CST-02

Code-A

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 02

INSTRUCTIONS :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
(vii) Answers to be marked on OMR sheet only.

PHYSICS

1. Moment of inertia of a non-uniform semi-circular 3. A block of mass 10 kg placed on a rough

ring about an axis passing through its centre and horizontal surface is acted upon by a force as
perpendicular to its plane will be [where M is Total shown. Frictional force acting on the block is
mass of ring and R is Radius of ring] 50 N
2
MR 37°
(1) (2) MR 2
2
MR 2 10 kg
(3) (4) Data insufficient
4
2. Two particles X and Y having equal charges, after ( s = 0.6,  k = 0.5)
being accelerated through same potential (1) 42 N
difference, enter a region of uniform magnetic field
and describe circular paths of radii R1 and R2 (2) 40 N
respectively. The ratio of mass of X to that Y is (3) 60 N
1 (4) 50 N
 R 2
(1)  1  4. Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal
 R2  gas expands from V1 to V2 in 3 different ways, the
R2 work done by the gas is W 1 if the process is
(2) R purely isothermal, W2 if purely isobaric and W3 if
1
purely adiabatic then,
2
 R1  (1) W2 > W1 > W3
(3)  
 R2  (2) W2 > W3 > W1
R1 (3) W1 > W2 > W3
(4) R
2 (4) W1 > W3 > W2

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Complete Syllabus Test - 02
5. The displacement-time graph of a moving particle 8. If force F, energy E and velocity v are chosen as
with constant acceleration is shown in figure below. fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula for
The velocity-time graph is given by acceleration will be
S (1) [FvE] (2) [Fv2E–1]
(3) [FvE–1] (4) [F–1v–2E1]
9. The total length of sonometer wire between fixed
ends is 110 cm. The two bridges are placed to
divide the length of wires in ratio 6 : 3 : 2. The
tension in the wire is 400N and the mass per unit
t(s) length is 0.01 kg/m, what is the minimum common
O frequency with which three parts can vibrate?
v
(1) 1100 Hz (2) 1000 Hz
(3) 166 Hz (4) 100 Hz
(1)    
10. It is known that A  R  B and R perpendicular
t   
O A . The angle between A and B is

 A
v (1) cos1  
R 

B
(2) cos1  
(2)  A

t R
(3) tan1  
O  A

v R
(4) sin1  
A
11. A zener diode is connected to battery and a load
(3) as shown below. The currents I, I Z and I L
respectively may be:
t
O
A
v IL
I IZ

10 V = V Z R1 = 2 k
60V
(4)

t
O
B
6. The ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength in
(1) 15 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA
Balmer series is
(2) 15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA
(1) 5 : 9 (2) 5 : 36
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 4 (3) 12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
7. A train is moving on a straight track with speed (4) 12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA
20 m/s. It is blowing its whistle at the frequency of 
12. Assume that an electric field E  30 x iˆ , exists in
2
1000 Hz. The percentage change in frequency
heard by a person standing near the track as train space. Then the potential difference VA – V0, where
passes him is nearly (speed of sound = 320 m/s) V0 is the potential at the origin and VA the potential
close to at x = 2m is
(1) 12% (2) 18% (1) –80 V (2) 80 V
(3) 24% (4) 6% (3) 120 V (4) –120 V

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 Complete Syllabus Test - 02
13. Four particles each of mass M and equidistant 18. The coordinates of a particle moving in a plane are
from each other, move along a circle of radius R given by x(t) = a cos(pt) and y(t) = b sin(pt) where
under action of their mutual gravitational attraction. a, b (<a) and p are positiv e constants of
The speed of each particle is appropriate dimensions, then
(1) Path of the particle is an ellipse
GM 1 GM
(1) (1  2 2) (2) (1  2 2) (2) Velocity and acceleration are normal to each
R 2 R
other at t = /p

GM GM (3) Acceleration is always directed towards (0, 0)

(3) (4) 2 2
R R (4) All of the above

14. Four bulbs B1, B2, B3 and B4 of 100 W each are 19. A series R–C circuit is connected to an alternating
connected to 220 V main as shown in the figure. source. Consider two situations
The reading in an ideal ammeter will be (a) When capacitor is air filled
(b) When capacitor is mica filled

B1 B2 B3 Current through resistor is i and voltage across

B4
220 V capacitor is V in the above situations.
(1) Va < Vb (2) Va > Vb
A
(1) 0.45 A (2) 0.90 A (3) ia > ib (4) Va = Vb

(3) 1.35 A (4) 1.80 A 20. A carnot engine absorbs 1000 J of heat energy from
a reservoir at 127°C and rejects 600J of heat
15. What is the minimum energy required to launch a energy during each cycle. The efficiency of engine
satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet of and temperature of sink will be
mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an
(1) 20% and –43°C (2) 40% and –33°C
altitude of 2R?
(3) 50% and –20°C (4) 70% and –10°C
2GmM GmM
(1) (2) 21. Radiation of wav elength  is incident on a
3R 2R
photocell. The fastest emitted electron has speed v.
GmM 5GmM 3
(3) (4) If the wavelength is changed to , the speed of
3R 6R 4
16. Two towers are separated by a distance d metre. fastest emitted electron will be
Two balls are projected simultaneously from the top
1 1
of two towers as shown above. The distance d so 4 2 4 2
that both will collide in mid air is (1)  v   (2)  v  
3 3
10 m/s 1 1
4 2 3 2
(3)  v   (4)  v  
10 2 m/s 3 4
22. A ball is dropped to the ground from a height 2 m.
45° The coefficient of restitution is 0.6. To what height
20 m
will the ball rebound after first impact?
10 m (1) 0.41 m (2) 0.9 m
(3) 0.72 m (4) 0.28 m
d
23. In Young’s double slit experiment intensity at a
(1) 10 metre (2) 20 metre  1
point is   of the maximum intensity. Angular
(3) 15 metre (4) They will not collide 4
position of this point
17. Three capacitance each of 3F are provided.
These cannot be combined to provide the resultant  1 
capacitance of (1) sin1 (2) sin
d 2d
(1) 1 F (2) 2 F  
(3) sin1 (4) sin1
(3) 4.5 F (4) 6 F 3d 4d

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Complete Syllabus Test - 02
24. When a system is taken from state i to state f B A
along path iaf, Q = 50 J and W = 20 J. Along path 
ibf, Q = 35J. If W = –13J for the curved return
path fi, Q for this path is

P C
a f
8
(1) sin  
9

i b 2 8
(2)  sin  
3 9
V
2
(3) sin  
(1) 33 J (2) 23 J 3
(4) None of these
(3) –7 J (4) –43 J
29. A rectangular loop carrying a current I is placed in
25. A shunt of resistance 1 is connected across a
different orientations as shown in figures below
galvanometer of 120  resistance. A current of
5.5 ampere gives full scale deflection in the z
galvanometer. The current that will give full scale
deflection in absence of shunt is nearly
(1) 5.5 Amp (2) 0.5 Amp B
(3) 0.004 Amp (4) 0.045 Amp (i)
26. A given quantity of an ideal gas is at pressure P y
I
and absolute temperature T. The isothermal bulk
modulus of the gas is x

3 z
(1) P (2) P
2
2
(3) P (4) 2P B
3
27. A diagram shows a venturimeter, through which (ii) y
water is f lowing. The speed of water at X
is 2 cm s –1 . The speed of water at Y is x I
(g = 1000 cm s–2)
z
5.1 mm
B

I
(iii) y
Y
X
(1) 23 cm s–1 x
(2) 101 cm s–1 z
(3) 32 cm s–1
(4) 1024 cm s–1 B
28. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed

in water (RI = 4 3 ). A light beam incident normally (iv) y

I
on the face AB is totally reflected to reach the face
BC if x

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 Complete Syllabus Test - 02
If there is uniform magnetic field in the +Z-direction, 34. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a
in which orientations the loop would be in frequency f. The frequency with which its kinetic
(a) stable equilibrium, (b) unstable equilibrium energy oscillates is
respectively?
f
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv) (1) (2) f
2
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii)
(3) 2f (4) 4f
30. A loop carries current ‘Io’ as shown. Then magnetic
field at centre ‘O’ is 35. Photons of an electromagnetic radiation has energy
11 keV each. To which region of electromagnetic
spectrum does it belong?

I0 2R (1) X-rays
(2) UV rays
O R (3) Infra rays
0I0 (4) Visible rays
(1) into the plane of paper
8R 36. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen
atom is 13.6 eV. The energy required to remove
0I0
(2) into the plane of paper the electron from 1st excited state of Li++ is
4R
(1) 122.4 eV (2) 30.6 eV
0I0 (3) 13.6 eV (4) 3.4 eV
(3) out of the plane of paper
8R
37. In a double slit experiment instead of taking slits
0I0 of equal width one slit is made twice as wide as
(4) out of the plane of paper the other then in the interference pattern
4R
(1) The intensities of both maxima and minima
31. A radioactive nuclei with decay constant 0.5/s is
being produced at a constant rate of 100 nuclei/s. increases
If at t = 0, there were no nuclei then time when (2) The intensity of maxima increases and minima
there are 50 nuclei is has 0 intensity
4 (3) The intensity of maxima decreases and that of
(1) ln 3s (2) ln   s minima increases
3
(4) The intensity of maxima decreases and the
4
(3) 1s (4) 2 lns minima has 0 intensity
3
32. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v 38. A particle of mass m moving in X-direction with
making an angle 30° with the horizontal. The speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass 2m
magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile moving in y direction with speed v. If collision is
about the point of projection when the particle is at perfectly inelastic the percentage loss in energy
maximum height is during the collision is close to
(1) 50% (2) 56%
3 mv 3 3 mv 2
(1) (2) (3) 62% (4) 44%
16 g 16 g
39. In the circuit shown in figure the heat produced in
mv 3 5  resistor due to current flowing is 10 cal/s.
(3) 0 (4) The heat generated in the 4  resistor is
2g

33. A circular hole of diameter 2.00 cm is made in an 4 6

aluminium plate at 0°C. What will be the diameter
at 100°C?
(Coefficient of linear expansion for aluminium
= 2.3 × 10–3/°C] 5
(1) 2.42 cm (2) 2.46 cm (1) 1 Cal/s (2) 2 Cal/s
(3) 2.40 cm (4) 2.45 cm (3) 3 Cal/s (4) 4 Cal/s
(5)
Complete Syllabus Test - 02
40. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Youngs moduli of 43. For the given transistor,  = 100 voltage drop
steel and brass wires in the figure are a, b and c across base emitter junction is 0.7 V. Then find VCE
respectively, then the corresponding ratio of
increase in their lengths is 18 V
100 
Steel
8.6 K
M

Brass

2M
3c 2a2c
(1) (2) 5V
2ab2 b
3a 2ac
(3) 2 (4) (1) 13 V (2) 5 V
2b c b2
(3) 10 V (4) 8V
41. For an ideal gas, the r.m.s speed at 800K is
44. A child is standing with folded hands at the centre
(1) Half the value at 200K
of a platform rotating about its central axis. The
(2) Double the value at 200 K kinetic energy of system is K. The child now
(3) Same as at 200 K stretches his arms so that the moment of inertia
of the system doubles. The kinetic energy of the
(4) Four times the value at 200 K
system now is
42. In an experiment of calibration of voltmeter a
K
standard cell of emf 1.1 volt is balanced against (1) 2K (2)
440 cm of potentiometer wire. The potential 2
difference across the ends of a resistance is found K
(3) (4) 4K
to balance against 220 cm of the wire of the 4
potentiometer. When potential difference in 45. 8 drops of a liquid of density  and each of radius
resistance is measured by voltmeter, reading a are falling through air with a constant velocity
comes out to be 0.5 volt. The error in the reading 3.75 cm/s when they coalesce to form a single
of voltmeter is drop the terminal velocity of the new drop will be
(1) –0.15 volt (2) 0.15 volt (1) 15 × 10–2 m/s (2) 2.4 × 10–2 m/s
(3) 0.5 volt (4) –0.05 volt (3) 0.75 × 10–2 m/s (4) 25 × 10–2 m/s

CHEMISTRY

46. Which of the following options is correct according 48. A hydrocarbon C7H12 on reaction with H2 in presence
to properties mentioned? of Lindlar’s catalyst yields X. On reductive ozonolysis
(1) H2O > Cl2O > F2O (Bond angle) X gives a mixture of two aldehydes Y and Z out of
(2) B(OH)3 < [B(OH)4]– (B—O Bond length) which only Y can give iodoform test. The structure of
hydrocarbon C7H12 is
(3) CH3Cl < CH3F (Dipole moment)
(4) (CH3)3N > (SiH3)3N (Bond angle) (1) (H3C)2CH — C  C — CH2CH3
O (2) (CH3)3C — C  C — CH3
(i) DIBAL – H (1eq)
47. CH3 CH 2 C OC2H5 A+B
(ii) H 3 O
+
(3) (CH3)2CHC  C — CH(CH3)2
A and B are
(4) CH3 — C  C — (CH2)2CH3
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH + C2H5OH
49. An ester (C4H8O2) reacts with 2 equivalents of
(2) CH3CH2CHO + C2H5OH
CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis with aq. acid to give
(3) CH3CH2CHO + CH3CHO an alcohol which give immediate turbidity with Lucas
(4) CH3CH2CH2OH + CH3CHO reagent. The ester and alcohol respectively are

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 Complete Syllabus Test - 02

O 54. Which of the following complex ions is more likely

to be colourless?
(1) CH3 – COC 2H5 , (CH3)3COH
(1) [Co(H2O)6]2+
O
(2) [Mn(CN)6]3–
(2) CH3 – C – OC2H 5, (CH3)2CHOH
(3) [CrCl3(H2O)3]
O (4) [Ag(NH3)2]+
(3) H – C – OC 3H7, (CH3) 2CHOH 55. An open container of volume ‘V’ contains air at
temperature 27°C. The container is heated to such
O
a temperature so that amount of gas coming out
(4) H – C – OC 3H7, (CH3) 3COOH 2
is of amount of gas initially present in the
50. Arrange the given alkyl-halides in decreasing order 3
of reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution container. The temperature is
reactions
(1) 200 K (2) 300 K
(3) 500 K (4) 900 K

Cl Br 56. W hat is the shortest wavelength line in the

I II Paschen series of Li+2 ion?

R 9
(1) (2)
9 R
Cl Br
III IV 1 9R
(3) (4)
(1) I > II > IV > III (2) I > III > II > IV R 4
(3) II > III > I > IV (4) IV > I > III > II 57. Strongest metal-carbon bond is present in
51. If CH3CH 2I is added to an ethanolic solution (1) Fe(CO)5 (2) Mn(CO)6+
containing excess of C2H5ONa, C2H5SNa and
NaOH in equimolar amounts. The major product (3) Cr(CO)6 (4) V(CO)6–
isolated is 58. [Co(en)2NO2Br]Cl can exhibit

(1) (2) (1) Optical isomerism but not geometrical

O OH
isomerism
(3) H2C = CH2 (4) S (2) Geometrical isomerism but not liknage
isomerism
52. The most suitable set of reagents to perform the
(3) Linkage isomerism but not optical isomerism
conversion is (4) Optical isomerism but not co-ordination
isomerism
(1) HBr, (CH3)3COK / (CH3)3COH
59. When 50ml of 0.1M NaOH is added to 50ml of
(2) HBr, alc KOH 0.1M CH3COOH solution, the pH will be [pka =
(3) HBr / Peroxide/h, CH3CH2OK / CH3CH2OH 4.74, log5 = 0.7]
(4) HBr / Peroxide/h, (CH3)3COK / (CH3)3COH (1) 4.74 (2) 5.28
53. In which of the following complexes, the central (3) 8.72 (4) 1.6
metal atom is d2sp3 hybridised and the complex
60. In homogeneous equilibrium A(g) + 3B(g) 
is/are diamagnetic?
4C(g). Initial concentration of A is equal to that of
[Co(NH3)6]Cl3 Na3[Co(ox)3] [Zn(H2O)6](NO3)2 B. If equilibrium concentrations of A and C are
I II III equal then the value of KC is
(1) I, II only (2) III only (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) I, II and III (4) II and III only (3) 6 (4) 8

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Complete Syllabus Test - 02
61. Which of the following reagents(s) can not be used 1
to distinguish primary amines from tertiary amines 67. The plot of log K versus of a first order reaction
T
(1) CHCl3/KOH/ is linear with a
(1) positive slope and zero intercept
(2) positive slope and non-zero intercept
(2)
(3) negative slope and non-zero intercept
(4) negative slope and zero intercept
(3) dil. H2SO4 68. The yellow colour of chromates changes to orange
(4) Both (2) and (3) on acidification due to formation of
62. Choose the correct option regarding basic strength (1) Cr3+
(2) Cr2O3
NH 2
(3) Cr2O72–
N N
I. II. III. (4) CrO4–
(1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I 69. Which of the following statements is not correct
(3) I > III > II (4) III > I > II when a mixture of CaCl2 and K2Cr2O7 is gently
warmed with conc. H2SO4?
63. Calculate the number of oxygen atoms required to
combine with 7 g of N2 to form N2O3 if 80% of N2 (1) Deep red vapours are evolved
is converted into products (2) Vapours when passed into NaOH solution
3 gives a yellow solution of Na2CrO4
N2 + O  N2O3
2 2 (3) Chlorine gas is evolved
(1) 3.24 × 1023 (2) 3.6 × 1023 (4) Chromyl chloride is formed
(3) 18 × 1023 (4) 6.02 × 1023
70. Vanadium electrode is oxidised electrically. If the
64. SO2 under atmospheric condition changes to SOx2–. mass of electrode decreased by 100 mg during
If oxidation number of S in SOx2– is +6, what is the passage of 570 coulomb, the oxidation state of
the value of x in SOx2–? vanadium in the product is (at wt of V = 51)
(1) 2 (2) 1
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 4 (4) 3
65. Consider the reaction with their equilibrium
constants 71. The limiting equivalent conductance of NaCl, KCl
and KBr are 126.5, 150.0 and 152.0 S cm2 eq–1
N2(g) + 3H2 (g)  2NH3(g), K1
respectiv ely. The limiting equiv alent ionic
N2(g) + O2 (g)  2NO(g), K2 conductance of Br– is 76 Scm2 eq–1. The limiting
1 ionic conductance of Na+ in S cm2 eq–1 is
H2(g) + O (g)  H2O(g), K3
2 2 (1) 25.5
The equilibrium constant for (2) 52.5
5 (3) 75.5
2NH3(g) + O (g)  2NO(g) + 3H2O(g) will be
2 2
(4) 57.5
K1K 2
(1) K1K2K3 (2) K 72. In the given anion, –ve charge is delocalised on
3

K1K32 K 2K 33
(3) (4)
K2 K1
66. The half life period of a radioactive substance is
69.3 minutes. In how much time will it be (1) One atom
disintegrated 80% of it’s original amount?
(2) Three atoms
[log5 = 0.7]
(1) 80 min (2) 100 min (3) Four atoms
(3) 140 min (4) 161 min (4) Five atoms

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 Complete Syllabus Test - 02
73. Least stable carbocation among the following is 78. Metal which cannot be extracted by smelting
process is
CH3 (1) Pb (2) Fe
H 3C C CH 3 CH3
(3) Zn (4) Al
(1) (2) 79. In brown ring test for nitrate ions, the complex
present in brown ring is
CH2
CH2  (1) [Fe(H2O)6]2+

(2) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+
 
(3) CH3 C CH3 (4) CH2 = CH CH2 (3) [Fe(H2O)5NO]3+
(4) [Fe(H2O)5NO2]2+
CH 3
80. Extrapure N2 can be obtained by heating
74. Out of the given isomeric hydrocarbons which will
undergo rearrangement reaction in acidic medium? (1) NH3 with CuO (2) NH4NO3
(3) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (4) Ba(N3)2
(1) (2) 81. In the f ollowing reaction
H2O Polymerisation
A B 3-D Polymer (C)
(–H2O)
(3) (4) Both (2) and (3)
if C is Silicone, A and B are
75. Which of the following has highest magnitude of (1) R2SiCl2 and R2Si(OH)2
enthalpy of hydrogenation?
(2) R2SiCl2 and R2Si = O
(3) RSiCl3 and RSi(OH)3
(1) (2) O
(4) RSiCl3 and RSi – OH
82. The ionic radii of Rb+ and I– are 1.4 Å and 2.1 Å.
The most probable type of structure exhibited by
(3) (4) RbI is
(1) CsCl type
76. McArthur-Forrest Cyanide process is associated (2) NaCl type
with the metallurgy of (3) ZnS type
(1) Fe (2) Cu (4) CaF2 type
(3) Ag (4) Zn 83. The correct order of flocculation value of KBr,
77. 0.1 M NaCl & 0.05 M BaCl 2 solutions are K2C2O4, K3[Fe(CN)6] for coagulation of Fe(OH)3
separated by a semi-permeable membrane in a solution is
container. For this system, choose the correct (1) K3[Fe(CN)6] > K2C2O4 > KBr
answer
(2) K2C2O4 > KBr > K3[Fe(CN)6]
(1) There is no movement of any solution across
(3) KBr > K2C2O4 > K3[Fe(CN)6]
the membrane
(4) KBr > K3[Fe(CN)6] > K2C2O4
(2) Net flow of water is from NaCl solution towards
BaCl2 solution 84. A metal carbonate (0.5 kg) gives 0.28 kg of its
oxide on heating. Hence, the equivalent weight of
0.2 metal is
(3) If BaCl 2 concentration were M , there
3 (1) 20 g eq–1
would have been no osmosis
(2) 40 g eq–1
(4) Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M NaCl is lower than
the osmotic pressure of 0.05 M BaCl2 (assume (3) 25 g eq–1
complete dissociation). (4) 30 g eq–1

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Complete Syllabus Test - 02
85. Which of the following compounds does not have 88. W hich of the f ollowing sets contains only
zero dipole moment? copolymers?
Cl (1) Melanine, Bakelite, PVC
Cl
(2) Buna-N, Nylon-6, Polythene
(1) (2)
(3) Buna-S, Nylon-6,6, Glyptal

Cl (4) Neoprene, Styrene, Polyisoprene

Cl
–
(3) PCl5 (4) ICl 2 89. Which of the following is not used a tranquilizer?

86. An orange coloured solution of K2Cr2O7 acidified (1) Iproniazid (2) Phenelzine
with H2SO4 and treated with substance X gives
(3) Salvarsan (4) Equanil
blue coloured solution of CrO5. The substance X is
90. What would be the net charge on the given amino
(1) H2O (2) dil HCl
acid at pH = 14?
(3) H2O2 (4) conc. HCl COOH O

—
87. At 300K, 4 gm Calcium is dissolved in HCl in an
H 2N — C — (CH 2)4 — C — OH
open vessel at the atmospheric pressure 0.821

—
atm. Work done by the system is H
(1) –2.463 L–atm (2) –1.231 L–atm (1) +1 (2) +2
(3) –4.626 L–atm (4) –0.2463 L–atm (3) –1 (4) –2

BOTANY

91. Choose wrong statement w.r.t bulliform cells (3) Wrinkled seeds and short strach grain
(1) Found on abaxial epidermis of grasses (4) Round seeds and intermediate starch grain
(2) Are large, empty and colourless cells 96. Which algae have chlorophyll a & d?
(3) Also called as motor cells (1) Brown algae (2) Red algae
(4) Help to minimise loss of water (3) Green algae (4) Blue green algae
92. A special structure, which is formed by the 97. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. Puccinia
extension of plasmamembrane in bacteria and (1) Called as rust fungi
contains vesicles, tubules and lamellae, is called (2) Sex organs are present
(1) Chromatophore (2) Gas vacuoles (3) Mycelium is branched and septate
(3) Mesosome (4) Inclusion bodies (4) Vegetativ e reproduction takes place by
fragmentation
93. Name of some plants are given in below box. How
many plants belong to family Solanaceae? 98. Match the columns and select the correct option
Tomato, Brinjal, Tulip, Aloe, Soyabean, Column I Column II
Chilli, Lupin, Sweet pea (A) Active transport (i) Binary fission
(1) Three (2) Five (B) Golgi body (ii) Na+/K+ pump
(3) Six (4) Eight (C) Mitochondria (iii) Acid hydrolase
94. In which organism, transcription and translation (D) Lysosome (iv) Packaging of proteins
take place in same compartment? (1) A(ii), B(iv), C(i), D(iii)
(1) Volvox (2) Penicillium
(2) A(ii), B(iv), C(iii), D(i)
(3) E.coli (4) Navicula
(3) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)
95. A large starch grain (BB) seeded pea plant is
(4) A(i), B(iii), C(ii), D(iv)
crossed with small starch grain (bb) seeded pea
plant. In F1 generation the grain having genotype 99. A population growing in a habitat with limited
Bb exhibit resources does not show
(1) Round seeds and large starch grain (1) Lag phase (2) Asymptote
(2) Round seeds and short starch grain (3) J-shaped curve (4) Sigmoid curve

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 Complete Syllabus Test - 02
100. Which of the following RNA polymerase transcribes 108. Pick up the wrong statement w.r.t Calvin cycle
precursor of mRNA?
(1) Calvin cycle occurs in all photosynthetic plants
(1) RNA polymerase-I (2) RNA polymerase-II
(2) Reduction phase of Calvin Cycle requires 12
(3) RNA polymerase-III (4) Both (1) and (2) ATP to fix 6CO2 molecules
101. Select the statement which best explains parasitism (3) Regeneration of RuBP is not crucial to
(1) One organism is benefited continue the cycle uninterrupted
(2) Both the organisms are benefited (4) Carboxylation is the most crucial step of the
(3) One organism is benefited, other is not affected Calvin Cycle

(4) One organism is benefited, other is harmed 109. Read the given statement A and B and choose
correct option
102. A multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium is found in
A Fermentation accounts for only a partial
(1) Michelia (2) Papaver
breakdown of glucose whereas in aerobic
(3) Hibiscus (4) Both (2) and (3) respiration it is completely degraded to CO2
103. Given pedigree shows inheritance of autosomal and H2O
recessive gene. What is the genotype of given parents B NADH is oxidised to NAD+ slowly in aerobic
X & Y respectively? respiration, however the reaction is very
vigorous in case of fermentation
(1) Both A and B and are correct
X Y
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(3) Only A is correct
(4) Only B is correct
110. Select the correct statement
(1) All ferns are heterosporous
(1) AA, aa (2) aa, AA (2) Selaginella, Azolla and Polytrichum show seed
(3) aa, Aa (4) Aa, Aa habit
104. Which of the following pairs is not correctly (3) Gymnospermic seeds are naked as they lacks
matched? seed coat
Mode of reproduction Example (4) Protonema is filamentous, green, branched
(1) Leaf buds Bryophyllum juvenile phase in moss
(2) Bulbil Agave 111. Read the following statements and choose how
many of them is/are correct?
(3) Binary fission Hydra
(4) Offset Eichhornia (i) Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites and
remain inert outside the host cell
105. Parietal placentation is found in
(ii) A virus can have both DNA and RNA as
(1) Primrose (2) Argemone genetic material
(3) Pea (4) Waterlily (iii) Viroids usually cause plant diseases
106. An international treaty known as the Montreal (iv) Virusoid are self replicating infectious RNA
protocol became effective in
particles
(1) 1987 (2) 1989
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) 1991 (4) 1982
(3) Two (4) One
107. The enzyme which plays an important role in
112. Choose the mis-matched pair
biological N2 fixation
(1) Coprophilous fungi – Mucor
(1) Glutamate dehydrogenase
(2) Basidiocarp – Truffles
(2) Transaminase
(3) Nitrogenase (3) Best decomposer – Club fungi

(4) Pyruvate kinase (4) Hartig net – Ectomycorrhiza

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Complete Syllabus Test - 02
113. These all are non-membranous structures, except 119. Match the columns and select the correct option
(1) Centriole (2) Ribosomes Column I Column II
(3) Thylakoid (4) Nucleolus (A) Auxin (i) Widely used PGR in
114. Choose wrong pairing agriculture
(1) Stem tendril and thorn – Homologous (B) Gibberellin (ii) Delay of senescence
organ
(C) Cytokinin (iii) Internode elongation
(2) Spine and thorn – Homologous
(D) Ethylene (iv) Promotes rooting
organ
(3) Sweet potato and potato – Analogous (1) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i) (2) A(iv), B(ii), C(iii), D(i)
structure (3) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv) (4) A(i), B(iii), C(ii), D(iv)
(4) Phyllode and phylloclade – Analogous 120. Floral f ormula K(5) C1+2 +(2) A(9) + 1 G 1
% +
structure
represents family
115. Match the given column
(1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae
Column I Column II
(3) Liliaceae (4) Brassicaceae
A. Racemose inflorescence (i) Solanaceae
121. Moll’s half leaf experiment demonstrates
B. Cymose inflorescence (ii) Acropetal
succession (1) CO2 is essential for photosynthesis
C. Hypogynous flower (iii) Hibiscus (2) O2 is evolved during photosynthesis
D. Monoadelphous stamens (iv) Opening of floral (3) Light is essential for photosynthesis
buds in (4) Both (1) and (2)
centrifugal
122. Choose the incorrectly matched pair
manner
(1) Sonalika – Wheat variety
(1) A(ii), B(iv), C(i), D(iii) (2) A(ii), B(i), C(iii), D(iv)
(2) IR - 8 – Rice variety
(3) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv) (4) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)
(3) Jaya – Maize variety
116. Ribonucleoprotein particles
(4) Himgiri – Wheat variety
A. Are called palade particle
123. The method of producing thousands of plants
B. Are also found on nuclear membrane
through tissue culture is called
C. Are cell inclusions of eukaryotes only
(1) Somatic hybridisation
D. Are made up of rRNA and proteins
(2) Micropropagation
(1) All are correct except A and B
(3) Biofortification
(2) All are correct except C
(4) Totipotency
(3) All are correct except C and D
124. In the sewage treatment, bacterial flocs are allowed
(4) All are correct except A to sediment in a settling tank. This sediment is
117. What is true about heartwood? called as
(i) It does not help in water conduction (1) Inactivated sludge (2) Activated sludge
(ii) It is also called alburnum (3) Primary sludge (4) Secondary sludge
(iii) It is dark in colour 125. BOD of wastewater is estimated by measuring the
amount of
(iv) Tyloses are found in it
(1) Total organic matter present in it
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) All (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) Biodegradable inorganic matter present in it
(3) (i), (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii)
(3) Oxygen evolution during aerobic sludge
118. The pyramid of number in tree ecosystem can be
digestion
(1) Inverted (2) Upright
(4) Oxygen consumption by f locs during
(3) Spindle (4) Both (1) and (3) degradation of organic matter

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 Complete Syllabus Test - 02
126. How many hot spots are identified globally? (1) A(iii), B(ii), C(i), D(v)
(1) 20 (2) 3 (2) A(iii), B(iv), C(ii), D(i)
(3) 34 (4) 50 (3) A(v), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)
127. One of the ex-situ conservation methods for (4) A(iv), B(i), C(iii), D(i)
endangered species is 132. W hich of the following hormones show their
(1) Wildlife sanctuaries (2) Biosphere reserves synergistic effect on cell division?
(3) Cryopreservation (4) National parks (1) Auxin and ABA
128. W hich of the following materials is non bio- (2) Gibberellin and cytokinin
degradable and causes biomagnification? (3) Cytokinin and ABA
(1) Coal (2) Urea (4) Auxin and cytokinin
(3) DDT (4) Nitrates 133. Choose the odd structure w.r.t. ploidy level in
129. The percentage of forest cover recommended by maize seed
the National Forest Policy (1988) is (1) Epiblast
(1) 33% for plains and 67 % for hills (2) Scutellum
(2) 37% for plains and 63% for hills (3) Coleorhiza
(3) 23% for plains and 77% for hills (4) Aleurone layer
(4) 30% for plains and 60% for hills 134. Penicillin inhibits bacterial multiplication because
130. The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is (1) It checks spindle formation
(1) Oxygen (2) NADH (2) It destroys chromatin
(3) ADP (4) ATP (3) It inhibits cell wall formation
131. Match the followin columns and select the correct (4) It checks RNA synthesis
option 135. How many additional ATP are used during
Column-I Column-II synthesis of two molecules of hexose sugar in
(A) Photolysis of water (i) Zinc maize than tomato?

(B) Nitrogenase (ii) Copper (1) 8

(C) Cytochromic C oxidase (iii) Manganese (2) 12

(D) Biosynthesis of IAA (iv) Molybdenum (3) 24
(v) Boron (4) 36

ZOOLOGY

136. Otolith organ consists of 139. Age-related disorder characterised by decreased

(1) Saccule and utricle bone mass is
(2) Semi-circular canals and saccule (1) Gout (2) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Semi-circular canals and utricle (3) Oseteoporosis (4) Muscular dystrophy
(4) Semi-circular canals and bony ossicles 140. At the base of buccal cavity there is a U-shaped
bone called
137. Expression of emotional reactions are under control
of (1) Sphenoid (2) Vomer
(1) Limbic system (3) Hyoid (4) Maxilla
(2) Cerebrum 141. Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes
place in
(3) Cerebellum
(1) PCT
(4) Corpora quadrigemina
(2) Descending loop of Henle
138. Joint present between atlas and axis vertebrae is
(3) Ascending loop of Henle
(1) Gliding (2) Pivot
(4) DCT
(3) Saddle (4) Hinge
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Complete Syllabus Test - 02
142. Depolarisation of ventricle is represented by (1) i - a; ii - b; iii - e; iv - c, d
(1) QRS complex (2) P-wave (2) i - b; ii - e; iii - a, f; iv - c, d
(3) T-wave (4) Q-T interval (3) i - b; ii - e; iii - a, c; iv - d
143. Peripheral chemoreceptor, w.r.t regulation of
(4) i - b; ii - a; iii - c,d; iv - e
breathing, is affected by levels of
(a) CO2 150. Which of the following is transported in intestinal
epithelial cells by Na+- dependent co-transport
(b) O2
process?
(c) H+ concentration in blood
(1) Fatty acids (2) Triglycerides
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) (3) Ribose (4) Alanine

144. Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a 151. Micelle formation is necessary for the intestinal
normal expiration is absorption of
(1) FRC (2) VC (1) Glycerol (2) Vitamin B12
(3) ERV (4) IRV (3) Bile salts (4) Vitamin D
145. Vomiting and diarrhoea respectively causes 152. The process of extraction of DNA from agarose gel
(1) Metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis after identification of position of gene of interest
(2) Metabolic alkalosis and metabolic acidosis through probe hybridisation is called
(3) Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis (1) Elution (2) Southern blotting
(4) Respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis (3) Northern blotting (4) Restriction digestion
146. Choose incorrect statement 153. On an average how much blood is filtered by
(1) Methionine is sulphur containing amino acid kidneys per minute?
(2) Right end of a polysaccharide is reducing (1) 125 ml (2) 1100 - 1200 ml
(3) Cellulose can hold iodine
(3) 5000 ml (4) 660 ml
(4) Inulin is a fructose polymer
154. During urine formation, the tubular cells secrete
147. Choose incorrect statement w.r.t. compound eye
which of the following into the filtrate?
of cockroach
(1) Mosaic vision with more sensitivity (a) H+ (b) K+
(2) Nocturnal vision with more resolution (c) Ammonia
(3) Each eye has about 2000 ommatidia (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(4) Can receive several images of an object (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
148. Choose incorrect statement w.r.t structure of DNA
155. Medullary osmolarity gradient in kidney is
(1) Bond between phosphate and hydroxyl group of maintained mainly by
sugar is an ester bond
(1) NaCl and urea
(2) Backbone is formed by sugar-phosphate-sugar
chain (2) Ketone bodies and H+
(3) The nitrogen bases are projected perpendicular (3) NH3 and urea
to the backbone
(4) H+ and NaCl
(4) At each base pair the strand turns 360°
156. W hich of the f ollowing is incorrect f or
149. Match the column and choose the correct option
angiotensin II?
Column A Column B
(1) It is a powerful vasoconstrictor
i. Annelida a. Calcareous exoskeleton
ii. Arthropoda b. Parapodia (2) It activ ates adrenal cortex to release
aldosterone
iii. Mollusca c. Anus dorsally located
iv. Echinodermata d. Ambulacral system (3) it activates PCT to absorb more Na + from
filtrate
e. Book gills, book lungs
f. Radula (4) It decreases BP

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 Complete Syllabus Test - 02
157. How many ribs are present in human body? 165. Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder?
(1) 14 (2) 16 (1) Diabetes insipidus type II
(3) 12 (4) 24 (2) Grave’s disease
158. ATP binding site is present in (3) Tetany
(1) Actin (2) Troponin (4) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Tropomyosin (4) Myosin 166. Germ layers are produced from A and
are B cells. What are A and B respectively?
159. Choose incorrect statement w.r.t girdles
(1) Hypoblast, Cuboidal
(1) Scapula is situated between second and
seventh ribs (2) Epiblast, Columnar

(2) Clavicle has two curvatures (3) Epiblast, Cuboidal

(3) Pelvis girdle consists of two coxal bones (4) Inner cell mass, Trophoblast

(4) Below acromion process there is a depression 167. During pregnancy the level of glucose in the
maternal blood increases due to
called acetabulum
(1) hCG (2) hCS
160. Read the statements (a to d)
(3) Epinephrine (4) Glucagon
(a) Pectoral girdle consists of scapula and clavicle
168. Which antibody provides natural passive immunity
(b) Patella covers the knee ventrally
to newly born baby?
(c) In human six ribs are vertebrochondral
(1) IgA (2) IgG
(d) Human ribs are bicephalic (3) IgM (4) IgE
How many of the above statements are incorrect? 169. Choose the correct statement
(1) 1 (2) 3 (1) Change in gene frequency of alleles in a
(3) 2 (4) 0 population does not result in evolution
161. Hyperpolarization of a neuron is mainly due to (2) Saltation is single step small mutation

(1) K+ outflux actively (3) Natural selection cannot affect Hardy-Weinberg

equilibrium
(2) K+ outflux passively
(4) Bottle neck effect decreases genetic variability
(3) Na+ outflux actively in a population
(4) Na+ outflux passively 170. Basis of vaccination is
162. Postganglionic fibre of parasympathatic neurons (1) Memory (2) Specificity
releases
(3) Discrimination (4) Diversity
(1) Acetylcholine (2) Epinephrine
171. Genetic material of HIV is
(3) Norepinephrine (4) Dopamine (1) dsRNA – one copy (2) ssRNA – one copy
163. Eustachian tube connects (3) ssRNA – two copies (4) ssDNA – two copies
(1) Oesphagus with pharynx 172. Which of the following is not a property of cancer
(2) Middle ear with oesophagus cell?

(3) Pharynx with middle ear (1) Loss of contact inhibition

(2) Metastasis
(4) Middle ear with internal ear
(3) Uncontrolled cell division
164. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia is linked to
(4) Mass of differentiated cells
(1) Conn’s disease
173. Which of the following is not produced from
(2) Addison’s disease Cannabis sativa?
(3) Cretinism (1) Marijuana (2) Hashish
(4) Grave’s disease (3) Charas (4) LSD

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Complete Syllabus Test - 02
174. Select the incorrect match w.r.t part of skeleton 177. Two peaks are observed, as both extremes of a
and number of bones associated. population is selected, in
(1) Ear ossicles-6 (1) Directional natural selection
(2) Hyoid bone-1 (2) Disruptive natural selection
(3) Axial skeleton-80 (3) Balancing natural selection
(4) Cranium-14 (4) Stabilising natural selection
175. Inhibin from sertoli cells inhibits 178. Most of the transgenic animals are
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Posterior pituitary (1) Sheep (2) Cattle
(3) Anterior pituitary (4) Testis (3) Goat (4) Mice
176. Match column A and B and choose the correct 179. Select the correct statement from the following
option (1) Thyroxine decreases heart beat rate
Column A Column B (2) At alveoli chloride ions enter RBCs from
(i) Rosie a. Vitamin A plasma in exchange of bicarbonate ions
(ii) Flavr savr b. Human milk protein (3) In Emphysema the surface area of gaseous
exchange is increased
(iii) Gloden rice c. Hirudin
(4) ST-Segment depression indicates that
(iv) Brassica d. Late ripening
myocardium getting less oxygen
(1) i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d
180. W hich of the f ollowing restriction enzymes
(2) i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c produces blunt ends after enzyme digestion?
(3) i - b, ii - d, iii - c, iv - a (1) Bam HI (2) Eco RI
(4) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a (3) Pst I (4) Sma I



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 Complete Syllabus Test - 02

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 02

ANSWERS

1. (2) 31. (4) 61. (3) 91. (1) 121. (1) 151. (1)
2. (3) 32. (1) 62. (1) 92. (3) 122. (3) 152. (1)
3. (2) 33. (2) 63. (2) 93. (1) 123. (2) 153. (2)
4. (1) 34. (3) 64. (4) 94. (3) 124. (2) 154. (4)
5. (1) 35. (1) 65. (4) 95. (4) 125. (4) 155. (1)
6. (1) 36. (2) 66. (4) 96 (2) 126. (3) 156. (4)
7. (1) 37. (1) 67. (3) 97. (2) 127. (3) 157. (4)
8. (2) 38. (2) 68. (3) 98. (1) 128. (3) 158. (4)
9. (2) 39. (2) 69. (3) 99. (3) 129. (1) 159. (4)
10. (3) 40. (3) 70. (4) 100. (2) 130. (4) 160. (4)
11. (3) 41. (2) 71. (2) 101. (4) 131. (2) 161. (2)
12. (1) 42. (4) 72. (4) 102. (1) 132. (4) 162. (1)
13. (2) 43. (1) 73. (4) 103. (1) 133. (4) 163. (3)
14. (3) 44. (2) 74. (4) 104. (3) 134. (3) 164. (2)
15. (4) 45. (1) 75. (1) 105. (2) 135. (3) 165. (2)
16. (2) 46. (2) 76. (3) 106. (2) 136. (1) 166. (2)
17. (4) 47. (2) 77. (3) 107. (3) 137. (1) 167. (2)
18. (4) 48. (2) 78. (4) 108. (3) 138. (2) 168. (1)
19. (2) 49. (1) 79. (2) 109. (3) 139. (3) 169. (4)
20. (2) 50. (3) 80. (4) 110. (4) 140. (3) 170. (1)
21. (1) 51. (4) 81. (3) 111. (3) 141. (4) 171. (3)
22. (3) 52. (4) 82. (2) 112. (2) 142. (1) 172. (4)
23. (3) 53. (1) 83. (3) 113. (3) 143. (4) 173. (4)
24. (4) 54. (4) 84. (1) 114. (2) 144. (1) 174. (4)
25. (4) 55. (4) 85. (1) 115. (1) 145. (2) 175. (3)
26. (2) 56. (3) 86. (3) 116. (2) 146. (3) 176. (2)
27. (3) 57. (4) 87. (1) 117. (3) 147. (2) 177. (2)
28. (1) 58. (4) 88. (3) 118. (4) 148. (4) 178. (4)
29. (2) 59. (3) 89. (3) 119. (1) 149. (2) 179. (4)
30. (1) 60. (4) 90. (4) 120. (2) 150. (4) 180. (4)

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