20/04/2020 CODE-B

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 9

Answer Key
1. (4) 37. (1) 73. (2) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (2) 38. (1) 74. (3) 110. (4) 146 (3)
3. (4) 39. (2) 75. (4) 111. (2) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (4) 76. (3) 112. (1) 148. (1)
5. (3) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (1) 149. (2)
6. (4) 42. (4) 78. (3) 114. (4) 150. (1)
7. (2) 43. (4) 79. (3) 115. (2) 151. (3)
8. (1) 44. (2) 80. (2) 116. (4) 152. (2)
9. (2) 45. (2) 81. (4) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (4) 46. (3) 82. (1) 118. (4) 154. (4)
11. (4) 47. (3) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (2) 48. (4) 84. (2) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (2) 85. (1) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (3) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (3) 158. (1)
15. (3) 51. (2) 87. (4) 123. (2) 159. (3)
16. (4) 52. (4) 88. (2) 124. (1) 160. (2)
17. (2) 53. (2) 89. (2) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (2) 162. (3)
19. (1) 55. (4) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (2)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (4) 164. (2)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (3) 129. (1) 165. (3)
22. (4) 58. (1) 94. (3) 130. (1) 166. (4)
23. (2) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (2)
24. (3) 60. (2) 96. (3) 132. (2) 168. (4)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (2) 133. (1) 169. (4)
26. (1) 62. (2) 98. (3) 134. (2) 170. (1)
27. (4) 63. (2) 99. (2) 135. (3) 171. (3)
28. (3) 64. (2) 100. (2) 136. (2) 172. (1)
29. (4) 65. (1) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (2)
30. (2) 66. (4) 102. (3) 138. (1) 174. (4)
31. (2) 67. (1) 103. (4) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (4) 68. (3) 104. (2) 140. (3) 176. (2)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (1) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (2) 70. (4) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (2) 107. (3) 143. (3) 179. (1)
36. (2) 72. (2) 108. (4) 144. (1) 180. (1)

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 Test-9 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

20/04/2020 CODE-B

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Test - 9

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
1. Answer (4) 6. Answer (4)
I – V characteristics of photodiode lies in third In positive half cycle ⇒ D ⇒ on ⇒ (V0 ) = 0 and
quadrant. D

2. Answer (2) (V0 )R = Vi

From the curve forward bias resistance
In negative half cycle ⇒ D = off ⇒ (V0 ) = Vi and
∆V 0.8 − 0.7 D
r= = = 10 Ω
fb
∆Ι ( 20 − 10 ) × 10−3 (V0 )R = 0
−10 V 7. Answer (2)
and reverse bias resistance =
rfb = 107 Ω
−1 µA Energy of light photons
rfb 10 12400
The required ratio = = 10−6 E eV = 2.2 eV
rrb 107 6000
3. Answer (4) The incident radiation which is detected by
photodiode, the photon energy should be greater
Option (1) represents the symbol of LED while than band gap. Hence only diode
Option (3) represents symbol of photodiode.
D2 ( Eg = 1.8 eV ) will detect this radiation.
Option (2) represents symbol of zener diode.
Here LED and photodiode are optoelectronic 8. Answer (1)
device When both inputs A and B are high diodes D1 and
4. Answer (2) D2 both will be off and output Y will be high. If any
The phase difference between input and output one or both input are low, then corresponding
diode(s) will be on and output Y will be low i.e.
signal in CE amplifier is π
corresponding truth table will be
 π 
Also, V0 = Vi A=
v
100 × 4 sin  100πt + + π  A B Y
 4 
0 0 0
 5π 
=V0 400 sin  100πt +  0 1 0
 4 
1 0 0
5. Answer (3)
1 1 1
In positive half cycle, diode is forward biased and
capacitor will be charged up to peak voltage of
given ac supply and capacitor will further retain 9. Answer (2)
this voltage
Vi − VBE 10 − 0
Hence VC = (110 2 ) 2 = 220 V At input loop =
iB = = 20 µA
RB 5 × 105
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

10 − VCE 10 − 4 16. Answer (4)

At output loop
= iC = = 3 mA t
RC 2 × 103
 N   1 T1/2
 N  =  2 
ΙC 3 × 10−3 3000  0
β= = = = 150
ΙB 20 × 10−6 20 t
1  1 T1/2
β =150 = 
32  2 
10. Answer (4) =t 5=
T1/2 500 years
eE 17. Answer (2)
Velocity at time t is =
v v0 + t
me
Since A = A0e −λt
momentum at time t is =
mev mev 0 + eE0t
 1  1
−λ   −
λ p0 mev 0 =A1 A= e  2λ  A0e 2
= = 0
λ0 p mev 0 + eEt  1
−λ  
λ0 =A2 A=
0
e  λ  A0e −1
λ=
 eE0t  A2 A0e −1
1 +  =
mev o 
 A1 A0e −1/2
11. Answer (4) 1
−
Number of spectral lines emitted n +1
C2 A2 = A1e 2

( n + 1)( n + 1 − 1) 18. Answer (3)

= 1/3
2 R = R0 ( A )
n ( n + 1) A ∝ R3
=
2
3
12. Answer (2) AX  2R 
= 
ABe  R 
r = r0 n 2
AX = 9 × 8 = 72
= 5.29 × 10−11 × 32
19. Answer (1)
= 47.61× 10 −11 m A A
As X →Z +1Y + e −1 + ν + Q
13. Answer (2) Z

E2 =
−13.6
= −3.4 eV
Q = mN ( ZAX ) − mN ( Z +A1Y ) − me  c 2
4
= m ( AX ) + Zm − Zm − m ( AY ) − m  c 2
ionization energy =−E2 =− ( −3.4 eV )  N Z e e N Z +1 e

= 3.4 eV = M ( AX ) − M ( AY )  c 2
 Z Z +1 
14. Answer (3) 20. Answer (3)
ωn ωn 1 Energy required in one day
Ratio= = +6
v n Rn ωn Rn = 10 × 24 × 60 × 60
10
Since R ∝ n 2 = 8.64 × 10 J
–13
Energy released per fusion = 5.2 × 10 J Mass
ωn1
⇒ ∝ 2 of 1H2 consumed in ore fusion = 4u
vn n
15. Answer (3) 4u
m= × 8.64 × 1010 = 6.65 × 1023 × 1.66 × 10 −27
2
H +16 O → 14N + 4 He 5.2 × 10−13
1 8 7 2
≈ 11× 10−4 kg
Hence atomic number and mass number of
product are Z = 7, A = 14 ≈ 1.1 g

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 Test-9 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

21. Answer (1) 28. Answer (3)

Mass number change only by α particle and λD
β=
atomic number by both α and β . d
A−4 λ 'D
Since A
Z
X →Z −2 Y + 24He β' =
d
A
and A
X →Z +1Y + e0 λ
Z −1
β' λ ' µ 1
9 α and 8β − = = =
Hence 92
U238  →82 Pb202 β λ λ µ
22. Answer (4) β 0.6 mm
β'= = = 0.4 mm
h µ 1.5
λ=
p 29. Answer (4)
λ1 p2 p 1 For non coherent waves phase difference varies
= = = with time and Intensity of resultant wave is given
λ 2 p1 p 1 by
23. Answer (2) Ι = Ι1 + Ι2
=
Kmax E photon − φ0 = Ι0 + Ι0

Since φ X < φZ < φy Ι = 2Ι0

So, K X > K Z > KY 30. Answer (2)

Due to point source light propagates in all
24. Answer (3) directions symmetrically and hence wavefront will
Photocell is the device which converts light be spherical
energy into electrical energy.
25. Answer (2)
For central maxima, net path difference
∆x =0
∆x d sin θ − d sin60
= = ° 0
1
Ι∝ ⇒ Intensity decreases inversely
⇒ sin
= θ sin 60° r2
⇒ θ= 60° proportional with the square of distance from
source.
26. Answer (1)
µ =tan i p 31. Answer (2)
When light is incident at Brewster’s angle,
4
=µ tan53
= ° reflected ray get polarised but emergent ray is
3 partially polarised. When unpolarised light passes
c through a polaroid and rotated is related, then at
µ=
v two positions minima will occurs but intensity will
be non-zero
c 3 × 108 9
v= = = × 108 32. Answer (4)
µ 4 4
  2µ sin β
3 Resolving power (R.P) =
1.22 λ
=v 2.25 × 108 m/s
i.e., R.P ∝ µ
27. Answer (4) 1
R.P ∝
2λD λ
= 2 × 10−3
a 33. Answer (1)
2 × 10−3 × 1× 10−3 5 r = h tan C
=D = m
2 × 6 × 10−7 3 = 1tan
= 45° 1m
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

1 1 1
− =
v 15 −30
1 1 1 1
=
− + =
v 30 15 30
Area =πr 2 =π m2
v = 30 cm
34. Answer (2)
41. Answer (2)
sin ( A + δm ) ( 60° + 46° )
sin 5
2 2 f = cm
µ= = 3
 A  60° 
sin   sin   100
2  2  =
PTotal = 60D
5
4  
sin53° 5 8 3
= = = = 1.6
sin30° 1 5 60D
Plens + Pcornea + Peyelens =
2
Plens + 40 + 21 =
60
35. Answer (4)
Magnifying power when image is formed at near = 60 − 61
Plens
f  f  Plens = –1 D
point M = − 0 1 + e 
fe  D 
42. Answer (4)
50  5  43. Answer (4)
= − 1+ = 12
5  25  13.6  −13.6 
36. Answer (2) E photon =
− 2 − 2  = 10.2 eV
2  1 
As parallel rays gets converge after reflection
from a mirror, hence mirror is converging mirror. φ0 =4.7 eV
37. Answer (1) =
K EPhoton −
= φ0 (10.2 − 4.7 ) eV
Shining of diamond decreases when it is
eVs = 5.5 eV
immersed in oil
Also, λBlue < λ red Stopping potential Vs = 5.5 V

Shining of air bubble in water is due to TIR 44. Answer (2)

because light rays traveling from denser to rarer 1 1 1 
medium may lead to TIR. = R − 2
λ 1 n 
38. Answer (1)
λR
µ2 µ1
µ2 − µ1 1 =λR −
− = n2
v u R
λR
1.5 1.2 1.5 − 1.2 =λR − 1
− = n2
v −10 −60
1.5 −0.3 1.2 λR
= − n=
v 60 10 λR − 1
1.5 ( 0.3 + 7.2 ) 45. Answer (2)
= −
v 60 Y = A.AB . B.AB
v = −12cm
= A.AB + B.AB
39. Answer (2)
40. Answer (4) = A.AB + B.AB
Given f = −30 cm , u = +15 cm , u = ? = A. ( A + B ) + B.( A + B )
from lens formula
= AB + AA + BA + BB
1 1 1
− = = AB + AB
v u f

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Test-9 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (3) 54. Answer (4)
o-nitrobenzoic acid is strongest acid among the
given options both because of strong -I effect of Electron withdrawing group present at o/p
NO2 and ortho-effect. p-nitrobenzoic acid is position to the ester group makes the ester
stronger than o-methylbenzoic acid because of carbonyl carbon more electron deficient and
strong -R effect.
47. Answer (3)
Phenol is less acidic than H2CO3 hence it will not hence hydrolysis is fastest in
liberate CO2 from NaHCO3 solution.
48. Answer (4)
Sucrose is non reducing sugar hence does not
55. Answer (4)
reduce Fehling solution.
49. Answer (2) 56. Answer (2)

50. Answer (2) 57. Answer (3)

Aliphatic aldehyde reacts fastest in nucleophilic
58. Answer (1)
addition reaction
59. Answer (2)

60. Answer (2)

Rosenmund reduction

51. Answer (2)

52. Answer (4)

• Compounds having group and 61. Answer (2)

group give positive iodoform test.

• Esters and amides do not give positive
iodoform test.
53. Answer (2)
62. Answer (2)

Paracetamol :

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

63. Answer (2) 71. Answer (2)

Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction

72. Answer (2)

• 73. Answer (2)

NaBH4 reduces carbonyl compounds but does not
react with ester.
74. Answer (3)
Aniline cannot be synthesized by Gabriel
• phthalimide synthesis because Ph–Br cannot
undergo SN2 reaction, which is required in Gabriel
phthalimide synthesis.
64. Answer (2)
75. Answer (4)
65. Answer (1)
Ph − N2+ Cl− is soluble in water.
66. Answer (4)
67. Answer (1) 76. Answer (3)

68. Answer (3)

69. Answer (4)

77. Answer (4)

78. Answer (3)
HVZ reaction

79. Answer (3)

80. Answer (2)
81. Answer (4)
82. Answer (1)
70. Answer (4) 83. Answer (2)

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Test-9 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

84. Answer (2) 88. Answer (2)

Carbonyl compounds which contain at least 2α

hydrogen give aldol condensation reaction.

89. Answer (2)

85. Answer (1)

86. Answer (3)

87. Answer (4)
Hydrophobic part in benzaldehyde is biggest
among the given options hence least soluble in
90. Answer (3)
water.

BOTANY
91. Answer (2) Plants capture only 2 – 10 % of PAR and convert
92. Answer (1) it into biomass.
93. Answer (3) 103. Answer (4)
Net primary productivity. In secondary succession, climax community is
reached more quickly.
94. Answer (3)
104. Answer (2)
Fragmentation converts detritus into fine
particles. 1° consumers are also known as key industry
animals.
95. Answer (2)
105. Answer (1)
96. Answer (3)
106. Answer (2)
Sparrow when eats seeds, it is a primary
consumer, if it eats insects and worms, it is a log S = log C + Z log A
secondary consumer 107. Answer (3)
97. Answer (2) 108. Answer (4)
Climax community would be forest in hydrarch Rauwolfia is not alien species in India.
succession usually. 109. Answer (3)
98. Answer (3) Cryopreservation is a ex-situ conservation
Nitrogen and carbon nutrient cycle are of strategy.
gaseous type. 110. Answer (4)
99. Answer (2) Biosphere reserve is a on-site or in-situ
About 71% carbon is found dissolved in oceans, conservation strategy while rest all are ex-situ
while only 1% is found in atmosphere. conservation strategies.
100. Answer (2) 111. Answer (2)
Phytoplanktons Western Ghat is one of the biodiversity hotspot in
101. Answer (3) India. Hotspots have very high level of species
richness.
Humus content of soil is high in climax
community. 112. Answer (1)
102. Answer (3) 113. Answer (1)

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

114. Answer (4) 124. Answer (1)

Bastar and Chanda areas are located in Madhya 125. Answer (3)
Pradesh. Biomagnification of chemicals such as D.DT. etc
115. Answer (2) is the major cause of thinning of egg shell in
hawks.
According to the ‘Rivet popper hypothesis’
airplane represents ecosystem and rivet 126. Answer (2)
represents different species. Lake with low organic matter has low BOD and
116. Answer (4) thus least polluted.
117. Answer (3) 127. Answer (3)
Aesthetic pleasure is broadly utilitarian, while O3 and O2 are not greenhouse gases while all
other are narrowly utilitarian services of other pair includes green house gases.
biodiversity. 128. Answer (4)
118. Answer (4) 129. Answer (1)
119. Answer (2) 130. Answer (1)
Tropics, low latitude and low altitude has high 131. Answer (2)
degree of biodiversity. In scrubbing mechanism, effluents containing
120. Answer (3) SO2 are passed through the scrubber having
121. Answer (4) CaCO3 and can be removed easily.
122. Answer (3) 132. Answer (2)
Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to 133. Answer (1)
decline in plant production, reduced resistance to 134. Answer (2)
environment perturbations, and increased
135. Answer (3)
variability of ecosystem processes.
Ahmed Khan is famous for making polyblend out
123. Answer (2)
of waste plastic.

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (2) 142. Answer (3)
Salmonellosis or pullorum in poultry is caused by Golden rice has been used to treat vitamin A
Salmonella pullorum. deficiency as it accumulates more β -carotene.
137. Answer (3) 143. Answer (3)
Two enzymes are responsible for restricting Microinjection is more precise than gene gun.
growth of bacteriophage in E. coli are methylase
Electroporation increases the permeability of
and restriction endonuclease.
protoplast membrane, making the entry of
138. Answer (1) molecules into cells much easier.
Sma I produces blunt ends upon digestion 144. Answer (1)
whereas other given enzymes produce sticky
Taq polymerase can withstand, temperature upto
ends.
95°C.
139. Answer (2) 145. Answer (3)
DNA ligases are molecular glue which form Pure DNA fragments cannot be seen in visible
phosphodiester bond between adjacent light without staining.
nucleotides and covalently link individual
fragments of dsDNA. 146 Answer (3)
140. Answer (3) Nosema is a protozoan causing pebrine disease.
MCS is also called polylinker. 147. Answer (4)

141. Answer (4) Bioprocess engineering enables growth of only

the desired microbes in large quantities for
a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) manufacture of biotechnological products.

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Test-9 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

148. Answer (1) 161. Answer (3)

Polyethylene glycol can be used for protoplast When the bacterium contacts a damaged plant
fusion. cell, it delivers T-DNA fragment from plasmid into
149. Answer (2) host cells that integrates with plant genome.
162. Answer (3)
Bt crops are insect resistant.
Patent is a set of exclusive rights granted by a
150. Answer (1) state to an invention in exchange of public
ERT is not a permanent cure as the enzyme is disclosure of an invention.
not being formed in the body. 163. Answer (2)
151. Answer (3) These particles are coated with DNA and are
E. coli is a symbiotic bacteria residing in human bombarded using biolistics. It is a vectorless
gut. method of rDNA transfer.
152. Answer (2) 164. Answer (2)
GEAC is Genetic Engineering Approval DNA fragments being negatively charged move
Committee and it validates the introduction of GM towards anode.
organisms for public services. 165. Answer (3)
153. Answer (4) DNA appears as a collection of fine threads in the
suspension after treatment with chilled ethanol
Part labelled ‘A’ is the stirrer which facilitates
which is then removed by spooling.
even mixing and oxygen availability throughout
the bioreactor. 166. Answer (4)
154. Answer (4) cryIAc and cryIIAb control cotton bollworms.
pUC8 does not contain gene for tetracycline 167. Answer (2)
resistance, therefore it is sensitive to tetracycline Alkaline pH of gut of insect solubilises the crystals
and recombinants appear white after insertional which binds to surface of epithelial cells of midgut
inactivation in the presence of X-gal. and create pores that cause cell swelling and
lysis.
155. Answer (2)
168. Answer (4)
Cohen and Boyer synthesised the first rDNA
using the plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium. Transgenic models exist for many human
diseases such as cancer, cystic fibrosis,
156. Answer (2) rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s disease.
Rosie produced human protein enriched milk 169. Answer (4)
(2.4 grams/litre)
The enzymes frequently used in ELISA include
157. Answer (2) peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase.
RAPD – Random amplification of polymorphic 170. Answer (1)
DNA. If the gene isolated from marrow cells producing
PAGE – Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic
– used for separation of proteins. stages, it could be a permanent cure.
HPLC – High performance liquid 171. Answer (3)
chromatography. Retrovirus can transform normal cells to
cancerous cells.
158. Answer (1)
172. Answer (1)
RNAi is done using dsRNA. RNAi is a highly
conserved gene regulatory mechanism that Nucleus are of two types – exonucleases and
controls the expression of genes at post endonucleases. Endonucleases cleave DNA at
transcriptional level. specific positions within the DNA.
159. Answer (3) 173. Answer (2)
An alien DNA linked with ori can replicate and
C peptide is not present in mature insulin.
multiply itself in host organism.
160. Answer (2) 174. Answer (4)
ampr – Pst I, Pvu I Green revolution made extensive use of
rop – Pvu II herbicides and pesticides to obtain more yield.

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-9 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

175. Answer (3) 178. Answer (2)

In continuous culture system, used medium is The transgenic plant got itself protected from the
drained out from one side while fresh medium is parasite as the parasite did not survive in a
added from the other to maintain cells in their log transgenic host expressing specific interfering
phase. RNA.
176. Answer (2)
179. Answer (1)
Downstream processing include separation and
purification etc. so that product can be made It was given to a 4 year old girl with ADA
ready for marketing as a finished product. deficiency.
177. Answer (4) 180. Answer (1)
Genetically modified crops are pest resistant
Hisardale has ben developed by crossing
crops, hence have reduced reliance on chemical
Bikaneri ewes and Merino rams.
pesticides.

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