Super 10 Mock Tests For NEET Disha

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com
Download from https://neetmedicalacademy.blogspot.com
MOCK
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SUPER Aj
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NEET
2018
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EBD_7205
• Corporate Office : 45, 2nd Floor, Maharishi Dayanand Marg, Corner Market,
Malviya Nagar, New Delhi-110017
Tel. : 011-49842349 / 49842350
Compiled and Edited by :

Sanjeev Kumar Jha (Physics)
Himanshu Mishra (Chemistry)
Ramya Anshoo & Ekta Bhagat (Biology)
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Typeset by Disha DTP Team
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DISHA PUBLICATION
ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
© Copyright Publisher
No part of this publication may be reproduced in any form without prior permission of the publisher and author. The author
and the publisher do not take any legal responsibility for any errors or misrepresentations that might have crept in. We
have tried and made our best efforts to provide accurate up-to-date information in this book.
For further information about the books from DISHA,

Log on to www.dishapublication.com or email to info@dishapublication.com
Page No.
TREND ANALYSIS FOR NEET (2007-2017) (i) - (iii)
MOCK TESTS
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1. Mock Test - 1 MT-1–17
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6. Mock Test - 6 MT-84–100

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7. Mock Test - 7 MT-101–117
8. Mock Test - 8 MT-118–134
9. Mock Test - 9 MT-135–152
10. Mock Test - 10 MT-153–170

EBD_7205
SOLUTIONS
1. Mock Test - 1 MT-171–183

2. Mock Test - 2 MT-184–195
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3. Mock Test - 3 MT-196–207
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4. Mock Test - 4 MT-208–218
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5. Mock Test - 5 MT-219–229
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6. Mock Test - 6 MT-230–242

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7. Mock Test - 7 MT-243–253

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8. Mock Test - 8 MT-254–264

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9. Mock Test - 9 MT-265–274
10. Mock Test - 10 MT-275–284

TREND ANALYSIS OF AIPMT/NEET PAPERS (2007-2017)
PHYSICS
Number of Question(s)in
Ch.
Chapter Name 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2016 2017
No.
Ph-1 Ph-2
1 Units and Measurements 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 0 1 1
2 Motion in a Straight Line 2 4 2 3 2 2 2 0 1 1 1 1
3 Motion in a Plane 3 2 2 2 5 2 2 1 1 1 0 1
4 Laws of Motion 1 1 1 1 3 0 2 3 2 2 2 2
5 Work, Energy and Power 1 2 4 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 4 1
6 System of Particles and Rotational 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 3
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Motion
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7 Gravitation 1 0 1 2 3 3 2 3 2 2 2 2
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8 Mechanical Properties of Solids 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1
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9 Mechanical Properties of Fluids 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 2 1
10 Thermal Properties of Matter 2 2 2 2 0

Aj 2 2 2 2 3 2 2
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11 Kinetic Theory 0 1 1 0 0 0 2 1 2 1 2 2
12 Thermodynamics 1 1 2 1 4 0 2 2 2 3 1 1
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13 Oscillations 2 3 2 2 3 0 0 1 2 0 1 2
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14 Waves 1 3 2 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 2 2
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15 Electrostatics 4 3 2 2 6 3 2 3 2 2 2 3
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16 Current Electricity 5 5 5 4 7 4 3 4 3 2 2 2
17 Moving Charges and Magnetism 4 3 1 0 2 2 3 2 2 3 3 2

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18 Magnetism and Matter 1 0 2 2 2 1 1 1 0 1 1 1

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19 Electromagnetic Induction 2 1 2 5 1 2 1 1 1 0 0 1
20 Alternating Current and EM Waves 1 1 1 1 6 1 2 2 2 3 3 2
21 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 2 2 0 2 4 5 2 2 2 3 4 2
22 Wave Optics 1 0 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 3
23 Dual Nature of Radiation and 3 4 3 3 8 3 2 2 2 2 2 2

Matter
24 Atoms and Nuclei 5 4 5 4 7 7 3 3 3 2 1 2
25 Semiconductor Electronics 4 4 4 5 8 5 3 2 2 3 3 3
Total Questions 50 50 50 50 50 50 45 45 45 45 45 45
(i)
EBD_7205
CHEMISTRY
Number of Question(s) in
Ch.
Chapter Name 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2016 2017
No
Ph-1 Ph-2
1 Same Basic Concepts of 2 4 1 1 0 0 1 2 1 0 1 1
Chemistry
2 Structure of Atom 1 2 3 1 3 2 3 2 0 1 2 1
3 Classification of Elements 2 1 1 2 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1
and Periodicity in
Properties
4 Chemical Bonding and 2 3 4 4 2 3 4 3 5 2 3 4
Molecular structure
5 States of Matter 1 2 1 0 4 1 2 1 0 1 0 0
6 Thermodynamics 2 3 2 2 2 3 0 2 0 1 1 2
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7 Equilibrium 4 5 3 6 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 3
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8 Redox Reactions 0 0 0 1 0 2 0 1 0 1 1 0
9 Hydrogen 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0
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10 The s and p-Block 5 4 6 4 3 4 6 1 3 6 5 3
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Elements
11 Organic Chemistry-Some 5 7 4 7 4 2 4 2 4 0 2 3
Basic Principles and
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Techniques
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12 Hydrocarbons 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 4 3 4 3
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13 Environmental Chemistry 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1
14 The Solid State 1 3 1 1 0 2 2 1 1 2 1 1
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15 Solutions 2 1 1 3 3 1 1 0 3 2 2 1
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16 Electrochemistry 2 3 3 0 3 1 3 2 1 1 5 1
17 Chemical Kinetics 3 2 4 3 2 2 2 0 2 2 1 2
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18 Surface Chemistry 1 0 0 0 1 2 0 1 1 1 2 1
19 General Principles and 2 0 0 0 2 3 0 0 1 1 0 1
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Processes of Isolation of
or
Elements
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20 The d and f-Block 2 0 2 2 2 1 3 5 5 2 2 2

Elements
21 Co-ordination Chemistry 2 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 2 1 1 4
22 Haloalkanes and 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 2 2 0
Haloarenes
23 Alcohols, Phenols and 0 0 3 0 0 1 1 3 1 2 0 3
Ethers
24 Aldehydes, Ketones and 5 2 1 3 1 3 2 1 3 1 1 2
Carboxylic Acids
25 Amines 1 2 1 2 2 0 2 2 1 3 3 2
26 Biomolecules 1 1 2 1 1 3 0 2 0 3 3 1
27 Polymers 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 1 1
28 Chemistry in Action 1 1 1 1 2 0 1 1 1 1 0 1
Total Questions 50 50 50 50 50 50 45 45 45 45 45 45
(ii)
BIOLOGY
Number of Question(s) in
Ch.
Chapter Name 2007 2008 2009 2010 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2016 2017
No
Ph-1 Ph-2
1 The Living World 4 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1 0
2 Biological Classification 4 4 3 3 8 4 1 6 2 4 4 4
3 Plant Kingdom 5 3 3 3 1 3 4 4 4 2 2 4
4 Animal Kingdom 1 5 2 4 3 1 4 4 3 3 2 5
5 Morphology of Flowering Plants 1 1 2 3 4 7 2 5 5 7 5 2
6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants 2 3 5 3 4 5 3 2 4 0 3 4
7 Structural Organisations in Animals 1 1 6 1 3 2 1 2 2 2 2 1
8 Cell: The Unit of Life 2 3 4 4 4 5 3 4 4 3 3 1
9 Biomolecules 1 1 0 1 2 3 4 2 1 5 3 2
10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division 0 0 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 4 3 2
11 Transport in Plants 2 2 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 2
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12 Mineral Nutrition 2 1 2 3 4 3 1 1 2 1 2 0
13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants 3 3 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 4 2 1
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14 Respiration in Plants 2 3 1 1 0 0 2 1 0 1 1 2
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15 Plant Growth and Development 3 1 2 2 0 0 2 4 2 1 1 1
16 Digestion and Absorption 2 3 4 2
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17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases 1 2 0 2 0 1 2 1 2 2 2 1
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18 Body Fluids and Circulation 0 2 5 3 5 0 1 2 3 2 2 1
Excretory Products and
19 2 2 2 3 5 1 1 1 2 1 1 1
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their Elimination
20 Locomotion and Movement 1 1 2 0 0 1 3 1 2 1 1 2
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21 Neural Control and Coordination 3 4 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 3

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Chemical Coordination
22 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 3
and Regulation
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23 Reproduction in Organisms 0 0 1 0 1 1 3 0 0 1 1 0
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering
24 3 6 3 4 5 3 6 3 4 2 4 6
Plants
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25 Human Reproduction 1 3 7 11 3 4 3 3 3 2 5 3
26 Reproductive Health 0 2 0 1 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 2
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Principles of Inheritence
27 6 1 5 5 4 2 4 4 3 6 3 5
and Variation
28 Molecular basis of Inheritance 6 4 5 4 1 4 2 4 6 3 4 7
29 Evolution 11 6 1 1 1 4 4 2 1 3 3 0
30 Human health and disease 3 4 5 3 5 6 2 2 6 3 2 3
Strategies for Enhancement in
31 6 3 2 2 3 2 1 1 2 1 3 2
Food Production
32 Microbes in Human Welfare 2 3 0 3 2 7 2 1 0 2 1 3
Biotechnology: Principles
33 0 1 1 5 2 5 2 3 0 3 4 4
and processes
34 Biotechnology and its Applications 0 2 3 3 3 1 1 2 3 0 1 1
35 Organisms and Populations 4 1 2 2 4 0 2 4 2 3 4 3
36 Ecosystem 1 4 2 2 2 6 3 1 6 2 2 1
37 Biodiversity and its Conservation 2 3 2 1 3 2 1 4 2 2 3 3
38 Environmental Issues 3 4 8 4 4 3 3 2 3 3 2 1
Total Questions 100 100 100 100 100 100 90 90 90 90 90 90
(iii)
EBD_7205
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Mock Test -1 MT-1
1 JEE MAIN
MOCK TEST
Time : 3 hrs. Max. Marks : 720
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INSTRUCTIONS
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• Physics (180 marks) : Question No. 1 to 45 are of 4 marks each.
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• Chemistry (180 marks) : Question No. 46 to 90 are of 4 marks each.
• Biology (360 marks) :

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Question No. 91 to 180 are of 4 marks each.
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• Negative Marking : One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect
response of each question.
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PHYSICS
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(c) in the ratio of the difference in the square

1. Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x
by F = A sin Ct + B cos Dx. Then, dimensions roots of the integers, i.e., 1, ( 2 - 1 ) ,
Eb
of
A
and
C
are
( 3 - 2 ), ( 4 - 3 ) ,
B D (d) in the ratio of the reciprocals of the square
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(a) [M L T ], [M0 L0 T–1]

0 0 0
or
1 11
(b) [M L T–2], [M0 L–1 T0] ,
roots of the integers, i.e., , , ....
(c) [M0 L0 T0], [M0 L T–1] 1 2 3
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(d) [M0 L1 T–1], [M0 L0 T0] 3. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion
2. A particle is dropped from rest from a large having time period T. The time taken in 3/8th
height.Assume g to be constant throughout the oscillation is
motion. The time taken by it to fall through 3 5
successive distances of 1 m each will be (a) T (b) T
8 8
(a) all equal, being equal to 2 / g second
5 7
(b) in the ratio of the square roots of the (c) T (d) T
12 12
integers 1, 2, 3, .....
EBD_7205
MT-2 NEET
4. When current in a coil changes from 5 A to 2 A distance covered by its fall to ground is
in 0.1 s, average voltage of 50 V is produced. maximum when the angle q is equal to
The self - inductance of the coil is : (a) 0º (b) 30º
(a) 6 H (b) 0.67 H (c) 45º (d) 90º
(c) 3 H (d) 1.67 H 10. A 25 cm long solenoid has radius 2 cm and 500
5. The table given below represents the truth table total number of turns. It carries a current of 15
for which of the following combinations of logic A. If it is equivalent to a magnet of the same
gates? r
A B Y size and magnetization M (magnetic moment/
uur
0 0 1 volume), then M is :
0 1 0 (a) 30000p Am–1 (b) 3p Am–1
(c) 30000 Am –1 (d) 300 Am–1
1 0 1
11. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are
s
1 1 0 placed at each corner as shown in fig. The electric
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(a) A intensity at centre O will be
B Y +q A
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A
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(b) Y r
B
Aj O
A r r
(c) Y
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B +q +q
B C
(d) None of these
1 q 1 q
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6. The work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two

photons each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron (a) 4 p Îo r
(b) 4 p Î 2
o r
of aluminium, then emission of electron will
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(a) depend upon the density of the surface 1 3q

(c) (d) zero
(b) possible 4 p Îo r 2
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(c) not possible 12. The figure shows the path of a positively
(d) None of these
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charged particle 1 through a rectangular region

7. A doubly ionised Li atom is excited from its of uniform electric field as shown in the figure.
ground state(n = 1) to n = 3 state. The What is the direction of electric field and the
wavelengths of the spectral lines are given by
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direction of particles 2, 3 and 4 ?

l32, l31 and l21. The ratio l32/l31 and l21/l31
or
are, respectively Top

2– +3
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(a) 8.1, 0.67 (b) 8.1, 1.2

(c) 6.4, 1.2 (d) 6.4, 0.67 1+ –4
8. Two wires A and B of the same material, having Down
radii in the ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the (a) Top, down, top, down
ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of drift speed of electrons in (b) Top, down, down, top
A and B is (c) Down, top, top, down
(a) 16 : 1 (b) 1 : 16 (d) Down; top, down, down
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 13. A circular disc A of radius r is made from an iron
9. A stone is thrown with a velocity u making an plate of thickness t and another circular disc B
angle q with the horizontal. The horizontal of radius 4r is made from an iron plate of
Mock Test -1 MT-3
thickness t/4. The relation between the moments (a) 312.5 × 10–3 cm (b) 312.5 × 10–3 m
of inertia IA and IB is (c) 312.5 × 10–3 m (d) 312 m
(a) IA > IB (b) IA = IB 20. The heat radiated per unit area in 1 hour by a
(c) IA < IB furnace whose temperature is 3000 K is (s = 5.7 ×
(d) depends on the actual value of t and r 10–8 W m–2 K–4)
14. Einstein’s work on photoelectric effect provided (a) 1.7 × 1010 J (b) 1.1 × 1012 J
support for the equation (c) 2.8 × 10 J8 (d) 4.6 × 106 J
(a) E = hn (b) E = mc2 21. A gun fires two bullets at 60º and 30º with
-Rhc 1 horizontal. The bullets strike at some horizontal
(c) E = 2 (d) K.E. = mv 2 distance. The ratio of maximum height for the
n 2
two bullets is in the ratio of
15. A metallic bar is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC. The (a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1
coeficient of linear expansion is 10–5 K–1. What (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
s
will be the percentage increase in length? 22. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal
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(a) 0.01% (b) 0.1% resistance of 400 Ohm. Its terminals are
(c) 1% (d) 10% connected to a load of 4000 Ohm the voltage
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16. A rough vertical board has an acceleration a across the load is
along the horizontal so that a block of mass M (a) 220 volt (b) 440 volt
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pressing against it does not fall. The coefficient (c) 200 volt (d) 400 volt
of friction between block and the board is 23. Electric field inside a copper wire of length 10
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a g metres, resistance 2 ohm connected to a 10 volt
(a) > (b) < battery is
g a
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M (a) 1 Vm –l (b) 0.5 Vm–l
a g (c) 10 Vm–l (d) 5 Vm–l
(c) = (d) >
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a 24. A large number of liquid drops each of radius r

g
coalesce to from a single drop of radius R. The
17. What should be the minimum value of refractive energy released in the process is converted into
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index of the material of the prism for the kinetic energy of the big drop so formed. The
reflections to take place as shown in the figure? speed of the big drop is (given, surface tension
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45º of liquid T, density r)

(a) 1.7 (b) 1.4
Eb
T æ1 1 ö 2T æ 1 1 ö
- -
r çè r R ÷ø r çè r R ÷ø
(c) 1.2 (d) 2.7 (a) (b)
18. Plates of area A are arranged as shown. The
e
distance between each plate is d, the net 4T æ 1 1 ö 6T æ 1 1 ö

- ÷ -
or
capacitance is (c) ç
r èr Rø
(d)
r çè r R ÷ø
b
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e0 A 7e 0 A 25. The path difference between the two waves :

(a) (b)
d d æ 2 px ö
y1 = a1 sin ç wt - ÷
6e 0 A 5e 0 A è l ø
(c) (d)
d d a
19. A plane wave of wavelength 6250 Å is incident æ 2px ö

and y 2 = a 2 sin ç wt - + f ÷ will be
normally on a slit of width 2 × 10–2 cm. The width è l ø
of the principal maximum on a screen distant 50
cm will be 2p 2p æ pö
(a) f (b) çf - ÷
l l è 2ø
EBD_7205
MT-4 NEET
2p æ pö E
l E
(c) f (d) çf + ÷
2p l è 2ø
(a) (b)
26. The diagram shows the energy levels for an
electron in a certain atom. Which transition q
q
shown represents the emission of a photon
with the most energy? E E
(c) (d)
n=4
n =3
q q
n =2
31. The r.m.s. velocity of oxygen molecule at 16ºC is
474 m/sec. The r.m.s. velocity in m/s of hydrogen
s
molecule at 127ºC is
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n =1
I II III IV (a) 1603 (b) 1896
(c) 2230.59 (d) 2730
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(a) IV (b) III
(c) II (d) I 32. When the rms voltages VL, VC and VR are
measured respectively across the inductor L, the
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27. During an adiabatic compression, 830 J of work
capacitor C and the resistor R in a series LCR
is done on 2 moles of a diatomic ideal gas to
Ajcircuit connected to an AC source, it is found
reduce its volume by 50%. The change in its
that the ratio VL : VC : VR = 1 : 2 : 3. If the rms
temperature is nearly: (R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1)
voltage of the AC sources is 100 V, the VR is
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(a) 40 K (b) 33 K close to:
(c) 20 K (d) 14 K (a) 50 V (b) 70 V
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28. A body of mass 10 kg and velocity 10 m/s (c) 90 V (d) 100 V

collides with a stationary body of mass 5 kg.
33. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors
After collision both bodies stick to each other,
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of electromagnetic wave are oriented along

velocity of the bodies after collision will be
(a) the same direction and in phase
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3 18 (b) the same direction but have a phase

(a) m/s (b) m/s
10 3 difference of 90º
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(c) mutually perpendicular directions and are

9 20 in phase
(b) m/s (d) m/s
20 3 (d) mutually perpendicular directions but has
e
29. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) a phase difference of 90º
or
attract each other with a force inversely 34. The gravitational field in a region is given by
M
proportional to the square of the distance ®

between them. If the particles are initially held g = 5N / kgiˆ + 12N / kgjˆ . The change in the
at rest and then released, the centre of mass will gravitational potential energy of a particle of
(a) move towards m1 (b) move towards m2 mass 1 kg when it is taken from the origin to a
(c) remain at rest (d) Nothing can be said point (7 m, – 3 m) is:
30. Which of the following graphs represent the (a) 71 J (b) 13 58J
variation of thermo emf (E) of a thermocouple
(c) – 71 J (d) 1 J
with temperature q of hot junction (the cold
junction being kept at 0ºC)
Mock Test -1 MT-5
35. The counting rate observed from a radioactive 41. In a transistor

source at (a) both emitter and collector have same length
t = 0 was 1600 counts s–1, and t = 8 s, it was (b) length of emitter is greater than that of
100 counts s–1. The counting rate observed as collector
counts s–1 at t = 6 s will be (c) length of collector is greater than that of
(a) 250 (b) 400 emitter
(c) 300 (d) 200 (d) any one of emitter and collector can have
36. At 0ºK which of the following properties of a greater length
gas will be zero? 42. A brass scale of a barometer gives correct
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy reading at 0°C. aBrass = 0.00002/°C. The
(c) Vibrational energy (d) Density barometer reads 75 cm at 27°C. The atmospheric
37. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15W and pressure at 0°C is
gives full scale deflection for a current of 4 mA. (a) 74.20 cm (b) 74.62 cm
s
To convert it to an ammeter of range 0 to 6 A (c) 74.92 cm (d) 75.04 cm
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(a) 10 mW resistance is to be conncected in 43. The total length of a sonometer wire between
parallel to the galvanometer fixed ends is 110 cm. Two bridges are placed to
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(b) 10 mW resistance is to be connected in divide the length of wire in ratio 6 : 3 : 2. The
series with the galvanometer tension in the wire is 400 N and the mass per unit
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(c) 0.1 W resistance is to be connected in length is 0.01 kg/m. What is the minimum
parallel to the galvanometer common frequency with which three parts can
(d) 0.1 W resistance is to be connected in series Ajvibrate?
with the galvanometer (a) 1100 Hz (b) 1000 Hz
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38. A uniform rod of mass m, length l , area of cross- (c) 166 Hz (d) 100 Hz
section A has Young’s modulus Y. If it is hanged 44. For the velocity time graph shown in the figure
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vertically, elongation under its own weight will be below the distance covered by the body in the
mgl 2mgl last two seconds of its motion is what fraction
(a) (b) of the total distance travelled by it in all the seven
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2AY AY seconds?
mgl mgY
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(c) (d) 1
AY Al (a)
2
10
Eb
39. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When

it is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance 1 8 B C
(b)
between the objective and the eye piece is found 4 6
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to be 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are velocity 4

2 ms–1
or
(a) 18 cm, 2 cm (b) 11 cm, 9 cm (c) 2 A D

(c) 10 cm, 10 cm (d) 15 cm, 5 cm 3
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40. If two soap bubbles of different radii are 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

1 Time (s)
connected by a tube. Then (d)
3
(a) air flows from the smaller bubble to the
45. An object undergoing SHM takes 0.5 s to travel
bigger
from one point of zero velocity to the next such
(b) air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller
point. The distance between those points is 50
bubble till the sizes are interchanged
cm. The period, frequency and amplitude of the
(c) air flows from the bigger bubble to the
motion is
smaller bubble till the sizes become equal
(a) 1s, 1Hz, 25 cm (b) 2s, 1Hz, 50 cm
(d) there is no flow of air.
(c) 1s, 2Hz, 25 cm (d) 2s, 2Hz, 50 cm
EBD_7205
MT-6 NEET
49. In the extraction of Cu, the metal is formed in the

CHEMISTRY bessemer converter due to the reaction :
(a) Cu2S + 2Cu2O ¾¾ ® 6Cu + SO2
46. Fluorine is more electronegative than either
(b) Cu2S ¾¾ ® 2Cu + S
boron or phosphorus. What conclusion can be
(c) Fe + Cu2O ¾¾ ® 2Cu + FeO
drawn from the fact that BF3 has no dipole
moment but PF3 does ? (d) 2Cu2O ¾¾ ® 4Cu + O2
50. An example of electrophilic substitution reaction
(a) BF3 is not spherically symmetrical but PF3 is
is
spherically symmetrical.
(a) Chlorination of methane
(b) BF3 molecule must be linear (b) Conversion of methyl chloride to methyl
(c) The atomic radius of P is larger than that of B alcohol
(d) The BF3 molecule must be planar triangular (c) Nitration of benzene
(d) Formation of ethylene from ethyl alcohol.
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47. Sulphur dioxide and oxygen were allowed to 51. Which of the following molecules is most
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diffuse through a porous partition. 20 dm3 of suitable to disperse benzene in water ?
SO2 diffuses through the porous partition in 60
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seconds. The volume of O 2 in dm 3 which O
(a) – +
diffuses under the similar condition in 30 O Na
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seconds will be (atomic mass of sulphur = 32 u): + – O
(a) 7.09 (b) 14.1 (b) Na O – +
(c) 10.0 (d) 28.2

Aj O
O Na
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CH2 – CH = CH2
48. (c)
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CH3
On mercuration-demercuration produces the

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major product:
(d) Cl
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CH2 – CH – CH3
(a) 52. Ozone hole refers to
Eb
OH
(a) Increase in concentration of ozone
(b) Hole in ozone layer
(c) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in
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CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH

(b) troposphere
or
(d) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in

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stratsophere
53. Which of the following does not represent the
CH2 – CH – CH3
(c) correct order of the properties indicated
OH OH (a) Ni2+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ > Mn2+ (size)
(b) Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn (size)
(c) Mn2+ > Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+
CH2 – COOH (unpaired electron)
(d) (d) Fe2+ > Co2+ > Ni2+ > Cu2+
(unpaired electron)
Mock Test -1 MT-7
54. Match the columns 59. The major organic product in the reaction,
Column - I Column - II CH3 — O — CH(CH3)2 + HI ® Product is
2Cl / UV light (a) ICH2OCH(CH3)2
(A) C2H6¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® (p) Finkelstein
(b) CH 3 O C(CH 3 ) 2
C2H5Cl reaction |
(B) C6H5NH2 (q) Free radical I
substitution (c) CH3I + (CH3)2CHOH
NaNO 2 + HCl/Cu 2Cl 2
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® (d) CH3OH + (CH3)2CHI
273- 278K
60. The rate constant of a zero order reaction is 2.0 ×
C6H5Cl 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. If the concentration of the
(C) CH3Cl + NaI ¾¾ (r) Swarts reactant after 25 seconds is 0.5 M. What is the
®
CH3I + NaCl reaction initial concentration ?
(a) 0.5 M (b) 1.25 M
s
(D) CH3 – Br + AgF ¾¾® (s) Sandmeyer’s (c) 12.5 M (d) 1.0 M
ok
CH3F + AgBr reaction 61. The correct order of solubility in water for He,
Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe is
bo
(a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r) (a) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(b) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
(b) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
(c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
_e
(c) Ne > Ar > Kr > He > Xe
(d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
55. The electrons, identified by quantum numbers n (d) Ar > Ne > He > Kr > Xe
and l (i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 (iii) n = 3, l = 2
Aj
62. The de Broglie wavelength of a car of mass 1000
kg and velocity 36 km/hr is :
@
(iv) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in order of increasing
energy, from the lowest to highest, as (a) 6.626 × l0–34 m
(a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (b) 6.626 × 10–38 m
At
(b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) (c) 6.626 × 10–31 m
(c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (d) 6.626 × 10– 30 m
ks
(d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) 63. The correct IUPAC name for
56. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes
oo
place between system and surroundings. Choose

the correct option for free expansion of an ideal
Eb
gas under adiabatic condition from the

following.
(a) q = 0, DT ¹ 0, w = 0
e
(b) q ¹ 0, DT = 0, w = 0 (a) 5-methyl -4-(1'-2'-demethylpropyl) heptane

(b) 3-methyl-4-(1',2'-dimethylpropyl) heptane
or
(c) q = 0, DT = 0, w = 0
(d) q = 0, DT < 0, w ¹ 0 (c) 2,3,5-trimethyl-4-propylheptane
M
57. In which of the following cases, the stability of (d) 4-propyl-2,3,5-trimethylpeptane

two oxidation states is correctly represented 64. Which of the following shows iso-structural
(a) Ti3+ > Ti4+ (b) Mn2+ > Mn3+ species?
(c) Fe2+ > Fe3+ (d) Cu+ > Cu2+ (a) NH +4 and NH -2
58. Which is not the disproportionation reaction ?
(a) 3H 3PO 2 ¾¾ ® 2H 3 PO 2 + PH 3 (b) CH 3- and CH 3+
(b) HCHO + OH - ¾¾ ® HCOO - + CH 3OH SO 24 - , PO34- and [BF4 ]-
(c)
(c) NH 4 NO 3 ¾¾ ® N 2 O + 2H 2 O
(d) 3Cl2 + 6OH - ¾¾ ® 5Cl - + ClO 3- + 3H 2 O (d) NH 4+ and NH 3
EBD_7205
MT-8 NEET
65. When dihydroxyacetone reacts with HIO4, the balloon. It will burst when pressure is (assuming
product is/are : isothermal condition)
(a) HCHO (b) HCOOH (a) > 0.5 atm (b) < 0.5 atm
(c) HCHO and HCOOH (d) HCHO and CO2 (c) = 0.5 atm (d) ³ 0.5 atm
66. Consider the reactions 71. Which one of the following complexes will have
(A) H2O2 + 2HI ® I2 + 2H2O four different isomers ?
(B) HOCl + H2O2 ® H3O+ + Cl– + O2 (a) [Co (en ) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl
Which of the following statements is correct (b) [ Co ( en )( NH 3 )Cl 2 ]Cl
about H2O2 with reference to these reactions?
Hydrogen peroxide is ______ . (c) [Co(PPh 3 ) 2 Cl2 ]Cl
(a) an oxidising agent in both (A) and (B) (d) [Co (en )3 ]Cl 3
(b) an oxidising agent in (A) and reducing agent 72. Solubility product of a salt AB is 1 × 10–8 in a
in (B) solution in which the concentration of A+ ions
s
(c) a reducing agent in (A) and oxidising agent is 10–3 M. The salt will precipitate when the
ok
in (B) concentration of B– ions is kept
(d) a reducing agent in both (A) and (B) (a) between 10–8 M to 10–7 M
bo
67. A certain compound (X) when treated with (b) between 10–7 M to 10–8 M
copper sulphate solution yields a brown (c) > 10–5 M
_e
precipitate. On adding hypo solution, the (d) < 10–8 M
precipitate turns white. The compound is 73. Sucrose in water is dextro-rotatory, [a]D= + 66.4º.
(a) K2CO3
(c) KBr
(b) KI
(d) K3PO4
Aj When boiled with dilute HCl, the solution
becomes leavo-rotatory, [a]D= –20º. In this
@
68. Consider the following reactions: process the sucrose molecule breaks into
(i) H +(aq) + OH–(aq) ® H2O(l), (a) L-glucose + D-fructose
DH = – X1 kJ mol–1
At
(b) L-glucose + L-fructose

1 (c) D-glucose + D-fructose
(ii) H2(g) + O2(g) ® H2O(l),
2 (d) D-glucose + L-fructose
ks
DH = – X2 kJ mol–1 74. Select correct statement(s).

(a) Cyanamide ion (CN22–) is isoelectronic with
oo
(iii) CO2(g) + H2(g) ® CO(g) + H2O,

CO2 and has the same linear structure
DH = – X3 kJ mol–1 (b) Mg2C3 reacts with water to form propyne
Eb
5 (c) CaC2 has NaCl type lattice

(iv) C 2 H 2(g) + O 2(g) ® 2CO2(g) + H2O(l),
2 (d) All of the above
DH = + 4X4 kJ mol–1 75. Which of the following statement is not true
e
Enthalpy of formation of H2O (l) is about secondary structure of protein ?

or
(a) + X3 kJ mol– 1 (b) – X4 kJ mol– 1 (a) The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta
turns are examples of secondary structure
M
(c) + X1 kJ mol – 1 (d) – X2 kJ mol– 1

69. Which of the following possesses a sp-carbon of protein.
in its structure ? (b) The ability of peptide bonds to form
(a) CH2 = CCI – CH = CH2 intramolecular hydrogen bonds is
(b) CCl2 = CCl2 important to secondary structure.
(c) CH2 = C = CH2 (c) The steric influence of amino acid residues
(d) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2. is important to secondary structure.
70. A balloon has maximum capacity of 20 L. At one (d) The hydrophilic/ hydrophobic character of
atmospheric pressure 10 L of air is filled in the amino acid residues is important to
secondary structure.
Mock Test -1 MT-9
76. Vapour pressure of benzene at 30°C is 121.8 mm. (b) ClCH2COOH > HCOOH > CH3COOH
When 15 g of a non volatile solute is dissolved > C2H5 COOH
in 250 g of benzene its vapour pressure (c) CH3COOH > HCOOH > ClCH2COOH
decreased to 120.2 mm. The molecular weight of > C2H5COOH
the solute (Mo. wt. of solvent = 78) (d) C2H5COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH
(a) 356.2 (b) 456.8 > ClCH2COOH
(c) 530.1 (d) 656.7 82. Penicillin is :
77. In nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the (a) analgesic (b) antipyretic
hydrides gradually becomes closer to 90º on (c) antimalarial (d) antibiotic
going from N to Sb. This shows that gradually 83. Decomposition of H2O2 follows a first order
(a) Th e basic str ength of the hydrides reaction. In fifty minutes the concentration of
increases H2O2 decreases from 0.5 to 0.125 M in one such
decomposition. When the concentration of
s
(b) Almost pure p-orbitals are used for M-H
H2O2 reaches 0.05 M, the rate of formation of
ok
bonding
(c) The bond energies of M-H bonds increase O2 will be:
(a) 2.66 L min–1 at STP
bo
(d) The bond pairs of electrons become nearer
to the central atom (b) 1.34 × 10–2 mol min–1
(c) 6.96 × 10–2 mol min–1
_e
78. For reaction aA ® xP , when [A] = 2.2 mM, the
(d) 6.93 × 10–4 mol min–1
rate was found to be 2.4 mMs–1 . On reducing
concentration of A to half, the rate changes to 0.6
Aj
84. Which of the following reactions can produce
aniline as main product?
mMs–1. The order of reaction with respect to A is :
@
(a) C6H5NO2 + Zn/KOH
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.0
(b) C6H5NO2 + Zn/NH4Cl
(c) 2.5 (d) 3.0
At
(c) C6H5NO2 + LiAlH4

79. The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave (d) C6H5NO2 + Zn/HCl
as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence:
85. What is the standard reduction potential (E°) for
ks
(a) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr 3 Fe3+ ® Fe ?

(b) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 Given that :
oo
(c) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3

Fe2+ + 2e– ® Fe; E° = – 0.47V
(d) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr 3 Fe 2 + / Fe
Eb
80. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic Fe3+ +e– ® Fe2+; E°Fe3+ / Fe2 + = + 0.77V
systems : simple cubic, body centred cubic and
(a) – 0.057 V (b) + 0.057 V
e
face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the

(c) + 0.30 V (d) – 0.30 V
or
spheres in these systems will be respectively,

86. Which does not exist ?
1 1
M
1 3 1 (a) [SiCl6]2– (b) [GeF6]2–

(a) a: a: a (b) a : 3a : a
2 4 2 2 2 2 (c) [CCl6] 2– (d) [SnCl6]2–
87. In which case, van’t Hoff factor i remains
1 3 3 unchanged ?
(c) a: a: a (d) 1a : 3a : 2a
2 2 2 (a) PtCl4 reacts with aq. KCl
81. Which of the following is correct order of (b) aq. ZnCl2 reacts with aq. NH3
acidity? (c) aq. FeCl3 reacts with aq. K4[Fe(CN)]6
(a) HCOOH > CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH (d) KMnO4 reduced to MnO2 in alkaline
> C2H5 COOH medium
EBD_7205
MT-10 NEET
88. The unit of equivalent conductivity is B, C and D are :

(a) S cm–2
(b) ohm cm2 (g equivalent)
(c) ohm cm
(d) ohm -1cm2 (g equivalent)–1
89. Perlon is
(a) Terylene (b) Rubber
(c) Nylon – 6 (d) Polyester
90. Tertiary nitro compounds do not tautomerise
because
(a) there is no double bond
(b) there is no a-hydrogen
s
(c) oxygen is more electronegative than (a) A : n B : n C : 2n D : n
ok
hydrogen (b) A : n B : n C : 2n D : 2n
(d) all of the above (c) A : 2n B : n C : 2n D : n
bo
(d) A : n B : n C : n D : n
BIOLOGY 95. Connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs
_e
91. Choose correct option w.r.t origin and position cycle is/before entering Krebs cycle pyruvate is
of meristem reponsible for the regeneration of Ajchanged to
parts removed by the grazing herbivores. (a) oxaloacetate
@
(b) phosphoenol pyruvate
Origin Position (c) pyruvate
At
(a) Secondary Lateral (d) acetyl CoA

(b) Primary Apical 96. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by
(a) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
ks
(c) Secondary Apical

(b) high auxin : cytokinin ratio
(d) Primary Intercalated
oo
(c) high cytokinin : auxin ratio

92. Which of the following changes occur in (d) high gibberellin : auxin ratio
Eb
diaphragm and intercostal muscles when 97. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
expiration of air takes place? correct option from the codes given below.
(a) External intercostal when muscles relax and Column-I Column-II
e
diaphragm contracts A. Disintegration of (i) Anaphase

or
(b) External intercostal muscles contract and nuclear membrane

diaphragm relaxes B. Appearance of (ii) Prophase
M
(c) External intercostal muscles and diaphragm nucleolus

relax C. Division of (iii) Telophase
(d) External intercostal muscles and diaphragm centromere
contract D. Replication of DNA (iv) S-phase
93. Which one of the following is a long day plant? (a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(a) Bajra (b) Soyabean
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) Tobacco (d) Wheat
(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
94. Life cycle of Ulothrix is shown in the diagram.
The correct ploidy levels at the four stages A, (d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
Mock Test -1 MT-11
98. The enzyme used for joining two DNA fragments

is called:
(a) ligase
(b) restriction endonuclease
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) gyrase
99. Thorn is a modification of
(a) stem (b) leaf
(c) stipule (d) root
100. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from
bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is
(a) Caryopsis (b) Cypsela
(c) Berry (d) Cremocarp
s
101. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food
ok
chain causing biomagnification because DDT is
(a) moderately toxic 104. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is
bo
(b) non-toxic to aquatic animals represented by
(c) water soluble (a) Ovule
_e
(d) lipo soluble (b) Megaspore mother cell
102. Deep black soil is productive due to high Aj (c) Embryo sac
proportion of (d) Nucellus
@
(a) sand and zinc (b) gravel and calcium 105. Given below are the diagrammatic representation
(c) clay and humus (d) silt and earthworm of position of floral parts on thalamus, condition
103. The diagram below is a model demonstrating the of ovary and example. Find the correctly matched
At
mass flow hypothesis of translocation. combination?

Position of Condition Example
ks
floral parts of ovary

on thalamus
oo
Eb
(a) G Cucumber
e
or
M
What are the structures represented by W, X, Y

and Z and what is the direction of flow of solution (b) G– Brinjal
along W ?
phloem xylem roots leaves direction of
flow along W
(a) W X Y Z from Z to Y
(b) W X Z Y from Y to Z
(c) X W Z Y from Z to Y (c) G Plum
(d) X W Z Y from Y to Z
EBD_7205
MT-12 NEET
(c) net secondary productivity

(d) gross secondary productivity
113. Consider the following statements concerning
(d) G Rose food chains :
(i) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted
106. Today, concentration of green house gases is in greatly increased growth of vegetation
high because of (ii) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted
(a) Use of refrigerator in an increased population of deers
(b) Increased combustion of oil and coal (iii) The length of food chains is generally
(c) Deforestation limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy
(d) All the above loss
107. Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form (iv) The length of food chains may vary from 2
(a) 1 AaBB : 1aaBB (b) All AaBB to 8 trophic levels
s
(c) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB (d) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB Which two of the above statements are correct?
ok
108. Which of the following is the most stable (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
ecosystem? (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
bo
(a) Forest (b) Desert 114. Cabbage is a biennial plant which produces
(c) Mountain (d) Ocean flowers in second year of growth. In an attempt
_e
109. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by to make it flower in a single year, four potted
(a) treating the plants with low concentrations plants (I, II, III and IV) of cabbage were subjected
of gibberellic acid and auxins Aj to different temperatures for several days as
(b) raising the plants from vernalized seeds given in the table.
@
(c) treating the plants with phenylmercuric Potted plant Temperature
acetate I 5°C
(d) removing androecium of flowers before
At
II 20°C
pollen grains are released
110. A gene pair hides the effect of another gene. III 30°C
ks
The phenomenon is IV 25°C

(a) epistasis (b) dominance Which potted plant will show flowering?
oo
(c) mutation (d) None of the above (a) I (b) II

111. What would happen if in a gene encoding a (c) III (d) IV
Eb
polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) 115. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by
is mutated to UAA? (a) Carolus Linnaeus
(a) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be (b) Charles Darwin
e
formed. (c) Bentham and Hooker

or
(b) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids (d) Aristotle

will be formed 116. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophytes in
M
(c) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be possessing

formed (a) independent gametophyte
(d) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be (b) well developed vascular system
formed (c) archegonia structure
112. The rate at which light energy is converted to (d) flagellate spermatozoids
the chemical energy of organic molecules in the 117. It is important that certain free ribosomes bind to
ecosystem’s is the outer surface of the endoplasmic reticulum
(a) net primary productivity (ER) in order to complete their protein synthesis
(b) gross primary productivity because
Mock Test -1 MT-13
(a) The ER membrane will break down without 125. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used
the presence of numerous ribosomes. commercially in the production of :
(b) It allows for the synthesis of certain proteins (a) ethanol
to be completed in the cytosol. (b) streptokinase for removing clots from the
(c) It prevents the possibility that the synthesis blood vessels.
of certain proteins, such as lysosomal (c) Citric acid
hydrolases, would go to completion in the (d) blood cholesterol lowering statins
cytoplasm 126. Gel electrophoresis is used for
(d) Mitochondrial ribosomes must transcribe (a) cutting of DNA into fragments
proteins encoded for by mitochondrial DNA (b) separation of DNA fragments according to
in this manner. their size
118. Mycorrhiza is (c) construction of recombinant DNA by
(a) a symbiotic association of plant roots and joining with cloning vectors
s
certain fungi. (d) isolation of DNA molecule
ok
(b) an association of algae with fungi. 127. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
(c) a fungus parasitising root system of higher molecule is called
bo
plants. (a) Vector (b) Probe
(d) an association of Rhizobium with the roots (c) Clone (d) Plasmid
_e
of leguminous plants. 128. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot
119. Laminaria (kelp) and Fucus (rock weed) are the of biodiversity in India ?
examples of Aj (a) Indo-Gangetic Plain (b) Eastern Ghats
(a) red algae (b) brown algae (c) Aravalli Hills (d) Western Ghats
@
(c) green algae (d) golden brown 129. Which of these organisms are protected by
algae people of 'Bishnoi' community of Rajasthan?
(a) Prosopis cineraria
At
120. The outer layer of vacuole is called

(a) cell wall (b) tonoplast (b) Black buck
(c) plasmalayer (d) leucoplast (c) Bhojpatra
ks
121. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between (d) Both (a) and (b).
phloem/bark and wood of a dicot is 130. The movement of mineral ions into plant root
oo
(a) cork cambium (b) vascular cambium cells as a result of diffusion is called
(c) endodermis (d) pericycle (a) osmosis
Eb
122. Which of the following statements is true? (b) active absorption

(a) Vessels are multicellular with narrow lumen. (c) passive absorption
(b) Tracheids are multicellular with narrow (d) endocytosis
e
lumen. 131. The rate of transpiration in plants is dependent

or
(c) Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen. upon

(d) Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen. (a) temperature and soil
M
123. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with (b) light and temperature
the plasmid vector became possible with (c) wind, temperature and light
(a) DNA ligase (b) Endonucleases (d) light, temperature, atmospheric humidity
(c) DNA polymerase (d) Exonucleases and wind
124. Which one of the following is not included 132. Stomata open and close due to
under in-situ conservation ? (a) circadian rhythm
(a) Botanical garden (b) Biosphere reserve (b) genetic clock
(c) National park (d) Sanctuary (c) pressure of gases inside the leaves
(d) turgor pressure of guard cells
EBD_7205
MT-14 NEET
133. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the (a) A – Cocci, B – Bacilli, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
correct answer from the codes given below. (b) A – Bacilli, B – Cocci, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
Column-I Column-II
(c) A – Spirilla, B – Bacilli, C – Cocci, D – Vibrio
A. Trichoderma (i) Nitrification
B. Streptomyces (ii) Biocontrol agent (d) A – Spirilla, B – Vibrio, C – Cocci, D – Bacilli
C. Nitrosomonas (iii) Lactic acid 140. Match the source gland with respective
D. Lactobacillus (iv) Source of hormone as well as the function correctly.
antibiotic
(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) Source gland Hormone Function
(b) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) (a) Anterior Oxytocin Contraction of
(c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
pituitary uterus muscles
(d) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
134. The term ‘keel’ is used for special type of during child
s
(a) sepals (b) petals birth
ok
(c) stamens (d) carpels (b) Posterior Vasopressin Stimulates
135. Chemiosmotic hypothesis given by Peter pituitary reabsorption
bo
Mitchell proposes the mechanism of of water in the
(a) synthesis of ATP
distal tubules
_e
(b) synthesis of FADH2
(c) synthesis of NADH in the nephron
(d) synthesis of NADPH (c) Corpus
Aj Estrogen Supports
136. Which ion is essential for muscle contraction? luteum pregnancy
@
(a) Na+ (b) K+ (d) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates
(c) Ca 2+ (d) Cl– blood calcium
At
137. Which one of the following organs in the human level

body is most affected due to shortage of oxygen?
ks
(a) Intestine (b) Skin 141. The given diagram shows microsporangium of
(c) Kidney (d) Brain a mature anther. Identify A, B and C.
oo
138. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field.

Which one of the following groups of bones is
Eb
directly contributing in this movement?

(a) Femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals
(b) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals
e
(c) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula

or
(d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia

M
139. Choose the correct names of the different bacteria

according to their shapes. (a) A-Middle layer, B-Endothecium, C-
Tapetum
(b) A-Endothecium, B-Tapetum, C-Middle layer
(c) A-Endothecium, B-Middle layer, C-
Tapetum
(d) A-Tapetum, B-Middle layer, C-
Endothecium
Mock Test -1 MT-15
142. In the chemistry of vision in mammals, the (iii) Awareness about contraception and STDs.
photosensitive substance is called (iv) Equal opportunities to male and female child.
(a) sclerotin (b) retinol (v) Ban on aminocentesis.
(c) rhodopsin (d) melanin (vi) Encouraging myths and misconceptions.
143. Vaccine against polio viruses is an example of (a) All of these
(a) auto-immunization (b) (i), (ii), (iv) & (vi)
(b) passive immunization (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)
(c) active immunization (d) (ii) and (v)
(d) simple immunization 149. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by
144. Egg is liberated from ovary in (a) release oxytocin from pituitary
(a) secondary oocyte stage
(b) fully developed foetus and placenta
(b) primary oocyte stage
(c) differentiation of mammary glands
(c) oogonial stage
(d) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
s
(d) mature ovum stage
150. Natality is the characteristic of a population
ok
145. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of
salinity are which means
(a) the total number of individuals present per
bo
(a) stenohaline (b) euryhaline
(c) anadromous (d) catadromous unit area at a given time
(b) the increase in number of individuals in a
_e
146. The most important component of the oral
contraceptive pills is population under given environmental
(a) Progesterone Aj conditions
(b) Growth hormone (c) loss of individuals due to death in a
@
(c) Thyroxine population under given environmental
(d) Luteinizing hormone conditions
147. The following graph of relative concentrations (d) the movement of individuals into and out
At
of the four hormones present in the blood of population

plasma of a woman during her menstrual cycle. 151. In human female the blastocyst
ks
Identify the hormones. (a) Forms placenta even before implantation

(b) Gets implanted into uterus 3 days after
oo
ovulation
(c) Gets nutrition from uterine endometrial
Eb
secretion only after implantation

(d) Gets implanted in endometrium by the
trophoblast cells
e
152. Choose the wrong statement regarding urine

or
formation
(a) Filtration is non-selective process
M
performed by glomerulus
A B C D (b) The glomerular capillary blood pressure
(a) FSH Progesterone LH Oestrogen causes filtration of blood through three
(b) LH Progesterone FSH Oestrogen layers
(c) FSH Oestrogen LH Progesterone (c) GFR in a healthy individual is approximately
(d) LH Oestrogen FSH Progesterone 125 ml/min
148. Reproductive health in society can be improved (d) The ascending limb of the Henle's loop is
by – permeable to water but allows transport of
(i) Introduction of sex education in schools. electrolytes actively or passively
(ii) Increased medical assistance.
EBD_7205
MT-16 NEET
153. Which one of the following is an exotic Indian (c) red muscle fibres only
fish ? (d) both white and red muscle fibres
(a) Catla catla 162. Mast cells are associated with
(b) Heteropneustes fossilis (a) exocrine glands
(c) Cyprinus carpio (b) endocrine glands
(d) Labeo rohita (c) areolar connective tissue
154. Which of the following primate is the closest (d) neural tissue
relative of humans? 163. Which of the following is incorrect match of
(a) Rhesus monkey (b) Orangutan animal group/life style/structure/function?
(c) Gorilla (d) Gibbon Animal Lifestyle Structure/
155. Adaptive radiation refers to group functions
(a) evolution of different species from a (a) Sponges Sessile Amoebocytes/
common ancestor filter carry
(b) migration of members of a species to feeders food and wastes
s
different geographical areas Spicules/support
ok
(c) power of adaptation in an individual to a and protection
variety of environments spongin / support
bo
(d) adaptations due to geographical isolation. (b) Cnidarians Free Gastrovascular
156. What was the most significant trend in evolution floating or cavity/digestion
_e
of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his attached Cnidocytes/
ancestors ? protection and
(a) Upright posture Aj food getting
(b) Shortening of jaws (c) Flatworms Free living Flame cells/
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(c) Binocular vision or parasite excretion
(d) Increasing brain capacity Tegument/
157. Which of the following is a viral disease of protection
At
poultry birds? (d) Molluscs Terrestrial, Radula/feeding

(a) Anthrax (b) Ranikhet marine, mantle/motility
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(c) Coccidiosis (d) None of these fresh water inhabitants

158. Select the incorrect statement from the following. 164. Man, in the life cycle of Plasmodium, is
oo
(a) Apiculture provides generating additional (a) primary host (b) secondary host
income industry for the farmers. (c) intermediate host (d) None of these
(b) Bee keeping is labour intensive process. 165. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are
Eb
(c) Bee venom is used to cure certain diseases (a) neutrophils and monocytes
like gout and arthritis. (b) neutrophils and eosinophils
(d) Honey is used as laxative, antiseptic and (c) lymphocytes and macrophages
e
sedative. (d) eosinophils and lymphocytes

or
159. Classification of Porifera is based on 166. Human insulin is being commercially produced
(a) branching (b) spicules from a transgenic species of
M
(c) reproduction (d) symmetry (a) Escherichia (b) Mycobacterium

160. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner (c) Rhizobium (d) Saccharomyces
walls of blood vessels is 167. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of organs is
(a) cuboidal epithelium (a) insufficiency of organ donors
(b) columnar epithelium (b) immunological rejection of foreign bodies
(c) ciliated columnar epithelium (c) religious or ethnic considerations
(d) squamous epithelium (d) lack of effective surgical techniques
161. Myoglobin is present in 168. Which one of the following is an Indian
(a) all muscle fibres medicinal plant ?
(b) white muscle fibres only
Mock Test -1 MT-17
(a) Saccharum officinarum 175. The function of rennin is

(b) Rauwolfia serpentina (a) vasodilation
(c) Oryza sativa (b) reduce blood pressure
(d) Solanum melongena (c) degradation of angiotensinogen
169. Which of the following bacteria carry out oxygenic (d) None of the above
photosynthesis by means of a photosynthetic 176. Heart is covered by
apparatus similar to the eukaryotes? (a) Peritoneum (b) Pleural membrane
(a) Purple sulphur bacteria (c) Pericardium (d) Visceral membrane
(b) Green sulphur bacteria 177. Which of the following is incorrect?
(c) Cyanobacteria (a) Iodine is needed for thyroxine formation.
(d) More than one option is correct (b) Calcium regulates the excitibility of nerve
170. It is commonly said that ladies are protected from fibres.
heart attacks in reproductive period i.e., from (c) Potassium plays an important role in the
puberty to menopause because: regulation of acid base balance in cell.
s
(a) Level of HDL is high due to oestrogen (d) Phosphorus helps to maintain the osmotic
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production pressure of the body fluids.
(b) Level of HDL remains lower during this 178. Diagram represents one cardiac cycle lasting
bo
period 0.8 s and to the possible answers that follow it.
(c) Level of LDL and HDL remain in balance
_e
= contraction
(d) Level of LDL is high due to oestrogen
= relaxation
production
171. Dolly sheep was obtained by –
(a) Cloning the udder cell (somatic cell) fused
Aj 0.0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8
time (second)
@
ATRIA
with enucleated oocyte
(b) Cloning of gametes VENTRICLES
(c) Tissue culture

At
period period
(d) None of the above X Y
172. Which of the following forms the basis of DNA Which answer describes the events that occur
ks
finger printing? during period X ?

(a) The relative proportions of purines and (a) atrial diastole and ventricular systole
oo
pyrimidines in DNA. (b) atrial diastole and ventricular diastole

(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated (c) atrial systole and ventricular systole
Eb
short DNA segments. (d) atrial systole and ventricular diastole

(c) The relative difference in the DNA 179. Diabetes insipidus is a condition in which a per-
occurrence in blood, skin and saliva. son is unable to produce sufficient levels of the
e
(d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges hormone ADH. The hormone increases the per-
and grooves of the fingerprints.
or
meability to water of the second (distal) convo-

173. Which one of the following correctly represents luted tubule and collecting duct in the kidney
M
the normal adult human dental formula ? nephrons.

3 1 3 1 2 1 3 3 What is produced as a result?
(a) , , , (b) , , , (a) large volumes of concentrated urine
3 1 2 1 2 1 2 3
(b) large volumes of dilute urine
2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 (c) small volumes of concentrated urine
(c) , , , (d) , , ,
2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 (d) small volumes of dilute urine
174. Toxic substances are detoxified in human body in 180. Dark purplish gland lying on the left side of
(a) kidney (b) lungs abdomen is called :
(c) liver (d) stomach (a) liver (b) spleen
(c) gall bladder (d) appendix
EBD_7205
MT-18 NEET
2 JEE MAIN
MOCK TEST
s
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INSTRUCTIONS
bo
• Question No. 1 to 45 are of 4 marks each.
_e
Physics (180 marks) :

Aj
• Biology (360 marks) : Question No. 91 to 180 are of 4 marks each.
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At

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PHYSICS
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T T æ4ö
(a) (b) cos-1 ç ÷
20 2p è5ø
Eb
1. Write the dimensions of a × b in the relation

b - x2 T æ1ö T æ1ö
E= , where E is the energy, x is the (c) cos-1 ç ÷ (d) sin -1 ç ÷
2p è5ø 2p è5ø
e
at
4. A body of mass 2 kg is rotating on a circular
or
displacement and t is time

(a) ML2T (b) M–1L2T1 path of radius 0.8 m with an angular velocity 44
M
(c) ML2T–2 (d) MLT–2 rad/sec. If radius of path becomes 1 m then value
2. Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first orbit of angular velocity will be
in hydrogen atom will be (a) 35.28 rad/sec (b) 14.08 rad/sec
(a) 3.4 eV (b) 3.6 eV (c) 28.16 rad/sec (d) 24.08 rad/sec
(c) 10.2 eV (d) 13.6 eV 5. The motion of particle is described by the
3. A particle performs SHM on x-axis with amplitude equation x = a + bt 2, where a = 15 cm and b = 3
A and time period T. The time taken by the particle cm/sec2. Its instant velocity at time 3 sec will be
A (a) 36 cm/sec (b) 9 cm/sec
to travel a distance starting from rest is (c) 4.5 cm/sec (d) 18 cm/sec
5
Mock Test -2 MT-19
6. An observer moves towards a stationary source direction of the incident beam. At the first
of sound with a speed 1/5th ofthe speed of minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase
sound. The wavelength and frequency of the difference between the rays coming from the two
source emitted any l and f respectively. The edges of the slit is
apparent frequency and wavelength recorded (a) 0 (b) p/2
by the observer are respectively (c) p (d) 2p
(a) 0.8f, 0.8l (b) 1.2f, 1.2l 12. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the
(c) 1.2f, l (d) f, 1.2l plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted
7. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. photoelectrons from a metal vs the frequency of the
If it is taken to galvanometer, its pointer is incident radiation gives a straight line whose slope
deflected, because (a) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(a) induced current is produced (b) depends of the mature of the metal used
(b) the coil acts like a magnet (c) depends both on the intensity of the
radiation and the metal used
s
(c) the number of turns in the coil of the
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galvanometer are changed (d) is the same for all metals and independent
(d) None of these of the intensity of the radiation
13. If a body of mass 3 kg is dropped from the top of
bo
8. A heater of 220 V heats a volume of water in 5
minutes time. A heater of 110 V heats the same a tower of height 25m. Then its kinetic energy
after 3 sec is
_e
volume of water in
(a) 557 J (b) 748 J
(a) 5 minutes (b) 8 minutes
Aj (c) 1050 J (d) 1296 J
(c) 10 minutes (d) 20 minutes
14. In a nuclear fission, 0.1% mass is converted into
9. Two identical balls, of equal masses A and B are energy. The energy released by the fission of
@
lying on a smooth surface as shown in fig. Ball A 1 kg mass will be
hits ball B (which is at rest) with a velocity (a) 9 × 1019 J (b) 9 × 1017 J
v = 16 m/s. What should be the minimum value
At
(c) 9 × 1016 J (d) 9 × 1013 J

of coefficient of restitution between A ad B so 15. If the coefficient of cubical expansion is x times
that B just reaches the highest point of inclined of the coefficient of superficial expansion, then
ks
plane. value of x is
(a) 3 (b) 2.5
oo
A B
5m (c) 1.5 (d) 2
v 16. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction
Eb
making an angle of 60º with the horizontal

direction with a velocity of 147 ms–1. Then the
2 1 time after which is inclination with the horizontal
e
(a) (b)
3 4 is 45º, is
or
(c)
1
(d)
1 (a) 15 ( 3 - 1) s (b) 15 ( 3 + 1) s
M
2 3
10. The perfect gas equation for 4 gram of hydrogen (c) 7.5 ( 3 - 1) s (d) 7.5 ( 3 + 1) s
gas is 17. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal
(a) PV=RT (b) PV = 2RT surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum
1 deviation
(c) PV= RT
T (d) PV = 4RT
2 R
11. A parallel monochromatic beam of light is incident Q S
normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is P
formed on a screen placed perpendicular to the
EBD_7205
MT-20 NEET
(a) PQ is horizontal the length is dipped vertically in water, the

(b) QR is horizontal fundamental frequency of the air column will be
(c) RS is horizontal 3f
(d) any one will be horizontal (a) (b) 2f
18. A tin nucleus (atomic number Z = 50) has a radius 2
of 6.6 × 10–15 m. The potential on its surface will f
be (the charge on the proton = 1.6 × 10–19 C) (c) f (d)
2
(a) 1.1 × 107 V (b) 2.1 × 107 V 23. The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6
7
(c) 3.1 × 10 V (d) 0.15 × 107 V
r eV. Following Bohr¢s theory, the energy
19. Consider an electric field E = E0 xˆ where E0 is a corresponding to a transition between the 3rd
constant. The flux through the shaded area (as and the 4th orbit is
shown in the figure) due to this field is (a) 3.40 eV (b) 1.51 eV
z
s
(a) 2E0a2 (c) 0.85 eV (d) 0.66 eV
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(b) 2E0 a 2 (a,0,a) (a,a,a) 24. The kinetic energy of a body becomes four times
(c) E0 a2 its inital value. The new momentum will be
bo
(a) same as initial value
E0 a 2 (b) twice the initial value
_e
(d) y
(0,0,0) (0,a,0) (c) thrice the initial value
2 x
(d) four times the initial value
20. Two rods of the same length and areas of cross-
Aj
25. Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is
1%. Then error in the measurement of volume is
@
section A1 and A2 have their ends at the same (a) 1% (b) 5%
temperature K 1 and K 2 ar e the thremal (c) 3% (d) 8%
conductivities of the two rods. The rate of flow
At
26. An alternating current of frequency 200 rad/sec

of heat is same in both rods if
and peak value 1A as shown in the figure, is
A1
=KK A1
=KK applied to the primary of a transformer. If the
ks
1 2
(a) (b) coefficient of mutual induction between the
A2 2 A2 1
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primary and the secondary is 1.5 H, the voltage

(c) A1A2 = K1K2 (d) A1 K12 = A2 K22
21. A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen induced in the secondary will be
Eb
atom in ground state inelastically. Energy of the (a) 300 V

colliding photon is 10.2 eV. After a time interval (b) 191 V
of the order of micro second another photon (c) 220 V
e
collides with same hydrogen atom inelastically

or
(d) 471 V
with an energy of 15 eV. What will be observed
M
by the detector ? 27. The I-V characteristics shown in figure

(a) 2 photon of energy 10.2 eV represents
(b) 2 photon of energy of 1.4 eV I
(c) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and an
electron of energy 1.4 eV
(d) one photon of energy 10.2 eV and another V
photon of 1.4 eV
22. A cylindrical resonance tube, open at both ends,
has a fundamental frequency f in air. If half of
Mock Test -2 MT-21
(a) ohmic conductors 31. The number of degrees of freedom for each atom
(b) non-ohmic conductors of a monoatomic gas is
(c) insulators (a) 3 (b) 5
(d) superconductors (c) 6 (d) 1
28. A glass sinker has a mass M in air. When weighed 32. A radioactive nuclei with decay constant 0.5/s
in a liquid at temperature t1, the apparent mass is is being produced at a constant rate of 100 nuclei/s.
M1 and when weighed in the same liquid at If at t = 0 there were no nuclei, the time when
temperature t2, the apparent mass is M2. If the there are 50 nuclei is:
coefficient of cubical expansion of the glass is æ 4ö
gg, then the real coefficient of expansion of the (a) 1s (b) 2ln ç ÷ s
è 3ø
liquid is :
æ M – M1 ö 1 æ 4ö
gg + ç 2 ÷× (c) ln 2 s ln ç ÷ s
(d)
(a) è 3ø
s
è M – M 2 ø ( t 2 – t1 )
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33. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a
æ M 2 – M1 ö 1 medium of permittivity e0 and permeability m0 is
(b) g g – ç M – M ÷ × (t – t )
bo
è 2 ø 2 1 given by
æ M – M2 ö 1 Î0
(a) (b) m0 Î0
_e
(c) gg – ç ÷×
è M 2 – M 1 ø (t2 – t1 ) m0
æ M – M1 ö
gg + ç 2 ÷×
1
Aj (c)
1
(d)
m0
(d) m0 Î0 Î0
@
è M 2 + M 1 ø (t2 – t1 )
29. A gymnast takes turns with her arms & legs 34. A uniform solid cylindrical roller of mass ‘m’ is
stretched. When she pulls her arms & legs in being pulled on a horizontal surface with force F
At
(a) the angular velocity decreases parallel to the surface and applied at its centre. If
(b) the moment of inertia decreases the acceleration of the cylinder is ‘a’ and it is
ks
(c) the angular velocity stays constant rolling without slipping then the value of ‘F’ is :
(d) the angular momentum increases 5
oo
30. A current of I ampere flows in a wire forming a (a) ma (b) ma

3
circular arc of radius r metres subtending an
Eb
angle q at the centre as shown. The magnetic 3

(c) ma (d) 2 ma
field at the centre O in tesla is 2
35. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’
e
I above the surface of the earth is the same as at a

or
q depth ‘d’ below the surface of the earth. When

both ‘d’ and ‘h’ are much smaller than the radius
M
O of earth, then which one of the following is

correct?
3h h
(a) d = (b) d =
m0 I q m0 I q 2 2
(a) (b) (c) d = h (d) d =2 h
4 pr 2 pr
36. Figure shows three oscillating LC circuit with identical
m0 I q m0 I q inductors and capacitors. If t1, t2, t3 are the time taken
(c) (d) by the circuits I, II, III for fully discharge, then
2r 4r
EBD_7205
MT-22 NEET
(d) if a switch is in parallel with an appliance,

the fuse will blow (burn out) when the
switch is put ‘on’ closed.
43. In an p-n-p transistor working as a common base
amplifier current gain is 0.96 and emitter current
is 7.2 mA. The base current is
(a) t1 > t2 > t3 (b) t1 < t2 < t3 (a) 0.2 mA (b) 0.29 mA
(c) 0.35 mA (d) 0.4 mA
(c) t2 < t1 < t3 (d) t3 = t1t2 44. An intersteller spacecraft far away from the
37. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives influence of any star or planet is moving at high
a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 W is speed under the influence of fusion rockets (due
(a) 0.5 W (b) 0.8 W to th rust exerted by fusion rockets, th e
(c) 1.0 W (d) 0.2 W spacecrafts is accelearting). Suddenly the engine
s
38. A spherical ball of iron of radius 2 mm is falling malfunctions and stops. The spacecraft will
ok
through a column of glycerine. If densities of (a) immediately stops, throwing all of the
glycerine and iron are respectively 1.3 × 103 kg/ occupants to the front
bo
m3 and 8 × 103 kg/m3, h for glycerine = 0.83 Nm– (b) begins slowing down and eventually comes
2 sec, then the terminal velocity is to rest
_e
(a) 0.7 m/s (b) 0.07 m/s (c) keep moving at constant speed for a while,
(c) 0.007 m/s (d) 0.0007 m/s and then begins to slow down
39. The time taken by light to pass through 4 mm
thick glass slab of refractive index 1.5 will be
Aj (d) keeps moving forever with constant speed
45. In the given figure, the capacitors C1 , C3 , C4
@
(velocity of light in air = 3 × 108 m/s) and C5 have a capacitance of 4µF each. If the
(a) 8 × 10–11 s (b) 2 × 10–11 s capacitor C2 has a capacitance of 10µF, then
–8 (d) 8 × 10–8 s
At
(c) 8 × 10 s effective capacitance between A and B is

40. Surface tension of a solution is 30 ´10-2 N / m .
ks
The radius of the soap bubble is 5 cm. The C4

surface energy of soap bubble is
oo
a b C d
A B
(a) 1.8 ´ 101 J (b) 1.8 ´ 10 2 J C1 C2 C3
Eb
(c) 1.0 ´ 10 -1 J (d) 1.8 ´ 10-2 J C5

215
41. The half-life of At is 100µs. The time taken
for the radioactivity of a sample of 215 At to 8 mF 6 mF
e
(a) (b)
decay to 1/16th of its initial value is
or
(c) 4 mF (d) 2 mF
(a) 400 µs (b) 6.3 µs
M
(c) 40 µs (d) 300 µs

42. In household electric circuit, which of the CHEMISTRY
following statements is/are incorrect
46. IUPAC name of the following compound :
(a) all electric appliances drawing power are
joined in parallel O
(b) a switch may be either in series or in parallel | CH3
with the appliance which it controls - C-N
|
(c) if a switch is in parallel with an appliance, it CH3

will draw power when the switch is in the (a) N, N-dimethylcyclopropanecarboxamide
‘off’ position (open) (b) N-methylcyclopropanamide
Mock Test -2 MT-23
(c) cyclopropionamide 52. (I) n = 3, l = 2, m1 = –2

(d) none of the above (II) n = 3, l = 1, m1 = 0
47. Match the columns (III) n = 3, l = 0, m1 = – 1
Column-I Column-II (IV) n = 3, l = 2, m1 = 0
(A) Argyrol (p) Kalazar (V) n = 3, l = 3, m1 = –2
(B) Antimony (q) Intramuscular Of these question state designation which does
injection not describe an allowed state for an electron in
(C) Colloidal gold (r) Stomach disorders an atom ?
(D) Milk of magnesia (s) Eye lotion (a) I and IV (b) III and V
(c) II and V (d) IV and V
(a) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
53. Which of the following compounds is a good
(b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s) conductor of electricity in solution state?
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (s) (a) covalent (b) molecular solid
(d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r) (c) metallic solid (d) ionic compounds
s
48. A is a lighter phenol and B is an aromatic
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54. Which is the most suitable reagent among the
carboxylic acid. Separation of a mixture of A and following to distinguish compound (3) from rest
B can be carried out easily by using a solution of of the compounds ?
bo
(a) Sodium hydroxide (b) Sodium sulphate 1. CH 3 - C º C - CH 3
(c) calcium chloride (d) Sodium bicarbonate 2. CH 3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 3
_e
Melt and
49. (Ag + Pb) alloy ¾¾¾¾¾¾
® 3. CH 3 - CH 2 C º CH
Zinc is added
(Ag + Pb + Zn) melt ¾¾¾

Cool Layer X
® ¾¾¾¾®
Aj 4. CH 3 - CH = CH 2.
Layer Y (a) Bromine in carbon tetrachloride
@
Select correct statement based on above scheme. (b) Bromine in acetic acid
(a) Layer X contains Zn and Ag (c) Alk KMnO4
At
(b) Layer Y contains Pb and Ag but amount of (d) Ammonical silver nitrate.
silver in this layer is smaller than in layer X 55. N 2 + 3H 2 ¾¾ ® 2NH 3 . In this reaction
(c) X and Y are immiscible layers
ks
equivalent weight of N2 is
(d) All are correct statements (a) 4.67 (b) 28
50. The rate of a reaction A doubles on increasing
oo
(c) 14 (d) 2.33

the temperature from 300 to 310 K. By how much, 56. Which of the following is/are the hazardous
the temperature of reaction B should be pollutant(s) present in automobile exhaust
Eb
increased from 300 K so that rate doubles if gases?

activation energy of the reaction B is twice to (i) N2 (ii) CO
that of reaction A.
e
(iii) CH4 (iv) Oxides of nitrogen

(a) 9.84 K (b) 4.92 K (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
or
(c) 2.45 K (d) 19.67 K (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
51. Which of the following is not correct ?
M
57. Zn 2+ ® Zn (s) ; E 0 =- 0.76 V

Silent electric
(a) ¾¾¾¾¾¾
3O2 ¬¾¾¾¾¾ ® 2O3 ; DH = –284.5 kJ.
¾
disch arge Cu 2+ ® Cu (s) ; E 0 =- 0.34 V
(b) Ozone undergoes addition reaction with Which of the following is spontaneous?
unsaturated carbon compounds. (a) Zn 2+ + Cu ® Zn + Cu 2 +
(c) Sodium thiosulphate reacts with I2 to form
sodium tetrathionate and sodium iodide. (b) Cu 2 + + Zn ® Cu + Zn 2 +
(d) Ozone oxidises lead sulphide to lead
(c) Zn 2+ + Cu 2+ ® Zn + Cu
sulphate.
(d) None of these
EBD_7205
MT-24 NEET
58. In the form of dichromate, Cr (VI) is a strong (a) [Ti (en)2(NH3)2]4 +

oxidising agent in acidic medium but Mo (VI) (b) [Cr (NH3)6]3 +
in MoO3 and W (VI) in WO3 are not because (c) [Zn (NH3)6]2 +
________. (d) [Sc (H2O)3 (NH3)3]3+
(i) Cr (VI) is more stable than Mo(VI) and (At. no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24)
W (VI). 63. Accor ding to the adsorption theor y of
(ii) Mo (VI) and W(VI) are more stable than catalysis, the speed of the reaction increases
Cr(VI). because-
(a) Adsorption lowers the activation energy
(iii) Higher oxidation states of heavier members
of the reaction
of group-6 of transition series are more
(b) The concentration of reactant molecules at
stable.
the active centres of the catalyst becomes
(iv) Lower oxidation states of heavier members high due to strong adsorption
of group-6 of transition series are more
s
(c) In the process of adsorption, the activation
stable.
ok
energy of the molecules becomes large
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (d) Adsorption produces heat which increases
bo
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) the speed of the reaction
59. A compound formed by elements X and Y 64. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food
crystallizes in a cubic structure in which the X
_e
because
atoms are at the corners of a cube and the Y (a) boiling point of water involved in cooking
atoms are at the face centres. The formula of the Aj is increased
compound is (b) the higher pressure inside the cooker
@
(a) XY3 (b) X3Y crushes the food material
(c) XY (d) XY2 (c) cooking involves chemical changes helped
60. An alkene having molecular formula C7H14 was by a rise in temperature
At
subjected to ozonolysis in the presence of zinc (d) heat is more evenly distributed in the
dust. An equimolar amount of the following two cooking space
ks
compounds was obtained 65. Most reactive halide towards S 1 reaction is

CH3 CH3 N
oo
C = O and C=O (a) n-Butyl chloride

CH3 CH3CH2 (b) sec-Butyl chloride
Eb
The IUPAC name of the alkene is (c) tert-Butyl chloride

(a) 3, 4-dimethyl-3-pentene (d) Allyl chloride
(b) 3, 4-dimethyl-2-pentene 66. The absolute configuration of the following :
e
(c) 2, 3-dimethyl-3-pentene
or
(d) 2, 3-dimethyl-2-pentene CH3

61. At a particular temperature, the vapour pressures H Cl
M
of two liquids A and B are respectively 120 and Cl H is

180 mm of mercury. If 2 moles of A and 3 moles of
B are mixed to form an ideal solution, the vapour C2H5
pressure of the solution at the same temperature (a) 2S, 3R (b) 2S, 3S
will be (in mm of mercury) (c) 2R, 3S (d) 2R, 3R
(a) 156 (b) 145
67. The rate constant k, for the reaction
(c) 150 (d) 108
62. Which of the following complex ions is expected 1
N 2 O 5 (g ) ¾
¾® 2 NO 2 (g ) + O 2 ( g )
to absorb visible light? 2
Mock Test -2 MT-25
is 1.3 × 10–2s–1. Which equation given below (a) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol

describes the change of [N2 O5] with time ? (b) 2-bromo-4-hydroxylbenzene sulphonic acid
[N 2 O 5 ] 0 and [N 2 O 5 ] t corrospond to (c) 3, 5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzene sulphonic
concentration of N2O5 initially and at time t. acid
(a) [N2O5]t = [N2O5]0 + kt (d) 2-bromophenol
(b) [N2O5]0 = [N2O5]t ekt 73. Copper crystallises in fcc with a unit length of
(c) log [N2O5]t = log [N2O5]0 + kt 361pm. What is the radius of copper atom ?
[N 2 P5 ]0 (a) 157 pm (b) 128 pm
(d) In [N P ] = kt (c) 108 pm (d) 181 pm
2 5 t
74. Aminoglycosides are usually used as:
68. Among the following the most stable compound is :
(a) cis-1, 2-cyclohexanediol (a) antibiotic (b) analgesic
(b) trans-1, 2-cyclohexanediol (c) hypnotic (d) antifertility
s
75. Aluminium displaces hydrogen from acids but
ok
(c) cis-1,3-cyclohexanediol
(d) trans-1, 3-cyclohexanediol copper does not. A galvanic cell prepared by
bo
69. Lead is not affected by dil. HCl in cold because combining Cu / Cu 2 + and Al/Al3+ has an e.m.f
(a) Pb is less electronegative than H of 2.0 V at 298°K. If the potential of copper
_e
(b) PbO film is formed which resists chemical electrode is + 0.34 V, that of aluminium is
attack by acid (a) + 1.66 (b) – 1.66
(c) PbCl2 protective coating gets formed on
Aj (c) + 2.34 (d) – 2.3 V
Pb surface 76. An organic compound X on treatment with
@
(d) PbO2 film is always present on Pb surface, pyridinium chlorochromate in dichloromethane
which resist chemical attack gives compound Y. Compound Y reacts with I2
At
and alkali to form triiodomethane. The compound

70. Aniline is reacted with bromine water and the
'X' is
resulting product is treated with an aqueous
ks
(a) C2H5OH (b) CH3CHO

solution of sodium nitrite in presence of dilute
(c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3COOH
hydrochloric acid. The compound so formed is
oo
77. A sudden large jumps between the values of

converted into a tetrafluoroborate which is
second and third ionization energies of an
subsequently heated dry. The final product is
element, would be associated with which of the
Eb
(a) 1,3, 5-tribromobenzene following electronic configuration?

(b) p-bromofluorobenzene
(c) p-bromoaniline (a) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 , 3s1
e
or
(d) 2,4, 6-tribromofluorobenzene (b) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 , 3s1 , 3p1

71. With which one of the following elements
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silicon should be doped so as to give p-type of (c) 1s 2 , 2s 2 , 2p 6 , 3s 2

semiconductor ?
(a) Germanium (b) Arsenic (d) 1s 2 , 2s2 , 2p 6 , 3s 2 , 3p 2
(c) Selenium (d) Boron 78. Which is major product formed when acetone is
heated with iodine and potassium hydroxide?
Br2 (a) Iodoacetone
72. OH SO3H X,
H2O (b) Acetic acid
X is identified as (c) Iodoform
(d) Acetophenone
EBD_7205
MT-26 NEET
79. On increasing the pressure, the gas phase (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
reaction proceed forward to re-establish (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) only (i)
equilibrium, as predicted by applying the 84. Among the following, the species having square
Le-Chatelier’s principle. Consider the reaction. planar geometry for central atom are
N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 2NH3 (g) (i) XeF4 (ii) SF4
Which of the following is correct, if the total (iii) [NiCl4]2– (iv) [PtCl4]2–
pressure at which the equilibrium is established, (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii) .
is increased without changing the temperature? (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(a) K will remain same 85. Carbon and silicon belong to group 14. The
(b) K will decrease maximum coordination number of carbon in
(c) K will increase commonly occurring compounds is 4, whereas
(d) K will increase initially and decrease when that of silicon is 6. This is due to
s
pressure is very high (a) large size of silicon
ok
80. Ethanol can be prepared more easily by which (b) more electropositive nature of silicon
reaction ? (c) availability of d-orbitals in silicon
bo
(i) CH 3 CH 2 Br + H 2 O ¾¾
® CH 3 CH 2 OH (d) Both (a) and (b)
_e
86. Which one of the following statement is not true?
(ii) CH3CH 2 Br + Ag 2O (in boiling water)
(a) In vulcanization the formation of sulphur
¾¾ ® CH3CH 2OH Aj bridges between different chains make
rubber harder and stronger.
(a) by (i) reaction
@
(b) by (ii) reaction (b) Natural rubber has the trans -configuration
at every double bond
(c) Both reactions proceed at same rate
At
(c) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and

(d) by none
styrene
81. The oxidation states of iodine in HIO4, H3IO5
(d) Natural rubber is a 1, 4 - polymer of isoprene
ks
and H5IO6 are respectively

87. For a first order reaction, to obtain a positive
(a) + 1, + 3, + 7 (b) + 7, + 7, + 3
oo
slope, we need to plot {where [A] is the

(c) + 7, + 7, + 7 (d) + 7, + 5, + 3 concentration of reactant A}
82. Which is correct statement?
Eb
(a) – log10[A] vs t (b) – loge[A] vs t

(a) Starch is a polymer of a-glucose (c) log10[A] vs log t (d) [A] vs t
(b) In cyclic structure of fructose, there are four 88. Among the following molecules
e
carbons and one oxygen atom

(i) XeO3 (ii) XeOF4 (iii) XeF6
or
(c) Amylose is a component of cellulose

Those having same number of lone pairs on Xe
(d) Proteins are composed of only one type of are
M
amino acids
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iii) only
83. Regarding F– and Cl– which of the following
(c) (ii) and (iii) only (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
statements is/are correct?
89. If the energy difference between the ground
(i) Cl– can give up an electron more easily than
state of an atom and its excited state is
F–
4.4 × 10–4 J, the wavelength of photon required
(ii) Cl– is a better reducing agent than F– to produce the transition :
(iii) Cl– is smaller in size than F–
(a) 2.26 × 10–22 m (b) 1.13 × 10–22 m
(iv) F– can be oxidized more readily than Cl– –26
(c) 4.52 × 10 m (d) 4.52 × 10–22 m
Mock Test -2 MT-27
90. Which of the following is not a fat soluble became a notorious weed in Indian water bodies.
vitamin? Identify this plant.
(a) Vitamin B complex (b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin E (d) VitaminA
BIOLOGY (a) (b)

91. The first organisms to appear on earth were
(a) photoautotrophs (b) chemoautotrophs
(c) chemoheterotrophs (d) heterotrophs
92. Which of the following bacteria carry out is/are
photosynthesic autotrophs?
(a) Purple sulphur bacteria (c) (d)
s
(b) Green sulphur bacteria
ok
(c) Cyanobacteria
bo
(d) More than one option is correct 98. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are
93. A water fern which is used as a green manure in (a) root buds (b) flower buds
_e
rice fields is (c) shoot buds (d) axillary buds
(a) Salvinia (b) Mucor 99. Conifers are especially sensitive to acid rain
(c) Aspergillus (d) Azolla Ajbecause their needles literally take moisture out
of clouds. Because of acid rain, Mt. Mitchell,
94. Which of the following does not have stomata ?
@
the highest peak in the eastern Appalachians,
(a) Hydrophytes has seen dramatic loss of pine forest. The damage
(b) Mesophytes on this mountain most likely stems from
At
(c) Xerophytes (a) drought-like conditions in the region.

(d) Submerged hydrophytes (b) excessive sulfur in the atmosphere due to
ks
95. Which is correct about transport or conduction industrialization along the eastern seaboard.
of substances? (c) loss of biomass throughout the
oo
(a) Organic food moves up through phloem Appalachians.

(d) All of the above
(b) Organic food moves up through xylem
Eb
100. Which of these is a pollution related to

(c) Inorganic food moves upwardly and occupational health hazard disease ?
downwardly through xylem
(a) Pneumoconiosis (b) Asthma
e
(d) Organic food moves upwardly and (c) Flurosis (d) Silicosis
or
downwardly through phloem 101. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for
96. The quiescent centre in root meristem serves as a (a) addition of preservatives to the product
M
(a) site for storage of food which is utilized (b) purification of the product
during maturation. (c) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the
(b) reservoir of growth hormones. culture vessel
(c) reserve for replenishment of damaged cells (d) availability of oxygen throughout the
of the meristem. process
(d) region for absorption of water. 102. Which of the following pair has haploid
structures?
97. This plant was introduced in India because of (a) Nucellus and antipodal cells
its beautiful flowers and shape of leaves but it (b) Antipodal cells and egg cell
EBD_7205
MT-28 NEET
(c) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cell (i) glucose + homogenised cells
(d) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus (ii) glucose + mitochondria
103. Identify the different parts of a typical dicot (iii) glucose + cytoplasm lacking organelles
embryo labelled as A, B and C and select the (iv) pyruvic acid + homogenised cells
correct option. (v) pyruvic acid + mitochondria
(vi) pyruvic acid + cytoplasm lacking organelles
After incubation, in which three tubes would
carbon dioxide be produced?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iv) and (v)
(c) (iii), (iv) and (vi) (d) (iii), (v) and (vi)
108. Carbon dioxide labelled with 14C has been used
to identify the intermediate compounds in the
Calvin cycle, the light independent stage in
s
photosynthesis. Which compound would be the
ok
first to contain the 14C?
(a) glucose (b) starch
bo
(c) GP (PGA) (d) triose phosphate
109. Which one of the following is essential for
A B C
_e
photolysis of water ?
(a) Plumule Cotyledons Radicle
(b) Radicle Cotyledons Plumule Aj (a) Manganese (b) Zinc
(c) Cotyledons Plumule Radicle (c) Copper (d) Boron
@
(d) Cotyledons Radicle Plumule 110. Three or four of the following elements are ab-
104. Double fertilization is fusion of sorbed by terrestrial plants as ions or components
(a) two eggs of ions. Which, if any, of the following is NOT
At
(b) two eggs and polar nuclei with pollen nuclei absorbed by plants as an ion? If all are absorbed in
(c) one male gamete with egg and other with ionic form, choose answer :
ks
synergid (a) Phosphorus (b) Carbon

(d) one male gamete with egg and other with (c) Nitrogen (d) Magnesium
oo
secondary nucleus 111. The graph below shows the relationship

105. Acacia trees endure a 7-month dry season in the between diameter of stomatal aperture and rate
Eb
African savanna by dropping their leaves. This of transpiration in still air and in moving air.
adaptation allows the trees to
(a) conserve valuable water.
e
(b) trap extra carbon dioxide.

or
(c) increase the rate of photosynthesis.

(d) move water and nutrients upward from the
M
roots.
106. ‘Whip-tail’ disease in cauliflower is noted due
to deficiency of
(a) manganese (b) magnesium
(c) molybdenum (d) nitrogen
107. Six tubes containing preparations from animal
tissue were set up as shown in the table. Tube
contents
Mock Test -2 MT-29
At which point on the graph is the rate of 119. What is the end product of glycolysis of a
transpiration independent of stomatal aperture ? glucose molecule?
(a) A or E (b) C (a) Fructose 1, 6- diphosphate
(c) D (d) B (b) Pyruvate and ATP
112. The dihybrid ratio in F2 - generation is (c) Phosphoglyceraldehyde
(a) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 (d) Lactic acid and ATP
(c) 3 :1 (d) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 120. In some succulent plants like Opuntia the R.
113. The zone of atmosphere that lies near the ground is Q. is zero because
(a) troposphere (b) stratosphere (a) CO2 is released without any absorption of O2
(c) homosphere (d) ionosphere (b) O2 is absorbed but CO2 is not released
114. Reverse transcriptase is (c) There is often compensation point in
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase these plants due to thick phylloclades
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (d) None of these
s
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase 121. From the following list, select the first action
ok
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase that phytochrome seems to have in causing a
115. Dwarf Wheat Varieties brought into India from developmental effect in a plant.
bo
Mexico were (a) Open calcium channels in the cell membrane
(a) Sonora-64 and Sonalika (b) Activate G proteins
_e
(b) Sharbati Sonora and Pusa Lerma (c) Convert GTP to cGMP
(c) Sonalika and Sharbati Sonora (d) Activate specific genes
(d) Sonora-64 and Lerma Roja-64
Aj
122. In humans, the hormone testosterone enters cells
and binds to specific proteins, which in turn bind
116. A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of
@
fishes within a few days. Consider the following to specific sites on the cells' DNA. These proteins
reasons for this. probably act to
(a) help RNA polymerase transcribe certain
At
(i) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were

used in the crops in the vicinity genes.
(ii) The area was sprayed with DDT by an (b) alter the pattern of DNA splicing.
ks
(c) stimulate protein synthesis.

aircraft
(d) unwind the DNA so that its genes can be
oo
(iii) The lake water turned green and stinky

transcribed.
(iv) Phytoplankton populations in the lake
123. Which of the following is not true for oxidative
declined initially thereby greatly reducing
Eb
phosphorylation?
photosynthesis.
(a) It uses oxygen as the initial electron donor.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) It involves the redox reactions of electron
e
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

transport chain.
117. Which of the following features would be
or
(c) It involves an ATP synthase located in the

characteristic of the stratosphere but not of
inner mitochondrial membrane.
M
the troposphere ? (d) It depends on chemiosmosis.

(a) Most ozone resides here 124. Consumption of which one of the following
(b) Most water vapor resides here foods can prevent the kind of blindness
(c) Most of the mass of the atmosphere lies associated with vitamin ‘A’ deficiency ?
here (a) ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato
(d) Circulation of this layer influences (b) Canolla
oceans currents (c) Golden rice
118. Glycogen is a polymer of (d) Bt-Brinjal
(a) galactose (b) glucose
(c) fructose (d) sucrose
EBD_7205
MT-30 NEET
125. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents 132. Coconut milk (coconut water) is widely used in
(a) endangered species found in the region. tissue culture because it contains
(b) the diversity in the organisms living in the (a) auxins (b) ethylene
region. (c) cytokinin (d) gibberellins
(c) genetic diversity present in the dominant 133. The okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth
species of the region.
(a) polymerize in the 3' - to - 5' direction and
(d) species endemic to the region.
forms replication fork
126. Use of transgenic plants as biological factories
for the production of special chemicals is called– (b) prove semi-conservative nature of DNA
(a) Molecular farming replication
(b) Molecular genetics (c) polymerize in the 5' - to - 3' direction and
(c) Molecular mapping explain 3' - to - 5' DNA replication
(d) Dry farming (d) result in transcription
s
127. Which of the following sets consists of 134. Leghaemoglobin helps in
ok
endangered wild life species of India ? (a) nitrogen fixation
(a) Egret, black boar and spotted deer (b) protecting nitrogenase from O2
bo
(b) Himalayan musk deer, black buck, Indian (c) destroys bacteria
lion and rhino (d) transport of food in plants
(c) Himalayan musk deer, Indian lion, rhino
_e
135. Important objective of biotechnology in
and wild buffalo
(d) Himalayan musk deer, great Indian agriculture section is –
bustard, wild ass and Kashmir stag
Aj(a) To produce pest resistant varieties of plants
(b) To increase the nitrogen content
@
128. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use
in : (c) To decrease the seed number
(a) Spectrophotometry (d) To increase the plant weight
At
(b) Tissue culture 136. The combination of a true coelom and repeating
(c) PCR body segmentation allows the annelids to do
ks
(d) Gel electrophoresis which of the following that anatomically “sim-

pler” worms cannot ?
129. Select the wrongly matched pair of antibiotic to
oo
(a) Move through loose marine sediments

its source
(b) Attain complex body shapes and thus
(a) Terramycin - Streptomyces rimosus
Eb
locomote more precisely

(b) Erythromycin - Streptomyces griseus (c) Feed as external parasites on other animals
(c) Neomycin - Streptomyces fradiae (d) Be hermaphroditic
e
(d) Gramicidin - Bacillus brevis 137. Which bacteria is utilized in gober gas plant?
or
130. Which organelle is surrounded by a double (a) Methanogens

phospholipid bilayer with many large pores?
M
(b) Nitrifying bacteria

(a) Nuclear envelope (b) Plasma membrane (c) Ammonifying bacteria
(c) Golgi apparatus (d) Mitochondrion (d) Denitrifying bacteria
131. Niche overlap indicates 138. Excretory organs of Cockroach are
(a) two different parasites on the same host (a) flame cells
(b) sharing of one or more resources between (b) nephridia
the two species (c) green glands
(c) mutualism between two species (d) malpighian tubules
(d) active cooperation between two species
Mock Test -2 MT-31
139. What is common among silverfish, scorpion, crab Column-I Column-II

and honey bee? A. Cleavage (i) Fertilization
(a) Compound eyes B. Morula (ii) Mitotic divisions
(b) Poison gland C. Polyspermy (iii) Endometric
(c) Jointed legs D. Implantation (iv) Little mulberry
(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(d) Metamorphosis
(b) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
140. Tendons and ligaments are the example of (c) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(a) areolar connective tissue (d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(b) adipose tissue 145. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
(c) dense regular connective tissue human reproductive system get blocked, the
(d) loose connective tissue gametes will not be transported from
141. The type of epithelial cells which line inner (a) testes to epididymis
s
surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small (b) epididymis to vas deferens
ok
bronchi are known as (c) ovary to uterus
(a) squamous epithelium (d) vagina to uterus
bo
(b) columnar epithelium 146. Where is one least likely to find complete
(c) ciliated epithelium semen (all components are present)?
(a) At the junction of the bulbourethral duct
_e
(d) cubical epithelium
142. The graph below shows how gaseous exchange and the urethra
in an amphibian varies with temperature. Aj(b) In the epididymis
(c) At the male urethral orifice
@
(d) In the vagina of a woman who’s trying to
volume of gas exchanged
cutaneous CO 2 become pregnant

147. Plants of salty sea shore wet lands are :
At
pulmonary O 2
(a) heliophytes (b) hydrophytes
(c) halophytes (d) saprophytes
cutaneous O 2
ks
pulmonary O 2 148. Umbilical cord has

(a) Two arteries carrying blood to placenta and
oo
one vein returning blood to foetus

0 5 10 15 20 25
(b) One artery carrying blood to placenta and
temperature / o C
Eb
two veins returning blood to foetus

(c) Two arteries bringing blood to foetus and
The graph shows that at all temperatures the one vein carrying blood to placenta
e
lungs : (d) One artery bringing blood to foetus and

or
(a) absorb more oxygen than the skin two veins carrying blood to placenta
(b) absorb less oxygen than the skin 149. The diagram below shows a mammalian nephron
M
(c) release more carbon dioxide than the skin and indicate how it functions in three parts, x, y
(d) release less carbon dioxide than the skin and z.
143. Mark the unmatched one In x the adrenal glands have been removed
(a) Neutrophils - Phagocytic In y the adrenal glands have been left intact
(b) Basophils - Secrete histamine (control).
(c) Acidophils - Secrete heparin In z the adrenal glands have been removed and an
(d) Lymphocytes - Secrete antibodies extract of adrenal hormone produced which was then
144. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the injected back into the same animal.
correct option from the codes given below.
EBD_7205
MT-32 NEET
(a) Lubb - Sharp closure of AV valves at the

Na + beginning of ventricular systole.
parts (b) Dup - Sudden opening of semilunar valves
Bowman's capsule
at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(c) Pulsation of the radial artery valves in the
blood vessels.
784 x (d) Purkinje fibers - Initiation of the heart beat.
parts Na+
886 y reabsorbed 153. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules are parts of
by tubule (a) Seminiferous tubules
918 z
(b) Nephron
collecting duct
(c) Oviduct
(d) Vas deferens
154. Which one of the components of ECG in human
s
216 114 82 is correctly interpreted below ?
ok
x y z (a) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse
parts Na+ excreted in urine (b) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac
bo
contraction
Which one of the following accounts for the (c) Peak P and Peak R together-Systolic and
higher rate of reabsorption of Na+ in z?
_e
diastolic blood pressures
(a) The hormone present was purer in the extract. (d) Peak P- Initiation of left atrial contraction
(b) The extract may have contained impurities. Aj only
(c) The amount of hormone injected was 155. Which tube in the accompanying diagram of a
greater than the amount of hormone in y.
@
heart correctly represents the result of a
(d) The Na+ content of the body fluids was successful coronary bypass operation ?
low in the experimental animals.
At
150. The logistic population growth is expressed by

the equation :
æçK -N ö÷
ks
(a) dt/dN = Nr
èK ø
oo
dN/dt = rN ç
æK -N ö÷
èK ø
Eb
(b)
(c) dN/dt = rN
æçN -K ö÷
e
(a) A (b) D (c) B (d) C

èN ø
or
(d) dN/dt = rN 156. Deposition of uric acid crystals within the

synovial joint causes:
M
151. Which one of the following pairs of food

(a) Osteoarthritis
components in humans reaches the stomach
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
totally undigested ?
(c) Gout
(a) Starch and cellulose
(d) Paralysis
(b) Protein and starch
157. Homologous organs are
(c) Starch and fat
(a) Wings of Insects and Bat
(d) Fat and cellulose
(b) Gills of Fish and lungs of Rabbit
152. Which one of the following is a correct (c) Pectoral fins of Fish and fore limbs of Horse
matching pair? (d) Wings of Grosshopper and Crow
Mock Test -2 MT-33
158. In Down’s syndrome of a male child, the sex Par ts labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’ an d
complement is ‘E’respectively indicate
(a) XO (b) 45 XY (a) ilium, femur, tibia, pubis and sacrum
(c) 45 XX (d) XXY (b) pubis, tibia, femur, ilium and sacrum
159. Which of the following combinations is generally (c) ilium, femur, tibia, pubis, and sacrum
recommended for composite fish farming in (d) pubis, femur, tibia, ilium and sacrum
India? 165. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is
(a) Catla, Labeo, Cirrhinus (a) Sigmoid (b) Hyperbolic
(c) Linear (d) Hypobolic
(b) Catla, Cyprinus, Clarias
166. Which of the following is made up of a single
(c) Clarias, Channa, Cyprinus bone in mammal ?
(d) Cirrhinus, Cyprinus, Channa (a) Dentary (b) Hyoid
160. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A (c) Upper jaw (d) All of these
s
and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to 167. Intercostal muscles are found attached with
ok
(a) repulsion (b) recombination (a) diaphragm (b) ribs
(c) linkage (d) crossing over (c) pleura (d) lungs
bo
161. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was 168. Eustachian tube connects
characterised by (a) External ear with middle ear
_e
(a) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal- (b) External ear with internal ear
like reptiles (c) Middle ear with pharynx
(b) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms Aj (d) Internal pharynx
appeared 169. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
@
(c) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs correct option from the codes given below.
appeared Column-I Column-II
A. ANF (i) Regulates blood
At
(d) Gymnosperms were dominant plants and

first birds appeared calcium levels
162. The "Cri-du-Chat" syndrome is caused by B. MSH (ii) Decreases blood
ks
change in chromosome structure involving pressure

(a) deletion (b) duplication C. GIP (iii) Pigmentation
oo
(c) inversion (d) translocation D. CT (iv) Inhibits gastric

163. In history of biology, human genome project led secretion
Eb
to the development of : (a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)

(a) biotechnology (b) biomonitoring (b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D(iii)
(c) bioinformatics (d) biosystematics
e
(c) A-(iv), B-(i),C-(iii), D-(ii)

164. Look at the diagram given below.
or
(d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

170. Which one of the following is not a second
M
D E
A messenger in hormone action ?
(a) Calcium (b) Sodium
(c) cAMP (d) cGMP
B
171. A genetically engineered bacteria used for
clearing oil spills is :
(a) Escherischia coli
C (b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(d) Pseudomonas putida
EBD_7205
MT-34 NEET
172. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals? (b) Adrenergic, sympathetic

(a) These are produced in thyroid (c) Cholinergic, parasympathetic
(b) There are three main types — cytotoxic (d) Cholinergic, sympathetic
T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
(c) These originate in lymphoid tissues 177. African sleeping sickness is due to
(d) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular (a) Plasmodium vivax transmitted by Tsetse fly
debris (b) Trypanosoma lewsii transmitted by Bed
173. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja, Bug
charas, marijuana or hashish) causes (c) Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by
(a) depression of brain activity and feeling of Glossina palpalis
calmness (d) Entamoeba gingivalis spread by Housefly
(b) alters thoughts, perceptions and feelings 178. Which one of the following are rich in fructose,
(c) suppresses brain function and relieves pain calcium and some enzymes?
s
(d) stimulates the nervous system and (a) Male accessory glands
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increases alterness and activity.
174. During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, (b) Liver
(c) Pancreas
bo
such as in producing biogas, which one of the
following is left undegraded ? (d) Salivary glands
_e
(a) Lipids (b) Lignin 179. The number of floating ribs, in the human body,
(c) Hemi-cellulose (d) Cellulose is
175. Carcinoma refers to Aj (a) 6 pairs (b) 5 pairs
(a) benign tumours of the connective tissue (c) 3 pairs (d) 2 pairs
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(b) malignant tumours of the connective tissue 180. Which one of the following statements is
(c) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous correct?
membrane
At
(a) Cro-Magnon man’s fossil has been found

(d) malignant tumours of the colon
in Ethiopia
176. Atropine is a drug that causes relaxation of the
(b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
ks
smooth muscle of the digestive tract, a dry mouth

sensation, and dilated pupils. Therefore, atropine (c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of
oo
is a(n)____ drug and mimics the effect of the Homo sapiens

____ nervous system. (d) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of
Eb
(a) Adrenergic, parasympathetic modern man

e
or
M
Mock Test -3 MT-35
3 JEE MAIN
MOCK TEST
s
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INSTRUCTIONS
bo
_e
Aj
@
At
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(b) Both w and L decrease

PHYSICS
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(c) w remains constant but L decreases

(d) w increases but L remains constant
Eb
1. The specific resistance r of a circular wire of 3. If the radius of the earth shrinks by 2% and mass
radius r, resistance R and length l is given by remains unchanged then acceleration due to
gravity will
pr 2 R
e
r= . Given, r = 0.24 ± 0.02 cm, (a) increase by 2% (b) decrease by 2%

or
l (c) increase by 4% (d) decrease by 4%

R = 30 ± 1 W and l = 4.80 ± 0.01 cm. The 4. If µr, µk and µs represent the coefficients of rolling
M
percentage error in r is nearly friction, kinetic and static friction, then

(a) 7% (b) 9% (a) µr = µs = µk (b) µr > µk > µs
(c) 13% (d) 20% (c) µr < µs < µk (d) µr < µk < µs
2. A boy is spinning on a rotating stool with his 5. A right prism is
arms down to his sides. Suddenly he stretches made by selecting a
his arms. Which of the following is true regarding proper material and
his angular speed (w) and the angular momentum the angle A and B
(L) ? (B << A) as shown
(a) w decreases but L remains same in fig. It is
EBD_7205
MT-36 NEET
desired that a ray of light incident on the face 12. Use of eddy currents is done in the following
AB emerges parallel to the incident direction after except
two internal reflections. (a) moving coil galvanometer
What should be the minimum refractive index m (b) electric brakes
for this to be possible ?
(c) induction motor
(a) 3 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d) 1.8 (d) dynamo
6. Kirchhoff’s I and II laws are based on 13. A satellite of mass m is put into a circular orbit of
conservation of height h from the surface of the earth (mass =
(a) energy and charge respectively Me, radius = Re). The orbital speed of satellite is
(b) charge and energy respectively
(c) mass and charge respectively 2GM e h 2GM e
(d) None of these (a) (b)
7. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot Re ( Re + h ) Re + h
s
cycle between 227ºC and 127ºC. It absorbs 6 kcal
ok
at the higher temperature. The amount of heat GM e GM e
(in kcal) converted into work is equal to (c) (d) 2 ( Re + h )
( Re + h )
3
bo
(a) 1.2 (b) 4.8
(c) 3.5 (d) 1.6 14. Consider the following statements and select the
_e
8. The work function of a metallic substance is incorrect statement(s).
5 eV. The threshold frequency is approximately
Aj (a) The presence of a large magnetic flux
(a) 1.6 × 107 Hz (b) 8.68 × 1015 Hz
(c) 9.68 × 1017 Hz (d) 1.2 × 1015 Hz through a coil maintains a current in the
@
r coil if the circuit is continuous.
9. The component of vector a = 2iˆ ∗ 3 ˆj along the
r (b) A coil of a metal wire kept stationary in a
vector b = iˆ ∗ ˆj is non–uniform magnetic field has an e.m.f
At
5 induced in it.
(a) (b) 10 2 (c) A charged particle enters a region of
ks
2
uniform magnetic field at an angle of 85°
(c) 5 2 (d) 5 to the magnetic lines of force, the path of
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10. What is the ratio of the shortest wavelength of the particle is a circle.
the Balmer series to the shortest wavelength of
(d) There is no change in the energy of a
Eb
the Lyman series ?

(a) 4 : 1 (b) 4 : 3 charged particle moving in a magnetic field
(c) 4 : 9 (d) 5 : 9 although a magnetic force is acting on it.
e
11. A smooth inclined plane is fixed in a car 15. 16 g of oxygen at 37°C is mixed with 14 g of
or
accelerating at a = g tan q. If the sphere is set nitrogen at 27°C, the temperature of the mixture
pure rolling on the incline then will be
M
a (a) 30.5ºC (b) 37°C

(c) 27°C (d) 32°C
q 16. At the centre of a cubical box + Q charge is
placed. The value of total flux that is coming out
a wall is
(a) it will continue rolling
(b) it will slip down (a) Q / eo (b) Q / 3 eo
(c) its linear velocity will increase (c) Q / 4 eo (d) Q / 6 eo
(d) its linear velocity will decrease
Mock Test -3 MT-37
17. A particle moves under the effect of a force F = to see clearly things at a distance of 30 cm. What
cx from x = 0 to x = x1, the work done in the should be the focal length of the spectacles?
process is (a) 15 cm (Concave) (b) 15 cm (Convex)
1 2 (c) 10 cm (d) 0
(a) cx 12 (b) cx1 24. The magnetic field of earth at the equator is
2
approximately 4 × 10–5 T. The radius of earth is
(c) 2 cx12 (d) zero
6.4 × 106 m. Then the dipole moment of the earth
18. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the
pressure exerted by a gas on the walls is will be nearly of the order of:
measured as (a) 1023 A m2 (b) 1020 A m2
(a) rate of change of momentum imparted to
the walls per second per unit area. (c) 1016 A m2 (d) 1010 A m2
(b) momentum imparted to the walls per unit 25. To which logic gate does the truth table given
s
area below correspond? A B Y
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(c) change of momentum imparted to the walls (a) AND gate 0 0 0
per unit area. (b) NAND gate 0 1 1
bo
(d) change in momentum per unit volume (c) NOR gate 1 0 1
19. The resistance of a resistor with the following
_e
(d) XOR gate 1 1 0
colour code
26. A passenger travels along the straight road for
Aj half the distance with velocity v1 and the
remaining half distance with velocity v2. Then
@
Red Violet Green Gold average velocity is given by
is equal to (a) v1 v 2 (b) v22/ v12
At
(a) 26 × 104 W ± 5% (b) 25 × 104 W ± 10% (c) (v1 + v2 )/2 (d) 2v1v2 / (v1 + v2)
(c) 35 × 105 W ± 5% (d) 27 × 105 W ± 5% 27. A point initially at rest moves along x-axis. Its
20. The fundamental frequency of a closed end acceleration varies with time as a = (6t + 5)m/s2. If
ks
organ pipe is n. Its length is doubled and radius it starts from origin, the distance covered in 2s is
is halved. Its frequency will become nearly (a) 20 m (b) 18 m
oo
(a) n/2 (b) n/3 (c) 16 m (d) 25 m

(c) n (d) 2 n 28. With O as the origin of the coordinate axis, the X
Eb
21. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal and Y-coordinates of the centre of mass of the
velocity in air = 1 m/s. the viscosity of air is 8 × system of particles shown in the figure may be
10–5 poise. The viscous force on it is given as (Here m and 2m represent the masses
e
(a) 45.2 × 10–4 dyne (b) 101.73×10–5 dyne of the particles).

or
(c) 16.95 × 10–4 dyne (d) 16.95 × 10–5 dyne

M
22. A particle moves such that its acceleration ‘a’ is Y

given by a = –bx where x is the displacement
from equilibrium position and b is constant. The m 2m m 2m
period of oscillation is
h
(a) 2 p/b (b) 2π/ b `X X
O
(c) 2p/ b (d) 2 p / b b b b
23. A person who can see things most clearly at a
distance of 10 cm, requires spectacles to enable
Y
EBD_7205
MT-38 NEET
frequency w in a magnetic field B. The maximum

æ b ö æ b ö
(a) ç - , 0÷ (b) ç - , b ÷ value of emf generated in the coil is
è 2 ø è 2 ø (a) N A B R w (b) NA B
(c) N A B R (d) N A B w
æ b ö æ 2 ö
(c) ç - , b÷ (d) ç - , b, b ÷ 35. A diametrical tunnel is dug across the earth. A
è 3 ø è 5 ø ball is dropped into the tunnel from one side.
29. A nuclear reaction is given by The velocity of the ball when it reaches the centre
A of the earth is (Given : gravitational potential at
ZX ® Z+1Y A + -1 e 0 + n , represents
3 GM
(a) fission (b) b-decay the centre of earth = – )
(c) a-decay (d) fusion 2 R
30. Steam is passed into 22 gm of water at 20ºC. The (a) R (b) gR
mass of water that will be present when the water
(c) 2.5gR (d) 7.1gR
s
acquires a temperatue of 90ºC (Latent heat of
ok
steam is 540 cal/g) is 36. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an
(a) 24.83 gm (b) 24 gm extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it
bo
(c) 36.6 gm (d) 30 gm from 5 cm to 15 cm is
31. Electromotive force is the force which is able to (a) 16 J (b) 8 J
(c) 32 J (d) 24 J
_e
maintain a constant
(a) potential difference (b) power 37. If it takes 5 minutes to fill a 15 litre bucket from a
(c) resistance (d) current Aj 2
32. A prism of refractive index 2 has a refracting water tap of diameter cm then the Reynolds
@
p
angle of 60º. At what angle a ray must be incident number for the flow is close to (density of water
on it so that it suffers a minimum deviation? = 103 kg/m3 and viscosity of water = 10–3 Pa.s):
At
(a) 45º (b) 60º (a) 1100 (b) 11,000

(c) 90º (d) 180º
(c) 550 (d) 5500
ks
33. Select the incorrect statement about Lorentz

Force. 38. The effective capacitance between the points P
ur
oo
and Q of the arrangement shown in the figure is

(a) In presence of electric field E (r ) and
ur
Eb
magnetic field B(r ) the force on a

moving electric charge is
ur ur ur
e
F = q [ E (r ) + v ´ B (r )]
or
(b) The force, due to magnetic field on a

negative charge is opposite to that on a
M
positive charge. 1
(a) mF (b) 1mF
(c) The force due to magnetic field are 2
become zero if velocity and magnetic field (c) 2mF (d) 1.33mF
are parallel or antiparallel. 39. A glass rod 20 cm long is clamped at the
(d) For a static charge the magnetic force is middle. It is set into the longitudinal vibration.
maximum. If the emitted sound frequency is 4000 Hz, the
34. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the velocity of sound in glass will be
same area A and total resistance R, rotates with (a) 2800 m/s (b) 3200 m/s
(c) 1600 m/s (d) 2000 m/s
Mock Test -3 MT-39
40. A transistor has an a = 0.95, then b is equal to

CHEMISTRY
1
(a) (b) 19 46. The observed osmotic pressure for a 0.10 M
19
(c) 1.5 (d) 0.95 solution of Fe(NH4)2(SO4)2 at 25°C is 10.8 atm.
41. A coil of circular cross-section having 1000 turns The expected and experimental (observed)
and 4 cm2 face area is placed with its axis parallel values of van’t Hoff factor (i) will be respectively:
to a magnetic field which decreases by 10–2 Wb (R = 0.082 L atm k–1 mol–1)
m–2 in 0.01 s. The e.m.f. induced in the coil is: (a) 5 and 4.42 (b) 4 and 4.00
(a) 400 mV (b) 200 mV (c) 5 and 3.42 (d) 3 and 5.42
(c) 4 mV (d) 0.4 mV 47. In the Freidel Craft's acylation reaction, the
42. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity effective electrophile is
of 5 m/s. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to (a) RCOCl+ (b) AlCl3
s
5 m/s northwards. The average acceleration in (c) RCOCl (d) RCO+
ok
this time is 48. Match the columns
1 -2 Column-I Column-II
bo
(a) ms North (A) Lanthanide hard as steel. (p) Lu
2
(B) Lanthanide with maximum (q) Tb
_e
1 paramagnetic character in
(b) ms - 2 North - East
2 Ln4+ state.
1
Aj (C) Lanthanide with maximum (r) Sm
ms –2 North-West value of E° for reaction
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(c)
2 Ln3+(aq)+3e– ® Ln(s).
(d) zero (D) Lanthanide whose Ln 3+ ion is (s) Eu
At
43. In bringing an electron towards another electron, diamagnetic in nature

the electrostatic potential energy of system (a) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
ks
(a) increases (b) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (p)

(b) decreases (c) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p)
oo
(c) becomes zero (d) A – (r), B – (s), C – (q), D – (p)

(d) remains unchanged 49. Specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is
Eb
44. Four bulbs B1, B2, B3 and B4 of 100 W each are 6.02 × 10–2 cc/gm. whose radius and length 7 Å
connected to 220 V main as shown in the figure.
& 10 Å respectively. If NA = 6.02 × 1023, find
molecular weight of virus
e
(a) 3.08 × 103 kg/mol (b) 3.08 × 104 kg/mol

or
220 V B1 B2 B3 B4
(c) 1.54 × 104 kg/mol (d) 15.4 kg/mol
M
50. Arrange the following in increasing order of their

Ammeter
The reading in an ideal ammeter will be: acidity?
(a) 0.45 A (b) 0.90 A o–cresol(a), salicyclic acid(b), phenol(c)
(c) 1.35 A (d) 1.80 A (a) c < a < b (b) b < c < a
45. In a solenoid, if number of turns is doubled, then (c) a < b < a (d) a < c < b
self inductance will become 51. Consider the following statements
(a) half (b) double I. The radius of an anion is larger than that of
(c) 1/4 times (d) quadruple the parent atom.
EBD_7205
MT-40 NEET
II. The ionization energy generally increases (c) 0.20 mole of CO2 at 440 K
with increasing atomic number in a period. (d) 2.0 mole of He at 140 K
III. The electronegativity of an element is the 57. Aniline is an activated system for electrophilic
tendency of an isolated atom to attract an substitution. The compound formed on heating
electron. aniline with acetic anhydride is
Which of the above statements is/are correct? NH2 NH2
(a) I alone (b) II alone
(c) I and II (d) II and III (a) (b)
52. Cl2 changes to Cl– and ClO– in cold NaOH. COCH3
Equivalent weight of Cl2 will be COCH3
M NH2 NHCOCH3
(a) M (b)
s
2
(c) (d)
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M 3M COCH3
(c) (d)
3 3 58. The formula mass of Mohr's salt is 392. The iron
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53. Pick out the wrong statement. present in it is oxidised by KMnO4 in acid
(a) Nitrogen has the ability to form pp-pp bonds medium. The equivalent mass of Mohr's salt is
_e
with itself. (a) 392 (b) 31.6
(b) Bismuth forms metallic bonds in elemental (c) 278 (d) 156
state.
Aj
59. Sewage mostly constitutes
(c) Catenation tendency is higher in nitrogen
@
(a) Non-biodegradable pollutants
when compared with other elements of the
same group. (b) Biodegradable pollutants
(c) Effluents
At
(d) Nitrogen has higher first ionisation

enthalpy when compared with other (d) Air pollutants
elements of the same group. 60. The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced
ks
54. In the conversion of Br2 to BrO3–, the oxidation using the assumption
number of Br changes from
oo
(a) the adsorption sites are equivalent in their

(a) zero to + 5 (b) + 1 to + 5 ability to adsorb the particles
(c) zero to – 3 (d) + 2 to + 5
Eb
(b) the heat of adsorption varies with coverage

55. Arrange the following phenols in order of their (c) the adsorbed molecules interact with each
increasing acidity. other
e
OH OH OH (d) the adsorption takes place in multilayers.

or
NO2 61. Which of the following can be repeatedly soften

on heating?
M
NO2 (i) Polystyrene (ii) Melamine

NO2 (iii) Polyesters (iv) Polyethylene
I II III
(a) I > III > II (b) I > II > III (v) Neoprene
(c) III > I > II (d) III > II > I (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
56. The average molecular speed is greatest in which (c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) (ii) and (iv)
of the following gas samples ? 62. The volume-temperature graphs of a given mass
(a) 1.0 mole of O2 at 560 K of an ideal gas at constant pressure are shown
(b) 0.50 mole of Ne at 500 K below.
Mock Test -3 MT-41
68. Which of the two ions from the list given below
p2 p that have the geometry that is explained by the
3
V p1 same hybridization of orbitals, NO2–, NO3–, NH2,
NH4+, SCN– ?
(a) NO2– and NO3– (b) NH4+ and NO3–
(c) SCN– and NH2– (d) NO2– and NH2–
O 273 T(K) + – base
69. HO + N2Cl
What is the correct order of pressures ?
(a) p1 > p3 > p2 (b) p1 > p2 > p3
(c) p2 > p3 > p1 (d) p2 > p1 > p3 (a) N=N OH
63. Which of the following is used for making optical
instruments?
s
(a) SiO2 (b) Si (b) O
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(c) SiH4 (d) SiC
64. The correct order of acid strength of oxyacids is:
bo
(a) HClO > HClO 2 > HClO 3 > HClO 4 (c)
(b) HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO > HClO4
_e
(c) HClO 4 > HClO 3 > HClO 2 > HClO (d) OH
(d) HClO3 > HClO4 > HClO > HClO2
Aj
70. White lead is
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65. 25.3 g of sodium car bonate, Na 2 CO3 is (a) Pb3O4
dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of (b) PbO
(c) 2PbCO3.Pb(OH)2
At
solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates

completely, molar concentration of sodium ions, (d) Pb(CH3COO)2.Pb(OH)2
71. The commonest method for the extraction of
ks
Na + and carbonate ions, CO32– are respectively metals from oxide ores involves :
(Molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106 g mol–1) (a) Reduction with carbon and carbon
oo
(a) 0.955 M and 1.910 M monoxide

(b) 1.910 M and 0.955 M (b) Reduction with aluminium
Eb
(c) 1.90 M and 1.910 M (c) Reduction with hydrogen

(d) 0.477 M and 0.477 M (d) Electrolytic method
66. In which alkyl halide, SN 2 mechanism is favoured 72. With which one of the following elements silicon
e
maximum ? should be doped so as to give p-type of

or
(a) CH3Cl (b) CH3CH2Cl semiconductor ?

(c) (CH3)2CHCl (d) (CH3)3C – Cl (a) Germanium (b) Arsenic
M
67. Equilibrium constant K changes with temperature. (c) Selenium (d) Boron
73. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3 (Br) (NO2) Cl] Cl is
At 300 K, equilibrium constant is 25 and at 400 K
(a) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum (IV)
it is 10. Hence, backward reaction will have chloride
energy of activation (b) Triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum (IV)
(a) equa to that of forward reaction chloride
(b) less than that of forward reaction (c) Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV)
(c) greater than that of forward reaction chloride
(d) given values are not sufficient to explain (d) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV)
given statement chloride
EBD_7205
MT-42 NEET
74. A molecule M associates in a given solvent 80. In most cases, for a rise of 10K temperature the
(M)n. For a
according to the equation M rate constant is doubled to tripled. This is due
certain concentration of M, the van't Hoff factor to the reason that
(a) collision frequency increases by a factor of
was found to be 0.9 and the fraction of 2 to 3.
associated molecules was 0.2. The value of n is: (b) fraction of molecules possessing threshold
(a) 3 (b) 5 energy increases by a factor of 2 to 3
(c) 2 (d) 4 (c) Activation energy is lowered by a factor of
75. Which of the following compound will undergo 2 to 3.
self aldol condensation in the presence of cold (d) none of these
dilute alkali ? 81. The restricted rotation about carbon carbon
double bond in 2-butene is due to
(a) CH 2 = CH - CHO
(a) Overlap of one s- and sp 2 -hybridized
s
(b) CH = C - CHO orbitals
ok
(c) C 6 H 5CHO
(b) Overlap of two sp 2 - hybridized orbitals
bo
(d) CH 3CH 2CHO.
(c) Overlap of one p- and one sp 2 -hybridized
76. When one mole of an ideal gas is compressed to
_e
orbitals
half its initial volume and simultaneously heated
(d) Sideways overlap of two p- orbitals.
to twice in initial temperature, the change in Aj
82. Which of the following colligative property can
entropy (DS) is provide molar mass of proteins (or polymers or
@
(a) CV ln 2 (b) CP ln 2 colloids) with greatest precision ?
(c) R ln 2 (d) (CV – R) ln 2 (a) Osmotic pressure
77. If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of (b) Elevation of boiling point
At
adsorbent, which of the following relations is (c) Depression of freezing point

not related to adsorption process ? (d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
ks
(a) x / m = K (p) at very low pressure. 83. Cyclic hydrocarbon ‘A’ has all the carbon and
(b) x / m = Kp1/n at inter mediate pressure hydrogen atoms in a single plane. All the carbon
oo
x carbon bonds have the same length, less than

(c) = K at very high pressure 1.54 Å, but more than 1.34 Å. The C – C – C bond
Eb
m angle will be
x (a) 109°28' (b) 100°
(d) = p
m (c) 180° (d) 120°
e
78. For the reaction of one mole of zinc dust with 84. The major product obtained in the photo
or
one mole of sulphuric acid in a bomb calorimeter, catalysed bromination of 2-methylbutane is:
DU and w corresponds to (a) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
M
(a) DU < 0, w = 0 (b) DU < 0, w < 0 (b) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane

(c) DU > 0, w = 0 (d) DU > 0, w > 0 (c) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane
79. Reactivity of hydrogen atoms attached to (d) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
different carbon atoms in alkanes has the order 85. The reason for double helical structure of DNA
is the operation of:
(a) Tertiary > Primary > Secondary (a) Electrostatic attractions
(b) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary (b) van der Waals forces
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) Dipole - Dipole interactions
(d) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary. (d) Hydrogen bonding
Mock Test -3 MT-43
86. Among the following, correct statement is :

(a) Brownian movement is more pronounced BIOLOGY
for smaller particles than for bigger–
particles. 91. Most plants are green in colour because
(b) Sols of metal sulphides are lyophilic. (a) the atmosphere filters out all the colours of
(c) Hardy Schulze law states that bigger the the visible light spectrum except green.
size of the ons, the greater is its coagulating (b) green light is the most effective wavelength
power. region of the visible spectrum in sunlight
(d) One would expect charcoal to adsorb for photosynthesis.
chlorine more than hydrogen sulphide. (c) chlorophyll is least effective in absorbing
87. What is the correct order of spin only magnetic green light.
moment (in BM) of Mn 2+, Cr 2+ and V2+ ? (d) green light allows maximum photosynthesis.
(a) Mn2+ > V2+ > Cr 2+ 92. Which of the following organism possesses
s
(b) V2+ > Cr 2+ > Mn2+ characteristics of both a plant and an animal?
ok
(c) Mn2+ > Cr 2+ > V2+ (a) Bacteria (b) Euglena
(d) Cr2+ > V2+ > Mn2+ (c) Mycoplasma (d) Paramecium
bo
88. In which of the following cases, pH is greater 93. Function of companion cells is
than 7? (a) providing energy to sieve elements for
_e
(a) 50 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 50 mL of 0.1 M NaCl active transport.
(b) 50 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 + 50 mL of 0.2 M NaOH (b) providing water to phloem.
(c) 50 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 mL of 0.1 M
KOH
Aj (c) loading of sucrose into sieve elements by
passive transport.
@
(d) 50 mL of 0.1 M HNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M NH3
(d) loading of sucrose into sieve elements.
89. In the presence of platinum catalyst,
hydrocarbon A adds hydrogen to form n-hexane. 94. In cell cycle, DNA replication takes place in
At
When hydrogen bromide is added to A instead (a) G1 phase

of hydrogen, only a single bromo compound is (b) G2 phase
ks
formed. Which of the following is A? (c) mitotic metaphase

(a) CH 3 — CH 2 — CH = CH — CH 2 — CH 3 (d) S phase
oo
95. Select the events that do not occur in interphase

(b) CH 3 — CH 2 — CH 2 — CH = CH — CH 3 stage of cell-cycle
Eb
(c) CH 3 — CH = CH — CH 2 — CH 2 — CH 3 (i) RNA and protein synthesis.

(d) CH 2 = CH — CH 2 — CH 2 — CH 2 — CH 3 (ii) Cytoplasmic growth.
(iii) Polymerisation of spindle fibres protein.
e
90. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(iv) Disappearance of Golgi bodies and ER.
or
(i) Polynuclear hydrocarbons contain two or

more benzene rings fused together. (v) DNA molecules in highly supercoiled
M
(ii) Polynuclear hydrocarbons have stage.

carcinogenic property. (a) (iii), (iv) & (v) (b) (iv) & (v) only
(iii) Polynuclear hydrocarbons are formed on (c) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (d) (iii) & (iv) only
incomplete combustion of organic materials 96. Organisms which are indicator of SO2 pollution
like tobacco, coal and petroleum. of air are
(iv) They are also produced in human body due (a) Mosses (b) Lichens
to various biochemical reactions. (c) Mushrooms (d) Puffballs
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) 97. Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D of a
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) mature embryo sac.
EBD_7205
MT-44 NEET
101. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a

C h alazal en d
A
(a) physical process
(b) mechanical process
(c) chemical process
(d) biological process
102. Species interaction with negative influence on
both is referred to as
D (a) amensalism (b) mutualism
C en tral cell (c) commensalism (d) competition
Egg
103. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts
in
C
(a) walnut and tamarind
B (b) french bean and coconut
s
(c) cashew nut and litchi
M icro pylar en d
ok
(d) groundnut and pomegranate
(a) A – Filiform apparatus; B – Antipodal cells; 104. When pollen grains are not transferred from
bo
C – Synergids; D – Polar nuclei anthers to stigma in a flower, due to the barrier, it
is called
(b) A – Antipodal cells; B – Filiform apparatus;
_e
(a) herkogamy (b) heterogamy
C – Synergids; D – Polar nuclei (c) cleistogamy (d) dichogamy
(c) A – Antipodal cells; B – Filiform apparatus; 105. Water potential is equal to
Aj
C – Polar nuclei; D – Synergids (a) Ys + O.P. (b) Ys + T.P.
@
(d) A – Antipodal cells; B – Polar nuclei; (c) Yp + Yw (d) Ys + Yp
C – Filiform apparatus; D – Synergids 106. Which of the following is a free living aerobic
non-photosynthetic nitrogen-fixer?
At
98. In which one pair both the plants can be

(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobacter
vegetative propagated by leaf pieces?
(c) Azospirillum (d) Nostoc
(a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
ks
107. What kinds of the structures of proteins are

(b) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(c) Agave and Kalanchoe shown in the following figure ?
oo
(d) Asparagus and Bryophyllum

99. A typical angiospermous ovule is attached to
Eb
the placenta by means of a stalk called X. Body

of the ovule fuses with X in the region called Y.
Identify X and Y.
e
X Y (A)
or
(a) Funicle Hilum

(B)
M
(b) Hilum Funicle

(c) Funicle Micropyle
(d) Hilum Chalaza
100. Identify the correctly matched pair.
(a) Basal Convention - Biodiversity
Conservation
(b) Kyoto Protocol - Climatic change
(c) Montreal Protocol - Global warming
(d) Ramsar - Ground water (C)
(D)
Convention pollution
Mock Test -3 MT-45
(a) A = 1° structure, B = 2° structure, C = 3° 114. Red (RR) Antirrhinum is crossed with white
structure, D = 4° structure (WW) one. Offspring RW are pink. This is an
(b) A = 4° structure, B = 2° structure, C = 3° example of
structure, D = 2° structure (a) dominant -recessive
(c) A = 1° structure, B = 4° structure, C = 3° (b) incomplete dominance
structure, D = 2° structure (c) hybrid
(d) A = 4° structure, B = 3° structure, C = 2° (d) supplementary genes
structure, D = 1° structure 115. Food chain in which micro-organisms breakdown
108. In soil, the water available for root absorption is the food formed by primary producers is
(a) gravitational water (a) parasitic food chain
(b) capillary water (b) detritus food chain
(c) hygroscopic water (c) consumer food chain
(d) combined water (d) predator food chain
s
109. Which of the following minerals activate the 116. Which of the following pairs is a sedimentary
ok
enzymes involved in respiration? type of biogeochemical cycle?
(a) Oxygen and nitrogen
(a) nitrogen and phosphorus
bo
(b) Phosphorus and sulphur
(b) magnesium and manganese (c) Phosphorus and nitrogen
(c) potassium and calcium
_e
(d) Phosphorus and carbon dioxide
(d) sulphur and iron 117. Independent assortment of genes does not take
110. C4 acid, formed in the mesophyll of C4 plants Aj place when
leaf during photosynthesis is (a) genes ar e located on homologous
@
(a) OAA or malic acid or aspartic acid chromosomes
(b) pyruvic acid (b) genes are linked and located on same
(c) succinic acid chromosomes
At
(d) fumaric acid (c) genes are located on non-homologous

111. Azotobacter and Beijerinckia are the examples chromosomes
ks
of (d) All the above

(a) symbiotic nitrogen-fixers 118. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals,
oo
(b) non-symbiotic nitrogen-fixers vitamins and proteins is called

(c) ammonifying bacteria (a) Somatic hybridisation
Eb
(d) disease causing bacteria (b) Biofortification

112. The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4-plants is (c) Biomagnification
(a) Phosphoenol-pyruvate (d) Micropropagation
e
(b) Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate 119. If we completely remove the decomposers from

or
(c) Oxalo-acetic acid an ecosystem, its functioning will be adversely

affected, because
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(d) Phosphoglyceric acid

113. Select the incorrect statement regarding DNA (a) energy flow will be blocked
replication (b) herbivores will not receive solar energy
(c) mineral movement will be blocked
(1) Leading strand is formed in 5' ® 3' direction
(d) rate of decomposition will be very high
(2) Okazaki fragments are formed in 5' ® 3'
120. A nucleotide is formed of
direction
(a) Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(3) DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation (b) Purine, sugar and phosphate
in 5' ® 3' direction (c) Nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
(4) DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation (d) Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
in 3' ® 5' direction
EBD_7205
MT-46 NEET
121. Which of the following hormones are responsible (a) A small pond
for maintaining bud dormancy in deciduous trees ? (b) All the fish in a coral reef
(a) Auxins (b) Cytokinins (c) Earth
(c) Gibberellins (d) Abscisic acid (d) A pile of dung in a pasture
122. A small segment of DNA contains the base 130. A common biocontrol agent for the control of
sequence CGT. If an mRNA transcript is made plant diseases is
that includes this DNA sequence, what will be (a) Baculovirus
the anticodon on the tRNA that will bind to the (b) Bacillus thuringiensis
corresponding mRNA codon for this DNA triplet? (c) Glomus
(a) CGT (b) GCA (c) CGU (d) GCT (d) Trichoderma
123. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
131. Which of the following is not caused by
(a) Galactose
deficiency of mineral nutrition -
(b) Gluconic acid
(a) Necrosis (b) Etiolation
s
(c) b-methyl galactoside
ok
(d) Sucrose (c) Chlorosis (d) Shortening of
124. Which of the following processes make direct internodes.
bo
use of oxygen ? 132. A number of natural reserves have been
(a) Glycolysis created to conserve specific wild life species.
_e
(b) Fermentation Identify the correct combination from the
(c) Electron transport following
(d) Krebs cycle Aj (a) Gir Forest - Tiger
125. Phosphofructokinase is inhibited by H+ ions (b) Kaziranga - Elephants
@
and hence the reate of glycolysis: (c) Rann of Kutch - Wild Ass
(a) increases when pH falls (d) Manas wild life Sancturay - Musk deer
(b)decreases when pH falls significantly 133. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length
At
(c) neither increase or decrease Polymorphism are the methods for :

(d)either increase or decrease (a) Study of enzymes
ks
126. Which of the following is a biological uncoupler (b) Genetic transformation

of oxidative phosphorylation ? (c) DNA sequencing
oo
(a) Thermogenin (d) Genetic Fingerprinting

(b) 2, 4 – Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid 134. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more
Eb
(c) 2, 4 – Dinitrophenol efficient than C3 plants because:

(d) Ethylene diaminotetra acetic acid (a) the CO2 compensation point is more
127. Wildlife is destroyed most when
e
(b) CO2 generated during photorespiration is

(a) there is lack of proper care
or
trapped and recycled through PEP

(b) mass scale hunting for foreign trade
carboxylase
(c) its natural habitat is destroyed
M
(d) natural calamity occurs (c) the CO2 efflux is not prevented
128. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future (d) they have more chloroplasts
with the following improved trait : 135. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is
(a) insect resistance due mainly to the diversity of
(b) high lysine (essential amino acid) content (a) amino groups on the amino acids
(c) high protein content (b) R groups on the amino acids
(d) high vitamin-A content (c) amino acid sequences within the protein
129. Which of the following could not be considered molecule
an ecosystem ? (d) peptide bonds
Mock Test -3 MT-47
136. A tooth scraping yields large numbers of (d) can be regulated by following the national
corkscrew shaped bacteria. These bacteria are programme of family planning
referred to as 145. The diaphragm, cervical cap and vaults are
(a) Bacilli (b) Cocci (a) Disposable contraceptive devices
(c) Spirilli (d) Helici (b) Reusable contraceptives
137. Which one of the following pairs of animals (c) IUDs
comprises ‘jawless fishes’? (d) Implants
(a) Mackerals and Rohu 146. The main function of trophoectoderm in
(b) Lampreys and hag fishes mammalian embryo is
(c) Guppies and hag fishes (a) formation of future endoderm
(d) Lampreys and eels (b) formation of the body of developing
138. Intercalated discs are the communication embryo
junctions between the cells of (c) formation of future ectoderm
s
(a) cardiac muscles (d) formation of placenta
ok
(b) striped muscles 147.
(c) adipose tissue
bo
(d) nerve and striated muscles A
139. Which of the following has parapodia that
_e
function in movement and respiration ?
(a) Polychaetes (b) Leeches
(c) Oligochaeta (d) Lophophorates
140. Pseudostratified epithelium is found in
Aj
@
(a) oesophagus (b) respiratory tract
(c) urinary tract (d) kidney B
141. Male and female cockroaches can be
At
distinguished externally through

(a) anal styles in male
ks
(b) anal cerci in female

(c) anal style and antennae in females
oo
(d) Both (b) and (c)

142. Nerve cells do not divide because they do not have
Eb
(a) nucleus (b) centrosome C

(c) golgi body (d) mitochondria
143. Strobilanthes kunthiana differs from bamboo in
e
(a) being monocarpic Following diagrammatic representation refers the

or
(b) length of juvenile phase natural selection on different traits. In which all
(b) being polycarpic
M
the three graphs A, B and C are identified

(d) none of these correctly
144. Human population growth in India (a) A – Dir ectional, B – Stabilisin g,
(a) tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in case C – Disruptive
of many other animal species (b) A – Stabilising, B – Directional,
(b) tends to reach a zero population growth as C – Disruptive
in case of some animal species (c) A – Stabilising, B – Disruptive,
(c) can be reduced by permitting natural C – Directional
calamities and enforcing birth control (d) A – Directional, B – Disruptive,
measures C – Stabilising
EBD_7205
MT-48 NEET
148. Which one of the following statements about (b) Deoxygenated blood from liver to intestine
human sperm is correct? (c) Oxygenated blood from intestine to liver
(a) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure (d) Deoxygenated blood from intestine to liver
used for piercing and penetrating the egg, 155. "Kwashiorkar' and 'Beri-Beri' are
resulting in fertilisation (a) communicable diseases
(b) The sperm lysis in the acrosome dissolve (b) infectious diseases
the egg envelope facilitating fertilisation (c) deficiency diseases
(c) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure (d) None of the above
leading the sperm towards the ovum 156. ABO blood group system is due to
(d) Acrosome serves no particular function (a) multifactor inheritance
149. Bulbourethral gland is present in (b) incomplete dominance
(a) Males and is another name for Uterus (c) multiple allelism
masculina (d) epistasis
s
(b) Females and is another name for Bertholin’s 157. Change over time within an evolutionary
ok
gland lineage (phyletic change)..
(c) Males and is another name for Cowper’s (a) is the only important evolutionary process.
bo
gland (b) rarely occurs without geographic
(d) None of these separation of populations.
_e
150. One of the factors required for the maturation (c) is the main means by which new species
of the erythrocytes is arise.
(a) vitamin A
(c) vitamin B12
(b) vitamin D
(d) vitamin C
Aj (d) cannot account for the proliferation of
species.
@
151. In which of the following would you record the 158. Bull semen for the purpose of artificial
highest blood pressure ? insemination is stored in
At
(a) The ventricle supplying blood to the gills (a) Ice (b) Liquid oxygen
of a fish (c) Liquid nitrogen (d) Liquid CO2
(b) The anterior dorsal artery of an ant 159. The kind of evolution in which two species of
ks
(c) The pulmonary vein of a frog different geneology come to resemble one
(d) The ventricle supplying blood to the
oo
another closely, is termed as

systemic circuit of a bird (a) progressive evolution
152. Oxyntic cells are located in (b) convergent evolution
Eb
(a) Islets of Langerhans (c) parallel evolution

(b) Gastric epithelium and secrete pepsin (d) retrogressive evolution
(c) Kidneys and secrete renin
e
160. Drosophila flies with XXY genotype are females,

(d) Gastric epithelium and secrete HCl
or
but human beings with such genotype are

153. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian abnormal males. It shows that
M
nephron which of the following is to be (a) Y-chromosome is essential for sex

expected? determination in Drosophila.
(a) The urine will be more concentrated (b) Y-chromosome is female determinant in
(b) The urine will be more dilute Drosophila.
(c) There will be no urine formation (c) Y-chromosome is male determination in
(d) There will be hardly any change in the human beings.
quality and quantity of urine formed (d) Y-chromosome has no role in sex
154. Hepatic portal system carries determination either in Drosophila or in
(a) Oxygenated blood from liver to intestine human beings.
Mock Test -3 MT-49
161. Hinny is a hybrid of male 167. Which gland is involved in the function of our
(a) Horse and female donkey “biological clock”?
(b) Donkey and female horse (a) pineal gland (b) thyroid gland
(c) Goat and female lamb (c) adrenal glands (d) ovaries
(d) Sheep and female goat. 168. Which of the following statements regarding
162. Which of the following is the first step in glucagon is false?
allopatric speciation? (a) It is secreted by a-cells of Langerhans.
(a) genetic drift (b) geographical isolation
(b) It acts antagonistically to insulin.
(c) polyploidy (d) hybridization
163. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, (c) It decreases blood sugar level.
breathing becomes (d) The gland responsible for its secretion is
(a) shallower and slow heterocrine gland.
(b) there is no effect on breathing 169. Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect?
(c) slow and deep (a) Cortisol (b) Calcitonin
s
(c) Oxytocin (d) Aldosterone
ok
(d) faster and deeper
164. Identify A, B, C and D 170. Which is the example of conditioned reflex ?
Right cerebral hemisphere (a) Eyes closed when anything enter into it.
bo
(b) Hand took up when piercing with needle.
(c) Salivation in a hungry dog in response to
_e
ringing of a bell.
Aj (d) Digestion food goes forward in alimentary
canal.
@
171. Which one of the following techniques made it
possible to genetically engineerd living
organism ?
At
(a) A – Forebrain, B – Brainstem, C – Corpus (a) Recombinant DNA techniques

callosum, D – Cerebral aqueduct (b) X-ray diffraction
ks
(b) A – Forebrain, B – Brainstem, C – Cerebral (c) Heavier isotope labelling

aqueduct, D – Corpus callosum (d) Hybridization
oo
(c) A – Brainstem, B – Forebrain, C – Corpus

172. The diagram opposite shows a homologous
callosum, D – Cerebral aqueduct
(bivalent) pair of chromosomes during meiosis.
Eb
(d) A – Brainstem, B – Forebrain, C – Cerebral

aqueduct, D – Corpus luteum
165. The lungs, heart and stomach are supplied by :
e
(a) Vagus (b) Glossopharyngeal

or
(c) Hypoglossal (d) Trigeminal

166. Which one of the following is the correct
M
statement for respiration in humans?

(a) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking Which of the following correctly represents the
industries may suffer from lung fibrosis.
final products of the second meiotic division ?
(b) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried
by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin. (a)
(c) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation
of bronchi.
(d) Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in
pons region of brain can increase the
duration of inspiration.
EBD_7205
MT-50 NEET
177. Select the correct statement with respect to

(b) diseases and immunisation?
(a) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes
are damaged, the body will not produce
antibodies against a pathogen
(b) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens
(c)
causes passive immunity
(c) Certain protozoans have been used to mass
produce hepatitis B vaccine.
(d) Injection of snake antivenom against snake
bite is an example of active immunisation
(d) 178. Vitamin D is synthesized in skin by the action
of sunlight on
s
(a) Cholesterol
ok
(b) 7-hydroxyl cholesterol
(c) Cephalocholesterol
bo
173. Which of the following is the "bird flu virus"? (d) All of these
(a) H5N1 179. Which one of the following is the correct
(b) Haemophilus influenzae
_e
matching of three items and their grouping
(c) HIV
category?
(d) Rhino virus Aj Items Group
174. What is mode of bacterial resistance against
(a) Ilium, ischium, pubis - coxal bones
@
antibiotics ?
of pelvic girdle
(a) Development of thick mucilaginous layer
(b) Alteration of cell membrane (b) Actin, myosin, - muscle proteins
At
(c) Mutation in bacteria rhodopsin.

(d) All the above (c) Cytosine, uracil, - pyrimidines
thiamine
ks
175. Which one of the following is a wrong matching

of a microbe and its industrial product, while the (d) Malleus, incus, - ear ossicles
cochlea
oo
remaining three are correct ?

(a) Yeast - statins 180. What is the first step in the Southern blot
technique?
Eb
(b) Acetobacter aceti - acetic acid

(c) Clostridium butylicum - lactic acid (a) Denaturation of DNA on the gel for
(d) Aspergillus niger - citric acid hybridization with specific probe.
e
176. Interleukins are responsible for activation of (b) Production of a group of genetically
identical cells.
or
(a) Cell mediated immunity

(b) Humoral immunity (c) Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme.
M
(c) Both (d) Denaturation of DNA from a nucleated cell

(d) None such as the one from the scene of crime.
Mock Test -4 MT-51
4JEE MAIN
MOCK TEST
s
ok
INSTRUCTIONS
bo
_e

Aj
@
At

ks
(c) high resistance shunt in series

PHYSICS
oo
(d) high resistance shunt in parallel

4. ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness.
Eb
1. Two identical particles move towards each other

with velocity 2v and v respectively. The velocity The sides are in the ratio shown in the figure. IAB,
of centre of mass is IBC and ICA are the moments of inertia of the plate
e
(a) v (b) v/3 about AB, BC and CA axes respectively. Which

one of the following relations is correct?
or
(c) v/2 (d) zero.

2. A monoatomic gas at 27°C is compressed
M
A
8
adiabatically to of its original volume. The
27
rise in temperature will be 5
3
(a) 300°C (b) 350°C
90°
(c) 375°C (d) 400°C B C
3
3. A galvanometer can be changed into an ammeter
by using (a) I AB > I BC (b) I BC > I AB
(a) low resistance shunt in series (c) I AB + I BC = I CA (d) ICA is maximum
(b) low resistance shunt in parallel
EBD_7205
MT-52 NEET
5. The amplitude of magnetic field of an 1

electromagnetic wave is 2 × 10–7T. It's electric (c) 2 -1 (d)
field amplitude if the wave is travelling in free 2 -1
space is 11. A mass is tied to a string and rotated in a vertical
(a) 6 Vm–1 (b) 60 Vm–1 circle, the minimum velocity of the body at the
(c) 10/6 Vm –1 (d) None of these top is
6. If c, the velocity of light, g the acceleration due
(a) gr (b) g/r
to gravity and P the atmospheric pressure be
the fundamental quantities in MKS system, then 3/ 2
the dimensions of length will be same as that of ægö
(c) ç ÷ (d) gr
c c èrø
(a) (b) 12. What is the disintegration constant of radon, if
g P
the number of its atoms diminishes by 18% in
s
c2
ok
24 h?
(c) Pcg (d) (a) 2.1 × 10–3 s–1 (b) 2.1 × 10–4 s–1
g
bo
–5
(c) 2.1 × 10 s –1 (d) 2.1 × 10–6 s–1
7. A body having initial velocity of 10 m/s moving
on a rough surface comes to rest after moving 13. Hot water cools from 60°C to 50°C in the first 10
_e
50 m. What is coefficient of friction between the minutes and to 42°C in the next 10 minutes. The
body and surface? (g = 10 m/s2) temperature of the surroundings is:
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.2 Aj
(a) 25°C
(c) 15°C
(b) 10°C
(d) 20°C
(c) 0.3 (d) 0.1
@
8. A sonometer wire supports a 4 kg load and 14. Consider the following statement:
vibrates in fundamental mode with a tuning fork When jumping from some height, you should
At
of frequency 416 Hz. The length of the wire bend your knees as you come to rest, instead of
between the bridges is now doubled. keeping your legs stiff. Which of the following
In order to maintain fundamental mode, the load relations can be useful in explaining the
ks
should be changed to statement? Where symbols have their usual

(a) 1 kg (b) 2 kg
oo
meanings.
(c) 4 kg (d) 16 kg r r
(a) D p1 = -D p2 (b) DE = D(PE + KE) = 0
Eb
3 4 r r
9. Given, aµg = , a m w = , if a convex lens of (c) FDt = mD v (d) Dx µ DF
2 3
focal length 10 cm is placed in water, then its 15. Two capacitors when connected in series have
e
focal length in water is a capacitance of 3 mF, and when connected in

or
(a) equal to 40 cm (b) equal to 20 cm parallel have a capacitance of 16 mF. Their

individual capacities are
M
(c) equal to 10 cm (d) None of these

10. A large tank filled with water to a height ‘h’ is to (a) 1 mF, 2 mF (b) 6 mF, 2 mF
be emptied through a small hole at the bottom. (c) 12 mF, 4 mF (d) 3 mF, 16 mF
The ratio of time taken for the level of water to 16. The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur
h h is 32. The radius of sulphur nuclei is larger than
fall from h to and to zero is that of helium by
2 2
1 (a) 8 (b) 4
(a) 2 (b) (c) 2 (d) 8
2
Mock Test -4 MT-53
17. The drift current in a p-n junction is 18 2

(a) from the n-side to the p-side (a) 19.6 ´ 10 20 N / m 2 (b) 19.6 ´10 N / m
(b) from the p-side to the n-side (c) 19.6 ´ 1010 N / m 2 (d) 19.6 ´1015 N / m 2
(c) from the n-side to the p-side if the junction
is forward-baised and in the opposite 24. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving in S.H.M. with
direction if it is reverse biased an amplitude 0.02 and a frequency of 60 Hz. The
(d) from the p-side to the n-side if the junction maximum force acting on the particle is
is forward-baised and in the opposite (a) 144 p2 (b) 188 p2
direction if it is reverse-baised (c) 288 p 2 (d) None of these
18. A thin, metallic spherical shell contains a charge 25. A dip circle is so set that its needle moves freely
Q on it. A point charge q is placed at the cente of in the magnetic meridian. In this position, the
the shell and another charge q1 is placed outside angle of dip is 40º. Now the dip circle is rotated
it as shown in figure. All the three charges are so that the plane in which the needle moves
makes an angle of 30º with the magnetic meridian.
s
positive. The force on the charge at the centre is
In this position, the needle will dip by an angle
ok
Q (a) 40º (b) 30º
(c) more than 40º (d) less than 40º
bo
q 26. According to Maxwell’s hypothesis, a changing
q
electirc field gives rise to
_e
(a) towards left (b) towards right (a) an e.m.f (b) magnetic field
(c) upward (d) zero Aj (c) electric current (d) pressure gradient.
19. The fermi energy for a substance is 27. The unit vector along 2i – 3j + k is
@
(a) independent of T 2i - 3j + k 2i - 3 j + k
(b) directly proportional to T (a) (b)
14 5
At
(c) directly proportional to T

2i - 3 j + k
(d) directly proportional to T2 (c) (d) None of these
20. If the critical angle for total internal reflection 15
ks
from a medium to vacuum is 30°. Then velocity 28. A bucket full of hot water is kept in a room and it
of light in the medium is cools from 75ºC to 70ºC in T1 minutes, from 70ºC
oo
to 65ºC in T2 minutes and from 65ºC to 60ºC in T3

(a) 1.5 ´108 m / s (b) 2 ´108 m / s
minutes. Then
Eb
(c) 3 ´108 m / s (d) 0.75 ´108 m / s (a) T1 = T2 = T3 (b) T1 < T2 < T3

(c) T1 > T2 > T3 (d) T1 < T2 > T3
21. A metal piece is heated upto Tº abs. The
29. A man measures the period of a simple pendulum
e
temperature of the surrounding is tº abs.The

inside a stationary lift and finds it to be T s. If
or
heat in the surrounding due to radiation is

proportional to the lift accelerates upwards with an acceleration
M
(a) (T – T)4 (b) T4 – t4 g / 4, then the period of the pendulum will be

(c) (T – t) 1/4 (d) T2 – t2
22. The rain drops are in spherical shape due to
(a) residual pressure (b) thrust on drop
(c) surface tension (d) viscosity
23. An iron rod of length 2m and cross-sectional
area of 50 mm2 is stretched by 0.5 mm, when a
mass of 250 kg is hung from its lower end. Young’s
modulus of iron rod is
EBD_7205
MT-54 NEET
T æ R Rö
(a) T (b) (c) çè , ÷ø
4 2 2
2T
(c) (d) 2T 5 æ Rö
5 (d) çè R, ÷
30. The energy of hydrogen atom in the nth orbit is 3ø
En, then the energy in the nth orbit of single
ionised helium atom is 35. A charge q is moving with a velocity v parallel to
a magnetic field B. Force on the charge due to
En
(a) (b) 2E n magnetic field is
2 (a) q v B (b) q B/v
En (c) zero (d) B v/q
(c) 4En (d) 36. The current in a coil of L = 40 mH is to be
4
s
increased uniformly from 1A to 11A in 4 milli sec.
31. A Carnot engine absorbs 1000 J of heat energy
ok
The induced e.m.f. will be
from a reservoir at 127°C and rejects 600 J of
(a) 100 V (b) 0.4 V
heat energy during each cycle. The efficiency of
bo
(c) 440 V (d) 40 V
engine and temperature of sink will be:
37. The separation between successive fringes in a
(a) 20% and – 43°C
_e
double slit arrangement is x. If the whole
(b) 40% and – 33°C
arrangement is dipped under water what will be
(c) 50% and – 20°C
Aj the new fringe separation? [The wavelenght of
(d) 70% and – 10°C
light being used is 5000 Å]
32. A cubical block of side 30 cm is moving with
@
(a) 1.5 x (b) x
velocity 2 ms–1 on a smooth horizontal surface.
(c) 0.75 x (d) 2 x
The surface has a bump at a point O as shown in
38. Time required to boil 2 litres of water initially at
At
figure. The angular velocity (in rad/s) of the block

20°C by a heater coil which works at 80%
immediately after it hits the bump, is
efficiency spending 500 joule/s is
ks
a = 30 cm (a) 82 minutes (b) 50 minutes

(c) 28 minutes (d) 37 minutes
oo
39. The frequencies of X-rays, g-rays and ultraviolet

O rays are respectively a, b, and c. Then
Eb
(a) 13.3 (b) 5.0 (a) a < b, b < c (b) a < b, b > c
(c) 9.4 (d) 6.7 (c) a > b, b > c (d) a > b, b < c
33. A body moves in a circular orbit of radius R under 40. A ray of light is incident on the surface of
e
the action of a central force. Potential due to the separation of a medium with the velocity of light
or
central force is given by V(r) = kr (k is a positive at an angle 45° and is refracted in the medium at
constant). Period of revolution of the body is an angle 30°. Velocity of light in the medium will
M
proportional to : be (velocity of light in air = 3 ´ 10 8 m/s)

(a) R1/2 (b) R–1/2
(c) R–3/2 (d) R–5/2 (a) 3.8 ´ 108 m/s (b) 3.38 ´ 108 m/s
34. Three identical spheres each of radius R are (c) 2.12 ´ 108 m/s (d) 1.56 ´ 108 m/s
placed touching each other on a horizontal table
as shown in figure. The co-ordinates of centre 41. An element of 0.05 $i m is placed at the origin
of mass are ; as shown in figure which carries a large
(a) (R, R) (b) (0, 0) current of 10 A. distance of 1 m in perpendicular
direction. The value of magnetic field is
Mock Test -4 MT-55
(a) 4.5 × 10–8T (a) ZnCl2 (b) FeCl3

P (c) AlCl3 (d) SnCl2
(b) 5.5 × 10–8 T 47. CN– is a strong field ligand. This is due to the
(c) 5.0 × 10–8 T fact that
(a) it carries negative charge
(d) 7.5 × 10–8 T D x 0.05 $i m (b) it is a pseudohalide
42. Which of the following statements is FALSE for (c) it can accept electrons from metal species
a particle moving in a circle with a constant (d) it forms high spin complexes with metal
angular speed ? species
(a) The acceleration vector points to the centre 48. The amount of arsenic pentasulphide that can
of the circle be obtained when 35.5 g arsenic acid is treated
(b) The acceleration vector is tangent to the with excess H2S in the presence of conc. HCl
circle (assuming 100% conversion) is :
(c) The velocity vector is tangent to the circle
s
(a) 0.25 mole (b) 0.50 mole
ok
(d) The velocity and acceleration vectors are (c) 0.333 mole (d) 0.125 mole
perpendicular to each other. 49. Which one of the following statement is not
43. If an alternating current is flowing in a spring,
bo
true ?
then the spring will be changing (a) pH of drinking water should be between
(a) in a straight line (b) periodically
_e
5.5 – 9.5.
(c) elliptically (d) first (c) then (a) (b) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good
44. A ball of mass 1 kg bounces against the ground Aj for the growth of fish.
as shown in the figure. The approaching velocity (c) Clean water would have a BOD value of
is 25 m/s and the velocity after hitting the ground
@
less than 5 ppm.
is 20 m/s. The impulse exerted on the ball is : (d) Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are
the most widespread air pollutant.
At
(a) 7.8 N - s
50. Which property of white phosphorus is common
(b) 27.68 N - s to red phosphorous ?
ks
(c) 31 N - s (a) It burns when heated in air.

(b) It reacts with hot caustic soda solution to
oo
(d) 62 N - s give phosphine.

45. A man projects a coin upwards from the gate of (c) It shows chemiluminescence.
Eb
a uniformly moving train. The path of coin for (d) It is soluble in carbon disulphide.
the man will be 51. Heat of dissociation of CH3COOH is 0.005
(a) parabolic kcal g–1, hence enthalpy change when 1 mole of
e
(b) inclined straight line Ca(OH)2 is completely neutralised by CH3COOH

or
(c) vertical straight line is

(d) horizontal straight line (a) – 27.4 kcal (b) – 13.6 kcal
M
(c) – 26.8 kcal (d) – 27.1 kcal

CHEMISTRY 52. 0.4 moles of HCl and 0.2 moles of CaCl 2 were
46. An acidic solution of 'X' does not give precipitate dissolved in water to have 500 mL of solution,
on passing H2 S through it. 'X' gives white the molarity of Cl– ion is:
precipitate when NH4OH is added to it. The white (a) 0.8 M (b) 1.6 M
precipitate dissolves in excess of NaOH solution. (c) 1.2 M (d) 10.0 M
Pure 'X' fumes in air and dense white fumes are 53. In sodium fusion test of organic compounds,
obtained when a glass rod dipped in NH4OH is the nitrogen of the organic compound is
put in the fumes. Compound 'X' can be converted into
EBD_7205
MT-56 NEET
(a) Sodamide (b) Sodium cyanide (a) washing soda is expensive

(c) Sodium nitrite (d) Sodium nitrate (b) washing soda is easily decomposed
54. A + 2B + 3C AB2C3 (c) washing soda reacts with Al to form soluble
Reaction of 6.0 g of A, 6.0 × 1023 atoms of B, aluminate
and 0.036 mol of C yields 4.8 g of compound (d) washing soda reacts with Al to form
AB2C3. If the atomic mass of A and C are 60 insoluble aluminium oxide
and 80 amu, respectively, the atomic mass of B 59. The following data are for the decomposition of
is (Avogadro no. = 6 × 1023): ammonium nitrite in aqueous solution :
(a) 50 amu (b) 60 amu Vol. of N2 in cc Time (min)
(c) 70 amu (d) 40 amu 6.25 10
55. Inductive effect involves 9.00 15
(a) displacement of s-electrons 11.40 20
(b) delocalisation of p-electrons 13.65 25
s
(c) delocalisation of s-electrons 35.65 Infinity
ok
(d) displacement of p-electrons The order of rection is :
56. Arrange the following elements in the order of (a) Zero (b) One
bo
ease of detection of wave properties, in the de (c) Two (d) Three
Broglie experiment. 60. Which of the following reagents convert
_e
H, Li, Be, B, K propene to 1-propanol?
(a) H < Be, B < Li < K. (b) H > Li > K > Be > B (a) H2O, H2SO4
(c) H > Li > Be > B > K (d) H < Li < Be < B < K
Aj(b) aqueous KOH
(c) MgSO4, NaBH4/H2O
@
57. The decreasing order of stability of alkyl
(d) B2H6, H2O2, OH–
carbonium ion is in the order of :
61. A closed container contains equal number of
At
R R H H
| | | |
oxygen and hydrogen molecules at a total
pressure of 740 mm. If oxygen is removed form
(a) R __ C+ > R __ C+ > R __ C+ > H __ C+
ks
| | | | the system then pressure will

R H H H (a) Become double of 740 mm
oo
H H R R (b) Become half of 740 mm

| | | | (c) Become 1/9 of 740 mm
Eb
(b) H __ C + > R __ C+ > R __ C + > R __ C + (d) Remains unchanged

| | | | 62. Compound X of molecular formula C4H6 takes
H H H R up one equivalent of hydrogen in presence of Pt
e
R R H H to form anoth er compound Y which on

or
| | | | ozonolysis gives only ethanoic acid. The

(c) R __ C+ > R __ C+ > R __ C + > H __ C
M
compound X can be
| | | |
(a) CH 2 = CH - CH = CH 2
H R H H
(b) CH2 = C = CHCH3
H R R H (c) CH 3C º CCH 3
| | | | (d) All the three
(d) R __ C+ > R __ C+ > R __ C+ > H __ C
| | | | 63. 1 M solution of CH3COOH should be diluted to
H H R H ............... times so that pH is doubled.
58. Aluminium vessels should not be washed with (a) four times (b) 5.55 × 104 times
materials containing washing soda since (c) 5.55 × 10 times (d) 10–2 times
6
Mock Test -4 MT-57
64. The following reactions take place in the blast Based on given data, the rate equations is:
furnace in the preparation of impure iron. Identify (a) Rate = k[CH3COCH3][H+]
the reaction pertaining to the formation of the (b) Rate = k [CH3COCH3][Br2]
slag. (c) Rate = k [CH3COCH3] [Br2] [H+]2
(a) Fe2O3(s) + 3 CO(g) ®2 Fe (l) + 3 CO2 (g) (d) Rate = k [CH3COCH3][Br2] [H+]
69. Match the columns
(b) CaCO3 (s) ®CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
Column-I Column-II
(c) CaO (s) + SiO2(s) ® CaSiO3 (s) (Ion) (M calculated)
(d) 2C(s) + O2 (g) ®2 CO(g)
(A) Ti2+ (p) 2.84
65. Which one of the following is NOT a buffer
(B) Zn2+ (q) 5.92
solution?
(C) Mn 2+ (r) 0
(a) 0.8 M H2 S + 0.8 M KHS +
– (D) Sc3+ (s) 4.90
(b) 2MC6H5NH2 + 2MC6H5 N H 3 Br (a) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r).
s
(c) 3MH2CO3 + 3MKHCO3 (b) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s).
ok
(d) 0.05 M KClO4 + 0.05 M HClO4 (c) A – (p), B – (r), C – (q), D – (s).
66. Which of the following statements is false ? (d) A – (p), B – (s), C – (q), D – (r).
bo
(a) Radon is obtained from the decay of radium 70. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (at no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic
(b) Helium is inert gas moment of 3.83 B. M. The correct distribution of
_e
(c) Xenon is the most reactive among the rare 3d electrons in the Chromium of the complex is
gases
(d) The most abundant rare gas found in the Aj (a) 3d , (3d )1, 3d
xy1 x 2 - y2 yz1
atmosphere is helium
(b) 3d
@
67. Which one of the following is expected to , 3d , 3d
xy1 yz1 xz1
exhibit optical isomerism?
(en = ethylenediamine) (c) 3d , 3d , 3d
xy1 yz1 dz 2
At
(a) cis-[Pt(NH3)2 Cl2]

(b) trans-[Pt(NH3)2Cl 2] (d) (3d )1, 3d 2 , 3d
x 2 - y2 xz1
ks
z
(c) cis-[Co(en)2Cl 2]
71. Which one of the following cannot function as
(d) trans-[Co(en)2Cl 2]
oo
an oxidising agent ?
68. The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid (a) I– (b) S(s)
solution is represented by this equation.
Eb
CH3COCH3 (aq) + Br2 (aq) ® CH3COCH2Br (aq) + (c) NO3- (aq) (d) Cr2 O72 -
H+ (aq) + Br– (aq) 72. Identify the reaction which does not liberate
hydrogen :
e
These kinetic data were obtained for given (a) Reaction of lithium hydride with B2H6.
or
reaction concentrations. (b) Electrolysis of acidified water using Pt

Initial Initial rate of electrodes
M
Concentrations, M disappearance of (c) Reaction of zinc with aqueous alkali

Br2, Ms–1 (d) Allowing a solution of sodium in liquid
ammonia to stand
[CH3 COCH3] [Br2] [H+] 73. Which of the following compounds has the
0.30 0.05 0.05 5.7×10–5 highest boiling point?
0.30 0.10 0.05 5.7 × 10–5 (a) CH3CH2CH2 Cl
0.30 0.10 0.10 1.2 × 10–4 (b) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Cl
0.40 0.05 0.20 3.1 × 10–4 (c) CH 3CH (CH 3 )CH 2 Cl
(d) (CH3 ) 3 CCl
EBD_7205
MT-58 NEET
74. When concentrated HCl is added to an aqueous 80. The reactivity of metals with water is in the order of
solution of CoCl2, its colour changes from (a) Na > Mg > Zn >Fe > Cu
reddish pink to deep blue. Which complex ion (b) Cu > Fe > Zn > Mg > Na
gives blue colour in this reaction? (c) Mg > Zn > Na > Fe > Cu
(a) [CoCl4]2– (b) [CoCl6]3– (d) Zn > Na > Mg > Fe > Cu
4–
(c) [CoCl6] (d) [Co(H2O)6]2+ 81. The emf of Daniell cell at 298 K is E1
75. Hydrogen has an ionisation energy of 1311 kJ Zn | ZnSO4 (0.01 M) | | CuSO4 (1.0 M) | Cu
mol–1 and for chlorine it is 1256 kJ mol–1 . When the concentration of ZnSO4 is 1.0 M and
Hydrogen forms H+ (aq) ions but chlorine does that of CuSO4 is 0.01 M, the emf changed to E2
not form Cl+ (aq) ions because What is the relation between E1 and E2?
(a) H+ has lower hydration enthalpy (a) E1 = E2 (b) E 2 = 0 ¹ E 2
(b) Cl+ has lower hydration enthalpy
(c) Cl has high electron affinity (c) E1 > E2 (d) E1 < E2
s
(d) Cl has high electronegativity 82. Through which of the following reactions
ok
76. The number of enantiomers of the compound number of carbon atoms can be increased in the
chain?
CH 3 CHBr CHBr COOH is :
bo
(i) Grignard reaction
(a) 2 (b) 3 (ii) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(c) 4 (d) 6 (iii) Aldol condensation
_e
77. Equivalent weighs of KMnO4 acidic medium, (iv) HVZ reaction
neutral medium and concentrated alkaline Choose the correct option.
medium respectively are
M M M
, , . Reduced
Aj (a) Only (iii) and (i)
@
5 1 3 (b) Only (iii) and (ii)
products can be (c) Only (iii) and (iv)
(a) MnO 2 , MnO 42- , Mn 2 + (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
At
83. The correct order of atomic/ionic sizes is

(b) MnO 2 , Mn 2 + , MnO 24 - (a) N < Li < B
ks
(c) Mn 2+ , MnO24- , MnO 2 (b) F - < O 2 - < N 3 -

(c) Ca 2 + < S 2 - < Cl -
(d) Mn 2 + , MnO2 , MnO 24 -
oo
78. Which of these have no unit? (d) Na + < Mg 2 + < Cl -

84. The rapid change of pH near the stoichiometric
Eb
(a) Electronegativity
(b) Electron affinity point of an acid-base titration is the basis of
(c) Ionisation energy indicator detection. pH of the solution is related
to ratio of the concentrations of the conjugate
e
(d) Excitation potential

acid (HIn) and base (In–) forms of the indicator
or
79. Which of the following statements is not correct

for sigma and pi-bonds formed between two by the expression
-
M
carbon atoms? (a) log [ In ] = pK In - pH

(a) Sigma-bond determines the direction [ HIn ]
between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has
[ HIn ]
no primary effect in this regard (b) log = pK In - pH
(b) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond [ In - ]
(c) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are [ HIn ]
of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, (c) log = pH - pK In
respectively [ In - ]
(d) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond [In - ]
(d) log = pH - pK In
is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond [HIn ]
Mock Test -4 MT-59
85. In the diazotization of arylamines with sodium

nitrite and hydrochloric acid, an excess of BIOLOGY
hydrochloric acid is used primarily to 91. An animal with same generic, specific and
(a) Supress the concentration of free aniline subspecific names is
available for coupling (a) man (b) gorilla
(b) Supress hydrolysis of phenol (c) rabbit (d) elephant
(c) Ensure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous 92. A meal containing snails, clams and octopus
acid represents which of the following classes of
(d) Neutralise the base liberated molluscs ?
86. In lake test of Al3+ ion, there is formation of (a) Bivalvia only
coloured floating lake. It is due to (b) Gastropoda and Cephalopoda
(a) adsorption of litmus by H 2 O (c) Bivalvia and Gastropoda
(d) Bivalvia, Gastropoda and Cephalopoda
s
(b) adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3 93. Match List I with List II and select the correct
ok
(c) adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)4– answer -
(d) none of these List I List II
bo
87. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1×10–3 to A. Cyanophyta (i) Chrysolaminarin
1 × 10–2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure B. Chlorophyata (ii) Amylopectin
of 1×105 Nm–2. The work done is
_e
C. Phaeophyta (iii) Floridean starch
(a) 270 kJ (b) – 900 kJ D. Rhodophyta (iv) Starch
(c) – 900 kJ (d) 900 kJ Aj (v) Laminarin
88. Which of the following fact(s) explain as to why A B C D
@
p-nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol? (a) (ii) (v) (i) (iii)
(i) –I Effect of nitro group. (b) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
(ii) Greater resonance effect of p-nitrophenoxy (c) (i) (iv) (iii) (v)
At
group (d) (ii) (iii) (v) (i)

(iii) Steric effect of bulky nitro group 94. Which one of the following is a true fruit?
ks
(a) i and ii (b) i and III (a) Apple (b) Pear

(c) ii and iii (d) ii alone (c) Cashew nut (d) Coconut
oo
89. Which of the following reactions will not result 95. Which of the following meristem is also called
in the formation of anisole? ‘file meristem’ ?
Eb
(a) Phenol + dimethyl sulphate in presence of (a) mass meristem

a base (b) plate meristem
(b) Sodium phenoxide is treated with methyl (c) inter calary meristem
e
iodide (d) none of these

or
(c) Reaction of diazomethane with phenol 96. Which of the following algae are suitable for
(d) Reaction of methylmagnesium iodide with human consumption?
M
phenol (a) Laminaria and Fucus

90. What will be the heat of formation of methane, if (b) Gracilaria and Chondrus
the heat of combustion of carbon is '–x' kJ, heat (c) Porphyra and Spirogyra
of formation of water is '–y' kJ and heat of (d) Rhodymania and Porphyra
combustion of methane is 'z' kJ ? 97. Which of the following organelles is directly
(a) (–x – y + z) kJ connected to the outer membrane of the nucleus
(b) (–z – x + 2y) kJ in a eukaryotic cell?
(c) (–x – 2y – z) kJ (a) Mitochondrion (b) Lysosome
(d) (–x – 2y + z) kJ (c) Golgi apparatus (d) Endoplasmic
reticulum
EBD_7205
MT-60 NEET
98. Chosse the correct combinations. (b) Depletion of ozone - Release of CFCs
layer in the atmosphere
(c) Eutrophication - Increase in
nitrogen and
phosphorus
content in auatic
bodies
(d) Decrease in BOD - Increase in global
of pond water temperature
I. Hypogynous flower 104. The electrostatic precipitator is used for
II. Perigynous flower removing particulate matter from
III. Epigynous flower (a) Exhaust of the thermal power plant
(b) Exhaust from the automobiles
s
(a) A - I, B - II, C - III
ok
(b) A - I, B - III, C - II (c) Industrial effluents
(c) A - III, B - II, C - I (d) Kitchen waste
bo
(d) A - III, B - I, C - II 105. Keystone species in an ecosystem are those
99. Formation of diploid embryo sac from diploid (a) present in maximum number
(b) that are most frequent
_e
vegetative structure is called :
(a) Diplospory (c) attaining a large biomass
(b) Apospory Aj(d) contributing to ecosystem properties
(c) Adventive polyembryony 106. If the gene encoding the trp repressor is
@
(d) Apomixis mutated such that it can no longer bind
100. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is tryptophan, will transcription of the trp operon
(a) Chalazogamy (b) Mesogamy occur?
At
(c) Porogamy (d) Pseudogamy (a) Yes, because the trp repressor can only bind
101. Competition for light, nutrients and space is most the trp operon and block transcriptional
ks
severe between initiation when it is bound to tryptophan

(a) closely related organism growing in (b) No, because this mutation does not affect
oo
different habitats the part of the repressor that can bind the
(b) closely related organisms growing in the operator
Eb
same habitat (c) No, because the trp operon is repressed

(c) distantly related organisms growing in the only when tryptophan levels are high
same habitat (d) Yes, because the trp operon can allosteri-
e
(d) distantly related organisms growing in cally regulate the enzymes needed to syn-
or
different habitats thesize the amino acid tryptophan.

102. From megasporocyte to egg cell, what processes 107. What is the best pH of soil for cultivation of
M
are required ? plants ?

(a) Meiosis followed by mitosis (a) 3.4 – 5.4 (b) 6.5 – 7.5
(b) Mitosis followed by meiosis (c) 4.5 – 8.5 (d) 5.6 – 6.5
(c) Several meiotic divisions only 108. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a
(d) Several mitotic divisions only (a) simple protein
103. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly (b) RNA
matched ? (c) ribonucleoprotein
(a) Production of - Burning of coal (d) repetitive DNA
sulphur dioxide
Mock Test -4 MT-61
109. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area (a) sensitive glandular hairs which secrete a
at any time is called sweet, viscous, shining substance.
(a) standing crop (b) specially sensitive trigger hairs.
(b) deteritus (c) leaves which are modified into pitcher.
(c) humus (d) leaf segments modified into bladder.
(d) standing state 115. Quantasomes are present in
110. The Triticale is an intergeneric hybrid between : (a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria
(a) wheat and maize (c) golgi body (d) lysosome
(b) maize and rye 116. What is the minimum number of cell membranes
(c) wheat and rye that a water molecule must move through in
(d) bajra and wheat getting from the soil into a xylem vessel element ?
111. Which one is a neem product used as insect (a) 0 (b) 1
repellent? (c) 2 (d) 6
s
(a) Azadirachtin (b) Rotenone 117. Which of the following statements regarding
ok
(c) Parathione (d) Endrin photorespiration are true ?
112. Choose the correct option. (a) Photorespiration is a metabolically
bo
A expensive pathway.
(b) Photorespiration is avoided when carbon
_e
dioxide is abundant.
(c) Photorespiration results in a loss of usable
B Aj carbon dioxide.
(d) All of the above.
@
118. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium
C which can also form symbiotic association with
D
the water fern Azolla is
At
(a) Tolypothrix (b) Chlorella

(a) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet (c) Nostoc (d) Anabaena
ks
bridge, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial 119. Which of the following statements correctly
spoke characterizes changes in CaCO3, clay and biom-
oo
(b) A – Plasma membrane, B – Arm, C – Central ass during the long-term aging of soil?
(a) CaCO3 gradually decreases, clay gradually
microtubule, D – Radial spoke
Eb
increases and biomass peaks and then de-

(c) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet clines.
bridge, C – Hub, D – Radial spoke (b) CaCO3 gradually decreases, clay and biom-
e
(d) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet ass gradually increase.

or
(c) Clay gradually increases, CaCO3 and biom-

bridge, C– Hub, D – Arm
ass peak and then decline.
M
113. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but (d) All three gradually decrease.
can recover after some time if damaging effect 120. Krebs cycle occurs in
stops will be having (a) mitochondria (b) cytoplasm
(a) low stability and high resilience (c) chloroplasts (d) ribosomes
(b) high stability and low resilience 121. Most abundant organic compound on earth is
(c) low stability and low resilience (a) Protein (b) Cellulose
(d) high stability and high resilience (c) Lipids (d) Steroids
114. The mode of catching insects in Drosera plants 122. An inhibitor is added to a cell culture so that
is by means of succinate accumulates. The enzyme catalysing
EBD_7205
MT-62 NEET
the formation of which substance has been 129. Which one thing is not true about antibiotics?
blocked? (a) The term “antibiotic” was coined by Selman
(a) Citrate (b) Oxaloacetate Waksman in 1942
(c) a -ketoglutarate (d) Fumarate (b) First antibiotic was discovered by
123. To avoid excessive water loss during severe Alexander Flemming
drought stress, the closure of stomata is signalled (c) Each antibiotic is effective only against one
by the production of particular kind of germ
(a) IAA (b) NAA (d) Some persons can be allergic to a particular
(c) ABA (d) IBA antibiotic
124. The amount of DNA in a mammalian cell in early 130. Which of the following is an antinutritional factor
prophase I is x. in Brassica napus ?
What is the amount of DNA in the same cell in (a) Hirudin
anaphase I of meiosis? (b) Erucic acid and glucosinolates
s
x x (c) Amygdalin
ok
(a) (b) (c) x (d) 2 x (d) Cyanophycean granules
4 2 131. The common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields is
125. The major reason that glycolysis is not as
bo
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azospirillum
energy productive as respiration is that (c) Oscillatoria (d) Frankia
(a) NAD+ is regenerated by alcohol or lactate
_e
132. In order to obtain virus- free plants through tissue
production, without the high-energy culture, the best method is
electrons passing through the electron Aj(a) protoplast culture
transport chain. (b) embryo rescue
(b) it is the pathway common to fermentation
@
(c) anther culture
and respiration. (d) meristem culture
(c) it does not take place in a specialized 133. Rennet is purified by C. Hansen (1874) for
At
membrane-bound organelle. commercial use. This enzyme is extracted from

(d) pyruvate is more reduced than CO2; it still (a) Stomach of goat
ks
contains much of the energy from glucose. (b) Stomach of horse

126. All the following statements are true with regard (c) Stomach of calf
oo
to Km value, except : (d) Bacteria

(a) Km is defined as the substrate concentration
R R
Eb
at half maximal velocity + | + |

(b) Then 50% of enzyme molecules are bound H 3 N – C H–COO –
134. H3 N – C H–COOH
with substrate molecules (A) (B)
e
(c) Km is independent of enzyme concentration R

|
or
(d) As numerical value of Km is more, the H 2 N– C H–COO –

affinity of enzyme to substrate is more (C)
M
127. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the

Which of the above is Zwitterionic form?
parliament in the year
(a) A (b) C
(a) 1992 (b) 1996
(c) B (d) All of these
(c) 2000 (d) 2002
135. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes
128. ‘Axenic culture’ is
which
(a) culture of tissue
(a) make cuts at specific positions within the
(b) growing of shrubs
DNA molecule
(c) growing of tall trees
(b) recognize a specific nucleotide sequence
(d) culture of tissue free from contamination
for binding of DNA ligase
Mock Test -4 MT-63
(c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA 144. Consider the statements given below regarding
polymerase contraception and answer as directed thereafter:
(d) remove nucleotides from the ends of the (i) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
DNA molecule during first trimester is generally safe
136. Sex factor in bacteria is (ii) Generally chances of conception are nil until
(a) Chromosomal replicon mother breast-feeds the infant upto two
(b) F-replicon years
(c) RNA (iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are
(d) Sex-pilus effective contraceptives
137. Animals/organisms floating on the surface of (iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one
water are week after coitus to prevent conception
(a) plankton (b) pelagic Which two of the above statements are correct?
(c) benthos (d) neritic (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
s
138. Which layer is very thick at the sole and palm (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
ok
and is water proof? 145. Identify the blood vessels A to D.
(a) Stratum granulosum
bo
(b) Stratum lucidium
(c) Stratum corneum
_e
(d) Stratum spongiosum
139. Spleen is referred to as
(a) temporary endocrine gland Aj
(b) graveyard of RBC
@
(c) largest gland
(d) store house of WBC
At
140. Given below are four matchings of an animal and

its kind of respiratory organ :
(i) Silver fish – trachea
ks
(ii) Scorpion – book lung

(iii) Sea squirt – pharyngeal gills
oo
(iv) Dolphin – skin

The correct matchings are
Eb
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv)

(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
141. In the mouthparts of the cockroach, the organ (a) A- Systemic vein, B-Pulmonary artery,
e
of mastication is C-Pulmonary vein, D-Systemic artery

or
(a) labium (b) maxillae (b) A-Systemic artery, B-Pulmonary artery,

(c) mandibles (d) labrum C- Pulmonary vein, D- Systemic vein
M
142. Which one of the following characters is not (c) A-Pulmonary artery, B-Systemic vein,
typical of the class Mammalia? C-Pulmonary vein, D- Systemic artery
(a) Thecodont dentition (d) A-Systemic vein, B-Pulmonary vein,
(b) Alveolar lungs C- Pulmonary artery, D- Systemic artery
(c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves 146. Which pathway of the male reproductive system
(d) Seven cervical vertebrae is correct for the sperms transportation?
143. Natural parthenogenesis occurs in: (a) Vas efferentia®Vas deferens®Epididymis
(a) Protozoans (b) Earthworm (b) Vas deferens®Epididymis®Seminal
(c) All insects (d) Honeybee vesicle
EBD_7205
MT-64 NEET
(c) Epididymis®Vas deferens®Urethra (b) Dominant character carried by

(d) Rete testis®Epididymis®Vas efferentia Y-chromosome
147. The second maturation division of the mammalian (c) Dominant trait carried by X-chromosome
ovum occurs: (d) Recessive trait carried by X-chromosome
(a) in the Graafian follicle following the first 153. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was
maturation division given by
(b) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum (a) Wallace (b) Lamarck
makes entry into the fallopian tube (c) Darwin (d) De Vries
(c) Until after the ovum has been penetrated 154. The animal husbandry deals with the care,
by a sperm breeding and management of
(d) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused (a) Domesticated animals
with that of the ovum (b) Fishes
148. A force acting against achievement of highest (c) Honey bees and silk worms
s
possible level of population growth is (d) All of these
ok
(a) Carrying capacity 155. ‘Inland fishery’ refers to
(b) Environment resistance (a) Culturing fish in fresh water
bo
(c) Population pressure (b) Trapping and capturing fishes from sea
(d) Saturation level coast
_e
149. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that (c) Deep sea fishing
lasts for 7-8 days, is (d) Extraction of oil from fishes
(a) follicular phase (b) ovulatory phase 156.
Aj The diagram below shows the parasympathetic
(c) luteal phase (d) menstruation innervation of the smooth muscle and glands of
@
150. What type of human population is represented the stomach.
by the following age pyramid?
At
Post-reproductive
ks
oo
Reproductive
Eb
Pre-reproductive What chemical transmitters are released at the

synapses X and Y ?
X Y
e
(a) Vanishing population

(b) Stable population (a) Acetylcholine Acetylcholine
or
(c) Declining population (b) Acetylcholine Calcium ions

M
(d) Expanding population (c) Acetylcholine Noradrenaline

151. The 'Mule' is the result of (d) Noradrenaline Calcium ions
(a) Inbreeding depression 157. Which of following teeth are lophodont?
(b) Out breeding (a) Incisor and canine
(c) Cross breeding (b) Premolar and molar
(d) Inter-specific hybridization (c) Canine and premolar
152. Haemophilia is more common in males because (d) Premolar and incisor
it is a 158. Pacemaker of heart is
(a) Recessive character carried by (a) AV node (b) Bundle of His
Y–chromosome (c) SA node (d) Purkinje fibres
Mock Test -4 MT-65
159. Uricotelism is found in 167. The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after
(a) Frogs and toads prolonged strenuous physical work, is caused
(b) Mammals and birds by
(c) Birds, reptiles and insects (a) a decrease in the supply of oxygen
(d) Fishes and fresh water protozoans (b) minor wear and tear of muscle fibres
160. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in (c) the depletion of glucose
the human blood even after its uptake by the (d) the accumulation of lactic acid
body tissues. This O2 168. Consider the diagram given below
(a) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
(b) raise the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
(c) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin
saturation at 96%
(d) helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial
s
tissues.
ok
161. The basic functional unit of the human kidney is
(a) nephron (b) nephridia
bo
(c) pyramid (d) Henle’s loop
162. Urea from the blood can be removed by
_e
(a) Uremia (b) Diuresis
(c) Dialysis (d) Micturition
163. What prevents molecules with a molecular mass
greater than 68000 passing from the glomerular
Aj
@
capillaries into Bowman’s capsule?
(a) the basement membrane of the epithelial
cells of Bowman’s capsule Identify the labelled parts as A, B, C, D and E
At
(b) the cell surface membrane of the endothe- respectively.

lial cells of the capillaries (a) Frontal bone, Parietal bone, Temporal bone,
ks
(c) the cell surface membrane of the epithelial Occipital condyle and Hyoid bone
cells of Bowman’s capsule (b) Frontal bone, Temporal bone, Parietal bone,
oo
(d) the spaces between the extensions of the Occipital condyle and Hyoid bone
podocytes of Bowman’s capsule (c) Frontal bone, Parietal bone, Temporal bone,
Eb
164. The nerve centres which control the body Hyoid bone and Occipital condyle
temperature and the urge for eating are contained (d) Parietal bone, Frontal bone, Temporal bone,
in: Occipital condyle and Hyoid bone
e
(a) hypothalamus (b) pons 169. Which one of the following statements is
or
(c) cerebellum (d) thalamus incorrect ?

165. Rods and cones of eyes are modified (a) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs,
M
(a) multipolar neuron increases the efficiency of respiration in

(b) unipolar neuron birds.
(c) bipolar neuron (b) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to
(d) None of these distribute oxygen to tissues.
166. A patient with a pituitary tumor might suffer with (c) The principle of countercurrent flow
polyuria (production of too much urine) as a facilitates efficient respiration in gills of
result of decreased secretion of fishes.
(a) MSH (b) FSH (d) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases
(c) aldosterone (d) ADH the efficiency of respriration in mammals.
EBD_7205
MT-66 NEET
170. Which one of the following does not act as a 177. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
neurotransmitter ? matched ?
(a) Epinephrine (b) Norepinephrine (a) Dengue fever – Arbovirus
(c) Cortisone (d) Acetylcholine (b) Plague – Yersinia pestis
171. Which one of the following statements is (c) Syphilis – Trichuris trichura
correct? (d) Sleeping sickness – Trypanosoma
(a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but gambiense
not vice versa. 178. Which one of the following depresses brain
(b) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity activity and produced feelings of calmness,
and nervous system regulates endocrine relaxation and drowsiness?
glands. (a) Morphine (b) Valium
(c) Neither hormones control neural activity (c) Amphetamines (d) Hashish
179. Which one of the following is correctly matched
nor the neurons control endocrine activity.
s
pair of the given secretion and its primary role in
(d) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity
ok
human physiology?
but not vice versa. (a) Sebum — Sexual attraction
172. ‘Cloning’ is meant for/to
bo
(b) Sweat — Thermoregulation
(a) production of hGH gene in E. coli (c) Saliva — Tasting food
(b) preserve the genotype of organism
_e
(d) Tears — Excretion of salts
(c) replace the original gene 180. Consider the following four statements (i-iv) and
(d) All of the above Ajselect the option which includes all the correct
173. A cell coded protein formed in response to ones only.
@
infection with most animal viruses is (i) Single cell Spirulina can produce large
(a) Antigen (b) Antibody quantities of food rich in protein, minerals,
(c) Interferon (d) Histone vitamins etc.
At
174. Which one of the following is not used in (ii) Body weight-wise the micro-organism
organic farming? Methylophilus methylotrophus may be
ks
(a) Glomus (b) Earthworm able to produce several times more proteins
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Snail than the cows per day.
oo
175. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key (iii) Common button mushrooms are a very rich
reagent is source of vitamin C.
Eb
(a) RNase (iv) A rice variety has been developed which is

(b) alkaline phosphatase very rich in calcium.
(c) catalase (a) Statements (ii) and (iv)
e
(d) DNA probe (b) Statements (i), (iii) and (iv)

or
176. Vitamin B12 is formed during fermentation of (c) Statements (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(a) Ashloya gossipii (d) Statements (i) and (ii)
M
(b) Rhizopus stolonifer

(c) Propionibacteria
(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Mock Test -5 MT-67
5JEE MAIN
MOCK TEST
s
ok
INSTRUCTIONS
bo
_e

Aj
@
At

ks
oo
PHYSICS (a) M [
4 2
r + 2 l2] (b) M [
8 2
r + 2 l2]
5 5
Eb
1. The tempertaure of equal masses of three 8 4

different liquids A, B and C are 12°C, 19°C and (c) Mr2 (d) M [ r2 + 4 l2]
28°C respectively. The temperature when A and 5 5
e
B are mixed is 16°C and when B and C are mixed 3. Figure shows a capillary rise H. If the air is blown
or
is 23°C . The temperature when A and C are through the horizontal tube in the direction as
shown, then rise in capillary tube will be
M
mixed is
(a) 18.2°C (b) 22°C
(c) 20.2°C (d) 25.2°C
2. Four spheres each of diameter 2 r and the mass H
M are placed with their centres on the four corners
of a square of side l. The moment of inertia of
the system about an axis along one of the sides
of the square is :
(a) = H (b) > H
(c) < H (d) zero
EBD_7205
MT-68 NEET
4. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed 10 mF 20 W

in the magnetic field B . The torque acting on
the magnet is
(a) M×B (b) M–B 20 V
(a) < 2 mJ (b) 2 mJ
1
(c) M×B (d) M + B (c) > 2 mJ (d) None of these
2 11. The condition for obtaining secondary maxima
5. A phase difference between two points separated in the diffraction pattern due to single slit is
by 0.8 m in a wave of frequency 120 Hz is p/2.
l
The wave velocity is (a) a sin q = nl (b) a sin q = ( 2n -1)
(a) 384 m/s (b) 768 m/s 2
s
(c) 250 m/s (d) 154 m/s nl
ok
6. A simple pendulum is executing simple harmonic (c) a sin q = ( 2n - 1) l (d) a sin q =
motion with a time period T. If the length of the 2
12. If R is universal gas constant, the amount of
bo
pendulum is increased by 21% the increase in
the time period of the pendulum of increased heat needed to raise the temperature of 2 moles
of an ideal monoatomic gas from 273 K to 373 K,
_e
length is
(a) 50% (b) 30% when no work is done, is
(c) 21% (d) 10% (a) 100 R
Aj (b) 150 R
7. In a transformer, number of turns in the primary (c) 300 R (d) 500 R
13. How much energy is required for a body of mass
@
coil are 140 and that in the secondary coil are
280. If current in primary coil is 4 A, then that in 1000 kg to escape from the earth? (g = 9.8 m/s2, R
the secondary coil is = 6400 km)
At
(a) 4 A (b) 2 A (a) about 3.2 × 1010 J (b) about 6.4 × 1010 J
(c) 6 A (d) 10 A (c) about 6.4 × 106 J (d) None of these
ks
8. A triangular block of mass M with angles 30°, 14. A wheel with ten metallic spokes each 0.50m long
60° and 90° rest with its 30° – 90° side on a is rotated with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane
oo
horizontal table. A cubical block of mass m rests normal to the earth’ s magnetic field at the place.
on 60° – 30° side. The acceleration which M must If the magnitude of the field is 0.40 G, the induced
Eb
have relative to the table to keep m stationary emf between the axle and the rim of the wheel is
relative to the triangular block is (assuming equal to
frictionless contact) (a) 1.256 × 10 – 3 V (b) 6.28 × 10 – 4 V
e
(c) 1.256 × 10 V – 4 (d) 6.28 × 10 – 5 V

(a) g (b)
or
g/ 2 15. A closed spherical surface of radius R encloses

an electric dipole. The net electric flux through
M
(c) g / 3 (d) g / 5 the surface is

9. The K.E. of one mole of an ideal gas is E = (3/2)
R
RT. Then Cp will be
(a) 0.5 R (b) 0.1 R
(c) 1.5 R (d) 2.5 R –q +q
10. A capacitor of the capacitance 10 mF is charged
(a) zero (b) 2q.4pR2
by connecting through a resistance of 20W to a
battery of 20V, as shown. How much energy is q 2q
supplied by the battery? (c) e0 (d) e0
Mock Test -5 MT-69
16. A spool is pulled horizontally by two equal and Y

opposite forces on rough surface. The correct 10V 20V 30V
statement is :
O(cm)
30º X
10 20 30 (cm)
F
F (a) 100 Vm–1 along X-axis

(b) 100 Vm–1 along Y-axis
(c) 200 Vm–1 at an angle 120° with X-axis
(d) 50 Vm–1 at an angle 120° with X-axis
(a) centre of mass of spool moves towards
23. A block B of mass 4 kg is placed on a rough
right
horizontal plane. A time dependent horizontal
(b) centre of mass of spool moves towards left
force f = kt acts on the block, k = 2 N/s2. The
(c) centre of mass remains at rest
frictional force between the block and the plane
s
(d) none of these
at t = 2 sec is (µ = 0.2)
ok
17. If the atom 100Fm257 follows the Bohr model
(a) 4N (b) 8 N
and the radius of 100Fm257 is n times the Bohr
(c) 12 N (d) zero
bo
radius, then find n.
24. Four charges equal to –Q are placed at the four
(a) 100 (b) 200
corners of a square and a charge q is at its cen-
_e
(c) 4 (d) 1/4
tre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is
18. Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 100 kg are
separated by a distance of 2m ( G = 6.67 × 10–11
Nm2 kg–2). The gravitational potential at the mid
Aj (a) -
Q
4
(
1+ 2 2 ) (b)
Q
4
(1+ 2 2 )
@
point on the line joining the two is
(a) 7.3 × 10–7 J/kg (b) 7.3 × 10–9 J/kg (c)
Q
2
(
- 1+ 2 2 ) (d)
Q
2
(1+ 2 2 )
(c) –7.3 × 10–9 J/kg (d) 7.3 × 10–6 J/kg
At
25. Using equipartition of energy, the specific heat

19. For a given material, the Young’s modulus is 2.4 (in J kg–1 K–1) of aluminium at room temperature
times that of rigidity modulus, the Poission’s ratio can be estimated to be (atomic weight of
ks
is aluminium = 27)
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.4 (a) 410 (b) 25
oo
(c) 1.2 (d) 2.4 (c) 1850 (d) 925

20. The logic behind ‘NOR’ gate is that it gives 26. A bag of mass M hangs by a long thread and a
Eb
(a) high output when both inputs are low bullet (mass m) comes horizontally with velocity
(b) high output when both inputs are high V and gets caught in the bag. Then for the
(c) low output when both inputs are low combined (bag + bullet) system
e
(d) None of these

or
21. A Laser light of wavelength 660 nm is used to mvM

(a) momentum =
weld Retina detachment. If a Laser pulse of width M+m
M
60 ms and power 0.5 kW is used the approximate

number of photons in the pulse are : m V2
(b) kinetic energy =
[Take Planck’s constant h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js] 2
(a) 1020 (b) 1018 mV (M + m)
(c) 10 22 (d) 1019 (c) momentum =
22. Equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. Then M
the electric field strength will be m2 v2
(d) kinetic energy =
2 (M + m)
EBD_7205
MT-70 NEET
27. The P-V diagram of a gas system undergoing

cyclic process is shown here. The work done u2 u2
(a) (b)
during isobaric compression is g 4g
A D 2u 2 u2
2 × 102 (c) (d)
g 2g
P(N m–2) 33. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg-m2 about
B C
102 its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm
about this axis, The torque which can stop the
wheel’s rotation in one minute would be
p 2p
(a) Nm (b) Nm
0 1 2 3 18 15
s
–3 p p
ok
V(m ) (c) Nm (d) Nm
(a) 100 J (b) 200 J 12 15
bo
(c) 600 J (d) 400 J 34. Two long parallel wires P and Q are held
28. The electric potential V(x) in a region around the perpendicular to the plane of paper with distance
of 5 m between them. If P and Q carry current of
_e
origin is given by V(x) = 4x2 volts. The electric
charge enclosed in a cube of 1 m side with its 2.5 amp. and 5 amp. respectively in the same
centre at the origin is (in coulomb) direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-
Aj
(a) 8e0 (b) – 4e0 way between the wires is
@
(c) 0 (d) – 8e0 (a) m 0 / 17 (b) 3 m0 / 2 p
29. A gas is compressed from a volume of 2m 3 to a
volume of 1m3 at a constant pressure of 100 N/ (c) m 0 / 2 p (d) 3 m0 / 2 p
At
m2. Then it is heated at constant volume by 35. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter
supplying 150 J of energy. As a result, the V1 and V2 are 300 volt each. The reading of the
ks
internal energy of the gas: voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively

(a) increases by 250 J
oo
L C R = 100 W
(b) decreases by 250 J
(c) increases by 50 J V1 V2 V3
Eb
(d) decreases by 50 J A
30. As intensity of incident light increases ~
(a) photoelectric current increase
e
220 V, 50 Hz
(b) K.E. of emitted photoelectron increases
or
(c) photo electric current decreases (a) 150 V and 2.2 A

(d) K.E. of emitted photoelectrons decreases (b) 220 V and 2.2 A
M
31. A block of mass 60 kg just slides over a horizontal (c) 220 V and 2.0 A
distance of 0.9 m. If the coefficient of friction (d) 100 V and 2.0 A
between their surface is 0.15 then work done 36. The photoelectric work function for a metal
against friction will be surface is 4.125 eV. The cut-off wavelength for
(a) 79.4 J (b) 97.54 J this surface is
(c) 105.25 J (d) None of these (a) 4125 Aº (b) 3000 Aº
32. A projectile is projected at an angle of 45º with (c) 6000 Aº (d) 2062 Aº
speed u. The radius of curvature of its trajectory 37. Which is true of the following in a purely resistive
at the maximum height is ac circuit?
Mock Test -5 MT-71
(a) The current leads the driving voltage (b) B for electromagnets and transformers.
(b) The driving voltage leads the current. (c) A for electric generators and trasformers.
(c) The current and driving voltage are in the (d) A for electromagnets and B for electric
same phase. generators.
(d) Any of the above may be true depending 43. A ray of monochromatic light suffers minimum
on the value of resistance deviation of 38º, while passing through a prism
38. The position x of a particle at time t is given by of refracting angle 60º. Refractive index of the
prism material is
x=
V0
(1 - e-at ) , where V0 is constant and (a) 2.4 (b) 0.8 (c) 1.3 (d)1.5
a 44. Two resistors A and B have resistances RA and
a > 0. The dimensions of V0 and a are RB respectively with RA < RB. The resistivities
(a) M0 L T–1 and T–1 of their materials are rA and rB. Then
(b) M0 L T0 and T–1 (a) rA > rB
(c) M0 L T–1 and L T–2
s
(b) rA = rB
(d) M0 L T–1 and T
ok
(c) rA < rB
39. A soap bubble has radius r and volume V. If the (d) The information is not sufficient to find the
excess pressure inside the bubble is P. Then PV
bo
relation between rA and rB
is proportional to 45. The escape velocity for a body projected
_e
(a) r (b) r2 vertically upwards from the surface of earth is
11 km/s. If the body is projected at an angle of 45º
(c) r 3 (d) r 4 Ajwith the vertical, the escape velocity will be
40. A particle executes S.H.M. having time period T,
then the time period with which the potential (a) 22 km/s (b) 11 km/s
@
energy changes is 11
(a) T (b) 2 T (c) km/s (d) 11 2 km/s
2
At
(c) T/2 (d) ¥

41. If red light and violet light rays are of focal
CHEMISTRY
ks
lengths FR and FV respectively, then which

one of the following is true ? 46. Which of the following statements is incorrect
oo
(a) l R £ l V (b) m R > m V regarding dehydrohalogenation of alkenes ?

(a) During the reaction hydrogen atom is
Eb
(c) m R = m V (d) m R < m V eliminated from the b - carbon atom.

42. Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials A (b) Rate of reaction for same alkyl group;
and B are given below : Iodine > Bromine > Chlorine
e
B B (c) Rate of reaction; (CH3)3C – > (CH3)2CH – >

or
CH3CH2 –
(d) Only nature of halogen atom determine rate
M
H H
of the reaction.
47. Which of the following pairs of compounds
are positional isomers ?
(A) (B)
. (a) CH3 – CH 2 –CH 2 –C–CH3
These materials are used to make magnets for ||
elecric generators, transformer core and O
electromagnet core. Then it is proper to use :
(a) A for transformers and B for electric and CH3 – CH 2 – C– CH 2 – CH3
generators. ||
O
EBD_7205
MT-72 NEET
(b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH 2 – CHO (a) 0.8 × 10–5 (b) 1.79 × 10–5
(c) 0.182 × 10 –5 (d) none of the above
O 51. An organic compound X (molecular formula
||
C6H7O2N) has six carbon atoms in a ring system,
and CH3 – CH 2 –CH 2 – C– CH3
two double bonds an d a nitro group as
(c) CH3 – CH 2 –CH 2 – C –CH 3 substituent, X is
|| (a) Homocyclic but not aromatic
O (b) Aromatic but not homocyclic
(c) Homocyclic and aromatic
and CH3 – CH–CH 2 – CHO
(d) Heterocyclic and aromatic
|
CH3 52. In which of the following regions hydrogen and
helium are found
(d) CH3 – CH 2 – C –CH 2 – CH3 (a) Stratosphere (b) Mesosphere
s
|| (c) Exosphere (d) Troposphere
ok
O 53. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
CH3 correct?
bo
and CH – CH 2 –CHO (i) The atomic and ionic radii of alkaline
CH3 earth metals are smaller than those of the
_e
48. Which one of the following complexes will corresponding alkali metals in the same periods.
consume more equivalents of aqueous solution (ii) Second ionisation enthalpies of the alkaline
of AgNO3? Aj earth metals are smaller than those of the
(a) Na2[CrCl5(H2O)] corresponding alkali metals.
@
(b) Na3[CrCl6] (iii) Compounds of alkaline earth metals are
(c) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 more extensively hydrated than those of alkali
(d) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 metals
At
49. Match the columns (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
Column-I Column-II (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
ks
R 54. The chemical system that is non-aromatic is

(A) C = NH (p) Oxime
oo
R (a) (b)
R
Eb
(B) C = NOH (q) Semicarbazone +

R
R –
e
(c) (d) +
(C) C = N – NH2 (r) Imine
or
R 55. Among the following compounds (I - III), the

M
O
R ease of their reaction with electrophiles is,
(D) C = N – NH – C – NH 2 (s) Hydrazone
R OCH3 NO2
(a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
(b) A – (r), B – (p), C– (s), D– (q)
(c) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D– (q)
(d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D– (p) I II III
50. If 0.1 M of a weak acid is taken, and its percentage
of degree of ionization is 1.34%, then its (a) II > III > I (b) III > II > I
ionization constant will be : (c) II > I > III (d) I > II > III
Mock Test -5 MT-73
56. Haemoglobin contains 0.334% of iron by weight. 63. The r.m.s velocity of hydrogen is 7 times the
The molecular weight of haemoglobin is r.m.s velocity of nitrogen. If T is the temperature
approximately 67200. The number of iron atoms of the gas , then
(at. wt. of Fe is 56) present in one molecule of
haemoglobin are (a) T(H2 ) = T(N2 ) (b) T(H2 ) > T(N 2 )
(a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2 (c) T(H2 ) < T(N 2 ) (d) T(H 2 ) = 7T( N 2 )
57. The cation that will not be precipitated by H2S 64. The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3+, Eu3+
in the presence of dil. HCl is : and Lu3+ is
(a) Pb2+ (b) Cu2+ (a) Y3+< La3+ < Eu3+< Lu3+
(c) Co2+ (d) As 3+ (b) Lu3+< Eu3+ < La3+< Y3+
58. The correct order of thermal stability of (c) La3+< Eu3+ < Lu3+< Y3+
hydroxides is: (d) Y3+< Lu3+ < Eu3+< La3 +
(a) Ba(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 65. The pKa of an amino acid is 9.15. At what pH
s
(b) Mg(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 amino acid is 5% dissociated ?
ok
(c) Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 (a) 9.15 (b) 4.85
(d) Ba(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 (c) 9.44 (d) 7.87
bo
59. AB; crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice 66. In the froth floatation process for the purification
with edge length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. The of ores, the ore particles float because
_e
distance between two oppositely charged ions (a) They are light
in the lattice is : Aj (b) Their surface is hydrophobic i.e. not easily
(a) 335 pm (b) 250 pm wetted by water
(c) 200 pm (d) 300 pm (c) They bear electrostatic charge
@
60. The reagent (s) which can be used to distinguish (d) They are insoluble
acetophenone from benzophenone is (are) 67. T50 of first -order reaction is 10 min. Starting
At
(a) 2,4- Dinitrophenylhydrazine with 10 mol L–1, rate after 20 min is

(b) Aqueous solution of NaHSO3 (a) 0.0693 mol L–1 min–1
ks
(c) Benedict reagent (b) 0.0693 × 2.5 mol L–1 min–1

(d) I2and NaOH. (c) 0.0693 × 5 mol L–2 min–1
oo
61. For the cell (d) 0.0693 × 10 mol L–1 min–1

68. Which of the following organometallic
Zn Zn 2 + (1M) || Cu 2+ (1M) Cu, E°cell is 1.10 V,,
Eb
compound is s and p bonded?

E° = 0.34 V and for the cell Cu | Cu2+ (1M) (a) [Fe (h5 – C5H5)2]
Cu 2+ /Cu (b) Fe (CH3)3
e
|| Ag+ (1M) | Ag, E°cell = 0.46 V hence, E°cell of (c) K [PtCl3(h2 – C2H4)]
or
(d) [Co(CO)5 NH3]2+

the cell Zn | Zn 2 + (1M) || Ag + (1M) | Ag is 69. Which of the following statement is false ?
M
(a) – 0.04 V (b) + 0.04 V (a) For 1 mole of an ideal gas, Cp – Cv = R

(c) + 0.30 V (d) + 1.56 V æ ¶E ö
62. Among the following complexes, optical activity (b) ç ÷ = 0 for an ideal gas
is possible in è ¶T ø T
(a) [Co( NH3 ) 6 ]3+ (c) Dq = Dw + PDV

(b) [ Co ( H 2 O ) 2 ( NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ] + (d) For reversible isothermal expansion of 1 mole
of an ideal gas from volume V1 to V2, work
(c) [Cr(H 2 O) 2 Cl2 ]+ done is equal to RT ln (V2/V1)
(d) [ Co ( CN ) 5 NC]
EBD_7205
MT-74 NEET
70. The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii 76. Which of the following statements(s) is/are
among the following isoelectronic species are : incorrect?
(a) Ca 2+ > K + > S2– > Cl – (i) Only 1/8th portion of an atom located at
(b) Cl – > S2- > Ca 2 + > K + corner of a cubic unit cell is its
(c) S2– > Cl – > K + > Ca 2+ neighbouring unit cell.
(ii) Total number of atoms per unit cell for a
(d) K + > Ca 2+ > Cl – > S 2–
71. A compound A with molecular formula C10H13Cl face centered cubic unit cell is 3 .
gives a white precipitate on adding silver nitrate (iii) Atom located at the body center is shared
solution. A on reacting with alcoholic KOH gives between two adjacent unit cells.
compound B as the main product. B on (a) (iii) only (b) (ii) only
ozonolysis gives C and D. C gives Cannizzaro (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
reaction but not aldol condensation. D gives 77. Equivalent conductance of an electrolyte
aldol condensation but not Cannizzaro reaction. containing NaF at infinite dilution is
s
A is : 90.1 Ohm–1cm2. If NaF is replaced by KF what is
ok
(a) C6H5 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl the value of equivalent conductance?
(b) C 6 H 5 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH - CH3 (a) 90.1 Ohm–1cm2 (b) 111.2 Ohm–1cm2
bo
| (c) 0 (d) 222.4 Ohm–1cm2
Cl 78. The enthalpy of combustion of C6H6 is –3250 kJ,
_e
CH3 when 0.39 gm of C6H6 is burnt in excess of
(c) C6H5–CH2–C oxygen in an open vessel, the amount of heat
CH3 Aj evolved is
(a) 8.32 kJ (b) 12.36 kJ
Cl
@
(c) 16.25 kJ (d) 20.74 kJ
CH2 – CH2 – CH3
79. In which of the following is there a consistent
At
CH2 – Cl decrease in atomic radius as the atomic number

(d) increases?
(a) halogens
ks
72. SnO2 is taken in basic medium and current is (b) representative elements
passed. Colloidal sol migrates towards (c) transition elements
oo
(a) anode (+ plate) (b) cathode (– plate) (d) lanthanides

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these 80. The basicity of aniline is less than that of
Eb
73. 0.45 g of acid of molecular weight 90 was cyclohexylamine. This is due to

neutralized by 20 ml. of a 0.5N caustic potash. (a) + R effect of —NH2 group
The basicity of an acid is (b) – I effect of —NH2 group
e
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) – R effect of —NH2 group

or
(c) 3 (d) 4 (d) hyperconjugation effect

M
74. Which of the following is a broad spectrum drug? 81. Given

(a) Plasmoquine (b) Chloroquine Fe3+ (aq) + e– ® Fe2+ (aq); Eo = + 0.77 V
(c) Chloramphenicol (d) D.D.T. Al3+ (aq) + 3e– ® Al(s); Eo = – 1.66 V
75. A compound on treatment with NaOH followed Br2(aq) + 2e– ® 2Br–; Eo = + 1.09 V
by addition of Ag NO 3 produces white Considering the electrode potentials, which of
precipitate at room temperature. The precipitate the following represents the correct order of
is soluble in NH4OH. The compound is identified reducing power?
as (a) Fe2+ < Al < Br – (b) Br– < Fe2+ < Al
(a) vinyl chloride (b) benzyl chloride –
(c) Al < Br < Fe 2+ (d) Al < Fe2+ < Br–
(c) chlorobenzene (d) ethyl bromide
Mock Test -5 MT-75
82. Mac Arthur process is used for the extraction 88. Elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 19, 37
of: and 55 respectively. Which of the following
(a) Au (b) Pt statements is true about them ?
(c) Cu (d) Zn (a) Their ionization potential would increase
83. H3BO2 is with increasing atomic number
(a) monobasic and weak Lewis acid (b) ‘Y’ would have an ionisation potential
(b) monobasic and weak Bronsted acid between those of ‘X’ and ‘Z’
(c) monobasic and strong Lewis acid (c) ‘Z’ would have the highest ionization
(d) tribasic and weak Bronsted acid potential
84. The following equilibrium constants are given: (d) ‘Y’ would have the highest ionization
2NH3 ; K1
N 2 + 3H 2 potential.
2NO; K 2 89. MnO42– (1 mole) in neutral aqueous medium
N2 + O2
disproportionates to
1
s
H2 + O2 H 2O; K2 (a) 2/3 mole of MnO4– and 1/3 mole of MnO2
ok
2 (b) 1/3 mole of MnO4– and 2/3 mole of MnO2
The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of (c) 1/3 mole of Mn2O7 and 1/3 mole of MnO2
bo
NH3 by oxygen to give NO is (d) 2/3 mole of Mn2O7 and 1/3 mole of MnO2
K 2 K32 K 22 K3 90. Formation of a solution from two components
(a) (b)
_e
can be considered as
K1 K1
(i) pure solvent ® separated solvent
K1 K 2 K 2 K33 Aj molecules, DH1
(b) (d) (ii) pure solute ® separated solute molecules,
K3 K1
@
DH2
85. The ortho/para directing group among the (iii) separated solvent and solute molecules
following is :
® solution, DH3
At
(a) COOH (b) CN Solution so formed will be ideal if

(c) COCH3 (d) NHCONH2
86. Benzoic acid gives benzene on being heated with (a) DH so ln = DH1 + DH 2 - DH 3
ks
X and phenol gives benzene on being heated (b) DH so ln = DH1 - DH 2 - DH 3

oo
with Y. Therefore X and Y are respectively

(a) Soda-lime and copper (c) DH so ln = DH 3 - DH1 - DH 2
(b) Zn dust and NaOH
Eb
(d) DH so ln = DH1 + DH 2 + DH 3
(c) Zn dust and soda-lime
(d) Soda-lime and zinc dust.
87. The enthalpies of the following reactions are BIOLOGY
e
shown below.
or
1 1 91. Botanical name of banana is

H2(g) + O2(g) ® OH(g) ;
M
(a) Musa paradisica

2 2 (b) Phaseolus vulgaris
DH = 42.09 kJ mol–1 (c) Ricinus communis
H2(g) ® 2H(g) ; DH = 435.89 kJ mol–1 (d) Ananas sativus
O2(g) ® 2O(g) ; DH = 495.05 kJ mol–1 92. Which meristem helps in increasing girth?
Calculate the O –– H bond energy for the (a) Lateral meristem
hydroxyl radical. (b) Intercalary meristem
(a) 223.18 kJ mol–1 (b) 423.38 kJ mol–1 (c) Primary meristem
(c) 513.28 kJ mol –1 (d) 113.38 kJ mol–1 (d) Apical meristem
EBD_7205
MT-76 NEET
93. A human bone marrow cell, in prophase of 100. Which one of the following statements is correct
mitosis, contains 46 chromosomes. How many for secondary succession ?
chromatids does it contain altogether? (a) It begins on a bare rock
(b) It occurs on a deforested site
(a) 46 (b) 92 (c) It follows primary succession
(c) 23 (d) 23 or 46 (d) It is similar to primary succession except
94. In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction occurs that it has a relatively fast pace
by 101. Identified A, B, C and D.
(a) isogamy and anisogamy
(b) isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
(c) oogamy only
(d) anisogamy and oogamy
95. Ulothrix can be described as a
s
(a) membranous algae producing zoospores
ok
(b) non-motile colonial algae lacking zoospores
(c) filamentous algae lacking flagellated (a) A – Mesocarp; B – Endocarp; C – Seed;
bo
reproductive stages D – Thalamus
(d) filamentous algae with flagellated (b) A – Seed; B – Thalamus; C – Mesocarp;
reproductive stages D – Endocarp
_e
96. According to Danielli and Davson, th e (c) A – Thalamus; B – Seed; C – Endocarp;
phospholipid bilayer is covered on either side Aj D – Mesocarp
by (d) A – Mesocarp; B – Endocarp; C – Seed;
D – Thalamus
@
(i) Hydrated globular proteins
(ii) a-globular proteins 102. Gloriosa superba is a good example of one of
(iii) b-globular proteins the following :
At
(iv) Only spectrin protein with sialic acid (a) Heterostyly (b) Cleistogamy
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct (c) Self sterility (d) Herkogamy
ks
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct 103. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct water
oo
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct (a) has no relationship with concentration of
97. Which one of the following animals is correctly oxygen in the water.
(b) gives a measure of Salmonella in the water.
Eb
matched with its particular named taxonomic

category ? (c) increases when sewage gets mixed with
(a) Tiger - tigris, the species river water.
e
(b) Cuttle fish - mollusca, a class (d) remains unchanged when algal bloom
occurs.
or
(c) Humans - primata, the family

(d) Housefly - musca, an order 104. A bract can be differentiated from bracteole by
M
98. The endosperm of gymnosperm is its :

(a) triploid (b) haploid (a) Size (b) Position
(c) diploid (d) polyploid (c) Function (d) Colour
99. When funiculum, chalaza, and micropyle lie in 105. The parenchyma tissue which forms the bulk of
one straight line then ovule is called – ovule where the sporogenous tissue is produced
(a) Amphitropous is –
(b) Orthotropous (a) Megaspore mother cell
(c) Campylotropous (b) Nucellus
(d) Anatropous (c) Ovule
(d) Embryo sac
Mock Test -5 MT-77
106. ‘Hunger signs’ in plants are : (a) water leaves the cell
(a) Symptoms due to lesser water absorption (b) water enters the cell
in plants (c) no exchange of water takes place
(b) Sympotms due to poor photosynthesis in (d) solute goes from cell into water
plants 113. The figure given below shows the conversion
(c) Deficiency symptoms of particular mineral of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In
nutrients which one of the four options (a-d) the
(d) None of the above components or reaction labelled as A, B, C and
107. Movement of ions or molecules in a direction D are identified correctly?
opposite to that of prevailing electrochemical A
gradient is known as
(a) diffusion C
(b) active transport B D
s
(c) pinocytosis Substrate
ok
(d) brownian movement
Product
108. Which one is the correct summary equation of
bo
photosynthesis? Progress of Reaction
(a) C6H12O6 + 6O2 ¾¾ ® (a) A –Potential energy, B –Transition state,
_e
6CO2 + 6H2O + energy C –Activation energy with enzyme,
(b) C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O ¾¾ ® D –Activation energy without enzyme
6CO2 + 12H2O + energy Aj(b) A –Transition state, B –Potential energy,
(c) 6CO2 + 6H2O ¾¾ ® 6H2O + C6H12O6 C –Activation energy without enzyme,
@
Light D –Activation energy with enzyme
(d) 6CO2 + 12H2O ¾¾¾¾¾
Chlorophyll
®
(c) A –Potential energy, B –Transition state,
At
6O2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O C –Activation energy with enzyme,

109. Which one is a long day plant? D –Activation energy with enzyme
ks
(a) Tobacco (b) Glycine max (d) A –Activation energy with enzyme,
(c) Mirabilis jalapa (d) Spinach B –Transition state, C –Activation energy
oo
110. Which of the following is used as antitranspirant? without enzyme, D –Potential energy
114. Which of the following statements about
(a) Calcium carbonate
Eb
Rhizobium legume nodule formation is not true ?

(b) Phenyl mercuric acetate (a) Rhizobium can only fix nitrogen after it be-
(c) Cobalt chloride comes a bacteroid within a root cortex cell.
e
(d) Naphthol acetic acid (b) Rhizobium induces invagination of root

or
111. Which of the following statements concerning hairs.

rubisco are true. (c) Within an infection thread, Rhizobium is still
M
(a) Rubisco is an enzyme extracellular to the plant.

(b) Rubisco catalyzes both the beginning steps (d) The infection thread can fuse with any root
of photorespiration and the Calvin-Benson cell of an appropriate legume species.
cycle. 115. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(c) Rubisco is the most abundant protein on (a) C3 plants respond to higher temperature,
earth show higher photosynthetic rate while C4
(d) All of the above plants have lower optimum temperature.
112. Turgor pressure become equal to the wall (b) Tropical plants have higher temperature
pressure when optimum than the plants adapted to
temperate climate.
EBD_7205
MT-78 NEET
(c) Light reaction is less temperature sensitive 123. A functional piece of mRNA has 66 codons. What
than dark reaction. is the maximum number of amino acids that could
(d) The effect of water as a factor is more be present in the protein coded for by this
through its effect on plant, rather than mRNA?
directly on photosynthesis. (a) 22 (b) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66
116. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by 124. What is the optimum pH for growth in most
(a) X-ray crystallography bacteria?
(b) electron microscope (a) 2.5 - 3.5 (b) 3.5 - 4.5
(c) ultracentrifuge (c) 4.5 - 5.5 (d) 6.5. - 7.5
(d) light microscope 125. The following diagram is the polynucleotide
117. Genetic map is one that chain. Identify A, B, C, D and E.
(a) shows the distribution of various species
in a region
s
(b) establish es sites of the genes on a
ok
chromosome
(c) establishes the various stages in gene
bo
evolution
(d) show the stages during the cell division
_e
118. DNA template sequence of CTGATAGC is
transcribed over mRNA as
(a) GUCTUTCG (b) GACUAUCG Aj
(c) GAUTATUG (d) UACTATCU
@
119. Humus is essential for plant growth because:
(a) it is rich in nutrients and increases the water (a) A – Hydrogen bonds, B – Pyrimidine,
At
holding capacity of soil C – Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar, D – 5'

(b) it increases aeration of soil end, E – Purine base.
(c) it increases porocity of soil
ks
(b) A – Hydrogen bonds, B – Purine base,

(d) All of the above C – Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar, D – 5'
120. Which one of the following pesticides is banned
oo
end, E – Pyrimidine.
now a-days? (c) A – Hydrogen bonds, B – Pyrimidine,
(a) DDT (b) Eldrin
Eb
C – Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar, D – 5'

(c) Aldrin (d) Toxaphene end, E – Purine base
121. Ozone hole means (d) A – Hydrogen bonds, B – Purine base,
(a) hole in the ozone layer in stratosphere.
e
C – Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar, D – 5'

(b) decrease in the thickness of ozone in the
or
end, E – Pyrimidine
stratosphere. 126. Waves of muscle contractions that move the
M
(c) decrease in concentration of ozone in intestinal content are :

trophosphere. (a) caused by contraction of skeletal muscle.
(d) increase in the concentration of ozone in (b) regulated by liver secretions.
trophosphere. (c) called peristalsis.
122. The new varieties of plants are produced by (d) voluntary.
(a) selection and hybridization 127. The method that renders the seed coat permeable
(b) mutation and selection to water so that embryo expansion is not
(c) introduction and mutation physically retarded is
(d) selection and introduction (a) vernalization (b) stratification
(c) denudation (d) scarification
Mock Test -5 MT-79
128. In Kreb’s cycle, the FAD precipitates as electron 134. The figure below is the diagrammatic
acceptor during the conversion of representation of the E.Coli vector pBR 322.
(a) succinyl CoA to succinic acid Which one of the given options correctly
(b) a - ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA identifies its certain component (s) ?
(c) fumaric acid to malic acid
(d) succinic acid to fumaric acid
129. In the DNA molecule :
(a) there are two strands which run antiparallel-
one in 5¢ ® 3¢ direction and other in 3¢ ®
5¢ direction.
(b) the total amount of purine nucleotides and
pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal.
(c) there are two strands which run parallel in
the 5¢ ® 3¢ direction.
s
ok
(d) the proportion of Adenine in relation to
thymine varies with the organism.
bo
130. Dormant lettuce seeds were exposed to the
following succession of brief periods of red light
(R) and far-red light (FR) light : FR-R-FR-R-FR- (a) ori - original restriction enzyme
_e
R-FR. Which of the following is most likely to (b) rop-reduced osmotic pressure
occur ? Aj(c) Hind III, EcoRI - selectable markers
(a) Most of the seeds will germinate (d) ampR, tetR - antibiotic resistance genes
135. Which one of the following option is correct for
@
(b) Most of the seeds will not germinate
(c) About one-half will germinate A, B, C and D?
Vector
(d) The seeds will germinate but development
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Foreign DNA DNA

will cease unless the epicotyl is exposed to red (plasmid)
light. A B
ks
131. Which of the following would generally be

considered the healthiest habitat? join foreign
DNA to plasmid
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(a) A sink habitat populated by many endemic

C
species
Eb
(b) A source habitat populated by many

endemic species
(c) A sink habitat populated by many exotic D
e
species E.coli
(d) A source habitat populated by many exotic
or
Cells
species Divide
M
132. Which one of the following help in absorption

of phosphorus from soil by plants? (a) A – Exonuclease, B – Endonuclease,
(a) Glomus (b) Rhizobium C – DNA ligase, D – Transformation
(c) Frankia (d) Anabaena (b) A – Exonuclease, B – Exonuclease,
133. The area where wild populations, traditional life C – DNA ligase, D – Transformation
styles and genetic resources are protected is : (c) A – Exonuclease, B – Endonuclease,
(a) Core Zone C – Hydrolase, D – Transduction
(b) Buffer Zone (d) A – Restriction endonuclease,
(c) Biosphere reserve B – Restriction endonuclease, C – DNA
(d) Manipulation Zone ligase, D – transformation
EBD_7205
MT-80 NEET
136. Slime moulds in the division myxomycota (true (a) Intersex (b) Hermaphrodite
slime moulds) have (c) Bisexual (d) Gynandromorph
(a) pseudoplasmodia. 144. Amniocentesis is a technique
(b) spores that develop into free living (a) by which the essential amino acids in the
amoeboid cells. body can be estimated
(c) spores that develop into flagellated (b) by which any chromosomal anomalies in
gametes. the foetus can be detected
(d) feeding stages consisting of solitary (c) in which the sex of the foetus can be
individual cells. reversed
137. Approximate prothrombin time in a normal (d) that can be used for correcting genetic
individual is disorders of the foetus
(a) 2 - 5 minutes (b) 6-8 minutes
145. The diagram shows an antibody molecule.
(c) 11-16 seconds (d) 1-2 minutes
s
Identify A to F.
ok
138. Tapeworms have all of the following
characteristics except ?
bo
(a) scolex A
(b) unsegmented neck
(c) digestive tract
_e
B
(d) proglottids
139. Anaemia due to failure of maturation of RBC is Aj D- chain
(a) Von Kluger’s disease C
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(b) microcytic anaemia
(c) normocytic anaemia
(d) pernicious anaemia
At
F E- chain
140. A vein possesses a large lumen because Bond/Bridge
(a) Tunica media and tunica externa form a
ks
single coat
(b) Tunica media and tunica interna form a (a) A - Antigen binding site; B - Variable region
oo
single coat (of L-Chain ); C - Con stan t region

(c) Tunica interna, tunica media and tunica (of L-Chain); D - Light polypeptide chain
Eb
externa are thin (L-Chain); E - Heavy polypeptide chain

(d) Tunica media is a thin coat (H-Chain); F - Disulfide (bond)
141. Which one of the following is NOT a (b) A - Antigen binding site; B - Constant region
e
characteristic of phylum Annelida? (of L-Chain ); C - Variable region

or
(a) Closed circulatory system (of L-Chain); D - Light polypeptide chain

(b) Segmentation (L-Chain); E - Heavy polypeptide chain
M
(c) Pseudocoelom (H-Chain); F - Disulfide (bond)

(d) Ventral nerve cord (c) A- Antigen binding site; B - Variable region
142. Fish which can be used in biological control of (of L-Chain ); C - Con stan t region
mosquitoes/Larvicidal fish is (of L-Chain); D - Heavy polypeptide chain
(a) Eel (b) Carp (L-Chain); E - Light polypeptide chain
(c) Cat Fish (d) Gambusia (H-Chain); F - Hydrogen (bond)
143. A person which shows the secondary sexual (d) A - Antigen binding site; B - Variable region
characters of both male and female is called – (of L-Chain ); C - Con stan t region
Mock Test -5 MT-81
(of L-Chain); D - Light polypeptide chain (c) hypercholesterolemia

(L-Chain); E - Heavy polypeptide chain (d) urine laden with ketone bodies
(H-Chain); F - Hydrogen (bond) 154. A person who is one along hunger strike and is
146. The copper ions of IUDs surviving only on water, will have
(a) Suppress the motility and fertilization (a) less amino acids in his urine
capacity of sperms (b) more glucose in his blood
(b) Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation (c) less urea in his urine
(c) Increase phagocytosis of sperms (d) more sodium in his urine
(d) Make cervix hostile to sperms 155. Haemoglobin is having maximum affinity with:
147. The transfer of zygote or early embryo (up to 8 (a) NH3 (b) O2
blastomere) into fallopian tube is (c) CO2 (d) CO
(a) IVF and ET (b) ZIFT 156. Rhythmic stretching of the arteries caused by
s
(c) GIFT (d) IUT heart contractions is called
ok
148. The embryonic membrane involved in the (a) hypertension. (b) heart murmur.
formation of placenta in human is (c) hemophilia. (d) the pulse.
bo
(a) yolk sac (b) allantois 157. Which region of the kidney nephron is the
(c) amnion (d) chorion main site of amino acid reabsorption?
_e
149. Identical twins are produced when (a) glomerulus
(a) One fertilized egg divides and two Aj (b) Bowman’s capsule
blastomeres separate (c) proximal convoluted tubule
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(b) One sperm fertilizes two eggs (d) distal convoluted tubule
(c) One egg is fertilized with two sperms 158. Both cri du chat syndrome and Down’s syn-
(d) Two eggs are fertilized drome
At
150. Which of the following induces parturition ? (a) are X-linked recessive genetic disorders.
(a) Vasopressin (b) result from inherited chromosomal abnor-
ks
(b) Oxytocin malities.

(c) result from the loss of one entire chromo-
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(c) Growth hormone

(d) Thyroid stimulating hormone some.
(d) result from the gain of one entire chromo-
Eb
151. Jaundice is a disorder of

(a) Excretory system some.
(b) Skin and eyes 159. In live stock breeding experiments the following
e
(c) Digestive system stage is transferred to surrogate mothers

or
(d) Circulatory system (a) Unfertilized eggs

152. Child death may occur in the marriage between (b) Fertilized eggs
M
(a) Rh+ man and Rh + woman (c) 8 to 32 celled embryo

(b) Rh+ man and Rh – woman (d) Frozen semen
(c) Rh– man and Rh – woman 160. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all
(d) Rh– man and Rh + woman vertebrates, supports the theory of
153. Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter, (a) biogenesis
red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to (b) recapitulation
(a) vitamin A toxicity (c) metamorphosis
(b) kidney stones (d) organic evolution
EBD_7205
MT-82 NEET
161. Which of the following has been recently used (d) A = Natality + Emigration, B = Mortality +
for increasing productivity of super milk cows? Immigration
(a) Artificial insemination by a pedigreed bull 166. Two of the body parts which do not appear in
only MRI may be
(b) Superovulation of a high production cow (a) molar teeth and eye lens
only
(b) scapula and canines
(c) Embryo transplantation only
(c) ligaments and ribs
(d) A combination of superovulation, artificial
insemination and embryo transplantation (d) tendons and premolars
into a ‘carrier cow’ (surrogate mother) 167. Hormones generally cause a response in a cell
162. The change of the light-coloured variety of by
peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker (a) interacting directly with the cell’s DNA.
s
(b) binding with a receptor and stimulating
variety (Biston carbonaria) is due to
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protein production.
(a) mutation
(c) changing the polarity of the cell membrane
(b) regeneration
bo
and causing a cascade of events within the
(c) genetic isolation cell.
_e
(d) temporal isolation (d) halting all other cellular activity except the
163. A person with the sex chromosomes XXY suffers required response
from Aj
168. The largest quantity of air that can be expired
(a) Down’s syndrome after a maximal inspiratory effort is called
@
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome (a) residual volume (b) tidal volume
(c) Turner’s syndrome (c) vital capacity (d) total lung volume
At
(d) Gynandromorphism 169. The black pigment in the eye which reduces the
164. There is no life on moon due to the absence of
internal reflection is located in
ks
(a) O2 (b) water

(a) retina (b) iris
(c) light (d) temperature
oo
(c) cornea (d) sclerotic

165. The density of a population in a given habitat
during a given period, fluctuates due to changes 170. Which one of the following does NOT change
Eb
in four basic process. On this basis fill up A and in length when a muscle fibre contracts?
B boxes in the given diagram with correct options (a) I band (b) H zone
(c) A band (d) Sarcomere
e
171. Which of the following correctly describes the

or
role of myelin in the nervous system?

M
(a) Myelin insulates and speeds transmission

along dendrites.
(a) A = Natality + Immigration, B = Mortality + (b) Myelin insulates and speeds transmission
Emigration along axons.
(b) A = Natality + Mortality, B = Immigration + (c) Myelin slows down depolarization of an
Emigration axon.
(c) A = Birth rate + Death rate, B = Migration +
172. Following feedback relationship is seen between
Emigration three glands and their hormones.
Mock Test -5 MT-83
a(–) (c) Syphilis and AIDS

A B (d) Measles and Rabies
176. Electroporation procedure involves
c(–) b(+)
(a) fast passage of food through sieve pores
in phloem elements with the help of electric
stimulation.
(b) opening of stomatal pores during night by
C artificial light.
The secretion of ‘b’ is decreased by ‘a’, secretion (c) making transient pores in the cell membrane
of ‘c’ is increased by ‘b’ while the secretion of to introduce gene constructs.
‘a’ is decreased by ‘c’. Increased or decreased (d) purification of saline water with the help of
amounts of a hormone cause an increase or a membrane system.
s
decrease in the amount of the following hormone 177. Black water fever is a severe complication of
ok
in the system. Now if ‘a’ is added to the system, (a) Plasmodium falcifarum
the secretion of ‘c’ is
bo
(b) P. vivax
(a) decreased (c) P. malariae
(b) increased
_e
(d) All the above
(c) first decreased and then increased 178. Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons
(d) first increased and then decreased Aj are related to
173. Match the following (w.r.t. insert size) (a) eating fruits preserved in tin containers
@
A. Plasmid (i) 9 - 23 kb (b) inhalation of seasonal pollen
B. l phage (ii) 0.5 - 8 kb (c) low temperature
At
C. Cosmid (iii) 30 - 40 kb (d) hot and humid environment.

D. BCA (iv) 50 - 300 kb 179. For transformation, micro-particles coated with
ks
(a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made
(b) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) up of :
oo
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (a) Silver or Platinum

(d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv) (b) Platinum or Zinc
Eb
174. Which one of the following pairs is incorrect ? (c) Silicon or Platinum
(a) Plasmid - small piece of extrachromosomal (d) Gold or Tungsten
e
DNA in bacteria 180. Which one of the following statements is correct

or
(b) Interferon - an enzyme that interferes with with respect to AIDS?

DNA replication (a) The HIV can be transmitted through eating
M
(c) Cosmid - A vector for carrying large DNA food together with an infected person
fragments into host cells (b) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV
(d) Myeloma - antibody producing tumor cells. infection .
175. In which one of the following pairs of diseases (c) AIDS patients are being fully cured with
both are caused by viruses ? proper care and nutrition
(a) Tetanus and typhoid (d) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper
(b) Whooping cough and sleeping sickness T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers
EBD_7205
MT-84 NEET
6JEE MAIN
MOCK TEST
s
ok
bo
INSTRUCTIONS
_e
• Chemistry (180 marks) :

Aj
@
• One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect
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Negative Marking :
ks
oo
2
PHYSICS (a) 0 (b)
3
g
Eb
1. If the capacitance of a capacitor is measured in g

terms of a unit ‘u’ made by combining the electric (c) g (d)
charge ‘e’ Bohr radius ‘a0’ Planck’s constant ‘h’ 3
e
and speed of light ‘c’ then: 3. What will happen when a 40 watt, 220 volt lamp
or
and 100 watt, 220 volt lamp are connected in

e2 h hc series across 40 volt supply?
(b) u =
M
(a) u=
a0 2
e a0 (a) 100 watt lamp will fuse
(b) 40 watt lamp will fuse
e2c e2 a 0 (c) Both lamps will fuse
(c) u = (d) u = (d) Neither lamp will fuse
ha 0 hc
4. A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 20 kg for
2. A monkey is accelerating down a string whose 10 seconds. Change in its momentum is
breaking strength is two third of his weight. The (a) 5 kg m/s (b) 100 kg m/s
minimum acceleration of the monkey should be (c) 200 kg m/s (d) 1000 kg m/s
Mock Test -6 MT-85
5. Two waves whose intensities are 9 and 16 are 1

made to interfere. The ratio of maximum and (a) (b) w
minimum intensities in the interference pattern is w2
(a) 49 : 1 (b) 25 : 7 1
(c) 10 : 9 (d) 4 : 3 (c) a2 (d)
6. Weightlessness in satellite is due to a2
(a) zero gravitational acceleration 11. Let n p and n e be the number of holes and
(b) zero acceleration conduction electrons in an intrinsic semiconductor.
Then
(c) zero mass
(a) np > ne. (b) np = ne.
(d) None of these
7. Two holes of unequal diameter d1 and d2 (d1 > (c) np < ne. (d) np ¹ ne .
d2) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated 12. Which of the following option correctly
describes the variation of the speed v and
s
d2 acceleration 'a' of a point mass falling vertically
ok
in a viscous medium that applies a force F = –kv,
where 'k' is a constant, on the body? (Graphs are
bo
d1
schematic and not drawn to scale)
a v
_e
(a) Both d1 and d2 will decrease
(b) Both d1 and d2 will increase (a)
Aj (b)
v a
(c) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease t t
(d) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase
@
v
v
8. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of
side l is suspended between the pole pieces of a (c) (d)
At
r a a
permanent magnet such that B is in plane of the t t
coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque t 13. Two deuterons undergo nuclear fusion to form
ks
acts on it, the side l of the triangle is a Helium nucleus. Energy released in this process
is : (given binding energy per nucleon for
oo
1
2 æ t ö2 2æ t ö deuteron=1.1 MeV and for helium=7.0 MeV)
(a) ç ÷ (b) ç ÷ (a) 30.2 MeV (b) 32.4 MeV
Eb
3 è Bi ø 3 è Bi ø
(c) 23.6 MeV (d) 25.8 MeV
1 14. A gun is aimed at a horizontal target. It takes
æ t ö2 1 t 1
e
(c) 2çç ÷÷ (d) s for the bullet to reach the target. The bullet
3 Bi
or
è 3Bi ø 2
9. A fixed mass of gas at constant pressure hits the target x metre below the aim. Then, x is
M
occupies a volume V. The gas undergoes a rise equal to

in temperature so that the root mean square 9.8 9.8
velocity of its molecules is doubled. The new (a) m (b) m
4 8
volume will be (c) 9.8 m (d) 19.6 m.
(a) V/2 (b) V/ 2 15. The graph of an object’s motion (along the x-
(c) 2 V (d) 4 V axis) is shown in the figure. The instantaneous
10. Energy of simple harmonic motion depends velocity of the object at points A and B are vA
upon and vB respectively. Then
EBD_7205
MT-86 NEET
the screen, formed by monochromatic light of

x(m) wavelength 3l, will be
15 d d
(a) (b)
9Dl 27 D l
10 d d
(c) (d)
81 D l Dl
B 20. The minimum energy required to eject an
5 electron, from the metal surface is called
A (a) atomic energy (b) mechanical energy
Dx = 4 m (c) electrical energy (d) workfunction
Dt = 8
21. Three positive charges of equal value q are placed
s
0 at vertices of an equilateral triangle. The resulting
ok
10 20 t (s)
lines of force should be sketched as in
(a) vA = vB = 0.5 m/s
bo
(b) vA = 0.5 m/s < vB
(c) vA = 0.5 m/s > vB
_e
(d) vA = vB = 2 m/s (a) (b)
16. When the amount of work done is 300 J and
change in internal energy is 100 J, then the heat
Aj
supplied is
@
(a) 400 J (b) 350 J
(c) 200 J (d) 150 J (c) (d)
At
17. If the number of turns per unit length of a coil of

a solenoid is doubled, the self inductance of the
solenoid will 22. If microwaves, X rays, infrared, gamma rays,
ks
(a) remain unchanged ultra-violet, radio waves and visible parts of the
(b) be halved electromagnetic spectrum are denoted by M, X,
oo
(c) be doubled I, G, U, R and V then which of the following is

(d) become four times the arran gement in ascending order of
Eb
18. A bar magnet of length 6 cm has a magnetic wavelength ?

moment of 4 J T–1. Find the strength of magnetic (a) R, M, I, V, U, X and G
field at a distance of 200 cm from the centre of (b) M, R, V, X, U, G and I
e
the magnet along its equatorial line. (c) G, X, U, V, I, M and R

or
(a) 4 × 10–8 tesla (d) I, M, R, U, V, X and G

(b) 3.5 × 10–8 tesla 23. In an ideal gas at temperature T, the average force
M
(c) 5 × 10–8 tesla that a molecule applies on the walls of a closed

(d) 3 × 10–8 tesla container depends on T as Tq. A good estimate
19. In Young’s expt., the distance between two slits for q is:
d 1
is and the distance between the screen and (a) (b) 2
3 2
1 1
the slit is 3 D. The number of fringes in m on (c) 1 (d)
3 4
Mock Test -6 MT-87
24. A letter 'A' is constructed of a uniform wire with The value of the acceleration due to gravity on
resistance 1.0 W per cm, The sides of the letter the planet is (in ms– 2) given g = 9.8 m/s2
are 20 cm and the cross piece in the middle is 10 (a) 3.5 (b) 5.9
cm long. The apex angle is 60 . The resistance (c) 16.3 (d) 110.8
between the ends of the legs is close to: 31. The relation between B, H and I in S.I. units is
(a) 50.0 W (b) 10 W
(c) 36.7 W (d) 26.7 W (a) B = m0 (H + I) (b) B = H + 4 p I
25. A crane is used to lift 1000 kg of coal from a mine (c) H = m 0 (B + I) (d) None of these
100 m deep. The time taken by the crane is 1 32. If a current increases from zero to one ampere in
hour. The efficiency of the crane is 80%. If g = 10 0.1 second in a coil of 5 mH, then the magnitude
ms–2, then the power of the crane is of the induced e.m.f. will be
(a) 104 W (b) 105 W (a) 0.005 volt (b) 0.5 volt
10 4 105 (c) 0.05 volt (d) 5 volt
s
(c) W (d) W 33. Potentiometer measures potential more
ok
36 ´ 8 36 ´ 8
accurately because
26. A steel rod of radius R = 10 mm and length
(a) it measures potential in open circuit
bo
L= 100 cm is stretched along its length by a force
(b) it uses sensitive galvanometer for null
F = 6.28 × 104 N. If the Young’s modulus of steel
deflection
_e
is Y = 2 ×1011 N/m2, the percentage elongation
in the length of the rod is (c) it uses high resistance potentiometer wire
(a) 0.100 (b) 0.314 Aj (d) it measures potential in closed circuit
(c) 2.015 (d) 1.549 34. When the current in an ac circuit is wattless, the
phase difference between the applied voltage
@
27. The sky appears blue, because
(a) blue light is scattered the most and circuit current will be
(b) blue light is absorbed (a) 45° (b) 60°
At
(c) red light is absorbed (c) 90° (d) 180°

(d) it is its natural colour 35. A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a thread. It is
ks
28. Out of the following which one is not a possible (i) lifted with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2
energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen (ii) lowered with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2.
oo
atom according to Bohr’s atomic model? The ratio of the tension is

(a) 1.9 eV (b) 11.1 eV (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
Eb
(c) 13.6 eV (d) 0.65 eV (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1

29. A point object is 24 cm above the surface of
water ( µ = 4/3) in lake. A fish inside the water 36. In the electric network shown, when no
e
will observe the image to be at a point current flows through the 4W resistor in the
or
(a) 6 cm above the surface of water arm EB, the potential difference between the
(b) 6 cm below the surface of water
M
points A and D will be :

(c) 18 cm above the surface of water 2W
(d) 32 cm above the surface of water F E D
30. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth 2V
with a velocity of 5 ms–1 and angle q with the 4W
horizontal. Another projectile fired from another 2W R
planet with a velocity of 3 ms– 1 at the same 4V
angle follows a trajectory which is identical with
the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. A B 3V C
9V
EBD_7205
MT-88 NEET
(a) 6 V (b) 3 V the two spheres are equal. The electric potential
(c) 5 V (d) 4 V at the common centre is
37. If the momentum of a particle is doubled, then
its de-Broglie wavelength will become 1 ( R - r)Q
( )
(a)
(a) two times (b) four times 4pe 0 R2 + r 2
(c) unchanged (d) half times
38. A capillary tube is immersed vertically in water
and the height of the water column is x. When 1 (R + r) Q
(b)
this arrangement is taken into a mine of depth d,
the height of the water column is y. If R is the (
4pe 0 2 R 2 + r 2
)
x
radius of earth, the ratio is: 1 ( R + r) Q
y (c)
(
4pe0 R2 + r 2
)
s
æ dö æ 2d ö
(a) ç1 - ÷ (b) ç1 - ÷
ok
è Rø è Rø 1 (R - r) Q
( )
(d)
æ R -d ö æR+dö 4pe 0 2 R 2 + r 2
bo
(c) ç ÷ (d) ç ÷
èR+dø è R -d ø 43. The magnitude of the average electric field
_e
39. If ‘S’ is stress and ‘Y’ is young’s modulus of normally present in the atmosphere just above
material of a wire, the energy stored in the wire the surface of the Earth is about 150 N/C, directed
per unit volume is Aj inward towards the center of the Earth. This gives
the total net surface charge carried by the Earth
@
S2
(a) (b) 2S 2 Y to be:
2Y [Given eo = 8.85 × 10–12 C2/N-m2, RE = 6.37 × 106
At
2Y m]
S
(c) (d) (a) + 670 kC (b) – 670 kC
2Y S2 (c) – 680 kC (d) + 680 kC
ks
40. A Carnot engine is working between 127°C and 44. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving such that at
oo
27°C. The increase in efficiency will be maximum time t, its position, in meter, is given by
when the temperature of r
(a) the source is increased by 50°C r (t ) = 5iˆ - 2t 2 ˆj . The angular momentum of the
Eb
(b) the sink is decreased by 50°C particle at t = 2s about the origin in

(c) source is increased by 25°C and that of sink kg m–2 s–1 is :
e
is decreased by 25°C (a) - 80 k$ (b) (10iˆ - 16 ˆj )

or
(d) both source and sink are decreased by 25°C

each (c) -40k$ (d) 40k$
M
41. Current gain in common emitter configuration is 45. The tuning circuit of a radio receiver has a
more than 1 because resistance of 50 W, an inductance of 10 mH and
(a) Ic < Ib (b) Ic < Ie a variable capacitance C. A 1 MHz radio wave
(c) Ic > Ie (d) Ic > Ib produces a potential difference of 0.1 mV. The
42. A charge of total amount Q is distributed over value of capacitance to produce the resonance
two concentric hollow spheres of radii r and R will be
(R > r) such that the surface charge densities on (a) 2.5 pF (b) 5.0 pF
(c) 25 pF (d) 50 pF
Mock Test -6 MT-89
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.4

CHEMISTRY (c) 0.6 (d) 0.8
51. The correct order of increasing [H3O+] in the
46. Among the following pairs of ions, the lower following aqueous solutions is
oxidation state in aqueous solution is more (a) 0.01 M H2S < 0.01M H2SO4 < 0.01 M NaCl
stable than the other, in :
< 0.01M NaNO2
(a) Ti+, Ti3+ (b) Cu+ , Cu2+
2+ 3+ (b) 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M NaNO2 < 0.01 M H2S
(c) Cr , Cr (d) V2+, VO2+
47. The correct statement for the molecule, CsI3 is: < 0.01M H2SO4
(a) It is a covalent molecule. (c) 0.01 M NaNO2 < 0.01 M NaCl <0.01 M H2S
(b) It contains Cs+ and I3- ions. < 0.01 M H2SO4
(c) It contains Cs3+ and I– ions. (d) 0.01 M H2S < 0.01 M NaNO2 < 0.01 M NaCl
(d) It contains Cs+, I– and lattice I2 molecule. < 0.01 M H2SO4
s
48. The optically inactive compound from the 52. Pollution in large cities can be checked only by
ok
following is : (a) Shifting of factories out of the residential
(a) 2 - chloropropanal area
bo
(b) 2 - chlorobutane (b) Less use of insecticides
(c) 2 - chloropentane (c) Proper disposal of organic wastes, sewage
(d) 2 - chloro - 2- methylbutane
_e
and industrial effluents
49. Which of the following statements, about the (d) All the above
advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before Aj
53. All form ideal solution except
reduction is not true?
(a) C6H6 and C6H5 CH3
@
(a) The DG of of the sulphide is greater than (b) C2H6 and C2H5I
those for CS2 and H2S. (c) C6H5Cl and C6H5 Br
At
(d) C2H5 I and C2H5 OH.

(b) The DG of is negative for roasting of 54. Which of the following metal ions will form
sulphide ore to oxide.
ks
complexes with the same magnetic moment and

(c) Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is geometry irrespective of the nature of ligands?
thermodynamically feasible.
oo
(a) Ni2+ (b) Fe2+

(d) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing (c) Cu 2+ (d) Co2+
agents for metal sulphides.
Eb
55. A straight chain hydrocarbon has the molecular

æxö formula C8H10. The hybridization of the carbon
50. Graph between log ç ÷ and log p is a straight
èmø atoms from one end of the chain to the other are
e
line at angle 45° with intercept OA as shown. respectively sp3, sp2, sp2, sp3, sp2, sp and sp. The
or
Hence, æç x ö÷ at a pressure of 0.2 atm is structural formula of the hydrocarbon would be :

èmø (a) CH3C º CCH2 – CH = CHCH = CH2
M
(b) CH3CH2– CH = CHCH = CHC º CH

(c) CH3CH = CHCH2 – C º CCH = CH2
45° (d) CH3CH = CHCH2 – CH – CH – C º CH.
A 56. Enthalpy and entropy change for a chemical
x reaction are –2.5 × 103 cals and 7.4 cals deg–1
log
m 0.3010
respectively. At 25°C the reaction is
(a) Reversible (b) Irreversible
O log p (c) Spontaneous (d) Non spontaneous
EBD_7205
MT-90 NEET
57. Which of the following has correct increasing Column-I Column-II

basic strength ? (A) Aniline (i) Red colour with
(a) MgO < BeO < CaO < BaO FeCl3
(b) BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO (B) Benzene sulfonic (ii) Violet colour with
(c) BaO < CaO < MgO < BeO acid sodium
(d) CaO < BaO < BeO < MgO nitroprusside
58. One litre of 1 M CuSO4 solution is electrolysed. (C) Thiourea (iii) Blue colour with
After passing 2 F of electricity, molarity of CuSO4 hot and acidic
solution will be solution of FeSO4
(a) A - (ii); B - (iii) ; C - (i)
M M (b) A - (iii); B - (i) ; C - (ii)
(a) (b)
2 4 (c) A - (iii); B - (ii) ; C - (i)
(c) M (d) 0 (d) A - (ii); B - (i) ; C - (iii)
s
59. Which of the following is commercially known 64. A and B in the following reactions are
ok
as oxone ? OH
B R– C
(a) Na2O2 + HCl (b) Na2O + HCl R–C–R' HCN/ A
bo
(c) Na2O2 + Na2O (d) none of these KCN CH2NH2
O R'
60. Solid Ba(NO3)2 is gradually dissolved in a
_e
1.0 × 10 –4 M Na 2CO 3 solution. At which CN
concentration of Ba2+, precipitate of BaCO3 (a) A = RR'C , B = LiAlH4
begins to form ? (Ksp for BaCO3 = 5.1 × 10–9) Aj OH
(a) 5.1 × 10–5 M (b) 7.1 × 10–8 M OH
@
(c) 4.1 × 10–5 M (d) 8.1 × 10–7 M (b) A = RR'C , B = NH3
61. Which is not correct regarding the adsorption COOH
CN
At
of a gas on surface of solid?

(a) On increasing temperature, adsorption (c) A = RR'C , B = H 3O Å
increases contineuously OH
ks
(b) Enthalpy and entropy changes are –ve (d) A = RR'CH2CN, B = NaOH
(c) Adsorption is more for some specific 65. On adding 0.1 M solution each of [Ag+], [Ba2+],
oo
substance [Ca 2+] in a Na 2 SO 4 solution, species first

(d) This Phenomenon is reversible precipitated is
Eb
62. The unusual properties of water in th e [Ksp BaSO4 = 10–11, Ksp CaSO4 = 10–6,
condensed phase (liquid and solid states) are KspAg2SO4 = 10–5]
e
due to the
(a) Ag2SO4 (b) BaSO4
(a) presence of hydrogen and covalent
or
bonding between the water molecules (c) CaSO4 (d) All of these
66. Which one of the following statements
M
(b) presence of covalent bonding between the

water molecules concerning lanthanide elements is false?
(c) presence of extensive hydrogen bonding (a) Lanthanides are separated from one another
between water molecules by ion exchange method
(d) presence of ionic bonding (b) The ionic radii of trivalent lanthanides
63. Match the organic compounds in column-I steadily increase with increase in atomic
number
with the Lassaigne’s test results in column-II
(c) All lanthanides are highly dense metals
appropriately :
(d) Most characteristic oxidation state of
lanthanides is +3
Mock Test -6 MT-91
67. The fraction of total volume occupied by the 73. The standard electrode potentials of four
atoms present in a simple cube is elements A, B, C and D are –3.05, –1.66, –0.40
p p and +0.80. The highest chemical reactivity will
(a) (b) be exhibited by :
3 2 4 2
p (a) A (b) B
p
(c) (d) (c) C (d) D
4 6 74. Which of the following statements are correct?
68. The hypothetical complex chlorodiaquotriammine (i) Cationic detergents have germicidal
cobalt (III) chloride can be represented as properties
(a) [CoCl(NH3)3 (H2O)2]Cl2 (ii) Bacteria can degrade the detergents
(b) [Co(NH3)3 (H2O)Cl3] containing highly branched chains.
(c) [Co(NH2)3 (H2O)2 Cl] (iii) Some synthetic detergents can give foam
(d) [Co(NH3)3 (H2O)3]Cl3 even in ice cold water.
s
69. Which of the following may be considered to be (iv) Synthetic detergents are not soaps.
ok
an organometallic compound? (a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(a) Nickel tetracarbonyl (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
bo
75. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(b) Chlorophyll
regarding benzyl chloride?
(c) K3 [Fe (C2O4)3]
_e
(a) It gives white precipitate with alcoholic
(d) [Co (en)3] Cl3 AgNO3
70. If K1 and K2 are respective equilibrium constants Aj (b) It is an aromatic compound with
for the two reactions substitution in the side chain
@
XeF6 (g) + H2O (g) XeOF4 (g) + 2HF (g) (c) It undergoes nucleophilic substitution
XeO4(g) + XeF6 (g) XeOF4(g) + XeO3F2 (g) reaction
the equilibrium constant for the reaction (d) It is less reactive than vinyl chloride
At
XeO4 (g) + 2HF (g) XeO3F2 (g) + H2O (g) 76. One mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand
will be reversibly and adiabatically from a temperature
ks
K1 of 27°C. If the work done during the process is

(a) (b) K1.K 2 3 kJ, then final temperature of the gas is
oo
K 22 (Cv = 20 J/K)
K1 K2 (a) 100 K (b) 150 K
Eb
(c) (d) K (c) 195 K (d) 255 K

K2 1 77. A compound X, of boron reacts with NH3 on
71. For the compounds heating to give another compound Y which is
CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3I and CH3F,
e
called inorganic benzene. The compound X can

the correct order of increasing C-halogen bond
or
be prepared by treating BF 3 with lithium

length is: aluminium hydride. The compounds X and Y are
M
(a) CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I represented by the formulas.
(b) CH3F < CH3Br < CH3Cl < CH3I (a) B2H6, B3N3H6
(c) CH3F < CH3I < CH3Br < CH3Cl (b) B2O3, B3N3H6
(d) CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3F < CH3I (c) BF3, B3N3H6
72. In the following reaction ‘A ’ is (d) B3N3H6, B2H6
H O
C2H5MgBr + H2C – CH2 2 A 78. Acetylenic hydrogens are acidic because
(a) Sigma electron density of C – H bond in
O acetylene is nearer to carbon, which has
(a) C2H5CH2CHO (b) C2H5CH2CH2OH
50% s-character
(c) C2H5CH2OH (d) C2H5CHO
EBD_7205
MT-92 NEET
(b) Acetylene has only open hydrogen in each 84. A reaction at 1 bar is non–spontaneous at low
carbon temperature but becomes spontaneous at high
(c) Acetylene contains least number of temperature. Identify the correct statement about
hydrogens among the possible the reaction among the following :
hydrocarbons having two carbons (a) DH is negative while DS is positive
(d) Acetylene belongs to the class of alkynes (b) Both DH and DS are negative
with molecular formula, CnH2n – 2. (c) DH is positive while DS is negative
79. H 2S(g) ¾¾ ® HS– (g) + H + (g), DH° = x1 (d) Both DH and DS are positive.
DH° [H S(g)] = x , DH° [H (g)] = x 85. Which of the following can not be isoelectronic?
f 2 2 f 3
(a) two different cations
hence, DH°f [HS]– is (b) two different anions
(a) x1 + x2 – x3 (b) x3 – x1 – x2 (c) cation and anion
(c) x1 – x2 – x3 (d) x3 – x1 + x2 (d) two different atoms
s
80. In qualitative analysis, the metals of Group I can 86. When CH3Cl and AlCl3 are used in Friedel-Crafts
ok
be separated from other ions by precipitating reaction, the electrophile is
them as chloride salts. A solution initially (a) Cl+ (b) AlCl4–
bo
contains Ag+ and Pb2+ at a concentration of 0.10 (c) CH3 + (d) AlCl2+
M. Aqueous HCl is added to this solution until 87. The rate law for the reaction below is given by
_e
the Cl– concentration is 0.10 M. What will the the expression k [A][B]
concentrations of Ag + and Pb 2+ be at Aj A + B ® Product
equilibrium? If the concentration of B is increased from 0.1 to
(Ksp for AgCl = 1.8 × 10–10,
@
0.3 mole, keeping the value of A at 0.1 mole, the
Ksp for PbCl2 = 1.7 × 10–5) rate constant will be:
(a) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–7 M ; [Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–6 M (a) 3k (b) 9k
At
(b) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–11 M ; [Pb2+] = 8.5 ×10–5 M (c) k/3 (d) k
(c) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–9 M ; [Pb2+] = 1.7 × 10–3 M 88. The alkaline earth metals Ba, Sr, Ca and Mg may
ks
(d) [Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–11 M ; [Pb2+] = 8.5 ×10–4 M be arranged in the order of their decreasing first
81. Carbon and CO gas are used to reduce which of ionisation potential as
oo
the following pairs of metal oxides for extraction (a) Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba (b) Ca, Sr, Ba, Mg
of metals ? (c) Sr, Ba, Mg, Ca (d) Ba, Mg, Ca, Sr
Eb
(a) FeO, SnO (b) SnO, ZnO 89. The monomer of the polymer;
(c) BaO, Na2O2 (d) FeO, ZnO
82. Aqueous solution of group 2 is precipitated by CH3 CH3
e
adding Na2CO3, then this precipitate is tested |

Å
ÚÚÚÚÚCH 2 - C - CH 2- C
or
on flame, no light in visible region is observed , is

|
this element can be CH3 CH3
M
(a) Ba (b) Mg
(c) Ca (d) Sr CH3
83. Identify the correct order of electron affinity for (a) H 2C = C
O–, O, F– and Na+.
(a) Na+ < F– < O– < O CH3
(b) O < O– < F– < Na+ (b) CH3CH=CHCH3
(c) O– < O << F– < Na+ (c) CH3CH = CH2
(d) F– < Na+ < O– < O (d) (CH3)2C = C(CH3)2
Mock Test -6 MT-93
90. Two electrolytic cells, one containing acidified (i) In Chlorophyceae, the stored food material
ferrous chloride and another acidified ferric is starch and the major pigments are
chloride, are connected in series. The ratio of chlorophyll-a and d.
iron deposited at cathodes in the two cells will (ii) In Phaeophyceae, laminarin is the stored
be : food and major pigments are chlorophyll-a
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 and b.
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 3 : 2 (iii) In Rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the
stored food and the major pigments are
BIOLOGY chlorophyll-a, d and phycoerythrin.
(a) (i) is correct, but (ii) and (iii) are wrong.
91. The living organisms can be unexceptionally (b) (i) and (ii) are correct, but (iii) is wrong.
distinguished from the non-living things on the (c) (i) and (iii) are correct, but (ii) is wrong.
basis of their ability for (d) (iii) is correct, but (i) and (ii) are wrong.
s
(a) interaction with the environment and 98. Chromosome duplication without nuclear
ok
progressive evolution division refers to
(b) reproduction (a) Meiosis (b) Mitosis
bo
(c) growth and movement (c) Androgenesis (d) Endomitosis
(d) responsiveness to touch. 99. During which stages (or prophase I substages)
_e
92. The largest flower found is known as of meiosis do you expect to find the bivalents
(a) Rafflesia (b) Tecoma and DNA replication respectively?
(c) Musa (d) Cauliflower Aj(a) Pachytene and interphase (between two
93. Pulses belong to the family meiotic divisions)
@
(a) fabaceae (b) asteraceae (b) Pachytene and interphase (just prior to
(c) poaceae (d) solanaceae prophase I)
(c) Pachytene and S phase (of interphase just
At
94. Which of the following are protozoans?

(a) diatoms, flagellates, amoebas, and ciliates prior to prophase I)
(b) apicomplexans, flagellates, amoebas, and (d) Zygotene and S phase (of interphase prior
ks
ciliates to prophase I)
(c) amoebas, actinomycetes, ciliates, and 100. In a tripinnate compound leaf the leaf-lets de-
oo
flagellates velop on
(d) flagellates, ciliates, cyanobacteria, and (a) Primary rachis (b) Secondary rachis
Eb
apicomplexans (c) Tertiary rachis (d) Petiole

95. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo 101. Identified A, B, C and D of a seed.
is represented by
e
(a) scutellum (b) prophyll C

or
(c) coleoptile (d) coleorrhiza

M
96. A tylose is formed form :

(a) ray parenchyma Endosperm
(b) inner parenchyma
(c) paratracheal parenchyma
Coleoptile
(d) metatracheal parenchyma
97. Consider the following statements regarding the Scutellum A
major pigments and stored food in the different B
groups of algae and choose the correct option.
D
EBD_7205
MT-94 NEET
(a) A – Plumule; B – Radicle; C – Pericarp; (c) solvent from lower concentration of

D – Coleorhiza solution to higher concentration of
(b) A – Radicle; B – Plumule; C – Pericarp; solution.
D – Coleorhiza (d) solvent from higher concentration of
(c) A – Radicle; B – Plumule; C – Coleorhiza; solution to lower concentration of solution.
D – Pericarp 110. If the pressure potential is +0.16 megapascals
(d) A – Radicle; B – Coleorhiza; C – Plumule; (mPa) and the osmotic potential is –0.24
D – Pericarp megapascals, then the water potential would be
102. One of the most resistant biological material is (a) + 0.4 mPa (b) +0.08 mPa
(a) lignin (b) hemicellulose (c) – 0.08 mPa (d) + 0.16 mPa.
(c) lignocellulose (d) sporopollenin
111. The figure below shows the structure of a
103. Which of the following is a pollution related
mitochondrion with its four parts labelled (A),
occupational health hazard disease ?
(a) Pneumoconiosis (b) Asthma (B), (C) and (D).
s
ok
(c) Flurosis (d) Silicosis
104. A population of genetically identical individuals,
obtained from asexual reproduction is
bo
(a) Callus (b) Clone
(c) Deme (d) Aggregate
_e
105. The polyembryony commonly occurs in
(a) citrus (b) turmeric Aj
(c) tomato (d) potato
106. In which one of the following habitats does the
@
diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most?
(a) Shrub land (b) Forest
At
(c) Desert (d) Grassland Select the part correctly matched with its
107. In increasing order of organizational complexity, function.
which one of the following is the correct (a) Part (D): Outer membrane – gives rise to
ks
sequence? inner membrane by splitting

(a) Population, species, community, ecosystem
oo
(b) Part (B): Inner membrane – forms infoldings

(b) Population, variety, species, ecosystem called cristae
(c) Population, ecosystem, species, community (c) Part (C): Cristae – possess single circular
Eb
(d) Species, variety, ecosystem, community DNA molecule and ribosomes

108. When secondary growth is initiated in dicot (d) Part (A): Matrix – major site for respiratory
stem what will happen first?
e
chain enzymes
(a) The cells of cambium divide periclinally to
or
112. Which of the following is correct set of

form xylem mother cells micronutrient for plants?
(b) Inter fascicular cambium join with intrafas-
M
(a) Mg, Si, Fe, Cu, Ca

cicular cambium
(b) Cu, Fe, Zn, B, Mn
(c) Parenchymatous cells present between
(c) Mg, Fe, Zn, B, Mn
vascular bundle become meristematic
(d) Pith get obliterated (d) Mo, Zn, Cl, Mg, Ca
109. Osmosis means movement of 113. During Na+ – K+ pump
(a) solute from lower concentration to higher (a) 3Na+ and 2K+ are transported
concentration. (b) 1Na+ and 2K+ are transported
(b) solute from higher concentration to lower (c) 3Na+ and 3K+ are transported
concentration. (d) Depends on requirement of cell
Mock Test -6 MT-95
114. The technique of obtaining large number of (c) When a piece of RNA that is complementary
plantlets by tissue culture method is called in sequence is used to stop expression of a
(a) Plantlet culture specific gene
(b) Organ culture (d) RNA polymerase producing DNA
(c) Micropropagation 122. The reaction rate of salivary amylase on starch
(d) Macropropagation decreases as the concentration of chloride
115. CML (Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia) is due to ions is reduced. Which of the following
(a) Translocation of a piece of long arm of describes the role of the chloride ions?
chromosome 22 (a) allosteric inhibitors
(b) Translocation of a piece of short arm of (b) co-enzymes
chromosome 22 (c) co-factors
(c) Translocation of a piece of short arm of (d) competitive inhibitors
chromosome 9 123. The enzymes hexokinase which catalyses
(d) Inversion in chromosomes 22 glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis
s
ok
116. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly is inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate. This is an
matched? example of
(a) Gibberellic acid - Leaf fall (a) competitive inhibition
bo
(b) Cytokinin - Cell wall elongation (b) non-competitive inhibition
(c) IAA - Cell wall elongation (c) feedback allosteric inhibition
_e
(d) Abscissic acid - Stomatal closure. (d) positive feedback
117.Calculate the percentage of pureline individuals 124.
Aj Apical dominance in plants is caused by
from a cr oss between AaBbCcDdee ´ (a) high concentration of auxins in the terminal
aabbccddee bud.
@
(a) 50% (b) 25% (b) high concentration of gibberellins in the
(c) 12.5% (d) 6.25% apical bud.
At
118. What base is responsible for hot spots for (c) high concentration of auxins in the lateral
spontaneous point mutations? bud.
(a) Adenine (b) 5-bromouracil (d) absence of auxins and gibberellins in apical
ks
(c) 5-methylcytosine (d) Guanine bud.

119. Which of following methods was not used by 125. Primary precursor of IAA is
oo
Mendel in his study of the genetics of the garder (a) phenylalanine (b) tyrosine
pea ? (c) tryptophan (d) leucine
Eb
(a) Maintenance of true-breeding lines 126. Deficiency of molybdenum (Mo) causes

(b) Cross-pollination (a) molting (b) welting
(c) Microscopy (c) reclamation (d) chlorosis
e
(d) Production of hybrid plants 127. Which one of the following structural formulae
or
120. Pneumatophores are characteristic of plants of two organic compounds is correctly identified
growing in
M
along with its related function ?

(a) saline soils
(b) sandy soils
(c) marshy places and salt lakes
(d) dryland regions A.
121. What is antisense technology ?
(a) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for
synthesis of antigens
(b) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue
cultures
EBD_7205
MT-96 NEET
(c) an antifeedant
B. (d) a toxic protein
134. Chloramphenicol and erythromycin (broad
spectrum antibiotics) are produced by
(a) Streptomyces (b) Nitrobacter
(c) Rhizobium (d) Penicillium
135. For biogas production besides dung an
(a) B : Adenine — a nucleotide that makes up extensive use of which weed is recommended in
nucleic acids our country–
(b) A: Triglyceride — major source of energy (a) Mangifera indica
(c) B : Uracil — a component of DNA (b) Hydrilla
(d) A: Lecithin — a component of cell (c) Eicchornia crassipes
membrane (d) Solanum
s
128. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing 136. Which one of the following statements about
ok
transgenic plants resistant to: Mycoplasma is wrong ?
(a) bollworms (b) nematodes (a) They are pleomorphic.
bo
(c) white rusts (d) bacterial blights (b) They are sensitive to penicillin.
129. Expression vectors are different from other (c) They cause diseases in plants.
vectors because they
_e
(d) They are also called (Pleuro pneumonia like
(a) contain drug resistance markers. organisms) PPLO.
(b) contain telomeres. 137.
Aj Housefly possesses
(c) contain regulatory regions that permit the (a) two pairs of wings
@
cloned DNA to produce a gene product (b) one pair of wings
(d) contain DNA origins (c) three pairs of wings
130. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’ (d) four pair of wings
At
fermentation is done to: 138. An example of a holocrine gland is

(a) produce methane (a) A sweat gland
ks
(b) obtain antibiotics (b) A salivary gland

(c) purify enzymes (c) A pancreatic gland
oo
(d) degrade sewage (d) A sebaceous gland

131. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green 139. Major inorganic component of vertebrate bone is
Eb
plants takes place due to (a) calcium carbonate

(a) indole acetic acid (b) cytokinins (b) calcium phosphate
(c) gibberellins (d) ethylene (c) sodium hydroxide
e
132. The ‘Earth Summit’ held at Rio de Janerio in 1992 (d) potassium hydroxide
or
resulted into 140. Which of the following is a large middle layer

(a) Compilation of Red list consisting of main uterine gland as well as blood
M
(b) Establishment of Biosphere Reserves vessels?

(c) Convention on Biodiversity (a) Stratum granulosum
(d) Development of Hot Spots of Biodiversity (b) Stratum lucidium
133. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have (c) Stratum corneum
been developed by the introduction of DNA that (d) Stratum spongiosum
produced (in the host cells) 141. The largest corpuscles of human blood are
(a) both sense and anti-sense RNA (a) Neutrophils (b) Monocyte
(b) a particular hormone (c) Lymphocyte (d) Eosinophils
Mock Test -6 MT-97
142. A hormone which will increase blood sugar while (c) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow
increasing cardiac output is passage for the sperms
(a) norepinephrine (d) who cannot provide suitable environment
(b) acetylcholine for fertilisation
(c) antidiuretic hormone 147. Fertilization occurs in, human, rabbit and other
(d) insulin placental mammals in –
143. Which one of the following statements is correct (a) Ovary (b) Uterus
with respect to salt water balance inside the body (c) Fallopian tubes (d) Vagina
of living organisms? 148. Which ovary and oviduct of the birds remains
(a) When water is not available, camels do not functional
(a) Right (b) Left
produce urine but store urea in tissues. (c) Left ovary and Right oviduct
(b) Salmon fish excretes lot of stored salt (d) Rigth ovary and Left oviduct
through gill membrane in fresh water. 149. Birth control pills check ovulation in female by
s
(c) Paramecium discharges concentrated salt inhibiting the secretion of –
ok
solution by contractile vacuoles. (a) follicle stimulating hormone
(d) The body fluids of fresh water animals are (b) luteinizing hormone
bo
generally hypotonic to surrounding water. (c) Both (a) and (b)
144. Identify A to E. (d) None of the above
_e
150. If you examine the reproductive system of a
Filiform antennae normal human female before she undergoes
Compound eye Head
A
Ajpuberty, which of the following would you not
B D expect to find ?
@
Prothoracie leg (a) Corpus luteum (b) Ovaries
C Hind wing
Mesothoracic leg
(c) Primary oocytes (d) Oviducts
151. What happens during fertilisation in humans
At
Metathoracic leg Abdomen after many sperms reach close to the ovum?
E (a) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms
ks
except one
Figure - External features of cockroach
(b) Only two sperms near est the ovum
oo
(a) A- Pronotum, B- Mesothorax, penetrate zona pellucida

C- Metathorax, D- Tegmina, E- Pleura (c) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm
(b) A-Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax, enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona
Eb
D-Tegmina, E- Sterna pellucida

(c) A-Pronotum, B-Mesothorax, C-Metathorax, (d) All sperms except the one nearest to the
ovum lose their tails
e
D- Tegmina, E-Anal cerci

(d) A-Pronotum,B-Mesothorax, C- Metathorax, 152. Coronary artery disease (CAD) is often referred
or
D-Tegmina, D- Anal style. to as

(a) Heart failure (b) Cardiac arrest
M
145. Tying up or removing a small part of fallopian

duct is called (c) Atherosclerosis (d) Thrombosis
153. Antidiuretic hormone
(a) Vasectomy (b) Ductus arteriosus
(a) Secretion is determined by plasma
(c) Archidectomy (d) Tubectomy osmolarity
146. The technique called Gamete Intrafallopian (b) Increases permeability of renal collecting
Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those duct cells to water
females: (c) Is secreted by nerve cells with their cell
(a) who cannot produce an ovum bodies in hypothalamus
(b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus. (d) All the above
EBD_7205
MT-98 NEET
154. Which one of the following is a matching pair of 159. Barr body in mammals represents
a substrate and its particular digestive enzyme? (a) all the heterochromatin in female cells
(a) Starch — maltase (b) Y-chromosomes in somatic cells of male
(b) Lactose — rennin (c) all heterochromatin in male and female cells
(c) Maltose — steapsin (d) one of the two X-chromosomes in somatic
(d) Casein — chymotrypsin cells of females
155. Which one of the following pairs of the cells 160. Genetic drift is change of
with their secretion is correctly matched? (a) gene frequency in same generation
(a) Oxyntic cells - A secretion with pH between (b) appearance of recessive genes
2.0 and 3.0. (c) gene frequency from one generation to next
(b) Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans -
(d) None of the above
Secretion that decreases blood sugar level.
161. Two different species cannot live for long
(c) Kupffer cells - A digestive enzyme that
duration in the same niche or habitat. This law is
s
hydrolysis nucleic acids.
(a) Allen’s law
ok
(d) Sebaceous glands - A digestive enzyme that
hydrolysis nucleic acids (b) Gause’s hypothesis
(c) Dollo’s rule
bo
156. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body
tissues into the blood is present as (d) Weisman’s theory
162. Which one of the following statements is correct
_e
(a) bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(b) free CO2 in blood plasma in relation to honey bees?
(c) 70% carbaminohaemoglobin and 30% as Aj(a) Apis indica is the largest wild honey bee in
bicarbonate India
@
(d) carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs (b) Honey is predominantly sucrose and
157. ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the arabinose
following organs in humans? (c) Beewax is a waste product of honey bees
At
(a) Brain (b) Heart (d) Communication in honey bees was

(c) Kidney (d) Pancreas discovered by Karl Von Frisch
ks
158. The diagram shows the ultrastructure of a cell 163. Select the incorrect statement from the
from the kidney with part of an adjacent following:
oo
capillary. (a) Galactosemia is an in born error of

metabolism
Eb
microvilli lining
the lumen (b) Small population size results in random
genetic drift in a population
(c) Baldness is a sex -limited trait
e
(d) Linkage is an exception to the principle of

or
folding of basement independent assortment in heredity

membrane
M
basement membrane 164. Biometric genetics deals with :

endothelial cell (a) the biochemical explanations of various
of capillary
erythrocyte genetical phenomena
(b) the effect of environment on genetic set up
organisms
Which part of the nephron is this? (c) the genetical radiations on the living
(a) Bowman’s capsule (b) collecting duct organisms
(c) glomerulus (d) proximal tubule (d) the inheritance of quantitative traits
Mock Test -6 MT-99
165. In which part of the body honey bee keep the (b) electroencephalogram
nectar for sometime? (c) fractionation
(a) Crop (b) Mouth (d) radioimmunoassay
(c) Gizzard (d) Pollen basket 168. Muscle A and muscle B are the same size, but
166. Identify the molecules (A) and (B) shown below muscle A is capable of much finer control than
and select the right option giving their source muscle B. Which one of the following is likely
and use. to be true of muscle A?
(a) It contains fewer motor units than muscle
CH3 B.
N O (b) It has larger sarcomeres than muscle B.
CH3 (c) It is controlled by more neurons than
O muscle B.
H (d) It is controlled by fewer neurons than
s
(A) muscle B.
O
ok
169. During oxygen transport the oxyhaemoglobin
H at the tissue level liberates oxygen to the cells
bo
O because in tissue
(a) O2 concentration is high and CO2 is low
_e
OH (b) O2 concentration is low and CO2 is high
(c) O2 tension is high and CO2 tension is low
Aj (d) O2 tension is low and CO2 tension is high
170. Select the correct statement regarding the
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(B) specific disorder of muscular or skeletal
O system :
H (a) Myasthenia gravis - Autoimmune disorder
At
which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments.

(b) Gout - inflammation of joints due to extra
Options
ks
deposition of calcium.
Molecule Source Use (c) Muscular dystrophy - age related
oo
shortening of muscles.
(a) (A) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates (d) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and
Eb
coca the transport higher chances of fractures with advancing

of dopamine age.
(b) (B) Heroin Cannabis Depressant 171. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly
e
sativa and slows matched?

or
down body (a) Glucagon - Beta cells (source)

(b) Somatostatin - Delta cells (source)
M
functions
(c) Corpus luteum - Relaxin (secretion)
(c) (C) Cannabinoid Atropa Produces (d) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus (disease)
belladona hallucinations 172. Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) is
(d) (A) Morphine Papaver Sedative and produced by
somniferum pain killer (a) parathyroid
(b) pars intermedia of pituitary
167. The technique used for estimation of minute (c) anterior pituitary
amounts of hormones and drugs is called (d) posterior pituitary
(a) electrophoresis
EBD_7205
MT-100 NEET
173. Cyclosporine is used as : (a) preformed antibodies

(a) Allergic eczema (b) wide spectrum antibiotics
(b) Immunosuppressant (c) weakened germs
(c) Prophylactic for viruses (d) dead germs
(d) Prophylactic for marasmus 179. cDNA probes are copied from the messenger
174. A major component of gobar gas is – RNA molecules with the help of –
(a) Butane (b) Ammonia (a) Restriction enzymes
(c) Methane (d) Ethane (b) Reverse transcriptase
175. Sour taste of vinegar is due to (c) DNA polymerase
(a) lactic acid (b) acetic acid (d) Adenosine deaminase
(c) butyric acid (d) fumaric acid 180. The figure given below is a diagrammatic
176. Which of the following do sticky ends and representation of response of organisms to
nucleic acid probes have in common? abiotic factors. What do A, B and C represent
s
(a) They both are used as gene vectors in respectively?
ok
genetic engineering.
(b) They both involve complementary base B
bo
pairing.
(c) They both are parts of RNA molecules.
_e
Internal level
(d) They both are produced by the action of A
restriction enzymes. C
177. Which of the following statements regarding the
multiple histocompatibility complex (MHC) is
Aj
@
true?
(a) An individual produces only one specific External level
MHC glycoproteins.
At
(b) MHC glycoproteins normally are found A B C

only on lymphocytes and macrophages.
ks
(c) RBC blood groups are based on MHC (a) Conformer Regulator Partial regulator
antigens
oo
(d) Antigens are presented to T-cells on MHC (b) Regulator Partial regulator Conformer
glycoproteins. (c) Partial regulator Regulator Conformer
Eb
178. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised

by administering (d) Regulator Conformer Partial regulator
e
or
M
Mock Test -7 MT-101
7JEE MAIN
MOCK TEST
s
ok
bo
INSTRUCTIONS
_e

Aj
@
At
Negative Marking :
ks
If length of the string is decreased by 2%,

oo
PHYSICS keeping the tension constant, the number of

beats heard when the string and the tuning fork
Eb
1. A man weighing 80 kg, stands on a weighing made to vibrate simultaneously is

scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a (a) 4 (b) 6
uniform acceleration of 5m/s2. What would be
e
(c) 8 (d) 12
the reading on the scale ? (g = 10 m/s2)
or
4. Light enters at an angle of incidence in a

(a) 1200 N (b) Zero transparent rod of refractive index n. For what
(c) 400 N (d) 800 N
M
value of the refractive index of the material of

2. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times the rod the light once entered into it will not
more massive than the earth and its radius is 10 leave it through its lateral face whatsoever be
times smaller. Given that the escape velocity from
the value of angle of incidence?
the earth is 11 km s–1, the escape velocity from
the surface of the planet would be (a) n > 2 (b) n = 1
(a) 1.1 km s–1 (b) 11 km s–1 (c) n = 1.1 (d) n = 1.3
(c) 110 km s –1 (d) 0.11 km s–1 5. Consider two thin identical conducting wires
3. A tuning fork of frequency 392 Hz, resonates covered with very thin insulating material. One
with 50 cm length of a string under tension (T). of the wires is bent into a loop and produces
EBD_7205
MT-102 NEET
magnetic field B1, at its centre when a current I of 600 nm wavelength is sufficient for creating
passes through it. The ratio B1 : B2 is: photoemission. What is the ratio of the work
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 functions of the two emitters?
(c) 1 : 9 (d) 9 : 1 (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
6. The turn ratio in a step up transformer is 1 : 2 if a (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
Lechlanche cell of 1.5 V is connected across the 2
11. The binding energy of deuteron ( 1 H ) is 1.15
input, then the voltage across the output will be
4
(a) 0.1 V (b) 1.5 V MeV per nucleon and an alpha particle ( 2He )
(c) 0.75 V (d) zero has a binding energy of 7.1 MeV per nucleon.
7. The condition for an achromatic doublet, is ( f1 Then in the reaction
and f2 are the focal lengths of individual lenses) 2 2 2
1 H + 1 H ¾¾
® 2 He + Q
w1w 2
s
(a) f1 - f 2 = f 2 (b) w1 f1 + w 2 f 2 = 0 the energy released Q is
2
ok
(a) 5.95 MeV (b) 26.1 MeV
w1 w 2 f1 w1 (c) 23.8 MeV (d) 289.4 MeV
(c) f + f = 0 + =0
bo
(d) 12. The linear velocity of a rotating body is given by
1 2 f 2 w1 uur uur ur
v = w ´ r
8. The mid points of two small magnetic dipoles of
_e
length d in end-on positions, are separated by a If w = î - 2ˆj + 2k̂ and r = 4 ĵ - 3k̂ , then the
distance x, (x > > d). The force between them is Aj
proportional to x–n where n is: magnitude of v is
@
(a) 29 units (b) 31 units
N S
S N (c) 37 units (d) 41 units
At
13. The initial speed of a bullet fired from a rifle is

x
630 m/s. The rifle is fired at the centre of a target
ks
(a) 1 (b) 2 700 m away at the same level as the target. How
(c) 3 (d) 4 far above the centre of the target ?
oo
9. Magnetic flux through a coil of resistance 10 W (a) 1.0 m (b) 4.2 m

is changed by D f in 0.1 s. The resulting current
Eb
(c) 6.1 m (d) 9.8 m

in the coil varies with time as shown in the figure.
14. What is the work done in blowing a soap bubble
Then |D f | is equal to (in weber)
of radius 0.2 m ? (The surface tension of soap
e
(a) 6 i(A) solution is 0.06 N/m)

or
(a) 192p × 10–4 J (b) 96p × 10–4 J

(b) 4 (c) 194.2p × 10–4 J (d) None of these
M
4
15. A stone tied to one end of string of 1m long is
(c) 2 whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant
(d) 8 speed. If the stone makes 10 revolutions in 20
sec, the magnitude of the acceleration of the
t(s) stone is
0.1
2
10. When light of wavelength 300 nm (nanometre) (a) 988 cm / s2 (b) 490 cm / s
falls on a photoelectric emitter, photoelectrons 2 2
are liberated. For another emitter, however, light (c) 986 cm / s (d) 996 cm / s
Mock Test -7 MT-103
16. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of 21. If yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s
an ideal gas is (7/2) R. The ratio of specific heat at double slit experiment is replaced by a
constant pressure to that at constant volume is monochromatic blue light of the same intensity
(a) 8/7 (b) 5/7 (a) fringe width will decrease
(c) 9/7 (d) 7/5 (b) fringe width will increase
17. Two parallel large thin metal sheets have equal (c) fringe width will remain unchanged
surface charge densities (s = 26.4 × 10–12 c/m2) (d) fringes will become less intense
of opposite signs. The electric field between 22. The transfer ratio b of a transistor is 50. The
these sheets is input resistance of the transistor when used in
(a) 1.5 N/C (b) 1.5 ´ 10 - 10
N/C the common emitter configuration is 1kW . The
peak value of the collector A.C. current for an
(c) 3 N/C (d) 3 ´ 10 10 N / C
-
A.C. input voltage of 0.01 V, is
18. The correct statement of the law of equipartition (a) 500 µA (b) 0.25 µA
s
of energy is (c) 0.01 µA (d) 100 µA
ok
(a) the total energy of a gas is equally divided 23. Magnetic flux f in weber in a closed circuit of
among all the molecules resistance 10W varies with time f (sec) as f = 6t 2
bo
(b) the gas possess equal energies in all the – 5t + 1. The magnitude of induced current at t =
three directions x,y and z-axis 0.25s is
_e
(c) the total energy of a gas is equally divided (a) 0.2 A (b) 0.6 A
between kinetic and potential energies (c) 1.2 A (d) 0.8 A
(d) the total kinetic energy of a gas molecules is
Aj
24. A body falls on the ground from a height of 10 m
equally divided among translational and and rebounds to a height of 2.5 m. Then the ratio
@
rotational kinetic energies. of velocities of the body just before and just
19. In figure a system of four capacitors connected after the collision will be
At
across a 10 V battery is shown. Charge that (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2

will flow from switch S when it is closed is : (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 3
25. A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one-
ks
2m F a 3m F
dimensional motion with constant acceleration. The
oo
power delivered to it at time t is proportional to :

S (a) t ½ (b) t
(c) t 3/2 (d) t 2
Eb
3m F b 2m F 26. Steam at 100ºC is passed into 1.1 kg of water

contained in a calorimeter of water equivalent
0.02 kg at 15ºC till the temperature of the
e
10 V calorimeter and its contents rises to 80ºC. The

or
(a) 5 µC from b to a mass of the steam condensed in kg is

M
(b) 20 µC from a to b (a) 0.130 (b) 0.065

(c) zero (c) 0.260 (d) 0.135
(d) 5 µC from a to b 27. The pressure of an ideal gas varies with volume
20. An electric dipole placed in a non-uniform electric as P = a V, where a is a constant. One mole of the
field experiences gas is allowed to undergo expansion such that its
(a) both, a torque and a net force volume becomes ‘m’ times its initial volume. The
(b) only a force but no torque work done by the gas in the process is
( )
(c) only a torque but no net force aV 2
(d) no torque and no net force (a) m -1
2
EBD_7205
MT-104 NEET
33. In the figure shown ABC is a uniform wire. If

(b)
a 2V 2 2
2
m -1 ( ) centre of mass of wire lies vertically below point
BC
A, then is close to :
(c)
a 2
2
(
m -1 ) AB
A
(d)
aV 2 2
2
(
m -1 ) 60°
28. A piece of copper and another of germanium are B C
cooled from room temperature to 80° K. The (a) 1.85 (b) 1.5
resistance of (c) 1.37 (d) 3
(a) each of them increases 34. A doubly ionised Li atom is excited from its
ground state(n = 1) to n = 3 state. The
s
(b) each of them decreases
wavelengths of the spectral lines are given by
ok
(c) copper increases and germanium decreases l
32, l 31 and l 21. The ratio l 32/l 31 and l 21/l 31
(d) copper decreases and germanium increases are, respectively
bo
29. A simple pendulum of length l has a maximum (a) 8.1, 0.67 (b) 8.1, 1.2
angular displacement q . The maximum kinetic (c) 6.4, 1.2 (d) 6.4, 0.67
_e
energy of the bob is 35. A conical pendulum of length 1 m makes an angle
(a) mgl (1 – cos q ) (b) 0.5 mgl q = 45° w.r.t. Z-axis and moves in a circle in the
(c) mgl (d) 5 mgl

Aj XY plane.The radius of the circle is 0.4 m and its
30. In the network shown below, the ring has zero centre is vertically below O. The speed of the
@
resistance. The equivalent resistance between pendulum, in its circular path, will be :
the point A and B is (Take g = 10 ms–2) Z
At
O
(a) 2R 3R (a) 0.4 m/s q
3R (b) 4 m/s
ks
(b) 4R A
B
R (c) 0.2 m/s
oo
(c) 7R 3R (d) 2 m/s C
(d) 10R
Eb
36. A student when discussing the properties of a

31. Two bullets are fired horizontally with different medium (except vacuum) writes :
velocities from the same height. Which will reach Velocity of light in vacuum = velocity of light in
e
the ground first? medium. This formula is

or
(a) Slower one (a) dimensionally correct

(b) Faster one (b) dimensionally incorrect
M
(c) Both will reach simultaneously (c) numerically incorrect

(d) It cannot be predicted (d) Both (a) and (c)
32. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, 37. The Fraunhoffer ‘diffraction’ pattern of a single
then we must connect with the ammeter a slit is formed in the focal plane of a lens of focal
(a) low resistance in parallel length 1 m. The width of slit is 0.3 mm. If third
(b) high resistance in parallel minimum is formed at a distance of 5 mm from
(c) high resistance in series central maximum, then wavelength of light will be
(d) low resistance in series. (a) 5000 Å (b) 2500 Å
(c) 7500 Å (d) 8500 Å
Mock Test -7 MT-105
38. In thermodynamic processes, which of the the end. The weight falls from rest. After falling
following statements is not true? through a distance h, the angular velocity of the
(a) In an isochoric process pressure remains wheel will be
constant
(b) In an isothermal process the temperature 2mgh
(a) 2gh (b)
remains constant I + 2mr 2
(c) In an adiabatic process PVg = constant
(d) In an adiabatic process the system is 2mgh 2gh
(c) (d)
insulated from the surroundings I + mr2 I + mr
39. Thermal capacity of 40 g of aluminium (s = 0.2 44. Two bodies moving towards each other collide
cal/g K) is and move away in opposite direction. There is
(a) 168 joule /°C (b) 672 joule/°C some rise in temperature of bodies because a
(c) 840 joule/°C (d) 33.6 joule/°C part of the kinetic energy is converted into
s
40. Equipotential surfaces associated with an electric (a) heat energy (b) nuclear energy
ok
field which is increasing in magnitude along the (c) electrical energy (d) mechanical energy
x-direction are
45. If an AC main supply is given to be 220 V. The
bo
(a) planes parallel to yz-plane
(b) planes parallel to xy-plane average emf during a positive half cycle will be
(a) 198 V (b) 220 V
_e
(c) planes parallel to xz -plane
(d) coaxial cylinders of increasing radii around (c) 240 V (d) 220 2 V
the x-axis Aj
41. Which of the following waves have the maximum CHEMISTRY
@
wavelength ?
(a) Infrared rays (b) UV rays 46. If the principal quantum number n = 6, the correct
At
(c) Radiowaves (d) X-rays sequence of filling of electrons will be :

42. A hemispherical glass body of radius 10 cm and (a) ns ® (n – 2) f ® np ® (n –1)d
refractive index 1.5 is silvered on its curved (b) ns ® (n – 2) f ®(n –1)d ® np
ks
surface. A small air bubble is 6 cm below the flat

(c) ns ® np ® (n – 1)d ® (n–2)f
surface inside it along the axis. The position of
oo
the iamge of the air bubble made by the mirror is (d) ns ® (n–1)d ® (n–2)f ® np
seen : 47. When NaCl is dopped with 1.0 × 10–3 mole of
Eb
SrCl2, the number of cation vacancy is

10 cm (a) 6.023 × 1018 (b) 6.023 × 1020
(c) 2 × 6.023 × 1020 (d) 3.011 × 1020
e
6cm 48. A 0.5 M NaOH solution offers a resistance of

or
O 31.6 ohm in a conductivity cell at room

temperature. What shall be the approximate molar
M
Silvered
conductance of this NaOH solution if cell
(a) 14 cm below flat surface constant of the cell is 0.367 cm–1 .
(b) 20 cm below flat surface (a) 23.4 S cm2 mole–1(b) 23.2 S cm2 mole–1
(c) 16 cm below flat surface (c) 46.45 S cm2 mole–1(d) 54.64 S cm2 mole–1
(d) 30 cm below flat surface 49. Which of the following arrangements does not
43. A cord is wound round the circumference of the represent the correct order of the property stated
wheel of radius r. The axis of the wheel is against it ?
horizontal and the moment of inertia about its (a) V2+ < Cr 2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+ : paramagnetic
centre is I. A weight mg is attached to the cord at behaviour
EBD_7205
MT-106 NEET
(b) Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ : ionic size 54. Sn4+ + 2e– ¾ ¾® Sn2+ E° = 0.13 V
(c) Co3+ < Fe3+ < Cr 3+ < Sc3+ : stability in Br2 + 2e– ¾ ¾® 2Br– E° = 1.08 V
aqueous solution Calculate Keq for the cell at 20°C formed by two
(d) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn : number of oxidation electrodes
states (a) 1041 (b) 1032
(c) 10 –32 (d) 10–42
50. Predict the relative acidic strength among the
following 55. Calculate the pH of a solution obtained by mixing
(a) H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te 2 ml of HCl of pH 2 and 3 ml of solution of KOH
(b) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te of pH = 12
(a) 10.30 (b) 3.70
(c) H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
(c) 11.30 (d) None of these
(d) H2O < H2Se < H2S < H2Te 56. Which of the following represents a correct
51. In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity
s
sequence of reducing power of the following
for the following compounds:
ok
elements?
CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl, (CH3)2CHCl and (CH3)3CCl is: (a) Li > Cs > Rb (b) Rb > Cs > Li
(c) Cs > Li > Rb (d) Li > Rb > Cs
bo
(a) CH 3Cl > ( CH3 )2 CHCl > CH 3CH 2Cl > (CH3 )3 CCl
57. Paramagnetism of Cr (Z = 24), Mn2+ (Z = 25) and
(b) CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3 )2 CHCl > (CH3 )3 CCl Fe3+ (Z = 26) are x, y and z respectively. They are
_e
in the order
(c) CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > ( CH3 )2 CHCl > (CH3 )3 CCl Aj (a) x = y = z (b) x > y > z
(c) x = y > z (d) x > y = z
(d) ( CH3 )2 CHCl > CH3CH2 Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3 )3 CCl 58. Match the polymers in column - A with their main
@
52. Among the following the aromatic compound is uses in column - B and choose the correct
answer:
At
(a) (b) Column - A Column - B

(A) Polystrene (i) Paints and
ks
+ lacquers
+ (B) Glyptal (ii) Rain coats
oo
(C) Polyvinyl chloride (iii) Manufacture of

(c) (d) toys
Eb
(D) Bakelite (iv) Computer discs

– (a) (A) - (ii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
53. The four quantum numbers that could identify
(b) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i)
the third 3p electron in sulphur are
e
(c) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)

1
or
(d) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iv)

(a) n = 3, l = 0, m = +1, s = +
2 59. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
M
CHO
1
(b) n = 2, l = 2, m = –1, s = + NO2
2 is
1
(c) n = 3, l = 2, m = +1, s = - OCH3
2 (a) 4-methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
1 (b) 4-formyl -3 nitroanisole
(d) n = 3, l = 1, m = –1, s = + (c) 4- methoxy-6-nitrobenzaldehyde
2
(d) 2-formyl-5-methoxynitrobenzene
Mock Test -7 MT-107
60. The favourable condition for a process to be 66. Which of the following compound is expected
spontaneous is : to be optically active?
(a) T DS > DH , DH = +ive, DS = -ive (a) (CH3)2CHCHO
(b) CH3CH2CH2CHO
(b) T DS > DH , DH = +ive, DS = +ive (c) CH3CH2CHBrCHO
(d) CH3CH2CBr2CHO
(c) T DS = DH , DH = -ive, DS = -ive 67. The major product of the following reaction is :
(d) T DS = DH , DH = + ive, DS = +ive KOH,CH OH
CH3 C HCH 2 C HCH 2 CH 3 ¾¾¾¾¾¾
3 ®
61. Vapour pressure (in torr) of an ideal solution of | | heat
two liquids A and B is given by : P = 52XA + 114 Br Br
where XA is the mole fraction of A in the mixture. (a) CH2 = CHCH2CH = CHCH3
The vapour pressure (in torr) of equimolar (b) CH2 = CHCH = CHCH2CH3
mixture of the two liquids will be : (c) CH3CH = C = CHCH2CH3
s
(a) 166 (b) 83 (d) CH3CH = CH – CH = CHCH3
ok
(c) 140 (d) 280 68. Which of the following can be predicted from
62. What is order with respect to A, B, C, respectively electronegativity values of elements ?
bo
[A] [B] [C] rate (M/sec.) (a) Dipole moment of a molecule
0.2 0.1 0.02 8.08 × 10–3 (b) Valency of elements
_e
(c) Polarity of bonds
0.1 0.2 0.02 2.01 × 10–3
(d) Position in electrochemical series
0.1 1.8 0.18 6.03 × 10–3 Aj
69. Shapes of certain interhalogen compounds are
0.2 0.1 0.08 6.464 × 10–2 stated below. Which one of them is not correctly
@
(a) –1, 1, 3/2 (b) –1, 1, 1/2 stated?
(c) 1, 3/2, –1 (d) 1, –1, 3/2 (a) IF7 : pentagonal bipyramid
63. Fluorine does not show highest oxidation state
At
(b) BrF5 : trigonal bipyramid

opposite to other halogens, because
(a) it is most electronegative (c) BrF3 : planar T-shaped
ks
(b) it has no d-orbital (d) ICl3 : planar dimeric

(c) its atomic radius is very small 70. The concentration of a reactant X decreases from
oo
(d) F– ion is stable and isoelectronic with neon 0.1 M to 0.005 M in 40 min. If the reaction follows
64. The incorrect statement among the following is: first order kinetics, the rate of the reaction when
Eb
(a) a-D-glucose and b-D-glucose are anomers. the concentration of X is 0.01 M will be
(b) a-D-glucose and b-D-glucose ar e (a) 1.73 × 10–4 M min–1
(b) 3.47 × 10–4 M min–1
enantiomers.
e
(c) 3.47 × 10–5 M min–1

(c) Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide
or
(d) 7.5 × 10–4 M min–1

made up of only b-D-glucose units. 71. Mark the false statement?
M
(d) The penta acetate of glucose does not react (a) A salt bridge is used to eliminate liquid
with hydroxyl amine. junction potential
65. The reagent needed for converting (b) The Gibbs free energy change, DG is related
Ph H with electromotive force E as DG = –nFE
Ph – C C – Ph C=C (c) Nernst equation for single electrode
H Ph
RT
(a) Cat. Hydrogenation potential is E = Eo - log a M n +
nF
(b) H2/ Lindlar Cat. (d) The efficiency of a hydrogen-oxygen fuel
(c) Li/NH3 cell is 23%
(d) LiAlH4
EBD_7205
MT-108 NEET
72. The correct statement on the isomerism 78. Of the following which is diamagnetic in nature?
associated with the following complex ions, (a) [ Co F6 ]3+ (b) [ Ni Cl 4 ]2 -
(A) [Ni(H2O)5NH3]2+,
(B) [Ni(H2O)4(NH3)2]2+ and (c) [ Cu Cl 4 ]2 - (d) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2 -
(C) [Ni(H2O)3(NH3)3]2+is : 79. Which of the following products is formed when
(a) (A) and (B) show only geometrical benzaldehyde is treated with CH3MgBr and the
isomerism addition product so obtained is subjected to
(b) (A) and (B) show geometrical and optical acid hydrolysis ?
isomerism (a) A secondary alcohol
(c) (B) and (C) show geometrical and optical (b) A primary alcohol
isomerism (c) Phenol
(d) (B) and (C) show only geometrical (d) tert-Butyl alcohol
isomerism 80. Mole fraction of methanol in its aqueous solution
s
73. Aniline, chloroform and alcoholic KOH react to is 0.5. The concentration of solution in terms of
ok
produce a bad smelling substance which is percent by mass of methanol is
(a) phenyl isocyanide (a) 36 (b) 50
bo
(b) phenyl cyanide (c) 64 (d) 72
(c) chlorobenzene 81. The unit cell of an ionic compound is a cube in
_e
(d) benzyl alcohol. which cations (A) occupy each of the corners
74. The species with a radius less than that of Ne is and anions (B) are at the centres of each face .
(a) Mg2+ (b) F– Aj The simplest formula of the ionic compound is
(c) O 2– (d) K+ (a) AB2 (b) A3B
@
75. Vapour density of the equilibrium mixture of the (c) AB3 (d) A4 B 3
reaction SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g) is 50.0. 82. Select the process that represents smelting.
Percent dissociation of SO2Cl2 is :
At
(a) 2Al2 O3 + 6H 2 O ¾¾ D
(a) 33.33 (b) 35.0 ® 4Al(OH)3
(c) 30.0 (d) 66.67 D
(b) ZnCO3 ¾¾ ® ZnO + CO 2
ks
76. The chemical reaction,

D
2AgCl(s) + H2(g) ¾¾ ® 2HCl(aq) + 2Ag(s) (c) Fe 2 O 3 + 3C ¾¾ ® 2Fe + 3CO
oo
taking place in a galvanic cell is represented by D

the notation (d) 2Pb + O 2 ¾¾ ® 2PbO + 2SO 2
Eb
(a) Pt(s) | H2(g) ,1 bar |1M KCl(aq) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s) 83. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium
by Hall- Heroult process is carried out
(b) Pt (s) | H 2(g) ,1 bar |1M HCl(aq) |1MAg +(aq) | Ag (s) (a) in the presence of NaCl
e
(c) Pt (s) | H2(g) ,1 bar |1M HCl(aq) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s) (b) in the presence of fluorite
or
(c) in the presence of cryolite which forms a

(d) Pt (s) | H2(g) ,1 bar | 1M HCl(aq) | Ag (s) | AgCl(s) melt with lower melting temperature
M
77. The pair in which phosphorous atoms have a (d) in the presence of cryolite which forms a
formal oxidation state of + 3 is : melt with higher melting temperature
(a) Orthophosphorous and hypophosphoric 84. Complexes [Co( NH 3 )5 SO 4 ] Br and
acids
(b) Pyrophosphorous and pyrophosphoric acids [Co( NH 3 ) 5 Br]SO 4 can be distinguished by
(c) Orthophosphorous and pyrophosphorous (a) conductance measurement
acids (b) using BaCl2
(d) Pyrophosphorous and hypophosphoric (c) using AgNO3
acids (d) both b and c
Mock Test -7 MT-109
85. Nylon is a : (a) Cyanophyceae (b) Phaeophyceae

(a) polysaccharide (b) polyester (c) Rhodophyceae (d) All of these
(c) polyamide (d) all of the above 94. Bryophytes resemble algae in the following
aspects
Br2 (a) Filamentous body, presence of vascular
86. OH SO3H X,
H2O tissues and autotrophic nutrition
X is identified as (b) Differentiation of plant body into root, stem
(a) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
(b) 2-bromo-4-hydroxylbenzene sulphonic acid (c) Thallus like plant body, presence of root and
(c) 3, 5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzene sulphonic autotrophic nutrition
acid (d) Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular
tissues and autotrophic nutrition
(d) 2-bromophenol
87. The non-polar molecule is : 95. Two flower structures are shown in the figure.
s
(a) NF3 (b) SO3 Mark the correct interpretation :
ok
(c) CHCl3 (d) ClO2
bo
88. The hybridization of P in PO 34 is the same as
-
of
_e
(a) S in SO3 (b) N in NO–3
(c) S in SO4– – (d) I in ICl4–
89. Solution of potash alum is acidic in nature. This
Aj
is due to hydrolysis of
@
(a) SO 24-
(b) K+ (1)
(c) Al2(SO4)3 (d) Al3+
At
(2)
90. When conc. HNO3 acts on our skin, the skin
becomes yellow, because (a) 1 is primitive and 2 is advanced
ks
(a) HNO3 acts as an oxidising agent (b) 1 is advanced and 2 is primitive

(b) HNO3 acts as a dehydrating agent (c) both are advanced flower structures
oo
(c) Nitro-cellulose is formed (d) both are primitive flower structures

(d) The proteins are converted into 96. When gynoecium is present in the top most
Eb
xanthoproteins position of thalamus, the flower is known as

(a) inferior (b) epigynous
BIOLOGY (c) perigynous (d) hypogynous
e
97. Even after killing the generative cell with a laser

or
91. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses beam, the pollen grain of a flowering plant
M
and ferns are grouped under the general term germinates and produces normal pollen tube
(a) Thallophytes (b) Cryptogams because :
(c) Bryophytes (d) Sporophytes (a) Laser beam stimulates pollen germination
92. Which one of the following is a living fossil? and pollen tube growth
(a) Pinus (b) Opuntia (b) Laser beam does not damage the region from
(c) Ginkgo (d) Thuja which pollen tube emerges
93. Alginates (alginin), used as highly efficient (c) The contents of the killed generative cell
gauze in internal operations are obtained from permit germination and pollen growth
cell walls of (d) The vegetative cell has not been damaged
EBD_7205
MT-110 NEET
98. In land plants, the guard cells differ from other (a) The rate of enzyme reaction is directly
epidermal cells in having proportional to the substrate concentration
(a) cytoskeleton (b) Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the
(b) mitochondria reaction mixture
(c) endoplasmic reticulum (c) Formation of an enzyme-substrate complex
(d) chloroplasts (d) At higher substrate-concentration the pH
99. Which option is correctly matched with the increases.
diagrams? 103. The Km value of the enzyme is the value of the
substrate concentration at which the reaction
reaches to
(a) Zero (b) 2 Vmax
(a) A-Valvate B-Twisted,C-Imbricate, (c) ½ Vmax (d) ¼ Vmax
D-Vexillary
s
104. A plant cell placed in pure water will
(b) A-Vexillary,B-Valvate, C-Twisted,
ok
(a) expand until the osmotic potential or solute
D-Imbricate potential reaches that of water.
(c) A-Imbricate,B-Vexillary, C-Valvate,
bo
(b) becomes more turgid until the pressure
D-Twisted potential of cell reaches its osmotic
(d) A-Twisted, B-Imbricate, C-Vexillary,
_e
potential.
D-Valvate (c) becomes more turgid until the osmotic
100. In which of the following cell organelles would Aj potential reaches that of pure water.
you expect to find the biochemical reactions that
(d) becomes less turgid until the osmotic
@
harness energy from the breakdown of sugar
molecules to synthesize large amounts of ATP? potential reaches that of pure water.
(a) Lysosome (b) Vesicles 105. During cell division, sometimes there will be
At
(c) Chloroplast (d) Mitochondrion failure of separation of sister chromatids. This

101. Pre-messenger RNAs must be processed in event is called
ks
the nucleus in order to (a) interference (b) complementation

(a) increase their stability in the cytoplasm. (c) non-disjunction (d) coincidence
oo
(b) allow transcription to begin. 106. In which stage of the cell cycle histone proteins
(c) permit coding sequences to be joined to synthesized in a eukaryotic cell?
Eb
adjacent noncoding sequences. (a) During G2 stage of prophase

(d) facilitate ribosome recognition in prepara- (b) During S-phase
tion for DNA synthesis (c) During entire prophase
e
102. The given graph shows the effect of substrate (d) During telophase
or
concentration on the rate of reaction of the 107. Which of the following is not a correct pairing
enzyme green gram phosphatase. What does the
M
of a macronutrient and the major functions it

graph indicate ? performs in the life of a plant ?
(a) Potassium-enzyme activation, water
balance, ion balance.
(b) Calcium-activity of membranes and
cytoskeleton, second messenger.
(c) Sulphur-in proteins and coenzymes.
(d) Iron-in active sites of many redox enzymes
and electron carriers.
Mock Test -7 MT-111
108. Which of the following statement is false?

(a) H2S, not H2O, is involved in photosynthesis
of purple sulphur bacteria.
(b) Light and dark reactions are stopped in the
absence of light.
(c) Calvin cycle occurs in the grana of
chloroplast.
(d) ATP is produced during light reaction via
chemiosmosis.
109. In may thin leaved mesophytes the stomata open
during the day time and close at night. This
comes under :
s
ok
(a) Alfalfa type (b) Potato type A B C D
(c) Bean type (d) Barley type (a) P 700 H
+ P680 NADP
+
bo
110. ‘Whip-tail’ disease in cauliflower is due to acceptor
deficiency of (b) Photosystem e
– Photosystem NADPH2 +
_e
(a) manganese (b) magnesium I acceptor II ATP
(c) molybdenum (d) nitrogen (c) Photosystem
Aj H
+ P700 NADPH
111. A biochemist mixed 10 drops of acid with 100 II acceptor
@
mL of water, and the pH dropped from 7.4 to (d) Photosystem e
– Photosystem NADPH +
5.0. She then mixed 10 drops of acid with 100 II acceptor I H
+
mL of blood. The pH dropped from 7.4 to 7.2.

At
What is the reason for this difference?

114. In tissue culture, roots can be induced by
(a) Blood is thicker than water.
ks
(a) no cytokinin and only auxins.

(b) Blood is already very acidic, so the acid (b) higher concentration of cytokinin and lower
oo
has less effect. concentration of auxins.

(c) Blood is saturated with oxygen; there is (c) lower concentration of cytokinin and higher
Eb
little room for acid. concentration of auxins.

(d) Blood contains buffers that reduce pH (d) only cytokinin and no auxins.
change. 115. Brazzein is sweet protein and obtained from
e
112. Electron transport chain is inhibited by Berries of Pentadiplandra brazzeana. The gene
or
for brazzein is purposed to be transferred to

(a) rotenone and amytal
(a) Sugarcane (b) Beet root
M
(b) antimycin-A (c) Wheat (d) Maize

(c) cyanide (CN– ), azide (N3– ) and carbon 116. Which one of the following is a natural growth
monoxide (CO) inhibitor?
(d) All of the above (a) NAA (b) ABA
113. Given below is the pathway of light reaction. (c) IAA (d) GA
Identify the given blanks indicated by A, B, C, D 117. Ovary in a tomato flower had numerous ovules
and E. but fruit had only 40 seeds at maturity. The
remaining ovules were
EBD_7205
MT-112 NEET
(a) Used in making fruit wall (b) supercoiled plamids migrate slower than
(b) Converted into juicy liquid their nicked counterparts
(c) Destroyed (c) larger molecules migrate faster than smaller
(d) Ejected out of ovary molecules
118. Unisexuality of flowers prevents (d) ethidium bromide can be used to visualize
(a) autogamy, but not geitonogamy the DNA
(b) both geitonogamy and xenogamy 126. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India
(c) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy has been developed for:
(d) autogamy and geitonogamy (a) insect-resistance
119. One of the importan t consequences of (b) enhancing shelf life
geographical isolation is (c) enhancing mineral content
(a) preventing speciation (d) drought-resistance
(b) speciation through reproductive isolation 127. Which of the following is endangered because
s
(c) random creation of new species of the loss of pollinating agents ?
ok
(d) no change in the isolated fauna. (a) Furbish’s lousewort
120. The percentage of a certain population that lives (b) Madagascar rosy periwinkle
bo
to a specific age is referred to as : (c) American chestnut
(a) fecundity (b) age distribution (d) Hawaiian Lobelia
_e
(c) survivorship curve (d) cohort 128. Which one of the following expanded forms of
the following acronyms is correct?
121. Three crops that contribute maximum to global
Aj (a) IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
food grain production are
(b) UNEP = United Nations Environmental Policy
(a) Wheat, rice and maize
@
(c) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
(b) Wheat, rice and barley
(d) IUCN = International Union for Conservation
(c) Wheat, maize and sorghum of Nature and Natural Resources
At
(d) Rice, maize and sorghum 129. Photochemical smog pollution does not contain
122. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields (a) Nitrogen dioxide
of rice by using the biofertilizer
ks
(b) Carbon dioxide

(a) Azolla pinnata (c) PAN (peroxy acetyl nitrate)
oo
(b) Cyanobacteria (d) Ozone

(c) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis 130. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a
Eb
(d) Mycorrhiza river, its B.O.D. will

123. Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection (a) increase (b) decrease
for disease resistance against rust pathogens is (c) sharply decrease (d) remain unchanged
e
a variety of 131. If at high altitudes, birds become rare, the

or
(a) chilli (b) maize plants likely to disappear are :

(c) sugarcane (d) wheat (a) Pine (b) Orchids
M
124. Which of the following ecological pyramid is (c) Oak (d) Rhododendrons
never inverted ? 132. The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the
(a) Pyramid of number in forest ecosystem oceans is that of
(b) Pyramid of biomass in pond ecosystem (a) sea grasses and slime moulds
(c) Pyramid of energy in parasitic food chain (b) free floating microalgae, cyanobacteria and
(d) Pyramid of biomass in parasitic food chain nanoplankton
125. In agarose gel electrophoresis (c) benthic brown algae,coastal red algae and
(a) DNA migrates towards the negative daphnids
electrode (d) benthic diatoms and marine viruses
Mock Test -7 MT-113
133. Which of the following is based upon the 137. Which animal needs to drink the smallest
principle of antigen-antibody interaction? amount of water to maintain its water balance?
(a) PCR (b) ELISA (a) a sparrow (b) a saltwater fish
(c) R DNA technology (d) RNA (c) a freshwater fish (d) a dog
134. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the 138. Animals with metameric segmentation, bilateral
option giving correct identification together with symmetry and closed circulatory system belong
what it represents? to phylum
(a) Annelida (b) Echinodermata
(c) Arthropoda (d) Mollusca
139. Which one of the following characters is not
typical of the class Mammalia?
(a) Thecodont dentition
s
(b) Alveolar lungs
ok
(c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves
bo
(d) Seven cervical vertebrae
140. The bone of a mammal contains Haversian canals
_e
which are connected by transverse canals,
known as
Aj(a) Semi-circular canals
(b) Volkmann’s canals
@
(a) B - Denaturation at a temperature of about
98°C separating the two DNA strands. (c) Inguinal canals
(b) A - Denaturation at a temperature of about (d) Bidder’s canals
At
50°C. 141. Which one of the following cellular components

(c) C - Extension in the presence of heat stable of the blood is responsible for the production of
ks
DNA polymerase. antibodies?

(d) A - Annealing with two sets of primers. (a) Thrombocyte (b) Lymphocyte
oo
135. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(i) Uneven thickening of cell wall is (c) Monocyte (d) Erythrocyte
142. Rigidity that develops in the muscle after
Eb
characteristic of sclerenchyma.
(ii) Periblem forms cortex of the stem and the death is known as:
root. (a) Rigor mortis (b) Tetanus
e
(iii) Tracheids are the chief water transporting (c) Twitch (d) Treppe
or
elements in gymnosperms. 143. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of
(iv) Companion cell is devoid of nucleus at cells and their secretion is correctly matched?
M
maturity.
(v) The Commercial cork is obtained from (a) Oxyntic cells—a secretion with pH between
Quercus suber. 2.0 and 3.0
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (v) only (b) Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans—
(c) (iii) and (iv) only (d) (ii), (iii) and (v) only secretion that decreases blood sugar level
136. In prokaryotes, the genetic material is (c) Kupffer cell—a digestive enzyme that
(a) linear DNA with histones hydrolyses nucleic acids
(b) circular DNA with histones (d) Sebaceous glan ds—a secr etion th at
(c) linear DNA without histones evaporates for cooling
(d) circular DNA without histones
EBD_7205
MT-114 NEET
144. In cockroach, the corpora allata is 151. Given below are four statements (i-iv) regarding
(a) A sense organ human blood circulatory system
(b) A tactile organ (i) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow
(c) An endocrine organ lumen as compared to veins
(d) A digestive gland (ii) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood
145. Which group contains biocatalysts? circulation to the brain is reduced
(a) Myosin, oxytocin, adrenalin (iii) Persons with blood group AB can donate
blood to any person with any blood group
(b) Peptidase, amylase, rennin
under ABO system
(c) Glucose, amino acids, fatty acids
(iv) Calcium ions play a very important role in
(d) Rhodopsin, pepsin, steapsin blood clotting
146. Both the crown and root of a tooth is covered Which two of the above statements are correct?
s
by a layer of bony hard substance. It is called
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv)
ok
(a) enamel (b) dentine
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(c) bony socket (d) cementum
152. The diagram below shows some biochemical
bo
147. The respiratory centre, which regulates pathways in a liver cell. Some of the points where
respiration, is located in hormones affect the pathways are labelled 1 to 5.
_e
(a) Cerebral peduncle
(b) Vagus nerve Aj
(c) Pons
@
(d) Medulla oblongata
148. Even when there is no air in it, human trachea
At
does not collapse due to presence of

(a) Bony rings (b) Turgid pressure
ks
(c) Chitinous rings (d) Cartilaginous rings

oo
149. The structure which does not contribute to the

breathing movements in mammals is
Eb
(a) Larynx (b) Ribs

(c) Diaphragm (d) Intercostal muscles
150. Find out the incorrect answer from the following?
e
(a) Veins are typically larger in diameter than

or
arteries
M
(b) Because of their small size, capillaries

contain blood that is moving more quickly
than in other parts of the circulatory system
(c) The walls of arteries are elastic, enabling At which numbered points would the hormone
them to stretch and shrink during changes insulin accelerate the pathways in the direc-
in blood pressure tions indicated?
(d) Veins contain more blood than any other (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 5
part of the circulatory system (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Mock Test -7 MT-115
153. Columns of Bertini in the kidneys of mammals 159. The enzyme required for the conduction of nerve
are formed as extensions of impulse across synapse is:
(a) Cortex into medulla (a) peroxidase
(b) Cortex into pelvis (b) choline acetylase
(c) Medulla into pelvis (c) ascorbic acid oxidase
(d) Pelvis into ureter (d) succinic dehydrogenase
154. Consider the following four statements (i - iv) 160. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained
about certain desert animals such as kangaroo in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the
rat human eye, is a derivative of
(i) They have dark colour and high rate of (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B1
reproduction and excrete solid urine (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D
(ii) They do not drink water, breathe at a slow 161. Which hormone interacts with membrane bound
receptor and does not normally enter the target
s
rate to conserve water and have their body
ok
covered with thick hairs cell ?
(iii) They feed on dry seeds and do not require (a) Follicle stimulating hormone
bo
drinking water (b) Estrogen
(iv) They excrete very concentrated urine and (c) Thyroxin
(d) Cortisol
_e
do not use water to regulate body
temperature. 162. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such
Which two of the above statements for such Ajas the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the
animals are true? hormone
@
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (a) Adrenaline (b) Melatonin
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (i) (c) Calcitonin (d) Prolactin
163. Steroid hormones transmit their information by
At
155. Which of the following act as antigens, but do

not induce antibody production ? (a) stimulating the receptors present on cell
(a) Haustra (b) Histones membrance
ks
(b) entering into the cell and modifying cellular

(c) Haptens (d) None of these
contents
oo
156. Thin filaments of skeletal muscle fibres contain

(c) entering into the cell and modifying nuclear
(a) Actin protein only organization
Eb
(b) Actin and myosin proteins (d) the help of an intracellular second messenger
(c) Actin, Troponin and Tropomyosin proteins 164. Which of the following statements is false ?
(d) Actin, Troponin, Myosin and Tropo- (a) As life span increases, so does the length of
e
myosin proteins each developmental stage.

or
157. The joint in our neck which allows us to rotate (b) Relative to other organisms, the length of a
human child’s nonreproductive years is
M
our head left to right is

(a) pivot joint (b) hinge joint short.
(c) saddle joint (d) ellipsoid joint (c) The reproductive phase of life is generally
longer for human males than for females.
158. Among which one of the following groups of
(d) Relative to most animals, humans attain a
chemicals, all are neurotransmitters? larger percent of full adult weight before
(a) Glycine, dopamine, melatonin reproduction begins.
(b) Somatostatin, serotonin, acetylcholine 165. In oogamy, fertilization involves
(c) Noradrenaline, somatostatin, threonine (a) a small non-motile female gamete and a large
(d) Acetylcholine, noradrenaline, dopamine motile male gamete
EBD_7205
MT-116 NEET
(b) a large non-motile female gamete and a small (b) Genes far apart on the same chromosome
motile male gamete show very few recombinations
(c) a large non-motile female gamete and a small (c) Genes loosely linked on the same
non motile male gamete chromosome show similar recombinations
(d) a large motile female gamete and a small as the tightly linked ones
nonmotile male gamete (d) Tightly linked genes on the same
166. Which of the following is known as “cochlear chromosome show very few recombinations
duct”? 171. One gene-one enzyme relationship was
(a) Scala vestibuli (b) Scala tympani established for the first time in
(c) Scala media (d) None (a) Salmonella typhimurium
167. Corr ect sequen ce of cell stages in (b) Escherichia coli
s
spermatogenesis is: (c) Diplocococcus pneumoniae
ok
(a) spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatogonia, (d) Neurospora crassa.
spermatozoa 172. Which of the following is the first thing that
bo
(b) spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, happens when a signal molecule acts on a target
spermatozoa cell?
_e
(c) spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatids, (a) A transcription factor acts on the DNA.
spermatozoa Aj (b) The signal molecule binds to RNA.
(d) spermatogonia, spermatids, spermatocytes,
(c) A new protein is made in the target cell.
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spermatozoa
(d) The signal molecule binds to a receptor.
168. Progestasert and LNG-20 are
173. In emphysema –
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(a) Implants
(b) Copper releasing IUDs (a) Gas exchange area of lungs is reduced
(b) Gas exchange area of lungs is increased
ks
(c) Non-medicated IUDs

(d) Hormone releasing IUDs (c) Trachea gets narrowed
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169. Which one of the following conditions correctly (d) Larynx is permanently closed
describes the manner of determining the sex in 174. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to –
Eb
the given example? (a) a reduction in haemoglobin content of blood

(a) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) (b) a reduction in stem cell production
e
determine female sex in birds. (c) loss of antibody mediated immunity

or
(b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male (d) loss of cell mediated immunity
sex in grasshopper.
M
175. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic

(c) XO condition in human as found in Turner engineering are
syndrome, determines female sex.
(a) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
(d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX)
produce male in Drosophila. (b) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
170. Select the correct statement from the ones given (c) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis
below with respect to dihybrid cross. elegans
(a) Tightly linked genes on the same (d) Escherichia coli an d Agrobacterium
chromosome show higher recombinations tumefaciens
Mock Test -7 MT-117
176. An ‘‘Urn’’ shaped population age pyramid 178. Largest chromosome number in plant kingdom
represents is (2n = 1262). It is found in
(a) Growing population (a) Adiantum (b) Dryopteris
(b) Static population (c) Pteris (d) Ophioglossum
(c) Declining population 179. The amino acid which has maximum buffering
(d) Threatenped population capacity at physiologic pH is:
177. Study the four statements (i–iv) given below and (a) Arginine (b) Alanine
select the two correct ones out of them: (c) Histidine (d) Glutamic acid
(i) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding 180. Which one of the following pairs of structures
on grain are ecologically similar in being is correctly matched with their correct description ?
consumers
(ii) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in Structures Description
s
maintaining species diversity of some (a) Tibia and fibula Both form parts of knee
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invertebrates joint
(iii) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction (b) Cartilage and No blood supply but do
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of prey species cornea require oxygen for
(iv) Production of chemicals such as nicotine,
_e
respiratory need
strychnine by the plants are metabolic (c) Shoulder joint Ball and socket type of
disorders Aj and elbow joint joint
The two correct statements are: (d) Premolars and 20 in all and 3– rooted
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(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) molars
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
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ks
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Eb
e
or
M
EBD_7205
MT-118 NEET
8JEE MAIN
MOCK TEST
s
ok
bo
INSTRUCTIONS
_e

Aj
@
At
Negative Marking :
ks
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PHYSICS 3. The equation of plane wave is given by

æ xö
Eb
1. An open U-tube contains mercury. When 11.2 y = 2sin p ç 200t - ÷

è 15 ø
cm of water is poured into one of the arms of the
tube, how high does the mercury rise in the other where displacement y is given in cm and time t in
e
arm from its initial level? second, then the velocity of the wave is
or
(a) 0.56 cm (b) 1.35 cm (a) 3000 cm/sec (b) 200 cm/sec
(c) 150 cm/sec (d) 2 cm /sec
M
(c) 0.41 cm (d) 2.32 cm 4. A primary cell has an e.m.f. of 1.5 volt. When
2. A body cools from 50.0°C to 48°C in 5s. How short-circuited it gives a current of 3 ampere.
long will it take to cool from 40.0°C to 39°C? The internal resistance of the cell is
Assume the temperature of surroundings to be (a) 4.5 ohm (b) 2 ohm
30.0°C and Newton's law of cooling to be valid. (c) 0.5 ohm (d) (1/4.5) ohm
(a) 2.5 s (b) 10 s 5. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet
(a) are from N-pole to S-pole of magnet
(c) 20 s (d) 5 s
(b) do not exist
Mock Test -8 MT-119
(c) depend upon the area of cross-section of 10. The escape velocity for a body projected
bar magnet vertically upwards from the surface of a planet
(d) are from S-pole to N-pole of magnet ‘X’ is 22 km/s. If the body is projected at an angle
6. In the network shown, each resistance is equal to R. of 45°with the vertical, the escape velocity will be
The equivalent resistance between adjacent corners (a) 11 2 km/s (b) 22 km/s
A and D is
11
(a) R (c) 11 km/s km / s (d)
2
2
(b) R 11. A body of mass 5 kg under the action of
3 ®
3
constant force F = Fx î + Fy ˆj has velocity at t =
(c) R
7 ®
s
0 s as v =
ˆ ˆ
( 6i - 2 j) m/s and at t = 10s as
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8
(d) R ®
15 6jˆ m / s . The force F is:
®
v
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= +
7. A conducting square frame of side ‘a’ and a long
staight wire carrying current I are located in the (a) ˆ ˆ
( - 3i + 4 j) N
_e
same plane as shown in the figure. The frame
moves to the right with a constant velocity ‘V’. æ 3 ˆ 4 ˆö
Aj (b) - i + j÷ N
The emf induced in the frame will be proportional ç
è 5 5 ø
to
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X (c) ˆ ˆ
( 3i - 4 j) N
1
(a) 3ˆ 4 ˆö
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(2x – a)2 æ
i - j÷ N
(d) ç
l 5 5 ø
è
1
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(b) V 12. When sound waves travel from air to water,

(2x + a)2 which one of the following remains constant?
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1 (a) Time period (b) Frequency

(c) (2x – a)(2x + a) (c) Velocity (d) Wavelength
Eb
a
13. An ideal gas A and a real gas B have their volumes
1 increased from V to 2V under isothermal
(d) conditions. The increase in internal energy
x2
e
8. 10 cm is a wavelength corresponding to the (a) will be same in both A and B

or
spectrum of (b) will be zero in both the cases

(c) of B will be more than that of A
M
(a) infrared rays (b) ultraviolet rays

(c) microwaves (d) g -rays (d) of A will be more than that of B
9. The transformer voltage induced in the 14. The electrostatic potential inside a charged
secondary coil of a transformer is mainly due to spherical ball is given by f = ar2 + b where r is the
(a) a varying electric field distance from the centre and a, b are constants.
(b) a varying magnetic field Then the charge density inside the ball is:
(c) the vibrations of the primary coil (a) –6ae 0r (b) –24p ae 0
(d) the iron core of the transformer (c) –6ae 0 (d) –24p ae r 0
EBD_7205
MT-120 NEET
15. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1

and another particle of mass m2 is moving with a I1 = 30 A I2 = 20 A
velocity v 2 . Both of them have the same
momentum but different kinetic energies are E1
and E2 respectively. If m1 > m2 then
(a) E1 = E2 (b) E1 < E2
3 cm 5 cm
E1 m1
(c) E = m (d) E1 > E2
2 2
16. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added,
change in internal energy and the work done in
a closed cyclic process, then
(a) W = 0 (b) Q = W = 0
I = 10 A
s
(c) E = 0 (d) Q = 0
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17. The moment of inertia of disc about a tangent (a) 3 × 10–4 N toward right
axis in its plane is (b) 6 × 10–4 N toward right
(c) 9 × 10–4 N toward right
bo
MR 2 3MR 2 (d) Zero
(a) (b)
4 2 22. A steel wire of length 20 cm and uniform cross-
_e
5 7 MR 2 section 1 mm2 is tied rigidly at both the ends.
(c) MR 2 (d) Aj The temperature of the wire is altered from 40ºC
4 4
18. An electric fan and a heater are marked as 100 to 20ºC. Coefficient of linear expansion for steel
–5/ºC and Y for steel is 2.0 × 1011 N/m2.
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a = 1.1 × 10
W, 220 V and 1000 W, 220 V respectively. The
resistnace of heater is The change in tension of the wire is
(a) equal to that of fan (a) 2.2 × 106 newton (b) 16 newton
At
(b) lesser than that of fan (c) 8 newton (d) 44 newton

(c) greater than that of fan 23. The basic magnetization curve for a
ks
(d) zero ferromagnetic material is shown in figure. Then,

19. A shunt of resistance 1 W is connected across a the value of relative permeability is highest for
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galvanometer of 120 W resistance. A current of the point

5.5 ampere gives full scale deflection in the
Eb
galvanometer. The current that will give full scale 1.5

deflection in the absence of the shunt is nearly : R S
(a) 5.5 ampere (b) 0.5 ampere
e
(c) 0.004 ampere (d) 0.045 ampere 1.0

or
B(Tesla)
Q
20. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz
is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 ×
M
0.5
10–3 W. The number of photons emitted, on the P
average, by the source per second is
(a) 5 × l 016 (b) 5 × 1017
(c) 5 × 10 14 (d) 5 × 1015 O0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
21. Three straight parallel current carr ying 3
H (× 10 A/m)
conductors are shown in the figure. The force
experienced by the middle conductor of length (a) P (b) Q
25 cm is: (c) R (d) S
Mock Test -8 MT-121
24. The pressure P of an ideal gas and its mean K.E. (c) Momentum, force and torque are vector
per unit volume are related as quantities
E (d) Mass, speed and energy are scalar quantities
(a) P = (b) P = E 29. The effective acceleration of a body when
2
thrown upwards with acceleration a is
3E 2E (a) (g + a) (b) (a – g)
(c) P = (d) P =
2 3 (c) Ö ( g2 + a2) (d) (g – a2/g)
25. A telescope has an objective lens of focal length 30. A motor car is travelling at 30 m/s on a circular
150 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. If a road of radius 500 m. It is increasing in speed at
50 m tall tower at a distance of 1 km is observed the rate of 2 m/s2. Then the acceleration of the
through this telescope in normal setting, the car will be
angle formed by the image of the tower is q , then (a) 4 m/s2 (b) 3 m/s2
q is close to :
s
(c) 2.7 m/s2 (d) 8 m/s2
(a) 30° (b) 15°
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(c) 84° (d) 1° 31. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of
26. A metal sample carrying a current along X-axis 8 km h –1. If the resultant velocity of boat is
bo
with density Jx is subjected to a magnetic field Bz 10 km h –1 , then the velocity of the river is
(along z-axis). The electric field Ey developed along (a) 12.8 km h–1 (b) 6 km h–1
_e
(c) 8 km h –1 (d) 10 km h–1
Y-axis is directly proportional to Jx as well as Bz.
The constant of proportionality has SI unit. 32. How many electrons make up a charge of 20 µC?
m2 m3
Aj (a) 1.25 × 1014 (b) 2.23 × 1014
(c) 3.25 × 10 14 (d) 5.25 × 1014
(a) (b)
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A As
33. If a spherical ball rolls on a table without slipping
m2 As the fraction of its total energy associated with
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(c) (d) rotational energy is

As m3
27. The distance travelled by a body moving along 3 2
ks
a line in time t is proportional to t3. (a) (b)

5 7
The acceleration-time (a, t) graph for the motion
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of the body will be 2 3

(c) (d)
5 7
Eb
a
a 34. A small ball of mass m starts at a point A with
(a) speed vo and moves along a frictionless track
(b)
e
AB as shown. The track BC has coefficient of

or
t t friction m . The ball comes to stop at C after

travelling a distance L which is:
M
a a
A
(c) (d)
t t
28. Which one of the following statements is false ? h
(a) A vector has only magnitude, whereas a
scalar has both magnitude and direction
(b) Distance is a scalar quantity but
displacement is a vector quantity
B L C
EBD_7205
MT-122 NEET
3 4 1
2h vo2 h v2o (a) cos - 1
, cos 1 , cos 1
- -
(a) + (b) + 7 7 7
m 2mg m 2mg
13 16 12
(b) cos -
, cos , cos
- -
h v2o h vo2 7 7 7
(c) + (d) + 14 15 13
2m mg 2m 2mg (c) cos -
, cos , cos
- -
7 7 7
35. Yellow light is used in a single slit diffraction (d) None of these
experiment with slit width of 0.6 mm. If yellow 40. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge
light is replaced by X– rays, then the observed Q0 is connected to a coil of self inductance L
pattern will reveal, at t = 0. The time at which the energy is stored
(a) that the central maximum is narrower equally between the electric and the magnetic
(b) more number of fringes field is
(c) less number of fringes
s
(d) no diffraction pattern p
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(a) LC (b) 2p LC
36. Which one is possible? 4
bo
(a) 7N
19
+ 0 n1 ® 7 N16 + 1H 1 (c) LC (d) p LC
41. Of the various series of the hydrogen spectrum,
(b) 16 S
32
+ 1 H 1 ® 17 Cl 35 + 2 He 4
_e
the one which lies wholly in the ultraviolet region
16 1 14 1 0 is
(c) 8 O + 0 n ® 7 N + 3 1H + 2 - 1b Aj (a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(d) 1 H 1 + 1H 1 ® 2 He 4 (c) Paschen series (d) Bracket series
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42. The figure shows a combination of two NOT
37. When a ray of light enters a glass slab from air, gates and a NOR gate.
(a) its wavelength decreases
At
(b) its wavelength increases

A
(c) its frequency decreases
ks
(d) neither its wavelength nor its frequency Y

changes.
B
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38. A charged particle q is placed at the centre O of

cube of length L (A B C D E F G H). Another
same charge q is placed at a distance L from O. The combination is equivalent to a
Eb
Then the electric flux through ABCD is (a) NAND gate (b) NOR gate
(c) AND gate (d) OR gate
E F 43. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit
e
D
C around the earth has a total (kinetic + potential)
or
O
q q energy E0. Its potential energy is
M
H
G (a) –E0 (b) 1.5 E0
A (c) 2E0 (d) E0
B
L 44. In the Bohr’s model of hydrogen-like atom the
(a) q /4p Î 0L (b) zero force between the nucleus and the electron is
(c) q/2 p Î 0L (d) q/3p Î 0L
r e2 æ 1 b ö
39. The angles which the vector A = 3iˆ + 6jˆ + 2kˆ modified as F =
ç 2
+
3 ÷
, where b is a
makes with the co-ordinate axes are 4p e 0 r è r ø
Mock Test -8 MT-123
constant. For this atom, the radius of the nth silver anode. 0.01 Faraday of electricity was
passed using 0.15 volt above the decomposition
æ e h2 ö potential of silver. The silver content of the
orbit in terms of the Bohr radius ç a0 = 0 2 ÷ beaker after the above shall be
ç mp e ÷ø
è (a) 0 g (b) 0.108 g
is : (c) 0.108 g (d) 1.08 g
(a) rn = a0n – b (b) rn = a0n2 + b 49. Number of electrons transfered in each case
(c) rn = a0n – b
2 (d) rn = a0n + b when KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent to give
45. Two coherent plane light waves of equal
MnO2 , Mn 2 + , Mn (OH )3 and MnO 24- are
amplitude makes a small angle a (< < 1) with
each other. They fall almost normally on a screen. respectively
If l is the wavelength of light waves, the fringe (a) 3,5,4 and 1 (b) 4,3,1 and 5
width Dx of interference patterns of the two sets (c) 1,3,4 and 5 (d) 5,4,3 and 1
s
50. Addition of HI to double bond of propene yields
ok
of waves on the screen is
isopropyl iodide and not n-propyl iodide as the
2l l major product, because addition proceeds
bo
(a) (b) throughs
a a
(a) a more stable carbonium ion
_e
l l
(c) (d) (b) a more stable carbanion
( 2a ) a Aj (c) a more stable free radical
(d) homolysis
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CHEMISTRY 51. Which of the following is a biodegradable
polymer ?
At
46. Dissolving 120 g of a compound of (mol. wt. 60) O

in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density (a) é HN - (CH 2 ) CONH - CH 2 - C ù
1.12 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is: ë 5 ûn
ks
(a) 1.00 M (b) 2.00 M O

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(c) 2.50 M (d) 4.00 M é HN - (CH 2 ) - C ù

(b)
47. The standard enthalpy of formation (Df H° 298) ë 5 ûn
for methane, CH4 is – 74.9 kJ mol–1. In order to
Eb
O
calculate the average energy given out in the é HN - (CH 2 ) NHCO - (CH 2 ) - C ù
(c)
formation of a C – H bond from this it is necessary ë 6 4 ûn
e
to know which one of the following? O

or
(a) The dissociation energy of the hydrogen

(d) éC CO O - (CH 2 )2 - O ù
molecule, H2. ë ûn
M
(b) The first four ionisation energies of carbon. 52. Which of the following is a redox reaction ?
(c) The dissociation energy of H2 and enthalpy (a) Reaction of H2SO4 with NaOH
of sublimation of carbon (graphite).
(b) In atomosphere, O3 from O2 by lightning
(d) The first four ionisation energies of carbon
(c) Nitrogen oxides from nitrogen and oxygen
and electron affinity of hydrogen.
decomposition by lightning
48. 1.08 g of pure silver was converted into silver
(d) Evaporation of H2O
nitrate and its solution was taken in a beaker. It
was electrolysed using platinum cathode and 53. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and X Y3 are 60, 40
and 50 J K–1 mol–1, respectively. For the reaction,
EBD_7205
MT-124 NEET
1 3 60. For a reaction of type A + B ¾ ¾® products , it

X 2 + Y2 ® XY3 , DH = –30kJ , to be at
2 2 is observed that doubling concentration of A
equilibrium, the temperature will be causes the reaction rate to be four times as great,
(a) 1250 K (b) 500 K but doubling amount of B does not affect the
(c) 1000 K (d) 750 K rate. The rate equation is
54. The cell constant of a given cell is 0.47 cm–1. The K
resistance of a solution placed in this cell is (a) Rate = K [A] [B] (b) Rate = [A]2
4
measured to be 31.6 ohm. The conductivity of the
(c) Rate = K [A]2 [B]0 (d) Rate = K [A]2 [B]2
solution (in S cm–1 where S has usual meaning) is
61. The electronegativity follows the order
(a) 0.15 (b) 1.5 (a) F > O > Cl > Br (b) F > Cl > Br > O
(c) 0.015 (d) 150 (c) O > F > Cl > Br (d) Cl > F > O > Br
55. Consider the following changes 62. Which of the following is not formed when
A ® A + + e - : E1 and A + ® A 2 + + e - : E 2
s
glycerol reacts with HI?
ok
The energy required to pull out the two electrons (a) CH2 = CH – CH2I
are E 1 and E 2 respectively. The correct (b) CH2OH–CHI–CH2OH
bo
relationship between two energies would be (c) CH3–CH = CH2
(a) E1 < E2 (b) E1 = E2 (d) CH3–CHI–CH3
(d) E1 ³ E2
_e
(c) E1 > E2 63. The amine that does not react with acetyl
56. The major organic compound formed by the chloride is
reaction of 1, 1, 1-trichloroethane with silver Aj (a) CH 3 NH 2 (b) (CH 3 ) 2 NH
powder is:
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(a) Acetylene (b) Ethene (c) (CH 3 )3 N (d) None of these
(c) 2 - Butyne (d) 2 - Butene 64. The plot shows the variation of – ln KP versus
57. The end product (C) in the following sequence temperature for the two reactions.
At
of reactions is 1
1% HgSO CH MgX [ O] M(s) + O2 (g) ® MO(s) and
HC º CH ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾
4 ® A ¾¾ ¾
3 ¾
¾® B ¾¾®
¾ (C)
ks
2
20% H 2SO 4 H 2O
(a) Acetic acid (b) Isopropyl alcohol 1
oo
C(s) + O2 (g) ® CO(s)

(c) Acetone (d) Ethanol 2
58. At 00 C and one atm pressure, a gas occupies
Eb
100 cc. If the pressure is increased to one and a M®MO

half-time and temperature is increased by one
e
third of absolute temperature, then final volume

of the gas will be – ln KP
or
(a) 80 cc (b) 88.9 cc C®CO

M
(c) 66.7 cc (d) 100 cc 20

59. Which one of the following statement is not true
(a) The conjugate base of H2PO4– is HPO42–
(b) pH + pOH = 14 for all aqueous solutions
(c) the pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl is 8 0 1200 T(K)
(d) 96,500 coulombs of electricity when passed
through a CuSO4 solution deposits 1 gram Identify the correct statement:
equivalent of copper at the Cathode (a) At T < 1200 K, oxidation of carbon is
unfavourable.
Mock Test -8 MT-125
(b) Oxidation of carbon is favourable at all 69. An organic compound, C3H6O does not give a
temperatures. precipitate with 2, 4 dinitrophenyl-hydrazine
(c) At T < 1200 K, the reaction reagent and does not react with metallic sodium.
MO(s) + C(s) ® M(s) + CO(g) is It could be
spontaneous. (a) CH3–CH2–CHO (b) CH2=CH–CH2OH
(d) At T > 1200 K, carbon will reduce MO(s) (c) CH3–CO–CH3 (d) CH2=CH–O–CH3
to M(s). 70. Which one of the following pairs of molecules
65. For preparing a buffer solution of pH 6 by mixing will have permanent dipole moments for both
sodium acetate and acetic acid, the ratio of the members?
concentration of salt and acid should be (a) SiF4 and NO2 (b) NO2 and CO2
(Ka = 10–5) (c) NO2 and O3 (d) SiF4 and CO2
(a) 1 : 10 (b) 10 : 1 71. An element has bcc strucutre having unit cells
(c) 100 : 1 (d) 1 : 100 12.08×1023. The number of atoms in these cells
s
66. The activation energy for a hypothetical is
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reaction, A ® Product, is 12.49 kcal/mole. If (a) 12.08 × 1023 (b) 24.16 × 1023
temperature is raised from 295 to 305, the rate of (c) 48.38 × 1023 (d) 12.08 × 1022
bo
reaction increased by 72. An unknown metal M displaces nickel from
(a) 60% (b) 100% nickel (II) sulphate solution but does not
_e
(c) 50% (d) 20% displace manganese from manganese sulphate
67. BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas NCl 3 is solution. Which order represents the correct
pyramidal because Aj order of reducing power?
(a) BCl3 has no lone pair of electrons but NCl 3 (a) Mn > Ni > M (b) Ni > Mn > M
@
has a lone pair of electrons (c) Mn > M > Ni (d) M > Ni > Mn
(b) B—Cl bond is more polar than N—Cl bond 73. From the following statements regarding H2O2,
(c) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom choose the incorrect statement :
At
(d) N—Cl bond is more covalent than B—Cl (a) It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined
bond glass bottles in dark
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68. Indicate the wrongly named compound (b) It has to be kept away from dust
(a) CH 3 - C H - CH 2 - CH 2 - CHO (c) It can act only as an oxidizing agent
oo
| (d) It decomposes on exposure to light

CH 3 74. Beilstein’s test is given by which of the following
Eb
(a) Halogens (b) Thiourea

(4-methyl -1- pentanal) (c) Pyridine (d) All
(b) CH 3- CH - C º C - COOH 75. Complete hydrolysis of starch gives :
e
| (a) glucose only

CH 3
or
(b) galactose and fructose in equimolar

(4- methyl -2- pentyn -1- oic acid) amounts
M
(c) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 - C H - COOH (c) glucose and galactose in equimolar

| amounts
CH 3 (d) glucose and fructose in equimolar amounts
(2- methyl -1- pentanoic acid) 76. At STP, the order of root mean square speed of
molecules H2, N2, O2 and HBr is
O (a) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr
||
(b) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2
(d) CH3 - CH2 - CH = CH - C- CH3
(c) HBr > H2 > O2 > N2
(3- hexen -5- one) (d) N2 > O2 > H2 > HBr
EBD_7205
MT-126 NEET
77. Which of the following is not true ? (b) Gold number is a measure of the protective
(a) Some disinfectants can be used as power of a lyophillic colloid
antispetics (c) The colloidal solution of a liquid in liquid is
(b) sulphadiazine is a synthetic antibacterial called gel
(c) aspirin is analgesic as well as antipyretic (d) Hardy - Schulze rule is related with
(d) polystyrene is used to make non-stick coagulation.
cookware 83. The compound A on heating gives a colourless
78. A solution is prepared by mixing 8.5 g of CH2Cl2 gas. and a residue which dissolves in water to
and 11.95 g of CHCl3. If vapour pressure of give B. When excess of CO2 is passed into B
CH2Cl2 and CHCl3 at 298 K are 415 and 200 mmHg and gently heated, A is formed. The compound
respectively, the mole fraction of CHCl3 in vapour
A is
form is :
(Molar mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol–1) (a) CaSO4.2H2O (b) Na2CO3
(a) 0.162 (b) 0.675 (c) CaCO3 (d) K2CO3
s
(c) 0.325 (d) 0.486 84. The value of the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment
ok
79. Match list I with list II and select the correct for one of the following configurations is 2.84
answer using the codes given below the lists: BM. The correct one is
bo
List I List II (a) d5 (in strong ligand field)
I. Cyanide process A. Ultrapure Ge (b) d3 (in weak as well as in strong fields)
(c) d4 (in weak ligand fields)
_e
II. Floatation process B. Pine oil
III. Electrolytic reduction C. Extraction of (d) d4 (in strong ligand fields)
IV. Zone refining

Al
D. Extraction of
Aj
85. N 2 and O 2 are converted into monoanions,
-
N 2– an d O 2 respectively. Which of the
@
Au
Codes: following statements is wrong ?
(a) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B (b) I-D,II-B,III-C,IV-A (a) In N 2– , N – N bond weakens
At
(c) I-C,II-B,III-D, IV-A (d) I-D,II-A,III-C,IV-B

80. In which of the following, resonance will be (b) In O –2 , O – O bond order increases
ks
possible? (c) In O –2 , O – O bond order decreases

(a) CH2 - CH2 - CH2 - CHO
oo
(d) N 2– becomes paramagnetic

(b) CH 2 = CH - CH = O
86. The structure and hybridization of Si(CH3)4 is
Eb
(c) CH 3COCH 3
(a) bent, sp (b) trigonal, sp2
(d) CH 2 = CH - CH 2 - CH = CH 2 (c) octahedral, sp d (d) tetrahedral, sp3
3
81. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen
e
87. In a reaction A + B C + D, the initial

atom is :
or
(Plank's const. h = 6.6262 × 10–34 Js ; mass of concentrations, of A and B were 0.9 mol dm–3
electron = 9.1091 × 10–31 kg ; charge of electron each. At equilibrium the concentration of D was
M
e = 1.60210 × 10–19 C ; permittivity of vaccum found to be 0.6 mol dm–3. What is the value of
Î0 = 8.854185 × 10–12 kg–1 m–3 A2) equilibrium constant for the reaction
(a) 1.65Å (b) 4.76Å (a) 8 (b) 4
(c) 0.529Å (d) 2.12Å (c) 9 (d) 3
82. Point out the false statement 88. CsCl crystallises in body centered cubic lattice.
(a) Brownian movement and Tyndall effect are If ‘a’ is its edge length then which of the following
shown by colloidal systems. expressions is correct?
Mock Test -8 MT-127
r +r = 3a 93. In Aristolochia, the pericycle is :

(a) Cs + Cl - (a) parenchymatous
3a (b) collenchymatous
(b) r +r = (c) aerenchymatous
Cs + Cl - 2
(d) sclerenchymatous
3 94. Bacterial cells are often found in very hypotonic
(c) r +r = a
Cs + Cl - 2 environments. Which of the following charac-
teristics keeps them from continuing to take on
(d) rCs + + rCl - = 3a water from their environment?
89. An example of Perkin’s reaction is (a) The presence of a cell wall allows a buildup
of turgor pressure that prevents any more
(a) C6 H5CHO + CH3 NO 2 water from entering the cell.
KOH (b) The presence of a cell wall allows a buildup
¾¾¾® C6 H 5 CHCHNO 2
s
of tonic pressure that prevents any more
ok
(b) C 6 H 5 CHO + (CH 3CO ) 2 O water from entering the cell.
(c) The cell expels water as fast as it takes it
bo
CH COONa
¾¾ ¾
3 ¾¾
¾® C 6 H 5 CH = CHCOOH up.
(d) None of the above
(c) C6 H5CHO + CH3CHO
_e
95. How many meiotic division would be required
NaOH to produce 101 female gametophytes in an
¾¾¾¾
® C6 H5 CH= CHCHO Aj angiosperm?
(d) C 6 H 5CHO + CH 2 (COOH) 2 (a) 101 (b) 26
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(c) 127 (d) None of these
Alc. NH
¾¾ ¾ ¾ 3 ® C H CH = CHCO H
6 5 2 96. In the choices below, which is not a correct
pairing of a macronutrient and the major functions
At
90. The ether that undergoes electrophilic

substitution reactions is it performs in the life of a plant ?
(a) CH3OC2H5 (b) C6H5OCH3 (a) potassium, enzyme activation, water
ks
(c) CH3OCH3 (d) C2H5OC2H5 balance, ion balance

(b) calcium; activity of membranes and
oo
cytoskeleton, second messenger

BIOLOGY (c) sulfur; in proteins and coenzymes
Eb
(d) iron; in active sites of many redox enzymes

91. Classification of organ isms based on and electron carriers
evolutionary as well as genetic relationships is 97. In C4 plants, agranal chloroplasts are found in
e
called (a) mesophyll cells

or
(a) Biosystematics (b) epidermal cell chloroplasts of green stem

(c) bundle sheath cells
M
(b) Phenetics
(c) Numerical taxonomy (d) chloroplasts of guard cells
(d) Cladistics 98. Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose
92. In gymnosperms, the ovule is naked because molecule during respiration
(a) ovary wall is absent (a) 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34
(b) integuments are absent during respiratory chain.
(c) perianth is absent (b) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34
(d) nucellus is absent inside mitochondria.
EBD_7205
MT-128 NEET
(c) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during Krebs (c) A list of botanists or zoologists who have
cycle. worked on taxonomy of a species or group
(d) all are formed inside mitochondria. (d) Classification of a species based on fossil
99. Which of the following hormone prevents record
ripening of fruit? 106. A group of fungi with septate mycelium in which
(a) Gibberellin (b) Ethylene sexual reproduction is either unknown or lacking
(c) Cytokinin (d) ABA are classified under
100. Which one of the following represents an ovule, (a) phycomycetes (b) deuteromycetes
where the embryo sac becomes horse-shoe (c) ascomycetes (d) basidiomycetes
shaped and the funiculus and micropyle are close 107. Oxysomes or F0 – F1 particles occur on
to each other? (a) thylakoids
(a) Amphitropous (b) Circinotropous (b) mitochondrial surface
(c) Atropous (d) Anatropous (c) inner mitochondrial membrane
s
101. When the members of one population do not (d) chloroplast surface
ok
breed at the same time of the year as the members 108. Which of the following layer is present nearest
of another population it is called of plasma membrane in plant cell?
bo
(a) geographic isolation (a) Secondary wall (b) Middle lamella
(b) sexual isolation (c) Primary wall (d) Tonoplast
_e
(c) seasonal isolation 109. Iso-enzymes may be identified or separated by
(d) habitat isolation all the following characteristics, except :
102. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted Aj (a) Electrophoretic mobility
to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Is-
(b) Heat stability
@
lands, as observed by Darwin, provides evi-
(c) Inhibitor specificity
dence for
(d) Chemical reaction catalyzed
(a) Intraspecific variations
At
110. The number of chromatids in a chromosome at

(b) Intraspecific competition
(c) Interspecific competition anaphase is
(a) 2 in mitosis and 1 in meiosis
ks
(d) Origin of species by natural selection

(b) 1 in mitosis and 2 in meiosis
103. DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds because
oo
(c) 2 each in mitosis and meiosis

it inhibits
(a) Calmodulin (d) 2 in mitosis and 4 in meiosis
Eb
(b) Calcium ATPase 111. Plants die from prolonged water-logging because
(c) Magnesium ATPase (a) soil nutrients become very dilute.
(d) Carbonic anhydrase (b) root respiration stops.
e
104. The first clinical gene therapy was given for (c) cell sap in the plants becomes too dilute.
or
treating (d) nutrients leach down due to excess water.

(a) chicken pox 112. Gibberellin was first extracted from
M
(b) diabetes mellitus (a) Gibberella fujikuroi (b) Gelidium

(c) rheumatoid arthritis (c) Gracilaria (d) Aspergillus
(d) adenosine deaminase deficiency 113. Which of the following bacteria is used for the
105. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to production of butanol and acetone from starch?
(a) Step-wise arrangement of all categories for (a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
classification of plants and animals (b) Clostridium acetobutylicum
(b) A group of senior taxonomists who decide (c) Streptococcum thermophilus
the nomenclature of plants and animals (d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’
Mock Test -8 MT-129
114. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and (iii) Flowers without bracts are termed as bracteate.
female plant tetraploid, the ploidy level of (iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed after
endosperm will be fertilization of the ovary.
(a) haploid (b) triploid (v) In legumes, seed is non-endospermic.
(c) tetraploid (d) pentaploid (vi) Radical buds develop on roots.
115. Species diversity increase as one proceeds from (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (v)
(a) high altitude to low altitude and high latitude (c) (iii), (iv) and (vi) (d) (i), (iv) and (v)
to low latitude 121. What is true about t-RNA?
(b) low altitude to high altitude and high latitude (a) It has five double stranded regions.
to low latitude (b) It binds with an amino acid at it 3’ end.
(c) low altitude to high altitude and low latitude (c) It looks like clover leaf in the three
to high latitude dimensional structure.
(d) high altitude to low altitude and low latitude (d) It has a codon at one end which recognizes
s
to high latitude the anticodon on messenger RNA.
ok
116. Sacred groves are specially useful in 122. Which of the following statements about nitrifi-
(a) preventing soil erosion. cation is not true ?
bo
(b) year-round flow of water in rivers. (a) Nitrobacter oxidizes nitrite to nitrate.
(c) generating environmental awareness. (b) Nitrosomonas and Nitrosococcus convert
_e
(d) conserving rare and threatened species. ammonium ions to nitrite.
117. Milky water of green coconut is (c) Nitrification reactions are energy-produc-
(a) liquid nucellus Aj ing (exergonic) reactions.
(b) liquid of female gametophyte (d) Heterotrophic plants are more directly de-
@
(c) liquid endosperm pendent on the nitrifying bacteria for us-
(d) liquid embryo able nitrogen than autotrophic plants.
118. Which one of the following is the major
At
123. Photorespiration is favoured by

difference between mosses and ferns ?
(a) high O2 and low CO2
(a) Ferns lack alternation of generation while
(b) low light and high O2
ks
mosses show the same.

(c) low temperature and high O2
(b) Mosses are facultative aerobes while ferns
(d) low O2 and high CO2
oo
are obligate aerobes.

124. Which of the following photosynthetic bacteria
(c) Vascular bundles of ferns show xylem
have both PS-I and PS-II ?
Eb
vessels while those of mosses lack it.

(d) Sporophytes of ferns live much longer as (a) Green sulphur bacteria
compared to the sporophytes of mosses. (b) Purple-sulphur bacteria
e
119. Red snow causing alga is (c) Purple non-sulphur bacteria

(d) Cyanobacteria
or
(a) Chlamydomonas nivalis

(b) Chlamydomonas reinhardtii 125. A plant completing its life cycle before the onset
M
(c) Chlamydomonas debaryanum of dry condition is said to be

(d) Chalmydomonas media (a) short day plant (b) long day plant
120. Which of the following statement (s) is/are (c) drought escaping (d) All of these
incorrect? 126. The graph shows the relation between light
(i) Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs intensity and the giving off and taking up of
of a flower. carbon dioxide by the leaves of a plant. Why is
(ii) Zygomorphic flower can be divided into two most carbon dioxide given off when the light
equal radial halves in any radial plane. intensity is zero units ?
EBD_7205
MT-130 NEET
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
130. Common indicator organism of water pollution is

(a) Because it is just the start of the experiment. (a) Lemna pancicostata
(b) Eichhornia crassipes
s
(b) Only respiration is taking place at this
(c) Escherichia coli
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intensity of light.
(c) Only photosynthesis is taking place at this (d) Entamoeba histolytica
bo
intensity of light. 131. Match the following
(d) The rate of photosynthesis is equivalent to A. Succession (i) Tansley
_e
the rate of respiration. B. Ecosystem (ii) Mobius
127. Which one of the following statement is false? C. Biocoenosis (iii) Hult
(i) Epidermal cell has small amount of cytoplasm
and a large vacuole.
Aj D. Acid Rain (iv) Robert Augus
(a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
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(ii) Waxy cuticle layer is absent in roots.
(b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(iii) Root hairs are unicellular, while stem hairs /
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
At
trichomes are multicellular.

(iv) Trichomes may be branched or unbranched, (d) A-(iiii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
soft or stiff and prevent transpiration. 132. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
ks
(v) Guard cells are dumbell shaped in dicots and (a) DNA finger printing.
bean-shaped in monocots.
oo
(b) Disarming pathogen vectors.

(a) (i) only (b) (iv) only (c) Transformation of plant cells.
(c) (iii) only (d) (v) only
Eb
(d) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining

128. Find the correct match with vectors.
A. Royal fern (i) Adiantum 133. Read the following four statements (i - iv).
e
B. Marshy fern (ii) Osmunda (i) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.
or
C. Grape fern (iii) Marsilea (ii) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is

D. Walking fern (iv) Botrychium
M
referred to as positive regulation.

(a) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) (iii) The human genome has approximately
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) 50,000 genes.
(c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv) (iv) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
(d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) disease.
129. Which one of the following graphs most closely How many of the above statements are correct?
represents the relationship between the rate of (a) Two (b) Three
transpiration of a mesophytic leaf and the
atmospheric humidity ? (c) Four (d) One
Mock Test -8 MT-131
134. The interaction is detrimental to both the species in 141. The volume of air breathed in and out during
(a) Predation (b) Commensalism normal breathing is called
(c) Ammensalism (d) Competition (a) Vital capacity
135. Which option is true about heart wood/ (b) Inspiratory reserve volume
duramen? (c) Expiratory reserve volume
(i) It does not help in water and mineral (d) Tidal volume
conduction. 142. Solenocytes and metanephridia are excretory
(ii) It is dark coloured but soft. organs of
(iii) It has tracheary elements filled with tannins, (a) Annelida and Arthropoda
resins, gums, oil, etc. (b) Platyhelminthes and Annelida
(iv) It is a peripheral part. (c) Coelenterata and Mollusca
(v) Sensitive to microbes and insects, hence (d) Aschelminthes and Annelida
least durable. 143. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is released in
s
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) response to the increase in blood volume and
ok
(c) (iv) and (v) (d) (iii) and (iv) blood pressure. Which of the followings is not
136. A few organisms are known to grow and multiply the function of ANF?
bo
at temperatures of 100–105ºC. They belong to (a) Stimulates aldosterone secretion
(a) marine archaebacteria (b) Inhibits the release of renin from JGA
_e
(b) thermophilic sulphur bacteria (c) Stimulates salt loss in urine
(c) blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) (d) Inhibits sodium reabsorption from collecting
(d) thermophilic, subaerial fungi Aj duct
137. Archaeopteryx is connecting link between 144. Which of the following diseases is caused by
@
(a) Reptiles and birds the under secretion of cortisol?
(b) Reptiles and mammals (a) Anaemia
(c) Fishes and reptiles
At
(b) Addison’s disease

(d) Chordates and nonchordates (c) Hyperglycemia
138. The fibres of the following muscles are fusiform (d) Mental illness or retardation
ks
and do not show striations 145. Every time you eat a cookie or candy bar, your
(a) Skeletal muscles (b) Cardiac muscles blood sugar increases. This triggers an increase
oo
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Smooth muscles in the hormone
139. Pancreatic cancer is an especially dangerous (a) thyroxine (b) epinephrine
Eb
disease in people because the pancreas is (c) glucagon (d) insulin

(a) the organ that produces and stores bile. 146. Which of the following sets represents vestigial
(b) the site of synthesis for all of the essential organs?
e
amino acids. (a) Vermiform appendix, body hair and patella

or
(c) one of the organs through which food must (b) Wisdom teeth, body hair and atlas vertebra
pass on its way to the colon.
M
(c) Ear muscles, cochlea and coccyx

(d) an organ in which many different kinds of (d) Vermiform appendix, ear muscles and coccyx
digestive enzymes are manufactured. 147. Which of the following is found in the lymph
140. Cholecystokinin is secretion of nodes of a person battling a cold virus?
(a) Duodenum that causes contraction of gall (a) Huge numbers of white blood cells
bladder (b) Trapped viruses that have been roaming the
(b) Goblet cells of ileum, stimulates secretion of body
succus entericus (c) Lymph ducts that enter and exit the nodes
(c) Liver and controls secondary sex characters (d) All of the above
(d) Stomach that stimulates pancreas to release
juice
EBD_7205
MT-132 NEET
148. Which one of the following pairs of hormones 154. Newly born child is more resistant to cold
are the examples of those that can easily pass because of the presence of
through the cell membrane of the target cell and (a) Thick dermis (b) Blubber
bind to a receptor inside it (Mostly in the
nucleus)? (c) Brown fat (d) White fat
(a) Insulin, glucagon 155. Which part of the alimentary canal does not
secrete any enzyme?
(b) Thyroxine, insulin (a) Mouth (b) Oesophagus
(c) Somatostatin, oxytocin (c) Stomach (d) Duodenum
(d) Cortisol, testosterone 156. The protein coated, water soluble fat globules
149. Where do certain symbiotic micro-organisms are called
normally occur in human body? (a) Chylomicrons (b) Micelles
(c) Chyle (d) Monoglycerides
(a) Caecum
s
157. What would happen if human blood becomes
ok
(b) Oral lining and tongue surface acidic (low pH)
(c) Vermiform appendix and rectum (a) Oxygen carying capacity of haemoglobin
bo
increases
(d) Duodenum
(b) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin
150. Minimum regeneration power is found in decreases
_e
(a) Blood (b) Epidermis (c) RBCs count increases
(c) Nervous tissue (d) Muscular tissue Aj(d) RBCs count decreases
158. Which one of the following is a matching pair?
151. Which of the following statements is/are not
@
(a) Lubb-Sharp closure of AV valves at the
true? beginning of ventricular systole
(i) In Urochordata, notochord is present in (b) Dup-Sudden opening of semilunar valves
At
larval tail. at the beginning of ventricular diastole

(ii) In Cephalochordata, notochord extends (c) Pulsation of the radial artery-Valves in the
ks
from head to tail region. blood vessels

(iii) Branchiostoma belongs to hemichordata. (d) Initiation of the heart beat -Purkinje fibres
oo
159. Reabsorption of chloride ions from glomerular

(iv) Only one class of living members, class filtrate in kidney tubule occurs by
Cyclostomata represents the super class
Eb
(a) Active transport

Agnatha (b) Diffusion
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) (c) Osmosis
e
(c) (iii) only (d) (i) and (iv) (d) Brownian movement
or
152. Plectenchyma is tissue composed of : 160. Ankle joint is

(a) Pivot Joint (b) Ball and socket joint
M
(a) mycelial threads of fungi

(c) Hinge joint (d) Gliding joint
(b) tracheids of higher plants 161. Which muscle group contracts when the
(c) aerenchyma (d) parenchyma patellar ligament is struck with a hammer (knee
153. If cardiac supply of vagus nerve is cut then reflex)?
(a) Rate of heart beat increases (a) Biceps femoris
(b) External obliques
(b) Rate of heart beat decreases (c) Rectus abdominis
(c) There is no change in heart beat (d) Quadriceps
(d) Heart stops beating
Mock Test -8 MT-133
162. A decrease in the level of oestrogen and 168. The chemical substance found in the surface
progesterone causes layer of cytoplasm of spermatozoa is:
(a) Growth and dilation of myometrium (a) fertilizin (b) agglutinin
(b) Growth of endometrium (c) antifertilizin (d) hyaluronidase
(c) Constriction of uterine blood vessels 169. Read the following 4-statements and mark the
leading to sloughing of endometrium or option that has both correct statements
uterine epithelium (i) MTP was legalized in 1971
(d) Release of ovum from the ovary. (ii) Inability to conceive or produce children
163. Structure connecting the foetus to placenta is even after 2 years of unprotected sexual
(a) umbilical cord (b) amnion cohabitation is called infertility
(c) yolk sac (d) chorion (iii) Surgical method of contraception prevents
164. In India which of the following species of honey gamete formation
bee is reared in artificial hives ? (iv) MTPs are relatively safe up to 12 weeks of
s
(a) Apis indica (b) Apis dorsata pregnancy
ok
(c) Apis florae (d) None of these (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
165. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
bo
a snake right in front on opening the door. Which 170. Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when
one of the following is likely to happen in his (a) Mother is Rh negative and father is Rh
_e
neuro-hormonal control system ? positive
(a) Sympathetic nervous system is activated (b) Father is Rh negative and mother is Rh
releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine Aj positive
from adrenal medulla. (c) Both are Rh positive
@
(b) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the (d) Both are Rh negative
cleft and transmit a nerve impulse. 171. Which of the following organisms is capable of
At
(c) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic producing gametes containing different sex
division of brain. chromosomes ?
(d) Sympathetic nervous system is activated
ks
(a) Male butterfuly (b) Human male

releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine
(c) Human female (d) Male bird
from adrenal cortex.
oo
166. Which one of the following pairs of chemical 172. Tadpoles of frog can be made to grow as giant
substances is correctly categorized? sized tadpoles, if they are
Eb
(a) Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid (a) administered antithyroid substance like
hormones thiourea
(b) Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive (b) administered large amounts of thyroxine
e
enzymes secreted in stomach (c) reared on a diet rich in egg yolk

or
(c) Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in (d) reared on a diet rich in both egg yolk and
striated muscles glucose
M
(d) Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide 173. In myopia or short sightedness

hormones (a) Image is formed slightly in front of retina
167. Damage to the nerve connecting the saccule and because eye ball is longer.
utricle to the brain could result in (b) Eye ball is normal but image is formed over
(a) loss of sense of taste blind spot.
(b) blindness (c) Eye ball is normal but images is formed
(c) dizziness slightly behind the retina due to faulty lens.
(d) loss of sense of smell (d) Curvature of cornea becomes irregular.
EBD_7205
MT-134 NEET
174. Sequence of meninges from inner to outside is 179. Which of the following set of animals has an
(a) Duramater – Arachnoid – Piamater incomplete double circulation system?
(b) Duramater – Piamater – Arachnoid (a) Frog and crocodile (b) Shark and whale
(c) Arachnoid – Duramater - Piamater (c) Lizard and pigeon (d) Toad and lizard
(d) Piamater- Arachnoid - Duramater 180. Look at the following pedigree chart. On what
175. Which hormone-bone cell combination may re- basis the trait represented by the solid symbols
sult in osteoporosis ? in the pedigree below cannot be explained ?
(a) adrenal cortisol-osteoclast
(b) estrogen-osteoblast
(c) thyroid hormone-osteoclast
(d) thyrocalcitonin-osteoblast
176. Joint between bones of human skull is
s
(a) Hinge joint (b) Synovial joint
ok
(c) Cartilaginous joint (d) Fibrous joint
177. Which one of the following is the correct
bo
description of a certain part of the normal human
(i) A dominant sex linked gene
skeleton ?
(ii) A recessive sex linked gene
_e
(a) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the (iii) A holandric gene
skull are joined by fibrous joint. (iv) A sex limited autosomal dominant
(b) First vertebra is axis which articulates with
Aj(v) A sex limited autosomal recessive
the occipital condyles.
@
(vi) A sex influenced autosonal gene dominat in
(c) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the males
floating ribs. (vii) A sex influenced autosomal gene recessive
At
(d) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the in males

thigh bone articulates. (a) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vii)
ks
178. Metanephric kidneys are found in (b) (i), (iii) and (vii)
(a) Reptiles only (b) Birds only (c) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
oo
(c) mammals only (d) All of these (d) (i), (iii), (v) and (vii)
Eb
e
or
M
Mock Test -9 MT-135
9JEE MAIN
MOCK TEST
s
ok
bo
INSTRUCTIONS
_e

Aj
@
At
Negative Marking :
ks
oo
W2 (W2 > W1). If the current before and after

PHYSICS changes are I1 and I2, all other conditions
Eb
1. Two flat circular coils have a common center, remaining unchanged, then (assuming hn > W2)
but their planes are at right angles to each other. (a) I1 = I2 (b) I1 < I2
The inner coil has 150 turns and radius of p cm. (c) I1 > I2 (d) I1 < I2 < 2 I1
e
The outer coil has 400 turns and a radius of 2p 3. When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased
or
cm. The magnitude of the resultant magnetic the flow of current across the junction is mainly
M
induction at the common centers of the coils due to

when a current of 200 mA is sent through each (a) diffusion of charges
of them is (b) drift of charges
(a) 10–3 Wb/m2 (c) depends on the nature of material
(b) 2 × 10–3 Wb/m2 (d) both drift and diffusion of charges
(c) 5 × 10–3 Wb/m2 4. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to
(d) 7 × 10–3 Wb/m2 the second orbit, one gets the
2. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed (a) second line of Lyman series
(b) second line of Paschen series
such that the work function changes from W1 to
EBD_7205
MT-136 NEET
(c) second line of Balmer series 11. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and
(d) first line of Pfund series b (b>a) are placed concentrically in air. The two
5. In a two dimensional motion, instantaneous are connected by a copper wire as shown in
speed v0 is a positive constant. Then which of figure. Then the equivalent capacitance of the
the following is necessarily true? system is
(a) The average velocity is not zero at any time ab B
(b) Average acceleration must always vanish (a) 4pe 0 b
b-a A
(c) Displacements in equal time intervals are
equal (b) 4pe 0 (a + b) a
(d) Equal plane lengths are traversed in equal
(c) 4pe 0 b
intervals
6. A ball of mass 150 g, moving with an acceleration (d) 4pe 0a
20 m/s2, is hit by a force, which acts on it for 0.1
s
ok
sec. The impulsive force is 12. The moment of inertia of a disc of mass m and
(a) 0.5 N (b) 0.1 N radius R about an axis, which is tangential to the
bo
(c) 0.3 N (d) 1.2 N circumference of the disc and parallel to its
7. A man is watching two trains, one leaving and diameter is
_e
the other coming with equal speed of 4 m/s. If 3 2
they sound their whistles each of frequency 240 (a) mR 2 (b) mR 2
Hz, the number of beats heard by man (velocity
Aj 2 3
of sound in air = 320 m/s) will be equal to 4
@
5
(a) 12 (b) 0 (c) mR 2 (d) mR 2
4 5
(c) 3 (d) 6
At
8. Two identical galvanometers are taken, one is to 13. A sphere of radius R has uniform volume charge
be converted into an ammeter and other into a density. The electric potential at a point (r < R) is
(a) due to the charge inside a sphere of radius r
ks
milliammeter. Shunt of milliammeter compared to

ammeter is only
oo
(a) less (b) more (b) due to the entire charge of the sphere
(c) zero (d) None of these (c) due to the charge in the spherical shell of
Eb
9. In a compound microscope, the intermediate inner and outer radii r and R, only
image is (d) independent of r
(a) virtual, erect and magnified 14. A light ray falls on a rectangular glass slab as
e
(b) real, erect and magnified shown. The index of refraction of the glass, if
or
(c) real, inverted and magnified total internal reflection is to occur at the vertical
(d) virtual, erect and reduced face, is
M
10. Let E a be the electric field due to a dipole in its

axial plane distant l and Eq be the field in the (a) 3/ 2 (b)
( 3 + 1)
2
equatorial plane distant l', then the relation
between Ea and Eq will be
(c)
( 2 +1 ) (d) 5 / 2
(a) E a = 4E q (b) E q = 2E a 2
(c) E a = 2E q (d) E q = 3E a 15. A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force
which causes a displacement s in meter in it, given
Mock Test -9 MT-137
1 2 21. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors

by the relation s = t , where t is in second. Work of electromagnetic wave are oriented along
3 (a) the same direction and in phase
done by the force in 2 second is (b) the same direction but h ave a phase
3 8 difference of 90º
(a) J (b) J (c) mutually perpendicular directions and are
8 3
in phase
19 5 (d) mutually perpendicular directions but has a
(c) J (d) J
5 19 phase difference of 90º
16. Under a constant torque the angular momentum 22. The specific heat capacity of a metal at low
of a body changes from A to 4A in 4 second. The temperature (T) is given as
torque on the body will be 3
æ T ö
C p (kJK –1kg –1 ) = 32 ç
s
1 ÷ . A 100 g vessel
è 400 ø
ok
(a) 1A (b) A
4 of this metal is to be cooled from 20 K to 4 K by
bo
a special refrigerator operating at room
4 3
(c) A (d) A temperature (27°C). The amount of work required
3 4
_e
to cool in vessel is
17. An electric bulb marked 40 W and 200V, is used in (a) equal to 0.002 kJ
a circuit of supply voltage 100V. Now its power is Aj (b) greater than 0.148 kJ
(a) 10 W (b) 20 W
(c) between 0.148 kJ and 0.028 kJ
@
(c) 40 W (d) 100 W
18. The height at which the acceleration due to (d) less than 0.028 kJ
23. Solar radiation emitted by sun resembles that
At
g emitted by a black body at a temperature of 6000

gravity becomes (where g = the acceleration
9 K. Maximum intensity is emitted at a wavelength
ks
due to gravity on the surface of the earth) in of about 4800 Å. If the sun were to cool down
terms of R, the radius of the earth, is from 6000 K to 3000K, then the peak intensity
oo
R would occur at a wavelength

(a) (b) R / 2 (a) 4800 Å (b) 9600 Å (c) 7200 Å (d) 6400Å
Eb
2
24. Two particles are oscillating along two close
(c) 2 R (d) 2 R parallel straight lines side by side, with the same
19. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of frequency and amplitudes. They pass each other,
e
intensities I and 4 I are superimposed. The moving in opposite directions when their
or
maximum and minimum possible intensities in displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean
the resulting beam are
M
positions of the two particles lie on a straight

(a) 5I and I (b) 5I and 3I line perpendicular to the paths of the two
(c) 9I and I (d) 9I and 3I particles. The phase difference is
20. When a wave travels in a medium the particles (a) 0 (b) 2p/3
displacement is given by the equation y = 0.03 (c) p (d) p/6
sin p(2t – 0.01x), where x and y are in seconds. 25. A particle of mass 10 g is kept on the surface of
The wavelength of the wave is a uniform sphere of mass 100 kg and radius 10
(a) 200 m (b) 100 m cm. Find the work to be done against the
(c) 20 m (d) 10 m gravitational force between them to take the
EBD_7205
MT-138 NEET
particle far away from the sphere (Take G = 6.67 31. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point
× 10–11Nm2/kg2) source of light 1 m away. When the source is
(a) 3.33 × 10–10 J (b) 13.34 × 10–10 J shifted to 2 m, then
(c) 6.67 × 10 J–10 (d) 6.67 × 10–9 J (a) number of electrons emitted is a quarter of
26. What is the acceleration of a projectile at its the initial number
heighest point (b) each emitted electron carries one quarter of
(a) maximum (b) minimum the initial energy
(c) zero (d) g (c) number of electrons emitted is half the initial
27. A particle is moving in a circle of radius r number
under the action of a force F = ar2 which is (d) each emitted electron carries half the initial
directed towards centre of the circle. Total energy
mechanical energy (kinetic energy + potential 32. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the
energy) of the particle is (take potential energy
s
temperature of sink is reduced by 62°C, its
ok
= 0 for r = 0) : efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is
1 3 5 3 (a) 37°C (b) 62°C
ar (b) ar
bo
(a) (c) 99°C (d) 124°C
2 6 ur ur
4 3 33. Two point dipoles of dipole moment p1 and p 2
_e
(c) αr (d) ar3 ur ur
3 are at a distance x from each other and p1 || p 2 .
28. For the given situation as shown in the figure,
the value of q to keep the system in equilibrium
Aj The force between the dipoles is :
@
will be 1 4 p1 p2 1 3 p1 p2
T1
(a) (b)
q 4pe0 x 4 4pe0 x3
At
(a) 30° (b) 45° 1 6 p1 p2 1 8 p1 p2

(c) (d)
4pe0 x 4 4pe0 x 4
ks
(c) 0° (d) 90° T2

34. The Bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is
oo
W = 60N (a) zero (b) unity

29. The kinetic theory of gases (c) infinity (d) between 0 and 1
Eb
(a) explains the behaviour of an ideal gas 35. If unit of length and force are increased 4 times.
(b) describes the motion of a single atom or The unit of energy
e
molecule (a) is increased by 4 times

or
(c) relates the temperature of the gas with K.E. (b) is increased by 16 times
of atoms of the gas (c) is increased by 8 times
M
(d) all of the above (d) remains unchanged

30. A uniform magnetic field acts at right angles to 36. A particle starting from rest falls from a certain
the direction of motion of electron. As a result, height. Assuming that the acceleration due to
the electron moves in a circular path of radius 2 gravity remain the same throughout the motion,
cm. If the speed of electron is doubled, then the its displacements in three successive half second
radius of the circular path will be intervals are S1, S2 and S3 then
(a) 2.0 cm (b) 0.5 cm (a) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 5 : 9
(c) 4.0 cm (d) 1.0 cm (b) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5
Mock Test -9 MT-139
(c) S1 : S2 : S3 = 9 : 2 : 3
g
(d) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 1 : 1 (b) for an amplitude of
37. A mass of 2kg is whirled in a horizontal circle by w2
means of a string at initial speed of 5 revolution
g2
per minute. Keeping the radius constant, the (c) for an amplitude of
tension in the string is doubled. The new speed w2
is nearly (d) at the highest position of the platform
(a) 2.25 rpm (b) 7 rpm 42. A mass m is suspended from a spring of force
(c) 10 rpm (d) 14 rpm constant k and just touches another identical
38. A transformer is employed to spring fixed to the floor as shown in the figure.
(a) convert A.C. into D.C. The time period of small oscillations is
(b) convert D.C. into A.C.
s
(c) obtain a suitable A.C. voltage k
ok
(d) obtain a suitable D.C. voltage
ur m
39. A vector A is rotated by a small angle Dq radian
bo
ur
(Dq << 1) to get a new vector B In that case
ur ur k
_e
B - A is :
ur ur ur Aj
(a) A Dq (b) B Dq - A
m m m
2p p +p
@
(a) (b)
ur æ Dq ö 2 k k k/2
(c) A çç 1 - ÷ (d) 0
2 ÷ø
At
è
m m m
40. The current I drawn from the 5 volt source will be (c) p (d) p +p
3k / 2 k 2k
ks
10W
43. Two wires of same material and length but cross-
oo
5W 10W 20W
sections in the ratio 1 : 2 are used to suspend the
same loads. The extensions in them will be in the
Eb
ratio of
I 10W (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
+– (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
e
5 volt 44. The meniscus of a liquid contained in one of the

or
limbs of a narrow U-tube is held in an

(a) 0.33 A (b) 0.5 A
M
electromagnet with the meniscus in line with the

(c) 0.67 A (d) 0.17 A
field. The liquid is seen to rise. This indicates
41. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which
that the liquid is
undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion of
angular frequency w. The amplitude of oscillation (a) ferromagnetic (b) paramagnetic
is gradually increased. The coin will leave (c) diamagnetic (d) non-magnetic
contact with the platform for the first time 45. The coefficient of self inductance of a solenoid
(a) at the mean position of the platform is 0.18 mH. If a core of soft iron of relative
EBD_7205
MT-140 NEET
permeability 900 is inserted, then the coefficient The compound I is :

of self inductance will become nearly.
(a) CH 2 - CH - CH3
(a) 5.4 mH (b) 162 mH
(c) 0.006 mH (d) 0.0002 mH Cl Cl
(b) CH 2 - CH 2 - CH3
CHEMISTRY
Cl Cl
46. –34
The values of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10 Js. (c) CH – CH – CH 2 – CH 3
The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 m s–1. Which Cl
value is closest to the wavelength in nanometres
of a quantum of light with frequency of Cl
8 × 1015 s–1?
s
(d) CH3 – C – CH3
(a) 5 × 10–18 (b) 4 × 101
ok
(c) 3 × 10 7
(d) 2 × 10–25 Cl
51. In which of the following sets, all the given
bo
47. Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to :
(a) shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due species are isostructural ?
(a) CO2, NO2, ClO2, SiO2
_e
to elastic collisions
(b) loss of active species on collision (b) PCl3, Al Cl3, BCl3, SbCl3
(c) low probability of simultaneous collision of Aj (c) BF3, NF3, PF3, Al F3
_
all the reacting species (d) BF4 , CCl 4 , NH 4+ , PCl 4+
@
(d) increase in entropy and activation energy as 52. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1×10 –3 to
more molecules are involved 1×10 –2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure
At
48. Which of the following order is wrong? of 1×105 Nm–2. The work done is
(a) NH 3 < PH 3 < AsH 3 — Acidic (a) 270 kJ (b) – 900 kJ
ks
(b) Li < Be < B < C — IE 1 (c) – 900 J (d) 900 kJ

53. On the basis of the information available from
(c) Al 2 O3 < MgO < Na 2 O < K 2 O — Basic
oo
4 2
(d) Li+ < Na + < K + < Cs+ — Ionic radius the reaction Al + O 2 ¾
¾® Al 2 O 3 ,
3 3
Eb
49. A compound of a metal ion M x + (Z = 24) has a

D G = - 827 kJmol - 1 of O2, the minimum e.m.f.
spin only magnetic moment of 15 Bohr required to carry out electrolysis of Al2O3 is
e
Magnetons. The number of unpaired electrons (F = 96500 C mol–1)

or
in the compound are (a) 4.28 V (b) 6.42 V

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8.56 V (d) 2.14 V
M
(c) 5 (d) 3 54. Iron sulphide is heated in air to form A, an oxide

50. In the following reaction sequence : of sulphur. A is dissolved in water to give an
I KOH( aq ) (i) CH 3MgBr acid. The basicity of this acid is
¾¾¾¾¾ ® II ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® III (a) 2 (b) 3
(C3H6Cl2) (ii) H 2O/H +
(c) 1 (d) Zero
given
Anhy.ZnCl2 + Conc.HCl 55. Which of the following cannot be made by using
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® turbidity
Williamson’s synthesis?
immediately
(a) Methoxybenzene
Mock Test -9 MT-141
(b) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether (a) Sn4+ is a stronger oxidising agent than Pb4+
(c) Methyl tertiary butyl ether (b) Sn2+ is a stronger reducing agent than Hg22+
(d) Di-tert-butyl ether (c) Pb2+ is a stronger oxidisng agent than Pb4+
56. Two closed bulbs of equal volume (V) containing
(d) Pb2+ is a stronger reducing agent than Sn 2+
an ideal gas initially at pressure pi and tem-
59. Match the columns
perature T1 are connected through a narrow tube Column-I Column-II
of negligible volume as shown in the figure (A) Compound formed (p) acidified
below. The temperature of one of the bulbs is
then raised to T2. The final pressure pf is : when yellow CrO24 - is MnO-4
T1 T1 T1
acidified.
T2
pf,V pf,V (B) reagent oxidises Fe2+ (q) Cr2 O72-
s
to Fe3+
ok
(C) Compound produced (r) K2MnO4
æ T ö æ T T ö when MnO2 is fused
2 pi ç 2 ÷ 2 pi ç 1 2 ÷
bo
(a) (b)
è T1 + T2 ø è T1 + T2 ø with KNO3
(D) Compound having (s) KMnO4
_e
æ T T ö æ T1 ö dark purple crystals
(c) pi ç 1 2 ÷ (d) 2 pi ç ÷
è T1 + T2 ø è T1 + T2 ø Aj isostructural with KClO4
57. Which of the following is an expression of Raoults (a) A – (q),B – (p), C – (r), D – (s)
@
law if PA is the partial pressure of the solvent in a (a) A – (p),B – (q), C – (r), D – (s)
solution. P0A is the partial pressure of pure solvent (a) A – (q),B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
At
and if XA and XB are the mole fraction of the solute (a) A – (q),B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
and the solvent respectively? 60. Phenol on reaction with Br2 in non-polar aprotic
ks
æ 1 ö solvent furnishes
(a) PA = PAo x A (b) PA = PAo x A ç ÷ (a) 2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol
è xB ø
oo
(b) p-Bromophenol
æx ö (c) o- and p-Bromophenol
(c) PA = PAo x B (d) PAo = P ç A ÷
Eb
(d) m-Bromophenol
è xB ø
58. Standard potentials (E°) for some half-reactions 61. 2NH3(g), K1
(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g)
e
are given below :

or
2NO(g), K2
(2) N2(g) + O2(g)
(I) Sn 4 + + 2e ¾¾
® Sn 2 + ; E° = +0.15V
M
1
O (g) H O(g), K3
2 2 2
(II) 2Hg 2+ + 2e ¾
¾® Hg 22 + ; E° = 0.92V (3) H2(g) +
The equation for the equilibrium constant of the
(III) PbO 2 + 4 H + + 2e ¾
¾® Pb 2+ + 2 H 2 O; reaction
E° = +1.45V 5
based on the above, which one of the following 2NH3(g) + 2NO(g) + 3H O(g),
O2 (g) 2
2
statements is correct?
(K4) in terms of K1, K2 and K3 is :
EBD_7205
MT-142 NEET
K1.K 2 K1.K 32 (b) Rhombic and monoclinic sulphur have S8

(a) (b) molecules.
K3 K2
(c) S2 is paramagnetic like oxygen
K 2 .K 33 (d) S8 ring has a crown shape.
(c) K1 K2 K3 (d) 67. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not
K1
observed ?
62. A metallic crystal crystallizes into a lattice
(a) Suspensions (b) Emulsions
containing a sequence of layers AB AB
(c) Sugar solution (d) Gold sol
AB......Any packing of spheres leaves out voids
in the lattice. What percentage of volume of this 68. The most electropositive metals are isolated from
lattice is empty space? their ores by
(a) 74% (b) 26% (a) High temperature reduction with carbon
s
(c) 50% (d) none of these. (b) Self reduction
ok
63. Which one of the following arrangements (c) Thermal decomposition
represents the correct order of solubilities of (d) Electrolysis of fused ionic salts
bo
sparingly soluble salts Hg2Cl2, Cr 2(SO4)3, BaSO4 69. The hypothetical complex chloro diaquatri-
and CrCl3 respectively ? amminecobalt (III) chloride can be represented
_e
(a) BaSO4 > Hg 2 Cl2 > Cr2 (SO 4 )3 > CrCl3 as
Aj (a) [CoCl(NH3)3(H2O)2 ]Cl2
(b) BaSO4 > Hg 2 Cl2 > CrCl3 > Cr2 (SO4 )3 (b) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)Cl3]
@
(c) BaSO4 > CrCl3 > Hg 2Cl 2 > Cr2 (SO4 )3 (c) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)2Cl]
(d) Hg 2Cl 2 > BaSO4 > CrCl3 > Cr2 (SO4 )3 (d) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3
At
70. Which of the following is a polyamide molecule?

64. Which among the following factors is the most
important in making fluorine the strongest (a) Terylene (b) Rayon
ks
oxidizing halogen ? (c) Nylon – 6 (d) Polystyrene

71. Consider the following ionization enthalpies of
oo
(a) Hydration enthalpy

two elements ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(b) Ionization enthalpy
Eb
(c) Electron affinity Element Ionization enthalpy (kJ/mol)

(d) Bond dissociation energy 1st 2nd 3rd
A 899 1757 14847
65. a-D- Glucose and b- D-glucose differ from each
e
B 737 1450 7731

other due to difference in one carbon with
or
respect to its Which of the following statements is correct ?

M
(a) Size of hemiacetal ring (a) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to group–1 where
(b) Number of OH groups ‘B’ comes below ‘A’.
(c) Configuration (b) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to group–1 where
(d) Conformation ‘A’ comes below ‘B’.
66. Identify the incorrect statement :
(c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to group–2 where
(a) The S–S–S bond angles in the S8 and S6 ‘B’ comes below ‘A’.
rings are the same.
(d) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to group–2 where
‘A’ comes below ‘B’.
Mock Test -9 MT-143
72. The pH of a solution is increased from 3 to 6; its

(a) MnO-4 (b) Cr2 O72-
H+ ion concentration will be
(a) reduced to half (c) SO32- (d) KI
(b) doubled 77. The enthalpy of formation for C2H4 (g) CO2 (g)
(c) reduced by 1000 times and H2O (l) at 25º C and 1 atm pressure are
(d) increased by 1000 times 52, –394 and – 286 kJ mol–1 respectively. The
73. The first ionization energies of alkaline earth enthalpy of combustion of C2H4 (g) will be
metals are higher than those of the alkali metals. (a) +1412 kJ mol –1 (b) –1412 kJ mol –1
This is because –1
(c) 141.2 kJ mol (d) –141.2 kJ mol–1
(a) There is an increase in the nuclear charge of
the alkaline earth metals 78. Consider the following standard electrode
potentials (E° in volts) in aqueous solution :
(b) There is a decrease in the nuclear charge of
s
Element M3+/ M M+/M
the alkaline earth metals
ok
Al –1.66 + 0.55
(c) There is no change in the nuclear charge
TI +1.26 – 0.34
bo
(d) None of the above Based on these data, which of the following
74. Identify the statement that is not correct as far statements is correct ?
_e
as structure of diborane is concerned (a) Tl+ is more stable than Al3+
(a) There are two bridging hydrogen atoms and (b) Al+ is more stable than Al3+
four terminal hydrogen atoms in diborane
Aj (c) Tl+ is more stable than Al+
(b) Each boron atom forms four bonds in (d) Tl3+ is more stable than Al3+
@
diborane 79. Ozone is an important constituent of stratosphere
(c) The hydrogen atoms are not in the same because it
At
plane in diborane (a) Destroys bacteria which are harmful to

human life
(d) All, B – H bonds in diborane are similar
ks
(b) Prevents the formation of smog over large

75. Which of the following is correct order of acidity?
cities
oo
(a) HCOOH > CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH > (c) Removes poisonous gases of the
C2H5COOH atmosphere by reacting with them
Eb
(b) ClCH2COOH > HCOOH > CH3COOH > (d) Absorbs ultraviolet radiation which is
C2H5COOH harmful to human life
e
(c) CH3COOH > HCOOH > ClCH2COOH > 80. Which of the following products is formed when
or
C2H5COOH benzaldehyde is treated with CH3MgBr and the

(d) C2H5COOH > CH3 COOH > HCOOH > addition product so obtained is subjected to
M
ClCH2COOH acid hydrolysis ?

76. Hydrogen peroxide acts both as an oxidising (a) A secondary alcohol
and as a reducing agent depending upon the (b) A primary alcohol
nature of the reacting species. In which of the (c) Phenol
following cases H2O2 acts as a reducing agent (d) tert-Butyl alcohol
in acid medium?
EBD_7205
MT-144 NEET
81. In which of the following pairs, there is greatest 86. An element (X) forms compounds of the formula
difference in the oxidation number of the XCl3, X2O5 and Ca3X2 but does not form XCl5.
underlined elements ? Which of the following is the element X ?
(a) B (b) Al
(a) NO 2 and N 2 O 4 (b) P 2 O 5 and P 4 O10
(c) N (d) P
(c) N 2 O and N O (d) SO2 and SO3 87. Which metal is present in brass, bronze and
German silver?
82. The boiling point of a solution of 0.11 g of a
(a) Zn (b) Mg
substance in 15 g of ether was found to be 0.1°C
(c) Cu (d) Al
higher than that of pure ether. The molecular
weight of the substance will be (Kb = 2.16°K kg 88. Both geometrical and optical isomerisms are
shown by
mol–1)
(a) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (b) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
(a) 148 (b) 158
s
(c) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] + (d) [Cr(ox)3]3–
ok
(c) 168 (d) 178
89. Which one of the following is most reactive
83. Which one of the following is an example of towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?
bo
homogeneous catalysis ?
(a) CH 2 = CH - Cl
(a) Haber’s process of synthesis of ammonia
_e
(b) Catalytic conversion of SO 2 to SO3 in (b) C6 H 5Cl
contact process Aj (c) CH 3CH = CH - Cl
(c) Catalytic hydrogenation of oils
(d) ClCH 2 - CH = CH 2
@
(d) Acid hydrolysis of methyl acetate
84. The decomposition of a substance follows first 90. Which of the following is strongest Lewis base?
(a) CH3– (b) NH2–
At
order kinetics. Its concentration is reduced to 1/ –

(c) OH (d) F–
8th of its initial value in 24 minutes. The rate
constant of the decomposition process is
ks
(a) 1/24 min–1 BIOLOGY

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0.692
(b) min -1 91. The polynucleated condition appeared by free
24
Eb
nuclear division without cytokinesis is

2.303 æ1ö (a) Syncytium
(c) log ç ÷ min -1
24 è8ø (b) Coenocytic
e
(c) Found in amphibian oocyte

or
2.303 æ8ö
(d) log ç ÷ min -1 (d) All of these
M
24 è1ø 92. What is the similarity between gymnosperms and

85. The electronic configuration of elements A, B and angiosperms ?
C are [He] 2s1, [Ne] 3s1 and [Ar] 4s1 respectively. (a) Phloem of both have companian cells.
Which one of the following order is correct for (b) Endosperm is formed before fertilization in
IE1 (in kJ mol–1) of A, B and C? both.
(a) A > B > C (b) C > B > A (c) Origin of ovule and seed is similar in both.
(c) B > C > A (d) C > A > B (d) Both have leaves, stem and roots.
Mock Test -9 MT-145
93. Fibrous root system is better adapted than tap (d) IAA, NAA, IBA, 2, 4-D and 2, 4, 5-T are
root system for synthetic auxins.
(a) transport of organic matter 99. In angiospermic plant having chromosome
(b) absorption of water and minerals number of 12 will have chromosome number in
integuments and nucellus of
(c) storage of food
(a) 4 (b) 6
(d) anchorage of plant to soil (c) 12 (d) 24
94. Which of the following element is necessary 100. When two gray-bodied fruit flies are mated, their
for translocation of sugars in plants ? offspring total 86 gray-bodied males, 81 yellow-
(a) Boron (b) Molybdenum bodied males, and 165 gray-bodied females. The
(c) Manganese (d) Iron allele for yellow body is
95. In meiosis, actual haploidy in terms of DNA (a) sex-linked and dominant.
(b) not sex-linked and dominant.
comes in
s
(c) sex-linked and recessive.
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(a) Metaphase-I (b) Anaphase-II (d) not sex-linked and recessive.
(c) Anaphase-I (d) Interkinesis 101. In negative operon
bo
96. Proton pumps in the plasma membranes of plant (a) co-repressor binds with repressor
cells may (b) co-repressor does not bind with repressor
_e
(a) generate a membrane potential that helps (c) co-repressor binds with inducer
drive cations into the cell through their (d) cAMP have negative effect on lac operon
specific carriers.
(b) be coupled to the movement of K+ into guard
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102. Which of the following does not have stomata?
(a) Hydrophytes
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cells. (b) Mesophytes
(c) drive the accumulation of sucrose in sieve- (c) Xerophytes
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tube members. (d) Submerged hydrophytes

(d) be involved in all of the above 103. Which of the following is pair of bio-fertilizers?
(a) Azolla and BGA
ks
97. The Z-scheme refers to

(a) the type of photosynthesis occurs in plants (b) Nostoc and legumes
(c) Rhizobium and grasses
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found in areas with minimal precipitation.

(b) the pattern of grana within the chloroplasts (d) Salmonella and E. coli
104. Transgenic plants are the ones:
Eb
of photosynthetic plants.
(a) generated by introducing foreign DNA into
(c) the carbon-fixation process which is also
a cell and regenerating a plant from that cell.
known as the Calvin cycle.
e
(b) produced after protoplast fusion in artificial

(d) an energy diagram for the transfer of medium.
or
electrons in the light reactions of (c) grown in artificial medium after hybridization
photosynthesis in plants.
M
in the field.
98. Which one of the following statement regarding (d) produced by a somatic embryo in artificial
auxin is/are correct? medium.
(a) IAA and IBA are natural but NAA, 2, 4-D 105. Which one of the following is the matching pair of
and 2, 4, 5-T are synthetic auxins. a sanctuary and its main protected wild animals :
(b) IAA and NAA are natural but IBA, 2, 4, 5-T (a) North Eastern Himalayan region- Sambar
and 2, 4-D are synthetic auxin. (b) Sunderbans - Rhino
(c) NAA and 2, 4, 5-T are natural but IAA, IBA (c) Gir - Lion
and 2, 4-D are synthetic auxins. (d) Kaziranga - Musk deer
EBD_7205
MT-146 NEET
106. The basis of karyotaxonomy is 114. Tomatoes exhibiting delayed ripening were
(a) Number of nucleoli developed by a biotechnique that involved:
(b) Sedimentation rate of ribosomes (a) DNA against enzymes
(c) Chromosome banding (b) Antisense RNA
(d) Chromosome number (c) Mutation
107. In Chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction occurs by (d) None of the above
(a) isogamy and anisogamy 115. Homeobox polypeptide segments
(b) isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
(a) serve as histones, facilitating DNA
(c) oogamy only
packing.
(d) anisogamy and oogamy
(b) bind to DNA and activate or repress gene
108. Velamen is found in
transcription.
(a) roots of screwpine
s
(b) aerial and terrestrial roots of orchids (c) are vastly different in different organisms.
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(c) leaves of Ficus elastica (d) act as enzymes, carrying out important
(d) only aerial roots of orchids chemical reactions.
bo
109. Collenchyma differs from parenchyma in having 116. Which one among the following chemicals is
(a) living protoplasm used for causing defoliation of forest trees?
_e
(b) cellulose walls (a) Phosphon-D
(c) vacuoles Aj(b) Malic hydrazide
(d) pectin deposits at corners (c) 2, 4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
@
110. Which of the following amino acid has a hydroxyl (d) Amo-1618
group? 117. If the forest cover is reduced to half, what is
(a) Valine (b) Threonine
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most likely to happen on a long term basis ?

(c) Leucine (d) Histidine (a) Tribals living in these areas will starve to
111. Aquaporins are
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death
(a) Cytoplasmic connections between cortex (b) Cattle in these and adjoining areas will die
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cells. due to lack of fodder

(b) Openings in the lower epidermis of leaves
(c) Large areas will become deserts
Eb
through which water vapour escapes

(c) Openings into root hairs through which (d) Crop breeding programmes will suffer due to
water enters a reduced availability of variety of germplasm
e
(d) Water specific channels in membranes that 118. Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane emission is
or
may regulate the rate of osmosis. (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide
112. Which one is a C4-plant? (c) Methane (d) Fluorocarbon
M
(a) Papaya (b) Pea 119. Which one is correct match

(c) Potato (d) Maize/Corn A. Soil I. Recharge
113. Which of the following is an important B. Ground water II. Rotational grazing
intermediate found in all the types of respiration? C. Forest management III. Reverine forest
(a) Acetyl CoA (b) Pyruvic acid
D. Grassland IV. Taungya
(c) Oxaloacetate (d) Tricarboxylic acid
management V. Erosion
Mock Test -9 MT-147
E. Wetland VI. Energy (c) In mature leaves.

A B C D E (d) Senescing leaves and roots.
(a) V I IV II III 126. In laboratory experiments, two species of the
(b) I IV III II V protist Paramecium were grown alone and in
(c) V I IV III II the presence of the other species. The following
(d) V II III IV I graphs show growth of species 1 (left) and
120. The amalgamation for six-kingdom classification species 2 (right), both alone and when in mixed
into domains given by Carl Woese was based culture.
upon
Species 1 Species 2
(a) Types of r-RNA
Alone
(b) Sequence of ribosomal RNA genes
(c) Sequence of genes on DNA
s
Number of Alone
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(d) Cell wall composition
individuals With
121. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced species 2 With
species1
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feature because it shows
Time
(a) physiologically differentiated sex organs
_e
(b) different sizes of motile sex organs Interpretation of these graphs shows that
Aj (a) Competitive exclusion occurred in these
(c) same size of motile sex organs
experiments.
(d) morphologically different sex organs (b) Both species are affected by interspecific
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122. Moniliform or beaded roots are storage root in competition but species 1 is affected less.
(a) Dahlia (b) Asparagus (c) Both species are affected by interspecific
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(c) Momordica (d) Portulaca competition but species 2 is affected less.

(d) Both species are affected equally by
123. Which of the following plant shows multiple
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interspecific competition.
epidermis?
127. Which one of the following insecticides is more
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(a) Croton (b) Allium stable in the environment?

(c) Nerium (d) Cucurbita (a) DDT (b) Diazinon
Eb
124. Types of coiling found during mitosis is (c) Camphechlor (d) Malathion
(a) Plectonemic 128. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzymes are
inactivated, then there will be no
e
(b) Paranemic
(a) fixation of nitrogen in legumes
or
(c) Both a and b (b) fixation of atmospheric nitrogen

M
(d) Synaptonemal complex (c) conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes

125. In an experiment, mature leaves on the plant were (d) conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil
enclosed for a fixed amount of time in a 129. Which one of the following is an example of Ex-
transparent bag that had radioactive CO2. In situ conservation?
which part of the plant will maximum radioactivity (a) Wildlife sanctuary (b) Seed bank
be found after some time? (c) Sacred groves (d) National park
(a) Actively growing leaves. 130. The class of enzymes that catalyze the removal
of a group from a substrate without addition of
(b) Guard cells of all the leaves.
water, leaving double bonds, is
EBD_7205
MT-148 NEET
(a) Transferases (b) Dehydrogenases Stage 4 in the diagram occurs in mammalian

(c) Hydrolases (d) Lyases muscle cells under anaerobic conditions. Why is
131. The main organelle involved in modification and surge 4 necessary?
routing of newly synthesized proteins to their (a) to detoxfying, pyruvate
destinations is (b) to form lactate which is immediately recon-
(a) chloroplast verted to glycogen.
(b) mitochondria (c) to oxidise the reduced nicotinamide adenine
(c) lysosome di-nucleotide facilitating stage 2
(d) endoplasmic reticulum (d) to reduce the oxidised nicotinamide adenine
132. Which of the following statements about dinucleotide facilitating stage 2
nitrogen fixation is false ? 135. Common enzyme in glycolysis and pentose
(a) Nitrogen ase is only catalytic under phosphate pathways is
s
anaerobic conditions. (a) hexokinase (b) aconitase
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(b) The energy for nitrogen fixation can be (c) fumarase (d) dehydrogenase
provided by either photosynthesis or 136. Bacteria lack alternation of generation because
bo
respiration. there is
(a) neither syngamy nor reduction division.
_e
(c) In nitrogen fixation, nitrogen is reduced by
(b) distinct chromosomes are absent.
the addition of three successive pairs of
(c) no conjugation.
hydrogen atoms. Aj(d) no exchange of genetic material.
(d) Most nitrogen fixing microbes are aerobic. 137. Which one of the following categories of
@
133. When a photosynthetic plant is transferred to animals, is correctly described with no single
an atmosphere of enriched O2, its rate of exception in it?
At
(a) photosynthesis would increase. (a) All sponges are marine and have collar cells.
(b) photosynthesis would decrease. (b) All mammals are viviparous and possess
ks
(c) respiration would decrease. diaphragm for breathing.

(d) osmosis would increase. (c) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and
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134. The diagram below summarises the stages in- an operculum on each side.
volved in respiratory metabolism of mammalian (d) All reptiles possess scales, have a three
Eb
skeletal muscle. chambered heart and are cold blooded

(poikilothermal).
hexoses 138. Which word combination applies to stratified
e
1 squamous epithelium ?
or
triose phosphate (a) Mesoderm - calcification

2
M
lactate (b) Ecoderm - keratinization

pyruvate
3 4 (c) Mesoderm - ossification
acetyl coenzyme A (d) Endoderm - cornification
139. Which of the following is a component of vitamin
tricarboxylic acid (Krebs) cycle (thiamine, biotin), Acetyl CoA, cysteine,
methionine and ferrerdoxin?
electron transport chain
(a) Fe (b) S
(c) Co (d) K
Mock Test -9 MT-149
140. About 70% of CO2 is transported as 146. In which condition, the gene ratio remains
(a) Carbonic acid constant for any species?
(b) Carboxyhaemoglobin (a) Sexual selection (b) Random mating
(c) Bicarbonates (c) Mutation (d) Gene flow
(d) Carbamino compounds 147. Geometric representation of age structure is a
141. In human heart, which of the following valve characteristic of
remains in contact of the oxygenated blood only? (a) population (b) landscape
(a) Tricuspid valve (b) Semilunar valve (c) ecosystem (d) biotic community
(c) Eustachian valve (d) Mitral valve 148. What is true for monoclonal antibodies?
142. The urine under normal conditions does not (a) These antibodies obtained from one parent
contain glucose because and for one antigen
(a) The normal blood sugar is fructose
s
(b) These antibodies obtained from one parent
(b) Glucose of blood is not filtered in the
ok
and for two antigens
glomerulus (c) These antibodies obtained from one parent
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(c) Glucose in glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed and for many antigens
in the uriniferous tubules (d) These antibodies obtained from many
_e
(d) Glucose in glomerular filtrate is converted parents and for many antigens
into glycogen. 149. Phosphorus is a sedimentary nutrient. This means
143. Which of the following sets of vertebrate Ajit
hormones are all produced in the anterior
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(a) cycles very slowly.
pituitary gland ?
(b) never enters the atmosphere.
(a) Somatostatin, vasopressin, insulin
(c) settles as sediment in the ocean.
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(b) Prolactin, growth hormone, enkephalins

(c) Oxytocin, prolactin, adrenocorticotropin
ks
(d) Estrogen, progesterone, testosterone 150. Genetic material of TMV is

144. Which one of the following statements is (a) RNA (b) DNA
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incorrect about menstruation? (c) Both (d) Protein

(a) During normal menstruation about 40 ml. 151. All but one of the following bones are found in
Eb
blood is lost the human appendicular skeleton. Select the ex-

(b) The menstrual fluid can easily clot ception.
(a) Finger bones (b) Upper arm bone
e
(c) At menopause in the female, there is

or
especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic (c) Jaw bone (d) Ankle bones
hormones 152. In which of the following animals, respiration
M
(d) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation occurs without any respiratory organ?
is called menarche (a) Frog (b) Fish
145. Find the incorrect match (c) Cockroach (d) Earthworm
(a) Super bug – A.N. Chakroborty 153. Spending the dry hot period in an inactive state
(b) Minisatellites – Alec Jeffrey by an animal is
(c) Genomics – Roderick (a) camouflage (b) hibernation
(d) Dolly – Gurdon (c) aestivation (d) mullerian mimicry
EBD_7205
MT-150 NEET
154. In animal cells, cytokinesis involves (c) ovary to uterus

(a) the separation of sister chromatids (d) vagina to uterus
(b) the contraction of the contractile ring of 160. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is
microfilament considered safe up to how many weeks of
(c) depolymerisation of kinetochore pregnancy?
microtubules (a) Eight weeks (b) Twelve weeks
(d) a protein kinase that phosphorylates other (c) Eighteen weeks (d) Six weeks
enzymes 161. During blood typing, agglutination indicates that
155. Myocardial Infarction is caused by the
(a) hardening of arteries (a) RBCs carry certain antigens
(b) lumpy thickness develop in the inner walls (b) Plasma contains certain antigens
of arteries (c) RBCs carry certain antibodies
s
(c) clot may occur in the lumen of a coronary (d) Plasma contains certain antibodies
ok
artery 162. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed
(d) sudden interruption in blood flow towards into human body for sonography?
bo
a portion of heart (a) 15 – 30 MHZ
156. Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter, (b) 1 – 15 MHZ
_e
red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to (b) 45 – 70 MHZ
(a) vitamin toxicity Aj (d) 30 – 45 MHZ.
(b) kidney stones 163. Cry I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
@
(c) hyperchloesterolemia thuringiensis are effective against
(d) urine laden with ketone bodies (a) mosquitoes (b) flies
157. The scientific value of a “DNA chip” is that (c) nematodes (d) boll worms
At
(a) researchers can determine how an entire 164. Retention of larval characters even after sexual
genome functions. maturity is called
ks
(b) DNA can be monitored for the presence of (a) Parthenogenesis (b) Ontogenesis
particular mutations. (c) Paedogenesis (d) Neoteny
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(c) the activity of all the genes in an organism 165. Which of the following type of enzyme is not
matched correctly with the molecule that it breaks
Eb
can be monitored at once.

(d) All of the above down?
158. In an egg, the type of cleavage is determined by (a) Amylase–starch
e
(a) shape and size of the sperm (b) Lipase–starch

or
(b) size and location of the nucleus (c) Protease–proteins

(c) amount and distribution of yolk
M
(d) Disaccharidase–sugars
(d) number of egg membranes 166. The alveoli contain specialized cells that secrete
159. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the a phospholipoprotein complex known as
human reproductive system gets blocked, the pulmonary surfactant. Th e function of
gametes will not be transported from pulmonary surfactant is :
(a) testes to epididymis
(a) to provide some rigidity to the alveoli to
(b) epididymis to vas deferens
prevent lung collapse
Mock Test -9 MT-151
(b) to decrease the surface tension of the al- (b) The type of fluid - perilymph or endolymph
veoli, making it easier to expand them (c) The site at the cochlear coil
(c) to facilitate the diffusion of O2 and CO2 by (d) All of these
providing protein channels through which 173. Which one of the following is the correct
these gases flow difference between rod cells and cone cells of
our retina?
(d) to provide a sticky surface upon which dust
and microbes are trapped and disposed of Rod Cells Cone Cells
(a) Distribution More Evenly
167. The structure which prevents the entry of food concentrated distributed
into the windpipe is in centre of all over
(a) Gullet (b) Glottis retina retina
(c) Tonsil (d) Epiglottis (b) Visual acuity High Low
168. Layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth is
s
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(a) Osteoblast (b) Ameloblast (c) Visual Iodopsin Rhodopsin
(c) Odontoblast (d) Dentoblast pigment
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169. Cow’s milk is slightly yellowish in colour due to contained
the presence of (d) Over all Vision in Colour vision
function poor light and detailed
_e
(a) Carotene
(b) Riboflavin vision in
(c) Xanthophyll Aj bright light
(d) Xanthophyll and Carotene
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170. Blood plasma contains proteins but glomerular 174. Which of the following glands grows to the
filtrate does not. Why does this difference in maximum size at puberty and then diminishes
composition occur?
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gradually?
(a) Blood osmotic pressure is maintained by
(a) Thymus (b) Pituitary
the presence of plasma proteins
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(b) Proteins are actively transported from the (c) Thyroid (d) Adrenal
kidney tubule back into the blood capillaries 175. Which of the following statements about human
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(c) Proteins cannot pass through the mem- pregnancy and fetal development is false?
branes of the glomerular capillaries. (a) The blastocyst is a stage in fetal
Eb
(d) There is a high hydrostatic pressure in the development that appears early during the
blood within the glomerular capillaries. third trimester.
171. Which is not correct with respect to human
e
(b) A vital connection between the fetal and

kidney?
or
maternal blood supplies occurs at the

(a) The peripheral region is called cortex and
placenta.
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central medulla
(b) Malpighian capsules are present in the (c) Most of the growth in fetal size occurs during
cortex region the second and third trimesters.
(c) Blood enters glomerulus through efferent (d) All major organ systems have formed by the
arterioles end of the fetus’s first three months of life.
(d) The concave part of kidney is called hilus 176. Saltatory conduction of nerve impulse takes
172. Frequency of sound is discriminated by place through :
(a) The intensity of movement of basilar fibres
of cochlea (a) Myelinated fibre
EBD_7205
MT-152 NEET
(b) Non-myelinated fibre (a) Neisseria (b) Bordetella

(c) Gray fibres (c) Bacillus (d) Yersinia
(d) None of these 180. Which of the following shows the correct graph
177. In which part of the brain corpora quadrigemina of arithmetic growth?
is located?
(a) Diencephalon (b) Mesencephalon
(c) Prosencephalon (d) Rhombencephalon (a) (b)
178. Humerus differs from the femur in having:
(a) Sigmoid notch (b) Trochanter
(c) Deltoid ridge (d) None of these
s
179. Meningitis, a disease which is responsible for
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damage of the membrane of the brain, is caused (c) (d)
by :
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Aj
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Eb
e
or
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Mock Test -10 MT-153
10JEE MAIN
MOCK TEST
s
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INSTRUCTIONS
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Aj
@
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Negative Marking :
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PHYSICS (a) 0.4 ln 2 (b) 0.2 ln 2

Eb
(c) 0.1 ln 2 (d) 0.8 ln 2

1. The dimensions of angular momentum, latent 3. Which of the following gates corresponds to
heat and capacitance are, respectively. the truth table given below?
e
ML2 T1A 2 , L2 T -2 , M -1L-2 T 2 A B Y

or
(a)
1 1 0
ML2 T -2 , L2 T 2 , M -1L-2 T 4 A 2
M
(b) 1 0 1
0 1 1
(c) ML2 T -1 , L2 T -2 , ML2 TA 2 0 0 1
(a) NAND (b) OR
(d) ML2 T -1 , L2 T -2 , M -1L-2 T 4 A 2 (c) AND (d) XOR
2. A radioactive sample at any instant has its 4. A closed argon pipe and an open argon pipe are
disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per minute. tuned to the same fundamental frequency. What
After 5 minutes, the rate is 1250 disintegrations is the ratio of their lengths?
per minute. Then, the decay constant (per minute) (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
is (c) 2 : 3 (d) 4 : 3
EBD_7205
MT-154 NEET
5. A pulley of radius 2 m is rotated about its axis by weight W1 is suspended from its lower end. If s
a force F = (20t – 5t2 ) newton (where t is is the area of cross section of the wire, the stress
measured in seconds) applied tangentially. If the
moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis of æ 3L ö
in the wire at a height ç ÷ from its lower end is
rotation is 10 kg-m2 the number of rotations made è 4 ø
by the pulley before its direction of motion is W1 é Wù
reversed, is: (a)
s
(b) êëW1 + 4 úû s
(a) more than 3 but less than 6
(b) more than 6 but less than 9 é 3W ù W1 + W
(c) more than 9 (c) êëW1 + 4 úû / s (d)
s
(d) less than 3
6. The moment of inertia of a regular circular disc 10. The maximum electric field that can be held in air
of mass 0.4 kg and radius 100 cm about the axis without producing ionisation of air is 107 V/m.
s
perpendicular to the plane of the disc and The maximum potential therefore, to which a
ok
passing through its centre is conducting sphere of radius 0.10 m can be
(a) 0.002 kg m 2 (b) 0.02 kg m 2 charged in air is
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(a) 109 V (b) 108 V
(c) 2 kg m 2 (d) 0.2 kg m 2 (c) 107 V (d) 106 V
_e
7. The displacement vs time of a particle executing 11. The masses of the three wires of copper are in
SHM is shown in figure. The initial phase f the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the
Aj
ratio of 5 : 3 : 1. The ratio of their electrical
resistance is
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(a) 1 : 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 25 : 125 (d) 125 : 15 : 1
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12. Consider a vector F = 4 i – 3 j. Another vector

that is perpendicular to F is
(a) 4 i + 3 j (b) 6 i
ks
p 3p (c) 7 k (d) 3 i – 4 j
(a) -p < f < - (b) p<f<
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2 2 13. The graph (fig.) below describes the motion of a

ball rebounding from a horizontal surface being
3p p released from a point above the surface. Assume
Eb
(c) – < f < –p (d) <f<p

2 2 the ball collides each time with the floor
8. Figure shows a small mass connected to a string, inelastically. The quantity represented on the y-
which is attached to a vertical post. If the ball is
e
axis is the ball's (take upward direction as

released when the string is horizontal as shown, positive)
or
the magnitude of the total acceleration of the v

M
mass as a function of the angle q is:

(a) g sin q
(b) g cos q
(c) g 3cos 2 q + 1
(d) g 3sin 2 q + 1
9. One end of uniform wire of length L and of weight
O t
W is attached rigidly to a point in the roof and a t1 t2 t3
(a) displacement (b) velocity W the work done by the system, which of the
(c) acceleration (d) momentum following statements is true ?
14. Two equal masses m1 and m2 moving along (a) DU = – W in an adiabatic process
the same straight line with velocities + 3 m/s (b) DU = W in an isothermal process
and – 5m/s respectively, collide elastically.
(c) DU = – W in an isothermal process
Their velocities after the collision will be
respectively (d) DU = W in an adiabatic process
(a) –3 m/s & +5 m/s (b) + 4 m/s for both 20. The electric field at a distance r from the centre
(c) –4 m/s & +4 m/s (d) –5m/s & +3 m/s in the space between two concentric metallic
15. The angular velocities of three bodies in simple spherical shells of radii r1 and r2 carrying charge
harmonic motion are w1 , w2, w3 with their Q1 and Q2 is (r1 < r < r2)
respective amplitudes as A1, A2, A3. If all the Q1 + Q 2 Q1 + Q 2
three bodies have same mass and velocity, then (a) 2 (b)
4p Î0 (r1 + r2 ) 4p Î0 r 2
s
(a) A1w1 = A2w2 = A3w3
ok
(b) A12w1 = A22w2 = A32w3 Q1 Q2
(c) A1w12 = A2w22 = A3w32 (c) 2 (d)
4p Î0 r 2
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(d) A12w12 = A22w22 = A32w32 4p Î0 r
16. The radius R of the soap bubble is doubled under 21. Light of wavelength 200 Å fall on aluminium
_e
isothermal condition. If T be the surface tension surface. Work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV.
of soap bubble, the work done in doing so is What is the kinetic energy of the fastest emitted
given by Aj photoelectrons?
(a) 32pR2T (b) 24pR2T (a) 2 eV (b) 1 eV
@
(c) 8pR T2 (d) 4pR2T (c) 4 eV (d) 0.2 eV
17. A point charge of magnitude + 1 mC is fixed at (0, 22. Which of the following waves have the maximum
At
0, 0). An isolated uncharged spherical conductor, wavelength ?

is fixed with its center at (4, 0, 0). The potential (a) Microwaves (b) UV rays
and the induced electric field at the centre of the
ks
(c) Radio waves (d) X – rays

sphere is :
23. Impedance of circuit when a resistance R and an
(a) 1.8 × 105 V and – 5.625 × 106 V/m
oo
inductor of inductance L are connected in series

(b) 0 V and 0 V/m in an A. C. circuit of frequency n, is
Eb
(c) 2.25 × 105 V and – 5.625 × 106 V/m

(d) 2.25 × 105 V and 0 V/m (a) R 2 + 2p 2 n 2 L2 (b) R 2 + 4p 2 n 2 L2
18. We have a galvanometer of resistance 25 W . It
e
(c) R + 4p 2 n 2 L2 (d) R + 2p 2 n 2 L2
is shunted by a 2.5 W wire. The part of total
or
current that flows through the galvanometer is 24. If the wavelength of the first line of the Balmer
series in the hydrogen spectrum is l, then the
M
I 2 I 1 wavelength of the first line of the Lyman series

(a) = (b) =
I o 11 I o 11 is
(a) (27/5)l (b) (5/27)l
I 4 I 3 (c) (32/27)l (d) (27/32)l
(c) = (d) =
I o 11 I o 11 25. The effective capacitance of combination of equal
capacitors between points A and B shown in figure
19. Consider a thermodynamic system. If DU is
represents the increase in its internal energy and
EBD_7205
MT-156 NEET
(a) C (b) 2C C C 31. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave
r
C C C in vacuum is given by E = iˆ 40 cos (kz – 6 ×
C 108t), where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and
(c) 3C (d) A
C C
B seconds respectively. The value of wave vector
2
C C C k is
(a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1
(c) 6 m –1 (d) 3 m–1
26. Which one of the following is NOT a correct
statement about semi-conductors? 32. An aeroplane flying at a constant speed releases
(a) The electrons and holes have different a bomb. As the bomb moves away from the
mobilities in a semi-conductor aeroplane, it will
(a) always be vertically below the aeroplane
(b) In an n-type semi-conductor, the Fermi level
only if the plane is flying horizontally
lies closer to the conduction band edge
(b) always be vertically below the plane only if
s
(c) Silicon is a direct band gap semi-conductor the aeroplane was flying at an angle of 45º
ok
(d) Silicon has diamond structure to the horizontal
27. The sprinkling of water reduces slightly the (c) always be vertically below the plane
bo
temperature of a closed room because (d) gradually fall behind the aeroplane if the
(a) temperature of water is less than that of the aeroplane was flying horizontally
_e
room 33. The point charges Q and –2Q are placed at some
(b) specific heat of water is high distance apart. If the electric field at the location
(c) water has large latent heat of vaporisation Aj of Q is E. Then, the electric field at the location
(d) water is a bad conductor of heat of –2Q will be
@
28. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are moving with
3E
equal kinetic energies. The ratio of their linear (a) - (b) – E
2
At
momenta will be
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 E
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 (c) - (d) -2E
ks
2
29. Masses of 1 kg each are placed 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m,
34. A cell of internal resistance r is connected to an
..... from a point P. The gravitational field intensity
oo
external resistance R. The current will be

at P due to these masses is maximum in R, if
(a) G (b) G
Eb
(a) R = r (b) R < r

4G (c) R > r (d) R = r/2
(c) 4G (d) 35. A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil of
3
e
30. Heat energy absorbed by a system in going refractive index m1 and the other half is filled
or
through a cycle process shown in figure is with water of refractive index m2. The apparent
depth of the vessel when viewed from above
M
(a) 107 p J 30 is
x (m1 + m 2 ) xm1m 2
V (in litre)
(b) 104 p J (a)

2m1m2
(b)
10
2(m1 + m2 )
(c) 102 p J xm1m2 2 x (m1 + m2 )
10 30 (c) (d)
(d) 10–3 p J (m1 + m 2 ) m1m2
P (KPa)
36. A cylindrical block of area of cross-section A The graphical representation of the above
and of material of density r is placed in a liquid process is shown is
of density one-third of density of block. The P
block compresses a spring and compression in
the spring is one-third of the length of the block. 2P0
If acceleration due to gravity is g, the spring
constant of the spring is P0
(a)
(a) rAg V0 2V0 V
(b) 2rAg
P
(c) 2rAg/3
2P0
(d) rAg/3
s
P0
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37. In A.C. circuit in which inductance and (b)
capacitance are joined in series, current is found
bo
to be maximum when the value of inductance is V0 2V0 V
0.5 H and the value of capacitance is 8 mF. The
P
_e
angular frequency of applied alternating voltage
will be 2P0
(a) 400 Hz (b) 5000 Hz Aj P0
(c) 2 × 105 Hz (d) 500 Hz
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(c) (
38. An gle between magnetic meridian and
geographical meridian is called V0 2V0 V
At
(a) angle of dip

(b) angle of declination P
ks
(c) angle of depression 2P0

(d) both (a) and (b)
oo
39. Heat is required to change 1 kg of ice of –20ºC P0

d)
into steam. Q1 is the heat needed to warm the ice
Eb
from –20ºC to 0ºC, Q2 is the heat needed to melt

V0 2V0 V
the ice, Q3 is the heat needed to warm the water
from 0ºC to 100ºC and Q4 is the heat needed to 41. A current carrying wire in the neighbourhood
e
vaporize the water. Then produces

or
(a) Q4 > Q3 > Q2 > Q1 (a) electric and magnetic field

(b) Q4 > Q3 > Q1 > Q2 (b) magnetic field only
M
(c) Q4 > Q2 > Q3 > Q1 (c) no field

(d) Q4 > Q2 > Q1 > Q3 (d) electric field only
40. The P-V equation for a process of an ideal gas is 42. 10 g of ice at 0ºC is mixed with 100 g of water at
given by 50ºC. What is the resultant temperature of mixture?
12 P0 4P (a) 31.2ºC (b) 32.8ºC
P= V - 20 V 2 - 7 P0 (c) 36.7ºC (d) 38.2ºC
V0 V0
EBD_7205
MT-158 NEET
43. The internal energy of an ideal gas increases 1 D[NH3 ] 1 D[O2 ]

during an isothermal process when the gas is Rate = - =-
(a) expanded by adding more molecules to it 4 Dt 5 Dt
(b) expanded by adding more heat to it
(c) expanded against zero pressure 4D[NO] 6D[H 2O]
(d) compressed by doing work on it = =
Dt Dt
44. Upper part of a prism is cut. The ray diagram of Which of the following are the correct
a ray incident at first refracting surface is as statements.
shown in figure. The minimum deviation that can (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
be produced by the prism is (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) All are correct
48. Read the following statements carefully.
(a) 12° (i) According to a convention cell potential
36° 32°
(b) 16° of hydrogen electr ode (S.H.E.) is
s
(c) 8° 67° considered to be zero at all temperatures.
53°
ok
(d) less than 8° (ii) e.m.f. of the cell Pt(s)/H2(g, 1 bar)/H+
45. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the separation
(aq, 1 M) || Zn 2 + (aq,1M) / Z n is – 0.76. This
bo
between the slits is halved and the distance
between the slits and the screen is doubled. The negative value indicates that Zn 2+ ion
fringe width is
_e
reduces less easily then H+ ions.
(a) unchanged (b) halved (iii) Copper does not dissolve in HCl but
(c) doubled (d) quadrupled Aj dissolves in HNO3 as in nitric acid it gets
oxidised by nitrate ion.
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(iv) Inert metals like Pt or Au are used in certain
CHEMISTRY electrodes i.e., these metals does not
participate in reaction but provide surface
At
46. The number of antibonding electron pairs in

for oxidation and reduction reactions.
O 22 – molecular ion on the basis of molecular (v) Fluorine has the highest electrode potential
ks
orbital theory are (at. no. O = 8) thereby making it strongest oxidising agent
(a) 2 (b) 3 whereas lithium with lowest electrode
oo
(c) 4 (d) 5 potential is the weakest oxidising and

47. Consider the following reaction : strongest reducing agent.
Eb
Pt(s)
4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) ¾¾¾® 4NO(g) + 6H 2O(g) Which of the following are the correct
statements above.
(i) Rate of reaction with respect to NH 3 will
e
(a) (iv) and (v) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)

or
1 D[NH3 ] (c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) All are correct
be - 49. The transition metals have a less tendency to
4 Dt
M
(ii) For the given reaction form ions due to

(a) High ionisation energy
1 D[O2 ] 1 D[H 2O]
- =- (b) Low heat of hydration of ions
5 Dt 6 Dt (c) High heat of sublimation
(iii) For the given reaction (d) All of the above
-
1 D[NH3 ] 1 D[NO] OH
50. 2C6 H5CHO ¾¾¾ ® C 6 H5CH 2OH + C 6 H5COO -
- = H 2O
4 Dt 4 Dt
(iv) For the given reaction, Which of the following statements are correct
regarding the above reduction of benzaldehyde 54. Geometrical isomerism is not shown by
to benzyl alcohol? CH3
(i) One hydrogen is coming from H2O as H+ |
(a) CH CH C = C CH CH
and another from C6H5CHO as H– 3 2
|
2 3
(ii) One hydrogen is coming from H2O as H– CH3
and another from C6H5CHO as H+
(b) C 2 H 5 - C = C - CH 2 I
(iii) One hydrogen from H2O and another from | |
C6H5CHO, both in the form of H– H H
(iv) The reduction is an example of (c) CH 2 = C(CI )CH 3
disproportionation reaction (d) CH 3 - CH = CH - CH = CH 2
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv) 55. Schotten-Baumann reaction is a reaction of
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) phenols with
51. Read the following statements and choose the (a) Benzoyl chloride and sodium hydroxide
s
correct option (b) Acetyl chloride and sodium hydroxide
ok
(i) The numerical value of the equilibrium (c) Salicylic acid and conc. H2SO4
constant for a reaction indicates the extent (d) Acetyl chloride and conc. H2SO4
bo
of the reaction. 56. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(ii) An equilibrium constant give information (i) Ionic product of water (Kw) = [H+] [OH–] =
_e
about the rate at which the equilibrium is 10–14M2
reached. (ii) At 298K [H+] = [OH–] = 10–7
(iii) If Kc > 103, products predominate over Aj (iii) Kw does not depends upon temperature
reactants, i.e., if Kc is very large, the reaction
@
(iv) Molarity of pure water = 55.55M
proceeds nearly to completion.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(iv) If Kc < 10–3, reactants predominate over
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
At
products, i.e., if Kc is very small, the

reaction proceeds rarely. 57. According to the adsorption theory of catalysis,
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct the speed of the reaction increases because
ks
(a) in the process of adsorption, the activation

(b) (i) , (iii) and (iv)
energy of the molecules becomes large
oo
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (b) adsorption produces heat which increases
(d) only (iii) is correct the speed of the reaction
Eb
52. The important antioxidant used in food is (c) adsorption lowers the activation energy of
(a) BHT (b) BHC the reaction
(c) BTX (d) All the three (d) the concentration of product molecules at
e
53. Brine is electrolysed by using inert electrodes. the active centres of the catalyst becomes
or
The reaction at anode is ________. high due to adsorption.

1 58. Consider the following reaction at 1000°C
M
(a) Cl – (aq) ¾¾ °
® Cl2 (g) + e – ; E Cell = 1.36 V
2 A . Zn(s) + 1 O 2 (g) ® ZnO(s); DG° = -360 kJ mol -1
2
(b) ®O2 (g) + 4H+ + 4e– ;ECell
2H2O(1) ¾¾ °
= 1.23V 1
B. C(gr) + O 2 (g) ® CO(g); DG ° = -460 kJ mol –1
(c) Na + (aq) + e – ¾¾ °
® Na(s); ECell = 2.71V 2
Choose the correct statement at 1000°C
1 (a) zinc can be oxidised by carbon monoxide.
(d) H + (aq) + e – ¾¾
® H 2 (g); E °Cell = 0.00 V
2 (b) zinc oxide can be reduced by graphite
EBD_7205
MT-160 NEET
(c) both statements (a) and (b) are true x

(D) = kp1 n (s) Adsorption is
(d) carbon monoxide can be reduced by zinc. m
59. Consider the following complex (high pressure)
[Co(NH3)5CO3]ClO4. independent of
The coordination number, oxidation number, pressure
number of d-electrons and number of unpaired (a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
d-electrons on the meal are respectively (b) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r)
(a) 6, 3, 6, 0 (b) 7, 2, 7, 1 (c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
(c) 7, 1, 6, 4 (d) 6, 2, 7, 3 (d) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q)
60. Match List I (Reaction) with List II (Reagent) 63. Which one of the following is the correct
and select the correct answer using the codes statement?
given below the lists: (a) B2 H 6 .2NH 3 is known as ‘inorganic
List I List II benzene’
s
I. Etard reaction A. Alcoholic KOH (b) Boric acid is a protonic acid
ok
II. Hydroxylation B. Anhydrous AlCl3 (c) Beryllium exhibits coordination number of
III. Dehydro- C. Chromyl chloride six
bo
halogenation (d) Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium
IV. Friedel-Crafts D. Dilute alkaline have bridged chloride structures in solid
_e
reaction KMnO4 phase
Codes : 64. Arrange the following compounds in order of
(a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-B Aj decreasing acidity :
(b) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B OH OH OH OH
@
(c) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
(d) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
; ; ; ;
At
61. The solubility product of AgI at 25°C is

1.0 × 10 –16 mol2 L–2. The solubility of AgI in
10–4N solution of KI at 25°C is approximately
ks
Cl CH3 NO2 OCH3

(in mol L–1)
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(a) 1.0 × 10–12 (b) 1.0 × 10–10
oo
(c) 1.0 × 10–8 (d) 1.0 × 10–16 (a) II > IV > I > III (b) I > II > III > IV
62. Match the columns (c) III > I > II > IV (d) IV > III > I > II
Eb
Column-I Column-II 65. Teflon, styron and neoprene are all

x 1n (a) Copolymers
(A) = kc (p) Adsorption (b) Condensation polymers
e
m
varies directly (c) Homopolymers
or
with pressure (d) Monomers

x 1
M
(B) log = log k + log p (q) 66. Values of dissociation constant, Ka are given as
m n follows :
Adsorption from
Acid Ka
æ1 ö HCN 6.2 × 10–10
ç = 0÷ solution phase
èn ø HF 7.2 × 10–4
x 1 HNO2 4.0 × 10–4
(C) log = log k + log p (r) Freudlich
m n Correct order of increasing base strength of the
isotherm cannot
æ1 ö _
ç = 1÷ base CN–, F– and NO2 will be :
èn ø
be explained
_ solution of glucose, C6H12O6 to be isotonic with

(a) F- < CN - < NO2 this solution, it would have
_ (a) 34.2 g/lit (b) 17.1 g/lit
(b) NO2 < CN - < F- (c) 18.0 g/lit (d) 36.0 g/lit of glucose
_ 73. Prevention of corrosion of iron by Zn coating is
(c) F- < NO2 < CN - called
_ (a) Galvanization
(d) NO2 < F- < CN - (b) Cathodic protection
67. Which of the following statement is correct if (c) Electrolysis
the intermolecular forces in liquids A, B and C (d) Photoelectrolysis
are in the order A < B < C? 74. Aromatic character of benzene is proved by
(a) B evaporates more readily than A (a) Resonance theory
(b) B evaporates less readily than C (b) Aromatic sextet theory
(c) A and B evaporate at the same rate
s
(c) Orbital theory
ok
(d) A evaporates more readily than C (d) All the above
68. The reducing power of divalent species 75. RNA is different from DNA because RNA
decreases in the order
bo
contains
(a) Ge > Sn > Pb (b) Sn > Ge > Pb (a) ribose sugar and thymine
(c) Pb > Sn > Ge (d) None.
_e
(b) ribose sugar and uracil
69. Sodium Carbonate cannot be used in place of (c) deoxyribose sugar and thymine
(NH4)2CO3 for the identification of Ca2+, Ba2+ Aj (d) deoxyribose sugar and uracil
and Sr2+ ions (in group V) during mixture 76. The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of
analysis because :
@
mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 m/s is
(a) Mg2+ ions will also be precipitated. approximately
(b) Concentration of CO32– ions is very low. (a) 10–33 metres (b) 10–31 metres
At
–16
(c) 10 metres (d) 10–25 metres
(c) Sodium ions will react with acid radicals.
(d) Na+ ions will interfere with the detection of Planck's constant, h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js
ks
Ca2+, Ba2+, Sr2+ ions. 77. AB, A 2 and B2 are diatomic molecules. If the
70. Which of the following statements is not correct
oo
bond enthalpies of A 2 , AB and B 2 are in the

regarding aniline?
(a) It is less basic than ethylamine ratio 1:1 :0.5 and enthalpy of formation of AB
Eb
(b) It can be steam-distilled from A 2 and B 2 is –100 kJ mol–1 . What is the

(c) It reacts with sodium to give hydrogen bond energy of A 2 :
(d) It is soluble in water
e
71. Which of the following equilibria will shift to (a) 200 kJ mol–1 (b) 100 kJ mol–1
or
right side on increasing the temperature? (c) 300 kJ mol–1 (d) 400 kJ mol–1
78. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with
M
(a) CO (g) + H2O (g) CO2 (g) + H2 (g)

aluminium. Which of the following similarity is
(b) 2SO2(g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) incorrect :
(a) Be forms beryllates and Al forms aluminates
(c) H2O (g) H2 (g) + 1 2 O 2 (g )
(b) Be (OH ) 2 like Al (OH) 3 is basic.
(d) 4HCl (g) + O2 (g) 2H2O (g) + 2Cl2 (g)
(c) Be like Al is rendered passive by HNO 3 .
72. An aqueous solution of sucrose, C12H22O11 ,
containing 34.2 g// has an osmotic pressure of (d) Be 2 C like Al 4 C 3 yields methane on
2.38 atmospheres at 17°C. For an aqueous hydrolysis.
EBD_7205
MT-162 NEET
- (a) normal alkyl chain
79. : CH 2 - C - CH 3 and CH 2 = C - CH 3 are
|| | (b) branched alkyl chain
O
. .: :O - (c) phenyl side chain
. .:
(a) Resonating structures (d) cyclohexyl side chain
(b) Tautomers 87. Which of the following crystals does not exhibit
(c) Geometrical isomers Frenkel defect?
(d) Optical isomers (a) AgBr (b) AgCl
80. The fatty acid which shows reducing property (c) KBr (d) ZnS
is 88. A reaction which is of first order w.r.t. reactant
(a) acetic acid (b) ethanoic acid A, has a rate constant 6 min–1. If we start with
(c) oxalic acid (d) formic acid [A] = 0.5 mol L–1, when would [A] reach the
81. If the nitrogen atom had electronic configuration value of 0.05 mol L–1
1s7 it would have energy lower than that of the (a) 0.384 min (b) 0.15 min
s
normal ground state configuration 1s2 2s2 2p3 (c) 3 min (d) 3.84 min
ok
because the electrons would be closer to the 89. The correct order of radii is
nucleus. Yet 1s7 is not observed. It violates (a) N < Be < B (b) F - < O 2 - < N 3-
bo
(a) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (c) N < Li < K (d) Fe3+ < Fe 2 + < Fe 4 +
(b) Hund’s rule 90. Which of the following statements about low
_e
(c) Pauli exclusion principle density polythene is FALSE?
(d) Bohr postulate of stationary orbits (a) Its synth esis requires dioxygen or a
82. For orthorhombic system axial ratios are a ¹ b
¹ c and the axial angles are
Aj peroxide initiator as a catalyst.
(b) It is used in the manufacture of buckets,
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(a) a = b = g ¹ 90° dust-bins etc.
(b) a = b = g = 90° (c) Its synthesis requires high pressure.
At
(c) a = g = 90°, b ¹ 90° (d) It is a poor conductor of electricity.

(d) a ¹ b ¹ g = 90°
BIOLOGY
ks
83. When cyclohexane is poured on water, it floats,

because
oo
(a) cyclohexane is in ‘boat’ form 91. Which plays an important role in the dispersal
(b) cyclohexane is in ‘chair’ form of spores in Funaria?
Eb
(c) cyclohexane is in ‘crown’ form (a) Operculum

(d) cyclohexane is less dense than water (b) Capsule
(c) Peristome and annulus
84. (n - 1)d 10ns 2is the general electronic
e
(d) Sporogonium
configuration of
or
92. Read the following five statements (i – v) and

(a) Fe, Co, Ni (b) Cu, Ag, Au answer the question.
M
(c) Zn, Cd, Hg (d) Se, Y, La (i) In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is
85. Which is colourless in water? retained on the parent sporophyte.
(a) Ti3+ (b) V3+ (ii) In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not
independent.
(c) Cu 3+ (d) Sc3+
(iii) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed
86. Structurally biodegrdable detergent should than that in Polytrichum.
contain (iv) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous.
(v) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls.
How many of the above statements are correct? 100. A cell cannot divide if it does not cross
(a) Two (b) Three (a) Hayflick limit (b) cytokinesis
(c) Four (d) One (c) restriction point (d) G0 - phase
93. The fluidity of membranes in a plant in cold 101. A vascular bundle in which the protoxylem is
weather may be maintained by pointing to the periphery is called
(a) increasing the number of phospholipids with (a) endarch (b) exarch
unsaturated hydrocarbon tails (c) radial (d) closed
(b) increasing the proportion of integral proteins 102. Which one of the following micro-organisms is
(c) increasing concentration of cholesterol in used for production of citric acid in industries?
membrane (a) Penicillium citrinum
(d) increasing the number of phospholipids with (b) Aspergillus niger
saturated hydrocarbon tail (c) Rhizopus nigricans
94. Addition of a solute to pure water causes (d) Lactobacillus bulgaris
s
(a) negative water potential. 103. Emasculation is not required when flowers are
ok
(b) more negative water potential. (a) bisexual (b) intersexual
(c) positive water potential. (c) unisexual (d) either (a) or (b)
bo
(d) more positive water potential. 104. Select the incorrect match of the type of plant to
95. Which one of the following process help the its example
_e
water- soluble inorganic nutrients go down into a. Cormophyte - Pond silk
the soil horizon and get precipitated as b. Embryophyte - Dryopteris
unavailable salts? Ajc. Tracheophyte - Poa
(a) Fragmentation (b) Leaching d. Spermatophyte - Spanish moss
@
(c) Catabolism (d) Humification 105. Which part of the coconut produces coir?
96. Siliceous frustules of diatoms being (a) Seed coat (b) Mesocarp
indestructible, piled up at the bottom of ocean (c) Epicarp (d) Pericarp
At
and formed a thick bed over billions of years. 106. The given diagram shows microsporangium of a
Such a thick bed is known as mature anther. Identify A, B and C.
ks
(a) red sea

(b) diatomaceous earth
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(c) pseudorocks
(d) red tides
Eb
97. The first dicarboxylic acid in Krebs’ cycle is

(a) isocitric acid (b) pyruvic acid
(c) oxalo acetic acid (d) a-ketoglutaric acid
e
98. N2 + 8e– + 8H+ + 16 ATP ®

or
2NH4 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi

The above equation refers to
M
(a) ammonification (b) nitrification

(c) nitrogen fixation (d) denitrification (a) A-Middle layer, B-Endothecium, C-Tapetum
99. If turgor pressure becomes equal to osmotic (b) A-Endothecium, B-Tapetum, C-Middle
pressure layer
(a) water leaves the cell. (c) A-Endothecium, B-Middle layer, C-Tapetum
(b) water enters the cells. (d) A-Tapetum, B-Middle layer, C-Endothecium
(c) no exchange of water takes place. 107. The productivity of a crop declines when leaves
(d) solute pass out of the cell. begin to wilt mainly because
EBD_7205
MT-164 NEET
(a) the chlorophyll of wilting leaves 114. Final electron acceptor in oxidative
decomposes. phosphorylation is
(b) flaccid mesophyll cells are incapable of (a) hydrogen (b) dehydrogenase
photosynthesis. (c) cytochrome (d) oxygen
(c) stomata close, preventing CO2 from entering 115. In a CAM plant, the concentration of organic
the leaf. acid
(d) photolysis, the water-splitting step of (a) increases during the day.
photosynthesis, cannot occur when there (b) decreases during the day.
is a water deficiency. (c) increases during night.
108. Which one of the following is not a function of an (d) decreases or increases during day.
ecosystem? 116. The phenomenon of plasmolysis is evident when
(a) Energy flow (b) Decomposition cells are kept in
(a) hypotonic solution
(c) Productivity (d) Stratification
s
(b) hypertonic solution
109. The process in which mature differentiated cells
ok
(c) isotonic solution
reverse to meristematic activity to form callus is (d) None of the above
called
bo
117. Quantasomes are found in
(a) dedifferentiation (b) differentiation (a) mitochondria
(c) redifferentiation (d) None of the above
_e
(b) chloroplast
110. Which one of the following statement is true? (c) lysosome
(a) The greater the Biological Oxygen Demand Aj(d) endoplasmic reticulum
(BOD) of waste water, more is its polluting 118. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D in the
@
potential. given figure and select the correct option from
(b) The greater the BOD of waste water, less is the codes given below.
its polluting potential.
At
(c) The lesser the BOD of waste water, more is

ks
(d) The lesser the BOD of waste water, less is

oo
111. Most of the net primary productivity in an

ecosystem is used for what purpose?
Eb
(a) respiration by primary consumers

(b) respiration by secondary consumers
(c) growth by primary consumers
e
(d) growth by secondary consumers A B C D

or
112. Transition zone between two vegetations is (a) Seed coat Scutellum Epicotyl Hypocotyl
(b) Seed coat Scutellum Hypocotyl Epicotyl
M
(a) ecotone (b) ecotype

(c) Seed coat Cotyledon Endosperm Hypocotyl
(c) ecocline (d) ecosystem
(d) Seed coat Endosperm Cotyledon Hypocotyl
113. If a farmer has a soil with little phosphorus and a 119. Which one of the following is a correct
very high pH, what should be applied? statement?
(a) 5-10-5 fertilizer and sulfate ions (a) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a protonemal
(b) 10-5-5-fertilizer and sulfate ions. and leafy stage
(c) 5-10-5 fertilizer and lime (b) In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is
free-living
(d) 10-5-5 fertilizer and lime.
(c) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores (a) Manas Sanctuary - Assam

are present in pteridophytes (b) Kanha National park - Madhya Pradesh
(d) Origin of seed habit can be traced in (c) Dachigam Sanctuary - West Bengal
pteridophytes (d) Bandipur Sanctuary - Karnataka
120. Function of suspensor of embryo is 127. A taxon facing an extremely high risk of extinction
(a) absorption of nourishment. in wild in the immediate future is called
(b) push the embryo into nutritive endosperm (a) critical endangered
region. (b) endangered
(c) formation of secondary embryos. (c) vulnerable
(d) all of the above (d) extinct in wild
121. Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from 128. Compensation point is
(a) a multipistillate syncarpous flower (a) where there is neither photosynthesis nor
(b) a cluster of compactly borne flowers on a respiration.
s
common axis (b) when rate of photosynthesis is equal to the
ok
(c) a multilocular monocarpellary flower rate of respiration.
(d) a unilocular polycarpellary flower (c) when entire food synthesized into
bo
photosynthesis remain utilized.
122. In a raceme, the flowers are
(d) when there is enough water just to meet the
(a) Arranged in a basipetal succession
_e
requirements of plant.
(b) Arranged in acropetal succession 129. Which of the following hormones does not
(c) Separate sexes Aj naturally occur in plants?
(d) Of the same sex (a) 2,4–D (2, 4–dichloropheoxy acetic acid)
@
123. The common bottle cork is a product of (b) IAA
(a) Dermatogen (b) Phellogen (c) ABA
(c) Xylem (d) Vascular cambium (d) GA
At
124. Telomere and eukaryotic chromosome 130. Hydroponics or soilless culture helps is knowing
possesses short segments of (a) essentiality of an element
ks
(a) guanine rich repeats. (b) deficiency symptoms caused by an element

(b) thymine rich repeats. (c) toxicity caused by an element
oo
(c) cytosine rich repeats. (d) all of these

(d) adenine rich repeats. 131. A trace element essential for plant growth and
Eb
125. What mechanism explains the movement of radioisotope, which is used in cancer therapy is
sucrose from source to sink? (a) cobalt (b) calcium
(a) Evaporation of water and active transport (c) sodium (d) iron
e
of sucrose from sink. 132. Choose odd w.r.t. collenchyma.

or
(b) Osmotic movement of water into the sucrose (a) Found in hypodermis of dicot stem
loaded sieve tube cells creating a higher (b) Living mechanical tissue
M
hydrostatic pressure into the source than in (c) Absent in monocots

the sink. (d) Thickening of wall is due to deposition of
(c) Tension cr eated by differences in cellulose and lignin
hydrostatic pressure in the source and sink. 133. Water will be absorbed by root hairs when
(d) Active transport of sucrose through the (a) concentration of salt in the soil is high.
sieve tube membranes driven by proton (b) concentration of solutes in the cell sap is
pump. high.
126. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly (c) plant is rapidly respiring.
matched : (d) they are separated from soil by a permeable
membrane.
EBD_7205
MT-166 NEET
134. Which of the following types of phytohormones 139. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake
resemble the nucleic acids in some structural of
aspects ? (a) Opium
(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (b) Alcohol
(c) Gibberellin (d) ABA (c) Tobacco (Chewing)
135. Which of the following statement(s) is/are (d) Cocaine
incorrect ? 140. Which of the following sets contains
(i) Proton channel of oxysome / complex V / polysaccharides?
ATP synthase is located in F1. (a) Glucose, fructose, lactose
(ii) Metabolic water is produced in terminal (b) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
oxidation / produced in respiration. (c) Sucrose, maltose, cellulose
(iii) CoQ accepts electron from NADH (d) Galactose, starch, sucrose
dehydrogenase (complex I) and also can
s
141. Which one of the following combinations of
accept electron from FADH2/ succinate Q-
ok
organisms are responsible for the formation and
reductase / complex II. flavour of yoghurt?
(iv) Cytochrome c is a small protein attached to
bo
(a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus and
outer surface of the inner mitochondrial Streptococcus thermophilus
membrane and acts as mobile carrier for
_e
(b) Rhizobium meliloti and Azotobacter
transfer of electrons between complex I (Cyt (c) Bacillus subtilis and Escherichia coli
bc, complex) and III. Aj(d) Bacillus megathermus and Xanthomonas
(v) Complex IV refers to cytochrome c oxidase species
@
(cyt a, a3 and 2 Cu per centre). 142. Baculoviruses are excellent candidates for
(vi) If a cell is treated with a drug that inhibits (a) species-specific narrow spectrum pesticidal
ATP synthase, the pH of mitochondrial
At
applications.
matrix will increase. (b) species-specific broad spectrum pesticidal
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii), (v) and (vi)
ks
applications.
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) Only (iii)
(c) species-specific narrow spectrum insecticidal
136. Which one of following feature is possessed by
oo
applications.
Crustaceans and not by insects?
(d) species-specific broad spectrum insecticidal
(a) Paired limbs
Eb
applications.
(b) Two pairs of antenna
143. Select the correct statement.
(c) Chitinous exoskeleton
(a) Genetic engineering works only on animals
(d) Bilateral symmetry
e
137. Which one is not a vestigial organ? and has not yet been successfully used on
or
(a) Wings of kiwi plants.

(b) There are no risks associated with DNA
M
(b) Coccyx in man

(c) Pelvic girdle of python technology.
(d) Flipper of seal (c) The first step in PCR is heat which is used
138. During inspiration, the diaphragm to separate both the strands of target DNA.
(a) relaxes to become dome-shaped (d) DNA from one organism will not bond to
(b) contracts and flattens DNA from another animal.
(c) expands 144. Study the age pyramids given below and select
(d) shows no change the correct statements regarding these.
Column-I Column-II
A. Van Kupffer cells (i) Islets of
Langerhans
B. b-cells (ii) Liver sinusoids
C. Oxyntic cells (iii) Thyroid gland
D. Paneth cells (iv) Stomach
(v) Small intestine
A B (a) A – (i); B – (v); C – (iii); D – (iv)
(b) A – (iii); B – (iv); C – (ii); D – (v)
(c) A – (iv); B – (ii); C – (i); D – (iii)
Post reproductive
(d) A – (ii); B – (i); C – (iv); D – (v)
Reproductive 149. Splitting of centromere and hence separation of
chromatids occur during
(a) anaphase of mitosis
s
Pre-reproductive
ok
(b) anaphase of meiosis-I
(c) anaphase of meiosis-II
C (d) both (a) and (c)
bo
(a) A is a triangle shaped age pyramid, where 150. Which one of the following combination is
pre-reproductive stage is very large as mismatched?
_e
compared to the reproductive and post (a) Glycocalyx - may be capsule or slime layer
reproductive stages of the population. This (b) Pili - Reproduction
type of age structure indicates that the
Aj (c) Cell wall - Protective, determines shape,
population would increase rapidly. prevents from bursting
@
(b) B is an inverted bell shaped age pyramid, (d) Flagella, Pili and Fimbriae - Surface
where number of pre-reproductive and structures of bacterial cell
At
reproductive individuals is almost equal. 151. The most basic amino acid is
This type of age structure indicates that (a) Arginine (b) Histidine
the population is stable.
ks
(c) Glycine (d) Glutamine

(c) C is an urn shaped age pyramid, where more 152. Poison glands of snake are modified
number of older people are present. This
oo
(a) Linguals (b) Sublinguals

type of age structure indicates that the (c) Maxillaries (d) Parotids
population is declining.
Eb
153. Which of the following statements are wrong?

(d) All of these (i) Leucocytes disintegrate in the spleen and
145. The lactic acid generated during muscle liver.
contraction is converted to glycogen in
e
(ii) RBC, WBC and blood platelets are produced

(a) Muscle (b) Kidney
or
by bone marrow.
(c) Pancreas (d) Liver (iii) Neutrophils bring about destruction and
M
146. Thromboplastin is secreted by detoxification of toxins of protein origin.

(a) platelets (b) lymphocytes (iv) The important function of lymphocytes is
(c) helper T-cells (d) mast cells to produce antibodies.
147. B-DNA which is right-handed double helix (a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (i) and (iv) only
contains ____ base pairs per turn of the helix (c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (ii) and (iii) only
and each turns is ____ long. 154. Which one single organism or the pair of
(a) 10, 3.4 Å (b) 10, 34 Å organisms is correctly assigned to its taxonomic
(c) 11, 20 Å (d) 11, 34 Å group?
148. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the (a) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the
correct option from the codes given below. same kingdom as that of Penicillium
EBD_7205
MT-168 NEET
(b) Lichen is a composite organism formed from 159. Which of the following technique is used for
the symbiotic association of an algae and a the separation of DNA fragments ?
protozoan (a) Gel electrophoresis
(c) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a (b) Chromatography
fungus (c) Transformation
(d) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of (d) Transduction
protista 160. The flow chart given below represents the
155. Bee dances are meant for process of recombinant DNA technology.
(a) Courtship (b) Communication Identify A, B, C and D.
(c) Recreation (d) Instinct
156. Which of the following are correct?
(a) Sponges : Cellular level of organization
(b) Cnidaria : Tissue level of organization
s
(c) Platyhelminthes : Organ level of
ok
organization
(d) Annelids, Arth ropods, Molluscs,
bo
Echinoderms and Chordates : Organ system
level of organization.
_e
157. Which one of the following techniques is safest
for the detection of cancers?
(a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Aj
(b) Radiography (X-ray)
@
(c) Computed tomography (CT)
(d) Histopathological studies (a) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Restriction
158. Select the correct option showing the life cycle exonuclease, C- DNA ligase, D
At
of Plasmodium. Transformation
(a) Sporozoites (human) ® RBCs ® liver cells (b) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Restriction
ks
® gametocytes in blood ® blood meal, bite endonuclease, C-DNA ligase, D-

(female mosquito) ® multiply (mosquito) Transformation
oo
® sporozoites (mosquito) (c) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Restriction

(b) Sporozoites (human) ® liver cells ® RBCs endonuclease, C-Hydrolase, D-
Eb
® gametocytes in blood ® blood meal, bite Transformation

(female mosquito) ® multiply (mosquito) (d) A-Restriction endonuclease, B-Restriction
® sporozoites (mosquito) endonuclease, C-Hydrolase, D-
e
(c) Gametocytes (mosquito) ® bite ® Transduction

or
gametocytes (human) ® RBCs ® multiply 161. Which one of the following statement is correct?
® sporozoites blood meal (human) ® bite (a) Warm and moist environment favour
M
® sporozoites (female mosquito) ® decomposition whereas low temperature and

multiply (mosquito) ® gametocytes anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition
(mosquito) (b) Warm and moist environment inhibit
(d) Sporozoites (human) ® liver cells ® decomposition whereas low temperature and
gametocytes in blood ® blood meal, anaerobiosis favour decomposition
bite(female mosquito) ® multiply (c) Warm and anaerobiosis favour
(mosquito) ® sporozoites (mosquito) decomposition whereas low temperature
favours decomposition
(d) Warm and low temperature inhibit 168. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle
decomposition whereas anaerobiosis involving ATPase activity is
favours decomposition (a) Myosin (b) Actin
162. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? (c) Troponin (d) Tropomyosin
(i) Biowar is the use of biological weapons 169. Endocrine glands have ______ to carry their
against humans and /or their crops and secretions to the specific organ.
animals. (a) capillaries (b) tubules
(ii) Bioethics is the unauthorized use of (c) no ducts (d) ducts
bioresources and traditional knowledge 170. The functional unit of mammalian kidney is
related to bioresources for commercial (a) ureter (b) urinary bladder
benefits. (c) urethra (d) nephron
(iii) Biopatent is exploitation of bioresources of 171. The condition of excess urea in blood is known
other nations without proper authorisation. as
s
(a) (ii) only (b) (i) only (a) Polyuria (b) Haematuria
ok
(c) (i) and (ii) only (d) (i) and (iii) only (c) Uraemia (d) Diuresis
163. The species that invade a bare area are called 172. Chordae tendinae are found in
bo
(a) keystone species (b) extinct species (a) joints of legs (b) atria of heart
(c) pioneer species (d) rare species (c) ventricles of brain (d) ventricles of heart
_e
164. If receptor molecule is removed from target 173. The pattern of contraction and relaxation of the
organ for hormone action, the target organ will heart is referred to as
Aj(a) blood pressure (b) arterial flow
(a) continue to respond but require higher
(c) blood flow (d) cardiac cycle
concentration of hormone
@
174. Chemosensitive area of respiratory centre in
(b) continue to respond but in opposite away
medulla is affected is
(c) continue to respond without any difference (a) less CO2 and H+ ions
At
(d) not respond to hormone (b) less O2 and H+ ions

165. Osteoporosis is caused by (c) excess CO2 and H+ ions
(a) Ca2+ deficiency
ks
(d) excess O2 and H+ ions

(b) Hypersecretion of calcitonin 175. Which of the following statements are true ?
(c) K+ deficiency
oo
(i) The blood transports CO2 comparatively

(d) Hypersecretion of Parathormone easily because of its higher solubility.
Eb
166. Which hormone is related to mineral metabolism (ii) Approximately 8-9% of CO2 is transported
but is not a peptide / protein in nature ? being dissolved in the plasma of blood.
(a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) (iii) The carbon dioxide produced by the tissues,
e
(b) Atrial natriuretic (ANF) diffuses passively into the blood stream and
or
(c) Aldosterone passes into red blood corpuscles and react

(d) All of these with water to form H2CO3.
M
167. Mark the incorrect statement (iv) The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO 2 ) of the
(a) The ear ossicle attached to tympanic erythrocytes is basic.
membrane is malleus (v) The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into
(b) Opsin (of Rhodopsin ) develops from the erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.
vitamin A (a) (i), (iii) and (v) are true, (ii) and (iv) are false
(c) The pressure on ear drum is equalized by (b) (i), (iii) and (v) are false, (ii) and (iv) are true
eustachian tube (c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true, (iii) and (v) are false
(d) Otolith organ consists of saccule and utricle (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false, (iii) and (v) are true
EBD_7205
MT-170 NEET
176. In a mRNA molecule, untranslated regions 179. Which one of the following statements is correct
(UTRs) are present at with respect to immunity?
(a) 5' - end (before start codon) (a) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to
(b) 3' - end (after stop codon) treat the bite by a viper snake.
(c) both (a) and (b) (b) The antibodies against small pox pathogen
(d) no UTRs present in mRNA are produced by T – lymphocytes.
177. What is the figure given below showing in (c) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of
particular ? which has four light chains.
(d) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of
B-lymphocytes.
180. Given below is a pedigree chart showing the
inheritance of a certain sex-linked trait in humans
s
ok
Generation 1
(a) Ovarian cancer (b) Uterine cancer
bo
(c) Tubectomy (d) Vasectomy Generation 2
178. Identify the human developmental stage shown
_e
below as well as the related right place of its
occurrence in a normal pregnant woman, and Generation 3
select the right option for the two together. Aj
@
Key :
Unaffected male Affected male
At
Unaffected female Affected female

ks
The trait traced in the above pedigree chart is

oo
(a) dominant X - linked

Develeopmental Site of occurrence (b) recessive X-linked
Eb
stage (c) dominant Y - linked

(d) recessive Y-linked
(a) Late morula Middle part of fallopian
e
tube
or
(b) Blastula End part of fallopian tube

M
(c) Blastocyst Uterine wall

(d) 8 celled morula Starting point of fallopian
tube
Hints & Solutions
Mock Test-1
ANS WER KEYS
1 (c) 21 (b) 41 (c) 61 (b) 81 (b ) 1 01 (d ) 1 21 (b ) 1 41 (c) 1 61 (d )
2 (c) 22 (d) 42 (c) 62 (b) 82 (d ) 1 02 (c) 1 22 (d ) 1 42 (c) 1 62 (c)
3 (c) 23 (a) 43 (b) 63 (c) 83 (d ) 1 03 (b ) 1 23 (a) 1 43 (c) 1 63 (d )
4 (d ) 24 (d) 44 (b) 64 (c) 84 (d ) 1 04 (c) 1 24 (a) 1 44 (a) 1 64 (b )
s
ok
5 (a) 25 (c) 45 (a) 65 (d) 85 (a) 1 05 (a) 1 25 (d ) 1 45 (a) 1 65 (a)
6 (c) 26 (b) 46 (d) 66 (b) 86 (c) 1 06 (d ) 1 26 (b) 1 46 (a) 1 66 (a)
bo
7 (c) 27 (c) 47 (b) 67 (b) 87 (b ) 1 07 (a) 1 27 (b ) 1 47 (c) 1 67 (b )
8 (a) 28 (d) 48 (a) 68 (d) 88 (d ) 1 08 (d ) 1 28 (d ) 1 48 (c) 1 68 (b )
_e
9 (c) 29 (c) 49 (d) 69 (c) 89 (c) 1 09 (a) 1 29 (d ) 1 49 (b ) 1 69 (c)
10 (c) 30 (c) 50 (c) 70 (b) 90 (b ) Aj1 10 (a) 1 30 (c) 1 50 (b ) 1 70 (a)
11 (d) 31 (c) 51 (c) 71 (b) 91 (d ) 1 11 (a) 1 31 (d ) 1 51 (d ) 1 71 (a)
@
12 (a) 32 (c) 52 (d) 72 (c) 92 (c) 1 12 (b ) 1 32 (d ) 1 52 (d ) 1 72 (b )
At
13 (c) 33 (c) 53 (a) 73 (c) 93 (d ) 1 13 (a) 1 33 (b ) 1 53 (c) 1 73 (c)

14 (a) 34 (d) 54 (a) 74 (d) 94 (a) 1 14 (a) 1 34 (c) 1 54 (c) 1 74 (c)
ks
15 (b) 35 (d) 55 (a) 75 (d) 95 (d ) 1 15 (a) 1 35 (a) 1 55 (a) 1 75 (d )

16 (d) 36 (a) 56 (c) 76 (a) 96 (c) 1 16 (b ) 1 36 (c) 1 56 (d ) 1 76 (c)
oo
17 (b) 37 (a) 57 (b) 77 (b) 97 (a) 1 17 (c) 1 37 (d ) 1 57 (b ) 1 77 (d )

Eb
18 (a) 38 (c) 58 (c) 78 (b) 98 (a) 1 18 (a) 1 38 (d ) 1 58 (b ) 1 78 (d )

19 (a) 39 (a) 59 (c) 79 (b) 99 (a) 1 19 (b ) 1 39 (a) 1 59 (b ) 1 79 (b)
e
20 (a) 40 (a) 60 (d) 80 (a) 1 00 (b) 1 20 (b ) 1 40 (b ) 1 60 (d) 1 80 (b )

or
Solutions
M
2. (c) Time taken to cover first n m is given by

PHYSICS
1 2 2n
A Force é 0 0 0 ù n= gt n or t n =
1. (c) = = ëM L T û 2 g
B Force
Time taken to cover first (n + 1)m is given
angle 1 by
Ct = angle Þ C = = = T -1
time T
2 ( n + 1)
angle 1 t n +1 =
Dx = angle Þ D = = = L-1 g
distance L So time taken to cover (n + 1)th m is given
C T -1 é 0 -1 ù by
\ = = ë M LT û
D L-1 2 ( n + 1) 2n
t n +1 - tn = -
g g
EBD_7205
MT-172 NEET
2é l32 l
= ë n + 1 - n ùû \ = 6.4 and 21 ; 1.2
g l31 l 31
This gives the required ratio as : 8. (a) Current flowing through the conductor,
I = n e v A. Hence
1, ( 2 - 1 ) , ( 3 - 2 ) , . .. . etc. 2
(starting from n = 0) 4 nevd1 p(1) vd 4 ´ 4 16
= or 1 = = .
1 nev d p(2) 2 vd2 1 1
T 2
3. (c) Time to complete 1/4th oscillation is s.
4 9. (c) Since Range on horizontal plane is
1 u 2 sin 2q
Time to complete th vibration from R=
8 g
extreme position is obtained from
s
p
a 2p T so it is max when sin 2q = 1 Þ q =
ok
y= = a cos w t = a cos t or t = s 4
2 T 6
r NiA
bo
So time to complete 3/8th oscillation 10. (c) M (mag. moment/volume) =
Al
T T 5T
+ =
_e
= Ni (500)15
4 6 12 = = = 30000 Am–1
l 25 ´ 10 –2
4. (d) According to Faraday’s law of electro- Aj
magnetic induction, 11. (d) Unit positive charge at O will be repelled
equally by three charges at the three corners
@
Ldi of triangle.
Induced emf, e = r
dt
By symmetry, resultant E at O would be
At
æ 5–2 ö zero.
50 = L ç ÷
è 0.1sec ø 12. (a) Positive charge particle moves in the
ks
direction of field and so the right trend is :

50 ´ 0.1 5
Þ L= = = 1.67 H Top, down, top, down.
oo
3 3 13. (c) Since moment of inertia I = mr2, where m is

5. (a) the mass of body & r is distance of it from
Eb
6. (c) Work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. The the fixed axis.
mass = density × volume {Q r = density}
energy of two photons can not be added
at the moment photons collide with
e
electron all its energy will be dissipated or rpr 2t

or
wasted as this energy is not sufficient to MA= rp r2t; I A =

knock it out. 2
M
Hence emmission of electron is not MB = rp r2 16 × t/4 = 4 rp r2t

possible. M B (4r )2 4rpr 2t.16t 2
IB = =
1 æ 1 1ö 2 2
7. (c) = Rç - ÷ where R = Rydberg
l è n1 n22 ø
2 64rpr 2 4t
=
constant 2
1 æ 1 1ö 5 \ IB > IA
= ç - ÷= 14. (a) Einstein’s photoelectric effect & compton
l32 è 4 9 ø 36
effect established particle nature of light.
36 These effects can be explained only, when
Þ l 32 = we assume that the light has particle nature
5
(To explain, Interference & Diffraction the
Similarly solving for l31 and l21 light must have wave nature. It means that
9 4 light has both particle and wave nature, so
l 31 = and l 21 =
8 3 it is called dual nature of light)
Solutions-Mock Test -1 MT-173
Dl (Screen position of various minima for

15. (b) = a D T = 10 -5 ´ 100 = 103 Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern of a single
l slit of width a).
Dl 20. (a) According to Stefan’s law
´ 100% = 10-3 ´100 E = s T4
l
Heat radiated per unit area in 1 hour (3600s)
= 10 -1 = 0.1% is
16. (d) Force on M = Mg = 5.7× 10–8 × (300)4 × 3600 = 1.7 × 1010 J
Reaction force = Ma 21. (b) The bullets are fired at the same initial speed
force of friction = mR = m.Ma H u 2 sin 2 60º 2g sin 2 60º
mMa = ´ =
H¢ 2g u 2 sin 2 30º sin 2 30º
( 3 / 2)2
s
3
= =
ok
3
1
(1/ 2)
22. (d) Total resistance of the circuit
bo
Mg
Force of friction will balance the weight. So = 4000 + 400 = 4400 W
_e
g V 440
mMa ³ Mg ; m ³ Current flowing i = = = 0.1 amp.
a. R 4400
17. (b) From the figure, it is clear that angle of
Aj Voltage across load = R i
= 4000 × 0.1 = 400 volt.
incidence on the reflecting surface is 45°.
@
So, critical angle for glass air interface V 10
23. (a) E = = = 1 Vm–1
should be 45°. l 10
At
Now, from the formula 24. (d) When drops combine to form a single drop
of radius R.
1 1
sin C = Þ sin45° =
ks
Then energy released, E = 4 pTR 3 éê -

m m 1 1ù
ër R úû
oo
m = 2 = 1. 4 If this energy is converted into kinetic en-

18. (a) The equivalent circuit is shown in figure ergy then
Eb
e0 A 1 2 é1 1 ù
Thus, Cab = C = mv = 4pR 3T ê - ú
d 2 ër R û
e
1 é4 3 ù 2 é1 1 ù
or
C C
´ pR rú v = 4pR 3T ê - ú
a b 2 êë 3 û ër Rû
M
C C
6T é 1 1 ù
19. (a) Width of central maximum v2 = -
r êë r R úû
2 l D 2 ´ 6250 ´ 10 -10 ´ 0.5
= = 6T é 1 1 ù
a 2 ´ 10 -4 v= -
r êë r R úû
= 3125 ´10 -6 m = 312.5 ´ 10-3 cm.
25. (c) Phase difference = f
2l
sin q = a l l
sin q = l
Path diff = ´ phase diff . = f
a 2p 2p
a q o sin q = 0
sin q = a
–l é 1 1 ù
26. (b) E = Rhc ê - ú
2
Intensity
sin q = –2l êë n1 n 2 2 úû
a
D E will be maximum for the transition for
EBD_7205
MT-174 NEET
The electric and magnetic fields oscillate in

é ù
which ê 1 - 1 ú is maximum. Here n 2 same phase.
2 2
êë n1 n 2 úû
is the higher energy level.
34. (
(d) Gravitational field, I = 5iˆ + 12ˆj N/kg )
é 1 dv
1 ù I =-
Clearly, ê - ú is maximum for the dr
êë n12 n 2 2 úû
éx y ù
third transition, i.e. 2 ® 1 . I transition v = - ê ò I x dx + ò I y dy ú
represents the absorption of energy. êë 0 0
úû
27. (c) Given : work done, W = 830 J
No. of moles of gas, m = 2 = – éë I x .x + I y .y ùû
For diatomic gas g = 1.4
s
Work done during an adiabatic change = – ëé5 ( 7 - 0 ) + 12 ( -3 - 0 ) ûù
ok
mR (T1 - T2 )
W= = - ëé35 + ( -36 ) ûù = 1 J / kg
bo
g -1
i.e., change in gravitational potential 1 J/
2 ´ 8.3( DT ) 2 ´ 8.3( DT ) kg.
_e
Þ 830 = =
1.4 - 1 0.4 Hence change in gravitational potential
Aj energy 1 J
830 ´ 0.4 35. (d) As we know,
Þ DT = = 20 K
2 ´ 8.3
@
é N ù é 1 ùn
28. (d) Velocity after the collision ê ú=ê ú ...(i)
10 ´10 + 5 ´ 0 100 20 ë N0 û ë 2 û
At
= = = m / sec . n = no. of half life

15 15 3
N - no. of atoms left
29. (c) The centre of mass remains at rest because
ks
N0 - initial no. of atoms

force of attraction is mutual. No external By radioactive decay law,
force is acting.
oo
dN
30. (c) = kN
dt
Eb
3R ´ 289 k - disintegration constant

31. (c) v oxg . =
32 dN
N
\ dt =
e
æ 3RT ö dN 0
...(ii)
or
N0
çè vrms = M ÷ø
dt
M
From (i) and (ii) we get

3R ´ 400 dN
vH = so vH = 2230.59 m/sec n
2 dt = é 1 ù
32. (c) Given, VL : VC : VR = 1 : 2 : 3 dN 0 êë 2 úû
V = 100 V
VR = ? dt
As we know, n 4 n
é 100 ù é 1 ù é1ù é1 ù
or, ê
1600 ú = ê2ú Þ ê2ú = ê2ú
V = VR2 + ( VL - VC )
2 ë û ë û ë û ë û
\ n = 4, Therefore, in 8 seconds 4 half life
Solving we get, VR ; 90V had occurred in which counting rate reduces
33. (c) The direction of oscillations of E and B to 100 counts s–1.
fields are perpendicular to each other as T1
well as to the direction of propagation. So, \ Half life, = 2 sec
2
electromagnetic waves are transverse in In 6 sec, 3 half life will occur
nature.
Minimum common frequency = ?

é dN ù As we know,
3
ê ú
\ ê dt ú = é ù
1
ë 1600 û êë 2 úû Frequency, n =
1 T 1000
= Hz
2l m 11
dN
Þ = 200 counts s–1 1000
dt Similarly, n1 = Hz
36. (a) The kinetic energy is directly proportional 6
to temperature. 1000
37. (a) G = 15W, ig = 4 mA, i = 6 A n2 = Hz
Required shunt, 3
æ 4 ´ 10-3 ö 1000
æ ig ö n3 = Hz
S=ç ÷ G = ç ÷ ´ 15 2
è i - ig ø è 6 - 4 ´ 10-3 ø Hence common frequency = 1000 Hz
s
44. (b) Distance in last two second
ok
4 ´ 10-3 1
= ´ 15 = 0.01W = × 10 × 2 = 10 m.
bo
5.996 2
= 10mW (in parallel)
1
Fl Fl mgl
_e
Total distance = × 10 × (6 + 2) = 40 m.
38. (c) Y= Þ Dl = = 2
ADl YA YA 45. (a) Given : T/2 = 0.5 s
39. (a)
f0
=9, \ f0 = 9f e
Aj \ T = 1s
1 1
@
fe Frequency, f = = = 1Hz
Also f0 + fe = 20 (Q final image is at infinity) T 1
If A is the amplitude, then
9 fe + fe = 20, fe = 2 cm, \ f0 = 18 cm
At
40. (a) Let pressure outside be P0 2A = 50 cm Þ A = 25 cm.

ks
2T CHEMISTRY
\ P1 ( in smaller bubble ) = P0 +
r
46. (d) BF3 is planar triangular while PF3 is
oo
2T pyramidal.
P2 ( in bigger bubble ) = P0 + ( R > r) 47. (b) According to Graham’s Law Diffusion:
R
Eb
\ P1 > P2 r1 d
hence air moves from smaller bubble to bigger = 2
r2 d1
e
bubble. Since rate of diffusion

or
41. (c) The size (or length) of collector is large in

comparison to emitter (base is very small in Vol. of gas diffused (V )
M
=
comarison to both collector & emitter) to Time taken for diffusion(t )
dissipate the heat.
42. (c) Suppose the correct barometer height at r1 V1 / t1
\ =
0°C is l 0 , then r2 V2 / t2
l 0 + Dl = 75
r1 V1 / t1 d2
or l 0 + 75 ´ (a Hg - ab ) ´ 27 = 75 or = =
r2 V2 / t2 d1
or
l 0 + 75 ´ (0.6 ´ 10-4 – 0.2 ´ 10 -4 ) ´ 27 = 75 20 / 60 16 / 2 1
\ l 0 = 74.92 cm = = =
V2 / 30 32 / 2 2
43. (b) Total length of sonometer wire, l = 110 cm
= 1.1 m Q Mol. wt = 2 × V.D
Length of wire is in ratio, 6 : 3 : 2 i.e. 60 cm, Mol.wt
30 cm, 20 cm. \ V.D =
Tension in the wire, T = 400 N 2
On calculating,
Mass per unit length, m = 0.01 kg
V2 = 14.1
EBD_7205
MT-176 NEET
CH2-CH=CH2 When (n + l) value is the same see value of n.

(i) Hg(OAC)2
48. (a) i ii iii iv
(ii) NaBH 4 (n + l) (4 + 1) (4 + 0) (3 + 2) (3 + 1)
CH2–CH–CH3 5 4 5 4
\ iv < ii < iii < i
OH 56. (c) Justification : free expansion w = 0
adiabatic process q = 0
49. (d) Decomposition of carbonates and hydrated DU = q + w = 0, this means that internal
oxides. energy remains constant. Therefore,
50. (c) Chlorination of methane proceeds via free DT = 0.
radical mechanism. Conversion of methyl 57. (b) Mn2+ (3d5) is more stable than Mn3+ (3d4).
chloride to methyl alcohol proceeds via 58. (c) In NH4NO3, there are two different N-atoms
nucleophilic substitution. Formation of (NH4+ , NO3– ) with different oxidation
s
ethylene from ethyl alcohol proceeds via numbers, thus reaction is not
ok
dehydration reaction. Nitration of benzene disproportionation.
is electrophilic substitution reaction. 59. (c) In case of unsymmetrical ethers, the site of
bo
51. (c) Benzene is non-polar and hence dissolves cleavage depends on the nature of alkyl
non-polar compounds (like dissolves like). group e.g.,
_e
Among the given compounds, only (c) is
373K
non-polar hence it dissolves in benzene. CH 3O - CH(CH 3 ) 2 + HI ¾¾¾®
52. (d) Ozone hole is reduction in ozone layer in Aj CH3I + (CH3 )2 CHOH
stratosphere.
Methyl Isopropyl
@
53. (a) In a period on moving from left to right ionic iodide alcohol
radii decreases. The alkyl halide is always formed from the
(a) So order of cationic radii is
At
smaller alkyl group.

Cr2+ > Mn2+ > Fe2+ > Ni2+ and 60. (d) For a zero order reaction
(b) Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn
a-x
ks
(correct order of atomic radii)

(c) For unpaired electrons Rate constant = k =
t
oo
Mn 2+ (Five) > Ni2+ (Two) a - 0.5

2 × 10–2 =
2+ 2+
< Co (Three) < Fe (Four) 25
Eb
a – 0.5 = 0.5
(d) For unpaired electrons
a = 1.0 M
Fe2 + (Four) > Co 2 + (Three) 61. (b) As the molecular weight of noble gas atoms
e
> Ni 2 + (Two) > Cu 2 + (One) increases down the group its polarity
or
54. (a) Alkyl iodides are often prepared by the increases due to which van-der-waal’s force
between them increases. Due to increased
M
reaction of alkyl chlorides/bromides with

NaI in dry acetone. This reaction is known polarity of heavier inert gas, its solubility
as Finkelstein reaction. in water also increases. So, most soluble
R - X + NaI ¾¾ ® R - I + NaX gas will be Xe and least soluble will be He.
X = Cl, Br So correct order is Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
NaCl or NaBr thus formed is precipitated 62. (b) l = h
in dry acetone. mv
It facilitates the forword reaction according h = 6.6 × 10–34 J/s
to le chatelier’s principle. The synthesis of m = 1000 kg
alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by
36 ´ 103
heating an alkyl chloride/bromide in the v = 36 km/hr = m/sec = 10 m/sec
presence of a metallic fluoride such as AgF, 60 ´ 60
Hg2 F2 , CoF2 or SbF3 . The reaction is 6.6 ´ 10-34
termed as Swarts reaction. \ l= = 6.6 ´ 10-38 m
3
10 ´ 10
H 3C - Br + AgF ¾¾ ® H 3C - F + AgBr 63. (c) In case two or more chains are of equal
55. (a) According to the (n + l) rule the higher the length, then the chain with greater number
value of (n + l), the higher is the energy.
of side chains is selected as the principal Thus, a pressure below 0.5 atm, it would
chain. burst.
71. (b) Complex Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]Cl will have four
different isomers.
6 2 (i) Geometrical isomers
7 5 4 3
1 + +
NH3 Cl
Cl NH3
2, 3, 5-Trimethyl-4-propylheptane
en en
64. (c) Hybridisation can be calculated by Co Co
calculating the no of valence electron and Cl NH3

dividing it by 8. NH3
cis-form
Cl
trans-form
In SO 4 2 - = Total no. of e– (ii) Optical isomers

= 6 + (6 × 4) + 2 = 32 + +
s
NH3 NH3
32 NH3 Cl
=4
ok
So, no. of hybrid orbitals = en en
3
8 Co Co
\ sp hybridization. Cl NH3
bo
Similarly, for PO 43- ; no. of hybrid orbitals
Cl Cl
cis-form trans-form
5 + 24 + 3 32 72. (c) ® A + B-
¾¾
AB ¬¾
¾
_e
= = =4
8 8 [A + ][B - ]
Hybridisation = sp 3 Aj Ksp =
[AB]
Similarly, for BF4- , it is sp3. Salt will precipitate if ionic conc. > Ksp
@
CH 2 OH [A+][B–] > 1 × 10–8
| (1× 10 )[B–] > 1 ×10–8
–3
HIO4
At
65. (d) CO ¾¾¾ ® 2CH 2 O + CO 2

1 ´ 10-8
| [B- ] > or 1 × 10–5
CH 2 OH 1 ´ 10 -3
ks
73. (c) The hydrolysis of sucrose by boiling with

66. (b) mineral acid or by enzyme invertase or
oo
67. (b) KI reacts with CuSO4 solution to produce sucrase produces a mixture of equal
cuprous iodide (white precipitate) and I2 molecules of D(+) glucose and
Eb
(which gives brown colour) Iodine reacts D(–) Fructose.

with hypo (Na 2 S 2 O 3 5H2 O) solution.
HCl
Decolourisaiton of solution shows the C12 H 22O11 + H 2O ¾¾
¾® C 6 H12O6 + C 6 H12O 6
e
appearance of white precipitate. sucrose D - glu cos e D - Fructose

[a D ]=+66.5º [a D ]=+52.5º [a D ]=-92 º
or
2CuSO4 + 4KI ® 2K 2SO4 + 2CuI + I2 14444442444444 3

Cuprous iodide (Brown colour Invert sugar ,[aD ]=-20º
M
(White ppt.) in solution)

74. (d) In CO2 we have 22 (6 + 8 + 8 = 22) electrons.
2Na 2S2 O3 + I2 ¾¾
® Na 2S4 O6 + 2NaI In (CN22–), we have 22 (6 + 7 + 7 + 2 =22)
Sod. tetrathionate electrons. Both CO2 and (CN22–) have
(coloourless)
68. (d) This reaction shows the formation of H2O, linear structures. Thus, statement (a) is
and the X2 represents the enthalpy of correct.
formation of H2O because as the definition Mg 2 C3 + 4H 2 O ¾¾
®
suggests that the enthalpy of formation is 2Mg(OH) 2 + CH3C º CH
the heat evolved or absorbed when one Propyne
mole of substance is formed from its i.e., statement (b) is also correct .
constituent atoms. The structure of CaC2 is of NaCl type
sp 2 sp sp 2
i.e., statement (c) is also correct.
69. (c) CH 2 = C = CH 2 75. (d) The hydrophilic/ hydrophobic character
70. (b) The balloon would burst when V > 20 L of amino acid residues is important to
P1V1 = P2V2 tertiary structure of protein rather than to
1 × 10 = P2 × 20 secondary structure. In secondary
P2 = 0.5 atm (no bursting) structure, it is the steric size of the residues
EBD_7205
MT-178 NEET
that is important and residues are 81. (b) Recall th at presence of electron-
positioned to minimise interactions withdrawing group increases, while
between each other and the peptide chain. presence of electron-releasing group
76. (a) Given vapour pressure of pure solute decreases the acidity of carboxylic acids.
O O
(P 0 ) = 121.8 mm; Weight of solute (w) = 15 g || ||
Weight of solvent (W) = 250 g; Vapour ClCH 2COOH > H - C - OH > CH3 - C - OH >
pressure of pure solvent (P) = 120.2 mm (electron-withdrawing gp.) (Electron-releasing character
increasing from left to right)
and Molecular weight of solvent (M) = 78
O
From Raoult’s law ||
Po - P w M 121.8 - 120.2 15 78 C 2H 5 - C - OH
= = ´ = = ´ 82. (d) Penicillin is an antibiotic which was first
o m W 121.8 m 250
P
obtained from a fungus, penicillium
s
15 ´ 78 121.8 notatum by the scientist, Flemming.
or m = ´ = 356.2
ok
250 1.6 1
77. (b) With the decrease in the electronegativity 83. (d) H2O2(aq) ® H2O(aq) + O2 (g)
2
bo
of central atom the bond angle decreases For a first order reaction
78. (b) When the concentration of reactant is
2.303 a
_e
reduced to half its initial value, the rate is
k = t log (a - x)
reduced by 2.4 = 4 times Aj Given a = 0.5, (a – x) = 0.125, t = 50 min
0.6
It means, rate µ [ reactant]2 2.303 0.5
@
So, order of reaction = 2 \ k= log
50 0.125
79. (b) p-p overlap between B and F is maximum = 2.78 ´ 10–2 min–1
At
due to identical size and energy of p- r = k[H2O2] = 2.78 ´ 10–2 ´ 0.05

orbitals, so electron deficiency in boron of = 1.386 ´ 10–3 mol min–1
BF3 is neutralized partially to the maximum
ks
Now
extent by back donation.
Hence BF3 is least acidic. d [ H 2 O2 ] d [ H 2 O ] 2d [ O2 ]
oo
- = =
80. (a) Following generalization can be easily dt dt dt
derived for var ious types of lattice 2d [ O2 ] d [ H 2 O2 ]
Eb
arrangements in cubic cells between the \ =-

edge length (a) of the cell and r the radius dt dt
of the sphere. d [ O2 ]
e
1 d[H 2 O 2 ]
\ = ´
or
a dt 2 dt
For simple cubic : a = 2r or r =
2
1.386 ´10-3
M
For body centred cubic : = = 6.93 ´ 10–4 mol min–1

2
4
a= r or r = 3 a 84. (d) Various products are formed when
3 4 nitroarenes are reduced. These are given
For face centred cubic : below for C6H5NO2.
Medium Main product
1 In acidic medium Aniline (C6H5NH2)
a = 2 2r or r = a
2 2 (metal/HCl)
Thus the ratio of radii of spheres for these In neutral medium Phenyl hydroxylamine,
will be (Zn/NH4Cl) NHOH
simple : bcc : fcc
a 3 1
= : a: a In alkaline medium
2 4 2 2
i.e. option (a) is correct answer. NH NH
Hydrazobenzene
Thus, Aniline will be main product in case 90. (b)

of (d).
BIOLOGY
85. (a) DG° = -nFE°
91. (d) Intercalary meristem
(i) Fe 2 + + 2e- ¾ ¾
® Fe; E 0 = - 0.47 V; 92. (c) When the external intercostal muscles and
3+ - 2+ 0 diaphragm relax, the ribs move downward
(ii) Fe + e ¾ ¾ ® Fe ; E = + 0.77 V;
and inward and diaphragm becomes convex
3+
(iii) Fe + 3e ¾ ¾ -
® Fe (dome shaped), thus decreasing the volume
of thoracic cavity and increasing the
(i) D G0 = - nFE 0 = - 2( - 0.47)F = 0.94F pressure in side as compared to the
0 0
atmospheric pressure outside. This will
(ii) D G = - nFE = - 1(+ 0.77)F = - 0.77 F cause the air to move out (expiration).
0
(iii) On adding : D G = + 0.17 F 93. (d) Long-day plants usually flower in the spring
s
or early summer; they flower only if the light
ok
DG 0 = -nFE 0 periods are longer than a critical length,
which is usually 9-16 hours. For example,
E0 for (Fe 3+ ¾¾
bo
® Fe) wheat plants flower only when light periods
0
exceed fourteen hours.
DG 0.17F
_e
= = = -0.057 V 94. (a) A : n B : n C : 2n D : n
-nF -3F 95. (d) The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate.
86. (c) Carbon cannot expand its coordination Aj It enters mitochondria and is oxidatively
number beyond four due to the absence of decarboxylated to acetyl CoA before
@
d-orbitals, hence it cannot form [CCl6 ]2- entering into Krebs cycle.
ion 96. (c) Differentiation of root is controlled by high
87. (b) i Remains unchanged when number of ions auxin concentration. While in tissue
At
before and after complex ion remains culture auxin concentration is made high
constant. to promote rooting.
ks
Solute y Complex y 97. (a)

(a) PtCl4 5 K2[PtCl6] 3 98. (a) DNA ligase is the enzyme which helps in
oo
(b) ZnCl2 3 Zn[(NH3)4]Cl2 3 joining two fragments of DNA. The enzyme

88. (d) The equivalent conductivity of a solution, is used in DNA replication as it joints the
Eb
1000 Okazaki segments (also in proof reading).

Leq = ×k It also finds its use in genetic engineering
C as it can join two or more desired nucleotide
Where,
e
sequences of DNA.
k = specific conductance = Unit ohm–1 cm–
or
1 99. (a)
100. (b) Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed
C = normality of the solution unit g eq/cm3
M
from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary

Hence, the unit of Leq is Ohm .cm (gm –1 2
is cypsela. Cypsela is also called inferior,
equivalent)–1. false or pseudocarpic achene, the thin fruit
89. (c) Nylon-6 is also called as perlon. It is a wall (developed from pericarp and
polymer of caprolactam. thalamus)is attached to the seed at one
O NOH point but the fruits develops from an
NH2OH Beckmann inferior, unilocular and uniovuled ovary,
rearrangement e.g., sunflower, marigold. Some cypsela
Cyclo hexanone Oxime Caprolactam develop pappus for dispersal e.g. Soncus,
O O
Taraxacum.
101. (d) DDT residues are rapidly passed through
NH H 2O
food chain causing biomagnification
H2N(CH2)5COOH
because DDT is liposoluble. Biomagni-
Caprolactam e-Amino Caproic acid
fication, also known as bioamplification or
O O biological magnification, is the increase in
–(NH(CH ) –C–NH–(CH ) –C)– concentration of a substance, such as the
Polymerise 2 5 2 5 n
Nylon-6
EBD_7205
MT-180 NEET
pesticide DDT, that occurs in a food chain produced naturally or they may be induced
as a consequence of: by treatment of the unpollinated flowers
Persistence (slow to be broken down by with auxin.
environmental processes) Removal of androecium before pollen release
Food chain energetics is called emasculation which is helpful in
Low (or non-existent) rate of internal preventing unwanted pollination. Vernalized
degradation/excretion of the substance seeds are the chilled treated seeds for
(often due to water-insolubility). breaking dormancy. Phenyl Mercuric
102. (c) Deep black soil has high content of clay Acetate is an antitranspirant.
and humus, which makes it more fertile and Gibberellins and Auxins are known to induce
so productive. Humus is amorphous and parthenocarpy in plants. If a tomato plant is
colloidal mixture of complex organic treated with a low concentration of auxin
substances. It provides fertility to the soil. and gibberellic acid it’ll produce fruits
s
103. (b) Y represents the site of photosynthesis, without fertilization i.e. parthenocarpic fruits.
ok
where more glucose has been 110. (a) Epistasis is the phenomenon of masking or
manufactured, whilst there is less glucose suppressing the phenotypic impression of
bo
in the medium where the roots Z are placed a gene pair by a non allelic gene pair which
impresses its own effect.
in. W thus is the phloem where the
111. (a) UAA is a nonsense codon. It signals for
_e
photosynthates are transported from the polypeptide chain termination. Hence, only
leaves Y to the roots Z. As for Z, the 24 amino acids chain will be formed as the
direction of water flow is from the roots Z
Aj process of translation will be terminated at
to the leaves Y.
@
25th codon.
104. (c) Embryo sac is 7-celled structure. There is a 112. (b) The rate at which organic molecules are
large central cell with two polar nuclei, egg formed in a green plant is called gross
At
apparatus with egg cell and 2 synergids productivity.

present at micropylar end and its chalazal 113. (a) Food chain is the transfer of energy from
ks
end, 3 antipodal cells are present. green plants (Primary producers), through
105. (a) Epigynous flower Þ G e.g. Cucumber a sequence of organisms occupies in a food
oo
Perigynous flower Þ G – e.g. Rose and chain is known as its trophic level.
plum Therefore, statements (ii) and (iii) are
Eb
Hypogynous flower Þ G e.g. Brinjal correct.

106. (d) 114. (a) The temperature required for vernalization
107. (a) AaBB × aaBB on crossing gives 50% is usually 0—5°C. In nature, the plants
e
individuals having genotype AaBB and requiring vernalization are commonly

biennials (e.g., cabbage, sugarbeet, carrot),
or
50% individuals having genotype aaBB.

which complete their life cycle in two years.
M
Parent : AaBB aaBB They germinate and grow vegetatively in

Gametes :
the first year and produce flowers in the
AB aB aB
second year of growth. These plants fulfill
their cold requirement during winters.
F1
AB aB However, such biennial plants can be made
to flower in one growing season by
providing low temperature treatment (i.e.,
aB AaBB aaBB
0—5°C temperature) to young plants or
moistened seeds.
108. (d) The oceans cover about 2/3 of the whole
115. (a) Carolus Linnaeus gave the binomial system
surface of our earth. Thus it is the most of nomenclature.
stable ecosystem, because of buffering
116. (b) Well developed vascular system present in
action by water. the members of pteridophytes but absent
109. (a) Parthenocarpy is the development of fruits
in mosses as the plant body is sporophyte
without prior fertilization which results in
which is distinguished into true root, stem
the formation of seedless fruits. In some and leaves.
plant species, parthenocarpic fruits are
117. (c) Many proteins must be deposited into the 125. (d) Monascus purpureus is a yeast used in the
ER lumen (membranous sacs) as they are production of statins which are used in
made. Some of these are to be secreted out lowering blood cholestrol.
of the cell and must start their journey in 126. (b) Gel electrophoresis is a technique to
the ER; others are simply too dangerous to separation of DNA fragments according to
synthesize in the cell’s cytoplasm (cytosol), their size. DNA is negatively charged so in
such as lysosomal hydrolases that would gel tank when electric passed, DNA move
digest away parts of the cell if allowed to towards positive electrode.
freely float around the cell after synthesis. 127. (b) DNA or RNA segment tagged with a
118. (a) Association of algae and fungi is referred radioactive molecule is called Probe. They
to as lichen. Symbiotic association of are used to detect the presence of
Rhizobium with roots of leguminous plants complementary sequences in nucleic acid
is referred to as symbiosis. Mycorrhiza is samples. Probes are used for identification
s
symbiotic association between fungi and and isolation of DNA or RNA.
ok
roots of higher plants. The fungal partner 128. (d) Hot spots are those areas which were rich
of mycorrhiza obtains food from roots of in biodiversity but now under threat due to
bo
the higher plant and in return supplies direct or indirect interference of human
mineral elements to it. activites. These regions are on the edge to
_e
119. (b) Laminaria (kelp) and Fucus (rock weed) get some of their species extinct due to
are marine algae. They are the members of humans. Western Ghats in India are under
class- phaeophyceae (brown) algae. Aj threat due to continuous developmental
120. (b) Vacuoles are present mainly in the plant activities and Doon valley is under threat
@
cells. Each vacuole is surrounded by due to continuous mining activities.
cytoplasmic membrane called as tonoplast 129. (d) Bishnois of Rajasthan protect Prosopis
which is similar to plasma membrane. cineraria and Black buck religiously.
At
121. (b) Vascular cambium is produced by two types 130. (c) Osmosis is the movement of solvent
of meristems, fascicular and interfascicular particles from a region of low solute
ks
cambium. concentration to a region of high solute

122. (d) Vessels are elongated, multicellular water concentration through a selectively
oo
conducting channels with wide lumen permeable membrane.

formed by end to end fusion of a large 131. (d) The factors which affect the rate of
Eb
number of vessel elements. Tracheids are transpiration are Light – stomatal opening,
elongated dead cells with tapering ends Temperature – increases rate of
having lignified walls and large or wide transpiration, Humidity – low humidity
e
lumen. Their main function is conduction increases the rate of transpiration whereas
or
of water and minerals from root to leaf. high humidity exerts an opposite effect i.e.
123. (a) The linking of antibiotic resistance gene
M
with the plasmid vector became possible decreases the rate, Wind – High wind
with DNA ligase. DNA ligase is an enzyme causes stomatal closure, thereby, reducing
that is able to join together two portions of the rate of transpiration in plants.
DNA and therefore plays an important role 132. (d) Turgor pressure is the pressure that develops
in DNA repair. DNA ligase is also used in in a cell due to osmotic diffusion of water
recombinant DNA technology as it ensures inside it and is responsible for pushing the
that the foreign DNA is bound to the membrane against cell wall. Stomata open
plasmid into which it is incorporated. under conditions of increased turgor
124. (a) In situ means keeping endangered species pressure of guard cells and stomata get
of animals or plants into natural closed under conditions of decreased turgor
environment and not in the environment
that looks like natural but man made, like pressure of guard cells. When turgid, they
zoological & botanical gardens. In situ swell and bend outward. As a result, the
includes, national parks, sanctuaries and stomatal aperture opens. When they are
biosphere reserve. flaccid, the tension from the wall is released
and stomatal aperture closes.
EBD_7205
MT-182 NEET
133. (b) 148. (c) Reproductive health in society can be

134. (c) A keel is a structure of the papilionaceous improved by creating awareness among
type of flower, made up of two petals loosely people about various reproduction related
united along their edges. aspects and providing facilities and support
135. (a) for building up a reproductively healthy
136. (c) Movement of Ca2+ out in sarcoplasmic society.
reticulum controls the making and 149. (b) Foetal ejection reflex in human female is
breaking of actin and myosin complex induced by fully developed foetus and
actomyosin due to which muscle placenta. When a woman is in a lithotomy
or semi-sitting position, the foetal ejection
contraction and relaxation takes place.
reflex is impaired and the increased pain
Albert Szent Gyorgyi worked out caused by the sacrum’s inability to move
biochemical events of muscle contraction. as the baby descends can be intolerable.
s
137. (d) Brain is the most vital organ. It stops 150. (b) 151. (d)
ok
functioning in the absence of O2. 152. (d) The ascending limb of Henle's loop is non-
138. (d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals and tibia are the permeable to water.
bo
bones of the legs which are involved in 153. (c) Catla catla and Labeo rohita are the two
running during chasing the ball by cricket Indian major carps whereas Heteropneustes
_e
player. is a catfish. Cyprinus is the exotic breed.
139. (a) 154. (c) Chimpanzees and gorillas are our closest
140. (b) Posterior pituitary releases vasopressin
which stimulates reabsorption of water in
Aj relatives among the living primates.
155. (a) Adaptive radiation refers to evolution of
@
the distal tubules in nephron. different species from a common ancestor.
141. (c) The mammals are adapted for different
142. (c) Melanin is the pigment which gives colour
At
mode of life i.e. they show adaptive

to the skin. Retinol is the other name for radiation. They can be aerial (bat), aquatic
vitamin A. Sclerotin is the component of (whale and dolphins), burrowing or fossorial
ks
the carapace in crustaceans. (rat), cursorial ( horse), scantorial (squirrel)

143. (c) When a host is exposed to antigens, which or arboreal (monkey). Th e adaptive
oo
may be in the form of living or dead radiation, the term by Osborn, is also known
microbes or other proteins, antibodies are as Divergent evolution.
Eb
produced in the host body. This type of 156. (d) The most significant trend in evolution of
immunity is called active immunity. Infecting modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
the microbes deliberately during ancestors is development of brain capacity.
e
immunization/vaccination induces active 157. (b)

or
immunity e.g., polio vaccine. 158. (b) Products of honey bee are honey, bee wax,
144. (a) Egg is liberated from the ovary (ovulation)
M
bee venom and royal jelly. Medicinal

at secondary oocyte stage when the importance includes its uses as laxative,
meiosis II is arrested in secondary oocyte. antiseptic, sedative, etc. It is also used
It will be induced by the sperm. against digestive disorders. Bee venom is
145. (a) Stenohaline : Steno meaning narrow and used to cure gout and arthritis. Bee is used
haline meaning salt. A fish cannot handle a in producing cosmetics, paints polishes,
wide fluctuation in salt content in water. etc. It is not a labour intensive process and
Many fresh water fish tend to be is source of additional income to the
stenohaline and die in environments of high farmers.
salinity such as the ocean. Fish living in 159. (b) The terms Porifera was given by Grant, the
coastal estuaries and tide pools are often phylum includes animals with pores in their
euryhaline (tolerant to changes in salinity) body. Its classification based on skeleton
as are many species which have life cycle or spicules.
requiring tolerance to both fresh water and 160. (d) Squamous epithelium is formed of thin
sea water environments such as Salmon. discoidal and polygonal cells that fit like
146. (a) 147. (c) tiles in a floor, so is also called pavement
epithelium. It is found in the walls of blood exists between two people, to identify
vessels, in the alveoli of lungs for exchange organisms causing a disease, and to solve
of gas, and in Bowman’s capsule of crimes.
nephron for ultra filtration. 173. (c) The adult dental formula of human is
161. (d) 162. (c) 2 1 2
163. (d) In the molluscs mantle is a loose fold of Incisor , Canine , Premolar ,
2 1 2
skin, not concerned with locomotion.
3
164. (b) Malaria is caused by Plasmodium. Asexual Molar .
cycle of Plasmodium takes place in man 3
hence, it is secondary host. Sexual cycle of 174. (c) Liver is the primary site of detoxification
Plasmodium occur in mosquito hence, it is and elimination of body wastes and
called the primary host. poisons. Liver detoxifies endotoxins, e.g.
165. (a) toxic NH3 combined with CO2 to form
s
166. (a) Human insulin is being commercially less toxic urea. It also detoxifies alcohol
ok
produced from a transgenic species of and convert them to acetaldehyde and
Escherichia coli. E. coli is a bacterium that then harmless acetyl CoA.
bo
is commonly found in the lower intestine of 175. (d) Rennin (also called rennet or chymosin) is
warm blooded animals. The bacteria can an coagulating enzyme produced from
stomach of human body. It catalyzes the
_e
also be grown easily and its genetics are
comparatively simple and easily coagulation of milk by converting milk
manipulated, making it one of the best Aj with soluble protein caesin into insoluble
studied prokaryotic model organisms, and semi fluid calcium paracaesinate. This is
@
an important species in biotechnology. called curdling of milk. Rennin produced
167. (b) The major obstacle in transplantation of in the infants immediately after birth. As
organs is that the recipient body does not the child grows, rennin production goes
At
accept th e donor ’s organ. The body down and is replaced by pepsin digestive
defence mechanism reject & treat the enzymes.
ks
transplanted organ as a foreign particle and Renin is an enzyme which acts as hormone
reacts actively. secreted by juxtaglomerular cells. It
oo
168. (b) Rauwolfia serpentina belong to family converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin.
Apocynaceae, its roots yield a chemical 176. (c)
Eb
useful for high blood pressure. 177. (d) Osmotic pressure of body fluids is mainly
169. (c) Cyanobacteria Chlorophyll a, PS I and II. maintained by the plasma proteins
170. (a) Heart attack is more common with (albumins, globulins) and electrolyte ions
e
(Na+, K+ etc). Phosphorus has nothing to

increased level of LDL (low density lipids)
or
do with the osmotic pressure of body fluids.

while increased level of HDL (high density
178. (d)
M
lipids) are protective, oestrogen is the 179. (b) If the walls of the collecting duct are water-
hormone which helps in an increase of HDL permeable, water leaves the ducts to pass
level in blood. into the hyperosmotic surrounding and
171. (a) Dolly sheep was obtained by cloning the concentrated urine is produced. Thus, when
udder cell (somatic cell) fused with there is insufficient ADH, less water is re-
enucleated oocyte. absorbed and more dilute urine is produced
172. (b) DNA fingerprinting is a test to identify and in copious amounts.
evaluate the genetic information-called 180. (b) Spleen (also known as blood bank and
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)-in a person’s graveyard of RBCs) is a dark, purple gland
cells. DNA fingerprinting is a form of present in the left side of abdomen against
identification based on sequencing specific the stomach. It is internally made up of
non-coding portions of DNA that are known white pulp and red pulp. Its main functions
to have a high degree of variability from are storage of blood and break down of old
person to person. These sections are and senescent RBCs.
known as Tandem repeats. The test is used
to determine whether a family relationship
EBD_7205
MT-184 NEET
Mock Test-2
ANS WER KEY
1 (b) 21 (c) 41 (a) 61 (a) 81 (c) 101 (d) 121 (b) 141 (c) 161 (d)
2 (c) 22 (c) 42 (b) 62 (b) 82 (a) 102 (b) 122 (a) 142 (d) 162 (a)
3 (b) 23 (d) 43 (b) 63 (a) 83 (d) 103 (a) 123 (a) 143 (c) 163 (c)
4 (c) 24 (b) 44 (d) 64 (a) 84 (a) 104 (d) 124 (c) 144 (a) 164 (d)
5 (d) 25 (c) 45 (c) 65 (c) 85 (c) 105 (a) 125 (b) 145 (a) 165 (a)
6 (c) 26 (b) 46 (a) 66 (b) 86 (b) 106 (c) 126 (a) 146 (b) 166 (b)
s
7 (a) 27 (b) 47 (d) 67 (d) 87 (b) 107 (b) 127 (d) 147 (c) 167 (b)
ok
8 (d) 28 (a) 48 (d) 68 (d) 88 (d) 108 (c) 128 (d) 148 (a) 168 (c)
9 (b) 29 (b) 49 (d) 69 (c) 89 (d) 109 (a) 129 (b) 149 (c) 169 (d)
bo
10 (b) 30 (a) 50 (b) 70 (d) 90 (a) 110 (b) 130 (a) 150 (b) 170 (b)
_e
11 (d) 31 (a) 51 (a) 71 (d) 91 (c) 111 (b) 131 (b) 151 (d) 171 (d)
12 (d) 32 (b) 52 (b) 72 (c) 92 (c) 112 (d) 132 (c) 152 (a) 172 (c)
13 (b) 33 (c) 53 (d) 73 (b) 93
Aj
(d) 113 (a) 133 (c) 153 (b) 173 (b)
@
14 (d) 34 (c) 54 (d) 74 (a) 94 (d) 114 (d) 134 (b) 154 (c) 174 (b)
15 (c) 35 (d) 55 (a) 75 (b) 95 (d) 115 (d) 135 (a) 155 (d) 175 (c)
At
16 (c) 36 (c) 56 (c) 76 (a) 96 (c) 116 (a) 136 (b) 156 (c) 176 (b)
17 (b) 37 (a) 57 (b) 77 (c) 97 (b) 117 (a) 137 (a) 157 (c) 177 (c)
ks
18 (a) 38 (b) 58 (b) 78 (c) 98 (d) 118 (b) 138 (d) 158 (b) 178 (a)
oo
19 (c) 39 (b) 59 (a) 79 (a) 99 (b) 119 (b) 139 (c) 159 (a) 179 (d)
20 (b) 40 (d) 60 (d) 80 (b) 100 (d) 120 (b) 140 (c) 160 (c) 180 (b)
Eb
Solutions
e
or
PHYSICS 3. (b) Particle is starting from rest, i.e., from one

M
of its extreme position.

1. (b) Here, b and x2 = L2 have same dime nsions
A
x2 L2 As particle moves a distance , we can
Also, a = = = M -1T 1 5
E ´t 2 -2
MLT (
T ) represent it on a circle as shown.
y
a × b = [M–1 L2T1]
Hence, correct answer is (b).
2. (c) Minimum excitation energy will be 4A/5 A/5
difference between ground level energy (n P x
q
= 1) & first excited state (n = 2)
A
Now, E1 = -13.6 eV Q
13.6
E2 = eV = -3.4 eV
22 4A /5 4
cos q = =
Difference = – 3.4 + 13.6 = 10.2 eV A 5
æ4ö
q = cos -1 ç ÷
è5ø A B
v
æ 4ö
wt = cos -1 ç ÷
è5ø Let velocity of B after collision be v2 andn
that of A be v1. Then
1 æ4ö
t= cos -1 ç ÷ v2 = 2 gs = 2 ´10 ´ 5 = 10 m/s
w è5ø
mv1 + mv2 = mv
T æ4ö v1 + 10 = 6 Þ v2 = 6 m/s
= cos -1 ç ÷
2p è5ø v -v 10 - 6 1
e= 2 1 = =
As the particle starts from rest, i.e., from v 16 4
s
extreme position x = A sin (wt – f)
4
ok
p 10. (b) n= = 2 \ PV = 2RT T
At t = 0; x=A Þf= 2
2
bo
11. (d) For first minima the path difference
A between the rays coming from the two
A - = A cos wt edges should be l which corresponds to a
_e
5
phase difference of 2p.
4 4 Aj
= cos wt Þ wt = cos-1 12. (d)
1
hn = f + mv2 Þ hv = f + K.E.
5 5 2
@
T æ4ö 1
t= cos -1 ç ÷ n = f+ K.E.
2p è5ø
At
h
4. (c) We shall apply conservation of angular This is equation of a straight line, if we plot
momentum; that is
ks
1
I1w1 = I2 w 2 n, K-E curve. The slope of this curve is
h
oo
2
Þ mv1r1 = mv2 r2 Þ w1r1 = w 2 r2
2 which is constant. So, it is independent of
metals used.
Eb
Þ 44 ´ (0.8) 2 = w2 ´ (1) 2 Option (d) is correct.

13. (b) After 3 sec its velocity
Þ w2 = 44 ´ 0.8 ´ 0.8 = 28.16 radian/sec
v 2 = u 2 + 2gh = 0 + 2 ´ 9.8 ´ 25
e
5. (d) x = a + bt2 = 15 + 3t2

or
dx 1 1
v= = 3 × 2t = 6t K.E = mv 2 = ´ 3 ´ 2 ´ 9.8 ´ 25
dt
M
2 2
Þ v t = 3s = 6 × 3 = 18cm/s = 75 × 9.8 = 748 J.
14. (d) 0.1% of 1 kg = 0.001 kg
æ u + u/5 ö 6
6. (c) fapparent = ç ÷ f = f =1.2f From the formula, E = mc 2
è u ø 5
wavelength remains constant (unchanged) Energy released
in this case. = 0.001 ´ (3 ´ 108 )2 joules
7. (a)
= 9 ´ 1016 ´ 10 -3 = 9 ´ 1013 J
V2t
8. (d) Heat produced, H = . When voltage 15. (c) 3k = x.2k
R [Here a is coefficient of linear expansion
is halved, the heat produced becomes one so coefficient of cubical expansion = 3a &
fourth. Hence time taken to heat the water coefficient of superfacial expansion
becomes four time. = 2a]
9. (b) v = 16 m/s 3
x = = 1.5
2
EBD_7205
MT-186 NEET
16. (c) At the two points of the trajectory during 20. (b)
projectile motion, the horizontal component 21. (c) 13.6 eV energy needed to liberate the
of the velocity is same. Then u cos 60º = electron form hydrogen atom. So electorn
v cos 45º will liberate with kinetic energy. = 15 – 13.6
1 1 150 = 1.4 eV.
Þ 150 ´ = v´ or v = m/s 22. (c)
2 2 2
/2
150 3
Initially : u y = u sin 60º = m/s
2
150 1 150
Finally : v y = v sin 45º = ´ =
2
m/s
2 2
s
150 150 3 From the figure it is clear that in both the
But v y = u y + a y t or = - 10t
ok
2 2 cases wavelength is same. So, frequency
of fundamental tone will also be same.
( 3 - 1) or t = 7.5 ( 3 - 1) s
bo
150
10t = Hence the answer will be (c).
2
-13.6
_e
17. (b) For minimum deviation, incident angle is 23. (d) E3 = = -1.51eV
equal to emerging angle. 32
\ QR is horizontal. Aj -13.6
18. (a) Charge on the tin nucleus = n.Q and E4 = = -0.85 eV
42
@
= (1.6 × 10–19 × 50) C = 8 × 10–18 C
This charge is supposed to be concentrated \ E4 - E3 = 0.66 eV
at its centre. Hence, potential on the surface,
At
P2
1 q 24. (b) K= Þ P = 2 Km
V= × 2m
4pe0 r
ks
as K is made four times P will become two

9 ´ 109 ´ 8 ´ 10 -18 times.
oo
= = 1.1 × 107 V
6.6 ´ 10 -15 4 3
r 25. (c) V= pr ;
19. (c) Given E = Eo xˆ
Eb
3
This shows that the electric field acts along DV æ Dr ö
+ x direction and is a constant. The area ´ 100 = 3ç ÷ ´ 100 = 3 ´ 1 % = 3 %
e
vector makes an angle of 45° with the V è r ø

or
electric field. Therefore the electric flux

through the shaded portion æ Di ö
M
2 26. (b) e = M ç ÷
whose area is a ´ 2 a = 2 a is è Dt ø
r r
f = E. A = EA cos q = E0 ( 2 a2 ) 2I 1.5 I
= 1.5 ´ = 4´
T /2 T
2 1
cos 45° = E0 ( 2 a ) ´ = E0a2 6 ´1
z 2 = = 191 V
2p / 200
27. (b) The figure is showing I – V characteristics
of non ohmic or non linear conductors.
(a,0,a) q = 45°
(a,a,a)
2a 28. (a) M1g = Mg – V 1rl1 g
E
q A
or M1g = Mg – V1r1g … (i)
y
(0,0,0) (0,a,0) and M 2 g =
r1
Mg - V1[1 + g g (t2 - t1)] g … (ii)
[1 + g l (t2 - t1)]
x
After simplifying, we get
æ M - M1 ö 1 a
gl = g g +ç 2 ÷
è M - M 2 ø (t2 - t1 ) F
Mass = m
29. (b) Since no external torque action gymnast, O
so angular momentum (L = Iw) is conserved.
After pulling her arms & legs, the angular f
velocity increases but moment of inertia of
And, torque t = Ia
gymnast, decreases in, such a way that
angular momentum remains constant. mR 2
a = fR
µ0 I q m0 I q 2
30. (a) B= ´ =
2r 2 p 4 pr mR 2 a é aù
31. (a) = fR êQ a = ú
2 R ë R û
32. (b) Let N be the number of nuclei at any time t
s
then, ma
ok
= f ...(ii)
dN 2
= 100 – lN
bo
dt Put this value in equation (i),
ma 3ma
N t or F =
_e
dN ma = F –
or ò (100 - lN ) = ò dt 35.
2
(d) Variation of g with altitude is,
2
0 0 Aj é 2h ù
1
[ log (100 - lN )]0N = t g h = g ê1 - ú ;
@
-
l ë Rû
log (100 – l N) – log 100 = – lt variation of g with depth is,
At
100 - l N é dù
log = – lt g d = g ê1 - ú
100 ë Rû
ks
100 - lN Equating g h and g d , we get d = 2h

= e -lt
oo
100
LC
lN 36. (c) Time period, T1 = 2p LC , T2 = 2p ,.
Eb
1- = e -lt 2
100
T3 = 2p 2 LC
100
e
N= (1 - e -l t ) Clearly t2 < t1 < t3 .

l (a) Given : emf e = 2.1 V
or
37.
As, N = 50 and l = 0.5/sec I = 0.2 A, R = 10W
M
Internal resistance r = ?
100
\ 50 = (1 – e–0.5t) From formula.
0.5 e – Ir = V = IR
Solving we get, 2.1 – 0.2r = 0.2 × 10
æ 4ö 2.1 – 0.2 r = 2 or 0.2 r = 0.1
t = 2ln ç ÷ sec
è 3ø 0.1
Þ r= = 0.5 W
33. (c) The velocity of electromagnetic radiation 0.2
in a medium of permittivity Î 0 and
2 r 2 (r - r0 )g
1 38. (b) Terminal velocity, v 0 =
permeability m0 is equal to . 9h
m0 Î0
34. (c) From figure, 2 ´ (2 ´10 -3 ) 2 ´ (8 - 1.3) ´103 ´ 9.8
ma = F – f ....(i) =
9 ´ 0.83
= 0.07 ms–1
EBD_7205
MT-188 NEET
3 ´108 C 4 C3
39. (b) Velocity of light in glass = It is balanced because = =1
1.5 C1 C5
= 2 ´ 108 m / sec So, we can neglect C2.
Now C4 & C3 are in series, C1 & C5 are
distance
Time taken = in series so their resultant capacitance of
velocity
4 ´ 4 16
each combination = = = 2mF
4 ´10-3 4+ 4 8
= = 2 ´ 10-11 sec
2 ´ 108 These combinations are in parallel, so, total
40. (d) Surface tension of solution capacitance = 2 + 2 = 4mF
(T) = 30 ´ 10-12 N / m CHEMISTRY
s
Radius of the soap bubble (r) = 5 cm 46. (a) It is N, N-dimeth ylcyclopropane –
ok
= 0.05 m carboxamide.
Since, the bubble has two spherical surface, 47. (d) Argyrol is used as an eye lotion.
bo
hence, DA = 2 ´ surface area = 2 × 4pr 2 Antimony is used in Kalazar.
Collidal gold is used in intramuscular
_e
Therefore, surface energy = T × DA injection.
= 30 × 10–2 × 2 × [4 p (0.05)2] Milk of magnesia is used in the stomach
= 1.8 × 10–2 J Aj disorder.
@
n 48. (d) Carboxylic acids dissolve in NaHCO 3 but
æ 1ö
41. (a) N = N0 çè ÷ø phenols do not.
2
At
NaHCO
N0 æ 1ö
n RCOOH ¾¾¾¾
3
® RCOONa + H 2O + CO2
or = N0 ç ÷ by evolving CO2 gas.
16 è 2ø
ks
49. (d) Zinc and lead in molten state are immiscible

or n = 4 and form separate layers, further Zn, being
\ t = nt1/ 2 = 4 ´ 100 = 400 ms.
oo
ligher, forms upper layer. Silver is soluble in

42. (b) both Zn and Pb, and hence all statements
are correct.
Eb
43. (b) For common base

I K2 E é T2 - T1 ù
Current gain = c = 0.96 50. (b) log = ê ú
Ie
e
K1 2.303R ë T1T2 û
or
I c = I e ´ 0.96 = 0.96 ´ 7.2 = 6.912 For reaction A -

M
Ib = Ie - Ic = 7.2 - 6.912 K2
Given, = 2, T1 = 300 K, T2 = 310 K
= 0.288 » 0.29 mA K1
44. (d) Due to malfunctioning of engine, the E é 1 1 ù
process of rocket fusion stops hence net log 2 = - ...(i)
force experienced by the spacecraft 2.303R ë 300 310 úû
ê
becomes zero. Afterwards the spacecraft For reaction B -
continues to move with a constant speed. 2 K
45. (c) The arrangement forms Wheatstone bridge Given, K = 2, E = 2 E, T1 = 300 K, T2 = ?
1
as shown below :
C3 E é 1 1ù
C4 log 2 = ê - ú ...(ii)
2.303R ë 300 T2 û
C2
From equation (i) and (ii),
C5
2E é 1 1ù E é 1 1 ù
ê - ú= -
2.303 R ë 300 T2 û 2.303R êë 300 310 úû
C1
60. (d) CH3 CH3

é 1 1 ù 310 - 300 C=O+O=C
Þ 2ê - ú= CH3 C2 H5
ë 300 T2û 300 ´ 310
Þ T2 = 304.92 K CH3 CH3
T1 = 300 K, T2 = 304.92 K C=C
DT = T2 – T1 = 4.92 K. CH3 CH2 CH3
51. (a) The correct reaction is 2,3-Dimethyl-2-pentene
Silent
61. (a) Vapour pressure of solution

3O 2 (g)
2O 3 (g); DH = + 284.5 kJ. = pA + pB = poA x A + pBo x B
Electric
discharge 120 ´ 2 180 ´ 3
= + = 156 mm
52. (b) A set of question number is valid when 5 3+ 5
l < n and m1 lies between – l to + l. Thus 62. (b) Since Cr in the complex has unpaired
s
sets I, II, IV are valid, III, V invalid. electrons in the d orbital, hence will be
ok
53. (d) Ionic compounds are dissociated in coloured
solution state and form ions. Ions are good Ti = [Ar]3d2 4 s2 ; Ti4 + = 3d0
bo
carrier of charge. So it makes solution Cr = [Ar] 3d5 4s1; Cr3+ = 3d3
conducting. Zn= [Ar] 3d10 4s2; Zn2+= 3d10
_e
54. (d) Br2 in CCl4 (a), Br2 in CH3 COOH (b) and Sc = [Ar] 3d1 4s2; Sc3+ = 3d0
alk. KMnO4 (c) will react with all unsaturated 63. (a) According to the adsorption theory of
compounds, i.e., 1, 3 and 4 while ammonical Aj catalysis, the activity of catalysis is due to
AgNO 3 (d) reacts only with terminal the presence of free valencies on its surface
@
alkynes, i.e., 3 and hence compund 3 can due to which surface of catalyst has
be distinguished from 1, 2 and 4 by. chemical force of altraction. When a gas
ammonical AgNO3 (d). comes in contact with this sur face
At
55. (a) N2 = 3H2 = 6H molecules get attached attached through

these valencies. Further the rate of reaction
N
ks
\ 1H = 2 is always increases by decreases in

6 activation energy
oo
Thus, equivalent weight of N2 When any of the reactants is strongly

molar mass 28 adsorbed on the surface of catalyst, the rate
= = = 4.67
Eb
6 6 becomes inversely proportional to the

56. (c) CO and oxides of Nitrogen are poisnous concentration of that reaction. The reaction
gases present in automobile exhaust gases. is then said to be inhibited by such reactant.
e
The lowering of activation energy always

57. (b) For spontaneous reaction E0cell must be
or
leads to the increase in speed of reaction.

positive. 64. (a) On increasing pressure, the temperature is
M
Zn 2+ ¾¾
® Zn; E 0 = -0.76V also increased. Thus in pressure cooker due
to increase in pressure the b.p. of water
Cu 2 + ¾¾
® Cu; E 0 = -0.34V increases.
Here Cu acts as cathode and zinc acts as 65. (c) More stable the carbocation, more reactive
anode.
will be the parent alkyl halide towards S 1 N
E °cell = E °C - E °A = (-0.34) - ( -0.76) reaction.
= 0.42 V. 3° > Benzyl > Allyl > 2° > 1° > methyl
58. (b) S
59. (a) For a cubic structure, 1
CH3
No. of X atoms = 8 ´ 1 = 1 66. (b) H 2
Cl
8 Cl 3
H
1 C2H5
No. of Y atoms = 6 ´ = 3
2 S
\ Formula of the compound = XY3 So compound is (2S, 3S)
EBD_7205
MT-190 NEET
67. (d) As the unit of rate constant is sec–1, so the 73. (b) For fcc,
reaction is first order reaction. Hence
2a a
1 [N O ] r= = = 0.3535a
k = = log a or kt = log 2 5 0 4 2 2
t ( a - x) [N 2 O5 ]t given a = 361 pm
68. (d) Among 1, 2- and 1, 3- configurations, 1, 3- r = 0.3535 × 361
is more stable due to less repulsion. = 128 pm
Further among cis and trans isomers, trans 74. (a) The aminoglycosides are among the oldest
is more stable due to less crowding. antibiotics.
69. (c) Pb with dil HCl forms protective coating of 75. (b) The given statement explains that Al is
PbCl2 placed above Cu in E.C.S. hence it can
NH2 reduce Cu from its salt solution (reduction).
NH2
Br Br Thus Al acts as a reducing agent now,
s
NaNO Given : electrode potential of copper
¾¾ ¾¾
2®
ok
70. (d) +3Br2
& dil HCl
(E 0 cell ) = + 0.34 V
bo
Br e.m.f of cell = 2 V
2, 4, 6 tribromoaniline We know that,
_e
+ – emf of a galvanic cell (E 0 cell )
N2Cl N2BF4
Br Aj = electrode potential of Cu (cathode) –
Br Br Br
NaBF4 electrode potential of Al (anode)
¾¾ ¾
¾®
@
( - NaCl) 2.0 = 0.34 – E 0 Al
Br Br E 0 Al = 0.34 – 2.00 = – 1.66 V
At
Diazonium Diazonium Hence, electrode potential of Al is – 1.66 V.

salt tetra fluro borate
Option (b) is correct.
ks
F PCC I / alkali
76. (a) X ¾¾¾ ® Y ¾¾¾¾ 2 ® CHI3
Br Br
oo
D Compund Y must give iodoform test.

-N 2 Further since Y is obtained by the oxidation
Eb
- BF3 of X which must be an alcohol (CH3CH2OH)

Br and thus Y is CH3CHO.
2,4,6 tribromofluorobenzene 77. (c) On losing two electrons from
e
71. (d) The semiconductors formed by the 1s 2 ,2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 electronic configuration,
or
introduction of impurity atoms containing

one elecron less than the parent atoms of becomes 1s 2 ,2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 0 , it is more stable
M
insulators are termed as p-type

semiconductors. Therefore silicon than 1s 2 ,2s 2 2p 6 ,3s 2 . Since energy gap
containing 14 electrons is to be doped with
boron containing 13 electrons to give a between 2p 6 and 3s 2 will be more due to
p- type semi-conductor. changing of shell from 3s to 2p. Therefore,
the difference in values of IInd ionisation
Br
72. (c) HO SO3H ¾¾¾
2® energy and IIIrd ionisation energy of this
H2 O configuration is more.
Br Hence, option (c) is correct.
78. (c) CH3COCH3 + 3I2 + 4KOH ¾¾ ® CHI3 +
HO SO3H
CH3COOK + 3HI + 3H2O
Br 79. (a) Justification : According to Le-Chatelier’s
– OH group is highly activating. This is a principle, at constant temperature, the
type of electrophillic substitution reaction equilibrium composition will change but K
at ortho and para position. will remain same.
80. (b) Heavy metal ions, particularly Ag+, catalyse (Xe atom in 3rd excited state)
S 1 reaction because of presence of empty
N F F
orbital.
+
CH3CH 2Br + Ag Xe
+
[CH3CH2 .... Br .... Ag]
–
F F
slow + OH
CH3CH 2 CH 3CH 2OH
(–AgBr) from H 2O O
81. (c) Calculating the oxidation states of I, we get XeOF4
H5IO6 ; 5 + x – 12 = 0 or x = +7 (Xe in 3rd excited state)
H3IO5; 3 + x – 10 = 0 or x = +7
HIO4 ; 1 + x – 8 = 0 or x = +7 Xe
s
Thus, the correct answer is + 7, +7, +7
ok
82. (a) Starch is also know as amylum which O O
occurs in all green plants. A molecule of
bo
O
starch (C 6 H10 O5 ) n is built of a large
XeO3
number of a-glucose ring joined through
_e
(Xe in 1st excited state)
oxygen-atom.
83. (d) The halide ions act as reducing agents . F– Aj Thus, all the three have same no. of lone
ion does not show any reducing nature but pair of electrons i.e. one.
89. (d) Given DE = 4.4 × 10–4 j , l = ?
@
Cl–, Br– & I– ion act as reducing agents and
their reducing nature is in increasing order hc 6.6 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3 ´ 108
Cl – Br – I – l= = = 4.5 ´ 10 -22 m
At
DE - 4
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® 4.4 ´ 10
Re ducing nature increases 90. (a) Vitamin B complex is water soluble vitamin
whereas vitamin A, D, E and K are fat
ks
84. (a) Square Planar Structure : XeF 4 and

[PtCl4]2– soluble vitamin.
oo
85. (c) Due to non-availability of vacant d-orbitals, BIOLOGY

it cannot exceed its coordination number
more than four. Thus carbon never forms
Eb
91. (c) During the origin of life, the first organisms

complexes e.g., [CCl6]2– deos not exist but evolved were chemoheterotroph. They
[SiCl6]2– exists. obtained the organic material from outside
e
CH3 H CH2 which they utilized in energy production

or
86. (b) C=C C and synthesis of their own organic material.

– CH2 CH2 CH3 92. (c) Cyanobacteria contains Chlorophyll so
M
CH2 CH3 H it is also known as photosynthetic

C=C C=C autotrophs.
H CH2 93. (d) Azolla has been used as a green manure
CH2–
Natural rubber crop in Vietnam and China for centuries.
(All cis configuration) The ability of Azolla to shade out weeds in
All statements except (b) are correct wetland rice and taro has been noted by
87. (b) For a first order reaction the positive slope farmers and researchers since the early 20th
is obtained when we plot – loge [A] vs t. century.
F 94. (d) Submerged hydrophytes do not have
F stomata (a protective mechanism in aquatic
88. (d) plants against water logging of internal cells
F F and tissues).
95. (d)
Xe 96. (c) The concept of quiescent centre was
proposed by Clowes in 1961. On the basis
F F of autoradiograph ic studies of DNA
XeF6
EBD_7205
MT-192 NEET
synthesis in the root tip of zea, he found a sandy soils with pH levels close to or below
reservoir of cells having low DNA, RNA pH 6 under conditions of high fertility can
and protein concentration. They may or show severe Mb deficiency. Molybdenum
may not divide. It is resistant to damages. is the only plant essential micronutrient that
97. (b) Water hyacinth "Terror of Bengal" is an becomes less available as the soil acidifies–
aquatic plant which is one of the most the opposite of copper, zinc and iron.
invading weeds found growing in the 107. (b) Glucose and pyruvic acid serve as sources of
standing water. It is also called as "blue substrates which the homogenised cells
devil' as it takes oxygen from the water can oxidise in glycolysis and Krebs cycle
which causes death of fishes. This plant respectively. Mitochondria however, can
was introduced in India for its beautiful only oxidise pyruvic acid via the Krebs
flowers and shape of leaves. It can cycle.
propagate vegetatively at a fast rate and 108. (c) During the calvin cycle, the radioactive CO2
s
spread all over the water body in a short is accepted by ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate
ok
time. It is very difficult to remove it from the (RuBP) in the formation of the first product,
water body. 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGA), which
bo
98. (d) The axillary buds of the potato tuber are will be the first compound to contain 14C.
called “eyes” in common language. They 109. (a) Photolysis is catalysed by the protein-
_e
are found at the nodes of the stem tuber.
99. (b) Excess sulfur is a primary cause of acid rain. bound inorganic complex containing
100. (d) Silicosis is caused by exposure to dust Aj manganese ions (oxygen evolving
containing silica. complex) of photosystem II.
@
101. (d) A stirred-tank bioreactor is a cylindrical or 110. (b) The bulk of the organic material of a plant
curved base to facilitate the mixing of the is derived from carbon dioxide that is
reaction content. It has been designed for
At
assimilated from the atmosphere.

availability of oxygen throughout the 111. (b) Under still air conditions from point C, the
process. rate of stomatal transpiration remains
ks
102. (b) Nucellus - 2n, antipodal cells - n constant. This is because the air
Antipodal cells - n, egg cell - n immediately surrounding the stomatal
oo
Antipodal cells - n, megaspore mother aperture is not removed by moving air.

cell - 2n Thus, even when the stomata are fully open,
Eb
Nucellus - 2n primary endosperm

transpiration will not increase.
nucleus - 3n
Antipodal and egg cell are the product of 112. (d) When a pair of contrasting characters are
studied during hybridization, it is called
e
meiotic division and rest are not.

dihybrid cross. In F2-generation, its ratio
or
103. (b)
is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
104. (d) In angiosperms one male gamete fuses with
M
It means when parents having –

the egg to form diploid zygote. The process
Yellow, round Crossed with green wrinkled
is called syngamy. The other male gamete
seeds seeds
fuses with the two polar nuclei to form
(IIRR) × (iirr)
triploid primary endosperm nucleus. The
will give 9 – Yellow round seeds.
process is called triple fusion. These two
3 – Yellow wrinkled seeds.
acts together known as double fertilization.
3 – Green round seeds.
The process was I st demonstrated by 1 – Green wrinkled seeds
Nawaschin & Guignard in Fritillaria &
113. (a) A blanket of air surrounding the earth is
Lilium. called as atmosphere and it is divided into
105. (a) Without leaves there can be no evaporation different strata (zone). The zone of
from the leaf surfaces, greatly reducing atmosphere that lies near the ground is
water loss. troposphere.
106. (c) ‘Whip-tail’ disease in cauliflower is noted 114. (d) The phenomenon of making DNA over RNA
due to deficiency of molybdenum. genome through enzyme reverse
Cauliflower is the most sensitive of crops transcriptase is called reverse transcription
to molybdenum (Mb) deficiency. Light or teminism.
115. (d) Triple dwarf mexican wheat varieties were 126. (a)
developed by N.E.Borlaug (Agricultural 127. (d) Endangered species are those species that
geneticist). They were introduced into India have been reduced to a critical level and
as Sonora-64 and Lerma Roja 64. are in immediate danger of extinction. Some
116. (a) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were common endangered wild life species of
used in the crops in the vicinity and the India are snow leopard, Himalayan musk
lake water turned green and stinky. Due to deer, great Indian bustard, wild ass Kashmir
this, lake near a village suffered heavy stag etc.
mortality of fishes within a few days. 128. (d) In gel electrophoresis, agarose extracted
117. (a) The ozone that shields the surface of Earth from sea weed used as gel agarose, made
from most incoming ultraviolet radiation is of 0.7% gel show good resolution of large
located in the stratosphere. DNA and 2% gel will show good resolution
118. (b) Glycogen is an animal starch, stored in of small fragments.
s
the liver and is polysaccharide of- 129. (b) Erythromycin - Streptomyces griseus
ok
Glucose. About 30,000 glucose molecules 130. (a) The pores in the nuclear membrane permit
joined by 1-4a-glycosidic bonds and its large molecules such as proteins and RNA
branches by 1-6a-glycosidic bonds. It
bo
to enter or exit this organelle.
gives red colour with iodine solution. 131. (b) Niche indicate the habitat of a particular
• Galactose is a monosaccharide from
_e
species and the interaction of that species
milk. with the resources present in the habitat.
• Fructose is a monosaccharide from Aj Niche overlap means that two or more
fruit. species sharing the resources present in a
• Sucrose is a disaccharide
@
particular niche.
(Glucose + Fructose). 132. (c) Coconut milk represents the non-cellular
119. (b) As a result of glycolysis, one molecule of endosperm of the coconut fruit. It is widely
At
glucose is broken down to two molecules

used in tissue culture because it is extremely
of pyruvate. During glycolysis 4 molecules
rich in kinetin, a type of cytokinin.
of ATP are produced but 2 molecules of
ks
Cytokinins are plant growth hormones that

ATP are consumed in the activation of
promote cell division, and consequently
glucose molecule. Therefore, there is a net
oo
gain of 2 molecules of ATP. they are widely used in tissue culture

120. (b) In succulent plants like Opuntia, there is practices to rapidly promote cell growth and
Eb
an in complete oxidation of the division.

carbohydrates resulting in the formation of 133. (c) Okazaki fragments in DNA are linked up by
organic acids. CO2 is not released. the enzyme DNA ligase. Replication always
e
2C6H12O6 + 3O2 ® 3C4H6O5 + 3H2O + 386 kcal. occur in 5' - 3' direction. Okazaki fragments
or
CO2 O synthesized on 3' - 5' DNA template, join to

R.Q. = = =O form lagging strand which grows in 3' - 5'
M
O2 3 direction.
121. (b) First G proteins are activated by the 134. (b) The root nodules of leguminous plants
phytochrome. These in turn open calcium contain a symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria
channels and convert GTP to cGMP. Ca2+ Rhizobium. Root nodules are small
binds calmodulin, and the calcium-
irregular outgrowth of the roots which are
calmodulin and cGMP turn on specific
pinkish internally due to presence of a
genes.
pigment called leghaemoglobin. It is related
122. (a) The presence of testosterone enables RNA
to blood pigment haemoglobin. The cells
polymerase to transcribe certain male-
specific genes. of root nodules are tetraploid and contain
123. (a) polyhedral bacteria called bacteroids.
124. (c) Golden rice is vitamin A rich variety Leghaemoglobin is an oxygen scavenger
developed by rDNA technology and used and protects the nitrogen fixing enzyme
in the treatment of vitamin A deficiency. nitrogenase of bacteroids.
125. (b) Biodiversity is the number of variety of 135. (a)
organism found within a specified 136. (b) Annelids have successfully combined true
geographic region. coelomic cavities and repeating
EBD_7205
MT-194 NEET
segmentation to more precisely control where N is population density at time t, r is

body movements compared with the the Malthusian parameter (rate of maximum
anatomically simpler worms. population growth) and K is the so called
137. (a) Methanobacillus (methanogen) occurs in carrying capacity (i.e. maximum sustainable
marshes and also in dung. It produces CH4 population). It is a type of population
gas under anaerobic condition and is growth when resources are limiting.
utilized in gobar gas plant. 151. (d)
138. (d) 152. (a) Lubb sound is caused partly by the closure
139. (c) Silver fish (Insecta), scorpion (Arachnida); of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves and
crab (Crustacea) and honey bee (Insecta) partly by the contraction of the muscles
all belong to phylum Arthropoda which is in the ventricles. Lubb is the first heart
characterized by the presence of jointed sound.
appendages. Poison glands occur only in 153. (b) Nephron is the excretory unit of human
excretory system. Each nephron has a
s
scorpion . Compound eyes an d
ok
metamorphosis are the characteristic of Bowman’s Capsule, a Proximal Convoluted
insects. Tubule (PCT), Loop of Henle (Descending
& Ascending limbs) and Distal Convoluted
bo
140. (c) 141. (c)
142. (d) Pulmonary CO2 is found to be lower than Tubule (DCT) which then enter into
cutaneous O2 at all temperatures. Note that collecting duct.
_e
statement A is a wrong answer. This is 154. (c) Peak P-causes diastolic phase in ventricle
because at 5oC, pulmonary O2 is lower than Aj while R-Peak causes systole in ventricle
cutaneous O2, although as the temperature means diastolic and systolic phases
represented by P & R.
@
increases, the reverse becomes true.
143. (c) 144. (a) 155. (d)
145. (a) Vasa efferentia are fine ciliated ductules that 156. (c) In gout, there occurs a defect in uric acid
At
arise from the seminiferous tubules of testis metabolism resulting into its elevated level
(where sperms are formed) and open into in blood (hyperuricemia). This is followed
by precipitation of excessive uric acid
ks
epididyms which is a mass of long, narrow,

closely coiled tubule lying along the inner which gets deposited in the joint spaces.
These deposited crystals of uric acid causes
oo
side of testis. Epididymis stores the sperms.

Thus, if vasa efferentia get blocked, sperms pain in different bony joints.
157. (c) Organs that are similar in fundamental
Eb
will not be transported from testes to

epididymis. structure but different in functions are
146. (b) Semen consists of sperm and the secretions “Homologous organs”. Richard Owen,
introduced the term homologous. Pectoral
e
of the seminal vesicles, the bulbourethral

glands, and the prostate. In the epididymis, fins of fish and fore limbs of horse similar in
or
the glandular structures have not yet structure but different in functions are
homologous organs.
M
contributed their secretions to the semen.

147. (c) Halophytes is a group of salt tolerate plants Rest of the organs compared in the question
which grow in salt marshes and mudflats. are analogous organs.
148. (a) 158. (b) Down’s syndrome is due to trisomy of 21st
149. (c) Distinct parts of the adrenal glands, the chromosome and is an autosomal
cortex and the medulla, each produce abnormality.
different hormones, the cortical region 159. (a)
produces coffins, e.g. corticosterone, which 160. (c) The lack of independent assortment in
are essential to normal metabolism by sweet pea and Drosophila is due to linkage.
controlling ionic distribution of Na+ and K+ 161. (d) Jurassic period of meoszoic era was about
in particular. A higher amount of the 19-20 crore years ago & lasted for about
hormone injected in Z accounts for the 5.5-6 crore years. The climate was hot and
higher rate of reabsorption of Na+. damp. It is called the age of dinosaurs. Ist
150. (b) The logistic population growth is expressed primitive bird Archaeopteryx evolved from
reptiles. Ist angiosperm appeared as a
dN é (K - N ) ù dicotyledon but gymnosperms were
by the equation = rN ê
dt ë K ûú dominant.
162. (a) Cri-du-chat/cat cry syndrome is due to cGMP (Cyclic Guanosine Monophosphate)
the deletion of large part of the small or which acts as secondary messenger works
one of the 5th chromosome. on the action of acetylcholine, increase in
163. (c) Common activities in bioinformatics include flow of Ca2+ into muscle fibres & hence
mapping and analysing DNA and protein causes muscle relaxation. There is no role
sequences, aligning different DNA etc. are of sodium in hormonal action.
the part of human genome project. 171. (d)
164. (d) 172. (c) The lymphocytes which differentiate in the
165. (a) It is the relationship between the percentage thymus are known as the T - lymphocytes.
saturation of haemoglobin (by volume) in T-lymphocytes are responsible for the
the blood and the oxygen tension (in partial cellular immune response.
tension) pO2 of the blood. 173. (b) Tranquilizers bring about depression of
It is usually a sigmoid plot. Haemoglobin brain activity and feeling of calmness.
s
molecules can bind up to four oxygen Stimulants stimulate the nervous system,
ok
molecules in a reversible way. The shape and increase alertness and activity.
of the curve results from the interaction Hallucinogens (Cannabis products) alter
bo
of bound oxygen molecules with incoming thoughts, perceptions and feelings.
molecules. The binding of the first 174. (b)
_e
molecule is difficult. However, this 175. (c) Carcinomas are malignant growths of the
facilitates the binding of the second and epithelial tissue that cover or line body
third molecules, and it is only when the Aj organs.
fourth molecule is to be bound that the 176. (b) A drug that causes inhibition of peristaltic
@
difficulty increases, partly as a result of movement of the digestive tract, a dry
crowding of the haemoglobin molecule, mouth feeling, and dilation of the pupils
partly as a natural tendency of oxygen to mimics the effects of the sympathetic
At
dissociate. division of the ANS. Thus, its effects are

166. (b) Hyoid is a horse shoe shaped bone similar to those caused by release of
ks
present in neck between lower law and norepinephrine (noradrenaline) from

sound box (larynx). It is not articulated to sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
oo
any bone, but is simply suspended, from 177. (c) 178. (a)
temporal bones by means of ligaments. 179. (d) The last two pairs i.e. 11th and 12th pairs
Eb
Hyoid provides surface for the attachment ribs remain free anteriorly, hence, they are
of tongue muscles. called as floating ribs.
167. (b) 168. (c) 169. (d) 180. (b) Cro-Magnon fossils have been found in
e
170. (b) In heart cells, AMP acts as secondary Europe. Neanderthal man is a transitional
or
messenger which is made in the response stage. Australopithecus appeared in early

of adrenaline and it stimulates Ca2+ ions to Pleistocene.
M
come out from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

of muscle fibres which causes muscle
contraction.
EBD_7205
MT-196 NEET
Mock Test-3
ANS WER KEY
1 (d) 21 (a) 41 (a) 61 (b) 81 (d) 101 (d) 121 (d) 141 (a) 161 (a)
2 (a) 22 (b) 42 (c) 62 (a) 82 (a) 102 (d) 122 (c) 142 (b) 162 (b)
3 (c) 23 (a) 43 (a) 63 (a) 83 (d) 103 (d) 123 (a) 143 (b) 163 (d)
4 (d) 24 (a) 44 (c) 64 (c) 84 (d) 104 (a) 124 (c) 144 (d) 164 (a)
5 (c) 25 (d) 45 (d) 65 (b) 85 (d) 105 (d) 125 (b) 145 (b) 165 (a)
6 (b) 26 (d) 46 (a) 66 (a) 86 (a) 106 (b) 126 (a) 146 (d) 166 (a)
s
7 (a) 27 (b) 47 (d) 67 (c) 87 (c) 107 (c) 127 (c) 147 (b) 167 (a)
ok
8 (d) 28 (c) 48 (d) 68 (a) 88 (c) 108 (b) 128 (d) 148 (b) 168 (c)
9 (a) 29 (b) 49 (d) 69 (a) 89 (a) 109 (b) 129 (b) 149 (c) 169 (a)
bo
10 (a) 30 (a) 50 (d) 70 (c) 90 (d) 110 (a) 130 (d) 150 (c) 170 (c)
_e
11 (a) 31 (a) 51 (c) 71 (a) 91 (c) 111 (b) 131 (b) 151 (d) 171 (a)
12 (d) 32 (a) 52 (a) 72 (d) 92 (b) 112 (a) 132 (c) 152 (d) 172 (c)
13 (c) 33 (d) 53 (c) 73 (c) 93
Aj
(d) 113 (d) 133 (d) 153 (b) 173 (a)
@
14 (d) 34 (d) 54 (a) 74 (c) 94 (d) 114 (b) 134 (c) 154 (d) 174 (b)
15 (d) 35 (b) 55 (c) 75 (d) 95 (a) 115 (b) 135 (c) 155 (c) 175 (c)
At
16 (d) 36 (b) 56 (d) 76 (d) 96 (b) 116 (b) 136 (c) 156 (c) 176 (c)
17 (b) 37 (d) 57 (d) 77 (d) 97 (b) 117 (b) 137 (b) 157 (d) 177 (a)
ks
18 (a) 38 (b) 58 (a) 78 (a) 98 (a) 118 (b) 138 (a) 158 (c) 178 (b)
oo
19 (d) 39 (c) 59 (b) 79 (d) 99 (a) 119 (c) 139 (a) 159 (b) 179 (a)
20 (a) 40 (b) 60 (a) 80 (b) 100 (b) 120 (c) 140 (b) 160 (c) 180 (c)
Eb
Solutions
e
or
PHYSICS 4. (d)
M
5. (c) The ray is incident on face AC at an angle

1. (d) Required percentage A, after reflection, it incident of face BC at
an angle B. Thus
0.02 1 0.01
= 2´ ´100 + 100 + ´ 100 ÐA + ÐB = 90°.
0.24 30 4.80 As B < A, so the ray if totally reflected
= 16.7 + 3.3 + 0.2 = 20% from face BC, it must be reflected from AC
2. (a) I1w1 = I2w2 also. For this angle B should be greater
As I2 > I1, than critical angle C. For minimum value of
\ w2 < w1 m, B can be infinitesimally than C, so B = C
GM dg dM dR (critical angle).We know that
3. (c) g= Þ = -2
R 2 g M R 1 1
m= =
sin C sin B
dg æ dR ö For A = B, B = 45°
Þ ´ 100 = -2ç ´ 100 ÷
g è R ø 1
\ mmin = sin 45° = 2
l2 4
The ratio = .
l1 1
11. (a) It will continue rolling because incline and
sphere are at rest with respect to the car.
12. (d) Eddy current is the current produced in the
6. (b) Kirchoff’s Ist law states that the algebraic body of a conductor due to electromagnetic
sum of currents (charges) meeting at the induction. Moving coil galvanometer,
junction is zero or Si or Sq = 0, hence, it is electric brakes and induction motor based
based on the conservation of charge. on electromagnetic induction. Hence they
Kirchoff’s IInd law states that algebraic sum use eddy current. Dynamo doesn’t use it.
of the products of resistance and respective
GMe GM e
13. (c) V< Þ W ( Re ∗ h) <
s
current in a closed mesh is zero. SiR = SE,
Re ∗ h (Re ∗ h)
ok
hence, it is based on the conservation of
energy.
GM e
ÞW <
bo
T -T ( Re ∗ h)3
7. (a) Efficiency = 1 2
T1
_e
14. (d) When charged particle enters
T1 = 227 + 273 = 500 K perpendicularly in a magnetic field, it moves
T2 = 127 + 273 = 400 K Aj in a circular path with a constant speed.
500 - 400 1 Hence its kinetic energy also remains
@
h= = constant.
500 5
15. (d) Both oxygen and nitrogen will have same
1 specific heat as they are diatomic gases.
At
Hence, V = (h) ´ H = ´ 6 = 1.2 k cal Let q be the temp. of mixture.

5
8. (d) Work function (W0 ) and the threshold Loss of heat = gain of heat
ks
frequency (n0) are related as below 16 14

´ C p ´ (37 - q) = ´ C p (q - 27)
oo
W0 = hn0 16 44
W0 (5 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 ) V 64
Eb
\ n0 = = 2q = 37 + 27 = 64 Þ q = = 32° C.
h (6.625 ´ 10-34 ) Js 2
= 1.2 × 1015 Hz 16. (d) According to Gauss’ Law
r
e
r r ar . b Q enclosed by closed surface

ò E.ds =
or
9. (a) Component of a along b < r = flux

|b | eo
M
10. (a) For Lyman series so total flux = Q/eo

Since cube has six face, so flux coming out
1 é1 1 ù through one wall or one face is Q/6eo.
= -
l êë l 2 n 2 úû x1 x1 x
é1 ù 1
For shortest wavelength, n = ¥ ,
1 1
17. (b) ò ò
W = F dx = c x dx = ê c x 2 ú
ë2 û0
0 0
\ = R Þ l1 =
l1 R 1 1
For Balmer series = c ( x12 - 0) = c x12
2 2
1 é1 1 ù 18. (a)
=Rê - ú 19. (d) The value of red, violet and green are : 2, 7
l1 ë2 2
n2 û and 105. And gold represents a tolerance
For shortest wavelength, n = ¥ , 5%. Thus R = 27 × 105 W ± 5%.
1 R 4 20. (a) Frequency does not depend upon radius.
\ = Þ l2 = As length is doubled, fundamental
l2 4 R
frequency becomes half.
EBD_7205
MT-198 NEET
21. (a) F = 6 p h r n t3 t2 t2
= 6 × 3.14 × (8 ×10–5) × 0.03 ×100 Integrating, s = 3 +5 = t3 + 5
= 4.52 ×10–3 dyne 3 2 2
\ At t = 2 s, distance covered,
displacement
22. (b) T =2π 5(2)2
acceleration s = (2)3 + = 18 m
2
x m(-2b) + 2m(- b) + m ´ 0 + 2m(b) -b
= 2p b x = 2p/ b 28. (c) x=
m + 2m + m + 2m
=
3
23. (a) The person suffers from short-sightedness 0
29. (b) -1 e is known as b– particle & n is known
because he is unable to see objects at
as antineutrino. Since in this reaction n is
normal distance but can see objects at
nearer distance. emitted with 0 (b– particle or electron),
-1 e
s
He will require concave lens. Things
ok
placed at 30 cm will appear to be placed so it is known as b-decay.
at 10 cm. 30. (a) Let m be the mass of steam condensed.
bo
So, u = 30; v = 10; f = ? Then m × 540 + m × 10/2 = 22 × 70
From lens formula \ m = 2.83 gm
_e
Now, total mass = 22 + 2.83 = 24.83 gm
1 1 1 1 1 1 31. (a) Electromotive force is a force which is able
- = Þ - + =
v u f 10 30 f Aj to maintain a constant potential difference.
This force comes from the chemical reaction
-3 + 1 1 30
@
Þ = Þ f = - = -15cm taking place in the battery.
30 f 2
Negative sign indicates that lens used is dm + A d m + 60
sin
At
sin
concave. 32. (a) m= 2 Þ 2
2=
24. (a) Given, B = 4 × 10–5 T A sin 30 °
sin
ks
RE = 6.4 × 106 m 2
Dipole moment of the earth M = ?
oo
m M d m + 60 1 1
sin = 2´ = = sin 45°
B= 0 3 2 2 2
4p d
Eb
d m + 60
4p´10-7 ´ M = 45°
4 ´10-5 = 2
( )
3
e
4p´ 6.4 ´ 106 Þ dm + 60 = 90°; dm = 30°

or
\ M @ 1023 Am2 Now d m = 2i - A

M
25. (d) For this truth table, Boolean expression dm + A 30 + 60

is y < A.B ∗ A.B , which is for XOR gate Þ i= = = 45°
2 2
x x 33. (d) If charge is not moving then the magnetic
+ force is zero.
2 2 = 1 2v v ur r ur
26. (d) = 1 2
x x Since F m = q (v ´ B)
+ æ v 2 + v1 ö v1 + v2
ç ÷ r
2 v1 2 v 2 è 2 v1 v 2 ø As v = 0, for stationary charge
ur
\ Fm = 0
dv ur ur
27. (b) = 6 t + 5 Þ dv = (6t + 5)dt
dt df d(NB.A)
34. (d) e = - =-
2 dt dt
t
v=6 + 5t (on integration) d
2 = -N (BA cos wt ) = NBAw sin wt
dt
ds
= 3t 2 + 5 t Þ ds = (3t 2 + 5t )dt Þ e max = NBAw
dt
35. (b) Loss in potential energy = Gain in kinetic l

energy = 0.2 = Þ l = 0.4 m
2
GMm æ 3 GMm ö 1 2 \ the velocity of the sound in gas (v),
- -ç- ÷ = mv
R è 2 R ø 2 = n × l =4000 × 0.4 = 1600 m/s
Ic
Þ
GMm 1
= mv 2 Þ v =
GM
= gR 40. (b) a= ; b = Ic
2R 2 R Ie Ib
36. (b) Small amount of work done in extending
the spring by dX is Ie = Ib + Ic , Ie = Ib + 1
dW = k x dx Ic Ic
0.15 1 1 1 1
= +1 , = +1
\W= k ò x dx a b 0.95 b
s
0.05
ok
1 1 0.05 5
800 é = -1 = =
= (0.15)2 - (0.05)2 ù b 0.95 0.95 95
bo
2 ë û
= 400 [(0.15 + 0.05)(0.15 – 0.05)] 95
b= = 19.
_e
= 400 × 0.2 × 0.1 = 8 J 5
2
37. (d) Given: Diameter of water tap =
p
cm Aj
41. (a) Given: No. of turns N = 1000
Face area, A = 4 cm2 = 4 × 10–4 m2
@
1 Change in magnetic field,
\ Radius, r = ´10-2 m DB = 10–2 wbm–2
p Time taken, t = 0.01s = 10–2 sec
At
dm Emf induced in the coil e = ?

= rAV
V Applying formula,
ks
dt
2
-d f
15 æ 1 ö Induced emf, e =
oo
-4
= 10 3 ´ p ç ÷ ´ 10 V dt
5 ´ 60 è p ø D
= N æç ö
B
Þ V = 0.05 m/s ÷ A cos q
Eb
è Dt ø
r Vr
Reynold’s number, Re = 1000 ´ 10-2 ´ 4 ´ 10 -4
n = = 400 mV
e
10-2
or
2
103 ´ 0.5 ´ 10-2
p 42. (c) | V2 - V1 |= 5 2 + 5 2 = 5 2
M
= -3
@ 5500
10 5 2 1
38. (b) 5mF capacitor is ineffective, and so a= = m/s 2 N-W
equivalent capacitance, will be 10 2
CPQ= 1mF. N
2µF v2
2µF
W E
P –v1
2µF Q
2µF S
2µF
43. (a) The electrostatic potential energy of the
39. (c)
two electrons, placed at the seperation r
glass rod
from each other, is
æ 1 ö (– e)(– e) e2
U =ç ÷ =
The length of the rod (L), è 4 pe0 ø r 4 pe0 r
EBD_7205
MT-200 NEET
which increases when the one electron is –NCH3 etc) intensify the negative charge
brought towards the other and the of phenoxide ion, i.e., destablises it hence
separation r decreases. decrease ionization of parent phenol.
Power Therefore decreases acidity while electron
44. (c) Current in each bulb = donating groups (–NO2, –COOH, –CHO
Voltage etc.) increases acidity.
100 51. (c) The tendency of an atom in a compound to
= = 0.45A attract a pair of bonded electrons towards
220 itself is known as electronegativity of the
Current through ammeter atom.
= 0.45 × 3 = 1.35 A
52. (a) Cl 2 + OH - ¾¾
® Cl- + ClO -
45. (d) Self induction of solenoid µ x 2 where x is
number of turns. 1
® Cl - + ClO - oxidation
s
So, if x is doubled, self inductance will Cl2 ¾¾
2 0 -1
ok
change = 1
quadrupled.
equivalent mass of Cl2 in reduction half-
bo
CHEMISTRY reaction.
46. (a) Given pob = 10.8 atm 1
_e
Cl2
pnor = CST = 0.10 × 0.0821 × 298 = 2.446 M
= 2 =
now experimental value of (i) Aj 1 2
Observed osmotic pressure 1
® Cl- + ClO - reduction
@
= Cl ¾¾
Normal osmotic pressure 2 02 +1 change = 1
10.8 equivalent mass of Cl2 in oxidation half-
At
= = 4.42 reaction.
2.446
1
ks
O
Cl2
M
47. (d) R COCl + AlCl3 R C Å + AlCl4– = 2 =
oo
Electrophile 1 2
48. (d) Thus, equivalent mass in overall reaction
Eb
49. (d) Specific volume (volume of 1 gm) of M M

cylindrical virus particle = 6.02 × 10–2 cc/gm + =M=
2 2
Radius of virus (r) = 7 Å = 7 × 10–8 cm
e
Length of virus = 10 × 10–8 cm 53. (c) Catenation tendency is higher in

or
Volume of virus phosphorus when compared with other

22 elements of same group.
M
pr 2 l = ´ (7 ´ 10 -8 ) 2 ´ 10 ´ 10 -8 54. (a) Br2 ¾¾ ® BrO 3-

7
= 154 × 10–23 cc O.N. of Br 0 +5
volume Thus, it changes from 0 to + 5.
Wt. of one virus particle = 55. (c) Observe the relative stability of their
specific volume
corresponding conjugate bases.
\ Mol. wt. of virus = Wt. of NA particle
– – –
O O
154 ´ 10 -23 23
O
= ´ 6.02 ´ 10 NO2
6.02 ´ 10 - 2
> >
= 15400 g/mol = 15.4 kg/mole
NO2
OH OH OH
NO2
CH3 COOH I III II
50. (d) Stabilised by both –I Stabilised by both –I Stabilised only
and – R effects of the and – R effects, but by –I effect
o-cresol Salicylic acid Phenol –NO2 group – I is less than in I
Electron releasing groups (–CH3, –OCH3, However, the acidity of the corresponding
phenols will be different because of H– 61. (b) Polystyrene and polyethylene belong to
bonding in the ortho isomer. the category of thermoplastic polymers
OH OH OH which are capable of repeatedly softening
on heating and harden on cooling.
NO2 62. (a) From the graph we can see the correct order
> > of pressures p1 > p3 > p2
NO2 63. (a) SiO2 is used for this purpose.
NO2 64. (c) The acid strength of oxyacids of the same
III I II halogen increases with increase in oxidation
state of the halogen
8RT
56. (d) Average molecular speed = is +7 +5 +3 +1
pM HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO
dependent on T and M. Thus, greater the Thus Cl in HClO4 is in highest oxidation
s
state (+7) and hence strongest acid, while
ok
T
value of , greater the molecular speed. HClO (Cl is in +1 oxidation state) is weakest.
M 65. (b) Concentration of
bo
T 25.3 1000
Thus, Gas = ´4 Na 2CO3 = ´ = 0.955 M
_e
M 106 250
560 Aj [Na + ] = 2 × 0.955 = 1.91 M
For O2 = 4.18
32 é CO32– ù = 0.955 M
@
ë û
500
For Ne = 5.0 66. (a) SN2 mechanism is favoured maximum in
20 methyl chloride among all the given
At
options. Difference in rates are related to

440
For O2 = 3.16 the bulk of the substituents. As the number
ks
44 of substituents attached to carbon bearing

the halogen is increased, the reactivity
oo
140
For He = 5.91 towards SN2 substitution decreases. The
4 order of reactivity towards SN2 mechanism
Eb
57. (d) Aniline when treated with acetic anhydride is

forms acetanilide (nucleophilic substitution) CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl
O > (CH3)3CCl
e
67. (c) K decreases with increase in temperature.

or
NH2 NH–C–CH3
O O Thus, forward reaction is exothermic.
O Ea = activation energy
M
CH 3–C–O –C –CH 3
+ CH3–C–OH of forward reaction
Ea
Ea' = ... backward ... Ea
58. (a) Mohr's salt is FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O. = (Ea + DH) DH
Fe2+ present in it is oxidized to Fe3+. Thus, E'a > Ea
So, we have, Fe2 + ¾¾ ® Fe3+ + e 1
68. (a) Hybridisation = [No. of valence
Formula mass 2
Thus, equivalent mass = electrons of central atom + no. of
1
= 392 monovalent atoms attached to it –
59. (b) Domestic sewage constitute biodegradable Negative charge if any – positive charge if
pollutants. any]
60. (a) Langmuir adsorption isotherm is based on 1
the assumption that every adsorption site NO2– H = [5 + 0 + 1 - 0] = 3 = sp 2
2
is equivalent and the ability of a particle to
1
bind there is independent of whether or not NO3– H = [5 + 0 + 1 - 0] = 3 = sp 2
nearby sites are occupied. 2
EBD_7205
MT-202 NEET
1 74. (c) van’t Hoff factor (i) and the degree of

NH2– H = [5 + 2 + 1 + 0] = 4 = sp3 association are related as below :
2
1 æ 1ö
NH4+, H = [5 + 4 + 0 - 1] = 4 = sp3 i = 1 - a ç1 - ÷
2 è nø
SCN– = sp æ 1ö
i.e., NO 2 – and NO 3 – have same 0.9 = 1 - 0.2 ç 1 - ÷
hybridisation. è nø
On solving,
+ – base
69. (a) OH + N2Cl æ 1ö 1
ç1 - ÷ =
è nø 2
Phenol Phenyldiazonium
chloride 1 1 1
= 1- =
s
n 2 2
ok
N=N OH \ n=2
75. (d) Aldehydes which contain a a -hydrogen
bo
azo dye on a saturated carbon, i.e., CH 3CH 2CHO
70. (c) White lead is 2Pb CO3 .Pb (OH ) 2 which is undergo aldol condensation.
_e
prepared by Pb ( NO 3 ) 2 & Na 2 CO 3 . It is H CH3
called as basic lead carbonate. Aj |
CH3CH 2 – C = O + H - H C - CHO
|
3Pb( NO 3 ) 2 + 3Na 2 CO3 + H 2 O ¾¾® a

@
propanol
Pb(OH)2 + 2PbCO3 + NaNO3 + CO 2 CH3 CH3

At
Basic lead carbonate OH - b| a|

71. (a) Most metals occur in their combined state. ¾¾¾® CH3CH 2 - C - CHCHO
|
They have to be reduced to become free
ks
OH
metals. The choice of reducing agent is 3.hydroxy,2 methyl pentanal
decided by the factors of energetics and
oo
economics. In this regard C is the most 76. (d) When there is simultaneously change in
common reducing agent used. Carbon can temperature and volume (or pressure)
Eb
be used in the form of coal, coke, charcoal æT ö æV ö

and carbon monoxide. e.g :- DS = nCV log e ç 2 ÷ + nR log e ç 2 ÷
è T1 ø è V1 ø
1473-1573K
e
SnO2 + 2C ¾¾¾¾¾® Sn + 2CO

æ2ö æ1ö
or
1600K = C V log e ç ÷ + R log e ç ÷

ZnO + CO ¾¾¾¾
® Zn + CO 2 è1ø è2ø
M
823K
Fe2 O3 + CO ¾¾¾® 2FeO + CO2 = CV loge 2 - R loge 2
1123K
FeO + CO ¾¾¾¾ ® Fe + CO 2 = (CV - R)log e 2
72. (d) The semiconductors formed by the 77. (d)
introduction of impurity atoms containing 78. (a) Zn + H 2SO4 = ZnSO 4 + H 2
one elecron less than the parent atoms of
insulators are termed as p-type In bomb calorimeter, there is no expansion
semiconductors. Therefore silicon in volume, so, work done will be zero. This
containing 14 electrons is to be doped with reaction is exothermic. So, some heat will
boron containing 13 electrons to give a be evolved which will result in lowering of
p- type semi-conductor. internal energy. Hence,
73. (c) We know that IUPAC name of DU < 0 and w = 0
[Pt ( NH3 )3 (Br) ( NO2 )Cl]Cl is 79. (d) The reactivity of H-atoms depends upon
triamminebromochloronitroplatinum (IV) the stability of free radicals follows the
chloride. order :
Tertiary > secondary > primary, therefore, CH3 CH3

reactivity of H-atoms follows the same | |
order, i.e., tertiary > secondary > primary. CH3 - CH 2 - C H - CH2 Br + CH3 - CH 2 - C - CH 3
1-Bromo-2 methyl butane |
R R H H (minor) Br
| | | | 2-Bromo-2-methyl butane
R – C• > R - C • > R - C• > H - C• (major)
| | | |
85. (d) The two polynucleotide chains of DNA
R H H H molecules are twisted around a common
Tertiary Secondary primary free methyl
free radical free radical radical free radical axis but run in opposite directions to form
80. (b) For a 10 K rise in temperature, collision a right handed helix. The two chains are
frequency increases merely by 1 to 2% joined together by specific hydrogen
but the number of effective collisions bonds.
increases by 100 to 200%. 86. (a) Brownian movement is the random motion
s
81. (d) Rotation around p bond is not possible. If of particles suspended in a fluid (a liquid or
ok
any attempt is made to rotate one of the gas) resulting from their collision with the
carbon atoms, the lobes of p-orbital will no fast moving atom or molecules in the liquid
bo
longer remain coplanar i.e no parallel or gaseous state of the matter. That means
overlap will be possible and thus p-bond smaller particles are responsible for the
_e
will break . This is known as concept of Brownian movement than for bigger
restricted rotation. In other words the particles.
presence of p-bonds makes the position of Aj
87. (c) Number of unpaired electrons in various
species.
two carbon atom.
@
82. (a) Molecular masses of polymers are best Mn 2+ 3d5 5
determined by osmotic pressure method . Cr2+ 3d4 4
V2+ 3d3
At
Firstly because other colligative properties 3

give so low values that they cannot be Since, m = n(n + 2)
measured accurately and secondly, osmotic
ks
i.e., it increases with increase in number of

pressure measurements can be made at unpaired electrons present in a species.
room temperature and do not require
oo
Thus, the correct order is

heating which may change the nature of Mn2+ > Cr2+ > V2+.
the polymer.
Eb
83. (d) All the properties mentioned in the question + 0.1

88. (c) (a) [H 3O ] = = 0.05 ;
suggest that it is a benzene molecule. Since 2
in benzene all carbons are sp2–hybridized, pH= – log 0.05 = 1.301
e
therefore, C – C – C angle is 120° (b) Complete neutralization of strong

or
H H acid and strong base, pH = 7.

M
1.09Å 1.40Å 120° (c) Hydrolysis of the salt CH3 COOK,

C C pH > 7 (salt of weak acid with strong
base)
H C 120° C H
(d) Hydrolysis of the salt NH4 NO 3 ,
C C pH < 7 (salt of strong acid with weak
base)
H H
H2
84. (d) The order of substitution in different 89. (a) CH3 CH2 CH CH CH2 CH3 Platinum
alkanes is
3° > 2° > 1° CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
HBr
Thus the bromination of 2-methyl butane CH3

mainly gives 2-Bromo - 2 - methyl butane
CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH2 CH3
CH3
| Br
Br2 90. (d) Polynuclear hydrocarbons are not
CH3 - CH 2 - CH - CH3 ¾¾¾ ®
2-methyl butane produced in human body by an y
EBD_7205
MT-204 NEET
biochemical reaction as when they enter sewage flows to an aerobic biological

into human body they undergo various treatment stage where it comes into contact
biochemical reactions which finally damage with micro-organisms which remove and
DNA and cause cancer. oxidise most of the remaining organic
pollutants.
BIOLOGY 102. (d) Competition is the active demand by two
or more individuals of the same species or
91. (c) The leaves appear green because of the members of two or more species at the same
pigment chlorophyll which does not absorb trophic levels for a common resource.
green light rather reflects it back. Intraspecific competition is the competition
92. (b) The Euglena is an organism, which amongst members of the same species for a
possesses both the characteristics of plants common resource such as for food, space
and animals, as it can move with a flagella and mate. Interspecific competition
and also contains chlorophyll. Its nutrition
s
amongst members of the same species for a
is mixotrophic.
ok
common resource such as for food, space
93. (d) Function of companion cell is to load sugar and mate. Intespecific competition is rivalry
and amino acids into sieve elements. These
bo
amongst members of different species. The
cells use transmembrane proteins to take severity of competition depends upon
up by active transport.
_e
similarity in the requirement of food and
94. (d) G1 phase, also called Gap I phase is shelter.
characterized by increase in cell size. In 103. (d)
Aj Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible
the S phase or synthetic phase DNA parts in groundnut and pomegranate. A
molecules replicate. G2 is the second
@
cotyledon is a significant part of the embryo
growth phase or Gap II where in there is within the seed of a plant. Upon
intensive formation of RNAs and germination, the cotyledon may become the
At
proteins. In the mitotic metaphase, the embryonic first leaves of a seedling. Testa
chromosomes are arranged at the is often thick or hard outer coat of a seed.
ks
equatorial plate. 104. (a) Herkogamy – When there is some physical

95. (a) Condensation initiates in prophase. barrier present between the stamens and
oo
96. (b) Lichens are composite organisms carpels avoiding any chance of self
representing a symbiotic association pollination.
Eb
between fungus and algae. They do not Cleistogamy – when the flowers remain
grow in the environment where pollution closed, self-pollination is the rule.
level is high SO2 is strong air pollutant and Dichogamy – when the two sexes mature at
e
lichens are very sensitive of SO2. different times.

or
97. (b) 98. (a) 105. (d) 106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (b)
99. (a) Ovule is an integumented megasporagium 109. (b) Magnesium activates the enzymes of
M
found in spermatophytes which develops respiration, photosynthesis and is involved

into seed after fertilization. An angiospermic in the synthesis of DNA and RNA.
ovule is typically an ovoid and whitish Manganese activates many enzymes which
structure. It occurs inside ovary where it is are involved in photosynthesis, respiration
attached to a parenchymatous cushion and nitrogen metabolism.
called placenta either singly or in a cluster. 110. (a) 111. (b)
The ovule is stalked. The stalk is called 112. (a) The primary acceptor of CO2 in C4 plants
funiculus or funicle. Th e point of is phosphoenol pyruvate or PEP. PEP in
attachment of the body of the ovule with mesophyll cells combine with CO2 and
the funiculus is known as hilum. con verted into 4 carbon compound
100. (b) Kyoto Protocol (1997) : International Oxaloacetic acids by PEP carboxylase. In
conference held in Kyoto, Japan obtained C3 plant Ribulose 1, 5–diphosphate is
commitments from different countries for primary acceptor of CO2.
reducing overall greenhouse gas emissions 113. (d) Synthesis of DNA by DNA polymerases
at a level 9% below 1990 level by 2008-2012. occurs only in 5' ® 3' direction. One strand
101. (d) In secondary treatment mainly settled called leading strand, is copied in the same
direction as the unwinding helix. The other glucose, fructose, glyceraldehyde and
strand is known as lagging strand. galactose. Many disaccharides, like lactose
Replication of lagging strand occurs in a and maltose also have a reducing form, as
discontinuous way, synthesizing short one of the two units may have an open-
segments of DNA which are always in the chain form with an aldehyde group.
5' ® 3' direction. These short segments are However, sucrose and trihalose in which
called Okazaki fragments joined together by the anomeric carbons of the two units are
the action of DNA ligase. linked together, are non reducing
114. (b) Incomplete dominance is the phenomenon disaccharides since neither of the rings is
of none of the alleles being dominant, with capable of opening.
the effect that the hybrid produced by 124. (c) 125. (b) 126. (a)
crossing two pure individuals is a mixture 127. (c) If natural habitat is destroyed, wild life is
between the parents. affected worstly.
s
115. (b) Detritus food chain being with dead organic 128. (d) Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future
ok
matter with dead plant parts, animals and with high Vit. A content. Millions of people
their excretory product which is being acted suffer from Vit. A deficiency which leads to
bo
upon by decomposers such as saprophytes vision impairment. Transgenic rice has been
to obtain energy needed for their survival. developed which is capable of synthesizing
_e
116. (b) Biogeochemical cycles : Two types : beta carotene, the precursor of Vitamin A.
(i) Gaseous : Biogenetic materials involved in The rice variety is now being crossed into
circulation are gases e.g. N2, O2, CO2 etc. Aj adapted varieties with field tests possible
(ii) Sedimentary : Biogenetic materials involved in an year or two.
@
in circulation are non-gaseous e.g. P, Ca, S 129. (b) An ecosystem includes the environment
etc. forms rocks. and the biological community living there.
117. (b) Independent assortment of genes takes
At
A coral reef ecosystem would include much

place only when they are located on more than just the fish.
separate non-homologus chromosomes.
130. (d) A common biocontrol agent for control of
ks
Where two or more than two genes are

plant diseases is Trichoderma. Trichoderma
located on same chromosome, independent
is a tree living fungus that exert biocontrol
oo
assortment will not be possible.

over several plant pathogens for the control
118. (b) Breeding of crops with high levels of
of plant diseases. It is the natural method
Eb
minerals, vitamin and minerals is called

biofortification. This is most practical aspect of pest and pathogen control.
to improve the health of people. 131. (b) Etiolation is due to deficiency of light.
e
119. (c) The decomposers act on the dead organic 132. (c) Gir forest - Lion
Kaziranga - Rhinoceros
or
matter and break them down into simpler

compounds and minerals. Manas - Elephant, Rhinoceros
M
120. (c) The nucleic acid (DNA and RNA) are Manali - Musk deer
repeating units of nucleotides i.e. 133. (d)
polynucleotides. Each nucleotide 134. (c) The C4 pathway allows photosynthesis
comprises of nitrogenous heterocyclic to occur at very low concentrations of
bases viz. purines or pyrimidines, pentose carbon dioxide as PEP carboxylase has an
sugar and phosphoric acid. extremely high affinity for carbon dioxide.
121. (d) Abscisic acid is responsible for maintaining This pathway also works well at high
winter dormancy in deciduous plants. temperatures and light intensity, enabling
efficient photosynthesis in tropical plants.
122. (c) A DNA triplet of CGT would yield an mRNA
135. (c) There are only 20 amino acids . These can
codon of GCA. The complementary tRNA be arranged in different order in the
anticodon would therefore be CGU. polypeptide chain to form a diverse array
123. (a) Reducing sugar is any sugar that has an of proteins.
aldehyde group or is capable of forming 136. (c) Spirilli are corkscrew shaped.
one in solution through isomerisation. 137. (b) Lampreys and hagfishes are unusual,
Reducing monosacchar ides include jawless fish that comprise the order
EBD_7205
MT-206 NEET
Cyclostomata, so named because of the 151. (d) Of the vertebrate groups, mammals and
circular shape of the mouth. birds tend to have the highest blood pres-
138. (a)
139. (a) Polychaetes are beautiful in color and some sures. Therefore, the ventricle supplying
examples are scaleworms, bristleworms, blood to the systemic circuit of a bird has
lugworms, and clamworms. Parapodia are the highest pressure.
flaps that help in swimming, movement and
152. (d)
respiration. There are septa in th e
parapodia. Brachiopoda, Ectoprocta and 153. (b) It is named after its discoverer, F. G. J. Henle.
Phoronida ar e the lophophorates. In the kidney, the loop of Henle is the portion
Lophophores have a circular-shaped of the nephron that leads from the proximal
apparatus circling the mouth with tentacles convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted
called a lophophore. tubule. The loop has a hairpin bend in the
renal medulla. The main function of this
s
140. (b)
structure is to reabsorb water and ions from
ok
141. (a) Sexual dimorphism is found in cockroach.
A pair of anal style are present in male the urine. To do this, it uses a
countercurrent multiplier mechanism in the
bo
cockroach only. Female has broader
abdomenal segments. medulla.
142. (b) 154. (d)
_e
143. (b) Strobilanthes kunthiana (Neelakuranji) 155. (c) Kwashiorkar and Beri-Beri are deficiency
flower once in 12 years, its juvenile phase Aj diseases which occur mostly in children.
is very long. The last time this plant flowered Kwashiorkar occurs due to deficiency of
protein and Beri-Beri due to deficiency of
@
was during September-October 2006. It is
found in hilly areas of Kerala, Karnataka vit-B1 (Thiamine).
and Tamil Nadu and attract a large number 156. (c) A gene may have more than two alternative
At
of tourists. forms occupying the same locus on a

144. (d) Human population growth in India can be chromosome such alleles are known as
multiple alleles and the phenomenon is
ks
regulated by following the national

programme of family planning. turned as multiple allelism. ABO blood
group has 3 alleles. IO, IA or A, IB or B.
oo
145. (b)
146. (d) During embryonic development, the 157. (d) Anagenesis, or phyletic evolution, is the
accumulation of changes associated with
Eb
blastocyst formed consists of an outer

envelope of cells called the trophoblast and the transformation of one species into
the inner cell mass. The cells of trophoblast another while cladogenesis or branching
evolution involves the building of one or
e
form chorion and amnion, and hence part

of placenta. more new species from a parent species that
or
147. (b) continues to exist. Only cladogenesis can

M
148. (b) Acrosome a small pointed structure at the promote biological diversity by increasing
tip of nucleus. It breaks down just before the number of species.
fertilization, releasing hydrolytic enzymes 158. (c)
that assist penetration between follicle cells 159. (b) Progressive evolution is development of
that surrounds the ovum, thus facilitating organisms with more elaborate and
fertilization. specialized structures from those having
149. (c) The gland corresponding to this in female less elaborate features e.g. amphibians from
is Bertholin. reptiles .Retrogressive or degenerative
150. (c) Vit. B12 (extrinsic factor) and folic acid are evolution is development of simpler forms
important for the conversion of proeryth- from more complex ones. Such evolution
has occurred in case of vestigial organs,
roblast (megaloblast) into erythroblast (nor-
parasitic forms, and in reduction of
moblast). Cobalt is important as a compo- overspecialized structures such as wings
nent of B12 for the growth of normoblasts in flightless birds. Parallel evolution is
and later RBC. Vitamin C is of less value formation of similar traits in related groups
during the growth of normoblast. of organisms independently due to similar
requirement e.g. running of two toed deer
and one toed Horse. Evolution of wings in 170. (c) Conditioned reflexes are acquired reflexes
insects and birds serve as example of and dependent on past experiences,
convergent evolution. train in g and learnin g. I.R. Pavlov
160. (c) Sex in Drosophila is a function of the ratio demonstrated conditioned reflexes in a
of the number of X chromosomes to the hungry dog. He called food and salivation
number of autosomal sets. Therefore a in response to it as unconditioned stimulus
Drosophila with a X/A =1.0 will be a female and sound of bell and salivation in
whereas the one with a X/A ratio = 0.5 will response to bell as conditioned reflexes.
be male. However, in humans the presence 171. (a) Recombinant DNA technology is the
or absence of the Y chromosome determines process joining together two DNA
sex. molecules from two different species that
161. (a) are inserted into a host organism to produce
162. (b) In allopatric speciation, the initial barrier to new genetic combination.
s
gene flow is a geographic barrier. 172. (c)
ok
163. (d) When the CO2 concentration in blood 173. (a) Bird flu is a form of influenza occurring in
increases, breathing becomes faster and poultry mainly in Japan, China and
bo
deeper. As CO2 levels increase, patients Southeast Asia. It is caused by a virus,
exhibit a reduction in overall level of H5N1 capable of spreading to humans.
_e
consciousness as well as respiratory effort. 174. (b)
Severe increases in CO2 levels can lead to 175. (c) Clostridium butylicum industrially
respiratory arrest. Aj produces butyric acid.
164. (a) 176. (c)
@
165. (a) Vagus is a mixed crainal nerve that 177. (a) B and T-lymphocytes produce antibodies
terminates in the muscles of the pharynx, against pathogen in the body, if due to
larynx, lungs, heart, oesophagus, stomach, some reason B and T-lymphocytes are
At
intestine and gall bladder. damaged the body will not produce
166. (a) antibodies against a pathogen. Each B cell
ks
167. (a) The pineal gland secretes melatonin, a and T cell is specific for a particular antigen.
hormone that controls the daily cycles and 178. (b)
oo
acts as the “biological clock”. 179. (a) The pelvic girdle is formed by two
168. (c) Pancreas is a heterocrine gland comprising innominate bones consists of three
Eb
both endocrine and exocrine parts. Its separate bones ilium, ischium and the
endocrine part consists of small masses of pubis.
hormone secreting cells called islets of 180. (c) The Southern blot is used to detect and
e
langerhans. The a-cells of latter secrete identify certain DNA sequences in a sample
or
glucagons and its b-cells secrete insulin. of bodily fluid. It uses single-stranded DNA
These two hormones have antagonistic to search out their complementary strands.
M
effects on the glucose level in the blood When a Southern blot is performed on
which means that insulin decreases the DNA, the first step is digestion of DNA
blood glucose level while glucagon with restriction enzymes. Restriction
increases blood glucose level. enzymes cut DNA at known sequences, and
169. (a) Cortisol is secreted by the middle region of produces DNA fragments of a certain
adrenal cortex. It increases the blood length. Once the DNA is cut into pieces,
glucose level (which is anti-insulin effect) scientists conduct electrophoresis to
by converting proteins & fats into glucose. separate them by size.
EBD_7205
MT-208 NEET
Mock Test-4
ANS WER KEY
1 (c) 21 (b) 41 (c) 61 (b) 81 (c) 101 (b) 121 (b) 141 (c) 161 (a)
2 (c) 22 (c) 42 (b) 62 (d) 82 (a) 102 (a) 122 (d) 142 (c) 162 (c)
3 (b) 23 (c) 43 (b) 63 (b) 83 (b) 103 (d) 123 (c) 143 (d) 163 (a)
4 (b) 24 (c) 44 (b) 64 (c) 84 (d) 104 (a) 124 (c) 144 (c) 164 (a)
5 (b) 25 (d) 45 (c) 65 (d) 85 (a) 105 (d) 125 (d) 145 (a) 165 (b)
6 (d) 26 (b) 46 (a) 66 (d) 86 (b) 106 (a) 126 (d) 146 (c) 166 (d)
s
7 (d) 27 (a) 47 (d) 67 (c) 87 (c) 107 (b) 127 (d) 147 (c) 167 (d)
ok
8 (d) 28 (b) 48 (d) 68 (a) 88 (a) 108 (c) 128 (d) 148 (b) 168 (a)
9 (a) 29 (c) 49 (b) 69 (c) 89 (d) 109 (a) 129 (c) 149 (b) 169 (b)
bo
10 (c) 30 (c) 50 (a) 70 (b) 90 (d) 110 (c) 130 (b) 150 (c) 170 (c)
_e
11 (a) 31 (b) 51 (c) 71 (a) 91 (b) 111 (a) 131 (b) 151 (d) 171 (a)
12 (d) 32 (b) 52 (b) 72 (a) 92 (d) 112
Aj (a) 132 (d) 152 (d) 172 (b)
13 (b) 33 (a) 53 (b) 73 (b) 93 (b) 113 (a) 133 (c) 153 (b) 173 (c)
@
14 (c) 34 (d) 54 (a) 74 (a) 94 (d) 114 (a) 134 (c) 154 (d) 174 (d)
15 (c) 35 (c) 55 (a) 75 (b) 95 (d) 115 (a) 135 (a) 155 (a) 175 (b)
At
16 (c) 36 (a) 56 (c) 76 (c) 96 (d) 116 (c) 136 (b) 156 (a) 176 (c)
17 (a) 37 (c) 57 (a) 77 (c) 97 (d) 117 (d) 137 (a) 157 (b) 177 (c)
ks
18 (d) 38 (c) 58 (c) 78 (a) 98 (a) 118 (d) 138 (c) 158 (c) 178 (b)
oo
19 (a) 39 (b) 59 (b) 79 (c) 99 (b) 119 (a) 139 (b) 159 (c) 179 (b)
20 (a) 40 (c) 60 (d) 80 (a) 100 (c) 120 (a) 140 (c) 160 (a) 180 (d)
Eb
Solutions
e
or
PHYSICS
M
(5/3)-1
æ 1 ö
T2 = 300 × ç ÷
è 8 / 27 ø
1. (c) Conserving Linear Momentum
2Mvc = 2Mv – Mv Þ vc = v/2. æ 27 ö æ9ö
= 300 × ç ÷ = 300 × ç ÷ = 675 K
2. (c) T1= 27ºC = 300 K è 8 ø è 4ø
8V = 402ºC
V1 = V and V2 = Hence, rise in temperature
27
= T2 – T1 = 402 – 27 = 375ºC
Ratio of specific heats for monoatomic gas,
3. (b) A galvanometer can be changed into an
5 ammeter by the use of low resistance in
g=
3 parallel. So that ammeter does not draw
In an adiabatic process, much current which may change the
T1V1g–1 = T2V2g–1 magnitude of main current.
g -1 4. (b) The intersection of medians is the centre
æ V1 ö of mass of the triangle. Since distances of
or T2 = ç V ÷ × T,, centre of mass from the sides are related
è 2ø
as : xBC < xAB < xAC therefore IBC > IAB > k ( h1 - h2 )
10. (c) t =
IAC or IBC > IAB.
5. (b) For electromagnetic wave, \ t1 = k ( h - h / 2)
FE = FM Þ eE = BeC Þ E = B.C and t2 = k ( h / 2 - 0)
-7 8
= 2 ´ 10 ´ 3 ´ 10 = 60 V / m t1
\ t2 = 2 -1
c 2 L2T -2
6. (d) = = [ L] 11. (a) Let velocity at A = v A and velocity at
g LT -2
7. (d) Use a = µg and v2 = u2 + 2as B = vB
8. (d) Load supported by sonometer wire = 4 kg A
Tension in sonometer wire = 4 g vA
If m = mass per unit length r T
s
ok
1 T
then frequency u =
2l m
bo
vB
1 4g B
Þ 416 =
_e
2l m Applying conservation of energy at A & B
When length is doubled, i.e., l¢ = 2l Aj 1 1
mv 2A + 2gmr = mv2B
Let new load = L 2 2
@
As, u¢ = u v 2B = v 2A + 4gr..........(i )
1 Lg 1 4g Now as it is moving in circular path it has
At
\ = centripetal force.
2l ¢ m 2l m
mv 2A
ks
1 Lg 1 4g At point A Þ T + mg =
Þ = r
4l m 2l m
oo
for minimum velocity T ³ 0

Þ L = 2 ´ 2 Þ L = 16 kg
Eb
mv 2A
or ³ mg Þ v 2A ³ gr Þ v A ³ gr
9. (a) 1
fw
= ( µ -1)æçç r1 - r1 ö÷÷
w
g
12.
r
(d) For nuclear disintegration
è ø
e
1 2
or
[ f w is focal length of lens in water] 2.303 No

l= log
t No - N
M
1 a æ1 1ö
= ( µg - 1) ç - ÷ 2.303 100
f è r1 r2 ø = log = 2.1 × 10–6sec–1
24 ´ 60 ´ 60 82
[f is focal length of lens in air]
Dividing, 13. (b) By Newton’s law of cooling
q1 - q2 é q + q2 ù
f (w µg - 1) w a
µg = -K ê 1 - q0 ú
= ; µg = t ë 2 û
a
fw ( µg - 1) a
µw
where q0 is the temperature of surrounding.
3/ 2 3 3 9 Now, hot water cools from 60°C to 50°C in
= = ´ = 10 minutes,
4/3 2 4 8
f 9 / 8 - 1 1/ 8 1 60 - 50 é 60 + 50 ù
= = = = -K ê - q0 ú ...(i)
fw 3 1/ 2 4 10 ë 2 û
-1
2 Again, it cools from 50°C to 42°C in next 10
minutes.
f w = 4 ´ f = 4 ´ 10 = 40 cm.
EBD_7205
MT-210 NEET
50 - 42 22. (c) Rain drops are in spherical shape due to

é 50 + 42 ù
= -K ê - q0 ú ...(ii) surface tension.
10 ë 2 û
Dividing equations (i) by (ii) we get 250 ´ 10
F / A 50 ´ 10-6
1 55 - q0 23. (c) Y= =
= Dl / l 0.5 ´ 10-3
0.8 46 - q0
2
10 55 - q 0
= 250 ´ 9.8 2
8 46 - q 0 = -6
´
50 ´ 10 0.5 ´ 10 -3
460 - 10q0 = 440 - 8q0
Þ 19.6 ´1010 N / m 2
2q0 = 20 24. (c) Max. force = mass × max. acceleration
s
q0 = 10°C = m 4 p2 n2 a = 1 × 4 ×p2 × (60)2 × 0.02
ok
r = 288 p2
14. (c) If F force acts for short interval Dt, then 25. (d) d1 = 40º , d2 = 30º , d = ?
r r
bo
F DT = mD v .
C C cot d = cot 2 d1 + cot 2 d 2
15. (c) Cs = 1 2 =3
_e
C1 + C2
= cot 2 40º + cot 2 30º
Cp = C1 + C2 = 16 \ C1 C2 =48 Aj cot d = 1.19 2 + 3 = 2.1
2
C1 – C2 = (C1 +C 2 ) – 4 C1 C 2
@
\ d = 25º i.e. d < 40 º.
2
= 16 - 4 ´ 48 = 64 = 8 26. (b) Changing electric field gives rise to
At
displacement current which creates

\ C1 = 12 mF and C2 = 4 mF magnetic field around it.
27. (a)
ks
1/ 3 1/ 3
Rs æ A s ö æ 32 ö 28. (b) The time of cooling increases as the
16. (c) = ç ÷ = ç ÷ =2
R a çè A a ÷ø è 4 ø difference between the temperature of body
oo
17. (a) & surrounding is reduced. So T1<T2<T3

(according to Newton’s law of cooling).
Eb
18. (d) The charge q, which is kept at the centre of

metallic spherical shell transfered to the l
outer surface of shell & inside the shell the 29. (c) T = 2p ,
g
e
electric field is zero & hence force is also

or
zero. l l 2
T ' = 2p = 2p = T.
19. (a) The highest energy level occupied by an g+a æ gö 5
M
electron in the energy band at zero kelvin is çè g + ÷ø

4
called Fermi level and the energy associated
is known as Fermi energy. So, it is 2 p 2 em 4 z 2
independent of T. 30. (c) For n th orbit, energy, E n =
n 2h2
1 1 1
20. (a) m = = = =2 2 p2 em 4
sin C sin 30° 1/ 2 For hydrogen (z = 1), E n =
Velocity of light in the medium n2 h2
For helium (z = 2),
3 ´108 8
= = 1.5 ´10 m / sec
2 2p 2 em 4 ´ 4
So, E =
21. (b) According to Stefan’ law heat emitted per n 2h2
second per unit area a(T14 - T24 )
where E 4
T1 is the temperature of body & T2 is the = Þ E = 4E n
En 1
temperature of surrounding (T1 & T2 are
on Kelvin scale).
31. (b) Given : Q1 = 1000 J 34. (d) Coordinates of spheres are : (0, 0), (2R, 0)
Q2 = 600 J
T1 = 127°C = 400 K and ( R, 3R)
T2 = ?
h=?
m ´ 0 + m ´ 2R + m ´ R
Efficiency of carnot engine, Xcm = =R
m+m+m
W
h= ´100% m ´ 0 + m ´ 0 + m 3R R
Q1 and Ycm = = .
m+ m+ m 3
Q2 - Q1 r r
or, h = Q1
´100% 35. (c) Fn = q(v ´ B)
= qvB sinq = 0 (because q = 0º )
1000 - 600 -3
LdI 40 ´10 (11 - 1)
s
or, h = ´ 100%
1000 36. (a) e= = = 100V
ok
h = 40% dt 4 ´10-3
37. (c) When the arrangement is dipped in water;
bo
Q 2 T2
Now, for carnot cycle Q = T x 3
b¢ =b / m = = x = 0.75x
_e
1 1 4/3 4
600 T 38. (c) Heat required to boil water = mcDq
= 2 Aj = 2 × 4200 × (100 – 20)
1000 400
= 6.72 × 103 J
@
600 ´ 400 If t be the time of boil then
T2 =
1000 h × 500 × t = 6.72 × 103
At
= 240 K 6.72 ´103

= 240 – 273 or t= = 28 minutes.
0.8 ´ 500
ks
\ T2 = -33°C 39. (b) g rays has lowest wavelength and highest

32. (b) Angular momentum, mvr = Iw frequency among them while ultraviolet ray
oo
Moment of Inertia (I) of cubical block is has highest wavelength and lowest
given by frequency.
Eb
æ 2 æ ö2 ö÷ Order of frequency : b > a > c

çR
∗ ç ÷÷ ÷÷
R
I < m çç
çç 6 ççè 2 ø÷ ÷÷÷ 40. (c)
è ø
e
45°
or
R
m.2
2
M
\ w= 30°
é R2 æ Rö ù
2
mê +ç ÷ ú
êë 6 è 2ø ú
û
12 3 10 sin 45º
Þw= = = = 5 rad / s . Refractive index, m =
8R 2 ´ 0.3 2 sin 30º
33. (a) U = mV = kmr.
1
dU m= ´2 = 2
Force, F = - = - km 2
dr
Velocity of light in air
mv 2 Now, m = = 2
Now , = km \ v µ r1/2 Velocity of light in medium
r Velocity of light in medium
2pr 2pr 1
\T= = 1/2 Þ T µ r1/2 8
= 3 ´ 10 ´ = 2.12 ´ 108 m / sec
v cr 2
EBD_7205
MT-212 NEET
m0 IdI sin q \ number of moles of H3AsO4

41. (c) dB = 35.5
4p r 2 = < 0.25 .
Here, dI = Dx = 0.05 m, I = 10 A, r = 1 m 142
sinq = sin 90° = 1, \ number of moles of As2S5
10 ´ 0.05 ´ 1 0.25
\ dB = 10–7 × = < 0.125 mole.
2 2
(1)
= 0.50 × 10–7 = 5.0 × 10–8 T 49. (b) The ideal value of D.O for growth of fishes
42. (b) Acceleration vector is always radial (i.e . is 8 mg/ L. 7mg/ L is desirable range, below
towards the center) for uniform circular this value fishes get susceptible to desease.
motion. A value of 2 mg/L or below is lethal for
43. (b) If current passes through a spring, it shrinks fishes.
50. (a) Except (a) all other properties are shown by
s
as in two adjacent wire, current is flowing
white phosphorous.
ok
in the same direction. Even if direction of
current is reversed still the spring will 51. (c) A : CH3COOH (weak acid)
bo
shrink. As AC current is a periodically CH3COO– + H+
changing current, the process of shrinking DH = 0.005 kcal g–1 = 0.30 kcal mol–1
Ca2+ + 2H O
_e
will also be periodic in nature. B : Ca(OH)2 + 2H+ 2
44. (b) J = m(vf – vi)y = 1 (25 sin 45° + 20 sin 30°) DH = 0.005 kcal g–1 = – 13.17 × 2 kcal
45. (c)
= 27.67 N-s
As horizontal velocity is same for coin and
Aj Ca(OH)2 + 2CH3COOH
(CH3COO)2Ca + 2H2O
@
the observer. DH = 2 A + B = – 27.4 + 0.6 = – 26.8 kcal
CHEMISTRY 52. (b) H+ + Cl-
HCl
At
0.4moles 0.4moles
46. (a) NH 4 OH
X ¾¾¾ ¾® White ppt. Ca2+ +
CaCl2 2Cl-
ks
0.2moles 2´0.2 =0.4moles

excess
¾¾ ¾
¾® Acidic solution (soluble ) Total Cl– moles = 0.4 + 0.4 = 0.8 moles
oo
NaOH ( No. ppt with H 2S) Moles

Molarity =
Given reactions (white precipitate with H2S Vol.in L
Eb
in presence of NH4OH) indicate that 'X' 0.8

should be ZnCl2 which explains all given \ Molarity of Cl– = = 1.6 M.
reactions. 0.5
e
53. (b) Sodium cyanide (Na + C + N ® NaCN).

ZnC l 2+2H 2 O ® Z n(O H ) 2 + H Cl (g)
or
(Lassaigne's test)
W hite fumes
AB2C3 ....... (1)
A ∗ 3B ∗ 3C
M
54. (a)
NH4OH (l) + HCl(g) ¾¾
® NH 4Cl (g)
White fumes –H2O Dense white fumes 6.0 g
No. of moles of A = < 0.1 mol
ZnCl 2 + 2 NaOH ® Zn(OH) 2 + 2NaCl 60 g / mol
2 NaOH
Zn (OH ) 2 ¾¾ ¾¾® Na 2 ZnO 2 + 2H 2 O 6.00≥1023
Excess No. of moles of B = < 1 mol
47. (d) CN– is a strong field ligand as it is a 6.000 ≥1023
psuedohalide ion. These ions are strong No. of moles of C = 0.036
coordinating ligands and hence have the AB2C3 formed accordingly to C which is a
tendency to form s-bond (from the pseudo limiting reagent.
halide to the metal) and p-bond. (from the Since 3 moles of C are used in (1)
metal to pseudo halide) So it gives 1 mole of AB2C3
48. (d) 2H 3 AsO 4 ∗ 5H 2 S ¾Conc.
¾ ¾ ¾¾
HCl
↑ As 2 S5 ∗ 8H 2 O 0.036
n AB2 C3 < < 0.012
2 moles 1 mole 3
1 moles ½ mole
Given mass (4.8) 1H / Pt

< CH3C º CCH3 ¾¾¾¾
2
® CH3CH = CHCH3
Molecular mass (M.M) X Y
1H 2 / Pt
4.8 CH2 = C = CHCH3 ¾¾¾¾
®
Mol. mass = < 400 X
0.012 O
Þ 400 = 60 + (2 × x) + (80 × 3) CH 3 CH = CHCH 3 ¾¾®
3
2CH 3 COOH
Þ x = 50 Y
55. (a) Inductive effect involves displacement of 1 pK a
63. (b)pH = [pK a - log1] =
s-electrons. 2 2
56. (c) The wavelengths of elements decreases pH' (twice of pH) = pKa
æ h ö 1
with increase in their mass. çQ l = \ pK a = [pK a - log C ]
÷ 2
è mv ø
s
– log C = pKa = – log Ka
57. (a) Tertiary carbonium ion has highest stability
ok
C = Ka = 1.8 × 10–5 M
followed by secondary and then primary
1
carbonium ion. So, option (a) is correct. dilution = = 5.55 × 10 4 times
bo
58. (c) Washing soda reacts with Al to form soluble C
aluminate 2Al + Na2CO3 + 3H2O 64. (c) In blast furnace at about 1270 K, calcium
_e
carbonate is almost completely decomposed
¾¾ ® 2NaAlO2 + CO2 + 3H2 to give CaO which acts as a flux and
59. (b) NH 4 NO2 ¾¾ ® N 2 + 2H 2O
Volume of N2 formed in successive five
Aj combines with SiO2 present as impurity
(gangue) in the ore to form calcium silicate
@
minutes are 2.75 cc, 2.40 cc and 2.25 cc which (fusible slag)
is in decreasing order. So rate of reaction is CaO(s) (basic flux) + SiO2 (s) (acidic flux)
¾¾ ® CaSiO3 (s) (slag)
At
dependent on concentration of NH4NO2.

As decrease is not very fast so it will be 65. (d) Buffer solution contains weak base + salt
first order reaction. of weak base with strong acid or weak acid
ks
60. (d) We know that + salt of weak acid with strong base.
B H In option (d) the acid used is HClO4 which
oo
6 CH3 - CH = CH 2 ¾¾¾®
2 6
ether, 0°C is strong acid and KClO4 is salt of this acid
1, Propene
with strong base. So it is not an example of
Eb
H O buffer solution.
2(CH3 CH 2 CH 2 )3 ¾¾¾®
2 2
OH - 66. (d) The most abundant rare gas found in the
6CH3CH 2 CH 2 OH + 2H 3 BO3 atmosphere is argon and not helium.
e
Propanol 67. (c)

or
61. (b) p tot = 740 mm

M
en
en + +
p tot = pO2 + pH 2 Cl Cl
Number of moles of O 2 and H2 are equal
Co Co
\ p O2 = p H 2
\ pO 2 + pH 2 = 740 Cl Cl
en
en
pO2 = 370mm = p H2
cis-d-isomer cis-l-isomer
62. (d) Formation of only CH3COOH by ozonolysis
indicates that the compound Y should be Mirror
CH3CH = CHCH3 which can be formed by 68. (a) Rewriting the given data for the reaction
all of the three given compounds
H+
1H 2 / Pt CH 3 COCH 3 (aq) + Br2 (aq) ¾¾¾
®
CH 2 = CH - CH = CH 2 ¾¾¾¾
®
X CH3 COCH 2 Br(aq) + H + (aq) + Br - (aq)
CH 3 - CH = CH - CH 3
Y
EBD_7205
MT-214 NEET
S. Initial concent Initial concentr Initialconcentr Rateof 71. (a) If an electronegative element is in its lowest
No. -ration of -ation of Br2 -ation of H+ disappearance possible oxidation state in a compound or
CH3COCH 3 in M in M of Br2 in Ms-1 in free state. It can function as a powerful
in M d
i.e. - [Br2 ]or
dx reducing agent. e.g. I –
dt dt
72. (a) Lithium hydride react with diborane to
1 0.30 0.05 0.05 5.7 ´ 10-5 produce lithiumborohydride.
2 0.30 0.10 0.05 5.7 ´ 10-5
3 0.30 0.10 0.10 1.2 ´ 10-4 2LiH ∗ B2 H 6 ¾¾ ↑ 2Li[BH 4 ]
4 0.40 0.05 0.20 3.1 ´ 10-4 73. (b) Molecules having higher molecular weight
Actually this reaction is autocatalyzed and and less branching have higher boiling
involves complex calculation for point.
concentration terms. 74. (a) Aqueous solution of CoCl 2 contains
We can look at the above results in a simple [Co(H2O)6]2+ which is pinkish in colour so
s
way to find the dependence of reaction rate option (d) is incorrect.
ok
(i.e., rate of disappearance of Br 2).
From data (1) and (2) in which concentration Reduction potential of Co3+ ¾¾ ® Co 2 +
bo
of CH3COCH3 and H+ remain unchanged is high so option(b) is incorrect. Co2+ does
and only the concentration of Br 2 is not oxidises easily to Co3+.
_e
doubled, there is no change in rate of It is general case that symmetrical
reaction. It means the rate of reaction is substituted octahedral complexes are less
independent of concentration of Br2. Aj deeper in colour than tetrahedral
Again from (2) and (3) in which (CH3CO complexes. So [CoCl4]2– is deep blue in
@
CH3) and (Br2) remain constant but H+ colour.
increases from 0.05 M to 0.10 i.e. doubled, 75. (b) Hydration energy of Cl+ is very less than
the rate of reaction changes from 5.7×10–5 H+ hence it doesn’t form Cl+ (aq) ion.
At
to 1.2 × 10–4 (or 12 × 10–5), thus it also 76. (c) No. of asymmetric carbon = 2
becomes almost doubled. It shows that rate No. of enantiomers = 22 = 4.
ks
of reaction is directly proportional to [H+]. 77. (c) Change Equiv.

From (3) and (4), the rate should have
mass
oo
doubled due to increase in conc of [H+]

from 0.10 M to 0.20 M but the rate has H+ M
MnO -4 ¾¾¾
® Mn 2 + 5
Eb
changed from 1.2× 10–4 to 3.1×10–4. This is +7 +2 5

due to change in concentration of H O
CH3COCH3 from 0.30 M to 0.40 M. Thus MnO -4 ¾¾2 ¾
® MnO 24 - 1 M
e
the rate is directly proportional to [CH3 +7 +6

or
COCH3]. We now get OH - M

rate = k [CH3COCH3]1[Br2]0[H+]1 MnO -4 ¾¾¾® MnO2 3
M
+7 +4 3
= k [CH3COCH3][H+].
69. (c) 78. (a) Electronegativity is the tendency of the
atom to attract electrons to itself when
70. (b) m = n(n + 2) combined in a compound as defined by
Pauling. Electronegativity, is a relative term
3.83 = n(n + 2) so it does not have any unit.
on solving n = 3 79. (c) As sigma bond is stronger than the p (pi)
as per magnetic moment, it has three bond, so it must be having higher bond
unpaired electron. energy than p (pi) bond.
Cr3+ will have configuration as 80. (a) The reactivity may be attributed to size
Cr 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2 factor, larger is the size, higher is tendency
Cr3+ 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 to lose electron (low I.E.). Zn is the last
element of 3d series and it has larger size
dxy dyz dzx than Cu due to (3d10 4s 2 ) configurations.
Hence, the reactivity order is
So 3d1xy 3d1yz 3d1xz
Na > Mg > Zn > Fe > Cu. coloured floating lake. It is due to the
81. (c) Using the relation adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3.
0
E cell = E cell -
0.0591
log
[anode] 87. (c) w = - PDV = -105 (1 ´ 10-2 - 1 ´ 10 -3 )
n [cathode] = -900 J
0.0591 [Zn 2+ ] 88. (a)
= E0cell - log 89. (d) Phenol has active (acidic) hydrogen so it
n [Cu 2+ ]
reacts with CH3MgI to give CH4, and not
Substituting the given values in two cases.
anisole
0.0591 0.01
E1 = E 0 - log C 6 H 5 OH + CH 3MgI ¾¾
®
2 1.0
0 0.0591 CH 4 + C6H5OMgI
=E - log10-2
2 90. (d) From given data, we have
s
0.0591 C + O2 ¾¾ ® CO2 – x kJ… (i)
ok
= E0 + ´ 2 or (E 0 + 0.0591)V
2 1
H 2 + O 2 ¾¾ ® H 2 O - y kJ …(ii)
bo
0.0591 1 2
E2 = E0 - log
2 0.01 CH 4 + 2O 2 ¾¾ ® CO 2 + 2H 2 O + z kJ …(iii)
_e
0 0.0591 The required equation is
=E – log10 2
2 C + 2H 2 ¾¾ ® CH 4 + Q
= E0 –
2 ´ 0.0591
or (E 0 – 0.0591)V
Aj To get the required equation, operate
2 (i) + 2 × (ii) – (iii)
@
Thus, E1 > E 2 Thus, we get
82. (a) Grignard reagents and nitriles are useful for C + 2H 2 ¾¾
® CH 4 + [( - x ) + ( - 2 y ) - ( - z )]
At
converting alkyl halide into corresponding Thus, heat of formation of methane is

carboxylic acids having one carbon atom (–x – 2y + z) kJ
ks
more than that present in alkyl halides.

83. (b) Amongst the isoelectronic species, the BIOLOGY
oo
anion having more negative charge would

have the larger size. 91. (b) Trinomial nomenclature of gorilla is Gorilla
84. (d) For an acid-base indicator gorilla gorilla.
Eb
92. (d) Snails are found in the phylum Gastropoda,

HIn H + + In -
clams are in the phylum Bivalvia and
[H + ][In - ] octopus are in the phylum Cephalopoda.
e
\ K In = or [H + ] = K In ´ [HIn ]
[HIn ] 93. (b)
or
[ In - ]
94. (d) The fruit is a mature or ripened ovary. When
[ HIn ]
or log H + = log K In + log
M
a fruit develops exclusively from the ovary,

[ In - ] it is said to be true fruit. When in addition
Taking negative on both sides to the ovary, some other floral part also
[HIn] participates in the formation of fruits, then
, log[H∗ ] < , log K In , log it is known as false fruit. Apple, pear,
[In, ] cashewnut, mulberry etc. are all false fruits.
[ In - ] 95. (d) Meristems are divided into three types on
or we can write pH = pK In + log
[ HIn ] the basis of planes. They are rib meristem,
, plate meristem and mass meristem. The rib
[In ]
or log < pH , pK In meristem is also known as file meristem.
[HIn] 96. (d)
85. (a) Excess of HCl is used to convert free aniline 97. (d) This connection allows material produced
to aniline hydrochloride otherwise free in the nucleus to directly enter the ER via
aniline would undergo coupling reaction the nuclear pores.
with benzenediazonium chloride. 98. (a)
86. (b) In lake test of Al3+, there is formation of 99. (b) When a diploid vegetative cell (nucellus
EBD_7205
MT-216 NEET
cell) gives rise to diploid embryo sac Tritium turgidum × Secale cereale
directly, it is called apospory. (4A) (2B)
100. (c) In porogamy the tip of pollen tube enters Gametes
the micropyle, pushes through the nucellar (2A) (B)
tissue & finally pierces the egg-apparatus Sterile
end of the embryo sac. If pollen tube enters (AAB)
through chalazal side it is called Treated with Colichicine
Triticale Chromosomal doubling
chalazogamy & if it enters laterally it is (6n)
called mesogamy. (AAAABB)
101. (b) Competition is most severe between the 111. (a) Azadirachtin is a chemical compound
members of a population belonging to same belonging to the limonoids. It is a
habitat. secondary metabolite present in the neem
1 tree seeds. The molecular formula is
s
103. (d) BOD µ C35 H44 O 16 . Azadirachtin is a highly
ok
Dissolved oxygen ( DO) oxidised tetranortriterpenoid which boasts
Less BOD : More DO; thus less pollution a plethora of oxygen functionality,
bo
Global warming is due to CO2 (60%), CH4 comprising an enol ether, acetal, hemiacetal,
(20%), CFCs (14%) and N2O (6%) and tetra-substituted oxirane as well as a
_e
104. (a) variety of carboxylic esters. It is classified
among the plant secondary metabolites.
105. (d) The keystone species in an ecosystem are Aj
those who are the main contributors to the 112. (a)
@
ecosystem. 113. (a) An ecosystem having low stability can be
106. (a) If the repressor can no longer bind easily damaged. An ecosystem having high
tryptophan, then it cannot bind the operator resilience will take less time to recover.
At
and transcription of the trp operon will 114. (a) 115. (a)
always be on, whether tryptophan levels in 116. (c) Water could travel to the endodermis layer
ks
the cell are high or low. via the apoplast, pass through the outer
107. (b) The best pH of soil for cultivation of plants endodermis cell membrane, and enter the
oo
is 6.5 – 7.5. stele apoplast by diffusing through the

108. (c) Telomerase is a ribonucleoprotein which inner endodermis membrane.
Eb
synthesize the rich strand of telomers in 117. (d) Photorespiration uses as much ATP as
DNA. Telomerase is an enzyme that adds photosynthesis, but results in no energy
specific DNA sequence repeats gains for the plant and has carbon dioxide
e
(“TTAGGG” in all vertebrates) to the 3' as a lost by-product. If carbon dioxide is

or
(“three prime”) end of DNA strands in the abundantly available, rubisco acts as a
carboxylase rather than an oxygenase.
M
telomere regions, which are found at the

ends of eukaryotic chromosomes. The 118. (d)
telomeres contain condensed DNA material, 119. (a) During the long-term aging of soil, CaCO3
giving stability to the chromosomes. The gradually decreases, clay gradually
enzyme is a reverse transcriptase that increases and biomass peaks and then
carries its own RNA molecule, which is used declines.
as a template when it elongates telomeres, 120. (a) The enzyme involved in Krebs cycle are
which are shortened after each replication localized in the mitochondrial matrix.
cycle. Telomerase was discovered by Carol 121. (b) Cellulose is the most abundant organic
W. Greider in 1984. compound, most abundant polysaccharide
109. (a) A standing crop is the quantity or total and most abundant biopolymer found on
weight or energy content of the organism, earth.
which are in a particular location at a 122. (d) During Krebs cycle fumarate is formed from
particular time. succinate and hence synthesis of fumarate
110. (c) Triticale is a man made hexaploid inter is blocked.
genetic hybrid. 123. (c)
124. (c) At prophase I, DNA replication has already 141. (c)

occurred, and the original amount of DNA 142. (c) Mammals have 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
has been doubled to x. At anaphase I, the 143. (d)
amount of DNA in the cell remains the same 144. (c) Statements (i) and (iii) are correct.
because no cytokinesis has occurred yet - Medical Termination of Pregnancy
to separate the cytoplasm. (MTP) during first trimester is
125. (d) generally safe.
126. (d) As numerical value of Km is more, the - Intrauterine device like copper-T are
affinity is less. effective contraceptives.
127. (d) Biodiversity Act of India was passed by 145. (a)
the parliament in the year 2002. 146. (c) Epididymis lies between vas efferens and
128. (d) Axenic is a method of culture of isolated vas deferens.
plant cells, tissues or organs in an artificial, 147. (c) 148. (b)
s
nutritive medium. 149. (b) In menstrual cycle, menstrual phase lasts
ok
129. (c) ‘Each antibiotic is effective only against for 4 days, proliferating/ovulating phase
one particular kind of germ’ is not correct. for about 10 days and secretory phase for
bo
130. (b) 14 days.
131. (b) The common nitrogen fixer in paddy field is 150. (c) This age pyramid represents the declining
_e
Azospirillum. It is an anaerobic bacteria that population of any organism. Population
forms loose association with roots of paddy decline is the reduction over time in region’s
crops. Aj census. It can be caused for several reasons
132. (d) In order to obtain virus-free plants through that includes heavy immigration disease,
@
tissue culture, the best method is meristem famine or sub-replacement fertility.
culture. Meristem tip culture is used 151. (d)
successfully to remove viruses, bacteria, 152. (d) Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive trait
At
in order to produce the greatest number of carried by X chromosome (also known as

plants. Meristem culture is used to produce bleeder’s disease).
ks
healthy propagation stock for crops and 153. (b) One of the first attempts to explain the
ornamentals. mechanism of evolution was made by Jean
oo
133. (c) Rennet is purified enzyme obtained from Baptiste de Lamarck. His theory was
stomach of calf used in cheese making. Inheritance of Acquired Characters. The
Eb
134. (c) theory states that the characters acquired

135. (a) Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that during life time are passed on to the progeny
makes cuts at specific positions within the and then to subsequent generations and
e
DNA molecule. They acts as molecular new species are produced.

or
scissors. They recognise specific base 154. (d) 155. (a)

156. (a) The autonomic nervous system is a
M
sequence at palindrome sites in DNA duplex

and cut its strands. division of the peripheral nervous system,
136. (b) Sex-factor or F-factor in bacteria results in which controls the involuntary responses
high frequency conjugation. It allows of the glands and smooth muscles. The
bacteria to produce sex pilus necessary for stomach is innervated by 2 classes of
conjugation. autonomic nerves: parasympathetic and
137. (a) Organisms passively floating on the sympathetic. The former stimulates the
surface of water are planktons. If floating muscle while the latter inhibits it.
organisms are animals then it is Acetylcholine is released from the axon
zooplanktons and if plants phytoplanktons. terminal, diffuses across the synaptic cleft
138. (c) Keratin is a scleroprotein in stratum cor- and causes an action potential to be
neum which is very thick at sole and palm generated and spread to the next neuron.
and is waterproof and germproof. Acetylcholine is again released at the nerve
ending Y to trigger all the acetylcholine
139. (b) receptors in the muscle.
140. (c) Dolphin is an aquatic mammal and breathes 157. (b) Premolar and molar are lophodont teeth.
through lungs. Lophodont teeth with the cusps elongated
EBD_7205
MT-218 NEET
to form narrow ridges. The molars in hormone (TRH), which stimulates cells in
elephants and horses have cusps fused by the anterior pituitary to secrete thyroid-
means of intermediate masses of dentine to stimulating hormone (TSH).
form ridges or lophs. 172. (b) Cloning is the production of an organism
158. (c) Sino-Auricular node (SA node) present in with exactly similar genetic make up as in
the walls of right auricle has a myogenic the mother individual. Cloning is done to
initiation of heartbeat in a regular fashion preserve genotype of an individual. This is
and controls the pace of heartbeat called achieved by cell culture, tissue culture or
pacemaker. genetic engineering.
159. (c) 173. (c) A special defence system works specially
160. (a) A large portion of oxygen is left unused in against viral infection. It has no effect on
the human blood even after its uptake by micro-organism. Cells invaded by a virus
the body tissues. This O2 acts as a reserve produce an antiviral protein called interferon
s
during muscular exercise. (IFN). The later is released from the infected
ok
161. (a) 162. (c) cell and on reaching the nearby non-infected
163. (a) Filtration occurs through 3 layers: the en- cells it makes them resistant to the virus
bo
dothelium of blood capillaries, the base- infection.
ment membrane of the epithelium and the 174. (d) Organic farming involves use of organic
_e
filtration slits of the renal capsule. The en- wastes and other biological material along
dothelium of blood capillaries contains large with beneficial microbes to release nutrients
pores which do not filter out larger mol- Aj to crop to increase the soil fertility in an
ecules, The basement membrane consists ecofriendly, and pollution free environment.
@
of a meshwork of collagen fibres that are Glomus, earthworm and Oscillatoria can
able to filter them out. The filtration silts be used in organic farming while snail
are formed by the podocytes and do not cannot.
At
hinder the passage of large molecules. 175. (b) ELISA test is a technique which can detect
164. (a) Hypothalamus contains important nerve any amount of an antibody or antigen with
ks
centres that controls the body temperature, the help of an enzyme. The commonly used
thirst, hunger and eating, water balance and enzymes are alkaline phosphatase and
oo
sexual function. peroxidase.

165. (b) 176. (c)
Eb
166. (d) ADH is produced in the pituitary to make 177. (c) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum.
the collecting ducts in the nephrons more 178. (b) Amphetamines bring about increased
permeable to water and therefore cause alertness and sleeplessness. Hashish is a
e
greater water reabsorption and hallucinogen. Valium is a tranquilizer. Valium

or
concentration of urine. Decreased ADH depresses brain activity and produces

leads to polyurea. People urinate a lot when feeling of calmness, relaxation and
M
they drink alcohol. It is because ethanol drowsiness. Morphine is an opiate narcotic.

inhibits ADH release, increasing urine 179. (b) Thermoregulation is the ability of an
volume. organism to keep its body temperature
167. (d) The sensation of fatigue in the muscles after within certain boundaries, even when
prolonged strenuous physical work is temperature surrounding is very different.
caused by the accumulation of lactic acid. In humans, sweating is primarily a means
168. (a) 169. (b) of thermoregulation.
170. (c) Epinephrine or adrenaline, norepinephrine 180. (d) Spirulina is SCP rich in protein, vitamins &
or noradrenaline and acetylchloline are the minerals. 250 gram biomass of
neurotransmitters. These are released by Methylophilus methylotrophus produces
the nerve fibres to transmit the impulse to 25 tonne protein/day while cow of 250 kg.
the next neuron. Cortisone is not the produces only 200 gm. protein/day.
neurotransmitter. Common button mushrooms are a very rich
171. (a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but source of vitamin D. A rice variety has been
not vice-versa.Neurons in the developed which is very rich in iron
hypothalamus secrete thyroid releasing content.
Mock Test-5
ANS WER KEY
1 (c) 21 (a) 41 (d) 61 (d) 81 (d) 101 (c) 121 (b) 141 (c) 161 (d)
2 (b) 22 (c) 42 (b) 62 (b) 82 (a) 102 (d) 122 (a) 142 (d) 162 (a)
3 (b) 23 (a) 43 (d) 63 (c) 83 (a) 103 (c) 123 (c) 143 (d) 163 (b)
4 (a) 24 (b) 44 (d) 64 (b) 84 (d) 104 (b) 124 (d) 144 (b) 164 (b)
5 (a) 25 (d) 45 (b) 65 (d) 85 (d) 105 (b) 125 (d) 145 (a) 165 (a)
6 (d) 26 (d) 46 (d) 66 (b) 86 (d) 106 (c) 126 (c) 146 (a) 166 (b)
s
7 (b) 27 (d) 47 (a) 67 (b) 87 (b) 107 (b) 127 (d) 147 (a) 167 (b)
ok
8 (c) 28 (c) 48 (d) 68 (d) 88 (b) 108 (d) 128 (d) 148 (d) 168 (c)
bo
9 (d) 29 (a) 49 (b) 69 (c) 89 (a) 109 (d) 129 (a) 149 (a) 169 (a)
10 (c) 30 (a) 50 (c) 70 (c) 90 (d) 110 (b) 130 (b) 150 (b) 170 (c)
_e
11 (b) 31 (a) 51 (a) 71 (c) 91 (a) 111 (d) 131 (b) 151 (c) 171 (b)
12 (c) 32 (d) 52 (c) 72 (a) 92 (a)
Aj 112 (c) 132 (a) 152 (b) 172 (a)
13 (b) 33 (d) 53 (d) 73 (b) 93 (b) 113 (b) 133 (c) 153 (c) 173 (a)
@
14 (d) 34 (c) 54 (c) 74 (c) 94 (b) 114 (d) 134 (d) 154 (c) 174 (b)
15 (a) 35 (b) 55 (d) 75 (b) 95 (d) 115 (a) 135 (d) 155 (d) 175 (d)
At
16 (a) 36 (b) 56 (c) 76 (d) 96 (a) 116 (a) 136 (c) 156 (d) 176 (c)
17 (d) 37 (c) 57 (c) 77 (a) 97 (a) 117 (b) 137 (c) 157 (c) 177 (a)
ks
18 (c) 38 (a) 58 (d) 78 (c) 98 (b) 118 (b) 138 (c) 158 (b) 178 (b)
oo
19 (a) 39 (b) 59 (a) 79 (b) 99 (b) 119 (d) 139 (d) 159 (c) 179 (d)
20 (a) 40 (c) 60 (d) 80 (a) 100 (b) 120 (a) 140 (d) 160 (b) 180 (d)
Eb
Solutions
e
or
M
PHYSICS
C A 28 - q
Þ = ...(ii)
1. (c) Heat gain = heat lost CC q - 12
CA 3 On solving equations (i) and (ii) q = 20.2°C
C A (16 - 12) = CB (19 - 16) Þ =
CB 4 é2 ù é2 ù
2. (b) I = 2 ê Mr 2 ú + 2 ê Mr 2 + M l 2 ú
C 5 ë5 û ë5 û
B
and C B (23 - 19) = Cc (28 - 23) Þ C = 4 é8 ù
C = M ê r 2 + 2l 2 ú
ë5 û
C A 15 M, r
Þ = ...(i)
CC 16
If q is the temperature when A and C are
mixed then, l
C A (q - 12) = CC (28 - q)
EBD_7205
MT-220 NEET
3. (b) Due to increase in velocity, pressure will be f

low above the surface of water. But Cv = R where f is the degree of
2
4. (a) Torque acting on a magnet when it is freedom of the gas
rotated by q° from its equilibrium position
nfRdT
is MB sin q \ dQ =
2
which is equivalent to M ´ B . 2 ´ 3 ´ R ´ (373 - 273)
= = 300 R
2p 2
5. (a) Phase difference = × path difference
l 1 1
p 2p 13. (b) E= mve 2 = ´1000 ´ (11.2 ´ 103 ) 2
= × 0.8 2 2
2 l = 6.4 × 1010 J (approx.)
Þ l = 0.8 m × 4 = 3.2 m
s
velocity = l × v = 3.2 × 120 = 384 m/s. Bwl 2
ok
14. (d) e=
2
l
6. (d) T1 = 2p
bo
æ 120 ö
g (0.4 ´ 104 ) ´ ç 2 p ´ ÷ ´ (0.5)
2
è 60 ø
Length l increases from l to 1.21 l . =
_e
2
1.21l Aj = 0.628 × 10 – 4V.
T2 = 2p = 1.1T1 15. (a) According to the Gauss’s law, the net
g
electric flux through the closed spherical
@
Thus % increase in time period = 10%. surface is equal to the total chage enclosed
4 ´ 140 by the surface divided by e0, i.e.,
At
7. (b) I1N1 = I2N2 Þ I2 = = 2A. –q + q

280 fE = =0
e0
ks
8. (c)
16. (a) The sliding tendency of bottom most point
m
of the spool is backward, so friction acts

oo
a rightwards. Therefore centre of mass of

30° spool moves rightwards.
Eb
17. (d) For an atom following Bohr’s model, the

Use result, a = gtan q, a = gtan 30° = g / 3 r0 m 2
radius is given by rm =
e
where r0 =
3 Z
or
9. (d) Cv = dE / dT = R Bohr’s radius and m = orbit number.

2
For Fm, m = 5 (Fifth orbit in which the
M
3 5 outermost electron is present)

Cp = R + R = R = 2.5 R
2 2
r0 52 1
10. (c) The battery supplies the equal amounts of \ rm = = nr0 (given) Þ n = 4
energy to the capacitor and resistor. The 100
total energy supplied to the two is
–6.67 ´10-11 ´10 6.67 ´ 10 -11 ´ 100
1 1 18. (c) Vg = -
U = CV 2 + CV 2 = CV2 1 1
2 2 = –6.67 × 10–10 – 6.67 × 10–9
= 10 × 10–6 × (20)2 = 4× 10–3 J = 4 mJ = – 6.67 × 10–10 × 11 = –7.3 × 10–9 J/kg
11. (b)
12. (c) If a gas is heated at constant volume then 19. (a) The relation between Y, h and s is as
no work is done. The heat supplied is given follows :
by Y = 2h (1 + s)
dQ = nCv dT
Y
s= - 1 = 0.2
2h
20. (a) In case of ‘NOR’ logic circuit, when input –Q –Q

is 0, the output is 1 that is when both the
inputs are low, the output is high.
21. (a) Given, l = 660 nm, Power = 0.5 kW, t = 60 ms
a
nhc plt q
Power P = Þn=
lt hc
660 ´ 10-9 ´ 60 ´ 10-3 –Q –Q
= 0.5 ´ 103 ´ -34 8
6.6 ´ 10 ´ 3 ´ 10 25. (d) Using equipartition of energy, we have
= 100 × 1018 = 1020 6
ur r KT = mCT
22. (c) Using dV = – E. d r 2
s
Þ DV = – E Dr cosq 3 ´1.38 ´10 –23 ´ 6.02 ´1023
ok
C=
27 ´10–3
bo
10V \ C = 925 J/kgK
20V
4E
26. (d) If V is velocity of combination (bag + bullet),
30º q 30º
_e
then from principle of conservation of linear
Dr
Aj momentum
mv
@
-DV (m + M) V = m v or V =
Þ E= (m + M)
Dr cos q
At
1 m 2 v2
-(20 - 10) K.E. = (m + M) V 2 =
Þ E= 2 2(m + M)
10 ´10-2 cos120°
ks
27. (d) Isobaric compression is represented by

-10 curve AO
oo
=
10 ´ 10-2 (– sin 30°) Work done = area under AD
= 2 × 102 × (3 – 1)
Eb
-102 = 4 × 102 = 400 J.

= = 200 V / m
-1/ 2 28. (c) Charges reside only on the outer surface of
e
Direction of E be perpendicular to the a conductor with cavity.

29. (a) As we know,
or
equipotential surface i.e. at 120° with X-

axis. DQ = D u + D w
M
(Ist law of thermodynamics)

23. (a) At t = 2 sec, F = 2 × 2 = 4 N, where as
Þ DQ = D u + P D v
f max = µ N = 8 N . As the applied force is
less than the limiting force of friction, the or 150 = Du + 100 (1 - 2 )
frictional force will be equal to applied force = Du - 100
i.e. F = 2 × 2 = 4 N \ Du = 150 + 100 = 250J
24. (b) For the system to be in equilibrium, net force on Thus the internal energy of the gas in-
each of the charges must be zero. Net for on any creases by 250 J
of – Q to be zero, we have 30. (a) Because when intensity of incident light
Q 2
Q 2
kQq increases, it means that number of photons
2k +k - =0 \ increases in incident light. If number of
Q2 2a 2 a2 2
incident photons increases, then number
Q of emitted photo electrons also increases,
q= (1 + 2 2) consequently the photo electric current
4
increases.
EBD_7205
MT-222 NEET
31. (a) Force of friction acting i.e., the driving voltage and current are in
= mmg = 0.15 ´ 60 ´ 9.8N the same phase.
38. (a) Here, at is dimensionless
distance = 0.9 m
Work done = 0.15 × 60 × 9.8 × 0.9 1 é1ù
Þ a = = ê ú = ëéT -1 ûù
= 79.4 joule t ëT û
u V
32. (d) At maximum height, v = u cos 45º = ; x= 0
2 a
ac = g
and V0 = xa = éë LT -1 ùû = éë M 0 LT -1 ùû
2
æ u ö 4T
çç ÷÷ 39. (b) Excess pressure, P =
è 2ø u2 r
r= =
s
g 2g 4T 4 3 16 T 2
ok
PV = ´ p.r = p.r
33. (d) t × Dt = L0 {Q since Lf = 0} r 3 3
bo
Þ t × Dt = Iw
or t × 60 = 2 × 2 × 60p/60 PV µ r 2
40. (c) P.E. changes from zero to maximum twice in
_e
60 ö each vibration so its time period is T/2.
(Q f = 60rpm \ w = 2pf = 2p ´ ÷ø
60 41.
Aj (d)
White
p
@
t= N-m light R
15 v
m 2 i2 m 2 i1 m 4 FV FR
At
34. (c) B= 0 - 0 = 0 (i 2 - i1 )
4 p (r / 2) 4 m ( r / 2) 4 p r
m0 4 m
ks
= (5 - 2.5) = 0 .
4p 5 2p
oo
35. (b) As VL = VC = 300 V, resonance will take Red light less deviates than violet light.
place So, F > F . Thus, m R < m V
Eb
R V
\ VR = 220 V Therefore, option (d) is correct.
220
Current, I = = 2.2 A 42. (b) Graph [A] is for material used for making
e
100 permanent magnets (high coercivity)

or
\ reading of V3 = 220 V Graph [B] is for making electromagnets and

and reading of A = 2.2 A transformers.
M
36. (b) Since work function for a metal surface is

dm + A
hc sin
W= 43. (d) m= 2
l0 A
sin
where l0 is threshold wavelength or cut-off 2
wavelength for a metal surface.
here W = 4.125, eV = 4.125 × 1.6 × 10–19 Joule 98
sin
2 sin 49
= = = 1.5
6.6 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3 ´ 10 8 sin 30 sin 30
so l 0 = = 3000 A º
4.125 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 44. (d)
37. (c) In an ac circuit, the ac driving voltage v
leads the circuit current i through an angle
45. (
(b) Since escape velocity v e = 2g R e is )
q, given by independent of angle of projection, so it
will not change.
XL - XC 0
tan q = = = 0 Þq=0
R R
CHEMISTRY 57. (c) Co2+ ion is precipitated by H2S in presence

of NH4OH which is a group reagent of group
46. (d) Nature of halogen atom and the alkyl group IV in cationic analysis.
both determine rate of reaction. 58. (d) Stability of ionic compounds decreases
47. (a) Pentan-2-one and pentan -3-one are with decrease in lattice enthalpy. Thus
position isomers. stability of alkaline earth metal hydroxides
(b), (c), (d) contain different compounds decreases with decrease in lattice enthalpy
aldehyde and ketones. as the size of alkali earth metal cations
48. (d) More equivalents of AgNO 3 aqueous increases down the group.
solution will be consumed if complex will
furnish more Cl– ions in solution. Hence 59. (a) For BCC lattice body diagonal = a 3 .
complex [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 will consume more The distance between the two oppositely
equivalents of aqueous solution of AgNO3. a
charged ions = 3
s
49. (b) 2
ok
50. (c) Percentage of degree of ionization = 1.34% 387 ´ 1.732
= = 335pm
\ Degree of ionization (a ) = 0.0134 2
bo
60. (d) I2 and NaOH react with acetophenone
CH3COO- + H +
CH3COOH (C6H5COCH3) to give yellow ppt. of CHI3
_e
Initial 0.1 0 0 but benzophenone (C6H5COC6H5) does
At equilibrium 0.1(1 – 0.0134) 0.1 ´ 0.0134 0.1 ´ 0.0134 not and hence can be used to distinguish
[CH3COO - ] [H + ] Aj between them. Oxidation of methyl
K= ketones with sodium Hypoiodite (NaOI)
[CH 3COOH]
@
or (I2 + NaOH) gives iodoform (CHI3) but
0.1 ´ 0.0134 ´ 0.0134 ´ 0.1 not in case of binzophenone.
=
0.1 ´ (1 - 0.0134)
At
61. (d) E 0cell = E0 + E0 first cell

= 0.182 ´ 10-5 Zn / Zn 2+ Cu 2+ / Ca
ks
NO2 1.10 = E 0 + 0.34

NO 2 Zn / Zn 2+
oo
51. (a) or E0 = 0.76 V

Zn / Zn 2+
Eb
Hence it is homocyclic (as the ring system

is made of one type of atoms, i.e. carbon) E0cell = E0 + E0 second cell
Cu / Cu 2+ Ag + / Ag
e
but not aromatic. As it does not have (4n +2)p

electron required for aromaticity. 0.46 = -0.34 + E 0
or
Ag + / Ag
52. (c) H2, He and ionic oxygen are present in
M
exosphere. E0 = 0.80 V
53. (d) All the given statements are correct. Ag + / Ag
54. (c) For third cell
55. (d) –OCH3 activates the benzene ring. –NO2
deactivates the ring. Hence the reaction of E 0cell = E 0 + E0
Zn / Zn 2+ Ag + / Ag
the given compounds with electrophiles is
in the order, I > II > III. = 0.76 + 0.80
56. (c) Given : Percentage of the iron = 0.334%; = + 1.56 V
Molecular weight of the haemoglobin 62. (b) It is optically active when two Cl atoms are
= 67200 and atomic weight of the iron = 56. in cis position.
We know that the number of iron atoms U H2 TH2 ´ 28 TH2 1
Molecular wt. of haemoglobin ´ % of iron 63. (c) = = 7 Þ =
< U N2 TN 2 ´ 2 TN 2 2
100 ´ Atomic weight of iron
67200 ´ 0.334 Þ TN2 = 2TH 2 \ TN 2 > TH 2
= =4
100 ´ 56
EBD_7205
MT-224 NEET
64. (b) The correct order of ionic radii is CH3 CH3

alc. KOH
C6H5 – CH2 – C
Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La 3+ < Y39
3+ C6H5 – CH = C
At. No. 71 63 57 CH3 CH3

Cl
(i) O3
(A)
[In lanthanides ionic radii (M3+) decreases (ii) Zn/H 2O
with increase in atomic number. Y3+ belongs (it gives white ppt O O
with AgNO3)
to d-block].
C6H5 – C – H + CH3 – C – CH 3
65. (d) Amino acid is 5% dissociated. (C) (D)
Thus, [A–] = [conjugate base] = 0.05 (it gives cannizzaro

reaction only)
(It gives aldol
condensation only)
[HA] = [Amino acid] = 0.95
72. (a) In alkaline medium SnO2 is converted into
- negatively charged colloidal sol
[A ]
pH = pKa + log SnO 2 + 2OH - ¾¾
® SnO 32 - + H 2O
s
[HA]
ok
SnO 2 + SnO32 - ¾¾
® [SnO 2 ]SnO32 -
æ1ö 144244 3
bo
= 9.15 + log ç ÷ = 7.87 anion migrates to anode
è 12 ø
Thus, (a)
_e
66. (b) In froth floatation process, ore particles 73. (b) No. of equivalents of caustic sdoda =
float because their surface is hydrophobic 20 × 10–3 × 0.5 = 10–2
i.e., not easily wetted by oil. Aj \ No. of equivalents of acid = 10–2
67. (b) Initial concentration = 10 mol L–1 Wt.of acid ´ Basicity
@
Also, = No. of equiv..
\ Conc. after 20 min (two half lives) = 2.5 mol L–1 MW
0.45
Þ ´ x = 10 -2 Þ x = 2
At
0.693 0.693
Now, k = = 90
t1 / 2 10 min 74. (c) Chloramphenicol is a broad spectrum drug.
ks
[Broad spectrum antibiotics are medicines

or 0.0693 min–1 effective against gram positive as well as
oo
\ rate = k × [reactant] gram negative bacteria, e.g., tetracycline,

= 0.0693 × 2.5 mol L–1 min–1 chloramphenicol, etc.]
Eb
75. (b) Halides Cl –, Br –, I – React with AgNO3 to

2+ give
68. (d) [ Co (CO ) 5 NH 3 ] . In this complex Co atom
attached with NH3 through s bonding with AgCl ¾¾ ® soluble in NH4OH
e
CO attached with dative p-bond. AgBr ¾¾ ® spraringly soluble in NH4OH

or
69. (c) C is incorrect ; The correct is DE = Dq + Dw AgI ¾¾ ® Insoluble

and the C – Cl bond is weakest in benzyl
M
70. (c) Among the isoelectronic species, size chloride [(sp 3 ) hybridised carbon is
increases with the increase in negative attached to Cl]
charge. Thus S2– has the highest negative
76. (d) Total number of atoms per unit cell for a
charge and hence largest in size followed
face centered cubic unit is 4.
by Cl–, K+ and Ca.
The atom at the body center completely
71. (c) Compound A reacts with alc.KOH to give belongs to the unit cell in which it is
compound B which on further ozonolysis present.
gives C (does not contains a- H atom) and 77. (a) Because at infinite dilution the equivalent
D (contains a-H atom).This reaction conductance of strong electrolytes
sequence can be achieved by compounds furnishing same number of ions is same.
in option (a) and (c). Since compound A 15
gives white ppt. with AgNO3 preferable 78 (c) C6 H6 + O2 ¾¾ ® 6CO2 + 3H 2 O
2
option will be (c) as tert alkyl reacts with 1 mole º 3250 kJ
AgNO3 more quickly. 0.39 0.39
mole º 3250 ´ = 16.25 kJ
78 78
79. (b) Soda -lim e (X)

80. (a) The reason for the lesser basicity of aniline 86. (d) C6 H 5COOH ¾¾¾¾¾¾®
as compared to that of cyclohexylamine is C6 H6 + Na 2CO3 + H 2O
+R effect of –NH2 group (i.e., electron
releasing resonance effect of – NH2 group). Zn dust (Y)
C6 H 5 OH ¾¾¾¾¾® C6 H 6 + ZnO
81. (d) Reducing character decreases down the 87. (b) We have to calculate the enthalpy of the
series. Hence the correct order is reaction OH (g) ® O(g) + H(g)
Al < Fe2+ < Br– From the given reactions, this can be
82. (a) Mac Arthur process involves extraction of obtained as follows.
gold from sulphide ore with the help of
KCN. é1 1 ù
– ê H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) + ® OH(g) ú; DH = –42.09 kJ mol–1
83. (a) The boron atom in boric acid, H3BO3 is ë2 2 û
electron deficient i.e., boric acid is a Lewis 1 1
[H2(g) ® 2H(g)] ; DH = × 435.89 kJ mol–1
s
acid with one p-orbital vacant. There is no +
2 2
ok
d-orbital of suitable energy in boron atom.
So, it can accommodate only one additional 1 1
+ [O2(g) ®0 2O(g)]; DH = × 495.05 kJ mol–1
bo
electron pair in its outermost shell. 2 2
84. (d) Given, Add
2NH 3 ; K1
_e
N 2 + 3H 2 ....(i)
OH(g) ® H(g) + O(g) ; DH = 423.38 kJ mol -1

N 2 + O 2 2NO; K 2 ....(ii)
1
H 2 + O2 H 2 O; K 3 ....(iii)
Aj
88. (b) Elements X, Y, Z with atomic numbers 19,
37, 55 lie in group 1 (alkali metals). On
@
2
We have to calculate moving down a group from the size of atoms
increases; the outermost electrons become
4NH 3 + 5O2 ¾¾ ® 4NO + 6H 2O; K = ?
At
less strongly held. So the ionization energy

5 decreases. Therefore, IE of Y could be
or 2NH 3 + O2 ¾¾ ® 2NO + 3H 2 O
2 between those of X and Z.
ks
[NO]2 [H2O]3 X Y Z
For this equation, K =
oo
K (19) Rb (37) Cs (55)

[NH3 ]2 [O2 ]5 / 2 I.E. 4.3 4.2 3.9
[NH3 ]2 [NO]2
Eb
89. 2–
(a) 3MnO4 + 2H 2 O ®
but K1 = 3
, K2 =
[N 2 ] [H 2 ] [N 2 ] [O 2 ]
MnO 2 + 2MnO 4– + 4OH –
[H 2O] 3
e
[H 2O] 2
& K3 = or K 3 = or MnO 2–
4 + H2O ®
or
½
[H 2 ] [O 2 ] [H 2 ]3 [O 2 ]3 / 2 3
K 2 . K 33
M
1 2 4
Now operate, MnO 2 + MnO 4– + OH –
K1 3 3 3
90. (d)
[NO]2 [H 2 O]3 [N 2 ] [H2 ]3
= ´ .
[N 2 ] [O2 ] [H 2 ]3 [O2 ]3 / 2 [NH3 ]2 BIOLOGY
[NO]2 [H 2 O]3 91. (a)
= =K 92. (a) Lateral meristems occur on the sides of stem
2 5/2
[NH 3 ] [O 2 ] and help in increasing girth of stem and
root. It divides only periclinally or radially
K 2 . K 33 and is responsible for increase in girth or
\ K=
K1 diameter.
85. (d) –NH–CONH2 group is ortho para directing. 93. (b) During prophase each chromosome consists
Nitrogen shares its lone pair with benzene of two chromatids (46 chromosomes 2
ring and makes this group ortho para chromatids per chromosome = 92 chromatids).
directing.
EBD_7205
MT-226 NEET
94. (b) In chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction takes 106. (c) Symptoms caused by deficiency of
place by all the three processes : essential mineral elements on plants are
Isogamy – fusion of morphologically and called Hunger signs.
physiologically similar gametes, 107. (b) Active transport involves movement of
Anisogamy – morphologically similar but ions against concentration gradient
physiologically dissimilar gametes, involves the expen diture of en ergy.
oogamy – fusing gametes are dissimilar in Diffusion involves the movement of solute
all respect. particles from region of higher
95. (d) Ulothrix is a filamentous green algae found concen tration to a region of lower
attached to some substratum. In the concentration. Pinocytosis is cell drinking.
reproductive stage of Ulothrix, biflagellated Brownian movement is the random to and
spores are formed which are involved in fro movement of atoms and molecules.
sexual reproduction. 108. (d)
s
96. (a) 109. (d) Long day plants undergo flowering after
ok
97. (a) Tiger and tigris both are from same genus receiving light above a critical day length.
with particular taxonomic category. e.g. spinach, sugarbeet. Short day plants
bo
98. (b) In gymnosperms the female gametophyte flower only when they receive light below
forming archegonia provides nourishment a critical day length, e.g. Glycine max,
_e
to the developing embryo. It later gets tobacco.
transformed into food-laden endosperm 110. (b)
inside the seed. Endosperm provides Aj
111. (d) Rubisco, the most abundant enzyme on
nourishment for growth of seed at the time earth, has both oxygenase and carboxylase
@
of seed germination. Triploid endosperm activities.
occurs in angiosperms. 112. (c) Cell placed in a hypotonic solution
At
99. (b) becomes turgid due to endosmosis. Water

100. (b) Secondary succession refers to the regrowth exerts a pressure on the walls of the cell
of a habitat in the area where disruptive event called Turgor pressure. Cell wall being a
ks
has occurred and eliminated the existing, rigid and hard structure also exerts a
above ground plant life of the natural habitat. pressure on Cytoplasm in response to
oo
So, it occurs on a deforested site. Turgor pressure when TP = WP, DPD = 0

101. (c) (No net exchange of water).
Eb
102. (d) In Gloriosa, stigma bends in opposite 113. (b)

direction to the stamens and thus a physical 114. (d) Infective threads fuse preferentially with
e
barrier (herkogamy) is there between male root cortex cells.

115. (a)
or
and female organs.

103. (c) Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in river 116. (a) In 1953 Wilkins obtained very fine X-ray
M
water increases when sewage gets mixed crystallographic pictures of DNA from
with river water. Biochemical oxygen demand which Watson and Crick developed the
or biological oxygen demand (BOD) is a double helix model of DNA.
chemical procedure for determining how fast 117. (b) Genetic mapping help in studying the
biological organisms use up oxygen in a body architecture of the chromosomes and of
of water. It is used in water quality entire genome.
management and assessment, ecology and 118. (b) During transcription, from the DNA
environmental science. BOD considered as template complementary mRNA is formed
an indication of the quality of a water source. and thymine is replaced by uracil.
104. (b) Both bract and bracteole are leafy struc- 119. (d) Humus is the organic material in soil is the
ture associated with flowers. Bract devel- dark brown or black colouration. In soil
ops one peduncle (inflorescence axis) and science, humus refers to any organic matter
bracteole develops on pedicle or at the base which has reached a point of stability, where
of the thalamus. it will break down no further and might, if
105. (b) conditions do not change, remain
essentially as it is for centuries, if not
millennia. In agriculture, humus is 130. (b) Far-red light prevents seed germination.
sometimes also used to describe mature Plants respond to the last light treatment
compost, or natural compost extracted from they received.
a forest or other spontaneous source for 131. (b)
use to amend soil. It is also used to describe 132. (a) Glomus aggregatum is a mycorrhizal
a topsoil horizon that contains organic fungus used as a soil inoculant in
matter (humus type, humus form, humus agriculture and horticulture. Its purpose is
profile). to increase the surface area of roots for
120. (a) DDT was subsequen tly banned for nutrient absorption like phosphorus.
agricultural use worldwide under the 133. (c)
Stockholm Convention, but its limited use 134. (d) In pBR 322
in disease vector control continues to these ori-represents site of origin or replication
days in certain parts of the world and rop-represents those proteins that take part
s
remains controversial. Along with the in replication of plasmid.
ok
passage of the Endangered Species Act, Hind III, EcoRI- Recoginition sites of
the US ban on DDT is cited by scientists as Restriction endonucleases
bo
a major factor in the comeback of the bald ampR and tetR - They are antibiotic resistant
eagle in the contiguous US. gene part.
_e
121. (b) Ozone layer is present in the stratosphere 135. (d)
in the atmosphere of the earth. It protects 136. (c) Slime moulds in the division of myxomycota
the earth from UV rays (less than 300 nm). Aj have spores that develop into flagellated
Hole in the ozone layer means thinning of gametes.
@
ozone layer that allows harmful UV rays 137. (c) Average prothrombin time in man is about
to reach earth which cause skin diseases. 12 seconds but it will be longer in the defi-
ciency of factor V or factor VII or Stuart
At
122. (a) Selection is picking up only those plants

for reproduction which have desired factor.
138. (c) Tapeworms absorb food through their skin.
qualities. Hybridization is crossing of two
ks
The beef tapeworm is called Taenia

or more types of plants for bringing their
saginata. This tapeworm grows in the
traits together in the progeny. Introduction
oo
intestines of humans to a length of 30-40

is taking a plant or a new variety from an
feet. Ingesting undercooked beef increases
area where it grows naturally to a region
Eb
the risk of getting this parasite in one’s

where it does not occur before. system. However, beef that is cooked
123. (c) A functional strand of mRNA must have a properly may still have these parasites in it,
e
start and a stop codon. The start codon but in a dead form. This definitely doesn’t
often also codes for the amino acid
or
sound too appetizing.

methionme, which may or may not end up 139. (d) Deficiency of RBCs in the blood causes
M
being a part of the final protein. However, anaemia. It may be due to excessive blood
the stop codon would not code for an amino loss or increased destruction of RBCs
acid. Thus, with 66 codons in the mRNA, (haemolysis). Aplastic anaemia results due
there could be as many as 65 amino acids in to the defective formation of RBCs in the
the protein product. bone marrow. In the absence of vitamin B
124. (d) 125. (d) and folic acid (extrinsic factor), pernicious12
126. (c) Food is moved through the digestive tract (Addison’s) anaemia results. It is also called
by wave-like contractions of smooth muscle megaloblastic anaemia.
called peristalsis 140. (d)
127. (d) Scarification is the breaking of the seed 141. (c) Pseudocoelomate is any i n v e r t e b r a t e
coat barriers which can be done by animal whose body cavity is a pseudocoel,
mechanical or chemical methods. a cavity between the gut and the outer body
128. (d) In Kreb’s cycle, the FAD precipitates as wall derived from a persistent blastocoel,
electron acceptor during the conversion of rather than a true coelom. Pseudocoelomate
succinic acid to fumaric acid. animals include the Rotifera and Nematoda.
129. (a) 142. (d) 143. (d)
EBD_7205
MT-228 NEET
144. (b) Amniocentesis is the most widely used carboxyhaemoglobin (COHb), COHb
method for prenatal detection of many interferes with the transport of oxygen.
genetic disorders. It is also a technique used 156. (d) This stretching of arteries is caused by the
for determining the sex of the foetus. pressure of blood.
145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (a) 157. (c) A and B involve ultrafiltration.
148. (d) Chorionic villi found in the maternal blood In the proximal convoluted tubules the mi-
is involved in the formation of placenta in tochondria provide energy for active trans-
man. port. The cells present here are adapted for
149. (a) 150. (b) 151. (c) reabsorption. The amino acids diffuse into
152. (b) Rh factor was discovered by Kar l the cells and are actively transported to the
Landsteiner. A child of Rh+ man will be Rh+ intercellular spaces, where they diffuse into
whether the mother is Rh + or Rh–. If the the surrounding capillaries,
mother is Rh+ then there will be no problem 158. (b) Cri du chat results from the loss of a critical
s
but if mother is Rh– so when the blood of portion of chromosome number 5, and
ok
Rh+ child (in womb) mixes with the blood Down’s syndrome from the presence of
of Rh– mother then some antibodies in three copies of chromosome number 21.
bo
mother’s blood are formed against Rh+ Both are considered types of chromosomal
factor which coagulate the womb blood abnormalities.
_e
causing death. If birth takes place then there 159. (c)
is a possibility of child death in early years. 160. (b) In the embryos of all vertebrates, the
This in known as erythroblastosis foetalis. Aj presence of gill slits supports the theory of
In most cases the Ist pregnancy may recapitulation (repeating the early stages
@
succeed but after that it fails. of embryogenesis in earlier evolved
153. (c) Continued consumption of fat rich animals).
161. (d) In superovulation, a high milk yielding cow
At
diet causes hypercholesterolemia.

Hypercholesterolemia is the presence of is induced to shed 4–6 eggs (instead of one)
every 6–8 weeks (instead of 20–21 days).
high levels of cholesterol in the blood.
ks
The superovulated donor is artificially

High cholesterol raises risk for heart
inseminated with semen from a quality bull.
disease, heart attack, and stroke. Kidney
oo
The embryos developing from the eggs so

stones are solid mass made up of tiny
fertilised are flushed out. These good
crystals. There are different types of
Eb
quality embryos are now transfered to

kidney stones. The exact cause depends surrogate mother for delivery.
on the type of stone like, calcium stones, 162. (a) The change in the colour of peppered moth
e
uric acid stone etc. Vitamin A toxicity or is due to the mutation of single mendelian
hypervitaminosis A is having too much
or
gene for the survival in the smoke-laden

of vitamin A in the body. Ketonuria is industrial environment. It is called
M
condition in which ketone bodies are Industrial melanism.

present in urine. Body products excess 163. (b) Down’s syndrome develops due to trisomy
ketone bodies as an alternate source of of chromosome number 21. In Turner’s
energy during starvation or diabetes syndrome, the effect appears due to fusion
mellitus (type 1). of a gamete without sex chromosome and a
154. (c) Due to a long hunger strike and survival gamete with one X-chromosome (44 + X).
on water, a person will have less urea in Klinefelter individuals are phenotypically
his urine because urea comes to kidney males. The defect appears due to fusion of
as a waste product from liver which is egg having unreduced sex complement
formed after the breakdown of protein fat, (A + X X) with a gamete carrying Y
carbohydrate during hunger. It is not chromosome (44 + XXY).
synthesised but the synthesised ones are Gynandromorphism occur among
catabolised. Drosophila. In such individuals one half
155. (d) Haemoglobin has/having 250 times more of the body shows male characters and the
affinity for CO as compared to oxygen. Hb other half shows female characters.
readily combines with CO, forming
164. (b) There is no life on moon due to absence of 172. (a) Increasing the amount of ‘a’ decreases the
water. There are many other reasons for secretion of ‘b’. Since increasing ‘b’
being no life on moon, life insufficient increases the secretion of ‘c’, decreased ‘b’
oxygens, unsuitable temperature etc. leads to decreased ‘c’ which in turn leads
165. (a) to the increased secretion of ‘a’.
166. (b) MRI machine does not show face image of 173. (a) 174. (b)
bone and calcium, e.g. scapula, canine. It is 175. (d) Tetanus and typhoid are caused by
also not suitable for patients with cardiac bacteria.
pace makers. Whooping cough is caused by bacteria.
167. (b) Hormones typically act on a receptor in or Sleeping sickness is caused by parasitic
on target cells to stimulate the production flees.
of proteins. Syphilis is caused by bacteria while AIDS
168. (c) The maximum volume of air a person can is final stage of HIV viral disease.
s
breath in after a forced expiration or the Measles and Rabies are caused by virus.
ok
maximum volume of air a person can 176. (c) Electroporation is the method of making cell
breathe out after a forced inspiration is membrane permeable for the entry of
bo
called vital capacity (VC). This includes recombinant DNA into the bacteria.
tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume 177. (a) Black water fever disease is caused by
_e
and expiratory reserve volume. Plasmodium falcifarum which is also
(TV + IRV + ERV). VC varies from 3400 ml known as deadly tertian malaria.
– 4800 mL, depending upon age, sex and Aj
178. (b) Pollen–grains of many species are
height of the individual. responsible for some of the severe allergies
@
169. (a) The inner layer of the posterior two-thirds and bronchial affliction in some people
of the eyeball consists of a light sensitive often lead to chronic respiratory disorders
At
layer, called retina that possesses two - asthma, bronchitis.

types of photoreceptors called the rods 179. (d) For gene transfer into the host cell without
and the cone cells. Retina reduces the using vector microparticles made of
ks
internal reflection so any damage to it tungsten and gold coated with foregin DNA
leads to greater internal reflection of light are bombarded into target cells at a very
oo
often causing an increase in light high velocity.

sensitivity. 180. (d) AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency
Eb
170. (c) In the contracted sarcomere, the A bands Syndrome) is caused by HIV retrovirus. The
do not change in length, but the I bands virus destroys the helper T lymphocytes
e
shorten and the H zone disappears. thus reducing their numbers.

171. (b) The insulating nature of the myelin helps
or
maintain the integrity of the signal and

M
speeds transmission along the axon.

EBD_7205
MT-230 NEET
Mock Test-6
ANS WER KEYS
1 (d) 21 (c) 41 (d) 61 (a) 81 (b) 101 (a) 121 (c) 141 (b) 161 (b)
2 (d) 22 (c) 42 (c) 62 (c) 82 (b) 102 (d) 122 (c) 142 (a) 162 (d)
3 (b) 23 (c) 43 (c) 63 (b) 83 (c) 103 (d) 123 (c) 143 (a) 163 (c)
4 (b) 24 (d) 44 (a) 64 (a) 84 (d) 104 (b) 124 (a) 144 (c) 164 (d)
5 (a) 25 (d) 45 (a) 65 (b) 85 (d) 105 (a) 125 (c) 145 (d) 165 (a)
6 (d) 26 (a) 46 (a) 66 (b) 86 (c) 106 (c) 126 (a) 146 (a) 166 (d)
s
ok
7 (b) 27 (a) 47 (b) 67 (d) 87 (d) 107 (a) 127 (d) 147 (c) 167 (d)
8 (c) 28 (b) 48 (d) 68 (a) 88 (a) 108 (c) 128 (b) 148 (d) 168 (c)
bo
9 (d) 29 (d) 49 (d) 69 (b) 89 (a) 109 (c) 129 (c) 149 (c) 169 (d)
10 (c) 30 (a) 50 (b) 70 (d) 90 (d) 110 (c) 130 (c) 150 (d) 170 (d)
_e
11 (b) 31 (a) 51 (c) 71 (a) 91 (b) 111 (b) 131 (c) 151 (b) 171 (a)
12 (c) 32 (c) 52 (d) 72 (b) 92 (a) Aj
112 (b) 132 (c) 152 (c) 172 (b)
13 (c) 33 (a) 53 (d) 73 (a) 93 (a) 113 (a) 133 (a) 153 (d) 173 (b)
@
14 (b) 34 (c) 54 (c) 74 (b) 94 (b) 114 (c) 134 (a) 154 (a) 174 (c)
At
15 (a) 35 (a) 55 (d) 75 (d) 95 (a) 115 (a) 135 (c) 155 (a) 175 (b)
16 (a) 36 (c) 56 (c) 76 (b) 96 (c) 116 (a) 136 (b) 156 (a) 176 (b)
ks
17 (d) 37 (d) 57 (b) 77 (a) 97 (d) 117 (d) 137 (b) 157 (b) 177 (d)
18 (c) 38 (a) 58 (d) 78 (a) 98 (b) 118 (c) 138 (d) 158 (d) 178 (c)
oo
19 (c) 39 (a) 59 (a) 79 (a) 99 (d) 119 (c) 139 (b) 159 (d) 179 (b)
Eb
20 (d) 40 (b) 60 (a) 80 (c) 100 (c) 120 (c) 140 (d) 160 (c) 180 (d)
e
Solutions
or
M
PHYSICS
1. (d) Let unit ‘u’ related with e, a0, h and c as a
2. (d) mg – T = ma,
follows.
[u] = [e]a [a0]b [h]c [C]d mg
Using dimensional method,
[M–1L–2T+4A+2] 2 1 g
given, T =
mg Þ mg = ma Þ a =
= [A1T1]a[L]b[ML2T–1]c[LT–1]d 3 3 3
[M–1L–2T+4A+2] = [Mc Lb+2c+d Ta–c–d Aa] 3. (b) Maximum capacity of currents in 40 W
a = 2, b = 1, c = – 1, d = – 1
40 2
= = = 1.82A
e 2 a0 220 11
\ u=
hc Maximum capacity of current in 100 W
100 5 GMm
= = = 0.454A Fg =
220 11 r2
Resistances of bulbs are (towards the earth)
220 ´ 220 220 ´ 220 (ii) normal reaction, N (away from the earth)
= 120W & = 484W Also, the object has a centripetal
40 100
acceleration a, given by
Now when they are joined in series with
400 volt. GM
a=
400 r2
Current = = 0.236 By Newton’s third law,
1210 + 484
As current 0.236 A is more than max. Fg – N = ma
s
capacity of 40 W bulb so, this bulb will
ok
fuse. GMm æ GM ö
Þ - N = mç 2 ÷
4. (b) Change in momentum = F × t r 2 è r ø
bo
= 10 × 10 = 100 Ns or 100 kg m/s
Þ N=0
I1 9 I1 A12 Therefore, the apparent weight of the object
_e
5. (a) = ; =
I 2 16 I2 A22 is zero.
7. (b) If the sheet is heated then both d1 and d2
Aj
[A1 & A2 are amplitudes of waves] will increase the expansion of isotropic
@
A1 9 3 solids is similar to true photographic
= = enlargement.
A2 16 4
At
8. (c) Touque ( t ) on the triangle = M × B

A1 + A 2 7 t = iAB (since M = iA)
=
ks
A 2 - A1 1 1 1 3
t = i l.l.sin 60 . B = l 2 . B
2 2 2
oo
2
Imax (A1 + A 2 )2 æ 7 ö 49
= =ç ÷ = 1
Imin (A 2 - A1 ) 2 è 1 ø 1
Eb
4t æ t ö2
l= = 2ç ÷
Imax : Imin = 49 :1 3Bi è 3Bi ø
e
9. (d) Since vrms is doubled by increasing the

Satellite
or
6. (d)
3KT
temp. so by vrms = , the temp.
M
Fg N m
Earth
r increase by four times.
V1 V2
Now for constant pressure =
T1 T2
V1=V, T1=TºK, T2=4TºK, V2= ?
V2 = 4V
The weightlessness in a satellite is due to 10. (c) Energy of simple harmonic motion µ a 2
the fact that the normal reaction on a body 11. (b) In intrinsic semi conductor, the number of
on its surface is zero. holes are equal to number of electrons i.e.,
The forces acting on an object in the satellite np = ne
are 12. (c) When a point mass is falling vertically in a
(i) gravitational attraction due to earth, viscous medium, the medium or viscous
EBD_7205
MT-232 NEET
fluid exerts drag force on the body to 21. (c) Electric lines of force due to a positive
oppose its motion and at one stage body charge is spherically symmetric.
falling with constant terminal velocity. All the charges are positive and equal in
13. (c) 1H2 + 1H2 ® 2He4 magnitude. So repulsion takes place. Due
Total binding energy of two deuterium to which no lines of force are present
nuclei = 1.1 × 4 = 4.4 MeV inside the equilateral triangle and the
Binding energy of a (2He4) nuclei = 4 × 7 = resulting lines of force obtained as
28 MeV shown:
Energy released in this process = 28 – 4.4 =
23.6 MeV
+q
1 2
14. (b) x= gt
s
2
ok
1 1 1 9.8 +q +q
= ´ 9.8 ´ ´ = m
2 2 2 8
bo
Dx
15. (a) Instantaneous velocity v =
_e
Dt
Dx A 4 m 22. (c) Gamma rays < X-rays < Ultra violet < Visible
From graph, vA = = = 0.5 m/s Aj
Dt A 8s rays < Infrared rays < Microwaves < Radio
Dx 8m waves.
@
and vB = B = = 0.5 m/s
Dt B 16s 1 mN 2
i.e., vA = vB = 0.5 m/s 23 . (c) Pressure, P = V rm s
At
3 V
16. (a) DQ = DE + DW = 100 + 300 = 400 J (mN )T
or, P =
17. (d) L a n2, where n is number of turn per unit
ks
V
length. If the gas mass and temperature are
oo
18. (c) Along the equatorial line, magnetic field constant then
strength P µ (Vrms)2 µ T
Eb
m M So, force µ (Vrms)2 µ T

B= 0 i.e., Value of q = 1
4p 2
( )
3/2
r + l2
e
24. (d) A
Given: M = 4JT–1
or
r = 200 cm = 2 m 60°
xW xW
M
6cm
l= = 3 cm = 3 × 10–2 m
2
D E
4p ´ 10-7 4 20 –xW 10 W 20 –x W
\B= ´
4p 3/2
ë
é 2
ê 2 + (
3 ´ 10 )û
-2 2 ù
ú
B C
1 1 1
Solving we get, B = 5 × 10–8 tesla For ADE = +
R ' 2x 10
l¢ D¢ 3 l 3 D lD
19. (c) b= = = 27 . 20x
d¢ d/3 d or R ' =
10 + 2x
No. of fringes = 1 / 3 = d . R BC =
20x
+ 20 - x + 20 - x
b 81l D … (i)
10 + 2x
20. (d) The minimum energy required for the emis- 20x
sion of electrons is called work function or + 40 = 2x
10 + 2x
Solving we get MP ' 4

x = 10 W Here =m=
MP 3
Putting the value of x = 10 W in equation (i)
MP ' 4 4
We get = Þ MP' = 24 ´ = 32 cm
24 3 3
20 ´ 10
R BC = + 20 - 10 + 20 - 10 above the surface of water.
10 + 2 ´ 10
80 u 2sin 2q
= = 26.7 W 30. (a) Horizontal range = so g µ u2
3 g
mgh g planet (u planet ) 2
25. (d) Power supplied = or =
t
g earth (u earth ) 2
mgh 100
´
s
Power used by crane = 2
t 80 æ3ö
ok
2
Therefore gplanet = ç ÷ (9.8 m / s )
1000 ´ 10 ´100 100 105 5
è ø
= ´ = W = 3.5 m/s2
bo
3600 80 36 ´ 8
31. (a) In S.I. units, we have B = m0 (H + I)
Fl
_e
26. (a) Dl = 32. (c) e = (5 ´10 -3 ) (1 / 0.1) = 0.05 V .
AY
33.
Aj (a)
6.28 ´ 104 ´ (1) 1 34. (c) The current in an ac circuit is said to be
= = wattless, if the power loss in the circuit is
@
2 11 1000
p(0.01) ´ 2 ´ 10
zero, i.e.,
27. (a) Sky appears blue because of scattering of P = VI cos q = 0
At
light when white light falls on the dust which gives

particle of air it is scattered back to the earth.
cos q = 0 Þ q = 90°
Since, blue light scatters most, it enters our
ks
eyes after scattering .So sky appears blue. T1

35. (a) T1 = m(g + a ) ; T2 = m(g – a) Þ T = 3 : 1
oo
28. (b) Obviously, difference of 11.1eV is not 2

possible. 36. (c) As no current flows through arm EB then
–0.58eV
Eb
VD = 0V
–0.85eV VE = 0V
–1.51eV 12.09eV
VB = –4V
e
n=2 VA = 5V
–3.4eV 10.2eV
or
–13.6eV n=1 So, potential difference between the points

A and D
M
29. (d) P' VA – VD = 5V

h
37. (d) For de-Broglie wavelength, l =
mv
P So, if mv is doubled, value of l will be
halved.
i 38. (a) Acceleration due to gravity changes with
the depth,
M æ dö
g¢ = g ç1 - ÷
è R ø
r
Pressure, P = rgh
x æ dö
Hence ratio, is ç1 - ÷
y è Rø
Fish inside water will see point P at P' as
explained in the figure
EBD_7205
MT-234 NEET
39. (a) Energy stored per unit volume, 44. (a) Angular momentum L = m (v × r)
1 æ dr ö
E= ´ stress ´ strain = 2 kg ç ´ r÷ = 2 kg(4t j ´ 5i - 2t 2 ˆj)
2 è dt ø
We know that, = 2 kg (–20 t k̂ ) = 2 kg × –20 ×2 m–2 s–1 k̂
stress stress = –80 k̂
Y= or strain =
strain Y 45. (a) The resonant frequency
1
1 stress 1 S2 fr =
E= ´ stress ´ = . 2p LC
2 Y 2 Y
1
T1 - T2 Þ 106 =
40. (b)
T1
is maximum in case (b). 2p 10 ´ 10-3 ´ C
s
ok
1
Ic ÞC=
41. (d) b = > 1 or Ic > Ib 4p ´10 ´10-3 ´1012
2
bo
Ib
= 2.5 × 10–12F = 2.5 pF
42. (c) Let q1 and q2 be charge on two spheres
_e
CHEMISTRY
of radius 'r' and 'R' respectively
As, q1 + q2 = Q Aj
46. (a) As we move down in groups 13, 14 and 15,
inertness of n s2 electrons of valence shell
and s1 = s2 [Surface charge density are
@
increases (inert pair effect). Thus in metals
equal] present at the bottom of the groups 13, 14,
and 15 lower oxidation state becomes more
At
q1 q2
\ 2
= important , viz. Pb (+2 state rather +4), Bi
r pr 4pR 2 (+3 state rather +5) and Ti (+1 rather than
ks
Qr 2 QR 2 +3).
So, q1 = and q2 = 47. (b) CsI3 dissociates as CsI3 ® Cs+ + I3–
R2 + r 2 R2 + r 2
oo
48. (d) The optically inactive compound must

1 é q1 q 2 ù
+ contains achiral carbon atom(s). Option (d)
Eb
Now, potential, V = ê ú
4 pe 0 ë r R û contains achiral carbon atom
e
1 é Qr QR ù
+ Cl Cl
pe 0 êë R 2 + r 2 R 2 + r 2 úû
= 4
or
| |
CH 3 - C - CHO CH3 - CH 2 - C - CH3
M
| |
Q( R + r )
1 H H
= 2 2 4pe 2- chloropropanol 2-chlorobutane (chiral)
R +r 0
43. (c) Given, Cl CH3

| |
Electric field E = 150 N/C CH3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - C - CH 3 CH3 - CH 2 - C - CH 3
| |
Total surface charge carried by earth q = ? H Cl
or, q = Î0 E A
2-chloropentane 2-chloro-2-methylbutane
= Î0 E p r2. (chiral) (achiral)
= 8.85 × 10–12 × 150 × (6.37 × 106)2. 49. (d) The sulphide ore is roasted to oxide before
; 680 KC reduction because the DGof of most of the
As electric field directed inward hence sulphides are greater than those of CS2 and
q = – 680 kC H2S, therefore neither C nor H can reduce
metal sulphide to metal. Further, the standard
free energies of formation of oxide are much
less than those of SO2. Hence oxidation of DG = DH - TDS

metal sulphides to metal oxide is
thermodynamically favourable. = -2.5 ´ 103 - 298 ´ 7.4 = – 4705.2 Cal.
50. (b) By Freundlich adsorption isotherm : DG = – ive; so process is spontaneous
æ xö n DG = 0, Equilibrium
çè m ÷ø = k(p)
DG = + ive; Non-spontaneous
æ xö 57. (b) BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO .
log ç ÷ = n log p + log k
è mø
Compare with y = mx + c The basic character of the oxides increases
\ slope = tan q = tan 45° = 1 down the group.
\ n = 1 and log k = 0.3010 = log 2 Among these BeO is amphoteric.
58. (d) 1 L of 1 M CuSO4 = 1 mol of Cu2+
æxö
log ç ÷ = log (0.2) + log 2
s
è mø Cu 2+ + 2e - ¾¾ ® Cu
ok
2 F of electricity will convert dil Cu2+ into
æxö
\ log ç ÷ = log 0.4 Cu, hence [CuSO4] = 0
è mø
bo
Thus, (d)
æxö 59. (a) (Na2O2 + HCl) is commercially known as
\ ç ÷ = 0.4
_e
è mø oxone and is used for bleaching of delicate
51. (c) H2SO4 is a strong acid hence pH < 7 , or fibres.
[H]+ > 10–7, the aqueous solution of NaCl
is neutral hence pH » 7 or [H+] » 10–7.
Aj
60. (a) Given Na2CO3 = 1.0 × 10–4 M
@
-
The aqueous solution of NaNO2 will be \ [ CO32 ] = 1.0 × 10–4 M
basic hence pH > 7 or [H+] < 10–7 i.e. s = 1.0 × 10–4 M
At
H2S is a weak acid. Therefore, the correct At equilibrium

order will be
-
ks
0.01 M NaNO2 < 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 MH2S [Ba2+] [ CO32 ] = Ksp of BaCO3
< 0.01 M H2SO4
oo
52. (d) Ksp 5.1 ´ 10-9

53. (d) C2H5I and C2H5OH form non-ideal solution. [Ba2+] = =
1.0 ´ 10-4
-
[CO32 ]
Eb
54. (c) Cu2+ forms complexes with the same

magnetic moment and geometry = 5.1 × 10–5 M
irrespective of the nature of ligand. It can
e
61. (a) On increasing temperature adsorption of a

be explained by electronic configuration.
or
gas on surface of solid decreases. Solid

3d
adsorb greater amount of substances at
M
2+
Cu lower temperature.
It has 9 electrons in 3d shell. Hence any 62. (c) The unusual properties of water in the
incoming ligand whether it is strong or condensed phase (liquid an solid states)
weak will result in the formation of same are due to the presence of extensive
geometry (if number of ligands is same) hydrogen bonding between the water
because any ligand can do nothing with molecules.
this unpaired e– in 3d shell. Moreover, the 63. (b) In Lassaigne's test, fusion with sodium take
complex formed will have same magnetic place and following species formed
moment due to this unpaired e–. respectively.
55. (d) sp 3 sp 2 sp 2 sp 3 sp 2 sp sp ® CN -
(a) Aniline ¾¾ ONa
CH3 CH = CH CH 2 - CH– C º CH
56. (c) DH = -2.5 ´ 103 cal (b) Benzene sulfonic acid ¾¾
®
DS = 7.4 cal
EBD_7205
MT-236 NEET
70. (d) Reaction (II) and reverse of reaction (I) gives

® S2 -
(c) Thiourea ¾¾ the desired reaction hence
Reaction of CN– with hot and acidic 1 K
solution of FeSO4 lead to formation of K = K2 ´ = 2 .
K1 K1
Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 which is blue in colour. It
contains iron in both II and III oxidation 71. (a) The correct order of increasing bond
state. length is
Reaction of S2– with sodium nitroprusside
CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I
Na2S + Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] ®
Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] 72. (b) C2H5 MgBr + H2C – CH2
(violet in colour) O
Phenoxide ion on reacting with FeCl3 give
s
ok
red colour with FeCl3.
H 2O
O OH C2H 5 CH2 – CH2 C2H 5 CH2CH2OH
bo
|| |
64. (a) HCN n-butanol
R– C –R ¢ ¾¾¾® R-– C —CN OMgBr
KCN |
_e
R ¢ (A) 73. (a) Standard electrode potential i.e. reduction
potential of A is minimum (–3.05V) i.e. its
OH
|
Aj oxidation potential is maximum which
Re duction by implies ‘A’ is maximum reactive chemically.
@
¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
¾® R – C – CH 2 NH 2
LiAlH 4 ( B) | 74. (b)
R¢ 75. (d) Benzyl chloride (C6H5 CH2 Cl) is more
At
65. (b) The species having minimum value of Ksp reactive than vinyl chloride (CH2 = CHCl)
will get precipitated first of all because ionic 76. (b) Since the gas expands adiabatically (i.e., no
ks
product will exceed the solubility product change in enthalpy) so the heat is totally
of such a species. converted into work.
oo
The Ksp value is minimum for BaSO4(10–11), For the gas, CV = 20 J/K. Thus, 20 J of heat
so, BaSO4 will get precipitated first of all. is required for 1° change in temperature of
Eb
66. (b) The ionic radii of trivalent lanthanides the gas.

decreases progressively with increase in Heat change involved during the process
atomic number. This decrease is known as i.e., work done = 3 kJ = 3000 J.
e
lanthanide contraction.
or
3000
67. (d) Number of atoms per unit cell = 1 Change in temperature = K = 150 K
20
M
Atoms touch each other along edges. Initial temperature = 300 K

a Since, the gas expands so the temperature
Hence r =
2 decreases and thus final temperature is
( r = radius of atom and a = edge length) 300 – 150 = 150
4 3 77. (a)
pr 78. (a) The acidity of acetylene or 1--alkynes can
p
Therefore % fraction = 3 = = 0.52 be explained on the basis of molecular
3 6
(2r)
orbital concept according to which
68. (a) Chloro diaquatriammine cobalt (III) chloride formation of C—H bond in acetylene
is [ CoCl ( NH 3 ) 3 ( H 2 O ) 2 ]Cl 2 involves sp-hybridised carbon atom. Now
69. (b) Organometallic compounds are those since s electrons are closer to the nucleus
compounds in which there is a bond which than p electrons, the electrons present in a
involve metal. In chlorophyll there is bond bond having more s character will be
involving metal Mg correspondingly more closer to the nucleus.
Thus owing to high s character of the 85. (d)

C—H bond in alkynes (s = 50%), the
electrons constituting this bond are more 86. (c) CH3Cl + AlCl3 ¾
¾® CH3+ + AlCl4–
strongly held by the carbon nucleus (i.e., Electrophile
the acetylenic carbon atom or the sp orbital 87 (d) Rate constant is independent of
acts as more electronegative species than concentration.
the sp 2 and sp 3 with the result the 88. (a) Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba. As the size increases, the
hydrogen present on such a carbon atom ionisation potential decreases.
(ºC—H) can be esily removed as a proton. 89. (a) Addition of monomers follows isoprene
rule
79. (a) DH ° = DH °f (products) - DH°f (reactants)
DH ° = D H°f (HS) + D H°f (H) - D H°f (H 2S)
CH3 CH3
C = CH2 C = CH2
s
x1 = x(?) + x 3 - x 2 CH3 CH3
ok
\ x = (x1 + x 2 - x 3 )
H T H T
bo
80. (c) Ksp = [Ag+] [Cl–]
1.8 × 10–10 = [Ag+] [0.1]
_e
[Ag+] = 1.8 × 10–9 M
Ksp = [Pb+2] [Cl–]2 Aj CH 3 CH 3
1.7 × 10–5 = [Pb+2] [0.1]2 | |
@
[Pb+2] = 1.7 × 10–3 M Å
+ C — CH - C — CH
2 2
81. (b) | |
At
82. (b) Electrons in Mg due to its small size are CH 3 CH 3

tightly bound so they cannot be excited
(d) At cathodes : Fe+ + 2e - ¾¾
ks
by the flame. 90. ® Fe;

83. (c) O– O F – Na + Fe3+ + 3e - ¾¾ ® Fe
oo
Electrons 9 8 10 10 At. wt. At. wt.

(EFe )1 = ; (E Fe ) 2 =
Eb
Nuclear charge 8 8 9 11 2 3
As greater the effective nuclear charge, more ( E Fe )1 3
is th e attraction of nucleus towards Hence, =
( E Fe ) 2 2
e
electrons hence higher will be the electron

or
affinity. Thus, Na+ has higher E.A. than F–

and other two. Similarly, F– has higher E.A BIOLOGY
M
than O– and O. Among O– and O, O– has

91. (b) There are several factors and processes
lower E.A. value than O due to its greater
which differentiate living beings with non-
size. As greater the atomic radius of the atom
less will be the attraction of the nucleus to living beings like reproduction, respiration,
electron added and hence, lower will be the growth, etc. But among them reproduction
value of E.A. Thus, the correct order of is the only difference which differentiate
electron affinity is without any exception living being with
O– < O < F– < Na+ non-living beings.
84. (d) DG = DH – TDS 92. (a) Rafflesia or Corpse flower is a total root
For a spontaneous reaction DG = –ve parasite. It obtains the total nourishment
which is possible when both DH and DS from the root of the host plant. Its flowers
are positive at high temperature and hence only come out of the host plant and they
the reaction becomes spontaneous. have a diameter of 1 m and weight around
10 kg.
EBD_7205
MT-238 NEET
93. (a) time in fossils.

94. (b) All four of these groups are protozoans. 103. (d) Silicosis is caused by exposure to dust
95. (a) Single cotyledon of embryo in cereal grain containing silica.
is represented by scutellum. Coleoptile 104. (b) Cloning is a technique by which genetically
represent the covering of stem. Coleorrhiza same individuals can be produced without
represents the covering of root. including any sexual reproduction e.g.
96. (c) Tylose is a balloon-like outgrowth of Dolly sheep.
paratracheal parenchyma into a pit in the 105. (a) Polyembryony refers to the formation of
wall of a vessel or tracheid and a xylem pa- more than one embryo within a seed of a
renchyma cell lying next to it. flowering plant. e.g. Citrus.
And this xylem parenchyma occurs at the 106. (c) Desert show maximum difference between
edge of annual ring around the vessels.
s
day and night temperature.
97. (d)
ok
107. (a) Population is an aggregation or grouping
98. (b) Mitosis is the process in which eukaryotic of individuals of the same species at the
bo
cell separates the chromosomes in its cell same time in a particular area. Species is a
nucleus, into two identical sets in two grouping of individuals of one or more
_e
daughter nuclei. It is generally followed populations resembling each other in
immediately by cytokinesis, which divides important morphological, anatomical and
the nuclei, cytoplasm, organelles and cell Aj biochemical characters and can potentially
membrane into two daughter cells interbreed. Biotic community is an
@
containing roughly equal shares of these assemblage of interdependent, and
cellular components. Mitosis and ecosystem is a self sufficient and self
At
cytokinesis together define the mitotic (M) regulating segment of nature comprising of
phase of the cell cycle - the division of the a biotic community and its physical
ks
mother cell into two daughter cells, environment, both in teracting and
genetically identical to each other and to exchanging materials. The basic level of
oo
their parent cell. ecological organisation starts with the

99. (d) In bivalent formation of chromosomes individual, the next more complex levels are
Eb
durin g meiosis, the homologous populations, species, community and then

chromosomes are arranged in pairs. The ecosystem.
e
phenomenon is called synapsis and it occurs 108. (c) The parenchymatous cells present be-
or
during zygotene stage. DNA replication tween vascular bundle dedifferentiate and
occurs during S phase or synthetic phase become meristematic and forms interfas-
M
which is the second phase of interphase. cicular cambium.

100. (c) A pinnate compound leaf is further sub- 109 (c)
divided into unipinnate, bipinnate, tripin- 110. (c) The water potential is the sum of the
nate and decomposed types on the basis osmotic potential (usually negative) and the
of further dissections and number of rachis. pressure potential (usually positive), so
In tripinnate compound leaf, the rachis is WP = –0.24 + 0.16 = –0.08 mPa.
represented by primary, secondary and ter- 111. (b) The mitochondrial inner membrane forms
tiary rachis. On the later leaflets are borne. infoldings known as cristae, which allow
101. (a) greater surface area for protein such as cy-
102. (d) Each pollen has two layered wall. The outer tochrome to function properly and effi-
layer is thick, tough, cuticularised called ciently.
exine which is composed of a material called 112. (b) The essential elements are divided into
“sporopollenin”. It is highly resistant to macroelements and microelements based
biological and physical decomposition, due on the quantity in which they are required
to which pollens are preserved for a long by the plants. Mn, Fe, Cu, Mo, Zn, B, and
Cl are the micronutrients needed in very may be actually bound to the substrate
small quantities by the plants. C, H, O, N, rather than the enzyme.
P, S, K, Ca, Mg, Fe are the macronutrients 123. (c) Competitive inhibition is the reversible
required in more quantity. inhibition of enzyme activity due to
113. (a) During sodium-potassium pump, the presence of substrate analogues. Non
concentration of sodium ions will be about competitive inhibition is the reduction of
14 times more in extra cellular fluid (outside) enzyme activity by a factor that has no
and concentration of potassium ions will real structural similarity with the substrate.
be about 28-30 times more in axoplasm Allosteric inhibition is reversible
(inside). Th us, 3Na + an d 2K + are noncompetitive inhibition occurring in
transported during the process. case of allosteric enzymes . Herein the
114. (c) inhibitors are the products or intermediates
s
of reactions catalyzed by the enzymes.
ok
115. (a) Translocation of a piece of long arm of
chromosome 22 Hence it is also called end product
bo
116. (a) Gibberllic acid stimulates cell growth of inhibition or feedback inhibition.
leaves and stem causing their expansion, 124. (a)
_e
elongation respectively and leaf fall is con- 125. (c)
trolled by ABA. 126. (a) Molybdenum deficiency results in chlorotic
117. (d)
Aj interveinal molting of lower leaves. It also
inhibits the flower formation, and whiptail
@
118. (c) The term “hot spots” was used by Benzer
for the sites which are more mutable than disease of cauliflower has also been
reported due to the deficiency of
At
other sites. Studies in 1978 revealed that 5-

methylcytosine residues occur at the molybdenum.
position of each hot spot. 127. (d) Lecithin is a fat like substance called a phos-
ks
119. (c) pholipid, which is a part of plasma mem-

oo
brane.
120. (c) Some plants growing in salty marshes
128. (b) In this technique nematode specific genes
develop special roots for respiration, called
Eb
pneumatophores. They are (–)vely are introduced in the host plant in such a
geotropic. way that it produces both sense and
antisense RNA. The two RNA’s being
e
121. (c) An RNA molecule whose base sequence is

complementary to each other form a double
or
complementary to that of the RNA

transcript of a gene, i.e. the sense RNA, stranded RNA (dsRNA) which is also called
M
such as a messenger RNA (m RNA). Hence, interfering RNA responsible for initiating
an antisense RNA can undergo base pairing RNA interference (RNA i). This (dsRNA)
with its complementary mRNA sequence. bind to and prevent translation of specific
This blocks gene expression, either by mRNA of nematode (gene silencing). Thus
preventing access for ribosome to translate transgenic plants based on RNAi
the mRNA or by triggering degradation of technology are resistant to nematode.
the double stranded RNA by ribonuclease 129. (c) Expression vectors may contain drug re-
enzymes. Antisense RNA and DNA both sistance markers, telomeres, and must con-
have therapeutic potential for modifying the tain DNA origins but none of these fea-
activity of disease causing genes. tures distinguish them from other vectors.
122. (c) Many enzymes requires a non-protein com- Expression vectors are unique because they
ponent for activity. These components are contain regulatory sequences that allow the
known as co-factors, which may be metal cloned gene to be expressed in the host
ions or organic in nature. The metal ions cell.
EBD_7205
MT-240 NEET
130. (c) A fed batch is a biotechnological batch recommended for those females who
process which is based on feeding of a cannot produce an ovum. In this process,
growth limiting nutrient substrate to culture. the eggs of the donor woman are removed
It is done for purifying enzymes. and in a form of mixture with sperm
131. (c) Gibberellins induces elongation of intern- transferred into fallopian tube of another
odes. woman who cannot produce ovum, but can
132. (c) provide suitable environment for
133. (a) RNA interference technique, sense & fertilization. Thus in GIFT, site of fertilization
antisense RNA fused to form dsRNA that is fallopian tube, not laboratory.
silent th e expr ession of m- RNA of 147. (c)
nematode. RNA interference is a novel 148. (d) All living organisms possess the capacity
strategy adopted to prevent infestation of to produce offsprings of their type.
s
nematode Meloidegyne incognitia in roots 149. (c)
ok
of tobacco plants. 150. (d) By forming blood vessels of placenta.
bo
134. (a) 151. (b)
135. (c) 152. (c)
_e
136. (b) While working at the Rockefeller Institute, 153. (d)
Brown reported isolation of a PPLO from 154. (a) Fat is mainly digested by pancreatic lipase
human arthritic joint tissue in 1938.
Aj while protein is digested by enzymes in
In discussing the significance of this pancreatic juice, intestinal juice and
@
observation, Brown reported successful stomach.
treatment of arthritic patients in 1949 with a 155. (a) Oxyntic cells or Parietal cells, are the
At
new antibiotic called aureomycin. stomach epithelium cells that secrete

137. (b) gastric acid intrinsic factor. These cells
ks
138. (d) Sebaceous glands are holocrine glands secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) which
because they secrete by discharging entire makes the gastric juice acidic (pH = 2.0-3.0).
oo
cells full of product (sebum). Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans

139. (b) secretes glucagon hormone which increase
Eb
140. (d) the glucose level in th e blood by

141. (b) converting glycogen to glucose in liver
e
142. (a) Norepinephrine increases heart rate and cells. Kupffer's cells are specialized cells
or
strength of cardiac contraction, leading to in the liver that destroy bacteria, foreign
increased cardiac output. It also increases proteins, and worn-out blood cells.
M
the rate of glucose release by the liver, Sebaceous glands and microscopic glands
causing increased blood-sugar level. in the skin that secrete an oily/waxy matter
Acetylcholine decreases cardiac output. (called sebum) to lubricate the skin and
Insulin decreases blood sugar and has no hair of mammals.
effect on cardiac output. ADH has no effect 156. (a) 70% to 75% CO2 is transported as primary
on blood sugar or cardiac output either. buffer of the blood. Bicarbonate ion
143. (a) When water is not available, the camels (HCO3 ) in blood plasma. When CO2
produce dry faeces and concentrated urine. diffuses from tissues into blood then it is
One of the best sources of metabolic water acted upon by the enzyme carbonic
in camels is oxidation of food in the hump. anhydrase.
144. (c) 157. (b) ‘Bundle of His’ are a typical cardiac muscle
145. (d) fibres, connecting the atria with ventricle.
146. (a) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is 158. (d) The Bowman’s capsule does not have cell
with microvilli and there should be filtra-
tion slits formed by podocytes. The col- morphine. Morphine is the most abundant
lecting ducts and glomerulus also do not alkaloid found in opium, the dried sap (latex)
have cells with microvilli and foldings of derived from shallowly slicing the unripe
the basement membrane to form basal chan- seedpods of the opium, or common and/or
nels. However, all these features are present edible, poppy Papaver somniferum.
in the proximal tubule. Morphine is a potent opiate analgesic drug
159. (d) A barr body is one of the X-chromosomes that is used to relieve severe pain.
in somatic cells of females. If there are more 167. (d) Electroencephalogram is the recording of
X-chromosomes, then there will be more electric potentials originating from different
barr bodies. parts of the brain in the form of waves.
160. (c) Genetic drift is also known as Sewall Wright Fractionation is the technique of rupturing
effect. It refers to the random changes in cells and separating their components
s
gene frequencies in a population by chance, especially cell organelles for studying their
ok
either due to intensive inbreeding or death chemistry and functions. Electrophoresis
of a small section of population by natural is the technique of separation of charged
bo
calamity. Its effect is more marked in small solutes on the basis of their differential
isolated population. migration in an applied electric field.
_e
161. (b) Gause’s hypothesis states that two different 168. (c) Fine motor control is accomplished by the
competing species cannot coexist together Aj presence of smaller, more numerous motor
for a long in the same niche, one has to get units. Each motor unit requires an individual
@
eliminated by the other competing species, motor neuron.
if they do coexist, then they do so as a result 169. (d)
At
of niche differentiation, i.e. differentiation 170. (d)

of then realized niches. 171. (a) Glucagon is secreted by d-cells of the is-
ks
162. (d) Karl Von Frisch, carried out many lets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It in-
experiments and determined that when a creases the concentration of glucose in the
oo
foraging bee returns to the hive, it performs blood by stimulating the breakdown of gly-
a waggle dance. Honey is predominantly cogen.
Eb
glucose and fructose. Dorsata is a bigger 172. (b) Parathyroid gland secretes parathormone
bee than Apis indica (a medium sized bee). which regulates Ca2+ level in blood. Ante-
Bees wax is secreted by special wax glands rior lobe of pituitary secretes the following
e
to make compartments. hormones growth hormone, ACTH, TSH,

or
163. (c) Baldness is a sex influenced trait. The FSH, LH. Posterior pituitary secretes vaso-
M
dominance of alleles may differ in pressin and oxytocin.

heterozygotes of the two sexes. The intermediate lobe (pars intermedium)
164. (d) Biometric genetics is the mathematical or of the pitutary gland secretes MSH which
statistical study of genetic phenomenon. causes dispersal of pigment granules in the
In this branch, data of various genetic traits pigment cells which give colour to the skin.
are analysed by applying the principles of 173. (b) Cyclosporine (Cyclosporin A) is a
statistics. It helps in the investigation of biologically active metabolite obtained from
various genetic principles and checks their Tolypocladium infatum and certain other
correctness and probability. fungi. It has shown to prolong graft survival
165. (a) Nectar, pollen and cane sugar are ingested in kidney, liver, heart and heartlung
by bee, mixed with saliva and collected in transplants.
the honey sac or crop until honey is 174. (c)
regurgitated into hive cell. 175. (b) Vinegar is a dilute impure acetic acid made
166. (d) Molecule (A) represents structure of from beer, weak wine, etc.
EBD_7205
MT-242 NEET
176. (b) Both rely on complementary base pairing. weakened germs. The first tetanus toxoid
177. (d) The surface of most vertebrates cells (inactivated toxin) was produced in 1924
possess glycoprotein produced by a and was used successfully to prevent
group of genes called the Major tetanus in the armed services during World
Histocompatibility Complex (BHC). These War II. In the mid-1940s, tetanus vaccine
glycoproteins are called MHC proteins or, was combined with diphtheria toxoid and
specifically in humans, human leucocyte inactivated pertussis vaccine to make the
antigens (HLA). Antigens are present on combination DTP vaccine for routine
MHC proteins. Cells of the body have MHC childhood immunization.
proteins on their surfaces that identify them 179. (b)
as “self” cells. Immune system cells do not
180. (d) In the graph, the line A represents regula-
attack these cells. Foreign cells or microbes
tor, line B represents conformer and line C
s
have antigens on their surfaces. B cells are
represents partial regulator. Organism that
ok
able to bind directly to free antigens in the
are able to maintain homeostasis by physi-
body and initiate an attack on a foreign
bo
ological means that ensures constant body
invader. T-cells can bind to antigens only
temperature are called regulators. Organ-
after the antigens are processed and
_e
ism that are not able to maintain a constant
complexed with MHC proteins on the
internal temperature are called conformers.
surface of an antigen-presenting cell. Aj
178. (c) Tetanus toxoid is a vaccine consisting of Partial regulators are organisms that have
the ability to regulate, but only over a lim-
@
growth products of Clostridium tetani
treated with formaldehyde serving as an ited range of environmental conditions, be-
active immunising agent. Hence it is yond which they simply conform.
At
ks
oo
Eb
e
or
M
Mock Test-7
ANSWER KEYS
1 (a) 21 (a) 41 (c) 61 (c) 81 (c) 101 (a) 121 (a) 141 (b) 161 (a)
2 (c) 22 (a) 42 (b) 62 (d) 82 (c) 102 (b) 122 (a) 142 (a) 162 (b)
3 (c) 23 (a) 43 (c) 63 (c) 83 (c) 103 (c) 123 (d) 143 (a) 163 (d)
4 (a) 24 (a) 44 (a) 64 (b) 84 (d) 104 (b) 124 (c) 144 (c) 164 (b)
5 (b) 25 (b) 45 (a) 65 (c) 85 (c) 105 (c) 125 (d) 145 (b) 165 (b)
6 (d) 26 (a) 46 (b) 66 (c) 86 (c) 106 (b) 126 (a) 146 (b) 166 (c)
7 (c) 27 (d) 47 (b) 67 (d) 87 (b) 107 (d) 127 (d) 147 (d) 167 (b)
s
(c) 88 (c) 108
ok
8 (d) 28 (d) 48 (b) 68 (c) 128 (d) 148 (d) 168 (d)
9 (c) 29 (a) 49 (a) 69 (b) 89 (a) 109 (b) 129 (b) 149 (a) 169 (b)
bo
10 (b) 30 (a) 50 (a) 70 (d) 90 (d) 110 (c) 130 (a) 150 (b) 170 (d)
11 (c) 31 (c) 51 (b) 71 (c) 91 (d) 111 (d) 131 (d) 151 (a) 171 (d)
_e
12 (a) 32 (c) 52 (a) 72 (c) 92 (c) 112 (d) 132 (b) 152 (b) 172 (d)
13 (c) 33 (c) 53 (d) 73 (a) 93 (b) 113
Aj (d) 133 (b) 153 (a) 173 (a)
14 (a) 34 (c) 54 (b) 74 (d) 94 (d) 114 (c) 134 (c) 154 (b) 174 (d)
@
15 (c) 35 (d) 55 (c) 75 (b) 95 (a) 115 (d) 135 (d) 155 (c) 175 (d)
16 (d) 36 (d) 56 (a) 76 (b) 96 (d) 116 (b) 136 (d) 156 (c) 176 (c)
At
17 (c) 37 (a) 57 (d) 77 (c) 97 (d) 117 (c) 137 (c) 157 (a) 177 (d)
18 (b) 38 (a) 58 (d) 78 (d) 98 (d) 118 (a) 138 (a) 158 (d) 178 (d)
ks
19 (a) 39 (d) 59 (a) 79 (a) 99 (a) 119 (b) 139 (c) 159 (b) 179 (c)
20 (a) 40 (a) 60 (c) 80 (c) 100 (d) 120 (c) 140 (b) 160 (a) 180 (b)
oo
Solutions
Eb
e
3. (c) In the first case tuning fork and string are

or
PHYSICS
in resonance so they have same frequency.
1. (a) Reading of the scale
M
= Apparent wt. of the mass = m(g + a) 1 T 1 T

So, 392 = = .
= 80 (10 + 5) = 1200 N 2l m 2×50 m
2GM p 1 T
For the second case, n =
(ve ) p Rp Mp 2×50×0.98 m
Re
2. (c) = = ´ = n 100 100
(ve )e 2GM e Me Rp = ; n = 392 ´ = 400
392 98 98
Re
Beats heard per sec = diff.of frequencies
= 400 – 392 = 8.
10M e Re 4. (a) Let a ray of light enter at A and the refracted
= ´ = 10
Me R e /10 beam is AB. This is incident at an angle q.
For no refraction at the lateral face, q > C
or, sin q > sin C But q + r =90°
\ (ve ) p = 10 ´ (ve )e = 10 ´ 11 = 110 km / s Þ q= (90° – r)
EBD_7205
MT-244 NEET
6. (d) A transformer cannot step up a d.c. input

B
so output potential here will be zero. No
q potential will be induced in the secondary
A
coil.
r
7. (c) The condition for an achromatic doublet is
i
w1 w 2
+ =0
f1 f2
\ sin (90° – r) > sin C This gives the combination of two lenses
or cos r > sin C ...(1) which will be free from chromatic aberration.
sin i sin i 8. (d) In magnetic dipole
From Snell’s law, n = Þ sin r = 1
sin r n Force µ
r4
s
æ sin 2 i ö In the given question,
ok
\ cos r = 1 - sin 2 r = ç1 - 2 ÷ Force µ x– n
è n ø Hence, n = 4
bo
\ equation (1) gives
Df
9. (c) As e = or Ri = Df (Q e = Ri )
_e
sin 2 i sin 2 i 2 Dt Dt
1– > sin C Þ 1 – > sin C
n2 n2 Þ Df = R(i.Dt)
Also, sin C =
1
Aj = R × area under i – t graph
1
@
n = 10 × × 4 × 0.1 = 2 weber
2
sin i 1 sin 2 i 1 2
\1 – 2 > 2 or 1 > 2 + 2
At
n n n n hc
10. (b) W0 = or W0 µ 1 ;
1 l0 l0
or (sin 2 i + 1) < 1 or n2 > (sin 2 i + 1)
ks
n2 W1 l 2 600
Maximum value of sin i = 1 Þ = = =2
oo
W2 l1 300
\ n2 > 2 Þ n > 2
11. (c) Given, 1H2 + 1H2 ® 2H4 + Q
Eb
m0 nI The total binding energy of the deutrons

5. (b) For loop B = = 4 × 1.15 = 4.60 MeV
2a
The total binding energy of alpha particle
e
where, a is the radius of loop. = 4 × 7.1 = 28.4 MeV

or
m0 I The energy released in the process

Then, B1 = = 28.4 – 4.60 = 23.8 MeV.
M
2a
m 0 I 2nA î ˆj kˆ
Now, for coil B = . r
4p x 3 12. (a) v = 1 -2 2
at the centre x = radius of loop 0 4 -3
2
m 2 ´ 3 ´ ( I / 3) ´ p ( a / 3 ) r
B2 = 0 . v = î[6 - 8] + ˆj[0 + 3] + k̂[4 - 0]
4p ( a / 3)3 uur
r
v = -2î + 3ˆj + 4k̂ Þ | v |= 29 units .
m0 .3I 13. (c) Let ‘t’ be the time taken by the bullet to hit
= the target.
2a
\ 700 m = 630 ms–1 t
B1 m I / 2a
\ = 0 700m 10
B2 m0 .3I / 2a Þ t= = sec
-1 9
630ms
B1 : B2 = 1: 3 For vertical motion,
Here, u = 0 –12 C +12 C

1 2
\ h = gt
2 6V 4V
2
1 æ 10 ö
= ´ 10 ´ ç ÷ 4V 6V
2 è 9ø
500 –12 C +12 C
= m = 6.1 m
81 Charge of 5mc flows from b to a
Therefore, the rifle must be aimed 6.1 m 20. (a) An electric dipole placed in a non-uniform
above the centre of the target to hit the
electric field experiences a torque and a net
target.
force. In a uniform field it experiences only
s
14. (a) Work done = increase in surface area torque.
ok
× surface tension
lD
= 2 × 4p × (.2)2 × .06 (a) As b = and lb < l y ,
bo
21.
= 4 p × 4 × 10–2 × 6 × 10–2 J d
= 192 p × 10–4 J [ Soap bubble has \ Fringe width b will decrease
_e
two surfaces] Ic 0.01
22. (a) α< Þ Ib < < 10 –5
1 Aj Ia 1≥10 3
15. (c) n=
2
@
Ic
or 50 < Þ Ic < 50≥10 –5 = 500 × 10–6
1 10–5
w = 2pn = 2p´ = p radian/sec
Ic = 500 mA
At
2
Centripetal acceleration = w2 r
23. (a) e=
- df -d 2
= (
6t - 5t + 1 = -12t + 5)
ks
2 dt dt
= p ´ p ´ 100 = 986 cm / sec
e = – 12 (0.25) + 5 = 2 volt
oo
16. (d) C P = 7 R; CV = C P - R = 7 R - R = 5 R i=
e 2
= = 0.2A.
Eb
2 2 2 R 10
CP 7 / 2 R 7 24. (a) Let v1 and v2 be the velocities of the body
= = just before the collision & and after the
CV 5 / 2 R 5
e
17. (c) Field between two parallel sheet collision.

or
s 26.4 ´ 10 -12 v12 = 2gh = 2 ´ 10 ´ 10 ; v1 = 2 ´ 10

M
= = =3 N/C
Î0 8.85 ´ 10 -12 v22 = 2gh 1 = 2 ´ 10 ´ 2.5 ; v 2 = 2 ´5
18. (b) According to the law of equipartition of
energy, the gas possesses equal energies v1 10 2 2
\ = =
in all the three direction x, y and z-axis. v2 5 2 1
19. (a) when switch is closed
25. (b) Power = F.v. = m.a.v
–10 C 15 C = ma.at [v = u + at, v = at (u = 0)]
= ma2t
As a and m are constant hence, Power a t
26. (a) mL + m(100 - 80)
5V 5V
= 1.1´ 1´ (80 – 15) + 0.02 ´ (80 - 15)
m ´ 540 + 20 m = 71.5 + 1.30
–15 C +10 C
560 m = 72.80 \ m = 0.130
When switch is open
EBD_7205
MT-246 NEET
27. (d) Given P = aV 33. (c) Centre of mass

æxö1
(r x) çç ÷÷÷ ∗ r y y / 2
mV
çè 2 ø 2
Work done, w =
ò PdV
x cm <
x
2 r (x ∗ y)
V
mV 1 y y2
aV 2 Þ ∗ <
= ò aVdV =
2
(m 2 - 1) . 2 x x2
V A
28. (d) Copper is a metal whereas Germanium is
Semi-conductor.
x
Resistance of metal decreases and
s
semiconductor increases with decrease in
ok
temperature.
29. (a) From the figure, it is clear that loss of y C
B (0,0)
bo
height = AB = OB – OA
= l - l cos q = l(1 - cos q) BC y 1 ∗ 3
[ < < < 1.37
_e
O AB x 2
q
Aj
34. (c)
1 æ 1
=Rç
1ö
- ÷ where R = Rydberg
l è n12 n22 ø
@
constant
At
A 1 æ 1 1ö 5
=ç - ÷=
l32 è 4 9 ø 36
ks
B 36
Now, loss of P.E. = mgh = mgl (1 - cos q) Þ l 32 =
5
oo
1 Similarly solving for l31 and l21

Gain of K.E. = mv2
Eb
2 9 4
l 31 = and l 21 =
1 8 3
mv2 = mgl (1 - cos q) l32 l
e
2 \ = 6.4 and 21 = 1.2

l31 l31
or
30. (a) As the ring has no resistance, the three

resistances of 3R each are in parallel. 35. (d) Given, q = 45°, r = 0.4 m, g = 10 m/s2
M
mv 2
1 1 1 1 1 T sin q = ...... (i)
Þ = + + = Þ R¢ = R r
R ¢ 3R 3R 3R R T cos q = mg ...... (ii) T q
\ between point A and B equivalent From equation (i) & (ii)
resistance = R+ R = 2R we have,
31. (c) The time taken to reach the ground depends v2
on the height from which the projectile is tan q =
rg
fired horizontally. Here height is same for v2 = rg Q q = 45°
both the bullets and hence they will reach Hence, speed of the pendulum in its circular
the ground simultaneously. path,
32. (c) To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter v = rg = 0.4 ´ 10 = 2 m/s
we connect a high resistance in series with
36. (d) The formula can be written as
the galvanometer.
The same procedure needs to be done if velocity of light in vacuum
ammeter is to be used as a voltmeter. =1
velocity of light in medium
This formula is dimensionally correct as

both the sides are dimensionless. é mr 2 + I ù
Now, w 2 ê ú = mgh
Numerically, this ratio is equal to refractive êë 2 úû
index which is > 1. Hence, the equation is
numerically incorrect. 1/ 2
é 2mgh ù
w=ê ú
37. (a) a sin q = nl ë I + mr 2 û
ax 44. (a) There is rise in temperature so, mechanical
= 3l energy is converted into heat energy.
f
45. (a) Erms = 220 V
(since q is very small so
sin q » tan q » q= x / f ) E0
\ Erms = Þ E0 = 2 Erms
-3 -3 2
s
a x 0.3 ´10 ´ 5 ´10
or l = = Average e.m.f over half cycle
ok
3f 3 ´1
2
= E 0 = 0.637 × 1.41 × 220 = 198.15 V
bo
-7 p
= 5 ´ 10 m = 5000 Å.
38. (a) In an isochoric process volume remains
_e
CHEMISTRY
constant whereas pressure remains
constant in isobaric process. 46.
Aj (b) The sequence of filling electrons in sixth
39. (d) Thermal capacity = ms = 40 × 0.2 = 8 cal/°C period :
@
= 4.2 × 8 = 33.6 joules/°C 6s – 4f – 5d – 6p i.e., (ns) ® (n – 2) f ®
40. (a) Equipotential surface is always (n – 1)d ® np
perpendicular to the direction of electric 47. (b) Two Na+ ions are replaced by one Sr 2+ion
At
field. As the field is along x-direction, to maintain electrical neutrality.

equipotential surface must be parallel to Hence, number of vacancies
ks
yz-plane. = Number of Sr 2+ ions doped

41. (c) Radio waves are low frequency electro-
oo
magnetic waves. So, their wavelength will = 1.0 ´ 10 -3 ´ 6.02 ´ 10 23 = 6.02 ´ 10 20

be comparatively large. 48. (b) Here, R = 31.6 ohm
Eb
42. (b) Given, radius of hemispherical glass 1 1

R = 10 cm \ C= = ohm -1 = 0.0316 ohm–1
R 31.6
Specific conductance = conductance × cell
e
10
\ Focal length f = = –5 cm constant
or
2
= 0.0316 ohm–1 × 0.367 cm–1
u = (10 – 6) = –4 cm.
M
By using mirror formula, = 0.0116 ohm–1 cm–1

Now, molar concentration = 0.5 M
1 1 1 1 1 1 (given)
∗ < Þ ∗ < Þ v = 20 cm.
v u f v ,4 ,5 = 0.5 × 10–3 mole cm–3
Apparent height, K 0.0116
\ Molar conductance = =
m1 1 C 0.5 ´ 10-3
ha < h r < 30≥ < 20 cm below = 23.2 S cm2 mol–1
m2 1.5
49. (a)
flat surface.
43. (c) Loss of potential energy = mgh (a) V = 3d 3 4s 2 ; V2+ = 3d 3 = 3 unpaired electrons
Cr = 3d 5 4s1 ; Cr 2+ = 3d 4 = 4 unpaired electrons
1 2 1 Mn = 3d 5 4s2 ; Mn2+ = 3d 5 = 5 unpaired electrons
Gain of kinetic energy = Iw + mv 2
2 2 Fe = 3d 6 4s 2 ; Fe2+ = 3d 6 = 4 unpaired electrons
1 2 1 é mr 2 + I ù Hence the correct order of paramagnetic behaviour
= Iw + mw 2 r 2 = w 2 ê ú V2+ < Cr 2+ = Fe2+ < Mn2+
2 2 êë 2 úû
EBD_7205
MT-248 NEET
(b) For the same oxidation state, the ionic radii 54. (b) Sn 4+ + 2e - ¾¾
® Sn 2 + E ° = 0.13 V
generally decreases as the atomic number
increases in a particular transition series. Hence Br2 + 2e - ¾¾ ® 2Br - E° = 1.08 V
the order is E° values shows Br2 has higher reduction
Mn2+ > Fe2+ > Co2+ > Ni2+ potential.
(c) In solution, the stability of the compound de- Hence Ecell = ER – EL
pends upon electrode potentials, SEP of the tran- = E -E
sitions metal ions are given as Br2 / Br - Sn +4 / Sn +2
Co3+ / Co = + 1.97, Fe3+ / Fe = + 0.77 ; = 1.08 – 0.13 = 0.95 V
Cr3+ / Cr 2+ = – 0.41, Sc 3+ is highly stable as it Now -D G = nFE cell
does not show + 2 O. S. n = 2, F = 96500.
(d) Sc – (+ 2), (+ 3)
-DG = 2 ´ 96500 ´ 0.95 kJ/mol
s
Ti – (+ 2), (+ 3), (+ 4)
Also, DG = -2.303RT log K eq
ok
Cr – (+ 1), (+ 2), (+ 3), (+ 4), (+ 5), (+ 6)
Mn – (+ 2), (+ 3), (+ 4), (+ 5), (+ 6), (+ 7) DG
log K eq = -
bo
i.e. Sc < Ti < Cr = Mn 2.303 ´ R ´ T
50. (a) Assume that each has lost a proton . So we
_e
get : HO–, HS–, HSe–, HTe– - (-2 ´ 96500 ´ 0.95)
= = 32.6820
It can be easily seen that the volume 2.303 ´ 8.314 ´ 293
available for the negative charge is
increasing from HO– to HTe–, therefore
Aj Keq = antilog 32.682
= 4.78 × 1032 » 1032
@
(i) volume available for the negative charge
is increasing from left to right 55. (c) [H + ] in HCl solution (pH = 2) = 10 -2 M ;
At
(ii) charge density is decreasing from left

to right [OH - ] in KOH solution (pOH = 14 – 12
(iii) basicity is decreasing from left to right
= 2) = 10 -2 M
ks
(iv) acidity of conjugate acids is increasing

from left to right Excess m Mol of OH - in 5 ml mixture
oo
H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te

51. (b) Steric congestion around the carbon atom = 3 ´ 10 -2 - 2 ´ 10 -2 = 1.0 ´ 10 -2 ;
Eb
undergoing the inversion process will slow

1.0 ´10 -2
down the S N 2 reaction, h ence less [OH - ] in mixture =
congestion faster will the reaction. So, the 5
e
order is
= 2 ´ 10 -3 M;
or
CH3Cl > CH3CH2 – Cl > (CH3)2CH – Cl >

pOH = - log 2 ´10 -3 = 3 – log 2;
M
(CH3)3CCl
52. (a) (a) : 4n + 2 = 2, n = 0 (integer) pH = 14 – (3 – log 2) = 11.30
+ 56. (a) A reducing agent is a substance which can

loose electron and hence a reducing agent
(b) : 4n + 2 = 4, n = 0.5 should have low ionisation energy. Now
since ionisation energy decreases from Li
+ to Cs, the reducing property should increase
in the opposite manner. The only exception
(c) : 4n + 2 = 4, n = 0.5 to this is lithium. This is because the net
process of converting an atom to an ion
takes place in 3 steps.
(d) : 4n + 2 = 4, n = 0.5 (i) M(s) ® M(g) DH = Sublimation
– energy
Only (a) obeys Huckel’s rule. (ii) M(g) ® M+(g) + e– DH = Ionisation
53. (d) energy
(iii) M + (g)+H 2 O ® M + (aq) DH = OH OH

64. (b) OH
Hydration energy O anomeric O
The large amount of energy liberated in OH carbon OH
hydration of Li (because of its small size) anomeric
makes the overall DH negative. This HO OH HO carbon
accounts for the higher oxidation potential OH OH
a-D-glucose b-D-glucose
of lithium i.e., its high reducing power.
anomers
57. (d) Number of unpaired electrons in Cr, Mn 2+
and Fe3+ are 6, 5 and 5 respectively. 65. (c) With Lithium in liquid ammonia, trans-
alkene is almost an exclusive product.
58. (d) Polymer Use
Polystyrene Manufacture of toys Li in liq. NH
Ph – C º C – Ph ¾¾¾¾¾¾
3
®
Glyptal Paints and lacquers. Birch reduction
s
P.V.C. Rain Coats
ok
Ph H
Bakelite Computer discs
C=C
bo
59. (a) CHO H Ph
1
NO2 66. (c) An optically active compound contains a
_e
6
2 chiral carbon atom.
5 3
4 Aj CH3 H H H H
OCH3 | | | | |
(a) H3C - C - CHO (b) H - C - C - C - C = O
@
4-Methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde | | | |
[Q the order of preference of substituent H H H H
At
groups is – CHO > – NO2 > – OCH3] (no chiral carbon atom) (no chiral carbon atom)
60. (b)
ks
61. (c) Total V.P., H H H H H Br H

| | | | | | |
P = PAº X A + PBº X B = PAº X A + PBº ( 1 - X A )
oo
(c) H - C - C - *C - C - H (d) H - C - C - C - C = O
| | | P | | |
= (PAº - PBº )X A + PBº H H Br O H H Br
Eb
Thus, PBº = 114 torr ; PAº - PBº = 52 (contains chiral carbon atom) (no chiral carbon atom)
67. (d) CH3 - CH - CH 2 - CH - CH 2 - CH3
e
or PAº = 166 torr | |

or
Br Br
1 1
Hence P = 166 ´ + 114 ´ = 140 torr
M
KOH, CH OH D
2 2 ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
3 ®
E2
62. (d) If rate = k[A]x [B]y [C]z
CH 3 - CH = CH - CH = CH 2 - CH 3
From first two given data (Saytzeff product)
8.08 × 10–3 = k [0.2]x [0.1]y [0.02]z .... (1) 68. (c) Greater the difference of electronegativities,
2.01 × 10–3 = k [0.1]x [0.2]y [0.02]z .... (2) more polar is the bond.
Divide (1) by (2) we get, 4 = 2x (1/2)y 69. (b) The molecular geometry of BrF5 is square
Similarly, from second and third data pyramidal with asymmetric charge
distribution on the central atom.
(9) y (9)z = 3
2y + 2z = 1 . F F
From first and fourth data 4z = 8 = 23 Br
2z = 3. So z = 3/2, y = – 1, x = 1
F F
63. (b) F
EBD_7205
MT-250 NEET
70. (d) For a first order reaction, we have 75. (b) SO 2Cl 2(g ) SO 2(g ) + Cl 2(g)
2.303 N D-d
k= log 0 a% = ´ 100
t N
d ( y - 1)
(y = 2)
2.303 0.1
\ k= log
40 min 0.005
molar mass of SO2 Cl 2 135
D= = = 67.5;
2.303 2.303 2 2
= ´ log 20 = ´ 1.3010 d = 50.0 (given)
40 min 40
Now rate = k × [reactant] 67.5 - 50.0
a% = ´100 = 35%
When [x] = 0.01 M 50.0(2 - 1)
s
ok
2.303 76. (b) 2AgCl(s) + H 2(g) ® 2HCl(aq) + 2Ag(s)
\ rate = × 1.3010 × 0.01 M min–1
40
bo
The activities of solids and liquids are taken
= 7.5 × 10–4 M min–1.
as unity and at low concentrations, the
_e
71. (c) Correct Nernst equation is activity of a solute is approximated to its
2.303 RT molarity.
E = Eo + log a M n + . Aj The cell reaction will be
nF
@
72. (c) Cis – [Ni(H2O) 4(NH 3) 2] 2+ and facial Pt (s) | H 2(g) ,1bar | H + (aq) 1M | AgCl(aq) 1M | Ag(s)
[Ni(H2O)3(NH3)3]+2 have optical isomers.
77. (c) Phosphorous acid contain P in +3 oxidation
At
state.
[Ni(H2O) 4(NH3) 2]+2 [Ni(H2O)3(NH3)3]
+2
Acid Formula Oxidation state

ks
OH2 NH3 OH2 NH3

H3N OH2 H2O NH3 H3N OH2 H3N OH2 of Phosphorous
oo
Ni Ni Ni Ni Pyrophosphorous acid H4P2O5 +3

OH2 H2O NH3 H3N OH2 H N
H3N NH3
Pyrophosphoric acid H4P2O7 +5
Eb
3
OH2 NH3 NH3 OH2
Cis Trans Facial Meridional Orthophosphorous acid H3PO3 +3
Hypophosphoric acid H4P2O6 +4
e
73. (a) This is isocyanide test

or
NH2 3d
M
78. (d) [Co F6 ]3- :

+ CHCl3 + 3KOH ¾¾
®
Chloroform
.. .. 4p.. .. .. ..
4s 4d
Aniline
sp3 d 2 (Paramagnetic)
N®
=C [Ni Cl 4 ]2-:
.. .. .. ..
+ 3KCl + 3H2O sp 3(paramagnetic)
[CuCl 4 ]2-:
Phenyl isocyanide
(Offensive smell) .
.
.. .. ..
74. (a) dsp2 (paramagnetic)
[Ni(CN)4]2– :
. 89. (a) Al2(SO4 )3 is a salt of weak base and a

.
(diamagnetic) .. .. .. dsp2 :
strong acid hence on hydrolysis it will
produce Al(OH)3 and H2SO4. Since H2SO4
79. (a) Aldehydes, other than formaldehyde, is a strong acid and Al(OH)3 is is a weak
when treated with RMgX give 2º alcohols. base hence the solution will be acidic due
80. (c) Mass of methanol in 1 mol solution to SO4– –.
= 0.5 × 32 = 16 g 90. (d) It is the correct answer.
Mass of water in solution = 0.5 × 18 = 9 g
BIOLOGY
16 ´ 100
% by mass of methanol = = 64
16 + 9 91. (d) Algae and fungi are grouped under
thallophyta. Bryophytes are non vascular
1 embryophytes having an independent
81. (c) Number of A atoms per unit cell = ´8 =1
8 gametophyte and parasitic sporophyte.
s
(An atom at corner is shared by 8 unit cells)
ok
92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (d)
1 95. (a) 1 is primitive because floral leaves (K, C,
Number of B atoms per unit cell = ´ 6 = 3
bo
2 A and G) are spirally arranged but in 2
(An atom at the face centre is shared by they are arranged in cyclic manner.
_e
2 unit cells)
96. (d)
Hence, formula is : AB3
82. (c) Smelting is the process of reduction using 97.
Aj (d) Pollen tube develops from vegetative or
carbon as reducing agent. tube cell of microspore.
@
83. (c) 98. (d) 99. (a)
84. (d) [Co ( NH 3 )5 Br ]SO 4 gives white precipitate 100. (d) The mitochondrion is the powerhouse of
At
the cell. Here the bulk of the reactions that

of BaSO 4 with BaCl2(aq) whereas
manufacture ATP take place.
[Co ( NH 3 )5 SO 4 ] Br gives yellow precipitate 101. (a) Processing occurs after initiation of
ks
(AgBr) with Ag NO3(aq). transcription. Intron removal allows the

O exons (the coding regions) be joined
oo
|| together. Ribosome recognition does not

85. (c) Nylon has - C - NH – group linkage
lead to DNA synthesis.
Eb
Br2 102. (b) 103. (c) 104. (b)

86. (c) HO SO3H ¾¾¾ ® 105. (c) 106. (b) 107. (d) 108. (c)
H2 O
e
109. (a) In many thin leaved mesophytes the

Br
or
stomata open during the day time and close

at night. This comes under alfalfa type.
M
HO SO3H 110. (c)

111. (d) The blood contains several buffering
Br systems.
– OH group is highly activating. This is a 112. (d) 113. (d) 114. (c) 115. (d)
type of electrophillic substitution reaction 116. (b)
at ortho and para position. 117. (c) Only fertilised ovules form seeds, rest are
87. (b) SO3 has trigonal planar geometry (sp2 destroyed
hybridisation of S) which is symmetrical.
118. (a) Unisexuality of flowers prevents autogamy,
88. (c) Number of hybrid orbitals of P in PO 34- = but not geitonogamy. In self fertilisation ,
½ [5 + 0 + 3] = 4 (sp3) the male and female gametes are derived
No. of hybrid orbitals of N in NO–3 from the same individual. Among plants,
= ½ [5 + 0 + 1] = 3 (sp2) self fertilization also called autogamy is
No. of hybrid orbitals of S in SO4– – common in many cultivated species, eg.,
1 wheat and oats. However, self fertilization
= [6 + 0 + 2 – 0] = 4 (sp3) is a form of inbreeding and does not allow
2
EBD_7205
MT-252 NEET
for the mixing of genetic material; if it occurs will increase.

over a number of generations it will result 131. (d) Rhododendron are found in plenty at
in offspring being less vigorous and approximately 12,000–16,000 feet height on
productive than those resulting from cross both, Eastern and Western Himalayas.
fertilization. 132. (b) The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the
119. (b) Speciation takes place via reproductive oceans is that of free floating microalgae,
isolation which is the most important cyanobacteria and nanoplankton.
consequence of geographical isolation. 133. (b)
120. (c) The survivorship curves typically have three 134. (c) PCR is a technique for enzymatically
types. Type I, Type II and Type III. Type I replicating DNA without using a living
is focused on humans.The human mortality organism such as E. coli or yeast. It is
rate is increased dramatically after age 50. commonly used in medical and biological
121. (a) Three crops that contribute maximum to research labs for a variety of tasks like
s
global food grain production are Wheat, detection of hereditary diseases,
ok
rice and maize, which belong to the family identification of genetic fingerprints etc.
Poaceae (Graminae). The correct steps shown in the above figure
bo
122. (a) Farmers have reported over 50% higher are:
yields of rice by using the biofertilizer A – Denaturation at a temperature of about 94°
_e
Azolla pinnata. to 98°C. During the denaturation, the double
123. (d) ‘Himgiri’ developed by hybridisation and Aj strand melts open to single stranded DNA,
selection for disease resistance against rust and all enzymatic reactions stop.
@
pathogens is a variety of wheat. It is B – Annealing (binding of DNA primer to the
resistant to leaf/stripe rust and hill bunt. separated strands. Occurs at 50° to
124. (c) 125. (d) 65°Celsius, which is lower than the optimal
At
126. (a) The genetically modified brinjal in India has temperature of the DNA polymerases)
been developed for insect resistance. Bt C – Extension or elongation of the strands
ks
brinjal is a transgenic brinjal that is using the DNA primer with heat-stable DNA
developed by inserting a crystal gene from polymerases, most frequently Taq (Thermus
oo
the Bacillus thuringiensis into the brinjal’s aquaticus) at 72ºC.

genome. This process of insertion is 135. (d) 136. (d)
Eb
accomplished using Agrobacterium 137. (c) The problem encountered by freshwater

mediated recombination. fish is water gain.
127. (d) The declining population of the iiwi 138. (a) 139. (c)
e
(Vestiaria coccinea), a Hawaiian 140. (b) Semi-circular canal is found in the internal
or
honeycreeper, threatens the Lobelia plant, ear. Inguinal canal connects scrotum with
M
which has no other pollinator. the abdominal cavity in the male mammal.
128. (d) The correct acronym is IUCN, International Bidder’s canal is found in the male frog.
Union for Conservation of Nature and 141. (b)
Natural resources. 142. (a) Rigor mortis occurs to skeletal and cardiac
129. (b) Photochemical smog is made by the muscles shortly after death.
deposition of dust & carbon particles on 143. (a) 144. (c) 145. (b) 146. (b)
the pollutant gases and water vapours. The 147. (d) 148. (d) 149. (a) 150. (b)
gases found in photochemical smog are 151. (a)
NO2, PAN, O3 etc. 152. (b) Insulin serves to inrease the rate of glu-
130. (a) By dumping of huge amount of sewage, cose uptake by increasing the number of
the oxygen levels are depleted, which are glucose transporters in the plasma mem-
reflected in terms of BOD values of water. brane (1), increasing the activities of liver
The number of microbes also increases enzymes that synthesize glycogen (2), and
tremendously and these also consume most of enzymes in adipose cells that synthesize
of the oxygen. Thus BOD of the river water triacylglycerols.
153. (a) 154. (b) production of a specific enzyme. It is these

155. (c) Hapten is a low-molecular-weight molecule enzymes that catalyze the reactions that
that can be made immunogenic by lead to the phenotype of the organism.
conjugation to suitable carrier. 172. (d) The first effect of any signal molecule must
156. (c) 157. (a) 158. (d) 159. (b) involve the binding of the molecule to a
160. (a) 161. (a) 162. (b) 163. (d) receptor.
164. (b)
173. (a) 174. (d)
165. (b) In oogamy male and female gametes are
175. (d) Escherichia coli is a bacterium found in
morphologically as well as physiologically
different. Female gametes are large and non- human colon. Upon this bacterium,
motile. Male gametes are small but motile. scientists have performed extensive genetic
166. (c) Cochlear duct is a bony spiral tunnel within experiments to make some vital chemicals
the cochlea of internal ear, filled with like insulin. Another bacterium is
s
endolymph. Agrobacterium tumefaciens which causes
ok
167. (b) 168. (d) crown gall in plants is extensively used for
169. (b) In grasshopper the males lack a Y-sex genetic experiments.
bo
chromosome and have only an X- 176. (c)
chromosome. They produce sperm cells that
_e
177. (d) The statements (i) and (ii) are correct.
contain either an X chromosome or no sex Statement (iii) is incorr ect because
chromosome, which is designated as O. Aj predators cannot lead to the extinction of
170. (d) Linkage is the inheritance of genes of same
prey species. Predator and prey evolve
@
chromosome together and capacity of these
genes to retain their parental combination together. Statement (iv) is incorrect because
in subsequent generation. The strength of chemicals such as nicotine and strychnine
At
linkage between two genes is inversely produced by the plants are not metabolic
proportional to the distance between the disorders but are metabolic wastes.
ks
two. This means, two linked genes show 178. (d)

higher frequency of recombination if the 179. (c) In HPLC only a few minutes are required
oo
distance between them is higher and lower for separation, whereas other procedures
frequency if the distance is smaller. require a few hours
Eb
171. (d) It was given by Geneticists George W. 180. (b)

Beadle and E. L. Tatum which states that
each gene in an organism controls the
e
or
M
EBD_7205
MT-254 NEET
Mock Test-8
ANSWER KEYS
1 (c) 21 (a) 41 (a) 61 (a) 81 (d) 101 (c) 121 (c) 141 (d) 161 (d)
2 (b) 22 (d) 42 (c) 62 (b) 82 (c) 102 (d) 122 (d) 142 (b) 162 (c)
3 (a) 23 (b) 43 (c) 63 (c) 83 (c) 103 (b) 123 (a) 143 (a) 163 (a)
4 (c) 24 (d) 44 (c) 64 (c) 84 (d) 104 (d) 124 (d) 144 (b) 164 (a)
5 (d) 25 (c) 45 (c) 65 (b) 85 (b) 105 (a) 125 (c) 145 (d) 165 (a)
6 (d) 26 (b) 46 (b) 66 (b) 86 (d) 106 (b) 126 (b) 146 (d) 166 (c)
7 (c) 27 (b) 47 (c) 67 (a) 87 (b) 107 (c) 127 (d) 147 (d) 167 (c)
s
8 (c) 28 (a) 48 (a) 68 (d) 88 (c) 108 (a) 128 (b) 148 (d) 168 (c)
ok
9 (b) 29 (b) 49 (a) 69 (d) 89 (b) 109 (d) 129 (b) 149 (a) 169 (a)
50 (a) 70 (c) 90 (b) 110 (b) 130 (c) 150 (c) 170 (a)
bo
10 (b) 30 (c)
11 (a) 31 (b) 51 (a) 71 (b) 91 (d) 111 (b) 131 (d) 151 (c) 171 (b)
_e
12 (b) 32 (a) 52 (c) 72 (c) 92 (a) 112 (a) 132 (d) 152 (a) 172 (a)
13 (b) 33 (b) 53 (d) 73 (c) 93 (d) 113 (b) 133 (a) 153 (a) 173 (a)
14 (c) 34 (b) 54 (c) 74 (d) 94 (a) 114Aj (d) 134 (d) 154 (c) 174 (d)
15 (b) 35 (d) 55 (a) 75 (a) 95 (a) 115 (a) 135 (a) 155 (b) 175 (a)
@
16 (c) 36 (c) 56 (c) 76 (a) 96 (d) 116 (d) 136 (a) 156 (a) 176 (d)
17 (c) 37 (a) 57 (c) 77 (d) 97 (c) 117 (c) 137 (a) 157 (b) 177 (a)
At
18 (b) 38 (b) 58 (b) 78 (c) 98 (b) 118 (d) 138 (d) 158 (a) 178 (d)
19 (d) 39 (b) 59 (c) 79 (b) 99 (d) 119 (a) 139 (d) 159 (b) 179 (d)
ks
20 (d) 40 (a) 60 (c) 80 (b) 100 (a) 120 (a) 140 (a) 160 (c) 180 (b)
oo
Eb
Solutions
e
or
PHYSICS
M
11.2
or, x= = 0.41 cm
2 ´ 13.6
1. (c) mercury
water 2. (b) Rate of cooling µ temperature difference
x between system and surrounding.
2x x As the temperature difference is halved,
B A so the rate of cooling will also be halved
So time taken will be doubled
t = 2 ×5 sec = 10 sec
At point A and B pressure will be same. So
pressure at A = P + h1r1g 3. (a) ì xü
y = 2 sin p í200 t - ý
pressure at B = P + h 2r2g î 15 þ
P + h1r1g = P + h2r2g
ì xp ü
or, 11.2 × 1 × g = 2x × 13.6 × g = 2 sin í200pt - ý
î 15 þ
Comparing it with the equation of a wave, x

y = a sin(wt - kx) I
1 2
p v
w = 200 p ;k = x–
a
15 2
w 200p ´ 15 a
v= = = 3000 cm / sec a
k p x+
2
4. (c) r = E / I = 1.5 / 3 = 0.5 ohm. Emf induced in square frame
5. (d) e = B1Vl – B2Vl
6. (d) The equivalent circuit is as shown in figure. m0 I m0 I
The resistance of arm AOD (= R + R) is in = lv – lv
s
2p (x – a / 2) 2p (x + a/ 2)
parallel to the resistance R of arm AD.
ok
1
or, e µ
(2x – a)(2 x + a)
bo
8. (c) Microwave region wavelength = 10 -3 m to
_e
1m
9. (b)
10.
Aj
(b) ve = 2 gR
@
The escape velocity is independent of the
angle at which the body is projected.
At
11. (a) From question,

Mass of body, m = 5 kg
Their effective resistance Velocity at t = 0,
ks
2R ´ R 2 u = (6iˆ - 2 ˆj) m/s

oo
R1 = = R
2R ´ R 3 Velocity at t = 10s,
Eb
The resistance of arms AB, BC and CD is v = + 6 ĵ m/s

2 8 Force, F = ?
R2 = R + R + R = R
e
3 3 v -u
Acceleration, a =
or
The resistance R1 and R2 are in parallel. t

The effective resistance between A and D
M
6 j - (6i - 2 j ) -3iˆ + 4 ˆj
ˆ ˆ ˆ
is = = m/s2
10 5
2 8 Force, F = ma
R´ R
R1 ´ R 2 3 3 = 8 R.
R3 = = ( -3iˆ + 4 ˆj )
R1 + R 2 2 8
R+ R
15 = 5´ = ( -3iˆ + 4 ˆj ) N
5
3 3
12. (b) When sound travels from one medium to
7. (c) Emf induced in side 1 of frame e1 = B1Vl another its speed changes due to change
mo I in wavelength. Its frequency remains
B1 =
2p (x – a/ 2) constant.
13. (b) Under isothermal conditions, there is no
Emf induced in side 2 of frame e2 = B2 Vl
change in internal energy.
moI 14. (c) Electric field
B2 =
2p (x + a/ 2) df
E=- = – 2ar ....(i)
dr
EBD_7205
MT-256 NEET
By Gauss's theorem 18. (b) As R µ V2/P or R µ 1/P, so resistance of

1 q heater is less than that of fan.
E= ....(ii) 19. (d) The current that will given full scale
4pe 0 r 2
deflection in the absence of the shunt is
From (i) and (ii), nearly equal to the current through the
Q = –8 pe0ar3 galvanometer when shunt is connected
Þdq = – 24pe0ar2 dr i.e. I g
dq
Charge density, r = = – 6e0a IS
4pr 2dr As Ig =
G+S
p2
15. (b) E= 5.5 ´ 1
2m = = 0.045 ampere.
120 + 1
s
2 2
ok
20. (d) Since p = nhn
or, E1 = p1 , E2 = p2
2m1 2m2 p 2 ´ 10 -3
bo
Þn= =
hn 6.6 ´ 10 -34 ´ 6 ´ 1014
p12 p2
_e
or, m1 = , m2 = 2 = 5 ´ 1015
2 E1 2 E2
m1
Aj
21. (a) I1 = 30 A I = 10 A I2 = 20 A
m1 > m2 Þ >1
@
m2
3 cm
At
p12 E2 E2
\ >1 Þ >1 [Q p1 = p2 ] 5 cm
E1P22 E1
ks
or, E2 > E1
P Q R
oo
16. (c) In a cyclic process, the initial state coincides

with the final state. Hence, the change in
Also given; length of wire Q
Eb
internal energy is zero, as it depends only

on the initial and final states. But Q & W are = 25 cm = 0.25 m
non-zero during a cycle process. Force on wire Q due to wire R
e
17. (c) 2 ´ 20 ´ 10
or
FQR = 10–7 ´ ´ 0.25

0.05
M
= 20 × 10–5 N (Towards left)

R
Force on wire Q due to wire P
2 ´ 30 ´ 10
FQP = 10–7 × ´ 0.25
0.03
= 50 × 10–5 N (Towards right)
Moment of inertia of a disc about a diameter Hence, Fnet = FQP – FQR
1 1 1 = 50 × 10–5 N – 20 × 10–5 N
= ´ MR 2 = MR 2
2 2 4 = 3 × 10–4 N towards right
1
22. (d) F = Y A a t = (2.0 × 1011) (10–6) (1.1 × 10–5)
[ I x + I y = I z = MR 2 ] (20) = 44 newton
2
Applying theorem of parallel axis. B
23. (b) B = m0 mr H Þ m r µ = slope of B-H
1 5 H
I z = MR 2 + MR 2 = MR 2 curve
4 4
According to the given graph, slope of the

graph is highest at point Q. v2 30 ´ 30 9
= =
r 500 5
1 2 æ1 ö 2 Tangential acceleration (at) = 2 m/ sec2
24. (d) P = r v2 = ´ ç r v 2 ÷ = E
3 3 è2 ø 3
Total acceleration = at 2 + ar 2
25. (c) Magnifying power of telescope,
b (angle subtended by image at eye piece) 81 81 181
MP = = 22 + = 4+ = = 2.7 m / sec 2
a (angle subtended by object on objective) 25 25 25
f o 150 31. (b) vr = vR 2 – vB2 = 102 - 82 = 6 km h –1

Also, MP = = = 30
fe 5 32. (a) Charge on an electron
s
50 1 = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 coulomb
ok
a= = rad
1000 20
20 ´ 10 -6
bo
\ b = q = MP × a No. of electrons required =
1.6 ´ 10 -19
1 3
= 30 ´ = = 1.5 rad
_e
20
20 2 = ´1013 = 1.25 ´ 1014
1. 6
or,
180°
b = 1.5 ´; 84°
Aj
33. (b) Total kinetic energy of a rolling ball
p K.E. = linear K.E. + rotational K.E.
@
26. (b) According to question
K.E. = 1 mv 2 + 1 Iw2
E y µ J x BZ
At
2 2
\ Constant of proportionality 1 1 2 v2
mv 2 + ´ mr 2 .
ks
=
Ey C m3 2 2 5 r2
K= = =
oo
BZ J x J x As æ 5+ 2ö 2 7 2
= ç ÷ mv = 10 mv
è 10 ø
Eb
E I
[As = C (speed of light) and J = ] Fraction of total energy associated with
B Area
1
e
27. (b) Distance along a line i.e., displacement (s) mv 2

or
rotational kinetic energy = 5

= t3 (Q s µ t 3 given) 7
mv 2
M
By double differentiation of displacement, 10

we get acceleration.
1 10 2
3 = ´ =
ds dt 5 7 7
V= = = 3t 2 and
dt dt 34. (b) Initial speed at point A, u = v0
2 Speed at point B, v = ?
dv d 3t
a= = = 6t v2 – u2 = 2gh
dt dt v2 = v20 + 2gh
a = 6t or a µ t Let ball travels distance ‘S’ before coming
Hence graph (b) is correct. to rest
28. (a) Vector has both magnitude and direction
v2 v 2 + 2 gh
so, statement (a) is wrong. S= = 0
29. (b) Effective acceleration of a body = [a – g]. 2mg 2mg
30. (c) Radial acceleration
v02 2 gh h v2
= centripetal acceleration = + = + 0
2mg 2mg m 2mg
EBD_7205
MT-258 NEET
35. (d) For diffraction pattern to be observed, the 41. (a) The range of wavelengths of the lines of
dimension of slit should be comparable to Lyman series varies from 912 A° to 1216 A°.
the wavelength of light. 42. (c) Truth table is as shown :
36. (c) By law of lepton numbers, mass number
and atomic number is to be conserved on A B A B A+B A+B
both sides.
0 0 1 1 1 0
37. (a) When the ray enters a glass slab from air,
its frequency remains unchanged. 0 1 1 0 1 0
Since glass slab in an optically denser 1 0 0 1 1 0
medium, the velocity of light decreases and 1 1 0 0 0 1
therefore we can conclude that the
wavelength decreases. Thus the combination of two NOT gates
s
(Q n = nl) and one NOR gate is equivalent to a AND
ok
38. (b) The flux for both the charges exactly cancels gate.
the effect of each other. 43. (c) P.E. = 2T.E.
bo
Þ P.E. = 2E0
3iˆ + + bjˆ + 2kˆ
æ3 6 2 ö
39. (b) Â = = ç î + ˆj + kˆ ÷ . If a, In case of circular motion of satellite around
_e
9 + 36 + 4 è 7 7 7 ø the earth / planets revolving around sun/
Aj electrons revolving in circular orbit P.E. = 2
b and g are angles made by A with
T.E. and |K.E.| = |T.E.|].
coordinate axes, then
@
cos a =
3 6 2
, cos b = and cos g = . mv2 e2 æ 1 b ö
44. (c) As F = = ç + ÷
7 7 7
At
r 4p Î0 è r 2 r 3 ø
1 1
40. (a) As = w2 = or w = nh nh
ks
LC LC and mvr = Þv=

2p 2 pmr
Maximum energy stored in capacitor =
oo
2
1 Q02 e2 æ 1 b ö
\ m æç
nh ö 1
´ = ç + ÷
Eb
÷
2 C è 2pmr ø r 4p Î0 è r 2 r3 ø
Let at any instant t, the energy be stored
mn 2 h 2 4p Î0
e
equally between electric and magnetic 1 b

or, + =
or
field. Then energy stored in electric field

r2 r3 4p 2 m 2 e 2 r 3
at instant t is
M
1 Q 2 1 é 1 Q0 ù
2 a n2 1 b
= ê ú or, 0 = +
2 C 2 êë 2 C ûú r3 r 2 r3
Q02 Q0 æ Î h2 ö
or Q2 = or Q = çQa 0 = 0 Given ÷
2 ç mpe 2 ÷
2 è ø
Q0 For nth atom
Þ Q0 coswt =
2 \ rn = a0n2 – b
p p p
or wt = or t = = l
4 4w 4 ´ (1/ LC ) 45. (c) Dx =
(2a )
p LC
=
4
51. (a) nH2N-CH2 -COOH+nH2N-(CH2 )5 -COOH ¾¾

®
CHEMISTRY
O O
46. (b) Given || ||
mass of solute (w) = 120 g NH - (CH 2 )5 - C- NH - CH 2 - C
n
mass of solvent (w) = 1000 g Nylon-2-Nylon-6
Mol. mass of solute = 60 g biodegradable step-growth copolymer
density of solution = 1.12 g/ mL
52. (c) N2 + O2 ® 2NO
From the given data,
O.N. of N changes from 0 to +2 (oxidation)
Mass of solution = 1000 + 120 = 1120 g
and O.N. of O changes from O to –2
Mol. mass Mol. mass (reduction).
Q d= or V =
V d 53. (d) For a reaction to be at equilibrium DG = 0.
s
1120 Since
ok
Volume of solution V = = 1000 mL or
1.12 DG = DH – TDS so at equilibrium
DH – TDS = 0
bo
= 1 litre
or DH = TDS
W For the reaction
_e
Now molarity (M) =
Mol. mass ´ V ( lit.) 1 3
Aj X 2 + Y2 ¾¾ ® XY3 ;
2 2
120
= = 2M DH = –30kJ (given)
@
60 ´ 1
Calculating DS for the above reaction, we
47. (c) To calculate average enthalpy of C – H get
At
bond in methane following informations are

DS = 50 - êé ´ 60 + ´ 40úù JK -1
needed 1 3
ë2 û
ks
(i) dissociation energy of H2 i.e. 2

1 =50 – (30 + 60) JK = – 40 JK–1
–1
H ( g ) ¾¾ ® H( g ); DH = x ( suppose )
oo
2 2 At equilibrium,
(ii) Sublimation energy of C(graphite) to C(g) TDS = DH
Eb
C( graphite) ¾¾® C( g ); DH = y (Suppose)

\ T ´ (–40) = –30 ´ 1000 [Q 1kJ = 1000J]
Given
e
® CH 4 ( g ); DH = 75 kJ mol -1
C( graphite ) + 2H 2 ( g ) ¾¾ –30 ´ 1000
or T = or 750 K
or
–40
48. (a) Ag + + e - ¾
¾® Ag
M
1F 108 g 1 0.47
54. (c) k= ´ Cell constant = = 0.01487
1 F = 1 mole of electrons = 96500 C R 31.6
0.01F = 1.08 g Ag; Ag left = 1.08 – 1.08 = 0 55. (a) IE1 is always less than IE2.
Cl
49. (a) |
KMnO4 MnO2 Mn 2+ Mn(OH)3 MnO42– 56. (c) 2Cl - C - CH3 + 6Ag
|
O.S of Mn +7 +4 +2 +3 +6 Cl
electrons 0 3 5 4 1 1, 1, 1-trichloroethane
needed
¾¾
® CH3C º CCH3 + 6AgCl
50. (a) All are examples of electrophilic addition 2 - butyne
reactions and involve the formation of 57. (c)
stable carbocation leading to the formation
1% HgSO CH MgX
of addition product according to HC º CH ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾
4 ® CH CHO ¾¾ ¾
3
3 ¾
¾®
Markovnikov’s rule 20% H 2SO 4 [A ] H 2O
EBD_7205
MT-260 NEET
[O] At T < 1200K, carbon will reduce MO(s) to

CH 3 CHOHCH 3 ¾¾®
¾ CH 3 COCH 3
[B] Acetone [ C ]
M(s) hence, chemical reaction
MO(s) ∗ C(s) ¾ ¾ ↑ M(s) ∗ CO(g) is
P1V1 P2 V2 spontaneous.
58. (b) Apply =
T1 T2
Salt Salt
59. (c) The pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl is always less 65. (b) 6 = - log10-5 + log = 5 + log
than 7. Since the solution is of acid. It can Acid Acid
be shown as Salt
log must be 1.
[H+] = 10–7 from H2O and 10–8 from HCl Acid
[H+] = 10–8 (10 + 1)
Salt 10
[H+] = 10–8 × 11 \ = or 10 :1 .
–log [H+] = 8 log 10 – log 11 Acid 1
s
pH = 8 – log 11 66. (b) For 10°C rise of temperature the rate is
ok
pH = 6.93. almost doubled.
60. (c) Let the rate law equation be 67. (a) In BCl3 there is sp2 hybridisation (planar)
bo
r = k[A]x[B]y ................(1) in NCl3 hybridisation is sp3 hence shape is
when A = 2A, pyramidal
_e
4r = k[2A]x[B]y .................(2) O
6 5 4 3 2 || 1
4r k[2A]x [B]y Aj
68. (d) C H 3 C H 2 C H = C H C C H 3
Divide(2) by (1) =
r k[A]x [B]y (hex 3-ene-5-one)
@
\ 4 = (2)x, Hence x = 2 69. (d) Negative reaction with 2, 4- dinitrophenyl-
when B -= 2B, hydrazine indicates absence of aldehydic
At
r = k[A]x [2B]y ..................(3) (option a ) and ketonic (option c) group,

\ 1 = Devide (3) by (1) while negative reaction with metallic
ks
r k[A]x [2B]y sodium indicates absence of an alcoholic

= (2)y \ y = 0 group (option b), hence the organic
oo
r k[A]x [B]y compound, C 3 H6O is CH2 = CHOCH3

\ Rate = k[A]2[B]0 (option d).
Eb
61. (a) F and O belong to 2nd period whereas Cl 70. (c) SiF4 and CO2 have zero dipole moment due
and Br belong to 3rd and 4th periods to symmetrical tetrahedral and linear
e
respectively. Hence the sequence of the structures, NO2 and O3 both have V-shape
or
E.N. is and certain value for dipole moment.

F > O > Cl > Br 71. (b) Number of unit cells
M
62. (b)
Total number of molecules
63. (c) The compounds containing active H-atoms =
(H atoms attached to N, O or S) react with Rank of Unit Cell (Z)
CH3COCl to form acetyl derivatives.
64. (c) \Number of atoms = 12.08 ´ 1023 ´ 2
M® MO = 24.16 ´ 10 23 (for bcc z = 2)
72. (c) Oxidation potential of M is more than Ni
and less than Mn. Hence reducing power
– ln KP Mn > M > Ni
C® CO
20 73. (c) H 2O2 h as oxidizing an d reducin g
properties both.
74. (d) Pyridine and thiourea form volatile cupric
cyanide and also give bluish green flame
0 1200 like volatile cupric halides.
T(K)
75. (a) Starch is a mixture of amylose & 83. (c) CaCO 3 ¾¾

D
® CaO + CO 2 ;
amylopectin polysaccharides and monomer
CaO + H 2 O ® Ca(OH) 2
is glucose. Thus on complete hydrolysis it (B)
gives only glucose. Ca (OH ) 2 + CO 2 ® Ca CO 3 + H 2 O
A
1 84. (d) d5 –––– strong ligand field
76. (a) m rms µ at STP
m
77. (d) t2g eg
78. (c) Molar mass of CHCl3 = 119.5 g/mole.
Molar mass of CH2Cl2 = 85 g/mole. m = n n + 2 = 3 = 1.73BM
11.95 d3–– in weak as well as in strong field
Moles of CHCl3 = = 0.1 mole.
s
119.5
ok
8.5 t 2g eg
Moles of CH2Cl2 = = 0.1 mole.
bo
85
m = 3(5) = 15 = 3.87 B.M.
0.1 d4– in weak ligend field
Mole fraction of CHCl3 = = 0.5 mole.
_e
0.2
0.1 Aj
Mole fraction of CH2Cl2 = = 0.5 mole. t 2g eg
0.2
@
(Given - m = 4(6) = 24 = 4.89
Vapour pressure of CHCl3 = 200 mm d4– in strong ligand field
At
Hg = 0.263 atm.
Vapour pressure of CH2Cl2 = 415 mm
Hg = 0.546 atm.) t 2g eg
ks
(1 atm = 760 mm Hg)

m = 2(4) = 8 = 2.82
oo
\ P(above solution)
= Mole fraction of CHCl3 × (Vapour pressure 85. (b) Species N2 O2 N 2– O –2
Eb
of CHCl3) Bond order 3 2 2.5 1.5

+ Mole fraction of CH2Cl2 × (Vapour
The O-O bond is O –2 decreases
pressure of CH2Cl2)
e
= 0.5 × 0.263 + 0.5 × 0.546 = 0.4045 86. (d) Hybridisation in Si(CH3)4 (½ [4 + 4 + 0 – 0]

or
Mole fraction of CHCl3 in vapour form = 4) is sp3 which is tetrahedral.

M
87. (b) A+ B C + D
0.1315
= = 0.325. Initial 0.9 0.9 0 0
0.4045
At eqm. 0.3 0.3 0.6 0.6
79. (b) Cyanide process is for gold (I-D); floatation
process - pine oil (II-B); Electrolytic 0.6 ´ 0.6
Kc = =4
reduction - Al (III-C); Zone refining -Ge (IV- 0.3 ´ 0.3
A). 88. (c)
80. (b) Only structure (b) has a conjugated system, Cl – Cl –
which is necessary for resonance. Cl – Cl
81. (d) Radius of nth Bohr orbit in H-atom
= 0.53 n2Å Cs+
Radius of II Bohr orbit = 0.53 × (2)2
= 2.12 Å Cl
Cl –
82. (c) Liquid - liquid system is known as emulsion. Cl –
Cl –
EBD_7205
MT-262 NEET
Relation between radius of cation, anion 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (c)
and edge length of the cube 108. (a) Secondary wall situated near the plasma
membrane after the formation of primary
2r + 2r = 3a
Cs + Cl- wall.
109. (d) 110. (b) 111. (b) 112. (a)
3a
r +r = 113. (b) The bacteria Clostridium acetobutylicum
Cs + Cl- 2 is used to produce butanol and acetone from
89. (b) In general, starch. This bacteria was first used by
OH O Chaim Weizmann in 1920.
| ||
CN - 114. (d) The male gamete will be haploid (n). 2 polar
Ar CHO ¾¾¾® Ar C H C Ar
Aromatic aldehyde Acyloins
nuclei will be diploid (2n). Endosperm
formed by fusion of male gamete with two
90. (b)
s
polar nuclei will be pentaploid.
ok
male gamete + 2 polar nuclei ® Endosperm
BIOLOGY (n) (2n) + (2n) (5n)
bo
91. (d) 92. (a) 115. (a)
_e
93. (d) Pericycle is generally made up of 116. (d) An area with particular types of trees
dedicated to local deities or ancestral spirits
sclerechymatous cells. It is present as a Aj that are protected by local communities
continous cyclinder of sclerenchymatous
through social traditions and taboos
cells e.g., Cucurbita, Aristolochia, etc.
@
incorporating spiritual and ecological
94. (a) Turgor pressure limits osmosis, and once
values are called as sacred groves.
a cell is turgid, no more water may be taken
At
Sacred groves act as an ideal centre for

on.
biodiversity conservation. Several plants
95. (a) 96. (d) 97. (c)
and animals that are threatened in the forest
ks
98. (b) 99. (d)

are still well conserved in some of the sacred
100. (a) Amphitropous : Both body of ovule and
oo
groves. It has been observed that several

embryo sac are curved. The embryo sac medicinal plants that are not to be found in
assumes horse-sh oe shape. e.g.
Eb
the forest are abundant in the sacred groves.

Papaveraceae. Further, rare, endangered, threatened and
101. (c) endemic species are often concentrated in
e
102. (d) Nature select those set of characters that sacred groves.
or
are best adapted to the environment. This 117. (c) In Cocos nucifera (coconut) milky
has resulted in the great diversity seen in endosperm is found in which many nuclei,
M
the population of finches. vitamins and growth hormone e.g.,

103. (b) DDT causes egg shell thinning in birds cytokinins, auxin and induced cytokinin is
because it inhibits calcium ATPase. found.
104. (d) Gene therapy is an experimental technique 118. (d) 119. (a) 120. (a) 121. (c)
that uses genes to treat or prevent disease. 122. (d) Heterotrophic plants are less dependent on
The first clinical gene therapy was given for nitrogen obtained from nitrification since
treating adenosine deaminase deficiency. A they receive some nitrite and nitrate through
four-year old girl became the first gene their parasitic or carnivorous nutritional
therapy patient on September 14, 1990 at the modes.
NIH Clinical Center. Adenosine deaminase 123. (a)
deficiency, also called ADA deficiency or 124. (d) Cyanobacteria or blue-green algae have
ADA-SCID is an autosomal recessive both pigment systems.
metabolic disorder that causes
125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (d)
immunodeficiency. ADA deficiency is due
to a lack of the enzyme adenosine deaminase. 128. (b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
129. (b) With increasing humidity, the rate of 147. (d) White blood cells, lymph ducts, and lymph
transpiration decreases linearly, because fluid are all structural or functional
the high saturation of water vapour in the components of lymph nodes. The viruses
atmosphere prevents the evaporation of will be there because the invaders get
more water from the leaf interior to the trapped in or transported to the nodes by
exterior. lymphocytes and macrophages.
130. (c) E. coli live in the human intestine. If they 148. (d) Cortisol and testosterone are steroid
are present in water it indicates that the hormones which are lipid soluble and easily
water is polluted. pass through the cell membrane of a target
131. (d)
cell and bind to specific intracellular
132. (d) Biolistic is direct gene transferred method
receptor.
for constructing recombinant DNA. The
149. (a) The caecum is a pouch-like portion of the
s
gene gun was invented by John C. Sanford
large intestine which hosts some symbiotic
ok
with Edward Wolf. A gene gun can be used
micro-organism. The caecum absorbs water
to genetically infect cells or whole
and salts from undigested foods before
bo
organisms with foreign DNA by aiming the
they continue on to the large intestine.
barrel of the gun and firing. The microshot
150. (c) Minimum power of regeneration is found
_e
projectiles in the biolistic gene gun are made
in nervous tissue. There is no division for
of microscopic (or nano) sized gold or
Aj nervous cells after birth.
platinum powders. These expensive
powders are soaked in DNA or RNA (in raw 151. (c)
@
or plasmid form) that are engineered for 152. (a) In many cases the hyphae grow together,
insertion into the genome of the cells or interwine, adhere and form a thick tissue,
At
organisms under the gun. called the plectenchyma.

133. (a) Statement (i) and (iv) are / is correct 153. (a)
ks
Regulation of lac operon by repressor is 154. (c) Brown fat provides 20- times more energy
referred as negative regulation. In negative than white fat.
oo
regulation, a repressor molecule binds to 155. (b)

the operator of an operon and terminates 156. (a) The Chylomicrons are formed inside
Eb
transcription. In positive regulation, an enterocytes and are absorbed in lacteals.

activator interacts with the RNA 157. (b) 158. (a) 159. (b) 160. (c)
polymerase in the promoter region to initiate 161. (d) The knee-jerk or patellar reflex is caused
e
transcription. by tapping the tendon connected to the

or
Human genome contains some 20,000- quadriceps muscle, which contracts, jerking
M
25,000 billion genes bases. the lower leg forward.

134. (d) 135. (a) 136. (a) 137. (a) 162. (c) 163. (a) 164. (a)
138. (d) 165. (a) Epinephrine and norepinephrine are
139. (d) The pancreas produces a mumber of im- secreted by adrenalmedulla in response to
portant digestive enzymes, without which stress of any kind and during emergency
digestion and nutrient absorption are situations and are called emergency
greatly hampered. hormones or hormones of flight, or fight.
140. (a) 141. (d) 142 (b) 166. (c) Troponin is a protein which is found on
143. (a) ANF stimulates the loss of sodium in urine actin filament and myosin protein is found
while aldosterone absorbs sodium from in myosin filament. Both actin and myosin
glomerular filtrate. are complex proteins in striated muscles.
144. (b) Thymosin is a hormone secreted by the
145. (d) Insulin acts to lower blood sugar levels. thymus that stimulates development of T-
146. (d) cells. Prolactin is a hormone released by
the pituitary gland that stimulates breast
EBD_7205
MT-264 NEET
development and milk production in CSN2H4 or (NH2)2CS. It is similar to urea,

women. Rhodopsin, also known as visual except that oxygen atom is replaced by a
purple, is not a hormone. It is a biological sulphur atom.
pigment in photoreceptor cells of the retina Antithyroid agents and the thiouracils and
that is responsible for the first events in mercaptoglyoxalines owe their activity to
the perception of light. the presence of the potentially free thiol
167. (c) The utricle and saccule play a role in group, which by its read reduction of
equilibrium. elementary iodine to iodide ion,
168. (c) 169. (a) 170. (a) 2R-S+12-+ R-S-S-R + 2I
171. (b) Human males are XY, while females are XX. interferes with the iodination of tyrosine in
In birds and butterflies, males are ZZ. the thyroid protein and hence inhibits the
172. (a) Thyroxine, the principal hormone of thyroid synthesis of the thyroid hormone.
s
gland, is required for tissue differentation 173. (a) 174. (d)
ok
and metamorphosis (the rapid 175. (a) Both adrenal cortisol and osteoclasts break
transformation from the larval to the adult down bone tissue.
bo
form) in amphibians. So in its absence of 176. (d) 177. (a) 178. (d) 179. (d)
presence of antithyroid substance e.g. 180. (b) The traits which can not be represented by
_e
thiourea, tadpoles or axolotl remain in the the solid symbols in the given pedigree are-
larval stage indefinitely. Thiourea is an Aj a dominant sex linked gene, a holandric gene
organic compound of carbon, nitrogen, and a sex influenced autosomal gene
@
sulphur and hydrogen, with the formula recessive in males.
At
ks
oo
Eb
e
or
M
Mock Test-9
ANSWER KEYS
1 (a) 21 (c) 41 (b) 61 (d) 81 (d) 101 (a) 121 (a) 141 (d) 161 (a)
2 (a) 22 (c) 42 (d) 62 (b) 82 (b) 102 (d) 122 (c) 142 (c) 162 (b)
3 (b) 23 (b) 43 (b) 63 (b) 83 (d) 103 (a) 123 (c) 143 (b) 163 (d)
4 (c) 24 (b) 44 (b) 64 (d) 84 (d) 104 (a) 124 (a) 144 (b) 164 (d)
5 (d) 25 (c) 45 (b) 65 (c) 85 (a) 105 (c) 125 (a) 145 (d) 165 (b)
6 (c) 26 (d) 46 (b) 66 (a) 86 (c) 106 (d) 126 (c) 146 (b) 166 (b)
7 (d) 27 (b) 47 (c) 67 (c) 87 (c) 107 (b) 127 (a) 147 (a) 167 (d)
s
(b) (b) (d) 88 (a) 108 (d) (a) (a) (b)
ok
8 28 48 (b) 68 128 148 168
9 (c) 29 (d) 49 (d) 69 (a) 89 (d) 109 (d) 129 (b) 149 (d) 169 (b)
bo
10 (c) 30 (c) 50 (d) 70 (c) 90 (a) 110 (d) 130 (d) 150 (a) 170 (c)
11 (c) 31 (a) 51 (d) 71 (c) 91 (a) 111 (d) 131 (d) 151 (c) 171 (c)
_e
12 (c) 32 (c) 52 (c) 72 (c) 92 (d) 112 (d) 132 (d) 152 (d) 172 (a)
13 (a) 33 (c) 53 (d) 73 (a) 93 (d) 113 (b) 133 (b) 153 (c) 173 (d)
14 (a) 34 (c) 54 (a) 74 (d) 94 (a) 114
Aj (b) 134 (d) 154 (b) 174 (a)
@
15 (b) 35 (b) 55 (d) 75 (b) 95 (b) 115 (b) 135 (a) 155 (d) 175 (a)
16 (d) 36 (b) 56 (a) 76 (a) 96 (d) 116 (c) 136 (a) 156 (c) 176 (a)
17 (a) 37 (b) 57 (c) 77 (b) 97 (d) 117 (c) 137 (a) 157 (d) 177 (b)
At
18 (d) 38 (c) 58 (b) 78 (c) 98 (a) 118 (d) 138 (b) 158 (c) 178 (c)
ks
19 (c) 39 (a) 59 (a) 79 (d) 99 (c) 119 (a) 139 (b) 159 (a) 179 (a)
20 (a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 80 (a) 100 (c) 120 (b) 140 (c) 160 (b) 180 (b)
oo
Eb
Solutions
e
or
PHYSICS 5. (d)
M
150
m In 6. (c) Mass = 150 gm = kg
1. (a) B = 0 Add vectorially.. 1000
2 pa Force = Mass × acceleration
2. (a) Th e work function has no effect on
150
photoelectric current so long as hn > W0. = ´ 20 N = 3 N
The photoelectric current is proportional 1000
to the intensity of incident light. Since there Impulsive force = F .Dt = 3 ´ 0.1 = 0.3 N
is no change in the intensity of light, hence 7. (d) The apparent frquency of sound of both
I1 = I2. the trains will be changed.
3. (b) When p-n junction is reverse biased, the The apparent frequency of sound of train
flow of current is due to drifting of minority
charge carriers across the junction. 320
coming in = 240 ×
4. (c) When the electron jumps from any orbit to 320 - 4
second orbit, then wavelength of line
obtained belongs to Balmer series. 240 × 320
= = 243
316
EBD_7205
MT-266 NEET
For apparent frequency of train going sin 45°

away 14. (a) For point A, a mg =
sin r
320
= 240 × = 237 1
45º Air
320+4 Þ sin r =
When these sounds are heard 2 a mg 90 – r r A
simultaneously beat is listened. for point B, sin (90 – r) = gma
No. of beats per sec = 243 – 237 = 6. 90 – r
B
8. (b) The Shunt of milliammeter will be of larger (90 – r) is critical angle.
resistance, because a large part of the main
current will pass through the coil of the Glass
1
galvanometer which will work as a smaller \ cos r = g m a =
range ammeter. m
a g
s
9. (c) The intermediate image in compound
1
ok
microscope is real, inverted and magnified. Þ a mg =
10. (c) We know that for short dipole, cos r
bo
2p 1 1
field at axial point, E a = = =
d3
_e
2
1 - sin r 1
1-
p 2 amg2
and field at equatorial point, E q = Aj
d3
1 2 a m 2g
@
2
So, E a = 2E q Þ a mg = =
1 2 a m 2g - 1
11. (c) All the charge given to inner sphere will 1-
2 a m 2g
At
pass on to the outer one. So capacitance

that of outer one is 4p Î0 b .
3
ks
2
12. (c) C Þ 2 a mg - 1 = 2 Þ a mg =
2
oo
A
2 d 2s
15. (b) Acceleration = m/s2 =
Eb
3 2
dt
Force acting on the body
2
e
B = 3´ = 2 newton
or
3
D
1 4
M
We know that moment of inertia of a disc Displacement in 2 sec = ´ 2 ´ 2 = m

3 3
1
about its diameter is = MR 2 . 4 8
4 Work done = 2 ´ = J
In the figure AB is a diameter. Which 3 3
passes through centre of mass of the disc.
dL 4A - A 3
CD is another axis which is parallel to AB 16. (d) Torque = = = A
and about which we shall have to dt 4 4
calculate moment of inertia. [dL is change in angular momentum]
Now, from the theory of parallel axis 17. (a) Resistance of bulb
1 5MR 2 V 2 200 ´ 200

2
I = Ig + Md = MR 2 + MR 2 = = = = 1000W
4 4 P 40
13. (a) Due to the charge inside a sphere of radius V 2 100 ´ 100
r only. New power = = = 10W .
R 1000
g' R2 Q1 – Q2 æT ö
18. (d) We know that = W = Q1 – Q2 = Q2 = ç 1 – 1÷ Q2
g ( R + h) 2 Q2 è T2 ø
g /9 é R ù
2 æT –T ö
=ê Þ W= ç 1 2 ÷ Q2
\
g ë R + h úû è T2 ø
For T2 = 20 K
R 1
\ = 300 – 20
R+h 3 W1 = ´ 0.001996 = 0.028 kJ
\ h = 2R 20
19. (c) Let I1 = I and I2 = 4I For T2 = 4 K
( I1 + I 2 ) = ( )
2 2
I max = I + 4I 300 – 4
s
W2 = ´ 0.001996 = 0.148 kJ
4
ok
= ( 3 I ) = 9I
2
As temperature is changing from 20k to 4 k,
work done required will be more than W1
bo
I min = ( I1 - I 2 ) = ( )
2 2
I - 4I =I but less than W2.
_e
23. (b) From Wien’s displacement law,
20. (a) y = 0.03 sin p(2t - 0.01x) is equation of a lmax T = constant
progressive wave. Aj \ (lmax)1T1 = (lmax)2T2.
Comparing it with the standard form of
@
equation 4800 ´ 6000
y = a sin ( w t – kx) \ (lmax)2 = Å = 9600Å
3000
w = 2 p ; k = 0.01 p
At
24. (b) Equation of S.H.M. is given by

2p x = A sin (wt + d)
k= = 0.01p
ks
l (wt + d) is called phase.

2 A
oo
Þ l= = 200 m. When x = , then

0.01 2
21. (c) The direction of oscillations of E and B
Eb
1
fields are perpendicular to each other as sin (wt + d) =
2
well as to the direction of propagation. So,
p
e
electromagnetic waves are transverse in Þ wt + d =

nature. 6
or
The electric and magnetic fields oscillate in p

or f1 =
M
same phase.
6
22. (c) Heat required to change the temperature
of vessel by a small amount dT
– dQ = mCpdT 1
A
Total heat required
3 A
4 æ T ö 2 x = A/2
– Q = m ò 32 ç ÷ dT
20 è 400 ø x=0
4
100 ´10 –3 ´ 32 é T 4 ù For second particle,
= ê ú
(400)3 ë 4 û 20 p 5p
f2 = p - =
Þ Q = 0.001996 kJ 6 6
Work done required to maintain the 4p 2p
temperature of sink to T2 \ f = f2 - f1 = =
6 3
EBD_7205
MT-268 NEET
25. (c) Work done, 31. (a) Power µ no. of electrons emitted (N)
é -GMm ù 1 1
W = DU = U f - U i = 0 - ê Pµ Þ Nµ
ë R úû r 2
r2
6.67 ´10 -11 ´ 100 10 T2
W= ´ 32. (c) Since efficiency of engine is h = 1 -
0.1 1000 T1
= 6.67 × 10–10 J
26. (d) Acceleration is the same everywhere equal 1 T2
to 'g'. According to problem, 6 = 1 - T ... (1)
1
27. (b) As we know, dU = F.dr
When the temperature of the sink is
r
ar 3
2 reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled
U = ò a r dr =
s
3 ...(i)
ok
0 æ 1ö T - 62
2ç ÷ = 1- 2 ... (2)
è 6ø T1
bo
2
mv
As, = ar 2 Solving (1) and (2) T2 = 372 K
r
T1 = 99°C = Temperature of source.
_e
m2v2 = mar3
33. (c) Force of interaction
1 3 Aj
or, 2m(KE) = ar ...(ii) 1 6p1p2
2 F= .
4p Î0 x 4
@
Total energy = Potential energy + kinetic
energy
+q +q
At
Now, from eqn (i) and (ii)

Total energy = K.E. + P.E.
ks
ar 3 ar 3 5 3 p1 p2
= + = ar
oo
3 2 6
28. (b) –q –q
Eb
T1 T1 cos q x
q
e
34. (c) Bulk Modulus

T1 sin q
or
T2
2m Pressure Pressure
T2 = =
M
Volume Strain 0
W = 60N Bulk Modulus = ¥
In eqbm T1cos q = T2 = 60N. …(1) [As liquid is uncompressible, ΔV = 0 ]
T1sin q = 60 N …(2) 35. (b) The work done = force × displacement
\ tan q = 1 \ unit, u1 = Fs and u2 = 4F × 4s = 16u.
q = 45°.
29. (d) All the given phenomena are explained by 1 æ 1 ö2
kinetic theory of gases. 36. (b) S1 = g ç ÷ , S1 + S2 = g(1)2
2 è2ø
mv
30. (c) r= or r µ v 2
qB 1 æ3ö
g ç ÷ = S + S2 + S3
As v is doubled, the radius also becomes 2 è2ø
double. Hence radius = 2 × 2 = 4 cm
37. (b) T = mw2r 43. (b) Let W newton be the load suspended. Then
38. (c) (W / A1 ) W L
39. (a) Arc length = radius × angle Y = = ...(1)
ur ur ur ( l1 / L ) A1 l1
So, | B – A |=| A | D q
(W / A2 ) W L
and Y= = ....(2)
(l 2 / L) A2 l 2
Dividing equation (1) by equation (2), we
B A–B get
q æl ö æ A ö æl ö æ2ö
1= ç 2 ÷ ç 2 ÷ = ç 2 ÷ç ÷
A è l1 ø è A1 ø è l1 ø è1ø
l1 2
s
40. (b) The network of resistors is a balanced \ = or l1 : l2 = 2 : 1
ok
wheatstone bridge. The equivalent current l2 1
is
bo
30W 44. (b) Paramagnetic liquid tends to flow from
region of weaker magnetic fields to stronger
_e
magnetic fields.
15W 45. (b) L = m0 nI
Aj L2 m
\ = ----(Q n and I are same)
@
L1 m0
5V \ L2 = mrL1 = 900 × 0.18 = 162 mH
At
15 ´ 30
Req = = 10 W CHEMISTRY
15 + 30
ks
V 5 ch c
ÞI = = = 0.5 A 46. (b) E = hu = ;and u =
l l
oo
R 10
8
3.0 ´ 10
8 ´ 1015 =
Eb
41. (b) For block A to move in SHM. l

N 3.0 ´ 108
\ l= = 0.37 ´ 10 -7
A
e
15
8 ´ 10
or
= 37.5 ´ 10-9 m = 4 ´ 101 nm

47. (c) Reactions of higher order (>3) are very rare
M
mg x
mean
due to very less chances of many molecules
position
to undergo effective collisions.
mg – N = mw2x 48. (b) The right sequence of I.E1 of Li < B < Be <
where x is the distance from mean position C.
For block to leave contact N = 0
g 49. (d) Magetic moment m = n (n + 2 )
Þ mg = mw 2 x Þ x = where n = number of unpaired electrons
w2
42. (d) When the spring undergoes displacement 15 = n(n + 2) \ n = 3
in the downward direction it completes one Cl OH
half oscillation while it completes another
KOH
half oscillation in the upward direction. The 50. (d) H3C — C — CH3 (aq.)
CH3 — C — CH3
total time period is
Cl OH
(C3H6Cl2) Unstable
m m
T =p +p (I)
k 2k
EBD_7205
MT-270 NEET
O 57. (c) According to Raoult's law pA = poA × xB

–H2O (I) CH3MgBr
(partial pressure of solvent is equal to pure
CH3 — C — CH3 pressure of solvent multiplied by mole
(II) H 2O / H fraction of solvent.
(II) 58. (b) Follow ECS, more the reduction potential,
the stronger the oxidising power and vice
OH
versa.
Anhy. ZnCl3 + HCl
CH3 — C — CH3 Gives turbidity 59. (a)
Lucas Test
immediately 60. (c) In presence of non-protic solvent such as
CH3
CHCl 3 or CCl 4 , concentration of
3° alcohol
electrophile (Br+) is less, hence reaction
51. (d) All have tetrahedral structure. stops at the monobromo stage
52. (c) w = - PDV = -10-5 (1 ´ 10-2 - 1 ´ 10 -3 ) 61. (d) To calculate the value of K4 in the given
s
equation we should apply :
ok
= -900J eqn. (2) + eqn.(3) × 3 – eqn. (1)
4 2 –1
53. (d) ¾® Al2 O 3; DG = –827kJmol K 2 K33
bo
Al + O 2 ¾
3 3 hence K4 =
Number of electrons involved is 4 K1
_e
æ2 ö 62. (b) In AB AB packing spheres occupy 74%.
ç ´ 6 = 4÷ 26% is empty.
è3 ø Aj
827000 63. (b) Cr2(SO4)3 2Cr 3+ + 3SO2–
@
= Eo 4
DGo = –nFEo or 2s 3s
4 ´ 96500
Ksp = (2s) (3s) = 4s × 27s3 = 108s5
2 3 2
\ Eo = 2.14V
At
1/ 5
54. (a) 4FeS + 7 O 2 ® 2 Fe 2 O 3 + 4SO 2 æ K sp ö
s= ç ÷
ks
è 108 ø
It is dibasic
2Hg 2+ + 2Cl-
oo
55. (d) The two components should be Hg2Cl2

2s 2s
(CH3)3CONa + (CH3)3CBr. However, tert- 2 2 4
Eb
alkyl halides tend to undergo elimination Ksp = (2s) × (2s) = 16s

reaction rather than substitution leading to 1/ 4
æK ö
the formation of an alkene, Me2C = CH2 s = ç sp ÷
e
56. (a) For a given mass of an ideal gas, the volume è 16 ø

or
and amount (moles) of the gas are directly

proportional if the temperature and pressure BaSO4 Ba 2+ + SO 2–
4
M
s s
are constant. i.e
Ksp = s2
Vµn
Hence in the given case. s= K sp
Initial moles and final moles are equal
(nT)i = (n T)f CrCl3 Cr3+ + 3Cl -
s 3s
Pi V Pi V Pf V Pf V
Ksp = s × (3s)3 = 27 s4
+ = + 1/ 4
s = æç sp ö÷
RT1 RT1 RT1 RT2 K
Pi Pf Pf è 27 ø
2 = + Hence the correct order of solubilities of
T1 T1 T2 salts is
1/ 4 1/ 4 1/5
2 Pi T2 æ K sp ö æ K sp ö æ K sp ö
Pf = K sp > ç ÷ >ç ÷ >ç ÷
T1 + T2 è 16 ø è 27 ø è 108 ø
64. (d) The fluorine has low dissociation energy O O

of F - F bond and reaction of atomic fluorine || ||
is exothermic in nature ClCH 2 COOH > H - C - OH > CH 3 - C - OH >
65. (c) a-D-glucose and b-D-glucose differ in the (electron-withdrawing gp.) (Electron-releasing character
increasing from Left to Right)
arrangement of groups around one carbon
atom (C1) i.e. they differ in configuration at O
C1, hence these are also known as anomers ||
C2 H 5 - C - OH
66. (a) The S6 molecule has a chair-form hexagon
ring with the same bond length as that in 76. (a) H2O2 acts as a reducing agent only in
S8, but with some what smaller bond angles presence of strong oxidising agents (i.e.,
i.e. bond lengths are same but bond angles MnO4–) in acidic as well as alkaline medium.
are different. 2KMnO 4 + 3H 2SO 4 + 5H 2O 2 ¾¾ ®
S
s
K 2SO 4 + 2MnSO 4 + 8H 2 O + 5O 2
ok
77. (b) Desired eqn;
S S
C 2 H 4 + 3O2 ® 2CO 2 + 2 H 2 O
bo
D H = 2 ( - 394) + 2 ( - 286) - (52) = - 1412 kJ
S
_e
S S 78. (c) Al3+ ¾¾¾¾¾
(i) Most
E ° = -1.66
¾ Al+
® Al ¬¾¾¾¾
E °= +0.55
S6 S8 stable Less stable

Aj Tl
(ii) Less
3+ E °= +1.26
¾¾¾¾¾
® Tl ¬¾¾¾¾
¾ Tl
E °= -0.34 +
67. (c) Sugar forms homogeneous solution hence stable More stable
@
no Tyndall effect is exhibited Tl+ has negative electrode potential (E° =
68. (d) Most electropositive metals are obtained –0.34) means, it does not prefer to convert
into Tl but reverse must be preferred that's
At
by electrolysis of their fused ionic salts.

69. (a) The complex chlorodiaquatriammine why it is more stable than Tl3+ (E° = +1.26).
In Al, Al3+ is more stable (E° = –1.66) than
ks
cobalt (III) chloride can have the structure

[CoCl(NH3)3(H2O)2]Cl2. Al+ (E° = +0.55) and also from Tl+ due to
more negative value of E°. Therefore, by
oo
70. (c)
comparison it confirms that Tl+ is more
71. (c) Generally, the ionization enthalpies or stable than Al+.
Eb
energy increases from left to right in a 79. (d) Ozone absorbs U.V. radiations harmful to
period and decreases from top to bottom in human life.
a group. Several factor such as atomic 80. (a) Aldehydes, other than formaldehyde,
e
radius, nuclear charge, shielding effect are when treated with RMgX give 2º alcohols
or
responsible for ch ange of ionization 81. (d) O.N. of N in NO2 and N2O4 is +4
enthalpies.
M
\ difference is zero.
Here, Ist ionization enthalpy of A and B is O.N. of P in P2O5 and P4O10 is +5
greater than group I (Li 520 kJmol–1 to \ difference is zero
Cs374 kJmol–1), which means element A and O.N. of N in N2O is +1 and in NO is +2. The
B belong to group –2 and all three given difference is 1
ionization enthalpy values are less for O.N. of S in SO2 is +4 and in SO3 is +6. The
element B means B will come below A. difference is +2.
72. (c) pH = 3. \ [H+] = 10–3; pH = 6 \ [H+] = 10–6. K b ´ w ´ 1000
Hence [H+] reduced by 10–3 times. 82. (b) M=
DTb ´ W
73. (a)
74. (d) 2.16 ´ 0.11 ´ 1000
= = 158.4
75. (b) Recall that presence of electron- 0.1 ´ 15
withdrawing group increases, while 83. (d) In acid hydrolysis of methyl acetate all are
presence of electron-releasing group present in one phase (liquid)
decreases the acidity of carboxylic acids.
EBD_7205
MT-272 NEET
2.303 a Ceratophyllum and Utricularia. In these

84. (d) k= log plants, stomata is absent and gaseous
t a-x
exchange takes place through general body
2.303 1 2.303 surface.
= log = log 8
24 1 24 103. (a) Azolla and Blue green algae- Anabaena
8 form biofertilizer in rice fields.
85. (a) 104. (a) Transgenic plants are the ones generated
by introducing foreign DNA into a cell and
86. (c) Nitrogen can form NCl3, N2O5 Ca3N2 and
regenerating a plant from that cell.
not NCl5 since it has no d atomic orbitals
in valence shell. 105. (c) Nowadays Asiatic lions, Panthera leo
persica, are very well protected in Gir
87. (c) Copper is present in brass, bronze and National Park, Junagarh, Gujarat.
german silver (see list - of alloys ).
s
106. (d) 107. (b) 108. (d)
88. (a) The compounds of the type M(AA)2B2
ok
109. (d) In collenchyma cell walls show localized
exhibit both geometrical and optical th ickenin gs due to presence of
isomerism.
bo
approximately 45% pectin , 35%
89. (d) More the stability of the carbocation, higher hemicellulose and 20% cellulose.
_e
will be the reactivity of the parent chloride. 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (b)
Allyl chloride > Vinyl chloride > 114. (b)
90. (a)
Chlorobenzene. Aj
115. (b) Homeoboxes code for polypeptides that
regulate the expression of groups of genes
@
BIOLOGY during development.
116. (c) 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid is used
At
91. (a) Syncytium- If a multinucleated condition for causing defoliation of forest trees.
arises due to fusion of cells, it is called 2, 4-D or 2, 4 dichlorophenoxy acetic acid is
ks
syncytium e.g., body of slime moulds, an auxin hormone. It stimulates the growth
striated muscles etc. activities of the cells of the root due to which
oo
92. (d) 93. (d) roots get destroyed and thus plants finally
94. (a) Boron is involved in the translocation of destroys. 2, 4-D is used as a defoliant for
Eb
carbohydrates. broad leaved dicots.

95. (b) 96. (d) 97. (d) 117. (c) If the forest cover is reduced to half, large
98. (a) Natural auxin are naturally occurring auxin areas will become deserts.
e
plants hormone which is called 118. (d) Fluorides of carbon is the major pollutant
or
phytohormones. Eg. IAA and IBB. These from jet plane emission.
are synthesized in shoot apices, leaf
M
119. (a)
primordial and developing seeds from
120. (b) Sequence of ribosomal RNA genes
tryptophan. Some of the important
synthetic auxins are 2, 4-D; 2, 4, 5-T 121. (a) 122. (c)
(2, 4, 5- trichlorophenoxy acetic acid). 123. (c) Being a xerophytic plant, Nerium bears
99. (c) Integument & nucellus develop from multiple epidermis to cut the rate of
sporophytic tissue transpiration.
100. (c) This is the result of a cross between a 124. (a) In plectonemic coils the chromosomal fibrils
heterozygous female and a male bearing a are closely interwined and they cannot be
yellow allele on his X chromosome. separated easily. The degree of coiling
101. (a) In negative (repressible) operon, the during cell division depends on the length
repressor co-repressor complex binds with of chromosomes.
the operator. The free repressor cannot bind 125. (a)
to the operator. 126. (c) Both species grow less well in the presence
102. (d) In submerged hydrophytes whole plant of the other; the effect is greater for
body remains under water. e.g. species 1.
127. (a) DDT cannot be further metabolized into any These are obtained by injecting the target
stable by product. antigen into a rat or mouse. Sometimes later,
128. (a) Nitrogenase is an enzyme involved in the spleen cells producing antibodies are
biological nitrogen fixation. Enzyme nitrate isolated and fused with myeloma cells to
reductase is involved in conversion of produce monoclonal antibodies.
nitrate to nitrite. Conversion of ammonia 149. (d) Sedimentary nutrients cycle slowly because
to nitrate is carried out by Nitrosomonas they settle on the bottom of the ocean and
and Nitrobacter. do not enter the atmosphere. The upwelling
129. (b) Ex-situ conservation is the conservation of of the ocean floor is needed for them to be
selected organism in places outside their released and made available for biological
natural homes. They include off site use.
collection and gene banks. 150. (a) Like most plant viruses, RNA is the genetic
material of TMV.
s
130. (d) 131. (d) 132. (d) 133. (b)
ok
134. (d) The conversion of pyruvate to lactate is 151. (c) The appendicular skeleton includes all
anaerobic respiration, where the NADH2 is bones associated with the appendages. The
bo
oxidised and the energy used in stage 2. jaw bone is part of the skull, which belongs
135. (a) 136. (a) to the axial skeleton.
_e
137. (a) All sponges are marine and have collar cells 152. (d) 153. (c) 154. (b) 155. (d)
without any exception. Sponges are animals 156. (c) 157. (d)
of the phylum Porifera. They are
Aj
158. (c) The amount of yolk and its distribution
multicellular organisms which have bodies determines the type and depth of cleavage.
@
full of pores and channels allowing water Cleavage is effected due to yolk resulting
to circulate through them, consisting of in different types of segmentation or
At
jelly-like substence sandwiched between cleavage.

two thin layers of cells. 159. (a) If the vasa efferentia in the human
ks
138. (b) The epidermis is the skin derives from the reproductive system get blocked the
ectoderm germ layer and is the primary site gametes will not be transformed from testes
oo
of keratinization in the body. to epididymis.

139. (b) 140. (c) 141. (d) 142. (c)
160. (b) Medical termination of pregnancy is
Eb
143. (b) All of these hormones are produced in the

considered safe up to twelve weeks of
anterior pituitary.
pregnancy.
144. (b) In human female, the periodic discharge of
e
blood, mucus and cellular debris from 161. (a) Antibodies bind to specific antigens to
or
uterine wall from non-pregnant women of produce large insoluble complexes which
M
sexual maturity is known as menstrual cycle. render them harmless and facilitate their
Few hours before the start of mensuration, destruction by other cells of the immune
the spiral arterioles constrict one by one system this process is called agglutination.
resulting into the mucosa. The mucosa 162. (b) Ultrasound imaging has frequency range
shrinks and the death of the blood deprived 1 - 15 MHz which has become part of our
tissues takes place. lives in the last decade. We are now all
145. (d) familiar with the blurry black and white
146. (b) Mutation is any random sudden heritable sonograms (ultrasound pictures) that show
change occurring in the genetic material. the unborn baby inside the mother’s uterus.
Sexual selection refers to selection of a mate Although it may take a little imagination on
by an organism. our part to understand that a round circle is
147. (a) Geometric representation of age structure the baby’s head, that does not prevent a
a characteristic of population. proud mother-to-be from showing off her
148. (a) Monoclonal antibodies are identical first baby picture.
molecules specific for one type of antigen.
EBD_7205
MT-274 NEET
163. (d) Cry I endotoxine obtained from Bacillus 170. (c) The filtration slits in the epithelium of the
thuringiensis are effective against renal corpuscle are about 25nm wide, too
bollworms. A bollworm is a common term small for most of the proteins to pass
for any larva of a moth that attacks the through. Only small solute molecules like
fruiting bodies of certain crops, especially glucose may be filtered out.
cotton. 171. (c)
164. (d) 172. (a) The intensity of movement of basilar fibres
165. (b) Lipases are enzymes found in the small in- regulates the loudness or amplitude of
testine of humans that help in the break- sound.
down of fats. 173. (d) 174. (a)
166. (b) Thin layer of water on the inner surrface of 175. (a) The blastocyst is one of the very first stages
alveoli serves to contract the alveoli and in human embryonic development,
s
makes them behave like unfilled baloons occurring early in the first trimester.
ok
that resist inflation. This would mean 176. (a) 177. (b) 178. (c)
tremendous effort to inhale and expand the 179. (a) Meningitis is the infection or inflammation
bo
alveoli and therefore to overcome this cells of meninges covering the brain and the
of the alveoli secrete pulmonary surfactant spinal cord. It is characterized by severe
_e
to decrease the surface tension of water headache, vomiting, pain and stiffness in
lining the alveoli. the neck.
167. (d) 168. (b) 169. (b) Aj
180. (b)
@
At
ks
oo
Eb
e
or
M
Mock Test-10
ANSWER KEYS
1 (d) 21 (a) 41 (a) 61 (a) 81 (c) 101 (b) 121 (b) 141 (a) 161 (a)
2 (a) 22 (c) 42 (d) 62 (a) 82 (b) 102 (b) 122 (b) 142 (c) 162 (b)
3 (a) 23 (b) 43 (a) 63 (d) 83 (d) 103 (c) 123 (b) 143 (c) 163 (c)
4 (a) 24 (b) 44 (d) 64 (c) 84 (c) 104 (a) 124 (a) 144 (d) 164 (d)
5 (a) 25 (b) 45 (d) 65 (c) 85 (d) 105 (b) 125 (b) 145 (d) 165 (d)
6 (d) 26 (c) 46 (c) 66 (c) 86 (c) 106 (c) 126 (c) 146 (a) 166 (c)
s
7 (a) 27 (d) 47 (d) 67 (d) 87 (c) 107 (c) 127 (b) 147 (b) 167 (b)
ok
8 (d) 28 (c) 48 (d) 68 (a) 88 (a) 108 (d) 128 (b) 148 (d) 168 (a)
bo
9 (c) 29 (d) 49 (d) 69 (a) 89 (b) 109 (a) 129 (a) 149 (d) 169 (c)
10 (d) 30 (c) 50 (b) 70 (d) 90 (b) 110 (a) 130 (d) 150 (b) 170 (d)
_e
11 (d) 31 (a) 51 (b) 71 (c) 91 (c) 111 (a) 131 (a) 151 (a) 171 (c)
12 (c) 32 (c) 52 (a) 72 (c) 92 (a) Aj
112 (a) 132 (d) 152 (d) 172 (d)
13 (a) 33 (c) 53 (a) 73 (a) 93 (a) 113 (a) 133 (b) 153 (c) 173 (d)
@
14 (d) 34 (a) 54 (c) 74 (d) 94 (a) 114 (d) 134 (b) 154 (c) 174 (c)
15 (a) 35 (a) 55 (a) 75 (b) 95 (b) 115 (c) 135 (c) 155 (b) 175 (a)
At
16 (b) 36 (b) 56 (c) 76 (a) 96 (b) 116 (b) 136 (b) 156 (a) 176 (c)
ks
17 (c) 37 (d) 57 (c) 77 (d) 97 (d) 117 (b) 137 (d) 157 (a) 177 (c)
18 (b) 38 (b) 58 (b) 78 (b) 98 (c) 118 (d) 138 (b) 158 (b) 178 (c)
oo
19 (a) 39 (a) 59 (a) 79 (a) 99 (c) 119 (d) 139 (b) 159 (a) 179 (a)
Eb
20 (c) 40 (c) 60 (c) 80 (d) 100 (c) 120 (b) 140 (b) 160 (b) 180 (a)
e
Solutions
or
M
PHYSICS 3. (a) This truth table is of the identity, Y = A.B ,

1. (d) Angular momentum = m × v × r hence it is NAND gate.
= ML2 T–1
Q ML2 T -2 Here, the output is high even if all inputs
Latent heat L = = = L2T–2 are low or one input is low.
m M
4. (a) For closed organ pipe
Charge
Capacitance C = = M -1L-2 T 4 A 2 l
P.d. = l Þ l = 4l ; n - v = v
4 l 4l
1 æN ö 1 æ 5000 ö
2. (a) K = ln ç 0 ÷ Þ K = ln ç ÷ For open organ pipe,
t è Nø 5 è 1250 ø
l V V
= l Þ l = 2l ; n ' = =
1 2 2 l 2l
ln (4) = ln 2 = 0.4ln 2 n' = 2n ; n : n ' = 1 : 2
5 5
EBD_7205
MT-276 NEET
5. (a) F = 20t – 5t2 r = 0.10 m

FR V
\a = = 4t - t 2 E=
I r
dw 10
Þ = 4t - t 2 V = Er = 107 ×
dt 100
w t V = 106 V
Þò dw = ò ( )
4t - t 2 dt
rl 2 m
0 0 11. (d) R= 2
. But m = pr2 ld \ pr =
pr ld
t3
Þ w = 2t 2 - (as w = 0 at t = 0, 6s) 2 2
3 rl 2 d R = rl1 d R = rl2 d
q 6 æ \R = , 1 , 2
t3 ö m m1 m2
ò d q = ò ç 2t 2 - ÷ dt
s
3ø rl32 d
0 0 è
ok
Þ q = 36 rad R3 =
m3
bo
36
Þ n= <6 l12 l2 2 l32
2p R1 : R2 : R3 = : :
m1 m2 m3
_e
6. (d) Moment of inertia of disc about its axis
2 25 9 1
1 1 æ 100 ö Aj R1 : R2 : R3 = : : = 125 :15 :1
= mr 2 = ´ 0.4 ´ ç ÷ 1 3 5
2 2 è 100 ø
@
12. (c)
1 2 13. (a) We know that for a body thrown up, its
= ´ 0.4 = 0.2 kgm
2
At
1 2
7. (a) For x = (– A), we have displacement is given as S = ut - gt . So
2
–A = A sin(w ´ 0 + f0 )
ks
the s-t graph is parabolic downward.

p
Also the ball collides inelastically, so it will
oo
or f0 = – . rebound to less height every time as shown

2
by the graph.
Eb
So for x < ( - A) , f0 < (– p / 2) . t1, t2, t3 are the instants when the ball
8. (d) at = g sin (90°– q) = g cos q collides with the ground. Here slope of s-t
graph is suddenly changing from negative
e
2 gl sin q to positive. It means velocity before

v= 2gh =
or
collision is negative (downward) and after

collision is positive (upward).
M
v2 2 gl sin q 14. (d) In elastic collision, the velocities get inter

ac = = = 2g sin q changed if the colliding objects have equal
l l
masses.
15. (a) We know that
a= ac 2 + at 2 = g 3sin 2 q + 1 . Maximum velocity = wA
Their velocity are same
3L w1A1 = w2 A 2 = w3A 3
9. (c) Force = weight suspended + weight of 16. (b) When radius is doubled, increase in
4
2 2
3W surface area = 2 ´ 4p (4R - R )
of wire = W1 +
4 = 2 ´ 4 p ´ 3R 2 = 24pR 2
Work done = Increase in area × T
force
stress = = 24pR 2 T.
area
10. (d) E = 107 V/m
17. (c) q = 1µC = 1 × 10–6C effect, the maximum kinetic energy of

r = 4 cm = 4 ×10–2 m emitted photo-electrons is given by
kq hc
Potential V = Ek = hn – W or Ek = –W
r l
9 ´ 109 ´10 -6 Where, h = Planck’s constant
= v = frequency of incident light
4 ´ 10-2
W = work function of metal
= 2.25 × 105 V. l = wavelength of incident light
kq 6.6 ´ 10 –34 ´ 3 ´ 108
Induced electric field E = – 2 Ek = eV – 4.2eV
r 2000 ´ 10 –10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 –19
s
9 ´109 ´1´10-6 So, Ek = 2eV
= = –5.625 × 106 V/m
ok
16 ´10-4 22. (c) Radio waves are low frequency electro-
magnetic waves. So, their wavelength will
bo
18. (b) 25W be comparatively large.
I I'
_e
23. (b) Impedance = R 2 + w2 L2
Aj = R 2 + 4p2 n2 L2
@
24. (b) For first line of Balmer series
2.5W 1 æ 1 1ö
= R ç – ÷ Þ R = 36
è 4 9ø
At
l 5l
I ´ 2.5 25 1 \ Wavelength of the first line , lL of the
I' = = I´ = Í
(25 + 2.5)
ks
275 11 Lyman series is given by

1 æ 1ö
= R ç1 – ÷ = 36 ´ 3 = 27
oo
Þ I 1
= . lL è 4ø
I 0 11 5l 4 5l
Eb
19. (a) In adiabatic process 5l

Þ lL =
Heat change DQ = 0 27
e
By first law of thermodynamics, 25. (b) C C

or
D Q = DU + W
Þ 0 = DU + W Þ DU = - W
M
A C C B
In isothermal process ;
Temperature change, DT = 0 C C
Change in internal energy,
DU = nCv DT = 0 C C
By DQ = DU + W Þ DQ = W The figure shows two independent
balanced wheatstone Brides connected in
Q1 Q1
20. (c) ò E.dx = Î0 Þ E = 4pr 2 Î parallel each having a capacitance C. So,
0 Cnet = CAB = 2C
26. (c) Silicon is an indirect-band gap semi-
conductor.
v CB
Donar level
VB
21. (a) By Einstein’s equation of photo-electric
EBD_7205
MT-278 NEET
27. (d) water is a bad conductor of heat

E
=
K1 p12
m p 2 2 2
[( R ) + ( r ) - 2 2 r ] + 2 R r
= ´ 2
28. (c) K 2 m1 p22 [Q p = mv Þ K = 2m ]
E
=
p1 M1 1 1 ( R - r )2 + 2 R r
Hence, p = M2
= =
4 2
2
I will be maximum if ( R - r ) = 0 or R = r
G ´ 1 G ´1 G ´1
29. (d) E = 2 + 2 + 2 + ... +
1 2 4 35. (a)
Oil m1
P 1 kg 1 kg 1 kg
s
Water m2
ok
1m
Realdepth
As refractive index, m =
bo
2m Apparent depth
4m \ Apparent depth of the vessel when
_e
viewed from above is
é 1 1 ù
E = G ê1 + + + ....ú Aj x x xæ 1 1 ö
ë 4 16 û dapparent = + = ç + ÷
2m1 2m 2 2 è m1 m 2 ø
@
1 4G x æ m2 + m1 ö x (m1 + m 2 )
E =G =
1 3 = ç ÷ =
At
1- 2 è m1m 2 ø 2m1m2
4
30. (c) As DU = 0 in a cyclic process
ks
36. (b) For the equilibrium of the block

DQ = pW = area of circle = pr2 mg = kx + V rg
oo
or DW = p(10)2 = 102 p J
r
31. (a) On comparing the given equation to r( Ah) g = k ( h / 3) + ( Ah ) g
r 3
Eb
E = a0iˆ cos (wt – kz) \ k = 2rAg

w = 6 × 108,
37. (d) Current is max at resonance condition
e
2p w 1 1
k= =
or
r c So, w = =
LC 0.5 ´ 8 ´ 10-6
M
w 6 ´ 108
k= = = 2 m -1 1
c 3 ´ 108 w=
32. (c) As the aeroplane and released bomb has 4 ´ 10-6
the same horizontal velocity. 1 ´ 1000
33. (c) Field at Q is E. So, force on Q = QE w=
2
This force will be applied on –2Q. Also
w = 500 Hz
according to Coulomb’s law. So, field
38. (b) Angle between magnetic meridian and
QE E geographical meridian is called angle of
at –2Q is =- .
–2Q 2 declination.
E 39. (a) Q4 = mLw = 540 cal

34. (a) Ι=
R+r Q3 = msw (100 - 0 ) = 100 cal
Q2 = mLice = 80 cal
Q1 = msice ( 20 - 0 ) = 20 cal
Q4 > Q3 > Q2 > Q1 4200

q= = 38.2°C
40. (c) The P-V equation is given as 110
43. (a) In an isothermal process, the temperature
12 P0 4P remains constant. So, the internal energy
P= V - 20 V 2 - 7 P0
V0 V0 remains same.
If the gas is expanded by adding more
V 2 - 3V0V + 2V02 = 0 molecules to it then the internal energy of
the gas increases.
44. (d) The angle of prism, A = 180° – (67° + 53°)
= 60°
The deviation ,
2P0 A+ d = i+e
s
or 60° + d = 36° + 32°
ok
P
\ d = 8°
P0 For minimum deviation i = e, and so angle
bo
of deviation should be less than 8°
45. (d) The fringe width in Young's double slit
_e
V0 3V0 2V0 V experiment is
2 Aj lD
V b=
d
@
where l is the wavelength of light used. D
is the distance between slit and screen. d is
+3V0 ± 9V02 - 8V02
At
V= = 2V0 the distance between the slit.

2 l (2 D) lD
ks
or V0 b' = =4 = 4b
d /2 d
oo
3V0
At P = 2 P0 , V=
2 CHEMISTRY
Eb
dP 3V π 2 π *2
= 0 at V = 0 46. (c) σ 2 σ *2 σ 2 σ *2 σ 2 σ*
dV 2 π 2 π *2
e
or
d2P 47. (b) For the given reaction

= negative
M
dV 2 pt(s)
4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) ¾¾¾
®4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
3V0
P attains the maximmum value at V = -1 D [ NH3 ] -1 D [ O 2 ] 1 D [ NO ]
2 Rate = = =
4 Dt 5 Dt 4 Dt
41. (a) A current carrying wire in the
neighbourhood produces magnetic field 1 D [ H 2 O]
and electric field both. =
6 Dt
42. (d) Let the temp of water = 100 ´1´ (50 - q)
48. (d) All statements given above are correct.
Heat gained by ice = 10 ´ 80 + 10 ´1´ q
49. (d) All statements are correct.
Now heat lost = heat gained. 50. (b) The hydrogen atom that is added to the
5000 - 1000 = 800 + 100 carbonyl carbon of the aldehyde in the
4200 = 110 q reduction is derived directly from the other
aldehyde molecule as a hydride ion. The
second hydrogen that is added to the
negatively charged oxygen is coming from
EBD_7205
MT-280 NEET
the solvent (consult mechanism of 64. (c) Electron withdrawing substituents like –
Cannizzaro reaction). Oxidation of one NO2, –Cl increase the acidity of phenol
molecule of the compound at the expense while electron releasing substituents like –
of other molecule of the same compound is CH3, – OCH3 decreases acidity. hence the
known as disproportionation. correct order of acidity will be
51. (b) An equilibrium constant does not give any
information about the rate at which the OH OH OH OH
equilibrium is reached.
52. (a) BHT is the important anti oxidant used in
> > >
food.
53. (a)
54. (c) The condition for geometrical isomerism is NO2 Cl CH3 OCH3
s
a a a e
ok
C=C or C=C III I II IV
b b b d (–M, –I) (–I > +M) (+I, + HC ) (+ M)
bo
55. (a)
56. (c) Kw depends upon temperature as it is an 65. (c)
_e
equilibrium constant. 66. (c) Higher the value of Ka lower will be the
57. (c) Adsorption lowers the activation energy. value of pKa i.e. higher will be the acidic
58. (b)
Aj nature. Further since CN–, F– and NO2– are
59. (a) [Co(NH3 )5CO3]ClO4. Six monodentate
@
conjugate base of the acids HCN, HF and
ligands are allached to Co hence C. N. of HNO2 respectively hence the correct order
Co = 6; of base strength will be
At
O. N. = x + 5 × (0) + 1× (–2) + 1× (–1) = 0 F– < NO2– < CN–

\ x = + 3 ; electronic configuration of
ks
(Q stronger the acid weaker will be its

Co3+ [Ar] 3d 6 4s 0 hence number of d
conjugate base)
electrons is 6 : All d electrons are paired
oo
due to strong ligand hence unpaired 67. (d) Lesser the intermolecular forces, the more
electrons zero. the volatile character.
Eb
60. (c) 68. (a) The stability of + 2 O.S. follows the order
k sp of AgI Pb 2 + > Sn 2 + > Ge 2 +
e
61. (a) Solubility ofAgI in KI soln. =

[I - ] Hence reducing power Ge > Sn > Pb
or
69. (a) If Na2CO3 is used in place of (NH4)2CO3. It

1.0 ´10-16 -12 -1
M
= = 1.0 ´10 mol will precipitate group V radicals as well as

10-4 magnesium radicals. The reason for this is
62. (a) the high ionization of Na2CO3 in water into
63. (d) The correct formula of inorganic benzene Na + and CO 32– . Now the higher
is B3N3H6 so (a) is incorrect statement concentration of CO23 – is available which
OH exceeds the solubility product of group V
|
Boric acid (H3BO3 or B - OH ) is a lewis radicals as well as that of magnesium
| radicals.
OH
70. (d) Aniline is insoluble in water, because its –
acid so (b) is incorrect statement.
The coordination number exhibited by NH2 group can’t form H- bond with water
beryllium is 4 and not 6 so statement (c) is due to bulky phenyl group.
incorrect. 71. (c) Reaction (c) is endothermic. Electrolysis or
Both BeCl 2 and AlCl 3 exhibit bridged decomposition of H2 O endothermic in
structures in solid state so (d) is correct
statement.
nature. pipes, toys, coats, bottles etc.

72. (c) For isotonic solutions p1 = p 2 or c1 = c2 ;
BIOLOGY
34.2 18 .0
= 0.1 ; = 0.1 .
342 180 91. (c)
Hence 18 gL–1 glucose is 0.1 M. 92. (a) Statement (i) and (ii) are correct.
73. (a) Galvanization. Riccia is liverwort in which simplest
74. (d) 75. (b) sporophyte consists of capsule only while
Polytrichum is moss in which sporophyte
h 6.63 ´10 -34
76. (a) l= = = 1.1´ 10 -33 m consists of foot, seta & capsule. Volvox is
mv 0.060 ´10 a fresh water green colonial alga.
77. (d) Let bond energy of A2 be x then bond Reproduction is both sexual and asexual.
energy of AB is also x and bond energy of Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Slime
s
B2 is x/2. moulds are consumer decomposer protists.
ok
Enthalpy of formation of AB is - 100 kJ/mol: They possess characters of plants
(cellulosic cell wall), animals (phagotrophic
bo
1 1
A 2 + B2 ® 2 AB; A 2 + B2 ® AB; D 4 =-100kJ nutrition) and fungi (spores).
2 2
93. (a) The fluidity of membranes in a plant in
_e
æx xö 2x + x - 4x
or - 100 =ç + ÷ - x \- 100 = \x = 400 kJ cold weather may be maintained by
è2 4ø 4 increasing the number of phospholipids
78. (b) The Be (OH)2 and Al (OH)3 are amphoteric
Aj with unsaturated hydrocarbon tails.
in nature. 94. (a) The pure water, at atmospheric pressure has
@
79. (a) The two structures involve only movement zero water potential. The addition of any
of electrons and not of atoms or groups, solute particles reduces the free energy of
At
hence these are resonating structures. water. Thus, the water potential will be
80. (d) Formic acid has aldehydic grouping negative.
ks
O 95. (b)
|| 96. (b) The diatom shells accumulating up at the
oo
( H - C - OH ). bottom of oceans over millions of years

81. (c) Not more than two electrons can be present formed deposits called diatomaceous earth.
Eb
in same atomic orbital. This is Paulis These deposits may be thousand metres
exclusion principle. thick with as many as five million diatom
82. (b) For orthorhombic a = b = g = 90° . shells in each cubic centimetre. This
e
83. (d) 84. (c) diatomaceous earth is used in many small

or
85. (d) Since Sc3+ does not contain any unpaired and large scale industries.
M
electron it is colourless in water. 97. (d) 98. (c)

86. (c) Linear alkylbenzenesulphonates (LAB) 99. (c) Movement of water (solvent) depends on
carrying phenyl chains at secondary diffusion pressure deficit, which is
positions are biodegradable. D.P.D = O.P – T.P
87. (c) KBr does not exhibit Frenkel defect. If O.P. = T.P. So D.P.D = 0
2.303 a So no movement takes place. Water moves
88. (a) t = log towards low D.P.D to high D.P.D.
k a-x 100. (c) Restriction point represents a stage in G1
2.303 0.5 phase, If the cell has passed restriction
= log = 0.384 min.
6 0.05 point, it would divide.
89. (b) 101. (b) 102. (b) 103. (c)
90. (b) High density polythene is used in the 104. (a) Cormophyte - Pond silk
manufacture of housewares like buckets, 105. (b) 106. (c) 107 (c)
dustbins, bottles, pipes etc. Low density 108. (d) Four important functional aspects of the
polythene is used for insulating electric ecocystem are (i) Productivity (ii)
wires and in the manufacture of flexible
EBD_7205
MT-282 NEET
Decomposition, (iii) Energy flow and (iv) Cork).

Nutrient cycling. 124. (a) 125. (b)
109. (a) 110. (a) 111. (a) 112. (a) 126. (c) Dachigam National Park is located in
113. (a) 114. (d) 115. (c) 116. (b) Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.
117. (b) 127. (b)
118. (d) Given figure represents castor seed. It is 128. (b) Compensation point is existed in morning
oblong mottled brown endospermic and and evening time. At this time the rate of
dicotyledonous seed. A thick hard but brittle photosynthesis (intake of CO2) and rate of
testa covers the seed. A thin perisperm lies respiration (outcome of CO2) is equal. At
below it and around the kernel. A white oily this point no exchange of CO2 is possible
endosperm lies below the perisperm. It through stomata.
stores food reserve as oil drops and 129. (a)
130. (d) Hydroponics or soilless culture helps to
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proteins. Endosperm is source of castor oil.
understand:
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Embryo lies in the centre of seed. It consists
of a short embryo axis bearing two thin semi- – The essentiality of mineral elements.
– The deficiency symptoms developed due
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transparent oval cotyledons, a small
indistinct plumule and a knob-shaped to non-avaibility of particular nutrient.
_e
radicle. – Toxicity to plant when element is present in
excess.
Aj – Possible interaction among different
elements present in plants.
@
– The role of essential element in the
metabolism of plant.
At
131. (a) Cobalt stimulates growth of legumes such

as beans, clover and alfalfa. This
stimulation of growth by cobalt is due to
ks
its use, not by the plant itself, but by

nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in roots of
oo
119. (d) plants.

(a) Gametophyte of bryophytes bears 132. (d) Thickening of wall is due to deposition of
Eb
protonemal & leafy stage. cellulose, hemi cellulose and pectin.

(b) In gymnosperm female gametophyte is not 133. (b) The absorption of water still occurs when
free living.
e
concentration of outer soil water is more

(c) They are present in Marchantia or which
or
than root hair cell sap.

is a bryophyte. 134. (b) Cytokinin are usually amino purine so they
(d) Origin of seed habit started in pteridophyte
M
resemble nucleic acids in structural aspects.

Selaginella. 135. (c) 136. (b)
120. (b) 121. (b) 137. (d) Vestigial organs are those organs which are
122. (b) Raceme is a typical racemose inflorescence present in reduced form and do not perform
and is characterised by indetermiante any function in the body. These organs
growth of peducle and acropetal are believed to be remnants of organs which
succession of flowers, i.e., older flower at were complete and functional in their
the base and younger at th apex. ancestors. Human body has been described
123. (b) The common bottle cork is the product of
to possess about 90 vestigial organs such
phellogen. Phellogen produces cork or
as nictitating membrane, vermiform
phellem on the outer side. It consists of
dead and compactly arranged rectangular appendix, caudal vertebrae, third molars etc.
cells that possess suberised cells walls. The Vestigial organs in animals include wings
cork cells contain tannins. Hence, they og flightless birds such as kiwi, ostrich, etc.
appear brown or dark brown in colour. The and pevic girdles of pythons, etc.
cork cells of some plants are filled with air
e.g., Quercus suber (Cork Oak or Bottle
138. (b) II of meiosis II begins with simultaneous

139. (b) Long term intake of alcohol causes damage splitting of the centromere of each
to liver which is known as cirrhosis of liver chromosome allowing them to move
with continued alcohol intake, there is towards opposite poles of the cell.
destruction of hepatocytes and fibroblasts 150. (b) 151. (a) 152. (d) 153. (c)
(cell which form fibres) and stimulates of 154. (c) Saccharomyces cervisiae is a yeast used
collagen protein formation. in making bread (Baker’s yeast) and
140. (b) commercial production of ethanol.
141. (a) Yoghurt (yogurt) is produced by curdling Paramecium & Plasmodium are of animal
milk with the help of Streptococcus kingdom while pencillium is a fungi. Lichen
thermophilus an d Lactobacillus is composite organism formed from the
bulgaricus. The temperature is maintained symbiotic association of an algae and a
at about 45°C (40° – 46°C) for four hours. It fungus. Nostoc & Anabaena are examples
s
has a flavour of lactic acid and of kingdom monera.
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acetaldehyde. 155. (b)
156. (a) Animals display four different grades of
bo
142. (a) 143. (c)
144. (d) Triangular age pyramid has high proportion organization. (a) Protoplasmic grade found
in protozoans. (b) Cellular grade is the
_e
of pre-reproductive individuals, moderate
number of reproductive individuals and characteristic of sponges and mesozoans
fewer post-reproductive individuals. It Aj in a sponge, cells exhibit division of labour
represents young or rapidly growing for performing specializing functions. (c)
@
population. Tissue grade is of two types : Cell-tissue
In urn-shaped age pyramid, the number of grade is seen in coelenterates as there are
At
reproductive individuals is higher than the cells not only speciallized for different
number of pre-reproductive individuals. It functions but also certain similar cells
gather together to form tissue as well.
ks
represents declining or diminishing

population. Tissue-organ grade appears in flatworms
oo
In bell-shaped age pyramid, the number of (Platyhelminthes) with arrangement of

pre-reproductive and reproductive tissues to form organs. (d) In organ system
Eb
individuals is almost equal. Post level of organisation, organs are joined in a

reproductive individuals are comparatively system to perform basic functions. It is
fewer. It represents stable or stationary found in higher invertebrates and all
e
population where growth rate is nearly zero. vertebrates.

or
145. (d) 146. (a) 157. (a) 158. (b) 159. (a)
M
147. (b) In B–DNA, one turn of the helix has about 160. (b) A and B are restriction endonuclease
10 nucleotides on each strand of DNA. A because same restriction enzyme cuts both
turn occupies a distance of about 3.4 nm foreign DNA and vector DNA at specific
(34Å or 3.4 × 10–9 m) so that adjacent point. C is DNA ligase which joins foreign
nucleotides or their bases are separated by DNA to vector DNA. The newly formed
a space of about 0.34 nm (0.34 × 10–9 m recombinant DNA is transformed in bacteria
or 3.4 Å). and the bacterial cells are allowed to divide.
148. (d) 161. (a)
149. (d) During anaphase of mitosis, each 162. (b) Biowar or biological war or bioterrorism is
chromosome arranged at metaphase plate the development of biological weapons
is split and two daughter chromatids are against people, their crops and animals.
formed. Centromeres split and chromatids 163. (c) 164. (d) 165. (d) 166. (c)
move to opposite poles. During anaphase I 167. (b) 168. (a)
of meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes 169. (c) Endocrine glands lack ducts and pass their
separate, while sister chromatids remain secretions into the surrounding blood for
associated at their centromeres. Anaphase transport to the site of action. They are also
EBD_7205
MT-284 NEET
called the ductless glands. Their secretions small cut in the abdomen or through vagina.
are known as hormones. It is very effective method but reversibility
170. (d) is very poor.
171. (c) Haematuria is the presence of blood cells 178. (c) Blastocyst is a thin-walled hollow structure
in urine. in early embryonic development that
contains a cluster of cells called the inner
172. (d) 173. (d)
cell mass from which the embryo arises. The
174. (c) Respiratory rhythm centre is a specialised outer layer of cells gives rise to the placenta
centre present in the medulla of the brain and other supporting tissues needed for
which is primarily responsible for the fetal development within the uterus while
regulation of respiration. A chemosensitive the inner cell mass cells give rise to the
area situated adjacent to the rythm centre tissues of the body. The blastocyst reaches
is highly sensitive to changes in CO2 and the womb (uterus) around day 5, and
s
hydrogen ion concentrations in blood. implants into the uterine wall on about day 6.
ok
Increase in CO2 and H+ ions stimulate this 179. (a) Preformed antibodies need to be injected
centre, which in turn stimulate the rhythm to treat the bite by a viper snake. It is also a
bo
centre to make necessary adjustments in type of immunization which is called as
the respiratory process by which these passive immunization.
_e
substances can be eliminated. Antibodies, produced by B-cells, are
typically made of basic structural units—
175. (a) Aj each with two large heavy chains and two
176. (c) mRNA has some additional sequences that small light chains. B cells differentiate into
@
are not translated and are referred as plasma cells that secrete antibodies.
untranslated regions (UTRS). The UTRS are Antibodies are proteins that bind to specific
present at both 5'-end (before start codon)
At
antigens and mark them for destruction by,

and at 3'-end (after stop codon). They are for example, marking them more
required for efficient translation process. recognizable to phagocytic cells. Rejection
ks
177. (c) The figure shows the tubectomy. This is a of a kidney graft is not a function of B
surgical method to prevent pregnancy in lymphocyte.
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women. In tubectomy small part of the 180. (a)

fallopian tube is removed or tied through a
Eb
e
or
M

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4. Mock Test - 4 MT-51–66

5. Mock Test - 5 MT-67–83

6. Mock Test - 6 MT-84–100

7. Mock Test - 7 MT-101–117

8. Mock Test - 8 MT-118–134

9. Mock Test - 9 MT-135–152

10. Mock Test - 10 MT-153–170

1. Mock Test - 1 MT-171–183

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6. Mock Test - 6 MT-230–242

7. Mock Test - 7 MT-243–253

8. Mock Test - 8 MT-254–264

9. Mock Test - 9 MT-265–274

10. Mock Test - 10 MT-275–284

2 Motion in a Straight Line 2 4 2 3 2 2 2 0 1 1 1 1

5 Work, Energy and Power 1 2 4 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 4 1

6 System of Particles and Rotational 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 3

10 Thermal Properties of Matter 2 2 2 2 0

17 Moving Charges and Magnetism 4 3 1 0 2 2 3 2 2 3 3 2

18 Magnetism and Matter 1 0 2 2 2 1 1 1 0 1 1 1

20 Alternating Current and EM Waves 1 1 1 1 6 1 2 2 2 3 3 2

21 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 2 2 0 2 4 5 2 2 2 3 4 2

23 Dual Nature of Radiation and 3 4 3 3 8 3 2 2 2 2 2 2

20 The d and f-Block 2 0 2 2 2 1 3 5 5 2 2 2

21 Neural Control and Coordination 3 4 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 3

Mock Test -1 MT-1

• Biology (360 marks) :

(c) in the ratio of the difference in the square

(a) [M L T ], [M0 L0 T–1]

6. The work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two

(a) depend upon the density of the surface 1 3q

charged particle 1 through a rectangular region

direction of particles 2, 3 and 4 ?

are, respectively Top

(a) 8.1, 0.67 (b) 8.1, 1.2

Mock Test -1 MT-3

a 24. A large number of liquid drops each of radius r

45º of liquid T, density r)

distance between each plate is d, the net 4T æ 1 1 ö 6T æ 1 1 ö

e0 A 7e 0 A 25. The path difference between the two waves :

19. A plane wave of wavelength 6250 Å is incident æ 2px ö

28. A body of mass 10 kg and velocity 10 m/s (c) 90 V (d) 100 V

of electromagnetic wave are oriented along

3 18 (b) the same direction but have a phase

(c) mutually perpendicular directions and are

proportional to the square of the distance ®

Mock Test -1 MT-5

35. The counting rate observed from a radioactive 41. In a transistor

39. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When

to be 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are velocity 4

(a) 18 cm, 2 cm (b) 11 cm, 9 cm (c) 2 A D

40. If two soap bubbles of different radii are 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

49. In the extraction of Cu, the metal is formed in the

(c) 10.0 (d) 28.2

On mercuration-demercuration produces the