08/01/2021

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 NEET BOOSTER TEST SERIES (NBTS) for NEET-2021 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 4

Topics covered :
Physics : Bkslksa ds ;kaf=d xq.k] rjyksa ds ;kaf=d xq.k] nzO; ds rkih; xq.k
Chemistry : fjMkWDl vfHkfØ;k] gkbMªkstu] s-CykWd rRo] p-CykWd rRo (oxZ-13 o14)
Botany : dsf”kdk pØ o dksf”kdk foHkktu] ikniksa esa ifjogu s
Zoology : “kjhj nzo rFkk ifjlapj.k] mRlthZ mRikn ,oa mudk fu’dklu
funsZ'k :
(i) mi;qDr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy isu dk ç;ksx djsAa
(ii) fpUg xgjs gksus pkfg, rFkk xksys dks iw.kZr% Hkjk tkuk pkfg,A
(iii) çR;sd çfof"V ds fy, dsoy ,d xksyk HkjsaA
(iv) xksys dks dsoy fn, x, LFkku esa gh HkjsaA
(v) mÙkj iqfLrdk ij jQ dk;Z fcYdqy ugha djuk pkfg, rFkk mÙkj iqfLrdk ij 'osr&nzo ;k vU; fdlh feVkus okys
inkFkZ dk ç;ksx u djsaA
(vi) çR;sd ç'u ds 4 vad gSaA çR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy çkIrkadksa esa ls ,d vad ?kVk fn;k tk,xkA

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft, :

1. A rod 2 cm in diameter breaks, if tension in it 1. ;fn 2 cm O;kl okyh ,d NM+ es ruko 1000 N ls
exceeds 1000 N. The maximum tension that may vf/kd gks tkrk gS] rc ;g VwV tkrh gSA 2 cm
be given to similar rod of radius 2 cm is f=T;k dh Lkeku NM+ dks iznku fd;k tkus okyk
(1) 1000 N vf/kdre ruko gS
(1) 1000 N
(2) 2000 N
(2) 2000 N
(3) 4000 N
(3) 4000 N
(4) 16000 N (4) 16000 N
2. The strength at elastic limit is known as 2. izR;kLFk lhek ij lkEkF;Z dks dgk tkrk gS
(1) Ultimate tensile strength (1) pje ruu lkeF;Z
(2) Yield strength (2) ijkHko lkeF;Z
(3) Elastic fatigue (3) izR;kLFk JkfUr
(4) Ultimate compressive strength (4) pje lEihM~; lkeF;Z

(1)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

3. The stress-strain graph for two materials X and Y 3. nks inkFkksZa X rFkk Y ds fy, izfrcy- foÑfr vkjs[k
are shown in the figure. The graphs are drawn at fp= esa n”kkZ;k x;k gSA vkjs[k leku iSekus ij cuk,
same scale. Choose the incorrect statement.
x, gSaA xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,

(1) Material X is ductile (1) inkFkZ X rU; gS

(2) Material Y is brittle (2) inkFkZ Y Hkax
a qj gS
(3) Material X has greater Young’s modulus (3) inkFkZ X dk ;ax izR;kLFkrk xq.kkad vf/kd gS
(4) Material X has smaller Young’s modulus (4) inkFkZ X dk ;ax izR;kLFkrk xq.kkad de gS
4. Hooke’s law is applicable for 4. gqd dk fu;e ekU; gksrk gS
(1) Elastic materials (In linear region of stress- (1) izR;kLFk inkFkksZa (izfrcy&foÑfr oØ ds js[kh;
strain curve) {ks= es)a ds fy,
(2) Elastomers only (2) dsoy izR;kLFkydks ds fy,
(3) Plastic materials only (3) dsoy IykfLVd inkFkksZa ds fy,
(4) For both elastomers and plastic materials only (4) izR;kLFkydks rFkk IykfLVd nksuksa inkFkksZa ds fy,
5. The average depth of Indian Ocean is about 3000 5. fgUn egklkxj dh vkSlr xgjkbZ yxHkx 3000 m
m. If bulk modulus of water is 2.2 × 109 N/m2, then gSA ;fn ty dk vk;ru izR;kLFkrk xq.kkad 2.2 × 109
 V  N/m2 gS] rc egklkxj ds ry ij fHkUUkkRed
fractional compression   at the bottom of the
 V   V 
lEihM+u  V  gksxk (g = 10 m/s ) (ty
2 dk vkSlr
ocean will be (g = 10 m/s2) (Average density of  
water 1000 kg/m3 ) ?kuRo 1000 kg/m3 gS)
(1) 2.72% (2) 7.6% (1) 2.72% (2) 7.6%
(3) 1.36% (4) 4.2% (3) 1.36% (4) 4.2%
6. If  is the stress and strain is denoted by , then 6. ;fn  izfrcy gS rFkk foÑfr dks  }kjk iznf”kZr
the energy stored per unit volume will be fd;k tkrk gS] rc izfr bdkbZ vk;ru esa laxzfgr
1 2 1 2
ÅtkZ gksxh
(1)   (2)  1 2 1 2
2 2 (1)   (2) 
2 2
1
(3)   (4)  1
2 (3)   (4) 
2
7. A material has poisson’s ratio 0.50. If a uniform
rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 1 × 10–4, 7. ,d inkFkZ dk Ioklksa vuqikr 0.50 gSA ;fn bldh
then the percentage change in volume is cuh ,dleku NM+ 1 × 10–4 dh vuqnSè;Z foÑfr
(1) 0.3% (2) 0.00%
vuqHko djrh gS] rc vk;ru esa izfr”kr ifjorZu gS
(1) 0.3% (2) 0.00%
(3) 0.2% (4) 0.02%
(3) 0.2% (4) 0.02%
8. If a wire is stretched by 2%, then the energy
stored in the wire per unit volume is (Y = 2 × 109 8. ;fn ,d rkj dks 2% [khapk tkrk gS] rc rkj ds
N/m2) izfr bdkbZ vk;ru esa laxzfgr ÅtkZ gS (Y = 2 × 109
N/m2)
(1) 8 × 104 J/m3
(1) 8 × 104 J/m3
(2) 4 × 105 J/m3
(2) 4 × 105 J/m3
(3) 4 × 104 J/m3 (3) 4 × 104 J/m3
(4) 2 × 105 J/m3 (4) 2 × 105 J/m3

(2)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

9. A liquid X of density 4 g/cm3 is poured in a 9. 4 g/cm3 ?kuRo ds nzo X dks ikjs ls Hkjh ,d
U-tube which contains mercury. Another liquid Y U-ufydk esa Hkjk tkrk gSA vU; nzo Y dks 10 cm
is poured in right arm with height 10 cm. If the
upper levels of X and Y are same, then density of
Å¡pkbZ okyh nk;ha Hkqtk esa Hkjk tkrk gSA ;fn X rFkk
Y is (Density of mercury = 13.6 g/cm3) Y ds Åijh Lrj leku gSa] rc Y dk ?kuRo gS (ikjs
dk ?kuRo = 13.6 g/cm3)

(1) 2.08 g/cm3 (2) 4.16 g/cm3 (1) 2.08 g/cm3 (2) 4.16 g/cm3
(3) 1.04 g/cm 3 (4) 3.24 g/cm3 3
(3) 1.04 g/cm (4) 3.24 g/cm3
10. Two liquids of densities 1 and 2 (1 > 2), having 10. ?kuRoksa 1 rFkk 2 (1 > 2) ds nks nzOkksa ds i`’B ruko
same value of surface tension S, rises to the ds leku eku S gS, ;s nks ,dleku dsf”kdkvksa esa
same height in two identical capillaries. The angle
leku Å¡pkbZ rd Åij mBrs gSaA lEidZ dks.k 1
of contacts 1 and 2 obey
rFkk 2 ikyu djrs gSa
 
(1)  1  2  0 (2) 0  1  2   
2 2 (1)  1  2  0 (2) 0  1  2 
2 2
 
(3)  1  2   (4)   1  2   
2 2 (3)  1  2   (4)   1  2 
2 2
11. The wettability of a surface by a liquid primarily
depends on 11. fdlh nzo }kjk lrg dk xhyk gksuk izkFkfed :Ik ls
(1) Angle of contact between the surface and fuHkZj djrk gS
liquid pair (1) lrg rFkk nzo ;qXe ds eè; lEidZ dks.k ij
(2) Cohesive forces only (2) dsoy laltd cyksa ij
(3) Viscosity (3) “;kurk ij
(4) Density (4) ?kuRo ij
12. With increase in temperature, surface tension of
liquid generally
12. rki esa o`f) ds lkFk] nzo dk i`’B ruko lkekU;r%
(1) Increases (1) c<+rk gS
(2) Decreases (2) ?kVrk gS
(3) Remains same (3) leku jgrk gS
(4) First increases then decreases (4) igys c<+rk gS rRi”pkr~ ?kVrk gS
13. The energy stored in the surface of a soap bubble 13. 1 cm f=T;k ds lkcqu ds ,d cqycqys ds i`’B esa
of radius 1 cm is (S = 4.5 × 10–2 N m–1) laxzfgr ÅtkZ gS (S = 4.5 × 10–2 N m–1)
(1) 36 J (2) 36 J (1) 36 J (2) 36 J
(3) 36 mJ (4) 36 J (3) 36 mJ (4) 36 J
14. Which of the following graph represents 14. fuEu esa ls dkSulk vkjs[k dsf”kdk dh f=T;k (r) ds
the correct variation of capillary rise (h) with
radius of capillary(r)? Angle of contact is lkFk dsf”kdh; mUu;u (h) ds lgh ifjorZu dks
acute) iznf”kZr djrk gS\ ¼lEidZ dks.k] U;wu dks.k gS½

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

(3)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

15. Two immiscible liquids are filled in a tank as 15. nks vfeJ.kh; nzO;ksa dks fp=kuqlkj ,d VSad esa Hkjk
shown in the figure. The efflux velocity will be tkrk gSA cfg%L=ko osx gksxk

(1) 2gh (2) 3gh (1) 2gh (2) 3gh

3 3
(3) 2 gh (4) gh (3) 2 gh (4) gh
2 2
16. The variation of pressure, if an incompressible 16. ;fn ,d vlEihM~; nzo fp= esa n”kkZ, /kkjkjs[kh;
liquid is flowing in streamline manner shown in izdkj ls izokfgr gks jgk gS] rc nkc ds ifjorZu dks
figure, is given by fdlds }kjk fn;k tkrk gS\

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4)
(4)

17. A light cylindrical vessel is kept on a horizontal 17. ,d gYds csyukdkj ik= dks {kSfrt lrg ij j[kk
surface. Its base area is A. A hole of cross- tkrk gSA blds vk/kkj dk {ks=Qy A gSA
A
section
A
is made on the side wall just at its vuqizLFk&dkV ds ,d fNnz dks ik”oZ nhokj ij
50 50
bottom. Minimum coefficient of friction such that it
blds Bhd iSansa ij fufeZr fd;k tkrk gSA U;wure
does not slide due to thrust force of emerging ?k’kZ.k xq.kkad D;k gksxk rkfd ;g fuxZr nzo ds
liquid is mRIykou cy ds dkj.k ugha fQlys\
(1) 0.04 (1) 0.04
(2) 0.5 (2) 0.5
(3) 0.2 (3) 0.2
(4) 0.08 (4) 0.08

(4)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

18. A piece of ice is tied to bottom as shown in the 18. cQZ ds ,d VqdM+s dks fp=kuqlkj iSans ls ck¡/kk tkrk
figure. When ice melts, then water level gSA tc cQZ fi?kyrh gS] rc ty dk Lrj

(1) Increases (2) Decreases (1) c<+rk gS (2) ?kVrk gS

(3) Remains same (4) Data is insufficient (3) leku jgrk gS (4) vk¡dMs+ vi;kZIr gSa
19. A mercury drop of radius 1 cm is sprayed into 106 19. 1 cm f=T;k dh ikjs dh ,d cw¡n leku vkdkj dh
droplets of equal sizes. The increase in surface 106 cwn
a ksa esa foHkDr gks tkrh gSA bl izfØ;k esa i`’Bh;
energy in this process is (SHg = 0.32 N/m) ÅtkZ esa o`f) gS (SHg = 0.32 N/m)
(1) 64 mJ (2) 30.8 mJ (1) 64 mJ (2) 30.8 mJ
(3) 39.8 mJ (4) 87.6 mJ (3) 39.8 mJ (4) 87.6 mJ
20. If water is flowing in streamline manner with flow 20. ;fn ty 4 m/s ds izokg osx ls /kkjkjs[kh; izdkj ls
velocity 4 m/s, then velocity head is izokfgr gks jgk gS] rc osx “kh’kZ gS
(1) 0.8 m/s (2) 0.8 m (1) 0.8 m/s (2) 0.8 m
(3) 0.4 m/s (4) 0.4 m (3) 0.4 m/s (4) 0.4 m
21. Choose the incorrect statement among the 21. fuEu esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u dhft, ¼ladsrks ds
following (symbols have usual meaning) vius lkekU; vFkZ gS½
2T 2T
(1) Excess pressure for liquid drop is (1) nzo dh cw¡n ds fy, vkf/kD; nkc gS
r r
(2) Excess pressure for air bubble inside water is (2) ty ds vanj ok;q ds cqycqys ds fy, vkf/kD;
4T 4T
nkc gS
r r
4T 4T
(3) Excess pressure for soap bubble is (3) lkcqu ds cqycqys ds fy, vkf/kD; nkc gS
r r
(4) Excess pressure for air bubble inside water is (4) ty ds vanj ok;q ds cqycqys ds fy, vkf/kD;
2T 2T
nkc gS
r r
22. Two liquid drops coalesce to form a single drop.
22. nzo dh nks cw¡nsa lfEefyr gksdj ,dy cw¡n fufeZr
In this process, energy is djrh gSA bl izfØ;k esa] ÅtkZ
(1) Absorbed (1) vo”kksf’kr gksrh gS
(2) eqDr gksrh gS
(2) Evolved
(3) ;k rks vo”kksf’kr ;k eqDr gksrh gS
(3) Either absorbed or evolved
(4) u rks vo”kksf’kr u gh eqDr gksrh gS
(4) Neither absorbed nor evolved
23. ,d feJ/kkrq dks ?kuRo 1 rFkk 2 ds /kkrqvksa dks
23. An alloy is made by mixing the metals of density
1 and 2 . If masses of two metals used are m1
fefJr djds cuk;k tkrk gSA ;fn iz;qDr nksuksa
/kkrqvksa ds nzO;eku Øe”k% m1 rFkk m2 gSa] rc feJ/kkrq
and m2 respectively, then density of the alloy is
dk ?kuRo gS
m1 + m2 m1 + m2 m1 + m2
(1) (2) m1 + m2
1 + 2  m1 m2  (1) (2)
 +  1 + 2  m1 m2 
 + 
 1 2 
 1 2 
m1 + m2 (1 + 2 ) m1 + m2 (1 + 2 )
(3) (4) (3) (4)
 m1   m2  2  m1   m2  2
 +   + 
 2   1   2   1 

(5)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

24. An incompressible liquid is flowing through a 24. ,d vlEihM~; nzo fp= esa n”kkZ;h xbZ vkÑfr okys
horizontal pipe of a shape as shown in the figure. ,d {kSfrt ikbi ls izokfgr gks jgk gSA v dk eku gS
The value of v is

(1) 6 m/s (2) 4 m/s

(1) 6 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) 7 m/s (4) 18 m/s
(3) 7 m/s (4) 18 m/s 25. ,d xqVds dk ok;q esa Hkkj 10 N gS rFkk vkisf{kd
25. A block weighs 10 N in air, 9 N in a liquid of ?kuRo 0.5 ds nzo esa Hkkj 9 N gSA ty esa xqVds dk
specific gravity 0.5. The weight of block in water Hkkj gksxk
will be (1) 11 N (2) 7N
(1) 11 N (2) 7 N (3) 9 N (4) 8N
(3) 9 N (4) 8 N 26. ,d chdj esa mifLFkr nzo esa lery uopUnzd gSA
26. A liquid in a beaker has plane meniscus. If angle ;fn lEidZ dks.k  gS] rc
of contact is , then (1)  = 0° (2)  = 90°
(1)  = 0° (2)  = 90°
(3)  < 90° (4)  = 180°
(3)  < 90° (4)  = 180°
27. A spherical body is thrown downwards, in a
27. ,d xksyh; fi.M dks fdlh “;ku nzo eas VfeZuy
viscous liquid, with speed greater than the
pky vT ls vf/kd pky ls uhps dh vksj Qsd
a k tkrk
terminal speed vT, then speed of body (body > liq)
gS] rc fi.M dh pky (fi.M > nzo)
(1) Remains equal to vT (1) vT ds cjkcj jgrh gS
(2) Increases and becomes double (2) c<+rh gS rFkk nksxquh gks tkrh gS
(3) Decreases and becomes vT (3) ?kVrh gS rFkk vT gks tkrh gS
vT
(4) Decreases and becomes vT
2 (4) ?kVrh gS rFkk gks tkrh gS
28. Two rods A and B of different materials and same 2
cross-sectional area are welded together as 28. fHkUUk&fHkUu inkFkksZa rFkk leku vuqizLFk&dkV {ks=Qy
shown in the figure. If their thermal conductivities dh nks NM+ksa A rFkk B dks fp=kuqlkj ,d lkFk tksMk+
are K1 and K2, then thermal conductivity of tkrk gSA ;fn budh rkih; pkydrk,sa K1 rFkk K2 gSa]
composite rod is rc la;qDr NM+ dh rkih; pkydrk gS

K1 + K 2
K + K2 (1) (2) K1 + K2
(1) 1 (2) K1 + K2 2
2
K1 K 2 2K1 K 2
K1 K 2 2K1 K 2 (3) (4)
(3) (4) K1 + K 2 K1 + K 2
K1 + K 2 K1 + K 2
29. The SI unit of thermal conductivity is
29. rkih; pkydrk dk SI ek=d gS
(1) J m/K (2) J / (m K) (1) J m/K (2) J / (m K)
(3) W/(m K) (4) W/K (3) W/(m K) (4) W/K

(6)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

30. Four identical rods of same material have been 30. leku inkFkZ dh pkj ,dleku NM+ksa dks tksM+dj ,d
joined to make it a X shape structure. If their ends X vkÑfr dh lajpuk cuk;h tkrh gSA ;fn buds
are maintained at temperatures as shown in the fljs fp=kuqlkj rki ij O;fLFkr gSa] rc laf/k ij rki
figure, then temperature at junction will be gksxk

(1) 20°C (2) 50°C (1) 20°C (2) 50°C

(3) 70°C (4) 40°C (3) 70°C (4) 40°C
31. For Newton’s law of cooling, the graph plotted 31. U;wVu ds “khryu ds fu;e ds fy,] ln(T – T0) rFkk
between ln(T – T0) and time(t) is le; (t) ds eè; cuk;k x;k vkjs[k gS
(T0 is surrounding temperature) (T0 ifjos”k dk rki gS)

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

32. Which of the following graph shows the correct 32. fuEu esa ls dkSulk vkjs[k lsfYl;l (°C) rFkk
relation between Celsius (°C) and Fahrenheit (°F) QkjsugkbV (°F) iSekus ds eè; lgh lEca/k dks n”kkZrk
scale? gS\

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

33. A cup of tea is kept on a table. If it cools from 33. pk; dk ,d di est ij j[kk tkrk gSA ;fn ;g t1
80°C to 75°C in t1 minutes, from 75°C to 70°C in feuV esa 80°C ls 75°C rd B.Mh gksrh gS] rFkk t2
t2 minutes, then feuV esa 75°C ls 70°C rd B.Mh gksrh gS] rc
(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 < t2 (1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 < t2
(3) t1 > t2 (4) t1 = 2t2 (3) t1 > t2 (4) t1 = 2t2

(7)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

34. A black body has wavelength corresponding to 34. 1500 K ij ,d Ñf’.kdk dh vf/kdre rhozrk ds
maximum intensity is m at 1500 K. Its laxr rjaxnSè;Z m gSA 3000 K ij bldh laxr
corresponding wavelength at 3000 K will be rjaxnSè;Z gksxh
(1) m (2) 2 m (1) m (2) 2 m
m   m
(3) (4) m (3) m (4)
2 4 2 4
35. 1 g of steam at 100°C is mixed with 2 g of ice at 35. 100°C rki okyh 1 g Hkki dks 0°C
rki okyh 2 g
0°C. The final temperature of the mixture is cQZ ds lkFk fefJr fd;k tkrk gSA rc feJ.k dk
(1) 0°C (2) 100°C vfUre rki gS
(3) 50°C (4) 70°C (1) 0°C (2) 100°C
36. A black body is at 527°C. It emits energy at a rate (3) 50°C (4) 70°C
which is proportional to 36. ,d Ñf’.kdk 527°C ij gSA ;g fdlh nj ls ÅtkZ
(1) (527)4 (2) (800)2 mRlftZr djrh gS] tks fd lekuqikrh gS
(3) (527) 2 (4) (800)4 (1) (527)4 (2) (800)2
(3) (527)2 (4) (800)4
37. The mechanical equivalent of heat
(1) Is dimensionless
37. Å’ek dk ;kaf=d rqY;kad
(1) foekghu gksrk gS
(2) Has the same dimension as heat
(3) Has the same dimension as work (2) dh foek Å’ek dh foek ds leku gksrh gS
(4) Has the same dimension as power (3) dh foek dk;Z dh foek ds leku gksrh gS
38. A rod has moment of inertia I, about the (4) dh foek “kfDr dh foek ds leku gksrh gS
perpendicular bisector. If the temperature of the
rod is slightly increased by t, then I will increase 38. ,d NM+ dk yEc lef}Hkktd ds lkis{k tM+Ro
by vk?kw.kZ I gSA ;fn NM+ ds rki esa t dh FkksM+h o`f)
(1)  I t (2) 2I  t dh tkrh gS] rc I fdruk c<+ tk,xk\
(3) 3I  t (4) Zero (1)  I t (2) 2I  t
39. For tungsten lamp, emissivity e is about (3) 3I  t (4) “kwU;
(1) 0.1 (2) 1.0 39. VaxLVu ds ysEi ds fy,] mRltZdrk e dk eku
(3) 0.9 (4) 0.4 yxHkx gS
40. If the heat current is along the length of the rod of (1) 0.1 (2) 1.0
length 40 cm and cross-sectional area 1 cm2, then (3) 0.9 (4) 0.4
thermal resistance of the rod is (Thermal 40. ;fn Å’ek /kkjk] 40 cm yEckbZ rFkk
vuqizLFk&dkV
conductivity of material of rod is 200 W m–1 K–1) {ks=Qy 1 cm2 dh NM+ dh vksj gS] rc NM+ dk
(1) 10 K/W (2) 20 K/W rkih; izfrjks/k gS (NM+ ds inkFkZ dh rkih; pkydrk
(3) 30 K/W (4) 40 K/W 200 W m–1 K–1 gS)
41. Two rods of length 1 and 2 have coefficient of (1) 10 K/W (2) 20 K/W
(3) 30 K/W (4) 40 K/W
linear expansions 1 and 2 respectively. Initially
length of rods are measured at 0°C. If difference
41. yEckbZ 1 rFkk 2 dh nks NM+ksa ds js[kh; izlkj xq.kkad
of their lengths (2 – 1) is same at all
Øe”k% 1 rFkk 2 gSaA izkjEHk esa NM+ksa dh yEckbZ dk
ekiu 0°C ij fd;k tkrk gSA ;fn budh yEckbZ;ksa
temperature, then dk vUrj (2 – 1) lHkh rki ij leku gS] rc
(1) 1 1 = 22 (2) 1 2 = 2 1
(1) 1 1 = 22 (2) 1 2 = 2 1
(3) 12 1 = 22 2 (4) 1 22 = 2 12
(3) 12 1 = 22 2 (4) 1 2
2 = 2 2
1
42. A spherical black body with radius of 10 cm
42. 10 cm f=T;k okyh ,d xksyh; Ñf’.kdk 400 K ij
radiates 500 W power at 400 K. If temperature is
500 W “kfDr fofdfjr djrh gSA ;fn rki dks
doubled and radius is halved, then power radiated
nksxquk fd;k tkrk gS rFkk f=T;k dks vk/kk fd;k
(in watt) will be
tkrk gS] rc fofdfjr “kfDr ¼okV esa½ gksxh
(1) 500 (2) 250
(1) 500 (2) 250
(3) 2000 (4) 1000 (3) 2000 (4) 1000

(8)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

1 1 1
43. If transmittance of a surface is , reflectance is 43. ;fn fdlh i`’B dh ikjxE;rk gS] ijkorZdrk gS]
7 7 8
1
, then the absorptance of the surface will be
rc i`’B dh vo”kks’kdrk gksxh
8 1 15
(1) (2)
1 15 9 56
(1) (2)
9 56 9 41
(3) (4)
9 41 56 56
(3) (4)
56 56 44. ;fn  x ,  y rFkk z , x, y rFkk z fn”kkvksa ds vuqfn”k
44. If  x , y and z represents the mean coefficients
vij:Ik Bkslksa ds fy, ekè; js[kh; izlkj xq.kkadksa dks
of linear expansion along x, y and z directions for iznf”kZr djrs gSa] rc vk;ru izlkj xq.kkad  dks
anisotropic solids, then coefficient of volume fdlds }kjk fn;k tkrk gS\
expansion  is given as
(1) 3x (2)  x + 2y
(1) 3x (2)  x + 2y
(3) 3z (4)  x +  y + z
(3) 3z (4)  x +  y + z
45. fuEu xSlksa ij fopkj dhft,A
45. Consider the following gases.
(i) CH4 (ii) O2
(i) CH4 (ii) O2
(iii) CO2 (iv) CFx Clx
(iii) CO2 (iv) CFx Clx
(v) N2 (vi) N2O (v) N2 (vi) N2O
Which among the following are green house fuEu esa ls dkSulh xSls] gfjr x`g ¼xzhu gkml½ xSlsa
gases? gS\
(1) (i), (ii), (vi) (2) (ii), (v) (1) (i), (ii), (vi) (2) (ii), (v)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv), (vi) (4) (i), (iv), (v), (vi) (3) (i), (iii), (iv), (vi) (4) (i), (iv), (v), (vi)

CHEMISTRY
46. Oxidation state of carbon in C3O2 is 46. C3O2 esa dkcZu dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk gS
4 2 4 2
(1) (2)
(1) (2) 3 3
3 3
3 3
3 3 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 2 4
2 4
47. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh ,d fjMkWDl vfHkfØ;k ugha
47. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?
gS\
(1) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(1) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

(2) 2NaH(s) ⎯⎯→ 2Na(s) + H2(g) 
(2) 2NaH(s) ⎯⎯ → 2Na(s) + H2(g)
(3) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g) (3) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

(4) CaCO3(s) ⎯⎯→ CaO(s) + CO2(g) 
(4) CaCO3(s) ⎯⎯ → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
48. Which species is serving as oxidizing agent in the 48. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k esa dkSulh Lih'kht ,d
following reaction? vkWDlhdkjd ds :i esa dk;Z djrh gS\
2S2O32− (aq) + I2 (s) → S4O62− (aq) + 2I− (aq) 2S2O32− (aq) + I2 (s) → S4O62− (aq) + 2I− (aq)
(1) S2O32− (1) S2O32−
(2) I2 (2) I2
(3) I– (3) I–
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) rFkk (3) nksuksa

(9)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

49. Number of moles of Cr2O72− required to oxidize 49. vEyh; ekè;e esa ,d eksy Qsjl vkWDlysV dks iw.kZr%
one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic vkWDlhÑr djus ds fy, vko';d Cr2O72− ds eksyksa
medium will be dh la[;k gS
1 1
(1) 2 (2) (1) 2 (2)
3 3
1 1 1 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 6 2 6
50. Which of the following species does not show 50. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh Lih'kht vlekuqikru
disproportionation reaction? vfHkfØ;k ugha n'kkZrh\
(1) ClO– (2) ClO2− (1) ClO– (2) ClO2−

(3) ClO−4 (4) ClO3− (3) ClO−4 (4) ClO3−

51. The oxide, which cannot act as a reducing agent

51. dkSulk vkWDlkbM vipk;d ds :i esa dk;Z ugha dj
is
ldrk\
(1) N2O5 (2) ClO2
(1) N2O5 (2) ClO2
(3) SO2 (4) NO2
(3) SO2 (4) NO2 52. uhps nh x;h vfHkfØ;k fdldk mnkgj.k gS\
− 2− 2−
52. The given reaction is an example of S8(s) + 12OH(aq) → 4S(aq) + 2S2O3(aq) + 6H2O(l)
− 2− 2−
S8(s) + 12OH(aq) → 4S(aq) + 2S2O3(aq) + 6H2O(l) (1) vi?kVu vfHkfØ;k
(1) Decomposition reaction (2) mnklhuhdj.k vfHkfØ;k

(2) Neutralization reaction (3) vlekuqikru vfHkfØ;k

(4) la;kstu vfHkfØ;k
(3) Disproportionation reaction
(4) Combination reaction 53. H4IO6− esa I dk vkWDlhdj.k vad] H2SO5 esa S dk

53. Oxidation number of I in H4IO6− , S in H2SO5 and

vkWDlhdj.k vad rFkk CrO5 esa Cr dk vkWDlhdj.k
vad Øe'k% gSa
that of Cr in CrO5 respectively are
(1) +7, +6 rFkk +6 (2) +7, +4 rFkk +6
(1) +7, +6 and +6 (2) +7, +4 and +6
(3) +7, +5 rFkk +4 (4) +7, +6 rFkk +5
(3) +7, +5 and +4 (4) +7, +6 and +5
54. ,d foy;u esa Co , Co2+ rFkk Br– vk;u gSaA bl
3+

54. A solution contains Co2+ and Br– ions. This

Co3+, foy;u dks 25°C ij czkes hu ds lkFk mipkfjr fd;k
solution was treated with bromine at 25°C, E° for x;k] Co3+/Co2+ ds fy, E° = 1.81 V rFkk Br2/Br– ds
Co3+/Co2+ is 1.81 V and E° for Br2/Br– = 1.09 V. fy, E° = 1.09 V gSA
Select the correct statement. lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Br– will be oxidised to Br2 (1) Br– dk Br2 esa vkWDlhdj.k gksxk
(2) Br2 will be reduced to Br– (2) Br2 dk Br– esa vip;u gksxk
(3) Co2+ will be oxidised to Co3+ (3) Co2+ dk Co3+ esa vkWDlhdj.k gksxk
(4) There will be no redox reaction (4) fjMkWDl vfHkfØ;k ugha gksxh
55. Electrode potential for the following half cell 55. fuEufyf[kr v/kZ lsy vfHkfØ;kvksa ds fy, bysDVªkWM
reactions are foHko fn, x, gSa
Mg → Mg2+ + 2e–, E° = + 2.36 V Mg → Mg2+ + 2e–, E° = + 2.36 V
Ag → Ag+ + e–, E° = – 0.80 V Ag → Ag+ + e–, E° = – 0.80 V
The EMF for the cell reaction fuEufyf[kr lsy vfHkfØ;k ds fy, fo- ok- c- gksxk
Mg(s) + Ag+ (aq) → Mg2+ (aq) + Ag(s) will be Mg(s) + Ag+ (aq) → Mg2+ (aq) + Ag(s)
(1) 1.56 V (2) –1.56 V (1) 1.56 V (2) –1.56 V
(3) 3.16 V (4) –3.16 V (3) 3.16 V (4) –3.16 V

(10)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

56. The method used to remove temporary hardness 56. ty dh vLFkk;h dBksjrk dks nwj djus ds fy,
of water is iz;qDr fof/k gS
(1) Zeolite process (1) ftvksykbV izØe
(2) Clark’s method (2) DykdZ fof/k
(3) Calgon’s method (3) dSYxu fof/k
(4) Washing soda method (4) èkkou lksMk fof/k
57. The volume strength of 1.5 M H2O2 solution is 57. 1.5 M H2O2 foy;u dh vk;ru lkeF;Z gS
(1) 16.8 V (2) 8.4 V (1) 16.8 V (2) 8.4 V
(3) 8.8 V (4) 5.2 V (3) 8.8 V (4) 5.2 V

58. The product formed when aluminium carbide 58. ,syqfefu;e dkckZbM dh Hkkjh ty ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k
reacts with heavy water is ij izkIr mRikn gS
(1) C2D2 (2) C3D8
(1) C2D2 (2) C3D8
(3) CD4 (4) C2D6
(3) CD4 (4) C2D6
59. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh vfHkfØ;k esa gkbMªkstu
59. In which of the following reactions hydrogen
ijkWDlkbM vkWDlhdkjd ds :i esa O;ogkj djrk gS\
peroxide behaves as an oxidising agent?
(1) HOCl + H2O2 → H3O+ + Cl– + O2
(1) HOCl + H2O2 → H3O+ + Cl– + O2
(2) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH– → 2I– + 2H2O + O2
(2) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH– → 2I– + 2H2O + O2
(3) 2MnO−4 + 3H2O2 → 2MnO2 + 3O2 + 2H2O + 2OH−
(3) 2MnO−4 −
+ 3H2O2 → 2MnO2 + 3O2 + 2H2O + 2OH
(4) PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O
(4) PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O 60. {kkjh; lkeF;Z dk lgh Øe gS
60. The correct order of basic strength is (1) BeO < CaO < BaO (2) BaO < CaO < BeO
(1) BeO < CaO < BaO (2) BaO < CaO < BeO (3) CaO < BaO < BeO (4) BeO < BaO < CaO
(3) CaO < BaO < BeO (4) BeO < BaO < CaO
61. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl gkbMªkbM esa vk;fud y{k.k
61. Which of the following hydrides has highest ionic mPpre gS\
character?
(1) BeH2 (2) CaH2
(1) BeH2 (2) CaH2
(3) MgH2 (4) BaH2
(3) MgH2 (4) BaH2
62. dkSulk vk;u dksf'kdk nzo esa vR;fèkd izpqj ek=k esa
62. The ions which is the most abundant within cell
ik;k tkrk gS] tgk¡ ;s dbZ ,atkbeksa dks lfØ; djrs
fluids, where they activates many enzymes and
gSa rFkk Xywdkst ds vkWDlhdj.k esa ATP mRiknu esa Hkh
also participate in the oxidation of glucose to
Hkkx ysrs gaS\
produce ATP is
(1) Ca2+ (2) Fe2+
(1) Ca2+ (2) Fe2+
(3) K+ (4) Na+
(3) K+ (4) Na+
63. Which one of the following compounds is a
63. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd ,d lqijkWDlkbM
superoxide?
gS\
(1) BaO2 (2) KO2 (1) BaO2 (2) KO2
(3) KO3 (4) BeO (3) KO3 (4) BeO
64. The correct order of decreasing thermal stability 64. K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 rFkk BeCO3 dh ?kVrh
of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and BeCO3 is Å"eh; LFkkf;Ro dk lgh Øe gS
(1) K2CO3 > CaCO3 > BeCO3 > MgCO3 (1) K2CO3 > CaCO3 > BeCO3 > MgCO3
(2) K2CO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3 > BeCO3 (2) K2CO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3 > BeCO3
(3) BeCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3 > K2CO3 (3) BeCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3 > K2CO3
(4) CaCO3 > MgCO3 > BeCO3 > K2CO3 (4) CaCO3 > MgCO3 > BeCO3 > K2CO3

(11)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

65. On heating which of the following does not 65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ;kSfxd dks xeZ djus ij
release CO2? CO2 eqDr ugha gksrh gS\
(1) MgCO3 (2) CaCO3 (1) MgCO3 (2) CaCO3
(3) Li2CO3 (4) Na2CO3 (3) Li2CO3 (4) Na2CO3
66. Which of the following compounds has the 66. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSuls ;kSfxd dk xyukad
highest melting point? mPpre gS\
(1) CaI2 (2) CaBr2 (1) CaI2 (2) CaBr2
(3) CaF2 (4) CaCl2 (3) CaF2 (4) CaCl2
67. In which of the following the lattice energy is 67. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa ty;kstu ÅtkZ dh rqyuk
higher than the hydration energy? esa tkyd ÅtkZ vfèkd gS\
(1) BeSO4 (2) MgSO4 (1) BeSO4 (2) MgSO4
(3) Be(OH)2 (4) BaSO4 (3) Be(OH)2 (4) BaSO4
68. The alkali metal which forms monoxide M2O and 68. dkSulh {kkj èkkrq ok;q esa ngu ij eksuksvkWDlkbM
the nitride M3N with air on combustion, is M2O rFkk ukbVªkbM M3N cukrh gS\
(1) Li (2) Na (1) Li (2) Na
(3) K (4) Rb (3) K (4) Rb
69. For B, Al, Ga, In and Tl, the increasing order of 69. B, Al, Ga, In rFkk Tl dh izFke vk;uu ÅtkZ dk
first ionization energy would be c<+rk Øe gksxk
(1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl (1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(2) Tl < In < Ga < Al < B
(2) Tl < In < Ga < Al < B
(3) In < Al < Ga < Tl < B
(3) In < Al < Ga < Tl < B
(4) In < Al < Tl < Ga < B
(4) In < Al < Tl < Ga < B
70. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldh lajpuk csUthu dh lajpuk
70. Which of the following has structure similar to ds leku gS\
benzene?
(1) B2H6 (2) BN
(1) B2H6 (2) BN (3) B3N3H6 (4) H3BO3
(3) B3N3H6 (4) H3BO3 71. ik;jksflfydsV dh lgh lajpukRed bdkbZ gS\
71. The correct structural unit of pyrosilicates is
(1) SiO24− (2) Si2O76 −
(1) SiO24− (2) Si2O76 −
(3) (SiO32− )n (4) SiO44−
(3) (SiO32− )n (4) SiO44−
72. dkSulk dFku xyr gS\
72. Which statement is wrong? (1) Ca2SiO4 vkWFkksZflfydsV gS
(1) Ca2SiO4 is orthosilicate
(2) flfydsV SiO44− esa ewyHkwr lajpukRed bdkbZ
(2) Basic structural unit in silicates SiO44− is the prq"Qyd gS
tetrahedron (3) dk¡p ,d vfr'khfrr nzo gksrk gS
(3) Glass is a supercooled liquid (4) QsYMLikj ,syqfeuksflfydsV ugha gSa
(4) Feldspars are not aluminosilicates
73. ¶yqvksjksflfyfld vEy dks fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl
73. Fluorosilisic acid can be obtained by which of the vfHkfØ;k }kjk izkIr fd;k tk ldrk gS\
following reaction?
(1) SiO2 + F2 → (2) SiF4 + H2O →
(1) SiO2 + F2 → (2) SiF4 + H2O → (3) SiCl4 + NaF → (4) SiO2 + NaF →
(3) SiCl4 + NaF → (4) SiO2 + NaF → 74. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk vfLrRo lansgiw.kZ gS\
74. Which of the following has doubtful existence? (1) [GeCl6]2– (2) [SiCl6]2–
(1) [GeCl6]2– (2) [SiCl6]2– (3) GeCl4 (4) PbCl2
(3) GeCl4 (4) PbCl2 75. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d mHk;/kehZ izÑfr dk
75. Which of the following is amphoteric in nature? gS\
(1) GeO2 (2) SiO2 (1) GeO2 (2) SiO2
(3) PbO2 (4) CO (3) PbO2 (4) CO

(12)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

76. Which of the following is not isostructural with 76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d SiF4 dk
SiF4? lelajpukRed ugha gS\
(1) CH4 (2) NH+4 (1) CH4 (2) NH+4
(3) CO32− (4) CCl4 (3) CO32− (4) CCl4
77. For which of the following elements, +1 oxidation 77. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl rRo ds fy, +1 vkWDlhdj.k
state is more stable than +3? voLFkk +3 dh vis{kk vf/kd LFkk;h gS\
(1) B (2) Al (1) B (2) Al
(3) In (4) Tl (3) In (4) Tl
78. Which of the following halide cannot be 78. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl gSykbM dk tyvi?kVu ugha
hydrolysed? gks ldrk\
(1) CCl4 (2) BCl3 (1) CCl4 (2) BCl3

(3) SiCl4 (4) AlCl3 (3) SiCl4 (4) AlCl3

79. When Borax dissolves in water, it gives

79. cksjsDl dks ty esa ?kksyus ij izkIr gksrk gS
(1) B2H6 (2) H3BO3
(1) B2H6 (2) H3BO3
(3) NaOH (4) (2) rFkk (3) nksuksa
(3) NaOH (4) Both (2) and (3)
80. Correct order of acidic strength is
80. vEyh; lkeF;Z dk lgh Øe gS
(1) BF3 > BCl3 > BI3 (2) BI3 > BCl3 > BF3
(1) BF3 > BCl3 > BI3 (2) BI3 > BCl3 > BF3
(3) BI3 > BF3 > BCl3 (4) BF3 > BI3 > BCl3
(3) BI3 > BF3 > BCl3 (4) BF3 > BI3 > BCl3
81. vkWFkksZcksfjd vEy dh {kkjdrk gS
81. Basicity of orthoboric acid is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 1
(3) 2 (4) 1
82. {kkj èkkrq vk;uksa dh ty esa vk;fud xfr'khyrk dk
82. The correct order of the ionic mobility of the alkali
lgh Øe gS
metal ions in water is
(1) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
(1) Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+
(2) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+
(2) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+
(3) Rb+ > Na+ > K+ > Li+
(3) Rb+ > Na+ > K+ > Li+
(4) K+ > Na+ > Li+ > Rb+
(4) K+ > Na+ > Li+ > Rb+
83. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS\
83. Which of following statements is false?
(1) lHkh {kkj /kkrq,a nzo veksfu;k esa ?kqy tkrh gSa
(1) All alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia
rFkk xgjs uhys jax dk foy;u nsrh gSa
and give deep blue colour
(2) nzo veksfu;k esa {kkj èkkrqvksa dk foy;u dqpkyd
(2) The solution of alkali metals in liquid ammonia
are non conducting in nature izÑfr dk gksrk gS
(3) At concentrations above 3M, the solution of (3) 3M lkanzrk ds Åij] nzo veksfu;k esa {kkj èkkrqvksa
alkali metals in liquid ammonia are copper dk foy;u dkWij dkaL; jax dk gksrk gS
bronze coloured (4) nzo veksfu;k esa {kkj èkkrq dk foy;u j[kk jgus
(4) The solution of alkali metal in liquid ammonia ij èkhjs&èkhjs gkbMªkstu eqDr djrk gS ftlds
on standing slowly liberates hydrogen ifj.kkeLo:i ,ekbM curk gS
resulting in the formation of amide
84. cksjsDl esa cksjkWu ds ladj.k dk izdkj gS
84. The type of hybridisation of boron in borax is
(1) sp3 rFkk sp2 ladj.k
(1) sp3 and sp2 hybridisation
(2) dsoy sp2 ladj.k
(2) Only sp2 hybridisation
(3) Only sp3 hybridisation (3) dsoy sp3 ladj.k

(4) sp and sp3 hybridisation (4) sp rFkk sp3 ladj.k

(13)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

85. In Portland cement which chemical species is 85. iksVZySaM lhesUV esa dkSulh jklk;fud Lih'kht
present in highest percentage? mPpre izfr'krrk esa ik;h tkrh gS\
(1) SiO2 (2) Al2O3 (1) SiO2 (2) Al2O3
(3) CaO (4) MgO (3) CaO (4) MgO
86. Bond angle is maximum in 86. fdlesa ca/k dks.k vfèkdre gS\
(1) BH−4 (2) SiO44− (1) BH−4 (2) SiO44−
(3) BF3 (4) CO2 (3) BF3 (4) CO2
87. The correct order of catenation tendency of group 87. oxZ 14 ds rRoksa dh J`a[kyu izo`fÙk dk lgh Øe gS
14 elements is (1) Sn > Ge > Si > C
(1) Sn > Ge > Si > C (2) C > Si > Ge  Sn
(2) C > Si > Ge  Sn (3) Si > C > Ge  Sn
(3) Si > C > Ge  Sn (4) Ge > Si > Sn > Pb
(4) Ge > Si > Sn > Pb 88. dsYxu dk jklk;fud lw= gS
88. Chemical formula of Calgon is (1) Na3PO4 (2) Na6P6O18
(1) Na3PO4 (2) Na6P6O18 (3) NaAlSiO4 (4) RSO3−Na+
(3) NaAlSiO4 (4) RSO3−Na+ 89. Mkb,fYdy MkbZDyksjksflysu ds tyvi?kVu ij izkIr
89. Dialkyl dichlorosilane on hydrolysis gives gksrk gS
(1) Silicone (1) flfydksu
(2) Dialkyl dihydroxy silane (2) MkbZ,fYdy MkbZgkbMªkWDlh flysu
(3) Alkyl halide (3) ,fYdy gSykbM
(4) Tri alkyl hydroxyl silane (4) VªkbZ ,fYdy gkbMªkWfDly flysu
90. In graphite, carbon has 90. xzsQkbV esa dkcZu dk ladj.k gksrk gS
(1) sp3 hybridisation (2) sp hybridisation (1) sp3 ladj.k (2) sp ladj.k
(3) sp2 hybridisation (4) dsp2 hybridisation (3) sp ladj.k
2 (4) dsp2 ladj.k

BOTANY
91. Cytoplasm division occurs 91. dksf”kdknzO; dk fOkHkktu gksrk gS
(1) In G1 phase (1) G1 izkoLFkk esa
(2) Between G1 and S phase (2) G1 o S izkoLFkk ds chp
(3) At the end of S phase (3) S izkoLFkk ds var esa
(4) After karyokinesis during M phase (4) M izkoLFkk ds nkSjku dsanzd foHkktu ds ckn
92. During cell cycle events, activity of enzymes 92. dksf”kdk pØ ifj?kVuk ds nkSjku DNA ds f}xq.ku ls
related to duplication of DNA can be seen in lacfa /kr ,atkbe dh fØ;kfof/k fdlesa gks ldrh gS\
(1) A phase where centriole duplication occurs in (1) ml izkoLFkk esa tgk¡ tarq dksf”kdk esa rkjddsanz
animal cell dk f}xq.ku gksrk gS
(2) ml izkoLFkk esa tgk¡ dsanzd foHkktu gksrk gS
(2) A phase where karyokinesis occurs
(3) xSi 1 izkOkLFkk
(3) Gap 1 phase
(4) xSi 2 izkoLFkk
(4) Gap 2 phase
93. G0 ;k “kkar izkoLFkk dks lkekU;r% fdlds }kjk n”kkZ;k
93. G0 or quiescent stage is usually exhibited by
tkrk gS\
(1) Skin cells
(1) Ropk dksf”kdk
(2) Heart cells
(2) ân; dksf”kdk
(3) Gamete mother cells (3) ;qXed ekr` dksf”kdk
(4) Yeast cells (4) ;hLV dksf”kdk

(14)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

94. Which of the following is not true w.r.t prophase 94. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ,d iwokZoLFkk ds lanHkZ eas
(1) 1st stage of karyokinesis of mitosis lgh ugha gS\
(2) New DNA molecules are synthesized (1) lelw=h foHkktu ds dsanzd foHkktu dh izFke
(3) Chromosome compaction occurs izkoLFkk gksrh gSA
(4) Chromosome material become untangled (2) u, DNA v.kq la”ysf’kr gksrs gSa
(3) xq.klw= dk la?kuu gksrk gS
95. The complete disintegration of the nuclear
envelope during cell division marks the beginning (4) xq.klw= inkFkZ my> tkrs gSa
of 95. dksf”kdk foHkktu ds nkSjku dsna zdh; vkoj.k dk iw.kZ
(1) Anaphase (2) Prophase
fo?kVu fdlds vkjaHku dks fpfUg~r djrk gS\
(1) i”pkoLFkk (2) iwokZLFkk
(3) Metaphase (4) Telophase
(3) eè;koLFkk (4) vaR;koLFkk
96. In which of the following phase of mitosis each
chromosome arranged at the equator of cell is
96. dksf”kdk dh eè;js[kk ij O;ofLFkr izR;sd xq.klw=]
split simultaneously into two daughter
lelw= foHkktu ds fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl izkoLFkk
chromatids?
esa ,d lkFk nks iq=h ØkseSfVM~l esa foikfVr gksrk gS\
(1) Metaphase (2) Telophase (1) eè;koLFkk (2) vaR;koLFkk

(3) Anaphase (4) Prophase (3) Ik”pkoLFkk (4) iwokZoLFkk

97. Select the mismatched pair 97. vlqesfyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Telophase – Nuclear envelope (1) vaR;koLFkk – dsna zdh; vkoj.k xq.klw=
assembles around the lewg pkjksa vksj ,df=r
chromosome clusters gks tkrk gS
(2) Anaphase – Daughter chromatids
move to opposite poles
(2) Ik”pkoLFkk – larfr ØkseSfVM~l foijhr
/kzqoksa dh vksj xfr djrs
(3) Metaphase – Morphology of
gSa
chromosomes is most
easily studied (3) eè;koLFkk – xq.klw=ksa dh vkdkfjdh
(4) Prophase – Golgi complex and ER dk vklkuh ls vè;;u
reform and reappear fd;k tkrk gS
98. Read the statements and select the correct (4) iwokZoLFkk – xkWYth ladqy o ER
option. iqu%fufeZr o iqu%mifLFkr
Statement A: Chromosomes cluster at opposite gksrk gS
spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete 98. dFkuksa dks if<+, rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
elements in the telophase. dFku A: foijhr rdqZ /kzqoksa ij xq.klw=ksa dk lewg gksrk
Statement B: Small disc-shaped structures at the gS rFkk budh igpku vaR;koLFkk esa fHkUu rRoksa ds
surface of the centromeres are called :Ik esa u’V gks tkrh gSA
kinetochores dFku B: xq.klw=fcanq dh lrg ij NksVh
(1) Both the statements are incorrect fMLd&vkdkjh lajpuk dkbusVksdksj dgykrh gSaA
(2) Only statement A is correct (1) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa
(2) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(3) Only statement B is correct
(3) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(4) Both the statements are correct
(4) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
99. A usually ensures the production of haploid
99. A ySafxd :Ik ls tuu djus okys thoksa ds
phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing thou pØ esa vxqf.kr izkoLFkk ds mRiknu dks
organisms whereas B restores the diploid lqfuf”pr djrk gS tcfd B f}xqf.kr izkoLFkk
phase. dks iqu% laxzfgr djrk gSA
A and B in the above statement respectively are mijksDr dFku esa A o B Øe”k% gSa
(15)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

(1) Mitosis, Meiosis (1) lelw=h foHkktu] v/kZlw=h foHkktu

(2) Meiosis, Mitosis (2) v/kZlw=h foHkktu] lelw=h foHkktu
(3) Mitosis, Cytokinesis (3) lelw=h foHkktu] dksf”kdknzO; foHkktu
(4) Meiosis, Fertilization (4) v/kZlw=h foHkktu] fu’kspu
100. Zygotene stage of meiosis I is 100. v/kZlw=h foHkktu I dh ;qXeiV~V ¼tkbxksVhu½ izkoLFkk
(1) The 1st stage of prophase I (1) iwokZoLFkk I dh izFke izkoLFkk gksrh gS
(2) Characterized by synapsis formation (2) flusfIll ds fuekZ.k }kjk vfHkyk{kf.kr gksrk gS
(3) The 3rd stage of prophase I (3) iwokZoLFkk I dh rhljh izkoLFkk gksrh gS
(4) Characterized by chiasmata formation (4) dk,TesVk ds fuekZ.k }kjk vfHkyk{kf.kr gksrh gS

101. Tetrad of homologous chromosomes can be seen 101. letkr xq.klw=ksa dk prq’d fdlesa gks ldrk gS\
in (1) ruqiV~V ¼fyIVksVhu½
(1) Leptotene (2) Pachytene (2) LFkwy iV~V¼iSdsVhu½
(3) Anaphase I (4) Prophase II (3) Ik”pkoLFkk I

102. Exchange of genetic material between non sister (4) IkwokZoLFkk II

chromatids of homologous chromosomes is called 102. letkr xq.klw=ksa ds ukWu fLkLVj ØkseSfVM~l ds chp
(1) Bivalent formation (2) Crossing over
vkuqoaf”kd inkFkZ dk fofue; D;k dgykrk gS\
(1) ;qXkyh dk fuekZ.k (2) thu fofue;
(3) Desynapsis (4) Terminalisation
(3) MkbflusfIll (4) mikarhHkou
103. Segregation of homologous chromosomes occurs
while sister chromatids remain associated at their 103. fdl izkoLFkk ds nkSjku letkr xq.klw=ksa dk
centromeres during i`FkDdj.k gksrk gS tcfd fLkLVj ØkseSfVM~l vius
xq.klw=fcanq ij tqM+k jgrk gS\
(1) Prophase I (2) Prophase II
(1) iwokZoLFkk I (2) iwokZoLFkk II
(3) Anaphase I (4) Telophase I
(3) i”pkoLFkk I (4) vaR;koLFkk I
104. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
meiosis?
104. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d v/kZlw=h foHkktu dk
vfHky{k.k ugha gSa
(1) Introduction of variation
(1) fofo/krk dh izLrkouk
(2) Vegetative reproduction in unicellular
(2) ,ddksf”kdh; thoksa esa dkf;d tuu gksrk gS
organisms
(3) blds dkj.k f}xqf.kr thoksa esa vxqf.kr ;qXedksa
(3) Leads to formation of haploid gametes in
dk fuekZ.k gksrk gS
diploid organisms
(4) ySafxd :i ls tuu djus okys thoksa ds izR;sd
(4) Maintenance of specific chromosome number
tkfr;ksa eas fof”k’V xq.klw= dh la[;k
in each species across generations in
ih<+h&nj&ih<+h O;ofLFkr jgrh gS
sexually reproducing organisms
105. ,d ,dy dksf”kdk ls 64 dksf”kdkvksa dks mRiUu
105. What would be the number of mitotic division
djus ds fy, fdrus lelw=h fOkHkktu dh vko”;drk
required to produce 64 cells from a single cell?
gksxh\
(1) 32 (2) 6 (1) 32 (2) 6
(3) 63 (4) 12 (3) 63 (4) 12
106. G2 phase 106. G2 izkoLFkk
(1) Occurs between S and M-phase (1) S o M-izkoLFkk ds chp gksrh gS
(2) Is characterized by centriole duplication (2) rkjddsanz ds f}xq.ku }kjk vfHkyk{kf.kr gksrh gS
(3) Is characterized by DNA synthesis (3) DNA ds la”ys’k.k }kjk vfHkyk{kf.kr gksrh gS
(4) Occurs after G1 phase (4) G1 izkoLFkk ds ckn gksrh gS

(16)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

107. If a diploid cell with 48 chromosomes undergoes 107. ;fn 48 xq.klw= okys ,d f}xqf.kr dksf”kdk esa
meiosis, what would be the number of chromatids v/kZlw=h foHkktu gksrk gS rks v/kZlw=h foHkktu I ds
in each daughter cell after meiosis I? ckn izR;sd iq=h dksf”kdk esa ØkseSfVM~l dh la[;k
(1) 48 (2) 24 D;k gksxh\
(1) 48 (2) 24
(3) 46 (4) 96
(3) 46 (4) 96
108. Cells remain metabolically active but no longer
proliferate unless called on to do so in
108. dksf”kdk,sa mikip;h :Ik ls lfØ; gksrh gS ijarq ;g
foHkkftr ugha gksrh gS
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase
(1) G1 izkoLFkk esa (2) S izkoLFkk esa
(3) G0 phase (4) M phase
(3) G0 izkoLFkk esa (4) M izkoLFkk esa
109. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of
109. fdlds nkSjku rdqZ rarq xq.klw=ksa ds dkbusVksdksj ls
chromosomes during
tqM+s gksrs gSa\
(1) Metaphase (2) Telophase I
(1) eè;koLFkk (2) vaR;koLFkk I
(3) Anaphase II (4) Anaphase I (3) Ik”pkoLFkk II (4) Ik”pkoLFkk I
110. Formation of new cell wall begins with the 110. dksf”kdk iV~Vh dgykus okyh lk/kkj.k vxzxkeh ds
formation of a simple precursor, called the cell- fuekZ.k ds lkFk u, dksf”kdk fHkfÙk dk fuekZ.k izkjEHk
plate that represents the gksrk gS] tks n”kkZrk gS
(1) Mitochondrial membrane (1) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k dh f>YYkh dks
(2) Middle lamella between the walls of two (2) nks fudVorhZ fHkfÙk;ksa ds chp mifLFkr eè;
adjacent cells iVfydk dks
(3) Primary cell wall (3) izkFkfed dksf”kdk fHkfÙk dks

(4) Chloroplast membrane (4) gfjryod dh f>Yyh dks

111. Diakinesis of prophase-I of meiosis-I is marked by

111. v/kZlw=h foHkktu-I dh iwokZoLFkk-I dk ikjxfrØe
fdlds }kjk fpfUg~r gksrk gS
(1) Chiasmata formation
(1) dk,TesVk ds fuekZ.k
(2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (2) flusIVksusey ladqy ds fo;kstu
(3) Terminalisation of chiasmata (3) dk,TesVk ds mikarhHkou
(4) Crossing over (4) thu fofue;

112. Interkinesis is
112. varjkykoLFkk
(1) dks dsanzdh; foHkktu Hkh dgrs gSa
(1) Also known as nuclear division
(2) v/kZlw=h foHkktu I o v/kZlw=h foHkktu II ds chp
(2) The stage between meiosis I and meiosis II dh izkoLFkk gksrh gS
(3) Generally a long stage of mitosis (3) lkekU;r% lelw=h foHkktu dh yEch izkoLFkk
gksrh gS
(4) Marked by cytoplasm division
(4) dksf”kdknzO; foHkktu }kjk fpfUg~r gksrk gS
113. Proteins are synthesised in preparation for
113. izkVs hu lelw=h foHkktu ds fuekZ.k esa la”ysf’kr gksrs
mitosis, while cell growth continues during
gSa tcfd _____ ds nkSjku lrr~ dksf”kdk o`f) gksrh
(1) G1 phase (2) S phase gSA
(3) Quiescent stage (4) G2 phase (1) G1 izkoLFkk (2) S izkoLFkk
(3) “kkar izkoLFkk (4) G2 izkoLFkk
114. How many chromosomes will be there in a cell
after G1 and G2 phase respectively during the 114. ;fn ,d f}xqf.kr dksf”kdk esa 16 xq.klw= gksrs gSa rks
mitosis if a diploid cell has 16 chromosomes? lelw=h foHkktu ds nkSjku G1 o G2 izkoLFkk ds ckn
,d dksf”kdk esa Øe”k% fdrus xq.klw= gksaxs\
(1) 16, 8 (2) 8, 16 (1) 16, 8 (2) 8, 16
(3) 16, 16 (4) 8, 8 (3) 16, 16 (4) 8, 8

(17)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

115. Recombinase mediated activity is seen during 115. fjdkWfEcust eè;LFk fØ;kfof/k v/kZlw=h foHkktu-I ds
which of the given sub-stage of prophase-I of iwokZoLFkk-I ds fn, x, fdl mi-izkoLFkk ds nkSjku
meiosis-I? gksrh gS\
(1) Leptotene (1) ruqiV~V ¼fyIVksVhu½
(2) Zygotene (2) ;qXeiV~V ¼tkbxksVhu½
(3) Pachytene (3) LFkwyiV~V ¼iSdsVhu½
(4) Diplotene (4) f}iV~V ¼fMIyksVhu½
116. A tetrad consists of 116. ,d prq’d fdldk cuk gksrk gS\
(1) Two chromatids and one centromere (1) nks ØkseSfVM~l o ,d xq.klw=fcanq
(2) Four chromatids and two centromeres (2) pkj ØkseSfVM~l o nks xq.klw=fcanq
(3) Two chromatids and two centromeres (3) nks ØkseSfVM~l o nks xq.klw=fcanq
(4) One chromatids and one centromere (4) ,d ØkseSfVM~l o ,d xq.klw=fcanq
117. Which of the following is not seen in higher plant 117. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ,d mPPkrj ikni
cells? dksf”kdkvksa esa ugha gksrk gS\
(1) Centriole duplication (1) rkjddsanz dk f}xq.ku
(2) DNA synthesis (2) DNA dk la”ys’k.k
(3) Spindle fibre formation (3) rdqZrr a q dk fuekZ.k
(4) Microtubule formation (4) lw{eufydk dk fuekZ.k
118. Diffusion rate of a molecule is
118. ,d v.kq ds folj.k dh nj
(1) Dependent on utilisation of ATP
(1) ATP ds mi;ksx ij fuHkZj djrh gSa
(2) Affected by carrier protein
(2) okgd izksVhu }kjk izHkkfor gksrh gS
(3) Affected by gradient of concentration of that
(3) ml v.kq ds lkanzrk izo.krk }kjk izHkkfor
molecule
gksrh gS
(4) Independent of temperature
(4) rkieku ij fuHkZj ugha djrh gS
119. Which of the following is not true w.r.t facilitated
diffusion?
119. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d lqlkè; folj.k ds
lanHkZ esa lgh ugha gS\
(1) It require special membrane protein
(1) blds fy, fof”k’V f>Yyh izkV s hu dh vko”;drk
(2) Transport rate can reach saturation level
gksrh gS
(3) Does not require any ATP
(2) ifjogu dh nj lar`Ir Lrj rd igq¡p ldrh gSa
(4) Transport occurs from lower to higher
concentration (3) fdlh Hkh ATP dh vko”;drk ugha gksrh gS

120. In the symport (4) fuEu lkanzrk ls mPp lkanzrk dh vksj ifjofgr
(1) Two types of molecules are transported in
gksrs gSa
same direction 120. fleiksVZ esa
(2) Two different molecules move in opposite (1) nks izdkj ds v.kq ,d gh fn”kk esa ifjofgr gksrs gSa
direction (2) nks fHkUUk v.kq foijhr fn”kk esa xfr djrs gSa
(3) There is no requirement of special membrane (3) fof”k’V f>YYkh izkV s hu dh vko”;drk ugha gksrh
proteins gSa
(4) One type of molecule cross the membrane (4) f>YYkh ls gksdj ,d izdkj dk v.kq xqtjrk gS
which is independent of other molecule tks vU; v.kq ds fy, Lora= gksrk gS
121. Uphill transport of molecules across the 121. f>Yyh ds ikj v.kqvksa dk f”k[kjksifj ifjogu fdlds
membrane can be done by }kjk gks ldrk gS\
(1) Facilitated diffusion (1) lqlkè; folj.k
(2) Simple diffusion (2) lk/kkj.k folj.k
(3) Active transport (3) lfØ; ifjogu
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) o (3) nksuksa

(18)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

122. Simple diffusion 122. lk/kkj.k folj.k

(1) Require special membrane proteins for (1) esa ok’iksRltZu ds fy, fof”k’V f>Yyh izkV
s huksa dh
transportation vko”;drk gksrh gSa
(2) Is highly selective (2) mPp:Ik ls p;ukRed gksrk gS
(3) Is not dependent on energy expenditure (3) ÅtkZ ds O;; ij fuHkZj ugha djrk gS
(4) Saturates (4) lar`Ir gksrs gSa
123. Water potential of pure water at standard 123. ekud rkieku ij “kq) ty dk ty foHko tks fdlh
temperature which is not under any pressure is nkc ds varxZr ugha gksrk gS og
(1) In between 0 and 0.5 (1) 0 o 0.5 ds chp esa gksrk gS
(2) Taken to be zero (2) “kwU; ekuk tkrk gS
(3) Always equals to unity (3) lnSo ,d ds cjkcj gksrk gS
(4) In between 0.5 and 1.0 (4) 0.5 o 1.0 ds chp esa gksrk gS
124. Solute potential of a solution will be 124. foy;u dk foys; foHko
(1) Greater than the water potential of pure water (1) ekud rkieku o ok;qe.Myh; nkc ij “kq) ty
at standard temperature and atmospheric ds ty foHko dh rqyuk esa vf/kd gksxk
pressure (2) _.kkRed gksxk
(2) Negative (3) “kq) ty ds ty fOkHko ds cjkcj gksxk
(3) Equal to water potential of pure water (4) lnSo /kukRed gksxk
(4) Always positive 125. lqlkè; folj.k ds lanHkZ esa fdrus izdkj ds
125. How many types of aquaporins form water ,DokiksfjUl ty pSuy dk fuekZ.k djrs gSa\
channel w.r.t. facilitated diffusion? (1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16
(3) 8 (4) 16 126. ;fn iw.kZ :Ik ls LQhr dksf”kdk dks leijklkjh
126. If a fully turgid cell is placed in isotonic solution foy;u esa j[kk tkrk gS rks
(1) Plasmolysis will occur (1) thonzO;dqapu gkssxk

(2) Cell will burst due to endosmosis (2) dksf”kdk var%ijklj.k ds dkj.k u’V gks tk,xh
(3) Its TP will becomes more negative (3) bldk TP vR;f/kd _.kkRed gks tk,xk
(4) Cell size will not be affected (4) dksf”kdk dk vkdkj izHkkfor ugha gksxk
127. When water is absorbed by solids colloids 127. tc ikuh Bksl dksykWbM~l }kjk vo”kksf’kr fd;k tkrk
causing them to increase in volume, the process gS] ftlls mlds vk;ru esa o`f) gksrh gS] ;g izfØ;k
is called dgykrh gS
(1) Transpiration (2) Imbibition (1) ok’iksRltZu (2) var%”kks’k.k

(3) Guttation (4) Exosmosis (3) fcanqL=ko (4) ckg~;ijklj.k

128. Select the incorrect statement, w.r.t. 128. ok’iksRltZu ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
transpiration. dhft,A
(1) Transpiration is highest during the noon time (1) nksigj ds le; ok’iksRltZu vf/kdre gksrk gS
(2) Stomatal transpiration account for highest (2) ja/kzh; ok’iksRltZu ds dkj.k ok’iksRltZu
transpiration percentage izfr”krrk vf/kd gksrh gS
(3) Transpiration is the evaporative loss of water (3) ok’iksRltZu ikniksa }kjk ty dh gksus okyh
by plants ok’ihdj.kh; gkfu gksrh gS
(4) Lenticels are not responsible for any (4) okrja/kz fdlh Hkh ok’iksRltZu ds fy, mÙkjnk;h
transpiration ugha gksrs gSa

(19)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

129. Which of the following is not true about the 129. fuEUkfyf[kr esa ls dkSUk lk ,d ja/kz ds lanHkZ esa lgh
stomata? ugha gS\
(1) Stomata regulate the process of transpiration (1) ja/kz] ok’iksRltZu o xSlh; fofue; dh izfØ;k dks
and gaseous exchange fu;fer djrk gS
(2) Guard cells are kidney shaped in all grasses (2) }kj dksf”kdk,¡ lHkh xSlksa esa fdMuh vkdkj dh
(3) Cellulose microfibrils are oriented radially in gksrh gSa
cell wall of guard cells
(3) lsyqykst lw{erarqd }kj dksf”kdkvksa dh dksf”kdk
(4) In monocots guard cells are ellipsoidal
fHkfÙk esa vjh; :Ik ls vfHkfoU;lr gksrs gSa
130. Uptake of most of the minerals by plants is mainly
(4) ,dchti=h esa }kj dksf”kdk,¡ nh?kZo`Ùkkdkj gksrh
by
gSa
(1) Osmosis (2) Simple diffusion
130. ikniksa }kjk vf/kdka”k [kfutksa dk mn~xzg.k eq[;r%
(3) Active transport (4) Facilitated diffusion fdlds }kjk gksrk gS\
131. Find the odd one w.r.t translocation in phloem (1) ijklj.k (2) lk/kkj.k folj.k
(1) Sucrose is moved out of the phloem by active (3) lfØ; ifjogu (4) lqlkè; folj.k
transport 131. ¶yks,e esa LFkkukarj.k ds lanHkZ esa fo’ke in dk p;u
(2) Direction of movement in the phloem is bi- dhft,A
directional (1) lqØkst] lfØ; ifjogu }kjk ¶yks,e ls ckgj
(3) Phloem sap is mainly water and sucrose fudyrk gS
(4) Sugars are loaded into a sieve tube by (2) ¶yks,e esa f}&f}”kkRed xfr gksrh gS
diffusion (3) ¶yks,e jl eq[;r% ty o lqØkst gksrk gS
132. Stomatal movement is affected by all of the (4) “kdZjk dks folj.k }kjk pkyuh ufydk esa yksM
following except fd;k tkrk gS
(1) Temperature (2) Light 132. ja/kzh; xfr fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh }kjk
(3) O2 concertation (4) CO2 concertation izHkkfor gksrh gS\
(1) rkieku (2) izdk”k
133. Root pressure
(3) O2 dh lkanzrk (4) CO2 dh lkanzrk
(1) Is always negative
133. ewy nkc
(2) Develops through active absorption (1) lnSo _.kkRed gksrk gS
(3) Account for the majority of water transport in (2) lfØ; vo”kks’k.k }kjk ifjof/kZr gksrk gS
plants (3) ikniksa esa vf/kdka”kr% ty ifjogu ds dkj.k gksrk
(4) Play a major role in water movement in tall gS
trees (4) yEcsa o`{kksa esa gksus okyh ty dh xfr esa eq[;
134. Apoplastic movement of water does not involve
Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gS
134. ty dh ,iksIykfLVd xfr esa
(1) Crossing the cell membrane
(1) dksf”kdk f>Yyh dks ikj djuk lfEefyr ugha
(2) Intercellular spaces gksrk gS
(3) Walls of the cells (2) varjdksf”kdh; vodk”k lfEefyr ugha gksrk gS
(4) Mass flow (3) dksf”kdkvksa dh fHkfÙk lfEefyr ugha gksrh gSa
(4) lewg izokg lfEefyr ugha gksrk gS
135. Transportation of photosynthate occurs in
135. QksVksfLkUFksV dk ifjogu fdleas gksrk gS\
(1) The form of starch
(1) eaM ds :i esa
(2) Xylem vessels
(2) tkbye okfgdkvksa esa
(3) The form of 3-PGA (3) 3-PGA ds fuekZ.k esa
(4) The form of phloem sap (4) ¶yks,e jl ds fuekZ.k eas

(20)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

ZOOLOGY
136. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the 136. ;fn fdlh {kfr ds dkj.k ekuo ân; ds feVªy
mitral valve of the human heart becomes partially dikV dk dkfMZ, Vsfa Mus; vkaf”kd :Ik ls vfØ;kRed
non-functional, what will be the immediate gks tkrk gS rks bldk “kh?kz izHkko D;k gksxk\
effect?
(1) fLkLVsfed egk/keuh esa jDr dk izokg de gks
(1) The flow of blood into the systemic aorta will
tk,xk
be reduced
(2) Qq¶Qqlh; egk/keuh esa jDr dk izokg de gks
(2) The flow of blood into the pulmonary aorta will
be reduced tk,xk
(3) Right ventricle will receive more amount of (3) nk;ka fuy;] nk;sa vfyan ls jDr dh vf/kd ek=k
blood from right atrium izkIr djsxk
(4) Cardiac output will be increased (4) ân; fudkl c<+sxk
137. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. second heart 137. f}rh; ân; èofu ds lanHkZ esa lgh dFku dk p;u
sound dhft,A
(1) Produced during middle of joint diastole (1) la;qDr vuqf”kfFkyu ds eè; esa mRiUUk gksrk gS
(2) Produced at the beginning of ventricular (2) fuy;h vuqf”kfFkyu ds izkjaHk esa mRiUUk gksrk gS
diastole
(3) vfyan izadqpu ds izkjEHk ij mRiUUk gksrk gS
(3) Produced at the initiation of atrial systole
(4) bls yc dgk tkrk gS rFkk ;g AV dikVksa ds
(4) It is called lub and is associated with closure
can gksus ls lacaf/kr gS
of the AV valves
138. Study the given diagrammatic presentation of 138. ân; pØ dh voLFkkvksa dh nh xbZ vkjs[kh; izLrqfr
phases of cardiac cycle and select the correct dk vè;;u dhft;s rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u
option dhft;sA

(1) Out of 0.7 sec of atrial diastole, first 0.4 sec (1) 0.7 lsd.M ds vfyan vuqf”kfFkyu esa ls igys
coincides with ventricular systole 0.4 lsd.M fuy;h izdqapu ds le; ij gksrk gS
(2) During atrial diastole, the blood always comes
(2) vfyan vuqf”kfFkyu ds nkSjku jDr lnSo vfyan
into the ventricle from atria
ls fuy; esa vkrk gS
(3) During ventricular diastole, the semilunar
valves remain close and atrial valves remain (3) fuy;h vuqf”kfFkyu ds nkSjku v/kZpanz dikVsa can
open jgrh gSa rFkk vfyan dikVs [kqyh jgrh gSa
(4) Ventricular diastole only coincides with atrial (4) fuy;h vuqf”kfFkyu dsoy vfyan izdaqpu ds
systole le; ij gksrk gS
(21)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

139. Match the following column I and column II. 139. fuEUk dkWye I rFkk dkWye II dk feyku dhft;sA
Column-I Column-II
dkWye-I dkWye-II
(i) Tunica (a) Protective double
intima walled membranous (i) var%Lrj (a) j{kkRed nksgjh fHkfÙk
bag dapqd okyh f>YYkhe;
(ii) Heart (b) Amount of blood FkSyh
failure pumped out by each
ventricle during a (ii) gkVZ QsY;ksj (b) ân; pØ ds nkSjku
cardiac cycle izR;sd fuy; }kjk
(iii) Stroke (c) Congestion of lungs iafir jDr dh ek=k
volume is one of the main
symptoms of it (iii) izokg (c) Qq¶Qql dk ladqyu
(iv) Pericardium (d) Inner most layer of vk;ru bldk ,d izeq[k
blood vessels y{k.k gS
Choose the correct option. (iv) ân;koj.kh (d) jDr okfgdkvksa dk
(1) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
vkarfjd Lrj
(2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(a)
(3) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b) lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft;sA
(4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c) (1) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
140. Which of the following portal vein begins from (2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(a)
intestine? (3) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(1) Renal portal vein
140. fuEUk esa ls dkSulh fuokfgdk f”kjk vka= ls izkjEHk
(2) Hypothalamo hypophyseal portal vein
gksrh gS\
(3) Hepatic portal vein (1) o`Dd fuokfgdk f”kjk
(4) Hypophyseal portal vein (2) gkbiksFksyseks gkbiksQkbfl;y fuokfgdk f”kjk
141. If cardiac output of a person is about 6.3 litre and (3) ;Ñr fuokfgdk f”kjk
his stroke volume is 70 ml the heart rate of person (4) gkbiksQkbfl;y fuokfgdk f”kjk
will be 141. ,d O;fDr dk ân; fudkl ;fn 6.3 yhVj gS rFkk
(1) 100/minute (2) 90/minute bldk izokg vk;ru 70 feyh- gS rks bl O;fDr dk
(3) 80/minute (4) 70/minute ân; nj fdruk gksxk\
142. In E.C.G of a healthy individual, which of the (1) 100/feuV (2) 90/feuV
following represents end of ventricular systole? (3) 80/feuV (4) 70/feuV
(1) Q wave 142. ,d LoLFk O;fDr ds E.C.G esa fuEu esa ls dkSUklk
(2) Initiation of S wave fuy;h izdaqpu ds var dks iznf”kZr djrk gS\
(3) Complex QRS wave (1) Q rjax (2) S rjax dk izkjaHk
(4) End of T wave (3) lfEeJ QRS rjax (4) T rjax dk var
143. The systemic circulation differs from the 143. fdl izdkj ,d fLkLVsfed ifjlapj.k] Qq¶Qqlh;
pulmonary circulation in that ifjlapj.k ls fHkUUk gksrk gS\
(1) It starts by the pumping of deoxygenated (1) ;g nk;sa fuy; ls fovkWDlhÑr jDr dks iai
blood by the right ventricle djus }kjk izkjaHk gksrk gS
(2) It ends by the returned of deoxygenated blood (2) ;g nk;sa vfyan esa fovkWDlhÑr jDr dh okilh
into right atrium }kjk lekIr gksrk gS
(3) It includes the pulmonary aorta and (3) blesa Qq¶Qqlh; egk/keuh rFkk Qq¶Qqlh; f”kjk
pulmonary veins lfEefyr gksrk gS
(4) It carries only deoxygenated blood (4) ;g dsoy fovkWDlhÑr jDr dk ogu djrk gS

(22)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

144. Read the following statements and select the 144. fuEu dFkuksa dks if<+;s rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u
correct option. dhft;sA
Statement x : Though the human heart is dFku x : ;|fi ekuo ân; Lo&mÙkstuh; gksrk gS]
autoexcitable, it’s functions can be moderated by blds dk;Z dks raf=dh; rFkk gkeksZuy fØ;kfof/k }kjk
neural and hormonal mechanism. fu;fer fd;k tk ldrk gSA
Statement y : Parasympathetic neural signals dFku y : lkekU; O;fDr;ksa esa ijkuqdaih raf=dk ladsr
reduce the heart rate upto 70 to 75 beats/min in ân; nj dks 70 ls 75 Lian@feuV rd de dj nsrs
normal individuals. gSaA
(1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) dsoy dFku x lgh gS
(3) Only statement x is correct
(4) dsoy dFku y lgh gS
(4) Only statement y is correct 145. fuEUk esa ls dkSulk ,d xyr gS\
145. Which one of the following is incorrect? (1) RBC, WBC rFkk IysVysV~l laxfBr inkFkksZa dk
(1) RBCs, WBCs and platelets constitute the xBu djrs gSa
formed elements (2) ylhdk esa lHkh laxfBr inkFkZ gksrs gSa ysfdu
(2) Lymph contains all formed elements but the IykTek dh rqyuk eas blesa WBC dh la[;k
number of WBCs are more compare to vf/kd gksrh gS
plasma (3) lhje esa Ldanu dkjdksa dk vHkko gksrk gS
(3) Serum lacks clotting factors (4) IysVysV~l] IykTek esa mifLFkr gksrs gSa
(4) Platelets are present in plasma 146. ‘O–ve’ jDr lewg okys ,d O;fDr us ‘B+ve’ jDr lewg
146. A man with blood group ‘O–ve’ marries a woman dh ,d efgyk ls fookg fd;kA buds chp jDr ds
with blood group ‘B ’. What would be the
+ve
vk/kku dh laHkkouk D;k gksxh\
possibility for transfusion of blood between them?
(1) iq:’k] efgyk ls jDr izkIRk dj ldrk gS
(1) Man can receive blood from woman
(2) efgyk] iq:’k ls jDr izkIr dj ldrh gS
(2) Woman can receive blood from man
(3) iq:’k rFkk efgyk nksuksa ,d nwljs ls jDr izkIr
(3) Man and women both can receive blood from dj ldrs gSa
each other
(4) iq:’k rFkk efgyk nksuksa ,d nwljs ls jDr izkIr
(4) Man and women both can’t receive blood from
ugh dj ldrs gSa
each other
147. fuEUk dFkuksa dks if<+;A sa
147. Read the following statements.
A : fdlh pksV ;k ?kkr esa vR;f/kd jDr dks cgus ls
A : Blood exhibits the mechanism of coagulation
jksdus ds fy, jDr] Ldanu dh fØ;kfof/k iznf”kZr
to prevent excessive blood loss in injury or
trauma
djrs gSaA
B : FkzkEs cksLkkbVksihfu;k lk/kkj.kr% jDr ds Ldanu dh
B : Thrombocytopenia generally hamper the
process of clotting of blood which leads to izfØ;k dks ckf/kr djrk gS ftlls “kjhj ls
excessive blood loss from the body vR;f/kd jDr dk cgko gksrk gSA
Choose the correct option. lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Both statements are correct (1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
(2) Both statements are incorrect (2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) dsoy dFku B lgh gS

(23)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

148. Veins are blood vessels which 148. f”kjk,¡ os jDr okfgdk,¡ gSa tks
(1) Carry blood away from heart (1) ân; ls nwj jDr dk ogu djrh gSa
(2) Transport respiratory gases such as O 2 and (2) jDr esa O2 rFkk CO2 tSls “olu xSlksa dk
CO2 in blood ifjogu djrh gSa
(3) Pour their blood into aorta (3) egk/keuh esa vius jDr dks Mkyrh gSa
(4) Always carry deoxygenated blood from (4) vax ls ân; rd lnSo fovkWDlhÑr jDr dk
organs to heart ogu djrh gSa
149. Select the correct statement w.r.t. ABO blood 149. ABO jDr lewgu ds lanHkZ eas lgh dFku dk p;u
grouping dhft,A
(1) ‘B’ blood group person possess anti-B in their (1) ‘B’ jDr lewg okys O;fDr ds IykTek esa ,aVh-B
plasma gksrk gS
(2) AB blood group person can’t receive the blood (2) AB jDr lewg okys O;fDr mu O;fDr;ksa dk jDr
of those persons who possess anti A and anti izkIr ugha dj ldrs gSa ftuds Iyktek eas
B in their plasma ,aVh-A rFkk ,aVh-B gksrk gS
(3) ‘A’ blood group person possess A antigen on (3) ‘A’ jDr lewg okys O;fDr ds RBC dh lrg ij
surface of their RBCs and can donate blood to
izfrtu A gksrk gS rFkk jDr lewg A rFkk AB
A and AB blood group persons
okys O;fDr;ksa dks jDr dk nku dj
(4) A, B, AB, O blood group persons can donate ldrk gS
their blood to O blood group person
(4) A, B, AB, O jDr lewg okys O;fDr] O jDr lewg
150. Which of the following structures are present only okys O;fDr dks viuk jDr nku dj ldrs gSa
in the ventricles of human heart?
150. fuEu esa ls dkSulh lajpuk,¡ ekuo ân; ds dsoy
(1) Papillary muscles (2) Sino atrial node
fuy;ksa esa mifLFkr gksrh gSa\
(3) Myocardium (4) Nodular tissue
(1) isfiysjh is”kh (2) f”kjk&vfyan ioZ
151. How many structure/molecule is/are present
majorly in serum? (3) ek;ksdkfMZ;e (4) uksMy
w j Ård
Fibrinogen, leucocytes, globulins, 151. fdruh lajpuk@v.kq eq[; :Ik ls lhje esa mifLFkr
erythrocytes, thrombocytes gksrh gS@gSa\
(1) One (2) Three Qkbfczukstu, Y;qdkslkbV~l, Xykscwfyu~l,
(3) Four (4) Five bfjFkzkslkbV~l, FkzksEckslkbV~l
152. Choose the correct set of blood cells which are (1),d (2) rhu
involved in phagocytosis
(3) pkj (4) ik¡p
(1) T lymphocyte and B lymphocyte 152. jDr dksf”kdkvksa ds lgh leqPPk; dk p;u dhft;s
(2) Neutrophils and monocytes tks Hk{kdk.kqfØ;k esa lfEefyr gksrs gSaA
(1) T ylhdk.kq rFkk B ylhdk.kq
(3) Monocytes and eosinophils
(2) U;qVªkfs QYl rFkk eksukslkbV~l
(4) Thrombocytes and neutrophils
(3) eksukslkbV~l rFkk b;ksfluksfQy~l
153. Valve which prevents back flow of blood into right (4) FkzkEs ckslkbV~l rFkk U;qVªksfQYl
atrium is
153. dkSulk dikV nk;sa vfyan esa jDr ds Ik”p izokg dks
(1) Semilunar valves jksdrk gS\
(2) Tricuspid valve (1) v/kZpanz dikV
(2) f=oyuh dikV
(3) Bicuspid valve
(3) f}oyuh dikV
(4) Mitral valve
(4) feVªy dikV

(24)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

154. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ventricular 154. fuy;h izdaqpu ds lanHkZ eas xyr dFku dk p;u
systole dhft,A
(1) Blood flow through pulmonary veins into left (1) ck;sa vfyan eas jDr dk izokg Qq¶Qqlh; f”kjkvksa
atrium }kjk gksrk gS
(2) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood (2) “kjhj ds Hkkxksa ls nk;ka vfyan fovkWDlhÑr jDr
from the body parts by Vena cava
egkf”kjk }kjk izkIr djrk gS
(3) Blood flow through pulmonary artery from (3) nk;sa fuy; ls jDr dk izokg Qq¶Qqlh; /keuh
right ventricle
}kjk gksrk gS
(4) Both semilunar valves and AV valves remain
(4) nksuksa v/kZpanz dikVsa rFkk AV dikVsa levk;ruh
open during isovolumetric contraction
ladqpu ds nkSjku [kqyh jgrh gSa
155. Single ventricle pumps mixed blood in body of
which of the following organisms? 155. fuEu esa ls fdl tho ds “kjhj esa ,dy fuy;
(1) Fishes, amphibians
fefJr jDr iai djrk gS\
(1) eNyh] mHkp;j
(2) Amphibians, reptiles
(2) mHk;pj] ljhl`i
(3) Amphibians, crocodiles
(3) mHk;pj] exjePN
(4) Reptiles, birds
(4) ljhl`i] i{kh
156. Left atrium can’t receive oxygenated blood from
156. fdl nkSjku ck;ka vfyan] Qq¶Qql ls vkWDlhÑr jDr
lungs during
izkIr ugha dj ldrk gS\
(1) Joint diastole phase of cardiac cycle
(1) ân; pØ ds la;qDr vuqf”kfFkyu izkoLFkk
(2) Ventricular systole
(2) fuy;h izdaqpu
(3) Ventricular diastole (3) fuy;h vuqf”kfFkyu
(4) Atrial systole (4) vfyan izdaqpu
157. Tunica media consist of 157. eè; dapqd cuk gksrk gS
(1) Flat squamous cells (1) piVh “kYdh dksf”kdkvksa }kjk
(2) Smooth muscle and elastic fibres (2) fpduh is”kh rFkk bykfLVd rarq }kjk
(3) Fibrous connective tissue (3) rarqe; la;ksth Ård }kjk
(4) Collagen fibres and elastic fibres (4) dksystu rarq rFkk bykfLVd rarq }kjk
158. The time interval between the closure and 158. AV dikV ds can gksus rFkk [kqyus ds chp dk le;
opening of AV valve is varjky gksrk gS
(1) 0.5 s (2) 0.3 s (1) 0.5 s (2) 0.3 s
(3) 0.1 s (4) 0.7 s (3) 0.1 s (4) 0.7 s
159. How many cardiac cycles are normally performed
159. ,d LoLFk ekuo }kjk izfr ?k.Vs fdrus ân; pØ
per hour by a healthy human? lkekU;r% laiUUk gksrs gaS\
(1) 72 (2) 90
(1) 72 (2) 90
(3) 70 (4) 4320
(3) 70 (4) 4320 160. fuEu dFkuksa dks if<+;s rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u
160. Read the following statements and select the dhft;sA
correct option.
A : vfr ruko “kCn dk mi;ksx vf/kd le; ds fy,
A : Hypertension is the term for sustained blood
pressure that is higher than normal (120/80).
lkekU; (120/80) ls vf/kd jDr nkc ds fy,
fd;k tkrk gSA
B : When the heart muscles are suddenly
damaged by inadequate blood supply it is B : tc vi;kZIr jDr vkiwfrZ }kjk ân; isf”k;ksa dks
called heart attack. vpkud {kfr igq¡prh gS rks bls gkVZ vVSd dgrs
C : In human heart, specialised cardiac gSaA
musculature called nodal tissue is C : ekuo ân; eas uksMy Ård uked fo”ks’khÑr
autoexcitable. ân; is”khU;kl] Lo&mÙkstuh; gksrk gSA
(1) A and B are correct, C is incorrect (1) A rFkk B lgh gaS, C xyr gS
(2) B and C are correct, A is incorrect (2) B rFkk C lgh gSa, A xyr gS
(3) C and A are correct, B is incorrect (3) C rFkk A lgh gSa, B xyr gS
(4) A, B and C are correct statements (4) A, B rFkk C lgh dFku gSa

(25)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

161. In our kidneys the cortex extends in between the 161. gekjs o`Dd eas oYdqV] eè;ka”k fijkfeM ds chp QSys
medullary pyramids and is called gksrs gSa tks dgykrs gSa
(1) Calyx (2) Columns of Bertini (1) p’kd (2) cjrhuh&LraHk
(3) Renal pelvis (4) Bowman’s capsule (3) o`Dd isfYol (4) cksesu laiqV
162. Select the odd one w.r.t. ureotelic animals 162. ;wfj;k mRlthZ izk.kh ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo’ke dk p;u
(1) Mammals dhft;sA
(2) Terrestrial amphibians (1) LRku/kkjh
(3) Marine fishes (2) LFkyh; mHk;pj
(4) Bony fishes (3) leqnzh eNyh
163. Read the following statements and choose the (4) vfLFky eNyh
option with only correct statements 163. fuEu dFkuksa dks if<+;s rFkk dsoy lgh dFku okys
(a) Some amount of urea may be retained in the fodYi dk p;u dhft;sA
kidney matrix of some of ureotelic animals to (a) dqN ;wfj;k mRlthZ izkf.k;ksa ds o`Ddksa dh vk/kk=h
maintain a desired osmolarity eas visf{kr ijklj.krk dks cuk, j[kus ds fy,
(b) Ammonia is the most toxic nitrogenous waste ;wfj;k dh dqN ek=k jg tkrh gSA
which require large amount of water for its (b) veksfu;k lkokZf/kd ukbVªkstuh vof”k’V inkFkZ gS
removal vkSj blds fu’dklu ds fy, vR;f/kd ty dh
(c) In ammonotelic animals, the main function of vko”;drk gksrh gSA
kidney is osmoregulation (c) veksfu;k mRlthZ izkf.k;ksa esa o`Dd dk eq[; dk;Z
(1) Only a and b (2) Only a and c ijklj.k fu;eu gSA
(3) Only b and c (4) a, b and c (1) dsoy a rFkk b (2) dsoy a rFkk c
164. Green glands perform the excretory function in (3) dsoy b rFkk c (4) a, b rFkk c
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Cephalochordates 164. fdlesa gfjr xzafFk;k¡ ÅRlthZ dk;Z laiUUk djrh gSa\
(3) Prawns (4) Earthworms (1) IysVhgsfYeaFkht (2) lsQSyksdkWMZsV~l
165. Human kidneys are situated between the (3) f>axk (4) dsp
a qvk
(1) Last thoracic vertebra to last lumbar vertebra 165. fdlds chp ekuo o`Dd fLFkr gksrk gS\
(2) Last cervical vertebra to third thoracic vertebra (1) vafre o{kh; d”ks:d ls vafre dfV d”ks:d
(3) Twelfth thoracic vertebra to third lumbar (2) vafre xzhok d”ks:d ls rhljh o{kh; d”ks:d
vertebra (3) ckjoha o{kh; d”ks:d ls rhljh dfV d”ks:d
(4) Fifth lumbar vertebra to sacrum (4) ikapoh dfV d”ks:d ls lsØe
166. oYdqfV; o`Ddk.kq fdl izdkj lkfUUkè; eè;ka”k
166. Cortical nephrons differ from juxta-medullary
nephrons in
o`Ddk.kqvksa ls fHkUUk gksrk gS\
(1) ifjufydk dsf”kdk tky dh mifLFkfr gksrh gS
(1) Presence of peritubular capillary network
(2) vR;f/kd laofyr ufydkvksa dh mifLFkfr gksrh gS
(2) Presence of highly convoluted tubules
(3) yEcs gsuys ywi dh mifLFkfr gksrh gS
(3) Presence of long loop of Henle (4) oklk jsDVk tks vuqifLFkr ;k vR;f/kd gzkflr
(4) Vasa recta, which is absent or highly reduced gksrh gS
167. A fall in glomerular blood flow can activates 167. Xykses:yj jDr izokg esa fxjkoV fdls lfØ; dj
(1) The neurohypophysis to synthesize ADH ldrk gS
(2) JG cells to release rennin (1) ADH ds la”ys’k.k gsrq U;qjksgkbiksQkbfll dks
(3) Renin-angiotensin mechanism (2) jsfUUku ds ekspu gsrq JG dksf”kdkvksa dks
(3) jsfUku-,aft;ksVsfUlu fØ;kfof/k dks
(4) Atria of the heart to release atrial natriuretic
(4) ,fVª;y usfVª;wjsfVd dkjd ds ekspu gsrq ân; ds
factor
vfyan dks
(26)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

168. Select the structure which can’t be present in 168. ml ljapuk dk p;u dhft;s tks o`Dd oYdqV esa
renal cortex mifLFkr ugha gks ldrk gSA
(1) DCT (1) DCT
(2) PCT (2) PCT
(3) Peritubular capillaries (3) ifjufydk dsf”kdk,¡
(4) Vasa recta
(4)oklk jsDVk
169. izfr/kkjk fØ;kfof/k ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk
169. Which of the following statement is incorrect
dFku xyr gS\
w.r.t. counter current mechanism?
(1) NaCl dk ifjogu gsuys ywi ds vkjksgh Hkqtk }kjk
(1) NaCl is transported by ascending limb of
gksrk gS ftldk fofue; oklk jsDVk ds vojksgh
Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the
Hkqtk ds lkFk gksrk gS
descending limb of vasa recta
(2) NaCl, oklk jsDVk ds vkjksgh Hkkx }kjk eè;ka”k
(2) NaCl is returned to the medullary interstitium
varjkdk”kh esa okil vk tkrk gS
by the ascending portion of vasa recta
(3) ;wfj;k dh vYi ek=k gsuys ywi ds vkjksgh Hkqtk
(3) Small amounts of urea enter thin segment of ds irys [k.M esa izos”k djrh gS tks laxzg
the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is ufydk }kjk varjkdk”kh esa okil ifjofgr gks
transported back to the interstitium by the tkrh gS
collecting tubule (4) oklk jsDVk dh vkjksgh Hkqtk rFkk gsuys ywi dh
(4) Ascending limb of vasa recta is found in close vkjksgh Hkqtk ds chp cgqr utnhdh gksrh gS vksj
proximity to ascending limb of loop of Henle blesa izfr/kkjk Hkh gksrh gS
and have counter flow also with it 170. vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft;sA
(1) Xykbdkslwfj;k – ew= eas Xyqdksl
170. Choose the mismatch
dh mifLFkfr
(1) Glycosuria – Presence of
(2) dhVksufw j;k – ew= eas dhVksu
glucose in urine
(2) Ketonuria – Presence of
dk; dh
ketone bodies mifLFkfr
in urine (3) ;wjsfe;k – ew= esa ;wfj;k dh
(3) Uremia – Presence of mifLFkfr
urea in urine (4) Xykses:yksuÝ s kbfVl – o`Dd ds
(4) Glomerulonephritis – Inflammation of Xykses:yh dk
glomeruli of “kksFk
kidney 171. o`Ddk.kq dk dkSulk Hkkx ADH dh mifLFkfr esa
171. The part of nephron involved in maximum fuL;an ds vf/kdre iqujko”kks’k.k esa lfEefyr gksrk
reabsorption of filtrate in the presence of ADH is gS\
(1) Distal convoluted tubule (1) nwjLFk laofyr ufydk
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) lehiLFk laofyr ufydk
(3) Collecting duct (3) laxzg ufydk
(4) Loop of Henle (4) gsuys ywi
172. Which of the following statement is not true? 172. fuEu esa ls dkSUklk dFku xyr gS\
(1) cksesu laiqV rFkk Xykses:yl] o`Dd df.kdkvksa ds
(1) Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus are
structural constituents of renal corpuscles
lajpukRed la?kVd gSa
(2) ew= fuekZ.k eas ijkfuL;anu lcls igyk pj.k
(2) Ultrafiltration is first step in urine formation
gksrk gS
(3) On an average 20-30 mg of urea is excreted
(3) LoLFk O;fDr esa izfrfnu vkSlru 20-30 mg
out per day in healthy individual
;wfj;k dk mRltZu gksrk gS
(4) Small amounts of nitrogenous wastes could (4) ukbVªkts uh vif”k’V inkFkksZa dh vYi ek=k dk
be eliminated through saliva too fu’dklu ykj }kjk Hkh gks ldrk gS
(27)
Test-4 NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021

173. Select the odd one w.r.t constituents of sweat 173. Losn ds la?kVdksa ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo’ke dk p;u
(1) NaCl dhft;sA
(1) NaCl
(2) Urea (2) ;wfj;k
(3) Lactic acid (3) ySfDVd vEy
(4) Sterols (4) fLVjksy

174. The podocyte cells are structural constituents of

174. ink.kq dksf”kdk,¡ fdlds lajpukRed la?kVd gSa\
(1) vXU;k”k;
(1) Pancreas
(2) ân;
(2) Heart (3) o`Dd
(3) Kidney (4) ;Ñr
175. fuEu esa ls ;wfjfuQsjl ufydk dk dkSulk Hkkx dsoy
(4) Liver
ty ds fy, vikjxE; gksrk gS\
175. Which of the following part of uriniferous tubule is (1) DCT
only impermeable to water? (2) gsuys ywi dh vkjksgh Hkqtk
(1) DCT (3) PCT
(2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle (4) gsuys ywi dh vojksgh Hkqtk
176. fuEu dFkuksa dks if<+;s rFkk lgh mÙkj dk p;u
(3) PCT
dhft;A
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle A : Qq¶Qql] mRltZu esa lgk;rk djrs gSa D;ksafd ;s
176. Read the following statements and choose the CO2 rFkk ty dk fu’dklu djrs gSaA
correct answer. B : Losn inkFkksZa ds fu’dklu eas Hkh lgk;d gksrs gSa
ijarq bldk eq[; dk;Z ok’ihdj.k }kjk “kjhj
A : Lungs help in excretion as they remove CO2
lrg dks B.Mk j[kuk gSA
and water
(1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
B : Sweat also help in the elimation of wastes but
it’s primary function is to facilitate a cooling (2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa
effect on the body surface (3) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(1) Both statements are correct
(4) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(2) Both statements are incorrect
177. fdlds vfrfjDr vU; lHkh ekuo mRlthZ ra= esa gksrs
(3) Only statement A is correct
gSaA
(4) Only statement B is correct
(1) ,d tksM+h o`Dd
177. Human excretory system contains all except
(1) A pair of kidney
(2) ,d ew=okfguh
(2) A ureter (3) ,d ew=k”k;
(3) A urinary bladder (4) ,d ew=ekxZ
(4) A urethra 178. dkfMZ,d gkeksZu ANF
178. Cardiac hormone ANF
(1) jsfUku&,aft;ksVfsa lu ,YMksfLVjksu fØ;kfof/k ij
(1) Acts as check on renin angiotensin fu;a=d dk dke djrk gS
aldosterone mechanism
(2) dk L=o.k ân; dh fuy;ksa ls gksrk gS
(2) Is secreted from ventricles of heart
(3) Increases the blood pressure (3) jDr nkc dks c<+krk gS
(4) Increases absorption of water from later part (4) o`Dd ufydkvksa ds ckn okys Hkkx ls ty ds
of renal tubules vo”kks’k.k dks c<+krk gS
(28)
NEET Booster Test Series (NBTS) for NEET -2021 Test-4

179. Incorrect for function of DCT is 179. DCT ds dk;Z ds fy, xyr gS
(1) Reabsorption of Na+ (1) Na+ dk iqujko”kks’k.k
(2) Reabsorption of water (2) ty dk iqujko”kks’k.k
(3) Reabsorption of HCO3− (3) HCO3− dk iqujko”kks’k.k
(4) Reabsorption of K+ (4) K+ dk iqujko”kks’k.k
180. Glomerular filtration occurs through filtration 180. XYkkse:
s yj fuL;anu] fuL;anu f>YYkh }kjk gksrk gS
membrane which contains all except ftlesa fdlds vfrfjDr vU; lHkh gksrs gSa\
(1) Epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule (1) cksesu laiqV dh midyk dksf”kdk,¡
(2) Epithelial cells of glomerular blood capillaries (2) Xykses:yj jDr dsf”kdkvksa dh midyk dksf”kdk,¡
(3) Epithelial cells of efferent arteriole (3) viokgh /kefudk dh midyk dksf”kdk,¡
(4) Basement membrane (4) vk/kkjh f>Yyh
❑ ❑ ❑

(29)