CMP-12-12-2018 MT-10 Main 12th Eng WA
CMP-12-12-2018 MT-10 Main 12th Eng WA
CMP-12-12-2018 MT-10 Main 12th Eng WA
guru
JEE MAIN
COURSE TEST CODE
NUCLEUS 1 1 2 9 7
MO C K T ES T-1 0
Class: XII Date: 12-12-2018 Time: 3 Hours. Max. Marks: 360
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. The question paper consists of '90' objective type questions. There are '30' questions each in
Chemistry , Mathematics and Physics respectively. Please fill the OMR answer Sheet
accordinglyandcarefully.
2. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
3. You will be awarded 4 marks for each question, if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1)
mark will be awarded.
4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accord-
ingly as per instruction 3 above.
5. Use Black or Blue Ball Point Pen only for filling particulars.
6. Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobile is not allowed.
7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided at the bottom and in end of the booklet for this
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: Al = 27, Mg = 24, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1, P = 31, Ag = 108, N = 14,
Li = 7, I = 127, Cr = 52, K=39, S = 32, Na = 23, C = 12, Br = 80, Fe = 56, Ca = 40, Zn = 65.5, Ti = 48,
Ba = 137, U = 238, Co= 59, B =11, F = 19, He = 4, Ne = 20, Ar = 40 , Mo = 96
[Take : ln 2 = 0.693, ln 1.1 = 0.095, ln 3 = 1.09, e = 1.6 × 10–19, me= 9.1 × 10–31 kg ]
Take: 0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2/Nm2, g = 10 m/s2, Swater = 1 cal/gm °C, Lice = 80 cal/gm. , g = 10 m/s2
unless otherwise stated
C H E M I S T RY
Q.1 Consider the following process and respective energy change -
M(s) M(g) .....(a)
M(s) M2+(g) + 2e– .....(b)
M(g) M+(g) + e– .....(c)
M+(g) M2+(g) + e– .....(d)
M(g) M2+(g) + 2e– .....(e)
Energy required to change M(s) into M+(g) is -
(1) a + c + d (2) a + c (3) a + e – c (4) e – c
OMe lH 4
Q
LiA
Q.2 + O3 Me
2S
P NaB
H
4
R
Product P, Q, R will be respectively:
COOMe COOMe CH2OH
(1) ,
CHO CH2OH , CH2OH
Q.3 In an unielectronic species, the number of revolution per second made by the electron in 4th orbit is twice
of the number of revolutions per second made by the electron in 2nd orbit of H-atom. The unielectronic
specie is,
(1) H (2) He+ (3) Li2+ (4) Be3+
COOH
O
O
(3) C–CH2–COOH (4)
Q.6 50 ml aliquot of a H2O2 (aq.) solution is titrated against 200 ml of 0.2 M acidified KMnO4 (aq.)
solution.After the equivalence point, remaining KMnO4 (aq.) solution requires 100 ml, 0.5 M H2C2O4
(aq.) solution in acidic medium. The volume strength of H2O2 (aq.) solution is
(1) 1 V (2) 11.2 V (3) 5.6 V (4) 22.4 V
Q.8 How many stereoisomers will be formed of 2-methyl hepta-3E, 5E-dienoic acid ?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
0.5 A
P (atm)
0.25 B
400
T (K)
Considering ideal behaviour, the heat lost by the gas during process AB will be :
(1) –1200 Cal (2) 1200 Cal (3) –2400 Cal (4) 1000 Cal
Q.10 In which of the following process, the bond order has increased and the magnetic behaviours is changed?
(1) C2+ C2 (2) NO+ NO (3) O2 O2+ (4) N2 N2+
Q.15 In Cesium iodide crystal, iodide ions form ideal simple cubic lattice while Cs+ ions occupied cubic voids.
If radius of I¯ ion is 500 pm then radius of Cs+ ion is nearly
(1) 850 pm (2) 150 pm (3) 366 pm (4) 1000 pm
Q.16 Which of the following is not a common product of hydrolysis of XeF2 and XeF4 ?
(1) Xe (2) XeO3 (3) HF (4) O2
NO2
NaNO HCl
HCl
CuCl / HCl
Q.17 Sn (A) 2 (B) (C)
Final product C is :
H 3C O
| ||
Q.20 H 5C 2 CH — C NH 2 Br / KOH
2 P NaNO
2 HCl
Q PCC
R
H O 2
Final product R does not give
(1) Haloform reaction (2) Tautomerisation
(3) Tollen's Test (4) Fehling Test
o o o
Q.21 At 25°C, if E Sn 2 |Sn = x volt and E Sn 4 |Sn = y volt then E Sn 2 |Sn 4 in volt will be :
(1) x – y (2) 2x + 4y (3) x – 2y (4) 4y – 2x
CHCl NaOH
Q.23 N–H (
i ) KOH
P 3
Q
( ii ) C 2 H5 X
( iii ) aq.NaOH
Q.24 At 373 K, the vapour pressure of pure water decreases by 190 torr when a certain amount of a non-
volatile solute is dissolved. The mole fraction of solute in the solution is
(1) 19 (2) 25 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.25
Q.26 For which of the following reaction product is not correctly matched.
O
||
(1) CH 3 C H + CHO dil
.NaOH
Cross product shows G.I.
.I.
OH OH
COOH
(2) CCl
4 (
CH 3CO ) 2 O
Aspirin
NaOH
H
CH(CH3)2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
(3) (
i) O2
P + Q , P does not give reaction with FeCl3.
(ii ) H / H 2O
(4) h
+ Cl2 (excess) Benzene hexa chloride
Q.27 A substance X decomposes following 1st order kinetics with a half life of 100 minutes. The fraction of
initial concentration of X, which is reacted after 300 minutes will be :
1 1 1 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 2 4 8
Q.28 Which of the following molecule have only one p-d bond and zero p-p bonds?
(1) ClO3–1 (2) SO2 (3) ClF3 (4) SO32–
Q.29 Find out correct order of reactivity of given compounds with respect to SN2
(p) Me C CH 2 Cl (q)
|| Cl
O
Cl
(r) (s) Me – O – CH2 – Cl
(1) p > s > q > r (2) r > q > s > p (3) s > p > r > q (4) q > r > p > s
Q.30 At 25°C, Ksp values of four salts AB(s), MB2(s), N3C2(s) and A3C(s) are numerically equal. For
dissolution of all salts in pure water, the only correct statement is -
(1) Solubility of all salts are same. (2) MB2(s) is more soluble than A3C(s).
(3) N3C2(s) is most soluble. (4)AB(s) is most soluble.
M AT H E M AT I C S
ax 2 3x 5
Q.31 If y = , then number of possible integral values of 'a' for which y may be capable of all
5x 2 3x a
values x R is
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) none of these
Q.32 Let a2, b2 and c2 be three distinct numbers in AP. If ab + bc + ca = 1 then (b + c), (c + a) and (a + b)
are in
(1) AP (2) GP (3) HP (4) none of these
2 3
Q.34 Let f (x) = [x] + x 1 and g(x) = [x] + {x}2 – 1 then f (x )dx g( x )dx equals
0 1
Where [ k ] denotes greatest integer function less than or equal to k and { x } is fractional part function
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 0
n 1
Q.35 Let 0, 1, 2, ….…, n–1 be the n distinct nth roots of the unity, then the value of 3 r is equal
r 0 r
to
n n 1 n 1 n2
(1) n (2) (3) (4)
3 1 3n 1 3n 1 3n 1
Q.37 If x {1, 2, 3, ….…, 9} and fn(x) = x x x ….… x (n-digits) then f n (3) 2 + fn(2) is equal to
(1) 2f2n(1) (2) fn2(1) (3) f2n(1) (4) f2n(4)
Q.38 Number of points having position vector aî bˆj ck̂ where a, b, c {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} such that
2a + 3b + 5c is divisible by 4 is
(1) 70 (2) 140 (3) 210 (4) 280
Q.39 If n be an integer and x, y, z, w are distinct, the number of distinct terms in the expansion of
(x + y + z + w)n is
(1) nC2 (2) n+2C2 (3) n+3Cn (4) nC3
x 2 3x x 1 x 3
Q.40 If f(x) = x 1 2 x x 3 , then f '(0) is equal to
x 3 x 4 3x
(1) – 39 (2) 64 (3) 24 (4) none of these
3 1
1 1
Q.41 If P = 2 2 ,A=
0 1 and Q = PAP
APT, then PTQ2019P is equal to
1 3
2 2
3 3 2019
1 2019 2019
2 (4)
1 0
(1) (2) 2 (3) 2
0 1 0 3 2019 3
0 1
2 2 2
Q.42 Let A = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9} and B = {2, 4, 6, 8} be two set. An element (a, b) of their cartesian product
A × B is chosen at random. The probability that (a + b) = 9 is
4 3 2 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
Q.43 Let f : [0, 1] R be a function defined as f(x) = x3 – x2 + 4x + 2sin–1x, then number of integers in the
range of the function y = f(x) is
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16
Q.45 Let f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + 5sin2x be an increasing function x R, then which of the following must be
CORRECT?
(1) a2 – 3b – 15 > 0 (2) a2 – 3b + 15 < 0 (3) a2 – 3b + 25 < 0 (4) a2 – 3b + 15 > 0
Q.46 The co-ordinate of the point on y2 = 8x which is closest from x2 + (y + 6)2 = 1 are
(1) (2, – 4) (2) (18, – 12) (3) (32, 16) (4) (32, – 16)
3
Q.47 The area bounded by y = 2 – | 2 – x |; y = is
|x|
7ln 2 5 3ln 3
(1) 3ln 5 (2) (3) (4) none
2 2
x y 1 dy x y 1
Q.48 Solution of = , if at x = 1, y = 1, is
x y 2 dx x y 2
( x y)2 2 ( x y)2 2
(1) ln = 2(x + y) (2) ln = 2 (x – y)
2 2
( x y)2 2 ( x y)2 2
(3) ln = 2(x + y) (4) ln = 2(x – y)
2 2
Q.49 The four sides of a quadrilateral are given by the equation xy (x – 2) (y – 3) = 0. The equation of the line
parallel to x – 4y = 0 that divides the quadrilateral in two equal areas is
(1) x – 4y – 5 = 0 (2) x – 4y + 5 = 0 (3) x – 4y – 1 = 0 (4) x – 4y + 1 = 0
sin 4 cos 4 1
Q.50 If = , then sec2 is equal to
5 1 6
(1) 5 (2) 1 (3) 6 (4) 2
Q.51 If the line xcos + ysin = P cuts the circle x2 + y2 = a2 at A and B (0 < P < a) then the equation of
circle, whose one diameter is line segment AB, is
(1) x2 + y2 – a2 + 2P (xcos + ysin – P) = 0
(2) x2 + y2 – a2 – 2P (xcos + ysin – P) = 0
(3) x2 + y2 – a2 – 4P (xcos + ysin + P) = 0
(4) none of these
Q.52 If the chord of contact of tangents from a point P to the parabola y2 = 4ax touches the parabola
x2 = 4by, then the locus of P is a/an
(1) circle (2) parabola (3) ellipse (4) hyperbola
Q.53 The equation (2x – y + 1)2 + 4 (x + 2y – 3)2 = 16 represents a conic whose centre is
7 1 1 7
(1) , (2) , (3) (1, 7) (4) none of these
5 5 5 5
Q.55 Let P be any arbitrary point on the circumcircle of a given equilateral triangleABC of side length a , then
2 2 2
PA PB PC is equal to
Q.56 If the lines r a tb and r c d are co-planar, then
(1) (a b) · ( c d ) = 0 (2) ( c d ) · (a b) = 0
(3) ( b d ) · (a c ) = 0 (4) (a c ) · ( b d ) = 0
n
r
Q.57 Lim sin is equal to
r 1 n n
n
Q.58 Number of pointsat which thefunction f(x) = [3 + 11sin x] [x (0, ) and [·] is greatest integer function]
is not differentiable is
(1) 11 (2) 22 (3) 21 (4) 23
PHYSICS
Q.61 The force exerted by a compression device is given by F(x) = kx (x – ) for 0 < x < , where is the
maximum possible compression, x is the compression and k is a constant. The work required to compress
the device by a distance d will be maximum when :
(1) d = (2) d = (3) d = (4) d =
4 2 2
Q.62 Two uniform solid balls of same density and of radii r and 2r are dropped in air and fall vertically
downwards. The terminal velocity of the ball with radius r is 1 cm s–1, then the terminal velocity of the
ball of radius 2r will be (neglect bouyant force on the balls.)
(1) 0.5 cm s–1 (2) 4 cm s–1 (3) 1 cm s–1 (4) 2 cm s–1
Q.63 A ray of light enters into a transparent liquid from air as shown in the figure. The refractive index of the
1
liquid varies with depth x from the topmost surface as 2 x where x in meters. The depth of
2
the liquid medium is sufficiently large. The maximum depth reached by the ray inside the liquid is
450
air
1
(1) 2m (2) m (3) 0.5 m (4) 1 m
2
Q.64 A point source is emitting sound in all directions. The ratio of distance of two points from the point source
where the difference in loudness levels is 3 dB is: (log10 2 = 0.3)
1 1 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 4 3
Q.65 A conducting rod AB moves parallel to x-axis in the x-y plane. A uniform magnetic field B pointing
normally out of the plane exists throughout the region.Aforce F acts perpendicular to the rod, so that the
rod moves with uniform velocity v. The force F is given by (neglect resistance of all the wires)
A
y
C B
x
F
R
(1)
vB2l 2 t / RC
R
e (2)
vB2l 2
R
(3)
vB2l 2
R
1 e t / RC (4)
vB2l 2
R
1 e 2 t / RC
Q.66 A cylinder of mass m and radius R is spined to a clockwise angular
velocityo andthengentlyplacedonaninclinedplaneforwhichcoefficient
of friction = tan is the angle of inclined plane with horizontal. The
centre of mass of the cylinder will remain stationary for time:
(1) oR/gsin (2) 2oR/3gsin
(3) 2oR/5gsin (4) oR/2gsin
Q.67 N atoms of a radioactive element emit n alpha particles per second at an instant. Then the half - life of the
element is
n n n N
(1) sec. (2) 1.44 sec. (3) 0.69 sec. (4) 0.69 sec.
N N N n
Q.68 A heavynucleus having mass number 200 gets disintegrated into two small fragments of mass number 80
and 120. If binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 M eV and for daughter nuclei is 7 MeV
and 8 MeV respectively, then the energy released in the decay will be:
(1) 200 MeV (2) 220 MeV (3) 220 MeV (4) 180 MeV
spacer
Q.71 A balloon containing an ideal gas has a volume of 10 litre and temperature of 17º. If it is heated slowly to
75ºC, the work done by the gas inside the balloon is (neglect elasticity of the balloon and take atmo-
spheric pressure as 105 Pa)
(1) 100 J (2) 200 J (3) 250 J (4) data insufficient
Q.72 Abird is flying up at angle sin1 (3/5) with the horizontal.Afish in a pond looks at that bird. When it is
vertically above the fish. The angle at which the bird appears to fly (to the fish) is: [ nwater = 4/3 ]
(1) sin1 (3/5) (2) sin1 (4/5) (3) 45º (4) sin1 (9/16)
Q.73 A very small circular loop of area 5 × 10–4 m2 and resistance 2 ohm is initially concentric and coplanar
with a stationary loop of radius 0.1 m. If one ampere constant current is passed through the bigger loop
and the smaller loop is rotated about its diameter with constant angular velocity . The current induced
(in ampere) in the smaller loop will be :
(1) × 10–9 cost (2) × 10–9 sint (3) ×10–9 sint (4) w × 10–9 sint
2 2
Q.74 A metallic charged ring is placed in a uniform magnetic field with its plane perpendicular to the field. If the
magnitude of field starts increasing with time, then :
(1) the ring starts translating
(2) the ring starts rotating about its axis
(3) the ring starts rotating about a diameter
(4) the ring remains at rest
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Q.75 Axis of a solid cylinder of infinite length and radius R lies along y-axis it carries a uniformly
R R
distributed current ‘ i ’ along +y direction. Magnetic field at a point , y, is :
2 2
0 0i 0i 0
(1) ( î k̂ ) (2) ( ĵ k̂ ) (3) ĵ (4) ( î k̂ )
4R 2R 4R 4R
Q.76 Aconducting disc of radius R rotates about its axis with an angular velocity.Then the potential difference
between the centre of the disc and its edge is (no magnetic field is present) :
m e 2 R 2 me R 3 e me R 2
(1) zero (2) 2e
(3) 3e
(4)
2
Q.77 A particle is released from rest 10 cm from a large sheet carrying a surface charge density of
–2.21 10–9 C/m2. It will strike the sheet after the time. (0 = 8.84 × 10–12 C2/Nm2)
(1) 4 s (2) 2 s (3) 2 2 s (4) 4 2 s.
Q.78 A thin rod of negligible mass and area of cross-section 2 × 10–6 m2, suspended vertically from one end,
has a length of 0.5 m at 2000C. The rod is cooled to 00C, but prevented from contracting by attaching a
mass at the lower end. The value of this mass is : (Young's modulus = 1011 N/m2, Coefficient of linear
expansion 10–5 K–1 and g = 10 m/s2) :
(1) 20 kg (2) 30 kg (3) 40 kg (4) 50 kg
Q.79 The equivalent resistance of the circuit across points Aand B is equal to :
A B 15 10
10 15
30 20
20 30
Q.80 Two glass plates are separated by water. If surface tension of water is 75 dynes per cm and area of each
plate wetted by water is 8 cm2 and the distance between the plates is 0.12 mm, then the force applied to
separate the two plates is
(1) 102 dynes (2) 104 dynes (3) 105 dynes (4) 106 dynes
Q.81 A person P of mass 50 kg stands at the middle of a boat of mass 100 kg moving at a constant velocity 10
m/s with no friction between water and boat and also the engine of the boat is shut off. With what velocity
(relative to the boat surface) should the person move so that the boat comes to rest. Neglect friction
between water and boat.
Q.82 If the apparent weight of the bodies at the equator is to be zero, then the earth should rotate with angular
velocity
g 2g g 3g
(1) rad/sec (2) rad/sec (3) rad/sec (4) rad/sec
R R 2R 2R
Q.83 A bead of mass m is located on a parabolic wire with its axis vertical and vertex at the
origin as shown in figure and whose equation is x2 = 4ay. The wire frame is fixed and
the bead can slide on it without friction. The bead is released from the point y= 4a on
the wire frame from rest. The tangential acceleration of the bead when it reaches the
position given by y = a is :
g 3g g g
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 5
Q.84 N identical capacitors are connected in parallel to a potential difference V. These capacitors are then
reconnected in series such that positively charged plate of one capacitor is connected to negatively
charged plate of the other, their charges being left undisturbed. The potential difference obtained is :
(1) zero (2) (N - 1) V (3) N V (4) N2V
Q.85 A small ball thrown at an initial velocity u directed at an angle = 37° above the horizontal collides
inelastically (e = 1/4) with a vertical massive wall moving with a uniform horizontal velocityu/5 towards
ball.After collision with the wall, the ball returns to the point from where it was thrown. Neglect friction
between ball and wall. The time t from beginning of motion of the ball till the moment of its impact with
the wall is (tan37° = 3/4)
3u 18u 54u 54u
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5g 25g 125g 25g
Q.86 The output of anAC generator is given by : E = Emsin(t – /4) and current is given by
i = imsin(t – 3/4). The circuit contains a single element other than the generator. It is :
(1) a capacitor. (2) a resistor.
(3) an inductor. (4) not possible to decide due to lack of information.
Q.87 A particle undergoes SHM with a time period of 2 seconds. In how much time will it travel from its mean
position to a displacement equal to half of its amplitude
(1) 1/2 sec (2) 1/3 sec (3) 1/4 sec (4) 1/6 sec.
Q.88 Two points of a rod move with velocities 3 v & v perpendicular to the rod and in the same direction,
separated by a distance ' r'. Then the angular velocity of the rod is:
3v 4v 5v 2v
(1) (2) (3) (4)
r r r r
Q.89 Inside a horizontally moving box, an experimenter (who is stationary relative to box) finds that when an
object is placed on a smooth horizontal table and is released, it moves with an acceleration of 10 m/s2.
In this box if 1 kg body is suspended with a light string, the tension in the string in equilibrium position.
(w.r.t. experimenter) will be. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 10 N (2) 10 2 N (3) 20 N (4) zero
Q.90 Along, thin carpet is laid on a floor. One end of the carpet is bent back and then pulled backwards with
constant unit velocity, just above the part of the carpet which is still at rest on the floor. The speed of
centre of mass of the moving part is
v = 1m/s
3 1 1
(1) 1 m/s (2) m/s (3) m/s (4) m/s
4 2 4
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK
ROUGH WORK