archaeozoic → Coenozoic
(b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man (b) Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic → Proterozoic
(c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor (c) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic
of Homo sapiens (d) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Proterozoic
Evolution 347

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Horse belongs to and bats same all evolved the capacity of
Orders - Perissodactyla flight independently. All four serve the same
Family - Equidae function and are similar in structure but
Genus - Equus anatomically different.
Species - ferus 9. (a) Genetic drift is variation in gene
Subspecies - caballus frequencies within populations can occur
2. (d) Wings of a bird and flippers of a whale by chance rather than by natural selection,
are modified forelimbs. sometimes the change in allele frequency is
3. (c) Both statements are correct because so different in the new sample of population
primitive atmosphere was reducing that they become a different species. The
and chlorophyll appeared later on. original drifted population becomes founders
Chemoautotrophs were the first autotrophic and the effect is called founder effect.
organisms unable to perform photolysis of 10. (d) According to Darwin the organic
water and never released oxygen. evolution is due to intraspecific competition.
4. (b) Analogous structures are those that Individuals of same species have variation
have the same function, but they are not in characteristics. Those characteristics
derived from a common ancestor and have which enable some to survive better in
undergone different patterns of development natural conditions (climate, food, physical
i.e., Convergent evolution which is natural factors etc.) would outbreed others that are
selection that favors the same type of less-endowed to survive under such natural
structure in different ancestors. conditions. There, therefore, will survive
5. (c) Organs which have a common more and hence are selected by nature . He
fundamental anatomical plan and called it natural selection and implied it as a
similar embryonic origin whatever varied mechanism of evolution.
functions they may perform are regarded 11. (d) Genetic drift is random change in allele
as homologous organs. For examples the number and frequency in a gene pool due to
flippers of a whale, a bats wing, fore-limb chance (e.g., small size of population). It is
of a horse, a bird’s wing and forelimbs of caused by sampling error or error in gene pool
human are structurally as well as functionally sample that is to form the next generation.
different. The sampling gene pool is generally small in
6. (b) Analogous organs are those that size. Variability is also limited.
perform similar functions but have entirely 12. (b) Darwin observed an amazing diversity
different embryonic origins. of creatures on galapagos islands. He realised
7. (b) The eye of octopus and eye of cat that there were many varieties of finches in
show different patterns of structure, yet the same island like seed-eating, with altered
they perform similar functions. This is an beaks insectivorous and vegetarian finches.
example of analogous organs. Carrion are dead bodies. No finches feed on
Analogous organs have evolved due to carrion.
convergent evolution. Analogous organs 13. (a) Process of evolution of different species
have developed in the evolutionary in a given area starting from a point and
process through adaptation of quite radiating to other area of geographical areas
different organisms to similar mode of life. is called adaptive radiations.
8. (a) The wings is a classic example of Example : Darwin’s finches, Australian
convergent evolution. Flying insects, birds marsupials.
 EBD_7325
348 BIOLOGY
14. (a) 21. (c) Nephridia of earthworm and malphigian
15. (b) Mutations are alterations of genetic tubules of cockroach belongs to excretory
material. They occur frequently during organs. Earthworm has a well developed
DNA duplication in cell division. The idea excretory system which is composed of large
of mutations was brought forth by Hugo number of minute, coiled and glandular
de Vries. The plant on which de Vries had segmentally arranged excretory tubules
experimented was Oenothera lamarckiana called the nephridia. Malphigian tubules
(Evening primrose). The mutation observed of cockroach are extremely fine yellowish
by de Vries in Oenothera lamarckiana was unbranched thread like structure present at
chromosomal number variant. the function of midgut and hindgut.
16. (c) Darwin finches a good example of 22. (b) Coacervate is an aggregate of
adaptive radiation. Adaptive radiation is a macromolecules such as proteins, lipids
process of evolution of different species in a and membrane, and contain enzymes that
given geographical area starting from a point are capable of converting substance such
and radiating to other areas of geography. as glucose into more complex molecules,
17. (b) Peripatus is a genus of Onychophora such as starch. Coacervate droplets arise
(Velvet worms). It is said to be a living spontaneously under appropriate conditions
fossil because it has been unchanged for and may have been the prebiological systems
approximately 570 million years. Peripatus from which living organisms originated.
is a nocturnal carnivore. Peripatus is a 23. (c) The analogous organs show convergent
connecting link between Annelida and evolution due to similar adaptions which do
Arthropoda. It feeds by trapping its prey not support organic evolution.
(mostly small insects) in a white, sticky fluid 24. (c) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny.
it ejects from two antennae near its head. 25. (c) The concept of chemical evolution
The fluid hardens on contact with the air is based on possible origin of life by
combination of chemicals under suitable
and then the prey becomes immoblized.
environmental conditions. The distribution
18. (a) The theory of the continuity of the
of elements in the cosmos is the result
germplasm published by August Weismann
of many processes in the history of the
(1834-1914) in 1886. It proposes that the
Universe. It provides us with a powerful tool
contents of the reproductive cells (sperms
to study the Big Bang, the density of baryonic
and ova) are passed on unchanged from
matter, nucleosynthesis and the formation
one generation to the next, unaffected by
and evolution of stars and galaxies.
any changes undergone by the rest of the
26. (c) The finches of Galapagos islands
body. It thus rules out any possibility of the
provides an evidence in favour of
inheritance of acquired characteristics, and
biogeographical evolution
has become fundamental to Neo-Darwinian 27. (d) Only birds and mammals are
theory. homeothermous.
19. (a) Darwin's Finches are an excellent 28. (b) The analogous organs show convergent
example of adaptive radiation. Adaptive evolution due to similar adaptation. They do
radiation is the occurrence of the not support organic evolution. Whale, seal
diversification of a single or small groups of and shark shows convergent evolution due
species into a large number or descendents to similar habitats.
that occupy various ecological niches. This 29. (d) During the period when the number
is an evolutionary process driven by natural of coal-burning factories in England was
selection. increasing (during the so-called Industrial
20. (b) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril Revolution) it was noticed that the number
of Cucurbita are example of homologous of melanic individuals of the species
organs. of Peppered Moth (Biston betularia) was
Evolution 349
becoming more common. Originally rare 35. (c) Animals resist predation by cryptic
in the population of normally light-colored coloration deceptive marking, behavioural
moths, the frequency of the melanic form defenses and possession of mechanical or
increased in polluted areas until it was over chemical defenses. Examples are
90%. This change in color has come to be colour change in Chameleon
known as "industrial melanism." Enlargement of body size by swallowing air
30. (a) Adaptive radiation refers to evolution in potter fish, Melanism in moths.
of different species from a common 36. (d) Spallanzani’s experiment : He boiled
ancestor. The mammals are adapted for the meat and vegetables for more than an
different mode of life i.e. they show adaptive hour to prepare broth and placed them in
radiation. They can be aerial (bat), aquatic open and sealed flasks. The maggots of
(whale and dolphins), burrowing or fossorial housefly developed in the open flasks but did
(rat), cursorial (horse), scantorial (squarrel) not appear in sealed flasks. This disapproved
or arboreal (monkey). The adaptive the theory of spontaneous creation. (Th. of
radiation, the term by osborn, is also known abiogenesis).
as Divergent evolution. 37. (c) When DDT was sprayed to kill
31. (b) Speciation takes place via reproductive mosquitoes, there were only few mosquitoes
isolation which is the most important which were already resistant to DDT, and
consequence of geographical isolation. hence survived. Most of the mosquitoes
32. (b) Glutamic Acid is one of the non- which were sensitive to DDT died.
essential amino acids, closely related to Due to differential reproduction the
glutamine. The two constitute a substantial resistant mosquitoes got more chances of
fraction of the amino acids in many reproduction and multiplied. After few
proteins (10–20% in many cases and generations most of the mosquitoes were
up to 45% in some plant proteins). An resistant. The sensitive were very few.
important metabolic intermediate as well as This supports Darwin’s theory of natural
a neurotransmitter molecule in the central selection and survival of the fittest.
nervous system, glutamic acid finds uses 38. (c) Adaptation is generally due to selection
in medicine and biochemical research. Its of pre-existing variations and not due to
sodium salt is the food flavour enhancer new mutations or variations. This tends
monosodium glutamate (MSG). to support Darwin’s theory of natural
33. (d) Paleontology is the study of fossils. selection. The basis was proved by replica
Ontogeny is the process of development of plating experiment of Joshua Lederberg and
organism in the embryo stage and phylogeny Esther Lederberg. A number of sterile agar
is known as the history of an organism plates having antibiotic streptomycin were
through ages during evolution. prepared. Bacteria were inoculated on the
34. (d) Homologous organs represent the renicilling plates from the master plate by
divergent evolution. These are the organs sterile velvet plate. Most bacterial colonies
belonging to different organisms of different did not form replicas and inoculum died.
species may be for dissimilar function but Moreover a few colonies survived showing
they all have the same basic structure. On the that they were resistant to streptomycin.
other hand vestigial organs show that how a 39. (c) Pisum sativum - Mendel
species evolved from its ancestors through Drosophila melanogaster - T. H. Morgan.
the ages according to the use and disuse of 40. (d) Amphibians have moved onto terrestrial
organs. These are the organs which were habitat but they still need to go back to water
sometime functional in humans (or may be for reproduction. The presence of gills
any other organisms) but during the course in tadpole indicate that amphibians have
of evolution their utility gradually decline evolved from fishes. Fishes are completely
and now they are present as non-functional aquatic so the other three options are
and vestigial organs. incorrect.
 EBD_7325
350 BIOLOGY
41. (c) ESR, Electron Spin Resonance birds. Thus the population of black moths
measures number of charges occupying increased considerably.
deep traps in crystal band gap. 47. (c) Migration refers to the movement of
Electron Paramagnetic Resonance (EPR) individuals into and out of population.
or Electron Spin Resonance (ESR) is a Mutation refers to random and sudden
spectroscopic technique which detects heritable variations or changes arising in the
species that have unpaired electrons, genetic constitution.
generally meaning that the molecule in 48. (a) Independent formation of functionally
question is a free radical if it is an organic similar structures by unrelated organism is
molecule, or that it has transition metal called convergent evolution.
ions if it is an inorganic complex. Because 49. (b) Those organs which have a common
most stable molecules have a closed-shell origin and are built on the same anatomical
configuration without a suitable unpaired pattern, but perform different functions and
spin, the technique is less widely used than are modified accordingly.
nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR). The 50. (a) In any population, there is always
EPR was first discovered in Kazan State competition for space and food resources.
University by Soviet physicist Yevgeniy 51. (c)
Zavoyskiy in 1944 52. (b) Homologous organs have same basic
42. (b) According to Oparin, the atmosphere structure and origin but they differ in their
of primitive earth was reducing because external appearance and function.
its atoms were most numerous and most 53. (b) There is no life on moon due to absence
reactive. Free oxygen was not present in of water. There are many other reasons
significant amount. for being no life on moon, life insufficient
Large quantities of H2, N2, water vapour, oxygens, unsuitable temperature etc.
CO2, CH4 and NH3 were present. 54. (b) rRNA occurs inside ribosomes and
43. (a) According to Darwin gradual accumu- involved in protein synthesis, mRNA brings
lation of small variations gives rise to new coded information from DNA to form
species. Abrupt mutations do not give rise to polypeptides. tRNA takes part in transferring
new species . Plants arose by gradual adapta- amino acids from cellular pool to episomes
tion to diverse habitats and not suddenly on for polymerization to form polypeptides.
earth. Seeded plants are just one group in the Carl Woese gave the theory of life based
plant kingdom. on his discovery that the genes encoding
44. (c) ribosomal RNA are ancient and distributed
45. (b) According to Darwinism there is over all lineages of life with little or no gene
differential reproduction, followed by transfer. Therefore rRNA are commonly
struggle for existence, suitable variations are used to infer phylogeny.
selected by nature-natural selection. 55. (b) Gause's hypothesis states that two
46. (d) The replacement of grey coloured different competing species cannot coexist
moth by dark coloured melanic species together for a long in the same niche, one
due to industrial smoke is called industrial has to get eliminated by the other competing
melanism. Initially on the lichen covered species, if they do coexist, then they do
tree trunks, the mutant moths was more so as a result of niche differentiation, i.e.
conspicuous due to its black colouration and differentiation of then realized niches.
was therefore more susceptible to predation 56. (b) Seasonal isolation refers to the
by birds. The large scale burning of coal differences in season of breeding that
during industrial revolution resulted in the can isolate two varieties. Behavioural or
deposition of sooty particulate matter on ethological isolation refers to differences
tree trunks. Hence the grey coloured moths in behaviour like courtship rituals etc. to
became more conspicuous to predatory prevent mating. Mechanical isolation refers
Evolution 351
to the differences in the position, size and system. Natural selection operates through
structure of animal genitalia which prevent differential reproduction.
reproductive contact and thus bring about 65. (b) Natural selection operates through
isolation. Reproductive isolation is the differential reproduction. Genetic drift is
prevention of interbreeds between the random change in the allele number and
population of two different species. frequency in a gene pool.
57. (b) Mutation is any random sudden 66. (b) Human body contains about 180
heritable change occurring in the genetic vestigial organs coccyx, third molars
material. Sexual selection refers to selection (wisdom teeth) and muscles of abdomen etc.
of a mate by an organism. 67. (a) Homeotic genes are the group of genes
58. (a) Genetic drift can operate only on involved in the embryonic development
smaller populations where its fluctuation and control the pattern of body formation.
can be observed in the proportion of allele Alleination in these gene found in flies like
distribution in the presence of external Drosophila result in development of legs in
disturbances. place of wings.
Genetic drift is the random change in allele 68. (a) Biogeography is the study of geographical
number and frequency in a gene pool. distribution of organisms. Paleontology is
59. (a) Prevention of mating between two natural the study of past life based on fossils and
populations of the same or different spaces fossil impressions. Anatomy is the study of
due to presence of barriers to interbreeding is internal structure. Embryology is the study
called reproductive isolation. Genetic drift is
of development of embryo from zygote till
the random change in the allele number and
frequency in a gene pool. Natural selection it becomes an offspring.
is a type of force for evolutionary processes. 69. (c) Organs that are similar in fundamental
Here, in this case, it allows the growth of only structure but different in functions are
those bacteria which have resistance towards “Homologous organs”, Richard Owen,
streptomycin. introduced the term homologous. Pectoral
60. (c) Microevolution is a series of changes fins of fish and fore limbs of horse similar
within a species due to gene mutations and in structure but different in functions are
accumulation of variations. homologous organs.
Macroevolution is evolution in which taxa Rest of the organs compared in the question
higher than the level of species are formed are analogous organs.
due to morphological and cytological 70. (a) During industrial revolution in England
changes. Formation of different functional the frequency of melanic forms of species of
forms of a basically similar structure is Peppered Moth (Biston betularia) increased in
called divergent evolution. polluted areas. Generally the moths are light
61. (d) According to both the views, coloured. This change in colour is known
'something' is passed from parent to offspring as "Industrial melanism". The change was
which causes development of specific presumed to be a result of natural selection
characters. since the melanic moths better matched the
62. (b) These areas are geographically isolated blackened tree trunks where they rest during
from other continents by the oceanic barrier day.
which has prevented uniform distribution of 71. (a) Synthesis of organic molecules from
fauna. simple molecules is no longer possible
63. (b) In 5000 years a given amount of because of the oxidizing atmosphere.
radioactive carbon would decay to half 72. (d) Nature select those set of characters
initial concentration. that are best adapted to the environment.
64. (a) Mutations are sudden inheritable This has resulted in the great diversity seen
variations which develop in the genetic in the population of finches.
 EBD_7325
352 BIOLOGY
73. (b) Homologous organs are the organs 78. (b) In the embryos of all vertebrates, the
having similar structural plan and origin but presence of gill slits supports the theory of
performing different functions. Analogous recapitulation (repeating the early stages of
organs perform similar function but have embryogenesis in earlier evolved animals).
different structural and developmental origin 79. (b)
e.g. wings of birds, wings of bat and wings 80. (d) The sibling species are those species,
of insects are analogous organs. which are born from a similar kind of
74. (b) Progressive evolution is development parents having similar morphology. But they
of organisms with more elaborate and are reproductively isolated.
specialized structures from those having 81. (a) The change in the colour of peppered
less elaborate features e.g. amphibians moth is due to the mutation of single
from reptiles. Retrogressive or degenerative mendelian gene for the survival in the smoke-
evolution is development of simpler forms laden industrial environment. It is called
from more complex ones. Such evolution has Industrial melanism.
occurred in case of vestigial organs, parasitic 82. (d) Adaptable
forms, and in reduction of overspecialized 83. (d) Melanisation of Peppered Moth in
structures such as wings in flightless birds. industrial areas.
Parallel evolution is formation of similar 84. (b) Dr. P. L. Sclater, 1858 divided the world
traits in related groups of organisms into 6-regions on the basis of distribution
independently due to similar requirement of birds only, later in 1876 A.R. Wallace
e.g. running of two toed deer and one adopted it for all the animals. These six
toed Horse. Evolution of wings in insects realms (regions) support evidence of organic
and birds serve as example of convergent evolution.
evolution. 85. (b) Jurassic period of mesozoic era is known
75. (b) Elements present on the surface of as the ‘Age of reptiles’.
the earth as well as in the early atmosphere 86. (a) Evolutionary convergence is a type of
combined to produce simple and compound evolutionary pattern in which unrelated
molecules. Atmospheric elements produced organisms/different species develop
molecules of Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Water, common set of characters / adaptive
CO, CO2, Ammonia, methane etc. UV- functional structures (analogous structures).
radiations, cosmic rays, lightening and heat They do not share common ancestor, related
made these to react amongst themselves and to one another in only the most distant sense.
produce organ compounds like sugars, fatty 87. (d) August Weismann, tested Lamarck’s
acid, glycerol and amino acids. theory in 1904 by cutting off the tails of
CH4 + NH3 + CO2 + H2O → Amino mice for 22 generations yet he failed to get
acids tailless mouse. On the basis of the test he
CH4 + NH3 + CO2 + N2 + H2 + H2O put forward the theory “continuity of germ
—→ Purines + Pyrimidines plasm”. According to him the character
76. (c) Vestigial organs are those organs which influencing the germ cells (reproductive) are
are non-functional in the possessor but were inherited. Change in somatic cells are not
functional in their ancestors and in related transmitted to the next generations. Hugo de
animals. Human beings possess many Vries proposed “Mutation theory”.
vestigial organs like nictitating membrane 88. (c) In 1859 Charles Darwin published
in the eye, vermiform appendix at the end his theory of natural selection in the book
of caecum, coccyx and tail muscles, non- ‘Origin of Species’. The theory is based on
functional muscles of the pinna, wisdom five important observations:
teeth, segmental muscle of abdomen and 1. All species have great reproductive
nipples in males. potential
77. (d)
Evolution 353
2. Most populations are stable in size 94. (b) The term Evolution was given by
3. Natural resources are limited Herbert Spencer that is “Descent with
4. Individuals of a population have modifications”. Evolution helps us to
variations. understand the history of life.
5. Most of the variations are heritable. Evolution is a process in which something
Species with variations selected by changes into a different and usually more
nature. complete or better form over time and
89. (c) Genetic drift is also known as Sewall in response to environment. This results
Wright effect. It refers to the random in descendents becoming different from
changes in gene frequencies in a population ancestors.
by chance, either due to intensive inbreeding 95. (b)
or death of a small section of population by 96. (b) One of the first attempts to explain
natural calamity. Its effect is more marked in the mechanism of evolution was made by
small isolated population. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck. His theory was
90. (b) Chemoheterotrophs were first Inheritance of Acquired Characters. The
organisms. They were prokaryotic like theory states that the characters acquired
bacteria, anaerobes, as molecular oxygen during life time are passed on to the progeny
was absent. They obtained energy by and then to subsequent generations and new
fermentation of some of the organic species are produced.
molecules present in the broth. Thus they 97. (d) The book “Origin of species” was
absorbed organic molecules from outside for written by Darwin.
body building and energy. 98. (c) Adaptive radiation in evolution was
• Chemoautotrophs - Organisms that are developed by H.F. Osborn in 1898. It is
capable to synthesize organic molecules also known as “Divergent evolution”. It
from inorganic molecules. is development of different functional
E.g., Nitrifying bacteria, sulphur structures from a common ancestral form.
reducing bacteria etc. Examples as mentioned in the questions.
• Autotrophs are photosynthesizing plants Whereas development of similar adaptive
/organisms. functional structures in unrelated groups
91. (c) Oxygen gas was not present due to of organism is adaptive convergence i.e.
reducing atmosphere, it only came to existence convergent evolution, e.g wings of insect,
after the evolution of photosynthesis process. bird and bat. When convergent evolution is
92. (d) In convergent evolution similar adaptive found in closely related species, it is called
functional structure develop in different “Parallel Evolution”
species (unrelated group of organism). When Example : development of running habit in
convergent evolution is found in separate but deer (2 toed) and horse (1 toed).
closely related species (related evolutionary The evolutionary process in which many
lineages) it is called parallel evolution. related species evolved from a single
In parallel evolution the two species have a ancestors is called adaptive radiation.
relatively recent common ancestors. 99. (b) Adaptation is the evolutionary process
93. (a) Van Baer; 1828 put forward Baer’s law in which population becomes better suited
which was later called as Biogenetic law of to its habitat. Mimicry is an example of
Ernst Haeckel, 1866. The law states that long term adaptation, in which there is a
"Ontogeny repeats phylogeny". Ontogeny close resemblance of an organism to the
is the life history of an organism while surrounding in order to avoid detection . e.g.
phylogeny is the evolutionary history of the Leaf insect Phyllium. The term mimicry was
race of that organism. introduced by Bates (1862).
 EBD_7325
354 BIOLOGY
•
Homology is phenomenon in which 108. (d) Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in
origin of organs are same but functions the range of 680 - 720 c.c & that of . Homo
are different. erectus erectus 775 - 990 c.c., Homo erectus
e.g - Hand of human and fore limb of pekinesis 915-1200 c.c. Homo nenderthalensis
horse. 1300-1600 c.c.
• Analogy - Origin is different but functions 109. (a) To survive in a particular environment,
are same of two different organs. an organism needs to adapt in that
e.g. - Wings of birds, wings of insects. environment. If the organism becomes
100. (c) Brain capacity in decreasing order:- successful in adapting then that organism is
Homo sapiens (1300 - 1600 c.c) selected by nature .
Homo neanderthalensis (approx. 1400 c.c.) 110. (d) Jurassic period of meoszoic era was
Homo eractus (600 - 700 c.c.) about 19-20 crore years ago & lasted for
Homo habilis (550 - 687 c.c.) about 5.5-6 crore years. The climate was hot
Thus the lowest brain capacity is of Homo and damp. It is called the age of dinosaurs.
habilis as shown above. Homo habilis lived in Ist primitive bird Archaeopteryx evolved
early pleistocene period and used tools of from reptiles. Ist angiosperm appeared
chipped stones. as a dicotyledon but gymnosperms were
101. (d) The theor y of Hardy- Weinberg dominant.
equilibrium states that in the absence of 111. (b) Archaeopteryx is a fossile (dead) found
disturbance on the level of genetic structure, from the mesozoic rocks. It is a connecting
a population’s existance will not continue. link between reptiles and birds.
Thus mating should be in a random way. 112. (c) Electron Spin Resonance method is the
102. (a) Industrial melanism occured in England most accurate method for dating of fossils.
due to industrial revolution. It caused black 113. (a) According to Neodarwinism variation
coating of moths for the adaptation in the is the root cause of evolution.
present environment. 114. (d) DNA from sex chromosomes,
103. (d) Dinosaurs dominated the world in autosomes and mitochondria reflect
mesozoic era. In Triassic period, giant the entire genomic limit. Chromosome
reptiles (dinosaurs) emerged. In Jurassic morphology is only partial.
period, dinosaurs diversified and abundant 115. (b)
(golden age of dinosaurs) and in cretaceous 116. (c) Africa is often called as the Cradle of
period, mass extinction of dinosaurs Human Kind.
occurred. 117. (a) Chimpanzee is the closest relative
104. (b) of man. Banding pattern of human
105. (d) The most significant trend in evolution chromosome number 3 and 6 are remarkably
of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his similar to that of chimpanzee indicating
ancestors is development of brain capacity. common origin for both.
106. (d) In the case of peppered moth (Biston 118. (c) Peking man had a cranial capacity of
betularia) the black coloured form became about 1000cc. Heidelberg man is regarded as
dominant over the light coloured form in ancestor of Neanderthal man. Cro-magnon is
England during industrial revolution. This is the form of modern man living in Europe.
an example of natural selection. This group 119. (c) Oligocene is masked by the rise of
is about species that gain protection from monkeys and apes. Miocene is masked by
predators due to selection caused by nature. appearance of man like apes. Pliocene is
107. (a & d)  Scales on their hind limbs and characterized by origin of man.
eggs with calcareous shell, indicates in birds 120. (c) Chimpanzees and gorillas are our
about their reptilian ancestry. closest relatives among the living primates.
Evolution 355
121. (a) Loss of a prehensile tail is associated 129. (a) Jurassic period of Mesozoic era is
with the gradual development of erect known as “Golden age of Dinosaurs.
posture and bipedal gait. • Coenozoic era is the age of insects, birds
122. (c) Hardy - Weinberg law is the principle and mammals.
of genetic equilibrium according to which • Palaeozoic era of fishes.
in the absence of external environmental 130. (c) Evolutionary history of horse was
disturbances, a randomly mating population described by O.C. Marsh, 1879. Origin of
remains in genetic equilibrium. Lamarck horse took place in Eocene period and first
postulated the theory of inheritance of fossil of horse was Eohippus found in North
acquired characters. Mendelian principles America.
explained the inheritance of genetic Evolutionary trend of Horse :
characters from one generation to another.
123. (b) Dryopithecus lived about 20-25 million
years ago.
124. (b) Cro-Magnon fossils have been found in
Europe. Neanderthal man is a transitional
stage. Australopithecus appeared in early 131. (c) The correct Geological time scale of
Pleistocene. earth is
125. (a) Cranial capacity shows an increase Precambrian → Palaeozoic →
form apes to man which indicates increase (Era/Age of early life) Age of fishes
in intelligence. Mesozoic → Coenozoic
126. (c) Cro-magnon succeeded Neanderthal. (Age of reptiles) (Age of mammals)
Fossils of Neanderthal man have been found dinasaurs and cycads
from Europe, Asia and North Africa. Fossils A geological time scale is a diagram that
of Australopithecus have been found in Africa. details the history of Earths geology, noting
127. (c) During ancient period men eats hard major events like the formation of the Earth,
nuts and hard roots (though they often take the first life forms and mass extinctions. The
soft food also). Thus change in diet is the first geological time scale was proposed in
most irrelevant change in the evolution of 1913 by the British geologist Arthur Holmes
man. (1890-1965).
128. (a) Australopithecus appeared in early The history of the earth has been subdivided
Pleistocene. Homo habilis had a cranial into eras, eras into periods and periods into
capacity of 700–800 cc. major divisions.
 EBD_7325
Chapter

30 Human Health and

Diseases
Topic 1: Common Diseases in Humans 6. Select the wrong statements : [2015 RS]
1. Which of the following is not a sexually (a) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could
transmitted disease ?  [2015 RS] be crystallized
(a) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (b) The term ‘contagium vivum fluidum’ was
(AIDS) coined by M.W. Bejerinek
(b) Trichomoniasis (c) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in
(c) Encephalitis human being are caused by viruses
(d) Syphilis (d) The viroids were dicovered by D.J.
2. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds Ivanowski
upon:  [2015 RS] 7. Asthma may be attributed to [2015 RS]
(a) mucosa and submucosa of colon only (a) bacterial infection of the lungs.
(b) food in intestine (b) allergic reaction of the mast cell in the
(c) blood only
lungs
(d) erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of
(c) inflammation of the trachea
colon
3. Match each disease with its correct type of (d) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
vaccine:  [2015 RS] 8. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :
(A) Tuberculosis (i) harmless virus [NEET 2013]
(B) Whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin (a) Eating imperfectly cooked pork.
(C) Diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria (b) Tse-tse fly.
(D) Polio (iv) harmless bacteria (c) Mosquito bite.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (d) Drinking water containing eggs of
(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) Ascaris.
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 9. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) normally found on human body
(d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) [NEET Kar. 2013]
4. Which of the following endoparasites of
(a) Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs
humans does show viviparity ? [2015 RS]
(b) Muscles of the legs
(a) Enterobius vermicularis
(c) Blood vessels of the thigh region
(b) Trichinella spiralis
(d) Skin between the fingers
(c) Ascaris lumbricoides
(d) Ancylostoma duodenale 10. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in :
5. Which of the following diseases is caused by (a) Gut of female Anopheles [2012]
a protozoan ? [2015 RS] (b) Salivary glands of Anopheles
(a) Influenza (b) Babesiosis (c) Human RBCs
(c) Blastomycosis (d) Syphilis (d) Human liver
Human Health and Diseases 357
11. Widal Test is carried out to test : [2012] (d) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s
(a) Malaria (b) Diabetes mellitus nest.
(c) HIV/AIDS (d) Typhoid fever 16. The pathogen Microsporum responsible
12. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, for ringworm disease in humans belongs
that :  [2012] to the same kingdom of organisms as that
(a) Pneumonia is a communicable disease of  [2011M]
whereas the common cold is a nutritional (a) Taenia, a tapeworm
deficiency disease. (b) Wuchereria, a filarial worm
(b) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live (c) Rhizopus, a mould
attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the (d) Ascaris, a round worm
common cold has no effective vaccine. 17. Which one of the following option
(c) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the gives the correct matching of a disease
common cold is caused by the bacterium with its causative organism and mode of
Haemophilus influenzae. infection. [2011M]
(d) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli
whereas the common cold affects nose Disease Causative Mode of
and respiratory passage but not the lungs. Organisms Infection
13. Read the following four statements (A-D). (a) Typhoid Salmonella With
(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new typhii inspired air
born because it is rich in antigens. (b) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet
(B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram pneumoniae Infection
negative bacterium. (c) Elephantiasis Wuchereria infected water
(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in
bancrofti and food
obtaining virus-free plants.
(d) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of
vivax Anopheles
fermented grape juice.
mosquito
How many of the above statements are
wrong? [2012M] 18. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics
(a) Two (b) Three because it is [2011M]
(c) Four (d) One (a) caused by a virus
14. Where will you look for the sporozoites of (b) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
the malarial parasite? [2011] (c) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
(a) Saliva of infected female Anopheles (d) not an infectious disease
mosquito 19. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of
(b) Red blood cor puscles of humans [2010]
suffering from malaria (a) Malaria (b) Pneumonia
(c) Spleen of infected humans (c) Tuberculosis (d) Typhoid
(d) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female 20. Match the disease in Column I with the
Anopheles mosquito appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/
15. Which one of the following is categorised as treatment) in Column II. [2008]
a parasite in true sense ? [2011]
Column I Column II
(a) The female Anopheles bites and sucks
1. Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
blood from humans
2. Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized
(b) Human foetus developing inside the
food and water
uterus draws nourishment from the
3. Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
mother
4. Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydra-
(c) Head louse living on the human scalp as
tion therapy
well as laying eggs on human hair
 EBD_7325
358 BIOLOGY
(a) (1) - (i), (2) - (ii), (3) - (iii), (4) - (iv) 28. For which of the following disease, there is
(b) (1) - (ii), (2) - (iv), (3) - (i), (4) - (iii) preventive vaccine? [2000]
(c) (1) - (ii), (2) - (i), (3) - (iii), (4) - (iv) (a) AIDS (b) Hepatitis B
(d) (1) - (ii), (2) - (iii), (3) - (iv), (4) - (i) (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhea
21. The 'blue baby' syndrome results from[2006] 29. It is not possible to apply Koch's postulates
(a) methaemoglobin to [1999]
(b) excess of dissolved oxygen (a) Diptheria (b) Cholera
(c) excess of TDS (total dissolved solids) (c) Leprosy (d) Tuberculosis
(d) excess of chloride 30. Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum
22. Which one of the following is not correctly affects the  [1998]
matched [2004] (a) intestine
(a) Glossina palpalis - Sleeping sickness (b) neuromuscular junction

(b) Culex pipiens - Filariasis (c) spleen
(c) Aedes aegypti - Yellow fever (d) lymph glands
(d) Anopheles culifacies- Leishmaniasis 31. Typhoid fever is caused by  [1998]
23. Which one of the following conditions though (a) Salmonella (b) Shigella
harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour (c) Escherichia (d) Giardia
from a mosquito borne infectious disease ? 32. Which of the following symptoms indicate
(a) Leukemia [2003] radiation sickness?  [1997]
(b) Thalassemia (a) Red and ulcerated skin
(c) Sickle cell anaemia (b) Nausea and loss of hair
(d) Pernicious anaemia (c) Nausea and anaemia
24. Salmonella is related with  [2001] (d) Ulcerated skin, nausea, loss of hair and
(a) Typhoid (b) Polio anaemia
(c) T.B. (d) Tetanus 33. Diptheria is caused by  [1997]
25. Which of the following is most infectious (a) poisons released from dead bacterial cells
disease?  [2001] into the host tissue
(a) Hepatitis - B (b) AIDS (b) poisons released by living bacterial cells
(c) Amoebiosis (d) Malaria into the host tissue
26. Correctly match sexually transmitted disease (c) excessive immune response by the host's
with its pathogen? [2000] body
(a) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum (d) poisons released by virus into the host
(b) AIDS – Bacillus anthracis tissues
(c) Urethritis – Entamoeba gingivalis 34. Which one of the following diseases is now
considered nearly eradicated from India ?
(d) Gonorrhoea – Leishmania donovani
[1997]
27. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy, a bovine
disease is related to which human disease ? (a) Plague (b) Kala azar
(a) Cerebral spondylitis [2000] (c) Small pox (d) Poliomyelitis
(b) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease 35. In which one of the following pairs of diseases
both are caused by viruses ? [1996]
(c) Encephalitis
(a) Tetanus and typhoid
(d) Kala-azar
(b) Whooping cough and sleeping sickness
Human Health and Diseases 359
(c) Syphilis and AIDS 43. Who discovered Plasmodium in R.B.C of
(d) Measles and rabies human beings ? [1991]
36. Which of the following pair is not correctly (a) Ronald Ross (b) Mendel
matched?  [1995] (c) Laveran (d) Stephens
(a) Dengue fever -arbovirus 44. Malignant tertian malarial parasite is [ 1991]
(b) Plague - Yersinia pestis (a) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Syphilis - Trichuris trichiura (b) P. vivax
(d) Malaria - Plasmodium vivax (c) P. ovale
37. Which one of the sexually transmitted diseases (d) P. malariae
is correctly matched with its pathogen? 45. Amoebiasis is prevented by [1990]
(a) Urethritis – Bacillus anthracis [1994] (a) eating balanced food
(b) eating plenty of fruits
(b) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum
(c) drinking boiled water
(c) Gonorrhoea – Entamoeba histolytica
(d) using mosquito nets
(d) Soft sore – Bacillus brevis
46. In hot summer and cold winter, the number
38. A sexually transmitted disease caused by of malaria cases as well as Anopheles
bacteria is  [1994] declines, Reappearance of malaria in humid
(a) Leprosy (b) AIDS warm conditions is due to  [1990]
(c) Syphilis (d) Pertussis (a) surving malarial parasites in human
39. If all ponds and puddles are destroyed, the carriers
organism likely to be destroyed is [1993] (b) surviving sporozoites in surviving
(a) Leishmania (b) Trypanosoma mosquitoes
(c) Ascaris (d) Plasmodium (c) monkeys
40. Schizogont stage of Plasmodium occurs in (d) mosquito larvae in permanent waters
human cells [1993] 47. Malaria fever coincides with liberation of
(a) cryptomerozoites [1989]
(a) Erthrocytes
(b) metacryptomerozoites
(b) Liver cells
(c) merozoites
(c) Erythrocytes and liver cells
(d) trophozoites
(d) Erythrocytes, liver cells and spleen cells
41. Give the correct matching of causative Topic 2: Immunity
agent/germ and disease [1993] 48. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails
(a) Anopheles – malaria often due to non-acceptance by the patient's
(b) Leishmania – Sleeping sickness body. Which type of immune-response is
(c) Glossina – Kala-azar responsible for such rejections?  [2017]
(d) Wuchereria – Filariasis (a) Cell - mediated immune response
42. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite (b) Hormonal immune response
Plasmodium vivax, that is passed in female (c) Physiological immune response
Anopheles is [1992] (d) Autoimmune response
(a) sexual cycle 49. MALT constitutes about ________ percent of
(b) pre-erythrocytic schizogony the lymphoid tissue in human body. [2017]
(c) exoerythrocytic schizogony (a) 20% (b) 70%
(d) post-erythrocytic schizogony (c) 10% (d) 50%
 EBD_7325
360 BIOLOGY
50. In higher vertebrates, the immune system (b) Active
can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this Anti-tetanus and anti-
immunity
property is lost due to genetic abnormality snake bite injection
and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to [2016] (c) Saliva in mouth and Physical
(a) allergic response Tear in eyes barriers
(b) graft rejection (d) Physiological
Mucus coating of
(c) auto-immune disease
epithelium lining the barriers
(d) active immunity
urinogenital tract-and
51. Antivenom injection contains preformed the HCl in stomach
antibodies while polio drops that are
administered into the body contain [2016] 57. Which one of the following statements is
(a) Activated pathogens correct with respect to immunity?  [2012M]
(b) Harvested antibodies (a) Preformed antibodies need to be injected
(c) Gamma globulin to treat the bite by a viper snake.
(d) Attenuated pathogens (b) The antibodies against small pox pathogen
52. Which one of the following immunoglobulins are produced by T – lymphocytes.
does constitute the largest percentage in (c) Antibodies are protein molecules, each
human milk? [2015 RS] of which has four light chains.
(a) Ig M (b) Ig A (d) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function
(c) Ig G (d) Ig D of B-lymphocytes.
53. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies 58. Which one of the following acts as a
in a person, to which of the following would physiological barrier to the entry of micro-
you look for confirmatory evidences? organisms in human body ? [2011]
(a) Serum albumins    [2015 RS] (a) Epithelium of urogenital tract
(b) Haemocytes (b) Tears
(c) Serum globulins (c) Monocytes
(d) Fibrinogin in plasma (d) Skin
54. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient 59. Select the correct statement with respect to
due to : [2015 RS] diseases and immunisation? [2011M]
(a) Cell-mediated immune response (a) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes
(b) Passive immune response are damaged, the body will not produce
(c) Innate immune response antibodies against a pathogen
(d) Humoral immune response (b) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens
55. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human causes passive immunity
body is carried out by : [NEET 2013] (c) Certain protozoans have been used to
(a) B-lymphocytes (b) Thrombocytes mass produce hepatitis B vaccine.
(c) Erythrocytes (d) T-lymphocytes (d) Injection of snake antivenom against
56. In which one of the following options the two snake bite is an example of active
examples are correctly matched with their immunisation
particular type of immunity. [2012] 60. A person likely to develop tetanus is
Examples Types of immunised by administering [2009]
immunity (a) preformed antibodies
(a) Polymorphonuclear Cellular (b) wide spectrum antibiotics
leukocytes and barriers (c) weakened germs
monocytes (d) dead germs
Human Health and Diseases 361
61. The letter T in T -lymphocyte refers to 69. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother
(a) Thalamus (b) Tonsil [2009] to foetus across placenta or through mother's
(c) Thymus (d) Thyroid milk to the infant is categorised as[2003]
62. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a (a) innate non-specific immunity
quick relief from  [2009] (b) active immunity
(a) nausea (b) cough (c) passive immunity
(c) headache (d) allergy (d) cellular immunity
63. To which type of barriers under innate 70. What is tr ue about T-lymphocytes in
immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the mammals?  [2003]
tears from the eyes, belong? [2008] (a) These are produced in thyroid
(a) Cytokine barriers
(b) There are three main types — cytotoxic
(b) Cellular barriers
T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor
(c) Physiological barriers T-cells
(d) Physical barriers
(c) These originate in lymphoid tissues
64. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies
(d) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular
in a person to which of the following would
debris
you look for confirmatory evidence? [2007]
71. Reason of lung cancer  [2001]
(a) serum globulins
(a) Asbestos (b) Calcium fluoride
(b) fibrinogen in the plasma (c) Cement factory (d) Bauxite mining
(c) haemocytes 72. Interferons are synthesized in response to
(d) serum albumins [2001]
65. Increased asthmatics attacks in certain sea- (a) Mycoplasma (b) Bacteria
sons are related to [2007] (c) Viruses (d) Fungi
(a) eating fruits preserved in tin containers 73. Small proteins produced by vertebrate cells
in response to viral infections inhibiting viral
(b) inhalation of seasonal pollen
multiplication are known as[2000]
(c) low temperature
(a) Lipoproteins (b) Immuglobulins
(d) hot and humid environment.
(c) Interferons (d) Antitoxins
66. Antibodies in our body are complex [2006] 74. Vaccines are [1999]
(a) steroids (b) prostaglandins (a) treated bacteria or viruses or one of their
(c) glycoproteins (d) lipoproteins proteins
67. The cell in the human body invaded by the (b) MHC (major histocompatibility complex)
human immuno-deficiency virus (HIV) is proteins
[1999, 2006] (c) curative medicines
(a) T-helper cell (b) Erythrocyte (d) monoclonal antibodies
(c) B-cell (d) Macrophage 75. During blood typing agglutination indicates
68. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to: that the [1999]
[2005] (a) RBC carry certain antigens
(a) a reduction in haemoglobin content of (b) Plasma contains certain antigens
blood (c) RBC carry certain antibodies
(b) a reduction in stem cell production (d) Plasma contains certain antibodies
(c) loss of antibody mediated immunity
(d) loss of cell mediated immunity
 EBD_7325
362 BIOLOGY
76. Chemically an antibody is a [1996, 99] Topic 3: AIDS/Cancer
(a) lipid (b) nucleoprotein
85. Match the following sexually transmitted
(c) protein (d) lipoprotein
diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent
77. If a certain person shows production of (Column-II) and select the correct option :
interferons in his body, the chances are that  [2017]
he has got an infection of  [1997] Column-I Column-II
(a) typhoid (b) measles (A) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
(c) malaria (d) tetanus (B) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
78. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is associated (C) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
with  [1996] (D) AIDS (iv) Human
(a) aberrant functioning of the immune papilloma-Virus
mechanism (A) (B) (C) (D)
(b) increase in ambient temperature (a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) age of the individual (b) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) food habits (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
79. Interferons are [1996]
86. Which of the following statements is not true
(a) antiviral proteins
for cancer cells in relation to mutations ?
(b) antibacterial proteins
[2016]
(c) anticancer proteins
(a) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate
(d) complex proteins
the cell cycle.
80. Passive immunity was discovered by [1996]
(b) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
(a) Edward Jenner (b) Emil von Behring
(c) Mutations inactive the cell control.
(c) Robert Koch (d) Louis Pasteur
(d) Mutations inhibit production of telom-
81. Which of the following diseases is due to an
erase.
allergic reaction?  [1995]
87. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
(a) Goitre (b) Skin cancer
(a) Leucocytes [2015 RS]
(c) Hay fever (d) Enteric fever
(b) Helper T- Lymphocytes
82. A cell coded protein formed in response to (c) Thrombocytes
infection with most animal viruses is [1994] (d) B- Lymphocytes
(a) Antigen (b) Antibody 88. Which of the following viruses is not
(c) Interferon (d) Histone transferred through semen of an infected
83. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of male?  [2015 RS]
organs is  [1994] (a) Human immunodeficiency virus
(a) insufficiency of organ donors (b) Chikungunya virus
(b) immunological rejection of foreign (c) Ebola virus
bodies (d) Hepatitis B virus
(c) religious or ethnic considerations 89. At which stage of HIV infection does one
usually show symptoms of AIDS:- [2014]
(d) lack of effective surgical techniques
(a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with
84. Cells involved in immune mechanism are
an infected person.
[1993]
(b) When the infected retro virus enters host
(a) Erythrocytes (b) Lymphocytes cells.
(c) Eosinophils (d) Thrombocytes
Human Health and Diseases 363
(c) When HIV damages large number of (a) ELISA (b) MRI
helper T-Lymphocytes. (c) Ultra sound (d) WIDAL
(d) When the viral DNA is produced by
94. Which one of the following statements is
reverse transcriptase.
90. Which one of the following is not a property correct with respect to AIDS? [2010]
of cancerous cells whereas the remaining (a) The HIV can be transmitted through
three are ?  [2012] eating food together with an infected
(a) They compete with normal cells for vital person
nutrients. (b) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV
(b) They do not remain confined in the area infection
of formation. (c) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent
(c) They divide in an uncontrolled manner per cent with proper care and nutrition
(d) They show contact inhibition. (d) The causative HIV retrovirus enters
91. Which one of the following sets of items in helper T - lymphocytes thus reducing
the options 1 - 4 are correctly categorized their numbers
with one exception in it?      [2012M] 95. Ringworm in humans is caused by :  [2010]
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi
Items Category Exception
(c) Nematodes (d) Viruses
(a) UAA, UAG, Stop codons UAG
96. Which of the following is a pair of viral
UGA diseases?  [2009]
(b) Kangaroo, Australian Wombat (a) Common cold, AIDS
Koala, marsupials (b) Dysentery, common cold
Wombat (c) Typhoid, tuberculosis
(c) Plasmodium, Protozoan Cuscuta (d) Ringworm, AIDS
97. Which one of the following statements is
Cuscuta, parasites
correct?  [2009]
Trypanosoma (a) Benign tumours show the property of
(d) Typhoid, Bacterial Diphtheria metastasis.
Pneumonia, diseases (b) Heroin accelerates body functions.
Diphtheria (c) Malignant tumours ours may exhibit
metastasis.
92. At which stage of HIV infection does one
(d) Patients who have undergone surgery are
usually show symptoms of AIDS? [2011]
given cannabinoids to relieve pain.
(a) When the infecting retrovirus enters host
98. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally
cells
(b) When viral DNA is produced by reverse infects: [2005]
trancriptase (a) all lymphocytes
(c) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper (b) activator B cells
T-lymphocytes and damages large (c) cytotoxic T cells
number of these (d) T4 lymphocytes
(d) Within 15 day of sexual contact with an 99. Which of the following statements is not
infected person. true for retroviruses? [2004]
93. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering (a) DNA is not present at any stage in the
f r o m A c q u i r e d I m mu n o D e f i c i e n c y life cycle of retroviruses
Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will (b) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA-
you recommend for its detection? [2011] dependent DNA polymerase
 EBD_7325
364 BIOLOGY
(c) The genetic material in mature 107. Retroviruses are implicated as a cause for
retroviruses is RNA cancer in humans because they [1996]
(d) Retroviruses are causative agents for (a) carry gene for reverse transcriptase
certain kinds of cancer in man (b) may carry cellular proto-oncogenes in
100. ELISA is used to detect viruses, where their genome
(a) DNA-probes are required [2004] (c) may carry v-oncogenes in their genome
(b) Southern bloting is done (d) carry single stranded RNA as their
(c) Alkaline phosphatase is the key reagent genetic material
(d) Catalase is the key reagent 108. Sarcoma is cancer of  [1994]
101. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by (a) epithelial tissue
radiation than normal cells because they are (b) mesodermal tissue
(a) starved of mutation [2004] (c) blood
(b) undergoing rapid division (d) endodermal tissues
(c) different in structure Topic 4 Drugs & Alcohol Abuse
(d) non-dividing
109. Which is the particular type of drug that is
102. Carcinoma refers to [2003]
obtained from the plant whose one flowering
(a) benign tumours of the connective tissue branch is shown below?  [2014]
(b) malignant tumours of the connective
tissue
(c) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous
membrane
(d) malignant tumours of the colon
103. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key
reagent is [2003]
(a) RNase (a) Hallucinogen (b) Depressant
(b) alkaline phosphatase (c) Stimulant (d) Pain - killer
110. Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic
(c) catalase
drug? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(d) DNA probe (a) Opium
104. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by (b) Caffeine
radiations due to [2002] (c) Morphine
(a) rapid cell division (d) Lysergic acid diethylamide
(b) lack of nutrition 111. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic
(c) fast mutation intake of  [2012]
(d) lack of oxygen (a) Opium
(b) Alcohol
105. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has
(c) Tobacco (Chewing)
a protein coat and a genetic material which is
(d) Cocaine
(a) single stranded DNA    [1998, 2000] 112. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown
(b) double stranded DNA below and select the right option giving their
(c) single stranded RNA source and use. [2012M]
(d) double stranded RNA (a) CH3
106. Hybridoma cells are  [1999] N O
(a) nervous cells of frog CH3
O
(b) hybrid cells resulting from myeloma cells
H
(c) only cells having oncogenes
O
(d) product of spore formation in bacteria
H
O
Human Health and Diseases 365
OH 116. Which one of the following depresses brain
activity and produced feelings of calmness,
(b) relaxation and drowsiness? [2005]
O (a) Morphine (b) Valium
H (c) Amphetamines (d) Hashish
Options 117. Which one of the following is correct match?
Molecule Source Use (a) Reserpine — Tranquilizer [2001]
(a) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates (b) Cocaine — Opiate narcotic
coca the transport
(c) Morphine — Hallucinogenic
of dopamine
(d) Bhang — Analgesic
(b) (b) Heroin Cannabis "Depressant
sativa and slows 118. L. S. D. is  [2001]
down body (a) hallucinogenic (b) sedative
functions" (c) stimulant (d) tranquiliser
(c) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa Produces 119. Which one of the following is an opiate
belladona hallucinations narcotic?  [1997]
(d) (a) Morphine Papaver Sedative and (a) Barbiturates (b) Morphine
somniferum pain killer
(c) Amphetamines (d) LSD
113. Select the correct statement from the ones 120. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja,
given below? [2010] charas, marijuana or hashish) causes [1997]
(a) Barbiturates when given to criminals (a) depression of brain activity and feeling
make them tell the truth of calmness
(b) Morphine is often given to persons who
have undergone surgery as a pain killer (b) alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings
(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure (c) suppresses brain function and relieves
and heart rate pain
(d) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery (d) stimulates the nervous system and
as it stimulates recovery increases alterness and activity.
114. Which one of the following is the correct 121. Which one of the following is an Indian
statement regarding the particular psychotropic medicinal plant ?  [1996]
drug specified?  [2008] (a) Saccharum officinarum
(a) Hashish causes after thought perceptions
and hallucinations (b) Rauwolfia serpentina
(b) Opium stimulates nervous system and (c) Oryza sativa
causes hallucinations (d) Solanum melongena
(c) Morphine leads to delusions and dis- 122. The alkaloid ajmalicine is obtained from 
turbed emotions [1995]
(d) Barbiturates cause relaxation and tem- (a) Atropa (b) Papaver
porary euphoria
(c) Curcuma (d) Sarpgandha
115. A person showing unpredictable moods,
123. Opiate narcotic is  [1993]
outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour
and conflicts with other is suffering from (a) Bhang (b) Charas
[2006] (c) Heroin (d) Nicotine
(a) Borderline personality disorder (BPD) 124. Analgesic drugs  [1990]
(b) Mood disorders (a) form tissues (b) relieve pain
(c) Addictive disorders (c) relieve fatigue (d) cause pain
(d) Schizophrenia
 EBD_7325
366 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Encephalitis is a disease of inflammation 9. (a) Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi),
of the brain. It is not transmitted sexually. filarial worms causing chronic inflammation
Most commonly it is caused by a virus. of the organs in which they live for many
2. (d) Entamoeba histolytica is found in the years, usually the lymphatic vessels of the
colon. It feeds on mucosa and submucosa as lower limbs and the disease caused by them
well as phagocytose RBCs. known as elephantiasis or filariasis. The
3. (b) Tuberculosis vaccine (BCG) has inacti- genital organs are mainly affected, resulting
vated bacteria. In whooping cough vaccine, in gross deformities. The pathogens are
there are killed pathogens of Bordetella per- transmitted to a healthy person through the
tussis which cause whooping cough. In DPT bite by the female mosquito vectors.
diphtheria toxoid is present. Sabin polio vac- 10. (a) Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs
cine contains inactivated virus. in gut of female Anopheles. Zygote formed
4. (b) Trichinella spiralis is an endoparasite in stomach of mosquito about 9 to 10 days
found in human intestine. It is the smallest after sucking the blood of an infected human.
nematode producing larvae in large number. Anopheles receives RBCs containing different
These larvae bore the intestine of human stages of erthyrocytic cycle, including
being and enter the blood and lymphatic gametocyte. In its gut, all stages except the
systems. gametocytes are digested. The gametocytes
5. (b) Babesiosis is malaria like disease caused remain unaffected by digestive enzymes of
by protozoon-Babesia. In this desease the mosquito, hatch out from the RBCs into
haemoglobinuric fever takes place. the lumen of mosquito’s stomach and form
sperm and ovum by gametogenesis. Syngamy
6. (d) T.O. Dinear (1971) discovered the viroids
or fusion of male and female gamete.
which are smaller than viruses.
11. (d) Widal test is carried out to test typhoid
7. (b) A mast cell or a mastocyte is typically
fever caused by Salmonella typhii bacteria.
a white blood cell. It is a special kind of
Typhoid vaccine is available.
granulocyte, which is a part of the immune
12. (d) Common cold is most infectious viral
system and laden with histamine and heparin.
disease caused by Rhino viruses which is
Besides these, mast cells also secrete the
transmitted through inhalation of droplets
prostaglandin (PG) D2, and leukotriene
from infected person or through contaminated
(LT) C4, which are capable of inducing
objects. Pneumonia is a bacterial disease
bronchoconstriction and mucosal edema,
both features of asthma. caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae and
Haemophillus influenzae. This serious disease
8. (d) Ascaris, an intestinal parasite causes
of lungs spread by sputum of the patient.
ascariasis. Symptoms of these disease
13. (a) Statement (A) and (B) are wrong.
include internal bleeding, muscular pain,
Colostrum is the first lacteal secretion (thin
fever, anaemia and blockage of the intestinal
yellowish fluid) produced by the mammary
passage. The eggs of the parasite are excreted
gland of a mother prior to the production of
along with the faeces of infected persons
which contaminate soil, water, plants, etc. A milk. It is recommended for the new born
healthy person acquires this infection through because it is rich in antibodies and minerals.
contaminated water vegetables, fruits, etc. Chikungunya fever is a viral disease
Human Health and Diseases 367
transmitted to humans by the bite of infected 26. (a) AIDS is caused by HIV virus and
Aedes aegypti mosquitoes. Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea.
14. (a) Sporozoites of malarial parasite are Urethritis is inflammed of the urethra by
found in saliva of infected female Anopheles bacteria.
mosquito. 27. (b) Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
15. (c) Head louse is an obligate ectoparasite (BSE) is a total brain disease known to exist
of human scalp and as well as laying egg on in beef and other dairy cattle in U.K. It is also
human hair. known as mad cow disease. It is caused by
16. (c) Microsporum is a member of Deutero- prions.
mycetes of fungi & Rhizopus is also fungi and Creutzfeldt- Jacob Disease (CJD) is a slow
member of Zygomycetes.
degenerative disease among human affecting
17. (b) Pneumonia disease is spread by the
central nervous system with dysfunction
organism Streptococcus pneumoniae and the
and degeneration of the brain. It has been
mode of infection is by droplet infection.
suggested that a few people in Britain might
18. (a) Common cold is due to rhinovirus.
Recent studies found that antibiotics do not have contracted CJD by eating BSE- infected
kill this virus. beef. So both are related.
19. (d) Widal test is used for the diagnosis of Encephalitis is an acute inflammation of the
typhoid. It is an agglutination test for the brain mostly due to viral infection.
presence of antibodies against the Salmonella 28. (b) Hepatitis is a viral disease; two subgroups
organisms, which cause typhoid fever. are hepatitis type A virus (HAV) and hepatitis
20. (d) Amoebiasis : Use only sterilized food type B virus (HBV). HBV causes serum
and water hepatitis, it is most frequently transmitted
Diphtheria : DPT Vaccine by blood, products of blood or blood
Cholera : Use oral rehydration contaminated instruments. Since only adults
therapy are susceptible to HBV, but vaccines are
Syphilis : Treponema pallidum available. While children and young adults
21. (a) Methaemoglobin is a denatured haemo- are susceptible to HAV, no vaccines are
globin causes blue baby syndrome. acceptable.
22. (d) Leishmaniasis in transmitted by sand fly 29. (c) Koch's postulates are not applicable to
Phlebotomus argentipes. Anopheles transmits the bacteria causing leprosy and syphilis. My-
malaria. The rest of the options are correct
cobacterium leprae causing leprosy produces
combinations.
endospores on which Koch’s postulates are
23. (c) A sickle cell anaemia affected person is
not applicable, because Mycobacterium leprae
more resistant to mosquito born infectious
cannot be cultured in vitro.
disease because the sickle - cell shaped RBCs
30. (b) Botulism is caused by the ingestion of
are hostile to the protozoa Plasmodium.
24. (a) Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani. food containing the toxin of Clostridium
Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium botulinum. Before the introduction of a strict
tuberculosis. Polio is caused by virus. canning code, the food canning industry was
Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever. The responsible for many deaths each year from
incubation period is about two weeks. The botulism (Food poisoning).
patient first suffers from high fever of 40°C Botulism is a rare but serious paralytic illness
and continual headache. caused by a nerve toxin that is produced by
25. (a) HBV causes serum hepatitis. It is most the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This
frequently transmitted by blood or by blood bacterium produces an exotoxin which is
contaminated instruments. highly toxic for the synaptic ends of the nerves
 EBD_7325
368 BIOLOGY
where it blocks the release of acetylcholine or moist places like ponds and puddles.
which is a chemical necessary for the 40. (c) Schizogont or asexual stage occurs in
transmission of nerve impulse across the human erythrocytes and liver cells.
synapses. 41. (d) Wuchereria – Filariasis
31. (a) Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella 42. (a) Plasmodium vivax completes sexual cycle
typhi (S. typhosa). This is fasillus type. or gamogony in female Anopheles mosquito.
Asexual cycle is passed in man (schizogony).
Bacterial genus Shigella causes shigellosis
43. (c) Laveran discovered Plasmodium in R.B.C
or bacillary dysentry. Escherichia coli is a of human beings and concluded that malaria
facultative anaerobe found in the intestine of is caused by Plasmodium vivax. Sir Ronal Ross
human beings. (1896) was the first to observe oocytes of
Giardia is a flagellate protozoan, Glamblia Plasmodium in female Anopheles.
causes giardiasis a prolonged diarroheal 44. (a) In human beings different types of
disease of humans. malaria are caused by 4 different species of
32. (d) Exposure to radiation results in the Plasmodium. They are :
following immediate effects : 1. Benign tertian malaria – Plasmodium
(i) Change in cell metabolism vivax.
(ii) Crystallization of haemoglobin 2. Malignant (Pernicious or cerebral)
(iii) Breakdown of RBCs tertian malaria – Plasmodium falciparum.
(iv) Loss of hair, nails 3. Quartan malaria – Plasmodium malariae.
(v) Impairment of vision and damage 4. Mild tertian malaria – Plasmodium ovale.
of different tissues 45. (c) Amoebiasis or amoebic dysentery is
33. (a) Diptheria is a highly infectious disease caused by a parasite Entamoeba histolytica
present in the upper part of large intestine of
caused by Cornybacterium diptheriae which
human.
liberates soluble toxin. The toxin affects
It is caused due to ingesting contaminated
nerves and cause double vision, difficulty food or water with cyst (trophozoite) of
in swallowing and paralysis of breathing Entamoeba. It feeds on R.B.C of intestinal
muscles and limbs. blood capillaries and damages intestinal
34. (c) Small pox, caused by Variola virus, is an mucosa secreting an enzyme - histolysin.
acute highly communicable disease which has 46. (b)
been irradicated not only from India but from 47. (c) Malarial parasite, (Plasmodium vivax),
the whole world. Protist of class Sporozoa, digenetic parasite
causes malarial fever in human. The malarial
35. (d) Tetanus and typhoid are caused by
parasite was discovered by Laveran (1880). Sir
bacteria. Ronald Ross (1898) discovered that Malaria
Whooping cough is caused by bacteria. disease is spread by mosquitoes. Its life
Sleeping sickness is caused by parasitic flees. cycle completes in two organisms-Primary
Syphilis is caused by bacteria while AIDS is host, female Anopheles mosquito and man
final stage of HIV viral disease. (Intermediate or Secondary host). It enters
Measles and Rabies are caused by virus. human blood-through sporozoites. Malarial
fever begins with the release of merozoites in
36. (c) ‘Syphilis-Trichuris tichiura’ is not correctly
the liver cells, from RBC of human.
matched, because syphilis is caused by
48. (a) Cell mediated immune response causes
Treponema pallidium bacteria.
non-acceptance or rejection of graft or
37. (b) Syphilis – T. pallidum
transplanted tissues/organs.
38. (c) Syphilis – T. pallidum
39. (d) Plasmodium is transmitted through female 49. (d) MALT or Mucosa Associated Lymphoid
Anopheles mosquito to human and the most Tissue constitutes about 50 percent of the
favourite dwelling place for Anopheles is water
Human Health and Diseases 369
lymphoid tissue in human body. It is scattered reason B and T lymphocytes are damaged
along mucosal lining in the human body. the body will not produce antibodies against
50. (c) An autoimmune disease is a pathological a pathogen. Each B cell and T cell is specific
state arising from an abnormal immune for a particular antigen.
response of the body to substances and tissues 60. (c) Tetanus toxoid is a vaccine consisting
that are normally present in the body. of growth products of Clostridium tetani
51. (d) Oral Polio Vaccine consists of a mixture treated with formaldehyde serving as an active
of attenuated (weakened) poliovirus strains of immunising agent. Hence it is weakened
all three poliovirus types. germs. The first tetanus toxoid (inactivated
52. (b) Colostrum contains high levels of lgA, toxin) was produced in 1924 and was used
which gives passive immunity to foetus. successfully to prevent tetanus in the armed
services during World War II. In the mid-
53. (c) Serum globulins test provides confirma-
1940s, tetanus vaccine was combined with
tory evidence measuring the deficiency of
diphtheria toxoid and inactivated pertussis
antibodies (g-globulin) in a person.
vaccine to make the combination DTP
54. (a) Cell-mediated immune response is a vaccine for routine childhood immunization.
system which is specialized for a particular 61. (c) The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to
person. thymus. In human anatomy, the thymus is an
55. (d) T – lymphocytes mediates cell mediated organ located in the upper anterior portion of
immunity (CMI). It is one of the two types the chest cavity just behind the sternum. The
of acquired immunity responsible for graft thymus gland is a pink-grey organ that lies
or transplant rejection. underneath the top of the breast bone.
56. (a) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes named so, 62. (c) The use of anti-histamines and
as they have multilobed nucleus or neutrophils steroids gives a quick relief from headache.
and monocytes are the cellular barrier provide Antihistamines are drugs that block the
innate or nonspecific immunity. Cellular action of histamine (a compound released
barriers are the internal defence or second in allergic inflammatory reactions) at the
live of defence.
H1 receptor sites, responsible for immediate
57. (a) Preformed antibodies need to be injected
hypersensitivity reactions such as sneezing
to treat the bite by a viper snake. It is also
and itching.
a type of immunization which is called as
63. (c) The saliva in the mouth and the tears
passive immunization.
from the eyes belongs to physiological
Antibodies, produced by B-cells, are typically
barriers.
made of basic structural units—each with two
64. (a) Serum globulins →It makes 2 to 3% of
large heavy chains and two small light chains.
plasma proteins. The a and b - globulin sent
B cells differentiate into plasma cells that
with the hormones to transport them the
secrete antibodies. Antibodies are proteins
g–globulin from antibodies.
that bind to specific antigens and mark them
65. (b) Pollen–grains of many species are
for destruction by, for example, marking
responsible for some of the severe allergies
them more recognizable to phagocytic cells.
and bronchial affliction in some people often
Rejection of a kidney graft is not a function
lead to chronic respiratory disorders - asthma,
of B lymphocyte.
bronchitis.
58. (d) Skin has a metabolic function to prevent
66. (c) Whenever our body gets attacked by
non- resident bacteria from developing.
some foreign invadors, our body’s immune
59. (a) B and T-lymphocytes produce antibodies
system produces some chemicals to kill or to
against pathogen in the body, if due to some
 EBD_7325
370 BIOLOGY
react against the invader. These chemicals are immunological reagents of defined specificity,
actually made up of carbohydrates & proteins so that these can be utilized for diagnosis and
i.e. glycoproteins called antibody. screening with certainty.
67. (a) AIDS is characterized by reduction in the 75. (a) Antibodies bind to specific antigens to
number of helper T- lymphocytes because of produce large insoluble complexes which
HIV infection. It suppresses human immune render them harmless and facilitate their
system due to which any secondary infection destruction by other cells of the immune
may lead to death. T-lymphocytes are main system this process is called agglutination.
cells of immune system. 76. (c) Antibodies are specific proteins synthe-
68. (d) The thymus is a major gland of our sized by the host in response to an antigen.
immune system. The thymus is responsible All antibody molecules are immunoglobulins.
for production of T (thymus dervied) 77. (b) Interferons are produced in response
lymphocytes from immature lymphocytes, to viral infections. Typhoid and tetanus are
a type of white blood cells responsible for bacterial diseases. Malaria is caused by a
cell mediated immunity. Cell mediated protozoan. Measles is a viral disease.
immunity is extremely important for raising 78. (a) Allergy means all kinds of untoward
immune response against bacteria, yeast, reactions manifested in the body due to
fungi, parasites and virus. It is also critical hypersensitivity of substances called allergens.
in protecting against cancer, autoimmune Allergy reactions occur due to liberation of
disorders like rheumatoid arthritis, allergies histamine by tissue cells.
etc. 79. (a) Interferons are virus induced proteins
69. (c) Passive immunity. produced by cells infected with viruses. They
70. (c) The lymphocytes which differentiate in are antiviral in action.
the thymus are known as the T-lymphocytes. 80. (a) Robert Koch is associated with Koch’s
T-lymphocytes are responsible for the cellular postulates that help in determining whether
immune response. a given micro-organism is pathogenic or not.
71. (a) Asbestos fibres present in atmosphere Louis pasteur experimentally proved that all
due to industrial emission cause lung cancers life originated from pre-existing life. Emil
(asbestosis). Von Behring was a German physiologist who
72. (c) Interferons are virus induced proteins received the 1901 Nobel Prize in physiology
produced by cells infected with virus. or medicine.
73. (c) Lipoproteins are conjugated proteins 81. (c) Hay fever is due to some fungal spores
having polypeptides in association with sensitivity, which is an allergic disease with
lipids. Immunoglobulins are the constituent symptoms of bronchial asthma and skin rash
of antibodies. Inteferons (INFs) are a group and also with increase in eosinophil (white
of three vertebrate glycoproteins (i.e. a, b, g,) cells) of blood.
Out of these three a & b are produced within 82. (c) A special defence system works specially
virally infected cells. against viral infection. It has no effect on
Interferon induces among adjacent cells, as micro-organism. Cells invaded by a virus
antiviral state by inducing synthesis of the produce an antiviral protein called interferon
enzymes which inhibit the viral production
(IFN). The latter is released from the infected
cycle.
cell and on reaching the nearby non-infected
74. (a) Vaccine contains dead, attenuated form
cells it makes them resistant to the virus
or antigen of a pathogen which can be injected
infection.
to provide immunity towards that pathogen.
83. (b) The major obstacle in transplantation
Monoclonal antibodies are homogenous
of organs is that the recipient body does not
Human Health and Diseases 371
accept the donor’s organ. The body defence Cuscuta, or Dodder plant, is not a protozoan.
mechanism reject & treat the transplanted It is a parasitic vine that wraps around other
organ as a foreign particle and reacts actively. plants for nourishment.
84. (b) Lymphocytes are the part of specific 92. (c) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper
defence system called immune system. T-lymphocytes and damages large number of
85. (d) Gonorrhoea – Neisseria (Bacteria) these cells, at this stage infected persons start
Syphilis – Treponema (Bacteria) showing symptoms of AIDS.
Genital Warts – Human papilloma virus 93. (a) ELISA is an fundamental tool of clinical
AIDS – HIV (Virus) immunology and is used as an initial screen
86. (d) Telomerase production is increased for HIV detection.
in cancer. Telomerase has been examined 94. (d) AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency
in hundreds of studies as a potentially Syndrome) is caused by HIV retrovirus. The
sensitive biomarker for screening, early cancer virus destroys the helper T lymphocytes thus
detection, prognosis or in monitoring as an reducing their numbers.
95. (b) Ring worm is a fungal disease caused
indication of residual disease.
by the dermatophyte fungal species of
87. (b) After infection, HIV starts to destroy Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epider-
the T-cells (T-helper lymphocytes). T. cells mophyton.
are very important for the immune system.
96. (a) Common Cold, AIDS is a pair of viral
In the early stage of infection, the decline in diseases. Viruses are a very common type of
numbers of T.cells is observed. infectious disease. Viruses are the smallest
88. (b) The virus of chikunguniya is Arbovirus life-form existing, since they are not even a
transmitted by Aedes mosquito. In this disease single cell. It is almost like they are not alive
the patient feels fever lasting 2-7 days. at all. They are small strands of DNA-like cell
89. (c) HIV infection does usually show symp- material. A virus consists mostly of RNA and
toms of AIDS When HIV damages large cannot survive without host cells.
number of helper T-Lymphocytes (CD4 97. (c) Malignant tumours may exhibit metas-
cells). AIDS is the stage of HIV infection tasis. Cancer (medical term: malignant neo-
that occurs when one immune system is badly plasm) is a class of diseases in which a group
damaged and one become vulnerable to in- of cells display uncontrolled growth (division
beyond the normal limits), invasion (intrusion
fections and infection-related cancers called
on and destruction of adjacent tissues), and
opportunistic infections. When the number of
sometimes metastasis spread to other loca-
ones CD4 cells falls below 200 cells per cubic
tions in the body via lymph or blood.
millimetre of blood (200 cells/mm3), one is
considered to have progressed to AIDS. 98. (d) AIDS virus infects T4 lymphocytes (also
called Helper cells). Cytotoxic T cells called
90. (d) Contact inhibition is a property of
T8 lymphocytes.
normal cell not of cancer cells. Due to this
property they remain in contact with other 99. (a) Retroviruses have RNA as the genetic
material and hence they exhibit reverse
cells inhibit their growth.
transcription whereby DNA is synthesized
91. (c) UAG is also a stop codon. Wombats are
on RNA template. They have reverse
also Australian marsupials. They are short- transcriptase as the enzyme.
legged, muscular quadrupeds, approximately
100. (c) ELISA test is a technique used to detect
1 metre (40 in) in length with a short, stubby
and quantitate extremely small amount of
tail. Diphtheria is an acute infectious disease
a protein, antibody or antigen with the help
caused by the bacteria Corynebacterium
of enzyme. The commonly used enzymes
diphtheriae.
are peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase.
 EBD_7325
372 BIOLOGY
Southern blotting and DNA probes are used Soft tissue sarcomas are more common in
in molecular analysis of DNA. Catalase is not adults than in children.
involved in ELISA. In all, sarcomas constitute fewer than 1%
101. (b) Malignant cancer is caused by loss of of all cancers. Its treatment is made more
control over cell’s reproduction capacity. difficult with the existence of more than 70
The cells undergo rapid division. Therefore, varieties. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
they are more easily damaged by radiations (GIST) is the most common form of sarcoma,
with approximately 3000-3500 cases per year
than normal cells.
in the United States.
102. (c) Carcinomas are malignant growths of
109. (a) The plant illustrated in diagram is
the epithelial tissue that cover or line body
Datura which has hallucinogenic properties.
organs.
Hallucinogen is a substance that produces
103. (b) ELISA test is a technique which can
psychological effects normally associated
detect any amount of an antibody or antigen only with dreams, schizophrenia, or religious
with the help of an enzyme. The commonly visions. It produces changes in perception
used enzymes are alkaline phosphatase and (ranging from distortions in what is sensed to
peroxidase. perceptions of objects where there are none),
104. (a) The ability of radiations to kill cells is thought, and feeling.
highest in the tissue with the highest number
110. (d) Hallucinogens are drugs that cause
of dividing cells. Tumour cells proliferate
illusions and delusions (hallucinations) and
rapidly. Hence, tumours are killed more
change the feelings or perception. Examples
rapidly by radiations.
are Bhang, Charas, Hashish, Marijuana
105. (c) HIV is a spherical, enveloped virus of
(all cannabinoids) and LSD (Lysergic acid
about 90-120 nm diameter. Its nucleocapsid
diethylamide). Opium and morphine are
is icosahedral and its genome consists of a
opiate narcotics (opioids) having analgesic
single-stranded RNA filament segmented into
(pain relieving effect) while caffeine is a
two identical filaments and associated with a
stimulant that increase the activity of nervous
"reverse transcriptase enzyme".
system, and cause awakening.
106. (b) Myeloma is a type of cancer associated
111. (b) Long term intake of alcohol causes
with abnormal production of irregular
damage to liver which is known as cirrhosis
antibodies. It occurs in antibody producing
of liver with continued alcohol intake, there
cells that have lost their normal control.
is destruction of hepatocytes and fibroblasts
Hybridomas are clones of hybrid cell resulting
(cell which form fibres) and stimulation of
from fusion of normal antibody producing
collagean protein formation.
B-cells with myeloma cells.
112. (d) Molecule (a) represents structure of
107. (b) Cancer is initiated when the inactive
morphine. Morphine is the most abundant
protooncogenes are activated to cellular
alkaloid found in opium, the dried sap (latex)
oncogenes which trigger uncontrolled cell
derived from shallowly slicing the unripe
multiplication.
seedpods of the opium, or common and/or
108. (b) Sarcoma is a cancer of the connective or
edible, poppy-Papaver somniferum. Morphine
supportive tissue (bone, cartilage, fat, muscle,
is a potent opiate analgesic drug that is used
blood vessels) and soft tissue.The term comes
to relieve severe pain.
from a Greek word meaning ‘fleshy growth’.
113. (b) Morphine is potent opioid analgesic
Bone tumors are also called sarcomas, but
that is often given to persons (who have
are in a separate category because they
undergone surgery) as a pain killer. It is
have different clinical and microscopic
mainly used to relieve severe and persistent
characteristics and are treated differently.
pain. It is administrated by mouth, injection
Osteogenic sarcoma or osteosarcoma is one
or suppositories.
of the most common childhood bone cancers.
Human Health and Diseases 373
114. (a) Hashish causes after thought perceptions 117. (a) Morphine is an opiate narcotic, Bhang
and hallucinations. Hashish is a preparation is a hallucinogen, Reserpine derived form
of Cannabis composed of the compressed Rauwolfia, is used as tranquilizer, Cocaine is
trichomes collected from the Cannabis a stimulant.
plant. Psychoactive effects vary between 118. (a) LSD or (Lysergic acid diethylamide) is an
extract of ergot of fungus Claviceps purpurea.
types of Hashish but are usually the same
It is most powerful hallucinogen which causes
as those of other Cannabis preparations
horrible dreams, chronic psychosis etc.
such as marijuana. Hashish is generally 119. (b) Opiate Narcotics are opium and its
prohibited to the same extent as all other derivatives which suppress brain activity and
forms of cannabis. It is consumed in much relieve pain. Also called pain killers. These
the same way as Cannabis buds, used by itself are extracted from unripe capsules of poppy
in miniature smoking pipes, vapourized, plant (Papaver somniferum). eg. Morphine,
hot knifed, or smoked in joints mixed with Heroine.
tobacco, Cannabis buds or other herbs. 120. (b) Tranquillizers bring about depression
115. (a) In Borderline Personality Disorder of brain activity and feeling of calmness.
(BPD) a person suffers from emotionally Stimulants stimulate the nervous system, and
unstable personality, unpredictable moods, increase alertness and activity. Hallucinogens
(Cannabis products) alters thoughts, percep-
highly reactive, anxeity and irritability.
tions and feelings.
While in Schizophrenia a person suffers
121. (b) Rauwolfia serpentina belong to family
from distorted thoughts, he/she shows some Apocynaceae, its roots yield a chemical useful
extreme responses, sometimes auditory for high blood pressure.
hallucinations. 122. (d) Sarpgandha botanically known as Rau-
116. (b) Amphetamines bring about increased wolfia serpentina belongs to family Apocyan-
alertness and sleeplessness. Hashish is a ceae. Its tuberous roots are used as medicines.
hallucinogen. Valium is a tranquilizer. Valium Ajmalicin is isolated from Sarpgandha.
depresses brain activity and produces feeling 123. (c) Heroin is an opiate narcotic (opium
of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness. derivative) Chemically it is diacetylmorphine.
Morphine is an opiate narcotic. 124. (b) Analgesic drugs relieve pain eg. Ibrufen.
 EBD_7325
Chapter

31
Strategies for
Enhancement in Food
Production
Topic 1: Animal Husbandry (b) New castle disease
(c) Pasteurellosis
1. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be (d) Salmonellosis.
obtained by: [2017] 6. Which one of the following is the most
(a) mating of unrelated individuals of same suitable medium for culture of Drosophila
breed. melanogaster? [2006]
(b) mating of individuals of different breed. (a) Agar agar (b) Ripe banana
(c) mating of individuals of different (c) Cow dung (d) Moist bread
species. 7. The world’s highly prized wool yielding
(d) mating of related individuals of same 'Pashmina' breed is [2005]
breed. (a) goat
2. Outbreeding is an important strategy of (b) sheep
animal husbandry because it : [2015 RS] (c) goat-sheep cross
(a) is useful in producing purelines of (d) Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross
animals. 8. Which endangered animal is the source of
(b) is useful in overcoming inbreeding world's finest, lightest, warmest and most
depression. expensive wool the shahtoosh ? [2003]
(c) exposes harmful recessive genes that are (a) Chiru (b) Nilgai
eliminated by selection. (c) Cheetal (d) Kashmiri goat
(d) helps in accumulation of superior genes. 9. In Lederberg's replica experiment what shall
3. Which one of the following pairs is be used to obtain streptomycin-resistant
mismatched? [2007] strain? [2001]
(a) Apis indica - honey (a) minimal medium and streptomycin
(b) Kenia lacca - lac (b) complete medium and streptomycin
(c) Bombyx mori - silk (c) only minimal medium
(d) Pila globosa - pearl (d) only complete medium
4. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because 10. Which one of the following statement is
of [2007] correct in relation to honey bees? [2000]
(a) higher levels of cortisone (a) Apis indica is the largest wild honey bee
(b) lower levels of blood testosterone in India
(c) lower levels of adrenaline/noradrenaline (b) Honey is predominantly sucrose and
in its blood arabinose
(d) higher levels of thyroxine. (c) Beewax is a waste product of honey
5. Which one of the following is a viral disease bees
of poultry? [2007] (d) Communication in honey bees was
(a) Coryza discovered by Karl Von Frisch
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 375
11. The worker honey bee normally lives for 19. The process of mating between closely related
about [1999] individuals is [1994]
(a) 15 days (b) 30 days (a) self breeding (b) inbreeding
(c) 90 days (d) 10 days
(c) hybridisation (d) heterosis
12. Which of the following has been recently
used for increasing productivity of super milk Topic 2: Plant Breeding
cows? [1997]
20. A system of rotating crops with legume or
(a) Artificial insemination by a pedigreed
grass pasture to improve soil structure and
bull only
fertility is called [2016]
(b) Superovulation of a high production
(a) Ley farming
cow only
(b) Contour farming
(c) Embryo transplantation only
(c) Strip farming
(d) A combination of superovulation,
artificial insemination and embryo (d) Shifting agriculture
transplantation into a 'carrier cow' 21. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected
(surrogate mother) by Meloidogyne incognita ? [2016]
13. In the silk worm, if no juvenile hormone (JH) (a) Flower (b) Leaf
is present when it moults, it will [1997] (c) Stem (d) Root
(a) die 22. In plant breeding programmes, the entire
(b) moult into another larval stage collection (of plants/seeds) having all the
(c) moult into pupa diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is
(d) moult into an adult called: [NEET 2013]
14. Honey is [1997] (a) cross-hybridisation among the selected
(a) acidic parents.
(b) alkaline (b) evaluation and selection of parents.
(c) neutral (c) germplasm collection
(d) acidic when fresh and alkaline when old (d) selection of superior recombinants.
15. Pasteurization of milk involve heating for 23. Green revolution in India occurred during
(a) 60 minutes at about 90ºC [1996] [2012M]
(b) 30 minutes at about 50ºC (a) 1960.s (b) 1970.s
(c) 30 minutes at about 65ºC (c) 1980.s (d) 1950.s
(d) 60 minutes at 100ºC 24. Jaya and Ratna developed for green revolution
16. The earliest animal to have been domesticated in India are the varieties of [2011]
by man was most likely the [1996] (a) maize (b) rice
(a) horse (b) cow (c) wheat (d) bajra
(c) dog (d) pig 25. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and
17. Which one of the following is an exotic Indian selection for disease resistance against rust
fish ? [1996] pathogens is a variety of [2011]
(a) Catla catla
(a) chilli (b) maize
(b) Heteropneustes fossilis
(c) sugarcane (d) wheat
(c) Cyprinus carpio
26. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals,
(d) Labeo rohita
vitamins and proteins is called [2010]
18. The silkworm silk is the product of [1995]
(a) Somatic hybridisation
(a) cuticle of the larva
(b) Biofortification
(b) cuticle of the adult
(c) Biomagnification
(c) salivary gland of the larva
(d) Micropropagation
(d) salivary gland of the adult
 EBD_7325
376 BIOLOGY
27. An improved variety of transgenic basmati 33. Which one of the following is being utilized
rice [2010] as a source of biodiesel in the Indian
(a) does not require chemical fertilizers and countryside?  [2007]
growth hormones (a) Beetroot (b) Sugarcane
(b) gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A (c) Pongamia (d) Euphorbia
(c) is completely resistant to all insect pests 34. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by
and diseases of paddy [2006, 2007]
(d) gives high yield but has no characteristic (a) crossing of two inbred parental lines
aroma (b) harvesting seeds from the most
28. Which of the following is not used as a productive plants
biopesticide ? [2009] (c) inducing mutations
(a) Trichoderma harzianum (d) bombarding the seeds with DNA.
(b) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV) 35. Crop plants grown in monoculture are
(c) Xanthomonas campestris [2006]
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis (a) free from intraspecific competition
29. Which of the following plant species you (b) characterised by poor root system
would select for the production of bioethanol? (c) highly prone to pests
[2009] (d) low in yield
(a) Zea mays (b) Pongamia 36. Farmers in a particular region were concerned
(c) Jatropha (d) Brassica that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse
30. Which one of the following is being tried in crop might cause decrease in the yield. Which
India as a biofuel substitute for fossil fuels? treatment could be most beneficial to obtain
[2008] maximum seed yield ? [2006]
(a) Jatropha (b) Azadirachta (a) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins
along with a small dose of nitrogenous
(c) Musa (d) Aegilops
fertilizer
31. Consider the following four measures (a-d)
(b) Removal of all yellow leaves and
that could be taken to successfully grow
spraying the remaining green leaves
chickpea in an area where bacterial blight
with 2, 4, 5-trichlorophenoxy acetic acid
disease is common [2008]
(c) Application of iron and magnesium to
(1) Spray with Bordeaux mixture
promote synthesis of chlorophyll
(2) Control of the insect vector of the
(d) Frequent irrigation of the crop
disease pathogen
37. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has
(3) Use of only disease-free seeds
been obtained by crossing wheat with [2006]
(4) Use of varieties resistant to the disease
(a) pearl millet (b) sugarcane
Which two of the above measures can control
(c) barley (d) rye
the disease?
38. Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
activity of [2006]
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
(a) mycorrhiza (b) viruses
32. Which one of the following proved effective
(c) fungi (d) bacteria
for biological control of nematodal disease in
39. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced
plants? [2008]
by [2006]
(a) Pisolithus tinctorius
(a) treating the plants with low
(b) Pseudomonas cepacia
concentrations of gibberellic acid and
(c) Gliocladium virens
auxins
(d) Paecilomyces lilacinus
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 377
(b) raising the plants from vernalized seeds 46. What is the best pH of soil for cultivation of
(c) treating the plants with phenylmercuric plants? [2001]
acetate (a) 3.4 – 5.4 (b) 6.5 – 7.5
(d) removing androecium of flowers before (c) 4.5 – 8.5 (d) 5.6 – 6.5
pollen grains are released 47. Before European invader which vegetable was
40. Three crops that contribute maximum to absent in India? [2001]
global food grain production are [2005] (a) Potato and Tomato
(a) Wheat, rice and maize (b) Simla mirch and Brinjal
(b) Wheat, rice and barley (c) Maize and Chichinda
(d) Brinjal and Lady's finger
(c) Wheat, maize and sorghum
48. Which statement is correct about centre of
(d) Rice, maize and sorghum
origin of plant?  [2001]
41. India’s wheat yield revolution in the 1960s
(a) More diversity in improved varieties
was possible primarily due to [2004]
(a) hybrid seeds (b) Frequency of dominant gene is more
(b) increased chlorophyll content (c) Climatic conditions more favourable
(c) mutations resulting in plant height (d) None of these
reduction 49. Triticale has been evolved by intergeneric
(d) quantitative trait mutations hybridization between [2001]
42. The most likely reason for the development (a) wheat and rye
of resistance against pesticides in insects (b) wheat and rice
damaging a crop is [2004] (c) rice and maize
(a) random mutations (d) wheat and Aegilops
(b) genetic recombination 50. Which one of the following insecticides is
(c) directed mutations more stable in the environment? [1999]
(d) acquired heritable chages (a) DDT (b) Diazinon
43. Which of the following plants are used as (c) Camphechlor (d) Malathion
green manure in crop fields and in sandy 51. The first transgenic crop was [1999]
soils? [2003] (a) pea (b) flax
(a) Dichanthium annulatum and Azolla (c) tobacco (d) cotton
nilotica 52. The new varieties of plants are produced by
(b) Crotalaria juncea and Alhagi camelorum (a) selection and hybridization [1999]
(c) Calotropis procera and Phyllanthus niruri (b) mutation and selection
(d) Saccharum munja and Lantana camara (c) introduction and mutation
(d) selection and intro
44. Which of the following crops have been
53. Exponential growth of cells is a characteristic
brought to India from New world? [2002]
feature of [1999]
(a) Cashewnut, potato, rubber
(a) tissue culture cells
(b) Mango, tea
(b) multicellular organisms
(c) Tea, rubber, mango
(c) unicellular organisms
(d) Coffee
(d) embryo
45. Reason of fast speciation in present day crop
54. Lathyrism which is caused by consumption
plants is [2002]
of Khesari dal is a disease characterised by
(a) mutation
[1998]
(b) isolation
(a) reproductive failure, susceptibility
(c) polyploidy to diabetes mellitus and skeletal
(d) sexual reproduction abnormalities
 EBD_7325
378 BIOLOGY
(b) retardation of body growth, precocious (a) the ability of humanity to moderate its
puberty and renal dysfunction fecundity
(c) mental retardation, delay in the (b) increasing the food production
onset of puberty and cardiovascular (c) colonization of underpopulated areas
abnormalities (d) control of human diseases
(d) gross skeletal deformation and thinning 61. Suppression of reproduction of one type of
of collagen fibres and fibrils organism by utilizing some features of its
55. Biological control component is central to biology or physiology to destroy it or by use
advanced agricultural production. Which of of another organism is known as [1996]
the following is used as a third generation (a) competition
pesticide? [1998] (b) predation
(a) Insect repellants (c) biological control
(b) Pheromones (d) physiological control
(c) Pathogens 62. The rotenone is [1995]
(d) Insect hormone analogues (a) an insect hormone
56. Which of the following pesticides is an acetyl- (b) a bioherbicide
cholinesterase inhibitor? [1998] (c) a natural herbicide
(a) Y-BHC (b) Endosulfan (d) a natural insecticide
(c) Malathion (d) Aldrin 63. One of the major difficulties in the biological
57. Which one among the following chemicals is control of insect pests is the [1995]
used for causing defoliation of forest trees? (a) practical difficulty of introducing the
(a) Phosphon-D [1998] predator to specific areas
(b) Malic hydrazide (b) method is less effective as compared
(c) 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid with the use of insecticides
(d) Amo-1618 (c) predator does not always survive when
58. What is Agent Orange? [1998] transferred to a new environment
(a) Colour used in fluorescent lamps (d) the predator develops a preference to
(b) A weedicide containing dioxin other diets and may itself become a pest.
(c) A biodegradable insecticide 64. Reproducing new plants by cells instead of
(d) A hazardous chemical used in luminous seeds is known as  [1995]
paints
(a) mutation (b) tissue culture
59. Of the world’s top five crops in terms of
(c) antibiotics (d) biofertilizer
annual production [1997]
65. Haploid plant cultures are got from [1994]
(a) all five belong to the family Poaceae
(a) leaves (b) root tip
(Gramineae)
(b) four belong to Poaceae (Graminaeae) (c) pollen grain (d) buds
and one to Leguminosae 66. Most of our crop plants are [1994]
(c) four belong to Poaceae (Gramineae) (a) autopolyploid in origin
and one to Solanaceae (b) allopolyploid in origin
(d) three belong to Poaceae (Gramineae), (c) mixed genotypic in origin
one to Leguminosae and one to (d) heterozygous in origin
Solanaceae. 67. Which of the following plant cells will show
60. The long-term prospects for a truly human totipotency?  [1993]
civilization depend in a large measure on (a) Sieve tubes (b) Xylem vessels
[1996] (c) Meristem (d) Cork cells
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 379

68. Which crop variety is not due to induced 75. Which one of the following is a case of wrong
mutations ? [1993] matching [2012]
(a) Reimei of Rice (a) Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two
(b) Prabhat of Arhar diverse cells
(c) Sharbati Sonora of Wheat (b) Vector DNA -Site for t-RNA synthesis.
(c) Micropropagation - in vitro production
(d) Aruna of Castor
of plants in large numbers.
Topic 3: Single cell Proteins/Tissure Culture (d) Callus - Unorganised mass of cell
produced in tissue culture
69. Which of the following enhances or induces
fusion of protoplasts ? [2015 RS] 76. Consider the following four statements (A-D)
(a) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate and select the option which includes all the
(b) IAA and kinetin correct ones only. [2012M]
(c) IAA and gibberellins (1) Single cell Spirulina can produce large
(d) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride quantities of food rich in protein,
70. A technique of micropropagation is : minerals, vitamins etc.
(a) Somatic embryogenesis [2015 RS] (2) Body weight-wise the micro-organism
(b) Protoplast fusion Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able
(c) Embryo rescue to produce several times more proteins
(d) Somatic hybridization than the cows per day.
71. To obtain virus - free healthy plants from (3) Common button mushrooms are a very
a diseased one by tissue culture technique, rich source of vitamin C.
which part/parts of the diseased plant will (4) A rice variety has been developed which
be taken: [2014] is very rich in calcium.
(a) Apical meristem only Options:
(b) Palisade parenchyma (a) Statements (3), (4)
(c) Both apical and axillary meristems (b) Statements (1), (3) and (4)
(d) Epidermis only (c) Statements (2), (3) and (4)
72. Which of the following has maximum genetic (d) Statements (1), (2)
diversity in India? [NEET Kar. 2013] 77. Somaclones are obtained by [2009]
(a) Rice (b) Mango (a) plant breeding
(c) Wheat (d) Groundnut (b) irradiation
73. Tissue culture technique can produce infinite (c) genetic engineering
number of new plants from a small parental (d) tissue culture
tissue. The economic importance of the 78. In order to obtain virus-free plants through
technique is in raising [NEET Kar. 2013]
tissue culture the best method is [2006]
(a) Variants through picking up somaclonal
(a) Embryo rescue
variations
(b) Anther culture
(b) Genetically uniform population
(c) Meristem culture
identical to the original parent
(d) Protoplast culture
(c) Homozygous diploid plants
79. The technique of obtaining large number of
(d) Development of new species
74. Which part would be most suitable for raising plantlets by tissue culture method is called 
virus-free plants for micropropagation? (a) Plantlet culture [2004]
[2012] (b) Organ culture
(a) Bark (b) Vascular tissue (c) Micropropagation
(c) Meristem (d) Node (d) Macropropagation
 EBD_7325
380 BIOLOGY
80. Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by 83. Haploid plant cultures are obtained from 
(a) only bacterial cells [2003] (a) leaves (b) root tip [1994]
(b) only gymnosperm cells (c) pollen grains (d) buds
(c) all plant cells 84. Haploid plants are preferred over diploids for
(d) all eukaryotic cells mutation study because in haploids [1993]
81. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids (a) recessive mutation expresses immediately
formed from pollen grains is due to [2002] (b) induction of mutations is easier
(c) culturing is easier
(a) cellular totipotency
(d) dominant mutation expresses immediately
(b) organogenesis
85. Cellular totipotency was demonstrated by
(c) double fertilization
(a) Theodore Schwann [1991]
(d) test – tube culture (b) A.V. Leeuwenhoek
82. The reason why vegetatively reproducing crop (c) F.C. Steward
plants are best suited for maintaining hybrid
(d) Robert Hooke
vigour is that [1998]
86. In crop improvement programme, haploids
(a) once a desired hybrid has been produced are important because they [1989]
there are few chances of losing it (a) require one half of nutrients
(b) they have a longer life span (b) are helpful in study of meiosis
(c) they are more resistant to diseases (c) grow better under adverse conditions
(d) they can be easily propagated (d) form perfect homozygous
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 381

Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Inbreeding increases homozygosity. So, 10. (d) Karl Von Frisch, carried out many
mating of the related individuals of same experiments and determined that when a
breed will give homozygous purelines. foraging bee returns to the hive, it performs
2. (b) Outbreeding is useful in the problem of a waggle dance. Honey is predominantly
inbreeding depression. glucose and fructose. Dorsata is a bigger bee
3. (d) From Pinctada vulgaris, pearl is obtained. than Apis indica (a medium sized bee). Bees
wax is secreted by special wax glands to make
4. (b) The bullock is castrated and therefore
compartments.
secretion of testosterone is not adequate.
11. (c) The worker honey bee normally lives for
5. (b) Newcastle disease (ND) is a highly con-
about 90 days.
tagious, generalised viral disease of domestic
poultry and wild birds characterised by gastro- 12. (d) In superovulation, a high milk yielding
intestinal, respiratory and nervous signs. cow is induced to shed 4–6 eggs (instead
of one) every 6–8 weeks (instead of 20–21
6. (b) The most suitable culture medium for
days). The superovulated donor is artificially
Drosophila melanogaster is ripe banana.
inseminated with semen from a quality bull.
Drosophila melanogaster is commonly called The embryos developing from the eggs so
as fruitfly and is often used in genetic and fertilised are flushed out. These good quality
developmental biology researches. Moist embryos are now transfered to surrogate
bread is a culture medium for the fungus mother for delivery.
Rhizopus while Agar-agar is used as a tissue
13. (b) The presence of juvenile hormone is
culture medium.
necessary for metamorphosis to adult.
7. (a) The world’s highly prized wool yielding
14. (a) The pH of honey ranges from 3.4 to 6.1,
Pashmina breed is the under fur of Kashmiri
average being 3.9.
and Tibetan goats.
15. (c) Pasteurization of milk is a method of
Pashmina is an almost generic name for
partial sterilization by heating milk at 60 –
accessories made from a type of mohair
70°C for 30 min.
that is obtained from a special breed of goat
indigenous to high altitudes of the Himalayan 16. (c) Dog was the first animal to be domesti-
Range Belt of Asia. cated by man.
The name comes from Pashmineh, made from 17. (c) Catla catla and Labeo rohita are the two
Persian pashm (= “wool”). The special goat’s Indian major carps whereas Heteropneustes
fleece has been used for thousands of years to is a catfish. Cyprinus is the exotic breed.
make high-quality shawls that also bear the 18. (c) The saliva from the salivary gland
same name. of silkworm is the component of silk and
8. (d) is produced by the larva of the silkworm
(cocoon). The Chinese silkworm (B.
9. (b) This combination allows to select only
mori) has been used in commercial silk
streptomycin resistant strains and non resis-
production for centuries. The adult, which
tant strains would die on medium containing
has a wingspan of about 2 in. (50 mm) and
antibiotic streptomycin.
a thick, hairy body, lives only two or three
 EBD_7325
382 BIOLOGY
days. The female lays 300–500 eggs. The pale, • The scientific name of ‘Ratna’ is IET-
naked larvae fed on mulberry leaves until 1411. It takes about 130-135 days to
pupation begins, when they are about 3 in. grow. The grain is long, slender and
(75 mm) long. They spin a cocoon of one white. Its yield is 45-50 quintal/hectare.
continuous white or yellow silken thread, 25. (d) ‘Himgiri’ developed by hybridisation and
about 1,000 yards (900 m) long. The pupa is selection for disease resistance against rust
killed with hot air or steam to preserve the pathogens is a variety of wheat. It is resistant
thread intact. to leaf/stripe rust and hill bunt.
19. (b) Inbreeding leads to the expression of 26. (b) Breeding of crops with high levels of
recessive characters, most of the time which minerals, vitamin and minerals is called
are harmful. biofortification. This is most practical aspect
20. (a) The growing of grass or legumes in to improve the health of people.
rotation with grain or tilled crops as a soil 27. (b) An improved variety of transgenic
conservation measure is called Ley farming. basmati rice gives high yield and is rich in
21. (d) Meloidogyne incognita is a nematode vitamin A.
(roundworm) in the family Heteroderidae. 28. (c) Xanthomonas campestris is not used as
It is commonly called the “southern root- a biopesticide. Xanthomonas campestris is a
knot nematode” or the “cotton root-knot plant pathogen that causes black rot in cotton
nematode”. plants.
22. (c) Germplasm collection is the first step 29. (c) Jatropha is useful for production
of plant breeding programmes. As genetic of bioethanol. Jatropha is a genus of
variability is the root of any breeding approximately 175 succulent plants, shrubs
programme. In many crops pre-existing genetic and trees (some are deciduous, like Jatropha
variability is available from wild relatives of curcas L.), from the family Euphorbiaceae.
the crop. Collection and preservation of The hardy Jatropha is resistant to drought
and pests, and produces seeds containing
all the different wild varieties, species and
27-40% oil. Currently the oil from Jatropha
relatives of the cultivated species (followed curcas seeds is used for making biodiesel fuel
by their characteristics) is a prerequisite in Philippines and in Brazil, where it grows
for effective exploitation of natural genes naturally and in plantations in the southeast,
available in the population. and the north/northeast Brazil. Likewise,
Jatropha oil is being promoted as an easily
23. (a) Green revolution is the introduction
grown biofuel crop in hundreds of projects
of high-yielding varieties of seeds and the throughout India and other developing
increased use of fertilizers and irrigation, countries.
which provided the increase in production 30. (a) Jatropha is being tried in India as a
needed to make India self-sufficient in food biofuel substitute for fossil fuels. Biofuels are
grains, thus improving agriculture in India. the fuels of biological origin. They constitute
Green revolution in India occurred in 1960. renewable form of energy.
24. (b) Jaya and Ratna are two rice varieties Energy problems can be solved upto a great
developed for green revolution in India. extent by efficient and proper used of these
biofuels.
• The scientific name of Jaya is IET-723.
31. (c) Use of only disease free seeds and use
This paddy variety takes about 130 days
of disease resistant varieties are the most
to grow and the grain is long, bold and
important control measures that could be
white. Its yield is 50-60 quintals per
taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area
hectare.
where bacterial blight disease is common.
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 383
32. (d) Paecilomyces is a cosmopolitan filamentous oxidation, dry fermentation process, during
fungus which inhabits the soil, decaying which water is driven off the green colour is
plants, and food products. Some species of lost and the leaves assume a tougher texture
Paecilomyces are isolated from insect. The and undergo chemical changes.
telomorphs of Paecilomyces are classified in the Mycorrhiza is a mutually beneficial association
genera Cilromocleista, Talaromyces. Paecilomyces between fungi and the roots of higher plants.
is usually considered as a contaminant but Virus and fungi are not involved in the curing
may also cause infections in humans and process of tea leaves.
animals.
39. (a) Parthenocarpy is the development
33. (c) Pongamia pinnata is one of the few of fruits without prior fertilization which
nitrogen fixing trees (NFTS) to produce seeds results in the formation of seedless fruits. In
containing 30-40% oil. It is often planted some plant species, parthenocarpic fruits are
as an ornamental and shade tree but now- produced naturally or they may be induced
a-days it is considered as alternative source by treatment of the unpollinated flowers with
for Bio- Diesel. This species is commonly auxin.
called pongam, karanja, or a derivation of
Removal of androecium before pollen release
these names. Pongami, Jatropha, Euphorbia
is called emasculation which is helpful in
are petrocrops. However, in the Indian
preventing unwanted pollination. Vernalized
countryside, pongamia(kanjar) is being
seeds are treated at ion temperature for
utilized as a source of biodiesel.
breaking dormancy. Phenyl Mercuric Acetate
34. (a) Hybrid vigour is also called Hetorosis is an antitranspirant.
which is measured in terms of size growth
Gibberellins and Auxins are known to induce
rate / field and number of other characters.
parthenocarpy in plants. If a tomato plant is
Hybridisation increases vigour and fertility. It
treated with a low concentration of auxin and
is exploited by crosing of two in bred paren-
gibberellic acid it’ll produce fruits without
tal lines. It is best maintained in vegetatively
fertilization i.e. parthenocarpic fruits.
reproducing crops because of genetic recom-
binations. 40. (a) Three crops that contribute maximum
to global food grain production are Wheat,
35. (c) Crop plants grown in monoculture are
rice and maize, which belong to the family
highly prone to pests.
Poaceae (Graminae).
36. (c) Because iron promotes the formation
41. (c) Green revolution was possible due to
of chlorophyll and magnesium is an integral
hybridization. Increased chlorophyll extent
part of chlorophyll molecule so in the absence
has no effect on yield of crops. Hybrid
of these nutrients plants show chlorosis &
plants were dwarf because of selection.
leaves get yellow. Application of iron and
Quantitative trait mutations are not involved
magnesium to promote the synthesis of
in hybridization.
chlorophyll can cure the disease.
In 1963, ICAR introduced many selections
37. (d) Triticale is the Ist man made cereal which
from CIMMYT include those developed
is made by the crossing of wheat (Triticum
by Norman Borlaug using Norin-10 as the
aestivum) and Rye (Secale cereale).
source of dwarfing genes (CIMMYT-Centro
38. (d) For curing of tea, a bacteria Micrococcus International de Mejoramiento de Maiz Y
candicans is used. Trigo).
Curing of tea leaves is brought about by 42. (a) According to Darwin resistance to
the activity of bacteria. It is essentially an pesticides has a genetic basis due to presence
 EBD_7325
384 BIOLOGY
of certain alleles. In the presence of pesticides, by gross skeletal deformation and thinning of
the insects devoid of the allele for resistance collagen fibres and fibrils.
die while the ones having them survive. They 55. (b) Inorganic substances, oils, plant extracts
are selected by nature. used as insecticides are called first generation
43. (b) Crotolaria juncea and Alhagi camelorum pesticides.
are among the plants which are used as green Synthetic organic compounds are known
manures in India. These green manures help as second generation pesticides. Insect
the soil through increasement of area and hormones are third generation pesticides.
water holding capacities and fertility.
Pheromones are the chemical substances
44. (a) Cashewnut, potato, rubber crops have which when released into an animal's
been brought to India from New world. surroundings, influence the behaviour or
45. (c) The phenomenon of having one or more development of other individuals of the same
genomes in addition to the normal for the species.
species is called polyploidy. Insect hormone analogues help in trapping
46. (b) The best pH of soil for cultivation of the insects by confusing them as they mimic
plants is 6.5 – 7.5. the odour of pheromones.
47. (a) Potato and tomato originated in the new 56. (c) Malathion is an organophosphate
world. parasympathetic which binds irreversibly to
48. (b) Green manure comprises of a quick cholinesterase. Malathion is an insecticide
growing herbaceous crop. They are mixed of relatively low human toxicity. However,
with the soil to enrich the soil. They supply malathion breaks down into malaoxon, which
organic matter and also additional nitrogen. is 60 times more toxic than malathion. For
49. (a) Triticale is a man made cereale produced this reason, if malathion is used or somehow
by crossing two generate wheat (Triticum) and enters an indoor environment, as it breaks
rye (Secale). Hexaploid Triticale was obtained down into malaoxon, it can seriously and
by crossing Triticum durum and Secale cereale. chronically poison the occupants living or
50. (a) DDT cannot be further metabolized into working in this environmnent.
any stable byproduct. Malathion present in untreated water is
converted to malaoxon during the chlorination
51. (c) The first transgenic crop was tobacco
phase of water treatment, so malathion
developed in USA in 1986, it was herbicide
should not be used in waters that may be
resistant.
used as a source for drinking water, or any
52. (a) Selection is picking up only those plants upstream waters.
for reproduction which have desired qualities. 57. (c) 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid is used
Hybridization is crossing of two or more types for causing defoliation of forest trees.
of plants for bringing their traits together in 2, 4-D or 2, 4 Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid is
the progeny. Introduction is taking a plant or an auxin hormone. It stimulates the growth
a new variety from an area where it grows activities of the cells of the root due to which
naturally to a region where it does not occur roots get destroyed and thus plants finally
before. destroys. 2, 4-D is used as a defoliant for broad
53. (a) Tissue culture cells shows sigmoid leaved dicots.
growth curve. 58. (b) Agent orange has equal parts of 2, 4-D
54. (d) Lathyrism which is caused by consump- and 2, 4, 5-T and is found to contain highly
tion of Khesari dal is a disease characterised poisonous chemical dioxin as impurities.
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 385
59. (c) The top five crops are : Potato (which 71. (c) To obtain virus - free healthy plants from
belongs to the family Solanaceae) and Wheat, a diseased one by tissue culture technique,
Rice, Corn, Barley (which belongs to the both apical and axillary meristems of the
family Poaceae). diseased plant will be taken. Plant tissue
60. (d) The long-term prospects for a truly culture is used to maintain or grow plant
human civilization depend in a large measure cells, tissues or organs under sterile conditions
on control of human diseases. on a nutrient culture medium of known
61. (c) Suppression of reproduction of one type composition. Plant tissue culture is widely
of organism by utilizing some features of its used to produce clones of a plant in a method
biology or physiology to destroy it or by use known as micro propagation.
of another organism is known as biological 72. (a) During the period 1960 to 2000 rice
control. production went up from 35 million tonnes
62. (d) The rotenone is a natural insecticide with to 89.5 million tonnes. This was due to the
minimal or almost no side effects. It is an development of semi-dwarf varieties of rice.
isoflavonoid extracted from the root of Derris. There are 2,00,000 varieties of rice in India.
63. (d) Biological control refers the use of living
73. (b) The method of producing thousands
organisms like natural predators and parasites
of plants through tissue culture is called
to reduce pest population and control
micro-propagation. Each of these plants will
diseases. However they may become pest as
be genetically identical to the original plant
they can develop a preference to other diets.
from which they were grown, i.e., they are
64. (b) Culture is the term generally used for somaclones. Many important food plants like
artificial growth. The plant tissue culture tomato, banana, apple have been produced on
actually refers to the growth of plant cells, commercial scale using this method.
tissues and organs on artificial nutrient media.
74. (c) Meristem is most suitable for raising
65. (c) All other are diploid. Best method of virus free plants for micropropagation.
haploid plant culture is pollen grain culture.
75. (b) Vector DNA are the DNA molecules
66. (a) The polyploidy which occurs within
that can carry a foreign DNA segment and
a species & results due to multiplication
replicate inside the host cells. Vector DNA
of the same set of chromosomes is called
may be plasmids, a bacteriophage, cosmids,
autopolyploidy.
yeast artificial chromosomes.
67. (c) Xylem vessels and cork cells are dead
76. (d) Spirulina is rich in protein, vitamins &
while sieve tube cells do not possess nuclei.
minerals. 250 gram biomass of Methylophilus
68. (d) It was genetically modified to get high
methylotrophus produces 25 tonne protein/day
lipid contents.
while cow of 250 Kg produces only 200 gm.
69. (a) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate
protein/day.
play an important role in the fusion of
protoplasts from the same or different species. Common button mushrooms are a very rich
It is done for the formation of somatic hybrid source of vitamin D. A rice variety has been
cells. This process is adopted when normal developed which is very rich in iron content.
sexual reproduction is not possible for the 77. (d) Genetic variation present among plant
production of hybrids cells during tissue culture is called somaclonal
70. (a) Development of embryo like structure variation. The term somaclonal variation is
from explant by the method of tissue culture, is also used for the genetic variation present in
called somatic embryogenesis. plants regenerated from a single culture. This
variation has been used to develop several
 EBD_7325
386 BIOLOGY
useful varieties against resistance to diseases 83. (c) All others are diploid but pollen grain is
and pests, better yield, better quality etc. haploid.
78. (c) Meristem culture is done for the develop- 84. (a) Mutations are generally recessive so
ment of virus free plants. Meristematic tissue they are not expressed in their heterozygous
cell can be taken either from shoot or root tip. condition. If plant is haploid then mutation
79. (c) can express themselves.
80. (c) Cellular totipotency is exhibited only 85. (c) F.C. Steward & co-workers in 1964
by plant cells wherein the plant cells retain raised the entire carrot plant from carrot-
the ability to deactivate and form the new root culture. They established the cellular
dividing cells. totipotency i.e. capacity of a cell to develop
a new plant. However the idea of totipotency
81. (a) Cellular totipotency is the ability, shown
was given earlier by German botanist Gottlieb
by many living cells to form all types of tissue
Haberlandt. He tried to grow isolated leaf cell
that constitute the mature organism.
but could not succeed.
82. (a) In vegetative reproduction the same
86. (d) In crop improvement programme,
genotype can be propagated from one
haploids are very important because they
generation to the next.
form perfect homozygotes which are helpful
to get a pure line.
 Chapter

32 Microbes in Human
Welfare
Topic 1: Microbes in Household/Industrial (a) Pseudomonas (b) Clostridium
(c) Saccharomyces (d) Aspergillus
Products/ Sewage Treatment
7. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially
1. Which of the following in sewage treatment in the production of : [2012]
removes suspended solids? [2017] (a) ethanol
(a) Secondary treatment (b) streptokinase for removing clots from
(b) Primary treatment the blood vessels.
(c) Sludge treatment (c) citric acid
(d) Tertiary treatment (d) blood cholesterol lowering statins
2. Which of the following is correctly matched 8. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial
for the product produced by them ? [2017] infarction is normally immediately given :
(a) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid [2012]
(b) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid (a) Penicillin (b) Streptokinase
(c) Sacchromyces cerevisiae : Ethanol (c) Cyclosporin-A (d) Statins
(d) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics 9. Yeast is used in the production of [2012]
3. The guts of cow and buffalo possess: (a) Citric acid and lactic acid
[2015 RS] (b) Lipase and pectinase
(a) Chlorella spp. (b) Methanogens (c) Bread and beer
(d) Cheese and butter
(c) Cyanobacteria (d) Fucus spp.
10. Which one of the following is an example
4. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge
of carrying out biological control of pests/
digesters? [2014]
diseases using microbes ? [2012]
(a) Methane and CO2 only
(a) Trichoderma sp. against certain plant
(b) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2
pathogens
(c) Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and O2
(b) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white
(d) Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2
rust in Brassica
5. During sewage treatment, biogases are
(c) Bt - cotton to increase cotton yield
produced which include : [NEET 2013]
(d) Lady bird beetle against aphids in
(a) methane, oxygen, hydrogen sulphide
mustard
(b) hydrogen sulphide, methane, sulphur
11. The domestic sewage in large cities [2012M]
dioxide
(a) has a high BOD as it contains both
(c) hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen, methane
aerobic and anaerobic bacteria.
(d) methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon
(b) is processed by aerobic and then
dioxide
anaerobic bacteria in the secondary
6. A good producer of citric acid is :
treatment in Sewage Treatment Plants
[NEET 2013] (STPs).
 EBD_7325
388 BIOLOGY
(c) when treated in STPs does not really (b) Alkaliphiles
require the aeration step as the sewage (c) Thermoacidophiles
contains adequate oxygen. (d) Thermophiles
(d) has very high amounts of suspended 18. Human insulin is being commercially
solids and dissolved salts. produced from a transgenic species of   [2008]
12. Read the following statement having two (a) Escherichia (b) Mycobacterium
blanks (A and B): (c) Rhizobium (d) Saccharomyces
“A drug used for -------- (A) -------- patients is 19. Probiotics are [2007]
obtained from a species of the organism -----
(a) cancer inducing microbes
--- (B) --------.”
(b) new kind of food allergens
The one correct option for the two blanks is
(c) live microbial food supplement
[2011M]
Blank - A Blank - B (d) safe antibiotics
(a) Heart Penicillium 20. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(b) Organ-transplant Trichoderma matched ? [2007]
(c) Swine flu Monascus (a) Yeast - ethanol
(d) AIDS Pseudomonas (b) Streptomycetes - antibiotic
13. Which one of the following is a wrong (c) Coliforms - vinegar
matching of a microbe and its industrial (d) Methanogens - gobar gas.
product, while the remaining three are 21. Which one of the following pairs is not
correct ? [2011M] correctly matched? [2004]
(a) Yeast - statins (a) Streptomyces - Antibiotic
(b) Acetobacter aceti - acid (b) Serratia - Drug addiction
(c) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid
(c) Spirulina - Single cell protein
(d) Aspergillus niger - citric acid
(d) Rhizobium - Biofertilizer
14. Ethanol is commercially produced through a
22. Dough kept overnight in warm weather
particular species of :      [2011]
becomes soft and spongy because of [2004]
(a) Saccharomyces (b) Clostridium
(a) absorption of carbon dioxide from
(c) Trichoderma (d) Aspergillus
atmosphehre
15. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(b) fermentation
matched? [2009]
(a) Alcohol - nitrogenase (c) cohesion
(b) Fruit juice - pectinase (d) osmosis
(c) Textile - amylase 23. The term antibiotic was first used by [2003]
(d) Detergents - lipase (a) Flemming (b) Pasteur
16. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful (c) Waksman (d) Lister
microorganism for [2008] 24. During the formation of bread it becomes
(a) bioremediation of contaminated soils porous due to release of CO2 by the action of
(b) reclamation of wastelands (a) Yeast (b) Bacteria [2002]
(c) gene transfer in higher plants
(c) Virus (d) Protozoans
(d) biological control of soil-borne plant
25. Industrial production of ethanol from starch
pathogens
is brought about by [2000]
17. Modern detergents contain enzyme
(a) Saccharomyces (b) Lactobacillus
preparations of:       [2008]
(a) Acidophiles (c) Azotobacter (d) Penicillium
Microbes in Human Welfare 389
26. Which one of the following micro-organisms (a) Halophiles
is used for production of citric acid in (b) Thermoacidiophiles
industries? [1998] (c) Methanogens
(a) Penicillium citrinum (d) Eubacteria
(b) Aspergillus niger 32. Match the following list of microbes and their
(c) Rhizopus nigricans importance: [2015 RS]
(d) Lactobacillus bulgaris (A) Saccharomyces (i) Production of immu-
27. Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the cerevisiae nosuppressive agents
industrial production of [1998] (B) Monascus (ii) Ripening of Swiss
(a) citric acid (b) tetracycline Purpureus cheese
(c) ethanol (d) butanol
(C) Trichoderma (iii) Commercial produc-
28. Which one thing is not true about antibiotics? polysporum tion of ethanol
[1996]
(D) Propionibac- (iv) Production of blood
(a) The term “antibiotic” was coined by
terium shara- cholestrol lowering
Selman Waksman in 1942 manii agents
(b) First antibiotic was discovered by
Alexander Flemming (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) Each antibiotic is effective only against
one particular kind of germ (b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) Some persons can be allergic to a
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
particular antibiotic 33. Microbe used for biocontrol of pest butterfly
29. The organism, used for alcoholic fermenta- caterpillars is [NEET Kar. 2013]
tion, is [1995] (a) Trichoderma sp.
(a) Pseudomonas (b) Penicillium (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Aspergillus (d) Saccharomyces (c) Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) Streptococcus sp.
Topics 2: Microbes in production of Biogas/as
34. Which one of the following microbes forms
Bio-control Agents/as Biofertilisers
symbiotic association with plants and helps
30. Which of the following is wrongly matched them in their nutrition [2012]
in the given table ? [2016] (a) Azotobacter (b) Aspergillus
(c) Glomus (d) Trichoderma
Microbe Product Application
35. A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated with
(a) Trichoderma Cyclosporin immunosup- Azolla in rice fields is : [2012]
polysporum A pressive drug (a) Spirulina (b) Anabaena
(b) Monascus Statins lowering of (c) Frankia (d) Tolypothrix
purpureus blood 36. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that
cholesterol of [2012M]
(a) butane (b) methane
(c) Streptococcus Streptokinase removal of
(c) propane (d) carbon dioxide
clot from
37. An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising
blood vessel
soyabean crops is [2011]
(d) Clostridium Lipase removal of (a) Azotobacter (b) Azospirillum
butylicum oil stains (c) Rhizobium (d) Nostoc
38. Which one of the following help in absorption
31. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for
of phosphorus from soil by plants? [2011]
the production of biogas from the dung of
(a) Glomus (b) Rhizobium
ruminant animals, include the [2016]
(c) Frankia (d) Anabaena
 EBD_7325
390 BIOLOGY
39. Which one of the following is not a 47. The aquatic fern, which is an excellent
biofertilizer?       [2011] biofertiliser is [1999]
(a) Agrobacterium (b) Rhizobium (a) Azolla (b) Salvinia
(c) Nostoc (d) Mycorrhiza (c) Marsilia (d) Pteridium
40. A common biocontrol agent for the control 48. Due to which of the following organisms,
of plant diseases is [2010] yield of rice has been increased ? [1999]
(a) Baculovirus (a) Anabaena
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis (b) Bacillus popilliae
(c) Glomus (c) Sesbania
(d) Trichoderma (d) Bacillus polymexa
41. The common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields 49. Which one of the following is non-symbiotic
is [2010] biofertilizer? [1998]
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azospirillum (a) Azotobacter (b) Anabaena
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Frankia (c) Rhizobium (d) VAM.
42. Which one of the following is not used in 50. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields
organic farming? [2010] of rice by using the biofertilizer    [1998]
(a) Glomus (b) Earthworm (a) Azolla pinnata
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Snail (b) Cyanobacteria
43. Select the correct statement from the (c) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
following? [2010] (d) Mycorrhiza
(a) Biogas is produced by the activity of 51. Which of the following is likely to be achieved
aerobic bacteria on animal waste in the coming two decades? [1997]
(b) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium (a) A complete understanding of the brain-
found in rumen of cattle mind interaction
(c) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is (b) Control of cancer
pure methane (c) Correction of genetic basis of diabetes
(d) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement mellitus
tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich (d) Production of biodegradable plastic
source of aerobic bacteria rather than cellulose by higher plants
44. Which one of the following is linked to the 52. Gobar gas contains mainly [1997]
discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popular (a) CH4 + CO2 (b) CH4 + O2
fungicide?      [2008]
(c) CO2 + H2 (d) CO2 + SO2
(a) Bacterial leaf blight of rice 53. Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the
(b) Downy mildew of grapes examples of [1996]
(c) Loose smut of wheat (a) symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
(d) Black rust of wheat (b) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers
45. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe (c) ammonifying bacteria
used is [2005] (d) disease-causing bacteria
(a) Methophilic bacteria
54. Non-symbiotic nitrogen fixers are [1994]
(b) Butyric acid bacteria (a) Azotobacter
(c) Helicobactor pylori (b) Pseudomonas
(d) Streptococcus lactin (c) soil fungi
46. Which of the following is pair of bio-
(d) blue-green algae
fertilizers? [2001]
55. A nonphotosynthetic aerobic nitrogen fixing
(a) Azolla and BGA
soil bacterium is [1994]
(b) Nostoc and legumes
(a) Rhizobium (b) Clostridium
(c) Rhizobium and grasses
(d) Salmonella and E. coli (c) Azotobacter (d) Klebsiella
Microbes in Human Welfare 391

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Primary treatment is a physical process household sewage, both runoff (effluents)
which involves two process, i.e. filtration and and domestic. It includes physical, chemical,
sedimentation of big solid waste. and biological processes to remove physical,
2. (c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae commonly chemical and biological contaminants.
know as Brewer’s yeast, causes fermentation Sewage treatment generally involves three
of carbohydrates and produces ethanol. stages, called primary, secondary and
3. (b) Methanogens (microorganisms producing tertiary treatment. It is processed by aerobic
methane) are found in the guts of ruminant and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary
animals e.g. cows and buffalloes. treatment in Sewage Treatment Plants
4. (b) Anaerobic digestion is a series of (STPs).
processes in which microorganisms break 12. (b) Trichoderma is a species of filamentous
down biodegradable material in the absence fungi. Cyclosporin A is immunosuppressive
of oxygen, used for industrial or domestic drug obtained from Trichoderma and used in
purposes to manage waste and/or to release organ transplantation.
energy. The process of anaerobic digestion 13. (c) Clostridium butylicum industrially
produces a biogas, consisting of methane (it produces butyric acid.
will burn), carbon dioxide (it does not burn) 14. (a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commercially
and traces of other contaminant gases. used to produce ethanol. S. cerevisiae is a
5. (d) The major component of biogas is yeast which helps in alcoholic fermentation
methane (about 50-68%) which is highly in which sugars such as glucose, fructose and
inflammable . The other gases are carbon sucrose are converted into cellular energy and
dioxide (25 - 35%), hydrogen (1 - 5%) , nitrogen produce ethanol.
(2 - 7%), Oxygen (0 - 0.1%) and rarely 15. (a) Alcohol and nitrogenase pair is wrongly
hydrogen sulfide. Biogas is a “mixture of matched. Ethanol produces alcohol.
gases” produced from degradable organic 16. (d) Trichoderma harzianum has proved a
matter by the activity of various anaerobic useful microorganism for biological control
bacteria that offers a low cost alternative for of soil borne plant pathogens. Trichoderma
energy requirements. harzianum is a fungus that is also used as a
6. (d) A good source of citric acid is Aspergillus fungicide. It is used for foliar application, seed
niger (a fungus). Apart from citric acid, oxalic treatment and soil treatment for suppression
acid, gallic acid, gluconic acid are extracted of various disease causing fungal pathogens.
from fungus. Commercial biotechnological products such
7. (d) Monascus purpureus is a yeast used in as 3 Tac have been useful for treatment of
the production of statins which are used in Botrytis, Fusarium, Penicillium sp. It is also
lowering blood cholestrol. used for manufacturing enzymes.
8. (b) Streptokinase is immediately given to 17. (b) Modern detergent contain enzymes
dissolve the thrombus carring myocardial preparations of alkaliphiles. Alkaliphiles
live in alkaline environments like soda lakes,
infarction.
or alkaline soil. The pH level in alkaline
9. (c) Saccharomyces cervisiae is a yeast used in
substances is from about 9 to 11 on the pH scale.
making bread (Baker’s yeast) and commercial
The alkaliphiles keep an alkaline level of about
production of ethanol.
pH 9 inside the cells, but the environment
10. (a) has a higher level of alkalinity. Alkaliphiles
11. (b) Sewage treatment is the process of can keep the right pH level by pumping in
removing contaminants from wastewater and hydrogen ions in out at the right rate.
 EBD_7325
392 BIOLOGY
18. (a) Human insulin is being commercially 25. (a) Yeast helps in ethyl alcohol formation.
produced from a transgenic species of Lactobacillus is the milk bacteria while is
Escherichia coli. E. coli is a bacterium that the free living nitrogen fixing bacteria and
is commonly found in the lower intestine Penicillium is the source of Penicillin.
of warm blooded animals. The bacteria 26. (b) Aspergillus niger is known as guinea
can also be grown easily and its genetics pig of kingdom fungi. The main source of
are comparatively simple and easily commercial preparation of citric acid is the
manipulated, making it one of the best fermentation of sugar with Aspergillus niger.
studied prokaryotic model organisms, and 27. (c) Yeast performs alcoholic fermentation
an important species in biotechnology. because of enzyme ‘zymase’. It is used in the
19. (c) Probiotics are defined as live production of ethyl alcohol or ethanol.
microorganisms, including Lactobacillus
species, Bifidobacterium species and yeasts,

that may beneficially affect the host upon
28. (c) 'Each antibiotic is effective only against
ingestion by improving the balance of the
one particular kind of germ' is not correct.
intestinal microflora. The dietary use of live
29. (d) Fermentation refers to the breakdown of
microorganisms has a long history. organic substances, particularly carbohydrates,
20. (c) Coliforms are a broad class of bacteria under anaerobic conditions. Saccharomyces
found in our environment, including the feces cerevisiae is used for fermenting carbohydrate.
of man and other warm-blooded animals. The ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide are
The presence of coliform bacteria in drinking formed at the end of the process.
water may indicate a possible presence of 30. (d) Clostridium butylicum is used for butyric
harmful, disease-causing organisms. acid production
21. (b) Rhizobium is a symbotic nitrogen 31. (c) Methanogens are microorganisms that
fixing bacteria. Streptomyces is a source for produce methane as a metabolic byproduct
streptomycin. Spirulina is a rich source of in anoxic conditions. They are obligate
anaerobic ancient and primitive bacteria.
vitamin B1 and proteins.
They are involved in methanogenesis.
22. (b) Cohesion is the force of attraction
32. (d) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
between similar molecules. Osmosis is
33. (c) Microbial biocontrol agent that can
the movement of solvent molecules from be introduced in order to control butterfly
a region of low solute concentration to a caterpillars is the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis
region of high solute concentration through (Bt). They sprayed onto vulnerable plants,
a semipermeable membrane. where they eaten by the insect larvae. In the
23. (c) The term antibiotics was coined by gut of the larvae, the toxin is released and the
Waksman but the first known antibiotic, larvae get killed. The bacterial disease will
penicillin was extracted from fungi Penicillium kill the caterpillars, but leave other insects
notatum by Alexander Flemming in 1944. unharmed.
Antibiotics are the chemicals that are 34. (c) Glomus is endomycorrhiza that helps in
produced from the living organisms, used absorption of nutrition specially phosphorus
from soil.
to kill another living organisms. About 2300
35. (b) Anabaena azollae resides in the leaf
antibiotics discovered so far e.g. Streptomycin,
cavities of the fern Anabaena. It fixes nitrogen.
Tetracycline etc.
A part of the fixed nitrogen is excreted in the
24. (a) Yeast carry out fermentation, releasing cavities and becomes available to the fern.
CO2 making bread soft and porous. Hence, The decaying fern plants release the same
Saccharomyces is referred to as baker’s yeast. for utilization of the rice plants.
Microbes in Human Welfare 393
36. (b) In gobar gas the maximum amount of contain large number of aerobic heterotrophic
methane which is produced by methanogenic microbes. They form flocs that digest a lot
bacteria. Gobar gas is a gas mixture which of organic matter. As the biological oxygen
is generated when organic compounds are demand of waste water is reduced, it is passed
fermented in the absence of air (anaerobic into settling tank to undergo sedimentation.
fermentation). Biogas contains 50% – 70% The sediment of the settling tank is called
methane, 30% – 40% carbon dioxide, and activated sludge that is a rich source of aerobic
traces of hydrogen, hydrogen sulphide and bacteria. Hence, the statement (d) is correct.
nitrogen. Methane is a combustible gas, Biogas is produced by anaerobic
which means it can be burned. It can be used breakdown of biomass with the help of
as a fuel for cooking and lighting. methanogenic bacteria. It is made up of
37. (c) Rhizobium is a nitrogen fixing bacteria, methane, carbon dioxide with traces of
which acts as a biofertilizer in soil to produce nitrogen, hydrogen sulphide and hydrogen.
soyabean crops. Methanobacterium is an anaerobic
38. (a) Glomus aggregatum is a mycorrhizal bacterium that is found in rumen of cattle
fungus used as a soil inoculant in agriculture and is helpful in the breakdown of cellulose.
and horticulture. Its purpose is to increase the 44. (b) Downy mildew of grapes disesase is
surface area of roots for nutrient absorption linked to the discovery of Bordeux mixture
like phosphorus. as a popular fungicide. Bordeux mixture was
39. (a) Agrobacterium is a soil borne pathogen discovered by Millardet in France in 1882.
responsible for affecting many higher species Bordeux mixture is prepared by dissolving
of plant. But Rhizobium, Nostoc and Mycorrhiza 40g of copper sulphate and 40 g of calcium
are biofertilizers. hydroxide in 5 litres of water. Bordeux
40. (d) A common biocontrol agent for control mixture is used primarily as a fungicide,
of plant diseases is Trichoderma. Trichoderma it was first used to control downy mildew
is a tree living fungus that exert biocontrol disease of grape-vine caused by a fungus,
over several plant pathogens for the control Plasmopara viticola. The first pesticide to be
of plant diseases. It is the natural method of used commercially was bordeux mixture.
pest and pathogen control. 45. (b) Butyric acid bacteria, Clostridium butyli-
41. (b) The common nitrogen fixer in paddy cum causes the retting of fibres. Retting is a
field is Azospirillum. It is an anaerobic stage in the manufacturing of vegetable fibers,
bacteria that forms loose association with especially the bast fibers. It is the process of
roots of paddy crops. submerging plant stems such as flax, jute,
42. (d) Organic farming involves use of organic hemp or kenaf in water, and soaking them
wastes and other biological material along for a period of time to loosen the fibers from
with beneficial microbes to release nutrients the other components of the stem. Retting can
to crop to increase the soil fertility in an also be done by letting the cut crop stand in
ecofriendly, and pollution tree environment. the fields in the wet fall, called “dew retting”.
Glomus, earthworm and Oscillatoria can be Bacterial action attacks pectin and lignin,
used in organic farming while snail cannot. freeing the cellulose fibres. The stems are
43. (d) Activated sludge is a process for treating then removed and washed and subjected to
sewage and industrial wastewaters using air mechanical processing to remove the soft tis-
and a biological floc composed of bacteria sue and then dried so that all that remains are
and protozoans. During the process, the the fibres.The process is caused by Clostridium
primary effluent is taken to aeration tank that butylicum.
 EBD_7325
394 BIOLOGY
46. (a) Azolla and blue green algae- Anabaena Anabaena occurs in assoction with Azolla.
form biofertilizer in rice fields. VAM is vesicular arbuscular mycorrhiza.
47. (a) Azolla is a freshwater fern harbouring a 50. (a) Farmers have reported over 50% higher
bluegreen alga - Anabaena in its leaf cavities. yields of rice by using the biofertilizer Azolla
The alga fixes atmospheric nitrogen and pinnata.
releases nitrogenous compounds in leaf 51. (b) Control of cancer is likely to be achieved
cavities. This symbiotic system is the main in the coming two decades.
source of algal biofertilizer in rice fields. 52. (a) Gobar gas contains mainly CH4 + CO2.
48. (a) Azolla is a freshwater fern harboring a 53. (b) Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are the
bluegreen alga - Anabaena in its leaf cavities. examples of non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers.
The alga fixes atmospheric nitrogen and 54. (a) Azotobacter are nonsymbiotic, free living
releases nitrogenous compounds in leaf nitrogen fixing bacteria.
cavities. This symbiotic system is the main (c) Azotobacter is a free living soil bacterium
source of algal biofertilizer in rice fields. able to take up dinitrogen from the soil and
When rice paddies are flooded in the spring, fix it into organic nitrogenous material like
they can be inoculated with Azolla, which aminoacid. Clostridium is anaerobic free living
then quickly multiplies to cover the water, soil N2 fixing bacteria. Rhizobium is symbiotic
suppressing weeds. As the plants die, they N2 fixing bacteria.
contribute nitrogen to the rice plants, and as 55. (c) Azotobacter is a free living soil bacterium
the rice paddy dries out, the Azolla eventually able to take up dinitrogen from the soil and
die, making an exceptional green manure. fix it into organic nitrogenous material like
49. (a) Azotobacter is a free living nitrogen fixing aminoacid. Clostridium is anaerobic free living
bacterium, Rhizobium is symbiotic and found soil N2 fixing bacteria. Rhizobium is symbiotic
in the root nodules of leguminous plants, N2 fixing bacteria.
 Chapter

33 Biotechnology:
Principles and Processes
Topic 1: Principles of Biotechnology/Tools of 6. Which of the following is a restriction
Recombinant DNA Technology endonuclease? [2016]
(a) Hind II (b) Protease
1. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose
(c) DNase I (d) RNase
gel can be visualised after staining with :[2017]
7. The cutting of DNA at specific locations
(a) Acetocarmine
became possible with the discovery of
(b) Aniline blue
(a) Probes [2015 RS]
(c) Ethidium bromide
(b) Selectable markers
(d) Bromophenol blue
(c) Ligases
2. A gene whose expression helps to identify
transformed cell is known as : [2017] (d) Restriction enzymes
(a) Vector 8. The DNA molecule to which the gene of
(b) Plasmid interest is integrated for cloning is called:
(c) Structural gene [2015 RS]
(d) Selectable marker (a) Vector (b) Template
3. What is the criterion for DNA fragments (c) Carrier (d) Transformer
movement on agarose gel during gel electro- 9. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the
phoresis? [2017] Southern hybridization technique does not
(a) The smaller the fragment size, the farther use: [2014]
it moves (a) Electrophoresis (b) Blotting
(b) Positively charged fragments move to (c) Autoradiography (d) PCR
farther end 10. Which vector can clone only a small fragment
(c) Negatively charged fragments do not of DNA? [2014]
move (a) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(d) The larger the fragment size, the farther (b) Yeast artificial chromosome
it moves (c) Plasmid
4. Which of the following is not a feature of the (d) Cosmid
plasmids? [2016] 11. During the process of isolation of DNA,
(a) Independent replication chilled ethanol is added to  [NEET Kar. 2013]
(b) Circular structure
(a) Remove proteins such as histones
(c) Transferable
(d) Single - stranded (b) Precipitate DNA
5. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from (c) Break open the cell to release DNA
(a) Thermus aquaticus [2016] (d) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
(b) Thiobacillus ferroxidans 12. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear
(c) Bacillus subtilis white in contrast to blue colonies of non-
(d) Pseudomonas putida recombinant bateria because of : [NEET 2013]
 EBD_7325
396 BIOLOGY
(a) Insertional inactivate of alphaga- 17. Which one of the following techniques made
lactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria it possible to genetically engineer living
(b) Insertional inactivation of alpha- organism ? [2011M]
galactosidase in recombinant bacteria (a) Recombinant DNA techniques
(c) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in (b) X-ray diffraction
recombinant bacteria (c) Heavier isotope labelling
(d) Hybridization
(d) Non-recombinant bacteria containing
18. There is a restriction endonuclease called
beta-galactosidase
EcoRI. What does “co” part in it stand for ?
13. Genes of interest can be selected from a (a) colon (b) coelom [2011]
genomic library by using  [NEET Kar. 2013] (c) coenzyme (d) coli
(a) Restriction enzymes 19. Which one of the following is used as vector
(b) Cloning vectors for cloning genes into higher organisms?
(c) DNA probes (a) Baculovirus [2010]
(d) Gene targets (b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Rhizopus nigricans
14. The figure below is the diagrammatic
(d) Retrovirus
representation of the E.Coli vector pBR 322.
20. Which one of the following palindromic base
Which one of the given options correctly sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about
identifies its certain component (s) ? [2012] the middle by some particular restriction
EcoR I Cla Hind III enzyme? [2010]
Pvu I (a) 5'.............CGTTCG.............3'
Pst I BamH 1
tet2
3'.............ATGGTA.............5'
amp2
pBR322 Sal I (b) 5'.............GATATG.............3'
ori
3'.............CTACTA.............5'
rop (c) 5'.............GAATTC.............3'
3'.............CTTAAG.............5'
Pvu II (d) 5'.............CACGTA.............3'
(a) ori - original restriction enzyme 3'.............CTCAGT.............5'
(b) rop-reduced osmotic pressure 21. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a
radioactive molecule is called [2010]
(c) Hind III, EcoRI - selectable markers
(a) Vector (b) Probe
(d) ampR, tetR - antibiotic resistance genes
(c) Clone (d) Plasmid
15. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a 22. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes
radioactive molecule is called :   [2012] which [2010]
(a) Vector (b) Selectablemarker (a) make cuts at specific positions within the
(c) Plasmid (d) Probe DNA molecule
16. Which one of the following represents a (b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence
palindromic sequence in DNA? [2012M] for binding of DNA ligase
(a) 5' - GAATTC - 3' (c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA
3' - CTTAAG - 5' polymerase
(b) 5' - CCAATG - 3' (d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the
3' - GAATCC - 5' DNA molecule
(c) 5' - CATTAG - 3' 23. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed
for  [2010]
3' - GATAAC - 5'
(a) addition of preservatives to the product
(d) 5' - GATACC - 3'
(b) purification of the product
3' - CCTAAG - 5'
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 397
(c) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the 31. Introduction of food plants developed by
culture vessel genetic engineering is not desirable because
(d) availability of oxygen throughout the [2002]
process (a) economy of developing countries may
24. Polyethylene glycol method is used for  [2009] suffer
(a) biodiesel production (b) these products are less tasty as compared
(b) seedless fruit production
to the already existing products
(c) energy production from sewage
(d) gene transfer without a vector (c) this method is costly
25. Which one of the following is commonly used (d) there is danger of entry of viruses and
in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants? toxins with introduced crop
(a) Meloidogyne incognita [2009] 32. Two bacteria found to be very useful in
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens genetic engineering experiments are [1998]
(c) Penicillium expansum (a) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
(d) Trichoderma harzianum (b) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
26. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with (c) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
the plasmid vector became possible with
(d) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
(a) DNA ligase [2008]
33. The plasmids pesent in the bacterial cells are
(b) Endonucleases
(c) DNA polymerase [1997]
(d) Exonucleases (a) circular double helical DNA molecules
27. Gel electrophoresis is used for [2008] (b) circular double helical RNA molecules
(a) cutting of DNA into fragments (c) linear double helical DNA molecules
(b) separation of DNA fragments according (d) linear double helical RNA molecules.
to their size
(c) construction of recombinant DNA by Topic 2: Process of Recombinant DNA Technology
joining with cloning vectors 34. The process of separation and purification of
(d) isolation of DNA molecule expressed protein before marketing is called:
28. What is antisense technology? [2008]
(a) Downstream processing [2017]
(a) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used
for synthesis of antigens (b) Bioprocessing
(b) Production of somaclonal variants in (c) Postproduction processing
tissue cultures (d) Upstream processing
(c) When a piece of RNA that is 35. In vitro clonal propagation in plants is
complementary in sequence is used to characterized by: [2014]
stop expression of a specific gene (a) PCR and RAPD
(d) RNA polymerase producing DNA (b) Northern blotting
29. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1 – 3
(c) Electrophoresis and HPLC
in number and [2003]
(d) Microscopy
(a) can be circular as well as linear within
the same cell 36. Commonly used vectors for human genome
(b) are always circular sequencing are:  [2014]
(c) are always linear (a) T-DNA
(d) can be either circular or linear, but never (b) BAC and YAC
both within the same cell (c) Expression Vectors
30. In bacteria, plasmid is [2002]
(a) extra – chromosomal material (d) kT/A Cloning Vectors
(b) main DNA 37. DNA fragments generated by the restriction
(c) non-functional DNA endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be
(d) repetitive gene separated by : [NEET 2013]
 EBD_7325
398 BIOLOGY
(a) Polymerase chain reaction 5'
Region to be amplified
3'
(b) Electrophoresis A. ds DNA
3' 5'
(c) Restriction mapping 5' 3'
(d) Centrifugation 5' 3' 5'
B. 3'
38. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length 3' 5'
Polymorphism are the methods for :   [2012]
(a) Study of enzymes 5' 3'
5' 3'
(b) Genetic transformation C.
3' 5'
(c) DNA sequencing 3' 5'
(d) Genetic Fingerprinting
(a) B - Denaturation at a temperature of
39. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA about 98°C separating the two DNA
polymerase used in PCR [2012] strands.
(a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in (b) A - Denaturation at a temperature of
recipient cell about 50°C.
(b) It serves as a selectable marker (c) C - Extension in the presence of heat
(c) It is isolated from a virus stable DNA polymerase.
(d) It remains active at high temperature (d) A - Annealing with two sets of primers.
44. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use
40. For transformation, micro-particles coated
in : [2011]
with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun
(a) Spectrophotometry
are made up of : [2012] (b) Tissue culture
(a) Silver or Platinum (c) PCR
(b) Platinum or Zinc (d) Gel electrophoresis
(c) Silicon or Platinum 45. What is true for plasmid ? [2001]
(d) Gold or Tungsten (a) Plasmids are widely used in gene
transfer
41. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for [2012M]
(b) These are found in virus
(a) DNA finger printing.
(c) Plasmid contains gene for vital activities
(b) Disarming pathogen vectors. (d) These are main part of chromosome
(c) Transformation of plant cells. 46. In bacterial chromosomes, the nucleic acid
(d) Constructing recombinant DNA by polymers are [1996]
joining with vectors. (a) linear DNA molecule
42. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are (b) circular DNA molecule
used [2012M] (c) of two types-DNA and RNA
(d) linear RNA molecule
(a) as selectable markers.
47. The plasmid [1995]
(b) to select healthy vectors. (a) helps in respiration
(c) to keep the cultures free of infection. (b) genes found inside nucleus
(d) as sequences from where replication (c) is a component of cell wall of bacteria
starts. (d) is the genetic part in addition to DNA in
43. The figure below shows three ste ps micro-organisms
(A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). 48. Organelle/organoid involved in genetic
Select the option giving correct identification engineering is [1994]
together with what it represents? [2012M] (a) plasmid (b) mitochondrion
(c) golgi apparatus (d) lomasome
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 399

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Ethidium bromide (Et Br) is used to stain 11. (b) Ethanol is non-polar molecule while
the DNA fragments and will appear as orange DNA is a polar molecule, it has a net negative
coloured bands when kept under UV light. charge due to the phosphate groups attached
2. (d) Selectable markers in recombinant to it. When DNA is placed into a solution
DNA technology, helps in identification of 100% ethanol, it becomes insoluble and
and elimination of non-transformants precipitates out of solution.
and selectively permits the growth of the 12. (d) Alternative selectable markers have been
transformants. developed which differentiate recombinant
3. (a) DNA fragments during gel electrophore- from non-recombinants on the basis of their
sis, separate (resolve) according to their size ability to produce colour in the presence of
due to sieving effect provided by agarose gel. chromogenic substrate. In this , a recombinant
4. (d) Plasmid has an extra chromosomal, DNA is inserted within the coding sequence
double stranded circular DNA. of an enzyme β-galactosidase. This results
5. (a) The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained into inactivation of the enzyme, which is
from Thermus aquaticus which lives in hot referred to as insertional inactivation. The
springs. presence of chromogenic substrate give
6. (a) A restriction enzyme or restriction blue coloured colonies of the plasmid in the
endonuclease is an enzyme that cuts DNA bacteria does not have an insert. Presence
at or near specific recognition nucleotide of insert results into insertional inactivation
sequences known as restriction sites. Hind of the galactosidase and the colonies do not
II among these is a type of restriction produce any colour, these are identified as
endonuclease. recombinant colonies.
7. (d) Restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA 13. (c) A hybridization probe is a fragment
at specific locations. of DNA of variable length which is used
8. (a) A vector is a DNA molecule which is in DNA samples to detect the presence of
used as a vehicle to carry the gene of interest nucleotide sequence (the DNA target) that
to another cell. are complementary to the sequence in the
9. (d) PCR is a technique for enzymatically probe. The probe hybridize to single–stranded
replicating DNA without using a living DNA whose base sequence allow probe target
organism such as E. coli or Yeast. It is base-pairing due to complementary between
commonly used in medical and biological the probe and target.
research labs for a variety of tasks like 14. (d) In pBR 322
detection of hereditary diseases, identification
ori-represents site of origin or replication
of genetic fingerprints etc.
rop-represents those proteins that take part in
10. (c) Plasmids are small extranuclear circular
replication of plasmid.
DNAs which carry extrachromosomal genes
in bacteria and some fungi. They replicate Hind III, EcoRI- Recoginition sites of
independently. The best known vectors which Restriction endonucleases
are also available commerciallly are pBR322 ampR and tetR - They are antibiotic resistant
and pUC-18. gene part
 EBD_7325
400 BIOLOGY
15. (d) A single strand DNA or RNA tagged 23. (d) A stirred-tank bioreactor is a cylindrical
with radioactive molecule that is used in or curved base to facilitate the mixing of
hybridization of DNA or RNA is called the reaction content. It has been designed
probe. for availability of oxygen throughout the
16. (a) A palindromic sequence is a nucleic acid process.
sequence (DNA or RNA) that is the same 24. (d) Direct gene transfer is the transfer of
whether read 5' (five-prime) to 3' (three prime) naked DNA into plant cells but the presence
on one strand or 5' to 3' on the complementary of rigid plant cell wall acts as a barrier to
strand with which it forms a double helix. uptake. Therefore protoplasts are the favoured
5' - GAATTC - 3' target for direct gene transfer. Polyethylene
3' - CTTAAG - 5' glycol mediated DNA uptake is a direct gene
transfer method that utilizes the interaction
It is a palindromic sequence of DNA cut by
between polyethylene glycol, naked DNA,
restriction enzyme Eco RI.
salts and the protoplast membrane to effect
17. (a) Recombinant DNA technology is the
transport of the DNA into the cytoplasm.
process joining together two DNA molecules
25. (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is the causal
from two different species that are inserted
agent of crown gall disease (the formation
into a host organism to produce new genetic
of tumours) in over 140 species of dicot.
combination.
This disease caused by a DNA plasmid
18. (d) EcoRI is an endonuclease enzyme (T i plasmid) carried by bacterium and
isolated from strains of E.coli and a part of transferred to the plant cells. Ti plasmid has
restriction modified system. So co part stands widely used in plant engineering as a vector
for coli. in order to inject gene in host plant to form
19. (d) Retrovirus as has the ability to transform transgenic plant.
normal cells into cancerous cells. Hence, it 26. (a) The linking of antibiotic resistance gene
can used as a vector for cloning desirable with the plasmid vector became possible
genes into animal cells. with DNA ligase. DNA ligase is an enzyme
20. (c) Palindromic sequences in DNA molecule that is able to join together two portions of
are group of bases that forms the same DNA and therefore plays an important role
sequence when read in both forward and in DNA repair. DNA ligase is also used in
backward direction. In the given question, recombinant DNA technology as it ensures
only option (c) represent a palindromic that the foreign DNA is bound to the plasmid
sequence. into which it is incorporated.
21. (b) DNA or RNA segment tagged with a 27. (b) Gel electrophoresis is a technique to
radioactive molecule is called Probe. They are separation of DNA fragments according to
used to detect the presence of complementary their size. DNA is negatively charged so in gel
sequences in nucleic acid samples. Probes are tank when electricity is passed, DNA move
used for identification and isolation of DNA towards positive electrode.
and RNA. 28. (c) An RNA molecule whose base sequence
22. (a) Restriction endonucleases are enzymes is complementary to that of the RNA
that makes cuts at specific positions within transcript of a gene, i.e. the sense RNA, such
the DNA molecule. They acts as molecular as a messenger RNA (mRNA). Hence, an
scissors. They recognise specific base sequence antisense RNA can undergo base pairing
at palindrome sites in DNA duplex and cut with its complementary mRNA sequence.
its strands. This blocks gene expression, either by
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 401
preventing access for ribosome to translate BAC (Bacterial artificial chromosomes) and
the mRNA or by triggering degradation of YAC (Yeast artificial chromosomes).
the double stranded RNA by ribonuclease 37. (b) DNA fragments generated by restriction
enzymes. Antisense RNA and DNA both endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be
have therapeutic potential for modifying the separated by gel electrophoresis. Since DNA
activity of disease causing genes. fragments are negatively charged molecules
29. (b) Prokaryotes (bacteria) have only circular they can be separated by forcing them to
chromosomes. move towards the anode under an electric
30. (a) Plasmid is attached to mesosome in field through a medium/matrix. The DNA
bacteria. fragments separate according to their size
31. (d) Plants developed by genetic engineering through sieving effect provided by matrix.
are called transgenic plants or genetically 38. (d)
modified crops from which genetically 39. (d) The name of this DNA polymerase is
modified food is produced. For their Taq polymerase extracted from a thermophilic
production micro-organisms (bacteria, virus) bacteria. It is a relatively thaermostable enzyme
are used. So, by consuming them there is a which is used in PCR during denaturation,
danger of entry of viruses and toxins causing which requires high temperature.
differ types of allergies and other health 40. (d) For gene transfer into the host cell
hazards to human beings. without using vector microparticles made of
32. (a) Escherichia and Agrobacterium are both Tungsten and Gold coated with foreign DNA
used as vectors in genetic engineering. are bombarded into target cells at a very high
Nitrobact converts nitrites to nitrates. is a free velocity.
living nitrogen fixing bacteria. Nitrosomonas 41. (d) Biolistic it is direct gene transferred
converts ammonia to nitrite. Rhizobium is a method for constructing recombinant DNA.
symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria living in the The gene gun was invented by John C. Sanford
root nodules of leguminous plants. Diplococcus with Edward Wolf. A gene gun can be used
pneumoniae causes pneumonia. to genetically infect cells or whole organisms
33. (a) Plasmids are the extrachromosomal with foreign DNA by aiming the barrel of the
DNA. gun and firing. The microshot projectiles in
34. (a) The various stages of processing that the biolistic gene gun are made of microscopic
occur after the completion of fermentation or (or nano) sized gold or platinum powders.
biosynthetic stage which include separation These expensive powders are soaked in DNA
and purification of product called downstream or RNA (in raw or plasmid form) that are
processing. engineered for insertion into the genome of
35. (a) Now a days PCR and RAPD technique the cells or organisms under the gun.
are used for the characterisation of in vitro 42. (a) Antibiotics are powerful medicines that
clonal propagation in plants. fight bacterial infections. They either kill
36. (b) Human genome sequencing is a bacteria or keep them from reproducing. In
process that determines the complete DNA genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used
sequence of an organism’s genome at a as selectable markers.
single time. This requires sequencing all of 43. (c) PCR is a technique for enzymatically
an organism’s chromosomal DNA as well as replicating DNA without using a living
DNA contained in the mitochondria and, for organism such as E. coli or yeast. It is
plants, in the chloroplast. Commonly used commonly used in medical and biological
vectors for human genome sequencing are research labs for a variety of tasks like
 EBD_7325
402 BIOLOGY
detection of hereditary diseases, identification 45. (a) Plasmids are small intranuclear circular
of genetic fingerprints etc. DNAs which carry extra chromosomal genes
The correct steps shown in the above in bacteria.
figure are: 46. (b) Bacterial chromosomes comprises of
A – Denaturation at a temperature of about circular DNA.
94° to 98°C. During the denaturation, the 47. (d) The term ‘plasmid’ was introduced by
double strand melts open to single stranded Lederberg in 1952 for extragenomic DNA
DNA, and all enzymatic reactions stop. segment. It is a small circular molecule of
B – Annealing (binding of DNA primer to the DNA found in bacterial cell in addition to
separated strands. Occurs at 50° to 65°Celsius, the larger circular bacterial DNA.
which is lower than the optimal temperature 48. (a) Besides nuclear DNA, bacteria possesses
of the DNA polymerases) extranuclear DNA (outside the nucleoid
C – Extension or elongation of the strands region) called as plasmid which can replicate
using the DNA primer with heat-stable DNA independently. Due to this property plasmid
polymerases, most frequently Taq (Thermus holds great importance in genetic engineering.
aquaticus) at 72ºC. Plasmid can be taken out of bacteria and
44. (d) In gel electrophoresis agarose extracted made to combine with desired DNA segment.
from sea weed used as gel agarose, made of A plasmid carrying DNA of other organism
0.7% gel show good resolution of large DNA known as cosmid, can be introduced into
and 2% gel will show good resolution of small any desired cell. This is the basis of genetic
fragments. engineering.
 Chapter

34
Biotechnology and
Its Applications
Topic 1: Biotechnological Applications (d) Interference of RNA in synthesis of
in Agriculture DNA
1. The crops engineered for glyphosate are 7. Consumption of which one of the following
resistant/ tolerant to : [2015 RS] foods can prevent the kind of blindness
(a) Bacteria (b) Insects associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency?  [2012]
(c) Herbicides (d) Fungi (a) ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato
2. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant (b) Canolla
tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active (c) Golden rice
toxin due to: [2015 RS] (d) Bt-Brinjal
(a) Acidic pH of the insect gut 8. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have
(b) Action of gut micro-organisms been developed by the introduction of DNA
(c) Presence of conversion factors in insect that produced (in the host cells) [2012M]
gut (a) both sense and anti-sense RNA
(d) Alkaline pH of the insect gut (b) a particular hormone
3. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop (c) an antifeedant
plant where the incorporated gene is meant (d) a toxic protein
for biosynthesis of : [2015 RS] 9. The most common substrate used in distilleries
(a) Vitamin C (b) Omega 3 for the production of ethanol is [2011]
(c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin B (a) corn meal (b) soya meal
4. Pollen tablets are available in the market for: (c) ground gram (d) molasses
(a) In vitro fertilization [2014] 10. The process of RNA interference has been
(b) Breeding programmes used in the development of plants resistant
(c) Supplementing food to [2011]
(d) Ex situ conservation (a) nematodes (b) fungi
5. Which of the following Bt crops is being (c) viruses (d) insects
grown in India by the farmers? [NEET 2013] 11. Silencing of mRNA has been used in
(a) Cotton (b) Brinjal producing transgenic plants resistant to:
(c) Soyabean (d) Maize [2011M]
6. RNA interference involves  [NEET Kar. 2013] (a) bollworms (b) nematodes
(a) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA (c) white rusts (d) bacterial blights
(b) Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using 12. Consider the following statements (A-D)
reverse transcriptase about organic farming: [2011M]
(c) Silencing of specific mRNA due to (A) Utilizes genetically modified crops like
complementary RNA Bt cotton
 EBD_7325
404 BIOLOGY
(B) Uses only naturally produced inputs like (a) insecticide
compost (b) agent for production of dairy products
(C) Does not use pesticides and urea (c) source of industrial enzyme
(D) Produces vegetables rich in vitamins and (d) indicator of water pollution
minerals 18. Main objective of production/use of herbicide
Which of the above statements are correct? resistant GM crops is to [2008]
(a) (B), (C) and (D) (a) eliminate weeds from the field without
(b) (C) and (D) only the use of manual labour
(c) (B) and (C) only (b) eliminate weeds from the field without
(d) (A) and (B) only the use of herbicides
13. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals (c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides
which contain insecticidal protein. [2011M] (d) reduce herbicide accumulation in food
(a) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of
articles for health safety
the insect pest ultimately killing it
19. Cry endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
(b) is coded by several genes including the
thuringiensis are effective against [2008]
gene cry
(c) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of (a) mosquitoes (b) flies
the insect pest. (c) nematodes (d) boll worms
(d) does not kill the carrier bacterium which 20. The name of Norman Borlaug is associated
is itself resistant to this toxin with : [2005]
14. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in (a) white revolution
India has been developed for: [2010] (b) green revolution
(a) insect-resistance (c) yellow revolution
(b) enhancing shelf life (d) blue revolution
(c) enhancing mineral content 21. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been
(d) drought-resistance used for designing novel : [2005]
15. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are: (a) Biofertilizers
[2010] (b) Bio-metallurgical techniques
(a) long fibre and resistance to aphids (c) Bio-mineralization processes
(b) medium yield, long fibre and resistance (d) Bioinsecticidal plants
to beetle pests 22. One of the most important reasons why wild
(c) high yield and production of toxic plants should thrive is that they are good
protein crystals which kill dipteran pests sources of  [2000]
(d) high yield and resistance to bollworms (a) highly nutritive animal feed
16. What is true about Bt toxin? [2009] (b) unsaturated edible oils
(a) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the (c) genes for resistance to disease and pests
Bacillus (d) very rare and highly sought after fruits
(b) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of of medical importance
the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its
multiplication. Topic 2: Biotechnological Applications
in Medicine
(c) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
(d) The inactive protoxin gets converted into 23. The first human hormone produced by
active form in the insect gut. recombinant DNA technology is: [2014]
17. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely (a) Insulin (b) Estrogen
used in contemporary biology as [2009] (c) Thyroxin (d) Progesterone
Biotechnology and Its Applications 405
24. Which one of the following vectors is used to (c) These antibodies obtained from one
replace the defective gene in gene therapy? parent and for many antigen
[NEET Kar. 2013] (d) These antibodies obtained from many
(a) Ti plasmid (b) Adenovirus parents and for many antigens
(c) Cosmid (d) Ri plasmid 31. Genetically engineered bacteria have
25. The first clinical gene therapy was given for been successfully used in the commercial
treating [2012M] production of [1996]
(a) chicken pox (a) human insulin (b) testosterone
(b) diabetes mellitus (c) thyroxine (d) melatonin
(c) rheumatoid arthritis
(d) adenosine deaminase deficiency Topic 3: Transgenic Animals/Ethical Issues
26. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’ 32. Which body of the Government of India
fermentation is done to: [2011]
regulates GM research and safety of introducing
(a) produce methane
GM organisms for public services? [2015 RS]
(b) obtain antibiotics
(c) purify enzymes (a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(d) degrade sewage (b) G e n e t i c E n g i n e e r i n g A p p r ova l
27. Consider the following statements about Committee
biomedical technologies? [2008] (c) Research Committee on Genetic
1. During open heart surgery blood is Manipulation
circulated in the heart-lung machine
(d) Bio-safety committee
2. Blockage in coronary arteries is removed
by angiography 33. Maximum number of existing transgenic
3. Computerised axial tomography (CAT) animals is of : [2011]
shows detailed internal structure as seen (a) fish (b) mice
in a section of body (c) cow (d) pig
4. X-ray provides clear and detailed images 34. Read the following four statements (A-D)
of organs like prostate glands and lungs
about certain mistakes in two of them
Which two of the above statements are
correct? [2011M]
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 (A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 produced milk which was human alpha-
28. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed lactal albumin enriched.
into human body for sonography ? [2007] (B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation
(a) 15 - 30 MHZ (b) 1 - 15 MHZ of DNA from other macro-molecules.
(b) 45 - 70 MHZ (d) 30 - 45 MHZ. (C) Downstream processing is one of the
29. Maximum application of animal cell culture steps of R-DNA technology.
technology today is in the production of
(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used
(a) edible proteins (b) insulin [2003]
(c) interferons (d) vaccines in transfer of R-DNA into the host.
30. What is true for monoclonal antibodies? Which are the two statements having
[2001] mistakes?
(a) These antibodies obtained from one (a) Statement (B) and (C)
parent and for one antigen (b) Statement (C) and (D)
(b) These antibodies obtained from parent (c) Statement (A) and (C)
and for two antigen
(d) Statement (A) and (B)
 EBD_7325
406 BIOLOGY
35. Genetic engineering has been successfully 37. A transgenic food crop’which may help in
used for producing: [2010] solving the problem of night blindness in
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio developing countries is [2008]
vaccine before use in humans (a) Flavr Savr tomatoes
(b) transgenic models for studying new (b) Starlink maize
treatments for certain cardiac diseases (c) Bt Soybean
(c) transgenic cow – rosie which produces (d) Golden rice
high fat milk for making ghee 38. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future
(d) animals like bulls for farm work as they with the following improved trait : [2006]
(a) insect resistance
have super power
(b) high lysine (essential amino acid) content
36. Transgenic plants are the ones: [2009]
(c) high protein content
(a) generated by introducing foreign DNA
(d) high vitamin-A content
into a cell and regenerating a plant from
that cell. 39. Two microbes found to be very useful in
(b) produced after protoplast fusion in genetic engineering are [2006]
artificial medium. (a) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
(c) grown in artificial medium after hybrid- (b) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
ization in the field. (c) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis
(d) produced by a somatic embryo in elegans
artificial medium. (d) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium
tumefaciens
Biotechnology and Its Applications 407

Hints & Solutions

1. (c) Today plants having the broad leaves that silent the expression of m- RNA of
are made resistant to a powerful bio- nematode. RNA interference is a novel
degradable herbicide glyphosate. It is an strategy adopted to prevent infestation of
active ingredient of Round Up ready plant. nematode, Meloidegyne incognitia in roots of
It disturbs the working of EPSP synthetase tobacco plants.
enzyme. If it is taken up by crop plants 9. (d) Molasses are commonly used in
they will die. So, the bioengineers have distillaries for the production of ethanol. The
transferred gene for synthesis of EPSP molasses is diluted to a mash containing 10-20
synthetase enzyme to crop plant. wt % of sugar. By the fermentation system of
2. (d) Bt toxin are solubilised in alkaline pH of molasses ethanol can be produced.
the insect gut causing death. 10. (a) RNA interference has been used to
3. (c) Golden rice (Oryza sativa) is a genetically develop plants resistant to nematodes.
modified crop. It biosynthesizes β- carotene RNA interference is a double stranded
which is the precursor of vitamin-A. RNA (dsRNA) induced for gene silencing
4. (c) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients phenomenon.
therefore used as food supplements. Athletes 11. (b) In this technique nematode specific genes
and race horses use these as tablets to enhance are introduced in the host plant in such a way
performance. that it produces both sense and antisense
5. (a) Bt cotton is being grown in India by RNA. The two RNA’s being complementary
the farmers. Bt cotton is pest resistant plant to each other from a double stranded RNA
which could decreased the pesticides used. (dsRNA) which is also called interfering RNA
Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium Bacillus responsible for initiating RNA interference
thusringiensis (Bt for short). Bt toxin gene (RNA i). This (dsRNA) bind to and prevent
has been cloned from the bacteria and been translation of specific mRNA of nematode
expressed in plants to provide resistance to (gene silencing). Thus transgenic plants
insects without the need for insecticides. based on RNAi technology are resistant to
6. (c) RNAi is a method of cellular defense nematode.
in all eukaryotes. It is a system within living 12. (c) Organic farming is the form of agriculture
cells that helps to control the activity of that relies on the techniques like crop rotation,
specific genes. This method involves silencing green manure, compost and biological pest
of mRNA due to complementary double control.
stranded RNA that prevents translation of 13. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis produces a large
target gene or mRNA [silencing]. Source of amount of cr ystalline protein during
ds RNA is retrovirus (having RNA genome) sporulation. In the cell toxins are formed
or transposons (mobile genetic material). along with the spore and are referred to as
7. (c) Golden rice is vitamin A rich variety parasporal body. The bacteria are capable
developed by rDNA technology and used in of entering the insect’s blood and using the
the treatment of vitamin A deficiency. host insect to reproduce. The proteins from
ingested spores are activated by gut, high
8. (a) RNA interference technique, sense
pH and the polypeptide toxins destroy gut
& antisense RNA fused to form dsRNA epithelial cells and kill the pest.
 EBD_7325
408 BIOLOGY
14. (a) The genetically modified brinjal in India 20. (b) The term Green revolution refers to the
has been developed for insect resistance. Bt very substantial increase in yield obtained
brinjal is a transgenic brinjal that is developed by breeding high yielding varieties of crops,
by inserting a crystal gene from the Bacillus under intensive application of fertilizers,
thuringiensis into the brinjal’s genome. This irrigation and pesticides. The world wide
process of insertion is accomplished using increase, in productivity has come to be
Agrobacterium m ­ ediated recombination. known as the ‘Green Revolution’ for which
15. (d) Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus Dr. Borlaug won the Noble Peace Prize in
thuringiensis and incorporated into cotton 1970.
plant to form a genetically modified crop 21. (d) Bt cotton, a transgenic crop variety has
called Bt cotton. Bt cotton has high yield and been introduced in India. The Bt cotton
resistance to bollworms. variety contains a foreign gene obtained
16. (d) About Bt toxin, it is true, that the inactive from Bacillus thuringiensis. This bacterial gene
protoxin gets converted into active form in protects cotton from the ball worm, a major
the insect gut. There are several advantages pest of cotton.
in expressing Bt toxins in transgenic Bt crops. 22. (c) Wild varieties have the genes for the
The level of toxin expression can be very resistance to disease and pests.
high, thus delivering sufficient dosage to the 23. (a) Mammalian hormones were among the
pest. first products prepared in bacteria by r-DNA
The toxin expression is contained within the technology. Human insulin and human
plant system and hence only those insects that growth hormone are earliest examples.
feed on the crop perish. The toxin expression 24. (b) Adenovirus is non-enveloped dsDNA
can be modulated by using tissue-specific virus which cause respiratory diseases.
promoters and replaces the use of synthetic Adenovirus is used as a vehicle to administer
pesticides in the environment. targeted therapy in the form of recombinant
17. (a) The bacterium Bacillus thuringien- DNA or protein. Specific modifications on
sis is widely used in contemporary biol- fibre proteins are used to target adenovirus
ogy as insecticide. Bacillus thuringiensis to certain cell types, a major effort is made
(also known as Bt) is a Gram-positive, soil to limit hepatotoxicity and prevent multiple
dwelling bacterium of the genus Bacillus. organ failure.
Bacillus thuringiensis produces a parasporal 25. (d) Gene therapy is an experimental
insecticidal crystal protein. technique that uses genes to treat or prevent
disease. The first clinical gene therapy was
18. (d) Main objective of production/use of
given for treating adenosine deaminase
herbicide resistant GM crops is to reduce
deficiency. A four-year old girl became the
herbicide accumulation in food articles for
first gene therapy patient on September 14,
health safety. GM plants has been useful 1990 at the NIH Clinical Center. Adenosine
in many ways. Genetic modifications has deaminase deficiency, also called ADA
made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses, deficiency or ADA-SCID is an autosomal
reduced reliance on chemical pesticides, recessive metabolic disorder that causes
enhanced nutritional value of food. immunodeficiency. ADA deficiency is due to
19. (d) Cry endotoxin obtained from Bacillus a lack of the enzyme adenosine deaminase.
thuringiensis are effective against bollworms. 26. (c) A fed batch is a biotechnological batch
A bollworm is a common term for any larva process which is based on feeding of a growth
of a moth that attacks the fruiting bodies of limiting nutrient substrate to culture. It is done
certain crops, especially cotton. for purifying enzymes.
Biotechnology and Its Applications 409
27. (c) A modern hospital can make use regulates GM research and safety of introduc-
of variety of sophisticated instruments ing GM organisms for public service in the
and equipment of accurate diagnosis and country.
treatment of diseases. Three main categories 33. (b) In the world maximum number of
of instruments and equipments used are existing transgenic animals is mice.
diagnostic, imaging and therapeutic. 34. (d) Transgenic Rosie is actually cow. Restric-
From the above given statements, statement tion enzymes cut the DNA at specific sites.
a & c are correct. 35. (a) Genetic engineering has been successfully
• During open heart surgery blood is used for producing transgenic mice. Many
circulated in the heart lung machine. transgenic mice are designed to increase our
• Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT) understanding of how genes contribute to
shows detailed internal structure as seen development of diseases. Transgenic mice are
in a section of body. being developed for use in testing the safety of
28. (b) Ultrasound imaging has frequency vaccine before they are used in human beings.
range 1 - 15 MHz which has become part For example transgenic mice are being used
of our lives in the last decade. We are now to test the safety of polio vaccine.
all familiar with the blurry black and white 36. (a) Transgenic plants are the ones generated
sonograms (ultrasound pictures) that show by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and
the unborn baby inside the mother's uterus. regenerating a plant from that cell.
Although it may take a little imagination on 37. (d) Golden rice is a transgenic food crop
our part to understand that a round circle is which may help in solving the problem of night
the baby's head, that does not prevent a proud blindness in developing countries. Golden
mother-to-be from showing off her first baby rice or miracle rice is rich in vitamin A or
picture. β-carotene and iron. Decaffeinated coffee are
29. (d) also valuable achievements of gene transfer
30. (a) Monoclonal antibodies are identical technology.
molecules specific for one type of antigen. 38. (d) Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the
These are obtained by injecting the target future with high Vit. A content. Millions of
antigen into a rat or mouse. Sometimes people suffer from Vit. A deficiency which
later, the spleen cells producing antibodies leads to vision impairment. Transgenic rice
are isolated and fused with myeloma cells to has been developed which is capable of
produce monoclonal antibodies. synthesizing beta carotene, the precursor of
31. (a) Human insulin has 53 amino acids Vitamin A. The transgenic rice variety is now
in two polypeptides (A and B) connected being crossed with adapted varieties through
by two S-S (disulphide) linkages. In 1983, field tests to make them grow in an year or
American company Eli Lilly prepared two two.
DNA sequences corresponding to A and B 39. (d) Escherichia coli is a bacterium found in
insulin chains. When introduced in plamids human colon. On this bacterium scientists
of E.coli, insulin chains were formed. They have made extensive genetic experiments to
were extracted and fused to produce humulin make some vital chemicals like insulin. An-
(human insulin). other bacterium is Agrobacterium tumefaciens
32. (b) Genetic Engineering Approval Commit- which causes crown gall in plants is exten-
tee is the body of Government of India. It sively used for genetic experiments.
 EBD_7325
Chapter

35 Organisms and
Populations
Topic 1 : Organism & Its Environment (i) Burrowing in soil to escape high
temperature
1. Presence of plants arranged into well defined
(ii) Losing heat rapidly from the body during
vertical layers depending on their height can
high temperature
be seen best in: [2017]
(iii) Bask in sun when temperature is low
(a) Tropical Rain Forest (iv) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis
(b) Grassland Options :
(c) Temperate Forest (a) (iii), (iv) (b) (i)
(d) Tropical Savannah (c) (iii), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii)
2. Most animals are tree dwellers in a:  [2015 RS] 7. Which one of the following statements is
(a) Thorn woodland correct for secondary succession ? [2011]
(b) Temperate deciduous forest (a) It begins on a bare rock
(c) Tropical rain forest (b) It occurs on a deforested site
(d) Coniferous forest (c) It follows primary succession
3. Benthic organisms are affected most by (d) It is similar to primary succession except
[NEET Kar. 2013] that it has a relatively fast pace
(a) Water-holding capacity of soil 8. The logistic population growth is expressed by
(b) Light reaching the forest floor the equation: [2011M]
(c) Surface turbulence of water (a) dt/dN = Nr
(d) Sediment characteristics of aquatic
ecosystems
4. Which one of the following is not a parasitic (b) dN/dt = rN
adaptation? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) Loss of unnecessary sense organs (c) dN/dt = rN
(b) Development of adhesive organs (d) dN/dt = rN
(c) Loss of digestive organs
(d) Loss of reproductive capacity 9. The figure given below is a diagrammatic
5. Large woody vines are more commonly found representation of response of organisms to
in : [2011] abiotic factors. What do a, b and c represent
(a) temperate forest respectively? [2010]
(b) mangroves b
(c) tropical rainforests
Internal level

(d) alpine forests

a
6. Consider the following four conditions c
(i) - (iv) and select the correct pair of them as
adaptation to environment in desert lizards.
The conditions : [2011]
External level
 Organisms and Populations 411

(i) (ii) (iii) (d) Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host
plant through root hair deformation
(a) conformer regulator partial
and stimulates cell proliferation in the
regulator
host’s cortex
(b) regulator partial conformer 13. What is a keystone species ? [2004]
regulator
(a) A species which makes up only a small
(c) partial regulator regulator conformer proportion of the total biomass of a
(d) regulator conformer partial community, yet has a huge impact on the
regulator community’s organization and survival
10. Consider the following four statements
(b) A common species that has plenty of
(a-d) about certain desert animals such as biomass, yet has a fairly low impact on
the community’s organization
kangaroo, rat. [2008]
(c) A rare species that has minimal impact
(1) They have dark colour and high rate of
on the biomass and on other species in
reproduction and excrete solid urine
the community
(2) They do not drink water, breathe at a
(d) A dominant species that constitutes a
slow rate to conserve water and have large proportion of the biomass and
their body covered with thick hairs which affects many other species.
(3) They feed on dry seeds and do not require 14. In which one of the following habitats does
drinking water the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary
(4) They excrete very concentrated urine most? [2004]
and do not use water to regulate body (a) Shrub land (b) Forest
temperature (c) Desert (d) Grassland
Which two of the above statements for such 15. Diffuse porous woods are characteristic of
animals are true? [2008] plants growing in [2003]
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (a) tropics
(c) 3 and 1 (d) 1 and 2 (b) alpine region
11. Which one of the following pairs is (c) cold winter regions
mismatched? [2005] (d) temperate climate
16. In which one of the following is nitrogen not
(a) Tundra - permafrost
a constituent ? [2003]
(b) Savanna - acacia trees (a) Pepsin
(c) Prairie - epiphytes (b) Idioblast
(d) Coniferous forest - evergreen trees (c) Bacteriochlorophyll
12. All of the following statements concerning (d) Invertase
the Actinomycetes filamentous soil 17. Cause of mimicry is [2002]
bacterium Frankia are correct except that (a) concealment
Frankia : [2005] (b) attack (offence)
(a) Can induce root nodules on many plant (c) protection (defence)
species (d) both (b) and (c)
(b) Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living 18. Which part of the world has a high density
state. of organisms? [1999]
(c) Forms specialized vesicles in which the (a) Grasslands
nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by (b) Savannahs
a chemical barrier involving triterpene (c) Deciduous forests
hopanoids (d) Tropical rain forests
 EBD_7325
412 BIOLOGY
19. Plants such as Prosopis, Acacia and Capparis 26. Xeric environment is characterised by  [1994]
represent examples of tropical [1998] (a) precipitation
(a) thorn forests (b) low atmospheric humidity
(b) deciduous forests (c) extremes of temperature
(c) evergreen forests (d) high rate of vapourisation
(d) grasslands 27. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of
20. Which of the following communities is more salinity are [1994]
vulnerable to invasion by outside animals and
(a) stenohaline (b) euryhaline
plants ? [1998]
(a) Tropical evergreen forests (c) anadromous (d) catadromous
(b) Oceanic island communities 28. Tropical forests occur in India [1994]
(c) Mangroves (a) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Temperate forests. (b) Rajasthan
21. Species occurring in different geographical (c) Kerala and Assam
areas are called as  [1998] (d) The forests do not occur in India
(a) sibling (b) sympatric 29. Soil best suited for plant growth is [1993]
(c) allopatric (d) neopatric (a) clay (b) loam
22. Keystone species in an ecosystem are those (c) sandy (d) gravel
[1997] 30. A fertile agricultural soil appears deep
(a) present in maximum number coloured at the surface as compared to soil
(b) that are most frequent one metre down. The reason for colour of
(c) attaining a large biomass top soil is [1992]
(d) contributing to ecosystem properties (a) more moisture
(b) rich in organic matter
23. The high boiling point of water is
advantageous to living organisms because (c) rich in iron, calcium and magnesium
 [1997] (d) recent formation
31. Soil particles determine its [1992]
(a) the environment seldom reaches the
(a) texture
boiling point of water
(b) field capacity
(b) organisms can easily boil off enough
(c) water holding capacity
water to keep themselves cool
(d) soil flora
(c) it allows organisms to spread heat
32. Homeostasis is [1991]
evenly throughout their bodies
(a) tendency of biological systems to change
(d) organisms can absorb a great deal of with change in environment
heat before they reach the boiling point (b) tendency of biological systems to resist
from organisms and population change
24. Which of the following pairs is correctly (c) disturbance of self regulatory system and
matched? [1995] natural controls
(a) uricotelism - aquatic habitat (d) biotic materials used in homeopathic
(b) parasitism - intra-specific relationship medicines.
(c) excessive perspiration - xeric adaptation 33. Deep black soil is productive due to high
(d) stream lined body - aquatic adaptation proportion of [1991]
25. Desert plants are generally  [1995] (a) sand and zinc
(b) gravel and calcium
(a) viviparous (b) succulent
(c) clay and humus
(c) herbaceous (d) heterophyllus
(d) silt and earthworm
Organisms and Populations 413

Topic 2 : Population Attributes/Population 39. When does the growth rate of a population
Growth/Population Interactions following the logistic model equal zero ? The
logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1–N/K)
34. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is [2016]
obtained when : [2017] (a) when N/K is exactly one.
(a) K = N (b) when N nears the carrying capacity of
(b) K > N the habitat.
(c) when N/K equals zero.
(c) K < N
(d) when death rate is greater than birth rate.
(d) The value of 'r' approaches zero
40. In which of the following interactions both
35. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding partners are adversely affected ? [2015 RS]
higher milk output represents : [2017] (a) Predation (b) Parasitism
(a) Directional as it pushes the mean of the (c) Mutualism (d) Competition
character in one direction 41. The following graph depicts changes in
(b) Disruptive as it splits the population into two populations (A and B) of herbivores
two, one yielding higher output and the in a grassy field A possible reason for these
other lower output changes is that:  [2015 RS]
(c) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as
it stabilizes the population to produce
higher yielding cows
(d) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this
character in the population
36. Select the mismatch : [2017] (a) Population B competed more successfully
(a) Rhodospirillum - Mycorrhiza for food than population A
(b) Anabaena - Nitrogen fixer (b) Population A produced more offspring
than population B
(c) Rhizobium - Alfalfa
(c) Population A consumed the members of
(d) Frankia - Alnus population B
37. Mycorrhizae are the example of: [2017] (d) Both plant populations in this habitat
(a) Amensalism (b) Antibiosis decreased
(c) Mutualism (d) Fungistasis 42. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to
38. Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion the shell lining of hermit crab. The association
states that : [2016] is : [NEET 2013]
(a) more abundant species will exclude (a) Symbiosis (b) Commensalism
the less abundant species through (c) Amensalism (d) Ectoparasitism
competition. 43. A biologist studied the population of rats in
a barn. He found that the average natality was
(b) competition for the same resources
250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and
excludes species having different food
emigration 30. The net increase in population
preferences.
is : [NEET 2013]
(c) no two species can occupy the same (a) 15 (b) 05
niche indefinitely for the same limiting (c) zero (d) 10
resources. 44. Cuscuta is an example of [2012M]
(d) larger organisms exclude smaller ones (a) ectoparasitism (b) brood parasitism
through competition. (c) predation (d) endoparasitism
 EBD_7325
414 BIOLOGY
45. What type of human population is represented
by the following age pyramid? [2011]

(a) Vanishing population

(b) Stable population
(c) Declining population
(d) Expanding population
46. Which one of the following is one of the
characteristics of a biological community?
[2010]
(a) Stratification (b) Natality Select the correct interpretation about them:
(c) Mortality (d) Sex ratio Interpretations:
47. A country with a high rate of population (a) “B” is earlier pyramid and shows
growth took measures to reduce it. The Figure stabilised growth rate.
below shows age-sex pyramids of populations
(b) “B” is more recent showing that
A and B twenty years apart. [2009]
population is very young
(c) “A” is the earlier pyramid and no change
has occurred in the growth rate.
(d) “A” is more recent and shows slight
reduction in the growth rate.
48. What is true about the isolated small tribal
populations? [2008]
(a) There is a decline in population as boys
marry girls only from their own tribe
(b) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness
do not spread in the isolated population
(c) Wrestlers who develop strong body
muscles in their life time pass this
character on to their progeny
(d) There is no change in population size as
they have a large gene pool
Organisms and Populations 415
49. Geometric representation of age structure is 55. Praying mantis is a good example of [2006]
a characteristic of [2007] (a) warning colouration
(a) population (b) social insects
(b) landscape (c) camouflage
(c) ecosystem (d) mullerian mimicry
(d) biotic community. 56. People living at sea level have around
50. The population of an insect species shows an 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their
explosive increase in numbers during rainy blood whereas those living at an altitude of
season followed by its disappearance at the 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is
end of the season. What does this show? because at high altitude    [1995, 2006]
[2007] (a) atmospheric O2 level is less and hence
(a) The food plants mature and die at the more RBCs are needed to absorb the
end of the rainy season required amount of O2 to survive
(b) Its population growth curve is of J-type (b) there is more UV radiation which
(c) The population of its predators increases enhances RBC production
enormously (c) people eat more nutritive food, therefore
(d) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this more RBCs are formed
insect. (d) people get pollution - free air to breathe
51. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong and more oxygen is available
to the same species if they [2007] 57. Which of the following is not true for a
(a) have more than 90 per cent similar genes species?  [2005]
(b) look similar and possess identical (a) Members of a species can interbreed.
secondary metabolites (b) Gene flow does not occur between the
(c) have same number of chromosomes populations of a species.
(c) Each species is reproductively isolated
(d) can reproduce freely with each other and
from every other species.
form seeds.
(d) Variations occur among members of a
52. A high density of elephant population in an
area can result in [2007] species.
58. The maximum growth rate occurs in [2004]
(a) intra specific competition
(a) stationary phase (b) senescent phase
(b) inter specific competition
(c) lag phase (d) exponential phase
(c) predation on one another
59. Certain characteristic demographic features
(d) mutualism.
of developing countries are [2004]
53. Niche overlap indicates [2006]
(a) high fertility, low or rapidly falling
(a) two different parasites on the same host
mortality rate, rapid population growth
(b) sharing of one or more resources between
and a very young age distribution
the two species
(b) high fertility, high density, rapidly rising
(c) mutualism between two species
mortality rate and a very young age
(d) active cooperation between two species
distribution
54. The formula for exponential population
growth is [2006] (c) high infant mortality, low fertility, uneven
population growth and a very young age
(a) dN/rN = dt
distribution
(b) rN / dN = dt
(d) high mortality, high density, uneven
(c) dN / dt = rN
population growth and a very old age
(d) dt / dN = rN
distribution
 EBD_7325
416 BIOLOGY
60. Two opposite forces operate in the growth 67. Exponential growth of cells is a characteristic
and development of every population. One feature of [1999]
of them relates to the ability to reproduce at (a) tissue culture cells
a given rate. The force opposing it is called (b) multicellular organisms
[2003] (c) unicellular organisms
(a) environmental resistance (d) embryo
(b) morbidity 68. A pair of insectivorous plants is [1999]
(c) fecundity (a) Drosera and Rafflesia
(d) biotic potential (b) Nepenthes and Bladderwort
(c) Dionaea and Viscum
61. In a population unrestricted reproductive
capacity is called as [2002] (d) Venus fly trap and Rafflesia
69. An interesting modification of flower shape
(a) biotic potential
for insect pollination occurs in some orchids
(b) fertility
in which a male insect mistakes the pattern
(c) carrying capacity
on the orchid flower for the female of his
(d) birth rate
species and tries to copulate with it, thereby
62. Choose the correct sequence of stages of
pollinating the flower. This phenomenon is
growth curve for bacteria [2002]
called [1998]
(a) Lag, log, stationary, decline phase
(a) mimicry
(b) Lag, log, stationary phase
(b) pseudopollination
(c) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase
(c) pseudocopulation
(d) Decline, lag, log phase (d) pseudoparthenocarpy
63. The semilog of per minute growing bacteria 70. In increasing order of organizational
is plotted against time. What will be the shape complexity, which one of the following is the
of graph? [2002]
correct sequence? [1997]
(a) Sigmoid (a) Population, species, community,
(b) Hyperbolic ecosystem
(c) Ascending straight line (b) Population, variety, species, ecosystem
(d) Descending straight line (c) Population, ecosystem, species, community
64. Which of the following is a correct pair? (d) Species, variety, ecosystem, community
(a) Cuscuta – parasite  [2002] 71. What is the most important factor for the
(b) Dischidia – insectivorous success of animal population? [1997]
(c) Opuntia – predator (a) Natality
(d) Capsella – hydrophyte (b) Unlimited food
65. Choose the correct match [2002] (c) Adaptability
(a) Trapa, Dionaea, Drosera (d) Inter-species activity
(b) Nepenthes ,Utricularia, Vanda 72. The present population of the world is about
(c) Utricularia, Drosera , Dionaea [1997]
(d) Dionaea, Trapa, Vanda (a) 500 million (b) 100 billion
66. Which type of association is found in between (c) 6 billion (d) 15 billion
entomophilous flower and pollinating agent 73. Human population growth in India [1996]
[2002] (a) tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in case
(a) mutualism (b) commensalism of many other animal species
(c) cooperation (d) co-evolution (b) tends to reach a zero population growth
as in case of some animal species
 Organisms and Populations 417
(c) can be reduced by permitting natural 78. Which one is true? [1991]
calamities and enforcing birth control (a) Commensalism when none of the
measures interacting populations affect each other
(d) can be regulated by following the (b) Symbiosis when the interaction is useful
national programme of family planning to both the populations
74. The concept that population tends to increase (c) Symbiosis when neither populations
affects each other
geometrically while food supply increases
(d) Commensalism when the interaction is
arithmetically was put forward by [1995]
useful to both the populations
(a) Stuart Mill
79. Vivipary is characteristic of  [1990]
(b) Adam Smith
(a) mesophytes (b) xerophytes
(c) Charles Darwin (c) hygrophytes (d) halophytes
(d) Thomas Malthus 80. Competition for light, nutrients and space is
75. In India, human population is heavily most severe between [1988]
weighed towards the younger age groups as (a) closely related organism growing in
a result of [1995] different niches
(a) short life span of many individuals and (b) closely related organisms growing in the
low birth rate same area/niche
(b) long life span of many individuals and (c) distantly related organisms growing in
low birth rate the same habitat
(c) short life span of many individuals and (d) distantly related organisms growing in
high birth rate different niches
81. A mutually beneficial association necessary
(d) long life span of many individuals and
for survival of both partners is [1988]
high birth rate
(a) mutualism/symbiosis
76. The sum total of the populations of the same
(b) commensalism
kind of organisms constitute [1993]
(c) amensalism
(a) colony (b) genus
(d) both A and B
(c) community (d) species
77. Association of animals when both partners
are benefitted [1993]
(a) colony (b) mutualism
(c) commensalism (d) amensalism
 EBD_7325
418 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (a) The tropical rain forest have five vertical population). It is a type of population growth
strata on the basis of plants height i.e., ground when resources are limiting.
vegetation, shrubs, short canopy trees, tall 9. (d) In the graph, the line a represents
canopy trees and tall emergent trees. regulator, line b represents conformer and
2. (c) In tropical rain forest zone, most of the line c represents partial regulator. Organism
animals prefer to live on trees. The reason that are able to maintain homeostasis by
is that the floor of forest is full of humidity, physiological means that ensures constant
decomposing leaves and other organic matters body temperature are called regulators.
and is the habitat of insects etc. Organism that are not able to maintain a
3. (d) The sediment characteristics often constant internal temperature are called
determine the type of benthic animals that conformers.
can thrive there.
Partial regulators are organisms that have
4. (d) In Parasitism, one species (parasite) is
the ability to regulate, but only over a limited
benefitted and the other (host) is harmed.
range of environmental conditions, beyond
Parasites have very high reproduction
which they simply conform.
capacity. The life cycles of parasites are often
10. (a) Characteristics of certain desert animals
complex, involving one or two intermediate
such as kangaroo, rat are -
hosts or vectors to facilitate parasitisation of
• They feed on dry seeds and do not
its primary host.
require drinking water.
5. (c) Large woody vines are more commonly
• They excrete very concentrated urine
found in tropical rain forests. This is a
and do not use water to regulate body
common concern in the high humidity
temperature.
climatic condition.
11. (c) Prairies is a grass land, and epiphytes and
6. (b) Some species make permanent burrows
ephemerals are found in desert. In Tundra
deep into the soil to escape high temperature
much of the ground stays frozen round the
or sunlight and some cold blooded animals
year, this condition is called permafrost. The
often like to bask in the sun to warm up their
Acacia trees are common in African savannas.
body.
In coniferous forest all plants do not shed their
7. (b) Secondary succession refers to the
leaves at the same time hence forest remain
regrowth of a habitat in the area where
ever green.
disruptive event has occurred and eliminated
12. (b) Frankia, is a nitrogen fixing mycelial
the existing, above ground plant life of the
bacterium which is not free living and
natural habitat. So, it occurs on a deforested
associated symbiotically with the root nodules
site.
of several non legume plants.
8. (b) The logistic population growth is
13. (a) A keystone species is the one which
expressed by the equation makes up only a small proportion of the
total biomass of a community, yet has a huge
where N is population density at time t, r is impact on the community’s organization and
the Malthusian parameter (rate of maximum survival.
population growth) and K is the so called 14. (c) Desert show maximum difference
carrying capacity (i.e. maximum sustainable between day and night temperature.
Organisms and Populations 419
15. (a) Diffused porous wood have vessels are developed due to reproductive isolation
irregularly arranged within the wood. In and occur in overlapping or same area of
tropics, there is no sharp distinction between geographical distribution. Parapatric species
the seasons; hence, there is not much are developed in adjacent geographical areas
difference in the activity of cambium. meeting in very narrow regions of overlap.
16. (b) Raphides are needle-shaped crystals of 22. (d) The keystone species in an ecosystem
calcium carbonate or calcium oxalate found are those who are the main contributors to
in specialized plant cells called idioblasts. It the ecosystem.
is believed that the raphides are a defense 23. (b) This is one of the reasons for
organisms being homeostatic (constant body
mechanism against plant predators, as they
temperature).
are likely to tear the soft tissues of the throat
24. (d) The correctly matched pair is streamlined
or esophagus of a plant predator chewing on
body for aquatic adaptation.
the plant’s leaves. They are non-nitrogenous Parasitism-inter specific relationship
substances. in which one species (parasite) benefits for
17. (a) Mimicry is resemblance of an organism growth and reproduction and other species
to its natural surroundings, a non living object (host) harmed. Parasite live on or inside the
or another organism for concealing itself from body of host.
its natural predators or preys. 25. (b) Succulent plants are fleshy xerophytes,
18. (d) Tropical rain forests occur in equatorial which can grow in low water level area
and subequatorial regions. The forests receive (desert). That is why, they are called as desert
all the external inputs for optimum plant plants.
growth. Due to abundant plant growth, a 26. (b) Xeric environment is found in deserts
large number of animals live in tropical rain where temperature remains high in the day
forests. In grasslands fire occur periodically and low during the night and air humidity is
which prevent tree growth. In savannahs very low.
27. (a) Stenohaline : Steno meaning narrow
periods of drought are common. In deciduous
and haline meaning salt. A fish cannot handle
forests are found predominantly broad leaved
a wide fluctuation in salt content in water.
hard wood deciduous trees.
Many fresh water fish tend to be stenohaline
19. (a) Deciduous forests are present in both and die in environments of high salinity such
northern and southern hemisphere contain as the ocean. Fish living in coastal estuaries
broad leaved and hardwood. Deciduous and tide pools are often euryhaline (tolerant
trees – Oak, Maple, Chestnut etc. Evergreen to changes in salinity) as are many species
forests occur in equatorial and subequatorial which have life cycle requiring tolerance to
regions, important plants are Rosewood both fresh water and sea water environments
Ebony, Mahogany, Fig, etc. Grass lands are such as Salmon.
large plains covered by grasses. Prosopis, Acacia 28. (c) In Kerala & Assam tropical forests are
and Capparis are non succulent, thorny hot highly productive terrestrial ecosystem.
desert plants. 29. (b) Loam soil is best suited for plant growth
20. (b) This is so because oceanic islands are because it possesses good aeration, nutritive
normally cut off from other habitats. salts and good water retaining capacity.
30. (b) High organic matter darkens the colour
21. (c) Two or more species which are
of soil. The organic matter is present in the
reproductively isolated from each other
soil is contributed by death and decay of living
but are morphologically quite similar are
known as sibling species. Sympatric species organisms.
 EBD_7325
420 BIOLOGY
31. (a) Soil particles size defines its texture. 36. (a) Rhodospirillum is facultative anaerobe
The mineral particles present in soil, vary and free living nitrogen fixer. Mycorrhiza
enormously in size, the fine fragments show symbiotic relationship between fungi
(consisting of sand, silt and clay particles)
and roots of higher plants.
and coarse fragments (gravel, copples and
stones). The relative proportion's of sand, silt 37. (c) Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association
and clay in a soil is referred as soil texture. between fungi and roots of higher plants.
Fine textured soil have more of clay particles. 38. (c) Gause’s principle of competitive
Water holding capacity-Larger soil particles exclusion can be restated to say that no two
like sand, gravel have large pores. These species can occupy the same niche indefinitely
have less water holding capacity and higher
when resources are limiting. Certainly species
percolotion rate. Field capacity is the amount
of soil moisture or water content held in soil can and do coexist while competing for some
after excess water has drained away. of the same resources. Nevertheless, Gause’s
32. (b) Homeostasis is the property of an open theory predicts that when two species coexist
system, especially living organisms, to regulate on a long-term basis, either resources must not
its internal environment to maintain a stable, be limited or their niches will always differ in
constant condition, by means of multiple
one or more features; otherwise, one species
dynamic equilibrium adjustments, controlled
by interrelated regulation mechanisms. will outcompete the other and the extinction
33. (c) Deep black soil has high content of of the second species will inevitably result, a
clay and humus, which makes it more fertile process referred to as competitive exclusion.
and so productive. Humus is amorphous 39. (a) In logistic growth model population
and colloidal mixture of complex organic growth equation is described as
substances. It provides fertility to the soil.
34. (a) In logistic growth curve, the curve has
an upper a  symptote known as carrying
capacity (K) is obtained when the maximum N = population density at time t;
population size is at = 0. A population r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase;
K = carrying capacity
growing in a habitat with limited resources When N/K = 1; 1 – =0
shows logistic growth curve.
For logistic growth
Therefore, =0

40. (d) Competition occurs for light, food and

space among organisms in which all partners
If K = N then =0 are adversely affected in an ecosystem.
41. (a) The given graph illustrates that population
∴ the = 0. B got success in the grassy field in comparison to
population A.
the population reaches asymptote.
42. (b) Commensalism is a interaction where
35. (a) Artificial selection to obtain cow yielding
one species is benefitted and other is neither
higher milk output will shift the peak to one benefitted nor harmed.
direction, so this represent an example of 43. (c) Net increase in population :
Directional selection. In stabilizing selection, (Natality + Immigration) – (Mortality
the organisms with the mean value of the + Emigration)
trait are selected. In disruptive selection, both (250 + 20) – (240 + 30) = 270 – 270 = 0
extremes get selected. 44. (a) Cuscuta, or Dodder plant, is a parasitic
Organisms and Populations 421
plant that wraps around other plants for colouring of an animal which enables it to
nourishment. Cuscuta is found on outer side blend in with its surroundings.
of the host and is total stem parasite. Cuscuta A praying mantis, or praying mantid, is the
a parasite of Acacia. common name for an insect of the order
45. (c) This age pyramid represents the declining Mantodea. Often mistakenly spelled praying
population of any organism. Population mantis (a tempting mistake, as they are
decline is the reduction over time in region’s notoriously predatory) they are in fact named
census. It can be caused for several reasons for the typical “prayer-like” stance. The word
that includes heavy immigration disease, mantis derives from the Greek word mantis for
famine or sub-replacement fertility. prophet or fortune teller.
46. (a) Stratification is one of the characteristics
of biological community. Natality, mortality,
age, structure and sex ratio are basic
characteristics of a population.
47. (d) ‘A’ is more recent and shows slight
reduction in growth rate. A praying mantis from India
48. (a) There is a decline in population as boys 56. (a) At an altitude of 5400 meters the low
marry girls only from their own tribe in the atmospheric pressure of O2 will be very low,
isolated small tribal populations. so the solubility of oxygen in the blood will
49. (a) Geometric representation of age be very less hence the oxygen carried by each
structure a characteristic of population. RBC will be too less. But to fulfill the oxygen
50. (b) If a population (e.g reindeer population) requirement of the body, blood has to carry
is allowed to grow in a predator free more oxygen to the body tissue and this is
environment, the population grows beyond done by the increased no. of RBCs.
carrying capacity and there occurs population 57. (b) Gene flow is the spread of genes through
crash due to sudden shortage of food. Such populations as effected by movements
growth curves also occur in insect populations of individual and their propagules, e.g.
during rainy season, and in algal blooms. seeds spores etc. Gene flow ensures that
51. (d) When the members of a species are inter all populations of a given species share a
- fertile and produce fertile offsprings. common gene pool. i.e. it reduces difference
52. (a) It is competition between individuals of between populations. The interruption of
same species. The intraspecific competition gene flow between populations is a pre-
may be very severe because all the members of requisite for the formation of new species.
a species have similar requirements of food, 58. (d) In the sigmoid growth curve growth is
habitat mate, etc. and they also have similar slow in the lag phase. Growth rate remains
adaptations to get their needs. stable during the stationary phase and
53. (b) Niche indicate the habitat of a particular it declines during the senescent phase.
species and the interaction of that species with Growth increases logarithmically during the
the resources present in the habitat. Niche exponential phase.
overlap means that two or more species share 59. (a) Demography is the study of population
in all aspects. Fertility refers to the number
the resources present in a particular niche.
of children per couple. Mortality rate is the
54. (c) The formula of exponential growth is
average number of natural deaths per unit
dN dN population per unit time. Age distribution
= rN where is the rate of change in
dt dt refers to the proportionate occurrence
population size, r is the biotic potential and of individuals of the three age groups.
N is the population size. Developing countries usually have high rate
55. (c) Praying mantis is a good example of of population growth, because of increasing
camouflage. Camouflage is the natural fertility and declining mortality.
 EBD_7325
422 BIOLOGY
60. (a) Biotic potential is the inherent ability of interdependent, and ecosystem is a self
an organism to reproduce. Resistance refers sufficient and self regulating segment of
to the sum total of all the limiting factors that nature comprising of a biotic community
inhibit further growth of population. and its physical environment, both interacting
61. (a) Carrying capacity refers to the maximum and exchanging materials. The basic level
number of individuals that can be sustained of ecological organisation starts with the
by the environment. Birth rate refers to individual, the next more complex levels are
number of births per unit population. populations, species, community and then
62. (a) The growth curve for bacteria is sigmoid. ecosystem.
First phase is the phase of slow growth- 71. (c) Natality refers to the rate at which new
Lag phase. Second phase is the period of individuals are born. Adaptability refers to the
accelerated growth - Log phase. Third phase capacity of the organisms to adapt themselves
is the phase when growth rate becomes to their environment.
stable - Stationary phase. Finally growth rate 72. (c) Human population in world is estimated
declines. to have crossed 6 billion in the year 1999.
63. (c) Semilog of per minute growing bacterium 73. (d) Human population growth in India
when plotted against time, would yield can be regulated by following the national
ascending straight line. programme of family planning.
64. (a) Opuntia is a xerophyte. Cuscuta is a
74. (d) Thomas R. Malthus put forward a
parasite. Capsella is not a hydrophyte.
theory of human population growth in
65. (c) These are all insectivorous plants.
1778. He told that population grows in
66. (a) Commensalism is interaction between geometrical progression, whereas the means
two individuals in which one is benefitted which support it, grow only in arithmetical
while the other is unaffected. In mutualism progression.
both individuals are beneficial for each other. 75. (c) In India, there is short life span of
The pollinating insect gets nectar from flower individuals and high birth rate as compared
and in turn helps in pollination of flowers. to other countries. That is why, the human
67. (a) Tissue culture cells graph is ‘J’ shaped. population is heavily weighed towards the
68. (b) Insectivorous plants supplement the younger age groups.
supply of nitrogenous food by capturing and 76. (d) A species is a group of individuals of
digesting insects. Pitcher plant (Nepenthes) same kind of phenotypic characters and can
and bladderwort (Utricularia) are both interbreed easily.
insectivorous plants. 77. (b) Mutualism type of interactions are
69. (a) Mimicry is resemblance of an organism shown in plant roots in mycorrhizal region.
to its natural surrounding, a non-living object
or another organism for concealing itself 78. (b) Symbiosis when the interaction is useful
from its enemies. Flowers of Ophrys muscifera for both the populations.
resemble the female wasps of Colpa aurea so 79. (d) Special type of seed germination,
that the male wasp tries to copulate with the characteristic of halophytes growing in
flowers and pollinate them. saline conditions is vivipary. The seed
70. (a) Population is an aggregation or grouping germination occurs inside the fruit while it is
of individuals of the same species at the same attached to the parent plant.
time in a particular area. Species is a grouping 80. (b) Competition is most severe between the
of individuals of one or more populations members of a population belonging to same
resembling each other in impor tant niches.
morphological, anatomical and biochemical 81. (a) Symbiosis or mutualism is a mutually
characters and can potentially interbreed. beneficial association necessary for the
Biotic community is an assemblage of survival of both the partners.
 Chapter

36 Ecosystem

Topic 1: Ecosystem-Structure & Function/ (b) Catabolism-Last step decomposition

Productivity Decomposition under fully anaerobic condition
(c) Leaching-Water soluble inorganic
1. The term ecosystem was coined by [2016] nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
(a) E.P. Odum (b) A.G. Tansley (d) Fragmentation-Carried out by organisms
(c) E.Haeckel (d) E. Warming such as earthworm
2. Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters 7. Secondary productivity is rate of formation
are: [2015 RS] of new organic matter by  [NEET 2013]
(a) secondary consumers (a) Parasite (b) Consumer
(b) tertiary consumers (c) Decomposer (d) Producer
(c) detritivores 8. The rate of formation of new organic matter
(d) primary consumers by rabbit in a grassland, is called [2012M]
3. Vertical distribution of different species (a) net productivity
occupying different levels in a biotic (b) secondary productivity
community is known as:  [2015 RS] (c) net primary productivity
(a) Stratification (b) Zonation (d) gross primary productivity
(c) Pyramid (d) Divergence 9. The breakdown of detritus into smaller
particles by earthworm is a process called
4. The mass of living material at a trophic level
at a particular time is called : [2015 RS] [2011M]
(a) Standing state (a) humification (b) fragmentation
(b) Net primary productivity (c) mineralisation (d) catabolism
(c) Standing crop 10. Of the total incident solar radiation the
(d) Gross primary productivity proportion of PAR is : [2011]
5. In an ecosystem the rate of production of (a) about 70% (b) about 60%
organic matter during photosynthesis is (c) less than 50% (d) more than 80%
termed as:  [2015 RS] 11. The biomass available for consumption by the
(a) Gross primary productivity herbivores and the decomposers is called:
(b) Secondary productivity (a) net primary productivity [2010]
(c) Net productivity (b) secondary productivity
(d) Net primary productivity (c) standing crop
6. Which one of the following processes during (d) gross primary productivity
decomposition is correctly described? 12. About 70% of total global carbon is found
[NEET 2013] in [2008]
(a) Humification-Leads to the accumulation (a) grasslands (b) agroecosystems
of a dark coloured substance humus (c) oceans (d) forests
which undergoes microbial action at
every fast rate
 EBD_7325
424 BIOLOGY
13. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs 19. Which of the following ecosystems has
in nature is due to their [2008] highest rate of gross primary production?
(a) low moisture content (a) Grasslands [1997]
(b) poor nitrogen content
(c) anaerobic environment around them (b) Mangroves
(d) low cellulose content (c) Coral reefs
14. Which one of the following ecosystem (d) Equatorial rain forest
types has the highest annual net primary 20. Niche of a species in an ecosystem refers to
productivity? [2007] its  [1996]
(a) tropical deciduous forest (a) function at its place of occurrence
(b) temperate evergreen forest (b) place of its occurrence
(c) temperate deciduous forest (c) competitive ability
(d) tropical rain forest. (d) centre of origin
15. Which of the following is expected to have
21. Which of the following does not have
the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland
stomata?  [1995]
ecosystem? [2004]
(a) hydrophytes
(a) Secondary Production
(b) mesophytes
(b) Tertiary Production

(c) xerophytes
(c) Gross Production (GP)
(d) submerged hydrophytes
(d) Net Production (NP) 22. If we completely remove the decomposers
16. Pneumatophores are characteristic of plants from an ecosystem, its functioning will be
growing in  [2000] adversely affected, because  [1995]
(a) saline soils (a) energy flow will be blocked
(b) sandy soils (b) herbivores will not receive solar energy
(c) marshy places and salt lakes (c) mineral movement will be blocked
(d) dryland regions (d) rate of decomposition will be very high
17. The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the 23. Which of the following is the most stable
oceans is that of  [2000] ecosystem?  [1995]
(a) Forest (b) Desert
(a) sea grasses and slime moulds
(c) Mountain (d) Ocean
(b) free floating microalgae, cyanobacteria
24. In a biotic community, the most important
and nanoplankton
factor for survival of an animal is [1994]
(c) benthic brown algae,coastal red algae
(a) day length (b) soil moisture
and daphnids
(c) green food (d) predators
(d) benthic diatoms and marine viruses
25. Bulk CO2 fixation occurs in [1994]
18. The rate at which light energy is converted to
(a) Crop plants
the chemical energy of organic molecules is
(b) Oceans
the ecosystem’s  [1998]
(c) Tropical rain forests
(a) net primary productivity
(d) Temperature forests
(b) gross primary productivity
26. Decomposers are organisms that [1994]
(c) net secondary productivity
(a) elaborate chemical substances, causing
(d) gross secondary productivity death of tissues
Ecosystem 425
(b) operate in living body and simplifying 34. Secondary Succession takes place on/in :
organic substances of cells step by step (a) Degraded forest [2015 RS]
(c) attack and kill plants as well as animals (b) Newly created pond
(d) operate in relay terms, simplifying step (c) Newly cooled lava
by step the organic constituents of dead (d) Bare rock
body 35. During ecological succession: [2015 RS]
27. Study of inter-relationships between (a) the establishment of a new biotic
organisms and their environment is [1993] community is very fast in its primary
(a) ecology (b) ecosystem phase.
(b) the numbers and types of animals remain
(c) phytogeography (d) ethology
constant.
28. Pedology is science of  [1991] (c) the changes lead to a community that is
(a) earth (b) soil in near equilibrium with the environment
(c) diseases (d) pollution and is called pioneer community.
29. Greatest producers of organic matter are (d) the gradual and predictable change in
(a) crop plants [1989] species composition occurs in a given
(b) forests area.
(c) plants of the land area 36. Increase in concentration of the toxicant at
(d) phytoplankton of oceans successive trophic levels is known as :
30. Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem (a) Biodeterioration [2015 RS]
(b) Biotransformation
contains  [1988]
(c) Biogeochemical
(a) plankton
(d) Biomagnification
(b) nekton
37. During biological nitrogen fixation,
(c) plankton and nekton
inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen
(d) benthos poisoning is prevented by : [2015 RS]
Topic 2: Energy Flow/Ecological Pyramids/ (a) Xanthophyll (b) Carotene
Evological Sucession (c) Cytochrome (d) Leghemoglobin
38. An association of individuals of different
31. Which ecosystem has the maximum species living in the same habitat and having
biomass?  [2017] functional interactions is: [2015 RS]
(a) Grassland ecosystem (a) Biotic community
(b) Pond ecosystem (b) Ecosystem
(c) Lake ecosystem (c) Population
(d) Forest ecosystem (d) Ecological niche
32. Which of the following is a characteristic 39. Match the following and select the correct
feature of cropland ecosystem ? [2016] option:  [2014]
(A) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species
(a) Absence of soil organisms
(B) Succession (ii) Detritivore
(b) Least genetic diversity
(C) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality
(c) Absence of weeds
(D) Population growth (iv) Pollination
(d) Ecological succession
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33. Which of the following would appear as the
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
pioneer organisms on bare rocks? [2016]
(b) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(a) Lichens (b) Liverworts
(c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) Mosses (d) Green algae (d) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
 EBD_7325
426 BIOLOGY
40. Which one of the following is a primary 46. The upright pyramid of number is absent in
consumer in maize field ecosystem? [2012]
[NEET Kar. 2013] (a) Pond (b) Forest
(a) Lion (b) Grasshopper (c) Lake (d) Grassland
(c) Wolf (d) Phytoplankton
47. The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by
41. When man eats fish which feeds on
plants like [2012M]
zooplankton which have eaten small plants,
the producer in the chain is (a) Azolla (b) Typha
[NEET Kar. 2013] (c) Salix (d) Vallisneria
(a) Zooplankton (b) Small plants 48. Identify the likely organisms (1), (2), (3) and
(c) Fish (d) Man (4) in the food web shown below. [2012M]
lion
42. Pheretima and its close relatives derive
hawks
nourishment from :  [2012] owls foxes snakes
(a) sugarcane roots
(b) decaying fallen leaves and soil organic garden
(3)
matter. lizard
(1)
(c) soil insects (4)
(2) grass sparrow
(d) small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of mice
hopper
maize, etc.
43. Identify the possible link “A” in the following
Vegetation/seeds
food chain :  [2012]
Options:
Plant → insect - frog → “A” → Eagle
(a) Rabbit (b) WoIf (1) (2) (3) (4)
(c) Cobra (d) Parrot (a) Deer Rabbit Frog Rat
44. Given below is an imaginary pyramid (b) Dog Squirrel Bat Deer
of numbers. What could be one of the (c) Rat Dog Tortoise Crow
possibilities about certain organisms at some (d) Squirrel Cat Rat Pigeon
of the different levels ?  [2012]
49. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an
area at any time is called [2011]
(a) standing crop (b) deteritus
(c) humus (d) standing state
50. Which one of the following statements for

pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the
(a) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is
remaining three are correct ? [2011]
“small insectivorous birds”.
(a) Its base is broad
(b) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and
(b) It shows energy content of different
“Whale” on top level TC
trophic level organisms
(c) Level one PP is “pipal trees” and the level
(c) It is inverted in shape
SC is “sheep”.
(d) It is upright in shape
(d) Level PC is “rats” and level SC is “cats”. 51. Which one of the following animals may
45. Which one of the following is not a function occupy more than one trophic levels in the
of an ecosystem?  [2012] same ecosystem at the same time? [2011M]
(a) Energy flow (b) Decomposition (a) Sparrow (b) Lion
(c) Productivity (d) Stratification (c) Goat (d) Frog
Ecosystem 427
52. Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead (3) the length of food chains is generally
to: [2011M] limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy
(a) medium water conditions loss
(b) xeric conditions (4) the length of food chains may vary from
(c) highly dry conditions 2 to 8 trophic levels
(d) excessive wet conditions Which two of the above statements are
53. Study the four statements (a–d) given below correct?
(a) (2) and (3) (b) (3) and (4)
and select the two correct ones out of them:
(c) (1) and (4) (d) (1) and (2)
[2010]
57. Which one of the following is not used for
(i) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow
construction of ecological pyramids? [2006]
feeding on grain are ecologically similar
in being consumers (a) Number of individuals
(ii) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in (b) Rate of energy flow
maintaining species diversity of some (c) Fresh weight
invertebrates (d) Dry weight
(iii) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction 58. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged
of prey species but can recover after some time if damaging
(iv) Production of chemicals such as nicotine, effect stops will be having [2004]
strychnine by the plants are metabolic (a) low stability and high resilience
disorders (b) high stability and low resilience

The two correct statements are: (c) low stability and low resilience
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (d) high stability and high resilience
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) 59. Bamboo plant is growing in a fir forest then
54. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere what will be the trophic level of it? [2002]
is:  [2009]
(a) First trophic level (T1)
(a) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia →Scirpus
(b) Second trophic level (T2)
Lantana → Oak
(b) Pistia →Volvox → Scirpus →Hydrilla → (c) Third trophic level (T3)
Oak →Lantana (d) Fourth trophic level (T4)
(c) Oak→Lantana →Volvox →Hydrilla → 60. The transfer of energy from one trophic
Pistia →Scirpus level to another is governed by the 2nd law of
(d) Oak →Lantana →Scirpus →Pistia → thermodynamics. The average efficiency of
Hydrilla →Volvox energy transfer from herbivores to carnivores
55. Which one of the following types of is  [1996, 99]
organisms occupy more than one trophic level (a) 5% (b) 10%
in a pond ecosystem?  [2009] (c) 25% (d) 50%
(a) Fish (b) Zooplankton
61. In a food chain, the largest population is that
(c) Frog (d) Phytoplankton
of  [1996]
56. Consider the following statements concerning
(a) decomposers
food chains [2008]
(1) removal of 80% tigers from an area (b) producers
resulted in greatly increased growth of (c) primary consumers
vegetation (d) tertiary consumers
(2) removal of most of the carnivores 62. The primary succession refers to the develop-
resulted in an increased population of ment of communities on a [1995]
deers (a) fleshly cleared crop field
 EBD_7325
428 BIOLOGY
(b) forest clearing after devastating fire (b) Grass → Fox → Rabbit → Bird
(c) pond, freshly filled with water after a dry (c) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Fish
phase (d) Fallen leaves → Bacteria → Insect larvae
(d) newly-exposed habitat with no record of 72. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland/true
earlier vegetation ecosystem is  [1990, 91]
63. In a biotic community, the primary consumers (a) always inverted (b) always upright
are  [1995]
(c) both A and B (d) spindle-shaped
(a) carnivores (b) omnivores 73. What is true of ecosystem?  [1988]
(c) detritivores (d) herbivores (a) Primary consumers are least dependent
64. The pyramid which cannot be inverted in a upon producers
stable ecosystem is that of  [1994] (b) P r i m a r y c o n s u m e r s o u t - nu m b e r
(a) Biomass (b) Number producers
(c) Energy (d) All the above (c) Producers are more than primary
65. In grass-deer-tiger food chain, grass biomass consumers
is one tonne. The tiger biomass shall be (d) Secondary consumers are the largest and
(a) 100 kg (b) 10 kg [1994] most powerful
(c) 200 kg (d) 1 kg
66. Second most important trophic level in a lake Topic 3: Nutrient Cycling/Ecosystem Services
is  [1994] 74. In which of the following both pairs have
(a) Zooplankton (b) Phytoplankton correct combination ? [2015 RS]
(c) Benthos (d) Neuston
(a) Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and sulphur
67. In a food chain, the largest population is that
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Nitrogen and
of  [1994] Phosphorus
(a) producers Gaseous nutrient cycle Nitrogen and sulphur
(b) decomposers (b)
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Carbon and Phosphorus
(c) secondary consumers
Gaseous nutrient cycle Sulphur and
(d) primary consumers
(c) Phosphorus
68. Pyramid of numbers deals with number of
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Carbon and Nitrogen
(a) species in an area [1993]
(b) individuals in a community Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and Nitrogen
(c) individuals in a tropic-level (d) Sedimentary nutrient cycle Sulphur and
(d) subspecies in a community Phosphorus
69. Pyramid of numbers in a pond ecosystem is
75. Given below is a simplified model of
 [1993] phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem
(a) irregular (b) inverted with four blanks (A-D). Identify the blanks:-
(c) upright (d) spindle shaped [2014]
70. Food chain in which micro-organisms
breakdown the food formed by primary
producers is   [1991]
(a) parasitic food chain
(b) detritus food chain
(c) consumer food chain
(d) predator food chain
71. Pick up the correct food chain [1991]
(a) Grass → Chamelion → Insect → Bird
Ecosystem 429
A B C D 79. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are
(a) Rock Detritus Litter fall Producers inactivated, then there will be no[2004]
minerals (a) fixation of nitrogen in legumes
(b) Litter fall Producers Rock Detritus (b) fixation of atmospheric nitrogen

minerals
(c) conversion from nitrate to nitrite in
(c) Detritus Rock Producer Litter fall
legumes
minerals
(d) Producers Litter fall Rock Detritus (d) conversion from ammonium to nitrate
minerals in soil
76. Natural reservoir of phosphorus is : 80. The main role of bacteria in the carbon cycle
[NEET 2013] involves [1998]
(a) Animal bones (b) Rock (a) photosynthesis
(c) Fossils (d) Sea water (b) chemosynthesis
77. Which one of the following is not a gaseous (c) digestion or breakdown of organic
biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem ? [2012] compounds
(a) Sulphur cycle (b) Phosphorus cycle (d) assimilation of nitrogenous compounds
(c) Nitrogen cycle (d) Carbon cycle 81. Which of the following pairs is a sedimentary
78. Barophilic prokaryotes:  [2005] type of biogeochemical cycle? [1995]
(a) grow and multiply in very deep marine (a) oxygen and nitrogen
sediments (b) phosphorus and sulphur
(b) occur in water containing high concentra- (c) phosphorus and nitrogen
tions of barium hydroxide (d) phosphorus and carbon dioxide
82. In an ecosystem, which one shows one-way
(c) readily grow and divide in sea water
passage  [1988]
enriched in any soluble salt of barium
(a) free energy (b) carbon
(d) grow slowly in highly alkaline frozen
(c) nitrogen (d) potassium
lakes at high altitudes
 EBD_7325
430 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Sir Arthur George Tansley was an predation. Respiration loss is about 20%
English botanist and a pioneer in the science for autotrophs, 30% for herbivores and upto
of ecology who coined the term ecosystem. 60% in case of carnivores. Therefore net
2. (c) Detritivores are the organisms which feed productivity decreases with each trophic level.
on dead plants and animal residues. 8. (b) At the trophic level of consumers the rate
3. (a) Stratification is the occurrence of at which food energy is assimilated is called
vertical zonation in the ecosystem & indicates secondary productivity. Rabbit is a consumer.
the presence of favorable environmental 9. (b) The break down of detritus into
conditions, for e.g., trees occupy top vertical smaller particles by earthworm is known as
strata or layer of a forest, shrubs the second. fragmentation.
Herbs & grasses occupy the bottom layers. 10. (c) Out of total incident solar radiation,
It is absent or poor where environmental about 50% of it forms Photosynthetically
conditions are unfavorable, e.g. desert Active Radiation (PAR).
ecosystems have very few trees & shrubs. 11. (a) The biomass available for consumption
4. (c) Standing crop is the amount of living by the herbivores and the decomposers is
biomass in an ecosystem. It indicates the called net primary productivity. It is equal
productivity & luxuriance of growth. It is to the rate of organic matter created by
expressed in the form of number or biomass photosynthesis minus the rate of respiration
of organisms per unit area. and other losses.
12. (c) About 70% of total global carbon is
5. (a) Gross Primary Productivity (GPP)
found in oceans. This oceanic reservoir
is the rate of production of biomass or
regulates the amount of carbon dioxide in
accumulation of energy by green plants per
the atmosphere. Atmosphere contains only
unit area per unit time. GPP depends on the
about one percent of total global carbon.
chlorophyll content.
13. (a) Low moisture content will lead to
6. (d) Humification, catabolism, leaching and
decrease in number of decomposers because
fragmentation are the steps of decomposition
decomposers need an optimum moisture for
which operate simultaneously on the
their growth and functioning.
detritus. Fragmentation is breaking down
14. (d) They are found in the equatorial regions
detritus into smaller particles by detritivores
rainfall exceeds 140 cm. The warm humid
like earthworm. By the process of leaching,
climate supports broad leaved evergreen
water soluble inorganic nutrients go down
plants. Productivity is very high ( 12000 kcal/
into soil horizon and get precipitated as
m2/year). The vegetation show stratification
unavailable salts. Humification occurs at a
into two or more well defined layers.
very slow rate.
15. (c) Grasslands will have highest value of
7. (b) The rate of resynthesis of organic matter
gross production. Net production is obtained
by the consumers is known as secondary
after subtracting the respiratory utilization
productivity . It depends upon the loss
from gross production. Secondary and
while transferring energy containing organic
tertiary production is related with secondary
matter from the previous trophic level plus
and tertiary consumers respectively.
the consumption due to respiration and
Ecosystem 431
16. (c) Some plants growing in salty marshes The fungi found on the tree are decomposers.
develop special roots for respiration, called When an organism dies, it leaves behind
pneumatophores. They are (–)vely geotropic. nutrients that are tightly bound together. A
17. (b) The greatest biomass of autotrophs in scavenger might eat the carcass, but its feces
the oceans is that of free floating microalgae, would still contain a considerable amount of
cyanobacteria and nanoplankton. unused energy and nutrients. Decomposers
18. (b) The rate at which organic molecules are will later induce further breakdown. This last
formed in a green plant is called gross primary step releases raw nutrients (such as nitrogen,
productivity. phosphorus and magnesium) in a form
19. (d) Equatorial forest has highest gross usable to plants, which quickly incorporates
primary production i.e. productivity is the chemicals into their own cells. This
maximum hare 12000 Kcal/m2/yr. Coral process greatly increases the nutrient-load
reefs are often called "rainforest of the sea". It of an ecosystem, in turn allowing for greater
biodiversity.
forms some of the most diverse ecosystem on
27. (a) German biologist Ernst Haeckel coined
earth. Coral reef ecosystem have the highest
the term 'ecology', the study of inter-
gross primary productivity in the sea.
relationship between organisms and their
20. (a) Niche is a specific part of the habitat
environment. Ecosystem, consist of different
that is determined by the functioning of the communities of organism and the physical
population like shelter, type of food, season environment with which they interact.
etc. Phytogeography is the study of geographic
21. (d) In submerged hydrophytes whole plant distribution of plants species on earth.
body remains under water. e.g. Ceratophyllum 28. (b) Soil is the uppermost weathered layer or
and Utricularia. In these plants, stomata is earth's crust and is composed of minerals and
absent and gaseous exchange takes place partly decomposed organic matter. Pedologist
through general body surface. is a scientist who studies origin, composition
22. (c) The decomposers act on the dead organic and distribution of soil and the materials from
matter and break them down into simpler which the soil is made.
compounds and minerals. 29. (d) Phytoplanktons (algae) of oceans are
23. (d) The oceans cover about 2/3 of the whole the highest producers of organic matter.
surface of our earth. Thus it is the most stable 30. (a) Plankton → Organisms passively floating
ecosystem, because of buffering action by in upper water.
water. Nekton → Actively swimming
24. (c) Food is necessary for life. Benthos → Lead sedentary life upon the
sea bottom
25. (b) Due to majority of phytoplanktons.
31. (d) Forest ecosystem has the maximum
26. (d) Decomposers act on dead bodies
biomass.
converting complex organic constituents into
Some very high productive ecosystem
simpler soluble form. are
They obtain their energy from dead organisms. – Tropical rain forest
Decomposers themselves are organisms (often – Coral reef
fungi, earthworms, or bacteria) that break – Estuaries
down organic materials to gain nutrients and – Sugarcane fields
energy. Decomposers accelerate the natural 32. (b) Cropland ecosystem is largest anthro-
process of decomposition. They supply the pogenic ecosystem characterized by less
required nutrients for other trophic levels. diversity and high productivity.
 EBD_7325
432 BIOLOGY
33. (a) Lichens produce small amounts of Zooplanktons, fish and man are primary,
carbonic acids from their “roots” and secondary and tertiary carnivores respectively.
these slowly dissolve the rock, releasing 42. (b) Earthworm derives its nutrition from
nutrients. Other nutrients are obtained from decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter.
water-borne or air-borne particles of both Thus the type of feeding in earthworm is
organic and inorganic materials. The body detritus.
of a lichen contains an alga; this is able to 43. (c)
photosynthesise sugars, some of which are 44. (a)
passed on to the fungal component of the 45. (d) Four important functional aspects of the
lichen. In return the alga gets a tiny but ecocystem are
significant amount of shelter within the (i) Productivity (ii) Decomposition,
tissues of the lichen. (iii) Energy flow and
34 (a) Secondary succession takes place in (iv) Nutrient cycling.
disturbed area having poor vegetation. 46. (b) In forest, a single tree can support a
large of number of birds thus base showing
35. (d) The gradual and predictable change, in
producers in a pyramid of number will be
the composition of species takes place in a
narrower than the next slab showing primary
given area during ecological succession.
consumers.
36. (d) Biomagnification means an increase in
47. (d) A hydrosere is a plant succession which
concentration of toxins through the trophic
occurs in a freshwater lake. Second stage
levels of a food chain.
of hydrosere is submerged stage that is
37. (d) Leghaemoglobin prevents oxygen represented by Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Elodea,
poisoning which causes inactivation of Utricularia etc.
nitrogenase. 48. (a) Food web is a network of food chains
38. (a) Biotic community is an association or feeding relationships by which energy and
of individuals of different species living in nutrients are passed on from one species of
the same habitat and showing functional living organisms to another.
interactions. 49. (a) A standing crop is the quantity or total
39. (d) Detrivores, (e.g. earthworm) break down weight or energy content of the organism,
detritus into smaller particles. The species which are in a particular location at a
that invade a bare area in succession is called particular time.
pioneer species. The products of ecosystem 50. (c) An energy pyramid is the graphical
processes are termed as ecosystem services, representation of the tropic level (nutritionals)
e.g., healthy forest ecosystems purify air and by which the incoming solar energy is
water, mitigate droughts and floods etc. transferred into an ecosystem. It can never
Natality refers to number of births during a be inverted in shape.
given period in the population. 51. (a) It feeds upon grains hence called primary
consumer and can also feed on insects hence
40. (b) In an ecosystem, producers (e.g., plants/
called secondary consumer at the same time
phytoplankton) belong to first trophic level,
in the same ecosystem.
herbivores or primary consumer (e.g.,
52. (a) Hydrarch succession takes place in wet
grasshopper) to the second and carnivores or
areas and xerarch succession respectively,
secondary consumer (e.g., lion, wolf) to the
which takes place in dry areas. So, both
third trophic level.
hydrarch and xerarch successions leads to
41. (b) Plants are producers which can prepare
medium water conditions.
their food by the process of photosynthesis.
Ecosystem 433
53. (d) The statement (i) and (ii) are correct. The 61. (b) Producers are the direct and indirect
statement (iii) is incorrect because predators source of food for all the trophic levels. They
cannot lead to the extinction of prey species. are always more in number.
Predator and prey evolve together. The state- 62. (d) The primary succession means the
ment (iv) is incorrect because chemical such development of communities only on a newly
as nicotine and strychnine produced by the exposed habitat with no record of earlier
plants are not metabolic disorders but are vegetation.
metabolic wastes. 63. (d) In a biotic community the herbivores
54. (a) The correct sequence of plants in a (goat, deer) are those animals, which consume
hydrosere is Volvox, Hydrilla, Pistia, Scirpus, the primary producers (green plants). Hence
Lanatana and Oak. A hydrosere is a plant they are primary consumers.
succession which occurs in a fresh water lake. 64. (c) Energy pyramid cannot be inverted
In time, an area of open fresh water such because energy always flows in one direction
as a lake will naturally dry out, ultimately only. According to 10% law of energy transfer
becoming woodland. During this change, given by Lindemann (1972), during transfer
a range of different landtypes such as of energy from one trophic level to other
swamp and marsh will succeed each other. there is always loss of energy in respiration
The succession from open water to climax and other activities. Only 10% of energy is
woodland is likely to take at least two hundred transfered to net trophic level. So the amount
years. of energy flow decreases with successive
55. (a) A pond ecosystem is a delicate balance trophic levels.
of fish, plants and other animals. Fish occupy 65. (b) Only 10% of the mass is flown from one
more than one tropic level in pond ecosystem. trophic level to another in the form of energy.
Small fishes act as secondary consumer. They 66. (a) First trophic level in a lake is phytoplank-
feed on primary consumer. Large fishes act as ton, second is zooplankton.
tertiary consumer. They feed on smaller fish. 67. (d) Decomposers include microorganisms
56. (a) Food chain is the transfer of energy from such as bacteria and fungi. They form the
green plants (Primary producers), through a largest population in a food chain.
sequence of organisms occupies in a food 68. (c) Pyramid of number represents the
chain is known as its trophic level. Therefore, number of individuals on each tropic level.
statements b and c are correct. 69. (c) Pyramid of numbers of pond ecosystem
57. (c) Fresh weight is not used for the construc- is upright.
tion of ecological pyramids because the total 70. (b) Detritus food chain being with dead
fresh weight does not change into energy. organic matter with dead plant parts,
Hence we can say that fresh weight is not animals and their excretory product which
continuous in the tropic levels. is being acted upon by decomposers such as
58. (a) An ecosystem having low stability can be saprophytes to obtain energy needed for their
easily damaged. An ecosystem having high survival.
resilience will take less time to recover. 71. (c) Phytoplankton → zooplankton →
59. (a) First trophic level is occupied by pro- Fish. This is a type of food chain in aquatic
ducers. Second trophic level is occupied by ecosystem.
primary consumers. Third trophic level is 72. (b) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
occupied by the secondary consumers.
ecosystem is always upright. For most
60. (b) According to the 10% law, at each trophic
ecosystem, like grass land ecosystem.
level, only 10% of the energy received is
Pyramids of numbers are upright because
transfered to the next trophic level.
 EBD_7325
434 BIOLOGY
numbering of organisms decrease at 77. (b) Phosphorus is mostly used as phosphate.
successively higher trophic levels. Trophic Its reservoir pool is phosphate rocks while
level refers to the organisms, position in the cycling pool is soil for terrestrial ecosystems
food chain. and water for aquatic ecosystems.
73. (c) In an ecosystem producers (green plants) 78. (a) Barophiles are bacteria which live
are always more than consumers (herbivores, in high pressure environments. They are
carnivores etc.) generally found on ocean floors, where
74. (d) Carbon and Nitrogen are gaseous nutri- pressure generally exceeds 380 atm (38 MPa).
ent cycle. Sulphur and phosphorus are sedi- Some have been found at the bottom of the
mentary nutrient cycle. Pacific Ocean where the maximum pressure
is roughly 117 MPa.
75. (c) Phosphorus is an important element for
79. (a) Nitrogenase is an enzyme involved in
living beings. Consumers obtain phosphorus
biological nitrogen fixation. Enzyme nitrate
directly or indirectly from plants. Phosphorus reductase is involved in conversion of nitrate
is also present in phosphatic rocks. It is to nitrite. Conversion of ammonia to nitrate
released during the decomposition of plant is carried out by Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.
and animal remains. The released phosphorus 80. (c) Bacteria act as decomposers in the carbon
may reach the deeper layers of soil and gets cycle.
deposited as phosphate rocks. All plants and 81. (b) Biogeochemical cycles : Two types :
animals eventually die and in due time, their (a) Gaseous : Biogenetic materials
organic remains or debris decay through the involved in circulation are gases
action of micro-organism and the phosphates eg. N2, O2, CO2 etc.
are released into the water for recycling. (b) Sedimentary : Biogenetic materials
76. (b) The natural reservoir of phosphate is involved in circulation are non-
rock which contains phosphorus in the form gaseous eg. P, Ca, S etc. forms
of phosphates when rocks are weathered, rocks.
minute amounts of these phosphate dissolve 82. (a) Energy flow takes place only in one
in soil solution and are absorbed by the roots direction i.e., producers → herbivores →
of the plants . Herbivores and other animals carnivores whereas, nutrients use carbon,
obtain this element from plants. nitrogen and potassium shows cyclic flow.
 Chapter

37 Biodiversity and its

Conservation
Topic 1: Biodiversity/Patterns of
Biodiversity/Loss of Biodiversity
1. Alexander Von Humbolt described for the
first time:  [2017]
(a) Laws of limiting factor
(b) Species area relationships
A B C D
(c) Population Growth equation
(a) Insects Crusta- Other animal Molluscs
(d) Ecological Biodiversity ceans groups
2. Which of the following is the most important (b) Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other
cause of animals and plants being driven to animal
extinction? [2016] groups
(a) Over - exploitation (c) Molluscs Other ani- Crustaceans Insects
(b) Alien species invasion mal groups
(c) Habitat loss and fragmentation (d) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other
(d) Co-extinctions animal
3. The species confined to a particular region groups
and not found elsewhere is termed as : 7. Which of the following represent maximum
[2015 RS] number of species among global biodiversity?
(a) Alien (b) Endemic [NEET 2013]
(c) Rare (d) Keystone (a) Lichens (b) Fungi
4. A species facing extremely high risk of
(c) Mosses and Ferns (d) Algae
extinction in the immediate future is called:
8. Which organization publishes the Red Data
(a) Vulnerable [2014]
Book?   [NEET Kar. 2013]
(b) Endemic
(a) GEF (b) IUCN
(c) Critically endangered
(d) Extinct (c) UNEP (d) WWF
5. The organization which publishes the Red 9. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the
List of species is:      [2014] group. [2012]
(a) ICFRE (b) IUCN (a) Fungi (b) Animalia
(c) UNEP (d) WWF (c) Monera (d) Plantae
6. Given below is the representation of the 10. The highest number of species in the world
extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What is represented by  [2012]
groups the four portions (A-D) represent (a) Fungi (b) Mosses
respectively?      [2014] (c) Algae (d) Lichens
 EBD_7325
436 BIOLOGY
11. Which one of the following shows maximum (a) Rhinoceros - Kaziranga National Park
genetic diversity in India? [2011] (b) Wild ass - Dudhwa National Park
(a) Groundnut (b) Rice (c) Great Indian - Keoladeo National Park
(c) Maize (d) Mango bustard
12. Biodiversity of a geographical region (d) Lion - Corbett National Park
represents [2011M] 18. At which latitude, heat gain through insolation
(a) endangered species found in the region. approximately equals heat loss through
(b) the diversity in the organisms living in terrestrial radiation?  [2005]
the region. 1
(c) genetic diversity present in the dominant (a) 22 ° North and South
2
species of the region.
(b) 40° North and South
(d) species endemic to the region.
1
13. Which one of the following has maximum (c) 42 º North and South
genetic diversity in India?  [2009] 2
(a) Mango (b) Wheat (d) 66° North and South
(c) Tea (d) Teak 19. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the
14. Tiger is not a resident in which one of the parliament in the year  [2005]
following national park?  [2009] (a) 1992 (b) 1996
(a) Sunderbans (b) Gir (c) 2000 (d) 2002
(c) Jim Corbett (d) Ranthambhor 20. In which one of the following pairs is the
15. The table below gives the population (in specific characteristic of a soil not correctly
thousands) of ten species (A-J in four areas matched? [2004]
(a) Laterite - Contains aluminium compound
(a-d) consisting of the number of habitats
(b) Terra rossa - Most suitable for roses
given within brackets against each. Study
(c) Chernozems - Richest soil in the world
the table and answer the question which
(d) Black soil - Rich in calcium carbonate
follows: [2008]
21. Wildlife is destroyed most when
Area and Species and their populations (in thousands) in the
Number of
[1994, 98, 2002]
A B C D E F G H I J (a) there is lack of proper care
habitats
a (11) 2.3 1.2 0.52 6.0 _ 3.1 1.1 9.0 _ 10.3 (b) mass scale hunting for foreign trade
b (11) 10.2 _ 0.62 _ 1.5 3.0 _ 8.2 1.1 11.2
(c) its natural habitat is destroyed
(d) natural calamity
c (13) 11.3 0.9 0.48 2.4 1.4 42 0.8 8.4 2.2 4.1
22. Reason of diversity in living beings is due to
d (12) 3.2 10.2 11.1 4.8 0.4 33 0.8 7.3 113 2.1
(a) mutation [2001]
Which area out of a to d shows maximum (b) long term evolutionary change
species diversity? (c) gradual change
(a) b (b) c (d) short term evolutionary change
(c) d (d) a 23. During adverse season, therophytes survive
15. Quercus species are the dominant component by  [1997]
in   [2008]
(a) bulbs (b) corms
(a) Temperate deciduous forests
(b) Alpine forests (c) rhizomes (d) seeds
(c) Scrub forests 24. Flamingoes breed in  [1996]
(d) Tropical rain forests (a) rann of Kutch
17. Which one of the following is the correct (b) chilka lake
matched pair of an endangered animal and (c) sambhar lake
National Park ? [2006] (d) mansarover Lake
Biodiversity and its Conservation 437
25. If the forest cover is reduced to half, what is 31. Fertility of soil is measured by its ability to
most likely to happen on a long term basis ? (a) retain nutrients [1992]
 [1996] (b) hold organic materials
(a) Tribals living in these areas will starve to (c) hold water
death (d) support life
(b) Cattle in these and adjoining areas will 32. Petroleum is a [1992]
die due to lack of fodder (a) synthetic product
(c) Large areas will become deserts (b) renewable resource
(d) Crop breeding programmes will suffer (c) non-renewable resource
due to a reduced availability of variety (d) inconvenient resource
of germplasm 33. Minerals and metals are [1992]
26. Bulk fixation of carbon through photosynthesis (a) biodegradable resources
takes place in  [1994] (b) renewable
(a) tropical rain forests (c) non-renewable
(b) tropical rain forest and crop plants (d) renewable and non-renewable resources
(c) crop plants 34. Soil fertility is reduced by [1992]
(d) oceans (a) crop rotation
27. Which animal has become extinct from (b) nitrogen fixing bacteria
India?  [1994] (c) decaying organic matter
(a) Snow Leopard (b) Hippopotamus (d) intensive agriculture
(c) Wolf (d) Cheetah 35. Renewable source of energy is [1991]
28. Species diversity increases as one proceeds (a) Biomass (b) Coal
from  [1994] (c) Petroleum (d) Kerosene
(a) high altitude to low altitude and high Topic 2: Biodiversity Conservation
latitude to low latitude
(b) low altitude to high altitude and high 36. Which one of the following is related to Ex-
situ conservation of threatened animals and
latitude to low latitude
plants ?  [2017]
(c) low altitude to high altitude and low
(a) Biodiversity hot spots
latitude to high latitude
(b) Amazon rainforest
(d) high altitude to low altitude and low
(c) Himalayan region
latitude to high latitude.
(d) Wildlife safari parks
29. American water plant that has become a
37. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is
troublesome water weed in India is [1993]
legally protected and where no human activity
(a) Cyperus rotundus
is allowed is known as:  [2017]
(b) Eichhornia crassipes
(c) Trapa latifolia (a) Buffer zone (b) Transition zone
(d) Trapa bispinosa (c) Restoration zone (d) Core zone
30. A non-renewable resource is 38. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of
[1991, 92, 93] India?   [2016]
(a) non-renewable non-conventional energy (a) Gangetic shark (b) River dolphin
source (c) Blue whale (d) Sea-horse
(b) non-renewable conventional energy 39. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened
source species in viable and fertile condition can be
(c) renewable non-conventional energy referred to as:-  [2015 RS]
source (a) Advanced ex-situ conser vation of
(d) renewable conventional energy source biodiversity
 EBD_7325
438 BIOLOGY
(b) In situ conservation by sacred groves (c) generating environmental awareness.
(c) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity (d) conserving rare and threatened species.
(d) In situ conservation of biodiversity 47. Select the correct statement about bio-
40. In which of the following both pairs have diversity. [2012M]
correct combination:  [2015 RS] (a) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no
(a) In situ conservation : Cryopreservation adverse effect on biodiversity.
Ex situ conservation : Wildlife Sanctuary (b) Western Ghats have a very high degree
(b) In situ conservation : Seed Bank of species richness and endemism.
Ex situ conservation : National Park (c) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad
(c) In situ conservation : Tissue culture pursued by the developed countries.
Ex situ conservation : Sacred groves (d) The desert areas of Rajasthan and
(d) In situ conservation : National Park Gujarat have a very high level of desert
Ex situ conservation : Botanical Garden animal species as well as numerous rare
41. An example of ex situ conservation is:  [2014] animals.
(a) National Park 48. A collection of plants and seeds having
(b) Seed Bank diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is
(c) Wildlife Sanctuary called  [2011]
(d) Sacred Grove (a) herbarium (b) germplasm
42. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla (c) gene library (d) genome
to escape the heat for the duration of hot 49. Consider the following statements (A)-(D)
summer, thousands of migratory birds from each with one or two blanks.     [2011M]
Siberia and other extremely cold northern (A) Bears go into __(1)__ during winter to
regions move to: [2014] __(2)__ cold weather
(a) Western Ghat (B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base
(b) Meghalaya represents __(3)__ human population
(c) Corbett National Park (C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an
(d) Keoladeo National Park example of __(4)___
43. The largest tiger reserve in India is (D) An area with high levels of species
(a) Nagarhole [NEET Kar. 2013] richness is known as __(5)___
(b) Valmiki Which one of the following options give
(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam the correct fill ups for the respective blank
(d) Periyar numbers from (1) to (5) in the statements
44. Which one of the following is not used for (a) (2) - stable (4) commensalism, (5) marsh
ex-situ plant conservation ? [NEET 2013] (b) (1) - aestivation, (5) - escape, (3) - stable,
(a) Seed banks (4) - mutualism
(b) Shifting cultivation (c) (3) - expanding, (4) - commensalism,
(c) Botanical Gardens (5) biodiversity park
(d) Field gene banks (d) (1)- hibernation, (2) - escape, (3) -
45. Which one of the following areas in India, is expanding, (5) hot spot
a hotspot of biodiversity? [2012] 50. Which one of the following is an example of
(a) Eastern Ghats (b) Gangetic Plain Ex­situ conservation? [2010]
(c) Sunderbans (d)Western Ghats (a) Wildlife sanctuary
46. Sacred groves are specially useful in (b) Seed bank
(a) preventing soil erosion. [2012M] (c) Sacred groves
(b) year-round flow of water in rivers. (d) National park
Biodiversity and its Conservation 439
51. Which one of the following is not observed 59. According to IUCN Red List, what is the
in biodiversity hotspots? [2008] status of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens)?  [2005]
(a) Endemism (a) Critically endangered species
(b) Accelerated species loss (b) Vulnerable species
(c) Lesser inter-specific competition (c) Extinct species
(d) Species richness (d) Endangered species
52. World Summit on Sustainable Development 60. One of the most important functions of
(2002) was held in [2008] botanical gardens is that  [2005]
(a) Brazil (b) Sweden (a) they provide a beautiful area for recreation
(b) one can observe tropical plants there
(c) Argentina (d) South Africa
(c) they allow ex-situ conservation of germ
53. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plasm
plants is that of      [2007] (d) they provide the natural habitat for
(a) Ocimum (b) Garlic wildlife
(c) Nepenthes (d) Podophyllum 61. In your opinion, which is the most effective
54. Identify the odd combination of the habitat way to conserve the plant diversity of an
and the particular animal concerned.  [2007] area?  [2004]
(a) Sunderbans - Bengal Tiger (a) By tissue culture method
(b) Periyar - Elephant
(b) By creating biosphere reserve
(c) Rann of kutch - Wild Ass (c) By creating botanical garden
(d) Dachigam - Snow Leopard. (d) By developing seed bank
National park 62. Which group of vertebrates comprises
55. Which one of the following pairs of organisms t h e h i g h e s t nu m b e r o f e n d a n ge r e d
are exotic species introduced in India? species ?  [2003]
(a) Lantana camara, water hyacinth [2007] (a) Birds (b) Mammals
(b) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria (c) Fishes (d) Reptiles
(c) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa 63. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri
(d) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara is found in  [2000]
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Madagascar
56. Which one of the following is not included
(c) Mauritius (d) India
under in-situ conservation ? [2006]
64. An institution where valuable plant material
(a) Botanical garden
likely to become irretrievably lost in the
(b) Biosphere reserve wild or in cultivation is preserved in a viable
(c) National park condition is known as  [2000]
(d) Sanctuary (a) Genome (b) Herbarium
57. Which of the following is considered a hot- (c) Gene library (d) Gene bank
spot of biodiversity in India ? [2006] 65. Which animal has gone extinct in recent times
(a) Indo-Gangetic Plain in India? [1999]
(b) Eastern Ghats (a) Panthera leo
(c) Aravalli Hills (b) Acinonyx jubatus
(d) Western Ghats (c) Antilope cervicapra
58. Which of the following pairs of an animal (d) Rhinoceros unicornis
and a plant represents endangered organisms 66. A high density of a protected animal in a
in India?   [2006] National Park can result into[1999]
(a) Tamarind and Rhesus monkey (a) mutualism
(b) Cinchona and leopard (b) intraspecific competition
(c) Banyan and black buck (c) emigration
(d) Bentinckia nicobarica and Red Panda (d) predation
 EBD_7325
440 BIOLOGY
67. MAB stands for  [1997] (b) Sariska-Tiger
(a) Man and Biology Programme (c) Sunderban- Rhino
(b) Man and Biosphere Programme (d) Kaziranga-Musk deer
(c) Mammals and Biosphere Programme 70. Ranthambore National Park is situated in
(d) Mammals and Biology Programme [1994]
68. A number of natural reserves have been (a) Maharashtra (b) Rajasthan
created to conserve specific wild life species. (c) Gujarat (d) U.P.
Identify the correct combination from the 71. National Park associated with Rhinoceros is
following  [1996] (a) Kaziranga [1994]
(a) Gir forest - Tiger (b) Ranthambore
(b) Kaziranga - Elephants (c) Corbett
(c) Rann of Kutch - Wild Ass (d) Valley of Flowers
(d) Manas wild life Sanctuary - Musk deer 72. Soil conservation is [1989]
69. Which of the following is the correct (a) conversion of sterile soil into fertile one
matching pair of a sanctuary and its main (b) aeration of soil
protected wild animal?  [1995] (c) erosion of soil
(a) Gir-Lion (d) protection against loss
Biodiversity and its Conservation 441

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Alexander Von Humboldt noticed that vertebrates, 359 invertebrates and 87 plants)
within a region species richness increases with in the last 500 years.
the increase in area. 9. (c)
2. (c) The primary cause of human-induced 10. (a) Recent estimate suggests that 5.1 million
extinction events is simply human overpopu- fungal species exists.
lation of planet Earth. The most important 11. (b) In India maximum genetic diversity is
causal anthropogenic activities are habitat seen in rice. Total of 23 variety of irrigated
destruction and fragmentation. ecology and 8 varieties of rainfed ecology has
3. (b) Endemic species is confined to a par-
been invented in India.
ticular area due to special type of adaptation
12. (b) Biodiversity is the number of variety of
according to that region. organism found within a specified geographic
4. (c) Critically Endangered : The taxon facing region.
very high risk of extinction in the wild can 13. (b) Wheat genetics is more complicated
become extinct any moment in the immediate than that of most other domesticated species.
future, e.g. Sus salvinus (Pigmy Hog), Berberis Some wheat species are diploid, with two
nilghiriensis. sets of chromosomes, but many are stable
5. (b) IUCN or WCN maintains a red data polyploids, with four sets of chromosomes
book which is a catalogue of threatened (tetraploid) or six (hexaploid). India has more
plants and animals facing risk of extinction. genetically diverse varieties of rice and than
The IUCN red list (2004) documents the the varieties of mangoes.
extinction of 784 species (including 338 14. (b) Tiger is not resident in Gir national
vertebrates, 359 invertebrates and 87 plants) park. Gir has a large population of marsh
in the last 500 years. crocodile or mugger, which is among the 40
6. (d) Arthropoda is the largest phylum of species of reptiles and amphibians recorded
Animalia which includes insects. Over two- in the sanctuary. According to official census
thirds of all named species on earth are figures, Gir has about 300 lions and 300
arthropods. They have organ system level of leopards, making it one of the major big-cat
organisation. Mollusca is the second largest concentrations in India. Sambar and spotted
animal phylum. They are terrestrial or aquatic deer (chital), blue bull (nilgai), chousingha
(marine or fresh). (the world’s only four-horned antelope),
7. (b) The number of species of fungi is chinkara (Indian gazelle) and wild boar thrive
maximum in respect to other options. The in Gir. Jackal, striped hyena, jungle cat, rusty-
number of fungus species in the world is more spotted cat, langur, porcupine, black-naped
than the combined total of species of fishes, Indian hare are among the other mammals
amphibians, reptiles and mammals. of Gir.
8. (b) IUCN or WCN maintains a red data 15. (c) Species richness refers to the number of
book which is a catalogue of threatened species per unit area. Species evenness is the
plants and animals facing risk of extinction. relative abundance with which each species
The IUCN red list (2004) documents the is represented in an area. Thus variation in
extinction of 784 species (including 338 the number of species, kinds of species as
 EBD_7325
442 BIOLOGY
well as the number of individuals per species reports of Asiatic cheetahs in the Balochistan
lead to greater diversity. Area(d) and number Province of Pakistan, though these continue
of habitats (12) shows the maximum species to be unverified. The cheetah prefers to live in
diversity. an open biotope, such as semi-desert, prairie,
16. (a) Quercus species is a dominant component and thick bush.
in temperate deciduous forests. The common 28. (a) At low altitude and latitude more habitat
name of Quercus is cork oak belongs to family is found and environment conditions are also
fabaceae. Cork used as a bottle stoppers, more suitable i.e. more species and individuals
soles for shoes, insulating material and for occur at lower latitude and altitude places.
manufacture of linoleum. 29. (b) Eichhornia crassipes is an American origin
17. (a) Kaziranga National Park in Assam is plant and now water weed in India.
famous as a protection environmental park 30. (b) Non-renewable sources of energy are
for rhinoceros. generally conventional (traditional) sources.
18. (b) At 40º North and South. 31. (d) The ability of soil to support life is called
19. (d) Biodiversity Act of India was passed by its fertility. It sustain agriculture plant growth.
the parliament in the year 2002. 32. (c) Petroleum is a non-renewable resource.
20. (d) Option (d) is not the correct match 33. (d) Due to shorter recycling in case of
as black soil is rich in metals such as Iron, biogenetic nutrients (minerals) they are
Magnesium and Aluminium and not in renewable and due to very long recycling in
calcium carbonate. case of metals and same minerals they are
21. (c) If natural habitat is destroyed, wild life non-renewable.
is affected worstly. 34. (d) During intensive agriculture most of the
22. (b) Diversity is due to the long term evolu- nutrients and minerals are exhausted from the
tionary changes. Adaptability to continuous soil so fertility decreases.
changes in environmental conditions is im- 35. (a) Coal, kerosene and petroleum are non-
portant for natural selection of variants and renewable while biomass is renewable source
variations generation after generation leading of energy.
to emergence of diverse descendants. The term “biomass” is especially useful for
23. (d) Terophytes are those plants which survive plants, where some internal structures may
the adverse season like winter as a seed and not always be considered living tissue, such
complete their life cycle between spring and as the wood (secondary xylem) of a tree.
autumn. Biofuels include bioethanol, biobutanol,
24. (b) Flamingoes breed in chilka lake. biodiesel & biogas.
25. (c) If the forest cover is reduced to half, large Biomass is grown from several plants,
areas will become deserts. including switchgrass, hemp, corn, poplar,
26. (d) Bulk fixation of carbon through willow and sugarcane. The particular plant
photosynthesis takes place in oceans, due to used is usually not very important to the end
presence of majority of phytoplanktons. products, but it does affect the processing of
27. (d) The ‘Cheetah’ has become extinct from the raw material. Production of biomass is
India. The endangered subspecies Acinonyx a growing industry as interest in sustainable
jubatus venaticus lives in Asia (Iran). In 1990, fuel sources is growing.
there were reports in the Times of India of 36. (d) Ex-situ conservation is offsite strategy
a cheetah sighting in eastern India. There for conservation of biological diversity
is a chance some cheetahs remain in India, in zoological park and botanical gardens
though it is doubtful. There have also been respectively.
Biodiversity and its Conservation 443
37. (d) Biosphere reserve is a protected area for including the Siberian Crane.
wildlife with multipurpose activities. 43. (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
It has three zones is the largest Tiger reserve in India and the
(a) Core zone – does not have any human only Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh state.
interference 44. (b) Shifting or Jhum cultivation contributes
(b) Buffer zone – has limited human activity to deforestation. Ex-situ conservation is a
(c) Transition zone – allows human biodiversity conservation method in which
settlement, grazing cultivation etc. threatened animals and plants are taken out of
38. (b) River Dolphin is the National Aquatic their natural habitat and placed in protected
Animal of India. This mammal is also said environments as zoological parks, botanical
to represent the purity of the holy Ganga as gardens, wildlife safari parks, seed banks and
it can only survive in pure and fresh water. gene banks.
Platanista gangetica has a long pointed snout 45. (d) Hots are the geographical area where
and also have visible teeth in both the upper biodiversity is maximum. Two hotspots in
and lower jaws. India are western ghats and north eastern
39. (a) In such type of conservation, the himlayan region.
threatened animals and plants are taken 46. (d) An area with particular types of trees
out of their natural habitat and protected in dedicated to local deities or ancestral spir-
special areas like zoological parks and wild its that are protected by local communities
life sanctuaries. through social traditions and taboos incor-
40. (d) In-situ (on site) conservation is within the porating spiritual and ecological values are
natural habitat eg- sea, river and forest. Ex-situ called as sacred groves.
(off site) conservation is outside the natural Sacred groves act as an ideal centre for
habitat e.g. zoological park. biodiversity conservation. Several plants and
41. (b) In Ex-situ conservation the threatened animals that are threatened in the forest are
animals and plants are taken out of their still well conserved in some of the sacred
natural habitat and are protected in special groves. It has been observed that several
parks or areas like, Zoological parks, Wild medicinal plants that are not to be found in
life safari parks and Botanical gardens the forest are abundant in the sacred groves.
etc. The ex situ conservation also includes Further, rare, endangered, threatened and
cryopreservation, fertilization of eggs in vitro endemic species are often concentrated in
and propagation of plants through ‘Tissue sacred groves.
culture methods’, preservation of seeds 47. (b) Wester n ghat is biodiversity rich
through Seed banks. zone along with endemism. The forests
42. (d) The Keoladeo National Park is a famous of the western ghats are some of the best
avifauna sanctuary in India that plays host representatives of non-equatorial tropical
to thousands of birds especially during the evergreen forests in the world. The Western
summer season. It is formerly known as Ghats have evolved into one of the richest
the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary in Bharatpur, centers of endemism owing to their isolation
Rajasthan. October to February is the best from other moist areas.
time, for the migratory birds are there as well 48. (c) Gene library contains DNA fragments
as the residents. In August local birds start representing the entire genome of an
their nest building and rear their young for organism. So collection of alleles of the genes
the next few months. October/November is of a crop is called gene library.
when the migrants arrive. Most stay till March 49. (d)
 EBD_7325
444 BIOLOGY
50. (b) Ex-situ conservation is the conservation 57. (d) Hot spot are those areas which were
of selected organism in places outside rich in biodiversity but now under threat due
their natural homes. They include off site to direct or indirect interference of human
collection and gene banks. activites. These regions are on the edge to get
In situ conservation, on the other hand, is the some of their species extinct due to humans.
conservation of endangered species in their Western Ghats in India are under threat due
natural habitat. Biosphere reserves, national to continuous developmental activities and
parks, wildlife sanctuaries and sacred groves Doon valley is under threat due to continuous
all are examples of In situ conservation. mining activities.
51. (b) Lesser inter-specific competition is 58. (d) Endangered plant is Bentinckia nicobarica
not observe in biodiversity hotspots, levels & endangered animal is Red Panda (Ailurus
fulgens).
of species richness and high degree of
59. (d) IUCN is International Union of Con-
endemism. Initially 25 biodiversity hotspots
servation of Nature and Natural resources
were identified but subsequently nine more
which is now called World Conservation
have of biodiversity hotspots in the world
Union (WCU). It maintains a red databook
to 34. These hotspots are also regions of
or red list which is a catalogue of taxa facing
accelerated habitat loss.
risk of extinction.
52. (d) World Summit on sustainable develop- Endangered Species are those facing a high
ment (2002) was held in Johannesburg, South risk of extinction in the wild in the near
Africa, 190 countries pledged their commit- future due to decrease in its habitat, excessive
ment to achieve by 2010, a significant in predation or poaching. The percentage
reduction the current rate of biodiversity loss number of endangered species in the list
at global, regional and local levels. of threatened ones is 19% mammals, 17%
53. (d) Podophyllum is one of the endangered birds, 21% reptiles, 22% amphibians and
species of Indian medicinal plants. It is 19% angiosperms. In India their number is
used to remove benign (not cancer) growths, 54 animals and 113 plants e.g Red Panda,
such as certain kinds of warts. It works by Bentinckia nicobarica.
destroying the tissue of the growth. Critically Endangered : The taxon is facing
54. (d) Dachigam national park is for conserva- very high risk of extinction in the wild and can
tion of Hangul which is one of India's most become extinct any moment in the immediate
scenically beautiful wildlife reserves. It is future, e.g. Sus salvinus (Pigmy Hog), Berberis
located only 22 kilometers from Srinagar, the nilghiriensis.
capital city of the northern state of Jammu Vulnerable : Presently the population is
and Kashmir. It covers an area of 141 square sufficient but is undergoing depletion due
kilometers. to some factors so that it is facing risk of
55. (a) Exotic Species - a species that has been extinction in medium term future e.g. Antelope
cervi carpa.
introduced from another geographic region to
Extinct : The taxon has been completely
an area outside its natural range. Examples
eliminated or died out from earth e.g. Dodo.
are water hyacinth, Lantana camara.
60. (c) Ex-situ conservation means off site
56. (a) In situ means keeping endangered species conservation. It is the process of protecting
of animals or plants into natural environment an endangered species of plant or animal by
and not in the environment that looks like removing it from an unsafe or threatened
natural but man made, like zoological & habitat and placing it or part of it under the
botanical gardens. In situ includes, national care of man. Botanical garden is one of the
parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserve. method of ex-situ conservation.
Biodiversity and its Conservation 445
61. (d) Tissue culture method is used to are 14 projects under this programme,
propagate plant. Creating biosphere reserve which focus on research and training with
conserves both flora and fauna. Botanical emphasis on ecological approach to the study
gardens can conserve only a few specific of inter-relationship between man and the
varieties of plants. environment.
62. (b) Mammals 68. (c) Gir forest – Lion
63. (b) The Lemurs are the inhabitants of Kaziranga – Rhinoceros
Madagascar and the Comoro Islands. Manas – Elephant, Rhinoceros
64. (d) An institution where valuable plant Manali – Musk deer
material likely to become irretrievably lost 69. (a) Gir forest is important for protecting
in the wild or in cultivation is preserved in a lion. The ecosystem of Gir, with its diverse
viable condition is known as Gene Bank. flora and fauna, is a result of the efforts of
65. (a) Panthera leo has gone extinct in recent the Government, forest department, wildlife
times in India. activists and NGOs. The forest area of Gir
66. (b) Competition between organisms of and its lions were declared as “protected”
the same species is called intraspecific in the early 1900’s by the then Nawab of the
competition. Mutualism is obligatory and princely state of Junagadh. This initiative
mutually beneficial relationship occurring assisted in the conservation of the lions whose
between two interacting organisms. Predation population had plummeted to only 15 through
is the act of capturing, killing and eating. It is slaughter for trophy hunting.
a negative interaction between two organisms. 70. (b) Rajasthan
Migration is a permanent outward movement 71. (a) Kaziranga National Park in Assam is
of individuals from a population for settling associated with Rhinoceros.
into a new area. 72. (d) Soil conservation is to conserve fertile
67. (b) MAB, Man and Biosphere Programme, soil from the losses like, heavy rainfall,
was launched by UNESCO in 1971. There drainage, high wind, flood, draught etc.
 EBD_7325
446 BIOLOGY

Chapter

38 Environmental Issues

Topic 1: Air Pollution & its Control 7. Which one of the following is not correct as
regards to the harmful effects of particulate
1. Which one of the following statements is not matter of the size 2.5 micro meters or less?
valid for aerosols?  [2017] [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns (a) It can be inhaled into the lungs
(b) They cause increased agricultural (b) It can cause respiratory problems
productivity (c) It can directly enter into our circulatory
(c) They have negative impact on agricultural system
land (d) It can cause inflammation and damage
(d) They are harmful to human health to the lungs
2. Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmo- 8. dB is a standard abbreviation used for the
spheric concentration of: [2015 RS] quantitative expression of   [2010]
(a) SO3 and CO (b) CO2 and CO (a) the density of bacteria in a medium
(c) O3 and dust (d) SO2 and NO2 (b) a particular pollutant
3. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens (c) the dominant Bacillus in a culture
on the trees indicates that the: [2014] (d) a certain pesticide
(a) Trees are very healthy 9. Steps taken by the Government of India to
(b) Trees are heavily infested control air pollution include [2009]
(a) compulsory PUC (Pollution Under
(c) Location is highly polluted
Control) certification of petrol driven
(d) Location is not polluted
vehicles which tests for carbon monoxide
4. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical
and hydrocarbons.
industrial plant removes:- [2014] (b) permission to use only pure diesel with
(a) gases like sulphur dioxide a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur as fuel
(b) particulate matter of the size 5 for vehicles.
micrometer or above (c) use of non-polluting Compressed
(c) gases like ozone and methane Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all
(d) particularte matter of the size 2.5 buses and trucks.
micrometer or less (d) compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl
5. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone alcohol with petrol and 20% biodiesel
layer is present is called: [2014] with diesel.
(a) Ionosphere (b) Mesosphere 10. According to Central Pollution Control
Board (CPCB), which particulate size in
(c) Stratosphere (d) Troposphere
diameter (in micrometers) of the air pollutants
6. The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution
is responsible for greatest harm to human
Act came into force in : [NEET 2013]
health? [2008]
(a) 1981 (b) 1985
(a) 2.5 or less (b) 1.5 or less
(c) 1990 (d) 1975
(c) 1.0 or less (d) 5.2-2.5
Environmental Issues 447
11. In a coal fired power plant electrostatic (a) automobile exhausts
precipitators are installed to control emission (b) pesticide residue
of  [2007] (c) household waste
(a) NO× (b) SPM (d) radio-active fall-out
(c) CO (d) SO2 19. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at
12. Photochemical smog pollution does not level [1994]
contain [2006] (a) Above 30 dB (b) Above 80 dB
(a) Nitrogen dioxide (c) Above 100 dB (d) Above 120 dB
(b) Carbon dioxide 20. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile
(c) PAN (peroxy acyl nitrate) exhausts is [1992]
(d) Ozone (a) Mercury (b) Cadmium
13. Which of the following is a secondary (c) Lead (d) Copper
pollutant? [1999] 21. Which one is not a pollutant normally?
(a) CO (b) CO2 (a) Hydrocarbons [1992]
(c) PAN (d) Aerosol (b) Carbon dioxide
14. If there was no CO2 in the earth’s atmosphere (c) Carbon monoxide
the temperature of earth’s surface would be (d) Sulphur dioxide
[1998] 22. Acid rains are produced by [1991]
(a) higher than the present form (a) excess emissions of NO2 and SO2 from
environmental issues burning fossil fuels
(b) excess production of NH3 by industry
(b) less than the present
and coal gas
(c) the same (c) excess release of carbon monoxide by
(d) dependent on the amount of oxygen incomplete combustion
in the atmosphere from environmental (d) excess formation of CO2 by combustion
issues and animal respiration
15. How does carbon monoxide, a poisonous gas 23. Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission
emitted by automobiles, prevent transport of is [1990]
oxygen into the body tissues? [1998] (a) Sulphur dioxide
(a) By destroying the haemoglobin (b) Carbon monoxide
(b) By forming a stable compound with (c) Methane
haemoglobin (d) Fluorocarbon
(c) By obstructing the reaction of oxygen
Topic 2: Water Pollution & its Control
with haemoglobin
(d) By changing oxygen into carbon dioxide. 24. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich
16. The CO2 content in the atmospheric air is in organic waste may result in [2016]
about [1997] (a) drying of the river very soon due to algal
(a) 0.034% (b) 0.34% bloom.
(c) 3.34% (d) 6.5% (b) increased population of aquatic food
web organisms.
17. The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect
of [1995] (c) an increased production of fish due to
biodegradable nutrients.
(a) oxygen (b) hydrogen
(d) death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
(c) chlorine (d) sulphur dioxide
25. High value of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen
18. Atmosphere of big/metropolitan cities is
Demand) indicates that : [2015 RS]
polluted most by [1994]
 EBD_7325
448 BIOLOGY
(a) Water is highly polluted 32. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river
(b) Water is less polluted water [2009]
(c) Consumption of organic matter in the (a) has no relationship with concentration
water is higher by the microbes of oxygen in the water.
(d) Water is pure (b) gives a measure of Salmonella in the
26. Eutrophication of water bodies leading water.
to killing of fishes is mainly due to non- (c) increases when sewage gets mixed with
availability of :   [2015 RS] river water.
(a) light (d) remains unchanged when algal bloom
(b) essential minerals occurs.
(c) oxygen 33. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food
(d) food chain causing biomagnification because DDT
27. In an area where DDT had been used is [2009]
extensively, the population of birds declined (a) moderately toxic
significantly because: [2012] (b) non-toxic to aquatic animals
(a) birds stopped laying eggs (c) water soluble
(b) earthworms in the area got eradicated (d) lipo soluble
(c) cobras were feeding exclusively on birds 34. A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality
(d) many of the birds laid, did not hatch of fishes within a few days. Consider the
28. Measuring Biochemical Oxygen Demand following reasons for this? [2008]
(BOD) is a method used for : [2012] (1) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer
(a) estimating the amount of organic matter were used in the crops in the vicinity
in sewage water. (2) The area was sprayed with DDT by an
(b) working out the efficiency of oil driven aircraft
automobile engines. (3) The lake water turned green and stinky
(c) measuring the activity of Saccharomyces (4) Phytoplankton populations in the
cerevisae in producing curd on a lake declined initially thereby greatly
commercial scale. reducing photosynthesis.
(d) working out the efficiency of RBCs Which two of the above were the main causes
about their capacity to carry oxygen. of fish mortality in the lake?
29. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a (a) (2) and (3) (b) (3) and (4)
(a) physical process [2011] (c) (1) and (3) (d) (1) and (2)
(b) mechanical process 35. In which one of the following the BOD
(c) chemical process (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage
(d) biological process (s), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent
30. Which of the following is mainly produced (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been
by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on arranged in ascending order ?   [2007]
sewage? [2011] (a) SE < PE < S < DE
(a) Laughing gas (b) Propane (b) PE < S < SE < DE
(c) Mustard gas (d) Marsh gas (c) S < DE < PE < SE
31. Eutrophication is often seen in [2011] (d) SE < S < PE < DE.
(a) deserts 36. Which one of the following is not a
(b) fresh water lakes bioindicator of water pollution?   [2007]
(c) ocean (a) Blood-worms (b) Stone flies
(d) mountains (c) Sewage fungus (d) Sludge-worms.
Environmental Issues 449
37. Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution (b) Calcium ATPase
Control Board for the discharge of industrial (c) Magnesium ATPase
and municipal waste waters into natural (d) Carbonic anhydrase
surface waters, is [2006] 46. Maximum bioconcentration of pesticide
(a) < 10 ppm (b) < 100 ppm residues is usually found in birds that
(c) < 30 ppm (d) < 3.0 ppm exclusively feed on [1999]
38. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural (a) fish (b) seeds
fields is likely to create the problem of (c) worms (d) meat
(a) Acidity (b) Aridity [2005] 47. Which of the following organism is likely
to have more concentration of D.D.T. in its
(c) Salinity (d) Metal toxicity
body? [1999]
39. Which of the following is not used for
(a) Herbivores
disinfection of drinking water? [2005]
(b) Carnivores
(a) Chlorine (b) Ozone (c) Top carnivores
(c) Chloramine (d) Phenyl (d) Primary producers
40. More than 70% of world’s freshwater is 48. D.D.T. is [1999]
contained in: [2005] (a) a non–degradable pollutant
(a) polar ice (b) a bio-degradable pollutant
(b) glaciers and mountains (c) not a pollutant
(c) antarctica (d) an antibiotic
(d) greenland 49. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was
41. In 1984, Bhopal gas tragedy took place (a) Methyl isocyanate [1999]
because methyl isocyanate [2004] (b) Potassium isothiocyanate
(a) reacted with DDT (c) Sodium isothiocyanate
(b) reacted with ammonia (d) Ethyl isothiocyanate

(c) reacted with CO2 50. Sudden mass killing of fishes is likely in
(d) reacted with water  [1999]
42. The most common indicator organism that (a) mesotrophic lake
represents polluted water is [2004] (b) oligotrophic lake
(a) E. coli (b) P. typhi (c) salt lake
(c) C. vibrio (d) Entamoeba (d) eutrophic lake
43. Escherichia coli is used as an indicator organism 51. Warm ocean surge of the Peru Current
to determine pollution of water with [2003] reoccurring every 5-8 years or so in the East
(a) pollen of aquatic plants Pacific of South America is widely known as
(b) heavy metals [1998]
(c) faecal matter (a) Gulf Stream (b) El Nino
(d) industrial effluents (c) Aye Aye (d) Magnox
44. Which of the following is absent in polluted 52. Which one of the following organisms is used
water? [2002] as indicator of water quality? [1998]
(a) Hydrilla (a) Chlorella (b) Azospirillum
(b) Water hyacinth (c) Escherichia (d) Biggiatoa
(c) Larva of stone fly 53. Phosphate pollution is caused by [1997]
(d) Blue green algae (a) phosphate rocks only
45. DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds (b) agricultural fertilizers only
because it inhibits [1999] (c) sewage and phosphate rocks
(a) Calmodulin (d) sewage and agricultural fertilizers
 EBD_7325
450 BIOLOGY
54. Sewage drained into water bodies kill fishes 62. Water is a resource [1992]
because [1996] (a) nondegradable nonmaintainable
(a) excessive carbon dioxide is added to (b) degradable maintainable
water (c) renewable
(b) it gives off a bad smell (d) non-renewable
(c) it removes the food eaten by fish
Topic 3: Solid Wastes/Agro-Chemicals/
(d) it increases competition with fishes for
Radioactive Wastes
dissolved oxygen
55. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into 63. Rachel Carson’s famous book “Silent Spring”
a river, its B.O.D, will [1995] is related to :  [2015 RS]
(a) increase (a) Noise pollution
(b) decrease (b) Population explosion
(c) sharply decrease (c) Ecosystem management
(d) remain unchanged
(d) Pesticide pollution
56. In Minamata Bay Japan, the animals which
64. Which one of the following statements is
remained free from Minamata disease, are
(a) pigs (b) rabbits [1995] wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy ?   [2011]
(c) dogs (d) cats (a) Methyl lsocyanate gas leakage took
57. Highest DDT deposition shall occur in  [1994] place
(a) Phytoplankton (b) Sea Gull/Birds (b) Thousands of human beings died
(c) Crab (d) Eel (c) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal
58. Disease caused by eating fish found in water (d) It took place in the night of December
contaminated with industrial waste having 2/3 1984.
mercury is [1994] 65. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is:
(a) Minamata disease
[2010]
(b) Bright's disease
(a) coal (b) petroleum
(c) Hashimoto's disease (c) minerals (d) forest
(d) Osteosclerosis
66. Which one of the following statements is
59. Drawback of DDT as pesticide is [1994]
correct? [2007]
(a) It becomes ineffective after sometime
(a) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix
(b) It is less effective than others
atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of
(c) It is not easily/rapidly degraded in
plants.
nature
(b) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and
(d) Its high cost
60. Fish die in water bodies polluted by sewage Nostoc are important mobilizers of
due to [1994] phosphates and for plant nutrition in
(a) pathogens soil
(b) clogging of gills by silt (c) At present it is not possible to grow
(c) reduction in oxygen maize without chemical fertilizers
(d) foul smell (d) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers
61. Largest amount of fresh water is found in may lead to eutrophication of nearby
[1994] water bodies.
(a) lakes and streams 67. Lead concentration in blood is considered
alarming if it is [2004]
(b) underground
(a) 20 mg/100 ml (b) 30 mg/100 ml
(c) polar ice and glaciers
(c) 4–6 mg/100 ml (d) 10 mg/100 ml
(d) rivers
Environmental Issues 451
68. Recently Govt. of India has allowed mixing 76. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can
of alcohol in petrol. What is the amount of lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers
alcohol permitted for mixing in petrol? [2016]
[2004] (a) Nitrous oxide (b) Ozone
(a) 2.5% (b) 10 – 15% (c) Ammonia (d) Methane
(c) 10% (d) 5% 77. The UN Conference of Parties on climate
69. Which of these is a pollution related to change in the year 2011 was held in :
occupational health hazard ? [1999] (a) South Africa (b) Peru [2015 RS]
(a) Pneumoconiosis (b) Asthma (c) Qatar (d) Poland
(c) Flurosis (d) Silicosis 78. Which of the following is not one of the
70. Which of the following is the use of lichens prime health risks associated with greater
in case of pollution? [1999] UV radiation through the atmosphere due to
(a) They treat the polluted water depletion of stratospheric ozone? [2015 RS]
(a) Reduced Immune System
(b) They act as bioindicators of pollution
(b) Damage to eyes
(c) They promote pollution
(c) Increased liver cancer
(d) Lichens are not related with pollution (d) Increased skin cancer
71. At present, the most significant cause of 79. The UN conference of Parties on climate
dwindling biodiversity is probably[1999]
change in the year 2012 was held at:[2015 RS]
(a) the deterioration of ozone layer
(a) Doha (b) Lima
(b) the destruction of habitat
(c) biological magnification of DDT (c) Warsaw (d) Durban
(d) global warming 80. Kyoto Protocol was endorsed at:
72. The worst environmental hazards were created [NEET 2013]
by accidents in nuclear power plant and MIC (a) CoP - 5 (b) CoP - 6
gas tragedy respectively in [1996] (c) CoP - 4 (d) CoP - 3
(a) Russia in 1990 & Bhopal in 1986 81. Global warming can be controlled by:
(b) Ukraine in 1988 & USA in 1984 [NEET 2013]
(a) Reducing reforestation, increasing the
(c) Bhopal in 1984 & Russia in 1990
use of fossil fuel.
(d) Ukraine in 1986 and Bhopal in 1984
(b) Increasing deforestation, slowing down
73. River water deposits [1992]
the growth of human population.
(a) loamy soil (b) alluvial soil (c) Increasing deforestation, reducing
(c) laterite soil (d) sandy soil efficiency of energy usage.
74. Domestic waste constitutes [1991] (d) Reducing deforestation, cutting down
(a) Nonbiodegradable pollution use of fossil fuel.
(b) Biodegradable pollution 82. The second commitment period for Kyoto
(c) Effluents Protocol was decided at   [NEET Kar. 2013]
(d) Air pollution (a) Cancun (b) Durban
(c) Bali (d) Doha
Topic 4: Greenhouse Effect & Global Warming
83. Climate of the world is threatened by
/Oxone Depletion/Deforestation
[NEET Kar. 2013]
75. Joint Forest Management Concept was (a) Increasing concentration of atmospheric
introduced in India during [2016] oxygen
(a) 1960 s (b) 1970 s (b) Decreasing amount of atmospheric
(c) 1980 s (d) 1990 s oxygen
 EBD_7325
452 BIOLOGY
(c) Increasing amount of atmospheric 90. Montreal protocol aims at [2009]
carbon dioxide (a) Biodiversity conservation
(d) Decreasing amount of atmospheric (b) Control of water pollution
carbon dioxide (c) Control of CO2 emission
84. Which one of the following is a wrong (d) Reduction of ozone depleting substances
statement? [2012] 91. Chipko movement was launched for the
protection of [2009]
(a) Most of the forests have been lost in
(a) forests (b) livestock
tropical areas.
(c) wet lands (d) grasslands
(b) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is 92. Which one of the following is the correct
harmful to animals. percentage of the two (out of the total of 4)
(c) Greenhouse effect is a natural green house gases that contribute to the total
phenomenon. global warming?   [2008]
(d) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon (a) CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
in freshwater bodies. (b) CO2, 40%, CFCs 30%
85. Which one of the following expanded forms (c) N2O 6%, CO2 86%
(d) Methane 20%, N2O 18%
of the following acronyms is correct? [2011]
93. Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate
(a) IPCC = International Panel for Climate
action to protect the ozone layer from human
Change activities was passed in the year [2006]
(b) UNEP = United Nations Environmental (a) 1987 (b) 1988
Policy (c) 1985 (d) 1986
(c) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency 94. Identify the correctly matched pair. [2005]
(d) IUCN = International Union for (a) Basal Convention - Biodiversity
Conservation of Nature and Natural Conservation
Resources (b) Kyoto Protocol - Climatic change
86. Which one of following pairs of gases are the (c) Montreal Protocol - Global warming
(d) Ramsar - Ground water
major cause of “Greenhouse effect”? [2011]
Convention pollution
(a) CO2 and O3 (b) CO2 and CO 95. Which one of the following pairs is
(c) CFCs and SO2 (d) CO2 and N2O mismatched? [2005]
87. "Good ozone" is found in the    [2011M] (a) Fossil fuel burning - release of CO2
(a) mesosphere (b) troposphere (b) Nuclear power - radioactive wastes
(c) stratosphere (d) ionosphere (c) Solar energy - green house effect
88. The two gases making highest relative (d) Biomass burning - release of CO2
contribution to the greenhouse gases are 96. A major component of gobar gas is [2004]
[2010] (a) Ammonia (b) Methane
(c) Ethane (d) Butane
(a) CO2 and CH4 (b) CH4 and N2O
97. The major contributor of Green House gases
(c) CFC5 and N2O (d) CO2 and N2O
to the atmosphere is [2002]
89. Global agreement in specific control strategies (a) Russia (b) U.S.A.
to reduce the release of ozone depleting (c) Germany (d) Brazil.
substances, was adopted by [2009] 98. Relative Biological Effectiveness (RBE) is
(a) The Montreal Protocol usually referred to damages caused by
(b) The Kyoto Protocol (a) Low temperature  [2000]
(b) High temperature
(c) The Vienna Convention
(c) Encephalitis
(d) Rio de Janeiro Conference (d) Radiation
Environmental Issues 453
99. Green house effect refers to [1999] 104. Which gas contributes most to green house
(a) cooling of earth effect? [1994]
(b) trapping of UV rays (a) CFC (b) Freon
(c) production of cereals (c) CO2 (d) CH4
(d) warming of earth 105. Deforestation does not lead to  [1994]
100. Which important green house gas other (a) quick nutrient cycling
than methane is being produced from the (b) soil erosion
agricultural fields? [1998] (c) alteration of local weather conditions
(d) destruction of natural habitat of wild
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Ammonia
animals
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Arsine
106. Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes a
101. In coming years, skin related disorders will be
reaction that produces [1993]
more common due to [1997]
(a) Fluorides
(a) pollutants in air
(b) Carbon monoxide
(b) use of detergents
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(c) water pollution
(d) Ozone
(d) depletion of ozone layer
107. Green house effect is warming due to [1991]
102. Formation of ozone hole is maximum over (a) Infra-red rays reaching earth
(a) India (b) Europe [1997] (b) Moisture layer in atmosphere
(c) Antarctica (d) Africa (c) Increase in temperature due to increase
103. Which of the following is the main factor of in carbon dioxide concentration of
desertification?  [1995] atmosphere
(a) Tourism (d) Ozone layer of atmosphere
(b) Irrigated agriculture 108. Deforestation will decrease [1990]
(c) Over- grazing (a) soil erosion (b) land slides
(d) All of these (c) soil fertility (d) rainfall
 EBD_7325
454 BIOLOGY

Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Aerosols through its direct or indirect 9. (a) The step taken by Government of India
effects on plants can cause various problems to control air pollution include compulsory
in agriculture. However, continuous increase PUC (pollution under control) certification
in air pollution may represent a threat to of petrol driven vehicles which tests for
agriculture in the future that is persistent and carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons.
largely irreversible. 10. (a) The central pollution control board
2. (d) 60% – 70% SO2 and 20% – 30% NO2 (CPCB), statutory organisation, was consti-
contribute to the acid rain. tuted in September, 1974 under the water (Pre-
3. (d) Lichens are very good pollution vention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974.
indicators, they do not grow in pollutted Further, CPCB was entrusted with the pow-
areas. They are sensitive to sulphur dioxide ers and functions under Air (prevention and
pollution. control of pollution) Act, 1981. It serves as
4. (a) Scrubbers are air pollution control a field formation and also provides technical
devices that use liquid to remove particulate services to the Ministry of Environment and
matter or gases from an industrial exhaust Forest, of the provisions of the Environments
or flue gas stream. This atomized liquid (protection) Act, 1986. Principal functions of
(typically water) entrains particles and the CPCB, as spelt out in the water (preven-
pollutant gases in order to effectively wash tion and control of pollution) act, 1974, and
them out of the gas flow. It removes or scrubs the Air (prevention and control of pollution)
SO2 emissions from the exhaust of coal-fired Act, 1981.
power plants. (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells
5. (c) The ozone (O3) found in upper part of in different areas of the states by prevention,
the atmosphere, i.e., Stratosphere, is Good control and abatement of water pollution.
ozone, since, it acts as a shield for absorbing (ii) to improve the quality of air and to
UV-radiations from sun. prevent, control or abate air pollution in the
6. (a) In India, the Air (Prevention and control country.
of pollution) Act came into force in 1981 but According to CPCB, 2.5 or less particulate
was amended in 1987 to include noise as an size in diameter (in micrometers) of the air
air pollutant. pollutants is responsible for greatest harm to
7. (c) According to Centrol Pollution human health.
Control Board (CPCB) particulate size 11. (b) In recent years, the increases in toxic
2.5 micrometers or less in diameter are substances of NOx and/or SPM (Suspended
responsible for causing various breathing Particulate Matter) from vehicles come to
and respiratory problems. They can also be serious problem. About the correlation
cause irritation, inflammations, damage between the traffic volume in our model and
to the lungs and premature deaths. It the real volume, we obtained the correlation
cannot directly enter circulatory system but coefficient of 0.74. Simultaneously, we got
indirectly through respiratory system. the result that the concentration of NOx was
8. (b) dB is a standard abbreviation for the approximately 70 to 230 ppm. That of SPM
quantitative expression of noise. Unwanted was approximately 40 to 100 µg/m3.
sound is called noise. Generally sound above 12. (b) Photochemical smog is made by the
80 dB is noise. deposition of dust & carbon particles on the
Environmental Issues 455
pollutant gases and water vapours. The gases pollution. The polluted water has bacteria
found in photochemical smog are NO2, PAN, and many other microorganisms which
O3 etc. consume the dissolved oxygen of water. The
13. (c) Primary pollutant is that which persists higher the BOD, the lower would be the
in the form in which it is released in the dissolved oxygen in polluted water. The high
environment eg. CO. A secondary pollutant value of BOD indicates the highly polluted
is one which is formed from another pollutant water.
due to change or reaction. e.g. PAN (Peroxy 26. (c) Due to eutrophication, water bodies
acytyl nitrate). lack oxygen causing death of aquatic life.
14. (b) CO2 is a green house gas which traps 27. (d) High concentration of DDT disturbs
the solar radiation i.e. heats up the earth’s calcium metabolism in birds which caused
atmosphere. thinning of eggshell and their premature
15. (b) Carbon monoxide, when inhaled, breaking.
combines with blood haemoglobin to form 28. (a) BOD is a measure of organic matter
carboxy-haemoglobin at a rate 210 times present in water. It refers to amount of O2
faster than the rate at which oxygen forms consumed by microbes to decompose all the
oxyhaemoglobin. Thus, respiration is organic matter in 1 L of water at 20°C for 5
impaired. days. The greater the BOD of waste water,
16. (a) The content of CO2 in atmospheric air is more is its polluting potential.
0.034%. The main contributors to air are N2 29. (d) In secondary treatment mainly settled
and O2. sewage flows to an aerobic biological
17. (d) The Taj Mahal is threatened by environ- treatment stage where it comes into contact
mental pollution, especially by acid rain due with micro-organisms which remove and
to sulphur dioxide emitted from Mathura oxidise most of the remaining organic
refinery. pollutants.
18. (a) Automobile exhaust is the main cause 30. (d) Marsh gas is another term for methane,
of air pollution in metro cities. produced by plants decomposing under
19. (b) Above 80 dB sound becomes hazardous. water.
20. (c) Lead (Pb) is the most hazardous metal 31. (b) Eutrophication is often seen in fresh water
pollutant present in automobile exhaust. lakes. The main causes of eutrophication
21. (b) CO2 in its normal fraction in air (about in these water systems are sediments and
0.03%) is actually not a pollutant but above thermal stratification, with agricultural run-
this it is considered as a pollutant. At the off from fertilizers and manure, containing
elevated level it becomes a cause for global nitrates and phosphates and discharge of
warming. partially treated or untreated sewages or
22. (a) NO2 and SO2 after reacting with water in phosphate containing detergents.
atmosphere produce HNO3 & H2SO4 which
32. (c) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)
falls down as acid rain.
in a river water increases when sewage gets
23. (d) Fluorides of carbon is the major pollutant
mixed with river water. Biochemical oxygen
from jet plane emission.
demand or biological oxygen demand (BOD)
24. (d) Domestic sewage rich in organic waste
is a chemical procedure for determining how
leads to increase in Biological Oxygen
fast biological organisms use up oxygen in
Demand, which leads to decrease D.O.
a body of water. It is used in water quality
(dissolved oxygen) which leads to death of
management and assessment, ecology and
fishes.
environmental science. BOD considered
25. (a) BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) is
as an indication of the quality of a water
a method which measures the level of water
source.
 EBD_7325
456 BIOLOGY
33. (d) DDT residues are rapidly passed of the unabsorbed water leads to salinity. This
through food chain causing biomagnification also leads to waterlogging.
because DDT is lipo soluble. Biomagni- 39. (d) Chlorine, ozone, chloramine are used for
fication, also known as bioamplification or disinfection of drinking water.
biological magnification, is the increase in 40. (a) Three fourth surface of earth is covered
concentration of a substance, such as the by oceans which contain 97.5% of total water.
pesticide DDT, that occurs in a food chain It is marine water with about 3.5% salt content
as a consequence of: only 2.5% is fresh water which occurs on land.
• Persistence (slow to be broken down by Most of this water (1.97%) occurs as frozen
environmental processes). ice caps and glaciers, 0.5% fresh water occurs
• Food chain energetics. as ground water. Rivers and lakes contain
• Low (or non-existent) rate of internal 0.02%, soil 0.01% while atmosphere possesses
degradation/excretion of the substance 0.001% of water as vapours.
(often due to water-insolubility). 41. (d) In Bhopal gas tragedy methyl isocyanate
34. (c) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer (MIC) reacted with water to produce a large
were used in the crops in the vicinity and amount of heat, as it was an exothermic
the lake water turned green and stinky. Due reaction. Due to this increase in pressure the
to this, lake near a village suffered heavy safety valve of the tank bursted and the gas
mortality of fishes within a few days. came out.
35. (b) More value of BOD means the water 42. (a) E. coli lives in the human intestine. If they
sample is polluted by organic matter. BOD of are present in water it indicates that the water
distillary effluent is 40000 mg/L and that of is polluted. E.coli coliform count test is done.
paper mill effluent and sewage is 190 mg/L 43. (c) E. coli grows in water polluted by sewage
and 30 mg/L respectively. and domestic waste.
36. (b) Stone flies are not bioindicators. Bio- 44. (a) Hydrilla is a fresh water plant.
indicators provide a range of techniques to 45. (b) DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds
assess the impacts of air pollution from reactive because it inhibits Calcium ATPase.
nitrogen (N) compounds on statutory nature 46. (a) Biological magnification is the increase
conservation sites. They complement physical in concentration of persistent pollutant per
monitoring of atmospheric concentrations unit weight of the organism with the rise in
and deposition and risk assessment based trophic level.
on the critical loads approach by providing 47. (c) Organisms found in the higher trophic
site-based information on atmospheric level show greater accumulation of pesticides
N concentrations, N deposition and/or due to the phenomenon of biomagnification
ecological impacts. - which is defined as the gradual increase in
37. (a) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) concentration of harmful pesticides in the
is the amount of oxygen required to destroy food chain, with increase in trophic level.
the organic waste by the bacteria. The more 48. (a) DDT cannot be broken down or converted
oxygen required for bacteria that means there to harmless state by natural processes of
is more organic waste. For pure drinking oxidation or biological decomposition. Hence
water it is decided less than 1 ppm and for it is non biodegradable.
industrial & municipal waste it is less than 49. (a) MIC → (Methyl Isocyanate) was the
10 ppm. In Yamuna water in Delhi it is about deadly gas leaked from the fertilizer plant of
1000 ppm. Union Carbide company in Bhopal.
38. (c) Since all surface and ground water 50. (d) Organic pollutants provide nutrients for
contains salts to varying degrees. Therefore stimulating growth of algae and other plants.
excessive irrigation followed by evaporation Algal bloom reduces availability of light to
Environmental Issues 457
submerged plants which get killed. The dead develop this disease except rabbit because it
submerged plants consume more oxygen in is herbivore.
decomposition. This reduces availability of 57. (b) DDT is not soluble in water but soluble
oxygen to other life forms leading to death of in fats. Aquatic micro-organisms absorb
organisms. This is known as eutrophication. them in fats where they accumulate to form
51. (b) El. Nino flows to the north from Antarctica concentration many times greater than
along the west coast of South America to S. in water. Zooplankton accumulate more
Ecuador, the west. It reoccurs after every 5 to concentrations, fishes feeding on zooplanktons
8 yrs. El Nino and La Nina are officially defined also accumulate more concentration and
as sustained sea surface temperature anomalies finally birds feeding on fishes contain these
of magnitude greater than 0.5°C across the compounds in more concentration. This
central tropical Pacific Ocean. When the increase in accumulation of toxic substances
condition is met for a period of less than five in the food pyramids is called "Biological
months, it is classified as El Nino or La Nina magnification."
conditions; if the anomaly persists for five 58. (a) Minamata disease.
months or longer, it is classified as an El Nino 59. (c) In 1962, American biologist Rachel
or La Nina episode. Carson published the book Silent Spring,
52. (c) E. coli lives in the human intestine. If they which alleged that DDT caused cancer
are present in water it indicates that the water and harmed bird reproduction by thinning
is polluted. E.coli coliform count test is done egg shells. This followed the principles of
to test the quality of water. biological magnification, killing higher level
organisms like the birds.
53. (d) Part of fertilizers containing phosphates
DDT is a persistent organic pollutant with a
are passed down into water bodies as surface
reported half life of between 2-15 years, and
run off. Sewage contamination also results in
is immobile in most soils.
algal bloom (eutrophication) due to increased
60. (c) Sewage kills plant life and also use
availability of nitrate and phosphate.
oxygen for degradation, so oxygen content
54. (d) Organic pollutants brought in by the
of water is lowered and hence animal life in
sewage drained into water bodies provides
water body start decreasing.
nutrients for stimulating growth of algae. 61. (c) Polar ice & glaciers have the largest
Algal bloom reduces availability of light to amount of pure and fresh water without any
the submerged plants which get killed. Dead dissolved salt or impurity.
algae and dead submerged plants consume 62. (c) Water is a renewable resource but can
oxygen during decomposition, causing become non renewable if they are not used
oxygen depletion and increases competition properly.
for oxygen. 63. (d) Rachel Carson’s book ‘Silent Spring’
55. (a) By dumping of huge amount of sewage, reveals the harmful effect of DDT, a fatal
the oxygen levels are depleted, which are pesticide. The writer opposed to chemical
reflected in terms of BOD values of water. industry in U.S.A. This book influenced the
The number of microbes also increases national policy over pesticide use in many
tremendously and these also consume most countries all over the world.
of the oxygen. Thus BOD of the river water 64. (c) The Bhopal gas tragedy occured on the
will increase. night of December 2-3, 1984 at the Union
56. (b) Release of mercury in water causes carbide India Limited pesticide plant in
pollution. Mercury enters the food chain Bhopal, M.P. A leak of methyl isocyanate
killing fishes. Human beings feeding on such gas and other chemicals from the plant
fishes will suffer from minamata disease. resulted in the exposure of hundreds of
Similarly all carnivores feeding on fishes will thousands of people.
 EBD_7325
458 BIOLOGY
65. (d) Exhaustible resources are those natural 75. (c) Joint Forest Management originated
resources that are likely to be exhausted in West Bengal accidentally at the Arabari
due to their continuous use. Forest is a Forest Range in West Midnapore, near
renewable exhaustible resource that can be Midnapore town in 1971. After the initial
produced again and again. Coal, petroleum successes in West Bengal and Haryana, the
and minerals are non-renewable exhaustible JFM schemes received national importance
natural resources that cannot be produced in the legislation of 1988.
again. 76. (b) The ozone layer or ozone shield refers to
66. (d) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers a region of Earth’s stratosphere that absorbs
may lead to eutrophiction of nearby water most of the Sun’s ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
bodies. It contains high concentrations of ozone
67. (b) The concentration level of lead in blood (O3) relative to other parts of the atmosphere.
is about 25 µg/100 ml. So any value above 77. (a) The UN Conference of Parties on
this is considered alarming. climate change in 2011, was held in Durban,
68. (d) Alcohol to the tune of 5% is allowed South Africa. It aimed at decrease of
to be mix in petrol as per the Govt. of India pollutant emission.
decision. 78. (c) Liver cancer is caused due to aflatoxin
69. (d) Silicosis is caused by exposure to dust released by Aspergillus fungus and Vinyl
containing silica. chloride. UV-rays are not related with liver
70. (b) Lichens are sensitive to sulphur dioxide cancer.
pollution, hence they serve as bioindicators 79. (a) This conference occured from 20 Nov
of pollution. to 8 December, 2012 to extend the life of the
71. (b) Habitat destruction affects the survival Kyoto Protocol at Doha in Qatar.
of populations and reduces biodiversity. 80. (d) In year 1997, at the conference of
72. (d) The MIC gas tragedy occurred in Bhopal parties III (CoP - 3) , Kyoto, Japan the Kyoto
in 1984 and the Chernobyl tragedy (nuclear conference on climate change took place.
In that conference developed countries
power plant) occurred in Ukraine in 1986.
agreed to specific targets for cutting their
73. (b) River water deposits alluvial soil. Alluvial
emissions of green house gases. A general
soil- formed by the alluvium deposition by the
framework has defined for this with specifics
rivers, when they slowly lose their carrying
to be detailed in next few years. This become
capacity due to decrease in velocity. These
known as the kyoto protocol.
consist of diverse ratio of sand, silt and clay. 81. (d) In first three options CO2 concentration
These are the most widespread soil in India, increases but it decreases in option (d).
the entire northern plains have loamy soil. It Global warming is increase of earth’s average
contains roughly equal amount of sand silt temperature. Global warming is due to green
and clay. It is more fertile than sandy soil. house effect which is naturally occurring
Laterite soil-formed in hot wet tropical areas phenomenon that is responsible for heating
which are formed by intensive and long of Earth’s surface and atmosphere. The
lasting weathering of underlying rocks and main green house gas is carbon-dioxide
are rich in iron and aluminium. (contribute 60%).
74. (b) Domestic waste includes peels of fruits, 82. (d) The Kyoto Protocol is an international
vegetables and food parts which comes agreement linked to the United Nations
under biodegradable pollution. These are Framework Convention on climate change
decomposed chemically or by activity of which commits its parties by setting
microorganisms into harmless product and internationally binding emissions reduction
are recycled back into the atmosphere. targets. In Doha, Qatar on 8 December
Environmental Issues 459
2012, the “Doha Amendment to the 91. (a) Chipko movement was launched for the
Kyoto Protocol” was adopted. The second protection of forests. The Chipko move­ment
commitment period was from 1st Jan. 2013 refers to the unique form of protest adopted
to 31st Dec. 2020. by the rural people in the himalayan region
83. (c) The increase in the level of green house of India in the 1970s and 80s, against the
gases (e.g., CO2, CH4, CFC, N2O etc.) has indiscriminate logging and felling of trees that
led to the considerable heating of earth spelt the destruction of their environment.
surface leading to global warming. The The first Chipko action occurred in April
relative contributions of various green house 1973. Over the next five years, the movement
gases to global warming is spread to several hill districts in Uttar Pradesh.
CO2 (60%) > CH4 (20%) > CFC (14%) > In 1980, Chipko activists won a fifteen-year
N2O (6%) ban on green felling in the himalayan forests.
84. (b) Ozone present in upper part of the 92. (a) CFC 14%, Methane 20% is the correct
atmosphere ie. stratosphere is benefical for percentage of the two (out of the total of
living beings. As it functions as a shield 4) green house gases that contribute to the
against harmful UV-radiation. total global warming. A regular assessment
85. (d) The correct acronym is IUCN, of abundance of green house gases and their
International Union for Conservation of impact on global environment is being made
Nature and Natural resources. by IPCC (Inter-Governmental Panel on
86. (d) CO2 and N2O are major green house Climate Change). The various green house
gases. gases are CO2 ( warming effect 60%), CH4
87. (c) Good ozone occurs naturally in the (effect 20%), chlorofluorocarbons or CFCS
earth’s upper atmosphere 10 to 30 miles (14%) and nitrous oxide (N2O), 6%). Others
above earth’s surface (stratosphere) where it of minor significance are water vapours and
forms a protective layer that shield us from ozone.
the sun’s harmful ultraviolet rays. 93. (a) Montreal protocol which calls for
88. (a) The gases that makes highest relative appropriate action (like less production of
contribution to the green house gases are ozone depleting substances called ODS
carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4). such as CFCs) to protect the ozone layer
89. (a) Global agreement in specific control was passed by a forum of 27 industralized
strategies to reduce the release of ozone countries on 16 September 1987. Till now
depleting substances was adopted by 175 countries have joined this.
the­Montreal protocol. The treaty was 94. (b) Kyoto Protocol (1997) : International
originally signed in 1987 and substantially conference held in Kyoto, Japan obtained
amended in 1990 and 1992. The Montreal commitments from different countries for
protocol stipulates that the production and reducing overall greenhouse gas emissions at
consumption of compounds that deplete a level 9% below 1990 level by 2008-2012.
ozone in the stratosphere-­ chlorofluoro- Montreal Protocol (1987) : Industrialized
carbons (CFCs), halogens, carbon countries agreed to limit production of
tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform– are chloroflourocarbons to half the level of 1986.
to be phased out by 2000 (2005 for methyl 95. (c) Solar energy coming to the earth is not
chloroform). responsible for green house effect. It is the
90. (d) The aim of Montreal protocol was to increase in green house gases in atmosphere
protect the ozone layer in the stratosphere like CO 2 which is released by complete
by decreasing and eventually eliminating combustion of fossil fuels or biomass in
the use of of ozone depleting substances like industries or transportation vehicles that
CFCs. prevent the reradiation of infrared radiation
 EBD_7325
460 BIOLOGY
from the earth and result in increase in ultraviolet radiations of the sun. Exposure to
temperature of the earth. UV rays increases the risk of skin cancer and
96. (b) Methane forms a major part of gobar- other skin related disorders.
gas. Ammonia is toxic. Ethane and butane 102. (c) Ozone hole is an area with extreme
are not major components of gobar gas. reduction in the ozone concentration. It was
97. (b) The major contributor of Green House discovered over Halley Bay in Antarctica
gases to the atmosphere is U.S.A., which itself by Farman et. al (1985), members of British
releases around 37% of the chlorofluorocar- Antarctic Survey Team.
bons (CFCs). Image of the largest Antarctic ozone hole ever
98. (d) RBE (Relative Biological Effectiveness) recorded in September 2006.
is a comparision of the dose of the radiation 103. (c) Desertification is the process leading
being studied with the dose of standard to the formation of desert. The main factor
radiation producing the same effect. of desertification of land is over-grazing by
99. (d) Green house effect is the rise in atmo- herbivorous animals.
spheric temperature due to increase in con- 104. (c) CO2 is the major green house gas causing
centration of green house gases. green house effect which is released in the
The greenhouse effect, discovered by atmosphere by burning fossil (combustion)
Joseph Fourier in 1824 and first investigated or by activities like animal respiration.
quantitatively by Svante Arrhenius in 1896, is Deforestation adds to the increase in CO2 in
the process in which the emission of infrared
atmosphere because trees are cut down which
radiation by an atmosphere warms a planet’s
are the big absorber of CO2.
surface. In the case of the Earth, without these
105. (a) Deforestation causes the depletion of
greenhouse gases its surface would be up to 30°C
wood and nutrients from an ecosystem and
cooler. The name comes from an incorrect
hence nutrient cycling gets slowed down.
analogy with the way in which greenhouses are
106. (d) Ultraviolet radiations cause photo-
heated by the sun in order to facilitate plant
chemical splitting of oxygen molecules in the
growth. In addition to the Earth, Mars and
stratosphere. The nascent oxygen combines
especially Venus have greenhouse effects. The
maximum green house gases are emitted by with molecular oxygen to form ozone. In tro-
USA. posphere nascent oxygen comes from nitrogen
100. (c) Some of the important green house dioxide.
gases are CO2, CFCs, Nitrous oxide, Ozone, 107. (c) Increase in the concentration of CO2
Methane etc. Nitrous oxide is produced do not allow the earth's radiations to go out
by denitrifying bacteria acting on artificial of earth’s atmosphere and contributes in
fertilisers applied to poorly aerated soil. increasing temperature of earth.
101. (d) Increase in air pollution has resulted in 108. (d) Transpiration will be decreased, air
gradual depletion of the ozone layer. This temperature will increase and water content
has exposed the earth's surface to the harmful will decrease hence rainfall decreases.