DATE : 07/05/2017 Test Booklet Code

B
(APRA)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2017
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

1. Which of the following is a sink for CO? OCH3

(1) Micro-organisms present in the soil NH2

(1) and elimination addition reaction
(2) Oceans

(3) Plants OCH3

(4) Haemoglobin Br
(2) and cine substitution reaction
Answer (1)

Sol. Micro-organisms present in the soil is a sink for CO. OCH3

2. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently.

(3) and cine substitution reaction
It will belong to which of the following family group
and electronic configuration?
OCH3
(1) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p2

(2) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p4 (4) and substitution reaction

(3) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p6 NH2
Answer (4)
(4) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p5
OCH3 OCH3 OCH3
Answer (1)
Sol. H
NH2
Sol. Z = 114 belong to Group 14, carbon family

Electronic configuration = [Rn]5f146d107s27p2 Br Br

Benzyne
3. For a given reaction, H = 35.5 kJ mol –1 and
S = 83.6 JK–1 mol–1. The reaction is spontaneous OCH3
at : (Assume that H and S do not vary with NH2
OCH3 X
temperature) a
(Less stable)
NH2
(1) T > 425 K OCH3
OCH3
(2) All temperatures b H–NH2

(3) T > 298 K

NH2
(4) T < 425 K NH2

Answer (1) More stable as –ve charge is close to electron

withdrawing group
Sol. ∵ G = H – TS
∵ Incoming nucleophile ends on same ‘C’ on which
For a reaction to be spontaneous, G = –ve ‘Br’ (Leaving group) was present

i.e., H < TS  NOT cine substitution.

5. Which of the following is dependent on temperature?
3
H 35.5  10 J
 T  (1) Molarity
S 83.6 JK –1
(2) Mole fraction
i.e., T > 425 K
(3) Weight percentage
4. Identify A and predict the type of reaction
(4) Molality
OCH3
Answer (1)
NaNH2
A Sol. Molarity includes volume of solution which can
Br change with change in temperature.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

6. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of The overall order of the reaction will be
the following statements is true? (1) 2 (2) 0
(1) Bond angle changes but bond length remains
(3) 1.5 (4) 1
same
Answer (3)
(2) Both bond angle and bond length change
(3) Both bond angles and bond length remains Sol. The solution of this question is given by assuming
same step (i) to be reversible which is not given in question
(4) Bond angle remains same but bond length Overall rate = Rate of slowest step (ii)
changes
= k[X] [Y2] ...(1)
Answer (3)
k = rate constant of step (ii)
Sol. There is no change in bond angles and bond lengths
in the conformations of ethane. There is only change Assuming step (i) to be reversible, its equilibrium
in dihedral angle. constant,
1 1
7. Name the gas that can readily decolourises acidified [X]2
KMnO4 solution: k eq  ⇒ [X]  k eq 2 [X2 ] 2 ...(2)
[X2 ]
(1) SO2 (2) NO2 Put (2) in (1)
(3) P2O5 (4) CO2 1 1
Rate = kk eq 2 [X2 ] 2 [Y2 ]
Answer (1)
1 3
Sol. SO2 is readily decolourises acidified KMnO4. Overall order = 1
2 2
8. It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the 10. The equilibrium constants of the following are
valence shell to participate in bonding that


N2 + 3H2 
 2NH3 K1
(1) Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb4+ is reducing


N2 + O2 
 2NO K2
(2) Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidising and reducing
1
(3) Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising H2  O2  H2O K3
2
(4) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction
Answer (4) 5 K

2NH3  O2  2NO  3H2O, will be
2
Sol. Inability of ns 2 electrons of the valence shell to
participate in bonding on moving down the group in (1) K2K33 / K1 (2) K2K3 / K1
heavier p-block elements is called inert pair effect
As a result, Pb(II) is more stable than Pb(IV) (3) K32K3 / K1 (4) K1K33 / K2

Sn(IV) is more stable than Sn(II) Answer (1)

 Pb(IV) is easily reduced to Pb(II) [NH3 ]2
Sol. (I) 

N2  3H2 
 2NH3 ; K1 
 Pb(IV) is oxidising agent [N2 ] [H2 ]3

Sn(II) is easily oxidised to Sn(IV) 

 [NO]2
(II) N2  O2 
 2NO; K 2 
[N2 ] [O2 ]
 Sn(II) is reducing agent
1 [H2 O]
9. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction (III) H2  O2  H2O; K 3 
X2 + Y2  2XY is given below :
2 [H2 ] [O2 ]1/2
(II + 3  III – II) will give
(i) X2  X + X (fast)
5 K


 2NH3  O2  2NO  3H2O;
(ii) X + Y2 
 XY + Y (slow) 2
(iii) X + Y  XY (fast)  K  K 2  K33 / K1

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

11. Which one is the wrong statement? 14. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the
following compounds is
h
(1) The uncertainty principle is E  t 
4 NH2 NH2 NH2
(2) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater
stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
symmetry and more balanced arrangement
NO2 CH3
(3) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy
of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms (I) (II) (III)
(1) III < I < II (2) III < II < I
h
(4) de-Broglie's wavelength is given by   ,
mv (3) II < I < III (4) II < III < I
where m = mass of the particle, v = group
Answer (3)
velocity of the particle
Sol. –NO2 has strong –R effect and –CH3 shows +R
Answer (3)
effect.
Sol. Energy of 2s-orbital and 2p-orbital in case of
hydrogen like atoms is equal.  Order of basic strength is

12. Which one of the following statements is not NH2 NH2 NH2
correct?
(1) The value of equilibrium constant is changed in < <
the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at
equilibrium
NO2 CH3
(2) Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions
15. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic
(3) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of compound is
enzyme
(1) Grignard's reagent (2) Ferrocene
(4) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction
(3) Cobaltocene (4) Ruthenocene
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
Sol. A catalyst decreases activation energies of both the
forward and backward reaction by same amount, Sol. Grignard's reagent i.e., RMgX is -bonded
therefore, it speeds up both forward and backward organometallic compound.
reaction by same rate. 16. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at
Equilibrium constant is therefore not affected by pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the
catalyst at a given temperature. volume of solid SrO). The volume of the containers
is now decreased by moving the movable piston
13. HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing
fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the
I– ions the pair of species formed is
container, when pressure of CO 2 attains its
(1) HgI2 , I– (2) HgI2– –
4 , I3 maximum value, will be
(3) Hg2I2 , I– (4) HgI2 , I3– 

(Given that : SrCO3(s)  SrO(s) + CO 2(g).
Answer (2) Kp = 1.6 atm)

Sol. In a solution containing HgCl2, I2 and I–, both HgCl2 (1) 10 litre (2) 4 litre
and I2 compete for I–. (3) 2 litre (4) 5 litre
Since formation constant of [HgI4]2– is 1.9 × 1030 Answer (4)
which is very large as compared with I3– (Kf = 700)
Sol. Max. pressure of CO2 = Pressure of CO2 at equilibrium
 I– will preferentially combine with HgCl2.
For reaction,
HgCl2 + 2I–  HgI2 + 2Cl–
Red ppt 

 SrO(s)  CO2
SrCO3 (s) 
HgI2 + 2I–  [HgI4]2– Kp  PCO2  1.6 atm = maximum pressure of CO2
soluble

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

Volume of container at this stage, 19. Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with
the geometry in column II and assign the correct
nRT code
V …(i)
P
Column I Column II
Since container is sealed and reaction was not
earlier at equilibrium (a) XX (i) T-shape

 n = constant (b) XX3 (ii) Pentagonal

bipyramidal
PV 0.4  20
n  …(ii)
RT RT (c) XX5 (iii) Linear
Put equation (ii) in equation (i) (d) XX7 (iv) Square-pyramidal
⎡ 0.4  20 ⎤ RT (v) Tetrahedral
V⎢ ⎥ =5L
⎣ RT ⎦ 1.6 Code :
17. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Antiseptic (2) Antipyretic (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) Antibiotic (4) Analgesic (2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Answer (1) (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Sol. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
antiseptic. Answer (1)
18. Pick out the correct statement with respect Sol. XX  Linear
[Mn(CN)6]3–
XX3  Example : CIF3  T-shape
(1) It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral XX5  Example : BrF5  Square pyramidal
(2) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral XX7  Example : IF7  Pentagonal bipyramidal
(3) It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar 20. The species, having bond angles of 120° is
(4) It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral (1) CIF3 (2) NCl3
Answer (2) (3) BCl3 (4) PH3
Sol. [Mn(CN)6]3– Answer (3)
Mn(III) = [Ar]3d4 Cl
CN – being strong field ligand forces pairing of 120°
Sol. B
electrons Cl Cl
4 0 21. Predict the correct intermediate and product in the
This gives t2g eg following reaction
 Mn(III) = [Ar] H2O, H2SO4
H 3C C CH HgSO4
intermediate product
(A) (B)

(1) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH2

3d 4s 4p OH SO4
2 3
d sp (2) A : H3C C CH3 B : H3C C CH
∵ Coordination number of Mn = 6
O
 Structure = octahedral
(3) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH3
[Mn(CN)6]3– =
OH O

[Ar]       (4) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH3

SO4 O
2 3
d sp
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA
Answer (3) 25. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of
OH 10–2 second–1. How much time will it take for 20 g
of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?
Sol. H3C – C  CH H3C – C = CH
(A) (1) 138.6 second (2) 346.5 second
O (3) 693.0 second (4) 238.6 second
Tautomerism
H3C – C – CH3 Answer (1)
(B)
0.693
22. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value Sol. t1/2  second
of molal depression constant (Kf) will be 10 –2
For the reduction of 20 g of reactant to 5 g, two t1/2
(1) Halved (2) Tripled
is required.
(3) Unchanged (4) Doubled
0.693
 t  2 second
Answer (3) 10 –2
Sol. Kf (molal depression constant) is a characteristic of = 138.6 second
solvent and is independent of molality.
26. Which one of the following pairs of species have the
23. The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces. same bond order?

(1) Iodobenzene (2) Phenol (1) O2, NO+ (2) CN–, CO

(3) Benzene (4) Ethyl chlorides (3) N2, O2– (4) CO, NO

Answer (2) Answer (2)

Sol. CN(–) and CO have bond order 3 each.
O – CH3 OH
27. In which pair of ions both the species contain
HI S – S bond?
Sol. + CH3I
(1) S4O62–, S2O32– (2) S2O72–, S2O82–
(3) S4O62–, S2O72– (4) S2O72–, S2O32–
24. In the electrochemical cell
Answer (1)
Zn|ZnSO4(0.01M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this
Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 O O O
is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to Sol. O –
S S S S –
O , S
0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the following, O–
O O S –
which one is the relationship between E1 and E2? O
2(–)
RT [S4O6] [S2O3]2(–)
(Given, = 0.059)
F 28. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution
of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 × 10–4 mol L–1. Solubility product
(1) E1 < E2 (2) E1 > E2
of Ag2C2O4 is
(3) E2 = 0 ≠ E1 (4) E1 = E2
(1) 2.66 × 10–12 (2) 4.5 × 10–11
Answer (2)
(3) 5.3 × 10–12 (4) 2.42 × 10–8
Sol. Zn|ZnSO4(0.01 M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu
Answer (3)

o 2.303RT (0.01)  2
 E1  Ecell –  log 

Sol. Ag2C2O4 (s)  2 Ag (aq)  C2O4 (aq)
2F 1 2s s

When concentrations are changed KSP = [Ag+]2 [C2O42–]

o 2.303RT 1 [Ag+] = 2.2 × 10–4 M

 E2  Ecell –  log
2F 0.01
2.2  104
i.e., E1 > E2  [C2O24 ]  M  1.1 104 M
2

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

 KSP = (2.2 × 10–4)2 (1.1 × 10–4) 32. The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1
mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is
= 5.324 × 10–12
(1) Chromatography
29. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal
ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts (2) Crystallisation
are put under an electric field?
(3) Steam distillation
(1) K (2) Rb
(4) Sublimation
(3) Li (4) Na
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. Steam distillation is the most suitable method of
Sol. Li+ being smallest, has maximum charge density separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para
 Li+ is most heavily hydrated among all alkali metal nitrophenols as there is intramolecular H-bonds in
ions. Effective size of Li+ in aq solution is therefore, ortho nitrophenol.
largest.
33. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl
 Moves slowest under electric field. formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the
complexes : CoCl36NH3, CoCl35NH3, CoCl34NH3
30. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated
container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 respectively is
atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume (1) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy U of the
gas in joules will be (2) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl

(1) –500 J (3) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl

(2) –505 J (4) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl
(3) +505 J Answer (2)
(4) 1136.25 J
Sol. Complexes are respectively [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 ,
Answer (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
Sol. U = q + w 34. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of
For adiabatic process, q = 0 absorption in the visible region for the complexes of
Co3+ is
 U = w
= – P·V (1) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+

= –2.5 atm × (4.5 – 2.5) L (2) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+

= –2.5 × 2 L-atm (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+

= –5 × 101.3 J (4) [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
= –506.5 J
Answer (4)
 –505 J
Sol. The order of the ligand in the spectrochemical series
31. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in
actinoids is attributed to H2O < NH3 < en

(1) Actinoid contraction Hence, the wavelength of the light observed will be
in the order
(2) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies
(3) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies [Co(H2O)6]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(en)3]3+

(4) The radioactive nature of actinoids Thus, wavelength absorbed will be in the opposite
order
Answer (2)
i.e., [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
Sol. It is a fact.
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

35. Which one is the most acidic compound? Answer (1)

OH OH O O
H
(i) OH(–)
(1) (2) Sol. + H
(ii) 

NO2 O
OH OH 39. Which of the following statements is not correct?
O2N NO2 (1) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
(3) (4)
(2) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are
involved in blood clotting
NO2 CH3
(3) Denaturation makes the proteins more active
Answer (3)
(4) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a
Sol. –NO2 group has very strong –I & –R effects.
human body
36. Which of the following pairs of compounds is
isoelectronic and isostructural? Answer (3)

(1) Tel2, XeF2 (2) IBr2 , XeF2 Sol. Due to denaturation of proteins, globules unfold and
helix get uncoiled and protein loses its biological
(3) IF3, XeF2 (4) BeCl2, XeF2 activity.
Answer (2) 40. Which one is the correct order of acidity?
Sol. IBr2–, XeF2
(1) CH  CH > CH3 – C  CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3
Total number of valence electrons are equal in both – CH3
the species and both the species are linear also.
(2) CH  CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  CH > CH3
37. Which of the following reactions is appropriate for – CH3
converting acetamide to methanamine?
(3) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  CH >
(1) Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction CH  CH
(2) Stephens reaction
(4) CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH = CH2 > CH3 – C 
(3) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis CH > CH  CH
(4) Carbylamine reaction Answer (1)
Answer (1) Sol. Correct order is
O
 H – C  C – H  H3 C – C  C – H  H2C  CH2  CH3 – CH3
Sol. CH3 – C – NH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH (Two acidic (One acidic
hydrogens) hydrogen)
CH3 – NH2 + 2NaBr + Na2CO3 + 3H2O
This is Hoffmann Bromamide reaction. 41. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with
CN– ion. Silver is later recovered by
38. Of the following, which is the product formed when
cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation (1) Distillation (2) Zone refining
followed by heating? (3) Displacement with Zn (4) Liquation
Answer (3)
(1) (2)
Sol. Zn being more reactive than Ag and Au, displaces
them.
O OH
From Native ore,
O
Leaching
4Ag + 8NaCN + 2H2O + O2 
(3) (4) 4Na[Ag(CN)2 ]  4NaOH
Soluble
Sodium dicyanoargentate(I)
O O OH
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

Displacement
2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn  
+ –
Cu [Ag(NH3)2] ,OH
Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Ag CH3–CH2OH 573 K
CH3–CHO CH3–COOH

(X) (A)
42. The correct statement regarding electrophile is ethanal
O
(1) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and OH
–
H2N – NH – C – NH2 OH
can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons CH3 – CH – CH2 – CHO
from another electrophile O
3-Hydroxybutanal
CH3 – CH = N – NH – C – NH2 
(2) Electrophiles are generally neutral species and
(Z)
can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons CH3 – CH = CH – CHO
from a nucleophile (Y)
But-2-enal
(3) Electrophile can be either neutral or positively
charged species and can form a bond by
accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile 44. The IUPAC name of the compound

(4) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and O O

can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
C
from a nucleophile H is ________.
Answer (3)
(1) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one
Sol. Fact.
(2) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
43. Consider the reactions :
(3) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal
+
Cu / [Ag(NH3)2] (4) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
X A Silver mirror observed
573 K –OH, 
(C2H6O) Answer (4)
–OH, 
Y
O O O
NH2 – NH – C – NH2
C 2 3
Z Sol. H 4
1
5 6
Identify A, X, Y and Z
(1) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid, Aldehydes get higher priority over ketone and alkene
Z-Semicarbazide in numbering of principal C-chain.
(2) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal,  3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
Z-Semicarbazone 45. Which is the incorrect statement?
(3) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, (1) Density decreases in case of crystals with
Z-Hydrazone Schottky's defect
(4) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate (2) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor,
ion, Z-hydrazine silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric
crystal
Answer (2)
(3) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic
Sol. Since 'A' gives positive silver mirror test therefore, it compounds in which sizes of cation and anions
must be an aldehyde or -Hydroxyketone. are almost equal
Reaction with semicarbazide indicates that A can be (4) FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency
an aldehyde or ketone. defect
Reaction with OH – i.e., aldol condensation (by Answer (3 & 4)
assuming alkali to be dilute) indicates that A is Sol. Frenkel defect occurs in those ionic compounds in
aldehyde as aldol reaction of ketones is reversible which size of cation and anion is largely different.
and carried out in special apparatus.
Non-stoichiometric ferrous oxide is Fe0.93–0.96O1.00
These indicates option (2). and it is due to metal deficiency defect.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

46. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause 50. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the
the release of following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
explanation for this feature?
(1) Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(2) Aldosterone (a) They do not need to reproduce

(3) ADH (b) They are somatic cells

(4) Renin (c) They do not metabolize
Answer (1) (d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
Sol. A decrease in blood pressure / volume stimulates the transport
release of renin, aldosterone, and ADH while (1) Only (a) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
increase in blood pressure / volume stimulates the (3) (b) and (c) (4) Only (d)
release of Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) which Answer (4)
cause vasodilation and also inhibits RAAS (Renin
Sol. In Human RBCs, nucleus degenerates during
Angiotensin Aldosterone System) mechanism that
maturation which provide more space for oxygen
decreases the blood volume/pressure.
carrying pigment (Haemoglobin). It lacks most of the
47. Which of the following are not polymeric? cell organelles including mitochondria so respires
(1) Proteins (2) Polysaccharides anaerobically.
(3) Lipids (4) Nucleic acids 51. An important characteristic that Hemichordates
share with Chordates is
Answer (3)
(1) Ventral tubular nerve cord
Sol. – Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides
(2) Pharynx with gill slits
– Proteins are polymers of amino acids (3) Pharynx without gill slits
– Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides (4) Absence of notochord
– Lipids are the esters of fatty acids and alcohol Answer (2)
48. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play Sol. Pharyngeal gill slits are present in hemichordates as
school and passes through a dental check-up. The well as in chordates. Notochord is present in
dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. chordates only. Ventral tubular nerve cord is
Which teeth were absent? characteristic feature of non-chordates.

(1) Canines (2) Pre-molars 52. Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time
(1) Laws of limiting factor
(3) Molars (4) Incisors
(2) Species area relationships
Answer (2)
(3) Population Growth equation
Sol. Total number of teeth in human child = 20.
(4) Ecological Biodiversity
Premolars are absent in primary dentition.
Answer (2)
49. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) The descending limb of loop of Henle is Sol. Alexander Von Humboldt observed that within a
region species richness increases with the increases
impermeable to water
in area.
(2) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable
53. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood.
to water
(1) It is highly durable
(3) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
(2) It conducts water and minerals efficiently
permeable to electrolytes
(3) It comprises dead elements with highly lignified
(4) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is walls
impermeable to water (4) Organic compounds are deposited in it
Answer (4) Answer (2)
Sol. Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to Sol. Heartwood is physiologically inactive due to
water but impermeable to electrolytes while deposition of organic compounds and tyloses
ascending limb is impermeable to water but formation, so this will not conduct water and
permeable to electrolytes. minerals.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

54. Which one of the following statements is correct, Sol. The association of H1 protein indicates the complete
with reference to enzymes? formation of nucleosome.
(1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme Therefore the DNA is in condensed form.
(2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme 59. DNA fragments are
(3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor (1) Negatively charged
(4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme (2) Neutral
Answer (1) (3) Either positively or negatively charged depending
on their size
Sol. Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme in which protein
part is apoenzyme while non-protein is cofactor. (4) Positively charged
55. Root hairs develop from the region of Answer (1)
(1) Elongation (2) Root cap Sol. DNA fragments are negatively charged because of
(3) Meristematic activity (4) Maturation phosphate group.

Answer (4) 60. The process of separation and purification of

expressed protein before marketing is called
Sol. In roots, the root hairs arise from zone of maturation.
This zone is differentiated zone thus bearing root (1) Downstream processing
hairs. (2) Bioprocessing
56. Among the following characters, which one was not (3) Postproduction processing
considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?
(4) Upstream processing
(1) Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular
Answer (1)
(2) Seed – Green or Yellow
Sol. Biosynthetic stage for synthesis of product in
(3) Pod – Inflated or Constricted recombinant DNA technology is called upstreaming
(4) Stem – Tall or Dwarf process while after completion of biosynthetic stage,
the product has to be subjected through a series of
Answer (1)
processes which include separation and purification
Sol. During his experiments Mendel studied seven are collectively referred to as downstreaming
characters. processing.
Nature of trichomes i.e., glandular or non-glandular 61. An example of colonial alga is
was not considered by Mendel.
(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix
57. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal
(3) Spirogyra (4) Chlorella
aperture?
(1) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells Answer (1)
(2) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the Sol. Volvox is motile colonial fresh water alga with definite
cell wall of guard cells number of vegetative cells.
(3) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in 62. Capacitation occurs in
the cell wall of guard cells (1) Epididymis
(4) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
(2) Vas deferens
Answer (2)
(3) Female Reproductive tract
Sol. Cellulose microfibrils are oriented radially rather than
longitudinally which makes easy for the stoma to (4) Rete testis
open. Answer (3)
58. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome Sol. Capacitation is increase in fertilising capacity of
indicates sperms which occurs in female reproductive tract.
(1) DNA replication is occurring 63. Select the mismatch :
(2) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre (1) Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza
(3) The DNA double helix is exposed (2) Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer
(4) Transcription is occurring (3) Rhizobium – Alfalfa
Answer (2) (4) Frankia – Alnus
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

Answer (1) 68. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are
true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents
Sol. Rhodospirillum is anaerobic, free living nitrogen fixer.
values of X and Y and provides their explanation :
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between fungi
(1) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached
and roots of higher plants. dorsally to vertebral
64. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by column and sternum on
the two ends
(1) Mating of unrelated individuals of same breed
(2) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally
(2) Mating of individuals of different breed
attached to vertebral
(3) Mating of individuals of different species column but are free on
(4) Mating of related individuals of same breed ventral side

Answer (4) (3) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally

attached to vertebral
Sol. Inbreeding results in increase in the homozygosity.
column but are free on
Therefore, mating of the related individuals of same ventral side
breed will increase homozygosity.
(4) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached
65. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel dorsally to vertebral
can be visualised after staining with column and ventrally to the
(1) Acetocarmine sternum

(2) Aniline blue Answer (4)

(3) Ethidium bromide Sol. In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present in which
7 pairs of ribs (1st to 7th pairs) are attached dorsally
(4) Bromophenol blue
to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.
Answer (3)
69. DNA replication in bacteria occurs
Sol. Ethidium bromide is used to stain the DNA
(1) Within nucleolus
fragments and will appear as orange coloured bands
(2) Prior to fission
under UV light.
(3) Just before transcription
66. Double fertilization is exhibited by
(4) During S-phase
(1) Algae
Answer (2)
(2) Fungi
Sol. DNA replication in bacteria occurs prior to fission.
(3) Angiosperms Prokaryotes do not show well marked S-phase due
(4) Gymnosperms to their primitive nature.
Answer (3) 70. Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete
antibacterial lysozyme?
Sol. Double fertilization is a characteristic feature
exhibited by angiosperms. It involves syngamy and (1) Paneth cells (2) Zymogen cells
triple fusion. (3) Kupffer cells (4) Argentaffin cells
67. The water potential of pure water is Answer (1)
(1) Less than zero Sol. – Kupffer-cells are phagocytic cells of liver.
(2) More than zero but less than one – Zymogen cells are enzyme producing cells.
(3) More than one – Paneth cell secretes lysozyme which acts as
(4) Zero anti-bacterial agent.

Answer (4) – Argentaffin cells are hormone producing cells.

Sol. By convention, the water potential of pure water at 71. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from
standard temperature, which is not under any (1) Stomach (2) Kidneys
pressure, is taken to be zero.
(3) Intestine (4) Heart
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

Answer (3) 76. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible

Sol. In hepatic portal system, hepatic portal vein carries for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form
ATP?
maximum amount of nutrients from intestine to liver.
(1) Ribosome (2) Chloroplast
72. In case of a couple where the male is having a very
low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for (3) Mitochondrion (4) Lysosome
fertilisation? Answer (3)
(1) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer Sol. Mitochondria are the site of aerobic oxidation of
(2) Artificial Insemination carbohydrates to generate ATP.

(3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection 77. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of

(4) Intrauterine transfer (1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Synovial joint

Answer (2) (3) Saddle joint (4) Fibrous joint

Sol. Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to Answer (2)
inseminate the female or due to very low sperm Sol. Synovial joints are freely movable joint which allow
count in the ejaculates, could be corrected by considerable movements. Pivot joint is a type of
artificial insemination (AI). synovial joint which provide rotational movement as
in between atlas and axis vertebrae of vertebral
73. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement
column.
on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?
78. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
(1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it
reproduction, acts on
moves
(1) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
(2) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
of LH and FSH
(3) Negatively charged fragments do not move
(2) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
(4) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves of oxytocin and FSH
Answer (1) (3) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
Sol. During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate of LH and relaxin
(resolve) according to their size through sieving effect (4) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
provided by agarose gel. of LH and oxytocin
74. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's Answer (1)
is Sol. Hypothalamus secretes GnRH which stimulates
(1) They inhibit gametogenesis anterior pituitary gland for the secretion of
gonadotropins (FSH and LH).
(2) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
79. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'?
(3) They inhibit ovulation
(4) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising (1) Perissodactyla (2) Caballus
capacity of sperms (3) Ferus (4) Equidae
Answer (4) Answer (1)
Sol. Cu 2+ interfere in the sperm movement, hence Sol. Horse belongs to order perissodactyla of class
suppress the sperm motility and fertilising capacity mammalia. Perissodactyla includes odd-toed
of sperms. mammals.
75. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of 80. Phosphonol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2
acceptor in
(1) Fungi (2) Animals
(3) Bacteria (4) Plants (1) C4 plants (2) C2 plants

Answer (3) (3) C3 and C4 plants (4) C3 plants

Sol. Spliceosomes are used in removal of introns during Answer (1)

post-transcriptional processing of hnRNA in Sol. PEP is 3C compound which serves as primary CO2
eukaryotes only as split genes are absent as acceptor in the mesophyll cell cytoplasm of C4
prokaryotes. plants like maize, sugarcane, Sorghum etc.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

81. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass? (3) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative
(1) Grassland ecosystem problem of globin molecules

(2) Pond ecosystem (4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
chain synthesis
(3) Lake ecosystem
Answer (2)
(4) Forest ecosystem
Sol. Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that
Answer (4)
the former is a quantitative problem of synthesising
Sol. High productive ecosystem are too few globin molecules while the latter is a
– Tropical rain forest qualitative problem of synthesising an incorrectly
functioning globin.
– Coral reef
86. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are
– Estuaries
packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by
– Sugarcane fields
(1) Bee (2) Wind
82. A disease caused by an autosomal primary
(3) Bat (4) Water
non-disjunction is
Answer (2)
(1) Klinefelter's syndrome
Sol. Wind pollination or anemophily is favoured by flowers
(2) Turner's syndrome
having a single ovule in each ovary, and numerous
(3) Sickle cell anemia flowers packed in an inflorescence. Wind pollination
(4) Down's syndrome is a non-directional pollination.
Answer (4) 87. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on
Sol. Down’s syndrome is caused by non-disjunction of (1) Pre-synaptic membrane
21st chromosome. (2) Tips of axons
83. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to (3) Post-synaptic membrane
(1) Primary phloem (2) Secondary xylem (4) Membranes of synaptic vesicles
(3) Periderm (4) Phelloderm Answer (3)
Answer (2) Sol. Pre-synaptic membrane is involved in the release of
Sol. During secondary growth, vascular cambium gives neurotransmitter in the chemical synapse. The
rise to secondary xylem and secondary phloem. receptors sites for neurotransmitters are present on
Phelloderm is formed by cork cambium. post-synaptic membrane.
84. Which of the following is correctly matched for the 88. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used
product produced by them? to enlongate
(1) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid (1) The lagging strand towards replication fork
(2) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid (2) The leading strand away from replication fork
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol (3) The lagging strand away from the replication fork
(4) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics (4) The leading strand towards replication fork
Answer (3) Answer (3)
Sol. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly called Sol. Two DNA polymerase molecules work simultaneous
Brewer’s yeast. It causes fermentation of at the DNA fork, one on the leading strand and the
carbohydrates producing ethanol. other on the lagging strand.
85. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due Each Okazaki fragment is synthesized by DNA
to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select polymerase at lagging strand in 5  3 direction.
the correct statement. New Okazaki fragments appear as the replication
(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin fork opens further.
chain synthesis As the first Okazaki fragment appears away from
(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin the replication fork, the direction of elongation would
molecules be away from replication fork.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

89. Which of the following options best represents the 92. Viroids differ from viruses in having
enzyme composition of pancreatic juice? (1) DNA molecules without protein coat
(1) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase (2) RNA molecules with protein coat
(2) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin (3) RNA molecules without protein coat
(3) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxy- (4) DNA molecules with protein coat
peptidase Answer (3)
(4) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin Sol. Viroids are sub-viral agents as infectious RNA
Answer (3) particles, without protein coat.
Sol. Rennin and Pepsin enzymes are present in the 93. Mycorrhizae are the example of
gastric juice. Maltase is present in the intestinal (1) Amensalism
juice.
(2) Antibiosis
90. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein
(3) Mutualism
degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis
of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, (4) Fungistasis
which of the following is expected to occur? Answer (3)
(1) Chromosomes will be fragmented Sol. Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association of fungi with
roots of higher plants.
(2) Chromosomes will not segregate
94. The morphological nature of the edible part of
(3) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur coconut is
(4) Chromosomes will not condense (1) Cotyledon
Answer (2) (2) Endosperm
Sol. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein (3) Pericarp
necessary for separation of daughter chromosomes (4) Perisperm
during anaphase. If APC is defective then the Answer (2)
chromosomes will fail to segregate during anaphase. Sol. Coconut has double endosperm with liquid
91. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi. endosperm and cellular endosperm.
Among the blood types of their children, how many 95. Myelin sheath is produced by
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible? (1) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells
(1) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes (2) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
(2) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes (3) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
(3) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes (4) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes
(4) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes Answer (4)
Answer (2) Sol. Oligodendrocytes are neuroglial cells which produce
myelin sheath in central nervous system while
Sol. Husband  Wife Schwann cell produces myelin sheath in peripheral
AB A
I I I i
nervous system.
+ IA IB 96. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases
I A A A
II A B
II (Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II)
A and select the correct option.
i Ii IBi
Column - I Column- II
Number of genotypes = 4
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
Number of phenotypes = 3
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
IAIA and IAi = A
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
IAIB = AB
(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma
IBi = B virus
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

Options : Answer (4)

(a) (b) (c) (d) Sol. Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh conditions
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) because of branched lipid chain in cell membrane
which reduces fluidity of cell membrane.
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Halophiles are exclusively found in saline habitats.
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
101. Which among the following are the smallest living
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic
Answer (4) to plants as well as animals and can survive without
Sol. Gonorrhoea – Neisseria (Bacteria) oxygen?

Syphilis – Treponema (Bacteria) (1) Pseudomonas (2) Mycoplasma

(3) Nostoc (4) Bacillus
Genital Warts – Human papilloma virus (Virus)
Answer (2)
AIDS – HIV (Virus)
Sol. Mycoplasmas are smallest, wall-less prokaryotes,
97. Which among these is the correct combination of
pleomorphic in nature. These are pathogenic on both
aquatic mammals?
plants and animals.
(1) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
102. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
(2) Whales, Dolphins Seals photosynthesis, which of the following statements is
(3) Trygon, Whales, Seals not correct?
(4) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks (1) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto
0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
Answer (2)
(2) C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with
Sol. Sharks and Trygon (sting ray) are the members of
enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have
chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fish) while whale,
much lower temperature optimum
Dolphin and Seals are aquatic mammals belong to
class mammalia. (3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be
grown in CO2 - enriched atmosphere for higher
98. Coconut fruit is a
yield
(1) Berry (2) Nut (4) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10%
(3) Capsule (4) Drupe of full sunlight
Answer (4) Answer (2)
Sol. Coconut fruit is a drupe. A drupe develops from Sol. In C3 plants photosynthesis is decreased at higher
monocarpellary superior ovary and are one seeded. temperature due to increased photorespiration.
99. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both: C4 plants have higher temperature optimum because
of the presence of pyruvate phosphate dikinase
(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy
enzyme, which is sensitive to low temperature.
(2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
103. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are
(3) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
(1) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
(4) Autogamy and xenogamy
(2) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
Answer (1)
(3) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
Sol. When unisexual male and female flowers are present
(4) Haplontic, Diplontic
on different plants the condition is called dioecious
and it prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy. Answer (2)
100. Which of the following are found in extreme saline Sol. Ectocarpus has haplodiplontic life cycle and Fucus
conditions? has diplontic life cycle.

(1) Eubacteria 104. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally

protected and where no human activity is allowed is
(2) Cyanobacteria known as
(3) Mycobacteria
(1) Buffer zone (2) Transition zone
(4) Archaebacteria
(3) Restoration zone (4) Core zone
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

Answer (4) 109. Which one of the following statements is not valid for
Sol. Biosphere reserve is protected area with aerosols?
multipurpose activities. (1) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
It has three zones (2) They cause increased agricultural productivity
(a) Core zone – without any human interference (3) They have negative impact on agricultural land
(b) Buffer zone – with limited human activity (4) They are harmful to human health
(c) Transition zone – human settlement, grazing Answer (2)
cultivation etc., are allowed.
Sol. Aerosols can cause various problems to agriculture
105. A gene whose expression helps to identify
through its direct or indirect effects on plants.
transformed cell is known as
However continually increasing air pollution may
(1) Vector (2) Plasmid represent a persistent and largely irreversible threat
(3) Structural gene (4) Selectable marker to agriculture in the future.
Answer (4) 110. Which of the following options gives the correct
Sol. In recombinant DNA technology, selectable markers sequence of events during mitosis?
helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants (1) Condensation  nuclear membrane disassembly
and selectively permitting the growth of the  arrangement at equator  centromere
transformants. division  segregation  telophase
106. Which of the following components provides sticky (2) Condensation  crossing over  nuclear
character to the bacterial cell? membrane disassembly  segregation 
(1) Nuclear membrane (2) Plasma membrane telophase
(3) Glycocalyx (4) Cell wall (3) Condensation  arrangement at equator 
centromere division  segregation 
Answer (3)
telophase
Sol. Sticky character of the bacterial wall is due to
(4) Condensation  nuclear membrane disassembly
glycocalyx or slime layer. This layer is rich in
 crossing over  segregation  telophase
glycoproteins.
Answer (1)
107. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came
from the experiments of Sol. The correct sequence of events during mitosis would
be as follows
(1) Hershey and Chase
(i) Condensation of DNA so that chromosomes
(2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty become visible occurs during early to
(3) Hargobind Khorana mid-prophase.
(4) Griffith (ii) Nuclear membrane disassembly begins at late
Answer (1) prophase or transition to metaphase.
(iii) Arrangement of chromosomes at equator occurs
Sol. Hershey and Chase gave unequivocal proof which
during metaphase, called congression.
ended the debate between protein and DNA as
genetic material. (iv) Centromere division or splitting occurs during
anaphase forming daughter chromosomes.
108. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented
by the application of (v) Segregation also occurs during anaphase as
daughter chromosomes separate and move to
(1) Ethylene (2) Auxins
opposite poles.
(3) Gibberellic acid (4) Cytokinins
(vi) Telophase leads to formation of two daughter
Answer (2) nuclei.
Sol. Auxins prevent premature leaf and fruit fall. 111. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of
NAA prevents fruit drop in tomato; 2,4-D prevents fruit (1) Adventitious root (2) Stem
drop in Citrus. (3) Leaf (4) Stipules

17
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

Answer (2) 116. Attractants and rewards are required for

Sol. Thorns are hard, pointed straight structures for (1) Entomophily (2) Hydrophily
protection. These are modified stem.
(3) Cleistogamy (4) Anemophily
112. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a
protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at Answer (1)
position 901 is deleted such that the length of the Sol. Insect pollinated plants provide rewards as edible
RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be pollen grain and nectar as usual rewards. While
altered? some plants also provide safe place for deposition of
(1) 11 (2) 33 eggs.
(3) 333 (4) 1 117. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops
Answer (2) into
Sol. If deletion occurs at 901st position the remaining 98 (1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac
bases specifying for 33 codons of amino acids will
(3) Embryo (4) Ovule
be altered.
Answer (2)
113. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to
non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of Sol. Megaspore is the first cell of female gametophytic
immune-response is responsible for such rejections? generation in angiosperm. It undergoes three
(1) Cell-mediated immune response successive generations of free nuclear mitosis to
form 8-nucleated and 7-celled embryo sac.
(2) Hormonal immune response
118. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes
(3) Physiological immune response
suspended solids?
(4) Autoimmune response
(1) Secondary treatment (2) Primary treatment
Answer (1)
(3) Sludge treatment (4) Tertiary treatment
Sol. Non-acceptance or rejection of graft or transplanted
tissues/organs is due to cell mediated immune Answer (2)
response. Sol. Primary treatment is a physical process which
114. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms involves sequential filtration and sedimentation.
in male frogs :
119. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical
(1) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Seminal layers depending on their height can be seen best
Vesicle  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca in
(2) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Bidder's canal  (1) Tropical Rain Forest
Ureter  Cloaca
(2) Grassland
(3) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder's
canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca (3) Temperate Forest

(4) Testes  Bidder's canal  Kidney  Vasa (4) Tropical Savannah

efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca Answer (1)
Answer (3) Sol. The tropical rain forest have five vertical strata on the
Sol. In male frog the sperms will move from basis of height of plants. i.e., ground vegetation,
shrubs, short canopy trees, tall canopy trees and
Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder’s
canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca. tall emergent trees.

115. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is 120. Which of the following is made up of dead cells?

(1) Corpus cardiacum (2) Corpus luteum (1) Collenchyma (2) Phellem

(3) Corpus allatum (4) Pineal gland (3) Phloem (4) Xylem parenchyma
Answer (2) Answer (2)
Sol. Corpus luteum is the temporary endocrine structure Sol. Cork cambium undergoes periclinal division and cuts
formed in the ovary after ovulation. It is responsible off thick walled suberised dead cork cells towards
for the release of the hormones like progesterone, outside and it cuts off thin walled living cells i.e.,
oestrogen etc. phelloderm on inner side.

18
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

121. Zygotic meiosis is characterstic of 126. Which of the following RNAs should be most
(1) Fucus (2) Funaria abundant in animal cell?

(3) Chlamydomonas (4) Marchantia (1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA

Answer (3) (3) mi-RNA (4) r-RNA

Sol. Chlamydomonas has haplontic life cycle hence Answer (4)

showing zygotic meiosis or initial meiosis. Sol. rRNA is most abundant in animal cell. It constitutes
122. MALT constitutes about ___________ percent of the 80% of total RNA of the cell.
lymphoid tissue in human body 127. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle?

(1) 20% (2) 70% (1) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is
reduced to FADH2
(3) 10% (4) 50%
(2) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic
Answer (4)
acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
Sol. MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue and (3) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl
it constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield
in human body. citric acid
123. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli. They (4) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+
do not collapse even after forceful expiration, is reduced to NADH + H+
because of :
Answer (3)
(1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Sol. Krebs cycle starts with condensation of acetyl CoA
(2) Tidal Volume
(2C) with oxaloacetic acid (4C) to form citric acid
(3) Expiratory Reserve Volume (6C).
(4) Residual Volume
128. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does
Answer (4) not cause further increase in height, because
Sol. Volume of air present in lungs after forceful expiration (1) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence
as residual volume which prevents the collapsing of
alveoli even after forceful expiration. (2) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone
in adults
124. In case of poriferans the spongocoel is lined with
flagellated cells called : (3) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth

(1) Oscula (2) Choanocytes (4) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults

(3) Mesenchymal cells (4) Ostia Answer (1)

Answer (2) Sol. Epiphyseal plate is responsible for the growth of

bone which close after adolescence so
Sol. Choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not
in poriferans (sponges). Flagella in collar cells provide
cause further increase in height.
circulation to water in water canal system.
129. Plants which produce characterstic pneumatophores
125. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ
and show vivipary belong to
conservation of threatened animals and plants?
(1) Halophytes
(1) Biodiversity hot spots
(2) Psammophytes
(2) Amazon rainforest
(3) Hydrophytes
(3) Himalayan region
(4) Mesophytes
(4) Wildlife Safari parks
Answer (1)
Answer (4)
Sol. Halophytes growing in saline soils show
Sol. Ex-situ conservation is offsite strategy for
(i) Vivipary which is in-situ seed germination
conservation of animals and plants in zoological park
and botanical gardens respectively. (ii) Pneumatophores for gaseous exchange

19
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

130. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained (3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes
when the population to produce higher yielding cows
(1) K = N (4) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this
character in the population
(2) K > N
Answer (1)
(3) K < N
Sol. Artificial selection to obtain cow yielding higher milk
(4) The value of 'r' approaches zero
output will shift the peak to one direction, hence, will
Answer (1) be an example of Directional selection. In stabilizing
Sol. A population growing in a habitat with limited selection, the organisms with the mean value of the
trait are selected. In disruptive selection, both
resources shows logistic growth curve.
extremes get selected.
For logistic growth
133. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues
dN ⎛K – N⎞ to beat for some time
 rN ⎜ ⎟
dt ⎝ K ⎠ Select the best option from the following statements

K–N (a) Frog is a poikilotherm

If K = N then =0
K (b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation

dN (c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature

 the = 0,
dt (d) Heart is autoexcitable
the population reaches asymptote. Options

131. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene (1) Only (d) (2) (a) & (b)
rich food (3) (c) & (d) (4) Only (c)
Select the best option from the following statements Answer (3)
(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene Sol. Frog or the vertebrates have myogenic heart having
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the self contractile system or are autoexcitable; because
of this condition, it will keep on working outside the
membrane discs of the inner segment
body for some time.
(c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A
134. Select the mismatch :
(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual (1) Cycas – Dioecious
photopigments
(2) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(1) (a), (c) & (d) (3) Equisetum – Homosporous
(2) (a) & (c) (4) Pinus – Dioecious
(3) (b), (c) & (d) Answer (4)
(4) (a) & (b) Sol. Pinus is monoecious plant having both male and
female cones on same plant.
Answer (1)
135. Which one from those given below is the period for
Sol. Carotene is the source of retinal which is involved in
Mendel's hybridization experiments?
formation of rhodopsin of rod cells. Retinal, a derivative
of vitamin A, is the light-absorbing part of all visual (1) 1840 - 1850
photopigments. (2) 1857 - 1869
132. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk (3) 1870 - 1877
output represents (4) 1856 - 1863
(1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the Answer (4)
character in one direction Sol. Mendel conducted hybridization experiments on Pea
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population into two one plant for 7 years between 1856 to 1863 and his data
yielding higher output and the other lower output was published in 1865 (according to NCERT).

20
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

136. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space Power gain = AV 
after having lost contact with their spaceship. The
= 150 (100)
two will
= 15000
(1) Move towards each other
139 An arrangement of three parallel straight wires
(2) Move away from each other
placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same
(3) Will become stationary current ‘I’ along the same direction is shown in Fig.
(4) Keep floating at the same distance between Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire
them ‘B’ is given by
Answer (1) B d C
Sol. Both the astronauts are in the condition of
weightness. Gravitational force between them pulls 90°
towards each other. d
137. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in
air and then in a medium other than air. It is found A
that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th
20I 2 20I 2
dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the (1) (2)
d d
medium is nearly
(1) 1.59 (2) 1.69 0I 2 0I 2
(3) (4)
(3) 1.78 (4) 1.25 2d 2d
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. Force between BC and AB will be same in
D magnitude.
Sol. X1 = X5th dark = (2 × 5 – 1)
2d
d C
B
D F
X2 = X8th bright = 8 90°
d
d F
X1 = X2
A
9 D D
8  0I 2
2 d d FBC  FBA 
2d
16 F  2FBC
  1.78
9
0 I 2
138. In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio  2
signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The 2 d
resistance of collector is 3 k. If current gain is 100  0I 2
and the base resistance is 2 k, the voltage and F
2 d
power gain of the amplifier is
140. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal
(1) 15 and 200 (2) 150 and 15000 equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T
(3) 20 and 2000 (4) 200 and 1000 (Kelvin) and mass m, is
Answer (2) h 2h
(1) (2)
Sol. Current gain () = 100 3mkT 3mkT

Rc 2h h
Voltage gain (AV) =  (3) (4)
Rb mkT mkT
Answer (1)
⎛ 3⎞ Sol. de-Broglie wavelength
= 100 ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠
2
h
= 150 
mv
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

h Answer (2)
=
2m(KE)
R2 l 22
h Sol. R  2
 1 l1
3
2m( kT )
2 n 2l12

h l12

3mkT R2
 n2
141 Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8' and R1
material 'B' has decay constant ''. Initially they have
R2 = n2R1
same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of
144. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach
1
number of nuclei of material 'B' to that 'A' will be ? each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s
e
respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn
1 1 having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by
(1) (2) the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound
7 8
340 m/s]
1 1
(3) (4) (1) 361 Hz (2) 411 Hz
9 
Answer (1) (3) 448 Hz (4) 350 Hz
Sol. No option is correct Answer (3)
NA 1 ⎡v  vo ⎤
If we take  Sol. fA  f ⎢
NB e ⎥
⎣ v  vs ⎦
Then
⎡ 340  16.5 ⎤
 400 ⎢
N A e 8 t ⎣ 340  22 ⎦
⎥
 t
NB e
fA = 448 Hz
1
 e 7 t 145. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean
e square value of the electric field is Erms = 6 V/m. The
–1 = –7t peak value of the magnetic field is
1 (1) 2.83 × 10–8 T (2) 0.70 × 10–8 T
t=
7 (3) 4.23 × 10–8 T (4) 1.41 × 10–8 T
142. The given electrical network is equivalent to
Answer (1)
A Y
Erms
B Sol. c
Brms
(1) OR gate (2) NOR gate Erms
Brms 
(3) NOT gate (4) AND gate c

Answer (2) 6

3  108
Sol. Y  A  B
Brms = 2 × 10–8
143. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted
and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new B0
Brms =
resistance will be 2
R B 0  2  Brms
(1) (2) n2R
n
= 2  2  10 –8
R
(3) (4) nR
n2 = 2.83 × 10–8 T
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

146. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded When it is rotated by angle 180º then
together as shown in figure. Their thermal
W = 2MB
conductivities are K 1 and K 2 . The thermal
conductivity of the composite rod will be W = 2 (NIA)B
A K1 = 2 × 250 × 85 × 10–6[1.25 × 2.1 × 10–4] × 85
T1 T2
B K2
× 10–2
d
= 9.1 J
3  K1  K 2 
(1) (2) K1 + K2 149. If 1 and 2 be the apparent angles of dip observed
2
in two vertical planes at right angles to each other,
K1  K 2 then the true angle of dip  is given by
(3) 2(K1 + K2) (4)
2 (1) tan2 = tan21 + tan22
Answer (4) (2) cot2 = cot21 – cot22
Sol. Thermal current
(3) tan2 = tan21 – tan22
H = H1 + H2
(4) cot2 = cot21 + cot22
K1A(T1  T2 ) K 2 A(T1  T2 )
=  Answer (4)
d d
K EQ 2 A(T1  T2 ) A(T1  T2 ) Sol. cot2 = cot21 + cot22
 K1  K2 
d d 150. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device
to make electrical measurements of E.M.F, because
⎡ K  K2 ⎤
K EQ  ⎢ 1 ⎥ the method involves :
⎣ 2 ⎦
(1) Potential gradients
147. Which one of the following represents forward bias
diode? (2) A condition of no current flow through the
galvanometer
–4 V R –3 V
(1) (3) A combination of cells, galvanometer and
resistances
–2 V R +2 V (4) Cells
(2)
Answer (2)
3V R 5V Sol. Reading of potentiometer is accurate because during
(3)
taking reading it does not draw any current from the
0V R –2 V circuit.
(4)
151. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical
Answer (4) microscope for two wavelengths 1 = 4000 Å and
Sol. In forward bias, p-type semiconductor is at higher 2 = 6000 Å is
potential w.r.t. n-type semiconductor. (1) 9 : 4 (2) 3 : 2
148. A 250-Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and (3) 16 : 81 (4) 8 : 27
width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 A and Answer (2)
subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. 1
Sol. Resolving power 
Work done for rotating the coil by 180° against the 
torque is R1  2

R2 1
(1) 4.55 J (2) 2.3 J
6000 Å
(3) 1.15 J (4) 9.1 J 
4000 Å
Answer (4)
3
Sol. W = MB (cos1 – cos2) 
2
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

152. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of V

glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined Vc 
2
with another thin prism of glass of refractive index
1.7. This combination produces dispersion without Initial energy
deviation. The refracting angle of second prism 1
should be Ui  CV 2
2
(1) 6°
Final energy
(2) 8°
2 2
(3) 10° 1 ⎛V ⎞ 1 ⎛V ⎞
Uf  C  C⎜ ⎟
(4) 4° 2 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ 2 ⎝2⎠
Answer (1)
CV 2

Sol. (  1)A  (  1)A  0 4
Loss of energy = Ui – Uf
(  1)A  (  1)A

(1.42  1)  10  (1.7  1)A CV 2


4
4.2 = 0.7A'
i.e. decreases by a factor (2)
A' = 6°
154. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the
153. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is
escalator was not working. She walked up the
removed and another identical uncharged capacitor
stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she
is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic
remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the
energy of resulting system
escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by
(1) Decreases by a factor of 2 her to walk up on the moving escalator will be

(2) Remains the same t1t2 t1t2

(1) t – t (2) t  t
2 1 2 1
(3) Increases by a factor of 2
t1  t2
(4) Increases by a factor of 4 (3) t1 – t2 (4)
2
Answer (1) Answer (2)

Sol. C d
Sol. Velocity of girl w.r.t. elevator   v ge
t1

d
Velocity of elevator w.r.t. ground v eG  then
V t2
velocity of girl w.r.t. ground
Charge on capacitor
  
v gG  v ge  v eG
q = CV

when it is connected with another uncharged i.e, v gG  v ge  v eG

capacitor.
C q d d d
 
t t1 t 2

1 1 1
 
t t1 t2
C
t1t2
t
q  q2 q0 (t1  t2 )
Vc  1 
C1  C2 C  C
24
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

155. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the 157. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one
following diagram. end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz.
What is the fundamental frequency of the system?

P (1) 20 Hz (2) 30 Hz

IV (3) 40 Hz (4) 10 Hz
i f
I III Answer (1)
f
Sol. Two successive frequencies of closed pipe
f II
700 K nv
f 500 K  220 ...(i)
300 K 4l
V
 n  2 v  260
Match the following ...(ii)
4l
Column-1 Column-2 Dividing (ii) by (i), we get
P. Process I a. Adiabatic n  2 260 13
 
Q. Process II b. Isobaric n 220 11
R. Process III c. Isochoric 11n + 22 = 13n
S. Process IV d. Isothermal n = 11
(1) P  c, Q  a, R  d, S  b v
So, 11  220
(2) P  c, Q  d, R  b, S  a 4l

(3) P  d, Q  b, R  a, S  c v
 20
4l
(4) P  a, Q  c, R  d, S  b
So fundamental frequency is 20 Hz.
Answer (1)
158. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is
Sol. Process I = Isochoric
3250 × 10–10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected
II = Adiabatic from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength
III = Isothermal 2536 × 10–10 m is
IV = Isobaric (Given h = 4.14 × 10–15 eVs and c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
156. One end of string of length l is connected to a (1)  0.6 × 106 ms–1
particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected (2)  61 × 103 ms–1
to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the
(3)  0.3 × 106 ms–1
particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force
on the particle (directed towards center) will be (4)  6 × 105 ms–1
(T represents the tension in the string) Answer (1 & 4)* Both answers are correct.
Sol. 0 = 3250 × 10–10 m
m v2
(1) T   = 2536 × 10–10 m
l
1242 eV-nm
=  3.82 eV
m v2 325 nm
(2) T 
l
1242 eV-nm
h =  4.89 eV
(3) Zero 253.6 nm
(4) T KEmax = (4.89 – 3.82) eV = 1.077 eV
Answer (4) 1
mv 2  1.077  1.6  10 19
2
⎛ mv 2 ⎞
Sol. Centripetal force ⎜⎜ l ⎟⎟ is provided by tension so 2  1.077  1.6  10 19
⎝ ⎠ v=
9.1  10 31
the net force will be equal to tension i.e., T.
v = 0.6 × 106 m/s
25
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

159. Figure shows a circuit contains three identical 450 1

resistors with resistance R = 9.0  each, two 
r2 4
identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each,
and an ideal battery with emf  = 18 V. The current r2 = 1800 watt
'i' through the battery just after the switch closed is 161. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass
3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular
R R acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with
L
+
– a force of 30 N?
R L C (1) 0.25 rad/s2 (2) 25 rad/s2
(1) 0.2 A (2) 2 A (3) 5 m/s2 (4) 25 m/s2
(3) 0 ampere (4) 2 mA Answer (2)
Answer (2*) 40
Sol. cm

R3
L1 R2
Sol  +
–
R1 L2 C F = 30 N
=I
At t = 0, no current flows through R1 and R3
F × R = MR2
i
30 × 0.4 = 3 × (0.4)2 
12 = 3 × 0.16 
+
  R2
– 400 = 16 
 = 25 rad/s2
162. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about
 their regular axis passing through centre and
i
R2 perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular
velocities 1 and 2. They are brought into contact
18 face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The
=
9 expression for loss of energy during this process is
=2A
1
Note : Not correctly framed but the best option out (1) I (1  2 )2
4
of given is (2).
(2) I(1 – 2)2
160. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm
radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were
I
halved and the temperature doubled, the power (3) (1  2 )2
radiated in watt would be 8

(1) 450 (2) 1000

1
(4) I (1  2 )2
(3) 1800 (4) 225 2
Answer (3) Answer (1)
Sol. Rate of power loss
1 I1I2
Sol. KE  (1   2 )2
r  R 2T 4 2 I1  I2
r1 R12T14 1 I2
  (   2 )2
r2 R22T24 2 (2I ) 1
1
= 4 1
16  I (1   2 )2
4

26
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

163. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O 2 and 166. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km
4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all above the earth is the same as at a depth d below
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the the surface of earth. Then
system is
3
(1) 15 RT (2) 9 RT (1) d = 1 km (2) d  km
2
(3) 11 RT (4) 4 RT 1
(3) d = 2 km (4) d  km
Answer (3) 2
Answer (3)
f f
Sol. U = n1 1 RT  n2 2 RT
2 2 Sol. Above earth surface Below earth surface

5 3 ⎛ 2h ⎞ ⎛ d ⎞
= 2 RT  4  RT g  = g ⎜⎝ 1 – R ⎟⎠ g  = g ⎜⎝ 1 – R ⎟⎠
2 2 e e

= 5 RT + 6 RT 2h d
U = 11 RT g  = g R …(1) g = g R …(2)
e e

164. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is From (1) & (2)
subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the fractional
d = 2h
decrease in radius is
d = 2 × 1 km
B 3p
(1) (2)
3p B 167. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m
respectively are connected by a massless and
p p inextensible string. The whole system is suspended
(3) (4)
3B B by a massless spring as shown in figure. The
Answer (3) magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately
p after the string is cut, are respectively
Sol. B 
⎛ V ⎞
⎜ V ⎟
⎝ ⎠
V p

V B
r p A 3m
3 
r B
r p B m

r 3B g
(1) ,g (2) g, g
165. Which of the following statements are correct? 3
(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with g g g
the centre of gravity of the body. (3) , (4) g,
3 3 3
(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which Answer (1)
the total gravitational torque on the body is zero
kx
(c) A couple on a body produce both translational
and rotational motion in a body.
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means Sol. 3m
that small effort can be used to lift a large load.
T
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d) 3mg
Before the string is cut
Answer (4)
kx = T + 3mg ...(1)
Sol. Centre of mass may or may not coincide with centre
of gravity. T = mg ...(2)

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA
T 169. A beam of light from a source L is incident normally
on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from
m the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on
a scale placed just above the source L. When the
mg mirror is rotated through a small angle , the spot of
the light is found to move through a distance y on
 kx = 4mg
the scale. The angle  is given by
After the string is cut, T = 0
y x
kx  3mg kx (1) (2)
a= x 2y
3m

x y
3m m (3) (4)
4mg  3mg y 2x
a=  a = g
3m
mg Answer (4)
3mg Sol. When mirror is rotated by  angle reflected ray will
g
a=  be rotated by 2.
3
168. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer
series and the last line of Lyman series is 2

(1) 1
x
(2) 4
(3) 0.5
(4) 2 y

Answer (2) y
 2
x
Sol. For last Balmer series

y
1 ⎡1 1 ⎤ 
 R⎢ 2  2⎥ 2x
b ⎣2  ⎦
170. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio
1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series and the new
4
b  force constant is k. Then they are connected in parallel
R
and force constant is k. Then k : k is
For last Lyman series (1) 1 : 9
(2) 1 : 11
1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
R⎢ 2  2⎥
l ⎣1  ⎦ (3) 1 : 14
(4) 1 : 6
1 Answer (2)
l 
R
1
Sol. Spring constant  length
4
b R
 1
l 1 k
l
R
i.e, k1 = 6k
k2 = 3k
b
4
l k3 = 2k
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

In series 9 × 109 (e2) = 6.67 × 10–11 × 1.67

1 1 1 1 × 10–27 × 1.67 × 10–27
  
k ' 6k 3k 2k
6.67  1.67  1.67
1 6 e 2   10 74
 9
k ' 6k
k' = k e  10 37

k'' = 6k + 3k + 2k 173. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that

k'' = 11k
e2
can be formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity
k' 1 40
 i.e k ' : k ''  1: 11
k '' 11 of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e
171. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials. is charge]
1 1
20 V 40 V 20 V 40 V 10 V 30 V 40 V ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2 1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2
20 V (1) c 2 ⎢G ⎥ (2) 2 ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 40 ⎦ c ⎣ G 40 ⎦
A B A B A B A B 1
1 e2 1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2
(3) G (4) 2 ⎢G ⎥
10 V c 40 c ⎣ 40 ⎦
30 V
10 V 30 V 10 V 30 V 20 V 40 V
(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer (4)

A positive charge is moved from A to B in each

e2
diagram. Sol. Let  A  ML3 T –2
40
(1) In all the four cases the work done is the same.
(2) Minimum work is required to move q in l = CxGy(A)z
figure (a). L = [LT–1]x [M–1L3T–2]y [ML3T–2]z
(3) Maximum work is required to move q in –y + z = 0  y = z ...(i)
figure (b).
x + 3y + 3z = 1 ...(ii)
(4) Maximum work is required to move q in
figure (c). –x – 4z = 0 ...(iii)

Answer (1) From (i), (ii) & (iii)

Sol. Work done w = qV 1
z=y= , x = –2
V is same in all the cases so work is done will be 2
same in all the cases.
174. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis
172. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ
perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I0 is
slightly. One of them is –e, the other is (e + e). If
incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between
the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force
P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45º
between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance
with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light
d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero,
through P2 is
then e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen
mh = 1.67 × 10–27 kg] I0
(1)
4
(1) 10–23 C (2) 10–37 C
I0
(3) 10–47 C (4) 10–20 C (2)
8
Answer (2)
I0
Sol. Fe = Fg (3)
16
1 e 2 Gm 2 I0
 2 (4)
40 d 2 d 2
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

Answer (2) 176. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is
partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with
P1 P3 P2 water, is poured into one side until it stands at a
I2 distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other
Sol. side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its
I0 I1 I3 original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is
Pa Pa
90°
F
A
45° 10 mm
E
Final water level
65 mm
I Oil D
I2  0 cos2 45 Initial water level
2
65 mm
I0 1
  B
2 2 C

I0
 Water
4
I0
I3  cos2 45 (1) 425 kg m–3 (2) 800 kg m–3
4
(3) 928 kg m–3 (4) 650 kg m–3
I0
I3  Answer (3)
8
Sol. hoil oil g = hwater water g
175. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion
with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at 140 × oil = 130 × water
2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its
13
velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its oil = × 1000 kg/m3
time period in seconds is 14
oil = 928 kg m–3
5 4
(1) (2)
2 5 177. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling
from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed
2 5 of 50 m/s. Take g constant with a value
(3) (4)
3  10 m/s2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force
Answer (2) and the (ii) resistive force of air is

(1) (i) 1.25 J (ii) –8.25 J

2 2
Sol. v   A – x (2) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J

a = x2 (3) (i) 10 J (ii) –8.75 J

v a (4) (i) – 10 J (ii) –8.25 J

 A2 – x 2  x 2 Answer (3)

⎛ 2 ⎞ Sol. wg + wa = Kf – Ki
(3)2 – (2)2  2 ⎜ ⎟
⎝T ⎠
1
mgh + wa = mv 2  0
4 2
5
T
1
10–3 × 10 × 103 + wa =  10 3  (50)2
4 2
T 
5 wa = –8.75 J i.e. work done due to air resistance and
work done due to gravity = 10 J

30
 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-B) APRA

178. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time

N ( )
are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where x Q 
R
and y are in meters and t in seconds. The
acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is
total
Q 
(1) 5 m/s2 R
(2) –4 m/s2
(NBA)

(3) –8 m/s2 R
(4) 0
0 ni r 2
Answer (2) 
R
Sol. x = 5t – 2t2 y = 10t Putting values

dx dy
= 5 – 4t = 10 4  107  100  4    (0.01)2
dt dt 
102
vx = 5 – 4t vy = 10
Q  32 C
dv dv
x–4 y  10 1
dt dt 180. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat
10
ax = – 4 ay = 0 engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on
Acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is = –4 m/s2 the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed
from the reservoir at lower temperature is
179. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns
per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 (1) 90 J
turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis (2) 99 J
coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the
(3) 100 J
solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A
in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 102 , the (4) 1 J
total charge flowing through the coil during this time
Answer (1)
is
(1) 16 C (2) 32 C 1 
Sol.  =

(3) 16C (4) 32C
Answer (2) 1 9
1
 10  10
d
Sol.   N 1 1
dt
10 10

 N d =9

R R dt
Q2
=
N W
dq  d
R Q2 = 9 × 10 = 90 J

  

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