Badly Phrased, Contradictory, Doubtful or Wrong Questions

Ground DME responders respond at a frequency:

a) the same as the interrogation signal

b) 63 MHz greater than interrogation frequency
c) 63 MHz lower than interrogation frequency
d) 63 MHz different from interrogation frequency, either above or below

b) marked correct whereas (d) seems to be correct. (for exam id, there seems to be no other
similar to this)

At a height of 5,000 feet you might expect to receive a VHF signal, from a transmitter at
sea level, at a range of:

a) 88,4 nm
b) 88,4 km
c) 70,7 nm
d) 200 km

a)

An aircraft, on a heading of 180oM is on a bearing of 270oM from a VOR. The bearing

you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right
deviation needle is:

a) 360
b) 270
c) 090
d) 180

c) marked correct whereas both (c) and (b) can be correct.

If you correctly tuned in a VOR situated to your east, your RMI should read ___ and your
OBS would read ___

a) 000; 000 with needle central and TO indicated

b) 090; 090 with needle central and FROM indicated
c) 000; 000 with needle central and FROM indicated
d) 090; 090 with needle central and TO indicated

c) marked correct whereas (d) seems to be correct.

An aircraft carrying out a 3o glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in ground

speed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this
change in ground speed on the aircrafts rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:

a) 150 FT/MIN
b) 250 FT/MIN
c) 50 FT/MIN
d) 100 FT/MIN

c) marked correct whereas (a) is correct (for exam id, the unique part is FT/MIN)

On a 3 degree Glide Path.

Rate of Descent = Ground Speed x 5

AT 150 kts (150 x 5) = 750

AT 120 kts (120 x 5) = 600

The difference is 150 not 50

On Glide Paths other than 3 degrees:

Rate of Descent = Ground Speed x 5 x (Glide Path/3)

Another similar question marked correctly is:

An aircraft on a 3o ILS approach is flying a ground speed of 150 knots. At the outer marker
(4.5 nm from the threshold) the speed must be reduced to 120 knots. The ROD should be
reduced by:

a) 120 fpm
b) 150 fpm
c) 170 fpm
d) 190 fpm

b) correct and marked correct.

On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?

a) Same frequency as the localiser

b) 75 MHz
c) Same frequency as the glide path
d) 3000 Hz

d) marked correct whereas (b) is correct.

All ILS marker beacons transmit on the same carrier wave frequency of 75Mhz. The
amplitude modulation superimposed on that carrier that is different for the three markers.
Outer marker 400Hz AM, Middle marker 1300Hz AM, Inner marker 3000Hz AM.

For reliable navigation information the approximate coverage of a 3o ILS glide slope is:

a) 0.7o above and below the glide path and 8o either side of the localiser centre line
b) 0.45o from the horizontal to 1.75o above the glide path and 8o either side of the localiser
centre line
c) 1.5o to 5o from the horizontal and 8o either side of the localiser
d) 3o above and below the glide path and 10o either side of the localiser centre line

c) marked correct whereas (b) is correct.

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance
of the phrase "For reliable navigation information the approximate coverage.."

PAR at a military airfield has both azimuth and an elevation element. It must be able to
provide an accuracy within:

a) ±30 feet elevation, ±20 feet azimuth

b) ±30 feet azimuth, ±20 feet elevation
c) ±30 feet elevation and azimuth
d) ±20 feet elevation and azimuth

a) marked correct whereas b) is correct.

With the AWR set at 100 nm range a large cloud appears at 50 nm. If the range is
reduced to 50 nm:

a) The image will decrease in area and remain where it is

b) The image will decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
c) The image will increase in area and move to the bottom of the screen
d) The image will increase in area and move to the top of the screen

b) marked correct whereas (d) seems correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked
question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of the phrase "AWR set at 100 nm".

Other similar questions are:

1) A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the scale
to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:

a) decrease in area and move to the top of the screen

b) increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
c) decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
d) increase in area and move to the top of the screen <-- Marked Correct

A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be
used in:

a) mode C only
b) mode A only
c) all modes
d) mode S

d) marked correct whereas (c) seems correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked
question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance of "4096" twice in the question.

Other similar questions are:

1) The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:

a) A
b) C
c) S
d) All <-- Marked Correct

In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:

a) 7000
b) 7700
c) 7600
d) 7500

d) marked correct, whereas (c) is correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked question
(if it comes in the exam) is that all four answer choices are in digits in the decreasing order
7700, 7600, 7500.

Other similar questions are:

1) What transponder code is selected in the event of radio failure:

a) 7000
b) 7500
c) 7600 <-- Marked Correct
d) 7700

2) The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

a) an emergency
b) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
c) transponder malfunction
d) radio communication failure <-- Marked Correct

3) In special Condition signals, to signify radio failure, which of the following codes should
you select on your transponder?

a) 7700
b) ident
c) 7500
d) 7600 <-- Marked Correct

4) The SSR code for a total radio failure is:

a) A7500
b) A7600 <-- Marked Correct
c) A7500 plus mode C
d) A7600 plus mode C

SSR is not affected by weather clutter because:

a) It uses different frequencies for transmission and reception

b) The wavelength is too short to be reflected from cloud droplets
c) The equipment uses a moving target indicator
d) The frequency used penetrates clouds

d) marked correct whereas (a) is correct. Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if
it comes in the exam) is the phrase "weather clutter" in the question. There is another one
which is correctly marked but it has the phrase "storm clutter" in the question.

Which of the following systems use pulse technique?

a) secondary surveillance radar

b) airborne weather radar
c) distance measuring equipment
d) primary radar

a) marked correct whereas all options use pulse technique.

What is the PRF given 50 micro second pulse width and a range of 30 nm:

a) 1620 pps
b) 810 pps
c) 3240 pps
d) 3086 pps

a) marked correct. There seems to be a typo in the question. With 30nm PRF comes out to
be 2700, however with 50nm it is 1620.

There is another question in the database which is correct:

The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility
in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:

(pps = pulses per second)

a) 610 pps
b) 3240 pps
c) 1620 pps
d) 713 pps

c) is marked correct and is correct.

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the appearance
of the phrase "50 micro second pulse width". The 50 micro second pulse width given in the
question does not affect the maximum range, but will determine the minimum range.

In the approach phase with a two dot lateral deviation HSI display, a one dot deviation
from track would represent:

a) 5 nm
b) 0.5 nm
c) 5°
d) 0.5°

d) marked correct

If its the the RNAV Approach mode, maximum deflection of the CDI typically represents 1.25
NM on either side of the selected course. That makes one dot equal to 0.625 nm. This
questions was deleted from the CQB years ago because they refer to a particular RNAV
installation (no idea which) and have no generally correct answer.

What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot RNAV system in the
approach mode?

a) 10 NM
b) 0.5°
c) 10°
d) 0.5 NM

b) marked correct.

In the RNAV Approach mode, maximum deflection of the CDI typically represents 1.25 NM
on either side of the selected course. That makes one dot equal to 0.625 nm. This questions
was deleted from the CQB years ago because they refer to a particular RNAV installation (no
idea which) and have no generally correct answer.

What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot basic RNAV system in the
en-route mode?

a) 1 NM
b) 5 NM
c) 2 NM
d) 10 NM

b) marked correct

If full scale deflection is 5 nm on one side then one dot should represent 2.5 nm. This
questions was deleted from the CQB years ago because they refer to a particular RNAV
installation (no idea which) and have no generally correct answer.

The principle of operation of LORAN C is:

a) differential range by phase comparison

b) differential range by pulse technique
c) range by pulse technique
d) range by phase comparison

a) marked correct whereas (b) is correct.

Identification of the incorrectly marked question (if it comes in the exam) is the phraseology
of the question which strats with "The principle of operation". Other correctly marked
questions are as under:

1) Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran C navigation
system?

Differential range by phase comparison

Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions
Differential range by pulse technique
Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions
2) Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?

It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range measurement by

phase
It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles; position lines are obtained in
sequence from up to eight ground stations
It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of differential range by pulse
technique
It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received from a minimum of
four ground stations

3) Which statement is most correct?

Loran C creates hyperbolic position lines based on differential range by pulse technique
Loran C creates hyperbolic lines based on a low sweep rate frequency modulated
continuous wave
Loran C creates hyperbolic lines based on an atomic time standard
Loran C creates elliptical lines based on differential range by Doppler

4) Loran C is a navigation system which uses:

differential range measurements

rho/theta measurements
pseudo range measurements
slant range measurements

In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites placed?

a) Geo-stationary
b) Elliptical
c) Circular
d) Pole to pole

b) marked correct whereas (c) is correct.

A geostationary orbit, or Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO), is a circular orbit 35,786

kilometres (22,236 mi) above the Earth's equator and following the direction of the Earth's
rotation. An object in such an orbit has an orbital period equal to the Earth's rotational
period (one sidereal day), and thus appears motionless, at a fixed position in the sky, to
ground observers. Communications satellites and weather satellites are often given
geostationary orbits, so that the satellite antennas that communicate with them do not
have to move to track them, but can be pointed permanently at the position in the sky
where they stay. A geostationary orbit is a particular type of geosynchronous orbit.

The orbital height of geostationary satellites is:

a) 15330 km
b) 20180 km
c) 10898 nm
d) 10313 nm

b) marked correct whereas (b) and (c) are almost the same except the units.

A microwave landing system operates:

a) on one of 200 channels in the band 5030 to 5090 GHz

b) on one of 200 channels in the band 5.03 GHz to 5090 GHz
c) on one of 400 channels in the band 5030 GHz to 5090 GHz
d) on one of 400 channels in the band 5.03 GHz to 5.09 GHz

b) marked correct whereas the correct answer is not given. It should be "one of 200
available channels in band 5031 MHz to 5090.7 MHz or 5.03 GHz to 5.09 GHz or a
combination thereof" It cant be 5090 GHz.

When using a DVOR, the pilot should be aware that the reference and variable signals
are reversed. This:

a) does not affect the VOR indications in any way

b) reverses the indications
c) improves the accuracy
d) improves the range

d) marked correct whereas out of the available options (c) is correct. C is also marked
correct in other databases.

An aircraft travelling at 330 metres a second transmits a signal at 10 GHz to a stationary

receiver. If the aircraft is flying directly towards the receiver and they are approximately at
the same height the received frequency will be:

11 MHz
10,000011 GHz
9,999989 GHz
11 GHz

Doppler Shift (Hz) = Relative velocity (metres per second) / Transmitted wavelength
(metres)

Wavelength = Speed of Sound / Frequency

= 3 x 10^8 / 10 GHz or

= 300,000,000 / 10,000,000,000

= 0.03 meters

Dopler Shift = 330/0.03 = 11,000 Hz

Received frequecy = 10 GHz + 11,000 HZ = 10,000011000 Hz or 10.000011 GHz

A half wave dipole aerial suitable for transmitting an RF signal at 18 MHz should have an
effective length of:

16,67 metres
166,67 metres
83,33 metres
8,33 metres

RF signal at 18 MHz has a wavelength = Speed of sound / frequency

= 3 x 10^8 / 18 MHz

= 16.66 meters

Half wave dipole = 16.66 / 2 = 8.33 meters

The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings from a
ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is: 134 NM

Max theoretical range (in nm) = 1.23 x square root of H1 + 1.23 x square root of H2

H1 = height of the transmitter (in feet above msl)

H2 = height of the receiver (in feet above msl)

The VDF class B bearing is accurate to within: ±5°

Class A: accurate to within +/-2°

Class B: accurate to within +/-5°
Class C: accurate to within +/-10°
Class D: CAP 46 also lists some Class D VDF Stations with an accuracy poorer than even +/-
10°.
 The emission characteristics A3E describe: VHF communications

The BFO is used to make the ident from an A1A NDB audible

N0N = NDB carrier wave

A1A = NDB ident
A2A = Alternative NDB ident

Older systems interrupt the carrier wave (Keying) to send an unmodulated (but also
inaudible) Morse code ident (classified as A1A). User will have also erratic indications while
the signal is interrupted in this type of beacon. To make the unmodulated parts of the signal
audible, ADF equipment incorporates a Beat Frequency Oscillator (BF0). More modern
systems imprint the ident onto the carrier wave by 'keying' an audible, AM signal, in time
with the Morse Code ident (classified A2A).

When receiving an NDB signal on an ADF receiver the BFO can be selected OFF for
the: ident signal on N0NA2A

A long range NDB is likely to transmit on 200 Khz and be classified as A1A

For long range NDBs the most common type is: LF N0N A1A

The accuracy of ADF within the DOC (designated OP coverage) by day is: +/-5 deg

The 95% accuracy for ADF bearings of an NDB by day is: ±7°

The signal to noise ratio for an NDB is 3/1 allowing a maximum error of ±5° on 95% of
occasions during daylight hours only

In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking
accuracy within +/-10° of the published approach track.

The nominal maximum range of an NDB with a transmitter power is 200 watts is: 50 to
60 nm (in another question it is mentioned 40 to 45 NM.
Among the options availale, its always less than 100).

Locators have 15 W power, 10-25 nm range and are N0N A2A

An NDB has a range of 50 nm with a power output of 80 watts: The power required to
increase the range to 75 nm is: 180 Watts

ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers is 190 - 1750 kHz

The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by: phase difference between
a frequency modulated reference signal and an amplitude modulated variable signal.
"ReFerence" has an "F" so it is "F" (Frequency) Modulated. However incase of a doppler
VOR its just the opposite i.e. reference signal is amplitude modulated and variable signal is
frequency modulated.

Concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR: The rotation of the
variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz
amplitude modulation. The rotation is clockwise for a conventional VOR and anticlockwise
for a doppler VOR.

DVOR (doppler vor) improves range

The Declared Operational Coverage of a VOR is: An altitude and range limited by signal
to noise ratio

With regard to the monitoring of a VOR, the monitor will remove the identification or
switch off the VOR transmitter if there is a change of measured bearing greater than: 1
degree

On a 5 dot HSI in the RNAV approach mode (APR RNAV) what does one dot
indicate? 0.25

With VOR/DME basic area navigation, the displacement of the CDI needle
represents: distance off track (eg. 5 dots = 5 nm off track)

When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of one dot from the computed track represents 2
nm

The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following

frequencies: 962-1213 MHz

What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the
same identification? 600m
 A DME that has difficulty obtaining a lock-on stays in search mode but reduces PRF to
max. 60 PPS after 15000 pulse pairs have been transmitted

When in tracking mode, the airborne interrogator operates at: A PRR variable between
24 and 30 pulses per second

How many aircraft will DME accommodate before reaching saturation: 100

The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring
Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return of the airborne receiver
was 2000 micro-second. The slant range from the ground transponder was: 165 NM 2000-
50 / 12.36

ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment
(DME) should not exceed: + or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured. The accuracy
of a DME decreases with increase of range.

A DME which is listed as operating on an 'X' channel is one which: Responds on a

frequency 63 MHz lower than the interrogation frequency

The glidepath beams do not go all the way down to the surface. The lower lobe starts at
0.45 x GP angle and the upper lobe ends at 1.75 x GP angle.

On Glide Paths other than 3 degrees: Rate of Descent = Ground Speed x 5 x (Glide
Path/3)

The coverage of the ILS glide slope with respect to the localiser centreline is: +/- 8 deg to
10 nm

The azimuth and area coverage of a Cat I ILS localiser is: 35° at 17 nm, 10° at 25 nm

The upper limit of the vertical coverage of the localiser must be: not less than 7° above
the horizontal (drawn from the localiser)

Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is 0.7° above or below
the correct glide path

All ILS marker beacons transmit on the same carrier wave frequency of 75Mhz. The
amplitude modulation superimposed on that carrier that is different for the three markers.
Outer marker 400Hz AM, Middle marker 1300Hz AM, Inner marker 3000Hz AM.

An airway marker and an ILS inner marker carry the same modulation
 The emission characteristics of the ILS and a typical localiser frequency are: A8W110.30
MHz

An ILS category II ground installation is one that is capable of providing guidance to a

height of: 15m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold. A category III ILS system
provides accurate guidance down to: the surface of the runway.

MLS Coverage: The azimuth limits of coverage are 40° left or right of the centreline out
to a maximum of 20nm. Elevation limits are from 0.9° to 20° from the horizontal, up to
20,000 ft and out to 20NM. DME/P coverage goes out to 22NM.

MLS is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not
possible to use an ILS.

MLS operates on one of 200 channels in the band 5.03 GHz to 5.09 GHz (SHF band). The
principle of operation is time referenced scanning beams.

PRP = 1/PRF

Max Radar Range = C / 2 x PRF and Min Radar Range = C x Pulse Length / 2

If a radar has a beam width of 3° and a pulse length of 4 micro seconds, the target
azimuth resolution at a range of 60 NM will be approximately:

3nm Use 1 in 60 rule.

Pulse length = cycles x wavelength

An SRA may be flown to: 2.0 nm using QFE unless the pilot advises the controller the
approach is to be flown on QNH

A high resolution surveillance radar will be terminated at a range from touchdown of:
0.5 nm

Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates in SHF band with RPM of 60 and sometimes
picks up the aircraft type.

An area surveillance radar is most likely to use a frequency of: 600 Mhz

The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is
approximately: 300 nm
 What is a typical range for an EN-route surveillance radar (RSR)? "Up to 250 nm"

What is the typical range for a Terminal Area surveillance Radar (TAR)? "80 NM"

The PAR must be capable of providing detection to a range of 9NM up to an elevation of

7° within 10° (either side) of the runway centre line (20° in total).

Weather radar operates between 9 GHz and 10 GHz in the SHF band. A frequency of 9
GHZ gives a wavelength of 3cm.

In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a fan shaped beam (cosec^2
beam) effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range

In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in Mapping mode enables: scanning of a
large ground zone producing echoes whose signals are practically independent of distance

Calculating cloud height: (Tilt - Half of Beam Width) x 100 x Range in NM

An airborne weather radar unit transmits a 5o beam from a parabolic dish aerial
reflector assembly. If the wavelength is 4 cm, the diameter of the dish is 56 cm: Beam width
= 70 x Wavelength / Antenna Diameter

Surveillance Radar (SSR) frequency: Interrogation 1030 MHz, Response 1090 MHz

Conspicuity codes are for aircraft which have not been allocated a transponder setting.
It is 7000 for aircraft operating within UK airspace and is 2000 for aircraft coming into UK
airspace from another FIR.

EFIS Colour code rules:

Green: Selected or Engaged Modes

White or Magenta: Turbulence

White: Current Data and Values, Downpath waypoints, present track line, aircraft symbol,
range arcs.

Cyan: Off Route waypoint, sky.

Questions on GNSS

In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term inclination denotes
the angle between the:
orbital plane and the equatorial plane
horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite
orbital plane and the earth's axis
horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite

What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellites orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS
constellation?

55°
45°
35°
65°

The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:

6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a
geostationary orbital plane 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane
6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane

An all in view satellite navigation receiver is one which:

monitors all 24 satellites

tracks selected satellites
selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four
tracks the closest satellites

In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, All in View is a term used
when a receiver:

is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with the best
geometric coverage
is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost signal with
another already being monitored
is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellites simultaneously
requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes
B

How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the
received signals belongs to which satellite?

Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency

The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this
information with the calculated positions of the satellites
Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo
Random Noise code

Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is
used for the:

recognition of Selective Availability (SA)

fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites
assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellite
correction of receiver clock error

The orbiting satellites transmit accurately timed radio signals modulated on the L1
frequency. The digital signals contain a unique satellite identifier and a timing message. This
unique navigational signal repeats every millisecond and is called the pseudo random noise
(PRN) code. The receiving equipment uses its internal electronic clock to measure how long
the message has been in transit for and converts the time delay into a distance from the
satellite (a sphere of range).

Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate
NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?

3 satellites with an azimuth of 120o from each other and an elevation of 45° above the
horizon
3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120° from each other
together with a fourth directly overhead
4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low elevation above the horizon
4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the
horizon

B
 To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires 6 SVs.

The receiver normally tracks four satellites to give a 3D fix. Every twenty seconds data from
one of the four satellites is replaced by data from a fifth. If the position changes either the
satellite that was rejected or the new one is in error. By continuously sampling the satellites
a faulty one can be identified. This means that whereas a 2D fix normally requires 3
satellites and a 3D fix requires four, when RAIM is monitoring the navigation solution four
satellites are needed for a 2D fix and requires five to monitor a 3D fix. If an error is found a
further satellite must be available for RAIM to continue to function. So the ideal is to have
two 'spare' over and above the minimum needed for a fix.

Without RAIM Monitoring, number of satellites required for 2D Fix = 3 and for a 3D Fix = 4.

With RAIM Monitoring, number of satellites required for 2D Fix = 4 and for a 3D Fix = 5.

With RAIM Monitoring and with one reduntant satellite, number of satellites required for
2D Fix = 5 and for a 3D Fix = 6.

Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms
part of the so called Navigation Message transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?

Time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix (Selective Availability SA)
Almanac data; satellite status information
Data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data
Time; position of the satellites

The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is:

multiplex
multi-channel
sequential
fast multiplex

The skysearch carried out by a GNSS receiver:

is done prior to each fix

is done when the receiver position is in error
involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before determining
which satellites are in view
is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stations to check the accuracy of the satellite
data
B

Airborne GNSS receivers are protected from the effects of selective availability (SA) by:

warning transmitted on the satellite Nav message

use of RAIM techniques
warning transmitted from the ground segment
NOTAMS

The azimuth and elevation of the satellites is:

determined by the satellite and transmitted to the receiver

determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac data
transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac

The function of the receiver in the GNSS user segment is to:

Interrogate the satellites to determine range

Track the satellites to calculate time
Track the satellites to calculate range
Determine position and assess the accuracy of that position

The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVs includes:

satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information

satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error
position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error
ionospheric propagation information, X, Y and Z co-ordinates and corrections, satellite clock
time and error

If, during a manoeuvre, a satellite being used for position fixing is shadowed by the wing,
the effect on position will be:

none
the position accuracy can be degraded
another satellite will be selected, so there will be no degradation of position
The GPS will maintain lock using reflections of the signals from the fuselage

Which of the following will cause the greatest GPS error:

Ephemeris error
Satellite clock error
Ionospheric error
Latitude error

The GNSS receiver determines the aeroplane velocity by:

Integrating measured change of position with time

Determining satellite/aeroplane relative velocities from Doppler shift measurements
Determining the Doppler shift of the receiver frequency
Determining the rate of change of pseudo ranges

In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to
receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?

25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)

12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)
12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)
24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)

In addition to the PRN code the satellite also sends a data stream called the NAV message
with correction factors and information to update the receiver almanac. This is
superimposed on the L1 frequency in five sub-frames. Each set of five sub-frames make up a
frame lasting 30 seconds. There are 25 frames in all. To send the entire navigation message
takes a total of 12.5 minutes (25 x 30)

In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

differentiate between satellites

pass satgellite ephemeris information
pass satellite time and ephemeris information
pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information
A

In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:

is the biggest part of the total error, it cannot be corrected

is corrected by using signals from four satellites
can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocks
is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in the satellites

In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

reduce ionospheric and tropospheric errors

determine satellite range
eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris errors
remove recediver clock error

The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a pseudo-range

because:

it is measured using pseudo-random codes

it includes receiver clock error
satellite and receiver are continually moving in relation to each other
it is measured against idealised Keplerian orbits

NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by:

regular auto-synchronisation with the satellite clocks

adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error
synchronisation with the satellite clocks on initialisation
having an appropriate atomic time standard within the receiver

In the NAV message, the "ephemeris" refers to the exact:

Position and orbit of all the satellites in the constellation

Position and orbit of all the satellites in the same orbit
Position and orbit of the observed satellite
The observed satellite clock corrections
C

What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation

System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation? 3

What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an

accurate independent 3-D position fix? 4

How many GPS satellites must be in view of a receiver in order to resolve clock bias? 3

The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:

determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the
speed of light
calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies
calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite
and the receiver
determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed of
light

Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights
under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?

GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude

The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude
GPS altitude
Barometric altitude

The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GPS is:

above mean sea level

above ground level
above the WGS84 ellipsoid
pressure altitude

Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC)
and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?

NNSS-Transit
NAVSTAR/GPS
COSPAS-SARSAT
GLONASS

What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?

To control the use of the satellites by unauthorised users

To monitor the satellites in orbit
To maintain the satellites in orbit
Degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorised users

How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?

12 days
Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)
Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)
365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit
C

The satellites orbit the earth at a height of 20,200 km once every twelve hours.

Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the
Satellite- Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS)?

Satelliite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation; satellite clock

Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation
Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation
Satellite mutual interference; frequency drift; satellite to ground time lag

The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are:

space, control, user

space, control, ground
space, control, air
space, ground, air
A

During flight using NAVSTAR/GPS and conventional navigation systems, you see a large
error between the positions given by the systems. The action you should take is:

continue the flight in VMC

continue using the conventional systems
continue using the GPS
switch off the faulty system after determining which one is in error

Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver
comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?

Ionospheric
Multipath
Tropospheric
Receiver noise

In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?

EHF
VHF
UHF
SHF

L1 is 1575.42 MHz and L2 is 1227.6 MHz

Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most
accurate position fixes in air navigation?

GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT

NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS

Which one of the following is an advantage of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a
global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?

The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases overall
accuracy
The activation of Selective Availability can be recognised by the INS
The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS
The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy

The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is

an ellipsoid
a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
a sphere
a geoid

GPS satellite transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which
of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?

L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)

L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)
L1-precise (P)
L2-selected availability (S/A)

The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

select appropriate satellites automatically to track the signals and to measure the time
taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver
transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the
satellite
to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the time
monitor the orbital planes of the satellites

What are the basic elements transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?

i. offset of the satellite clock from GMT

ii. edphemeris data
iii. health data
iv. ionospheric delays

v. solar activity

The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment:

provides X, Y and Y co-ordinates and monitoring of the accuracy of the satellite data
provides X. Y, Z and T co-ordinates and the constellation data
monitors the accuracy of the satellite data and provides system time
provides geographic position and UTC

Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver
tracking signals from 4 different satellites?

Latitude, longitude and altitude

Latitude and longitude
Latitude, longitude and time
Latitude, longitude, altitude and time

The height of the GPS Navstar system above the earth in km is: 20,200 Km

The GPS satellite navigation system suffers from the following errors:

Interference from other satellites, clock bias, time lag

Ephemeris, clock bias, propogation
Ephemeris, interference from other satellites, propagation
Ephemeris, time lag, interference from other satellites

Rule out interference from other satellites

The GPS satellite navigation system operates by:

measuring the time for the signal to travel to the receiver and back
measuring the time for the signal to reach the receiver
phase comparison
measuring the phase of the incoming signal

In order for a GPS receiver to conduct RAIM it must use a minimum of:

Three satellites plus a barometric input

Four satellites
Five satellites
Five satellites plus a barometric input

Assuming a 3D Fix

Which GPS frequencies are available for commercial air transport?

1227.6 MHz only

1575.42 MHz only
1227.6 MHz and 1575.42 MHz
1227.6 MHz or 1575.42 MHz

1227.6 is L2 for military

In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:

timing the period that is taken for a satellites transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver
the aircrafts receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a
known position
timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to
reach and return from a satellite in a known position
the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a
minimum number of satellites

Unauthorised civilian users of NAVSTAR/GPS can access: C/A Code

How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the
elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?

The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation
message
It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites
The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code
The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the antenna

In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, Search the Sky is a:

continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for satellites rising
above the horizon
procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite data
available
continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites
procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming operational

How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR/GPS satellite? 4

The timing of each satellite's transmissions is controlled by four on board atomic clocks. This
in turn is monitored by atomic clocks maintained by the Master Control Station (MCS).

What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? Atomic

Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the
LAAS (local area augmentation system) of the satellite navigation system of the satellite
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?

A LAAS corrects the position of the aircraft by relaying the information via a geo-stationary
satellite
The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the aircraft position in relation
to the LAAS ground reference station
A LAAS cannot correct for satellite timing and orbital position error
The closer the receiver is to a LAAS ground reference station, the more accurate is the
aircraft position fix

The visibility of GPS satellites is:

dependent on the location of the user

greatest at the equator
greatest at the poles
the same at all points on and close to the surface of the earth

Where on the Earth would you have the most satellites visible:

At the Equator
At the Poles
It will be the same anywhere on the Earth
Depends on the time of day

The Glonass satellite system differs from the Navstar GPS system in that:

the satellites are at a lower orbital height

it is intended to use less satellites
the orbital paths are at a smaller angle to the plane of the equator
the satellites are geostationary

The satellites fly at a height of approximately 19,100 km, lower than GPS.

On an aeroplane the GNSS receiver aerial should be located: "On top of the fuselage"

In GPS the satellite Nav message is repeated:

Every 12.5 minutes

At a rate of 1 subframe every 12.5 minutes
Every 12.5 seconds
As dictated by the master control station

Each set of five sub-frames make up a frame lasting 30 seconds. There are 25 frames in all.
To send the entire navigation message takes a total of 12.5 minutes (25 x 30).

The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is:

in the fin
on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver
on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
under the fuselage

GALILEO

The European Galileo system will eventually consist of 30 satellites orbiting in three planes,
inclined at an angle of 56 degrees to the equator.
Each near circular orbit will contain nine satellites, plus a spare replacement.
Satellites will fly at an altitude of 23,222 km.
The orbital period will be 14 hours.

GLONASS

Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System

Space Segment
The GLONASS system is similar in operation and design to GPS
24 satellites orbit the earth in 3 orbital planes.
Eight satellites in each orbit equally displaced by 45° of latitude.
The satellites in each plane are each 15° Out of synch with those in the next one so only one
satellite crosses the equator at once, not three together.
The near circular orbits are inclined at an angle of 64.8 degrees to the equator
The satellites fly at a height of approximately 19,100 km, lower than GPS.
Since the orbit is lower the orbital time is also less, 11 hours 15 minutes.

NAVSTAR GPS

The GPS constellation of satellites is broken down into six circular orbital planes.
Each orbital plane is at 55 degrees to the equator.
Each orbital plane consists of four to six satellites.
The satellites orbit the earth at a height of 20,200 km once every twelve hours.
Between five and eight satellites will always be in line of sight range of a receiver at any
position on earth at any one time.
The original GPS constellation (notional constellation) had 24 satellites.
The current constellation has 31.
The satellites are called the space segment.
Satellite ground tracks only go up to 55° North and South but because of their height,
coverage is global.
A satellite is not considered "visible" until it is more than 5° above the horizon.
This is called the mask angle.
L1 is 1575.42 MHz
L2 is 1227.6 MHz

GNSS - Global Navigation Satellite System

A satellite navigation or SAT NAV system is a system of satellites that provide autonomous
geo-spatial positioning with global coverage. It allows small electronic receivers to
determine their location (longitude, latitude, and altitude) to within a few metres using time
signals transmitted along a line-of-sight by radio from satellites. A satellite navigation
system with global coverage may be termed a global navigation satellite system or GNSS.

There are currently two systems in operation.

One is operated by the United States Department of Defence (DoD) and is known as the
Navstar Global Positioning System (GPS) which uses a notional constellation of twenty four
satellites.

The second is the Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS) operated by the
Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS), formerly the Soviet Union, and is similar to that
operated by the US.

A third system underway is the European Galileo.

Questions on FMC Navigation

Positions on a Flight Management Computer are updated with information from:

DME/VOR
DME/DME or DME/VOR
DME/DME
VOR/ADF

In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by the
Flight Management Computer (FMC) be correct?

When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from the actual take-off
time
When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GS
When the FMC positions and GS are accurate
When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising Mach number is
equal to the FMC calculated Mach number

Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between
2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?

Elapsed time on route

ETD
ATA
ETO

The Estimated Time of Overflight (ETO) is an event in the future following the passing of the
previous Actual Time of Departure (ATD) or Actual Time of Overflight (ATO) and may
therefore be used to calculate the progress of the flight between the last event and the next
event.

What is the period of validity of the navigational database for a Flight DATA Storage
Unit? "28 Days"

The FMC position is:

the average of the IRS positions

the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions
computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions
computer generated from the radio navigation positions

The ETA generated by the FMS will be most accurate:

when the forecast W/V equals the actual W/V and the FMS calculated Mach No. equals the
actual Mach No.
If the ground speed and position are accurate
If the forecast W/V at take-off is entered
If the ground speed is correct and the take-off time has been entered

In an Electronic flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation is

provided by:

Inertial Reference Systems, Aircraft Mapping Radar, Navigation radios

Navigation radios, Flight Management Computer, Inertial Reference Systems
Flight Management Computer, Aircraft Mapping Radar, Navigation radios
Inertial Reference Systems, Navigation radios, True airspeed and drift inputs

The databases on a FMC:

can be read or written on to at any time

can be modified by the pilot
are read only
are updated once every 28 weeks

The FMS database can be:

altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates

read and altered by the pilots
only read by the pilots
altered by the pilots every 28 days

The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that:

the main navigation database of the FMC is created by the pilot

the pilot is able to modify the main navigation database in the FMC between two updates
the main navigation database of the FMC is valid for one year
the main navigation database is read only to the pilot

the navigation database in the FMC:

is read only for the pilots

can be modified by the pilots to meet route requirements
can be amended by the pilots to update navigational data
is inaccessible to the flight crew

The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way that the
pilot can:

modify the database every 28 days

only read the database
insert navigation data between two updates
read and write at any time in database

Which of the following can be input manually to the FMC using a maximum of 5
alphanumerics?

Waypoints, latitude and longitude, SIDs and STARs

ICAO aerodrome designators, navigation facilities, SIDs and STARs
Waypoints, airways designators, latitude and longitude
Navigation facilities, reporting points, airways designators

Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the
visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?

Flight Control Computer

Flight Management Computer
Symbol Generator
Navigation database

The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation

Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:

indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown

corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns
indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection
represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it coincides with the desired
track, wind influence is compensated for

When is the IRS position updated:

at VOR beacons on route by the pilots

continuously by the FMC
at significant waypoints only
on the ground only

FMC position is updated inflight not the IRS position

When is the FMS position likely to be least accurate?

TOD
TOC
Just after take-off
On final approach
A

With regard to FMS, what are the possible modes of operation for dual FMC
installations?

Dual
Dual and single
Dual, independent, and single
None of the above

What is Back Up FMS navigation mode?

When only one FMS is operational

When one FMS is a Master and the other is a Slave
When one FMS operates independently from the other
When the FMC is suffering from some failure but there is still lmited FMS function

The FMS is composed of:

the command display unit and the flight management computer

the automatic flight control system and the power management controls system
the flight management computer only
the EFIS and EICAM displays

In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS),
data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:

auto flight computers

air data computer
navigation database
performance database

In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS),
data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the:

navigation database
air data computer
performance database
auto flight computers

In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS),
data relating to flight plans is stored in the:

air data database

navigation database
performance database
auto flight database

Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when it is possible to change the route
in the active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?

Only once the aircraft is airborne

Only before take-off
Only before the flight plan is activated
At any time before take-off and throughout the flight

The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialisation will include:

ETD, aircraft position, and planned route

Planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway
Navigation database, aircraft position and departure aerodrome
Departure runway, planned route and ETD

When midway between two waypoints how can the pilot best check the progress of the
aircraft:

by using the ATD at the previous waypoint

by using the computed ETA for the next waypoint
by using the ATA at the previous waypoint
by using the ETA at the destination

Questions on EFIS Navigation

 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured:

magenta
flashing red
white or magenta
high colour gradient

colour code rules, features displayed in green on an electronic Flight Instrument System
(EFIS) indicate:

engaged modes
cautions, abnormal sources
the earth
the ILS deviation point

colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS) a selected heading is
coloured:

white
green
magenta
yellow

colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and
values are coloured:

green
white
magenta
yellow

colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument

Systems (EFIS), indicate:

the sky
engaged modes
the flight director bar(s)
flight envelope and system limits
A

colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS) increasing intensity of
precipitation are coloured in the order: "green, amber/yellow, red, magenta"

The colour recommended for armed AFCS modes is:

green
yellow
white
magenta

the colour red is used on an EFIS screen for:

(i) Warnings
(ii) Flight envelope and system limits
(iii) Cautions, abnormal sources
(iv) Scales and associated figures

(i) and (ii) Correct

In colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight

Instrument System (EFIS) indicate:

cautions, abnormal sources

flight envelope and system limits
warnings
engaged modes

colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and values
are coloured:

red
cyan
white
magenta

C
 The colour recommended for the active route is:

cyan
magenta
green
amber

colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are
coloured:

white
green
magenta
amber/yellow

The recommended colour for a downpath waypoint is:

white
green
magenta
cyan

The colour for the present track line in the expanded mode is:

white
green
magenta
cyan

The range arcs in the expanded and map modes are recommended to be
coloured: White

The recommended colour for an off route waypoint is: Cyan

The recommended colour for the aircraft symbol is: White

Refer to figure. What wind velocity is indicated?
030° (M) / 20 KT
255° (M) / 20 KT
285° (M) / 20 KT
105° (M) / 20 KT

Watch out the track/heading before jumping to conclusion.

What drift is being experienced?

20° Right
20° Left
12° Right
8° Left

Track is 272 and Heading is 280

What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?

097° (T)
170° (M)
140° (M)
280° (T)

Its the PLAN mode as indicated by the True North arrow in lower right corner of the screen.
Dont confuse it with Magnetic TRK 073 shown at the top.

In the NAV and EXP NAV modes one dot on the EHSI represents:
2 nm
2°
5 nm
5°

Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all Electronic Horizontal Situation

Indicator (EHSI) screen modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) WITH THE
EXCEPTION OF:

EXP VOR/ILS, PLAN and MAP

FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN
FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN
FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP

Which EHSI modes cannot show AWR information:

FULL VOR/ILS/NAV and MAP

PLAN, CTR MAP and EXP VOR/ILS/NAV
CTR MAP and PLAN
PLAN and FULL VOR/ILS/NAV

The track line on an EFIS display indicates:

that a manual track has been selected

that a manual heading has been selected
the actual aircraft track over the ground, which will coincide with the aircraft heading when
there is zero drift
the aircraft actual track which will coincide with the planned track when there is zero drift

On the B737-400 EHSI what happens if the selected VOR fails?

the display blanks and a fail warning appears

the deviation bar is removed
a fail flag is displayed alongside the display bar
the display flashes

B
 If range indications are screen/hidden, this means:

The transponder is out of service

The aeroplane is out of range
The aeroplane's equipment is in search mode
The DME unit is in memory mode

Questions on RNAV (Area Navigation)

Which of the following lists information required to input a way point or Phantom
Station into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?

Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the way point or Phantom Station
Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the way point or Phantom Station
Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the way point or Phantom Station
Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the way point or Phantom Station

The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:

VOR/DME
TACAN
VOR
Airport

The colour of a VORTAC which is not in use by the FMC is: CYAN

ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits
aircraft operation on any desired flight path:

within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the
capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these
outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with
a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with
a minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids

Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of: +/- 5 NM or better for 95% of the flight
time.

Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of: "±1.0nm for 95% of the
flight time"

Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?

It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme

It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance
indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav- Mode and
continues working by memory in case one of the two necessary stations goes off the air
It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches

In an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give the most accurate
position?
GPS/rho
Rho/theta
Rho/rho
GPS/theta

Rho is the Greek letter R, which stands for range. Theta is an angle. Thus a a rho/rho fix is
made from two ranges (e.g. DME/DME) and a rho/theta fix is a fix made from a range and
an angle (e.g. VOR/DME).

On a 5 dot HSI in the RNAV approach mode (APR RNAV) what does one dot indicate?

0.25 nm
0.5 nm
1.0 nm
2.0 nm

In the RNAV Approach mode, maximum deflection of the CDI typically represents 1.25 NM
on either side of the selected course. That makes one dot equal to 0.25 nm (1.25/5).

The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by:

VOR/DME
twin VOR
twin DME
any of the above

The operation of a 2D RNAV system may be seriously downgraded:

because the computer cannot determine if the aircraft is within the DOC of the
programmed facilities
because the computer cannot determine if the heading and altitude input are in error
because the pilot cannot verify the correct frequency has been selectged
if the selected navigation facility is in excess of about 70 nm

In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR:
has to be positively identified by one of the pilots
does not have to be in range when entered or used
must be in range
does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used

Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based

Area Navigation System Phantom Station:

because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than
180o/360o)
it takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information
when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference
station
when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station when the Phantom Station is out
of range

RNAV routes are:

usually specified by waypoints co-incident with point source aids such as VOR, DME or NDB
facilities
specified by waypoints defined as a position in latitude and longitude based on the WGS 84
system
selected according to TCAS inputs
none of the above are correct

With regard to RNAV, what are hybrid navigation systems?

RNAV systems which use and merge information from a selection of self- contained and
externally referenced navigation system
VOR/DME system
Loran C system
GNSS

What is an example of a self contained RNAV system?

GPS
DME/DME
VOR/DME
INS

With VOR/DME basic area navigation, the displacement of the CDI needle represents:

angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 5o off track)
angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 10o off track)
distance off track (eg. 5 dots = 5 nm off track)
distance off track (eg. 5 dots = 10 nm off track)

Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME bsed Area
Navigation Equipment when using a "Phantom Station" at position "X"?

11 NM
14 NM
8 NM
9 NM

In an FMS, how does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
the pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the VOR/DME Area navigation
control panel
The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own VHF NAV tuner and the system itself
tunes the DME stations providing the best angular position lines
The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned on the aircraft's
normal VHF NAV selector
The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner and it always tunes the
DME stations closest to the aircraft position

On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning
mode?

Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs; TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading
from the aircraft compass
TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass
Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs
TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass; the last computed
W/V

In navigation, dead reckoning (also ded (for deduced) reckoning or DR) is the process of
calculating one's current position by using a previously determined position, or fix, and
advancing that position based upon known or estimated speeds over elapsed time, and
course.

Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system
switch to Dead Reckoning mode?

VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is not receiving information from the Air Data
Computer
VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is receiving neither radial nor distance data
information from VOR/DME stations
VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is not receiving information from the aircraft compass
system
When "DR" is selected by the pilot

Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system
switch to Dead Reckoning mode?

The system is receiving information from only one VOR

The system is receiving information from one VOR and one DME
The system is receiving information from one VOR and two DMEs
The system is receiving information from the two DMEs

i.e. not enough data is being provided.

Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area
Navigation System when tracking inbound to a phantom waypoint?

Wind velocity
Aircraft position in latitude and longitude
Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance
True airspeed; drift angle

When operating in an RNAV mode using multiple DME, inaccuracy can be due to:

Sky wave interference

Mutual interference between the DMEs
Inability to confirm the aircraft is within the DOC of the DMEs because of identification
problems
The DMEs locking onto each other's returns

The range to a required waypoint presented by RNAV system is:

plan range or slant range depending on RNAV settings

plan range
slant range
neither plan range nor slant range.

Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area
Navigation System?

Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance; angular course deviation

Aircraft position in latitude and longitude
Wind velocity
True airspeed; drift angle

A
Questions on RADAR

The main factor which affects the maximum range of a pulse radar is:

the pulse repetition frequency

the size of the radar screen
the frequency of the radar transmission
the aerial system size

The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is
the:

pulse recurrence rate

power output
size of parabolic receiver aerial
height of the transmitter above the ground

What most determines a primary radars ability to accurately determine target range:

Aerial rpm
Beam width
Transmitter power
Pulse length

In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term Pulse Recurrence Rate
(PRR) signifies the:

ratio of pulse period to pulse width

delay after which the process re-starts
the number of cycles per second
number of pulses per second

In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify?

The radar frequency used

The number of revolutions performed by the radar antenna per minute
The number of pulses transmitted per second
The time between each transmission of pulses

The advantages of CW radar systems over pulse radar systems are:

they are more reliable

the transmitter/receiver aerial system is smaller and less complex
there is no minimum range
they offer better long range performance

The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a
pulsed radar is pulse:

repetition rate
amplitude
length
frequency

The main advantage of a slotted scanner is:

reduces side lobes and directs more energy into the main beam
removes the need for azimuth slaving
side lobe suppression
can produce simultaneous map and weather information

For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar
the power output must be increased by a factor of:

2
16
4
8

A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200

pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
135 NM
69 NM
270 NM
27 NM

Max Theoretical Range = c / 2 x PRF

If speed of light = 3 x 10^8 m/s then:

Max range = 3 x 10^8 / 2 x 1200

= 125,000 meters or 67.4 nm

or to get in straight in nautical miles, if speed of light is 162,000 nautical miles/second, then:

Max Theoretical Range = c / 2 x PRF

= 162000 / 2 x 1200 = 67.5 nm

Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used
by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps =
pulses per second)

375 pps
782 pps
308 pps
405 pps

Max Theoretical Range = c / 2 x PRF

Where c = speed of light 3 x 10^8 m/s

If using C as m/s then also convert 200 nm to meters

or use C as 162,000 nautical miles / second

200 = 162000 / 2 PRF

PRF = 405 pps

If the pulse length used in a radar is 4 micro seconds, ignoring receiver recovery time,
the minimum range at which a target can be detected is:

1200 metres
2400 metres
600 metres
0 metres

Minimum range = c x Pulse Length / 2

= 3 x 10^8 x 0.000004 / 2

= 600 meters

The interval in time between the commencement of two consecutive pulses is: "pulse
recurrence period"

A Primary radar operates on the principle of:

transponder interrogation
pulse technique
phase comparison
continuous wave transmission

The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the
(i); the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii)

(i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

(i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output
(i) pulse length (ii) length of the time-base
(i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:

target discrimination
maximum measurable range
beam width
minimum measurable range
D

Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search

radar?

Short pulse length and narrow beam

Long pulse length and wide beam
Long pulse length and narrow beam
Short pulse length and wide beam

The pulse recurrence frequency of a signal having a pulse interval (pulse recurrence
period) of 5 microseconds is:

6 MHz
200 KHz
60 MHz
2000 KHz

A shorter PRP would mean more pulses a second and a higher PRF. If you halve the period
you double the frequency. Expressing this relationship between period and frequency as a
formula we have:

PRP = 1/PRF

or

PRF= 1/PRP

So PRP is the period or time it takes to send and receive one pulse. And PRF is the number
of pulses a second.

Regarding the question, make sure the time is in seconds and not micro seconds. There are
a million micro seconds in a second so divide 5 by a million or move the decimal place six
point to the left to find 5 micro seconds = 0.000005 seconds.

Now PRF = 1/PRP

= 1/0.000005

= 200,000 or 200 KHz

 The beam width from a parabolic reflector aerial is:

dependant on the transmitted pulse length

dependant on the transmitted pulse repetition frequency
dependant on the transmitted pulse repetition interval
dependant on the transmitted frequency

What technique is employed by primary radar employing a single aerial dish:

Pulse technique
Continuous wave
Phase comparison
Pseudo random noise

If a radar has a beam width of 3° and a pulse length of 4 micro seconds, the target
azimuth resolution at a range of 60 NM will be approximately:

4 NM
3 NM
2 NM
1 NM

The size of a target on a primary radar screen is governed in azimuth by i) and in range
by (ii):

(i) Beam width; (ii) Pulse length

(i) Pulse width; (ii) Pulse length
(i) Pulse length; (ii) Beam width
(i) Pulse width; (ii) Beam width

Short range aerodrome radars will have ___ wave lengths:

millimetric
centimetric
decimetric
metric
B

VHF (metric), UHF (decimetric), SHF (centimetric), EHF (milimetric),

Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short ranges:

millimetric pulse
continuous wave primary
centimetric pulse
continuous wave secondary

The definition of a radar display will be best with: "Narrow beam width and narrow
pulse width"

A radar has a PRF of 800 pps. What is the maximum theoretical range and the PRP?

325 nm, 0.0125 micro seconds

325 nm, 1250 micro seconds
187.5 km, 0.0125 micro seconds
187.5 km, 1250 micro seconds

Range = C / 2 x PRF

PRP = 1/800 = 0.00125 seconds or 1250 micro seconds (0.00125 x 1000,000)

Which one of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system when compared
to a primary radar system?

The relatively small ground antenna transmits no side lobes, thus eliminating the danger of
false replies from the airborne transponder
The required power of transmission from the ground equipment is reduced
Possibility of obtaining speed information for aircraft within range
Is not limited to line of sight

An area surveillance radar is most likely to use a frequency of:

350 MHz
600 MHz
100 Hz
150 Hz

If a radar pulse contains 300 cycles of RF energy at a frequency of 600 MHz, the physical
length of the pulse is:

1550 metres
150 metres
1.5 metres
0.15 metres

Wavelength = c / frequency

Wavelength = 0.5 metres

Pulse length = cycles x wavelength

Pulse length = 300 x 0.5 m/cycle = 150 metres

A wavelength of 8.5 mm corresponds to a frequency of:

2833.3 MHz
35294 MHz
3529.4 MHz
28333 MHz

Wavelength = c/.0085 meters

= 3.5294117650

Shift the decimal towards right to leave 6 digits on the right side of decimal (MHz = 000,000)

= 35294.117650

= 35294 Mhz
 To increase the maximum theoretical range of a pulse radar system:

reduce the PRF and increase the power

increase the PRF and reduce the power
reduce the PRF and increase the PRF
maintain the PRF and increase the power

A Moving Target Indicator:

Rejects all moving targets

Is only effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit
Rejects all stationary targets
Is not effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit

A high resolution surveillance radar will be terminated at a range from touchdown of:

0.25 nm
0.5 nm
1 nm
2 nm

In a primary radar system:

the radar is primarily used for range-finding

all radio frequency energy is produced by the radar located at the radar site
the aircraft plays the secondary role, just listening to the radar signals from the ground
radar
the radar is the primary aid for ATC

Why does surface movement radar use a frequency in the SHF band and not EHF?

SHF gives better definition of aircraft type than EHF

EHF is absorbed and scattered by moisture in the air. Switching to SHF reduced the problem
The power requirements of EHF were unsustainable in the UK
EHF is potentially hazardous to personnel on the area. This was completely overcome by
switching to SHF
B

EHF is likely to detect more moisture in the atmosphere

Which of the following types of radar systems are most suited for short range
operation?

Primary continuous wave

Centimetric pulse
Millimetric pulse
Secondary continuous wave

The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is
approximately:

100 NM
200 NM
300 NM
400 NM

What is the range of long range ground radar? 300 nm

What is a typical range for an EN-route surveillance radar (RSR)? "Up to 250 nm"

What is the typical range for a Terminal Area surveillance Radar (TAR)? "80 NM"

Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?

One directional antenna both for transmitting and for receiving

A directional antenna for transmitting, and an omni-directional antenna for receiving
One directional antenna for transmitting and one for receiving
An omni-directional antenna for transmitting, and a directional antenna for receiving

When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic
controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level in
increments of: "100 Feet

In order to be able to penetrate cloud, a primary radar signal must have:

a short pulse length

a high frequency
a long wavelength
a high PRF

In a primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor of: "Beam
width"

In ATC surveillance radar procedures, if primary radar fails but coverage continues to be
provided by SSR:

Full radar control with standard radar separation will be maintained

Non-radar separation standards will be introduced as soon as possible
All radar assistance will be terminated immediately
Radar assistance will be terminated after standard separation has been introduced

The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter

and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies (transmitter; receiver):

1090 MHz; 1090 MHz

1090 MHz; 1030 MHz
1030 MHz; 1090 MHz
1030 MHz; 1030 MHz

Interrogation 1030, response 1090

With SSR, interrogation and response signals:

are separated by 63 MHz

must be set by the pilot but are always 60 MHz apart
are at standard frequencies separated by 60 MHz
are at variable frequencies set by the controller but are always 63 MHz apart
C

With regard to SSR: The interrogator is on the ground and the transponder is in the
aircraft.

The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is: 1030 +/- 0.2 Mhz

The ATC transponder system excluding Mode S contains: two modes, each 4096 codes

With normal SSR mode A coding the aircraft replies by sending back a train of up to 12
pulses contained between 2 framing pulses with:

4096 codes in 4 boxes

2048 codes in 4 boxes
4096 codes in 12 boxes
1096 codes in 8 boxes

The accuracy of SSR height as displayed to the air traffic controller is:

+/- 25 ft
+/- 50 ft
+/- 75 ft
+/- 100 ft

Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?

The frequency is too high

SSR does not use the echo principle
The PRF is jittered
By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns

When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information
transmitted is:

height based on QFE

altitude based on regional QNH
aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
flight level based on 1013.25 hPa

With regard to the advantages of SSR which of the following statements is correct?

Little power is required to effect longish range

No aircraft manoeuvres are necessary for identification
Range, bearing and height can be calculated from reply signals
All of the above

The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:

phase differences
pulses
frequency differences
amplitude differences

The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:

A
C
S
All

Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?

The principle of echo return is not used in secondary radar

The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources

Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to indicate
transponder malfunction? 0000
 With reference to SSR, what code is used to indicate transponder altitude failure? 0000

Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by
aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required? 2000

In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the
aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to: 7500

What transponder code is selected in the event of radio failure: 7600

In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar

(SSR) transponder should be set to: 7700

Which one of the following switch positions should be used when selecting a code on
the Transponder?

NORMAL
OFF
STBY (Standby)
IDENT (Identification)

SSR uses wide aperture aerials to:

reduce side lobe effects

improve bearing discrimination
improve range discrimination
reduce the vertical beam width

SSR, in ATC use: is complementary to primary radar

In the SSR response, the operation of the transponder ident button:

transmits the aeroplanes registration or flight number as a data coded sequence

sends a special pulse after the normal response pulse train
sends a special pulse before the normal response pulse train
sends a special pulse in the X position on the pulse train

An additional identification pulse can be transmitted 4.35 micro seconds after the pulse
train which causes the return on the radar screen to bloom for 25 seconds. This extra pulse
is known as ident or Special Position Identification (SPI).

Data transmission and exchange is conducted in:

Mode A
Mode C
Mode D
Mode S

Garbling is caused by:

an aeroplane's transponder responding to side lobes or reflections of the interrogation

signal
aeroplane is in close proximity responding to the same interrogation
aeroplane at range responding to interrogations from another ATC, SSR
Doppler effect on targets moving radially towards or away from the SSR

If two aircraft are on the same bearing from the ground station and closer together than
1.7NM they may produce overlapping replies to the ground interrogator. This is garbling.

Fruiting is caused by:

Aeroplanes in close proximity responding to the same interrogation

An aeroplane's transponder responding to side lobes or reflctionsof the interrogation signal
Aeroplane at range responding to interrogations from another ATC, SSR
Doppler effect on targets moving radially towards or away from the SSR

FRUIT (False Replies Unsynchronized with Interrogator Transmissions or alternatively False

Replies Unsynchronized In Time). If aircraft are in range of two ground interrogators they
may reply to both. The received replies may be for the wrong station, this is called fruiting.
 A mode S transponder will:

not respond to interrogations made on mode A

respond normally to mode A/C interrogations
respond to mode A interrogations but not mode C
not respond to mode A/C as it is on the different frequency

Following the transition to this new configuration both modern Mode S and legacy Mode
A/C transponders will continue to reply to interrogations, as Mode S is backward compatible
- a Mode A/C transponder will respond A/C to a Mode S interrogation.

Why do clouds not appear on secondary radar screens:

Too high a frequency

Too low a frequency
They do not provide an echo by returning signals
The transmit and receive signals are on different frequencies

In SSR, the interrogations use different modes. If altitude reporting is required, the
aeroplane's transponder should be set to ALT and will respond to:

Mode C interrogations only

Mode A interrogations only
Mode C and A interrogations
Mode C and Ident interrogations

A mode A/C transponder will:

Not respond to interrogations made on mode S

Respond to mode S interrogations but cannot send data
Respond to mode S interrogations with limited data
Not respond to mode S as it is on a different frequency

Questions on AWR (Airborne Weather Radar)

A monochrome radar operating in the contour mode ___ and indicates them as hollow
centres:
adjusts the gain to exclude returns above the iso-echo level
is incapable of painting returns above the iso-echo level because of the limitations of the
system
cancels returns above the iso-echo level
adjusts the gain to exclude returns below the iso-echo
Level

A circuit in weather radar that reverses signal strength above a specified intensity level. In
this mode, there is a void on the scope where echoes are most intense, and a turbulent
cloud area appears as either dark or colored. The width of this void is indicative of a rain or
turbulence gradient. Also called a contour mode.
Source: http://www.answers.com/topic/isoecho

Airborne Weather Radar in normal WEA (Weather), CONTOUR (Iso-Echo) or MAN (Manual)
Mode utilises a Pencil or Conical Beam, with a beam divergence of 3-5 degrees (actually
about 3.75 degrees in the EKCO 160 / 190).

The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:

give an indication of cloud tops

detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud
inhibit unwanted ground returns
extend the mapping range

In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar
systems operate? "SHF"

Weather radar operates between 9 GHz and 10 GHz in the SHF band. A frequency of 9 GHZ
gives a wavelength of 3cm.

A frequency of airborne weather radar is:

9375 MHz
9375 GHz
9375 kHz
93.75 MHz

On switching on the AWR a single line appears on the display. This means that:

the transmitter is unserviceable

the receiver is unserviceable
the CRT is not scanning
the antenna is not scanning

In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing
severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from: "green to
yellow to red"

Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation
axes?

Roll, pitch and yaw

Roll and pitch
Pitch and yaw
Roll and yaw

yaw is odd

In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation
pattern?

MAPPING
CONTOUR
WEATHER
MANUAL
A

In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:

fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range

fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM
pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM
pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM

The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the
mapping mode for the determination of ground features:

when approaching coast-lines in polar regions

beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping mode
beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition
beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam

In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in Mapping mode enables:

better reception of echoes on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea

scanning of a large ground zone producing echoes whose signals are practically independent
of distance
a greater radar range to be achieved
higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture

The Cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:

a greater range can be achieved

a wider beam is produced in azimuth to give a greater coverage
a larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam
it allows cloud detection to be effected whilst mapping

If the AWR transmitter is required to be switched on before take-off the scanner should
be tilted up with:

either of these modes selected

the mapping mode selected
the weather mode selected
none of these

The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:

the size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector
the scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength
the size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency
the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:

detect the larger water droplets

transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam
detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large

Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar
when using the weather beam?

Stratus
Cirrocumulus
Cumulus
Altostratus

In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or

above the height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a beam width of
5°)

2.5° up
5° up
0°
2.5° down

With zero tilt and 5° beam width, 2.5° will be up and 2.5° will be down. To get the lower 2.5°
at level with the longitudinal axis of the plane (to see if it hits the weather) the tilt will have
to be set to 2.5° up.

In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud
will be detected are: "size of the water drops and wavelength/frequency used"

When using the AWR to detect long range ground features the most suitable mode of
operation or beam selected would be:

the manual mode

the fan shaped beam
the mapping mode
the contour mode

On the AWR display the most severe turbulence will be shown:

in flashing red
by a black hole
by a steep colour gradient
alternating red and white

When switching on the weather radar, after start-up a single very bright line appears on
the screen. This means that the:

a) scanner is not rotating

b) transmitter is faulty
scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty
d) receiver is faulty

On switching on the AWR a single line appears on the display. This means that:

the transmitter is unserviceable

the receiver is unserviceable
the CRT is not scanning
the antenna is not scanning

Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar?
Dry hail; clear air turbulence
Snow; clear air turbulence
Clear air turbulence; turbulence in cloud with precipitation
Snow; turbulence in clouds with precipitation

The radar does detect: Ice crystals, dry hail and dry snow. However, these three elements
give small reflections. In descending order of reflectivity, radar detects:

• Wet Hail
• Rain
• Wet Snow
• Dry Hail
• Dry Snow
• Drizzle

Radar does not detect clouds, fog or wind, windshear (except when associated with a
microburst), clear air turbulence, sandstorms or lightning.

The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect:

snow
moderate rain
dry hail
wet hail

A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather

radar system because:

the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively small
greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets
static interference is minimised
less power output is required in the mapping mode

The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:

simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams

virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy in the main
beam
have a wide beam and as a consequence better target detection
eliminate the need for azimuth slaving

The tilt angle on the AWR at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4
degrees up. If the beam width is 5 degrees and the range of the cloud is 40 NM use the 1 in
60 rule to calculate the approximate height of the cloud relative to the aircraft.

4000 above
6000 above
4000 below
6000 below

AWR in the ___ mode progressively ___ as distances ___ to equalise screen brightness

weather, decreases gain, increase

mapping, decreases power, decrease
weather, increases power, decrease
mapping, increases gain, decrease

In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas of
greatest turbulence are indicated on the screen by:

large areas of flashing red colour

iso-echo areas which are coloured black
colour zones being closest together
blank iso-echo areas where there is no colour

On a colour radar, the greatest turbulence is likely in an area where the targets:

coloured red
coloured magenta
show a clearly defined hole
show a rapid gradient of change from magenta to yellow

The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
"pulse recurrence frequency"
 Before commencing a flight the weather radar should:

be switched to stand-by but not used until airborne

not be switched on until clear of buildings
be switched to a range function after push back to make sure it is functioning
be kept at stand-by until line up with the runway

Weather radar is used by the pilot to assist in the:

detection and avoidance of all turbulence

detection and avoidance of potentially turbulent cloud cells
detection and determination of a route through active cloud formations
detection of other aircraft through clouds

A height ring can be used:

to determine that the weather radar is functioning

to determine the aeroplanes height above the surface
as a range marker
as the zero point for range measurement

The directional properties of the radar produce side lobes. One side lobe goes vertically
down to the ground and is received back by the weather radar receiver. This received signal
produces a height ring on the display. The ring indicates that the radar is working and
appears at the approximate height of the aeroplane above the gound. An aeroplane flying at
12000ft will have a permanent return at approximately 2nm. Source:
[http://www.pprune.org/professional-pilo ... beams.html]

A side lobe from the aerial of a weather radar may produce an echo on the screen
known as A height ring. The pilot can use this:

to determine that the weather radar is functioning

to determine the aeroplane's height above the surface
as a range marker
as the zero point for range measurement
A

AWR in the contour mode is used for:

identifying areas of maximum turbulence within a cloud

identifying rain bearing clouds
long range mapping
short range mapping

Isoecho Contour Mode: A mode of operation of a monochromatic weather radar. When the
button for this mode is pressed, areas of precipitation corresponding to red on a color
screen turn black. This leaves the lighter green portion around the black area, allowing
changes in rainfall intensity to be better evaluated. A thin line of green indicates a rapid
change in rainfall rates (steep rainfall gradient), and such an area should not be penetrated
because of the inferred high degree of turbulence. Source:
[http://www.answers.com/topic/isoecho-contour-mode]

The iso-echo feature of an airborne weather radar can be used to detect:

Wake turbulence
CAT
Turbulence in clouds
Areas of possible turbulence in clouds

In an Airborne Weather Radar the areas of greatest turbulence are usually indicated on
the screen by:

colour zones of green and yellow

blank areas where there is no colour
colour zones of red and magenta
areas which are coloured black

Which of the following wavelengths would give the best penetration of weather?

25 cm
50 cm
10 cm
3 cm
B

The largest

An airborne weather radar unit transmits a 5o beam from a parabolic dish aerial
reflector assembly. If the wavelength is 4 cm, the diameter of the dish is:

20 cm
87.5 cm
87.5 ins
56.0 cm

Beam width = 70 x Wavelength / Antenna Diameter

If you forget the formula in the exam then just concentrate on the items mentioned in the
question. Just write them down in the same sequence as they are mentioned in the
question like:

Beam Wavelength Diameter of Dish

To set in the right signs for the equation, just think of the relation of the first item (beam)
with others like:

Beam has a direct relation with the wavelength

Beam has an inverse relation with dish diameter (large dish small beam width).

So that makes Beam width = Wavelength / Antenna Diameter

and you just have to fit in the 70.

So Beam width = 70 x Wavelength / Antenna Diameter

Antenna Diameter = 70 x Wavelength / Beam width

= 70 x 4 / 5 = 56cm

On a colour radar, a bright red echo indicates:

An area of strong wind shear

An area of extreme turbulence
Strong rising air currents
Heavy concentrations of liquid/solid water
D

An airborne weather radar, with a beam width of 4o in azimuth, is used in mapping

mode. At what maximum range would it be able to detect a 1 NM wide opening in a facing
sea cliff?

15 NM
4 NM
60 NM
45 NM

Use 1 in 60

Track Error = (Dist Off Track / Distance Along Track) x 60

4 = 1/Distance Along Track x 60

Distance Along Track = 1/4 x 60 = 15

An aircraft flying at 25,000 ft is equipped with AWR. The beam width is 5o with the radar
tilted up at 3.5o. The radar is showing the top of a cloud return at 105 nm. The approximate
height of the cloud is:

14,300 ft
25,600 ft
30,300 ft
35,600 ft

Height of Cloud above or below the aircraft (ft) = Range in NM x (Tilt - 1/2 Beam Width) x
100

Since the beam has a width of 5 degrees, the bottom of the beam is above the horizon.

Just use the formula and preserve the sign of the angles.

= 105 (3.5-2.5) x 100 = +10,500

Since the sign is positive, the cloud tops are 10,500 ft above the aircraft level (25000+10500)
= 35,500 feet.

If the sign was negative then the cloud tops would have been below the aircraft level.
Basically the same 1 in 60 rule if you can visualize.

The AWR can be used on the ground provided:

i. The aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles

ii. The conical beam is selected
iii. Maximum uplift is selected

iv. The AWR must never be operated on the ground

All correct except iv

A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the
scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should:

decrease in area and move to the top of the screen

increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
increase in area and move to the top of the screen

Questions on ILS and Marker Beacons

A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:

the surface of the runway

less than 50 ft
less than 100 ft
less than 200 ft

The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a

frequency of:

300 MHz and is modulated by Morse at two dashes per second

200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in Morse
75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in Morse
75 MHz and is modulated by Morse at two dashes per second
D

The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are:

A blue light and 2 dashes per second of a 1300 Hz modulated tone

An amber light and alternate dots and dashes of a 1300 Hz modulated tone
A white light and 6 dots per second of a 30 Hz modulated tone
A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone

The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly
and visually by a series of:

alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing

two dashes per second and a blue light flashing
dots and a white light flashing
dashes and an amber light flashing

The colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon is
"blue - amber - white"

Every 10 kt decrease in ground speed, on a 3o ILS glide path, will require an

approximate:

increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

On a 3 degree Glide Path:

Rate of Descent = Ground Speed x 5

e.g. AT 150 kts Rate of descent should be (150 x 5) = 750 fpm.

10 kt decrease in GS means (10 x 5) 50 ft decrease in rate of descent.

The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25o glide slope at a ground speed of 140 kt
is approximately:
850 FT/MIN
800 FT/MIN
670 FT/MIN
700 FT/MIN

On Glide Paths other than 3 degrees:

Rate of Descent = Ground Speed x 5 x (Glide Path/3)

Rate of Descent = 140 x 5 x (3.25/3) = 758 fpm

An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation
notes from both the localiser and glide path transmitters.

The ILS indication will show:

Fly right and fly down
Fly left and fly down
Fly right and fly up
Fly left and fly up

Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height on a 3 degree glide path of an aircraft 4.5 NM
from touchdown.

1480 ft
1420 ft
1370 ft
1230 ft

3 = height/4.5 x 60

height = 1368 feet

The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200o. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the
localiser needle will be:

right of centre
left of centre
centred
centred with the fail flag showing

The sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when: "category II/III ILS
operations are in progress"

ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from: "multiple lobes of radiation patterns in
the vertical plane"

For a category one ILS glide path of 3.3 degrees the coverage is:

1.49 to 5.77 degrees

1.49 to 5.94 degrees
1.65 to 5.77 degrees
1.65 to 5.94 degrees

The glidepath beams do not go all the way down to the surface. The lower lobe starts at
0.45 x GP angle and the upper lobe ends at 1.75 x GP angle.

Lower Limit 3.3 x 0.45 = 1.49

Upper Limit 3.3 x 1.75 = 5.77

The coverage of the ILS glide slope with respect to the localiser centreline is: +/- 8 deg to
10 nm

The coverage of the ILS localiser at 17 nm is guaranteed up to an angle either side of the
extended centreline of: 35 degrees

Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localiser
cockpit display represent: 0.5 degrees

2.5/5 = 0.5

In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit? UHF

Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally
situated? "On the non-approach end of the runway about 300m from the runway on the
extended centreline".

An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound
on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle: "may receive false course
indications"

At 5.25 nm from the threshold an aircraft on an ILS approach has a display showing it to
be 4 dots low on a 3 degree glide path. Using an angle of 0.15o per dot of glide slope
deviation and the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height of the aircraft from touchdown.

1280 ft
1325 ft
1375 ft
1450 ft

4 dots x 0.15° = 0.6°

3° - 0.6° = 2.4°

Height = 2.4 x 5.25 / 60 = 1276 ft

If the given distance (5.25nm) was from the point where the 3° glide started (beyond the
threshold), then 1276 ft would have been the height from touch down. But since the
distance is given from the threshold (i.e about 1000 feet less), we have to add 50 feet (glide
path height over the threshold) to get the right answer.

1276 + 50 = 1326 ft
 Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

112,10 MHz
108,25 MHz
110,20 MHz
109,15 MHz

The ILS localiser works in the VHF band from 108 MHz to 111.95 MHz. This is shared with
VORs, so the localiser only uses odd 100 KHz frequencies and the odd frequencies plus 50
KHz.

The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping

lobes that are transmitted on SAME frequencies and carry DIFFERENT MODULATION
FREQUENCIES.

What frequency is assigned to all ILS marker beacons? 75 MHz

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A localiser back beam should only be used for approaches if there is a published procedure
All localisers have back beams. They provide guidance in the event of a missed approach
Localiser back beams are never checked for accuracy
A localiser back beam will always provide reversed steering signals

On a localiser the modulations are at 150 Hz and 90 Hz. Which of the following
statements is correct?

The 90 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line

The 150 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line
If the 150 Hz modulations predominates, the needle on the CDI moves to the right of centre
When both modulations are received, the aeroplane will be on the centre line

The upper limit of the vertical coverage of the localiser must be:

not less than 300 m above the highest point on the approach
not less than 7° above the horizontal (drawn from the localiser)
not less than 600 m above the horizontal
not less than 35° above the horizontal

The glide path signals must be received to a range of 10 nm over a sector:

10o each side of the localiser centre line

10o wide centred on the localiser centre line
each side of the localiser centre line
8o wide centred on the localiser centre line

Which of the following is TRUE in respect of using ILS?

When using a CDI you must set the OBS to the localiser course
When using a CDI in the overshoot sector you must disobey the needles
When using an HSI you must set the course arrow to the localiser course
When using an HSI the glide path must be set before approach

A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate

guidance from coverage limit down to:

runway surface
200 feet above the inner marker
200 feet above the runway threshold
50 feet above ILS reference point

According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the
glide path during ILS approach? "Half scale deflection"

Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:

2.5° above or below the correct glide path

0.7° above or below the correct glide path
0.5° above or below the correct glide path
1.25° above or below the correct glide path

On a typical 5 dot display: One dot of glideslope deviation is the equivalent of 0.15°
displacement with full scale deflection being 0.75° and one dot of localiser deviation is the
equivalent of 0.5° displacement with full scale deflection being 2.5°

What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam
on an ILS?

The difference in phase between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation
The difference in depth between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation
The bearing to the localiser antenna found by means of a loop antenna
The difference in time between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation

What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?

400 Hz
1300 Hz
3000 Hz
75 MHz

All ILS marker beacons transmit on the same carrier wave frequency of 75Mhz. The
amplitude modulation superimposed on that carrier that is different for the three markers.
Outer marker 400Hz AM, Middle marker 1300Hz AM, Inner marker 3000Hz AM.

Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path?

False beams will only be found more than 10 degrees

False beams will only be found above the correct glide path
False beams are only present when flying a back beam ILS approach
False beams will only be found below the correct glide path

Which range facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter
identification group?

Locator
Inner marker
Outer marker
Glide path
A

Which of the following is true with respect to marker beacons?

An airway marker and an ILS inner marker carry the same modulation
Airway markers and ILS middle markers have the same modulations
Airway markers and ILS outer markers have the same modulations
No two markers have the same modulations

ILS marker beacons do not interfere with each other because:

They operate on different modulations

They operate at different frequencies
They transmit in narrow vertical beams
They transmit low power signals, which cannot be detected by the aeroplane's receiver

The azimuth and area coverage of a Cat I ILS localiser is: "35° at 17 nm, 10° at 25 nm"

An ILS localiser can give reverse sense indications on the approach side and outside the
protected coverage:

Beyond 25 nm
Beyond 35o azimuth either side of the approach
Beyond 10o azimuth either side of the approach
At anytime

The emission characteristics of the ILS and a typical localiser frequency are:

A9W329.30 MHz
A8W110.30 MHz
A9W110.70 MHz
A8W113.30 MHz

A = Double sideband (Transmitted waveform)

8 = Multi channel analogue informaton (Modulation)

W = Morse and voice (Information carried)

An aircraft is flying downwind outside the coverage of the ILS. The CDI indications will
be: "unreliable in azimuth and elevation"

In which band does the ILS glide path operate: "Decimetric".

To remember, VHF (the most common we use) is metric (the most familiar). Rest you can
figure out.

The minima for a CAT 1 ILS are: Height: 200 ft ; RVR: 550 m

The minima for a CAT II ILS are: Height: 100 ft ; RVR: 300 m

JAA 300m, ICAO 350m

An ILS category II ground installation is one that is capable of providing guidance to a

height of:

15m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold

60m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold
15m on QNH
60m on QNH

The errors of an ILS localiser beam are due to:

Emission side lobes

Ground reflections
Spurious signals from objects near the runway
Interference from other systems operating on the same frequency

The middle marker is usually located at a range of 1 km, with an audio frequency
of 1300 Hz and illuminates the amber light.

Accurate glide path signals cannot be guaranteed above a certain angle relative to the
horizontal. That angle is:
0.45 x the glide path angle
5.25 x the glide path angle
1.75 x the glide path angle
1.35 x the glide path angle

0.45 x the glide path angle is the lower limit

Questions on DME

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the: "UHF band and is a secondary
radar system"

The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies:

329 to 335 MHz

962 to 1213 KHz
962 to 1213 MHz
108 to 118 MHz

What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the
same identification?

2000 m
60 m
600 m
6m

Associated beacons are beacons with the same ident. For VORs and DMEs to be associated
they must be less than 100ft (30m) apart if used as a terminal aid. If used for any other
purpose they must be less than 2000ft (600m) apart. Associated TACANs and VORs are
called VORTACs.

When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse
code every 30 seconds?

4 identifications in the same tone

4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone
4 identifications with the DME at a lower tone
no DME identification, but if the VOR identification is present and a range is indicated then
this shows that both are serviceable.

A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the call
sign. Having heard the same call sign 4 times in 30 seconds the:

VOR and DME call signs were the same and broadcast with the same pitch
DME call sign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct
operation
DME call sign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times
DME call sign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once

A VOR and DME are frequency paired. The DME identification ends with Z. This denotes
that:

The two beacons are co-located

The beacons are supporting the same site but are not co-located
The beacons are greater than 2000 m apart
The beacons are at the same location but are more than 1000 m apart

In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ. This
means that the distance between the two beacons is in excess of: "600 m"

An aircraft at FL 360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft
will be: "11.7 nm"
a = height (36000 feet = 5.92 nm)
b = Plan range (10 nm)
c = Slant Range (DME reading)

The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmission and reject
replies to other aircraft interrogations because:

transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft

pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from each
other
pulse pairs are discrete to a particular aircraft

An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the
ground because:

the pulse recurrence rates are varied

DME transmits twin pulses
they are not on the receiver frequency
DME uses the UHF band

A DME that has difficulty obtaining a lock-on: (NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence frequency,
PPS = pulses per second)

alternates search mode with periods of memory mode lasting 10 seconds

stays in search mode without a reduction in PRF
stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 100 seconds
stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 15000 pulse pairs have been
transmitted

The DME ground transponder has a PRF of: 2700 pulses per second

For a conventional DME facility Beacon Saturation will occur whenever the number of
simultaneous interrogations exceeds:

80
100
200
60

How many aircraft will DME accommodate before reaching saturation: 100

The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring
Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver
was 2000 micro-second. The slant range from the ground transponder was:

165 NM
186 NM
296 NM
330 NM

The Interrogation signal travels from the Airborne Interrogator to the Ground Transponder
where the frequency is adjusted by +/- 63 MHz, a process which takes 50 microseconds; the
Reply signal then returns to the Interrogator. Using the process of Propagation Delay
(Distance = Speed x Time) the Interrogator then calculates the distance to the Transponder,
i.e. the direct line-of-sight DME Slant Range to the DME Ground Station.

The simplest way of calculating this is to remember that 1 Radar Mile = 12.36 microseconds,
which is the time taken for a signal to travel from a Radar to a Target and back to the Radar.
For DME distance, simply take the time delay, subtract 50 microseconds and divide by 12.36
microseconds and you have your answer.

2000 - 50 = 1950

1950 / 12.36 = 158 NM

Other wise the normal calculation is Distance = Velocity x Time

= ( 3 x 10^8 ) x ( 1950 x 10^-6 )

= 585000 meters or 315.6 nm

Since 315.6 nm is from interrogator to transponder and then back to interrogator, the
diatnce between the two is 315.6/2 = 158

If a VOR station and a DME station, having different locations, are selected to provide a
fix:

two difference IDs will have to be checked

two positions, being ambiguous, will be presented
two sets, with separate frequency control, are required in the aircraft
all 3 answers above are correct

In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment

(DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL 400?

When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it

When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more
When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit
When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM

DME indicates the slant range to the beacon. At distances in nautical miles greater than the
aircraft height in thousands of feet this difference is negligible. Close to the beacon it is not.
Groundspeed is not accurate when passing abeam a station, only when flying directly TO or
FROM the beacon.

A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength will

switch the equipment in the first instance to:
standby mode
search mode
memory mode
signal controlled search

There is a memory function that allows the range to continue counting down at the same
rate if the signal is temporarily interrupted. After 8 to 10 seconds the off flag will come up
or, with an LED display, the range will not be displayed.

The accuracy of a DME:

is approximately ±0.5nm
decreases with increase of range
increases with increase of altitude
is approximately ±2 nm

ICAO require accuracy of 0.25 nm plus 1.25% in slant range measurement for systems
installed before 01 January 1989. Systems installed after that date must have a slant range
error of less than 0.2 NM on 95% of occasions.

ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment
(DME) should not exceed:

+ or - 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is the greater

+ or - 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured
+ or - 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5 NM
+ or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured

The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the maximum
systematic error should not exceed:

+ or - 1.5 NM
+ or -3 NM
+ or -0.25 NM
+ or - 1.25 NM

A
0.25 nm plus 1.25%

1.25% of 100 is 1.25, so 1.25 + 0.25 = 1.5

Groundspeed measurement using DME equipment is most accurate flying:

from the station at long range

over the station
towards the station at short range
past the station at short range

The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL 210, fails to achieve lock on a DME at MSL at a
range of 210 nm. The reason for this is:

the beacon is saturated

the aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME
the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
the aircraft signal is too weak at that range to trigger a response

Where a DME uses mechanical counters for displaying the range, continuous rotation of
the counters means: "The DME is in a search mode"

On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:

ground equipment failure

airborne equipment failure
the airborne receiver is conducting a range search
the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search

A DME transmitter is operating in the search-for-lock phase. Which of the following

statements is correct?

the PRF increases, the range counters count down from maximum, the output power is
increased
The PRF increases and the range counters count up from 300 to maximum
The PRF increases and the range counters count down from the maximum
The PRF increases and the power is increased
C

Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed?

A VOR station sited on the flight route

A DME station sited across the flight route
A DME station sited on the flight route
An ADF sited on the flight route

The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the
ground because:

DME pulse recurrence rates are varied

aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies
reflections are subject to Doppler frequency shift
DME transmits twin pulses

Height error has the greatest effect on accuracy when an aeroplane is:

over the base line extensions at low altitude

at the base line bisector at low altitudes
at the base line bisector at high altitude
over the base line extension at high altitude

An aircraft at FL 300, with a ground speed of 300 kt, is about to pass overhead a DME
station at MSL. The DME receiver is capable of determining ground speed. One minute
before the overhead, DME speed and distance indications are respectively:

300 kt and 7 NM
less than 300 kt and 7 NM
less than 300 kt and 5 NM
300 kt and 5 NM

Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?

Two lines of position obtained from two different DME's give an unambiguous fix
The DME operating frequencies are in the UHF frequency band
B

DME is a radar type of facility and its maximum range is limited by:

The pulse repetition interval

The height of the aeroplane
The transmitter power
The receiver sensitivity

In DME interrogation and responses are separated by 63 MHz in order to:

Avoid station saturation

Differentiate between precision and ordinary DME
Facilitate channel selection
Prevent self-triggering

A DME which is listed as operating on an 'X' channel is one which:

Is paired exclusively with an ILS frequency

Is paired exclusively with a TACAN frequency
Responds on a frequency 63 MHz higher than the interrogation frequency
Responds on a frequency 63 MHz lower than the interrogation frequency

The nominal maximum coverage of a DME station is:

150 nm at 20,000 ft
175 nm at 25,000 ft
190 nm at 25,000 ft
200 nm at 30,000 ft

How does the DME tell different aircraft apart: "By using a jittered PRF"

If a DME beacon becomes saturated by interrogations it:

It switches off its identification signal

Adjusts the gain to reply to the 100 strongest signals
Adjusts its PRF to cope with all aircraft
Replies to the nearest 100 aircraft

100 strongest not nearest signals.

When in tracking mode, the airborne interrogator operates at:

A PRR variable between 24 and 30 pulses per second

A PRR fixed at a rate selected from the range 24 to 30 PPS
A PRR of 150 PPS
A PRR of 2700 PPS

What use if any does TACAN provide to civilian users:

Bearing information only

Bearing and range information
Range information only (DME)
It is of no use to civilian pilots

Questions on HSI

Given:

Aircraft heading 160o (M)

Aircraft is on radial 240o from a VOR
Selected course on HSI is 250o

The HSI indications are deviation bar:

ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing

ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing
behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing

On an HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator) used in combination with a VOR receiver:

A pictorial presentation of aircraft deviation relative to VOR radials is provided

The lubber line will indicate the reciprocal value of the received radial
The lubber line will indicate the selected radial
There will be no Omni Bearing Selector knob, as this function is automatic on this type of
indicator

When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of one dot from the computed track represents

a) 2°
b) 5°
c) 5 nm
d) 2 nm

The phrase "computed track" suggests an RNAV system. On a 2 dot HSI, one dot = 2.5 nm
(assuming enroute phase). I guess option (d) is the closest if my assumptions are correct.
Incase of VOR navigation, on a 2 dot HSI, one dot = 5°

Questions on Relative Bearing

Given that the compass heading is 270°, the deviation is 2°W, the variation is 30°E and
the relative bearing of a beacon is 316°, determine the QDR:

044
048
074
224

Deviation west compass best, so magnetic heading will be 268.

Relative bearing is the bearing measured from the aircraft fore and aft axis.

Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing = Magnetic Bearing TO (QDM)

268 + 316 = 584

If the sum is more than 360 then subtract 360 from it to find the bearing.

584 - 360 = 224

If QDM = 224 then QDR = 044 (reciprocal of 224).

 A relative bearing indicator shows 030o. The heading of the aeroplane is 090o M. The
intercept angle for a course to the NDB of 180o M is:

120°
030°
150°
060°

If you are flying a heading of 090°M and the Relative Bearing to the NDB is 030°R then the
bearing to the NDB is 120°M.

HDG + RB = BEARING TO

090°M + 030°R = 120°M

A course TO the NDB of 180°M is equal to a course FROM the NDB of 360°M. The quickest
way to intercept the course of 360°M FROM the NDB is to continue your heading of 090°M,
which isn't an option provided. Flying 120°M will take you directly to the NDB. Flying 150°M
will take you South of the NDB, intercepting a course of 180°M FROM the NDB. Flying
030°M or 060°M WILL take you to the course of 360°M FROM the NDB but not in the
shortest route. Of the options provided I would go for 060°M as the quickest option but
030°M will give you an intercept angle of 030°. A very poorly worded question indeed!!!

An RMI shows the bearing of an NDB as 020o. The heading of the aeroplane is 020o M.
In order to intercept an outbound course of 330o (from the NDB) at an angle of 40o, the
aeroplanes heading should be altered to:

010
330
300
040

An aeroplanes RMI shows an NDB bearing 070°, w/v calm. The aeroplane is to join a
right hand holding pattern at the NDB, the inbound leg of which is 330°. The aeroplane
should:

fly to the NDB and join the pattern

fly to the NDB then fly outbound on 150° for 1 minute
fly to the NDB then fly a teardrop with an outbound heading of 120o for 1 minute and a rate
one turn to join in bound
fly to the NDB then fly choose either (B) or (C) above as preferred
A

An aeroplane is flying parallel to a coast. Which of the following NDBs will give the
greatest costal refraction LOP error?

NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 330

NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 300

An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316o from an aircraft.

Given:

Compass heading 270

At aircraft deviation 2W, Variation 30E
At station Variation 28E

Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft:

252
254
072
074

Since its NDB and not VOR, aircraft variation/deviation will be used.

Deviation west compass best, so magnetic heading will be 268.

Relative bearing is the bearing measured from the aircraft fore and aft axis.

Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing = Magnetic Bearing TO

268 + 316 = 584

If the sum is more than 360 then subtract 360 from it to find the bearing.

584 - 360 = 224

So Magnetic bearing TO (To NDB from A/C) = 224

Variation East magnetic least.

So True bearing TO (To NDB from A/C) = 224+30 = 254.

 Given:

W/V (T): 230/20 kt

Var: 6E
TAS: 80 kt

What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound
course of 257o (M) from overhead the beacon?

172
188
008
352

This can be done without calculations. On an outbound course of 257 from overhead the
beacon with no wind, relative bearing would be 180. With wind from left and heading
towards the wind to maintain track, relative bearing will increase a little from 180. 188 is a
reasonable option amongst others.

If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090 and the ADF pointer indicates 225, the relative
bearing to the station will be:

135
Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure
315
225

Just visualize.

Heading + RB = Bearing TO

RB = 225 - 090 = 135

On the QDR of 075o (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295o, the
relative bearing on the ADF indicator is:

140
040
220
320

Heading + RB = Bearing TO

QDR = 75 so QDM = 255

RB = 255 - 295 = -40

Just visualize

-40 + 360 = 320

On which of the following displays are you able to get a direct read-out (no calculation is
necessary from the pilot) of the magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB? "Moving
card ADF and RMI"

An aircraft is tracking 060o (T) in still air. The relative bearing of an NDB is 035o at 1300.
12 min later the relative bearing is 070o. If the G/S is 180kt, what is the aircraft's distance
from the NDB at 1312:

18 nm
36 nm
24 nm
30 nm

Questions on VOR

VOR operates in the VHF, transmitting a bearing signal by means of a Rotating

Limacon and uses Phase Comparison to determine the radial.

The phase difference between the reference and variable signals on QDM 050° (VAR
10°W) for a conventional VOR is:

050°
040°
230°
220°
C

An aircraft is flying on the true track 090o towards a VOR station located near the
equator where the magnetic variation is 15oE. The variation at the aircraft position is 8oE.
The aircraft is on VOR radial:

255
278
262
285

90° towards VOR means on radial 270°. Variation east magnetic least. Since this is the case
of VOR, variation at VOR will be considered and not aircraft, so 270 - 15 = 255.

The frequency range of a VOR receiver is: 108 to 117.95 MHz

An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation
indicator where 1 dot = 2o deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the
instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10
NM wide)

6.0
3.0
4.5
1.5

1 in 60 rule. Track Error = (Distance Off Track x 60) / Distance Along Track

Airway = 10NM wide so an aircraft at the limit of the airway would be 5NM from centre line
and 100NM from the VOR.

So Distance Off Track = 5NM and the Distance Along Track = 100NM.

TE = (5 x 60) / 100
TE = 300 / 100 = 3

2° is 1 dot

1° is 1/2 dots (0.5)

3° would be 0.5 x 3 = 1.5 dots

When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly?

a constant track
a great circle track
a rhumb line track
a constant heading

Refer to figure. An aircraft is attempting to track 186°M on an airway defined by a VOR

80 nm away. The VOR indicates the aircraft position. With these indications the aircraft is on
the ___ radial and ___ the airway.

001° outside
181° inside
001° inside
181° outside

186 course TO means radial 006.

The deviation bar is deviated to the left that means we are right of radial 006.

Each dot and the edge of the bulls eye (center circle) equates to a 2 degree deviation.

That means we are 5 degree right of radial 006. That makes it 001.

Applying the 1 in 60 rule

TE = (Distance Off Track x 60) / Distance Along Track

Distance Off Track = TE x 80 / 60

TE = 5 degrees (006 - 001)

Distance Off Track = 5 x 80 / 60 = 6.6 nm

For a 10 nm wide airway, lateral limit from the center of the airway will be be 5 nm. So 6.6
nm is out of the airway lateral limits.

An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300o, the track selector (OBS)
reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are fly:

left with FROM showing

right with TO showing
right with FROM showing
left with TO showing

Going TO the VOR with OBS 330 means radial selected is 150. This is left of radial of 120.

An aircraft is on a heading of 100 degrees (m) from a VOR. To make the VOR/ILS
deviation indicator needle centralise with the TO flag showing, the following bearing should
be selected on the OBS:

100 degrees
110 degrees
290 degrees
280 degrees

The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR:

Is always directed towards the aircraft

Is like a figure of 8
Is a pencil beam
Rotates at 30 revolutions per second

D
 Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a
conventional VOR is correct?

The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotates
The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the characteristics
of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation
The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the
allocated frequency each time it rotates
The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference signal

The basic principle of operation of a standard VOR is by:

phase comparison between a 108 Mhz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal
phase difference between a frequency modulated reference signal and an amplitude
modulated variable signal
phase comparison between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a frequency
modulated variable signal
phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 108 Mhz variable signal

The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90o out of phase
on magnetic EAST.

Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR?

Scalloping
Coastal refraction
Quadrantal error
Night effect

The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid:

At all times
By day only
By night only
At all times except dawn and dusk

Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

static interference
uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
night effect
quadrantal error

The VOR system is limited to about 1o of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM represents a
width of:

2.0 NM
3.5 NM
2.5 NM
3.0 NM

1 in 60 rule. Distance off track = 200/60 = 3.33 nm (3.5 the closest answer)

Using a VOR outside the DOC may result in interference from:

other beacons
other aircraft
sky waves
ground waves

interference from other VORs operating on the same frequency, interference from other
transmitters.

With reference to the VOR:

Failure of the monitor will cause the beacon to cease its ident
A typical VOR frequency is 118.15 Mhz
The TO/FROM indicator shows whether the aircraft is heading towards or away from the
beacon
Wide coverage is obtained from only a few beacons

An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing

accuracy of plus or minus 5.5o. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway
limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:

165 NM
50 NM
105 NM
210 NM

1 in 60.

TE = Dist Off Track/Dist Along Track x 60

5.5 = 5 / Dist Along Track x 60

Dist Along Track = 54.5

Between two VORs = 54.5 x 2 = 109 nm

An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on
to a reading of 090o. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135o.

The available information from the VOR is:

Radial 315o, relative bearing unknown

Radial unknown, relative bearing 225o
Radial unknown, relative bearing 045o
Radial 135o, relative bearing unknown

If the compass providing information to the RMI suddenly gets a 20o deviation:

the magnetic track to the VOR station may be read on the compass card under the tip of the
VOR
the number of the received radial may still be read on the compass card under the tail of
the VOR needle
the relative bearing to the VOR, as observed on the RMI, will jump 20o
all 3 answers are correct

Refer to the diagram of a VOR/ILS deviation indicator. Assume that the indicator is set to
define the centreline of an airway, that the aircraft is 90 nm from the VOR and inbound to
the facility. At the time of observation the aircraft was located on radial:
063
253
245
243

OBS 248 with TO indication means selected radial is 068. Each dot and the edge of the bulls
eye (center circle) equates to a 2 degree deviation. That means we are right of radial 068 by
5 degrees. So the aircraft is on radial 063.

The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR:

Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR
Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR
Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre the aircraft towards
or from the CDI needle
Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication

Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at
100 nm from the VOR beacon?

1.5 dots

1 in 60 rule. TE = 5/100 x 60 = 3 degrees

In a 5 dot CDI, 1 dot is 2 degrees. So 3 degree would be 1.5 dots

 An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a
serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?

10 deg or more

In a conventional VOR the direction of rotation of the signal will be (i) and the variable
signal is (ii). In doppler VOR the reference signal is (iii) and the direction of rotation will (iv):

(i) Clockwise; (ii) FM; (iii) FM; (iv) Clockwise

(i) Anticlockwise; (ii) AM; (iii) AM; (iv) Clockwise
(i) Clockwise; (ii) AM; (iii) AM; (iv) Anticlockwise
(i) Anticlockwise; (ii) FM; (iii) AM; (iv) Anticlockwise

A VOT is: "A Test VOR"

With reference to a VOR, the cone of confusion is: "the area directly overhead a VOR"

An aircraft on a heading of 270o (M) has 093 set on the OBS and TO indicated on the
VOR L/R deviation indicator. The needle shows two dots fly left.

The aircraft is on the:

277 radial
089 radial
097 radial
269 radial

093 set on OBS with TO indication means the aircraft intends to fly radial 273 inbound
towards the VOR. Fly left indication means the aicraft is right of radial 273 (facing the VOR
since the indication is TO).

You are on a compass heading of 090o on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course
190o on your OBS. The deviation bar will show:

Full scale deflection right with a from indication

Full scale deflection left with a from indication
Full scale deflection left with a to indication
Full scale deflection right with a to indication

Give attention to the question where it says From a VOR, otherwise on radial 255 with TO
indication, full scale deflection towards right is also possible and is given in the answers.
Here's a tool to visualize

Your aircraft is heading 075oM. The OBI is set to 025o. The VOR indications are TO with
the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the station, you are situated in a quadrant
defined by the radials:

115 and 205

295 and 025
025 and 115
205 and 295

Locate your position, draw the radials and see in which quadrant you are.

A frequency most suitable for a terminal VOR would be:

108.20
108.15
108.10
118.05

Frequencies are between 108 MHz and 117.975 MHz. Between 108 MHz and 112 MHz the
band is shared with ILS so VOR frequencies are only allocated at EVEN 100 KHz spacing.

The Declared Operational Coverage of a VOR is:

An altitude and range limited by transmitter power

A range limited by transmitter power
An altitude and range limited by signal to noise ratio
A range limited by signal to noise ratio

C
 When comparing conventional and Doppler VOR, which of the following applies to the
Doppler VOR:

The reference and variphase signals are reversed but the phase difference remains the same
The reference and variphase signals are the same but the phase difference is reversed
The reference and variphase signals are reversed and the phase relationship remains the
same
The reference and variphase signals are reversed and the phase relationship is reversed

What are the indications to show that you are receiving a Doppler VOR: "There is no
difference from the conventional VOR indications"

With regard to the monitoring of a VOR, the monitor will remove the identification or
switch off the VOR transmitter if there is a change of measured bearing greater than: "1
degree"

An aircraft is inbound to VOR X on the 073 radial and has a Doppler drift of 12oL. A
position report is required when crossing the 133 radial from VOR Y. If the aircraft is on
track the RMI indications at the reporting point will be:

Heading ; 085 ; X Pointer ; 073 ; Y Pointer ; 133

Heading ; 085 ; X Pointer ; 253 ; Y Pointer ; 133
Heading ; 265 ; X Pointer ; 073 ; Y Pointer ; 313
Heading ; 265 ; X Pointer ; 253 ; Y Pointer ; 313

When the term radial is used in reference to VOR it means: "The magnetic bearing from
the VOR station"

The maximum width of the cone of silence above a VOR at 30,000 ft is:

4.1 nm
8.2 nm
11.6 nm
5.8 nm

The ICAO limits of the cone of confusion are up to 50° from the vertical. 1 in 60 rule is a rule
of thumb used based on the small-angle approximation, so it will not give the correct
answer. Trigonometry will have to be used:

Tan of angle = opposite / adjacent

adjacent = height of aircraft (30,000 feet or 4.93 nm)

opposite = radius of the cone

Tan of 50° = Radius of the cone / 4.93

Radius of the cone = 5.87

Width of the cone = 5.87 x 2 = 11.74

A VOR indication of 240o FROM is given. Variation at the aircraft is 9W and at the VOR is
7W. The heading o(T) in nil wind to reach the station is:

231
051
053
233

Magnetic radial 240, with 7W variation becomes 233 True. Going towards the station on
radial 233, will make the heading 053 (true).

An aircraft is maintaining an airway centreline of 000o defined by a VOR ahead of the

aircraft. Variation at the VOR is 5E. At 60 nm to go the QDM is 004. The aircraft's position
relative to the airway lateral boundary is:

3 nm inside the airways eastern boundary

1 nm inside the airways western boundary
1 nm outside the airways western boundary
1 nm inside the airways eastern boundary

B
 A CDI indicates 275/TO with the needle showing 2.5 dots fly right. The aircraft is 20 nm
from the beacon on a heading of 330 M. The radial that the aircraft is on and the correct
way to turn after intercepting the required track to fly to the facility is:

092 right
100 left
272 right
280 left

275 TO means radial 095. Fly right 2.5 dots means left of radial 095 by 5 degrees which
makes it 100. Thats enough to select the right answer. However left turn is required to
decrease the intercept angle since on a heaing of 330 the intercept angle will be (330-275)
55 degrees.

You are homing to overhead a VORTAC and will descent from 7500 QNH to be 1000
AMSL by 6 nm DME. Your ground speed is 156 knots and the ROD will be 800 fpm. At what
range from the VORTAC do you commence the descent?

27.1 nm
15.8 nm
11.7 nm
30.2 nm

Height to loose 7500-1000 = 6500 feet

ROD = 800 fpm

Time required = 6500/800 = 8.125 minutes or 0.1354 hours

Distance = GS (156) x Time (0.1354) = 21.12 nm

Since the level off is at 6 nm before VORTAC the distance to start descent is 21.12 + 6 = 27.1
nm[/img]

Questions on NDB and ADF

An aircraft is HOMING to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If

the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:

left drift
right drift
a wind from the west
zero drift

Magnetic heading decreases = Wind from left = Drift towards right

An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:

a beam rotating at 20 Hz
bi-local circular
a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
omnidirectional

Using an NDB it is possible to experience which of the following errors or limitations?

Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect

Night effect, station interference and latitude error
Night effect, station interference and lack of a failure warning system
Coastal refraction, timing error and lack of a failure warning system

Timing error and latitude error are the odd ones.

Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
height error - station interference - mountain effect
static interference - station interference - latitude error
static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system
coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect

Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF:

selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect

night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip
mountain effect, station interference, static interference
selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal error

Which of the following factors could cause an error of an ADF bearing of an NDB?

Scalloping
Atmospheric scatter
Phase interference
Night effect

Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?

Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day

Frequency drift at the ground station
Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
Mutual interference between aircraft aerials

What gives the greatest error in ADF:

Coastal effect
Night effect
Static interference from thunderstorms
Quadrantal error

Which combination gives the greatest reduction in reliability of ADF:

Station interference; Static interference; Lane slip
Mountain effect; Station interference; site error
Night effect; Static interference; Quadrantal error
Nigh effect; Quadrantal error; Station interference

Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?

static interference, height effect, lack of failure warning

station interference, mountain effect, selective availability
coastal refraction, slant range, night effect
lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference

With a transmission from an NDB aerial, the ___ component travels in the ___ plane and
the signal is ___ polarised.

magnetic; horizontal; vertically

electrical; horizontal; vertically
electrical; vertical; horizontally
magnetic; vertical; horizontally

The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:

find the loop NULL position

stop loop rotation
hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON
hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal

The purpose of the BFO switch on the ADF receiver is to make the signal audible

When receiving an NDB signal on an ADF receiver the BFO can be selected OFF for the:

tone signal on N0NA1A

ident signal on N0NA1A
tone signal on N0NA2A
ident signal on N0NA2A
D

The first symbol describes the transmitted waveform, the second describes
the modulation and the third describes the type of information carried. Emission
Classification

When considering the propagation of ADF transmissions night effect is most

pronounced:

at dusk and dawn

during the long winter nights
at or near the coast
when flying at low altitude

In order to obtain an ADF bearing the: "signal must be received by both the sense and
loop aerials"

An ADF uses a sense aerial to: "resolve ambiguous bearings".

An NDB signal crossing from land to sea will ___ speed and bend ___ the normal.

decrease, towards
increase, towards
decrease, away from
increase, away from

Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are
maximum when the NDB is:

inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles

When ADF equipment which incorporates a sense aerial and a loop aerial is tuned to a
NDB and the loop aerial is rotated so that a sharp null is found the aerial is:

either at right angles or in line with the incoming signals

in line with the incoming signals
at right angles to the incoming signals
aligned with the aircraft nose

Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment
are caused by:

misalignment of the loop aerial

signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wing
signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
sky wave/ground wave contamination

Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy
in ADF bearings?

Coastal effect
Local thunderstorm activity
Quadrantal error
Precipitation interference

ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers is 190 - 1750 kHz

The D layer of the ionosphere affects the accuracy of NDB bearings:

by day and night

by day only
by night only
never

Sky waves are refracted from the ionosphere. Where the ion density changes radio waves
will be refracted. Most of the refraction occurs about 125km up, at what is known as the E
layer.

Night Effect which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB
transmissions, is due to:
sky wave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk
static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band

The accuracy of ADF within the DOC (designated OP coverage) by day is: +/-5 deg

The 95% accuracy for ADF bearings of an NDB by day is:

±2°
±7°
±10°
±3°

The signal to noise ratio for an NDB is ___ allowing a maximum error of ___ on 95% of
occasions during ___

3/1, ±5 degrees, daylight hours only

3/1, ±5 degrees, 24 hours

In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking
accuracy within ___ of the published approach track.

+/-10°
+/- 5°
+/- 2.5°
+/- 2°

An aircraft heading 315oM shows an NDB bearing 180o on the RMI. Any quadrantal
error affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:

zero, as quadrantal errors are not found on the RMI

at a maximum
at a minimum
zero, as quadrantal errors affect only the VOR

There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast.
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the
extend of the error is a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be:

the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180o and 360o
greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090o and 270o
greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland

An aircraft 10 nm from a north-south coastline takes two three-position line fixes from
an inland NDB. The aircraft's indicated position is:

Nearer to the coastline than its actual position

Further from the coastline than its actual position
Correct because the coastal refraction errors will cancel out because two fixes have been
taken
Correct in azimuth but false in range

Speed of a surface wave is affected by the surface over which it travels (faster over water
than land). This change of speed means the wave is refracted at low altitude as it passes
over a coastline. Refraction is always towards the coast. An aircraft receiving a refracted
wave would give a false indication of the beacon's position. It will place the aircraft nearer to
the coast than it actually is. This effect is worse the further back from the coast the beacon is
sited. It can be avoided by:

1) Taking bearings at right angles to the coast.

2) Flying at a higher altitudes.

3) Choosing beacons closer to the coast

A long range NDB is likely to transmit on ___ and be classified as ___ Select the answer
to complete this statement.

200 Khz; A2A

800 Khz; A2A
200 Khz; A1A
800 Khz; A1A

The first symbol describes the transmitted waveform. N = Unmodulated carrier, A = Double
sideband.
The second describes the modulation. 0 = No modulation, 1 = Unmodulated digtal
information, 2 = Modulated digital informaton.

The third describes the type of information carried. N = No information, A = Morse.

The common designators used in aviation are:

N0N = NDB carrier wave

A1A = NDB ident
A2A = Alternative NDB ident

The BFO:

creates the audio ident for an NDB

is used to make the ident from an A2A NDB audible
is used to make the ident from an A1A NDB audible
is used to determine the signal strength of an NDB

According to another question the answer is: "hear the IDENT of NDBs using N0N A1A
transmissions"

What actually happens in the ADF receiver when the BFO position is selected?

The BFO circuit is activated, and the receiver accepts only A1A modulated signals
The BFO circuit oscillates at an increased frequency in order to allow identification of A2A
NDBs
The BFO circuit is de-activated
The BFO circuit imposes a tone onto the carrier wave to make the NDB's ident audible

The nominal maximum range of an NDB with a transmitter power is 200 watts is:

50 to 60 nm
100 to 120 nm
150 to 170 nm
200 to 200 nm

In another question it is mentioned 40 to 45 NM. Anyway among the options its always less
than 100.
 With regard to the following types of NDB which statements is correct?

Locators have 200 W power, 50 nm range and are N0N A2A

Locators have 15 W power, 10-25 nm range and are N0N A2A
Locators have 5000 W power, 50 nm range and are N0N A2A
Locators have 5000 W power, 50 nm range and are N0N A1A

An NDB aerial is (i) so as to ensure the range is (ii) by minimising (iii) due to (iv):

(i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) diffraction; (iv) the ground wave
(i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) energy losses to the surface
(i) horizontal; (ii) maximum; (iii) refraction; (iv) the D layer
(i) vertical; (ii) maximum; (iii) attenuation; (iv) atmospheric refraction

What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator?

50 - 100 NM
25 - 50 NM
10 - 25 NM
100 - 300 NM

Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?

The range is limited to the line of sight

Aircraft height is not limiting for the reception of signals from the NDB
The range of an NDB will most likely increase at day time compared to night time
The transmitter power of the NDB station has no affect on the range

When using ADF (i)BY NIGHT, the accuracy is (ii)LESS than (iii)BY DAY, because the
surface wave is (iv) CONTAMINATED BY SKY WAVES

Snow will NOT affect ADF.

An NDB has a range of 50 nm with a power output of 80 watts: The power required to
increase the range to 75 nm is:

120 watts
150 watts
180 watts
320 watts

If an NDB signal is received at a range of 1000 nm:

The signal is a surface wave and is quite usable

It will be a ground wave and will be inaccurate
It is a space wave and will be inaccurate
It is a sky wave and is inaccurate

For long range NDBs the most common type is:

LF N0N A1A
LF N0N A2A
MF N0N A1A
MF N0N A2A

If an NDB has a published range of 30 nm, its accuracy is: "only guaranteed by day to
that range"

Questions on VDF (VHF Direction Finding)

What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down
may be flown?

VHF radio
VOR
VOR/DME

The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings from a
ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:

134 NM
Max theoretical range (in nm) = 1.23 x square root of H1 + 1.23 x square root of H2

H1 = height of the transmitter (in feet above msl)

H2 = height of the receiver (in feet above msl)

Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?

It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft

It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC

When conducting a QGH approach responsibility for interpreting the procedure rests
with "the Controller" and on a VDF approach responsibility rests with "pilot"

If, when you are requesting a QDM from an airfield, you are offered a QGH, it means:

"the VDF unit is prepared to give you assistance during an approach to the airfield, based on
VDF bearings"

With reference to a VDF bearing, the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground station
is a: "QTE"

In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be
used to fix an aircraft's position?

When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz

When contacting ATC to join controlled airspace from the open FIR
When declaring an emergency on any frequency
On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary

Which of the following does NOT affect the accuracy of VDF bearings:

sky waves
duct propagation
ground reflections
synchronous transmissions

A
 The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing can be influenced by:

time of day
type of surface
height of aircraft
intensity of ionisation

The VDF Homer service provides:

Accurate bearings on demand

A QGH procedure to transiting aeroplanes
Bearings which will normally be within ±5o accuracy to a range of 200NM
Bearings which may be affected by synchronous transmissions

An aircraft wishing to use the VDF service must:

Be equipped with a VOR indicator unit

Transmit a signal for a long enough period for the bearing to be established
Ask the controller to transmit for a long enough period to establish the bearing
Be within 10NM of the VDF aerial

An aeroplane requesting a VDF bearing should:

Avoid banking during transmission

Not pass overhead VDF aerial
Ensure that ratio silence is maintained
Transmit on 121.5 MHz

The VDF class B bearing is accurate to within:

±1°
±2°
±3°
±5°

Class A: accurate to within +/-2°

Class B: accurate to within +/-5°
Class C: accurate to within +/-10°
Class D: CAP 46 also lists some Class D VDF Stations with an accuracy poorer than even +/-
10°.

When a pilot is conducting a VDF/QGH procedure, he will require:

an operator on the ground only for the VDF procedure

an operator on the ground only for the QGH procedure
an operator on the ground for both the VDF and QGH procedures
no operator on the ground for either VDF or QGH procedures

With reference to ground DF, the controller can refuse to give bearings if:

the requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country

conditions are poor and bearings do not fall within the station's classified limits
the pilot does not use the prescribed terminology

Questions on Basic Radio Theory

Quote Decimetric waves correspond to the frequency range:

3000 to 30000 MHz

3000 to 30000 KHz
300 to 3000 MHz
300 to 3000 KHz

According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally
transmit?

HF/VHF
MF/HF
HF
LF/MF

An aircraft travelling at 330 metres a second transmits a signal at 10 GHz to a stationary

receiver. If the aircraft is flying directly towards the receiver and they are approximately at
the same height the received frequency will be:

11 MHz
10,000011 GHz
9,999989 GHz
11 GHz

Doppler Shift (Hz) = Relative velocity (metres per second) / Transmitted wavelength
(metres)

Wavelength = Speed of Sound / Frequency

= 3 x 10^8 / 10 GHz or

= 300,000,000 / 10,000,000,000

= 0.03 meters

Dopler Shift = 330/0.03 = 11,000 Hz

Received frequecy = 10 GHz + 11,000 HZ = 10,000011000 Hz or 10.000011 GHz

Which of the following statements is correct in respect of a RF signal:

the plane of polarisation is dictated by the oscillator unit in the transmitter

the electrical component of the signal is parallel to the aerial
the magnetic component of the signal is parallel to the aerial
both the electrical and magnetic components are parallel to the aerial

A half wave dipole aerial suitable for transmitting an RF signal at 18 MHz should have an
effective length of:

16,67 metres
166,67 metres
83,33 metres
8,33 metres

RF signal at 18 MHz has a wavelength = Speed of sound / frequency

= 3 x 10^8 / 18 MHz
= 16.66 meters

Half wave dipole = 16.66 / 2 = 8.33 meters

Which of the following statements is true?

A broad bandwidth gives a narrow beam width

A narrow bandwidth improves beam width
A transmission's bandwidth is affected by the design of the aerial
Bandwidth must be reduced in order to reduce noise

Diffraction of a RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to:

reflection from the surface

passing over or through mediums of different conductivity
passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength
passing through ionised regions of the upper atmosphere

Refraction of an electro-magnetic radiation is:

The bending of its propagation path as it passes through or over areas of different electrical
conductivity
The loss of power as it passes through or over areas of different electrical conductivity
Is bending resultant from reflection from objects
Is loss of power through reflection from objects

With regards to radio waves, which statement is true?

They are reflected by metallic objects with a size compatible to the wavelength
The longer the wavelength the greater the surface attenuation
They travel at 186,000 nm a second in a vacuum
High frequencies need large aerials

You are at an altitude of 9,000 feet. At a range of 200 nm from a VHF communications
transmitter, and you are receiving a good signal.
You should expect this since the transmitter is at a height of 2.000 feet
You should have been receiving the signal from a range of 240 nm
You are probably receiving a sky wave signal
You are probably receiving a duct propagation signal

To establish and maintain effective HF communications the frequency used at a given

range: "should be decreased at night"

sun down frequency down

Refer to figure.In the following diagram, the phase difference between the two signals
is: 180°

To determine phase difference find where your wave rises through the neutral position and
read the phase of the reference wave (solid one in this fig) at that point.

Ground direction finding at aerodromes utilises what frequencies?

"VHF at civil aerodromes and UHF at military aerodromes"

The emission characteristics A3E describe:

ILS
VHF communications
HF communications
VOR

Q codes

QDR - Magnetic Bearing From

QDM - Magnetic Bearing To
QTE - True Bearing From
QUJ - True Bearing To

The gain of an aerial is a measure of its ability to:

Focus power
Transmit intelligence
Overcome transmitter line resistance
Compensate for attenuation

What is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference can be
guaranteed?

3 MHz
30 MHz
300 MHz
3 GHz

Start of VHF

The VHF frequency band has a wavelength limit of:

100 m to 10 m
1 m to 100 cms
10 m to 1 m
100 cms to 10 cms

The wavelength of a radio signal is 200 metres. What is the frequency?

1.5 KHz
1.5 GHz
1.5 MHz
15 MHz

Frequency = Speed of Sound / Wavelength

= 3 x 10^8 / 200

= 1,500,000 or 1.5 MHz

The approximate ground waves of LF and MF are (by day) ___ and ___ respectively, with
___ suffering more from atmospheric attenuation.

1500nm; 1000nm; MF
1000nm; 500nm; LF
1000nm; 300nm; MF
500nm; 100nm; LF

The distance a surface wave can travel is limited by surface attenuation (which decreases at
lower frequencies and over the sea). Surface waves are around:

100 NM long in the HF band.

500 NM long in the MF band.
1000 NM long in the LF band.
4000+ NM long in the VLF bands.

Surface waves and space waves occur together and the combination is called a ground
wave

As the frequency of a transmitter is increased, the range of the ground wave will:

Decrease
Decrease only at night
Increase only over the sea

A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the
transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
Eight
Six
Four
Two

If an NDB with a transmitter power of 25 KW which has a range of 50 nm is adjusted to

give a power output of 100 KW the new range of the NDB will be approximately: "100 nm"

An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to
true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is: NDB:
aircraft position, VOR: beacon position

The speed of a radio wave in nm/sec is:

300,000
161,842
163,842
186,000

A radio wave with a horizontal magnetic component would be best received by a ___
aerial.

magnetic
parabolic
horizontal
vertical

The question is about a horizontal magnetic component which means the electrical
component is vertical.

Questions on Doppler

An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the

transmitter velocity will occur when:

the transmitter moves away from the receiver

the transmitter moves towards the receiver
the receiver moves towards the transmitter
both transmitter and receiver move towards each other

Due to Doppler effect an apparent decrase in the transmitted frequency, which is

proportional to the transmitters velocity, will occur when: "the transmitter moves away
from the receiver"

The Doppler Navigation System is based on:

Doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System

radio waves refraction in the ionosphere
radar principles using frequency shift
phase comparison from ground station transmissions

Doppler navigation systems use ___ to determine aircraft ground speed and drift:

DVOR
Phase comparison of signals from ground stations
Frequency shift in signals reflected from the ground
DME range measurement

In day to day use the greatest cause of error in Doppler is:

input error
sea movement error
weight error
pitch error

The largest error and source of error on a Doppler derived position is:

Cross track due to compass error

Along track due to TAS computation error
Cross track due to errors in drift measurement
Cross track due to error in drift bias

C
 Updating Doppler is undertaken when:

the co-ordinates are reset to revise the position base on alternative information
a new database is loaded
the equipment is re-initialised with the data and time, and the atomic clock is actuated
all of the above

After a long period in memory, Doppler:

falls back to INS

requires updating
should be switched to manual
will have wandered more over land than over sea

Sea bias error:

is due to the movement of the seea and can be partially corrected by the land/sea switch
is due to the movement of the sea and is not affected by the land/sea switch
is due to a change in Doppler shift over water and is not affected by the land/sea switch
is due to a change in Doppler shift over water and is partially corrected by the land/sea
switch

With regard to Doppler navigation system:

updating is the process of entering co-ordinates after taking a fix

updating can be achieved using VOR/DME fix
updating must be carried out as soon as possible after a prolonged period in memory
all of the above are correct

What frequencies are allocated to Doppler Navigation systems?

8.8 Hz and 13.3 Hz

8.8 KHz and 13.3 KHz
8.8 MHz and 13.3 MHz
8.8 GHz and 13.3 GHz

D
SHF Band

A radio facility transmits on a wavelength of 2,22 cm. The facility could be a:

radio altimeter
Doppler
LORAN-C
DME

The 4-beam moving Janus array aligns with the aircraft centre line by:

rotating the array towards the beams with the smallest Doppler shift
rotating the array until matched pairs of beams receive the same difference in Doppler shift
measuring the drift and rotating the array by the same amount
all of the above

Which of the following statements is correct when considering a Doppler navigation

system?

aerial misalignment will produce an error to drift angle

sea bias can be reduced by using a gyro stabilised aerial array
sea movement error produces higher frequency, and thus ground speed as indicated will be
too low
all of the above

Doppler may unlock over:

shallow fast running water

a calm sea
a desert surface
ice

Which of the following statements is TRUE in respect of Doppler?

The lower the vehicle speed, the higher the transmission frequency used
The higher the vehicle speed, the higher the transmission frequency used
Aerials are stabilised to reduce pitching errors
Aerials are stabilised to reduce climb errors

When a transmitter is moving towards a receiver, the correct description of Doppler

Effect is:

There is a decrease in apparent wavelength which is dependent on the transmitter velocity

There is a decrease in apparent wavelength which is independent of the transmitter velocity
There is a increase in apparent wavelength which is dependent on the transmitter velocity
There is an increase in apparent wavelength which is independent of the transmitter
velocity