VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam

MBBS
BDS
B.Sc. Nursing
Nepal's Largest Paramedical/Applied Sciences
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BPKIHS Based Model Examination

INSTRUCTIONS:

There are 200 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) each question having four choices of which only one
choice is correct. Fill mark to correct option.

• Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.

• Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
• Make the marks ONLY in the space provided.
• Please DO NOT make any stray marks on the answer sheet.
• Use gel pen. DO NOT use ball pen or pencil.

Date : 2069-11-19 Saturday

Time : 08:00 AM-11:00 AM
Venue : VIBRANT Building
Full Marks : 200

VIBRANT MBBS ENTRANCE PREPARATION

New Plaza, Putalisadak, (Beside Nepal Yatayat Stoppage)
Kathmandu, Nepal, GPO: 763, Ph +977-1-4426149/4440184
Email: info@vibrant.com.np, www.vibrant.com.np
Join: www.facebook.com/vibrantmbbs

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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam
1. ±0.003g, radius 0.5 ±0.005 mm and length 6±
A wire has a mass 0.3± ± 0.06 cm. The maximum percentage
error in the measurement of density is:
a.1 b.2 c.3 d.4
2. The distance S of a particle is increasing linearly with time t as s= bt. Then the acceleration of particle
is:
a. zero b. b c. infinite d. -b
3. An object is dropped from rest. Its v-t graph is:
a. b. c. d.
V V
V V

t t t t
4. The angle between (
 x ) and (

 + ) is:
a. O b. π/4 c. π/2 d. π
5. A projectile of mass m is thrown with a velocity v making an angle of 450 with the horizontal. When
the particle lands on the ground, the magnitude of the change in momentum would be (Neglet air
resistance): V

A 450 B

a. 2mV b. √2 mv c. mv/√2 d. zero

6. A particle of mass 'm' is moving in a circular path of radius R with frequency 'n' and time period T. Its
centripetal acceleration can be expressed as:
a. 4π²R²n b. 4π²RT c. 4π²Rn² d. . 4π²R²T²
7. The pendulum of clock is made of brass. If the clock keeps correct time at 200c, how many seconds
per day will it lose at 350c:
∝ brass= 2x10-5 oC-1)
(∝
a. 12.3 sec b. 36.9 sec c. 24.6 sec d.49.2 sec
8. A bock B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity 'v'. If µ is the
coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, the block B will come to rest after a time.

B v

a. µg/v b. g/v c. v/g d. v/µg

∧ ∧ ∧
9. A body of mass 2 kg is travelling with a velocity of (2l+3j-4k) m/s. What is its kinetic energy?
a. 29j b. 9j c.58j d. 1j
10 A mass of 1 kg is thrown up with a velocity of 100m/s. After 5 second it explodes into two parts. One
part of mass 400g comes down with a velocity 25 m/s. Calculate the velocity of the other part:
a. 40 m/s vertically upward b. 40 m/s vertically downward
c. 100 m/s vertically upward d. 60 m/s vertically upward
11. A simple pendulum with a bob of point mass 'm' and length 'r' is made to move along a circular path
in the vertical plane. If velocity of the bob at the lowest point in the path is v, then the bob performs
oscillatory motion if:
a. v>√5 rg b. V= 5
 c. V< 2
 d. 5
 >V>2

12. Fig. represents a disc of mass M and radius R, lying in XY plane with its centre on X-axis at a distance
'b' from the origin. The moment of inertia of the disc about Y-axis is:

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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam

O R X

 ²  ² ² ²
a.

b. . 
c. M    ² d. M    ²

13. A satellite in vacuum:

a. is kept in orbit by remote control b. is kept in orbit by solar energy
c. derives energy from gravitational field d. doesnot require any energy for orbiting
14. The upper end of a wire, 1 m long of 4 mm radius is clamped . The lower end is twisted by an angle
of 300. The angle of shear at the surface is:
a. 120 b. 0.120 c. 1.20 d. 0.0120
15. I is denoted as current. The dimension of permittivity of vacuum is:
a. M-1 L-3 T+4I² b. M-1 L-3T²I4 c. M-1L-2 T3I4 d. ML²T-3I-4
16. Two stretched membranes of area 2m² and 3 m² are placed in a liquid at the same depth. The ratio of
the pressure on them is:
a. 1:1 b. 2:3 c. √2 : √3 d. 2²:3²
17. Volume 'V' of water flows out per second through the first capillary tube having radius a & length L
when connected to a pressure head p. If a tube of same length & radius (a/2) is connected in parallel
and combination is connected to same pressure head, then quantity of water flowing out per second
through these tubes will be:
 
a. V b. V/16 c.  V d. .

18. To measure temperature most accurately one should use
a. Thermocouple thermometer b. Resistance thermometer
c. Constant volume gas thermometer d. Mercury thermometer'
19. Latent heat of ice is 80 cal/g. A man melts 60gm of ice by chewing in one minute. Then the power of man is:
a. 80W b. 4800W c. 336W d. 19 W
20. The number of degrees of freedom of each molecule of a monatomic gas is:
a. 1 b. 3 c. 6 d. 9
21. Which of the following is a thermodynamic function?
a. work b. internal energy c. heat d. temperature
22. A rod AB has a length 150cm. The temperature of A is maintained at 100 c, while temperature of B at
0

250c. Then in steady state the temperature of a point P at a distance 50 cm from the end B will be:
a. 800c b. 750c c. 500c d. 250c
23. The electrostatic potential in a region is given by V= (5x +10x²-9) volt. What is the value of electric
3

field at x= 2m?
a. 100 V/m along positive X-axis b. 100 V/m along negative X-axis
c. 91 V/m along positive x-axis d. 86/3 V/m along negative X-axis
24. A sheet of aluminum foil of negligible thickness is placed exactly midway between the plates of a
parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C as shown in figure. When the foil is touched to inner plate
through a conducting wire. The capacitance of capacitor will become /remain:
a. C b. C/2 c. 2C d. 4C

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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam

d/2
d

25. A billion electrons pass through a cross-section of a conductor in 10-3 second. What is the current in
ampere?
a. 1.6 x 10-7 A b. 1.6x10-9A c.1.6x10-8A d. 1.6x10-6A
26. If an electric current is passed through a nerve, the man:
a. begins to laugh b. begins to weep
c. is excited d. becomes insensitive to pain
27. Two bulbs 100W, 250V & 200W, 250V are connected in parallel across a 500V line. Then:
a. 100W bulb will be fused b. 200W bulb will be fused
c. both bulbs will be fused d. no bulbs will be fused
28. If a current is passed in a thermo-couple formed of two dis-similar metals, one junction is heated &
the other is cooled. If π1 andππ2 are the peltier coefficients of cold & hot junctions, then the net emf
across the junction is:
π π
a.    b. ( π2-π1) c. π  - π  d. √π π
29. A helium nucleus makes full rotation in a circle of radius 0.8m in 2 second. The value of magnetic
µo = permeability constant)
field B at the centre of the circle will be: (µ
  
a. 10-19/µo b. 10-19µo c. 2x10-19 µo d.
µ!
30. Two parallel wires carrying current in opposite directions:
a. Repel each other b. Attract each other
c. Cancel each other d. Neither attract nor repel
31. The current sensitivity of moving coil galvanometer can be increased by decreasing:
a. the number of turns in the coil b. the area of the coil
c.the magnetic field d. the couple per unit twist of suspension
32. A steel wire of length L has a magnetic moment M. It is bent in L- shape. (Fig). The new magnetic
moment is:

L/2

L/2
a. M b. M/√2 c. M/2 d. 2M
33. When a bar magnet falls through a long hollow metal cylinder fixed with its axis vertical, the final
acceleration of the falling magnet is:
a. equal to g b. less than g but finite c. greater than g d. equal to zero
34. A magnetic flux of 500 micrometers passing through a 200 turn coil is reversed in 20x10-3 s. The
average emf induced in the coil in volts is:
a. 2.5 b. 5 c. 7.5 d. 10
35. In a pure inductive circuit, the current:
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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam
a. lags behind the applied emf by an angle π b. lags behind the applied emf by an angle π/2
c. leads the applied emf by an angle π/2 d. and applied emf are in same phase
36. In the circuit shown, the resonant frequency is:
5µF

0.1H 5Ω

a. 22KC/S b. 220 KC/S c. 0.22 KC/S d. 0.22 MC/s

37. Sodium has body centred packing. Distance between two nearest atom is 3.7A0. The lattice parameter is:
a. 4.3A0 b. 3.0A0 c. 8.6 A0 d. 6.8A0
38. Monochromatic light of wavelength 667nm is produced by a helium neon Laser. The power emitted is
9 mW. The number of photons arriving per second and on the average at a target irradiated by the
beam is:
a. 3x1016 b. 9x1015 c. 3x1019 d. 9x1017
39. Which of the following is a good nuclear fuel?
a. Thorium-236 b. Neptunium -239 c. Plutionium-239 d. Uranium-236
40. The mass of a lift is 2000Kg. When the tension in the supporting cable is 28000N, then its acceleration
is:
a. 4m/s² upward b. 4m/s² downwards
c. 14 m/s² upwards d. 30m/s² downwards
41. Colour of sky is due to:
a. scattering of light b. Reflection c. Refraction d. Polarization
42. Zener diodes are used for:
a. Rectification b. amplification c.stabilization of voltage d. detector
43. Which electromagnetic wave is detected by our eye?
a. infrared b. X-ray c. violet d. ultraviolet
44. A 100W lamp is suspended at a height of 5m above the centre of a table. The intensity at the centre of
table in watt/m² is
a. 4 b. 4π c.1/π d. 1/4π
45. A ray is reflected by three plane mirrors mutually at right angles to each other. The angle between the
incident and reflected rays is:
a. 0 b. π/2 c. π d. 3π/2
46. A source of sound is moving with velocity 50m/s towards stationary observer. The observer measures
the frequency of sources as 1000Hz. What will be apparent frequency of source when it is moving
away from observer after crossing him?
a. 750Hz b. 857 Hz c. 1143 Hz d. 1333Hz
47. With increase in temperature frequency of sound from an organ pipe:
a. increases b. decreases
c. remains unchanged d. changes erratically
48. The intensity of sound after passing through a slab decreases by 20%. On passing through two such
slabs, the intensity will decrease by:
a. 50% b. 40% c. 36% d. 30%
49. A sonometers string and tuning fork when sounded together gives 6 beats/sec. Whether length of
sonometer string is 95cm or 100cm. The frequency of tuning fork is:
a. 262 b.256 c. 260 d. 234
50. In secondary rainbow what is the order of colours observed from earth:
a. violet inner most, red outer most b. red inner most, violet outer most
c. random d. white and dark alternatively
51. Density of lithium atom is 0.53 g/cm3. The edge length of Li is 3.5 Ao. Find out the number of lithium
atom in a unit cell. Atomic mass of lithium is 6.94.
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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
52. Schotky defect occurs mostly in which type of compound?
a. High coordination number and size of anion & cation are similar
b. High coordination number and size of anion & cation are greatly different
c. Low coordination number and size of anion & cation are similar
d. Low coordination number and size of anion & cation are greatly different
53. Equal weight of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 250c. The fraction of the
total pressure exerted by hydrogen is:
a.1/2 b. 1/16 c. 1/8 d. 15/16
54. The vanderwall's equation of state for a non ideal gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular forces
is:
a. (V-b) b. RT c. (P+a/V²) d. (RT)-1
55. Which of the following modes of expressing concentration is independent of temperature?
a. Molarity b. Molality c. Formality d. Normality
56. Which of the following is not a colligative property?
a. Osmotic pressure b. Elevation of b.pt. c. Depression of f.pt d. Vapour pressure
57. What will be the osmotic pressure of 0.05 M solution of sucrose at 5 C?
0

a. 1.14 atm b. 2.28 atm c. 1.05 atm d. 2.10 atm

58. 0.5 gm of a metal on oxidation gave 0.79 gm of its oxide. The equivalent weight of the metal is:
a.10 b.14 c. 20 d.40
59. Which one of the following has the highest bond order?
a. O2 b. O2+ c. O2- d. O22-
60. The interatomic distances in H2 and Cl2 molecules are 74 and 198 ppm respectively. The bond length
of HCl is:
a. 272 pm b. 136 pm c. 124 pm d. 248 pm
61. Which of the following is Lewis acid?
a. HCOOH b. H2SO4 c. SiF4 d. H2S
62. Oxidation state of phosphorous in pyrophosphoric acid is:
a. +5 b. +3 c. +4 d. +1
63. Which of the following cannot give iodometric titrations?
a. Fe3+ b. Cu²+ c. Pb2+ d. Ag+
64. For the reaction, H2(g) + I2 (g) ⇋ 2 HIHI (g). The equilibrium constant Kp changes with:
a. total pressure b. catalyst c. amounts of I2 and H2 d. temperature
65. Vapour density of PCl5 is 70.2 at 2000c. Its degree of dissociation is:
a. 0.97 b. 0.242 c. 0.327 d. 0.485
66. A monoprotic acid in a 0.1M solution ionizes to 0.0016. It's ionization constant is:
a. 1.0 x10-3 b. 1.0x10-6 c. 1.0x10-8 d. 1.0x10-11
67. PH of solution is 4. The OH- concentration in solution is:
a. 10-10 mol/litre b. 10-4 mol/litre c. 10-14 g mol/litre d. 10-6 g mol/litre
68. In a reaction 2A+B → A2B, the reactant a will disappear at:
a. Half the rate at that B will decrease b. the same rate at that B will decrease
c. twice the rate at which B will decrease d. greater but not twice the rate at which B
will decrease
69. If 900 j/g of heat is exchanged at boiling point of water, then what is increase in entropy?
a. 43.4 j/mole k b. 87.2 j/mole k c. 900 j/mole K d. 450 j/mole K
70. Hess law deals with:
a. Rate of reaction b. changes in heat of reaction
c. equillibrium constant d. influence of pressure on volume of gas
71. Consider the following Eovalues. Eo Fe3+/Fe2+=+0.77V,EOSn2+/Sn=-0.14V
Under standard condition the potential for the reaction: Sn (s)+2Fe3+ (aq.) → 2Fe2+ (aq.) +sn2+(aq.) is:
a. +1.68 V b. -1.68V c. +0.91 V d. -0.91V
72. If a strip of copper metal is placed in a solution of ferrous sulphate:
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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam
a. copper will precipitate out b. Iron will precipitate out
c.Copper and iron both will be dissolved d. No reaction will take place
73. Lanthanides contraction is due to increase in:
a. Shielding by f-electrons b. Atomic weight
c. effective nuclear charge d. size of 4f - orbital
74. By which of the following process permanent hardness of water can be removed:
a. sodium carbonate b. sodium bicarbonate
c. sodium chloride d. calcium chloride
75. Potassium can be prepared by:
a. Heating potassium carbonate with coke b. Electrolysis of fused KCl
c. Heating potassium fluoride with calcium carbide d. All of these
76. The reaction of CaC2 with N2 gives:
a. Ca3N2 b. CN c. CaCN2+C d. C
77. Which of the following is not a protonic acid?
a. SO2 (OH)2 b. B(OH)3 c. PO (OH)3 d. SO (OH)2
78. Silica with hydrogen fluoride gives:
a. SiF4 b. OF2 c. H2O d. H2SiF6
79. The process of heating mixture of KNO3, FeSO4 and dil.H2SO4 produces the gas:
a. NO b. N2O c. NO2 d. N2O3
80. Which of the following oxyacid of sulphur has -O-O- bond?
a. H2S2O6 b. H2S2O4 c. H2S2O8 d. H2S2O3
81. Chlorine and hot sodium hydroxide produces:
a. NaClO +H2O B. NaCl+H2O
C. NaCl+NaClO+H2O d. NaCl+NaClO3+H2O
82. Beside Mac Arthur Forrest process which of the following process is another method for production
of gold?
a. Parke's process b. Plattner chlorine process
c. Pattinsons' process d. Electrolysis process
83. White of an egg is best antidote for which dangerous poison?
a. Potassium cyanide b. Mercurous chloride
c. Mercuric chloride d. None of these
84. The IUPAC name of complex K[Ag(CN)2] is:
a. Potassium argentodicyanite b. Potassium dicyanoargentum (I)
c. Argentum potassium dicyanide (I) d. Potassium dicyanoargentate (I)
85. EAN for Fe in [ Fe (CN)6] complex is:
4-

a. 34 b. 35 c. 36 d. 37
86. The ion which is not present in group 3rd in identification of basic radicals is:
a. As3+ b. Fe3+ c.Al3+ d. Cr3+
87. The compound can be known by which name:

a. Bicyclo- [2,2,1] octane b. Bicyclo-[2,2,2)octane

c. Bicyclo-[1,2,1] octane d. Bicyclo- [1,1,1] octane
88. Resonance structure of molecule doesnot have:
a. Identical bonding b. Identical arrangement of atoms
c. Nearly the same energy content d. the same no. of paired electrons
89. Which of the following doesnot show geometrical isomerism?
a. 1,2- dichloro-1-pentene b. 1,3 - dichloro-2-pentene
c.1,1-dichloro-1-pentene d.1,4-dichloro-2-pentene
90. No bond resonance explains the stability of the following:
a. Benzyne b. carbanions c. free radicals d. carbocations
91. Ethyl magnesium iodide reacts with propylamine to give:
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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam
a. propane b. ethyl alcohol c. ethene d. ethane
92. Benzene on Ozonolysis in presence of H2O and Zn gives:
a. Glyoxal b. Acetone c. Ethanol d. Methanol
93. which of the following is known as camphor substitute?
a. CHCl3 b. CF2Cl2 c. CF3CHClBr d. C2Cl6
94. Decarboxylation of sodium salicylate with sodalime forms:
a.Salicyclic acid b. Phenol c. Benzene d. Salicyaldehyde
95. The rate of esterification of alcohols is more for:
a. CH3OH b. C2H5OH c. (CH3)2 CHOH d. (CH3)3 COH
96. On boiling with concentrated HBr, phenyl ethyl ether will give:
a. Phenol & ethyl bromide b. Bromobenzene & ethanol
c. Phenol & ethane d. Bromobenzene & ethane
97. CH3CH=CHCHO is oxidized to CH3CH=CHCOOH using:
a. Alkaline KMnO4 b. Selenium dioxide c. Ammonical AgNO3 d. K2Cr2O7/H+
98. Which one of the following has maximum acid strength?
a. O-nitrobenzoic acid b. m-Nitrobenzoic acid
c. P-Nitrobenzoic acid d. P-nitrophenol
99. Hydrolysis of acetonitrile in acidic medium gives:
a. CH3CH2OH b. CH3COOH c. CH3NC d. CH3CHO
100. Which one of the following has ester linkage?
a. Nylon b. Bakellite c. Terylene d. PVC
101. Organelles can be separated from cell homogenate by:
a. Chromatography b. X-ray diffraction
c. differential centrifugation d. Auto radiography
102. In operon model, RNA polymerase binds to:
a. Structural gene b. Promoter gene
c. Regulator gene d. Operator gene
103. Bacteria responsible for nitrification come under the following groups:
a. Coccus b. Bacillus c. Comma d. Spiral
104. Number of prothallial cells present in male gametophyte of flowering plant is:
a. Three b. two c. one d. zero
105. Which of the following plant yields sun hemp?
a. cannabis b. crotalaria c. corchorus d. Hibiscus
106. Stomata opens at night and close during day time in:
a. xerophytes b. Mesophytes c. Succulents d. Hydrophytes
107. Which statement about photosynthesis is true?
a. Pr absorbs yellow light and becomes Pfr b. Pfr absorbs red light and becomes Pr
c. Pr absorbs red light and becomes Pfr d. Pfr absorbs yellow light and becomes Pr
108. Hydroponics is:
a. Cultivation of plants in water b. Growth of plants towards water
c. Growth of plants away from water d. Soil less cultivation of plants
109. Induction of flowering by low temperature treatment in plants is:
a. Cryobiology b. Vernalization c. Theromo-tropism d. Prunning
110. They have raised cheek bones, oblique eyes and yellowish skin colour. Here 'they' refers to:
a. Adrenoids b. Negroids c. Mongoloids c. Africans
111. The enzyme used in polymerase chain reaction is:
a.Taq polymerase b. RNA polymerase c. Ribonuclease d. Endonuclease
112. Carbondioxide acceptor in C3-plants is:
a. PEP b. RUDP c. PGA d. PGAL
113. NADPH2 is generated through:
a. Glycolysis b. Photo system-I
c. Photosystem - II d. Anaerobic respiration
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114. Casparian stripes are characteristics of:
a. Pith b. Cortex c. Pericycle d.Endodermis
115. The fastest acting enzyme in biological kingdom is:
a. Lipase b. Amylase c. Peptidase d. Carbonic anhydrase
116. Fern prothallus is:
a. Homothallic b. Heterothallic c. Heteromorphic d. Heterotrophic
117. Which of the following enzyme is absent is golgi complex?
a. Choline transferase b. Glycosyl transferase
c. Thiamine pyrophosphate d. choline phosphotransferase
118. Meiosis II performs:
a. Seperation of allosomes b. Seperation of chromatids
c. Seperation of homologous chromosomes d. Synthesis of DNA and centromere
119. Indirect transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another through a bacteriophage is known as:
a. Conjugation b. Transformation c.Translation d. Transduction
120. Which of the following structure helps in the respiration of lichen?
a. Soredia b. Cyphella c.Isidia d. Cephalodia
121. Gynocomastia is the symptom of:
a. Down's syndrome b. SARS
c.Turner's Syndrome d. Kleinfelter's syndrome
122. Root hair develops from:
a. zone of cell elongation b. zone of mature cell
c. root cap d. zone of cell maturation
123. The positive evidence of aquatic ancestry of bryophytes is indicated by:
a. Biflagellate gamete b. Peristomial teeth
c. gametophytic body d. ciliated sperms
124. Association between Barnacles and Limulus is:
a. Commensalism b. Parasitism c.Symbiosis d. Predatorship
125. Pollen grains are able to tolerate extremes of temperature and dessication because their exine consists
of:
a. cutin b. sporopollenin b. callose d. suberin
126. Pacinian corpuscles are receptors of:
a. Pain b. Temperature c. Pressure d. Movement
127. Ellipsoid joint is found between:
a. Humerus and radius b. Tibia and fibula
c. radius and carpals d. metacarpals & phalanges
128. Hormone adrenaline is formed from:
a. Tyrosine b. Proline c. Tryptophan d. Glycine
129. Melanocytes, melanin containing cells are present in:
a. Stratum corneum b. Stratum granulosum
c. Deep germinative layer d. Dermis
130. The opening of spermathecae in earthworm are found on:
a. 6,7,8,9 segment ventrolaterally b. 6,7,8,9 segment dorsally
c. 6,7,8,9 segment laterally d. 6,7,8,9 segment dorsolaterally
131. The main function of ambulacral system in echinoderm is:
a. Defence b. circulation c. food collection d. locomotion
132. Phallic gland in cockroach is related to:
a. male excreatory system b. male reproductive system
c.female excreatory system d. female reproductive system
133. Sigmoid notch is found in:
a. Radius b. Ulna c.Fibula d. Tibia
134. The veins whose union gives rise to anterior abdominal vein in frog are:
a. Pelvic b. sciatic c. Femoral d. Renal portal
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135. In which vertebra of the rabbit the neural spine is long and directed backwards?
a. Thoracic b. Cervical c. Sacral d. Lumbar
136. Total filtrate formed in 24 hours in human kidney is:
a. 1.8 litre b. 8.0 litre c. 18 litre d. 180 litre
137. Which of the following is absent from smooth muscle cell?
a. calcium b. myosin c. actin d. troponin
138. First ECG recorded on human body was by:
a. Waller b. Einthoven c. Berger d. Chardack
139. The blastopore of gastrula represents:
a. future mouth b. Future anus
c. Future nasal opening d. Future genital opening
140. Upwardly directed pigmented part of frog's egg is related with:
a. colouration b. camouflage c. respiration d. supply of nutrients
141. The most important characteristic features of birds is:
a. forelimbs modified into wings b. bipedal vertebrate
c. Homoithermal d.Exoskeleton of feathers
142. The piercing elements in the mouth part of anopheles mosquito are:
a. Labrum & labium b. Maxilla and mandible
c. Hypopharynx and labrum d. labium & mandible
143. 'Neoteny' is related to:
a. North America due to serial flow of iodine b. Genetic feature of some amphibians
c.Alternation of generation in life cycle d. Development of sex organs in larva
144. Which of the following plant yields an anticancer drug?
a. leaves of Vinca rosea b. Leaves of Cassica
c. Roots of Rawolfia d. Seeds of Papaver
145. The stage of Entamoeba histolytica that causes intestinal ulceration is:
a. Trophozoite b. Metacystic trophozoite
c.Binucleate cyst d. Tetranucleate cyst
146. Sea mouse belongs to the phylum:
a. Mollusca b. Echinodermata c. Annelida d. Chordata
147. Lateral oesophageal hearts in earthworm connects:
a. Dorsal to ventral vessel b. Dorsal to subneural vessels
c. Dorsal and supraoesophageal with ventral d.Lateral oesophageal & supraoesophageal
148. Suspensory ligament is a part of:
a. Tongue b. Brain c. Heart d. Eye
149. An increased responsiveness to a stimulus is known as:
a. Sensitization b. Habituation c. Imprinting d. Orientation
150. Respiratory movements are controlled by:
a. cerebellum b. cerebrum c. Medulla oblongata d.Hypothalamus
151. Bureaucracy is:
a. rule by nobility b. Rule by official desk
c. Rule by wealthy people d. rule by king
152. One who walks in his sleep:
a. somnambulist b. soliquist c. somniloquent d. Garrulous
153. The girl has _______________ hair.
a. Black, long, beautiful b. Beautiful, long, black
c. Black, beautiful, long d. Long, beautiful, black
154. Kennel is related to dog in the same way as sty is related to:
a. Pig b. sheep c. camel d. cattle
155. Numismatist:
a. Studies and collects coins b. writes for newspaper
c. studies plants d. collects postage stamps
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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam
156. Promise given by a prisoner not to escape:
a. Bail b. Guarantee c. Parole d. None
157. The expression ' full swing' means:
a. to use the rope b. reckless c. at full speed d. anxious
158. The art of beautiful handwriting is called:
a. calligraphy b. calisthenics c. Aesthetics d. Lexicography
159. 'To bury the hatchest' means:
a. Hide the antique b. Became relatives c. Gave up enemity d. Got the oath
160. Book: bag::
a. Revolver: holster b. Page:Book c. Bricks: House d. Kennel: Dogs
161. 'Look upto' means:
a. Respect b. Investigate
c. Take care of d. Expecting with pleasure
162. An agreement to stop fighting:
a. accord b. treaty c. compromise d. armistice
163. As solitary as a/an:
a. Amoeba b. tomb c. peahen d. licero
164. Tete-e- tete means:
a. by virture of merit b. informal conversation c. in open air d. of high goals
165. False statement to damage a persons reputation:
a. liable b. libel c. liberal d. liberty
166. Boredom & frustration in life:
a. Ennui b. Elite c. Virago d. Heretic
167. Policemen riding on Motorcycles as VIPS guards:
a. ADCS b. Commandos c. In riders d. Out riders
168. He evaded ____________income tax.
a. to pay b. to paying c. paying d. Against paying
169. Eggs are usually sold___________
a. in dozen b. in the dozen c. by dozen d. by the dozen
170. The district collector ____________ the prizes to the winners at the end of the function.
a. gave out b. gave away c. gave back d. gave up
171. It costs about thirty rupees to have a tooth________
a. filling b. filled c. to fill d. fill
Synonyms:
172. FEIGN
a. Hesitate b. Pretend c. Deserve d. Attend
173. MURKY:
a. Ugly b. Dishonest c. Dull d. Lazy
Antonyms
174. DECEIT:
a. Reality b. Trust c. Truthfulness d. Fact
175. DETRIMENTAL:
a. Beneficial b. Injurious c. Useful d. Destructive
176. Which of the following disease in 100% fatal?
a. Tuberculosis b. Rabies c. Myocardial infraction d. Poliomyelitis
177. The best method of teaching urban slums about ORS is:
a. Flash card b. Lectures c. Demonstration d. Role play
178. Most affected district due to Arsenic poisoning in Nepal is:
a. Nawalparasi b. Kapilvastu c. Siraha d. Saptari
179. As antenatal care a pregnant woman should take:
a. Vit D & Vit C b. Vit. & Iron c. Iron & folic acid d. Vit B12 & Iodine
180. Which of the following may cause ulcer in stomach?
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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam
a. Ampicilin b. Aspirin c. Paracetamol d. Albendazole
181. An AIDS patient in your neighbor cuts his finger and it is bleeding severely, you will:
a. Give first aid b. take him to hospital
c. call the doctor d. leave it as it is not your business
182. A 10 days old baby is unable to suck breast; has general rigidity of body & bluish discoloration of
body. What could be the disease?
a. Diptheria b. Tetanus neonatrum c.Pertusis d. tuberculosis
183. Food can't be given or be given lithe in the disease related to:
a.Pleura b. Meninges c. Liver d. Kidney
184. Paraplegia refers to paralysis of:
a. Both legs b. upper two limbs c. one limb only d. whole body
185. The first clinical sign during the vit. A deficiency is:
a. night blindness b. conjunctival xerosis c. Bitot's spots d. keratomalacia
186. Umblical cord contains:
a. 2 arteries and 1 vein b. 2 veins and 1 artery c.1 artery and 1 vein d. 1 vein & no artery
187. Lymph differs from blood in having:
a. only WBCs b. more WBCs & fewer RBCs
c.more RBCs & fewer WBCs d. Both RBCs & WBCs
188. Apneusti centre & pneumotaxic centre are located in:
a. Pons vorolli b. Medulla oblongata c. cerebrum d.carebellum
189. The most current medical practice is:
a. Ayurveda b. Allopathy c. Homeopathy d. Unani
190. Wearing foods are:
a. supplementary food for infants b. complementary food for children
c. birthday dishes d. royal dishes
191. 'God is truth and light is shadow', who quoted this?
a. Aristotle b. Arastu c. Plato d. Rosseau
192. 'Father of economics' is:
a. Charles smith b. Adam smith c. Julian smith d. Ahmed smith
193. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 18
194. What is the full form of KLT?
a. Kist Language Terminal b. Korean Language Test
c. Kathmandu Logic Test d. Korean Logic Test
195. In the 85th Oscar award; the best director was nominated from?
a. Life of pie b. Aargo c. The Heart Locker d. Twilight
196. Which of the following Malla King is also called as 'Social reformer'?
a. Narendra Malla b. Jayasthiti Malla c. Pratap Malla d. Yognarendra Malla
197. Who is the first Nepali woman to scale Mt. Everest twice a week?
a. Chhurim Sherpa b. Junko Tabei c. Chhiring Sherpa d. None of these
198. 'The tempest' was the master piece of:
a. John Ruslein b. Elliot c. Shakespeare d. Churchill
199. Nepal became the member of UN in:
a. 1947 b. 1955 c. 1971 d. 1985
200. Currency of Italy is:
a. Lira b. Bhat c. Dinar d. Yen

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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam

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BPKIHS Based Model Examination

Hints and Solutions

Date: 2069-11-19, Saturday
Time: 08:00 AM – 11:00 AM

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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam
1.d ρ = m/v = m/πr2L
Or, ∆ρ/ρ × 100 % = (∆m/m + 2∆r/r + ∆L/L) × 100%
= [0.003/0.3 + 2 (0.0005/0.5) + 0.06/6] × 100 %
= 1+ 2 + 1 = 4%
2.a s = bt
Or, ds/dt = b (Differentiating with respect to dt)
Or, dv/dt = 0 (Differentiating with respect to dt)
Therefore, a = 0
3.a With increase in time, velocity increases linearly for a body dropped from rest.
4.c (" × #
 ) is ⊥r to both " $%& # as ("  #
 ) is in plane of " and #
 , hence angle between (" × #
 ) and ("  #
 ) is π/2.
5.b Change in momentum = 2 mu sin θ = 2 mv × 1/ 2 = 2 mV
6.c Angular acceleration (a) = w2R = (2πn)2R = 4π2n2R
7.a Loss of seconds/day (∆t) = 1/2 ∝ ∆θ × t
= 1/2 × 2 × 15 × 86400 ≈ 12.96 sec
8.d Retardation (a) = µmg/m = µg
Also, v = u - at or, v = at = µgt ⇒ t = v/µg
9.a KE = 1/2 mv = 1/2 x 2 x |2 '̂ + 3)* - 4 +
2 , )|2
= |2 '̂ + 3)* - 4 +
, )|2 = 4 + 9 + 16 = 29J
10.c After 5 second, velocity of 1 kg piece,
V = u - gt = 100 - 10 x 5 = 50 m/s
By conservation of momentum
Mv = m1v1 + m2v2
Taking upward direction positive,
1 x 50 = -0.4 x 25 + 0.6v2
⇒ v2 = 100 m/s upward
11.c If a body tied to one end of a light inextensible string of length 'r' is given horizontal velocity v, then condition for
oscillation is V ≤ 2rg .
12.c Moment of inertia of disc about a diameter is: Ig = MR2/4
By, theorem of parallel axis moment of inertia of disc about y-axis is:
I = Ig + Mb2 = MR2/4 + Mb2 = M(R2/4 + b2)
13.d
14.b θ = rφ/L = ( 4 x 10-3m / 1) × 30o = 0.12o
15.a F = 1/4π-o × q1q2/r2
Or, . o = q1q2/4πFr2 = Q2/Fr2 = I2T2/MLT-2 × L2 = [M-1L-3T4I2]
16.a p = ρdg is independent of area.
17.c For capillaries in parallel, 1/Reqv = 1/R1 + 1/R2
Or, Reqv = R1R2/R1 + R2 = R1 x 16R1 / R1 + 16R1 = 16/17 R1
Therefore, Veqv/V = R1/Reqv = 17/16 ⇒ Veqv = 17/16 V
18.c
19.c P = mL/t = 60 x 80 / 60 = 80 cal/s = 80 x 4.2 J/s = 336 W
20.b
21.b Internal energy depends only on state of system and is thermodynamic function.
22.c Temperature gradient ∆θ/∆L = 100 - 25 / 150=( 1/2)oC/m
Temperature of P = TB + ∆θ/∆L (length BP) = 25 + 1/2 x 50 = 50oC
23.b V = 5 x 3 + 10 x 2 - 9 Therefore, E = - dv/dx = - [ 15x2 + 20x]
At x = 2m, E = - [15 x (2)2 + 20 x 2] = - 100 v/m
24.c C = . oA/d
Net effective seperation become d/2

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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam
Therefore, C' = . oA/(d/2) = 2C
25.a I = q/t = ne/t = 109 x 1.6 x 10-19/10-3 = 1.6 x 10-7 A
26.c
27.c In parallel p.d across each bulb is same equal to applied voltage of 500V, which is more than permissible voltage,
so both bulbs will get fused.
28.b
29.b Magnetic field at centre of circle, B = µoni/2r also, I = 2e/T
Therefore, B = µo2e/2rT = µo x 2 x 1.6 x 10 / 2 x 0.8 x 2 = 10-19µo
-19

30.a Opposite currents repel due to magnetic interaction.

31.d
32.b We have; magnetic moment (M) = mL

Therefore, M' =m  12 + 12 = mL

 2  2 2
Therefore, M'/M = 1/ 2 ⇒ M' = M/ 2
33.d
34.d Emf (e) N∆φ/∆t = N (φ2 - φ1)/∆t = N(φ - (-φ)/∆t = N (2φ/∆t)
= 10 V (putting values)
35.b Hint: Use CIVIL
6
/
1 R2
LC - L2 = 1/2 x 3.14 0.135310 5 .². = 0.22 kc/s
36.c f = 1/2 π 4

37.a In bcc Lattice; d = 3 /2 a = 3 /2 × 3.7Å = 4.3 Å

38.a N = P/(hc/ λ) = p λ/hc = 3 x 1016 (putting values)
39.c
40.a T-mg=Ma
⇒ T= m (g+a)
⇒ 28000=2000 (10+a)
⇒ a=4 m/s upward
41.a 42.c 43.c
44.c I= P/4 π (5)² = 100/100 π =1/π
45.c
 96
46.a F1= x f ⇒ 1000= xf
478 9646
⇒ f= 857Hz
Again f11 = V/V+US xf= 350/100x857 Hz =750 Hz
47a. with ↑ in temperature, velocity ↑, so frequency ↑ & wavelength remains constant

48.c since, intensity ↓ by 20% on passing through a slab.

Therefore, intensity ↓ on passing through 2 slabs= (20+20/100x80)%

= 36%
49.d
(n+6)x95= (n-6)x100 ( where, n → frequency, nl → constant)
Therefore n= 234 Hz
50.b
51.a No of atom (z) = a3x ρxNA/M (where; a → edgelength
ρ → density
NA → Avogadro's number
M → molecular mass)
= (3.5x10-8)3x0.53x6.023x1023(∴ 3.5 A0=3.5 x10-8 cm)
6.94
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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam
=2
52.a. Due to Schottky defect density of crystal decreases
:/
53.d Mole fraction of H2=mole of H2/ mole of H2+ mole of thane =
:/:/9
= 15/16
54.c Vanderwall's equation of state for real gases is:
(P+a/v²) (v-b) = RT ( for 1 mole)
55.b 56.d
57.a Osmotic pressure (π)=CRT
= 0.05 mil l-1x0.082 l atm mol-1 k-1 x298 k
= 1.14 atm
58.b. Eqv. wt of metal = wt of metal combining with 8 gm of O2
= 0.5x8/0.79-0.50=0.5x8/0.29= 13.5 ≈ 14
59.b Bond order of O2,O2+,O2-&O22- are 2,2.5,1.5 & 1 respectively
60.b bond length = rH+rcl
= 1/2 (rH-H+rcl-cl) = 1/2 (74+198)=136 pm
61. c In SiF4, si has vacant d- orbital So, it can be lewis acid
62. a Pyrophosphoric acid is H4P2O7
63.c
64.d Equilibrium constant is affected only by temperature
65.d Degree of dissociation (∝)= D-d/d(n-1), where D= mol-mass/2
66.d Ka=C∝²=0.1x (0.001/100)² = 1.01x10-11
67.a 68.c
69.a ∆S= ∆H/T = 900x18/373 = 43.4 j mol-1 k-1
70.b
71.c Eocell = EoFe3+/Fe2+ -EoSn2+/sn
=0.77-(-0.14)
=+0.91V
72.d Cu2+ has greater reduction potential than Fe2+
73.c.
74.a 75.d
CaC2+N2 1000 c
0
76.c CaCN2 +C

Nitrolium which is a fertilizer

77.b H3BO3 is not a protonic acid
78.d SiO2+4HF → SiF4+2H2O
SiF4+2HF → H2SiF6
(Hydroflurosilicic acid)
79.a 2KNO3+4H2SO4+6FeSO4 → K2SO4+3Fe2 (SO4)3+ 2NO+4H21O
80.c
The structure of H2S2O8 ( Marshall's acid ) is:
O O
|| ||
HO - S - O - O - S - OH
|| ||
O O
81.d 3Cl2+6NaOH → 5NaCl+NaClO3+3H2O
(hot)

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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam
82.b In plattner chlorine process, roasted ore are treated with chlorine. The gold chloride is reated with reducing
agent like
H2S i.e. 2 AuCl3+3H2S → 2Au+3S+6HCl
83.c Mercuric chloride (corrosive sublimate) is a poison
84. d
85.b EAN=At.no- cationic charge + (co-ordination nox2)
=26-3+(6x2)
= 35
86.a As3+ is member of II B group
The group reagent for 3rd group is NH4OH in presence of NH4Cl.
87.b
88.a Resonating structure do not always possess identical bonding eq.
:O=C=O: ↔ : ö -C≡O: + ↔: O≡C-ö-
89.c In 1,1-dichloropentane i.e. Cl2 C=CHCH2CH2CH3, one of the double bonded carbon atom c1 has 2 similar atom. So
geometrical isomerism is not possible
90.c. No bond resonance is hyperconjugation
91.d δ- δ+
δ+
CH3CH2-NH-H + CH3-CH2- MgI → CH3 CH3+MgI NHCH2 CH3
92.a. C6H6 (i) O3 3 CHO
(ii) |
Zn/ CHO (glyoxal)
93.d C2Cl6 is known as artificial camphor
O C O
94.b +Na2C
CO +Na
O O O O

95.a Lesser is stearic hindrance, greater is the rate of esterification.

96.a C6H5-O-C2H5 + Conc. HBr ∆ C6H5OH+C2H5Br
97.c Mild oxidising agent only can do this
98.a CO
N
O Is most acidic due to ortho effect

O
||
99. b CH3-C ≡N +H2O acid CH3 -C-NH2
amide intermediate
O O
|| ||
CH3-C ≡NH2 +H2O acid CH3 -C-OH+NH3
(Acetic acid)

100.c 101.c 102.b 103.b 104.d 105.b 106.c 107.c 108.d 109.b 110.c 111.a 112.b 113.b
114.d 115.d 116.a 117.d 118.b 119.d 120.b 121.d 122.d 123.d 124.a 125.b 126.a 127.c
128.a 129.c 130.a 131.d 132.b 133.b 134.a 135.a 136.d 137.d 138.c 139.b 140.b 141.d
142.b 143.d 144.a 145.a 146.c 147.c 148.d 149.a 150.c 151.b 152.a 153.b 154.a 155.a
156.c 157.c 158.a 159.c 160.a 161.b 162.d 163.b 164.b 165.b 166.a 167.d 168.c 169.d
170.b 171.b 172.b 173.b 174.c 175.a 176.b 177.c 178.a 179.c 180.b 181.a 182.b 183.a
184.a 185.b 186.a 187.a 188.a 189.b 190.a 191.c 192.b 193.a 194.b 195.a 196.b 197.a
198.c 199.b 200.a

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 VIBRANT – BPKIHS Based Model Exam

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