Did You Get It? 28.

What are two good sites for intramuscular injections

1. How do cells of the three types of muscle tissues in adults?
differ 29. Which two muscles insert into the calcaneal tendon?
from one another anatomically? What movement do they effect?
2. Which muscle type has the most elaborate connective Chapter 7
tissue wrappings? Did You Get It?
3. What does striated mean relative to muscle cells? 1. CNS = brain and spinal cord. PNS =
4. How do the movements promoted by skeletal muscle nerves that extend to and from the
differ from those promoted by smooth or cardiac CNS. 2. Astrocytes are the most
muscle? numerous neuroglia. Oligodendrocytes
Did You Get It? produce myelin. 3. Neuroglia can divide.
5. Specifically, what structure(s) is/are responsible for
Most neurons cannot. A criterion of
the
cancer cells is their uncontrolled
banding pattern in skeletal muscle cells?
Did You Get It? division. 4. A tract is a bundle of nerve
6. What two structures are closely associated at a fibers in the CNS. A nerve is a bundle
neuromuscular junction? of nerve fibers in the PNS. 5. A ganglion
Did You Get It? is a cluster of nerve cell bodies in
7. Which ions enter the muscle cell during the PNS; a nucleus is a cluster of nerve
generation of an action potential? cell bodies in the CNS. 6. Dendrites
8. What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction? conduct impulses toward the nerve
Did You Get It? cell body; the axon terminal releases
9. Which chemical—ATP or Ca2+—triggers sliding of the neurotransmitters. 7. The fiber that
muscle filaments? conducts at 40 m/sec. 8. A graded
10. Which is a cross-bridge attachment more similar to: potential is a local current that dies out
a with distance. An action potential is a
synchronized rowing team or a person pulling a current that is continuously regenerated
bucket on a rope out of a well? along the length of the axon and does
Did You Get It?
not die out. 9. The synapse is the
11. What are the three processes used to generate
location where an impulse passes from
energy
one neuron to another or to a target cell.
for skeletal muscle contraction?
12. What is the direct source of energy used by muscle The synaptic cleft is the gap at the
fibers for contraction? synapse that neurotransmitter must cross
Did You Get It? to transmit the signal. Chemically via the
13. Gary is trying with all his might to pull a tree stump release of a neurotransmitter and binding
out of the ground. It does not budge. Which type of of the neurotransmitter to the postsynaptic
contraction are his muscles performing? membrane. 10. Dendrites. 11. A reflex
14. What is meant by the term oxygen deficit? is a rapid, predictable, and involuntary
15. To develop big, beautiful skeletal muscles, you response to a stimulus. 12. Cerebral
should cortex, white matter, and basal nuclei.
focus on which type of exercise: aerobic or resistance 13. Mostly myelinated nerve fibers.
exercise? 14. The brain stem controls vital
Did You Get It? activities. 15. The cerebellum provides
16. What action is being performed by a person who precise timing for skeletal muscle activity
sticks out his thumb to hitch a ride? and helps control our balance and
17. What actions take place at the neck when you nod
equilibrium. 16. Diencephalon. 17.
your head up and down as if saying “yes”?
Ventricles. 18. Blood-brain barrier.
18. In what way are fixator and synergist muscles
important? 19. Arachnoid mater. 20. Contusion.
Did You Get It? 21. Nerve cell bodies of interneurons
19. Based on their names, deduce some characteristics and motor neurons. 22. Sensory
of pathways are ascending pathways. 23.
the following muscles: tibialis anterior, erector spinae, Because the leash of nerve fibers there
rectus abdominis, extensor carpi radialis longus. looks like a horse’s tail, the literal
20. What is the fascicle arrangement of the orbicularis translation of cauda equina. 24. Around
oris muscle? each nerve fiber. 25. Vagus nerves.
Did You Get It? 26. Nerve plexus = complex network of
26. Which muscle is the antagonist of the biceps brachii nerves. 27. Sciatic nerve of the sacral
when the biceps flexes the elbow? plexus. 28. Visceral organs (smooth and
27. Which muscle group is the antagonist of the cardiac muscles and glands) are served
hamstring muscles? by the ANS. Skeletal muscles are served
by the somatic nervous system. 29. The in position, such as getting up quickly
ANS has a two-motor neuron pathway from a reclining position. The sympathetic
from the CNS to the organ to be served. nervous system, which regulates blood
The somatic nervous system has just one pressure, is less efficient in old age.
motor neuron in the motor pathway. Review Questions
30. Sympathetic division. 31. They are 1. d; 2. b, c; 3. d; 4. d; 5. c; 6. 1-e, 2-d,
unable to regulate their body temperature 3-f, 4-b, 5-e, 6-h, 7-a; 7. c; 8. c; 9. a,
until the hypothalamus matures. 32. It is c; 10. a; 11. d; 12. D
hypotension caused by a rapid change
If you compare electron micro graphs of a relaxed skeletal muscle fiber and a fully contracted muscle fiber, which would
you see only in a relaxed fiber?
I bands
After ACh attaches to its receptors at the neuromuscular injection, what is the next step?
Sodium channels open
Your ability to lift that heavy couch would be increased by which type of exercise?
Resistance
Someone who sticks out a thumb to hitch a ride is _______ the thumb.
Opposing
Which are ways in which muscle names have been derived?
Size,function, attachment and Location
Which of the following muscles attach to the hip bones?
Rectus abdominis and Biceps femoris
Which of these thigh muscles causes movement at the hip joint?
Rectus femoris, Biceps femoris and Semitendinosus
Which of the following insert on the arm?
Biceps brachii, Triceps brachii and latissimus dorsi
What is the major function of muscle?
To produce heat, arousal from hibernation, and adaptation to cold.
Compare skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscles as to their microscopic anatomy, location and arrangement in body
organs, and function in body organs and function in the body.
Muscles are are classified as voluntary or involuntary and structurally as striated or smooth. three types of muscles:
smooth muscle- involuntary, skeletal muscle-striated, voluntary and cardiac muscle- striated involuntary
What two types of muscle tissue are striated?
cardiac and skeletal
Why are the connective tissue wrappings of skeletal muscles important? Name the connective tissue coverings, beginning
with the finest and ending the most coarse
It keeps form of the muscle by covering and protecting it. it allows for muscle movement such as stretching, contracting,
and the ability to return to normal after its been stretched.
What is the function of tendons?
attach muscle to bone.
move bone in a pulling motion.
When force on muscles, tendons respond by pulling on the bone to cause movement.
What is a Neuromuscular Junction?
can cause a muscle contraction. but it's a synapse between somatic neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber where impulses
pass.
What is motor unit?
is defined as a motor neuron and the muscle fibers that the motor neuron innervates.
What is tetanus graded response?
Variations in the degree of muscle contraction and are required for proper control of skeletal muscle movement.
Can be fused (completed) tetanus or infused (incomplete) tetanus.
What is aerobic respiration?
is the release of energy from glucose or another organic substrate in the presence of Oxygen.
What is Anareobic gycolysis?
the transformation of glucose to pyruvate when limited amounts of oxygen are available.
What is muscle fatigue?
is the decline in ability of a muscle to generate force.
What is neurotransmitter?
a chemical substance that is released at the end of a nerve fiber by the arrival of a nerve impulse and, by diffusing across
the synapse or junction, causes the transfer of the impulse to another nerve fiber, a muscle fiber, or some other structure.
Describe the events that occur from the time a motor neuron releases acetylcholne at the neuromuscular junction until
muscle cell contraction occurs.
Acetylcholine released by the motor neuron at the neuromuscular junction changes the permeability of the cell membrane
at the motor end plate. The permeability change allows the influx of positive charge, which triggers an action potential.
The action potential spreads across the entire surface of the muscle fiber and into the interior via T tubules.
How do isotonic and isometric contractions differ?
Isometric contraction differs from isotonic in a way. the isometric contraction- does not shorten, muscle tension in muscle
increases, tries to slide, pitted againist more/less immovable muscles
. Isotonic contraction has tension through out the fiber and remains constant, but the length shortens and energy is lost.
Muscle tone keeps muscles healthy. What is muscle tone, and what causes it?
is the continuous and passive partial contraction of the muscles, or the muscle's resistance to passive stretch during
resting state.
Nerve fibers are active while the muscles are contracting as messages are unconsciously being fired to maintain this
partially contracted state.
A skeletal muscle is attached to bones at two points. Name each of these attachment points and indicate which is
movable and which is immovable.
Origin- immovable, it attaches to a bone or another muscle
Insertion- movable, muscle attaches to the skin, a bone, or another muscle
List the 12 body .movements studied in this chapter and demonstrate each
flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, circumduction, rotation, pronation, supination, inversion, eversion, dorsiflexion,
plantar flexion, and opposition.
How is a prime mover different fromthe synergist muscle? how can a prime mover also be considered an anagonist?
A prime mover causes specific movements because of its contraction.
synergist muscles help to perform specific muscles and help to cancel out extra movement caused from prime movers.
Prime movers can be considered antagonists because they are responsible for controlling a movement
If you were alternately contracting and relaxing your masseter muscle, what would you be doing? Name three other
muscles of the face, and give the lcoation and function of each.
Masseter- chewing
Zygomatiacus- corner of mouth to cheek. Smiling muscle
Orbicularis oculi- around eye, alowing to blink, wink, etc.
Buccinator- Across cheek, holds food between teeth during chewing
The sternocleidomastoid muscles help to flex the neck. What are their antagonists?
splenius capitus - working as a pair extend and rotate head

trapezius - upper portion extends head and neck

What are the two muscles that reverse the movement of the deltoid muscle?
The Anterior deltoid muscle and the Medial deltoid muscle are the two muscles associated with the shoulder/deltoid
region.
Name the prime mover of elbow flexion. name its antagonist?
Biceps (flexors) and Triceps (extenders).
The Hamstring and Quad groups are antagonists of each other, and each group is a prime mover in its own right. What
action does each muscle group perform?
When your quadriceps contract, they extend your knee. quadriceps are knee extenders.

if they contract, they will antagonize your quads. your hamstrings are knee flexors, they also extend the hip.
What two muscles make up the calf region of the leg
The soleus is a thick, flat muscle located beneath the gastrocnemius muscle. These two make up the calf of the leg
what happens to muscles when they are exercised regularly? exercised vigorously as in weight lifting? not used?
the muscles become healthy and have more endurance. when you exercise vigorously you become stronger and more
durable, become weak, and more vulnerable to injury
What is the effect of aging on skeletal muscles?
Muscles shrink (lose mass), the number and size of muscle fibers decease known as sarcopenia and Water content in the
body slowly goes down. making is stiffer
Should a triathlete engage in aerobic or resistance training? Explain.
Both. A triathlete needs to primarily do aerobic training in order to build endurance for a long event. A triathlete should
also augment that with resistance training to build strength for speed.
Name three muscles or muscle groups used as sites for intramuscular injections, which is most often used in babies?
Deltoid mucles, gluteous muscles and qaud muscles
Mr. Ahmadi was advised by his physician to lose weight and start jogging. He began to jog daily. On the sixth day, he was
forced to jump out of the way of a speeding car. He heard a snapping that immediatly followed by pain in his right lower
calf. A cap was visible between his swollen calf and his heel, and he was unable to plantar flex that foot. What do you
think happened?
Mr. Ahmadi can no longer plantar flex his foot (point his toes) so he must have torn his achille
Major function of the muscle?
Contraction. Movement of structures within the body.
Compare skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscles as to their microscopic anatomy, location and arrangement in body
organs, and function in the body.
Skeletal:
Location -- Bones (some facial muscles to skin)
Microscopic anatomy -- Single, long, cylindrical, multinucleate
Functions: move skeleton

Smooth:
Location -- walls of hollow visceral organs
Microscopic anatomy -- branching chains of cells, uninucleate, striations
Functions: move digestive system.

Cardiac:
Location -- walls of heart
Miscroscopic anatomy -- single, fusiform, uninucleate, no striations
Functions: Contract heart
Specifically, what is responsible for the banding pattern seen in skeletal muscle cells?
Alternating light (I) and dark (A) bands along length of myofibrils.
Importance of connective tissue? Name from finest to most coarse.
Bundle thousands of muscle fibers to keep from tearing. Strength and support. Endomysium, perimysium, fasicle,
epimysium, tendons OR aponeruoses.
Function of tendons? How is a tendon different from an aponeurosis? How is it similar?
Tendons -- anchor muscles, provide durability and conserve space. Tendons strong and cord-like vs sheet-like
aponeruoses (also attach muscles indirectly to bones, cartilage, or connective tissue to each other. BOTH connect muscle
to bone.
Define neuromuscular junction, motor unit, tetanus, graded response, anaerobic respiration, anaerobic glycolysis, muscle
fatigue, and neurotransmitter.
Neuromuscular junction -- region where motor neuron comes into close contact with a skeletal muscle cell

Motor unit -- motor neuron and all the muscle cell it supplies

Tetanus -- the tense, contracted state of a muscle

Graded response -- a response that varies directly with the strength of the stimulus

Aerobic respiration -- a series of metabolic pathways that occur in the mitochondria and use oxygen

Anaerobic glycolysis -- the breakdown of glucose w/o the use of oxygen

Muscle fatigue -- state when the muscle is unable to contract due to being overworked even in the presence of a stimulus

Neurotransmitter -- chemical released by neurons that may, upon binding to receptors of neurons/effector cells,
stimulate/inhibit them
Describe the events that occur from the time a motor neuron releases acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction until
muscle cell contraction occurs.
Acetylcholine diffueses across the synaptic cleft and attaches to receptors (in sarcolemma). Sodium ions infiltrate muscle
cell and creates "action potential". Cross bridges attach to myosin binding sites, pull filaments toward center of sarcomere.
Calcium ions released from sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)
How do isotonic an isometric contractions differ?
Isotonic -- myofilaments successful in contraction which leads to movement

Isometric -- myofilaments unsuccessful in contractions and remains same length and leads to building of tension
Muscle tone keeps muscles healthy. What is muscle tone, and what causes it? What happens to a muscle that loses its
tone?
Muscle tone -- continual partial contraction stimulated by nervous system in a systematic way within the muscle. Loss of
tone -- atrophy and deteriorates (absence of nerve supply)
A skeletal muscle is attached to bones at two points. Name each of these attachment points and indicate which is
movable and which is nonmovable.
Immovable origin and movable insertion.
List the 12 body movements studied in this chapter and demonstrate each.
Flexion, extension, rotation, abduction, adduction, circumduction, dorsiflexion, plantarflexion, inversion, eversion,
supination, pronations, opposition
How is a prime mover different from a synergist muscle? How can a prime mover also be considered an antagonist?
Prime mover -- main responsibility for movement. Synergists -- assist prime movers by producing same movement or
reducing undesirable movements. Antagonists -- oppose
Name the prime mover for chewing. Name three other muscles of the face and give the location and function of each.
Masseter and synergist -- temporalis. Frontalis -- raise eyebrows. Zygomaticus -- smile. Orbicularis oris -- close mouth
and protrude lips.
The sternocleidomastoid muscles help to flex the neck. What are their antagonists?
Trapezius.
Name two muscles that reverse the movement of the deltoid muscle.
Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi.
Name the prime mover of elbow flexion. Name its antagonist.
Prime mover: biceps brachii. Antagonist: tricep brachii.
Other than acting to flex the spine and compress the abdominal contents, the abdominal muscles are extremely important
in protecting and containing the abdominal viscera. What is it about the arrangement of these muscles that makes them
so well suited for their job?
Thickness due to fibers running in different directions.
The hamstring and quadriceps muscle groups are antagonists of each other, and each group is a prime mover in its own
right. What action does each muscle group perform?
Hamstrings -- flexion of knee (and extension of hip). Quads -- extension of knee.
What two-bellied muscle makes up the calf region of the leg? What is its function?
Gastrocnemius. Prime mover for plantarflexion of foot.
What happens to muscles when they are exercised regularly? Exercised vigorously as in weight lifting? Not used?
Exercised regularly -- increase in size, strength, endurance. Not -- muscle weakness (atrophy). Weight lifting --
enlargement of individual muscle cells and amount of connective tissue reinforcing muscle (hypertrophy)
What is the effect of aging on skeletal muscles?
Muscle mass decreases (less strength) and sinewy. Must be exercised regularly.
Name three muscles or muscle groups used as sites for intramuscular injections. Which is most often used in babies?
Deltoid, gluteus medius, rectus femoris, vastus lateralis. Vastus lateralis and rectus femoris in infants b/c of poorly
developed gluteus muscles.
Gregor, who works at a pesticide factory, comes to the clinic complaining of muscle spasms that interfere with his
movement and breathing. A blood test shows that he has become contaminated with organophosphate pesticide. The
doctor states that this type of pesticide is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. How would you explain to Gregor what this
means?
Acetylcholinesterase is a neurotransmitter for muscle movement. Inhibitor oppose process and prolong muscle
contraction.
Mr. Ahmadi was advised by his physician to lose weight and start jogging. He began to jog daily. On the sixth day, he was
forced to jump out of the way of a speeding car. He heard a snapping sound that was immediately followed by pain in his
right lower calf. A gap was visible between his swollen calf and his heel, and he was unable to plantar flex that foot. What
do you think happened?
Tore achilles heel as he is unable to plantarflex the foot.
While painting her house, Sally fell off the ladder and fractured her right clavicle. Treatment prescribed by the emergency
room physician included use of a sling for her right arm to immobilize the clavicle and speed its healing What muscles are
temporarily "put out of business" bu the sling?
Deltoid, latissimus dorsi, and pectoralis major (sternocleidomastoid).
When Eric returned from jogging, he was breathing heavily and sweating profusely, and he complained that his legs
ached and felt weak. His wife poured him a sports drink and urged him to take it easy until he could "catch his breath" On
the basis of what you have learned about muscle energy metabolism, respond to the following questions: What is Eric
breathing heavily? What ATP harvesting pathway have his working muscles been using that leads to such a breathing
pattern? What metabolic product(s) might account for his sore muscles and his feeling of muscle weakness?
Repay oxygen debt. Aerobic respiration. Buildup of lactic acid.
Mr. Posibo has had colon surgery. Now he is experiencing weakness of he muscles on his right side only, the side in
which the incision was made through abdominal musculature. Consequently, the abdominal muscles on his left side
contract more strongly, throwing his torso into a lateral flexion. Mr. Posibo needs physical therapy. What abnormal spinal
curvature will result if he doesn't get it, and why?
Scoliosis. Torso thrown laterally in sagittal plane. Contort mu

Myasthenia gravis is a disease resulting from an autoimmune attack on the ACh receptors of the
motor end plate. Binding of antibodies to the ACh receptors results in generalized muscle weakness
that progresses as more ACh receptors are destroyed. Which of the following medications would help
alleviate the muscle weakness?
a drug that binds to and inactivates acetylcholinesterase (neostigmine)

Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the
following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine?
Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase.

The neuromuscular junction is a well-studied example of a chemical synapse. Which of the following statements describes a critical
event that occurs at the neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron.

Action potentials travel the length of the axons of motor neurons to the axon terminals. These motor neurons __________.
extend from the brain or spinal cord to the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle fiber

Calcium entry into the axon terminal triggers which of the following events?
Synaptic vesicles fuse to the plasma membrane of the axon terminal and release acetylcholine.

Acetylcholine binds to its receptor in the sarcolemma and triggers __________.

the opening of ligand-gated cation channels

Sodium and potassium ions do not diffuse in equal numbers through ligand-gated cation channels. Why?
The inside surface of the sarcolemma is negatively charged compared to the outside surface. Sodium ions diffuse inward along
favorable chemical and electrical gradients.

Inadequate calcium in the neuromuscular junction would directly affect which of the following processes?
Release of acetylcholine from the synaptic vesicles

What structure most directly stimulates a skeletal muscle fiber to contract?

Motor neuron

Drag each tile to the appropriate bin to indicate whether it shows the neuromuscular junction at rest or active (in the process of
transmitting a signal).
...

Match the term in the left column to the blanks near their definition on the right.
...

Arrange the sequence of events at the NMJ from first to last.

Rank the sequence of events at the NMJ that initiate an action potential in the muscle fiber, from first to last.
...

Myasthenia gravis is a disease resulting from an autoimmune attack on the ACh receptors of the motor end plate. Binding of
antibodies to the ACh receptors results in generalized muscle weakness that progresses as more ACh receptors are destroyed. Which
of the following medications would help alleviate the muscle weakness?
a drug that binds to and inactivates acetylcholinesterase (neostigmine)

In a neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles in the motor neuron contain which neurotransmitter?
acetylcholine (ACh)

When an action potential arrives at the axon terminal of a motor neuron, which ion channels open?
voltage-gated calcium channels

What means of membrane transport is used to release the neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft?
exocytosis

The binding of the neurotransmitter to receptors on the motor end plate causes which of the following to occur?
Binding of the neurotransmitter causes chemically gated sodium channels to open in the motor end plate (junctional folds of the
sarcolemma) and sodium enters the cell.

How is acetylcholine (ACh) removed from the synaptic cleft?

simple diffusion away from the synaptic cleft and acetylcholinesterase (AChE; an enzyme)

The action potential on the muscle cell leads to contraction due to the release of calcium ions. Where are calcium ions stored in the
muscle cell?
terminal cisterns (cisternae) of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following statements is true?

The neurotransmitter is stored in the presynaptic motor neuron.

Which of the following events most directly occurs due to an action potential generated by the motor neuron?
ACh is released at the synapse.

The post-synaptic reaction on the sarcolemma is short in duration. Which of the following explanations describes why the reaction
of the sarcolemma is short in duration?
*ACh diffuses out of the synaptic cleft.
*AChE acts to breakdown the ACh in the synaptic cleft.
Excitation of the sarcolemma is coupled or linked to the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber. What specific event initiates the
contraction?
Calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum initiates the contraction.
-Yes! Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the specific name given to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells. It is especially
abundant and convoluted in skeletal muscle cells. It functions in the storage, release, and reuptake of calcium ions.

A triad is composed of a T-tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. How are these components
connected?
A series of proteins that control calcium release.
-Yes! When action potentials propagate along T-tubules, a voltage-sensitive protein changes shape and triggers a different protein to
open it's channels, resulting in the release of calcium from the terminal cisternae.

What is name given to the regularly spaced infoldings of the sarcolemma?

transverse or T tubules
-Yes! T tubules penetrate a skeletal muscle fiber and provide a pathway for excitation into the interior.

Which of the following is most directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction of skeletal muscle fibers?
Calcium ions.
-Yes! Action potentials propagating down the T-tubule cause a voltage-sensitive protein to change shape. This shape change opens
calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, allowing calcium ions to flood the sarcoplasm. This flood of calcium ions is
directly responsible for the coupling of excitation to contraction in skeletal muscle fibers.

What is the relationship between the number of motor neurons recruited and the number of skeletal muscle fibers innervated?
Typically, hundreds of skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by a single motor neuron.
-Yes! There are many more skeletal muscle fibers than there are motor neurons. The ratio of neurons to fibers varies from
approximately one to ten to approximately one to thousands.
Inadequate calcium in the neuromuscular junction would directly affect which of the following processes?
Release of acetylcholine from the synaptic vesicles
-Calcium ions enter the axon terminal when voltage-gated calcium channels open in response to the arrival of an action potential.
The presence of calcium causes synaptic vesicles to release acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.

What structure most directly stimulates a skeletal muscle fiber to contract?

Motor neuron
-The motor neuron transmits action potentials from the brain or spinal cord to muscle fibers by releasing acetylcholine at the
neuromuscular junction.
Myasthenia gravis is a disease resulting from an autoimmune attack on the ACh receptors of the motor end plate. Binding of
antibodies to the ACh receptors results in generalized muscle weakness that progresses as more ACh receptors are destroyed. Which
of the following medications would help alleviate the muscle weakness?
a drug that binds to and inactivates acetylcholinesterase (neostigmine)
-The progressive destruction of ACh receptors leads to a progressive decline in the strength of end-plate potentials. To counteract
this problem, drug therapy focuses on increasing the concentration of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft. Drugs that bind to
acetylcholinesterase and prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine can help restore some muscle strength by allowing acetylcholine
to interact with the ACh receptors longer. Neostigmine is one such drug and is used to treat myasthenia gravis.
Botulism and myasthenia gravis are conditions that cause muscle weakness. Which of these statements is NOT true?
Both conditions are caused by an inability of the body to produce adequate acetylcholine.
-Although both conditions affect normal activity at the neuromuscular junction, failure to produce acetylcholine is not the
mechanism.

The small space between the sending neuron and the receiving neuron is the
Synaptic Cleft
-The synaptic cleft is the small space between the sending neuron and the receiving neuron.

A molecule that carries information across a synaptic cleft is a

neurotransmitter
-Neurotransmitter molecules carry information across a synaptic cleft.

When calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal,

they cause vesicles containing neurotransmitter molecules to fuse to the plasma membrane of the sending neuron.

When neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron,
ion channels in the plasma membrane of the receiving neuron open.

If a signal from a sending neuron makes the receiving neuron more negative inside,
the receiving neuron is less likely to generate an action potential.
-If the receiving neuron is more negative inside, it is less likely to generate an action potential.

The generation of an action potential in a neuron requires the presence what type of membrane channels? Select the best answer.
voltage-gated channels
What causes the release of calcium from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum within a muscle cell?
arrival of an action potential

The binding of calcium to which molecule causes the myosin binding sites to be exposed?
binding of calcium to the protein complex

A myosin head binds to which molecule to form a cross bridge?

actin

What causes the myosin head to disconnect from actin?

binding of ATP

What energizes the power stroke?

hydrolysis of ATP

In a neuromuscular junction, synaptic vesicles in the motor neuron contain which neurotransmitter?
acetylcholine (ACh)

When an action potential arrives at the axon terminal of a motor neuron, which ion channels open?
voltage-gated calcium channels

What means of membrane transport is used to release the neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft?
exocytosis

The binding of the neurotransmitter to receptors on the motor end plate causes which of the following to occur?
Binding of the neurotransmitter causes chemically gated sodium channels to open in the motor end plate.

How is acetylcholine (ACh) removed from the synaptic cleft?

acetylcholinesterase (AChE; an enzyme)

The action potential on the muscle cell leads to contraction due to the release of calcium ions. Where are calcium ions stored in the
muscle cell?
terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

What is the role of calcium in the cross bridge cycle?

Calcium binds to troponin, altering its shape.

What role does tropomyosin play in the cross bridge cycle?

The displacement of tropomyosin exposes the active sites of actin, allowing cross bridges to form.

How does troponin facilitate cross bridge formation?

Troponin controls the position of tropomyosin on the thin filament, enabling myosin heads to bind to the active sites on actin.

What, specifically, is a cross bridge?

myosin binding to actin

Which event causes cross bridge detachment?

ATP binding to the myosin head

Where in the cross bridge cycle does ATP hydrolysis occur?

during the cocking of the myosin head

How/when does the myosin head cock back to store energy for the next cycle?
After the myosin head detaches, energy from ATP hydrolysis is used to re-cock the myosin head.

BMD (2,3-butanedione 2-monoximime) inhibits myosin, such that ATP can bind to myosin but myosin is unable to hydrolyze the
bound ATP. What effect would BMD have on the cross bridge cycle?
Myosin heads would remain detached, unable to cock.

During contraction, what prevents actin myofilaments from sliding backward when a myosin head releases?
There are always some myosin heads attached to the actin myofilament when other myosin heads are detaching.

Most skeletal muscles move bones. They do this by _____ on the bone, to _____ the joint angle.
pulling; increase or decrease

The calcium-binding protein in muscle contractile units is _____.

troponin

The inward extensions of the sarcolemma are called _____, and they conduct _____ into the interior of the muscle cell.
t-tubules; the action potential

Which of the following best summarizes the events of excitation-contraction coupling?

Muscle action potentials initiate calcium signals that activate a contraction-relaxation cycle.

Which of the following statements best describes the neuromuscular junction?

the point of synapse between a motor neuron and the muscle fiber that it innervates

Which of the following structures is/are necessary to initiate the muscle action potential?
muscle fiber, acetylcholine, ACh receptor-channels, motor neuron, motor end plate

A structure that when bond to a ligand opens a divalent channel for the movement of both Na+ and K+
ACh receptor-channel

A change in membrane voltage that travels down the T-tubule to cause opening of Ca2+ channels
action potential

An area that contains many synaptic vesicles filled with acetylcholine

axon terminal of motor neuron

An area of muscle fiber membrane that is in close association with the axon terminal of the motor neuron, contain receptors of
acetylcholine
motor end plate

Putting the events at the neuromuscular junction in order or that they occur in the correct sequential order.
1. Somatic motor neuron delivers action potential. 2. Acetylcholine is released from the axon terminal onto the motor endplate. 3.
Net Na+ influx through nicotinic receptors. 4. Muscle fiber depolarizes. 5. Action potential travels down the T-tubule of the muscle
fiber.

Which of the following best describes the contraction phase of the excitation-contraction coupling reaction?
Actin and myosin filaments slide past each other to shorten the sarcomere, bringing Z disks closer together.

Which of the following best describes the role of calcium (Ca2+) in the excitation-contraction coupling reaction?
Ca2+ will bind to troponin, which leads to a conformational shift in tropomyosin, allowing for actin and myosin to attach.

Putting the events of contraction in order

1. An action potential that travels down the T-tubule changes the structural confirmation of the DHP L-type Ca2+ channel. 2.
Ryanodine receptor channels open. 3. Ca2+ leaves the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 4. Acitn and myosin bind to one another. 5. Myosin
heads utilize energy from ATP hydrolysis to produce the power stroke. 6. Actin filaments slide toward the M line, shortening the
sarcomere.

Which of the following is the most direct cause of muscle relaxation?

Ca2+ unbinds from troponin, which results in tropomyosin re-covering myosin binding sites.

Put excitation-contraction coupling and muscle relaxation so that they occur in the correct sequential order.
1. Acetylcholine is release from motor neuron. 2. Action potential travels down the T-tubule. 3. Ca2+ is released from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum. 4. Myosin generates the power stroke. 5. Ca2+ -ATPase channels actively pump Ca2+ back into the
sarcoplasmic reticulum. 6. Ca2+ unbinds from troponin. 7. Actin filament slip back to rest position.

Which loss of function would occur if you introduced a chemical that functioned as an inhibitor of the ryanodine receptor channel?
Myosin would not be able to bind to actin in order to cause shortening of the sarcomere.

What is the type of chemical reaction used to rebuild ADP into ATP?
dehydration synthesis

Which of the following processes produces molecules of ATP and has two pyruvic acid molecules as end products?
glycosis
(Glucose is broken down in the process called glycolysis. This process takes place in the cytoplasm and does not require oxygen -
hence it is called anaerobic respiration. If oxygen is available, the pyruvic acid moves into the mitochondria and glycolysis
contributes to aerobic respiration)

Which of the following processes produces 36 ATP?

Krebs cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
(36 ATPs are produced for each glucose molecule. This process, which takes place in the mitochondria, is considered aerobic
respiration because oxygen is required.)

The "rest and recovery" period, where the muscle restores depleted reserves, includes all of the following processes EXCEPT
__________.
Pyruvic acid is converted back to lactic acid.
Which ion signals the beginning of skeletal muscle contraction?
Ca2+

What is it called when myosin crossbridges attach to actin filaments and pull them toward the middle of the sarcomere?
power stroke

What happens when calcium binds troponin?

Tropomyosin is pulled away from the actin active site.

Which of the following would cause muscle relaxation to occur?

Calcium ions pumped into the SR

The function of transverse tubules is to

rapidly conduct action potentials to the interior of the muscle fiber.

When a skeletal muscle generates enough force during contraction to shorten,

the sarcomere and the I band will shorten.

In order for high force crossbridges to form in contracting skeletal muscle, calcium must
bind to troponin which moves the tropomyosin.

The molecular event that occurs immediately after the power stroke is the
release of ADP from the myosin.

The hydrolysis of ATP causes myosin to immediately

rotate into a position (cocked) to bind to actin.

The binding of acetylcholine to its receptor at the neuromuscular junction causes the opening of a
channel for both Na+ and K+.

The contraction cycle is triggered by the rise in ________ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR).
Ca2+
Put these events in the correct chronological sequence:
1. End-plate potentials trigger action potentials.
2. Transverse tubules convey potentials into the interior of the cell.
3. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the motor end plate.
4. Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
3,1,2,4
How does the process of smooth muscle contraction differ from contraction in skeletal muscle?
Ca2+ comes from the extracellular fluid as well as the SR.

Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome

- a presynaptic disorder of the neuromuscular junction that can cause weakness similar to that of MG
- muscles of the lower limbs are most commonly affected
- caused by autoantibodies directed against calcium channels at the motor nerve terminals
- Mostly associated with small-cell carcinoma of the lung
What antibodies are detected?
voltage gated calcium channel antibodies
Voltage-gated calcium channels (VGCCs), also known as voltage-dependent calcium channels (VDCCs),
are a group of voltage-gated ion channels found in the membrane of excitable cells (e.g., muscle, glial cells,
neurons, etc.) with a permeability to the calcium ion Ca2+
 Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome Antibody
 LEMS Autoantibody
 VGCC Antibody
 VGCCA
two calcium channels
sarcoplasmic
reticulum
motor neurons/t-tubules
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is an autoimmune disorder of neuromuscular transmission that
affects the presynaptic release of acetylcholine.1-3 The release of acetylcholine from storage vesicles in the
nerve ending is regulated by the influx of calcium through voltage-gated channels (VGCC). The impairment of
acetylcholine release results in fatiguability and muscle weakness that is characteristic of the disease. Several
subtypes of calcium channels have been described (T, L, N, P) based on biophysical and pharmacological
properties. Of these, P subtypes are thought to be the most significant in LEMS.
Calcium channels of the sarcolemma and the sarcoplasmic reticulum playa key integrative role in determining and fine
tuning the ionic free calcium concentration of the sarcoplasm and regulation of muscle function. Changes in the free
ionic calcium concentration can lead to (1) force development and motion, (2) heat production during fever, and (3)
breakdown of muscle protein reserves. Calcium channels of the L-type present in the transverse tubule (IT) play an
essential role in force development during stimulation of muscle at frequencies greater than 1 Hz. L-Calcium channels
are also responsible for regulating aerobic heat production during membrane depolorizations between -90 mV and -50
mY. Calcium channels present in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, are (1) the feet operated calcium channels present in the
junctional membrane of the terminal cisternae (TC) responsible for the single twitch, (2) calcium operated calcium
channels, and (3) inositol triphosphate operated channels. These channels are involved in maintaining sarcoplasmic free
calcium at concentrations above lxl0-7M but below 5xl0-7M for muscle function other than movement. Present in the
foot of the terminal cisternae (TC) are junctional ryanodinc receptors that operate a calcium channel which can also be
opened by voltage change across the T.T. membrane when linked to a dihydropyridine receptor modified L Channel
(Tanabe et al. 1990, Hoffman et al. 1987, Rios and Pizzaro, 1988, Adams et al. 1990) and plays a primary role in the single
twitch. Ryanodine binds to a receptor moiety present in the sarcolemmal junctional feet between the T.T. and the T.e.
and to the Ca release of calcium channels present in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of cardiac ventricular cells (Fabia to
1985, Lakatta et al. 1985). Both of these modified channels are necessary for the coupling of excitation to contraction.
Excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle cannot be considered as a single process but involves more than one
coupling process as we change function from a single twitch to a tetanus. The integrative role of the calcium channels of
the transverse tubule (T.T.) and the terminal cisternae, both junctional and nonjunctional, is best demonstrated by the
changes in calcium flux that occur during stimulation of muscle as a function of frequency. The calcium fluxes that occur
during a single twitch are not the same as the calcium fluxes that occur as a function of time and frequency during a
positive staircase and fatigue at 1 Hz and during a tetanus.
GCC. Autoantibodies directed against voltage-gated calcium channel (VGCC) also are known as anti-voltage dependent calcium
channels or anti-LEMS (Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome). VGCC is a macromolecular complex, composed of P, Q, N, L, T, and R
subunits. The P/Q channels are functionally related to the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitters from the nerve endings, whereas
N-type channels are key components of the autonomic conduction system. In contrast to antibody blockade of the post-synaptic
acetylcholine receptor targeted by myasthenia gravis autoantibodies, VGCC antibodies bind presynaptic nerve terminals.
Up to 95% of LEMS-positive sera also contain anti-P/Q type autoantibodies, but results from conventional immunoassays correlate
poorly with disease severity. The majority of LEMS patients have SCLC, and ≤ 95% of these patients also have anti-P/Q type
antibodies. It is important to recognize that anti-VGCC antibodies are present in 76% of LEMS patients without detectable tumors. In
addition, anti P/Q type antibodies are observed in up to 7% of SCLC without LEMS, although anti-P/Q type antibodies have not been
reported in myasthenia gravis despite the strong overlap of clinical signs and symptoms. P/Q or N antibodies, however, do co-exist with
anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies in what is referred to as the overlap MG-LEMS syndrome. A few cases of anti-P/Q type
antibodies in the sera of cerebellar ataxia patients have been reported.
Researchers also have reported N-type calcium channel antibodies in 30–40% of patients with LEMS and L-type calcium channel
antibodies in ≤75% of patients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, although these observations have yet to be validated. Furthermore,
other studies have reported autoantibodies against different subunits of L-type VGCC in myasthenia gravis and congenital heart block
sera. RIPA using 125I-ω-conotoxin-labelled calcium channels detects anti-P/Q-type calcium channel antibodies. More recently, a CBA
has become available, and an ELISA is being developed. RIPA using 1255I-ω-conotoxin-labelled calcium channels to detect N-type
calcium channel antibodies
The SARCOPLASMIC RETICULUM (SR) is a bit like the endoplasmic reticulum of other cells, e.g., it's hollow. But the
primary function of the SARCOPLASMIC RETICULUM is to STORE CALCIUM IONS. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is very
abundant in skeletal muscle cells and is closely associated with the MYOFIBRILS (and, therefore, the MYOFILAMENTS).
The membrane of the SR is well-equipped to handle calcium: there are "pumps" (active transport) for calcium so that
calcium is constantly being "pumped" into the SR from the cytoplasm of the muscle cell (called the SARCOPLASM). As a
result, in a relaxed muscle, there is a very high concentration of calcium in the SR and a very low concentration in the
sarcoplasm (and, therefore, among the myofibrils & myofilaments). In addition, the membrane has special openings, or
"gates", for calcium. In a relaxed muscle, these gates are closed and calcium cannot pass through the membrane. So, the
calcium remains in the SR. However, if an impulse travels along the membrane of the SR, the calcium "gates" open &,
therefore, calcium diffuses rapidly out of the SR & into the sarcoplasm where the myofibrils & myofilaments are located.
This, as you will see, is a key step in muscle contraction.

Action potentials are conducted into the interior of muscle fibers via the T-tubules and there they
activate voltage-gated channels known as dihydropyridine receptors (DHPR)