Mock Test 1

(Super 10 NEET)

This Paper '’Mock Test 1 (Super 10 NEET)’' is taken

from our Book:

ISBN : 9789388240857
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2

Time : 3 hrs. Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS
• Physics (180 marks) : Question No. 1 to 45 are of 4 marks each.

• Chemistry (180 marks) : Question No. 46 to 90 are of 4 marks each.

• Biology (360 marks) : Question No. 91 to 180 are of 4 marks each.

• Negative Marking : One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect
response of each question.

(a) 6 H (b) 0.67 H

PHYSICS (c) 3 H (d) 1.67 H
1. The dimensions of a × b in the relation 5. The given electrical network is equivalent to :
2 Y
b- x A
E= , where E is the energy, x is the
at B
displacement and t is time are (a) OR gate (b) NOR gate
(a) ML2T (b) M–1L2T
2 –2 (c) NOT gate (d) AND gate
(c) ML T (d) MLT–2
2. A particle starting with certain initial velocity and 6. The work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two
uniform acceleration covers a distance of 12 m in photons each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron
first 3 seconds and a distance of 30 m in next 3 of aluminium, then emission of electron will
seconds. The initial velocity of the particle is (a) depend upon the density of the surface
(a) 3 ms–1 (b) 2.5 ms–1 (b) possible
(c) 2 ms–1 (d) 1 ms–1 (c) not possible
3. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion (d) None of these
having time period T. The time taken in 3/8th 7. A doubly ionised Li atom is excited from its
oscillation is ground state(n = 1) to n = 3 state. The
3 5 5 7 wavelengths of the spectral lines are given by
(a) T (b) T (c) T (d) T
8 8 12 12 l32, l31 and l21. The ratio l32/l31 and l21/l31 are,
4. When current in a coil changes from 5 A to 2 A respectively
in 0.1 s, average voltage of 50 V is produced. (a) 8.1, 0.67 (b) 8.1, 1.2
The self - inductance of the coil is : (c) 6.4, 1.2 (d) 6.4, 0.67
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8. Two wires A and B of the same material, having (a) Top, down, top, down
radii in the ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the (b) Top, down, down, top
ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of drift speed of electrons in (c) Down, top, top, down
A and B is (d) Down; top, down, down
(a) 16 : 1 (b) 1 : 16 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 13. A circular disc A of radius r is made from an iron
9. A stone is thrown with a velocity u making an
angle q with the horizontal. The horizontal plate of thickness t and another circular disc B
distance covered by its fall to ground is maximum of radius 4r is made from an iron plate of thickness
when the angle q is equal to t/4. The relation between the moments of inertia
(a) 0º (b) 30º (c) 45º (d) 90º IA and IB is
10. An object undergoing SHM takes 0.5 s to travel (a) IA > IB
from one point of zero velocity to the next such (b) IA = IB
point. The distance between those points is 50 (c) IA < IB
cm. The period, frequency and amplitude of the (d) depends on the actual value of t and r
motion is 14. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive
(a) 1s, 1Hz, 25 cm (b) 2s, 1Hz, 50 cm metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 ×
(c) 1s, 2Hz, 25 cm (d) 2s, 2Hz, 50 cm 1014 Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off
11. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are voltage for the photoelectric emission is nearly
placed at each corner as shown in fig. The electric (a) 2 V (b) 3 V (c) 5 V (d) 1 V
intensity at centre O will be 15. A metallic bar is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC. The
+q A coeficient of linear expansion is 10–5 K–1. What
will be the percentage increase in length?
(a) 0.01% (b) 0.1% (c) 1% (d) 10%
r 16. A rough vertical board has an acceleration a
O along the horizontal so that a block of mass M
r r pressing against it does not fall. The coefficient
+q +q
of friction between block and the board is
a
B C a g
(a) > (b) <
1 q 1 q g a
M
(a) 4 p Îo r
(b)
4 p Îo r 2
a g
1 3q (c) = (d) >
(c) (d) zero g a
4 p Îo r 2
17. A light ray falls on a rectangular glass slab as
12. The figure shows the path of a positively charged shown. The index of refraction of the glass, if
particle 1 through a rectangular region of uniform total internal reflection is to occur at the vertical
electric field as shown in the figure. What is the face, is 45º
( 3 + 1)
direction of electric field and the direction of
particles 2, 3 and 4 ?
(a) 3/ 2 (b)
Top 2
2–
1+
+3
–4 (c)
( 2 + 1) (d) 5/2
Glass

Down 2
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18. Plates of area A are arranged as shown. The
T æ1 1 ö 2T æ 1 1 ö
distance between each plate is d, the net - -
r çè r R ÷ø r çè r R ÷ø
(a) (b)
capacitance is b
e0 A 7e 0 A 4T æ 1 1 ö 6T æ 1 1 ö
(a) (b) - ÷ -
d d (c) ç
r èr Rø
(d)
r çè r R ÷ø
6e 0 A 5e 0 A 25. The path difference between the two waves :
(c) (d)
d d a 2 px ö
æ
19. A plane wave of wavelength 6250 Å is incident y1 = a1 sin ç wt - ÷
è l ø
normally on a slit of width 2 × 10–2 cm. The width
æ 2px ö
of the principal maximum on a screen distant 50 and y 2 = a 2 sin ç wt - + f ÷ will be
cm will be è l ø
(a) 312.5 × 10–3 cm (b) 312.5 × 10–6 m 2p 2p æ pö
(a) f (b) çf - ÷
(c) 312.5 × 10–3 m (d) 312.5 × 10–6 cm l l è 2ø
20. The heat radiated per unit area in 1 hour by a
l 2p æ pö
furnace whose temperature is 3000 K is (s = 5.7 × (c) f (d) çf + ÷
10–8 W m–2 K–4) 2p l è 2ø
(a) 1.7 × 1010 J (b) 1.1 × 1012 J 26. The diagram shows the energy levels for an
8
electron in a certain atom. Which transition
(c) 2.8 × 10 J (d) 4.6 × 106 J shown represents the emission of a photon with
21. A gun fires two bullets at 60º and 30º with the most energy?
horizontal. The bullets strike at some horizontal n=4
distance. The ratio of maximum height for the n=3
two bullets is in the ratio of
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 n=2
22. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal
resistance of 400 Ohm. Its terminals are connected
to a load of 4000 Ohm the voltage across the n =1
I II III IV
load is
(a) IV (b) III (c) II (d) I
(a) 220 volt (b) 440 volt
27. During an adiabatic compression, 830 J of work
(c) 200 volt (d) 400 volt is done on 2 moles of a diatomic ideal gas to
23. Electric field inside a copper wire of length 10 reduce its volume by 50%. The change in its
metres, resistance 2 ohm connected to a 10 volt temperature is nearly: (R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1)
battery is (a) 40 K (b) 33 K (c) 20 K (d) 14 K
(a) 1 Vm –l (b) 0.5 Vm–l 28. A body of mass 10 kg and velocity 10 m/s collides
(c) 10 Vm –l (d) 5 Vm–l with a stationary body of mass 5 kg. After
24. A large number of liquid drops each of radius r collision both bodies stick to each other, velocity
of the bodies after collision will be
coalesce to from a single drop of radius R. The
energy released in the process is converted into 3 18
(a) m/s (b) m/s
kinetic energy of the big drop so formed. The 10 3
speed of the big drop is (given, surface tension 9 20
of liquid T, density r) (b) m/s (d) m/s
20 3
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29. Two particles of mass m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) attract that the ratio VL : VC : VR = 1 : 2 : 3. If the rms
each other with a force inversely proportional to voltage of the AC sources is 100 V, the VR is
the square of the distance between them. If the close to:
particles are initially held at rest and then (a) 50 V (b) 70 V
released, the centre of mass will (c) 90 V (d) 100 V
(a) move towards m1 33. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors
(b) move towards m2 of electromagnetic wave are oriented along
(c) remain at rest (a) the same direction and in phase
(d) Nothing can be said (b) the same direction but have a phase
30. Which of the given graphs proves Newton’s law difference of 90º
of cooling? (c) mutually perpendicular directions and are
in same phase
(d) mutually perpendicular directions but has
a phase difference of 90º
34. The gravitational field in a region is given by
log (T – T0)

(a)
®
g = 5N / kgiˆ + 12N / kgjˆ . The change in the
Time
gravitational potential energy of a particle of mass
1 kg when it is taken from the origin to a point
(7 m, – 3 m) is:
(a) 71 J (b) 13 58J
log (T – T0)

(b) (c) – 71 J (d) 1 J

35. The counting rate observed from a radioactive
source at t = 0 was 1600 counts s–1, and t = 8 s,
Time
it was 100 counts s–1. The counting rate
observed as counts s–1 at t = 6 s will be
(a) 250 (b) 400
(c) 300 (d) 200
36. At 0ºK which of the following properties of a
log (T – T0)

(c) gas will be zero?

(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy
(c) Vibrational energy (d) Density
Time 37. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15W and
(d) None of these gives full scale deflection for a current of 4 mA.
31. The r.m.s. velocity of oxygen molecule at 16ºC is To convert it to an ammeter of range 0 to 6 A
474 m/sec. The r.m.s. velocity in m/s of hydrogen (a) 10 mW resistance is to be connected in
molecule at 127ºC is parallel to the galvanometer
(b) 10 mW resistance is to be connected in
(a) 1603 (b) 1896
series with the galvanometer
(c) 2230.59 (d) 2730 (c) 0.1 W resistance is to be connected in
32. When the rms voltages VL, VC and VR are parallel to the galvanometer
measured respectively across the inductor L, the (d) 0.1 W resistance is to be connected in series
capacitor C and the resistor R in a series LCR with the galvanometer
circuit connected to an AC source, it is found
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38. A uniform rod of mass m, length l , area of cross- 44. For the velocity time graph shown in the figure
section A has Young’s modulus Y. If it is hanged below the distance covered by the body in the
vertically, elongation under its own weight will be last two seconds of its motion is what fraction
mgl 2mgl of the total distance travelled by it in all the seven
(a) (b)
2AY AY seconds?
mgl mgY 1
(c) (d) (a)
AY Al 2
39. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When 10
it is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance 1 B C
between the objective and the eye piece is found (b) 8
4 ­ 6
to be 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are
velocity 4
(a) 18 cm, 2 cm (b) 11 cm, 9 cm 2 ms–1
(c) 10 cm, 10 cm (d) 15 cm, 5 cm (c) 2 A D
3
40. If two soap bubbles of different radii are 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
connected by a tube. Then Time (s)
(a) air flows from the smaller bubble to the 1
(d)
bigger bubble 3
(b) air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller 45. A 25 cm long solenoid has radius 2 cm and 500
bubble till the sizes are interchanged total number of turns. It carries a current of 15
(c) air flows from the bigger bubble to the A. If it is equivalent to a magnet of the same size
smaller bubble till the sizes become equal r
(d) there is no flow of air. and magnetization M (magnetic moment/
uur
41. In a transistor volume), then M is
(a) both emitter and collector have same length
(b) length of emitter is greater than that of (a) 30000p Am–1 (b) 3p Am–1
collector (c) 30000 Am–1 (d) 300 Am–1
(c) length of collector is greater than that of
emitter
(d) any one of emitter and collector can have
CHEMISTRY
greater length
46. The enolic form of a acetone contains
42. A brass scale of a barometer gives correct reading
(a) 9 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 2 lone pairs
at 0°C. aBrass = 0.00002/°C. The barometer reads
75 cm at 27°C. The atmospheric pressure at 0°C is (b) 8 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 2 lone pairs
(a) 74.20 cm (b) 74.62 cm (c) 10 sigma bonds, 1 pi bond and 1 lone pair
(c) 74.92 cm (d) 75.04 cm (d) 9 sigma bonds, 2 pi bonds and 1 lone pair
43. The total length of a sonometer wire between 47. Following reaction occurrs in an automobile
fixed ends is 110 cm. Two bridges are placed to
divide the length of wire in ratio 6 : 3 : 2. The 2C8 H18 ( g ) + 25O 2 ( g ) ¾¾
®
tension in the wire is 400 N and the mass per unit 16CO 2 ( g ) + 18H 2 O ( g )
length is 0.01 kg/m. What is the minimum
common frequency with which three parts can The sign of DH, DS and DG would be
vibrate? (a) +, –, + (b) –, +, –
(a) 1100 Hz (b) 1000 Hz
(c) 166 Hz (d) 100 Hz (c) –, +, + (d) +, +, –
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48. What is Z in the following sequence of (a) Ni2+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ > Mn2+ (size)
reactions? (b) Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn (size)
PCl Alc. KOH ( i) Conc. H SO (c) Mn2+ > Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ (unpaired electron)
Z ¾¾¾
5 ® X ¾¾ ¾ ¾
¾® Y ¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾
2¾¾
4®Z
(d) Fe2+ > Co2+ > Ni2+ > Cu2+ (unpaired electron)
(ii ) H 2O; boil
54. Match the columns
(a) CH3CH2CH2OH Column - I Column - II
(b) CH3CH(OH)CH3
2Cl / UV light
(c) (CH3CH2)2CHOH (A) C2H6¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® (p) Finkelstein
(d) CH3CH = CH2 C2H5Cl reaction
49. Complexes formed in the following methods are (B) C6H5NH2 (q) Free radical
I. Mond's process for purification of nickel. substitution
NaNO 2 + HCl/Cu 2Cl 2
II. Removal of lead poisoning from the body. ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®
273- 278K
III. Cyanide process for extraction of silver. C6H5Cl
IV. Froth flotation process for separation of
(C) CH3Cl + NaI ¾¾® (r) Swarts
ZnS from galena ore by using depressant.
I II III IV CH3I + NaCl reaction
(a) Ni(CO)4 [Pb(EDTA]2– [Ag(CN)2]– [Zn(CN)2] (D) CH3 – Br + AgF ¾¾® (s) Sandmeyer’s
(b) Ni(CO)4 [Pb(EDTA]2– [Ag(CN)2]– [Zn(CN)4]2– CH3F + AgBr reaction
(c) Ni(CO)6 [Pb(EDTA)]4– [Ag(CN)2]– [Zn(CN)6]4– (a) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
(d) Ni(CO)4 [Pb(EDTA)]2– [Ag(CN)4]3– [Zn(CN)4]2– (b) A – (q), B – (r), C – (p), D – (s)
50. An example of electrophilic substitution reaction (c) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
is : (d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
(a) Chlorination of methane 55. The electrons, identified by quantum numbers n
(b) Conversion of methyl chloride to methyl and l (i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 (iii) n = 3, l = 2
alcohol (iv) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in order of increasing
(c) Nitration of benzene energy, from the lowest to highest, as
(d) Formation of ethylene from ethyl alcohol. (a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
51. Structurally biodegradable detergents, should (b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii)
contain (c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)
(a) normal alkyl chain (d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
(b) branched alkyl chain 56. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes
(c) phenyl side chain place between system and surroundings. Choose
(d) cyclohexyl side chain the correct option for free expansion of an ideal
52. Ozone hole refers to : gas under adiabatic condition from the
following.
(a) Increase in concentration of ozone
(a) q = 0, DT ¹ 0, w = 0
(b) Hole in ozone layer
(b) q ¹ 0, DT = 0, w = 0
(c) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in
(c) q = 0, DT = 0, w = 0
troposphere
(d) q = 0, DT < 0, w ¹ 0
(d) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in
57. In which of the following cases, the stability of
stratsophere two oxidation states is correctly represented
53. Which of the following does not represent the (a) Ti3+ > Ti4+ (b) Mn2+ > Mn3+
correct order of the properties indicated? 2+
(c) Fe > Fe 3+ (d) Cu+ > Cu2+
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58. Which is not the disproportionation reaction ? (a) NH +4 and NH -2
(a) 3H 3PO 2 ¾¾ ® 2H 3 PO 2 + PH 3
(b) HCHO + OH - ¾¾ ® HCOO - + CH 3OH (b) CH 3- and CH 3+
(c) NH 4 NO 3 ¾¾ ® N 2 O + 2H 2 O (c) SO 42 - , PO34- and [BF4 ]-
(d) 3Cl2 + 6OH - ¾¾ ® 5Cl- + ClO 3- + 3H 2 O +
(d) NH 4 and NH 3
59. The major organic product in the reaction,
65. When dihydroxyacetone reacts with HIO4, the
CH3 — O — CH(CH3)2 + HI ® Product is
product is/are :
(a) ICH2OCH(CH3)2
(a) HCHO (b) HCOOH
(b) CH 3O C( CH 3 ) 2 (c) HCHO and HCOOH (d) HCHO and CO2
|
I 66. Consider the reactions
(c) CH3I + (CH3)2CHOH (A) H2O2 + 2HI ® I2 + 2H2O
(d) CH3OH + (CH3)2CHI (B) HOCl + H2O2 ® H3O+ + Cl– + O2
60. The rate constant of a zero order reaction is Which of the following statements is correct
2.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. If the concentration of the about H2O2 with reference to these reactions?
reactant after 25 seconds is 0.5 M. What is the Hydrogen peroxide is ______ .
initial concentration ? (a) an oxidising agent in both (A) and (B)
(a) 0.5 M (b) 1.25 M (b) an oxidising agent in (A) and reducing
(c) 12.5 M (d) 1.0 M agent in (B)
61. The correct order of solubility in water for He, (c) a reducing agent in (A) and oxidising agent
Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe is
in (B)
(a) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe
(d) a reducing agent in both (A) and (B)
(b) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
67. A certain compound (X) when treated with
(c) Ne > Ar > Kr > He > Xe
copper sulphate solution yields a brown
(d) Ar > Ne > He > Kr > Xe
62. The de Broglie wavelength of a car of mass precipitate. On adding hypo solution, the
1000 kg and velocity 36 km/hr is : precipitate turns white. The compound is
(a) 6.626 × l0–34 m (a) K2CO3 (b) KI
(b) 6.626 × 10–38 m (c) KBr (d) K3PO4
(c) 6.626 × 10–31 m 68. Consider the following reactions:
(d) 6.626 × 10– 30 m (i) H +(aq) + OH–(aq) ® H2O(l),
63. The correct IUPAC name for DH = – X1 kJ mol–1
1
(ii) H2(g) + O2(g) ® H2O(l),
2
DH = – X2 kJ mol–1
(iii) CO2(g) + H2(g) ® CO(g) + H2O,
DH = – X3 kJ mol–1
(a) 5-Methyl -4-(1'-2'-dimethylpropyl) heptane 5
(iv) C 2 H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) ® 2CO2(g) + H2O(l),
(b) 3-Methyl-4-(1',2'-dimethylpropyl) heptane 2
(c) 2,3,5-Trimethyl-4-propylheptane DH = + 4X4 kJ mol–1
(d) 4-Propyl-2,3,5-trimethylpeptane Enthalpy of formation of H2O (l) is
64. Which of the following shows iso-structural (a) + X3 kJ mol– 1 (b) – X4 kJ mol– 1
species? (c) + X1 kJ mol – 1 (d) – X2 kJ mol– 1
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69. Which of the following possesses a sp-carbon (b) The ability of peptide bonds to form
in its structure ? intramolecular hydrogen bonds is
(a) CH2 = CCI – CH = CH2 important to secondary structure.
(b) CCl2 = CCl2 (c) The steric influence of amino acid residues
(c) CH2 = C = CH2 is important to secondary structure.
(d) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2. (d) The hydrophilic/ hydrophobic character of
70. A balloon has maximum capacity of 20 L. At one
amino acid residues is important to
atmospheric pressure 10 L of air is filled in the
balloon. It will burst when pressure is (assuming secondary structure.
isothermal condition) 76. Vapour pressure of benzene at 30°C is 121.8 mm.
(a) > 0.5 atm (b) < 0.5 atm When 15 g of a non volatile solute is dissolved
(c) = 0.5 atm (d) ³ 0.5 atm in 250 g of benzene its vapour pressure decreased
71. Which one of the following complexes will have to 120.2 mm. The molecular weight of the solute
four different isomers ? (Mo. wt. of solvent = 78)
(a) [Co (en ) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl (a) 356.2 (b) 456.8
(b) [Co(en)(NH 3 ) 2Cl2 ]Cl (c) 530.1 (d) 656.7
(c) [Co(PPh 3 ) 2 Cl2 ]Cl 77. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(d) [Co (en )3 ]Cl 3 (a) NO2 can be prepared by heating Pb(NO3)2
72. Solubility product of a salt AB is 1 × 10–8 in a (b) NO2 is red - brown gas
solution in which the concentration of A+ ions is (c) NO2 is diamagnetic
10–3 M. The salt will precipitate when the (d) NO2 readily dimerises to N2O4
concentration of B– ions is kept 78. For reaction aA ® xP , when [A] = 2.2 mM, the
(a) between 10–8 M to 10–7 M rate was found to be 2.4 mMs–1. On reducing
(b) between 10–7 M to 10–8 M concentration of A to half, the rate changes to 0.6
(c) > 10–5 M
mMs–1. The order of reaction with respect to A is :
(d) < 10–8 M
73. Sucrose in water is dextro-rotatory, [a]D= + 66.4º. (a) 1.5 (b) 2.0
When boiled with dilute HCl, the solution (c) 2.5 (d) 3.0
becomes leavo-rotatory, [a]D= –20º. In this 79. The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave
process the sucrose molecule breaks into as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence:
(a) L-glucose + D-fructose (a) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr 3
(b) L-glucose + L-fructose
(c) D-glucose + D-fructose (b) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(d) D-glucose + L-fructose (c) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
74. Select correct statement(s). (d) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
(a) Cyanamide ion (CN22–) is isoelectronic with 80. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic
CO2 and has the same linear structure systems : simple cubic, body centred cubic and
(b) Mg2C3 reacts with water to form propyne face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the
(c) CaC2 has NaCl type lattice spheres in these systems will be respectively,
(d) All of the above
75. Which of the following statement is not true 1 3 1 1 1
(a) a: a: a (b) a : 3a : a
about secondary structure of protein ? 2 4 2 2 2 2
(a) The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta
turns are examples of secondary structure 1 3 3
(c) a: a: a (d) 1a : 3a : 2a
of protein. 2 2 2
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81. Which of the following is correct order of acidity? (a) PtCl4 reacts with aq. KCl
(a) HCOOH > CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH (b) aq. ZnCl2 reacts with aq. NH3
> C2H5 COOH (c) aq. FeCl3 reacts with aq. K4[Fe(CN)]6
(b) ClCH2COOH > HCOOH > CH3COOH (d) KMnO 4 reduced to MnO 2 in alkaline
> C2H5 COOH medium
(c) CH3COOH > HCOOH > ClCH2COOH 88. The unit of equivalent conductivity is
> C2H5COOH (a) S cm–2
(d) C2H5COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH (b) ohm cm2 (g equivalent)
> ClCH2COOH (c) ohm cm
82. Penicillin is : (d) ohm–1cm2 (g equivalent)–1
(a) Analgesic (b) Antipyretic 89. Perlon is :
(c) Antimalarial (d) Antibiotic (a) Terylene (b) Rubber
83. Decomposition of H2O2 follows a first order (c) Nylon – 6 (d) Polyester
reaction. In fifty minutes the concentration of 90. Tertiary nitro compounds do not tautomerise
H2O2 decreases from 0.5 to 0.125 M in one such because
decomposition. When the concentration of (a) there is no double bond.
H2O2 reaches 0.05 M, the rate of formation of O2 (b) there is no a-hydrogen.
will be: (c) oxygen is more electronegative than
(a) 2.66 L min–1 at STP hydrogen.
(b) 1.34 × 10–2 mol min–1 (d) all of the above.
(c) 6.96 × 10–2 mol min–1
(d) 6.93 × 10–4 mol min–1 BIOLOGY
84. Which of the following reactions can produce 91. Choose correct option w.r.t origin and position
aniline as main product? of meristem responsible for the regeneration of
(a) C6H5NO2 + Zn/KOH parts removed by the grazing herbivores.
(b) C6H5NO2 + Zn/NH4Cl
(c) C6H5NO2 + LiAlH4 Origin Position
(d) C6H5NO2 + Zn/HCl (a) Secondary Lateral
85. What is the standard reduction potential (E°) for
Fe3+ ® Fe ? (b) Primary Apical
Given that : (c) Secondary Apical
Fe2+ + 2e– ® Fe; E° 2 + = – 0.47V (d) Primary Intercalated
Fe / Fe
92. Which of the following changes occur in
Fe3+ +e– ® Fe2+; E° = + 0.77V
Fe3+ / Fe2 + diaphragm and intercostal muscles when
(a) – 0.057 V (b) + 0.057 V expiration of air takes place?
(c) + 0.30 V (d) – 0.30 V (a) External intercostal muscles relax and
diaphragm contracts
86. Which does not exist ? (b) External intercostal muscles contract and
(a) [SiCl6]2– (b) [GeF6]2– diaphragm relaxes
(c) [CCl6]2– (d) [SnCl6]2– (c) External intercostal muscles and diaphragm
87. In which case, van’t Hoff factor i remains relax
unchanged ? (d) External intercostal muscles and diaphragm
contract
 11
93. Which one of the following is a long day plant? 97. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
(a) Bajra (b) Soyabean correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
(c) Tobacco (d) Wheat
A. Disintegration of (i) Anaphase
94. Life cycle of Ulothrix is shown in the diagram.
nuclear membrane
The correct ploidy levels at the four stages A, B, B. Appearance of (ii) Prophase
C and D are : nucleolus
C. Division of (iii) Telophase
centromere
D. Replication of DNA (iv) S-phase
(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
98. The enzyme used for joining two DNA fragments
is called:
(a) ligase
(b) restriction endonuclease
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) gyrase
99. Thorn is a modification of
(a) A:n B:n C : 2n D:n (a) stem (b) leaf
(b) A:n B:n C : 2n D : 2n (c) stipule (d) root
(c) A : 2n B:n C : 2n D:n 100. During double fertilization in plants, one sperm
(d) A:n B:n C:n D:n fuses with the egg cell and the other sperm fuses
with
95. Connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs
(a) synergids cell (b) central cell
cycle is/before entering Krebs cycle pyruvate is (c) antipodal cell (d) nucellar cell
changed to 101. Drawback of DDT as pesticide is that
(a) oxaloacetate (a) it becomes ineffective after sometime.
(b) phosphoenol pyruvate (b) it is less effective than others.
(c) it is not easily/rapidly degraded in nature.
(c) pyruvate (d) its high cost.
(d) acetyl CoA 102. Nitrogen fixation is a process of
96. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by (a) converting nitrogen in the air to form a
usable form by plants.
(a) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
(b) recycling nitrogen from organic matter in
(b) high auxin : cytokinin ratio the soil.
(c) high cytokinin : auxin ratio (c) absorbing nitrogen from the soil.
(d) high gibberellin : auxin ratio (d) conversion of NO3 to N2 .
 12
103. The diagram below is a model demonstrating the
mass flow hypothesis of translocation.
W (c) G Plum

water
weak sugar
concentrated
sugar
solution (d) G Rose
semi-permeable
solution membrane

X 106. Today, concentration of green house gases is

high because of
What are the structures represented by W, X, Y (a) Use of refrigerator
and Z and what is the direction of flow of solution (b) Increased combustion of oil and coal
along W? (c) Deforestation
phloem xylem roots leaves direction of (d) All the above
flow along W 107. Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form
(a) W X Y Z from Z to Y (a) 1 AaBB : 1aaBB (b) All AaBB
(b) W X Z Y from Y to Z (c) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB (d) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB
(c) X W Z Y from Z to Y 108. Which of the following is the most stable
(d) X W Z Y from Y to Z ecosystem?
104. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is (a) Forest (b) Desert
represented by (c) Mountain (d) Ocean
(a) Ovule 109. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by
(b) Megaspore mother cell (a) treating the plants with low concentrations
(c) Embryo sac of gibberellic acid and auxins
(b) raising the plants from vernalized seeds
(d) Nucellus (c) treating the plants with phenylmercuric
105. Given below are the diagrammatic representation acetate
of position of floral parts on thalamus, condition (d) removing androecium of flowers before
of ovary and example. Find the correctly matched pollen grains are released
combination? 110. A gene pair hides the effect of another gene.
Position of Condition Example The phenomenon is
floral parts of ovary (a) epistasis (b) dominance
on thalamus (c) mutation (d) None of the above
111. What would happen if in a gene encoding a
polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU)
is mutated to UAA?
(a) Cucumber (a) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be
G formed.
(b) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids
will be formed
(c) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be
formed
(b) G– Brinjal (d) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be
formed
 13
112. The rate at which light energy is converted to 118. Mycorrhiza is
the chemical energy of organic molecules in the (a) a symbiotic association of plant roots and
ecosystem’s is certain fungi.
(a) net primary productivity (b) an association of algae with fungi.
(b) gross primary productivity (c) a fungus parasitising root system of higher
(c) net secondary productivity plants.
(d) gross secondary productivity (d) an association of Rhizobium with the roots
113. Consider the following statements concerning of leguminous plants.
119. Laminaria (kelp) and Fucus (rock weed) are the
food chains :
examples of
(i) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted (a) red algae (b) brown algae
in greatly increased growth of vegetation. (c) green algae (d) golden brown algae
(ii) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted 120. The outer layer of vacuole is called
in an increased population of deers. (a) cell wall (b) tonoplast
(iii) The length of food chains is generally (c) plasma layer (d) leucoplast
limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy 121. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between
loss. phloem/bark and wood of a dicot is
(iv) The length of food chains may vary from 2 (a) cork cambium (b) vascular cambium
to 8 trophic levels. (c) endodermis (d) pericycle
Which two of the above statements are correct? 122. Bulk flow of substances over the longer
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) distances through the vascular tissue is called
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) (a) simple diffusion
114. Which of the following pairs of the cell structures (b) facilitated diffusion
are important for determining the movement of (c) active transport
molecules in or out of the plant cell? (d) translocation
(a) Tonoplast + Vacuolar membrane 123. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with
(b) Tonoplast + Cell membrane the plasmid vector became possible with
(c) Cell wall + Cell membrane (a) DNA ligase (b) Endonucleases
(c) DNA polymerase (d) Exonucleases
(d) Cell wall + Tonoplasts
124. Which one of the following is not included under
115. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by in-situ conservation?
(a) Carolus Linnaeus (a) Botanical garden (b) Biosphere reserve
(b) Charles Darwin (c) National park (d) Sanctuary
(c) Bentham and Hooker 125. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used
(d) Aristotle commercially in the production of :
116. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophytes in (a) ethanol
possessing (b) streptokinase for removing clots from the
(a) independent gametophyte blood vessels.
(b) well developed vascular system (c) Citric acid
(c) archegonia structure (d) blood cholesterol lowering statins
(d) flagellate spermatozoids 126. Gel electrophoresis is used for
117. Centrioles and centrosomes occur in the cells of (a) cutting of DNA into fragments
(a) green plants (b) separation of DNA fragments according to
(b) animals their size
(c) bacteria and cyanobacteria (c) construction of recombinant DNA by
joining with cloning vectors
(d) both (b) and (c) (d) isolation of DNA molecule
 14
127. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive (a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
molecule is called (b) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(a) Vector (b) Probe (c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(c) Clone (d) Plasmid (d) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
128. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot 134. The term ‘keel’ is used for special type of
of biodiversity in India ? (a) sepals (b) petals
(a) Indo-Gangetic Plain (b) Eastern Ghats (c) stamens (d) carpels
(c) Aravalli Hills (d) Western Ghats 135. Chemiosmotic hypothesis given by Peter
129. Which one of the following shows concept of Mitchell proposes the mechanism of
species-area relationship? (a) synthesis of ATP
(a) The number of species in an area increases (b) synthesis of FADH2
with the size of the area. (c) synthesis of NADH
(b) Larger species require larger habitat areas
(d) synthesis of NADPH
than do smaller species.
(c) Most species within any given area are 136. Which ion is essential for muscle contraction?
endemic. (a) Na+ (b) K+
(d) The larger the area, the greater the extinction (c) Ca2+ (d) Cl–
rate. 137. Which one of the following organs in the human
130. The movement of mineral ions into plant root body is most affected due to shortage of oxygen?
cells as a result of diffusion is called (a) Intestine (b) Skin
(a) osmosis
(b) active absorption (c) Kidney (d) Brain
(c) passive absorption 138. A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field.
(d) endocytosis Which one of the following groups of bones is
131. The rate of transpiration in plants is dependent directly contributing in this movement?
upon (a) Femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals
(a) temperature and soil (b) Pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals
(b) light and temperature
(c) Sternum, femur, tibia, fibula
(c) wind, temperature and light
(d) light, temperature, atmospheric humidity (d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia
and wind 139. Choose the correct names of the different bacteria
132. Stomata open and close due to according to their shapes.
(a) circadian rhythm
(b) genetic clock
(c) pressure of gases inside the leaves
(d) turgor pressure of guard cells
133. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
correct answer from the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. Trichoderma (i) Nitrification (a) A – Cocci, B – Bacilli, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
B. Streptomyces (ii) Biocontrol agent (b) A – Bacilli, B – Cocci, C – Spirilla, D – Vibrio
C. Nitrosomonas (iii) Lactic acid (c) A – Spirilla, B – Bacilli, C – Cocci, D – Vibrio
D. Lactobacillus (iv) Source of (d) A – Spirilla, B – Vibrio, C – Cocci, D – Bacilli
antibiotic
 15
140. Match the source gland with respective hormone 144. Egg is liberated from ovary in
as well as the function correctly. (a) secondary oocyte stage
(b) primary oocyte stage
Source gland Hormone Function (c) oogonial stage
(a) Anterior Oxytocin Contraction of (d) mature ovum stage
pituitary uterus muscles 145. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of
salinity are
during child (a) stenohaline (b) euryhaline
birth (c) anadromous (d) catadromous
(b) Posterior Vasopressin Stimulates 146. The most important component of the oral
pituitary reabsorption contraceptive pills is
of water in the (a) Progesterone
(b) Growth hormone
distal tubules (c) Thyroxine
in the nephron (d) Luteinizing hormone
(c) Corpus Estrogen Supports 147. The following graph of relative concentrations
luteum pregnancy of the four hormones present in the blood plasma
of a woman during her menstrual cycle. Identify
(d) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates the hormones.
blood calcium
level
141. The given diagram shows microsporangium of a
mature anther. Identify A, B and C.

A B C D
(a) FSH Progesterone LH Oestrogen
(b) LH Progesterone FSH Oestrogen
(c) FSH Oestrogen LH Progesterone
(d) LH Oestrogen FSH Progesterone
(a) A-Middle layer, B-Endothecium, C-Tapetum 148. Reproductive health in society can be improved
(b) A-Endothecium, B-Tapetum, C-Middle layer by –
(c) A-Endothecium, B-Middle layer, C-Tapetum (i) Introduction of sex education in schools.
(d) A-Tapetum, B-Middle layer, C-Endothecium (ii) Increased medical assistance.
142. In the chemistry of vision in mammals, the (iii) Awareness about contraception and STDs.
photosensitive substance is called (iv) Equal opportunities to male and female child.
(a) sclerotin (b) retinol (v) Ban on aminocentesis.
(c) rhodopsin (d) melanin (vi) Encouraging myths and misconceptions.
143. Vaccine against polio viruses is an example of
(a) All of these
(a) auto-immunization
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) & (vi)
(b) passive immunization
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)
(c) active immunization
(d) simple immunization (d) (ii) and (v)
 16
149. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by 155. Adaptive radiation refers to
(a) release oxytocin from pituitary (a) evolution of different species from a
(b) fully developed foetus and placenta common ancestor
(c) differentiation of mammary glands
(d) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid (b) migration of members of a species to
150. Natality is the characteristic of a population different geographical areas
which means (c) power of adaptation in an individual to a
(a) the total number of individuals present per variety of environments
unit area at a given time (d) adaptations due to geographical isolation.
(b) the increase in number of individuals in a 156. What was the most significant trend in evolution
population under given environmental
conditions of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
(c) loss of individuals due to death in a ancestors ?
population under given environmental (a) Upright posture
conditions (b) Shortening of jaws
(d) the movement of individuals into and out (c) Binocular vision
of population (d) Increasing brain capacity
151. In human female the blastocyst
(a) Forms placenta even before implantation 157. The given figure shows the regions of root tip
(b) Gets implanted into uterus 3 days after with labelling as A, B and C. Choose the option
ovulation which shows the correct labelling of A, B and C.
(c) Gets nutrition from uterine endometrial Region of mature cells
secretion only after implantation
(d) Gets implanted in endometrium by the
trophoblast cells
152. Choose the wrong statement regarding urine
formation
(a) Filtration is non-selective process
performed by glomerulus
(b) The glomerular capillary blood pressure
causes filtration of blood through three
layers
(c) GFR in a healthy individual is approximately
125 ml/min
(d) The ascending limb of the Henle's loop is
permeable to water but allows transport of
electrolytes actively or passively
153. Which one of the following is an exotic Indian
fish ? (a) A - Zone of elongation, B - Zone of meiosis,
(a) Catla catla C - Zone of mitosis.
(b) Heteropneustes fossilis (b) A - Zone of maturation, B - Zone of
(c) Cyprinus carpio meristematic activity, C - Zone of elongation.
(d) Labeo rohita
154. Which of the following primate is the closest (c) A - Zone of mitosis, B - Zone of elongation,
relative of humans? C - Zone of root cap.
(a) Rhesus monkey (b) Orangutan (d) A - Region of maturation, B - Region of elon-
(c) Gorilla (d) Gibbon gation, C - Zone of meristematic activity.
 17
158. Select the incorrect statement from the following. (d) Molluscs Terrestrial, Radula/feeding
(a) Apiculture provides generating additional marine, mantle/motility
income industry for the farmers. fresh water inhabitants
(b) Bee keeping is labour intensive process. 164. Man, in the life cycle of Plasmodium, is
(c) Bee venom is used to cure certain diseases (a) primary host (b) secondary host
like gout and arthritis. (c) intermediate host (d) None of these
(d) Honey is used as laxative, antiseptic and
165. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are
sedative.
159. Classification of Porifera is based on (a) neutrophils and monocytes
(a) branching (b) spicules (b) neutrophils and eosinophils
(c) reproduction (d) symmetry (c) lymphocytes and macrophages
160. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner (d) eosinophils and lymphocytes
walls of blood vessels is 166. Human insulin is being commercially produced
(a) cuboidal epithelium from a transgenic species of
(b) columnar epithelium (a) Escherichia (b) Mycobacterium
(c) ciliated columnar epithelium (c) Rhizobium (d) Saccharomyces
(d) squamous epithelium 167. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of organs is
161. Myoglobin is present in (a) insufficiency of organ donors
(a) all muscle fibres (b) immunological rejection of foreign bodies
(b) white muscle fibres only (c) religious or ethnic considerations
(c) red muscle fibres only (d) lack of effective surgical techniques
(d) both white and red muscle fibres
168. Which one of the following is an Indian
162. Mast cells are associated with
(a) exocrine glands medicinal plant ?
(b) endocrine glands (a) Saccharum officinarum
(c) areolar connective tissue (b) Rauwolfia serpentina
(d) neural tissue (c) Oryza sativa
163. Which of the following is incorrect match of (d) Solanum melongena
animal group/life style/structure/function? 169. Which of the following bacteria carry out oxygenic
Animal Lifestyle Structure/ photosynthesis by means of a photosynthetic
group functions apparatus similar to the eukaryotes?
(a) Sponges Sessile Amoebocytes/ (a) Purple sulphur bacteria
filter carry (b) Green sulphur bacteria
feeders food and wastes (c) Cyanobacteria
Spicules/support (d) More than one option is correct
and protection 170. It is commonly said that ladies are protected from
spongin / support
heart attacks in reproductive period i.e., from
(b) Cnidarians Free Gastrovascular
floating or cavity/digestion puberty to menopause because:
attached Cnidocytes/ (a) Level of HDL is high due to oestrogen
protection and production
food getting (b) Level of HDL remains lower during this
(c) Flatworms Free living Flame cells/ period
or parasite excretion (c) Level of LDL and HDL remain in balance
Tegument/ (d) Level of LDL is high due to oestrogen
protection production
 18
171. Dolly sheep was obtained by – (c) Potassium plays an important role in the
(a) Cloning the udder cell (somatic cell) fused regulation of acid base balance in cell.
with enucleated oocyte (d) Phosphorus helps to maintain the osmotic
(b) Cloning of gametes pressure of the body fluids.
(c) Tissue culture
178. Diagram represents one cardiac cycle lasting
(d) None of the above
0.8 s and to the possible answers that follow it.
172. Which of the following forms the basis of DNA
finger printing? = contraction
(a) The relative proportions of purines and = relaxation
pyrimidines in DNA. 0.0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8
time (second)
(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated
ATRIA
short DNA segments.
VENTRICLES
(c) The relative difference in the DNA
occurrence in blood, skin and saliva. period period
X Y
(d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges
and grooves of the fingerprints. Which answer describes the events that occur
173. Which one of the following correctly represents during period X ?
the normal adult human dental formula ? (a) atrial diastole and ventricular systole
3 1 3 1 2 1 3 3 (b) atrial diastole and ventricular diastole
(a) , , , (b) , , , (c) atrial systole and ventricular systole
3 1 2 1 2 1 2 3
(d) atrial systole and ventricular diastole
2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 179. Diabetes insipidus is a condition in which a per-
(c) , , , (d) , , ,
2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3 son is unable to produce sufficient levels of the
174. Toxic substances are detoxified in human body in hormone ADH. The hormone increases the per-
(a) kidney (b) lungs meability to water of the second (distal) convo-
(c) liver (d) stomach luted tubule and collecting duct in the kidney
175. The function of rennin is nephrons.
(a) vasodilation What is produced as a result?
(b) reduce blood pressure (a) large volumes of concentrated urine
(c) degradation of angiotensinogen
(b) large volumes of dilute urine
(d) None of the above
(c) small volumes of concentrated urine
176. Heart is covered by
(d) small volumes of dilute urine
(a) Peritoneum (b) Pleural membrane
(c) Pericardium (d) Visceral membrane 180. Dark purplish gland lying on the left side of
177. Which of the following is incorrect? abdomen is called :
(a) Iodine is needed for thyroxine formation. (a) liver (b) spleen
(b) Calcium regulates the excitibility of nerve (c) gall bladder (d) appendix
fibres.
 19

Hints & Solutions

Mock Test-1
ANS WER KEYS
1 (b) 21 (b) 41 (c) 61 (b) 81 (b ) 1 01 (c) 1 21 (b ) 1 41 (c) 1 61 (d )
2 (d ) 22 (d) 42 (c) 62 (b) 82 (d ) 1 02 (a) 1 22 (d ) 1 42 (c) 1 62 (c)
3 (c) 23 (a) 43 (b) 63 (c) 83 (d ) 1 03 (b ) 1 23 (a) 1 43 (c) 1 63 (d )
4 (d ) 24 (d) 44 (b) 64 (c) 84 (d ) 1 04 (c) 1 24 (a) 1 44 (a) 1 64 (b )
5 (b) 25 (c) 45 (c) 65 (d) 85 (a) 1 05 (a) 1 25 (d ) 1 45 (a) 1 65 (a)
6 (c) 26 (b) 46 (a) 66 (b) 86 (c) 1 06 (d ) 1 26 (b) 1 46 (a) 1 66 (a)
7 (c) 27 (c) 47 (b) 67 (b) 87 (b ) 1 07 (a) 1 27 (b ) 1 47 (c) 1 67 (b )
8 (a) 28 (d) 48 (b) 68 (d) 88 (d ) 1 08 (d ) 1 28 (d ) 1 48 (c) 1 68 (b )
9 (c) 29 (c) 49 (b) 69 (c) 89 (c) 1 09 (a) 1 29 (d ) 1 49 (b ) 1 69 (c)
10 (a) 30 (b) 50 (c) 70 (b) 90 (b ) 1 10 (a) 1 30 (c) 1 50 (b ) 1 70 (a)
11 (d) 31 (c) 51 (b) 71 (b) 91 (d ) 1 11 (a) 1 31 (d ) 1 51 (d ) 1 71 (a)
12 (a) 32 (c) 52 (d) 72 (c) 92 (c) 1 12 (b ) 1 32 (d ) 1 52 (d ) 1 72 (b )
13 (c) 33 (c) 53 (a) 73 (c) 93 (d ) 1 13 (a) 1 33 (b ) 1 53 (c) 1 73 (c)
14 (a) 34 (d) 54 (a) 74 (d) 94 (a) 1 14 (c) 1 34 (b ) 1 54 (c) 1 74 (c)
15 (b) 35 (d) 55 (a) 75 (d) 95 (d ) 1 15 (a) 1 35 (a) 1 55 (a) 1 75 (d )
16 (d) 36 (a) 56 (c) 76 (a) 96 (c) 1 16 (b ) 1 36 (c) 1 56 (d ) 1 76 (c)
17 (a) 37 (a) 57 (b) 77 (c) 97 (a) 1 17 (b ) 1 37 (d ) 1 57 (b ) 1 77 (d )
18 (a) 38 (c) 58 (c) 78 (b) 98 (a) 1 18 (a) 1 38 (d ) 1 58 (b ) 1 78 (d )
19 (a) 39 (a) 59 (c) 79 (b) 99 (a) 1 19 (b ) 1 39 (a) 1 59 (b ) 1 79 (b)
20 (a) 40 (a) 60 (d) 80 (a) 1 00 (b) 1 20 (b ) 1 40 (b ) 1 60 (d) 1 80 (b )

Solutions
PHYSICS 1
12 = u × 3 + ´ a ´ 32
2
1. (b) Here, b and x2 = L2 have same dimensions or 24 = 6u + 9a ...(i)
x2 L2 1
Also, a = = = M -1T 1 Similarly, 42 = u × 6 + ´ a ´ 6
2
E ´t (
MLT2 - 2
T) or 42 = 6u + 18a
2
...(ii)
–1
a × b = [M L T] 2
On solving, we get u = 1 m s–1
2. (d) Let u be the initial velocity that have to find
and a be the uniform acceleration of the T
particle. 3. (c) Time to complete 1/4th oscillation is s.
4
For t = 3s, distance travelled S = 12 m and 1
for t = 3 + 3 = 6 s distance travelled Time to complete th vibration from
8
S¢ = 12 + 30 = 42 m extreme position is obtained from
From, S = ut + 1/2 at2
 20

a 2p 9. (c) Since Range on horizontal plane is

T
y= = a cos w t = a cos t or t = s
2 T 6 u 2 sin 2q
R=
So time to complete 3/8th oscillation g
T T 5T p
= + = so it is max when sin 2q = 1 Þ q =
4 6 12 4
4. (d) According to Faraday’s law of electro- 10. (a) Given : T/2 = 0.5 s
magnetic induction, \ T = 1s
Ldi 1 1
Induced emf, e = Frequency, f = = = 1Hz
T 1
dt If A is the amplitude, then
æ 5–2 ö 2A = 50 cm Þ A = 25 cm.
50 = L ç ÷
è 0.1sec ø 11. (d) Unit positive charge at O will be repelled
50 ´ 0.1 5 equally by three charges at the three corners
Þ L= = = 1.67 H of triangle.
3 3 r
Y1 Y2 Y By symmetry, resultant E at O would be zero.
A
5. (b) B 12. (a) Positive charge particle moves in the
y1 = A + B direction of field and so the right trend is :
Top, down, top, down.
y2 = y1 + y1 = y1 = A + B
y = y 2 = A + B i.e. NOR gate
mr 2
13. (c) Since moment of inertia I = , where m
6. (c) Work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. The 2
energy of two photons can not be added is the mass of body & r is distance of it from
at the moment photons collide with the fixed axis.
electron all its energy will be dissipated or
wasted as this energy is not sufficient to mass = density × volume {Q r = density}
knock it out.
Hence emission of electron is not possible. rpr 4t
MA= rp r2t; I A =
2
1 æ 1 1ö
7. (c) = Rç - ÷ where R = Rydberg MB = rp r × 16 × t/4 = 4 rp r2t
2
l è n1 n22 ø
2
M B (4r )2 4rpr 2t.16r 2
constant IB = =
2 2
1 æ 1 1ö 5
= ç - ÷= 64rpr 4t
l32 è 4 9 ø 36 =
2
36 \ IB > IA
Þ l 32 =
5 14. (a) K.E. = hn – hnth = eV0 (V0 = cut off voltage)
Similarly solving for l31 and l21
h
9 4 Þ V0 = (8.2 ´ 1014 - 3.3 ´ 1014 )
l 31 = and l 21 = e
8 3
6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 4.9 ´ 1014
l32 l = » 2V.
\ = 6.4 and 21 ; 1.2 1.6 ´ 10 -19
l31 l 31
15. (b) Dl = a D T = 10 -5 ´ 100 = 10-3
8. (a) Current flowing through the conductor, l
I = nevd A. Hence
Dl
2 ´ 100% = 10 -3 ´100
4 nevd1 p(1) vd 4 ´ 4 16 l
= or 1 = = .
2
1 nev d p(2)
2
vd2 1 1 = 10 -1 = 0.1%
 21
16. (d) Force on M = Mg 22. (d) Total resistance of the circuit
Reaction force = Ma = 4000 + 400 = 4400 W
force of friction = mR = m.Ma V 440
mMa Current flowing i = = = 0.1 amp.
R 4400
Voltage across load = R i
= 4000 × 0.1 = 400 volt.
V 10
23. (a) E = = = 1 Vm–1
Mg l 10
24. (d) When drops combine to form a single drop
Force of friction will balance the weight. So of radius R.
g
mMa ³ Mg ; m ³ Then energy released, E = 4 pTR 3 éê - ùú
1 1
a. ër R û
17. (a) If this energy is converted into kinetic en-
18. (a) The equivalent circuit is shown in figure ergy then
e0 A 1 2 é1 1 ù
Thus, Cab = C = mv = 4pR 3T ê - ú
d 2 ër R û
C C 1 é4 3 ù 2 é1 1 ù
´ pR rú v = 4pR 3T ê - ú
a b 2 êë 3 û ër Rû
C C 6T é 1 1 ù
19. (a) Width of central maximum v2 = -
r êë r R úû
2 l D 2 ´ 6250 ´10 -10 ´ 0.5
= = 6T é 1 1 ù
a 2 ´ 10 -4 v= -
r êë r R úû
= 3125 ´10 -6 m = 312.5 ´ 10-3 cm.
25. (c) Phase difference = f
2l l l
sin q = a
Path diff = ´ phase diff . = f
sin q = l
2p 2p
a
a q o sin q = 0 é 1 1 ù
–l 26. (b) E = Rhc ê - ú
sin q = a 2
êë n1 n 2 2 úû
Intensity
sin q = –2l
a E will be maximum for the transition for
D
é ù
which ê 1 - 1 ú is maximum. Here n 2
(Screen position of various minima for êë n1 2 2
n 2 úû
Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern of a single
slit of width a). is the higher energy level.
20. (a) According to Stefan’s law é 1 1 ù
E = s T4 Clearly, ê - ú is maximum for the
Heat radiated per unit area in 1 hour (3600s) êë n12 n 2 2 úû
is third transition, i.e. 2 ® 1 . I transition
= 5.7× 10–8 × (3000)4 × 3600 = 1.7 × 1010 J represents the absorption of energy.
21. (b) The bullets are fired at the same initial speed
27. (c) Given : Work done, W = 830 J
H u 2 sin 2 60º 2g sin 2 60º No. of moles of gas, m = 2
= ´ = For diatomic gas g = 1.4
H¢ 2g u 2 sin 2 30º sin 2 30º Work done during an adiabatic change
( 3 / 2)2 3 mR (T1 - T2 )
= = W=
(1/ 2) 2 1 g -1
 22
2 ´ 8.3( DT ) 2 ´ 8.3(DT ) = – éë5 ( 7 - 0 ) + 12 ( -3 - 0 )ùû
Þ 830 = =
1.4 - 1 0.4
= - éë35 + ( -36 )ùû = 1 J / kg
830 ´ 0.4
Þ DT = = 20 K i.e., change in gravitational potential
2 ´ 8.3 1 J/kg.
28. (d) Velocity after the collision Hence change in gravitational potential
10 ´ 10 + 5 ´ 0 100 20 energy 1 J
= = = m / sec . 35. (d) As we know,
15 15 3
29. (c) The centre of mass remains at rest because é N ù é 1 ùn
force of attraction is mutual. No external ê ú=ê ú ...(i)
force is acting. ë N0 û ë 2 û
30. (b) When hot water temperature (T) and n = no. of half life
surrounding temparature (T0) readings are N - no. of atoms left
noted, and log(T – T0) is plotted versus time, N0 - initial no. of atoms
we get a straight line having a negative By radioactive decay law,
slope; as a proof of Newton’s law of cooling. dN
= kN
dt
3R ´ 289 k - disintegration constant
31. (c) v oxg . =
32 dN
N
æ 3RT ö \ dt = ...(ii)
dN 0 N0
çè vrms = M ÷ø
dt
From (i) and (ii) we get
3R ´ 400
vH = so vH = 2230.59 m/sec dN
2 n
dt = é 1 ù
32. (c) Given, VL : VC : VR = 1 : 2 : 3
dN 0 êë 2 úû
V = 100 V
VR = ? dt
As we know, n 4 n
é 100 ù é 1 ù é1ù é1 ù
or, ê ú = ê2ú Þ ê2ú = ê2ú
V = VR2 + ( VL - VC )
2 1600
ë û ë û ë û ë û
\ n = 4, Therefore, in 8 seconds 4 half life
Solving we get, VR ; 90V had occurred in which counting rate reduces
33. (c) The direction of oscillations of E and B to 100 counts s–1.
fields are perpendicular to each other as well T1
as to the direction of propagation. So, \ Half life, = 2 sec
electromagnetic waves are transverse in 2
nature. In 6 sec, 3 half life will occur
The electric and magnetic fields oscillate in é dN ù
3
ê ú
\ ê dt ú = éê ùú
same phase. 1

34. ( )
(d) Gravitational field, I = 5iˆ + 12ˆj N/kg
ë 1600 û ë 2 û
dN
dv Þ = 200 counts s–1
I =- dt
dr 36. (a) The kinetic energy is directly proportional
to temperature.
éx y ù 37. (a) G = 15W, ig = 4 mA, i = 6 A
v = - ê ò I x dx + ò I y dy ú Required shunt,
êë 0 0
úû
æ ig ö æ 4 ´ 10-3 ö
S=ç ÷ G = çç ÷ ´ 15
= – éë I x .x + I y .y ùû ç i - ig ÷ 6 - 4 ´ 10-3 ÷ø
è ø è
 23
Mass per unit length, m = 0.01 kg
4 ´ 10 -3 Minimum common frequency = ?
= ´ 15
5.996 As we know,
= 10mW (in parallel)
1 T 1000
Fl Fl mgl Frequency, n = = Hz
38. (c) Y= Þ Dl = = 2l m 11
ADl YA YA
1000
f0 Similarly, n1 = Hz
39. (a) =9, \ f0 = 9f e 6
fe
1000
Also f0 + fe = 20 (Q final image is at infinity) n2 = Hz
3
9 fe + fe = 20, fe = 2 cm, \ f0 = 18 cm
40. (a) Let pressure outside be P0 1000
n3 = Hz
2T 2
\ P1 ( in smaller bubble ) = P0 + Hence common frequency = 1000 Hz
r 44. (b) Distance in last two second
2T 1
P2 ( in bigger bubble ) = P0 + ( R > r) = × 10 × 2 = 10 m.
R 2
\ P1 > P2 1
hence air moves from smaller bubble to bigger Total distance = × 10 × (6 + 2) = 40 m.
2
bubble. r NiA
41. (c) The size (or length) of collector is large in 45. (c) M (mag. moment/volume) =
comparison to emitter (base is very small in Al
comarison to both collector & emitter) to Ni (500)15
dissipate the heat. = = = 30000 Am–1
42. (c) Suppose the correct barometer height at 0°C l 25 ´ 10 –2
is l 0 , then
l 0 + Dl = 75 CHEMISTRY
or l 0 + 75 ´ (a Hg - ab ) ´ 27 = 75
O–H
or |
-4 -4
l 0 + 75 ´ (0.6 ´ 10 – 0.2 ´ 10 ) ´ 27 = 75 46. (a) CH3 – C = CH2
\ l 0 = 74.92 cm has 9s,1p and 2lone pairs.
43. (b) Total length of sonometer wire, l = 110 cm 47. (b) For combustion reaction, DH is negative,
= 1.1 m
Length of wire is in ratio, 6 : 3 : 2 i.e. 60 cm, Dn = (16 + 18) – ( 25 + 2 ) = +7,
30 cm, 20 cm. so DS is + ve, reaction is spontaneous, hence
Tension in the wire, T = 400 N DG is –ve.
48. (b) Reagents used in the various steps indicate that the compound Z has an alcoholic group. This set of
reactions is possible only when Z is CH3CHOHCH3.
PCl5 alc. KOH
CH3CHOHCH3 ¾¾® CH3CHClCH3 ¾¾¾¾® CH3CH = CH2
Z X Y
(i) Conc. H 2SO4, (ii) H2O, boil
Markovinikov’s hydration

In options a and c, Y cannot be converted back into d by the given series of reactions.
49. (b)
(I) Mond's process
50°C 200°C
Ni + 4CO ¾¾¾® éë Ni ( CO )4 ùû ¾¾¾¾ ® Ni + 4CO ­
Im pure Pure
Volatile
complex
 24
(II) Removal of lead poisoning 55. (a) According to the (n + l) rule the higher the
value of (n + l), the higher is the energy.
2-
ˆˆ† éë Pb ( EDTA )ùû
Pb2 + + EDTA 4- ‡ˆˆ When (n + l) value is the same see value of n.
(III) Cyanide process for extraction of silver i ii iii iv
(n + l) (4 + 1) (4 + 0) (3 + 2) (3 + 1)
1 5 4 5 4
ˆˆ†
2Ag + 4NaCN + H 2O + O2 ‡ˆˆ
2 \ iv < ii < iii < i
56. (c) Justification : free expansion w = 0
2Na éë Ag ( CN ) 2 ùû + 2NaOH adiabatic process q = 0
(IV) Separation of ZnS from galena by using DU = q + w = 0, this means that internal
energy remains constant. Therefore,
depressant in froth flotation process
DT = 0.
50. (c) Chlorination of methane proceeds via free 57. (b) Mn2+ (3d5) is more stable than Mn3+ (3d4).
radical mechanism. Conversion of methyl 58. (c) In NH4NO3, there are two different N-atoms
chloride to methyl alcohol proceeds via (NH4+, NO3– ) with different oxidation
nucleophilic substitution. Formation of numbers, thus reaction is not
ethylene from ethyl alcohol proceeds via disproportionation.
dehydration reaction. Nitration of benzene 59. (c) In case of unsymmetrical ethers, the site of
is electrophilic substitution reaction. cleavage depends on the nature of alkyl
51. (b) Structurally, biodegradable detergents group e.g.,
should contain branched alkyl chain. 373K
52. (d) Ozone hole is reduction in thickness of CH3O - CH(CH3 ) 2 + HI ¾¾¾®
ozone layer in stratosphere. CH3I + (CH3 )2 CHOH
53. (a) In a period on moving from left to right ionic Methyl Isopropyl
radii decreases. iodide alcohol
(a) So order of cationic radii is The alkyl halide is always formed from the
Cr2+ > Mn2+ > Fe2+ > Ni2+ and smaller alkyl group.
(b) Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn 60. (d) For a zero order reaction
(correct order of atomic radii) a-x
(c) For unpaired electrons Rate constant = k =
t
Mn 2 + > Ni 2 + < Co 2 + < Fe 2+ a - 0.5
(Five) (Two) (Three) (Four) 2 × 10–2 =
25
(d) For unpaired electrons a – 0.5 = 0.5
a = 1.0 M
Fe2 + > Co 2 + < Ni 2 + < Cu 2 + 61. (b) As the molecular weight of noble gas atoms
(Four) (Three) (Two) (One)
increases down the group its polarity
54. (a) Alkyl iodides are often prepared by the
increases due to which van-der-waal’s force
reaction of alkyl chlorides/bromides with
between them increases. Due to increased
NaI in dry acetone. This reaction is known polarity of heavier inert gas, its solubility in
as Finkelstein reaction. water also increases. So, most soluble gas
R - X + NaI ¾¾ ® R - I + NaX will be Xe and least soluble will be He.
X = Cl, Br So correct order is Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
NaCl or NaBr thus formed is precipitated in
dry acetone. 62. (b) l = h
It facilitates the forword reaction according mv
h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s
to Le Chatelier’s principle. The synthesis m = 1000 kg
of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by
heating an alkyl chloride/bromide in the 36 ´ 103
v = 36 km/hr = m/sec = 10 m/sec
presence of a metallic fluoride such as AgF, 60 ´ 60
Hg2F2, CoF2 or SbF3. The reaction is termed 6.6 ´ 10-34
as Swarts reaction. \ l= = 6.6 ´ 10-38 m
103 ´ 10
H 3C - Br + AgF ¾¾ ® H 3C - F + AgBr
 25
63. (c) In case two or more chains are of equal sp 2 sp sp 2
length, then the chain with greater number 69. (c) CH 2 = C = CH 2
of side chains is selected as the principal 70. (b) The balloon would burst when V > 20 L
chain. P1V1 = P2V2
1 × 10 = P2 × 20
P2 = 0.5 atm (no bursting)
7
6
5 4 3
2
Thus, a pressure below 0.5 atm, it would
1
burst.
2,3 ,5-Trimethyl-4-propylheptane 71. (b) Complex Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]Cl will have four
64. (c) Hybridisation can be calculated by different isomers.
calculating the no of valence electron and (i) Geometrical isomers
dividing it by 8. + +

In SO 4 2 - = Total no. of e–
NH3 Cl
Cl NH3

= 6 + (6 × 4) + 2 = 32 en Co en Co

32
So, no. of hybrid orbitals = =4 NH3
Cl
Cl
NH3

3
8 cis-form trans-form
\ sp hybridization. (ii) Optical isomers
Similarly, for PO 43- ; no. of hybrid orbitals + +
5 + 24 + 3 32 NH3
NH3
NH3
Cl
= = =4
8 8 en Co en Co
Hybridisation = sp 3
Cl NH3
Similarly, for BF4- , it is sp3. Cl Cl
cis-form trans-form
CH 2 OH 72. (c) ® A + B-
¾¾
AB ¬¾
¾
|
65. (d) CO ¾¾¾
HIO4
® 2CH 2 O + CO 2 [A + ][B - ]
| Ksp =
[AB]
CH 2 OH
Salt will precipitate if ionic conc. > Ksp
66. (b) [A+][B–] > 1 × 10–8
67. (b) KI reacts with CuSO4 solution to produce (1× 10 )[B–] > 1 ×10–8
–3

cuprous iodide (white precipitate) and I2

1 ´ 10-8
(which gives brown colour) Iodine reacts [B- ] > or 1 × 10–5
with hypo (Na 2 S 2 O 3 5H 2 O) solution . 1 ´ 10 -3
Decolourisaiton of solution shows the 73. (c) The hydrolysis of sucrose by boiling with
appearance of white precipitate. mineral acid or by enzyme invertase or
sucrase produces a mixture of equal
2CuSO4 + 4KI ® 2K 2SO 4 + molecules of D(+)–glucose an d
2CuI + I2 D(–) –Fructose.
Cuprous iodide (Brown colour
HCl
(White ppt.) in solution) C12 H 22 O11 + H 2 O ¾¾¾
®
sucrose
[aD ]=+66.5º
2Na 2S2 O3 + I2 ¾¾
® Na 2S4O6 + 2NaI
Sod. tetrathionate
(colourless) C 6 H12 O6 + C6 H12 O6
D -glucose D -Fructose
68. (d) This reaction shows the formation of H2O,
[aD ]=+52.5º [ aD ]=-92º
and the X2 represents the enthalpy of 144444424444443
formation of H2O because as the definition Invert sugar,[aD ]=-20º
suggests that the enthalpy of formation is 74. (d) In CO2 we have 22 (6 + 8 + 8 = 22) electrons.
the heat evolved or absorbed when one In (CN22–), we have 22 (6 + 7 + 7 + 2 =22)
mole of substance is formed from its electrons. Both CO2 and (CN22–) have linear
constituent atoms. structures. Thus, statement (a) is correct.
 26
Mg 2 C3 + 4H 2 O ¾¾® 1
2Mg(OH) 2 + CH 3C º CH a = 2 2r or r = a
Propyne 2 2
i.e., statement (b) is also correct . Thus the ratio of radii of spheres for these
The structure of CaC2 is of NaCl type will be
i.e., statement (c) is also correct. simple : bcc : fcc
75. (d) The hydrophilic/ hydrophobic character of
amino acid residues is important to tertiary a 3 1
= : a: a
structure of protein rather than to 2 4 2 2
secondary structure. In secondary i.e. option (a) is correct answer.
structure, it is the steric size of the residues 81. (b) Recall th at presence of electron-
that is important and residues are positioned
withdrawing group increases, while
to minimise interactions between each other
and the peptide chain. presence of electron-releasing group
76. (a) Given vapour pressure of pure solute decreases the acidity of carboxylic acids.
O O
(P 0 ) = 121.8 mm; Weight of solute (w) = 15 g || ||
Weight of solvent (W) = 250 g; Vapour ClCH 2COOH > H - C - OH > CH3 - C - OH >
pressure of pure solvent (P) = 120.2 mm and (electron-withdrawing gp.) (Electron-releasing character
increasing from left to right)
Molecular weight of solvent (M) = 78
From Raoult’s law O
||
o
P -P w M 121.8 - 120.2 15 78 C 2H 5 - C - OH
= = ´ = = ´
o m W 121.8 m 250
P 82. (d) Penicillin is an antibiotic which was first
15 ´ 78 121.8 obtained from a fungus, penicillium notatum
or m = ´ = 356.2 by the scientist, Flemming.
250 1.6
77. (c) NO2 is paramagnetic and readily dimerises 1
to N2O4 which is diamagnetic. 83. (d) H2O2(aq) ® H2O(aq) + O (g)
2 2
78. (b) When the concentration of reactant is
reduced to half its initial value, the rate is For a first order reaction
2.303 a
reduced by 2.4 = 4 times k= log
0.6 t (a - x)
It means, rate µ [ reactant]2 Given a = 0.5, (a – x) = 0.125, t = 50 min
So, order of reaction = 2
79. (b) p-p overlap between B and F is maximum 2.303 0.5
\ k= log
due to identical size and energy of p- 50 0.125
orbitals, so electron deficiency in boron of
= 2.78 ´ 10–2 min–1
BF3 is neutralized partially to the maximum
extent by back donation. r = k[H2O2] = 2.78 ´ 10–2 ´ 0.05
Hence BF3 is least acidic. = 1.386 ´ 10–3 mol min–1
80. (a) Following generalization can be easily Now
derived for var ious types of lattice d [ H 2 O2 ] d [H2 O] 2d [O2 ]
arrangements in cubic cells between the - = =
edge length (a) of the cell and r the radius of dt dt dt
the sphere. 2d [O2 ] d [ H 2 O2 ]
a \ =-
For simple cubic : a = 2r or r = dt dt
2
For body centred cubic : d [ O2 ] 1 d[H 2 O2 ]
\ = ´
4 dt 2 dt
a= r or r = 3 a
3 4 1.386 ´10-3
For face centred cubic : = = 6.93 ´ 10–4 mol min–1
2
 27
84. (d) Various products are formed when 89. (c) Nylon-6 is also called as perlon. It is a
nitroarenes are reduced. These are given polymer of caprolactam.
below for C6H5NO2. O NOH
Medium Main product
In acidic medium Aniline (C6H5NH2) 2
¾¾¾¾®
NH OH Beckmann
¾¾¾¾¾®
(metal/HCl) rearrangement
In neutral medium Phenyl hydroxylamine, Cyclo hexanone Oxime
(Zn/NH4Cl) NHOH
O
NH 2H O
¾¾¾®
D
H2N(CH2)5COOH
In alkaline medium
Caprolactam e-Amino Caproic acid
NH NH O O
Hydrazobenzene D
¾¾¾¾® –(NH(CH2)5–C–NH–(CH2)5 –C)–n
Thus, Aniline will be main product in case Polymerise
of (d). Nylon-6
85. (a) DG° = -nFE° 90. (b)
BIOLOGY
(i) Fe2+ + 2e- ¾¾
® Fe ; E 0 = -0.47 V;
3+ -
91. (d) Intercalary meristem
® Fe2+ ; E 0 = +0.77 V;
(ii) Fe + e ¾¾ 92. (c) When the external intercostal muscles and
diaphragm relax, the ribs move downward
(iii) Fe3+ + 3e- ¾¾
® Fe and inward and diaphragm becomes convex
(dome shaped), thus decreasing the volume
(i) D G0 = - nFE 0 = -2( - 0.47)F = 0.94F of thoracic cavity and increasing the
(ii) D G0 = - nFE 0 = -1(+ 0.77)F = - 0.77 F pressure inside as compared to the
atmospheric pressure outside. This will
(iii) On adding : D G 0 = +0.17 F cause the air to move out (expiration).
93. (d) Long-day plants usually flower in the spring
DG 0 = -nFE 0 or early summer; they flower only if the light
E0 for (Fe 3+ ¾¾
® Fe) periods are longer than a critical length,
which is usually 9-16 hours. For example,
DG0 0.17F wheat plants flower only when light periods
= = = -0.057 V exceed fourteen hours.
-nF -3F
86. (c) Carbon cannot expand its coordination 94. (a) A : n B : n C : 2n D : n
number beyond four due to the absence of 95. (d) The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate.
It enters mitochondria and is oxidatively
d-orbitals, hence it cannot form [ CCl 6 ] 2-
decarboxylated to acetyl CoA before
ion. entering into Krebs cycle.
87. (b) i Remains unchanged when number of ions
96. (c) Differentiation of shoot is controlled by
before and after complex ion remains
low auxin concentration. While in tissue
constant. culture auxin concentration is made high
Solute y Complex y to promote rooting.
(a) PtCl4 5 K2[PtCl6] 3 97. (a)
(b) ZnCl2 3 Zn[(NH3)4]Cl2 3 98. (a) DNA ligase is the enzyme which helps in
joining two fragments of DNA. The enzyme
88. (d) The equivalent conductivity of a solution, is used in DNA replication as it joints the
1000 Okazaki segments (also in proof reading). It
Leq = ×k
C also finds its use in genetic engineering as
Where, it can join two or more desired nucleotide
k = specific conductance = Unit ohm–1 cm–1 sequences of DNA.
C = normality of the solution unit g eq/cm3 99. (a)
Hence, the unit of Leq is Ohm–1.cm2 (gm 100. (b) During double fertilization in plants one
equivalent)–1. sperm fises with the egg cell and the other
 28
sperm fuses with two polar nucles of the produced naturally or they may be induced
central cell to produce triploid primary by treatment of the unpollinated flowers
endospersm cell (3n). Since the latter with auxin.
involves fusion of three haploid nudeus Removal of androecium before pollen release
therefore it is called triple fuxion. is called emasculation which is helpful in
101. (c) In 1962, American biologist, Rachel Carson preventing unwanted pollination. Vernalized
published the book Silent Spring, which seeds are the chilled treated seeds for
alleged that DDT causes cancer and harmed breaking dormancy. Phenyl Mercuric Acetate
bird reproduction by thinning egg shells. is an antitranspirant.
This followed the principles of biological Gibberellins and Auxins are known to induce
magnification, killing higher level organisms parthenocarpy in plants. If a tomato plant is
like the birds. DDT is a persistent organic treated with a low concentration of auxin and
pollutant with a reported half life of between gibberellic acid it’ll produce fruits without
2-15 years, and is immobile in most soils. fertilization i.e. parthenocarpic fruits.
102. (a) 110. (a) Epistasis is the phenomenon of masking or
103. (b) Y represents the site of photosynthesis, suppressing the phenotypic impression of
where more glucose has been manufactured, a gene pair by a non allelic gene pair which
whilst there is less glucose in the medium impresses its own effect.
where the roots Z are placed in. W thus is 111. (a) UAA is a nonsense codon. It signals for
polypeptide chain termination. Hence, only
the phloem where the photosynthates are
24 amino acids chain will be formed as the
transported from the leaves Y to the roots process of translation will be terminated at
Z. X is the xylem which helps in the 25th codon.
transportation of water from the roots Z to 112. (b) The rate at which organic molecules are
the leaves Y. formed in a green plant is called gross
104. (c) Embryo sac is 7-celled structure. There is a productivity.
large central cell with two polar nuclei, egg 113. (a) Food chain is the transfer of energy from
apparatus with egg cell and 2 synergids green plants (Primary producers), through
present at micropylar end and its chalazal a sequence of organisms occupies in a food
end, 3 antipodal cells are present. chain is known as its trophic level.
105. (a) Epigynous flower Þ G e.g. Cucumber Therefore, statements (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Perigynous flower Þ G – e.g. Rose and plum 114. (c) Cell wall and cell membrane are the cellular
Hypogynous flower Þ G e.g. Brinjal structures which play an important role in
106. (d) determining the movement of molecules in
107. (a) AaBB × aaBB on crossing gives 50% or out of the plant cell. Cell wall is the rigid
individuals having genotype AaBB and layer of polysaccharides lying outside the
50% individuals having genotype aaBB. plasma membrane of the cells of plants,
fungi, and bacteria. In the algae and higher
Parent : AaBB aaBB plants it consists mainly of cellulose. Cell
Gametes :
membrane, composed of lipids and proteins,
AB aB aB
is the semipermeable membrane which
surrounds the cytoplasm.
F1
AB aB 115. (a) Carolus Linnaeus gave the binomial system
of nomenclature.
116. (b) Well developed vascular system present in
aB AaBB aaBB
the members of pteridophytes but absent
in mosses as the plant body is sporophyte
108. (d) The oceans cover about 2/3 of the whole
which is distinguished into true root, stem
surface of our earth. Thus it is the most
and leaves.
stable ecosystem, because of buffering
117. (b) A centriole is a barrel - shaped cell structure
action by water.
found in most animal eukaryotic cells,
109. (a) Parthenocarpy is the development of fruits
though absent in higher plants and most
without prior fertilization which results in
the formation of seedless fruits. In some fungi.
plant species, parthenocarpic fruits are
 29
118. (a) Association of algae and fungi is referred 127. (b) DNA or RNA segment tagged with a
to as lichen. Symbiotic association of radioactive molecule is called Probe. They
Rhizobium with roots of leguminous plants are used to detect the presence of
is referred to as symbiosis. Mycorrhiza is complementary sequences in nucleic acid
symbiotic association between fungi and samples. Probes are used for identification
roots of higher plants. The fungal partner and isolation of DNA or RNA.
of mycorrhiza obtains food from roots of 128. (d) Hot spots are those areas which were rich
the higher plant and in return supplies in biodiversity but now under threat due to
mineral elements to it. direct or indirect interference of human
119. (b) Laminaria (kelp) and Fucus (rock weed) are activites. These regions are on the edge to
marine algae. They are the members of class- get some of their species extinct due to
phaeophyceae (brown) algae. humans. Western Ghats in India are under
120. (b) Vacuoles are present mainly in the plant threat due to continuous developmental
cells. Each vacuole is surrounded by activities and Doon valley is under threat
cytoplasmic membrane called as tonoplast due to continuous mining activities.
which is similar to plasma membrane. 129. (a) According to the concept of species-area
121. (b) Vascular cambium is produced by two types relationship, within a region, species
of meristems, fascicular and interfascicular richness gets increased when explored area
cambium. is increased, but only up to a limit.
122. (d) The movement of organic food or solute in 130. (c)
soluble form, from one organ to another 131. (d) The factors which affect the rate of
organ is called translocation of organic transpiration are Light – stomatal opening,
solutes. The process of translocation Temperature – increases rate of
requires expenditure of metabolic energy transpiration, Humidity – low humidity
and the solute moves at the rate of 100 cm/ increases the rate of transpiration whereas
hr. The translocation of solutes occurs in a
mass along with cell sap through the sieve high humidity exerts an opposite effect i.e.
tubes from a region of higher turgor decreases the rate, Wind increases
pressure to low turgor pressure (i.e, along a transpiration rates, as wind moves water –
turgor pressure gradient). saturated air away from stomata, which
123. (a) The linking of antibiotic resistance gene reduces external water vapour conc.,
with the plasmid vector became possible increasing the gradient, so water to moves
with DNA ligase. DNA ligase is an enzyme out of the leaf.
that is able to join together two portions of 132. (d) Turgor pressure is the pressure that develops
DNA and therefore plays an important role in a cell due to osmotic diffusion of water
in DNA repair. DNA ligase is also used in
inside it and is responsible for pushing the
recombinant DNA technology as it ensures
that the foreign DNA is bound to the membrane against cell wall. Stomata open
plasmid into which it is incorporated. under conditions of increased turgor
124. (a) In situ means keeping endangered species pressure of guard cells and stomata get
of animals or plants into natural environment closed under conditions of decreased turgor
and not in the environment that looks like pressure of guard cells. When turgid, they
natural but man made, like zoological & swell and bend outward. As a result, the
botanical gardens. In situ includes, national stomatal aperture opens. When they are
parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserve. flaccid, the tension from the wall is released
125. (d) Monascus purpureus is a yeast used in the and stomatal aperture closes.
production of statins which are used in
133. (b)
lowering blood cholestrol.
134. (b) A keel is a structure of the papilionaceous
126. (b) Gel electrophoresis is a technique to
type of flower, made up of two petals loosely
separation of DNA fragments according to
united along their edges.
their size. DNA is negatively charged so in
gel tank when electric passed, DNA move 135. (a)
towards positive electrode. 136. (c) Movement of Ca2+ out in sarcoplasmic
reticulum controls the making and breaking
 30
of actin and myosin complex actomyosin placenta. When a woman is in a lithotomy
due to which muscle contraction and or semi-sitting position, the foetal ejection
relaxation takes place. Albert Szent Gyorgyi reflex is impaired and the increased pain
worked out biochemical events of muscle caused by the sacrum’s inability to move as
contraction. the baby descends can be intolerable.
150. (b) 151. (d)
137. (d) Brain is the most vital organ. It stops
152. (d) The ascending limb of Henle's loop is non-
functioning in the absence of O2.
permeable to water.
138. (d) Tarsals, femur, metatarsals and tibia are the 153. (c) Catla catla and Labeo rohita are the two
bones of the legs which are involved in Indian major carps whereas Heteropneustes
running during chasing the ball by cricket is a catfish. Cyprinus is the exotic breed.
player. 154. (c) Chimpanzees and gorillas are our closest
139. (a) relatives among the living primates.
140. (b) Posterior pituitary releases vasopressin 155. (a) Adaptive radiation refers to evolution of
which stimulates reabsorption of water in different species from a common ancestor.
the distal tubules in nephron. The mammals are adapted for different mode
141. (c) of life i.e. they show adaptive radiation. They
142. (c) Melanin is the pigment which gives colour can be aerial (bat), aquatic (whale and
to the skin. Retinol is the other name for dolphins), burrowing or fossorial (rat),
vitamin A. Sclerotin is the component of the cursorial ( horse), scantorial (squirrel) or
carapace in crustaceans. arboreal (monkey). The adaptive radiation,
143. (c) When a host is exposed to antigens, which the term by Osborn, is also known as
may be in the form of living or dead Divergent evolution.
microbes or other proteins, antibodies are 156. (d) The most significant trend in evolution of
produced in the host body. This type of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
immunity is called active immunity. Infecting ancestors is development of brain capacity.
the microbes deliberately during 157. (d) In the given figure, the root tip shows their
immunization/vaccination induces active different regions which are marked as A, B
immunity e.g., polio vaccine. and C. The correct labelling of A, B and C
144. (a) Egg is liberated from the ovary (ovulation) are region of maturation, region of
at secondary oocyte stage when the elongation and region of meristematic
meiosis II is arrested in secondary oocyte. activity respectively.
It will be induced by the sperm. 158. (b) Products of honey bee are honey, bee wax,
145. (a) Stenohaline : Steno meaning narrow and bee venom and royal jelly. Medicinal
haline meaning salt. A fish cannot handle a importance includes its uses as laxative,
wide fluctuation in salt content in water. antiseptic, sedative, etc. It is also used
Many fresh water fish tend to be stenohaline against digestive disorders. Bee venom is
and die in environments of high salinity used to cure gout and arthritis. Bee is used
such as the ocean. Fish living in coastal in producing cosmetics, paints polishes, etc.
estuaries and tide pools are often euryhaline It is not a labour intensive process and is
(tolerant to changes in salinity) as are many source of additional income to the farmers.
species which have life cycle requiring 159. (b) The terms Porifera was given by Grant, the
tolerance to both fresh water and sea water phylum includes animals with pores in their
environments such as Salmon. body. Its classification based on skeleton
146. (a) 147. (c) or spicules.
148. (c) Reproductive health in society can be 160. (d) Squamous epithelium is formed of thin
improved by creating awareness among discoidal and polygonal cells that fit like
people about various reproduction related tiles in a floor, so is also called pavement
aspects and providing facilities and support epithelium. It is found in the walls of blood
for building up a reproductively healthy vessels, in the alveoli of lungs for exchange
society. of gas, and in Bowman’s capsule of nephron
149. (b) Foetal ejection reflex in human female is for ultra filtration.
induced by fully developed foetus and 161. (d) 162. (c)
 31
163. (d) In the molluscs mantle is a loose fold of organisms causing a disease, and to solve
skin, not concerned with locomotion. crimes.
164. (b) Malaria is caused by Plasmodium. Asexual 173. (c) The adult dental formula of human is
cycle of Plasmodium takes place in man 2 1 2
hence, it is secondary host. Sexual cycle of Incisor , Canine , Premolar ,
2 1 2
Plasmodium occur in mosquito hence, it is
3
called the primary host. Molar .
165. (a) 3
166. (a) Human insulin is being commercially 174. (c) Liver is the primary site of detoxification
produced from a transgenic species of and elimination of body wastes and
Escherichia coli. E. coli is a bacterium that poisons. Liver detoxifies endotoxins, e.g.
is commonly found in the lower intestine of toxic NH3 combined with CO2 to form less
warm blooded animals. The bacteria can also toxic urea. It also detoxifies alcohol and
be grown easily and its genetics are convert them to acetaldehyde and then
comparatively simple and easily harmless acetyl CoA.
manipulated, making it one of the best 175. (d) Rennin (also called rennet or chymosin) is
studied prokaryotic model organisms, and an coagulating enzyme produced from
an important species in biotechnology. stomach of human body. It catalyzes the
167. (b) The major obstacle in transplantation of coagulation of milk by converting milk with
organs is that the recipient body does not soluble protein caesin into insoluble semi
accept the donor’s organ. The body defence fluid calcium paracaesinate. This is called
mechanism reject & treat the transplanted curdling of milk. Rennin produced in the
organ as a foreign particle and reacts infants immediately after birth. As the child
actively. grows, rennin production goes down and
168. (b) Rauwolfia serpentina belong to family is replaced by pepsin digestive enzymes.
Apocynaceae, its roots yield a chemical Renin is an enzyme which acts as hormone
useful for high blood pressure. secreted by juxtaglomerular cells. It
169. (c) Cyanobacteria Chlorophyll a, PS I and II. converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin.
170. (a) Heart attack is more common with increased 176. (c)
177. (d) Osmotic pressure of body fluids is mainly
level of LDL (low density lipids) while
maintained by the plasma proteins (albumins,
increased level of HDL (high density lipids)
globulins) and electrolyte ions (Na+, K+ etc).
are protective, oestrogen is the hormone Phosphorus has nothing to do with the
which helps in an increase of HDL level in osmotic pressure of body fluids.
blood. 178. (d)
171. (a) Dolly sheep was obtained by cloning the 179. (b) If the walls of the collecting duct are water-
udder cell (somatic cell) fused with permeable, water leaves the ducts to pass
enucleated oocyte. into the hyperosmotic surrounding and con-
172. (b) DNA fingerprinting is a test to identify and centrated urine is produced. Thus, when
evaluate the genetic information-called there is insufficient ADH, less water is re-
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)-in a person’s absorbed and more dilute urine is produced
cells. DNA fingerprinting is a form of in copious amounts.
identification based on sequencing specific 180. (b) Spleen (also known as blood bank and
non-coding portions of DNA that are known graveyard of RBCs) is a dark, purple gland
to have a high degree of variability from present in the left side of abdomen against
person to person. These sections are the stomach. It is internally made up of white
known as Tandem repeats. The test is used pulp and red pulp. Its main functions are
to determine whether a family relationship storage of blood and break down of old and
exists between two people, to identify senescent RBCs.